EnsurePass 2V0-622D Exam Real Dumps Data Center Virtualization Delta Exam

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Vendor: VMware

Exam Code: 2V0-622D

Exam Name: VMware Certified Professional 6.5 - Data CenterVirtualization Delta Exam

Version: 13.04

Q & As: 203

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QUESTION 1 Which are two correct descriptions of consumed memory and active memory? (Choose two.)

A. Consumed memory metric is the amount of memory that the virtual machine has recently used. B. Active memory is the exact amount of memory that is currently in use by the virtual machine, plus a 25% buffer (default setting). C. Consumed memory metric is the maximum amount of memory used by the VM at any point in its lifetime.

D. Active memory is an estimation of the amount of memory that is currently used by the virtual machine, plus a 25% buffer (default setting).

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2 A new virtual machine cannot reach its default gateway.

The vSphere administrator checks that the virtual machine's vmnic is connected to the correct portgroup, and that the portgroup is on the correct virtual switch

This is the only virtual machine on this portgroup

Other virtual machines that are on the host and connected to the same Distributed switch are running as normal

The Distributed Switch has only one uplink

Which could be the cause of this issue?

A. Block All Ports has been selected on the Distributed Switch. B. The wrong VLAN ID has been added to the portgroup. C. The VLAN has not been configured in virtual machine hardware settings. D. The physical adapter is down.

Correct Answer: B Explanation: The default gateway is an entry point and an exit point in a virtual machine sub-net, VLAN, or network. In general, a gateway is a routing device that knows how to pass traffic between different subnets and networks. Layer 2 and layer 3 switches with VLAN configuration allow IP assignment to each VLAN that will be used as default gateway as for that particular VLAN. A router contains routes for other subnets. Therefore, the problem occurs when wrong VLAN ID is added to the portgroup.

QUESTION 3 Which three types of Content Libraries exist within vSphere 6.5? (Choose three.)

A. Remote Content Library B. Published Content Library C. Local Content Library D. Shared Content Library E. Subscribed Content Library

Correct Answer: BCE

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QUESTION 4 Which system traffic type cannot be configured with Network I/O Control (NIOC) bandwidth allocation?

A. Virtual SAN traffic B. ESXi host Management traffic C. vSphere Replication traffic D. Software FCoE Adapter traffic

Correct Answer: D Explanation: You can use NIOC to assign bandwidth for host management, virtual machines, iSCSI storage, NFS storage, vSphere vMotion, vSphere Fault Tolerance, vSAN, and vSphere Replication on the physical adapters that are connected to a vSphere Distributed Switch but not Fcoe Adapter traffic.

QUESTION 5 Which is the maximum number of block devices (LUNs) that are supported by ESXi hosts that are running version 6.5?

A. 1024 B. 512 C. 2048 D. 256

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6 The administrator wants to power on VM-K2, which has a 2GHz CPU reservation. VM-M1, VM- M2, and VM-K1 are all powered on. VM-K2 is not powered on.

The exhibit shows the parent and child resource reservations.

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If Resource Pool RP-KID is configured with an expandable reservation, which statement is true?

A. VM-K2 will be unable to power on because there are insufficient resources. B. VM-K2 will be able to power on since resource pool RP-KID has 2GHz available. C. VM-K2 will be unable to power on because only 2GHz are reserved for RP-KID. D. VM-K2 will receive resource priority and will be able to power on this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7 Which two statements are true for Predictive DRS? (Choose two.)

A. It balances resource utilization for virtual machines with unpredictable utilization patterns. B. It integrates DRS with vRealize Operations Manager to balance workloads for virtual machines before resource utilization spikes occur. C. It balances resource utilization based on a threshold's algorithm that runs each night.

D. It determines the best placement and balance of virtual machines based on a threshold's algorithm that runs each night in vCenter Server 6.5 Database.

Correct Answer: BC Explanation: Predictive DRS Predictive DRS is a new feature that leverages the predictive analytics of vRealize Operations Manager with the powerful resource scheduler algorithm of vSphere DRS. Together, these two products enable workload balancing for certain VMs before resource utilization spikes occur, potentially eliminating a great amount of resource contention that might have occurred in the past. vRealize Operations Manager runs its dynamic thresholds algorithm nightly against the VMs on which it collects data. These dynamic thresholds create forecasted metrics for the future utilization of the VMs. The metrics are then passed to vSphere DRS to determine the best placement and balance of VMs before resource utilization spikes occur. Predictive DRS helps prevent resource contention on hosts that run VMs with predictable utilization patterns.

