TEST BANK For Human Biology 17th Edition. Sylvia Mader, Michael Windelspecht. by welldoneassistant

Human Biology 17e Sylvia Mader, Michael Windelspecht (Test Bank All Chapters, 100% Original Verified, A+ Grade) Answers At The End Of Each Chapter Chapter 1 Student name:__________ 1) The scientific study of life is called A) biology. B) ecology. C) anatomy. D) biochemistry. E) limnology. 2) A complex individual that consists of organ systems is known as a(n) A) community. B) population. C) organism. D) tissue. E) species.

3) All of the ecosystems on the planet together are called the A) atmosphere. B) hydrosphere. C) biosphere. D) lithosphere. E) stratosphere.

4) In a swamp, all of the alligators would represent a(n) A) organism. B) population. C) community. D) ecosystem. E) biosphere.

Chapter 1 5) The region in which populations interact with each other and with the physical environment

is called a(n) A) entity. B) ecosystem. C) biosystem. D) community. E) biosphere.

6) All of the changes that occur starting from the time an egg is fertilized and continuing

through childhood, adolescence, and adulthood are called A) metabolism. B) evolution. C) homeostasis. D) reproduction. E) development.

7) Which of the following statements most correctly defines homeostasis? A) All living organisms are alike. B) Living organisms do not change much over time. C) Human beings and other animals acquire materials and energy when they eat food. D) It takes energy to maintain the organization of the cell. E) Cells and organisms maintain a fairly constant internal environment.

8) The face of a sunflower turns to follow the sun as it moves across the sky. This is an example

of A) B) C) D) E)

metabolism. homeostasis. response to stimuli. development. reproduction.

Chapter 1 9) Choose the correct order (1–5) of increasing complexity/organization. A) B) C) D) E)

(1) tissues, (2) organ systems, (3) cells, (4) organs, (5) organism (1) cells, (2) organ systems, (3) tissues, (4) organs, (5) organism (1) tissues, (2) organs, (3) organ systems, (4) cells, (5) organism (1) cells, (2) tissues, (3) organs, (4) organ systems, (5) organism (1) organism, (2) organ systems, (3) organs, (4) tissues, (5) cells

10) Fish have scales that enable them to live in a water environment. This is an example of A) homeostasis. B) adaptation. C) metabolism. D) development. E) cellular organization.

11) The domain Eukarya contains________ kingdom(s). A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five

12) Traditions, beliefs, and values are considered what aspect of human life? A) communicative B) cultural C) instructional D) biological E) chemical

13) The cell you are examining under the microscope appears to contain a nucleus. This

organism belongs to the domain A) Bacteria. B) Archaea. C) Eukarya. D) Animalia. E) Fungi.

Chapter 1 14) Which organisms are most closely related to humans? A) spiders B) earthworms C) parakeets D) meerkats E) snakes

15) Which group of primates are humans most closely related to? A) monkeys B) apes C) prosimians D) lemurs

16) Which feature makes humans unique among animals? A) We walk on two legs. B) We have a large brain. C) We have a language that allows for the communication of information and

experiences symbolically. D) We are omnivores and can eat a wide diversity of foods.

17) Humans clear forests to grow crops, and they build houses and cities. What are these an

example of? A) how humans modify the biosphere B) how humans preserve ecosystems C) the high value humans place on biodiversity D) the positive impact of humans on life on Earth E) how humans do not need the rest of life on Earth

18) ________ observations are supported by factual information, while________ observations

involve personal judgment. A) Subjective; analytical B) Objective; analytical C) Objective; subjective D) Objective; hypothetical E) Subjective; theoretical

Chapter 1 19) Which of the following statements is an objective observation? A) This milk tastes funny. B) This package is larger than that one. C) I like this picture. D) This mattress feels hard to me. E) I think I am going to be sick.

20) What is the unifying principle of the biological sciences? A) technology B) anatomy C) biochemistry D) taxonomy E) evolution

21) Where on a graph can you find the information that the graph pertains to? A) The x-axis only. B) The y-axis only. C) The dot points that are connected by the lines of the graph. D) The top of each bar in a bar graph. E) The x-axis and y-axis.

22) The tentative explanation to be tested is called A) a theory. B) a hunch. C) a hypothesis. D) the data. E) the conclusion.

23) Which type of graph can be used to depict the relationship between two quantities? A) circle B) pillar C) line D) point

Chapter 1 24) The information collected during the experiment or observation is called A) a theory. B) a hunch. C) the hypothesis. D) the data. E) the conclusion.

25) Which topic is not supported by a general understanding of science? A) climate change B) biodiversity C) emerging diseases D) culture

26) The cause of stomach ulcers appears to be A) excess stomach acid. B) the bacterium Helicobacter pylori. C) drinking too much coffee. D) extreme stress. E) diets rich in meat products.

27) Which of the following statements is a hypothesis? A) If a student buys a meal plan, they will eat more vegetables. B) The student gained 5 lbs during their first year at college. C) The student failed the test. D) I like my biology class better than my other classes.

28) A controlled study in which neither the patient nor the examiner is aware of whether the

patient is receiving a treatment, is called a(n) A) statistical study. B) double-blind study. C) variable study. D) adaptive study. E) blind study.

Chapter 1 29) In an experiment designed to test the effect of temperature on goldfish respiration, the

temperatures that were changed represent what type of variable? A) control B) responding C) experimental D) correlative E) placebo

30) If the control group in an experiment shows the same results as the test group, the treatment

was successful. ⊚ true ⊚ false

31) To make all subjects think they are receiving the same treatment, what are patients in the

control group given? A) a placebo B) the full dose of the drug C) a 50% dose of the drug D) a 75% dose of the drug

32) One of the difficulties with publication of research in scientific journals is that it A) is technical and may be difficult for the general person to read. B) is often out of context or misunderstood. C) is unverified and usually not referenced. D) displays bias. E) is designed to convince readers to purchase a product.

33) Which of the following URLs would you trust least in writing a scientific paper? A) .com B) .gov C) .edu D) .org E) both .edu and .gov

Chapter 1 34) An important part of scientific research is repeatability. ⊚ true ⊚ false

35) The standard error tells A) how often the examiner made an error. B) how often the experimental variable was tested. C) the relationship between the control and test groups. D) whether or not the research has been published in a scientific journal. E) how uncertain a particular value is.

36) To be accepted scientifically, what does the probability value need to be less than? A) 5% B) 8% C) 10% D) 15%

37) Which of the following is an example of correlation without causation? A) HPV can cause cervical cancer. B) Illegal drug use causes an increase in crime. C) Helicobacter pylori can cause ulcers. D) People who commit crimes also consume bread. E) Parents have children.

38) In a graph, the experimental variable is plotted on the A) x-axis. B) y-axis. C) x- and y-axis. D) z-axis. E) x- and z-axis.

Chapter 1 39) Choose the following interest group that should be held most responsible for the future roles

of new scientific technologies. A) scientists B) politicians C) clergy D) educators E) everyone

40) In conducting a review of the literature on the Internet, which of the following sources would

be the least reliable? A) The Centers of Disease Control B) The Cystic Fibrosis Foundation C) The National Institute of Health D) The Pasteur Institute E) Astrology and Medicine

41) After studying biology, you should A) become an animal rights activist. B) be better able to make wise decisions regarding your own well-being and the Earth's. C) get a high paying job as a biologist. D) understand all there is to know about humans and biology. E) dislike anything to do with biology.

42) The application of scientific knowledge to the interests of humans is known as A) science. B) technology. C) research. D) invention.

Chapter 1 43) Scientists who have a financial stake in a company are now required to state that when they

do research. This is an example of A) ethics in science. B) financial planning. C) a new business model. D) a biotechnology revolution. E) statistical significance.

44) Which of the following statements is most correct when considering the atomic bomb and the

use of radiation in cancer therapy? A) Science and technology are not risk-free. B) Science and technology are wrong. C) Science and technology are good for humanity. D) Science and technology always provide value to people.

45) Which of the following kingdoms is not classified under the domain Eukarya? A) Fungi B) Animalia C) Protista D) Archaea

46) Which characteristic is not found among all living organisms? A) breathe oxygen B) are organized C) have the ability to acquire materials and energy D) can reproduce and grow

47) Identify the first step of the scientific method. A) Make an observation. B) Develop a hypothesis. C) Design an experiment. D) Analyze the results and draw a conclusion.

Chapter 1 48) Which of the following statements correctly describes the conditions affecting biodiversity? A) Habitat loss and climate change are accelerating species extinction. B) Humans are preventing the loss of biodiversity. C) The Earth's biodiversity is increasing every year. D) Climate change is helping a large number of species adapt to new environments.

49) Which of the following is considered the greatest challenge facing science and society? A) pollution B) habitat loss C) loss of biodiversity D) climate change

50) The general public needs to have an understanding of science in order to make informed

decisions about our futures and our world. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Chapter 1 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 1 1) A 2) C 3) C 4) B 5) B 6) E 7) E 8) C 9) D 10) B 11) D 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) B 16) C 17) A 18) C 19) B 20) E 21) E 22) C 23) C 24) D 25) D 26) B 27) A 28) B 29) C 30) FALSE 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) TRUE 35) E 36) A 37) D

Chapter 1 38) A 39) E 40) E 41) B 42) B 43) A 44) A 45) D 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) D 50) TRUE

Chapter 2 Student name:__________ 1) The smallest unit of an element that still retains the chemical and physical properties of that

element is called a(n) A) isotope. B) nucleus. C) atom. D) molecular bond. E) neutrino.

2) In an electrically neutral atom, the number of protons always equals the number of A) electrons. B) neutrons. C) neutrons and protons. D) quarks. E) neutrinos.

3) How many elements occur naturally? A) 112 B) 98 C) 64 D) 32 E) 6

4) The atomic number of an atom is determined by the number of A) protons. B) neutrons. C) electrons. D) protons and neutrons. E) protons and electrons.

Chapter 2 5) Which of the following structures is a basic building block that cannot be broken down by

chemical means? A) compound B) molecule C) element D) organism

6) Why is He positioned above Ne in the periodic table? A) They both have the same atomic mass. B) They both have the same number of electrons in their outermost orbital. C) They both have a full outermost orbital. D) They both have the same atomic number. E) They both have the same number of protons in their nuclei.

7) Be has an atomic number of 4 and an atomic mass of 9. How many protons does it have? A) 4 B) 5 C) 9 D) 13 E) 7

8) What is the symbol for sodium? A) Na B) S C) So D) N E) Dm

9) Which of the following elements will have more than two electrons and have a full outer

orbital? A) He B) Ne C) C D) N E) O

Chapter 2 10) Isotopes of an element differ due to the number of A) protons. B) neutrons. C) electrons. D) both protons and electrons. E) neutrinos.

11) Carbon dating is a common method employed in dating certain kinds of fossils. It is based on

the radioactive decay of an isotope of carbon (C14). Referring to the atomic number of carbon attained from the periodic table, how many neutrons does C14 have? A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 12 E) 14

12) What substance is used in medicine to produce various images of organs and tissues? A) a mixture B) a tracer C) an emulsion D) a colloid E) a sensor

13) Which structure is used as a tracer in medical procedures? A) compound B) molecule C) radioisotope D) elements

14) Two or more atoms joined together through the sharing of electrons are called a(n) A) atomic unit. B) molecule. C) compound. D) isotope. E) ion.

Chapter 2 15) Ca3(PO4)2 represents a(n) A) element. B) mixture. C) compound. D) isotope. E) atom.

16) Atoms that share electrons have what type of bonds? A) covalent B) neutral C) hydrogen D) colloidal E) ionic

17) CaCl2 is a salt that forms as the result of what type of bond? A) covalent B) hydrogen C) polar D) nonpolar E) ionic

18) Which molecule is the most abundant in the human body? A) carbon B) water C) calcium D) hydrogen

19) Which type of bond is responsible for holding two water molecules together, creating the

properties of water? A) hydrogen B) covalent C) ionic D) polar E) double covalent

Chapter 2 20) Hydrogen bonds A) result from the loss of neutrons by an atom. B) result in the formation of salts. C) involve the loss and gain of electrons. D) involve the sharing of electrons. E) are relatively weak and can be broken rather easily.

21) The reason water is polar is because A) in polar molecules atoms share electrons evenly. B) the electrons spend more time circling the oxygen atom than the hydrogens. C) hydrophilic molecules interact with water. D) hydrophobic molecules do not interact with water. E) there is a transfer of electrons from the hydrogen to the oxygen.

22) Which of the following characteristics of water is most responsible for the sinking of the

Titanic? A) Water is liquid at room temperature. B) Water has a high heat of vaporization. C) The temperature of liquid water rises and falls slowly. D) Frozen water is less dense than liquid water. E) Water molecules are cohesive.

23) On a warm day in April, Tina jumped into the swimming pool. To her surprise, the water was

really cold. Which property of water did she discover? A) Water molecules are cohesive. B) The temperature of liquid water rises and falls slowly. C) Water possesses hydrogen bonds. D) Water is a polar molecule. E) Frozen water is less dense than liquid water.

Chapter 2 24) William noticed water mysteriously climbing up a capillary tube. This is an example of

which property of water? A) Frozen water is less dense than liquid water. B) The temperature of liquid water rises and falls slowly. C) Water molecules are cohesive. D) Water has a high heat of vaporization. E) Water is a solvent.

25) In an acidic solution, the number of H+ is A) less than the number of OH-. B) greater than the number of OH-. C) equal to the number of OH-. D) 3 times less than the number of OH-. E) 10 times less than the number of OH-.

26) A solution with a pH of 6 contains________ times________ hydrogen ions than a solution

with a pH of 7. A) 10; less B) 10; more C) 100; more D) 100; less

27) A solution containing 0.00001 moles of H+ has a pH of A) 3. B) 5. C) 7. D) 9. E) 11.

28) The presence of a buffer in our blood helps maintain homeostasis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Chapter 2 29) Joining small molecules (monomers) together to form longer chains (polymers) requires a

process called A) a hydrolysis reaction. B) a dehydration reaction. C) monomerization. D) emulsification. E) disassembly.

30) Which of the following is one of the four classes of organic molecules found in cells? A) vitamins B) lipids C) nutrients D) minerals E) nuclei

31) Biologically, when we refer to something as being organic it means that A) the organism was grown without herbicides. B) the organism was grown completely in water. C) the organism contains carbon and hydrogen. D) the organism contains carbon and oxygen.

32) Which combination of elements are required for a compound to be considered organic? A) carbon and oxygen B) sodium and carbon C) nitrogen and oxygen D) carbon and hydrogen

33) Which term refers to the breaking down of large substances into smaller ones? A) condensation B) hydrolysis C) synthesis D) polymerization

Chapter 2 34) Which substance is added to a compound during a hydrolysis reaction? A) water B) carbon C) hydrogen D) hydroxide

35) Which grouping of elements is found in carbohydrates? A) C - H - O B) C - H - P C) H - O - Cl D) N - S - O E) Ca - H - O

36) Sugars with three to seven carbon atoms are called A) monosaccharides. B) disaccharides. C) trisaccharides. D) polysaccharides. E) steroids.

37) A potato stores a reserve of energy in its underground tuber in the form of A) glycogen. B) fat. C) protein. D) vitamins. E) starch.

38) Which of the following is a monosaccharide? A) glucose B) sucrose C) lactose D) maltose

Chapter 2 39) Which polysaccharide is stored as a long term energy source in the body of animals? A) glycogen B) glucose C) cellulose D) starch E) chitin

40) What passes through the digestive tract as fiber or roughage? A) maltose B) glucose C) glycogen D) starch E) cellulose

41) Which of the following foods are a good source of fiber? A) peaches B) whole-wheat bread C) peanuts D) bran cereal E) butter

42) Which polysaccharide is branched the most? A) cellulose B) starch C) glycogen D) glucose E) fructose

43) Which polysaccharide is consumed as a source of fiber? A) cellulose B) glycogen C) glucose D) chitin E) starch

Chapter 2 44) Identify the main function of carbohydrates in the body. A) Act as genetic material. B) Provide structural support. C) Serve as a layer of insulation. D) Function as short-term energy source.

45) Our body is capable of converting starch into glycogen. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) Starch, cellulose, and glycogen are alike in that they A) are all made of glucose. B) contain the same number of side chains. C) have the same types of bonds between the monomer units. D) are all found in animals. E) can all be digested by our bodies.

47) A fat contains how many fatty acids? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

48) How are fats, phospholipids, and steroids alike? A) They are all solid at room temperature. B) They each contain a polar phosphate group. C) They each contain only one fatty acid. D) They do not dissolve in water. E) They all contain at least one carbon ring.

Chapter 2 49) A fatty acid that contains only single bonds between the carbon atoms is considered A) saturated. B) unsaturated. C) trans unsaturated. D) a cholesterol. E) a steroid.

50) Fats are usually of animal origin, while oils are usually of plant origin. ⊚ true ⊚ false

51) The sex hormones belong to which category of lipids? A) steroids B) fats C) oils D) triglycerides E) phospholipids

52) The membranes of cells are composed primarily of A) phospholipids. B) fats. C) oils. D) steroids. E) triglycerides.

53) Fats and oils function better than other biological molecules as energy-storage molecules

because of the carbon they contain. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Chapter 2 54) The monomer unit of a protein is A) fatty acids. B) amino acids. C) monosaccharides. D) polysaccharides. E) nucleic acids.

55) What makes one amino acid different from another amino acid? A) the central carbon B) the R group C) the amino group D) the carboxyl group E) the carbon ring

56) Which of the following is a function of proteins? A) quick energy B) genetic material C) main component of the cell membrane D) enzymes E) digest cell waste

57) Why does a protein not function after it has been denatured? A) The normal bonding between the R groups has been disturbed and the protein loses its

normal shape. B) The normal bonding between the beta sheets has been disturbed and the protein loses its normal shape. C) The normal bonding between the hydrogens in the alpha helix has been disturbed and the protein loses its normal shape. D) The R groups form additional bonds, causing the structure to become more compact. E) The normal peptide bonds are ruptured and the individual amino acids are not held together anymore.

Chapter 2 58) An alpha helix or a beta sheet are examples of what level of protein structure? A) secondary B) primary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) octagon

59) Which level of protein structure is characterized by alpha helices and beta pleated sheets in

which hydrogen bonding holds the shape in place? A) primary structure B) secondary structure C) tertiary structure D) quaternary structure E) pentagonal structure

60) When two amino acids combine via a dehydration reaction A) a peptide bond is formed. B) the R groups are lost. C) water is added to begin the reaction. D) the carboxyl group of each join together. E) the amino group of each join together.

61) The primary level of protein structure is composed of amino acids in a linear sequence joined

by peptide bonds. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62) The sides of the DNA ladder (backbone) are A) alternating carbons and nitrogens. B) the R groups. C) the nitrogenous bases. D) alternating nitrogens and phosphates. E) sugars and phosphates.

Chapter 2 63) When an ATP molecule is used to supply energy, which of the following occurs? A) A phosphate bond is added. B) A phosphate bond is broken. C) Oxygen is removed. D) Oxygen is added. E) An adenine is added.

64) Which of the following nitrogenous bases is found in DNA? A) cytosine B) phosphorous C) uracil D) guanasine E) ribonucleic acid

65) Which of the following is a feature of a nucleotide? A) potassium B) nitrogenous base C) six-ring sugar D) an R group E) a fatty acid

66) A species has 29% of its DNA composed of the nucleotide containing guanine (G). What

percent does the nitrogen base thymine (T) equal? A) 58% B) 42% C) 21% D) 67% E) 29%

67) ATP carries energy in the form of high-energy A) carbohydrate bonds. B) peptide bonds. C) lipid bonds. D) phosphate bonds. E) hydrogen bonds.

Chapter 2 68) Identify the primary function of RNA in the human body. A) stores genetic information B) plays a role in the expression of genes C) functions as a long-term energy storage molecule D) provides structural support for the cell membrane

69) What structure is considered the energy currency of the body? A) ATP B) ADP C) amino acids D) polysaccharides

70) Which of the following is not one of the properties of water? A) The frozen form is more dense than the liquid form. B) Water has a high heat capacity. C) Water has a high heat of vaporization D) Water molecules are cohesive and adhesive.

Chapter 2 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 2 1) C 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) C 6) C 7) A 8) A 9) B 10) B 11) C 12) B 13) C 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) E 18) B 19) A 20) E 21) B 22) D 23) B 24) C 25) B 26) B 27) B 28) TRUE 29) B 30) B 31) C 32) D 33) B 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) E

Chapter 2 38) A 39) A 40) E 41) [A, B, C, D] 42) C 43) A 44) D 45) TRUE 46) A 47) C 48) D 49) A 50) TRUE 51) A 52) A 53) FALSE 54) B 55) B 56) D 57) A 58) A 59) B 60) A 61) TRUE 62) E 63) B 64) A 65) B 66) C 67) D 68) B 69) A 70) A

Chapter 3 Student name:__________ 1) What are the folds in mitochondrial membranes called? A) matrix B) cristae C) rugae D) lumen E) villi

2) The gel-like fluid substance within a mitochondrion is called the A) matrix. B) cristae. C) rugae. D) effluvium. E) villi.

3) The sum of all of the chemical reactions that occur in a cell collectively are called A) respiration. B) anabolism. C) photosynthesis. D) metabolism. E) reaction summary.

4) In a metabolic pathway, substrate Z is broken down to form products Y and X. Y is further

broken down into products V and W. How many enzymes are required for this metabolic pathway? A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five

Chapter 3 5) Why is glycolysis believed to have evolved early in the history of life? A) It breaks down sugar. B) It produces energy. C) It is present in most every type of cell. D) It does not require oxygen. E) It splits a 6-carbon molecule into two 3-carbon molecules.

6) Which of the following steps in the breakdown of glucose directly requires the use of

oxygen? A) glycolysis B) citric acid cycle C) electron transport chain D) acetyl CoA conversion

7) What is the maximum number of ATP molecules produced during aerobic respiration? A) 38 B) 36 C) 32 D) 2 E) 4

8) Idenfity which of the following is not a potential source of energy for the human body. A) glucose B) fat C) protein D) DNA

9) Which of the following is the first step in cellular respiration? A) electron transport chain B) glycolysis C) pyruvate conversion D) citric acid cycle

Chapter 3 10) The first day of football practice was rough on the squad. During practice, the players

complained of cramps and sore muscles. Although there is evidence to suggest that many different factors may contribute to this, which of the following is most likely to play a role in the soreness? A) glucose B) alcohol C) carbon dioxide D) carbon monoxide E) lactate

11) Which term refers to the movement of large molecules across the cell membrane into the

cell? A) B) C) D)

exocytosis endocytosis pinocytosis diffusion

12) Since all organisms carry on cellular respiration, all living cells must contain mitochondria. ⊚ true ⊚ false

13) If the mitochondrion is the result of endosymbiosis, what membrane of the mitochondrion

represents the engulfing vesicle? A) the outer mitochondrial membrane B) vacuole C) cristae D) matrix E) grana

14) Fermentation results in a greater yield of ATP than aerobic respiration. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Chapter 3 15) During the breakdown of ATP, heat is released. ⊚ true ⊚ false

16) If you could remove all the phosphate in the cell, what would happen to the ATP cycle? A) It would stop when all the ATP had been converted into ADP. B) It would stop when all the ADP had been converted into ATP. C) It would cycle faster because the lack of phosphate would drive the cycle. D) It would cycle faster because of the buildup of ATP. E) It would not affect the ATP cycle.

17) ________ are the fundamental units that make up all living things. A) Compartments B) Cells C) Chromosomes D) Coelom E) Cristae

18) The size of a metabolizing cell is limited by its A) extracellular matrix. B) function. C) nuclear size. D) surface-area-to-volume ratio. E) genome size.

19) Whose work proved conclusively that spontaneous generation of life from nonlife was not

possible? A) Louis Pasteur B) Charles Darwin C) John Ray D) Walther Flemming E) Georges Cuvier

Chapter 3 20) The reason that metabolizing cells are small in size is because A) cells influence nearby cells to divide. B) the surface area of a cell must be able to accomplish nutrient/waste exchange. C) cells need to dissipate heat effectively. D) mitosis occurs before cells reach a certain size. E) cells need to communicate with adjacent cells.

21) In developing embryos such as a chicken, what restores the amount of surface area needed

for exchange requirements? A) respiration B) catabolism C) anabolism D) cell division E) assimilation

22) If a cube has sides of 3 nm, what are the surface area and the volume of the cube? A) 24 nm2, 8 nm3 B) 38 nm2, 16 nm3 C) 54 nm2, 27 nm3 D) 64 nm2, 24 nm3 E) 18 nm2, 6 nm3

23) What is the name of a photograph of a specimen obtained with a microscope? A) negative B) dermatome C) thermograph D) micrograph E) chromatograph

24) Viruses are not made up of cells. According to cell theory, this means what? A) Viruses can cause disease. B) Cells come only from pre-existing cells. C) Cells can be infected by viruses. D) Viruses are not living. E) Cells and viruses are the same thing.

Chapter 3 25) Brett needs to distinguish two points that are 0.5 mm apart. What is the easiest way to do

this? A) B) C) D) E)

Use a transmission electron microscope. Use a compound light microscope. Use his eyes. Use a magnifying glass. Use a scanning electron microscope.

26) The light microscope has a resolving power of A) 0.1 mm. B) 0.01 mm. C) 0.0001 mm. D) 0.000001 mm. E) 0.00000001 mm.

27) What type of microscopy provides a three-dimensional view of the surface of an object? A) compound light microscope B) transmission electron microscope C) scanning electron microscope D) phase contrast microscope E) ultraviolet microscope

28) Angela would like to look at living algae from pond water. What type of equipment should

she use? A) compound light microscope B) transmission electron microscope C) scanning electron microscope D) telescope E) her naked eye

29) Biologists classify cells into two broad categories—animals and plants. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Chapter 3 30) Which of the following structures is present in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes? A) plasma membrane B) nucleus C) endoplasmic reticulum D) Golgi body E) mitochondria

31) Because bacteria are prokaryotes, they do not have DNA. ⊚ true ⊚ false

32) The phospholipid bilayer that surrounds/maintains the integrity of a cell is called a A) plasma membrane. B) Sanger enclosure. C) hydrophobic membrane. D) dialysis membrane. E) mosaic membrane.

33) What is the name of the semi-fluid medium inside the cell? A) nucleolus B) cytoplasm C) organelle D) cytoskeleton E) mitochondrion

34) Which of the following cellular structures is not considered an organelle? A) mitochondria B) lysosome C) Golgi body D) cytoplasm

Chapter 3 35) The plasma membrane contains how many layers of phospholipids? A) one B) two C) four D) eight E) sixteen

36) Paleontologists have discovered ancient prokaryotic fossils dated at over 3.5 billion years

old. These fossils resemble prokaryotes that are capable of living in extreme conditions such as high temperature and salinity. What domain do these prokaryotes belong to? A) Protists B) Protoctista C) Archaea D) Archetista E) Eukarya

37) Which statement describes the possible origins of cell organelles in eukaryotes? A) invagination of the plasma membrane to form endoplasmic reticulum B) incorporation of engulfed heterotrophic bacteria to form mitochondria C) incorporation of engulfed autotrophic cyanobacteria to form chloroplasts D) a symbiotic relationship between a host cell and a prokaryote that was taken up but

not destroyed E) a divine being created the organelles

38) Archaea are considered the evolutionary precursors to eukaryotic cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Chapter 3 39) In the fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane, the phospholipid molecules are oriented

so that the________ heads are facing the outside environment and the________ tails are facing the interior of the membrane. A) hydrophobic; hydrophilic B) hydrophilic; hydrophobic C) autotrophic; heterotrophic D) heterotrophic; autotrophic E) ectothermic; endothermic

40) Which of the following is a function of the plasma membrane? A) synthesizes ATP to power transport of substances into and out of the cell B) serves as a boundary between all eukaryotic cells and their cell wall C) maintains the shape of a plant cell D) contains the genetic information E) marks the cell as belonging to a particular individual

41) Which model currently describes the structure of the plasma membrane? A) endosymbiont model B) fluid-mosaic model C) plasmagel-plasmasol model D) lock and key model E) induced-fit model

42) A short chain of sugar attached to a protein molecule on the plasma membrane is called A) a protomembrane. B) a protosugar. C) a glycocalyx. D) a glycolipid. E) a glycoprotein.

Chapter 3 43) Which of the following can cross the plasma membrane because of its selective

permeability? A) gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide B) ions C) large, polar molecules D) large, non-polar molecules E) glycoproteins

44) The movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane is called A) denaturation. B) osmosis. C) dispersion. D) dissociation. E) reconstitution.

45) During a hurricane, salt water invades fresh water marshes causing many of the plants to die.

The plants are killed because the salt water solution is________ to the plants, drawing water from their cells. A) isotonic B) hypotonic C) mesotonic D) oligotonic E) hypertonic

46) What is the function of cholesterol in the plasma membrane? A) cell marker B) receptor C) support D) channel E) enzyme

Chapter 3 47) A solution is at equilibrium across a plasma membrane. If 50 molecules were to enter the

cell, how many molecules would need to exit the cell in order to maintain the equilibrium? A) 50 B) 75 C) 25 D) 0 E) 100

48) Often when a person is admitted to the hospital, an intravenous solution of normal saline is

begun. Since this does not harm the patient, what is the tonicity of normal saline compared to your blood? A) hypertonic B) isotonic C) hypotonic D) pretonic E) osmotonic

49) Choose the CORRECT statement about solute concentrations or particles inside and outside

the cell. A) In a hypertonic solution, there are more particles inside the cell. B) In a hypotonic solution, there are more particles outside the cell. C) In an isotonic solution, the amount of water inside and outside the cell is equal. D) In a hypertonic solution, there is more water outside the cell. E) In a hypotonic solution, there is more water inside the cell.

50) Brad placed a drop of blood in some distilled water. What happened to the red blood cell? A) The cells shrunk. B) The cells burst. C) The cells did not change. D) The cells divided into two identical cells. E) The cellular metabolism increased in rate.

Chapter 3 51) The assisted transport of a molecule across the cell membrane without an expenditure of

energy is known as what? A) diffusion B) facilitated transport C) active transport D) osmosis E) crenation

52) When the sodium-potassium pump is activated, which molecules are pumped out of the cell? A) sodium B) potassium C) salt D) hydrogen

53) Sheree observed an amoeba feeding by engulfing the prey with its false feet or pseudopods.

This process is known as A) pinocytosis. B) phagocytosis. C) exocytosis. D) facilitated transport. E) osmosis.

54) During exocytosis, the phospholipids present in the vesicle membrane will end up in the

plasma membrane. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55) Which of the following processes moves large molecules across a membrane and out of the

cell? A) B) C) D) E)

exocytosis phagocytosis pinocytosis receptor-mediated endocytosis endocytosis

Chapter 3 56) What cell structure is composed of a stack of slightly curved saccules that are important in

packaging and secretion? A) mitochondria B) vacuoles C) Golgi apparatus D) lysosomes E) endoplasmic reticulum

57) What is the obvious dark-stained structure within the nucleus that contains ribosomal RNA

called? A) B) C) D) E)

nucleus nucleolus nuclear envelope nucleoplasm endoplasmic reticulum

58) The grainy-looking substance inside the nucleus is composed of A) phospholipids. B) DNA and proteins. C) nucleoplasm. D) ribosomes. E) mitochondria.

59) The nucleus of a cell in your thigh muscle contains the same genes as the nucleus of a cell in

your brain. ⊚ true ⊚ false

60) How large is a nuclear pore in the nuclear envelope? A) larger than a ribosome B) larger than the Golgi apparatus C) larger than the endoplasmic reticulum D) smaller than a ribosome E) smaller than a protein

Chapter 3 61) If a cell lacked ribosomes, it would not be able to A) form a spindle apparatus. B) synthesize proteins. C) respire oxidatively. D) break down fats. E) produce ATP.

62) What components make up the ribosomes? A) proteins and rRNA B) proteins and DNA C) lipids and rRNA D) carbohydrates and rRNA

63) What do the SER and RER have in common? A) the presence of ribosomes B) the formation of transport vesicles C) the synthesis of phospholipids D) the synthesis of proteins E) the processing and modification of proteins

64) What is the main function of the ribosomes in the cell? A) to synthesize proteins B) to synthesize DNA C) to break down proteins into individual amino acids D) to form the nuclear envelope E) to provide strength and structural support for the cell membrane

65) Which of the following would be a way of finishing this hypothesis about the function of the

Golgi apparatus? If the Golgi apparatus is involved in packaging products for secretion, then A) vesicles must travel from the Golgi to the cell surface. B) vesicles must travel from the RER and SER to the Golgi apparatus. C) the Golgi apparatus must be part of the endomembrane system. D) the Golgi apparatus must consist of 3 to 20 slightly curved sacs. E) the Golgi apparatus would contain proteins.

Chapter 3 66) Which organelle is involved in packaging and shipping cellular materials? A) nucleus B) nucleolus C) mitochondria D) endoplasmic reticulum E) Golgi apparatus

67) What cellular organelle is especially abundant in phagocytic white blood cells? A) nuclei B) nucleoli C) Golgi apparati D) lysosomes E) ribosomes

68) Which of the following is associated with the cytoskeleton? A) ribosomes B) microtubules C) microbodies D) attaching filaments E) gap junctions

69) Which of the following protein fibers is used for cellular movement and are extremely thin in

size? A) B) C) D) E)

actin filaments intermediate filaments microtubules centrosome cilia

70) Centrosomes are associated with A) ribosomes. B) mitochondria. C) chromosomes. D) microtubules. E) lysosomes.

Chapter 3 71) Which protein filaments are bundled together to form cilia? A) microtubules B) actin filaments C) intermediate filaments D) centrosomes

72) Which of the following is a function of the cytoskeleton? A) maintain a cell's shape B) processing proteins C) assemble organelles D) exocytosis E) endocytosis

73) Which structure in the human body will use flagella to move? A) sperm B) eggs C) lining of the respiratory tract D) lining of the uterine tubes E) lining of the urinary system

74) A malfunction with the microtubules would interfere with mitosis and meiosis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

75) Which cellular junction connects the cytoskeletons of adjacent cells to each other? A) adhesion B) gap C) tight D) complete

Chapter 3 76) Which of the following diseases would you expect in someone with malfunctioning cilia? A) recurrent respiratory infections B) heart attack C) urinary infections D) muscle paralysis E) brittle bones

77) Which type of junctions must there be between cells to form a barrier? A) adhesion junctions B) gap junctions C) tight junctions D) channel junctions E) free junctions

78) Cilia are composed of which type of protein filament? A) intermediate B) actin C) microtubules D) thin

79) In an experiment in the laboratory, a small colored molecule is injected into one cell. Within

minutes, the molecule has entered the adjacent cells. What type of junctions connect these cells? A) gap junctions B) free junctions C) adhesion junctions D) tight junctions E) actin junctions

Chapter 3 80) Which of the following is a mismatch between a type of cellular junction and its function? A) gap junctions: allow molecules to move freely between cells B) tight junctions: common in the digestive system to contain fluids within a specific

area C) adhesion junctions: serve as portals between cells D) adhesion junctions: mechanically connect cytoskeletons of two adjacent cells E) tight junctions: produce a zipperlike barrier from the external environment

Chapter 3 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 3 1) B 2) A 3) D 4) B 5) C 6) C 7) A 8) D 9) B 10) E 11) B 12) FALSE 13) A 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) A 17) B 18) D 19) A 20) B 21) D 22) C 23) D 24) D 25) C 26) C 27) C 28) A 29) FALSE 30) A 31) FALSE 32) A 33) B 34) D 35) B 36) C 37) [A, B, C, D]

Chapter 3 38) TRUE 39) B 40) E 41) B 42) E 43) A 44) B 45) E 46) C 47) A 48) B 49) C 50) B 51) B 52) A 53) B 54) TRUE 55) A 56) C 57) B 58) B 59) TRUE 60) A 61) B 62) A 63) B 64) A 65) A 66) E 67) D 68) B 69) A 70) D 71) A 72) A 73) A 74) TRUE 75) A 76) A 77) C

Chapter 3 78) C 79) A 80) C

Chapter 4 Student name:__________ 1) Specialized cells that work together to perform a common function are called A) membranes. B) organs. C) tissues. D) glands. E) organisms.

2) Which type of tissue covers body surfaces and lines body cavities? A) epithelial tissue B) connective tissue C) muscular tissue D) nervous tissue E) vascular tissue

3) Which type of epithelial tissue lines the air sacs and permits the exchange of gases? A) squamous epithelium B) columnar epithelium C) pseudostratified columnar epithelium D) cuboidal epithelium E) stratified cuboidal epithelium

4) The driver looked up and saw a car. This information was relayed to them via what type of

tissue? A) B) C) D) E)

epithelial connective muscular nervous vascular

Chapter 4 5) Which statement best describes simple squamous epithelium? A) flattened cells that form a permeable barrier B) single layer of cube shaped cells C) used to bind and support body parts D) cells that resemble rectangular pillars with the nuclei on the bottom

6) Which of the following cells have the greatest probability of developing into cancer? A) brain cells B) neurons C) epithelial cells D) muscle cells E) liver cells

7) Bone cancer and other cancers of connective tissue are called A) carcinomas. B) sarcomas. C) leukemias. D) lymphomas. E) blastomas.

8) Which type of cartilage contains collagen fibers and has a matrix that is translucent? A) hyaline B) elastic C) fibrocartilage D) squamous

9) The three major components of connective tissue are A) cells, ground substance, and carbohydrate fibers. B) cells, fat, and protein fibers. C) cells, ground substance, and protein fibers. D) cells, ground substance, and enzymes. E) ground substance, enzymes, and protein fibers.

