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EnsurePass 300-210 Exam Real Dumps Implementing Cisco Threat Control Solutions (SITCS)
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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-210
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Threat Control Solutions(SITCS)
Version: 13.05
Q & As: 331
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QUESTION 1 Which Cisco Advanced Malware protection for Endpoints deployment architecture is designed to keep data within a network perimeter?
A. cloud web services B. network AMP C. private cloud D. public cloud
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which CLI command is used to generate firewall debug messages on a Cisco FirePOWER sensor?
A. system support ssl-debug B. system support firewall-engine-debug C. system support capture-traffic D. system support platform
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which type of policy do you configure if you want to look for a combination of events using Boolean logic?
A. correlation B. application detector C. traffic profile D. access control E. intrusion
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 In which two places can thresholding settings be configured? (Choose two.)
A. globally, per intrusion policy B. globally, within the network analysis policy C. on each access control rule D. on each IPS rule E. per preprocessor, within the network analysis policy
Correct Answer: CD
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QUESTION 5 Which SSL traffic decryption feature is used when decrypting traffic from an external host to a server on your network?
A. Decrypt by stripping the server certificate. B. Decrypt by resigning the server certificate C. Decrypt with a known private key D. Decypt with a known public key
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Which object can be used on a Cisco FirePOWER appliance, but not in an access control policy rule on Cisco FirePOWER services running on a Cisco ASA?
A. URL B. security intelligence C. VLAN D. geolocation
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 A system administrator wants to know if the email traffic from a remote partner will active special treatment message filters that are created just for them. Which tool on the Cisco Email Security gateway can you use to debug and emulate the flow that a message takes through the work queue?
A. the trace tool B. centralized or local message tracking C. the CLI findevent command D. the CLI grep command E. the message tracker interface
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which two routing options are valid with cisco firePOWER threat Defense version 6.0? (Choose two)
A. ECMP with up to three equal cost paths across multiple interfaces B. BGPv6 C. BGPv4 with nonstop forwarding D. BGPv4 unicast address family E. ECMP with up to four equal cost paths
Correct Answer: AD
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QUESTION 9 Which two options are the basic parts of a Snort rule? (Choose two)
A. rule policy B. rule header C. Rule assignment and ports D. rule options E. Rule footer
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 10 With Firepower Threat Defense, which two interface settings are required when configuring a routed interface? (Choose two.)
A. Speed B. Duplex C. Media Type D. Redundant Interface E. EtherChannel
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11 Which two appliances support logical routed interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. FirePOWER services for ASA-5500-X B. FP-4100-series C. FP-8000-series D. FP-7000-series E. FP-9300-series
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 An engineer is configuring a Cisco Email Security Appliance (ESA) and chooses "Preferred" as the settings for TLS on a HAT Mail Flow Policy. Which result occurs?.
A. TLS is allowed for outgoing connections to MTAs. Connection to the listener require encrypted Simple Mail Transfer Protocol conversations
B. TLS is allowed for incoming connections to the listener from MTAs, even after a STARTTLS command received
C. TLS is allowed for incoming connections to the listener from MTAs. Until a STARTTLS command received, the ESA responds with an error message to every command other than No Option, EHLO, or QUIT.
D. TLS is allowed for outgoing connections to the listener from MTAs. Until a STARTTLS command received, the ESA responds with an error message to every command other than No Option (NOOP), EHLO, or QUIT.
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 13 What is difference between a Cisco Content Security Management virtual appliance and a physical appliance?
A. Migration between virtual appliance of varying sizes is possible, but physical appliances must be of equal size.
B. The virtual appliance requires an additional license to run on a host. C. The virtual appliance requires an additional license to activate its adapters. D. The physical appliance is configured with a DHCP-enabled management port to receive an IP Address automatically, but you must assign the virtual appliance an IP address manually in your management subnet.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14 Which two ports does the ISR G2 connector for CWS support redirection of HTTP traffic? (Choose two)
A. TCP port 65535 B. UDP port 8080 C. TCP port 88 D. TCP port 80 E. UDP port 80
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 15 Which policy must you edit to make changes to the Snort preprocessors?
