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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 400-101
Exam Name: CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam v5.1
Version: 13.29
Q & As: 1514
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QUESTION 1 Which two options are reasons for TCP starvation? (Choose two.)
A. The use of tail drop B. The use of WRED C. Mixing TCP and UDP traffic in the same traffic class D. The use of TCP congestion control
Correct Answer: CD Explanation: It is a general best practice to not mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially Streaming-Video) within a single service-provider class because of the behaviors of these protocols during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters throttle back flows when drops are detected. Although some UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops and, thus, never lower transmission rates because of dropping. When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows within a single service-provider class and the class experiences congestion, TCP flows continually lower their transmission rates, potentially giving up their bandwidth to UDP flows that are oblivious to drops. This effect is called TCP starvation/UDP dominance. TCP starvation/UDP dominance likely occurs if (TCP-based) Mission-Critical Data is assigned to the same service-provider class as (UDP-based) Streaming-Video and the class experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED or other TCP congestion control mechanisms are enabled on the service-provider class, the same behavior would be observed because WRED (for the most part) manages congestion only on TCP-based flows. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/WAN_and_MAN/QoS_SRND/QoS- SRND-Book/VPNQoS.html
QUESTION 2 Which regular expression will only allow prefixes that originated from AS 65000 and that are learned through AS 65001?
A. ^65000_65001$ B. 65000_65001$ C. ^65000_65001 D. ^65001_65000$
Correct Answer: D Explanation: The following table lists the regular expressions and their meanings:
+------------------------------------------------------+ | CHAR | USAGE | +------------------------------------------------------| | ^ | Start of string | |------|-----------------------------------------------| | $ | End of string | |------|-----------------------------------------------| | [] | Range of characters | |------|-----------------------------------------------| | - | Used to specify range ( i.e. [0-9] ) | |------|-----------------------------------------------| | ( ) | Logical grouping | |------|-----------------------------------------------|
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| . | Any single character | |------|-----------------------------------------------| | * | Zero or more instances | |------|-----------------------------------------------| | + | One or more instance | |------|-----------------------------------------------| | ? | Zero or one instance | |------|-----------------------------------------------| | _ | Comma, open or close brace, open or close | | | parentheses, start or end of string, or space | +------------------------------------------------------+ Some commonly used regular expressions include: +-------------+---------------------------+ | Expression | Meaning | |-------------+---------------------------| | .* | Anything | |-------------+---------------------------| | ^$ | Locally originated routes | |-------------+---------------------------| | ^100_ | Learned from AS 100 | |-------------+---------------------------| | _100$ | Originated in AS 100 | |-------------+---------------------------| | _100_ | Any instance of AS 100 | |-------------+---------------------------| | ^[0-9]+$ | Directly connected ASes | +-------------+---------------------------+
Reference: http://blog.ine.com/2008/01/06/understanding-bgp-regular-expressions/
QUESTION 3 A TCP/IP host is able to transmit small amounts of data (typically less than 1500 bytes), but attempts to transmit larger amounts of data hang and then time out. What is the cause of this problem?
A. A link is flapping between two intermediate devices. B. The processor of an intermediate router is averaging 90 percent utilization. C. A port on the switch that is connected to the TCP/IP host is duplicating traffic and sending it to a port that has a sniffer attached. D. There is a PMTUD failure in the network path.
Correct Answer: D Explanation: Sometimes, over some IP paths, a TCP/IP node can send small amounts of data (typically less than 1500 bytes) with no difficulty, but transmission attempts with larger amounts of data hang, then time out. Often this is observed as a unidirectional problem in that large data transfers succeed in one direction but fail in the other direction. This problem is likely caused by the TCP MSS value, PMTUD failure, different LAN media types, or defective links. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/additional-legacy-protocols/ms-windowsnetworking/13709-38.html
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QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit. You have just created a new VRF on PE3. You have enabled debug ip bgp vpnv4 unicast updates on PE1, and you can see the route in the debug, but not in the BGP VPNv4 table. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. VPNv4 is not configured between PE1 and PE3. B. address-family ipv4 vrf is not configured on PE3. C. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE3, the route will be accepted. D. PE1 will reject the route due to automatic route filtering. E. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE1, the route will be accepted.