Chapter 4 10) What protein provides flexibility and strength to connective tissues? A) actin B) collagen C) keratin D) fibrinogen E) myosin

11) It is thought that President Abraham Lincoln had a genetic disorder known as Marfan

syndrome. Which types of fibers are affected in this disorder? A) elastic fibers B) reticular fibers C) collagen fibers D) hyaline fibers E) ground fibers

12) What are the two forms of fibrous connective tissue? A) bone and blood B) fibroblasts and matrix C) hyaline cartilage and elastic cartilage D) adipose and cartilage E) loose fibrous and dense fibrous

13) The student was looking at a tissue under a microscope. It had cells within lacunae, and the

matrix was glassy-looking. What type of tissue were they looking at? A) blood B) bone C) cartilage D) adipose E) areolar

Chapter 4 14) The patient slipped a disk in his back. The doctor explained to the family that the

intervertebral disks are composed of A) elastic cartilage. B) hyaline cartilage. C) composite cartilage. D) fibrocartilage. E) bone.

15) What characteristic can be used to differentiate between bone and cartilage? A) whether the matrix is solid or liquid B) the presence or absence of cells C) the flexibility of the matrix D) the presence of fibers in the matrix E) whether the tissue is fibrous or specialized connective

16) Within bone tissue, where are the osteocytes located? A) on the exterior of the bone B) within the central canal C) within the lacunae between the rings of matrix D) on the ends of the long bones

17) What types of cells carry oxygen in the blood? A) platelets B) serum C) plasma D) white blood cells E) red blood cells

18) Which category of tissue is blood placed in? A) connective B) nervous C) muscular D) epithelial

Chapter 4 19) Which types of blood cells are responsible for transporting oxygen? A) red blood cells B) platelets C) leukocytes D) plasma E) thrombocytes

20) The best description of the two components of blood is A) red blood cells and plasma. B) platelets and plasma. C) white blood cells and red blood cells. D) formed elements and plasma. E) formed elements and platelets.

21) Which types of cells are found within lymph? A) red blood cells B) osteocytes C) adipose D) white blood cells

22) Which component of blood would increase as a result of an infection? A) platelets B) erythrocytes C) leukocytes D) plasma E) serum

23) Lymphatic vessels serve to absorb fat molecules from the body's A) bile. B) small intestine. C) large intestine. D) stomach. E) blood.

Chapter 4 24) While observing cardiac muscle under a microscope for the first time, the student noticed

lines running perpendicular to the direction of the muscle. These lines are called A) perpendicular plates. B) Volkmann canals. C) Broca's area. D) Haversian canals. E) intercalated disks.

25) The stripes in skeletal muscle are due to the presence of A) multiple nuclei per cell. B) actin and myosin filaments. C) intercalated disks. D) the branching of cells. E) tendons connecting the muscle to bone.

26) In turning a page of a book, you would mainly be using what type of tissue? A) cardiac muscle B) smooth muscle C) skeletal muscle D) adipose tissue E) epithelial tissue

27) Smooth muscle in the bladder contracts to send urine into the urethra. ⊚ true ⊚ false

28) The specialized cells in the nervous system that serve to conduct a signal are known as A) neuroglia. B) neurons. C) dendrocytes. D) astrocytes. E) Schwann cells.

Chapter 4 29) What type of tissue receives sensory input, integrates data, and conducts impulses? A) epithelial tissue B) connective tissue C) muscular tissue D) nervous tissue E) vascular tissue

30) When you put your hand on a hot stove,________ receive signals from sensory receptors or

other neurons and________ conduct nerve impulses. A) astrocytes; oligodendrocytes B) axons; dendrites C) astrocytes; dendrites D) dendrites; axons E) dendrites; astrocytes

31) Which component of a neuron receives the signal from a sensory receptor? A) dendrite B) axon C) cell body D) nucleus E) myelin sheath

32) What type of cells function to nourish and support neurons? A) lacunae B) leukocytes C) neutrophils D) neuroglia E) fibroblasts

33) What is the white, fatty substance that covers the axons of some neurons? A) myelin B) adipose C) collagen D) cartilage E) epidermis

Chapter 4 34) In epithelial tissues, what serves to anchor the epithelial tissue to underlying connective

tissue? A) B) C) D) E)

ependymal cells plasma membrane synovial membrane basement membrane transitional membrane

35) What type of epithelial tissue is found in the urinary bladder and allows it to stretch? A) pseudostratified epithelium B) glandular epithelium C) transitional epithelium D) stratified epithelium E) columnar epithelium

36) Gynecologists perform regular Pap smears for women. This procedure is important for early

diagnosis and prevention of what type of cancer? A) breast cancer B) colon cancer C) cervical cancer D) pancreatic cancer E) liver cancer

37) One of the dangers of smoking is that it disrupts the defensive system that utilizes ciliary

action of what type of specialized epithelium? A) pseudostratified epithelium B) glandular epithelium C) cuboidal epithelium D) stratified epithelium E) columnar epithelium

Chapter 4 38) ________ glands are considered ductless glands, while________ glands contain ducts. A) Exocrine, endocrine B) Transitional, exocrine C) Transitional, endocrine D) Endocrine, exocrine E) Sudoriferous, transitional

39) Which tissue type serves as a lining of body cavities? A) skeletal B) muscular C) epithelial D) neural

40) The epithelial lining of the small intestine is modified for what function? A) absorption B) secretion C) excretion D) removing debris E) protection

41) Which type of tissue makes up the epidermis? A) stratified squamous epithelium B) dense fibrous connective tissue C) adipose tissue D) elastic fibers E) loose connective tissue

42) Stretch marks are the result of tears in the integumentary layer that contains fibrous

connective tissue, elastin, and collagen. What is this region of the integumentary system called? A) subcutaneous layer B) Langerhans layer C) epidermis D) hypodermis E) dermis

Chapter 4 43) Which structures produce goosebumps? A) arrector pili muscles B) hair follicles C) sebaceous glands D) sudoriferous glands E) cuticles

44) Which of the following is mismatched to its location in the skin? A) fat—subcutaneous layer B) sense organs—dermis C) keratinization—epidermis D) nerves/blood vessels—epidermis E) hair follicles—dermis

45) Which of the following is responsible for the waterproofing of skin? A) mucus B) keratin C) hyaline cartilage D) sweat E) wax

46) Which layer of the skin is responsible for tanning? A) epidermis B) dermis C) subcutaneous layer D) keratin E) hypodermis

47) Which type of gland can become blocked and form a "blackhead"? A) sudoriferous B) sweat C) endocrine D) sebaceous E) compound

Chapter 4 48) The skin makes up what % of the human body weight? A) 15% B) 11% C) 22% D) 25%

49) Carla is having problems with infections. Which body system is failing? A) immune system B) integumentary system C) cardiovascular system D) urinary system E) musculoskeletal system

50) Which body system is located only in the pelvic cavity? A) urinary system B) skeletal system C) cardiovascular system D) muscular system E) immune system

51) What cavities develop from the ventral cavity? A) cranial and vertebral B) thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic C) pelvic and abdominal D) cranial and thoracic E) cranial, vertebral, and thoracic

52) Which systems help to adjust the blood's acid-base balance? A) cardiovascular and muscular B) cardiovascular and urinary C) respiratory and urinary D) respiratory and skeletal E) muscular and skeletal

Chapter 4 53) Which of the following structures is not part of the cardiovascular system? A) heart B) blood C) arteries and veins D) lungs

54) Which of the following body parts is surrounded by a mucous membrane? A) ovaries B) heart C) cavities of freely movable joints D) tubes of the digestive system E) abdominal cavity

55) Which body cavity contains the small and large intestines? A) abdominal cavity B) dorsal cavity C) cranial cavity D) vertebral canal E) pelvic cavity

56) The pleurae would be found in which body system? A) respiratory system B) cardiovascular system C) muscular system D) urinary system E) skeletal system

57) What membrane is infected in meningitis? A) lining of the brain and spinal cord B) lining of the lungs C) lining of the heart D) lining of the digestive tract E) lining of the reproductive tract

Chapter 4 58) The body's ability to maintain a relative constancy of its internal environment is called A) homeostasis. B) development. C) homogeneous. D) coordination. E) feedback.

59) Sweating is a physiological process that seeks to maintain A) blood glucose levels. B) blood volume. C) urine levels. D) blood pH. E) body temperature.

60) Which body system does not play a role in helping maintain homeostasis? A) cardiovascular B) urinary C) integumentary D) All body systems help maintain homeostasis.

61) If body temperature was controlled by a positive feedback mechanism, the body's

temperature would continue to rise. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62) With a negative feedback mechanism, the value in question will vary around a set point. ⊚ true ⊚ false

63) Which level of biological organization is one level more complex than that of tissues? A) cells B) organs C) organism D) organ system

Chapter 4 64) Which organ system is primarily responsible for excretion of metabolic waste and

maintaining fluid homeostasis? A) integumentary system B) urinary system C) skeletal system D) nervous system

65) Which organ system produces hormones and is responsible for regulation of metabolism and

stress responses? A) lymphatic system B) respiratory system C) endocrine system D) integumentary system E) digestive system

66) The brain and the spinal cord are organs of what body system? A) integumentary system B) skeletal system C) cardiovascular system D) muscular system E) nervous system

Chapter 4 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 4 1) C 2) A 3) A 4) D 5) A 6) C 7) B 8) A 9) C 10) B 11) A 12) E 13) C 14) D 15) C 16) C 17) E 18) A 19) A 20) D 21) D 22) C 23) B 24) E 25) B 26) C 27) TRUE 28) B 29) D 30) D 31) A 32) D 33) A 34) D 35) C 36) C 37) A

Chapter 4 38) D 39) C 40) A 41) A 42) E 43) A 44) D 45) B 46) A 47) D 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) B 52) C 53) D 54) D 55) A 56) A 57) A 58) A 59) E 60) D 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) B 64) B 65) C 66) E

Chapter 5 Student name:__________ 1) Gas exchange is the only function of blood. ⊚ true ⊚ false

2) When comparing the cardiovascular system to a city, what is it similar to? A) roads B) government building C) grocery stores D) waste recycling plant E) power plant

3) What are the two components of the cardiovascular system? A) heart and blood vessels B) arteries and heart C) veins and heart D) arteries and veins E) capillaries and veins

4) Which structure(s) are not part of the cardiovascular system? A) heart B) veins C) skeletal muscles D) arteries

5) The innermost layer of an artery is known as A) mesothelium. B) endothelium. C) exothelium. D) hyperthelium. E) hypothelium.

Chapter 5 6) The cardiovascular system is composed of the heart and the blood vessels. ⊚ true ⊚ false

7) Which of the following blood vessels are small, thin, and porous enough to exchange

substances at the tissue level of organization? A) arterioles B) capillaries C) venules D) small arteries E) veins

8) What is the role of the lymphatic system with respect to the cardiovascular system? A) collecting excess tissue fluids and returning them to the cardiovascular system B) collecting excess tissue fluids and returning them to the urinary system C) producing excess tissue fluids and returning them to the cardiovascular system D) producing excess tissue fluids and returning them to the urinary system E) prevention of infection

9) What structure within a capillary bed controls shunting of blood from the arteriole to the

venule? A) precapillary valve B) endothelium C) precapillary sphincter D) pericardium E) shunt valve

10) Which body system will return excess tissue fluid to the cardiovascular system? A) lymphatic B) urinary C) neural D) digestive E) muscular

Chapter 5 11) When dissecting a specimen, the students noticed that the arteries were thicker and more

elastic than the veins. Why? A) Veins return blood to the heart against gravity. B) Arteries contain a greater volume of blood. C) Veins have valves. D) Arteries are under greater pressure. E) Arteries have less smooth muscle than veins.

12) The excess fluid from the cardiovascular system that enters the lymphatic system is

called_____. A) lymph B) plasma C) blood D) tissue fluid E) urine

13) My grandmother takes a prescription drug that dilates her arterioles. What does this do to her

blood pressure? Why? A) It falls because this increases the cross-sectional area of the vessels. B) It rises because this increases the cross-sectional area of the vessels. C) It falls because this decreases the cross-sectional area of the vessels. D) It rises because this decreases the cross-sectional area of the vessels. E) It stays the same because venules, not arterioles, control blood pressure.

14) Which arterial property enables it to resist the blood pressure? A) elastic tissue in the arterial wall B) valves within an artery C) skeletal muscle within the arterial walls D) precapillary sphincters E) a wall composed only of endothelium

15) The walls of veins are thinner, so they cannot expand as greatly as arteries can. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Chapter 5 16) Choose the most correct statement concerning capillaries. A) Networks of capillaries are called capillary nets. B) Almost all capillaries are open at the same time. C) The site of nutrients, gas exchange, and waste exchange is the capillaries. D) Precapillary sphincters contract to increase capillary flow. E) The walls of capillaries contain smooth muscle.

17) What is the function of valves in the veins? A) increase the rate of blood flow B) prevent the backward flow of blood C) regulate blood pressure D) oxygenate the blood E) remove debris from the blood

18) At any one time, where is the majority of the blood found in the body? A) veins B) lungs C) lymphatic vessels D) capillaries E) arteries

19) Dr. Ferguson explained that in a condition known as situs inversus, the internal organs are

reversed in their orientation. Thus, the apex of the heart would be oriented to the_____. A) middle B) right C) left D) front E) back

20) What is the name of the thick, membranous sac that surrounds and protects the heart? A) mesothelium B) endothelium C) pericardium D) myocardium E) epicardium

Chapter 5 21) What are the upper chambers of the heart called? A) atria B) auricles C) AV valves D) ventricles E) septa

22) What type of cell junctions are found in cardiac muscle tissue? A) atria and auricles B) septae and chordae C) intercalated disks D) myocardium and pericardium E) gap junctions and desmosomes

23) The right ventricle is to the pulmonary trunk as the left ventricle is to the_____. A) aorta B) superior vena cava C) left pulmonary vein D) inferior vena cava E) left common carotid artery

24) What are the string-like structures in the heart that anchor the atrioventricular valves? A) cingulated pectorale B) chordae tendineae C) corpus albicans D) corpus callosum E) choroid plexus

25) During open-heart surgery, the first heart structure that would be cut into is the_____. A) myocardium B) left ventricle C) pericardium D) right ventricle E) left atrium

Chapter 5 26) A hospital laboratory technician injects a dye into a vein in your right arm. What is the first

chamber of the heart that the dye will reach? A) right atrium B) left atrium C) right ventricle D) left ventricle E) aorta

27) Blood leaves which chamber of the heart to enter the lungs? A) right atrium B) left atrium C) right ventricle D) left ventricle E) aorta

28) If the left semilunar valve were blocked, where would blood accumulate? A) lungs B) right atrium C) left atrium D) right ventricle E) left ventricle

29) The "lub" sound of the "lub-dub" heartbeat is due to what? A) the closing of the AV valves B) the closing of the semilunar valves C) the right atrium contracting D) the left atrium contracting E) the relaxation of both atria

30) Identify the structure that supplies the cardiac muscle of the heart with blood. A) coronary veins B) pulmonary artery C) coronary artery D) semilunar valve

Chapter 5 31) Which of the following heart tissues is not part of the internal conduction system of the

heart? A) B) C) D) E)

atrioventricular bundle atrioventricular node Purkinje fibers sinoatrial node semilunar valve

32) What is considered the pacemaker of the heart? A) medulla oblongata B) the sinoatrial node C) the atrioventricular node D) Purkinje fibers E) atrioventricular bundle

33) Which part of the brain contains the cardiac control center? A) cerebrum B) medulla oblongata C) cerebellum D) pons E) frontal lobe

34) The patient received a dose of epinephrine. What did this do to their heart rate? A) increases it B) decreases it C) stops it D) does not alter it E) makes it skip every other beat

35) What does an ECG record? A) brain activity B) blood volume C) heart sounds D) hormonal changes E) electrical changes

Chapter 5 36) The boys heart began to beat much faster when it came to the scary scene in the movie.

Which portion of the nervous system causes the heart to beat faster when afraid? A) peripheral B) parasympathetic C) somatic D) sympathetic E) axial

37) If your pulse is 70 beats per minute, how fast is your heart beating? A) 140 beats per minute B) 35 beats per minute C) 70 beats per minute D) 120 beats per minute E) 80 beats per minute

38) Which of the following could be used to take a pulse? A) radial vein B) radial artery C) inferior vena cava D) superior vena cava E) renal capillaries

39) Mrs. Hinson was informed that her blood pressure was 150/95. These numbers indicate that

she has_____. A) normal blood pressure B) prehypertension C) hypotension D) stage 1 hypertension E) stage 2 hypertension

Chapter 5 40) What is the instrument called that is used to measure blood pressure? A) respirometer B) CPR C) sphygmomanometer D) ECG E) AED

41) What is the correct range of systolic and diastolic pressure for normal blood pressure? A) 90 / 40 B) 120/80 C) 140 / 100 D) 160 / 110

42) What is occuring in the heart when diastolic pressure is being measured? A) The heart ventricles are relaxing. B) The heart atria are relaxing. C) The coronary artery is relaxing. D) The pulmonary vein is contracting.

43) A person who sits for hours on a long airplane flight may have problems with blood pooling

below the knees. Why? A) The valves in the leg veins do not work above a certain altitude. B) Blood pressure drops on long airplane flights. C) The respiratory pump is not helping blood return to the heart. D) The capillaries expand at high altitudes. E) The skeletal muscle pump below the knees is not helping blood return to the heart.

44) Normal blood pressure is 120/80. What is the top number called and what is happening in the

heart? A) B) C) D) E)

systolic pressure; ejection of blood from the heart diastolic pressure; ejection of blood from the heart systolic pressure; ventricles are relaxing diastolic pressure; ventricles are relaxing diastolic pressure; atria are contracting, ventricles are relaxing

Chapter 5 45) Where in the body is blood pressure the highest? A) superior vena cava B) aorta C) inferior vena cava D) lung capillaries E) renal capillaries

46) Blood pressure_____ with distance from the left ventricle, while the total cross-sectional area

of the blood vessels_____. A) decreases; increases B) increases; decreases C) stays the same; decreases D) stays the same; increases E) decreases; stays the same

47) Why does blood move slower in the capillaries compared to the arterioles? A) Capillaries are much wider than arterioles. B) Blood pressure is much higher in capillaries than in arterioles. C) There are many more capillaries than arterioles. D) Precapillary sphincters close shunting blood into capillaries. E) Capillaries are present in muscles while arterioles are not.

48) Blood pressure plays a major role in returning venous blood to the heart. ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) Which blood vessel will supply oxygenated blood directly to the femoral artery? A) common iliac artery B) femoral vein C) aorta D) common iliac vein E) inferior vena cava

Chapter 5 50) What system drains blood from the capillary beds of the digestive tract to a capillary bed in

the liver? A) cephalic B) hepatic portal C) coronary artery D) celiac E) lymphatic system

51) Which of the following is the largest artery of the systemic circuit? A) aorta B) vena cava C) femoral artery D) carotid artery E) pulmonary artery

52) Which chamber of the heart pumps blood into the pulmonary circuit? A) right atrium B) right ventricle C) left atrium D) left ventricle E) aorta

53) Which blood vessel will have the greatest amount of oxygen? A) femoral artery B) pulmonary artery C) vena cava D) jugular vein E) All of the answer choices are equal.

54) Which circuit contains the greatest amount of blood? A) systemic circuit B) pulmonary circuit C) hepatic portal circuit D) coronary circuit

Chapter 5 55) Which blood vessel of the pulmonary circuit will carry deoxygenated blood? A) pulmonary artery B) pulmonary vein C) vena cava D) aorta

56) Blood will travel through the hepatic portal vein and________ before it reaches the inferior

vena cava. A) pulmonary artery B) femoral vein C) hepatic vein D) common iliac vein

57) What structure does the hepatic portal vein carry blood toward? A) liver B) digestive tract C) kidneys D) gall bladder

58) At the arterial end of a capillary, what is the most important factor that causes water to exit

the capillary? A) osmotic pressure B) diameter of the blood vessel C) heart rate D) blood pressure

59) In the pulmonary circuit, veins carry oxygen-_____ blood, and in the systemic circuit, veins

carry oxygen-_____ blood. A) rich; rich B) poor; poor C) rich; poor D) poor; rich

Chapter 5 60) What happens to the excess fluid that leaves the capillaries at the venous end? A) The excess fluid is collected in the lymphatic capillaries. B) There is no excess fluid; 100% always returns to the capillary beds. C) The excess fluid is excreted by the kidneys. D) The excess fluid is reabsorbed by the intestines. E) The excess fluid will accumulate in the cells, causing them to rupture.

61) All veins carry oxygen-poor blood. ⊚ true ⊚ false

62) Which of the following is not one of the functions of the cardiovascular system? A) conduct neural impulses throughout the body B) transport oxygen and nutrients to the cells C) protect the body from infection D) participate in homeostasis of various body conditions

63) If fluid is leaving a capillary and entering the tissue, which of the following statements is

true? A) B) C) D) E)

Red blood cells are able to leave the capillary. Plasma proteins are able to leave the capillary. Blood pressure is higher than osmotic pressure. This is the venous end of the capillary. The net pressure is in.

64) Which of the following statements is true about all arteries? A) They carry oxygenated blood. B) They have a thin layer of smooth muscle in the arterial wall. C) The walls of arteries are very thin. D) They can withstand a great deal of pressure.

Chapter 5 65) What happens to the excess tissue fluid that does not reenter that capillary? A) It is collected by the lymphatic system. B) It is reabsorbed by the artery. C) It is reabsorbed by the veins. D) It is transfered to the hepatic portal system.

66) What is the first structure that blood will enter after it has exited the right atrium? A) pulmonary artery B) right ventricle C) left atrium D) aorta

67) Identify the difference between the components of tissue fluid and plasma. A) Tissue fluid contains water while plasma does not. B) Plasma contains lower amounts of protein than tissue fluid. C) Tissue fluid contains lower amounts of proteins than plasma. D) Plasma contains nutrients while tissue fluid does not.

68) If a person is dehydrated, how will this affect nutrient exchange at the capillaries? A) It will have no effect. B) Water will not leave the arterial end of the capillary and enter the tissues. C) Oxygen will not leave the capillary and enter the tissues. D) Carbon dioxide will not leave the tissues and enter the capillary. E) Plasma proteins will be able to leave the capillary and enter the tissues.

69) What is the ballooning of a blood vessel called? A) B) C) D) E)

embolus aneurysm thrombus myocardial infarction stroke

Chapter 5 70) The American Heart Association recommends a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol to

prevent which disease? A) hypotension B) aneurysm C) hypertension D) atherosclerosis E) infarction

71) Which of the following activities is not recommended for prevention of cardiovascular

disease? A) Know your cholesterol level. B) Take antioxidant vitamins (A, E, and C). C) Raise the LDL intake. D) Use olive and canola oil rather than butter/cream. E) Exercise moderately.

72) Which health condition can be used to identify a person who has hypertension? A) a high white blood cell count B) having a stroke C) experiencing a heart attack D) kidney failure

73) What drug may protect against having a first heart attack? A) acetaminophen B) aspirin C) ACE D) t-PA E) beta-blockers

74) What is a stent? A) a cylinder of expandable metal mesh B) time spent in recovery after coronary bypass surgery C) a treatment for phlebitis D) an instrument that regulates the heartbeat E) a treatment to lower blood pressure

Chapter 5 75) Which of the following is a symptom of a heart attack? A) feeling of pressure in your head B) swelling of your feet C) fever D) diarrhea E) shortness of breath

Chapter 5 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 5 1) FALSE 2) A 3) A 4) C 5) B 6) TRUE 7) B 8) A 9) C 10) A 11) D 12) A 13) A 14) A 15) FALSE 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) E 23) A 24) B 25) C 26) A 27) C 28) E 29) A 30) C 31) E 32) B 33) B 34) A 35) E 36) D 37) C

Chapter 5 38) B 39) E 40) C 41) B 42) A 43) E 44) A 45) B 46) A 47) C 48) FALSE 49) A 50) B 51) A 52) B 53) A 54) A 55) A 56) C 57) A 58) D 59) C 60) A 61) FALSE 62) A 63) C 64) D 65) A 66) B 67) C 68) B 69) B 70) D 71) C 72) [B, C, D] 73) B 74) A 75) E

Chapter 6 Student name:__________ 1) Which of the following is not a function of blood? A) transport B) defense C) regulation D) pumping E) carry oxygen

2) The two major components of blood are A) red blood cells and white blood cells. B) plasma and serum. C) plasma and red blood cells. D) formed elements and plasma. E) platelets and plasma.

3) What are the most abundant plasma proteins that also establish the osmotic pressure of the

plasma? A) fibrinogens B) gamma globulins C) astrocytes D) albumins E) hemoglobin

4) If there is a problem with clotting, what plasma proteins may be involved? A) fibrinogens B) gamma globulins C) alpha globulins D) albumins E) beta globulins

Chapter 6 5) A patient receives a gamma globulins injection after being exposed to hepatitis. What do the

gamma globulins provide? A) blood clotting agents B) transport molecules for cholesterol and iron C) antibodies D) osmoregulatory molecules E) transport molecules for glucose

6) Which of the following substances is not considered part of blood plasma? A) dissolved O2 B) glucose C) urea D) albumin E) red blood cells

7) Which of the following are actually cell fragments and not whole cells? A) RBCs B) WBCs C) platelets D) albumins E) globulins

8) RBCs are better known as_____ and WBCs are better known as_____. A) lymphocytes; monocytes B) erythrocytes; eosinophils C) leukocytes; erythrocytes D) erythrocytes; leukocytes E) macrophages; neutrophils

9) What gives rise to all the formed elements of the blood? A) megakaryocytes B) macrophages C) reticulocytes D) stem cells E) erythroblasts

Chapter 6 10) What is the most abundant component of plasma? A) salt B) WBCs C) RBCs D) water

11) Blood plays an important role in homeostasis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

12) What makes blood red? A) albumin B) hemoglobin C) fibrinogen D) globulins E) platelets

13) Mature human red blood cells A) have a nucleus. B) are biconcave discs without a nucleus. C) are rare in the bloodstream. D) carry plasma. E) fight pathogens.

14) How many globin chains are found in hemoglobin? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4

Chapter 6 15) Approximately how many oxygen molecules can a single RBC carry? A) less than ten B) one hundred C) one thousand D) one million E) one billion

16) Which part of the hemoglobin molecule actually binds the oxygen molecule, and which part

binds carbon dioxide? A) globin chain; globin chain B) heme; heme C) globin chain; heme D) heme; globin chain E) cell membrane; cell wall

17) What percentage of carbon dioxide carried in blood is dissolved in plasma? A) 0% B) 1% C) 5% D) 7% E) 10%

18) After hemoglobin binds carbon dioxide, it is known as A) oxyhemoglobin. B) beta hemoglobin. C) carbaminohemoglobin. D) alpha hemoglobin. E) deoxyhemoglobin.

19) If your skin and the whites of your eyes appear yellow, what is not being excreted? A) heme B) globin chains C) carbonic acid D) carbon dioxide E) bicarbonate ion

Chapter 6 20) What hormone produced in the kidneys stimulates production of red blood cells? A) carbonic anhydrase B) prolactin C) erythropoietin D) adrenaline E) lipase

21) A test for metal toxicity looks at the amount of metal present in the red blood cell membrane.

How long ago could metal poisoning have occurred and still be found in the cell membrane? A) a few days B) a week C) a month D) 3 months E) 6 months

22) A person who does not have enough iron in the diet may develop A) acidosis. B) blood doping. C) hemolysis. D) anemia. E) jaundice.

23) Which structure is missing from a mature red blood cell that prevents it from undergoing

mitosis? A) cell membrane B) nucleus C) cytoplasm D) membrane proteins

24) The production of leukocytes is regulated by A) rennin. B) erythropoietin. C) colony-stimulating factor. D) folic acid. E) prolactin.

Chapter 6 25) Both red blood cells and white blood cells A) are derived from the same type of stem cell. B) have a nucleus. C) have hemoglobin. D) have mitochondria and other organelles. E) can carry carbon dioxide in the blood.

26) Which of the following are agranular leukocytes? A) neutrophils and basophils B) lymphocytes and monocytes C) eosinophils and monocytes D) monocytes and neutrophils E) neutrophils and lymphocytes

27) In someone with severe allergies, what leukocyte levels would be elevated? A) neutrophil, eosinophil B) monocyte, megakaryocyte C) eosinophil, basophil D) lymphocyte, monocyte E) megakaryocyte, basophil

28) Monocytes are large blood cells that differentiate into A) megakaryocytes. B) neutrophils. C) globulins. D) macrophages. E) fibrinogens.

29) B lymphocytes are associated with A) antibody production. B) megakaryocyte breakdown. C) macrophage production. D) antigen production. E) allergic reactions.

Chapter 6 30) After a football game many players will have bruises. Which white blood cells will increase

in number in order to promote blood flow to the injured tissues? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) lymphocytes D) basophils

31) Cytotoxic T cells have the ability to A) produce antibodies. B) destroy pathogens. C) increase erythrocyte production. D) stimulate thrombin. E) produce platelets.

32) A person who cannot produce the enzyme adenosine deaminase may develop A) mononucleosis. B) cystic fibrosis. C) sickle-cell anemia. D) SCID. E) Graves' disease.

33) Which term refers to uncontrolled growth of white blood cells? A) leukemia B) infectious mononucleosis C) thrombocytopenia D) hemophilia E) thromboembolism

34) Which of the following is a characteristic of infectious mononucleosis? A) It is caused by the chicken-pox virus. B) Symptoms include fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph glands. C) There is uncontrolled white blood cell proliferation. D) Active HIV is often present in saliva. E) The virus remains within a person's body for a month or so.

Chapter 6 35) Which white blood cell will increase in number when a person is infected with a virus? A) lymphocytes B) neutrophils C) eosinophils D) monocytes

36) Mark has nosebleeds and gastrointestinal bleeding due to increased breakdown of platelets

outside the marrow. This is called A) thrombocytopenia. B) thromboembolism. C) hemophilia. D) prothrombin disease. E) sickle-cell anemia.

37) How many clotting factors are required for blood to clot correctly? A) 12 B) 13 C) 8 D) 14

38) After blood clots, the yellowish fluid that escapes from the clot is called A) thrombin. B) fibrinogen. C) serum. D) lymph. E) plasma.

39) During blood clotting, prothrombin activator is released. What step will occur next? A) Platelets will form a plug. B) The fibring thread is formed. C) Fibrin winds around the platelet plug. D) Prothrombin is converted into thrombin.

Chapter 6 40) If blood clotting does not occur correctly, what could happen? A) Formed elements and plasma would not remain in the blood. B) Red blood cells would increase in concentration. C) The Ca2+ concentration in the blood would increase. D) The blood pressure of the individuals would increase. E) Fluid would accumulate in the body.

41) The vitamin necessary for fibrinogen and prothrombin formation (found in green vegetables

and released by intestinal bacteria) is A) vitamin B. B) vitamin D. C) vitamin A. D) vitamin E. E) vitamin K.

42) The fragmentation of very large megakaryocytes results in the production of A) leukocytes. B) erythrocytes. C) albumins. D) platelets. E) globulins.

43) The final reaction in blood clotting is A) fibrinogen → fibrin. B) platelets → prothrombin activator. C) prothrombin → thrombin. D) plasmin → fibrin. E) fibrin → thrombin.

Chapter 6 44) Coagulation contributes to homeostasis by A) keeping the blood within the vessels. B) regulating body temperature. C) destroying pathogens. D) removing debris from the blood. E) maintaining the pH of the blood.

45) Hemophilia is a genetic clotting disorder. ⊚ true ⊚ false

46) Agglutination refers to the A) production of antibodies. B) destruction of red blood cells. C) development of platelets. D) production of lymphocytes. E) clumping of red blood cells.

47) Jena and Seth could have a child with hemolytic disease of the newborn. Jena must be A) Rh-negative. B) Rh-positive. C) a carrier for anemia. D) blood type A. E) blood type O.

48) Deshaun has type B positive blood. His blood will contain A) A and Rh antigens, and anti-B antibodies. B) A but no Rh antigens, and anti-B antibodies. C) B but no Rh antigens, and anti-A antibodies. D) B and Rh antigens, and anti-A antibodies. E) B and Rh antigens, and no antibodies.

Chapter 6 49) The blood type of the universal donor is type A) O. B) A. C) B. D) AB.

50) The patient has type O negative blood. What type of blood could they receive in a

transfusion? A) O negative only B) A positive, A negative, B positive, and B negative C) A positive and B positive D) AB positive only E) AB negative only

51) A person with O negative blood has what antigens on their red blood cells? A) A only B) B only C) A and Rh D) B and Rh E) none

52) People have antibodies against any blood antigens different from their own, regardless of

whether they have had a transfusion or not. ⊚ true ⊚ false

53) In which of the following scenarios would hemolytic disease of the newborn be a possibility? A) Mom is Rh-negative and dad is Rh-positive. B) Both mom and dad are Rh-negative. C) Both mom and dad are Rh-positive. D) Mom is Rh-positive and dad is Rh-negative. E) Mom is blood type O and dad is blood type B.

Chapter 6 54) What drug is given to prevent the formation of anti-Rh antibodies during pregnancy? A) RhoGAM B) epinephrine C) insulin D) asprin

55) The ABO antigens and Rh antigens are the only blood groups considered before a

transfusion. ⊚ true ⊚ false

56) What do type A positive and AB negative blood have in common? A) A and B antigens B) A antigens and Rh antigens, anti-B antibodies C) anti-B antibodies and Rh antigens D) A antigens, anti-B antibodies E) A antigens

57) With respect to antigens and antibodies, what do type O negative and type AB positive blood

have in common? A) A and B antigens, no antibodies B) A antigens, anti-B antibodies C) B antigens, no antibodies D) no antibodies E) nothing

58) How does the muscular system benefit the blood? A) protects the vessels B) keeps blood moving through the heart and vessels C) regulates the acid-base balance of the blood D) maintains blood volume E) produces the blood cells

Chapter 6 59) Which body system does not dump some product into the blood? A) the urinary system B) the muscular system C) the digestive system D) the respiratory system E) the nervous system

60) Excess tissue fluid becomes lymphatic fluid that eventually enters the bloodstream. ⊚ true ⊚ false

61) Which of the following is not a role the skeletal system plays in helping the cardiovascular

system? A) protects the heart B) protects the brain C) regulates the contraction of the heart D) stores calcium for blood clotting E) assists muscles in movement of blood in veins

62) Which of the following blood-related activities is not controlled by the endocrine system? A) producing epinephrine, which increases blood pressure B) helping regulate blood volume C) producing hormones that assist in blood cell formation D) helping regulate contraction of the heart

63) The most abundant organic molecules in blood are called the A) plasma proteins. B) erythrocytes. C) leukocytes. D) glycoproteins.

Chapter 6 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 6 1) D 2) D 3) D 4) A 5) C 6) E 7) C 8) D 9) D 10) D 11) TRUE 12) B 13) B 14) E 15) E 16) D 17) D 18) C 19) A 20) C 21) D 22) D 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) B 27) C 28) D 29) A 30) D 31) B 32) D 33) A 34) B 35) A 36) A 37) B

Chapter 6 38) C 39) D 40) A 41) E 42) D 43) A 44) A 45) TRUE 46) E 47) A 48) D 49) A 50) A 51) E 52) TRUE 53) A 54) A 55) FALSE 56) E 57) E 58) B 59) E 60) TRUE 61) C 62) D 63) A

Chapter 7 Student name:__________ 1) Which of the following is a function of the lymphatic system? A) take up excess tissue fluid, return it to the bloodstream B) absorb fats in the intestines C) help the body defend against disease D) production, maintenance, and distribution of lymphocytes E) protection for the internal organs

2) What structure do the lymph capillaries drain into? A) right lymph duct B) left lymph duct C) vena cava D) lymphatic vessels

3) What is the name of the lymphatic tissue located in the small intestine and appendix? A) tonsils B) nodes C) polyps D) adenoids E) Peyer patches

4) Identify which of the following functions is not performed by the lymphatic system. A) Absorb excess interstitial fluid. B) Absorb fats from the digestive tract. C) Detect external and internal stimuli. D) Help defend the body against disease.

5) Which of the following is a lymphatic organ? A) spleen B) tonsil C) thymus D) kidney E) testes

Chapter 7 6) In what way are lymphatic vessels unlike veins in the cardiovascular system? A) one-way system B) contain valves C) take up excess tissue fluid D) dependent upon skeletal muscle contraction E) transport fluid

7) Which of the lymphatic organs is also part of the skeletal system? A) spleen B) thymus C) tonsils D) red bone marrow E) lymph nodes

8) Where does the lymphatic system empty into the cardiovascular system? A) the tonsils and thymus B) axillary lymph nodes and the spleen C) inguinal and axillary lymph nodes D) the thymus and spleen E) the thoracic and right lymphatic duct

9) Where do T lymphocytes mature? A) thymus B) thyroid C) spleen D) red bone marrow E) tonsil

10) If the lymph system did not do its job, what would be one of the consequences? A) excess glucose in the bloodstream B) slow reaction time to external stimuli C) inability to clot D) edema in the tissues E) jaundice

Chapter 7 11) Which lymphatic organ cleans cellular debris and bacteria out of the blood? A) spleen B) thymus C) kidney D) liver

12) One set of the body's defenses is called "innate." In this context, this means A) they act indiscriminately against all pathogens. B) they act only on a very specific subset of potential pathogens. C) they only act internally. D) phagocytosis is involved. E) they are lost as we age.

13) Which of the following is(are) considered to be a barrier to entry of a pathogen? A) intact skin B) mucous membrane C) sebaceous secretion D) basic pH of stomach

14) How can normal flora be barriers to entry? A) They cause an inflammatory response that kills pathogenic bacteria upon contact. B) They phagocytize any pathogenic bacteria that attempt to infect. C) They use up nutrients and release wastes, preventing pathogenic bacteria from

gaining a foothold. D) They release histamine, which causes blood vessels to become permeable. E) They activate the complement system, which punches holes in the invading pathogen.

