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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 400-051
Exam Name: CCIE Collaboration Written Exam
Version: 13.03
Q & As: 486
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QUESTION 1 Which two statements about using the Load Server option for IP phone firmware distribution are true? (Choose two.)
A. This option must be enabled on at least two servers in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster.
B. This option must be enabled on Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameters for
Cisco TFTP. C. Phone firmware must be manually copied to any applicable load servers. D. The load server will not function if its IP address is not in the same subnet as the IP phones. E. This option is only available for newer IP phone models. F. This option does not accommodate falling back to Cisco TFTP on error.
Correct Answer: CF Explanation: Choosing the Right Distribution Method Which of the three different image-distribution methods discussed so far is the best for a customer deployment? Each method has advantages and disadvantages, and they are summarized in Table 1.
Table 1. Summary of Distribution Models
Peer Firmware Sharing Load Server Traditional TFTP Advantages Hierarchy is automatic One download per phone model on a subnet Uses TCP Fails back to TFTP Speeds up LAN upgrades Reduces TFTP CPU load during upgrade Has same download time as LAN image distribution Distributes TFTP load over multiple TFTP servers Proven distribution Default behavior Disadvantages Must be enabled on each phone Hierarchy is formed for each phone model Hierarchy is limited to subnet IP must be set on each phone Administrator must manually file copy to load server No failback to TFTP on error More prone to user error High-bandwidth requirements Multiple requests for same file High CPU usage on TFTP server
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/voicesw/ps6882/ps6884/white_paper_c11-583891.pdf
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QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the administrator has never performed any manual custom uploads, which two file types can be found when you choose Software Upgrades, followed by TFTP File Management on the Cisco Unified Operating System Administration web page? (Choose two.)
A. IP phone configuration files B. sample music-on-hold audio files C. Identity Trust List files D. IP phone license files E. Mobile Voice Access audio files F. softkey template files
Correct Answer: CE Explanation: We get option for Identity Trust list Files and Mobile Voice Access audio files.
QUESTION 3 Which capability is support by LLDP-MED but not by Cisco Discovery Protocol?
A. LAN speed discovery B. network policy discovery C. location identification discovery D. power discovery E. trust extension
Correct Answer: A Explanation: LLDP-MED supports both LAN speed and duplex discovery. Cisco Discovery Protocol supports duplex discovery only, but this limited support is not seen as a problem because if there is a speed mismatch, LLDP-MED and Cisco Discovery Protocol cannot be exchanged and thus cannot be used to detect the mismatch.
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QUESTION 4 Company ABC is planning to migrate from MCS-hosted Cisco Unified Communications Manager applications to Cisco UC on UCS B-Series servers. Which statement about installation media support is true for this migration?
A. The install log can be written to a USB flash drive that is attached to the UCS server. B. The answer file that is generated by the Answer File Generator (platformConfig.xml) can be read from a USB flash drive to perform an unattended installation on the UCS server. C. The Cisco Music on Hold USB audio sound card can be mapped to a virtual USB port on a
VMware virtual machine on the UCS server.
D. The answer file that is generated by the Answer File Generator (platformConfig.xml) can be read from an FLP image that is mounted in a virtual floppy drive.
E. The Cisco Music on Hold USB audio sound card can be mapped to a virtual serial port on a VMware virtual machine on the UCS server.
Correct Answer: D Explanation: Using the AFG will allow you to get this license mac before even touching the server. It is provided after filling in the main form of the AFG but it can also be found by looking at the last few lines of your platformconfig.xml file. Once you have the xml files, you will need to map those to the floppy drive of the VM (no usb support on the VM OVA). There are many ways to do this. I simply use a freeware virtual floppy app that I drop the platformconfig.xml file on and then copy the*.flp image out to the datastore. I'll end up with a directory on my datastore called AFG that has the host named *.flp images that I will use during install. It also serves as archival of these files in the event the server needs to be re-imaged. This is important because the license mac will change if every parameter is not entered exactly as it was prior. If the license mac changes, you will have to go through the process of requesting new license files to be generated.
Reference: http://angryciscoguy.com/jello/cisco-answer-file-generator-to-the-rescue/
QUESTION 5 Which statement describes a disadvantage of using the Cisco TFTP service to serve IP phone load files?
