TEST BANK for Talaro’s Foundations in Microbiology, 11th Edition, by Barry Chess. by welldoneassistant

CHAPTER 1 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Members of the same species share many more characteristics compared to those shared by members of the same kingdom. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Viruses are not classified in any of Whittaker's five kingdoms. ⊚ ⊚

Members of the kingdom Fungi are photosynthetic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A scientist studying helminths is working with bacteria. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) The fossil record has established that prokaryotes existed on Earth for approximately two billion years before eukaryotes evolved. ⊚ ⊚

It has been over 25 years since a new infectious disease has emerged in the world. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The term sterile means free of all life-forms.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

All microorganisms are parasites. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) During a scientific experiment, the control group is used to directly test or measure the consequences of a variable in the study. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) The scientific method involves formulating a tentative explanation, called the hypothesis, to account for what has been observed or measured. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Once an organism is assigned to a particular taxonomic hierarchy, it is permanent and cannot be revised. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) When the results of an experiment support a hypothesis, the hypothesis can now be considered a theory. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

The names of the three proposed domains are: Bacteria, Protista, Eukarya. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14)

One distinguishing characteristic of archaeais that they live in extreme environments. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) Some microorganisms can photosynthesize, but their overall contribution to Earth's atmospheric oxygen is very small in comparison to plant photosynthesis. ⊚ ⊚

16)

Any microorganism on or in the human body is considered a pathogen. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

Theories are supported by more evidence than hypotheses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 18) Disease-causing microorganisms are called A) decomposers. B) prokaryotes. C) pathogens. D) eukaryotes. E) fermenters.

19) The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called Version 1

A) decomposers. B) prokaryotes. C) pathogens. D) eukaryotes. E) fermenters.

20)

The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called A) decomposers. B) prokaryotes. C) pathogens. D) eukaryotes. E) fermenters.

21)

When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms, the process is called A) bioremediation. B) geneticengineering. C) epidemiology. D) immunology. E) taxonomy.

22)

Which of the following are not considered microorganisms? A) Mosquitoes B) Protozoa C) Bacteria D) Viruses E) Fungi

23)

All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that

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A) cause humandisease. B) lack a cellnucleus. C) are infectiousparticles. D) are too small tobe seen with the unaided eye. E) can only be found growing inlaboratories.

24)

Which activity is an example of biotechnology? A) Bacteria in the soil secrete an antibiotic to kill competitors. B) A microbiologist uses a microscope to study bacteria. C) Humans use yeast to make beer and wine. D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis in the lungs. E) Public health officials monitor diseases in a community.

25) Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major groups of microorganisms? A) Viruses cause human disease. B) Virusesare composed of cells that lack nuclei. C) Viruses cannot be seen without an electron microscope. D) Viruses contain genetic material. E) Viruses lack ribosomes.

26) Who was the Dutch merchant that made and used quality magnifying lenses to see and record microorganisms? A) Francesco Redi B) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek C) Louis Pasteur D) Joseph Lister E) Robert Koch

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27)

Pasteur used swan-neck flasks in his experiments to prove that A) air had "vitalforces" capable of spontaneous generation. B) microbialfermentation could be used to make wine. C) dust in air was asource of living microorganisms. D) microorganismscould cause disease. E) microorganisms could be grown inlaboratory infusions.

28)

Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method? A) Belief in a preconceived idea B) Formulation of a hypothesis C) Systematic observation D) Laboratory experimentation E) Development of a theory

29)

Spontaneous generation is the idea that A) germs cause infectious diseases. B) microbes arediverse and ubiquitous. C) microbes placedin an infusion can grow in it. D) aseptictechniques reduce microbes in medical settings. E) living things arise from nonlivingmatter.

30)

Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that A) microbes arefound on dust particles. B) a specificmicrobe is the cause of a specific disease. C) life-forms can only arise from preexisting life-forms. D) a specificmicrobe should be classified in a specific kingdom. E) microbes can be used to clean up toxicspills.

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31)

Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed? A) Species B) Phylum C) Kingdom D) Genus E) Family

32)

Which of the following is a scientific name? A) Bacteria B) Protista C) Species D) Bacillussubtilis E) Bacilli

33)

Taxonomy does not involve A) nomenclature. B) classification. C) taxa. D) identification. E) Koch's postulates.

34)

The smallest taxon is A) genus. B) species. C) kingdom. D) family. E) phylum.

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35)

The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is called A) biotechnology. B) genetics. C) recombinantDNA. D) phylogeny. E) taxonomy.

36) A scientist studying similarities in the sequence of nucleotides in rRNA of two bacterial species is working on A) determiningevolutionary relatedness. B) bioremediation. C) recombinantDNA. D) nomenclature. E) determining if that species is thecause of a new disease.

37) A scientist discovers a new microbial species. It is a single-celled eukaryote without cell walls. In which kingdom will it likely be classified? A) Monera B) Protista C) Fungi D) Animalia E) Plantae

38) A scientist collecting grass clippings to find the source of an outbreak of tularemia is an example of working in the field of

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A) foodmicrobiology. B) epidemiology. C) agriculturalmicrobiology. D) geneticengineering. E) biotechnology.

39)

Helminths are A) bacteria. B) protozoa. C) molds. D) parasiticworms. E) infectious particles.

40)

All of the following pertain to photosynthesis, except A) it occurs only inmembers of the kingdom Plantae . B) carbon dioxide isconverted to organic material. C) it contributes tothe oxygen content in the atmosphere. D) it is fueled bylight. E) it is important to each ecosystem'sflow of energy and food.

41)

Organisms called parasites are A) always classifiedin the kingdom Monera. B) always harmful totheir host. C) the decomposersin ecosystems. D) alwaysviruses. E) free-living.

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42) Who was the surgeon that advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery? A) Joseph Lister B) Ignaz Semmelweis C) Robert Koch D) Louis Pasteur E) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

43)

Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis? A) Joseph Lister B) IgnazSemmelweis C) Robert Koch D) Louis Pasteur E) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

44)

Which of the following lists the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right)? A) Family, Order, Class B) Family, Genus, Species C) Genus, Species, Family D) Class, Phylum, Order E) Kingdom, Domain, Phylum

45)

When assigning a scientific name to an organism, A) the species nameis capitalized. B) the species nameis placed first. C) the species namecan be abbreviated. D) both genus andspecies names are capitalized. E) both genus and species names areitalicized or underlined.

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46)

In Whittaker's system, the protozoa and algae are classified in the kingdom A) Monera. B) Protista. C) Mycetae. D) Plantae. E) Animalia.

47)

The scientist(s) that proposed assigning organisms to one of three domains is/are A) Robert Koch andLouis Pasteur. B) Antonie vanLeeuwenhoek. C) Carl Woese andGeorge Fox. D) RobertWhittaker. E) Francesco Redi.

48)

Which kingdom does not contain any eukaryotes? A) Monera B) Protista C) Mycetae D) Plantae E) Animalia

49)

Which of the following are the main decomposers of the Earth?

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A) Bacteria and fungi B) Bacteria and viruses C) Algae and viruses D) Protists and fungi E) All organisms are decomposers.

50)

The most common infectious cause of death worldwide is A) HIV/AIDS. B) stroke. C) heart disease. D) cancer. E) malaria.

51)

Which of the following diseases is transmitted by mosquitoes? A) Diarrheal diseases B) Tuberculosis C) Malaria D) Septicemia E) Influenza

52)

All of the following are correct about prokaryotes, except A) they are smallerthan eukaryotes. B) they lack anucleus. C) they are lesscomplex than eukaryotes. D) they haveorganelles. E) they are found nearly everywhere.

53)

All of the following contribute to the rise of emerging diseases, except

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A) the decrease in drug-resistant bacteria. B) human encroachmenton wild habitats. C) changes inagricultural practices. D) human populations are more mobile.

54)

Which scientist discovered heat-resistant bacterial spores? A) Joseph Lister B) IgnazSemmelweis C) Robert Koch D) Ferdinand Cohn E) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek

55)

Which of the following is the correct way to write the scientific name of this bacterium? A) Staph Aureus B) StaphylococcusAureus C) Staphylococcusaureus D) StaphylococcusAureus E) S. Aureus

56)

Where are you most likely to find prokaryotes belonging to the domain Archaea? A) A human's large intestine B) A hot spring C) A pond D) A sewage treatment plant E) A beer production facility

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57) When microbes are introduced into the environment to restore stability, the process is called A) bioremediation. B) geneticengineering. C) epidemiology. D) immunology. E) taxonomy.

58) In which of the following conditions is/are microbial infection often implicated as a cause? A) Gastric ulcers B) Female infertility C) Coronary artery disease D) Cervical cancer E) All of the choices are correct.

59) Cyanide is a chemical used to dissolve gold and is harmful to the environment and organisms living there. A couple of biochemists came up with the idea of using the bacteria in the genus Pseudomonas to break down the cyanide used by a gold mining company. Which term refers to this use of bacteria? A) Bioremediation B) Immunoextraction C) Decomposition D) Bioextraction E) Biosynthesis

60) Which of the following branches of Microbiology is utilized in diagnosing or treating someone who has broken out in hives and is experiencing respiratory distress due to an exposure to a microbial toxin?

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A) Agricultural Microbiology B) Epidemiology C) Biotechnology D) Immunology E) Industrial Microbiology

61) The nurse in an emergency department is reviewing discharge instructions with a client. The client asks for clarification of a zoonosis, in regards to the type of illness. What is the best response by the nurse? A) A zoonosis refers to any viral disease. B) A zoonosis is any disease which can be successfully treated with antibiotics. C) A zoonosis is a disease typically found in animals, but which infects humans. D) A zoonosis is a disease caused by a eukaryotic parasite.

62) A scientist that constructs a hypothesis and then tests its validity by outlining predicted events of the hypothesis followed by experimenting to test for those events is using the __________ approach. A) inductive B) deductive C) instructive D) trial-and-error

63) Recently Zika virus has been in the news, with many cases in Central and South America and increasing numbers of cases in the southern United States. Five years ago this virus was essentially unheard of in these areas. This is an example of A) an endemic virus. B) an emerging infectious disease. C) genetic recombination. D) a pandemic.

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64) Numerous cases of microcephaly have been observed in the newborn babies of women who were infected with Zika virus during pregnancy. This led to the proposed hypothesis that Zika virus was causing the birth defects. This is an example of A) hypothesis testing. B) deductive reasoning. C) inductive reasoning. D) theory development.

65) You identify a new species of microorganism in an undersea thermal vent. The microbe is a single cell organism that lacks a nucleus. Which Domain would you classify your new species as belonging to? A) Domain Archaea B) Domain Bacteria C) Domain Eukarya D) None of the answers are correct.

66) A scientist makes a hypothesis that increased susceptibility to mosquito bites has a genetic basis. What is not an appropriate next step for her? A) She should present the data that promotes this hypothesis to get feedback from other scientists. B) She should repeat the experiments that led her to this hypothesis. C) She should propose a theory based on the results from her preliminary experiment. D) She should design a set of experiments that will test her hypothesis in a different way.

67) Which of the following is the least useful information to determine the evolutionary relatedness of two species?

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A) The environments they live in. B) Their DNA sequences. C) The morphological features that they have in common. D) All of the answers are important for determining evolutionary relatedness.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 68) The scientific field called __________ is involved in the identification, classification, and naming of organisms.

69) The area of biology that states that living things undergo gradual structural and functional changes over long periods of time is referred to as __________.

70) Living things ordinarily too small to be seen with the unaided eye are termed __________.

71) Microorganisms composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein covering are referred to as __________.

72) Specialized internal structures, called __________, are found in eukaryotes but not in prokaryotes.

73) Well-known diseases that are increasing in occurence are referred to as __________ diseases.

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SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 74) Discuss three different beneficial consequences and three different detrimental consequences of killing all microorganisms on the Earth.

75)

Discuss five reasons why infectious diseases are increasing in number around the world.

76) Outline the experiment that Louis Pasteur did with swan-necked-shaped tubes to disprove spontaneous generation.

77) Predict one reason why water contaminated by the algae Microcystiscannot be made safe by boiling.

78) Cases of chikungunya virus in the United States are primarily restricted to Florida and the Southeastern coast. Briefly explain a reason for this distribution.

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79) Briefly explain (1) why hospitals are such a common source of infectious disease and (2) why aseptic technique limits infection.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_11e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) B 22) A 23) D 24) C 25) E 26) B Version 1

27) C 28) A 29) E 30) B 31) C 32) D 33) E 34) B 35) D 36) A 37) B 38) B 39) D 40) A 41) B 42) A 43) C 44) B 45) E 46) B 47) C 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) C 52) D 53) A 54) D 55) C 56) B Version 1

57) A 58) E 59) A 60) D 61) C 62) B 63) B 64) C 65) A 66) C 67) A 68) taxonomy 69) Evolution 70) microorganisms 71) viruses 72) organelles 73) reemerging

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CHAPTER 2 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) A covalent bond is formed between an anion and a cation. ⊚ ⊚

Electrons that participate in chemical bonding are typically located closest to the nucleus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Elements have unique chemical properties. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Polar molecules have more reactivity compared to nonpolar molecules. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Water molecules are nonpolar molecules. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Only charged atoms can form ionic bonds. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The concentration of a solution expresses the amount of solvent present. ⊚ ⊚

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true false 1

8) If solution A has a lower pH compared to solution B, then solution A is more acidic than solution B. ⊚ ⊚

The only part of an amino acid that differs from other amino acids is its R group. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Neutrally charged subatomic particles are called neutrons. ⊚ ⊚

14)

true false

Nucleic acids have primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary levels of organization. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Replication is the cellular process that copies the DNA prior to cell division. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

All proteins are enzymes. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

The combination of subatomic particles are called elements. ⊚ ⊚

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true false 2

15)

An atom that receives additional electrons is called the oxidizing agent. ⊚ ⊚

16)

The permanent breakage of molecules to release products are decomposition reactions. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

The solvent is the substance that will be dissolved in the solution. ⊚ ⊚

true false

18) Cellular membranes that show both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties are called amphipathic. ⊚ ⊚

19)

Alkaline is another term that is interchangable with basic. ⊚ ⊚

20)

true false

Carbonyl groups are found in lipids. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) Which elements are found in all carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids?

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A) nitrogen B) carbon C) hydrogen D) oxygen E) phosphorus F) sulfur

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 22) Anything that occupies space and has mass is called A) an electron. B) living. C) matter. D) energy. E) space.

23)

All of the following pertain to

except it

A) has 6 protons. B) has 6electrons. C) has 14neutrons. D) is an isotope of carbon. E) has a mass number of 14.

24)

The electrons of an atom are A) always equal in number to the number of neutrons in an atom. B) found in thenucleus. C) used to determineatomic number. D) positivelycharged. E) consistently moving in pathways called orbitals.

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25)

The subatomic particles that orbit the nucleus are the A) electrons. B) protons. C) neutrons. D) protons andneutrons. E) protons and electrons.

26)

What is the maximum number of electrons in the second energy shell of an atom? A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 18 E) 32

27)

Isotopes are atoms of the same element that differ in their A) neutronnumber. B) electronnumber. C) proton number. D) atomic number. E) chemical properties.

28)

Two or more atoms bonded together are called a/an

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A) ion. B) isotope. C) element. D) electrolyte. E) molecule.

29)

What would be the valence number of electrons in the sulfur atom

16S?

A) 2 B) 6 C) 8 D) 16 E) 32

30)

Polar molecules are composed of covalently-bonded A) identicalatoms. B) carbon atoms. C) ions. D) atoms of differentelectronegativity. E) atoms of identicalelectronegativity.

31)

Reactions involving electron removal are called__________ reactions. A) oxidation B) reduction C) dehydration D) decomposition E) dissolution

32)

Which of the following represents a synthesis reaction?

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A) AB → A + B B) A + B → AB C) AB + XY → AX +BY D) AB + XY ↔ AX +BY

33)

The important solvent associated with natural systems is A) carbondioxide. B) sodiumchloride. C) ethylalcohol. D) benzene. E) water.

34)

What do H

2O, NaCl, CO

2, and HCl all have in common?

A) All are salts. B) All are acids. C) All are gases. D) All are inorganic. E) All are solutes.

35)

Which term does not belong in this list? A) lactic acid B) vinegar C) hydrogen ion donor D) pH 8 E) acidic

36)

Compared to a solution of pH 9, asolution of pH 7

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A) is more basic. B) has no OH - ions. C) has more H + ions. D) has a higher pH. E) All of these choices are correct.

37)

The building blocks of an enzyme are A) nucleotides. B) glycerol andfatty acids. C) monosaccharides. D) phosphate,glycerol, fatty acids. E) amino acids.

38)

Which of the following functional groups is mismatched to the organic compound? A) phosphate – carbohydrates B) sulfhydryl – proteins C) amino – proteins D) hydroxyl – alcohols E) carboxyl – fatty acids

39)

All of the following are monosaccharides except A) glucose. B) glycogen. C) fructose. D) ribose. E) deoxyribose.

40)

All of the following are lipids except

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A) cholesterol. B) starch. C) phospholipid. D) wax. E) triglyceride.

41) A monosaccharide with 5 carbon atoms will have __________ hydrogen atoms and __________ oxygen atoms. A) 10; 5 B) 5; 10 C) 5; 5 D) 10; 10 E) 2; 1

42)

One nucleotide contains A) one phosphate. B) one pentose. C) one nitrogenbase. D) All of these choices are correct.

43)

Which of the following would have glycosidic bonds? A) triglycerides B) monosaccharides C) polypeptides D) polysaccharides E) ATP

44)

All of the following are polysaccharides, except

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A) dextran in some bacterial slime layers. B) agar used to make solid culture media. C) a cell's glycocalyx. D) cellulose in certain cell walls. E) prostaglandins in inflammation.

45)

The hydrophobic tails of a phospholipidare composed of A) fatty acids. B) glycerol. C) phosphate. D) alcohol. E) All of these choices are correct.

46)

Which of the following is found in DNA but notin RNA? A) ribose B) adenine C) thymine D) uracil E) nucleotides

47)

An amino acid contains all of the following except A) an amino group. B) a carboxyl group. C) a variable R group. D) a carbon atom. E) a nitrogenous base.

48)

ATP is best described as

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A) an enzyme. B) a doublehelix. C) an electroncarrier. D) the energymolecule of cells. E) All of these choices are correct.

49) Which amino acid contains sulfur atoms that form covalent disulfide bonds and stabilize the tertiary structure of some proteins? A) valine B) cysteine C) serine D) alanine E) tyrosine

50) is

The nucleic acid that delivers the correct amino acidto the ribosomefor protein synthesis

A) rRNA. B) DNA. C) tRNA. D) mRNA. E) ATP.

51)

Which is not true about enzymes? A) Enzymes are found in all cells. B) Enzymes are catalysts. C) Enzymes participate in the cell's chemical reactions. D) Enzymes can be denaturedby heat and other agents. E) Enzymes have high-energy bonds between phosphates.

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52)

The weak, attractive force between water molecules is due to A) hydrogen bonds. B) covalent bonds. C) ionic bonds. D) peptide bonds. E) glycosidic bonds.

53)

The purine bases in nucleic acids include A) thymine andcytosine. B) guanine andadenine. C) cytosine andguanine. D) adenine andthymine. E) ribose and deoxyribose.

54) A student forgot to label a beaker containing a DNA solution and a beaker containing a glucose solution. If chemical analysis was performed to identify the contents of each beaker, which of the following would be found in the beaker of DNA but not in the beaker with glucose? A) amino acids B) hydrogen and oxygen atoms C) nitrogen and phosphorus D) fatty acids E) carbon atoms

55)

The atomic number equals the number of __________ in an atom.

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A) neutrons B) protons C) protons pluselectrons D) neutrons plusprotons

56)

12O

6+C

12O

6→ C

12H

22O

11 + H

2O is an example of

A) formation of apeptide bond. B) a decompositionreaction. C) denaturation. D) a hydrolytic reaction. E) dehydration synthesis.

57) If carbon has an atomic number of 6 and an atomic mass of 14, how many neutrons does it have? A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 14 E) There is not enough information to determine this.

58)

The neutrons of an atom are A) always equal tothe number of protons in an atom. B) found in thenucleus. C) used to determineatomic number. D) positivelycharged. E) moving in pathways called orbitals.

59)

Which of the following represents an exchange reaction?

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A) AB → A + B B) A + B → AB C) X + Y → XYD D) AB + XY ↔ AX +BY

60) out?

Jim needs to prepare one liter of a 4% NaCl solution. How much NaCl should he weigh

A) 0.4 grams B) 4.0 grams C) 40 grams D) 400 grams

61)

How many times more acidic is a solution with a pH of 3 than a solution with a pH of 6? A) 3 B) 10 C) 1000 D) 36 E) 63

62)

Which of the following carbohydrates is found in dairy products? A) lactose B) sucrose C) maltose D) glucose E) fructose

63)

Which of the following is the stored form of carbohydrates in animals?

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A) glycogen B) maltose C) starch D) cellulose E) galactose

64)

All of the following are correct about triglycerides, except A) triglycerides are insoluble in water. B) triglycerides are a concentrated source of energy. C) unsaturated triglycerides are solid at room temperature. D) triglycerides dissolve in nonpolar solvents. E) triglycerides are hydrolyzed by lipases.

65)

Which of the following functional groups participate in the formation of an ester bond? A) hydroxyl group and amino group B) carboxyl group and amino group C) hydroxyl group and carboxyl group D) hydroxyl group and carbonyl group

66)

The chemical reaction that forms an ester bond in a triglyceride is a __________ reaction. A) dehydration synthesis B) oxidation C) hydrolysis D) reduction

67)

The type of chemical bond linking amino acids together is a(n)

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A) glycosidic bond. B) peptide bond. C) ester bond. D) ionic bond. E) hydrogen bond.

68)

The alpha helix and beta pleated sheet are examples of A) primary structure. B) secondary structure. C) tertiary structure. D) quaternary structure. E) gamma structure.

69) The polynucleotide strands of DNA are linked along their length by __________ bonds between the bases. A) covalent B) ionic C) Van der Waals D) double E) hydrogen

70)

Which of the following is/are hydrophilic? A) glucose B) vegetable oil C) butter D) cholesterol E) Vegetable oil, butter, and cholesterol are correct.

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71)

Water, glucose, and carbon dioxide are examples of A) compounds. B) atoms. C) gases. D) macromolecules.

72) Chemical analysis of an unidentified compound isolated from cells showed the presence of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur. This unknown compound is most likely a A) carbohydrate. B) nucleic acid. C) lipid. D) protein.

73)

Select the incorrect statement. A) Molecules contain atoms. B) Compounds may contain only one type of atom. C) Compounds contain molecules. D) Atoms are joined by chemical bonds forming molecules. E) Molecules may contain two of the same type of atom.

74) During cellular reactions, electrons may be removed from compounds such as glucose and picked up by a coenzyme known as NAD +. When NAD + gains these electrons, it is said to be A) oxidized. B) reduced. C) synthesized. D) dehydrated.

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75)

A(n) __________ is the smallest particle that cannot be divided into smaller subunits. A) atom B) element C) molcule D) ion E) compound

76)

The position of an electron at any on time is dictated by its A) charge. B) energy shell. C) atomic position. D) nucleus position.

77)

Equal sharing of electrons during covalent bonding involves __________ molecules. A) nonpolar B) polar C) electrolyte D) ion

78)

Dissolving substances such as salt in water that release ions are termed A) polar. B) nonpolar. C) electrolytes. D) solvents.

79) Weak structurally important molecular interactions that are similar to hydrogen bonds are called Version 1

A) ionic bonds. B) van der Waals forces. C) charged bonds. D) covalent bonds.

80)

Which of the following is not four of the main families of living things? A) lipids B) ribosomes C) nucleic acids D) proteins

81)

Cations are A) charged subatomicparticles. B) atoms that havegained electrons. C) radioactiveisotopes. D) capable of formingionic bonds with anions. E) atoms without protons.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 82) The total number of protons and neutrons of an element establishes its __________ number.

83)

Atoms that gain or lose electrons become charged particles called __________.

84)

Protons and neutrons make up the atom's central core referred to as its __________.

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85) Organic chemicals always have a basic framework of the element __________ bonded to other atoms.

86)

__________ bonds are formed by dehydration synthesis between adjacent amino acids.

87)

Purines and pyrimidines are components in the building block units of all __________.

88)

During protein synthesis, genes in DNA are copied, making __________ RNA.

89)

An ion that contains more protons than electrons is considered a __________.

90)

The contents of a reaction are termed a(n) __________.

91) A glucose molecule is attracted to the water group on another molecule; therefore, glucose is a __________ molecule.

92) The amine group on a protein is repelled by a water molecule; therefore, the amine group is __________.

93) A fat is called __________ if all carbons of the fatty acid chain are single bonded to 2 other carbons and 2 hydrogens.

94) __________ can be used to trace the position of key atoms that are utilized for diagnosis and treatment. Version 1

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 95) Certain antibiotics are effective against bacteria that cause human infections because they target prokaryotic ribosomes. Discuss, in detail, how the drug attacking a pathogen's ribosomes will affect the cell. Discuss at least three specific detrimental results.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_11e 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) [B, C, D] 22) C 23) C 24) E 25) A 26) C Version 1

27) A 28) E 29) B 30) D 31) A 32) B 33) E 34) D 35) D 36) C 37) E 38) A 39) B 40) B 41) A 42) D 43) D 44) E 45) A 46) C 47) E 48) D 49) B 50) C 51) E 52) A 53) B 54) C 55) B 56) E Version 1

57) C 58) B 59) D 60) C 61) C 62) A 63) A 64) C 65) C 66) A 67) B 68) B 69) E 70) A 71) A 72) D 73) B 74) B 75) A 76) B 77) A 78) C 79) B 80) B 81) D 82) mass 83) ions 84) nucleus 85) carbon 86) Peptide Version 1

87) nucleic acids 88) messenger 89) cation 90) chemical equation 91) hydrophilic 92) hydrophobic 93) saturated 94) Radioactive isotopes

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CHAPTER 3 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The procedure for culturing a microorganism requires the use of a microscope. ⊚ ⊚

One colony typically develops from the growth of several parent bacterial cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Mixed cultures are also referred to as contaminated cultures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A medium that is gel-like has less agar in it compared to a solid medium. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) A selective medium contains one or more substances that inhibit growth of certain microbes in order to facilitate the growth of other microbes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) A bacterial species that grows on blood agar but will not grow on trypticase soy agar is termed an anaerobe.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Fixed smears of specimens are required in order to perform the Gram stain and endospore stain on the specimens. ⊚ ⊚

The bending of light rays as they pass from one medium to another is called refraction. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Identification relies entirely on biochemical test results. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

At the end of the Gram stain, Gram-positive bacteria will be seen as purple cells. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

A colony of bacteria is derived from multiple species. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Sterile technique is not important, so long as the media is specific enough for the organism you are trying to grow. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14)

It is simpler to isolate an individual bacterium on a solid medium versus a liquid medium. ⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

There are only a few examples of microbes that cannot be cultured in the laboratory. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 16) Syphilis is diagnosed either with microscopy or serology because the causative agent( Treponema pallidum)does not grow on any microbiological media.Which term best describes this aspect of Treponema pallidum? A) Fastidious B) Nonculturable C) Commensalistic D) Symbiotic

17)

The Six "I's" of studying microorganisms include all of the following except A) inoculation. B) incubation. C) infection. D) isolation. E) identification.

18)

All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except

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A) broth. B) enriched. C) agar. D) Petri dish. E) gelatin.

19)

Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies? A) Broth medium B) Differential medium C) Selective medium D) Solidmedium E) Assay medium

20) The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is A) isolation. B) inoculation. C) immunization. D) infection. E) contamination.

21)

A pure culture contains only A) one species ofmicroorganism. B) bacteria. C) a variety ofmicrobes from one source. D) All of the choices are correct.

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22) Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled and cooled? A) A pure culture B) A mixed culture C) A solid medium D) A liquid medium E) A contaminated medium

23) A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation? A) Themicrobiologist used too much inoculum. B) The culture iscontaminated. C) The incubationtemperature was incorrect. D) The culturemedium must be selective. E) The culture medium must bedifferential.

24) A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation? A) Themicrobiologist used too much inoculum. B) The culture iscontaminated. C) The incubationtemperature was incorrect. D) The culturemedium must be selective. E) The culture medium must bedifferential.

25) Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar and some colonies on the surface?

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A) Streak plate B) Spread plate C) Pour plate D) All of the choices are correct.

26)

A common medium used for growing fastidious bacteria is A) chocolate agar. B) trypticase soy agar. C) mannitol salt agar. D) MacConkeymedium. E) a reducing medium.

27)

A reducing medium contains A) sugars that canbe fermented. B) extra oxygen. C) hemoglobin,vitamins, or other growth factors. D) substances thatremove oxygen. E) inhibiting agents.

28) A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations known and reproducible would be termed A) complex. B) reducing. C) enriched. D) enumeration. E) synthetic.

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29) Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium? A) Differential B) Selective C) Enumeration D) Enriched E) Reducing

30) A microbiologist decides to use a nutrient medium that contains thioglycolic acid. What type of microbe is she attempting to culture? A) Fastidious B) Gram positive C) Anaerobe D) Gram negative E) Virus

31)

Mannitol salt agar is selective for which bacterial genus? A) Salmonella B) Streptococcus C) Neisseria D) Staphylococcus E) Escherichia

32) A microbiologist must culture a patient's feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following would likely be present in selective media for analyzing this fecal specimen?

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A) NaCl B) Sheep red blood cells C) Bile salts D) Thioglycolic acid E) Peptone

33) Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two entities as separate and distinct? A) Resolving power B) Magnification C) Refraction D) All of the choices are correct.

34) Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the real image of the specimen? A) Condenser B) Objective lens C) Ocular lens D) Body E) Nosepiece

35) If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X? A) 100X B) 950X C) 85X D) 850X E) 95X

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36)

The wavelength of light used plus the numerical aperture governs A) illumination. B) resolution. C) magnification. D) size of thefield. E) All of the choices are correct.

37) All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of resolution of 0.2 µm except A) 0.2 µm. B) 0.2 mm. C) 0.1 µm. D) 0.3 µm. E) 2.0 µm.

38) The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is A) bright-field. B) dark-field. C) phase-contrast. D) fluorescence. E) electron.

39)

Which microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image?

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A) Bright-field B) Dark-field C) Phase-contrast D) Fluorescence E) Electron

40)

Which microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification? A) Bright-field B) Dark-field C) Phase-contrast D) Fluorescence E) Electron

41) Which microscope shows cells against a bright background and the intracellular structures of unstained cells based on their varying densities? A) Bright-field B) Dark-field C) Phase-contrast D) Fluorescence E) Electron

42) Which microscope is the most widely used to show stained cells against a bright background? A) Bright-field B) Dark-field C) Phase-contrast D) Fluorescence E) Electron

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43)

Which is incorrect about chocolate agar? A) It can be used tocultivate Neisseria. B) It usually usessheep blood that has been heated. C) It has chocolateextract in it. D) It is an enrichedmedium. E) It is used to grow fastidiousbacteria.

44)

All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope exceptthat it A) uses electrons to produce a specimen image. B) is a type ofcompound microscope. C) requires the useof dyes like acridine and fluorescein. D) is commonly usedto diagnose certain infections. E) requires an ultraviolet radiationsource.

45) Which microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over the specimen? A) Fluorescence B) Differential interference contrast C) Scanning electron D) Transmission electron E) Phase-contrast

46)

The specimen preparation that is best for viewing cell motility is

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A) hanging drop. B) fixed-stained smear. C) Gram stain. D) negativestain. E) flagellar stain.

47)

The primary purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to A) kill them. B) secure them tothe slide. C) enlarge thecells. D) add contrast inorder to see them better. E) see motility.

48)

The Gram stain, acid-fast stain, and endospore stain A) are used on a wet mount of the specimen. B) use heat to force the dye into cell structures. C) have outcomes based on cell wall differences. D) use a negative stain technique. E) are differential stains.

49)

Basic dyes are A) attracted to theacidic substances of bacterial cells. B) anionic. C) used in negativestaining. D) repelled bycells. E) dyes such as India ink andnigrosin.

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50) A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler's methylene blue. All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of A) negativestaining. B) using an acidicdye. C) simplestaining. D) using theacid-fast stain. E) capsule staining.

51)

Media that contains extracts from plants, animals, or yeasts are A) synthetic. B) complex. C) reducing. D) enriched. E) All of the choices are correct.

52) Brain-heart infusion, trypticase soy agar (TSA), and nutrient agar are all examples of which type of media? A) Synthetic B) Reducing C) Enriched D) Complex E) Selective

53)

Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex organic substances are called

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A) fastidious. B) pathogenic. C) harmless. D) anaerobic. E) aerobic.

54) A media is designed that allows only staphylococci to grow. In addition, S. aureus colonies have a yellow halo around them and other staphylococci appear white. This type of media is A) selectiveonly. B) differentialonly. C) both selective anddifferential. D) a reducingmedia. E) enriched.

55)

All of the following are examples of basic dyes except A) methylene blue. B) nigrosin. C) crystal violet. D) safranin. E) carbol fuchsin.

56)

Which type of media can be used to determine if a bacteria is motile? A) SIM B) MacConkey C) Enriched media D) XLD agar E) Chocolate agar

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57)

All of the following are correct about agar except A) it isflexible. B) it melts at the boiling point of water (100°C). C) it is a source ofnutrition for bacteria. D) it solidifies below 42°C. E) it is solid at room temperature.

58)

Which of the following media is useful for cultivating fungi? A) Sabouraud'sagar B) MacConkeyagar C) Tomato juice agar D) Phenylethanol agar E) Eosin-methylene blue agar

59) Which of the following places the steps for microbial culture and identification in the correct order? A) inoculation, incubation, isolation, inspection, identification B) isolation, inspection, inoculation, incubation, identification C) incubation, inspection, isolation, identification, inoculation D) inspection, identification, isolation, incubation, inoculation E) inspection, isolation, incubation, inoculation, identification

60)

Why is immersion oil often used when viewing specimens under the microscope?

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A) To stain the cells blue B) To prevent the smear from drying out C) Toslow bacterial movement so you can see cells better D) To increase the resolution E) To reduce the amount of heat reaching the slide from the light source

61)

Which of the following reagents reacts with crystal violet as the mordant? A) Crystal violet B) Gram’s iodine C) 95% ethylalcohol D) Safranin

62)

How will E. coli appear in a Gram stain if the mordant is not applied? A) Gram-positive B) Gram-negative C) Gram-variable D) Colorless

63) Observing and characterizing colonial growth for size, shape, edge, elevation, color, odor, and texture is part of A) specimen collection. B) inoculation. C) incubation. D) isolation. E) inspection.

64) In lab, Isaac was given a mixed culture. His objective is to isolate single colonies. What should he use to accomplish this goal? Version 1

A) Sterile swab, loop dilution, TSB B) Hockey stick, spread plate technique, and 4 degree Celsius incubation temperature C) Loop dilution, TSA, hockey stick, 37 degree Celsius incubator D) Inoculating loop, incinerator, streak plate method, 37 degree Celsius incubator E) Sterile swab, streak plate method, 37 degree Celsius incubator

65) Mia had a throat sample taken at a satellite lab within her health care provider’s office. What kind of media would be best suited for maintaining the quality of this specimen prior to its arrival in the clinical laboratory? A) TSA plate B) TSB tube C) Transport media D) Selective agar E) Differential agar

66) Using the numbers 1–4, which of the following is thecorrect chronological sequence of events for the Gram staining procedure? 1) Apply iodine for 60 seconds and rinse. 2) Add crystal violet for 60 seconds and rinse. 3)Apply safranin for 60 seconds and rinse. 4)Add 95% ethanol for 10–20 seconds and rinse. A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 2, 1, 4, 3 C) 1, 3, 4, 2 D) 3, 1, 4, 2

67) You are doing research on a bacterial species, trying to determine the nature and structure of a number of intracellular inclusions. Which type of microscopy would provide the best view of these intracellular structures?

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A) Scanning electron microscopy B) Transmissionelectron microscopy C) Bright-field microscopy D) Dark-field microscopy

68) You are doing research on a bacterial species, trying to determine the shape, distribution, and arrangement of a number of filamentous structures that protrude from the cell surface. Which type of microscopy would best enable you to do this? A) Scanning electron microscopy B) Transmissionelectron microscopy C) Bright-field microscopy D) Dark-field microscopy

69) Each of the following are characteristics of microorganisms that pose unique challenges to their study except A) the fact that they must be viewed through a microscope rather than the unaided eye. B) the fact that many do not have membrane-enclosed nucleus or other organelles. C) the fact that they often exist in complex communities and individual species may be difficult to isolate from others. D) the fact that they usually must be grown andstudied under somewhat artificial conditions in vitro rather than in their natural habit.

70) Microbes can be challenging to study because they often grow in complex communities and it may be difficult to separate the various species from one another to study individually. Which of the following laboratory "tools" or techniques may be of the most help with separating out different species from complex mixtures?

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A) Use of transmission electron microscopy B) Use of enriched agar for culture C) Use of selective agars for culture D) Use of light microscopy

71) A student was given a stained smear to observe. Upon observation, the student noted rodshaped bacteria that were clear and unstained against a darker background. What sort of stain was performed on this slide? A) Gram stain B) Acid-fast stain C) Simple stain D) Negative stain

72) A bacterial cell that is deposited on the surface of an appropriate solid growth media will divide repeatedly until it forms a visible accumulation of bacterial growth. This visible accumulation is known as a bacterial A) colony. B) community. C) biofilm. D) smear.

73) All of the following are criteria that areused to classify different types of microbiological growth media except A) physical state or consistency. B) purpose or function. C) chemical composition. D) sensory characteristics (color, smell).

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74) To prepare large volumes of influenza virus for use in the flu vaccines each year, the virus is grown in embryonated hen eggs. This is an example of the use of A) enriched media. B) selective media. C) live media. D) complex media.

75) Viruses, Rickettsia, and Chlamydia are described as obligate intracellular parasites because they can only be propagated inside living host cells. Which of the following would be appropriate for their cultivation? A) Enriched media B) Cell or tissue cultures C) Media that contains sheep red blood cells D) Differential media

76) You accidentally switch the Crystal violet and Safranin steps during your Gram stain. When you look under the microscope, what color will a Gram negative bacteria, like Escherichia coli, be? A) Red/Pink B) Purple C) Colorless

77) You accidentally switch the Crystal violet and Safranin steps during your Gram stain. When you look under the microscope, what color will a Gram positive bacteria, like Staphylococcus aureus, be? A) Red/Pink B) Purple C) Colorless

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78)

Media used to detect the fermentation of lactose is prepared using an excess of A) DNA. B) carbohydrates. C) lipids. D) protein.

79) What is the total magnification of a specimen being viewed under the microscope using a 10x ocular lens and a 45x objective lens? A) 45x B) 1000x C) 55x D) 450x

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 80) The microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium in order to produce a culture is the __________.

81)

The three physical forms of laboratory media are: solid, semisolid, and __________.

82) Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed __________.

83)

Starting a new culture from an existing one is called __________.

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84) Newly inoculated cultures must be __________ at a specific temperature and time to encourage growth.

85)

The __________ of the microscope holds and allows selection of the objective lenses.

86) The __________ dyes have a negative charge on the chromophore and are repelled by bacterial cells.

87) The reason that __________ prevents refractive loss of light as it passes from the slide to the objective lens is because ithas the same optical qualities as glass.

88) Electron microscopes use beams of electrons traveling in waves to form images of the specimen. Because resolving power is a function of __________, these tiny electron waves are able to magnify between 5,000x and 1,000,000x.

89) One type of negative stain, called the __________ stain, helps to visualize an unstructured protective layer that surrounds some bacteria. This layer does not react with most stains.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 90) Compare and contrast the reagents and functions of negative staining versus positive staining.

91) Explain the difference and significance between a contaminated culture and a mixed culture. Version 1

92) A contaminated food sample contains several different species of bacteria. A food microbiologist is interested in studying just one of these species. Describe the sequence of procedures that the microbiologist must perform in order to obtain a pure culture of the bacterial species of interest from this food sample. Detail all the necessary media and equipment.

93) Explain how and why immersion oil increases resolution but not magnification when using the 100X objective.

94) Briefly explain why it might be important to characterize the antibiotic sensitivities of a newly discovered microorganism.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_11e 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) B 17) C 18) D 19) D 20) B 21) A 22) C 23) B 24) D 25) C 26) A Version 1

27) D 28) E 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) A 34) B 35) E 36) B 37) C 38) B 39) E 40) E 41) C 42) A 43) C 44) A 45) C 46) A 47) D 48) E 49) A 50) C 51) B 52) D 53) A 54) C 55) B 56) A Version 1

57) C 58) A 59) A 60) D 61) B 62) B 63) E 64) D 65) C 66) B 67) B 68) A 69) B 70) C 71) D 72) A 73) D 74) C 75) B 76) B 77) B 78) B 79) D 80) inoculum 81) liquid 82) fastidious 83) Subculture 84) incubated 85) nosepiece 86) acidic Version 1

87) immersion oil 88) wavelength 89) capsule

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CHAPTER 4 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Archaea do not have the typical peptidoglycan structure found in bacterial cell walls. ⊚ ⊚

Bacteria in the genus Mycoplasma and bacteria called L-forms lack cell walls. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Gram-negative bacteria do not have peptidoglycan in their cell walls. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Hot carbol fuchsin is the primary dye in the acid-fast stain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) The region between the bacterial cell membrane and the cell wall is called the outer membrane. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The prokaryotic cell membrane is a site for many enzymes and metabolic reactions. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

7) If during the Gram stain procedure, the bacterial cells were viewed immediately after crystal violet was applied, gram-positive cells would be purple but gram-negative cells would be colorless. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Endospores of certain bacterial species can enter tissues in the human body, germinate, and cause an infectious disease. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Iodine is the decolorizer in the Gram stain. ⊚ true ⊚ false

10) If you observe rod-shaped, pink cells on a slide that had just been Gram stained, you can assume that their cell walls contain endotoxin. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11)

The term diplococci refers to an irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false

12)

Prokaryotic cells contain developed organelles. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Long fibers and proteins that encircle the cell are part of the actin skeleton. ⊚ ⊚

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true false 2

14)

Branching filaments is a type of bacterial shape. ⊚ ⊚

15)

Chains of spherical bacterial cells would be called streptococci. ⊚ ⊚

16)

true false

Microbes that are 100 times smaller than bacterial cells are given the name nanobacteria. ⊚ ⊚

19)

true false

Treponema pallidum are rods that cause smallpox. ⊚ ⊚

18)

true false

Classification based on Gram staining and metabolic reactions is called phenetic. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

Chlamydophila pneumoniae is a common sexually transmitted disease. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 20) The difference in cell wall structure of Mycobacterium and Nocardia compared to the typical gram-positive bacterial cell wall structure is

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A) the presence of more peptidoglycan. B) the predominance of unique, waxy lipids. C) the rapid decolorization during staining. D) the presence of lipopolysaccharide. E) All of these choices are correct.

21)

Bacterial cells could have any of the following appendages, except A) flagella. B) cilia. C) fimbriae. D) periplasmic flagella. E) sex pili.

22)

Spirochetes have a twisting and flexing locomotion due to appendages called A) flagella. B) cilia. C) fimbriae. D) periplasmicflagella (axial filaments). E) sex pili.

23) The short, numerous bristlelike appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called A) flagella. B) cilia. C) fimbriae. D) periplasmicflagella (axial filaments). E) sex pili.

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24) The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called A) flagella. B) cilia. C) fimbriae. D) periplasmicflagella (axial filaments). E) sex pili.

25)

All bacterial cells have A) a chromosome. B) fimbriae. C) endospores. D) capsules. E) flagella.

26)

The term that refers to the presence of flagella all over the cell surface is A) amphitrichous. B) atrichous. C) lophotrichous. D) monotrichous. E) peritrichous.

27)

The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the bacterial cell's A) ribosomes. B) inclusions. C) cell wall. D) cell membrane. E) flagella.

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28)

The most immediate result of destruction of a cell's ribosomes would be A) material would notbe able to cross the cell membrane. B) protein synthesiswould stop. C) destruction of thecell's DNA. D) formation ofglycogen inclusions. E) loss of capsule.

29)

A bacterial cell exhibiting chemotaxis probably has A) fimbriae. B) capsules. C) mesosomes. D) flagella. E) metachromatic granules.

30) If bacteria living in salty seawater were displaced to a freshwater environment, the cell structure that would prevent the cells from rupturing is the A) endospore. B) cell wall. C) cellmembrane. D) capsule. E) slime layer.

31)

Which structure protects bacteria from being phagocytized?

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A) slime layer B) fimbriae C) cell membrane D) capsule E) All of these choices are correct.

32)

Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule thatcomposes the bacterial A) cell walls. B) cellmembranes. C) capsules. D) slime layers. E) inclusions.

33) All of the following structures contribute to the ability of pathogenic bacteria to cause disease, except A) inclusions. B) fimbriae. C) capsule. D) slime layer. E) gram-negative outer membrane.

34) A prokaryotic cell wall that is primarily composed of peptidoglycan with small amounts of teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid is A) gram-negative. B) gram-positive. C) archaea. D) a spheroplast. E) acid fast.

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35)

A bacterial genus that has waxy mycolic acid in the cell walls is A) Mycobacterium. B) Mycoplasma. C) Streptococcus. D) Corynebacterium. E) Salmonella.

36)

All of the following pertain to endotoxins, except they A) are specificbacterial cell wall lipids. B) can stimulatefever in the human body. C) can cause shockin the human body. D) are involved intyphoid fever and some meningitis cases. E) are found in acid-fast bacterial cell walls.

37)

Lipopolysaccharide is an important cell wall component of A) gram-negativebacteria. B) gram-positivebacteria. C) acid-fastbacteria. D) mycoplasmas. E) protoplasts.

38)

The periplasmic space is A) larger ingram-positive bacteria. B) made up oflipopolysaccharides and phospholipids. C) an importantreaction site for substances entering and leaving the cell. D) just external to the LPS layer of the outer membrane. E) absent ingram-negative bacteria.

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39)

Which of the following, pertaining to prokaryotic cell membranes, is mismatched? A) structure-embedded proteins B) sterols present - mycoplasmas C) form a bilayer - phospholipids D) unique hydrocarbon present - cyanobacteria E) function - regulates transport of nutrients and wastes

40)

The bacterial chromosome A) is located in thecell membrane. B) contains all thecell's plasmids. C) is part of thenucleoid. D) forms a singlelinear strand of DNA. E) All of these choices are correct.

41)

Which is mismatched? A) ribosomes-protein synthesis B) inclusions-excess cell nutrients and materials C) plasmids-genes essential for growth and metabolism D) nucleoid-hereditary material E) cytoplasm-dense, gelatinous solution

42)

Magnetosomes are A) infoldings of thecell membrane. B) termedmetachromatic granules. C) responsible forthe heat resistance of endospores. D) composed ofmagnetic iron oxide particles. E) found in all bacteria.

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43)

The function of bacterial endospores is A) to convertgaseous nitrogen to a usable form for plants. B) for reproductionand growth. C) for protection ofgenetic material during harsh conditions. D) the storage ofexcess cell materials. E) to have sites for photosynthesis.

44) Chemical analysis of a bacterial cell structure detects calcium dipicolinic acid. What is the identity of this structure? A) cell wall B) capsule C) slime layer D) nucleoid E) endospore

45)

Endospores are A) metabolicallyinactive. B) resistant to heatand chemical destruction. C) resistant todestruction by radiation. D) livingstructures. E) All of these choices are correct.

46)

Bacterial endospores are not produced by

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A) Staphylococcus. B) Sporosarcina. C) Bacillus. D) Clostridium. E) All of these choices are correct.

47)

Which term is not used to describe bacterial cell shapes? A) coccus B) tetrad C) vibrio D) rod E) spirochete

48)

Which statement is not a characteristic of biofilms? A) They can beinvolved with human disease. B) They involvebacteria only. C) They evolve andadapt to their surroundings. D) They are verydifficult to eliminate with antimicrobials. E) They can accumulate on living and nonliving surfaces.

49)

An important indicator of evolutionary history is the A) similarities of a complex cell wall macromolecule. B) similarities ofcell membrane proteins. C) size of thebacterial chromosome. D) nitrogen basesequence of rRNA. E) size of the ribosomes.

50)

Which phylum is mismatched?

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A) Thermotogae-thermophilic halophiles B) Firmicutes-gram-positive cell walls C) Actinobacteria-waxy acid-fast cell walls D) Proteobacteria-archaea cell walls

51)

Which is mismatched? A) Chlamydias-lack ability to independently complete growth and metabolism B) Green sulfur bacteria-photosynthetic anaerobes that use sulfur in metabolism C) Cyanobacteria-filamentous, glidingthermophilic bacteria D) Myxobacteria-gliding, fruiting slime bacteria

52) with

The presence of thylakoids, phycocyanin, gas inclusions, and cysts would be associated

A) green sulfurbacteria. B) cyanobacteria. C) purple sulfurbacteria. D) archaea. E) spirochetes.

53)

When a rod-shaped bacteria is short and plump, it is called a A) spirochete. B) pleomorphism. C) vibrio. D) coccobacillus. E) spirillum.

54)

Sarcinae refers to

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A) cocci inpairs. B) a cuboidal packetof cells. C) groups ofendopsores. D) coffee-bean-shaped rods in pairs. E) vibrios in threes.

55)

All of the following are correct about biofilms, except A) they arecooperative associations among several microbial groups. B) they play an important role in recycling elements in the Earth. C) they can colonizemedical devices. D) an example couldbe the scum that builds up in toilet bowls. E) they are harmless aggregations ofmicrobes.

56)

Bacteria with small bunches of flagella emerging from the same site are said to be A) lophotrichous. B) peritrichous. C) monotrichous. D) amphitrichous. E) spirilla.

57)

All of the following are correct about a slime layer, except A) it is a type ofglycocalyx. B) it can be easilywashed off the cell. C) it protects thecell from loss of water and nutrients. D) it enables movement of cells. E) it allows cells to participate inbiofilms.

58)

Lysozyme, an enzyme found in tears, provides a natural defense against bacteria by

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A) hydrolyzingpeptidoglycan in cell walls. B) inhibitingprotein synthesis. C) removingflagella. D) dissolving thecell membrane. E) removing the capsule from outside the cell.

59) Which cell structure is an important component in modern genetic engineering techniques? A) ribosomes B) capsules C) plasmids D) inclusions E) mesosomes

60) A microoganism has been described to you as living in hot acidic habitats in the waste piles of coal mines that regularly sustain a pH of 1 and a temperature of nearly 60 °C. Which type of organism do you immediately assume it is? A) Gracillucates B) Firmicutes C) Actinobacteria D) Archaea E) Spirochetes

61)

Which of the following is mismatched? A) Rickettsia rickettsii : Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever B) Rickettsia typhi : endemic typhus C) Chlamydia trachomatis : blindness D) Coxiella burnetti :cowpox E) All of these choices are correct.

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62)

Which of the following characteristics is not a property of cells or living things? A) cell boundary B) ability to replicate C) cellular metabolism D) responds to stimulus E) All of the choices are not fundamental characteristics of living things.

63) Which of the following makes possible the differentiation of members of the genus Mycobacterium and the genus Nocardia from other bacteria? A) the Gram stain B) the presence of flagella C) the acid-fast stain D) an endospore stain E) the capsule stain

64)

Which of the following characteristics of living things is/are not found among viruses? A) heredity B) cellular metabolism C) ability to evolve D) presence of nucleic acid E) All of these characteristics are lacking in viruses.

65) The process of endosporeformation is _____________, while the process of an endospore growing into a vegetative cell is ____________. A) germination; sporulation B) reproduction; sporulation C) germination; reproduction D) sporulation; germination

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66) In bacteria such as members of the Bacillus and Clostridium genera, nutrient depletion is likely to result in A) germination. B) sporulation. C) binary fission. D) plasmolysis. E) starvation.

67)

Which of the following represents size relationships from smallest to largest?

A) rhinovirus, Ebola virus, Staphylococcus cell, yeast cell, red blood cell, squamous epithelial cell B) Ebola virus, Rhinovirus, yeast cell, Staphylococcus cell, red blood cell, squamous epithelial cell C) Ebola virus, yeast cell, Rhinovirus, red blood cell, Staphylococcus cell, squamous epithelial cell D) rhinovirus, Ebola virus, Staphylococcus cell, red blood cell, yeast cell, squamous epithelial cell

68)

What unit of measure is most appropriate for expressing the size of bacteria? A) micrometer B) nanometer C) milimeter D) picometer

69) According to current thought regarding the domains of life, which two domains are believed to be the most closely related?

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A) Bacteria and Eukarya B) Archaea and Bacteria C) Archaea and Eukarya

70) Classification and taxonomy provide information and contribute to each of the following endeavors, except A) identification of unknown species. B) the study of evolutionary relationships. C) tracing the origins of bacteria. D) selection of appropriate antibiotics. E) enabling communication among scientists regarding the same and different species of microbes.

71) Which of the three domains includes organisms that would be most likely to survive the environmental conditions that existed on Earth nearly 4 billion years ago? A) Eukarya B) Archaea C) Bacteria

72)

Bacteria and Archaeacan be differentiated from one another by the A) presence or absence of membranous organelles. B) size of individual cells. C) presence of a novel nucleic acid in the Archaea. D) chemical makeup of the cell wall. E) All of these can be used to differentiate the two domains.

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73) A newly described unicellular organism was isolated from a salt mine.This organism has no membranous organelles and its cell wall lacks peptidoglycan. Attempts to culture it in a medium with less than 25% salt were unsuccessful, but it was able to grow well on 25% salt supplemented agar. This organism would best be described as a ______________ and is most likely in the domain ___________. A) halophile; Bacteria. B) thermophile; Bacteria. C) thermophile; Eukarya. D) halophile; Archaea. E) thermophile; Archaea.

74) All of the following terms describe environmental adaptations found among the members of the domain Archaea, except A) thermophilic. B) psychrophilic. C) acidophilic. D) halophilic. E) barophilic. F) There are no exceptions here. Each of these adaptations is seen among differentmembers of the domain Archaea.

75)

A halophile would ______________ in a high salt environment. A) undergo plasmolysis B) undergo osmotic lysis C) become crenated D) thrive E) form endospores

76)

A bacterial cell that exhibits a single group of flagella is called

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A) monotrichous. B) lophotrichous. C) peritrichous. D) amphitrichous.

77) In the human _______ Escherichia coli begins to colonize while establishing infestation. A) stomach B) intestines C) kidneys D) lungs

78) If a patient cultures show positive results for Haemophilus influenzae, then you know ______ is present. A) anthrax B) pneumonia C) meningitis D) ebola E) smallpox

79) If microorganism A releases a growth factor within the biofilm while microorganism B releases antibiotic protection, both bacteria are more than likely participating in A) size evaluation. B) sensory adaptation. C) tissue culturing. D) quorum sensing. E) zone inhibition.