15) What are the main cell types involved in the inflammatory response? A) eosinophils and neutrophils B) eosinophils and basophils C) basophils and macrophages D) neutrophils and macrophages E) normal flora (bacteria mostly)

Chapter 7 16) Which of the following is a sign of inflammation? A) redness B) heat C) swelling D) pain E) All of the answer choices are signs of inflammation.

17) Monocytes become what type of cell in the tissue? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) macrophages E) red blood cells

18) Certain complement proteins kill foreign microbes by A) creating interferon. B) causing them to burst. C) inactivating their ribosomes. D) agglutinating them. E) destroying their nucleic acids.

19) The reason the complement system is called that is because it A) is part of the inflammatory response. B) helps other immune responses. C) involves chemical barriers to entry. D) produces T and B cells. E) is composed of normal flora.

20) T cells can recognize antigens because they A) have enzymes which react with antigens. B) possess specific antigen receptors. C) produce antibodies. D) possess fimbrae. E) become plasma cells.

Chapter 7 21) Which of the following is the correct order in the formation of antibodies? A) antigen binds to BCR; B cell divides; B cell activated; plasma cells form B) B cell activated; antigen binds to BCR; B cell divides; plasma cells form C) plasma cells form; B cell activated; B cell divides; antigen binds to BCR D) antigen binds to BCR; B cell activated; B cell divides; plasma cells form E) plasma cells form; B cell divides; B cell activated; antigen binds to BCR

22) What is the definition of an antigen? A) anything the immune system recognizes as foreign to the body B) a protein produced by plasma cells that attacks pathogens C) a type of white blood cell D) a part of the membrane attack complex of the complement system E) a form of immune deficiency

23) Which cells are necessary for active immunity to occur? A) memory B and helper T cells B) memory B and memory T cells C) red blood cells and helper T cells D) platelets and memory B cells

24) What are the first antibodies produced by a plasma cell? A) IgG B) IgE C) IgM D) IgD E) IgA

25) In antibody-mediated immunity, where does the antigen first bind? A) memory cell B) plasma cell C) BCR D) helper T cell E) TCR

Chapter 7 26) Phil was exposed to parasitic worms on a recent field trip to the tropics. Under these

conditions, which antibody levels would be higher than normal? A) IgA B) IgG C) IgD D) IgM E) IgE

27) What two sites are involved in the production and maturation of T lymphocytes? A) thyroid and tonsils B) tonsils and thymus C) bone marrow and thymus D) bone marrow and thyroid E) tonsils and bone marrow

28) Feng was in need of a kidney transplant. What is the most important thing that needs to

match between him and the kidney donor? A) TCR B) MHC C) PCR D) HCG E) EKG

29) Cytotoxic T cells contain which type of molecules that punch holes in the plasma membranes

of potential pathogens? A) steroid B) interferon C) antioxidant D) complement E) perforin

Chapter 7 30) In_____ immunity, the individual produces antibodies against particular pathogens, while

in_____ immunity, the individual is given specific antibodies against a pathogen. A) active; neutral B) passive; neutral C) active; passive D) passive; active E) neutral; active

31) What do having the measles and being vaccinated against the measles have in common? A) They are both forms of active immunity. B) They are both forms of neutral immunity. C) They are both forms of passive immunity. D) They are both forms of an infection. E) They are both forms of an immune deficiency.

32) The RhoGAM shot given to Rh-negative mothers with an Rh-positive fetus is an example of

what type of immunity? A) active B) passive C) nonspecific D) general E) neutral

33) What is the purpose of taking a vaccine? A) To prevent an infection by causing active immunity B) To prevent an infection by causing passive immunity C) To decrease the severity of an illness if you contract it D) To stimulate your nervous system to prevent future infections

34) Cytokines are signaling molecules produced by T lymphocytes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Chapter 7 35) Identify the role played by cytokines. A) Carry nutrients and oxygen B) Assist in regulating white blood cell formation C) Absorb excess fats from the blood stream D) Trigger acquired immunity in a person

36) Before working at the hospital, Shanice was given a Mantoux skin test to detect tuberculosis.

If it were positive, the site of the test would become hardened and red. What type of response is this? A) anaphylactic B) histamine C) immediate allergic D) delayed allergic E) B-cell mediated

37) Cytokines are being investigated for a possible treatment of which disease? A) cancer B) pneumonia C) hepatitis D) tuberculosis E) malaria

38) When stung by a bee, Jackie goes into anaphylactic shock. This should be quickly treated

with A) B) C) D) E)

epinephrine. histamine. cytokines. interferon. a vaccination.

39) Which lymphatic organ is the site where T lymphocytes mature? A) liver B) kidney C) spleen D) thymus

Chapter 7 40) Which of the following is an autoimmune disease? A) rheumatic fever B) rheumatoid arthritis C) systemic lupus erythematosus D) anaphylactic shock E) AIDS

41) Which of the following is an example of an innate defense of the body? A) the inflammatory response occuring when pathogens have entered the body B) the immune system recognizing a foreign antigen that has entered the bloodstream C) lymphocytes differentiating into B cells D) T cells targeting a group of cells for destruction due to their antigen

42) An allergic response is an overreaction of the immune system. ⊚ true ⊚ false

43) Histamine, released during inflammation, is associated with which defense mechanism? A) innate B) active C) complementary D) cell-mediated E) adaptive

44) Which two groups of cells are lacking in an indivudal who is suffering from SCIDS? A) red blood cells and B cells B) B and T cells C) macrophages and T cells D) B cells and basophils

Chapter 7 45) Where are IgA antibodies typically found? A) urine B) sweat C) saliva D) blood

46) All autoimmune diseases are caused strictly by environmental factors, such as viral

infections. ⊚ true ⊚ false

47) Which class of antibodies plays a role in activating the complement and clumping cells? A) IgM B) IgG C) IgA D) IgD E) IgE

48) Which group of individuals will have the greatest number of IgE antibodies? A) individuals who have no allergies B) individuals who have allergies C) individuals who have compromised immune systems D) individuals who have high blood pressure

49) Which autoimmune disease is associated with an inflammatory response that can damage the

heart muscle and valves? A) rheumatic fever B) rheumatoid arthritis C) myasthenia gravis D) AIDS E) tuberculosis

Chapter 7 50) Lymph is normally colorless. What would cause it to have a creamy appearance? A) a high concnetration of electrolytes B) it contains lipids from a recent meal C) an accumulation of waste products D) the presence of hormones

51) During an HIV infection that has progressed to AIDS, which cell count will be low, allowing

for opportunistic infections? A) respiratory cells B) helper T cells C) erythrocytes D) memory B cells

52) Which of the following is an opportunistic infection that can occur when an individual is

progressing through the chronic phase of an HIV infection? A) multiple sclerosis B) influenza C) shingles D) cystic fibrosis

53) What is the most common mode of transission of HIV? A) anal or vaginal intercourse B) airborne droplets in crowds C) sharing drinks or food D) blood transfusions

54) Which treatment produces the greatest success among HIV patients? A) heavy doses of antibiotics for several months B) antiretroviral treatment known as HAART C) a six month regiment of chemotherapy D) blood transfusions that provide healthy immune system cells

Chapter 7 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 7 1) [A, B, C, D] 2) D 3) E 4) C 5) [A, B, C] 6) C 7) D 8) E 9) A 10) D 11) A 12) A 13) [A, B, C] 14) C 15) D 16) E 17) D 18) B 19) B 20) B 21) D 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) C 26) E 27) C 28) B 29) E 30) C 31) A 32) B 33) A 34) TRUE 35) B 36) D 37) A

Chapter 7 38) A 39) D 40) [A, B, C] 41) A 42) TRUE 43) A 44) B 45) C 46) FALSE 47) A 48) B 49) A 50) B 51) B 52) C 53) A 54) B

Chapter 8 Student name:__________ 1) Which statement best describes the difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes? A) Prokaryotes do not possess DNA while eukaryotes do. B) Prokaryote DNA is not contained within a nucleus. C) Eukaryote DNA is not contained within a nucleus. D) Prokaryotes use different nucleotides in their DNA than eukaryotes.

2) Which of the following is present in prokaryotic cells? A) nucleus B) chloroplasts C) endomembrane system D) peptidoglycan

3) What are fimbriae, and what is their function? A) They are long, thin appendages that allow bacteria to be motile (move). B) They are stiff fibers that allow bacteria to adhere to surfaces. C) They are elongated, hollow appendages that allow for the transfer of DNA. D) They are small, circular pieces of DNA that frequently contain genes for antibiotic

resistance. E) They are a thick, gelatinous substance surrounding some bacterial cells that allow them to stick to surfaces and protect them from phagocytic white blood cells.

4) Identify the characteristic that is found in Gram-positive bacteria. A) a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall B) a thin cell wall C) an outer membrane composed of lipopolysaccharide D) stains pink / red with the Gram stain

5) If an epidemic is confined to a local area, it is usually called a(n) A) opportunistic infection. B) pandemic. C) outbreak. D) a slow infection. E) chronic infection.

Chapter 8 6) Select all of the following that are structural components of viruses. A) an outer capsid made of proteins B) a nucleus that contains the viral DNA C) an inner core of nucleic acids D) an outer capsid made of lipids

7) Why aren’t viruses considered living organisms? A) because they do not replicate B) because they do not possess genetic material C) because they are composed of only one cell D) because they lack the metabolic machinery to acquire and use nutrients

8) HIV/AIDS and malaria are both examples of current A) outbreaks. B) epidemics. C) pandemics. D) opportunistic infections. E) acute infections.

9) Which of the following describes an epidemic? A) People all over the world are experiencing the same disease. B) There are more cases of the disease than expected for a certain area over a given

period of time. C) The disease moves between two different populations. D) The disease has never been seen before by scientists.

10) Which of the following situations is characteristic of an epidemic? A) Normally there are one or two cases of measles per month in a particular city. In the

month of September, there were 15 cases of measles. B) Three students from a local grade school are all diagnosed with a bacterial infection that has never been identified before. C) Millions of people around the world have contracted the same strain of a virus. D) A viral infection has spread from Central America to North America.

Chapter 8 11) What types of cells does HIV infect? A) helper T cells and macrophages B) B cells and red marrow cells C) liver cells and cardiac muscle cells D) epithelial cells and eosinophils E) basophils and killer T cells

12) Which category of disease classification is described as having more cases than expected in a

given period of time? A) epidemic B) outbreak C) pandemic D) opportunistic infection

13) How does HIV know which cells to infect? A) It can infect any cell it comes in contact with. B) It can only infect cells on surfaces of the body where the temperature is lower. C) It can only infect cells that are actively growing and dividing. D) It can infect cells with particular surface receptors. E) It only infects cells that line the reproductive tract.

14) When was the first documented case of HIV in the United States? A) 1884 B) 1924 C) 1959 D) 1969 E) 1982

15) In which phase of an HIV infection is a person typically asymptomatic? A) acute phase (A) B) chronic phase (B) C) AIDS (C) D) AIDS (D) E) terminal phase (E)

Chapter 8 16) Why might an HIV test be negative within the first two to three weeks of an HIV infection? A) because there is no HIV in the blood B) because there are no detectable levels of HIV antibodies in the blood C) because there are no symptoms D) because the CD4 T-cell count is above 500 cells/mm3 E) because there are no opportunistic infections yet

17) Patient X has 150 CD4 T cells/mm3. What phase of an HIV infection is this patient in? A) acute phase (A) B) chronic phase (B) C) AIDS (C) D) transmission phase (D) E) terminal phase (E)

18) Which region of the world has the greatest number of people living with HIV? A) North America B) Asia and the Pacific C) Latin America D) Eastern and Southern Africa

19) What is the next step in the HIV life cycle after the virus has entered into the host? A) fusion with the host cell B) integration into the host's DNA C) biosynthesis of new polypeptides D) reverse transcription of the viral RNA into DNA

20) The HIV virus contains a genome composed of A) double-stranded DNA. B) single-stranded DNA. C) double-stranded RNA. D) single-stranded RNA. E) one strand of DNA and one strand of RNA.

Chapter 8 21) Within the HIV life cycle, which step occurs just before the virus can undergo biosynthesis

and cleavage? A) Viral DNA must be integrated into the nucleus of the host cell. B) New viral particles are assembled. C) The virus acquires a new envelope from the host cell's plasma membrane. D) Reverse transcriptase catalyzes the conversion of viral RNA into DNA.

22) Which of the following is not a layer of the protein coat that surrounds the HIV genetic

material? A) matrix B) capsid C) nucleocapsid D) protease E) gp120

23) Arrange the steps of the HIV life cycle in the correct order: 1. Assembly 2. Integration 3. Entry 4. Fusion 5. Attachment 6. Budding 7. Biosynthesis and cleavage 8. Reverse transcription A) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5, 7, 6, 8 B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 C) 8, 1, 7, 2, 6, 3, 5, 4 D) 4, 6, 3, 7, 2, 8, 1, 5 E) 5, 4, 3, 8, 2, 7, 1, 6

24) Select characteristics of HIV that classify it as a retrovirus. A) DNA genome B) reverse transcriptase C) spike proteins D) RNA genome that is transcribed into DNA E) integration into the host genome

Chapter 8 25) Which of the following is important for the attachment stage of the HIV life cycle? A) acquisition of an envelope from the host B) gp120 spike proteins C) cleavage of the proteins by protease D) integration of the viral DNA into the host genome E) uncoating

26) Of the following modes of HIV transmission, which is the least common mode and rare in

many countries? A) transfusions of infected blood B) vaginal/rectal intercourse with a person who has HIV C) needle sharing among people who use IV drugs D) babies born to women with HIV E) oral-genital contact with a person who has HIV

27) How does HIV produce its envelope? A) The Golgi body within the virus will assemble the envelope. B) The vacuoles within the virus become the new envelope. C) The viral genetic code directs viral machinery to build a viral envelope. D) The host cell's plasma membrane provides the components for the viral envelope.

28) HIV strains may differ by 10% within one person and by 35% in people around the globe.

This is due to A) both cellular and antibody-mediated responses. B) the fact that HIV inserts its genome into the host genome. C) HIV's high rate of mutation. D) the fact that HIV targets T cells. E) the fact that most people do not die from HIV infection.

29) How does HAART work in regard to an HIV infection? A) It decreases HIV replication to such a degree that the viral load is undetectable. B) It completely eliminates the HIV virus from the body. C) It changes the shape of the receptor proteins so that HIV enters the host cells easier. D) It denatures the viral envelope.

Chapter 8 30) Which disease is also known as consumption? A) AIDS B) COVID-19 C) malaria D) tuberculosis

31) Tuberculosis is caused by a A) virus. B) bacterium. C) fungus. D) protist. E) worm.

32) Identify the activity that has the highest risk of transmitting tuberculosis. A) Flying on a plane, from New York to England, with an infected person. B) Attending a baseball game and discovering someone in the crowd was infected. C) Eating at a restaurant after someone who has tuberculosis had dinner there the night

before. D) Going to the dentist, who also treats a patient with tuberculosis.

33) What are the symptoms of a TB infection? A) skin rash, fever B) opportunistic infections, chronic diarrhea C) bad cough, chest pain, coughing up blood or sputum D) runny nose, sore throat, postnasal drip E) lethargy, general malaise

34) How long does treatment for TB take? A) one to two days B) one to two weeks C) one month D) two months E) six months or more

Chapter 8 35) How is Mycobacterium tuberculosis spread? A) airborne droplets B) contaminated food or water C) sexual intercourse D) IV drug use E) blood transfusions

36) The organism that causes malaria is a A) virus. B) bacterium. C) protist. D) fungus. E) worm.

37) How is malaria spread? A) airborne droplets B) blood transfusions C) sexual intercourse D) breast-feeding E) mosquitoes

38) What is the cause of tuberculosis? A) a virus B) a rod-shaped bacterium C) an oval-shaped bacterium D) a protozoan

39) What is the cause of malaria? A) Plasmodium B) Anopheles gambiae C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis D) Campylobacteri jejuni

Chapter 8 40) Where does the life cycle of the Plasmodium protist take place? A) in mosquitoes B) in humans C) in both mosquitoes and humans D) in snails E) in pigs

41) Most people with malaria exhibit chills and fevers every 48 to 72 hours. This is due to A) reinfection with new Plasmodium. B) the bursting of red blood cells in the body. C) the formation of Plasmodium gametes within the body. D) the fusion of the male and female Plasmodium gametes to form new organisms. E) waves of activity from the body's B and T cells.

42) An emerging disease is one that A) is newly recognized in the last two decades. B) has suddenly caused an epidemic. C) is now present on multiple continents. D) can infect both humans and animals. E) can be transmitted in multiple ways.

43) Why is bird flu (H5N1) considered an emerging disease whereas HIV is not? A) Bird flu (H5N1) has only been recognized in the past 20 years. B) Bird flu (H5N1) is more deadly than HIV. C) Bird flu (H5N1) is bacterial, whereas HIV is viral. D) Bird flu (H5N1) has infected more people than HIV. E) Bird flu (H5N1) has not infected as many people as HIV.

44) Which of the following bacteria are considered a reemerging pathogen? A) Plasmodium B) Campylobacteri jejuni C) Streptococcus D) COVID-19

Chapter 8 45) Which of the following diseases is considered an emerging disease? A) SARS B) H1N1 C) H5N1 D) MERS E) All of the answer choices are considered emerging diseases.

46) Which of the following diseases are caused by coronaviruses? A) SARS B) tuberculosis C) MERS D) COVID-19

47) When were the first cases of SARS reported? A) 2002 B) 1992 C) 1820 D) 1920 E) 2012

48) What type of genetic material is found in the coronaviruses? A) double-stranded DNA B) single-stranded DNA C) double-stranded RNA D) single-stranded RNA

49) Which of the following factors is/are helping increase the incidence of emerging diseases? A) global warming B) expansion of range by insect vectors C) overuse of antibiotics D) development of community vaccination programs

Chapter 8 50) Which coronavirus protein is responsible for attaching the virus to the receptors on the host

cell's membrane? A) S protein B) M protein C) E protein D) H protein

51) Which coronavirus structural proteins are used to assemble the new nucleocapsid during viral

replication? A) E protein B) N protein C) S protein D) M protein

52) When penicillin was introduced, how long did it take for penicillin-resistant strains of

bacteria to emerge? A) 6 months B) 1 year C) 4 years D) 10 years E) 25 years

53) Why do bacteria become resistant to antibiotics? A) Antibiotics kill the weakest bacteria, leaving behind resistant ones to rebuild the

population. B) The patient becomes resistant to the antibiotic, not the bacteria. C) The antibiotic changes the genetic code of the bacteria, making them resistant. D) The antibiotic becomes weaker over time and is no longer effective against bacterial infections.

54) Which of the following has/have developed antibiotic resistance? A) tuberculosis B) malaria C) gonorrhea D) HIV

Chapter 8 55) Which of the following diseases cannot be treated or cured by taking an antibiotic? A) tuberculosis B) COVID-19 C) gonorrhea D) Staphylococcus aureus

56) Which type(s) of antibiotic(s) is MRSA resistant to? A) methicillin B) penicillin C) amoxicillin D) MRSA is resistant to all of these antibiotics.

57) Which of the following is an unwise use of antibiotics? A) discontinuing antibiotics when you feel better B) not taking antibiotics for a viral infection C) not saving unused antibiotics D) not skipping doses of antibiotics E) taking antibiotics only to treat the infection for which they were prescribed

58) How many different "lines" of antibiotics against TB are there? A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five or more

59) What do MDR TB and MRSA have in common? A) Both are transmitted by mosquitoes. B) Both cause tuberculosis. C) Both are multidrug-resistant bacteria. D) Both have seen their numbers of infections decline dramatically in recent years. E) Both are viruses.

Chapter 8 60) Under which conditions is someone most likely to contract MRSA? A) going to the dentist for a cleaning B) visiting your grandmother in a nursing home C) two football players sharing a helmet during the first week of practice D) attending a concert with thousands of people

Chapter 8 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 8 1) B 2) D 3) B 4) A 5) C 6) [A, C] 7) D 8) C 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) D 14) D 15) A 16) B 17) C 18) D 19) D 20) D 21) A 22) D 23) E 24) [B, D, E] 25) B 26) A 27) D 28) C 29) A 30) D 31) B 32) A 33) C 34) E 35) A 36) C 37) E

Chapter 8 38) B 39) A 40) C 41) B 42) A 43) A 44) C 45) E 46) [A, C, D] 47) A 48) D 49) [A, B, C] 50) A 51) B 52) C 53) A 54) [A, B, C] 55) B 56) D 57) A 58) B 59) C 60) C

Chapter 9 Student name:__________ 1) Which of the following is considered to be an accessory organ of the digestive system? A) lungs B) pituitary glands C) small intestine D) pancreas E) thalamus

2) Which accessory organ of the digestive system processes and stores nutrients, as well as

produces bile for emulsification? A) liver B) gallbladder C) pancreas D) stomach E) small intestine

3) The process of mechanical digestion includes A) the breakdown of food particles by enzymes. B) physically making food smaller and easier to handle. C) the churning of food in the muscular stomach. D) the hydrolysis of nutrients. E) physically making food smaller and easier to handle and the churning of food in the

muscular stomach.

4) Which of the following is NOT a function of the digestive system? A) to ingest food B) to digest food into small nutrients so that the molecules can pass through membranes C) to absorb nutrient molecules D) to eliminate indigestible remains E) to deliver oxygen to the body's tissues

Chapter 9 5) The broad band of loose connective tissue beneath the mucosa that contains blood vessels,

lymph, and nerves is called the A) mucosa. B) submucosa. C) muscularis. D) serosa. E) diverticulosis.

6) What is the outermost layer of the gastrointestinal tract wall? A) muscularis B) smooth muscle C) submucosa D) serosa

7) What is the correct order of the components of the digestive tract? A) mouth, esophagus, pharynx, small intestine, stomach, large intestine, rectum, anus B) mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine, rectum, anus C) mouth, pharynx, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, rectum, large intestine, anus D) mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, anus E) mouth, rectum, large intestine, small intestine, stomach, esophagus, pharynx, anus

8) The layers of the gastrointestinal tract wall from the inside layer outward in order are A) submucosa, muscularis, mucosa, serosa. B) serosa, submucosa, muscularis, mucosa. C) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, serosa. D) muscularis, serosa, mucosa, submucosa. E) mucosa, muscularis, serosa, submucosa.

9) If your appendix bursts, it may lead to a life-threatening condition called A) peritonitis. B) diverticulitis. C) rickets. D) osteoporosis. E) cirrhosis.

Chapter 9 10) Which part of the digestive system does the gallbladder send its secretions to? A) small intestine B) large intestine C) stomach D) rectum

11) Smooth muscles in the stomach are capable of mechanical digestion. ⊚ true ⊚ false

12) The fleshy extension of the soft palate is known as the A) epiglottis. B) uvula. C) pharynx. D) adenoid. E) cecum.

13) Which structures prevent food from entering the nasal cavities? A) the tonsils B) the mandible and maxilla C) the hard and soft palates D) the cheeks E) the salivary glands

14) Dental caries are caused by A) bacteria within the mouth metabolizing fatty acids. B) yeast within the mouth metabolizing fatty acids. C) bacteria within the mouth metabolizing proteins. D) bacteria within the mouth metabolizing sugar. E) enzymes within the mouth metabolizing sugar.

Chapter 9 15) Today, physicians and dentists are concerned that gum disease is linked to_____. A) neurological disorders B) peritonitis C) vitamin deficiencies D) cardiovascular disease E) asthma

16) Swallowing consists of both a voluntary phase and a reflex action. ⊚ true ⊚ false

17) Identify the first event that occurs during swallowing. A) The soft palate closes off the nasal cavity. B) The tongue pushes food against the soft palate. C) The epiglottis closes off the larynx. D) Peristalsis moves food through a sphincter to the stomach.

18) What enzyme initiates the process of starch digestion in the mouth? A) salivary lipase B) salivary protease C) salivary sucrase D) salivary amylase E) salivary lactase

19) Mr. Staub was rushed to the hospital because he had intense pain in his chest. After running

tests on Mr. Staub, doctors determined that he was not having a heart attack but from A) diverticulitis. B) gastroesophageal reflux disease. C) gingivitis. D) periodontitis. E) irritable bowel syndrome.

Chapter 9 20) The process that pushes food through the esophagus is called A) peritoneum. B) periosteum. C) peristalsis. D) perineum. E) periodontal.

21) Muscles that encircle tubes and act as circular valves are called A) frenula. B) sphincters. C) cannula. D) anastomoses. E) buccinators.

22) Which structure is responsible for closing off the larynx during swallowing? A) tongue B) pharynx C) sphincter D) epiglottis

23) The primary function of the stomach is to A) break down fats and regulate blood sugar by producing insulin. B) store food, churn, and begin protein digestion. C) absorb major nutrients and water. D) package feces. E) eliminate water and tissue fluid.

24) What greatly increases the capacity of the stomach? A) crypts B) lumens C) polyps D) rugae E) diverticula

Chapter 9 25) The thick, soupy liquid of partially digested food that leaves the stomach is called A) bolus. B) pepsin. C) chyme. D) lacteal. E) lipase.

26) A failure of which sphincter is responsible for GERD? A) pyloric sphincter B) gastroesophageal sphincter C) ileocecal sphincter D) internal anal sphincter

27) The small intestine is approximately_____ feet in length. A) 4.5 B) 18 C) 26 D) 3.2

28) Which of the enzyme-substrate pairings is correct? A) nuclease-proteins B) lipase-proteins C) pepsin-DNA D) amylase-starch E) trypsin-carbohydrates

29) Pepsin is an enzyme that digests proteins at acidic pH. Therefore, it must act in the A) stomach. B) small intestine. C) mouth. D) large intestine. E) esophagus.

Chapter 9 30) Which of the following is associated with the small intestine? A) many villi B) gastric pits C) lactic enzymes D) few villi

31) What serves as an emulsifying agent for fats in the small intestine? A) lipase B) bile C) amylase D) pepsin E) maltase

32) The small lymphatic capillaries that reside in the small intestine and absorb fats are known as A) mesenteries. B) lacteals. C) gastric glands. D) duodenal pits. E) microvilli.

33) What are the main symptoms of lactose intolerance? A) internal bleeding and headaches B) dehydration and itching C) diarrhea and itching D) diarrhea and bloating E) shortness of breath and bloating

34) When Sheree opens the abdominal cavity of her preserved frog, the first thing she notices is a

large, prominent, dark-brown organ. Which organ is this? A) liver B) pancreas C) gallbladder D) stomach E) large intestine

Chapter 9 35) Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of the liver? A) destroying old red blood cells B) storing glucose as glycogen C) producing red blood cells D) helping regulate blood cholesterol levels

36) Which of the following is produced by the pancreas? A) bile B) sodium bicarbonate C) starch D) lysine E) galactose

37) Why is the pancreas both an endocrine and an exocrine gland? A) It secretes bile through the pancreatic duct and insulin into the blood. B) It secretes insulin through the pancreatic duct and bile into the blood. C) It secretes secretin through the pancreatic duct and insulin into the blood. D) It secretes pancreatic juice through the pancreatic duct and insulin into the blood. E) It secretes insulin through the pancreatic duct and secretin into the blood.

38) Which of the following is a function of the liver? A) It helps regulate blood cholesterol levels. B) It secretes digestive enzymes into the small intestine. C) It removes calcium from the blood. D) It produces poisonous substances to break down molecules. E) It produces red blood cells.

39) A serious genetic disorder known as hemochromatosis is often called the rusty organ disease

and affects nearly 1.5 million Americans. The disorder causes increased absorption of intestinal iron. Which organ is responsible for iron homeostasis? A) brain B) lungs C) liver D) gallbladder E) spleen

Chapter 9 40) Why is bile a yellowish-green color? A) It contains pancreatic juices. B) It contains bilirubin. C) It contains chyme. D) It contains chlorophyll. E) It contains cholesterol.

41) Bile is produced in the________ and stored in the________. A) gallbladder; liver B) pancreas; liver C) spleen; gallbladder D) liver; gallbladder

42) What type of hepatitis is usually transmitted through blood transfusions or sexual contact? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E

43) Which of the following is a digestive hormone that causes the gallbladder to release stored

bile? A) B) C) D) E)

GIP CCK HCl ATP NAD

44) The secretions of digestive juices are controlled by the nervous system, as well as by

digestive hormones. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Chapter 9 45) Which hormone is produced by the lower portion of the stomach that causes the upper

stomach to produce digestive juices? A) gastrin B) digestive juices C) pepsin D) bile

46) The portions of the large intestine include the A) duodenum, cecum, and rectum. B) the jejunum, colon, and anus. C) cecum, colon, rectum, and anus. D) colon, duodenum, cecum, and rectum. E) colon, anus, duodenum, and jejunum.

47) What is the major function of the colon? A) to digest/absorb B) to form feces C) to churn food D) to serve as a passageway only E) to eliminate iron

48) What is one benefit of normal flora in the large intestine? A) They absorb iron. B) They absorb fats. C) They produce vitamin B. D) They produce bile. E) They absorb water.

49) Recent studies of an oyster-rich bay indicated a high coliform count. What should the

fisheries' officers do? A) Nothing. A high coliform count is normal. B) Nothing. A high coliform count is good for oyster production. C) Shut down the bay. A high coliform count is harmful to humans who eat the oysters. D) Shut down the bay. A high coliform count is harmful to the oysters. E) Nothing. A high coliform count is beneficial to humans who eat the oysters.

Chapter 9 50) Small growths arising from the epithelial lining of the colon are called A) cysts. B) villi. C) polyps. D) lacteals. E) wheals.

51) What is the relationship between Crohn's disease and inflammatory bowel disease? A) Crohn's disease is one of the most common inflammatory bowel diseases. B) Inflammatory bowel disease is a type of Crohn's disease. C) They are two separate diseases, but both affect only the colon. D) Crohn's disease affects the colon, but inflammatory bowel disease affects the small

intestine. E) In Crohn's disease, small pouches form in the muscularis, while in inflammatory bowel disease, inflammation occurs throughout the digestive tract.

52) According to the body mass index (BMI) chart, a healthy BMI is A) between 18.5 and 24.9. B) between 25 and 29.9. C) 30 or higher. D) 40 or higher. E) 50 or higher.

53) Identify a method that can decrease your risk of constipation. A) Increase the amount of fiber in your diet. B) Decrease the amount of water you drink each day. C) Add an extra sixteen ounces of protein to your daily meals. D) Take two aspirin each morning.

54) Which of the following BMIs is considered obese? A) 18.5 B) 26.3 C) 40.4 D) 36.4

Chapter 9 55) What information does a BMI provide? A) the amount of adipose tissue a person has B) the height of the individual C) the speed at which their heart rate will recover from stress D) the blood type of an individual

56) Why is it necessary to include some carbohydrates in the diet? A) Carbohydrates are considered a "complete" nutrient. B) Some carbohydrates contain essential fatty acids. C) Some carbohydrates contain essential amino acids. D) Carbohydrates are the only source of energy for the body. E) The carbohydrate cellulose (fiber) is essential for good health.

57) Which of the following will reduce dietary lipids? A) not removing skin from poultry B) frying rather than broiling C) seasoning foods with herbs and spices instead of adding butter D) using salad dressing instead of lemon E) eating a lot of packaged foods that contain hydrogenated fats

58) Chad was concerned about eating foods with a high glycemic index because these foods can

cause A) B) C) D) E)

LDL levels to increase. HDL levels to decrease. fatty acids to build up. a rapid increase in blood glucose. a sudden drop in blood glucose levels.

59) Which of the following is necessary for strong bones and teeth, nerve conduction, muscle

contraction, and blood clotting? A) calcium B) iron C) magnesium D) sodium E) sulfur

Chapter 9 60) A diet rich in which vitamins may reduce the risk of free radicals that can cause health

problems? A) C and B12 B) C, E, and A C) D and C D) D, C, and E E) B12, C, and E

61) A deficiency in which mineral leads to thyroid deficiency? A) iodine B) copper C) zinc D) selenium E) manganese

62) Which vitamin is fat soluble? A) vitamin C B) vitamin E C) vitamin B6 D) vitamin B12 E) biotin

63) About 90% of the people who have anorexia nervosa are A) young men. B) older women. C) young women. D) older men.

Chapter 9 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 9 1) D 2) A 3) E 4) E 5) B 6) D 7) D 8) C 9) A 10) A 11) TRUE 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) D 16) TRUE 17) B 18) D 19) B 20) C 21) B 22) D 23) B 24) D 25) C 26) B 27) B 28) D 29) A 30) A 31) B 32) B 33) D 34) A 35) C 36) B 37) D

Chapter 9 38) A 39) C 40) B 41) D 42) B 43) B 44) TRUE 45) A 46) C 47) B 48) C 49) C 50) C 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) D 55) A 56) E 57) C 58) D 59) A 60) B 61) A 62) B 63) C

Chapter 10 Student name:__________ 1) Ventilation includes A) inspiration only. B) expiration only. C) both inspiration and expiration. D) the volume of air that can be exhaled. E) the transportation of oxygen to cells in the body.

2) The respiratory system is responsible for A) oxygen entering the body and carbon dioxide leaving the body. B) carbon dioxide entering the body and oxygen leaving the body. C) nitrogen leaving the bloodstream. D) methane formation. E) the regulation of nutrient absorption.

3) Identify the lower respiratory tract structure. A) glottis B) pharynx C) larynx D) trachea

4) What do inspiration and expiration have in common? A) They both use the same pathways. B) They both involve air traveling in the same direction. C) They both end in the lungs. D) They both conduct air from the outside. E) They both remove wastes from tissues.

5) Identify the structure in the brain that controls the rhythm of ventilation. A) medulla oblongata B) pons C) frontal lobe D) hippocampus

Chapter 10 6) Which structures are part of the inspiration process? A) lungs B) diaphragm C) trachea D) bronchioles E) esophagus

7) Which statement describes the role of the respiratory system? A) The role of the respiratory system is to ensure that oxygen leaves the body while

carbon dioxide enters. B) The role of the respiratory system is to ensure that oxygen enters the body while carbon dioxide leaves. C) The role of the respiratory system is to ensure that nutrients are distributed throughout the body. D) The role of the respiratory system is to ensure that waste products are filtered out of the bloodstream.

8) Inhalation is another word for inspiration. ⊚ true ⊚ false

9) Which of the following structures are part of the respiratory system? A) trachea B) pharynx C) bronchus D) esophagus.

10) Which structure is the initial entryway for air entering the respiratory system? A) nose (or mouth) B) trachea C) lungs D) pharynx E) esophagus

Chapter 10 11) Which part of the respiratory system is composed of skeletal muscle? A) diaphragm B) lungs C) trachea D) larynx E) glottis

12) Which respiratory structure is used to produce sound? A) larynx B) nose C) pharynx D) glottis E) esophagus

13) Which part of the respiratory system carries out gas exchange? A) bronchus B) larynx C) nasal cavity D) lungs E) diaphragm

14) Which structure connects the larynx to the bronchial tree? A) trachea B) glottis C) lungs D) alveoli E) esophagus

15) Which respiratory structure acts as an "exit" for air leaving the respiratory system? A) nasal cavity B) bronchi C) trachea D) alveoli

Chapter 10 16) Which term refers to air being conducted from the lungs to the atmosphere? A) ventilation B) inspiration C) expiration D) inhalation

17) Which of the following structures are part of the upper respiratory tract? A) nasal cavity B) epiglottis C) pharynx D) trachea.

18) The pharynx contains the vocal cords. ⊚ true ⊚ false

19) The pharynx contains the tonsils, which protect against invasion of inhaled foreign particles. ⊚ true ⊚ false

20) The epiglottis is the slit between the vocal cords. ⊚ true ⊚ false

21) When the glottis becomes narrower A) the pitch of sound goes up. B) the pitch of sound goes down. C) all sound ceases completely. D) the volume of sound increases. E) the volume of sound decreases.

Chapter 10 22) Which event leads to the production of sound? A) Air is expelled from the lungs. B) Air rushes into the lungs. C) The pharynx dilates. D) The larynx moves upwards and presses against the epiglottis.

23) Which of the following structures are part of the lower respiratory tract? A) bronchi B) lungs C) alveoli. D) pharynx

24) Which part of the lower respiratory tract integrates the respiratory system with the

cardiovascular system? A) lungs B) bronchial tree C) trachea D) esophagus E) sinus cavity

25) Where in the lower respiratory tract would you find goblet cells? A) bronchial tree B) trachea C) lungs D) esophagus E) nasal cavity

26) Which of the following statement about the lungs is accurate? A) The right lung has three lobes and the left has two. B) The right lung is smaller than the left. C) The lungs sit in the abdominal cavity. D) The lungs sit anterior to the heart.

Chapter 10 27) What structure holds open the trachea and upper bronchial tree? A) hyoid bone B) cartilaginous rings C) skeletal muscle D) glottis

28) What encloses the lungs and attaches them to the inside of the thoracic cavity? A) pleurae B) alveoli C) cartilaginous rings D) bone E) skeletal muscle

29) What is missing from the lungs of newborn babies with infant respiratory distress syndrome? A) bronchioles B) pleurae C) one or more lobes D) alveoli E) surfactant

30) If all of the alveoli from a person's lungs were laid out on the ground, how much surface area

would the cross-sectional area cover? A) a football field B) a baseball field C) a driveway D) a tennis court

31) What diffuses from the air in the alveoli into the blood? A) oxygen B) carbon dioxide C) water D) nitrogen E) All of the answer choices diffuse from air into blood.

Chapter 10 32) Which of the following are parts of inspiration? A) The rib cage moves up and out. B) The intercostal muscles pull the ribs outward. C) The diaphragm contracts and moves down. D) Air rushes out of the lungs.

