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Vendor: Cisco Exam Code: 300-101 Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0) Version: 13.20 Q & As: 723

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QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit. Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct?

A. B. C. D.

There is no default gateway.

The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is 209.168.201.1.

The gateway of last resort is 192.168.201.1.

The router will listen for all multicast traffic.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: The 0.0.0.0/0 route is the default route and is listed as the first CEF entry. Here we see the next hop for this default route lists 192.168.201.1 as the default router (gateway of last resort).

QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the incomplete marking?

A. B. C. D.

incomplete ARP information incorrect ACL dynamic routing protocol failure serial link congestion

Correct Answer: A Explanation: To display information about the Cisco Express Forwarding adjacency table or the hardware Layer 3-switching adjacency table, use the show adjacency command.

Reasons for Incomplete Adjacencies There are two known reasons for an incomplete adjacency: No ARP Entry When CEF cannot locate a valid adjacency for a destination prefix, it punts the packets to the CPU for ARP resolution and, in turn, for completion of the adjacency.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/express-forwarding-cef/17812-cef- incomp.html#t4

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QUESTION 3 A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which condition causes this?

A. B. C. D.

global synchronization tail drop random early detection queue management algorithm

Correct Answer: A Explanation: TCP global synchronization in computer networks can happen to TCP/IP flows during periods of congestion because each sender will reduce their transmission rate at the same time when packet loss occurs.

Routers on the Internet normally have packet queues, to allow them to hold packets when the network is busy, rather than discarding them.

Because routers have limited resources, the size of these queues is also limited. The simplest technique to limit queue size is known as tail drop. The queue is allowed to fill to its maximum size, and then any new packets are simply discarded, until there is space in the queue again.

This causes problems when used on TCP/IP routers handling multiple TCP streams, especially when bursty traffic is present. While the network is stable, the queue is constantly full, and there are no problems except that the full queue results in high latency. However, the introduction of a sudden burst of traffic may cause large numbers of established, steady streams to lose packets simultaneously.

Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/TCP_global_synchronization

QUESTION 4 Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network with no QoS? (Choose three.)

A. B. C. D. E.

starvation jitter latency windowing lower throughput

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation: It is a general best practice not to mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially streaming video) within a single service provider class due to the behaviors of these protocols during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters will throttle-back flows when drops have been detected. Although some UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops and thus never lower transmission rates due to dropping. When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows in a single service provider class and the class experiences congestion, then TCP flows will continually lower their rates, potentially giving up their bandwidth to drop-oblivious UDP flows. This effect is called TCP-starvation/UDP-dominance. This can increase latency and lower the overall throughput.

TCP-starvation/UDP-dominance likely occurs if (TCP-based) mission-critical data is assigned to the same service provider class as (UDP-based) streaming video and the class experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED is enabled on the service provider class, the same behavior would be observed, as WRED (for the most part) only affects TCP-based flows. Granted, it is not Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File

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always possible to separate TCP-based flows from UDP-based flows, but it is beneficial to be aware of this behavior when making such application-mixing decisions.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/cc/so/neso/vpn/vpnsp/spqsd_wp.htm

QUESTION 5 Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?

A. B. C. D.

dual-stack method 6to4 tunneling GRE tunneling NAT-PT

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel. It allows hosts to simultaneously reach IPv4 and IPv6 content, so it offers a very flexible coexistence strategy. For sessions that support IPv6, IPv6 is used on a dual stack endpoint. If both endpoints support IPv4 only, then IPv4 is used.

Benefits: - Native dual stack does not require any tunneling mechanisms on internal networks - Both IPv4 and IPv6 run independent of each other - Dual stack supports gradual migration of endpoints, networks, and applications.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/web/strategy/docs/gov/IPV6at_a_glance_c45-625859.pdf

QUESTION 6 Which statement about the use of tunneling to migrate to IPv6 is true?

A. Tunneling is less secure than dual stack or translation.

B. Tunneling is more difficult to configure than dual stack or translation.

C. Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts.

D. Tunneling destinations are manually determined by the IPv4 address in the low-order 32 bits of IPv4-compatible IPv6 addresses.

