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EnsurePass 300-135 Exam Real Dumps Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT)
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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IPNetworks (TSHOOT)
Version: 13.10
Q & As: 186
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QUESTION 1 A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers. B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers. C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters. D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms. E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB. F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 2 When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked?
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command. D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead?
A. 3DES B. multipoint GRE C. tunnel D. transport
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit. How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)?
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth. D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building siteto-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 6 Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set. B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode. C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process. D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
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Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 You enabled CDP on two Cisco Routers which are connected to each other. The Line and Protocol status for the interfaces on both routers show as UP but the routers do not see each other a CDP neighbors. Which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?
A. Physical B. Session C. Application D. Data-Link E. Network
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 FCAPS is a network maintenance model defined by ISO. It stands for which of the following?
A. Fault Management B. Action Management C. Configuration Management D. Protocol Management E. Security Management
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 9 Which three management categories are contained in the FCAPS network maintenance model? (Choose three.)
A. Config B. Fault C. Storage D. Accounting E. Redundancy F. Telecommunications
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 10 What is the result of configuring the logging console warning command?
A. Messages with a severity level of 4 and higher will be logged to all available TTY lines. B. Only warning messages will be logged on the console. C. Warning, error, critical, and informational messages will be logged on the console. D. Warning, critical, alert, and emergency messages will be logged on the console. E. The logging console warning command needs to be followed in the configuration with logging buffered byte size to specify the message buffer size for the console.
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Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message. C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode. D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3. E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Refer to the configuration statements shown in the graphic above.
R1(config)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 host 172.16.1.1 R1(config)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 172.16.1.1 host 10.1.1.1 R1(config)#end R1#debug ip packet 199 detail
Which statement reflects what the effect is of this configuration sequence?
A. These commands will generate an error message because you cannot use an access list with any debug commands.
B. These commands will have no effect at all. The debug ip packet command will work as normal and display info for all IP packets.
C. These commands turn on debug ip packet only for packets between hosts 10.1.1.1 and
172.16.1.1. D. These commands will only work when you specify only one host rather than two.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?
A. Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter. B. The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C. The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
D. The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 14 A technician is troubleshooting connectivity problems between two routers that are directly connected through a serial line. The technician notices that the serial line is up, but cannot see any neighbors displayed in the output of the show cdp neighbors command. In which OSI layer is the problem most likely occurring?
A. physical B. data link C. network D. transport E. application
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15 What are two approaches to maintaining a network? (Choose two.)
A. PPDIOO B. structured C. bottoms up D. interrupt-driven
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 16 Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two)
A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 17 At which layer of the OSI model does the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) operate at?
A. Layer 5 B. Layer 4 C. Layer 3 D. Layer 2 E. Layer 1
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 18 In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing?
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19 EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol on the Company network. While troubleshooting some network connectivity issues, you notice a large number of EIGRP SIA (Stuck in Active) messages. What causes these SIA routes? (Select two)
A. The neighboring router stops receiving ACK packets from this router. B. The neighboring router starts receiving route updates from this router.
C. The neighboring router is too busy to answer the query (generally caused by high CPU utilization).
D. The neighboring router is having memory problems and cannot allocate the memory to process the query or build the reply packet.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 20 You want to enhance the security within the Company LAN and prevent VLAN hopping. What two steps can be taken to help prevent this? (Select two)
A. Enable BPD guard B. Disable CDP on ports where it is not necessary C. Place unused ports in a common unrouted VLAN D. Prevent automatic trunk configuration E. Implement port security
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 21 The following commands are issued on a Cisco Router:
Router(configuration)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 host 172.16.1.1 Router(configuration)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 172.16.1.1 host 10.1.1.1 Router(configuration)#exit Router#debug ip packet 199
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What will the debug output on the console show?
A. All IP packets passing through the router B. Only IP packets with the source address of 10.1.1.1 C. All IP packets from 10.1.1.1 to 172.16.1.1 D. All IP Packets between 10.1.1.1 and 172.16.1.1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22 What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen?
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
A. alerts B. critical C. errors D. notifications
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23 You have the followings commands on your Cisco Router:
ip ftp username admin ip ftp password backup
You have been asked to switch from FTP to HTTP. Which two commands will you use to replace the existing commands?
A. ip http username admin B. ip http client username admin C. ip http password backup D. ip http client password backup E. ip http server username admin F. ip http server password backup
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 24 You have 2 NTP servers in your network - 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1 ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1 ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
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ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25 The following command is issued on a Cisco Router:
Router(configuration)#logging console warningsWhich alerts will be seen on the console?