Correct Answer: DE Explanation: The route target extended community for VPLS auto-discovery defines the import and export policies that a VPLS instance uses. The export route target sets an extended community attribute number that is appended to all routes that are exported from the VPLS instance. The import route target value sets a filter that determines the routes that are accepted into the VPLS instance. Any route with a value in its import route target contained in its extended attributes field matching the value in the VPLS instance's import route target are accepted. Otherwise the route is rejected.
QUESTION 5 Which mechanism can be used on Layer 2 switches so that only multicast packets with downstream receivers are sent on the multicast router-connected ports?
A. IGMP snooping B. Router Guard C. PIM snooping D. multicast filtering
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Ideally, the Layer 2 device should forward the multicast transmission only out ports to which receivers are connected and also out any ports that are connected to downstream multicast routers. This configuration requires a Layer 2 device to be able to determine the ports on which multicast routers and receivers for each separate (S,G) or (*,G) multicast group are located. To facilitate intelligent forwarding of multicast traffic on the LAN, Cisco Catalyst switches support two mechanisms: IGMP snooping - The switch listens in or "snoops" IGMP communications between receivers and multicast routers. This snooping enables the switch to determine which ports are connected to receivers for each multicast group and which ports are connected to multicast routers. Cisco Group Management Protocol (CGMP) - The switch communicates with multicasts routers, with multicast routers relaying group membership information to switches.
Reference: https://www.informit.com/library/content.aspx?b=CCNP_Studies_Switching&seqNum=59
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QUESTION 6 Which congestion-avoidance or congestion-management technique can cause global synchronization?
A. Tail drop B. Random early detection C. Weighted random early detection D. Weighted fair queuing
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Tail Drop Tail drop treats all traffic equally and does not differentiate between classes of service. Queues fill during periods of congestion. When the output queue is full and tail drop is in effect, packets are dropped until the congestion is eliminated and the queue is no longer full. Weighted Random Early Detection WRED avoids the globalization problems that occur when tail drop is used as the congestion avoidance mechanism on the router. Global synchronization occurs as waves of congestion crest only to be followed by troughs during which the transmission link is not fully utilized. Global synchronization of TCP hosts, for example, can occur because packets are dropped all at once. Global synchronization manifests when multiple TCP hosts reduce their transmission rates in response to packet dropping, then increase their transmission rates once again when the congestion is reduced. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/qos/configuration/guide/fqos_c/qcfconav.html#wp1 002048
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit. R2 is mutually redistributing between EIGRP and BGP. Which configuration is necessary to enable R1 to see routes from R3?
A. The R3 configuration must include ebgp-multihop to the neighbor statement for R2. B. The R2 BGP configuration must include bgp redistribute-internal. C. R1 must be configured with next-hop-self for the neighbor going to R2.
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D. The AS numbers configured on R1 and R2 must match.
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Whenever you redistribute from BGP to something else, BGP will only advertise externally learned routes. To allow the redistribution of iBGP routes into an interior gateway protocol such as EIGRP or OSPF, use the bgp redistribute-internal command in router configuration mode.
QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit. You have configured two routing protocols across this point-to-point link. How many BFD sessions will be established across this link?
A. three per interface B. one per multicast address C. one per routing protocol D. one per interface
Correct Answer: D Explanation: Cisco devices will use one Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD) session for multiple client protocols in the Cisco implementation of BFD for Cisco IOS Releases 12.2(18)SXE, 12.0(31)S, and 12.4(4)T. For example, if a network is running OSPF and EIGRP across the same link to the same peer, only one BFD session will be established, and BFD will share session information with both routing protocols. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/fs_bfd.html#wp1053749
QUESTION 9 Which three elements compose a network entity title? (Choose three.)