Correct Answer: C Explanation: Using the tunneling option, organizations build an overlay network that tunnels one protocol over the other by encapsulating IPv6 packets within IPv4 packets and IPv4 packets within IPv6 packets. The advantage of this approach is that the new protocol can work without disturbing the old protocol, thus providing connectivity between users of the new protocol. Tunneling has two disadvantages, as discussed in RFC 6144: Users of the new architecture cannot use the services of the underlying infrastructure.

Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts, which negates interoperability.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/enterprise-ipv6solution/white_paper_c11-676278.html

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QUESTION 7 A network administrator executes the command clear ip route. Which two tables does this command clear and rebuild? (Choose two.)

A. B. C. D. E. F.

IP routing FIB ARP cache MAC address table Cisco Express Forwarding table topology table

Correct Answer: AB Explanation: To clear one or more entries in the IP routing table, use the following commands in any mode: Command Purpose clear ip route {* | {route | prefix/length}[next-hop interface]} [vrf vrf-name] Example: switch(config)# clear ip route 10.2.2.2 Clears one or more routes from both the unicast RIB and all the module FIBs. The route options are as follows: *--All routes. route--An individual IP route. prefix/length--Any IP prefix. next-hop--The next-hop address interface--The interface to reach the next-hop address.

The vrf-name can be any case-sensitive, alphanumeric string up to 32 characters.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/unicast/5_0_3_N1_1/Ci s co_n5k_layer3_ucast_cfg_rel_503_N1_1/l3_manage-routes.html

QUESTION 8 Which switching method is used when entries are present in the output of the command show ip cache?

A. B. C. D.

fast switching process switching Cisco Express Forwarding switching cut-through packet switching

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Fast switching allows higher throughput by switching a packet using a cache created by the initial packet sent to a particular destination. Destination addresses are stored in the high-speed cache to expedite forwarding. Routers offer better packet-transfer performance when fast switching is enabled. Fast switching is enabled by default on all interfaces that support fast switching. To display the routing table cache used to fast switch IP traffic, use the "show ip cache" EXEC command.

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Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/switch/command/reference/fswtch_r/xrfscmd5.html #wp1038133

QUESTION 9 Which two actions must you perform to enable and use window scaling on a router? (Choose two.)

A. B. C. D. E.

Execute the command ip tcp window-size 65536.

Set window scaling to be used on the remote host.

Execute the command ip tcp queuemax.

Set TCP options to "enabled" on the remote host.

Execute the command ip tcp adjust-mss.

Correct Answer: AB Explanation: The TCP Window Scaling feature adds support for the Window Scaling option in RFC 1323, TCP Extensions for High Performance . A larger window size is recommended to improve TCP performance in network paths with large bandwidth-delay product characteristics that are called Long Fat Networks (LFNs). The TCP Window Scaling enhancement provides that support. The window scaling extension in Cisco IOS software expands the definition of the TCP window to 32 bits and then uses a scale factor to carry this 32-bit value in the 16-bit window field of the TCP header. The window size can increase to a scale factor of 14. Typical applications use a scale factor of 3 when deployed in LFNs. The TCP Window Scaling feature complies with RFC 1323. The larger scalable window size will allow TCP to perform better over LFNs. Use the ip tcp window-size command in global configuration mode to configure the TCP window size. In order for this to work, the remote host must also support this feature and its window size must be increased.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipapp/configuration/12-4t/iap-12-4t-book/iaptcp.html#GUID-BD998AC6-F128-47DD-B5F7-B226546D4B08

QUESTION 10 Which three TCP enhancements can be used with TCP selective acknowledgments? (Choose three.)

A. B. C. D. E. F.

header compression explicit congestion notification keepalive time stamps TCP path discovery MTU window

Correct Answer: BCD Explanation: TCP Selective Acknowledgment The TCP Selective Acknowledgment feature improves performance if multiple packets are lost from one TCP window of data.

Prior to this feature, because of limited information available from cumulative acknowledgments, a TCP sender could learn about only one lost packet per-round-trip time. An aggressive sender could choose to resend packets early, but such re-sent segments might have already been successfully received.