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80)

Bacterial cells that routinely express different genes when growing alone exhibit A) sensory adaptation. B) planktonic growth. C) quorum sensing. D) zone inhibition.

81)

The ability of cell shape that varies extremely is called A) pleomorphism. B) mycoplasmas. C) mutants. D) shifters.

82) A student unearths a cell that was housed in a 250-million-year-old salt crystal, it's more than likely a(n) A) protein. B) endospore. C) capsule. D) archaea.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 83) The prokaryotic flagellum has three parts: the __________, the hook, and the basal body.

84)

Movement of a cell toward a chemical stimulus is termed _______ _____.

85) The cell _____ is composed of three layers: the glycocalyx, the cell wall, and the cell membrane.

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86) _____ is a macromolecule containing alternating N-acetylglucosamine and Nacetylmuramic acid cross-linked by short peptide fragments.

87) The enzyme _____, that is found in tears and saliva, can hydrolyze the bonds in the glycan chains of certain bacterial cell walls.

88)

The chemical components of ribosomes are proteins and _____.

89) Cells form a _____ arrangement when cells in a chain snap back upon each other forming a row of cells oriented side by side.

90) _____ Manual of Systematic Bacteriology is a manual of bacterial descriptions and classifications.

91)

The enlargement of a single organism during maturation is called ________.

92) __________ ___________ are protein-coated packets used to localize enzymes and other proteins.

93)

The _______ is the water-based solution filling the entire cell.

94) The _______ ______ is a temporary storage site for enzymes released by the cell membrane.

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95) _____ proteins are inserted into the upper layer of the outer membrane and regulate what enters and leaves the cell.

96) The ______ ______ model is the configuration proposed by S. J. Singer and G. L. Nicolson.

97)

________ are the location in photosynthetic microorganisms where pigments are found.

98)

__________ are archaea that grow at very low temperatures.

99)

During the Gram stain, gram _____ cells decolorize when the alcohol is applied.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 100) Compare and contrast the cyanobacteria to the green and purple sulfur bacteria with regard to: a) habitat, b) photosynthesis properties, c) cell properties, and d) impact and importance to the environment.

101) Discuss biofilms with regard to their formation, unique properties, and significance to the environment and the human body. Explain how a biofilm differs from a typical bacterial colony growing on a nutrient agar medium.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_11e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) FALSE 20) B 21) B 22) D 23) C 24) E 25) A 26) E Version 1

27) C 28) B 29) D 30) B 31) D 32) A 33) A 34) B 35) A 36) E 37) A 38) C 39) D 40) C 41) C 42) D 43) C 44) E 45) E 46) A 47) B 48) B 49) D 50) D 51) C 52) B 53) D 54) B 55) E 56) A Version 1

57) D 58) A 59) C 60) D 61) D 62) A 63) C 64) B 65) D 66) B 67) A 68) A 69) C 70) D 71) B 72) D 73) D 74) F 75) D 76) B 77) B 78) C 79) D 80) B 81) A 82) B 83) filament 84) positive chemotaxis 85) envelope 86) Peptidoglycan Version 1

87) lysozyme 88) ribosomal RNA 89) palisade 90) Bergey's 91) growth 92) Bacterial microcompartments 93) cytoplasm 94) periplasmic space 95) Porin 96) fluid mosaic 97) Thylakoids 98) psychrophile 99) negative

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CHAPTER 5 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Chromosomes are not visible in the nucleus unless the cell is undergoing nuclear division. ⊚ ⊚

Eukaryotic mitochondria have their own 70S ribosomes and circular DNA. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The eukaryotic cell membrane is a bilayer of sterols. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Infections caused by fungi are called mycoses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) The only division of the Kingdom Fungi that contains human pathogens is the Basidiomycota. ⊚ ⊚

All fungi have hyphae. ⊚ ⊚

true false

All algae have chloroplasts.

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⊚ ⊚

Algae are classified into divisions based principally on their type of motility. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Plankton are floating communities of helminths. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Fungi are autotrophic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) To provide motility, prokaryotic flagella whip back and forth while eukaryotic flagella rotate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) The overwhelming majority of helminth infections occur in the developing world, with only a few dozen cases a year occurring in the United States. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Protozoan genera are extremely difficult to tell apart. Successful classification of protozoan requries DNA sequencing. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14) Helminth pathogens rarely transmit from animals to humans (and vice versa) because the organisms are extremely host-specific. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) Mushrooms are often seen sprouting from lawns because if there is enough sunlight for grass to grow, there is generally enough sunlight for mushrooms to photosynthesize. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) Because it results in a single cell with two nuclei, conjugation increases genetic diversity in some protozoa. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 17) The major structural elements of a eukaryotic cytoskeleton include: (check all that apply) A) microfilaments. B) microtubules. C) collagen fibers. D) fimbriae. E) calcium carbonate.

18)

Eukaryotic taxonomy includes the study of: (check all that apply)

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A) protists. B) plants. C) animals. D) viruses. E) fungi. F) bacteria.

19)

Which organism(s) would be classified as protists? (check all that apply) A) An endospore-forming bacterial cell B) A fungus growing on the peel of an orange C) Algae in a pond D) Seaweed growing in the ocean E) A parasitic amoeba that can cause meningitis.

20)

Which of the following are direct benefits of endosymbiosis? (check all that apply) A) Increased genetic diversity B) Increased versaility of available habitats C) Specialization of food synthesis and/or oxygen utilization to a specific organelle D) DNA from mitochondria and host cell mix together

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) Protists include A) yeasts andmolds. B) algae andprotozoa. C) helminths. D) All of the choices are correct.

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22)

The eukaryotic organelle that most resembles a bacterial cell is the A) nucleus. B) Golgi apparatus. C) mitochondria. D) lysosome. E) ribosome.

23)

Eukaryotic flagella differ from prokaryotic flagella. Only eukaryotic flagella A) are used for cellmotility. B) facilitatechemotaxis. C) facilitatephototaxis. D) are long whip-likestructures. E) contain microtubules.

24)

Cilia are found in certain A) protozoa. B) algae. C) fungi. D) bacteria. E) All of the choices are correct.

25)

Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of A) protozoa. B) algae. C) fungi. D) bacteria. E) All of the choices are correct.

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26)

Cell walls are not found on typical cells of A) protozoa. B) algae. C) fungi. D) bacteria. E) All of the choices are correct.

27)

The site for ribosomal RNA synthesis in eukaryotes is the A) ribosome. B) nucleolus. C) nucleus. D) Golgi apparatus. E) lysosome.

28) When a eukaryotic cell is not undergoing mitosis, the DNA and its associated proteins appear as a visible thread-like mass called the A) nuclearenvelope. B) nucleosome. C) nucleolus. D) nucleoplasm. E) chromatin.

29)

Histones are

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A) found inpolyribosomes. B) enzymes found inlysosomes. C) proteins of thecytoskeleton. D) proteinsassociated with DNA in the nucleus. E) on the surface of rough endoplasmicreticulum.

30)

The eukaryotic cell's glycocalyx is A) mostlypolysaccharide. B) the site wheremany metabolic reactions occur. C) also called thecell wall. D) composed of many diverse proteins. E) a layer inside the plasma membrane.

31)

Which of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but not in prokaryotic cells? A) Nucleus B) Mitochondria C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Lysosomes E) All of the choices are correct.

32) The endosymbiotic theory says that precursor eukaryotic cells acquired mitochondria by endosymbiosis with a/an __________ ancestor, and others gained photosynthetic ability from endosymbiosis with a/an __________ ancestor. A) protozoan, algae B) archaea, cyanobacteria C) rickettsia, cyanobacteria D) helminth,algae E) None of the choices are correct.

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33)

The cell's series of tunnel-like membranes functioning in transport and storage are the A) mitochondria. B) lysosomes. C) Golgiapparatus. D) chloroplasts. E) endoplasmic reticulum.

34) Which organelle is a stack of flattened, membranous sacs that functions to receive, modify, and package proteins for cell secretion? A) Mitochondria B) Lysosomes C) Golgi apparatus D) Chloroplasts E) Endoplasmic reticulum

35) Which organelle contains cristae where enzymes and electron carriers for aerobic respiration are found? A) Mitochondria B) Lysosomes C) Golgi apparatus D) Chloroplasts E) Endoplasmic reticulum

36)

Organelles found in algae but not found in protozoa or fungi are the

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A) mitochondria. B) lysosomes. C) Golgi apparatus. D) chloroplasts. E) endoplasmic reticulum.

37)

Protists with contractile vacuoles A) are algae. B) use them to expelexcess water from the cell. C) typically live insalty seawater. D) use them for motility. E) All of the choices are correct.

38)

The cytoskeleton A) anchorsorganelles. B) providessupport. C) functions inmovements of the cytoplasm. D) helps maintaincell shape. E) All of the choices are correct.

39)

The size of a eukaryotic cell ribosome is A) 30S. B) 40S. C) 50S. D) 70S. E) 80S.

40)

Filamentous fungi are called

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A) pseudohyphae. B) septa. C) molds. D) dimorphic. E) mycelium.

41)

When buds remain attached, they form a chain of yeast cells called A) pseudohyphae. B) septa. C) molds. D) dimorphic. E) mycelium.

42) Fungi that grow as yeast at one temperature but will grow as mold at another temperature are called A) dimorphic. B) saprobes. C) pseudohyphae. D) spores. E) Fungi Imperfecti (Deuteromycota).

43)

Fungal spores A) are only producedunder harmful environmental conditions. B) are only asexuallyproduced. C) cannot be seen ina light microscope. D) are produced bymolds but not by yeasts. E) are used to identify fungi.

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44)

Which of the following spores are produced within a sac? A) Chlamydospores B) Sporangiospores C) Blastospores D) Arthrospores E) Zygospores

45)

Which of the following spores are sexually produced? A) Chlamydospores B) Sporangiospores C) Blastospores D) Arthrospores E) Zygospores

46) A mold is observed to have asexual conidia, sexual spores within a sac, and septate hyphae. It is most likely classified in the A) Zygomycota. B) Ascomycota. C) Basidiomycota. D) Deuteromycota. E) Fungi Imperfecti.

47)

What do zygospores, ascospores, and basidiospores have in common? A) They are enclosedin a sac. B) They are types ofconidia. C) They are sexualspores. D) They are found only in molds. E) All of the choices are correct.

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48)

Which is not a characteristic of fungi? A) Fungal cells have cell walls. B) Fungi are photosynthetic. C) Fungi include single-celled and filamentous forms. D) Fungi are heterotrophs. E) Fungi can use a wide variety of nutrients.

49)

Blooms of certain dinoflagellates are associated with all of the following except A) paralyticshellfish poisoning. B) red tides. C) ciguatera. D) Pfiesteria piscicida. E) euglenids.

50)

Which pair of algae is mismatched? A) Pyrrophyta -euglenids B) Phaeophyta - brownalgae C) Rhodophyta - redseaweed D) Chlorophyta - green algae

51)

All of the following are found in some or all protozoa except A) motility. B) ectoplasm andendoplasm. C) heterotrophicnutrition. D) formation of acyst stage. E) cell walls.

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52)

The motile feeding stage of protozoa is called the A) trophozoite. B) cyst. C) sporozoite. D) oocyst. E) food vacuole.

53)

Which structure or molecule is not found in the cell nucleus? A) Chromatin B) DNA C) Golgi apparatus D) Nucleolus

54)

Which genus - impact pair is mismatched? A) Giardia - transmitted by feces in drinking water B) Histoplasma- causes Ohio Valley fever C) Trichomonas- sexually transmitted D) Plasmodium - causes Chaga's disease E) Saccharomyces - yeast in making bread and beer

55)

All of the following are helminths except A) pinworms. B) flukes. C) trypanosomes. D) roundworms. E) tapeworms.

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56)

Which of the following characteristics does not pertain to helminths? A) In kingdom Protista B) Parasitic worms C) Eggs and sperm for reproduction D) Often alternate hosts in complex life cycles E) Have various organ systems

57)

Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of A) protozoa. B) algae. C) helminths. D) fungi.

58) Both fish and humans develop neurological symptoms and bloody skin lesions due to a sudden "bloom" of this algae. A) Prototheca B) Pfiesteria piscicida C) Diatoms D) Phaeophyta E) All of the choices are correct.

59)

The stacks of thylakoids in a chloroplast are called A) grana. B) stroma. C) mesosomes. D) cristae. E) packages.

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60) In order to reproduce sexually, diploid cells must produce __________ gametes through __________. A) diploid; mitosis B) diploid; meiosis C) haploid; mitosis D) haploid; meiosis E) triploid; mitosis

61)

The smooth endoplasmic reticulum functions in synthesis of A) glycogen. B) proteins. C) glucose. D) nucleic acids. E) lipids.

62)

Which of the following are present in viruses? A) Mitochondria B) Flagella C) Pigments D) Endoplasmic reticulum E) None of the choices are correct.

63)

On what basis are fungi classified as Fungi Imperfecti, or Deuteromycota?

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A) Based on their ability to cause diseases in animals B) Based on whether they have a cap containing gills C) Based on if they lack a sexual state D) Based on if they have a special fungal sac E) Based on if they can grow in acidic soil

64)

Which of the following is the cause of malaria? A) Toxoplasmagondii B) Plasmodium C) Giardia D) Leishmania E) Trypanosoma

65)

All of the following are sources of human infection with worms except A) infectedanimals. B) contaminatedfood. C) contaminatedwater. D) contaminatedsoil. E) contaminated air.

66)

All of the following statements about helminths are correct except A) they generally makeonly a few eggs per day. B) they are not allparasites, although some are. C) their reproductive organs are their most developed organs. D) their eggs andlarvae are vulnerable to heat. E) tapeworms and pinworms are twoexamples.

67)

The organelle involved in intracellular digestion of food particles is the

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A) Golgiapparatus. B) lysosome. C) mitochondria. D) transitional vesicle. E) smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

68)

Which of the following lists of mitotic stages is in the correct order? A) Cytokinesis, metaphase, anaphase, telophase B) Metaphase, anaphase, cytokinesis, telophase C) Prophase, cytokinesis, telophase, anaphase D) Interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase E) All of the choices are correct.

69) In eukaryotic cells, thestructure primarilyresponsible for the adherence of cells to surfaces in the environmentand the formation of biofilms is the A) glycocalyx. B) cell wall. C) cell membrane. D) cilia. E) flagella.

70)

A protein being synthesized by a cell for export would follow which pathway in the cell?

A) Ribosome -> cell membrane B) Ribosome -> endoplasmic reticulum -> Golgi apparatus -> cell membrane C) Ribosome -> Golgi apparatus -> endoplasmic reticulum -> cell membrane D) Ribosome -> lysosome -> endoplasmic reticulum -> Golgi apparatus -> cell membrane

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71)

Which group of protozoans are generally nonmotile? A) Sarcodina B) Ciliophora C) Mastigophora D) Apicomplexa

72)

The sexually mature life cycle stage ofhelminthsoccurs in the A) transport host. B) secondary host. C) intermediate host. D) definitive host.

73)

Fungi are similar to plants in that both A) contain chloroplasts. B) perform photosynthesis. C) use carbon dioxide as an energy source. D) have a cell wall.

74) You identify a new species, a unicellular eukaryote. Within the Domain Eukarya and the Kingdom Protista, you would like to further classify this species. What question would allow you to distinguish the organism as an algae or a protozoa? A) Is it pathogenic? B) Is it photosynthetic? C) Does it have mitochondria? D) Is it motile?

75)

Which of the following protozoan supergroup - pathogen pairs is incorrect?

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A) Supergroup SAR - Plasmodium (Malaria) B) Supergroup SAR - Toxoplasma gondii (Toxoplasmosis) C) Supergroup Excavata - Leishmania (Leishmaniasis) D) Supergroup Amoebozoans - Giardia intestinalis (Giardiasis) E) Supergroup Amoebozoans - Entamoeba histolytica (Amoebiasis)

76) Which of the following is not a possible outcome of a transport vesicle arriving at the Golgi apparatus? A) Lipids are added to the proteins in the vesicle. B) The contents of the vesicle are degraded by digestive enzymes in the Golgi apparatus. C) The contents of the vesicle are targeted to the lysosome. D) The contents of the vesicle are repackaged into a secretory vesicle.

77)

Which of the following isa similarity between cilia and flagella? A) They are both covered with a membrane sheath. B) They are both found in all supergroups of Eukarya. C) They are both important for motility, feeding, and filtering. D) They both allow an organism to avoid harmful stimuli.

78) Which organelle/cell component would be the least useful to distinguish a particular eukaryotic group? A) Chloroplast B) Cell wall C) Flagella D) Mitochondria

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79) You identify a new species of protozoa and determine the following characteristics: it forms a cyst, it is a human pathogen, it is motile, it does not have chloroplasts, it is a mixotroph. Which of those characteristics will be the least useful in further classifying your new protozoan species? A) It forms a cyst. B) It is a human pathogen. C) It is motile. D) It does not have chloroplasts. E) It is a mixotroph.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 80) Biologists have found evidence that eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic organisms by a process of intracellular __________.

81) There are nine peripheral pairs and one central pair of __________ found in eukaryotic flagella and cilia.

82) The passageways in the nuclear envelope for movement of substances between the nucleus and cytoplasm are called nuclear __________.

83)

Proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells are called __________.

84) A/An __________ originates from the Golgi apparatus as one type of vesicle that contains a variety of enzymes for intracellular digestion.

85)

The long, thread-like branching cells of molds are called __________.

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86) During unfavorable growth conditions, many protozoa can convert to a resistant, dormant stage called a/an __________.

87) The rough endoplasmic reticulum is to proteins as the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is to __________.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 88) Discuss in detail, at least four reasons why fungi belong in their own kingdom instead of the kingdoms Plantae or Protista.

89) Compare and contrast yeasts and molds with regard to: a) microscopic cellular morphology, b) macroscopic colony morphology, and c) reproduction.

90) Compare and contrast protozoan cysts, fungal spores, and bacterial endospores with regard to: a) the factors that stimulate their formation, b) their structure, and c) their function.

91)

Discuss the role of three specific algal and fungal toxins in human disease.

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92)

Compare and contrast the morphology of cestodes, trematodes, and nematodes.

93)

Compare and contrast the physical characteristics of protozoans, yeasts, and algae.

94)

List three environmental conditions that would likely result in an algal bloom.

95) Why are antibiotics that target the ribosome (such as tetracycline) useful in treating bacterial infections but not fungal infections?

96)

Describe three differences between the glycocalyx and the cell wall.

97) Explain why some multicellular eukaryotes are considered protists and not plants, animals, or fungi.

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98)

Explain why giving a host diarrhea is a useful strategy for some protozoan pathogens.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_11e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) [A, B] 18) [A, B, C, E] 19) [C, D, E] 20) [B, C] 21) B 22) C 23) E 24) A 25) C 26) A Version 1

27) B 28) E 29) D 30) A 31) E 32) C 33) E 34) C 35) A 36) D 37) B 38) E 39) E 40) C 41) A 42) A 43) E 44) B 45) E 46) B 47) C 48) B 49) E 50) A 51) E 52) A 53) C 54) D 55) C 56) A Version 1

57) C 58) B 59) A 60) D 61) E 62) E 63) C 64) B 65) E 66) A 67) B 68) D 69) A 70) B 71) D 72) D 73) D 74) B 75) D 76) B 77) D 78) D 79) D 80) symbiosis 81) microtubules 82) pores 83) histones 84) lysosome 85) hyphae 86) cyst Version 1

87) lipids

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CHAPTER 6 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Viruses are ultramicroscopic because they range in size from 2 mm to 450 mm. ⊚ ⊚

Spikes are glycoproteins of the viral capsid. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Prophages can be activated into viral replication and enter the lytic cycle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Viral infections are easier to treat with drugs than bacterial infections. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) The International Committee on Taxonomy of Viruses has determined that there are only three orders of viruses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Bacteriophages do not undergo adsorption to specific host cell receptors prior to penetration. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

7) When a virus enters a host cell, the viral genes redirect the genetic and metabolic activities of the host cell. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Viral spikes are inserted into the host cell membrane before budding or exocytosis occurs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) No cases of variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob syndrome linked to eating infected cows have occurred in the United States. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

The Adeno-Associated Virus (AAV) and the Delta Agent are prions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Nonevelopedviruses enter their animal host cell via an active process that requires the participation of the animal cell. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

Viral replication can involve the copying of RNA in an RNA virus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Louis Pasteur concluded that rabies was caused by a "living thing" larger than bacterial cells.

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⊚ ⊚

14)

Viral evolution theory states that viruses arose from loose strands of genetic material. ⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

Viruses have the ability to carry infectious DNA and RNA. ⊚ ⊚

19)

true false

Icosahedral viruses have the variation of containing an outside capsule. ⊚ ⊚

18)

true false

A megavirus is considered to be smaller than 22 nm. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

Viruses are considered living organisms. ⊚ ⊚

16)

true false

Viral families are italicized and given the suffix -virus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

20) Monkeypox, a less dangerous version of smallpox, is transmissible to humans from animals.

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⊚ ⊚

21)

true false

The poliovirus was successfully cultivated in a lab within the United States. ⊚ ⊚

22) PrP vCJD. ⊚ ⊚

true false

is the infectious prion that causes spontaneous abnormal folding resulting in

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 23) All of the following are characteristics of viruses except A) unique shapes. B) metabolism. C) genes. D) ability to infecthost cells. E) ultramicroscopic size.

24)

When used in a description of viruses, the term replication includes A) the production of multiple copies of a virus by a host cell. B) the copying of the viral DNA in a DNA virus. C) the copying of the genomic RNA in an RNA virus. D) All of these choices are correct.

25)

All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except they

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A) are formed by the virus utilizing parts of the host cell membrane. B) are found primarily on animal viruses. C) contain specialvirus proteins. D) help the virusparticle attach to host cells. E) are located between the capsid andnucleic acid.

26)

Host cells of viruses include A) human and otheranimals. B) plants andfungi. C) bacteria. D) protozoa andalgae. E) All of these choices are correct.

27)

The genetic core of every virus particle always contains A) DNA. B) capsomers. C) enzymes. D) DNA and RNA. E) either DNA or RNA.

28)

Which of the following represents a virus family name? A) Herpes simplexvirus B) Herpesviridae C) Picornavirus D) Enterovirus E) Hepatitis B virus

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29) Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except A) type of nucleicacid. B) type ofcapsid. C) presence of anenvelope. D) biochemicalreactions. E) nucleic acid strand number.

30)

Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus A) spike. B) capsomere. C) envelope. D) capsid. E) core.

31)

Viralcapsids are made from subunits called A) envelopes. B) spikes. C) capsomers. D) prophages. E) peplomers.

32)

Which of the following is correct about viruses? A) Most viruses cannot be seen with a light microscope. B) Virusesare prokaryotic. C) Viruses contain 70S ribosomes. D) Viruses undergo binary fission. E) Viruses contain positive strand RNA.

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33)

Which of the following is not associated with every virus? A) envelope B) capsomers C) capsid D) nucleic acid E) genomic information

34)

Which of these structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to the host cell wall? A) sheath B) tail fibers C) nucleic acid D) capsid head

35)

Which is incorrect about prophages? A) present when the virus is in lysogeny B) formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome C) replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny D) always lyse the host cells E) occur when temperate phages enter host cells

36)

T-even phages A) include thepoxviruses. B) infect Escherichia coli cells. C) enter host cells byengulfment. D) have helicalcapsids. E) All of these choices are correct.

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37)

The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is A) penetration,replication, maturation, adsorption, assembly, release. B) replication,penetration, maturation, assembly, absorption, release. C) adsorption, penetration, replication, assembly, maturation, release. D) assembly,maturation, replication, release, penetration, adsorption. E) adsorption, release, maturation,replication, assembly, penetration.

38) The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is A) adsorption to thehost cells. B) injection of theviral nucleic acid into the host cell. C) host cellsynthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins. D) assembly ofnucleocapsids. E) replication of viral nucleic acid.

39)

Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during A) replication. B) assembly. C) adsorption. D) release. E) penetration.

40)

Which of the following will not support viral cultivation? A) live lab animals B) embryonated bird eggs C) primary cell cultures D) continuous cell cultures E) blood agar cultures

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41) In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____. A) nucleus; cytoplasm B) cytoplasm; cell membrane C) cell membrane; cytoplasm D) cytoplasm; nucleus E) nucleus; endoplasmic reticulum

42)

Host range is limited by the A) type of nucleicacid in the virus. B) age of the hostcell. C) type of host cellreceptors on cell membrane. D) size of the hostcell. E) All of these choices are correct.

43) The virus-induced, specific damage to the host cell that can be seen in a light microscope is called A) lysogeny. B) budding. C) plaques. D) cytopathic effect. E) pocks.

44) Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called

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A) lysogeny. B) budding. C) plaques. D) pocks.

45) Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called A) lysogeny. B) budding. C) plaques. D) cytopathiceffects. E) pocks.

46) Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called A) latent. B) oncogenic. C) prions. D) viroids. E) delta agents.

47)

Oncogenic viruses include all the following except A) Herpes zoster virus. B) Measlesvirus. C) Papillomavirus. D) Herpes simplex virus. E) Epstein-Barr virus.

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48)

Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect? A) inclusions in the nucleus B) multinucleated giant cells C) inclusions in the cytoplasm D) rounding of cells E) All of these choices are correct.

49)

Uncoating of viral nucleic acid A) does not occur inbacteriophage multiplication. B) involves enzymaticdestruction of the capsid. C) occurs duringpenetration in the multiplication cycle. D) occurs beforereplication. E) All of these choices are correct.

50)

Noncellular infectious protein particles are called A) viroids. B) phages. C) prions. D) oncogenicviruses. E) spikes.

51)

Infectious naked strands of RNA that parasitize plants are called A) viroids. B) phages. C) prions. D) oncogenicviruses. E) spikes.

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52)

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is A) caused by achronic latent virus. B) initiated by anoncogenic virus. C) caused by aviroid. D) a spongiformencephalopathy of humans. E) also called "Mad Cow disease".

53)

Satellite viruses are A) also calledviroids. B) dependent on otherviruses for replication. C) the cause ofspongiform encephalopathies. D) significantpathogens of plants. E) All of these choices are correct.

54)

All of the following are correct about treating viral diseases except A) viruses are killedby the same antibiotics that kill bacteria. B) many antiviraldrugs block viral replication. C) many antiviraldrugs cause severe side effects. D) interferons showpotential for treating and preventing viral infections. E) All of these choices are correct.

55)

The capsomers are unit compositions of A) DNA. B) RNA. C) lipids. D) protein. E) carbohydrate.

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56)

Viruses that consist of only a nucleocapsid are considered A) simpleviruses. B) complexviruses. C) naked viruses. D) viroids. E) incomplete viruses.

57)

The nucleocapsid is composed of A) the capsomersassembled into the capsid. B) the nucleic acidof the virus only. C) the nucleic acidalong with the capsid. D) the envelope andcapsid. E) the envelope,nucleic acid, and capsid.

58)

Which of the following viruses did D. Ivanowski and M. Beijerinck work with? A) Rabies B) Smallpox C) Tobacco MosaicVirus D) Herpes E) Epstein-Barr virus

59)

Which of the following parts of a virus is/are not always present? A) envelope B) nucleic acid C) capsid D) capsomers E) None of these choices are correct.

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60)

Viruses belong to which of the following Kingdoms? A) Protists B) Fungi C) Archaea D) Bacteria E) None of the choices are correct.

61)

Which body system is mainly affected by Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease? A) digestive system B) genitourinary system C) nervous system D) circulatory system E) respiratory system

62)

When a virus enters a lysogenic phase, it means

A) the virus isintegrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent. B) the virus isbursting through the host cell membrane. C) the virus isstarting biosynthesis of its nucleic acid. D) the virus willremain in circulation and not continue infecting its host. E) the number ofviruses in the host is decreasing as the immune system becomes effective.

63)

All of the following are characteristics of viruses except

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A) they can becrystallized. B) they often have ageometric capsid. C) they have aviscous fluid inside their capsids. D) they can causefatal diseases. E) they can cause mild diseases.

64)

How do enveloped animal viruses exit their host? A) budding or exocytosis B) bursting the host cell C) rupturing the virus D) endocytosis

65) Corynebacterium diphtheriaeis made virulent by incorporated prophage genes encoding the diphtheria toxin. What term describes this process? A) lytic phase B) budding C) adsorption D) lysogenic conversion E) latent phase

66) What tool or technique used by Ivanowski and Beijerinckwhile studying diseased tobacco plants enabled them to determine that the disease was caused by an agent significantly smaller than bacteria? A) scanning electron microscopy that enabled them to view the virus the tobacco mosaic virus B) transmission electron microscopy that allowed them to view the tobacco mosaic virus C) porcelain filters that trapped bacteria but allowed passage of the virus D) cell culture that enabled cultivation of the virus

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67)

Select the FALSE statement about viruses.

A) Cellular life-forms most likely preceded the origin of viruses since viruses need host cells in which to develop and reproduce. B) Viruses are the most numerous microbes on Earth. C) Viruses have impacted the evolution of all other cellular life-forms including bacteria, achaeans, and eukaryotes. D) When viruses are treated in a way that prevents them from entering host cells and reproducing, they are said to be dead.

68) Which of the following viral types enter animal cells via fusion with the animal cell membrane? A) enveloped viruses B) nonenveloped viruses C) naked viruses D) All of these choices are correct.

69) Which type of virus is most likely to cause cell lysis and rupturing of an infected animal cell when it is released? A) enveloped virus B) RNA virus C) nonenveloped virus D) DNA virus

70) While all of the following techniques or tools have provided information regarding the nature of viruses, which one had to be developed before the genetics, biochemistry, and life cycles of viruses could be thoroughly studied?

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A) scanning electron microscopy B) viral cultivation techniques C) transmission electron microscopy D) serological techniques

71)

Viral cultivation is used for A) diagnosis of viral infections. B) preparation of vaccines. C) producing adequate numbers of viruses for research purposes. D) studying the viral life cycle within host cells. E) observing the effects of viral infection on host cells. F) All of these choices are correct.

72)

The three basic groups of viruses based on morphology include A) enveloped viruses, non enveloped viruses, and complex viruses. B) enveloped viruses, DNA viruses, and non enveloped viruses. C) helical viruses, round viruses, and enveloped viruses. D) non enveloped viruses, RNA viruses, and bacteriophages.

73) The descriptive groupings of virus into categories such as icosahedral and helical are based on A) the type of nucleic acid. B) the shape of the nucleocapsid. C) the presence or absence of an envelope. D) the mechanism of entry into host cells.

74)

Viruses cannot multiply unless it invades a host cell; therefore, they are considered

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A) obligate intracellular parasites. B) automatic intracellular parasites. C) non-intracellular parasites. D) true intracellular parasites.

75)

Viruses have the ability to infect the following cell types. A) bacteria B) fungi C) protists D) plants E) All of these choices are correct

76)

When a virus is noninfectious it is termed __________. A) alive B) active C) dead D) inactive

77)

The viral _____ is responsible for introducing the viral DNA or RNA into the cell. A) capsid B) DNA C) envelope D) bacteria E) both capsid and envelope

78)

All of the following are characteristics of viral categorization except

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A) capsid type. B) presence or absence of an envelope. C) nucleic acid strand number. D) ribosome shape.

79)

Which of the following is not included in the life cycle of animal viruses? A) release B) synthesis C) regeneration D) attachment

80)

Bacteriophage go through similar stages as animal viruses except A) adsorption. B) release. C) synthesis. D) attachment.

81)

Viral cell attachment that limits transmission between animals and humans is called A) tropism. B) selection. C) decision. D) adherance.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 82) A(n) _____ is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus.

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83) Diagnosis of viral infections sometimes involves analyzing the patient's blood for specific _____ that the immune system produced against the virus.

84)

Viruses that specifically infect bacteria are called_____.

85) Freshly isolated animal tissue that is placed in a growth medium and allowed to produce a cell monolayer is referred to as a _____ cell culture.

86) One of the principal capsid shapes is a 20-sided figure with 12 evenly spaced corners referred to as a(n) _____ capsid.

87)

A naked virus does not have a(n) _____.

88) During lysogeny, an inactive prophage state occurs when the viral DNA is inserted into the _________.

89) A common method for cultivating viruses in the lab is to use in vitro systems called _____ cultures.

90) When HIV is transmitted, _________ _________ is the enzyme responsible for transcribing RNA into DNA.

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SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 91) Discuss at least six characteristics that are unique to viruses compared to other microorganisms.

92) Compare and contrast the steps of viral multiplication cycles in bacteriophages and animal viruses.

93)

Compare and contrast viruses, prions, and viroids.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_11e 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) B 24) D 25) E 26) E Version 1

27) E 28) B 29) D 30) D 31) C 32) A 33) A 34) B 35) D 36) B 37) C 38) B 39) D 40) E 41) A 42) C 43) D 44) C 45) E 46) A 47) B 48) E 49) E 50) C 51) A 52) D 53) B 54) A 55) D 56) C Version 1

57) C 58) C 59) A 60) E 61) C 62) A 63) C 64) A 65) D 66) C 67) D 68) A 69) C 70) B 71) F 72) A 73) B 74) A 75) E 76) D 77) E 78) D 79) C 80) A 81) A 82) capsid 83) antibodies 84) bacteriophages 85) primary 86) icosahedral Version 1

87) envelope 88) bacterial chromosome 89) cell 90) reverse transcriptase

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CHAPTER 7 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Phosphorus is one of the major elements needed in larger quantities by microorganisms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Most microorganisms on Earth can only live and survive in habitats that are similar to human body conditions. ⊚ ⊚

Inorganic nitrogen must be converted to ammonium to be used by a cell. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Obligate saprobes can adapt to a living host. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Whether an organism is a phototroph or a chemotroph depends on its source of energy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Whether an organism is an autotroph or heterotroph depends on its source of nitrogen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A saprobe with a cell wall will utilize extracellular digestion.

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⊚ ⊚

Saprobes do not need a carbon source for growth and metabolism. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Chemoautotrophs use inorganic nutrients for carbon and energy sources. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Facilitated diffusion and active transport require a carrier protein to mediate the movement across the plasma membrane. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) In a commensal relationship, the commensal benefits but the cohabitant is neither harmed nor benefited. ⊚ ⊚

12)

Anaerobes can be cultured in a CO ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

2 richenvironment, as long as O

2 gas is excluded.

true false

The majority of microbes live and grow in habitats between pH 7 and 9. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14)

Bacteria have an average generation time of 24 hours. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) The time that it takes for a freshly inoculated agar culture to develop visible colonies is principally governed by that species' generation time. ⊚ ⊚

16)

Transverse binary fission results in four daughter cells from one parent cell. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

The degree of turbidity in a broth culture correlates to the amount of cell growth. ⊚ ⊚

20)

true false

A closed culture system is used to determine a population growth curve. ⊚ ⊚

19)

true false

After binary fission, daughter cells will differ genetically. ⊚ ⊚

18)

true false

A Coulter counter can count viable cells as well as determine their size. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

21)

Bacterial biofilms stimulate the immune system differently than planktonic bacteria. ⊚ ⊚

true false

22) Planktonic bacteria are more susceptible to antibiotics as compared to microorganisms in a biofilm. ⊚ ⊚

true false

23) The direct cell count, using a flowcytometer, can determine both viable cell numbers and number of dead cells in the sample. ⊚ ⊚

true false

24) Upon innoculation into a new culture, bacteria cells will immediately start to grow exponentially. ⊚ ⊚

true false

25) Since one daughter cell is better at replicating than the other daughter cell, binary fission does not produce a population that doubles with every generation time. ⊚ ⊚

26)

true false

Syntrophy and amensalism typically occur between different species of microbes. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 27) Why do bacterial cells require calcium? A) It stabilizes the cell wall. B) It stabilizes the ribosomes. C) It stabilizes the nucleoid. D) It maintains cellular pH. E) It makes strong bones.

28) Which term refers to a nutrient that is required by a microorganismin large quantities for use in cell structure and/or metabolism? A) Element B) Macronutrient C) Growth factor D) Trace element

29)

Aerobic respiration is an example of A) photosynthesis. B) methanoheterotrophy. C) photoheterotrophy. D) chemoheterotrophy. E) photoautotrophy.

30)

What compound has the highest concentration in a cell?

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A) CO 2 B) CH 4 C) H 2O D) Glucose E) NH 3

31)

Which of the following is the largest component of the dry weight of a cell? A) Inorganic compounds B) Minerals C) Water D) Organic compounds E) Salts

32)

Which of the following is not a major element of a microbial cell? A) Copper B) Carbon C) Hydrogen D) Nitrogen E) Oxygen

33) An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a/an A) element. B) macronutrient. C) water. D) growth factor. E) trace element.

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34) Which of the following is an important mineral ion of the cytochrome pigments used in cellular respiration? A) Iron B) Zinc C) Calcium D) Magnesium E) Potassium

35) Which of the following is an important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and ribosomes? A) Iron B) Zinc C) Calcium D) Magnesium E) Potassium

36)

The term heterotroph refers to an organism that A) uses CO 2 for its carbon source. B) must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs. C) gets energy from sunlight. D) gets energy by oxidizing inorganic compounds. E) does not need a carbon source.

37)

The term autotroph refers to an organism that

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A) uses CO 2 for its carbon source. B) must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs. C) gets energy from sunlight. D) gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds. E) does not need a carbon source.

38)

Growth factors A) are inorganic. B) are synthesized by the organism. C) contain elemental oxygen. D) cannot be synthesized by the organism. E) All of the choices are correct.

39) An organism that uses CO called a/an

2 for its carbon needs and sunlight for its energy needs is

A) heterotroph. B) photoautotroph. C) chemoheterotroph. D) saprobe. E) halotroph.

40)

The term chemotroph refers to an organism that A) uses CO 2 for its carbon source. B) must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs. C) gets energy from sunlight. D) gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds. E) does not need a carbon source.

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41)

The term phototroph refers to an organism that A) uses CO 2 for its carbon source. B) must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs. C) gets energy from sunlight. D) gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds. E) does not need a carbon source.

42)

The methanogens, producers of methane gas, require environments that A) have sunlight. B) are very acidic. C) have abundant oxygen and CO 2. D) are extremely cold. E) are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO 2.

43)

Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called A) saprobes. B) parasites. C) autotrophs. D) lithoautotrophs. E) phototrophs.

44)

The type of photosynthesis that does not produce oxygen A) occurs in cyanobacteria. B) does not require CO 2 as a reactant. C) occurs in purple and green sulfur bacteria. D) does not require sunlight. E) occurs in algae and plants.

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45) Microorganisms require small quantities of this nutrient for enzyme function and maintenance of protein structure. A) Element B) Macronutrient C) Water D) Growth factor E) Trace element

46)

Archaea as a group are not pathogens. This is because A) they evolved without mammals. B) mammals evolved special defenses against them. C) mammalian hosts do not meet their environmental requirements. D) they are out-competed by natural flora.

47) Microorganisms that live in severe habitats, such as very hot, acidic, or salty environments, are called A) thermophiles. B) halophiles. C) psychrophiles. D) extremophiles. E) barophiles.

48) Which of the following terms refers to microorganisms that live in or on the body and cause harm?

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A) Mesophiles B) Thermophiles C) Commensals D) Pathogens E) Halophiles

49)

The term facultative refers to A) the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions. B) existing in a very narrow niche. C) using chemicals for energy production. D) using light for energy production. E) using oxygen for metabolism.

50)

The term obligate refers to A) the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions. B) existing in a very narrow niche. C) using chemicals for energy production. D) using light for energy production. E) using oxygen for metabolism.

51) The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called A) facilitated diffusion. B) diffusion. C) active transport. D) osmosis. E) endocytosis.

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52)

Which term refers to the diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane? A) Facilitated diffusion B) Diffusion C) Active transport D) Osmosis E) Endocytosis

53) The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called A) facilitated diffusion. B) diffusion. C) active transport. D) osmosis. E) endocytosis.

54) The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier and cell expenditure of energy is called A) facilitated diffusion. B) diffusion. C) active transport. D) osmosis. E) endocytosis.

55) The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and engulfing it is called

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A) facilitated diffusion. B) diffusion. C) active transport. D) osmosis. E) endocytosis.

56)

Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are moved to salty seawater would A) now be in a hypotonic solution. B) gain water as a result of the move. C) now be in an isotonic solution. D) shrivel as a result of the move.

57) Which of the following microorganisms would find hypotonic conditions most detrimental? A) Bacteria B) Protozoa C) Fungi D) Algae E) Cyanobacteria

58)

Which of the following require the cell to use ATP? A) Facilitated diffusion B) Diffusion C) Endocytosis D) Osmosis

59)

Nutrient absorption is mediated by the

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A) cell wall. B) peptidoglycan layer. C) proteins in the periplasmic space. D) cell membrane. E) nuclear membrane.

60)

Contractile vacuoles are A) used to expel excess water from cells. B) found in bacterial cells. C) important to certain organisms in hypertonic environments. D) protein carriers in cell membranes. E) used to bring solutes into a cell.

61)

Facilitated diffusion is limited by A) ATP concentration. B) the number of carrier proteins in the membrane. C) size of the pores in the membrane. D) osmotic pressure. E) the size of the cell.

62) When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is specifically termed A) pinocytosis. B) phagocytosis. C) facilitated transport. D) facilitated diffusion. E) exocytosis.

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63) Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab bench top, on the shelf of a 37°C incubator, and on the shelf of a 50°C incubator. After incubation, there was no growth at 37°C and 50°C, slight growth out on the bench top, and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term could be used for this species? A) Halophile B) Mesophile C) Anaerobe D) Psychrophile E) Capnophile

64) Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated out on the incubator shelf, in an anaerobic jar, and in a candle jar. After incubation there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but heavy growth of the culture on the incubator shelf. This species is a/an A) aerobe. B) anaerobe. C) facultative anaerobe. D) microaerophile. E) capnophile.

65)

In __________ conditions, the cell wall will help prevent the cell from bursting. A) hypertonic B) hypotonic C) isotonic D) mesotonic E) All of the choices are correct.

66) A microorganism that has an optimum growth temperature of 37°C, but can survive short exposure to high temperatures is called

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A) an extremophile. B) a thermophile. C) a psychrophile. D) a facultative psychrophile. E) thermoduric.

67) An organism that grows slowly in the cold but has an optimum growth temperature of 32°C is called A) anextremophile. B) a thermophile. C) a psychrophile. D) a facultative psychrophile. E) thermoduric.

68)

An organism with a temperature growth range of 45°C to 60°C would be called A) an extremophile. B) a thermophile. C) a psychrophile. D) a facultative psychrophile. E) thermoduric.

69)

Which term describes human pathogens? A) Psychrophiles B) Thermophiles C) Halophiles D) Mesophiles E) Acidophiles

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70) A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with A) carbon dioxide. B) oxygen. C) high salt. D) temperatures above 37°C. E) high acidity.

71) All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except A) psychrophiles. B) anaerobes. C) facultative anaerobes. D) mesophiles. E) capnophiles.

72)

A microaerophile A) grows best in an anaerobic jar. B) grows with or without oxygen. C) needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen. D) requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels.

73) Which two enzymes catalyze the steps converting the toxic superoxide ion to less harmful oxygen gas?

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A) Catalase and hydrogen peroxidases B) Superoxide dismutase and hydrogen peroxidase C) Superoxide dismutase and catalase D) Catalase and oxidase E) Superoxide dismutase and oxidase

74) An organism that can use gaseous oxygen in metabolism and has the enzymes to process toxic oxygen products is a/an A) aerobe. B) obligate aerobe. C) facultative anaerobe. D) microaerophile. E) obligate anaerobe.

75)

An organism that can exist in both oxygen and oxygen-free environments is a/an A) aerobe. B) obligate aerobe. C) facultative anaerobe. D) microaerophile. E) obligate anaerobe.

76)

An organism that cannot tolerate any oxygen gas in its environment is a/an A) aerobe. B) obligate aerobe. C) facultative anaerobe. D) microaerophile. E) obligate anaerobe.

77)

An organism that cannot grow without oxygen is a/an

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A) aerobe. B) obligate aerobe. C) facultative anaerobe. D) microaerophile. E) obligate anaerobe.

78)

Which location would best support the growth of a barophile? A) Acid pools B) Deep oceans C) Hot geyser springs D) Arid desert soil E) Salt lakes

79)

Which location would best support the growth of a halophile? A) Acid pools B) Freshwater ponds C) Hot geyser springs D) Arid desert soil E) Salt lakes

80)

What type of media is used to demonstrate oxygen requirements of microbes? A) Blood agar B) Thioglycollate C) Sulfite polymyxin sulfadiazine D) Sodium chloride

81)

The production of antibiotics is a form of amensalism called

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A) symbiosis. B) satellitism. C) antibiosis. D) mutualism. E) synergism.

82) The E. coli that normally live in the human large intestines and produce vitamin K that the body uses would be best termed a __________ relationship. A) parasitic B) saprobic C) commensal D) mutualistic

83) When microbes share a habitat, with each providing a nutrient for the other, the relationship is called A) syntrophy. B) satellitism. C) antibiosis. D) antagonism. E) autotrophy.

84) When microbes are in close nutritional relationship and one benefits but the other is not harmed, it is called A) symbiosis. B) satellitism. C) commensalism. D) mutualism. E) synergism.

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85) is

A change in one partner in a close relationship that leads to a change in the other partner

A) symbiosis. B) coevolution. C) antibiosis. D) mutualism. E) synergism.

86)

The time interval from parent cell to two new daughter cells is called the A) binary fission. B) growth curve. C) generation time. D) death phase. E) culture time.

87) The phase of the bacterial growth curve during which microbial growth slows and the rate of multiplication equals the rate of cell death is the A) lag phase. B) log phase. C) stationary phase. D) death phase. E) telophase.

88) The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new environment, metabolizing but not growing is the

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A) lag phase. B) log phase. C) stationary phase. D) death phase. E) prophase.

89) the

The phase of the bacterial growth curve that shows the maximum rate of cell division is

A) lag phase. B) log phase. C) stationary phase. D) death phase. E) prophase.

90) In the viable plate count method, a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across an agar surface and incubated. Each __________ on the agar surface represents one __________ from the sample. A) cell; cell B) cell; colony C) colony; cell D) species; colony E) generation; cell

91) When it is important to count the number of cells, determine cell size and differentiate between dead and live cells a/an __________ is used.

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A) Coulter counter B) flow cytometer C) SEM D) methylene dye indicator E) plate count

92) Bacterial endosymbiontshave lost much of their genome and are dependent upon their aphid hosts for survival. Similarly, the aphids depend on the endosymbiotic bacteria for the supply of amino acids that they provide. This interdependenceis the result of A) coevolution. B) syntrophy. C) amensalism. D) microbial antagonism.

93) Cyanobacterialive in aquatic environments and are photosynthetic. The aquatic environment is their __________ and their role as a primary producer is their __________. A) habitat; purpose B) habitat; niche C) niche; habitat D) host; function

94)

What type of energy is converted to chemical energy in photosynthesis? A) Heat B) Light C) Chemical D) Organic

95)

Diffusion and osmosis are examples of

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A) active transport. B) passive transport. C) extracellular transport. D) intracellular transport.

96) A recent study identified bacteria in the guts of some Japanese people with specialized enzymes that metabolize the complex carbohydrates in seaweed. The researchers hypothesize that these bacteria thrive in the guts of individuals who consume a diet composed highly of seaweed, and help their hosts break down the seaweed better. This relationship is an example of A) parasitism. B) commensalism. C) predation. D) coevolution.

97) You identify a new microbial species in an acid pool. In the laboratory, you cannot culture the organism in your pH 7 media. You correctly classify the species as a/an A) facultative acidophile. B) obligate acidophile. C) facultative alkalinophile. D) obligate alkalinophile.

98)

All of the following are organic sources of nitrogen except A) proteins. B) ammonium. C) urea. D) DNA.

99)

Which of the following is not an advantage of active transport?

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A) It does not require added energy. B) It transports nutrients against the diffusion gradient. C) It is faster than passive transport. D) It is specific for a particular nutrient.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 100) Heat tolerance, specialized metabolic enzymes, and syntrophy are all adaptations that contribute to a microbe's __________.

101) Microbes called __________ __________ have modifications in their cell walls and membranes which limit their growth to hyper saline habitats.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 102) Why does pickling help promote the growth of lactic acid bacteria, but prevent contamination with other microbes?

103) Describe what is likely to happen to the cytoplasm of an obligate halophile after being placed in a hypotonic environment.

104) Keeping food cold would seem to promote the growth of psychrophilic bacteria. Why are we generally less concerned about this than we are about mesophilic bacteria?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_11e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) FALSE 25) FALSE 26) TRUE Version 1

27) A 28) B 29) D 30) C 31) D 32) A 33) D 34) A 35) D 36) B 37) A 38) D 39) B 40) D 41) C 42) E 43) A 44) C 45) E 46) C 47) D 48) D 49) A 50) B 51) B 52) D 53) A 54) C 55) E 56) D Version 1

57) B 58) C 59) D 60) A 61) B 62) B 63) D 64) C 65) B 66) E 67) D 68) B 69) D 70) B 71) A 72) D 73) C 74) A 75) C 76) E 77) B 78) B 79) E 80) B 81) C 82) D 83) A 84) C 85) B 86) C Version 1

87) C 88) A 89) B 90) C 91) B 92) A 93) A 94) B 95) B 96) D 97) B 98) B 99) A 100) niche 101) obligate halophiles

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CHAPTER 8 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) ATP molecules are catalysts that lower the activation energy needed to initiate a reaction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Building block molecules for biosynthetic pathways come from the cell's catabolic pathways and from the environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Hydrolysis reactions are catabolic reactions that use water to split the reactant into smaller subunits. ⊚ ⊚

Many exoenzymes from pathogens are virulence factors. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The best way to control a metabolic pathway is to control the fastest enzyme in the series. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Denaturing an apoenzyme will destroy the three-dimensional shape of the protein, making it nonfunctional. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

ATP is composed of deoxyribose, adenine, and 3 phosphate groups. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate is an intermediary of glycolysis that can also be utilized in anabolic and catabolic biosynthetic pathways. ⊚ ⊚

true false

ATP synthase is a complex enzyme needed for oxidative phosphorylation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) All aerobic bacterial species have identical electron acceptors in their electron transport systems. ⊚ ⊚

11)

Only yeast produces alcohol as a fermentation product. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

Microbes can utilize only carbohydrates for energy production. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts of prokaryotes. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14)

All organisms that are photosynthetic are oxygenic. ⊚ ⊚

15)

In most instances, anabolic pathways are nearly the exact reverse of catabolic pathways. ⊚ ⊚

16)

true false

Pasteur concluded that wine "disease" was caused by contaminating microbes. ⊚ ⊚

19)

true false

The cell wall of many microbial eukaryotes is composed of cellulose. ⊚ ⊚

18)

true false

Photosynthetic eukaryotic microbes utilize mitochondria in cellular metabolism. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

There are 6 enzymes involved in the electron transport chain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

20) A bacterial molecule receives SO an aerobic process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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4 as one of its final electron acceptors; therefore, it's

21) Eukaryotic and bacterial microbes both contain the same cytochrome system for redox reactions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

22) Two enzymes act on a substrate and both are activated within the cell; therefore they are both exoenzymes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

23) Photosystem I is the first enzyme in sequence to receive photons during photosynthesis in eukaryotic microbial cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 24) Reactants are converted to products by A) enzymes releasing energy. B) breaking and forming bonds. C) enzymes binding to reactants. D) reactants releasing energy.

25)

Which term refers to all of the chemical reactions within the cell?

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A) catabolism B) redox reactions C) phosphorylation D) metabolism E) cellular respiration

26)

Enzymes are A) broken down in reactions that require energy input. B) proteins that function as catalysts for anabolic and catabolic reactions. C) used up in chemical reactions. D) not needed for catabolic reactions. E) All of these choices are correct.

27)

Formation of peptide bonds between amino acids to build a polypeptide would be called A) anabolism. B) phosphorylation. C) fermentation. D) exergonic. E) glycolysis.

28)

Breakage of glycosidic bonds that form complex carbohydrates is called A) anabolism. B) catabolism. C) metabolism. D) endergonic.

29)

Each of the following is true of enzymes except

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A) they can be used over and over. B) they may or may not require cofactors. C) their active site is specific to the substrate. D) they increase the activation energy of a reaction. E) All of the choices are true of enzymes.

30)

The amount of energy required to initiate every metabolic reaction is called A) enzyme energy. B) cumulative energy. C) work energy. D) activation energy.

31)

An apoenzyme A) is part of a simple enzyme. B) is also called a coenzyme. C) is the protein part of a holoenzyme. D) is often an inorganic metal ion. E) is an RNA molecule.

32)

A holoenzyme is a combination of a protein and one or more substances called A) substrates. B) apoenzymes. C) catalysts. D) cofactors.

33) The cell's metabolic reactions involve the participation of _____ that lower the activation energy needed for the initiation of a reaction.

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A) cofactors B) vitamins C) enzymes D) ATP E) coenzymes

34)

A type of cofactor would be A) vitamins. B) metallic ions. C) active sites. D) substrates. E) ribozymes.

35)

Important components of coenzymes include the presence of A) organic molecules. B) metallic ions. C) active sites. D) electrolytes. E) ribozymes.

36)

Enzymes that are only produced when substrate is present are termed A) exoenzymes. B) endoenzymes. C) constitutive enzymes. D) induced enzymes. E) conjugated enzymes.

37)

The __________ __________ is the area where the substrate binds the enzyme.

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A) substrate attachment B) active site C) fit site D) enzyme attachment

38)

Ribozymes are A) ribosomes which catalyze reactions. B) unique to prokaryotes. C) unique to eukaryotes. D) catalysts for RNA editing. E) catalysts for DNA splicing.

39) Enzymes that catalyze removing electrons from one substrate and adding electrons to another substrate are called A) phosphotransferases. B) oxidoreductases. C) decarboxylases. D) aminotransferases. E) ligases.

40) Enzymes that catalyze moving a phosphate from one substrate to another substrate are called A) phosphotransferases. B) oxidoreductases. C) decarboxylases. D) aminotransferases. E) ligases.

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41)

The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is A) mitochondria. B) within the cell membrane. C) lysosomes. D) cytoplasm. E) outside of the cell.

42)

Which of these enzymes is NOT an exoenzyme? A) ATP synthase B) cellulase C) penicillinase D) amylase E) elastase

43)

What is the final electron acceptor during aerobic respiration? A) pyruvic acid B) oxygen C) nitrate D) Cytochrome c E) FAD

44) _____ reactions are anabolic reactions involving ligases for synthesis and the release of one water molecule for each bond formed. A) Reduction B) Condensation C) Oxidation D) Transfer

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45)

Enzymes that are secreted by a cell to catalyze hydrolysis reactions are A) apoenzymes. B) exoenzymes. C) constitutive enzymes. D) regulated enzymes. E) endoenzymes.