A. The Cisco TFTP services can run on only one Cisco Unified Communications Manager server in a cluster.
B. Because TFTP operates on top of UDP, there is a high risk of corrupted load file delivery at the completion of the TFTP process due to undetected data loss in the network.
C. If a response is not received in the timeout period, the TFTP server will not resend the data packet.
D. Packet loss can significantly increase the TFTP session completion time.
E. Because TFTP operates with an adaptive timeout period, the time to complete the file transfer is unpredictable.
Correct Answer: D Explanation: Voice traffic cannot recapture lost packets. Rather than retransmitting a lost network connection, the phone resets and attempts to reconnect its network connection.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cuipph/6921_6941_6961/7_1_2/english/admin/
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guide/6921trb.html#wp1031181
QUESTION 6 Which two mechanisms does Cisco EnergyWise use for neighbor discovery? (Choose two.)
A. multicast B. LLDP-MED C. UDP broadcast D. Cisco Discovery Protocol E. TCP
Correct Answer: CD Explanation: Cisco EnergyWise Neighbor Discovery Process The Cisco EnergyWise neighbor discovery process is the mechanism by which domain members discover each other and populate their Cisco EnergyWise neighbor tables. Cisco EnergyWise queries can subsequently be distributed to all domain members using the neighbor relationships to monitor and control the power usage of devices within a domain. Cisco EnergyWise domain members automatically discover their neighbors through one of two mechanisms:
Cisco EnergyWise UDP broadcast packet Cisco EnergyWise CDP packets
UDP broadcast packets are automatically sent out switch ports which support Cisco EnergyWise, regardless of whether the interfaces are configured with the no energywise interface-level command. CDP packets are sent when CDP is configured for the switch ports.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Borderless_Networks/Energy_Manageme nt/energywisedg.html?referring_site=smartnavRD#wp555927
QUESTION 7 Which two statements about the Cisco UC on UCS specs-based virtualization support model are true? (Choose two.)
A. It has a configuration-based approach. B. It has a rule-based approach. C. It has less hardware flexibility compared to the third-party server specs-based support model. D. It has less hardware flexibility compared to the UC on UCS TRC support model. E. VMware vCenter is optional with this support model.
Correct Answer: BC Explanation: http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/UC_Virtualization_Supported_Hardware#UC_on_UCS_Tested_Refe rence_Configurations
QUESTION 8 Which capability is supported by Cisco Discovery Protocol but not by LLDP-MED?
A. LAN speed and duplex discovery B. Network policy discovery
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C. Location identification discovery D. Power discovery E. Trust extension
Correct Answer: E Explanation: Cisco Discovery Protocol provides an additional capability not found in LLDP-MED that allows the switch to extend trust to the phone. In this case, the phone is now trusted to mark the packets received on the PC port accordingly. This feature can be used to off-load the switch because now it does not need to police the information being received from the phone.
QUESTION 9 Which statement about the Cisco UC on UCS TRC and the third-party server specs-based virtualization support model is true?
A. Both the UC on UCS TRC and the third-party servers spec-based support models have rulebased approaches.
B. The UC on UCS TRC support model has a rule-based approach and the third-party servers specbased support model has a configuration-based approach.
C. The UC on UCS TRC support model requires a high level of virtualization experience while the third-party server spec-based support model requires a low to medium level virtualization experience.
D. VMware vCenter is mandatory for the UC on UCS TRC support model but it is optional for the third-party server spec-based support model.
E. VMware vCenter is optional for the UC on UCS TRC support model but it is mandatory for the third-party server spec-based support model.
Correct Answer: E Explanation: VMware vCenter is optional when deploying on UC on UCS Tested Reference Configuration hardware mandatory when deploying on UC on UCS Specs-based and Third-party Server Specsbased hardware. vCenter Statistics Level 4 logging is mandatory so that Cisco TAC is able to provide effective support. Click here for how to configure VMware vCenter to capture these logs. If not configured by default, Cisco TAC may request enabling these settings in order to provide effective support. Also note that enablement of specific VMware vSphere management features may require vCenter and/or a higher feature Edition of vSphere ESXi. Cisco Collaboration does not require its own dedicated vCenter. Note that when VMware vCenter is not required and is not used, then VMware vSphere ESXi's default management interface is its free/included VMware vSphere Client (formerly branded VI Client).