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The TCP selective acknowledgment mechanism helps improve performance. The receiving TCP host returns selective acknowledgment packets to the sender, informing the sender of data that has been received. In other words, the receiver can acknowledge packets received out of order.

The sender can then resend only missing data segments (instead of everything since the first missing packet).

Prior to selective acknowledgment, if TCP lost packets 4 and 7 out of an 8-packet window, TCP would receive acknowledgment of only packets 1, 2, and 3. Packets 4 through 8 would need to be re-sent. With selective acknowledgment, TCP receives acknowledgment of packets 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, and 8. Only packets 4 and 7 must be re-sent.

TCP selective acknowledgment is used only when multiple packets are dropped within one TCP window. There is no performance impact when the feature is enabled but not used. Use the ip tcp selective-ack command in global configuration mode to enable TCP selective acknowledgment.

Refer to RFC 2018 for more details about TCP selective acknowledgment.

TCP Time Stamp The TCP time-stamp option provides improved TCP round-trip time measurements. Because the time stamps are always sent and echoed in both directions and the time-stamp value in the header is always changing, TCP header compression will not compress the outgoing packet. To allow TCP header compression over a serial link, the TCP time-stamp option is disabled. Use the ip tcp timestamp command to enable the TCP time-stamp option.

TCP Explicit Congestion Notification The TCP Explicit Congestion Notification (ECN) feature allows an intermediate router to notify end hosts of impending network congestion. It also provides enhanced support for TCP sessions associated with applications, such as Telnet, web browsing, and transfer of audio and video data that are sensitive to delay or packet loss. The benefit of this feature is the reduction of delay and packet loss in data transmissions. Use the ip tcp ecn command in global configuration mode to enable TCP ECN. TCP Keepalive Timer The TCP Keepalive Timer feature provides a mechanism to identify dead connections. When a TCP connection on a routing device is idle for too long, the device sends a TCP keepalive packet to the peer with only the Acknowledgment (ACK) flag turned on. If a response packet (a TCP ACK packet) is not received after the device sends a specific number of probes, the connection is considered dead and the device initiating the probes frees resources used by the TCP connection.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipapp/configuration/xe-3s/asr1000/iap-xe-3sasr1000-book/iap-tcp.html#GUID-22A82C5F-631F-4390-9838-F2E48FFEEA01

QUESTION 11 A network administrator uses IP SLA to measure UDP performance and notices that packets on one router have a higher one-way delay compared to the opposite direction. Which UDP characteristic does this scenario describe?

A. B. C. D. E.

latency starvation connectionless communication nonsequencing unordered packets jitter

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Cisco IOS IP SLAs provides a proactive notification feature with an SNMP trap. Each measurement operation can monitor against a pre-set performance threshold. Cisco IOS IP SLAs generates an SNMP trap to alert management applications if this threshold is crossed. Several SNMP traps are available: round trip time, average jitter, one-way latency, jitter, packet loss, Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File

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MOS, and connectivity tests.

Here is a partial sample output from the IP SLA statistics that can be seen: router#show ip sla statistics 1 Round Trip Time (RTT) for Index 55 Latest RTT: 1 ms Latest operation start time: *23:43:31.845 UTC Thu Feb 3 2005 Latest operation return code: OK RTT Values: Number Of RTT: 10 RTT Min/Avg/Max: 1/1/1 milliseconds Latency one-way time: Number of Latency one-way Samples: 0 Source to Destination Latency one way Min/Avg/Max: 0/0/0 milliseconds Destination to Source Latency one way Min/Avg/Max: 0/0/0 milliseconds Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/technologies/tk648/tk362/tk920/technologies_white_paper09186a00 8 02d5efe.html

QUESTION 12 Under which condition does UDP dominance occur?

A. B. C. D.

when TCP traffic is in the same class as UDP when UDP flows are assigned a lower priority queue when WRED is enabled when ACLs are in place to block TCP traffic

Correct Answer: A Explanation: Mixing TCP with UDP It is a general best practice to not mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially Streaming-Video) within a single service-provider class because of the behaviors of these protocols during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters throttle back flows when drops are detected. Although some UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops and, thus, never lower transmission rates because of dropping. When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows within a single service-provider class and the class experiences congestion, TCP flows continually lower their transmission rates, potentially giving up their bandwidth to UDP flows that are oblivious to drops. This effect is called TCP starvation/UDP dominance.

