Todays Medical Assistant 4th Edition Bonewit-west Test Bank Chapter 01: The Health Care System Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Why is Hippocrates often called the father of Western Medicine? a. He believed that disease was caused by physical and environmental factors that b. c. d.
could be studied. He developed “medications” from plant and animal sources to treat certain diseases. He created a medical school using a model that resembles modern medical schools. His students swore an oath called the Hippocratic Oath, which is still recited by graduating physicians.
ANS: A
REF: p. 2, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency:
2. What is the name for treatment that reduces symptoms of a disease, but does not cure the disease? a. Definitive b. Palliative c. Holistic d. Empirical ANS: B
REF: p. 2, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.10; ABHES Competency: 3.c.
3. When a patient comes to the office for care and then leaves and goes home, what type of care has the patient received? a. Clinic b. Extended c. Managed d. Ambulatory ANS: D
REF: p. 6, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.b.
4. What type of insurance plan pays a physician separately for each procedure that was performed? a. Government insurance b. Capitation insurance c. Fee-for-service insurance d. Managed care insurance ANS: C REF: p. 3, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 5. Which of the following facilities now functions primarily to provide acute care and diagnostic services? a. Clinic b. Hospital c. Physician’s office d. Skilled nursing facility/nursing home ANS: B
REF: p. 2, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.a.
6. What is a system by which a person (or the person’s employer) pays an insurance company a yearly amount of money in exchange
for the insurance company’s paying some or most of the person’s medical expenses for that year? a. Life insurance b. Health insurance c. Capitation d. Formulary ANS: B REF: p. 3, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 7. What trend in modern medicine encourages patients to become more responsible for their own care? a. Taking active steps to avoid duplication of services and medical errors b. Identifying all patients with name and date of birth before providing service c. Coaching patients to make dietary changes, stop smoking, and exercise d. Treating conditions as outpatients to avoid hospitalization ANS: C
REF: p. 2, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.6.a.; ABHES Competency: 9.h.
8. The insurance plan called a. Medicaid b. Medicare c. Social Security d. TRICARE
is designed to provide health insurance for low-income people.
ANS: A REF: p. 5, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c.
9. What is the federal insurance plan that provides health insurance for the elderly, the disabled, and those with end-stage kidney
disease? Medicaid Medicare TRICARE Managed Care
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B REF: p. 5, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 10. What is the current name for the health insurance plan for dependent spouses and children of active-duty military personnel? a. Medicaid b. Medicare c. TRICARE d. CHAMPVA ANS: C REF: p. 5, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 11. What type of health care encourages regular checkups, immunizations, and well-child visits? a. Acute care b. Conservative care c. Diagnostic care d. Routine care ANS: D REF: p. 6, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 12. What is utilization review? a. A process to determine whether health care is medically necessary b. A means to determine how much patients should pay for insurance c. Collection of statistics about the number of cases of specific diseases d. The systematic study of surgical techniques ANS: A REF: p. 6, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 13. Which of the following was included in the original model for health maintenance organizations (HMOs)? a. A network of physicians in the community b. Payment only for visits resulting from illness or disease c. Full-service clinics in which the physicians were employees d. Allowing patient to obtain services at all hospitals in a given geographic area ANS: C REF: p. 6, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 14. What is it called when a physician receives one monthly fee from the insurance company for each subscriber in his or her practice? a. Fee-for-service b. Indemnity c. Incentive reimbursement d. Capitation ANS: D REF: p. 6, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 15. What is the name for an insurance plan’s list of approved medications? a. Formulary b. Prescription c. Premium d. Generic ANS: A REF: p. 6, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 16. Which of the following occurs first when a patient is seen in the medical office? a. Laboratory testing b. Examination by the physician c. Referral d. Instructions for follow-up care ANS: B
REF: p. 7, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.a.
17. When does a physician participate in a residency program? a. After completing medical school b. Immediately after completing 4 years of college (bachelor’s degree) c. Only after becoming board-certified d. At any time when it is convenient during his or her training ANS: A
REF: p. 8, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency:
18. Which of the following health professionals can manage routine patient care? a. Physician b. Nurse practitioner c. Physician assistant d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 9, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.b.
19. What examination must a physician pass in order to obtain a state license to practice medicine? a. National Medical Licensing Examination (NMLE) b. National Board Certification Examination (NBCE) c. Physician Licensing Examination (PLE) d. United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) ANS: D
REF: p. 8, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.5.; ABHES Competency: 1.b.
20. Which of the following is an important part of effective teamwork for the medical assistant? a. Discussing a patient’s symptoms with the physician before he or she makes a b. c. d.
diagnosis Pointing out the mistakes of others whenever he or she notices them Communicating well with all staff in the medical office Deciding what diagnostic tests each patient needs
ANS: C
REF: p. 10, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.d.
21. Why should doorways in the medical office be at least 3-feet wide? a. This is required for employee safety by OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health b. c. d.
Administration). This is required by the Americans with Disabilities Act so that patients in wheelchairs have access. This is required by the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA ’88). This is the minimum size requirement of most local boards of health.
ANS: B REF: p. 10, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.10.c.; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 22. Which of the following are not usually found in the waiting room of a physician’s office? a. Toys for children to play with b. Current magazines and/or brochures c. Patient gowns and drapes d. Chairs for patients and family members ANS: C
REF: p. 10, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 8.e.
23. Which activities occur at the patient check-in window or counter? a. Patients hand in new patient information forms and health insurance cards. b. Patients describe their chief complaint and medical history. c. A patient’s height, weight, and blood pressure are measured. d. All are correct. ANS: A REF: p. 11, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.P.2.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 24. Which law or government agency is primarily responsible for the regulation of laboratories and laboratory tests? a. Americans with Disabilities Act b. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA ’88) c. State Medical Practice Act d. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) ANS: B
REF: p. 11, CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.C.10; ABHES Competency: 4.b.
25. If the office uses paper medical records, where are medical records of patients who have been seen within the past year usually
stored? a. In a medical records area near the reception area b. In the basement of the medical office building c. In an off-site medical record storage area that is within 2 miles of the office d. In a special medical records area of the nearest local hospital ANS: A REF: p. 12, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.6.c.; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 26. Where is patient billing usually performed? a. Almost all medical offices perform billing in a billing area within the office. b. Almost all medical offices have their billing performed at the nearest local c. d.
hospital. Billing may be done in an individual office, in a centralized location for several offices, or by a private billing service. Billing is almost always performed by an outside agency located in another state or country.
ANS: C
REF: p. 12, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.5; ABHES Competency: 8.b.
27. Which of the following areas is found in almost every medical office? a. Surgical procedure room b. Trauma room c. Diagnostic testing room d. Examination room ANS: D
REF: p. 10, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 8.e.
28. Which of the following best describes family medicine? a. Provides general medical care of children, adolescents, and adults. b. Treats patients for emergency conditions. c. Provides medical treatment to adults for conditions of various body systems. d. Specializes in the care of children and adolescents. ANS: A
REF: p. 13, CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.C.9; ABHES Competency: 1.a.
29. What type of medical care is provided in a patient-centered medical home (PCMH)? a. Coordinated primary care b. Acute inpatient care c. Long-term residential care d. Emergency and urgent care ANS: A REF: p. 14, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.4; ABHES Competency: 1.a. 30. Which type of primary care seeks to balance the structure and function of the body through manipulation of muscles and joints? a. Podiatry b. Osteopathy c. Pediatrics d. Gynecology ANS: B
REF: p. 14, CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.C.9; ABHES Competency: 1.b.
31. Which of the following types of medical practice might include a pediatrician, an internist, a dermatologist, an allergist, a
neurologist, and a general surgeon? Solo practice Family practice Closed-panel health maintenance organization (HMO) Dermatology group practice
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
REF: p. 15, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency:
32. Traditionally, what distinguished a clinic from other types of medical offices? a. Care was free or very low cost. b. A clinic was run by the federal government. c. Physicians shared equipment and personnel. d. Each physician saw only his or her own patients. ANS: A
REF: p. 15, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.a.
33. Which of the following might be studied scientifically by the National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health? a. Acupuncture b. Biofeedback c. Massage therapy d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 16, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency:
MATCHING
Directions: Match each medical specialty with its definition. Not all of the definitions are used. Branch of medical practice that seeks to balance the structure and function of the body through manipulation of muscles and joints; given all privileges of those with MD degrees b. Specializes in conditions of the skin c. Provides anesthesia during surgery and other procedures d. Utilizes manipulative treatment of the spine and joints e. Provides general medical care of children and adolescents f. Treats those with allergies and problems of the immune system g. Treat disorders of the feet and ankles h. Specializes in the care of the ear, nose, and throat i. Treats adults and children for routine care and complaints j. Treatment of the internal organs of adults by other than surgical means k. Performs surgical treatment of the large intestine and rectum l. Specializes in surgical care of bone and joint injuries and disorders a.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.
Internal medicine Family medicine Osteopathy Dermatology Podiatry Anesthesiology Pediatrics
8. Chiropractic 9. Gastroenterology 10. Allergist 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
ANS: J ANS: I ANS: A ANS: B ANS: G ANS: C ANS: E ANS: D ANS: K ANS: F
REF: p. 13, CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.C.9; ABHES Competency: 1.a. REF: p. 13, CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.C.9; ABHES Competency: 1.a. REF: p. 14, CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.C.9; ABHES Competency: 1.a. REF: p. 13, CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.C.9; ABHES Competency: 1.a. REF: p. 15, CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.C.9; ABHES Competency: 1.a. REF: p. 13, CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.C.9; ABHES Competency: 1.a. REF: p. 13, CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.C.9; ABHES Competency: 1.a. REF: p. 15, CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.C.9; ABHES Competency: 1.a. REF: p. 13, CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.C.9; ABHES Competency: 1.a. REF: p. 13, CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.C.9; ABHES Competency: 1.a.
MATCHING: NURSING AND ALLIED HEALTH PROFESSIONALS Directions: Match each occupation and credential with its definition. a. Performs laboratory tests in the clinical laboratory and may supervise laboratory operations or provide consulting services b. Plans exercises for large muscle groups for rehabilitation and implements treatment plans c. Manages routine care under the supervision of a physician. Usually works in ambulatory care. d. Works with patient medical records; may provide assistance in planning, managing information, and gathering data for medical research e. Entry-level nurse who performs direct patient care and clinical procedures; may work in hospitals, nursing homes, and ambulatory care settings f. Performs administrative and clinical tasks in ambulatory care g. Advanced practice nurse who specializes in a specific area such as internal medicine or women’s health, and who often manages routine patient care in ambulatory settings h. Most common nurse providing care in inpatient settings; provides supervision for caregivers in both inpatient and outpatient settings i. Assigns codes to patient charges and diagnoses for insurance billing 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19.
Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Medical Technologist (MT, MLT) Nurse Practitioner (NP) Practical Nurse (LPN, LVN) Physician Assistant (PA) Registered Nurse (RN) Medical Assistant (MA) Physical Therapist (PT) Health Information Specialist (RHIA, RHIT)
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19.
ANS: I ANS: A ANS: G ANS: E ANS: C ANS: H ANS: F ANS: B ANS: D
REF: p. 9, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.5; ABHES Competency: 1.b. REF: p. 9, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.5; ABHES Competency: 1.b. REF: p. 9, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.5; ABHES Competency: 1.b. REF: p. 9, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.5; ABHES Competency: 1.b. REF: p. 9, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.5; ABHES Competency: 1.b. REF: p. 9, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.5; ABHES Competency: 1.b. REF: p. 9, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.5; ABHES Competency: 1.b. REF: p. 9, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.5; ABHES Competency: 1.b. REF: p. 9, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.5; ABHES Competency: 1.b.
TRUE/FALSE 1. Most physician assistant programs award a master’s degree. ANS: T
REF: p. 8, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.5; ABHES Competency: 1.b.
2. A medical assistant’s scope of practice is strictly defined by federal law. ANS: F
REF: p. 10, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.1; ABHES Competency: 4.f.1.
3. A medical assistant should avoid giving medical advice to patients unless following specific guidelines established by the
physician. ANS: T
REF: p. 10, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.2; ABHES Competency: 1.d.
4. Complementary medicine refers to medical treatments that patients use in addition to standard medical treatments. ANS: T
REF: p. 16, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency:
Chapter 02: The Professional Medical Assistant Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following changes in medical care encouraged the development of medical assisting as a profession? a. Physicians made more house calls. b. Medical offices had to submit insurance forms for patients covered by c. d.
government insurance plans. Patients were given specific appointment times instead of just coming at any time. Patients were sent to the hospital for diagnostic testing.
ANS: B
REF: p. 19, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.a.
2. What is meant by the term “defensive medicine”? a. Patients are more likely to sue a physician today than 50 years ago. b. Malpractice insurance costs have risen sharply over the past 50 years. c. Physicians order more diagnostic tests than before as a defense against a possible d.
lawsuit. Performing diagnostic tests in the medical office increases the overhead or cost of doing business.
ANS: C
REF: p. 19, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 4.e.
3. When was the American Association of Medical Assistants organized? a. 1956 b. 1966 c. 1978 d. 1988 ANS: A
REF: p. 19, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.b.
4. What is a means for medical assisting programs to demonstrate high quality? a. Advertising in professional journals b. Gaining and maintaining accreditation c. Establishing programs that last at least 2 years d. Including a practical experience in the program ANS: B
REF: p. 19, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.b.
5. What is the name given to the practical experience in a physician office that is included in a medical assisting program? a. Internship b. Practicum c. Supervised placement d. Curriculum ANS: B
REF: p. 20, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.a.
6. What is an advantage to a student of completing an accredited medical assisting program? a. After graduation, the student can easily obtain advanced placement toward a b. c. d.
bachelor’s degree. After graduation, the student is eligible to take a medical assisting certification examination. After graduation, the student is more likely to be hired by the externship site. After graduation, the student automatically becomes certified.
ANS: B
REF: p. 20, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 11.a.
7. If a medical assistant performs only those procedures that he or she is trained for and allowed to perform by law, what is being
demonstrated? a. Doing the job b. Being appropriate c. Working within the scope of practice d. Refusing to be a team player ANS: C
REF: p. 22, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.1; ABHES Competency: 4.f.1.
8. Which of the following is/are important character traits for a medical assistant? a. Being tolerant of different beliefs and attitudes b. Limiting himself or herself to only the specific tasks that have been assigned c. Taking responsibility to tell patients when they should change their medications d. Expressing an interest in fashion and stylish appearance on the job e. All are correct ANS: A
REF: p. 22, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.A.3; ABHES Competency: 5.e.
9. Which medical assistant is likely to be most successful? a. One who rushes through tasks to finish everything quickly. b. One who uses every spare moment calling his or her child’s daycare center. c. One who can remain calm when things do not go as planned. d. One who places the most emphasis on accurate paperwork. ANS: C
REF: p. 22, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 11.b.
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10. Why are neatness and good grooming important for medical assistants? a. They help the medical assistant project a professional image. b. Clean hair and hands help prevent the spread of infection. c. If medical office staff looks professional, it helps patients believe that they will d. e.
receive competent care. Excessive jewelry can become tangled in equipment or tear gloves. All are correct.
ANS: E
REF: p. 23, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 11.b.
11. How can the medical assistant maintain a professional appearance? a. Wear a business suit when attending to patients in an examination room. b. Keep long artificial nails well maintained and neatly polished. c. Limit jewelry to post earrings and a plain wedding band (if married). d. Wear long hair down as long as it is clean. e. All are correct. ANS: C
REF: p. 23, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 11.b.
12. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take without being asked? a. Restock examination rooms if there is no patient waiting. b. Order new magazine subscriptions for the office waiting room. c. Rearrange the furniture in the waiting room. d. Remove and shred files of patients who have not been seen within the past 3
years. ANS: A
REF: p. 24, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.d.
13. Which of the following behaviors demonstrates that a medical assistant fails to work well with others? a. Accepting criticism and trying to improve performance b. Working within the established chain of command c. Helping another staff member when work is busy d. Complaining about staff members who do not pull their weight ANS: D
REF: p. 24, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 11.b.
14. What is a key concept of the Hippocratic oath? a. Keep good records. b. Collect a fee from every patient. c. Do no harm. d. Refer patients to another physician as needed. ANS: C
REF: p. 25, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency:
15. Which of the following is an important element of professionalism for medical assistants and physicians? a. Prioritizing care for patients who have important jobs b. Always protecting other health professionals from criticism or censure, no matter c. d.
how they behave Accepting only a few patients with Medicaid insurance Obtaining continuing education to stay current in the profession
ANS: D
REF: p. 25, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 11.b.
16. Which of the following agencies accredits medical assisting education programs? a. OSHA b. CAAHEP c. AMA d. ASCP ANS: B
REF: pp. 19-20, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.c.
17. What credential is obtained if a medical assistant passes the certification examination in medical assisting given by the American
Medical Technologists (AMT)? CMA (AAMA) RMA EMT CPR
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
REF: p. 20, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.c.
18. Which areas of specialization offer certification in addition to a general certification in medical assisting? a. Podiatric medical assistant b. Medical administrative specialist c. Certified coding specialist—physician-based d. Ophthalmic medical assistant e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 21, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.b.
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19. How often must a CMA (AAMA) (certified medical assistant) recertify to continue to use the credential? a. Every year b. Every 3 years c. Every 5 years d. Every 7 years ANS: C
REF: p. 26, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.c.
20. How many contact hours must an RMA (registered medical assistant) obtain in order to recertify? a. 30 contact hours b. 20 contact hours c. 10 contact hours d. 5 contact hours ANS: A
REF: p. 26, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.c.
21. How can a medical assistant find approved educational programs to meet his or her continuing education needs? a. Any college course qualifies as continuing education. b. Professional organizations offer approved continuing education programs at their c. d.
meetings. Through medical journals published for physicians. None are correct.
ANS: B
REF: p. 26, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 11.b.
22. Which of the following is a service typically provided for members by professional organizations? a. Passing legislation that improves conditions for the profession b. Providing employment c. Providing continuing education opportunities d. Providing malpractice and liability insurance ANS: C
REF: p. 26, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.b.
23. What type of records may medical assistants maintain and/or file? a. Paper medical records b. Insurance records c. Dictated progress notes d. Paper laboratory results e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 27, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.6; ABHES Competency: 1.d.
24. Which activity is performed by the medical assistant so that the medical office can be paid for services to patients? a. Filing medical records b. Assisting the physician with procedures c. Coding procedures and diagnostic tests d. Setting fees for each service performed in the medical office ANS: C
REF: p. 27, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 1.d.
25. Which of the following activities might the medical assistant perform in the medical office? a. Paying bills such as rent, insurance, electricity, etc. b. Writing prescriptions for medications patients should take c. Deciding when a patient needs X-rays d. Hiring and supervising all staff in the medical office ANS: A
REF: p. 27, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 1.d.
26. Which of the following would be included in risk management? a. Documenting all patient payments b. Ordering both administrative and clinical supplies c. Maintaining proper infection control measures d. Keeping accurate personnel records ANS: C
REF: p. 28, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.i.; ABHES Competency: 4.e.
27. Which of the following is most likely to be a responsibility of the medical assistant in a medical office? a. Instructing patients about the meaning of systolic and diastolic blood pressure b. Coaching patients to maintain health through proper diet and exercise c. Creating a brochure to instruct a patient about the cause and treatment of his or d.
her disease Telling a patient exactly how hazardous waste is discarded and removed from the medical office
ANS: B REF: p. 28, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.6.a.; ABHES Competency: 1.d. 28. What type of responsibility is it when the medical assistant helps the physician during a physical examination? a. Clinical b. Administrative c. Management d. Educational ANS: A
REF: p. 27, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.d.
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29. According to the chapter, which of the following is an example of an administrative responsibility of the medical assistant? a. Preparing patients for examination b. Providing information to a patient about obtaining services from visiting nurses c. Processing laboratory specimens d. Scheduling office appointments and consultations ANS: D
REF: p. 27, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.3; ABHES Competency: 1.d.
30. In what type of settings are the majority of medical assistants employed? a. Medical laboratories b. Nursing care facilities c. Physician offices d. Government agencies ANS: C
REF: p. 29, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.d.
31. What is the primary role of a patient navigator? a. Assisting a patient to walk from one part of a facility to another b. Telling a patient where the medical office is located and where to park c. Coaching patients to make changes in lifestyle to meet their health needs d. Removing obstacles patients face in accessing and receiving treatment ANS: D
REF: p. 29, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.13; ABHES Competency: 5.c.
32. What is the most direct route for career advancement for a medical assistant? a. Medical assisting instructor b. Office or practice manager c. Registered nurse d. Respiratory therapy ANS: B
REF: p. 29, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.b.
