TEST BANK FOR CONCEPTUAL PHYSICS 12TH EDITION by QuentinAxel

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 1 About Science 1.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Science is a body of knowledge that A) describes order in nature. B) is an ongoing human activity. C) condenses knowledge into testable laws. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Scientific Measurements 2) To a fair approximation, Early Greeks knew the A) size of Earth. B) size of the Moon. C) Earth-Moon distance. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Scientific Measurements 3) When the Sun shines on the Moon, the Moon casts a shadow A) at all times. B) that is tapered. C) that sometimes falls on Earth. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Scientific Measurements 4) Eratosthenes first learned about the position of the Sun in mid-summer by A) consulting library information. B) setting up a stick at Syene. C) setting up a stick at Alexandria. D) setting up sticks at both Syene and Alexandria. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Scientific Measurements

5) Eratosthenes' measurements of Earth's size involved A) a deep well in Syene. B) a pillar's shadow in Alexandria. C) surveying the distance between Alexandria and Syene. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Scientific Measurements 6) When we see a half Moon in the sky, the lines between Earth, Moon, and Sun A) are equal in length. B) are parallel to one another. C) form a right triangle. D) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Scientific Measurements 7) Spots of sunlight on the ground cast through openings between leaves in trees above are actually A) images of the Sun. B) part of a solar eclipse. C) due to refraction of sunlight. D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Scientific Measurements 8) A simple method of measuring the distance between the Earth and the Moon is to place in your line of sight to the Moon a A) magnifying glass. B) coin. C) telescope. D) meterstick. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Scientific Measurements 9) The safest way to view an image of the Sun is to use A) a telescope. B) binoculars. C) a pinhole. D) colored sunglasses. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Scientific Measurements 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) The scientific method is most effective in A) making hypotheses. B) gaining, organizing, and applying new knowledge. C) discovering new things. D) making theories. E) performing experiments. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Scientific Methods 11) An educated scientific guess is a A) hypothesis. B) theory. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Scientific Methods 12) Facts in the field of science A) are absolute. B) are changeable. C) mean very little. D) are more important than theories. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Scientific Methods 13) The synthesis of a large collection of information that contains well-tested and verified hypotheses about certain aspects of the world is known as a scientific A) fact. B) hypothesis. C) law or principle. D) theory. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Scientific Methods 14) A theory in the field of science is A) an educated guess. B) less than a fact. C) a synthesis of a large body of well-tested knowledge. D) unchangeable. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Scientific Methods 3 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) When a dishonest scientist reports false information, he or she A) as in many other professions, will be excused by the scientific community. B) gets no second chance in the scientific community. C) is elevated in the scientific community. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Scientific Methods 16) Which of the following is a scientific statement? A) candy Bon Bons contain no sugar B) there are things we will never know about C) matter is filled with undetectable particles D) there are parts of the universe that will never be discovered by humans E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Scientific Methods 17) For a scientific hypothesis to be valid, there must be a test for proving it A) right. B) wrong. C) conclusively one way or the other. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Scientific Methods 18) The statement, "There are regions beneath Earth's crust that will always be beyond the reach of scientific investigation" is A) a fact. B) speculation. C) a hypothesis. D) a scientific statement. E) a theory. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Scientific Methods 19) Pseudoscience is best characterized as being A) new age. B) an alternate view to be taken seriously. C) fake. D) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Scientific Methods 4 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) Science, art, and religion normally need not contradict one another because A) all three involve different domains. B) choosing the right one means no need to heed the other two. C) choosing religion and art means no need to heed science. D) choosing science means no need to heed religion and art. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Science, Art, and Religion 21) A truly educated person is knowledgeable about A) science. B) the arts. C) religion. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Science, Art, and Religion 22) Science and technology are A) responsible for all the good in the world. B) responsible for all the bad in the world. C) actually one and the same. D) fundamentally different from each other. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Science and Technology 23) Technology is a tool that can A) be socially beneficial. B) be socially harmful when abused. C) lead to a better world. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Science and Technology 24) The most basic of the sciences of physics, chemistry, and biology is A) physics. B) chemistry. C) biology. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Physics-the Basic Science

25) Which of the following involves passion, talent, and intelligence? A) art B) literature C) music D) science E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Physics-the Basic Science

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 2 Newton's First Law of Motion: Inertia 2.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The earliest and most influential Greek philosopher was Aristotle, who among many contributions taught that A) the four elements are earth, water, air, and fire. B) all motion is either natural or violent. C) violent motion requires a sustained push or pull. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Aristotle on Motion 2) Science later greatly advanced when Galileo favored A) philosophical discussions over experiment. B) experiment over philosophical discussions. C) nonmathematical thinking. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Aristotle on Motion 3) The first scientist to be credited for postulating that Earth circled the Sun was A) Aristotle. B) Copernicus. C) Galileo. D) Newton. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Aristotle on Motion 4) The first scientist to introduce the concept of inertia was A) Aristotle. B) Galileo. C) Newton. D) Copernicus. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Galileo's Experiments

5) Inertia is defined as a A) force. B) property of matter. C) change in motion. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Galileo's Experiments 6) Galileo's use of inclined planes allowed him to effectively A) slow down the ball's changes in speed. B) reduce the time of the ball's changes in speed. C) eliminate all changes in speed. D) eliminate friction. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Galileo's Experiments 7) Galileo's interpretation of motion differed from Aristotle's in that Galileo emphasized A) the acceleration of free fall. B) rates of time. C) the role of distance in describing motion. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Galileo's Experiments 8) If no external forces act on a moving object, it will A) continue moving at the same speed. B) move slower and slower until it finally stops. C) come to an abrupt halt. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Galileo's Experiments 9) Galileo taught us that if you roll a ball along a level surface it will A) soon slow down due to its natural place. B) keep rolling if friction is absent. C) roll as long as its inertia nudges it along. D) soon roll in the opposite direction. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Galileo's Experiments

10) A hockey puck sliding across the ice finally comes to rest because A) it seeks its proper and natural state. B) of friction. C) that's just the way it is. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Galileo's Experiments 11) A hockey puck is set in motion across a frozen pond. If ice friction and air resistance are neglected, the force required to keep the puck sliding at constant velocity is A) equal to its weight. B) equal to its weight divided by its mass. C) equal to its mass times its weight. D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's First Law 12) The amount of force needed to sustain motion of a rock in outer space is A) a force equal to its weight. B) a force less than its weight if friction is absent. C) none of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's First Law 13) When no forces act on moving objects their paths are normally A) straight lines. B) circles. C) ellipses. D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's First Law 14) If gravity between the Sun and Earth suddenly vanished, Earth would continue moving in A) a curved path. B) an outward spiral path. C) an inward spiral path. D) a straight-line path. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's First Law

15) Whirl a rock at the end of a string and it follows a circular path. If the string breaks, the tendency of the rock is to A) follow a circular path. B) slow down. C) follow a straight-line path. D) stop. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's First Law 16) Which concept is being illustrated when a tablecloth is quickly yanked beneath dishes resting on a table? A) equilibrium B) friction C) support force D) inertia Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's First Law 17) When you flick a card from beneath a coin that hardly moves, you're illustrating A) inertia. B) equilibrium. C) support force. D) friction. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's First Law 18) A sheet of paper can be quickly jerked beneath a container of milk without toppling, which best demonstrates A) net force. B) the difference between force and mass. C) inertia. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's First Law 19) A roller-coaster ride with 6 passengers takes 3 minutes. Neglecting friction, a similar ride with 12 passengers aboard would take A) 1.5 minutes. B) 3 minutes. C) 6 minutes. D) 18 minutes. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's First Law 4 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) A package falls off a truck that is moving at 30 m/s. Neglecting air resistance, the horizontal speed of the package just before it hits the ground is A) zero. B) less than 30 m/s but more than zero. C) about 30 m/s. D) more than 30 m/s. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's First Law 21) If your automobile runs out of fuel while driving, the engine stops. You don't come to an abrupt stop due to A) inertia. B) gravity. C) resistance. D) the principle of continuation. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's First Law 22) When a rocket ship gaining speed in outer space runs out of fuel, it A) gains speed for a short time, then slows down to a constant velocity. B) gains speed for a short time, slows down, and eventually stops. C) no longer gains speed. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's First Law 23) A moving van with a stone lightly glued to the midpoint of its ceiling smoothly moves at constant velocity. When the glue gives way, the stone falls and hits the floor A) ahead of the midpoint of the ceiling. B) exactly below the midpoint of the ceiling. C) behind the midpoint of the ceiling. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's First Law 24) While you are standing in the aisle of a bus, the driver suddenly makes a left turn. You lurch to the right due to A) an unbalanced force. B) your tendency to keep moving forward. C) an equilibrium challenge. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's First Law 5 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

25) Due to inertia, perhaps a railroad train in motion should continue moving indefinitely when its engine is turned off. This is not observed because railroad trains A) aren't massive enough. B) are too heavy. C) ride on straight tracks. D) encounter opposing forces. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's First Law 26) Tension is actually a force that tends to A) stretch something. B) compress something. C) break something. D) balance something. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's First Law 27) Nellie pulls with a force of 50 N on a horizontal rope tied to a tree at rest. The net force on the rope is A) 50 N and rope tension is 0 N. B) 50 N and rope tension is also 50 N. C) zero and rope tension is 50 N. D) zero and rope tension is also zero. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's First Law 28) Two students engaged in a tug-of-war each pull a rope in opposite directions with a force of 400 N. The net force on the rope is A) zero and rope tension is 400 N. B) zero and rope tension is 800 N. C) 400 N and rope tension is 800 N. D) 400 N and rope tension is also 400 N. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's First Law

29) When you quickly jerk a cart forward that has a ball resting in the middle, the A) front of the cart hits the ball. B) back of the cart hits the ball. C) neither, for the ball rides along in the middle as the cart moves forward. D) All of the above depending on how quickly the cart is pulled. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's First Law 30) A force is a vector quantity because it has both A) magnitude and direction. B) mass and velocity. C) action and reaction counterparts. D) speed and direction. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Net Force and Vectors 31) Which of the following is a vector quantity? A) area B) volume C) mass D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Net Force and Vectors 32) A block pulled to the left with 15 N and to the right with 5 N at the same time experiences a net force of A) 5 N. B) 10 N. C) 15 N. D) 20 N. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Net Force and Vectors 33) A tree stump is pulled northward by a 10-N force at the same time a 25-N force pulls it southward. The resultant force has a magnitude of A) 0 N. B) 15 N. C) 25 N. D) 150 N. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Net Force and Vectors 7 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

34) When a pair of 10-N forces act on a box of candy, the net force on the box is A) zero. B) about 14 N. C) 20 N. D) Any of the above depending on the directions of forces. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Net Force and Vectors 35) A pair of 10-N vectors at right angles to each other has a resultant of about A) 10 N. B) 14 N. C) 20 N. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Net Force and Vectors 36) The resultant of a 40-N force at right angles to a 30-N force is A) 30 N. B) 40 N. C) 50 N. D) greater than 50 N. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Net Force and Vectors 37) When Nellie Newton hangs by the ends of a rope draped over a large pulley, the tension in each supporting vertical strand is A) half her weight. B) equal to her weight. C) twice her weight. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Net Force and Vectors 38) If Nellie hangs from a horizontal bar that is supported by four vertical ropes, the tension in the ropes A) are each half her weight. B) are each equal to her weight. C) add to equal her weight. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Net Force and Vectors 8 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

39) A parallelogram is a four-sided figure with opposite sides that are A) equal. B) parallel. C) at right angles. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Net Force and Vectors 40) A pair of wires support a heavy painting. Tension in the wires is greater when they are A) vertical. B) not vertical. C) the same regardless of the wire orientation. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Net Force and Vectors 41) Suspend your body from a pair of vertical ropes and the tension in each rope will be A) half your weight. B) equal to your weight. C) greater than your weight. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Net Force and Vectors 42) Suspend your body from a pair of ropes slightly angled from the vertical and the tension in each rope will be A) equal your weight. B) half your weight. C) greater than half your weight. D) none of these Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Net Force and Vectors 43) When Nellie Newton hangs at rest in the middle of a clothesline, tensions will be the same in each side of the rope when A) the lengths of each rope are the same. B) the angles for both sides of the rope are equal. C) she is in equilibrium. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Net Force and Vectors

44) When Nellie Newton hangs at rest in the middle of a clothesline, the tension will not be the same in each side of the rope when A) the lengths of rope on each side are different. B) the angles at each side of the rope are unequal. C) she is in equilibrium. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Net Force and Vectors 45) Monkey Mo hangs from the middle of a horizontal rope. Tension in the rope is greatest if the rope A) sags a lot. B) sags very little. C) sags or doesn't sag, for tension is the same in any case. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Net Force and Vectors 46) Nellie hangs from a pair of ropes at an angle. Tension in the ropes depends on the A) length of the ropes. B) angle of the ropes. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Net Force and Vectors 47) The net force on any object in equilibrium is A) zero. B) equal to its weight. C) less than its weight. D) non-zero when motion is involved. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Equilibrium Rule 48) The equilibrium rule, ΣF = 0, applies to A) objects or systems at rest. B) objects or systems in uniform motion in a straight line. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Equilibrium Rule 10 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

49) The equilibrium rule applies to A) vector quantities. B) quantities that are equal in magnitude. C) scalar quantities. D) any kind of quantities. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Equilibrium Rule 50) An object in mechanical equilibrium is an object A) moving with constant velocity. B) having no changes in velocity. C) at rest. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Equilibrium Rule 51) When Burl and Paul stand on opposite ends of a sign-painting scaffold, the tensions in the supporting ropes A) are equal. B) depend on the relative weights of Burl and Paul. C) combine to equal zero. D) are in equilibrium. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Equilibrium Rule 52) If Burl carries Paul piggy-back while standing in the middle of a scaffold, the tensions in the two supporting ropes would A) cancel to zero. B) be equal. C) be in dynamic equilibrium. D) more easily support Burl and Paul. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Equilibrium Rule 53) Burl and Paul paint signs together on a scaffold. Compared to their weights plus the weight of the scaffold, the sum of tensions in the supporting ropes is A) less. B) the same. C) greater. D) zero. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Equilibrium Rule 11 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

54) Burl and Paul have a total weight of 1300 N. The tensions in the supporting ropes that support their scaffold add to 1700 N. The weight of the scaffold itself must be A) 300 N. B) 400 N. C) 500 N. D) 600 N. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Equilibrium Rule 55) A hockey puck sliding at constant velocity across the ice is A) in equilibrium. B) nearly in equilibrium. C) is nowhere near being in equilibrium. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Equilibrium Rule 56) The net force acting on an insect falling downward at constant velocity is A) zero. B) the weight of the insect. C) upward air resistance. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Equilibrium Rule 57) The force of friction on a sliding object is 10 N. The applied force needed to maintain a constant velocity is A) more than 10 N. B) less than 10 N. C) 10 N. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Equilibrium Rule 58) The minimum number of forces that act on a book resting on a table is A) 1. B) 2. C) 3. D) 4. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Support Force 12 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

59) The support force on a 10-N book at rest on a table is A) slightly less than 10 N. B) 10 N. C) slightly greater than 10 N. D) dependent on the position of the book. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Support Force 60) Jason weighs 150 N and sits on his big brother's shoulders. Big brother weighs 400 N. The support force supplied by the floor must be A) 150 N. B) 400 N. C) 550 N. D) more than 550 N. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Support Force 61) The support force on a 30-kg dog sleeping on the floor is A) less than 300 N. B) about 300 N. C) more than 300 N. D) nonexistent while asleep. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Support Force 62) When you stand at rest on a pair of bathroom scales, the reading on each scale A) is half your weight. B) equals your weight. C) add up to equal your weight. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Support Force 63) Weigh yourself on a weighing scale and the scale shows your normal weight. If you carefully stand on tiptoes, the scale reading will be A) slightly more. B) slightly less. C) about half as much. D) no different. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Support Force 13 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

64) An 800-N man stands at rest on two bathroom scales so that his weight is distributed evenly over both scales. The reading on each scale is A) 200 N. B) 400 N. C) 800 N. D) 1600 N. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Support Force 65) The force that causes Earth to orbit the Sun is due to gravity, while the force needed to keep Earth moving as it circles the Sun is A) inertia. B) due to gravity. C) due to both inertia and gravity. D) no force at all. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: The Moving Earth 66) If you toss a coin straight upward while in a train moving at constant velocity, the coin will land A) as if you were at rest. B) in front of you. C) in back of you. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: The Moving Earth 67) If you toss a coin straight upward in train that gains speed while the coin is in the air, the coin will land A) as if you were at rest. B) in front of you. C) in back of you. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: The Moving Earth 68) If you toss a coin straight upward in train that slows while the coin is in the air, the coin will land A) as if you were at rest. B) in front of you. C) in back of you. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: The Moving Earth 14 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

69) A gymnast performing somersaults in a high-flying plane moving at constant velocity needs to make A) small adjustments to compensate for the airplane's velocity. B) major adjustments to compensate for the airplane's velocity. C) no adjustments. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: The Moving Earth 70) Earth continually moves about 30 km/s through space, which means the wall you stand next to also is moving at 30 km/s. When you jump vertically the wall doesn't slam into you because A) the speeds of you and Earth cancel out. B) you're moving horizontally just as fast as the wall. C) your upward motion is small compared with Earth's speed. D) motion of the Sun counteracts your motion. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: The Moving Earth 71) A bird sitting on the limb of a tree is moving about 30 km/s with respect to the Sun. If the bird takes 1 second to drop down to a worm below, the worm would be 30 km downrange from the bird when it reached the ground. This faulty reasoning is best countered with Newton's A) law of inertia. B) law of gravity. C) laws of motion. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: The Moving Earth

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 3 Linear Motion 3.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) A mosquito flying at 3 m/s that encounters a breeze blowing at 3 m/s in the same direction has a speed of A) 0 m/s. B) 3 m/s. C) 4 m/s. D) 6 m/s. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Motion is Relative 2) A mosquito flying at 3 m/s that encounters a breeze blowing at 3 m/s in the opposite direction has a speed of A) 0 m/s. B) 3 m/s. C) 4 m/s. D) 6 m/s. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Motion is Relative 3) Katelyn runs along the aisle of a train that moves at 8 m/s. Her speed relative to the floor is 3 m/s. Her speed relative to an observer at rest on the ground is A) 5 m/s. B) 11 m/s. C) either depending on her running direction D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Motion is Relative 4) You're at rest in a hammock when a hungry mosquito sees an opportunity for lunch. A mild 2 m/s breeze is blowing. If the mosquito joins you for lunch it should hover over you by flying A) against the breeze at 2 m/s. B) with the breeze at 2 m/s. C) a bit faster than wind speed. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Motion is Relative

5) Jogging Jake runs at 4 m/s along a train flatcar that moves at 10 m/s in the same direction. Jake's speed relative to the ground is A) 6 m/s. B) 10 m/s. C) 14 m/s. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Motion is Relative 6) Jogging Jake runs at 4 m/s along a train flatcar that moves at 10 m/s in the opposite direction. Jake's speed relative to the ground is A) 6 m/s. B) 10 m/s. C) 14 m/s. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Motion is Relative 7) The speedometer of an automobile reads A) average speed. B) instantaneous speed. C) accelerated speed. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Speed and Velocity 8) The two measurements necessary for calculating average speed are A) acceleration and time. B) velocity and time. C) distance and time. D) distance and acceleration. E) velocity and distance. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Speed and Velocity 9) When you walk at an average speed of 4 m/s, in 5 s you'll cover a distance of A) 2 m. B) 10 m. C) 15 m. D) 20 m. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Speed and Velocity 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) A vehicle undergoes acceleration when it A) gains speed. B) loses speed. C) changes its direction. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Speed and Velocity 11) The average speed of a horse that gallops 10 kilometers in 30 minutes is A) 15 km/h. B) 20 km/h. C) 30 km/h. D) 40 km/h. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Speed and Velocity 12) A ball rolls along a horizontal track in a certain time. If the track has a dip in it, the time to roll the length of the track will be A) less. B) the same. C) more. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Speed and Velocity 13) A ball rolls along a horizontal track in a certain time. If the track has a small upward dent in it, the time to roll the length of the track will be A) less. B) the same. C) more. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Speed and Velocity 14) While a car travels around a circular track at a constant speed, its A) acceleration is zero. B) velocity is zero. C) inertia is zero. D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Acceleration

15) If a car increases its velocity from zero to 60 m/s in 10 seconds, its acceleration is A) 3 m/s2. B) 6 m/s2. C) 60 m/s2. D) 600 m/s2. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Acceleration 16) An object covers a distance of 8 meters in the first second of travel, another 8 meters during the next second, and 8 meters again during the third second. Its acceleration is A) 0 m/s2. B) 5 m/s2. C) 8 m/s2. D) 24 m/s2. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Acceleration 17) A cart maintains a constant velocity of 100 m/s for 10 seconds. During this interval its acceleration is A) zero. B) 1 m/s2. C) 10 m/s2. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Acceleration 18) A cart changes its speed from 90 m/s to 100 m/s in 10 seconds. During this interval its acceleration is A) zero. B) 1 m/s2. C) 10 m/s2. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Acceleration

19) If an object moves with constant acceleration, its velocity must A) be constant also. B) change by the same amount each second. C) change by varying amounts depending on its speed. D) always decrease. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Acceleration 20) A rock dropped from a 5-m height accelerates at 10 m/s2 and strikes the ground 1 s later. If the rock is dropped from a height of 2.5 m, its acceleration of fall is A) half. B) the same. C) twice. D) four times as much. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Acceleration 21) A ball tossed vertically upward rises, reaches its highest point, and then falls back to its starting point. During this time the acceleration of the ball is always A) in the direction of motion. B) opposite its velocity. C) directed upward. D) directed downward. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Acceleration 22) A car's speed 3 seconds after accelerating from rest at 2 m/s2 is A) 2 m/s. B) 3 m/s. C) 4 m/s. D) 6 m/s. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Acceleration

23) A ball starting from rest at the top of an inclined plane gains a speed of 2 m/s for each second it rolls. What is its acceleration down the incline? A) 0.5 m/s2 B) 1 m/s2 C) 2 m/s2 D) 4 m/s2 Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Acceleration 24) A ball starting from rest at the top of an inclined plane accelerates at 2 m/s2 and reaches the bottom of the plane in 3 seconds. What is the length of the plane? A) 2 m B) 3 m C) 5 m D) 9 m Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Acceleration 25) The time it takes a car to attain a speed of 30 m/s when accelerating from rest at 2 m/s 2 is A) 2 s. B) 15 s. C) 30 s. D) 60 s. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Acceleration 26) What is the acceleration of a car that starts from rest and 5 seconds later reaches a speed of 20 m/s? A) 1 m/s2 B) 2 m/s2 C) 3 m/s2 D) 4 m/s2 E) 5 m/s2 Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Acceleration

27) Ten seconds after starting from rest, a car is moving at 40 m/s. What is the car's acceleration? A) 0.25 m/s2 B) 2.8 m/s2 C) 4.0 m/s2 D) 10 m/s2 E) 40 m/s2 Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Acceleration 28) If a rocket initially at rest accelerates at a rate of 50 m/s2 for one minute, its speed will be A) 50 m/s. B) 500 m/s. C) 3000 m/s. D) 3600 m/s. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Acceleration 29) The accelerations possible for a ball on an inclined plane A) range from zero to g. B) range from g to infinity. C) have no limit. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Acceleration 30) A freely-falling watermelon falls with constant A) velocity. B) speed. C) acceleration. D) distances each successive second. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Free Fall 31) While an iron block near the Earth's surface is in free fall, it undergoes an increase in A) speed. B) acceleration. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Free Fall

32) The distance a freely falling bowling ball falls each second A) is about 5 m. B) is about 10 m. C) increases. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Free Fall 33) Twelve seconds after starting from rest, a freely-falling cantelope has a speed of A) 10 m/s. B) 50 m/s. C) 100 m/s. D) more than 100 m/s. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Free Fall 34) An apple falls from a tree and hits the ground 5 meters below with a speed of about A) 5 m/s. B) 10 m/s. C) 15 m/s. D) 20 m/s. E) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Free Fall 35) If a stone falls to the bottom of a mineshaft in 6 seconds, then the depth of the shaft is about A) 60 m. B) 120 m. C) 180 m. D) more than 200 m. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Free Fall 36) If a freely falling object were equipped with a speedometer, its speed reading would increase each second by about A) 5 m/s. B) 10 m/s. C) 15 m/s. D) a variable amount. E) depends on its initial speed Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Free Fall 8 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

37) If a freely falling object were equipped with a speedometer on a planet where the acceleration due to gravity is 20 m/s2, then its speed reading would increase each second by A) 10 m/s. B) 20 m/s. C) 30 m/s. D) 40 m/s. E) depends on its initial speed Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Free Fall 38) If an object falling freely were somehow equipped with an odometer to measure the distance it travels, then the amount of distance it travels each succeeding second would be A) constant. B) less and less each second. C) greater than the second before. D) doubled. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Free Fall 39) An object at rest near the surface of a distant planet starts to fall freely. If the acceleration there is twice that of the Earth, its speed one second later would be A) 10 m/s. B) 20 m/s. C) 30 m/s. D) 40 m/s. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Free Fall 40) A ball is thrown upwards and returns to the same location. Compared with its initial speed its speed when it returns is about A) half as much. B) the same. C) twice as much. D) four times as much. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Free Fall

41) At one instant an object in free fall is moving downward at 50 m/s. One second later its speed is A) 25 m/s. B) 50 m/s. C) 55 m/s. D) 60 m/s. E) 100 m/s. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Free Fall 42) At one instant a heavy object in air is moving upward at 50 m/s. One second later its speed is approximately A) 40 m/s. B) 50 m/s. C) 55 m/s. D) 60 m/s. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Free Fall 43) The distance a freely falling object falls from rest in one-half second is A) 2 m. B) 4 m. C) 6 m. D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Free Fall 44) One half second after starting from rest, a freely falling object will have a speed of about A) 2 m/s. B) 5 m/s. C) 10 m/s. D) 20 m/s. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Free Fall

45) An object falls freely from rest on a planet where the acceleration due to gravity is 20 m/s 2. After 5 seconds, the object will have a speed of A) 5 m/s. B) 10 m/s. C) 20 m/s. D) 50 m/s. E) 100 m/s. Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Free Fall 46) An object falls freely from rest on a planet where the acceleration due to gravity is twice as much as on Earth. In the first 5 seconds it falls a distance of A) 100 m. B) 150 m. C) 250 m. D) 500 m. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Free Fall 47) If you throw a ball straight downward (in the absence of air resistance), after leaving your hand its acceleration is A) less than 10 m/s2. B) 10 m/s2. C) greater than 10 m/s2. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Free Fall 48) The time it takes a projectile fired straight up at 10 m/s to reach the top of its path is about A) 1 s. B) 2 s. C) 10 s. D) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Free Fall

49) The total time it takes a projectile fired straight up at 10 m/s to reach the top of its path and return to its starting point is about A) 1 s. B) 2 s. C) 10 s. D) 20 s. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Free Fall 50) Neglecting air resistance, how fast must you toss a ball straight up in order for it to take 6 seconds to return to its initial level? A) 5 m/s B) 10 m/s C) 20 m/s D) 30 m/s E) more than 30 m/s Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Free Fall 51) When a ball thrown straight upwards reaches the very top of its path, its acceleration is A) zero. B) 5 m/s2. C) 10 m/s2. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Free Fall 52) The muzzle velocity of a bullet fired from a new rifle is 100 m/s. Neglecting air resistance, at the end of one second a bullet fired straight up into the air will have traveled a distance of A) (100 - 5) m. B) (100 + 5) m. C) 100 m. D) 5 m. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Free Fall

53) Neglecting air resistance, a bullet fired straight down from the top of a high cliff has an acceleration of A) less than 10 m/s2. B) 10 m/s2. C) more than 10 m/s2. D) depends on the height of the cliff. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Free Fall 54) A bullet is dropped into a river from a very high bridge at the same time as another bullet is fired straight downward from a rifle. Neglecting air resistance, the acceleration just before striking the water is A) greater for the dropped bullet. B) greater for the fired bullet. C) the same for each bullet. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Free Fall 55) Phil Physiker standing at the edge of a cliff throws one ball straight up and another ball straight down, both with the same speed. Neglecting air resistance, which ball hits the ground below with the greater speed? A) the one thrown upward B) the one thrown downward C) neither, both hit with the same speed Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Free Fall 56) Neglecting air resistance, a ball projected straight upward so it remains in the air for 10 seconds needs an initial speed of A) 50 m/s. B) 60 m/s. C) 80 m/s. D) 100 m/s. E) 110 m/s. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Free Fall

57) A ball is projected 125 meters straight upward and then falls the same distance back to its starting point. Neglecting air resistance, its total time in the air is about A) 5 s. B) 10 s. C) 15 s. D) more than 20 s. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Free Fall 58) A pot that falls from a ledge and hits the ground 45 m below hits the ground at A) 30 m/s. B) 60 m/s. C) 120 m/s. D) more than 120 m/s. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Free Fall 59) The vertical height attained by a basketball player who achieves a hang time of a full 1 s is about A) 0.8 m. B) 1 m. C) 1.2 m. D) 2.5 m. E) more than 2.5 m. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Free Fall 60) Compared with hang time on Earth, hang time on the Moon would be A) less. B) the same. C) greater. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Free Fall 61) As water drops fall at a steady rate from a leaking faucet they A) get closer together. B) get farther apart. C) remain at a relatively fixed distance from one another. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Free Fall

62) Phil leans over the edge of a cliff and throws a rock upward at 5 m/s. Neglecting air resistance, one second later the rock's speed is A) zero. B) 5 m/s. C) 10 m/s. D) 15 m/s. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Free Fall 63) Phil leans over the edge of a cliff and throws a rock upward at 5 m/s. Neglecting air resistance, two seconds later the rock's speed is A) zero. B) 5 m/s. C) 10 m/s. D) 15 m/s. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Free Fall 64) Phil leans over the edge of a cliff and throws a rock upward at 5 m/s. How far below the level from which it was thrown is the rock 2 seconds later? A) 5 m B) 10 m C) 15 m D) 20 m Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Free Fall 65) Which of the following is not a vector quantity? A) velocity B) speed C) acceleration D) all are vector quantities E) none are vector quantities. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Velocity Vectors

66) An 80-km/h airplane flying in the same direction as a 10 km/h tail wind has a groundspeed of A) 10 km/h. B) 70 km/h. C) 80 km/h. D) 90 km/h. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Velocity Vectors 67) An 80-km/h airplane flying against a 10-km/h head wind has a groundspeed of A) 10 km/h. B) 70 km/h. C) 80 km/h. D) 90 km/h. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Velocity Vectors 68) An airplane that flies at 100 km/h in a 100-km/h crosswind has a ground speed of A) 0 km/h. B) 100 km/h. C) 141 km/h. D) 200 km/h. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Velocity Vectors 69) An 80-km/h airplane caught in a 60-km/h crosswind has a resultant speed of A) 60 km/h. B) 80 km/h. C) 100 km/h. D) 141 km/h. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Velocity Vectors 70) A bird flying at 8 km/h in a 6-km/h crosswind has a resultant speed of A) 6 km/h. B) 8 km/h. C) 10 km/h. D) 14 km/h. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Velocity Vectors

71) A seagull flying at 10 km/h in a 10-km/h crosswind has a resultant speed of A) 10 km/h. B) about 14 km/h. C) 20 km/h. D) more than 20 km/h. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Velocity Vectors 72) A humming bird flying at 4 km/h that gets caught in a 3-km/h crosswind has a resultant speed of about A) 3 km/h. B) 4 km/h. C) 5 km/h. D) more than 5 km/h. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Velocity Vectors 73) A motorboat that normally travels at 8 km/h in still water heads directly across a 6-km/h flowing river. The resulting speed of the boat is about A) 6 km/h. B) 8 km/h. C) 10 km/h. D) 20 km/h. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Velocity Vectors 74) A river 100 m wide flows due south at 1 m/s. A boat that travels 1 m/s relative to the water is pointed due east as it crosses from the west bank. The boat reaches the east bank A) due east of its starting point. B) 100 m farther south. C) 141 m farther south. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Velocity Vectors

75) A river 100 m wide flows 1 m/s due south. A boat that travels 1 m/s relative to the water is pointed due east as it crosses from the west bank. Relative to its starting point, the boat travels A) nowhere. B) 100 m. C) 141 m. D) 200 m. E) more than 200 m. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Velocity Vectors

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 4 Newton's Second Law of Motion 4.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Whenever the net force on an object is zero, its acceleration A) may be less than zero. B) is zero. C) may be more than zero. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Force Causes Acceleration 2) If an apple experiences a constant net force, it will have a constant A) velocity. B) speed. C) acceleration. D) position. E) more than one of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Force Causes Acceleration 3) If you double the net force on an object, you'll double its A) acceleration. B) speed. C) velocity. D) all the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Force Causes Acceleration 4) If the net force on a cart is tripled, the cart's acceleration A) is one third. B) is two thirds. C) is three times as much. D) is more than three times as much. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Force Causes Acceleration

5) A mobile phone is pulled northward by a force of 10 N and at the same time pulled southward by another force of 15 N. The resultant force on the phone is A) 0 N. B) 5 N. C) 25 N. D) 150 N. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Force Causes Acceleration 6) The force of friction on a sliding object is 10 N. The applied force needed to maintain a constant velocity is A) more than 10 N. B) less than 10 N. C) 10 N. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Friction 7) A 10-N falling object encounters 4 N of air resistance. The net force on the object is A) 0 N. B) 4 N. C) 6 N. D) 10 N. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Friction 8) A 10-N falling object encounters 10 N of air resistance. The net force on the object is A) 0 N. B) 4 N. C) 6 N. D) 10 N. E) none of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Friction

9) A 300-kg bear grasping a vertical tree slides down at constant velocity. The friction force between the tree and the bear is A) 30 N. B) 300 N. C) 3000 N. D) more than 3000 N. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Friction 10) The newton is a unit of A) force. B) mass. C) density. D) inertia. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Mass and Weight 11) An object's weight is properly expressed in units of A) meters. B) kilograms. C) newtons. D) cubic centimeters. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Mass and Weight 12) Which has the greater mass? A) a king-size pillow B) an automobile battery C) both the same Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Mass and Weight 13) A 1-kg mass at the Earth's surface weighs A) 1 N. B) 5 N. C) 10 N. D) 12 N. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Mass and Weight

14) A kilogram is a measure of an object's A) force. B) mass. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Mass and Weight 15) The mass of a lamb that weights 110 N is about A) 1 kg. B) 11 kg. C) 110 kg. D) 1100 kg. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Mass and Weight 16) The mass of a pet turtle that weighs 10 N is about A) 1 kg. B) 10 kg. C) 100 kg. D) 1000 kg. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Mass and Weight 17) A bag of groceries that has a mass of 10 kilograms weighs about A) 1 N. B) 10 N. C) 100 N. D) 1000 N. E) greater than 1000 N. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Mass and Weight 18) Compared to the mass of an apple on Earth, the mass of the apple on the Moon is A) one sixth as much. B) the same. C) six times as much. D) zero. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Mass and Weight 4 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

19) Compared to a 1-kg block of solid iron, a 2-kg block of solid iron has twice as much A) inertia. B) mass. C) volume. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Mass and Weight 20) Compared to a 1-kg block of solid iron, a 2-kg block of solid iron has the same A) mass. B) volume. C) weight. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Mass and Weight 21) Your weight as measured on your bathroom scale is A) equal to your mass. B) the force due to gravity on you. C) a property of mechanical equilibrium. D) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Mass and Weight 22) An object with twice as much mass as another object has twice as much A) inertia. B) speed. C) acceleration due to gravity. D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Mass and Weight

23) Strange as it may seem, it is just as difficult to accelerate a car on a level surface on the Moon as it is here on Earth because A) the mass of the car is independent of gravity. B) the weight of the car is independent of gravity. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Mass and Weight 24) In which case would you have the largest mass of gold? If your chunk of gold weighed 1 N on the A) Moon. B) Earth. C) planet Jupiter. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Mass and Weight 25) At equilibrium on a bathroom weighting scale, the downward pull of gravity on you is balanced by A) your weight. B) an upward support force. C) your mass. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Mass and Weight 26) When you stand at rest with your left foot on one bathroom scale and your right foot on a similar scale, each of the scales will A) read half your weight. B) read your weight. C) show readings that when added equal your weight. D) cancel your weight. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Mass and Weight 27) A heavy ball hangs by a string, with a second string attached to its bottom (Figure 4.8 in your book). A quick pull on the bottom string breaks the A) top string. B) bottom string. C) top or bottom string equally. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Mass and Weight 6 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) A heavy ball hangs by a string, with a second string attached to its bottom. A slow pull on the bottom string breaks the A) top string. B) bottom string. C) top or bottom string equally. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Mass and Weight 29) When the bottom string is pulled slowly in the heavy-ball-and-strings demonstration (Figure 4.8 in your book), tension A) in the top string is due to your pull plus the weight of the ball. B) is about the same in both strings. C) in the bottom string is zero. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Mass and Weight 30) A rock weighs 30 N on Earth and another rock weighs 30 N on the Moon. Which rock has the greater mass? A) the one on Earth B) the one on the Moon C) They have the same mass. D) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Mass and Weight 31) A constant net force on a rail-road car produces constant A) velocity. B) acceleration. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 32) If an object's mass is decreasing while a constant force is applied to the object, the acceleration A) decreases. B) increases. C) remains the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion

33) If the mass of a cart is quickly loaded to have twice the mass while a propelling force remains constant, the cart's acceleration A) quadruples. B) doubles. C) stays the same. D) halves. E) none of these Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 34) An apple weighs 1 N. When the apple is held at rest above your head, the net force on the apple is A) 0 N. B) 0.1 N. C) 1 N. D) 9.8 N. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 35) An apple at rest weighs 1 N. The net force on the apple when it is in free fall is A) 0 N. B) 0.1 N. C) 1 N. D) 9.8 N. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 36) Which has zero acceleration? An object A) at rest. B) moving at constant velocity. C) in mechanical equilibrium. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion

37) A car by itself is capable of a certain maximum acceleration. When it tows a car of the same mass, its maximum acceleration is A) one half. B) one third. C) one fourth. D) the same. E) none of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 38) A car by itself is capable of a certain maximum acceleration. When it tows a twice-asmassive car, its maximum acceleration is A) one half. B) one third. C) one fourth. D) the same. E) none of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 39) You drive your car at a constant 60 km/h along the highway. You apply the brakes until the car slows to 40 km/h. If at that moment you suddenly release the brakes, the car tends to A) momentarily regain its higher initial speed. B) continue moving at 40 km/h. C) decrease in speed if no other forces act. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 40) A heavy block at rest is suspended by a vertical rope. When the block accelerates upward by the rope, the rope tension A) is less than its weight. B) equals its weight. C) is greater than its weight. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion

41) If a non-rotating object has no acceleration, then we can say for certain that it is A) at rest. B) moving at constant non-zero velocity. C) in mechanical equilibrium. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 42) A car has a mass of 1000 kg and accelerates at 2 m/s2. What net force is exerted on the car? A) 500 N B) 1000 N C) 1500 N D) 2000 N E) none of these Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 43) A tow truck exerts a force of 3000 N on a car, which then accelerates at 2 m/s2. What is the mass of the car? A) 500 kg B) 1000 kg C) 1500 kg D) 3000 kg E) none of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 44) Nellie pulls on a 10-kg wagon with a constant horizontal force of 30 N. If there are no other horizontal forces, what is the wagon's acceleration? A) 0.3 m/s2 B) 3.0 m/s2 C) 10 m/s2 D) 30 m/s2 E) 300 m/s2 Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion

45) A force of 1 N accelerates 1-kg box at the rate of 1 m/s2. The acceleration of a 2-kg box by a net force of 2 N is A) half as much. B) twice as much. C) the same. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 46) The force required to maintain a constant velocity for an astronaut in free space is equal to A) zero. B) the mass of the astronaut. C) the weight of the astronaut. D) the force required to stop the astronaut. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 47) A boulder following a straight-line path at constant velocity has A) a net force acting upon it in the direction of motion. B) zero acceleration. C) no forces acting on it. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 48) Neglecting friction, a small and a large block of ice begin sliding down an incline together. The larger block reaches the bottom A) before the small block. B) after the small block. C) at the same time as the small block. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 49) Phil stands at rest with both feet on a scale that reads 500 N. When he gently lifts one foot, the scale reads A) less than 500 N. B) 500 N. C) more than 500 N. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 11 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

50) A push on a 1-kg brick accelerates it. Neglecting friction, equally accelerating a 10-kg brick requires A) just as much force. B) 10 times as much force. C) 100 times as much force. D) one-tenth the amount of force. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 51) A 10-N block and a 1-N block lie on a horizontal frictionless table. To impart equal horizontal accelerations, we would have to push the heavier block with A) an equal force. B) 10 times as much force. C) 10 squared or 100 times as much force. D) 1/10 as much force. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 52) When a constant and sustained upward force acts on a rocket, its acceleration increases mainly because A) gravity becomes weaker with increased distance. B) the mass of the rocket decreases as fuel is burned. C) No way, for acceleration would be constant. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 53) A rock is thrown vertically into the air. At the top of its path the net force on it is A) less than mg. B) mg. C) more than mg. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 54) A rock is thrown vertically into the air. At the top of its path, its acceleration is A) zero. B) 10 m/s2. C) between 0 and 10 m/s2. D) greater than 10 m/s2. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 12 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

55) A block is dragged without acceleration in a straight-line path across a level surface by a force of 6 N. What is the force of friction between the block and the surface? A) less than 6 N B) 6 N C) more than 6 N D) need more information Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 56) Suppose a particle is being accelerated through space by a 10-N force. Suddenly the particle encounters a second force of 10 N in the opposite direction. The particle with both forces acting A) is brought to a rapid halt. B) decelerates gradually to a halt. C) continues at the speed it had when it encountered the second force. D) theoretically tends to accelerate toward the speed of light. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 57) A jumbo jet has a mass of 100,000 kg. The thrust for each of its four engines is 50,000 N. What is the jet's acceleration when taking off? A) 0.25 m/s2 B) 1 m/s2 C) 2 m/s2 D) 4 m/s2 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 58) A 1-kg rock that weighs 10 N is thrown straight upward at 20 m/s. Neglecting air resistance, the net force that acts on it when it is half way to the top of its path is A) less than 10 N. B) 10 N. C) more than 10 N. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion

59) If more horizontal force is applied to a sliding object than is needed to maintain a constant velocity, the object A) accelerates in the direction of the applied force. B) accelerates opposite the direction of the applied force. C) experiences greater friction. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 60) If less horizontal force is applied to a sliding object than is needed to maintain a constant velocity, the object A) accelerates in the direction of the applied force. B) experiences decreased friction. C) eventually slides to a stop. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 61) A 1-kg ball is thrown at 10 m/s straight upward. Neglecting air resistance, the net force that acts on the stone when it is halfway to the top of its path is about A) 1/2 N. B) 1 N. C) 5 N. D) 7.5 N. E) 10 N. Answer: E Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 62) The brakes of a speeding truck are slammed on and it skids to a stop. If the truck were heavily loaded so that it had twice the total mass, the skidding distance would be A) half as far. B) 1.5 times as far. C) twice as far. D) 4 times as far. E) the same. Answer: E Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion

63) Scotty Skydiver of mass 100 kg experiences air resistance of 500 N, and an acceleration of about A) 0.2 g. B) 0.3 g. C) 0.4 g. D) 0.5 g. E) greater than 0.5 g. Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 64) An object released from rest on another planet requires one second to fall a distance of 6 meters. What is the acceleration due to gravity on this planet? A) 3 m/s2 B) 6 m/s2 C) 12 m/s2 D) 15 m/s2 E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 65) A car traveling at 22 m/s comes to an abrupt halt in 0.1 second when it hits a tree. What is the deceleration of the car? A) 110 m/s2 B) 220 m/s2 C) 800 m/s2 D) 880 m/s2 E) need more information Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 66) A 10-kilogram block with an initial velocity of 10 m/s slides 10 meters across a horizontal surface and comes to rest. It takes the block 2 seconds to stop. The stopping force acting on the block is about A) 5 N. B) 10 N. C) 25 N. D) 50 N. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion

67) A 10-kilogram block is pushed across a horizontal surface with a horizontal force of 20 N against a friction force of 10 N. The acceleration of the block is A) 1 m/s2. B) 2 m/s2. C) 5 m/s2. D) 10 m/s2. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 68) If you are driving at 20 m/s and slam on your brakes and skid at 0.5g to a full stop, the skidding time is about A) 3 s. B) 4 s. C) 5 s. D) 6 s. E) greater than 6 s. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 69) A 1000-kg automobile enters a freeway on-ramp at 20 m/s and accelerates uniformly up to 40 m/s in a time of 10 seconds. How far does the automobile travel during that time? A) 100 m B) 200 m C) 300 m D) 400 m E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 70) A 2000-kg car experiences a braking force of 10,000 N and skids to a stop in 6 seconds. The speed of the car just before the brakes were applied was A) 1.2 m/s. B) 15 m/s. C) 30 m/s. D) 45 m/s. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion

71) An astronaut on another planet drops a 1-kg rock from rest and finds that it falls a vertical distance of 2.5 meters in one second. On this planet, the rock has a weight of A) 1 N. B) 2 N. C) 3 N. D) 4 N. E) 5 N. Answer: E Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 72) What horizontally-applied force will accelerate a 400-kg crate at 1 m/s2 across a factory floor against a friction force half its weight? A) 600 N B) 1600 N C) 2000 N D) 2400 N E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 73) The human body can withstand an acceleration of 10 g under certain conditions. What net force would produce this acceleration for a 50-kg person? A) 500 N B) 2500 N C) 5000 N D) 25,000 N E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Second Law of Motion 74) A 10-kg brick and a 1-kg apple are dropped in a vacuum. The force of gravity on the brick is A) the same as the force on the apple. B) 10 times more than the force on the apple. C) one-tenth as much as on the apple. D) zero. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: When Acceleration Is g-Free Fall

75) A single brick falls with acceleration g. The reason a double brick falls with the same acceleration is A) that in free fall all accelerations are g. B) its ratio of force to mass is the same. C) an experimental fact tested many times. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: When Acceleration Is g-Free Fall 76) Recall Galileo's Leaning Tower experiment. With negligible air resistance, a heavy and a light object fall A) with equal accelerations. B) with the same increases in speed. C) to the ground in equal times. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: When Acceleration Is g-Free Fall 77) A feather and a coin will have equal accelerations when falling in a vacuum because A) their velocities are the same. B) the force of gravity is the same for each in a vacuum. C) the force of gravity does not act in a vacuum. D) the ratio of both the feather's and coin's weight to mass is the same. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: When Acceleration Is g-Free Fall 78) A bowling ball and a baseball accelerate equally when falling in a vacuum because A) their velocities are the same. B) the ratio of their weights to mass is the same. C) the force of gravity is the same for each in a vacuum. D) the force of gravity does not act in a vacuum. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: When Acceleration Is g-Free Fall

79) An astronaut on another planet drops a 1-kg rock from rest. The astronaut notices that the rock falls 2 meters straight down in one second. On this planet, how much does the rock weigh? A) 1 N B) 4 N C) 5 N D) 10 N Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: When Acceleration Is g-Free Fall 80) Two factors that greatly affect air resistance on falling objects are frontal area and A) mass. B) weight. C) speed. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: When Acceleration is Less than g-Nonfree Fall 81) When a falling object has reached its terminal velocity, its acceleration is A) zero. B) g. C) constant. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: When Acceleration is Less than g-Nonfree Fall 82) Two objects of the same size, but unequal weights are dropped from a tall tower. Taking air resistance into consideration, the object to hit the ground first will be the A) lighter object. B) heavier object. C) Both hit at the same time. D) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: When Acceleration is Less than g-Nonfree Fall 83) A light woman and a heavy man jump from an airplane at the same time and open their same-size parachutes at the same time. Which person will get to a state of zero acceleration first? A) The light woman B) The heavy man C) Both should arrive at the same time. D) not enough information Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: When Acceleration is Less than g-Nonfree Fall

84) A light woman and a heavy man jump from an airplane at the same time and open their same-size parachutes at the same time. Which person will get to the ground first? A) The light woman B) The heavy man C) Both should arrive at the same time. D) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: When Acceleration is Less than g-Nonfree Fall 85) A large and a small person wish to parachute at equal terminal velocities. The larger person should A) get a larger parachute. B) jump lightly. C) pull upward on the supporting strands to decrease the downward net force. D) jump first from the plane. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: When Acceleration is Less than g-Nonfree Fall 86) Suzie Skydiver, who weighs 500 N, reaches terminal velocity of 90 km/h. The air resistance on Suzie is then A) 90 N. B) 250 N. C) 410 N. D) 500 N. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: When Acceleration is Less than g-Nonfree Fall 87) A sack of potatoes weighing 200 N falls from an airplane. As the velocity of fall increases, air resistance also increases. When air resistance equals 200 N, the sack's acceleration becomes A) 0 m/s2. B) 5 m/s2. C) 10 m/s2. D) infinite. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: When Acceleration is Less than g-Nonfree Fall

88) A coconut and a bird's feather fall from a tree through the air to the ground below. The force of air resistance is A) greater on the coconut. B) greater on the feather. C) the same on each. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: When Acceleration is Less than g-Nonfree Fall 89) Suzie Skydiver jumps from a high-flying plane. As her velocity of fall increases, her acceleration A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains unchanged regardless of air resistance. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: When Acceleration is Less than g-Nonfree Fall 90) A skydiver steps from a helicopter and falls for a few seconds until terminal velocity is reached. Thereafter, until he opens his parachute, his acceleration A) is constant. B) increases. C) decreases. D) is zero. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: When Acceleration is Less than g-Nonfree Fall 91) A 500-N parachutist opens his chute and experiences an air resistance force of 800 N. The net force on the parachutist is then A) 300 N downward. B) 500 N downward. C) 800 N downward. D) 300 N upward. E) 500 N upward. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: When Acceleration is Less than g-Nonfree Fall

92) A ball is thrown vertically into the air. Because of air resistance, its speed when it returns to its starting level compared with its initial speed is A) less. B) the same. C) more. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: When Acceleration is Less than g-Nonfree Fall 93) Two tennis balls fall through the air from a tall building. One of them is filled with lead pellets. The ball to reach the ground first is the A) regular ball. B) lead-filled ball. C) same for both Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: When Acceleration is Less than g-Nonfree Fall 94) A heavy rock and a light rock of the same size are falling through the air from a tall building. The one that encounters the greatest air resistance is the A) light rock. B) heavy rock. C) same for both Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: When Acceleration is Less than g-Nonfree Fall 95) A ball is thrown upwards and caught when it returns. Compared with its initial speed and in the presence of air resistance, the speed with which it is caught is always A) less. B) the same. C) more. D) can't be determined. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: When Acceleration is Less than g-Nonfree Fall 96) A ball is thrown vertically into the air. Because of air resistance, its time coming down compared to its time going up is A) less. B) the same. C) more. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: When Acceleration is Less than g-Nonfree Fall

97) A ball thrown straight upward takes 10 seconds for its up-and-down round trip. Because of air resistance, the time taken for the ball just to go up is A) less than 5 s. B) 5 s. C) more than 5 s. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: When Acceleration is Less than g-Nonfree Fall 98) A skydiver's terminal velocity will be greatest if she falls A) head first. B) lying flat on her back. C) lying flat on her stomach. D) with her parachute open. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: When Acceleration is Less than g-Nonfree Fall

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 5 Newton's Third Law of Motion: Action and Reaction 5.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) To say there is no such thing as only one force means A) there must also be a corresponding reaction force. B) other forces, perhaps not evident, are there. C) gibberish. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Forces and Interactions 2) You cannot exert a force on a wall A) if the wall resists. B) unless you put your mind to it. C) unless the wall simultaneously exerts the same amount of force on you. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Forces and Interactions 3) When you rub your hands together, you A) can push harder on one hand than the other. B) cannot push harder on one hand than the other. C) need more information Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Forces and Interactions 4) When you drop a rubber ball on the floor it bounces back. The force exerted on the ball to produce bouncing is by the A) ball. B) floor. C) need more information Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Forces and Interactions 5) As a ball bounces from a floor, its acceleration off the floor between bounces is A) significantly less than g. B) g. C) slightly more than g. D) significantly more than g. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Forces and Interactions 1 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) When a boxer hits a punching bag, the strength of his punch depends on how much force the bag can A) endure. B) exert on the boxer's fist. C) soften. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Forces and Interactions 7) Your friend says that the heavyweight champion of the world cannot exert a force of 50 N on an isolated piece of tissue paper with his best punch. You A) agree that it can't be done. B) have reservations about this assertion. C) disagree, for a good punch easily delivers this much force. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Forces and Interactions 8) One end of a rope is pulled with 100 N, while the opposite end also is pulled with 100 N. The tension in the rope is A) 0 N. B) 50 N. C) 100 N. D) 200 N. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Forces and Interactions 9) A piece of rope is pulled by two people in a tug-of-war. Each exerts a 400-N force. What is the tension in the rope? A) zero B) 400 N C) 600 N D) 800 N E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Forces and Interactions 10) The winner in a tug-of-war exerts the greatest force on A) the opponent. B) his or her end of the rope. C) the ground. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Forces and Interactions 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) Arnold Strongman and Suzie Small each pull very hard on opposite ends of a rope in a tugof-war. The greater force on the rope is exerted by A) Arnold, of course. B) Suzie, surprisingly. C) both the same, interestingly. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Forces and Interactions 12) When a skateboarder pushes on a wall, A) an interaction occurs between the skateboarder and the wall. B) the wall pushes on the skateboarder. C) such a push couldn't happen unless the wall pushed on the skateboarder. D) all the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Forces and Interactions 13) A pair of action-reaction forces always A) act on the same object. B) occur simultaneously. C) comprise a pair of interactions. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 14) A fast-moving missile soaring overhead possesses A) speed. B) force. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 15) When you walk, you push on the floor to the left and the floor A) also pushes on you to the left. B) pushes you to the right. C) both of these simultaneously. D) can only wish it could push on you. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 3 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) Harry pulls on the end of a spring attached to a wall. The reaction to Harry's pull on the spring is A) the wall pulling oppositely on the spring. B) the spring pulling on Harry. C) both the wall and the spring pulling on Harry. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 17) Action and reaction pairs of forces A) always act simultaneously. B) may or may not act simultaneously. C) are independent of time. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 18) For every action force, there must be a reaction force that A) acts in the same direction. B) is slightly smaller in magnitude than the action force. C) is slightly larger in magnitude than the action force. D) is equal in magnitude. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 19) An archer shoots an arrow. Consider the action force to be the bowstring against the arrow. The reaction to this force is the A) combined weight of the arrow and bowstring. B) friction of the ground against the archer's feet. C) grip of the archer's hand on the bow. D) arrow's push against the bowstring. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 20) When a karate chop breaks a board with a 3000-N blow, the amount of force that acts on the hand is A) zero. B) 1500 N. C) 3000 N. D) 6000 N. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 4 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

21) The emphasis of the orange-and-apple sequence in your textbook is A) defining systems. B) actions equal reactions. C) forces produce accelerations. D) friction is a force. E) mass is not a force. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 22) The force that accelerates the orange and apple system featured in your textbook is actually supplied by the A) apple. B) orange. C) floor. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 23) To produce an acceleration to a system there A) must be a net force on the system. B) may or may not be a net force on the system. C) must be acceleration outside the system also. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 24) The lift experienced by a helicopter involves an action-reaction pair of forces between the A) helicopter blades and the air. B) mass of the helicopter and Earth's mass. C) weight of the helicopter and atmospheric pressure. D) motion of the helicopter relative to the ground below. E) any or all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 25) A player catches a ball. If action is the force of the ball against the player's glove, reaction is the A) player's grip on the glove. B) glove against the ball. C) friction of the ground against the player's shoes. D) muscular effort in the player's arms. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 5 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

26) A player hits a ball with a bat. If action is the force of the bat against the ball, reaction is the A) air resistance on the ball. B) weight of the ball. C) force that the ball exerts on the bat. D) grip of the player's hand against the ball. E) weight of the bat. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 27) When a baseball player bats a ball with a force of 1000 N, the reaction force that the ball exerts against the bat is A) less than 1000 N. B) more than 1000 N. C) 1000 N. D) need more information Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 28) While you stand on the floor you are pulled downward by gravity, and supported upward by the floor. Gravity pulling down and the support force pushing up A) make an action-reaction pair of forces. B) do not make an action-reaction pair of forces. C) need more information Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 29) The force exerted on the tires of a car that directly accelerate it along a road is exerted by the A) engine. B) tires. C) air. D) road. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion

30) Neglecting air resistance, once a tossed ball leaves your hand A) no further forces act on it. B) only the force due to gravity acts on it. C) inertia becomes the force acting on it. D) your tossing force remains while the ball goes upward. E) your tossing force remains until it comes to a stop. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 31) When a ball falls downward, it may have a net force A) equal to its weight. B) of zero. C) equal to its weight minus air drag. D) any of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 32) An automobile and a golf cart traveling at the same speed collide head-on. The impact force is A) greater on the automobile. B) greater on the golf cart. C) the same for both. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 33) A Mack truck and a Volkswagen traveling at the same speed have a head-on collision. The vehicle that undergoes the greatest change in velocity will be the A) Volkswagen. B) Mack truck. C) same for both. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 34) Two people, one twice as massive as the other, attempt a tug-of-war with 12 meters of rope on frictionless ice. After a brief time, they meet. The heavier person slides a distance of A) 3 m. B) 4 m. C) 6 m. D) 0 m. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Third Law of Motion 7 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

35) A car traveling at 100 km/h strikes an unfortunate bug and splatters it. The force of impact is A) greater on the bug. B) greater on the car. C) the same for both. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Action and Reaction on Different Masses 36) When a tennis racquet hits a ball, A) the racquet loses as much speed as the ball gains. B) the ball is set in motion with the same speed of the racquet upon contact. C) the ball hits the racquet. D) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Action and Reaction on Different Masses 37) As a ball falls, the action force is the Earth's pull on the ball. The reaction force is the A) air resistance acting against the ball. B) acceleration of the ball. C) ball's pull on Earth. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Action and Reaction on Different Masses 38) A pair of air pucks on an air table are set in motion when a compressed spring between them is released. If one puck moves with twice the speed of the other, then its mass is A) half the mass of the other. B) the same mass as the other. C) twice the mass as the other. D) need more information Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Action and Reaction on Different Masses 39) Joshua is attracted toward Earth by a 500-N gravitational force. The Earth is attracted toward Joshua with a force of A) zero. B) 250 N. C) 500 N. D) 1000 N. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Action and Reaction on Different Masses 8 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

40) The attraction between Earth and Sydney is equal to her weight. The reaction to Earth's pull on Sydney is A) Sydney pushing against Earth's surface. B) the support of Earth's surface on Sydney. C) Sydney's pull on Earth. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Action and Reaction on Different Masses 41) The force with which Earth pulls on the Moon is A) somewhat greater than Moon's pull on Earth. B) the only force acting between Earth and Moon. C) equal in magnitude to the force that Moon pulls on Earth. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Action and Reaction on Different Masses 42) Earth pulls on the Moon, and the Moon pulls on Earth, which tells us that A) these two pulls comprise an action-reaction pair. B) both Earth and Moon circle a common point. C) more massive objects pull harder. D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Action and Reaction on Different Masses 43) A pair of toy freight cars, one twice the mass of the other, fly apart when a compressed spring that joins them is released. The spring exerts the greater force on the A) heavier car. B) lighter car. C) same on each. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Action and Reaction on Different Masses 44) A pair of toy freight cars, one twice the mass of the other, fly apart when a compressed spring that joins them is released. Acceleration will be greater for the A) heavier car. B) lighter car. C) same on each. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Action and Reaction on Different Masses

45) The force that propels a cannonball when fired from a cannon is A) huge compared to the recoil force on the cannon. B) equal and opposite to the force the ball exerts on the cannon. C) in some cases, equal and opposite to the force the ball exerts on the cannon. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Action and Reaction on Different Masses 46) When a cannonball is fired from a cannon, which undergoes the greater acceleration? A) the cannonball B) the recoiling cannon C) both the same Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Action and Reaction on Different Masses 47) When a rocket forces exhaust gases downward, the exhaust gases A) as the name implies, soon exhaust their influence. B) play no further role in the motion of the rocket. C) exert an upward force on the rocket. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Action and Reaction on Different Masses 48) An astronaut of mass 70 kg weighs 700 N on Earth's surface. His weight on the surface of Mars, where the acceleration due to gravity is 3.7 m/s2, would be about A) the same as on Earth. B) 130 N. C) 260 N. D) 370 N. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Action and Reaction on Different Masses 49) You stand on your skateboard and exert a 50-N push on the wall next to you. If your mass is 60 kg you'll momentarily accelerate from the wall at about A) 0.08 m/s2. B) 0.8 m/s2. C) 8.0 m/s2. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Action and Reaction on Different Masses

50) If vertically falling rain makes slanted 45° streaks on the side windows of a moving car, the speed of the car A) is less than the speed of the falling drops. B) equals the speed of the falling drops. C) exceeds the speed of the falling drops. D) need more information Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law 51) A vertical vector of 3 units combined with a horizontal vector of 4 units has a resultant of A) 1 unit. B) 5 units. C) 7 units. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law 52) Two equal-size vectors at right angles to each other have a resultant that is A) equal to that of either vector. B) √2 the length of either vector. C) twice the length of either vector. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law 53) Nellie Newton pulls her sled by a rope that is 45° to the horizontal. The horizontal and vertical components of force are A) equal in magnitude. B) each about 0.7 times the force she exerts on the rope. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law 54) A 10-unit vector at 60° from the vertical has a vertical component with a magnitude A) less than 10 units. B) 10 units. C) greater than 10 units. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law

55) Nellie's weight and normal force usually have the same magnitude when she stands on a A) horizontal surface. B) inclined surface. C) either a horizontal or inclined surface. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law 56) When Nellie hangs suspended from a pair of ropes that are not vertical, the tension in each rope is A) less than half her weight. B) half her weight. C) more than half her weight. D) her weight. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law 57) Art museums use weaker wires than those used in homes because paintings in museums A) are suspended by pairs of vertical wires. B) are usually lighter in weight. C) are more firmly attached. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law 58) The force due to gravity that acts on a block of ice that slides down an icy ramp A) remains equal to mg at all angles. B) decreases as the slope of the ramp increases. C) becomes greatest when the ramp is vertical. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law 59) The normal force that acts on a block of ice that slides on a ramp A) is equal to mg at all angles. B) decreases as the slope of the ramp increases. C) becomes greatest when the ramp is vertical. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law

60) A shoe on an inclined surface barely remains at rest when friction equals the A) weight mg of the shoe. B) component of mg perpendicular to the surface. C) component of mg parallel to the surface. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law 61) As the sloped surface supporting a shoe becomes steeper A) the shoe's weight mg remains unchanged. B) the normal force becomes less. C) friction needed to keep it at rest increases. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law 62) When Monkey Mo is suspended at rest by holding a rope with one hand and the side of his cage with the other, all the force vectors that act on him A) have equal magnitudes. B) cancel except for his weight vector, mg. C) have a vector sum of zero. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law 63) Three kids pull on a toy. Kim pulls with a force of 30 N north, Jim pulls with a force of 30 N south, and Tim pulls with a force of 15 N east. The acceleration of the toy is A) 10 m/s2. B) 15 m/s2. C) 33 m/s2 D) need more information Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law 64) Nellie tosses a ball upward at an angle. Neglecting air resistance, the horizontal component of the initial velocity A) decreases with time. B) remains constant. C) increases with time. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law 13 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

65) Nellie tosses a ball upward at an angle. Neglecting air resistance, the vertical component of the initial velocity A) decreases with time to reach the top. B) remains constant. C) increases with time to reach the top. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law 66) An airplane travels at 141 km/h toward the northeast. What is its component of velocity due north? A) 41 km/h B) 100 km/h C) 110 km/h D) 141 km/h Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law 67) The airspeed of an airplane is 200 km/h. When it is caught in a 200-km/h crosswind, its speed across the ground below is A) 0 km/h. B) 200 km/h. C) 283 km/h. D) 400 km/h. E) 1600 km/h. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law 68) A pair of equal-length vectors at right angles to each other have a resultant. If the angle between the vectors is less than 90°, their resultant is A) less. B) the same. C) greater. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law 69) A pair of equal-length vectors at right angles to each other have a resultant. If the angle between the vectors is greater than 90°, their resultant is A) less. B) the same. C) greater. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law 14 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

70) A river 100 m wide flows due south. A boat that goes 1 m/s relative to the water is pointed due east as it crosses from the west bank. The boat crosses in A) 50 s. B) 100 s. C) 141 s. D) 200 s. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law 71) A river 100 m wide flows due south at 1 m/s. A boat that goes 1 m/s relative to the water leaves the west bank. To land at a point due east of its starting point, the boat must be pointed A) northeast. B) east. C) southeast. D) nowhere–it can't be done. Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Vectors and the Third Law

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 6 Momentum 6.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which has the greater momentum when moving? A) a container ship B) a bullet C) either of these depending on speed Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Momentum 2) Which of the following has the largest momentum relative to Earth's surface? A) a tightrope walker crossing Niagara Falls B) a pickup truck speeding along a highway C) a Mack truck parked in a parking lot D) the Science building on campus E) a mouse running across your room Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Momentum 3) A freight train rolls along a track with considerable momentum. If it rolls at the same speed but has twice as much mass, its momentum is A) zero. B) twice. C) four times as much. D) unchanged. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Momentum 4) A same-size iron ball and wooden ball are dropped simultaneously from a tower and reach the ground at the same time. The iron ball has a greater A) speed. B) acceleration. C) momentum. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Momentum

