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EnsurePass 300-075 Exam Real Dumps Implementing Cisco IP Telephony and Video, Part 2 (CIPTV2)
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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-075
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony and Video, Part2 (CIPTV2)
Version: 13.05
Q & As: 229
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QUESTION 1 A CUCM cluster has been set up with one to one (1:1) call processing redundancy. What two occurrences will seen when the primary subscriber fails? (Choose two)
A. The secondary subscriber will start its CallManager service B. 40 SCCP phones per second will be able to register to the secondary subscriber. C. The secondary subscriber will start its TFTP service D. 125 SCCP phones per second will be able to register to the secondary subscriber. E. 40 SIP phones per second will be able to register to the secondary subscriber. F. 125 SIP phones per second will be able to register to the secondary subscriber
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 2 Which protocol can you use to create a trunk between Cisco Unified Communication Manager and Cisco VCS?
A. H.323 B. SIP, H.323 C. ILS D. SIP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which two features are part of Cisco Unified Mobility? (Choose two)
A. Mobile Voice Access B. Device Mobility C. Enterprise Feature Access D. Shared line E. Extension Mobility Cross Cluster
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4 Where in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration GUI must an engineer navigate to configure Cisco InterCluster Lookup Service authentication in communication manager?
A. Advanced Features> ILS Configuration> Roles B. Call Routing > Intercluster Directory URI > Intercluster Directory URI configuration C. Call Routing > Intercluster Directory URI D. Advanced Features > ILS Configuration
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is settings up a new deployment and wants to use the Cisco VCS Control as a gateway for SIP and H.323 endpoints. Which Cisco VCS configuration step must be performed to allow onset and offset calling?
A. Set the H.323mode On B. Set the IP mode On. C. Set the Gatekeeper Auto Discover mode On D. Set the Interworking mode On.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Which option describes the meaning of a call termination cause code of 1 in a Cisco Unified Communications?
A. normal call cleaning B. resource unavailable, unspecified C. call rejected D. Unallocated (unassigned) number
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Which two statements about the use of the Intercluster Lookup Service in a multicluster environment are true? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager uses the ILS to support intercluster URI dialing. B. ILS contains an optional directory URI replication feature that allows the clusters in an ILS network to replicate their directory URIs to the other clusters in the ILS network. C. Directory URI replication does not need to be enabled individually for each cluster. D. To enable URI replication in a cluster, check the Exchange Directory URIs with Remote Clusters check box that appears in the SIP trunk configuration menu.
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E. If the ILS and directory URI replication feature is disabled on a cluster, this cluster still accepts ILS advertisements and directory URIs from other neighbor clusters; it just does not advertise its local directory URIs.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8 Which option configures the secondary dial tone option for SRST mode to let the users hear the dial tone for PSTN calls?
A. voice service voip secondary dialtone 0
B. call-manager-fallback secondary dialtone 0
C. dial-peer voice 1 pots secondary dialtone 0
D. ccm-manager secondary dialtone 0
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 An engineer must enable video desktop sharing between a Cisco Unified Communications Manager registered video endpoint and a Cisco VCS registered video endpoint. Which protocol must be enabled in SIP profile for VCS SIP trunk on Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. RDP B. H.264 C. H.224 D. H.263 E. BFCP
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 10 For which two reasons should you mark AF41 as the audio and video channels of a video call?
A. to allow high-definition quality calls over low-speed links B. to give video calls a higher priority than AF41 in the QoS policy C. to provide separate classes for audio-only calls and video calls D. to prioritize video over other high-priority traffic classes E. to preserve lip synchronization between the audio and video channels
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 11 The Cisco Unified Communications system of a company has five types of devices:
Cisco Jabber Desktop CP-7965
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DX-650 EX-60 MX-200
Which two types of devices are affected when an engineer changes the DSCP for TelePresence Calls parameter? (Choose two.)
A. DX-650 B. Cisco Jabber Desktop C. CP-7965 D. EX-80 E. MX-200
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 12 The network administrator has been investing bandwidth issues between the central office and remote sites where location-based CAC is implemented. What does the Cisco Unified Communication Manager "Location Out Resources" counter indicate?
A. This counter represents the total number of times that a call through a location on a particular Cisco Unified Communications Manager failed due to lack of bandwidth.
B. This counter represents the total number of failed video stream requests (most likely due to lack of bandwidth) in the location where the person who initiated the video conference resides.
C. This counter represents the total number of times since the last restart of the Cisco IP Voice Streaming Application that a Cisco Unified Communications Manager connection was lost.