A. access control policy B. network discovery policy C. intrusion policy D. file policy E. network analysis policy
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16 Access the configuration of the Cisco Email Security Appliance using the MailFlowPolicies tab. Within the GUI, you can navigate between the Host Access Table Overview and Mail Flow Policies tables. You can also navigate to the individual Mail Flow Policies and Sender Groups that are configured on the appliance. Consider the configuration and the SenderBase Reputation Scores of the following fictitious domains when answering the four multiple choice questions.
A. red.public, -6 B. orange.public, -4 C. yellow.public, -2 D. green. .public, 2 E. blue.public, 6 F. violet.public, 8
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Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17 Which Cisco FirePOWER setting is used to reduce the number of events received in a period of time and avoid being overwhelmed?
A. thresholding B. rate-limiting C. limiting D. correlation
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18 Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
A. network discovery B. correlation C. intrusion D. access control
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19 Which two TCP ports can allow the Cisco Firepower Management Center to communication with FireAMP cloud for file disposition information? (Choose two.)
A. 8080 B. 22 C. 8305 D. 32137 E. 443
Correct Answer: DE Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/sourcefire-fireamp- private-cloud-virtualappliance/118336-configure-fireampprivatecloud-00html?referring_site=RE&pos=2&page= http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/securi ty/sourcefire-amp-appliances/118121-technotesourcefire-00.html
QUESTION 20 Which type of policy is used to define the scope for applications that are running on hosts?
A. access control policy. B. application awareness policy. C. application detector policy. D. network discovery policy.
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Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21 Which option lists the minimum requirements to deploy a managed device inline?
A. passive interface, security zone, MTU, and link mode. B. passive interface, MTU, MDI/MDIX, and link mode. C. inline interfaces, MTU, MDI/MDIX, and link mode. D. inline interfaces, security zones, MTU, and link mode.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22 A customer is concerned with their employee's internet usage and has asked for more web traffic control. Which two features of the cisco web security appliance help with issue? (Choose two)
A. Advanced Malware Protection B. Dynamic ARP Inspection C. DHCP spoofing Protection D. Network Address Translation E. Application Visibility and Control
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 23 An engineer must architect an AMP private cloud deployment. What is the benefit of running in air-gaped mode?
A. Internet connection is not required for disposition. B. Database sync time is reduced. C. Disposition queries are done on AMP appliances. D. A dedicated server is needed to run amp-sync.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24 When using Cisco AMP for Networks, which feature copies a file to the Cisco AMP cloud for analysis?
A. Spero analysis B. dynamic analysis C. sandbox analysis D. malware analysis
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 25 With Cisco FirePOWER Threat Defense software, which interface mode do you configure to passively receive traffic that passes the appliance?
A. transparent B. routed C. passive D. inline set E. inline tap
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26 On Cisco Firepower Management Center, which policy is used to collect health modules alerts from managed devices?
A. health policy B. system policy C. correlation policy D. access control policy E. health awareness policy
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27 When the WSA policy trace tool is used to make a request to the proxy, where is the request logged?
A. proxy logs B. access logs C. authentication logs D. The request is not logged
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28 When you create a new server profile on the Cisco ESA, which subcommand of the ldapconfig command configures spam quarantine end-user authentication?
A. server B. test C. isqalias D. isqauth
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 29 When deploying Cisco FirePOWER appliances, which option must you configure to enable VLAN rewriting?
A. hybrid interfaces B. virtual switch C. virtual router D. inline set
Correct Answer: B Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/hw/firepower_device/firepower_7k 8k_device/deployment.html
QUESTION 30 An engineer wants to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching. Which technology provides this improvement?
A. Firepower B. FireSIGT C. WSA D. ASA
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31 When you configure the Cisco ESA to perform blacklisting, what are two items you can disable to enhance performance? (Choose two.)
A. rootkit detection B. spam scanning C. APT detection D. antivirus scanning E. URL filtering
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 32 In cisco firePOWER 5.x and 6.0, which type of traffic causes a web page to be displayed by the appliance when Block or Interactive Block is selected as an access control action?