33) Muscle contraction is required for expiration. ⊚ true ⊚ false

34) What feature causes air to enter the lungs? A) contraction of the back muscles B) creation of a partial vacuum in the alveoli C) pressure from closing the mouth D) pressure created when the glottis opens

35) Why is the actual flow of air into the alveoli during inspiration passive? A) because there is a continuous column of air from the pharynx to the alveoli B) because the lungs are surrounded by the thoracic wall C) because the alveoli have a very large surface area D) because the intercostal muscles are involved E) because the diaphragm is involved

36) The amount of air that moves in and out with each breath is called the A) vital capacity. B) tidal volume. C) inspiratory reserve volume. D) expiratory reserve volume. E) residual volume.

Chapter 10 37) If you force inspiration, how much more air than the tidal volume can you breathe in? A) about two times the tidal volume B) about three times the tidal volume C) about four times the tidal volume D) about five times the tidal volume E) about six times the tidal volume

38) Which of the following can add an additional 2,900 ml of air to the lungs? A) inspiratory reserve volume B) expiratory reserve volume C) residual volume D) vital capacity E) tidal volume

39) Some inhaled air never reaches the lungs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

40) During respiration, what is the additional amount of air that can be exhaled from the lungs

during an extra-deep exhalation called? This volume is usually around 1,400 ml. A) expiratory reserve volume B) inspiratory reserve volume C) residual volume D) vital capacity E) tidal volume

41) Which lung capacity is approximately 1,400 ml? A) expiratory reserve volume B) inspiratory reserve volume C) tidal volume D) total lung capacity

Chapter 10 42) The vital capacity is equal to the A) maximum amount of air that can be moved in during a single breath. B) maximum amount of air that can be moved out during a single breath. C) maximum amount of air that can be moved in and the maximum amount that can be

moved out during a single breath. D) amount of air left in the lungs after a single breath. E) amount of air that comes in during a single breath.

43) Where is the respiratory control center located? A) in the brain B) in the bronchi C) in the lungs D) in the aorta E) in the diaphragm

44) Tom's son, John, is mad because he didn't get the toy he wanted. John threatens to hold his

breath until he gets what he wants. What will happen if John holds his breath for an extended amount of time? A) He could die. B) His face will turn blue. C) His lungs will deflate due to a lack of air. D) He will pass out and then his brain will take over respiration.

45) How does the respiratory center control the diaphragm? A) via the blood carbon dioxide level B) via the blood pH C) via the intercostal nerves D) via the phrenic nerve E) via the vagus nerve

Chapter 10 46) When the pH of the blood becomes more acidic, the respiratory center A) increases the rate and depth of breathing. B) increases the rate of breathing but decreases the depth. C) decreases the rate of breathing but increases the depth. D) decreases the rate and depth of breathing. E) stops breathing altogether.

47) Which of the following structures will NOT contain chemoreceptors for blood pH? A) carotid arteries B) aorta C) pulmonary vein D) brain stem

48) Carotid bodies and aortic bodies detect A) blood pH. B) blood oxygen levels. C) tissue oxygen levels. D) the stretching of the lungs. E) the residual volume.

49) How are internal and external respiration alike? A) Both involve an exchange of gases. B) Both involve carbon dioxide diffusing into the lungs. C) Both involve oxygen diffusing into the lungs. D) Both involve carbon dioxide diffusing into the body's tissues. E) Both involve oxygen diffusing into the body's tissues.

50) When you breathe into a paper bag after hyperventillating, what is happening in your

bloodstream? A) Your carbon dioxide level is increasing, causing the blood pH to return to normal. B) Your oxygen level is increasing, causing the blood pH to become more acidic. C) You are absorbing additional oxygen, allowing your breathing to return to normal. D) The number of white blood cells is increasing, due to the additional carbon dioxide.

Chapter 10 51) Carbon dioxide is carried in the plasma as A) carbonic anhydrase. B) bicarbonate ions. C) carbonic acid. D) a gas, carbon dioxide. E) reduced hemoglobin.

52) How does breathing at a very low rate affect the reaction H+ + HCO3- → H2CO3 → H2O +

CO2? A) B) C) D) E)

It pushes it to the right. It pushes it to the left. It does not affect it. It increases the rate at which it occurs. It decreases the rate at which it occurs.

53) Which way does the reaction H+ + HCO3- → H2CO3 → H2O + CO2 proceed in the lungs? A) to the right B) to the left C) to the right and then back to the left D) This reaction does not proceed in the lungs.

54) Which reaction does carbonic anhydrase catalyze? A) H+ + HCO3- → H2CO3 B) H2CO3 → H2O + CO2 C) Hb + O2 → HbO2 D) HbO2 → Hb + O2

55) Which enzyme plays a role in respiration? A) carbonic anhydrase B) carbaminohemoglobin C) bicarbonate ions D) oxyhemoglobin

Chapter 10 56) Postnasal discharge and facial pain are symptoms of A) laryngitis. B) sinusitis. C) tonsillitis. D) acute bronchitis.

57) An X-ray revealed that the patient's lungs were filled with fluid. What is the proper diagnosis

of their illness? A) bronchitis B) emphysema C) asthma D) pulmonary fibrosis E) pneumonia

58) Which of these lower respiratory diseases should be treated with antibiotics? A) pulmonary fibrosis B) pulmonary tuberculosis C) emphysema D) asthma E) lung cancer

59) What characteristic is associated with pulmonary fibrosis that makes it a restrictive disorder

of the respiratory system? A) There is a loss of vital capacity associated with pulmonary fibrosis. B) There is a complete blockage of the alveoli associated with pulmonary fibrosis. C) There is a decrease in total lung surface area associated with pulmonary fibrosis. D) The bronchi become blocked with mucous during pulmonary fibrosis.

60) Lung cancer is more prevalent in women than in men. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Chapter 10 61) What is the correct order of the steps in the progression of lung cancer in a person who

smokes? 1. Cilia are lost 2. There is a thickening and callusing of the cells lining the bronchi 3. Metastasis occurs 4. A tumor forms 5. Cells with atypical nuclei appear A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3 C) 5, 1, 2, 3, 4 D) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 E) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3

62) Even if you quit smoking, the damage to your lungs is already done and they will not return

to normal. ⊚ true ⊚ false

63) Which of the following are symptoms of emphysema? A) The elastic recoil of the lungs is reduced. B) The surface area for gas exchange is reduced. C) The alveoli are distended and their walls damaged. D) There is less stress on the heart to pump blood through the lungs.

Chapter 10 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 10 1) C 2) A 3) D 4) A 5) A 6) [A, B, C, D] 7) B 8) TRUE 9) [A, B, C] 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) D 14) A 15) A 16) C 17) [A, B, C] 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) A 22) A 23) [A, B, C] 24) A 25) B 26) A 27) B 28) A 29) E 30) D 31) A 32) [A, B, C] 33) FALSE 34) B 35) A 36) B 37) E

Chapter 10 38) A 39) TRUE 40) A 41) A 42) C 43) A 44) D 45) D 46) A 47) C 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) B 52) B 53) A 54) B 55) A 56) B 57) E 58) B 59) A 60) FALSE 61) B 62) FALSE 63) [A, B, C]

Chapter 11 Student name:__________ 1) How are excretion and defecation alike? A) Both are carried out by the urinary system. B) Both eliminate waste from the body. C) Both are carried out by the digestive system. D) Both involve the kidneys. E) Both involve the colon.

2) Identify the functions of the kidneys. A) Reabsorb filtered nutrients. B) Produce the hormone erythropoietin. C) Help regulate the acid-base balance of the blood. D) Absorb digestive trat fats.

3) Which of the following is a function of the urinary system? A) excretion of metabolic wastes B) maintenance of water-salt balance C) maintenance of acid-base balance D) secretion of hormones E) All of the answer choices are functions of the urinary system.

4) The kidneys play a role in the synthesis of vitamin D, which means they will also A) play a role in the homeostasis of calcium. B) play a role in the synthesis of vitamin C and E, as well. C) help regulate the development and growth of bone cells. D) aid in the production of antibodies to help fight infections.

Chapter 11 5) Why does urine frequently have an acidic pH? A) The kidneys filter and excrete H+ from the blood. B) The kidneys produce H+ in the process of filtering the blood. C) The blood has an acidic pH and the kidneys produce urine similar to the pH of the

blood. D) There is a high concentration of hydrochloric acid (HCl) in the urine, making it highly acidic. E) The kidneys absorb H+ ions and excrete bicarbonate ions.

6) Which of the following are metabolic waste products? A) urea B) ammonia C) creatinine D) renin.

7) In what way do the kidneys help to maintain blood pressure? A) They monitor the pH of the blood. B) They monitor the water-salt balance of the blood. C) They monitor the waste product levels in the blood. D) They monitor the creatine level in the blood.

8) Which of the following organs of the urinary system is the storage area for urine? A) bladder B) kidney C) ureter D) renal pelvis E) urethra

9) What are the walls of a ureter composed of? A) skeletal muscle and mucous membrane B) mucous membrane and fibrous connective tissue C) mucous membrane, smooth muscle, and fibrous connective tissue D) skeletal muscle, fibrous connective tissue, and cartilage E) fibrous connective tissue, cartilage, and mucous membrane

Chapter 11 10) How many openings (inputs and outputs) are there in the urinary bladder? A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five

11) The urethra is controlled by two sphincters, one composed of smooth muscle and one

composed of skeletal muscle. ⊚ true ⊚ false

12) What is the average length of the male urethra? A) 4 cm B) 8 cm C) 12 cm D) 20 cm

13) Which part of the urinary system is shared with the reproductive system in males? A) bladder B) ureters C) kidneys D) urethra E) renal pelvis

14) Which of the following are parts of the kidney? A) cortex B) medulla C) pelvis D) collecting ducts E) ureter

Chapter 11 15) The collecting duct of the nephron originates in what region of the kidney and extends to

what region of the kidney? A) renal cortex to the renal medulla B) renal cortex to the renal pelvis C) renal medulla to the renal cortex D) renal medulla to the renal pelvis E) renal pelvis to the renal medulla

16) Identify where the renal pyramids are located. A) within the renal medulla B) within the renal pelvis C) within the submucosa D) within the renal cortex

17) The renal pelvis is continuous with the A) renal cortex. B) bladder. C) urethra. D) ureter. E) nephrons.

18) Which of the following are parts of a nephron? A) glomerular capsule B) proximal convoluted tubule C) loop of Henle D) renal cortex E) renal medulla

19) Each nephron empties into its own collecting duct before emptying into the bladder. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Chapter 11 20) What is located within the glomerular capsule? A) the renal cortex B) the loop of Henle C) several collecting ducts D) a knot of capillaries E) the peritubular capillary network

21) What is the correct order of flow for the glomerular filtrate? A) glomerular capsule through the proximal convoluted tubule to the loop of Henle to

the collecting duct B) glomerular capsule through the distal convoluted tubule to the loop of Henle to the collecting duct C) proximal convoluted tubule to the loop of Henle to the gomerular capsule to the collecting duct D) the loop of Henle to the distal convoluted tubule to the glomerular capsule to the bladder

22) Place the parts of the nephron in order of how filtration would occur. 1. ascending limb of loop 2. descending limb of loop 3. proximal convoluted tubule 4. glomerulus 5. collecting duct 6. distal convoluted tubule A) 4, 3, 2, 1, 6, 5 B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 C) 2, 1, 6, 4, 3, 5 D) 1, 2, 4, 3, 6, 5 E) 6, 4, 1, 2, 3, 5

23) Which part of the nephron contains podocytes? A) distal convoluted tubule B) proximal convoluted tubule C) ascending limb of loop D) descending limb of loop E) glomerular capsule

Chapter 11 24) A blockage to the podocytes, within the nephron, could lead to which of the following

conditions? A) a change in the composition of the filtrate within the blood B) a change in the pH levels within the blood stream C) a change in the rate at which blood filtrate will be produced D) a change in the amount of fluid consumed

25) Why do water and small molecules move from the glomerulus into the filtrate? A) diffusion down the concentration gradient B) glomerular blood pressure C) active transport D) secretion E) diffusion against the concentration gradient

26) Substances that are nonfilterable in the glomerulus exit the nephron through which structure? A) efferent arteriole B) afferent arteriole C) loop of Henle D) collecting duct

27) List the three processes involved in the formation of urine in order. 1. tubular secretion 2. tubular reabsorption 3. glomerular filtration A) 1, 2, 3 B) 3, 2, 1 C) 1, 3, 2 D) 2, 3, 1 E) 2, 1, 3

Chapter 11 28) Which molecule is secreted from the peritubular capillary network into the convoluted

tubules? A) water B) salt C) H+ D) nutrients E) plasma proteins

29) What are the two ways substances are removed from the blood and added to the forming

urine? A) B) C) D) E)

glomerular filtration and tubular secretion glomerular filtration and tubular reabsorption tubular secretion and tubular reabsorption glomerular secretion and tubular reabsorption glomerular secretion and tubular secretion

30) While glucose is filtered out at the glomerulus, none is excreted in the urine. What happens

to the glucose? A) It is reabsorbed at the distal convoluted tubule. B) It is secreted at the proximal convoluted tubule. C) It is reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubule. D) It is secreted at the distal convoluted tubule. E) It is reabsorbed from the collecting duct.

31) What percentage of water, filtered in the glomerulus, is actually excreted? A) 99% B) 1% C) 18% D) 82%

Chapter 11 32) Why does glucose appear in the urine of a person with diabetes? A) The volume of urine is too great to filter. B) No glucose is filtered into the glomerular filtrate. C) The kidneys produce glucose in diabetes. D) The carriers for glucose reabsorption reach their maximum rate of transport. E) The ascending limb of the loop of Henle secretes glucose into the urine.

33) Less than 50% of which molecule is reabsorbed during tubular reabsorption? A) urea B) water C) sodium D) glucose E) amino acids

34) Which of the following molecules is passively reabsorbed during tubular reabsorption? A) sodium B) glucose C) chloride D) amino acids

35) How is penicillin removed from the blood? A) glomerular filtration B) tubular secretion C) tubular reabsorption D) phagocytosis E) passive transport

36) In the analogy where the liver is like the sewage treatment plant, the kidneys are like A) the trucks that take the waste out of town. B) the people who produce the waste. C) trash cans where the waste is stored. D) the trucks that carry the waste from the people who produce it to the treatment plant. E) trucks that produce the waste.

Chapter 11 37) Check all of the following that assist the kidneys in excretion of nitrogenous wastes. A) liver B) sweat glands C) muscles D) blood E) alveoli

38) The kidneys interact with every other organ system of the human body in maintaining

homeostasis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) Which step occurs first? A) reabsorption of salt in the kidneys B) reabsorption of water C) leackage of urea from the collecting duct D) formation of urine

40) What hormones regulate the reabsorption of sodium and water in the distal convoluted

tubule? A) B) C) D) E)

creatinine and renin renin and aquaporin aquaporin and aldosterone aldosterone and renin creatinine and aldosterone

41) Which of the hormones involved in the regulation of water-salt balance is produced by the

juxtaglomerular apparatus? A) aldosterone B) renin C) ADH D) ANH E) testosterone

Chapter 11 42) If you do not drink enough water, which hormone will the hypothalamus produce to regulate

urine production? A) renin B) ADH C) ANH D) aldosterone E) diuretics

43) What effect does ANH have on renin? A) It inhibits its secretion. B) It inhibits its production. C) It promotes its secretion. D) It promotes its production. E) It produces additional hormones that accelerate the production of renin.

44) Where is the hormone ANH produced? A) atria of the heart B) vena cava of the heart C) hypothalamus D) posterior pituitary

45) If your blood pressure is high because of increased blood volume, what hormone will correct

this? A) B) C) D) E)

renin ADH ANH aldosterone testosterone

46) The inner medulla of the kidney is_____ to the loop of Henle and therefore, water leaves the

loop at the descending limb and collecting duct. A) isotonic B) hypertonic C) hypotonic D) balanced

Chapter 11 47) What substance is lost during prolonged exercise that causes a person to sweat heavily? A) electrolytes B) urea C) white blood cells D) erythrocytes

48) Why do some people avoid drinking beverages with caffeine right before bedtime? A) It increases the flow of urine and causes you to go to the bathroom during the night. B) It decreases the flow of urine and can cause kidney stones. C) It may affect the ability to sleep, but caffeine has very little effect on the urinary

system. D) It can cause a headache if consumed late at night. E) It can lead to diarrhea.

49) What is the normal pH of blood? A) neutral B) slightly basic C) slightly acidic D) extremely basic E) extremely acidic

50) What effect does cellular respiration have on the pH of the blood? A) It does not affect the pH. B) It raises the pH. C) It lowers the pH. D) It decreases the amount of hydrogen ions in the blood. E) It increases the amount of hydroxide ions in the blood.

51) What is an infection of the urinary bladder called? A) cystitis B) urethritis C) pyelonephritis D) hemodialysis E) uremia

Chapter 11 52) What is one of the earliest signs of nephron damage? A) burning upon urination B) extreme pain C) albumin or formed elements in the urine D) the absence of urination E) edema

53) Identify which of the following factors can lead to kidney stones. A) an enlarged prostate gland B) a urinary tract infection C) consumption of too much calcium D) consumption of large amounts of water

54) In CAPD, what serves as the dialysis membrane? A) the walls of the blood vessels B) a filter inside the instrument C) the kidneys themselves D) the peritoneum E) the pleural membrane

55) Why is the dialysate continually replaced in hemodialysis? A) to maintain a favorable concentration gradient with the blood B) because it is easily infected C) because it enters the body and is absorbed D) because it is lost by urination E) because it biodegrades rapidly

56) What is the success rate for a kindey transplant when the donor is a relative? A) 90% B) 20% C) 97% D) 72%

Chapter 11 57) Which of the following is not part of the glomerular filtrate? A) water B) salt C) nitrogenous wastes D) plasma proteins

58) Which substance is removed from the blood during tubular secretion? A) H+ B) Na+ C) aldosterone D) water E) Cl-

59) Which of the following tasks is NOT a function of the urinary system? A) excretion of metabolic wastes B) synthesis of vitamin E C) secretion of hormones D) maintenance of the water-salt balance

60) Which of the following is considered a secondary or additional function of the urinary

system? A) synthesis of vitamin D B) excretion of metabolic wastes C) secretion of hormones D) maintenance of acid-base balance E) maintenance of water-salt balance

61) What is the correct order of steps involved in urine formation?

one - glomerular filtration two - tubular secretion three - tubular reabsorption A) 1-2-3 B) 1-3-2 C) 2-3-1 D) 3-2-1

Chapter 11

Chapter 11 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 11 1) B 2) [A, B, C] 3) E 4) A 5) A 6) [A, B, C] 7) B 8) A 9) C 10) C 11) TRUE 12) D 13) D 14) [A, B, C, D] 15) B 16) A 17) D 18) [A, B, C] 19) FALSE 20) D 21) A 22) A 23) E 24) [A, B, C] 25) B 26) A 27) B 28) C 29) A 30) C 31) B 32) D 33) A 34) C 35) B 36) A 37) [A, B, C, D]

Chapter 11 38) TRUE 39) A 40) D 41) B 42) B 43) A 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) A 48) A 49) B 50) C 51) A 52) C 53) [A, B, C] 54) D 55) A 56) C 57) D 58) A 59) B 60) A 61) B

Chapter 12 Student name:__________ 1) Which function of the skeleton do the rib cage, vertebral column, and skull provide? A) support the body B) protect soft body parts C) produce blood cells D) store minerals and fats E) permit flexible body movement

2) Where, besides adipose tissue, is fat stored? A) matrix of bone B) yellow bone marrow C) red bone marrow D) periosteum E) articular cartilage

3) Only certain bones in the fetus produce blood cells, but all the bones in the adult produce

blood cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false

4) From the outside to the inside of a long bone, what is the first tissue encountered? A) compact bone B) spongy bone C) periosteum D) medullary cavity E) bone marrow

5) What term is associated with spongy bone but not with compact bone? A) canaliculi B) osteocytes C) trabeculae D) bone marrow E) blood vessels

Chapter 12 6) What is a canaliculus? A) the large cavity inside a long bone B) a stress plate in spongy bone C) a fibrous connective covering of bone D) a small channel in the matrix of bone E) a type of bone forming cell

7) The medullary cavity is within the diaphysis of a long bone. ⊚ true ⊚ false

8) Bone cells are called________ while cartilage cells are called________. A) osteocytes; osteoblasts B) lacunae; osteocytes C) chondrocytes; lacunae D) osteoblasts; chondrocytes E) osteocytes; chondrocytes

9) What type of cartilage is found at the ends of the long bones? A) elastic cartilage B) fibrocartilage C) hyaline cartilage D) spongy E) compact

10) Jason fractured a bone in his index finger playing football, while Sean tore the cartilage in his

knee playing basketball. Which one will heal faster and why? A) Jason; bones have a blood supply and heal faster. B) Jason; fingers bear less weight than knees do. C) Sean; cartilage has a blood supply and heals faster. D) Sean; knees can be immobilized easier than fingers. E) Jason; fingers require fewer nutrients to repair because they are small.

Chapter 12 11) The epiglottis is a structure that needs to be strong but extremely flexible. What type of tissue

gives the epiglottis this property? A) elastic cartilage B) fibrocartilage C) hyaline cartilage D) bone E) muscle

12) Bones continue to grow throughout a lifetime. ⊚ true ⊚ false

13) Bone recycling allows the body to regulate what? A) the amount of sodium in the blood B) the amount of calcium in the blood C) the amount of sodium in the bone D) the amount of vitamin C in the blood E) the amount of vitamin D in the bone

14) What happens to bones when a person exercises? A) The osteoclasts are stimulated. B) The osteoblasts are stimulated. C) The chondrocytes are stimulated. D) The medullary cavity becomes narrower.

15) What two hormones are involved in regulating the blood calcium level? A) calcitonin and renin B) renin and aldosterone C) renin and PTH D) aldosterone and PTH E) PTH and calcitonin

Chapter 12 16) How are osteocytes and osteoblasts related? A) Osteocytes become osteoblasts as the bone matures. B) Osteoblasts become osteocytes as the bone matures. C) Osteocytes and osteoblasts have the same function, but osteocytes work in the adult

and osteoblasts work in the fetus. D) Osteocytes and osteoblasts work opposite each other. One builds up bone and the other absorbs it. E) Osteocytes are mature bone cells; osteoblasts are a form of bone cancer.

17) Which of the following statements are true regarding the region of primary ossification of a

bone? A) B) C) D)

Osteoblasts are derived from the newly formed periosteum. Bone formation spreads from the center to the ends of the bone. As the cartilage models calcify, the chondrocytes die off. The band of cartilage between the primary ossification center and each secondary center dissolves.

18) How long will the limbs continue to increase in length? A) as long as there is a growth plate B) as long as the body has adequate supply of calcium C) for a woman, until she enters menopause D) for a man, until he starts to experience a decrease in testosterone

19) Which bones develop by intramembranous ossification? A) the long bones of the leg B) the long bones of the arms C) the ribs D) the fingers E) the skull

Chapter 12 20) Arrange the steps of bone repair in order: 1. Remodeling; 2. Bony callus; 3. Hematoma; 4.

Fibrocartilaginous callus A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 4, 3, 2, 1 C) 1, 2, 4, 3 D) 3, 4, 2, 1 E) 2, 1, 4, 3

21) How long does the bony callus in a bone repair last? A) 1–2 days B) 3–4 weeks C) 3–4 months D) 1–2 years E) more than 10 years

22) How is bone repair different from bone development? A) A hematoma indicates an injury has occurred. B) Osteoblasts are not involved in bone repair but they are in bone development. C) Osteoclasts are involved in bone development but not in bone repair. D) Only spongy bone is built in bone repair, whereas both spongy and compact bone are

built in bone development. E) There is no cartilage involved in bone repair but there is in bone development.

23) During the Olympics, a gymnast slipped on the balance beam and broke her tibia. The x-ray

showed that the break was ragged due to the twisting of her leg when the injury occurred. What type of fracture would she be diagnosed with? A) a complete compond fracture B) an impacted fracture C) a spiral fracture D) a compound incomplete fracture

Chapter 12 24) What criterion is used to categorize the skeleton into axial and appendicular? A) whether the bones are weight bearing or not B) whether the bones lie on the midline or on a girdle C) whether the bones are flat or long D) whether the bones contain red bone marrow or yellow bone marrow E) whether the bones articulate with the pelvis or not

25) Which of the following bones are part of the axial skeleton? A) hyoid B) temporal C) rib D) femur.

26) Which bone in the body does not articulate with any other bone? A) scapula B) maxilla C) hyoid D) coccyx E) temporal

27) Gia broke her cheekbone in an ice skating accident. Which bone did she break? A) temporal bone B) mandible C) maxilla D) zygomatic bone E) frontal bone

28) How are the bones of the cranium named? A) for their articulations with the vertebral column B) for whether they are formed from cartilage or not C) for their shape D) for their size E) for the lobes of the brain they protect

Chapter 12 29) How many vertebrae are there? A) 5 B) 10 C) 18 D) 24 E) 33

30) What is the name of the first cervical vertebra? Why? A) atlas; Greek mythology B) atlas; it allows "yes" motion of the head C) axis; Roman mythology D) axis; it allows "no" motion of the head E) sphinoid; Egyptian sphinx mythology

31) Which structures articulate with the thoracic vertebrae? A) the 12 pairs of ribs B) the sternum C) the 14 pairs of ribs D) the clavicles

32) The name of the "tailbone" is the A) lumbar. B) sacrum. C) coccyx. D) sphinoid. E) axis.

33) What are the functions of the sinuses? A) to drain fluid from the brain and to allow the brain to expand B) to give a resonant sound to the voice and to allow the brain to expand C) to lighten the skull and drain fluid from the brain D) to lighten the skull and give a resonant sound to the voice E) to allow the brain to expand and to lighten the skull

Chapter 12 34) What are the intervertebral disks made of? A) bone B) skeletal muscle C) hyaline cartilage D) fibrocartilage E) elastic cartilage

35) How many pairs of ribs articulate with the sternum? A) all 12 pairs B) 4 pairs C) 7 pairs D) 10 pairs

36) Due to the compression of her intervertebral disks, Carla had several of her lumbar vertebrae

fused together. How does this affect Carla? A) She will have limited movement in that area. B) She will not be affected at all. C) She will need assistance in walking. D) She will be unable to stand upright. E) She will be unable to lie flat on her back.

37) Which of the following bones is not part of the pectoral girdle and attached limbs? A) clavicle B) sternum C) scapula D) ulna E) humerus

38) The baseball pitcher developed a rotator cuff injury. What part of their body was injured? A) neck B) upper back C) shoulder D) lower back E) lower arm

Chapter 12 39) How many bones are present in the pelvic girdle? A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five

40) Which of the following bones are part of the coxal bone? A) ilium B) ischium C) pubis. D) patella.

41) The head of the radius is located at the A) elbow. B) wrist. C) shoulder. D) sternum. E) knee.

42) The humerus fits into what at the shoulder? A) acetabulum B) clavicle C) acromion process D) glenoid cavity E) olecranon process

43) Which bones are commonly used to determine the biological sex of an individual when you

only have skeletal remains? A) femur B) pelvis C) ulna D) tibia

Chapter 12 44) The carpals are bones that make up what structure? A) shoulder B) elbow C) knee D) wrist E) ankle

45) Jamal has a very large deltoid tuberosity. This is probably because he A) is a pianist. B) spends a lot of time playing video games. C) lifts heavy weights with his arms. D) plays basketball. E) is a runner.

46) Which bone is the longest and strongest bone in the body? A) humerus B) pelvis C) tibia D) fibula E) femur

47) What holds the patella in place? A) the lateral epicondyle B) the quadriceps tendon C) the medial condyle D) the lateral malleolus E) the greater trochanter

48) Where can we find phalanges? A) the hands and skull B) the feet and the lower leg C) the thoracic cavity and the vertebrae D) the hands and feet

Chapter 12 49) Which of the following is a type of joint? A) trochanter B) fibrous C) tibia D) synapse E) ulna

50) Which of the following joints is a fibrous joint? A) sutures between cranial bones B) ribs and sternum C) intervertebral disks D) elbow E) knee

51) Which type of joints tend to be slightly movable? A) fibrous B) cartilaginous C) synovial D) sutures

52) A ligament connects A) cartilage to bone. B) muscle to bone. C) bone to bone. D) a cartilaginous joint. E) muscle to muscle.

53) Which of the following structures are associated with a synovial joint? A) bursae B) menisci C) ligaments D) sutures.

Chapter 12 54) The C-shaped piece of hyaline cartilage found beneath the patella is called the A) intervertebral disc. B) meniscus. C) septum. D) pubic symphysis.

55) Which part of a synovial joint is a fluid-filled sac? A) symphysis B) suture C) synovial membrane D) menisci E) bursa

56) When you nod your head "yes," what type of movement are you using? A) flexion and extension B) adduction and abduction C) rotation D) circumduction E) inversion

57) When you kick your foot out in front of you, what type of movement are you using? A) adduction and abduction B) flexion and extension C) rotation D) eversion E) inversion

58) When Antonio was little, he walked on the outside edge of his feet. Turning one's foot like

this is what type of movement? A) rotation B) eversion C) inversion D) circumduction E) adduction and abduction

Chapter 12 59) Which type of movement does the knee joint allow for? A) flexion B) adduction C) inversion D) circumduction

60) Jontae was in a bad car accident and injured his pubic symphysis. Which type of joint was

injured? A) fibrocartilaginous B) synovial C) hyaline D) dense

61) Which type of cartilage is firm but somewhat flexible and can be found at the ends of the

long bones? A) hyaline B) fibrocartilage C) elastic D) dense

62) What term is used to describe bone cells? A) osteocytes B) chondrocytes C) trabeculae D) periosteum E) epiphysis

63) Identify the first step in bone growth by endochondral ossification. A) Osteoblasts cover the diaphysis with a compact bone collar. B) A cartilage model is developed and is calcified. C) Osteoblasts are transported to the cartilage by the blood vessels. D) The compact bone collar thickens and secondary ossification centers appear at the

epiphyses.

Chapter 12 64) Which bone(s) is/are part of the pelvic girdle? A) coxal bones B) clavicle C) femur D) scapula E) talus

65) Which bone(s) is (are) part of the pectoral girdle? A) clavicle B) radius C) ulna D) carpals E) manubrium

66) Which joint has the greatest range of motion? A) synovial B) suture C) fibrous D) cartilaginous

67) Which joint action allows for the body part to move towards the midline? A) adduction B) abduction C) flexion D) pronation E) eversion

68) A meniscus is made up of synovial fluid found within a joint. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Chapter 12 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 12 1) B 2) B 3) FALSE 4) C 5) C 6) D 7) TRUE 8) E 9) C 10) A 11) A 12) TRUE 13) B 14) B 15) E 16) B 17) [A, B, C] 18) A 19) E 20) D 21) C 22) A 23) C 24) B 25) [A, B, C] 26) C 27) D 28) E 29) E 30) A 31) A 32) C 33) D 34) D 35) C 36) A 37) B

Chapter 12 38) C 39) B 40) [A, B, C] 41) A 42) D 43) B 44) D 45) C 46) E 47) B 48) D 49) B 50) A 51) B 52) C 53) [A, B, C] 54) B 55) E 56) A 57) B 58) C 59) A 60) A 61) A 62) A 63) B 64) A 65) A 66) A 67) A 68) FALSE

Chapter 13 Student name:__________ 1) What do smooth, cardiac, and skeletal muscle all have in common? A) They are all uninucleated. B) They are all striated. C) They are all found in the walls of blood vessels. D) The cells of these muscles are all called muscle fibers. E) They all interlock at intercalated disks.

2) Of the three types of muscle tissue, which has multinucleated fibers? A) smooth muscle B) cardiac muscle C) skeletal muscle D) both smooth and skeletal muscles E) both cardiac and smooth muscles

3) Of the three types of muscle tissue, which is voluntary? A) smooth muscle B) cardiac muscle C) skeletal muscle D) both smooth and skeletal E) both cardiac and skeletal

4) The contraction of which muscle type plays the greatest role in returning the venous blood to

the heart? A) smooth B) cardiac C) skeletal D) both smooth and cardiac

Chapter 13 5) What is found within the intercalated disks of cardiac muscle? A) sarcoplasmic reticulum B) gap junctions C) dense connective tissue D) bone E) myoglobin

6) Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal muscle? A) provides support for the body B) helps to maintain fluid levels within the cardiovascular and lymphatic systems C) stabilization of joints D) protect the body against invading pathogens

7) Which type of muscle fibers will never relax completely? A) cardiac B) smooth C) skeletal D) all muscle fibers relax completely at some point

8) Which description best fits a thick myofilament? A) composed of several hundred molecules of myosin that contain cross-bridges on each

side of the sarcomere B) composed of several hundred molecules of myosin that contain cross-bridges that are in the middle of the sarcomere C) two intertwining strands of actin that connect to tropomyosin and troponin D) two intertwining strands of actin that contain cross-bridges that are on each side of the sarcomere

9) Which statement best describes fast-twitch muscle fibers? A) motor unit contains many fibers that are designed for strength and working under

anaerobic conditions B) motor units that contain many fibers are are designed for endurance and working under anaerobic conditions C) motor units with few muscle fibers that are useful for endurance activities D) dark in color, contain large numbers of mitochondria and good for strength

Chapter 13 10) From the outside of a muscle coming in, the first thing encountered would be A) fascia. B) fascicle. C) dense connective tissue. D) muscle fiber. E) myofibril.

11) What structure attaches a muscle to a bone? A) ligaments B) tendons C) bursae D) sarcolemma E) sarcoplasm

12) What muscle works in a pair with the biceps brachii? A) the triceps brachii B) the trapezius C) the masseter D) the pectoralis major E) the sartorius

13) Muscles can only pull; they cannot push. ⊚ true ⊚ false

14) The origin of a muscle is on a stationary bone. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Chapter 13 15) What is the deltoid muscle shaped like? A) a long thin line B) a square C) a triangle D) a circle E) a trapezoid

16) What does the word brevis mean when referring to a muscle? A) large B) small C) huge D) long E) short

17) What is the name of the muscle that is responsible for blinking and winking? A) latissimus dorsi B) trapezius C) pectoralis major D) orbicularis oculi E) extensor digitorum

18) What information does the word rectus give you about a muscle? A) the size of the muscle fibers B) the attachment of the muscle fibers C) the action of the muscle fibers D) the shape of the muscle fibers E) the direction of muscle fibers

19) Which of the following does not attach to the sternocleidomastoid muscle? A) rib B) clavicle C) sternum D) mastoid process E) skull

Chapter 13 20) Which way does the adductor longus move the thigh? A) away from the midline B) toward the midline C) in a circle D) in a cone E) towards the back

21) What is the biggest muscle (in terms of mass) in the body? A) gluteus maximus B) sartorius C) stapedius D) quadriceps femoris E) latissimus dorsi

22) What does the word sarco mean? A) large B) short C) muscle D) tubule E) smooth

23) Several of the structures in the muscle cell are given special names. For example, the

cytoplasm of a muscle fiber is called the sarcoplasm. Which of the following is truly a unique structure to muscle cells (not just a renamed one)? A) cytoplasm B) nucleus C) endoplasmic reticulum D) transverse (T) system E) plasma membrane

Chapter 13 24) A muscle fiber is made up of many A) muscle cells. B) T tubules. C) myofibrils. D) fascicles. E) bursa.

25) One sarcomere A) extends from Z line to Z line. B) is composed of many myofibrils. C) contains only actin fibers. D) is composed of many muscle fibers. E) surrounds each muscle in the body.

26) What ion is responsible for initiating muscle contraction? A) Mg2+ B) Ca2+ C) H+ D) ClE) Na+

27) During muscle contraction, which portion of the muscle almost completely disappears? A) I band B) H band C) Z line D) sarcomere

28) What happens to the actin and myosin filaments when a muscle contracts? A) Both of them shorten. B) Both of them lengthen. C) Both stay the same length. D) Actin shortens, while myosin lengthens. E) Myosin shortens, while actin lengthens.

Chapter 13 29) What supplies the energy for muscle contraction? A) actin B) myosin C) tropomyosin D) ATP E) Ca2+

30) Which portion of the muscle fiber is shaped like a golf club, with a straight portion ending in

a globular head? A) myosin molecule B) actin molecule C) Z lines D) sarcomere

31) What does troponin bind to, and what happens when it binds? A) Ca2+; tropomyosin shifts B) tropomyosin; the sarcomere relaxes C) acetylcholine; the sarcomere shortens D) ATP; tropomyosin returns to normal position E) T tubules; the sarcomere shortens

32) What is the name of the small gap that separates the axon terminal of a nerve from the

sarcolemma? A) T tubule B) sliding filament C) synaptic cleft D) synaptic vesicle E) sarcoplasmic reticulum

33) When the nerve signal reaches the axon terminal, what happens next? A) The muscle contracts. B) The synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitter. C) An electrical signal is formed that jumps the synaptic cleft. D) H+ is pumped into the synaptic cleft. E) Myosin is released from the axon terminal.

Chapter 13 34) Identify the reason why a single motor neuron can stimulate more than one muscle fiber. A) Motor neurons have multiple dendrites that will innervate multiple muscle fibers. B) Motor neurons have axons that are capable of stimulating multiple muscle fibers at

the same time. C) Once a muscle fiber is stimulated it will send the signal to the next muscle fiber and so forth. D) Motor neurons release neurotransmitters that will innervate large groups of muscle fibers at the same time.

35) One motor unit obeys a principle called the all-or-none law. ⊚ true ⊚ false

36) Why is the innervation ratio in the ocular muscles one motor axon per 23 muscle fibers,

whereas in the gastrocnemius muscle, it is one motor axon per 1,000 muscle fibers? A) There are more nerves in the upper body than in the lower extremities. B) The ocular muscles require finer control than moving the legs. C) The innervation ratio has to do with the overall size of the muscle—the bigger the muscle, the fewer the muscle fibers per motor axon. D) The gastrocnemius muscle contracts much harder than the ocular muscles do. E) There are fewer muscle fibers in the gastrocnemius muscle than in the ocular muscles.