Reference: http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/Unified_Communications_VMware_Requirements
QUESTION 10 What is the maximum number of call-processing subscribers in a standard deployment of a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Session Management Edition cluster?
A. 3 B. 4
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C. 5 D. 8 E. 16
Correct Answer: D Explanation: There is no deployment difference between CUCM & CUCM session management Edition cluster. The only difference is that CUCM SME is designed to support a large number of trunk to trunk connections. Thus, 8 subscribers.
QUESTION 11 Which statement about Cisco EnergyWise domain member neighbor formation is true?
A. Cisco EnergyWise supports static neighbors, but the neighbor relationship is only possible if a noncontiguous domain member and a contiguous domain member have a static neighbor entry pointing to each other.
B. Cisco EnergyWise static neighbors can be formed even if domain members are not physically contiguous.
C. Static neighbors can be manually defined on Cisco EnergyWise domain members, but TCP protocols must be used.
D. Static neighbors can be manually defined on Cisco EnergyWise domain members, but they have a lower priority compared to the autodiscovered members.
E. Static neighbors can be manually defined on Cisco EnergyWise domain members and the TCP or UDP protocol can be used.
Correct Answer: B Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Borderless_Networks/Energy_Mana gement/energywisedg.html?referring_site=smartnavRD#wp554384
QUESTION 12 Which definition is included in a Cisco UC on UCS TRC?
A. storage arrays such as those from EMC or NetApp, if applicable B. configuration of virtual-to-physical network interface mapping C. step-by-step procedures for hardware BIOS, firmware, drivers, and RAID setup D. server model and local components (CPU, RAM, adapters, local storage) at the part number level E. configuration settings and patch recommendations for VMware software
Correct Answer: D Explanation: What does a TRC definition include? Definition of server model and local components (CPU, RAM, adapters, local storage) at the orderable part number level. Required RAID configuration (e.g. RAID5, RAID10, etc.) - including battery backup cache or SuperCap - when the TRC uses DAS storage Guidance on hardware installation and basic setup (e.g. click here). Design, installation and configuration of external hardware is not included in TRC definition, such as: Configuration settings, patch recommendations or step by step procedures for VMware software are not included in TRC definition. Infrastructure solutions such as Vblock from Virtual Computing Environment may also be leveraged for configuration details not included in the TRC definition.
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Reference: http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/UC_Virtualization_Supported_Hardware#UC_on_UCS_Tested_Refe rence_Configurations
QUESTION 13 Which four attributes are needed to determine the time to complete a TFTP file transfer process? (Choose four.)
A. file size B. file type C. network interface type D. round-trip time E. packet loss percentage F. response timeout G. network throughput
Correct Answer: ADEF Explanation: Four attributes that are needed to determine the time to complete TFTP file transfer process is:
File Size Round-trip time Packet loss percentage Response timeout
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/voicesw/ps6882/ps6884/white_paper_c11- 583891_ps10451_Products_White_Paper.html
QUESTION 14 Which two statements about the Peer Firmware Sharing option for IP phone firmware distribution are true? (Choose two.)
A. This option uses a parent-child hierarchy in which a firmware image is downloaded by a parent phone to up to three directly associated child phones.
B. This option must be enabled on Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameters for Cisco TFTP.
C. This option mandates that the parent phone and child phones be identical, selected phone models.
D. This option allows firmware transfers between phones in different subnets, as long as the roundtrip delay is less than 5 milliseconds.
E. This option uses a parent-child hierarchy that must be manually defined by the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administrator.
F. This option allows falling back to the TFTP server in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster.
Correct Answer: CF Explanation: Peer Firmware Sharing works by setting up a parent-child hierarchy of the phones in which a firmware image is downloaded by the parent phone to a child phone. The advantage of using Peer Firmware Sharing is that instead of all phones individually retrieving a software image, they pass the image along from one phone to another phone on the same subnet.