5) The speed of a 4-kg ball with a momentum of 12 kg m/s is A) 3 m/s. B) 4 m/s. C) 12 m/s. D) 48 m/s. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Momentum 6) The mass of a ball moving at 3 m/s with a momentum of 48 kg m/s is A) 4 kg. B) 12 kg. C) 16 kg. D) 144 kg. E) none of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Momentum 7) A large heavy truck and a small baby carriage roll down a hill. Neglecting friction, at the bottom of the hill, the baby carriage will likely have A) less momentum. B) about the same momentum. C) more momentum. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Momentum 8) The total momentum of a flock of identical birds could be zero only if the birds are A) taking off from the ground. B) flying in the same direction. C) flying in different directions. D) very tired and coming down to rest. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Momentum

9) If several balls are thrown straight up with different initial speeds, the quantity that will have the same value along their paths is their A) initial momentum. B) maximum height. C) time of travel. D) acceleration. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Momentum 10) A motorcycle of mass 100 kilograms slowly rolls off the edge of a cliff and falls for three seconds before reaching the bottom of a gully. Its momentum upon hitting the ground is A) 1,000 kg m/s. B) 2,000 kg m/s. C) 3,000 kg m/s. D) 4,000 kg m/s. E) 9,000 kg m/. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Momentum 11) It is correct to say that impulse is equal to A) momentum. B) a corresponding change in momentum. C) force multiplied by the distance it acts. D) velocity multiplied by time. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Impulse Changes Momentum 12) The impulse-momentum relationship is a direct result of A) Newton's 1st law. B) Newton's 2nd law. C) Newton's 3rd law. D) Newton's law of gravity. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Impulse Changes Momentum

13) A car traveling along the highway brakes to a stop over a certain distance. More braking force is required if the car has A) more mass. B) more momentum. C) less stopping distance. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Impulse 14) Padded dashboards in cars are safer in an accident than non-padded ones because passengers hitting the dashboard encounter A) lengthened time of contact. B) shorter time of contact. C) decreased impulse. D) increased momentum. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Impulse 15) The force on a dropped apple hitting the ground depends upon A) the speed of the apple just before it hits. B) the time of contact with the ground. C) whether or not the apple bounces. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Impulse 16) When Peter tosses an egg against a sagging sheet, the egg doesn't break due to A) reduced impulse. B) reduced momentum. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Impulse

17) Compared with falling on a stone floor, a wine glass may not break when it falls on a carpeted floor because the A) carpeted floor provides a smaller impulse. B) stopping time is shorter on the carpet. C) stopping time is longer on the carpet. D) carpet provides a smaller impulse and a longer time. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Impulse 18) To catch a fast-moving ball, you extend your hand forward before contact with the ball and let it ride backward in the direction of the ball's motion. Doing this reduces the force of contact on your hand principally because the A) force of contact is reduced. B) relative velocity is less. C) time of contact is increased. D) time of contact is decreased. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Impulse Changes Momentum 19) When you jump from an elevated position you usually bend your knees upon reaching the ground, which makes the time of the contact about 10 times that of a stiff-legged landing. In this way the average force your body experiences is A) less than 1/10 as great. B) more than 1/10 as great. C) about 1/10 as great. D) about 10 times as great. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Impulse Changes Momentum 20) If you can't avoid being hit by a fast-moving object, you'll suffer a smaller contact force if you can extend that force over a A) longer time. B) shorter time. C) both the same Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Impulse Changes Momentum

21) A karate expert executes a swift blow and breaks a cement block with her bare hand. The magnitude of the force on her hand is A) zero. B) less than the force applied to the cement block. C) the same as the force applied to the block. D) more than the force applied to the block. E) need more information Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Impulse Changes Momentum 22) Which produces more force: driving into a very massive concrete wall with no "give," or having a head-on collision with an identical car moving toward you at the same speed? A) car B) wall C) both the same D) need more information Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Impulse Changes Momentum 23) Whether a truck comes to a stop by crashing into a haystack or a brick wall, the stopping force is A) greater with the haystack. B) greater with the brick wall. C) both the same Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Impulse Changes Momentum 24) Whether a truck comes to a stop by crashing into a haystack or a brick wall, the impulse is A) greater with the haystack. B) greater with the brick wall. C) both the same Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Impulse Changes Momentum 25) When a boxer moves into an oncoming punch, the force experienced is A) decreased. B) increased. C) no different, but the timing is different. D) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Impulse Changes Momentum 6 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

26) When a boxer is moving away from a punch, the force experienced is reduced because A) momentum transfer is reduced. B) the time of contact is increased. C) the force is less effective. D) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Impulse Changes Momentum 27) A cannon recoils while firing a cannonball. The speed of the cannon's recoil is relatively small because the A) force against the cannon is smaller than against the ball. B) momentum is mainly concentrated in the cannonball. C) cannon has much more mass than the cannonball. D) momentum of the cannon is smaller. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Impulse Changes Momentum 28) A tiny gun made of a strong but very light material fires a bullet more massive than the gun itself. For such a weapon A) the target would be safer than the shooter. B) recoil problems would be lessened. C) conservation of energy would not hold. D) conservation of momentum would not hold. E) both conservation of energy and momentum would not hold. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Impulse Changes Momentum 29) A heavy truck and a small car rolling down a hill at the same speed are forced to stop in the same amount of time. Compared with the force that stops the car, the force needed to stop the truck is A) greater. B) smaller. C) the same. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Impulse Changes Momentum

30) The force that accelerates a rocket in outer space is exerted on the rocket by the A) rocket's nose cone. B) rocket's wings. C) atmospheric pressure. D) exhaust gases. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Impulse Changes Momentum 31) The average braking force of a 1000-kg car moving at 10 m/s braking to a stop in 5 s is A) 1000 N. B) 2000 N. C) 3000 N. D) 4000 N. E) 5000 N. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Impulse Changes Momentum 32) A falling 1-N apple hits the ground with a force of about A) 1 N. B) 2 N. C) 4 N. D) 10 N. E) need more information Answer: E Diff: 3 Topic: Impulse Changes Momentum 33) A bungee jumper attains a speed of 30 m/s just as the bungee cord begins to stretch. If the period of stretch is 2 s while coming to a halt, the jumper's average deceleration is about A) 0.5 g. B) g. C) 1.5 g. D) 2 g. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Impulse Changes Momentum

34) As Bronco Brown steps off a hovering high-flying helicopter and falls through the air, he experiences A) an impulse. B) an increasing speed. C) a decreasing acceleration. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Impulse Changes Momentum 35) The greater efficiency achieved with the curved blades of a Pelton wheel is due to A) bouncing. B) greater time of water impact. C) rotational momentum. D) divided impulse. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Bouncing 36) A karate chop is more effective if one's hand A) follows through upon impact. B) bounces upon impact. C) extends the time upon impact. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Bouncing 37) A softer landing occurs when an falling object bounces from a surface A) in a extended time. B) quickly. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Bouncing 38) A piece of putty moving with 1 unit of momentum strikes and sticks to a heavy bowling ball that is initially at rest. Both move with a combined momentum of A) less than 1 unit. B) more than 1 unit. C) 1 unit. D) need more information Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Bouncing

39) The change in momentum that occurs when a 1.0 kg ball traveling at 4.0 m/s strikes a wall and bounces back at 2.0 m/s is A) 2 kg m/s. B) 4 kg m/s. C) 6 kg m/s. D) 8 kg m/s. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Bouncing 40) The conservation of momentum is most closely related to A) Newton's 1st law. B) Newton's 2nd law. C) Newton's 3rd law. D) Newton's law of gravity Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Conservation of Momentum 41) When bullets are fired from an airplane in the forward direction, the momentum of the airplane is A) decreased. B) unchanged. C) increased. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Conservation of Momentum 42) When Freddy Frog drops vertically from a tree onto a horizontally-moving skateboard, the speed of the skateboard A) decreases. B) increases. C) neither decreases nor increases. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Conservation of Momentum 43) Freddy Frog drops vertically from a tree onto a horizontally-moving skateboard. The reason he doesn't slip off the skateboard is due to A) inertia in motion. B) momentum change. C) friction between his feet and the board. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Conservation of Momentum

44) You're driving down the highway and a bug spatters into your windshield. Which undergoes the greater change in momentum during the time of contact? A) the bug B) your car C) both the same Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Conservation of Momentum 45) An astronaut floating alone in outer space throws a baseball. If the ball moves away at 20 m/s, the astronaut will A) move in the opposite direction at 20 m/s. B) move in the opposite direction at a lower speed. C) move in the opposite direction at a higher speed. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Conservation of Momentum 46) Recoil is noticeable if we throw a heavy ball while standing on roller skates. If instead we go through the motions of throwing the ball but hold onto it, our net recoil will be A) zero. B) the same as before. C) small, but noticeable. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Conservation of Momentum 47) Two billiard balls having the same mass and speed roll toward each other. What is their combined momentum after they meet? A) zero B) half the sum of their original momentums C) twice the sum of their original momentums D) need more information Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Conservation of Momentum 48) If a monkey floating in outer space throws his hat away, the hat and the monkey will both A) move away from each other, but at different speeds. B) move away from each other at the same speed. C) move a short distance and then slow down. D) move a short distance and then go faster. E) come to a stop after a few minutes. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Conservation of Momentum 11 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

49) An open freight car rolls friction free along a horizontal track in a pouring rain that falls vertically. As water accumulates in the car, the car's speed A) increases. B) decreases. C) doesn't change. D) need more information Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Conservation of Momentum 50) A 1-kg chunk of putty moving at 1 m/s collides with and sticks to a 5-kg bowling ball initially at rest. The bowling ball and putty then move with a momentum of A) 0 kg m/s. B) 1 kg m/s. C) 2 kg m/s. D) 5 kg m/s. E) more than 5 kg m/s. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Conservation of Momentum 51) A 2-kg rifle that is suspended by strings fires a 0.01-kg bullet at 200 m/s. The recoil velocity of the rifle is about A) 0.001 m/s. B) 0.01 m/s. C) 0.1 m/s. D) 1 m/s. E) none of these Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Conservation of Momentum 52) A 5-kg fish swimming at 1 m/s swallows an absent-minded 1-kg fish at rest. The speed of the larger fish after lunch is A) 1/2 m/s. B) 2/5 m/s. C) 5/6 m/s. D) 6/5 m/s. E) 1 m/s. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Conservation of Momentum

53) A 5-kg shark swimming at 1 m/s swallows an absent-minded 1-kg fish swimming toward it at 4 m/s. The speed of the shark after his meal is A) 1/2 m/s. B) 1/5 m/s. C) 1/6 m/s. D) 2/3 m/s. E) 3/2 m/s. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Conservation of Momentum 54) A fan attached to an ice sailcraft stalled on a windless day blows air into the sail that bounces backward upon impact. The boat A) moves in the direction of the wind impact force. B) does not move by this wind impact. C) moves, but in the opposite direction of the wind impact force. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Conservation of Momentum 55) If all people, animals, trains and trucks all over the world began to walk or run towards the east (opposite the direction of Earth's spin), then A) Earth would spin a bit faster. B) Earth would spin a bit slower. C) Earth's spin would not be affected at all. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Conservation of Momentum 56) A golf ball moving forward with 1 unit of momentum strikes and bounces backward off a heavy bowling ball that is initially at rest and free to move. The bowling ball is set in motion with a momentum of A) less than 1 unit. B) more than 1 unit. C) 1 unit. D) not enough information Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Conservation of Momentum

57) Two identical gliders slide toward each other on an air track. One moves at 1 m/s and the other at 2 m/s. They collide, stick, and moves at A) 1/2 m/s. B) 1/3 m/s. C) 1/6 m/s. D) 3/4 m/s. E) 1.5 m/s. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Collisions 58) A 5000-kg freight car moving at 2 m/s collides with a 10,000-kg freight car at rest. They couple upon collision and move away at A) 2 m/s. B) 1 m/s. C) 2/3 m/s. D) 1/3 m/s. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Collisions 59) A 5000-kg freight car collides with a 10,000-kg freight car at rest. They couple upon collision and move at 2 m/s. What was the initial speed of the 5000-kg car? A) 4 m/s B) 5 m/s C) 6 m/s D) 8 m/s E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Collisions 60) Consider massive gliders that slide friction-free along a horizontal air track. Glider A has a mass of 1 kg, a speed of 1 m/s, and collides with Glider B that has a mass of 5 kg and is at rest. If they stick upon collision, their speed after collision will be A) 1/4 m/s. B) 1/5 m/s. C) 1/6 m/s. D) 1 m/s. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Collisions

61) A 1-kg glider and a 2-kg glider both slide toward each other at 1 m/s on an air track. They collide and stick. The combined mass moves at A) 0 m/s. B) 1/2 m/s. C) 1/3 m/s. D) 1/6 m/s. E) 1.5 m/s. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Collisions 62) A sandbag motionless in outer space is hit by a three-times-as massive sandbag moving at 12 m/s. They stick together and move at a speed of A) 3 m/s. B) 4 m/s. C) 6 m/s. D) 8 m/s. E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 3 Topic: Collisions 63) A red car has a head-on collision with an approaching blue car with the same magnitude of momentum. A green car driving with the same momentum as the other cars collides with an enormously massive wall. Which of the three cars will experience the greatest impulse? A) red car B) blue car C) green car D) all the same Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Collisions 64) Two identical freight cars roll without friction (one at 1 m/s, the other at 2 m/s) toward each other on a level track. They collide, couple together, and roll away in the direction of A) the slower car. B) the faster car. C) neither, for they stop. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Collisions

65) Two 5000-kg rail cars roll without friction (one at 1 m/s, the other at 2 m/s) toward each other on a level track. They collide, couple, and roll together with a combined momentum of A) zero. B) 5000 kg m/s. C) 10,000 kg m/s. D) 15,000 kg m/s. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Collisions 66) Two identical objects in outer space, one moving at 2 m/s, the other at 1 m/s, have a head-on collision and stick together. Their combined speed after the collision is A) 0.5 m/s. B) 0.33 m/s. C) 0.67 m/s. D) 1.0 m/s. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Collisions 67) Two vehicles with equal magnitudes of momentum traveling at right angles to each other undergo an inelastic collision. The combined wreck moves in a direction A) parallel to either of the cars before collision. B) at 45 degrees to the direction of either car before collision. C) at some angle other than 45 degrees. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: More Complicated Collisions 68) Two vehicles with equal magnitudes of momentum traveling at right angles to each other undergo an inelastic collision. The magnitude of momentum for the combined wreck is A) the same as the magnitude of momentum of either car before collision. B) less than the magnitude of momentum of either car before collision. C) greater than the magnitude of momentum of either car before collision. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: More Complicated Collisions

69) A firecracker bursts while freely falling. The combined momentum of its fragments A) equals the momentum of the firecracker at the time of burst B) cancels to the firecracker's momentum at the time of bursting. C) cancels to zero. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: More Complicated Collisions 70) When a vertically falling firecracker bursts, the vector sum of momentum fragments A) in the horizontal direction cancels to zero. B) in the vertical direction equals the momentum of the firecracker before bursting. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: More Complicated Collisions 71) A cannonball following a parabolic path explodes into fragments. The momentum of the fragments A) continue along the path as if the explosion didn't occur. B) cancels to zero by vector addition. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: More Complicated Collisions

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 7 Energy 7.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The work done in pushing a TV set a distance of 2 m with an average force of 20 N is A) 2 J. B) 10 J. C) 20 J. D) 40 J. E) 800 J. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Work 2) The work you do when pushing a shopping cart twice as far while applying the same force is A) half as much. B) twice as much. C) four times as much. D) the same amount. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Work 3) The work you do when pushing a shopping cart twice as far while applying twice the force is A) half as much. B) twice as much. C) four times as much. D) the same amount. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Work 4) The work you do when pushing a shopping cart a given distance while applying twice as much force is A) half as much. B) twice as much. C) four times as much. D) the same amount. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Work

5) No work is done by gravity on a bowling ball that rolls along a bowling alley because A) no force acts on the ball. B) little distance is covered by the ball. C) the force on the ball is at right angles to the ball's motion. D) the ball's speed remains constant. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Work 6) A 1000-kg car and a 2000-kg car are hoisted to the same height. Raising the more massive car requires A) less work. B) as much work. C) twice as much work. D) four times as much work. E) more than four times as much work. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Work 7) The unit kilowatt-hour is a unit of A) energy. B) momentum. C) power. D) time. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Work 8) One kilowatt-hour represents A) 1 N. B) 60 N/s. C) 60,000 W. D) 3.6 million joules. E) none of these Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Work 9) Which task requires more work? A) lifting the 50-kg sack 2 meters B) lifting the 25-kg sack 4 meters C) both require the same D) need more information Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Work 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) The amount of work done on a heavy box carried by Nellie across a room at a constant speed A) depends on the weight of the box. B) depends on the distance walked. C) depends on both weight of the box and distance walked. D) is none. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Work 11) If you do work on a skateboard loaded with friends in one-third the usual time, you expend A) one third as much power. B) the usual power. C) three times the usual power. D) need more information. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Work 12) The power expended doing 100 J of work in 50 s is A) 1/2 W. B) 2 W. C) 4 W. D) 50 W. E) 5,000 W. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Work 13) The power required to exert 4-N force over 3 meters in 2 seconds is A) 4 W. B) 6 W. C) 8 W. D) 12 W. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Work

14) Both a 50-kg sack is lifted 2 meters from the ground and a 25-kg sack is lifted 4 meters in the same time. The power expended in raising the 50-kg sack is A) twice as much as the 25-kg sack. B) half as much as the 25-kg sack. C) the same. D) need more information Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Work 15) A toy elevator is raised from the ground floor to the second floor in 20 seconds. The power needed using 1000 J of work, is A) 20 W. B) 50 W. C) 100 W. D) 1000 W. E) 20,000 W. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Work 16) The center of a long uniform log is raised to shoulder level while the other end is on the ground. If instead, the end of the log is raised to shoulder level, the work required is A) half. B) the same. C) twice. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Work 17) An object has gravitational potential energy due to its A) speed. B) acceleration. C) momentum. D) location. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Potential Energy

18) Relative to an initial height, an object raised twice as high has a gravitational potential energy A) half as much B) twice as much. C) four times as much. D) need more information Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Potential Energy 19) A crate of grapes lifted 10 meters gains 200 J of potential energy. If the same crate is instead lifted 20 meters, its gain in potential energy is A) half as much. B) the same. C) twice as much. D) four times as much. E) more than four times as much. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Potential Energy 20) When a drawn bow of potential energy 40 J is fired, the arrow will ideally have a kinetic energy A) less than 40 J. B) more than 40 J. C) of 40 J. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Potential Energy 21) A clerk can lift cylindrical packages 1 meter vertically, or can roll them up a 2 -meter-long ramp to the same elevation. With the ramp, the applied force required is about A) half as much. B) the same. C) twice as much. D) four times as much. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Potential Energy

22) A 2-kg ball is held 4 m above the ground. Relative to the ground its potential energy is A) 6 J. B) 8 J. C) 32 J. D) 80 J. E) more than 80 J. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Potential Energy 23) A 2-kg box of taffy candy has 40 J of potential energy relative to the ground. Its height above the ground is A) 1 m. B) 2 m. C) 3 m. D) 4 m. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Potential Energy 24) The ram of a pile driver drops onto the top of an iron beam, driving it partway into the ground. The distance that the beam sinks into the ground depends on the A) initial height of the ram. B) initial potential energy of the ram. C) kinetic energy of the ram when it first hits the beam. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Potential Energy 25) An object that has kinetic energy must be A) moving. B) falling. C) at an elevated position. D) at rest. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Kinetic Energy

26) Two identical golf carts move at different speeds. The faster cart has twice the speed and therefore has A) twice the kinetic energy. B) four times the kinetic energy. C) eight times the kinetic energy. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Kinetic Energy 27) A feather and a coin dropped in a vacuum fall with equal A) forces due to gravity. B) accelerations. C) kinetic energies. D) none of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Kinetic Energy 28) A melon is tossed straight upward with 100 J of kinetic energy. If air resistance is negligible the melon will return to its initial level with a kinetic energy of A) less than 100 J. B) more than 100 J. C) 100 J. D) need more information Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Kinetic Energy 29) A melon is projected into the air with 100 J of kinetic energy in the presence of air resistance. When it returns to its initial level its kinetic energy is A) less than 100 J. B) more than 100 J. C) 100 J. D) need more information Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Kinetic Energy

30) Danny Diver weighs 500 N and steps off a diving board 10 m above the water. Danny hits the water with kinetic energy of A) 10 J. B) 500 J. C) 510 J. D) 5000 J. E) more than 5000 J. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Kinetic Energy 31) Which has greater kinetic energy? A) a car traveling at 30 km/hr B) a car of half the mass traveling at 60 km/hr C) both the same D) need more information Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Kinetic Energy 32) Neglecting air resistance, Sammy Smarts on a high ladder releases a ball that strikes the ground with 100 J of kinetic energy. If he were to instead throw the ball straight upward, it will soon reach the ground with a kinetic energy of A) less than 100 J. B) 100 J. C) more than 100 J. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Kinetic Energy 33) If a Ping-Pong ball and a golf ball both move in the same direction with the same amount of kinetic energy, the speed of the Ping-Pong ball must be A) less than the golf ball. B) more than the golf ball. C) both the same D) need more information Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Kinetic Energy

34) Two identical particles move toward each other, one twice as fast as the other. Just before they collide, one has a kinetic energy of 25 J and the other 50 J. At this instant their total kinetic energy is A) 25 J. B) 50 J. C) 75 J. D) none of the above E) need more information Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Kinetic Energy 35) When Joshua brakes his speeding bicycle to a stop, kinetic energy is transformed to A) potential energy. B) energy of motion. C) energy of rest. D) heat. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Work-Energy Theorem 36) A bicycle that travels twice as fast as another when braking to a stop will skid A) twice as far. B) four times as far. C) eight times as far D) sixteen times as far. E) depends on the bike's mass Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Work-Energy Theorem 37) A bicycle that travels four as fast as another when braking to a stop will skid A) twice as far. B) four times as far. C) eight times as far D) sixteen times as far. E) depends on the mass of the bike Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Work-Energy Theorem

38) A motorcycle moving at 50 km/h skids 10 m with locked brakes. How far will it skid with locked brakes when traveling at 150 km/h? A) 10 m B) 30 m C) 50 m D) 90 m Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Work-Energy Theorem 39) A cannonball has more kinetic energy than the recoiling cannon from which it is fired because the force on the ball A) is more concentrated. B) meets less resistance than the cannon on the ground. C) acts over a longer distance. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Work-Energy Theorem 40) About 40 J is required to push a crate 4 m across a floor. If the push is in the same direction as the motion of the crate, the force on the crate is about A) 4 N. B) 10 N. C) 40 N. D) 160 N. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Work-Energy Theorem 41) If the speed of a bicycle is reduced to half before skidding to a stop, it will skid A) one-eighth as far. B) one-fourth as far. C) one-half as far. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Work-Energy Theorem 42) Which requires the most amount of work by the brakes of a car? A) slowing down from 100 km/h to 70 km/h B) slowing down from 70 km/h to a stop C) equal amounts for both Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Work-Energy Theorem

43) A 2500-N pile-driver ram falls 10 m and drives a post 0.1 m into the ground. The average impact force on the ram is A) 2,500 N. B) 25,000 N. C) 250,000 N. D) 2,500,000 N. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Work-Energy Theorem 44) Two identical arrows, one with twice the kinetic energy of the other, are fired into a bale of hay. Compared with penetration of the slow arrow, the faster arrow penetrates A) the same distance. B) twice as far. C) four times as far. D) more than four times as far. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Work-Energy Theorem 45) Two identical arrows, one with twice the speed of the other, are fired into a bale of hay. Compared with penetration of the slow arrow, the faster arrow penetrates A) the same distance. B) two times as far. C) four times as far. D) more than four times as far. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Work-Energy Theorem 46) A ball rolling down an incline has its maximum potential energy at A) the top. B) a quarter of the way down. C) halfway down. D) the bottom. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Conservation of Energy

47) A ball rolling down an incline has its maximum kinetic energy at A) the top. B) halfway down. C) three-quarters of the way down. D) the bottom. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Conservation of Energy 48) The bob of a simple pendulum has its maximum kinetic energy at the A) top of its swing. B) bottom of its swing. C) midpoint between top and bottom. D) at all points along its path of swing. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Conservation of Energy 49) After rolling halfway down an incline, a marble's kinetic energy is A) less than its potential energy. B) greater than its potential energy. C) the same as its potential energy. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Conservation of Energy 50) A block of ice sliding down an incline has half its maximum kinetic energy A) at the top. B) at the bottom. C) halfway down. D) need more information Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Conservation of Energy 51) A light aluminum ball and a heavy lead ball of the same size roll down an incline. When they are halfway down the incline, they will have identical A) kinetic energies. B) potential energies. C) momentum. D) inertias. E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Conservation of Energy

52) When wind encounters a wind turbine that produces energy, wind speed on the downside of the blades is A) slowed. B) speeded up. C) not affected. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Conservation of Energy 53) Strictly speaking, more fuel is consumed by your car if the air conditioner, headlights, or even a radio is turned on. This statement is A) false. B) true only if the car's engine is running. C) true. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Conservation of Energy 54) A circus diver drops from a high pole into water far below. When he is halfway down A) his potential energy is halved. B) he has gained an amount of kinetic energy equal to half his initial potential energy. C) his kinetic energy and potential energy are equal. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Conservation of Energy 55) Acrobat Bart at the circus drops vertically onto the end of a see-saw, with his partner Art equidistant from the fulcrum at the other end. Art is propelled straight upward a distance twice that of Bart's dropping distance. Neglecting inefficiencies we see A) the masses of Art and Bart are equal. B) Art has half the mass of Bart. C) need more information Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Conservation of Energy

56) A 1-kg ball dropped from 2 m rebounds only 1.5 m after hitting the ground. The amount of energy converted to heat is about A) 0.5 J. B) 1.0 J. C) 1.5 J. D) 2.0 J. E) more than 2.0 J. Answer: E Diff: 3 Topic: Conservation of Energy 57) Although perpetual motion is the natural order of things in the universe A) it follows that machines can operate and do work by perpetual motion. B) no perpetual-motion device that multiplies energy exists. C) both of these are false statements Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Machines 58) A common pulley acts similar to a A) hydraulic press. B) gear. C) common lever. D) tension producer. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Machines 59) A hydraulic press, like an inclined plane, is capable of increasing energy. A) sometimes true B) always false C) always true D) sometimes false Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Machines 60) When properly used, a hydraulic press, like a wheel and axle, is capable of multiplying force input. A) A true statement. B) A false statement. C) Yes, and in special cases, energy as well. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Machines

61) A hydraulic jack is used to lift objects such as automobiles. If the input force is 200 N over a distance of 1 meter, the output force over a distance of 0.1 meter is ideally A) 200 N. B) 500 N. C) 1000 N. D) 2000 N. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Machines 62) Phil applies 100 N to a pulley system and raises a load one-tenth of his downward pull. Ideally, the weight of the load is A) 100 N. B) 1000 N. C) 10,000 N. D) more than 10,000 N Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Machines 63) A hydraulic press has its input piston depressed 20 centimeters while the output piston is raised 1 centimeter. A 1-newton input can lift a load of A) 1 N. B) 10 N. C) 15 N. D) 20 N. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Machines 64) A machine puts out 100 watts of power for every 1000 watts put into it. The efficiency of the machine is A) 10%. B) 50%. C) 90%. D) 110%. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Efficiency

65) A jack system will increase the potential energy of a heavy load by 1000 J with a work input of 2000 J. The efficiency of the jack system is A) 10%. B) 20%. C) 50%. D) 80%. E) need more information Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Efficiency 66) A miracle car with a 100% efficient engine burns fuel having a 40-megajoules-per-liter energy content. If air drag and overall frictional forces at highway speeds totals 1000 N, what distance per liter can be achieved on the highway? A) 30 km B) 40 km C) 50 km D) more than 50 km E) need more information Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Efficiency 67) A car's engine is 20% efficient. When cruising, the car encounters an average retarding force of 1000 N. If the energy content of fuel is 40 megajoules per liter, how many kilometers per liter does the car achieve? A) 8 B) 10 C) 12 D) 14 E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Efficiency 68) Earth's primary energy source is A) the Sun. B) fossil fuel. C) electricity. D) geothermal. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Sources of Energy

69) Hydro and wind power are indirect forms of A) solar energy. B) fossil fuels deep down. C) nuclear energy in Earth's interior. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Sources of Energy 70) A machine that promises more energy output than input is A) a fantasy. B) commonplace in today's technology. C) a long-shot worth investing in. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Sources of Energy 71) The most concentrated form of energy is A) wind. B) fossil fuel. C) geothermal. D) nuclear. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Sources of Energy 72) The exhaust product from a hydrogen fuel cell is A) carbon dioxide. B) methane. C) pure water. D) nitric acid. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Sources of Energy 73) Which of these is not a form of solar energy? A) wind energy B) fossil fuel energy C) geothermal energy D) hydroelectric power Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Sources of Energy

74) Solar power is commonly used to produce A) heat. B) electricity. C) both of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Sources of Energy 75) Hydrogen, like electricity, is A) an energy source. B) not an energy source. C) a source of both thermal and electric power. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Sources of Energy 76) A primary difference between momentum and kinetic energy is A) momenta can cancel; kinetic energy cannot. B) kinetic energy can cancel; momenta cannot. C) either of the above depending on circumstances D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Energy/Momentum 77) Impulse involves the time that a force acts, whereas work involves the A) distance that a force acts. B) time and distance that a force acts. C) acceleration that a force produces. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Energy/Momentum 78) A moving object has A) speed. B) velocity. C) momentum. D) energy. E) all of these Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Energy/Momentum

79) If an all-electric car has kinetic energy, then it also must have A) impulse. B) momentum. C) acceleration. D) force. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Energy/Momentum 80) If the speed of a motor scooter doubles, which of the following also doubles? A) momentum B) kinetic energy C) acceleration D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Energy/Momentum 81) When a cannon is fired, it recoils as the cannonball is set in motion. The cannon and cannonball ideally acquire equal A) but opposite amounts of momentum. B) amounts of kinetic energy. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Energy/Momentum 82) When you and your snowboard are in motion, which of the following can be zero? A) momentum B) kinetic energy C) mass D) inertia E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Energy/Momentum 83) A roller skate at rest may have A) speed. B) velocity. C) momentum. D) energy. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Energy/Momentum 19 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

84) Two 2-m/s pool balls roll toward each other and collide. Suppose after bouncing apart each moves at 4 m/s. This collision violates the conservation of A) momentum. B) energy. C) both momentum and energy. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Energy/Momentum 85) Compared to the recoiling cannon, a fired cannonball has a A) greater momentum. B) greater kinetic energy. C) smaller speed. D) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Energy/Momentum 86) A golf ball is thrown at and bounces backward from a massive bowling ball that is initially at rest. After the collision, compared to the golf ball, the bowling ball has more A) momentum, but less kinetic energy. B) kinetic energy, but less momentum. C) momentum and more kinetic energy. D) need more information Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Energy/Momentum 87) A piece of taffy slams into and sticks to an identical piece of taffy at rest. The momentum of the combined pieces after the collision is the same as before the collision, but this is not true of the kinetic energy, which partly degrades into heat. What percentage of the kinetic energy becomes heat? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% E) need more information Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Energy/Momentum

88) Newton's Cradle consists of an aligned row of identical elastic balls suspended by strings so they barely touch one another. When two balls are raised from one end and released, they strike the row and two balls pop out from the other end. If instead, one ball popped out with twice the speed of the two, this would violate A) momentum conservation. B) energy conservation. C) both of these D) none of these Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Energy/Momentum

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 8 Rotational Motion 8.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Horses with the greatest linear speed on a merry-go-round are located A) near the center. B) near the outside. C) anywhere, because they all move at the same speed. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Circular Motion 2) Which horse moves faster in m/s on a merry-go-round? A) one near inner rail B) one near outer rail C) both move at the same speed in m/s. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Circular Motion 3) If a turntable's rotational speed is doubled, then the linear speed of a pet hamster sitting on the edge of the record will A) double. B) halve. C) remain the same. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Circular Motion 4) Your pet hamster sits on a record player that has constant angular speed. If the hamster moves to a point twice as far from the center, then its linear speed A) doubles. B) halves. C) remains the same. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Circular Motion 5) When railroad tracks make a curve, the outer track is longer. This means a wheel that rides on the outer track needs to somehow A) roll slower than the wheel on the inner track. B) maintain the same speed as the wheel on the inner track. C) roll faster than the wheel on the inner track. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Circular Motion 1 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) When a train makes a curve, a tapered wheel rim is able to A) cover different distances per revolution. B) maintain a fixed rotational speed. C) reduce differences in angular speeds. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Circular Motion 7) Each rolling wheel of a railroad train is tapered. Compared with the wide part, the narrow part of the wheel has a tangential speed that is A) less. B) greater. C) the same for both. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Circular Motion 8) The tapered shape of the wheel rims that ride on railroad tracks allows opposite wheels to A) in effect, vary their diameters. B) travel at different linear speeds for the same rotational speed. C) both of these D) none of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Circular Motion 9) The circumference of a bicycle wheel is 2 meters. If it rotates at 1 revolution per second then its linear speed is A) 1 m/s. B) 2 m/s. C) 3 m/s. D) 3.14 m/s. E) 6.28 m/s. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Circular Motion 10) Consider a string with several rocks tied along its length at equally spaced intervals. You whirl the string overhead so that the rocks follow circular paths. Compared with a rock at the end of the string, a rock at the middle moves A) half as fast. B) twice as fast. C) at the same linear speed. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Circular Motion 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) The net force exerted on a car traveling in a circular path at constant speed is A) directed forward, in the direction of travel. B) directed toward the center of the curve. C) zero because the car is not accelerating. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Circular Motion 12) If you're on a Ferris wheel at a carnival, seated 10 m from the Ferris wheel's axis that makes a complete rotation each minute, your linear speed is A) 10 m/min. B) 31.4 m/min. C) 62.8 m/min. D) 100 m/min. E) need more information Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Circular Motion 13) The rotational inertia of your leg is greater when your leg is A) straight. B) bent. C) same either way Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Rotational Inertia 14) You can swing your legs to and fro more frequently when your legs are A) straight. B) bent. C) same either way Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Rotational Inertia 15) An industrial flywheel has a greater rotational inertia when most of its mass is A) nearer the rim. B) nearer the axis. C) uniformly spread out as in a disk. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Rotational Inertia

16) The rotational inertia of a pencil is greatest about an axis A) along its length, where the lead is. B) about its midpoint, like a propeller. C) about its end, like a pendulum. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Rotational Inertia 17) Which of these animals has a quicker stride? A) giraffe B) horse C) cat D) mouse Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Rotational Inertia 18) A tightrope walker more easily balances on a tight wire if her pole A) is held high. B) droops. C) is short but heavy. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Rotational Inertia 19) Consider two flywheels of the same size and shape, but one with twice the mass. Rotational inertia of the more massive one is A) two times greater. B) four times greater. C) the same as the other one. D) half. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Rotational Inertia 20) A flywheel's diameter is twice that of another of the same shape and mass. Rotational inertia of the larger flywheel is A) two times greater. B) four times greater. C) the same as the other's. D) half. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Rotational Inertia

21) A coin and a ring roll down an incline at the same time. The one to first reach the bottom is the A) ring. B) coin. C) both reach the bottom at the same time Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Rotational Inertia 22) A ring and a disk both at rest roll down a hill together. Which rolls slower? A) ring B) disk C) depends on the masses D) both roll at the same speed E) need more information Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Rotational Inertia 23) A ring, a disk, and a solid sphere begin rolling down a hill together. Which reaches the bottom first? A) ring B) disk C) sphere D) all reach the bottom at the same time E) need more information Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Rotational Inertia 24) A vertically-held sledge hammer is easier to balance when the heavier end is A) on your hand. B) at the top, away from your hand. C) same either way Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Rotational Inertia 25) Stand a meterstick on its end and let it rotate to the floor. If you attach a heavy glob of clay to its upper end and repeat, the time to fall will be A) shorter. B) longer. C) the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Rotational Inertia 5 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

26) A vertically-held sledge hammer is easier to balance when the heavier end is A) on your hand. B) at the top, away from your hand. C) the same either way Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Rotational Inertia 27) Stand a broom upright on the end of its pole and let it topple to the floor. Repeat, but with the bristles end on the floor. The faster fall will be the broom standing on its A) pole-end. B) bristles-end. C) the same either way Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Rotational Inertia 28) Stand a broom upright on the end of its pole and let it topple to the floor. Repeat, but with the bristles end on the floor. The faster fall will be the broom standing on its A) pole-end. B) bristles-end. C) the same either way. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Rotational Inertia 29) Which jar will roll down an incline in the shortest time, an empty one or one filled with peanut butter? A) the empty jar B) both reach the bottom at the same time C) the filled jar D) need more information Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Rotational Inertia 30) Which tin can will roll down an incline in the shortest time, one filled with water or one filled with ice? (Hint: water 'slides' inside the can.) A) with water B) with ice C) both the same D) need more information Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Rotational Inertia

31) Compared with a force, a torque involves A) rotation. B) leverage. C) distance from an axis of rotation. D) all the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Torque 32) A torque acting on an object tends to produce A) equilibrium. B) rotation. C) linear motion. D) velocity. E) a center of gravity. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Torque 33) If Alex wishes to rotate his skateboard, then he must apply a A) torque. B) rotational maneuver. C) pause before bearing down on the board. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Torque 34) A ball that gains speed as it rolls down a hill experiences a A) net torque. B) net force. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Torque 35) If you place a pipe over the end of a wrench when trying to rotate a stubborn bolt, effectively making the wrench handle twice as long, you'll multiply the torque by A) two. B) four. C) eight. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Torque

36) For a system in mechanical equilibrium, the resultant A) force must be zero. B) torque must be zero. C) both of these D) none of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Torque 37) A ball gains speed while rolling down a hill due mainly to A) its rotational inertia. B) its angular acceleration. C) a balanced torque. D) an unbalanced torque. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Torque 38) To rotate a stubborn screw, it is best to use a screwdriver that has a A) wide handle. B) long handle. C) smooth handle. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Torque 39) Two people are balanced on a seesaw. If one person leans inward toward the center of the seesaw, that person's end of the seesaw tends to A) rise. B) fall. C) stay at the same level. D) need more information Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Torque 40) On a balanced seesaw, a boy three times as heavy as his partner sits A) less than 1/3 the distance from the fulcrum. B) 1/3 the distance from the fulcrum. C) more than 1/3 the distance from the fulcrum. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Torque

41) A solitary boy cannot balance on a seesaw with its fulcrum at its midpoint. If the fulcrum is moved to one-quarter the distance from the boy, balance is achieved when the weight of the boy is A) less than the weight of the seesaw. B) equal to the weight of the seesaw. C) more than the weight of the seesaw. D) need more information Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Torque 42) A boy plays solitary seesaw by placing the seesaw's fulcrum one-eighth the distance from where he sits at one end. Which weighs more? A) the boy B) the seesaw C) they have equal weights D) need more information Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Torque 43) Toss a baseball bat into the air and it wobbles about its A) geometrical center. B) center of mass. C) heavier end. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Center of Mass and Center of Gravity 44) The long, heavy tail of a spider monkey enables the monkey to easily vary its A) weight. B) momentum. C) inertia. D) center of gravity. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Center of Mass and Center of Gravity 45) The center of mass of a human body is located at a point that A) is fixed, but different for different people. B) is always directly behind the belly button. C) changes as a person bends over. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Center of Mass and Center of Gravity 9 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

46) The famous Leaning Tower of Pisa doesn't topple over because its center of gravity is A) relatively low for such a tall building. B) stabilized by its structure. C) displaced from its center. D) above a place of support. E) in the same place as its center of mass. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Center of Mass and Center of Gravity 47) Which of these has its center of mass where no mass exists? A) baseball B) golf ball C) basketball D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Center of Mass and Center of Gravity 48) If Earth had a pair of identical moons on opposite sides of the same circular orbit, the center of gravity of the double-moon-Earth system would be A) inside the Earth, but off center. B) at the center of the Earth. C) outside the Earth, but within the orbital path of the moons. D) outside the Earth, but beyond the orbital path of the moons. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Center of Mass and Center of Gravity 49) To kick a football so it won't topple end over end, kick it so the force of impact extends A) above its center of gravity. B) through its center of gravity. C) below its center of gravity. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Center of Mass and Center of Gravity 50) If Earth rotated more slowly about its axis, your weight would A) increase. B) decrease. C) stay the same. D) be zero. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Center of Mass and Center of Gravity 10 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

51) Strictly speaking, to weigh less in the Northern Hemisphere, you should move to a location farther A) north (toward the pole). B) south (toward the equator). C) east. D) west. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Center of Mass and Center of Gravity 52) When riding at constant velocity on a Segway electric vehicle, your center of mass is A) slightly in front of the point between wheels below. B) slightly behind the point between wheels below. C) directly above the point between wheels below. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Center of Mass and Center of Gravity 53) A 1-kg rock is suspended from the tip of a horizontal meterstick at the 0-cm mark so that the meterstick barely balances like a seesaw when its fulcrum is at the 25-cm mark. From this information, the mass of the meterstick is A) 1/4 kg. B) 1/2 kg. C) 3/4 kg. D) 1 kg. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Center of Mass and Center of Gravity 54) A 1-kg rock is suspended from the tip of a horizontal meterstick at the 0-cm mark so that the meterstick barely balances like a seesaw when its fulcrum is at the 12.5-cm mark. From this information, the mass of the meterstick is A) 1/4 kg. B) 1/2 kg. C) 3/4 kg. D) 1 kg. E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 3 Topic: Center of Mass and Center of Gravity

55) You can safely stand on the overhanging end of a heavy plank that rests on a table. How much overhang depends on your mass and the plank's mass. If you can stand on the end of a plank that overhangs the edge of the supporting table 1/4 its total length, how massive is the plank compared to your mass? A) 1/2 B) the same C) 1 and 1/2 times D) twice E) 4 times Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Center of Mass and Center of Gravity 56) You can safely stand on the overhanging end of a heavy plank that rests on a table. How much overhang depends on your mass and the mass of the plank. If you can stand on the end of a plank that overhangs the edge of the supporting table 1/5 its total length, how massive is the plank compared to your mass? A) 1/3 B) the same C) 2/3 D) 1 and 1/3 times E) more than 1 and 1/3 times Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Center of Mass and Center of Gravity 57) If you balance a broom horizontally on one finger, the center of gravity of the broom will be above your finger, closer to the bristles end than the handle end. If you saw the broom in two pieces at that point and weigh the two parts on a scale, you'll find that the heavier part is the A) bristles part. B) handle part. C) both the same weight Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Center of Mass and Center of Gravity 58) The main reason a person weighs less at the equator than at the poles involves the A) spin of the Earth. B) influence of the Sun, Moon, and all the planets. C) law of action and reaction. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Centripetal/Centrifugal Force

59) Centrifugal forces are an apparent reality to observers in a reference frame that is A) moving at constant velocity. B) an inertial reference frame. C) at rest. D) rotating. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Centripetal/Centrifugal Force 60) The force responsible for a car moving steadily along a no-friction icy banked curve is due to A) centrifugal effects. B) the normal force at right angles to the curved surface. C) the radial component of the normal force. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Centripetal/Centrifugal Force 61) Centripetal force does no work on a circularly-moving object because A) no change in energy occurs. B) rotational energy transfers to kinetic energy. C) centripetal force has no component in the direction of motion. D) none of the above. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Centripetal/Centrifugal Force 62) The bob of a conical pendulum swings in a A) to-and-fro path. B) circular path. C) chaotic path. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Centripetal/Centrifugal Force 63) A difference between linear momentum and angular momentum involves A) a radial distance. B) two types of speed. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Angular Momentum

64) Multiple the equation for linear momentum by radial distance r and you have A) rotational kinetic energy. B) angular momentum. C) rotational inertia. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Angular Momentum 65) The gravitational field simulated by rotation in a space habitat that is best suited for humans is A) zero. B) g. C) one-quarter g. D) one-half g. E) three-quarters g. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Angular Momentum 66) A swimming area in a rotating space habitat is located in a region of 1/4 g. If a diver can jump 1 m high in a 1-g region, how high can the same diver jump in the swimming area? A) 1 m B) 2 m C) 4 m D) 16 m E) more than 16 m Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Conservation of Angular Momentum 67) If the rotational speed of a rotating habitat in space increases, the weight experienced by occupants A) decreases. B) stays the same. C) increases. D) is always zero. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Conservation of Angular Momentum 68) When a twirling ice skater brings her arms inward, her rotational speed A) decreases. B) remains the same. C) increases. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Conservation of Angular Momentum 14 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

69) The chef at the infamous Fattening Tower of Pizza tosses a spinning disk of uncooked pizza dough into the air. The disk becomes wider during its flight, while its rotational speed A) remains constant. B) quickens. C) slows. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Conservation of Angular Momentum 70) When you do somersaults, you'll more easily rotate when your body is A) straight with both arms above your head. B) straight with both arms at your sides. C) curled into a ball shape. D) no difference Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Conservation of Angular Momentum 71) As a huge rotating cloud of particles in space gravitate together forming an increasingly dense ball, it shrinks in size and A) rotates slower. B) rotates at the same speed. C) rotates faster. D) cannot rotate. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Conservation of Angular Momentum 72) If the planet Jupiter underwent gravitational collapse, its rate of rotation about its axis would A) decrease. B) increase. C) stay the same. D) need more information Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Conservation of Angular Momentum 73) As the polar icecaps melt, the resulting water spreads over the entire Earth. This new mass distribution tends to make the length of a day A) longer. B) shorter. C) none of these Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Conservation of Angular Momentum 15 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

74) As you crawl toward the edge of a large freely-rotating horizontal turntable in a carnival funhouse, the angular momentum of you and the turntable A) decreases. B) increases. C) remains the same, but the revolutions per minute decrease. D) decreases in direct proportion to your decrease in revolutions per minute. E) none of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Conservation of Angular Momentum

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 9 Gravity 9.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Newton discovered A) gravity. B) that gravity is universal. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: The Universal Law of Gravity 2) According to Newton, the greater the masses of interacting objects, the A) less the gravitational force between them. B) greater the gravitational force between them. C) greater the force between them by the square of the masses. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: The Universal Law of Gravity 3) According to Newton, when the distance between two interacting objects doubles, the gravitational force is A) half. B) one-quarter. C) the same. D) twice as much. E) four times as much. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: The Universal Law of Gravity 4) If Earth's radius somehow increased with no change in mass, your weight would A) increase also. B) decrease. C) stay the same. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: The Universal Law of Gravity

5) What is the force of gravity on a 500-N woman standing on Earth's surface? A) 50 N B) 250 N C) 500 N D) 5000 N E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: The Universal Law of Gravity 6) If the mass of Earth somehow increased with no change in radius, your weight would A) increase also. B) decrease. C) stay the same. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: The Universal Law of Gravity 7) If the Sun were twice as massive A) its pull on Earth would double. B) the pull of Earth on the Sun would double. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: The Universal Law of Gravity 8) A very massive object A and a less massive object B move toward each other under the influence of gravity. Which force, if either, is greater? A) the force on A B) the force on B C) both forces are the same. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: The Universal Law of Gravity 9) Two objects move toward each other due to gravity. As the objects get closer and closer, the force between them A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains constant. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: The Universal Law of Gravity

10) If a block is set sliding on a huge imaginary frictionless plane in contact with Earth's surface, it will NOT sustain a constant speed because A) a component of gravitational force parallel to the plane soon acts on it. B) gravity gets weaker as distance increases. C) it is not free from the shackles of Earth's gravity. D) of its inertia. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: The Universal Law of Gravity 11) To make a profit a buyer purchases metal by weight at one altitude and sells it at the same price per pound at another altitude. The supplier should A) buy at a high altitude and sell at a low altitude. B) buy at a low altitude and sell at a high altitude. C) it makes no difference. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: The Universal Law of Gravity 12) The difference between Newton's law as a proportion and an equation involves A) the constant G. B) the equal sign. C) one being a vector and the other not. D) magnitude and direction. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: The Universal Gravitational Constant, G 13) The universal gravitational constant G was first measured A) before Newton's time. B) by Newton himself. C) after Newton's time. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: The Universal Gravitational Constant, G 14) In comparison with other fundamental forces, the universal gravitational constant G indicates that gravity is A) very weak. B) strong. C) very strong. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: The Universal Gravitational Constant, G

15) The force of Earth's gravity on a capsule in space will lessen as it moves farther away. If the capsule moves to twice its distance, the force toward Earth becomes A) half. B) three-quarters. C) one-fourth. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: The Inverse-Square Law 16) The force of Earth's gravity on a capsule in space increases as it comes closer. When the capsule moves to half its distance, the force toward Earth is then A) twice. B) three times greater. C) four times greater. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: The Inverse-Square Law 17) As two objects moving toward each other due to gravity get closer, the acceleration of each A) decreases. B) remains constant. C) increases. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: The Inverse-Square Law 18) When the distance between two stars decreases by one-third, the force between them A) decreases by one-third. B) decreases by one-half. C) increases to twice as much. D) increases to nine times as much. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: The Inverse-Square Law 19) If Earth's mass decreased to one-half its original mass with no change in radius, then your weight would A) decrease to one-quarter. B) decrease to half. C) stay the same. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: The Inverse-Square Law 4 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) Two planets in space gravitationally attract each other. If both the masses and distances are doubled, the force between them is A) one-quarter. B) half as much. C) twice as much. D) four times as much. E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: The Inverse-Square Law 21) A weight watcher who normally weighs 400 N stands on top of a very tall ladder so she is one Earth radius above Earth's surface. How much is her weight there? A) 0 B) 100 N C) 200 N D) 400 N E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: The Inverse-Square Law 22) The force of gravity acts on all apples on an apple tree. Some apples are twice as far from the ground as others. For the same mass these twice-as-high apples have A) 1/4 the weight. B) 1/2 the weight. C) practically the same weight. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: The Inverse-Square Law 23) The planet Jupiter is about 300 times as massive as Earth, yet on its surface you would weigh only about 3 times as much because A) your mass is 100 times less on Jupiter. B) Jupiter is significantly farther from the Sun. C) Jupiter's radius is about 10 times Earth's radius. D) you are 100 times more weightless there. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: The Inverse-Square Law

24) Your weight is the force A) due to gravity only. B) you exert against a supporting surface. C) equal to your normal force on any surface. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Weight and Weightlessness 25) When you weigh yourself on a bathroom scale on a slight incline instead of a level surface, your weight reading on the scale will be A) less. B) no different. C) more. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Weight and Weightlessness 26) If you jounce up and down on a bathroom scale, what varies on the scale reading is A) mg. B) the normal force. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Weight and Weightlessness 27) You can experience weight A) standing on Earth's surface. B) in an accelerating elevator away from Earth. C) in a rotating habitat in space. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Weight and Weightlessness 28) You experience weightlessness A) in the absence of a supporting surface. B) momentarily when you step off a chair. C) in a freely falling elevator. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Weight and Weightlessness

29) Inside a freely-falling runaway elevator, your A) acceleration is zero. B) weight is zero. C) gravitational interaction with Earth is zero. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Weight and Weightlessness 30) Inside a freely-falling elevator, you would have no A) gravitational force on you. B) weight. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Weight and Weightlessness 31) Passengers in a high-flying jumbo jet feel their normal weight in flight, while passengers in an orbiting space vehicle do not, because passengers in the space vehicle are A) beyond the main pull of Earth's gravity. B) above Earth's atmosphere. C) without support forces. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Weight and Weightlessness 32) If the Sun became twice as massive, your attraction to the Sun would double and your weight as measured on Earth would A) double. B) quadruple. C) not change. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Weight and Weightlessness

33) When you step on a weighing scale at noon, Earth pulls you downward and the overhead Sun pulls you upward. The reason the Sun's pull doesn't decrease your weight at noon is because A) the Sun's pull on you is negligibly small. B) the weighing scale is calibrated only in Earth weight. C) you, the scale, and Earth are in free fall (in orbit) around the Sun. D) the Sun's pull is cancelled by the gravitation of other celestial bodies. E) of tidal effects in the "solid" Earth. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Weight and Weightlessness 34) Which pulls on the oceans of Earth with a greater force? A) Moon B) Sun C) both pull the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Ocean Tides 35) Which is most responsible for Earth's ocean tides? A) Moon B) Sun C) both contribute equally. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Ocean Tides 36) The main reason ocean tides exist is that Moon's pull is stronger A) than the pull of the Sun. B) on water closer to it than on water farther away. C) on Earth's oceans than on Earth itself. D) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Ocean Tides 37) Tidal forces in general are the result of A) two or more sources of gravitation. B) a combination of any kind of forces acting on a body. C) unequal forces acting on different parts of a body. D) the inverse-square law. E) unequal fluid flow. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Ocean Tides

38) Tides caused mainly by the Moon occur in Earth's A) oceans. B) atmosphere. C) interior. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Ocean Tides 39) Tidal bulges on the Moon involve the concept of A) torques. B) elasticity. C) slight water on the Moon. D) magnetism. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Ocean Tides 40) One side of the Moon continually facing Earth is A) a passing phenomenon. B) a cosmic coincidence. C) tidal lock. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Ocean Tides 41) If the Moon had twice as much mass and still orbits Earth at the same distance, ocean bulges on Earth would be A) smaller. B) larger. C) unequal in size. D) not significantly different. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Ocean Tides 42) On each given day and location, tides rise and fall at A) about the same time. B) exactly the same time. C) different times. D) ever increasing rates daily. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Ocean Tides

43) During an eclipse of the Sun the high ocean tides on Earth are A) extra high. B) extra low. C) not significantly different. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Ocean Tides 44) The Earth is closer to the Sun in January than in July, which accounts for the fact that the highest high tides in the Northern Hemisphere occur in A) winter. B) spring. C) summer. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Ocean Tides 45) The best time for digging clams (when the low tide is extra low) is during the time of the A) new or full moon. B) half moon. C) quarter moon. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Ocean Tides 46) Which produces a greater tidal effect in your body, the Moon or a 1-kg melon held at arm's length above your head? A) the Moon B) the melon C) both about equally Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Ocean Tides 47) Which of these three produces the greatest tidal effect on you right now? A) the Moon B) the Sun C) the Earth Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Ocean Tides

48) We do not observe tides in a community swimming pool because A) gravitation on the small mass of water is negligibly small. B) it is shallow compared to the ocean. C) all parts of it are practically the same distance from the Moon. D) they are masked by the much stronger pull of Earth gravity. E) the tides are only observed at night. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Ocean Tides 49) For lunar tides to occur in the human body A) most of the body would have to be in the liquid state. B) Earth's gravitation would have to be incredibly small. C) parts of the body would have to be appreciably closer to the Moon than other parts. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Ocean Tides 50) The origin of any microtides in the human body is most likely the A) Sun. B) Moon. C) Earth. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Ocean Tides 51) If the Moon were covered with water, tidal effects caused by Earth would find the Moon with A) 1 tidal bulge. B) 2 tidal bulges. C) 3 tidal bulges. D) 4 tidal bulges. E) no tidal bulges. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Ocean Tides 52) If the Moon were four times as massive but twice as far from Earth, high tides on Earth would be A) higher. B) lower. C) no different. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Ocean Tides 11 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

53) Suppose the Moon had twice the diameter but the same mass and same orbital distance from Earth. In that case, the high tides on Earth would be A) higher. B) lower. C) unequal in size. D) practically the same. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Ocean Tides 54) There would be only one ocean tide per 24-hour day if the A) Earth and Moon were equally massive. B) Moon were more massive than Earth. C) Sun's influence on the tides were negligible. D) Moon's mass were small — only a few kilograms. E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 3 Topic: Ocean Tides 55) All places on Earth would have high tides at the same instant if the A) Moon did not revolve. B) Moon did not rotate. C) Sun did not revolve. D) Sun did not rotate. E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 3 Topic: Ocean Tides 56) Surrounding a magnet is a magnetic field. Surrounding an electron is an electric field. Surrounding Earth is A) an alteration in space in which mass experiences a force. B) a gravitational field. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Gravitational Fields

57) Earth's gravitational field extends A) only above and beyond Earth's surface and cancels inside Earth. B) both inside and outside Earth and throughout the entire universe. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Gravitational Fields 58) The direction of a gravitational field is A) in the same direction as gravitational attraction. B) away from the center of gravity of an object. C) opposite to the direction of gravitational attraction. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Gravitational Fields 59) The concept of force is fundamental to A) Newton's theory of gravitation. B) Einstein's theory of gravitation. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Gravitational Fields 60) An asteroid exerts a 360-N gravitational force on a nearby spacecraft. The 360-N force on the spacecraft is directed A) toward the asteroid. B) away from the asteroid. C) toward the Sun. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Gravitational Fields 61) An asteroid exerts a 360-N gravitational force on a nearby spacecraft. If the spacecraft moves to a position three times as far from the center of the asteroid, the force will be A) zero. B) 40 N. C) 120 N. D) 360 N. E) 1080 N. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Gravitational Fields

62) If your mass, the mass of Earth, and the mass of everything in the solar system were twice as much as it is now, yet everything stayed the same size, your weight on Earth would A) be the same. B) double. C) quadruple. D) be eight times as much as now. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Gravitational Fields 63) The amount of gravitational force that acts on a space vehicle while in Earth orbit is A) nearly zero. B) nearly as much as the vehicle's weight on Earth's surface. C) the same as the vehicle's weight on Earth's surface. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Gravitational Fields 64) Rate this statement: No force due to Earth's gravity acts on astronauts inside the orbiting space station. A) always true while in orbit B) sometimes true while in orbit C) always false Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Gravitational Fields 65) If an object is placed exactly halfway between Earth and the Moon, it would fall toward the A) Earth. B) Moon. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Gravitational Fields 66) How far must one travel to escape Earth's gravitational field? A) to a region above Earth's atmosphere B) to a region well beyond the Moon C) to a region beyond the solar system D) forget it; you can't travel far enough. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Gravitational Fields

67) The force of gravity acting on you will increase if you A) burrow deep inside Earth. B) stand on a planet with a shrinking radius. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Gravitational Fields 68) If you drop a stone into a hole drilled all the way to the other side of Earth (neglect the molten core), the stone will A) come to an abrupt stop at Earth's center. B) speed up until it gets to Earth's center. C) speed up until it reaches Earth's other side. D) slow down until it reaches Earth's center. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Gravitational Fields 69) Half-way to the center of a planet of uniform density, your weight compared to that at the surface would be A) one-quarter. B) one-half. C) three-quarters. D) the same as at the surface. E) zero. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Gravitational Fields 70) Half-way to the center of a completely hollow planet with a thin uniform shell, your weight would be A) one-quarter of your weight on the surface. B) one-half of your weight on the surface. C) three-quarters of your weight on the surface. D) the same as at the surface. E) zero. Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Gravitational Fields

71) Each of us weighs a tiny bit less inside the ground floor of a skyscraper than we do on the ground away from the skyscraper because the A) gravitational field is shielded inside the building. B) mass of the building above slightly attracts us upward. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Gravitational Fields 72) A hollow spherical planet is inhabited by people who live inside it, where the gravitational field is zero. When a very massive spaceship lands on the planet's surface, inhabitants find that the gravitational field inside the planet is A) still zero. B) non-zero, directed toward the spaceship. C) non-zero, directed away from the spaceship. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Gravitational Fields 73) Which rocket would require more fuel? A) one going from the Moon to Earth. B) one going from Earth to the Moon. C) both the same. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Gravitational Fields 74) A black hole is A) an empty region of space with a huge gravitational field. B) at the center if all stars. C) the remains of a giant star that has undergone gravitational collapse. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Black Holes 75) The factor most directly responsible for making a black hole invisible is its A) size. B) mass. C) color. D) surface escape velocity. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Black Holes

76) When a star collapses to form a black hole, its mass A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains the same. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Black Holes 77) If the Sun collapsed to a black hole, Earth's gravitational attraction to it would be A) more. B) less. C) the same. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Black Holes 78) Earth is presently accelerating toward the Sun (centripetal acceleration). If the Sun collapsed into a black hole, this acceleration would A) increase. B) decrease. C) remain the same. D) cease to exist. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Black Holes 79) An outcome of universal gravitation is that A) planets aren't cubes with sharp corners. B) its discovery prompted other laws of nature. C) prediction and discovery of planets. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Universal Gravitation 80) Planets wobble in their orbits due to A) the gravitational attraction to other planets. B) uncertainties in the inverse-square law. C) elliptical-orbit quirks. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Universal Gravitation

81) Wobbles in the path of Uranus led to the discovery of A) Jupiter. B) Mars. C) Neptune. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Universal Gravitation 82) Pluto is classified by as a A) full-fledged planet. B) dwarf planet. C) moon. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Universal Gravitation 83) The identities of dark energy and dark matter are A) unknown at this time. B) subjects of intense astronomical interest. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Universal Gravitation

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 10 Projectile and Satellite Motion 10.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) A ball rolled along a horizontal surface maintains a constant speed because A) its velocity remains constant. B) no horizontal force acts on it. C) of inertia. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Projectile Motion 2) A dropped ball gains speed because A) its velocity changes. B) a gravitational force acts on it. C) of inertia. D) its nature is to become closer to Earth. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Projectile Motion 3) Nellie tosses a ball upward at an angle. Assuming no air resistance, which component of velocity changes with time? A) the horizontal component B) the vertical component C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Projectile Motion 4) As soon as a bowling ball rolls off the edge of a table its horizontal component of velocity A) decreases. B) remains constant. C) increases. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Projectile Motion

5) As soon as a ball rolls off the edge of a table A) it is not acted on by any forces. B) it is not acted on by any horizontal forces. C) has a zero net force acting on it. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Projectile Motion 6) A ball rolls off the edge of a table at the same time another ball drops vertically from the same table. The ball to hit the floor first is the A) rolling ball. B) dropped ball. C) both hit at the same time Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Projectile Motion 7) A ball is thrown upward and caught when it returns. Compared with its initial speed and in the presence of air resistance, the speed with which it is caught is A) more. B) less. C) the same. D) need more information. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Projectile Motion 8) While a rock thrown upward at 50 degrees to the horizontal rises, neglecting air drag, its vertical component of velocity A) increases. B) remains unchanged. C) decreases. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Projectile Motion 9) While a rock thrown upward at 50 degrees to the horizontal rises, neglecting air drag, its horizontal component of velocity A) increases. B) remains unchanged. C) decreases. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Projectile Motion

10) Dr. Chuck projects a ball horizontally from a lab bench. The ball lands on a bullseye marked on the floor a horizontal distance away. Compared to the time for the ball to simply drop vertically from the bench, the time in the air for Dr. Chuck's projected ball is A) less. B) the same. C) greater. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Projectile Motion 11) Dr. Chuck projects a ball horizontally from a lab bench. The ball lands on a bullseye marked on the floor a horizontal distance equal to the ball's initial speed A) multiplied by its time in the air. B) coupled with its speed of fall. C) squared plus its downward speed squared when hitting the floor. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Projectile Motion 12) Dr. Chuck projects a ball horizontally from a lab bench. If the projection speed of the ball were greater, the time in the air would be A) less. B) the same. C) greater. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Projectile Motion 13) A hunter on level ground fires a bullet at an angle of 10 degrees above the horizontal while simultaneously dropping another bullet from the level of the rifle. Which bullet will hit the ground first? A) the one dropped B) the one fired C) both hit at the same time. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Projectile Motion

14) A hunter on level ground fires a bullet at an angle of 10 degrees below the horizontal while simultaneously dropping another bullet from the level of the rifle. Which bullet will hit the ground first? A) the one dropped B) the one fired C) both hit at the same time. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Projectile Motion 15) A bullet fired horizontally over level ground hits the ground in 0.5 second. If it had been fired with twice the speed it would have hit the ground in A) less than 0.5 s. B) 0.5 s. C) more than 0.5 s. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Projectile Motion 16) A projectile is launched from ground level at 15° above the horizontal and lands downrange. What other projection angle for the same speed would produce the same down-range distance? A) 30° B) 45° C) 50° D) 75° E) 90° Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Projectile Motion 17) A projectile is fired into the air at an angle of 50° above ground level and hits a target downrange. It will also hit the target if fired at an angle of A) 40°. B) 45°. C) 55°. D) 60°. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Projectile Motion

18) A ball is tossed upward. Neglecting air drag, the acceleration along its path is A) 0 g. B) g downward. C) g upward. D) g upward, then g downward. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Projectile Motion 19) After a rock thrown straight up reaches the top of its path and then falls a short distance, its acceleration is (neglect air resistance) A) greater than at the top of its path. B) less than at the top of its path. C) the same as at the top of its path. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Projectile Motion 20) An object is dropped and freely falls to the ground with acceleration g. If it is thrown upward at an angle instead, neglecting air drag, the acceleration along its path will be A) less than g. B) the same. C) more than g. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Projectile Motion 21) A projectile is launched vertically upward at 50 m/s. If air resistance is negligible, its speed upon returning to its starting point is A) less than 50 m/s. B) 50 m/s. C) more than 50 m/s. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Projectile Motion 22) A projectile is launched vertically upward at 50 m/s. If air resistance does affect motion, then its speed upon returning to its starting point is A) less than 50 m/s. B) 50 m/s. C) more than 50 m/s. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Projectile Motion

23) When air drag affects the motion of projectiles, they don't travel A) as high. B) as far. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Projectile Motion 24) Ideally, a ball is thrown up at an angle and lands downrange. Because of air resistance, the distance reached is A) less. B) the same. C) greater. D) need more information Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Projectile Motion 25) If you throw a stone horizontally from the top of a cliff, one second after leaving your hand its vertical distance below the top of the cliff is A) 5 m. B) 10 m. C) 15 m. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Projectile Motion 26) It there were no gravity a stone thrown upward at 45 degrees would follow a straight-line path. But because of gravity, at the end of 1 second, the stone is actually A) 5 m below the straight line. B) 10 m below the straight line. C) 15 m below the straight line. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Projectile Motion 27) A bullet fired horizontally from a rifle begins to fall A) as soon as it leaves the barrel. B) after air friction reduces its speed. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Projectile Motion

