Primary Care Art and Science of Advanced Practice, Dunphy, 4th Edition Test Bank

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Primary Care Art and Science of Advanced Practice, Dunphy, 4th Edition Test Bank Full ACCESS Test Bank From Link Below https://nursylab.com/products/primary-care-art-and-science-of -advanced-practice-dunphy-4th-edition-test-bank/ TestBank Directly From The publisher, 100% Verified Answers. COVERS ALL CHAPTERS. Download Immediately

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Chapter 3. Health Promotion Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____

1. Which of the following is a primary prevention measure for a 76-year-old man newly diagnosed

with a testosterone deficiency? a. Calcium supplementation b. Testicular self-examination c. Bone density test d. Digital rectal examination ____

2. Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention in a 50-year-old woman? a. Yearly mammogram b. Low animal fat diet c. Use of seat belt d. Daily application of sunscreen

____

3. Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with chronic renal failure? a. Fluid restriction b. Hemodialysis 4 days a week c. High-protein diet d. Maintenance of blood pressure at 120/80

____

4. Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary

True/False Indicate whether the statement is true or false. ____

1. Prevalence is the number of new cases of a particular disease.

____

2. The number of cases of a particular disease for the past 5 years is an example of the incidence rate.

____

3. ÒThere are 1,185,000 cases of HIV/AIDS in the United StatesÓ is an example of the morbidity rate.

____

4. Endemic is the term used when the presence of an event is constant.

____

5. The ÒbirdÓ flu of 2005 to 2006 is considered a sporadic outbreak.

____

6. A pandemic affects many communities in a short period of time.

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Chapter 3. Health Promotion Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 2. 3. 4.

ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:

A A B A

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1

F F T T F T

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1

TRUE/FALSE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:

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Chapter 5. Evidence-Based Care Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____

1. Which of the following are parts of evidence-based practice? a. Clinician b. Patient c. Evidence d. All of the above

____

2. Which is the most important question to ask in nursing research? a. What findings constitute evidence? b. How will the findings be used? c. Is this a randomized controlled trial? d. What theory is being utilized?

____

3. Nursing research should be utilized by: a. Nurses at the bedside b. Advanced practice nurses c. Nurse researchers d. Nurses at all levels of practice

____

4. Applying evidence at the point of care requires: a. Readily available evidence-based resources b. Ability to review research literature c. Single articles in journals d. Current textbooks

____

5. Practice guidelines are designed to: a. Be inflexible b. Be utilized in every circumstance c. Provide a reference point for decision making d. Be created by a professional organization to guide the practice of a profession

____

6. Which of the following is a crucial element of developing a guideline? a. Creating a physician expert panel b. Reviewing the literature with ratings of available evidence c. Conducting an external review of a guideline d. Developing evidence-based tables

____

7. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level I evidence? a. Single, well-designed randomized clinical trial b. Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies c. Well-designed controlled trials without randomization d. Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies

____

8. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level II evidence?

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a. b. c. d. ____

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Single descriptive or qualitative study Well-designed case control or cohort studies Single, well-designed, randomized clinical trial Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies

9. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level III evidence? a. Well-designed controlled trials without randomization b. Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies c. Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies d. Opinion of authorities and expert committees

____ 10. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level IV evidence? a. Single descriptive or qualitative study b. Opinion of authorities and expert committees c. Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies d. Well-designed controlled trials without randomization ____ 11. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level V evidence? a. Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies b. Well-designed controlled trials without randomization c. Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies d. Single descriptive or qualitative study ____ 12. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level VI evidence? a. Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies b. Opinion of authorities and expert committees c. Well-designed case control or cohort studies d. Single descriptive or qualitative study ____ 13. Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level VII evidence? a. Well-designed controlled trials without randomization b. Opinion of authorities and expert committees c. Well-designed case control or cohort studies d. Single descriptive or qualitative study

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Chapter 5. Evidence-Based Care Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:

D B D A C B B C A D C C B

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

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Chapter 6. Neurological Problems Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____

1. Which statement about confusion is true? a. Confusion is a disease process. b. Confusion is always temporary. c. Age is a reliable predictor of confusion. d. Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults.