46)

Enzymes that function inside a cell are A) apoenzymes. B) exoenzymes. C) constitutive enzymes. D) regulated enzymes. E) endoenzymes.

47)

Enzymes that are always present, regardless of the amount of substrate are A) apoenzymes. B) axoenzymes. C) constitutive enzymes. D) regulated enzymes. E) endoenzymes.

48)

Negative feedback inhibition is best described as A) substrate binding to DNA, blocking enzyme transcription. B) product binding to DNA, blocking enzyme transcription. C) substrate binding to enzyme in noncompetitive site. D) product binding to enzyme in noncompetitive site.

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49)

Each of the following are denaturing agents except A) high temperature. B) low temperature. C) high pH. D) low pH. E) All of the choices are correct.

50)

Metabolic pathways that regenerate their starting point are called _____ pathways. A) linear B) bidirectional C) convergent D) cyclic E) divergent

51) When the product of reaction A becomes the direct reactant of reaction B, the metabolic pathway is A) linear. B) bidirectional. C) convergent. D) cyclic. E) divergent.

52)

Most electron carriers are

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A) coenzymes. B) enzymes. C) hydrogens. D) inorganic phosphate. E) All of these choices are correct.

53)

Exergonic reactions A) include synthesis of large carbohydrates. B) only occur in heterotrophs. C) occur during aerobic cellular respiration. D) do not occur in anaerobic cellular respiration. E) occur when ADP binds to inorganic phosphate to form ATP.

54)

In the cell, energy released by electrons is often used to phosphorylate A) ATP. B) ADP. C) pyruvic acid. D) oxygen. E) NAD.

55)

In addition to electrons, which of the following is also involved in redox reactions? A) ADP B) glucose C) carbon D) hydrogen E) carbon dioxide

56)

Each of the following are electron carriers except

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A) NAD. B) FAD. C) NADP. D) FADP. E) Coenzyme A.

57) The step involving ATP, hexokinase and the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6phosphate is A) the final step of the Krebs cycle. B) the first redox reaction of the electron transport system. C) an example of oxidative phosphorylation. D) an example of substrate-level phosphorylation. E) an example of photophosphorylation.

58)

FAD, NADP, and NADare all carriers of A) hydrogen. B) electrons. C) ATP. D) both hydrogen and electrons.

59)

Which of the following is not a process that regenerates ATP? A) oxidative phosphorylation B) reductive phosphorylation C) substrate-level phosphorylation D) photophosphorylation

60)

All of the following pertain to glycolysis EXCEPT

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A) occurs without oxygen. B) ends with formation of pyruvic acid. C) occurs during fermentation. D) degrades glucose to CO 2 and H 2O. E) involves reduction of NAD.

61)

Glycolysis A) uses 2 ATP, produces 2 ATP and requires oxygen. B) uses 2 ATP, produces 4 ATP and requires oxygen. C) uses 2 ATP, produces 4 ATP, does not require oxygen. D) uses 2 ATP, produces 2 ATP, does not require oxygen.

62)

The formation of citric acid from oxaloacetic acid and an acetyl group begins A) glycolysis. B) the electron transport system. C) the Krebs cycle. D) fermentation. E) oxidative phosphorylation.

63) Which of the following is not involved in the intermediate step between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle? A) reduction of NAD B) decarboxylation of pyruvic acid C) Coenzyme A attaches to an acetyl group D) dehydrogenation of pyruvic acid E) pyruvic acid accepts electrons from NADH

64)

Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs in both

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A) glycolysis and the electron transport chain. B) photosynthesis and glycolysis. C) glycolysis and Krebs cycle. D) Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain. E) All of these choices are correct.

65)

The majority of NAD reduction occurs in A) glycolysis. B) the Krebs cycle. C) the electron transport chain. D) photosynthesis.

66)

In bacterial cells, the electron transport system and ATP synthase are located in the A) cell membrane. B) mitochondria. C) chloroplasts. D) ribosomes. E) cytoplasm.

67) Each NADH that enters the electron transport system potentially gives rise to _____ ATP. A) 2 B) 3 C) 24 D) 36 E) 38

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68) As the electron transport carriers shuttle electrons, they actively pump _____ into the outer membrane compartment setting up a concentration gradient called the proton motive force. A) ATP B) phosphate C) hydrogen ions D) oxygen E) NADH

69) The redox carriers of the electron transport chain that have a tightly bound metal atom responsible for accepting and donating electrons are A) NAD molecules. B) FAD molecules. C) NADP molecules. D) the cytochromes. E) the flavoproteins.

70) Each FADH 2 from the Krebs cycle enters the electron transport system and gives rise to a maximum of _____ ATPs. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

71)

In which pathway is the most NADH generated?

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A) electron transport system B) Krebs cycle C) glycolysis D) alcoholic fermentation E) mixed acid fermentation

72)

During which of the phases of cellular respiration is the majority of ATP formed? A) electron transport chain B) Krebs cycle C) glycolysis D) processing of pyruvic acid for the Krebs cycle E) All phases produce the same number of ATP molecules.

73) In bacterial cells and eukaryotic microbes, when glucose is completely oxidized by all the pathways of aerobic cellular respiration, what is the maximum number of ATP generated? A) 2 ATP B) 3 ATP C) 24 ATP D) 36 ATP E) 38 ATP

74) What is the term associated with water production in the final stage of aerobic respiration? A) glycolysis B) Krebs cycle C) electron transport system D) chemiosmosis

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75) How many carbon dioxide molecules are produced by the complete aerobic breakdown of one glucose molecule? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6

76)

An oxidase detection test can be used to identify certain bacteria because they lack A) Cytochrome c oxidase. B) NAD. C) mitochondria. D) ATP synthase. E) Coenzyme Q.

77) What chemical causes death in many eukaryotes because it blocks Cytochrome c oxidase? A) copper B) iron C) cyanide D) oxygen E) carbon monoxide

78)

Which of the following is not true of anaerobic respiration? A) involves glycolysis B) generates some ATP C) utilizes an electron transport system D) uses the same final electron acceptors as aerobic respiration

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79)

Reduction of nitrogen-oxygen ions and compounds by some bacteria is called A) aerobic respiration. B) denitrification. C) nitrification. D) fermentation. E) deamination.

80) The reactions of fermentation function to regenerate _____ molecules for use in glycolysis. A) pyruvic acid B) ATP C) NAD + D) NADH E) glucose

81) When glucose is broken down by glycolysis during bacterial fermentation, what is the net production of ATP? A) 2 ATP B) 3 ATP C) 24 ATP D) 36 ATP E) 38 ATP

82)

Mixed acid fermentation

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A) produces butyric acid. B) occurs in all bacteria. C) produces several different acids plus CO 2 and H 2 gases. D) is seen in Streptococcus and Lactobacillus. E) also produces ethanol.

83)

Fermentation A) requires an organic electron acceptor. B) requires oxygen. C) only occurs in aerobic organisms. D) is equivalent to aerobic respiration in ATP production.

84)

Which of the following are not photosynthetic pigments? A) carotenoids B) leukophylls C) phycobilins D) chlorophylls E) All of these choices are correct.

85)

Which of the following is not true of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis? A) They occur in thethylakoid membranes. B) They generate NADPH. C) They generate glucose from CO 2 and H 2O. D) Photons cause magnesium to release electrons. E) ATP is generated by photophosphorylation.

86)

Amination is the addition of a(n) _____ group to a carbon skeleton.

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A) carboxyl B) amino C) phosphate D) hydroxyl

87) The process in which microbial organisms integrate catabolic and anabolic pathways to improve cell efficiency is called A) metabolism. B) amphibolism. C) anabolism. D) catabolism. E) biosynthesis.

88) During the process of cellular metabolism, the main sites of amphibolic interaction occur during A) glycolysis and photosynthesis. B) Krebs cycle and electron transport system. C) glycolysis and Krebs cycle. D) fermentation and Krebs cycle. E) fermentation and glycolysis.

89)

Intermediates from the Krebs cycle can be converted to amino acids by the process of A) amination. B) deamination. C) phosphorylation. D) beta oxidation. E) gluconeogenesis.

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90)

Which of the following is a characteristic of the Calvin cycle? A) The Calvin cyclerequires light. B) Nitrogen is fixed into an organic form during the Calvin cycle. C) The Calvin cycle produces glucose as an end product. D) The Calvin cycle produces carbon dioxide and water. E) All of these choices are correct.

91)

Which form of energy fuels cellular metabolism in chemoheterotrophs? A) light energy from the Sun B) chemical energy in organic compounds C) electrical energy D) thermal energy

92) The energy released by _________ reactions is used to regenerate _______ which can then provide energy for __________ reactions. A) anabolic, ATP, catabolic B) anabolic, NADH, catabolic C) catabolic, ATP, anabolic D) catabolic, glucose, anabolic

93)

The process of forming glucose from various metabolic intermediates is called A) glycolysis. B) amphibolism. C) phosphorylation. D) amination. E) gluconeogenesis.

94)

Which of the following represents the path of electrons during aerobic respiration?

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A) glucose -NADH -electron transport chain - oxygen B) glucose - pyruvate - citric acid - oxygen C) NADH - ATP - electron transport chain- oxygen D) glucose - NADH - citric acid - ATP

95)

Which of the following would produce the most ATP? A) E. coli growing in a sealed glucose broth for 48 hours B) E. coli growing in a well-aerated glucose broth for 48 hours C) Both cultures would produce the same amount of ATP. D) This prediction cannot be made from the information provided.

96)

All of the following occur during the light-independent reactions EXCEPT A) carbon fixation. B) reduction of intermediates by NADPH. C) phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP. D) regeneration or RuBP.

97) During a fermentation experiment in lab,two different samples of grape juice have been inoculated with yeast. Air has been evacuated from sample I, but not from sample II. In which sample would you predict to the greater alcohol production? A) sample I B) sample II C) Similar alcohol production is expected in both samples. D) This cannot be predicted based on the information provided.

98)

_______ % of green land plants contribute to oxygen that accumulates in the atmosphere.

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A) 60-70% B) 80-90% C) 40-50% D) 90-100%

99)

Identify the intermediate molecule between glycolysis and the Krebs cycle. A) pyruvic acid. B) glucose. C) glucose-3-alderhyde. D) water.

100) Given a sucrose molecule and glucose molecule that will become bonded, what type of reaction takes place? A) dehydration. B) hydrolysis. C) metabolism. D) peptide.

101) The human muscle is deprived of oxygen, what process is also shared between bacterial cells during oxygen deprivation? A) lactic acid fermentation. B) alcohol fermentation. C) mixed acid fermentation. D) the electron transport chain.

102) In the process of making swiss cheese there was no CO of this gas not being released?

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2 produced. What was the cause

A) fermentation B) aerobic respiration. C) oxygen. D) glucose.

103)

____ water molecule(s) perform hydrolysis during the Krebs cycle. A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four

104)

Which of the following is not produced during an anabolic process? A) amino acid. B) sugar. C) fat. D) pyruvic acid.

105) Molecules A and B are similar in shape and size; if both substrates are activated to bond with the enzyme then ______ _______ would be exhibited. A) competitive inhibition B) noncompetitive-inhibition C) active inhibition D) lock inhibition

106)

The ______ is the area independent-light reactions take place.

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A) stroma B) thylakoids C) plasma membrane D) cell wall

107)

Enzymes that catalyze the removal of carbon dioxide from a substrate are called A) phosphotransferases. B) oxidoreductases. C) decarboxylases. D) aminotransferases. E) ligases.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 08_11e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) FALSE 20) FALSE 21) FALSE 22) FALSE 23) FALSE 24) B 25) D 26) B Version 1

27) A 28) B 29) D 30) D 31) C 32) D 33) C 34) B 35) A 36) D 37) B 38) D 39) B 40) A 41) E 42) A 43) B 44) B 45) B 46) E 47) C 48) D 49) B 50) D 51) A 52) A 53) C 54) B 55) D 56) D Version 1

57) D 58) D 59) B 60) D 61) C 62) C 63) E 64) C 65) B 66) A 67) B 68) C 69) D 70) B 71) B 72) A 73) E 74) D 75) E 76) A 77) C 78) D 79) B 80) C 81) A 82) C 83) A 84) B 85) C 86) B Version 1

87) B 88) C 89) A 90) C 91) B 92) C 93) E 94) A 95) B 96) C 97) A 98) B 99) A 100) A 101) A 102) A 103) A 104) D 105) A 106) A 107) C

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CHAPTER 9 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The smallest unit of heredity is a chromosome. ⊚ ⊚

DNA polymerase can only add new nucleotides to the old 3' DNA end. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Introns have no detectable functions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

In bacteria, initiator tRNA carries formyl methionine. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Transcription occurs in the nucleus or at the nucleoid. ⊚ ⊚

true false

DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Excised introns form structures called lariats. ⊚ ⊚

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true false 1

Lactose is a corepressor in the lac operon. ⊚ ⊚

Repressible operons are normally turned on in the cell. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Induced mutations result from errors in DNA replication. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) DNA photolyase, in the presence of visible light, can repair DNA damage due to ultraviolet radiation. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

All mutations are harmful to the cell. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Some RNA viruses direct the synthesis of double-stranded DNA at some point in their life cycle. ⊚ ⊚

true false

14) Once a mutation in a DNA strand has been replicated into a new piece of DNA, it cannot be repaired.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

15) Viruses require host transcription machinery because they do not have their own RNA polymerases. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) During DNA replication, synthesizing new DNA from both strands requires the enzyme primase. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) DNA replication initiation occurs in multiple origins of replication around the bacterial chromosome. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 18) Mutations that lead to a loss-of-function of which of the following would result in the lactose operon always being turned on? (check all that apply) A) RNA Polymerase B) Repressor C) Structural proteins that catabolize lactose D) Proteins that import lactose

19) CCR-5, the cell surface receptor protein that HIV uses to enter T-cells, is mutated in 1% of the population. This mutation, a deletion of 32 base pairs (Δ32), results in a stop codon. HIV cannot use these mutant proteins to enter T-cells. Which of the following types of mutations are present in CCR5-Δ32? (check all that apply) Version 1

A) Deletion B) Insertion C) Nonsense D) Missense E) Frameshift

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 20) Among microorganisms, various genomes can include A) chromosomes. B) plasmids. C) mitochondrial DNA. D) chloroplast DNA. E) All of the choices are correct.

21)

Which of the following is not true of an organism's genotype? A) The genotype is inherited. B) The genotype is made up of structural genes coding for proteins. C) The genotype includes genescoding for RNA. D) The genotype includes regulatory genes controlling gene expression. E) The genotype includes the expressed traits governed by the genes.

22) have

Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes because only eukaryotes

A) histone proteins. B) chromosomes in a nucleus. C) several to many chromosomes. D) elongated linear, not circular, chromosomes. E) All of the choices are correct.

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23)

The __________ is all of the genetic material of a cell. A) chromosome B) plasmid C) prophage D) genome E) proteome

24)

A nucleosome is a linear chromosome wound around the A) nuclear membrane. B) rRNA. C) mRNA. D) histone. E) nucleolus.

25) Each __________ is a specific segment of the DNA with the code for production of one functional product. A) intron B) exon C) gene D) operator E) triplet

26)

The expression of genetic traits is the

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A) genome. B) genotype. C) proteome. D) phenotype. E) proteotype.

27)

The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called A) histones. B) amino acids. C) nucleotides. D) mRNA. E) polymerases.

28)

Which of the following is incorrect about purines? A) Purines are only found in DNA, not in RNA. B) Purinesare nitrogenous bases. C) Purines are always paired with a specific pyrimidine. D) Purines include adenine and guanine. E) Purines are found within nucleotides.

29)

The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to

A) each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar. B) a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine. C) one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction. D) an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule.

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30)

All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases except A) they form pairs by hydrogen bonding. B) guanine pairs with uracil. C) adenine pairs with thymine. D) cytosine and thymine are pyrimidines. E) they can occur in any order along the DNA molecule.

31)

Each nucleotide is composed of A) one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, one sugar. B) one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, two sugars. C) two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, one sugar. D) two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, two sugars. E) one phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, one sugar.

32)

Base pairs in DNA are held together by __________ bonds. A) peptide B) nonpolar covalent C) polar covalent D) hydrogen E) sulfhydryl

33)

The duplication of a cell's DNA is called A) mitosis. B) replication. C) transcription. D) translation. E) mutation.

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34)

Structural genes code for A) ribosomal RNA molecules. B) transfer RNA molecules. C) cellular proteins. D) promoters. E) All of the choices are correct.

35) During replication, each parent DNA strand serves as a __________ for synthesis of new DNA strands. A) copy point B) template C) comparison molecule D) scaffold E) reservoir

36)

Semiconservative replication refers to

37)

DNA polymerase III

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A) is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis. B) synthesizes new DNA only in the 5' to 3' direction. C) cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand. D) synthesizes an RNA primer. E) All of the choices are correct.

38)

The enzyme that helps pack DNA into the cell by coiling the DNA into a tight bundle is A) DNA ligase. B) DNA polymerase. C) DNA helicase. D) DNA gyrase. E) primase.

39)

Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by A) DNA ligase. B) DNA polymerase. C) DNA helicase. D) DNA gyrase. E) primase.

40) The enzyme that proofreads replicating DNA, detects incorrect bases, excises them, and correctly replaces them is A) DNA ligase. B) DNA polymerase. C) DNA helicase. D) DNA gyrase. E) primase.

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41) The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the A) primer. B) Okazaki fragment. C) template. D) rolling circle. E) replication fork.

42)

DNA gyrase A) unwinds DNA. B) supercoils DNA. C) cleaves DNA. D) joins free DNA ends.

43)

Helicase A) unwinds DNA. B) supercoils DNA. C) unwinds RNA. D) winds RNA.

44)

DNA polymerase I A) removes primers. B) adds bases to new DNA chains. C) seals DNA gaps. D) proofreads DNA chains. E) All of the choices are correct,

45)

A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called a/an

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A) translation. B) transcription. C) mutation. D) alteration. E) regeneration.

46)

DNA polymerase III functions to A) synthesize primers. B) remove primers. C) join Okazaki fragments. D) unzip the DNA helix. E) proofread new DNA.

47)

Replication of DNA begins at a/an A) guanine-cytosine rich area. B) uracil-adenine rich area. C) adenine-thymine rich area. D) adenine-cytosine rich area. E) guanine-adenine rich area.

48)

A primer of __________ is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition. A) polymerase III B) polymerase I C) helicase D) RNA E) DNA

49)

Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one

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A) protein. B) nucleotide. C) amino acid. D) purine.

50)

The three-base sequence on DNA that codes for an amino acid is called a/an A) primer. B) exon. C) anticodon. D) intron. E) triplet.

51) The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the A) promoter. B) operator. C) operon. D) exon. E) intron.

52) The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called A) ribosomal RNA. B) messenger RNA. C) transfer RNA. D) primer RNA. E) ribozymes.

53)

RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA

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A) has ribose. B) has uracil. C) is typically one strand of nucleotides. D) does not have thymine. E) All of the choices are correct.

54)

All of the following pertain to transcription except A) occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm. B) occurs before translation. C) requires RNA polymerase. D) requires a template DNA strand. E) requires a promotor.

55)

What molecule is synthesized as a copy of a gene from the DNA template strand? A) Ribosomal RNA B) Messenger RNA C) Transfer RNA D) Primer RNA E) Ribozymes

56)

RNA polymerase binds to the A) start codon. B) termination sequence. C) regulation sequence. D) promoter sequence.

57)

Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA?

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A) tRNA has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon. B) An anticodon is complementary to a codon. C) tRNA contains a binding site for an amino acid. D) The initiator tRNA that binds to the P site has the anticodon UAC. E) Initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan.

58)

If a codon for alanine is GCA, what is the anticodon? A) GCA B) CGT C) ACG D) CGU E) UGC

59)

The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis except A) they contain codons within their rRNA molecules. B) ribosomes participate only in translation. C) ribosomes bind to the 5' end of mRNA by their small subunit. D) ribosomes use their large subunit to supply enzymes for peptide bonding. E) ribosomes shift toward the 3' end of the mRNA strand from one codon to the next.

60)

Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons?

A) They are also called nonsense codons. B) They occur where the bond between the final tRNA and the growing polypeptide is broken. C) Termination codonsinclude AUG. D) Termination codons include UAA, UAG, and UGA. E) Termination codons do not have corresponding tRNA.

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61)

Which of the following is not true of the prokaryotic ribosome? A) Prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S. B) A prokaryotic ribosome has a peptide (P) site. C) A prokaryotic ribosome has an exit (E) site. D) The small subunit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds. E) The prokaryotic ribosome has an amino acyl (A) site.

62) A sequence of bases within a gene that will be transcribed, but removed from the transcript prior to translation is a/an A) promoter. B) operator. C) operon. D) exon. E) intron.

63)

Which is incorrect about inducible operons? A) Have genes turned off by a buildup of end product B) Often encode enzymes for catabolic pathways C) Are normally turned off D) Are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme E) Include the lac operon

64)

Split genes A) are common in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. B) only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA. C) have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region. D) requirespliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons. E) All of the choices are correct.

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65)

The gene of an operon that codes for a protein repressor is called the A) operator. B) structural locus. C) regulator. D) promoter.

66)

Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires A) repressor alone bound to operator. B) substrate bound to repressor. C) substrate bound to promoter. D) corepressor and repressor bound to operator.

67)

Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is inhibited by A) repressor alone bound to operator. B) substrate bound to repressor. C) substrate bound to promoter. D) corepressor and repressor bound to operator.

68)

Full induction of the lactose operon requires A) that lactose be present. B) that lactose and glucose both be present. C) that lactose be present without glucose. D) that lactose and arabinose both be present. E) All of the choices induce the lactose operon.

69) Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks __________ from initiating transcription. Version 1

A) DNA polymerase I B) DNA polymerase III C) RNA polymerase D) mRNA E) rRNA

70)

The lactose repressor A) is transcribed with the structural lac genes. B) is activated by binding lactose. C) is inactivated by binding lactose. D) requires lactose for its transcription.

71)

A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a A) point mutation. B) silent mutation. C) back mutation. D) missense mutation. E) nonsense mutation.

72) Repressible operons require that __________ bind to the repressor protein before it can bind to the operator. A) the product B) a cofactor C) a coenzyme D) the substrate E) the reactant

73)

The most damaging type of mutation is a

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A) point mutation. B) silent mutation. C) frameshift mutation. D) back mutation. E) All of the choices are equally damaging.

74) If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATA ETH EBI GRA T? A) Missense B) Nonsense C) Insertion D) Deletion E) Silent

75) If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE THE BAG RAT? A) Missense B) Nonsense C) Insertion D) Deletion E) Silent

76) If the wild type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE (stop)? A) Missense B) Nonsense C) Insertion D) Deletion E) Silent

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77)

A frameshift is caused by __________ mutations. A) missense and insertion B) missense and nonsense C) nonsense and deletion D) deletion and insertion E) insertion and nonsense

78)

What type of mutation alters the base, but not the amino acid being coded for? A) Silent B) Back C) Point D) Nonsense E) Missense

79) A screening system called the __________ test is used for detecting chemicals with carcinogenic potential. A) Koch B) Ames C) mutation D) cancer E) Iowa

80)

The process in which mutations are removed and replacedwith the correct basesis called

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A) transduction. B) excision repair. C) frameshift. D) back mutation. E) transformation.

81)

Bacterial conjugation involves A) bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell. B) adonor cell that transfers a copy of a plasmid to a recipient cell through a pilus. C) the take-up of naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell by a recipient cell. D) new progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells.

82)

Which cell can transfer the most DNA? A) F + cell B) F - cell C) Hfr cell D) R cell E) B cell

83)

Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination? A) Transformation B) Conjugation C) Mitosis D) Transduction

84)

Which of the following is not true of conjugation?

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A) Involves direct contact between cells B) Transfers genes for drug resistance C) Transfers genes for enzymes and adherence molecules D) Transfers genes for a polysaccharide capsule E) The donor retains a copy of the transferred genes.

85)

Hfr transfer involves all of the following except A) gene integration into the bacterial chromosome. B) plasmid gene transfer. C) F factor is part of the F + donor chromosome. D) high frequency transfer. E) apilus connection between F + and F - cells.

86) The transfer of DNA fragments from a dead cell to a live, competent recipient cell that results in a changed recipient cell is A) transduction. B) conjugation. C) transformation. D) transmission. E) mitosis.

87) The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur in A) bacterial conjugation. B) transformation. C) generalized transduction. D) specialized transduction. E) All of the choices are correct.

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88) A bacteriophage transfers DNA of the previous host to the current host. This is an example of A) conjugation. B) generalized transduction. C) specialized transduction. D) creation of an Hfr cell.

89)

Genes that jump from one location to another in the genome are A) repressors. B) transposons. C) transformers. D) plasmids. E) operons.

90)

Which of the following is not true of transposons? A) Can change pigmentation B) Can replace damaged DNA C) Can transfer drug resistance D) Can change the genome E) Are always part of plasmids

91) Which of the following additions have been made to principles of the central dogma of biology?

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A) DNA information cannot be converted into RNA information. B) Protein information can be converted into DNA information. C) RNA can be used to regulate gene function. D) DNA codes for proteins. E) All of the choices are correct.

92) In Griffith's experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae, rough nonencapsulated Streptococci were converted into smooth encapsulated Streptococci in the presence of the heatkilled smooth encapsulated Streptococci. What is the term that describes this process? A) Transduction B) Conjugation C) Transformation D) Cloning

93)

Which base will pair with uracil in RNA? A) Adenine B) Guanine C) Thymine D) Cytosine

94) Folding of the 5' end of an mRNA, such that binding to the ribosome is altered, is most likely to affect A) replication. B) transcription. C) translation. D) transformation.

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95) Riboswitchesexert effects on __________ whereas repressors and inducers exert effects on __________. A) replication; translation B) translation; transcription C) transcription; replication D) transcription; translation

96)

Short interfering RNAsaffect gene expression in eukaryotes by A) blocking replication of certain genes. B) blocking transcription of certain genes. C) binding to mRNAs and preventing translation. D) binding to ribosomes, preventing the two subunits from joining.

97) The analysis of the nitrogenous bases of the nucleic acid of a newly discovered virus showed 20% adenine, 40% guanine, 10% thymine, and 30% cytosine. The viral nucleic acid is most likely A) double-stranded DNA. B) double-stranded RNA. C) single-stranded RNA. D) single-stranded DNA.

98)

The differenttypes of nucleic acids found in viruses include all of the following except A) double-stranded DNA. B) single-stranded DNA. C) double-stranded RNA. D) single-stranded RNA. E) There are no exceptions here. Each of these types may be found in viruses.

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99) While studying the infection process and life cycle of a newly discovered virus, it was determined that the virus never entered the nucleus of the host cell. This virus may have any of the following genomes except A) DNA. B) double-stranded RNA. C) single (+) strand RNA. D) single (-) strand RNA.

100)

What cell structure is responsible for protein synthesis? A) Golgi body B) Lysosome C) DNA D) Ribosome

101) is

A cell is only able to take up external genetic material through transformation if the cell

A) F+. B) F-. C) competent. D) wild-type.

102) Which of the following require physical contact between two bacterial cells for DNA transfer?

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A) Transduction B) Transformation C) Conjugation D) Transduction and Conjugation E) Transformation and Conjugation

103) The process of __________ always results in the same genes being transferred between bacteria. A) generalized transduction B) specialized transduction C) conjugation D) transformation

104) Clinicians identifed a new drug-resistant bacteria in a patient's foot wound. The gene responsible for the drug resistance was flanked by DNA sequences that are inverted repeats of one another. What is the most probable way that this bacteria acquired the gene for drug resistance? A) The gene was already in the genome and mutated to confer drug resistance. B) The gene was part of a plasmid. C) The gene was part of a transposon. D) The gene was part of bacteriophage DNA.

105) Which of the following is found in prokaryotic translation but not in eukaryotic translation? A) Spliceosomes B) Polyribosomes C) Transfer RNAs D) 70S Ribosomes

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FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 106) Feline Leukemia Virus is able to synthesize DNA using its RNA genome as a template. This is because Feline Leukemia Virus is classified as a __________.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 107) Explain why genetic diversity in a population is beneficial.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 09_11e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) [B] 19) [A, C, E] 20) E 21) E 22) E 23) D 24) D 25) C 26) D Version 1

27) C 28) A 29) C 30) B 31) A 32) D 33) B 34) C 35) B 36) D 37) B 38) D 39) A 40) B 41) E 42) B 43) A 44) A 45) C 46) E 47) C 48) D 49) C 50) E 51) A 52) C 53) E 54) A 55) B 56) D Version 1

57) E 58) D 59) A 60) C 61) D 62) E 63) A 64) D 65) C 66) B 67) D 68) C 69) C 70) C 71) E 72) A 73) C 74) C 75) A 76) B 77) D 78) A 79) B 80) B 81) B 82) C 83) C 84) D 85) B 86) C Version 1

87) D 88) B 89) B 90) E 91) C 92) C 93) A 94) C 95) B 96) C 97) D 98) E 99) A 100) D 101) C 102) C 103) B 104) C 105) D 106) retrovirus

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CHAPTER 10 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Restriction endonucleases are obtained from various species of bacteria. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) After 3 replication cycles in PCR, there will be a total of 4 double-stranded DNA molecules. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) An example of gene therapy is the insertion of the gene for human growth hormone into E. coli cells. ⊚ ⊚

Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Transformation and transfection are methods used to introduce DNA into host cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Sequencing a gene automatically identifies which gene it is. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

7) The process of introducing a needed normal gene into human cells is called DNA mapping. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Vectors often contain a gene conferring drug resistance to their cloning host, in order to detect cells harboring the plasmid. ⊚ ⊚

true false

When DNA is heated, the two strands will separate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) To be of value, DNA sequences targeted for analysis for DNA profiling need to be located in coding regions of the genome. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Although originally discovered in bacteriaas a defense against bacteriophage infection, the CRISPR/Cas gene editing system can be used to edit the genome of any cell, whether microbial, plant, fungal, or animal. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) When running gel electrophoresis smaller DNA fragments will move further down the gel than larger DNA fragments. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

13)

The analysis of all RNA molecules in a cell is termed Proteomics. ⊚ ⊚

14)

The study of all the genomes in a particular ecological niche is called Metagenomics. ⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

Polymerase chain reaction has the ability to only replicate DNA. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) An instructor presents you with two petri dishes; one contains nutrient agar with ampicillin and the other contains nutrient agar only. Growth is only seen on the plate containing nutrient agar only. This means the organism has resistance to ampicillin. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) Virus vectors that have been altered to exclusively target cancer cells are oncolytic adenoviruses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

18) Genetically modified organisms and gene therapy have presented ethical issues in the current day that have not previously been encountered by society. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 19) The use of an organism's biochemical processes to synthesizenew forms of molecules and cellsis A) bioremediation. B) biotechnology. C) recombinantDNA. D) gelelectrophoresis. E) gene probes.

20)

The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are called A) geneticengineering. B) biotechnology. C) recombinantDNA. D) gelelectrophoresis. E) gene probes.

21) The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and combining it with the genetic material of another organism is a specific technique called A) geneticengineering. B) biotechnology. C) recombinant DNAtechnology. D) gelelectrophoresis. E) gene probes.

22) Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a specific sequence of nucleotides in a mixture is/are

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A) geneticengineering. B) biotechnology. C) recombinantDNA. D) gelelectrophoresis. E) gene probes.

23)

A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is A) geneticengineering. B) biotechnology. C) recombinantDNA. D) electrophoresis. E) gene probes.

24)

DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called A) palindromes. B) reversetranscriptases. C) restrictionendonucleases. D) ligases. E) DNA polymerases.

25) Geneticists can make complementary DNA copies of messenger, transfer, and ribosomal RNA by using A) palindromes. B) reversetranscriptases. C) restrictionendonucleases. D) ligases. E) DNA polymerases.

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26)

EcoRI and HindIII are A) palindromes. B) reversetranscriptases. C) restrictionendonucleases. D) ligases. E) DNA polymerases.

27) Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5' to 3' direction on one strand and the 3' to 5' direction on the other strand are A) palindromes. B) reversetranscriptases. C) restrictionendonucleases. D) ligases. E) DNA polymerases.

28) Which of the following is true of the analysis of DNA fragments using gel electrophoresis? A) Larger DNA fragments move slowly and remain closer to the wells. B) DNA has an overall negative charge and moves to the positive pole. C) DNA fragments are stained to visualize them. D) An electric current through the gel causes DNA fragments to migrate. E) All of these choices are correct.

29)

Gene probes can be labeled for detection with A) enzymes. B) fluorescentdyes. C) radioisotopes. D) All of these choices are correct.

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30)

Amplification of DNA is accomplished by A) polymerase chainreaction. B) DNAsequencing. C) gene probes. D) Southern blot. E) All of these choices are correct.

31)

DNA polymerases used in PCR A) use an RNAtemplate to make complementary DNA. B) must remain activeat very cold temperatures. C) include Taqpolymerases and Vent polymerase. D) are labeled withfluorescent dyes. E) All of these choices are correct.

32)

Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA? A) Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72°C. B) Cool DNA to between 50°C and 65°C. C) Add primers. D) Heat target DNA to 94°C. E) Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling.

33)

Which PCR step synthesizes complementary DNA strands? A) Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72°C. B) Cool DNA to between 50°C and 65°C. C) Add primers. D) Heat target DNA to 94°C. E) Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling.

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34) The function of the dideoxy (dd) nucleotides that are used in the Sanger method of DNA sequencing is to A) denature DNA intosingle strands. B) serve asprimers. C) be a fluorescenttag. D) incorporate intonewly replicated DNA strands and stop elongation.

35) The fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) probes are applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the presence and location of A) DNA. B) RNA. C) proteins. D) recombinantDNA. E) specific genetic marker sequence ongenes.

36)

Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are A) used as cloningvectors. B) sources of heatstable DNA polymerases. C) geneticallyengineered bacteria. D) principal sourcesof restriction endonucleases.

37)

The primers in PCR are A) synthetic DNAoligonucleotides. B) bacterialenzymes. C) short RNAstrands. D) DNApolymerases. E) reverse transcriptases.

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38)

In order to ensure compatibility between the target DNA and the plasmid DNA, A) target DNA isremoved from cells and isolated. B) cloning host istreated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid. C) target DNA andplasmid are treated with the same restriction endonuclease. D) desired proteinis produced by cloning host. E) gene is amplified by multiplication ofcloning host.

39)

Which step involves transformation? A) Target DNA is removed from cells and isolated. B) The cloning host takes up a plasmid. C) Target DNA and plasmid are treated with the same restriction endonuclease. D) The desired protein is produced by the cloning host. E) The gene is amplified by multiplication of the cloning host.

40)

Which of the following is a serious concern when performing PCR? A) The high temperature needed may denature the DNA. B) Restriction enzymes are difficult to obtain in adequate quantities. C) Contaminating DNA may be introduced and amplified. D) Lab personnel may be exposed to radiation. E) PCR is a very time-consuming process.

41)

The commercial product Frostban contains a genetically engineered strain of A) Escherichiacoli. B) Saccharomycescerevisiae. C) Thermusaquaticus. D) Pseudomonassyringae. E) Pseudomonas fluorescens.

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42) Recombinant strains of this organism are released to colonize plant roots to produce an insecticide to destroy invading insects. A) Escherichiacoli B) Saccharomycescerevisiae C) Thermusaquaticus D) Pseudomonassyringae E) Pseudomonas fluorescens

43)

Transgenic animals A) can be engineeredto become factories for manufacturing proteins. B) are often obtainedfrom germ line engineering. C) will pass the geneson to their offspring. D) commonly includemice. E) All of these choices are correct.

44) When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique is called A) cloning. B) gene therapy. C) antisensetherapeutic. D) DNAfingerprinting.

45) Both DNA sequencing and polymerase chain reactions require special __________ to initiate synthesis of a new DNA molecule.

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A) RNA promoters B) fluorescentnucleotides C) primers D) thermophilicpolymerases E) endonucleases

46) Which of the following is often used in forensic science to distinguish one sequence of DNA from another by comparing the sequence of the strands at specific loci? A) cloning B) gene therapy C) antisense therapeutic D) DNA fingerprinting

47) Which of the following drugs is/are produced by genetic engineering and approved for human use? A) human growth hormone B) Factor VIII C) insulin D) tissue plasminogen activator E) All of these choices are correct.

48)

All of the following are desirable features in a microbial cloning host, except A) the host can be grown in large quantities. B) the host has a slow growth rate. C) the host is capable of accepting plasmid vectors. D) the host will secrete a high yield of proteins from expressed foreign genes. E) the host has a well-delineated genome.

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49) Which of the following is less subject to degradation than is chromosomal DNA and is used as an evolutionary time clock? A) mitochondrialDNA B) chloroplastDNA C) rRNA D) mRNA E) tRNA

50) Which technique will hopefully be used to identify and devise treatments for diseases based on the genetic profile of the disease? A) PCR B) genetic engineering C) antisense technology D) microarray analysis E) DNA sequencing

51) Which of the following methods determines which genes are actively transcribed in a cell under a variety of conditions? A) DNAfingerprinting B) microarray analysis C) gene mapping D) Western blot E) antisense therapy

52)

The Southern blot technique enables detection of specific sequences

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A) in DNA. B) in RNA. C) of amino acids in proteins. D) of sugars in polysaccharides.

53)

All of the following are characteristics that make plasmids good cloning vectors, except A) they are small. B) they are wellcharacterized. C) they can betransferred into appropriate host cells. D) they can carrygenetic markers, such as antibiotic resistance genes. E) they can accept a relatively largeamount of foreign DNA.

54)

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) has been used in all of the following fields, except A) forensics. B) evolutionarystudies. C) gene mapping. D) medicine. E) None of the choices; it is useful for all these fields.

55)

When DNA is heated to just below boiling (90°C–95°C), A) the sugarphosphate backbone of the DNA strands breaks. B) the sugar, phosphate, and base come apart in each nucleotide. C) the helix unwindsbut hydrogen bonds between the bases remain intact. D) the two DNAstrands separate completely. E) nothing happens until the boiling point is reached (100 oC).

56)

All of the following are correct about DNA fingerprinting, except

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A) it displays theunique pattern of an individual's DNA fragments. B) it can be used toanalyze evidence when only minute amounts of DNA are found. C) it cannot be usedon specimens older than five years. D) it is routine touse it as trial evidence in the U.S. E) it can be used on hair and saliva.

57) The enzyme___ adds nucleotides of DNA in the ___direction when DNA is being semiconservatively replicated. A) DNA polymerase III; 3’ → 5’ B) DNA polymerase I; 3’ → 5’ C) DNA polymerase III; 5’ → 3’ D) DNA polymerase I; 5’ → 3’

58) When determining the sequence of nucleotides in an unknown sample of DNA, which method is used to sequence the DNA? A) PCR B) cloning C) The Sanger method D) Southern blothybridization E) microarray analysis

59) The human gene for a protein hormone has been isolated. Scientists want to introduce this gene into a bacterial host, modifying the bacteria so that it can be used to produce this hormone. After successfully introducing the gene on a plasmid, the bacteria produced the protein hormone, but the protein was defective, longer than normal, with intervening stretches of amino acids not found in the native protein. What is the most likely explanation?

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A) The bacteria can’t transcribe the human gene. B) The gene that was introduced contained introns. C) Bacterial cells cannot translate mRNAs transcribed from human genes. D) Bacterial ribosomes make errors when transcribing human mRNAs.

60)

Which of the following regions of DNA would be of most value for forensic analysis? A) DNA sequences that are typically identical for all humans B) DNA sequences thatdiffer among humans, with a maximum of two differentalleles C) DNA sequences that are quite variable with multiple different alleles D) Most DNA sequences are equally valuable for forensic analysis.

61) The human gene for a protein hormone has been isolated. Scientists want to introduce this gene into a bacterial host, modifying the bacteria so that it can be used to produce this hormone. After successfully introducing the gene on a plasmid, the bacteria produced the protein hormone, but the protein was defective, longer than normal, with intervening stretches of amino acids not found in the native protein. Which solution would be most likely to resolve this problem? A) Treat the defective protein with enzymes. B) Introduce human ribosomes into the bacteria. C) Start over, introducing a complementary DNA (cDNA) copy of the gene into the bacterial host. D) Introduce human mRNAs into the bacterial host.

62)

Which of the following would be of LEAST value in DNA profiling? A) mitotyping B) STR (short tandem repeat) analysis C) sequencing blood group alleles D) analysis of SNPs(single nucleotide polymorphisms)

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63)

Which of the following provides the specificity of the CRISPR/Cas gene editing system? A) the amino acids at the amino terminus of the Cas nuclease B) the guide RNA (crRNA)carried by the Cas nuclease C) the amino acids at the carboxyl terminus of the Cas nuclease D) an antibody-like region of the Cas nuclease

64) Which type of DNA analysis is likely to be most effective when analyzing the ancient remains of a mummified body? A) whole genome sequencing B) analysis of short tandem repeats C) analysis of cDNA D) analysis of mitochondrial DNA

65) When reviewing tissue cultures of the newborn patient calcium deposits were found within the brain along with scarring in the center of the retina indicating A) microarrays. B) dengue fever. C) chkunguya disease. D) microcephaly.

66)

______ is the enzyme responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix. A) Ligase B) Helicase C) Reverse transcriptase D) Polymerase

67)

The separated segments of DNA produced by restriction endonucleases are

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A) plasmids. B) vectors. C) restriction fragments. D) restriction enzymes.

68)

The variation of DNA among species utilize restriction endonucleases to give rise to A) RFLPs. B) RLLs. C) SFLPs. D) DDPLs.

69)

Primers used for polymerase chain reaction normally contain ____ to ____ bases. A) 15 to 30 B) 30 to 60 C) 60 to 90 D) 90 to 120

70)

The following steps are presented in the correct order for polymerase chain reaction. A) denaturation, extension, priming B) priming, extension, denaturation C) extension, denaturation, priming D) denaturation, priming, extension

71)

Newer vectors that can hold 45 kb are called

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A) hosts. B) cosmids. C) bacterial artificial chromosomes. D) yeast artificial chromosomes.

72)

Which of the following was commonly used to pharm HGH as a treatment for dwarfism? A) pigs B) cows C) cadavers D) worms

73)

_________ is replacement therapy that benefits patients with emphysema. A) Antitrypsin B) Interferon C) Macrophage D) Lipase

74) A patient with HIV has begun to experience degradation of the virus and no longer suffers from respiratory issues. Which of the following was more than likely involved in the gene therapy process? A) tRNA B) RNAi C) rRNA D) mRNA

75)

The ability to locate a single nucleotide in a population involve

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A) short tandem repeats (STRs). B) mtDNA. C) single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs). D) loci.

76)

The common material(s) used in microarrays are A) glass. B) silicon. C) nylon. D) All of these choices are correct.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 77) Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip at DNA base sequences called _____.

78) In recombinant DNA technique, an enzyme called _____ is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into plasmids or chromosomes.

79)

Two different nucleic acids can _____ by uniting at their complementary sites.

80)

Genomic _____ are collections of isolated genes maintained in a cloning host.

81)

Transgenic animals are _____ modified organisms.

82)

One of the first uses of DNA fingerprinting was in _________ genetics.

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83) Given the following nucleotide sequence ATCCTAG, what would be the complementary palindrome?

84)

The genetic material that is utilized after splicing is/are called ______.

85)

_______ is the final step that yields a protein product in gene cloning.

86) CAS-9 was found in ________ cells where they work together to excise viral DNA from the cell genome.

87)

The size of DNA is often given in the number of _____ that it contains.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 88) Compare and contrast recombinant DNA and gene therapy.

89) A heat-killed virus is mixed with a live strain. Will the live strain activate the heat-killed virus and make it harmful?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 10_11e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) B 20) A 21) C 22) E 23) D 24) C 25) B 26) C Version 1

27) A 28) E 29) D 30) A 31) C 32) D 33) A 34) D 35) E 36) B 37) A 38) C 39) B 40) C 41) D 42) E 43) E 44) B 45) C 46) D 47) E 48) B 49) A 50) D 51) B 52) A 53) E 54) E 55) D 56) C Version 1

57) C 58) C 59) B 60) C 61) C 62) C 63) B 64) D 65) D 66) B 67) C 68) A 69) A 70) D 71) B 72) C 73) A 74) B 75) C 76) D 77) palindromes 78) ligase 79) hybridize 80) libraries 81) genetically 82) forensic 83) TAGGATC 84) exon 85) Purification 86) bacterial Version 1

87) base pairs

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CHAPTER 11 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Bacteriocidal agents are sterilants. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Bacteriostatic agents kill bacterial cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) The presence of organic matter such as saliva and pus can interfere with the actions of disinfectants. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) When a control agent targets the metabolic processes of microbial cells, active younger cells typically die more rapidly than older cells. ⊚ ⊚

A microorganism that is not motile and has stopped metabolizing is considered dead. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Most microbial contaminants of food are killed at freezing temperatures. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Filtration is an effective method to remove microbes from air and liquids.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

Chlorine compounds remain stable and effective in the presence of excess organic matter. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Aniline dyes like crystal violet have antimicrobial activity particularly against grampositive bacteria and some fungi. ⊚ ⊚

10)

Alcohols are more effective at inactivating enveloped viruses than naked viruses. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

Isopropyl alcohol wiped across a skin site can sterilize it. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

Chlorine dioxide and ethylene oxide are gaseous sterilants. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Physical methods of microbial control will typically sterilize, whereas chemical methods will only disinfect. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14) Moist heat is more efficient at killing microbes and is effective at lower temperatures or shorter exposure times than dry heat. ⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

Only inanimate objects can be effectively decontaminated. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) Decontamination with a particular agent requires the same amount of time regardless of the number of microbial contaminants. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) The kinds of microbes potentially present on a surface are not an important factor in choosing which chemical agent is required for sterilization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 18) Microbiological contaminants are best described as A) unwanted microbespresent on or in a substance. B) any and allmicrobes present on or in a substance. C) pathogenic microbespresent on or in a substance. D) vegetative microbespresent on or in a substance.

19)

All of the following are major categories of microbial control methods except

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A) physical agents. B) chemical agents. C) mechanical removal methods. D) genetic methods.

20)

Which of the following types of control agents would be most likely to achieve sterility? A) Virucide B) Bactericide C) Germicide D) Sporicide E) Fungicide

21)

Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all of the following except A) ultravioletradiation. B) boiling water. C) HEPA filters. D) pasteurization. E) hydrogen peroxide.

22) The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores is called A) disinfection. B) sterilization. C) antisepsis. D) sanitization. E) degermation.

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23) Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls? A) Naked viruses B) Protozoan cysts C) Fungal spores D) Bacterial endospores E) Yeast

24) The process of physicallycleansinginanimate surfaces to reducemicroorganisms and debris to safe levels is called A) disinfection. B) sterilization. C) antisepsis. D) sanitization. E) degermation.

25) The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens on inanimate objectsis called A) disinfection. B) sterilization. C) antisepsis. D) sanitization. E) degermation.

26) The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is

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A) disinfection. B) sterilization. C) antisepsis. D) sanitization. E) degermation.

27) Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is called A) disinfection. B) sterilization. C) sanitization. D) degermation.

28)

Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death? A) Cells die at increasingly greater rates. B) Only older cells die in a culture. C) Cells in a culture die at a constant rate. D) Upon contact with the control agent, all cells die at one time. E) Cells become metabolically inactive but are never killed.

29)

Sterilization is achieved by A) flashpasteurization. B) hot water. C) boiling water. D) steamautoclave. E) All of the choices are correct.

30)

As a sterilization tool, dry heat

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A) is less efficientthan moist heat. B) cannotsterilize. C) includestyndallization. D) is used in devicescalled autoclaves. E) will sterilize at 121°C for 15 minutes.

31)

Endospores can be killed by A) dry heat at 170°C for 2 hours. B) incineration. C) glutaraldehyde for 8 or more hours. D) ethylene oxide for3 or more hours. E) All of the choices are correct.

32)

The minimum sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are A) 121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes. B) 63°C at 5 psi for 30 minutes. C) 160°C for 2 hours. D) 71.6°C for 15 seconds. E) 100°C at 10 psi for 30 minutes.

33) The shortest time required to kill all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the A) thermal deathpoint (TDP). B) thermal death time(TDT). C) sporicidal time (ST). D) death phase point (DPP).

34)

Disinfection of beverages, such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by

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A) pasteurization. B) chlorination. C) moist heatautoclave. D) filtration. E) boiling water.

35)

Electrons are ejected from atoms in cells when organisms are exposed to A) dessication. B) ultravioletlight. C) ethyl alcohol. D) hydrogenperoxide. E) gamma rays and X-rays.

36)

Which of the following items are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes? A) Ground beef and other meat and poultry B) Human tissues such as heart valves and skin C) Operating room air D) Surgical gloves E) All of the choices are correct.

37)

HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from A) air. B) liquids. C) human tissues. D) medicalinstruments. E) All of the choices are correct.

38)

Which of the following does not contain a heavy metal?

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A) Tincture of iodine B) Merthiolate C) Silver nitrate solutions D) Zinc E) Mercurochrome

39)

All of the following are phenols or phenolics except A) creolin. B) hexachlorophene. C) bisphenol. D) cresols. E) chloramines.

40)

The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are A) naked viruses. B) vegetativebacteria and fungi. C) endospores. D) protozoancysts. E) Mycobacterium and Staphylococcus.

41) Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing Mycobacteriumin a capped culture tube? A) Ultraviolet (germicidal) light B) Gamma rays C) 121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes D) 160°C for 2 hours E) All of the choices are correct.

42)

All of the following pertain to hypochlorites, except

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A) they release hypochlorous acid in solution. B) they cause denaturation of enzymes. C) they are found in iodophors. D) they are used to disinfect restaurant and medical equipment. E) they are found in common household bleach.

43)

Iodophors include A) chloramines. B) povidone iodine. C) tincture of iodine. D) alcohols. E) chlorhexidine.

44)

Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic? A) Iodophor B) Chlorhexidine C) 3% hydrogen peroxide D) Ethyl alcohol E) Aqueous glutaraldehyde

45) Which of the following compounds is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings, used increasingly for hand scrubbing, neonatal washes, wound degerming, and prepping surgical skin sites? A) Carbolic acid B) Chlorhexidine C) Triclosan D) Formalin E) Quarternary ammonium compounds

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46)

Alcohols A) denature proteinswhen in a 50–95% solution. B) are used todisinfect items by soaking. C) are skin degermingagents. D) at 50% or higherconcentrations dissolve cell membrane lipids. E) All of the choices are correct.

47)

Which of the following "agent - category" pairs is mismatched? A) sodium hypochlorite – chlorine B) iodophor – iodine C) benzalkoniumchloride – quaternary ammonium compound D) chlorhexidine – alcohol E) formalin – formaldehyde

48)

All of the following are correct about iodophors, except A) they are complexesof iodine and a neutral polymer. B) this formulationallows a quick release of free iodine. C) this formulationincreases its penetration. D) it is less proneto staining or irritating tissue. E) a common iodophor is Betadine.

49)

The sterilizing gas that requires use in a special chamber is A) ethyleneoxide. B) iodophor. C) ethyl alcohol. D) formaldehyde. E) chlorine dioxide.

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50) The chemical agent(s) that produces highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals and also decomposes to O 2 gas is/are A) Cidex. B) cationic detergents. C) hydrogen peroxide. D) chlorhexidine. E) iodophors.

51)

All the following are correct about detergents except A) they are polarmolecules that act as surfactants. B) the most effectiveones are positively charged. C) in lowconcentrations they are bacteriostatic. D) they areineffective against the tuberculosis bacteria. E) they are active in the presence oforganic matter.

52)

Ethylene oxide is A) sporicidal. B) only effective withhigh heat. C) the active agent inhousehold bleach. D) used as anantiseptic against anaerobes. E) a halogen.

53) Which of the following is being used to replace hypochlorites in treating water because of the possibility of cancer-causing substances being produced?

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A) Hydrogen peroxide B) Chloramines C) Fluorine D) Quaternary ammonium compounds E) Sodium iodide

54)

Which of the following is officially accepted as a sterilant and high-level disinfectant? A) Benzalkonium chloride B) Silver nitrate C) Glutaraldehyde D) Triclosan E) Cresol

55)

Which of the following chemicals is a disinfectant for soft contact lenses? A) Hydrogen peroxide B) Alcohol C) Hexachlorophene D) Glutaraldehyde E) Hypochorites

56)

All of the following are correct about food irradiation except A) food is not maderadioactive by the process. B) the World HealthOrganization does not endorse this process. C) it is approved inthe U.S. for beef, chicken, and pork. D) it can lead to alonger shelf life for the irradiated food. E) no irradiated food can be sold withoutclear labeling.

57)

All of the following are true of food irradiation except

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A) it can killbacterial pathogens on the food. B) it can killinsects on the food. C) it can inhibit thesprouting of white potatoes. D) it can reduce thenumber of food-borne deaths each year. E) it makes the food less nutritious.

58)

All of the following are methods of disinfection or sterilization except A) gammaradiation. B) dry oven. C) lyophilization. D) triclosan. E) ethanol.

59)

What type of molecule can be denatured by heat or changes in pH? A) Carbohydrate B) Lipid C) Protein D) Simple Sugar

60)

Which common hospital pathogen is able to grow abundantly in soap dishes? A) Escherichiacoli B) Pseudomonas C) Hemophilusinfluenzae D) Mycobacteria tuberculosis E) Salmonella

61)

All of the following are correct about the autoclave except

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A) it is important notto overload the chamber. B) it is effective forsterilizing powders, oils, and waxy substances. C) the duration of theprocess depends on how full the chamber is. D) it is thetemperature that kills the microbes, not the pressure by itself. E) sterilization is achieved when steamcondenses against the objects in the chamber and raises their temperatures.

62) Using toilet bowl cleaner and nonionizing radiation on inanimate surfaces only removes or kills vegetative bacteria. The term that best describes this action is A) sterilization. B) disinfection. C) antisepsis. D) degermation.

63)

Which of the following types of agents targets protein conformation? A) Detergents B) Ultraviolet light C) Alcohol D) Hydrogen peroxide E) Crystal violet

64)

Which metal(s) has antimicrobial properties associated with it? A) Silver B) Gold C) Tin D) Aluminum E) Both silver and gold

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65) Commercial products containing which types of chemicals are more effective at killing microorganisms? A) Bacteriostatic B) Bacteriocidal C) Carbohydrate D) Lead

66)

Moist heat damages microorganisms by A) oxidation of cellular components. B) damaging the phospholipid bilayer. C) damaging the cells nucleic acids. D) denaturing and coagulating cellular proteins.