37) What is happening during the latent period of a muscle twitch? A) The muscle relaxes and returns to its former length. B) Fresh ATP binds to the myosin, causing it to return to its resting position. C) ADP and phosphate are released, and the power stroke of the contraction occurs. D) The myosin-actin cross-bridges are broken and the sarcomere shortens. E) The neurotransmitter is diffusing across the synaptic cleft, causing an electrical signal

in the muscle cell.

Chapter 13 38) Which of the following occurs when a muscle fatigues? A) Its energy reserves are depleted. B) Stimulation discontinues. C) Tetanus is achieved. D) Acetylcholine bypasses the synaptic cleft. E) The muscle contracts.

39) In good muscle tone, how many motor units are contracted? A) none B) some C) all D) 5–10% of the motor units E) 10–15% of the motor units

40) How long will tetanus be maintained during muscle contraction? A) until the muscle runs out of energy reserves B) until there is a build up of carbon dioxide in the muscles C) until there becomes an imbalance of ions within the muscle fibers D) until the sarcomere shortens so much the muscle cannot function

41) Of the three pathways for obtaining ATP for muscle contraction, which one requires oxygen? A) only the creatine phosphate pathway B) only fermentation C) only respiration D) fermentation and respiration E) the creatine phosphate pathway and fermentation

42) Of the three pathways for supplying ATP to the muscle, which pathway(s) do slow-twitch

fibers prefer? A) the creatine phosphate pathway B) fermentation C) aerobic respiration D) the creatine phosphate pathway or fermentation E) the creatine phosphate pathway or aerobic respiration

Chapter 13 43) One of the reasons Jillian is a top-level cross-country runner is due to her having

predominantly slow-twitch muscle fibers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) Why are slow-twitch muscles darkly colored? A) They have many more myofibrils per motor unit than fast-twitch fibers. B) They are designed for strength and explosions of energy. C) They need less blood than fast-twitch fibers. D) They contain myoglobin. E) They have fewer mitochondria.

45) What is the name of a sudden and involuntary muscular contraction, often accompanied by

pain? A) B) C) D) E)

bursitis sprain strain tic spasm

46) What is the difference between a tic and a spasm? A) A tic is a spasm that can be controlled voluntarily. B) A tic is a strong and very painful spasm, especially of the leg and foot. C) A tic is caused by stretching or tearing of a muscle, while a spasm is just an

involuntary contraction. D) A tic is caused by the inflammation of a tendon, while a spasm is just an involuntary contraction. E) A tic refers to achy muscles, usually due to overexercise, while a spasm is just an involuntary contraction.

Chapter 13 47) Which of the following injuries is most likely to happen to the ankle? A) sprain B) strain C) convulsion D) bursitis E) muscular dystrophy

48) Every morning when John gets up his muscles are stiff and sore. He has overall muscle pain

and tenderness as well. What condition does John most likely have? A) myalgia B) fibromyalgia C) myotis D) muscular dystrophy

49) Which muscle injury is characterized by a twisting of a joint leading to swelling and injury? A) sprain B) strain C) tendinitis D) bursitis E) myalgia

50) Which disease is an autoimmune disease characterized by weakness that especially affects

the muscles of the eyelids, face, neck, and extremities? A) myalgia B) muscular dystrophy C) myasthenia gravis D) tendinitis E) bursitis

51) Which term refers to a cancer of the smooth muscle in the uterine wall? A) rhabdomyosarcoma B) mylagia C) leiomyoma D) myasthenia gravis

Chapter 13 52) What is the reservoir for Ca2+ in the body? A) muscles B) bones C) liver D) brain E) blood

53) What happens when the arrector pili muscles contract? A) Your head nods "yes." B) Your leg kicks out. C) The hairs on your skin stand on end. D) The blood from your skin is rerouted to your core. E) You tap your finger.

54) Shivering is a response to our body becoming cold. Where are the temperature-sensitive

neurons located that will cause us to shiver? A) the dermis of the skin B) the epidermis of the skin C) the frontal lobe of the brain D) the hypothalamus of the brain

55) During a recent wedding, one of the groomsmen passed out while the bride and groom were

giving their vows. What is the most likely reason for the groomsmen passing out? A) He was nervous and held his breath until he fainted. B) He locked his knees preventing blood from his lower legs to return to his heart. C) He was so excited he began hyperventillating and passed out. D) It was a sunny day and he was dehydrated from standing in the sun for so long, causing him to pass out.

Chapter 13 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 13 1) D 2) C 3) C 4) C 5) B 6) D 7) D 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) B 12) A 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) C 16) E 17) D 18) E 19) A 20) B 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) C 25) A 26) B 27) B 28) C 29) D 30) A 31) A 32) C 33) B 34) B 35) TRUE 36) B 37) E

Chapter 13 38) A 39) B 40) A 41) C 42) C 43) TRUE 44) D 45) E 46) A 47) A 48) B 49) A 50) C 51) C 52) B 53) C 54) D 55) B

Chapter 14 Student name:__________ 1) The spinal cord belongs to the A) peripheral nervous system. B) central nervous system. C) axial nervous system. D) appendicular nervous system.

2) The central nervous system is protected by A) bone. B) muscle. C) fibrous cartilage. D) hyaline cartilage. E) elastic cartilage.

3) The division between the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system is based

on the anatomical differences between cells in the two locations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

4) One function of the nervous system is to cushion and protect soft tissue. ⊚ true ⊚ false

5) Identify the type of cells that are not part of the central nervous system. A) neurons B) microglia C) astrocytes D) chondrocytes

Chapter 14 6) Which of the following parts of a neuron is correctly matched? A) cell body—short extensions that receive impulses B) axon—conducts nerve impulses C) dendrite—contains the nucleus and other organelles D) axon—contains the nucleus and other organelles E) dendrite—conducts nerve impulses

7) Which one of the following is entirely located within the central nervous system? A) sensory neuron B) sensory receptor C) motor neuron D) effector E) interneuron

8) Which of the following is associated with the PNS but not the CNS? A) Schwann cells B) myelin sheath C) axon D) dendrite E) node of Ranvier

9) What is the gap in the myelin sheath on a nerve fiber called? A) axon B) dendrite C) node of Ranvier D) axon terminal

10) Why is the outside of a neuron positively charged? A) because sodium ions gather around the outside of the cell membrane B) because calcium ions gather around the outside of the cell membrane C) because potassium ions gather around the inside of the cell membrane D) because sodium ions gather around the inside of the cell membrane E) because chloride ions gather around the outside of the cell membrane

Chapter 14 11) Depolarization of the neuron occurs when A) the potassium gates open and potassium moves outside the cell. B) the sodium-potassium pump moves sodium inside the cell. C) sodium gates open and sodium moves inside the cell. D) the sodium-potassium pump moves potassium inside the cell. E) water moves to the outside of the cell and chloride ions follow.

12) The action potential in a neuron is an all-or-nothing event. ⊚ true ⊚ false

13) The entire action potential (depolarization and repolarization) occurs in a matter of A) milliseconds. B) seconds. C) minutes. D) hours. E) days.

14) What ensures the one-way direction of an action potential? A) As soon as the action potential has passed by, that portion of the axon undergoes a

short refractory period. B) Action potentials are self-propagating. C) Conduction of an action potential is an all-or-none event. D) An action potential at one node causes an action potential at the next node. E) An axon can conduct a volley of action potentials very quickly.

15) Which conducts an action potential faster and why? A) myelinated fibers; the action potential moves through the myelin, which allows it to

travel faster B) myelinated fibers; the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to another C) unmyelinated fibers; the absence of myelin allows the action potential to travel faster D) unmyelinated fibers; the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to another E) unmyelinated fibers; the ions can move in and out of the cell faster without the myelin coating

Chapter 14 16) One neural message was sent with 2000 action potentials while another was sent with 1000.

What can be said about the intensity of the message? A) The second action potential will be much more intense than the first one. B) The first action potential will be twice as intense as the second one. C) There will be no difference in the intensity of the messages. D) Neither of them are strong enough to produce a message.

17) Place the events in the transmission of an action potential in the correct order: 1. An action potential begins in the receiving neuron. 2. Neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft. 3. An action potential arrives at an axon terminal. 4. Calcium ions enter the axon terminal. 5. Sodium ions diffuse into the receiving neuron. 6. Synaptic vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane. 7. Neurotransmitter molecules bind to the membrane of the receiving neuron. A) 1,2,6,7,4,3,5 B) 3,5,6,2,7,4,1 C) 3,4,6,2,7,5,1 D) 2,3,6,7,4,5,1 E) 7,6,5,3,4,2,1

18) Determine what happens to the neurotransimitter after it binds to the receiving membrane

receptors. A) It is reabsorbed by the sending membrane. B) It degrades due to the lack of calcium. C) It stays bound to the receiving membrane. D) It is released back into the synaptic cleft where it builds up.

19) Which neurotransmitter excites skeletal muscles but can inhibit cardiac muscles? A) norepinephrine B) acetylcholine C) serotonin D) dopamine

Chapter 14 20) What is the summing up of the excitatory and inhibitory signals by a neuron called? A) integration B) addition C) polarization D) depolarization E) firing

21) When a neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft, the response of the receiving

neuron will be toward excitation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

22) Which of the following terms identifies the opening in the skull where the spinal cord exits? A) foramen ovale B) inferior ventricle C) posterior sinus D) foramen magnum

23) Which statement best describes the relationship between the white and gray matter in the

spinal cord? A) The gray matter wraps around the white matter. B) The gray matter is shaped like an H and is surrounded by the white matter. C) The gray and white matter is mixed together forming a checkered appearance. D) The gray matter forms a thick layer on the outside of a thin layer of white matter.

24) Which of the following is part of the brain? A) corpus callosum B) cerebrum C) cerebellum D) pons E) All of the answer choices are parts of the brain.

Chapter 14 25) The cerebrum is associated with the A) two lateral ventricles. B) third ventricle. C) fourth ventricle. D) posterior ventricle. E) anterior ventricle.

26) Which is the largest part of the brain? A) medulla oblongata B) midbrain C) diencephalon D) cerebellum E) cerebrum

27) Which neural structure is not part of the brain stem? A) midbrain B) pons C) medulla oblongata D) cerebellum

28) The thalamus is on the receiving end for all sensory input except for A) sense of smell. B) visual sense. C) sense of hearing. D) somatosensory information. E) memory and emotions.

29) Wernicke's area is associated with A) reflex centers for controlling heartbeat. B) sexual arousal. C) the ability to ride a bike. D) the sense of smell. E) the ability to understand speech.

Chapter 14 30) A tumor located in the primary somatosensory area would impact which of the following

functions? A) the ability to feel a rough object B) the ability to swallow C) the ability to smell D) the ability to determine images

31) Which of the following is a lobe of the cerebral hemisphere? A) frontal B) parietal C) temporal D) occipital E) All of the answer choices are lobes of the cerebral hemisphere.

32) Which of the following areas is associated with the frontal lobe? A) primary motor area B) premotor area C) motor speech (Broca's) area D) prefrontal area E) All of the answer choices are functions of the frontal lobe.

33) Which of the following statements concerning the primary motor area is true? A) The area that controls the thumb, fingers, and hand is larger than the area controlling

the leg. B) The primary motor area is located anterior to the central sulcus. C) Control of muscles responsible for facial movements take up a large portion of the primary motor area. D) Voluntary commands to skeletal muscles begin in the primary motor area. E) All of the answer choices are true.

Chapter 14 34) The primary somatosensory area receives sensory input from the sense of A) touch. B) taste. C) vision. D) hearing. E) smell.

35) Where are the structures of the limbic system located? A) within the cerebrum B) within the pons C) within the frontal lobe D) within the cerebellum

36) Which brain structure is associated with the limbic system? A) hippocampus B) frontal lobes C) medulla oblongata D) pons E) brain stem

37) Which of the following is part of the limbic system? A) spinal cord B) primary somatosensory area C) amygdala D) reticular formation E) cerebellum

38) The limbic system blends ________ and ________ into a united whole. A) primitive emotions; higher mental functions B) complex emotions; basic mental functions C) complex emotions; higher mental functions D) primitive emotions; basic mental functions E) basic survival skills; higher mental functions

Chapter 14 39) What type of memory is involved in learning to ride a bike? A) short-term memory B) long-term memory C) semantic memory D) episodic memory E) skill memory

40) Which part of the brain is not functioning correctly if an individual cannot learn new facts

and retain them? A) hippocampus B) amygdala C) reticular formation D) medulla oblongata

41) When a student pulls an all-nighter to cram for a test the next day, the information usually

goes into A) skill memory. B) episodic memory. C) semantic memory. D) long-term memory. E) short-term memory.

42) Which of the following are mismatched concerning memory and learning? A) hippocampus and emotionally charged fearful memories B) long-term potentiation and memory storage C) semantic memory and numbers D) episodic memory and persons E) prefrontal area and where memories are used

43) What type of memory does language depend upon? A) short-term B) semantic C) episodic D) skill E) long term

Chapter 14 44) The two types of nerves in the peripheral nervous system are cranial nerves and spinal

nerves. ⊚ true ⊚ false

45) Place the following steps in the correct order for a reflex arc: 1. Sensory neurons pass signals to interneurons. 2. Nerve signals travel along motor fibers to an effector. 3. Sensory receptors generate nerve signals. 4. Interneurons synapse with motor neurons. 5. There is a response to the stimulus. A) 3,4,1,2,5 B) 2,1,3,4,5 C) 1,2,3,4,5 D) 3,1,4,2,5 E) 2,4,1,3,5

46) Which of the following statements about cranial nerves is true? A) All of the answer choices are true regarding cranial nerves. B) The cranial nerves are referred to by roman numerals. C) Some cranial nerves are only sensory nerves, while some are only motor fibers.

Others are mixed. D) Cranial nerves are largely associated with the head, neck, and face. E) The vagus nerve is a cranial nerve.

47) In a reflex arc, what happens after the sensory neurons pass the signals on to the

interneurons? A) Some of the interneurons will integrate the information and then relay the signals to the motor neurons. B) The nerve signals will travel along motor fibers to an effector. C) The sensory receptors will generate a nerve signal toward the spinal cord. D) A response to the stimulus is generated.

Chapter 14 48) The somatic division of the PNS controls all of the following except the A) skin. B) quadriceps muscle. C) tendons. D) heart muscle. E) biceps muscles.

49) In what way are the somatic motor pathway and the parasympathetic autonomic motor

pathway similar? A) Both innervate glands and organs. B) Both innervate the skeletal muscles. C) Both utilize two neurons per message. D) Both use acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter. E) Both are voluntary.

50) Which brain system receives sensory information from the skin, skeletal muscles, and

tendons? A) somatic system of the PNS B) somatic system of the CNS C) autonomic system of the PNS D) autonomic system of the CNS

51) In which way are the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic system

similar? A) Both utilize two neurons per message. B) In both, the preganglionic neuron is shorter than the postganglionic neuron. C) Both use norepinephrine as their neurotransmitter. D) Both arise from the sacral spinal nerves. E) Both are associated with the relaxed state (rest-and-digest).

Chapter 14 52) Where do most of the nerve fibers of the sympathetic division of the autonomic motor

pathways arise from? A) thoracolumbar spinal nerves B) cranial nerves C) brain stem D) cervical nerves E) medulla oblongata

53) Which of the following is a neuromodulator? A) substance P B) GABA C) acetylcholine D) dopamine E) serotonin

54) How does caffeine work? A) increases the amount of neurotransmitter at a synapse B) interferes with or decreases the action of a neurotransmitter C) replaces or mimics a neurotransmitter D) replaces or mimics a neuromodulator E) promotes the action of a neurotransmitter

55) Which neurotransmitter plays a role in the reward circuit? A) dopamine B) acetylcholine C) substance P D) GABA

56) How is alcohol classified? A) stimulant B) depressant C) psychoactive D) inhibitor

Chapter 14 57) Which drug is in the same category as nicotine? A) cocaine B) alcohol C) heroin D) marijuana

58) Which two drugs are in the same category? A) nicotine and alcohol B) nicotine and heroin C) alcohol and heroin D) cocaine and marijuana E) marijuana and heroin

59) Long-term use of heroin is associated with which set of consequences? A) weight gain, poor cognitive performance, irritability B) cardiac and/or respiratory arrest, sudden death C) apathy, euphoria, hallucinations D) addiction, hepatitis, HIV/AIDS, various bacterial infections E) anxiety, jitters, insomnia, headaches

60) The repeated use of which drug leads to the body decreasing the natural production of

endorphins? A) heroin B) marijuana C) K2 D) methamphetamine E) ecstasy

61) Which limbic system structure plays a crucial role in learning and memory? A) pons B) medulla C) hippocampus D) amygdala

Chapter 14 62) Which structure associated with the brain stem acts as a relay station, allowing information to

pass between the cerebrum and the spinal cord? A) pons B) midbrain C) medulla oblongata D) cerebellum

63) Which of the following functions is not controlled by the limbic system? A) memory B) language C) speech D) All of these functions are controlled by the limbic system.

Chapter 14 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 14 1) B 2) A 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) D 6) B 7) E 8) A 9) C 10) A 11) C 12) TRUE 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) B 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) A 21) FALSE 22) D 23) B 24) E 25) A 26) E 27) D 28) A 29) E 30) A 31) E 32) E 33) E 34) A 35) A 36) A 37) C

Chapter 14 38) A 39) E 40) A 41) E 42) A 43) B 44) TRUE 45) D 46) A 47) A 48) D 49) D 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) B 55) A 56) B 57) A 58) C 59) D 60) A 61) C 62) B 63) D

Chapter 15 Student name:__________ 1) When blood pressure increases, what type of sensory receptor detects this? A) an exteroceptor called a chemoreceptor B) an exteroceptor called an osmoreceptor C) an exteroceptor called a nociceptor D) an interoceptor called a baroreceptor E) an interoceptor called a chemoreceptor

2) Which receptor category would a nociceptor fit into? A) pressure receptor B) chemoreceptor C) temperature receptor D) photoreceptor

3) Where are thermoreceptors located? A) aorta and vena cava B) muscles, joints, and tendons C) hypothalamus and skin D) nasal cavity and tongue E) semicircular canals of the ear

4) What type of exteroceptors are located in the ear? A) mechanoreceptors B) chemoreceptors C) photoreceptors D) thermoreceptors

5) All sensory receptors initiate nerve signals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Chapter 15 6) If the nerves between the eyes and the ears were switched, stimulation of the

mechanoreceptors in the ear would result in A) hearing sounds. B) seeing lights. C) both hearing sounds and seeing lights. D) deafness. E) blindness.

7) Which receptor category is required in order for a person to be able to taste or smell

something? A) chemoreceptor B) photoreceptor C) mechanoreceptor D) thermoreceptor

8) The summing up of nerve signals by________ is called________. A) the reticular activating system; perception B) the cerebral cortex; sensation C) sensory receptors; sensation D) the cerebral cortex; perception E) sensory receptors; integration

9) When you entered the room, there was a faint smell of smoke, but after about an hour, you no

longer noticed the smell. What happened? A) sensory reception B) sensory adaptation C) mechanoreception D) nociception E) thermoreception

Chapter 15 10) What structure converts a signal from the environment (a stimulus) into a nerve impulse? A) cerebral cortex B) vestibular nerve C) limbic system D) vagus nerve E) sensory receptor

11) What type of receptor is involved in reflex actions that maintain muscle tone and, thereby,

the body's equilibrium and posture? A) proprioceptors B) cutaneous receptors C) pain receptors D) chemoreceptors E) nociceptors

12) Golgi tendon organs are classified as which type of receptor category? A) mechanoreceptors B) chemoreceptors C) thermoreceptors D) proprioceptor

13) Order the steps involved in the activity of a muscle spindle: 1. Muscle spindle is stretched. 2. Reflex action occurs. 3. Contraction of muscle fibers adjoining the muscle spindle. 4. Nerve signals are generated. 5. The muscle relaxes. 6. The muscle's length increases. A) 1,6,2,4,5,3 B) 2,3,1,4,5,6 C) 5,6,1,4,2,3 D) 2,1,6,3,4,5 E) 5,1,2,4,3,6

Chapter 15 14) Which of the following is a type of cutaneous receptor? A) Merkel disks B) Meissner corpuscles C) Krause end bulbs D) Pacinian corpuscles E) All of the answer choices are types of cutaneous receptors.

15) Which of the following cutaneous receptors is mismatched with its function? A) Pacinian corpuscles, fine touch B) Meissner corpuscles, fine touch C) Krause end bulbs, fine touch D) Ruffini endings, pressure E) free nerve endings, temperature

16) Which skin sensory receptor will detect pain, heat, and cold? A) Meissner corpuscles B) Pacinian corpuscles C) Krause end bulb D) free nerve endings

17) Which of the following sensory receptors will not detect the sense of touch? A) free nerve endings B) Meissner corpuscles C) Krause end bulbs D) Merkel discs

18) Why does a heart attack radiate pain in the left shoulder and arm? A) The left shoulder and arm are the first to lose their blood supply and begin to hurt. B) Sometimes stimulation of internal pain receptors is felt as pain from the skin. C) The nerves that innervate the heart go through the left shoulder and arm before going

to the spinal cord. D) Damage to the heart muscle results in a flood of inflammatory products carried by the bloodstream to the left shoulder and arm first. E) The heart will close off the blood supply to the arteries that supply the left arm, leading to the pain.

Chapter 15 19) Nociceptors are sensitive to mechanical, thermal, electrical stimuli, and toxic substances. ⊚ true ⊚ false

20) Taste cells and the carotid bodies are alike in that both A) are chemoreceptors. B) are found in the mouth. C) utilize pressure to activate sensory receptors. D) respond to distant stimuli. E) respond to changes in pH.

21) Taste buds A) are located on the tongue, hard palate, pharynx, and epiglottis. B) are responsible for 100% of what we perceive as "taste." C) respond to over 100 different types of taste. D) are actually naked nerve endings. E) have a direct connection with the limbic system and its centers for emotion and

memory.

22) The type of taste called umami allows us to enjoy what type of flavor? A) sweet B) savory C) sour D) salty E) bitter

23) Approximately how many taste buds do humans have? A) 3,000 B) 10,000 C) 25,000 D) 2.5 million

Chapter 15 24) In what way are the senses of taste and smell different? A) Taste buds are modified neurons and olfactory cells contain a pore with supporting

cells and elongated cells. B) Taste buds contain cilia while olfactory cells contain microvilli. C) Taste depends on a "weighted average" of all the taste messages, while smell depends on the signature of olfactory cells stimulated. D) There are hundreds of different tastes but only five different smell families. E) The sensation of taste occurs in the spinal cord, while the sensation of smell occurs in the cerebral cortex.

25) Where are the taste buds located? A) on the walls of the papillae B) on the tonsils C) within the microvilli on the tongue D) on the epiglottis

26) Which of the following statements is true concerning olfactory cells? A) Olfactory cells are located in the roof of the nasal cavity. B) Olfactory cells are modified neurons. C) Each olfactory cell has only one out of several hundred different types of receptor

proteins. D) Olfactory cells end in a tuft of about five cilia. E) All of the answer choices are true concerning olfactory cells.

27) Where are the olfactory cells located? A) on the olfactory epithelia, located in the roof of the nasal cavity B) on the olfactory cutaneous tissue within the roof of the nasal cavity C) on the olfactory epithelia, located at the base of the nasal cavity D) on the outer edge of the tongue

Chapter 15 28) Nerve signals from taste buds go to the______ located between the parietal and temporal

lobes, while those for olfactory cells go to the olfactory cortex located primarily in the________. A) hypothalamus; thalamus B) thalamus; hypothalamus C) primary somatosensory area; frontal lobe D) thalamus; occipital lobe E) gustatory cortex; temporal lobe

29) Which brain system do the olfactory bulbs network with, in order for memories to be elicited

by smell? A) cerebral hemisphere B) pons C) limbic system D) chiasm

30) How much of the cerebral cortex is involved in processing of visual information? A) half B) the entire cortex C) ten percent D) one third

31) Which of the following is a layer or coat of the eye? A) sclera B) choroid C) retina D) collagen fibers E) All of the answer choices are layers of the eye.

32) The rod and cone cells are located within which layer of the eye? A) sclera B) choroid C) retina D) lens E) iris

Chapter 15 33) Which layer of the eye contains an extensive blood supply? A) sclera B) choroid C) retina D) lens E) cornea

34) What controls the shape of the lens? A) ciliary muscle B) cornea C) iris D) pupil E) fovea centralis

35) Identify what happens to your eye as you focus on an object in the distance. A) the ciliary muscle relaxes and the lens becomes round B) the ciliary muscle relaxes and the lens stays flat C) the ciliary muscle contracts and the lens curls D) the ciliary muscle contracts and the lens stretches out

36) When the ciliary muscle is relaxed, the suspensory ligament is A) taut and the lens is flattened. B) relaxed and the lens is flattened. C) taut and the lens is rounded. D) relaxed and the lens is rounded. E) taut and the lens is oval.

37) What is the correct order of cells within the retina starting in the posterior compartment and

ending in the choroid? A) rod and cone cell layer, bipolar cell layer, ganglion cell layer B) sclera, rod and cone cell layer, ganglion cell layer C) bipolar cell layer, rod and cone cell layer, sclera D) ganglion cell layer, bipolar cell layer, rod and cone cell layer E) ganglion cell layer, rod and cone cell layer, sclera

Chapter 15 38) Many rod cells share one bipolar cell but cone cells do not. Certain cone cells synapse with

only one ganglion cell. What are the consequences of this arrangement? A) Rod cells distinguish color better than cone cells. B) Cone cells are better up close, while rod cells are better far away. C) Rod cells are better up close, while cone cells are better far away. D) Rod cells distinguish more detail than cone cells. E) Cone cells distinguish more detail than rod cells.

39) Which of the following is a genetic mutation that affects males more than females? A) astigmatism B) farsightedness C) nearsightedness D) red-green color blindness E) blindness

40) People who are nearsighted cannot see objects that are close. ⊚ true ⊚ false

41) In farsightedness A) the cornea is uneven. B) rays do not focus evenly. C) rays focus in front of the retina. D) the eyeball is shorter than normal. E) a concave lens corrects vision.

42) Which of the following is part of the middle ear? A) pinna B) auditory canal C) malleus D) cochlea E) semicircular canals

Chapter 15 43) Which of the following structures of the inner ear play a role in equilibrium? A) cochlea and vestibule B) semicircular canal and cochlea C) pinna and vestibule D) semicircular canal and vestibule

44) What structures, in order, are responsible for hearing, starting with a sound wave? A) auditory canal, tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, stapes, oval window, cochlea B) cochlea, tympanic membrane, auditory canal, malleus, incus, stapes, oval window C) tympanic membrane, incus, stapes, malleus, oval window, cochlea, auditory canal D) auditory canal, oval window, stapes, incus, malleus, tympanic membrane, cochlea E) tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, stapes, auditory canal, cochlea, oval window

45) Which of the following is found within the cochlea? A) stapes B) spiral organ C) tympanic membrane D) semicircular canals E) incus

46) The bending of which structures leads to the nerve signals that are interpreted as sound? A) stereocilia B) flagella C) otolith D) auricle

47) How can you tell the difference between the sound of a tuba and that of a flute? A) Each part of the spiral organ is sensitive to different wave frequencies. B) The brain interprets pitches based on the strength of the sound waves. C) Lower pitches cause the tympanic membrane to vibrate, while higher pitches vibrate

the vestibular canal. D) Lower pitches activate all three bones of the middle ear, while higher pitches only activate one or two. E) The cochlear nerve fires more frequently for higher pitches and less frequently for lower pitches.

Chapter 15 48) What is the response of the basilar membrane when the pitch of a song becomes louder? A) The membrane will become stretched out and flat. B) The membrane will curl. C) The membrane will ripple back and forth like a wave. D) The membrane will vibrate more forcefully.

49) The receptors involved in our sense of equilibrium are A) mechanoreceptors. B) chemoreceptors. C) nociceptors. D) thermoreceptors. E) pain receptors.

50) Which receptors are associated with the sense of equilibrium? A) mechanoreceptors B) chemoreceptors C) photoreceptors D) thermoreceptors E) nociceptors

51) Which structure does not play a role in helping the body maintain equilibrium? A) proprioceptors B) eyes C) vestibular nerve D) vagus nerve

52) Where are the mechanoreceptors located that play a role in determining rotational

equilibrium? A) auditory tubes B) semicircular canals C) pinna D) cochlea

Chapter 15 53) Which of the following is involved in rotational equilibrium? A) otoliths B) saccule C) utricle D) ampulla E) kinocilium

54) If you get seasick, the rotational equilibrium pathway is confused. ⊚ true ⊚ false

55) If stereocilia move toward the kinocilium, which of the following occurs? A) Nerve impulses increase in the vestibular nerve. B) The cupula begins to move in the same direction. C) Fluid within the semicircular canal flows over and displaces the cupula. D) The otoliths in the utricle return to their resting position. E) The data is sent to the medulla oblongata for processing.

56) Gravitational equilibrium is responsible for detecting up and down movements of the head. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) The utricle is especially sensitive to what type of movements? A) back and forth B) up and down C) standing upright D) spinning around E) bending over

Chapter 15 58) Which type of sensory receptor responds to chemicals? A) taste cells B) rod and cone cells in the retina C) hair cells in the spiral organ of the inner ear D) hair cells in the semicircular canal of the inner ear E) hair cells in the vestibule of the inner ear

59) When someone steps on your foot, which sensory receptor will respond? A) chemoreceptor B) nociceptor C) photoreceptor D) mechanoreceptor

60) Proprioceptors are classified as which type of receptor? A) mechanoreceptors B) cutaneous receptors C) nociceptors D) photoreceptors E) chemoreceptors

61) Identify the next step in the action of a muscle spindle after a muscle has relaxed too much. A) Motor nerve impulses from the spinal cord cause muscle contraction. B) The muscle spindles are stretched, causing them to send a sensory nerve impulse to

the spinal cord. C) Motor nerve impulses from the muscle spindle send a signal to the spinal cord. D) Sensory nerve impulses receive a signal from the spinal cord.

62) Which region of the brain contains the olfactory cortex? A) temporal lobe B) frontal lobe C) parietal lobe D) brain stem E) pons

Chapter 15 63) What percentage of what we perceive as taste is due to smell? A) 80–90% B) 100% C) 40–50% D) 10–20% E) 0%

64) Which structure in the eye plays a role in accommodation by holding the lens in place? A) ciliary body B) pupil C) sclera D) vitreous humor E) optic nerve

65) Which structure in the eye refracts and focuses light rays? A) lens B) humors C) cone cells D) retina E) pupil

66) Which disorder of the eye is due to an accumulation of aqueous humor? A) glaucoma B) color blindness C) nearsightedness D) farsightedness E) astigmatism

Chapter 15 67) Which disorder of the eye is due to the cornea or lens being uneven, resulting in a fuzzy

image? A) B) C) D) E)

astigmatism glaucoma color blindness nearsightedness farsightedness

68) What is the next structure in the conduction of sound? Pinna - auditory canal - tympanic

membrane -___? A) stapes B) malleus C) incus D) oval window

69) What do nociceptors detect? A) stimuli of pain B) stimuli of smell C) stimuli of touch D) stimuli of pressure E) stimuli of taste

70) Which structure is associated with the outer ear? A) auditory canal B) tympanic membrane C) round ear D) semicircular canals E) cochlea

Chapter 15 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 15 1) D 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) TRUE 6) B 7) A 8) E 9) B 10) E 11) A 12) D 13) C 14) E 15) A 16) D 17) A 18) B 19) TRUE 20) A 21) A 22) B 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) E 27) A 28) E 29) C 30) D 31) E 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) B 36) A 37) D

Chapter 15 38) E 39) D 40) FALSE 41) D 42) C 43) D 44) A 45) B 46) A 47) A 48) D 49) A 50) A 51) D 52) B 53) D 54) FALSE 55) A 56) TRUE 57) A 58) A 59) D 60) A 61) B 62) A 63) A 64) A 65) A 66) A 67) A 68) B 69) A 70) A

Chapter 16 Student name:__________ 1) How are the nervous system and the endocrine system alike? A) They both utilize axons and synapses. B) They both regulate the activities of other systems. C) They both are largely composed of glands. D) They both respond very rapidly to stimuli. E) They both have an very prolonged response to stimuli.

2) The effects initiated by the endocrine system are longer lasting than those of the nervous

system. ⊚ true ⊚ false

3) Which of the following statements about hormones is true? A) Hormones are carried by the bloodstream. B) It takes time to deliver hormones to the cells. C) The effects of hormones are long lasting. D) Hormones are targeted to specific organs within the body. E) All of the answer choices are true of hormones.

4) Which statement is associated with endocrine glands? A) They secrete their products into ducts. B) Their products are transported into the interior of organs. C) Their products are carried to the outside of the body. D) Their secretions are transported into the bloodstream.

5) Which of the following is an exocrine gland? A) parathyroid B) salivary glands C) thymus D) testes E) adrenal gland

Chapter 16 6) Which of the following is a feature of endocrine glands? A) They secrete a hormone directly into the bloodstream. B) They secrete a hormone into a gland or duct. C) The product of these glands is carried into the lumen of an organ. D) They are characterized by the salivary glands. E) They do not respond to a negative feedback system.

7) Which of the following organs also produce hormones as a secondary function of the organ? A) heart B) testes C) ovaries D) adrenal cortex E) thyroid

8) Which pairing of endocrine gland and hormones is correct? A) hypothalamus: thyroxine B) thyroid: thymosins C) pineal gland: melatonin D) thymus: triiodothyronine

9) Why is the pancreas both an endocrine and an exocrine gland? A) because it produces both a neurotransmitter and a hormone B) because it produces more than one hormone C) because it secretes some products into a duct and other products directly into the

bloodstream D) because it has an outer cortex and an inner medulla E) because it is located within the abdominal cavity with ties to the gastrointestinal system

10) Which of the following is an endocrine gland? A) pituitary B) adrenal C) pineal D) thymus E) All of the answer choices are endocrine glands.

Chapter 16 11) Which hormone will contain four carbon rings? A) steroid hormone B) peptide hormones C) glycoprotein hormones D) peptide hormones

12) Steroid hormones are derived from what molecule? A) cholesterol B) peptides C) protein D) glycoproteins E) modified amino acids

13) Which organ produces steroid hormones? A) adrenal cortex B) ovaries C) testes D) All of the answer choices produce steroid hormones.

14) Peptide hormones A) are able to pass through the membrane and bind to a receptor in the cytoplasm. B) bind to a receptor in the plasma membrane. C) act much more slowly than steroid hormones. D) initiate gene expression. E) are composed of a complex of four carbon rings.

15) Damage to or a tumor on which organ would lead to a disruption of the nervous and

endocrine system? A) hypothalamus B) pituitary C) lymph nodes D) frontal lobe of the brain E) pineal gland

Chapter 16 16) The hypothalamus is connected to which structure via a portal system? A) posterior pituitary B) anterior pituitary C) thalamus D) cerebral cortex

17) Which of the following hormones is mispaired with its target organ? A) TSH—thyroid B) FSH—gonads C) ACTH—adrenal cortex D) LH—kidney E) Gonadotropic hormones—testes and ovaries

18) How are the posterior pituitary and anterior pituitary similar? A) both are controlled by the hypothalamus B) both produce three or more hormones C) both are connected to the hypothalamus via a portal system D) both produce releasing and inhibiting hormones E) both produce hormones that control other glands

19) Which of the following hormones is controlled by positive feedback? A) prolactin B) oxytocin C) growth hormone D) antidiuretic hormone E) gonadotropic hormone

20) Which of the following statements is true about growth hormone? A) The quantity of growth hormone is greatest during childhood and adolescence. B) Too little growth hormone results in dwarfism. C) Too much growth hormone results in gigantism. D) Growth hormone can be administered as a medical treatment for stature problems. E) All of the answer choices are true about growth hormone.

Chapter 16 21) When someone has gigantism they will often have what health condition? A) high blood pressure B) diabetes mellitus C) coronary artery disease D) stroke

22) Which disorder is characterized by the overproduction of growth hormone in an adult? A) acromegaly B) diabetes mellitus C) pituitary dwarfism D) simple goiter

23) How many iodine atoms are in thyroxine? A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five

24) The thyroid gland is located A) in the neck. B) in the brain. C) on top of the kidneys. D) near the ovaries or testes. E) near the small intestines.

25) The hormone produced by the parathryoid gland produces a rise in the blood level of what

product? A) sodium B) phosphate C) calcium D) glucose E) cholesterol

Chapter 16 26) Which disorder is associated with a low level of parathyroid hormone? A) tetany B) osteoporosis C) myxedema D) exophthalmic goiter E) simple goiter

27) Which of the following is not involved in blood calcium homeostasis? A) bones B) thyroid gland C) parathyroid glands D) kidneys E) posterior pituitary

28) Parathyroid hormone also activates________ in the kidneys. A) vitamin D B) vitamin C C) vitamin B D) cholesterol E) calcium

29) A person with congenital hypothyroidism will exhibit what symptoms? A) myxedema B) exophthalmic goiter C) simple goiter D) short and stocky stature, possible intellectual disability E) tetany

30) What are the symptoms of myxedema? A) an eye that protrudes from the eye socket B) a mass in the throat C) lethargy, weight gain, puffiness D) tremors in the hands, shaking, balance difficulties E) difficulty with speech, blurred vision

Chapter 16 31) Which of the following is produced by the adrenal glands? A) epinephrine B) norepinephrine C) glucocorticoids D) mineralocorticoids E) All of the answer choices are produced by the adrenal glands.

