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EnsurePass 210-255 Exam Real Dumps Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations (SECOPS)
The Latest 210-255 Exam ☆ Instant Download ☆ Free Update for 180 Days
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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 210-255
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations(SECOPS)
Version: 13.06
Q & As: 145
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The Latest 210-255 Exam ☆ Instant Download ☆ Free Update for 180 Days
QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit. We have performed a malware detection on the Cisco website. Which statement about the result is true?
A. The website has been marked benign on all 68 checks. B. The threat detection needs to run again. C. The website has 68 open threats. D. The website has been marked benign on 0 checks.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which information must be left out of a final incident report?
A. server hardware configurations B. exploit or vulnerability used C. impact and/or the financial loss D. how the incident was detected
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of log is this an example of?
![](https://stories.isu.pub/76252150/images/3_original_file_I1.jpg?width=720&quality=85%2C50)
![](https://stories.isu.pub/76252150/images/3_original_file_I0.jpg?width=720&quality=85%2C50)
A. syslog B. NetFlow log C. proxy log D. IDS log
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 4 Refer to the Exhibit. A customer reports that they cannot access your organization's website. Which option is a possible reason that the customer cannot access the website?
![](https://stories.isu.pub/76252150/images/4_original_file_I0.jpg?width=720&quality=85%2C50)
A. The server at 10.33.1.5 is using up too much bandwidth causing a denial- of-service. B. The server at 10.67.10.5 has a virus. C. A vulnerability scanner has shown that 10.67.10.5 has been compromised. D. Web traffic sent from 10.67.10.5 has been identified as malicious by Internet sensors.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the PCAP file on the right.
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![](https://stories.isu.pub/76252150/images/5_original_file_I1.jpg?width=720&quality=85%2C50)
![](https://stories.isu.pub/76252150/images/5_original_file_I0.jpg?width=720&quality=85%2C50)
Correct Answer:
![](https://stories.isu.pub/76252150/images/5_original_file_I2.jpg?width=720&quality=85%2C50)
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QUESTION 6 Which CVSSv3 metric captures the level of access that is required for a successful attack?
A. attack vector B. attack complexity C. privileges required D. user interaction
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit. Which packet contains a file that is extractable within Wireshark?
![](https://stories.isu.pub/76252150/images/6_original_file_I0.jpg?width=720&quality=85%2C50)
A. 1986 B. 2318 C. 2542 D. 2317
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable component?
A. confidentiality B. integrity C. availability D. complexity
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 What mechanism does the Linux operating system provide to control access to files?
A. privileges required B. user interaction C. file permissions D. access complexity
Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 10 DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the NetFlow v5 record from a security event on the right.
Correct Answer:
![](https://stories.isu.pub/76252150/images/7_original_file_I2.jpg?width=720&quality=85%2C50)
![](https://stories.isu.pub/76252150/images/7_original_file_I1.jpg?width=720&quality=85%2C50)
![](https://stories.isu.pub/76252150/images/7_original_file_I0.jpg?width=720&quality=85%2C50)
QUESTION 11 Which CVSSv3 Attack Vector metric value requires the attacker to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable component?
A. local B. physical C. network D. adjacent
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 12 Which option has a drastic impact on network traffic because it can cause legitimate traffic to be blocked?
A. true positive B. true negative C. false positive D. false negative
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 In the context of incident handling phases, which two activities fall under scoping? (Choose two.)
A. determining the number of attackers that are associated with a security incident B. ascertaining the number and types of vulnerabilities on your network C. identifying the extent that a security incident is impacting protected resources on the network D. determining what and how much data may have been affected E. identifying the attackers that are associated with a security incident
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 14 Which feature is used to find possible vulnerable services running on a server?
A. CPU utilization B. security policy C. temporary internet files D. listening ports
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15 Which element is included in an incident response plan?
A. organization mission B. junior analyst approval C. day-to-day firefighting D. siloed approach to communications
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16 Which option can be addressed when using retrospective security techniques?