QUESTION 8 Which three requirements are needed to apply RAID 5 or RAID 6 erasure coding on a vSAN 6.2 or 6.5 object? (Choose three.)

A. on Disk Format 3.0 B. Hybrid vSAN C. All Flash vSAN D. vSAN Advanced License E. Stretched Cluster Configurations

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 9 An administrator is using virtual machine encryption in their vSphere 6.5 environment. The Key Management Server (KMS) has experienced a critical failure. Which two statements are true about VM encryption when the KMS is not available? (Choose two.)

A. VMs will shut down gracefully in the event of a KMS outage as a proactive measure to prevent data theft.

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B. VMs which were running at the time of the KMS failure will continue to run.

C. If an ESXi host is rebooted, it will be unable to power on encrypted VMs until KMS connectivity is restored.

D. vCenter Server will continue to distribute encryption keys as long as it is not rebooted while the KMS is unreachable.

E. ESXi hosts within the same cluster will share keys with one another while the KMS is unreachable.

Correct Answer: BC Explanation: If the KMS is unreachable, the VMs running at the time of KMS failure will continue to run. Another fact is if an ESXi host is rebooted, it will not power on encrypted VMs until KMs connectivity is fully restored.

QUESTION 10 Which two datastore types are supported by Storage I/O Control v2? (Choose two.)

A. vSAN B. RDM C. NFS D. Virtual Volumes E. VMFS

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 11 An administrator wants to enable VMware Fault Tolerance on a virtual machine. Which two vSphere features are supported with Fault Tolerance? (Choose two.)

A. VM Component Protection B. vSphere HA C. Storage DRS D. Snapshots

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12 vSphere Data Protection 6.1 provides the ability to back up and restore individual applications. Which are the three supported applications? (Choose three.)

A. Microsoft Dynamics Server B. Oracle Database Server C. Microsoft SharePoint Server D. Microsoft Exchange Server E. Microsoft SQL Server

Correct Answer: CDE

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QUESTION 13 Which happens if the swap file of a virtual machine is inaccessible to the destination host during a vMotion?

A. The swap file is stored with the virtual machine configuration file. B. The swap file is copied to the destination host. C. The vMotion will fail. D. The swap file is replicated to a datastore accessible by both hosts.

Correct Answer: A Explanation: If the destination host cannot access the specified swap file location, it stores the swap file with the virtual machine configuration file.

QUESTION 14 Examine the LUN properties that are shown in the exhibit. Which action should be taken to utilize all active paths?

A. Change PSP to Most Recently Used B. No action required. All paths are already utilized. C. Change PSP to Fixed. D. Change PSP to Round Robin.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: The host uses an automatic path selection algorithm rotating through all active paths when connecting to active-passive arrays, or through all available paths when connecting to activeactive arrays. RR is the default for a number of arrays and can be used with both active-active and active-passive arrays to implement load balancing across paths for different LUNs.

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QUESTION 15 An administrator would like to configure vSphere HA to use two isolation addresses. How would this affect the behavior of HA?

A. If both isolation addresses are not reachable, the host will be restarted by the HA agent. B. If both isolation addresses are not reachable, the host will use the vCenter Server IP address as a final isolation address before being marked isolated. C. If only one of the isolation addresses is reachable, the host will not be marked isolated by HA.

D. If only one of the isolation addresses is reachable, the host will be considered in an isolated by HA.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: If you use two isolation addresses, and if only one of the isolation addresses is reachable, the host will not be marked isolated by HA.

QUESTION 16 A VM-Host affinity rule states that VM group "X" must run on hosts in group "Y". If all ESXi hosts in group "Y" fail, which is the resulting behavior with vSphere HA enabled?