67)

Which method of microbial control destroys microorganisms by oxidation of cells? A) Steam autoclave B) Glutaraldehyde C) UV radiation D) Incineration

68) The thermal death time for E. coli at 63°C was determined to be 20 minutes. Predict the effect on thermal death time if the temperature is increased to 67°C. A) The thermal death time will be longer. B) The thermal death time will be shorter. C) There will be no change in thermal death time. D) There is not enough information to make this prediction.

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69) The thermal death point of a strain of Stapylcococcus aureus was determined to be 63°C. How would the the thermal death point of Bacillus subtilis compare? A) The thermal death point of Bacillus subtilis would be just slightly higher than that of Staphylococcus aureus. B) The thermal death point of Bacillus subtilis would be significantly higher than that of Staphylococcus aureus. C) The thermal death point of Bacillus subtilis would be the same as that of Staphylococcus aureus. D) The thermal death point of Bacillus subtilis would be lower than that of Staphylococcus aureus.

70) Which of the following sequences of DNA would most likely be damaged by UV radiation? A) AGTACGCAT B) AGTTCGCTT C) AGAGCGCAT D) ATAGAGCGC

71)

Which molecule is composed of long chains of nucleic acids? A) Protein B) Lipid C) DNA D) Carbohydrate

72) A recirculating fountain is contaminated with Cryptosporidium, whose spores are resistant to chlorination and small enough to pass through swimming pool filters. What is the best water treatment option?

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A) Only use autoclaved water B) Increase the concentration of chlorine in the water C) Integrate ultraviolet light into the filtration system D) Switch from chlorine treatment to treatment with gluteraldehyde

73)

Which of the following does not kill microorganisms? A) Filtration B) Autoclaving C) Nonionizing radiation D) Ionizing radiation

74) You are a scientist isolating a particular microbe from a water sample. As a first step, you need to inoculate a broth culture with your microbe using a sterile loop. Which of the following is the most appropriate way to sterilize your loop before inoculation? Consider effectiveness, time, and safety. A) Wash the loop with soapy water. B) Sterilize the loop by exposure to gamma radiation. C) Sterilize loop by exposure in an ethylene oxide chamber for 1-2 hours. D) Sterilize the loop by using a bunsen burner at your bench.

75)

To make a4% formalinaqueous solution, which should you dissolve the formaldehyde in? A) Water B) Alcohol C) Water and alcohol D) Chloroform

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FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 76) Vials of microorganisms that undergo the freeze-drying process called __________ will remain preserved and viable for years.

77) A method for sterilizing milk, called __________ temperature treatment, uses 134°C for 1 to 2 seconds.

78) __________ radiation excites atoms to a higher energy state within molecules such as DNA that then leads to the formation of pyrimidine dimers.

79) Some microbial control agents are able to __________ cell proteins by breaking bonds that maintain the native state, three-dimensional configuration of the proteins.

80)

__________ filters are widely used to provide a flow of sterile air to hospital rooms.

81) __________ is a halogen used in gaseous and liquid form for large-scale disinfection of drinking water and sewage.

82) __________ or steam sterilization is the process by which steam is heated under pressure to sterilize objects.

83) A solution made by dissolving a chemical in a mixture of water and alcohol is called a __________.

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SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 84) Compare and contrast antisepsis, disinfection, sanitization, and sterilization with regard to techniques used and level of microbial control achieved.

85) Discuss the purpose and level of control achieved by pasteurization. Compare the flash and batch methods.

86) Explain why boiling water is considered disinfection, not sterilization. List three materials commonly disinfected by boiling water.

87) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of irradiating food. Include examples of foods that are irradiated.

88) Discuss the technique of filtration as a microbial control method, why it's utilized, and specific materials that are filtered.

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89) For each item listed below, select a sterilant that you feel is the most suitable and effective for that item. Discuss why you selected each sterilant. A) plastic Petri dishes to be used for nutrient media B) glass tubes of bacterial cultures to be discarded C) sterile milk D) dozens of reusable glass pipets E) bone tissue for grafting F) room air G) hospital mattresses H) biopsy tissue for histology analysis I) plastic respiratory therapy equipment and arthroscopes J) vaccines

90) Explain why bacteria can acquire resistance to antibiotics relatively easily, but not resistance to chemical agents such as disinfectants and antiseptics.

91) Describe how washing with Dial antibacterial hand soap effectively reduces the number of bacteria on hands. What are the physical and chemical mechanisms of action of soaps?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 11_11e 1) FALSE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) A 19) D 20) D 21) E 22) B 23) D 24) D 25) A 26) C Version 1

27) D 28) C 29) D 30) A 31) E 32) A 33) B 34) A 35) E 36) E 37) A 38) A 39) E 40) B 41) A 42) C 43) B 44) E 45) B 46) E 47) D 48) B 49) A 50) C 51) E 52) A 53) B 54) C 55) A 56) B Version 1

57) E 58) C 59) C 60) B 61) B 62) B 63) C 64) E 65) B 66) D 67) D 68) B 69) B 70) B 71) C 72) C 73) A 74) D 75) A 76) lyophilization 77) ultrahigh 78) Nonionizing 79) denature 80) HEPA 81) Chlorine 82) Autoclaving 83) tincture

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CHAPTER 12 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) When a patient’s immune system reacts adversely to a drug, this serious side effect is called a superinfection. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) A semisynthetic antibiotic is a drug which is chemically modified in the laboratory after being isolated from natural sources. ⊚ ⊚

Species of Bacillus produce bacitracin and the polymyxins. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Ciprofloxacin is used to treat viral respiratory infections. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Resistance factor plasmids are transferred to other bacterial cells during transformation, transduction, and conjugation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) The MIC is the smallest concentration of an antimicrobic required to inhibit the growth of the microbe. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Drugs that are hepatotoxic cause damage to a patient’s kidneys. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) The Kirby-Bauer test uses an agar surface, seeded with the test bacterium, to which small discs containing a specific concentration of several drugs are placed on the surface. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) An antimicrobic with a low therapeutic index is a safer choice compared to a drug with a high therapeutic index. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Moxifloxacin, a fluoroquinolone, kills viruses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) The development of successful antiviral drugs has been relatively easy because viral structure is so different from the structure of eukaryotic cells. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

The ideal drug is difficult to administer and unable to reach the infection within the body. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

13) An antibiotic that was "pharmed" directly from a microorganism is considered semisynthetic. ⊚ ⊚

14)

Oseltamivir prevents viral budding. ⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

An additional drug that disrupts nucleic acids is rifampin. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

Staphylococcus infections can be treated with penicillins. ⊚ ⊚

16)

true false

Azoles are broad-spectrum antifungal agents with a complex ringed structure. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 18) Which is mismatched? A) Fleming–penicillin B) Domagk–sulfonamide C) Ehrlich–tetracycline D) Florey and Chain–penicillin

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19)

Salvarsan was A) discovered in the mid 1900s. B) used to treatsyphilis. C) formulated fromthe red dye prontosil. D) first discoveredas a product of Penicillium notatum. E) discovered by Robert Koch.

20) Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called A) antibiotics. B) narrow-spectrumdrugs. C) semisyntheticdrugs. D) syntheticdrugs. E) broad-spectrum drugs.

21)

Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed A) antibiotics. B) narrow-spectrumdrugs. C) semisyntheticdrugs. D) syntheticdrugs. E) broad-spectrum drugs.

22)

Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include A) readily deliveredto the site of infection. B) high toxicityagainst microbial cells. C) do not causeserious side effects in humans. D) remains active inbody tissues and fluids. E) All of these choices are correct.

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23)

Antibiotics are derived from all the following except A) Penicillium. B) Bacillus. C) Staphylococcus. D) Streptomyces. E) Cephalosporium.

24)

Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body’s normal microbiota often cause A) nephrotoxicity. B) superinfections. C) allergicreactions. D) drug toxicity. E) All of these choices are correct.

25)

Penicillins and cephalosporins A) interfere with DNAsynthesis. B) are metabolicanalogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis. C) attach to the 30Sribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. D) damage cellmembranes. E) block the peptidases that cross-linkglycan molecules.

26)

Sulfonamides A) interfere withelongation of peptidoglycan. B) are metabolicanalogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis. C) attach to the 30Sribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. D) damage cellmembranes. E) block peptidases that cross-link glycanmolecules.

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27)

Aminoglycosides A) interfere withelongation of peptidoglycan. B) are metabolicanalogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis. C) attach to the 30Sribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis. D) damage cellmembranes. E) block peptidases that cross-link glycanmolecules.

28)

Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have A) a beta-lactamring. B) resistance to theaction of penicillinase. C) a semisyntheticnature. D) an expandedspectrum of activity. E) All of the choices are correct.

29)

A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is A) synercid. B) penicillinase. C) aztreonam. D) clavulanicacid. E) imipenem.

30)

All of the following pertain to cephalosporins except A) they have abeta-lactam ring. B) greaterresistance to beta-lactamases. C) newer generationshave activity against gram negatives. D) many administeredby injection not orally. E) they are synthetic drugs.

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31)

Which antimicrobic does not inhibit cell wall synthesis? A) Gentamicin B) Vancomycin C) Cephalosporins D) Penicillins E) Clavamox

32)

Gram-negative bacilli are often treated with A) penicillin G. B) vancomycin. C) aminoglycosides. D) synercid. E) isoniazid.

33)

Which of these drugs is used to treat cases of tuberculosis? A) penicillin G. B) vancomycin. C) aminoglycosides. D) synercid. E) isoniazid.

34)

Which antimicrobic does not interfere with protein synthesis? A) Aminoglycosides B) Tetracyclines C) Erythromycin D) Trimethoprim E) Chloramphenicol

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35) Which of these drugs is useful in treating infections by methicillin-resistant S. aureus and vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus? A) Tetracycline B) Isoniazid C) Linezolid D) Aminoglycosides E) Cephalosporins

36)

All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones except A) they are broad spectrum. B) they include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin. C) they are nephrotoxic. D) they areused to treat respiratory, urinary, and sexually transmitted infections. E) they work by inhibiting bacterial DNAreplication.

37)

Antimicrobics that are macrolides A) disrupt cellmembrane function. B) includetetracyclines. C) includeazithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin. D) are verynarrow-spectrum drugs. E) are hepatotoxic.

38) The drug that can cause aplastic anemia, and is used to treat typhoid fever and brain abscesses is

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A) chloramphenicol. B) clindamycin. C) ciprofloxacin. D) bacitracin. E) gentamicin.

39) The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal microbiota causing antibiotic-associated colitis is A) chloramphenicol. B) clindamycin. C) ciprofloxacin. D) bacitracin. E) gentamicin.

40) The most versatile and useful antifungal drug that is used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is A) nystatin. B) griseofulvin. C) amphotericinB. D) sulfa drugs. E) metronidazole.

41)

The drug used for several protozoan infections is A) nystatin. B) griseofulvin. C) amphotericinB. D) sulfa drugs. E) metronidazole.

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42)

Mebendazole, niclosamide, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat _____ infections. A) bacterial B) fungal C) protozoan D) helminthic E) virus

43) Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat _____ infections. A) bacterial B) fungal C) protozoan D) helminthic E) virus

44) There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because these organisms A) do not cause manyhuman infections. B) are not affectedby antimicrobics. C) are so similar tohuman cells that selective drug toxicity is difficult to achieve. D) are parasitesfound inside human cells. E) have fewer target sites compared tobacteria.

45)

Which of the following is not a mode of action of an antiviral?

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A) Blockviral entry into a host cell B) Block transcription and translation C) Inhibit DNA synthesis D) Block maturation E) Bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane

46)

An antiviral that is a nucleotide analog would have an antiviral mode of action that A) blockspenetration. B) blocks DNAreplication. C) inhibits peptidoglycan cross-linking. D) blocksmaturation. E) bonds to ergosterol in the cellmembrane.

47)

Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat A) influenza Avirus. B) HIV. C) herpes zostervirus. D) respiratorysyncytial virus. E) hepatitis C virus.

48)

Acyclovir is used to treat A) influenza Avirus. B) HIV. C) shingles,chickenpox, and genital herpes. D) respiratorysyncytial virus. E) hepatitis C virus.

49)

The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include

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A) bacterialchromosomal mutations. B) synthesis ofenzymes that alter drug structure. C) prevention of drugentry into the cell. D) alteration of drugreceptors on cell targets. E) All of these choices are correct.

50)

The multidrug-resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes cause A) bacterialchromosomal mutations. B) synthesis ofenzymes that alter drug structure. C) removal of drugs from the cell. D) alteration of drug receptors on cell targets. E) All of these choices are correct.

51) Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobic drugs include all the following except A) development ofresistance to the drug. B) hepatotoxicity. C) nephrotoxicity. D) diarrhea. E) deafness.

52)

A superinfection results from A) buildup of a drug to toxic levels in the patient. B) the wrong drugadministered to the patient. C) an immune systemreaction to the drug. D) decrease in most normal microbiota with overgrowth of an unaffected species. E) All of these choices are correct.

53)

Drug susceptibility testing

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A) determines the patient’s response to various antimicrobics. B) determines the pathogen’s response to various antimicrobics. C) determines ifnormal flora will be affected by antimicrobics. D) determines if thedrug is increasing to toxic levels in a patient. E) determines the pathogen’s identity.

54) A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobics in broth, and then incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patient’s isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up? A) Kirby-Bauer test B) antibiogram C) E-test D) minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) E) therapeutic index (TI)

55) A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the A) Kirby-Bauertechnique. B) antibiogram. C) E-test. D) minimuminhibitory concentration (MIC). E) therapeutic index (TI).

56)

Antimicrobics effective against only gram-positive bacteria would be termed A) antibiotics. B) narrow-spectrumdrugs. C) semisyntheticdrugs. D) syntheticdrugs. E) broad-spectrum drugs.

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57) Which of the following will influence a physician’s decision to prescribe an antimicrobial? A) Patient age B) Pregnancy C) Liver function D) Alcohol use E) All of these choices are correct.

58)

All of the following could be reasons why antimicrobic treatment fails except A) the inability ofthe drug to diffuse into the infected body compartment. B) a mixed infectionwhere some of the pathogens are drug resistant. C) not completingthe full course of treatment. D) a disk diffusiontest showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic. E) diminished gastrointestinal absorptiondue to an underlying condition or age.

59)

All of the following are correct about allergic reactions to drugs except A) the drug acts asan antigen. B) the greatestnumber of antimicrobic allergies are to the penicillins. C) hives may be theresult after the drug is taken. D) anaphylaxis canoccur. E) allergic reactions generally will occurthe first time a person takes the drug.

60) Which organ is responsible for metabolizing and detoxifying foreign chemicals in the blood, including drugs?

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A) Liver B) Kidneys C) Gallbladder D) Spleen E) Stomach

61) Which of the following antimicrobials is contraindicated for children due to permanent tooth discoloration? A) Penicillin G B) Tetracycline C) Gentamicin D) Vancomycin E) Erythromycin

62)

Why has the United States and Europe banned the use of human drugs in animal feeds? A) Because it makesthe animals grow too large. B) Because it causesinfections in the cows and poultry fed them. C) Because it raisesthe price of the meat too high. D) Because itcontributes to the growing drug resistance problem. E) All of these choices are correct.

63)

All of the following are correct about Tamiflu and Relenza except A) they should begiven early in an infection. B) they preventassembly and release of the virus. C) they are used totreat infections by influenza A and B. D) they inhibitfusion and uncoating of the virus. E) they are effective prophylactics forinfluenza.

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64)

What is vancomycin most often used to treat? A) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus B) Clostridiumdifficile C) Streptococcuspyogenes D) Escherichia coli E) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus and Clostridium difficile

65)

Which of the following describes the mechanism of action for zidovudine?

A) It is a thymine analog that interferes with the synthesis of DNA from the HIV RNA template. B) It directly bindsto reverse transcriptase and prevents reverse transcription of HIV RNA. C) It inhibits theassembly of HIV particles. D) It inhibits fusionof the viral envelope and host cell envelope. E) It prevents theviral DNA from integrating in the host chromosome.

66) Janice has just had hip replacement surgery and her physician has prescribed antibiotics and directed her to take them every time she has a dental appointment. This is an example of antibiotic A) synergy. B) prophylaxis. C) allergy. D) abuse.

67) While trying to start an IV on a patient, Kurt received a needlestick injury and blood exposure involving a patient with AIDS. He was immediately started on three differentantiretroviral medications. The advantage of using combined therapy in this circumstance is

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A) the duration of treatment is much shorter. B) the drugs only work if given together. C) cost savings to the patient. D) this should prevent the emergence of drug-resistant microbes.

68)

One of the greatest challenges in development of antivirals is finding drugs that are A) administered orally. B) absorbed by the GI tract. C) not likely to disrupt the normal microbiota of the patient. D) selectively toxic for viruses.

69) Which of the following is/are true of antibiotic usage and the development of antibiotic resistance? A) Antibiotics cause mutations (antibiotics are mutagens), thus resulting in increasingly resistant bacterial populations. B) Antibiotics increase the rate of bacterial transformation, conjugation, and transduction, and thus increase the spread of antibiotic resistance. C) Antibiotics cause R-plasmids to form and cause their transfer, spreading antibioticresistance. D) Antibiotics select for resistant mutants and bacteria possessing R-plasmids, increasing their frequency in the population. E) All of these choices are correct.

70)

Which is the best guide for selecting an effective antibiotic? A) Results of antimicrobial susceptibility testing B) Identification of the microbe causing the infection C) History of prior antibiotics prescribed for the patient D) Location of the patient’s infection

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71) All of the following information should be considered in managing antimicrobial drugs for a patient, except A) possible allergies. B) liver and/or kidney disease. C) age of patient. D) other drugs the patient is taking. E) There are no exceptions. All of this information is important.

72)

All of the following are problems in the management of antibiotic usage, except A) the selection of antibiotics based on results of appropriate antibiotic susceptibility

testing. B) the sale of many antibiotics over-the-counter in foreign countries. C) extensive use of broad-spectrum drugs for minor infections. D) the use of antibiotics for upper respiratory viral infections. E) There are no exceptions here. All of these are challenges in the management of antibiotic usage.

73)

Antibiotics formed from Streptomyces include all of the following except A) streptomycin. B) penicillin. C) tetracycline. D) vancomycin.

74)

Taking multiple drugs at the same time to fight an infection is called A) prophylaxis. B) broad-spectrum. C) combined therapy. D) narrow-spectrum.

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75)

Which of the following inhibits folic acid synthesis? A) Fluoroquinolones B) Trimethoprim C) Penicillins D) Macrolides

76) If a patient entered who shows signs of blood veins heavily dilated in their eye, you would conclude they had A) chlamydia. B) typhus. C) strep throat. D) tuberculosis.

77) Name the drugs that are similar to penicillins but with greater resistance to beta-lactam rings. A) Macrolides B) Streptomycins C) Tetracyclines D) Carbapenems

78) This % of infections involves biofilms, complex communities of microorganisms growing within an extracellular matrix. A) 40 B) 50 C) 60 D) 70

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FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 79) _____ are plasmids that contain genes for resistance to a drug.

80)

Sulfonamides are analogs of PABA and, as a result, they inhibit _____ synthesis.

81) The macrolide, __________, is a useful substitute for dealing with penicillin-resistant Streptococci.

82) ________ are preparations of live microorganisms that are fed to animals and humans to modify the intestinal microbiota.

83)

The major source of naturally produced penicillin is the mold _____.

84) If pathogen A is more resistant to an erythromycin disc on a Kirby-Bauer plate compared to pathogen B, then pathogen A will have a _____ zone of inhibition compared to pathogen B.

85) The goal of ____________ __________ is to administer to an infected person a drug that destroys the infectious agent.

86)

The ability of an antibiotic to inhibit only certain microbes is considered _____ ______.

87)

__________ is used to break down the buildup of free toxic radicals in protozoa.

88) ___________ is a drug used to combat helminths, a side effect includes paralyzing the muscular system.

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89) A/An ________ _________ drug will be effective on both gram-positive and gramnegative bacteria, but not in a wide range.

90)

Drugs that affect the bacterial cell wall tend to cause _____ of the cell due to weakness.

91)

________ ________ are drugs that disrupt the normal enzyme-substrate interaction.

92) Cephalosporins are given orally, when poorly absorbed from the intestine they must be administered _________________.

93)

________ cause loss of selective permeability in the cell membrane.

94) __________ is a combination drug approved for both ongoing infections along with preexposure and post-exposure prophylaxis.

95)

Polyene drugs bind to fungal __________ and cause loss of selective permeability.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 96) Discuss the problems with development of antifungal, antiprotozoan, antihelminth, and antiviral drugs compared to the antibacterial drugs. Discuss at least 3 different modes of action that have been developed for these drugs.

97)

Describe how the therapeutic index of a drug is determined and explain its function.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 12_11e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) C 19) B 20) A 21) E 22) E 23) C 24) B 25) E 26) B Version 1

27) C 28) A 29) D 30) E 31) A 32) C 33) E 34) D 35) C 36) C 37) C 38) A 39) B 40) C 41) E 42) D 43) B 44) C 45) E 46) B 47) B 48) C 49) E 50) C 51) A 52) D 53) B 54) D 55) E 56) B Version 1

57) E 58) D 59) E 60) A 61) B 62) D 63) B 64) E 65) A 66) B 67) D 68) D 69) D 70) A 71) E 72) A 73) B 74) C 75) B 76) A 77) D 78) C 79) R factors 80) folic acid 81) erythromycin 82) Probiotics 83) Penicillium chrysogenum 84) smaller 85) antimicrobial therapy 86) selectively toxic Version 1

87) Metronidazole 88) Piperazine 89) extended-spectrum 90) lysis 91) Metabolic analog 92) parenterally 93) Polyenes 94) Truvada 95) cell membranes

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CHAPTER 13 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Most of the skin's resident flora is found in the uppermost, superficial layers of the epidermis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Under certain circumstances, a person's resident flora can be opportunistic pathogens. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) The virulence factors of a pathogen are established by how strong or weak a patient's body defenses are at the time of infection. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention assigns the most virulent microbes known to cause human disease to Biosafety Level 4. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) A fetus can get an infection when a pathogen in the mother's blood is capable of crossing the placenta to the fetal circulation and tissues. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) When an infected person is in the incubation period, that person cannot transmit the pathogen to others. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Septicemia means that a pathogen is present and multiplying in the blood. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Sentinel animals are monitored for specific diseases in order to determine the potential for human exposure to a disease. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Fomites, food, and air serve as indirect transmission routes of pathogens. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) The implementation of universal blood and body fluid precautions assumes that any and all patient specimens may harbor infectious agents and must be handled with the same degree of care. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) The human immune system develops germ-free in the placenta, prior to any introduction to a microbe. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) For a given pathogen and host, the portal of entry and the portal of exit are always the same. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

13)

The infectious dose of a pathogen is directly related to its portal of entry. ⊚ ⊚

true false

14) The specific portal of exit from a host is a pathogen strategy to promote transmission to the next host. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) Epidemiology is only concerned with study of the frequency and distribution of infectious diseases. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 16) Infection occurs when A) contaminants arepresent on the skin. B) a person swallows microbes in or on food. C) a person inhalesmicrobes in the air. D) pathogens enter andmultiply in body tissues. E) All of the choices are correct.

17)

All infectious diseases

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A) arecontagious. B) only occur inhumans. C) are caused bymicroorganisms or their products. D) are caused byvectors. E) involve viruses as the pathogen.

18)

Which is not the terminology used for resident flora? A) Pathogenicflora B) Normal flora C) Indigenousflora D) Normalmicroflora E) All of the choices are correct.

19)

Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are A) in food. B) the patient's ownnormal flora. C) on fomites. D) in the air. E) transmitted from one person toanother.

20)

The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora A) before birth, inutero. B) during and immediately after birth. C) when a child firstgoes to school. D) when an infantgets its first infectious disease. E) during puberty.

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21)

Resident microbiota are found in/on the A) skin. B) mouth. C) nasalpassages. D) largeintestine. E) All of the choices are correct.

22)

All of the following genera are considered resident microbiota of skin sites, except A) Escherichia. B) Staphylococcus. C) Corynebacterium. D) Micrococcus. E) Mycobacterium.

23)

Resident flora of the intestines include A) Streptococcus. B) Bacteroides. C) Staphylococcus. D) Haemophilus. E) All of the choices are correct.

24) Which genus is resident flora of the mouth, large intestine, and, from puberty to menopause, the vagina? A) Lactobacillus B) Streptococcus C) Haemophilus D) Escherichia E) Mycobacterium

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25)

Which genus is the most common resident flora of mouth surfaces? A) Lactobacillus B) Streptococcus C) Haemophilus D) Escherichia E) Mycobacterium

26) The body site with resident flora that produces beneficial body products, including vitamin K and several other vitamins is the A) skin. B) mouth. C) largeintestine. D) vagina. E) nasal passage.

27)

Virulence factors include all the following, except A) capsules. B) ribosomes. C) exoenzymes. D) endotoxins. E) exotoxins.

28)

STORCH is an acronym that represents the most common A) genera of residentflora. B) sexually transmitted diseases. C) portals ofentry. D) vectors. E) infections of the fetus andneonate.

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29)

Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of A) adhesivefactors. B) exotoxins. C) hemolysins. D) antiphagocytic factors. E) exoenzymes.

30)

Exotoxins are A) proteins. B) only releasedafter a cell is damaged or lysed. C) antiphagocyticfactors. D) secretions thatalways target nervous tissue. E) lipopolysaccharides.

31)

Enterotoxins are A) virulencefactors. B) toxins that targetthe intestines. C) proteins. D) exotoxins. E) All of the choices are correct.

32)

Which "factor - activity" pair is mismatched? A) fimbriae - adherence to substrate B) capsules - antiphagocytic factor C) coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots D) leukocidins - damage white blood cells E) hemolysins - damage red blood cells

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33) The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak activity is called the A) prodromalstage. B) convalescentstage. C) incubationperiod. D) period ofinvasion. E) All of the choices are correct.

34) The time from when pathogen first enters the body and begins to multiply, until symptoms first appear is the A) prodromalstage. B) convalescentstage. C) incubationperiod. D) period ofinvasion. E) All of thechoices are correct.

35) the

The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches is

A) prodromalstage. B) convalescentstage. C) incubationperiod. D) period ofinvasion. E) All of the choices are correct.

36)

Which "term - definition" pair is mismatched?

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A) Secondary infection - Infection spreads to several tissue sites B) Mixed infection - Several agents established at infection site C) Acute infection - Rapid onset of severe, short-lived symptoms D) Local infection - Pathogen remains at or near entry site E) Toxemia - Pathogen's toxins carried by the blood to target tissues

37)

The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed A) syndrome. B) symptom. C) sign. D) pathology. E) inflammation.

38)

The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed A) syndrome. B) symptom. C) sign. D) pathology. E) inflammation.

39)

Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of A) toxemia. B) inflammation. C) sequelae. D) a syndrome. E) latency.

40)

The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is

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A) pathology. B) clinicalmicrobiology. C) medicine. D) immunology. E) epidemiology.

41) The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is the A) Centers for DiseaseControl and Prevention. B) World HealthOrganization. C) National Institutesof Health. D) United StatesDepartment of Agriculture. E) Infection Control Committee.

42) The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the A) mortality rate. B) morbidity rate. C) incidence rate. D) prevalencerate. E) epidemic rate.

43)

A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a population is A) epidemic. B) endemic. C) pandemic. D) sporadic. E) chronic.

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44)

The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it persists is called the A) fomite. B) carrier. C) vector. D) reservoir. E) source.

45)

Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a A) fomite. B) carrier. C) vector. D) reservoir. E) source.

46)

An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a A) fomite. B) carrier. C) vector. D) reservoir. E) source.

47)

An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a A) fomite. B) carrier. C) vector. D) reservoir. E) source.

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48)

Which of the following is an example of vertical transmission? A) Drinking contaminated water B) A sneeze transmitting a cold C) Oral-fecal transmission involving a diaper D) A mosquito bite E) A mother transmitting syphilis to her fetus

49)

Reservoirs of pathogens include A) humans. B) animals. C) soil. D) water. E) All of the choices are correct.

50) A laboratory technician splashed a blood specimen onto his face, eyes, nose, and mouth. This specimen was from an HIV positive patient. If this blood exposure leads to HIV infection in the technician, the transmission route is A) direct. B) fomite. C) vehicle. D) droplet nuclei. E) aerosol.

51) The dried residues of fine droplets from mucus or saliva that harbor and transmit pathogens are

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A) fomites. B) aerosols. C) mechanicalvectors. D) dropletnuclei. E) biological vectors.

52) Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are A) fomites. B) aerosols. C) mechanicalvectors. D) dropletnuclei. E) biological vectors.

53)

Healthcare-associatedinfections involve all the following, except A) they are onlytransmitted by medical personnel. B) they often involvethe patient's urinary tract and surgical incisions. C) the patient'sresident flora can be the infectious agent. D) Escherichia coli and Staphylococci are common infectious agents. E) medical andsurgical asepsis help lower their occurrence.

54)

When would Koch's Postulates be utilized? A) To determine the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab B) To develop a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab C) To determine the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab D) To formulate a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab E) Whenever the scientific method is used to investigate a microbiological problem

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55)

All of the following are correct about mechanical vectors, except A) cockroaches are anexample. B) the vector cancarry the pathogen on its feet and mouthparts. C) the vector isimportant to the life cycle of the infectious agent. D) they can spreadviral, bacterial, protozoan, and worm infections. E) some, like flies, feed on garbage and feces.

56)

Which portal of entry is the most commonly used by pathogens? A) Urogenital B) Gastrointestinal C) Respiratory D) Skin E) They are all equally used as portals.

57) If the infectious dose (ID) for gonorrhea is 1,000 cells and the ID for tuberculosis is 10 cells, which organism is more virulent? A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae B) Mycobacteriumtuberculosis C) They are equally virulent. D) It is impossible to determine.

58)

A person with which occupation is most at risk for a zoonotic disease? A) Accountant B) Teacher C) Nurse D) Dental hygienist E) Forest ranger

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59)

All of the following are common signs of infectious diseases, except A) fever. B) leucopenia. C) swollen lymphnodes. D) antibodies inserum. E) nausea.

60) When a disease occurs occasionally at irregular intervals and random locales, it is referred to as A) sporadic. B) pandemic. C) endemic. D) epidemic. E) chronic.

61) Joe contracted Hepatitis A by eating contaminated doughnuts from a local bakery. The source of the disease is __________ and the reservoir is __________. A) Joe; the doughnut B) the doughnut; humans C) humans; flour D) flour; Joe E) humans; Joe

62) Marion is going to the hospital for a triple bypass operation. She will have general anesthesia, an intravenous catheter, surgical wounds, and a urinary catheter. Which healthcareassociatedinfection is she at greatest risk for contracting?

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A) Respiratory B) Septicemia C) Urinary tract D) Surgical site E) Meningitis

63) Some diseases can be vertically transmitted. This is understood to mean the disease is transmitted A) from parent tooffspring via milk, ovum, sperm, or placenta. B) from parent tooffspring via respiratory route. C) by contact betweensiblings. D) between peopleliving or working in the same building. E) between higher and lower animals.

64) A veterinary hospital had an outbreak of Salmonella infantis. Within the facility, how can Salmonellabe spread? A) Unwashed hands B) Feces C) Contaminated objects D) Multiple animals using the same stalls without proper cleaning E) All of the choices are correct.

65) A student has their teeth cleaned. The hygienist nicks their gum tissue. The student develops endocarditis due to Streptococcus. What kind of pattern of infection is this? A) Localized B) Mixed infection C) Focal D) Systemic E) All of the choices are correct.

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66) The collection of genetic material from all of the normal microbiota that reside on the human body is known as the A) human biome. B) human microbiome. C) human microcommunity. D) human genome.

67)

Of the sites listed below, which is most likely to be free of any normal microbiota? A) Large intestine B) Uterus C) Nasopharynx D) Vagina

68) A microbe such as Ebola virus that sickens most everyone that is infected would be characterized as a/an A) opportunistic pathogen. B) obligate pathogen. C) facultative pathogen. D) true pathogen.

69) Adhesive pili, exotoxins, and capsules are all microbial factors that help them establish infection. These are examples of A) virulence factors. B) infectivity factors. C) pathogenicity factors. D) exogenous factors.

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70) Experiments have been done to determine the infective dose of a specific pathogen in animals with normal microbiotaand gnotobiotic animals.Predict how the infective dose for gnotobiotic animals is expected to compare to the infective dose of animals with normal microbiota. A) The infective dose would be the same for both groups of animals. B) The infective dose would be lower for the gnotobioticanimals. C) The infective does would be higher for the gnotobiotic animals.

71) Rabid animals typically salivate excessively in the late stages of the disease. This excess salivation A) helps reduce and control the fever. B) is the result of hydrophobia. C) provides a portal of exit for the virus. D) indicates that the salivary glands are the portal of entry.

72)

All of the following are communicable diseases, except A) measles. B) botulism. C) influenza. D) pertussis (whooping cough).

73)

Select the noncommunicable disease from the list below. A) Tuberculosis B) Appendicitis C) Chicken pox D) Syphilis

74)

Universal precautions are designed to protect

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A) patients. B) health care providers. C) the general public. D) All of the choices are correct.

75) A nurse is working with her hospital’s infection control officer to reduce healthcareassociated infections (HAIs). Which strategy would likely reduce HAIs to the greatest extent? A) Ensuring adequate nutrition and hydration of her clients B) Limiting the use of urinary catheters C) Making certain that her client’s immunizations are up to date D) Requiring the use of walkers for those patients with limitedmobility

76) A client who is 22 weekspregnant asks the nurse about infections that may lead to miscarriage or birth defects. The nurse answers that all of the following except ___________ are of particular concern for pregnant women. A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Herpes Simplex Virus C) Rubella D) Cytomegalovirus

77) Which of the following is not a feature of a germ-free animal compared to an animal with a normal microbiome? A) Underdevelopment of the immune system B) Increased body fat C) Increased anxiety and nervousness D) Vitamin deficiency

78) Which of the following is not an important host factor that contributes to the success of a pathogen?

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A) Genetic mutations in immunity-related genes B) Family history of neurological disorders C) Physical and mental stress D) Surgery and organ transplants

79) Non-pathogenic microorganisms are constantly being inhaled or ingested. Which of the following is the reason why these microorganisms do not cause disease? A) They lack attachment factors and are readily expelled by the host. B) They are not ingested or inhaled in large numbers. C) They have not evolved strategies to evade host defenses. D) All of the answer choices are correct.

80) Blood is considered a portal of exit despite not having a direct route to the outside of the host. Which of the following is not an example of a blood transmission? A) A tick spreading Lyme's Disease by biting an infected host B) Contracting HIV by sharing needles C) Contracting a hemolysin-positive Staphylococcus aureus infection in an abscess D) Blood transfusions contaminated with West Nile virus

81) A child contracts tetanus after injuring their foot on a piece of glass contaminated with Clostridium tetani. While the condition is severe for the child, it is fortunate that there is no risk of them spreading tetanus to anyone else. This is because tetanus is a(an) A) disease acquired through a nonliving reservoir B) inherited genetic disease C) communicable infectious disease D) noncommunicable infectious disease

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82) Prevalence measures the total number of __________ cases of a particular disease, while Incidence measures the total number of __________ cases of the same disease. A) new; existing B) existing; new C) cured; new D) cured; existing

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 83) Leukopenia is the __________ in the level of white blood cells in a patient.

84) A __________ is an infection indigenous to animals that can, on occasion, be transmitted to humans.

85) Recuperating patients are considered __________ carriers that shed and transmit pathogens while they are recovering from an infectious disease.

86)

The presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood is referred to as __________.

87) The lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane of gram-negative cell walls is a(an) __________.

88)

Bacterial enzymes called __________ dissolve fibrin clots.

89)

The total number of deaths in a population due to a disease is the __________ rate.

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90) The set of criteria referred to as __________ are used to identify and link a specific microorganism as the etiologic agent of a new infectious disease.

91) Experiments where specific microbes are added back to germ-free animals are called __________ studies.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 92) Discuss five specific contributing factors in the occurrence of healthcareassociatedinfections, and then discuss three actions that can help decrease their rate at health care facilities.

93) Compare and contrast exotoxins and endotoxins with regard to their: a) chemical nature, b) source, c) effects on human body cells and resulting symptoms, and d) examples.

94) Select five specific virulence factors and explain how each factor increases a pathogen's virulence.

95) Describe the criteria that make up Koch's Postulates and discuss their importance in modern epidemiology.

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96)

Describe four ways to prevent any contamination in lab while making sub-cultures.

97) Describe why a host's excessive or inappropriate immune response to a pathogen can result in more significant harm to the host than the pathogen itself. Is this advantageous to the pathogen? Give an example of this interaction.

98) Vaccines are often made using the parts of a pathogen that induce the strongest immune response. Would a mutant strain ofNeisseria gonorrhoeae engineered to lack its Type IV pilus (and consequently its mechansim of attachment to the host) be a good candidate for use in a vaccine? Why or why not?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 13_11e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) D 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) E 22) A 23) B 24) A 25) B 26) C Version 1

27) B 28) E 29) E 30) A 31) E 32) C 33) D 34) C 35) A 36) A 37) B 38) C 39) B 40) E 41) A 42) C 43) B 44) D 45) B 46) C 47) A 48) E 49) E 50) C 51) D 52) E 53) A 54) C 55) C 56) C Version 1

57) B 58) E 59) E 60) A 61) B 62) D 63) A 64) E 65) C 66) B 67) B 68) D 69) A 70) B 71) C 72) B 73) B 74) D 75) C 76) A 77) B 78) B 79) D 80) C 81) D 82) B 83) decrease 84) zoonosis 85) convalescent 86) bacteremia Version 1

87) endotoxin 88) kinases 89) mortality 90) Koch's Postulates 91) gnotobiotic

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CHAPTER 14 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Genetic differences among species, and within a species, can convey genetic immunity to certain diseases. ⊚ ⊚

Plasma is also called lymph. ⊚ ⊚

true false

B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes mature in the thymus gland. ⊚ ⊚

true false

PAMPs are molecules shared by many microorganisms but not present in mammals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Dermicidinis an antimicrobic peptide secreted by skin cells, which breaks down bacterial membranes and causes them to lyse. ⊚ true ⊚ false

Complement proteins are produced by the spleen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Certain complement components stimulate inflammation and phagocytosis.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Inflammatory responses are orchestrated by the immune system and are part of the body's third line of defense. ⊚ ⊚

Endotoxin is an exogenous pyrogen. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

During phagocytosis, intracellular digestion begins as soon as the phagosome is formed. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

Tachypenea is a sign of rapid breathing. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) As a physical barrier, the flushing of sweat glands helps remove microbes as a part of the first line of defense. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Individuals have the ability to possess genetic resistance to certain infections. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14)

Serum has the same composition as plasma. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) One of the chief functions of inflammation is to destroy and block microbes from further invasion. ⊚ ⊚

16)

Streptococci and Gonococci are both bacteria that release pus to attract neutrophils. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

Hydrogen peroxide and myeloperoxidase are both reactive oxygen intermediates. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 18) Components of the first line of defense include all the following, except A) the tough cellsheet of the upper epidermis of the skin. B) nasal hairs. C) flushing action oftears and blinking. D) flushing action ofurine. E) phagocytic white blood cells.

19)

Nonspecific chemical defenses include

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A) lysozyme. B) lactic acid andelectrolytes of sweat. C) skin's acidic pHand fatty acids. D) stomachhydrochloric acid. E) All of these choices are correct.

20) The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is A) lactic acid. B) hydrochloricacid. C) lysozyme. D) histamine. E) bile.

21) The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the A) skin. B) respiratorytract. C) digestivetract. D) urinary tract. E) eyes.

22) Which body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid, and a tough cell barrier with its own normal flora? A) Skin B) Respiratory tract C) Digestive tract D) Urinary tract E) Eyes

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23)

Plasma A) is the liquidportion of blood in which blood cells are suspended. B) is mostlywater. C) contains albuminand globulins. D) containsfibrinogen. E) All of these choices are correct.

24)

Which of the following is an example of GALT? A) Appendix B) Lymph nodes C) Spleen D) Tonsils E) Thymus gland

25)

The blood cells that particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are A) basophils. B) eosinophils. C) neutrophils. D) monocytes. E) lymphocytes.

26) The clearance of pus, cellular debris, dead neutrophils, and damaged tissue after inflammation is performed by

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A) basophils. B) eosinophils. C) neutrophils. D) macrophages. E) lymphocytes.

27)

Which is incorrect regarding fever? A) It is present inall vertebrates. B) It stimulates the activity of T-cells. C) It is associated exclusively with bacterial infections. D) When rising, aperson feels cold. E) It inhibits the multiplication oftemperature-sensitive microorganisms.

28)

The most numerous WBCs, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are A) basophils. B) eosinophils. C) neutrophils. D) monocytes. E) lymphocytes.

29) Which cell type is phagocytic and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages? A) Basophils B) Eosinophils C) Neutrophils D) Monocytes E) Lymphocytes

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30)

All of the following pertain to platelets, except A) They contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide. B) They are also called thrombocytes. C) They originate fromcells called megakaryocytes. D) They function in blood clotting and inflammation. E) They are not whole cells but are pieces of cells.

31)

Hemopoiesis is the A) loss of blood dueto hemorrhaging. B) production of onlyred blood cells. C) production ofwhite blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. D) plugging of brokenvessels to stop bleeding. E) migration of white blood cells from theblood out to the tissues.

32)

Diapedesis is the A) loss of blood dueto hemorrhaging. B) production of onlyred blood cells. C) production of whiteblood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. D) plugging of brokenvessels to stop bleeding. E) migration of white blood cells from theblood out to the tissues.

33)

Plasma cells A) function incell-mediated immunity. B) are derived fromT-lymphocytes. C) function in bloodclotting. D) produce andsecrete antibodies. E) All of these choices are correct.

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34)

The reticuloendothelial system A) is a supportnetwork of connective tissue fibers. B) originates in thecellular basal lamina. C) provides apassageway within and between tissues and organs. D) is heavilypopulated with macrophages. E) All of these choices are correct.

35) Which of the following lymphoid organs has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood? A) Lymph nodes B) Thymus C) Spleen D) GALT E) Tonsils

36) Which structures are found along lymphatic vessels but are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck? A) Lymph nodes B) Thymus C) Spleen D) GALT E) Tonsils

37) Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood, and has hormones that function in maturation of T-lymphocytes?

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A) Lymph nodes B) Thymus C) Spleen D) GALT E) Tonsils

38)

The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as A) lymph nodes. B) thymus. C) spleen. D) GALT. E) tonsils.

39)

The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following, except A) redness. B) warmth. C) swelling. D) pain. E) chills.

40)

All the following are events of early inflammation, except A) macrophages appearfirst and begin phagocytosis. B) chemical mediatorsand cytokines are released. C) briefvasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation. D) exudate and puscan accumulate. E) capillaries become more permeableresulting in edema.

41)

Which is incorrect about inflammation?

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A) It can last hoursto years. B) Pyrogens causevasodilation and increased capillary permeability. C) Serotonin causessmooth muscle contraction. D) Fever could bebeneficial to inhibiting the pathogen. E) Basophils and mast cells releasehistamine.

42)

Which is mismatched? A) Interferon alpha and beta—inhibits viral replication B) Interleukin-2—stimulates T-cell mitosis and B-cell antibody production C) Serotonin—causes smooth muscle contraction D) Prostaglandins—activate eosinophils and B-cells E) Tumor necrosis factor—increases chemotaxis and phagocytosis

43)

Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are all A) vasoactivemediators. B) mediators of B-cell activity. C) mediators of T-cell activity. D) mediators thatincrease chemotaxis. E) fever inducers.

44)

Which white blood cells are particularly attracted to sites of parasitic infections? A) Monocytes B) Eosinophils C) Basophils D) Neutrophils E) Lymphocytes

45)

All of the following can be recognized by toll-like receptors, except

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A) double-stranded viral RNA. B) flagellin. C) host cell membraneproteins. D) lipoteichoicacid. E) lipopolysaccharide.

46) Elimination and destruction systems present in the phagolysosome include all the following, except A) bromine. B) hydroxyl freeradical. C) nitric oxide. D) lactic acid. E) lysozyme.

47)

The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are A) complements. B) interferons. C) leukotrienes. D) pyrogens. E) lysozymes.

48)

Which is incorrect about complement? A) Complement is composed of at least 26 blood proteins. B) Complement proteins only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen. C) The complement systemacts in a cascade reaction. D) Activation of complement can involve a classical pathway. E) Activation of complement can involve an alternate pathway.

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49)

The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves

A) initiation of thecascade. B) production ofinflammatory cytokines. C) the assembly of a ring-shaped protein that forms holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes. D) cleaving of C3 toyield C3a and C3b. E) C1q binds to surface receptors on amembrane.

50)

Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism? A) Inflammatoryresponse B) Phagocytosis bymacrophages and neutrophils C) Interferon D) T-cell and B-cell responses E) Anatomical barriers in the body

51) All of the following are types of granulocytes because they have prominent cytoplasmic granules when stained, except A) eosinophils. B) monocytes. C) neutrophils. D) basophils. E) They are all granulocytes.

52) All of the following are types of agranulocytes because they do not have prominent granules in their cytoplasm when stained, except

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A) T-cells. B) B-cells. C) monocytes. D) lymphocytes. E) basophils.

53) Due to the way the lymph drains from lymph nodes, cell and products of immunity continually A) enter the cardivascular system. B) enter theliver. C) enter thegastrointestinal tract. D) enter the gallbladder. E) enter the thymus gland.

54)

Joe cut his finger on a sharp twig and now is experiencing dolor. This means A) redness. B) pain. C) loss offunction. D) warmth. E) swelling.

55) Maria was scratched on her arm by her cat and the site is experiencing rubor. This means A) redness. B) pain. C) loss offunction. D) warmth. E) swelling.

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56)

The key phagocytic cells of the body are the A) neutrophils and macrophages. B) basophils and neutrophils. C) eosinophils and macrophages. D) macrophages and monocytes. E) natural killer cells.

57) Juan has influenza and has aches, pains, and a fever. His mother, a physician, tells him to take an antipyretic. What is she telling him to take? A) An antibiotic, like erythromycin B) An antiviral drug, like tamiflu C) An antihistamine D) Acetaminophen, like Tylenol E) Herbal tea with honey

58)

Joan's inflamed and painful joints are likely due to which of the following chemicals? A) Gamma interferon B) Interleukin-5 C) Prostaglandins D) Histamine E) Platelet-activating factor

59)

All of the following are correct about lymph, except A) its composition issimilar to plasma. B) it travels invessels similar to blood vessels. C) it is made mostlyof water. D) it transportsnumerous white blood cells. E) it is transported through the body bythe same pump as blood, i.e., the heart.

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60)

The contribution of B-cells is mainly in A) inflammation. B) humoralimmunity. C) complementactivity. D) cell-mediated immunity. E) phagocytosis.

61) Which of the following nonspecific mediators inhibits virus replication and cellular division while increasing some lymphocyte action? A) TNF B) IL-1 C) IL-6 D) IFN E) Chemokines

62) During what process are hypochlorite and hydrogen peroxide produced to destroy bacteria and inhibit viral replication? A) Inflammation B) Phagocytosis C) Interferon production D) Complement production E) Lysozyme production

63)

When macrophages migrate to the skin and remain there, they are called _____ cells.

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A) alveolar B) Langerhans C) GALT D) Kupffer E) dendritic

64) An individual has been born with Kartagener’s syndrome, a disorder of microtubules that impairs the motion of cilia and flagella. What type of infections would you predict would be most common in this individual? A) Respiratory B) Oral C) Gastric D) Uterine

65) Which of the following would be a likely outcome if an individual had neutrophils that were incapable of diapedesis? A) Inadequate production of antibodies B) Reduced numbers of circulating neutrophils C) Repeated bacterial infections D) Poor blood clotting E) Numerous allergies

66) There is an inherited disorder that decreases the ability of neutrophils to produce a respiratory burst.What aspect of phagocytosis will be affected by this defect? A) Attachment B) Chemotaxis C) Destruction of microbes D) Phagolysosome formation E) Ingestion

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67)

All of the following are the results of complement activation, except A) opsonization which enhances phagocytosis. B) enhanced inflammation. C) lysis of bacterial cells. D) increased antibody production.

68)

Each of the following will enhance and promote phagocytosis, except A) deposition of complement fragments on bacterial cells. B) interaction of TLRs and PAMPs. C) tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and other cytokines. D) deposition of interferon on bacterial cells.

69)

The study of all features of the body's second and third lines of defense is A) Antibiotics. B) Immunology. C) Parasitism. D) Antibodies.

70)

Which of the following is not a body compartment that participates in immune function? A) Lymphatic system B) Mononuclear phagocyte system C) Cardiovascular system D) Urinary system

71)

1-3% of leukocytes in the bloodstream are representative of

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A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) monocytes.

72)

20-35% of leukocytes in the bloodstream are representative of A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) monocytes. E) lymphocytes.

73)

0.5% of leukocytes in the bloodstream are representative of A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) monocytes.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 74) Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are called _____ because they have prominent cytoplasmic granules that, in a stained blood smear, appear with identifying, characteristic colors.

75) When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues, they are transformed by inflammatory mediators to develop into _____.

76) A person will typically experience the sensation of _____ when fever is starting to occur in the body. Version 1

77) The term _____ is given to any foreign substance that stimulates a specific immune system response.

78)

The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells.

79)

Immunities that are present at birth are considered __________.

80)

______ ______ produced by the stomach acts as a nonspecific chemical defense.

81)

Undifferentiated cells are called _______ cells.

82) ___________ cells reside throughout the mononucleur phagocyte system and are related to macrophages.

83) ___________ cells are related to T cells, but they do not possess specificity to a particular antigen.

84)

The __________ stem cell is the precursor cell for agranular leukocytes.

85) A patient consumed medium-rare game meat; the patient is more open to a ________ infection.

86)

The plasma that escapes from small vessels into the tissues is called _____.

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87) The special molecules possessed by white blood cells that act as "feelers" are termed __________.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 88) Describe the physical or anatomical barriers at the following body sites, and explain how they accomplish body defense: a) eyes, b) skin, c) gastrointestinal tract, d) respiratory tract, and e) urinary tract.

89) If a splinter of wood were to enter the skin and introduce microorganisms to that site, what specific early and late events of inflammation would respond to that newly infected tissue? Describe the sequence of signs and symptoms, vascular and tissue events, and cells and mediators involved.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 14_11e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) E 19) E 20) C 21) B 22) A 23) E 24) A 25) B 26) D Version 1

27) C 28) C 29) D 30) A 31) C 32) E 33) D 34) E 35) C 36) A 37) B 38) D 39) E 40) A 41) B 42) D 43) A 44) B 45) C 46) A 47) D 48) B 49) C 50) D 51) B 52) E 53) A 54) B 55) A 56) A Version 1

57) D 58) C 59) E 60) B 61) D 62) B 63) B 64) A 65) C 66) C 67) D 68) D 69) B 70) D 71) B 72) E 73) C 74) granulocytes 75) macrophages 76) chills 77) antigen 78) complement 79) innate 80) Hydrochloric acid 81) stem 82) Dendritic 83) Natural killer 84) lymphoid 85) Trichinella 86) exudate Version 1

87) pattern recognition receptors

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CHAPTER 15 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Antibody molecules circulate in lymph, blood, and tissue fluids. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) Scientists are currently developing bananas that synthesize proteins from pathogens, as a delivery system to vaccinate populations that otherwise would not have access to them. ⊚ ⊚

Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Alloantigens are the basis for an individual's blood group and MHC profile. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Activation of B-cells occurs when antigen bonds to B-cell surface immunoglobulin receptors. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) After secreting antibodies during an immune response, plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

7) A disadvantage of using an attenuatedlive microbe in a vaccine is that it can conceivably mutate back to a virulent strain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Autoantigens are types of self-antigens that initiate an autoimmune response that can cause damage to host tissue. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) The differences in the classes of immunoglobulins are due primarily to variations in the Fc fragment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) The albumin fraction of serum separated by electrophoresis will contain most of the antibodies. ⊚ ⊚

11)

Antibody molecules can act as enzymes to directly destroy an antigen. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

Gamma globulin can be given as immunotherapy to confer artificial passive immunity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Natural killer (NK) cells recognize and identify their targets in an immunologically nonspecific way, but then kill their targets in a manner very similar to that of T C cells.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

14) Unlike innate immunity, adaptive immunity is more specific and includes a memory of the protection. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) The adaptive immune response includes immune cells' memories of past pathogens. In the future, those immune cells will be better able to repond to a multitude of different pathogens because their "memory" is highly mutagenic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) T-cells recognize antigens better when they are presented "raw" rather than when they have been processed by macrophages, dentritic cells, and B-cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) T cells with CD8 receptors recognize antigens presented on MHC I; T cells with CD4 receptors recognize antigens presented on MHC II. ⊚ ⊚

true false

18) Breastfeeding is a valuable source of natural passive immunity because it supplements the baby with boosts of the same IgG antibodies that transversed the placenta during development. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

19) As a part of the innate immune system, natural passive immunity results in long-term protection against microbial pathogens. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 20) The bone marrow is where A) immune responses toantigen occur. B) blood stem cellsgive rise to immature lymphocytes. C) antigen is filteredfrom the blood. D) antigen is filteredfrom tissue fluid. E) T-lymphocytes complete maturation.

21)

The progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called A) antibodies. B) sensitized T-cells. C) activatedmacrophages. D) plasma cells. E) Bursa cells.

22)

Helper T-cells A) secreteantibodies. B) function inallergic reactions. C) directly destroytarget cells. D) suppress immunereactions. E) activate B-cells and other T-cells.

23)

Plasma cells

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A) secreteantibodies. B) function inallergic reactions. C) directly destroytarget cells. D) suppress immunereactions. E) activate B-cells and other T-cells.

24)

Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions A) are the result of genetic expression. B) function inrecognition of self molecules. C) participate in communication with other cells of the system. D) aid in cellulardevelopment. E) All of the choices are correct.

25)

The major histocompatibility complex is A) a group of bloodvessels that protects the nervous system. B) a set of genes thatcode for MHC cell receptors. C) also known as thecomplement system. D) located in thethymus gland. E) All of the choices are correct.

26)

Class II MHC genes code for A) certain secretedcomplement components. B) self receptorsrecognized by natural killer cells. C) all HLAantigens. D) receptors locatedprimarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells. E) All of the choices are correct.

27)

Class I MHC genes code for

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A) certain secretedcomplement components. B) markers thatdisplay unique characteristics of self. C) all HLAantigens. D) receptors locatedprimarily on macrophages and B cells. E) All of the choices are correct.

28)

Lymphocytes A) possess MHCantigens for recognizing self. B) have membranereceptors that recognize foreign antigens. C) gain tolerance toself by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self. D) develop into clones of B and T-cells with extreme variations of specificity. E) All of the choices are correct.

29)

The monomer subunit of immunoglobulin molecules has all the following, except A) two identical heavypolypeptide chains. B) two identical lightpolypeptide chains. C) disulfide bondsbetween polypeptide chains. D) four antigenbinding sites. E) a variable and constant region on eachpolypeptide chain.