33. Which of the following is a typical medical assisting clinical responsibility and within the scope of practice of a medical assistant? a. Applying hot or cold packs or compresses b. Suturing a wound c. Starting and maintaining an IV d. Prescribing common medications ANS: A
REF: p. 28, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.1; ABHES Competency: 4.f.1.
TRUE/FALSE 1. Initiative is the ability to begin or carry through on a plan of action independently. ANS: T
REF: p. 23, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 11.b.
2. Attending an accredited medical assisting program guarantees employment. ANS: F
REF: p. 20, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 11.a.
3. Neatness and grooming are important not only for professionalism, but also for reasons of health and safety. ANS: T
REF: p. 23, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 11.b.
4. Maintaining confidentiality is part of a medical assistant’s legal and ethical responsibilities. ANS: T REF: p. 25, CAAHEP Competency (2015): XI.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 4.g. 5. Wearing multiple rings while working with patients is usually fine as long as proper hand washing procedures are followed. ANS: F
REF: p. 23, CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.C.4; ABHES Competency: 9.a.
6. Once a national certification is obtained, no further education is ever required. ANS: F
REF: p. 26, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.c.
7. Risk management refers to sterilization procedures in the medical setting. ANS: F
REF: p. 28, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.i.; ABHES Competency: 4.e.
8. The two most prominent professional medical assisting organizations are the AAMA and the AMA. ANS: F
REF: p. 25, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.b.
9. Medical assistants may gain additional training and certify in medical specialties such as ophthalmology or podiatry. ANS: T
REF: p. 21, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.c.
10. With the increasing use of electronic medical systems, one of the medical assistant’s administrative responsibilities may be
scanning laboratory reports and other paper records into the computer. ANS: T
REF: p. 27, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 1.d.
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11. It is often the medical assistant’s responsibility to educate patients about office procedures and policies. ANS: T
REF: p. 28, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 1.d.
12. A medical assistant should always determine the legal scope of practice for a medical assistant in the state in which he or she
intends to work, because state laws can vary widely. ANS: T
REF: p. 22, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.1; ABHES Competency: 4.f.1.
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Chapter 03: Ethics and Law for the Medical Office Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is one important reason for a medical assistant to study ethics? a. To learn how to justify his or her actions—good or bad b. To be able to criticize others effectively c. To feel good about himself or herself d. To develop the intellectual skills to analyze complex problems ANS: D REF: p. 34, CAAHEP Competency (2015): XI.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 4.g. 2. What is the name an individual’s own beliefs about right and wrong in our society? a. Ethics b. Morals c. Etiquette d. Laws ANS: B REF: p. 34, CAAHEP Competency (2015): XI.C.1.b.; ABHES Competency: 4.g. 3. Current thinking about biomedical ethics identifies several rights. What is a right? a. A wish b. A need c. A requirement d. A strong claim ANS: D
REF: p. 34, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 4.g.
4. Early leaders of the American government believed in natural rights and the duty of any government to preserve them. Which of
the following is NOT one of the rights? Right to life Right to privacy Right to autonomy Right to a share of society’s resources
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
REF: p. 34, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 4.g.
5. What is another name for the duty to meet reasonable expectations of patients? a. Fidelity b. Beneficence c. Non malfeasance d. To do no harm ANS: A
REF: p. 36, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 4.g.
6. What is the name for a patient’s right to make decisions about health care according to individual values and concerns? a. Privacy b. Autonomy c. Requirements d. Confidentiality ANS: B
REF: p. 35, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 4.g.
7. What right is the basis for informed consent? a. Right to life b. Right to privacy c. Right to autonomy d. Right to the means to sustain life ANS: C REF: p. 35, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.13.a.; ABHES Competency: 4.g. 8. What is the name for the concept that a health professional should do the best possible? a. Misfeasance b. Nonfeasance c. Malfeasance d. Beneficence ANS: D
REF: p. 36, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 4.g.
9. In today’s health care environment, it is seen as a proactive duty that physicians and other health care professionals must provide
truthful information without having to be asked. This expectation of truthfulness by all health care workers is called: beneficence. fidelity. veracity. non malfeasance.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
REF: p. 36, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 4.g.
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10. Informed consent is consent based on: a. guarantees regarding outcomes. b. understanding of a medical procedure and its possible outcomes. c. promises that all possible procedures will be performed. d. protection from all liability. ANS: B REF: p. 35, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.13.a.; ABHES Competency: 4.e. 11. What type of consent occurs if a patient offers an arm when the medical assistant says it is time to obtain a blood sample? a. Expressed consent b. Informed consent c. Implied consent d. Indirect consent ANS: C REF: p. 44, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.13.b.; ABHES Competency: 4.e. 12. The experimental treatments that attempt to treat or cure disease by giving patients new genes or parts of genes that have been
synthesized in the laboratory, taken from human tissue, or engineered from genetic material of animals or other species is called: a. cloning. b. gene therapy. c. genetic engineering. d. stem cell research. ANS: C
REF: p. 37, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 4.g.
13. What is the minimum required for expressed consent? a. Consenting body language b. Verbal agreement c. A written document that is signed d. A signed document that has also been witnessed ANS: B REF: p. 44, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.13.c.; ABHES Competency: 4.e. 14. Which 1990 law recognizes the rights of adults to refuse treatment for disease? a. Patient’s Right to Refuse Treatment Act b. Patient’s Bill of Rights c. Patient Self-Determination Act d. Patient’s Right to Euthanasia Act ANS: C REF: p. 37, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.h.; ABHES Competency: 4.f. 15. In how many states is physician-assisted suicide legal? a. One b. Two c. Three or more d. This practice is illegal in all states ANS: C
REF: p. 37, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 4.f.
16. What is the purpose of an advance directive? a. States an individual’s wishes regarding health care if the individual is not able to b. c. d. e.
speak for him or herself. Names an individual to make decisions for an individual if he or she becomes incapable of doing this. Expresses an individual’s wish to donate organs when he or she dies. States an individual’s wish not to be resuscitated if his or her heart stops beating. All are correct.
ANS: E REF: p. 38, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.f.; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 17. What principle applies if a patient confides information about their health to a medical assistant and then asks the medical assistant
not to tell the physician? a. The medical assistant cannot ethically withhold medical information from the physician. b. The medical assistant’s first loyalty is to the patient. c. Patient confidentiality prevents the medical assistant from telling the physician. d. When personal and professional ethics clash, personal ethics take precedence. ANS: A
REF: p. 39, CAAHEP Competency (2015): XI.C.2; ABHES Competency: 4.g.
18. What is the branch of law that deals with offenses against the public welfare that affect all people? a. Common law b. Criminal law c. Civil law d. Statutory law ANS: B
REF: p. 40, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.6; ABHES Competency: 4.b.
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19. What type of law refers to law arising from the actions of federal government agencies such as the Social Security Administration
and the Internal Revenue Service? Administrative law International law Common law Criminal law
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
REF: p. 40, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency:
20. Cities and towns enact laws that have to do with the general welfare of its citizens. What are these laws called? a. Common laws b. Bills c. Acts d. Ordinances ANS: D
REF: p. 40, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency:
21. What is the name for a serious crime punishable by death or imprisonment? a. Tort b. Breach of contract c. Felony d. Misdemeanor ANS: C
REF: p. 40, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.6; ABHES Competency: 4.b.
22. What is the name for the crime of billing an insurance company for tests and procedures that were never performed? a. Grand larceny b. Embezzlement c. Abuse d. Fraud ANS: D
REF: p. 40, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.5; ABHES Competency:4.f.
23. What is the legal nature of the doctor-patient relationship? a. A contract b. A partnership c. A professional association d. None are correct ANS: A
REF: p. 44, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency:
24. Which of the following patients would be able to give informed consent for treatment? a. A 17-year-old boy b. A 73-year-old woman with a serious mental condition c. A 23-year-old man with Down syndrome d. A 35-year-old woman with a hip fracture e. All are correct ANS: D REF: p. 41, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.13.a.; ABHES Competency: 4.f. 25. How should a physician terminate a relationship with a patient in order to avoid a possible lawsuit for abandonment? a. Obtain the patient’s written consent. b. Call the patient on the phone and inform him or her. c. Notify the patient in writing. d. The physician cannot terminate the physician-patient relationship. ANS: C
REF: p. 42, CAAHEP Competency (2015):X.C.6; ABHES Competency: 4.c.
26. What is the legal meaning of the word “liability”? a. Malfeasance b. Responsibility c. Negligence d. Prudence ANS: B
REF: p. 40, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 4.d.
27. A physician has discontinued care of a patient without properly notifying the patient. This is called: a. malpractice. b. abandonment. c. illegal termination. d. negligence. ANS: B REF: p. 42, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.a.; ABHES Competency: 4.c. 28. In determining whether or not a cardiologist provided his patient with reasonable care, with whom would a physician be compared? a. General practitioners b. Other cardiologists in his community or similar communities c. Cardiologists throughout the world d. No one; the doctor’s actions would have to stand on their own merit ANS: B
REF: p. 42, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.2; ABHES Competency: 4.e.
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29. Which of the following is NOT included in the Patient Bill of Rights? a. Right to refuse treatment b. Right to continuity of care c. Right to compensation in cases of malpractice d. Right to select a physician ANS: C
REF: p. 43, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.4; ABHES Competency: 4.f.
30. The term that refers to “the level of appropriate care legally required of any other practitioner with the same education and training
providing the same care in the same geographic region” is: standard of care. scope of practice. professional care. contingent care.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
REF: p. 44, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.1; ABHES Competency: 4.f.
31. Which of the following is the best description of informed consent? a. The patient signs a “Permission to Operate” form. b. The patient is told in great technical detail about the treatment or operation. c. The patient is told by the physician about any risks, hazards, or possible
d.
complications associated with the treatment in terms that the patient fully understands before submitting to treatment. The patient dictates his or her consent to the medical assistant, who copies the agreement onto the medical chart, and then the patient signs it.
ANS: C REF: p. 44, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.13.a.; ABHES Competency: 4.e. 32. Which of the following is/are recommended as a means for a patient to prepare for possible injury or illness resulting in the
inability to make health care decisions? Health care proxy Living will Medical durable power of attorney All are correct
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D REF: p. 38, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.f.g.; ABHES Competency: 4.f. 33. What reports are encouraged as a result of the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act? a. Adverse events b. Near misses c. Unsafe conditions d. Events that threaten patient safety e. All are correct ANS: E REF: p. 49, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.11.a.b.; ABHES Competency: 4.f. 34. What is malpractice insurance also called? a. Litigation insurance b. Professional negligence insurance c. Professional liability insurance d. Arbitration insurance ANS: C REF: p. 45, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.8.b.; ABHES Competency: 4.d. 35. What does the doctrine of respondeat superior mean? a. The physician is liable for the negligent actions of his or her employees. b. “The thing speaks for itself” and negligence must have occurred. c. If a patient is injured during surgery, it will be assumed that the physician is d.
negligent. The patient can only sue the health professional who is negligent, not the medical office.