A. The virtual machines in group "X" will failover to hosts that do not belong to group "Y", but will vMotion back to hosts in group "Y" when they become available. B. The virtual machines in group "X" will not failover to hosts that do not belong to group "Y". C. This scenario is not possible because vSphere HA and DRS cannot work together. D. The virtual machines in group "X" will only fail over to hosts that do not belong to group "Y" if they are marked as "High" VM Restart Priority within vSphere HA.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17 When enabling Storage DRS on a datastore cluster, which three components are enabled as a result? (Choose three.)

A. Space load balancing among datastore within the datastore cluster. B. Initial placement for virtual disks based on space and I/O workload. C. I/O load balancing among datastores within the datastore cluster. D. Queue Depth alerting on disks within the datastore cluster. E. Data de-duplication within the datastore cluster.

Correct Answer: ABC Explanation: When you enable Storage DRS, you enable the following functions:

QUESTION 18 An administrator notices that a host is evacuating all virtual machines and entering maintenance mode even though the host appears to be up and running. Which new feature in vSphere 6.5 would cause this?

A. Predictive DRS B. EVC Mode

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C. vCenter HA D. Proactive HA

Correct Answer: D Explanation: There are two vSphere Proactive HA Automation Levels: Manual: vCenter Server will suggest only the migration recommendations for virtual machines. You need to manually migrate the virtual machines out from the degraded hosts. Automated: Virtual Machines will be migrated to healthy hosts and degraded hosts will be entered into remediation action either quarantine or maintenance mode depending on the configured Proactive HA automation level

QUESTION 19 An administrator attempts to manually reclaim space on thin-provisioned VMFS6 volumes but finds that no additional space is being recovered. Which could be causing this?

A. vSphere 6.5 does not support manual UNMAP. B. The manual UNMAP operation has been moved to the vSphere web client. C. The VASA version is use is incompatible. D. UNMAP is automated for VMFS6.

Correct Answer: D Explanation: The additional space is not recovered because UNMAP is automated for VMFS 6. To get additional space recovered using the manual reclaim process, you need to remove UMAP from being automated for VMFS 6.

QUESTION 20 Which CLI command shows the physical uplink status for a vmnic?

A. esxcli network ip connection list B. esxcli network ip neighbor list C. esxcli network nic get D. esxcli network nic list

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21 To enable Predictive DRS, which three steps must be taken? (Choose three.)

A. vRealize Log Insight must be enabled and configured to watch for Predictive DRS moves. B. The corresponding virtual machines must be tagged for Predictive DRS use. C. A supported version of vRealize Operations Manager must be configured and enabled. D. The Predictive DRS check box must be enabled. E. DRS must be enabled.

Correct Answer: CDE

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QUESTION 22 When performing a vCenter Server 5.5 for Windows with Microsoft SQL Server Express database migration to vCenter Server Appliance 6.5, which will be the target database?

A. Microsoft SQL Server Express 2012R2 B. Microsoft SQL Server Standard 2012R2 C. PostgreSQL D. Oracle DB 11g

Correct Answer: C Explanation: To perform vcenter server 5.5 for Windows with Microsoft SQL server express database migration to vcenter server appliance 6.5, you need PostgreSQL database installation on Windows.

QUESTION 23 In a vSphere 6.5 cluster, the administrator notices that it is possible to set a percentage in the DRS option, "Control CPU over-commitment in the cluster." Which is the purpose of this setting?

A. It sets and enforces a maximum percentage of virtual machine CPU usage in GHz in comparison to physical CPU availability in GHz.

B. It sets and enforces a maximum ratio in percentage between powered on virtual machine CPUs and available physical CPUs on hosts.

C. It prevents the creation of any additional virtual machines in the cluster. D. It calculates the total shares assigned to all virtual machines in comparison to GHz of available physical CPU.

Correct Answer: B Explanation: https://blogs.vmware.com/vsphere/2016/10/whats-new-in-vsphere-6-5-host-resourcemanagement-and-operations.html

CPU over-commitment: This is an option to enforce a maximum vCPU:pCPU ratios in the cluster. Once the cluster reaches this defined value, no additional VMs will be allowed to power on."

QUESTION 24 Which two datapoints does VM Monitoring evaluate before resetting a virtual machine? (Choose two.)