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Advantage of PFS: Hierarchy is automatic One download per phone model on a subnet Uses TCP Fails back to TFTP Speeds up LAN upgrades Reduces TFTP CPU load during upgrade
QUESTION 15 Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the administrator has never performed any manual custom uploads, which two file types can be found when you choose Software Upgrades, followed by TFTP File Management on the Cisco Unified Operating System Administration web page for Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. IP phone configuration files B. announcement audio files C. ringer files D. IP phone license files E. sample music-on-hold audio files F. softkey template files
Correct Answer: BC Explanation: The two file types that we get are Announcement Audio Files and Ringer Files.
QUESTION 16 In a Cisco EnergyWise domain, which two terms describe a Cisco IP phone? (Choose two.)
A. endpoint B. domain member C. child domain member D. EnergyWise agent E. Cisco power distribution unit
Correct Answer: AC
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Explanation: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/lan/energywise/phase2_5/ios/configuration/guide/one _ent.html
QUESTION 17 Which protocol does the Cisco Prime LAN Management Solution application use to communicate with Cisco EnergyWise domain members?
A. UDP broadcast B. Cisco Discovery Protocol C. UDP unicast D. TCP E. multicast
Correct Answer: D Explanation: Cisco Prime LMS 4.1 uses TCP port 43440.
QUESTION 18 Which definition is included in a Cisco UC on UCS TRC?
A. required RAID configuration, when the TRC uses direct-attached storage B. configuration of virtual-to-physical network interface mapping C. step-by-step procedures for hardware BIOS, firmware, drivers, and RAID setup D. configuration settings and patch recommendations for VMware software
E. server model and local components (CPU, RAM, adapters, local storage) by name only; part numbers are not included because they change over time
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Definition of server model and local components (CPU, RAM, adapters, local storage) at the orderable part number level. Required RAID configuration (e.g. RAID5, RAID10, etc.) - including battery backup cache or SuperCap - when the TRC uses DAS storage Guidance on hardware installation and basic setup. Design, installation and configuration of external hardware is not included in TRC definition, such as: Configuration settings, patch recommendations or step by step procedures for VMware software are not included in TRC definition. Infrastructure solutions such as Vblock from Virtual Computing Environment may also be leveraged for configuration details not included in the TRC definition.
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QUESTION 19 Refer to the exhibit. During a QSIG tunneling over SIP call establishment, which two types of SIP messages can the OGW use to tunnel a waiting QSIG message? (Choose two.)
A. SIP re-INVITE B. SIP NOTIFY C. SIP INFO D. SIP OPTIONS E. SIP UPDATE F. SIP REFER
Correct Answer: AE Explanation: The TGW sends and the OGW receives a 200 OK response--the OGW sends an ACK message to the TGW and all successive messages during the session are encapsulated into the body of SIP INFO request messages. There are two exceptions: When a SIP connection requires an extended handshake process, renegotiation, or an update, the gateway may encapsulate a waiting QSIG message into a SIP re-INVITE or SIP UPDATE message during QSIG call establishment. When the session is terminated, gateways send a SIP BYE message. If the session is terminated by notice of a QSIG RELEASE COMPLETE message, that message can be encapsulated into the SIP BYE message.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/voice/sip/configuration/15-mt/sip-config-15-mtbook/voi-sip-tdm.html
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MCSD Programming in C#
70-483
MCSD Developing ASP.NET MVC Web Applications
70-486
MCSD Developing Windows Azure and Web Services
70-487
Configuring and Operating a Hybrid Cloud with Microsoft Azure Stack
70-537
Administering Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager and Cloud Services Integration
70-703
Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
70-740
MCSA Networking with Windows Server 2016
70-741
Identity with Windows Server 2016
70-742
Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016
70-743
Securing Windows Server 2016
70-744
Developing SQL Databases
70-762
Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure
70-764
Implementing a SQL Data Warehouse
70-767
Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Power BI