ANS: A REF: p. 45, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.13.h.; ABHES Competency: 4.f. 36. What type of laws protects health professionals who provide emergency care at the scene of an accident? a. Nondiscrimination laws b. Good Samaritan laws c. Genetic information laws d. Confidentiality laws ANS: B REF: p. 45, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.13.n.; ABHES Competency: 4.f.
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37. If both sides are willing, some disagreements can be settled out of court with the help of a facilitator. What is this process called? a. Facilitation b. Mediation c. Arbitration d. Out-of-court settlement ANS: B REF: p. 46, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.13.m.; ABHES Competency: 4.f. 38. A 30-year-old patient felt discomfort in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen for 6 months after having surgery. On a
subsequent X-ray examination, it was discovered that the surgeon had left a sponge in the patient during a previous surgery. When does the statute of limitations begin? a. On the day of the surgery b. On the day the patient first felt discomfort c. On the day that the patient was given the X-ray results d. On the day the patient became 18 years old ANS: C REF: p. 46, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.c.; ABHES Competency: 4.f. 39. A 16-year-old patient has large visible scars on her neck from an ear operation performed when she was 12 years old. The patient’s
parents did nothing to recover damages for the child. What can be done to compensate this child for the unusual scars? The parents must have begun a lawsuit within 3 years of the surgery. It is too late to do anything for compensation. The parents must sue before the child is 18 years old. The patient can institute a lawsuit when she is 18 years old.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D REF: p. 46, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.c.; ABHES Competency: 4.f. 40. A drug that has a potential for addiction and/or abuse is called: a. a Schedule V drug. b. a prescription. c. a controlled substance. d. a medication. ANS: C
REF: p. 46, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.6; ABHES Competency: 4.f.
41. How many employees must a business have for them to be protected by Equal Opportunity Employment laws? a. 5 people b. 10 people c. 15 people d. 25 people ANS: C
REF: p. 47, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 4.b.
42. To what agency should employees complain if they feel that they have been discriminated against in their hiring, firing, or
employment? a. Equal Opportunity Employment Agency b. Civil Rights Act of 1964 c. Federal Discrimination Act d. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission ANS: A
REF: p. 47, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 4.b.
43. What is a court summons ordering a recipient to appear before a court and produce documents (such as a paper medical record or a
certified copy of an electronic medical record? Locum tenens Res ipsa loquitur Incident report Subpoena duces tecum
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D REF: p. 45, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.13.g.; ABHES Competency: 4.f. 44. What is the name for a minor who is allowed to choose or reject health care treatment without parental consent? a. Mature minor b. Consenting minor c. Unregulated minor d. Minor with early majority ANS: A REF: p. 41, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.13.f.; ABHES Competency: 4.f. 45. Which federal law regulates minimum wages? a. Department of Labor b. Fair Labor Standards Act c. Minimum Wage Law d. There is no federal law for this because states regulate minimum wage ANS: B
REF: p. 48, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency:
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46. Who is not allowed to sign a consent form? a. An unemployed individual b. An individual who has been declared incompetent by a physician or court c. An individual between 18 and 20 year old d. An individual who cannot write ANS: B REF: p. 41, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.13.d.; ABHES Competency: 4.f. 47. Which of the following federal acts includes incentives to encourage adoption of electronic medical records by physicians and
health care facilities? HIPAA HITECH EMR OSHA
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B REF: p. 49, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.10.a.; ABHES Competency: 4.f. 48. What are reasons to revoke or suspend a physician’s license? a. Conviction of a crime b. Unprofessional activity c. Physical or mental incapacitation d. Senility e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 50, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.5; ABHES Competency: 4.f.
49. To whom would physicians report cases of specific infectious diseases? a. Local police department b. Local board of health c. The hospital where they have privileges d. The state medical examiner or coroner ANS: B REF: p. 50, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.12.a.; ABHES Competency: 4.f. 50. Which of the following is NOT regulated by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)? a. Rules for reporting suspicious deaths or injuries b. Disclosure of health information c. Electronic transmission of health information d. Creation of National Provider Identification (NPI) number for health care
providers ANS: A REF: pp. 48-49, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.3; ABHES Competency: 4.f. TRUE/FALSE 1. Ethics refers to the choice between alternative courses of action that have moral and social consequences. ANS: T REF: p. 34, CAAHEP Competency (2015): XI.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 4.g. 2. The basis for the ethical conflict with regard to stem cell research is that too many patients could potentially be harmed with their
use. ANS: F
REF: p. 37, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 4.g.
3. A living will may instruct health care providers not to engage in life-sustaining measures. ANS: T
REF: p. 38, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.c.7.f.; ABHES Competency: 4.f.
4. Acting according to professional ethics means that the medical assistant must allow a patient to refuse treatment, even if the
medical assistant believes the patient should accept the treatment. ANS: T
REF: p. 42, CAAHEP Competency (2015): XI.C.2; ABHES Competency: 4.g.
5. Criminal law is the set of laws that deals with disputes between individuals and/or groups of people. ANS: F
REF: p. 40, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.6; ABHES Competency: 4.b.
6. A physician on a temporary assignment is called a locum tenens. ANS: T
REF: p. 42, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.13.j.; ABHES Competency:
7. Individuals under the age of 18 who have legally obtained adult rights, including the right to consent for medical treatment, are
called emancipated minors. ANS: T REF: p. 41, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.13.e.; ABHES Competency: 4.f.
6
8. In order to be legal, a contract must be written, signed, and notarized. ANS: F
REF: p. 41, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency:
9. Physicians have the right to terminate patient care based on personal subjective judgment as long as alternate provisions for care
are made. ANS: F
REF: p. 42, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 4.g.
10. A patient who does not follow medical advice becomes responsible for any problems that occur as a result of his or her decision. ANS: T
REF: p. 46, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.4; ABHES Competency: 4.e.
MATCHING
Match the terms with the most accurate definitions from the choices provided; all answers will be used. a. Protects health care workers from lawsuits in emergency situations b. Makes it easier for individuals to establish that they have disabilities c. Prohibits use of genetic information for hiring, firing, or job promotion decisions d. Allows employees to take unpaid leave for health needs of family members e. Requires health facilities to provide information about advance directives to patients f. Provides incentives to adopt electronic medical records g. Regulates the minimum wage and overtime pay h. Protects employees from injury in the workplace i. Regulates privacy of information and sets standards for filing electronic insurance claims j. Regulates organ donation 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Federal Fair Labor Standards Act Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) Good Samaritan Act Americans with Disabilities Act Amendments Act Occupational Health and Safety Act Family and Medical Leave Act Uniform Anatomical Gift Act Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act (HITECH) Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA)
1. ANS: G REF: p. 48, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 4.f. 2. ANS: C REF: p. 48, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.10.b.; ABHES Competency: 4.f. 3. ANS: I REF: p. 48, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.3; ABHES Competency: 4.f. 4. ANS: A REF: p. 45, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.d; X.C.13.n.; ABHES Competency: 4.f. 5. ANS: B REF: pp. 47-48, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.10.c.; ABHES Competency: 4.f. 6. ANS: H REF: p. 48, CAAHEP Competency (2008); CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 4.f. 7. ANS: D REF: p. 48, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 4.f. 8. ANS: J REF: p. 38, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.e.; ABHES Competency: 4.f. 9. ANS: F REF: p. 49, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.10.a.; ABHES Competency: 4.f. 10. ANS: E REF: p. 38, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.h.; ABHES Competency: 4.f.
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Chapter 04: Interacting With Patients Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. How can the medical assistant be a good communicator? a. Make explanations using technical terms. b. Speak in a hurried manner. c. Be effective in sending and receiving messages. d. Set up barriers to effective communication. ANS: C
REF: p. 57, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
2. What are the uses of arm gestures, facial expressions, and turning one’s head all examples of? a. Verbal communication b. Impatience c. Defamation d. Body language ANS: D
REF: p. 57, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
3. Which aspect of our communication is most likely to convey our true feelings and beliefs? a. Nonverbal communication b. Verbal communication c. Increased use of slang d. Spoken words only ANS: A
REF: p. 57, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
4. What are tone of voice, voice pitch, voice volume, and voice quality examples of? a. Verbal communication b. Psychology c. Secondary nonverbal communication d. Body language ANS: C
REF: p. 57, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
5. The type of listening when the medical assistant remains “in the moment” and focuses fully on the patient’s message is called: a. open listening. b. closed listening. c. active listening. d. verbal listening. ANS: C
REF: p. 59, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
6. What is an internal factor that can interfere with communication? a. Pain b. Noise c. Lack of privacy d. Distracting environment ANS: A REF: pp. 57-58, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.3; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 7. Which of the following is an important part of active listening for a medical assistant? a. Planning what to say next while the patient is talking b. Watching the clock to be sure that the conversation remains short c. Focusing all attention on the patient d. Nodding several times while the patient is speaking ANS: C
REF: p. 59, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
8. How can the medical assistant act assertively while still being respectful of others? a. Avoid eye contact when complaining about others. b. Remain calm and positive while stating opinions. c. Interrupt patients and coworkers to avoid expression of negative feelings. d. Use subtle ways to belittle others and ignore them when they have different
views. ANS: B
REF: p. 59, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.14; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
9. Which of the following is true with regard to eye contact? a. Maintaining eye contact is a sign of interest and involvement in many Asian b. c. d.
cultures. Eye contact should be maintained at all times and with all patients when taking a patient history. Eye contact is always a sign of respect. If the patient looks away, and the medical assistant continues to seek eye contact, this can be perceived as aggression.