A. FTP B. decrypted HTTP C. encrypted HTTP D. unencrypted HHTP
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 33 Refer to the exhibit. Which option is a result of this configuration?
A. All ingress traffic on the inside interface that matches the access list is redirected. B. All egress traffic on the outside interface that matches the access list is redirected. C. All TCP traffic that arrives on the inside interface is redirected. D. All ingress and egress traffic is redirected to the Cisco FirePOWER module.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34 With Cisco AMP for Endpoints on Windows, which three engines are available in the connector? (Choose three.)
A. Ethos B. Tetra C. Annos D. Spero E. Talos F. ClamAV
Correct Answer: ABD Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/fireamp-private-cloud-virtualappliance/datasheet-c78-733180.html
QUESTION 35 Which feature of the C.sco Hybrid Email Security services enables you to create multiple email senders on a single Cisco ESA?
A. Email Marketing Connector B. Virtual Routing and Forwarding C. Virtual Gateway D. Mail Flow Policy Connector
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E. Sender GroupsCorrect Answer: C
QUESTION 36 How does the WSA policy trace tool make a request to the Proxy to emulate a client request?
A. explicitly B. transparently C. via WCCP D. via policy-based routing
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37 An engineer wants to cluster an existing ESA physical appliance with an ESA virtual appliance. Which statement is true?
A. This action is possible as long as the devices are running the identical AsyncOS B. This action is not possible for virtual appliances C. This action is possible between different models and OS D. This action is not possible because the devices are not identical models
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38 Which three statements about Cisco CWS are true? (Choose three )
A. It provides protection against zero-day threats. B. Cisco SIO provides it with threat updates in near real time. C. It supports granular application policies. D. Its Roaming User Protection feature protects the VPN from malware and data breaches. E. It supports local content caching. F. Its Cognitive Threat Analytics feature uses cloud-based analysis and detection to block threats outside the network.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 39 Which website can be used to validate group information about connections that flow through Cisco CWS?
A. whoami.scansafe.com B. policytrace.scansafe.com C. policytrace.scansafe.net D. whoami.scansafe.net
Correct Answer: C
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Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure (beta) Implementing an Azure Data Solution Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Sales Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service Financial Management in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Distribution and Trade in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Microsofr Dynamics 365 for Retail Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Talent Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid
DP-100 DP-200 MB-230 MB2-706 MB2-707 MB2-708 MB2-710 MB2-711 MB2-712 MB2-713 MB2-714 MB2-716 MB2-718 MB2-719 MB2-877 MB6-895 MB6-896 MB6-897 MB6-898 MS-301
Certifications
Microsoft Certifications
Certification Name
Exam
Certification Name
Exam
Azure Security Engineer Associate
AZ-500
70-483
Universal Windows Platform
Dynamics 365 Fundamentals
MB-900
70-357
Dynamics 365 for Marketing Functional Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200
70-480
MB-220
Web Applications
70-483
MB-200
70-486
MB-240
70-410
MB-300
Windows Server 2012
70-411
MB-310
70-412
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing FunctionalMB-300
70-740
Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management
MB-320 Windows Server 2016
70-741
MB-300 70-742
Functional Consultant AssociateMB-330
MB2-716Microsoft 365 Certified Fundamentals MS-900 MB2-718
MS-200
MB2-719Messaging Administrator Associate
MS-201Business Applications
MB6-895MS-202