TCP starvation/UDP dominance likely occurs if (TCP-based) Mission-Critical Data is assigned to the same service-provider class as (UDP-based) Streaming-Video and the class experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED is enabled on the service-provider class, the same behavior would be observed because WRED (for the most part) manages congestion only on TCP-based flows.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/WAN_and_MAN/QoS_SRND/QoSSRND-Book/VPNQoS.html

QUESTION 13 Prior to enabling PPPoE in a virtual private dialup network group, which task must be completed?

A. B. C. D.

Disable CDP on the interface.

Execute the vpdn enable command.

Execute the no switchport command.

Enable QoS FIFO for PPPoE support.

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Explanation: Enabling PPPoE in a VPDN Group Perform this task to enable PPPoE in a virtual private dial-up network (VPDN) group.

Restrictions This task applies only to releases prior to Cisco IOS Release 12.2(13)T. SUMMARY STEPS 1. enable 2. configure terminal 3. vpdn enable 4. vpdn-group name 5. request-dialin 6. protocol pppoe DETAILED STEPS Command or Action Step 1 enable Example: Router> enable Enables privileged EXEC mode.

Enter your password if prompted.

Step 2 configure terminal Example: Router# configure terminal Enters global configuration mode.

Step 3 vpdn enable Example: Router(config)# vpdn enable Enables virtual private dialup networking.

Step 4 vpdn-group name Example: Router(config)# vpdn-group group1 Associates a VPDN group with a customer or VPDN profile.

Step 5 request-dialin Example: Router(config-vpdn)# request-dialin Creates a request-dialin VPDN subgroup.

Step 6 protocol pppoe Example: Router(config-vpdn-req-in)# protocol pppoe Enables the VPDN subgroup to establish PPPoE Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2t/12_2t2/feature/guide/ftpppoec_support_TSD_Island_ o f_Content_Chapter.html

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QUESTION 14 A network engineer has been asked to ensure that the PPPoE connection is established and authenticated using an encrypted password. Which technology, in combination with PPPoE, can be used for authentication in this manner?

A. B. C. D. E.

PAP dot1x IPsec CHAP ESP

Correct Answer: D Explanation: With PPPoE, the two authentication options are PAP and CHAP. When CHAP is enabled on an interface and a remote device attempts to connect to it, the access server sends a CHAP packet to the remote device. The CHAP packet requests or "challenges" the remote device to respond.

The challenge packet consists of an ID, a random number, and the host name of the local router.

When the remote device receives the challenge packet, it concatenates the ID, the remote device's password, and the random number, and then encrypts all of it using the remote device's password. The remote device sends the results back to the access server, along with the name associated with the password used in the encryption process. When the access server receives the response, it uses the name it received to retrieve a password stored in its user database. The retrieved password should be the same password the remote device used in its encryption process. The access server then encrypts the concatenated information with the newly retrieved password--if the result matches the result sent in the response packet, authentication succeeds.

The benefit of using CHAP authentication is that the remote device's password is never transmitted in clear text (encrypted). This prevents other devices from stealing it and gaining illegal access to the ISP's network.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/security/configuration/guide/fsecur_c/scfathen.html

QUESTION 15 A corporate policy requires PPPoE to be enabled and to maintain a connection with the ISP, even if no interesting traffic exists. Which feature can be used to accomplish this task?

A. B. C. D. E.

TCP Adjust Dialer Persistent PPPoE Groups half-bridging Peer Neighbor Route

Correct Answer: B Explanation: A new interface configuration command, dialer persistent, allows a dial-on-demand routing (DDR) dialer profile connection to be brought up without being triggered by interesting traffic. When configured, the dialer persistent command starts a timer when the dialer interface starts up and starts the connection when the timer expires. If interesting traffic arrives before the timer expires, the connection is still brought up and set as persistent. The command provides a default timer interval, or you can set a custom timer interval. To configure a dialer interface as persistent, use the following commands beginning in global configuration mode: Command Purpose Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File

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Step 1 Router(config)# interface dialer number Creates a dialer interface and enters interface configuration mode.

