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EnsurePass 210-250 Exam Real Dumps Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals (SECFND)
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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco CybersecurityFundamentals (SECFND)
Version: 13.04
Q & As: 147
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QUESTION 1 Which security monitoring data type is associated with application server logs?
A. alert data B. statistical data C. session data D. transaction data
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 You must create a vulnerability management framework. Which main purpose of this framework is true?
A. Conduct vulnerability scans on the network. B. Manage a list of reported vulnerabilities. C. Identify remove and mitigate system vulnerabilities. D. Detect and remove vulnerabilities in source code.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which vulnerability is an example of Shellshock?
A. cross site scripting B. command injection C. heap overflow D. SQL injection
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 A user reports difficulties accessing certain external web pages, When examining traffic to and from the external domain in full packet captures, you notice many SYNs that have the same sequence number, source, and destination IP address, but have different payloads. Which problem is a possible explanation of this situation?
A. insufficient network resources B. failure of full packet capture solution C. misconfiguration of web filter D. TCP injection
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 5 You get an alert on your desktop computer showing that an attack was successful on the host, but upon investigation you see that no mitigation actions occurred during the attack. Which reason is true?
A. The computer has a HIDS instated on it B. The computer has a NIDS installed on it C. The computer has a HIPS installed on it D. The computer has a NIPS installed on it
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which type of exploit normally requires the culprit to have prior access to the target system?
A. local exploit B. denial of service C. system vulnerability D. remote exploit
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Which definition of a process in Windows is true?
A. running program B. unit of execution that must be manually scheduled by the application C. database that stores low-level settings for the OS and for certain applications D. basic unit to which the operating system allocates processor time
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 What is PHI?
A. Protected HIPAA information B. Protected health information C. Personal health information D. Personal human information
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Which purpose of Command and Control for network aware malware is true?
A. It contacts a remote server for commands and updates. B. It controls and shuts down services on the infected host. C. It helps the malware to profile the host D. It takes over the user account.
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Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 According to RFC 1035 which transport protocol is recommended for use with DNS queries?
A. Transmission Control Protocol B. Reliable Data Protocol C. Hypertext Transfer Protocol D. User Datagram Protocol
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Which definition of vulnerability is true?
A. an exploitable unpatched and unmitigated weakness in software B. an incompatible piece of software C. software that does not have the most current patch applied D. software that was not approved for installation
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Which option is an advantage to using network-based anti-virus versus host-based anti-virus?
A. Network-based has the ability to protect unmanaged devices and unsupported operating systems. B. There are no advantages compared to host-based antivirus. C. Host-based antivirus does not have the ability to collect newly created signatures. D. Network-based can protect against infection from malicious files at rest.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which definition of the virtual address space for a Windows process is true?
A. actual physical location of an object in memory B. set of virtual memory addresses that it can use C. set of pages that are currently resident in physical memory D. system-level memory protection feature that is built into the operating system
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 14 DRAG DROP Drag the data source on the left to the left to the correct data type on the right.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 15 Which statement about digitally signing a document is true?
A. The document is hashed and then the document is encrypted with the private key. B. The document is hashed and then the hash is encrypted with the private key. C. The document is encrypted and then the document is hashed with the public key D. The document is hashed and then the document is encrypted with the public key.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16 For which reason can HTTPS traffic make security monitoring difficult?
A. encryption B. large packet headers C. Signature detection takes longer. D. SSL interception
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 17 Which cryptographic key is contained in an X.509 certificate?
A. symmetric B. public C. private D. asymmetric
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18 Which two features must a next generation firewall include? (Choose two.)
A. data mining B. host-based antivirus C. application visibility and control D. Security Information and Event Management E. intrusion detection system
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 19 Which directory is commonly used on Linux systems to store log files, including syslog and apache access logs?
A. /etc/log B. /root/log C. /lib/log D. /var/log
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20 Cisco pxGrid has a unified framework with an open API designed in a hub-and-spoke architecture. pxGrid is used to enable the sharing of contextual-based information from which devices?
A. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco OpenDNS service B. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco WSA C. From a Cisco ASA to the Cisco FMC D. From a Cisco ISE session directory to other policy network systems, such as Cisco IOS devices and the Cisco ASA
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21 Which definition of a fork in Linux is true?