D. This counter represents the total number of times that a call through locations failed due to the lack of bandwidth.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 A user reports that when using desk phone A at the office HQ a call can be extended to a cell phone, but when the desk phone B is used at another office branch, the call cannot be executed. Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration item causes this issue?
A. Extension Mobility B. Device Mobility C. Mobility soft key D. Physical Location
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14 Which two options are dial-plan challenges in a multisite Cisco Unified Communication Manager deployment?
A. use of same length directory numbers all over the network B. use of +E164 directory numbers and extensions for phones and services C. telephony service provider requirements on number format and types
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D. use of MGCP gateways instead of SIP trunks E. use of same DID numbers in multiple sites
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 15 What is the default DSCP/PHB for TelePresence video conferencing packets in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. EF/46 B. CS6/48 C. AF41/34 D. CS3/24 E. CS4/32
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16 What is the default DHCP/PHB values for Tele Presence streaming video packets in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. CS6/48 B. CS3/24 C. CS4/32 D. AF41/34 E. EF/46
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17 You are configuring a SIP trunk with ID333949146 on Cisco Unified Communications Manager to direct calls towards the Cisco VCS C/E. Which two check boxes should you enable in the security profile for the SIP trunk?
A. Transmit Security Status B. Enable Application Level Authorization C. Accept Out-of-Dialog REFER D. Accept Replaces Header E. Accept Unsolicited Notification F. Accept Presence Subscription
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 18 When troubleshooting high CPU utilization within the Command Line Interface (CLI) of a Cisco Unified Communications Manager (CUCM). Which command will show the process CPU usage for all processes?
A. show network status
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B. show pert query counter Process"% CPU Time" C. show pert query counter Partition"% Used" D. show pert query counter Process "Process Status"
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19 What is the maximum allowed round-trip between Cisco Unified Communication Manager nodes?
A. 150 ms B. 40 ms C. 500 ms D. 80 ms
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20 Which three steps are necessary to configure mobile and remote access on Cisco VCS Control? (Choose three)
A. Register voice gateways with Cisco Unified Communications Manager B. Configure Cisco VCS for Cisco Unified Communication C. Configure Directory Services for Cisco Unified Communication D. Discover Cisco Unified Communicators Manager and IM&P Servers. E. After the discovery confirm the connectivity between Cisco VCS Control with Cisco Unified
Communication Manager and IM&P F. Configure DNS and NTP
Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 21 When you configure QoS on VCS, which settings do you apply if traffic through the VCS should be tagged with DSCP AF41?
A. Set QoS mode to DiffServ and tag value 32. B. Set QoS mode to IntServ and tag value to 34. C. Set QoS mode to DiffServ and tag value 34. D. Set QoS mode to IntServ and tag value to 32. E. Set QoS mode to ToS and tag value to 32.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22 How do you configure the secondary dial tone options for SRST mode?
A. call-manager failback secondary dialtone O B. voice service voip secondary dialtone O C. dial-peer voice 1 pots secondary dialtone O
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D. ccm-manager secondary dialtone OCorrect Answer: A
QUESTION 23 To which subzone can you apply bandwidth limitations?
A. default, traversal, and all manually configured subzones B. manually configured subzones C. cluster D. default
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24 When you use the RTMT Query wizard to configure the trace and log central (TLC) feature to collect install logs, if you have servers in a cluster in a different time zone, which time is used?
A. TLC adjusts the time change appropriately. B. TLC uses its local time for all systems. C. TLC queries for the time zone as part of configuration. D. TLC produces an error and must be run remotely.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25 Which two options are dial plan elements that Global Dial Plan Replication allows independent clusters to share with each other using the Intercluster Lookup service?
A. enterprise alternate numbers B. voicemail profites C. +W.164 alternate numbers D. external phone number masks E. actual directory numbers
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 26 Your company's main number is 408-526-7209, and your employee's directory numbers are 4- digit numbers. Which option should be configured if you want outgoing calls from 4-digit internal directory number to be presented as a 10-digit number?
A. calling party transformation pattern B. AAR group C. translation pattern D. route pattern
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 27 In which two locations can you verify that a phone has a standby Cisco Unified communications manager? (Choose two)
A. phone webpage B. RTMT C. Cisco Unified Serviceability D. phone menu
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 28 Which component provides a list of Cisco Unified Communications Manager node addresses that allow the phone to register to the cluster?
A. DNS option 150 B. DHCP option 150 C. DHCP option 66 D. configuration file from TFTP server
E. Primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager node from configuration file additional nodes during registration.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29 Which feature enables users to manage business calls by using one phone number to pick up inprogress calls on either their desk phone or their mobile phone?