28) The paths of fragments of fireworks are A) normally straight lines. B) parabolas. C) different from the paths of projectiles. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Projectile Motion 29) Hang time is the time your feet are off the ground in a jump. If you jump upward inside a moving vehicle, your hang time will be A) slightly more. B) the same. C) slightly less. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Projectile Motion 30) A gun with a muzzle velocity of 100 m/s is fired horizontally from a tower. Neglecting air resistance, how far downrange will the bullet be 1 second later? A) 50 m B) 98 m C) 100 m D) 490 m E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Projectile Motion 31) Two projectiles are fired from ground level at equal speeds but different angles. One is fired at an angle of 30° and the other at 60°. Neglecting air resistance, the projectile to hit the ground first will be the one fired at A) 30°. B) 60°. C) both hit at the same time Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Projectile Motion 32) An object is thrown vertically into the air. In this case air resistance affects motion. Compared with its time for ascent, the time for its descent is A) shorter. B) the same. C) longer. D) need more information Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Projectile Motion 7 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

33) A ball player wishes to determine pitching speed by throwing a ball horizontally from an elevation 5 m above ground level. The ball lands 20 m downrange. The player's pitching speed is about A) 5 m/s. B) 10 m/s. C) 20 m/s. D) 25 m/s. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Projectile Motion 34) A bullet is fired horizontally with an initial velocity of 300 m/s from a 20-m high tower. If air resistance is negligible, the bullet hits downrange about A) 200 m. B) 300 m. C) 400 m. D) 500 m. E) 600 m. Answer: E Diff: 3 Topic: Projectile Motion 35) While an airplane flies at 40 m/s at an altitude of 500 meters, the pilot drops a heavy package that falls to the ground. Neglecting air drag, about where does the package land relative to the plane flying above? A) directly beneath the plane B) 400 m behind the plane C) 500 m behind the plane D) more than 500 m behind the plane E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Projectile Motion 36) An Earth satellite is simply a projectile A) freely falling around Earth. B) floating motionless in space near Earth. C) approaching Earth from outer space. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Fast-Moving Projectile-Satellites

37) The tangential velocity of an Earth satellite is its velocity A) parallel to the surface of Earth. B) perpendicular to the surface of Earth. C) attributed to satellites moving in any direction. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Fast-Moving Projectile-Satellites 38) The radial velocity of an Earth satellite is its velocity A) parallel to the surface of Earth. B) perpendicular to the surface of Earth. C) attributed to satellites moving in any direction. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Fast-Moving Projectile-Satellites 39) The Moon does not crash into Earth because A) Earth's gravitational field is relatively weak at the Moon. B) gravitational pull of other planets keeps the Moon up. C) Moon has a sufficient tangential speed. D) Moon has less mass than Earth. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Fast-Moving Projectile-Satellites 40) Planets would crash into the Sun if it weren't for A) their tangential velocities. B) their vast distances from the Sun. C) the inverse-square law. D) their relatively small masses. E) the fact that they are beyond the main gravitation of the Sun. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Fast-Moving Projectile-Satellites 41) What prevents satellites such as the ISS from falling? A) gravity B) centripetal force C) centrifugal force D) the absence of air drag E) nothing Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Fast-Moving Projectile-Satellites 9 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

42) The fastest moving planet in a solar system is the A) smallest planet. B) most massive planet. C) planet nearest the Sun. D) planet farthest from the Sun. E) all move at the same speed. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Fast-Moving Projectile-Satellites 43) It takes Neptune a longer time to orbit the Sun than Earth does because Neptune A) has much further to go. B) goes much slower. C) both of these D) none of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Fast-Moving Projectile-Satellites 44) An astronaut at Earth's surface has a mass of 50 kg and a weight of 500 N. If she were floating freely inside a space habitat in remote space, she would have A) no weight and less mass. B) no weight and the same mass. C) more weight and no mass. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Fast-Moving Projectile-Satellites 45) A weightless astronaut in an orbiting satellite is A) shielded from Earth's gravitational field. B) beyond the pull of gravity. C) like the satellite, pulled by Earth's gravitation. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Fast-Moving Projectile-Satellites 46) Our Moon in Earth orbit travels fastest when it is A) involved in an eclipse. B) rotating. C) revolving. D) closest. E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Fast-Moving Projectile-Satellites 10 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

47) A lunar month is about 28 days. If the Moon were farther from Earth than it is now, the lunar month would be A) less than 28 days. B) about 28 days. C) more than 28 days. D) need more information Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Fast-Moving Projectile-Satellites 48) A lunar month is about 28 days. If the Moon were closer to Earth than it is now, the lunar month would be A) less than 28 days. B) about 28 days. C) more than 28 days. D) need more information Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Fast-Moving Projectile-Satellites 49) The speeds of the planets about the Sun depend on A) their distances from the Sun. B) the masses of the planets. C) their periods of rotation. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Fast-Moving Projectile-Satellites 50) The speed of an Earth satellite does NOT depend on its A) distance from Earth. B) mass. C) but it depends on both D) it depends on neither Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Fast-Moving Projectile-Satellites

51) Acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is less than on Earth, and the Moon is smaller than Earth. This means that compared to an Earth satellite, a satellite in close orbit about the Moon would travel A) slower. B) faster. C) the same. D) need more information Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Fast-Moving Projectile-Satellites 52) Earth satellites are typically more than 100 km high so as to be above Earth's A) atmosphere. B) gravitational field. C) both of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Fast-Moving Projectile-Satellites 53) The circular path of a satellite orbiting Earth is characterized by a constant A) speed. B) acceleration. C) radial distance. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Circular Satellite Orbits 54) If a satellite's radial velocity is zero at all times, its orbit must be A) parabolic. B) elliptical. C) circular. D) geosynchronous. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Circular Satellite Orbits 55) Minimal orbital speed about Earth is about 8 km/s, and about the Moon is A) less than 8 km/s. B) more than 8 km/s. C) about 8 km/s. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Circular Satellite Orbits

56) Minimal orbit speed about Earth is about 8 km/s, and about Jupiter is A) less than 8 km/s. B) more than 8 km/s. C) about 8 km/s. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Circular Satellite Orbits 57) The period of an Earth satellite depends on the satellite's A) mass. B) weight on Earth. C) radial distance from Earth. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Circular Satellite Orbits 58) An Earth satellite in close orbit circles Earth in about an hour and a half. How long would a satellite located as far away as the Moon take to orbit Earth? A) the same hour and a half B) less than an hour and a half C) about 28 days D) need more information E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Circular Satellite Orbits 59) The Early Bird communication satellite hovers over the same point on Earth's equator indefinitely, because A) other forces than Earth's gravity act on it. B) it pulls as hard on Earth as Earth pulls on it. C) it is beyond the main pull of Earth gravity. D) it is kept aloft by ground control. E) its orbital period is 24 hours. Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Circular Satellite Orbits

60) Communications and weather satellites always appear at the same place in the sky, because these satellites are A) beyond the pull of Earth's gravitational field. B) moving at a speed just short of escape velocity. C) orbiting Earth with a 24-hour period. D) stationary in space. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Circular Satellite Orbits 61) Compared with the period of satellites in close Earth orbit, the period of satellites orbiting far from Earth is A) shorter. B) the same. C) longer. D) need more information Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Circular Satellite Orbits 62) From Earth, one satellite appears to overtake another. The faster satellite is A) higher. B) lower. C) smaller. D) can't say Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Circular Satellite Orbits 63) Which of these vary for satellites in circular orbits? A) speed. B) momentum. C) kinetic energy. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 3 Topic: Circular Satellite Orbits

64) Which of these vary for satellites in elliptical orbits? A) speed. B) momentum. C) kinetic energy. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Elliptical Orbits 65) The force of gravity does work on a satellite when it is in A) circular orbit. B) elliptical orbit. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Elliptical Orbits 66) An Earth satellite in an elliptical orbit travels fastest when it is A) nearest Earth. B) farthest from Earth. C) everywhere along its orbit. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Elliptical Orbits 67) Acceleration is greater for a satellite when it is at the A) apogee (farthest point). B) perigee (closest point). C) zenith. D) same acceleration at all of the above places. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Elliptical Orbits 68) Consider a moon that orbits one of our most distant planets in an elliptical path. The distance that the moon covers each day is A) greatest when closest to the planet. B) greatest when farthest from the planet. C) the same everywhere. D) need more information Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Elliptical Orbits

69) Project a cannonball from atop Newton's hypothetical mountain at 8 km/s and it orbits Earth. Project it at 9 km/s and the shape of the orbit is A) a somewhat larger circle. B) a wide parabola. C) an ellipse. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Elliptical Orbits 70) An Earth satellite in an elliptical orbit has its smallest speed A) closest to Earth. B) when getting farther from Earth. C) when farthest from Earth. D) need more information Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Elliptical Orbits 71) A satellite in an elliptical orbit about a planet travels much faster when it is directly over a A) large ocean. B) large island. C) high mountain range. D) great plain or plateau. E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Elliptical Orbits 72) For all paths of Earth satellites, one focus of the path is A) the location from which the satellite was launched. B) Earth's center. C) the Sun's center. D) need more information Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Elliptical Orbits 73) The orbital path of a satellite has two focal points. When both focal points are together A) the satellite path is an ellipse. B) the satellite path is a circle. C) satellites lose speed. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Elliptical Orbits

74) When Kepler devised his laws of planetary motion, he was most influenced by A) Galileo. B) Newton. C) Tycho Brahe. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Kepler's Laws 75) According to Kepler, the paths of planets about the Sun are A) parabolas. B) circles. C) straight lines. D) ellipses. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Kepler's Laws 76) Both Newton and Kepler considered forces on the planets. Kepler mistakenly hypothesized the direction of the forces to be A) along their directions of travel. B) perpendicular to their directions of travel. C) toward the Sun. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Kepler's Laws 77) Newton hypothesized that the forces acting on planets was A) along their directions of travel. B) perpendicular to their directions of travel. C) toward the Sun. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Kepler's Laws 78) The focal point of a satellite in orbit about the Sun is A) inside the Sun. B) outside the Sun. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Kepler's Laws

79) Who envisioned the motion of planets as projectiles obeying the laws of physics? A) Kepler B) Newton C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Kepler's Laws 80) According to Kepler, the line from the Sun to any planet sweeps out equal areas of space A) with each complete revolution. B) only when the paths are ellipses. C) in equal time intervals. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Kepler's Laws 81) According to Kepler, the orbital period of a planet is directly proportional to the A) planet's average distance from the Sun. B) square of the planet's average distance from the Sun. C) cube of the planet's average distance from the Sun. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Kepler's Laws 82) According to Kepler, the speed of a planet is slowest when it is A) closest to the Sun. B) farthest from the Sun. C) neither, for speed is a constant. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Kepler's Laws 83) A satellite coasting at constant speed in a circular orbit A) is beyond the pull of Earth's gravity B) is nevertheless accelerating. C) undergoes changes in its potential energy. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Energy Conservation in Satellite Motion

84) The conservation of energy applies to satellites in A) circular orbit. B) elliptical orbit. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Energy Conservation in Satellite Motion 85) When the potential energy of a satellite decreases A) kinetic energy also decreases. B) its kinetic energy correspondingly increases. C) its distance from the orbiting body increases. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Energy Conservation in Satellite Motion 86) The kinetic energy of a planet is maximum when it is A) closest to the Sun. B) farthest from the Sun. C) least accelerating. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Energy Conservation in Satellite Motion 87) Rockets that launch satellites into orbit need less thrust when fired from A) Cape Canaveral in Florida. B) Edwards Air Force Base in California. C) Hawaii. D) location does not affect the required rocket thrust. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Energy Conservation in Satellite Motion 88) Angular momentum is conserved for a satellite in A) circular orbit. B) elliptical orbit. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Energy Conservation in Satellite Motion

89) Angular momentum is greater for a satellite when it is at the A) apogee (farthest point). B) perigee (nearest point). C) same at apogee and perigee Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Energy Conservation in Satellite Motion 90) A rocket coasts in an elliptical orbit about Earth. To attain escape velocity using the least amount of fuel in a brief firing time, should it fire off at the apogee, or at the perigee? (Hint: Let Fd = ∆ KE guide your thinking.) A) perigee, where it is closest and fastest B) apogee, where it is farthest and slowest C) same at either location D) same at any location Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Energy Conservation in Satellite Motion 91) Escape speed from Earth is A) 8 km/s. B) 9 km/s. C) 11.2 km/s. D) 63 km/s. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Escape Speed 92) Escape speed from the Sun is A) about the same as from Earth. B) very much greater than for Earth. C) indefinite. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Escape Speed 93) Escape speed from the Moon is A) about the same as from Earth. B) much greater than from Earth. C) much less than from Earth. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Escape Speed

94) Escape speed from Mars is A) about the same as from Earth. B) greater than from Earth. C) less than from Earth. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Escape Speed 95) A projectile that is fired vertically from the surface of Earth at 5 km/s will A) go into circular about Earth. B) go into an elliptical orbit about Earth. C) rise and fall back to Earth's surface. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Escape Speed 96) A projectile that is fired vertically from the surface of Earth at 8 km/s will A) go into circular orbit about Earth. B) rise and fall back to Earth's surface. C) follow an uncertain path. D) escape from Earth. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Escape Speed 97) A vertically oriented rocket that is able to sustain a continuous upward velocity of 8 km/s will A) escape from Earth. B) be unable to escape Earth. C) eventually maintain a fixed orbit around Earth. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Escape Speed 98) To drop a package to Earth from a satellite, project it A) straight downward. B) ahead at satellite speed. C) behind at satellite speed. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Escape Speed

99) Consider a monkey wrench released at rest at the far edge of the solar system. Suppose that it drops to Earth by virtue of only Earth gravity. It will strike Earth's surface with a speed of about A) 10 m/s. B) 8 km/s. C) 11.2 km/s. D) the speed of light. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Escape Speed 100) Pioneer 10 was able to escape the solar system by A) having a sufficient escape velocity at launch. B) "bouncing off" Jupiter like a tennis ball bouncing off an approaching tennis racket. C) refueling via solar cells. D) nuclear-powered sustained thrust. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Escape Speed 101) Which would require the greater change in a satellite's orbital speed (8 km/s); slowing down so it crashes into Earth, or speeding up so it escapes Earth? A) slowing down B) speeding up C) same each way D) need more information Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Escape Speed 102) Which would require the greater energy; slowing the orbital speed of a satellite so it crashes into Earth, or increasing the orbital speed so it escapes Earth? A) slowing down B) speeding up C) same each way Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Escape Speed 103) The speed of a satellite orbiting Earth is given by v = √(GM/d). Escape speed from Earth is given by v = √(2GM/d), where in both cases G is the gravitational constant, M is Earth's mass, and d is distance from Earth's center. If a satellite's kinetic energy were doubled it could A) orbit at twice its distance from Earth. B) orbit at four times the distance from Earth. C) escape Earth. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Escape Speed 22 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

104) A planet orbiting the Sun has speed v = √(GM/d). Escape speed from the Sun is v = √v(2GM/d), where G is the gravitational constant, M is Sun's mass, and d is the distance from the Sun. Noting that this tells us that escape speed is √2 times orbital speed, which planet would fly out of the solar system by a 1.5 increase in orbital speed? A) Mercury. B) Venus. C) Earth. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Escape Speed

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 11 Atomic Nature of Matter 11.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of these investigators did NOT contribute to our knowledge of atoms? A) Aristotle B) John Dalton C) Robert Brown D) Albert Einstein Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: The Atomic Hypothesis 2) Brownian motion is caused by A) thermal agitation. B) perpetual motion. C) particles larger than atoms bumping into them. D) interactions between atoms and molecules. E) almost invisible bugs. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: The Atomic Hypothesis 3) What did Robert Brown see in his microscope? A) straight-line motion B) circular motions C) parabolic motions D) random motions Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: The Atomic Hypothesis 4) Nuclei of atoms that make up a newborn baby were manufactured in A) the mother's womb. B) the food the mother eats before delivery. C) ancient stars. D) the Earth. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Characteristics of Atoms

5) Compared to the atoms that make up the body of an elderly person, the atoms that make up the body of a newborn baby are A) newer. B) actually older. C) the same age. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Characteristics of Atoms 6) A granite block is mostly empty space because the atoms in the granite are A) in perpetual motion. B) mostly empty space themselves. C) held together by electrical forces. D) not as close together as they could be. E) invisible. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Characteristics of Atoms 7) There are about as many atoms of air in our lungs at any moment as there are breaths of air in the atmosphere of A) a large auditorium. B) a large city. C) the United States. D) the whole world. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Characteristics of Atoms 8) The chance that at least one of the atoms exhaled in your previous breath will be inhaled in your next breath is A) very low. B) very high. C) zero. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Characteristics of Atoms

9) Assuming all the atoms exhaled by Julius Caesar in his last dying breath are still in the atmosphere, we breathe in at least one of them each A) single breath. B) day. C) month. D) ten years. E) can't say for some people breathe a few of Caesar's atoms daily, while others never. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Characteristics of Atoms 10) Which of the following statements is true? A) an atom is the smallest particle known to exist B) there are only about 100 different kinds of atoms that combine to form all substances C) there are thousands of different kinds of atoms that account for a wide variety of substances D) a large atom can be photographed with the aid of an ordinary microscope E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Characteristics of Atoms 11) The difficulty of taking a photograph of an atom with light is A) unwanted diffraction. B) that atoms are smaller than wavelengths of light. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Atomic Imagery 12) If we doubled the magnifying power of the most powerful optical microscope in the world, we would A) be able to see individual atoms. B) be able to photograph individual atoms, even though we couldn't see them. C) still not be able to see or photograph an atom. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Atomic Imagery 13) Atoms can be photographed by A) electron beams. B) scanning electron microscopes. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Atomic Imagery 3 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

14) An atomic model of the atom is A) a symbolic representation of the atom. B) a stepping stone to further understanding. C) an abstraction enabling predictions. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Atomic Imagery 15) The element gold contains A) gold atoms. B) atoms that combine to produce gold. C) gold atoms plus various slightly lighter and heavier atoms. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Atomic Structure 16) Atoms heavier than helium were at one time manufactured by A) photosynthesis. B) thermonuclear fusion. C) radiant energy conversion. D) radioactivity. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Atomic Structure 17) Which of the following are electrically neutral? A) protons B) neutrons C) electrons D) ions E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Atomic Structure 18) Which is the lightest particle? A) proton B) electron C) neutron D) all about the same Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic Structure 4 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

19) An element is distinct because of its number of A) protons. B) neutrons. C) electrons. D) the total mass of all the particles. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Atomic Structure 20) Which is the smallest particle? A) molecule B) atom C) proton D) neutron E) quark Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Atomic Structure 21) Although solid matter is mostly empty space, we don't fall through the floor because A) atoms are constantly vibrating, even at absolute zero. B) of nuclear forces. C) of gravitational forces. D) of electrical forces. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Atomic Structure 22) A force that determines the chemical properties of an atom is A) a friction force. B) a nuclear force. C) a gravitational force. D) an electrical force. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Atomic Structure

23) Atomic number refers to the number of A) protons in the nucleus. B) neutrons in the nucleus. C) nucleons in the nucleus. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 24) The number of protons in a neutral atom is balanced by an equal number of A) electron shells that surround the nucleus. B) neutrons in the nucleus. C) orbital electrons. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 25) Which of the following is a gas? A) lithium B) carbon C) neon D) sodium Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 26) Which of the following is an inert gas? A) Hydrogen B) Helium. C) Carbon D) Oxygen Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 27) Which of the following elements has the most mass? A) hydrogen B) iron C) lead D) uranium E) all have the same mass Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements

28) The mass of matter is due mostly to its A) protons. B) electrons. C) both of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 29) The volume of matter is due mostly to its A) protons. B) electrons. C) both of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 30) Which of these has the greatest number of protons in its nucleus? A) gold B) mercury C) lead D) silver Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 31) Which of these atoms has the greatest amount of electrical charge in its nucleus? A) helium B) carbon C) iron D) gold E) uranium Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 32) Which of these atoms has the greatest number of electrons? A) helium B) carbon C) iron D) gold E) uranium Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements

33) Two protons removed from an oxygen nucleus result in A) nitrogen. B) carbon. C) helium. D) neon. E) positively charged oxygen. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 34) Two protons added to an oxygen nucleus produce A) heavy oxygen. B) fluorine. C) neon. D) sodium. E) nitrogen. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 35) To change mercury into gold, a pair of protons must be A) removed from the mercury nucleus. B) added to the mercury nucleus. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 36) A pair of hydrogen nuclei fused together produces A) helium. B) lithium. C) beryllium. D) carbon. E) iron. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements

37) A pair of helium nuclei fused together produces A) helium isotope. B) lithium. C) beryllium. D) carbon. E) iron. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 38) One neutron added to a helium nucleus results in A) hydrogen. B) boron. C) lithium. D) beryllium. E) helium. Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 39) If a nitrogen atom and a slightly heavier oxygen atom have equal average speeds, which has the greater kinetic energy? A) nitrogen B) oxygen C) both the same D) need more information Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 40) If a nitrogen atom and a slightly heavier oxygen atom have equal kinetic energies, which has the greater average speed? A) nitrogen B) oxygen C) both the same D) need more information Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements

41) Heavier atoms are not proportionally larger than lighter atoms due to the greater number of protons A) pulling surrounding electrons into tighter shells. B) squeezed into tighter spaces. C) both of these D) none of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 42) The chemical properties of matter are due mostly to their A) protons. B) electrons. C) neutrons. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 43) Compared to the mass of a hydrogen atom, the mass of an oxygen atom is A) 8 times as great. B) 12 times as great. C) 16 times as great. D) appreciably more than 16 times as great. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 44) How many protons should be added to the nuclei of oxygen atoms so the resulting gas will glow red when an electric current is in it? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 45) A uranium atom is 238 times as massive as a hydrogen atom. Compared with the diameter of a hydrogen atom, uranium's size is A) slightly smaller. B) only slightly larger. C) is much larger, but less than 238 times as large. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 10 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

46) Compared to the average size of a hydrogen atom, the average size of a helium atom is A) larger. B) smaller. C) about the same. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 47) Heavy atoms are not appreciably larger in size than light atoms because the nuclei of heavy atoms have more A) mass. B) electric charge. C) nucleons. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 48) Compared to the diameter of a zirconium atom (A = 40), the diameter of a mercury atom (A = is approximately A) four times as large. B) twice as large. C) the same size. D) one-half as large. E) one-quarter as large. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 49) The electrical force is stronger between the nucleus and an inner electron for atoms of A) low atomic number. B) high atomic number. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 50) Which contains more atoms? A) 1 kg of hydrogen B) 1 kg of iron C) both contain the same Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: The Periodic Table of the Elements 11 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

51) An isotope is simply an atom that A) is electrically charged. B) has different numbers of neutrons for the same element. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Isotopes 52) An ion and an isotope are A) very much one and the same B) very unlike C) opposites. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Isotopes 53) An atomic mass unit (amu) is 1/12 the mass of A) an electron. B) a proton. C) a hydrogen atom. D) a carbon atom. E) a uranium atom. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Isotopes 54) Mass number refers to the number of A) protons in the nucleus. B) neutrons in the nucleus. C) nucleons in the nucleus. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Isotopes 55) A nucleon has a mass of about A) 1 amu. B) 1 atomic mass unit. C) both are the same. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Isotopes

56) What is the molecular mass of a water molecule? A) 10 amu B) 12 amu C) 15 amu D) 18 amu E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Isotopes 57) The air in this room has A) mass. B) weight. C) energy. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Compounds and Mixtures 58) Which of the following is NOT a compound? A) air B) ammonia C) water D) salt E) all are compounds Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Compounds and Mixtures 59) Which of the following is NOT a mixture? A) granite B) cake C) air D) beach sand E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Compounds and Mixtures

60) Which of the following statements is true? A) a molecule is the smallest existing particle B) chemical elements are made up of about 100 distinct molecules C) molecules form atoms that determine chemical properties of a substance D) molecules are the smallest subdivision of matter that still retain a substance's chemical properties E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Molecules 61) A molecule has A) mass. B) structure. C) energy. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Molecules 62) Compared to the energy it takes to separate oxygen and hydrogen from water, the amount of energy released when they recombine is A) slightly more. B) slightly less. C) much more. D) much less. E) the same. Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Molecules 63) When carbon and oxygen atoms combine, energy is A) absorbed by the reaction. B) released by the reaction. C) not involved. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Molecules 64) When oxygen and hydrogen gases combine, the result is A) water. B) methane. C) a noble gas. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Molecules 14 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

65) How many different kinds of elements are in a water molecule? A) one B) two C) three D) four E) none Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Molecules 66) What is the total number of individual atoms in a water molecule? A) one B) two C) three D) four E) none Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Molecules 67) How many atoms are in this carbohydrate molecule, C6H12O6? A) 3. B) 14. C) 18. D) 24. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Molecules 68) If an astronaut landed on a planet composed of antimatter, there would be an explosion and the A) planet would annihilate. B) astronaut would annihilate. C) astronaut and an equal amount of planet antimatter would both annihilate. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Antimatter

69) In our part of the universe, antimatter is A) non-existent. B) plentiful. C) short-lived. D) long-lived. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Antimatter 70) If a gram of antimatter meets a kilogram of matter, the amount of mass to survive is A) 1 gram. B) 999 grams. C) 1 kilogram. D) 1.1 kilogram. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Antimatter

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 12 Solids 12.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The metal in a chunk of copper or iron is composed of A) crystals. B) non-crystalline fibers. C) amorphous particles. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Crystal Structure 2) The crystals in matter are held together by A) cohesive forces. B) amorphous forces. C) electrical bonding forces. D) excess neutrons. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Crystal Structure 3) The first evidence confirming the crystal structure of matter was A) the citing of experiments by Nobel Prize-winning scientists. B) testimonials by crystal-loving investigators. C) X-ray diffraction patterns. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Crystal Structure 4) Which is the greater amount for medication measured by mass? A) 1 gram B) 1000 milligrams C) both the same Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Density 5) If a loaf of bread is compressed its A) density decreases. B) density increases. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Density 1 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) When a chocolate bar is cut in half, its density is A) halved. B) unchanged. C) doubled. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Density 7) Compared to a bar of pure gold, the density of a pure gold ring is A) less. B) the same. C) slightly more. D) much more. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Density 8) Which has the greater density? A) a cup-full of fresh water B) a lake-full of fresh water C) both the same D) need more information Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Density 9) Compared to the density of a kilogram of feathers, the density of a kilogram of lead is A) less. B) more. C) the same. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Density 10) Compared to the volume of a kilogram of feathers, the volume of a kilogram of lead is A) less. B) more. C) the same. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Density

11) If the mass of an object were doubled while its volume remained the same, its density would A) be half. B) double. C) stay the same. D) be four times as great. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Density 12) If the volume of an object were doubled while its mass remained the same, its density would A) be half. B) double. C) stay the same. D) be four times as great. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Density 13) If you hold two objects that have the same weight density, then they A) may have unequal mass densities. B) have equal mass densities. C) are equal in weight. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Density 14) The density of a 2-cubic meter block of mass of 1000 kg is A) 100 kg/m3. B) 200 kg/m3. C) 500 kg/m3. D) 1000 kg/m3. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Density 15) A metal block has a mass of 5 grams and a volume of 1 cubic centimeter. A piece of the same kind of metal with a volume of 2 cubic centimeters has a density of A) 2.5 g/cm3. B) 5 g/cm3. C) 10 g/cm3. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Density

16) An iron block in a furnace is heated and consequently expands, which means that its density is A) less. B) the same. C) more. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Density 17) A metal block has a density of 5000 kg per cubic meter and a volume of 2 cubic meters. What is the block's mass? A) 1000 kg B) 2500 kg C) 5000 kg D) 10,000 kg E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Density 18) A metal block has a density of 5000 kg per cubic meter and a mass of 15,000 kg. What is its volume? A) 0.33 cubic meters B) 3 cubic meters C) 5 cubic meters D) 15 cubic meters E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Density 19) Which ball is more elastic? A) a common rubber ball B) a steel ball C) both the same Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Elasticity 20) Which ball will bounce higher off a hard surface? A) a common rubber ball B) a steel ball C) both the same Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Elasticity 4 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

21) A strong spring is stretched 10 cm by a suspended block. If the block's weight is doubled, the spring will stretch to A) 15 cm. B) 20 cm. C) 40 cm. D) its elastic limit. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Elasticity 22) A spring is stretched 10 cm by a suspended 1-kg block. If two such springs side-by-side are used to suspend the 1-kg block, each spring will then stretch A) 5 cm. B) 10 cm. C) 20 cm. D) 30 cm. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Elasticity 23) A weightless spring is stretched 10 cm by a suspended 1-kg block. If two such springs are used to suspend the block, one spring above the other, to effectively provide one double-length spring, then the total stretch of the double-length spring will be A) 5 cm. B) 10 cm. C) 20 cm. D) 30 cm. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Elasticity 24) An un-stretched hanging spring is 50 cm long. Suspending a 100-N block from it increases its length to 60 cm. Adding another 100-N block makes the spring's length A) 60 cm. B) 70 cm. C) 80 cm. D) 100 cm. E) 120 cm. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Elasticity

25) When a load is placed on the middle of a horizontal beam supported at each end, the bottom part of the beam undergoes A) tension. B) compression. C) either of these D) none of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Tension and Compression 26) When a load is placed on the middle of a horizontal beam supported at each end, the top part of the beam undergoes A) tension. B) compression. C) either of these D) none of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Tension and Compression 27) A horizontal wooden beam sags a bit when supported at its ends. In between the top and bottom surfaces is a region of A) tension. B) compression. C) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Tension and Compression 28) A beam is under stress when it carries a load. The part of a beam where no tension or compression occurs is the A) upper or lower flange. B) neutral layer. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Tension and Compression 29) Compared with a solid steel bar having a rectangular cross-section, an I-beam has the advantage of A) being lighter. B) being stronger per bodyweight. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Tension and Compression 6 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

30) You wish to drill a hole through a horizontal I-beam supporting a bridge. To weaken the beam the least drill the hole through the A) upper flange. B) lower flange. C) web. D) all the same Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Tension and Compression 31) Stone slabs are stronger under A) tension. B) compression. C) both of these D) none of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Tension and Compression 32) The strength of a rope depends on its A) thickness. B) length. C) both of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Tension and Compression 33) Doubling the thickness (diameter) of a rope will multiply its strength by A) 1/2. B) 1. C) 2. D) 3. E) 4. Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Tension and Compression 34) When weight is applied to the top of a stone arch, the stone blocks in the arch undergo A) tension. B) compression. C) expansion. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Arches 7 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

35) When a load is placed on a properly arched structure, compression A) weakens the structure. B) strengthens the structure. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Arches 36) When the curve of a vertical structure matches the inverted image of a drooping chain held at both ends, the curve is called a A) parabola. B) hyperbola. C) catenary. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Arches 37) The Gateway Arch in St. Louis, Missouri, is a A) parabola. B) hyberbola. C) catenary. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Arches 38) A catenary in nature is evident in A) eggs. B) a necklace drooping between your fingers. C) the domes of some modern buildings. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Arches 39) Support a horizontal toothpick at both ends. Then do likewise for a log of the same kind of wood. There is more sag in the A) toothpick. B) log. C) same in each Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Scaling

40) The strength of a beam is most related to its A) cross section. B) length. C) both of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Scaling 41) An athlete can perform a certain number of pushups. The same athlete scaled up in size can do A) fewer pushups. B) the same number of pushups. C) more pushups. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Scaling 42) Which has more skin? A) an elephant B) a mouse C) both the same Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Scaling 43) Which has more skin compared to its body weight? A) an elephant B) a mouse C) both the same Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Scaling 44) Flatten a spherical meatball into a hamburger and you increase its A) surface area. B) volume. C) both of these D) none of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Scaling

45) Which geometrical shape has the least surface area for a given volume? A) cube B) pyramid C) cylinder D) sphere E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Scaling 46) Lillian sees a chair at the Exploratorium that has been scaled up by three. In attempting to lift it, she finds the chair is A) three times as heavy. B) six times as heavy. C) nine times as heavy. D) more than nine times as heavy. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Scaling 47) A creature that is scaled up in size, keeping its proportions, A) will be stronger relative to its greater weight. B) will be weaker relative to its greater weight. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Scaling 48) If a pencil's length and diameter are both multiplied by 10, then its volume is multiplied by A) 10. B) 100. C) 1000. D) 10,000. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Scaling 49) A 1-centimeter cubed sugar cube scaled up by a factor of 10 has a volume of A) 10 cm3. B) 100 cm3. C) 1000 cm3. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Scaling 10 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

50) A 1-centimeter cubed sugar cube scaled up by a factor of 10 has a total surface area of A) 60 cm2. B) 600 cm2. C) 6000 cm2. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Scaling 51) The weight of a 1-centimer cubed metal cube scaled up by a factor of 10 will be A) ten times as much. B) a hundred times as much. C) a thousand times as much. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Scaling 52) Doubling the linear size of an object multiplies its area by A) 2 and its volume by 4. B) 4 and its volume by 8. C) 8 and its volume by 16. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Scaling 53) One kilogram of peaches has more skin area than one kilogram of A) blueberries. B) grapefruits. C) grapes. D) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Scaling 54) Which potatoes when peeled produce the most peelings? A) 10 kg of large potatoes B) 10 kg of small potatoes C) both the same Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Scaling

55) Suppose you put a chocolate layer on pieces of candy. Compared with the amount of chocolate used to cover 1 pound of large pieces, if you cover 1 pound of smaller pieces you'll use A) less chocolate. B) the same amount of chocolate. C) more chocolate. D) makes no difference Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Scaling 56) To make taffy apples, a candymaker buys 100 kg of large apples rather than 100 kg of small apples. That means she will need A) less taffy. B) more taffy. C) the same amount of taffy. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Scaling 57) If an elephant grows proportionally to twice its height, the area of its ears would be about A) twice. B) four times more. C) six times more. D) eight times more. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Scaling 58) If an elephant grows proportionally to twice its height, its weight would be multiplied by about A) 2. B) 4. C) 6. D) 8. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Scaling

59) An elephant radiates less heat for its size than smaller animals because A) its radiating area is small compared to its volume. B) its radiating area is large compared to its volume. C) it is taller than smaller animals. D) it weighs more than smaller animals. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Scaling 60) Which potato cooks faster in boiling oil? A) a whole potato. B) a sliced potato. C) both the same Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Scaling 61) The effects of scaling are beneficial to small creatures A) that get wet. B) that fall from great heights. C) who are hungry. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Scaling 62) When a living cell doubles in diameter, it has eight times the mass to be nourished, and the amount of membrane through which it feeds is A) only twice as much. B) only four times as much. C) also eight times as much. D) more than eight times as much. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Scaling 63) A dome-shaped house is more heat efficient than a rectangular house because a dome has A) no corners to radiate. B) less interior space. C) less area compared to its volume. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Scaling 13 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

64) In cold weather, your hands will be warmer if you wear A) gloves. B) mittens. C) both the same Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Scaling 65) If each dimension of a steel bridge is scaled up ten times, its strength will be multiplied by about A) ten and its weight by ten also. B) one hundred, and its weight by one thousand. C) one thousand, and its weight by one hundred thousand. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Scaling 66) Tripling the linear size of an object multiplies its area by A) 3 and its volume by 9. B) 9 and its volume by 18. C) 9 and its volume by 27. D) 27 and its volume by 81. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Scaling 67) A solid glass ball weighs 1 N. One with twice the diameter weighs A) 1 N. B) 2 N. C) 3 N. D) 4 N. E) more than 4 N. Answer: E Diff: 3 Topic: Scaling 68) Compared to a 50-kg person, a 100-kg person at the beach requires A) twice as much suntan lotion. B) the same amount of suntan lotion. C) less than twice as much suntan lotion. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Scaling

69) The effects of scaling are beneficial to swimmers in a race who are relatively A) large. B) small. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Scaling 70) If you bake cupcakes as directed for a cake, the cupcakes will be A) over-baked. B) under-baked. C) properly baked. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Scaling 71) Eight little spheres of mercury coalesce to form a single sphere. Compared to the combined surface areas of the eight little spheres, the surface area of the big sphere is A) less. B) the same. C) greater. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Scaling 72) Eight little spheres of mercury coalesce to form a single sphere. Compared to the combined surface areas of the eight little spheres, the surface area of the big sphere is A) one eighth. B) one quarter. C) one half. D) the same. E) double. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Scaling 73) The larger a turkey cooked in a conventional oven at a given temperature, the A) more time per pound is needed. B) less time per pound is needed. C) the same time per pound is needed. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Scaling

74) If a fictional shrinking man shrinks proportionately to 1/10 his original height, his weight will be multiplied by A) 0.1. B) 0.01. C) 0.001. D) 0.0001. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Scaling 75) Consider the fictional case of the incredible shrinking woman. If a fictional shrinking woman shrinks to 0.1 her original height, her total skin area shrinks to A) 0.1 times its original value. B) 0.01 times its original value. C) 0.001 times its original value. D) 0.0001 times its original value. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Scaling

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 13 Liquids 13.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The concept of pressure involves both A) force and volume. B) force and area. C) area and volume. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Pressure 2) Which will remain the same for two identical books, one lying flat and the other standing on an end? A) weight B) pressure C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Pressure 3) When you stand with only one of your feet on a weighing scale, the scale reading is A) half. B) the same as with both feet. C) doubled. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Pressure 4) Sara lies on a bed of sharp nails without harm because A) many of the nails don't make contact with her body. B) her weight is distributed over hundreds of nails. C) she exercises mind over matter. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Pressure

5) A hospital patient confined to bed will be less likely to develop bed sores with a A) firm mattress. B) soft mattress. C) water bed. D) none of these will help. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Pressure 6) One liter of water has a mass of A) 1 kilogram. B) 14.7 grams. C) 500 grams. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Liquid Pressure 7) While standing, your blood pressure is normally greatest in your A) head. B) heart. C) feet. D) same in each Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Liquid Pressure 8) Water pressure on a submerged object is greatest against its A) top. B) bottom. C) sides. D) same against all surfaces E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Liquid Pressure 9) A dam is thicker at the bottom than at the top mainly because A) water is denser at deeper levels. B) water pressure increases with depth. C) surface tension exists only on the surface of liquids. D) it looks better. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Liquid Pressure 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) The pressure in a liquid depends on liquid A) density. B) depth. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Liquid Pressure 11) The pressure at the bottom of a jug filled with water does NOT depend on A) the acceleration due to gravity. B) water density. C) the height of the liquid. D) surface area of the water. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Liquid Pressure 12) The mass of a cubic meter of water is A) 1 kg. B) 10 kg. C) 100 kg. D) 1000 kg. E) 9800 N. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Liquid Pressure 13) Buoyant force acts upward on a submerged object because A) it acts in a direction to oppose gravity. B) the weight of fluid displaced reacts with an upward force. C) pressure against its bottom is greater than pressure against its top. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Liquid Pressure 14) When holes are drilled through the wall of a water tower, water will spurt out with the greatest speed from the hole closest to A) the bottom of the tower. B) the middle of the tower. C) the top of the tower. D) all the same Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Liquid Pressure 3 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) There is a legend of a Dutch boy who bravely held back the Atlantic Ocean by plugging a leak near the top of a dike with his finger until help arrived. Which is the more likely scenario? A) the huge size of the Atlantic Ocean makes this impossible B) although the force on his finger would have been huge, the pressure would have been small enough for this to occur C) the force on his finger would have been less than 1 N D) both force and pressure on his finger would have been great, but not too great for a publicspirited Dutch lad E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Liquid Pressure 16) A completely submerged object always displaces its own A) volume of fluid. B) weight of fluid. C) density of fluid. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Buoyancy 17) The buoyant force on an object is least when the object is A) partly submerged. B) submerged near the surface. C) submerged near the bottom. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Buoyancy 18) The least buoyant force on a rock is when it is submerged A) near the surface. B) halfway to the bottom. C) near the bottom. D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Buoyancy

19) The buoyant force acting on a 10-ton ship floating in the ocean is A) less than 10 tons. B) 10 tons. C) more than 10 tons. D) depends on density of sea water Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Buoyancy 20) The volume of water displaced by a floating 20-ton boat A) is 20 cubic meters. B) is the volume of 20 tons of water. C) is the volume of the boat. D) depends on the shape of the ship's hull. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Buoyancy 21) When a boat sails from fresh water to salt water, the boat will float A) lower in the water. B) higher in the water. C) at the same water level. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Buoyancy 22) A block of Styrofoam floats on water while a lead block of the same size block lies submerged in the water. The buoyant force is greatest on the A) lead. B) Styrofoam. C) same for both Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Buoyancy 23) When an object is partly or wholly immersed in a liquid, it is buoyed up A) by a force equal to its own weight. B) by a force equal to the weight of liquid displaced. C) and floats in accord with Archimedes' principle. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Archimedes' Principle

24) What is the weight of water displaced by a 100-ton floating ship? A) less than 100 tons B) 100 tons C) more than 100 tons D) 100 cubic meters E) depends on the ship's shape Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Archimedes' Principle 25) A scale from which a rock is suspended reads 5 N when the rock is out of water and 3 N when the rock is submerged. Buoyant force on the rock is A) 2 N. B) 3 N. C) 4 N. D) 5 N. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Archimedes' Principle 26) Buoyant force is greater on a submerged A) 1-kg block of lead. B) 1-kg block of aluminum. C) is the same on each Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Archimedes' Principle 27) Buoyant force is greater on a submerged 1-cubic centimeter block of A) lead. B) aluminum. C) same on each Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Archimedes' Principle 28) Buoyant force is greater on a submerged 10-newton block of A) lead. B) aluminum. C) same on each Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Archimedes' Principle

29) A scale from which a rock is suspended reads 5 N when the rock is out of water and 3 N when the rock is submerged. The density of the rock is A) the density of water. B) 1.5 times the density of water. C) 2.5 times the density of water. D) 3.5 times the density of water. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Archimedes' Principle 30) Pumice is a volcanic rock that floats, which means its density is A) less than the density of water. B) equal to the density of water. C) more than the density of water. D) need more information. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Sink or Float? 31) A fish normally displaces its own A) volume of water. B) weight of water. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Sink or Float? 32) Compared to the density of water, the density of a fish is A) more. B) less. C) the same. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Sink or Float? 33) Lobsters live on the bottom of the ocean, which means their density is A) greater than the density of sea water. B) equal to the density of sea water. C) less than the density of sea water. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Sink or Float?

34) A lobster crawls onto a bathroom scale on the ocean floor. Its weight compared to its weight above the surface is A) greater. B) less. C) the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Sink or Float? 35) The density of a submerged submarine at rest is about the same as the density of A) a crab. B) iron. C) a floating submarine. D) water. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Sink or Float? 36) An egg rests at the bottom of a bowl filled with water. When salt is slowly added to the water the egg rises and floats, from which we conclude A) salt water is denser than fresh water. B) salt water is denser than an egg. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Sink or Float? 37) Ice cubes submerged at the bottom of a liquid indicate that the liquid A) produces insufficient buoyant force on the ice. B) is warmer than the ice. C) is only partly displaced by the submerged ice. D) is less dense than ice. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Sink or Float? 38) A 5-N block of wood is difficult to fully submerge in a pool of mercury because the buoyant force on the block when submerged is A) less than 5 N. B) 5 N. C) much more than 5 N. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Sink or Float? 8 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

39) The reason a life jacket helps keep you afloat is A) the jacket makes you weigh less. B) the jacket has the same density as an average human. C) the jacket repels water. D) if you sink, the jacket sinks. E) the density of both you and the jacket together is less than your density alone. Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Sink or Float? 40) Two life preservers have identical volumes, but one is filled with Styrofoam while the other is filled with sand. When the two life preservers are fully submerged, the buoyant force is greater on the one filled with A) Styrofoam. B) sand. C) same on each as long as their volumes are the same Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Sink or Float? 41) Two life preservers have identical volumes, one filled with Styrofoam and the other filled with sand. When the two life preservers are worn by swimmers, one swimmer floats with part of the preserver above water, and the other swimmer sinks. In this case the buoyant force is greater on the life preserver filled with A) Styrofoam. B) sand. C) same for both Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Sink or Float? 42) A mountain that floats on the mantle indicates that the density of the mantle is A) less than that of the mountain. B) about the same as that of the mountain. C) greater than that of the mountain. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Flotation

43) Compared to an empty ship, the same ship loaded with Styrofoam will float A) higher in the water. B) lower in the water. C) at the same level in the water. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Flotation 44) If you float a piece of wood in a container half-full of water that rests on a weighing scale, the weight reading on the scale will A) decrease. B) remain unchanged. C) increase. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Flotation 45) If you float a piece of wood in a container brim-full of water that rests on a weighing scale, some water will spill. Then the weight reading on the scale will A) decrease. B) remain unchanged. C) increase. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Flotation 46) The fact that the weight of a brim-full container of water is unchanged whether or not something floats in it is nicely employed in A) hydraulic devices. B) all floating devices. C) Scotland's Falkirk Wheel. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Flotation 47) A key feature of the Falkirk Wheel in Scotland is that opposite gondolas have the same weight when both are brim-full of water A) and boats in each have about equal weights. B) and at least one boat is in each gondola. C) regardless of the weights of boats or no boats in each. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Flotation

48) An important condition for operation of the Falkirk Wheel is that A) water in each gondola have the same depth. B) ships carried are more or less equal in weight. C) no water spill when a ship enters a gondola. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Flotation 49) The amount of water displaced by a liter-sized block of ordinary wood floating in water is A) less than 1 liter. B) 1 liter. C) more than 1 liter. D) depends on the water density E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Flotation 50) When you float in fresh water, the buoyant force that acts on you is equal to your weight. When you float higher in the denser water of the Dead Sea, the buoyant force that acts on you is A) greater than your weight. B) less than your weight. C) equal to your weight. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Flotation 51) A person floats higher in the dense water of the Dead Sea because A) less volume of water is displaced. B) more volume of water is displaced. C) of a greater buoyant force. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Flotation 52) When an ice cube in a glass of water melts, the water level A) rises. B) falls. C) remains the same. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Flotation

53) An ice cube floating in a glass of water contains many air bubbles. When the ice melts, the water level will A) rise. B) fall. C) remain unchanged. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Flotation 54) An ice cube with large air bubbles in it floats in a brim-full container of water. When the ice cube melts, A) water spills over. B) no change in water level occurs. C) water level in the container goes down. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Flotation 55) A large ice cube containing an iron railroad spike floats in a brim-full container of water. When the ice cube melts, A) water spills over. B) no change in water level occurs. C) water level in the container drops. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Flotation 56) A floating ice cube contains small pieces of iron. The water level after melting will A) rise. B) fall. C) remain unchanged. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Flotation 57) When a large floating ice cube with unfrozen water inside melts, the water level in its container A) goes down. B) remains unchanged. C) goes up. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Flotation

58) A heavy iron ball is placed in an aluminum pie pan that floats in a bucket. The water level at the side of the bucket is marked. Then the ball is removed and allowed to sink in the bucket. The water line at the side of the bucket A) goes down. B) is the same. C) rises. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Flotation 59) When scrap iron in a boat is thrown overboard in a swimming pool, the pool level A) rises. B) falls. C) remains unchanged. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Flotation 60) When a barrel of water in a rowboat in a swimming pool is poured overboard, the pool level A) rises. B) falls. C) remains unchanged. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Flotation 61) When a load of wood is thrown overboard from a boat in a swimming pool, the pool level A) rises. B) falls. C) remains unchanged. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Flotation 62) If a battleship sinks in a canal lock, the water level in the lock will A) rise. B) fall. C) remain unchanged. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Flotation

63) If the part of an iceberg that extends above the water were suddenly removed, the A) iceberg would sink. B) buoyant force on the iceberg would decrease. C) density of the iceberg would change. D) pressure on the bottom of the iceberg would increase. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Flotation 64) If a weighted air-filled balloon sinks in deep water, it will A) likely sink to an equilibrium level before reaching bottom. B) likely burst if water pressure is great enough. C) be acted on by a continuously decreasing buoyant force. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Flotation 65) A block of wood with a piece of iron tied to the top of it floats in a bucket of water. If the wood and iron are turned over so that the iron is submerged beneath the wood, the water level at the side of the bucket A) rises. B) falls. C) remains the same. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Flotation 66) The pascal is a pressure unit equal to A) 1 newton per square meter. B) 1 kilogram per square meter. C) 1 newton per square centimeter. D) 1 kilogram per square centimeter. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Pascal's Principle 67) Pascal's principle applies to A) liquids. B) gases. C) both of these D) none of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Pascal's Principle 14 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

68) When you observe the applications of pistons in lifting operations you're seeing A) Pascal's principle in action. B) how energy can be increased. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Pascal's Principle 69) In a hydraulic-press operation, it is impossible for the A) output displacement to exceed the input displacement. B) force output to exceed the force input. C) energy output to exceed the energy input. D) output piston's speed to exceed the input piston's speed. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Pascal's Principle 70) To multiply an applied force while using a simple hydraulic lift, your force should be applied to the A) large-diameter piston. B) small-diameter piston. C) relative piston sizes don't matter. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Pascal's Principle 71) A hydraulic press multiplies a force by 100, which is done at the expense of A) energy, which is divided by 100. B) the distance through which the force acts. C) the time through which the force acts. D) the mechanism providing the force. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Pascal's Principle 72) The attraction between like substances, stickiness, is called A) adhesion. B) cohesion. C) depends on the substances. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Surface Tension and Capillarity

73) The attraction between unlike substances is called A) adhesion. B) cohesion. C) depends on the substances. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Surface Tension and Capillarity 74) A consequence of surface tension for water is A) capillary action. B) wet sand being firmer than dry sand. C) the different tastes of hot and cold oily soup. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Surface Tension and Capillarity 75) When you place a stick in water and remove it, the stick is wet. If you instead place it in mercury the opposite occurs. The stick is dry. This is because adhesive forces are greater A) between stick and water. B) between the stick and mercury. C) between the mercury and the water. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Surface Tension and Capillarity 76) Surface tension is a direct result of A) viscosity. B) Archimedes' principle. C) adhesive forces between molecules in a liquid or solid. D) cohesive forces between molecules in a liquid. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Surface Tension and Capillarity 77) A very lightweight horizontal loop of wire is suspended from a fine spring, lowered into water, and then raised to the surface. Any further attempt to raise it causes the spring to A) stretch. B) contract. C) stay the same. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Surface Tension and Capillarity

78) Surface tension of liquids A) increases when wetting agents are added. B) decreases as the liquid temperature increases. C) is about the same for all liquids. D) results from a thin molecular membrane beneath the liquid surface. E) keeps steel ships afloat. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Surface Tension and Capillarity

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 14 Gases and Plasmas 14.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The energy source responsible for molecular motions in Earth's atmosphere is A) their own natural kinetic energy. B) pressure caused by the weight of air. C) atmospheric tides. D) the Sun. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: The Atmosphere 2) Atmospheric molecules do not fly off into outer space due to A) their chaotic speeds. B) their relatively low densities. C) Earth gravitation. D) cohesive forces. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: The Atmosphere 3) Compared to the ocean, Earth's atmosphere is different in that A) its density varies with depth. B) it has a less-distinct surface. C) molecules are more greatly spaced. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: The Atmosphere 4) About what percentage of molecules in the air make up the atmosphere below a 6-kilometer altitude? A) 20% B) 30% C) 40% D) 50% E) more than 50% Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: The Atmosphere

5) The air in your classroom has A) mass. B) weight. C) energy. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: The Atmosphere 6) Atmospheric pressure is caused by the A) density of the atmosphere. B) weight of the atmosphere. C) temperature of the atmosphere. D) solar energy on the atmosphere. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Atmospheric Pressure 7) In drinking soda or water through a straw, we make use of A) capillary action. B) surface tension. C) atmospheric pressure. D) Bernoulli's principle. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Atmospheric Pressure 8) At normal atmospheric pressure and temperature, 1 cubic meter of air has a mass of about A) 1.00 kg. B) 1.25 kg. C) 2.00 kg. D) 2.25 kg. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Atmospheric Pressure 9) When a suction cup sticks to a wall it is A) pulled to the wall by the vacuum. B) pushed to the wall by the atmosphere. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Atmospheric Pressure 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) Approximately how much air is in a column 1-cm2 in cross section that extends from sea level to the top of the atmosphere? A) 1 gram B) 1 kg C) 10 kg D) 100 kg Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Atmospheric Pressure 11) What approximate weight of air is in a column 1-cm2 in cross section that extends from sea level to the top of the atmosphere? A) 0.01 N B) 10 N C) 100 N D) 1000 N Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Atmospheric Pressure 12) The weight of air in a column 1-m2 in cross section that extends from sea level to the top of the atmosphere is A) 101 N. B) 10,100 N. C) 101,000 N. D) 101,000,000 N. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Atmospheric Pressure 13) About how high can water at sea level be theoretically lifted by a vacuum pump? A) less than 10.3 m B) 10.3 m C) more than 10.3 m Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Atmospheric Pressure 14) A column that extends from sea level to the top of the atmosphere contains a certain mass of air. If the column instead contained the same mass of mercury, its height would be about A) 3/4 meter. B) 10.3 meters. C) 5.6 kilometers. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Atmospheric Pressure 3 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) A column that extends from sea level to the top of the atmosphere contains a certain mass of air. If the column instead contained the same mass of water, its height would be about A) 3/4 meter. B) 10.3 meters. C) 5.6 kilometers. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Atmospheric Pressure 16) Consider two mercury barometers, one with twice the cross-sectional area of the other. Neglecting capillarity, compared with the wider tube, mercury in the smaller tube will rise A) to the same height. B) twice as high. C) four times as high. D) more than four times as high. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Atmospheric Pressure 17) Two vertical tubes of equal cross-sectional areas are filled with liquids to heights producing atmospheric pressure at their bottoms. One liquid is water and the other is mercury. Both liquids have equal A) volumes. B) densities. C) weights. D) viscosity. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Atmospheric Pressure 18) Alcohol is less dense than water. If alcohol is used to make a barometer at normal atmospheric pressure, the height of the alcohol column would be A) less than 10.3 m. B) 10.3 m. C) more than 10.3 m. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Atmospheric Pressure

19) Marshmallows in a vacuum become A) larger. B) smaller. C) flat. D) a hollow shell. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Atmospheric Pressure 20) It would be easier to pull the evacuated Magdeburg hemispheres apart if they were A) held upside down. B) at sea level. C) 20 km beneath the ocean surface. D) 20 km above the ocean surface. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Atmospheric Pressure 21) If one of the pair of Magdeburg hemispheres were fastened to a strong tree, the force needed by a single party to pull them apart would be A) half as much. B) the same. C) twice as much. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Atmospheric Pressure 22) The mass of air inside an average mid-size automobile is about A) 0.2 kg. B) 2 kg. C) 20 kg. D) 200 kg. E) 2000 kg. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Atmospheric Pressure

23) The weight of air in a bathtub (about 1/3 cubic meter) is about the same as the weight of A) a pea. B) an egg. C) a small apple. D) a pound of butter. E) a 10-pound sack of potatoes. Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Atmospheric Pressure 24) When a gas in a container is squeezed to half its volume with no change in temperature, the gas pressure A) halves. B) doubles. C) quadruples. D) remains the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Boyle's Law 25) When a gas in a container is squeezed to half its volume, its density A) halves. B) doubles. C) quadruples. D) remains the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Boyle's Law 26) When a gas in a container expands to twice its volume, its density A) halves. B) doubles. C) quadruples. D) remains the same. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Boyle's Law

27) When boarding an airplane you bring a bag of chips. While in flight the bag puffs up, because A) air pressure in the air-tight bag is greater than cabin air pressure. B) suction is occurring. C) air pressure is affected by the Bernoulli principle. D) all the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Boyle's Law 28) A bubble of air released from the bottom of a lake A) rises to the top at constant volume. B) becomes smaller as it rises. C) becomes larger as it rises. D) alternately expands and contracts as it rises. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Boyle's Law 29) While Debbie Diver holds her breath and swims deeper and deeper beneath the water's surface, her density A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains the same. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Boyle's Law 30) A scuba diver losing her air supply while far beneath the water surface is advised when ascending to A) hold air in her lungs. B) allow air to escape her lungs. C) panic. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Boyle's Law

31) A swimmer cannot snorkel more than a meter deep because air A) in the lungs cannot easily be expelled. B) tends to liquefy in the snorkel tube. C) is buoyed up leaving the swimmer breathless. D) at the surface will not freely enter the higher-pressure region in the compressed lungs. E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Boyle's Law 32) The depth to which an inverted drinking glass must be pushed beneath the water surface to squeeze the enclosed air to half its volume is A) 76 cm. B) 10.3 m. C) 14.7 m. D) 20.6 m. E) 29.4 m. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Boyle's Law 33) Archimedes' principle applies to A) liquids. B) gases. C) fluids. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Buoyancy of Air 34) The buoyant force of the atmosphere on a body is equal to the A) weight of air displaced. B) volume of air displaced. C) mass of the air displaced. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Buoyancy of Air

35) The flight of a blimp best illustrates A) Archimedes' principle. B) Pascal's principle. C) Bernoulli's principle. D) Boyle's law. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Buoyancy of Air 36) The buoyant force on a one-ton blimp hovering in air is A) zero. B) one ton. C) less than one ton. D) more than one ton. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Buoyancy of Air 37) Inside the same room, buoyant force is greater on A) a helium-filled party balloon. B) an elephant. C) both the same Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Buoyancy of Air 38) A buoyant force acts on A) gas-filled balloons. B) you and your classmates. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Buoyancy of Air 39) Compared with air pressure on the outside, air pressure inside an inflated stretched balloon is A) less. B) equal. C) greater. D) need more information Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Buoyancy of Air

40) As a high-altitude balloon sinks lower into the atmosphere, it undergoes a decrease in A) volume. B) density. C) weight. D) mass. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Buoyancy of Air 41) As a high-altitude balloon rises higher into the atmosphere, it undergoes a decrease in A) volume. B) density. C) weight. D) mass. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Buoyancy of Air 42) As a balloon high in the atmosphere descends, it undergoes a decrease in A) volume. B) density. C) weight. D) mass. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Buoyancy of Air 43) As a balloon rises higher and higher into the atmosphere its A) volume decreases. B) density increases. C) weight increases. D) mass decreases. E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Buoyancy of Air

44) A common 5-liter metal can will float in air if it is A) evacuated of air. B) filled with a very large amount of helium. C) thrown high enough. D) no way, unless the displaced air weighs more than the can and its contents! Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Buoyancy of Air 45) An object in a vacuum has no A) buoyant force. B) mass. C) weight. D) temperature. E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Buoyancy of Air 46) A helium-filled balloon released in the atmosphere will rise until A) the pressure inside the balloon equals atmospheric pressure. B) atmospheric pressure on the bottom and top of the balloon are equal. C) the balloon and surrounding air have equal densities. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Buoyancy of Air 47) Compared with the buoyant force of the atmosphere on a 1-liter helium-filled balloon, the buoyant force of the atmosphere on a nearby 1-liter solid iron block is A) considerably less. B) considerably more. C) the same. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Buoyancy of Air 48) Compared to the buoyant force of the atmosphere on a 1-kilogram iron block, the buoyant force on a nearby 1-kilogram helium-filled balloon is A) considerably less. B) considerably more. C) the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Buoyancy of Air 11 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

49) If you stand on a weighing scale and suddenly the atmosphere vanishes, taking buoyancy into account, the scale reading A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains the same. D) quickly reduces to zero. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Buoyancy of Air 50) Assuming no change in temperature, as a freely expanding helium-filled balloon rises in the atmosphere, the buoyant force acting on it A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains nearly the same. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Buoyancy of Air 51) A large block of wood and a smaller block of iron on weighing scales both register 1 ton. Taking buoyancy of air into account, which has the greater mass? A) wood B) iron C) both have the same mass. D) need more information Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Buoyancy of Air 52) Release a ball inside a freely falling elevator and it falls directly in front of you instead of "falling to the floor," because you, ball, elevator, and enclosed air are in free fall. If you do the same with a helium-filled balloon, the balloon will A) also remain in front of you. B) press against the ceiling. C) press against the floor. D) slowly rise. E) slowly fall. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Buoyancy of Air

53) A car with closed windows makes a left hand turn. A helium-filled balloon in the car moves to the A) right. B) left. C) front. D) back. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Buoyancy of Air 54) An empty jar is pushed open-side downward into water so that trapped air cannot escape. As it is pushed deeper, the buoyant force on the jar A) increases. B) decreases. C) increases, then decreases. D) decreases, then increases. E) remains the same. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Buoyancy of Air 55) As a fluid gains speed, its internal pressure A) increases. B) remains unchanged. C) decreases. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Bernoulli's Principle 56) Airplane flight best illustrates A) Archimedes' principle. B) Pascal's principle. C) Bernoulli's principle. D) Boyle's law. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Bernoulli's Principle 57) The principle of continuity states that for fluid flow to be continuous it must A) speed up in narrow regions of flow. B) slow down in wide regions of flow. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Bernoulli's Principle 13 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

58) According to the principle of continuity, the velocity of a fluid multiplied by the cross section through which it flows at one point will equal the product of A) velocity and cross section at another point. B) velocity and pressure at another point. C) a constraint factor. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Bernoulli's Principle 59) When water is turned on in a shower, the shower curtain moves towards the water spray. This partly involves A) capillary action. B) surface tension. C) pressure changes in moving fluids. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Bernoulli's Principle 60) Wind blowing over the top of a hill A) increases atmospheric pressure there. B) decreases atmospheric pressure there. C) does not affect atmospheric pressure there. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Bernoulli's Principle 61) The tarp covering on a trailer or truck puffs upward for fast-moving vehicles, which illustrates A) Pascal's principle. B) Archimedes' principle. C) the principle of continuity. D) Bernoulli's principle. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Bernoulli's Principle 62) A spinning tossed baseball veers off course in the direction of A) reduced air pressure on the ball. B) increased air pressure on the ball. C) non-crowded streamlines. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Bernoulli's Principle 14 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

63) A spinning tossed baseball veers off course in the direction of A) crowded streamlines. B) non-crowded streamlines. C) onward-coming streamlines. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Bernoulli's Principle 64) The Bernoulli effect causes passing ships to be drawn together when the ships are close and moving in A) the same direction. B) opposite directions. C) either of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Bernoulli's Principle 65) The Bernoulli effect causes fast-moving vans on the highway to be drawn together when A) air speeds up in passing between them. B) air between them stagnates. C) they experience lift. D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Bernoulli's Principle 66) When you blow air between a pair of closely-spaced Ping-Pong balls suspended by strings, the balls will swing A) toward each other. B) away from each other. C) away from the air stream, but not necessarily toward or away from each other. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Bernoulli's Principle 67) An umbrella tends to move upwards on a windy day principally because A) trapped air under the umbrella, warms, and rises. B) buoyancy increases with increasing wind speed. C) air pressure is reduced over the curved top surface. D) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Bernoulli's Principle

68) Most of the matter in the universe is in the A) solid phase. B) liquid phase. C) gaseous phase. D) plasma phase. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Plasma 69) A plasma differs from a gas in that A) its molecules are farther apart. B) it is hotter than a gas. C) it is electrically conducting. D) its atoms are boosted to higher atomic numbers. E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Plasma 70) The main difference between gases and plasmas has to do with A) the kinds of elements involved. B) interatomic spacing. C) electrical conduction. D) fluid pressure. E) the proportion of matter to antimatter in the universe. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Plasma 71) Which is an example of matter in a plasma phase? A) dry ice B) a torch flame C) molten lava D) liquid hydrogen E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Plasma

72) Most of the matter in our galaxy is in the A) solid phase. B) liquid phase. C) gaseous phase. D) plasma phase. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Plasma 73) When a common fluorescent lamp is lit, the mercury vapor inside is actually in a A) gaseous phase. B) liquid phase. C) plasma phase. D) solid phase. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Plasma 74) Glowing plasma is evident in the light from A) a fluorescent lamp. B) the aurora borealis (northern lights). C) some TV screens. D) all the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Plasma 75) Plasmas are a central part of power generation in A) MHD generators. B) turbo generators. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Plasma

76) Which of the following bodies is comprised mostly of plasma? A) Earth B) Moon C) Sun D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Plasma 77) When a gas is heated and becomes a plasma, its electric charge is usually A) balanced. B) negative. C) positive. D) non-existent. E) none of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Plasma 78) Most of the mass of material that makes up a plasma is A) electrically neutral. B) always positively charged. C) always negatively charged. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Plasma

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 15 Temperature, Heat, and Expansion 15.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The air in your room is composed of molecules that have A) nearly identical speeds. B) a wide variety of speeds. C) no speeds worth mentioning. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Temperature 2) The kind of molecular motion that mostly relates to the temperature of a substance is A) translational motion. B) rotational motion. C) vibrational motion. D) all about equally Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Temperature 3) Translational motion is characterized by A) motion that carries a molecule from one place to another. B) the motion used in measuring temperature. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Temperature 4) Temperature is most closely related to molecular A) kinetic energy. B) potential energy. C) electrical energy. D) mechanical energy in general. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Temperature

5) Which temperature scales have equal sized degrees? A) Fahrenheit and Celsius B) Fahrenheit and Kelvin C) Celsius and Kelvin D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Temperature 6) Which temperature scale has the smallest sized degrees? A) Fahrenheit B) Celsius C) Kelvin D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Temperature 7) A temperature difference of 10 Celsius degrees is also equal to a temperature difference of 10 on the A) Fahrenheit scale. B) Kelvin scale. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Temperature 8) Room temperature on the Kelvin scale is about A) 100 K. B) 200 K. C) 300 K. D) 400 K. E) more than 400 K. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Temperature 9) The fact that a thermometer "takes its own temperature" illustrates A) thermal equilibrium. B) energy conservation. C) the difference between heat and internal energy. D) the fact that molecules are constantly moving. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Temperature 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) In which is the temperature greater? A) boiling-hot tea in a cup B) boiling-hot tea in a fire-engine pail C) both the same Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Temperature 11) Internal energy is greater in a A) cup of boiling-hot tea. B) fire-engine pail of boiling-hot tea. C) both the same Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Heat 12) When you touch a cold piece of ice with your finger, energy flows A) from your finger to the ice. B) from the ice to your finger. C) actually, both ways. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Heat 13) When you touch a hot potato with your finger, energy flows A) from your finger to the potato. B) from the potato to your finger. C) actually, both ways. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Heat 14) Compared to a giant iceberg, a hot cup of coffee has A) more internal energy and higher temperature. B) higher temperature, but less internal energy. C) a greater specific heat and more internal energy. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Heat