A. High CPU activity on the VM B. High CPU activity on the ESXi host running the VM C. Heartbeats sent from VMware Tools D. High memory utilization on the VM E. I/O activity

Correct Answer: CE

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QUESTION 25 When using "Cluster resource percentage" for host failover capacity in vSphere HA Admission Control, the total resource requirements are calculated from which two values? (Choose two.)

A. Total vCPUs assigned to each VM. B. Average CPU usage on each VM over time. C. Memory reservations on each VM. D. Total memory assigned to each VM. E. Average active memory on each VM over time. F. CPU reservations on each VM.

Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 26 An administrator is creating VMkernel adapters on an ESXi 6.5 host and wants to create separate VMkernel adapters for every type of traffic in the default TCP/IP stack. Which three types of traffic can be explicitly enabled on a separate VMkernel adapter? (Choose three.)

A. Virtual SAN traffic B. NFS traffic C. vMotion traffic D. vSphere HA traffic E. Fault Tolerance logging traffic

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation: A VMkernel adapter for vMotion is required both on the source and the target hosts. Configure The VMkernel adapters for vMotion to handle only the vMotion traffic. A separate VMkernel adapter for Fault Tolerance logging is required on every host that is part of a vSphere HA cluster. Every host that participates in a vSAN cluster must have a VMkernel adapter to handle the vSAN traffic.

QUESTION 27 It is determined that the Migration Assistant will be used to migrate from vCenter Server 5.5 on Windows with an external instance of Update Manager to a vCenter Server Appliance 6.5. Which option is correct in regard to migrating Update Manager?

A. The Migration Assistant must be run on vCenter Server first and then on the Update Manager server.

B. The Migration Assistant must be run on the Update Manager server first and then on vCenter Server.

C. Migrating Update Manager from legacy versions of vCenter Server to a vCenter Server Appliance 6.5 is not supported.

D. The Migration Assistant can only migrate local instances of Update Manager to the vCenter Server Appliance 6.5.

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 28 Which are the two storage options for a Content Library when using the VMware vCenter Appliance? (Choose two.)

A. FTP B. NFS C. CIFS D. VMFS

Correct Answer: BD Explanation: When you create a local library, you can store its contents on a datastore managed by the vCenter Server instance or on a remote file system. Depending on the type of storage that you have, you can use Virtual Machine File System (VMFS) or Network File System (NFS) for storing content on a datastore.

QUESTION 29 A vSphere administrator wants to upgrade NFS3 datastores to NFS4.1 on ESXi 6.5 hosts with running production virtual machines. Which option is valid?

A. Run ESXi command to upgrade the datastore.

B. Unmount the datastore from a single host, then mount it as NFS 4.1 datastore, and repeat this one host at a time until the mount has been upgraded on all hosts.

C. Create a new NFS 4.1 datastore, and then use Storage vMotion to migrate virtual machines from the old datastore to the new one. D. Right click the datastore and upgrade it as a NFS 4.1 datastore.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30 An administrator sees the following error in the log files:

Which two events could be the source of the error message? (Choose two.)

A. vCenter Server failure B. VXLAN failure C. Disk array failure D. Network failure E. ESXi host failure

Correct Answer: CD

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70-743

Securing Windows Server 2016

70-744

Developing SQL Databases

70-762

Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure

70-764

Implementing a SQL Data Warehouse

70-767

Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Power BI

70-778

Word 2016: Core Document Creation, Collaboration and Communication

77-725

Excel 2016: Core Data Analysis, Manipulation, and Presentation

77-727

Windows Server Administration Fundamentals

98-365

Security Fundamentals

98-367

Introduction to Programming Using Python

98-381

Designing and Implementing an Azure AI Solution Microsoft Azure Administrator Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies Microsoft Azure Architect Design Microsoft Azure DevOps Solutions Microsoft Azure Security Technologies Microsoft Azure Fundamentals Designing an Azure Data Solution Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement Core (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Sales Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 Unified Operations Core (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials

AI-100 AZ-103 AZ-203 AZ-300 AZ-301 AZ-400 AZ-500 AZ-900 DP-201 MB-200 MB-210 MB-220 MB-240 MB-300 MB-310

Exams

Title

Exam

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing MB-330: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals Development, Extensions and Deployment for Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Windows 10 Managing Modern Desktops Microsoft 365 Identity and Services Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security Planning and Configuring a Messaging Platform (beta) Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform Microsoft 365 Messaging Administrator Certification Transition Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork Microsoft 365 Teamwork Administrator Certification Transition (beta) Microsoft 365 Security Administration Microsoft 365 Fundamentals

MB-320 MB-330 MB-900 MB6-894 MD-100 MD-101 MS-100 MS-101 MS-200 MS-201 MS-202 MS-300 MS-302 MS-500 MS-900

Technology Literacy for Educators

62-193

Deploying Enterprise Voice with Skype for Business 2015

70-333

Core Solutions of Microsoft Skype for Business 2015

70-334

Managing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2016

70-339

Managing Projects with Microsoft Project

70-343

Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM

70-348

Developing Mobile Apps

70-357

MCSE Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure

70-413

MCSE Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure

70-414

Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012

70-417

MCSA Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014

70-463

Developing Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases

70-464

Designing Database Solutions for Microsoft SQL Server 2012

70-465

Implementing Data Models and Reports with Microsoft SQL Server 2012

70-466

Designing Business Intelligence Solutions with Microsoft SQL Server 2012

70-467

Designing and Providing Microsoft Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations

70-705

Software Asset Management (SAM) – Core

70-713

OEM Manufacturing and Deployment for Windows 10

70-735

Implementing a Software-Defined Datacenter

70-745

Querying Data with Transact-SQL

70-761

Provisioning SQL Databases

70-765

Developing SQL Data Models

70-768

Implementing Microsoft Azure Cosmos DB Solutions

70-777

Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel

70-779

OEM Preinstallation

74-697

Exams

TitleExam

Windows Operating System Fundamentals

98-349

Software Development Fundamentals

98-361

Database Fundamentals

98-364

Networking Fundamentals

98-366

Mobility and Devices Fundamentals

98-368

Cloud Fundamentals

98-369

HTML5 App Development Fundamentals

98-375

Introduction to Programming Using Block-Based Languages (Touch Develop)

98-380

Introduction to Programming Using JavaScript

98-382

Introduction to Programming Using HTML and CSS

98-383

Introduction to Programming Using Java

98-388

Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure (beta) Implementing an Azure Data Solution Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Sales Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service Financial Management in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Distribution and Trade in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Microsofr Dynamics 365 for Retail Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Talent Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid

DP-100 DP-200 MB-230 MB2-706 MB2-707 MB2-708 MB2-710 MB2-711 MB2-712 MB2-713 MB2-714 MB2-716 MB2-718 MB2-719 MB2-877 MB6-895 MB6-896 MB6-897 MB6-898 MS-301

Certifications

Microsoft Certifications

Certification Name

Exam

Certification Name

Exam

Azure Security Engineer Associate

AZ-500

70-483

Universal Windows Platform

Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

MB-900

70-357

Dynamics 365 for Marketing Functional Consultant Associate

Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate

Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials Functional Consultant Associate