A. daemon to execute scheduled commands
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B. parent directory name of a file pathname C. macros for manipulating CPU sets D. new process created by a parent process
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22 How many broadcast domains are created if three hosts are connected to a Layer 2 switch in fullduplex mode?
A. 4 B. 3 C. None D. 1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23 Which protocol is expected to have NTP a user agent, host, and referrer headers in a packet capture?
A. NTP B. HTTP C. DNS D. SSH
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24 Which of the following are metrics that can measure the effectiveness of a runbook?
A. Mean time to repair (MTTR) B. Mean time between failures (MTBF) C. Mean time to discover a security incident D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25 Which event occurs when a signature-based IDS encounters network traffic that triggers an alert?
A. connection event B. endpoint event C. NetFlow event D. intrusion event
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 26 Which two tasks can be performed by analyzing the logs of a traditional stateful firewall? (Choose two.)
A. Confirm the timing of network connections differentiated by the TCP 5-tuple B. Audit the applications used within a social networking web site. C. Determine the user IDs involved in an instant messaging exchange. D. Map internal private IP addresses to dynamically translated external public IP addresses E. Identify the malware variant carried by ^n SMTP connection
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 27 Which situation indicates application-level white listing?
A. Allow everything and deny specific executable files. B. Allow specific executable files and deny specific executable files. C. Writing current application attacks on a whiteboard daily. D. Allow specific files and deny everything else.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28 In which format are NetFlow records stored?
A. hexadecimal B. base 10 C. binary D. ASCII
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29 Which network device is used to separate broadcast domains?
A. router B. repeater C. switch D. bridge
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30 While viewing packet capture data, you notice that one IP is sending and receiving traffic for multiple devices by modifying the IP header, Which option is making this behavior possible?
A. TOR B. NAT C. encapsulation
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D. tunnelingCorrect Answer: B
QUESTION 31 How does NTP help with security monitoring?
A. It synchronizes the time of day so that you can correlate events when you receive system logs. B. It enables you to look up the IP addresses a browser navigated to using the FQON. C. It allows you receive system-generated email traffic from log servers. D. It uses TCP, which allows you to see the HTTP conversations between servers and clients.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32 Which option is a purpose of port scanning?
A. Identify the Internet Protocol of the target system. B. Determine if the network is up or down C. Identify which ports and services are open on the target host. D. Identify legitimate users of a system.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33 Refer to the exhibit. During an analysis this list of email attachments is found. Which files contain the same content?
A. 1 and 4 B. 3 and 4 C. 1 and 3 D. 1 and 2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34 Which identifier is used to describe the application or process that submitted a log message?
A. action B. selector C. priority D. facility
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Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35 Stateful and traditional firewalls can analyze packets and judge them against a set of predetermined rules called access control lists (ACLs). They inspect which of the following elements within a packet? (Choose two)
A. Session headers B. NetFlow flow information C. Source and destination ports and source and destination IP addresses D. Protocol information
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 36 Which definition of permissions in Linux is true?
A. rules that allow network traffic to go in and out B. table maintenance program C. written affidavit that you have to sign before using the system D. attributes of ownership and control of an object
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37 Which of the following are Cisco cloud security solutions?
A. CloudDLP B. OpenDNS C. CloudLock D. CloudSLS
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 38 Which two protocols are used for email? (Choose two)
A. NTP B. DNS C. HTTP D. IMAP E. SMTP
Correct Answer: DE
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QUESTION 39 Where are configuration records stored?
A. In a CMDB B. In a MySQL DB C. In a XLS file D. There is no need to store them
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40 Which action is an attacker taking when they attempt to gain root access on the victim's system?
A. command injections B. command and control C. root kit D. privilege escalation
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 41 Which security principle states that more than one person is required to perform a critical task?
A. due diligence B. separation of duties C. need to know D. least privilege
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42 Which evasion method involves performing actions slower than normal to prevent detection?
A. traffic fragmentation B. tunneling C. timing attack D. resource exhaustion
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43 Which data can be obtained using NetFlow?