ANS: D
REF: p. 59, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
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10. In the United States, the typical personal distance or comfort zone for conversation with others is: a. 3 to 4 feet. b. 1 to 2 feet. c. 6 to 7 feet. d. while touching. ANS: A
REF: p. 60, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
11. When interviewing the patient, when should the medical assistant use closed questions? a. When expecting a long explanation from the patient b. When looking for general information c. When hoping that the patient will open up and talk d. When looking for a one-word or short answer ANS: D
REF: p. 60, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
12. Which of the following is an example of a closed question? a. “What is the reason for your visit today?” b. “Are you an only child?” c. “Can you describe your pain for me?” d. “What are your plans for the future?” ANS: B
REF: p. 60, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
13. During the interview, the medical assistant questions the patient as follows: “Describe your pain for me. What has been going on
with you since you were last here? How has your appetite been? How have you been sleeping?” What are these examples of? Closed questions Being nosy Being judgmental Open questions
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
REF: p. 60, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
14. How is the patient likely to react if the medical assistant asks, “Why aren’t you following your diet?” a. Become defensive. b. Answer honestly. c. Smile but not answer. d. Say, “I’m glad you asked me that question.” ANS: A
REF: p. 60, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.3; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
15. Which of the following is NOT a barrier to communication in the medical office? a. Limited English b. Hearing impairment c. Limited understanding of medical information d. Open-ended questions ANS: D
REF: p. 62, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.3; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
16. If a medical assistant often complains to one person about another, what style of communication is being used? a. Assertive b. Aggressive c. Passive d. Active ANS: C REF: p. 59, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.14.c.; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 17. What measure may improve communication if the patient has an impaired level of understanding? a. Speaking slowly b. Repeating information in a different way c. Using gestures and demonstrations d. Maintaining good eye contact e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 62, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
18. How should the medical assistant help a sight-impaired patient? a. Automatically take the patient’s arm to guide him or her. b. Describe the environment clearly in words. c. Do nothing—the patient knows what he or she is doing. d. Have the receptionist deal with the patient. ANS: B
REF: p. 63, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.6.e; ABHES Competency: 5.g.
19. The medical assistant says, “You feel tired” in response to a patient’s statement about lack of sleep and lack of energy. What part of
the sender receiver process is this? a. Message b. Feedback c. Sender d. Receiver ANS: B
REF: p. 57, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.5; ABHES Competency: 2.c.
2
20. If a patient is not comfortable with English, what should the medical assistant avoid? a. Speaking directly to the patient instead of the translator b. Speaking slowly and using simple terms when speaking to the patient c. Arranging for telephone or video translation services d. Using the patient’s child as a translator ANS: D
REF: p. 63, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 5.e.
21. You were trying to educate Mr. Wilson about an upcoming procedure and post-surgical care. Unfortunately, because he skipped
lunch that day and his blood sugar was low, he was not able to learn the information that would help to decrease his anxiety about the procedure. Which of the following is Mr. Wilson is demonstrating? a. Impaired hearing b. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs c. Poor listening skills d. Self-actualization ANS: B REF: p. 64, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.17.a.; ABHES Competency: 5.a. 22. On the fourth level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs are the needs for esteem and recognition. What do these include? a. Self-esteem b. Respect of others in one’s peer group c. Success in work d. Prestige in the community e. All are correct ANS: E REF: p. 64, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.17.a.; ABHES Competency: 5.a. 23. How could the medical assistant show empathy for a patient? a. Express sympathy for the patient’s problems. b. Tell the patient about his or her own problems. c. Acknowledge the patient’s feelings. d. Make no comment in order to avoid embarrassing the patient. ANS: C REF: p. 66, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.A.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 24. If a patient asks for a medical assistant’s personal telephone number, and the medical assistant answers calmly that she does not
give her telephone number to patients, what is the medical assistant demonstrating? Lack of interest in the patient Assertive maintenance of self-boundaries Hostility toward the patient Empathy with the patient
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B REF: p. 67, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.11; ABHES Competency: 11.b. 25. Which of the following is NOT a common reaction to a terminal illness? a. Anger b. Anxiety c. Relief d. Guilt ANS: C
REF: p. 70, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.15; ABHES Competency: 5.b.
26. Why is it helpful to offer choices when a patient must cope with a serious or terminal illness? a. It helps the patient feel calm. b. It helps the patient gain some sense of control. c. It helps relieve the patient’s feelings of guilt. d. It helps relieve the patient’s anxiety. ANS: B
REF: p. 67, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.15; ABHES Competency: 5.b.
27. What is the term that best defines “a psychological response to a perceived threat,” and is one of the most common responses to
illness? Hypochondria Depression Acting out Anxiety
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
REF: p. 67, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.15; ABHES Competency: 5.a.
28. What function do ego defense mechanisms serve? a. They allow a patient to adopt inappropriate behaviors. b. They help a patient to face unpleasant situations head-on. c. They justify blaming others for the person’s situation. d. They protect against being overwhelmed by painful feelings. ANS: D
REF: p. 68, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.15; ABHES Competency: 5.a.
3
29. Which of the following is NOT true with regard to anxiety and anxiety attacks? a. They should be dealt with it as a medical issue first. b. Severe episodes are often called panic attacks. c. The patient should be instructed to breathe into a brown paper bag. d. Anxious patients often do not remember what they are told. ANS: C
REF: p. 68, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.15; ABHES Competency: 5.a.
30. If a patient facing a serious or terminal illness appears to be using denial, how should the medical assistant respond? a. Agree with the patient that the illness is minor. b. Tell the patient that he or she does not appear to be facing reality. c. Accept the denial without reinforcing it. d. Reassure that patient that everything will probably turn out well. ANS: C
REF: p. 70, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.15; ABHES Competency: 5.b.
31. A foreign-born patient discloses that he is using herbs sent from a relative and rubbing the leaves on his skin for healing. The most
appropriate response of the medical assistant would be to: joke privately with office colleagues about the behavior, but say nothing to the patient. b. tell the patient that it won’t help his condition. c. explain why Western medicine is superior to traditional practices. d. if using the herb is not causing harm, respect and accept the patient’s practices. a.
ANS: D REF: p. 71, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.18.a.b.c.; ABHES Competency: 5.e. 32. When the medical assistant does not understand what the patient has said, which of the following would be appropriate to clarify
the communication? “Talk slower—I can’t understand you.” “Run that by me again.” “I’m sorry, I did not understand what you just said. Would you please repeat it?” “You are confusing me.”
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
REF: p. 61, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
33. What is the one of the best ways to clarify what the patient is trying to say? a. Be silent and wait for further explanation. b. Ask the patient specific closed questions. c. Make your best guess regarding the interpretation of what the patient has said. d. Paraphrase—put the patient’s meaning into your own words and give the patient
the opportunity to confirm that your statement is correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 61, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
34. What is the primary reason that the medical assistant should regularly solicit feedback when communicating with patients? a. To identify if they are hearing-impaired b. To evaluate their level of cooperations c. To be sure that they understand what has been said d. To determine if they are mentally disabled ANS: C
REF: p. 57, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
35. Why are medical assistants encouraged to avoid aggressive communication? a. The communication does not match the medical assistants underlying feelings. b. It implies that the speaker’s opinions are more important than those of others. c. It is an attempt to keep the peace at all costs. d. It usually leads to unfriendly behavior at a later time. ANS: B REF: p. 59, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.14.b.; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 36. What is the developmental task of a toddler as defined by Erik Erickson? a. Trust vs. Mistrust b. Initiative vs. Guilt c. Industry vs. Inferiority d. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt ANS: D REF: p. 65, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.17.c.; ABHES Competency: 5.d. 37. What sociologist is credited with defining the eight principal stages of growth and development? a. Abraham Maslow b. Elizabeth Kübler-Ross c. Erik Erikson d. Edward Jenner ANS: C REF: p. 65, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.14.b.; ABHES Competency: 5.d.
4
38. Which patients may believe that rubbing the skin with a coin dipped in a camphor preparation is a treatment for colds and
headaches? Caribbean Eastern European Southeast Asian South American
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C REF: p. 71, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.18.a.b.c.; ABHES Competency: 5.g. 39. What is the primary function of a hospice? a. Provides comfort, paint relief, and personal care for terminally ill patients. b. Provides custodial care for individuals who cannot live independently. c. Helps individuals navigate the health care system to obtain appropriate services. d. Provides translation services for individuals who do not speak English. ANS: A
REF: p. 70, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.10; ABHES Competency: 5.b.
40. When is it appropriate for the medical assistant to use silence in an interview with a patient? a. Whenever the medical assistant feels threatened. b. When the medical assistant wants to encourage the patient to respond. c. When the medical assistant does not believe what the patient has just said. d. Silence is not appropriate when interviewing a patient. ANS: B
REF: p. 61, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
TRUE/FALSE 1. Self-boundaries define how close others can get, both physically and mentally. ANS: T
REF: p. 67, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.11; ABHES Competency: 5.g.
2. Changes in facial expression and body position when communicating are examples of nonverbal cues. ANS: T
REF: p. 57, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
3. Translation assistance is required before a patient with a language barrier can give written consent for an invasive procedure or
minor office surgery. ANS: T REF: p. 63, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; V.C.18.a.; ABHES Competency: 5.e.; 8.f. 4. To demonstrate caring to a patient that is sitting in an examining room chair, the medical assistant should remain standing while
talking to the patient. ANS: F
REF: p. 66, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
5. The best response when dealing with an angry patient is to escort them out of the office and reschedule their appointment. ANS: F
REF: p. 68, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.15; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
6. The term terminal phase refers to stages of professional communication. ANS: F
REF: p. 69, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.10; ABHES Competency: 5.b.
7. Denial can be useful in that it can provide a period of time to find a way to deal with illness, death, or disability. ANS: T
REF: p. 70, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.15; ABHES Competency: 5.b.
8. The best response when a patient expresses anxiety about an illness is to reassure them that everything will be fine. ANS: F REF: p. 62, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.14c.; ABHES Competency: 9.f. 9. A patient with inoperable lung cancer says that he will stop smoking so that he can live until his daughter’s graduation. He is most
likely in the depression stage of the grieving process as defined by Elizabeth Kübler-Ross. ANS: F REF: p. 70, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.17.c.; ABHES Competency: 5.b. 10. It is always a good idea to touch patients as much as possible to help convey caring. ANS: F
REF: p. 59, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
5
Chapter 05: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The study of the shape and structure of the human body is known as: a. gross anatomy. b. human anatomy. c. microscopic anatomy. d. human physiology. ANS: B
REF: p. 76, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
2. What is the basic living unit of all organisms? a. Molecule b. Cell c. Organ d. Tissue ANS: B
REF: p. 76, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
3. What is the term for a group of cells with a similar structure and function? a. Tissue b. Organ c. Body system d. Total organism ANS: A
REF: p. 77, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
4. Which of the following is not an example of an organ? a. Stomach b. Heart c. Liver d. Muscle ANS: D
REF: p. 77, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.4.