A. area ID B. domain ID C. system ID D. NSAP selector E. MAC address F. IP address
Correct Answer: ACD Explanation: An IS (Intermediate system) is identified by an address known as a network access point (NASAP). The NSAP is divided up into three parts as specified by ISO/AI 10589: Area address--This field is of variable length, composed of high order octets, and it excludes the System ID and N-selector (NSEL) fields. This area address is associated wit a single area within
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the routing domain. System ID--This field is 6 octets long and should be set to a unique value with Level 1 and Level The system IS defines an end system (ES) or an IS in an area. You configure the area address and the system ID with the NET command. You can display the system ID with the show isis topology command. NSEL--This field is called the N-selector, also referred to as the NSAP, and it specifies the upperlayer protocol. The NSEL is the last byte of the NSAP and identifies a network service user. A network service user is a transport entity or the IS network entity itself. When the N-selector is set to zero, the entire NSAP is called a network entity title (NET). A NET is an NSAP where the last byte is always the n-selector and is always zero. A NET can be from 8 to 20 bytes in length. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/iproute_isis/command/reference/irs_book/irs_is2.html
QUESTION 10 Which three statements are true about PPP CHAP authentication? (Choose three.)
A. PPP encapsulation must be enabled globally. B. The LCP phase must be complete and in closed state. C. The hostname used by a router for CHAP authentication cannot be changed. D. PPP encapsulation must be enabled on the interface. E. The LCP phase must be complete and in open state. F. By default, the router uses its hostname to identify itself to the peer.
Correct Answer: DEF Explanation: Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) authentication issues are one of the most common causes for dialup link failures. This document provides some troubleshooting procedures for PPP authentication issues. Prerequisites Enable PPP encapsulation The PPP authentication phase does not begin until the Link Control Protocol (LCP) phase is complete and is in the open state. If debug ppp negotiation does not indicate that LCP is open, troubleshoot this issue before proceeding. Note: By default, the router uses its hostname to identify itself to the peer. However, this CHAP username can be changed through the ppp chap hostname command. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wan/point-to-point-protocol-ppp/25647- understanding-ppp-chap.html
QUESTION 11 Which three statements are functions that are performed by IKE phase 1? (Choose three.)
A. It builds a secure tunnel to negotiate IKE phase 1 parameters. B. It establishes IPsec security associations. C. It authenticates the identities of the IPsec peers. D. It protects the IKE exchange by negotiating a matching IKE SA policy. E. It protects the identities of IPsec peers. F. It negotiates IPsec SA parameters.
Correct Answer: CDE Explanation: The basic purpose of IKE phase 1 is to authenticate the IPSec peers and to set up a secure
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channel between the peers to enable IKE exchanges. IKE phase 1 performs the following functions: Authenticates and protects the identities of the IPSec peers Negotiates a matching IKE SA policy between peers to protect the IKE exchange Performs an authenticated Diffie-Hellman exchange with the end result of having matching shared secret keys Sets up a secure tunnel to negotiate IKE phase 2 parameters
Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=25474&seqNum=7
QUESTION 12 Which three modes are valid PfR monitoring modes of operation? (Choose three.)
A. route monitor mode (based on BGP route changes) B. RMON mode (based on RMONv1 and RMONv2 data) C. passive mode (based on NetFlow data) D. active mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes) E. fast mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes) F. passive mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)
Correct Answer: CDE Explanation: Modes are: Mode monitor passive Passive monitoring is the act of PfR gathering information on user packets assembled into flows by Netflow. Passive monitoring is typically only recommended in Internet edge deployments because active probing is ineffective because of security policies that block probing. PfR, when enabled, automatically enables Netflow on the managed interfaces on the Border Routers. By aggregating this information on the Border Routers and periodically reporting the collected data to the Master Controller, the network prefixes and applications in use can automatically be learned. Mode monitor active Active monitoring is the act of generating Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements (SLAs) probes to generate test traffic for the purpose of obtaining information regarding the characteristics of the WAN links. PfR can either implicitly generates active probes when passive monitoring has identified destination hosts, or the network manager can explicitly configured probes in the PfR configuration. When jitter probes are used (common use case), Target Discovery is used to learn the respond address and to automatically generate the probes. Mode monitor Fast This mode generates active probes through all exists continuously at the configured probe frequency. This differs from either active or both modes in that these modes only generate probes through alternate paths (exits) in the event the current path is out-of-policy.
Reference: http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/PfR:Technology_Overview#Mode_monitor_passive
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QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. 2001:DB8::1/128 is a local host route, and it can be redistributed into a dynamic routing protocol.