____

2. SondraÕs peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following

medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear? a. Meclizine b. Diphenhydramine c. Diamox d. Promethazine ____

3. The hallmark of an absence seizure is: a. No activity at all b. A blank stare c. Urine is usually voided involuntarily d. The attack usually lasts several minutes

____

4. How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures,

and the drug level is adequate? a. Every 3 months b. Every 6 months c. Annually d. Whenever there is a problem ____

5. Which of the following persons fits the classic description of a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS)? a. A teenage male b. A 65-year-old male c. A 25-year-old female d. A 60-year-old female

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6. Which of the following is a specific test to MS? a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) b. Computed tomography (CT) scan c. A lumbar puncture d. There is no specific test.

____

7. Which drug for AlzheimerÕs disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis? a. Cholinesterase inhibitors b. Anxiolytics c. Antidepressants d. Atypical antipsychotics

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8. Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle

meningeal artery? a. Epidural hematoma b. Subdural hematoma c. Subarachnoid hematoma d. Intraparenchymal hemorrhage ____

9. Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty

chewing? a. CN V b. CN VII c. CN IX d. CN X ____ 10. Which statement best describes a carotid bruit? a. It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery. b. A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less. c. A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency. d. The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis. ____ 11. Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache? a. A female in her reproductive years b. A 40-year-old African American male c. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily d. A 45-year-old male awakened at night ____ 12. Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of? a. Dementia b. AlzheimerÕs disease c. ParkinsonÕs disease d. Delirium ____ 13. Which type of meningitis is more benign, self-limiting, and caused primarily by a virus? a. Purulent meningitis b. Chronic meningitis c. Aseptic meningitis d. Herpes meningitis ____ 14. Which is the most sensitive neuroimaging test to evaluate patients with encephalitis? a. MRI b. CT c. Electroencephalogram (EEG) d. An initial lumbar puncture ____ 15. What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you

suspect herpes zoster? a. A stabbing pain on one small area of the body b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body

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c. A pain that is worse upon awakening d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal ____ 16. Gabby, aged 22, has BellÕs palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is

concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her? a. ÒMost patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.Ó b. ÒUnfortunately, youÕll probably have a small amount of residual damage.Ó c. ÒDonÕt worry, IÕll take care of everything.Ó d. ÒYou may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.Ó ____ 17. Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his ParkinsonÕs disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary.

You tell him: a. ÒL-dopa is neuroprotective.Ó b. ÒThe primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.Ó c. ÒThis is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.Ó d. ÒThis is the initial monotherapy drug.Ó ____ 18. Which of the following signs is seen in a patient with more advanced PD? a. Resting tremor b. Bradykinesia c. Rigidity d. Postural instability ____ 19. Which of the following is the most commonly experienced symptom of migraine? a. Light sensitivity b. Pulsatile pain c. Sound sensitivity d. Experiencing an aura ____ 20. Which of the following characteristics differentiates peripheral vertigo from central vertigo? a. The duration of central vertigo is shorter than that of peripheral vertigo. b. There is an auditory-associated symptom with peripheral vertigo and a

visual-associated symptom with central vertigo. c. Central vertigo is positional, and peripheral vertigo is not. d. The onset of central vertigo is more sudden than that of peripheral vertigo. ____ 21. Carotid endarterectomy should be considered only for symptomatic patients with greater than what

percentage of stenosis? a. Greater than 25% b. Greater than 50% c. Greater than 75% d. Only for 100% occlusion ____ 22. What antiplatelet agent is most widely used for secondary prevention of stroke? a. Aspirin b. Ticlopidine c. Clopidogrel d. Aspirin and clopidogrel

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____ 23. Which adjunctive diagnostic test should be used in the work-up of a patient with suspected

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease or transient epileptic amnesia? a. MRI b. CT c. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis d. EEG ____ 24. Which herbal preparation may cause delirium and should be avoided in an elderly patient? a. Sam-e b. Saint JohnÕs Wort c. Melatonin d. Saw Palmetto ____ 25. Which of the following activities is part of the functional activities questionnaire? a. Asking the patient to unravel a RubikÕs cube b. Determining if the patient can drive on the highway c. Asking the patient about a news event from the current week d. Seeing if the patient can keep his or her home clean ____ 26. About 90% of all headaches are? a. Tension b. Migraine c. Cluster d. Without pathological cause ____ 27. Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder? a. Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again. b. After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive. c. Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure

disorder. d. These persons may drive but never alone. ____ 28. Julie has relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis. She has not had a good response to interferon.

