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EnsurePass 210-260 Exam Real Dumps Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS)
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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS)
Version: 13.11
Q & As: 379
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The Latest 210-260 Exam ☆ Instant Download ☆ Free Update for 180 Days
QUESTION 1 Which two services define cloud networks? (Choose two.)
A. Infrastructure as a Service B. Platform as a Service C. Security as a Service D. Compute as a Service E. Tenancy as a Service
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2 In which two situations should you use out-of-band management? (Choose two.)
A. when a network device fails to forward packets B. when you require ROMMON access C. when management applications need concurrent access to the device D. when you require administrator access from multiple locations E. when the control plane fails to respond
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3 In which three ways does the TACACS protocol differ from RADIUS? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS. B. TACACS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS. C. TACACS supports per-command authorization. D. TACACS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted. E. TACACS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS. F. TACACS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 4 According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols should the default ACL allow on an access port to enable wired BYOD devices to supply valid credentials and connect to the network? (Choose three.)
A. BOOTP B. TFTP C. DNS D. MAB E. HTTP F. 802.1x
Correct Answer: ABC
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QUESTION 5 Which two next-generation encryption algorithms does Cisco recommend? (Choose two.)
A. AES B. 3DES C. DES D. MD5 E. DH-1024 F. SHA-384
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 6 Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index B. Sequence Number C. MAC Address D. Padding E. Pad Length F. Next Header
Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 7 What are two default Cisco IOS privilege levels? (Choose two.)
A. 0 B. 1 C. 5 D. 7 E. 10 F. 15
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 8 Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext B. MD5 C. HMAC D. AES 256 E. SHA-1 F. DES
Correct Answer: AB
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QUESTION 9 Which two features do CoPP and CPPr use to protect the control plane? (Choose two.)
A. QoS B. traffic classification C. access lists D. policy maps E. class maps F. Cisco Express Forwarding
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10 Which two statements about stateless firewalls are true? (Choose two.)
A. They compare the 5-tuple of each incoming packet against configurable rules. B. They cannot track connections. C. They are designed to work most efficiently with stateless protocols such as HTTP or HTTPS. D. Cisco IOS cannot implement them because the platform is stateful by nature. E. The Cisco ASA is implicitly stateless because it blocks all traffic by default.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11 Which three statements about Cisco host-based IPS solutions are true? (Choose three.)
A. It can view encrypted files. B. It can have more restrictive policies than network-based IPS. C. It can generate alerts based on behavior at the desktop level. D. It can be deployed at the perimeter. E. It uses signature-based policies. F. It works with deployed firewalls.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 12 What three actions are limitations when running IPS in promiscuous mode? (Choose three.)
A. deny attacker B. deny packet C. modify packet D. request block connection E. request block host F. reset TCP connection
Correct Answer: ABC
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QUESTION 13 When an IPS detects an attack, which action can the IPS take to prevent the attack from spreading?
A. Deny the connection inline. B. Perform a Layer 6 reset. C. Deploy an antimalware system. D. Enable bypass mode.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14 What is an advantage of implementing a Trusted Platform Module for disk encryption?
A. It provides hardware authentication. B. It allows the hard disk to be transferred to another device without requiring re-encryption.dis C. It supports a more complex encryption algorithm than other disk-encryption technologies. D. It can protect against single points of failure.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15 What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data B. to determine whether data is relevant C. to create a process for accessing data D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16 In a security context, which action can you take to address compliance?
A. Implement rules to prevent a vulnerability. B. Correct or counteract a vulnerability. C. Reduce the severity of a vulnerability. D. Follow directions from the security appliance manufacturer to remediate a vulnerability.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17 Which type of secure connectivity does an extranet provide?
A. other company networks to your company network B. remote branch offices to your company network C. your company network to the Internet D. new networks to your company network
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Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18 Which tool can an attacker use to attempt a DDoS attack?
A. botnet B. Trojan horse C. virus D. adware
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19 What type of security support is provided by the Open Web Application Security Project?
A. Education about common Web site vulnerabilities. B. A Web site security framework. C. A security discussion forum for Web site developers. D. Scoring of common vulnerabilities and exposures.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20 What type of attack was the Stuxnet virus?
A. cyber warfare B. hacktivism C. botnet D. social engineering
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21 What type of algorithm uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt data?
A. a symmetric algorithm B. an asymmetric algorithm C. a Public Key Infrastructure algorithm D. an IP security algorithm
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 22 Refer to the exhibit. How many times was a read-only string used to attempt a write operation?
A. 9 B. 6 C. 4 D. 3 E. 2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the device time is true?
A. The time is authoritative, but the NTP process has lost contact with its servers. B. The time is authoritative because the clock is in sync. C. The clock is out of sync. D. NTP is configured incorrectly. E. The time is not authoritative.
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 24 How does the Cisco ASA use Active Directory to authorize VPN users?