70-778
Word 2016: Core Document Creation, Collaboration and Communication
77-725
Excel 2016: Core Data Analysis, Manipulation, and Presentation
77-727
Windows Server Administration Fundamentals
98-365
Security Fundamentals
98-367
Introduction to Programming Using Python
98-381
Designing and Implementing an Azure AI Solution Microsoft Azure Administrator Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies Microsoft Azure Architect Design Microsoft Azure DevOps Solutions Microsoft Azure Security Technologies Microsoft Azure Fundamentals Designing an Azure Data Solution Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement Core (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Sales Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 Unified Operations Core (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials
AI-100 AZ-103 AZ-203 AZ-300 AZ-301 AZ-400 AZ-500 AZ-900 DP-201 MB-200 MB-210 MB-220 MB-240 MB-300 MB-310
Exams
Title
Exam
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing MB-330: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals Development, Extensions and Deployment for Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Windows 10 Managing Modern Desktops Microsoft 365 Identity and Services Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security Planning and Configuring a Messaging Platform (beta) Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform Microsoft 365 Messaging Administrator Certification Transition Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork Microsoft 365 Teamwork Administrator Certification Transition (beta) Microsoft 365 Security Administration Microsoft 365 Fundamentals
MB-320 MB-330 MB-900 MB6-894 MD-100 MD-101 MS-100 MS-101 MS-200 MS-201 MS-202 MS-300 MS-302 MS-500 MS-900
Technology Literacy for Educators
62-193
Deploying Enterprise Voice with Skype for Business 2015
70-333
Core Solutions of Microsoft Skype for Business 2015
70-334
Managing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2016
70-339
Managing Projects with Microsoft Project
70-343
Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM
70-348
Developing Mobile Apps
70-357
MCSE Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
70-413
MCSE Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
70-414
Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
70-417
MCSA Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014
70-463
Developing Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases
70-464
Designing Database Solutions for Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-465
Implementing Data Models and Reports with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-466
Designing Business Intelligence Solutions with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-467
Designing and Providing Microsoft Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations
70-705
Software Asset Management (SAM) – Core
70-713
OEM Manufacturing and Deployment for Windows 10
70-735
Implementing a Software-Defined Datacenter
70-745
Querying Data with Transact-SQL
70-761
Provisioning SQL Databases
70-765
Developing SQL Data Models
70-768
Implementing Microsoft Azure Cosmos DB Solutions
70-777
Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel
70-779
OEM Preinstallation
74-697
Exams
TitleExam
Windows Operating System Fundamentals
98-349
Software Development Fundamentals
98-361
Database Fundamentals
98-364
Networking Fundamentals
98-366
Mobility and Devices Fundamentals
98-368
Cloud Fundamentals
98-369
HTML5 App Development Fundamentals
98-375
Introduction to Programming Using Block-Based Languages (Touch Develop)
98-380
Introduction to Programming Using JavaScript
98-382
Introduction to Programming Using HTML and CSS
98-383
Introduction to Programming Using Java
98-388
Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure (beta) Implementing an Azure Data Solution Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Sales Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service Financial Management in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Distribution and Trade in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Microsofr Dynamics 365 for Retail Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Talent Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid
DP-100 DP-200 MB-230 MB2-706 MB2-707 MB2-708 MB2-710 MB2-711 MB2-712 MB2-713 MB2-714 MB2-716 MB2-718 MB2-719 MB2-877 MB6-895 MB6-896 MB6-897 MB6-898 MS-301
Certifications
Microsoft Certifications
Certification Name
Exam
Certification Name
Exam
Azure Security Engineer Associate
AZ-500
70-483
Universal Windows Platform
Dynamics 365 Fundamentals
MB-900
70-357