15) Heat energy travels from an object with a high A) internal energy to an object with a lower internal energy. B) temperature to an object with a lower temperature. C) both of the above D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Heat 16) Heat energy is measured in units of A) joules. B) calories. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Heat 17) The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1°C is A) 4.19 calories. B) 4.19 Calories. C) 4.19 joules. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Heat 18) When 10 grams of hot water cool by 1°C, the amount of heat given off is A) 41.9 calories. B) 41.9 Calories. C) 41.9 joules. D) more than 41.9 joules. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Heat 19) Which unit represents the most energy? A) calorie B) Calorie C) joule D) all the same Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Heat

20) White-hot sparks from a 4th-of-July-type sparkler that strike your skin have relatively A) high temperatures. B) few molecules per spark. C) low transfer of energy. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Heat 21) The white-hot sparks from a 4th-of-July-type sparkler that strike your skin transfer A) little energy to you in spite of their high temperature. B) little energy to you due to their low temperature. C) much energy, but at a low temperature. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Heat 22) Pour a liter of water at 40°C into a liter of water at 20°C and the final temperature of the two becomes A) less than 30°C. B) at or about 30°C. C) more than 30°C. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Heat 23) Pour two liters of water at 40°C into one liter of water at 20°C and the final temperature of the two becomes A) less than 30°C. B) at or about 30°C. C) more than 30°C. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Heat 24) Place a 1-kilogram block of iron at 40°C into 1 kilogram of water at 20°C and the final temperature of the two becomes A) less than 30°C. B) at or about 30°C. C) more than 30°C. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Heat

25) A substance with a high thermal inertia has a high A) temperature, in many cases. B) heat conductivity. C) specific heat capacity. D) energy content. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Specific Heat Capacity 26) The quantity of heat that a substance can transfer relates to its A) mass B) specific heat capacity C) change in its temperature. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Specific Heat Capacity 27) Materials composed of molecules that absorb large amounts of energy in the form of internal vibrations and rotations have A) low specific heats. B) high specific heats. C) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Specific Heat Capacity 28) The specific heat capacity is highest for substances that absorb or release large quantities of heat for correspondingly A) small temperature changes. B) large temperature changes. C) small or large changes in temperature. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Specific Heat Capacity 29) Aluminum has a higher specific heat capacity than iron. This means that for equal masses of aluminum and iron, the metal that heats more quickly when the same amount of heat is applied is A) aluminum. B) iron. C) need more information Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Specific Heat Capacity

30) Tomatoes have a higher specific heat capacity than dough. This means that when you bite into a hot pizza A) the dough feels hotter than the tomato sauce. B) the tomato sauce feels hotter than the dough. C) since sauce and dough are at the same temperature, neither feels hotter. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Specific Heat Capacity 31) Which of the following normally warms up fastest when heat is applied? A) water B) iron C) glass D) wood E) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Specific Heat Capacity 32) A substance that cools down faster than others has a A) low specific heat capacity. B) high specific heat capacity. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Specific Heat Capacity 33) A substance that heats up relatively slowly has a A) high specific heat capacity. B) low specific heat capacity. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Specific Heat Capacity 34) A substance that heats up relatively quickly has a A) high specific heat capacity. B) low specific heat capacity. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Specific Heat Capacity

35) Aluminum has a specific heat capacity more than twice that of copper. Place equal masses of aluminum and copper wire in a flame and the one to undergo the fastest increase in temperature will be A) copper. B) aluminum. C) both the same Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Specific Heat Capacity 36) The fact that desert sand is very hot in the day and very cold at night is evidence that the specific heat capacity of sand is relatively A) low. B) high. C) practically absent. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Specific Heat Capacity 37) One of water's interesting thermal properties is that when heated it takes a relatively A) long time in changing temperature. B) short time in changing temperature. C) same amount of time to cool. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: High Specific Heat Capacity of Water 38) The moderate temperatures of islands throughout the world has much to do with water's A) good conductivity. B) vast supply of internal energy. C) high specific heat capacity. D) high evaporation rate. E) absorption of solar energy. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: High Specific Heat Capacity of Water 39) If the specific heat capacity of water were lower than it is, a nice hot bath would be a A) shorter experience. B) longer experience. C) same regardless of water's specific heat capacity. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: High Specific Heat Capacity of Water

40) If the specific heat capacity of water were lower than it is, a watermelon in a picnic cooler would cool in a A) shorter time. B) longer time. C) the same time anyway. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: High Specific Heat Capacity of Water 41) If the specific heat of water were lower than it is, ponds in the cold of winter would be A) more likely to freeze. B) less likely to freeze. C) neither more nor less likely to freeze. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: High Specific Heat Capacity of Water 42) In terms of thermal expansion it is important that A) a key and its lock are made of similar or the same material. B) the fillings in your teeth expand at the same rate as teeth. C) iron rods and concrete in which they're embedded expand equally. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Thermal Expansion 43) A closed, sealed can of air placed on a hot stove. The contained air undergoes an increase in A) mass. B) temperature. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Thermal Expansion 44) When most substances are heated, molecules inside move faster and take up more space, resulting in thermal A) bending. B) expansion. C) contraction. D) heat. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Thermal Expansion

45) When we enlarge a photograph of an iron ring, the image of the hole becomes A) smaller. B) larger. C) neither smaller nor larger. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Thermal Expansion 46) When an iron ring is heated, the hole becomes A) smaller. B) larger. C) neither smaller nor larger. D) either smaller or larger, depending on the ring thickness. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion 47) As a piece of metal with a hole in it cools, the diameter of the hole A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion 48) Consider a metal ring with a gap cut in it. When the ring is heated, the gap A) becomes narrower. B) becomes wider. C) retains its size. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion 49) When a bimetallic bar made of copper and iron strips is heated, the bar bends toward the iron strip. The reason for this is A) iron gets hotter before copper. B) copper gets hotter before iron. C) copper expands more than iron. D) iron expands more than copper. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion

50) It is important that the two metals that compose a bimetallic strip have A) different conductivities. B) different rates of expansion. C) equal thicknesses. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion 51) The fact that gasoline overflows a full tank on a hot day is evidence that A) gasoline expands more with increasing temperature than its tank. B) the tank contracts while gasoline expands with temperature. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Thermal Expansion 52) In most cases, which expands more for comparable changes in temperature? A) solids. B) liquids. C) gases. D) all expand about equally. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Thermal Expansion 53) Which of the following expands more when the temperature is increased? Equal volumes of A) iron. B) wood. C) ice water. D) helium. E) all expand the same. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion 54) Which of the following contracts most when the temperature is decreased? Equal volumes of A) iron. B) wood. C) water. D) helium. E) all contract the same. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion 11 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

55) Which of these expands when the temperature is lowered? A) iron B) wood C) ice water D) helium E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion 56) If glass expanded more than mercury, then the column of mercury in a mercury thermometer would fall when the temperature A) increases. B) decreases. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion 57) If you measure the width of an outdoor barn with a steel tape on a very cold day, your measured width will be A) a bit short. B) a bit long. C) the same as on an average-temperature day. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Thermal Expansion 58) If you measure the distance between two telephone poles with a steel tape on a very hot day, your measured distance will be A) a bit short. B) a bit long. C) the same as on an average-temperature day. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Thermal Expansion 59) A body of water will be deeper when its A) temperature rises. B) temperature drops. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water

60) Which of these is correct? A) a piece of solid iron floats in molten iron. B) a piece of solid aluminum floats in molten aluminum. C) a piece of ice floats in water. D) all the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water 61) When ice water at 0°C is heated A) thermal expansion occurs. B) thermal contraction occurs. C) both occur until 4°C is reached Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water 62) Open spaces in ice crystals contribute to A) decreased density. B) increased density. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water 63) Due to the presence of ice crystals in nearly frozen liquid water, the density of water is A) lower. B) unaffected. C) higher. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water 64) Microscopic slush in ice water tends to make water density A) lower. B) higher. C) sustain at one value. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water

65) Ice has a lower density than water because ice A) molecules are more compact in the solid state. B) molecules vibrate at lower rates than water molecules. C) is composed of open-structured crystals. D) density decreases with decreasing temperature. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water 66) Ice tends to form first at the A) surface of bodies of water. B) bottom of bodies of water. C) either depending on water depth. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water 67) Ice crystals in nearly frozen liquid water make up a A) microscopic slush. B) region of lower density. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water 68) When ice crystals collapse at the surface of ice, the result is a A) thin film of water. B) slippery surface. C) both of these. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water 69) If the temperature of a sample of water at 0°C is slightly increased, its volume A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water

70) If the temperature of a sample of water at 4°C is slightly increased, its volume A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains the same. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water 71) If the temperature of a sample of water at 4°C is slightly lowered, its volume A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains the same. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water 72) If you wish to expand the volume of a sample of water at 4°C A) raise its temperature a bit. B) lower its temperature a bit. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water 73) When water at 4°C is heated it expands. If it is instead cooled it will A) contracts. B) also expand. C) neither contracts nor expands. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water 74) Consider some water at 6°C. For a slight increase its temperature the water will A) expand. B) contract. C) remain the same. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water

75) Before ice can form on a lake, all the water in the lake must be cooled to A) zero°C. B) 4°C. C) -32°C. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water 76) When the temperature of a solid block of ice is lowered, its volume A) increases. B) decreases. C) stays the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water 77) During a very cold winter, water pipes sometimes burst due to A) the ground contracting when colder. B) water expanding when freezing. C) water contracting when freezing. D) thawing producing pressure on the pipes. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water 78) The temperature at the bottom of Lake Tahoe, high in the Sierra Nevada Mountains in California, at this moment is A) below 4°C. B) 4°C. C) above 4°C. D) uncertain. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water 79) When ice floats in water, a small part of it extends above the surface. Interestingly, the volume of ice that extends above the surface is equal to the volume of the A) water the ice displaces. B) vast number of open spaces in all the hexagonal ice crystals. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Thermal Expansion of Water 16 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 16 Heat Transfer 16.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Metals are good conductors of both heat and electricity due to A) similar thermal and electrical conductive properties. B) looseness of outer electrons in metal atoms. C) relatively high densities of metals. D) high elasticity of metals. E) both transferring energy easily. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Conduction 2) A good heat conductor is A) a poor insulator. B) a good insulator. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Conduction 3) Which of these are good conductors? A) feathers. B) wood. C) snow. D) all the above E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Conduction 4) Which of these are good insulators? A) feathers. B) wood. C) snow. D) all the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Conduction

5) Because of trapped air inside, snow is a A) good conductor. B) good insulator. C) both a good insulator and a poor conductor. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Conduction 6) On a cold day your feet feel warmer on a rug than on a tile floor because a rug A) is usually warmer than tile. B) is a poorer conductor. C) for the same mass has more internal energy than tile. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Conduction 7) A block of wood and a block of copper will feel neither hot nor cold to the touch when they each have A) equal temperatures. B) your temperature. C) equal conductivities. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Conduction 8) In practice, a good insulator A) stops heat flow. B) slows heat flow. C) speeds negative heat flow. D) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Conduction 9) When you touch a nail stuck in ice, energy flows from A) the ice to your hand. B) your hand to the ice. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Conduction 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) Wood is a poor conductor A) when it is cold. B) at common room temperature. C) when it is hot. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Conduction 11) A bare roof on a warmly heated home on a snowy day indicates A) an unwanted flow of heat B) poor insulation. C) fairly good conductivity. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Conduction 12) If air were a better conductor, at nighttime Earth would be A) considerably colder. B) considerably warmer. C) not appreciably different in temperature. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Conduction 13) A water-filled paper cup held in a flame will not catch fire. This is because A) the inside of the paper is wet. B) water is an excellent conductor of heat. C) paper is a poor conductor of heat. D) the paper cup cannot become appreciably hotter than the water it contains. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Conduction 14) If you were caught in freezing weather with only a candle for heat, you would be warmer in A) an igloo. B) a tent. C) a wooden house. D) a car. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Conduction

15) In terms of transferring heat, red-hot wooden coals A) conduct quite well. B) conduct poorly. C) radiate poorly. D) convect poorly. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Conduction 16) The reason you can walk barefoot on red-hot coals of wood without burning your feet mainly involves A) low temperature of the coals. B) low conductivity of the coals. C) mind over matter techniques. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Conduction 17) Energy transfer by convection is primarily restricted to A) solids. B) liquids. C) gases. D) fluids. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Convection 18) Soaring birds and glider pilots can remain aloft for hours without expending power, due to A) conduction. B) convection. C) radiation. D) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Convection 19) You can safely hold your fingers on both sides of a candle flame due mainly to A) conduction. B) convection. C) radiation. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Convection

20) If a volume of air is warmed, it expands and tends to A) warm. B) cool. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Convection 21) When a volume of air is compressed, air temperature A) increases. B) decreases. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Convection 22) Blow on your hand with your mouth open. Then do the same with your lips puckered and you'll find A) a difference in temperatures. B) the breath from puckered lips is cooler. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Convection 23) Molecules in a region of expanding air more often collide with neighboring molecules that are A) approaching. B) receding. C) nearly out of range. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Convection 24) A region of expanding air tends to A) cool. B) warm. C) both of the these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Convection

25) Steam that issues from a pressure cooker A) is invisible. B) cools as it expands. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Convection 26) A parcel of warmed air rises due to A) random molecular motion. B) radiation. C) buoyancy. D) increased energy of its molecules. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Convection 27) At the same temperature, which has greater average speed in the air? A) very light molecules B) heavier molecules C) both have equal average speeds. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Convection 28) In a mixture of hydrogen gas, oxygen gas, and nitrogen gas, the molecules with the greatest average speed are those of A) hydrogen. B) oxygen. C) nitrogen. D) all the same Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Convection 29) If no molecular collisions occurred in a sample of gas, temperature of the gas would A) increase. B) decrease. C) be unaffected. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Convection

30) If you release a single molecule in an evacuated region it will initially A) fall just as a baseball would. B) move in any direction. C) convect upward. D) be buoyed upward. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Convection 31) The form of heat transfer that doesn't depend on a medium is A) conduction. B) convection. C) radiation. D) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Radiation 32) Sun's radiant energy is composed of shorter wavelengths than Earth's due to Sun's greater A) size. B) surface temperature. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Radiation 33) The higher the temperature of an object, the A) longer the wavelengths it radiates. B) shorter the wavelengths it radiates. C) makes no difference in the wavelengths it radiates Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Radiation 34) Terrestrial radiation is A) emitted by Earth. B) emitted by the Sun. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Radiation

35) The pupil of your eye is a net A) absorber of radiant energy. B) emitter of radiant energy. C) reflector of radiant energy. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Radiation 36) The lower the temperature of an object, the A) lower the frequency of radiation it emits. B) longer the wavelengths it radiates. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Radiation 37) Objects that radiate relatively well A) absorb radiation relatively well. B) reflect radiation relatively well. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Radiation 38) When an object absorbs as much as it radiates A) it remains at about the same temperature. B) it is a net absorber. C) it is a net radiator. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Radiation 39) If a pizza radiates more energy than it absorbs, its temperature A) decreases. B) is unaffected. C) increases. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Radiation

40) If a pizza absorbs more energy than it emits, its temperature A) decreases. B) is unaffected. C) increases. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Radiation 41) A liter of hot water will cool to room temperature faster in a A) black pot. B) silver pot. C) red pot. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Radiation 42) A liter of cold water will warm faster in sunlight in a A) black pot. B) silver pot. C) red pot. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Radiation 43) A bridge is more likely to be ice covered than the roadway on a cold day because A) a bridge is more conducting than ground. B) a bridge is more commonly wet than ground. C) heat upwelling from the ground below is absent on a bridge. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Radiation 44) The temperature of outer space is A) zero. B) about 2.7 kelvin. C) meaningless. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Radiation

45) A photovoltaic cell receives energy input by A) conduction. B) convection. C) radiation. D) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Radiation 46) A good absorber of radiation is a A) good emitter of radiation. B) poor emitter of radiation. C) good reflector. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Radiation 47) A good reflector of radiation is a A) good absorber of radiation. B) good emitter of radiation. C) poor absorber of radiation. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Radiation 48) If a poor absorber of radiation were a good emitter, its temperature would be A) less than its surroundings. B) more than its surroundings. C) the same as its surroundings. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Radiation 49) Both black and white road surfaces absorb sunlight. The warmer road surface at the end of a sunny day is the A) black surface. B) white surface. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Radiation

50) Both black and white road surfaces radiate energy. At midnight on a starry night the warmer road surface is the A) black surface. B) white surface. C) neither, as no noticeable difference. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Radiation 51) Newton's law of cooling applies to objects undergoing A) cooling. B) warming. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Law of Cooling 52) A red-hot piece of coal will cool quicker in a A) cold room. B) warm over. C) both the same. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Law of Cooling 53) An apple pie will be a net emitter of energy when its temperature is A) higher than its surroundings. B) lower than its surroundings. C) none of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Law of Cooling 54) A blueberry pie will be a net absorber of energy when its temperature is A) higher than its surroundings. B) lower than its surroundings. C) none of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Law of Cooling

55) It is commonly thought that a can of beverage will cool faster in the coldest part of a refrigerator. Knowledge of Newton's law of cooling A) supports this common knowledge. B) contradicts this common knowledge. C) is unrelated to this common knowledge. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Law of Cooling 56) When you're ready for the hottest sips of coffee, add cream A) right away. B) at any time. C) when you are ready to drink the coffee. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Law of Cooling 57) Which body glows with electromagnetic waves? A) the Sun B) the Earth C) you and your classmates D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: The Greenhouse Effect/Climate Change 58) Waves emitted by the Sun and terrestrial wave emissions are A) the same except for their frequencies and wavelengths. B) entirely different kinds of waves. C) identical. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: The Greenhouse Effect/Climate Change 59) The planet Earth loses heat primarily by A) conduction. B) convection. C) radiation. D) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: The Greenhouse Effect/Climate Change

60) Glass in a florist's greenhouse acts as a one-way valve in that it A) lets light energy flow only in one direction. B) cuts off unwanted radiation. C) allows high-frequency waves in and blocks low-frequency waves exiting. D) is transparent only to lower-frequency waves. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: The Greenhouse Effect/Climate Change 61) If there were no greenhouse effect, Earth's average temperature would likely be A) near absolute zero. B) a frigid -18°C. C) comfortably cooler. D) warmer than now. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: The Greenhouse Effect/Climate Change 62) Which is the most abundant greenhouse gas in Earth's atmosphere? A) nitrogen. B) water vapor. C) carbon dioxide. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: The Greenhouse Effect/Climate Change 63) Long ago a runaway greenhouse effect transformed the planet A) Mercury. B) Venus. C) Mars. D) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: The Greenhouse Effect/Climate Change 64) If the composition of the upper atmosphere were altered to permit a greater amount of terrestrial radiation to escape, Earth would be A) cooler. B) warmer. C) quite unaffected. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: The Greenhouse Effect/Climate Change

65) Every equation in physics reminds us of a lesson: we can never change only one thing. When we change the composition of the atmosphere we likely also change A) its transparency. B) its reflectivity. C) its average temperature. D) Earth's climate. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: The Greenhouse Effect/Climate Change 66) Looking forward, common consensus will likely agree that the wisest use of fossil fuels is to A) convert them to heat and smoke. B) save them for tomorrow's materials. C) extract and sell them as quickly as possible. D) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: The Greenhouse Effect/Climate Change 67) The heat we enjoy on a sunny day is due mainly to the Sun's A) high surface temperature. B) relatively close distance. C) enormous size. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Solar Power 68) Solar power is used in many parts of the world for A) heating water. B) generating electricity. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Solar Power 69) The amount of solar energy per square meter atop the atmosphere at right angles to the Sun's rays is about A) 700 joules. B) 1000 joules. C) 1400 joules. D) much more than 1400 joules. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Solar Power 14 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

70) Solar power is the rate at which A) the Sun emits energy. B) solar energy is received from the Sun. C) the atmosphere absorbs energy. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Solar Power 71) The solar constant is the A) input of solar energy per square meter atop Earth's atmosphere. B) difference between solar energy atop the atmosphere and that reaching ground. C) maximum amount of energy Earth receives from the Sun. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Solar Power 72) The solar constant for Earth is A) 0.7 kW/m2. B) 1.0 kW/m2. C) 1.4 kW/m2. D) more than 1.4 kW/m2. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Solar Power 73) Substances absorb heat energy by the process of A) conduction. B) convection. C) radiation. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Controlling Heat Transfer 74) When coal dust is spread on snow on a sunny day A) more melting occurs. B) less melting occurs. C) no change in melting rate occurs. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Controlling Heat Transfer

75) Heat normally flows from objects of high A) internal energy to objects of low internal energy. B) temperature to objects of low temperature. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Controlling Heat Transfer 76) A Thermos bottle has double glass walls with silver coating on the glass surfaces that face each other. The silver coating reduces energy transfer by A) conduction. B) convection. C) radiation. D) all the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Controlling Heat Transfer 77) When a hot object makes thermal contact with a cold object, the direction of A) temperature is from hot to cold. B) internal energy flow is from hot to cold C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Controlling Heat Transfer 78) Hydrogen and oxygen molecules in a sample of gas have the same temperature. This means the hydrogen molecules, on average, have the same A) speed and the same kinetic energy. B) speed, but more kinetic energy. C) speed, but less kinetic energy. D) kinetic energy, but more speed. E) kinetic energy, but less speed. Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Controlling Heat Transfer

79) To save energy while you leave your warm house for a half hour on a cold day, turn the thermostat A) down. B) up. C) to room temperature. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Controlling Heat Transfer 80) To save energy while you leave your cool house for a half hour on a hot day, turn the temperature setting on the air conditioner A) down. B) up. C) off altogether. D) to room temperature. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Controlling Heat Transfer

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 17 Change of Phase 17.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Wrapping a hot potato in aluminum foil significantly reduces the rate at which it cools by A) conduction. B) condensation. C) evaporation. D) melting. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Evaporation 2) The molecules in a room-temperature glass of water jostle around at A) a great variety of speeds. B) much the same rates of speed. C) a very small range of speeds. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Evaporation 3) The reason that evaporation is a cooling process is A) radiation of heat during the process. B) due to conduction and convection. C) the more energetic molecules escape the liquid. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Evaporation 4) When you blow over hot soup to cool it you are helping A) to slightly increase air pressure atop the soup surface. B) more energetic particles in the soup to escape. C) conduction, convection, and radiation. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Evaporation

5) A hot dog pants A) to enable evaporation in its mouth and bronchial tract. B) to provide more oxygen into its lungs. C) to impress dogs of the opposite sex. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Evaporation 6) The surface of hot water has a relatively high rate of A) evaporation. B) condensation. C) conductivity. D) convection. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Evaporation 7) What occurs in a pan of water placed outdoors on a warm day? A) evaporation B) condensation C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Condensation 8) A canteen that is wet on the outside results in water inside that is A) warmer. B) cooler. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Condensation 9) Double-pane windows contain nitrogen rather than air to prevent A) gas escape. B) thermal conduction. C) condensation. D) heat flow. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Condensation

10) The toy drinking bird nicely illustrates A) evaporation. B) condensation. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Condensation 11) When fast-moving water molecules collide they tend to A) rebound without sticking. B) stick. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Condensation 12) When slow-moving water molecules collide they tend to A) rebound without sticking. B) stick. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Condensation 13) The main difference between a fog and a cloud is A) water vapor content. B) density of vapor. C) seeding. D) altitude. E) temperature. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Condensation 14) The pressure at the bottom of a geyser is A) less than nearer the top. B) the same as nearer the top C) greater than nearer the top. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Condensation 3 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) When a geyser erupts, pressure at its bottom A) increases. B) decreases. C) is unaffected D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Condensation 16) Evaporation is a cooling process and condensation is A) a warming process. B) a cooling process also. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Condensation 17) A boy scout will be burned more severely by A) 100 g of water at 100°C. B) 100 g of steam at 100°C. C) both about equally D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Condensation 18) Steam burns are more damaging than burns caused by boiling water because steam A) has more energy per gram than boiling water. B) releases additional energy when it condenses. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Condensation 19) We feel uncomfortably warm on a muggy day because water molecules are A) evaporating from our moist bodies. B) condensing on our bodies. C) evaporating and condensing on our bodies at the same rate. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Condensation

20) On a muggy day, water molecules in the air that strike our bodies A) transfer some of their kinetic energy to us. B) gain kinetic energy as they change phase. C) form an insulating layer on our bodies. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Condensation 21) Morning dew on the grass is a result of A) evaporation of water. B) the open-structured form of water crystals. C) air pressure on water vapor. D) slow-moving water molecules sticking to one another. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Condensation 22) Food in a pressure cooker is cooked faster due to A) higher temperature. B) greater rate of bubble formation in the water. C) energy transfer in the water. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Boiling 23) In mountain regions, food cooked in boiling water cooks slower than when cooked at sea level. If the temperature beneath the pot of boiling water is increased, the food will cook A) faster. B) slower still. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Boiling 24) Compared with sea-level cooking, in cooking eggs by boiling in mountain regions you should boil the eggs A) with a hotter flame. B) for a shorter time. C) for a longer time. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Boiling 5 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

25) Water can be brought to a boil by A) applying heat. B) reducing air pressure on its surface. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Boiling 26) When heat is added to boiling water, its temperature A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains unchanged. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Boiling 27) For increased atmospheric pressure, the boiling point of water A) goes down. B) rises. C) remains at 100 degrees C. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Boiling 28) Increased air pressure on the surface of hot water tends to A) prevent boiling. B) promote boiling. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Boiling 29) Compared to sea level, water in an open pot in the mountains boils at A) a higher temperature. B) a lower temperature. C) the same temperature. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Boiling

30) A geyser such as Old Faithful in Yellowstone Park is similar to a A) vacuum bottle. B) canteen. C) coffee percolator. D) teakettle. E) vat of molten lead. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Boiling 31) Hydrothermal vents deep beneath the ocean surface attain temperatures far above 100°C due to A) higher salt content. B) reduced salt content. C) greater pressure. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Boiling 32) Water can be turned to ice by A) lowering the surrounding air pressure. B) extracting energy. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Boiling 33) A good cook knows that the temperature of violently boiling water is A) higher than that of simmering water. B) the same as that of simmering water. C) actually lower than 100°C. D) neither of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Boiling

34) In one word, how can water in the power plant of a nuclear submarine far exceed 100°C? A) conductivity B) evaporation C) condensation D) pressure E) vaporization Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Boiling 35) Water in a car radiator sometimes boils explosively when the radiator cap is removed, which is due to sudden A) rapid evaporation. B) reduced pressure. C) excess condensation. D) excess vaporization. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Boiling 36) An inventor discovers a harmless and tasteless salt, which when added to water changes its boiling point. The market value for this salt will be better if the salt A) lowers the boiling point of water. B) raises the boiling point of water. C) either raises or lowers the boiling point, as the food would be cooked either way. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Boiling 37) The addition of salt to water affects its A) crystal composition. B) freezing point. C) viscosity. D) liquidity. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Melting and Freezing

38) The temperature at which water freezes is the same as the temperature at which A) ice melts. B) water boils in a pressure cooker. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Melting and Freezing 39) The temperature at which a liquid freezes is A) affected by foreign ions. B) the same temperature at which its solid form melts. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Melting and Freezing 40) Foreign ions introduced to water A) lower the freezing point of water. B) raise the freezing point of water. C) do not affect water's freezing point. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Melting and Freezing 41) Dean teaches that the phenomenon of regelation is due to the A) freezing point of water. B) melting point of ice. C) open-structured nature of ice crystals. D) high specific heat of water. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Melting and Freezing 42) To illustrate regelation with ice it is important that a A) wire is used. B) string is used. C) either of these D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Melting and Freezing

43) When you walk barefoot on red-hot wooden coals it is best if A) no pieces of metal are among the coals. B) you walk slowly to demonstrate your courage. C) you impress your friends by carrying away bits of wood between your toes. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 44) If bits of the coals do not stick to your feet while walking barefoot on red-hot coals, it would be best if your feet are A) wet. B) dry. C) warm. D) cold. E) very hot. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 45) To melt ice, add A) temperature. B) energy. C) force. D) time. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 46) When a solid is changed to a liquid, the solid A) releases energy. B) absorbs energy. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 47) When a solid melts, energy is A) absorbed by the solid. B) released by the solid. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 10 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

48) When liquids change to a solids, they A) absorb energy. B) release energy. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 49) When a gas is changed to a liquid, the gas A) releases energy. B) absorbs energy. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 50) When a vapor condenses, energy is A) absorbed by the vapor. B) released from the vapor. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 51) When vapor transforms to a plasma, energy must be A) absorbed by the vapor. B) released from the vapor. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 52) When moth balls sublime to gas they A) absorb energy. B) release energy. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase

53) You can add heat without raising temperature to A) ice. B) boiling water. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 54) As a block of ice at 0°C melts, the block absorbs energy A) and decreases in temperature. B) and increases in temperature. C) without a temperature change. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 55) The most responsible factor for whether a substance takes the phase of solid, liquid, gas, or plasma is its A) composition. B) atomic shell configuration. C) temperature. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 56) When water freezes, the surrounding air is A) cooled. B) warmed. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 57) During snow fall, the surrounding air is A) cooled. B) warmed. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 12 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

58) When steam condenses, the surrounding air is A) cooled. B) warmed. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 59) When ice crystals form in clouds, the surrounding air A) warms. B) cools. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 60) Melting snow tends to A) warm the surrounding air. B) cool the surrounding air. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 61) When water vapor condenses on the inside of a window, the room becomes slightly A) warmer. B) cooler. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 62) When condensation occurs inside your bedroom window, the air outside is appreciably A) colder. B) warmer. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase

63) In a heat pump, cooling is accomplished when A) condensation occurs in its coils. B) vaporization occurs in its coils. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 64) In a heat pump, warming is accomplished when A) condensation occurs in its coils. B) vaporization occurs in its coils. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 65) A refrigerator A) produces cold. B) causes internal energy to disappear. C) transfers internal energy from inside to outside. D) transfers heat into cold. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 66) The cooling effect inside a refrigerator is produced by A) an electric motor that converts electrical energy to internal energy. B) compressing the refrigeration gas. C) vaporizing the refrigeration liquid. D) proper insulation. E) exchanging warmer air with colder air. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 67) Ice is put in a cooler to cool the contents. To speed up the cooling process, the ice can be A) wrapped in newspaper. B) drained of water periodically. C) kept away from the food. D) broken into smaller pieces. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 14 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

68) To increase the temperature of 50 grams of water by 2 Celsius degrees requires A) 0.04 calorie. B) 2 calories. C) 4.19 calories. D) 25 calories. E) 100 calories. Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 69) To melt 50 grams of 0-degree-Celsius ice requires A) 25 calories. B) 50 calories. C) 80 calories. D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 70) To turn 50 grams of boiling water to steam requires A) 50 calories. B) 500 calories C) 540 calories. D) more than 540 calories. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 71) To turn 1 gram of boiling water to steam requires A) almost as much energy as changing 1 gram of 0°C water to the boiling point. B) as much as increasing 1 kilogram of 95°C water to the boiling point. C) more energy than needed to turn 1 gram of absolute-zero ice to the boiling point. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 72) When water vapor changes phase to become water in a cloud, the surroundings become A) cooler. B) warmer. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 15 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

73) Which will melt more ice when placed on its surface, a kilogram of wood or a kilogram of iron of the same high temperature? A) 1 kg of wood. B) 1 kg of iron. C) both the same D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 74) A heat pump can A) cool an environment. B) warm an environment. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 75) Firefighters find that the temperature of burning material is best lowered when water is A) used in small amounts. B) pointed away from the flames. C) sprayed as a fine mist. D) salted. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 76) Stored potatoes, beets, and rutabagas freeze at temperatures below zero degrees Celsius (rather than at exactly zero) because A) they are good radiators of energy. B) they are good absorbers of radiant energy. C) the water in them contains dissolved salts and sugars. D) they are relatively dense. E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase

77) Stored potatoes, beets, and rutabagas in an unheated well-insulated room can be protected from freezing by having in the room A) blocks of foam plastic. B) large tubs of water. C) an ample supply of fire wood. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 78) The calories needed to change 10 grams of ice at 0°C to steam at 100°C is A) 6200. B) 6400. C) 7200. D) 8000. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 79) Which involves a larger number of calories? A) the condensation of 1 gram of steam at 100°C to water at 100°C B) the cooling of 1 gram of water at 100 degrees Celsius to 1 gram of ice at absolute zero C) both the same D) none of these Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 80) The mass of ice that can be melted by 1 gram of 100°C steam is (Hint: Don't forget about hot water remaining from condensed steam.) A) 0.125 gram. B) 0.148 gram. C) 6.75 grams. D) 8 grams. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase

81) The minimum amount of steam at 100°C needed to melt 1 gram of 0°C ice is A) 0.125 gram. B) 0.148 gram. C) 6.75 grams. D) 8 grams. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase 82) Rapid evaporation of hot water can lead to A) superheated steam. B) the formation of ice. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Energy and Changes of Phase

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 18 Thermodynamics 18.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The lowest temperature possible in nature is A) 0 degrees C. B) -273 degrees C. C) 4 K. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Absolute Zero 2) Which of these units of temperature is larger? A) a Celsius degree B) a Kelvin C) both are the same size D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Absolute Zero 3) Water freezes at atmospheric pressure and a temperature of A) 0 degrees Celsius. B) 32 degrees Fahrenheit. C) about 273 kelvin. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Absolute Zero 4) Internal energy in thermodynamics is the same as A) temperature. B) thermal energy. C) heat. D) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Absolute Zero

5) A definite method for losing weight is A) exercise. B) reduce Calorie intake. C) maintain a low body temperature. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Absolute Zero 6) When Philadelphia's temperature is 40°F and Miami's temperature is 80°F, A) Miami is twice as hot as Philadelphia. B) Miami is warmer than Philadelphia. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Absolute Zero 7) An equal amount of 0°C air that is twice as hot has a temperature of A) 0°C. B) 64°C. C) 100°C. D) 273°C. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Absolute Zero 8) If a 5°C piece of iron is heated until it has twice as much internal energy, its temperature will be A) 10°C. B) 273°C. C) 278°C. D) 283°C. E) 556°C. Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Absolute Zero

9) If a 10°C piece of iron is heated until it has twice as much internal energy, its temperature will be A) 20°C. B) 273°C. C) 293°C. D) 566°C. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Absolute Zero 10) If a cup of tea at room temperature, 24°C is heated until it has twice the internal energy, unlike a piece of metal, its temperature will be A) 48°C. B) 100°C. C) 321°C. D) 594°C. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Absolute Zero 11) The air pressure in a container of air at 27°C will double when heated to A) 54 degrees C. B) 300 degrees C. C) 327 degrees C. D) 600 degrees C. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Absolute Zero 12) If a piece of iron and a cup of water at the same temperature are heated so the internal energy of each doubles A) the water will have the higher temperature. B) the iron will have the higher temperature. C) both will have the same temperature. D) need more information Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Absolute Zero

13) The first law of thermodynamics is a restatement of the conservation of A) momentum. B) energy. C) electric charge. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: First Law of Thermodynamics 14) The change in internal energy of adding 100 joules to a system that does 60 joules of work is A) 0 J. B) 40 J. C) 60 J. D) 100 J. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: First Law of Thermodynamics 15) When you rapidly stir raw eggs with an eggbeater, the temperature of the eggs A) increases. B) decreases. C) remain unchanged. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: First Law of Thermodynamics 16) When you vigorously shake a can of chicken broth, you A) are doing work on the broth. B) increase the temperature of the broth. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: First Law of Thermodynamics 17) When you compress air with a tire pump, the air temperature in the tire A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains unaffected. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: First Law of Thermodynamics 4 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

18) A volume of air that is compressed with no heat entering or leaving becomes A) cooler. B) remain unchanged. C) warmer. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: First Law of Thermodynamics 19) When mechanical work is done on a system, an increase normally occurs in its A) internal energy. B) temperature. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: First Law of Thermodynamics 20) When a system does work without adding heat, the temperature of the system A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains unchanged. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: First Law of Thermodynamics 21) The contained air in a closed, sealed can placed on a hot stove will undergo an increase in A) internal energy. B) temperature. C) pressure. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: First Law of Thermodynamics 22) The amount of energy converted to light by an incandescent light bulb is about A) 10% and the amount converted to heat about 90% B) 90% and the amount converted to heat about 10%. C) either of these depending on the brand. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: First Law of Thermodynamics

23) The amount of energy ultimately converted to heat by an incandescent light bulb is about A) 10%. B) 40%. C) 80%. D) 100%. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: First Law of Thermodynamics 24) An adiabatic process is characterized by the absence of A) entropy. B) pressure change. C) heat exchange. D) temperature change. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Adiabatic Processes 25) Your hand is warmed when you blow on it with your mouth open, but when your lips are puckered so that air expands as you blow, your hand is A) warmer still. B) cooler. C) neither warmer nor cooler. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Adiabatic Processes 26) When the air of a fully-inflated party balloon quickly escapes, its temperature A) drops. B) rises. C) remains unchanged. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Adiabatic Processes 27) When an ideal gas is subjected to an adiabatic process A) no work is done on the gas. B) the temperature of the gas does not change. C) the internal energy of the gas does not change. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Adiabatic Processes 6 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) During an adiabatic compression of an ideal gas A) the internal energy of the gas remains constant. B) the temperature of the gas does not change. C) no heat enters or leaves the gas. D) no work is done on the gas. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Adiabatic Processes 29) Adiabatic processes occur in Earth's A) atmosphere. B) oceans. C) mantle. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Adiabatic Processes 30) A soda-pop can containing only steam is placed top downward in a pan of water. Whap! The can is dramatically crushed by atmospheric pressure. The reduced pressure inside the can is due to A) contact with the relatively cooler water. B) sudden slowing of the air and steam molecules inside. C) condensation of steam inside. D) reduced internal energy. E) rapid conduction of heat to the relatively cool water. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Adiabatic Processes 31) Earth's atmosphere gets most of its heat from the A) Sun. B) Earth's core. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Meteorology and the First Law

32) The origin of most internal energy in Earth's interior is A) the Sun. B) radioactivity. C) volcanoes. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Meteorology and the First Law 33) In the formation of a cloud, moist air rises and A) expands. B) cools. C) condenses. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Meteorology and the First Law 34) Chinook winds tend to A) warm an environment. B) cool an environment. C) cool deserts at night. D) warm deserts at sunrise. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Meteorology and the First Law 35) A temperature inversion occurs when the upper layers of air are A) warmer than the lower regions of air. B) cooler than the lower regions of air. C) at the same temperature as lower regions of air. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Meteorology and the First Law 36) As a parcel of air is swept upward, with no heat input or output, its temperature A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Meteorology and the First Law

37) When a parcel of air expands against the environment and no heat enters or leaves, its temperature A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains unchanged. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Meteorology and the First Law 38) As a parcel of air at high altitude sinks to a lower elevation with no heat input or output, its temperature A) increases. B) decreases. C) will remain unchanged. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Meteorology and the First Law 39) A given amount of heat energy can be completely converted to mechanical energy in A) a steam engine. B) an atomic reactor. C) a simple machine. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Second Law of Thermodynamics 40) To totally convert a given amount of mechanical energy into heat is A) possible. B) impossible. C) need more information D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Second Law of Thermodynamics 41) An example of a heat engine is A) an aircraft turbine. B) an automobile internal combustion motor. C) the steam engine of a railroad train. D) the gasoline motor of a leaf blower. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Second Law of Thermodynamics 9 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

42) Every heat engine A) gains heat from a high-temperature reservoir. B) converts energy into mechanical work. C) expels heat to a lower-temperature reservoir. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Second Law of Thermodynamics 43) The main purpose of the condenser in the steam cycle of a steam turbine is to A) cool the steam. B) condense the steam. C) lower pressure on the back side of the turbine blades. D) maintain high efficiency. E) change mechanical energy to electricity. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Second Law of Thermodynamics 44) The greater the temperature difference between input and output reservoirs of a heat engine, the A) greater the efficiency. B) smaller the efficiency. C) both of the above D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Second Law of Thermodynamics 45) A heat engine would have 100% efficiency if its low-temperature reservoir were A) as hot as its reservoir. B) at absolute zero. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Second Law of Thermodynamics 46) More efficient gasoline engines could be built if they could withstand A) greater rotational rates. B) lower temperatures. C) higher temperatures. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Second Law of Thermodynamics 10 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

47) Two identical blocks of iron are placed in contact, one at 10°C and the other at 20°C. If the cooler block cools to 5°C and the warmer block warms to 25°C, this would violate the A) first law of thermodynamics. B) second law of thermodynamics. C) third law of thermodynamics. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Second Law of Thermodynamics 48) If you leave the refrigerator door open in a closed room, the room temperature will A) increase. B) decrease. C) be unaffected. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Second Law of Thermodynamics 49) Harry places a new air conditioner in the middle of his hot room, which when operating A) cools the room. B) further warms the room. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Second Law of Thermodynamics 50) The ideal efficiency for a heat engine operating between the temperatures 2700 K and 300 K is A) 10%. B) 24%. C) 80%. D) 89%. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Second Law of Thermodynamics 51) The ideal efficiency for a heat engine operating between the temperatures of 227°C and 27°C is A) 20%. B) 25%. C) 40%. D) 88%. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Second Law of Thermodynamics 11 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

52) High-quality energy in natural processes has a tendency to transform into A) higher quality energy. B) lower quality energy. C) internal energy. D) entropy. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Energy Tends to Disperse/Entropy 53) Entropy is a measure of A) messiness. B) disorder. C) both of the above D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Energy Tends to Disperse/Entropy 54) Systems alone tend to move toward A) order. B) disorder. C) temperature inversions. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Energy Tends to Disperse/Entropy 55) Systems alone tend to move toward a state of A) less entropy. B) more entropy. C) no entropy. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Energy Tends to Disperse/Entropy 56) Entropy measures temperature A) at constant pressure. B) at constant volume. C) as pressure increases. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Energy Tends to Disperse/Entropy 12 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

57) Entropy is most closely related to the A) first law of thermodynamics. B) second law of thermodynamics. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Energy Tends to Disperse/Entropy 58) As a system becomes more disordered, entropy A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains the same. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Energy Tends to Disperse/Entropy 59) A quantity of water has more entropy when it is A) frozen ice. B) boiling. C) at room temperature. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Energy Tends to Disperse/Entropy 60) The most disorderly arrangement of energy within matter is also A) the least probable state of matter. B) the most probable state of matter. C) a matter of certainties, not probabilities. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Energy Tends to Disperse/Entropy 61) Processes can proceed from disorder to order A) when input energy is supplied. B) on an everyday occurrence. C) never. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Energy Tends to Disperse/Entropy

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 19 Vibrations and Waves 19.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) A wiggle in time is a A) vibration. B) wave. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Good Vibrations 2) A wiggle in both space and time is a A) vibration. B) wave. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Good Vibrations 3) Which of these is affected by mass? A) a freely-falling object B) an object sliding down a friction-free plane C) a pendulum D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Good Vibrations 4) The pendulum with the greatest frequency is one with the A) shortest length. B) longest length. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Good Vibrations

5) If a child swinging to and fro on a playground swing stands up, her time for a to-and-fro swing is A) longer. B) shorter. C) unchanged. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Good Vibrations 6) A pendulum clock at high altitudes runs A) fast. B) slow. C) normally as it does at sea level. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Good Vibrations 7) The stride of a horse would be quicker if more mass in its legs were concentrated A) in the upper part, nearer the horse's body. B) towards its feet. C) halfway up its legs. D) uniformly all along its legs. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Good Vibrations 8) When an elevator is accelerating upward, the frequency of a pendulum inside A) increases. B) decreases. C) doesn't change. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Good Vibrations 9) The source of all waves is A) something that vibrates. B) energy. C) a force of some kind. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Wave Description

10) Both a transverse wave and a longitudinal wave have A) amplitude. B) frequency. C) wavelength. D) speed. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Wave Description 11) The amplitude of a wave is 1 meter. The crest-to-trough distance of the wave is A) 0.5 m. B) 1 m. C) 2 m. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Description 12) A fishing-boat captain returns to port saying, "It's rough out there with waves that are 4 meters high." He is probably talking of waves of amplitude A) 1 m. B) 2 m. C) 3 m. D) 4 m. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Description 13) The frequency of a simple pendulum does NOT depend on A) its mass. B) its length. C) the acceleration due to gravity. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Wave Description 14) The frequency of a certain wave is 10 hertz and its period is A) 0.1 second. B) 10 seconds. C) 100 seconds. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Description 3 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) A 60-vibration-per-second wave travels 30 meters in 1 second. Its frequency is A) 30 hertz and it travels at 60 m/s. B) 60 hertz and it travels at 30 m/s. C) 1800 hertz and it travels at 2 m/s. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Description 16) If you double the frequency of a vibrating object, its period A) doubles. B) halves. C) is quartered. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Description 17) An object that completes 10 vibrations in 20 seconds has a frequency of A) 0.5 hertz. B) 2 hertz. C) 200 hertz. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Description 18) An object that completes 20 vibrations in 10 seconds has a frequency of A) 0.5 hertz. B) 1 hertz. C) 2 hertz. D) 200 hertz. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Description 19) An object that completes 100 vibrations in 5 seconds has a period of A) 0.5 second. B) 1 second. C) 2 seconds. D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Description

20) A weight suspended from a spring bobs up and down over a distance of 1 meter in two seconds. Its frequency is A) 0.5 hertz. B) 1 hertz. C) 2 hertz. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Description 21) The frequency of the second hand on a clock is A) 1 hertz. B) 1/60 hertz. C) 60 hertz. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Description 22) The period of the second hand on a clock is A) 1 second. B) 1/60 second. C) 60 seconds. D) 3600 seconds. E) 12 hours. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Description 23) Some of a wave's energy dissipates as heat. In time, this will reduce the wave's A) speed. B) wavelength. C) amplitude. D) frequency. E) period. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Description 24) Repeatedly dipping your fingers into water produces waves. Increasing the frequency of dipping produces waves that are A) shorter. B) longer. C) the same. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Description 5 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

25) A 101-MHz radio wave has vibrations per second of A) less than 101,000,000. B) 101,000,000. C) more than 101,000,000. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Description 26) Radio waves travel at the speed of light, 300,000 km/s. The wavelength of a radio wave received at 100 megahertz is A) 0.3 m. B) 3.0 m. C) 30 m. D) 300 m. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Wave Description 27) All waves have in common a A) pattern. B) vibrating source. C) variable regions of high and low pressure. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Wave Motion 28) The compressions and rarefactions in a longitudinal wave travel in A) the same direction. B) opposite directions. C) a vacuum. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Wave Motion 29) Which of these is a longitudinal wave? A) sound B) light C) radio D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Wave Motion

30) The vibrations of a transverse wave move A) along the direction of wave travel. B) at right angles to the direction of wave travel. C) that changes with speed. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Wave Motion 31) The vibrations of a longitudinal wave move A) along the direction of wave travel. B) at right angles to the direction of wave travel. C) that changes with speed. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Wave Motion 32) Which of these is a transverse wave? A) a Slinky shaken to and fro. B) a radio wave C) a sound wave D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Motion 33) Which equation is correct for wave speed? A) wave speed = frequency x wavelength B) wave speed = (1/period) x wavelength C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Speed 34) What is the wave speed of a wave traveling an average distance of 6 meters in one second? A) less than 0.2 m/s B) 1 m/s C) 3 m/s D) 6 m/s E) more than 6 m/s Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Wave Speed

35) A water wave passes by a floating leaf that is made to oscillate up and down two complete cycles each second, which means that the wave's frequency is A) 0.5 Hz. B) 1 Hz. C) 2 Hz. D) 3 Hz. E) 6 Hz. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Wave Speed 36) A floating leaf oscillates up and down two complete cycles in one second as a 10-meter long water wave passes by. What is the wave's speed? A) 2 m/s B) 10 m/s C) 20 m/s D) 40 m/s E) more than 40 m/s Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Speed 37) A wave travels an average distance of one meter in one second with a frequency of 1 hertz. Its amplitude is A) less than 1 meter. B) 1 meter. C) more than 1 meter. D) need more information Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Speed 38) The distance traveled by a wave during a single period is A) one-half wavelength. B) one wavelength. C) two wavelengths. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Speed

39) A wave oscillates up and down two complete cycles each second. If the wave travels an average distance of 6 meters in one second, its wavelength is A) 0.5 m. B) 1 m. C) 2 m. D) 3 m. E) 6 m. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Speed 40) Water waves pass by a piece of cork floating on the water that bobs up and down one complete cycle each second. The waves are 2 meters long. What is the speed of the wave? A) 0.25 m/s B) 0.50 m/s C) 1.0 m/s D) 2 m/s E) 4 m/s Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Speed 41) A skipper on a boat sees wave crests passing the anchor chain every 5 seconds and estimates the distance between crests is 15 m. What is the speed of the water waves? A) 3 m/s B) 5 m/s C) 15 m/s D) need more information Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Wave Speed 42) Interference is a property of A) sound waves. B) water waves. C) light waves. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Wave Interference

43) To say that one wave is out of phase with another is to say that the waves are A) of different amplitudes. B) of different frequencies. C) of different wavelengths. D) out of step. E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Wave Interference 44) Wave interference occurs for A) sound waves. B) light waves. C) water waves. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Wave Interference 45) A standing wave is likely produced when A) two waves overlap. B) a wave reflects upon itself. C) the speed of the wave is zero or near zero. D) the amplitude of a wave exceeds its wavelength. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Wave Interference 46) A node is a position of A) minimum amplitude. B) maximum amplitude. C) half amplitude. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Wave Interference 47) The number of nodes, including the end points, in a standing wave that is two wavelengths long is A) 1. B) 2. C) 3. D) 4. E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Interference 10 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

48) The number of nodes, including the end points, in a standing wave that is three wavelengths long is A) 4. B) 5. C) 6. D) 7. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Wave Interference 49) The Doppler effect is characteristic of A) water waves. B) sound waves. C) light waves. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Doppler Effect 50) In the Doppler effect it is important to distinguish between A) frequency and speed. B) speed and velocity. C) speed and acceleration. D) distance and displacement. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Doppler Effect 51) A Doppler effect occurs when a source of sound moves A) towards you. B) away from you. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Doppler Effect 52) A red shift for light indicates that the light source is moving A) toward you. B) away from you. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Doppler Effect 11 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

53) A blue shift for light indicates that the light source is moving A) toward you. B) away from you. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Doppler Effect 54) If you quickly run toward the orchestra at a concert, the frequency of the sound you hear will be A) decreased. B) increased. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Doppler Effect 55) If you quickly run away from the orchestra at a concert, the frequency of the sound you hear will be A) decreased. B) increased. C) neither of these. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Doppler Effect 56) A bow wave is produced when a speed boat moves A) nearly as fast as the waves it produces. B) as fast as the waves it produces. C) faster than the waves it produces. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Bow and Shock Waves 57) A shock wave is produced when a wave source moves A) nearly as fast as the waves it produces. B) as fast as the waves it produces. C) faster than the waves it produces. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Bow and Shock Waves

58) An aircraft that flies faster than the speed of sound is said to be A) subsonic. B) supersonic. C) impossible. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Bow and Shock Waves 59) A shock wave is A) the opposite of a bow wave. B) usually composed of a pair of closely spaced cones. C) weak for aircraft that fly at less than the speed of sound. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Bow and Shock Waves 60) A sonic boom is produced by an airplane flying at a speed A) just below the speed of sound. B) equal to the speed of sound. C) greater than the speed of sound. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Bow and Shock Waves 61) As a supersonic aircraft increases in speed, the angle of its V-shaped shock wave becomes A) wider. B) narrower. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Bow and Shock Waves 62) The source of a sonic boom A) must be a sound emitter. B) may or may not be a sound emitter. C) is not a sound emitter. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Bow and Shock Waves 13 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

63) The source of a sonic boom may be a A) whip. B) a high-speed bullet. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Bow and Shock Waves 64) A jet traveling at 1500 km/h passes overhead. The sonic boom produced is heard by A) a listener on the ground. B) the jet pilot. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Bow and Shock Waves 65) A less intense sonic boom at ground level can occur if the aircraft A) is smaller. B) flies higher. C) is more streamlined. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Bow and Shock Waves

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 20 Sound 20.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The source of every sound is something that is A) vibrating. B) moving. C) accelerating. D) undergoing simple harmonic motion. E) a net emitter of energy. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Nature of Sound 2) A sound wave is a A) longitudinal wave. B) transverse wave. C) all of the above D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Nature of Sound 3) A high-frequency sound source produces a high A) speed. B) amplitude. C) pitch. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Nature of Sound 4) The approximate range of human hearing is A) 10 hertz to 10,000 hertz. B) 20 hertz to 20,000 hertz. C) 40 hertz to 40,000 hertz. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Nature of Sound

5) A wave of frequency of 1000 hertz vibrates at A) less than 1000 cycles per second. B) 1000 cycles per second. C) more than 1000 cycles per second. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Nature of Sound 6) Human hearing is best in A) infrasonic sound. B) ultrasonic sound. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Nature of Sound 7) Sound travels fastest in A) air. B) water. C) steel. D) a vacuum. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Nature of Sound 8) Sound waves cannot travel in A) air. B) water. C) steel. D) a vacuum. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Nature of Sound 9) The speed of sound depends on A) its frequency. B) its amplitude. C) the medium in which it travels. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Nature of Sound

10) In air and in water the same sound travels with different A) frequencies. B) speeds. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Nature of Sound 11) In choosing between sound waves and radio waves, which has the greater speed? A) sound wave B) radio wave C) both the same D) need more information Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Nature of Sound 12) Compressions and rarefactions are characteristics of A) longitudinal waves. B) transverse waves. C) both of these D) need more information Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Nature of Sound 13) Compressions and rarefactions normally travel in A) the same direction in a wave. B) opposite directions in a wave. C) right angles to the wave direction. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Nature of Sound 14) Which does NOT belong to the same family? A) infrasonic waves B) ultrasonic waves C) radio waves D) shock waves E) longitudinal waves Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Nature of Sound

15) The kind of waves that travel fastest through a long metal rod have A) short wavelengths. B) waves of medium length. C) long wavelengths. D) all have the same speed Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Nature of Sound 16) A 340-hertz sound wave travels at 340 m/s in air with a wavelength of A) 1 m. B) 10 m. C) 100 m. D) 1000 m. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Nature of Sound 17) Sound travel fastest in A) water vapor. B) water. C) ice. D) steam. E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Nature of Sound 18) The speed of a sound wave in air depends on A) its frequency. B) its wavelength. C) air temperature. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Sound in Air 19) Sound travels faster in air if the air temperature is A) warm. B) cold. C) average. D) any of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Sound in Air 4 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) The energy of sound in air eventually becomes A) increased internal energy in the air. B) weaker and weaker until it disappears. C) cancelled by destructive interference. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Sound in Air 21) The frequencies of sound that carry farther in air are A) low. B) high. C) ultrasonic. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Sound in Air 22) The wavelengths of sound that carry farther in air are relatively A) long. B) short. C) ultrasonic. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Sound in Air 23) The speed of sound in air is greatest for A) high frequencies. B) low frequencies. C) same for all frequencies. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Sound in Air 24) One reason for the higher pitch of your voice after you've inhaled some helium is that sound travels A) slower in helium than in air. B) faster in helium than in air. C) the same speed in helium but with a longer wavelength. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Sound in Air

25) An explosion occurs 34 km away. The time it takes for its sound to reach your ears, traveling at 340 m/s, is A) 0.1 s. B) 1 s. C) 10 s. D) 20 s. E) more than 20 s. Answer: E Diff: 3 Topic: Sound in Air 26) Knowing that the atomic number of neon is greater than that of helium, at the same temperature and pressure, how does the speed of sound in helium gas compare to the speed of sound in neon gas? A) greater in neon than in helium B) greater in helium than in neon C) the same in both gases D) depends on the frequency of the sound generated Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Sound in Air 27) Assuming that xenon (atomic number 54) and krypton (atomic number 36) have the same temperature and pressure, in which gaseous medium does sound travel faster? A) Xenon B) Krypton C) a mixture of both D) the same in both Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Sound in Air 28) To estimate the distance in kilometers of a flash of lightning, count the number of seconds between seeing the flash and hearing the accompanying thunder, then divide by A) 2. B) 3. C) 4. D) 5. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Sound in Air

29) Reverberation of sound occurs for A) sound interference. B) forced vibrations. C) re-echoed sound. D) resonance. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Reflection/Refraction of Sound 30) An acoustical engineer in designing a music hall is concerned with A) echoes. B) reflection. C) reverberations. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Reflection/Refraction of Sound 31) The explanation for refraction must involve a change in A) frequency. B) wavelength. C) speed. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Reflection/Refraction of Sound 32) When sound travels faster near the ground than above, bending of sound tends to be A) upward. B) downward. C) to the left. D) to the right. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Reflection/Refraction of Sound

33) When sound travels faster higher above the ground than below, bending of sound tends to be A) upward. B) downward. C) to the left. D) to the right. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Reflection/Refraction of Sound 34) Reflection of sound can occur in A) air. B) water. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Reflection/Refraction of Sound 35) Refraction of sound can occur in A) air. B) water. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Reflection/Refraction of Sound 36) Sound refraction can occur when the speed of sound A) remains constant. B) changes. C) ranges below supersonic. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Reflection/Refraction of Sound 37) A dolphin perceives its environment by the sense of A) sight. B) sound. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Reflection/Refraction of Sound

38) In perceiving its environment, a dolphin makes use of A) echoes. B) the Doppler effect. C) ultrasound. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Reflection/Refraction of Sound 39) A base fiddle is louder than a harp because of its A) thicker strings. B) sounding board. C) lower pitch. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Forced Vibrations 40) The natural frequency of an object depends on its A) size. B) shape. C) elasticity. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Forced Vibrations 41) The bell with the highest natural frequency is relatively A) small. B) large. C) either of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Forced Vibrations 42) The least energy required to produce forced vibration in an object occurs A) below its natural frequency. B) at its natural frequency. C) above its natural frequency. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Forced Vibrations 9 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

43) Sound will be louder if a struck tuning fork is held A) in the air. B) with its base against a tabletop. C) with its prongs in shallow water. D) in your closed fist. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Forced Vibrations 44) When the handle of a tuning fork is held solidly against a table, the sound becomes louder and the time that the fork keeps vibrating A) becomes longer. B) becomes shorter. C) remains the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Forced Vibrations 45) How long a tuning fork vibrates when its handle is held against a table is most related to A) its frequency. B) resonance. C) the conservation of energy. D) the length of its prongs. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Forced Vibrations 46) Reports are that singer Caruso was able to shatter a crystal chandelier with his voice, which illustrates A) an echo. B) sound refraction. C) beats. D) resonance. E) interference. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Resonance

47) When tuning a radio to a particular station, you match the frequency of the internal electrical circuit with the frequency of the wanted radio station. What principle is being employed? A) forced vibrations B) resonance C) beats D) reverberation E) wave interference Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Resonance 48) The F in FM radio stands for A) frequency. B) forced vibration at which resonance occurs. C) foul. D) female. E) fax. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Resonance 49) The A in AM radio stands for A) acceleration. B) authorized. C) amplitude. D) agony. E) almost. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Resonance 50) The type of radio wave that produces the least static in a radio receiver is A) AM. B) FM. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Resonance 51) For radio transmission, which has the higher frequency? A) carrier wave B) sound wave C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Resonance 11 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

52) Resonance occurs with forced vibration that requires the A) least amount of energy input. B) maximum amount of energy input. C) matching of wave amplitudes. D) matching of constructive and destructive interference. E) minimum beat frequency. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Resonance 53) A tuning fork of frequency 200 hertz can resonate if an incident sound wave has a frequency of A) 100 hertz. B) 200 hertz. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Resonance 54) Repeatedly tap the side of a drinking glass with a spoon as you fill the glass with water and the pitch of the sound A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains relatively constant. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Resonance 55) Interference is a property of A) water waves. B) sound waves. C) light waves. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Interference 56) Wave interference occurs in A) transverse waves. B) longitudinal waves. C) both of the above D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Interference 12 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

57) When sound waves superimpose they can interfere A) constructively. B) destructively. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Interference 58) Sound waves can interfere with one another so that no sound results. A) True B) False C) Either, depending on the air temperature. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Interference 59) Sound interference with a pair of radio loudspeakers can be nicely demonstrated when the A) radio signal is monaural for each. B) input and output of the speakers are reversed. C) speakers are brought face to face. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Interference 60) The phenomenon of beats is a result of sound A) refraction. B) reflection. C) interference. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Beats

61) The beat frequency produced when a 240-hertz tuning fork and a 246-hertz tuning fork are sounded together is A) 6 hertz. B) 12 hertz. C) 240 hertz. D) 245 hertz. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Beats 62) A 1056-hertz tuning fork is sounded at the same time a piano note is struck. You hear three beats per second. What is the frequency of the piano string? A) 1056 hertz B) 1059 hertz C) 1053 hertz D) 3168 hertz E) need more information Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Beats 63) A 1056-hertz tuning fork is struck at the same time as a note on the piano and you hear 2 beats/second. You tighten the piano string very slightly and then hear 3 beats/second. What is the frequency of the piano string? A) 1053 hertz B) 1054 hertz C) 1056 hertz D) 1058 hertz E) 1059 hertz Answer: E Diff: 3 Topic: Beats 64) A piano tuner knows that a key on the piano is tuned to the frequency of a test tuning fork when the fork and key struck at same time produce beats of A) 0 Hz. B) 1 Hz. C) 2 Hz. D) 3 Hz. E) 4 Hz. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Beats

65) Two tuning forks produce sounds of wavelengths 3.4 meters and 3.3 meters. Approximately what beat frequency is produced? A) 0.1 hertz B) 1.0 hertz C) 2.0 hertz D) 3.0 hertz E) 4.0 hertz Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Beats

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 21 Musical Sounds 21.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Which of these sounds characterize "white noise"? A) surf B) rustling leaves C) bubbling water D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Noise and Music 2) Compared to noise, musical sounds have A) periodic tones. B) musical notes. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Noise and Music 3) Musical tones are characterized by A) pitch. B) loudness. C) quality. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Noise and Music 4) The pitch of a musical sound is most related to A) wavelength. B) frequency. C) speed. D) amplitude. E) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Pitch

5) High-pitched sound has a high A) speed. B) rate of vibration. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Pitch 6) As we become older, the frequency range of human hearing A) decreases. B) increases. C) remains relatively constant. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Pitch 7) As we grow older, the greatest hearing difficulty is with frequencies that are A) low. B) mid-range. C) high. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Pitch 8) Each note on a piano keyboard has its own A) pitch. B) loudness. C) wavelength. D) amplitude. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Pitch 9) We don't hear the squeaks of bats because their sound is A) of ultra-high frequencies. B) of ultra-high loudness. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Pitch

10) Double the frequency of a musical note and you halve its A) wavelength. B) speed. C) amplitude. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Pitch 11) Double the frequency of musical note and you double its A) wavelength. B) speed. C) amplitude. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Pitch 12) Which of these relate most to the loudness of sound? A) wavelength. B) frequency. C) speed. D) amplitude. E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Sound Intensity and Loudness 13) The loudness of a sound is most closely related to its A) speed. B) frequency. C) wavelength. D) intensity. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Sound Intensity and Loudness

14) What is the threshold of hearing? A) 0.1 decibel B) 0.01 decibel C) 1 decibel D) 10 decibel E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Sound Intensity and Loudness 15) A decibel is a measure of a sound's A) frequency. B) wavelength. C) speed. D) loudness. E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Sound Intensity and Loudness 16) Whereas loudness is a physiological sensation, sound intensity is A) the same. B) measurable with acoustical instruments. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Sound Intensity and Loudness 17) Compared to a sound of 40 decibels, the intensity of a sound of 50 decibels is A) 10 times as much. B) 100 times as much. C) 1000 times as much. D) 10,000 times as much. E) more than 10,000 times as much. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Sound Intensity and Loudness

18) Compared to a sound of 30 decibels, the intensity of a sound of 60 decibels is A) twice as intense. B) 10 times as much. C) 100 times as much. D) 1000 times as much. E) 10,000 times as much. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Sound Intensity and Loudness 19) The quality of a musical note has to do with its A) loudness. B) frequency. C) harmonics. D) amplitude. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Quality 20) Reverberation is a phenomenon you would be most likely to hear if you sing in A) the shower. B) a small drape-covered room. C) a large drape-covered room. D) the desert. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Quality 21) The strings in musical instruments that have greater mass tend to produce notes of A) higher frequency. B) lower frequency. C) the same frequency. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Quality 22) The fundamental frequency of a violin string is 440 hertz. The frequency of its second harmonic is A) 220 hertz. B) 440 hertz. C) 880 hertz. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Quality 5 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

23) The frequency of a note one octave higher in pitch than a 440-Hz note is A) 1760 Hz. B) 880 Hz. C) 440 Hz. D) 220 Hz. E) 110 Hz. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Quality 24) The number of nodes in a standing wave of one wavelength, not including the endpoints, is A) 0. B) 1. C) 2. D) 3. E) 4. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Quality 25) The number of nodes in a standing wave of two wavelengths, not including the endpoints, is A) 2. B) 3. C) 4. D) 5. E) 6. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Quality 26) The number of nodes in a standing wave of three wavelengths, not including the endpoints, is A) 2. B) 3. C) 4. D) 5. E) 6. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Quality

27) How many octaves exist between 100 hertz and 1600 hertz? A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8 Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Quality 28) How many octaves exist between 40 hertz and 1280 hertz? A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8 E) 9 Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Quality 29) How many octaves exist between 20 hertz and 2560 hertz? A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8 E) 9 Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Quality 30) Sounds from musical instruments are produced by A) vibrating strings. B) vibrating air columns. C) percussion. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Musical Instruments