30) The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is very different from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the A) variableregion. B) joiningregion. C) constantregion. D) light region. E) hinge region.

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31)

Lymphocyte maturation involves A) hormonal signalsthat initiate development. B) B-cells maturing in bone marrow sites. C) T-cells maturing in the thymus. D) release of maturelymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs. E) All of the choices are correct.

32)

Properties of effective antigens include all the following, except A) foreign to theimmune system. B) molecularcomplexity. C) large molecules with a minimum molecular weight of 10,000 MW. D) large polymers made up of identical repeating subunits. E) cells or large, complex molecules.

33) The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an A) epitope. B) hapten. C) antigen bindingsite. D) variableregion.

34) Small, foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed A) antigenic determinants. B) haptens. C) antigen binding sites. D) variable regions.

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35)

Superantigens are A) body tissues thatthe immune system mistakes as foreign. B) cell markers foundin some member of a species but not in other members. C) bacterial toxins that activate T-cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens. D) those that evokeallergic reactions.

36)

Antigen presenting cells A) include dendriticcells. B) includemacrophages. C) engulf and modifyantigen to be more immunogenic. D) hold and present processed antigen on their cell membrane surface. E) All of the choices are correct.

37)

T-cell response to T-cell-dependent antigens requires A) typically aprotein antigen. B) binding of T-cell to a Class II MHC receptor on an antigen-presenting cell. C) binding of T-cell to a site on the antigen. D) interleukin-1activating the T helper cell. E) All of the choices are correct.

38)

Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin?

A) It contains an effector molecule that can cause the release of cytokines. B) It forms theantigen binding sites. C) It contains aneffector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mastcells. D) It contains an effector molecule that can fix complement. E) It determines the class to which theimmunoglobulin belongs.

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39) Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity? A) Neutralization B) Opsonization C) Complement fixation D) Agglutination E) Anamnestic response

40)

Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates? A) Neutralization B) Opsonization C) Complement fixation D) Agglutination E) Anamnestic response

41) Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis? A) Neutralization B) Opsonization C) Complement fixation D) Agglutination E) Anamnestic response

42) Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?

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A) Neutralization B) Opsonization C) Complement fixation D) Agglutination E) Anamnestic response

43) The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM.

44)

The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM.

45) The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG E) IgM.

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46)

All of the following are characteristics of IgM, except A) it has 10 antigenbinding sites. B) it contains acentral J chain. C) it is the firstclass synthesized by a plasma cell. D) it can fixcomplement. E) it is a dimer.

47)

Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement? A) IgM only B) IgG only C) IgD only D) IgM and IgG E) IgE and IgA

48)

The immunoglobulin/s found on the surface of B-cells is/are A) IgM only. B) IgG only. C) IgD only. D) IgM and IgG. E) IgE and IgA.

49) When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin band contains mostly

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A) IgM. B) IgA. C) IgD. D) IgE. E) IgG.

50)

The most significant cells in graft rejection are A) helper T-cells. B) suppressor T-cells. C) cytotoxic T-cells. D) B-cells. E) natural killer (NK) cells.

51)

Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells? A) Helper T-cells B) Suppressor T-cells C) Cytotoxic T-cells D) Delayed hypersensitivity T-cells E) Natural killer (NK) cells

52)

Monoclonal antibodies A) originate from a single B-cell clone. B) have a singlespecificity for antigen. C) are able to differentiate healthy cells from cancerous cells. D) are used inimmunology lab tests and cancer therapy. E) All of the choices are correct.

53)

Cytotoxic T-cells

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A) stimulate B-cell proliferation. B) lack specificityfor a target cell. C) secrete granzymesand perforins that damage target cells. D) secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T-cells. E) All of the choices are correct.

54)

An example of artificial passive immunity would be

A) chickenpoxinfection is followed by lifelong immunity. B) chickenpox vaccinetriggers extended immunity to chickenpox. C) giving a personimmune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. D) a fetus acquiringmaternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.

55)

An example of natural passive immunity would be

56)

An example of artificial active immunity would be

57)

Which type of cell is severely depressed in AIDS patients?

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A) Cytotoxic T-cells B) Helper T-cells C) B-cells D) Plasma cells E) Suppressor T-cells

58)

In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is A) IgD. B) IgE. C) IgG. D) IgM. E) IgA.

59)

In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is A) IgD. B) IgE. C) IgG. D) IgM. E) IgA.

60)

All of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen except A) a higher titer ofantibody is produced than the primary response. B) a longerpersistence of antibody than with the primary response. C) a quicker rate ofantibody synthesis than the primary response. D) it is mostly IgMantibodies that are produced. E) it is also known as the anamnesticresponse.

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61) Which antibody confers the most important specific local immunity to enteric, respiratory, and genitourinary pathogens? A) IgD B) IgE C) IgG D) IgM E) IgA

62)

The process of clonal deletion is designed to

A) destroy clones oflymphocytes able to react to self molecules. B) slow down theprimary immune response to an antigen. C) slow down thesecondary immune response to an antigen. D) limit the numberof lymphocyte clones an individual has in order to make the system moreefficient. E) slow down the immune system in theelderly.

63)

Herceptin is an example of a monoclonal antibody-based drug for A) asthma. B) Crohn's disease. C) breast cancer. D) respiratorysyncytial virus. E) All of the choices are correct.

64)

Immune sera is produced in horses for all the following, except

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A) diphtheria. B) botulism. C) snake bites. D) chickenpox. E) spider bites.

65) Sam works in construction and stepped on a sharp nail. He can't remember the last time he had a tetanus shot. What type of immunity is the most important for him to receive? A) Natural active immunity B) Artificial passive immunity C) Natural passive immunity D) Artificial active immunity

66) Cody is 4 months old and is given a DTaP injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine immunization schedule. What type of immunity will develop as a result of this? A) Natural active immunity B) Artificial passive immunity C) Natural passive immunity D) Artificial active immunity

67)

Edward Jenner's work involved

A) inoculation ofdried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity. B) development ofpassive immunotherapy. C) development of animmunization to protect people against cowpox. D) immunization usinga related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a morepathogenic one. E) All of the choices are correct.

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68)

Immunotherapy is the A) use ofantitoxins. B) use of immuneserum globulin. C) conferring ofpassive immunity. D) administering ofpreformed antibodies. E) All of the choices are correct.

69)

High titers of specific antibodies are components of A) specific immuneglobulin (SIG). B) gammaglobulin. C) immune serumglobulin (ISG). D) attenuatedvaccines. E) toxoids.

70)

Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by A) removal ofvirulence genes from the microbe. B) treatment withformalin, heat, or radiation. C) passage of thepathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture. D) long-termsubculturing of the microbe. E) All of the choices are correct.

71)

Live, attenuated vaccines A) include the tuberculosis (BCG) vaccine. B) include themeasles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR). C) contain viablemicrobes that can multiply in the person. D) require smallerdoses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines. E) All of the choices are correct.

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72)

Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines A) contain modifiedbacterial exotoxin molecules. B) are alwaysgenetically engineered. C) contain selectantigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses. D) confer passiveimmunity. E) All of the choices are correct.

73)

Toxoids A) contain modifiedbacterial exotoxin molecules. B) are alwaysgenetically engineered. C) contain selectantigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses. D) confer passiveimmunity. E) All of the choices are correct.

74)

Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make A) adjuvant. B) booster. C) antibodies to toxin. D) gamma globulin. E) "Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine.

75) Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immugenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site?

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A) Adjuvant B) Booster C) Antibodies to toxin D) Gamma globulin E) "Trojan horse" recombinantvaccine

76)

Variolation involved using A) dried, groundsmallpox scabs. B) a recombinantcarrier with genetic material of the smallpox virus. C) preparations ofhuman cowpox lesions. D) antibodies to thesmallpox virus.

77)

Antitoxins A) contain antibodiesto neutralize specific toxin. B) use vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins. C) contain purified,chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin. D) include capsulematerial against the pneumococcus and meningococcus. E) contain attenuated organisms.

78)

The DTaP immunization A) contains diphtheriatoxoid. B) is administered inchildhood. C) contains tetanustoxoid. D) contains apertussis vaccine with acellular capsule material. E) All of the choices are correct.

79) Which of the immunizations would carry the greatest risk for immunocompromised patients? Version 1

A) Killed, inactivated vaccines B) Attenuated vaccines C) Toxoids D) Immune serums E) Subunit vaccines

80) Which of the following conditions have been conclusively proven to be linked to childhood vaccinations? A) Autism B) Diabetes C) Asthma D) None of the choices are correct.

81)

Reliable vaccines exist for all of the following diseases, except A) malaria. B) botulism. C) cholera. D) yellow fever. E) rabies.

82) All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines, except A) they requiresmaller doses. B) they require fewerboosters. C) they confer longerlasting protection. D) they can betransmitted to other people. E) they produce infection but notdisease.

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83)

Which of the following is not true of attenuated vaccines? A) They confer longer lasting protection than inactivated vaccines. B) They produce infection but not disease. C) They can mutate back to a virulent strain. D) They require fewer boosters than inactivated vaccines. E) They require smaller doses than inactivated vaccines.

84)

All of the following are characteristics of an effective vaccine, except A) it should have arelatively long shelf life. B) it shouldstimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response. C) it should protectagainst wild forms of the pathogen. D) it should notrequire numerous boosters. E) it should be easyto administer.

85)

Which cells' direct involvement are required for cell-mediated immunity? A) T-cells B) B-cells C) Bacterial cells D) Viral components E) Neutrophils

86)

Which sequence of events is correct for a specific immune response?

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A) Lymphocyte development, Presentation of antigens, Antibody production, Challenge of B-cells B) Lymphocyte development, Challenge of B-cells, Antibody production, Presentation of antigens C) Lymphocyte development, Presentation of antigens, B-cell challenge, Antibody production D) Antibody production, Lymphocyte production, B-cell challenge, Presentation of antigens E) Presentation of antigens, B-cell challenge, Antibody production, Lymphocyte development

87) Which kind of T-cell synthesizes perforins and granzymes to destroy viral infected cells, and cancer cells? A) T C B) T H C) CD4 D) MHC

88) During presentation of APC-bound antigen, macrophages secretea cytokinethatactivates T helper cells. What is the name of this cytokine?

A) The major histocompatibility complex B) Interleukin-2 C) IgM D) Interleukin-12

89) Which part of an antibody molecule contains the variable regions of a heavy and light chain that fold into a groove that will interact directly with and bind to a specific antigen?

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A) Fc end B) Fab ends C) Heavy chains D) Light chains E) Disulfide bonds

90) In __________ immunity, an individual makes their own antibodies in response to antigen exposure, whereas in __________ immunity, an individual receives antibodies made by another individual(s). A) artificial; active B) active; passive C) passive; active D) natural; artificial E) natural; active

91)

Primary and secondary antibody responses differ in all the following ways, except

A) IgG production predominates in secondary responses. B) the lag period between antigen stimulation and antibody response is shorter in the secondary response. C) the rate of antibody production is faster in primary responses than in secondary responses. D) primary responses are active whereas secondary responses are passive.

92) Which of the following is a distinct advantage of active immunity over passive immunity?

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A) Active immunity is always natural whereas passive immunity is frequently artificial. B) Active immunity provides IgG whereas passive immunity provides IgM. C) Active immunity enables the development of immunologic memory, whereas no memory develops with passive immunity. D) Active immunity develops very quickly whereas passive immunity may take months to develop.

93) Post-exposure prophylaxis for rabies includes shots of HRIG (human rabies immune globulin) and rabies vaccine. The HRIG provides __________ whereas the vaccine promotes the development of __________. A) artificial passive immunity; natural active immunity B) artificial passive immunity; artificial active immunity C) natural passive immunity; artificial passive immunity D) artificial active immunity; artificial passive immunity E) artificial active immunity; natural active immunity

94)

All of the following may be targeted by T

C cells,

except

A) viral-infected host cells. B) cancer cells. C) invading bacterial cells. D) cells in transplanted tissue from an imperfectly matched donor. E) All of these cells could be targeted by T c cells.

95) During a well-baby visit, the baby receives a hepatitis B vaccine. What type of immunity will this vaccination provide? A) Natural active immunity B) Natural passive immunity C) Artificial active immunity D) Artificial passive immunity

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96) Before administration of the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine, the nurse informs the client about which common side effects? A) Fever B) Blurred vision C) Seizures D) Injection site pain

97) Antibodies against chicken-pox virus will protect against subsequent chicken-pox infections but not against measles. This is because antibodies are A) specific. B) short-lived. C) sequestered to sites where chicken-pox virus infects, but not measles virus. D) None of the answers are correct. Antibodies against chicken-pox virus will protect against measles.

98)

Which of the following steps does not have to occur in the maturation of T-cells? A) Release from the bone marrow to the thymus B) Mutations to develop receptor specificity C) Presence of the specific foreign antigen recognized by a T-cell receptor D) Non-reactionary against self MHC antigens

99) The combination of a specific antigen presented by a class II MHC receptor and secretion of __________ by an antigen presenting cell activates T helper cells. A) interleukin-2 B) interleukin-12 C) CD4 D) CD8

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100)

Which of the following "T helper cell response—interleukin" pairs is incorrect? A) Anti-inflammatory—IL-17 B) B-cell proliferation—IL-10 C) Activate T-cells and B-cells—IL-2 D) Activates T helper cells—IL-12

101) Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a long-term autoimmune disorder characterized by severe inflammation in the joints. Which cytokine would you expect to find highly elevated in the fluid around inflamed joints in a patient with RA? A) IL-1 B) IL-2 C) IL-10 D) IL-17

102) Cytotoxic T cells are activated by antigen/MHC I and binding to their __________ receptor. A) CD4 B) CD8 C) MHC II D) All of these receptors bindings are required for activation.

103)

Which of the following is not a feature of a natural killer cell? A) They originate from lymphocyte stem cells. B) They produce granzymes and perforins. C) They provide "memory" against reoccurring cancer cells. D) They lack antigen receptors.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 104) Each genetically distinct group of lymphocytes that possesses the same specificity is called a __________.

105) Certain body sites contain sequestered molecules, called __________ that escaped assessment during development of immune tolerance and are mistaken as foreign.

106)

Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called __________.

107)

The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is __________.

108) Adaptive immunity involves the development of __________, the ability of the body to interact with a wide spectrum of foreign substances.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 109) Discuss, in detail, all the genetic and cellular events encompassed in the clonal selection theory of lymphocyte development.

110) Describe the characteristics that distinguish the following: a) antigen, b) hapten, c) antigenic determinant, d) alloantigen, e) heterophilic antigen, and f) autoantigen.

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111) Discuss the various ways by which antibodies interact with antigen and facilitate antigen inhibition or destruction.

112) Describe the major histocompatability complex with regard to its: a) location, b) composition, c) relationship to specific cell markers, and d) role in regulation of immune reactions.

113) Compare and contrast the innate and adaptive immune system, particularly in regards to cell types and organ systems involved, the interaction between pathogens and host that illicit the immune response, and the longevity of the response.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 15_11e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) B 21) D 22) E 23) A 24) E 25) B 26) D Version 1

27) B 28) E 29) D 30) A 31) E 32) D 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) E 37) E 38) B 39) A 40) D 41) B 42) E 43) A 44) D 45) C 46) E 47) D 48) C 49) E 50) C 51) E 52) E 53) C 54) C 55) D 56) B Version 1

57) B 58) D 59) C 60) D 61) E 62) A 63) C 64) D 65) B 66) D 67) D 68) E 69) A 70) B 71) E 72) C 73) A 74) E 75) A 76) A 77) A 78) E 79) B 80) D 81) A 82) D 83) C 84) B 85) A 86) C Version 1

87) A 88) D 89) B 90) B 91) D 92) C 93) B 94) C 95) C 96) D 97) A 98) C 99) B 100) A 101) D 102) B 103) C 104) clone 105) autoantigens 106) allergens 107) IgG 108) immunocompetence

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CHAPTER 16 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The tuberculin reaction develops within 30 minutes of the skin test in people with prior sensitization due to tuberculosis infection. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) During graft rejection, cytotoxic T-cells of the recipient recognize and respond to foreign Class I MHC receptors on the grafted cells. ⊚ ⊚

The allergen in poison ivy plants is oil called urushiol. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The most common immunoglobulin deficiency is an IgG deficiency. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) After a bone marrow transplant, the recipient's blood type may change to the blood type of the donor. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) The practice of delaying the introduction of solid foods may help prevent the development of food allergies, but doesn't provide complete protection. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

In an isograft, tissue from an identical twin is used. ⊚ ⊚

Systemic anaphylaxis can quickly result in airway blockage, shock, and death. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Eczema is an autoimmune disorder. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Food allergies include gastrointestinal symptoms as well as skin and respiratory symptoms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) A person who is Rh negative will have anti-Rh antibodies in their serum from early infancy. ⊚ ⊚

12)

Cancer cells cannot displace normal blood cells and bone marrow. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

At birth, a neonate with blood Type O will have circulating anti-A and anti-B antibodies.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

14) Cancer falls into a unique category where is it both a cause and effect of immune dysfunction. ⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

Systemic lupus is considered a Type II immunopathology. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) An allergic reaction is commonly mistaken for an infection because they both have the ability to cause tissue damage, triggering an inflammatory response. ⊚ ⊚

17)

Hormones, vaccines, and enzymes commonly enter the human body by contact. ⊚ ⊚

18)

true false

Hay fever is a generic term for allergic rhinitis due to inhaled plant pollen or molds. ⊚ ⊚

19)

true false

There are multiple types of anaphylaxis. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

20) Chemotherapy is sometimes not able to be utilized as a treatment due to a patient's allergy to its chemical composition. ⊚ ⊚

21)

An allergy test can be performed on organisms and environmental allergens. ⊚ ⊚

22)

true false

Blood typing is important when completing blood transfusions. ⊚ ⊚

24)

true false

Desensitization involves IgG blocking antibodies. ⊚ ⊚

23)

true false

Patients with type O are known as universal recipients. ⊚ ⊚

true false

25) Type III hypersensitivities involve the deposition of antigen-antibody complexes in the basement membrane of epithelial tissues. ⊚ ⊚

26)

true false

MHC II markers are found on "self" cells that are not involved in immune function. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 27) Indicate which of the following are participants in Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions. Check all that apply. A) IgG and IgM antibodies B) IgE antibodies C) complement proteins D) Cells expressing foreignantigens or autoantigens. E) bacterial cells F) T C cells G) NK cells

28) Which of the items below accurately describe characteristics of Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions. Check all that apply. A) Reactions occur within minutes of antigen exposure (provocative dose). B) Reactions are generated by components of the cell-mediated immune response. C) IgE, basophils, and mast cells are typically involved. D) Histamine is a major mediator of symptoms. E) Reactions are delayed for 24—48 hours after provocative antigen exposure. F) The tuberculin skin test and the rash caused by poison ivy and poison oak are examples.

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 29) The major categories of hypersensitivities that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is/are

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A) Type 1 only. B) Type 1 and Type4. C) Type 4 only. D) Type 1, Type 2,Type 3. E) Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4.

30)

Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category A) Type 1 only. B) Type 1 and Type4. C) Type 4 only. D) Type 1, Type 2,Type 3. E) Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4.

31)

All of the following are involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity, except A) IgM. B) IgG. C) IgE. D) complement. E) foreign cells.

32)

Human blood types involve all the following, except A) MHC genes. B) ABO antigenmarkers. C) inheritance of twoof three possible alleles. D) geneticallydetermined glycoprotein markers. E) genes that code for an enzyme that addsa terminal carbohydrate to RBC receptors.

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33) The serum of a person with blood type A, Rh antibodies?

−

will have which of the following

A) anti-A, anti-Rh B) anti-B, anti-Rh C) anti-A D) anti-B E) anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh

34)

A person with O type blood A) lacks antibodiesto A and B blood types. B) lacks A and Bantigens. C) could not have theRh factor. D) is called auniversal recipient. E) All of these choices are correct.

35)

A person who has anti-A and anti-B serum antibodies will have blood Type A) A. B) B. C) AB. D) O. E) Rh.

36)

Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause

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A) recipient antibodyactivating the complement cascade to attack the RBCs. B) fever andanemia. C) systemic shock andkidney failure. D) massive hemolysisof the donor RBCs. E) All of these choices are correct.

37)

A female who is Rh

A) inherited tworecessive genes. B) is in the majorityof the population with regard to Rh status. C) is at risk for apregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn. D) can only have anRh positive baby. E) All of these choices are correct.

38)

The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when A) maternal Rh + cells enter an Rh − fetus. B) fetal Rh + cells enter an Rh − mother. C) maternal Rh − cells enter an Rh + fetus. D) fetal Rh − cells enter an Rh + mother. E) fetal Rh + cells enter an Rh + mother.

39)

Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented by

A) injecting themother with antibodies against the Rh factor late in the pregnancy and aftergiving birth. B) treating the fetuswith immune globulin. C) birth by cesareansection. D) treating the motherwith RhoGAM early in the pregnancy.

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40)

Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen? A) Ingestant B) Inhalant C) Injectant D) Contactant

41)

Mold spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen? A) Ingestant B) Inhalant C) Injectant D) Contactant

42)

The initial encounter with an allergen is called the A) sensitizingdose. B) provocativedose. C) allergic dose. D) hypersensitivitydose. E) desensitizing dose.

43)

What will be the immediate action of allergen when it enters the body for a second time? A) Degranulation B) Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C) Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D) Histamine acts on smooth muscle. E) Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability.

44)

Which event releases the chemical mediators?

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A) Degranulation B) Binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils C) Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D) Histamine acts on smooth muscle. E) Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability.

45) Which of the following is incorrect about the role of mast cells and basophils in allergies? A) They degranulatewhen triggered by a specific allergen through the IgE bound to them. B) They carry highnumbers of cell receptors that bind to IgE antibodies. C) Their cytoplasmicsecretory vesicles contain physiologically active cytokines. D) They are foundmainly in the lymph nodes.

46)

Which of the following is not a possible symptom of Type 1 hypersensitivity? A) Rhinitis B) Rashes C) Sneezing D) Diarrhea E) Contact dermatitis

47)

Which is mismatched? A) Food allergy—Type 1 hypersensitivity B) Poison ivy dermatitis—Type 4 hypersensitivity C) Serum sickness—Type 3 hypersensitivity D) Transfusion reaction—Type 2 hypersensitivity E) Hay fever—Type 4 hypersensitivity

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48) a/an

Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called

A) autoimmunedisease. B) immunodeficiency. C) hypersensitivity. D) transfusionreaction. E) desensitization.

49)

Histamine causes all the following, except A) increasedsensitivity to light. B) constriction ofsmooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine. C) relaxes vascularsmooth muscle. D) wheal and flarereaction in skin. E) pruritis and headache.

50) The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is A) prostaglandin. B) histamine. C) leukotriene. D) serotonin. E) platelet-activating factor.

51)

All of the following are associated with IgE

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and mast cell-mediated allergy, except

A) drug allergy. B) eczema. C) anaphylaxis. D) allergicasthma. E) systemic lupus erythematosus.

52)

Epinephrine A) is anantihistamine. B) reversesconstriction of airways. C) causesdesensitization. D) inhibits theactivity of lymphocytes. E) All of these choices are correct.

53)

Treatment for agammaglobulinemia is A) frequenttransfusions of Rh + blood. B) passiveimmunotherapy and continuous antibiotic therapy. C) bone marrowtransplant. D) allografts ofskin. E) continuous immunosuppressivetherapy.

54) Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing A) desensitization. B) sensitization. C) tissuematching. D) degranulation.

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55) Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigen-antibody complexes that deposit in basement membranes occur in A) serumsickness. B) delayedhypersensitivity. C) anaphylaxis. D) hemolytic diseaseof the newborn. E) All of these choices are correct.

56)

Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all the following diseases, except A) rheumatoidarthritis. B) myastheniagravis. C) Graves'disease. D) tuberculinreaction. E) multiple sclerosis.

57)

Contact dermatitis involves A) a sensitizing andprovocative dose. B) allergen enteringthe skin. C) T-lymphocytes secrete inflammatory cytokines. D) itchy papules andblisters. E) All of these choices are correct.

58) Which of the following is a risk of a bone marrow transplant that is not typically a risk of a kidney or heart transplant? A) Host rejection of graft B) Graft versus host disease C) Formation of autoantibodies D) Hypogammaglobulinemia

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59) Which of the following can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B cell survival and maturity? A) Host rejection of graft B) Graft versus host disease C) Formation of autoantibodies D) Hypogammaglobulinemia

60)

The DiGeorge syndrome is the result of A) autoantibodies. B) delayedhypersensitivity. C) congenital absenceor immaturity of the thymus gland. D) failure of B cell development and maturity. E) T-cells" to "T cells.

61)

Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to A) autoantibodies. B) delayedhypersensitivity. C) congenital absenceor immaturity of the thymus gland. D) failure of B celldevelopment and maturity. E) T-cells" to "T cells.

62)

A secondary acquired immunodeficiency is A) AIDS. B) adenosinedeaminase (ADA) deficiency. C) DiGeorgesyndrome. D) agammaglobulinemia. E) type I diabetes.

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63)

All of the following operate in surveillance and destruction of tumor cells, except A) macrophages. B) B cells. C) natural killercells. D) cytotoxic Tcells.

64) Which of the following can cause secondary acquired immunodeficiencies in T cells and B cells? A) Radiation B) Chemotherapy C) Organic disease D) Infection E) All of these choices are correct.

65)

Which is incorrect about DiGeorge syndrome? A) It is a severe deficiency of T cells. B) Sometimes it isassociated with a deletion in chromosome 22. C) Common childhooddiseases can be fatal in affected children. D) The major therapyis a bone marrow transplant. E) Symptoms include reduced growth andunusual facial characteristics.

66) Jose needs a kidney due to his diabetes. His sister is a close match and is willing to give him one of hers. What type of transplant is this? A) Allograft B) Xenograft C) Autograft D) Heterograft

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67)

A xenograft is a tissue exchange A) between identicaltwins. B) betweensiblings. C) from one site onthe body to another site. D) between individualsof different species.

68)

What is the Arthus reaction? A) An autoimmune disorder B) An acute response to a second injection of vaccines at the same site C) A positive tuberculosis skin test D) The lysis of RBC due to complement during an incorrect blood transfusion E) The name given to skin wheals that occur during an allergy skin test

69)

Which of the following is mismatched? A) Ingestant—nuts B) Inhalant—bee sting C) Injectant—vaccine D) Contactant—rubber E) Ingestant—food additive

70)

Which cells play the greatest role in allergic symptoms? A) T-cells B) Monocytes C) Plasma cells D) Mast cells E) Eosinophils

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71)

All of the following are correct about Type O blood, except A) persons with thistype of blood are considered universal donors. B) persons with thistype of blood carry an O antigen on their RBC. C) persons with thistype of blood have anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma. D) this is the mostcommon blood type among all racial groups in the U.S.

72)

All of the following are examples of autoimmune diseases, except A) multiplesclerosis. B) Grave's disease. C) Hashimotothyroiditis. D) myastheniagravis. E) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome.

73)

The heart of a baboon transplanted to a human would be a/an A) xenograft. B) autograft. C) allograft. D) heterograft. E) homograft.

74)

All of the following cells participate in immune surveillance, except A) macrophages. B) natural killercells. C) cytotoxic T-cells. D) plasma cells. E) All of the choices participate.

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75)

Which of the following does not belong with transformed cancer cells? A) Oncogenic viruses B) Increased rate of growth C) Chromosomal alterations D) Capacity for limited division E) Changed surface molecules

76)

Allergic reactions to penicillin are an example of a A) Type 1 hypersensitivity. B) Type 2 hypersensitivity. C) Type 3 hypersensitivity. D) Type 4 hypersensitivity.

77) Type_____ hypersensitivities involve soluble antigen with IgM or IgG forming complexes that can deposit in tissues. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

78) Which of the following is most directly responsible for cell lysis in Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions?

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A) IgG antibodies B) IgM antibodies C) complement activation D) IgE antibodies E) NK cells F) T C cells

79) All of the following are involved in the development of a Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction, except A) antigen. B) T H cells. C) IgE. D) cytokines. E) T C cells. F) dendritic cells. G) macrophages.

80) One theory regarding immune tolerance and the development of autoimmunitystates that during embryonic growth, some tissues are hidden behind anatomical barriers and cannot be surveyed by the developing immune system. Later in life, some of these tissues may be exposed to the immune system as a result of trauma or infection and the immune system responds by developing an immune reaction against these tissues as if they were foreign. This theory is the A) theory of molecular mimmicry. B) theory of immune deficiency. C) forbidden clone theory. D) sequestered antigen theory.

81) Which of the following methods is/are used for determining the most appropriate donor tissue for a particular recipient?

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A) Tissue typing B) Mixed lymphocyte reaction C) ABO blood typing D) All of these choices are correct.

82)

Which of the following has not shown as an allergen to date? A) Grass B) Mold C) Trees D) Weeds

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 83) The antigens to which allergic individuals are sensitive are termed _____.

84)

Allergic _________ is a seasonal reaction to inhaled pollen or molds.

85) Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on that patient is called an _____.

86)

An __________ is any chronic local allergy.

87)

The _____ dose of an allergen results in signs and symptoms of the allergy.

88)

The _________ dose of the same allergen elicits an immune response.

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89)

A/an ____ region in IgE makes it structurally different from the other immunoglobulins.

90)

_________ is known to complement histamine in immune reaction.

91) A patient with dilated blood vessels, headaches, and constricted bronchioles has likely had ________ released as a cytokeine.

92)

Systemic anaphylaxis is also called ________ _______.

93)

________ is an enzyme released by mast cells that indicates an allergic attack.

94)

Over-the-counter medicine contains __________ that helps combat allergic reactions.

95)

__________ is an intensely itchy inflammatory condition of the skin.

96) __________ that survive the immune system are many times the origin of autoimmune diseases.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 97) Compare and contrast local atopies and systemic anaphylaxis with regard to: a) events of the hypersensitivity, b) chemical mediators and their effects, c) patient tissues involved, and d) two specific examples of each.

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98)

Discuss the proposed theories that attempt to explain the origin of autoimmunity.

99) Compare and contrast local atopies and contact dermatitis with regard to: a) components and events of the immune response, b) tissue damaging mediators, and c) two examples of each.

100) Write a definition for immunopathology and discuss the four major categories of immune system responses with specific examples for each.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 16_11e 1) FALSE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) FALSE 25) TRUE 26) FALSE Version 1

27) [A, C, D] 28) [B, E, F] 29) D 30) A 31) C 32) A 33) D 34) B 35) D 36) E 37) B 38) B 39) A 40) C 41) B 42) A 43) B 44) A 45) D 46) E 47) E 48) C 49) A 50) C 51) E 52) B 53) B 54) A 55) A 56) D Version 1

57) E 58) B 59) D 60) C 61) E 62) A 63) B 64) E 65) D 66) A 67) D 68) B 69) B 70) D 71) B 72) E 73) A 74) D 75) D 76) A 77) C 78) C 79) C 80) D 81) D 82) A 83) allergens 84) rhinitis 85) autograft 86) atopy Version 1

87) provocative 88) provocative 89) Fe 90) Serotonin 91) prostaglandin 92) anaphylactic shock 93) Tryptase 94) antihistamine 95) Eczema 96) Forbidden clones

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CHAPTER 17 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The Widal test is used for diagnosing salmonellosis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

2) When antibodies or other substances in serum cross-react with the test reagents, a false positive result can occur. ⊚ ⊚

Serological testing always involves reactions between specific antibody and antigen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Serological tests should have low sensitivity and specificity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

ELISA tests use a fluorescent dye as a label to trace antigen-antibody reactions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The tuberculin test is an example of an in vivo serological test. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Some diseases are diagnosed without the need to identify microbes from a patient specimen.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Broad general characteristics of bacteria on flowcharts can be misleading for a diagnosis of disease. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Culture of patient specimens to detect pathogens is usually done on blood agar plates only. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Once a fecal sample has been collected from a patient, storage at room temperature is recommended to promote growth of the potential pathogen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Information about a pathogen can only be derived from direct testing or culturing a specimen sample; serological samples from the patient and observations of signs and symptoms are not useful in identifying a pathogen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) For both direct and indirect fluorescence antibody testing, the presence of fluorescence in a microscope indicates a positive result. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

13) When performing an indirect fluorescence antibody test to assay for syphilis in a patient sample, you forget to add the secondary antibody. This is okay, however, because the secondary antibody amplifies the fluorescent signal from the primary antibody, so you can still obtain a postitive result, albeit more carefully. ⊚ ⊚

true false

14) In vivo testing differs from in vitro testing because only in vivo testing does not require the isolation/culturing of a specimen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 15) Select the methods below that can be used for identifying the causative agent of a viral infection. Check all that apply. A) Cultivation of the virus from patient samples in cell/tissue cultures B) Detection of antibodies to the virus in a patient's serum C) Observation of the patient's symptoms D) Gram stain of patient specimens E) Amplification and detection of viral nucleic acid in patient specimens F) Culture of virus from patient specimens in enriched agar and broth media G) Direct observation of viral-infected cells using fluorescent-antibody staining

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 16) In lab, a student observes some dull, wrinkled brown colonies growing on their agar. They Gram stain the sample and observe single bacilli. Their blood agar does not reveal any hemolysis while their MSA has growth and fermentation. Using the following table and the given observations, determine which microorganism this would most likely be. Bacilli

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B. cereus

B. subtilis

Colony morphology

Dull, Dull, wrinkled colonies cream to brown colors frosted colonies

Microscopic arrangement

Chains

Single bacilli

Catalase

Blood agar

Beta

Gamma

Mannitol salt agar

+ growth and + fermentation

Pseudomonas

P. aeruginosa

Catalase

Oxidase

Motile

Blood agar

Beta

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Glucose fermentation

Escherichia

E. coli

Lactose fermentation

Motile

Citrate fermentation

Urease

Catalase

A) Escherichia coli B) Pseudomonasaeruginosa C) Bacillus subtilis D) Bacillus cereus

17)

All of the following are methods to diagnose viral infections, except

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A) detection ofviral nucleic acid using specific probes. B) Western blot. C) cells taken frompatient are examined for evidence of viral infection. D) signs andsymptoms. E) the light microscope.

18)

Which of the following is involved in the in vitro diagnostic testing of serum? A) Mycology B) Hematology C) Serology D) Histology E) Virology

19) The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is A) cross-reactions. B) agglutination. C) precipitation. D) specificity. E) sensitivity.

20) The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others, is A) cross-reactions. B) agglutination. C) precipitation. D) specificity. E) sensitivity.

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21)

Whole antigens are detected in which type of test? A) Cross-reactions B) Agglutination C) Precipitation D) Specificity E) Sensitivity

22)

Soluble antigens are detected in which type of test? A) Cross-reactions B) Agglutination C) Precipitation D) Specificity E) Sensitivity

23) Affixing antigen to an inert particle such as a latex bead is sometimes used in which type of test? A) Cross-reactions B) Agglutination C) Precipitation D) Specificity E) Sensitivity

24)

A serum titer involves A) serially diluting aserum sample. B) determining thelowest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction. C) determining thehighest dilution of antigen that produces a visible reaction. D) the Western blot method.

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25)

Precipitation tests involve all of the following, except A) they rely onformation of visible clumps for detection. B) they include theVDRL test for syphilis. C) they are oftenperformed in agar gels. D) they can be donein a test tube by carefully adding antiserum over antigen solution. E) a cloudy or opaque zone developing where antigen and antibody react.

26)

Which of the following is incorrect regarding the complement fixation test? A) First antigen andantibody are allowed to react. B) Purifiedcomplement proteins are added to the antigen-antibody tube. C) Sheep red bloodcells are added to the antigen-antibody-complement mixture. D) Hemolysis of thesheep red blood cells occurs in a positive test result.

27) When serum proteins are separated by electrophoresis, transferred to a nitrocellulose membrane, and incubated with a solution of antibodies specific for the serum proteins, the test is called A) Ouchterlony doublediffusion. B) Western blot. C) immunoelectrophoresis. D) radioimmunoassay(RIA). E) the Quellung test.

28) Which test uses radioactive isotopes to label antibodies or antigens in order to detect minute amounts of corresponding antigen or antibody?

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A) Ouchterlony doublediffusion B) Western blot C) Immunoelectrophoresis D) Radioimmunoassay (RIA) E) Quellung test

29) Which test is the best confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test? A) Ouchterlony doublediffusion B) Western blot C) Immunoelectrophoresis D) Radioimmunoassay (RIA) E) Quellung test

30)

Serotyping of the pneumococcus based on capsular polysaccharide is performed in A) Ouchterlony doublediffusion. B) Western blot. C) immunoelectrophoresis. D) radioimmunoassay(RIA). E) the Quellung test.

31)

Which of the following is not a biochemical test used to identify a pathogen? A) Acid-fast reaction B) Hydrolysis of gelatin C) Coagulase production D) Indole production E) Carbohydrate fermentation

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32) Which of the following are important considerations when selecting media to isolate a particular specimen from a mixed population sample? A) The media must permit the growth of the specimen. B) The media should inhibit growth of microbes that are part of the normal microbiota. C) The media can report on metabolic characteristics of the specimen. D) The isolation of a single colony of the specimen is an important goal. E) All of the choices are correct.

33)

Which technique, used to diagnose a disease, is also called the double diffusion method? A) Ouchterlonytest B) VDRL test C) Immunoelectrophoresis D) Western blot E) ELISA

34) A physician orders an antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer test to check for rheumatic fever. A patient serum sample is exposed to known suspensions of streptolysin and then allowed to incubate with RBCs.If the patient does have rheumatic fever, what will happen? A) Not enoughinformation is provided to speculate. B) The red bloodcells will lyse. C) The red bloodcells will agglutinate only. D) The red bloodcells will not lyse. E) The red blood cells will fluoresce.

35) Which of the following methods is categorized as a direct test in order to analyze a specimen?

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A) Catalase test B) Gram stain C) Phage typing D) Antimicrobic sensitivity E) Production of gas

36)

All of the following are routine biochemical tests to aid in identifying a species, except A) motility. B) carbohydratefermentation. C) catalasetest. D) oxidase test. E) coagulase test.

37) this?

Maggie was told she has a positive titer to measles. Which of the following could explain

A) She wasvaccinated against measles. B) She had measlessometime in her life. C) She has measlesnow. D) The test was afalse positive. E) All of the choices are correct.

38) Maria had an accidental needlestick one night during her shift as an emergency medical technician. Initially, she tested positive for HIV by the ELISA test. Which test would be done next to confirm an HIV infection? A) Immunoelectrophoresis B) Ouchterlony C) Complement fixation D) Western blot E) Radioimmunoassay

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39) The more a sample can be diluted and yet still react with antigen, the __________ the concentration of antibodies in that sample and the __________ is its titer. A) lower; lower B) higher; lower C) lower; higher D) higher; higher

40)

Sputum is obtained by A) swabbing the mouthto sample saliva. B) a clean catch urinesample. C) the patientcoughing up mucus from the lower respiratory system. D) a spinal tap abovethe chest. E) a throat swab.

41) Test systems involving which of the following has greatly improved the specificity of immunological tests? A) Monoclonal antibodies B) Electronics C) Enzymes D) Radioactivity E) All of the choices are correct.

42)

A rising antibody titer a few days apart indicates A) the patient had a past case of the disease. B) the patient has a current infection. C) nothing; people always have antibodies in their serum. D) All of the choices are correct.

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43)

In direct antigen testing, the reaction is generally seen with the A) electronmicroscope. B) naked eye. C) lightmicroscope. D) API 20E miniatureidentification system. E) PCR reaction.

44)

Which test is used to measure the IgE present in allergic patients? A) Fluorescent antibody tests B) Rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test C) Weil-Felixreaction D) Radioimmunosorbent test (RIST) E) ELISA

45)

The indirect ELISA test detects __________ in a patient's blood. A) antigen B) antibody C) microorganisms D) IgE only E) complement

46)

All of the following are correct about the indirect ELISA, except A) it can detect antibodies in a serum sample. B) it is the common screening test for antibodies to Helicobacter. C) color development indicates that antibody was not present in the patient's serum. D) it is the common screening test for antibodies to Hepatitis A. E) a known antigen is adsorbed to the surface of a well.

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47) Biochemical testing used for identification of pathogens involves each of the following, except A) inoculation of additional media, incubation, and observation for a color change. B) quick tests that take just a few seconds. C) examining organisms through the microscope. D) All of the choices are involved in biochemical testing.

48) If trying to isolate a specific pathogen from amongst a variety of normal microbiota, which type of media would be most helpful? A) Nutrient agar B) Differential agar C) Blood agar D) Selective and differential agar

49) Tests that take place in the lab, such as in a test tube or Petri dish, outside of a living host,are referred to as __________ whereas tests that take place in a living host, such as in a patient, are described as __________. A) in loco; in vitro B) in vitro; in loco C) in vitro; in vivo D) in loco; in vivo

50)

Which of the following can be used for the cultivation of viruses? A) Enriched broth media B) Viral host cells grown in vitro C) Enriched agar media D) All of the choices are correct.

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51) Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) is often used to determine whether bacterial isolates from different cases of food-borne illness are the same and can be traced to the same source. This is an example of A) an immunologic technique. B) a genetic method. C) a phenotypic method. D) a microscopic technique.

52) Minute amounts of a pathogen in a patient sample can be rapidlydetected by specifically amplifying and identifying its DNA using PCR. This is an example of A) an immunologic method. B) a microscopic method. C) a phenotypic method. D) a genetic method.

53) A phlebotomist draws blood from a client and tells her that the physician has ordered an indirect ELISA to check for rubella. After the phlebotomist leaves, the client asks the nurse to clarify what the phlebotomist said. Which response by the nurse is most correct? A) The ELISA will identify the presence of the rubella virus in the patient's bloodstream. B) The ELISA will identify how serious rubella would be if the patient contracts the disease. C) The ELISA will identify the presence of antibodies against the rubella virus in the patient's bloodstream. D) The ELISA will reduce the pain associated with the rubella infection.

54)

Serological tests rely on the action of which class of biomolecules?

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A) DNA B) Proteins C) Carbohydrates D) Lipids

55) Which of the following is the best storage solution for transporting a sputum sample containing a potential pathogen? A) Refrigerated; anaerobic B) Refrigerated; aerobic C) Room temperature; anaerobic D) Room temperature; aerobic

56)

Which of the following is true in regards to direct fluorescent testing?

A) Direct fluorescent testing is most effective in detecting sparse microbes. B) Direct fluorescent quick test kits are available for most viral infections. C) Direct fluorescent testing is a faster alternative to culturing a microbe for identification. D) Direct fluorescent testing requires specific radiolabelled antibodies.

57) A technician in a clinical laboratory uses a flowchart to ID an infectious agent. The microbe is Gram negative, facultatively anaerobic, nonmotile, oxidase negative, and is able to ferment glucose. The technician correctly concludes that the pathogen is either Shigella or Klebsiella. How do you respond to the technician's report? A) This is sufficient information to diagnose and treat the patient. B) More information is required, additional tests will need to be performed to differentiate between these two Genera. C) This was an inappropriate way to identify the specimen. Flowcharts are never a useful tool in diagnostics.

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58) Outbreaks of Listeria monocytogenes and other food-borne pathogens can be difficult to identify because the contaminated food source can be distributed so widely that cases of disease from the same strain can be distributed throughout the country. Which of the following techniques is the most useful in determining if two cases of Listeria monocytogenes infection have been caused by the same strain? Consider the cost and amount of time required to complete each technique. A) Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) B) Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) C) Real-time PCR D) Whole genome sequencing (WGS)

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 59) An antibody __________ provides a measure of the quantity of antibodies in the serum.

60) In indirect fluorescent testing, fluorescent __________ are used to react with the Fc region of another, specific, serum antibody.

61)

Horseradish peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase are enzymes used in __________ tests.

62) In __________ tests, antibody cross-links whole-cell antigens, forming complexes that settle out and form visible clumps in the test chamber.

63)

When collecting __________, a "clean catch" method is often used.

64) In a/an __________, antigens or antibodies are labeled with radioactive isotopes and traced.

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SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 65) Describe the indirect ELISA test that is used as a screening test for HIV (AIDS) and include the following: a) sequence of procedures, b) reagents used, and c) detection and interpretation of a positive test.

66) Compare and contrast agglutination and precipitation reactions, and include a description of one test for each type of reaction.

67) Describe three possible types of specimens and methods of collection for clinical laboratories.

68) Why do many physicians feel that stool cultures are not necessary, except in certain circumstances when diagnosing GI tract infections?

69) Identify, describe, and discuss the objectives of the three main method categories used for identifying infectious agents using specific examples.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 17_11e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) [A, B, C, E, G] 16) C 17) E 18) C 19) E 20) D 21) B 22) C 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) D Version 1

27) B 28) D 29) B 30) E 31) A 32) E 33) A 34) D 35) B 36) A 37) E 38) D 39) D 40) C 41) A 42) B 43) B 44) D 45) B 46) C 47) C 48) D 49) C 50) B 51) B 52) D 53) C 54) B 55) B 56) C Version 1

57) B 58) B 59) titer 60) antibody 61) ELISA 62) agglutination 63) urine 64) radioimmunoassay

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CHAPTER 18 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Local Staphylococcus aureus infections often involve formation of an abscess. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Streptokinase causes the symptoms of scarlet fever. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) It is theorized that rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis could be the result of antibodies to Group A streptococci that cross-react with patient tissues. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Most strains of Streptococcus pyogenes produce penicillinase. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Pneumovax is a vaccine for prevention of disease caused by strains of Neisseria meningitidis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Impetigo involves itching papules that break and form a very contagious yellow crust. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

7) Neisseria meningitidis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are fastidious, gram-negative cocci that produce oxidase. ⊚ ⊚

true false

An individual with asymptomatic N. gonorrhoeae may not spread the disease. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Staphylococcus aureus grows poorly outside the body as it is highly sensitive to environmental conditions. ⊚ ⊚

10)

As a group of bacteria, the staphylococci have caused nearly 20,000 deaths annually. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

Mild, superficial inflammation of hair follicles is called a furuncle. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

A carbuncle is a deeper lesion created by a cluster of furuncles. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Due to humans acting as the principal reservoir for pathogenic staphylococci, there will probably always be carriers and infections. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 2

14)

Streptococci are spore-forming and motile bacteria. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) About 5% to 15% of the population are subclinical carriers of the virulent strain of S. pyogenes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) Streptococcal impetigo is marked by burning, itching papules that break and form a highly contagious yellow crust. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) Long-term complications of S. pyogenes infections include rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 18) Staphylococus aureus is especially resistant to __________. A) high concentrations of salt B) increases or decrease in pH C) ionizing radiation D) desiccation

19)

Which bacterial species would look similar to one another in a Gram stain?

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A) Branhamella catarrhalis B) Moraxella osloensis C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae D) Streptococcus pyogenes

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 20) A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains of A) Staphylococcusaureus. B) Staphylococcusepidermidis. C) Staphylococcussaprophyticus. D) Streptococcus pyogenes. E) Streptococcus agalactiae.

21)

All species of Staphylococcus A) produce catalase. B) are motile. C) have endospores. D) producecoagulase. E) All of these choices are correct.

22)

The enzyme that coagulates plasma is A) catalase. B) coagulase. C) hyaluronidase. D) staphylokinase. E) Dnase.

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23) The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is A) enterotoxin. B) hemolysin. C) toxic shocksyndrome toxin. D) exfoliativetoxin. E) erythrogenic toxin.

24)

The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to A) enterotoxins. B) hemolysins. C) toxic shocksyndrome toxin. D) exfoliativetoxin. E) erythrogenic toxin.

25)

Scarlet fever is caused by strains of A) Staphylococcusaureus. B) Staphylococcusepidermidis. C) Staphylococcussaprophyticus. D) Streptococcus pyogenes. E) Streptococcus agalactiae.

26) Which pathogen is the most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis in the United States?

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A) Staphylococcusaureus B) Staphylococcusepidermidis C) Staphylococcussaprophyticus D) Streptococcus pyogenes E) Streptococcus agalactiae

27) Which organism is associated with commonly causing urinary tract infections in sexually active young adult and adolescent females? A) Staphylococcusaureus B) Staphylococcusepidermidis C) Staphylococcussaprophyticus D) Streptococcus pyogenes E) Streptococcus agalactiae

28)

Which pathogen has drug-resistant strains called MRSA? A) Staphylococcusaureus B) Staphylococcusepidermidis C) Staphylococcussaprophyticus D) Streptococcuspyogenes E) Streptococcus agalactiae

29)

The most common site where carriers of Staphylococcus aureus carry this pathogen is A) all over theskin. B) under thefingernails. C) anterior nares(nostrils). D) mouth. E) intestines.

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30)

Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all ofthe following, except A) folliculitis. B) furuncles andcarbuncles. C) sore throat. D) osteomyelitis. E) pneumonia.

31)

Which is incorrect about Staphylococcus aureus food intoxication? A) Food becomescontaminated by a human carrier. B) Common associatedfoods include custards, ham, cream pastries, processed meats. C) Aftercontamination, food must be left unrefrigerated for a few hours. D) Ingestion of thepathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining. E) Symptoms come on quickly, and includenausea, vomiting, diarrhea.

32)

All the following pertain to Staphylococcus epidermidis infections, except A) they often develop from an endogenous source. B) they typicallyoccur after insertion of shunts and prosthetic devices. C) catheterization canintroduce the organism and lead to urinary tract infection. D) the organism iscoagulase negative. E) the organism produces a large number oftissue damaging enzymes and toxins.

33)

Symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome include all the following, except A) fever and musclepain. B) appearance offlesh being "eaten" down to the muscle. C) nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. D) sunburn-likerash. E) kidney and liver failure.

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34)

Staphylococci can be differentiated from streptococci by the A) Gram stain. B) coagulasetest. C) catalase test. D) fermentation ofmannitol.

35)

Rebecca Lancefield differentiated streptococci on the basis of differences in their A) cell wallcarbohydrates in a serological test. B) patterns ofhemolysis on blood agar. C) ability to producecatalase. D) Gram stain appearance. E) All of these choices are correct.

36)

The M protein of Streptococcus pyogenes A) is the basis for the organism belonging to Lancefield Group A. B) gives rise to a zone of beta hemolysis on blood agar. C) protects againstphagocytosis and enhances adherence. D) is also calledstreptokinase. E) protects against lysozyme damage.

37)

Streptococcus pyogenes causes all the following, except A) necrotizingfasciitis. B) erysipelas. C) impetigo. D) scarlet fever. E) scalded skin syndrome.

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38)

Streptococcal pharyngitis involves all the following, except A) a purulent exudateover the tonsils. B) it can lead to scarlet fever if it is an erythrogenic toxin-producing strain. C) it can lead to serious sequelae. D) it is usually caused by the viridans streptococci. E) it causes redness, difficulty in swallowing, and fever.

39)

Scarlet fever involves A) high fever. B) bright red rash onface, trunk, inner arms and legs, and tongue. C) eventualdesquamation of epidermis. D) septicemia as acomplication. E) All of these choices are correct.

40)

Necrotizing fasciitis is A) also calledimpetigo. B) possibly caused byantibodies to Group A streptococci that cross-react with body

tissues. C) associated withstrains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes andtoxins. D) typically asequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis. E) not treatable with antimicrobicdrugs.

41) The Group A streptococcal infection that has symptoms of fever, edema of skin near portal of entry, and an elevated red, hot vesicular lesion is

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A) erysipelas. B) impetigo. C) necrotizingfasciitis. D) scarlet fever.

42) Long-term sequelae of Group A streptococcal infections include all the following, except A) risk decreasedwith prompt treatment of skin infections and pharyngitis. B) development ofrheumatic fever. C) appearance ofsequelae within a few weeks after an initial infection. D) transmission ofsequelae via respiratory secretions from a patient with streptococcal sorethroat. E) development ofacute glomerulonephritis.

43)

All of the following pertain to Enterococcus faecalis, except A) normal flora ofthe human large intestine. B) it increasingly resistant to many antimicrobics. C) it cause nosocomial wound infections, urinary tract infections, and septicemias. D) it can cause endocarditis. E) it belong to Lancefield Group B streptococci.

44)

The viridans streptococci are A) not entirelygroupable by Lancefield serology. B) the most numerousresidents of the oral cavity. C) opportunists thatcan cause subacute endocarditis. D) introduced todeeper body tissues by dental or surgical procedures. E) All of these choices are correct.

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45)

All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis, except A) it occurs inpatients that have prior heart damage. B) it is caused byimmune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue. C) oral bacteria getintroduced by dental procedures to the blood. D) bacteria colonizepreviously damaged heart tissue resulting in vegetation. E) signs and symptoms include fever, heartmurmur, and possible emboli.

46)

Streptococcus pneumoniae is A) called themeningococcus. B) in the viridansgroup. C) a gram-positive diplococcus with a capsule. D) a pathogen withendotoxin. E) All of these choices are correct.

47)

Disease/s caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae include A) otitis media. B) meningitis. C) lobarpneumonia. D) bronchialpneumonia. E) All of these choices are correct.

48)

People at greatest risk for pneumococcal infections include all the following, except A) elderly. B) those withunderlying lung disease and viral infections. C) patients without aspleen. D) adolescents andyoung adults. E) young infants.

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49)

Meningococcemia is A) common duringgonorrhea. B) associated withvascular hemorrhage and petechiae. C) frequently seen inelderly. D) caused by a gram-positive diplococcus. E) All of these choices are correct.

50)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is A) the cause ofophthalmia neonatorum. B) the cause ofgonorrhea. C) called thegonococcus. D) virulent due tofimbriae and a protease that inactivates IgA. E) All of these choices are correct.

51)

All of the following pertain to gonorrhea, except A) a chancre-typelesion develops at the portal of entry. B) it is a reportableinfectious disease. C) pelvicinflammatory disease (PID) and infertility are complications. D) female infections are frequently asymptomatic. E) symptoms include painful urination anddischarge.

52)

All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis, except A) virulence factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease. B) it causes seriousmeningitis. C) the reservoir isthe nasopharynx of human carriers. D) it is more easily transmitted in day-care facilities, dorms, and military barracks. E) it is a common cause of bacterialpneumonia.

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53) The instillation of antibiotics in newborn's eyes will prevent ophthalmia neonatorum in newborns. This disease is caused by A) Neisseriameningitidis. B) Staphylococcusaureus. C) Streptococcuspyogenes. D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae. E) Branhamella (Moraxella)catarrhalis.

54)

A positive Quellung reaction, or capsular swelling, is confirmatory for A) Neisseriameningitidis. B) Staphylococcusaureus. C) Streptococcuspyogenes. D) Branhamella(Moraxella) catarrhalis. E) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

55)

Most cases ofotitis media in children are due to infection with A) Streptococcuspneumoniae. B) Streptococcuspyogenes. C) Branhamella(Moraxella) catarrhalis. D) Streptococcusagalactiae. E) Staphylococcussaprophyticus.