5. The term for several organs that work together to accomplish a set of functions is: a. tissue. b. body system. c. cavity. d. total organism. ANS: B
REF: p. 77, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
6. Which of the following is a characteristic of the integumentary system? a. Protects underlying tissue from injury. b. Protects against water loss. c. Contains sense receptors. d. Helps in temperature regulation. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: pp. 77-78, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
7. Which of the following body systems produces movement and maintains posture? a. Nervous b. Circulatory c. Muscular d. Digestive ANS: C
REF: p. 80, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
8. Which of the following systems allows the body parts to communicate with each other and to communicate with the outside
environment? Integumentary Nervous Endocrine Respiratory
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
REF: p. 80, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.2.
9. Which of the following systems brings oxygen into the lungs and removes carbon dioxide from the lungs? a. Respiratory b. Cardiovascular c. Digestive d. Muscular ANS: A
REF: p. 80, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.2.
1
10. All of the following conditions are present with homeostasis except: a. the body is in a normal stable condition. b. the internal environment of the body remains the same. c. illness is present. d. laboratory test values fall within normal range. ANS: C
REF: pp. 80-81, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
11. What is the directional term used to describe a part that is above another part? a. Superior b. Inferior c. Anterior d. Lateral ANS: A
REF: p. 81, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.3.b.
12. Which of the following structures is anterior to the heart? a. Vertebral column b. Ribs c. Stomach d. Urinary bladder ANS: B
REF: p. 82, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.3.b.
13. Which of the following is a proper use of directional body terminology? a. The lungs are posterior to the vertebral column. b. The foot is proximal to the knee. c. The foot is distal to the knee. d. The skull is inferior to the ribs. e. All are correct. ANS: C
REF: p. 82, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.3.b.
14. What is the term used to describe a part that is located on or near the surface of the body? a. Topical b. Superficial c. Deep d. Anterior ANS: B
REF: p. 82, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.3.b.
15. Visceral refers to which of the following? a. The wall of a body cavity b. Glands c. Nervous tissue d. Internal organs ANS: D
REF: p. 82, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.
16. Which of the following divides the body into right and left portions? a. Frontal plane b. Sagittal plane c. Vertical plane d. Transverse plane ANS: B
REF: p. 82, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.3.a.
17. The cranial cavity and spinal cavity make up the: a. abdominal cavity. b. thoracic cavity. c. ventral cavity. d. dorsal cavity. ANS: D
REF: p. 82, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.3.b.
18. Which of the following structures is NOT located in the thoracic cavity? a. Heart b. Esophagus c. Stomach d. Trachea ANS: C
REF: p. 82, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.3.b.
19. Which of the following structures is located in the pelvic cavity? a. Internal reproductive organs b. Intestines c. Rectum d. Urinary bladder e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 83, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.3.b.
2
20. The head, neck, and trunk make up the: a. torso. b. appendicular region. c. axial region. d. pelvic cavity. ANS: C
REF: p. 83, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.3.b.
21. Which of the following determines what can enter or leave a cell? a. Plasma membrane b. Nuclear membrane c. Chromosomes d. Nucleolus ANS: A
REF: p. 83, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
22. What is the name of the gel-like fluid inside of a cell? a. Organelles b. Extracellular fluid c. Cytoplasm d. Mucus ANS: C
REF: p. 86, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
23. What is the name of the control center that directs the activities of the cell? a. Nucleolus b. Nucleus c. Chromosomes d. RNA ANS: B
REF: p. 88, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
24. Which of the following structures converts energy from nutrients into ATP that then provides energy for use by the body cells? a. Golgi apparatus b. ATP c. Ribosomes d. Mitochondria ANS: D
REF: p. 87, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
25. Which of the following structures functions in protein synthesis? a. Ribosomes b. Chromosomes c. RNA d. Cristae ANS: A
REF: p. 87, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
26. Which of the following provides a pathway to transport materials from one part of the cell to another? a. Nucleolus b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. Golgi apparatus d. Plasma membrane ANS: B
REF: p. 87, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
27. Which of the following contains enzymes that function to destroy cellular debris and foreign particles? a. Mucus b. Lysosomes c. Phagocytes d. Vesicles ANS: B
REF: p. 87, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
28. What is the name given to the hairlike processes that function in moving substances across the surface of a cell? a. Cilia b. Cytoskeleton c. Microvilli d. Mucus ANS: A
REF: p. 88, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
29. Which of the following allows sperm to have a swimming motion? a. Cristae b. Cilia c. Mucus d. Flagella e. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 88, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
3
30. The movement of substances from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration is known as: a. active transport. b. osmosis. c. diffusion. d. negative feedback. ANS: C
REF: p. 88, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
31. What happens when a red blood cell is placed in a hypertonic solution? a. It hemolyzes. b. It shrinks. c. It is unchanged. d. It enlarges. ANS: B
REF: p. 90, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
32. Amino acids and glucose are transported from the small intestine and into the blood through: a. active transport. b. osmosis. c. simple diffusion. d. filtration. ANS: A
REF: p. 90, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
33. Which of the following occurs during phagocytosis? a. A cell membrane engulfs a particle. b. A vesicle containing the particle is formed in the cytoplasm. c. Lysosomes digest the particle. d. All are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 91, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
34. The process by which secretory products are packaged into vesicles and then released from the cells is known as: a. cytokinesis. b. exocytosis. c. endocytosis. d. phagocytosis. ANS: B
REF: p. 91, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
35. Which of the following is an example of exocytosis? a. Secretion of digestive enzymes b. Production of sperm c. Production of blood cells d. Excretion of urine ANS: A
REF: p. 91, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
36. How many pairs of chromosomes are present in a human cell? a. 2 b. 8 c. 23 d. 46 ANS: C
REF: p. 91, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
37. The type of cell division in which the number of chromosomes is halved in order to produce an egg and sperm is known as: a. meiosis. b. mitosis. c. cytokinesis. d. spermatogenesis. ANS: A
REF: p. 91, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
38. The microscopic study of tissues is known as: a. microbiology. b. cytology. c. embryology. d. histology. ANS: D
REF: p. 93, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
39. What is the term for the nonliving material that fills the space between cells? a. Plasma b. Intercellular matrix c. Extracellular matrix d. Membranes ANS: B
REF: p. 93, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
4
40. Which of the following is a function of epithelial tissue? a. Protection b. Secretion c. Absorption d. Diffusion e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 93, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
41. Which of the following is made up of simple squamous epithelial tissue? a. Capillary walls b. Glands c. Skin d. Stomach e. All are correct ANS: A
REF: p. 94, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
42. In which of the following body areas is simple cuboidal epithelium NOT located? a. Ovary b. Kidney tubules c. Salivary glands d. Alveoli ANS: D
REF: p. 94, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
43. Which of the following structures increases the surface area available for the absorption of nutrients into the body? a. Cilia b. Microvilli c. Flagella d. Spindle fibers e. All are correct ANS: B
REF: p. 94, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
44. Which of the following cells secrete mucus? a. Goblet cells b. Phagocytes c. Fibroblasts d. Mast cells ANS: A
REF: p. 94, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
45. What type of epithelial tissue often contains cilia and goblet cells and lines portions of the respiratory tract? a. Simple squamous b. Stratified squamous c. Glandular d. Pseudostratified columnar ANS: D
REF: p. 94, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
46. What type of epithelial tissue consists of many layers of cells and forms the outer layer of the skin? a. Simple columnar b. Transitional c. Stratified squamous d. Simple squamous ANS: C
REF: p. 95, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
47. What type of gland secretes its product onto a free surface through a duct? a. Endocrine gland b. Exocrine gland c. Avascular gland d. Follicular gland ANS: B
REF: p. 95, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
48. Which of the following is NOT an exocrine gland? a. Sebaceous gland b. Pituitary gland c. Mammary gland d. Salivary gland ANS: B
REF: p. 95, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
49. All of the following are functions of connective tissue except: a. binds structures together. b. supports organs. c. transmits nerve impulses. d. helps repair tissue damage. ANS: C
REF: p. 95, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
5
50. Which of the following is a characteristic of collagenous fibers? a. Composed of protein b. Strong and flexible c. Can withstand pulling forces d. Found in tendons and ligaments e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 95, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
51. Which of the following is a large phagocytic cell that cleans up cellular debris and foreign particles? a. Macrophage b. Fibroblast c. Mast cell d. Red blood cell ANS: A
REF: p. 96, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
52. All of the following are functions of adipose tissue except: a. forms a protective cushion around the kidneys. b. protects the body from invasion by pathogens. c. insulates the body. d. provides a storage material for energy. ANS: B
REF: p. 96, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
53. Which of the following is made up of elastic connective tissue? a. Small intestine b. Tongue c. Pancreas d. Vocal cords ANS: D
REF: p. 95, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
54. What makes up the fetal skeleton until bone is laid down? a. Elastic cartilage b. Hyaline cartilage c. Fibrocartilage d. Epithelial tissue ANS: B
REF: p. 96, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
55. All of the following are functions of bone except: a. forms the framework of the body. b. protects underlying tissues. c. production of antibodies. d. serves as an attachment for muscles. ANS: C
REF: p. 97, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
56. Which of the following is a characteristic of skeletal muscle tissue? a. It is striated. b. It is under voluntary control. c. It is multinucleated. d. It is responsible for body movement. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 97, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
57. What type of muscle tissue is found in the stomach and intestines, and is under involuntary control? a. Smooth muscle b. Striated muscle c. Cardiac muscle d. Skeletal muscle ANS: A
REF: p. 97, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
58. What type of membrane lines a body cavity that opens to the outside? a. Serous membrane b. Cutaneous membrane c. Synovial membrane d. Mucous membrane ANS: D
REF: p. 98, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
59. All of the following are lined with a mucous membrane except: a. digestive tract. b. heart. c. urinary tract. d. reproductive tract. ANS: B
REF: pp. 98-99, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
6
60. What is the function of serous fluid? a. Reduces friction and provides lubrication. b. Traps foreign particles. c. Synthesizes cartilage. d. Destroys bacteria. e. All are correct. ANS: A
REF: p. 99, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
61. Which of the following allows the knee to move freely by providing lubrication and reducing friction? a. Synovial membrane b. Serous fluid c. Synovial fluid d. Mucus ANS: C
REF: p. 99, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
62. What is name of the connective tissue covering of the brain and spinal cord? a. Mesothelium b. Cranium c. Periosteum d. Meninges ANS: D
REF: p. 99, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
MATCHING
Match each term with its definition. Definition a. Generates and conducts a nerve impulse b. Carry nerve impulse to a nerve cell body c. Carries nerve impulse away from a nerve cell body d. Supports the activities of neurons e. Cartilage cell f. Forms the substance of compact bone g. Located in the center of an osteon and contains a blood vessel h. Bone cell i. Red blood cell j. White blood cell k. The liquid making up the matrix of blood l. Initiates the blood-clotting mechanism m. Serous membrane that lines the abdominopelvic cavity n. Serous membrane that lines the thoracic cavity and covers the lungs o. Serous membrane that lines the pericardial cavity and covers the heart Term 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Axon Chondrocyte Dendrites Erythrocyte Leukocyte Neuroglia Neuron Osteocyte Osteon Osteonic canal Pericardium Peritoneum Plasma Pleura Thrombocyte
1. ANS: C 2. ANS: E 3. ANS: B 4. ANS: I 5. ANS: J 6. ANS: D 7. ANS: A 8. ANS: H 9. ANS: F 10. ANS: G 11. ANS: O 12. ANS: M 13. ANS: K 14. ANS: N
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 98, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 98, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 98, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 97, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 97, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 98, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 98, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 97, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 97, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 97, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 99, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 99, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 97, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 99, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
7
15. ANS: L
REF: p. 97, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
Directions: Match each word part with its word part meaning. Meaning of Word Part a. nerve b. study c. to drink d. cell e. bone f. cartilage g. function h. fiber i. movement j. to stop, control k. glue l. condition m. eat, swallow n. to form, immature cell o. large p. sameness, unchanging q. tissues r. heart s. white t. skin u. around, surrounding v. blood clot w. red Word Part 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38.