31) The pitch of a guitar relates to the string's A) length. B) tension. C) mass. D) all the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Musical Instruments 32) The wind instrument with no keys or valves is a A) trumpet. B) saxophone. C) clarinet. D) bugle. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Musical Instruments 33) Which of these strongly relate to a piano string? A) mass B) length C) pitch D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Musical Instruments 34) Which of these strongly relate to a saxophone and clarinet? A) vibrating air B) length of tube. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Musical Instruments 35) Vibrating air columns relate to which instrument? A) guitar B) harp C) trumpet D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Musical Instruments 8 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

36) Vibrating membranes relate to which instrument? A) violin B) drum C) oboe D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Musical Instruments 37) Fourier discovered that periodic waves can be represented by A) a series of non-periodic waves. B) the summation of a series of simple sine waves. C) a binary code. D) pulses of the same amplitude. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Fourier Analysis 38) Fourier analysis makes central use of A) wave superposition. B) partial tones. C) harmonics. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Fourier Analysis 39) The frequencies needed to reproduce high-quality sounds are A) within the range of hearing. B) beyond the range of hearing. C) centered about 2000 hertz. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Fourier Analysis 40) Fourier analysis is something accomplished A) with all musical instruments. B) automatically by humans. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Fourier Analysis

41) Analog sound signals are produced by A) phonograph records. B) CDs. C) DVDs. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: From Analog to Digital 42) Which makes central use of the binary system? A) phonograph records B) DVDs C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: From Analog to Digital 43) The laser light that can carry more information is A) red. B) blue. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: From Analog to Digital

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 22 Electrostatics 22.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Just as "gravity" is the study of a wide range of gravitational interactions, "electricity" is the study of a wide range of A) electrical charges. B) electrical forces. C) electrical interactions. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electricity 2) Electrostatics is a branch of electricity that focuses on A) electrical charge. B) electrical force. C) both of these when static. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electricity 3) The force that binds atoms together to form molecules is A) gravitational. B) nuclear. C) electrical. D) centripetal. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electricity 4) The fundamental force underlying all chemical reactions is A) gravitational. B) nuclear. C) centripetal. D) electrical. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Electricity

5) A fundamental rule of electricity is that A) like kinds of charges repel. B) unlike kinds of charges attract. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electricity 6) An electron and a proton A) attract each other. B) repel each other. C) neither attract nor repel each other. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Electricity 7) The vast numbers of electrons in a coin don't fly off the surface because A) mutual repulsion is incomplete. B) they are attracted by an equal number of protons. C) they are strongly bonded to their atoms. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Electricity 8) The pair of protons in the nucleus of a helium atom A) attract a pair of orbiting electrons. B) repel orbiting electrons. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Charges 9) In an electrically neutral atom the number of protons in the nucleus is equal to the number of A) electrons that surround the nucleus. B) neutrons in the nucleus. C) both electrons and neutrons. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Electrical Charges

10) Which of these does NOT have an electrical charge? A) proton B) electron C) neutron D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Charges 11) Which of these has the greatest mass? A) proton B) electron C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Charges 12) To say that electric charge is conserved means that no case has ever been found where A) the total charge on an object has changed. B) quantity of negative charge on an object exactly balances positive charge. C) the total quantity of charge on an object has increased. D) net charge has been created or destroyed. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Conservation of Charge 13) An electrically charged atom is an A) ion. B) isotope. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Conservation of Charge 14) To become a negative ion, an atom must A) lose an electron. B) gain an electron. C) lose a proton. D) gain a proton. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Conservation of Charge 3 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) To become a positive ion, an atom must A) lose an electron. B) gain an electron. C) lose a proton. D) gain a proton. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Conservation of Charge 16) A positive ion has more A) electrons than neutrons. B) electrons than protons. C) protons than electrons. D) protons than neutrons. E) neutrons than protons. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Conservation of Charge 17) If electrons are stripped from an atom it becomes a A) positive ion. B) negative ion. C) different element. D) molecule. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Conservation of Charge 18) It is said that electric charge is quantized, which means that the charge on an object A) may occur in an infinite variety of quantities. B) is a whole-number multiple of the charge of one electron. C) will interact with neighboring electric charges. D) can be neither created nor destroyed. E) is sometimes positive. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Conservation of Charge 19) It is said that electric charge is conserved, which means that electric charge A) may occur in an infinite variety of quantities. B) is a whole number multiple of the charge of one electron. C) will interact with neighboring electric charges. D) can be neither created nor destroyed. E) is sometimes negative. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Conservation of Charge 4 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) The unit of electric charge, the coulomb, is the charge on a A) single electron. B) specific large number of electrons. C) neutron. D) specific number of neutrons. E) quark. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Coulomb's Law 21) Two protons attract each other gravitationally and repel each other electrically. The stronger of these two forces is A) gravitation. B) electrical. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Coulomb's Law 22) A main difference between gravitational and electric forces is that electrical forces A) attract. B) repel or attract. C) obey the inverse-square law. D) act over shorter distances. E) are weaker. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Coulomb's Law 23) The electrical force between charges is strongest when the charges are A) close together. B) far apart. C) either of these D) need more information Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Coulomb's Law 24) The electrical force between electric charges depends only on their A) magnitude. B) separation distance. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Coulomb's Law 5 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

25) When the distance between two charges is halved, the electrical force between them A) is reduced by 1/4. B) halves. C) doubles. D) quadruples. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Coulomb's Law 26) Particle A has twice the charge of nearby particle B. Compared to the force on Particle A, the force on Particle B is A) half as much. B) the same. C) twice as much. D) four times as much. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Coulomb's Law 27) Two charges that are separated by one meter exert 1-N forces on each other. If the charges are pushed together so the separation is 25 centimeters, the force on each charge will be A) 1 N. B) 2 N. C) 4 N. D) 8 N. E) 16 N. Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Coulomb's Law 28) Two charges separated by one meter exert 1-N forces on each other. If the charges are pulled 3 meters apart, the force on each charge will be A) 0.11 N. B) 0.33 N. C) 0 N. D) 3 N. E) 9 N. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Coulomb's Law

29) Two charges that are separated by one meter exert 1-N forces on each other. If the magnitude of each charge is doubled, the force on each charge is A) 1 N. B) 2 N. C) 4 N. D) 8 N. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Coulomb's Law 30) Two charged particles repel each other with a force F. If the charge of one of the particles is doubled and the distance between them is also doubled, then the force will be A) F. B) 2 F. C) F/2. D) F/4. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Coulomb's Law 31) Two charged particles repel each other with a force F. If the charge of one of the particles is doubled and the distance between them is halved, then the force will be A) F. B) 2 F. C) F/2. D) F/4. E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Coulomb's Law 32) Two charged particles repel each other with a force F. If the charge of both particles is tripled and the distance between them is also tripled, then the force will be A) F. B) 2 F. C) F/2. D) F/4. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Coulomb's Law

33) Two charged particles attract each other with a force F. If the charges of both particles are doubled, and the distance between them also doubled, then the force of attraction will be A) F. B) 2 F. C) F/2. D) F/4. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Coulomb's Law 34) Conducting materials are composed of atoms with A) strong cohesive forces between them. B) loose outer electrons. C) excess neutrons compared with protons. D) vastly more charge than insulators. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Conductors and Insulators 35) Insulating materials are composed of atoms with A) weak cohesive forces. B) tightly bound outer electrons. C) excess protons. D) vastly more charge than conductors. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Conductors and Insulators 36) Charge carriers in a metal are electrons rather than protons because electrons are A) negative. B) smaller. C) loosely bound. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Conductors and Insulators 37) A conductor differs from an insulator in that a conductor has more A) electrons than protons. B) protons than electrons. C) energy than an insulator. D) faster moving molecules. E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Conductors and Insulators 8 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

38) A transistor is an example of a A) resistor. B) superconductor. C) semiconductor. D) dry cell. E) transmitter. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Conductors and Insulators 39) A semiconductor can be A) a conductor. B) an insulator. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Conductors and Insulators 40) Superconductors are noted for their A) high electric resistance. B) low electric resistance. C) absence of electric resistance. D) low cost. E) bright colors. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Conductors and Insulators 41) Superconductors most often require A) low operating temperatures. B) high operating temperatures. C) magnets. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Conductors and Insulators 42) Electrons can be transferred from one place to another by the process of A) friction. B) contact, which means touching. C) induction, which means non-touching. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Charging 9 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

43) Rub electrons from your hair with a comb and the comb becomes A) negatively charged. B) positively charged. C) discharged. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Charging 44) If you comb your hair and the comb becomes positively charged, then your hair becomes A) positively charged. B) negatively charged. C) uncharged. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Charging 45) The primary purpose of a lightning rod is to A) attract lightning and guide it to the ground. B) discharge the structure to which it is attached. C) cancel the electric field within the structure to which it is attached. D) induce a charge opposite to that of charged clouds overhead. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Charging 46) A negatively-charged rod is held near an aluminum can that rests on a dry wood table. If you momentarily touch the opposite side of the can with your finger, the can becomes A) positively charged. B) negatively charged. C) partially discharged. D) completely discharged. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Charging 47) A positively-charged rod is held near an aluminum can that rests on a dry wood table. If you momentarily touch the opposite side of the can with your finger, the can becomes A) positively charged. B) negatively charged. C) partially discharged. D) completely discharged. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Charging 10 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

48) An electroscope is charged positively as indicated by foil leaves that stand apart. As a negative charge is brought close to the electroscope, the leaves become A) closer together. B) farther apart. C) motionless. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Charging 49) A positive charge and a negative charge held a certain distance apart are released. As they move, the force on each particle A) increases. B) decreases. C) stays the same. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Charging 50) Two charged particles held a certain distance apart are released. As they move, the acceleration of each decreases. Therefore, their charges have A) the same sign. B) opposite signs. C) need more information Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Charging 51) Two charged particles held a certain distance apart are released. As they move, the force on each particle increases. Therefore, their charges have A) the same sign. B) opposite signs. C) the same mass. D) the same size. E) need more information Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Charging

52) Two charged particles held close to each other are released. As they move, their speeds increase. Therefore, their charges have A) the same sign. B) opposite signs. C) either of these D) need more information Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Charging 53) To say that an object becomes electrically polarized means that A) it is electrically charged. B) its charges have been rearranged. C) its internal electric field is zero. D) it is only partially conducting. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Charge Polarization 54) If you rub an inflated balloon against your hair and place the balloon against the wall it will stick to the wall, illustrating A) Coulomb's law. B) conduction and insulation. C) charge polarization. D) voltage. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Charge Polarization 55) A common naturally-polarized bit of matter is A) an electron. B) a hydrogen atom C) a water molecule. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Charge Polarization

56) A balloon will stick to a wooden wall if the balloon is charged A) negatively. B) positively. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Charge Polarization 57) Before a thunder storm, clouds in the sky likely become A) conducting. B) polarized. C) grounded. D) a field-free region. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Charge Polarization 58) An uncharged pith ball is suspended by a nylon fiber. When a negatively-charged rubber rod is brought near the pith ball, without touching, the ball A) becomes charged by induction. B) becomes polarized. C) is repelled by the rod. D) is unaffected. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Charge Polarization 59) An uncharged pith ball is suspended by a nylon fiber. When a positively-charged rubber rod is brought nearby, the pith ball A) moves toward the rod. B) is unaffected. C) moves away from the rod. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Charge Polarization 60) When a car is struck by lightning, the resulting electric field inside the car is A) normally huge, but for a brief time. B) small enough to be safe for a passenger inside. C) zero. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Field 13 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

61) The electrical force on a 2-C charge is 60 N. The electric field where the charge is located is A) 20 N/C. B) 30 N/C. C) 60 N/C. D) 120 N/C. E) 240 N/C. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Field 62) Much of the charge on a conducting cube is A) uniformly spread over its surface. B) partly beneath the surface. C) mutually repelled toward its corners. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Field 63) Electric charge distributes itself on conducting surfaces A) with greater concentration on more curved parts. B) such that the electric field inside is zero. C) both of the above D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Field 64) Electric shielding within a conductor is a consequence of A) the balancing of opposing forces. B) both the attraction and repelling nature of electricity. C) cancellation of electric field lines. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Field 65) A reason for electric shielding inside a conductor is that any free electrons inside would A) not obey the inverse-square law. B) cancel one another. C) be set in motion until equilibrium is established, on the outside. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Field 14 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

66) Every isolated proton in the universe is surrounded by its own A) electric field. B) gravitational field. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Field 67) The direction of an electric field is the direction of the force exerted on A) a neutral test charge. B) an electron. C) an atom. D) a proton. E) a molecule. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Field 68) The electric field between oppositely-charged parallel plates is A) uniform. B) stronger at the ends. C) composed of field lines in opposite directions. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Field 69) Between a pair of equal and opposite charges, field lines are A) directed from positive to negative. B) more concentrated closer to the charges. C) vectors, with patterns that stem from the inverse-square law. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Field

70) The electric field around an isolated electron has a certain strength 1 cm from the electron. The electric field strength 2 cm from the electron is A) half as much. B) the same. C) twice as much. D) four times as much. E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Field 71) During a lightning strike you don't want to be inside a building framed with A) steel. B) iron. C) aluminum. D) wood. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Field 72) The electric field inside an uncharged metal ball is zero. If the ball is negatively charged, the electric field inside the ball is then A) less than zero. B) zero. C) greater than zero. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Field 73) A proton and an electron are placed in an electric field. Which undergoes the greater acceleration? A) electron B) proton C) both accelerate equally. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Field

74) The operation of a microwave oven makes use of A) the polar nature of water molecules. B) flip flopping of polarized molecules. C) an oscillating electric field. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Field 75) Imagine a single charge q placed at one corner of a square, and that the electric field at the center of the square is F/q. If two other equal charges are placed at the adjacent corners of the square (leaving the opposite corner "blank"), the electric field at the center of the square is A) F/q. B) 4F/q. C) F/(2q). D) F/(4q). E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Electric Field 76) Imagine a single charge q placed on one corner of a square, and that the electric field at the center of the square is F/q. If additional equal charges are placed on the other three corners, the electric field at the center of the square due to these four equal charges is A) F/q. B) 4F/q. C) F/(2q). D) F/(4q). E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 3 Topic: Electric Field 77) Electric potential, measured in volts, is the ratio of electric energy to the amount of electric A) current. B) resistance. C) charge. D) voltage. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Potential

78) The net charge on a charged capacitor depends on A) the area of the capacitor plates. B) the distance between the capacitor plates. C) the medium between the capacitor plates. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Potential 79) If 10 J of work is used in pushing 1 C of charge into an electric field, its electric potential relative to its starting position is A) less than 10 V. B) 10 V. C) more then 10 V. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Potential 80) An electron is pushed into an electric field where it acquires a 1-V electrical potential. If two electrons are pushed the same distance into the same electric field, the electrical potential of the two electrons is A) 0.25 V. B) 0.5 V. C) 1 V. D) 2 V. E) 4 V. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Potential 81) Assume that 10 J of work pushes a charge initially at rest into an electric field. If the charge is then released, it flies back to its starting position with a kinetic energy of A) zero. B) 5 J. C) 10 J. D) more than 10 J. E) need more information. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Potential

82) Normally a small party balloon charged to several thousand volts will have a relatively small amount of A) charge. B) energy. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Potential 83) Although the energy per coulomb of a high-voltage party balloon is high, the energy transfer that occurs if you touch it is low due to A) the relatively small amount of charge. B) rubber being a poor conductor. C) the small electric potential. D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Potential 84) The electric field inside the dome of a Van de Graaff generator depends on the A) amount of external charge. B) volume of the dome. C) amount of charge and volume of the dome. D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Potential 85) Lillian safely touches a 100,000-volt Van de Graaff generator. Although the voltage is high, the relatively small amount of charge means a relatively small amount of A) energy transfer. B) electric field. C) polarization. D) conduction. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Potential

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 23 Electric Current 23.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Just as water flows from a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure, electric charge flows from a region of A) high electric pressure to a region of low electric pressure. B) high potential energy to a region of low potential energy. C) deep to shallow regions. D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Flow of Charge and Electric Current 2) Just as in hydraulic circuits there is water pressure, in electric circuits there is A) current. B) voltage. C) resistance. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Flow of Charge and Electric Current 3) Just as a sustained flow of water in a hydraulic circuit needs a pump, in electric circuits the flow of charge needs A) current. B) voltage. C) resistance. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Flow of Charge and Electric Current 4) To think of electric potential difference we are thinking about A) current. B) voltage. C) resistance. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Flow of Charge and Electric Current 5) An ampere is a unit of electric A) current. B) voltage. C) resistance. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Flow of Charge and Electric Current 1 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) Voltage is most similar to A) pressure. B) current. C) resistance. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Voltage Sources 7) Electrons flow in a wire when there is A) an imbalance of charges in the wire. B) a potential difference across its ends. C) a difference in potential energy across its ends. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Voltage Sources 8) A suitable electric pump in an electric circuit is a A) chemical battery. B) generator. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Voltage Sources 9) Which statement is correct? A) charge flows in a circuit B) voltage flows in a circuit C) resistance flows in a circuit D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Voltage Sources 10) It is correct to say that in electric circuits A) charge flows through a circuit. B) flowing charge is current. C) voltage is applied across a circuit. D) voltage is the ratio of energy per charge. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Voltage Sources 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) A coulomb of charge flowing in a bulb filament powered by a 6-volt battery is provided with A) 6 ohms. B) 6 amperes. C) 6 joules. D) 6 watts. E) 6 newtons. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Voltage Sources 12) The unit of electrical resistance is the A) volt. B) ampere. C) ohm. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electrical Resistance 13) The current produced by voltage in a circuit is impeded by A) electric barriers. B) closed switches. C) electric resistance. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electrical Resistance 14) If two copper wires of the same length have different thickness, then the thicker wire has A) more resistance. B) less resistance. C) both the same Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Electrical Resistance 15) Heat a copper wire and its electric resistance A) decreases. B) remains unchanged. C) increases. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electrical Resistance

16) If you stretch a copper wire so that it is thinner, the resistance between its ends A) decreases. B) remains unchanged. C) increases. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electrical Resistance 17) Two light bulbs are connected to a battery, one at a time. The bulb that draws more current has the A) lower resistance, and is brightest. B) lower resistance, but is dimmer. C) higher resistance, and is brightest. D) higher resistance, but is dimmer. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Electrical Resistance 18) When you turn on a lamp, the initial current in its filament is greater at first, rather than a moment later, which indicates A) something is faulty. B) a time delay for current attaining its average speed. C) increased temperature means increased resistance. D) nothing of interest Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electrical Resistance 19) Ohm's law tells us that the amount of current produced in a circuit is A) directly proportional to voltage. B) inversely proportional to resistance. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Ohm's Law 20) Electric resistance in our skin is lowered when our skin is A) moist. B) dry. C) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Ohm's Law

21) Current in a conductor can be increased by A) increasing the voltage across it. B) reducing its resistance. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Ohm's Law 22) The voltage across a 10-ohm resistor carrying 5 A is A) 5 V. B) 10 V. C) 15 V. D) 20 V. E) more than 20 V. Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Ohm's Law 23) The resistance of a filament that carries 2 A when a 10-V potential difference across it is A) 2 ohms. B) 5 ohms. C) 10 ohms. D) 20 ohms. E) more than 20 ohms. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Ohm's Law 24) Two lamps with different filament thicknesses, and therefore different resistances, are connected in series. Greater current is in the lamp with the A) thick filament. B) thin filament. C) same in each Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Ohm's Law 25) If an electric toaster rated at 110 V is accidently plugged into a 220-V outlet, the current drawn by the toaster will be A) half its normal value. B) the same as its normal value. C) twice its normal value. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Ohm's Law 5 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

26) The current in two identical light bulbs connected in series is 0.25 A. The voltage across both bulbs is 110 V. The resistance of a single light bulb is A) 22 ohms. B) 44 ohms. C) 220 ohms. D) 440 ohms. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Ohm's Law 27) Direct current is normally produced by a A) battery. B) generator. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Direct Current and Alternating Current 28) Alternating current is normally produced by a A) battery. B) generator. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Direct Current and Alternating Current 29) Current that is typically 60 hertz is A) direct current. B) alternating current. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Direct Current and Alternating Current

30) A capacitor is useful in A) boosting the energy output of a circuit. B) increasing the current in a resistor. C) smoothing pulsed current. D) changing dc to ac in a circuit. E) increasing or decreasing voltage. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Direct Current and Alternating Current 31) An electric diode is useful for A) storing electrical energy. B) boosting voltage. C) limiting current. D) voltage modification. E) changing ac to dc. Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Direct Current and Alternating Current 32) For electric current in the home, your power company supplies A) energy. B) electrons. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Speed and Source of Electrons in a Circuit 33) The source of electrons in a simple electric circuit is A) the voltage source. B) energy stored in the voltage source. C) energy released by the voltage source. D) the electrical circuit itself. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Speed and Source of Electrons in a Circuit

34) The source of electrons that illuminate a common lamp in your home is A) the power company. B) the electrical outlet. C) atoms in the lamp filament. D) the wires leading to the lamp. E) the source voltage. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Speed and Source of Electrons in a Circuit 35) The source of energy that illuminates a lamp in your home is A) the power company. B) the electrical outlet. C) atoms in the bulb filament. D) the wire leads to the lamp. E) the source voltage. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Speed and Source of Electrons in a Circuit 36) Electrons that are energized to glow in the filament of a common ac lamp are A) supplied by a wall outlet. B) supplied by a wall outlet, which in turn are supplied by your power company. C) electrons already in the filament. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Speed and Source of Electrons in a Circuit 37) The number of electrons delivered daily to an average American home by an average power utility in the early 21 st century was A) zero. B) 110. C) 220. D) billions of billions. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Speed and Source of Electrons in a Circuit

38) When Eddie Electron experiences an electrical shock, the source of electrons composing the shock is A) the ground beneath Eddie's feet. B) Eddie's body. C) the power plant. D) whatever electric device being handled. E) electric field in the air. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Speed and Source of Electrons in a Circuit 39) The cause of electrical shock is predominantly A) excess current. B) excess voltage. C) reduced resistance. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Speed and Source of Electrons in a Circuit 40) Electrons flow in an electrical circuit by A) being bumped by other electrons. B) colliding with molecules. C) interacting with an established electric field. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Speed and Source of Electrons in a Circuit 41) Although electrons in metal move in haphazard directions at many times the speed of sound, the drift speed of electrons that compose electric current is A) a fraction of a centimeter per second. B) many centimeters per second. C) the speed of a sound wave. D) the speed of light. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Speed and Source of Electrons in a Circuit

42) The drift speed of electrons that compose current in a flashlight is about A) the speed of sound waves in metal. B) the speed of light. C) 1000 cm/s. D) less than 1 cm/s. E) any of the above under different conditions. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Speed and Source of Electrons in a Circuit 43) The electric field established by a battery in a dc circuit A) increases via the inverse-square law. B) changes magnitude and direction with time. C) acts in one direction. D) is non-existent. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Speed and Source of Electrons in a Circuit 44) The electric field established by a generator in an ac circuit A) increases via the inverse-square law. B) changes magnitude and direction with time. C) acts in one direction. D) is non-existent. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Speed and Source of Electrons in a Circuit 45) Power is defined as the energy expended per unit of time. When translated to electrical terms, power is equal to A) current multiplied by resistance. B) current multiplied by voltage. C) current divided by time. D) voltage divided by time. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Electric Power

46) In units of measurement, power in watts is equal to A) amperes x ohms. B) amperes x volts. C) amperes/second. D) volts/second. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Power 47) One joule per coulomb is a unit of A) energy. B) power. C) voltage. D) current. E) resistance. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Power 48) One kilowatt is a unit of A) energy. B) power. C) voltage. D) current. E) resistance. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Power 49) One kilowatt-hour is a unit of A) energy. B) power. C) voltage. D) current. E) resistance. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Power

50) The electric power supplied to a lamp that carries 2 A at 120 V is A) 1/6 watts. B) 2 watts. C) 60 watts. D) 20 watts. E) 240 watts. Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Power 51) A 100-W lamp glows brighter than a 25-W lamp. The electrical resistance of the 100-W lamp is A) less. B) greater. C) the same. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Power 52) A 100-W lamp glows brighter than a 25-W lamp. The current drawn by the 100-W lamp is A) less. B) greater. C) the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Power 53) When a 12-V battery powers a single 6-ohm lamp, A) 2 joules flow in the lamp each second. B) 6 joules flow in the lamp each second. C) 12 joules flow in the lamp each second. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Power 54) The energy dissipated in a light bulb in a circuit is provided by the A) lamp filament itself. B) wires leading to the lamp. C) voltage source. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Power

55) When we say an appliance "uses up electricity," we mean A) current disappears. B) electric charges are dissipated. C) voltage is lowered. D) electric energy dissipates into heat. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Power 56) A 60-W light bulb connected to a 120-V source draws a current of A) 0.25 A. B) 0.5 A. C) 2.0 A. D) 4.0 A. E) more than 4 A. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Power 57) The power consumed by a device drawing 0.8 A when connected to 120 V is A) 12 W. B) 15 W. C) 60 W. D) 96 W. E) 120 W. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Power 58) A power line with a resistance of 2 ohms carries a current of 80 A. The power dissipated in the line is A) 40 W. B) 160 W. C) 320 W. D) 12,800 W. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Electric Power

59) A lamp rated at 120W 120V has a filament resistance of A) 1 ohm. B) 60 ohms. C) 100 ohms. D) 144 ohms. E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 3 Topic: Electric Power 60) The power dissipated in a 4-ohm resistor carrying 3 A is A) 7 W. B) 18 W. C) 36 W. D) 48 W. E) need more information Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Electric Power 61) A 60-W and a 100-W light bulb are rated at 120V. Which bulb has a higher resistance? A) 60-W bulb B) 100-W bulb C) both the same. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Power 62) A 60-W and a 100-W light bulb are connected in series to a 120-V outlet. Which bulb draws more current? A) 60-W bulb B) 100-W bulb C) both the same. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Power 63) A 60-W and a 100-W light bulb are connected in parallel to a 120-V outlet. Which bulb draws more current? A) 60-W bulb B) 100-W bulb C) both the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Power

64) The current drawn by a 1200-W toaster connected to 120 V is 10 A. The resistance of the toaster coils is A) 6 ohms. B) 12 ohms. C) 18 ohms. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Power 65) An electric heater is rated 300W 110V. The safety fuse in the circuit can withstand 15 A of current. How many heaters can be safely operated in the circuit? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) more than 5 Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Electric Power 66) A heater draws 20A when connected to a 110-V line. If the electric power costs 20 cents per kilowatt hour, the cost of running the heater for 10 hours is A) $0.44. B) $1.10. C) $4.40. D) $11.00. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Electric Power 67) The brightness of a lamp is directly related to its A) brand. B) place of manufacture. C) power rating. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Lamps

68) A lamp rated 23W 120V means that it will deliver 23 W A) when the voltage across it is 120 V. B) whether or not it is connected to 120 V. C) as long as the current is ac. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Lamps 69) The amount of current in a CFL rated 23W 120V is about A) 0.2A. B) 5.2A. C) more than 5.2A. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Lamps 70) The amount of current in an incandescent bulb rated 75W 120V is about A) 0.4 A. B) 0.6 A. C) 1.2 A. D) more than 1.2 A. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Lamps 71) The amount of current in an LED bulb rated 10.5W 120V is A) less than 1 A. B) about 1 A. C) more then 1 A. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Lamps 72) Compared with the amount of current in the filament of a lamp, the amount of current in the connecting wires is A) definitely less. B) often less. C) actually more. D) the same. E) incredibly, all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Lamps

73) If you wish to keep chicken warm in a shed on a cold night, the best lamp to use is A) an incandescent lamp. B) a fluorescent lamp. C) an LED lamp. D) a CFL lamp. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Lamps 74) By convention, the direction of current in a circuit is A) from the positive terminal of a source to the negative terminal. B) the direction in which positive charge flows. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Circuits 75) In a circuit powered by a battery, charge A) flows through the battery. B) is energized by the battery. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Circuits 76) When two lamps are connected in series to a battery, the electrical resistance that the battery senses is A) more than the resistance of either lamp. B) less than the resistance of either lamp. C) none of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Circuits 77) When two lamps are connected in parallel to a battery, the electrical resistance that the battery senses is A) more than the resistance of either lamp. B) less than the resistance of either lamp. C) none of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Circuits

78) When a pair of identical lamps are connected in parallel A) voltage across each is the same. B) current in each is the same. C) power dissipated in each is the same. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Circuits 79) On some early automobiles both headlights failed when one bulb burned out. The headlights were likely connected in A) parallel. B) perpendicular. C) series. D) haste. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Circuits 80) Modern automobile headlights are connected in A) parallel. B) a perpendicular orientation. C) series. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Circuits 81) Compared to a single lamp connected to a battery, two identical lamps connected in series to the same battery will carry A) more current. B) less current. C) the same current. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Circuits 82) Compared to a single lamp connected to a battery, two lamps connected in parallel to the same battery will carry A) more current. B) less current. C) the same current. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Circuits

83) Connect a pair of lamps in series and current is drawn from the battery. Connect the same lamps in parallel and the current drawn is A) less. B) the same. C) more. D) sometimes more, sometimes less. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Circuits 84) The safety fuse in an electric circuit is connected to the circuit in A) series. B) parallel. C) either series or parallel. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Circuits 85) A circuit breaker often serves the same purpose as a A) battery B) fuse. C) capacitor. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Circuits 86) Sometimes the current in lamps is too feeble to produce glowing of the lamp filaments, which occurs when A) too many lamps are connected in series. B) too many lamps are connected in parallel. C) too much current is drawn by the battery. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Circuits 87) As more lamps are connected in a series circuit, the overall current in the power source A) increases. B) decreases. C) stays the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Circuits

88) As more lamps are connected in a parallel circuit, the overall current in the power source A) increases. B) decreases. C) stays the same. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Circuits 89) Which is more dangerous, touching a faulty 110-volt light fixture, or a Van de Graaff generator charged to 100,000 volts? A) touching the light fixture B) touching the generator C) touching both are about equally dangerous. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Circuits 90) To connect a pair of resistors so their equivalent resistance (the single resistor having their combined value) will increase, connect them in A) series. B) parallel. C) either of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Circuits 91) To connect a pair of resistors so their equivalent resistance (the single resistor having their combined value) will be least, connect them in A) series. B) parallel. C) either of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Circuits 92) The equivalent resistance of any parallel branch in a circuit is A) often less than the resistance of the lowest resistor. B) always less than the resistance of the lowest resistor. C) usually half the value of the lowest resistor. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Circuits

93) The equivalent resistance of any series of resistors in a circuit is A) often less than the resistance of the lowest resistor. B) always less than the resistance of the lowest resistor. C) usually half the value of the lowest resistor. D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Circuits 94) When a pair of 1-ohm resistors are connected in series, their equivalent (combined) resistance is 2 ohms, and when connected in parallel is A) ½ ohm. B) none of the above C) also 2 ohms. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Circuits 95) The equivalent (combined) resistance of 1-ohm, 2-ohm, and 3-ohm in series is about A) 1 ohm B) 1.8 ohms. C) 6 ohms. D) 9 ohms. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Electric Circuits 96) The equivalent (combined) resistance of 1-ohm, 2-ohm, and 3-ohm in parallel is about A) 0.06 ohm. B) 1 ohm. C) 1.8 ohms. D) 6 ohms. E) 9 ohms. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Electric Circuits 97) A 4-ohm and 6-ohm resistor connected in parallel have an equivalent resistance of A) 2.4 ohms. B) 4 ohms. C) 5 ohms. D) 5.5 ohms. E) 10 ohms. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Circuits 21 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

98) Three 10-ohm resistors take the shape of a triangle, one resistor in each leg. Connecting an ohm-meter across any two points of the triangle will show the equivalent resistance to be A) 1.4 ohms. B) 5 ohms. C) 6.7 ohms. D) greater than 6.7 ohms. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Electric Circuits 99) Three resistors take the shape of a triangle, one resistor in each leg. Resistance in one leg is 4 ohms, 6 ohms in a second leg, and a third leg 10 ohms. Connecting an ohm-meter across the 10ohm resistor will show the equivalent resistance to be A) 1.4 ohms. B) 5 ohms. C) 6.7 ohms. D) greater than 6.7 ohms. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Electric Circuits

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 24 Magnetism 24.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Magnetic compasses reportedly were first used for navigation by A) Aristotle. B) Australian aborigines. C) Chinese sailors. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetism 2) The source of all magnetism is A) tiny pieces of iron. B) tiny domains of aligned atoms. C) ferromagnetic materials. D) moving electric charge. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetism 3) The force that acts between a pair of electrically-charged particles depends on A) magnitude of charge. B) separation distance. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetism 4) The force that acts between a pair of magnetic poles depends on A) magnetic pole strength. B) separation distance. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetism

5) Like kinds of magnetic poles repel while unlike kinds of magnetic poles A) attract. B) repel also. C) may attract or repel. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Poles 6) In general, a common magnet has A) one pole. B) at least two poles. C) only two poles. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Poles 7) Whereas electric charges can be isolated, magnetic poles A) can also. B) cannot. C) gather in clusters. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Poles 8) Refrigerator magnets are typically A) short range. B) long range. C) none of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Poles 9) If you break a bar magnet in half you'll A) destroy its magnetic properties. B) have two magnets. C) have two and a half magnets. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Poles

10) Surrounding every magnet is A) a magnetic field. B) an electric field. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Fields 11) Surrounding every stationary electron is A) a magnetic field. B) an electric field. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Fields 12) Surrounding every moving electron is A) a magnetic field. B) an electric field. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Fields 13) Magnetic fields are produced by A) a tiny fraction of moving electrical charges. B) most moving electrical charges. C) all moving electrical charges. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Fields 14) Magnetism is due to the motion of electrons as they A) move around the nucleus. B) spin on their axes. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Fields

15) The conventional direction of magnetic field lines outside a magnet are from A) north to south. B) south to north. C) either way Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Fields 16) Magnetic field strength about a magnet is strongest where magnetic field lines are A) closer together. B) straightest. C) most curved. D) more spread. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Fields 17) An iron rod becomes magnetic when A) opposite ions accumulate at each end. B) its atoms are aligned. C) the net spins of many of its electrons are aligned. D) its electrons stop moving and point in the same direction. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Magnetic Fields 18) The magnetic fields of a pair of nearby magnets can A) only add. B) cannot add or subtract. C) add or subtract by vector rules. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Magnetic Fields 19) The end of a compass needle that points to the south pole of a magnet is the A) north pole. B) south pole. C) both of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Magnetic Fields

20) A compass needle in a magnetic field A) experiences a torque. B) experiences a pair of torques. C) may experience a pair of torques. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Magnetic Fields 21) Magnetic domains normally occur in A) copper. B) silver. C) iron. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Domains 22) In the atoms of most materials the fields of individual electrons A) cancel one another. B) partly align. C) completely align. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Domains 23) Wood does not have magnetic properties because it contains no A) iron or other metals. B) magnetic domains. C) moving electrons. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Domains 24) To weaken a bar magnet A) drop it on a hard surface. B) put it in hot flames. C) whack it with a hammer. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Domains

25) An iron nail is more strongly attracted to the A) north pole of a magnet. B) south pole of a magnet. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Domains 26) Several paper clips dangle from the north pole of a magnet. The induced pole in the bottom of the lowermost paper clip is a A) north pole. B) south pole. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Magnetic Domains 27) The shape of a magnetic field surrounding a current-carrying conductor is A) consistent with the inverse-square law. B) radial. C) circular. D) all of these E) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Currents and Magnetic Fields 28) Magnetic field lines about a current-carrying wire A) extend radially from the wire. B) circle the wire in closed loops. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Currents and Magnetic Fields 29) When current reverses direction in a wire, the surrounding magnetic field A) also reverses direction. B) becomes momentarily stronger. C) contracts. D) expands. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Currents and Magnetic Fields 6 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

30) When a current-carrying wire is bent into a loop, its magnetic field inside the loop A) weakens. B) becomes concentrated. C) cancels. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Currents and Magnetic Fields 31) As the number of loops in a current-carrying wire is increased, the A) more spread out is the magnetic field. B) stronger the enclosed magnetic field. C) weaker the current. D) greater the back emf. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Currents and Magnetic Fields 32) A beam of electrons passing through a magnetic field experiences maximum deflection if the direction of the beam is A) parallel to the field lines. B) perpendicular to the field lines. C) none of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Currents and Magnetic Fields 33) A beam of electrons can pass through a magnetic field without being deflected if the direction of the beam is A) parallel to the field lines. B) perpendicular to the field lines. C) none of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Electric Currents and Magnetic Fields 34) A current-carrying loop of wire experiences no tendency to rotate in a magnetic field when A) field lines pass directly through the loop. B) no field lines pass through the loop. C) none of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Electric Currents and Magnetic Fields

35) A current-carrying coil of wire is A) a superconductor. B) a superconducting magnet. C) an electromagnet. D) a magplane in the making. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnets 36) Place an iron rod inside a current-carrying coil of wire and you A) increase the strength of the electromagnet. B) have a superconducting magnet. C) a magplane in the making. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnets 37) A superconducting magnet uses A) iron cores. B) superconducting coils. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnets 38) The lift experienced by Maglev trains is due to magnetic A) attraction. B) repulsion. C) dipoles. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnets 39) Magnet A has twice the magnetic field strength of Magnet B and at a certain distance pulls on magnet B with a force of 100 N. The amount of force that magnet A exerts on magnet B is A) at or about 50 N. B) exactly 100 N. C) need more information Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Forces

40) Compared to the huge force that attracts an iron tack to a strong magnet, the force that the tack exerts on the magnet is A) relatively small. B) equally huge. C) inversely proportional to their masses. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Magnetic Forces 41) Into which stable force field can a proton be placed at rest without being acted upon by a force? A) magnetic field B) electric field C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Forces 42) The direction of the force exerted on a moving charge in a magnetic field is A) in the direction of the motion. B) opposite its motion. C) at right angles to the direction of the motion. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Forces 43) The force on an electron moving in a magnetic field will be least when its direction is A) the same as the magnetic field direction. B) perpendicular to the magnetic field direction. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Forces 44) When an electron passes through the magnetic field of a horseshoe magnet, the electron's A) speed is increased. B) direction is changed. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Magnetic Forces

45) The force exerted on an electron moving in a magnetic field is maximum when the electron moves A) parallel to the magnetic field. B) perpendicular to the magnetic field. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Forces 46) The force a magnetic field exerts on a current-carrying wire is maximum when the wire is oriented A) parallel to the magnetic field. B) perpendicular to the magnetic field. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Forces 47) A current-carrying wire in a magnetic field A) may be deflected. B) may experience a force. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Magnetic Forces 48) An electron beam directed through a magnetic field A) may be deflected. B) may experience a force. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Magnetic Forces 49) No net force acts on a loop of wire in a magnetic field when A) no current is in the loop. B) no magnetic field lines pass through the loop. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Magnetic Forces 10 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

50) If a magnet produces a force on a current-carrying wire, the wire A) produces a force on the magnet. B) may or may not produce a force on the magnet. C) none of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Magnetic Forces 51) A galvanometer indicates A) electric charge. B) a flow of electrons. C) electric voltage. D) magnetic field strength. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Forces 52) A galvanometer can be calibrated to measure A) electric current. B) electric voltage. C) both of these D) none of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Magnetic Forces 53) Although a magnet can change the direction of travel of an electron beam, it cannot change its A) speed B) kinetic energy. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Magnetic Forces 54) A beam of singly-charged ions entering a magnetic field are swept into circular paths. The wider paths are those of A) the lighter ions. B) the heavier ions. C) neither particularly. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Magnetic Forces

55) Which force field can increase a moving electron's speed? A) electric field B) magnetic field C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Magnetic Forces 56) Which force field can accelerate an electron? A) electric field B) magnetic field C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Magnetic Forces 57) Over geologic history the Earth's magnetic field A) has been relatively stable. B) has increased in strength exponentially. C) has reversed direction many times. D) is unknown. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Earth's Magnetic Field 58) Solar winds headed in Earth's direction are deviated mainly by A) the upper atmosphere. B) the troposphere. C) Earth's magnetic field. D) Earth's radiation belts. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Earth's Magnetic Field 59) If a compass is moved from the Northern Hemisphere to the Southern Hemisphere, its magnetic needle will change direction A) randomly and rapidly B) by 90 degrees. C) by 180 degrees. D) hardly at all. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Earth's Magnetic Field

60) The intensity of cosmic rays bombarding the Earth's surface is most at the A) poles. B) mid-latitudes. C) equator. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Earth's Magnetic Field 61) An aurora borealis high above the atmosphere is due to A) disturbances in Earth's magnetic field. B) fountains of high-speed charged particles. C) trapping of charged particles by Earth's magnetic field. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Earth's Magnetic Field 62) Cosmic rays penetrate your body when A) safely in your home. B) outdoors. C) in mountainous regions. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Earth's Magnetic Field 63) Earth's magnetic field is A) something we've learned to live with. B) useful to pigeons but not to humans. C) protective to life on Earth. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Biomagnetism 64) Pigeons navigate primarily by A) a good memory. B) a keen sense of smell. C) magnetic sensors in their heads. D) ultra-high-pitched sounds. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Biomagnetism

65) Biomagnetism has been detected in A) bacteria. B) pigeons. C) wasps. D) humans. E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Biomagnetism

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 25 Electromagnetic Induction 25.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Electromagnetism unites A) electricity and magnetism. B) electric and gravitational fields. C) physics and biophysics. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnetic Induction 2) The discovery of electromagnetic induction is credited to A) Joseph Henry in America. B) Michael Faraday in England. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnetic Induction 3) Electromagnetic induction is employed in A) electric power lines. B) triggering traffic lights. C) hybrid automobiles. D) mobile phones. E) all the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnetic Induction 4) When a change occurs in the magnetic field in a closed loop of wire A) a voltage is induced in the wire. B) a current is created in the loop of wire. C) electromagnetic induction occurs. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnetic Induction

5) If you thrust a magnet into a closed loop of wire, the loop will A) rotate. B) have a current in it. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnetic Induction 6) Thrust a magnet into the opening of a rubber band and it A) rotates. B) then has a current in it. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnetic Induction 7) When voltage is induced in a coil of wire, current is A) also induced. B) not induced. C) cancelled. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnetic Induction 8) When a bar magnet is thrust into a coil of copper wire, the coil tends to A) attract the magnet as it enters. B) repel the magnet as it enters. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnetic Induction 9) Electromagnetic induction occurs in a coil when there is a change in A) electric field intensity in the coil. B) magnetic field intensity in the coil. C) electromagnetic polarity. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnetic Induction

10) Voltage can be induced in a wire by A) moving the wire near a magnet. B) moving a magnet near the wire. C) changing the current in a nearby wire. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnetic Induction 11) Magnetic field strength inside a current-carrying coil will be greater if the coil encloses a A) vacuum. B) wooden rod. C) glass rod. D) rod of iron. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnetic Induction 12) Faraday's law underlies the operation of A) an electric guitar. B) a shake flashlight. C) the changing of traffic lights. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Faraday's Law 13) When a magnet is moved to and fro in a wire coil, voltage is induced. If the coil has twice as many loops, the voltage induced is A) half. B) the same. C) twice. D) four times as much. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Faraday's Law

14) The frequency of induced voltage in a wire coil depends on A) the frequency of current producing it. B) how frequently a magnet dips in and out of the coil. C) the number of loops in the coil. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Faraday's Law 15) The amount of current produced by electromagnetic induction depends on the A) amount of induced voltage. B) resistance of the circuit to which it is connected. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Faraday's Law 16) The metal detectors that people walk through at airports operate via A) Ohm's law. B) Faraday's law. C) Coulomb's law. D) Newton's laws. E) civil laws. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Faraday's Law 17) Disregarding the effects of friction, a cyclist will coast farther when a lamp powered by a wheel generator is A) of low wattage. B) of high wattage. C) turned off. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Faraday's Law

18) Fred swings a sheet of copper in pendulum fashion between the poles of a strong magnet. The sheet slows in entering the magnetic field because it A) induces swirling currents in the copper and accompanying magnetic fields that resist motion. B) experiences both air and magnetic friction. C) is repelled by free electrons in the copper. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Faraday's Law 19) If you drop a bar magnet in a vertical copper pipe it will fall slowly because A) of air resistance. B) it induces a magnetic field in the pipe that resists motion of the magnet. C) the copper is a good conductor of both electricity and magnetism. D) of electron repulsion. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Faraday's Law 20) A device that transforms electrical energy to mechanical energy is a A) generator. B) motor. C) transformer. D) magnet. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Generators and Alternating Current 21) A device that transforms mechanical energy into electrical energy is a A) generator. B) motor. C) transformer. D) magnet. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Generators and Alternating Current

22) The current produced by a common generator is A) dc. B) ac. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Generators and Alternating Current 23) A turbogenerator produces A) energy. B) power. C) neither, but transforms energy from one form to another. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Generators and Alternating Current 24) An electric motor is very similar to A) an electric generator. B) an automobile battery. C) a radio receiver. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Generators and Alternating Current 25) If the voltage produced by a generator alternates, it does so because A) unlike a battery, it produces alternating current. B) the changing magnetic field that produces it alternates. C) of alterations in the mechanical energy input. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Generators and Alternating Current 26) A generator armature is more difficult to rotate when supplying electric current due to A) an induced magnetic field in the windings that resists change. B) increased resistance. C) energy leaking as heat. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Generators and Alternating Current

27) The rate at which energy is transferred is A) power. B) electromagnetic induction. C) transformation. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Power Production 28) A principle difference between an MHD generator and a conventional generator is that the MHD generator A) has no moving parts. B) operates more efficiently at high temperatures. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Power Production 29) The major advantage of MHD generators over conventional generators is that MHD generators A) do not use electromagnetic induction. B) do not require magnets. C) require no power input. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Power Production 30) A transformer actually transforms A) voltage. B) magnetic field lines. C) generators into motors. D) non-safe forms of energy to safe forms of energy. E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Power Production

31) A transformer transforms voltage while A) producing energy. B) producing power. C) transferring energy from one coil to another. D) transferring current from one coil to another. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Transformers 32) The output power of an ideal transformer is A) greater than the input power. B) equal to the input power. C) smaller than the input power. D) may be any of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Transformers 33) Transformers use ac to satisfy the required A) transfer of energy from coil to coil. B) voltage for transformation. C) change in magnetic field for operation. D) change in input current. E) magnetic field intensities. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Transformers 34) Compared to the primary voltage, the secondary voltage can be A) higher. B) lower. C) the same. D) any of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Transformers 35) The principle difference between a step-up and step-down transformer is A) step-up transformers can handle more current. B) different geometries. C) different ratios of turns of wire for each. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Transformers 8 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

36) An efficient step-up transformer boosts A) energy. B) power. C) voltage. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Transformers 37) An efficient step-down transformer decreases A) power. B) energy. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Transformers 38) A transformer produces A) energy. B) power. C) neither, but transforms mechanical energy to electric energy. D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Transformers 39) The primary of a transformer is the coil connected to A) the load. B) the Internet. C) the input power line. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Transformers 40) The secondary of a transformer is the coil connected to A) the load. B) the Internet. C) the input power line. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Transformers

41) The primary of a transformer A) has an iron core. B) may or may not have an iron core. C) has more turns of wire than the secondary. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Transformers 42) An iron core in a transformer A) guides magnetic field lines. B) shields unwanted external electric or magnetic fields. C) separates the primary and secondary regions. D) reduces energy losses. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Transformers 43) A step-up transformer steps up voltage by ten times. If voltage input is 120 volts, voltage output is A) 60 V. B) 120 V. C) 1200 V. D) 12000 V. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Transformers 44) A step-up transformer steps up voltage by ten times. Neglecting slight losses, if 100 W of power go into the primary coil, the power coming from the secondary coil is A) 1 W. B) 10 W. C) 100 W. D) 1000 W. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Transformers

45) A certain transformer doubles input voltage. If the primary coil draws 10 A of current, then the current in the secondary coil is A) 2 A. B) 5 A. C) 10 A. D) 25 A. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Transformers 46) Neon signs require about 12,000 volts to operate. If the circuit uses a 120-volt power source, the ratio of primary to secondary turns on the transformer should be A) 1 primary to 100 secondary. B) 100 primary to 1 secondary. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Transformers 47) The voltage across the input terminals of a transformer is 120 V. The primary has 50 loops and the secondary has 25 loops. The voltage the transformer delivers is A) 30 V. B) 60 V. C) 120 V. D) 240 V. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Transformers 48) The voltage across the input terminals of a transformer is 120 V. The primary has 25 loops and the secondary has 50 loops. The voltage the transformer delivers is A) 30 V. B) 60 V. C) 120 V. D) 240 V. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Transformers

49) Four amperes of current exist in the primary coil of a transformer. The voltage across the primary coil is 120 V. What is the power output of the secondary coil? A) 30 W B) 120 W C) 480 W D) 960 W E) need more information Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Transformers 50) If the primary of a transformer is connected to a dc power source, the transformer would have a voltage output A) at a higher efficiency than with an ac source. B) the same. C) that is also dc. D) only while being connected or disconnected. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Transformers 51) Disconnect a small-voltage battery from a coil of many loops of wire and a large voltage may be produced by A) the sudden collapse in the magnetic field. B) latent energy in the battery. C) the resistance of the battery to a change in polarity. D) electrons already in the wire. E) the electric field between the battery terminals. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Self-Induction 52) The voltage induced in self-inductions is A) always in a direction opposing the changing voltage that produced it. B) likely higher than the changing voltage that causes it. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Self-Induction

53) To reduce the danger of self-induction A) simply pull the circuit plug. B) turn off the switch to the circuit. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Self-Induction 54) Underlying the concept of self-induction is A) Ohm's law. B) Faraday's law. C) Maxwell's law. D) all of these about equally Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Self-Induction 55) The transmission of power from one place to another is evident in A) household electricity. B) radio broadcast. C) mobile phones. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Power Transmission 56) The principal advantage of ac power over dc power is that A) more energy is dissipated during transmission. B) ac voltage oscillates while dc voltage does not. C) ac voltage can be transformed via conventional transformers. D) ac circuits multiply power more easily. E) ac circuits are safer. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Power Transmission 57) Between the consumer and the power plant, most importantly, are A) huge capacitors. B) generators. C) step-down transformers. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Power Transmission 13 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

58) Power is transmitted at high voltages because the corresponding current in the wires is A) also high to deliver appreciable power to distant places. B) low so that overheating of the wires is minimized. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Power Transmission 59) The spacing between the parallel power lines is affected by A) current-carrying capacities of wires. B) electrical insulation. C) the wing span of birds in the vicinity. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Power Transmission 60) The high voltage that is important in a power line is high voltage A) between the parallel wires of the line. B) from one end of each power line to the other. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Power Transmission 61) High-voltage wires in power lines are not high-current wires because the current in them is A) not the same as the current that powers the distant load. B) proportional to the voltage drop from beginning to end of each line, rather low. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Power Transmission 62) When voltage is stepped up in a transformer, current is stepped down. But Ohm's law tells us that greater voltage means greater current, not less current. How then can current be lower when voltage is increased? A) Current in the secondary is lower when compared to the greater current drawn by the primary. B) Ohm's law applies to the circuit connected to the secondary, not to the transformer. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Power Transmission 14 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

63) Faraday's law was extended by Maxwell toward A) changes in electric fields. B) changes in magnetic fields. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Field Induction 64) Rapid change of a magnetic field induces A) a magnetic field of greater magnitude. B) a magnetic field of the same magnitude. C) an electric field. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Field Induction 65) A force field is induced in any region of space in which A) an electric field changes with time. B) a magnetic field changes with time. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Field Induction 66) The strength of an induced electric or magnetic field depends on A) strength of magnetic poles. B) alignment of magnetic domains. C) rate of change of the induced field. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Field Induction 67) In the field induction credited to Maxwell, wires A) can be insulated or non-insulated. B) are minimized. C) are not needed. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Field Induction

68) The induced electric and magnetic fields of Maxwell are A) parallel to each other. B) perpendicular to each other. C) non-directional. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Field Induction 69) Induced electric and magnetic fields result in A) electromagnetic waves. B) stronger electric or magnetic fields. C) higher voltages produced by Faraday induction. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Field Induction 70) A friend says that changing electric and magnetic fields underlie the production of light. A) agree with your friend B) argue to the contrary with your friend. C) find a new friend. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Field Induction

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 26 Properties of Light 26.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Most of the waves in the electromagnetic spectrum are A) red light. B) blue light. C) green light. D) invisible. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnetic Waves 2) Electromagnetic waves consist of A) compressions and rarefactions of electromagnetic pulses. B) oscillating electric and magnetic fields. C) particles of light energy. D) high-frequency sound waves. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnetic Waves 3) The source of all electromagnetic waves is A) changes in atomic energy levels. B) vibrating atoms and molecules. C) accelerating electric charges. D) crystalline fluctuations. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnetic Waves 4) A changing electric field induces a changing A) magnetic field. B) electromagnetic field. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnetic Waves

5) In free space, electromagnetic waves travel at a A) variety of speeds. B) single speed. C) speed depending on frequency. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnetic Waves 6) Your friend says that any radio wave travels appreciably faster than any sound wave. A) agree with your friend unconditionally B) agree with your friend for most common cases C) disagree with your friend D) find a new friend Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnetic Wave Velocity 7) Radio waves travel A) always much faster than sound waves. B) in common cases at the same speed as sound waves. C) slower, on average, than sound waves. D) at a speed that depends on frequency. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Electromagnetic Wave Velocity 8) The fact that light travels only at 300,000 km/s in free space is a consequence of A) electromagnetic wave propagation. B) electromagnetic field induction. C) Maxwell's laws. D) energy conservation. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Electromagnetic Wave Velocity 9) If a light signal and a radio signal were emitted simultaneously from Alpha Centauri, the first to reach Earth would be the A) radio signal. B) light signal. C) both the same time Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Electromagnetic Wave Velocity

10) If the Sun were to disappear at this moment, we wouldn't know about it for A) 7 seconds, reflex time. B) 8 seconds. C) 8 minutes. D) 8 hours. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Electromagnetic Wave Velocity 11) Which of the following is fundamentally different from the others? A) sound waves B) X-rays C) gamma rays D) light waves E) radio waves Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: The Electromagnetic Spectrum 12) Which travels with the greatest speed in a vacuum? A) radio waves B) light waves C) X-rays D) gamma rays E) all have the same speed Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: The Electromagnetic Spectrum 13) Which of these electromagnetic waves have the shortest wavelength? A) radio waves B) infrared waves C) X-rays D) ultraviolet waves E) light waves Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: The Electromagnetic Spectrum

14) Which of these electromagnetic waves have the longest wavelength? A) radio waves B) infrared waves C) X-rays D) ultraviolet waves E) light waves Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: The Electromagnetic Spectrum 15) Compared to ultraviolet waves, the wavelength of infrared waves is A) shorter. B) the same. C) longer. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: The Electromagnetic Spectrum 16) Compared to ultraviolet waves, the frequency of infrared waves is A) lower. B) the same. C) higher. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: The Electromagnetic Spectrum 17) Compared to radio waves, the velocity of visible light waves in a vacuum is A) less. B) more. C) the same. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: The Electromagnetic Spectrum 18) A main difference between a radio wave and a light wave is A) wavelength. B) frequency. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: The Electromagnetic Spectrum

19) If the color spectrum ranges from red to violet, then it ranges from A) low frequencies to high frequencies. B) long wavelengths to short wavelengths. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: The Electromagnetic Spectrum 20) What is the wavelength of a 1-hertz electromagnetic wave? A) less than 1 m B) 1 m C) more than 1 m Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: The Electromagnetic Spectrum 21) What is the wavelength of an electromagnetic wave that has a frequency of 3 kilohertz? A) less than 1 km B) 1 km C) more than 1 km Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: The Electromagnetic Spectrum 22) What is the frequency of an electromagnetic wave that has a wavelength of 300,000 km? A) less than 1 Hz B) 1 Hz C) more than 1 Hz Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: The Electromagnetic Spectrum 23) A main difference between a radio wave and a sound wave is A) frequency. B) wavelength. C) energy. D) amplitude. E) medium or no medium. Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: The Electromagnetic Spectrum

24) Sunburns are produced by A) infrared light. B) visible light. C) ultraviolet light. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: The Electromagnetic Spectrum 25) Which best shields you from sunburn when at the beach? A) a cloudy day B) a sheet of glass between you and the Sun C) frequent turning of your body D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: The Electromagnetic Spectrum 26) Kids in elementary school get this right: Which color of light gets through red glass? A) red B) cyan C) none of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Transparent Materials 27) The fact that you can see stars in the nighttime sky is evidence that A) our atmosphere is transparent to visible light. B) light can travel in a vacuum. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Transparent Materials 28) Which of the following cannot travel in a vacuum? A) a light wave B) a sound wave C) a radio wave D) all can E) none can Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Transparent Materials 6 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

29) If an electric charge is shaken up and down frequently enough A) sound can be emitted. B) light can be emitted. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Transparent Materials 30) If an electron vibrates up and down 1000 times each second, it generates an electromagnetic wave having a A) period of 1000 s. B) speed of 1000 m/s. C) wavelength of 1000 m. D) frequency of 1000 Hz. E) wavelength of 1000 km. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Transparent Materials 31) The natural frequency of the atoms in glass is in the A) infrared part of the spectrum. B) visible part of the spectrum. C) ultraviolet part of the spectrum. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Transparent Materials 32) When visible light is incident upon clear glass, atoms in the glass A) are forced into vibration. B) resonate. C) convert the light energy into internal energy. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Transparent Materials 33) The speed of light in the void between molecules in glass is A) more than its speed in a vacuum. B) the same as its speed in a vacuum. C) less than its speed in a vacuum. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Transparent Materials

34) Compared to its average speed in air, the average speed of a beam of light in glass is A) more. B) less. C) the same. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Transparent Materials 35) Compared to the photon that enters a pane of window glass, the photon that emerges is A) the same photon. B) an identical but different photon. C) an altogether different photon. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Transparent Materials 36) Glass is transparent to A) infrared light. B) visible light. C) ultraviolet light. D) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Transparent Materials 37) When ultraviolet light is incident upon glass, atoms in the glass A) are forced into vibration. B) resonate. C) pass the light energy along practically undiminished. D) freely absorb and re-emit most of the ultraviolet light. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Transparent Materials 38) Consider light energy that is momentarily absorbed in glass and then re-emitted. Compared to the absorbed light, the frequency of the re-emitted light is A) considerably less. B) slightly less. C) the same. D) slightly more. E) considerably more. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Transparent Materials

39) Glass is transparent to wave frequencies that A) match its natural frequencies. B) are below its natural frequencies. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Transparent Materials 40) Infrared waves are often called heat waves because they A) emanate from relatively hot sources. B) consist of frequencies lower than those of visible light. C) induce resonance in molecules and increase internal energy in a substance. D) are the predominant waves emitted by the sun. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Transparent Materials 41) Metals are shiny because A) they reflect 100% of incident light. B) they are poor absorbers of light. C) their electrons vibrate to the oscillations of any incident light. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Opaque Materials 42) Materials generally become warmer when light is A) absorbed by them. B) reflected by them. C) transmitted by them. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Opaque Materials 43) Earth's atmosphere is opaque to waves that are concentrated in the A) infrared part of the spectrum. B) visible part of the spectrum. C) entire electromagnetic spectrum. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Opaque Materials

44) A pair of sunglasses and a pair of clear reading glasses are left in the sunlight. The hotter glasses will be the A) sunglasses. B) reading glasses. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Opaque Materials 45) A total shadow is called A) an umbra, and a partial shadow a penumbra. B) a penumbra, and a partial shadow an umbra. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Opaque Materials 46) A lunar eclipse occurs when the A) Sun passes into Earth's shadow. B) Moon passes into Earth's shadow. C) Earth passes into the Sun's shadow. D) Earth passes into the Moon's shadow. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Opaque Materials 47) A solar eclipse occurs when the A) Sun passes into Earth's shadow. B) Moon passes into Earth's shadow. C) the Moon's shadow is cast on Earth. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Opaque Materials 48) A total solar eclipse occurs for people in the Sun's A) umbra. B) penumbra. C) none of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Opaque Materials

49) A partial solar eclipse occurs for people in the Sun's A) umbra. B) penumbra. C) none of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Opaque Materials 50) While Earth is experiencing a total solar eclipse, an observer on the side of the Moon facing Earth would see A) Earth disappear from the sky. B) Earth dim and turn reddish. C) nothing unusual. D) a dark area moving across the face of Earth. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Opaque Materials 51) An annular eclipse of the Sun occurs when the Moon doesn't quite cover the Sun in the zone of totality. This means that the Moon is A) closer than usual to Earth. B) farther than usual from Earth. C) none of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Opaque Materials 52) The round spots of light on the ground beneath a tree on a sunny day are images of A) the openings between leaves above. B) nothing in particular. C) the Sun. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Opaque Materials 53) The crescent shapes of spots of light cast through openings in trees occurs with a A) partial eclipse of the Sun. B) total eclipse of the Sun. C) lunar eclipse, partial or total. D) partial lunar eclipse. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Opaque Materials

54) The Moon would be at its fullest just before the time of a A) solar eclipse. B) lunar eclipse. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Opaque Materials 55) A new Moon appears in the sky just before the time of a A) solar eclipse. B) lunar eclipse. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Opaque Materials 56) When an astronaut on the Moon experiences a solar eclipse, observers on Earth see A) a lunar eclipse. B) a solar eclipse. C) no eclipse at all. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Opaque Materials 57) The sensation of color is seen when light falls on the eye's A) rods. B) cones. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Seeing Light—The Eye 58) The cones in the retina of the eye are A) most densely packed at the center of vision. B) uniformly spread along the visual field. C) concentrated along the periphery of vision. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Seeing Light—The Eye

59) Red-hot and blue-hot stars appear white to the eye because A) the eye has difficulty seeing color at night. B) they are too dim to fire the cones. C) they are too dim to fire the rods. D) they are overwhelmed by the blackness of the nighttime sky. E) eye receptivity peaks in the yellow-green part of the spectrum. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Seeing Light—The Eye 60) In the periphery of our vision, we are A) more sensitive to low frequencies than high ones. B) insensitive to color and movement. C) sensitive to movement, but cannot see color. D) sensitive to both movement and color. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Seeing Light—The Eye 61) Information-carrying nerves are connected to the retina at the A) fovea. B) blind spot. C) cornea. D) iris. E) periphery. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Seeing Light—The Eye 62) The size of the pupil of your eye depends on A) the brightness of light in the room. B) your mood. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Seeing Light—The Eye

63) Our eyes are not very good at seeing A) motion at our peripheries. B) differences in brightness. C) color in dim light. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Seeing Light—The Eye 64) The main difference between the retina of a human eye and that of a dog's eye is the A) predominance of cones in a dog's retina. B) absence of cones in a dog's retina. C) more intricate optic nerve in a human's eye. D) small number of cones in a human's eye. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Seeing Light—The Eye 65) Colors are barely seen or not at all in nighttime because moonlight A) has almost no colors in it. B) is too dim to activate the retina's cones. C) photons don't have enough energy to activate the retina's cones. D) is primarily yellow light. E) is only semi-transparent in Earth's atmosphere. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Seeing Light—The Eye

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 27 Color 27.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Isaac Newton first became famous for his contributions to the understanding of A) the laws of mechanics. B) the law of gravity. C) light. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Color in Our World 2) Strictly speaking, to say that an apple is red means that A) an apple is red. B) it appears red. C) is, or appears makes no difference–red is red. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Color in Our World 3) What characteristic of light mostly relates to color? A) frequency B) amplitude C) both of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Color in Our World 4) Different colors of light correspond to different light A) velocities. B) intensities. C) polarities. D) frequencies. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Color in Our World 5) When the frequency of light matches the natural frequency of molecules in a material, light is A) absorbed. B) transmitted. C) reflected. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Selective Reflection 1 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) The color of an opaque object is the same as the light that is A) transmitted. B) absorbed. C) reflected. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Selective Reflection 7) You can get a sunburn while under the "shade" of a beach umbrella due to A) reflected sunlight from the sand. B) refracted sunlight from the water. C) light scattering in the air. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Selective Reflection 8) A blueberry will look black when illuminated with A) red light. B) yellow light. C) magenta light. D) cyan light. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Selective Reflection 9) A red apple will appear black when illuminated with A) blue light. B) cyan light. C) yellow light. D) magenta light. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Selective Reflection 10) A banana will appear black when illuminated with A) black light. B) blue light. C) red light. D) green light. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Selective Reflection 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) If sunlight were green instead of white, the most comfortable color to wear on a hot day would be A) magenta. B) yellow. C) green. D) blue. E) violet. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Selective Reflection 12) If sunlight were green instead of white, the most comfortable color to wear on a cold day would be A) magenta. B) yellow. C) green. D) blue. E) violet. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Selective Reflection 13) What color light is transmitted by a piece of blue glass? A) red B) white C) blue D) yellow E) orange Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Selective Transmission 14) What color is fully transmitted in common window glass? A) red B) yellow C) green D) blue E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Selective Transmission

15) A piece of glass that appears red A) absorbs or reflects all colors except red. B) transmits red. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Selective Transmission 16) Which piece of glass will warm up quicker in sunlight? A) colored glass B) clear glass C) both the same Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Selective Transmission 17) Light shines on a pane of green glass and a pane of clear glass. The temperature will be higher in the A) clear glass. B) green glass. C) both the same Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Selective Transmission 18) A fast-moving ball is more easily seen if it is A) red. B) orange. C) yellow-green. D) green-blue. E) violet. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Mixing Colored Lights 19) The solar radiation curve is A) a dent in the spherical Sun. B) the path of the Sun as it circles Earth. C) a plot of Sun's brightness versus frequency of emission. D) a plot of sunlight colors versus their frequencies. E) a plot of light intensity versus temperature of the Sun. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Mixing Colored Lights

