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EnsurePass 210-451 Exam Real Dumps Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals (CLDFND)
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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 210-451
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals(CLDFND)
Version: 13.03
Q & As: 82
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QUESTION 1 Which two technologies support running Linux and Windows virtual machines? (Choose two.)
A. KVM B. LXD C. Docker D. Microsoft Hyper-V
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 2 Which of the following is not a valid action for an OpenFlow network device?
A. Send to SDN controller B. Send to egress interface C. Send to all ports except ingress D. Check TCP flags E. Send to input port
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which of the following represent key aspects of a service-level agreement between a data center service provider and a consumer? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Performance B. Mean time to recover C. Contract changes D. Data handling E. Uptime
Correct Answer: ABDE
QUESTION 4 Which of the following options represent devices that can utilize cloud resources? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Personal computer B. Mobile phones C. Tablets D. Mainframe terminal E. Offline laptop
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 5 What are the five specific characteristics common to the Cloud environments?
A. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
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B. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, tiered-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency C. on-demand usage, autonomous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency D. dynamic usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which of the following are benefits from Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure? (Choose all that apply)
A. Distributed default gateway B. VM provisioning C. Encapsulation normalization D. Multi-hypervisor integration E. Separation of control and data planes
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 7 Which of the following is the main function of SAL in OpenDaylight?
A. Provide abstraction for southbound protocols B. Directly configure OpenFlow compatible devices C. Handle REST API calls D. Clustering E. GUI
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client 192.168.1.100?
A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async) B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async) C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async) D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which option is used to manage Multi-Domain Cisco UCS?
A. Cisco UCS Manager B. Cisco UCS Central C. Cisco UCS B-Series D. Cisco UCS C-Series
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 10 Which integrated infrastructure rely on OpenStack technology?
A. FlexPod B. Vblock C. VSPEX D. OpenBlocks
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Which option is the correct steps to regenerate a UCS B-Series SSL certificate?
A. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope keyring default # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
B. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
C. Open an SSH session to the CIMC IP # scope security # scope certificate # set regenerate yes # commit-buffer
D. Using the UCSM GUI Navigate to the Admin tab Expand ALL > Key Management Right-click Key Management and choose regenerate certificate Click OK
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Which of the following statements best describes Atomic Inheritance?
A. It maintains a consistent configuration among the interfaces in a port profile and the entire port profile configuration is applied to its member interfaces B. To maintain a consistent configuration among the sub-interfaces in a port profile C. It tracks the packets among the interfaces in a port profile from the start of each flow until termination D. To maintain a system VLAN connection to ensure communication between the VSM and VEM
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which option lists the Cloud deployment models?
A. public, community, private, hybrid B. cluster, community, private, hybrid
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C. public, performance, private, hybrid D. public, community, secure, hybrid
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14 Which statement defines Cloud Service Models?
A. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, platform as a service B. internet as a service, software as a service, platform as a service C. infrastructure as a service, big data as a service, platform as a service D. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, grid as a service
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15 Which of the following most accurately describes the default role of Server Equipment Administrator in UCSM?
A. Read and write access to physical server related operations. Read access to the rest of the system.
B. Read and write access to logical and physical server related operations. Read and write access to the rest of the system.
C. Read and write access to logical and physical server related operations. Read access to the rest of the system.
D. Read and write access to physical server related operations. Read and write access to the rest of the system.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16 Which best describes a Cloud deployment model that relies on interoperability between Cloud providers?
A. Hybrid Cloud B. Multi-Cloud C. InterCloud D. Community Cloud
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17 VMware's ESXi Hypervisor is a Type-1 hypervisor. What does this mean?
A. It should be placed first in your data center. B. It runs a conventional operating system and abstracts the guest operating system from its host system. C. It should only be run in class 1 data centers with high availability. D. It runs directly on the host hardware to control and manage the guest operating systems.
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Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18 Which Cisco product is outside of a Vblock?
A. Cisco Nexus 1k B. Cisco C-Series UCS C. Cisco Nexus 3k D. Cisco UCS Central
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19 In which of the following features is a disruption in associated virtual machines expected?
A. Fault tolerance B. Live migration C. High availability D. Resource load balancing
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20 Which of the following is not a function of APIC?
A. Control plane B. Policy C. GUI D. Fabric management E. API
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21 Which three options are Common Cloud characteristics? (Choose three.)
A. single tenancy B. elasticity C. ubiquitous network access D. metered service E. QoS
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 22 Which of the following statements is false?
A. VM high availability enables the restarting of virtual machines that were running on hosts that
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failed. B. Live migration is a disaster recovery feature that allows the migration of VMs after a physical server suffers a major hardware failure. C. Resource load balancing allows automatic host selection when you are creating a virtual machine. D. VM fault tolerance reserves double the resources a virtual machine requires.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23 Which characteristic is an inoperative attribute of a private Cloud deployment?
A. self service and on demand B. shared by many companies C. highly scalable D. metered for reporting or billing purposes
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24 Which of the following protocols are considered to be "file based"?
A. NFS, FCoE, iSCSI, CIFS B. iSCSI, NFS, CIFS C. NFS or CIFS D. FCoE or NFS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25 Which option lists Data Center network architectures?