32) Where are the adrenal glands located? A) in the brain B) in the neck C) on top of the kidneys D) near the ovaries/testes E) near the small intestine

33) What controls the adrenal glands? A) hormones produced by the anterior pituitary B) hormones produced by the adrenal cortex C) hormones produced by the posterior pituitary D) impulses from the nervous system

34) The adrenal medulla controls the short-term response to stress by A) raising blood glucose levels. B) breaking down protein and fat. C) reducing inflammation. D) suppressing immune cells. E) increasing blood volume.

35) Which structure provides a long-term response to stress? A) adrenal medulla B) adrenal cortex C) the adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla both provide a long-term response to stress D) neither the adrenal cortex nor the adrenal medulla provide a long-term response to

stress

Chapter 16 36) How will the adrenal cortex respond to the stress of dealing with a global pandemic for

nearly 2 years? A) The adrenal cortex will release hypothalamic-releasing hormones. B) ACTH will be secreted. C) Mineralocorticoids will be released. D) Glucocorticoids are released, which cause protein and fat metabolism to occur.

37) Which of the following is a result of mineralocorticoid release? A) Glucose is not broken down. B) The immune cells are suppressed. C) Inflammation is reduced. D) Proteins and fat are broken down. E) Blood volume and pressure increase.

38) The secretion of which hormones qualifies the pancreas as an endocrine gland? A) insulin and glucagon B) insulin and digestive juices C) digestive juices and glucagon D) mineralocorticoids and insulin E) estradiol and digestive juices

39) Which of the following is a glucocorticoid? A) norepinephrine B) epinephrine C) aldosterone D) cortisol E) renin

40) Which pancreatic hormone stimulates the uptake of glucose by cells? A) insulin B) glucagon C) estradiol D) epinephrine E) cortisol

Chapter 16 41) Which feature is primarily associated with individuals who have Type 2 diabetes? A) The individual tends to be overweight or obese. B) The pancreas is not producing enough insulin. C) An autoimmune response caused the cytotoxic T cells to destroy pancreatic islets. D) Fat metabolism leads to a buildup of ketones in the blood.

42) What pancreatic hormone stimulates the breakdown of glycogen into glucose when blood

glucose levels are low? A) calcitonin B) glucagon C) growth hormone D) aldosterone E) insulin

43) Which of the following foods would cause a rapid spike in insulin production? A) an apple B) a baked potato C) a bowl of oatmeal D) a candy bar

44) When insulin is secreted, what happens? A) Tissue stores of glucose are depleted. B) Adipose tissue breaks down fat. C) The liver breaks down glycogen. D) The blood glucose level rises. E) Glucose is taken up by the cells.

45) Which of the following is involved in blood glucose homeostasis? A) liver B) muscle C) adipose tissue D) glucagon E) All of the answer choices are involved in blood glucose homeostasis.

Chapter 16 46) Which products can be broken down to increase blood glucose levels? A) fats B) glycogen C) proteins D) All of these can be broken down to increase blood glucose levels.

47) How are type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus similar? A) The number of glucose carriers is too low in both. B) The blood glucose levels are very high in both. C) The body does not produce insulin in both. D) The body does not produce glucagon in both. E) Both are a result of obesity.

48) Which type of diabetes usually starts during adulthood? A) type 1 B) type 2 C) they both start in adulthood

49) Which gland produces melatonin? A) testes B) thymus gland C) pineal gland D) ovaries E) adrenal glands

50) Where is the thymus gland located? A) in the neck B) in the brain C) in the chest D) near the ovaries/testes E) on top of the kidneys

Chapter 16 51) Which of the following hormones is mismatched with its producing gland? A) ovaries—follicle-stimulating hormone B) ovaries—estrogen C) thymus gland—thymosins D) pineal gland—melatonin E) testes—androgens

52) Which structures are regulated by gonadotropin-releasing hormones? A) kidneys B) liver C) pituitary D) testes

53) What is the function of melatonin? A) regulate blood glucose levels B) regulate blood calcium levels C) aid in the differentiation of T lymphocytes D) control the daily sleep-wake cycle E) control the color of the skin

54) Which of the following secretes erythropoietin? A) kidney B) heart C) small intestine D) thymus E) thalamus

55) Which hormone triggers satiety? A) epinephrine B) follicle-stimulating hormone C) prostaglandins D) erythropoietin E) leptin

Chapter 16 56) Cramping during the menstrual cycle is due to the secretion of which hormone? A) prostaglandins B) epinephrine C) norepinephrine D) erythropoietin

57) Ingrid has heartburn. Sometimes this can be treated with A) mineralocorticoids. B) prostaglandins. C) aldosterone. D) thymosin. E) luteinizing hormone.

58) Blinking when dust blows into your eye is controlled by which system? A) endocrine B) nervous C) muscular D) cardiovascular

59) How would the endocrine and nervous systems respond to an individual touching a hot

stove? A) B) C) D) E)

sending signals that pull the individual's hand away sending signals that cause the release of epinephrine sending signals that cause the release of norepinephrine sending signals that cause the individual to move his/her whole body away The endocrine and nervous systems would cause an individual to do all of these things.

60) Which system does the hypothalamus belong to? A) the nervous system B) the endocrine system C) both the nervous and the endocrine systems D) the reproductive system E) the cardiovascular system F) both the reproductive and the cardiovascular systems

Chapter 16 61) When we are stimulated by various external stimuli, it can trigger a response by the nerves of

the autonomic system, which can stimulate various organs. Which neural structure will regulate the response of these organs? A) hypothalamus B) anterior pituitary C) posterior pituitary D) pons

62) Which two systems will work together to control the responses of the internal organs to

stimuli? A) nervous and cardiac systems B) endocrine and muscular system C) nervous and endocrine systems D) urinary and skeletal

Chapter 16 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 16 1) B 2) TRUE 3) E 4) D 5) B 6) A 7) A 8) C 9) C 10) E 11) A 12) A 13) D 14) B 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) E 21) B 22) A 23) D 24) A 25) C 26) A 27) E 28) A 29) D 30) C 31) E 32) C 33) D 34) A 35) B 36) D 37) E

Chapter 16 38) A 39) D 40) A 41) A 42) B 43) D 44) E 45) E 46) D 47) B 48) B 49) C 50) C 51) A 52) D 53) D 54) A 55) E 56) A 57) B 58) B 59) E 60) C 61) A 62) C

Chapter 17 Student name:__________ 1) When does the reproductive system begin to function fully? A) at birth B) before puberty C) when puberty is complete D) when there has been intercourse E) after menopause

2) Which reproductive structure is specific to males? A) ovaries B) labia C) vulva D) testes

3) Females undergo puberty earlier than males. ⊚ true ⊚ false

4) Which of the following is a function of the genitals? A) produce gametes B) transport gametes C) protect zygote D) produce androgens/estrogens E) All of the answer choices are functions of the genitals.

5) Many of the male and female reproductive structures are analagous. Which pairing of male

and females structures is not analagous? A) testes - ovaries B) vasa deferentia - uterine tubes C) urethra - uterus D) penis - vagina

Chapter 17 6) How many chromosomes does a human sperm contain? A) 1 B) 23 C) 24 D) 46 E) 48

7) How many chromosomes does the human zygote contain? A) 46 B) 23 C) 48 D) 21

8) Meiosis is to gametes as fertilization is to A) zygote. B) chromosome. C) egg. D) sperm. E) mitosis.

9) How many chromosomes are found in the majority of the cells in the body? A) 23 B) 48 C) 21 D) 46

10) Which of the following is specific to the female reproductive system? A) testes B) epididymides C) ovaries D) prostate gland E) urethra

Chapter 17 11) Which structure of the male reproductive system is also part of the urinary system? A) bulbourethral gland B) prostate gland C) urethra D) vas deferens E) testes

12) Which of the following contributes to the semen? A) bulbourethral gland B) epididymides C) urethra D) penis E) vas deferens

13) Which of the following are found in the testes? A) Sertoli cells B) spermatozoa C) seminiferous tubules D) interstitial cells E) All of the answer choices are found in the testes.

14) Which temperature would allow for the normal development of sperm cells? A) 38 degrees Celcius B) 37 degrees Celcius C) 35 degrees Celcius D) 39 degrees Celcius

15) The end result of meiosis I is A) spermatogonia. B) primary spermatocytes. C) secondary spermatocytes. D) spermatids. E) spermatozoa.

Chapter 17 16) Which of the following statements is true concerning hormonal control over the male

reproductive system? A) The hypothalamus secretes a hormone called gonadotropin-releasing hormone. B) Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone are present in both males and females. C) These hormones are involved in a negative feedback relationship. D) The interstitial cells produce testosterone. E) All of the answer choices are true concerning hormonal control over the male reproductive system.

17) What is the function of inhibin? A) It inhibits the secretion of GnRH. B) It inhibits mitosis. C) It inhibits the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. D) It binds with testosterone and inhibits it. E) It binds with the Sertoli cells and inhibits the production of sperm.

18) Which of the following hormones is mismatched with its function? A) GnRH—stimulates the anterior pituitary B) Testosterone—brings about male secondary sexual characteristics C) FSH—stimulates the hypothalamus D) LH—controls the production of testosterone E) Inhibin—blocks GnRH and FSH secretion

19) Which of the following parts of the female reproductive system is present as one single unit,

and not two? A) uterus B) ovary C) oviduct D) fimbriae E) uterine tube

Chapter 17 20) Which of the following is part of the external genital organs of the female? A) cervix B) glans clitoris C) vagina D) ovary E) oviduct

21) The oviducts are attached to the ovaries. ⊚ true ⊚ false

22) Where does fertilization of the egg normally occur? A) ovary B) abdominal cavity C) fimbria D) oviduct E) vagina

23) A Pap test checks for cancer of the A) ovary. B) oviduct. C) uterus. D) cervix. E) vagina.

24) During implantation, the zygote can be found in the A) endometrium. B) oviduct. C) abdominal cavity. D) labium majora. E) labium minora.

Chapter 17 25) How much does the uterus stretch in order to accommodate a growing fetus? A) 2 times normal size B) 3 times normal size C) 4 times normal size D) 5 times normal size E) 6 times normal size

26) Which layer of the endometrium is the functional layer and what does it do? A) the innermost layer, basal layer of reproducing cells B) the innermost layer, grows in thickness during the uterine cycle C) the outermost layer, basal layer of reproducing cells D) the outermost layer, grows in thickness during the uterine cycle E) the middle layer, sheds frequently to maintain a healthy lining for implantation

27) Which statement is accurate? A) The pH of the vagina is more basic than that of the seminal fluid. B) The pH of the vagina and seminal fluid are both basic. C) The pH of the vagina is more acidic than that of the seminal fluid. D) The ph of the vagina and seminal fluid are both very acidic.

28) The urinary and reproductive systems in the female are entirely separate. ⊚ true ⊚ false

29) What structure is present within a follicle? A) labia B) mucus-secreting glands C) oocyte D) clitoris E) vaginal cleft

Chapter 17 30) What event is required for the secondary oocyte to complete meiosis? A) fertilization B) implantation C) ovulation D) orgasm

31) Following ovulation, the follicle A) becomes the corpus luteum and produces sex hormones. B) disappears immediately. C) becomes a vesicular or Graafian follicle. D) becomes a secondary follicle containing a secondary oocyte. E) becomes a polar body.

32) When does the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle (nonpregnant) occur? A) days 1–5 B) days 1–13 C) days 6–13 D) day 14 E) days 15–28

33) During which stage of the ovarian cycle will LH spike? A) ovulation B) follicular phase C) luteal phase D) secretory phase E) proliferative phase

34) What is contained within the polar body? A) discarded chromosomes B) sperm cells C) corpus luteum D) egg cell E) primary follicle

Chapter 17 35) Where does spermatogenesis occur? A) lobules of the testes B) ovaries C) vas deferens D) urethra E) bulbourethral gland

36) The product(s) of meiosis I in oogenesis is/are a A) primary oocyte. B) secondary oocyte. C) polar body. D) primary oocyte and a polar body. E) secondary oocyte and a polar body.

37) During which stage of the ovarian cycle will the secondary oocyte be released? A) stage one B) stage two C) stage three D) stage four

38) Which of the following is a result of prolactin? A) body hair distribution B) fat distribution C) breast development D) milk production E) the uterine cycle

39) Menstruation occurs during what days of the uterine cycle? A) days 1–5 B) days 1–13 C) days 6–13 D) days 15–28 E) days 28–32

Chapter 17 40) What will happen to the levels of progesterone if fertilization has occurred? A) The progesterone levels will drop. B) The progesterone level will rise and stay elevated. C) The progesterone levels will rise and then quickly decrease. D) The progesterone levels will not change.

41) Which tissue will give rise to the placenta? A) both maternal and fetal tissue B) maternal tissue only C) fetal tissue only D) maternal and paternal tissue

42) Which form of birth control is 100% effective? A) abstinence B) natural family planning C) male condom D) birth control pills E) hormone patch

43) In order to be diagnosed with infertility, how long must a couple go without achieving

pregnancy despite regular unprotected intercourse? A) 1 year B) 6 months C) 3 years D) 12 weeks E) 30 days

Chapter 17 44) Put the following methods of contraception in order from most effective to least effective:

1. hormone pill 2. female condom 3. spermicide 4. male condom A) 1,2,3,4 B) 4,3,2,1 C) 2,3,4,1 D) 3,2,4,1 E) 1,4,2,3

45) Which assisted reproductive technology involves the maturation and fertilization of the egg

within laboratory glassware, followed by transfer of the embryo to the uterus 2–4 days later? A) in vitro fertilization B) gamete intrafallopian transfer C) artificial insemination D) surrogacy E) intracytoplasmic sperm injection

46) Which of the following forms of birth control is a small piece of molded plastic that does not

allow the fertilized embryo to implant? A) diaphragm B) cervical cap C) intrauterine device D) cervical shield E) female condom

47) Which structures are cut and sealed during a tubal ligation? A) vas deferens B) oviducts C) urethra D) cervix

Chapter 17 48) What is the most frequent cause of infertility in males? A) low sperm count B) body weight C) pelvic inflammatory disease D) endometriosis E) tubal ligation

49) What does being overweight have to do with infertility in women? A) Leptin levels are higher, which impacts GnRH and FSH. B) The oviducts are blocked. C) Uterine tissue is located outside of the uterus, causing pain and structural

abnormalities. D) Follicles are larger than normal and many mature at one time. E) The uterus is displaced and the zygote has difficulty implanting.

50) During IVF, where does conception occur? A) in the vagina B) in the uterus C) in the oviducts D) in the laboratory E) in the fimbriae

51) How does GIFT differ from IVF? A) The sperm comes from a stranger. B) The eggs and sperm are placed in the oviducts immediately after being brought

together. C) A woman is contracted and paid to carry the baby. D) A single sperm is injected into an egg. E) Fertility drugs are used to obtain the eggs.

Chapter 17 52) Which of the following STDs is caused by a virus? A) gonorrhea B) chlamydia C) HIV/AIDS D) syphilis E) vaginitis

53) Which statement is true about the treatment for genital herpes? A) The treatment can slow the viral life cycle but cannot eliminate it from the person's

body. B) There is no treatment for genital herpes. C) The treatment for genital herpes is able to completely eliminate the virus from the persons body. D) The treatment slows the viral lifecycle so much that it will be eliminated from the persons body after several years.

54) What causes genital warts? A) bacteria B) virus C) fungi D) parasite E) molds

55) Which of the following hepatitis viruses is normally transmitted through contaminated

drinking water? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) G

Chapter 17 56) All of the following are viral infections, except A) hepatitis. B) chlamydia. C) warts. D) herpes. E) HIV/AIDS.

57) Which of the following is a protist that causes an STD? A) Chlamydia trachomatis B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae C) Trichomonas vaginalis D) Candida albicans E) Gardnerella vaginosis

58) Which STD is characterized by a foul-smelling, yellow-green frothy discharge and itching of

the vulva/vagina? A) yeast infection B) trichomoniasis C) gonorrhea D) genital warts E) genital herpes

59) Antibiotics can cure which group of STDs? A) STDs caused by protists B) STDs caused by bacteria C) STDs caused by viruses D) Antibiotics cannot cure STDs.

60) The development of a hard chancre (an ulcerated sore with hard edges) is indication of what

type of STD? A) hepatitis B) papillomavirus C) syphilis D) yeast infection E) gonorrhea

Chapter 17 61) What organism causes bacterial vaginosis (BV) in both males and females? A) viruses B) protists C) fungi D) bacteria

62) Which male reproductive structure contributes mucus-containing fluid to semen? A) penis B) bulbouretheral glands C) epididymides D) testes

63) Which reproductive system structure produces the sex hormones in the female? A) ovaries B) testes C) breasts D) uterus

Chapter 17 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 17 1) C 2) D 3) TRUE 4) E 5) C 6) B 7) A 8) A 9) D 10) C 11) C 12) A 13) E 14) C 15) C 16) E 17) A 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) FALSE 22) D 23) D 24) A 25) E 26) B 27) C 28) TRUE 29) C 30) A 31) A 32) B 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) E 37) D

Chapter 17 38) D 39) A 40) B 41) A 42) A 43) A 44) E 45) A 46) C 47) B 48) A 49) A 50) D 51) B 52) C 53) A 54) B 55) A 56) B 57) C 58) B 59) B 60) C 61) D 62) B 63) A

Chapter 18 Student name:__________ 1) Which of the following is associated with the egg? A) corona radiata B) zona pellucida C) cortical granule D) fertilization membrane E) All of the answer choices are associated with the egg.

2) During fertilization of the egg, what event happens immediately after the acrosomal enzymes

digest a portion of the zona pellucida? A) Sperm makes its way through the corona radiata. B) Sperm binds to and fuses with the plasma membrane of the oocyte. C) The nuclei of the sperm and egg are enclosed within a nuclear envelope. D) Cortical granules release enzymes.

3) Which of the following gives the correct order of layers the sperm crosses when entering the

egg? A) B) C) D) E)

corona radiata, zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane zona pellucida, oocyte plasma membrane, corona radiata oocyte plasma membrane, corona radiata, zona pellucida corona radiata, oocyte plasma membrane, zona pellucida zona pellucida, corona radiata, oocyte plasma membrane

4) During fertilization, how many sperm typically penetrate the zona pellucida? A) zero, sperm do not penetrate the zona pellucida B) four to six C) eight to ten D) one

Chapter 18 5) Where are the mitochondria located in the sperm? A) tail B) middle piece C) head D) nucleus E) cell membrane

6) The adhering follicular cells that surround the egg are called the A) pronuclei. B) zona pellucida. C) corona radiata. D) cortical granule cells. E) outer cell mass.

7) Which part of the sperm contains the chromosomes? A) tail B) middle piece C) head D) cell membrane E) flagella

8) Which cellular structure will become the fertilization membrane? A) zona pellucida B) corona radiata C) cortical granules D) zona granulosa

9) Which of the following is involved in the prevention of polyspermy? A) acrosome of the sperm B) depolarization of the egg's plasma membrane C) fusion of the sperm and egg nucleus D) changes within the corona radiata E) the number of chromosomes contained within the sperm

Chapter 18 10) Which of the following occurs during the embryonic stage of development? A) chorion appears B) nose, eyes, and ears become noticeable C) testes descend into the scrotum D) heartbeat can be heard E) fingernails appear

11) Which term refers to the shaping of the embryo as a result of the movement of various cells? A) cleavage B) growth C) morphogenesis D) differentiation

12) At the end of the embryonic period, how long will the embryo be? A) fifteen inches B) one and a half inches C) nine inches D) six inches

13) The nervous system develops enough to permit reflex actions during which period of

development? A) pre-embryonic B) embryonic, weeks 6–8 C) fetal, months 3–4 D) embryonic, weeks 2–3 E) embryonic, weeks 4–5

14) When does the heart begin to develop? A) week 1 B) week 3 C) week 5 D) week 7 E) week 9

Chapter 18 15) Embryonic development begins with A) fertilization. B) the first cell division. C) the development of the blastocyst. D) implantation. E) gastrulation.

16) Which of these is associated with pre-embryonic development? A) morula B) embryonic disk C) gastrulation D) primary germ layers E) formation of the umbilical cord

17) The nervous system is to the ectoderm as the skeleton is to the A) mesoderm. B) endoderm. C) chorion. D) allantois. E) blastula.

18) At what point during development does the embryo form three germ layers? A) when it begins cleavage B) when the nervous system develops C) when it forms the gastrula D) when it forms the inner cell mass E) when it becomes recognizable as human

19) What structure will the inner cell mass become after gastrulation? A) embryo B) fetus C) placenta D) embryonic disk

Chapter 18 20) When cells take on specific structure and function, this is called A) cleavage. B) growth. C) morphogenesis. D) differentiation. E) fertilization.

21) The first system in the body to become visibly differentiated during development is the A) digestive system. B) cardiovascular system. C) respiratory system. D) nervous system. E) reproductive system.

22) During which stage of development will cell division occur without an increase in the size of

the cell? A) cleavage B) growth C) differentiation D) ovulation

23) When cells begin to move in the embryo in relation to other cells, this is called A) cleavage. B) growth. C) morphogenesis. D) differentiation. E) fertilization.

24) Which extraembryonic membrane carries on gas exchange? A) amnion B) chorion C) allantois D) yolk sac

Chapter 18 25) The yolk sac of the chick provides nutrients to the developing embryo. What structure serves

the same role in humans? A) chorion B) allantois C) yolk sac D) amnion E) zona pellucida

26) The amnion is to the amniotic fluid as the allantois is to the A) blood cell precursors. B) chorionic villi. C) umbilical blood vessels. D) amniotic cavity. E) yolk.

27) The________ is the first embryonic membrane to appear, and it is the first site of________. A) amnion; umbilical cord formation B) yolk sac; placenta development C) chorion; neural system development D) allantois; amniotic fluid formation E) yolk sac; blood cell formation

28) Which blood vessels carry oxygen rich blood to the fetus? A) umbilical arteries B) umbilical vein C) iliac artery D) pulmonary artery

29) What structure produces progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy? A) placenta B) hypothalamus C) anterior pituitary D) posterior pituitary E) ovaries

Chapter 18 30) Does a woman ovulate during pregnancy? Why or why not? A) No, because she doesn't have any more follicles in the ovaries. B) No, because negative feedback on the hypothalamus prevents new follicles from

maturing. C) No, because the developing embryo prevents any new blastulas from implanting. D) Yes, because the uterine cycle continues to function. E) Yes, because the ovarian cycle continues to function.

31) Which of the following would be considered a poor health practice for a woman planning to

get pregnant or already pregnant? A) updating all vaccinations B) treating all sexually transmitted diseases C) obtaining more folic acid D) eating enough to feed two people E) moderate exercise

32) Which of the following is present in the fetus but not in an adult human? A) ductus arteriosus B) pulmonary vein C) left atrium D) superior vena cava E) internal iliac artery

33) The umbilical arteries carry A) oxygen-rich blood to the developing fetus. B) oxygen-rich blood to the placenta. C) oxygen-poor blood to the developing fetus. D) oxygen-poor blood to the placenta. E) oxygen-rich blood to the mother.

Chapter 18 34) How are the pulmonary veins and the umbilical veins similar? A) They are both present in an adult human. B) They both carry blood to the lungs. C) They both connect to the superior vena cava. D) They both carry oxygen-rich blood. E) They both connect to the placenta.

35) When does the mother first begin to feel the fetus move? A) 1–2 months B) 3–4 months C) 5–7 months D) 7–9 months E) 1–4 weeks

36) The white, greasy, cheeselike substance that covers the fetus's skin is called A) lanugo. B) fontanels. C) vernix caseosa. D) foramen ovale. E) ductus arteriosus.

37) Which months of a pregnancy are considered fetal development? A) first to third B) second to fourth C) fifth to sixth D) third through the ninth

38) Which of the following is true concerning the fetus during the third month of development? A) The nose, eyes, and ears are present. B) Fingernails, nipples, eyelashes, eyebrows, and hair on the head appear. C) Head growth slows down as the rest of the body increases in length. D) It is possible to distinguish males from females. E) All of the answer choices occur during the third month of fetal development.

Chapter 18 39) During which stage of birth do the uterine contractions increase in frequency and strength? A) stage one B) stage two C) stage three D) stage four

40) When is the biological sex of the offspring determined? A) at fertilization B) during cleavage C) during gastrulation D) at birth

41) Which of the following develops into the male genital ducts? A) epididymis B) urogenital groove C) cloaca D) Mullerian ducts E) Wolffian ducts

42) If a fetus contains an X and a Y chromosome but a defective SRY gene, they will develop

into a(n) A) anatomical female because testosterone is not present. B) anatomical male because testosterone is not present. C) anatomical female because testosterone is present. D) anatomical male because testosterone is present. E) hermaphrodite due to the presence of estrogen and testosterone.

43) Which of the following is an effect of progesterone? A) relaxation of smooth muscle B) reduced uterine motility C) reduced maternal immune response to fetus D) low blood pressure E) All of the answer choices are effects of progesterone.

Chapter 18 44) Which of the following problems is associated with pregnancy? A) lordosis B) lower back pain C) gastrointestinal reflux D) incontinence E) All of the answer choices are problems associated with pregnancy.

45) Why would you predict that the blood carbon dioxide levels in a pregnant woman would fall? A) She has trouble breathing due to the expanding uterus. B) The fetus is removing carbon dioxide from her blood. C) The maternal oxygen levels are also falling. D) Pregnancy creates a favorable concentration gradient between the fetal and maternal

blood. E) The bronchial tubes relax.

46) What occurs during stage 3 of labor? A) The cervix dilates. B) The baby is born. C) Effacement occurs. D) The amniotic sac ruptures. E) The placenta is expelled.

47) Which hormone is responsible for the onset and continuation of labor? A) oxytocin B) estrogen C) progrsterone D) prolactin

48) How long do uterine contractions last during true labor? A) ten seconds B) fifteen seconds C) twenty seconds D) forty seconds

Chapter 18 49) Which of the following occurs prior to or during stage 1 of labor? A) bloody show B) effacement C) uterine contractions D) breaking water E) baby's head descends into the vagina

50) Which cellular struture is believed to play a role in how many times our cells can divide

before they die? A) chromosomes B) telomeres C) antioxidants D) mitochondria

51) Which of the following defines "aging"? A) progressive changes from infancy until death B) the loss of function of various body systems C) the onset of sexual maturity D) the development of disease or disability E) the failure to thrive

52) Which hypothesis of aging involves mitochondria? A) gene damage by free radicals B) whole-body process C) extrinsic factors D) damage accumulation E) external factors

53) Which of the following skin changes is associated with growing older? A) Pigmented blotches appear on the skin. B) There is less adipose tissue in the subcutaneous layer. C) The number of elastic fibers decreases. D) There are fewer sweat glands for sweating to occur. E) The skin is smooth and tight.

Chapter 18 54) Which of the following statements is related to a decrease in blood flow? A) Males become infertile. B) Females undergo menopause. C) Ventilation of the lungs is reduced. D) The liver does not metabolize drugs as efficiently as before. E) The homeostatic adjustment to heat is limited.

55) Which factor will most likely play a role in decreasing the number of neural cells in the brain

as we age? A) the person's blood pressure B) a reduction in the blood flow to the brain, due to narrowing of blood vessels C) accumulation of free radicals in the neural cells D) a decrease in testosterone in males and estrogen in females

56) How do males and females differ as they age? A) Females undergo menopause, but males do not undergo any changes in their

reproductive hormone levels. B) Males can continue to produce sperm until death, but females do not continue to produce eggs. C) Males develop urinary incontinence, but females do not. D) Males lose skeletal muscle mass, but females tend to gain muscle mass. E) Females dehydrate faster than males do.

Chapter 18 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 18 1) E 2) B 3) A 4) D 5) B 6) C 7) C 8) A 9) B 10) B 11) C 12) B 13) B 14) B 15) D 16) A 17) A 18) C 19) D 20) D 21) D 22) A 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) C 27) E 28) B 29) A 30) B 31) D 32) A 33) D 34) D 35) C 36) C 37) D

Chapter 18 38) E 39) B 40) A 41) E 42) A 43) E 44) E 45) D 46) E 47) A 48) D 49) [A, B, C, D] 50) B 51) A 52) A 53) [A, B, C, D] 54) D 55) B 56) B

Chapter 19 Student name:__________ 1) In a karyotype it can be seen that a homologous pair of duplicated chromosomes will contain

how many chromatids? A) one B) two C) three D) four E) six

2) DNA is found in association with proteins within the cell. What is the term for this DNA-

protein complex? A) chromatin B) nucleus C) karyotype D) centromere E) chromatids

3) How are G1 and G2 different? A) The cell copies its DNA during G1 but not G2. B) The cell does not grow during G1 but doubles its organelles in G2. C) In G1, the cell prepares to synthesize its DNA and in G2, it synthesizes the proteins

needed for cell division. D) The cell spends much more time in G2 than in G1. E) Mitosis occurs during G1 but not during G2.

4) How are mitosis and cytokinesis alike? A) Both involve the nucleus. B) Both involve mitochondria. C) Both involve division. D) Both involve apoptosis. E) Both involve DNA synthesis.

Chapter 19 5) In humans, how many of the chromosomes are autosomes? A) 22 pairs B) 22 C) 1 pair D) 46 E) 23 pairs

6) Identify the correct order of stages within Interphase. A) G1, G2, S B) Prophase, Metaphase, S C) G1, S, G2 D) G2, G1, Anaphase

7) Where is the centromere located? A) at the tip of each chromosome B) at the tip of the maternal chromosome C) between two chromatids D) at the tip of the paternal chromosome

8) If a cell has four pairs of chromosomes, after mitosis each daughter cell will have how many

chromosomes? A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16 E) 32

9) What is the structure that holds the chromatids together? A) centromere B) chromatin C) chromosomes D) karyotype E) None of the answer choices is the structure that holds the chromosomes together.

Chapter 19 10) During which stage of mitosis will the chromosomes line up at the equator of the cell? A) prophase B) metaphase C) anaphase D) telophase

11) In which two phases of mitosis does the nuclear membrane appear or disappear? A) prophase and metaphase B) metaphase and anaphase C) prophase and anaphase D) anaphase and telophase E) prophase and telophase

12) In what way is spermatogenesis similar to oogenesis? A) Both occur continuously from puberty on. B) Both result in four daughter cells. C) Both result in cells with half the diploid chromosome number. D) Both are arrested in prophase I. E) Both result in one or two polar bodies.

13) How long does it take to proceed from prophase I to metaphase I in oogenesis? A) One follows directly after the other. B) There is usually a pause of about 1 hour. C) It varies, but on the order of years. D) There is a pause for a day. E) There is a pause for about a month.

14) Suppose that nondisjunction occurs during meiosis II in oogenesis, and each of the resulting

four cells is fertilized with a normal sperm (imagine four functional egg cells result from oogenesis). How many cells are normal and how many have a chromosomal trisomy? A) one, three B) two, two C) three, one D) two, one E) one, two

Chapter 19 15) How are Jacobs and Klinefelter syndromes alike? A) Both have only two X chromosomes. B) Both have only two Y chromosomes. C) Both have three sex chromosomes. D) Both have one sex chromosome. E) Both have only 45 chromosomes.

16) How many chromosome pairs does a human have? A) 23 B) 25 C) 46 D) 50 E) 92

17) Which cells can be used to produce a karyotype? A) white blood cells B) epithelial cells C) smooth muscle cells D) mature red blood cells.

18) In a karyotype, the chromosomes are arranged in order from A) largest to smallest, with the sex chromosomes at the end. B) smallest to largest, with the sex chromosomes at the end. C) largest to smallest, including the sex chromosomes. D) smallest to largest, including the sex chromosomes. E) sex chromosomes first and then smallest to the largest.

19) From a karyotype, you could tell all of the following about the cell except whether A) a fusion of two chromosomes had occurred. B) a translocation had occurred between two chromosomes. C) one chromosome was missing. D) there were three copies of a chromosome present. E) a particular gene contained a mutation.

Chapter 19 20) If a karyotype is done after the S-stage of the cell cycle, how many sister chromatids will

each chromosomes contain? A) one B) two C) three D) four

21) Two sister chromatids are held together at the A) centromere. B) spindle. C) aster. D) telomere. E) autosome.

22) What are the two main divisions of the cell cycle? A) apoptosis and interphase B) mitosis and cytokinesis C) nucleus and cytoplasm D) mitosis and meiosis E) interphase and cell division

23) Which of the following are stages of interphase? A) G1 B) G2 C) S D) metaphase

24) How long will a cell spend in interphase? A) 2 hours B) 24 hours C) 36 hours D) It varies from cell to cell.

Chapter 19 25) When does a chromosome go from one chromatid to two sister chromatids? A) during the G1 phase of interphase B) during the S phase of interphase C) during the G2 phase of interphase D) during mitosis E) during cytokinesis

26) Which stage comes directly after interphase? A) mitosis B) cytokinesis C) G1 D) S E) G2

27) What happens at the G2 checkpoint? A) The cell makes a commitment to divide. B) The cell receives external signals to divide. C) The cell checks that the DNA has replicated. D) The cell makes sure the chromosomes are lined up correctly. E) The cell enters G0.

28) At what two checkpoints does the cell check for the integrity of the DNA? A) G1 and G2 B) G1 and mitotic C) G2 and mitotic D) cytokinesis and G2 E) G1 and cytokinesis

29) Which of the following factors can stimulate a cell to go through the cell cycle? A) hormones B) temperature C) growth factors D) cell-to-cell contact

Chapter 19 30) Identify the functions of mitosis. A) growth of an individual B) repair of damaged tissues C) production of reproductive cells D) replacement of old cells

31) How do proto-oncogenes affect the cell cycle? A) They stimulate it. B) They inhibit it. C) They do not affect the cell cycle. D) They cause it to temporarily pause and then rapidly accelerate. E) They rapidly accelerate it and then cause it to pause.

32) Cytokinesis is the division of the A) cytoplasm. B) nucleus. C) chromosome. D) chromatin. E) zygote.

33) What type of cells are present after mitosis has occurred? A) four identical cells B) four different cells C) two identical cells D) two different cells

34) What structure is not divided during cytokinesis? A) chromosome B) cell membrane C) cell wall D) cytoplasm E) endoplasmic reticulum

Chapter 19 35) Which of the following is part of the mitotic spindle? A) sister chromatid B) nucleolus C) nuclear membrane D) aster E) centromere

36) Which of the following is not a stage of mitosis? A) interphase B) prophase C) metaphase D) anaphase E) telophase

37) At which stage of mitosis do you first see the chromosomes appearing? A) prophase B) metaphase C) anaphase D) telophase E) cytokinesis

38) What structures are divided during cytokinesis? A) cytoplasm and organelles B) cytoplasm and chromosomes C) cell membrane and chromatin D) nuclei

39) At what stage of mitosis do sister chromatids become full-fledged chromosomes? A) prophase B) metaphase C) anaphase D) telophase E) cytokinesis

Chapter 19 40) At which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes look like the letter "V"? A) prophase B) metaphase C) anaphase D) telophase E) cytokinesis

41) Which aspect of the cytoskeleton is involved in the cleavage furrow? A) microtubules B) intermediate filaments C) actin filaments D) centrioles E) spindle fibers

42) What structure is responsible for cytokinesis in the human cell? A) cell plate B) microtubules C) cell membrane D) contractile ring

43) In meiosis how many divisions occur and how many daughter cells are created? A) one, two B) one, four C) two, two D) two, four E) two, eight

44) How many cells are produced as the result of meiosis and mitosis? A) four, two B) two, two C) two, four D) four, four E) It varies each time the cells go through meiosis and mitosis.

Chapter 19 45) Which condition would occur if an organism is unable to undergo meiosis? A) They will be short. B) They will not produce normal pigmentation. C) They will be unable to produce eggs or sperm. D) They will not be able to metabolize fats.

46) If an organism has four pairs of chromosomes, after meiosis, the daughter cells will contain

how many chromosomes? A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16 E) 32

47) During which phase of meiosis will the homologous chromosomes pair up? A) prophase I B) prophase II C) anaphase I D) telophase II E) metaphase I

48) In what stage of meiosis does synapsis occur? A) prophase I B) prophase II C) metaphase I D) metaphase II E) anaphase I

49) Which phase of meiosis matches those of mitosis in regards to the events occurring in the

cell? A) B) C) D) E)

anaphase II and anaphase anaphase I and prophase metaphase I and prophase telophase II and telophase There are no stages in meiosis that match up with mitosis.

Chapter 19 50) In which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate from each other? A) metaphase I B) metaphase II C) anaphase I D) anaphase II E) interkinesis

51) Identify the stages that occur during meiosis I. A) prophase B) anaphase I C) telophase I D) interkinesis

52) When do the centromeres divide in meiosis? A) prophase I B) prophase II C) anaphase I D) anaphase II E) telophase I

53) Which event contributes to genetic variation within a population? A) mitosis B) asexual reproduction C) crossing over during meiosis D) cytokinesis

54) If there are four pairs of chromosomes, how many different combinations of chromosomes

are possible? A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16 E) 32

Chapter 19 55) Independent alignment creates genetic variation. This is associated with which stage of

meiosis? A) prophase I B) metaphase I C) prophase II D) metaphase II E) anaphase II

56) Genetic variation is beneficial to the evolution of a species when environments change. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) If you are looking at a cell in which 2n = 16, and there appear to be 8 structures lined up at

the metaphase plate, then you are looking at A) mitosis. B) meiosis. C) interphase. D) G2. E) G1.

58) If the parent cell has 24 chromosomes, and each of the daughter cells has 24 chromosomes,

then the cell has undergone A) mitosis. B) meiosis I. C) meiosis II. D) G1. E) The cell hasn't undergone any of these choices.