56)

Which chemical produced by S. aureus is also known as "spreading factor"?

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A) Coagulase B) Penicillinase C) Hemolysin D) Hyaluronidase E) Toxic shock syndrome toxin

57)

Which chemical, produced by S. aureus, digests blood clots? A) Coagulase B) Penicillinase C) Staphylokinase D) Hyaluronidase E) Toxic shock syndrome toxin

58) A patient has a suspicious skin infection and a culture is taken. Which media would be appropriate to select for staphylococci? A) Nutrient agar B) Blood agar C) Chocolate agar D) MacConkey agar E) Mannitol salt agar

59) A pregnant woman is told she has a positive CAMP test and should be treated with a course of antibiotics. This test is indicative of A) Group Astreptococci. B) Group Bstreptococci. C) S.saprophyticus. D) S. epidermidis. E) S. aureus.

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60)

All of the following are correct about Streptococcus pyogenes, except A) humans are theonly significant reservoir. B) some of thestreptococcal toxins act as superantigens. C) most strains donot have a capsule. D) it can causeimpetigo and erysipelas. E) infection is generally through directcontact.

61)

All of the following are correct about Staphylococcus aureus, except A) it is thecoagulase-positive species. B) the body's mostpowerful defense against it lies in the T-cell response. C) carriers may betreated with antibiotics to clear them of the bacteria. D) most strains areresistant to penicillin and ampicillin. E) it causesfuruncles, carbuncles, and abscesses.

62) Sue brought her daughter Amy to the pediatrician complaining of a sore throat. The physician examines Amy and observes that her throat is bright red and there are white pus-filled nodules on her tonsils. Which of the following conclusions should be made? A) She has a strepthroat and should begin antibiotics. B) She should have arapid strep test performed before a diagnosis is made. C) She should go homeand rest because most sore throats are viral in origin. D) She should gohome and come back in two days for a strep test since it may take that long toshow up. E) She has a staphylococcal sore throatand should begin antibiotics immediately.

63) If left untreated, an infection with __________ can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease and infertility.

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A) Streptococcuspneumoniae B) Neisseria meningitidis C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae D) Streptococcus pyogenes E) Staphylococcus aureus

64) In which of the following situations would Staphylococcus epidermidis be the most likely etiologic agent? A) Otitis media B) Food intoxication C) Urinary bladder infection D) Infected IV catheter site E) Conjunctivitis

65) A 48-year-old man has had nasal surgery and absorbent material has been inserted into his nasal cavity to control bleeding. Several hours ago he began to complain of a headache and has since developed a red rash over much of his body and is experiencing muscle cramps and diarrhea. His blood pressure has dropped to75/50 mg Hg. This patient’s illness is most likely caused by A) Staphylococcus aureus— exfoliative toxin B) Streptococcuspyogenes — streptolysin O C) Staphylococcus aureus— toxic shock syndrome toxin D) Streptococcuspyogenes— erythrogenic toxin

66) Having received no prenatal care, a young woman arrives at a hospital after many hours of labor and delivers a baby girl. Three days later the baby girl is listless, nursing poorly, and is running a fever. Blood cultures are done, and after 24 hours, they are Gram stained and show the presence of gram-positive cocci in pairs and short chains. Upon subculture, these form colonies that are beta hemolytic on blood agar. Further tests demonstrate that the isolate is catalasenegative,resistant to bacitracin, and is CAMP test positive. What is the identification of this organism?

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A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Streptococcus pneumoniae C) Streptococcus agalactiae D) Staphylococcus aureus E) Neisseria meningitidis

67) Which of the following organisms would look most similar to Neisseriameningitidis on a Gram-stained smear? A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Branhamella catarrhalis C) Streptococcus agalactiae D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

68) Acinetobacter baumanii has become a high-profile opportunistic pathogen, causing wound infections, urinary tract infections,pneumonia, and septicemia. What is the reason for its high-profile nature? A) A. baumanii has a very low infective dose and nearly everyone that contacts it gets a very serious infection. B) A. baumaniiproduces an exotoxin that causes servere diarrhea. C) A. baumaniiis very fastidious and is difficult to culture in the laboratory. D) Many strains of A. baumanii are highly resistant to antibiotics.

69) An 8-month-old infant has been brought to the ER with a high fever. Her parents indicate that she has not been eating or drinking well and has been very irritable until the last few hours during which she has been only minimally responsive. Suspecting meningitis, a spinal tap is done and the CSF sample is sent to the lab for analysis. The white blood cell count on the sample is profoundly elevated, the protein content is elevated, and the glucose level is depressed. The Gram-stained smear shows gram-positive cocci in pairs. Cultures are done and after overnight incubation, alpha hemolytic colonies are observed on the blood plate. These colonies contain gram-positive cocci, which are catalase negative. An optochin susceptibility test is done and there is a large zone of inhibition around the disk. What is the identification of this isolate?

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A) Streptococcus pneumoniae B) Viridans Streptococci C) Enterococcus faecalis D) Neisseria meningitidis E) Streptococcus agalactiae

70)

Staphylococcus aureus is troublesome in the hospital environment because __________. A) it readily forms endospores B) it possesses an outer membrane that is toxic to humans C) it is pleomorphic, causing it to be difficult to identify in many cases D) it is resistant to concentrations of salt that would inhibit the growth of most bacterial

species

71) One reason Staphylococcus aureus can be spread through the sharing of athletic equipment is that __________. A) Staphylococcus aureus is resistant to salt, and its growth is not inhibited by sweat B) Staphylococcus aureus is often found growing in a symbiotic relationship with fungi that are commonly found in locker rooms C) Staphylocccus aureus forms endospores that are difficult to kill D) Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram negative bacterium and is, like all Gram negative organisms, protected by its outer membrane

72)

Effective treatment of abcesses due to MRSA infection generally includes __________. A) surgical draining of the abscess to clear it of pus and other foreign bodies B) application of antibiotics directly to the skin surrounding the abcess C) treatment with intravenous ampicillin D) long-term treatment with oral methicillin

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73)

Which of the following is commonly found on the human skin? A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Staphylococcus epidermis C) Staphylococcus capitis D) Staphylococcus capitis

74) their

In the absence of a bacterial sample of Staphylococcus epidermis, a student could swab

A) throat. B) nose. C) lacrimal gland. D) anus.

75)

Which of the following would be found in the scalp? A) Staphylococcus capitis B) Staphylococcus epidermis C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Staphylococcus hominis

76) In the lab students were given two samples of bacteria; both were exposed to hydrogen peroxide. Bacterial sample #1 exhibited bubbles, whereas bacterial sample #2 did not.What enzyme was detected in sample #1?

A) hydrolase. B) lipase. C) catalase. D) helicase.

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77) A patient's infection spreads rapidly through the lungs. The mixture is of exudate, cells, and bacterial cells that have solidified the air space. This is called A) collection. B) consolidation. C) crowding. D) consumption.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 78) All staphylococci can be differentiated from all streptococci because only staphylococci produce the enzyme __________ that is easily detected in the lab.

79) The viridans group of streptococci and the pneumococcus produce __________ hemolysis on blood agar.

80) The production of the enzyme __________ by Staphylococcus aureus is a key characteristic used to identify it from other species of Staphylococcus.

81) Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and Neisseria tend to stimulate pus production and are collectively referred to as __________ cocci.

82)

Streptococcus agalactiae is known as Group __________ streptococci.

83) An Alabama football player contracted an infection at the local hospital after surgery following an ankle break, this football player was likely exposed to the bacterium ________ ________.

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84) Gabriell has been suffering from gastrointestinal issues and her most recent symptom has been peeling off her skin. More than likely Gabriell has been exposed to a/an __________ toxin.

85)

__________ is an enzyme that digests oils.

86) __________ __________ is responsible for high mortality rate infections amongst hospitalized patients with chronic disease.

87) In __________ the pathogen is established in the highly vascular metaphyses, often the femur, tibia, ankle, or wrist.

88)

__________ are the principal reservoir of pathogenic staphylococci.

89) __________ acid assists Staphylococcus pyogenes with attachment by binding to the fimbriae.

90) Once attaching to the fimbriae in the nasopharynx, __________ can either lead to simple asymptomatic colonization; yet, in more vulnerable patients this leads to pharyngitis.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 91) Discuss how normal flora Staphylococcus epidermidis can cause disease in the body, and describe the diseases that it causes.

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92)

Discuss in detail why strep sore throat must be diagnosed and treated rapidly.

93) Explain what is meant by MRSA, why it is a particular concern to hospitals, and what action hospitals are taking to prevent MRSA spread.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 18_11e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE Staphylococcus aureus is able to resist extremes of salt, pH, temperature, and desiccation. 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) [A, B, D] Staphylococcus aureus is able to withstand extremes of salt, pH, temperature, and desiccation. 19) [A, B, C]

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Branhamella catarrhalis, Moraxell osloensis, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are all Gram-negative cocci. Streptococus pyogenes is a Gram-positive coccus. 20) A 21) A 22) B 23) D 24) E 25) D 26) E 27) C 28) A 29) C 30) C 31) D 32) E 33) B 34) C 35) A 36) C 37) E 38) D 39) E 40) C 41) A 42) D 43) E 44) E 45) B 46) C Version 1

47) E 48) D 49) B 50) E 51) A 52) E 53) D 54) E 55) A 56) D 57) C 58) E 59) B 60) C 61) B 62) B 63) C 64) D 65) C 66) C 67) B 68) D 69) A 70) D Staphylococcus aureus has a well-developed capacity to withstand high salt (7.5%–10%), extremes in pH, and high temperatures (up to 60°C for 60 minutes). 71) A Staphylococcus aureus thrives in high salt conditions, like sweaty athletic equipment, that would kill many other organisms. Version 1

72) A Abscesses due to infection with MRSA (methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus) must be surgically drained to remove pus and foreign bodies for antibiotic treatment to be effective. 73) B 74) B 75) A 76) C 77) B 78) catalase 79) alpha 80) coagulase 81) pyogenic 82) B 83) Staphylococcus areus 84) exfoliative 85) Lipase 86) Staphylococcal bacteremia 87) osteomylitis 88) Humans 89) Lipoteichoic 90) Streptococcus pneumoniae

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CHAPTER 19 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Tetanus can be prevented with the DTaP childhood immunization and boosters of the tetanus toxoid. ⊚ ⊚

Debridement of diseased tissue is important in the care of patients with gas gangrene. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Botulism is often referred to as lockjaw. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) In both botulism and tetanus, respiratory muscles cannot facilitate breathing and, if untreated, respiratory collapse leads to death. ⊚ ⊚

Listeria monocytogenes does not grow in refrigerated foods. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Botox injections contain botulinum toxin. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A black eschar develops on the hand or arm of a patient with erysipeloid.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

Propionibacterium acnes is normal flora of sebaceous glands of the skin. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) People who have received the BCG immunization will generally have a negative tuberculin skin test. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) The fermentation by-products of Clostridium perfringens can destroy muscle structure in myonecrosis. ⊚ true ⊚ false

11) Vegans are not at risk for infection caused by Listeria monocytogenes because they don't consume animal products. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) Infant botulism occurs when Clostridium botulinum is transmitted from mother to child either through the placenta or through breastmilk. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Food toxicity symptoms from Bacillus cereus and Clostridium perfringens are relatively short lived in healthy individuals. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 2

14) Due to their high risk of infection, humans who handle animals, carcasses, and meats are highly encouraged to receive the Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae vaccine. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) Corynebacterium diphtheriaediagnoses can be made based on confirmation of signs and symptoms, epidemiological factors, and the Elek test. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) Spore-forming Gram-positive pathogens are always more virulent than non-sporeformers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) Most people infected with Mycobacterium leprae will present with symptoms of Hansen's disease. ⊚ true ⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 18) Anthrax is A) a zoonosis. B) transmitted bycontact, inhalation, and ingestion. C) a disease that, inhumans, can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia. D) only seensporadically in the United States. E) All of the choices are correct.

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19)

Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following, except A) capsule andexotoxins are virulence factors. B) anaerobic. C) reservoir includesinfected grazing animals and contaminated soil. D) gram-positive bacillus. E) spore-former.

20)

Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin? A) Pulmonary B) Gastrointestinal C) Cutaneous D) All of the choices are correct.

21)

Which type of anthrax is called "woolsorter's disease"? A) Pulmonary B) Gastrointestinal C) Cutaneous D) All of the choices are correct.

22)

Treatment and control of anthrax include A) use ofantimicrobics, such as ciprofloxacin for active cases. B) vaccination oflivestock. C) toxoid formilitary and those with occupational exposure. D) proper disposal ofanimals that have died from anthrax. E) All of the choices are correct.

23)

Which is not correct about Bacillus cereus?

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A) Present in soil B) Produces enterotoxins C) Causes food-borne intoxication D) Causes a zoonosis E) Associated with cooked rice, potato, and meat dishes that are stored at room temperature

24)

The food-borne disease that involves neurotoxin is A) gastrointestinalanthrax. B) Bacilluscereus intoxication. C) botulism. D) Clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis. E) All of the choices are correct.

25)

Production of enterotoxin is a characteristic of A) Clostridiumbotulinum. B) Clostridiumperfringens. C) Clostridiumdifficile. D) Clostridiumtetani. E) All of the choices are correct.

26) Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of A) Clostridiumbotulinum. B) Clostridiumperfringens. C) Clostridiumdifficile. D) Clostridiumtetani. E) All of the choices are correct.

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27) Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of A) Clostridiumbotulinum. B) Clostridiumperfringens. C) Clostridiumdifficile. D) Clostridium tetani. E) All of the choices are correct.

28) Which organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes, and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis? A) Clostridiumbotulinum B) Clostridiumperfringens C) Clostridiumdifficile D) Clostridium tetani E) All of the choices are correct.

29)

Botulin, the toxin of botulism is

A) not as virulentas tetanospasmin. B) detected anddiagnosed by analyzing a patient's blood. C) the cause ofrigid paralysis. D) only producedunder anaerobic conditions. E) produced whenspores germinate in the intestines of adults after ingesting contaminatedfood.

30)

All of the following pertain to infant botulism, except

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A) symptoms include"floppy baby" appearance. B) neurotoxin is notinvolved in the disease process. C) ingested sporescan germinate in the immature intestines of the neonate. D) symptoms includeflaccid paralysis and respiratory complications. E) it is the most common type of botulismin the United States.

31)

Which of the following pertains to both tetanus and food-borne botulism? A) It can be treated with antibiotics. B) It is caused by enterotoxins of the pathogen. C) Exotoxin blocks acetylcholine release. D) Nausea and diarrhea are symptoms. E) Treatment involves antitoxin therapy.

32)

All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection, except A) it is due toingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies. B) it is a colitisthat is a superinfection. C) it often has anendogenous source. D) it may be on therise due to increased use of gastric acid inhibitors. E) it is a major cause of diarrhea in hospitals.

33)

All of the following pertain to Listeria monocytogenes, except A) it is gram-positive. B) it produces endospores. C) it frequently contaminatesdairy products, meats, poultry. D) it causes food-borne listeriosis. E) bacterial cells multiply within the cytoplasm of a host cell.

34)

All of the following pertain to listeriosis, except

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A) it causes symptomsof fever, diarrhea, and sore throat. B) it causes aserious septicemia and meningitis in the elderly, immunocompromised, andinfants. C) intrauterineinfection usually results in fetal death. D) adequatepasteurization and thorough cooking of food can improve prevention. E) enterotoxin of the organism causessymptoms.

35)

Erysipeloid is transmitted by A) inhalation ofspores from hides and wool of animals. B) ingestion ofimproperly cooked hot dogs. C) an abrasion onskin coming in contact with infected swine or other animals. D) contaminated soilentering deep puncture wounds. E) respiratory secretions.

36)

Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in A) diphtheria. B) listeriosis. C) tuberculosis. D) erysipeloid. E) botulism.

37)

Which of the following pertains to diphtheria? A) It results in meningitis. B) Symptoms include vomiting and diarrhea. C) It can be transmitted from mother's birth canal to neonate. D) It is prevented by the DTaP immunization. E) All of the choices are correct.

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38) The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effects is A) the capsule. B) themetachromatic granules. C) itsexotoxin. D) the endospore. E) itsendotoxin.

39)

Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species? A) All species are human pathogens. B) Mycobacterial cell walls have waxy lipids. C) Mycobateria are acid-fast. D) Many mycobacterial species have a slow growth rate. E) Mycobacterial cells are long, slender rods.

40)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis A) produces severalvirulence factor enzymes and an exotoxin. B) has a cord factor that can prevent destruction by lysosomes and macrophages. C) is a spore-former. D) has a capsule. E) lives in the soil.

41)

All of the following pertain to tuberculosis, except

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A) live bacilli canremain dormant in the lungs and reactivate later in life. B) symptoms of activeTB include low-grade fever, coughing, fatigue, weight loss, and nightsweats. C) lung infection candisseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB. D) the BCG vaccine isused in other countries. E) antimicrobials cannot treat and curetuberculosis.

42)

Tuberculin skin testing A) injects PPDintradermally. B) uses a purifiedprotein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. C) will be positiveif person has had previous exposure. D) will be positivein active TB. E) All of the choices are correct.

43)

A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves A) chest X-ray. B) acid-fast stain of sputum. C) sputum culture. D) tuberculin skintest. E) All of the choices are correct.

44)

Leprosy is a disease A) of lungtissue. B) that has beeneradicated around the world. C) caused by a pathogen that cannot be cultured in the lab. D) that can be diagnosed by the Mantoux test. E) caused by a spore-forming, gram-positive bacillus.

45)

Paucibacillary Hansen's disease

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A) causesasymmetrical, shallow skin lesions with loss of pain sensation. B) is the most disfiguring. C) is characterized by a large number of acid fast bacilli in the infected tissues (multibacillary). D) may have complications including secondary infections, kidney, or respiratory failure. E) All of the choices are correct.

46)

Fish tankgranuloma is caused by A) Mycobacteriumavium complex (MAC). B) Mycobacteriumkansasii. C) Mycobacteriumscrofulaceum. D) Mycobacterium fortuitum complex. E) Mycobacterium marinum.

47) The common soil mycobacteria that frequently cause systemic infection and death in AIDS patients is A) Mycobacteriumavium complex (MAC). B) Mycobacteriumkansasii. C) Mycobacteriumscrofulaceum. D) Mycobacterium fortuitum complex. E) Mycobacterium marinum.

48) Which of the following causes a non-communicable pulmonary infection that resembles tuberculosis?

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A) Mycobacteriumavium complex (MAC) B) Mycobacteriumkansasii C) Mycobacteriumscrofulaceum D) Mycobacteriumfortuitum complex E) Mycobacterium marinum

49)

Actinomyces israelii A) can be transmittedby respiratory droplets. B) can causepneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis. C) are filamentousrods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue. D) lives in thesoil. E) most often causes cases in the immunocompromised.

50)

Which is not a characteristic of Nocardia? A) It can be transmitted by respiratory droplets. B) It can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis. C) They are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected

tissue. D) It lives in the soil. E) It causes most cases in the immunocompromised.

51) For which of the following diseases does the "feather test" provide evidence of early infection? A) Tuberculosis B) Botulism C) Tetanus D) Hansen's disease E) Anthrax

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52)

Which of the following is/are characteristic of Multibacillary Hansen's disease? A) Granulomatous thickenings and folds of the skin may develop. B) Lepromatous leprosy is the most disfiguring form of the disease. C) The pathogen grows extensively in cooler body areas, such as nose, ears, testes. D) Complications include secondary infections, kidney, or respiratory failure. E) All of the choices are correct.

53)

Which of the following is not true about leprosy?

A) It is caused by Hansen's bacillus in honor of its discoverer. B) Mycobacterium lepraeis highly virulent, causing disease in most individuals that are exposed. C) Armadillos harbor a genetically identical M. leprae. D) Early signs appear as small, spotty lesions colored differently than the surrounding skin. E) The number of new cases in the U.S. each year is about 50 to 100, mostly associated with recent immigrants.

54)

Which of the following is not true about diphtheria? A) It is a zoonosis. B) Humans can be healthy carriers. C) It is prevented with the DTaP vaccine. D) It is an upper respiratory infection. E) A pseudomembranemay form in the back of the throat.

55)

All of the following are true about diphtheria toxin, except

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A) it inhibitscellular protein synthesis. B) it must beneutralized with antitoxin. C) it primarilytargets the heart and nerves. D) it is anexotoxin. E) antitoxin (DAT) comes from immunizedhuman plasma donors.

56)

The individuals most at risk for botulism are those that A) eat meat. B) arevegetarians. C) have a weakenedimmune system. D) consumehome-preserved foods. E) eat often in restaurants.

57)

Generally, what must healthy adults consume in order to contract botulism? A) Endospores of C. botulinum B) Vegetative cells of C. botulinum C) Botulism toxin in contaminated food D) Botulism toxoid in contaminated food E) Botulism antitoxin in contaminated food

58)

What is the usual cause of pseudomembranous colitis? A) Improperly home-preserved foods containing botulin toxin B) Consumingunpasteurized dairy products containing Listeria monocytogenes C) Handling infected animals contaminated with E. rhusiopathiae D) Therapy with broad-spectrum antibiotics leading to superinfection by C. difficile E) Living in close contact with someone infected with C. perfringens

59)

Which of the following may be recommended for treating gangrene?

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A) Debridement of the wound B) Hyperbaric chamber C) Amputation of affected limb D) Rigorous cleansing of deep wounds E) All of the choices are correct.

60)

Mild, uncomplicated cases of pseudomembranous colitis may be treated by A) debridement. B) woundcleansing. C) vancomycin for several weeks. D) withdrawal ofantibiotics and replacement of lost fluids and electrolytes. E) All of the choices are correct.

61)

Which of the following is not acharacteristic of Actinomyces israelii? A) Non-motile B) May live in human oral cavity or intestine C) May display mycelium-like growth D) Endospore former E) Discharge from infections may contain sulfur granules

62)

All of the following body sites may beaffected by diphtheria, except A) the pharynx. B) the heart. C) the peripheral and cranial nerves. D) the skin. E) All of the choices are correct.

63)

What do the bacteria that cause botulism, tetanus, and diphtheria have in common?

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A) Each of these diseases is caused by an endospore-forming bacterial species. B) Each of these diseases is caused by obligately anaerobic bacteria. C) Vaccines are widely used to prevent each of these diseases. D) Each of these bacteria make an exotoxin that is responsible for the disease.

64) A specimen was collected from a deep wound. A smear was prepared and Gram stained and samples were inoculated onto two blood agar plates. Both blood agar plates were incubated for 48 hours at 35°C, but one blood agar plate was incubated aerobically and the other was incubated in an anaerobe jar. The Gram stain of the original specimen showed large grampositive bacilli. After incubation, there was no growth on the blood agar plate that was incubated aerobically, but the plate incubated in the anaerobe jar grew beta hemolytic colonies. A Gram stain of these colonies showed large gram positive bacilli, some with unstained inclusions,suggestive of endospores. What is the most likely genus of bacteria observed? A) Bacillus B) Mycobacterium C) Listeria D) Clostridium E) Corynebacterium

65)

Which of the following is a significant risk factor for the development of listeriosis? A) Consumption of meat, poultry, eggs, and dairy products B) Being a vegan C) Receiving immunosuppressive drugs for treatment of an autoimmne disease D) Consuming home-canned foods

66) Janice had been experiencing mild flu-like symptoms before going into premature labor at seven months. The premature baby boy developed complications immediately after birth, running a fever and demonstrating neurologic abnormalities. A cerebrospinal fluid specimen was collected and a gram stain of the specimen showed short Gram-positive bacilli. The CSF culture grew small beta hemolytic colonies that were catalase positive. A CAMP test was positive on this isolate. The same organism grew from blood cultures done on the baby. What is the most likely identification? Version 1

A) Bacillus anthracis B) Listeria monocytogenes C) Streptococcus agalactiae D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

67)

All of the following are typical of nocardiosis, except A) it may be caused by Nocardia brasiliensis, Nocardiaasteroides, or Nocardia

caviae. B) infections may involve the lungs, the skin, or subcutaneous sites. C) nocardiosisusuallydevelops in individuals with a healthy immune response. D) symptoms of pulmonary nocardiosismay resemble the symptoms of tuberculosis.

68)

Which of the following is the most likely method if transmission of nocardiosis? A) Consuming contaminated home-preserved foods B) Consuming unpasteurized milk C) Inhaling dust containing cells of Nocardia D) Touching an individual who has nocardiosis with an ungloved hand

69) A seasonal farmworker has been brought into the emergency room showing early symptoms of tetanus, including spastic contractions of face and neck muscles. His coworkers indicated that he had received a puncture wound in his hand a week prior to the onset of symptoms. His tetanus vaccination status is uncertain. Which of the following should be administered to the patient first, as soon as possible? A) Tetanus toxoid B) Tetanus immune globulin C) Antibiotics D) Hyperbaric oxygen chamber therapy E) Tetanus titer

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70) An 85-year-old man has been experiencing weight loss, night sweats, and a dry cough for several months and just recently he has begun coughing up sputum with tinges of blood in it. Following a chest X-ray showing some white spots on his lungs, an AFB (Mycobacterial) stain and culture were ordered and both were positive for the presence of mycobacteria. He has been PPD positive since his 20s. Which of the following most accurately describes his current situation? A) Latent tubercular infection B) Primary tubercular infection C) Systemic tuberculosis D) Primary tubercular disease E) Reactivation tuberculosis

71) A 3-year-old child returns to the clinic after two days to have a Mantoux tuberculin skin test evaluated. The nurse measures an induration of 10 mm. This is considered A) a positive test. B) a negative test. C) an inconclusive test. D) too early to determine the results.

72) The nurse is reviewing instructions with a pregnant client. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? A) "I will limit my caffeine intake." B) "I can eat soft cheeses to ensure I get enough protein and calcium." C) "I will take a prenatal vitamin with iron and folic acid every day." D) "I will avoid alcohol."

73) Which of the following is not a similarity between Bacillus cereus and Clostridium perfringens?

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A) They are both Gram-positive, endospore-forming bacteria. B) They cause disease through contaminated foods. C) They are both obligate anaerobes. D) Symptoms of infection with either bacteria include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.

74) A butcher enters the hospital with an inflamed, itchy forearm with dark red lesions surrounding a three-inch scratch. He ensures that he wears gloves and an apron while working with animal carcasses, but not long-sleeved shirts. Bacteria are isolated from the wound and are confirmed to be Gram-positive rods that do not form spores. What is the most likely pathogen causing his discomfort? A) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae B) Listeria monocytogenes C) Mycobacterium leprae D) Clostridium perfringens E) Bacillus anthracis

75)

Actinomycosis is an infection by various species of Actinomyces derived from A) contaminated foods. B) normal microbiota. C) droplets aerosolized by sneezing or coughing. D) soil-dwelling microbes.

76) A 26-year-old woman enters the hospital with an itchy, pustule-like infection in her new tattoo. The clinical laboratory confirms that this is an infection with an NTM which contaminated the tattoo ink. What is the best recommendation for treatment?

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A) Standard course of anti-TB chemotherapeutics including isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide B) Amputation of the infected limb C) Debridement of the infected tissue D) Treatment is not required. NTMs typically resolve on their own.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 77) Hyperbaric chamber treatment involves putting patients with myonecrosis in a chamber that has a higher amount of __________.

78) The granulomas that develop in the lung tissue during tuberculosis are termed __________.

79) The __________ test injects 0.1 mL of Purified Protein Derviative intradermally into the forearm.

80) Mycobacterium leprae causes a chronic progressive diseaseof the skin and nerves called __________.

81)

In addition to antimicrobics, patients with diphtheria are treated with __________.

82) When the centers of tubercles break down into __________ lesions, they gradually heal by calcification that replaces normal lung tissue.

83)

Mycobacterium bovis is attenuated and used in the __________ vaccine.

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84) Food toxicity caused by Bacillus cereus and Clostridium perfringens occur when an individual consumes __________ produced by the bacteria and present in improperly stored foods.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 85) Discuss the types of foods and food preparation associated with food-borne botulism, and explain how neurotoxins gain entry to the foods.

86) Compare and contrast botulism and tetanus with regard to: a) transmission, b) virulence factors, c) location of target tissue and effect on the tissue, d) symptoms, e) treatment, and f) prevention.

87) Compare and contrast primary tuberculosis, secondary tuberculosis, and extrapulmonary tuberculosis.

88) Using specific examples, discuss how gram-positive bacilli are divided into major genera. At the very least include the oxygen requirements, sporulation characteristics, and acid-fast test results.

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89) Support or refute the following argument: Because Clostridioides difficile-associated disease is associated with the use of antibiotics, we should greatly reduce the amount of antibiotics used in hospital settings.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 19_11e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) E 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) E 23) D 24) C 25) C 26) D Version 1

27) A 28) B 29) D 30) B 31) E 32) A 33) B 34) E 35) C 36) A 37) D 38) C 39) A 40) B 41) E 42) E 43) E 44) C 45) A 46) E 47) A 48) B 49) C 50) C 51) D 52) E 53) B 54) A 55) E 56) D Version 1

57) C 58) D 59) E 60) D 61) D 62) E 63) D 64) D 65) C 66) B 67) C 68) C 69) B 70) E 71) C 72) B 73) C 74) A 75) B 76) C 77) oxygen 78) tubercles 79) Mantoux 80) leprosy 81) antitoxin 82) caseous 83) BCG 84) enterotoxins

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CHAPTER 20 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to many antimicrobics. ⊚ ⊚

Proteus species often cause urinary tract infections. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Legionellosis is a zoonosis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) The Enterobacteriaceae do not produce oxidase compared to the pseudomonads that do produce oxidase. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) The pathogen that causes Legionnaires' pneumonia also causes a milder infection called Pontiac fever. ⊚ ⊚

Pseudomonas is an enteric gram-negative rod. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Plague is a quarantinable disease.

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⊚ ⊚

A paroxysmal cough is associated with Legionnaires' disease. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The IMViC series of biochemical tests are used to identify the Enterobacteriaceae. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Shigellosis is typically acquired via the respiratory route. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Patients with legionellosisshould be placed in isolation when hospitalized due to the contagious nature of the pathogen. ⊚ ⊚

true false

12) Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae(CRE) are typically resistant to carbapenem but sensitive to most other antibiotics. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Pseudomonads act as decomposers with the ability to degrade hundreds of natural substrates. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14) Due to its aerobic metabolism, P. aeruginosa differs from members of the Enterobacteriaceae. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) Pseudomonas exhibits pink and green pigments during growth, which helps with identification. ⊚ ⊚

16)

true false

Burkholderia and Stenotrophomonas can both be grown on mannitol salt agar. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia appears as a common contaminant of disinfectants and healthcare equipment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

18)

Some bacterium in the genus Alcaligenes are isolated from feces. ⊚ ⊚

true false

19) Enteropathogenic strains of E. coli (EPEC) are linked to a wasting form of infantile diarrhea whose pathogenesis is not well understood. ⊚ ⊚

20)

true false

Enterobacter is commonly associated with urinary tract infections.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 21) Which are considered true enteric pathogens? A) Salmonella B) Klebsiella C) Proteus D) Enterobacter E) Shigella

22) The bacteria classified as carbepenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae(CRE)primarily are species within the genera A) Klebsiella. B) Proteus. C) Enterobacter. D) Escherichia. E) Salmonella.

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 23) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is A) found in soil andwater. B) an opportunist thatproduces many diverse enzymes. C) highly chemicalresistant. D) motile. E) All of these choices are correct.

24)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes all the following, except

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A) severe nosocomialinfection in burn patients. B) skin rashes fromcontaminated hot tubs and bath sponges. C) diarrhealillness. D) external earinfection. E) serious infection in lung tissue ofcystic fibrosis patients.

25)

Which color pigment is produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa? A) lemon yellow B) red-orange C) golden D) blue-green E) pale orange

26)

Brucellosis is A) a zoonosis. B) seen in the patientas a fluctuating fever, with headache, muscle pain, and weakness. C) associated withpathogen in the blood. D) an occupationalillness of people that work with animals. E) All of these choices are correct.

27)

Which is not associated with tularemia?

A) The causative agent is apathogen of concern on the lists of bioterrorism agents. B) Tularemia is transmitted by arthropod vectors. C) The reservoir can be rabbits and squirrels. D) Symptoms include fever, swollen lymph nodes, ulcerative lesions, conjunctivitis, and pneumonia. E) In animals, tularemia infects the placenta and fetus.

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28)

Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent A) tularemia. B) pertussis. C) legionellosis. D) brucellosis. E) shigellosis.

29)

Rabbits and rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of A) tularemia. B) pertussis. C) legionellosis. D) brucellosis. E) shigellosis.

30)

Pertussis has the following characteristics, except A) the pathogen has virulence factors to destroy the action of respiratory cilia. B) the catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops". C) an early stage resembles a cold with nasal discharge and sneezing. D) DTaP immunizationwill prevent it. E) transmission is by respiratorydroplets.

31)

Legionella pneumophila A) requires speciallab growth media. B) often lives inclose associations with amoebas. C) causes fever,cough, and diarrhea. D) causes a severepneumonia. E) All of these choices are correct.

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32)

Characteristics of all the members of the family Enterobacteriaceae include A) lactose fermentation. B) their role asnormal flora of human intestines. C) production ofenterotoxins. D) glucose fermentation. E) All of these choices are correct.

33) Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters? A) Legionellosis B) Pertussis C) Brucellosis D) Plague E) Traveler's diarrhea

34)

Genes for which of the following may be transferred between fecal bacteria? A) Toxin production B) Capsules C) Fimbriae D) Hemolysins E) All of these choices are correct.

35)

Escherichia coli infections

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A) are oftentransmitted by fecal contaminated water and food. B) include urinarytract infections from normal flora strains. C) involveenterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea. D) can cause aninflammatory disease similar to Shigella dysentery. E) All of these choices are correct.

36)

Which is mismatched? A) H antigen—fimbriae B) K antigen—capsule C) O antigen—cell wall, somatic D) All of these choices are correct.

37)

E. coli 0157:H7 characteristics include all the following, except

A) it only causesoccupational illness in people who work with animals. B) it is transmittedby ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger. C) it causes abloody diarrhea. D) its reservoir is cattle intestines. E) some cases go on to hemolytic uremicsyndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure.

38)

Salmonella are A) coliforms. B) motile. C) gram-positive rods. D) lactosefermenters. E) All of these choices are correct.

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39) All of the following are coliforms that cause opportunistic and nosocomial infections, except A) Enterobacter. B) Citrobacter. C) Shigella. D) Klebsiella. E) Serratia.

40)

Typhoid fever has the following characteristics, except

A) it is spread byhandling reptiles. B) it is transmitted by ingesting fecally contaminated food and water. C) chronic carriers harbor the pathogens in their gallbladder. D) it can infect thesmall intestine with fever, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. E) it can become a septicemia, spread tolymph nodes and spleen, and cause liver abscesses.

41)

Salmonelloses are A) not caused by Salmonella typhi. B) associated withundercooked poultry and eggs, and reptile and rodent feces. C) gastroenteritiswith vomiting and diarrhea. D) enteric feversthat often include septicemia. E) All of these choices are correct.

42)

Which is incorrect about shigellosis?

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A) Outbreaks have occurred in day-care centers. B) It is characterized by watery diarrhea with bloody, mucoid stools, and abdominal cramps. C) It frequently involves septicemia. D) Human carriers cause fecal transmission. E) It is also called bacillary dysentery.

43)

Shigella species have the following characteristics, except A) they are non-motile. B) they release endotoxin. C) they belong to Enterobacteriaceae. D) they infect the small intestine. E) they produce enterotoxin.

44)

Salmonella typhi A) multiplies withinphagocytes. B) is not acoliform. C) can be treatedwith antimicrobics. D) causes invasiveinfection of the small intestine. E) All of these choices are correct.

45)

Yersinia pestis A) was virulent inthe Middle Ages but is no longer virulent. B) has humans as anendemic reservoir. C) does not respondto antimicrobic drugs. D) is usuallytransmitted by a flea vector. E) All of these choices are correct.

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46)

All of the following are associated with bubonic plague, except A) it is transmittedby human feces. B) it is caused by Yersinia pestis. C) the patient oftenhas enlarged inguinal lymph nodes. D) the patient hasfever, headache, nausea, weakness. E) it can progress to a septicemia.

47)

Which of the following are true about plague? A) There is a septicemic form called the Black Death. B) There is a bubonic form, during whichbuboes develop. C) There is a pneumonic form, in which the sputum is highly contagious. D) The disease can be controlled by controlling therodent population. E) All of these choices are correct.

48) is

The gram-negative bacillus associated with abscesses from dog and cat bites or scratches

A) Salmonella typhimurium. B) Yersiniaenterocolitica. C) Pasteurellamultocida. D) Brucella suis. E) Francisella tularensis.

49)

Which is incorrect about Yersinia pestis? A) It exhibits bipolar staining. B) It is a gram-negative rod. C) It produces coagulase enzyme. D) It has a capsule. E) It produces enterotoxin.

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50)

Which of the following is not caused by Haemophilus influenzae? A) Bacterial meningitis B) Influenza (flu) C) Otitis media D) Bronchitis E) Epiglottitis

51)

Which of the following is an agent of the sexually transmitted disease chancroid? A) Haemophilusaegyptius B) Haemophilusinfluenzae C) Haemophilusparainfluenzae D) Haemophilusducreyi E) Haemophilus aphrophilus

52)

The vaccine for immunity to Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is A) DtaP. B) Pneumovax. C) MMR. D) Hib.

53) Although Burkholderia cepacia could be very useful in bioremediation programs, it is not feasible to use it. Why? A) Because it cancause opportunistic infections in the respiratory tract. B) Because it cannotbe cultured in the lab to necessary numbers. C) Because it is tooexpensive at this time to grow it. D) It encourages theovergrowth of fungus in the environment, which is not desirable. E) It produces a foul odor making it apoor choice for most situations.

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54) Which of the following is normal oral and nasopharyngeal flora but is involved in infective endocarditis in adults who have underlying congenital or rheumatic heart disease? A) Haemophilusinfluenzae B) Haemophilusaphrophilus C) Haemophilusaegyptius D) Haemophilus ducreyi E) All of these choices are correct.

55)

A cause of epiglottitis in children and young adults is A) Haemophilusinfluenzae. B) Haemophilusducreyi. C) Haemophilusaegyptius. D) Haemophilus parainfluenzae. E) Haemophilus aphrophilus.

56)

Chancroidis characterized by A) sexual transmission. B) geographical distribution in the tropics and subtropics. C) lesions which develop at theportal of entry. D) bubo-like swelling of the lymph nodes. E) All of these choices are correct.

57)

All of the following are correct about salmonelloses except

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A) non-typhoidalstrains of salmonella are zoonotic in origin. B) foods contaminatedby rodent feces may cause outbreaks. C) outbreaks havebeen caused by eggs. D) drug resistance ofsalmonella is on the rise. E) strains are normal flora in dogs andcats.

58)

Nationwide, over 100,000 patients a year die from septic shock. This is due to A) the presence oflipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane of bacteria. B) lipoteichoic acidin the cell wall of bacteria. C) a cytotoxin similarto the diphtheria toxin. D) coagulase. E) a neurotoxin similar to botulin.

59)

What is incorrect about pertussis? A) A virulence factorof B. pertussis is toxins that destroy cilia cells is produced. B) The source ofinfection is direct contact with inhaled droplets. C) The paroxysmalstage is characterized by persistent coughing. D) The number of cases has been steadily decreasing since 1976. E) It can cause severe, life-threateningcomplications in babies.

60)

The buildup of mucus and blockage of airways in pertussis is due to A) endotoxin. B) lipopolysaccharide. C) toxins thatdestroy the ciliated cells of the respiratory tract. D) Pseudomonasaeruginosa. E) the presence of a capsule.

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61) Which of the following species was once considered so benign that microbiologists used it to trace movements of air currents in hospitals and over cities? A) Morganella B) Providencia C) Citrobacter D) Serratia E) Legionella

62)

Up to 70% of travel-associated gastrointestinal diseases are caused by A) enterotoxigenicstrains of E. coli. B) Salmonella. C) Shigelladysenteriae. D) E. coli 0157:H7. E) enteroinvasive E. coli.

63)

Which bacteria could be responsible for hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)? A) eterotoxigeic strains of E. coli B) Salmonella C) Shigelladysenteriae D) E. coli0157:H7 E) eteroinvasive E. coli

64)

Which of the following is not correct concerning Legionnaires' disease? A) L.pneumophila lives in close associations with free-living amoebas. B) The disease iscommunicable from person to person. C) Symptoms includecough, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. D) It is more commonin males over 50 years of age. E) Cases have been traced to the falloutfrom the Mount Saint Helen's volcano.

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65)

Which of the following is not correct concerning the plague?

A) Mice, voles, andother rodents are primary long-term reservoirs. B) It is transmittedby flea vectors. C) Less than 10 cases per year occur in the U.S. D) The etiological agent is Yersiniapestis. E) Strains of the plague bacillus are less virulent today compared to strains prevalent in the Middle Ages.

66) Although this bacteria is typically found in soil and water, burn wound patients are susceptible to __________ infection. A) Yersiniapestis B) Bordetellapertussis C) Pseudomonas D) E. coli 0157:H7 E) Shigella

67) Whooping cough is transmitted via respiratory droplets. The __________ stage lasts 1–2 weeks, while the __________ stage is characterized by severe coughing. A) primary; secondary B) catarrhal; paroxysmal C) incubation; convalescent D) low T-cell; high macrophage E) incubation; invasion

68)

E. coli O157:H7 and E. coli O111:H7 differ in their

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A) Gram reaction. B) capsular antigen. C) flagellar antigen. D) cell wall antigen.

69)

The designation CRE refers to

A) a group of bacteria that are resistant to many classes of antibiotics. B) an antibiotic that is effective against most gram-negative organisms. C) a number of gram-negative bacteria which frequently cause infections in childhood. D) a common methodology used in hospital inspections to enumerate and destroybacteria onsurfaces—count, record, eliminate.

70) Occasionally when doing serologic testing to identify strains of Salmonella isolates, the test for different O antigens is negative. What is the most likely explanation? A) The H antigens are masking the O antigens. B) The K antigens are masking the O antigens. C) The K antigens are masking the H antigens. D) There is no O antigen present.

71) Species of Shigella are characteristically non-motile. Based on this information you can predict that members of the Shigella genus A) have K antigens. B) do not have H antigens. C) will not grow on MacConkey agar. D) will not have O antigens.

72) Which of the following bacterial genera contain members that are very similar physiologically to Pseudomonas and cause a similar spectrum of opportunistic infections? Version 1

A) Hemophilus B) Stenotrophomonas C) Burkholderia D) Legionella E) both Burkholderia and Stenotrophomonas F) All of these choices are correct.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 73) Fever, vomiting, stiff neck, and neurological impairment are symptoms associated with __________.

74)

Inflammation of the lining of the stomach and intestines is called __________.

75) Exotoxins that target and bind to surface receptors of the intestinal lining are specifically termed __________.

76) The member of the Enterobacteriaceae that has enteroinvasive, enterotoxigenic, enteropathogenic, and enterohemorrhagic strains is __________.

77) Klebsiella has a large __________ that contributes to its ability to cause chronic lung infections.

78)

The transmission of a disease from animal to human is termed _______.

79)

________ serve as the primary reservoir for Legionella.

80) _______ are gram-negative normal enteric microbiota that ferments lactose within 48 hours.

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81)

In order to differentiate Yersinia from Shigellaa/an _____ test would be used.

82)

_______ exhibits a red pigment during growth at room temperature.

83)

A strain of Shigella was found on ______ in Baja California.

84)

Bordetella parapertussis causes a milder form of __________.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 85) Describe the characteristics of the Enterobacteriaceae and discuss the difference between the coliforms and noncoliforms in the family.

86)

Compare and contrast typhoid fever and salmonellosis.

87) Compare and contrast the three forms of plague with regard to: a) pathogenesis, b) transmission, c) symptoms, and d) prevention.

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88) Distinguish the four different pathogenic strains of E. coli with regard to: a) names of the strains, b) virulence factors, and c) symptoms.

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 89) Compare and contrast shigellosis and salmonellosis.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 20_11e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) TRUE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) TRUE 19) TRUE 20) TRUE 21) [A, E] 22) [A, C, D] 23) E 24) C 25) D 26) E Version 1

27) E 28) D 29) A 30) B 31) E 32) D 33) A 34) E 35) E 36) A 37) A 38) B 39) C 40) A 41) E 42) C 43) D 44) E 45) D 46) A 47) E 48) C 49) E 50) B 51) D 52) D 53) A 54) B 55) A 56) E Version 1

57) E 58) A 59) D 60) C 61) D 62) A 63) D 64) B 65) E 66) C 67) B 68) D 69) A 70) B 71) B 72) E 73) meningitis 74) gastroenteritis 75) enterotoxins 76) E. coli 77) capsule 78) zoonotic 79) Ameoba 80) Coliforms 81) urease 82) Serratia 83) parsley 84) pertussis

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CHAPTER 21 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The spirochete of relapsing fever changes cell surface antigens many times in order to avoid destruction by the immune response. ⊚ ⊚

Humans are the reservoir for Borrelia hermsii. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Dental caries are the most common human disease. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Lyme disease is only seen in people living in Lyme, Connecticut. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) In severe cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever, the enlarged lesions of the rash can become necrotic and predispose the patient to gangrene of toes and fingertips. ⊚ ⊚

Chlamydias and rickettsias are unusual bacteria because they do not have cell walls. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Chlamydia trachomatis is commonly transmitted directly by sexual activity.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) The highest numbers of cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever occur along the eastern seaboard. ⊚ ⊚

NGU is a syndrome among males with chlamydial infections of the urethra. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Bejel, Yaws, and Pinta are sexually transmitted, nonsyphilitic treponematoses. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

Chlamydiosis can lead to endometritis, salpingitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

Anaplasma is a zoonosis spread by ticks. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Chlamydophila species are aquatic microoraganisms that can sometimes cause diseases in humans and animals. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 14) Which of the following genera include obligate intracellular parasites of the host? (check all that apply). A) Vibrio B) Rickettsia C) Chlamydia D) Treponema E) Helicobacter

15)

Chlamydophila pneumoniae __________. (check all that apply). A) is a zoonotic pathogen. B) causes respiratory infections. C) can be acquired through the consumption of unpasteurized milk. D) causes only a mild illness in most infected persons.

16)

L forms may arise __________. (check all that apply). A) when bacteria are exposed to lysozyme. B) when bacteria are exposed to penicillin. C) as bacteria shed their cell wall in preparation for cell division. D) when nutrients are in short supply.

17) Which of the following are emerging infectious diseases in the United States? (check all that apply). A) Anaplasma phagocytophilum B) Ehrlichia chaffeensis C) Treponema pallidum D) Vibrio cholerae

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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 18) Which of the following is not transmitted via an arthropod vector? A) Leptospirosis B) Lyme Disease C) Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever D) Epidemic Typhus E) Human Ehrlichiosis

19)

Which is not a characteristic of spirochetes? A) All are pathogenic B) Gram-negative C) Helical shape D) Always motile E) Endoflagella enclosed in periplasmic space

20)

Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum A) has humans as thereservoir. B) can cross theplacenta. C) is the cause ofsyphilis. D) is transmitted bydirect sexual contact. E) All of the choices are correct.

21)

The chancre of syphilis

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A) occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries. B) is verypainful. C) occurs during thetertiary stage. D) develops into alesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater. E) All of the choices are correct.

22)

The secondary stage of syphilis A) is when thepatient is no longer infectious to others. B) occurs within 10days of the primary stage. C) is a time whenthe pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood. D) has nosymptoms. E) is when gummas develop in tissues.

23) During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur? A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Latent E) All of the choices are correct.

24)

Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis? A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Latent E) All of the choices are correct.

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25)

Treponema, Borrelia, and Leptospira are all A) obligateparasites requiring host cells. B) curved rods. C) transmitted byarthropod vectors. D) spirochetes. E) bacteria without cell walls.

26)

Yaws, pinta, and bejel are all diseases that A) are slow,progressive skin diseases that can spread to deep tissues. B) are sexuallytransmitted. C) are caused byarthropod vectors. D) are caused by Vibrio species. E) are respiratory tract infections.

27)

Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their A) feces. B) blood. C) urine. D) respiratorysecretions. E) saliva.

28)

Leptospirosis has all the following characteristics, except A) it is most common in cattle, horses, pigs, and dogs. B) the pathogen is a spirochete. C) it infects kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes. D) humans acquire it by contact with abraded skin or mucous membranes. E) it can be transmitted by animal bites.

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29)

Relapsing fever involves A) soft-bodied tickstransmitting Borrelia hermsii. B) initial symptomsof fever, headache, fatigue. C) campers andforestry personnel. D) human body lousetransmitting Borrelia recurrentis. E) All of the choices are correct.

30)

The causative agent of Lyme disease is A) Ixodesscapularis. B) Borreliahermsii. C) Borreliaburgdorferi. D) Ixodespacificus. E) Leptospira interrogans.

31)

Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with A) syphilis. B) Rocky Mountainspotted fever. C) relapsingfever. D) Lyme disease. E) leptospirosis.

32) The Argyll-Robertson pupil that is fixed, small, and does not react to light but does accommodate for focusing is associated with

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A) Lyme disease. B) leptospirosis. C) chlamydiosis. D) Rocky Mountainspotted fever. E) tertiary syphilis.

33) The white-footed mouse, deer, and deer ticks are important to maintaining the transmission cycle associated with A) Lyme disease. B) leptospirosis. C) chlamydiosis. D) Rocky Mountainspotted fever. E) tertiary syphilis.

34)

Control of rodent populations is important for preventing A) tick-bornerelapsing fever. B) ornithosis. C) epidemictyphus. D) Q fever. E) All of the choices are correct.

35)

Lyme disease involves A) early symptoms offever, headache, stiff neck. B) cripplingpolyarthritis and cardiovascular and neurological problems. C) people havingcontact with wooded or forested areas. D) treatment withantimicrobics. E) All of the choices are correct.

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36)

The RPR, VDRL, TP-PA, and FTA-ABS tests are used to diagnose A) chlamydiosis. B) syphilis. C) Lyme disease. D) Rocky Mountainspotted fever. E) Q fever.

37)

Cholera symptoms include A) copious waterydiarrhea. B) loss of bloodvolume. C) acidosis, sunkeneyes, thirst. D) hypotension,tachycardia, shock. E) All of the choices are correct.

38)

The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its A) capsule. B) neurotoxin. C) invasiveenzymes. D) enterotoxin. E) All of the choices are correct.

39) is

The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims

A) water andelectrolyte replacement. B) antimicrobics. C) antitoxins. D) surgery.

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40) Which organism is found in coastal waters and causes a food infection and gastroenteritis due to a variety of contaminated raw and undercooked seafood? A) Chlamydia trachomatis B) Vibrio parahaemolyticus C) Vibrio cholerae D) Campylobacter jejuni E) Helicobacter pylori

41) In patients with diabetes or liver disease, ingestion of raw oysters contaminated with which organism can lead to death? A) Vibrio vulnificus B) Vibrioparahaemolyticus C) Vibriocholerae D) Campylobacter jejuni E) Helicobacter pylori

42)

Which of the following organisms causes a type of diarrhea with "rice water stools"? A) Vibriovulnificus B) Vibrioparahaemolyticus C) Vibriocholerae D) Campylobacterjejuni E) Helicobacter pylori

43)

Helicobacter pylori causes

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A) gastritis. B) duodenalulcers. C) stomachulcers. D) increased riskfor stomach cancer. E) All of the choices are correct.

44)

Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori? A) Gram-negative B) Produces enteroxin that causes diarrhea C) Curved rods D) Lives in the stomach E) Produces urease that buffers stomach acidity

45)

All of the following are characteristics of Campylobacter jejuni, except A) it is transmittedthrough ingestion of contaminated chicken, meat, milk, and water. B) it causes feverand a watery to bloody diarrhea. C) it infects thestomach. D) it produces an enterotoxin called CJT that stimulates diarrhea. E) it has gram-negative curved rods with darting motility.

46)

Characteristics of rickettsias include A) obligateparasites requiring host cells for growth. B) arthropods serveas life cycle hosts and vectors. C) gram-negative coccobacilli. D) host cells arerequired for ATP metabolism. E) All of the choices are correct.

47)

The pathogenesis of rickettsial infections often involves infection of

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A) endotheliallining of blood vessels. B) gastrointestinallining. C) dermis of theskin. D) stomachmucosa. E) urinary tract.

48)

Which "disease-transmission" pair is mismatched? A) Epidemic typhus—Body louse feces B) Murine typhus—Flea feces C) Rickettsial pox—Mite bite D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever—Tick bite E) Human ehrlichiosis—Flea bite

49)

Rocky Mountain spotted fever A) is seen in highest numbers along the West Coast. B) is transmitted by Ixodes ticks. C) has symptoms thatinclude fever, headache, and rash. D) never has severecomplications. E) All of the choices are correct.

50)

Which is incorrect regarding Q fever? A) Transmitted by lice B) Pathogen produces resistant spores C) Humans infected from unpasteurized milk and airborne spread D) Causes fever, muscle aches, rash, and sometimes pneumonia E) It is a zoonosis.

51)

Which "pathogen-disease" pair is mismatched?

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A) Rickettsia rickettsii—Epidemic typhus B) Coxiella burnetii—Q fever C) Bartonella quintana—Trench fever D) Bartonella henselae—Cat scratch disease E) Rickettsia typhi—Endemic (murine) typhus

52)

All of the following are characteristics of Chlamydias, except A) they are gram-negative. B) they areobligate intracellular parasites that need host cells for growth. C) elementary bodies are the infectious form. D) elementary bodies are metabolically active. E) reticulate bodies differentiate into elementary bodies.

53)

Chlamydia trachomatis causes A) nongonococcalurethritis (NGU) in males. B) cervicitis infemales. C) congenital andadult inclusion conjunctivitis. D) oculartrachoma. E) All of the choices are correct.

54)

Ornithosis A) is caused by Chlamydophila pneumoniae. B) is a zoonosis ofcertain types of birds. C) is a mild, upperrespiratory tract illness. D) has humans as a reservoir. E) All of the choices are correct.

55)

All of the following are correct about primary atypical pneumonia, except

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A) it is mainlycaused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae. B) it can also becaused by adenoviruses. C) it is transmittedby aerosol droplets. D) it has symptomssimilar to pneumococcal pneumonia. E) communityresistance is high.

56)

Which of the following is incorrect about Mycoplasma pneumoniae? A) Birds areareservoir. B) It is a commoncause of primary atypical pneumonia. C) Early infections are characterized by fever, malaise, sore throat, headache. D) After 2 to 3weeks, it develops into an unproductive cough and earache. E) Its cells lack a cell wall.