Step 2 Router(config-if)# ip address address mask Specifies the IP address and mask of the dialer interface as a node in the destination network to be called.

Step 3 Router(config-if)# encapsulation type Specifies the encapsulation type.

Step 4 Router(config-if)# dialer string dial-string class class-name Specifies the remote destination to call and the map class that defines characteristics for calls to this destination.

Step 5 Router(config-if)# dialer pool number Specifies the dialing pool to use for calls to this destination.

Step 6 Router(config-if)# dialer-group group-number Assigns the dialer interface to a dialer group.

Step 7 Router(config-if)# dialer-list dialer-group protocol protocol-name {permit | deny | list access-listnumber} Specifies an access list by list number or by protocol and list number to define the interesting packets that can trigger a call.

Step 8 Router(config-if)# dialer remote-name user-name (Optional) Specifies the authentication name of the remote router on the destination subnetwork for a dialer interface.

Step 9 Router(config-if)# dialer persistent [delay [initial] seconds | max-attempts number] Forces a dialer interface to be connected at all times, even in the absence of interesting traffic.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/dial/configuration/guide/12_4t/dia_12_4t_book/dia_diale r _persist.html

QUESTION 16 Which PPP authentication method sends authentication information in clear text?

A. B. C. D.

MS CHAP CDPCP CHAP PAP

Correct Answer: D Explanation: PAP authentication involves a two-way handshake where the username and password are sent across the link in clear text; hence, PAP authentication does not provide any protection against playback and line sniffing.

CHAP authentication, on the other hand, periodically verifies the identity of the remote node using a three-way handshake. After the PPP link is established, the host sends a "challenge" message to the remote node. The remote node responds with a value calculated using a one-way hash function. The host checks the response against its own calculation of the expected hash value. If Guaranteed Success with EnsurePass VCE Software & PDF File

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CCNP Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH v2.0)

300-115

CCNP Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)

300-135

CCIE Routing and Switching Written

400-101

ICND Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2

200-105

Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies

200-155

CCNA Wireless Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals

200-355

CCNA Collaboration Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices (CICD)

210-060

CCNA Collaboration Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices (CIVND)

210-065

CCNP Security Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions (SENSS)

300-206

CCNP Security Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions (SISAS)

300-208

CCNP Security Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions (SIMOS)