A. Warnings only B. debugging, informational, notifications, warnings C. warnings, errors, critical, alerts, emergencies D. notifications, warnings, errors E. warnings, errors, critical, alerts
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26 Which two of the following options are categories of Network Maintenance tasks?
A. Firefighting B. Interrupt-driven C. Policy-based D. Structured E. Foundational
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 27 Refer to the Exhibit. Which output is expected in the blank line for the OSPF adjacency process?
A. DOWN B. EXSTART
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C. EXCHANGE D. LOADING
Correct Answer: B Explanation: You can check the output of "debug ip ospf adj" here:
QUESTION 28 You are troubleshooting an issue with a GRE tunnel between R1 and R2 and find that routing is OK on all intermediary routers. The tunnel is up on R1, but down on R2. Which two possible issues can prevent the tunnel from coming up? (Choose Two)
A. The tunnel does not come up unless traffic is sent through it. B. The tunnel source interface is down on R2. C. No specific route interface is down on R2. D. R2 does not know how to reach the tunnel destination. E. The tunnel keep alive timer doesn't match on R1 and R2.
Correct Answer: BD Explanation: Four Different Tunnel States There are four possible states in which a GRE tunnel interface can be:
1. Up/up - This implies that the tunnel is fully functional and passes traffic. It is both adminstratively up and it's protocol is up as well. 2. Adminstratively down/down - This implies that the interface has been administratively shut down. 3. Up/down - This implies that, even though the tunnel is administratively up, something causes the line protocol on the interface to be down. 4. Reset/down - This is usually a transient state when the tunnel is reset by software. This usually happens when the tunnel is misconfigured with a Next Hop Server (NHS) that is it's own IP address.
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When a tunnel interface is first created and no other configuration is applied to it, the interface is not shut by default:
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70-465
Implementing Data Models and Reports with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-466
Designing Business Intelligence Solutions with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-467
Designing and Providing Microsoft Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations
70-705
Software Asset Management (SAM) – Core
70-713
OEM Manufacturing and Deployment for Windows 10
70-735
Implementing a Software-Defined Datacenter
70-745
Querying Data with Transact-SQL
70-761
Provisioning SQL Databases
70-765
Developing SQL Data Models
70-768
Implementing Microsoft Azure Cosmos DB Solutions
70-777
Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel
70-779
OEM Preinstallation
74-697
Exams
TitleExam
Windows Operating System Fundamentals
98-349
Software Development Fundamentals
98-361
Database Fundamentals
98-364
Networking Fundamentals
98-366
Mobility and Devices Fundamentals
98-368
Cloud Fundamentals
98-369
HTML5 App Development Fundamentals
98-375
Introduction to Programming Using Block-Based Languages (Touch Develop)
98-380
Introduction to Programming Using JavaScript
98-382
Introduction to Programming Using HTML and CSS
98-383
Introduction to Programming Using Java
98-388
Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure (beta) Implementing an Azure Data Solution Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Sales Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service Financial Management in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Distribution and Trade in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Microsofr Dynamics 365 for Retail Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Talent Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid
DP-100 DP-200 MB-230 MB2-706 MB2-707 MB2-708 MB2-710 MB2-711 MB2-712 MB2-713 MB2-714 MB2-716 MB2-718 MB2-719 MB2-877 MB6-895 MB6-896 MB6-897 MB6-898 MS-301
Certifications
Microsoft Certifications
Certification Name
Exam
Certification Name
Exam
Azure Security Engineer Associate
AZ-500
70-483
Universal Windows Platform
Dynamics 365 Fundamentals
MB-900
70-357
Dynamics 365 for Marketing Functional Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200
70-480
MB-220
Web Applications
70-483
MB-200
70-486
MB-240
70-410
MB-300
Windows Server 2012
70-411
MB-310
70-412