-chondr/o -cyte -kinesis -fibr/o -blast hist/o -ology home/o -stasis physio/o macrophag/o neur/o -glia oste/o -osis pin/o leuk/o peri cardi/o thromb/o erythr/o cutane/o
16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37.
ANS: F ANS: D ANS: I ANS: H ANS: N ANS: Q ANS: B ANS: P ANS: J ANS: G ANS: O ANS: M ANS: A ANS: K ANS: E ANS: L ANS: C ANS: S ANS: U ANS: R ANS: V ANS: W
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 103, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 103, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 103, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 103, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 103, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 103, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 103, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 103, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 103, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 103, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 103, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 104, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 103, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 103, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 103, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 104, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 104, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 103, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 104, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 104, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 104, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 103, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. 8
38. ANS: T
REF: p. 103, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9.
9
Chapter 06: Integumentary System Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of the following make up the integumentary system except: a. skin. b. tongue. c. hair. d. nails. ANS: B
REF: p. 105, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
2. What are the two layers making up the skin? a. Epidermis and cuticle b. Dermis and subcutaneous layer c. Stratum basale and reticular layer d. Epidermis and dermis ANS: D
REF: p. 106, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
3. What type of epithelium is present in the epidermis? a. Simple squamous b. Stratified squamous c. Pseudostratified columnar d. Simple cuboidal ANS: B
REF: p. 106, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
4. Which of the following occurs during keratinization of the epidermis? a. Cells become filled with keratin. b. Cells move toward the surface. c. Cells become flat and die. d. Cells are sloughed off. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 106, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
5. Which of the following are specialized epithelial cells that produce a dark pigment? a. Fibroblasts b. Mast cells c. Melanocytes d. Phagocytes ANS: C
REF: p. 106, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.
6. Which of the following provides waterproofing for the skin? a. Keratin b. Cerumen c. Sebum d. Corneum ANS: A
REF: p. 108, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
7. Which of the following is NOT embedded in the dermis? a. Nails b. Sebaceous glands c. Hair d. Adipose tissue ANS: D
REF: p. 106, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
8. Which of the following allows the body to detect changes in the environment? a. Sebaceous glands b. Sensory receptors c. Cilia d. Sweat pores ANS: B
REF: p. 106, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
9. The papillae of the dermis are responsible for: a. waterproofing the skin. b. skin color. c. fingerprints and footprints. d. freckles. ANS: C
REF: p. 106, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
1
10. All of the following are functions of the subcutaneous layer except: a. cushions underlying organs. b. lubricates body surfaces. c. acts as a heat insulator. d. provides energy. ANS: B
REF: p. 107, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
11. What is the name of the pigment that is responsible for basic skin color? a. Carotene b. Collagen c. Freckles d. Melanin ANS: D
REF: p. 107, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
12. Which of the following causes a yellow tint to the skin? a. Carotene b. Cyan c. Collagenous fibers d. Melanocytes ANS: A
REF: p. 107, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
13. Which of the following increases melanocytic activity? a. Sunscreen b. Ultraviolet rays of the sun c. Cold temperature d. Physical exercise ANS: B
REF: p. 107, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
14. All of the following body areas contain hair except: a. face. b. arms. c. palms of the hands. d. back. ANS: C
REF: p. 107, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
15. The part of the hair that is visible is known as the: a. root. b. shaft. c. medulla. d. cortex. ANS: B
REF: p. 107, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
16. The outermost covering of the hair is known as the: a. cortex. b. cuticle. c. medulla. d. papilla. ANS: B
REF: p. 107, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
17. The cuticle of the hair is made up of: a. melanocytes. b. keratinized cells. c. simple squamous epithelial tissue. d. elastic fibers. ANS: B
REF: p. 107, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
18. Which of the following produces hair? a. Sebaceous gland b. Stratum granulosum c. Hair follicle d. Sudoriferous gland ANS: C
REF: p. 108, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
19. What happens when the arrector pili muscles contract? a. Shivering b. Sneezing c. Peristalsis d. Goose bumps ANS: D
REF: p. 108, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
2
20. The visible portion of the nail is known as the: a. nail body. b. nail root. c. nail matrix. d. hang nail. ANS: A
REF: p. 108, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
21. The whitish, crescent-shaped area of the nail is known as the: a. nail root. b. nail matrix. c. eponychium. d. lunula. ANS: D
REF: p. 108, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
22. Which of the following is NOT a function of sebum? a. Keeps hair and skin soft and pliable. b. Inhibits growth of bacteria. c. Regulates body temperature. d. Prevents water loss. ANS: C
REF: p. 108, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
23. Which of the following body areas have the most sweat glands? a. Lips and cheeks b. External genitalia and thighs c. Neck and chest d. Palms of hands and soles of feet ANS: D
REF: p. 108, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
24. The duct of a sweat gland opens to the surface of the skin through: a. a sweat pore. b. a hair follicle. c. a ceruminous gland. d. an arrector pili muscle. ANS: A
REF: p. 108, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
25. The function of cerumen is to: a. lubricate the intestinal tract. b. produce antibodies. c. trap foreign material. d. assist in digestion. ANS: C
REF: p. 108, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
26. All of the following occur when there is excess heat in the body except: a. blood vessels dilate. b. heat is brought to the surface of the skin. c. sebaceous glands become active. d. perspiration occurs. ANS: C
REF: pp. 108-109, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
27. What is needed for the absorption of calcium in the body? a. Vitamin A b. Iron c. Vitamin D d. Phosphorus ANS: C
REF: p. 109, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
MATCHING
Match each skin change due to aging with the effect it has on the skin. Skin Change a. Causes skin to be dry and itchy b. Causes skin to become thinner and more transparent c. Causes skin to wrinkle and sag d. Makes skin more fragile e. Increased susceptibility to sunburn and skin cancer 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Decrease in elastic fibers and adipose tissue Loss of collagen fibers Slower mitotic activity in the stratum basale Reduced sebaceous gland activity Reduction in melanocyte activity
1. ANS: C 2. ANS: D
REF: p. 109, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6. REF: p. 109, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6. 3
3. ANS: B 4. ANS: A 5. ANS: E
REF: p. 109, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6. REF: p. 109, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6. REF: p. 109, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.
MATCHING Directions: Match each word part with its word part meaning. Meaning of Word Part a. pertaining to b. sweat c. black d. hard, horny tissue e. skin f. above, upon g. sebum h. under, below Word Part 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.
epikerat/o melan/o seb/o -ous subcutane/o sud-
6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.
ANS: F ANS: D ANS: C ANS: G ANS: A ANS: H ANS: E ANS: B
REF: p. 111, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. REF: p. 111, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. REF: p. 111, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. REF: p. 111, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. REF: p. 111, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. REF: p. 111, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. REF: p. 111, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. REF: p. 111, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9.
4
Chapter 07: Skeletal System Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of the following are parts of the skeletal system except: a. bones. b. cartilage. c. nails. d. ligaments. ANS: C
REF: p. 113, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.2.