Dynamics 365 for Marketing Functional Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200
70-480
MB-220
Web Applications
70-483
MB-200
70-486
MB-240
70-410
MB-300
Windows Server 2012
70-411
MB-310
70-412
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing FunctionalMB-300
70-740
Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management
MB-320 Windows Server 2016
70-741
MB-300 70-742
Functional Consultant AssociateMB-330
MB2-716Microsoft 365 Certified Fundamentals MS-900 MB2-718
MS-200
MB2-719Messaging Administrator Associate
MS-201Business Applications
MB6-895MS-202
MB6-896Modern Desktop Administrator Associate
MD-100
MD-101
MB6-897
MB6-898
Security Administrator Associate
MS-50070-744
MS-300 70-745
Teamwork Administrator AssociateMS-301 Core Infrastructure
70-413
MS-302 70-414Azure Administrator Associate AZ-103 70-537
Azure AI Engineer AssociateAI-100
70-464
Azure Data Engineer Associate
DP-200 70-465
DP-201 70-466Azure Data Scientist Associate DP-100 Data Management and 70-467
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200 Analytics
70-762
MB-210 70-767Azure Developer Associate AZ-203 70-768
Azure Solutions Architect Expert
AZ-300 70-777
AZ-301
70-345Azure DevOps Engineer Expert AZ-400 MCSE Productivity Solutions 70-339
Enterprise Administrator Expert
Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate
MS-100
Expert
70-333
MS-101
70-334
MB-200
70-357
MB-230
MCSD Exams Dumps
70-486
Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals AZ-900 70-487
Certifications
Certification Name Exam Certification Name Exam
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
BI Reporting
MB-200
98-349
MB-210
98-350
70-778
98-351
70-779
98-352
70-764 98-353
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations
SQL 2016 BI Development
SQL 2016 Database Administration
SQL 2016 Database Development
70-765
98-354
MB6-894
98-355
MTA Exams Dumps
70-767
98-356
70-768
98-357
70-764
98-358
70-765
98-359
70-761
98-360
70-762
98-361
70-461 98-362
SQL Server 2012/2014
70-462
70-463
Exams
CompTIA ExamsTitle
Exam
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1
220-1001
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2
220-1002
CompTIA A+ (220-901)
220-901
CompTIA A+ (220-902)
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003 CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002) CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 1 CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 2
CAS-003 CLO-001 CS0-001 CV0-002 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ 2018 N10-007CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam CompTIA Server+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals Cleveland Community College Certified Mission Critical Operator Beta CompTIA Project+ CompTIA CTT+ Essentials
PT0-001 SK0-004 SY0-501 XK0-004 CAS-002 FC0-U11 FC0-U21 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 FC0-Z51 MC1-001 PK0-004 TK0-201
Certifications
C ompTIA CertificationsC er tification Name
Ex am
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1001
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1002
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-901
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ CompTIA Cloud+ CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Linux+
CAS-003 CLO-001 CLO-002 CS0-001 CV0-002 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ N10-007CompTIA Project+ CompTIA PenTest+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA Linux+
PK0-004 PT0-001 SY0-501 TK0-201 TK0-202 TK0-203 XK0-004
Other IT Certication Roadmap
Adobe
BEGINNER/NOVICE
ACA
INTERMEDIATE
ACI
EXPERT
ACE
Aruba
INTERMEDIATE
ACMP
Cloud Security Alliance
ADVANCED
CCSK
The Cloud School
ADVANCED
CCP
CWNP
INTERMEDIATE
CWNA
CWTS
Citrix
INTERMEDIATE
CCIA
ADVANCED
CCA
EC Council
INTERMEDIATE
CHFI
CEH
GIAC
INTERMEDIATE
GCIH
GISP GSEC
HDI Global
BEGINNER/NOVICE
HDI DST
HDI SCA
INTERMEDIATE
HDI CI
HDI DSM HDI SCM
Hewlett-Packard
EXPERT
ASE/CSE
ISACA
ADVANCED
CISA
EXPRT
CGEIT CISM
ISC 2ADVANCED
CSSLP
EXPERT
CISSP
Checkpoint
CCSA CCSE
Linux Professional Institute
BEGINNER/NOVICE
Linux Essentials
INTERMEDIATE
LPIC-1 Linux Professional
ADVANCED
LPIC-2 Linux Professional
EXPERT
LPIC-3 Linux Professional
Mile2
EXPERT
CPTE
MongoDB University
INTERMEDIATE
MongoDB Certified Developer
Associate
SUSE
INTERMEDIATE
SCA
ADVANCED
SCE
EXPERT
SEA
Novell
ADVANCED
CNE
Office of Government Commerce/Prince2
INTERMEDIATE
Prince2 Foundation
EXPERT
Prince2 Practitioner
PMI
INTERMEDIATE
CAPM
ADVANCED
PMP
Red Hat
INTERMEDIATE
RHCSA
ADVANCED
RHCE
EXPERT
RHCA
Rackspace
INTERMEDIATE
RCT
Scrum Alliance
EXPERT
CSP
Salesforce
INTERMEDIATE
SALESFORCE
Zend
INTERMEDIATE
PHP Certification
ADVANCED
Framework 2 Certification