B. 2001:DB8::1/128 is a local host route, and it cannot be redistributed into a dynamic routing protocol.
C. 2001:DB8::1/128 is a local host route that was created because ipv6 unicast-routing is not enabled on this router.
D. 2001:DB8::1/128 is a route that was put in the IPv6 routing table because one of this router's loopback interfaces has the IPv6 address 2001:DB8::1/128.
Correct Answer: B Explanation: The local routes have the administrative distance of 0. This is the same adminstrative distance as connected routes. However, when you configure redistributed connected under any routing process, the connected routes are redistributed, but the local routes are not. This behavior allows the networks to not require a large number of host routes, because the networks of the interfaces are advertised with their proper masks. These host routes are only needed on the router that owns the IP address in order to process packets destined to that IP address. It is normal for local host routes to be listed in the IPv4 and IPv6 routing table for IP addresses of the router's interfaces. Their purpose is to create a corresponding CEF entry as a receive entry so that the packets destined to this IP address can be processed by the router itself. These routes cannot be redistributed into any routing protocol. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/ip-routing/116264-technote-ios-00.html
QUESTION 14 Which three features are considered part of the IPv6 first-hop security suite? (Choose three.)
A. DNS guard B. destination guard C. DHCP guard D. ICMP guard E. RA guard F. DoS guard
Correct Answer: BCE Explanation: Cisco IOS has (at least) these IPv6 first-hop security features: IPv6 RA Guard rejects fake RA messages coming from host (non-router) ports (not sure whether it handles all possible IPv6 header fragmentation attacks). Interestingly, it can also validate the contents of RA messages (configuration flags, list of prefixes) received through router-facing ports, potentially giving you a safeguard against an attack of fat fingers. DHCPv6 Guard blocks DHCPv6 messages coming from unauthorized DHCPv6 servers and relays. Like IPv6 RA Guard it also validates the DHCPv6 replies coming from authorized DHCPv6
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servers, potentially providing protection against DHCPv6 server misconfiguration. IPv6 Snooping and device tracking builds a IPv6 First-Hop Security Binding Table (nicer name for ND table) by monitoring DHCPv6 and ND messages as well as regular IPv6 traffic. The binding table can be used to stop ND spoofing (in IPv4 world we'd call this feature DHCP Snooping and Dynamic ARP Inspection). IPv6 Source Guard uses the IPv6 First-Hop Security Binding Table to drop traffic from unknown sources or bogus IPv6 addresses not in the binding table. The switch also tries to recover from lost address information, querying DHCPv6 server or using IPv6 neighbor discovery to verify the source IPv6 address after dropping the offending packet(s). IPv6 Prefix Guard is denies illegal off-subnet traffic. It uses information gleaned from RA messages and IA_PD option of DHCPv6 replies (delegated prefixes) to build the table of valid prefixes. IPv6 Destination Guard drops IPv6 traffic sent to directly connected destination addresses not in IPv6 First-Hop Security Binding Table, effectively stopping ND exhaustion attacks. Reference: http://blog.ipspace.net/2013/07/first-hop-ipv6-security-features-in.html
QUESTION 15 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
A. There is an MPLS network that is running 6PE, and the ingress PE router has no mpls ip propagate-ttl.
B. There is an MPLS network that is running 6VPE, and the ingress PE router has no mpls ip propagate-ttl.
C. There is an MPLS network that is running 6PE or 6VPE, and the ingress PE router has mpls ip propagate-ttl.
D. There is an MPLS network that is running 6PE, and the ingress PE router has mpls ip propagatettl.
E. There is an MPLS network that is running 6VPE, and the ingress PE router has mpls ip propagate-ttl.
Correct Answer: C Explanation: The second hop shows and IPV6 address over MPLS, so we know that there is an MPLS network running 6PE or 6VPE. And because the second and third hops show up in the traceroute. Then
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TTL is being propagated because if the "no ip propagate-ttl" command was used these devices would be hidden in the traceroute.
QUESTION 16 Refer to the exhibit. What will be the extended community value of this route?
A. RT:200:3000 RT:200:9999 B. RT:200:9999 RT:200:3000 C. RT:200:3000 D. RT:200:9999
Correct Answer: D Explanation: Here the route map is being used to manually set the extended community RT to 200:9999.