A. if the affected host needs a software update B. how the malware entered our network C. why the malware is still in our network
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D. if the affected system needs replacementCorrect Answer: B
QUESTION 17 From a security perspective, why is it important to employ a clock synchronization protocol on a network?
A. so that everyone knows the local time B. to ensure employees adhere to work schedule C. to construct an accurate timeline of events when responding to an incident D. to guarantee that updates are pushed out according to schedule
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18 Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when attacks consume network bandwidth, processor cycles, or disk space?
A. confidentiality B. integrity C. availability D. complexity
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19 In VERIS, an incident is viewed as a series of events that adversely affects the information assets of an organization. Which option contains the elements that every event is comprised of according to VERIS incident model'?
A. victim demographics, incident description, incident details, discovery & response B. victim demographics, incident details, indicators of compromise, impact assessment C. actors, attributes, impact, remediation D. actors, actions, assets, attributes
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20 Which two options can be used by a threat actor to determine the role of a server? (Choose two.)
A. PCAP B. tracert C. running processes D. hard drive configuration E. applications
Correct Answer: CE
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QUESTION 21 What information from HTTP logs can be used to find a threat actor?
A. referer B. IP address C. user-agent D. URL
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22 Which two HTTP header fields relate to intrusion analysis? (Choose two).
A. user-agent B. host C. connection D. language E. handshake type
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 23 During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its integrity?
A. collection B. examination C. reporting D. investigation
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24 A user on your network receives an email in their mailbox that contains a malicious attachment. There is no indication that the file was run. Which category as defined in the Diamond Model of Intrusion does this activity fall under?
A. reconnaissance B. weaponization C. delivery D. installation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25 Which stakeholder group is responsible for containment, eradication, and recovery in incident handling?
A. facilitators
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B. practitioners C. leaders and managers D. decision makers
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the elements of incident handling from the left into the correct order on the right.
Correct Answer:
![](https://stories.isu.pub/76252150/images/11_original_file_I1.jpg?width=720&quality=85%2C50)
![](https://stories.isu.pub/76252150/images/11_original_file_I0.jpg?width=720&quality=85%2C50)
QUESTION 27 Which Security Operations Center's goal is to provide incident handling to a country?
A. Coordination Center B. Internal CSIRT C. National CSIRT D. Analysis Center
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28 An organization has recently adjusted its security stance in response to online threats made by a known hacktivist group. Which term defines the initial event in the NIST SP800- 61 r2?
A. instigator B. precursor C. online assault D. trigger
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Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29 Refer to the exhibit. Which application protocol is in this PCAP file?
![](https://stories.isu.pub/76252150/images/12_original_file_I0.jpg?width=720&quality=85%2C50)
A. TCP B. SSH C. HTTP D. SSL
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30 Which string matches the regular expression r(ege)+x?
A. rx B. regeegex C. r(ege)x D. rege+x
Correct Answer: B
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MB-320 Windows Server 2016
70-741
MB-300 70-742
Functional Consultant AssociateMB-330
MB2-716Microsoft 365 Certified Fundamentals MS-900 MB2-718
MS-200
MB2-719Messaging Administrator Associate
MS-201Business Applications
MB6-895MS-202