300-209

CCNP Security Implementing Cisco Threat Control Solutions

300-210

Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures

300-320

CCIE Security Written Exam

400-251

Adopting The Cisco Business Architecture Approach

810-440

Applying Cisco Business Architecture Techniques

820-445

Cisco Customer Success Manager Specialist

820-602

Mastering The Cisco Business Architecture Discipline

840-450

Certifications C isco Certifications Certification CCENT

Exam

Certification

100-105

Exam 400-051

CCIE Collaboration CCNA

200-301

100-105

300-701 CCNP Security,

300-835

DevNet Specialist

CCNA Routing & Switching

400-251

300-801

DevNet Professional,

Exam

CCIE Security

CCNP Collaboration, 200-125

Certification

DevNet Professional,

300-735

DevNet Specialist 200-150

CCNA Data Center

640-875 CCNA Service Provider

200-105

200-155

640-878

300-101

300-160

300-501

300-115

300-165

300-510

300-135

300-170

300-515

CCIE Routing and Switching

400-101

300-175

Cisco Certified DevNet Associate

200-901

300-180

642-885

300-601

642-887 642-889

CCNP Routing & Switching

300-901

CCNP Service Provide

642-883

CCNP Data Center DevNet Professional,

300-910

300-610

DevNet Specialist

300-915

300-615

300-920

300-620

400-201 CCIE Service Provider 300-501 CCNP Service Provider,

300-401

300-625

DevNet Professional,

300-535

DevNet Specialist 300-410 CCNP Enterprise

400-151

CCNA Wireless

200-355

CCIE Data Center 300-415 300-420

300-601 CCNP Data Center,

300-360

300-635

300-365 CCNP Wireless

300-425 300-430

300-370

300-101

300-375

CCDP

CCNP Enterprise, DevNet Professional

300-320

300-435

300-115

CCIE Wireless

400-351

DevNet Specialist CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure

300-401

CCDE

352-001

CCT Data Center

010-151

CCIE Enterprise Wireless

300-401

CCNA Industrial

200-601

CCT Routing & Switching

640-692

210-451

CCNA Security

210-260

Business Architecture Analyst

810-440

210-455

300-206

Business Architecture Specialist

820-445

300-460

300-208

Business Architecture Practitioner

840-450

300-465

300-209

Customer Success Manager Specialist

820-602

300-470

300-210

300-070

300-475

300-701

300-075

210-060

300-710

300-080

210-065

300-715

CCNA Cloud

CCNP Cloud

CCNP Security CCNA Collaboration 300-085 CCNA Collaboration 210-250

300-720

300-801

210-255

300-725

300-810

200-310

300-730

300-815

CCNA Cyber Ops

CCDA

300-820

Exams Microsoft Exams Title

Exam

Designing and Deploying Microsoft Exchange Server 2016

70-345

Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012

70-410

Administering Windows Server 2012

70-411

Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services

70-412

MCSA Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014

70-461

MCSA Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases

70-462

MCSD Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3

70-480

MCSD Programming in C#

70-483

MCSD Developing ASP.NET MVC Web Applications

70-486

MCSD Developing Windows Azure and Web Services

70-487

Configuring and Operating a Hybrid Cloud with Microsoft Azure Stack

70-537

Administering Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager and Cloud Services Integration

70-703

Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016

70-740

MCSA Networking with Windows Server 2016

70-741

Identity with Windows Server 2016

70-742

Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016

70-743

Securing Windows Server 2016

70-744

Developing SQL Databases

70-762

Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure

70-764

Implementing a SQL Data Warehouse

70-767

Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Power BI

70-778

Word 2016: Core Document Creation, Collaboration and Communication

77-725

Excel 2016: Core Data Analysis, Manipulation, and Presentation

77-727

Windows Server Administration Fundamentals

98-365

Security Fundamentals

98-367

Introduction to Programming Using Python

98-381

Designing and Implementing an Azure AI Solution

AI-100

Microsoft Azure Administrator

AZ-103

Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure

AZ-203

Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies

AZ-300

Microsoft Azure Architect Design

AZ-301

Microsoft Azure DevOps Solutions

AZ-400

Microsoft Azure Security Technologies

AZ-500

Microsoft Azure Fundamentals

AZ-900

Designing an Azure Data Solution

DP-201

Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement Core (beta)

MB-200

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Sales

MB-210

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing

MB-220

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service (beta)

MB-240

Microsoft Dynamics 365 Unified Operations Core (beta)

MB-300

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials

MB-310

Exams Title

Exam

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing

MB-320

MB-330: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management (beta)

MB-330

Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

MB-900

Development, Extensions and Deployment for Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations

MB6-894

Windows 10

MD-100

Managing Modern Desktops

MD-101

Microsoft 365 Identity and Services

MS-100

Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security

MS-101

Planning and Configuring a Messaging Platform (beta)

MS-200

Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform

MS-201

Microsoft 365 Messaging Administrator Certification Transition

MS-202

Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork

MS-300

Microsoft 365 Teamwork Administrator Certification Transition (beta)

MS-302

Microsoft 365 Security Administration

MS-500

Microsoft 365 Fundamentals

MS-900

Technology Literacy for Educators

62-193

Deploying Enterprise Voice with Skype for Business 2015

70-333

Core Solutions of Microsoft Skype for Business 2015

70-334

Managing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2016

70-339

Managing Projects with Microsoft Project

70-343

Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM

70-348

Developing Mobile Apps

70-357

MCSE Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure

70-413

MCSE Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure

70-414

Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012

70-417

MCSA Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014

70-463

Developing Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases

70-464

Designing Database Solutions for Microsoft SQL Server 2012

70-465

Implementing Data Models and Reports with Microsoft SQL Server 2012

70-466

Designing Business Intelligence Solutions with Microsoft SQL Server 2012

70-467

Designing and Providing Microsoft Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations

70-705

Software Asset Management (SAM) – Core

70-713

OEM Manufacturing and Deployment for Windows 10

70-735

Implementing a Software-Defined Datacenter

70-745

Querying Data with Transact-SQL

70-761

Provisioning SQL Databases

70-765

Developing SQL Data Models

70-768

Implementing Microsoft Azure Cosmos DB Solutions

70-777

Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel

70-779

OEM Preinstallation

74-697

Exams Title

Exam

Windows Operating System Fundamentals

98-349

Software Development Fundamentals

98-361

Database Fundamentals

98-364

Networking Fundamentals

98-366

Mobility and Devices Fundamentals

98-368

Cloud Fundamentals

98-369

HTML5 App Development Fundamentals

98-375

Introduction to Programming Using Block-Based Languages (Touch Develop)

98-380

Introduction to Programming Using JavaScript

98-382

Introduction to Programming Using HTML and CSS

98-383

Introduction to Programming Using Java

98-388

Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure (beta)

DP-100

Implementing an Azure Data Solution

DP-200

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service

MB-230

Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online Deployment

MB2-706

Microsoft Dynamics CRM Customization and Configuration

MB2-707

Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation

MB2-708

Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Online Deployment

MB2-710

Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Installation

MB2-711

Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customization and Configuration

MB2-712

Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Sales

MB2-713

Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customer Service

MB2-714

Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration

MB2-716

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service

MB2-718

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing

MB2-719

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service

MB2-877

Financial Management in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations

MB6-895

Distribution and Trade in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations

MB6-896

Microsofr Dynamics 365 for Retail

MB6-897

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Talent

MB6-898

Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid

MS-301

Certifications Microsoft Certifications Certification Name

Exam

Certification Name

Exam

Azure Security Engineer Associate

AZ-500

Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

MB-900

70-357

MB-200

70-480

Dynamics 365 for Marketing Functional Consultant Associate

MB-220 Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate

Universal Windows Platform

Web Applications

70-483

70-483

MB-200

70-486

MB-240

70-410

Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials Functional

MB-300

Consultant Associate

MB-310

70-412

Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing Functional

MB-300

70-740

Consultant Associate

MB-320

Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management

MB-300

70-742

Functional Consultant Associate

MB-330

MB2-716

Microsoft 365 Certified Fundamentals

MS-900

MB2-718

MS-200

MB2-719

Messaging Administrator Associate

Modern Desktop Administrator Associate Security Administrator Associate

Teamwork Administrator Associate

MS-201

Windows Server 2012

Windows Server 2016

Business Applications

70-411

70-741

MB6-895

MS-202

MB6-896

MD-100

MB6-897

MD-101

MB6-898

MS-500

70-744

MS-300

70-745

MS-301

Core Infrastructure

70-413

MS-302

70-414

Azure Administrator Associate

AZ-103

70-537

Azure AI Engineer Associate

AI-100

70-464

DP-200

70-465

DP-201

70-466

Azure Data Engineer Associate

Azure Data Scientist Associate Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate

Azure Developer Associate Azure Solutions Architect Expert

Azure DevOps Engineer Expert Enterprise Administrator Expert

Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate

DP-100

Data Management and

70-467

MB-200

Analytics

70-762

MB-210

70-767

AZ-203

70-768

AZ-300

70-777

AZ-301

70-345

AZ-400

MCSE Productivity Solutions

70-339

MS-100

Expert

70-333

MS-101

70-334

MB-200

70-357

MB-230 Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals

AZ-900

MCSD Exams Dumps

70-486 70-487

Certifications Certification Name Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate

BI Reporting

Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations

Exam

SQL 2016 Database Administration

SQL 2016 Database Development

SQL Server 2012/2014

Exam

MB-200

98-349

MB-210

98-350

70-778

98-351

70-779

98-352

70-764

98-353

70-765

98-354

MB6-894 SQL 2016 BI Development

Certification Name

MTA Exams Dumps

98-355

70-767

98-356

70-768

98-357

70-764

98-358

70-765

98-359

70-761

98-360

70-762

98-361

70-461

98-362

70-462 70-463

Exams CompTIA Exams Title

Exam

CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1

220-1001

CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2

220-1002

CompTIA A+ (220-901)