QUESTION 17 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this IP SLA is true?
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VMware ExamsTitle
Exam
VMware vSphere 6.7 Foundations Exam 2019 Professional vSphere 6.7 Exam 2019 Professional vSphere 6.7 Delta Exam 2019 VMware Professional Horizon 7.7 Exam 2019
2V0-01.19 2V0-21.19 2V0-21.19D 2V0-51.19vSphere 6.5 Foundations 2V0-602VMware Professional Workspace ONE Exam 2019
2V0-61.19vSphere 6 Foundations 2V0-620VMware Certified Professional 6.5 - Data Center Virtualization 2V0-622VMware Certified Professional 6.5 - Data Center Virtualization Delta
2V0-622DVMware Certified Professional 7 - Cloud Management and Automation 2V0-731VMware Certified Professional - Digital Workspace 2018 Exam 2V0-761VMware Specialist: vSAN 6.x Exam
2VB-601VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6.5 - Data Center Virtualization Design 3V0-624VMware Certified Advanced Professional 7 - Desktop and Mobility Design 3V0-752VMware Cloud on AWS Management Exam 2019
5V0-31.19
VMware Certified Associate 6 - Network Virtualization Fundamentals
1V0-604
VMware Certified Associate 6 - Desktop and Mobility Fundamentals
1V0-605
VMware Certified Associate 6 - Network Visualization Fundamentals Exam
1V0-642
VMware Certified Associate - Digital Business Transformation (VCA-DBT)
1V0-701
Professional Horizon
2V0-51.18VMware Certified Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization 2V0-621VMware Certified Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization Delta
2V0-621D
VMware Certified Professional 6 - Cloud Management and Automation Beta
2V0-631
VMware Certified Professional 6 - Network Virtualization (NSX v6.2)
2V0-642
VMware Certified Professional 6 - Desktop and Mobility Beta
2V0-651
VMware Certified Professional 7 - Desktop and Mobility Exam
2V0-751
VMware Specialist: vRealize Operations 6.x ExamAdvanced Deploy vSphere 6.5 Exam 2018Advanced Deploy vRealize Automation 7.3 Exam 2018
2VB-6023V0-21.183V0-31.19
VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization Design
3V0-622
VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization Deployment Beta
3V0-623
VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Cloud Management and Automation Design
3V0-632
VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Cloud Management and Automation Deployment
3V0-633
VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Network Virtualization Deployment (VCAP6-NV Deploy)
3V0-643
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3V0-652
VMware Certified Advanced Professional 7 - Cloud Management and Automation Design Exam
3V0-732
VMware Cloud Provider Specialist Exam 2019VMware Certified Instructor on vSphere 5
5V0-32.19VCI550
Certifications
V Mware CertificationsC er tification Name
Ex am
VCAP6-DCV
VMware Certified Advanced Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization Design
3V0-622
VCP6-DCV
VMware Certified Professional 6 - Data Center Virtualization
2V0-621D
VCP6-DTM
VMware Certified Professional 6 - Desktop and Mobility
2V0-651
VCP6-NV
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2V0-642
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Exams
Cisco ExamsTitle
Exam
ICND Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1
100-105
CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate
200-125
Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
200-150
Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions
200-310
CCNA Cyber Ops Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
210-250
CCNA Cyber Ops Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations
210-255
CCNA Security Implementing Cisco Network Security
210-260
CCNP Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE v2.0)
300-101
CCNP Cisco IP Switched Networks (SWITCH v2.0)
300-115
CCNP Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT v2.0)
300-135
CCIE Routing and Switching Written
400-101
ICND Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2
200-105
Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
200-155
CCNA Wireless Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
200-355
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210-060
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210-065
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300-206
CCNP Security Implementing Cisco Secure Access Solutions (SISAS)
300-208
CCNP Security Implementing Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions (SIMOS)