MB6-896Modern Desktop Administrator Associate
MD-100
MD-101
MB6-897
MB6-898
Security Administrator Associate
MS-50070-744
MS-300 70-745
Teamwork Administrator AssociateMS-301 Core Infrastructure
70-413
MS-302 70-414Azure Administrator Associate AZ-103 70-537
Azure AI Engineer AssociateAI-100
70-464
Azure Data Engineer Associate
DP-200 70-465
DP-201 70-466Azure Data Scientist Associate DP-100 Data Management and 70-467
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200 Analytics
70-762
MB-210 70-767Azure Developer Associate AZ-203 70-768
Azure Solutions Architect Expert
AZ-300 70-777
AZ-301
70-345Azure DevOps Engineer Expert AZ-400 MCSE Productivity Solutions 70-339
Enterprise Administrator Expert
Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate
MS-100
Expert
70-333
MS-101
70-334
MB-200
70-357
MB-230
MCSD Exams Dumps
70-486
Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals AZ-900 70-487
![](https://stories.isu.pub/76252150/images/22_original_file_I0.jpg?width=720&quality=85%2C50)
Certifications
Certification Name Exam Certification Name Exam
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
BI Reporting
MB-200
98-349
MB-210
98-350
70-778
98-351
70-779
98-352
70-764 98-353
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations
SQL 2016 BI Development
SQL 2016 Database Administration
SQL 2016 Database Development
70-765
98-354
MB6-894
98-355
MTA Exams Dumps
70-767
98-356
70-768
98-357
70-764
98-358
70-765
98-359
70-761
98-360
70-762
98-361
70-461 98-362
SQL Server 2012/2014
70-462
70-463
![](https://stories.isu.pub/76252150/images/23_original_file_I0.jpg?width=720&quality=85%2C50)
Exams
CompTIA ExamsTitle
Exam
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1
220-1001
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2
220-1002
CompTIA A+ (220-901)
220-901
CompTIA A+ (220-902)
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003 CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002) CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 1 CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 2
CAS-003 CLO-001 CS0-001 CV0-002 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ 2018 N10-007CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam CompTIA Server+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals Cleveland Community College Certified Mission Critical Operator Beta CompTIA Project+ CompTIA CTT+ Essentials
PT0-001 SK0-004 SY0-501 XK0-004 CAS-002 FC0-U11 FC0-U21 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 FC0-Z51 MC1-001 PK0-004 TK0-201
![](https://stories.isu.pub/76252150/images/24_original_file_I0.jpg?width=720&quality=85%2C50)
Certifications
C ompTIA CertificationsC er tification Name
Ex am
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1001
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1002
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-901
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ CompTIA Cloud+ CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Linux+
CAS-003 CLO-001 CLO-002 CS0-001 CV0-002 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ N10-007CompTIA Project+ CompTIA PenTest+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA Linux+
PK0-004 PT0-001 SY0-501 TK0-201 TK0-202 TK0-203 XK0-004
Other IT Certication Roadmap
Adobe
BEGINNER/NOVICE
ACA
INTERMEDIATE
ACI
EXPERT
ACE
Aruba
INTERMEDIATE
ACMP
Cloud Security Alliance
ADVANCED
CCSK
The Cloud School
ADVANCED
CCP
CWNP
INTERMEDIATE
CWNA
CWTS
Citrix
INTERMEDIATE
CCIA
ADVANCED
CCA
EC Council
INTERMEDIATE
CHFI
CEH
GIAC
INTERMEDIATE
GCIH
GISP GSEC
HDI Global
BEGINNER/NOVICE
HDI DST
HDI SCA
INTERMEDIATE
HDI CI
HDI DSM HDI SCM
Hewlett-Packard
EXPERT
ASE/CSE
ISACA
ADVANCED
CISA
EXPRT
CGEIT CISM
ISC 2ADVANCED
CSSLP
EXPERT
CISSP
Checkpoint
CCSA CCSE
Linux Professional Institute
BEGINNER/NOVICE
Linux Essentials
INTERMEDIATE
LPIC-1 Linux Professional
ADVANCED
LPIC-2 Linux Professional
EXPERT
LPIC-3 Linux Professional
Mile2
EXPERT
CPTE
MongoDB University
INTERMEDIATE
MongoDB Certified Developer
Associate
SUSE
INTERMEDIATE
SCA
ADVANCED
SCE
EXPERT
SEA
Novell
ADVANCED
CNE
Office of Government Commerce/Prince2
INTERMEDIATE
Prince2 Foundation
EXPERT
Prince2 Practitioner
PMI
INTERMEDIATE
CAPM
ADVANCED
PMP
Red Hat
INTERMEDIATE
RHCSA
ADVANCED
RHCE
EXPERT
RHCA
Rackspace
INTERMEDIATE
RCT
Scrum Alliance
EXPERT
CSP
Salesforce
INTERMEDIATE
SALESFORCE
Zend
INTERMEDIATE
PHP Certification
ADVANCED
Framework 2 Certification