20) The LEDs that make up the color on some TV screens are A) red, blue, yellow. B) red, blue, green. C) yellow, blue, green. D) magenta, cyan, yellow. E) red, green, yellow. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Mixing Colored Lights 21) Colors seen on some TV screens result from color A) addition. B) subtraction. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Mixing Colored Lights 22) If three primary colors of light shine on a white wall and produce a white spot, the primaries must be A) additive. B) subtractive. C) multiplicative. D) divisive. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Mixing Colored Lights 23) Which is not a color? A) yellow-green B) black C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Mixing Colored Lights 24) When red, green, and blue lights shine on a golf ball, the shadows cast are A) red, green, and blue. B) black. C) magenta, cyan, and yellow. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Mixing Colored Lights 5 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

25) The brightest color in sunlight is A) red. B) yellow. C) yellow-green. D) green. E) violet. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Mixing Colored Lights 26) The Sun is not seen as yellow-green because A) it is not yellow-green. B) it is small part of a mixture of other colors in sunlight. C) its brightness is only slightly greater than the other colors. D) our vision is not adapted to yellow-green. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Mixing Colored Lights 27) Stare at a red wall for a few minutes and then gaze at a white wall. Due to retina fatigue you see A) more red. B) cyan. C) black. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Mixing Colored Lights 28) Complementary colors are two colors that A) blend together. B) are additive primary colors. C) produce white light when subtracted. D) produce white light when added. E) are right for each other. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Mixing Colored Pigments 29) The complementary color of blue is A) red. B) green. C) yellow. D) cyan. E) magenta. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Mixing Colored Pigments 6 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

30) Colors seen on the cover of your physics book are due to color A) addition. B) subtraction. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Mixing Colored Pigments 31) If only one color is absorbed in the pigment of a particular blue paint, that color would be A) red. B) yellow. C) green. D) blue. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Mixing Colored Pigments 32) How many colors of ink are used to print full-color pictures? A) one plus black B) two plus black C) three plus black D) four plus black E) six plus black Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Mixing Colored Pigments 33) Look at full-color photos in your textbook with a magnifying glass and you'll see inks of A) red, green, and blue. B) red, green, blue, and black. C) magenta, cyan, and yellow. D) magenta, cyan, yellow, and black. E) none of these Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Mixing Colored Pigments

34) A mixture of red and green pigments appears A) orange. B) yellow. C) magenta. D) blue. E) muddy-brown. Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Mixing Colored Pigments 35) Magenta light is a mixture of A) red and blue light. B) red and cyan light. C) red and yellow light. D) yellow and green light. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Mixing Colored Pigments 36) A mixture of cyan and yellow pigments appears A) orange. B) green. C) magenta. D) blue. E) blackish-brown. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Mixing Colored Pigments 37) Which interacts more with high-frequency sounds? A) large bells B) small bells C) both the same Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Why the Sky Is Blue 38) Which interacts more with high-frequency light? A) large particles B) small particles C) both the same Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Why the Sky Is Blue

39) The dimmest part of sunlight is A) red. B) yellow. C) yellow-green. D) green. E) violet. Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Why the Sky Is Blue 40) The physics underlying the redness of sunsets and the color of blue jays involves A) scattered sunlight. B) absorbed sunlight. C) different processes for sunsets and blue jays. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Why the Sky Is Blue 41) The sky is usually the deepest blue A) just before a rainstorm. B) during a rainstorm. C) just after a rainstorm. D) just before sunset. E) when the air is humid. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Why the Sky Is Blue 42) The sky is blue because air molecules in the sky act as tiny A) mirrors which reflect only blue light. B) optical tuning forks that scatter blue light. C) sources of white light. D) prisms. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Why the Sky Is Blue 43) A whitish sky is evidence that the atmosphere contains A) predominantly small particles. B) predominantly large particles. C) a mixture of particle sizes. D) water vapor. E) pollutants. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Why the Sky Is Blue 9 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

44) Distant dark mountains appear bluish because A) they are far away. B) yellow is being scattered. C) you're looking at low-level blue sky between you and the mountain. D) of nature's wonderful preferences. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Why the Sky Is Blue 45) Distant bright snowy mountains appear yellowish because A) they are far away. B) blue has been scattered away from light reflected from the mountains. C) the color yellow looks just right. D) of nature's wonderful preferences. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Why the Sky Is Blue 46) If Earth's atmosphere were appreciably thicker, snow would appear A) still white. B) yellow. C) blue. D) ultraviolet. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Why the Sky Is Blue 47) If the atmosphere were about 40 times thicker, the Sun at noon would appear A) red-orange. B) orange-green. C) green-blue. D) blue-violet. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Why the Sky Is Blue 48) The atmosphere of Jupiter is more than 1000 km thick. From Jupiter's surface, the Sun at noon would appear A) white. B) faintly white. C) not at all. D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Why the Sky Is Blue 10 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

49) Light travels slightly slower in the A) upper atmosphere. B) lower atmosphere. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Why Sunsets Are Red 50) A setting Sun appears red due to A) scattering of lower frequencies by larger particles in the air. B) light's longer path through air at sunset. C) lower frequencies of light emitted during sunset. D) absorption by smaller particles in the air. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Why Sunsets Are Red 51) Red sunsets are due to light of lower frequencies that A) are scattered from larger particles in the air. B) are scattered from smaller particles in the air. C) survive being scattered in the air. D) are reflected by clouds and relatively large particles in the air. E) appear reddish-orange to the eye. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Why Sunsets Are Red 52) If molecules in the sky scattered orange light instead of blue light, sunsets would be colored A) orange. B) yellow. C) green. D) blue. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Why Sunsets Are Red 53) On a planet in the solar system where the sky normally scatters light of lower frequencies, its sunsets would be A) reddish. B) yellow-greenish. C) bluish. D) whitish. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Why Sunsets Are Red 11 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

54) On a planet where atmospheric gases are red, distant dark mountains would appear A) bluish. B) greenish. C) yellowish. D) reddish. E) untinted. Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Why Sunsets Are Red 55) On a planet where atmospheric gases are yellow, distant snow covered hills would look A) bluish. B) greenish. C) yellowish. D) reddish. E) untinted. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Why Sunsets Are Red 56) The redness of the lunar eclipse is due to A) refraction of sunsets and sunrises all around Earth. B) infrared light continually emitted by the Moon. C) scattering of lower frequencies of light by the Moon. D) dim light that is incident upon the Moon by Jupiter and other planets. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Why Sunsets Are Red 57) The whiteness of clouds, unlike the blueness of the sky, primarily involves A) medium sized particles. B) reflection and refraction of sunlight. C) seeds upon which condensation of cloud material forms. D) water prisms. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Why Clouds Are White 58) Compared to smaller clouds with small droplets, a big cloud with large droplets A) absorbs more light. B) is darker. C) is more likely to produce rain. D) all the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Why Clouds Are White 12 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

59) The darkness of clouds is due to A) absorption. B) often being in the shadow of another cloud. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Why Clouds Are White 60) The greenish blue of water is evidence for the A) reflection of greenish-blue light. B) reflection of red light. C) absorption of greenish-blue light. D) absorption of red light. E) interaction between green and blue frequencies of light. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Why Water Is Greenish Blue 61) The part of the electromagnetic spectrum most absorbed by water is A) infrared. B) red. C) cyan. D) all about equally. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Why Water Is Greenish Blue 62) The part of the visible spectrum most absorbed by water is A) infrared. B) red. C) cyan. D) all about equally. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Why Water Is Greenish Blue 63) The extraordinary blueness in lakes in the Canadian Rockies is the result of A) high-altitude refraction of light. B) glacial silt in the water scattering blue light. C) the unique temperatures of these lakes throughout most of the year. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Why Water Is Greenish Blue 13 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

64) A white boat sunk in water where sunlight is dim appears A) red. B) yellow. C) cyan. D) no color–black. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Why Water Is Greenish Blue 65) A red crab very deep in water, where sunlight is dim, appears A) red. B) orange. C) cyan. D) brown. E) no color–black. Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Why Water Is Greenish Blue

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 28 Reflection and Refraction 28.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Light is reflected when A) electron clouds of atoms are energized. B) atomic nuclei are made to vibrate. C) incident light is returned into the medium from which it came. D) electromagnetic waves emanate from matter. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Reflection 2) When sunlight illuminates a page from your Conceptual Physics book it A) reflects most of it. B) absorbs at the text lettering. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Reflection 3) Light travels from one place to another along a path of least A) distance. B) time. C) effort. D) expense. E) complication. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Reflection 4) Fermat's principle applies to A) reflection. B) refraction. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Reflection

5) Fermat's principle could be the principle of least distance for A) reflection. B) refraction. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Reflection 6) According to the law of reflection, the incident light ray, the reflected light ray, and the normal between them A) lie in the same plane. B) may or may not lie in the same plane. C) lie in planes that are perpendicular to one another. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Law of Reflection 7) Object and image for a plane mirror occur A) along the same plane. B) equal distances from the mirror. C) at right angles to each other. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Law of Reflection 8) The inversion of your image in a plane mirror is actually an inversion of A) left-right. B) up-down. C) front-back. D) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Law of Reflection 9) The amount of light reflected from the front surface of a common windowpane is about A) 4%. B) 8%. C) 40%. D) 92%. E) 96%. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Law of Reflection 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) Diffuse reflection occurs when the size of surface irregularities is A) small compared to the wavelength of the light used. B) large compared to the wavelength of the light used. C) microscopic. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Law of Reflection 11) Your image in a plane mirror is A) virtual. B) real. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Law of Reflection 12) A rough surface for infrared waves may be polished for A) radio waves. B) light waves. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Law of Reflection 13) When light reflects from a surface, there is a change in its A) frequency. B) wavelength. C) speed. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Law of Reflection 14) A yellow candle flame reflects from opposite surfaces of a piece of red glass. A) both images are yellow B) one image is yellow and the other red C) both images are red D) both images are reddish yellow Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Law of Reflection

15) You photograph the image of your little sister, who stands 2 meters in front of a plane mirror. Holding the camera beside her head, the distance to her image is A) 1 meter. B) 2 meters. C) 3 meters. D) 4 meters. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Law of Reflection 16) If you walk towards a mirror at a certain speed, the relative speed between you and your image is A) half your speed. B) your speed. C) twice your speed. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Law of Reflection 17) The shortest plane mirror in which you can see your entire image is A) half your height. B) about 3/4 your height. C) about 1/3 your height. D) equal to your height. E) dependent on your distance from the mirror. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Law of Reflection 18) To see his full height, Blinky Bill who is 1 meter tall needs a mirror that is at least A) 0.33 m tall. B) 0.50 m tall. C) 0.75 m tall. D) 1 m tall. E) depends on distance from the mirror. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Law of Reflection

19) If you look at yourself in a pocket mirror, then hold the mirror farther away, you see A) more of yourself. B) less of yourself. C) the same amount of yourself. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Law of Reflection 20) In looking at yourself in a steamy mirror you wipe just enough moisture away to barely see a full view of your face. If you move back from the mirror you'll see A) a bit more of your face. B) a bit less of your face. C) the same amount of your face. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Law of Reflection 21) It is difficult to see the roadway when driving on a rainy night mainly because A) light scatters from raindrops and reduces the amount of light reaching your eyes. B) of additional condensation on the inner surface of the windshield. C) the film of water on your windshield provides an additional reflecting surface. D) the film of water on the roadway makes the road less diffuse. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Law of Reflection 22) Reflected light from the Moon in a lake often appears as a vertical column when the water is A) perfectly still. B) slightly rough. C) very rough as with churning waves. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Law of Reflection 23) Standing at the shore of a still lake, the reflected view of scenery on the other side of the lake is the view you would see if you were upside down with your eye in the line of sight A) where it already is. B) at the surface of the water where the light reflects. C) directly beneath you, as far below water level as you are above. D) close to the distant shore. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Law of Reflection

24) When a mirror with a fixed beam on it is rotated through a certain angle, the reflected beam is rotated through an angle that is A) equal to the angle of rotation. B) twice as large. C) four times as large. D) none of these Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Law of Reflection 25) Ninety-five percent of light incident on a mirror is reflected. How much light is reflected when three of these mirrors are arranged so light reflects from one after the other? A) 81% B) 85% C) 86% D) 90% E) 95% Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Law of Reflection 26) Ninety percent of light incident on a certain piece of glass passes through it. How much light passes through two pieces of this glass? A) 80% B) 81% C) 85% D) 89% E) 90% Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Law of Reflection 27) Refraction occurs when light passing from one medium to another A) changes frequency. B) changes speed. C) loses energy. D) reflects inward. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Refraction

28) Refraction results from differences in light's A) frequency. B) incident angles. C) speed. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Refraction 29) Light refracts when traveling from air into glass because of a change in light's A) intensity. B) frequency. C) speed. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Refraction 30) Light travels fastest in A) warm air. B) cool air. C) a vacuum. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Refraction 31) When a light ray in air enters water at 15° from the normal, it A) always bends toward the normal. B) always bends away from the normal. C) sometimes bends towards or away from the normal. D) does not bend. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Refraction 32) When a light ray passes at a non-90° angle from water into air, it A) bends toward the normal. B) bends away from the normal. C) travels much slower. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Refraction

33) When light passes through common windowpane, its angle of emergence is A) usually less than its angle of incidence. B) always less than its angle of incidence. C) the same as its angle of incidence. D) usually more than its angle of incidence. E) always more than its angle of incidence. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Refraction 34) A mirage is a result of atmospheric A) reflection. B) refraction. C) scattering. D) dispersion. E) aberrations. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Refraction 35) The twinkling of the stars is a result of atmospheric A) reflection. B) refraction. C) scattering. D) dispersion. E) aberrations. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Refraction 36) Refraction causes the bottom of a swimming pool to appear A) farther down than it actually is. B) closer to the surface than it actually is. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Refraction 37) The average speed of light is greatest in A) red glass. B) orange glass. C) green glass. D) blue glass. E) same in all of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Refraction 8 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

38) In which material does light travel fastest? A) glass B) water C) plastic D) air E) same for all Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Refraction 39) Atmospheric refraction makes the daylight hours a bit A) longer. B) shorter. C) longer in summer but shorter in winter. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Refraction 40) When a pulse of white light is incident on a glass prism, the first color to emerge is A) red. B) orange. C) green. D) violet. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Refraction 41) A fish above the surface of water will see better in air if it has goggles that are A) tinted blue. B) hemispherical. C) filled with water. D) extremely shiny. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Refraction 42) Stars twinkle when seen from Earth. When seen by an astronaut on the Moon, stars A) twinkle more. B) twinkle less. C) don't twinkle. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Refraction

43) The Sun's elliptical shape at sunset can be adequately explained by A) Fermat's principle. B) the law of refraction. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Refraction 44) If the speed of light in a sphere is 2 × 108 m/s, its index of refraction is A) 0.50. B) 0.67. C) 1.0. D) 1.5. E) 2.0. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Refraction 45) Stephanie dips a glass rod into vegetable oil. The submerged part of the rod can't be seen because A) refraction is unbent before light gets to your eye. B) both the oil and glass have the same index of refraction. C) of internal reflection. D) light has different speeds in the oil and glass. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Refraction 46) When spearing a fish with a regular spear, to compensate for refraction, throw your spear A) directly at the sighted fish. B) above the sighted fish. C) below the sighted fish. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Refraction 47) To "spear" a red fish with a red laser beam and compensate for refraction, aim your laser A) directly at the sighted fish. B) above the sighted fish. C) below the sighted fish. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Refraction

48) To "spear" a blue fish with a red laser beam and compensate for refraction, aim your laser A) directly at the sighted fish. B) above the sighted fish. C) below the sighted fish. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Refraction 49) To send a beam laser-light beam to a space station just above the atmosphere near the horizon, aim your laser A) above your line of sight. B) below your line of sight. C) along your line of sight. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Refraction 50) The index of refraction for crown glass, common in eyeglasses, is 1.52. The index of refraction of a particular plastic lens is 1.76. Light bends more in the A) crown glass. B) plastic lens. C) same speed in each. D) need more information Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Refraction 51) A person who sees more clearly under water without eyeglasses or a facemask is A) nearsighted. B) farsighted. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Refraction 52) When light is refracted, there is a change in its A) frequency. B) wavelength. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Refraction

53) When a colored light in air shines on water and is refracted, its wavelength A) shortens. B) remains unchanged. C) lengthens. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Refraction 54) When a colored light in air shines on water and is refracted, its frequency A) decreases. B) remains unchanged. C) increases. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Refraction 55) The Moon's redness during a lunar eclipse is due to A) light of lower frequencies reflected from the Moon. B) excess infrared radiation. C) an optical illusion. D) refracted light from Earth's sunrises and sunsets. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Refraction 56) A person standing waist-deep in a swimming pool appears to have short legs because of light A) reflection. B) absorption. C) interference. D) diffraction. E) refraction. Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Cause of Refraction 57) Light of different colors in a vacuum travel at A) different speeds. B) the same speed. C) the same speed in both a vacuum and all materials. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Cause of Refraction

58) Light of different colors in a glass prism travel at A) different speeds. B) the same speed. C) the same speed in prisms and all materials. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Cause of Refraction 59) Which are consequences of different speeds of light in different media? A) mirages B) rainbows C) brilliant colors of diamonds D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Cause of Refraction 60) If a fish looks upward at 45° to a pond's water's surface, it will see A) the pond's bottom. B) the sky and possibly some tall surroundings. C) only the water's surface. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Cause of Refraction 61) As monochromatic light passes from air to glass and back to air, changes occur in its A) wavelength. B) speed. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Cause of Refraction 62) A mirage occurs when light travels faster A) near the ground than higher up. B) in less dense air than more dense air higher up. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Cause of Refraction

63) A mirage occurs for road surfaces that are most often A) hot. B) cold. C) wet. D) hard. E) snowy. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Cause of Refraction 64) When sunlight from air enters water, light that refracts most is A) red. B) orange. C) green. D) violet. E) all refract the same amount Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Cause of Refraction 65) Rainbows exist because light is A) reflected. B) refracted. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Dispersion and Rainbows 66) A single raindrop illuminated by sunshine disperses A) a single color. B) mainly light of mid-frequency colors. C) all the colors of the rainbow. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Dispersion and Rainbows 67) Rainbows are not usually seen as complete circles because A) the ground is usually in the way. B) they are actually elliptical. C) they have no bottom part. D) rain drops are not perfectly round. E) rainbows are actually arched shaped. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Dispersion and Rainbows 14 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

68) When a rainbow is seen as a complete circle from an airplane, the airplane's shadow is A) in the center of the rainbow. B) in the lower part of the rainbow. C) in the upper part of the rainbow. D) totally outside the rainbow. E) nowhere, for there is no shadow. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Dispersion and Rainbows 69) The secondary rainbow is dimmer than the primary rainbow mainly because A) its colors are inverted. B) it is larger, and its energy is spread over more area. C) it is farther from the viewer. D) it simply has less energy than the primary bow. E) of an extra reflection and refraction in the drops. Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Dispersion and Rainbows 70) A primary rainbow is brighter than a secondary rainbow because A) sunlight reaching it is more intense. B) there is one less reflection inside the water drops. C) larger drops produce primary rainbows. D) the secondary bow is a dim reflection of the primary rainbow. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Dispersion and Rainbows 71) If you view a rainbow out your window while riding in a train, you'll see that A) the rainbow can only be seen while you're moving slowly or at rest. B) the rainbow moves along with you. C) you soon pass by it, leaving it where you first saw it. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Dispersion and Rainbows

72) The critical angle for a transparent material is the angle at and beyond which all light within the material at its upper surface is A) refracted. B) reflected. C) absorbed. D) dispersed. E) diffused. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Total Internal Reflection 73) When you are beneath the surface of water and looking upward, light from above is seen A) within a cone of 96°. B) at angles beyond a cone of 96°. C) at any angle if the surface is smooth. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Total Internal Reflection 74) Which is a useful property of a prism? A) internally reflects 100% of incident light B) changes directions of light in a variety of ways C) re-inverts images D) all the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Total Internal Reflection 75) When a light beam emerges from water into air, light speed A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains the same. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Total Internal Reflection 76) The critical angle is least in A) glass. B) water. C) diamond. D) vacuum. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Total Internal Reflection

77) A diver shines light upward to the surface of a smooth pond at 20° to the normal. Most light passes into the air above while the part that reflects back into the water makes an angle to the normal of A) less than 20°. B) 20°. C) more than 20°. D) all refracts, none reflects. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Total Internal Reflection 78) If a fish in a pond looks upward at 50° to the normal, it will see A) the pond's bottom. B) the sky and possibly some tall surroundings. C) only the water's surface. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Total Internal Reflection 79) At night an underwater scuba diver aims a flashlight beam toward the surface at 15° to the normal. Upon emerging into the air, the beam angle will be A) less than 15°. B) 15°. C) more than 15°. D) impossible to predict. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Total Internal Reflection 80) The refraction of light in a diamond is greater for A) long-wavelength light. B) short-wavelength light. C) both refract the same Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Total Internal Reflection 81) In optical fibers of uniform density, light actually A) curves in a direction parallel to the central axis of the fiber. B) travels in straight-line segments. C) travels along the outer surface of the fiber. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Total Internal Reflection 17 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

82) Optical fibers are commonly used by A) surgeons. B) mechanics. C) engineers. D) aviators. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Total Internal Reflection 83) The type of lens that spreads parallel light is a A) converging lens. B) diverging lens. C) combination of converging-diverging lens. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Lenses 84) The type of lens that brings parallel light rays together is a A) converging lens. B) diverging lens. C) combination of converging-diverging lens. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Lenses 85) Which of the following can be projected onto a viewing screen? A) a real image B) a virtual image C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Lenses 86) A "burning glass" used to concentrate sunlight in a tiny spot is a A) converging lens. B) diverging lens. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Lenses

87) Your vision is sharpest when your pupil is A) dilated. B) constricted. C) same either way Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Lenses 88) The image in a pinhole camera is A) always inverted. B) sometimes inverted. C) always right-side up. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Lenses 89) When the tiny hole in a pinhole camera is made larger, the image is A) brighter but less clear. B) clearer. C) right-side up. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Lenses 90) A pinhole cameras has no lens. The tiny pinhole opening insures that rays of light from different parts of an object A) overlap. B) don't overlap. C) bend to a focus. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Lenses 91) Small openings between leaves in a tree act as pinholes. The round spots of light cast on the ground below are images of A) the Sun. B) the openings themselves. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Lenses

92) In a converging lens, objects infinitely far away are focused A) in front of the focal point. B) at the focal point. C) beyond the focal point. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Lenses 93) The image of the "infinitely-far-away" Sun produced by a converging lens appears A) between the lens and the focal point. B) at the focal point. C) beyond the focal point. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Lenses 94) Sunlight passing through a pinhole in a piece of card casts a solar image on the ground. If the card is held so the image exactly covers a coin, measurements will show you could fit 110 coins between the image and the card. This further tells you A) 110 Suns would fit between the top of the card and the Sun. B) that this activity is useful for estimating the Sun's diameter. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Lenses 95) Magnification by a lens would be greater if light A) propagated instantaneously. B) traveled faster in glass than it does. C) traveled slower in glass than it does. D) beams spread less. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Lenses 96) Magnification is greater with a lens having a A) high index of refraction. B) low index of refraction. C) same in each Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Lenses

97) Light travels slower in a lens having a A) high index of refraction. B) low index of refraction. C) same in each Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Lenses 98) When taking a photo of a nearby flower, your camera lens should be set A) closer than one focal length from the photosensitive surface. B) farther than one focal length from the photosensitive surface. C) to one focal length from the photosensitive surface. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Lenses 99) Chromatic aberration is a consequence of different colors in a lens having different A) aberrations. B) frequencies. C) energies. D) critical angles. E) speeds. Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Lens Defects 100) Chromatic aberration is absent in A) converging lenses B) diverging lenses. C) front surface plane mirrors. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Lens Defects 101) An image of the American flag cast by a simple lens finds red and blue colors at slightly different distances from the lens. The color closest to the lens is A) red. B) blue. C) both at the same place Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Lens Defects

102) If you cover half a camera lens with opaque tape, the images produced will be A) cut in half. B) only dimmer. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Lens Defects

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 29 Light Waves 29.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) According to Huygens' principle, every point on a wave A) is a diffraction source. B) behaves as a source of new waves. C) is the superposition of every other part of the wave. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Huygens' Principle 2) Secondary wavelets spread from a wave with A) reduced speed. B) an unchanging speed. C) an increased speed. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Huygens' Principle 3) Huygens' principle applies mainly to A) refraction of waves in a medium. B) reflection of waves. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Huygens' Principle 4) The fanning out of waves upon passing through an opening is more pronounced through A) small openings. B) large openings. C) same for each D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Huygens' Principle

5) Plane waves incident upon a barrier that pass through a small opening A) continue as plane waves. B) fan out. C) converge. D) become polarized. E) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Huygens' Principle 6) Diffraction is most closely related to A) refraction. B) reflection. C) interference. D) polarization. E) dispersion. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Diffraction 7) Diffraction from foghorns is best if the waves being diffracted are A) long. B) short. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Diffraction 8) Diffraction is evident when a wave passes A) through a small opening. B) the edge of an object. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Diffraction 9) What can exist in the same place at the same time? A) two large boulders B) two tiny boulders C) two waves D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Diffraction 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) Waves diffract the most when their wavelength is A) short. B) long. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Diffraction 11) Radio waves that diffract more around small buildings are A) AM. B) FM. C) both diffract equally Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Diffraction 12) A dolphin perceives greater detail by emitting sounds of A) lower frequency. B) higher frequency. C) greater intensity. D) greater speed. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Diffraction 13) For viewing tiny objects in a microscope, diffraction is A) helpful. B) a hindrance. C) not a factor. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Diffraction 14) For radio reception in city buildings, diffraction is A) helpful. B) a hindrance. C) not a factor. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Diffraction

15) A razor blade nicely shows diffraction fringes when illuminated with A) ultraviolet light. B) monochromatic light. C) sunlight. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Diffraction 16) The device that spreads light into its component colors in a spectroscope is a A) prism. B) diffraction grating. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Diffraction 17) Diffraction is least when illumination is with A) red light. B) blue light. C) an electron beam D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Diffraction 18) Superposition of waves can produce A) reinforcement. B) cancellation. C) partial cancellation. D) all the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Superposition and Interference 19) The superposition of identical waves affects A) amplitude. B) wavelength. C) speed. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Superposition and Interference 4 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) Interference is a property of A) light waves. B) sound waves. C) water waves. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Superposition and Interference 21) Monochromatic light is light of a single A) wavelength. B) frequency. C) color. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Superposition and Interference 22) Thomas Young's two-source interference patterns demonstrate the A) particle nature of light. B) wave nature of light. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Superposition and Interference 23) When waves from a pair of closely-spaced slits arrive in phase A) a bright fringe is produced. B) a dark fringe is produced. C) both bright and dark fringes are produced. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Superposition and Interference 24) When waves from a pair of closely-spaced slits arrive out of phase A) a bright fringe is produced. B) a dark fringe is produced. C) both bright and dark fringes are produced. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Superposition and Interference 5 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

25) Newton's rings illustrate A) refraction. B) reflection. C) dispersion. D) polarization. E) interference. Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Superposition and Interference 26) Newton's rings will be closer together if illuminated with A) red light. B) blue light. C) white light. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Superposition and Interference 27) Light from two closely-spaced stars cannot produce a steady interference pattern due to A) incoherence. B) the inherent instability of the atmosphere. C) their different radial distances. D) their non-point like natures. E) closely spaced stars not producing interference patterns. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Superposition and Interference 28) Successive bright fringes in an interference pattern result from A) equal-length distances from the slits. B) distance from the slits successively increasing one wavelength at a time. C) destructive interference. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Superposition and Interference 29) In the double-slit experiment, fringes are more widely spaced when illumination is with monochromatic A) low-frequency light. B) high-frequency light. C) polarized light. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Superposition and Interference 6 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

30) Iridescent colors in the pearly luster of an abalone shell are due to A) refraction. B) diffraction. C) dispersion. D) polarization. E) interference. Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Thin-Film Interference 31) Colors seen when gasoline forms a thin film on water illustrate A) refraction. B) reflection. C) dispersion. D) polarization. E) interference. Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Thin-Film Interference 32) Interference colors in a soap bubble is evidence that the soap film A) has two reflecting surfaces. B) is thin. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Thin-Film Interference 33) When long-wavelength light is seen in the interference colors of a soap bubble, the wavelength being cancelled is relatively A) long. B) short. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Thin-Film Interference 34) When you view color in a soap film with sunlight in back of you, a friend on the other side of the soap film likely sees A) the same color. B) a different color. C) only your head. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Thin-Film Interference 7 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

35) Consider the interference colors in a film of gasoline on a wet street. The water provides a A) means of spreading the gasoline into a thin film. B) means of slowing the rapid evaporation of gasoline. C) chemical bond with the gasoline. D) second reflecting surface. E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Thin-Film Interference 36) The production of interference colors requires A) a reflecting surface. B) at least two reflecting surfaces. C) a medium with a relatively low index of refraction. D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Thin-Film Interference 37) A thin film appears yellow when illuminated with white light. The color being cancelled by destructive interference is A) red. B) green. C) white. D) blue. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Thin-Film Interference 38) A thin film appears cyan when illuminated with white light. The color being cancelled by destructive interference is A) red. B) green. C) white. D) blue. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Thin-Film Interference

39) A thin film appears magenta when illuminated with white light. The color being cancelled by destructive interference is A) red. B) green. C) white. D) blue. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Thin-Film Interference 40) Interference effects are less visible for thick films because the reflected waves A) from the bottom surface are too dim. B) become too dispersed. C) are out of phase with one another. D) are too displaced to interfere. Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Thin-Film Interference 41) Polarization is a property of A) transverse waves. B) longitudinal waves. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Polarization 42) Which of the following is a property of light waves and NOT of sound waves? A) frequency B) wavelength C) amplitude D) polarization E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Polarization

43) An inventor proposes to equip an office with a polarized source of background music and polarizing earplugs for non-listeners. His idea is A) a good one that provides personal choice. B) too expensive. C) bothersome. D) nonsense because sound cannot be polarized. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Polarization 44) Some double-pane airplane windows darken when the inner pane is rotated. The panes are A) thin films. B) Polaroid filters. C) optical fibers. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Polarization 45) The vibrational direction of an electron and the plane of polarization of the light it emits A) are the same. B) are at right angles to each other. C) may or may not be at right angles to each other. D) are independent of each other. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Polarization 46) Light travels through non-cubic transparent crystals A) in mutually perpendicular directions. B) without refracting. C) and becomes polarized in the process. D) at different speeds along different optic axes. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Polarization 47) Light emitted by the Sun is A) polarized. B) nonpolarized. C) sometimes polarized. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Polarization

48) The glare seen from water is largely A) horizontally polarized. B) vertically polarized. C) unpolarized. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Polarization 49) Polaroid sunglasses reduce much glare by polarization axes that are A) vertical. B) horizontal. C) at right angles to each other. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Polarization 50) Three-dimensional viewing normally involves A) parallax. B) two-eye vision. C) an ability to see 'around' things. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Polarization 51) Parallax is evident when you view objects A) with one eye. B) with both eyes. C) with one or both eyes. D) in a completely dark room. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Polarization 52) The polarization axes of glasses for 3-D viewing are A) vertical. B) horizontal. C) at right angles to each other. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Polarization

53) A painting looks less flat when viewed with A) one eye. B) both eyes. C) Polaroid glasses. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Polarization 54) Light will NOT pass through a pair of Polaroids when their axes are A) 45 degrees to each other. B) parallel. C) perpendicular. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Polarization 55) Light will pass through a pair of Polaroids when their axes are A) 45 degrees to each other. B) parallel. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Polarization 56) For a pair of Polaroids with axes at 45 degrees to each other A) light will not pass. B) light that passes is dimmer than for a parallel orientation. C) another Polaroid is necessary for any light to pass. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Polarization 57) A pair of crossed Polaroids will transmit light A) of sufficiently long wavelengths. B) that itself is polarized. C) if a third Polaroid at about 45 degrees is inserted between the two. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Polarization

58) An ideal Polaroid will transmit 50% of incident sunlight. How much light will be transmitted by two ideal Polaroids oriented with their axes parallel to each other? A) 0% B) 50% C) 100% D) between 0% and 50% E) between 50% and 100% Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Polarization 59) The amount of light from an incandescent lamp that is transmitted through an ideal Polaroid filter is half, and through a classroom Polaroid filter is A) less than half. B) more than half. C) half. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Polarization 60) Because of absorption, a Polaroid will actually transmit 40% of incident unpolarized light. Two such Polaroids with their axes aligned will transmit A) 0%. B) 40%. C) 100%. D) between 0% and 40%. E) between 40% and 100%. Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Polarization 61) Three-dimensional viewing was popular in the past with slide projectors. If the slides for left and right positions in the stereo projector are duplicates of each other A) depth can be seen. B) no depth can be seen. C) only parallax can be seen. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Polarization

62) The function of polarizing filters in viewing 3-D slides or movies is to provide each eye A) the ability to see parallax. B) a balanced intensity. C) an independent left or right-eye view. D) a stereoscopic view. E) with light polarized at right angles to each other. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Polarization 63) Holograms employ the principle of A) diffraction. B) interference. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Holography 64) A hologram is simply a A) complex diffraction grating. B) thin sheet of non-cubic transparent crystals. C) pair of semi-crossed polarization filters. D) thin photographic film with microscopic images over the entire surface. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Holography 65) Magnification can be accomplished with a hologram when viewed with light that has a A) longer wavelength than the original light. B) shorter wavelength than the original light. C) neither for holograms cannot be magnified. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Holography

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 30 Light Emission 30.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Light from a lit match originates with accelerating A) electrons. B) protons. C) neutrons. D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Light Emission 2) Physicists find that the energy states of atoms are A) discrete. B) circular. C) elliptical. D) chaotic. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Light Emission 3) A throbbing pulse of electromagnetic radiation is called a A) proton. B) photon. C) phototron. D) newtron. E) nooytron. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Excitation 4) A radio wave and a visible light wave differ only in A) frequency. B) energy per photon. C) both of these D) none of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Excitation

5) The energy of a photon depends on its A) speed. B) frequency. C) amplitude. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Excitation 6) The highest frequency of visible light is A) red. B) green. C) blue. D) violet. E) all the same Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Excitation 7) Which color of visible light carries the most energy per photon? A) red B) green C) blue D) violet E) all the same Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Excitation 8) The energy per photon in ultraviolet light is greater than in A) radio waves. B) microwaves. C) visible light. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Excitation 9) Compared to the energy of a photon of red light, the energy of a photon of blue light is A) less. B) more. C) the same. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Excitation 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) The best visible safety light in the darkroom that will emit low-energy photons is A) violet. B) blue. C) green. D) any of the above E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Excitation 11) An atom is excited when one or more of its electrons A) vibrates. B) is boosted into higher energy levels. C) undergoes a frequency change. D) becomes frantic. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Excitation 12) An excited atom is an atom A) with excess vibration. B) with one or more displaced electrons. C) with more protons than electrons. D) that is frantic. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Excitation 13) Light is emitted when an electron A) is boosted to a higher energy level. B) makes a transition to a lower energy level. C) accelerates to a medium energy level. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Excitation 14) Electrons with greater potential energies relative to the atomic nucleus are A) inner electrons. B) outer electrons. C) both the same Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Excitation

15) An atom that absorbs a certain amount of energy can then emit A) only a photon of that energy. B) a photon of any energy. C) a photon of the same or higher energy. D) a photon of the same or lower energy. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Excitation 16) The energy of a photon is related to A) the energy given to the atom that emits it. B) the energy transition in de-excitation. C) its frequency. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Excitation 17) Neon atoms in a glass tube can be excited A) once per atom. B) repeatedly. C) by infrared light. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Excitation 18) Colors seen in the flames of a burning log originate with the variety of A) multi-layered incandescent surfaces. B) electron transitions in various atoms. C) temperatures. D) absorbing gases between the log and the viewer. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Excitation 19) The air that you breathe doesn't emit visible light indicates that most of the electrons of its atoms are A) in the ground state. B) excited to metastable states. C) relatively cool. D) electrically neutral. E) relatively far apart. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Excitation 4 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) Green light emitted by excited mercury vapor corresponds to an energy transition in the mercury atom. A more energetic transition might emit A) red light. B) blue light. C) white light. D) any of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Excitation 21) When we say energy levels in an atom are discrete, we mean that their energy levels are well defined and A) separate from one another. B) separated by equal energy increments. C) continuous. D) private. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Excitation 22) If the energy levels in the neon atom were not discrete, neon signs would glow A) red. B) white. C) blue. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Excitation 23) Spectral lines take the shape of vertical lines because A) the light is vertically polarized. B) they are images of a vertical slit. C) the energy levels in the atom are parallel to one another. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Emission Spectra 24) If light in a spectroscope passed through round holes instead of slits, spectral lines would appear A) as thicker lines. B) round. C) dimmer. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Emission Spectra 5 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

25) If light in a spectroscope were passed through a star-shaped opening instead of a thin slit, spectral lines would appear as A) lines of poorer resolution. B) stars. C) blobs of no definite shape. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Emission Spectra 26) Discrete spectral lines are observed when excitation occurs in a A) solid. B) liquid. C) gas. D) superconductor. E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Emission Spectra 27) Comparing the light from a glowing tube of neon gas and the beam of a helium-neon laser, there is a greater number of spectral lines in light from the A) neon gas tube. B) laser beam. C) both about the same Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Emission Spectra 28) The Doppler effect due to motion of excited atoms in a glowing gas tends to make the spectral lines slightly A) thicker. B) thinner. C) more numerous. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Emission Spectra 29) The spectral lines are more distinct when viewed in a mercury vapor lamp under A) high pressure. B) low pressure. C) same for each Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Emission Spectra

30) The spectrum of a mercury vapor lamp under very high pressure appears as that from A) an incandescent source. B) a laser. C) an ultraviolet source. D) a gas other than mercury. E) a monochromatic source. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Emission Spectra 31) As a solid is gradually heated, it first glows A) red. B) yellow. C) white. D) blue. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Incandescence 32) Isolated bells ring clearly, while bells crammed in a box have a muffled ring. This is analogous to light emitted by A) a laser. B) a fluorescent lamp. C) an incandescent lamp. D) a phosphorescent source. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Incandescence 33) As the filament of a lamp is heated it changes A) temperature. B) color. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Incandescence

34) Which of the following continually emits electromagnetic radiation? A) insects B) radio antennas C) red-hot coals D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Incandescence 35) Sometimes a flashlight filament glows red instead of white, which indicates a lowness of A) current in the filament. B) filament temperature. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Incandescence 36) If a certain object emits visible waves rather than infrared waves its temperature is A) higher. B) lower. C) the same, temperature doesn't make any difference. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Incandescence 37) If wavelengths of emitted light become longer, the energy per photon of light A) increases. B) remains constant. C) decreases. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Incandescence 38) An object heated to twice the absolute temperature emits radiation A) with twice the peak frequency. B) in the ultraviolet part of the spectrum. C) in the radio wave part of the spectrum. D) with longer wavelengths. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Incandescence

39) A violet-hot star emits radiation having about twice the peak frequency of radiation from a red-hot star. The surface temperature of the hotter star is about A) half that of the cooler star. B) twice that of the cooler star. C) the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Incandescence 40) The radiation curve for a red hot fire-place poker peaks in the A) infrared region. B) green region. C) ultraviolet region. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Incandescence 41) Light at the peak frequency of an incandescent lamp depends on the A) amount of electrical energy transformed. B) rate of atomic and molecular vibrations. C) voltage applied to the lamp. D) electrical resistance of the lamp. E) transparency of glass. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Incandescence 42) The radiation curve for a blue hot star peaks in the A) infrared region. B) red region. C) yellow region. D) ultraviolet region. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Incandescence 43) The hottest star is the one that glows A) red. B) white. C) blue. D) need more information Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Incandescence

44) If the radiation curve for an incandescent lamp filament peaks in the green region, the object would appear A) red. B) yellow. C) green. D) blue. E) white. Answer: E Diff: 3 Topic: Incandescence 45) If a material is heated until it is green hot, then A) it would liquefy immediately. B) it would be hotter than white hot. C) its molecules would be vibrating at nearly identical rates. D) it would be a strong absorber of red light. E) energy conservation would be violated. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Incandescence 46) Helium was first discovered in the A) laboratory. B) upper atmosphere. C) Sun. D) island of Helios, in Greece. E) byproducts of nuclear fusion. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Absorption Spectra 47) The dark lines in the Sun's spectrum are due to light that is A) absorbed by the Sun's atmosphere. B) emitted by the Sun. C) reflected by the Sun. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Absorption Spectra

48) Fraunhofer lines are apparent in A) absorption spectra. B) emission spectra. C) Doppler shifts. D) a variety of energy levels. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Absorption Spectra 49) Iron absorption lines that occur in the solar spectrum indicate that iron exists in the solar A) atmosphere. B) surface. C) interior. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Absorption Spectra 50) An atom that emits light of a certain frequency is A) not likely to absorb that same frequency. B) an absorber of light of the same frequency. C) fluorescent. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Absorption Spectra 51) For absorption spectra to exist A) the light source must be a gas. B) partially absorbent material must exist between the light source and the spectroscope slit. C) the spectroscope must be equipped with an absorption cell. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Absorption Spectra 52) Astronomers can tell whether a light source approaches or recedes from Earth by A) its temperature. B) its change in temperature. C) its absorption spectra. D) the Doppler effect. E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Absorption Spectra 11 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

53) Astronomers can detect the spin rates of stars by A) their temperature. B) changes in temperature. C) absorption spectra. D) the Doppler effect. E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Absorption Spectra 54) Fluorescent minerals on display in museums are illuminated with A) infrared light. B) ultraviolet light. C) often either or both D) none of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Fluorescence 55) The white light emitted by a fluorescent lamp is provided by the A) mercury vapor in the lamp. B) phosphors on the inner surface of the lamp. C) high temperature of the glowing gas. D) filtering effect of the glass tubing. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Fluorescence 56) The greater proportion of energy immediately converted to heat rather than light occurs in A) a fluorescent lamp. B) an incandescent lamp. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Fluorescence 57) In the process of fluorescence, the input is high-frequency light and the output is A) higher-frequency light. B) equally high-frequency light. C) lower-frequency light. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Fluorescence 12 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

58) In the process of fluorescence, part of the input energy immediately A) becomes internal energy with the rest as lower-frequency light. B) cascades to excite other atoms in the material. C) is emitted as higher-frequency light and the rest as lower-frequency light. D) excites electrons to metastable states. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Fluorescence 59) Some minerals glow when illuminated with ultraviolet light because A) ultraviolet photons boost atomic electrons in the mineral to higher energy states. B) ultraviolet photons have high energy. C) of selective reflection. D) of selective transmission. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Fluorescence 60) A paint pigment that absorbs red light and gives off blue light A) is fluorescent. B) is phosphorescent. C) is used in lasers. D) is polarized. E) doesn't exist. Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Fluorescence 61) A paint pigment that absorbs blue light and gives off red light A) is fluorescent. B) is phosphorescent. C) can be both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Fluorescence

62) The absorption of an infrared photon that excites an atom to emit a green photon A) occurs in plants. B) occurs in the process of phosphorescence. C) would violate the law of energy conservation. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Fluorescence 63) The major difference between phosphorescent and fluorescent materials is A) a time delay between excitation and de-excitation. B) a difference in brightness. C) the greenish color of phosphorescence. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Phosphorescence 64) Which light-emitting process is characterized by an afterglow? A) incandescence. B) fluorescence. C) phosphorescence. D) resonance. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Phosphorescence 65) Atoms can be excited by A) thermal agitation. B) electron impact. C) photon impact. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Phosphorescence

66) Some light switches that glow in the dark after the lights are turned off employ A) fluorescence. B) resonance. C) incandescence. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Phosphorescence 67) A watch dial that continues to glow after a week in the dark is almost certainly A) fluorescent. B) phosphorescent. C) polarized. D) radioactive. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Phosphorescence 68) Argon rather than air is the gas used in incandescent bulbs because A) it produces a pleasing bluish glow. B) oxygen in air oxidizes the lamp filament. C) argon is relatively plentiful. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Lamps 69) To keep chickens in a chicken coop warm, the kind of lamp to use is A) fluorescent. B) CFL. C) incandescent. D) LED. E) all about the same Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Lamps 70) Which of these lamps has no mercury content? A) fluorescent lamp B) CFL C) incandescent lamp D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Lamps 15 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

71) The lamp most similar to the common fluorescent lamp is the A) LED. B) CFL. C) incandescent lamp. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Lamps 72) Which of these lamps employs semi-conductor technology? A) incandescent lamp B) fluorescent lamp C) CFL D) LED Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Lamps 73) Which light source is more energy-efficient? A) a fluorescent lamp B) an incandescent lamp C) a CFL D) an LED Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Lamps 74) White-light LEDs employ A) phosphors. B) white-emitting diodes. C) extra-high electrical barriers. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Lamps 75) Compared to the energy put into a laser, the energy of the laser beam is A) usually much more. B) much less. C) the same. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Lasers

76) Light from a laser is A) monochromatic. B) in phase. C) coherent. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Lasers 77) The efficiency of classroom-demonstration lasers is typically A) about one percent. B) about ten percent. C) about twenty percent. D) more than twenty percent. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Lasers 78) A helium-neon laser beam in a vacuum is A) red. B) orange. C) white. D) invisible. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Lasers 79) The red laser beam from a helium-neon laser corresponds to a spectral line of A) helium. B) neon. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Lasers 80) A laser cannot emit more energy than is put into it. But in instances where stored energy can be released in a very short time, the laser A) puts out more energy than is put into it. B) has a greater power output than power input. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Lasers 17 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 31 Light Quanta 31.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) A lump of energy associated with light is called a A) quantum. B) photon. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Quantization and Planck's Constant 2) A quantum of light is called A) a proton. B) a neutron. C) an electron. D) a neutrino. E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Quantization and Planck's Constant 3) The first to be credited with the idea that energy was quantized was A) Max Planck. B) Albert Einstein. C) both Planck and Einstein at about the same time. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Quantization and Planck's Constant 4) The first to be credited with the idea that light is quantized was A) Max Planck. B) Albert Einstein. C) both Planck and Einstein at about the same time. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Quantization and Planck's Constant

5) The ratio of the energy of a photon to its frequency is A) π. B) Planck's constant. C) photon speed. D) photon wavelength. E) unknown. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Quantization and Planck's Constant 6) The ratio of a photon's energy to its frequency is A) its speed. B) its wavelength. C) its amplitude. D) Planck's constant. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Quantization and Planck's Constant 7) In the equation E = hf, the symbol f stands for A) wave frequency. B) wavelength. C) rate at which photons are emitted. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Quantization and Planck's Constant 8) In the equation E = hf, the symbol E stands for A) excitation. B) efficiency. C) energy. D) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Quantization and Planck's Constant 9) In the equation E = hf, the symbol h stands for A) half-life. B) momentum as it pertains to light. C) energy per photon wavelength. D) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Quantization and Planck's Constant 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) Applying E = hf to photon emission from an atom, the symbol E represents the energy A) of the emitted photon. B) difference between atomic energy levels producing the photon. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Quantization and Planck's Constant 11) Which has more energy per photon? A) red light B) blue light C) both the same Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Quantization and Planck's Constant 12) The photons having greatest energy are those of A) infrared. B) red light. C) green light. D) blue light. E) ultraviolet. Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Quantization and Planck's Constant 13) The photons having least energy are those of A) infrared. B) red light. C) green light. D) blue light. E) ultraviolet. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Quantization and Planck's Constant 14) Which of the following is quantized? A) energy B) radiation C) number of atoms in a gold bar D) electric charge E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Quantization and Planck's Constant 3 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) Two pulses of light, one red and one blue, have the same energy. The pulse with the greater number of photons is the A) red pulse. B) blue pulse. C) both the same Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Quantization and Planck's Constant 16) Hypothetically, if Planck's constant were smaller, atoms would be A) larger. B) smaller. C) no different in physical size. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Quantization and Planck's Constant 17) The phenomenon easily explained only in terms of the particle model of light is A) reflection. B) refraction. C) photoelectric effect. D) diffraction. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Photoelectric Effect 18) The photoelectric effect supports a A) wave nature of light. B) particle nature of light. C) both of these D) none of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Photoelectric Effect 19) Which experiment best illustrates the particle-like nature of light? A) photoelectric effect B) double-slit experiment C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Photoelectric Effect

20) In the photoelectric effect, the brighter the illuminating light on a photosensitive surface, the greater the A) number of ejected electrons. B) velocity of ejected electrons. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Photoelectric Effect 21) The greater the frequency of the illuminating light on a photosensitive surface, the greater the A) number of ejected electrons. B) velocity of ejected electrons. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Photoelectric Effect 22) A photosensitive surface is illuminated with both blue and violet light. The light that causes the greater number of ejected electrons is A) blue light. B) violet light. C) both eject equal numbers. D) need more information Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Photoelectric Effect 23) If we increase the brightness of violet light shining on a photosensitive surface we also increases the A) number of electrons ejected per second. B) kinetic energy of the ejected electrons. C) threshold frequency. D) time lag between the absorption of blue light and ejection of electrons. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Photoelectric Effect

24) When ejected electrons from a photosensitive surface are confined within the material we have a A) photovoltaic cell. B) light-emitting diode. C) both of these D) none of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Photoelectric Effect 25) The physics underlying photovoltaic solar cells is A) electron diffraction. B) photon capture. C) the photoelectric effect. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Photoelectric Effect 26) To study the energy of photoelectrons we measure A) the potential difference required to stop them. B) the distance traveled in a given time. C) the time taken to travel a given distance. D) their temperature. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Photoelectric Effect 27) In photoelectric emission, the work function is the minimum A) frequency of light to produce emission. B) energy required to eject an electron from the surface. C) energy an emitted electron possesses. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Photoelectric Effect 28) Taking the work function into account, electrons ejected from a photosensitive material have A) less kinetic energy than the absorbed photon's energy. B) more kinetic energy than the absorbed photon's energy. C) kinetic energy equal to the absorbed photon's energy. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Photoelectric Effect

29) Light behaves primarily as a wave when it A) travels from one place to another. B) interacts with matter. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: The Double-Slit Experiment 30) Light behaves primarily as a particle when it A) travels from one place to another. B) interacts with matter. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: The Double-Slit Experiment 31) The wave-particle duality applies to A) photons. B) electrons. C) protons D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: The Double-Slit Experiment 32) After passing through double slits, electrons make a pattern on a screen that A) shows which slit each electron has passed through. B) resembles a pattern that waves make. C) has two peaks of intensity. D) has a single wide peak of intensity. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Double-Slit Experiment 33) Very low-intensity light passing through a double slit produces a pattern that A) is built up one photon at a time. B) reveals which slit each photon passed through. C) changes only in intensity as time passes, not in detailed structure. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: The Double-Slit Experiment

34) Which produces an interference pattern when directed through two suitably spaced slits? A) light B) sound C) electrons D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: The Double-Slit Experiment 35) According to Louis de Broglie, a material particle has A) particle properties. B) wave properties. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Particles as Waves: Electron Diffraction 36) The wavelength of a particle relates to its A) momentum. B) energy levels. C) quantum number. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Particles as Waves: Electron Diffraction 37) An electron microscope makes use of A) short wavelengths of light. B) the wave nature of electrons. C) electron attraction and repulsion. D) electron current. E) the inertia of electrons. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Particles as Waves: Electron Diffraction

38) Which can undergo diffraction? A) photons. B) electrons. C) positrons. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Particles as Waves: Electron Diffraction 39) Two photons that have the same wavelength also have the same A) frequency. B) energy. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Particles as Waves: Electron Diffraction 40) If a proton and an electron have the same momentum, the longer wavelength belongs to the A) proton. B) electron. C) both the same Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Particles as Waves: Electron Diffraction 41) A bullet and a proton have the same momentum. Which has the longer wavelength? A) the bullet B) the proton C) both the same Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Particles as Waves: Electron Diffraction 42) An electron and a proton are traveling at the same speed. Which has the longer wavelength? A) the electron B) the proton C) both the same D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Particles as Waves: Electron Diffraction

43) An electron and a baseball move at the same speed. Which has the longer wavelength? A) the electron B) the baseball C) both the same D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Particles as Waves: Electron Diffraction 44) Which of the following has the longer wavelength? A) a low-energy electron B) a high-energy electron C) both the same D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Particles as Waves: Electron Diffraction 45) What is conserved when a photon collides with an electron? A) momentum B) energy C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Particles as Waves: Electron Diffraction 46) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle is A) noticeable only for submicroscopic particles. B) a fundamental principle in quantum mechanics. C) predominant in the atomic domain. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Uncertainty Principle 47) Quantum uncertainties are most predominant for simultaneously measuring the speed and location of A) a baseball. B) a spitball. C) an electron. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Uncertainty Principle 10 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

48) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle applies to A) momentum and position. B) energy and time. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Uncertainty Principle 49) According to Heisenberg's uncertainty principle, the more we know about a particle's momentum, the less we know about its A) kinetic energy. B) mass. C) speed. D) location. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Uncertainty Principle 50) In Heisenberg's formula, △p △x≥ h, the △ symbolizes A) increase in. B) decrease in. C) change in. D) uncertainty of. E) certainty of. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Uncertainty Principle 51) In Heisenberg's formula, △p △x≥ h, the h symbolizes A) Planck's constant. B) an average value of Planck's constant. C) the peak value of Planck's constant. D) Planck's constant divided by 2π. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Uncertainty Principle

52) The formula △p △ x≥ h tells us that the product of △p and △x cannot be A) less than h B) greater than h C) equal to h Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Uncertainty Principle 53) The Heisenberg uncertainty principle states that A) Planck's constant sets a limit on accuracy of measurements. B) we can't simultaneously measure exactly both the position and momentum of a particle. C) we can't simultaneously measure exactly a particle's energy and time having that energy. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Uncertainty Principle 54) According to your textbook, popular confusion is lessened when applying Heisenberg's uncertainty principle by heeding the distinction between A) momentum and energy. B) energy and time. C) passive observation and probing. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Uncertainty Principle 55) In casually observing a cup of tea you are A) affecting its temperature. B) affecting its location. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Uncertainty Principle 56) In placing a cool thermometer into a hot cup of tea you likely are A) affecting its temperature. B) draining energy from the tea. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Uncertainty Principle

57) When you adjust a telescope to get a clear image of Saturn's rings, there is a perceptible interaction between A) you and the telescope. B) you and Saturn's rings. C) both of these D) neither these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Uncertainty Principle 58) When you adjust a telescope to get a clear image of Saturn's rings, in a small but measurable way you alter A) the telescope. B) Saturn's rings. C) both of these D) neither these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Uncertainty Principle 59) By casually glancing at a scene on your TV you are A) affecting the image. B) participating in the action on the screen. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Uncertainty Principle 60) By adjusting a TV image with a remote you can A) affect only the image. B) participate with the action on the screen. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Uncertainty Principle 61) Casually sneaking a quick peek at a photo in your mobile phone A) adds energy to the photo. B) subtracts energy from the photo. C) brings you into an observer-observed relationship that intrigues some science types. D) changes the phone itself E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Uncertainty Principle 13 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

62) At the beach you see a friend facing away from you. Keeping quiet you can cause her to turn around by A) staring intently at her back. B) tossing small pebbles at her back. C) although staring will be less effective, both will affect a turn-around. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Uncertainty Principle 63) A radiation detector measures radioactivity decay of a piece of radium by catching and counting alpha particles it emits. Making this measurement affects the A) radiation rate of the piece of radium. B) alpha particles that are caught and counted. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Uncertainty Principle 64) The more we know about a particle's position, the less we know about its A) speed. B) momentum. C) kinetic energy. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Uncertainty Principle 65) The uncertainty principle tells us that the more information one has about the energy of an electron, the less certain one is about A) its position. B) the time it has that energy. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Uncertainty Principle

66) According to quantum physics, measuring the temperature of lava from a distant volcano by photographing its color with a telescopic camera measurably affects the lava's temperature. A) True B) False C) both of these depending on circumstances Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Uncertainty Principle 67) The idea of complementarity is evident in the A) dual nature of light. B) notion of opposites being components of a whole. C) yin-yang symbol of Eastern cultures. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Complementarity 68) According to the principle of complementarity, wavelike and particle-like properties of light A) only slightly contradict each other. B) very much contradict each other. C) make up a wholeness that better describes nature. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Complementarity 69) When Niels Bohr was knighted for his contributions to physics, he chose for his coat of arms A) a model of the planetary atom. B) a rendition of an energy-level diagram. C) the yin-yang symbol of Eastern culture. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Complementarity 70) A key feature of the theory of chaos is A) unpredictability. B) very small initial differences can lead to very large eventual differences. C) the randomness of molecular motion makes prediction difficult. D) even orderly systems are seen to be disorderly when carefully studied. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Complementarity

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 32 The Atom and the Quantum 32.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) By scattering alpha particles from gold, Rutherford showed the atomic nucleus to be very A) small relative to the atom. B) massive relative to the mass of an electron. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Discovery of the Atomic Nucleus 2) When Rutherford directed a stream of alpha particles at a gold foil, most particles A) bounced back. B) continued through. C) stopped. D) spiraled. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Discovery of the Atomic Nucleus 3) When Rutherford directed a stream of alpha particles at a gold foil, some particles A) bounced back. B) continued through the foil. C) deflected at a variety of angles. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Discovery of the Atomic Nucleus 4) Alpha particles are normally repelled by atomic nuclei because A) their closeness with atomic nuclei violates quantum rules. B) of oppositely-directed forces. C) they both have the same sign of electric charge. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Discovery of the Atomic Nucleus

5) Some alpha particles pass through gold foil with very little deflection mainly because the A) electric field is zero inside the foil. B) atoms of gold are mostly empty space. C) net charge of the gold atoms is zero. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Discovery of the Atomic Nucleus 6) Some alpha particles fired at a gold foil bounced backward as a result of A) reflection from the surfaces of gold atoms. B) electrostatic repulsion by gold nuclei. C) electrostatic repulsion by electrons within gold atoms. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Discovery of the Atomic Nucleus 7) The first to be credited for assigning the terms positive and negative to electricity was A) William Crookes. B) J.J. Thomson. C) Robert Millikan. D) Benjamin Franklin. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Discovery of the Electron 8) Credit for research in our knowledge of the electron includes A) William Crookes. B) J.J. Thomson. C) Robert Millikan. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Discovery of the Electron

9) A beam of electrons is employed in A) a gold-foil experiment. B) a cathode-ray tube. C) a LED television screen. D) an oil-drop experiment. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Discovery of the Electron 10) Both electrons and protons have equal-magnitude A) mass. B) charge. C) energy. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Discovery of the Electron 11) A beam of electrons can be deflected by a A) magnetic field. B) electric field. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Discovery of the Electron 12) The beam in a cathode-ray tube is composed of A) photons. B) electrons. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Discovery of the Electron 13) Millikan was able to stop falling oil droplets in their paths by A) opposing electric and gravitational forces. B) magnetic repulsion. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Discovery of the Electron

14) When Millikan observed oil drops hovering at rest in his chamber, he knew that A) an upward electric force balanced the weight of each drop. B) each drop was in mechanical equilibrium. C) the net force on each drop was zero. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Discovery of the Electron 15) What did Millikan measure in his oil-drop experiment? A) the electric charge of an electron B) the mass of an electron C) the mass of oil drops D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Discovery of the Electron 16) Credit for research in our knowledge of atomic spectra includes A) Johann Jacob Balmer. B) Johannes Rydberg. C) Walter Ritz. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Atomic Spectra: Clues to Atomic Structure 17) The spectral lines of atomic spectra are A) images of the slit in a spectroscope. B) orderly, and even predictable. C) as an identity of atoms as fingerprints are of people. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic Spectra: Clues to Atomic Structure 18) Spectral lines for an element are often in the A) infrared region. B) ultraviolet region. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic Spectra: Clues to Atomic Structure 4 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

19) When an electron drops from a higher energy level to a lower one, energy is emitted. In comparison, how much energy is required to reverse the process, going from the lower level to the higher level? A) less energy B) the same energy C) more energy Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic Spectra: Clues to Atomic Structure 20) An excited hydrogen atom is capable of emitting radiation of A) a single frequency. B) three frequencies. C) many more than three frequencies. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Atomic Spectra: Clues to Atomic Structure 21) When an electron de-excites from the third quantum level to the second, and then to the ground state, two photons are emitted. The sum of the emitted frequencies equals the frequency of the single photon that would be emitted if de-excitation were from the third to A) the second level. B) the ground state. C) any other level. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic Spectra: Clues to Atomic Structure 22) The rule stating that the sum of two emitted frequencies in an atomic spectrum equals a third frequency is attributed to the physicist A) Niels Bohr. B) Max Planck. C) W. Ritz. D) Einstein Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic Spectra: Clues to Atomic Structure

23) The rule stating that the sum of two emitted frequencies in an atomic spectrum equals a third frequency is consistent with A) momentum conservation. B) energy conservation. C) Planck's constant. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic Spectra: Clues to Atomic Structure 24) An excited atom decays to its ground state and emits a photon of green light. If instead the decay is to an intermediate state, then the light emitted could be A) red. B) violet. C) blue. D) any of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic Spectra: Clues to Atomic Structure 25) An excited atom decays to its ground state and emits a photon of red light. If instead the decay is to an intermediate state, then the light emitted could be A) red. B) violet. C) blue. D) any of these E) none of these Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic Spectra: Clues to Atomic Structure 26) What was discovered in atomic spectra by physics pioneers Balmer, Rydberg, and Ritz? A) unexplained randomness B) mathematical order C) all atoms are about the same size D) electrons occupy well-defined shells about the atomic nucleus E) electrons behave as standing waves Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Atomic Spectra: Clues to Atomic Structure

27) The Ritz combination principle states that the sum of the A) frequencies of two lines in a spectrum often equal the frequency of a third line. B) energies associated with two lines in a spectrum often equal the energy associated with a third line. C) energy transitions of quantum jumps is consistent with the conservation of energy. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Atomic Spectra: Clues to Atomic Structure 28) The Bohr model of the atom is akin to a A) miniature solar system. B) blob of plum pudding, where raisins represent electrons. C) central heavy ball with lighter balls connected by springs. D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Bohr Model of the Atom 29) A problem with the Bohr model of the atom is that electrons circling the nucleus A) accelerate and should continuously emit radiation. B) lose energy and should spiral into the nucleus. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Bohr Model of the Atom 30) Why electrons don't spiral into atomic nuclei is best explained by their A) particle nature. B) wave nature. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Bohr Model of the Atom 31) Physicists today consider the Bohr model of the atom to be A) an accurate picture of a hydrogen atom. B) totally useless — of historical interest only. C) oversimplified, but nevertheless useful. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Bohr Model of the Atom

32) According to the Bohr model, an electron in an excited state of hydrogen can emit A) at most a single photon until the atom re-excites. B) several photons in a series of transitions to a lower state. C) a continuous stream of light. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Bohr Model of the Atom 33) Two spectral lines in a spectrum have frequencies of 2.0 x 10 14 Hz and 4.6 x 1014 Hz. A higher-frequency line in the same spectrum likely has a frequency of A) 2.6 x 1014 Hz. B) 6.6 x 1014 Hz. C) 13.2 x 1014 Hz. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Bohr Model of the Atom 34) The discreteness of energy levels is best understood by considering the electrons to be A) like tiny planets orbiting a sun. B) attached to the nucleus by massless springs. C) much less massive than the nucleus. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Explanation of Quantized Energy Levels: Electron Waves 35) The discreteness of orbits of electrons in an atom are due to A) wave interference. B) momentum conservation. C) electric charge quanta D) all the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Explanation of Quantized Energy Levels: Electron Waves

36) The finding that electrons in an atom occupy a volume much greater than the volume of the nucleus is best explained by A) electromagnetic forces. B) angular momentum conservation. C) relative sizes of electrons and nuclei. D) the wave nature of the electron. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Explanation of Quantized Energy Levels: Electron Waves 37) According to de Broglie, constructive interference occurs when an orbiting wave A) reinforces itself B) doesn't reinforce itself. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Explanation of Quantized Energy Levels: Electron Waves 38) According to de Broglie, destructive interference occurs when an orbiting wave A) reinforces itself B) doesn't reinforce itself. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Explanation of Quantized Energy Levels: Electron Waves 39) Quantization of electron energy states in an atom is better understood in terms of the electron's A) wave nature. B) particle nature. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Explanation of Quantized Energy Levels: Electron Waves 40) Discrete radii and energy states of atoms were first explained by electrons circling the atom in an integral number of A) wave frequencies. B) de Broglie wavelengths. C) diffraction patterns. D) high-speed particles. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Explanation of Quantized Energy Levels: Electron Waves 9 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

41) A beam of electrons has A) wave properties. B) particle properties. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Explanation of Quantized Energy Levels: Electron Waves 42) The finding that electrons occupy discrete orbits in an atom was first explained by the A) quantization of electric charge. B) small mass of the electron. C) circumference of each orbit being an integral multiple of an electron wavelength. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Explanation of Quantized Energy Levels: Electron Waves 43) In the electron-wave model of the atom, the orbit of an electron in the ground state contains A) a single wavelength. B) multiple wavelengths. C) even number quanta. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Explanation of Quantized Energy Levels: Electron Waves 44) In the electron-wave model of the atom, an electron in the second energy level contains A) a single wavelength. B) two wavelengths. C) any number of wavelengths. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Explanation of Quantized Energy Levels: Electron Waves 45) A stable electron orbit cannot exist if its circumference is A) a single wavelength. B) 2 wavelengths. C) 2.5 wavelengths. D) any of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Explanation of Quantized Energy Levels: Electron Waves