300-209
CCNP Security Implementing Cisco Threat Control Solutions
300-210
Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures
300-320
CCIE Security Written Exam
400-251
Adopting The Cisco Business Architecture Approach
810-440
Applying Cisco Business Architecture Techniques
820-445
Cisco Customer Success Manager Specialist
820-602
Mastering The Cisco Business Architecture Discipline
840-450
Certifications
C isco CertificationsCertification Exam Certification Exam Certification Exam
CCENT 100-105 400-051
400-251
CCIE Collaboration
CCIE Security CCNA 200-301 300-801 300-701
CCNP Collaboration,
CCNP Security,200-125
DevNet Professional,300-835
DevNet Professional,300-735
CCNA Routing & SwitchingDevNet Specialist
DevNet Specialist
100-105 200-150
640-875
CCNA Data Center
CCNA Service Provider 200-105 200-155 640-878
300-101300-160
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300-115 300-165 300-510
300-135 300-170 300-515
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400-201
CCIE Service Provider 300-920 300-620 300-501
CCNP Service Provider,
300-401 300-625DevNet Professional,
300-535
DevNet Specialist
CCNP Enterprise
300-410 400-151 CCNA Wireless 200-355
CCIE Data Center 300-415 300-601
300-360
300-420 CCNP Data Center, 300-635 300-365 CCNP Wireless
300-425
300-320 300-370
300-430 300-101 300-375
CCNP Enterprise,CCDP
DevNet Professional300-435 300-115 CCIE Wireless 400-351
DevNet Specialist
CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure 300-401 CCDE 352-001 CCT Data Center 010-151
CCIE Enterprise Wireless 300-401 CCNA Industrial 200-601 CCT Routing & Switching 640-692
CCNA Cloud
210-451 CCNA Security 210-260 Business Architecture Analyst 810-440
210-455
300-206 Business Architecture Specialist 820-445
300-460 300-208 Business Architecture Practitioner 840-450
CCNP Cloud
300-465 300-209 Customer Success Manager Specialist 820-602
300-470 300-210300-070
CCNA Collaboration
CCNA Cyber Ops
300-475
300-701
300-075
CCNP Security
210-060
300-710
300-080
210-065
300-715
300-085
CCNA Collaboration
210-250
300-720
300-801
210-255
300-725
300-810
CCDA 200-310 300-730 300-815
300-820
Exams
Microsoft ExamsTitle
Exam
Designing and Deploying Microsoft Exchange Server 2016
70-345
Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
70-410
Administering Windows Server 2012
70-411
Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
70-412
MCSA Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014
70-461
MCSA Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases
70-462
MCSD Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
70-480
MCSD Programming in C#
70-483
MCSD Developing ASP.NET MVC Web Applications
70-486
MCSD Developing Windows Azure and Web Services
70-487
Configuring and Operating a Hybrid Cloud with Microsoft Azure Stack
70-537
Administering Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager and Cloud Services Integration
70-703
Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
70-740
MCSA Networking with Windows Server 2016
70-741
Identity with Windows Server 2016
70-742
Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA: Windows Server 2016
70-743
Securing Windows Server 2016
70-744
Developing SQL Databases
70-762
Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure
70-764
Implementing a SQL Data Warehouse
70-767
Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Power BI
70-778
Word 2016: Core Document Creation, Collaboration and Communication
77-725
Excel 2016: Core Data Analysis, Manipulation, and Presentation
77-727
Windows Server Administration Fundamentals
98-365
Security Fundamentals
98-367
Introduction to Programming Using Python
98-381
Designing and Implementing an Azure AI Solution Microsoft Azure Administrator Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies Microsoft Azure Architect Design Microsoft Azure DevOps Solutions Microsoft Azure Security Technologies Microsoft Azure Fundamentals Designing an Azure Data Solution Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement Core (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Sales Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 Unified Operations Core (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials
AI-100 AZ-103 AZ-203 AZ-300 AZ-301 AZ-400 AZ-500 AZ-900 DP-201 MB-200 MB-210 MB-220 MB-240 MB-300 MB-310
Exams
Title
Exam