59) Which division of meiosis is like mitosis? A) meiosis I B) meiosis II C) G1 D) S E) G2

Chapter 19 60) What is the correct number of sperm and eggs produced as a result of meiosis? A) 2; 4 B) 4; 1 C) 4; 2 D) 2; 2

61) What happens to the secondary oocyte if it is not fertilized? A) It fails to complete meiosis II. B) It becomes an egg. C) It becomes a sperm. D) It implants on the uterine wall.

62) What are the end products of oogenesis? A) one small egg and two large polar bodies B) one large egg and two smaller polar bodies C) one egg and two polar bodies of equal size D) four equal-sized sperm

63) The products of meiosis I in spermatogenesis are A) primary spermatocytes. B) secondary spermatocytes. C) spermatids. D) spermatazoa. E) two identical cells.

64) If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis I, how many of the final four products will be

abnormal? A) zero B) one C) two D) four E) three

Chapter 19 65) If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis II (to one of the cells resulting from meiosis I), how

many of the final four products will be abnormal? A) zero B) one C) two D) three E) four

66) Which of the following physical traits are associated with Down syndrome? A) short stature B) eyelid fold C) flattened facial profile D) short fingers E) abnormally tall stature

67) Trisomy of which pair of chromosomes has the greatest chance of survival? A) XX B) pair 13 C) pair 8 D) pair 3 E) pair 15

68) Which of the following is associated with intellectual disability in persons with Down

syndrome? A) elevated levels of purines in the blood B) increased tendency toward leukemia C) increased tendency toward cataracts D) accelerated rate of aging E) thickening of the muscles of the tongue

Chapter 19 69) What is the genetic makeup of an individual who has inherited Jacobs syndrome? A) XYY B) XXX C) XXY D) XO E) None of the answer choices match an individual who has inherited Jacobs syndrome.

70) Which of the following syndromes has a karyotype with a missing X chromosome? A) Turner syndrome B) Klinefelter syndrome C) Jacobs syndrome D) Down syndrome E) Williams syndrome

71) Which chromosomal mutation will cause Williams syndrome? A) deletion B) duplication C) inversion D) translocation E) trisomy

72) Which type of chromosomal mutation involves the exchange of alleles between different

chromosomes? A) deletion B) translocation C) duplication D) inversion

73) Which type of change in chromosome structure characterizes cri du chat syndrome? A) deletion B) duplication C) translocation D) inversion E) trisomy

Chapter 19 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 19 1) D 2) A 3) C 4) C 5) A 6) C 7) C 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) E 12) C 13) C 14) D 15) C 16) A 17) [A, B, C] 18) A 19) E 20) B 21) A 22) E 23) [A, B, C] 24) D 25) B 26) A 27) C 28) A 29) [A, C] 30) [A, B, D] 31) A 32) A 33) C 34) A 35) D 36) A 37) A

Chapter 19 38) A 39) C 40) C 41) C 42) D 43) D 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) A 48) A 49) A 50) C 51) [B, C] 52) D 53) C 54) D 55) B 56) TRUE 57) B 58) A 59) B 60) B 61) A 62) B 63) B 64) D 65) C 66) [A, B, C, D] 67) A 68) A 69) A 70) A 71) A 72) B 73) A

Chapter 20 Student name:__________ 1) Which of the following are characteristics that distinguish cancer cells from normal cells? A) Cancer cells lack differentiation. B) Cancer cells have normal nuclei. C) Cancer cells have an unlimited potential to replicate. D) Cancer cells form tumors.

2) The ends of chromosomes in human cells are "capped" with special repetitive DNA

sequences called A) radiata. B) telomeres. C) centromeres. D) oncogenes. E) suppressor genes.

3) Contact inhibition means that A) there are more chromosomes within the nucleus than there should be. B) cells are able to divide without the presence of stimulatory growth factors. C) cells only divide a certain specified number of times and then quit. D) when cells come in contact with a neighbor, they stop dividing. E) cells have gained the ability to invade lymphatic and blood vessels.

4) Which of the following are considered to be stages of carcinogenesis? A) promotion B) progression C) angiogenesis D) metastasis E) initiation

5) In what way can benign tumors be dangerous? A) They can restrict blood supply of normal tissues. B) They can metastasize. C) They can crowd out normal tissues as they grow. D) They can rupture and release toxins in the body.

Chapter 20 6) Which of the following characteristics is associated with metastasis? A) The internal cytoskeleton is organized. B) The cancer cells contain intact actin filament bundles. C) Invasive cancer cells are abnormally shaped. D) Cancer cells are unable to produce proteinase enzymes.

7) Proto-oncogenes A) code for proteins that promote the cell cycle. B) promote apoptosis. C) become tumor suppressor genes when mutated. D) are considered "loss-of-function" mutations. E) code for angiogenic growth factors.

8) Which of the following are types of proto-oncogenes? A) the gene for cyclin D B) growth factor receptor genes C) the gene that codes for Ras proteins D) tumor supressor genes

9) Which of the following statements is the most accurate when comparing a tumor supressing

gene to the parts of a car? A) Tumor suppressor genes are often likened to the gas pedal of a car. B) Tumor supressor genes are often likened to the brake system of a car. C) Tumor supressor genes are often likened to the towing system of a car. D) Tumor supressor genes are often likened to the cooling system of a car.

10) If a tumor suppressor gene becomes mutated, which of the following is not true? A) Apoptosis is less likely to occur. B) The cell cycle continues when it should not. C) A "gain-of-function" mutation has occurred. D) Genes that encode enzymes that repair DNA are not turned on. E) Genes that inhibit the cell cycle are not turned on.

Chapter 20 11) Statistically, how many Americans will be affected by cancer? A) one out of five B) one out of two C) one out of four D) one out of three

12) Cancers of epithelial tissues are called A) leukemias. B) sarcomas. C) carcinomas. D) lymphomas. E) blastomas.

13) What is the most common cancer found in males? A) colon and rectum B) urinary and bladder C) melanoma of the skin D) oral cavity E) prostate

14) What type of cancer causes the most deaths in males? A) prostate B) lung and bronchus C) colon and rectum D) pancreas E) esophagus

15) Hodgkin lymphomas develop from A) cells of the liver and spleen. B) all types of white blood cells. C) B or T cells. D) mutated B cells. E) bladder epithelial cells.

Chapter 20 16) Which is responsible for more cancer cases in women: breast, colon and rectum, pancreas, or

ovary? A) B) C) D)

breast colon and rectum pancreas ovary

17) Which accounts for more cancer cases in males: bladder, pancreas, esophagus, or prostate? A) bladder B) pancreas C) esophagus D) prostate

18) Which of the following plays a role in the development of cancer? A) heredity B) environment C) both an individual's heredity and their environment D) neither their heredity nor their environment, development of cancer is due to pure

luck

19) Genetic predisposition to cancer does not play a role in determining if someone will develop

it. Cancer is completely determined by environmental factors. ⊚ true ⊚ false

20) What was the name of the first gene associated with breast cancer? A) RB B) RET C) p53 D) cyclin D E) BRCA1

Chapter 20 21) Which of the following factors have the greatest likelihood of causing cancer? A) radiation B) BRCA1 gene C) tobacco smoke D) high fat diet

22) Which of the following scenerios has the greatest likelihood of causing someone to develop

breast cancer? A) inheritance of one mutated copy of BRCA1 B) inheritance of two copies of BRCA1 C) inheritance of one mutated copy of BRCA2 D) inheritance of a mutated copy of the RB gene

23) What do BRCA1 and p53 have in common? A) Both cause breast cancer. B) Both cause eye cancers. C) Both are oncogenes. D) Both are tumor suppressors. E) Both are inherited as autosomal dominant traits.

24) The mutation of which of the following proto-oncogenes can lead to an increased

susceptability to cancer, due to faulty growth factors? A) Ras B) BRCA1 C) p53 D) Bax

25) Check all of the following items that are considered mutagens. A) radiation B) vinyl chloride C) pesticides D) leafy vegetables

Chapter 20 26) Which of the following are forms of ionizing radiation? A) ultraviolet light B) radon gas C) nuclear fuel D) X-rays

27) Which of the following agents are a source of nonionizing radiation? A) cell phones B) diagnostic X-rays C) appliances D) electrical lines

28) Which of the following is not found in tobacco smoke? A) vinyl chloride B) N-nitrosonornicotine C) asbestos D) benzo[a]pyrene E) mutagens

29) Which type of cancer is associated with the Epstein-Barr virus? A) cervical cancer B) lung cancer C) prostate cancer D) Burkitt lymphoma

30) Which of the following dietary changes will reduce your risk of developing cancer? A) Decrease your consumption of dark green, leafy vegetables; carrots; and various

fruits. B) Avoid exercise. C) Drink alcohol excessively. D) Consume a large amount of ham and sausage. E) Increase your consumption of high-fiber foods.

Chapter 20 31) Which of the following is one of the seven warning signs of cancer? A) a cut that bleeds B) regular bowel or bladder habits C) thickening or lump in breast or elsewhere D) indigestion after eating spicy food E) the presence of any wart or mole

32) What is the best method to effectively treat cancer? A) a diet high in leafy green vegetables B) fruits that have high levels of antioxidants C) early detection of cancerous tumors D) a heavy dose of radiation treatment

33) When screening for cancer, the ABCDE acronym is used. What does the B stand for? A) big B) border C) brown D) bumpy

34) The American Cancer Society publicizes seven warning signals, which spell out the word

CAUTION. The "C" in CAUTION stands for change in A) skin coloring. B) bowel or bladder habits. C) sensitivity to heat or cold. D) sleep habits. E) eating habits.

35) Which test helps prevent deaths due to cervical cancer? A) Pap test B) prostate exam C) mammogram D) fecal occult blood test

Chapter 20 36) A mole becomes suspicious when it is greater than 6 mm in diameter. How big is 6 mm

approximately? A) just barely visible, about the size of a pin prick B) about the same as one of the letters in this question C) about the size of a pencil eraser D) about the size of a nickel E) about the size of a quarter

37) A Pap test looks for what type of cancer? A) skin cancer B) esophageal cancer C) bladder cancer D) cervical cancer E) colon cancer

38) Which of the following tests are used to screen for colon cancer? A) digital examination B) flexible sigmoidoscopy C) fecal occult blood test D) collecting cells from the cervix

39) Identify the reasons why a woman who has received the HPV vaccine should still get a Pap

test? A) B) C) D)

The HPV vaccine doesn't protect against all types of cervical cancers. The HPV vaccine doesn't protect against an existing HPV infection. The HPV vaccine only lasts for a few months. The HPV vaccine won't prevent breast cancer.

40) How often should a woman do a shower self-examination of her breasts for lumps, knots, or

changes? A) once a month B) daily C) once a week D) once every six months E) once a year

Chapter 20 41) Which type of test is particularly useful in analyzing tumors in tissues surrounded by bone? A) X-ray B) CAT scan C) MRI D) PSA E) Pap test

42) Which two tests are done for prostate cancer? A) mammography, fecal occult blood test B) digital rectal examination, Pap test C) PSA, testicle self-examination D) digital rectal examination, PSA E) testicle self-examination, fecal occult blood test

43) At what age should screening for colorectal cancer begin? A) in the 20s B) in the 30s C) in the 40s D) in the 50s E) in the 60s

44) What type of test is a CEA test? A) self-examination B) a type of prostate cancer test C) a type of cervical cancer test D) a genetic test E) a tumor marker test

45) What type of screening test could be used to determine the likelihood that someone might

develop cancer? A) PAP test B) PSA test C) CEA test D) genetic test E) tumor marker test

Chapter 20 46) In what condition should the telomerase gene be, in order for a person to be healthy and

avoid cancer? A) The gene should be working at 50% of normal speed. B) The gene should be working at double speed. C) The gene should be turned off. D) The gene should be working at 125% of its normal speed.

47) Which of the following are therapies used for cancer treatment? A) immunotherapy B) surgery C) radiation therapy D) holistic treatment

48) Unfortunately, the cancer in Jontae's body has spread to multiple sites. Which is the most

viable treatment option to handle Jontae's cancer? A) surgery B) radiation therapy C) chemotherapy D) herbal therapy E) vaccination

49) Identify the ways in which ionizing radiation can lead to cancer. A) Ionizing radiation can cause chromosomal breakage B) Ionizing radiation can cause apoptosis to occur. C) Ionizing radiation can disrupt the cell cycle. D) Ionizing radiation can disrupt the length of the telomeres.

50) Which of the following is a side effect of radiation therapy that is not also a side effect of

chemotherapy? A) nausea, vomiting B) dry, red, irritated skin and/or blisters C) diarrhea D) fatigue and weakness E) weight loss and hair loss

Chapter 20 51) Taxol is used to treat what type of cancer? A) leukemia B) lymphoma C) testicular cancer D) colon cancer E) ovarian cancer

52) What is the survival rate for children with childhood leukemia? A) 10% B) 30% C) 50% D) 80% E) 99%

53) Which of the following are types of immunotherapy? A) chemotherapy B) cytokine therapy C) monoclonal antibodies D) genetically engineered antigen-presenting cells

54) From the following list, identify those that are considered standard therapies for cancer

treatment. A) p53 gene therapy B) surgery C) radiation D) angiogenesis-inhibiting drugs E) chemotherapy

55) In what way does p53 gene therapy work to help treat cancer patients? A) An adenovirus infects and kills cancer cells because they lack a p53 gene. B) An adenovirus infects and kills cancer cells because they have an active p53 gene. C) An adenovirus will disrupt the blood supply to the cancerous tumor, killing the cell. D) An adenovirus will invade the cancer cell and prevent it from metastasis.

Chapter 20 56) What level of alcohol consumption is consided beneficial to preventing cancer? A) Men can have three to four beers a night. B) Women can have one glass of wine a day. C) Men can have up to five drinks a night. D) Women can have up to three drinks per night.

Chapter 20 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 20 1) [A, C, D] 2) B 3) D 4) [A, B, E] 5) A 6) C 7) A 8) [A, B, C] 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) C 13) E 14) B 15) D 16) A 17) D 18) C 19) FALSE 20) E 21) [A, B, C] 22) B 23) D 24) A 25) [A, B, C] 26) [B, C, D] 27) [A, C, D] 28) C 29) D 30) E 31) C 32) C 33) B 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) D

Chapter 20 38) [A, B, C] 39) [A, B] 40) A 41) C 42) D 43) D 44) E 45) D 46) C 47) [A, B, C] 48) C 49) [A, C] 50) B 51) E 52) D 53) [B, C, D] 54) [B, C, E] 55) A 56) B

Chapter 21 Student name:__________ 1) Which of the following terms refers to the genes of an individual? A) genotype B) phenotype C) gamete D) probability E) autosomal

2) Which of the following is an example of a homozygous recessive genotype? A) aa B) Aa C) short D) AA E) ab

3) Which of the following is a dominant allele? A) A B) a C) AA D) ab E) Ab

4) Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous? A) Aa B) Ab C) aB D) ab E) aa

Chapter 21 5) Which of the following represents a dihybrid cross? A) ff × ff B) Gg × gg C) AAbb × Aabb D) AAbb × aaBB E) Ss × ss

6) What tool is used to help predict the potential outcome from the mating of two individuals? A) gene mapping B) Punnett square C) karyotyping D) genetic counseling

7) If a child is born with a recessive genetic disorder that neither parent expresses, what can we

conclude about the parents? A) Mom has the disorder while dad does not. B) Dad has the disorder while mom does not. C) Neither parent has the disorder but one of the grandparents will have it. D) Both parents are carriers for the disorder.

8) Which of the following are autosomal recessive disorders? A) Tay-Sachs disease B) cystic fibrosis C) sickle-cell disease D) Huntington disease

9) Which of the following genetic disorders is due to a lack of the lysosome enzyme hex A? A) cystic fibrosis B) Tay-Sachs disease C) Huntington disease D) sickle-cell disease E) Marfan syndrome

Chapter 21 10) What is the estimated number of genetic disorders caused by a single gene? A) approximately one hundred B) between two and three hundred C) over four thousand D) Every genetic disorder is caused by a single gene mutation.

11) Which of the following disorders is caused by a defect in the production of an elastic

connective tissue protein called fibrillin? A) cystic fibrosis B) Tay-Sachs disease C) Marfan syndrome D) Huntington disease E) sickle-cell disease

12) Which of the following disorders is a trinucleotide repeat disorder? A) Marfan syndrome B) sickle-cell disease C) cystic fibrosis D) Tay-Sachs disease E) Huntington disease

13) What type of inheritance does familial hypercholesterolemia display? A) autosomal recessive B) autosomal dominant C) incompletely dominant D) codominant E) sex-linked dominant

14) What is the genotype of a person with type O blood? A) IAIA B) IAIB C) IAi D) IBi E) ii

Chapter 21 15) Which of the following designations indicates a sex-linked trait? A) A B) IA C) XB D) a E) i

16) From which parent does a male inherit his X-allele? A) his mother B) his father C) equal chance of it coming from his mother or his father D) from his grandfather on his father's side of the family

17) Which of the following X-linked recessive disorders is characterized by a degeneration of the

muscles? A) Fragile X B) Duchenne C) color blindness D) hemophilia E) malaria

18) Which of the following traits is an X-linked recessive disorder? A) color blindness B) Tay-Sachs C) cystic fibrosis D) sickle-cell disease E) Marfan syndrome

19) The term phenotype is used to describe a person's A) combination of alleles. B) physical characteristics. C) genetic disorders. D) life expectancy.

Chapter 21 20) When describing people as "lactose intolerant," you are describing their A) genotype. B) phenotype. C) alleles. D) genome.

21) Which of the following are common/conventional ways to list someone's genotype? A) BB B) Bb C) bb D) Ab

22) Which term is used to describe a specific location of a gene on a chromosome? A) locus B) gene C) allele D) genotype

23) Unattached earlobes are a dominant trait in humans. Which phenotype does an individual

with the genotype EE show? A) Both earlobes are unattached. B) Both earlobes are attached. C) The right earlobe is attached and the left earlobe is unattached. D) The right earlobe is unattached and the left earlobe is attached. E) Both earlobes are extremely elongated.

24) An allele is to a gene as a locus is to a A) gamete. B) phenotype. C) chromosome. D) genotype. E) unit of heredity.

Chapter 21 25) Which of the following individuals has a recessive phenotype? A) AA B) Aa C) AaBb D) aabb E) aAbB

26) There are two different alleles for the number of fingers on the hands: five-finger allele and

six-finger allele. When both the five-finger allele and the six-finger allele are present in the same individual, the individual has six fingers on each hand. Which allele is dominant? A) 5 fingers B) 6 fingers C) 1 finger D) 11 fingers E) 7 fingers

27) There is a single gene that controls the ability to taste PTC paper. The ability to taste is

dominant to the inability to taste. If you can taste the paper, it is very bitter. Which of the following genotypes can taste the paper? A) only PP B) both PP and Pp C) both PP and pp D) only Pp E) only pp

28) Clasp your hands together (without thinking about it). Which thumb is on top every time you

do this? The dominant phenotype is left thumb on top. If you have the genotype tt, which thumb is on top? A) left B) right C) left 50% of the time and right 50% of the time D) left 25% of the time and right 75% of the time E) left 75% of the time and right 25% of the time

Chapter 21 29) Which of the following represents a gamete with a dominant allele? A) A B) b C) AA D) Aa E) bb

30) If a mother has a genotype of aa, what alleles will her eggs carry? A) A B) aa C) Aa D) a

31) Dad has a genotype of AaBb. He can produce sperm with how many different genotypes? A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five

32) Which of the following represents a cross to determine if an individual is homozygous

dominant or heterozygous? A) Aa × aa B) AA × AA C) aa × aa D) Aa × AA E) Aa × Aa

Chapter 21 33) If you want to know the probability that tossing two coins will result in a particular outcome

(two heads, for example), you use the A) product rule. B) sum rule. C) punnett rule. D) Bergman's rule. E) genetics rule.

34) The probability of tossing a coin and having it be heads or tails is A) 1/4. B) 1/2. C) 1. D) 0. E) 2.

35) In a cross of Ff × Ff, the probability of having a dominant phenotype is A) 1/4. B) 1/3. C) 1/2. D) 2/3. E) 3/4.

36) In a cross of Ss × Ss, the probability of having a heterozygous genotype is A) B) C) D) E)

1/4. 1/3. 1/2. 2/3. 3/4.

Chapter 21 37) In a cross of a homozygous dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent, what is the

ratio of offspring that will exhibit the recessive phenotype? A) 0 B) 1/4 C) 1/2 D) 3/4 E) 1

38) In a dihybrid cross, in which both parents are heterozygous for both traits, what is the

probability that the offspring will exhibit both of the dominant phenotypes? A) 1/16 B) 3/16 C) 6/16 D) 9/16 E) 1

39) In a dihybrid cross, if the resulting ratios are 1:1:1:1, what are the genotypes of the parents? A) GgRr × ggrr B) GGRR × ggrr C) GgRr × GgRr D) Gg × Rr E) GG × RR

40) Which of the following are characteristics of an autosomal recessive disorder pedigree? A) For a child to be affected, both parents have to be affected. B) Two affected parents will always have affected children. C) Both males and females are affected with equal frequency. D) Affected individuals with homozygous unaffected mates will have unaffected

children.

Chapter 21 41) In a pedigree, an affected male would be designated by a(n) A) open circle. B) shaded circle. C) open square. D) shaded square. E) square with a line through it.

42) If two parents are heterozygous for a dominant genetic disorder, what are the odds they will

have a child who does not express the disorder? A) 1/4 B) 1/2 C) 3/4 D) 4/4

43) Amol has a genetic disorder. Amol and Shane have three children, none of which have the

genetic disorder. How is this disorder most likely inherited? A) autosomal dominant B) autosomal recessive C) heterozygous dominant D) The environment influences the trait instead of the genetics. E) 100% inheritance from the father since the children are not affected.

44) Which of the following are characteristics of an autosomal dominant disorder pedigree? A) Recessives are affected. B) Two affected parents can produce an unaffected child. C) Both males and females are affected with equal frequency. D) Two unaffected parents will not have affected children.

45) Which of the following features is not associated with the genetic disorder Tay-Sachs? A) The lysosome enzyme hex A is lacking. B) There is an accumulation of amino acids within the cells of the brain. C) Individuals will suffer from malfunctions in vision and hearing. D) Long term, the impairment will lead to seizures, paralysis, and death.

Chapter 21 46) Which variable has the stronger influence on the color of an individual's skin? A) the individual's phenotype B) the amount of time spent in the sun C) the amount of time spent in the sun and the individual's genotype D) the individual's genotype

47) What is the inheritance pattern of sickle-cell disease? A) autosomal dominant B) autosomal recessive C) sex-linked D) pleiotropic

48) Which of the following traits/disorders is controlled by multiple genes? A) skin color B) Tay-Sachs disease C) ABO blood type D) familial hypercholesterolemia E) curly hair

49) During which type of genetic inheritance will several sets of alleles influence a particular

trait of an individual? A) codominance B) pleiotropic C) recessive D) polygenic

50) When looking at a population of people, we can see differences in the level of skin

pigmentation. Some individuals who spend hours a day outside have a deeper tan compared to those who only spend a few minutes a day outside. What type of trait would skin tone be considered? A) codominant B) multifactoral C) recessive D) sex-linked

Chapter 21 51) There is a trait with two alleles. One allele codes for blue while the other allele codes for

yellow. If this trait is inherited in a codominant manner, what color will the offspring most likely be? A) blue B) yellow C) green D) blue-and-yellow striped E) white

52) Which of the following traits would not be considered multifactorial? A) alcohol use disorder B) suicide risk C) cleft lip/palate D) diabetes E) ABO blood type

53) Of the three possible alleles for the ABO blood type, each individual can have how many? A) one B) two C) three D) zero E) half an allele

54) If an individual has the A blood type, how many different genotypes can they possess? A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five

Chapter 21 55) If a person with type B blood has children with a person who has type A blood, what

phenotypes can their children be? A) all type A B) all type B C) types A and O D) types B and O E) types A, B, O, and AB

56) What are the genotypic ratios of the offspring from a man with blood type O and a woman

who is heterozygous blood type B? A) 50% IAi and 50% ii B) 50% IBi and 50% ii C) 25% IBIB, 25% ii, and 50% IAi D) 100% IBi

57) How would it be possible for a man with type O blood to father a child with type A blood? A) if the mother has type O blood as well B) if the mother has type IAIA blood C) if the mother has type IAIB blood D) if the mother has type IAi blood

58) Which of the following represents the genotype of a male who is color-blind? A) XBXB B) XBXb C) XbXb D) XbY E) XBY

59) Which chromosome is primarily responsible for carrying the sex-linked traits? A) the X chromosome B) the Y chromosome C) Both the X and Y chromosomes will carry sex-linked traits. D) Neither the X or Y chromosome carry sex-linked traits.

Chapter 21 60) Which of the following are characteristics of an X-linked recessive disorder pedigree? A) An affected son can have unaffected parents. B) If a female has the trait, her father must also have it. C) The characteristic is present in every generation. D) If a woman has the characteristic, all of her sons will have it.

61) When a woman with an X-linked recessive disorder has sons, what percentage will inherit

the disorder? A) zero percent B) twenty five percent C) one hundred percent D) seventy five percent

62) How are Fragile X syndrome and Huntington disease similar? A) Both exhibit a late onset in life. B) Both are trinucleotide-repeat expansion disorders. C) Both affect the muscles and lead to eventual paralysis. D) Both cause autism. E) Both are found only in males.

63) If a mother who is a carrier for color-blindness has children with a man who is not color-

blind, what are the probable genotypes of the children? A) one daughter with normal vision, one daughter who is a carrier, one son with normal vision, and one son with color-blindness B) two daughters with normal vision, one son with normal vision, and one son with color-blindness C) two daughters who are carriers, one son with normal vision, and one son with colorblindness D) one daughter with normal vision, one daughter who is a carrier, and two sons with normal vision E) one daughter with normal vision, one daughter who is a carrier, and two sons with color blindness

Chapter 21 64) In an X-linked dominant trait, which children will inherit the allele from their father? A) All of the sons will inherit the allele. B) All of the daughters will inherit the allele. C) Both the sons and daughters will inherit the alleles. D) Neither of the sons or daughters will inherit the alleles.

Chapter 21 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 21 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A 5) D 6) B 7) D 8) [A, B, C] 9) B 10) C 11) C 12) E 13) C 14) E 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) [A, B, C] 22) A 23) A 24) C 25) D 26) B 27) B 28) B 29) A 30) D 31) D 32) A 33) A 34) C 35) E 36) C 37) A

Chapter 21 38) D 39) A 40) [B, C, D] 41) D 42) A 43) B 44) [B, C, D] 45) B 46) C 47) B 48) A 49) D 50) B 51) D 52) E 53) B 54) B 55) E 56) B 57) [B, C, D] 58) D 59) A 60) [A, B, D] 61) C 62) B 63) A 64) B

Chapter 22 Student name:__________ 1) Identify all of the requirements for DNA to serve as genetic material. A) DNA must be able to replicate. B) It must be able to store information. C) It must be able to degrade once it has been replicated. D) It must be able to change through mutation.

2) Which of the following are found within the monomer unit of DNA? A) phosphate, nitrogen bases B) phosphate, amino acids C) fatty acids, sugars D) amino acids, nitrogen bases E) nitrogen bases, fatty acid

3) Which of the following is the monomer unit of DNA? A) amino acids B) fatty acids C) nucleotides D) carbohydrate rings E) steroid rings

4) The bases in DNA are complementary. A always binds with A) A. B) C. C) G. D) T. E) U.

5) Check all of the following that are true about the structure of DNA. A) The sides of the ladder structure are made up of sugar and phosphate. B) The bases form the "rungs" of the ladder structure. C) The ladder structure is twisted into a double helix. D) A always pairs with G and T always pairs with C.

Chapter 22 6) Other than the nucleus, which human cellular structure contains DNA? A) chloroplast B) Golgi body C) lysosome D) mitochondria

7) DNA replication is considered A) conservative. B) semiconservative. C) dispersive. D) relaxed. E) stringent.

8) What is the step in DNA replication that occurs immediately after DNA helicase unwinds the

DNA strand? A) New complimentary nucleotides are attached to the DNA strand by the DNA polymerase. B) New complimentary nucleotides are attached to the DNA strand by the DNA ligase. C) DNA ligase seals any breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbone. D) Okazaki fragments are formed by the complimentary base pairing.

9) What is the role of the enzyme ligase in DNA replication? A) It unzips the double-stranded DNA. B) It seals any breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbone. C) It breaks the hydrogen bonds that hold the two strands of the DNA together. D) It matches new bases to the old strand by complementary base pairing. E) It folds the DNA into a coiled structure.

10) The denaturation of which enzyme would most directly interrupt the process of base pairing

of nucleotides during DNA replication? A) DNA polymerase B) DNA ligase C) DNA helicase D) binding proteins E) Okazaki fragments

Chapter 22 11) What is the name of the enzyme that fits new complementary DNA nucleotides into the new

strand? A) B) C) D) E)

DNA polymerase DNA helicase DNA replicase DNA ligase DNA telomerase

12) In what way are DNA and RNA similar? A) Both contain C, A, and G. B) Both contain deoxyribose. C) Both contain U, C, and G. D) Both are single stranded. E) Both form a double helix.

13) What is the sugar molecule that makes up the backbone of the DNA strand? A) glucose B) fructose C) deoxyribose D) ribose

14) Both DNA and RNA are A) found in the cytosol. B) transcribed. C) translated. D) found in the nucleus. E) considered the genetic material of the cell.

15) Which of the following is a coding RNA? A) small RNA B) tRNA C) rRNA D) mRNA E) large RNA

Chapter 22 16) Identify all of the types of small RNA. A) snoRNAs B) snRNAs C) tRNA D) miRNAs E) siRNAs

17) What does the r stand for in rRNA? A) reticulum B) ribosomal C) regulated D) replicated

18) All of the RNAs A) can be found in the ribosomes. B) are translated into proteins. C) are transcribed from DNA. D) function within the nucleus. E) interact with amino acids.

19) How many different amino acids are found in proteins? A) 5 B) 10 C) 20 D) 50 E) over 100

20) Identify all of the following that are potential functions of proteins. A) enzymes to catalyze chemical reactions B) neurotransmitters to aid the nervous system C) antibodies for the immune system D) a form of insulation for the body

Chapter 22 21) Which of the following is not an amino acid? A) glycine B) tryptophan C) alanine D) ribose

22) What is the best description of transcription? A) to make an identical copy of the DNA strand B) to make a faithful copy of the DNA strand C) to make a faithful copy of the RNA strand D) to assemble a protein based upon the DNA information

23) The three-base sequence in a mRNA molecule is called a(n) A) codon. B) anticodon. C) initiator. D) mutation. E) transposon.

24) The start codon for translation is A) UAG. B) UAA. C) AAA. D) AUG. E) AGU.

25) In the RNA sequence CAAUGACCAG, what will be the first amino acid incorporated? A) alanine B) glutamine C) methionine D) valine E) glycine

Chapter 22 26) What is the correct amino acid sequence based on the following DNA code:

AATCGGTTCCATCGG? A) leucine–alanine–lysine–valine–alanine B) leucine–alanine–lysine–valine C) leucine–alanine–lysine–valine–lysine D) leucine–arganine–lysine–valine–alanine

27) What enzyme is responsible for transcription (formation of mRNA)? A) helicase B) DNA polymerase C) RNA polymerase D) ligase E) protease

28) Where is the RNA strand processed before it can be translated? A) in the cytoplasm B) at the ribosome C) at the Golgi body D) in the nucleus

29) What happens to the exons in the mRNA strand? A) They are spliced back together after the introns are removed. B) They are removed from the mRNA strand and left within the nucleus. C) They are used to create the DNA code. D) They are considered "junk" information and broken down by lysosomes.

30) Which of the following are true regarding ribosomes? A) They are composed of two subunits. B) They contain both RNA and protein. C) They contain an A site and a P site. D) They transcribe the DNA into mRNA.

Chapter 22 31) Which structure contains the anticodon? A) the mRNA B) the large ribosomal subunit C) the small ribosomal subunit D) the tRNA E) the rRNA

32) If the codon is CCA, what is the anticodon and what amino acid will be inserted? A) CCA, proline B) GGU, proline C) GGT, glycine D) ACC, threonine E) UGG, tryptophan

33) Which of the following occurs during initiation of translation? A) The ribosome moves down one codon so that the A site is available to receive an

incoming tRNA. B) The mRNA binds to the smaller of the two ribosomal subunits. C) The polypeptide lengthens one amino acid at a time. D) The ribosome dissociates into its two subunits and falls off the mRNA. E) One of the three stop codons is reached.

34) Which of the following statements is not true for both DNA and RNA? A) Both use a sugar-phosphate backbone. B) Both are comprised of four different bases. C) Both are composed of nucleotides. D) Both use the sugar ribose for their structure.

35) How many stop codons are there in the genetic code? A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five

Chapter 22 36) How many codons are there for leucine? A) two B) three C) four D) five E) six

37) What is the first amino acid produced from the DNA sequence CGCAAUGCAAGGA? A) methionine B) glycine C) leucine D) glutamine

38) Which of the following nucleotide sequences could give rise to the amino acid sequence

alanine–aspartic acid–glycine? Assume that translation initiation has already occurred. A) GUUAAGAGG B) GCCGACGGC C) CACCGCCGA D) GAUGGUGCU E) UUUUAAUGG

39) Which of the following would be an example of pretranscriptional control? A) The chromosomes must decondense. B) The mRNA is degraded before translation can occur. C) The mRNA is processed before it leaves the nucleus. D) The life expectancy of the mRNA molecules vary. E) The polypeptide product is folded to form its functional conformation.

Chapter 22 40) An individual has a genetic disorder in which their cell is not forming the correct protein

structure for the cell membrane to allow entry of a particular ion. Doctors have determined that in order to help cure this person, they need to alter the shape of the protein. Which type of regulation of gene expression would have the greatest chance of success? A) posttranslational control B) posttranscriptional control C) transcriptional control D) translational control E) pretranscriptional control

41) Which of the following are true about transcription factors? A) Transcription factors are DNA-binding proteins. B) There are many different types of transcription factors. C) Specialization of cells is determined or influenced by which transcription factors are

active in the cell. D) Transcription occurs on the P site of the ribosome.

42) Which of the following are benefits gained from learning how to sequence DNA? A) identification of faulty genes B) development of treatments for diseases C) modification of crops to grow under water D) understanding of our evolutionary history

43) How does modern-day sequencing detect dyes on the nucleotides? A) radioactivity B) dye terminator chemicals C) DNA breakage D) laser E) by eye

44) How long does it take to sequence 1,000 base-pair sections of DNA? A) two to three days B) several hours C) twenty to thirty minutes D) one week

Chapter 22 45) Which of the following statements are true about PCR? A) PCR can create millions of copies of a segment of DNA in a test tube. B) PCR uses RNA polymerase. C) The amount of DNA doubles with each replication cycle. D) The target is repeatedly replicated.

46) Identify the components necessary for PCR. A) DNA polymerase B) a supply of adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine C) a target sequence of RNA D) a ribosome

47) Place the following steps for the cloning of a gene in order: 1. DNA ligase seals foreign DNA into a plasmid. 2. A restriction enzyme is used to cleave DNA. 3. The bacterium makes a product. 4. Some of the bacterial cells take up a recombinant plasmid. 5. The plasmid replicates on its own. A) 2,1,4,5,3 B) 1,2,3,4,5 C) 3,1,2,4,5 D) 5,1,4,3,2 E) 1,3,2,4,5

48) Which of the following is not involved in gene cloning? A) host cell B) vector C) restriction enzyme D) "sticky" ends E) CRISPR

Chapter 22 49) Which of the following are desirable traits commonly genetically engineered into plants? A) disease resistance B) improved yield C) modified wood pulp D) a self-destruct or "suicide" gene

50) Which of the following is a product made from bacteria via recombinant DNA technology

that promotes plant health? A) hepatitis B vaccine B) insulin C) clotting factor VIII D) growth hormone E) frost-minus substances

51) Mouse models have been created to study which human disease? A) cystic fibrosis B) Parkinson disease C) color blindness D) Huntington disease

52) When was the Human Genome Project completed? A) 1999 B) 2001 C) 2003 D) 2005 E) 2010

53) How much of your DNA is identical to the person who sits next to you in biology class? A) 1% B) 50% C) 90% D) 99% E) 99.9%

Chapter 22 54) How many genes did researchers think the human genome contained? How many did it really

contain? A) 3 billion; 80,000 B) 1 million; 1 million C) 25,000; 80,000 D) 80,000; 19,000 E) 125 million; 1 million

55) What percentage of the human genome is used to code for functional proteins? A) 100% B) 90% C) 50% D) 25% E) 2%

56) What is the goal of functional genomics? A) to determine all of the human genome sequence B) to determine the genome sequence of other organisms useful to humans C) to determine the purpose of our genes and how they form a human being D) to determine how all the proteins within the cell interact E) to carry out gene therapy for human diseases

57) Researchers found three genes on chromosome 22 in chimpanzees that, when compared to

our human genes, have given us insight into our evolution. What were those three genes? A) genes for speech development, hearing, and smell B) genes for chest size, cranial size, and leg length C) genes for taste, opposable thumbs, and bipedalism D) genes for speech development, opposable thumbs, and leg length E) genes for food preference, bipedalism, and cranial size

Chapter 22 58) How similar are our genomes to those of a mouse? A) 1% B) 10% C) 35% D) 85% E) 99%

59) During which type of gene therapy is a retrovirus vector used to inject DNA into body cells? A) in vivo gene therapy B) ex vivo gene therapy C) cloning D) CRISPR

60) Ex vivo gene therapy has been used to treat which of the following diseases? A) SCID B) cardiovascular disease C) Huntington disease D) endocrine disorder

61) Which of the following is the primary goal of bioinformatics? A) to find significant patterns in the information gained from DNA sequencing and

proteomics B) to input DNA and protein sequences into a computer C) to model the three-dimensional shape of cellular proteins D) to obtain the sequence of all the noncoding regions of the DNA E) to insert genetic material into human cells for the treatment of a disorder

62) Identify the health issues in vivo gene therapy has beed used to treat. A) cystic fibrosis B) Parkinson disease C) Huntington disease D) cancer

Chapter 22 63) The targeting of specific sequences in the DNA for removal or replacement is best described

as A) B) C) D) E)

cloning. genomics. genome editing. proteomics. gene therapy.