A. core is the top layer, spine is mid layer, leafs are the endpoints the compute nodes B. DHCP and static IPs Service the cluster of the virtual servers C. neutron plugins connect virtual machines to VLANs D. a data center consists of physical switches and systems using the latest VLAN protocols
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26 Which API structure does Cisco UCS Manager support?
A. JSON B. XML C. RUBY D. PERL
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 27 Which of the following is not an ACI component?
A. Nexus 9000 B. APIC C. AVS D. Nexus 1000V E. Partner ecosystem
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28 Which of the following represent challenges of hybrid cloud implementations? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Inconsistent cloud architectures B. Incompatible networking and security policies C. Lack of encryption standards D. Requirement for application reconfiguration when an application is migrated from one cloud to another E. Few service offerings
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 29 Which of these are hypervisors typically utilized in a modern data center?
A. VMware, HyperV, Linux B. ESXi, HyperV, Linux C. ESXi, HyperV, KVM D. VMware, HyperV, KVM
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30 Which of the following two storage technologies would require that its' block device be attached to an instance before you can perform any filesystem commands? (Choose two.)
A. SCSI LUN B. Cinder Volume C. NFS Filesystem Meta-Volume D. Direct Object Block Device
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 31 Which option describes what the use of no_root_squash does in an NFS environment?
A. It causes the NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and is required for hypervisors that
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utilize RBAC for users. B. It allows a NFS share to be mounted and written to as the root user by the hypervisor. C. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by root, but all subsequent writes are as a non-root user. D. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and all subsequent writes are as a nonroot user.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32 What best describes server virtualization?
A. Server virtualization is the masking of server resources (including the number and identity of individual physical servers, processors, and operating systems) from server users.
B. System virtualization is the use of software to allow a piece of hardware to run multiple operating system images at the same time.
C. A method of combining the available resources in a network by splitting up the available bandwidth into channels, each of which is independent from the others, and each of which can be assigned (or reassigned) to a particular server or device in real time.
D. Pooling of physical storage from multiple network storage devices into what appears to be a single storage device that is managed from a central console
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33 Which description of Cisco vPath is true?
A. a protocol that provides end-to-end path assurance for Cloud-based systems B. an embedded intelligence in Cisco VEM that provides abstracted control and forward plane functionality C. a service that provides forwarding plane abstraction for inline redirection of traffic for vServices D. a vService that allows for security policy enforcement through transparent bridging
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34 Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service B. Platform as a Service C. Compute as a Service D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35 Which of the following best describes the order of operations of FCoE Initialization Protocol?
A. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery, FC Command B. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
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C. FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery D. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36 In an Openstack Cloud deployment which has a fibre channel SAN providing the block storage, which two options are valid fibre channel zone member types? (Choose two.)
A. FCID B. DomainID C. WWPN D. OpenStack Volume ID
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 37 Which protocol does Cisco Nexus 1000V use to provide flow redirection for vService interaction?
A. OpFlex B. vPath C. FlexPath D. VLAN bridging
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38 What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk B. A LUN handles file system creation C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks D. A LUN is a unique identifier
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 39 Which of the following contains policies that are not part of UCS?
A. BIOS, boot order, firmware package B. IPMI, PXE, Serial over LAN C. Maintenance, scrub, adapter D. vNIC/vHBA placement, local disk, power control
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 40 Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product B. provides self service for hybrid resources C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 41 Which option is an open and extensible southbound protocol that supplies policy directly to data center networks?
A. OpFlex B. vPath C. VM-FEX D. OpenDaylight
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 42 Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43 Which Cisco product can provide an iSCSI target for an iSCSI initiator?
A. Cisco MDS 9710 B. Cisco Nexus 7010 C. Cisco UCS Invicta D. Cisco Nexus 9510
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44 What is a tenant in the context of cloud computing?