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing FunctionalMB-300
70-740
Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management
MB-320 Windows Server 2016
70-741
MB-300 70-742
Functional Consultant AssociateMB-330
MB2-716Microsoft 365 Certified Fundamentals MS-900 MB2-718
MS-200
MB2-719Messaging Administrator Associate
MS-201Business Applications
MB6-895MS-202
MB6-896Modern Desktop Administrator Associate
MD-100
MD-101
MB6-897
MB6-898
Security Administrator Associate
MS-50070-744
MS-300 70-745
Teamwork Administrator AssociateMS-301 Core Infrastructure
70-413
MS-302 70-414Azure Administrator Associate AZ-103 70-537
Azure AI Engineer AssociateAI-100
70-464
Azure Data Engineer Associate
DP-200 70-465
DP-201 70-466Azure Data Scientist Associate DP-100 Data Management and 70-467
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200 Analytics
70-762
MB-210 70-767Azure Developer Associate AZ-203 70-768
Azure Solutions Architect Expert
AZ-300 70-777
AZ-301
70-345Azure DevOps Engineer Expert AZ-400 MCSE Productivity Solutions 70-339
Enterprise Administrator Expert
Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate
MS-100
Expert
70-333
MS-101
70-334
MB-200
70-357
MB-230
MCSD Exams Dumps
70-486
Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals AZ-900 70-487
Certifications
Certification Name Exam Certification Name Exam
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
BI Reporting
MB-200
98-349
MB-210
98-350
70-778
98-351
70-779
98-352
70-764 98-353
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations
SQL 2016 BI Development
SQL 2016 Database Administration
SQL 2016 Database Development
70-765
98-354
MB6-894
98-355
MTA Exams Dumps
70-767
98-356
70-768
98-357
70-764
98-358
70-765
98-359
70-761
98-360
70-762
98-361
70-461 98-362
SQL Server 2012/2014
70-462
70-463
Exams
CompTIA ExamsTitle
Exam
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1
220-1001
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2
220-1002
CompTIA A+ (220-901)
220-901
CompTIA A+ (220-902)
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003 CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002) CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 1 CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 2
CAS-003 CLO-001 CS0-001 CV0-002 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ 2018 N10-007CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam CompTIA Server+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals Cleveland Community College Certified Mission Critical Operator Beta CompTIA Project+ CompTIA CTT+ Essentials
PT0-001 SK0-004 SY0-501 XK0-004 CAS-002 FC0-U11 FC0-U21 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 FC0-Z51 MC1-001 PK0-004 TK0-201
Certifications
C ompTIA CertificationsC er tification Name
Ex am
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1001
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1002
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-901
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ CompTIA Cloud+ CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Linux+
CAS-003 CLO-001 CLO-002 CS0-001 CV0-002 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ N10-007CompTIA Project+ CompTIA PenTest+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA Linux+
PK0-004 PT0-001 SY0-501 TK0-201 TK0-202 TK0-203 XK0-004
Other IT Certication Roadmap
Adobe
BEGINNER/NOVICE
ACA
INTERMEDIATE
ACI
EXPERT
ACE
Aruba
INTERMEDIATE
ACMP
Cloud Security Alliance
ADVANCED
CCSK
The Cloud School
ADVANCED
CCP
CWNP
INTERMEDIATE
CWNA
CWTS
Citrix
INTERMEDIATE
CCIA
ADVANCED
CCA
EC Council
INTERMEDIATE
CHFI
CEH
GIAC
INTERMEDIATE
GCIH
GISP GSEC
HDI Global
BEGINNER/NOVICE
HDI DST
HDI SCA
INTERMEDIATE
HDI CI
HDI DSM HDI SCM
Hewlett-Packard
EXPERT
ASE/CSE
ISACA
ADVANCED
CISA
EXPRT
CGEIT CISM
ISC 2ADVANCED
CSSLP
EXPERT
CISSP
Checkpoint
CCSA CCSE
Linux Professional Institute
BEGINNER/NOVICE
Linux Essentials
INTERMEDIATE
LPIC-1 Linux Professional
ADVANCED
LPIC-2 Linux Professional
EXPERT
LPIC-3 Linux Professional
Mile2
EXPERT
CPTE
MongoDB University
INTERMEDIATE
MongoDB Certified Developer
Associate
SUSE
INTERMEDIATE
SCA
ADVANCED
SCE
EXPERT
SEA
Novell
ADVANCED
CNE
Office of Government Commerce/Prince2
INTERMEDIATE
Prince2 Foundation
EXPERT
Prince2 Practitioner
PMI
INTERMEDIATE
CAPM
ADVANCED
PMP
Red Hat
INTERMEDIATE
RHCSA
ADVANCED
RHCE
EXPERT
RHCA
Rackspace
INTERMEDIATE
RCT
Scrum Alliance
EXPERT
CSP
Salesforce
INTERMEDIATE
SALESFORCE
Zend
INTERMEDIATE
PHP Certification
ADVANCED
Framework 2 Certification