A. desktop call pickup B. send call to mobile phone C. mobile connect D. mobile voice access E. access list
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30 An Enterprise Alternate Number is not reachable in GDPR. What navigation will allow an engineer to configure an automatic switching to a backup number?
A. PSTN failover numbers B. External Phone Number Mask C. CFUR D. Voicemail
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 31 In the event that the central CUCM is unreachable, how will an endpoint identify which IP address to connect to for registration and call processing?
A. DHCP Option 150 B. SRST Reference C. SRST router fallback config D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32 Which two statements regarding you configuring a traversal server and traversal client relationship are true? (Choose two.)
A. VCS supports only the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls. B. VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for H.323 traversal calls. C. VCS supports either the Assent or the H.460.18/19 protocol for SIP traversal calls. D. If the Assent protocol is configured, a TCP/TLS connection is established from the traversal client to the traversal server for SIP signaling. E. A VCS Expressway located in the public network or DMZ acts as the firewall traversal client.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 33 You are deploying a Cisco unified communications manager solution with MGCP gateways at multiple locations. Which firewall and ACL configuration must you perform to allow the MCGP gateways to function correctly?
A. Block TCP port 1720 B. Allow access to TCP port 1720 C. Block access to TCP ports 2427 and 2428 D. Allow access toTCP port 2428. E. Open access to all TCP and UDP ports.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34 Which field must be populated to assign a default directory URI partition in Communication Manager?
A. Directory URI Alias Partition B. Alias URI Directory Partition C. Alias URI Partition D. Directory URI Partition
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 35 Which option best describes a service that assembles a network model from configured locations and link data in one or more clusters?
A. LBM Hub B. LBM C. Shadow D. Weight
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36 Which two gateways or trunks are considered to be call-agent controlled?
A. SIP trunk registered to a SIP proxy server B. H.323 gateway C. H.225 trunk (gatekeeper controlled) D. Skinny Client Control Protocol gateway E. Media Gateway Control Protocol gateway
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 37 When consideringcisco unified communicationmanager groups, the first entry is always the primary server that a device will attempt to register to. How many additional backup servers can be configured for devices to use?
A. 2 B. 6 C. 1 D. 3 E. 5 F. 4
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38 Which statement about the SAF Client Control is correct?
A. The SAF Client Control is a configurable inherent component of Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. The SAF Client Control is a non-configurable inherent component of Cisco Unified
Communications Manager. C. The SAF Client Control is a non-configurable inherent component of the Cisco IOS Routers. D. The SAF Client Control is a configurable inherent component of the Cisco IOS Routers.
Correct Answer: B
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OEM Manufacturing and Deployment for Windows 10
70-735
Implementing a Software-Defined Datacenter
70-745
Querying Data with Transact-SQL
70-761
Provisioning SQL Databases
70-765
Developing SQL Data Models
70-768
Implementing Microsoft Azure Cosmos DB Solutions
70-777
Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel
70-779
OEM Preinstallation
74-697
Exams
TitleExam
Windows Operating System Fundamentals
98-349
Software Development Fundamentals
98-361
Database Fundamentals
98-364
Networking Fundamentals
98-366
Mobility and Devices Fundamentals
98-368
Cloud Fundamentals
98-369
HTML5 App Development Fundamentals
98-375
Introduction to Programming Using Block-Based Languages (Touch Develop)
98-380
Introduction to Programming Using JavaScript
98-382
Introduction to Programming Using HTML and CSS
98-383
Introduction to Programming Using Java
98-388
Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure (beta) Implementing an Azure Data Solution Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Sales Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service Financial Management in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Distribution and Trade in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Microsofr Dynamics 365 for Retail Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Talent Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid
DP-100 DP-200 MB-230 MB2-706 MB2-707 MB2-708 MB2-710 MB2-711 MB2-712 MB2-713 MB2-714 MB2-716 MB2-718 MB2-719 MB2-877 MB6-895 MB6-896 MB6-897 MB6-898 MS-301