MB6-896Modern Desktop Administrator Associate
MD-100
MD-101
MB6-897
MB6-898
Security Administrator Associate
MS-50070-744
MS-300 70-745
Teamwork Administrator AssociateMS-301 Core Infrastructure
70-413
MS-302 70-414Azure Administrator Associate AZ-103 70-537
Azure AI Engineer AssociateAI-100
70-464
Azure Data Engineer Associate
DP-200 70-465
DP-201 70-466Azure Data Scientist Associate DP-100 Data Management and 70-467
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200 Analytics
70-762
MB-210 70-767Azure Developer Associate AZ-203 70-768
Azure Solutions Architect Expert
AZ-300 70-777
AZ-301
70-345Azure DevOps Engineer Expert AZ-400 MCSE Productivity Solutions 70-339
Enterprise Administrator Expert
Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate
MS-100
Expert
70-333
MS-101
70-334
MB-200
70-357
MB-230
MCSD Exams Dumps
70-486
Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals AZ-900 70-487
Certifications
Certification Name Exam Certification Name Exam
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
BI Reporting
MB-200
98-349
MB-210
98-350
70-778
98-351
70-779
98-352
70-764 98-353
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations
SQL 2016 BI Development
SQL 2016 Database Administration
SQL 2016 Database Development
70-765
98-354
MB6-894
98-355
MTA Exams Dumps
70-767
98-356
70-768
98-357
70-764
98-358
70-765
98-359
70-761
98-360
70-762
98-361
70-461 98-362
SQL Server 2012/2014
70-462
70-463
Exams
CompTIA ExamsTitle
Exam
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1
220-1001
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2
220-1002
CompTIA A+ (220-901)
220-901
CompTIA A+ (220-902)
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003 CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002) CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 1 CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 2
CAS-003 CLO-001 CS0-001 CV0-002 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ 2018 N10-007CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam CompTIA Server+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals Cleveland Community College Certified Mission Critical Operator Beta CompTIA Project+ CompTIA CTT+ Essentials
PT0-001 SK0-004 SY0-501 XK0-004 CAS-002 FC0-U11 FC0-U21 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 FC0-Z51 MC1-001 PK0-004 TK0-201
Certifications
C ompTIA CertificationsC er tification Name
Ex am
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1001
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1002
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-901
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ CompTIA Cloud+ CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Linux+
CAS-003 CLO-001 CLO-002 CS0-001 CV0-002 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ N10-007CompTIA Project+ CompTIA PenTest+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA Linux+
PK0-004 PT0-001 SY0-501 TK0-201 TK0-202 TK0-203 XK0-004
Other IT Certication Roadmap
Adobe
BEGINNER/NOVICE
ACA
INTERMEDIATE
ACI
EXPERT
ACE
Aruba
INTERMEDIATE
ACMP
Cloud Security Alliance
ADVANCED
CCSK
The Cloud School
ADVANCED
CCP
CWNP
INTERMEDIATE
CWNA
CWTS
Citrix
INTERMEDIATE
CCIA
ADVANCED
CCA
EC Council
INTERMEDIATE
CHFI
CEH
GIAC
INTERMEDIATE
GCIH
GISP GSEC
HDI Global
BEGINNER/NOVICE
HDI DST
HDI SCA
INTERMEDIATE
HDI CI
HDI DSM HDI SCM
Hewlett-Packard
EXPERT
ASE/CSE
ISACA
ADVANCED
CISA
EXPRT
CGEIT CISM
ISC 2ADVANCED
CSSLP
EXPERT
CISSP
Checkpoint
CCSA CCSE
Linux Professional Institute
BEGINNER/NOVICE
Linux Essentials
INTERMEDIATE
LPIC-1 Linux Professional
ADVANCED
LPIC-2 Linux Professional
EXPERT
LPIC-3 Linux Professional
Mile2
EXPERT
CPTE
MongoDB University
INTERMEDIATE
MongoDB Certified Developer
Associate
SUSE
INTERMEDIATE
SCA
ADVANCED
SCE
EXPERT
SEA
Novell
ADVANCED
CNE
Office of Government Commerce/Prince2
INTERMEDIATE
Prince2 Foundation
EXPERT
Prince2 Practitioner
PMI
INTERMEDIATE
CAPM
ADVANCED
PMP
Red Hat
INTERMEDIATE
RHCSA
ADVANCED
RHCE
EXPERT
RHCA
Rackspace
INTERMEDIATE
RCT
Scrum Alliance
EXPERT
CSP
Salesforce
INTERMEDIATE
SALESFORCE
Zend
INTERMEDIATE
PHP Certification
ADVANCED
Framework 2 Certification
