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EnsurePass 200-601 Exam Real Dumps Managing Industrial Networking for Manufacturing with Cisco Technologies (IMINS2)
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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 200-601
Exam Name: Managing Industrial Networking forManufacturing with Cisco Technologies (IMINS2)
Version: 13.01
Q & As: 67
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QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhbit. Which three elements would enable high availability and predictable performance for a motion control application spread across two switches (with video and I/O traffic)? (Choose three)
A. Configure QoS to give PTP traffic the highest priority B. Fiber optic uplinks C. Redundant uplinks D. Configure QoS to give I/O traffic the highest priority E. Copper uplinks F. Interconnect the two switches
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 2 Which five are characteristics that describe Cisco Industrial switches? (Choose five)
A. Din rail mount B. 19 inch rack mount C. Fanless D. Fans E. Swappable SD flash card F. Alarm relay G. -5 篊 to 45 篊 operating environment H. ProfiNET conformance class C compliance
Correct Answer: ABCEF
QUESTION 3 Which in-depth approach is used when deploying defense in an industrial zone?
A. Besides using a dedicated firewall / DMZ construction use an IOS based firewall on the WAN
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router connecting the industrial site to the Internet.
B. Use NTP to make sure that time stamps of log messages are synchronized such that you can do root cause analysis.
C. Deploy an IDS solution with knowledge about industrial protocols in the industrial zone in combination with a firewall.
D. Use multiple firewalls from different vendors in such a way that network traffic will have to traverse both firewalls so that security holes of one firewall is caught by the other firewall.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit. Which lines represent an I/O connection running at a 20ms RPI?
A. 2919, 2923, 2926 B. 2920, 2926, 2929 C. 2922, 2929, 2935 D. 2914, 2915, 2916
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit. Which lines represent a CIP connection being established between two devices?
A. 2914 and 2915 B. 2918 and 2921 C. 2920 and 2924 D. 2937 and 2940
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit. All of the vlans listed in the routing table below are trunked using 802.1q and are active on all switches. PLC1, PLC2, and PLC3 each has IP address 192.168.0.1/24 and are connected to ports configured for vlan 50. L2SW1, L2SW2, and L2SW3 are not using vlan trunking for vlan 50.
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L3SW1 has following routing table: 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 12 subnets, 2 masks C 10.3.138.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan307 C 10.3.136.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan306 C 10.15.153.0/24 is directly connected, Vlan398 C 10.3.142.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan309 C 10.3.140.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan308 C 10.3.186.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan293 C 10.15.154.0/24 is directly connected, Vlan399 C 10.3.184.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan292 C 10.3.190.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan295 C 10.3.188.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan294 C 10.3.182.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan291 C 10.3.180.0/23 is directly connected, Vlan290
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PLC1, PLC2, and PLC3 cannot be reconfigured. What can be done to be able to simultaneously communicate with PLC1, PLC2, and PLC3?
A. Enable NAT on L3SW1 B. Enable NAT on L2SW1 ?L2SW3 C. Enable NAT on L2SW4 D. Add vlan 50 to L2SW4 and assign the administrator's an IP address on 192.168.0.0/24 network
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Profinet has been disabled on a Cisco Industrial Ethernet switch, which CLI commands correctly enable ProfiNET on VLAN 10?
A. switch(config)#profinet switch(config)#profinet vlan 10
B. switch#enable profinet switch(config)#profinet vlan 10
C. switch(config)#profinet switch(config)#vlan 10 switch(config-vlan)#profinet
D. switch#enable profinet switch(config)#vlan 10 switch(config-vlan)#profinet
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 A ProfiNET management system operator is unable to see diagnostic information for a Cisco Industrial Ethernet switch that has been added to a SIMATIC management station. Based on the provided CLI output, which statement is correct?
switch# show profinet statusState : EnabledVlan : 201Id : IE2000-SwitchConnected : YesReductRatio : 128GSD version : Mis-match
A. The assigned ProfiNET VLAN is not valid and should be less than 100 B. LLDP has been disabled on this switch
C. The GSD file version on the switch does not match the GSD file version on the management station
D. The Reduction Ration has been set too low
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Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 A shutdown in the cookie cutter machine was traced to a broken network cable. What are two reasons that explain why using DLR is an appropriate choice for network resiliency? (Choose two)
A. DLR is designed for single network operation at the machine level B. Moving to a linear topology will reduce the number of cables and so reduce risk of cable failure C. DLR is the only resiliency technology that is supported by CIP Safety D. Layer 2 resiliency protocols like REP and RSTP do not have a fast enough convergence time for motion control E. Half of the network traffic goes clockwise on the ring and the other half counter- clockwise, reducing by 50% the impact of cable failure
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 10 Which scenario represents the correct configuration to support the SSIDs of this autonomous access point?