A. An organization B. A single user account C. Any application that requires isolation from other tenants D. A department
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98-366
Mobility and Devices Fundamentals
98-368
Cloud Fundamentals
98-369
HTML5 App Development Fundamentals
98-375
Introduction to Programming Using Block-Based Languages (Touch Develop)
98-380
Introduction to Programming Using JavaScript
98-382
Introduction to Programming Using HTML and CSS
98-383
Introduction to Programming Using Java
98-388
Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure (beta) Implementing an Azure Data Solution Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Sales Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service Financial Management in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Distribution and Trade in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Microsofr Dynamics 365 for Retail Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Talent Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid
DP-100 DP-200 MB-230 MB2-706 MB2-707 MB2-708 MB2-710 MB2-711 MB2-712 MB2-713 MB2-714 MB2-716 MB2-718 MB2-719 MB2-877 MB6-895 MB6-896 MB6-897 MB6-898 MS-301
Certifications
Microsoft Certifications
Certification Name
Exam
Certification Name
Exam
Azure Security Engineer Associate
AZ-500
70-483
Universal Windows Platform
Dynamics 365 Fundamentals
MB-900
70-357
Dynamics 365 for Marketing Functional Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200
70-480
MB-220
Web Applications
70-483
MB-200
70-486
MB-240
70-410
MB-300
Windows Server 2012
70-411
MB-310
70-412
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing FunctionalMB-300
70-740
Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management
MB-320 Windows Server 2016
70-741
MB-300 70-742
Functional Consultant AssociateMB-330
MB2-716Microsoft 365 Certified Fundamentals MS-900 MB2-718
MS-200
MB2-719Messaging Administrator Associate
MS-201Business Applications
MB6-895MS-202
MB6-896Modern Desktop Administrator Associate
MD-100
MD-101
MB6-897
MB6-898
Security Administrator Associate
MS-50070-744
MS-300 70-745
Teamwork Administrator AssociateMS-301 Core Infrastructure
70-413
MS-302 70-414Azure Administrator Associate AZ-103 70-537
Azure AI Engineer AssociateAI-100
70-464
Azure Data Engineer Associate
DP-200 70-465
DP-201 70-466Azure Data Scientist Associate DP-100 Data Management and 70-467
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200 Analytics
70-762
MB-210 70-767Azure Developer Associate AZ-203 70-768
Azure Solutions Architect Expert
AZ-300 70-777
AZ-301
70-345Azure DevOps Engineer Expert AZ-400 MCSE Productivity Solutions 70-339
Enterprise Administrator Expert
Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate
MS-100
Expert
70-333
MS-101
70-334
MB-200
70-357
MB-230
MCSD Exams Dumps
70-486
Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals AZ-900 70-487
Certifications
Certification Name Exam Certification Name Exam
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
BI Reporting
MB-200
98-349
MB-210
98-350
70-778
98-351
70-779
98-352
70-764 98-353
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations
SQL 2016 BI Development
SQL 2016 Database Administration
SQL 2016 Database Development
70-765
98-354
MB6-894
98-355
MTA Exams Dumps
70-767
98-356
70-768
98-357
70-764
98-358
70-765
98-359
70-761
98-360
70-762
98-361
70-461 98-362
SQL Server 2012/2014
70-462
70-463
Exams
CompTIA ExamsTitle
Exam
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1
220-1001
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2
220-1002
CompTIA A+ (220-901)
220-901
CompTIA A+ (220-902)
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003 CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002) CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 1 CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 2
CAS-003 CLO-001 CS0-001 CV0-002 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ 2018 N10-007CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam CompTIA Server+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals Cleveland Community College Certified Mission Critical Operator Beta CompTIA Project+ CompTIA CTT+ Essentials
PT0-001 SK0-004 SY0-501 XK0-004 CAS-002 FC0-U11 FC0-U21 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 FC0-Z51 MC1-001 PK0-004 TK0-201
Certifications
C ompTIA CertificationsC er tification Name
Ex am
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1001
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1002
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-901
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ CompTIA Cloud+ CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Linux+
CAS-003 CLO-001 CLO-002 CS0-001 CV0-002 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ N10-007CompTIA Project+ CompTIA PenTest+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA Linux+
PK0-004 PT0-001 SY0-501 TK0-201 TK0-202 TK0-203 XK0-004
Other IT Certication Roadmap
Adobe
BEGINNER/NOVICE
ACA
INTERMEDIATE
ACI
EXPERT
ACE
Aruba
INTERMEDIATE
ACMP
Cloud Security Alliance
ADVANCED
CCSK
The Cloud School
ADVANCED
CCP
CWNP
INTERMEDIATE
CWNA
CWTS
Citrix
INTERMEDIATE
CCIA
ADVANCED
CCA
EC Council
INTERMEDIATE
CHFI
CEH
GIAC
INTERMEDIATE
GCIH
GISP GSEC
HDI Global
BEGINNER/NOVICE
HDI DST
HDI SCA
INTERMEDIATE
HDI CI
HDI DSM HDI SCM
Hewlett-Packard
EXPERT
ASE/CSE
ISACA
ADVANCED
CISA
EXPRT
CGEIT CISM
ISC 2ADVANCED
CSSLP
EXPERT
CISSP
Checkpoint
CCSA CCSE
Linux Professional Institute
BEGINNER/NOVICE
Linux Essentials
INTERMEDIATE
LPIC-1 Linux Professional
ADVANCED
LPIC-2 Linux Professional
EXPERT
LPIC-3 Linux Professional
Mile2
EXPERT
CPTE
MongoDB University
INTERMEDIATE
MongoDB Certified Developer
Associate
SUSE
INTERMEDIATE
SCA
ADVANCED
SCE
EXPERT
SEA
Novell
ADVANCED
CNE
Office of Government Commerce/Prince2
INTERMEDIATE
Prince2 Foundation
EXPERT
Prince2 Practitioner
PMI
INTERMEDIATE
CAPM
ADVANCED
PMP
Red Hat
INTERMEDIATE
RHCSA
ADVANCED
RHCE
EXPERT
RHCA
Rackspace
INTERMEDIATE
RCT
Scrum Alliance
EXPERT
CSP
Salesforce
INTERMEDIATE
SALESFORCE
Zend
INTERMEDIATE
PHP Certification
ADVANCED
Framework 2 Certification