46) The probability cloud for the electron in the hydrogen atom has an average radius A) quite different from the radius predicted by Bohr. B) in agreement with the orbital radius of Bohr. C) as yet not accurately measured. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Explanation of Quantized Energy Levels: Electron Waves 47) Compared with the wavelengths of visible light, the wavelengths of matter waves in atoms are relatively A) long. B) short. C) neither, for all are the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Explanation of Quantized Energy Levels: Electron Waves 48) A hypothetical atom has four distinct energy states. Assuming all transitions are possible, the number of spectral lines this atom can produce is A) 5. B) 6. C) 7. D) 8. E) more than 8. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Explanation of Quantized Energy Levels: Electron Waves 49) The Schrödinger equation is most useful for describing A) submicroscopic particles. B) microscopic particles. C) macroscopic particles. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Quantum Mechanics 50) The thing that "waves" in the Schrödinger equation is a A) particle's position. B) particle's momentum. C) wave function. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Quantum Mechanics 11 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

51) Using the Schrödinger equation, scientists can calculate A) probabilities. B) the position of an electron. C) the velocity of an electron. D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Quantum Mechanics 52) Unlike Bohr, Schrödinger viewed electrons as A) fixed in position. B) traveling in circles. C) tiny bullets. D) waves. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Quantum Mechanics 53) The correspondence principle applies to A) theories of submicroscopic phenomena. B) theories of macroscopic phenomena. C) all good theories. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: The Correspondence Principle 54) A new theory conforms to the correspondence principle when it A) corresponds to all theories in nature. B) updates the essence of the old theory. C) connects two or more theories. D) accounts for verified results of the old theory. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: The Correspondence Principle 55) According to the correspondence principle, a new theory must A) overlap and agrees where the old theory works. B) account for confirmed results from the old theory. C) predict the same correct results as the old theory. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: The Correspondence Principle

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 33 Atomic Nucleus and Radioactivity 33.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) X-rays may be correctly regarded as A) high frequency sound waves. B) high frequency radio waves. C) both of these D) none of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: X-rays and Radioactivity 2) X-rays are emitted by way of A) ionizing radiation. B) transitions within an atom's innermost electrons. C) transitions within the atomic nucleus. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: X-rays and Radioactivity 3) X-rays are similar to A) alpha rays. B) beta rays. C) gamma rays. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: X-rays and Radioactivity 4) The sources of X-rays are A) electron clouds. B) the atomic nucleus. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: X-rays and Radioactivity

5) The high temperature of Earth's interior is mainly due to A) great internal pressure. B) friction, as plates move past one another. C) the Earth's natural heat. D) radioactive processes. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: X-rays and Radioactivity 6) A sample of highly-radioactive material is somewhat A) warmer than the environment. B) cooler than the environment. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: X-rays and Radioactivity 7) Which is heated in its interior by nuclear processes? A) Sun B) Earth C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: X-rays and Radioactivity 8) The sources of both X-rays and gamma rays are A) electron clouds. B) the atomic nucleus. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Alpha, Beta, and Gamma Rays 9) Gamma rays are emitted by way of A) ionizing radiation. B) transitions within an atom's innermost electrons. C) transitions within the atomic nucleus. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Alpha, Beta, and Gamma Rays

10) Which radiation has no association with electric charge? A) alpha B) beta C) gamma D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Alpha, Beta, and Gamma Rays 11) Alpha particles and beta particles are deflected by a magnetic field in A) opposite directions. B) perpendicular directions to each other. C) the same direction. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Alpha, Beta, and Gamma Rays 12) Which of these will penetrate into lead? A) alpha particle B) beta particle C) gamma ray. D) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Alpha, Beta, and Gamma Rays 13) Which wavelengths are shortest? A) light ray B) X-ray C) gamma ray Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Alpha, Beta, and Gamma Rays 14) Rays with the shortest wavelengths have the A) highest frequencies and energies. B) lowest frequencies and energies. C) lowest frequencies but highest energies. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Alpha, Beta, and Gamma Rays

15) Which will NOT bend when moving in a magnetic field? A) alpha particle B) beta particle C) gamma ray D) all bend the same Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Alpha, Beta, and Gamma Rays 16) Which experiences the greatest electrical force in an electric field? A) alpha particle B) beta particle C) electron D) gamma ray E) all the same Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Alpha, Beta, and Gamma Rays 17) Which experiences the least electrical force in an electric field? A) alpha particle B) beta particle C) electron D) gamma ray E) all the same Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Alpha, Beta, and Gamma Rays 18) Radioactivity in the world is something A) relatively new. B) as old as the world itself. C) to become frantic about. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Environmental Radiation 19) Radiation dosage is commonly measured in A) rads. B) rems. C) joules. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Environmental Radiation

20) Radiation dosages based on potential damage is in A) rads. B) rems. C) joules. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Environmental Radiation 21) Human damage is usually highest for radiation by A) beta particles. B) alpha particles. C) either of the above D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Environmental Radiation 22) The radiation source closest to us originates in A) medical treatments. B) all kinds of power plants. C) our own bodies. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Environmental Radiation 23) Most of the radioactivity we personally encounter originates from A) fallout from testing of nuclear weapons. B) nuclear power plants. C) medical X-rays. D) the natural environment. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Environmental Radiation 24) The natural background radiation we personally encounter is A) a trace amount. B) about a quarter. C) about half. D) more than half. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Environmental Radiation

25) The main source of Earth's natural heat is A) molten-hot lava. B) pressure on Earth's interior. C) radioactivity in Earth's interior. D) solar energy in the form of fossil fuels. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Environmental Radiation 26) Cosmic rays originate in the A) Earth's interior. B) Earth's upper atmosphere. C) Sun. D) cosmos. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Environmental Radiation 27) The most harmful radiations are those that A) kill living cells. B) damage living cells. C) don't encounter cells. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Environmental Radiation 28) The helium in a child's balloon is composed of A) former alpha-particle. B) former beta particles. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Environmental Radiation 29) What must you do to get away from the harmful effects of radioactivity? A) live at the North or South Poles. B) go deep beneath Earth's surface. C) go to the Moon. D) die. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Environmental Radiation

30) A nucleon is either a A) positron or an electron. B) proton or an electron. C) neutron or an electron. D) proton or a neutron. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: The Atomic Nucleus and the Strong Force 31) The mass of an atomic nucleon is nearly A) twice that of an electron. B) four times that of an electron. C) a thousand times that of an electron. D) two thousand times that of an electron. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: The Atomic Nucleus and the Strong Force 32) Which is the strongest fundamental force? A) gravitational force. B) electric force. C) nuclear strong force. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: The Atomic Nucleus and the Strong Force 33) Electric forces within an atomic nucleus tend to A) hold it together. B) push it apart. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: The Atomic Nucleus and the Strong Force 34) Once an alpha particle is outside the nucleus it is A) free to wander about the surrounding material. B) quickly bound to a neighboring nucleus. C) electrostatically repelled. D) radioactive. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: The Atomic Nucleus and the Strong Force

35) Generally speaking, the larger a nucleus is, the greater its A) stability. B) instability. C) neither stability nor instability Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: The Atomic Nucleus and the Strong Force 36) A quark is a fundamental particle A) that makes up a nucleon. B) much smaller than a nucleon. C) not composed of smaller parts. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: The Atomic Nucleus and the Strong Force 37) When the nucleus of an atom emits an alpha particle, the atom's atomic number A) decreases. B) remains unchanged. C) increases. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: The Atomic Nucleus and the Strong Force 38) When the nucleus of an atom emits a beta particle, the atom's atomic number A) decreases. B) remains unchanged. C) increases. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: The Atomic Nucleus and the Strong Force 39) When the nucleus of an atom emits only a gamma ray, the atom's atomic number A) decreases. B) remains unchanged. C) increases. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: The Atomic Nucleus and the Strong Force

40) Nuclear stability is related to the balance between A) attracting and repelling forces in the nucleus. B) positive and negative ionic forces. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: The Atomic Nucleus and the Strong Force 41) Which nucleus has the greatest neutron/proton ratio? A) iron B) gold C) thorium D) uranium Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: The Atomic Nucleus and the Strong Force 42) The radioactive half-life of a material is the time for A) half of an original quantity of the material to decay. B) its decay rate to reduce to half. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Radioactive Half-Life 43) The half-life of a radioactive substance is affected by A) pressure. B) temperature. C) age. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Radioactive Half-Life 44) For an isotope with a half-life of one day, at the end of two days the amount that remains is A) none. B) one-half. C) one-quarter. D) one-eighth. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Radioactive Half-Life 9 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

45) For an isotope with a half-life of one day, at the end of three days the amount that remains is A) none. B) one-half. C) one-quarter. D) one-eighth. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Radioactive Half-Life 46) For 1 gram of radioactive material that has a half-life of one year, after 4 years the original radioactive material left will be A) 0 g. B) 1/2 g. C) 1/4 g. D) 1/8 g. E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Radioactive Half-Life 47) The half-life of carbon 14 is 5730 years. If a 1-gram sample of old carbon is 1/8 as radioactive as 1-gram of a current sample, then the age of the old sample is about A) 716 years. B) 11,500 years. C) 17,200 years. D) 22,900 years. E) 46,000 years. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Radioactive Half-Life 48) A certain radioactive isotope placed near a Geiger counter registers 160 counts per minute. Eight hours later, the counter registers 10 counts per minute. What is the half-life of the isotope? A) 8 hours B) 6 hours C) 4 hours D) 2 hours E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Radioactive Half-Life

49) A certain radioactive isotope placed near a Geiger counter registers 120 counts per minute. If the half-life of the isotope is one day, what will be the count rate at the end of four days? A) 30 counts/min B) 15 counts/min C) 10 counts/min D) 7.5 counts/min E) 5 counts/min Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Radioactive Half-Life 50) The operation of a cloud chamber relies on A) magnetization. B) evaporation. C) acceleration. D) polarization. E) condensation. Answer: E Diff: 1 Topic: Radiation Detectors 51) Which device is used primarily to detect nuclear radiation? A) synchrotron B) linear accelerator C) cyclotron D) scintillation counter E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Radiation Detectors 52) A Geiger counter placed 1 meter from a point source of radiation registers 100 counts per minute. If the Geiger counter is moved closer, half-way to the source, the counting rate will be A) 25 counts/min. B) 50 counts/min. C) 100 counts/min. D) 200 counts/min. E) 400 counts/min. Answer: E Diff: 3 Topic: Radiation Detectors

53) A magnetic field is applied to a cloud chamber for the purpose of A) attracting electrons. B) repelling electrons. C) attracting protons. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Radiation Detectors 54) A device that shows the bending of particle trails in liquid hydrogen is a A) streamer chamber. B) spark chamber. C) bubble chamber. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Radiation Detectors 55) Some charged particles in a bubble chamber are seen to move in spirals due to A) decreasing magnetic field. B) decreasing electric charge. C) perspective and parallax. D) energy dissipation. Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Radiation Detectors 56) When an element undergoes nuclear transmutation, the result is a completely different A) isotope of the same element. B) ion of the same element. C) element. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Transmutation of Elements 57) Pure elements can be transformed into entirely different elements by A) radioactive decay. B) transmutation. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Transmutation of Elements

58) Radium (A = 88) transmutes to radon (A = 86) by A) beta emission. B) alpha emission. C) gamma emission. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Transmutation of Elements 59) In a smoke detector americium (A = 95) transmutes to neptunium (A = 93) by A) beta emission. B) alpha emission. C) gamma emission. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Transmutation of Elements 60) In which of these processes is an element transformed into a completely different element? A) alpha decay B) beta decay C) both of these D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Transmutation of Elements 61) When uranium emits a beta particle, the result is A) a uranium ion. B) a different isotope of uranium. C) the first transuranic element. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Transmutation of Elements 62) When uranium emits an alpha particle, the result is A) thorium. B) protactinium. C) neptunium. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Transmutation of Elements

63) When radium (A = 88) emits an alpha particle, the resulting nucleus has atomic number A) 86. B) 88. C) 90. D) 92. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Transmutation of Elements 64) When U-238 emits an alpha particle, the resulting nucleus has A) 90 protons. B) 91 protons. C) 92 protons. D) 93 protons. E) 94 protons. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Transmutation of Elements 65) When U-239 emits a beta particle, the resulting nucleus has A) 90 protons. B) 91 protons. C) 92 protons. D) 93 protons. E) 94 protons. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Transmutation of Elements 66) When thorium (A = 90) emits a beta particle, the resulting nucleus has atomic number A) 88. B) 89. C) 90. D) 92. E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Transmutation of Elements 67) When a nucleus emits a positron, its atomic number A) increases by 1. B) decreases by 1. C) doesn't change. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Transmutation of Elements 14 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

68) When a nucleus emits a beta particle, its atomic number A) increases by 1. B) decreases by 1. C) increases by 2. D) decreases by 2. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Transmutation of Elements 69) An element will decay to an element with higher atomic number in the periodic table if it emits A) a beta particle. B) a gamma ray. C) a proton. D) an alpha particle. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Transmutation of Elements 70) When the hydrogen isotope tritium-3 emits a beta particle, it becomes an isotope of A) hydrogen. B) helium. C) lithium. D) carbon. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Transmutation of Elements 71) In 1919 Rutherford performed the first historic artificial transmutations of A) hydrogen to helium. B) nitrogen to oxygen. C) carbon 12 to carbon 14. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Transmutation of Elements

72) Artificially induced radioactive elements generally have A) long half-lives. B) short half-lives. C) no half-lives. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Transmutation of Elements 73) A hydrogen atom that emits an alpha particle is a routine occurrence in A) the environment. B) laboratories. C) unlikely. D) impossible. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Transmutation of Elements 74) In order for an atom to decay to an element that is one greater in atomic number, it can emit A) one alpha particle and 3 beta particles. B) one positron and 2 beta particles. C) one beta particle. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Transmutation of Elements 75) The resulting atomic number of an element that emits 1 alpha particle, 1 positron, and 3 beta particles is A) decreased by 2. B) decreased by 1. C) unchanged. D) increased by 1. E) increased by 2. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Transmutation of Elements 76) Free protons and neutrons are spewed throughout the atmosphere by A) nitrogen decay. B) carbon decay. C) the bombardment of cosmic rays upon atoms. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Radiometric Dating 16 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

77) Carbon-14 is produced in the atmosphere principally by A) plants and animals. B) cosmic-ray bombardment. C) nitrogen bombardment. D) photosynthesis. E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Radiometric Dating 78) Which of the following isotopes is radioactive? A) Carbon-12 B) Carbon-14 C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Radiometric Dating 79) There is a greater proportion of carbon-14 in A) new bones. B) old bones. C) same in each Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Radiometric Dating 80) Carbon dating requires that the object being tested contain A) organic material. B) inorganic material. C) charcoal. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Radiometric Dating 81) All deposits of natural uranium contain appreciable amounts of A) iron. B) lead. C) gold. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Radiometric Dating

82) Part of a wooden ancient ship is found to be 1/3 as radioactive as wood freshly cut from a tree. The age of the ship is likely about A) one-third of carbon-14's half-life. B) three times carbon-14's half-life. C) more than three times carbon-14's half-life. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Radiometric Dating 83) The fate of the world's uranium supply is to eventually become A) alpha and beta particles. B) iron. C) lead. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Radiometric Dating

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 34 Nuclear Fission and Fusion 34.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The balance between electrical and nuclear strong forces is more tenuous in A) light elements. B) middle size elements like iron. C) heavier elements. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fission 2) Electrical forces inside a nucleus contribute to nuclear A) stability. B) instability. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fission 3) The conversion of mass to energy of other forms via nuclear fission is A) less than 1%. B) about 10%. C) about 20%. D) about 30%. E) more than 30%. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fission 4) Compared with the mass of a uranium nucleus before splitting, the split fragments have A) less mass. B) the same mass. C) more mass. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fission

5) When a lump of uranium is broken into smaller pieces, the total surface area A) decreases. B) remains the same. C) increases. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fission 6) Which will leak more neutrons? A) two separate lumps of uranium. B) the same two lumps stuck together. C) both the same Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Nuclear Fission 7) In the fissioning of uranium, a chain reaction is caused by A) the kinetic energy of the decay products. B) ejected neutrons. C) alpha particles. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fission 8) A chain reaction progresses when the average number of liberated neutrons that cause further fissions is A) zero. B) less than one. C) one or more. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fission 9) Compared with protons, neutrons are more effective nuclear bullets in nuclear reactions since they have A) slightly greater mass than a proton. B) no charge. C) a wider cross-section than a proton. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Nuclear Fission

10) Uranium-235, uranium-238 and uranium-239 are different A) elements. B) ions of the same element. C) isotopes of the same element. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fission 11) A sphere of pure U-235 will explode if it is A) hot enough. B) shaken hard enough. C) big enough. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fission 12) The term critical mass refers to the least amount of mass that can A) sustain a chain reaction. B) squelch a chain reaction. C) explode when rapidly brought against a neighboring piece. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fission 13) If a critical mass of fissionable material in a spherical shape is flattened like a hamburger, it will be A) supercritical. B) subcritical. C) as critical. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Nuclear Fission 14) When two pieces of fissionable material are assembled, the average distance that a neutron travels before escaping will A) decrease. B) increase. C) be the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Nuclear Fission

15) The idea in fission-bomb design is to A) form a supercritical mass from one or more subcritical masses. B) bring neutrons and subcritical uranium together. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Nuclear Fission 16) In gaseous form at the same temperature, the average speed of U-238 compared to the speed of U-235 is A) less. B) more. C) the same. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Nuclear Fission 17) Which has the smaller critical mass; U-235 that releases 2.5 neutrons per fission, or Pu-239 that releases 2.7 neutrons per fission? A) U-235 B) Pu-239 C) both would have the same critical mass. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Nuclear Fission 18) Nuclear reactors that produce consumer power in present times are powered by A) fission. B) fusion. C) both fission and fusion. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fission Reactors 19) A nuclear power plant is very similar to A) nuclear bombs, but with more control. B) any conventional power plant, but with uranium as fuel. C) a photovoltaic solar cell power plant. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fission Reactors

20) The kinetic energy of fission fragments in a nuclear reactor A) superheats water and produces steam. B) converts to gamma-ray radiation. C) becomes radioactive pollution. D) converts directly to electricity. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fission Reactors 21) Control is maintained in a nuclear reactor by control rods that A) absorb excess neutrons. B) emit fast neutrons. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fission Reactors 22) The possible fate of a neutron in ordinary uranium metal is to A) cause fission of U-235 if present. B) escape the metal. C) be absorbed by U-238 without causing fission. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fission Reactors 23) The water that operates a fission-reactor turbine is A) not the same water that flows through the reactor. B) heated to high-pressure steam. C) without radioactivity. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Nuclear Fission Reactors 24) Two isotopes that undergo nuclear fission are A) U-235 and Pu-239. B) Th-238 and U-235. C) all of these D) none of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Nuclear Fission Reactors 5 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

25) Neutrons that will initiate the fission of U-235 require speeds that are A) less than average. B) about average. C) more than average. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fission Reactors 26) The function of graphite in the first atomic reactor was to A) slow fast neutrons. B) emit fast neutrons. C) moderate uranium isotopes. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fission Reactors 27) A neutron will more likely slow in speed if it bounces from a A) light-weight nucleus. B) nucleus of moderate mass. C) heavy nucleus. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Nuclear Fission Reactors 28) A neutron bouncing off a heavy nucleus loses speed. If it instead bounces off a light nucleus it loses A) less speed. B) more speed. C) the same amount of speed. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Nuclear Fission Reactors 29) Compared with a neutron bouncing off a carbon nucleus, a neutron bouncing off an iron nucleus loses A) less speed. B) more speed. C) the same amount of speed. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Nuclear Fission Reactors 6 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

30) Carbon was used in Fermi's first nuclear reactor to A) slow neutrons. B) increase the speed of neutrons. C) absorb neutrons. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Nuclear Fission Reactors 31) When neptunium emits a beta particle the result is A) a different isotope of neptunium. B) uranium. C) plutonium. D) lead. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: The Breeder Reactor 32) U-235 and Pu-239 are both A) radioactive isotopes. B) fissionable isotopes. C) heavier than lead. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: The Breeder Reactor 33) Although plutonium alone is chemically toxic, it is not toxic when A) oxidized. B) ionized. C) subcritical. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: The Breeder Reactor 34) What does a breeder reactor "breed?" A) more energy output than energy input B) fissionable isotopes from a non-fissionable isotopes C) more mass than it begins with D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: The Breeder Reactor 7 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

35) Reactions that take place in a breeder reactor change A) elements into different elements. B) molecules into different molecules. C) ions into different ions. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: The Breeder Reactor 36) If all the uranium in the world were exhausted, breeder reactors would be A) in greater demand. B) relics of a brief age. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: The Breeder Reactor 37) Plutonium is radioactively toxic A) in any form. B) although less toxic than radium. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: The Breeder Reactor 38) When a nucleus of U-238 absorbs a neutron and becomes U-239, a beta emission, then another beta emission results in A) Th-239. B) Pa-239. C) U-235. D) Pu-239. E) Pb-206. Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: The Breeder Reactor

39) Plutonium is extremely rare in natural ore deposits because it A) is artificially created. B) is chemically inert. C) is a gas at room temperature. D) has a tiny half-life compared with the age of Earth. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: The Breeder Reactor 40) The energy output of a typical nuclear reactor is via A) heating water to form steam. B) directing steam to a turbine. C) spinning a turbine to generate electricity. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Fission Power 41) The percentage of electricity from nuclear power generated in recent decades in the United States has been about A) 10%. B) 20%. C) 30%. D) 40%. E) more than 40% Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Fission Power 42) Relative to a fossil-fuel plant, a nuclear power plant produces A) more electricity. B) less heat and smoke. C) less pollution. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Fission Power

43) The disadvantages to fission power plants include A) radioactive waste disposal. B) production of plutonium for possible weapons proliferation. C) risk of accidental release of radioactivity. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Fission Power 44) The fact that more radioactive particles are spewed from coal-fired power plants than nuclear fission reactors is evidence that A) coal is more radioactive than uranium. B) coal-fired plants have less shielding. C) coal-fired plants are more numerous. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Fission Power 45) What is the central equation of mass-energy equivalence? A) W = Fd B) KE = ½ mv2 C) m = F/a D) E = mc2 Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Mass-Energy Equivalence 46) To pluck a nucleon from a nucleus requires A) work. B) kinetic energy. C) potential energy. D) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Mass-Energy Equivalence

47) The products of nuclear fission are radioactive due to their A) combustive natures. B) capacity to hold vast amounts of energy. C) greater neutron to proton ratio compared with stable nuclei in the same mass range. D) short half-lives. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Fission Power 48) A nucleon has more mass on average when it is A) inside the nucleus. B) removed from the nucleus. C) both the same Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Mass-Energy Equivalence 49) Which of these nuclei has the least mass? A) hydrogen B) iron C) lead D) uranium E) all the same Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Mass-Energy Equivalence 50) The nucleus that has the least mass per nucleon is A) hydrogen. B) iron. C) lead. D) uranium. E) plutonium. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Mass-Energy Equivalence 51) The nucleus that has the greatest mass per nucleon is A) hydrogen. B) iron. C) lead. D) uranium. E) plutonium. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Mass-Energy Equivalence 11 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

52) The nucleus having the most tightly bound nucleons is A) hydrogen. B) iron. C) lead. D) uranium. E) plutonium. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Mass-Energy Equivalence 53) Fissioning a lead nucleus would yield a net A) absorption of energy. B) release of energy. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Mass-Energy Equivalence 54) Compared with the sum of isolated-nucleon masses, their collective mass in a composite nucleus is A) more. B) less. C) the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Mass-Energy Equivalence 55) Various singly-ionized atomic nuclei of the same speed are directed into a magnetic field in a mass spectrometer where they are deflected and strike a detecting screen. The particles most strongly deflected are those of A) least mass. B) greatest mass. C) same for all Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Mass-Energy Equivalence 56) A mass spectrometer separates A) ions of different elements. B) different-mass ions of the same element. C) different-mass ions of the same speed. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Mass-Energy Equivalence 12 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

57) An important feature of the mass spectrometer is that A) all ions enter the device at equal speeds. B) ions of different masses bend differently. C) the greater an ion's mass, the wider its circular arc. D) a magnetic field exerts forces on moving charged particles. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Mass-Energy Equivalence 58) Energy released by the Sun results from the process wherein atomic nuclei A) break apart. B) combine. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fusion 59) The energy released in both fission and fusion is mainly in the form of A) kinetic energy of fragments. B) alpha radiation. C) beta radiation. D) gamma radiation. E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fusion 60) The nuclear process having by-products with least radioactivity is A) fission. B) fusion. C) about the same for both. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fusion 61) Between the processes of nuclear fission and fusion, radioactive by-products are more characteristic of nuclear A) fission. B) fusion. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fusion 13 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

62) According to the "energy valley" of the mass-per-nucleon versus atomic-number graph, the element with the least mass per nucleon is A) hydrogen. B) helium. C) iron. D) uranium. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fission 63) In both fission of uranium and fusion of hydrogen, mass A) decreases. B) remains constant. C) increases. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Nuclear Fission 64) Fissioning an iron nucleus would occur with A) absorption of energy. B) release of energy. C) neither absorption nor release of energy Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Nuclear Fission 65) In both fission and fusion, mass A) is created from energy of other forms. B) converts to kinetic energy. C) converts to gamma radiation. D) remains the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Nuclear Fusion 66) An element is changed into a completely different element in A) radioactive alpha decay. B) radioactive beta decay. C) nuclear fission. D) nuclear fusion. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Nuclear Fusion 14 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

67) When two light atoms fuse together, mass A) converts to kinetic energy. B) converts to high-energy gamma radiation. C) is created from energy of other forms. D) is gained. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Nuclear Fusion 68) Detonation of a fission-type uranium bomb begins by A) splitting uranium. B) pressing together pieces of uranium. C) igniting a small conventional bomb. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Nuclear Fusion 69) Detonation of a fusion-type hydrogen bomb begins by A) splitting uranium. B) pressing together pieces of uranium. C) igniting a fission bomb. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Nuclear Fusion 70) When U-235 undergoes fission, the total number of protons in the fragments is A) 90. B) 91. C) 92. D) 93. E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Nuclear Fission 71) If gold were used as nuclear fuel, it would be best A) fused. B) fissioned. C) either of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Nuclear Fusion 15 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

72) If oxygen were used as nuclear fuel, it would be best A) fused. B) fissioned. C) either of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Nuclear Fusion 73) Iron is a poor choice of nuclear fuel because it releases A) energy only when fused. B) energy only when fissioned. C) no energy when fused or fissioned. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Nuclear Fusion 74) Fissioning carbon would occur with A) absorption of energy. B) release of energy. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Nuclear Fission 75) Fusing two carbon nuclei would occur with A) absorption of energy. B) release of energy. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Nuclear Fusion 76) Fusing two iron nuclei would occur with A) absorption of energy. B) release of energy. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Nuclear Fusion

77) Compared with the energy produced by fissioning a gram of uranium, the energy produced by fusing a gram of deuterium is A) more. B) less. C) the same. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Nuclear Fusion 78) Deuterium and tritium are both A) forms of hydrogen. B) isotopes of the same element. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Controlling Fusion 79) Early 21st Century research in nuclear fusion uses A) laser beams. B) ultra-hot plasmas. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Controlling Fusion 80) Sustained energy output by fusion is a daily occurrence in A) military installations. B) breeder reactors. C) the Sun. D) Earth's interior. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Controlling Fusion 81) Earth's interior is warmed by ________ and Earth's surface is warmed by ________. A) radioactive processes; fusion in the Sun B) fission; fossil fuels C) volcanoes; solar energy D) terrestrial radiation; terrestrial radiation Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Controlling Fusion

82) The most abundant element in the universe is A) hydrogen. B) helium. C) lead. D) uranium. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Controlling Fusion

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 35 Special Theory of Relativity 35.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) The place from which motion is observed and measured is called A) a frame of reference. B) a starting point. C) an initial location. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Motion is Relative 2) To the surprise of Michelson and Morley, their interferometer experiment provided evidence that the speed of light is A) invariant. B) the same whether its source approaches or recedes. C) constant. D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Motion is Relative 3) The ether theory of light propagation is A) much used. B) incomplete, but still useful. C) unexplained. D) discredited. Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Motion is Relative 4) Einstein rejected the classical idea that space and time are A) two parts of a whole. B) connected to each other. C) independent of each other. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Motion is Relative 5) The speed of light is A) relative to the frame of reference from which it is measured. B) a speed approached but never quite reached by photons. C) constant for all observers. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Motion is Relative 1 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) What is special about the ratio distance traveled per unit of time? A) it is constant for light B) it is relative to a frame of reference C) distance traveled very much depends on time Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Motion is Relative 7) According to the special theory of relativity, all laws of nature are the same A) in all reference frames. B) for both linear or circular motion. C) in all uniformly moving reference frames. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Postulates of Special Relativity 8) How fast would a light beam appear to Einstein if he were traveling in the same direction at 90% of the speed of light? A) 0 B) c C) 0.1c D) 1.10c E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Postulates of Special Relativity 9) A postulate of special relativity is that the speed of light A) like all motion, is relative. B) for all observers is a constant. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Postulates of Special Relativity 10) According to Einstein, events that are simultaneous in one frame of reference A) are simultaneous in all frames of reference. B) are not simultaneous in other frames of reference. C) may or may not be simultaneous in other frames of reference. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Simultaneity

11) Two lightning bolts are seen to strike two distant locations at the same time. Seen from a different location, the two lightning bolts A) will also be seen at the same time. B) will not be seen at the same time. C) may or may not be seen at the same time. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Simultaneity 12) Event A occurs before event B in a certain frame of reference. In another frame of reference, event A could occur A) after event B. B) simultaneous with event B. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Simultaneity 13) When you run along the hall from one classroom to another you're moving through A) space. B) time. C) both of these D) none of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Spacetime and Time Dilation 14) All events and all things exist in "the spacetime continuum" with coordinates A) of distances in three dimensions. B) of time. C) both of these D) none of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Spacetime and Time Dilation 15) You and a friend can share the same space and time measurements when A) you are side by side at rest. B) you both are side by side moving at constant velocity. C) either of these D) none of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Spacetime and Time Dilation

16) An observer moving with a light clock in a spaceship sees a light flash bouncing up and down between parallel mirrors in 1 nanosecond. An observer at rest outside the spaceship sees the same up-and-down flash in A) 1 nanosecond also. B) less than 1 nanosecond. C) more than 1 nanosecond. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Spacetime and Time Dilation 17) The stretching out of time due to motion is called time A) stretching. B) dilation. C) contraction. D) warp. E) expansion. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Spacetime and Time Dilation 18) Compared to clocks in a stationary reference frame, clocks in a moving reference frame run A) slower. B) faster. C) at the same rate. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Spacetime and Time Dilation 19) Clocks on a spaceship moving at high speed relative to the Earth run more slowly when viewed from A) within the spaceship. B) Earth. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Spacetime and Time Dilation 20) The Lorentz factor, γ, A) is always greater than 1 for any speed greater than zero. B) lets the time-dilation equation be expressed t = γ t0. C) both of these D) none of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Spacetime and Time Dilation 4 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

21) The clock on the Big Ben Tower in London reads 12 noon. If you travel away from the clock at a very high speed and view it with a telescope, you would see A) run slower than a clock in your vehicle. B) run faster than a clock in your vehicle. C) be frozen at 12 noon. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Spacetime and Time Dilation 22) You look at the clock on the Big Ben Tower in London and it reads 12 noon. If you could hypothetically travel away from the clock at the speed of light and view it with a telescope, it would A) run slower than a clock in your vehicle. B) run faster than a clock in your vehicle. C) be frozen at 12 noon. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Spacetime and Time Dilation 23) According to the special theory of relativity, while traveling at very high speed your pulse rate A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains unchanged. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Spacetime and Time Dilation 24) We are actually looking into the past when we look at A) a distant star. B) our physics book. C) actually both of these D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Spacetime and Time Dilation 25) Harry takes a space voyage and returns to find his twin sister has aged more than he has. This is evidence that A) she has changed frames of reference. B) he has changed frames of reference. C) both have changed frames of reference. D) neither has changed frames of reference Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Spacetime and The Twin Trip 5 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

26) Suppose you and your sister travel at different speeds in space and you note a slowing of her clock. Compared with her clock your sister will notice that your clock runs A) faster. B) slower. C) the same. D) need more information Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Spacetime and The Twin Trip 27) According to relativity theory, if a space trip finds a son or daughter biologically older than their parents, then the space trip is taken by the A) son or daughter. B) parents. C) either of these D) neither, it can't be done. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Spacetime and The Twin Trip 28) When a moving spaceship emits regularly-spaced flashes of light, how frequently you see the flashes depends on the ship A) approaching you. B) receding from you. C) either of these D) none of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Spacetime and The Twin Trip 29) When a blinking light source moves relative to you, the speed of the light A) changes but the frequency of blinks remains constant. B) remains constant but the frequency of blinks can change. C) stays the same, as does the blinking frequency. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Spacetime and The Twin Trip 30) A light source blinks once per second in its own frame of reference. As you approach the blinking source, you observe the frequency of blinks to be A) less than 1 Hz. B) 1 Hz. C) more than 1 Hz. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Spacetime and The Twin Trip 6 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

31) A certain light source blinks once per second in its own frame of reference. As you recede from the blinking source, you observe the frequency of blinks to be A) less than 1 Hz. B) 1 Hz. C) more than 1 Hz. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Spacetime and The Twin Trip 32) A light source blinks with a certain frequency in its own frame of reference, and the speed of light in that frame is c. When the light source approaches you, you observe an increase in A) both speed of light and frequency of blinking. B) speed of light, but not frequency of blinking. C) frequency of blinking, but not speed of light. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Spacetime and The Twin Trip 33) If the frequency of blinks for a light source appears to double as the light source approaches you, the frequency of blinks as it moves away from you at the same speed A) is halved. B) is doubled. C) stays the same. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Spacetime and The Twin Trip 34) As a light source blinking at a steady rate approaches you at an increasing speed (accelerating toward you), the rate at which the blinks encounter you A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains the same. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Spacetime and The Twin Trip 35) As a blinking light source uniformly accelerates away from you, you observe the blinks A) more and more frequently. B) less and less frequently. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Spacetime and The Twin Trip

36) As you approach a steady light source, the wavelength of the emitted light appears A) longer. B) shorter. C) the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Spacetime and The Twin Trip 37) As you recede from a steady light source, the wavelength of the emitted light appears A) longer. B) shorter. C) the same. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Spacetime and The Twin Trip 38) A spaceship traveling very fast relative to you fires a stream of photons at speed c away from you. You measure the photons' speed to be A) less than c. B) more than c. C) equal to c. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Addition of Velocities 39) Two spaceships approaching each other move at very close to the speed of light, each sending a beam of light to the other. Each measures the speed of light from the other spaceship as A) slightly less than c. B) c. C) slightly greater than c. D) much greater than c. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Addition of Velocities 40) Using the relativistic velocity-addition formula for adding everyday velocities produces A) nonsense. B) a significantly better result than adding them classically. C) a classical result. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Addition of Velocities

41) As a spaceship moves away from you at half the speed of light, it fires a probe, also away from you at half the speed of light relative to the spaceship. Relative to you, the probe moves at A) 0.80c. B) 0.87c. C) 0.90c. D) 0.95c. E) c. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Addition of Velocities 42) As a spaceship moving toward you at half the speed of light fires a probe toward you, relative to itself at 0.7 the speed of light, you see the probe approaching at about A) 0.70c. B) 0.87c. C) 0.89c. D) 0.92c. E) 0.96c. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Addition of Velocities 43) According to special relativity, tomorrow's travelers can travel A) only forward in time. B) backward in time. C) both forward and backward in time. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Addition of Velocities 44) Relative to some reference frame in the universe, you may now be traveling at a speed A) faster than the speed of light. B) slower than the speed of light. C) at the speed of light. D) any of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Addition of Velocities 45) Objects moving at relativistic speeds appear to observers at rest to be A) stretched. B) shrunken. C) either depending on direction of motion. D) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Length Contraction 9 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

46) When we apply the Lorentz factor γ to length contraction, we A) multiply by γ as in the equation for time dilation. B) multiply by the reciprocal of γ C) find it does not apply. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Length Contraction 47) A girl standing on the ground observes a rocket ship move past her at half the speed of light. Compared to the rocket's length at rest, she sees the rocket's length as A) longer. B) shorter. C) the same length. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Length Contraction 48) To outside observers at rest, the overall sizes of objects traveling at relativistic speeds are A) larger. B) smaller. C) the same size. Answer: B Diff: 2 Topic: Length Contraction 49) A spaceship whizzes past a planet at high speed. An observer on the planet sees a contracted spaceship, while an observer on the spaceship sees A) a contracted planet. B) an expanded planet. C) a normal planet. D) a contracted or expanded planet depending on the direction of travel. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Length Contraction 50) An astronaut traveling forward at 0.87c holds a meterstick in spear-like fashion. This astronaut sees the spear's length as A) 0.5 m. B) 0.87 m. C) 1 m. D) 1.25 m. E) 1.5 m. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Length Contraction 10 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

51) An astronaut traveling forward at 0.87c holds a meterstick in spear-like fashion. An observer at rest sees the spear's length as A) 0.5 m. B) 0.87 m. C) 1 m. D) 1.25 m. E) 1.5 m. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Length Contraction 52) The length of a 100-meter long spaceship passing by you at 0.87c is seen to be A) 50 m. B) 87 m. C) 100 m. D) 125 m. E) 150 m. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Length Contraction 53) A heavy meterstick has mass m. When the meterstick is thrown like a spear past you at speed v, you measure its momentum to be 2mv. What do you measure its length to be? A) 1 m B) 0.87 m C) 0.5 m D) 0.25 m E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Length Contraction 54) Radioactive muons formed high in the atmosphere have an average lifetime of 2 millionths of a second and travel toward Earth at nearly the speed of light. Because of their altitude most of them should have decayed by the time they reach the Earth's surface, according to pre-relativity physics. They don't because they A) live longer due to time dilation. B) travel a shorter distance due to length contraction. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Length Contraction

55) A 10-meter-long spear is thrown at relativistic speeds through a 10-meter-long pipe. (Both these dimensions are measured when each is at rest.) When the spear passes through the pipe A) the spear appears to shrink so the pipe completely covers it. B) the pipe appears to shrink so the spear extends from both ends. C) both appear to shrink equally so the pipe barely covers the spear. D) any of these, depending on the motion of the observer (moving with the spear, at rest with the pipe, and so on). E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Length Contraction 56) When an object of mass m is pushed to relativistic speed v, its momentum is A) greater than mv. B) smaller than mv. C) equal to mv. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Relativistic Momentum 57) There is an upper limit on the speed of a particle, which means there is also an upper limit on its A) momentum. B) kinetic energy. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Relativistic Momentum 58) When a high-velocity beam of electrons is bent by a magnetic field, relativistic effects A) increase momentum beyond its classical value. B) reduce the angle at which the beam is bent. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Relativistic Momentum 59) When we apply the Lorentz factor γ to momentum, we A) multiply by γ as with the equation for time dilation. B) multiply by the reciprocal of γ. C) find it does not apply. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Relativistic Momentum 12 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

60) As the speed of a particle approaches the speed of light, the momentum of the particle A) approaches zero. B) approaches infinity. C) transforms to energy. D) is no longer in spacetime. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Relativistic Momentum 61) Electrons fired in vintage TV tubes traveled at about 0.25 times the speed of light, having more momentum and energy than would be required classically to get that speed. Strictly speaking, this A) increased your electric bill. B) decreased your electric bill. C) had no effect on your electric bill. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Relativistic Momentum 62) What does c2 have in common with γ? A) they are both proportionality constants B) they have similar numerical values C) they both involve different kinds of speed D) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Mass, Energy, and E = mc2 63) According to Einstein's theory of special relativity A) space and time are aspects of each other. B) energy and mass are aspects of each other. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Mass, Energy, and E = mc2 64) According to the well-known equation E = mc2, A) mass and energy travel at the speed of light squared. B) energy is actually mass traveling at the speed of light squared. C) mass and energy travel at twice the speed of light. D) mass and energy are related. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Mass, Energy, and E = mc2 13 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

65) When you shake an apple to and fro, you're shaking A) energy. B) nothing. C) the universe. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Mass, Energy, and E = mc2 66) If an antimatter meteor of mass m were to strike the Earth, the amount of radiant energy produced would be A) less than mc2. B) mc2. C) 2mc2. D) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Mass, Energy, and E = mc2 67) When an electron and a positron meet and annihilate, the mass-energy of the particles is carried away by A) a gamma ray. B) two gamma rays, otherwise momentum wouldn't be conserved. C) nothing at all, gone. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Mass, Energy, and E = mc2 68) Relativity equations for time, length and momentum hold true for A) relativistic speeds. B) everyday low speeds. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Correspondence Principle

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Chapter 36 General Theory of Relativity 36.1 Multiple-Choice Questions 1) Compared with special relativity, general relativity is more concerned with A) acceleration. B) gravitation. C) spacetime geometry. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Principle of Equivalence 2) Galileo dropped two balls of different weights and found they accelerated equally to the ground below. Einstein imagined the same result for a side-by-side drop A) without invoking gravity. B) in an accelerating vehicle. C) whether they were of the same mass or not. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Topic: Principle of Equivalence 3) In a spaceship that accelerates at g far from gravitational influences, with the effort it takes on Earth to do 20 pushups, you could comfortably do A) less than 20 pushups. B) 20 pushups. C) more than 20 pushups. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Principle of Equivalence 4) In a spaceship with an acceleration more than g far from gravitational influences, with the effort it takes on Earth to do 20 pushups, you could comfortably do A) less than 20 pushups. B) 20 pushups. C) more than 20 pushups. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Principle of Equivalence

5) According to the principle of equivalence, observations made of falling objects at Galileo's Leaning Tower of Pisa are indistinguishable from observations made in A) a spaceship orbiting in a gravitational field. B) a spaceship accelerating at g in deep space. C) any uniformly moving reference frame. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Principle of Equivalence 6) If you toss a ball "horizontally" from one wall to an opposite wall inside an accelerating spaceship in deep space, defining "up" as the direction of acceleration, the ball will hit A) below its straight-line path. B) above its straight-line path. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Principle of Equivalence 7) Inside an accelerating spaceship in deep space, a sideways-tossed ball will A) curve as it would in a gravitational field equal to the spaceship's acceleration. B) follow a straight-line path from one side of the interior to the other. C) fall in a semi-circular path. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Principle of Equivalence 8) If you shine a flashlight from one wall to an opposite wall inside a spaceship drifting without acceleration far from gravitational influences, the beam of light will travel A) in a straight-line path. B) in a parabolic path. C) along the arc of a circle. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Bending of Light by Gravity 9) If you shine a flashlight "horizontally" from one wall to an opposite wall inside an accelerating spaceship in deep space, you will see the light traveling A) in a straight-line path. B) in a parabolic path. C) along the arc of a circle. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Bending of Light by Gravity

10) Inside an accelerating spaceship far from gravitational influences, a flashlight beam will A) not bend. B) curve as it would in a gravitational field equal to the acceleration of the spaceship. C) follow a semi-circular path. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Bending of Light by Gravity 11) Fire a cannonball with enormous speed from a hypothetical cannon and it curves due to gravity. Shine a light from a flashlight parallel to the cannon and it A) follows a straight-line path. B) curves downward as much as the cannonball. C) curves slightly upward. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Bending of Light by Gravity 12) In a 1-g gravitational field, 1 second after turning on a flashlight its beam will curve beneath a perfectly straight line by A) less than 4.9 m. B) 4.9 m. C) more than 4.9 m. Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Bending of Light by Gravity 13) Light bends when it A) closely passes a star. B) closely passes the Moon. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Bending of Light by Gravity 14) If you move in the direction in which gravity acts, an observer at rest sees your watch running A) slower than at your starting point. B) faster than at your starting point. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Gravity and Time: Gravitational Red Shift

15) In accord with general relativity, a person living at the top of a skyscraper ages A) faster than a person on the ground floor. B) slower than a person on the ground floor. C) at the same rate as a person on any floor. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Gravity and Time: Gravitational Red Shift 16) On a giant rotating turntable are two clocks, one at the center and the other at the rim.The clock that runs slower is at A) the center of the turntable. B) the rim of the turntable. C) either of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Gravity and Time: Gravitational Red Shift 17) If you move a clock from Earth to the Moon, the clock runs A) slower. B) no differently. C) faster. Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Gravity and Time: Gravitational Red Shift 18) You shine a beam of monochromatic light from Earth to an astronaut friend in orbit. The light your friend receives, relative to light from an equivalent source on the spaceship, is slightly A) lower in frequency. B) higher in frequency. C) weaker but no different in frequency. Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity and Time: Gravitational Red Shift 19) You shine a beam of monochromatic light from Earth to an astronaut friend in orbit. The light your friend receives, relative to light from an equivalent source on the spaceship, is slightly A) slower in speed. B) higher in speed. C) neither of these Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity and Time: Gravitational Red Shift

20) A clock on the surface of a shrinking star will run progressively A) slower. B) faster. C) no difference Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity and Time: Gravitational Red Shift 21) According to general relativity, a photon emitted by a star A) loses energy. B) reduces in frequency. C) is red-shifted. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity and Time: Gravitational Red Shift 22) In gravitational red shift, the quantity that undergoes a red shift is A) spacetime curvature. B) wave direction. C) field intensity. D) wave frequency. E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity and Time: Gravitational Red Shift 23) An astronaut falling into a black hole would see the universe A) red-shifted. B) blue-shifted. C) with no shift at all. Answer: B Diff: 3 Topic: Gravity and Time: Gravitational Red Shift 24) If the Sun collapsed to a black hole, Earth's speed in space would A) increase. B) decrease. C) remain the same. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Gravity and Time: Gravitational Red Shift

25) If the Sun collapsed to a black hole, Earth would A) be sucked into the black hole. B) follow a straight-line path into space. C) continue in its present orbit. Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Gravity and Time: Gravitational Red Shift 26) According to relativity theory, you can experience a longer youth when you A) are near a black hole. B) are near a very large gravitational field. C) travel at nearly the speed of light. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity and Time: Gravitational Red Shift 27) A message from relativity theory is that slowing the aging process A) can occur with correct applications of physics. B) would occur if you fell into a bottomless mine shaft. C) can only happen to "the other guy." Answer: C Diff: 3 Topic: Gravity and Time: Gravitational Red Shift 28) Important support for general relativity came from studies of the precession of the orbit of A) Mercury. B) Venus. C) Earth. D) Mars. E) asteroids. Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Gravity and Space: Motion of Mercury 29) Apart from the effects of other planets, the orbit of Mercury precesses because A) Mercury travels faster than any other planet. B) Mercury's orbit is nearly circular. C) of pronounced variations in Mercury's orbit about the Sun. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity and Space: Motion of Mercury

30) If the orbit of Mercury were perfectly circular, its rate of precession would be A) larger. B) smaller. C) the same. D) zero. Answer: D Diff: 3 Topic: Gravity and Space: Motion of Mercury 31) If the elliptical orbit of Mercury were more eccentric, its precession rate would be A) larger. B) smaller. C) the same. D) nonexistent. Answer: A Diff: 3 Topic: Gravity and Space: Motion of Mercury 32) The shortest distance between two points in flat Euclidean space is a A) straight line. B) geodesic. C) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Gravity, Space, and a New Geometry 33) The shortest distance between two points on a curved surface is a A) straight line. B) geodesic. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Gravity, Space, and a New Geometry 34) The measured ratio of circumference to diameter on a disk is π when the disk is A) moving at relativistic speeds. B) rapidly rotating. C) at rest. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: C Diff: 1 Topic: Gravity, Space, and a New Geometry

35) Strictly speaking, the ratio of circumference to diameter for a circle equals π as we know it A) in flat space. B) on a spherical surface. C) on a saddle-shaped surface. D) all or any of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Gravity, Space, and a New Geometry 36) The geometry of our universe is A) flat. B) positively curved. C) negatively curved. D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Gravity, Space, and a New Geometry 37) Strictly speaking, the sum of the angles on a triangle equals 180 degrees A) in flat space. B) on a spherical surface. C) on a saddle-shaped surface. D) all or any of the above E) none of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Topic: Gravity, Space, and a New Geometry 38) A measuring stick on a rapidly rotating disk will not appear to shrink if it is oriented along the A) circumference. B) radius. C) either of these D) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Gravity, Space, and a New Geometry

39) Accelerate an electron and you produce an electromagnetic wave. Accelerate a massive body and you produce A) a gravitational wave. B) a cosmic wave. C) both of these D) neither of these Answer: A Diff: 2 Topic: Gravitational Waves 40) If a star that is 10 light-years away from Earth explodes, gravitational waves from the explosion will reach Earth in A) less than 10 years. B) more than 10 years. C) 10 years. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Gravitational Waves 41) If a star 100 light-years away explodes, the time for the gravitational waves to reach Earth is 100 years as measured from A) any uniformly moving reference frame. B) any accelerating reference frame. C) any reference frame, accelerated or not. D) the reference frame of the waves. E) Earth. Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Gravitational Waves 42) Compared with Newton's theory of gravity, Einstein's theory is A) an exception to the correspondence principle. B) in accord with the correspondence principle. C) neither of these Answer: B Diff: 1 Topic: Newtonian and Einsteinian Gravitation 43) Einstein's theory of gravitation A) agrees with established results of Newton's theory. B) has been supported by repeated experiments. C) incorporates Newton's theory as a special case. D) is superior to Newton's where spacetime is more curved. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Topic: Newtonian and Einsteinian Gravitation 9 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

44) The principle of equivalence tells us that A) mass and energy are forms of each other. B) space and time are forms of each other. C) electricity and magnetism are forms of each other. D) observations made in an accelerating reference frame are indistinguishable from those made in a gravitational field. E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Topic: Newtonian and Einsteinian Gravitation 45) A profound message from all of science is that we are a part of nature A) that stands above other life forms. B) and have the ability to conquer it. C) that is becoming more and more conscious of itself. Answer: C Diff: 2 Topic: Newtonian and Einsteinian Gravitation

Conceptual Physics, 12e (Hewitt) Double-Answer Multiple Choice Questions on Various Topics 37.1 Questions About Vectors Figure V-1

1) A block is pulled across a floor as shown in the vector diagram. The force vector F has the greater component in the 1) horizontal direction, 2) vertical direction, and this component is 3) larger than the vector F. 4) smaller than the vector F. 5) equal to the vector F. Answer: 1, 4 Diff: 1 Topic: Vectors Figure V-2

2) A block is pulled across a floor as shown in the vector diagram. The greater component of F is in the 1) horizontal direction, 2) vertical direction, although both horizontal and vertical components would be of equal magnitude if vector F were 3) horizontal. 4) vertical. 5) at an angle of 45°. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 1 Topic: Vectors

Figure V-3

3) The weight of the barrel on the slope is shown by the vector which has components (not shown) parallel to the surface of the incline and perpendicular to the surface of the incline. Judging from the slope of incline, the greater of these two components is 1) parallel to the slope. 2) perpendicular to the slope. 3) both the same. 4) need more information If the slope of the incline were steeper, this component vector would 5) decrease. 6) remain the same. 7) increase. 8) again, can't really say. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 1 Topic: Vectors 4) The airspeed of an airplane is 100 km/h. When it is caught in a 100-km/h right-angled crosswind, its speed across the ground below is about 1) 0 km/h. 2) 100 km/h. 3) 140 km/h. 4) 200 km/h. 5) more than 200 km/h. If the airplane changes direction and flies at 60 degrees to the wind, its ground speed will 6) decrease. 7) remain the same. 8) increase. Answer: 3, 8 Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors

Figure V-5

5) A small railroad car is pulled by a rope as shown in the sketch (top view). The force F that the rope exerts on the car has a component along the track and another component perpendicular to the track. Judging from the diagram, the larger of these two components would be 1) along the track. 2) perpendicular to the track. These components will be equal if 3) the rope makes an angle of 45° with the track. 4) the rope is pulled in a direction along the track, rather than at an angle to it. 5) they form an action-reaction pair on the car. 6) but they can never really be equal. Answer: 2, 3 Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors Figure V-4

6) Which of the sailboats shown sails the fastest in its forward direction? 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 It is interesting to note that 5) this is the only boat that sails forward. 6) only two of the boats sail forward. 7) three out of the four boats sail forward. 8) all sail forward, but at different speeds. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors

Figure V-6

7) The boat that will sail fastest in the intended direction is 1) 1, 2) 2, 3) 3, 4) 4, and the boat that responds least to the wind is 5) 1. 6) 2. 7) 3. 8) 4. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors Figure V-7

8) The boat to make the fastest progress in its forward direction is boat 1) 1. 2) 2. 3) 3. 4) 4. Boat 3 is not propelled in a forward direction because 5) the wind does not make impact with the sail. 6) there is no component of force parallel to the keel. 7) of air resistance on the front of the sail. 8) But it is propelled in a forward direction! Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors

Figure V-8

9) Which of the sailboats shown sails fastest in its forward direction? 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) None sails forward. It is interesting to note that the force of the wind impact is 5) nonexistent on each sail. 6) greatest on 1. 7) greatest on 2. 8) greatest on 3. Answer: 1, 8 Diff: 2 Topic: Vectors 37.2 Questions About Newtons Laws of Motion 1) To say that an object is being accelerated, means that 1) it is at rest, 2) it is moving, 3) it is either at a state of rest or a state of constant velocity, 4) its state of motion is changing, and we define acceleration to be 5) a change in speed. 6) a change in velocity. 7) the rate at which speed changes. 8) the rate at which velocity changes. Answer: 4, 8 Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion

2) To say that an object is moving at constant velocity means that it is 1) at rest, 2) moving at an unchanging speed, 3) moving at an unchanging speed in a straight-line path, and that its acceleration is 4) zero. 5) constantly increasing (or decreasing). 6) uniform. Answer: 3, 4 Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 3) An object is accelerating if it moves 1) with constant velocity 2) in a circular path 3) in a straight-line path because it is undergoing a change in its 4) speed. 5) direction. 6) net force. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 4) A car increases its speed from 60 to 65 miles per hour in the same time that a bicycle increases its speed from rest to 5 miles per hour. Acceleration is 1) greater for the car, 2) greater for the bicycle, 3) the same for each, principally because 4) the car undergoes the greater change in velocity. 5) the bicycle has considerably less mass. 6) both undergo equal increases in velocity during the same interval of time. Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion

5) The speedometer of a car indicates a constant speed of 30 miles per hour. From this we can say that the acceleration of the car is 1) zero. 2) nonzero. 3) can't really say. This is because 4) no net force is acting on the car. 5) any reading (other than zero) on the speedometer indicates acceleration. 6) the car may be changing its direction. Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 6) If an object is thrown downward from a tall cliff, its acceleration while falling (in the absence of air resistance) will be 1) less than 10 m/s2. 2) 10 m/s2. 3) greater than 10 m/s2. This is evident from the fact that 4) gravitational force depends upon the state of motion of an object. 5) each successive second the speed of the object increases by an additional 10 m/s. 6) the object was not simply dropped but thrown, therefore having an initial acceleration of fall greater than zero. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 7) Neglecting friction, a ball rolling along a horizontal plane will 1) accelerate indefinitely. 2) roll until the force used to roll it was used up. 3) roll indefinitely at a constant speed. This illustrates 4) the basic principle that a body requires a push or pull to keep it moving. 5) inertia. 6) the law of net force. Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion

8) The property of objects to resist a change in motion is called 1) friction, 2) velocity, 3) inertia, 4) acceleration, 5) gravity, and it is measured by its 6) speed. 7) velocity. 8) mass. 9) all of these. Answer: 3, 8 Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 9) The force required to maintain a body at constant velocity in free space is equal to 1) the mass of the body. 2) zero. 3) the weight of the body. 4) the force required to stop it. 5) none of these. This is in accordance with the law of 6) inertia. 7) action/reaction. 8) gravitation. 9) energy conservation. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 10) An object is dropped from a position of rest. At the end of the first second of free fall it will have traveled about 1) 0 m 2) 5 m 3) 10 m and its velocity will be about 4) 0 m/s. 5) 5 m/s. 6) 10 m/s. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 1 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion

11) An object drops in free fall. At one instant it is moving at a speed of 50 meters per second. Exactly one second later its speed is about 1) 10 m/s. 2) 50 m/s. 3) 60 m/s. 4) 100 m/s. This is because 5) no net force acts on the object while in its state of free fall. 6) it gains a speed of about 10 m/s for each second of fall. 7) its velocity nearly doubles each second. Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 12) If an apple falls a distance of 2 meters in its first second of fall, then 2 meters in its next second of fall, and again 2 meters during its third second of fall, the acceleration of the apple is 1) 0 m/s2. 2) 2 m/s2. 3) 4 m/s2. 4) 10 m/s2. 5) actually, more than 10 m/s2. This is because 6) no change in velocity occurs during fall. 7) the apple increases in distance by 2 meters for each successive second. 8) the average velocity is 1 m/s for each successive second. 9) its weight is counterbalanced by its inertia. Answer: 1, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion

13) A rifle is fired straight downward from a high-altitude balloon. If the bullet leaves the barrel at 100 m/s, then its speed one second later (neglecting air resistance) will be about 1) 10 m/s 2) 100 m/s 3) 105 m/s 4) 110 m/s and its distance below will be about 5) 5 m. 6) 100 m. 7) 105 m. 8) 110 m. 9) 120 m. Answer: 4, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 14) A baseball is thrown straight upward. At the very top of its trajectory its instantaneous velocity is zero and its acceleration is 1) zero. 2) 10 m/s2. 3) between zero and 10 m/s2. 4) none of these. We can better understand this by noting that when it is at its highest point 5) there momentarily is no motion. 6) its rate of change of motion is still 10 m/s2. 7) although its velocity is not changing, its direction is. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 15) In the absence of air resistance, a boulder and a pebble dropped from rest will fall with equal 1) forces of gravity. 2) accelerations. 3) energies. 4) all these. The reason that this quantity is not greater for the boulder than the pebble is that 5) both the boulder and the pebble fall at the same speed. 6) the initial potential energies of each is the same. 7) gravitational force acting on each is the same. 8) the greater gravitational force on the boulder acts on a correspondingly greater mass. Answer: 2, 8 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 10 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) A heavy man and a light man parachute together from a high-flying plane. The first to attain zero acceleration will be the 1) light man 2) heavy man 3) both will attain zero acceleration at the same time. because 4) the gravitational force on each man is the same. 5) of the lesser gravitational force acting on the lighter man. 6) air resistance will eventually counterbalance the weights of both men. 7) the lighter man will not have to fall for as long a time before air resistance equals his weight. Answer: 1, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 17) You would have the most quantity of gold if it weighed 1 N on the 1) Moon. 2) Earth. 3) planet Jupiter. 4) would be the same on each. This is because 5) on the Moon a greater mass of gold is required for the gravitational force to equal 1 N. 6) weight and mass are directly proportional to each other. 7) gravitational force per mass is greatest on the most massive planet. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 18) A person is attracted toward the center of Earth by a gravitational force of 500 N. The force with which Earth is attracted toward the person is 1) 500 N 2) infinitesimally small 3) billions and billions of tons principally because 4) the forces in question make an action/reaction pair. 5) the mass of the person is negligible compared to the mass of Earth. 6) Earth itself weighs billions and billions of tons. 7) of inertia. Answer: 1, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion

Figure N-1

19) When the spool is pulled to the left, it accelerates toward the 1) right, 2) left, which illustrates the fact that 3) for every force there is an equal and opposite reaction force. 4) net force and acceleration act in the same direction. Answer: 2, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 20) Neglecting all types of friction, if two identical sleds, one empty and the other with four heavy passengers, start sliding down a hill together, the heavier sled will get to the bottom 1) before the empty car, 2) after the empty car, 3) at the same time as the empty car, while in the presence of air resistance, the heavier car will get to the bottom 4) before the empty car. 5) after the empty car. 6) at the same time as the empty car. Answer: 3, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 21) A 100-newton sack of potatoes falls from an airplane. As velocity of fall increases, air resistance also increases, and when air resistance equals 100 N, the acceleration of the sack is 1) zero 2) 5 m/s2 3) 10 m/s2 4) 100 m/s2 and the velocity of the sack will be 5) 0 m/s. 6) 5 m/s. 7) 10 m/s. 8) 100 m/s. 9) constant. Answer: 1, 9 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 12 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

22) In referring to how much matter a body contains, we use the term 1) volume 2) mass 3) weight and the force of gravitational attraction upon a body is 4) weight. 5) volume. 6) mass. Answer: 2, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 23) An elephant and a feather fall through the air. The force of air resistance is 1) greater on the feather 2) greater on the elephant 3) the same on each because 4) the feather weighs less. 5) the elephant encounters more air because of his greater size and speed. 6) each is under the influence of gravitational force alone. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 24) If an object has twice as much mass as another, then it also has twice as much 1) acceleration. 2) weight. 3) center of gravity. 4) area. This is because 5) of inertia. 6) mass and weight are directly proportional to each other. 7) the gravitational force acting on all objects in the same locality is the same. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion

25) Which of the following has the greater weight? 1) 1 kilogram of gold 2) 1 kilogram of feathers 3) both weigh the same in the same locality This follows from the fact that 4) gold is more compact than feathers. 5) weight and mass are directly proportional to each other. Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 26) You can exert more force on the pedals of a bicycle if you pull up on the handlebars because 1) your center of gravity can be shifted to a position directly above the pedals, 2) the handlebars, in turn, pull down on you and this force is transmitted to the pedals, 3) rotational inertia is lessened, 4) rotational inertia is increased, all of which illustrates 5) that equilibrium is center-of-gravity dependent. 6) the law of action and reaction. 7) inertia may be both linear and rotational. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion Figure N-3

27) If an 800-N man hangs motionless from four vertical strands of rope, then the tension in each strand of rope is 1) 0 N 2) 200 N 3) 400 N 4) 800 N which results in a net force on the man of 5) 0 N. 6) 200 N. 7) 400 N. 8) 800 N. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 14 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

Figure N-2

28) A 100-N little physics tyke hangs on the ends of a rope suspended over a pulley as shown. The tension in the rope is 1) 0 N. 2) 50 N. 3) 100 N. 4) 200 N. It is interesting to note that 5) the tension in the rope at its midpoint (uppermost part) is 100 N. 6) this is a modified tug-o'-war example (simply draped over a pulley). 7) the net force acting on the rope is in this case identical to the child's weight. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion Figure N-4

29) Each group in a tug-of-war pulls with 1000 N on each side of the rope. The net force on the rope is 1) 0 N 2) 500 N 3) 1000 N 4) 2000 N and the tension within the rope is 5) 0 N. 6) 500 N. 7) 1000 N. 8) 2000 N. Answer: 1, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion

Figure N-5

30) The two men compete in a tug of war. Both pull equally and the scale reads 800 newtons. Each man must pull with a force of 1) 400 N. 2) 800 N. 3) 0 N. Consider action and reaction forces in this case: If action is the man on the left pulling on the rope, then the reaction force is 4) the rope pulling on the man on the left. 5) the rope pulling on the man on the right. 6) the man on the right pulling on the rope. Answer: 2, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion Figure N-6

31) Two 50-N weights pull on the scale as shown. The reading on the scale is 1) 0 N. 2) 25 N. 3) 50 N. 4) 100 N. This is clearer to understand if we think of the situation this way: 5) Since no acceleration is taking place, the forces cancel one another. 6) One of the weights "holds" the scale while the other weight stretches the spring. 7) The two hanging weights provide forces that constitute an action/reaction pair. Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion

Figure N-9

32) While a ship moves toward the right at constant velocity, a seaman atop the mast drops a stone which freely falls to position 1) A. 2) B. 3) C. This is better understood by realizing that 4) the ship moved to the right a distance equal to that between A and B while the stone fell vertically. 5) the stone was moving to the right just as fast as the ship during the fall. 6) the net force acting on the stone is equal to its weight. 7) because of inertia, the stone experiences a horizontal motion unlike that of the ship. 8) the stone underwent an acceleration while the ship did not. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 33) If you push with 200 N of force against your 1500-N refrigerator and it slides across your kitchen floor at constant velocity, friction of the floor against the refrigerator must be 1) zero, 2) 200 N, 3) 1300 N, 4) 1500 N, 5) greater than 1500 N, and the force with which you push must be 6) equal and oppositely directed to the friction force. 7) the action force, and the friction the reaction force. 8) both of these. 9) none of these. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion

34) The net force that acts on a 100-N freely falling body is 1) zero, 2) 9.8 N, 3) 100 N, and its acceleration is 4) zero. 5) 9.8 m/s2. 6) 100 m/s2. Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 35) A 200-N weight hangs motionless from a string that is attached to the ceiling. The net force acting on the weight is 1) zero, 2) 100 N, 3) 200 N, and if the string breaks, the net force acting on the weight will be 4) zero. 5) 100 N. 6) 200 N. Answer: 1, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 36) If a constant net force is applied to a body, the body is 1) accelerating. 2) moving at constant speed. 3) at rest or moving at constant velocity. If a body is moving at constant velocity, it must have 4) a constant net force acting upon it. 5) constant non-zero acceleration. 6) constant speed. 7) none of the above. Answer: 1, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion

37) A horizontal 100-N force exerted against a 1000-N block causes the block to slide on a level surface with constant velocity. The friction force on the block must be 1) zero. 2) 100 N. 3) 1000 N. 4) greater than 1000 N. In this case the pushing force and the friction force are 5) equal but oppositely directed. 6) an action-reaction pair. 7) both of these. 8) none of these. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 38) A stone is thrown downward from a tall cliff and hits the ground below. If it were instead thrown straight upward with the same initial speed, it would end up striking the ground below (neglect air resistance) with 1) the same speed. 2) less speed. 3) greater speed. If air resistance IS a factor, then when the stone is moving downward it will undergo 4) an increase in acceleration as velocity increases. 5) a decrease in acceleration as velocity increases. 6) a constant acceleration. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion 39) A skydiver jumps through the air from a high-flying plane. As her velocity of fall increases, the net force acting on her 1) increases also, 2) decreases, 3) remains unchanged, and her acceleration 4) increases. 5) decreases. 6) remains unchanged. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion

Figure N-10

40) As the ball rolls from A to B its velocity increases and its acceleration 1) increases; 2) decreases; 3) remains constant; and when it rolls from B to C its acceleration along the path 4) increases. 5) decreases. 6) remains constant. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion Figure N-11

41) As the ball rolls from the straight path from A to B its velocity increases and its acceleration 1) increases, 2) decreases, 3) remains constant, and as it rolls from B to C its acceleration along the path 4) increases. 5) decreases. 6) remains constant. Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 3 Topic: Newton's Laws of Motion

37.3 Questions About Momentum 1) A ball is thrown against a wall, bounces off, and is caught. The number of impulses acting on the ball is 1) one. 2) two. 3) three. 4) none. The greatest impulse occurs when the ball 5) is thrown. 6) bounces against the wall. 7) is caught. 8) is zero for each. 9) is nonzero, but the same for each case. Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Momentum 2) According to the equation Ft = change in (mv), a foam rubber dashboard is safer than a metal one, for the force of impact, F, of an occupant against the dash is lessened in an accident. In this case, the "m" in this equation represents the 1) mass of the car, 2) mass of the person, 3) momentum of the car, 4) momentum of the person, and the "v" represents the 5) velocity of the car. 6) speed at which the person hits the dashboard. 7) relative velocity between cars in a collision. 8) change in velocity, which is 10 m/s2. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Momentum

3) A freight car rolls along a horizontal track at 12 m/s and hooks onto an identical freight car at rest. The coupled cars will 1) come to a quick stop, 2) roll at 3 m/s, 3) roll at 6 mph, 4) roll at 12 ms, which makes sense because 5) in the absence of external forces, trains in motion continue in motion. 6) the acceleration of the car at rest equals the force of impact divided by the two masses. 7) since twice the mass is moving, the speed will be half for the same momentum. 8) energies before and after the collision remain the same. Answer: 3, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Momentum 4) A sports car and a moving van move at the same speed when they crash into a cement wall and stop equally quickly. The vehicle to have the greater force of impact will be 1) the sports car, 2) the van, 3) neither, for they experience equal forces of impact because 4) they are traveling at the same speed. 5) the van's momentum is much greater. 6) the sport car has a greater change in velocity upon impact. 7) they both have equal momentum. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Momentum 5) We can apply the equation Ft = change in (mv) to the case of a baseball player striking a pitched ball. To impart the maximum change in momentum, mv, to the ball, the batter hits the ball with the greatest force he can muster and he also 1) extends the time of contact as much as possible by "following through." 2) makes the time of contact as short as possible, thereby increasing the force. 3) none of the above! In the impulse-momentum equation applied to hitting the ball, the "v" represents 4) the velocity of the bat. 5) the velocity of the ball. 6) a vector quantity. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Momentum

6) When the momentum of a punch is stopped by the fighter's jaw, he "rides with the punch" so as to 1) decrease the velocity of the blow, 2) increase the time of contact of the blow, and thereby reduce the 3) force. 4) impulse. 5) momentum. 6) energy. Answer: 2, 3 Diff: 2 Topic: Momentum 7) When the momentum of a punch is stopped by the fighter's jaw while he moves into the oncoming punch, the result is 1) an increase in the relative velocity of the blow, 2) a decrease in the time of contact of the blow, which thereby most greatly increases the 3) force. 4) impulse. 5) momentum. 6) inertia. 7) energy. Answer: 2, 3 Diff: 2 Topic: Momentum 8) An open freight car rolls friction free along a horizontal track in a pouring rain that falls vertically. As water accumulates in the car, the car's speed 1) increases. 2) decreases. 3) remains the same. This is best explained by the principle of 4) inertia. 5) momentum conservation. 6) energy conservation. 7) Newton's 2nd law. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 3 Topic: Momentum

9) If the polar ice caps melted and flowed toward the equator, the rotation of Earth would tend to 1) decrease in angular speed, 2) be unchanged, 3) increase in angular speed, with the result that the day would be 4) slightly longer. 5) slightly shorter. 6) unaffected. Answer: 1, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Momentum 10) If in the absence of external forces, a rotating ball of hot gas cools and contracts, its rate of rotation 1) decreases 2) remains essentially the same 3) increases and its angular momentum 4) decreases. 5) remains essentially the same. 6) increases. Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Momentum 37.4 Questions About Energy 1) A golf ball moving forward with 1 unit of momentum strikes a heavy bowling ball that is initially at rest. After the golf ball bounces backward, the bowling ball is in motion with a momentum that must be 1) 1 unit. 2) more than 1 unit. 3) less than 1 unit. The magnitude of the golf ball's momentum after collision must be somewhat less than 1 unit, for otherwise a violation would occur in the conservation of 4) energy. 5) momentum. 6) both. 7) neither. Answer: 2, 4 Diff: 3 Topic: Energy

Figure E-1

2) A marble rolls back and forth along the path shown. When it is at position B, its kinetic energy is 1) maximum, 2) minimum, 3) midway between maximum and minimum, its momentum is 4) maximum, 5) minimum, 6) midway between maximum and minimum, and its potential energy is 7) maximum. 8) minimum. 9) midway between maximum and minimum. Answer: 1, 4, 8 Diff: 1 Topic: Energy Figure E-2

3) A pendulum bob swings to and fro as shown in the sketch. The kinetic energy of the bob 1) is maximum at position A, 2) is maximum at position B, 3) is the same at all positions, and the potential energy is maximum at position 4) A. 5) B. 6) is the same at all positions. Answer: 2, 4 Diff: 1 Topic: Energy

Figure E-3

4) To lift the 5000-N block, the man finds that he must pull 10 m of rope through his hands for every 1 m the block rises. Neglecting the weights of the pulleys and friction, how hard must the man pull on the rope to raise the block? 1) 5 N 2) 50 N 3) 500 N 4) 5000 N which is in accord with 5) Newton's second law. 6) that impulse equals change in momentum. 7) (F × d) input = (F × d) output. 8) mechanical energy can be stored as potential energy. Answer: 3, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Energy 5) All things being practically equal, if the energy content in gasoline were doubled, then the distance a car should travel per liter of gasoline should 1) be no different. 2) double. 3) quadruple. If the low-energy and high-energy fuels are burned in the same time, then compared to the POWER produced by combustion of the low-energy gasoline, the power produced by the combustion of the higher-energy gasoline should 4) be no different. 5) double. 6) quadruple. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Energy

Figure E-5

6) A small bead slides without friction along the wire shown. It begins at A and slides by gravity past B, which doesn't touch the rest of the wire. The potential energy of the bead is greatest at point 1) A, 2) B, 3) C, 4) D, 5) E, and the bead has its maximum momentum at point 6) A. 7) B. 8) C. 9) D. 10) E. Answer: 1, 9 Diff: 2 Topic: Energy

Figure E-6

7) In the hydraulic device shown, when the small piston is pushed down 10 cm with a force of 10 N, the large piston is raised 1 cm. This means that the large piston is capable of lifting 1) 10 N, 2) 100 N, 3) 1000 N, 4) any amount of weight, which illustrates 5) that impulse is equal to a change in momentum. 6) (F × d) input = (F × d) output. 7) Newton's second law. 8) that the stored energy that a body possesses may be transformed into other forms of energy. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Energy 8) Jocko the clown at the top of a tall flagpole has considerable potential energy relative to the circus net below. After stepping off the pole and neglecting air resistance, his potential energy when he is half way to the net is 1) the same as at the top, 2) one quarter the amount at the top, 3) one half the amount at the top, 4) more than one-half the amount at the top, and compared to his kinetic energy when meeting the net, his kinetic energy at the half-way point is 5) one half. 6) the same as his potential energy at the half-way point. 7) both of these 8) neither of these Answer: 3, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Energy

37.5 Questions About Torque Figure T-1

1) The boy plays "solitary seesaw" as shown. We can understand this by imagining that he has an invisible partner who is actually at the 1) fulcrum. 2) right end of the board. 3) rotational inertia of the seesaw as a whole. 4) seesaw's center of gravity. Since the seesaw is not rotating, we can say that 5) the net torque on the seesaw is zero. 6) potential energy and kinetic energy are equal to each other. 7) the boy's and the seesaw's centers of gravity must be equal distances from the fulcrum. 8) the boy and the seesaw must have the same weight. Answer: 4, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Torque Figure E-4

2) The center of gravity for each truck is marked X. Which truck(s) will tip over? 1) Truck 1 2) Truck 2 3) Truck 3 4) All will tip. This is because 5) its center of gravity is highest. 6) its center of gravity is lowest. 7) its center of gravity lies beyond a point of support. 8) all the centers of gravity lie above the wheelbases. Answer: 3, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Torque 29 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

Figure T-2

3) The heavy boy and light girl are balanced on the seesaw. If they both move inward so that each is exactly half the original distance from the pivot, then the 1) boy's end will move downward. 2) girl's end will move downward. 3) seesaw will remain in balance. If the fulcrum of the seesaw is repositioned so each can sit at an END of the board and be in balance, then if each moves inward half way the 4) boy's end will move downward. 5) girl's end will move downward. 6) seesaw will remain balanced. Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 3 Topic: Torque

Figure T-3

4) The 50-kg stuntman places a 50-kg uniform 6-meter plank on top of a skyscraper and stands on the tip of it that overhangs the building as shown. What is the approximate distance that the overhang can be extended without disaster? 1) 0.5 m 2) 1 m 3) 1.5 m If the 6-meter board has a mass of only 25 kilograms, then the maximum overhang distance would be about 5) 0.5 m. 6) 1 m. 7) 1.5 m. 8) 2 m. Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 3 Topic: Torque 37.6 Questions About Gravity 1) A very massive body A and a less massive body B move toward each other under the influence of gravity. Compared to the force on A, the force on B is 1) greater. 2) the same. 3) less. As A and B get closer and closer, each experiences an increase in 4) velocity. 5) acceleration. 6) force. 7) all of these. 8) none of these. Answer: 2, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity

2) As a spaceship nears the Moon, its mass 1) varies slightly with distance, 2) increases, 3) decreases, 4) remains unchanged, while the Moon's gravitation force on the ship 5) increases. 6) decreases. 7) remains unchanged. Answer: 4, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity 3) A woman standing on the surface of Earth has a mass of 70 kg and a weight of 700 N. If instead she is floating freely inside a non-rotating space habitat far from Earth, her mass would be 1) less than 70 kg 2) 70 kg 3) more than 70 kg and her weight would be 4) less than 700 N. 5) 700 N. 6) more than 700 N. Answer: 2, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity 4) A 400-N person stands on the surface of Earth. If he were somehow able to stand on a ladder so that he was twice as far from the center of Earth, he would weigh 1) 0 N. 2) 100 N. 3) 200 N. 4) 400 N. This would be because 5) he would be above the atmosphere. 6) his mass would be the same wherever he was. 7) the force due to gravity obeys the inverse square law. Answer: 2, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity

5) Earth and the Moon are attracted to each other by gravitational force. The more-massive Earth attracts the less-massive Moon with a force 1) less than the force that Moon exerts on Earth. 2) greater than that of the force that Moon exerts on Earth. 3) the same as that of the force that Moon exerts on Earth. This is in accord with 4) the law of inertia. 5) Kepler's Laws. 6) the conservation of energy. 7) the fact that both Moon and Earth orbit about a common point, the center of mass. 8) the law of action and reaction. Answer: 3, 8 Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity 6) If the mass of Earth somehow increased with no change in radius, your weight would 1) increase also. 2) decrease. 3) remain the same. If instead, both Earth's mass and its radius doubled, your weight at Earth's surface would be 4) half before the changes. 5) the same as before the changes. 6) twice. 7) four times greater. Answer: 1, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity

Figure G-1

7) Pretend an object is set sliding on a huge frictionless plane in contact with the surface of Earth as shown. Once the object is set in motion it will 1) theoretically slide to the right forever 2) slide back and forth 3) slow down and stop because 4) of its inertia. 5) gravitational force decreases with increasing distance. 6) the object is sliding "uphill" and then "downhill" relative to the round Earth. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity 8) High tides are predominately produced by the 1) strong gravitational pull of the Sun, 2) centrifugal force created by Earth-Moon orbit, 3) differences in gravitational pulls of the Moon on opposite sides of Earth, which is due to 4) rotation of Earth and Moon about the Sun. 5) Moon pulling with significantly more force on the closer side of Earth than on the farther side. 6) the Sun's pull on Earth being 200 times stronger than Moon's gravitational pull. Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity 9) If the Moon were covered with water, it would have 1) one high tidal bulge, 2) two high tidal bulges, 3) three high tidal bulges, 4) no tidal bulges, which would follow from 5) the same reason that Earth has two high tidal bulges. 6) no centrifugal force tide would exist on the Moon. 7) the Moon being much less massive than Earth. 8) the center of mass of Earth-Moon system that lies halfway to the Moon. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity 34 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) A lunar month is about 28 days. If the Moon were closer to Earth than it now is, the lunar month would be 1) less than 28 days, 2) more than 28 days, 3) still 28 days, mainly because 4) centripetal force would lessen with decreased distance. 5) a closer Moon means an increase in both gravitational force and speed, which in a smaller orbit means shorter time. 6) orbital speed about the center of mass of Earth-Moon system is not dependent upon the distance between Earth and Moon. 7) of tidal friction. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity Figure G-2

11) Suppose masses M1 and M2 are falling toward planet M under gravitational influence. We would find that M1 falls 1) faster than M2, 2) as fast as M2, 3) slower than M2, with the result that 4) ocean tides are formed on M. 5) the distance between M1 and M2 increases. 6) the distance between M1 and M2 decreases. 7) the distance between M1 and M2 remains unchanged, but the distance between M and M1 decreases. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity

12) The body chiefly responsible for ocean tides is the 1) Moon, 2) Sun, chiefly because 3) the Moon is closer to Earth than the sun. 4) gravitational pull by the Moon is less than that of the sun. 5) the difference between the Moon's pull on the near and far sides of Earth is appreciable. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity 13) Earth is closer to the Sun in winter than in summer. The orbital speed of Earth about the Sun is therefore faster during the 1) summer. 2) winter. 3) is the same for all seasons. Correspondingly, the gravitational force between the Sun and Earth is strongest during 4) summer. 5) winter. 6) is the same for all seasons. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity 14) The Moon does not fall to Earth because 1) the net force on it is zero. 2) it is being pulled by the sun and planets as well as Earth. 3) it is beyond the main pull of Earth's gravity. 4) but it does fall! More specifically, the Moon 5) is subject to both centripetal and centrifugal forces. 6) interacts with all massive bodies, both near and far. 7) is free of air resistance as well as other Earthly influences. 8) continually falls around Earth rather than straight into it. Answer: 4, 8 Diff: 2 Topic: Gravity

37.7 Questions About Projectile Motion Figure N-7

1) Ball A is dropped from rest as ball B is shot out horizontally. Ball A hits the ground 1) before ball B. 2) after ball B. 3) at the same time as ball B. This is because 4) ball A has less distance to travel. 5) ball B is acted upon by an additional force. 6) both balls fall the same vertical distance with the same acceleration. Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Projectile Motion Figure N-8

2) The trajectory of a cannonball fired from a canon depends on 1) the initial velocity. 2) the angle of projection. 3) the effects of air resistance. 4) all of these. When air resistance does affect motion, the cannonball doesn't travel 5) as high. 6) as far. 7) as high and as far. Answer: 4, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Projectile Motion

3) In the absence of air resistance, a projectile launched at the same speed at any angle will attain the greatest range when projected at 1) 30°. 2) 45°. 3) 60°. 4) 90°. In the case of throwing a heavy spear, not at the same speed but with the same force, the greatest range is attained more likely when thrown at 5) 30°. 6) 45°. 7) 60°. 8) 90°. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Projectile Motion 4) A projectile is launched vertically upward at 40 m/s. If air resistance is negligible, its speed upon returning to its starting point is 1) less than 40 m/s. 2) 40 m/s. 3) more than 40 m/s. All along the ball's trajectory, its acceleration is 4) g downward. 5) g at an angle. 6) zero. If air resistance does affect motion, then the ball's speed upon returning to its starting point is 7) less than 50 m/s. 8) 50 m/s. 9) more than 50 m/s. Answer: 2, 4, 7 Diff: 1 Topic: Projectile Motion

5) A garden hose is held at an angle of 50°. Neglecting air resistance, the water will travel exactly the same horizontal distance before returning to the same level if the hose is held at an angle of 1) 40°. 2) 45°. 3) 60°. For maximum range, the hose should be held at 4) 40°. 5) 45°. 6) 55°. 7) 60°. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Projectile Motion 6) Your lab instructor projects a ball horizontally from a lab bench that lands on the floor a horizontal distance away. Compared with the time the ball would take if simply dropped vertically from the bench, the time in the air for the projected ball is 1) less. 2) the same. 3) greater. The horizontal distance from the bottom of the bench the ball travels in hitting the floor is equal the ball's initial speed 4) multiplied by its time in the air. 5) coupled with its speed of fall. 6) squared plus its downward speed squared when hitting the floor. Answer: 2, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Projectile Motion 7) When you throw a stone horizontally from the top of a cliff at 10 m/s, one second after leaving your hand its vertical distance below the top of the cliff is 1) 5 m. 2) 10 m. 3) 15 m. And its speed at that instant is 4) 10 m/s. 5) about 14 m/s. 6) 15 m/s. 7) greater than 15 m/s. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 3 Topic: Projectile Motion 39 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

37.8 Questions About Satellite Motion 1) If a satellite travels at constant speed at all points in its orbit, then its path is 1) a circle. 2) an ellipse. 3) a parabola. It travels at constant speed because 4) the net force acting on the satellite is zero. 5) it is characteristic for a satellite to travel at constant speed in this type of orbit. 6) gravitational force decreases with increasing distance. 7) there is no component of gravitational pull directed along the satellite's path. 8) of inertia. Answer: 1, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Satellite Motion 2) A satellite in an elliptical orbit travels at a 1) constant speed 2) variable speed 3) not enough information to say because 4) the net force acting on it is zero. 5) of the component of gravitational force existing in its direction of motion. 6) it is characteristic of it to do so. 7) again, not enough information is given to say. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Satellite Motion 3) Earth satellites are typically more than 100 km high so as to be above Earth's 1) atmosphere, 2) gravitational field, 3) both the atmosphere and the gravitational field, and if its path is circular at that altitude, then the satellite has a constant 4) speed. 5) acceleration. 6) radial distance from Earth. 7) all of these 8) none of the above Answer: 1, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Satellite Motion

4) The force of gravity acts on a satellite when it is in 1) circular orbit. 2) elliptical orbit. 3) both of these 4) neither of these and does work on a satellite when it is in 5) circular orbit. 6) elliptical orbit. 7) both of these 8) neither of these Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Satellite Motion Figure G-3

5) A satellite follows an elliptical orbit about a planet as shown. The speed of the satellite is greatest when the satellite is in position 1) A. 2) B. 3) C. 4) D. 5) same at all points in its orbit. At which position is there no component of force in the direction of the satellite's instantaneous velocity? 6) A 7) B 8) C 9) D 10) A component of force exists in the direction of instantaneous velocity at every point along the orbital path. Answer: 1, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Satellite Motion

6) An Earth satellite is in an elliptical orbit. The satellite travels faster when it is A) nearest Earth B) farthest from Earth C) constant speed everywhere in orbit and in close orbit travels faster when orbiting 4) the Moon. 5) Earth. 6) both about the same for the same altitudes. Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Satellite Motion 7) To drop a package to Earth from a satellite, project it 1) straight downward. 2) ahead at satellite speed. 3) behind at satellite speed. With a speed of projection 4) less than satellite speed. 5) that matches satellite speed. 6) greater than satellite speed. 7) none of the above Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 3 Topic: Satellite Motion 8) Escape speed from Earth is about 1) 8 km/s. 2) 11.2 km/s. 3) more than 11.2 km/s. Interestingly, if a stone released at rest at the far edge of the solar system drops to Earth by virtue of only Earth gravity, it will strike Earth's surface with a speed of about 4) 8 m/s. 5) 10 km/s. 6) 11.2 km/s. 7) more than 11.2 km/s. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Satellite Motion

37.9 Questions About Atoms 1) There are about as many atoms of air in our lungs at any moment as there are breaths of air in the atmosphere of 1) a large auditorium. 2) a large city. 3) North America. 4) the whole world. If all the atoms exhaled by Isaac Newton in his last dying breath are still in the atmosphere, then we breathe about one of those atoms with each 5) single breath. 6) day of breathing. 7) month of breathing. 8) year of breathing. 9) none, for some people may inhale Newton's atoms occasionally while others may take years. Answer: 4, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Atoms 2) The atoms that make up a newborn baby were made 1) in the mother's womb, 2) from the food that the mother ate, 3) in the ancient stars, While all atoms heavier than copper were manufactured by processes 4) photosynthesis. 5) atomic fabrication. 6) supernova explosions. 7) radioactivity. 8) none of these. Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Atoms 3) The mass of matter is due mostly to its 1) protons 2) electrons while the volume of matter is due mostly to its 3) protons. 4) electrons. 5) none of these Answer: 1, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Atoms 43 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) Which of these following statements about atoms is valid? 1) The atom is the smallest particle that exists. 2) There are thousands of kinds of atoms, accounting for the great variety of substances. 3) There are nearly 100 different kinds of atoms found in nature. 4) Atoms are small building blocks of nature, being so small they cannot be photographed. The word molecule can be at least partly identified by the following statement: 5) The molecule is the smallest particle that exists. 6) The molecule is the smallest subdivision of matter that still retains the chemical properties of the substance from which it originates. 7) Combinations of molecules form atoms. 8) The chemical elements consist of 105 different molecules, a list that keeps growing. Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Atoms 5) What determines what element a configuration of protons, neutrons and electrons will be is 1) the number of protons, 2) the number of neutrons, 3) the mass of protons and neutrons, and the principal variable that determines whether the atoms will form a solid, liquid, gaseous, or plasma phase is 4) atomic number. 5) atomic weight. 6) density. 7) temperature. Answer: 1, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Atoms 6) If we had the most powerful optical microscope in the world stacked on top of the next most powerful optical microscope in the world, we would 1) probably see atoms, 2) probably be able to photograph atoms even if we couldn't see them, 3) still not be able to see an atom, because atoms are 4) invisible. 5) visible when illuminated with infrared light. 6) material particles which have mass and size. 7) smaller than the wavelengths of visible light. Answer: 3, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Atoms

37.10 Questions About Solids 1) The density of an average person is about 1) 480 kg/m3 (30 lb/ft3). 2) 960 kg/m3 (60 lb/ft3). 3) 1920 kg/m3 (120 lb/ft3). 4) 2400 kg/m3 (150 lb/ft3). From this we can see that the volume of a 120-lb person is about 5) 1 ft3. 6) 2 ft3. 7) 3 ft3. 8) 4 ft3. 9) not enough information to estimate. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 3 Topic: Solids 2) Doubling the linear size of an object multiplies its area by 1) two, 2) four, 3) six, 4) eight, and its volume and weight by 5) two. 6) four. 7) six. 8) eight. Answer: 2, 8 Diff: 2 Topic: Solids 3) Which eats more for its size (volume)? 1) a man 2) a mouse 3) an elephant 4) each eats approximately an amount of food in proportion to its size. This is because 5) the smaller the animal is, the more radiating area it has proportional to its volume. 6) the larger the animal is, the more radiating area it has proportional to its volume. 7) neither of these has any bearing on the dietary behavior of living creatures. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Solids 45 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) If all potatoes are selling at the same price per kilogram, a housewife who plans to peel the potatoes would get more potato for her money if she bought 1) small potatoes. 2) medium potatoes. 3) large potatoes. 4) no difference. This is because she 5) would get more potatoes per kilogram. 6) would get less potatoes per kilogram. 7) would get less peelings because of less surface area per pound. 8) buys weight, so any size per kilogram gives the same mass of potatoes. Answer: 3, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Solids 5) If an elephant grew in proportion to twice its normal height, then the area of its ears would be multiplied by 1) two 2) four 3) six 4) eight and its total weight would be multiplied by 5) two. 6) four. 7) six. 8) eight. Answer: 2, 8 Diff: 2 Topic: Solids

6) Consider the fictional case of the incredible shrinking man. If his height shrinks to one-tenth, his area shrinks to 1) 1/10, 2) 1/100, 3) 1/1000, 4) 1/10,000, 5) none of these, and his weight would shrink to 6) 1/10. 7) 1/100. 8) 1/1000. 9) 1/10,000. 10) none of these. Answer: 2, 8 Diff: 2 Topic: Solids 7) If the pencil you are holding were 10 times as long and 10 times as wide, its surface area would be multiplied by 1) 10 2) 100 3) 1000 4) 10,000 5) none of these and its volume would be multiplied by 6) 10. 7) 100. 8) 1000. 9) 10,000. 10) none of these. Answer: 2, 8 Diff: 2 Topic: Solids

8) A long horizontal wooden beam supported at its ends sags when you sit in the middle. Due to bending, the top part of the beam is under 1) tension. 2) compression. And the bottom of the beam is under 3) tension. 4) compression. And the part of a beam where no tension or compression occurs 5) along the center of the beam. 6) along the neutral layer. 7) both of these 8) none of these Answer: 2, 3, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Solids 37.11 Questions About Liquids Figure M-1

1) Which of the two identical pyramids is exerting the most pressure on the floor? 1) A 2) B 3) both the same The reason for this is that 4) they both have the same weight. 5) the heaviest part of the pyramid is closer to the floor. 6) the weight is distributed over a smaller area. 7) the weight is distributed over a larger area. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 1 Topic: Liquids

2) Which man exerts greater pressure against the floor? 1) a 150-kg man lying on the floor 2) a 150-kg man standing on the floor 3) Both men exert the same pressure. The reason is that 4) both men have the same weight. 5) the upright man's weight is distributed over a smaller area. 6) the man lying down has his weight equally distributed. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Liquids 3) Buoyant force is greater on a submerged 1) 1-kg block of lead. 2) 1-kg block of aluminum. 3) same on each Because 4) the aluminum block is larger. 5) they both have the same weight. Answer: 2, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Liquids Figure M-2

4) Two vases of different shapes each contain a goldfish. In the position shown, the fish that will feel the greatest pressure is 1) A 2) B 3) both experience the same because 4) the weight of water is greater in vase B. 5) fish A is nearer to the bottom of the vase. 6) both fish are at the same depth. Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Liquids

5) Two identical buckets are filled to the brim, one with water and the other with alcohol. The liquid pressure at the bottom of the bucket of water is 1) less than the pressure at the bottom of the bucket of alcohol. 2) more than the pressure at the bottom of the bucket of alcohol. 3) equal to the pressure at the bottom of the bucket of alcohol. This is because 4) both containers are of the same volume. 5) alcohol is less dense than water. 6) both containers are filled to the same depth. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Liquids 6) A boulder is thrown into a deep lake. As it sinks deeper and deeper in the water the buoyant force 1) increases. 2) decreases. 3) remains the same. This is because the 4) pressure increases with greater depth. 5) pressure decreases with greater depth. 6) volume and weight of displaced water are the same at any depth. Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Liquids

Figure M-3

7) A rock is sinking to the bottom of the lake. The buoyant force is greater at point 1) A. 2) B. 3) C. 4) equal at all levels. This follows from the fact that 5) pressure increases with depth. 6) the same weight of water is displaced at any depth. 7) the water is appreciably more compressed with increasing depth. 8) position B provides a moderate answer, between the extremes. Answer: 4, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Liquids Figure M-4

8) A certain force is required to keep a block of wood 1 m beneath the surface of water. The force required to keep it 2 m deep is 1) zero. 2) the same. 3) twice as much. 4) four times as much. This is because 6) pressure increases with increased depth. 7) it displaces the same weight of water at any depth. 8) wood floats. 9) surface tension is not present beneath the surface. Answer: 2, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Liquids

9) A stone submerged in water displaces a volume of water 1) greater than volume of stone. 2) less than volume of stone. 3) equal to volume of stone. If the stone were of low-enough density to be able to float, it would displace a volume of water 4) greater than its volume. 5) less than its volume. 6) equal to its volume. Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Liquids 10) A floating object displaces its own 1) volume, 2) weight, 3) density, and a submerged object displaces its own 4) volume. 5) weight. 6) density. Answer: 2, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Liquids 11) Compared to a ship floating in salt water, a ship floating in fresh water displaces 1) a greater weight of water, 2) a lesser weight of water, 3) the same weight of water, and it also displaces 4) a greater volume of water. 5) a lesser volume of water. 6) the same volume of water. Answer: 3, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Liquids

12) The density of a 57-kg (126-lb) person who can float in salt water but not in fresh water is about 1) 505 kg/m3 (32 lb/ft3) 2) 1010 kg/m3 (63 lb/ft3) 3) 2020 kg/m3 (126 lb/ft3) 4) 4040 kg/m3 (252 lb/ft3) and has a volume of about 5) 1 ft3. 6) 2 ft3. 7) 3 ft3. 8) 4 ft3. 9) need more information Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 3 Topic: Liquids 13) A 10-kg block has twice the density of water. Compared to 10 kg of water, its volume is 1) as much, 2) half as much, 3) twice as much, and when suspended in water its mass will seem to be 4) 0 kg. 5) 3.33 kg. 6) 5 kg. 7) 10 kg. 8) none of these. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 3 Topic: Liquids 14) When an ice cube in a glass of water melts, the water level will 1) rise. 2) fall. 3) remain the same. If the floating ice cube contains a chunk of iron, during melting the water level will 4) rise. 5) fall. 6) remain the same. Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 3 Topic: Liquids

Figure M-5

15) When the bent wire is lowered in the water and then raised to the surface, a further attempt to raise it causes the spring to 1) stretch 2) contract 3) stay the same due to water's 4) buoyant force. 5) surface tension. 6) capillarity. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Liquids 16) Matter in the plasma state is commonly found in 1) dry ice. 2) molten lava. 3) the flame of a high-temperature welding torch. Compared to solids, liquids, and gases in the universe, plasma is the most 4) abundant. 5) rare. 6) there is no valid estimate at this time. Answer: 3, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Liquids

17) The principal difference between a gas and a plasma has to do with 1) the kinds of elements involved, 2) interatomic spacing, 3) electrical conduction, 4) fluid pressure, 5) the proportion of antimatter, while the principal difference between a liquid and a gas has to do with 6) the kinds of elements involved. 7) interatomic spacing. 8) electrical conduction. 9) fluid pressure. 10) the proportion of antimatter. Answer: 3, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Liquids 18) When an ice cube in a glass of water melts, the water level will 1) rise. 2) fall. 3) remain the same. If the ice cube contains many air bubbles, after melting the water level will 4) rise. 5) fall. 6) remain the same. Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 3 Topic: Liquids 19) A cubic meter of lead which weighs 105 N is submerged in water. The buoyant force acting on it is about 1) the weight of a cubic meter of water, 104 N 2) half the weight of lead, 1/2 × 105 N 3) the weight of lead, 105 N because 4) the block loses half its apparent weight when suspended in water. 5) the block displaces 105 N of water. 6) the volume of water displaced is one cubic meter. Answer: 1, 6 Diff: 3 Topic: Liquids

20) Part of a wreck from a ship weighs 500 N. It displaces 100 N of fluid. The buoyant force acting on it is 1) 100 N. 2) 250 N. 3) 500 N. From this we can see that the buoyant force is equal to the 4) weight of the submerged object. 5) volume of fluid displaced. 6) difference between the weight of the object and the weight of fluid. 7) weight of fluid displaced. Answer: 1, 7 Diff: 3 Topic: Liquids 21) A boat in a small pool is loaded with a barrel full of water. If the water in the barrel is poured overboard, into the pool, the boat will 1) sink farther into the water, 2) ride higher in the water, 3) ride no higher or lower in the water, and the water level at the side of the pool will 4) rise. 5) fall. 6) remain unchanged. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 3 Topic: Liquids 22) If a battleship in a canal lock sinks, the water level in the canal will 1) rise. 2) fall. 3) remain unchanged. In the submerged condition, the amount of water displaced is equal to the battleship's 4) weight. 5) volume. 6) density. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 3 Topic: Liquids

37.12 Questions About Gases 1) The air in a closed room has 1) mass, 2) energy, 3) weight, 4) all of these, 5) none of these, and the greater the rate of molecular motion in the air, the greater the 6) temperature. 7) molecular kinetic energy. 8) air pressure. 9) all of these. 10) none of these. Answer: 4, 9 Diff: 2 Topic: Gases Figure M-7

2) The maximum weight that can be held under the conditions illustrated is 1) 104 N. 2) 105 N. 3) 0 N. 4) need more information It is interesting to note that in this case the piston actually is 5) pushed up by air. 6) pulled up by the vacuum. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 3 Topic: Gases

3) Atmospheric pressure is 105 N/m2 at sea level. This means that 1) a column of air 1 square meter in cross section extending up to the top of the atmosphere weighs 105 N, 2) the weight of one cubic meter of air at sea level is about 10 5 N, 3) the density of air is 105 N/m3, and the force of the atmosphere against a surface of one square meter is 4) somewhat less than 105 N. 5) about 105 N. 6) considerably more than 105 N. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Gases Figure M-6

4) It would be easier to pull the hemispheres apart 1) when they are at sea level 2) if submerged several meters in water 3) if high above the clouds because 4) external pressure on the hemispheres is lessened. 5) water serves as a lubricant. 6) the atmosphere exerts a pressure of 105 N/m2 on both hemispheres. Answer: 3, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Gases 5) If you are standing on the Moon and release a strong balloon filled with helium gas, the balloon will 1) rise. 2) fall. 3) neither rise nor fall. This occurs because 4) helium gas is lighter than air. 5) the Moon does not have an atmosphere. 6) gravity is weaker on the Moon. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Gases 58 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) Which has a greater buoyant force? 1) a huge lead zeppelin 2) a small helium-filled balloon 3) both 4) neither because 5) of its low density. 6) it occupies the greatest amount of space. 7) it occupies the least amount of space. 8) both have comparable densities. Answer: 1, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Gases 7) An umbrella has a tendency to move upward when it is windy principally because 1) moving air over the curved surface produces reduced pressure against its top. 2) air moves up into the "bowl" and pushes upward with increased pressure. 3) buoyancy increases with increasing wind speed. 4) the umbrella is simply pushed upward by the wind. This effect was first accurately described by 5) Galileo. 6) Newton. 7) Bernoulli. 8) Einstein. 9) Archimedes. Answer: 1, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Gases 8) When we drink through a straw, the liquid is actually 1) pulled up 2) sucked up 3) pushed up by 4) atmospheric pressure. 5) reduced pressure in the straw. 6) surface tension. 7) capillarity. Answer: 3, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Gases

9) When gas in a container is squeezed to half its volume, its density is 1) halved, 2) unchanged, 3) doubled, 4) quadrupled, and neglecting any temperature changes we would find the gas pressure to be 5) halved. 6) unchanged. 7) doubled. 8) quadrupled. Answer: 3, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Gases 10) A gas and a plasma are similar in that they are both 1) fluids, 2) crystalline, 3) covalent, 4) in cohesively bound states, while the principle difference between a gas and a plasma has to do with 5) atomic number. 6) density. 7) pressure. 8) electrical conduction. Answer: 1, 8 Diff: 2 Topic: Gases

37.13 Questions About Heat 1) The quantity that tells how warm or cold a body is with respect to some standard body is called 1) heat. 2) internal energy. 3) temperature. 4) molecular kinetic energy. The internal energy that is transferred from one body to another because of a temperature difference is called 5) heat. 6) potential energy. 7) temperature. 8) molecular kinetic energy. Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 1 Topic: Heat 2) A container of hydrogen gas has the same temperature as a container of denser oxygen gas. The gas atoms having the greater average kinetic energy are the 1) hydrogen, 2) oxygen, 3) both the same, while the gas atoms having the greater average velocity are the 4) hydrogen. 5) oxygen. 6) both the same. Answer: 3, 4 Diff: 1 Topic: Heat 3) Which of the following expands most when temperature is increased? 1) iron 2) ice water 3) helium 4) all expand the same Which of the following expands most when temperature is decreased? 5) iron 6) ice water 7) helium 8) all expand the same Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 1 Topic: Heat 61 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) Which of the following expands most when temperature is decreased? 1) iron 2) ice water 3) helium 4)All expand the same. Which of the following contracts most when temperature is decreased? 5) iron 6) ice water 7) helium 8) All contract the same. Answer: 2, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Heat 5) Which of the following contracts the most when temperature is decreased? 1) iron 2) ice water 3) helium 4) All contract the same. Which of the following contracts the most when temperature is increased? 5) iron 6) ice water 7) helium 8)All contract the same. Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 1 Topic: Heat 6) Heat from the Sun gets to Earth by the process of 1) osmosis. 2) radiation. 3) molecular movement. 4) convection. 5) conduction. When sunlight reaches Earth, it becomes 6) internal energy. 7) solar energy. 8) electromagnetic radiation. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 1 Topic: Heat

7) When water at 4°C is heated, it expands. When water at 4°C is cooled, it 1) contracts, 2) expands, 3) neither contracts nor expands, 4) not enough information given, which follows from the fact that 5) cooling decreases the kinetic energy of H2O molecules. 6) water has its greatest density at 4°C. 7) we do not know how the water is cooled. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 1 Topic: Heat 8) When air rapidly expands, its temperature will 1) decrease, 2) increase, 3) stay the same, whereas when air is rapidly compressed, its temperature will 4) decrease. 5) increase. 6) stay the same. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 1 Topic: Heat 9) When a molecule collides with another that is approaching with greater momentum, its rebound speed 1) stays the same, 2) increases, 3) decreases, and when a molecule collides with another that is receding, its rebound speed 4) stays the same. 5) increases. 6) decreases. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 1 Topic: Heat

10) Evaporation of water from a tea kettle takes place 1) at the surface of the water, 2) at the bottom of the water, 3) throughout the water, whereas boiling takes place 4) at the surface of the water. 5) at the bottom of the water. 6) throughout the water. Answer: 1, 6 Diff: 1 Topic: Heat 11) Provided that in each case heat input is the same, boiling takes place more quickly 1) at sea level. 2) in a valley. 3) in the mountains. This is because 4) increased pressure on the surface of a liquid lowers its boiling point. 5) decreased pressure on the surface of a liquid lowers its boiling point. 6) water always boils quickest at sea level. Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 1 Topic: Heat 12) When a solid changes to a liquid and then to a gas, energy is 1) released, 2) absorbed, and when gas changes to liquid and then to solid, energy is 3) released. 4) absorbed. Answer: 2, 3 Diff: 1 Topic: Heat

13) When water freezes, the surrounding air is 1) cooled, 2) warmed, 3) unchanged, and when ice melts, the surrounding air is 4) cooled. 5) warmed. 6) unchanged. Answer: 2, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Heat 14) Dew on the grass results from 1) fast-moving molecules. 2) evaporation. 3) open-structured water crystals. 4) the pressure of the atmosphere on water vapor. 5) the slowing down of fast-moving water molecules. As dew forms on the grass, energy is 6) given to the grass by the water vapor. 7) given up by the grass to the water vapor. Answer: 5, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Heat 15) In the process of evaporation 1) heavier atoms are most prone to leave the liquid, 2) there is a net gain in the number of atoms in the liquid, 3) energy is absorbed by the liquid, 4) all of these, 5) none of these, and the average rate of molecular motion for the atoms remaining in the liquid 6) increases. 7) decreases. 8) remains unchanged. Answer: 5, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Heat

Figure H-1

16) When an iron ring is heated, the hole becomes 1) smaller, 2) larger, 3) neither smaller nor larger, which follows from the fact that 4) expansion takes place inward toward the center of the ring as well as outward. 5) expansion takes place in all directions. 6) the surrounding air and the iron expand at different rates. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Heat 17) When a metal plate with a hole in it is cooled, the size of the hole becomes 1) smaller, 2) larger, 3) remains the same size, and when the plate is heated, the hole becomes 4) smaller. 5) larger. 6) remains the same size. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Heat

18) Consider a sample of water at 6°C. If the temperature is slightly increased, the volume of water 1) increases. 2) decreases. 3) remains unchanged. Suppose the water is cooled instead to 3°C. Then further cooling of it will cause its volume to 4) increase. 5) decrease. 6) remain unchanged. Answer: 1, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Heat 19) When steam condenses, the H2O 1) releases energy. 2) absorbs energy. 3) neither of these. When water freezes, the H2O 4) releases energy. 5) absorbs energy. 6) neither of these. Answer: 1, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Heat 20) On cold days your bedroom window may get wet on the inside. This is because 1) the air near the glass becomes saturated. 2) a change in phase from gas to liquid occurs. 3) H2O molecules release energy when they liquify on the glass. 4) fast-moving H2O molecules slow down and condense when they encounter the cold glass. If the air in the room were colder than the air outside, then quite likely 5) the glass would be even wetter. 6) no wetness would occur. 7) the glass would be wet (or frosty) on the outside surface. 8) none of the above. Answer: 4, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Heat

37.14 Questions About Vibrations and Sound 1) Sound travels through the air in the form of 1) transverse waves, 2) longitudinal waves, and radio signals travel through the air in the form of 3) transverse waves. 4) longitudinal waves. Answer: 2, 3 Diff: 1 Topic: Vibrations and Sound 2) Pitch corresponds to 1) frequency, 2) noise, 3) loudness, whereas amplitude corresponds to 4) frequency. 5) noise. 6) loudness. Answer: 1, 6 Diff: 1 Topic: Vibrations and Sound 3) A vibrating tuning fork causes an identical fork nearby to vibrate. This is called 1) refraction. 2) resonance. 3) beats. 4) reverberation. For this to occur, both forks must have the same (or multiple) 5) intensities. 6) amplitudes. 7) frequencies. 8) geometries. 9) all of these. Answer: 2, 7 Diff: 1 Topic: Vibrations and Sound

Figure S-1

4) Which wave has the greatest period of oscillation? 1) Wave I 2) Wave II 3) Wave III 4) Wave IV If the waves have the same frequency, which is going by with the greatest speed? 5) Wave I 6) Wave II 7) Wave III 8) Wave IV 9) all have the same speed Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Vibrations and Sound Figure S-2

5) If these are sound waves, which corresponds to the highest pitch? 1) Wave I 2) Wave II 3) Wave III 4) Wave IV And which has the greatest wavelength? 5) Wave I 6) Wave II 7) Wave III 8) Wave IV 9) all have the same wavelength Answer: 4, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Vibrations and Sound

6) Compared to a soft sound, the speed of a loud sound is 1) less, 2) greater, 3) the same, and compared to low-frequency sound, higher-frequency sound travels 4) more slowly. 5) faster. 6) the same speed. Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Vibrations and Sound 7) If the handle of a tuning fork is held solidly against a table, its resulting sound is 1) louder, 2) softer, 3) doesn't change, and as a result of this, the length of time the fork keeps vibrating 4) increases. 5) decreases. 6) doesn't change. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Vibrations and Sound 8) When a source of sound approaches, measurements will show an increase in the sound's 1) speed, 2) frequency, 3) wavelength, 4) all of these, 5) none of these, and when a source of sound recedes, measurements will show an increase in the sound's 6) speed. 7) frequency. 8) wavelength. 9) all of these. 10) none of these. Answer: 2, 8 Diff: 2 Topic: Vibrations and Sound

9) The aircraft that generates a shock wave will fly at 1) half the speed of sound. 2) exactly the speed of sound. 3) twice the speed of sound. 4) all of these. A sonic boom is produced by a missile traveling 5) near the speed of sound. 6) at the speed of sound. 7) only above the speed of sound. 8) near, at, or above the speed of sound. Answer: 3, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Vibrations and Sound Figure S-3

10) A V-shaped bow wave is produced when a boat moves 1) more slowly than the velocity of waves in the water. 2) as fast as the waves in the water. 3) faster than the velocity of waves in the water. 4) at any speed, slower or faster than the water waves. Which bow wave corresponds to the faster-moving boat? 5) I 6) II Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Vibrations and Sound

Figure S-4

11) A supersonic aircraft flies between observers A and B as shown. The resulting sonic boom will soon be heard by 1) only observer A. 2) only observer B. 3) both A and B. 4) neither A nor B. The intensity of the sonic boom depends on the 5) speed of the aircraft. 6) size of the aircraft. 7) distance from the aircraft. 8) all of the above. 9) none of the above. Answer: 3, 8 Diff: 2 Topic: Vibrations and Sound 12) Refraction occurs for both sound and light. When refraction occurs there is a change in 1) frequency. 2) wavelength. 3) speed. 4) all of the above. When sound travels faster near the ground than above, bending of sound tends to be 5) upward. 6) downward. 7) neither of these. Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Vibrations and Sound

37.15 Questions About Electricity and Magnetism 1) Protons and electrons 1) repel each other. 2) attract each other. 3) do not interact with each other. If the distance between a proton and an electron is doubled, the electrical force is 4) 1/4 as much. 5) 1/2 as much. 6) the same. 7) twice as much. 8) four times as much. Answer: 2, 4 Diff: 1 Topic: Electricity and Magnetism 2) The force that holds atoms together to form molecules is 1) electric, 2) magnetic, 3) gravitational, 4) nuclear, and the force that holds the protons in a nucleus together is 5) electric. 6) magnetic. 7) gravitational. 8) nuclear. Answer: 1, 8 Diff: 1 Topic: Electricity and Magnetism 3) A pair of like electric charges 1) repel each other, 2) attract each other, and a pair of like magnetic poles 3) repel each other. 4) attract each other. Answer: 1, 3 Diff: 1 Topic: Electricity and Magnetism

4) A hydrogen atom consists of a single proton and a single electron. If the distance between the proton and the electron were doubled, the electric force would be 1) 1/4 as much, 2) 1/2 as much, 3) twice as much, 4) not enough information to say, and if instead the distance between the electron and proton were halved, the electric force would be 5) 1/4 as much. 6) 1/2 as much. 7) twice as much. 8) four times as much. 9) not enough information to say Answer: 1, 8 Diff: 2 Topic: Electricity and Magnetism 5) A bird sitting on a bare high-voltage wire is not electrocuted because 1) of the high resistance of its body. 2) of no electrical potential difference across its body. 3) its body is at a low electric potential compared to the wire. 4) the high voltage across its feet produces a very small current. If the bird stood on the wire with only one foot, it would 5) be electrocuted. 6) remain unharmed. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Electricity and Magnetism 6) Electric potential energy is measured in 1) amperes. 2) volts. 3) joules. 4) watts and electric potential is measure in 5) amperes. 6) volts. 7) joules. 8) watts Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Electricity and Magnetism

7) Ohm's law tells us that the amount of current produced in a circuit is 1) directly proportional to voltage. 2) inversely proportional to resistance. 3) both of these which means that current in a conductor can be increased by 4) increasing the voltage across it. 5) reducing its resistance. 6) both of these D) none of the above Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Electricity and Magnetism 8) The source of electrons lighting common lamps in your classroom is 1) the power company, 2) the electrical outlet, 3) atoms in the lamp filament, 4) the wires leading to the lamp, whereas the source of energy that lights a common lamp in your home is 5) the power company. 6) the electrical outlet. 7) atoms in the bulb filament. 8) the wires leading to the lamp. Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Electricity and Magnetism 9) When two lamps are connected in series to a battery, the electrical resistance that the battery senses is 1) more than the resistance of either lamp, 2) less than the resistance of either lamp, And when the same two lamps are connected in parallel to a battery, the electrical resistance that the battery senses is 3) more than the resistance of either lamp. 4) less than the resistance of either lamp. 5) none of these Answer: 1, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Electricity and Magnetism

Figure E/M-1

10) Refer to the identical lamps above. If the current in lamp 1 is one ampere, then the current in lamp 2 is 1) 1/2 ampere, 2) 1/3 ampere, 3) 1 ampere, 4) 2 amperes, and the total current in the lamps and in the dry cell is 5) 0. 6) 1/2 ampere. 8) 1/3 ampere. 9) 1 ampere. 10) 3 amperes. Answer: 3, 9 Diff: 2 Topic: Electricity and Magnetism 11) In a series circuit of three identical lamps powered by a 1.5-volt dry cell, the voltage across each lamp is 1) 1/2 V. 2) 1 V. 3) 1-1/2 V. If any one of the lamps is disconnected, the other lamps will 4) go out. 5) continue to glow. Answer: 1, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Electricity and Magnetism

Figure E/M-2

12) Refer to the identical lamps above. If the current in lamp 1 is one ampere, then the current in lamp 2 is 1) 1/2 A 2) 1/3 A 3) 1 A 4) 2 A 5) 3 A and the voltage across lamp 2 is 6) 1/2 V. 7) 1/3 V. 8) 1 V. 9) 1.5 V. 10) 3 V. Answer: 3, 9 Diff: 2 Topic: Electricity and Magnetism 13) For three identical lamps in parallel with a 1.5-volt dry cell, the voltage across the lower lamp is 1) 1/2 V. 2) 1 V. 3) 1.5 V. 4) 3 V. If that lamp is disconnected, the other two lamps will 5) glow the same. 6) glow much more brightly. 7) glow much more dimly. Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Electricity and Magnetism

14) The electrons that make up the current in an electric circuit move by 1) interacting with the electric field established in the circuit. 2) bumping into one another in such as way as to send pulses over long distances. The drift speed of individual electrons making up the current is 3) very low, about a snail's pace. 4) about the speed of sound. 5) about the speed of light. Answer: 1, 3 Diff: 2 Topic: Electricity and Magnetism 15) In a 120-volt circuit, 120 joules of 1) charge move each second, which makes up the current, 2) energy are given to each unit of charge that makes up the current, 3) energy are given to each unit of resistance in the circuit, and if the current is 1 ampere, then 4) 1 unit of charge per second passes any point in the circuit. 5) 120 units of charge per second pass any point in the circuit. 6) the resistance of the circuit is 1 ohm. Answer: 2, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Electricity and Magnetism Figure E/M-3

16) Refer to the figure above. When the switch is closed in the primary circuit, 1) voltage is established in the primary coil 2) a current is established in the primary coil 3) a magnetic field builds up around the primary coil 4) all of the above and a voltage is induced in the secondary circuit principally because 5) of the voltage in the primary. 6) of the change of current in the primary. 7) the expanding magnetic field about the primary is sensed by the secondary. Answer: 4, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Electricity and Magnetism

Figure E/M-4

17) Refer to the figure above. Assume the switch in the primary has been closed for a few minutes. Then there is a current in the 1) primary, but not the secondary. 2) secondary, but not the primary. 3) primary and secondary. 4) neither the primary nor the secondary. When the switch is opened suddenly, current in the primary 5) decreases, while current builds up in the secondary. 6) increases, while current decreases in the secondary. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Electricity and Magnetism 18) A device that transforms electrical energy to mechanical energy is 1) a generator, 2) a motor, 3) a transformer, 4) any common magnet, and a device that transforms mechanical energy into electrical energy is a 5) generator. 6) motor. 7) transformer. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Electricity and Magnetism

37.16 Questions About Light 1) Strictly speaking, if a beam of white light is shone through a piece of very thick glass, the first color to emerge from the other side is 1) white. 2) violet. 3) red. 4) green. This is because 5) all frequencies travel at c. 6) lower frequencies undergo more refraction in a medium. 7) higher frequencies of light travel at a faster average speed through a medium. 8) higher frequencies of light interact with more molecules in a medium. Answer: 3, 8 Diff: 1 Topic: Light 2) A ray of light is incident on a pane of common window glass at an angle of 35° to the normal. The angle of the reflected ray with respect to the normal is 1) 35° 2) 55° 3) 90° 4) 20° and the refracted ray within the glass may be at an angle of 5) 35°. 6) 55°. 7) 22°. 8) 75°. Answer: 1, 7 Diff: 1 Topic: Light 3) A 2-m-tall person viewing his full-length image in a plane mirror requires a mirror that is at least 1) any visible size. 2) 2 m tall. 3) 1 m tall. The size of mirror required 4) depends on how far away from it he stands. 5) does not depend on how far away from it he stands. Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Light 80 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) Light passes readily through a pair of Polaroids when their axes are 1) parallel. 2) perpendicular. 3) neither of these, and for a pair of Polaroids with axes at 45 degrees to each other 4) light will not pass. 5) light that passes is dimmer than for parallel Polaroids. 6) another Polaroid is necessary for any light to pass. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Light 5) Rainbows exist because light in water drops is 1) reflected. 2) refracted. 3) both of these And the main reason drops disperse different colors involves light's different 4) frequencies. 5) speeds. 6) directions. 7) energies. Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Light 6) A pinhole cameras has no lens. The tiny pin-hole opening insures that rays of light from different parts of an object 1) overlap. 2) don't overlap. 3) bend to a focus. Small openings between leaves in a tree act as pinholes. The round spots of light cast on the ground below are images of 4) the Sun. 5) the openings themselves. 6) both of these 7) neither of these Answer: 2, 4 Diff: 1 Topic: Light

7) The "after glow" from some clock faces is caused by atoms 1) being excited, 2) vibrating at frequencies greater than a million billion times per second, 3) remaining for some time in a state of excitation before de-exciting, and materials exhibiting this property are called 4) fluorescent. 5) phosphorescent. 6) incandescent. 7) luminescent. Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Light 8) If the sky were ordinarily yellow-orange instead of blue, then sunsets would appear 1) orange, 2) green, 3) blue, 4) black, which has to do with 5) the polarization of sunlight. 6) yellow-orange and sky blue being complementary colors. 7) the refraction of sunlight through the thicker atmosphere. Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Light 9) A spectrum of colors seen in gasoline on a wet street is primarily a result of 1) interference, 2) polarization, 3) refraction, 4) scattering, 5) diffraction, where 6) the light reaching the eye is polarized by double reflection. 7) only the higher frequencies of light resonate with the gasoline and H 2O molecules. 8) the thin film of gasoline spreads the light out into its component colors. 9) light reflecting from the gasoline surface interferes with light reflecting from the water surface. Answer: 1, 9 Diff: 2 Topic: Light

Figure L-1

10) The diagram is of a simple spectroscope. If lens #1 were omitted, the resulting spectrum would be 1) much dimmer. 2) upside down. 3) no different. If, instead, the slit were opened too wide, the middle of the spectrum would appear 4) white. 5) much narrower. 6) black. 7) a broader yellow. Answer: 1, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Light Figure L-2

11) The radiation curve is a plot of light intensity versus frequency for an incandescent source. If this light is first passed through a cool gas, the resulting radiation curve would most probable look like 1) I. 2) II. 3) III. This best illustrates that the atoms of gas have 4) been excited. 5) absorbed part of the light. 6) simplified selective frequencies of the transmitted light. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Light 83 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

Figure L-3

12) The radiation curve is a plot of light intensity versus frequency for an incandescent source such as a glowing lamp filament. If the source of light were excited atoms in the gaseous phase, the radiation curve would look like 1) I. 2) II. 3) III. 4) IV. The plot shown in IV is of 5) monochromatic light. 6) a very bright source. 7) light that has passed through a thin slit. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Light 13) Light from a laser is 1) monochromatic. 2) in phase. 3) coherent. 4) all of the above. Compared to the energy put into a laser, the energy of the laser beam is 5) usually much more. 6) much less. 7) the same. Answer: 4, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Light

37.17 Questions About Atomic and Nuclear Physics 1) The thing that is different between x-rays and radio waves is 1) their charges, 2) their masses, 3) their frequencies, 4) the medium through which they travel, 5) the speeds at which they travel, and the thing that is the same for x-rays and radio waves is 6) their masses. 7) their frequencies. 8) the medium through which they travel. 9) the speeds at which they travel. 10) none of these. Answer: 3, 9 Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Figure A-1

2) Refer to the figure above. Assuming that all transitions between levels are possible, how many spectral lines will this atom exhibit? 1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5) 5 The spectral line of highest frequency will result from an electron transition from n = 3 to 6) n = 2. 7) n = 1. 8) either, if the levels are equidistant. Answer: 3, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics

3) Refer to the figure above. Suppose that an electron makes a transition from n = 3 to n = 2 and emits a photon of frequency 4 × 1014 Hz. Then an electron that makes a transition from n = 3 to n = 1 may emit a photon with a frequency of 1) 1 × 1014 Hz, 2) 3 × 1014 Hz, 3) 4 × 1014 Hz, 4) 9 × 1014 Hz, which is consistent with emission of the most energetic photon from a transition from n = 3 to 5) n = 1. 6) n = 2. 7) either, as both transitions are equivalent. Answer: 4, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics 4) The Uncertainty Principle states that 1) all measurements are essentially incorrect to some degree. 2) no measurement is exact. 3) we cannot in principle know both the position and momentum (or energy and time) of a particle with absolute certainty. 4) science itself is essentially uncertain. The Uncertainty Principle is applicable 5) only in the atomic domain. 6) in all physical domains, from the nuclear to the cosmic. 7) in all areas of good theory, scientific or otherwise. Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics 5) The diameter of a mercury atom, atomic number 80, compared with the diameter of a zirconium atom, atomic number 40, is approximately 1) half as large 2) twice as large 3) the same size because the 4) atomic masses are not appreciably different. 5) greater nuclear charge pulls the orbiting electrons closer. 6) atomic number and atomic diameter are directly proportional to each other. 7) atomic number and atomic diameter are inversely proportional to each other. Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics 86 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) The ratio of the circumference of any circle to its diameter is π. Similarly, the ratio of the energy of any photon to its frequency is 1) h, Planck's constant, 2) uncertain, unlike π, 3) the wavelength of the photon, 4) c, the photon's speed, which is 5) a basic constant of nature setting a lower limit on the smallness of things. 6) a basic constant of nature setting an upper limit on the speed of things. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics 7) Orbital electrons do not spiral into the atomic nucleus because of 1) electrical forces, 2) the wave nature of the electrons, 3) angular momentum, 4) the discreteness of energy levels, 5) quantum mechanical laws, and the electrons have discrete radii from the nucleus because 6) the circumference of each orbit is an integral multiple of the electron wavelength. 7) electrical forces act over discrete distances. 8) energy levels themselves are discrete. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics 8) A new theory conforms to the Correspondence Principle when it 1) successfully accounts for the verified results of the old theory. 2) corresponds to all theories of nature. 3) states the essence of the old theory, but in an up-to-date way. 4) successfully ties two or more theories together. The Correspondence Principle is applicable 5) principally at the atomic level. 6) in all realms of physics. 7) for all good theory, scientific or otherwise. Answer: 1, 7 Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics

9) A radioactive isotope has a half-life of one month. At the end of one month, the amount of the original isotope still remaining is 1) none, 2) one-quarter, 3) one-half, 4) three-fourths, and at the end of two months, the amount of original isotope remaining is 5) none. 6) one-fourth. 7) one-half. 8) three-fourths. Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics 10) Radioactive isotope A has a half-life of one year, while radioactive isotope B has a half-life of one day. If equal numbers of atoms of each are present, which will give the highest reading on a Geiger counter? 1) A 2) B 3) both the same How much of the original sample of radioactive isotope A will be left at the end of the second year? 4) none 5) one-quarter 6) one-half 7) one-eighth Answer: 2, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics

11) A radioactive isotope has a half-life of one week. At the end of two weeks the amount remaining is 1) none, 2) one-eighth, 3) one-quarter, 4) one-half, and at the end of three weeks the amount remaining is 5) none. 6) one-eighth. 7) one-quarter. 8) one-half. Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics 12) Radioactive by-products mostly occur when atomic nuclei 1) break apart, 2) combine together, and radioactive by-products are a chief result of atomic nuclei 3) breaking apart. 4) combining together. 5) doing neither. Answer: 1, 3 Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics 13) The energy released by the Sun is the outcome of atomic nuclei 1) breaking apart, 2) combining together, and radioactive by-products are a chief result of atomic nuclei 3) breaking apart. 4) combining together. 5) doing neither. Answer: 2, 3 Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics

14) When heavy elements such as uranium undergo fission, there is an accompanying 1) loss of mass, 2) gain of mass, 3) no change in mass, and when light elements such as hydrogen undergo fusion, there is an accompanying 4) loss of mass. 5) gain of mass. 6) no change in mass. Answer: 1, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics Figure A-2

15) If the mass per nucleon in atomic nuclei varied as shown in the fictitious plot above, then nuclear energy would be available from the element iron (atomic no. 26) by the process of nuclear 1) fission. 2) fusion. 3) both. 4) neither. Accordingly, uranium would yield energy by nuclear 5) fission. 6) fusion. 7) both. 8) neither. Answer: 3, 6 Diff: 3 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Figure A-3

16) If the mass per nucleon in atomic nuclei varied as shown in the fictitious plot above, then nuclear energy would be available from the element iron (atomic no. 26) by the process of nuclear 1) fission. 2) fusion. 3) both. 4) neither. Accordingly, hydrogen would yield energy by nuclear 5) fission. 6) fusion. 7) both. 8) neither. 9) not enough information to say. Answer: 2, 6 Diff: 3 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Figure A-4

17) If the mass per nucleon in atomic nuclei varied as shown in the fictitious plot above, then nuclear energy would be available from the element iron (atomic no. 26) by the process of nuclear 1) fission. 2) fusion. 3) both. 4) neither. Accordingly, krypton (atomic no. 36) would yield energy by nuclear 5) fission. 6) fusion. 7) both. 8) neither. 9) not enough information to say. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 3 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics

Figure A-5

18) If the mass per nucleon in atomic nuclei varied as shown in the fictitious plot above, then nuclear energy would be available from the element iron (atomic no. 26) by the process of nuclear 1) fission. 2) fusion. 3) both. 4) neither. Accordingly, krypton (atomic no. 36) would yield energy by nuclear 5) fission. 6) fusion. 7) both. 8) neither. 9) not enough information to say. Answer: 4, 8 Diff: 3 Topic: Atomic and Nuclear Physics 37.18 Questions About Relativity 1) According to special relativity 1) space and time are aspects of each other. 2) mass and energy are aspects of each other, 3) both of the above, 4) neither of the above, and the underlying postulate of special relativity is 5) F = ma. 6) E = mc2. 7) that the speed of light has a constant value for all observers. Answer: 3, 7 Diff: 1 Topic: Relativity

2) As a particle is accelerated to relativistic speeds, laboratory measurements of its momentum show 1) an increase, 2) a decrease, 3) no change, and measurements of its volume show 4) an increase. 5) a decrease. 6) no change. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 1 Topic: Relativity 3) If you were traveling at the speed of light, next to a beam of light, the beam would appear to 1) be at relative rest, traveling beside you at an equal speed. 2) still travel away from you, but at a speed less than c. 3) travel away from you at c. From this we see that the speed of light in free space will be found to 4) have the same value for all observers. 5) be relative to the motion of the observer. Answer: 3, 4 Diff: 1 Topic: Relativity 4) Special relativity is most concerned with 1) uniform motion, 2) accelerated motion, 3) the warping of space-time, 4) gravitation, whereas general relativity is more concerned with 5) uniform motion. 6) accelerated motion. 7) energy and mass. 8) time. Answer: 1, 6 Diff: 1 Topic: Relativity

5) Light bends as it 1) passes a massive star, 2) traverses any gravitational field, 3) both of these, 4) none of these, and when emitted from a massive star, light is 5) red shifted. 6) blue shifted. 7) speeded up. 8) none of these. Answer: 3, 5 Diff: 1 Topic: Relativity 6) According to the principle of equivalence in general relativity, 1) space and time are aspects of each other. 2) energy and mass are aspects of each other. 3) electricity and magnetism are aspects of each other. 4) observations made in an accelerating frame are indistinguishable from observations made in a gravitational field. 5) all of the above. Einstein's gravitation theory obeys the principle of correspondence in that it 6) corresponds to a truer description of events in very strong gravitational fields. 7) is a special case of Newton's theory. 8) has been proven in repeated experiments. 9) agrees with the proven results of Newton's theory. 10) cannot distinguish between observations made in an accelerating frame and a gravitational field. Answer: 4, 9 Diff: 2 Topic: Relativity

7) When light is gravitationally red or blue shifted, that which is shifted is 1) wave frequency, 2) wavelength, 3) wave energy, 4) all of these, 5) none of these, and when light is Doppler shifted, that which is shifted is actually 6) wave frequency. 7) wave amplitude. 8) both of these. 9) none of these. Answer: 4, 6 Diff: 2 Topic: Relativity 8) An astronaut falling into a black hole would see events toward the singularity 1) red shifted, 2) blue shifted, 3) with no shift, and she would see events from the outside normal universe 4) red shifted. 5) blue shifted. 6) with no shift. Answer: 1, 5 Diff: 3 Topic: Relativity 9) Strictly speaking, from the point of view of a person on the ground floor of a tall skyscraper, a person at the top ages 1) more slowly, 2) faster, 3) the same, and from the point of view of a person at the top of the skyscraper, the person at the ground level ages 4) more slowly. 5) faster. 6) the same. Answer: 2, 4 Diff: 2 Topic: Relativity

10) If the Sun collapsed to a neutron star or black hole, Earth would 1) spiral into the Sun's core, 2) remain in its present orbit, 3) spiral away from the Sun, 4) itself undergo collapse, for the variable that changes in Newton's gravitational equation is 5) distance. 6) the mass of the Sun. 7) the mass of Earth. 8) all of these. 9) none of these. Answer: 2, 9 Diff: 2 Topic: Relativity 11) A spear 10 meters long is thrown at a relativistic speed through a pipe that is 10 meters long (both these dimensions are measured when each is at rest). When the spear passes through the pipe, which of the following statements best describes what is observed? 1) The spear shrinks so that the pipe completely covers it at some point. 2) The pipe shrinks so that the spear extends from both ends at some point. 3) Both shrink equally so the pipe just barely covers the spear at some point. 4) any of these, depending on the motion of the observer (moving with the spear, at rest with the pipe, etc.) An observer fixed to the pipe would measure the mass of the spear to be greater than when at rest; an observer moving with the spear would measure the mass of the pipe to be 5) more than when at rest. 6) less than when at rest. 7) the same as when at rest. Answer: 4, 5 Diff: 2 Topic: Relativity