A. Missing B. Missing C. Missing D. Missing
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Given the CIA triad elements, which ensures first that the data is encrypted and secure, second that the data is trustworthy, and third that the data is accessible by those who need it?
A. CIA B. ICA C. ACI D. CAI
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Which statement is true regarding ProfiSAFE?
A. ProfiSAFE traffic must be carried on a network that is physically separated from automation traffic
B. ProfiSAFE relies on the error detection mechanisms of Ethernet and TCP/IP to determine if there are network errors
C. ProfiSAFE can be used in safety applications up to Safety Integrity Level 3 (SIL3) D. ProfiSAFE is only used by ProfiBUS PA and ProfiBUS DA devices
Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 13 Refer to exhibit. The administrator has configured the following device IP settings, but did not keep track of which ports the devices were connected to. The administrator is able to ping each device but needs to update the network documentation to include the switch and interface where each device is connected. The administrator does not want to walk to each device and switch to track down the information.
Which steps below would you execute in sequence to document the switch and interface where each device is connected?
1. View the ARP table on L3SW1 2. View the ARP table on the administrator's station 3. View the ARP table on L2SW4 4. PING all the devices 5. View the MAC address table on all switches 6. View the MAC address table on the administrator's station
A. 2,4,5 B. 2,5,4 C. 4,3,6 D. 4,1,5
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 14 Refer to the exhibit. NAT has been configured on the router 'GW' and the IP addresses of router 'GW' have been configured properly. Users of PC1 and PC2 are able to ping the IP address 198.51.100.1 but are unable to reach any other IP addresses on the Internet. The ISP confirmed that their configuration is correct. Which option would likely correct the problem?
A. ip access-list extended ACL_OUTBOUND permit ip 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 any interface Ethernet1 ip access-group ACL_OUTBOUND out
B. interface Ethernet1 ip nat outside
C. interface Ethernet0 ip nat inside D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.51.100.1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15 Refer to the exhibit. What issue does this topology present for the represented traffic flow?
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A. Standard Produce/Consume traffic is not suitable for an 802.11 wireless environment. B. Only one of the Work Group Bridges can transmit at a time, because 802.11 is half duplex. C. The Converged Plant-wide Ethernet best practices for 802.11 wireless don't allow for PAC to PAC traffic.
D. I/O control traffic should utilize the 2.4 GHz band based on best practices.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16 What security component can be deployed to increase the defense in depth and specifically can be positioned against 'man-in-the-middle' attack?
A. Deploy 802.1AE B. Deploy 802.1X C. Deploy 802.1Q D. Deploy 802.1AX
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17 Which configuration enables an Industrial Ethernet switch to participate in PTP clock selection and sets the priority value that would break the tie between switches with matching default criteria to 50?
A. ptp mode boundary ptp priority1 10 ptp priority2 50
B. ptp mode boundary ptp priority1 50 ptp priority2 10
C. ptp mode e2etransparent ptp priority1 50 ptp priority2 10
D. ptp mode e2etransparent ptp priority1 10 ptp priority2 50
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18 Which CLI command will display IGMP snooping information in a Cisco IE2000 or Stratix 5700 switch?
A. switch#show snooping ip igmp B. switch#show igmp snooping C. switch#show ip igmp snooping D. switch#show ip snooping
Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 19 Refer to the exhibit. SW1, SW2 and virtual switch are connected in a loop. SW1 and SW2 are standard layer-2 switches. Which loop prevention mechanism is best suited for use within this topology?