A. It queries the Active Directory server for a specific attribute for the specified user. B. It sends the username and password to retrieve an ACCEPT or REJECT message from the
Active Directory server. C. It downloads and stores the Active Directory database to query for future authorization requests. D. It redirects requests to the Active Directory server defined for the VPN group.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25 Which statement about Cisco ACS authentication and authorization is true?
A. ACS servers can be clustered to provide scalability. B. ACS can query multiple Active Directory domains. C. ACS uses TACACS to proxy other authentication servers. D. ACS can use only one authorization profile to allow or deny requests.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26 Refer to the exhibit. If a supplicant supplies incorrect credentials for all authentication methods configured on the switch, how will the switch respond?
A. The supplicant will fail to advance beyond the webauth method. B. The switch will cycle through the configured authentication methods indefinitely. C. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into the unauthorized state. D. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into VLAN 101.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27 Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST B. EAP-TLS C. EAP-PEAP D. EAP-GTC
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Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28 What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device. B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed. C. The user must approve the locking action. D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29 What VPN feature allows traffic to exit the security appliance through the same interface it entered?
A. hairpinning B. NAT C. NAT traversal D. split tunneling
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30 What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?
A. split tunneling B. hairpinning C. tunnel mode D. transparent mode
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31 Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given command sequence?
A. It configures IKE Phase 1. B. It configures a site-to-site VPN tunnel. C. It configures a crypto policy with a key size of 14400. D. It configures IPSec Phase 2.
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Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32 Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given command sequence?
A. It defines IPSec policy for traffic sourced from 10.10.10.0/24 with a destination of 10.100.100.0/24.
B. It defines IPSec policy for traffic sourced from 10.100.100.0/24 with a destination of
10.10.10.0/24. C. It defines IKE policy for traffic sourced from 10.10.10.0/24 with a destination of 10.100.100.0/24. D. It defines IKE policy for traffic sourced from 10.100.100.0/24 with a destination of 10.10.10.0/24.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33 Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting site-to-site VPN, you issued the show crypto isakmp sa command. What does the given output show?
A. IPSec Phase 1 is established between 10.10.10.2 and 10.1.1.5. B. IPSec Phase 2 is established between 10.10.10.2 and 10.1.1.5. C. IPSec Phase 1 is down due to a QM_IDLE state. D. IPSec Phase 2 is down due to a QM_IDLE state.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34 Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting site-to-site VPN, you issued the show crypto ipsec sa command. What does the given output show?
A. IPSec Phase 2 is established between 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.5.
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B. ISAKMP security associations are established between 10.1.1.5 and 10.1.1.1. C. IKE version 2 security associations are established between 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.5. D. IPSec Phase 2 is down due to a mismatch between encrypted and decrypted packets.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35 Refer to the exhibit. The Admin user is unable to enter configuration mode on a device with the given configuration. What change can you make to the configuration to correct the problem?
A. Remove the auto command keyword and arguments from the Username Admin privilege line. B. Change the Privilege exec level value to 15. C. Remove the two Username Admin lines. D. Remove the Privilege exec line.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 After reloading a router, you issue the dir command to verify the installation and observe that the image file appears to be missing. For what reason could the image file fail to appear in the dir output?
A. The secure boot-image command is configured. B. The secure boot-comfit command is configured. C. The confreg 0x24 command is configured. D. The reload command was issued from ROMMON.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37 What is the effect of the send-lifetime local 23:59:00 31 December 31 2013 infinite command?
A. It configures the device to begin transmitting the authentication key to other devices at 00:00:00 local time on January 1, 2014 and continue using the key indefinitely.
B. It configures the device to begin transmitting the authentication key to other devices at 23:59:00 local time on December 31, 2013 and continue using the key indefinitely.
C. It configures the device to begin accepting the authentication key from other devices immediately and stop accepting the key at 23:59:00 local time on December 31, 2013.
D. It configures the device to generate a new authentication key and transmit it to other devices at 23:59:00 local time on December 31, 2013.
E. It configures the device to begin accepting the authentication key from other devices at 23:59:00 local time on December 31, 2013 and continue accepting the key indefinitely.