64) Darnell has been diagnosed with a rare genetic disorder in which his mitochondria do not

produce enough ATP. Researchers have determined that his disorder is due to a faulty gene on chromosome 9. Which type of biotechnology would be recommended to correct his genetic disorder? A) cloning B) PCR amplification C) CRISPR D) DNA sequencing

Chapter 22 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 22 1) [A, B, D] 2) A 3) C 4) D 5) [A, B, C] 6) D 7) B 8) A 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) C 14) D 15) D 16) [A, B, D, E] 17) B 18) C 19) C 20) [A, B, C] 21) [A, B, C] 22) B 23) A 24) D 25) C 26) A 27) C 28) D 29) A 30) [A, B, C] 31) D 32) B 33) B 34) D 35) C 36) E 37) A

Chapter 22 38) B 39) A 40) A 41) [A, B, C] 42) [A, B, D] 43) D 44) B 45) [A, C, D] 46) [A, B] 47) A 48) E 49) [A, B, C] 50) E 51) A 52) C 53) E 54) D 55) E 56) C 57) A 58) D 59) A 60) A 61) A 62) [A, C] 63) C 64) C

Chapter 23 Student name:__________ 1) The hypothesis that life began with the evolution of inorganic compounds into simple

organic molecules, macromolecules, and protocells is called what? A) cell theory B) chemical evolution C) Darwinian evolution D) speciation E) organic chemistry

2) Which gas would have been present in a very limited amount, if at all, in the atmosphere of

the early earth? A) hydrogen gas B) methane C) oxygen D) water vapor

3) The early atmosphere of Earth consisted mainly of A) hydrogen, oxygen, and carbon dioxide. B) oxygen, water vapor, and carbon monoxide. C) water vapor, nitrogen, and carbon dioxide. D) hydrogen, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen. E) water vapor, hydrogen, and carbon dioxide.

4) What energy source was used by Stanley Miller in his 1953 experiment to replicate the

Earth's early environment? A) electric spark B) heat C) ultraviolet radiation D) gamma radiation E) sunlight

Chapter 23 5) What was produced as a result of Stanley Miller's experiment? A) a primitive cell B) oxygen C) a bacterial cell D) organic molecules

6) What evidence contributed to the formulation of the RNA-first hypothesis? A) RNA was formed in MIller's experiment. B) RNA continues to evolve chemically today. C) More primitive cells, such as archaea, use an RNA only information system. D) RNA can sometimes be both a substrate and an enzyme during RNA processing. E) Protocells contain only RNA and lipids.

7) What of the following is necessary for the replication process to occur in a cell? A) enzymatic proteins B) carbohydrates C) lipids D) starches E) viruses

8) Which of the following hypotheses propose a manner in which DNA becomes the genetic

material that living organisms have today? A) RNA-first hypothesis B) panspermia C) biological evolution D) thermal vent evolution

9) What was the first stage of chemical evolution? A) Organic molecules joined to form larger macromolecules. B) Small organic molecules evolved from inorganic compounds. C) A membrane encolosed organic polymers. D) Protocells evolve the ability to self-replicate.

Chapter 23 10) Biological evolution is the process whereby A) humans descended from apes. B) species change through time. C) living cells arose from nonliving chemicals. D) prokaryotic cells became eukaryotic cells. E) only the strongest survive.

11) Which statement regarding cell reproduction is true? A) DNA replicates before cell division occurs. B) Cell division occurs prior to DNA replication. C) DNA replication and cell division occur at the same time. D) There is no DNA replication during cell reproduction. E) There is no cell division during cell reproduction.

12) What is a characteristic that makes an organism able to survive and reproduce in its

environment? A) culture B) selection C) analogy D) adaptation E) homology

13) Which statement is accurate if the first true cell arose by the RNA-first hypothesis? A) The first cell had RNA genes that could have specified protein synthesis. B) Proteins in the protocell would have evolved the ability to synthesize DNA. C) RNA genes replicated because of the presence of proteins.

14) Identify the components that are part of biological evolution. A) descent from a common ancestor B) the fossil record C) inorganic molecules forming organic molecules D) adaptation to the environment

Chapter 23 15) What is considered one of the best sources of evidence for biological evolution? A) fossil record B) the presence of analogous structures C) evidence for an intelligent designer D) the biblical creation story

16) Identify the elements of natural selection. A) Variation exists within a population. B) Organisms compete for limited resources. C) The individuals who are most adaptable will reproduce. D) Natural disasters will help control the size of a population.

17) What type of rock preserves fossils well? A) sedimentary rock B) igneous rock C) metamorphic rock D) gravel E) granite

18) While developing your research project, you have to make a hypothesis about which type of

animals you expect to find in the fossil record. Which hypothesis is the least likely to be supported by your research? A) There will be a large diversity of clams within the fossil record. B) There will be a large diversity of corals within the fossil record. C) There will be a large diversity of jellyfish within the fossl record. D) There will be a large diversity of fish in the fossil record.

19) What is the term for someone who searches for and researches fossils? A) entomologist B) physicist C) paleontologist D) geologist E) ecologist

Chapter 23 20) Which of the following statements concerning evolution are true? A) Single-celled eukaryotes evolved before multicellular eukaryotes. B) Fishes evolved before terrestrial plants. C) Nonflowering plants preceded the flowering plants. D) Amphibians evolved before fishes.

21) Which group of organisms are the first to appear in the fossil record? A) single-celled protists B) plants C) corals D) single-celled prokaryotes

22) When studying the relatedness between amphibians and reptiles, which type of fossil would

be the most useful? A) fossils of the earliest known reptiles B) fossils of the earliest known amphibians C) fossils of the earliest known life on earth D) transitional fossils of reptiles and amphibians

23) What did Darwin conclude from the observation that there are no rabbits in South America? A) Rabbits cannot live in South America because it is too warm. B) Rabbits cannot live in South America because they do not have a good food source. C) Rabbits evolved somewhere else and had no means of reaching South America. D) Rabbits were originally found in South America but went extinct. E) Rabbits in South America evolved into guinea pigs and thus are no longer present.

24) The fact that marsupials are not as diverse in South America as they are in Australia would

be classified as what type of evidence for evolution? A) biogeographical B) anatomical C) biochemical D) fossil record E) molecular evidence

Chapter 23 25) Vertebrate forelimbs are an example of which line of evolutionary evidence? A) biogeography B) homologous structures C) vestigial structures D) analagous structures

26) Which of the following are examples of vestigial structures? A) pelvic girdle and legs in whales B) tailbone in humans C) pelvic girdle in snakes. D) wings of birds

27) When studying the relatedness of two species of deer, researchers noticed that there is an

eighty percent overlap in the sequence of amino acids that form one of their cellular proteins. How would this type of evidence be classified? A) homologous structures B) biochemical evidence C) fossil evidence D) analagous structures

28) What type of evidence for evolution would arise from a comparison of the DNA sequence of

humans and monkeys? A) biogeographical B) anatomical C) biochemical D) fossil record E) historical

29) The wings of birds and insects are_____ structures. A) analogous B) homologous C) vestigial D) molecular E) simple

Chapter 23 30) Identify the example of homologous structures. A) the wing of a butterfly and the wing of a bat B) the flipper of a whale and the wing of a bird C) the tail of a fish and the tail of a lizard D) the tailbone of humans

31) Whose proposed process of inheritance supports the idea that if you were to run a marathon

and develop strong leg muscles, your children would be born with strong leg muscles? A) Darwin B) Cuvier C) Lyell D) Lamarck

32) Identify which of the following organisms have been produced through artificial selection. A) brussels sprouts B) kohlrabi C) wolves D) finches

33) Humans belong to which phylum? A) Eukarya B) Animalia C) Chordata D) Mammalia E) Primates

34) What characteristics separate the class Mammalia from other animals in the phylum

Chordata? A) bipedal locomotion and an upright stance B) being heterotrophic and multicellular C) dorsal tubular nerve cords and notochords D) vertebrates with hair and mammary glands E) developed brain and tool use

Chapter 23 35) On what basis was life divided into three domains? A) rRNA sequence data B) cytochrome c sequence data C) mitochondrial DNA sequence data D) the presence or absence of a nucleus and organelles E) presence or absence of mammary glands

36) Which source of DNA enables researchers to study recent evolutionary events, because

mutations and changes in this DNA occur more frequently? A) mitochondrial DNA B) nuclear DNA C) Y chromosomal DNA D) X chromosomal DNA

37) Which primate is found within the anthropoid group with humans? A) monkeys B) lemurs C) tarsiers D) lorises E) elephants

38) Which feature is found in most primates but is not present in humans? A) opposable thumb B) opposable big toe C) forward facing eyes D) larger, complex brain

39) Which of the following are similarities between humans and apes? A) two different types of cone cells B) powerful and precise grip C) smaller portion of the brain devoted to smell D) reduced reproductive rate

Chapter 23 40) What happens in chimps and humans when the snout is shortened considerably? A) The sense of smell is dramatically reduced. B) The eyes move to the front and allow for stereoscopic vision. C) This allows for the development of a chin. D) Canine teeth are lost. E) Vocalization becomes possible.

41) Which of the following are differences between the human skeleton and the chimpanzee

skeleton? A) The human foot has an arch, while the ape foot does not. B) The human femur angles inward to the knees, while the ape femur angles out a bit. C) The human spine is S-shaped, while the ape spine has a slight curve. D) The ape knee can support more weight than the human knee.

42) Which anatomical feature is found in humans that is absent in chimpanzees? A) arched foot B) pelvis is long and narrow C) femurs angle out at the knees D) a slight curve in the spine E) knees support very little weight

43) Which primate has a spine that exits from the center of bottom of the skull? A) chimpanzee B) gorilla C) human D) white-handed gibbon

44) Which term is used to include only the gorillas, chimpanzees, humans and their closest

extinct relatives? A) anthropoid B) hominid C) hominin D) homo

Chapter 23 45) Which statement is the most accurate in regards to the relationship between humans and

apes? A) B) C) D)

Humans are descended from extant apes. Humans and apes share a common ancestor. Apes are descended from a human ancestor. Humans and apes have no evolutionary relatedness.

46) Which of the following are important anatomical features that are used to help determine if a

fossil is a hominin? A) presence of sharp canines B) bipedal posture C) flat face D) brain size

47) Place these in the correct order from least related to humans to most closely related to

humans: 1. New World monkeys 2. gibbons 3. lemurs 4. gorillas 5. chimpanzees A) 1,2,3,4,5 B) 3,1,2,4,5 C) 3,2,4,1,5 D) 2,4,3,1,5 E) 5,1,4,3,2

48) What is the earliest fossil hominin? A) Sahelanthropus tchadensis B) Australopithecus robustus C) Australopithecus africanus D) Ardipithecus kadabba E) Ardipithecus ramidus

Chapter 23 49) The first australopithecine fossils were unearthed in A) Europe. B) North America. C) South America. D) Asia. E) Southern Africa.

50) Which of the following describes the limb anatomy of australopithecines? A) walked on all fours, forelimbs longer than hindlimbs B) walked upright, forelimbs longer than hindlimbs C) walked on all fours, hindlimbs longer than forelimbs D) walked upright, hindlimbs longer than forelimbs E) walked on all fours and used their tails for balance

51) Which term best describes the evolution of human characteristics? A) analagous structures B) mosaic evolution C) punctuated evolution D) gradualism

52) What were the two different types of australopithecines? A) erect, knuckle-walker B) carnivorous, omnivorous C) arboreal, terrestrial D) gracile, robust E) hunting, gathering

53) Which of the following is not a species within the genus Homo? A) Homo erectus B) Homo habilis C) Homo ramidus D) Homo sapiens E) Homo floresiensis

Chapter 23 54) Which of the following is inconsistent with what is known about Homo erectus? A) H. erectus walked erect and probably had a striding gait like ours. B) H. erectus had a larger brain and a flatter face than Homo habilis. C) H. erectus was much shorter than Homo species had been up to this time. D) H. erectus babies were born in an immature state that required an extended period of

care. E) H. erectus fossils have been found in Africa, Asia, and Europe.

55) Which member of genus Homo was the first to use fire? A) habilis B) sapien C) erectus D) neanderthalensis

56) Which statement is accurate about Homo erectus and Homo ergaster? A) H. erectus evolved into H. ergaster and was supplanted by H. ergaster. B) The fossils look very similar, but H. erectus is an Asian form and H. ergaster is the

African form. C) H. erectus essentially looks like a modern human, while H. ergaster is very apelike. D) H. erectus and H. ergaster are identical, except that H. erectus had tools and fire, and H. ergaster did not. E) H. erectus walked upright, while H. ergaster still walked on all fours.

57) Finding fossil evidence of archaic humans in Africa that are older than those in Asia and

Europe supports which evolutionary hypothesis? A) multiregional continuity B) replacement model C) origin of life D) punctuated equilibrium

Chapter 23 58) According to the replacement model, when did Homo sapiens migrate to Europe and Asia? A) 1000 years before present B) 10,000 years before present C) 100,000 years before present D) 1 million years before present E) 5 million years before present

59) Which of the following are characteristics of the Neandertals? A) They had massive brow ridges. B) The pubic bone was shorter compared to modern humans. C) The brain size was larger than ours. D) They were heavily muscled.

60) Which of the following is the oldest fossil that is designated as a member of Homo sapiens? A) Neandertals B) Cro-Magnons C) Homo naledi D) Denisovans

61) According to Bergmann's rule A) hominins such as Cro-Magnons were capable of symbolic thinking, because they

buried their dead with flowers. B) plants and animals that live at the same time evolve together. C) animals in colder regions have bulkier body builds. D) variation exists because of genetic inheritance. E) the longer two populations have been separated, the more genetically disparate they will be.

Chapter 23 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 23 1) B 2) C 3) C 4) A 5) D 6) D 7) A 8) A 9) B 10) B 11) A 12) D 13) A 14) [A, D] 15) A 16) [A, B, C] 17) A 18) C 19) C 20) [A, B, C] 21) D 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) [A, B, C] 27) B 28) C 29) A 30) B 31) D 32) [A, B] 33) C 34) D 35) A 36) A 37) A

Chapter 23 38) B 39) [B, C, D] 40) B 41) [A, B, C] 42) A 43) C 44) B 45) B 46) [B, C, D] 47) B 48) A 49) E 50) B 51) B 52) D 53) C 54) C 55) C 56) B 57) B 58) C 59) [A, C, D] 60) B 61) C

Chapter 24 Student name:__________ 1) Which of the following defines an ecosystem? A) a group of organisms of the same species interacting together B) all of the living organisms in an area interacting together C) all living organisms and the nonliving environment interacting together D) aspects of the nonliving environment interacting together E) all the places on Earth where living organisms can be found

2) What is the definition of biosphere? A) region of earth where organisms interact with each other and the physical

environment B) portion of the earth that contains living organisms C) region that has a specific climate and geographical makeup D) area that contains a mixture of freshwater and saltwater

3) What two characteristics define a biome? A) temperature and the types of plants found there B) amount of precipitation and the types of plants found there C) temperature and rainfall D) latitude and rainfall E) altitude and temperature

4) What is another name for the taiga? A) savanna B) tropical rain forest C) prairie D) coniferous forest E) tundra

5) Which marine ecosystem will contain the greatest diversity of life? A) the open ocean B) the bottom of the ocean C) freshwater lakes D) estuaries that are located near the shore

Chapter 24 6) What is the name of the frigid ecosystem bordering the North Pole? A) coniferous forests B) prairies C) temperate forests D) taiga E) tundra

7) Which of the following is a biotic component of an ecosystem? A) decomposers B) soil type C) amount of rainfall D) temperature E) amount of sunlight

8) What is another name for autotrophs? A) herbivores B) carnivores C) omnivores D) producers E) detritus feeders

9) Akira has become a vegan. He does not eat any meat, eggs, milk, or cheese. How would

Akira be classified? A) producer B) herbivore C) carnivore D) omnivore E) detritus feeder

10) What kind of an organism is an earthworm? A) producer B) herbivore C) carnivore D) omnivore E) detritus feeder

Chapter 24 11) What role do decomposers play in a terrestrial ecosystem? A) They recycle nutrients in an ecosystem. B) They provide energy at the base of the food chain. C) They will control the population level of herbivores. D) They will control the population size of carnivores.

12) What do autotrophs require in order to produce food for themselves and all the heterotrophs? A) sunlight, inorganic nutrients B) sunlight, organic nutrients C) an energy source, water D) an energy source, inorganic nutrients E) heat, water

13) Which term is analogous to the word niche? A) address B) job description C) properties D) needs E) desires

14) What term best decribes the niche of an oak tree? A) detritivore B) producer C) carnivore D) herbivore

15) Which substance flows through an ecosystem and is eventually lost? A) water B) phosphorus C) nitrogen D) energy

Chapter 24 16) All of the energy in an ecosystem eventually becomes A) sunlight. B) feces. C) heat. D) detritus. E) body mass.

17) As a rule of thumb, how much of the food energy taken in by an herbivore is passed on to a

carnivore (primary consumer)? A) 1% B) 5% C) 10% D) 50% E) 90%

18) Which of the following functions of an herbivore provides energy that becomes available to

the carnivore that eats the herbivore? A) excretion B) defecation C) growth and reproduction D) cellular respiration E) death

19) What level of energy absorbed by photosynthesizers is availabel for the ecosystem that they

are living in? A) 100% B) 55% C) 25% D) 10%

Chapter 24 20) Which is at the beginning of a grazing food web? A) detritus B) earthworms C) beetles D) shrews E) leaves

21) What organism would be at the second level in a detrital food web? A) leaves B) detritus C) birds D) earthworms E) shrews

22) What does the word trophic mean? A) energy B) niche C) web D) feeding E) biomass

23) Identify the organisms that would be considered part of the detritial food web. A) earthworms B) bacteria C) oak trees D) robin E) fungi

24) Which ecological niche is found at the seond trophic level of a terrestrial ecosystem? A) producers B) herbivores C) carnivores D) detritivores

Chapter 24 25) If the first-level carnivore consumes 500 kg of energy from herbivore tissue, how much is

available to the second-level carnivores? A) 500 kg B) 100 kg C) 50 kg D) 10 kg E) 5 kg

26) Assuming all of the following organisms are part of the same food web, which of the

following would be an example of a secondary consumer? A) leaves B) caterpillars C) sparrows D) hawks E) eagles

27) Which of the following is on the same trophic level as a rabbit? A) deer B) snake C) fox D) hawk E) bobcat

28) Why is a pyramid used to depict the flow of energy between trophic levels in an ecosystem? A) There is a 10% transfer of energy from one trophic level to the next. B) There is a 25% transfer of energy from one trophic level to the next. C) The organisms at the base of the food chain are larger than those at higher trophic

levels. D) There are more organisms at the base of the food chain than at higher trophic levels.

Chapter 24 29) What is the advantage of constructing an ecological pyramid based on biomass? A) Aquatic ecosystem pyramids actually look like pyramids. B) Size of the various organisms is eliminated as a factor. C) This includes the detrital food web as well as the grazing food web in one pyramid. D) This takes into account nutrient cycling as well as energy flow. E) This eliminates the need to include producers in the pyramid.

30) Which group would have the fewest members represented within an ecosystem? A) producers B) herbivores C) secondary carnivores D) primary carnivores

31) Which of the following biogeochemical cycles is a sedimentary cycle? A) carbon B) nitrogen C) phosphorus D) water E) ice

32) Which statement is not correct about biogeochemical cycles? A) In a biogeochemical cycle, the elements can return to the atmosphere as a gas. B) Biogeochemical cycles do not have a sedimentary component to them. C) A reservior holds chemicals that are normally unavailable to producers. D) Human activities are upsetting the normal balance of nutrients in biogeochemical

cycles.

33) The atmosphere would be considered what component of a chemical cycle? A) reservoir B) exchange pool C) biotic community D) source

Chapter 24 34) Minerals in rocks are considered what type of component of a chemical cycle? A) reservoir B) exchange pool C) biotic community D) abiotic community

35) Which activity would produce the greatest disruption to a biogeochemical cycle? A) a mouse decomposing in the woods B) a hurricane dropping six inches of rain on the coast C) an exponential increase in the herbivore population, which results in overgrazing of a

grassland D) a mining company extracting hundreds of tons of minerals

36) Hail and snow are examples of A) evaporation. B) precipitation. C) runoff. D) transpiration. E) aquifers.

37) Which of the following statements is accurate about the hydrological cycle? A) Evaporation from the ocean is less than the precipitation levels it produces. B) During evaporation, salts are carried with the water. C) The evaporation of water from plants is called precipitation. D) During condensation, gaseous water undergoes condensation and becomes

precipitation.

38) What is the loss of water from plants called? A) runoff B) precipitation C) evaporation D) transpiration E) transference

Chapter 24 39) Which of the following is associated with groundwater mining? A) aquifers B) standing water (lakes and ponds) C) ice D) ocean E) runoff

40) One of the consequences of building roads, parking lots, and buildings is A) increased evaporation from the ocean. B) decreased precipitation over the oceans and the land. C) increased transpiration of plants in the vicinity. D) increased runoff into nearby streams, lakes, wetlands, or the ocean. E) a decrease in the level of the water table.

41) Which is an exchange pool for the carbon cycle? A) the ocean B) carbon dioxide in the atmosphere C) limestone D) fossil fuels E) soil

42) What is the primary source of carbon for aquatic organisms? A) calcium carbonate contained within the shells of marine organisms B) carbon dioxide in the atmosphere C) carbon released from the decomposition of aquatic vegetation D) organisms that have died and are decomposing within the aquatic ecosystem

43) How is carbon dioxide made available to living organisms? A) by breathing B) by cellular respiration C) by photosynthesis D) by combustion E) by decay

Chapter 24 44) What is the primary source of carbon for aquatic algae? A) calcium carbonate B) calcium chloride C) bicarbonate D) carbon dioxide E) carbon monoxide

45) Identify the reservoirs of carbon. A) ammonium in the soil B) remains of dead plants within the soil C) accumulation of limestone in aquatic ecosystems D) trees that make up a tropical rainforest

46) Identify the greenhouse gases. A) carbon dioxide B) methane C) nitrous oxide D) oxygen

47) The ratio between the uptake of carbon dioxide by photosynthesis and the release of carbon

dioxide by respiration is approximately A) 1 (i.e., about the same). B) 2 (i.e., twice as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration). C) 5 (i.e., five times as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration). D) 0.5 (i.e., half as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration). E) 0.1 (i.e., one-tenth as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration).

Chapter 24 48) Identify the effects of climate change. A) rising sea levels B) melting of glaciers C) increased flooding of coastal regions D) improved conditions for agriculture

49) How much has the average global temperature increased since the Industrial Revolution? A) 2 degrees Celsius B) 1.2 degrees Celsius C) .6 degrees Celsius D) .2 degrees Celsius

50) Identify which of the following factors contribute to climate change. A) altering the transfer rates of phosphorus within the biogeochemical cycle B) the combustion of fossil fuels C) the release of methane during the decomposition of materials in landfills D) large scale animal farming that produces large amounts of animal wastes

51) What percent of the atmosphere is composed of nitrogen gas? A) 12% B) 22% C) 56% D) 78%

52) Which of the following is a legume involved in housing nitrogen-fixing bacteria? A) ferns B) oak trees C) grass D) beans E) roses

Chapter 24 53) How is the nitrogen cycle like the carbon cycle? A) Both are gaseous cycles. B) Both require photosynthesis to utilize the chemical. C) Both are lost to the atmosphere during cellular respiration. D) Both are stored in fossil fuels. E) Neither has a reservoir in nature.

54) What is involved in the process of denitrification? A) conversion of nitrogen gas to ammonium B) conversion of nitrogen gas to nitrate C) conversion of ammonium to nitrate D) conversion of nitrite to nitrate E) conversion of nitrate to nitrogen gas

55) How does phosphate enter the soil? A) conversion in the atmosphere due to lightning B) precipitation from clouds C) weathering of rocks D) photosynthesis E) cellular respiration

56) Identify all of the substances that contain phosphorus. A) ATP B) DNA C) RNA D) phospholipids E) proteins

57) Cultural eutrophication can be caused by A) respiration and transpiration. B) mercury from industrial sources. C) bacteria and viruses from sewage and barnyard waste. D) detergents, fertilizers, and sewage treatment plants. E) biological magnification.

Chapter 24 58) When energy flows from one trophic level to another, only a small amount is actually used.

Which of the following uses of energy by an organism allows for the least amount of transfer to a different trophic level? A) cellular respiration B) growth C) death D) excretion E) reproduction

59) In a typical food chain, the hawk will eat the rabbit. Identify the ways in which energy from

the rabbit is unable to be transfered to the hawk. A) Some of the energy is converted into muscle tissue. B) Some of the energy is used for cellular respiration. C) The organism excretes wastes. D) The rabbit produces four babies in a given breeding season.

Chapter 24 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 24 1) C 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) D 6) E 7) A 8) D 9) B 10) E 11) A 12) D 13) B 14) B 15) D 16) C 17) C 18) C 19) B 20) E 21) D 22) D 23) [A, B, E] 24) B 25) C 26) C 27) A 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) C 32) B 33) B 34) A 35) D 36) B 37) D

Chapter 24 38) D 39) A 40) D 41) B 42) B 43) C 44) C 45) [B, C, D] 46) [A, B, C] 47) A 48) [A, B, C] 49) C 50) [B, C, D] 51) D 52) D 53) A 54) E 55) C 56) [A, B, C, D] 57) D 58) A 59) [B, C]

Chapter 25 Student name:__________ 1) What is the world's current population? A) almost 1 billion people B) almost 3 billion people C) almost 5 billion people D) over 7 billion people E) over 10 billion

2) What is the definition of biotic potential? A) a relatively slow (lag) population growth B) maximum growth rate under ideal conditions C) maximum population the environment can sustain D) the birthrate, or natality E) the death rate, or mortality

3) What is the term for the maximum number of individuals that an area can sustain? A) biotic potential B) exponential load C) carrying capacity D) producer base

4) How is the growth rate of a population determined? A) birthrate B) death rate C) birthrate minus death rate D) birthrate times death rate E) birthrate divided by death rate

Chapter 25 5) If the birthrate is 22 per 1000 per year and the death rate is 8 per 1000 per year, what is the

population growth rate? A) 2.2% B) 0.8% C) 1.4% D) 14% E) 22%

6) What can we expect if a population is experiencing a birth rate of 12.1 per 1000 and a

deathrate of 8.1 per 1000? A) The population will begin to decrease in the near future. B) The population will exponentially increase in the immediate future. C) The population will remain stable. D) The population will slowly increase in the near future.

7) In order to have a negative population growth rate A) the birthrate must exceed the death rate. B) the biotic potential of the population must increase. C) the death rate must exceed the birthrate. D) the carrying capacity for the population must increase. E) only replacement reproduction can occur.

8) If the world population growth rate was approximately 1.2% and the birthrate was 19.86 per

1000, what was the death rate? A) 19.86 B) 7.86 C) 12 D) 1.2 E) 78.6

Chapter 25 9) During which time period in history did more-developed countries experience a doubling of

their population? A) 1850 - 1950 B) 1780 - 1840 C) 1910 - 1960 D) 1950 - 1990

10) What does the U.S. population growth look like? A) increasing B) decreasing C) leveling off D) an upside-down pyramid E) a rectangular column

11) The population growth in less-developed countries is A) modestly increasing. B) dramatically increasing. C) negative. D) leveling off. E) stable.

12) What happened to the death rate in LDCs following World War II? Why? A) It increased due to the loss of infrastructure following the war. B) It increased due to the spread of disease because of refugees from the war. C) It decreased because of the introduction of modern medicine. D) It decreased because people were no longer dying in World War II. E) It stabilized due to fewer people dying in war.

Chapter 25 13) Why are many LDCs experiencing population growth? A) There are many people immigrating into these countries. B) They have easy access to advanced medical care, which is dramatically reducing their

death rates. C) They have more women in their reproductive years than older women who cannot reproduce. D) They are modernizing and increasing the standard of living for everyone in their country.

14) The age structure diagram of MDCs is shaped like a(n) A) pyramid. B) inverted pyramid. C) rectangle. D) oval. E) cube.

15) If there are more women in the postreproductive years than in the reproductive years, and

more women in the reproductive years than in the prereproductive years, what does the age structure diagram look like? A) a pyramid B) an inverted pyramid C) a rectangle D) an oval E) a cube

16) What would happen if a population were to move to replacement reproduction? A) The population size will immediately stabilize. B) The population will continue to grow for several generations. C) The population will see exponential growth before a crash. D) The population will rapidly crash.

Chapter 25 17) Which of the following is a renewable resource? A) land B) solar energy C) fossil fuels D) minerals E) oil

18) Define an ecological footprint. A) the total amount of resources used by an individual to meet their needs B) the amount of food a person needs to eat C) the amount of water a person needs to meet their needs D) the amount of land a person needs to provide a place to live E) the amount of energy a person needs to meet their needs

19) Which of the following reduces your ecological footprint? A) drive a hybrid vehicle B) eat more beef C) live in a larger home D) increase travel by airplane E) water the lawn regularly during summer

20) Sea levels rising due to climate change are threatening the safety of billions of people. How

many people live within 100 km (60 miles) of a coastline? A) 3.12 billion B) 4.4 billion C) 120 million D) 480 million

21) Which of the following are issues for coastal areas? A) loss of habitat for organisms B) loss of buffer zone for storms C) pollution D) increased biodiveristy

Chapter 25 22) How much of Earth's land mass is already desert? A) 1% B) 10% C) 40% D) 50% E) 65%

23) Which statement about the soil in the tropics is correct? A) The soil in the tropics is rich and full of nutrients. B) The soil in the tropics is thin and nutrient-poor. C) The soil in the tropic is loamy and ideal for growing crops. D) The soil in the tropics is sandy and nutrient-poor.

24) Which of the following is considered a basic human right? A) access to enough nutrient rich land to grow food on B) access to coastal areas to enable individuals to fish for their own food C) the opportunity purchase a home D) access to clean drinking water

25) Most of the fresh water in the world is used for A) drinking. B) bathing. C) irrigation. D) watering lawns. E) industrial needs.

26) Which statement is the most accurate about the needs of the human popluation in regards to

water? A) Globally there is enough water to meet the needs of the human population but it is not

evenly distributed. B) The global supply of water is not large enough to meet the needs of humans. C) Water is not renewable, so our supply is running out. D) The vast majority of our available water is so polluted that it is not safe to drink.

Chapter 25 27) Which of the following is considered a benefit of a dam? A) electricity generation B) altering river flow C) loss of water by evaporation D) seepage into underlying rock beds E) sediment buildup

28) Which of the following are associated with groundwater depletion? A) subsidence B) sinkholes C) saltwater intrusion D) an increase in the water table

29) Which of the following are harmful practices of modern farming? A) heavy use of pesticides and herbicides B) heavy use of fertilizers C) generous irrigation D) a decrease in fuel consumption

30) Which farming practice has the greatest negative impact upon the environment? A) polyculture B) contour farming C) biological pest control D) straight line farming

31) How many more people could be fed on one pound of grain than one pound of meat? A) 20 times B) 10 times C) 5 times D) 3 times E) 2 times

Chapter 25 32) Identify the problems associated with "Green revolution" plants. A) They require high levels of fertilizer. B) They require high levels of water. C) They produce high yields. D) They require high levels of pesticides.

33) Which statements about protein in the diet in MDCs are accurate? A) There is more protein than needed in the diets of MDCs. B) Children in MDCs often don't get enough protein in their diet. C) Nearly two thirds of cropland in the the U.S. is dedicated to raising food for livestock. D) Raising livestock has a very small environmental footprint.

34) Identify which of the following actions will have a beneficial impact upon the environment. A) moving into a large house B) commuting forty miles to work every day C) reducing your weekly meat consumption to three meals per week D) watering your lawn every summer to keep it green

35) What do hydropower and wind power have in common? A) Both require the building of dams. B) Both lead to an increase in greenhouse gas emissions. C) Both are renewable energy sources. D) Both result in the depletion of fossil fuels. E) Both require the use of photovoltaic cells.

36) Wind is to a wind farm as what is to hydropower? A) flowing water B) solar energy C) hydrogen gas D) steam E) hot salt

Chapter 25 37) What organization oversees the cleanup of hazardous waste sites in the United States? A) NIH B) NSF C) USDA D) EPA E) USGS

38) Why should pregnant women and small children avoid certain fish? A) herbicide contamination B) mercury contamination C) pesticide contamination D) lead contamination E) PCB contamination

39) Which organism is more likely to suffer due to biological magnification? A) earthworms B) caterpillar C) minnow D) hawk E) mouse

40) Which of the following species is overexploitated? A) cacti B) hawks C) deer D) grasshoppers

41) Which of the following are consequences of groundwater depletion? A) land subsidence B) saltwater intrusion C) increased crop yields D) production of hydropower

Chapter 25 42) Which of the following is a factor that benefits biodiversity? A) alien species B) increased carrying capacity C) pollution D) overexploitation E) disease

43) Which of the following is an invasive species that has invaded the United States? A) bass B) oak trees C) wolves D) Japanese honeysuckle E) buffalo

44) Identify the factors that are contributing to the biodiversity extinction crisis we are currently

experiencing. A) invasive species B) overexploitation C) pollution D) habitat restoration E) species reintroduction

45) What is the key to maintaining fish as a renewable resource? A) only harvest them during the breeding season B) only harvest the juveniles C) harvest fewer than what will be produced in the next generation D) eliminate their predators

46) Which of the following is an indirect, as opposed to a direct, value of biodiversity? A) medical use B) food C) consumptive use D) ecotourism E) agricultural use

Chapter 25 47) What do indirect values of biodiversity all have in common? A) They are all involved with the biogeochemical cycles. B) They are all pervasive benefits provided by ecosystems. C) They provide pleasure and relaxation for humans. D) They all depend on an individual species. E) They all undo some harm that humans have done.

48) Which of the following would be an example of an organism that provides direct benefit by

consumptive use value? A) armadillos B) rosy periwinkle C) wheat D) rice E) trees

49) Which of the following medicinal value pairings is mismatched? A) rosy periwinkle—leukemia B) armadillo—leprosy C) viruses—antibiotics D) fungus—penicillin E) horseshoe crabs—limulus amoebocyte lysate

50) Why should the wild relative of our modern corn be preserved? A) The wild relative has a higher yield. B) The wild relative may contain genetics that could convey resistance to new diseases. C) We need the wild relative for cross pollination of the corn in our fields today. D) The wild relative is used as a food source for livestock.

51) Which of the following statements about the indirect value of trees are true? A) They stabilize the climate globally, because they take up carbon dioxide. B) They provide shade and reduce the need for fans and air conditioning. C) In forests, they exert a natural "sponge effect" for the provision of freshwater. D) They can be harvested and sold as lumber.

Chapter 25 52) Which of the folloing features are part of a sustainable society? A) maintain the current level of goods for future societies B) preserve biodiversity C) maximize the profit that can be earned from natural resources D) prioritize providing for society today

53) Which of the following are practices of an unsustainable society? A) eating more meat than vegetables B) using more freshwater resources for agriculture than in homes C) using large amounts of fossil fuels, fertilizers, and pesticides D) preserving tracts of land for biodiversity.

54) Which of the following is the greatest problem that a LDC faces as it tries to become a

sustainable society? A) overpopulation in LDC B) geographical location of the LDCs C) the governmental system of the LDCs D) the lack of biodiversity within most LDCs

55) Which of the following are characteristics of a sustainable society? A) large scale agriculture that plants one crop B) integrated pest management C) mass transit D) recycling and composting

56) How long does it take for a plastic grocery bag to degrade? A) 1–2 weeks B) 1–2 months C) 1 year D) 10–20 years E) more than 50 years

Chapter 25 57) Which of the following is an urban, not a rural, sustainability plan? A) use low-flow or trickle irrigation B) plant cover crops C) use green roofs D) use integrated pest management E) plant multipurpose trees

58) Identify the factors considered when calculating the gross national product of a country. A) total cost of manufacturing B) cost of production of goods C) the environmental impact of activities D) the cost of services provided by the country

59) Which of the following criteria of value are mismatched? A) cultural value—language and history B) option value—preserving for the future C) educational value—experience of nature D) aesthetic value—agricultural use E) use value—entrance fees

60) Identify the criteria that are used to measure the quality of life. A) an individuals cultural identity B) the cost of consumption of a resource C) the number of species that have been pushed into extinction D) using the knowledge of indigenous people

61) Which criterion to measure the quality of life would apply when placing hundreds of acres of

forest into protected status? A) use value B) cultural value C) aesthetic value D) option value

Chapter 25 Answer Key Test name: Chapter 25 1) D 2) B 3) C 4) C 5) C 6) D 7) C 8) B 9) A 10) A 11) B 12) C 13) C 14) C 15) B 16) B 17) B 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) [A, B, C] 22) C 23) B 24) D 25) C 26) A 27) A 28) [A, B, C] 29) [A, B, C] 30) D 31) B 32) [A, B, D] 33) [A, C] 34) C 35) C 36) A 37) D

Chapter 25 38) B 39) D 40) A 41) [A, B] 42) B 43) D 44) [A, B, C] 45) C 46) D 47) B 48) E 49) C 50) B 51) [A, B, C] 52) [A, B] 53) [A, B, C] 54) A 55) [B, C, D] 56) D 57) C 58) [A, B, D] 59) D 60) [A, B, D] 61) D