220-901

CompTIA A+ (220-902)

220-902

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003

CAS-003

CompTIA Cloud Essentials

CLO-001

CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam

CS0-001

CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002)

CV0-002

CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 1

LX0-103

CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 2

LX0-104

CompTIA Network+ 2018

N10-007

CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam

PT0-001

CompTIA Server+

SK0-004

CompTIA Security+

SY0-501

CompTIA Linux+

XK0-004

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP)

CAS-002

CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality

FC0-U11

CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology

FC0-U21

CompTIA IT Fundamentals

FC0-U51

CompTIA IT Fundamentals

FC0-U61

CompTIA IT Fundamentals

FC0-Z51

Cleveland Community College Certified Mission Critical Operator Beta

MC1-001

CompTIA Project+

PK0-004

CompTIA CTT+ Essentials

TK0-201

Certifications C om pTIA Certifications C er tification Name

Ex am

CompTIA A+ 2019

220-1001

CompTIA A+ 2019

220-1002

CompTIA A+ 2019

220-901

CompTIA A+ 2019

220-902

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner

CAS-003

CompTIA Cloud Essentials

CLO-001

CompTIA Cloud Essentials

CLO-002

CompTIA CySA+

CS0-001

CompTIA Cloud+

CV0-002

CompTIA IT Fundamentals

FC0-U51

CompTIA IT Fundamentals

FC0-U61

CompTIA Linux+

LX0-103

CompTIA Linux+

LX0-104

CompTIA Network+

N10-007

CompTIA Project+

PK0-004

CompTIA PenTest+

PT0-001

CompTIA Security+

SY0-501

CompTIA CTT+

TK0-201

CompTIA CTT+

TK0-202

CompTIA CTT+

TK0-203

CompTIA Linux+

XK0-004

Other IT Certication Roadmap Adobe

Hewlett-Packard

Novell

BEGINNER/NOVICE

EXPERT

ADVANCED

ACA

ASE/CSE

CNE

ACI

ISACA

EXPERT

ADVANCED

ACE

CISA

Office of Government Commerce/Prince2

INTERMEDIATE

EXPRT

Aruba INTERMEDIATE

CGEIT CISM

ACMP

Cloud Security Alliance ADVANCED

CCSK

The Cloud School

INTERMEDIATE

Prince2 Foundation EXPERT

Prince2 Practitioner

PMI ISC2 ADVANCED

CSSLP

INTERMEDIATE

CAPM ADVANCED

PMP

EXPERT

CISSP

ADVANCED

Red Hat INTERMEDIATE

CCP

Checkpoint

RHCSA

CWNP

CCSA CCSE

RHCE

INTERMEDIATE

CWNA CWTS

ADVANCED EXPERT

RHCA

Linux Professional Institute

Rackspace

BEGINNER/NOVICE

INTERMEDIATE

CCIA

Linux Essentials

RCT

ADVANCED

INTERMEDIATE

CCA

LPIC-1 Linux Professional

Citrix INTERMEDIATE

EC Council INTERMEDIATE

CHFI CEH

GIAC INTERMEDIATE

GCIH GISP GSEC

ADVANCED

Scrum Alliance

LPIC-2 Linux Professional

EXPERT

EXPERT

CSP

LPIC-3 Linux Professional

Mile2 EXPERT

BEGINNER/NOVICE

HDI DST HDI SCA

INTERMEDIATE

SALESFORCE

CPTE

MongoDB University INTERMEDIATE

HDI Global

Salesforce

MongoDB Certified Developer Associate

SUSE INTERMEDIATE

INTERMEDIATE

SCA

HDI CI HDI DSM HDI SCM

SCE

ADVANCED EXPERT

SEA

Zend INTERMEDIATE

PHP Certification ADVANCED

Framework 2 Certification