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing MB-330: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management (beta) Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals Development, Extensions and Deployment for Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Windows 10 Managing Modern Desktops Microsoft 365 Identity and Services Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security Planning and Configuring a Messaging Platform (beta) Implementing a Hybrid and Secure Messaging Platform Microsoft 365 Messaging Administrator Certification Transition Deploying Microsoft 365 Teamwork Microsoft 365 Teamwork Administrator Certification Transition (beta) Microsoft 365 Security Administration Microsoft 365 Fundamentals
MB-320 MB-330 MB-900 MB6-894 MD-100 MD-101 MS-100 MS-101 MS-200 MS-201 MS-202 MS-300 MS-302 MS-500 MS-900
Technology Literacy for Educators
62-193
Deploying Enterprise Voice with Skype for Business 2015
70-333
Core Solutions of Microsoft Skype for Business 2015
70-334
Managing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2016
70-339
Managing Projects with Microsoft Project
70-343
Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM
70-348
Developing Mobile Apps
70-357
MCSE Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
70-413
MCSE Implementing an Advanced Server Infrastructure
70-414
Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
70-417
MCSA Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014
70-463
Developing Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases
70-464
Designing Database Solutions for Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-465
Implementing Data Models and Reports with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-466
Designing Business Intelligence Solutions with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
70-467
Designing and Providing Microsoft Licensing Solutions to Large Organizations
70-705
Software Asset Management (SAM) – Core
70-713
OEM Manufacturing and Deployment for Windows 10
70-735
Implementing a Software-Defined Datacenter
70-745
Querying Data with Transact-SQL
70-761
Provisioning SQL Databases
70-765
Developing SQL Data Models
70-768
Implementing Microsoft Azure Cosmos DB Solutions
70-777
Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel
70-779
OEM Preinstallation
74-697
Exams
TitleExam
Windows Operating System Fundamentals
98-349
Software Development Fundamentals
98-361
Database Fundamentals
98-364
Networking Fundamentals
98-366
Mobility and Devices Fundamentals
98-368
Cloud Fundamentals
98-369
HTML5 App Development Fundamentals
98-375
Introduction to Programming Using Block-Based Languages (Touch Develop)
98-380
Introduction to Programming Using JavaScript
98-382
Introduction to Programming Using HTML and CSS
98-383
Introduction to Programming Using Java
98-388
Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure (beta) Implementing an Azure Data Solution Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Online Deployment Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Installation Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Sales Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Marketing Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Field Service Financial Management in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Distribution and Trade in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations Microsofr Dynamics 365 for Retail Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Talent Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid
DP-100 DP-200 MB-230 MB2-706 MB2-707 MB2-708 MB2-710 MB2-711 MB2-712 MB2-713 MB2-714 MB2-716 MB2-718 MB2-719 MB2-877 MB6-895 MB6-896 MB6-897 MB6-898 MS-301
Certifications
Microsoft Certifications
Certification Name
Exam
Certification Name
Exam
Azure Security Engineer Associate
AZ-500
70-483
Universal Windows Platform
Dynamics 365 Fundamentals
MB-900
70-357
Dynamics 365 for Marketing Functional Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Field Service Functional Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Financials Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200
70-480
MB-220
Web Applications
70-483
MB-200
70-486
MB-240
70-410
MB-300
Windows Server 2012
70-411
MB-310
70-412
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Manufacturing FunctionalMB-300
70-740
Consultant Associate
Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations, Supply Chain Management
MB-320 Windows Server 2016
70-741
MB-300 70-742
Functional Consultant AssociateMB-330