57)

Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface

A) develop abiofilm. B) use fimbriae andslime layers to adhere. C) includestreptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and formplaque. D) include Actinomyces and Streptococcus that ferment carbohydrates and produce acids that cause caries. E) All of the choices are correct.

58)

Gingivitis is A) primarily causedby anaerobic oral flora. B) erosion of toothenamel causing a lesion. C) caused by Streptococcus mutans. D) also calledNUG.

59)

Ureaplasma urealyticum is implicated in which of the following?

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A) Nongonococcal urethritis B) Rocky Mountain spotted fever C) Periodontal disease D) Q fever E) Endemic typhus

60)

All of the following can positively influence the structure of tooth enamel, except A) fluoride. B) lysozyme insaliva. C) antibodies insaliva. D) refinedsugar. E) genetics.

61) Treponema vincentii, Bacteroides forsythus, and fusobacteria synergistically are involved in which infection? A) Gingivitis B) Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) C) Ornithosis D) Yaws E) Nongonococcal urethritis

62)

Which of the following distinguishes syphilis from yaws? A) Syphilis is caused by a spirochete. B) Syphilis has a primary, secondary, and tertiary stage. C) Syphilis issexually transmitted. D) Syphilis istreated with antibiotics. E) Syphilis is a slow and progressivedisease.

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63)

Hutchinson's teeth are A) a symptom ofuntreated Lyme disease. B) a symptom ofuntreated periodontal disease. C) a symptom ofANUG. D) a symptom ofcongenital syphilis. E) a symptom of congenital Chlamydiatrachomatis.

64)

The tertiary stage of syphilis A) is when gummasdevelop in tissues. B) is when thepatient is highly infectious to others. C) occurs within 10days of the primary stage. D) has nosymptoms. E) is when a chancre develops.

65)

Which of the following is incorrect about Lyme disease? A) It is a newdisease that started in Lyme, Connecticut. B) Its reservoirsare mice and deer. C) It is transmittedby ticks. D) It isnonfatal. E) It can slowly progress and mimicrheumatoid conditions.

66) Which of the following diseases could be prevented with proper sewage disposal and water purification? A) Vibrioparahaemolyticus gastroenteritis B) Vibriovulnificus gastroenteritis C) Cholera D) Lyme disease E) Leptospirosis

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67)

Which is incorrect about leptospirosis? A) It can be avoidedby not swimming in livestock watering ponds. B) A vaccine is notavailable. C) Its principal targets are the kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes. D) It is azoonosis. E) Weil's syndrome occurs during the second phase of the disease.

68) A patient has a serious lung infection. A sputum sample was taken. The lab technician stated that the labisolated a bacterium that did not have any peptidoglycan. You hypothesize that the identity of this microbe could be __________. A) Mycobacteriumtuberculosis B) Borrelia burgdorferi C) Streptococcuspneumoniae D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae E) Haemophilus influenzae

69)

Lyme disease is caused by __________ and is transmitted by ticks. A) Proteusvulgaris B) Rickettsiatyphi C) Rickettsia rickettsii D) Borrelia burgdorferi E) Leptospira interrogans

70)

According to CDC data, who is more likely to acquire a rickettsial disease?

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A) Aaron who traveled to Arizona for the summer B) Helene who went to the beach at Big Sur, CA C) Jordan who visited his aunt in Sub-Saharan Africa D) Nick who stayed home and mowed his lawn E) Daniel who works in a pet store and takes extra precautions against fleas and ticks

71) After being bitten by a tick on a hiking trip, Ava had chills, headache, muscle pain, nausea, lethargy, and a rash. Before further testing, Ava's health care provider gave her information about which of the following diseases? A) Anaplasmosis B) Ehrlichiosis C) Shigella and dysentery D) Streptococcus pyogenes and strep throat E) Both anaplasmosis and ehrlichiosis are correct. F) All of the choices are correct

72)

Which of the following characteristics is not true of Treponema pallidum? A) Requires mammalian host B) Microaerophilic C) Causative agent of syphilis D) Solely utilizes glycolysis for energy E) Grows well on chocolate agar in the laboratory

73)

Characteristics seen in the curviform bacteria include A) short curved rods or spiral-shaped cells. B) gram-positive cell wall. C) peritrichousflagella. D) an axial filament. E) coccus-shaped cells.

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74) Which of the following is usually the most effective and practical treatment for most cases of bacterialdiarrhea? A) Delivery of intravenous fluids to rehydrate patients B) Treatment with antibiotics C) Oral rehydration with solutions of electrolytes and water D) Over-the-counter antidiarrheal medications

75)

Which of the following is most useful for the definitive diagnosis of Lyme disease? A) Blood cultures B) Culture of the bull's-eye rash on Lyme-selective agar C) Gram stain of blood specimen D) Lyme antibody titers E) All of thechoices are correct.

76) Which of the following would provide the strongest evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in Lyme, Connecticutwas due to bacterial infection? A) It responded to treatment with antibiotics. B) It was not contagious. C) It was transmitted by ticks. D) It was accompanied by a rash. E) It affected mostly children.

77) A private in the U.S. Army is stationed at Ft. Bragg, North Carolina. He has been admitted to the infirmary with complaints of a severe headache and high fever. Upon questioning, he revealed that he had received a tick bite several days earlier. Two days after admission, he starts to develop a rash, beginning on his hands and feet and spreading towards his torso. Which of the following should be consideredfirst in the diagnosis?

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A) Epidemic typhus B) Tularemia C) Lyme disease D) Anthrax E) Rocky Mountain spotted fever

78) Based on a patient's medical history, a doctor suspects that the patient may have been exposed to syphilis several years prior. Since the patient is currently asymptomatic, the doctor will be testing to see if the patient is in the latent stage of syphilis. Which of the following would be the most effective way to diagnose syphilis during latency? A) Dark-field microscopy of scrapings from chancres B) Dark-field microscopy of blood specimens C) Culture of blood specimens on syphilis selective agar D) Serological testing of blood specimens

79) A strain of Vibrio cholerae has mutated and is no longer able to produce cholera toxin. What is the most likely outcome of infection with this strain? A) The disease it produces will be very similar to that produced by toxin-producing strains. B) It will not be able to survive transit through the stomach so no disease will result. C) Without its toxin, it will not cause diarrhea. D) Without its toxin, it will not be able to invade the intestinal epithelial cells and establish disease.

80) Why are penicillin and other beta lactam antibiotics not used for treatment of primary atypical pneumonia?

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A) Antibiotics will not work against the viruses that cause primary atypical pneumonia. B) The organism that causesprimary atypical pneumonia does not have a cell wall, so penicillin and other beta lactam antibiotics will not work. C) The organism that causes primary atypical pneumonia usually makes beta lactamases. D) Penicillin and other beta lactam antibiotics will not penetrate inside of pulmonary cells where the Mycoplasmaresides.

81) A phone triage nurse answers a call from a client who reports being bitten by a deer tick. Which instructions does the nurse provide? A) There is no need to seek care unless you see a red, circular rash at the site of the tick bite. B) You need to start treatment with an antiviral drug immediately. C) Deer ticks are not carriers of any diseases affecting humans. D) You should be tested immediately for antibodies against Lyme disease. E) See your health care provider if you feel malaise or achy.

82) The nurse is caring for 24-year-old female diagnosed with syphilis. The client presents with a widespread, symmetric, maculopapular rash on the palms and sores. The nurse understands that the client is in which stage of infection? A) Primary syphilis B) Secondary syphilis C) Tertiary syphilis D) Quaternary syphilis

83) A new patient enters your office complaining of stomach pain. He had previously been diagnosed with stomach ulcers and precribed Tagamet. The treatment has been helpful, but the patient is concerned that he will have to take this prescription for the rest of his life, and would like a second opinion. You run some more tests including a serelogical detection pf antibodies present in his stool and discover the source of the pain. Which bacterial infection does this patient have?

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A) Helicobacter pylori B) Campylobacter jejuni C) Vibrio cholerae D) Vibrio parahaemolyticus

84)

How is Helicobacter pylori able to entrench itself on stomach epithelial cells?

A) It bores through stomach mucus using its flagella. B) It attaches to the cells using specific receptors. C) It produces urease to weaken the epithelial cell wall. D) Both of these answers are correct: It bores through stomach mucus using its flagella and it attaches to the cells using specific receptors. E) Both of these answers are correct: It bores through stomach mucus using its flagella and It produces urease to weaken the epithelial cell wall.

85) What is the best way to differentiate between anaplasmosis and Lyme disease following a tick bite? A) Wait for signs and symptoms, which are different between the two diseases B) PCR tests on patient samples to identify species C) Gram staining the infecting pathogen D) Not applicable—Anaplasmosis and Lyme disease are not both transmitted through tick bites.

86) Which of the following activities does not put someone at higher risk of contracting Q fever and other zoonotic diseases? A) Xenotransplantation B) Drinking raw milk C) Being vegan D) Veterinary work

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87) A patient with a pet parrot enters the hospital with a headache, fever, and productive coughing. He is diagnosed with ornithosis. What is the best course of treatment? A) Treatment with penicillin B) Treatment with doxycycline C) Treatment with electrolytes and water D) No treatment is required; the patient will feel better in a few days and is not contagious.

88) What is the best strategy to combat an infection that leads to L forms after treating with penicillin? Why is this the best strategy? A) Maintain the current course of penicillin; L forms are still sensitive to penicillin. B) Increase the dost of penicillin; L forms are sensitive to high levels of penicillin. C) Transition to treatment with an antibiotic that has a target besides the cell wall; L forms are still sensitive to other antibiotics. D) Maintain the current course of treatment; L forms will die without treatment and are not cause for concern.

89)

What is the benefit of tooth brushing in preventing dental disease? A) Removing plaque that has formed throughout the day B) Disrupting biofilms forming in the gums C) Removing food particles D) All of the answers are correct.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 90) Syphilitic tumors called __________ develop in the liver, skin, bone, and cartilage during the tertiary stage of syphilis.

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91) Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma differ from other bacteria because they naturally lack a __________.

92) Bacteria that lose their cell walls due to penicillin or lysozyme and result in persistent wall-deficient cells are called __________.

93) When plaque becomes mineralized with calcium and phosphate crystals, it becomes a hard, porous substance called __________.

94) Motility in curviform bacteria is made possible through the use of one or more __________.

95)

The first colonizer of the tooth is __________.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 96) Discuss the specific, distinguishing features that are the underlying reason for referring to the respiratory infection caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae as an atypical pneumonia or walking pneumonia.

97)

Discuss the role of Ixodes scapularis and Ixodes pacificus in Lyme disease.

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98) Select two diseases that involve different arthropod vectors in their epidemiology. Discuss each disease and describe the role of each vector in the life cycle of the pathogen and establishment of the disease.

99) Discuss the activities or professions that would increase the risk of contracting Coxiella burnetii.

100) Based on your knowledge of the cellular targets of penicillin and lysozyme, and the genetic adaptations of bacteria, explain why treatment with penicillin or lysozyme can result in bacteria without cell walls (L forms).

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 21_11e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) TRUE 9) TRUE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) FALSE 14) [B, C] 15) [B, D] 16) [A, B] 17) [A, B] 18) A 19) A 20) E 21) D 22) C 23) B 24) C 25) D 26) A Version 1

27) C 28) E 29) E 30) C 31) D 32) E 33) A 34) A 35) E 36) B 37) E 38) D 39) A 40) B 41) A 42) C 43) E 44) B 45) C 46) E 47) A 48) E 49) C 50) A 51) A 52) D 53) E 54) B 55) D 56) A Version 1

57) E 58) A 59) A 60) D 61) B 62) C 63) D 64) A 65) A 66) C 67) B 68) D 69) D 70) C 71) E 72) E 73) A 74) C 75) D 76) A 77) E 78) D 79) C 80) B 81) E 82) B 83) A 84) D 85) B 86) C Version 1

87) B 88) C 89) D 90) gummas 91) cell wall 92) L forms 93) calculus 94) flagellum 95) streptococcus mutane

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CHAPTER 22 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Sabouraud's dextrose agar is a lab medium for supporting growth of fungi. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Most mycoses are not communicable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) Thermal dimorphism is associated with opportunistic fungi and never seen in true fungal pathogens. ⊚ ⊚

The most common route of transmission for true pathogenic fungi is ingestion of spores. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Blastomycosis begins as a respiratory infection that can spread to the skin. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Sporotrichosis is associated with soil high in pigeon droppings that is introduced into subcutaneous tissue. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Amphotericin B is an over-the-counter drug to treat athlete's foot.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

8) Trichophyton species infect hair, skin, and nails, whereas Microsporum species infect hair and skin but not nails. ⊚ ⊚

Skin testing with antigen is used to diagnose ringworm. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Tough, warty verrucous lesions are seen in patients with tinea versicolor. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

Dermatophyte spores can survive for years on fomites. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

Fungal spores are common allergens that cause hypersensitivities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Patient's with madura foot develop swollen, ulcerative, tumor-like skin lesions called mycetomas. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14)

All fungi are heterotrophic and can break their substrates down by secreting enzymes. ⊚ ⊚

15)

Fungi cannot be found growing in nutritionally poor and adverse conditions. ⊚ ⊚

16)

true false

Adding salt and sugar can control the growth of certain bacteria but not fungi. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) The cell-mediated immune response appears to play a more significant role in antifungal defenses than does the antibody-mediated immune response. ⊚ ⊚

18)

An opportunistic host has strong invasiveness and virulence. ⊚ ⊚

19)

true false

Opportunistic fungi does not have thermal dimorphism. ⊚ ⊚

20)

true false

The human body is extremely vulnerable to fungal infections. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

21)

Systemic Candida infection can cause death if not treated within 5—7 days. ⊚ true ⊚ false

22)

In order to detect Candida, a special fluorescent antibody stain can be utilized. ⊚ ⊚

true false

23) The growth of creamy white, textured colonies indicates the growth of Histoplasma capsulatum. ⊚ ⊚

24)

Sporotrichosis is the common cause of Rose-Gardner's disease. ⊚ ⊚

25)

true false

Tinea Barbae is known as ringworm of the scalp. ⊚ ⊚

26)

true false

Tinia Cruris is a ringworm that forms in the groin area. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 27) Which of the following is/are true of cryptococcal meningitis?

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A) It is most often caused by Cryptococcus gattii. B) The pathogen usually enters the body via the respiratory route. C) It is usually a mild form of meningitis that is self-limiting. D) It is most often seen in patients with AIDS. E) The pathogen can be detected in CSF specimens by negative staining.

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 28) The ability of a fungus to grow as a yeast or a mold depending on its environmental temperature is called A) fungal virulence. B) parasitism. C) dimorphism. D) dermatophytes. E) opportunistic fungi.

29)

The routes of entry for most fungi into the body are A) urinary andreproductive. B) digestive andrespiratory. C) blood andwounds. D) respiratory andcutaneous.

30)

Amphotericin B, nystatin, and the imidazoles are all A) mycotoxins. B) fungalenzymes. C) antifungaldrugs. D) culture mediasupplements for fungi.

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31)

All of the following are dimorphic, true fungal pathogens except A) Candida. B) Histoplasma. C) Blastomyces. D) Coccidioides. E) Paracoccidioides.

32) The terms used for the four general types of fungal infection include the following, except A) cutaneous. B) blood-borne. C) systemic. D) subcutaneous. E) superficial.

33)

Characteristics of Histoplasma capsulatum include A) it grows in moistsoil, rich in nitrogen from bird and bat guano. B) it is a yeast witha capsule. C) it is adermatophyte. D) it grows in dry,arid soil.

34)

The highest incidence of histoplasmosis in the United States occurs in the A) Southeast. B) Southwest. C) East and Midwest. D) Northeast. E) Rocky Mountains.

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35)

Which is incorrect about histoplasmosis? A) The pathogen grows inside macrophages. B) It is transmitted by inhalation of spores. C) Respiratory infections range from mild to severe. D) Chronic cases have symptoms similar to tuberculosis. E) Histoplasmosis never spreads to sites outside the respiratory tract.

36)

All of the following pertain to coccidioidomycosis , except A) the pathogen growsbest in soil with bird and bat guano. B) fungomas occur in the lungs of those infected. C) it is transmittedby inhalation of arthrospores. D) it often hassymptoms of fever, chest pain, cough, headache, malaise. E) it is also called valley fever.

37)

Blastomyces dermatitidis A) causes Gilchrist's disease and Chicago's disease. B) is transmitted byskin contact with fomites. C) is adermatophyte. D) usually entersthrough the gastrointestinal tract E) All of these choices are correct.

38)

Paracoccidioides is A) a superficialmycosis. B) endemic to regionsof Central and South America. C) only seen inimmunocompromised patients. D) also known as valley fever. E) All of these choices are correct.

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39)

Which is incorrect about Sporothrix schenckii? A) It is dimorphic. B) It lives in the soil. C) It is often transmitted by soil-contaminated thorns. D) It causes a superficial cutaneous infection. E) It causes nodules along regional lymphatic channels.

40)

Chromoblastomycosis A) is caused bysaprobes with dark-pigmented mycelia and spores. B) is caused bydimorphic fungi. C) is a systemicinfection. D) is a seriousrespiratory tract infection. E) has a peak incidence in Alaska.

41)

Mycetoma is A) a subcutaneousinfection that looks like a tumor. B) also calledathlete's foot. C) caused bydermatophytes. D) only seen in theMidwest. E) All of these choices are correct.

42)

Dermatophytoses are A) fungal infectionsof the skin, hair, and nails. B) also calledringworm. C) also calledtineas. D) oftentime-consuming to eradicate completely. E) All of these choices are correct.

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43)

Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton A) produce tissue—damaging mycotoxins. B) all causeathlete's foot. C) have reservoirs that include humans, animals, and soils. D) frequently causesepticemia. E) are dimorphic fungi.

44)

Which is mismatched? A) Tinea capitis -ringworm of the beard B) Tinea pedis -ringworm of the foot C) Tinea cruis -ringworm of the groin D) Tinea corporis -ringworm of the body E) Tinea unguium - ringworm of thenails

45)

Transmission of tineas include A) human to human. B) animal to human. C) soil to human. D) fomites to human. E) All of these choices are correct.

46)

Which is incorrect about tinea versicolor? A) It is asuperficial mycosis. B) It is oftentransmitted by fomites. C) It is caused bythe yeast Malassezia furfur. D) It causesdisruption of skin pigmentation resulting in a mottled appearance. E) It occasionally causes systemicinfections in compromised patients.

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47)

All of the following pertain to Candida albicans, except A) it is an opportunistic yeast. B) small numbers found in the mouth, intestines, genitalia, and skin. C) it has a large capsule. D) infections often arise from an endogenous source. E) persistent moist skin influencesinfection.

48)

Candidiasis includes A) intertriginousinfection of skin sites. B) vulvovaginalinfection. C) oral cavity andesophageal infections. D) skin and nailinfections. E) All of these choices are correct.

49)

Cryptococcus neoformans has the following characteristics, except A) it is commonly found in the human mouth, intestines, and genitalia. B) it is an encapsulated yeast. C) it can be found in high numbers in soil containing pigeon droppings. D) it usually enters the body by inhalation. E) it primarily infects patients with AIDS, cancer, and diabetes.

50)

Cryptococcosis can include A) pulmonaryinfection. B) septicemia. C) meningitis. D) boneinfection. E) All of these choices are correct.

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51)

Oral thrush is caused by A) Cryptococcusneoformans. B) Candidaalbicans. C) Malasseziafurfur. D) Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci.

52) This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients. A) Cryptococcusneoformans B) Candidaalbicans C) Malasseziafurfur D) Pneumocystis jirovecii.

53)

Aspergillosis includes all the following, except A) there are no effective drugs to treat the infection. B) noninvasive infections of the eyelids, sinuses, conjunctiva, and ear canals. C) a pneumonia that disseminates to the brain. D) most cases are due to A. fumigatus. E) life-threatening infections in AIDS, leukemia, and transplant patients.

54)

Serious mycoses treated with amphotericin B include all the following, except A) zygomycosis. B) invasiveaspergillosis. C) Pneumocystispneumonia. D) coccidioidomycosis. E) histoplasmosis.

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55) Decaying vegetation, such as piles of leaves and compost matter, allows growth and transmission of A) Cryptococcus. B) Aspergillus. C) Candida. D) Dermatophytes. E) Pneumocystis.

56) This organism commonly contaminates grains, corn, and peanuts and produces a potent mycotoxin called aflatoxin? A) Pneumocystis(carinii) jiroveci B) Fusariumspecies C) Rhizopusspecies D) Geotrichum candidum E) Aspergillus flavus

57)

Pneumocystisjirovecii A) has protozoan andfungal characteristics. B) lacks ergosterolin its plasma membrane. C) is an obligateparasite. D) causes serious infection in the elderly, premature infants, and AIDS patients. E) All of these choices are correct.

58)

All of the following areas are subject to intertriginous infections, except

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A) between folds of the groin. B) under breasts. C) in the armpit. D) behind theknees. E) chest.

59) Which of the following is a rare mycosis caused by a mold commonly found in soil, in dairy products, and on the human body? A) bark stripper's disease B) valley fever C) sporotrichosis D) geotrichosis E) pneumocystis pneumonia

60)

All of the following are fungal allergies, except A) bark stripper'sdisease. B) farmer's lung. C) teapicker'slung. D) thrush. E) All of these choices are correct.

61)

Which of the following is incorrect about sporotrichosis? A) It is also known as valley fever. B) Humans and othermammals are susceptible. C) Heat packs appliedto skin lesions can resolve some infections. D) A prick of a thornis the classic mode of infection. E) The sporotrichin skin test can be usedto determine prior infection.

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62)

The primary portal of entry for fungal infections is A) The urinary tract. B) Through skin. C) The respiratory tract. D) The nervous system. E) The digestive system.

63)

Which antifungal drug inhibits cell division of the fungus? A) Ketoconazole (Nizoral) B) Fluconazole C) Terbinafine (Lamisil) D) Amphotericin B E) Griseofulvin

64)

Which of the following are likely to predispose patients to fungal infections? A) cancer B) AIDS C) tuberculosis D) malnutrition E) All of these choices are correct.

65)

Alternative names for Blastomyces dermatitidis include A) Gilchrist'sdisease. B) valley fever. C) rose Gardener's disease. D) teapicker's lung. E) farmer's lung.

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66)

Which is incorrect about chromoblastomycosis? A) It is characterized by highly visible verrucous lesions. B) Treatment is with pentamidine. C) Its etiological agent are soil saprobes with dark-pigmented mycelia and spores. D) Sclerotic cells are produced. E) It is frequently confused with yaws, cancer, and syphilis.

67) Which of the following appears to play the least significant role in antifungal defenses in humans? A) phagocytosis B) IgG antibodies C) cell-mediated immunity D) inflammatory response

68) Which of the following provides information about the nature and potential cause of a fungal infection the most quickly? A) Culture on Sabouraud's dextrose agar B) Testing for temperature dimorphism C) Direct examination of fresh specimens (wet mounts, KOH preps, brighteners) D) Culture on selective and differential media

69) During a visit to her doctor, a woman pointed out a red rash that occurred just under her breasts. The doctor collected a scraping of the affected area, suspended the scrapings in potassium hydroxide, and then examined it microscopically. Upon viewing, she detected budding yeast cells and pseudohyphae. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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A) Yeast infection - candidiasis B) Dermatophyte infection C) Subcutaneous mycosis D) Yeast infection - cryptococcosis

70) A 42-year-old male construction worker in southern Arizona developed a cold-like illness, experiencing a chronic cough, chest pain, headaches, and general fatigue. When the symptoms did not abate after several weeks, he visited his physician who ordered microscopic examination and culture of his sputum specimen. Direct microscopic exam demonstrated the presence of large spherule structures full of endsospores. The specimen was cultured at both 25°C and 37°C. The plate incubated at 25°C grew tan colonies with a fluffy white center. Examination of these colonies microscopically showed branching septate hyphae. As the culture matured, the hyphae fragmented into arthrospores. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Candidiasis B) Coccidioidomycosis C) Blastomycosis D) Histoplasmosis E) Sporotrichosis

71) Ben, a 17-year-old wrestler, developed a lesion on his upper back. The lesion was relatively round and consisted of a pink scaly rough center and raised edge. While it wasn’t painful, the itching was bothersome to the young man. His coach advised him to see his doctor about the lesion. Upon visiting his physician, a scraping of the affected area was collected and placed in a drop of KOH, then examined under the microscope, revealing slender fungal hyphae. A culture was inoculated, which grew a spreading flat fuzzy colony after 10 days of incubation at 30°C. Microscopic examination of the culture demonstrated the presence of both macroconidia and microconidia. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) candidiasis B) sporotrichosis C) tinea versicolor D) dermatophytosis E) cutaneous blastomycosis

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72)

A species that can invade and grow in a healthy, noncompromised animal host is called A) primary. B) secondary. C) false. D) absolute.

73)

A fungus found in a natural habitat is more likely to reproduce through A) budding. B) sporulation. C) endospores. D) capsomeres.

74)

The common name of Tinea Pedis is A) athlete's foot. B) sweaty feet. C) palmy feet. D) itchy foot.

75)

A species that can invade and grow in a healthy, noncompromised animal host is called A) primary. B) secondary. C) false. D) absolute.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 76) Diseases caused by fungi are termed _____. Version 1

77) _____ are superficial mycoses that cause white masses or dark masses to develop on the hair shaft.

78)

Dermatophytes digest the protein _____, found in the skin, hair, and nails.

79)

The typical transmission of dimorphic fungi is inhalation of _____.

80) The nodular, tumor-like fungal growths seen in certain chronic lung infections are called _____.

81)

Rhizopus, Absidia, and Mucor are mold genera that cause the disease called _____.

82) If a fungal outbreak occurred within a specific geographic locale, it is more than likely a _______ pathogen.

83)

A construction worker has contracted a fungal disease; it is likely _______.

84) Systemic infections that germinate in the lungs within _________ cells are caused by true pathogens.

85)

Rhizopus, Mucor, and Absidia are most often involved in ________.

86) A patient who has experienced a third-degree burn is more likely to see an infection by the fungal species __________.

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87) A common fungal infection among individuals sharing public facilities, swimming pools, etc. is __________.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 88) Explain why Pneumocystis jirovecii has been difficult to classify, and why traditional antifungal drugs are not effective against this microbe.

89) Discuss why the use of broad-spectrum oral antimicrobics often lead to oral thrush and vulvovaginal candidiasis superinfections.

90) Compare and contrast Histoplasmosis, Coccidioidomycosis, and Blastomycosis with regard to: a) causative agent, b) reservoir, c) transmission, and d) disease, including complications.

91) Discuss at least 5 factors that predispose certain individuals to opportunistic fungal infections.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 22_11e 1) TRUE 2) TRUE 3) FALSE 4) FALSE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) FALSE 8) TRUE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) TRUE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) TRUE 18) FALSE 19) TRUE 20) FALSE 21) TRUE 22) TRUE 23) TRUE 24) TRUE 25) FALSE 26) TRUE Version 1

27) [B, D, E] 28) C 29) D 30) C 31) A 32) B 33) A 34) C 35) E 36) A 37) A 38) B 39) D 40) A 41) A 42) E 43) C 44) A 45) E 46) B 47) C 48) E 49) A 50) E 51) B 52) D 53) A 54) C 55) B 56) E Version 1

57) E 58) E 59) D 60) D 61) A 62) C 63) E 64) E 65) A 66) B 67) B 68) C 69) A 70) B 71) D 72) A 73) B 74) A 75) A 76) mycoses 77) Piedras 78) keratin 79) spores 80) fungomas 81) zygomycosis 82) true 83) coccidioidomycosis 84) yeast 85) mycoses 86) Zygomycota Version 1

87) dermatophytoses

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CHAPTER 23 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Only feces from humans that contaminates food and water can be involved in transmission of amebiasis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Chagas' disease is treated with chloroquine. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) A person carrying one allele for sickle-cell hemoglobin will be resistant to Plasmodium infection. ⊚ ⊚

Boiling will not kill Giardia lamblia cysts in contaminated water. ⊚ ⊚

true false

In temperate zones, pinworms are the most common helminth infection. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Plasmodium species are hemoflagellates. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Hookworms and threadworms usually enter the body by penetrating into the skin.

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⊚ ⊚

Loa Loa is an intestinal roundworm transmitted by contaminated food. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Hermaphroditic helminth species have separate male and female worms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Diseases such as malaria, dengue fever, and Chagas' disease may be spread by any bloodsucking arthropod. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) Pathogenic protozoa are historically classified into four groups based on their portal of entry: ingestion, inhalation, abrasions in the skin, and sexual transmission. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

Both the trophozoite and cyst forms of Balantidium coli are cilliated. ⊚ ⊚

true false

13) Infection with Plasmodium species in the United States is mainly limited to new immigrants. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 14) Recent strategies for control and containing the spread of river blindness include (Check all that apply.) A) antibiotics to inhibit bacterial endosymbionts within Onchocerca volvulus. B) antihelmintic drugs such as ivermectin to destroy the larval worms. C) antiprotozoan drugs such as metronidazole. D) insecticides to decrease the blackfly population. E) filtering water through nylon sieves to remove Cyclops.

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 15) Parasitic helminths have the following characteristics, except A) they are multicellular animals. B) they have a definitive host where the adult form lives. C) they have developmental forms that include cysts. D) they include roundworms. E) they include tapeworms.

16)

Acanthamoeba differs from Naegleria fowleri in that only Acanthamoeba A) is a free-living ameba of freshwaters. B) typically enters through broken skin or the conjunctiva. C) is the cause ofprimary amebic meningoencephalitis. D) enters through thenasal mucosa. E) is acquired by swimming in contaminatedwater.

17)

Entamoeba histolytica is acquired by

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A) ingestion of cystsof the pathogen. B) contaminatedfood. C) contaminatedwater. D) sexualcontact. E) All of the choices are correct.

18)

Amebiasis is a disease of the A) conjunctiva of theeye. B) brain andmeninges. C) intestines andoften the liver. D) lung tissue. E) skin.

19)

Human asymptomatic carriers are common in A) balantidiosis. B) amebiasis and trichomoniasis. C) elephantiasis. D) trypanosomiasisand leishmaniasis. E) cryptosporidiosis and malaria.

20)

Diseases transmitted by vectors include A) balantidiosis. B) amebiasis andtrichomoniasis. C) amebicmeningoencephalitis. D) trypanosomiasis andleishmaniasis. E) cryptosporidiosis andcyclosporiasis.

21)

The large intestines of pigs are the primary reservoir of the pathogen that causes

Version 1

A) balantidiosis. B) amebiasis andtrichomoniasis. C) amebicmeningoencephalitis. D) trypanosomiasisleishmaniasis. E) cryptosporidiosis andcyclosporiasis.

22) Which of the following is acquired when amoebas are forced into human nasal passages during swimming? A) Naegleria fowleri B) Toxoplasmagondii C) Balantidiumcoli D) Giardia intestinalis E) Entamoeba histolytica

23)

Which of the following has four pairs of flagella? A) Naegleriafowleri B) Toxoplasmagondii C) Balantidiumcoli D) Giardia intestinalis E) Entamoeba histolytica

24)

Which of the following is an apicomplexan parasite? A) Naegleriafowleri B) Toxoplasmagondii C) Balantidiumcoli D) Giardia intestinalis E) Entamoeba histolytica

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25)

Which of the following is a sexually transmitted disease? A) Toxoplasmosis B) Trichomoniasis C) Giardiasis D) Malaria E) Balantidiosis

26) Which of the following causes serious congenital disease from transplacental transmission? A) Toxoplasmosis B) Trichomoniasis C) Giardiasis D) Malaria E) Balantidiosis

27)

All of the following can be transmitted by drinking contaminated water, except A) cryptosporidiosis. B) cyclosporiasis. C) babesiosis. D) balantidiasis. E) giardiasis.

28)

Amebiasis symptoms include A) bloody,mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss. B) fever, swollenlymph nodes, and joint pain. C) urinary frequencyand pain, and vaginal discharge. D) chills, fever, andsweating. E) sore throat, low-grade fever, andswollen lymph nodes.

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29)

The symptoms that occur in cyclic 48- to 72-hour episodes in a malaria patient are A) bloody,mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss. B) fever, swollenlymph nodes, and joint pain. C) urinary frequencyand pain, and vaginal discharge. D) chills, fever, andsweating. E) sore throat, low-grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes.

30)

Most patients withtoxoplasmosisthat are not immunocompromisedexperience A) bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss. B) fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain. C) urinary frequency and pain, and vaginal discharge. D) chills, fever, and sweating. E) sore throat, low-grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes.

31)

Trichomonas vaginalis A) does not producecysts. B) causes urethritis in males. C) causes vaginitis with a foul-smelling discharge in females. D) has four flagellaand an undulating membrane. E) All of the choices are correct.

32)

Giardiasis involves

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A) a protozoan thatdoes not form cysts. B) infection of thelarge intestine. C) symptoms ofabdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea. D) vectortransmission. E) All of the choices are correct.

33)

African sleeping sickness is caused by A) Trypanosomacruzi. B) Trypanosomabrucei. C) Leishmaniabrasiliensis. D) Cystoisospora belli. E) Plasmodium falciparum.

34)

Chagas' disease involves transmission of the pathogen by the A) reduviid "kissing" bug. B) tsetse fly. C) Anophelesmosquito. D) phlebotomine(sand) fly. E) hard-bodied tick.

35)

Transmission of the pathogen of leishmaniasis is by the A) reduviid "kissing" bug. B) tsetse fly. C) Anopheles mosquito. D) phlebotomine (sand) fly. E) hard-bodied tick.

36)

The vector involved in African sleeping sickness is the

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A) reduviid "kissing" bug. B) tsetse fly. C) Anophelesmosquito. D) phlebotomine (sand)fly. E) hard-bodied tick.

37)

The large, fully formed developmental stage of a hemoflagellate is called the A) epimastigote. B) amastigote. C) trypomastigote. D) promastigote.

38)

Which is incorrect about malaria? A) Merozoites enter and multiply in liver cells. B) Trophozoites develop in RBCs. C) The mosquito inoculates human blood with sporozoites. D) Gametocytes enter the mosquito as she draws a blood meal from a human.

39)

Strongyloides stercoralis A) is a tapeworm. B) is ingested withfood and does not migrate out of the intestine. C) rarely causes chronic infection. D) can cause a fatal disseminated disease in immunosuppressed patients. E) All of the choices are correct.

40) The parasitic disease, caused by an apicomplexan that involves infected cats in its life cycle is

Version 1

A) cryptosporidiosis. B) cyclosporiasis. C) babesiosis. D) toxoplasmosis.

41) Which was the first disease found to be due to a protozoan that is introduced to humans by the bite of a hard body tick? A) Cryptosporidiosis B) Babesiosis C) Toxoplasmosis

42) Which apicomplexan has caused outbreaks, associated with fecal-contaminated imported raspberries, and also fresh greens and drinking water? A) Cryptosporidiosis B) Cyclosporiasis C) Babesiosis D) Toxoplasmosis

43)

Toxoplasmosis includes all the following, except A) ingestingpseudocysts from contaminated raw or undercooked meat. B) ingesting orinhaling oocysts from infected cats or cat feces. C) tachyzoites cancross the placenta. D) immunocompromisedpatients often develop a fatal, disseminated infection. E) intrauterine infections are generally mild with very little damage to fetal tissues.

44)

Symptoms of cryptosporidiosis include

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A) headache, sweating,vomiting, severe abdominal cramps, and diarrhea. B) a circular rashthat appears on the trunk and spreads to the extremities. C) loss of hair. D) a red skin papulethat spreads to a large ulcer.

45)

Which "worm-classification" pair is mismatched? A) Whipworm—Trematode B) Pinworm—Nematode C) Threadworm—Nematode D) Fluke—Trematode E) Tapeworm—Cestode

46)

Ascaris lumbricoides A) is an intestinalroundworm. B) spreads to humansby ingestion of Ascaris eggs in food. C) larvae penetrateinto lymphatics and capillaries around intestines. D) larvae migrate tothe pharynx, get swallowed, and return to intestines to mature. E) All of the choices are correct.

47)

Enterobius vermicularis is A) a whipworm. B) common only to thetropics and subtropics. C) an intestinal wormthat easily contaminates fingers and fomites. D) often fatal inheavy infestations. E) All of the choices are correct.

48)

Elephantiasis includes all the following, except

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A) it is caused byfilarial nematodes. B) the parasitic helminth is transmitted by black fly vectors. C) larval infestationcauses blockage of main lymphatic channels. D) severe edema occurs in the extremities and scrotum. E) microfilariae are in the blood.

49)

River blindness is A) caused by Wuchereria bancrofti. B) a disease in whichworms can invade the eyes. C) caused by a bloodfluke. D) transmitted bymosquito vector. E) All of the choices are correct.

50)

Trichinellosis includes all the following, except A) humans are infected by ingesting encysted larvae. B) infection is associated with ingestion of undercooked pork or bear meat. C) the larvae migrate from intestines to blood and various body tissues. D) the first symptomsare diarrhea, nausea, fever, and pain. E) All of the choices are true concerning trichinellosis.

51)

Schistosomiasis involves

A) a blood fluke. B) a life cycle stage which continues when eggs from humans enter water and develop into miracidia. C) snails which enable development of the parasite into cercaria. D) cercariaewhich penetratehair follicles and pass to the blood and then the liver. E) All of the choices are correct.

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52)

Fasciola hepatica is a A) lung fluke. B) blood fluke. C) liver fluke. D) roundworm. E) filarial worm.

53)

All of the following pertain to tapeworms, exceptthe A) scolex is the attachment organ. B) strobila is madeup of proglottids. C) proglottids arereproductive segments. D) cysticerci areyoung infective larvae ingested in undercooked meat. E) one proglottid segment will have eitherfemale or male reproductive organs.

54)

Which "tapeworm—transmission route" pair is mismatched? A) Diphyllobothrium latum—Fish B) Taenia solium—Pork C) Taenia saginata—Beef D) Anisakis—Wild game

55) the

The form lacking a free flagellum in the developmental stage of a hemoflagellate is called

A) epimastigote. B) amastigote. C) trypomastigote. D) promastigote.

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56)

All of the following will kill Giardia, except A) boiling. B) ozone. C) filtration through a 1 micron filter. D) chlorine intypical drinking water. E) All of the choices will kill Giardia.

57) Which of the following is not an effective way to minimize human contact with parasitic helminths? A) Freezing foods B) Thoroughly cooking foods C) Proper sewage disposal D) Avoiding human feces as fertilizer E) All of the choices are effective ways to minimize human contact with helminths.

58)

Which is not correct about trichinellosis? A) It can betransmitted by eating undercooked pork. B) It can betransmitted by eating bear meat. C) Numerous cases occur each year in the United States. D) The first symptomsmimic influenza. E) A cure is not available once the larvaehave encysted in muscles.

59)

Which parasite is carried by Cyclops, an arthropod commonly found in still water? A) Schistosomamansoni B) Dracunculusmedinesis C) Fasciolahepatica D) Taenia saginata E) Toxoplasma gondii

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60)

Pregnant women should never change cat litter due to the risk of contracting A) toxoplasmosis. B) malaria. C) trypanosomiasis. D) amebicdysentery. E) Chagas' disease.

61)

Which is not correct about kala azar?

A) It is fatal inuntreated cases. B) Chemotherapy withchloroquine is usually effective. C) Death is partly dueto anemia, destruction of blood-forming tissues, and secondary infections. D) It is transmittedby the sand fly. E) It is a form of leishmaniasis.

62) The larval forms of certain Taenia species, which typically infest muscles of mammalian intermediate hosts are also called A) proglottids. B) merozoites. C) cysticerci. D) amastigotes. E) eggs.

63)

Trichinella spiralis is a/an __________ that invades the __________.

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A) roundworm; intestine and muscle B) ameba; intestine C) flagellate; large intestine D) flatworm; heart E) tapeworm; lungs

64)

Which of the following relationships is mismatched? A) T. brucei gambiense and Gambian sleeping sickness B) T.brucei rhodesiense and West African sleeping sickness C) Tsetse fly and African sleeping sickness D) Taenia solium and swine E) Onchocera volvulus and black flies

65) While on a backpacking trip in Maine, Julie and her friends obtained their drinking water from several different pristine streams, adding one or two drops of bleachto ensure its safety. Several days later Julie began experiencing abdominal distress, specifically cramping, fatty diarrhea, and flatulence. When it didn’t clear up within severaldays, Julie visited her doctor. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of Julie’s symptoms? A) Entamoeba histolytica B) Giardiaintestinalis C) Escherichia coli O157:H7 D) Schistosoma mansoni E) Toxoplasma gondii

66) Anna recently learned that she is pregnant and is visiting her doctor for her first prenatal visit. Among the many pieces of advice offered to ensure a safe pregnancy, the doctor specifically told Anna to avoid eating any rare meats, including steaks and roast beef, and to avoid changing her cat’s litter box. These words of caution were primarily directed at avoiding contact with

Version 1

A) Escherichia coli O157:H7. B) Taenia saginata. C) Cryptosporidium. D) Toxoplasma gondii.

67)

What specific challenge does Trypanosoma brucei present to the immune system?

A) It frequently changes its antigens, staying one step ahead of the host's antibody response. B) It specifically attacks B-lymphocytes preventing activation and antibody production. C) It specifically attacks T-lymphocytes preventing their activation and crippling the cell-mediated immune response. D) Its antigens are not recognized by B and T-lymphocytes so these host defense cells don’t respond to the infection.

68) Adam, a once active, normal three-year-old boy, was experiencing increasing bouts of lethargy and began to regress developmentally. His mother scheduled an appointment with his pediatrician, who ordered a number of different blood tests. The most notable blood test result that piqued the physician’s interest was a pronounced eosinophilia. Which of the following would be most likely to cause this abnormality? A) Infection with Giardia intestinalis B) Infection with a parasitic helminth C) Malaria D) Infection with Cryptosporidium E) Viral infection

69) Which of the following parasites must be swallowed twice by the human host, first as an egg and later as a larva?

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A) Ascaris lumbricoides B) Necatur americanus C) Taenia saginata D) Enterobius vermicularis E) Schistosoma mansoni

70)

Which animals serve as intermediate hosts for human schistosomes? A) Mosquitoes B) Fish C) Reduviid bugs D) Snails E) Humans

71) The nurse is teaching a client, who has just been prescribed an antimalarial drug, strategies for avoiding malaria on an upcoming trip. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching? A) "I will sleep under a bed net." B) "I will wear long-sleeved clothing when possible." C) "I will take antimalarial drugs immediately if I'm bitten by a mosquito." D) "I will use insect repellent."

72) A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with Chagas disease. The client asks when she will be able to donate blood. Which response by the nurse is correct? A) "You will not be able to donate blood if you show symptoms of Chagas disease." B) "You may donate blood immediately, as Chagas disease is not transmitted through blood." C) "You are no longer eligible to donate blood." D) "You will be able to donate blood once you hvae completed a full course of antiparasitic drugs."

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73)

Which of the following is not studied in the field of parasitology? A) Flagellar structure of Pseudomonas aeruginosa B) Transmission route of Trichomonas vaginalis C) Formation of Toxoplasma gondii cysts D) Sexual reproduction in Onchocerca volvulus

74) Which of the following does not help to decrease the amount of worldwide parasitic infections? A) Improving water treatment B) Increasing and improving treatment of HIV and AIDS C) Increasing global travel D) Increasing anti-mosquito transmission strategies

75) A patient enters the clinic expressing symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. He is a vegetable farmer but his fields are adjacent to a pig farm, and he occasionally swims in a river shared by both farms. Culturing of his stool shows growth of a parasite only under anaerobic conditions, and the parasite is completely covered in cilia. Which species is the most likely source of his infection? A) Naegleria fowleri B) Balantidium coli C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Giardia intestinalis

76)

Which of the following is not generally true of apicomplexans?

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A) They are all motile via flagella. B) The most important human pathogens cause malaria, toxoplasmosis, and cryptosporidiosis. C) They can alter between sexual and asexual reproduction. D) They have a broad range of portals of entry.

77)

Which cell type does the Plasmodium merozoite invade? A) Human liver cells B) Human red blood cells C) Mosquito stomach cells D) Mosquito salivary gland cells

78)

Which of the following is not true in regards to mosquitoes? A) Only the female feeds on blood. B) They require an aquatic habitat. C) They cannot transmit zoonoses, only human-specific pathogens. D) They spread the most infections of all arthropod vectors. E) They inject anticoagulant when feeding.

79)

Which arthropod has the broadest host range? A) Mosquitoes B) Fleas C) Body lice D) Biting flies E) Ticks

80)

Which of the following is an intermediate host for a trematode?

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A) Human B) Snail C) Pig D) Mosquito

81)

Which anatomical feature of a cestode is used for nutrient absorption? A) Scolex B) Strobila C) Proglottid D) Cysticercus

82) In which developmental stage can Schistosoma cause granulomatous lesions on the heart? A) Miracidium development B) Cercaria development C) Sexual maturation D) Reproduction

83)

Hookworms A) include Necatoramericanus. B) include Ancylostoma duodenale. C) have filariform larvae in soil that invade by penetrating bare feet. D) have oral cuttingplates by which they anchor to the intestines. E) All of the choices are correct.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 84) Many protozoan species can form a __________ that can survive for periods outside a host.

85) An amoeba trophozoite with visible ingested RBCs that is seen in a microscopic examination of a fecal smear would likely be the pathogen __________.

86) Trypanosoma and Leishmania are called __________ because they often live in the blood and tissues of their hosts.

87)

The most deadly form of systemic leishmaniasis is called __________.

88) Control of __________ revolves around mosquito control and methods to prevent human-mosquito contact.

89)

Eggs and larva are developmental forms of various parasites called __________.

90)

The active, feeding form of a protozoan is called the __________.

91) Treatment of water with __________ is a reliable way to disinfect against Cryptosporidium.

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SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 92) Describe the life cycle of Plasmodium and malaria epidemiology including: a) developmental forms and respective hosts/host cells, b) transmission, c) human disease and symptoms, d) treatment, and e) prevention.

93) Compare and contrast giardiasis and amebiasis with regard to: a) causative agent, b) transmission, c) infection site in body, d) signs and symptoms, e) prevention, and f) treatment.

94) Discuss the life cycle of one of the roundworms including: a) developmental forms and corresponding hosts, b) transmission, c) human disease and symptoms, d) treatment, and e) prevention.

95) Write a brief definition of a parasite and parasitology giving specific examples of a fungus, protozoan, and helminth.

96) Explain why antibiotics designed to treat bacterial infections are generally easier to use and have fewer side effects than antiprotozoan or antihelminthic drugs. Name two important goals/strategies that are unique to designing antiprotozoan or antihelminthic drugs.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 23_11e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) FALSE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) [A, B, D] 15) C 16) B 17) E 18) C 19) B 20) D 21) A 22) A 23) D 24) B 25) B 26) A Version 1

27) C 28) A 29) D 30) E 31) E 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) D 36) B 37) C 38) A 39) D 40) D 41) B 42) B 43) E 44) A 45) A 46) E 47) C 48) B 49) B 50) E 51) E 52) C 53) E 54) D 55) B 56) D Version 1

57) E 58) C 59) B 60) A 61) B 62) C 63) A 64) B 65) B 66) D 67) A 68) B 69) A 70) D 71) C 72) C 73) A 74) C 75) B 76) A 77) B 78) C 79) E 80) B 81) C 82) D 83) E 84) cyst 85) Entamoeba histolytica 86) hemoflagellates Version 1

87) Kala Azar 88) malaria 89) helminths 90) trophozoite 91) ozone

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CHAPTER 24 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Molluscum contagiosum is transmitted by direct contact with skin lesions, fomites, and sexual activity. ⊚ ⊚

Chickenpox is caused by a poxvirus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Varicella and herpes zoster are caused by the same virus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Herpes keratitis is an infection of the eye. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Virtually, everyone becomes infected with the herpesviruses at some time in their lives. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Zoster immune globulin (ZIG) and varicella-zoster immune globulin (VZIG) are attenuated vaccines for childhood vaccination. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

7) Burkitt's lymphoma is a B-cell malignancy, usually of the jaw, associated with EpsteinBarr infection or coinfection with other diseases. ⊚ ⊚

Carriers of Hepatitis B virus are not common. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The only body fluid that can transmit Hepatitis B virus is blood. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

There are vaccines that cause the development of immunity to the Hepatitis B virus. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

Parvovirus B19 causes a fatal anemia in the fetus. ⊚ ⊚

11)

true false

All warts caused by human papillomaviruses are linked to cancers. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

Poxviruses are the largest and most complex of all animal viruses. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

14)

Variola major and variola minor are the two principal forms of smallpox disease. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) The antivirals used for herpes simplex infections have the ability to completely destroy the virus and permanently cure the latent infection. ⊚ ⊚

16)

true false

Infection with human polyomaviruses is most often asymptomatic in a healthy person. ⊚ ⊚

true false

17) Pox viruses consist of a linear double-stranded DNA genome enclosed in a protein capsid, surrounded by an envelope. ⊚ ⊚

true false

18) Human polyomaviruses are well-known for their oncogenic potential, most often associated with chronic lymphocytic leukemia in humans. ⊚ true ⊚ false

19)

Adenoviruses are examples of enveloped double-stranded genome. ⊚ ⊚

20)

true false

About one in three children born to untreated mothers carrying HIV is infected. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

21)

Family names of viruses are recognizable by the suffix -virus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

22) Smallpox was detrimental in the destruction of Native Americans and Hawaiians when introduced by explorers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

23) HSV-1 and HSV-2 are specific to the cells they infect; therefore, they only infect certain areas. ⊚ ⊚

24)

true false

Humans are the only natural host for shingles. ⊚ ⊚

true false

25) A patient shows symptoms of a fever with a rash that has begun on her face and traveled in sparse crops to the extremities. The patient has been showing symptoms for about 15 days. The patient is likely suffering from Smallpox. ⊚ ⊚

26)

true false

Epstein-Barr virus can be transmitted orally through saliva. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

27)

Chronic liver failure without a diagnosis can be a clear indicator of the hepatitis C virus. ⊚ ⊚

28)

true false

There are nearly 80 million carriers of 35 types of HPV in the United States. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 29) Polyomavirus A) cause diseases in cats, dogs, and humans. B) have a genome of double-stranded DNA. C) are the cause of erythema infectiosum. D) have a nucleocapsid surrounded by an envelope.

30)

Which of the following are found in pox viruses? A) envelope B) RNA C) DNA D) capsid E) surface tubules F) outer membrane G) core membrane

31)

Select the following statements that apply to human polyomaviruses.

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A) Most infections with BK and JC virus are asymptomatic. B) BK and JC virus infections are believed to becommon. C) JC virus may cause a demyelinating disease affecting the cerebrum in immunocompromised patients. D) Polyomaviruses are well-recognized oncogenic agents in humans. E) Recipients of renal transplants are at risk for complications caused by BK virus.

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 32) All of the following belong to the Herpesviridae, except A) varicella-zoster virus. B) cytomegalovirus. C) variola virus. D) herpes simplex viruses. E) Epstein-Barr virus.

33)

Viruses with single-stranded DNA are the A) herpesviruses. B) poxviruses. C) adenoviruses. D) papovaviruses. E) parvoviruses.

34)

Smallpox is a disease in which A) fever, malaise,rash, possible toxemia and shock occurs. B) virus becomeslatent in ganglia of sensory neurons. C) recurrent episodesare called shingles. D) transmission occurs only by direct skin contact with skin crusts. E) All of these choices are correct.

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35)

All of the following pertain to monkeypox, except

A) symptoms includeskin pocks, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. B) outbreaks haveoccurred in Africa. C) transmission istypically by contact with monkeys, squirrels, and rats. D) a recent U.S.outbreak involved pet prairie dogs infected by an African rat. E) the virus has shown a trend in becomingless virulent, with fewer outbreaks in humans.

36)

All of the following pertain to herpes simplex-1 (HSV-1), except A) it causesgingivostomatitis. B) it causes coldsores and herpes keratitis. C) it is latent inthe lumbosacral spinal nerve ganglia. D) it is transmittedby mucous membrane contact with lesions. E) it causes herpetic whitlow in health care workers.

37)

Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes A) genitallesions. B) intensely sensitivevesicles on or near the genitals. C) symptoms thatinclude urethritis, cervicitis, and itching. D) infection inneonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal. E) All of these choices are correct.

38)

An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 is

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A) shingles. B) paralysis. C) encephalitis. D) myocarditis. E) kidney failure.

39)

Which of the following antivirals is not used for treatment of HSV-1 and HSV-2? A) Interferon B) Valacyclovir C) Acyclovir D) Famciclovir E) All of these choices are correct.

40)

Chickenpox A) is transmitted byinhalation of respiratory secretions. B) is transmitted byskin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material. C) has an incubationof 10 to 20 days. D) has fever, andvesicular rash that occurs in successive crops. E) All of these choices are correct.

41)

Herpes whitlow is a deep-set herpes simplex virus infection of the A) nasal mucosa. B) finger. C) oral mucosa andtongue. D) eye. E) newborn.

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42)

Varicella-zoster virus A) uses therespiratory epithelium as its portal of entry. B) becomes latent indorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes. C) has humans as itsreservoir. D) causes chickenpoxand shingles. E) All of these choices are correct.

43) If a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, they will come down with A) herpeslabialis. B) shingles. C) chickenpox. D) infectiousmononucleosis. E) herpes keratitis.

44)

Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include A) vesicular lesionsin oral mucosa. B) fever, and pockson skin. C) sore throat,fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. D) fever, severediarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis.

45)

Epstein-Barr virus has the following characteristics, except A) it infects therespiratory epithelium. B) it is transmittedby direct oral contact and saliva. C) it multiplies andis latent in the parotid gland. D) it has a 30–50 dayincubation. E) it can be transmitted by contaminatedblood transfusions and organ transplants.

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46) Cytomegalovirus mononucleosis typically has fever and lymphocytosis, but in severely immunocompromised patients symptoms include A) vesicular lesionsin oral mucosa. B) pocks on skin. C) sore throat, fever, and tinnitus. D) severe diarrhea,pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis.

47) The patients at greatest risk for severe cytomegalovirus infection include all the following, except A) individuals withhypertension. B) organ transplantpatients. C) infants infected inutero. D) AIDS patients. E) bone marrow transplant patients.

48)

Cytomegalovirus

A) is among the mostcommon of human infections. B) is transmitted bysaliva, respiratory mucus, milk, urine, semen, and cervical secretions. C) can be sexuallytransmitted. D) is commonlycarried in the latent state. E) All of these choices are correct.

49)

Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) has the following characteristics, except

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A) it replicates in T-lymphocytes, macrophages, and salivary gland tissue. B) it causes roseolain infants. C) it appears as amononucleosis-like illness in adults. D) it causes Kaposi'ssarcoma. E) it is transmitted by saliva.