Certifications
Microsoft Certifications
Certification Name
Exam
Certification Name
Exam
Azure Security Engineer Associate
AZ-500
70-483
Universal Windows Platform
Dynamics 365 Fundamentals
MB-900
70-357
Dynamics 365 for Marketing Functional Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200
70-480
MB-220
Web Applications
70-483
MB-200
70-486
MB-240
70-410
MB-300
Windows Server 2012
70-411
MB-310
70-412
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing FunctionalMB-300
70-740
Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management
MB-320 Windows Server 2016
70-741
MB-300 70-742
Functional Consultant AssociateMB-330
MB2-716Microsoft 365 Certified Fundamentals MS-900 MB2-718
MS-200
MB2-719Messaging Administrator Associate
MS-201Business Applications
MB6-895MS-202
MB6-896Modern Desktop Administrator Associate
MD-100
MD-101
MB6-897
MB6-898
Security Administrator Associate
MS-50070-744
MS-300 70-745
Teamwork Administrator AssociateMS-301 Core Infrastructure
70-413
MS-302 70-414Azure Administrator Associate AZ-103 70-537
Azure AI Engineer AssociateAI-100
70-464
Azure Data Engineer Associate
DP-200 70-465
DP-201 70-466Azure Data Scientist Associate DP-100 Data Management and 70-467
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200 Analytics
70-762
MB-210 70-767Azure Developer Associate AZ-203 70-768
Azure Solutions Architect Expert
AZ-300 70-777
AZ-301
70-345Azure DevOps Engineer Expert AZ-400 MCSE Productivity Solutions 70-339
Enterprise Administrator Expert
Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate
MS-100
Expert
70-333
MS-101
70-334
MB-200
70-357
MB-230
MCSD Exams Dumps
70-486
Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals AZ-900 70-487
Certifications
Certification Name Exam Certification Name Exam
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
BI Reporting
MB-200
98-349
MB-210
98-350
70-778
98-351
70-779
98-352
70-764 98-353
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations
SQL 2016 BI Development
SQL 2016 Database Administration
SQL 2016 Database Development
70-765
98-354
MB6-894
98-355
MTA Exams Dumps
70-767
98-356
70-768
98-357
70-764
98-358
70-765
98-359
70-761
98-360
70-762
98-361
70-461 98-362
SQL Server 2012/2014
70-462
70-463
Exams
CompTIA ExamsTitle
Exam
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1
220-1001
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2
220-1002
CompTIA A+ (220-901)
220-901
CompTIA A+ (220-902)
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003 CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002) CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 1 CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 2
CAS-003 CLO-001 CS0-001 CV0-002 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ 2018 N10-007CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam CompTIA Server+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals Cleveland Community College Certified Mission Critical Operator Beta CompTIA Project+ CompTIA CTT+ Essentials
PT0-001 SK0-004 SY0-501 XK0-004 CAS-002 FC0-U11 FC0-U21 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 FC0-Z51 MC1-001 PK0-004 TK0-201
Certifications
C ompTIA CertificationsC er tification Name
Ex am
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1001
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1002
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-901
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ CompTIA Cloud+ CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Linux+
CAS-003 CLO-001 CLO-002 CS0-001 CV0-002 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ N10-007CompTIA Project+ CompTIA PenTest+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA Linux+
PK0-004 PT0-001 SY0-501 TK0-201 TK0-202 TK0-203 XK0-004
Other IT Certication Roadmap
Adobe
BEGINNER/NOVICE
ACA
INTERMEDIATE
ACI
EXPERT
ACE
Aruba
INTERMEDIATE
ACMP
Cloud Security Alliance
ADVANCED
CCSK
The Cloud School
ADVANCED
CCP
CWNP
INTERMEDIATE
CWNA
CWTS
Citrix
INTERMEDIATE
CCIA
ADVANCED
CCA
EC Council
INTERMEDIATE
CHFI
CEH
GIAC
INTERMEDIATE
GCIH
GISP GSEC
HDI Global
BEGINNER/NOVICE
HDI DST
HDI SCA
INTERMEDIATE
HDI CI
HDI DSM HDI SCM
Hewlett-Packard
EXPERT
ASE/CSE
ISACA
ADVANCED
CISA
EXPRT
CGEIT CISM
ISC 2ADVANCED
CSSLP
EXPERT
CISSP
Checkpoint
CCSA CCSE
Linux Professional Institute
BEGINNER/NOVICE
Linux Essentials
INTERMEDIATE
LPIC-1 Linux Professional
ADVANCED
LPIC-2 Linux Professional
EXPERT
LPIC-3 Linux Professional
Mile2
EXPERT
CPTE
MongoDB University
INTERMEDIATE
MongoDB Certified Developer
Associate
SUSE
INTERMEDIATE
SCA
ADVANCED
SCE
EXPERT
SEA
Novell
ADVANCED
CNE
Office of Government Commerce/Prince2
INTERMEDIATE
Prince2 Foundation
EXPERT
Prince2 Practitioner
PMI
INTERMEDIATE
CAPM
ADVANCED
PMP
Red Hat
INTERMEDIATE
RHCSA
ADVANCED
RHCE
EXPERT
RHCA
Rackspace
INTERMEDIATE
RCT
Scrum Alliance
EXPERT
CSP
Salesforce
INTERMEDIATE
SALESFORCE
Zend
INTERMEDIATE
PHP Certification
ADVANCED
Framework 2 Certification