MB2-716Microsoft 365 Certified Fundamentals MS-900 MB2-718
MS-200
MB2-719Messaging Administrator Associate
MS-201Business Applications
MB6-895MS-202
MB6-896Modern Desktop Administrator Associate
MD-100
MD-101
MB6-897
MB6-898
Security Administrator Associate
MS-50070-744
MS-300 70-745
Teamwork Administrator AssociateMS-301 Core Infrastructure
70-413
MS-302 70-414Azure Administrator Associate AZ-103 70-537
Azure AI Engineer AssociateAI-100
70-464
Azure Data Engineer Associate
DP-200 70-465
DP-201 70-466Azure Data Scientist Associate DP-100 Data Management and 70-467
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
MB-200 Analytics
70-762
MB-210 70-767Azure Developer Associate AZ-203 70-768
Azure Solutions Architect Expert
AZ-300 70-777
AZ-301
70-345Azure DevOps Engineer Expert AZ-400 MCSE Productivity Solutions 70-339
Enterprise Administrator Expert
Dynamics 365 for Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate
MS-100
Expert
70-333
MS-101
70-334
MB-200
70-357
MB-230
MCSD Exams Dumps
70-486
Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals AZ-900 70-487
Certifications
Certification Name Exam Certification Name Exam
Dynamics 365 for Sales Functional Consultant Associate
BI Reporting
MB-200
98-349
MB-210
98-350
70-778
98-351
70-779
98-352
70-764 98-353
Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations
SQL 2016 BI Development
SQL 2016 Database Administration
SQL 2016 Database Development
70-765
98-354
MB6-894
98-355
MTA Exams Dumps
70-767
98-356
70-768
98-357
70-764
98-358
70-765
98-359
70-761
98-360
70-762
98-361
70-461 98-362
SQL Server 2012/2014
70-462
70-463
Exams
CompTIA ExamsTitle
Exam
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1
220-1001
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2
220-1002
CompTIA A+ (220-901)
220-901
CompTIA A+ (220-902)
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CAS-003 CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002) CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 1 CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI 2
CAS-003 CLO-001 CS0-001 CV0-002 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ 2018 N10-007CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam CompTIA Server+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals Cleveland Community College Certified Mission Critical Operator Beta CompTIA Project+ CompTIA CTT+ Essentials
PT0-001 SK0-004 SY0-501 XK0-004 CAS-002 FC0-U11 FC0-U21 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 FC0-Z51 MC1-001 PK0-004 TK0-201
Certifications
C ompTIA CertificationsC er tification Name
Ex am
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1001
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-1002
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-901
CompTIA A+ 2019
220-902
CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA Cloud Essentials CompTIA CySA+ CompTIA Cloud+ CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA IT Fundamentals CompTIA Linux+ CompTIA Linux+
CAS-003 CLO-001 CLO-002 CS0-001 CV0-002 FC0-U51 FC0-U61 LX0-103 LX0-104CompTIA Network+ N10-007CompTIA Project+ CompTIA PenTest+ CompTIA Security+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA CTT+ CompTIA Linux+
PK0-004 PT0-001 SY0-501 TK0-201 TK0-202 TK0-203 XK0-004
Other IT Certication Roadmap
Adobe
BEGINNER/NOVICE
ACA
INTERMEDIATE
ACI
EXPERT
ACE
Aruba
INTERMEDIATE
ACMP
Cloud Security Alliance
ADVANCED
CCSK
The Cloud School
ADVANCED
CCP
CWNP
INTERMEDIATE
CWNA
CWTS
Citrix
INTERMEDIATE
CCIA
ADVANCED
CCA
EC Council
INTERMEDIATE
CHFI
CEH
GIAC
INTERMEDIATE
GCIH
GISP GSEC
HDI Global
BEGINNER/NOVICE
HDI DST
HDI SCA
INTERMEDIATE
HDI CI
HDI DSM HDI SCM
Hewlett-Packard
EXPERT
ASE/CSE
ISACA
ADVANCED
CISA
EXPRT
CGEIT CISM
ISC 2ADVANCED
CSSLP
EXPERT
CISSP
Checkpoint
CCSA CCSE
Linux Professional Institute
BEGINNER/NOVICE
Linux Essentials
INTERMEDIATE
LPIC-1 Linux Professional
ADVANCED
LPIC-2 Linux Professional
EXPERT
LPIC-3 Linux Professional
Mile2
EXPERT
CPTE
MongoDB University
INTERMEDIATE
MongoDB Certified Developer
Associate
SUSE
INTERMEDIATE
SCA
ADVANCED
SCE
EXPERT
SEA
Novell
ADVANCED
CNE
Office of Government Commerce/Prince2
INTERMEDIATE
Prince2 Foundation
EXPERT
Prince2 Practitioner
PMI
INTERMEDIATE
CAPM
ADVANCED
PMP
Red Hat
INTERMEDIATE
RHCSA
ADVANCED
RHCE
EXPERT
RHCA
Rackspace
INTERMEDIATE
RCT
Scrum Alliance
EXPERT
CSP
Salesforce
INTERMEDIATE
SALESFORCE
Zend
INTERMEDIATE
PHP Certification
ADVANCED
Framework 2 Certification