MB-200

70-480

MB-220

Web Applications

70-483

MB-200

70-486

MB-240

70-410

MB-300

Windows Server 2012

70-411

MB-310

70-412

Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing FunctionalMB-300

70-740

Consultant Associate

Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management

MB-320 Windows Server 2016

70-741

MB-300 70-742

Functional Consultant AssociateMB-330

MB2-716Microsoft 365 Certified Fundamentals MS-900 MB2-718

MS-200

MB2-719Messaging Administrator Associate

MS-201Business Applications

MB6-895MS-202

MB6-896Modern Desktop Administrator Associate

MD-100

MD-101

MB6-897

MB6-898

Security Administrator Associate

MS-50070-744

MS-300 70-745

Teamwork Administrator AssociateMS-301 Core Infrastructure

70-413

MS-302 70-414Azure Administrator Associate AZ-103 70-537

Azure AI Engineer AssociateAI-100

70-464

Azure Data Engineer Associate

DP-200 70-465

DP-201 70-466Azure Data Scientist Associate DP-100 Data Management and 70-467

Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate

MB-200 Analytics

70-762

MB-210 70-767Azure Developer Associate AZ-203 70-768

Azure Solutions Architect Expert

AZ-300 70-777

AZ-301

70-345Azure DevOps Engineer Expert AZ-400 MCSE Productivity Solutions 70-339

Enterprise Administrator Expert

Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate

MS-100

Expert

70-333

MS-101

70-334

MB-200

70-357

MB-230

MCSD Exams Dumps

70-486

Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals AZ-900 70-487

Certifications

Certification Name Exam Certification Name Exam

Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate

BI Reporting

MB-200

98-349

MB-210

98-350

70-778

98-351

70-779

98-352

70-764 98-353

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations

SQL 2016 BI Development

SQL 2016 Database Administration

SQL 2016 Database Development

70-765

98-354

MB6-894

98-355

MTA Exams Dumps

70-767

98-356

70-768

98-357

70-764

98-358

70-765

98-359

70-761

98-360

70-762

98-361

70-461 98-362

SQL Server 2012/2014

70-462

70-463

Exams

CompTIA ExamsTitle

Exam

CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1

220-1001

CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2

220-1002

CompTIA A+ (220-901)

220-901

CompTIA A+ (220-902)

220-902

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003 CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002) CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 1 CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 2

CAS-003 CLO-001 CS0-001 CV0-002 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ 2018 N10-007CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam CompTIA Server+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals Cleveland Community College Certified Mission Critical Operator Beta CompTIA Project+ CompTIA CTT+ Essentials

PT0-001 SK0-004 SY0-501 XK0-004 CAS-002 FC0-U11 FC0-U21 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 FC0-Z51 MC1-001 PK0-004 TK0-201

Certifications

C ompTIA CertificationsC er tification Name

Ex am

CompTIA A+ 2019

220-1001

CompTIA A+ 2019

220-1002

CompTIA A+ 2019

220-901

CompTIA A+ 2019

220-902

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ CompTIA Cloud+ CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Linux+

CAS-003 CLO-001 CLO-002 CS0-001 CV0-002 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ N10-007CompTIA Project+ CompTIA PenTest+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA Linux+

PK0-004 PT0-001 SY0-501 TK0-201 TK0-202 TK0-203 XK0-004

Other IT Certication Roadmap

Adobe

BEGINNER/NOVICE

ACA

INTERMEDIATE

ACI

EXPERT

ACE

Aruba

INTERMEDIATE

ACMP

Cloud Security Alliance

ADVANCED

CCSK

The Cloud School

ADVANCED

CCP

CWNP

INTERMEDIATE

CWNA

CWTS

Citrix

INTERMEDIATE

CCIA

ADVANCED

CCA

EC Council

INTERMEDIATE

CHFI

CEH

GIAC

INTERMEDIATE

GCIH

GISP GSEC

HDI Global

BEGINNER/NOVICE

HDI DST

HDI SCA

INTERMEDIATE

HDI CI

HDI DSM HDI SCM

Hewlett-Packard

EXPERT

ASE/CSE

ISACA

ADVANCED

CISA

EXPRT

CGEIT CISM

ISC 2ADVANCED

CSSLP

EXPERT

CISSP

Checkpoint

CCSA CCSE

Linux Professional Institute

BEGINNER/NOVICE

Linux Essentials

INTERMEDIATE

LPIC-1 Linux Professional

ADVANCED

LPIC-2 Linux Professional

EXPERT

LPIC-3 Linux Professional

Mile2

EXPERT

CPTE

MongoDB University

INTERMEDIATE

MongoDB Certified Developer

Associate

SUSE

INTERMEDIATE

SCA

ADVANCED

SCE

EXPERT

SEA

Novell

ADVANCED

CNE

Office of Government Commerce/Prince2

INTERMEDIATE

Prince2 Foundation

EXPERT

Prince2 Practitioner

PMI

INTERMEDIATE

CAPM

ADVANCED

PMP

Red Hat

INTERMEDIATE

RHCSA

ADVANCED

RHCE

EXPERT

RHCA

Rackspace

INTERMEDIATE

RCT

Scrum Alliance

EXPERT

CSP

Salesforce

INTERMEDIATE

SALESFORCE

Zend

INTERMEDIATE

PHP Certification

ADVANCED

Framework 2 Certification