Which medication might help given intravenously once a month? a. Glatiramer acetate b. Natalizumab c. Fingolimod d. Glucocorticoids ____ 29. The Ôfreezing phenomenonÕ is a cardinal feature of? a. ParkinsonÕs disease b. AlzheimerÕs disease c. A CVA d. BellÕs palsy ____ 30. A ratchet-like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive stretching is known as? a. Spinothalamic dysfunction b. Ratcheting

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c. Cogwheeling d. Hand tremors ____ 31. Clinical features of insidious onset, slow progression, and a lack of other findings to explain the

symptoms are fairly diagnostic of which condition? a. Guillain-BarrŽ syndrome b. ParkinsonÕs disease c. AlzheimerÕs disease d. HuntingtonÕs disease ____ 32. Which condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information along with either a

cognitive disturbance in language, function, or perception? a. Guillain-BarrŽ syndrome b. ParkinsonÕs disease c. AlzheimerÕs disease d. Delirium ____ 33. A score of 20 to 25 on this test indicates early-stage AlzheimerÕs disease: a. SLUMS b. MoCA c. FAST d. MMSE ____ 34. Intravenous thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many

hours of symptom onset? a. 1 hour b. 3 hours c. 6 hours d. 12 hours ____ 35. When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache? a. Tension b. Migraine c. Cluster d. Stress

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Chapter 6. Neurological Problems Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.

ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS:

D C B B C D A A A D D D C A B A B D B B B A D B C D C B A C B C D B C

PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

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Chapter 7. Skin Problems Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____

1. Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his

head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause? a. ÒYou must be under a lot of stress lately.Ó b. ÒIt is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?Ó c. ÒThe cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.Ó d. ÒWeÕll have to do some tests.Ó ____

2. Which of the following is Òa linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?Ó a. An ulcer b. A fissure c. Lichenification d. An excoriation

____

3. A bulla is: a. A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter b. An elevated solid mass with a hard texture; the shape and borders can be regular or

irregular c. A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid d. Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent ____

4. An example of ecchymosis is: a. A hematoma b. A keloid c. A bruise d. A patch

____

5. When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small

and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are? a. Spores b. Leukocytes c. Pseudohyphae d. Epithelial cells ____

6. Your patient is in her second trimester of pregnancy and has a yeast infection. Which of the

following is a treatment that you usually recommend/order in nonpregnant patients, but is listed as a Pregnancy category D? a. Vagistat vaginal cream b. Monistat combination pack c. Terazol vaginal cream d. Diflucan, 150 mg ____

7. Tinea unguium is also known as: a. Onychomycosis

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b. Tinea versicolor c. Tinea manuum d. Tinea corporis ____

8. Sally, age 25, presents with impetigo that has been diagnosed as infected with Staphylococcus. The

clinical presentation is pruritic tender, red vesicles surrounded by erythema with a rash that is ulcerating. Her recent treatment has not been adequate. Which type of impetigo is this? a. Bullous impetigo b. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS) c. Nonbullous impetigo d. Ecthyma ____

9. Mark has necrotizing fasciitis of his left lower extremity. Pressure on the skin reveals crepitus due to

gas production by which anaerobic bacteria? a. Staphylococcal aureus b. Clostridium perfringens c. S. pyrogenes d. Streptococcus ____ 10. When using the microscope for an intravaginal infection, you see something translucent and

colorless. What do you suspect? a. A piece of hair or a thread b. Hyphae c. Leukocytes d. Spores ____ 11. Marci has a wart on her hand. She says she heard something about Òsilver duct tape therapy.Ó What

do you tell her about his? a. It is an old wivesÕ tale. b. It is used as a last resort. c. Salicylic acid is more effective. d. It is a simple treatment that should be tried first. ____ 12. Which is the most potent and irritating dose of tretinoin? a. 0.05% liquid formulation b. 0.1% cream c. 1% foam d. 0.02% cream ____ 13. Of the following types of cellulitis, which is a streptococcal infection of the superficial layers of the

skin that does not involve the subcutaneous layers? a. Necrotizing fasciitis b. Periorbital cellulitis c. Erysipelas d. ÒFlesh-eatingÓ cellulitis ____ 14. Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually

transmitted and document this as a: a. Filiform/digitate wart

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Primary Care Art and Science of Advanced Practice, Dunphy, 4th Edition Test Bank Full ACCESS Test Bank From Link Below https://nursylab.com/products/primary-care-art-and-science-of -advanced-practice-dunphy-4th-edition-test-bank/ TestBank Directly From The publisher, 100% Verified Answers. COVERS ALL CHAPTERS. Download Immediately

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