A. session data B. application logs C. network downtime D. report full packet capture
Correct Answer: A
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MD-101
MB6-897
MB6-898
Security Administrator Associate
MS-50070-744
MS-300 70-745
Teamwork Administrator AssociateMS-301 Core Infrastructure
70-413
MS-302 70-414Azure Administrator Associate AZ-103 70-537
Azure AI Engineer AssociateAI-100
70-464
Azure Data Engineer Associate
DP-200 70-465
DP-201 70-466Azure Data Scientist Associate DP-100 Data Management and 70-467
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200 Analytics
70-762
MB-210 70-767Azure Developer Associate AZ-203 70-768
Azure Solutions Architect Expert
AZ-300 70-777
AZ-301
70-345Azure DevOps Engineer Expert AZ-400 MCSE Productivity Solutions 70-339
Enterprise Administrator Expert
Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate
MS-100
Expert
70-333
MS-101
70-334
MB-200
70-357
MB-230
MCSD Exams Dumps
70-486
Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals AZ-900 70-487
Certifications
Certification Name Exam Certification Name Exam
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
BI Reporting
MB-200
98-349
MB-210
98-350
70-778
98-351
70-779
98-352
70-764 98-353
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations
SQL 2016 BI Development
SQL 2016 Database Administration
SQL 2016 Database Development
70-765
98-354
MB6-894
98-355
MTA Exams Dumps
70-767
98-356
70-768
98-357
70-764
98-358
70-765
98-359
70-761
98-360
70-762
98-361
70-461 98-362
SQL Server 2012/2014
70-462
70-463
Exams
CompTIA ExamsTitle
Exam
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1
220-1001
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2
220-1002
CompTIA A+ (220-901)
220-901
CompTIA A+ (220-902)
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003 CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002) CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 1 CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 2
CAS-003 CLO-001 CS0-001 CV0-002 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ 2018 N10-007CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam CompTIA Server+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals Cleveland Community College Certified Mission Critical Operator Beta CompTIA Project+ CompTIA CTT+ Essentials
PT0-001 SK0-004 SY0-501 XK0-004 CAS-002 FC0-U11 FC0-U21 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 FC0-Z51 MC1-001 PK0-004 TK0-201
Certifications
C ompTIA CertificationsC er tification Name
Ex am
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1001
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1002
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-901
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ CompTIA Cloud+ CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Linux+
CAS-003 CLO-001 CLO-002 CS0-001 CV0-002 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ N10-007CompTIA Project+ CompTIA PenTest+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA Linux+
PK0-004 PT0-001 SY0-501 TK0-201 TK0-202 TK0-203 XK0-004
Other IT Certication Roadmap
Adobe
BEGINNER/NOVICE
ACA
INTERMEDIATE
ACI
EXPERT
ACE
Aruba
INTERMEDIATE
ACMP
Cloud Security Alliance
ADVANCED
CCSK
The Cloud School
ADVANCED
CCP
CWNP
INTERMEDIATE
CWNA
CWTS
Citrix
INTERMEDIATE
CCIA
ADVANCED
CCA
EC Council
INTERMEDIATE
CHFI
CEH
GIAC
INTERMEDIATE
GCIH
GISP GSEC
HDI Global
BEGINNER/NOVICE
HDI DST
HDI SCA
INTERMEDIATE
HDI CI
HDI DSM HDI SCM
Hewlett-Packard
EXPERT
ASE/CSE
ISACA
ADVANCED
CISA
EXPRT
CGEIT CISM
ISC 2ADVANCED
CSSLP
EXPERT
CISSP
Checkpoint
CCSA CCSE
Linux Professional Institute
BEGINNER/NOVICE
Linux Essentials
INTERMEDIATE
LPIC-1 Linux Professional
ADVANCED
LPIC-2 Linux Professional
EXPERT
LPIC-3 Linux Professional
Mile2
EXPERT
CPTE
MongoDB University
INTERMEDIATE
MongoDB Certified Developer
Associate
SUSE
INTERMEDIATE
SCA
ADVANCED
SCE
EXPERT
SEA
Novell
ADVANCED
CNE
Office of Government Commerce/Prince2
INTERMEDIATE
Prince2 Foundation
EXPERT
Prince2 Practitioner
PMI
INTERMEDIATE
CAPM
ADVANCED
PMP
Red Hat
INTERMEDIATE
RHCSA
ADVANCED
RHCE
EXPERT
RHCA
Rackspace
INTERMEDIATE
RCT
Scrum Alliance
EXPERT
CSP
Salesforce
INTERMEDIATE
SALESFORCE
Zend
INTERMEDIATE
PHP Certification
ADVANCED
Framework 2 Certification