50)

The hepadnaviruses A) include theadenoviruses. B) show tropism forthe liver. C) are transmitted byrespiratory secretions. D) are nonenveloped,double-stranded DNA viruses. E) All of these choices are correct.

51) Inflammation of the liver with necrosis of the hepatocytes and swelling due to a mononuclear response is a disease called A) hepatitis. B) jaundice. C) liver cancer. D) mononucleosis.

52)

Hepatitis B virus

A) is principallytransmitted by blood. B) transmission risksinclude shared needles, anal intercourse, and heterosexual intercourse. C) is transmitted tothe newborn from chronic carrier mothers. D) has many chroniccarriers. E) All of these choices are correct.

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53)

Hepatitis B infection A) has an incubationof 1 to 3 weeks. B) can be transmittedby the fecal-oral route. C) increases risk forhepatocellular cancer. D) is due to aflavivirus. E) All of these choices are correct.

54)

Adenoviruses are A) nonenveloped,double-stranded, DNA viruses. B) transmitted byrespiratory and ocular secretions. C) causes ofconjunctivitis, common cold, and an acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children. D) causes ofoutbreaks among military recruits. E) All of these choices are correct.

55)

Which is incorrect about warts? A) They are caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV). B) They can be transmitted by direct contact or fomites. C) They include deep plantar warts on soles of the feet. D) They are usually cancerous. E) Freezing and laser surgery can be usedfor removal.

56)

All of the following pertain to genital warts, except A) they are not common in the United States. B) they are sexually transmitted. C) they often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix. D) they include large cauliflower-like masses called condylomata acuminata. E) certain strains strongly predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis.

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57)

Polyomaviruses A) cause commonasymptomatic to mild infections. B) cause progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. C) cause problems inrenal transplant patients. D) include the JCvirus and BK virus. E) All of these choices are correct.

58)

Which is incorrect about parvoviruses? A) They cause severaldiseases in dogs, cats, and other mammals. B) They are single-stranded DNA viruses. C) They cannot be transmissible to the fetus. D) They cause adisease known as fifth disease. E) Parvovirus B19 causes erythema infectiosum.

59)

Fifth disease A) is caused byParvovirus B19. B) is a childhoodfebrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks. C) involves pathogencapable of crossing the placenta. D) in immunodeficient children, destroys red blood cell stem cells. E) All of these choices are correct.

60) Which of the following viruses is an RNA virus that causes many cases of transfusion hepatitis?

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A) Hepatitis C virus(HCV) B) Hepatitis B virus(HBV) C) adenovirus D) Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) E) cytomegalovirus (CMV)

61)

When bilirubin accumulates in the blood and tissues, it causes A) shock. B) hypotension. C) swelling of thelegs. D) jaundice. E) gangrene.

62)

All of the following are similarities between HAV, HBV, and HCV, except A) they all cause hepatitis. B) they are all endemic in the United States. C) they all can have an incubation period of one month. D) there are diagnostic tests available to distinguish between them. E) they are all RNA viruses.

63)

Which of the following are ways to control or treat Hepatitis B? A) Recombinant interferon B) Heptavax vaccine C) Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) D) Recombivax vaccine E) All of these choices are correct.

64)

Which virus may play a role in multiple sclerosis?

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A) Epstein-Barr virus B) Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) C) Cytomegalovirus (CMV) D) Herpes simplex virus-2 E) Smallpox

65)

Which of the following may cause reactivation of varicella-zoster virus as shingles? A) Developing malignancy B) X-raytreatments C) Immunosuppressive conditions D) Surgery E) All of these choices are correct.

66) Which infection are you likely looking at if you view a direct smear of a cervical scraping and see enlarged (multinucleate giant) cells and intranuclear inclusions? A) HCV B) EBV C) HSV-2 D) VZV E) HPV

67)

Which is not correct about genital warts? A) The etiologicalagent is the human polyoma virus JC. B) They are stronglyassociated with cancer of the penis. C) Treatment caninvolve laser surgery. D) It is the mostcommon STD in the United States. E) They are strongly associated withcancer of the cervix.

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68)

Which is incorrect about smallpox? A) There is aneffective vaccine. B) Transmission isby ingesting contaminated water or food. C) The vaccine iseffective even if given in the first few days after exposure. D) The poxvirus called variola is the etiological agent. E) The last case was seen in 1977.

69)

Which is incorrect about viral diseases? A) Some DNA virusescan become permanent residents of host cells. B) Viral diseasescan be zoonoses. C) Most DNA virusesmultiply in and are released from the cytoplasm. D) Some viruses areteratogenic. E) Diagnosis of some diseases involvesantigen detection with monoclonal antibodies.

70)

Which structure is found only in poxviruses? A) Nucleosome B) DNA genome C) Envelope D) Capsid

71) Molly, a 3-year-old active preschool girl, spent the morning playing with the other children at the day-care center. Shortly after lunch, she began to appear very flushed with bright red cheeks, and a check of her temperature revealed a low-grade fever of 99.5. She seemed to feel normal and showed no other signs of illness. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of her fever and bright red cheeks?

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A) herpes simplex virus B) human Parvovirus B19 C) varicella-zoster virus D) roseola virus (Human herpesvirus 6) E) cytomegalovirus

72) Which of the following preventative measures is used to protect renal transplant patients from BK virus infection? A) Vaccination B) Injections of pooled human gamma globulin C) Prophylactic treatment with human leukocyte interferon D) Prophylactic treatment with amantadine

73)

All of the following are true of human parvovirus B19, except A) this virus can also cause severe disease in puppies. B) its genome consists of single-stranded DNA. C) this is one of the smallest human viruses. D) it causes a disease known as fifth's disease in young children. E) it may cross the placenta and cause severe damage to the fetus.

74)

Which of the following antibodies are present during VCV? A) IgI B) IgM C) IgE D) IgD

75)

Protection from viral infections arises from all of the following except

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A) antibodies. B) cytotoxic T cells. C) interferons. D) erythrocytes.

76)

Viral classification is based on all of the following except A) capsid. B) envelope presence. C) metabolism. D) nucleic acid.

77)

Hepatitis ____ has a circular genome more similar to viroids than any other viruses. A) A B) B C) C D) D

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 78) Herpes simplex-1 (HSV-1) enters the _____ cranial nerve where it becomes latent.

79)

The smallpox vaccine uses the _____ virus.

80) The oral cavity infection called _____ occurs when herpetic vesicles cover the oral mucosa, tongue, cheeks, and lips.

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81) A virus that causes congenital defects and developmental problems is known as _________.

82) Liver disease, such as hepatitis, can lead to bilirubin accumulation that causes a yellow tinge to skin and eyes called _____.

83) Viruses called _____ viruses become permanent residents in host cells and alternate between inactive periods and recurrent infections.

84) Passive artificial immunity to the Hepatitis B virus is provided by immunization with __________.

85)

Adenoviruses cause an inflammation of the conjunctiva and cornea called _____.

86) The presence of assembling and completed viruses in the cells gives rise to _____ ______.

87)

In order to avoid transmission of the herpesvirus to the fetus, a ______ is performed.

88)

_______ is the most nontoxic effective therapy to date for HSV.

89) The daily medication of _________ has been seen to suppress outbreaks of genital herpes for at least 6 months at a time.

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90) A patient has moved back to the state of Alabama after residing in Ghana for 3 years with his parents who were doctors. His jaws are causing large swelling in his cheeks. He more than likely has acquired _______.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 91) Describe viral latency and oncogenicity, and discuss two examples of latent DNA viruses and two examples of oncogenic DNA viruses.

92) Compare and contrast Hepatitis B virus, Hepatitis A virus, and Hepatitis C virus with regard to: a) virus characteristics, b) reservoir, c) transmission, d) incubation, e) symptoms, f) complications, and g) immunization.

93) Compare and contrast chickenpox and shingles, and explain the underlying reasons for their differences in pathogenesis.

94)

Using at least three examples, summarize how HPV can be prevented.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 24_11e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) TRUE 17) FALSE 18) FALSE 19) FALSE 20) TRUE 21) FALSE 22) TRUE 23) FALSE 24) TRUE 25) FALSE 26) TRUE Version 1

27) TRUE 28) TRUE 29) [A, C] 30) [A, C, E, F, G] 31) [A, B, C, E] 32) C 33) E 34) A 35) E 36) C 37) E 38) C 39) A 40) E 41) B 42) E 43) C 44) C 45) A 46) D 47) A 48) E 49) D 50) B 51) A 52) E 53) C 54) E 55) D 56) A Version 1

57) E 58) C 59) E 60) A 61) D 62) E 63) E 64) B 65) E 66) C 67) A 68) B 69) C 70) A 71) B 72) C 73) A 74) B 75) D 76) C 77) A 78) trigeminal 79) vaccinia 80) gingivostomatitis 81) teratogenic 82) jaundice 83) latent 84) Hepatitis B immune globulin 85) keratoconjunctivitis 86) cytopathic effects Version 1

87) cesarean 88) Acyclovir 89) valacyclovir 90) Burkitt lymphoma

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CHAPTER 25 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The primary transmission route for acquiring agents of the common cold is by contact with hands and fomites contaminated with the nasal discharges of an infected person. ⊚ ⊚

Influenza is predominantly transmitted by the fecal-oral route. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The major reservoir for the Sin Nombre hantavirus is the deer mouse. ⊚ ⊚

true false

4) Guillain-Barré syndrome involves varying degrees of demyelination of the peripheral nervous system leading to muscle weakness of extremities and possible paralysis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is caused by a prion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

6) Respiratory syncytial virus and rotavirus are major causes of global outbreaks in infants 6 months of age, or younger. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

In rabies, spasms of muscles for swallowing leads to a fear of water. ⊚ ⊚

true false

8) The most serious teratogenic effects of intrauterine rubella infection occur if it is acquired during the third trimester. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A vaccine is currently available to prevent HIV infection. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) Aedes mosquitoes are the vector involved in yellow fever, dengue fever, and Zika virus transmission. ⊚ ⊚

11)

One positive test for the presence of HIV antibodies dictates the diagnosis as AIDS. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

HTLV-1 is a retrovirus associated wth acute lymphocytic leukemia. ⊚ true ⊚ false

13) Combination therapy for HIV is based on the assumption that it is highly unlikely for multiple simultaneous mutations to cause resistance to each of the drugs used. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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14) Because initial symptoms of Ebola and Marburg virus infection resemble infection with less severe pathogens including typhoid fever and malaria, clinics risk misdiagnosing patients and putting more people at risk. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) The temperature of the full human respiratory tract, from nose to alveoli, is relatively consistent. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) Because they lack nucleic acid material, prions are especially susceptible to sterility by autoclaving. ⊚ ⊚

true false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question. 17) Which of the following could block the attachment of HIV to T H cells? (Check all that apply). A) Integrase inhibitors B) Antibodies against GP-120 C) Antibodies against co-receptors on T H cells D) Fusion inhibitors E) Antibodies against the HIV capsid

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 18) Characteristics of the Orthomyxoviruses include all of the following, except

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A) they have an envelope. B) they include paramyxoviruses. C) they have hemagglutinin spikes. D) their genome is RNA. E) they have neuraminidase spikes.

19) The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is A) catalase. B) reversetranscriptase. C) hyaluronidase. D) neuraminidase. E) kinase.

20) Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission of all of the following, except A) influenza. B) rubella. C) dengue fever. D) mumps. E) SARS.

21)

Symptoms of influenza include A) nasal discharge,mild fever, and absence of cough. B) fever, diarrhea, and vomiting. C) fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, and nasal discharge. D) fever, sore throat, rash, and cough. E) fever and pneumonia.

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22)

Reye's syndrome involves A) aspirin use. B) a febrile viralillness such as influenza or chickenpox. C) fatty degenerationof liver, brain, kidney. D) children,adolescents, and young adults. E) All of the choices are correct.

23)

Characteristics of influenza vaccines include all the following, except A) inactivatedintramuscular vaccine. B) usuallyincorporates three different strains. C) attenuated, nasaldrops vaccine. D) provides lifelongimmunity. E) Guillain-Barré syndrome is apostvaccination neurological complication.

24)

Influenza infection can be treated with A) amantadine. B) rimantadine. C) zanamivir. D) oseltamivir. E) All of the choices are correct.

25)

Which is not a disease caused by arenaviruses? A) Lymphocytic choriomeningitis B) Lassa fever C) Hantaviruses D) Bolivianhemorrhagic fever E) Argentine hemorrhagic fever

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26)

Sin Nombre hantavirus has all the following characteristics, except A) its reservoir is human carriers. B) it is a zoonosis. C) the symptoms are abrupt fever, lung edema, respiratory distress, and hypotension. D) it is transmitted by aerosol transmission from rodent excreta. E) the first U.S. outbreak occurred in 1993 in the Southwest.

27)

Parainfluenza virus A) usually infectsthe elderly. B) is in theOrthomyxovirus family. C) causesinfluenza. D) causes croup,bronchitis, and bronchopneumonia. E) All of the choices are correct.

28)

Orchitis and epididymitis is seen in young adult males as a complication of A) croup. B) mumps. C) influenza. D) measles(rubeola). E) rubella.

29)

Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with A) croup. B) mumps. C) influenza. D) measles(rubeola). E) rubella.

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30)

Which infection is marked by labored, noisy breathing, and a hoarse cough? A) Croup B) Mumps C) Influenza D) Measles (rubeola) E) Rubella

31) Which febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage? A) Croup B) Mumps C) Influenza D) Measles (rubeola) E) Rubella

32)

Which is incorrect about the MMR immunization? A) It contains attenuated viruses. B) It contains toxoids. C) It is given in early childhood. D) It provides protection against three different viral diseases.

33)

All the following pertain to measles (rubeola), except

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A) it is transmitted by direct contact with the rash. B) humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen. C) secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis occur. D) it may involve a fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE). E) symptoms include dry cough, sore throat, fever, and conjunctivitis.

34)

Respiratory syncytial virus (Pneumovirus) A) causes serious disease in infants 6-months-old or younger. B) uses thenasopharynx as its main replication site. C) can be treated with the antiviral aerosol ribavirin. D) is the most common cause of respiratory infections in babies. E) All of the choices are correct.

35)

Which is incorrect about rabies? A) It is a zoonotic disease. B) Wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats, and canines are primary reservoirs. C) Transmission can involve bites, scratches, and inhalation. D) The average incubation in humans is one week. E) Symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, and paralysis.

36)

Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes A) debridement. B) washing bite with soap or detergent. C) infusion of the wound with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG). D) post-exposure vaccination with HDCV. E) All of the choices are correct.

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37)

Coronaviruses cause A) fever, rash, and nasal discharge. B) meningitis. C) measles. D) croup. E) common cold and SARS.

38)

Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) A) can cause highfever, pneumonia, respiratory distress. B) began with aninitial outbreak in the United States and then spread to Canada and

China. C) is caused by therespiratory syncytial virus. D) is not highlytransmissible. E) All of the choices are correct.

39)

Rubella is

A) caused by themeasles virus (Morbillivirus). B) a zoonosis. C) associated withcongenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mentaldefects. D) characterized by high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough, and myalgia. E) All of the choices are correct.

40)

All arboviruses involve

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A) congenitalinfection. B) arthropodvectors. C) diarrhea. D) birds as theprimary reservoir. E) All of the choices are correct.

41)

Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involves A) fever, headache,and rash. B) coma, convulsions,and paralysis in severe cases. C) myalgia andorbital pain. D) muscle aches andjoint stiffness. E) All of the choices are correct.

42)

Which of the following is a hemorrhagic fever? A) Yellow fever B) LaCrosse encephalitis C) Eastern equineencephalitis D) Colorado tickfever E) St. Louis encephalitis

43)

West Nile virus has the following characteristics, except A) it causes a hemorrhagic fever. B) it is an arbovirus. C) it is transmitted by a mosquito vector. D) it is typically a flu-like illness. E) it causes a severe encephalitis in less than 1% of infected persons.

44)

Yellow fever and Dengue fever are

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A) caused byarboviruses. B) caused by virusesthat disrupt capillaries and blood clotting. C) zoonoses. D) transmitted by amosquito vector. E) All of the choices are correct.

45)

Retroviruses have the following characteristics, except A) glycoproteinspikes. B) DNA genome. C) envelope. D) reversetranscriptase. E) viral genes that integrate into the host genome.

46)

All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS, except A) they have a profound immunodeficiency. B) they have CD4 T-cell counts below 200 cells/mm3 of blood. C) they get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections. D) they can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders. E) the highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States.

47)

Documented transmission of HIV involves A) mosquitoes. B) unprotected sexualintercourse and contact with blood/blood products. C) respiratorydroplets. D) contaminatedfood. E) All of the choices are correct.

48)

All of the following pertain to HIV, except

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A) it attaches primarily to host cells with CD4 receptors. B) the viral DNA integrates into the host nucleus. C) it has reverse transcriptase. D) it causes Kaposi's sarcoma. E) it can enter into nervous tissues and cause abnormalities.

49) Which drug/s interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus? A) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors B) Protease inhibitors C) Fusion inhibitors D) Integrase inhibitors E) All of the choices are correct.

50)

Which class of drugs interferes with the virus inserting itself into host DNA? A) Reverse transcriptase inhibitors B) Protease inhibitors C) Fusion inhibitors D) Integrase inhibitors E) All of the choices are correct.

51)

A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is A) leukemia. B) Hodgkin'slymphoma. C) Kaposi'ssarcoma. D) melanoma. E) colon cancer.

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52) Hydrophobia, the dumb phase, and Negri bodies in nervous tissue are all part of which disease? A) Rabies B) Dengue fever C) Norwalk virus D) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) E) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

53)

All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis, except

A) summer outbreaks in the United States have been recently increasing. B) it is transmitted primarily by fecal contaminated water. C) it can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever, and nausea. D) if virus enters the central nervous system, motor neurons can be infected and destroyed. E) there are effective vaccines to prevent polio.

54)

The major agents responsible for the common cold are A) coxsackie viruses. B) rhinoviruses. C) influenza viruses. D) Caliciviruses. E) rotavirus.

55)

The worldwide, primary viral cause of morbidity and mortality from diarrhea is

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A) coxsackie viruses. B) rhinoviruses. C) influenza viruses. D) Caliciviruses. E) rotavirus.

56)

Norwalk agent is A) a Calicivirus. B) transmitted oral-fecally. C) sometimes acquiredfrom contaminated water and shellfish. D) a common entericvirus of gastroenteritis. E) All of the choices are correct.

57)

Which is incorrect about Hepatitis A infection? A) It is transmittedby the oral-fecal route. B) It has flu-likesymptoms with discomfort near the liver and darkened urine. C) It predisposes aperson for liver cancer. D) Immune globulin therapy helps decrease the severity. E) HAVRIX is an inactivated vaccine for prevention.

58)

Spongiform encephalopathies are A) associated withabnormal, transmissible, protein in the brain. B) chronic, fatalinfections of the nervous system. C) caused byprions. D) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, kuru, and Gerstmann-Straüssler-Scheinker syndrome. E) All of the choices are correct.

59)

The main route for transmission of HIV in most parts of the world is through

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A) intravenous druguse. B) homosexual sex. C) bloodtransfusion. D) heterosexualsex. E) blood products.

60)

Which area has the largest number of people living with HIV/AIDS? A) North America B) Sub-SaharanAfrica C) Southeast Asia D) Carribbean E) Western Europe

61)

Which of the following is incorrect regarding Coronaviruses? A) One type can causethe common cold. B) One type can causeSARS. C) They are commonanimal viruses in pigs, dogs, cats, and poultry. D) There are no teststo confirm diagnosis. E) There is no specific treatment otherthan supportive care.

62)

Which is incorrect about measles? A) Koplik's spots appear before the characteristic rash. B) Humans are thesole reservoir. C) Vaccination iswith an attenuated oral vaccine. D) It is also knownas rubeola. E) It is one of the most contagiousinfectious diseases.

63)

All of the following are important bunyavirus diseases, except

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A) Hantavirus. B) Rift Valleyfever. C) Californiaencephalitis. D) severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS). E) Korean hemorrhagic fever.

64)

Which is correct about influenza? A) Antigenic shift isa minor change in the viral strain. B) The virus is foundin swine and cats. C) The virus is grownin poultry eggs for vaccines. D) Influenza A has amortality rate of close to 35%. E) The virus binds to the intestinalmucosa.

65)

Which of the following diseases is not caused by a paramyxovirus? A) Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) B) Parainfluenza C) Mumps D) Measles E) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infections

66)

All the following are correct about polio, except A) the inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) can occasionally revert to a neurovirulent strain. B) treatment for polio involves mainly alleviating pain and suffering. C) the virus is transmitted through the fecal-oral route. D) most infections do not result in paralysis. E) Dr. Jonas Salk developed the IPVvaccine in 1954.

67)

Which of the following is correct about polio?

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A) The disease isstill affecting millions of people worldwide, mainly in Africa and India. B) The disease isspread by the respiratory route. C) The oral poliovaccine (OPV) is not responsible for causing any polio. D) The Sabin vaccine is preferred over the Salk vaccine in the United States today. E) The virus multiplies in the mucosa ofthe intestines and is shed in feces.

68)

Coxsackieviruses A) are paramyxoviruses. B) are the etiological agents of hairy-cell leukemia. C) can causehand-foot-mouth disease. D) are retroviruses. E) replicate in helper T-cells.

69) A client displays symptoms of fatigue, diarrhea, weight loss, neurological changes, and enlarged lymph nodes. The client thought they had the flu because they felt ill, then felt better over the last 5 years. However, this cycle of feeling tired has led to fever, fatigue, sore throat, and night sweats with a rash. The patient also has thrush. Which of the results below would indicate that the causative agent is AIDS? A) High level of CD4 T-cells B) Detection of HIV antigen C) Presence of Candida albicans D) Isolation of herpes simplex from skin and mucous membrane ulcers E) Isolation of Mycobacterium tuberculosis

70)

What does AIDS stand for?

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A) Aids Induced Disease B) Aids In Disguises C) Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome D) Human Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndromes

71)

Which two hepatitis viruses are generally acquired in a similar manner? A) HBA and HBV B) HBA and HBC C) HBV and HBC

72) Why were blood transfusions prior to 1985 more likely to be associated with Hepatitis C transmission than blood transfusions done since 1985? A) Since 1985, the incidence of Hepatitis C infection in the general population has been significantly lower than it was prior to 1985. B) Since 1985, donor blood is tested for the human immunodeficiency virus. C) Since 1985, the processing and storage of donor blood destroys any Hepatitis C virus in the blood. D) Since 1985, donor blood has been tested for either nonA, nonB Hepatitis virus or specifically for Hepatitis C virus.

73)

Which part of HIV facilitates attachment of HIV to T

H cells?

A) Integrase B) GP-120 C) Fusion promoter D) Protease E) Capsidproteins

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74) Which of the following presents the greatest challenge to the development of a vaccine against HIV? A) HIV doesn't provoke the production of antibodies. B) Antibodies against HIV don't provide any protection from infection. C) Surface antigens on HIV change readily due to frequent mutations. D) Individuals are unwilling to participate in vaccine trials out of fear of developing AIDS.

75)

The most effective HIV treatment includes

A) several different drugs designed to inhibit reverse transcriptase. B) several differentdrugs each directed at different enzymes (reversetranscriptase, integrase, fusion, and protease). C) several different protease inhibitors. D) several different fusion inhibitors and reverse transcriptase inhibitors.

76)

Which of the following viruses is associated with adult T-cell leukemia? A) HIV B) HTLV-1 C) Hepatitis C virus D) HTLV-2 E) Reovirus

77) Following several days of nausea and fatigue, Jackie has become jaundiced and her urine is very dark-colored. Tests ordered by her physician have confirmed that she has Hepatitis A. Which of the following is most likely to shorten the duration and lessen the severity of her symptoms?

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A) Treatment with acyclovir B) Administration of the HAVRIX vaccine C) Administration of pooled human immune serum globulin D) Interferon therapy

78)

Each of the following viruses or diseases are transmitted via the oral-fecal route, except A) Hepatitis A virus. B) poliovirus. C) rotavirus. D) Hepatitis C virus. E) norovirus.

79) Why do rhinoviruses infect the upper respiratory tract, particularly the nose, but not the lower respiratory tract? A) They are unable to attach to receptors on the pulmonary cells in the lower respiratory tract. B) They replicate most effectively at the cooler temperatures of the upper respiratory tract. C) The prevalence of alveolar macrophages in the lower respiratory tract prevents them from becoming established there. D) IgA antibodies in lower respiratory tract secretions prevent them from becoming established in the lower respiratory tract.

80)

All of the following are true of prions and prion diseases, except

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A) prions are not readily destroyed by routine sterilization methods. B) prion diseases are diagnosed by an indirect ELISA test that detects antibody to prions. C) there are no medications that can halt the progression of prion diseases. D) prion diseases are all neurodegenerative diseases. E) prions are composed exclusively of protein.

81) A client is diagnosed with an infection caused by the hepatitis A virus. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? A) "Hepatitis A is often spread through contaminated food or water." B) "I will likely recover completely from my infection." C) "If I am not having sex or donating blood, there is no way to spread the hep A virus to others." D) "Vaccination could have prevented my infection."

82) The nurse understands that her teaching was effective when the client verbalizes which statement about the influenza vaccination? A) "To cure the flu, the influenza vaccine must be administered no more than 48 hours after infection." B) "The vaccine may cause mild, coldlike symptoms, and a low-grade fever." C) "Because I am over 50 years of age, I should not receive a flu vaccine." D) "Because I received a flu vaccine last year, I should not get one this year."

83)

Which of the following is not true regarding Marburg virus and Ebola? A) They are flioviruses. B) The reservoir is bats in West Africa. C) Infection occurs when aerosol droplets containing the virus are inhaled. D) Infection results in hemorrhagic fever and death in up to 90% of cases. E) The rVSV-ZEBOV vaccine is currently in clinical trials.

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84)

Why is Poliovirus so easily transmissible?

A) The naked capsid confers resistance to dessication, so that the virus can survive outside of the body for extended periods of time. B) The naked capsid confers stability and resistance to acid, so that the virus survives the gastric environment. C) The hemagglutinin spikes on the viral envelope bind to respiratory mucosal receptors and confer incerased viral entry. D) All of the choices are correct.

85) Epidemiologists discover an outbreak of a highly virulent strain of influenza A virus that can transmit from swine to humans. Sequencing of the viral particles reveals a combination of human and swine influenza RNA strands. What process created this new virus? A) Nonsense mutations B) Antigenic drift C) Antigentic shift D) Artifical selection

86)

The primary portal of entry for Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is/are A) urogenital mucous membranes. B) abrasions in the sink. C) contact with rash. D) nose and eye epithelia. E) All of the choices are correct.

87) A clinic in the Democratic Republic of the Congo has dozens of patients showing symptoms that could indicate infection with Ebola. What is the best course of action?

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A) Vaccinate the patients with the rVSV-ZEBOV candidate vaccine. B) Focus treatment on supportive care and quarantine the patients. C) Transfer the patients to a larger hospital where monoclonal antibody-based drugs are available. D) Quarantine the patients and vaccinate with the rVSV-ZEBOV candidate vaccine.

88) Which of the following is not an important factor in the frequency and spread of arboviruses? A) The route of transmission B) The season of the year C) Geographical range D) Availability of food and breeding sites for arthropod vector

89)

Which of the following is not a possible feature of a retrovirus? A) Replicate double-stranded DNA from single-stranded RNA B) Permanent incorporation of viral DNA into host chromosomes C) Mutation of host DNA D) Regulation of host gene expression

90) Over the course of HIV infection, levels of HIV virus, CD4 T cells, and antibodies made against virus change. Which of the following statements about these levels is correct? A) Peak numbers of HIV virus occur when levels of host antibodies are at their highest. B) Levels of CD4 T cells rapidly increase early during infection as the host mounts an immune response. C) As the number of antibodies in the blood increases, the amount of HIV virus decreases. D) As HIV progresses to AIDS, the number of antibodies and virus particles in the blood rapidly increase.

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91) If a patient's HIV mutated to interact with a CD4 receptor other than CCR5, which antiHIV drug(s) would not be useful in therapy? A) Binding inhibitors B) Fusion inhibitors C) Integrase inhibitors D) Binding and fusion inhibitors E) Fusion and integrase inhibitors

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 92) An antigenic __________ occurs when genome segments from different influenza strains recombine.

93) An antigenic __________ occurs when there is a minor change in antigenicity caused by small mutations in a single influenza virus strain.

94) The spikes of a paramyxovirus bind and fuse adjacent host cell membranes to produce a __________.

95)

The influenza virus uses __________ spikes to bind to host cells.

96)

The MMR vaccination is for immunity to __________, __________, and __________.

97)

Intracellular inclusions called __________ seen in nervous tissue are indicative of rabies.

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98) Retroviruses have the enzyme __________ that catalyzes the synthesisof DNA from viral RNA.

99) The most common reason for liver transplants in the United States is infection with __________.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 100) Discuss the various stages of HIV infection and disease with regard to: a) signs and symptoms, b) corresponding virus activities, and c) diagnostic indicators.

101) Compare and contrast Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), variant CJD, and kuru with regard to: a) causative agent, b) transmission, c) reservoir, d) pathogenesis and symptoms, and e) methods for prevention.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 25_11e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) FALSE 6) TRUE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) FALSE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) FALSE 16) FALSE 17) [B, C] 18) B 19) D 20) C 21) C 22) E 23) D 24) E 25) C 26) A Version 1

27) D 28) B 29) D 30) A 31) E 32) B 33) A 34) E 35) D 36) E 37) E 38) A 39) C 40) B 41) E 42) A 43) A 44) E 45) B 46) E 47) B 48) D 49) B 50) D 51) C 52) A 53) A 54) B 55) E 56) E Version 1

57) C 58) E 59) D 60) B 61) D 62) C 63) D 64) C 65) A 66) A 67) E 68) C 69) B 70) C 71) C 72) D 73) B 74) C 75) B 76) B 77) C 78) D 79) B 80) B 81) C 82) B 83) C 84) B 85) C 86) D Version 1

87) B 88) A 89) C 90) C 91) A 92) shift 93) drift 94) syncytium 95) hemagglutinin 96) [measles, mumps, rubella] 97) Negri bodies 98) reverse transcriptase 99) hepatitis C

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CHAPTER 26 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Living or dead organisms that occupy an organism's habitat are called biotic factors. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The primary role of producers is to recycle nutrients in an ecosystem. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) The combustion of fossil fuels, such as coal, oil, and gas, have contributed to the steady increase in atmosphere CO 2 gas over the last 25 years. ⊚ ⊚

The main decomposers are the fungi and bacteria. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Mycorrhizae are the mutualistic partnership between fungi and the roots of certain plants. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A food web is generally simpler to visualize than a food chain. ⊚ ⊚

true false

7) Some bacteria, such as Desulfovibrio, are able to reduce sulfates to hydrogen sulfide as the final step in the electron transport chain.

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⊚ ⊚

The lithosphere is an area that is without living microorganisms. ⊚ ⊚

true false

The total amount of water in the hydrologic cycle has decreased over millions of years. ⊚ ⊚

true false

10) In a synergistic relationship, the action of one microbe favorably affects another, but the first microbe receives no benefit. ⊚ ⊚

11)

Microbes exist as communities on and within plants and animals, especially humans. ⊚ ⊚

12)

true false

It is easy to find a pure culture of microbes in nature. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

Most organisms who live in a commensal relationship normally have a co-metabolism. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14) The discovery of microbes that are constantly releasing methane as a by-product could lead to serious greenhouse gas issues. ⊚ ⊚

15)

true false

Plankton serves as a nutritional source for protozoa and microscopic invertebrates. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 16) The overall role that a species serves in a community is its A) niche. B) habitat. C) population. D) community. E) biome.

17)

The physical location in the environment to which an organism has adapted is calleda A) niche. B) habitat. C) population. D) community. E) biome.

18)

The thin envelope of life that surrounds the Earth's surface is called the

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A) atmosphere. B) biosphere. C) lithosphere. D) hydrosphere. E) ecosystem.

19)

The terrestrial realm of the biosphere is distributed into particular climatic regions called A) niches. B) habitats. C) populations. D) communities. E) biomes.

20)

A group of organisms of the same species within a community is called a A) niche. B) habitat. C) population. D) community. E) biome.

21)

All of the following are abiotic factors, except A) atmosphericgases. B) an animalcarcass. C) minerals. D) water. E) light.

22)

Which trophic level forms the base of a food chain?

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A) Primary consumers B) Quarternary consumers C) Secondary consumers D) Primary producers E) Tertiary consumers

23)

Which is mismatched? A) Parasitism—one organism benefits and the other receives no benefit B) Competition—one organism gives off substances that inhibit or kill other organisms C) Predator—seeks out and ingests live prey D) Scavengers—feed on live to dead cells and wastes E) Omnivores—feed on plants and flesh

24)

Carbon dioxide (CO

2) is

A) removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis. B) a source of carbon. C) returned to the atmosphere during respiration and fermentation. D) used by marine organisms to make limestone for their hard shells. E) All of these choices are correct.

25)

The energy of photons is converted into chemical energy during A) ammonification. B) nitrogenfixation. C) photosynthesis. D) nitrification. E) denitrification.

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26) The conversion of gaseous nitrogen (N during

2) to the ammonium ion (NH

) occurs

A) ammonification. B) nitrogenfixation. C) photosynthesis. D) nitrification. E) denitrification.

27)

The oxidation of ammonia (NH

) to nitrate (NO

−

) is called

A) ammonification. B) nitrogenfixation. C) photosynthesis. D) nitrification. E) denitrification.

28)

The conversion of nitrate (NO

−

) to nitrogen gas (N

2) is called

A) ammonification. B) nitrogenfixation. C) photosynthesis. D) nitrification. E) denitrification.

29)

Which of the following is not correct about nitrogen fixation? A) Somenitrogen-fixing bacteria live free. B) Somenitrogen-fixing bacteria live in a symbiotic relationship with plants. C) Nitrogen fixationis an aerobic process. D) The primaryproduct of nitrogen fixation is ammonium ion, NH 4 +. E) Legumes are plants that are able to fixnitrogen.

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30)

Which of the following is a nitrifying microbe? A) Nitrosospira B) Nitrosobacter C) Nitrosococcus D) Nitrosomonas E) All of these choices are correct.

31)

Which of the following can carry out denitrification to completion? A) Rhizobium B) Nitrobacter C) Pseudomonas D) Nostoc E) Azotobacter

32)

Which organism is a nitrogen-fixing symbiont of legumes? A) Rhizobium B) Nitrobacter C) Pseudomonas D) Nostoc E) Azotobacter

33) Thiobacillus thiooxidans is found in an environmental sample. Which of the following should then apply to this sample? A) The sample contains lithotrophs. B) The sample is very acidic. C) The sample contains microbes that oxidize sulfur to sulfates. D) All of these choices are correct.

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34)

Life would not be possible without A) autotrophs. B) primary consumers. C) secondary consumers. D) heterotrophs. E) chemoheterotrophs.

35)

Using microbes to break down or remove toxic wastes in water and soil is called A) decomposition. B) synergism. C) mineralization. D) bioremediation. E) recycling.

36)

The sediment in a lake, composed of organic debris and mud, is termed the A) photic zone. B) benthic zone. C) profundalzone. D) littoral zone. E) limnetic zone.

37)

All of the following pertain to red tides, except A) due to overgrowthof red and brown algae in water. B) due to overgrowthof toxin-producing dinoflagellates. C) cause paralyticshellfish poisoning. D) involve toxinconcentrating in shellfish. E) humans can become ill from eating theshellfish.

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38)

Eutrophication A) encourages heavysurface algal blooms. B) can block theO 2 supply to the lake. C) occurs when thereare excess nutrients in aquatic ecosystems. D) causes massivedie-off of fish and invertebrates. E) All of these choices are correct.

39)

Potable water is A) contaminated. B) polluted. C) safe to drink. D) foul testing.

40)

Indicator bacteria are A) coliforms. B) gram-negativerods. C) evidence of fecalcontamination. D) used in waterquality tests. E) All of these choices are correct.

41) Analysis of a water sample by a series of presumptive, confirmatory, and completed tests that help establish an estimate of coliform numbers in the water is called A) membrane filtermethod. B) most probablenumber (MPN) procedure. C) standard platecount. D) coliformdetermination test.

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42)

An example of a primary consumer would be a A) dog. B) cow. C) tiger. D) mushroom.

43)

As energy is transferred to the next trophic level, how much of it is generally lost as heat? A) None B) 5% C) 10% D) 50% E) 90%

44)

Which of the following cannot be photoautrophs? A) Bacteria B) Fungi C) Plants D) Algae E) All of these choices are correct.

45)

What is the source of CO

2 released into the atmosphere?

A) Respiration B) Anaerobic microbial activity C) Fuel combustion D) Volcanic activity E) All of these choices are correct.

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46)

The Gaia Theory says that

A) the biospherecontains a diversity of habitats and niches favorable to life because livingthings have made it that way. B) the complementaryactions of respiration and photosynthesis have maintained a relatively stableatmospheric pool of carbon dioxide and oxygen. C) all living thingsmust obtain nutrients and energy from their environment. D) all elements havetheir origin in a nonliving, long-term reservoir. E) ecosystems are open with regard toenergy because the sun is constantly renewing them with a renewable source.

47)

Which of the following is incorrect about water?

A) When a waterquality test is negative for coliforms, it is considered fit for humanconsumption. B) There is noacceptable level for fecal coliforms, enterococci, viruses, or pathogenicprotozoans in drinking water. C) The MPN (most probable number) specifically detects fecal coliforms. D) The membranefilter method is a widely used rapid method to test large quantities of waterfor quality. E) Finding coliforms in high numbersindicates fecal contamination of the water.

48)

Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas? A) Carbon dioxide (CO 2) B) Sulfur dioxide (SO 2) C) Methane (CH 4) D) Ammonia (NH 4 +) E) All of these choices are correct.

49) When describing the horizontal zonation of a body of water, which term refers to the shoreline area?

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A) Littoral zone B) Limnetic zone C) Photic zone D) Benthic zone E) Estuary zone

50)

Which of the following water-borne pathogens are protozoans? A) Vibrio B) Hepatitis A C) Giardia D) Shigella E) Norwalk virus

51)

How does methyl mercury affect living things? A) It interfereswith translation of mRNA. B) It interfereswith DNA replication. C) It inhibitstranscription. D) It precipitatesproteins. E) It inhibits the electron transportchain during cellular respiration.

52)

The niche of an organism includes all of the following, except A) nutritional intake. B) position in the community structure. C) rate of population growth. D) number of offspring it produces. E) All of these choices are correct.

53)

Bacteria can function in all the following roles in an ecosystem, except as a

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A) primaryproducer. B) consumer. C) decomposer. D) parasite. E) All of these choices are correct.

54) In a large body of standing water, which area exists between the hypolimnion and the epilimnion? A) Thermocline B) Photic C) Limnetic D) Littoral E) Profundal

55)

Which of the following are sources of greenhouse gases? A) Gastrointestinal tract of ruminants B) Combustion of fossil fuels C) Burning forests to clear agricultural land D) Decaying vegetation in swamps E) All of these choices are correct.

56) What was needed by the microorganisms to facilitate the speed of the bioremediation process after the Exxon Valdez oil spill? A) More bacteria B) More oil C) More phosphate D) All of these choices are correct.

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57) Consider a pond on your college campus. All of the organisms that live in the pond, including bacteria, protozoa, algae, plants and animals, represent a/an A) ecosystem. B) population. C) niche. D) community. E) habitat.

58) Lichens grow in a variety of habitats including rocks and tree trunks, and existas a symbiotic association of algae or cyanobacteria and a fungus. The fungus provides anchoring, moisture, and minerals for the algae, and the algae performs photosynthesis providing sugars to sustain the fungus. The relationship between the fungus and algae is an example of A) commensalism. B) mututalism. C) parasitism. D) microbial antagonism. E) a predator-prey relationship.

59)

Most of the zooplankton and phyoplanktonin a lake will be located in the A) benthic zone. B) photic zone. C) produndalzone. D) littoral zone. E) Plankton will be distributed among each of these zones.

60)

Which of the following are roles played by microbes in aquatic ecosystems?

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A) Producers B) Primary consumers C) Decomposers D) Mineralizers E) All of these choices are correct.

61) A group of Pseudomonas bacteria all reside on the back surface of the coffee machine. The bacteria are exhibiting a __________. A) community B) population C) biome D) biosphere

62) The process of co-metabolism, where the waste products of one organism serve as nutrients for the other organism is called A) syntrophy. B) parasitism. C) competition. D) scavenging.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 63) A __________ is a form of consumer that actively seeks out and ingests live prey.

64) The science called microbial __________ studies interactions between microbes and their environment and how those interactions affect the Earth.

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65) Organisms that inhabit soil or water and break down and absorb the organic matter of dead organisms are called __________.

66) Carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide are believed to be __________ gases that could disrupt the temperature balance of the Earth.

67) The slowly decaying organic litter from plant and animal tissues that is found in the soil is called __________.

68)

An __________ is the term for a deep groundwater source.

69)

An __________ is a region where the river meets the sea.

70) __________ is a floating, surface microbial community that drifts with the currents and waves.

71)

Nutrient deficient ecosystems are called __________.

72)

Finding __________ in water is a good indication that it has been fecally contaminated.

73) __________ ecology is focused on the interactions between microbes, their environments, and the effect they have on the earth.

74)

A(n) __________ can vary in size from the single root of a plant to an entire rain forest.

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75) The consistency that almost all biological material can be reduced by some type of decomposer is termed __________.

76) __________ is a revolution in understanding the biological involvement in geological procesess.

77) A large group of mollusks died; therefore, a large amount of __________ can be expected to be absorbed by the earth due to carbon cycling.

78) The nitrogen cycle can also be called the nitrogen __________ due to the intricacy of its utilization by organisms.

79)

__________ is an integral component of DNA, RNA, and ATP.

80) __________ is the zone of soil surrounding the root of plants, which contains bacteria, fungi, and protozoans.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 81) Discuss the specific effects caused by the runoff of organic industrial waste into a freshwater stream.

82)

Discuss and give several examples of the use of microbes in bioremediation.

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83) Differentiate between the following terms and provide an example for each: mutualism, communalism, synergism, parasitism.

84)

Describe the carbon cycle from the atmosphere to the primary producers and back again.

85)

What is "nitrogen fixation" and how do legumes play a role in this important cycle?

86)

Draw an energy pyramid and provide specific examples of each level.

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 26_11e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) TRUE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) FALSE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) TRUE 14) TRUE 15) TRUE 16) A 17) B 18) B 19) E 20) C 21) B 22) D 23) A 24) E 25) C 26) B Version 1

27) D 28) E 29) C 30) E 31) C 32) A 33) D 34) A 35) D 36) B 37) A 38) E 39) C 40) E 41) B 42) B 43) E 44) B 45) E 46) A 47) C 48) D 49) A 50) C 51) D 52) D 53) E 54) A 55) E 56) C Version 1

57) D 58) B 59) B 60) E 61) B 62) A 63) predator 64) ecology 65) decomposers 66) greenhouse 67) humus 68) aquifer 69) estuary 70) Plankton 71) oligotrophic 72) coliforms 73) Microbial 74) ecosystem 75) mineralization 76) Geomicrobiology 77) limestone 78) web 79) Phosphate 80) Rhizosphere

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CHAPTER 27 TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) There are a few water treatment plants in the United States that use ozone or peroxide for final disinfection of water. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Rennin is added to cheese to give it flavor. ⊚ ⊚

true false

3) In batch fermentation, substrate is added continuously and the product is siphoned off throughout the run. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Hops are the herb that gives beer some of its aroma and flavor. ⊚ ⊚

true false

5) Wine has a maximum alcoholic content of 17% because concentrations above this level inhibit the metabolism of the yeast. ⊚ ⊚

true false

Freshly fermented beer is lagered, meaning it is treated with potassium metabisulfate. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

Vinegar can be produced when alcohol in wine is oxidized to acetic acid. ⊚ ⊚

true false

A food infection results from the ingestion of exotoxin secreted by bacterial cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

9) Applied microbiology involves the use of genetically modified microbes to manufacture new products. ⊚ ⊚

10)

true false

If vodka is 80 proof, it contains 40% ethyl alcohol. ⊚ ⊚

true false

11) The microbes used by fermentation industries are mutant strains that synthesize large quantities of the desired product. ⊚ ⊚

12)

The pathology associated with food infections does not involve toxin-induced damage. ⊚ ⊚

13)

true false

A vegan is highly unlikely to become infected with a food-borne pathogen. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

14) In general, microorganisms must be taken out of food before it is suitable for consumption. ⊚ ⊚

true false

15) When consuming "probiotic" bacteria and yeasts in drinks and foods like kombucha, yogurt, and sauerkraut, some of the bacteria make it to the small intestine where they can become a part of the microbiota. ⊚ ⊚

true false

16) Most countries have incorporated some kind of microbe—bacteria, yeast, or algae—as an important food source, replacing plants and animals. ⊚ ⊚

17)

true false

Most antibiotics were originially identified and produced from soil bacteria. ⊚ ⊚

true false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 18) During which step of water purification doeswater move through sand beds and anthracite? A) Chlorination B) Aeration and settling C) Sedimentation D) Storage E) Filtration

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19)

The yeast used in making bread, beer, and wine is/are A) Saccharomycescerevisiae. B) Leuconostocmesenteroides. C) Streptococcuslactis and Lactobacillus. D) Propionibacterium. E) Spirulina.

20)

Which organism(s) ferments milk lactose, producing acids that curdle the milk? A) Saccharomycescerevisiae B) Leuconostocmesenteroides C) Streptococcuslactis and Lactobacillus D) Propionibacterium E) Spirulina

21)

Which organism(s) is used to initiate the fermentation of cabbage to make sauerkraut? A) Saccharomycescerevisiae B) Leuconostocmesenteroides C) Streptococcuslactis and Lactobacillus D) Propionibacterium E) Spirulina

22)

Which organism(s) is used to make Swiss cheese? A) Saccharomycescerevisiae B) Leuconostocmesenteroides C) Streptococcuslactis and Lactobacillus D) Propionibacterium E) Spirulina

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23) What is made by adding Streptococcus thermophilus and Lactobacillus bulgaricus to milk? A) Butter B) Cheese C) Sour cream D) Tofu E) Yogurt

24) Which step in making beer involves sprouting and softening the barley to release amylases to act on starch, and proteases to digest protein? A) Preparing a mash B) Malting C) Aging D) Wort is boiled with hops E) Fermentation

25)

All of the following are food-borne pathogens, except A) Salmonella. B) Campylobacter. C) Streptococcus. D) Clostridium. E) Staphylococcus aureus.

26)

Preservation of food to limit microbial survival and growth includes

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A) hightemperature. B) pasteurization. C) refrigeration andfreezing. D) irradiation. E) All of the choices are correct.

27)

Which is not used as a chemical preservative in food? A) Iodine B) Organic acids C) Sulfite D) Ethylene oxide E) Salt

28)

Bacillus thuringiensisproduces A) a toxin that causes food poisoning. B) abiopesticide. C) enzymes used in cheese-making. D) a single cell protein used as food. E) All of the choices are correct.

29)

Which of the following is an example of a food intoxication? A) Salmonellosis B) Listerosis C) Campylobacteriosis D) Staphyloccocal enteritis E) Vibrio enteritis

30)

Which is incorrect about food-borne illnesses?

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A) Most cases of foodpoisoning occur in the home and are not reported. B) Reports of foodpoisoning are decreasing in the United States. C) Avoiding crosscontamination in the kitchen can reduce the risk of food poisoning. D) The top viruses that cause food-borne illnesses are noroviruses and Hepatitis A viruses. E) Food infection is associated withingesting whole microbial cells.

31)

All of the following foods are preserved using high osmotic pressure, except A) jellies. B) pickles. C) canned fruit. D) candies. E) bread.

32)

During which phase of growth would a primary metabolite be produced? A) Lag phase B) Exponential phase C) Stationary phase D) Death phase E) All of the choices are correct.

33)

Fermentors have a built-in device called a sparger. What does a sparger do? A) It adds acontinuous supply of glucose to the media. B) It monitors the pHof the medium. C) It monitors thetemperature of the medium. D) It aerates themedium to promote aerobic growth. E) It stirs the mixture of microbe andnutrients.

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34)

Which of the following enzymes are produced by microorganisms on an industrial scale? A) Pectinase B) Cellulase C) Amylase D) Keratinase E) All of the choices are correct.

35)

Which of the following methods of food preservation are mismatched? A) Sulfites—Wines B) Nitrites—Bacon C) Propionic acid—Baked goods D) Propylene oxide gas—Dairy E) Ethylene gas—Spices

36) In 2006, the Food and Drug Administration approved the spraying of bacteriophages onto ready-to-eat meat products to A) preventsalmonellosis. B) increase thenutritional content of the food. C) prevent mold. D) sterilize thefood. E) prevent listeriosis.

37) To prevent the overgrowth of cyanobacteria and algae in water reservoirs, the water is often treated with

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A) iodine. B) copper sulfate. C) propionic acid. D) lactic acid. E) antibiotics.

38)

Downstream processing includes all the following, except A) recovery. B) purification. C) packaging. D) growth of the microorganism. E) All of the choices are correct.

39)

Organisms from the genus Aspergillus are used in the production of A) pectinase. B) proteases. C) cellulase. D) amylase. E) All of the choices are correct.

40)

The process of activating sludge from wastewater involves A) chlorination. B) filtration. C) aeration andstirring. D) radiation. E) heat and pressure.

41)

What process does wine go through in order to prevent it from turning to vinegar?

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A) Irradiation B) Pasteurization C) Autoclaving D) Filtration E) Distillation

42)

Nitrates and nitrites are used in cured meats mainly to prevent A) staphylococcal enteritis. B) shigellosis. C) botulism. D) listeriosis. E) Vibrio enteritis.

43)

How are microbes involved with our food? A) Some microbes can serve as food, providing us with nutrients. B) Microbes can ferment foods, providing rich flavors. C) Microbes can cause food spoilage. D) Microbes can contaminate our food and cause food poisoning. E) All of the choices are correct.

44)

What do the production of wine, beer, yogurt, and sauerkraut all have in common?

A) All of these products are the result of yeast acting on natural sugars in the food starting material. B) All of these products are made by microbial fermentation of natural sugars in the food starting material. C) Microorganisms grow in each of these foods producing acids which are responsible for the flavors. D) All of the choices are correct.

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45) During a hot afternoon in August, Sara hosted a baby shower for her best friend. Other friends brought much of the food, including a cold cut platter and potato and macaroni salads. They set the food items out on the picnic table in the shade, and then chatted and enjoyed watching their friend open her gifts. It was close to two hours later before they had their meal. Later that evening, eight of the guests who had attended the shower began to feel nauseated and began to vomit severely. The vomiting lasted most of the night, but as morning came, it diminished and they began to recover. What is the most likely cause of the illness? A) Infection with Salmonella enteritidis B) Staphylococcal food intoxication C) Botulism D) Infection with Shigella sp. E) Infection with E. coli O15:H7

46) The nurse is instructing a client about the dangers of food poisoning. Which statement by the client indicates the need for more teaching? A) "I will let food cool to room temperature before placing it in the refrigerator." B) "I will cook meats to at least 165º F." C) "I will use different cutting boards for raw meat and vegetables." D) "I will wash fruits and vegetables with running water before eating."

47) During the production of alcoholic beverages, which molecules are fermented to produce alcohol? A) Proteins B) Lipids C) Carbohydrates D) Nucleic acids

48)

Which of the following is a concern when using bioreactors?

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A) Keeping a large volume of liquid oxygenated for aerobic bacteria B) Maintaining uniformity throughout the batch C) Keeping large pieces of equipment sterile D) Maintaining uniformity throughout subsequent batches E) All of the choices are correct.

49) While on a field trip to a wastewater treatment plant, your class walks past large open-air pools of water that are cloudy and bubbly. The other students are concerned that this is the status of the water being released back to the groundwater, but you reassure them by saying A) "This is the water that has just come into the plant and has yet to go through any processing." B) "This water has just been treated with microbes and aerated to degrade organic molecules. The microbes will be removed at a later step." C) "This is the spoiled water where waste products collect and will not be returned to the water supply." D) "This water is finished going through the wastewater treatment plant and is going to be released into the groundwater supply, but any microbes present will be removed naturally once it has been pumped out."

50)

Drinking water is disinfected before distribution by treatment with A) lead. B) sodium hypochlorite. C) iodine. D) chloramines.

FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 51) A food __________ results from ingestion of exotoxin secreted by bacterial cells growing in the food.

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52) A food __________ results from ingestion of whole microbial cells that target the intestine.

53)

A __________ is a device used for growing mass cultures.

54)

Drying, or __________, is not a reliable microbicidal method.

55) Hypertonic levels of sugar or salt create high __________ pressure that plasmolyzes bacteria.

56) Regular refrigeration does not inhibit the growth of __________ microbes that can continue to grow and cause food spoilage.

57) Waste materials such as molasses or petroleum by-productscan be transformed into __________ proteins to be used as food.

58) In some parts of Mexico, __________ has become a viable alternative to green plants as a primary nutrient source.

59)

The fermentation of milk by Streptococcus thermophilus produces __________.

60) The __________ metabolites are by-products of metabolism and essential to the microbe's function.

61) The process of recovery, purification, and packaging of product is known as __________ processing.

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62)

A strain of __________ is being considered to control the mosquito vector of malaria.

SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 63) Compare and contrast the starting materials, processing steps, and microbes used in brewing beer and making wine.

64) Describe the major steps in water purification as carried out by a modern municipal treatment plant.

65) Why are cases of food-borne illnesses escalating in the United States despite our knowledge of how to prevent outbreaks?

66) Compare and contrast ultra-high-temperature (UHT) pasteurization and regular pasteurization.

67)

List some examples of products made through industrial microbiology.

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68) Draw and label a generic microbial growth curve, including the points at which metabolites are formed.

69) List three examples of extremophiles being used for large-scale production of microbial products. Why are extremophiles an attractive technology versus microorganisms that grow under more standard conditions?

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 27_11e 1) TRUE 2) FALSE 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) TRUE 6) FALSE 7) TRUE 8) FALSE 9) FALSE 10) TRUE 11) TRUE 12) FALSE 13) FALSE 14) FALSE 15) TRUE 16) FALSE 17) TRUE 18) E 19) A 20) C 21) B 22) D 23) E 24) B 25) C 26) E Version 1

27) A 28) B 29) D 30) B 31) E 32) B 33) D 34) E 35) D 36) E 37) B 38) D 39) E 40) C 41) B 42) C 43) E 44) B 45) B 46) A 47) C 48) E 49) B 50) D 51) intoxication 52) infection 53) fermentor 54) dessication 55) osmotic 56) psychrotrophic Version 1

57) single-cell 58) spirulina 59) yogurt 60) primary 61) downstream 62) Bacillus thuringiensis

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