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Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure (beta) Implementing an Azure Data Solution Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Sales Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service Financial Management in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Distribution and Trade in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Microsofr Dynamics 365 for Retail Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Talent Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid
DP-100 DP-200 MB-230 MB2-706 MB2-707 MB2-708 MB2-710 MB2-711 MB2-712 MB2-713 MB2-714 MB2-716 MB2-718 MB2-719 MB2-877 MB6-895 MB6-896 MB6-897 MB6-898 MS-301
Certifications
Microsoft Certifications
Certification Name
Exam
Certification Name
Exam
Azure Security Engineer Associate
AZ-500
70-483
Universal Windows Platform
Dynamics 365 Fundamentals
MB-900
70-357
Dynamics 365 for Marketing Functional Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200
70-480
MB-220
Web Applications
70-483
MB-200
70-486
MB-240
70-410
MB-300
Windows Server 2012
70-411
MB-310
70-412
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing FunctionalMB-300
70-740
Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management
MB-320 Windows Server 2016
70-741
MB-300 70-742
Functional Consultant AssociateMB-330
MB2-716Microsoft 365 Certified Fundamentals MS-900 MB2-718
MS-200
MB2-719Messaging Administrator Associate
MS-201Business Applications
MB6-895MS-202
MB6-896Modern Desktop Administrator Associate
MD-100
MD-101
MB6-897
MB6-898
Security Administrator Associate
MS-50070-744
MS-300 70-745
Teamwork Administrator AssociateMS-301 Core Infrastructure
70-413
MS-302 70-414Azure Administrator Associate AZ-103 70-537
Azure AI Engineer AssociateAI-100
70-464
Azure Data Engineer Associate
DP-200 70-465
DP-201 70-466Azure Data Scientist Associate DP-100 Data Management and 70-467
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200 Analytics
70-762
MB-210 70-767Azure Developer Associate AZ-203 70-768
Azure Solutions Architect Expert
AZ-300 70-777
AZ-301
70-345Azure DevOps Engineer Expert AZ-400 MCSE Productivity Solutions 70-339
Enterprise Administrator Expert
Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate
MS-100
Expert
70-333
MS-101
70-334
MB-200
70-357
MB-230
MCSD Exams Dumps
70-486
Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals AZ-900 70-487
Certifications
Certification Name Exam Certification Name Exam
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
BI Reporting
MB-200
98-349
MB-210
98-350
70-778
98-351
70-779
98-352
70-764 98-353
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations
SQL 2016 BI Development
SQL 2016 Database Administration
SQL 2016 Database Development
70-765
98-354
MB6-894
98-355
MTA Exams Dumps
70-767
98-356
70-768
98-357
70-764
98-358
70-765
98-359
70-761
98-360
70-762
98-361
70-461 98-362
SQL Server 2012/2014
70-462
70-463
Exams
CompTIA ExamsTitle
Exam
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1
220-1001
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2
220-1002
CompTIA A+ (220-901)
220-901
CompTIA A+ (220-902)
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003 CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002) CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 1 CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 2
CAS-003 CLO-001 CS0-001 CV0-002 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ 2018 N10-007CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam CompTIA Server+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals Cleveland Community College Certified Mission Critical Operator Beta CompTIA Project+ CompTIA CTT+ Essentials
PT0-001 SK0-004 SY0-501 XK0-004 CAS-002 FC0-U11 FC0-U21 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 FC0-Z51 MC1-001 PK0-004 TK0-201
Certifications
C ompTIA CertificationsC er tification Name
Ex am
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1001
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1002
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-901
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ CompTIA Cloud+ CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Linux+
CAS-003 CLO-001 CLO-002 CS0-001 CV0-002 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ N10-007CompTIA Project+ CompTIA PenTest+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA Linux+
PK0-004 PT0-001 SY0-501 TK0-201 TK0-202 TK0-203 XK0-004
Other IT Certication Roadmap
Adobe
BEGINNER/NOVICE
ACA
INTERMEDIATE
ACI
EXPERT
ACE
Aruba
INTERMEDIATE
ACMP
Cloud Security Alliance
ADVANCED
CCSK
The Cloud School
ADVANCED
CCP
CWNP
INTERMEDIATE
CWNA
CWTS
Citrix
INTERMEDIATE
CCIA
ADVANCED
CCA
EC Council
INTERMEDIATE
CHFI
CEH
GIAC
INTERMEDIATE
GCIH
GISP GSEC
HDI Global
BEGINNER/NOVICE
HDI DST
HDI SCA
INTERMEDIATE
HDI CI
HDI DSM HDI SCM
Hewlett-Packard
EXPERT
ASE/CSE
ISACA
ADVANCED
CISA
EXPRT
CGEIT CISM
ISC 2ADVANCED
CSSLP
EXPERT
CISSP
Checkpoint
CCSA CCSE
Linux Professional Institute
BEGINNER/NOVICE
Linux Essentials
INTERMEDIATE
LPIC-1 Linux Professional
ADVANCED
LPIC-2 Linux Professional
EXPERT
LPIC-3 Linux Professional
Mile2
EXPERT
CPTE
MongoDB University
INTERMEDIATE
MongoDB Certified Developer
Associate
SUSE
INTERMEDIATE
SCA
ADVANCED
SCE
EXPERT
SEA
Novell
ADVANCED
CNE
Office of Government Commerce/Prince2
INTERMEDIATE
Prince2 Foundation
EXPERT
Prince2 Practitioner
PMI
INTERMEDIATE
CAPM
ADVANCED
PMP
Red Hat
INTERMEDIATE
RHCSA
ADVANCED
RHCE
EXPERT
RHCA
Rackspace
INTERMEDIATE
RCT
Scrum Alliance
EXPERT
CSP
Salesforce
INTERMEDIATE
SALESFORCE
Zend
INTERMEDIATE
PHP Certification
ADVANCED
Framework 2 Certification