A. Per-VLAN Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol+ B. End-Host Mode C. Multi-chassis EtherChannel D. BPDU Guard
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20 Which two are possible solutions to control which devices can communicate between industrial zones? (Choose two)
A. Use per zone private IP addressing and deploy NAT to control traffic between zones B. Put access control lists on switches connecting industrial zones to control traffic C. Attach each zone to a firewall to control intra-zone traffic D. Deploy QoS traffic shaping to limit the volume of traffic between industrial zones E. Deploy an IDS system between the zones to control intra-zone traffic
Correct Answer: BC
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MB6-895MS-202
MB6-896Modern Desktop Administrator Associate
MD-100
MD-101
MB6-897
MB6-898
Security Administrator Associate
MS-50070-744
MS-300 70-745
Teamwork Administrator AssociateMS-301 Core Infrastructure
70-413
MS-302 70-414Azure Administrator Associate AZ-103 70-537
Azure AI Engineer AssociateAI-100
70-464
Azure Data Engineer Associate
DP-200 70-465
DP-201 70-466Azure Data Scientist Associate DP-100 Data Management and 70-467
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200 Analytics
70-762
MB-210 70-767Azure Developer Associate AZ-203 70-768
Azure Solutions Architect Expert
AZ-300 70-777
AZ-301
70-345Azure DevOps Engineer Expert AZ-400 MCSE Productivity Solutions 70-339
Enterprise Administrator Expert
Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate
MS-100
Expert
70-333
MS-101
70-334
MB-200
70-357
MB-230
MCSD Exams Dumps
70-486
Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals AZ-900 70-487
Certifications
Certification Name Exam Certification Name Exam
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
BI Reporting
MB-200
98-349
MB-210
98-350
70-778
98-351
70-779
98-352
70-764 98-353
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations
SQL 2016 BI Development
SQL 2016 Database Administration
SQL 2016 Database Development
70-765
98-354
MB6-894
98-355
MTA Exams Dumps
70-767
98-356
70-768
98-357
70-764
98-358
70-765
98-359
70-761
98-360
70-762
98-361
70-461 98-362
SQL Server 2012/2014
70-462
70-463
Exams
CompTIA ExamsTitle
Exam
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1
220-1001
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2
220-1002
CompTIA A+ (220-901)
220-901
CompTIA A+ (220-902)
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003 CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002) CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 1 CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 2
CAS-003 CLO-001 CS0-001 CV0-002 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ 2018 N10-007CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam CompTIA Server+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals Cleveland Community College Certified Mission Critical Operator Beta CompTIA Project+ CompTIA CTT+ Essentials
PT0-001 SK0-004 SY0-501 XK0-004 CAS-002 FC0-U11 FC0-U21 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 FC0-Z51 MC1-001 PK0-004 TK0-201
Certifications
C ompTIA CertificationsC er tification Name
Ex am
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1001
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1002
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-901
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ CompTIA Cloud+ CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Linux+
CAS-003 CLO-001 CLO-002 CS0-001 CV0-002 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ N10-007CompTIA Project+ CompTIA PenTest+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA Linux+
PK0-004 PT0-001 SY0-501 TK0-201 TK0-202 TK0-203 XK0-004
Other IT Certication Roadmap
Adobe
BEGINNER/NOVICE
ACA
INTERMEDIATE
ACI
EXPERT
ACE
Aruba
INTERMEDIATE
ACMP
Cloud Security Alliance
ADVANCED
CCSK
The Cloud School
ADVANCED
CCP
CWNP
INTERMEDIATE
CWNA
CWTS
Citrix
INTERMEDIATE
CCIA
ADVANCED
CCA
EC Council
INTERMEDIATE
CHFI
CEH
GIAC
INTERMEDIATE
GCIH
GISP GSEC
HDI Global
BEGINNER/NOVICE
HDI DST
HDI SCA
INTERMEDIATE
HDI CI
HDI DSM HDI SCM
Hewlett-Packard
EXPERT
ASE/CSE
ISACA
ADVANCED
CISA
EXPRT
CGEIT CISM
ISC 2ADVANCED
CSSLP
EXPERT
CISSP
Checkpoint
CCSA CCSE
Linux Professional Institute
BEGINNER/NOVICE
Linux Essentials
INTERMEDIATE
LPIC-1 Linux Professional
ADVANCED
LPIC-2 Linux Professional
EXPERT
LPIC-3 Linux Professional
Mile2
EXPERT
CPTE
MongoDB University
INTERMEDIATE
MongoDB Certified Developer
Associate
SUSE
INTERMEDIATE
SCA
ADVANCED
SCE
EXPERT
SEA
Novell
ADVANCED
CNE
Office of Government Commerce/Prince2
INTERMEDIATE
Prince2 Foundation
EXPERT
Prince2 Practitioner
PMI
INTERMEDIATE
CAPM
ADVANCED
PMP
Red Hat
INTERMEDIATE
RHCSA
ADVANCED
RHCE
EXPERT
RHCA
Rackspace
INTERMEDIATE
RCT
Scrum Alliance
EXPERT
CSP
Salesforce
INTERMEDIATE
SALESFORCE
Zend
INTERMEDIATE
PHP Certification
ADVANCED
Framework 2 Certification