2. All of the following are functions of the skeletal system except: a. provide a rigid framework for the body. b. provide a protective covering for the body. c. produce red blood cells. d. support and protect the soft organs of the body. ANS: B
REF: p. 113, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
3. What happens when the blood calcium level decreases? a. Calcium is released from the bones. b. Scurvy. c. Less calcium is absorbed from food in the digestive tract. d. Calcium is stored in the bones. ANS: A
REF: p. 113, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
4. What is the term for the formation of blood cells? a. Hemolysis b. Hemogenesis c. Erythrocytosis d. Hematopoiesis ANS: D
REF: p. 113, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
5. Where does blood cell formation take place? a. Spleen b. Red bone marrow c. Liver d. Yellow bone marrow ANS: B
REF: p. 113, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
6. The microscopic units of compact bone are known as: a. osteocytes. b. haversian canals. c. osteons. d. lamellae. ANS: C
REF: p. 113, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
7. What is located in an osteonic canal? a. Blood vessel b. Glands c. Calcium d. Cartilage e. All are correct ANS: A
REF: p. 114, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
8. Which of the following provides a passageway through the bone matrix? a. Sinuses b. Lacunae c. Lamellae d. Canaliculi ANS: D
REF: p. 114, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
9. All of the following are characteristics of long bones in an adult except: a. consist primarily of compact bone. b. contain red bone marrow. c. found in the leg and arm. d. consist of a long shaft with bulky ends. ANS: B
REF: p. 114, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
1
10. Spongy bone is composed of plates of bone known as: a. trabeculae. b. haversian systems. c. elastic fibers. d. collagenous fibers. ANS: A
REF: p. 114, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
11. Which of the following is made up of flat bones? a. Wrist bones b. Sternum c. Vertebrae d. Bones of the cranium ANS: D
REF: p. 114, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
12. The shaft of a long bone is known as the: a. diaphysis. b. epiphysis. c. periosteum. d. dialysis. ANS: A
REF: p. 114, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
13. Which of the following is located in the medullary cavity of a long bone? a. Yellow bone marrow b. Synovial fluid c. Osteoblasts d. Blood vessels ANS: A
REF: p. 115, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
14. Which of the following covers the ends of long bones? a. Fibrocartilage b. Synovial membrane c. Articular cartilage d. Tendon ANS: C
REF: p. 115, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
15. Where do long bones grow in length? a. Epiphyseal line b. Nutrient formina c. Epiphyseal plate d. Endosteum ANS: C
REF: p. 115, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
16. What is the tough fibrous connective tissue that covers a long bone? a. Endosteum b. Meninges c. Articular cartilage d. Periosteum ANS: D
REF: p. 115, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
17. What is the term for the process of bone formation? a. Ossification b. Osteoporosis c. Osteomalacia d. Osteoblastosis ANS: A
REF: p. 115, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
18. Which of the following is a mature bone cell? a. Osteoblast b. Osteoclast c. Osteocyte d. Osteon ANS: C
REF: p. 115, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
19. How many bones make up the adult human skeleton? a. 80 b. 126 c. 206 d. 303 ANS: C
REF: p. 116, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
2
20. All of the following make up the axial skeleton except: a. bones of the head. b. vertebral column. c. pelvic bones. d. ribs. ANS: C
REF: p. 116, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
21. Which of the following bones make up the cranium? a. Frontal b. Occipital c. Temporal d. Ethmoid e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 119, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
22. Which of the following forms the upper jaw? a. Maxillary bones b. Nasal bones c. Mandible d. Zygomatic arch ANS: A
REF: p. 119, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
23. The malleus, incus, and stapes make up the: a. lacrimal bones. b. auditory ossicles. c. nasal septum. d. orbit of the eye. ANS: B
REF: p. 119, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
24. What is the U-shaped bone in the neck that forms a base for the tongue? a. Vocal cords b. Palatine bone c. Hyoid bone d. Uvula ANS: C
REF: p. 119, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
25. How many vertebrae make up the vertebral column? a. 6 b. 13 c. 26 d. 33 ANS: C
REF: p. 119, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
26. What is the large central opening in a vertebra? a. Body b. Vertebral arch c. Transverse process d. Vertebral foramen ANS: D
REF: p. 120, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
27. Which of the following make up the small of the back? a. Lumbar vertebrae b. Cervical vertebrae c. Thoracic vertebrae d. Sacrum ANS: A
REF: p. 120, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
28. What is the name of the tailbone? a. Sacrum b. Coccyx c. Ileum d. Lumbar ANS: B
REF: p. 120, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
29. All of the following are functions of the thoracic cage except: a. protects the heart. b. supports the bones of the shoulder girdle. c. provides support for the weight of the body. d. protects the lungs. ANS: C
REF: p. 120, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
3
30. What is the name of the central indentation of the sternum? a. Manubrium b. Body c. Jugular (suprasternal) notch d. Xiphoid process ANS: C
REF: p. 120, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
31. Which of the following attach to the sternum directly? a. True ribs b. False ribs c. Floating ribs d. Spare ribs ANS: A
REF: p. 121, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
32. What is the primary function of the appendicular skeleton? a. Excretion b. Reproduction c. Digestion d. Movement ANS: D
REF: p. 121, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
33. The clavicle and scapula make up the: a. thoracic cage. b. pectoral girdle. c. pelvic girdle. d. axial skeleton. ANS: B
REF: p. 121, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
34. All of the following are functions of the pelvic girdle except: a. provides support for the weight of the body. b. provides support and protection for the intestines. c. protects the heart and lungs. d. attaches the lower extremities to the axial skeleton. ANS: C
REF: p. 123, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
35. Which of the following is a synarthrotic joint? a. Intervertebral disk b. Symphysis pubis c. Suture in the skull d. Thumb joint ANS: C
REF: p. 125, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
36. An amphiarthrosis is: a. immovable. b. slightly movable. c. freely movable. d. fused. ANS: B
REF: p. 125, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
37. What makes up articular cartilage? a. Bone b. Fibrocartilage c. Hyaline cartilage d. Loose connective tissue ANS: C
REF: p. 125, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
38. What is the function of synovial fluid? a. Lubrication. b. Synthesizes cartilage. c. Destroys bacteria. d. Synthesizes enzymes. ANS: A
REF: p. 125, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
39. What is the name of a fluid-filled sac that reduces friction? a. Bursae b. Cyst c. Fossa d. Cavity ANS: A
REF: p. 126, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
4
40. Which of the following joints has the widest range of movement? a. Condyloid b. Pivot c. Hinge d. Ball and socket ANS: D
REF: p. 126, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
41. Which of the following is an example of a hinge joint? a. Shoulder b. Knee c. Ankle d. Thumb ANS: B
REF: p. 126, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
MATCHING
Match each term with its definition. Definition a. Bones of the fingers and toes b. Bone on the lateral side of the forearm c. Bone on the medial side of the forearm d. Upper arm bone e. Thigh bone f. Wrist bones g. Bones making up the palm of the hand h. Collarbone i. Shoulder blade j. Covers the ends of bones k. Where the head of humerus connects to the scapula l. Where the two pubic bones meet m. Bone on the lateral side of the leg n. Bone on the medial side of the leg o. Made up by the ilium, ishium, and pubis p. Kneecap q. Ankle bones r. Bones making up the instep of the foot s. Holds the head of the femur Term 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19.
Acetabulum Articular cartilage Carpal bones Clavicle Coxal bones Femur Fibula Glenoid cavity Humerus Metacarpal bones Metatarsal bones Patella Phalanges Radius Scapula Symphysis pubis Tarsal bones Tibia Ulna
1. ANS: S 2. ANS: J 3. ANS: F 4. ANS: H 5. ANS: O 6. ANS: E 7. ANS: M 8. ANS: K 9. ANS: D 10. ANS: G 11. ANS: R 12. ANS: P 13. ANS: A 14. ANS: B 15. ANS: I
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 123, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 125, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 123, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 121, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 123, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 124, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 124, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 121, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 121, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 123, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 125, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 125, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 125, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 122, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 121, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. 5
16. 17. 18. 19.
ANS: L ANS: Q ANS: N ANS: C
REF: p. 123, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 125, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 124, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 122, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
MATCHING Directions: Match each word part with its word part meaning. Meaning of Word Part a. to grow b. cell c. joint d. through e. immature cell f. together g. chest h. bone i. above, upon, on j. to break Word Part 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29.
athr/o pect/o diaepi -phys oste/o -blast -clast -cyte syn-
20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29.
ANS: C ANS: G ANS: D ANS: I ANS: A ANS: H ANS: E ANS: J ANS: B ANS: F
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 129, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 129, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 129, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 129, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 129, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 129, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 129, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 129, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 129, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 129, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9.
6
Chapter 08: Muscular System Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of the following are examples of muscle tissue except: a. skeletal. b. myelin. c. visceral. d. cardiac. ANS: B
REF: p. 131, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
2. Which of the following is characteristic of skeletal muscle? a. It can respond to a stimulus from the nervous system. b. It can contract to produce movement. c. It is attached to the bones of the skeleton. d. It is under voluntary control. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 131, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
3. Most of the heat produced by the body is through: a. visceral muscle contractions. b. digestion. c. skeletal muscle contractions. d. shivering. ANS: C
REF: p. 131, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
4. What is the name of the connective tissue sheath that surrounds a muscle? a. Epimysium b. Fasiculus c. Perimysium d. Endomysium ANS: A
REF: p. 131, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
5. Which of the following is an example of an indirect attachment of skeletal muscle to bone? a. Joint b. Ligament c. Cartilage d. Tendon ANS: D
REF: p. 132, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
6. The end of the muscle that is attached to a relatively movable part is known as its: a. insertion. b. origin. c. belly. d. synapse. ANS: A
REF: p. 132, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
7. The cell membrane of a muscle fiber (cell) is known as the: a. T tubule. b. sarcolemma. c. sarcoplasmic reticulum. d. sarcoplasm. ANS: B
REF: p. 131, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
8. The cytoplasm of a muscle fiber (cell) is known as the: a. T tubule. b. sarcolemma. c. sarcoplasmic reticulum. d. sarcoplasm. ANS: D
REF: p. 131, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
9. Which of the following stimulates skeletal muscle to contract? a. Motor neurons b. Dendrites c. Sensory neurons d. Mitochondria ANS: A
REF: p. 132, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
1
10. What is the name of the region in which an axon terminal meets a muscle fiber? a. Synaptic cleft b. Neuromuscular junction c. Motor unit d. Joint ANS: B
REF: p. 132, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
11. What is the name of the neurotransmitter responsible for muscle contractions? a. Calcium b. Lactic acid c. Potassium d. Acetylcholine ANS: D
REF: p. 133, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
12. The energy source for muscle contractions is: a. creatine. b. ATP. c. calcium. d. glycogen. ANS: B
REF: p. 133, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
13. Which of the following must be present for aerobic respiration to occur? a. Oxygen b. White muscle fibers c. Carbon dioxide d. Nitrogen ANS: A
REF: p. 133, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
14. What causes anaerobic respiration to occur? a. Buildup of creatine phosphate b. Lack of carbon dioxide c. Lack of oxygen d. Contraction of the diaphragm ANS: C
REF: p. 133, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
15. What are the products of anaerobic respiration? a. Large amount of ATP, carbon dioxide and water b. Amino acids and carbon dioxide c. Small amount of ATP and lactic acid d. Glucose and fatty acids ANS: C
REF: p. 133, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
16. A buildup of lactic acid in the muscles causes a. Muscle pain b. Heat stroke c. Perspiration d. Hives ANS: A
REF: p. 134, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
17. How is oxygen debt paid back? a. Vigorous exercise b. Conversion of glucose to glycogen c. Labored breathing d. Short-term loan ANS: C
REF: p. 134, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
18. Bending the elbow is an example of: a. flexion. b. extension. c. pronation. d. supination. ANS: A
REF: p. 135, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.3.b.
19. Moving the arm away from the body is an example of: a. eversion. b. adduction. c. circumduction. d. abduction. ANS: D
REF: p. 135, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.3.b.
2
20. A muscle that opposes or reverses a particular movement is known as: a. a synergist. b. an antagonist. c. a prime mover. d. a secondary mover. ANS: B
REF: p. 134, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
21. Which of the following muscles is used to wink, blink, and squint? a. Frontalis b. Orbicularis oculi c. Buccinator d. Orbicularis oris ANS: B
REF: p. 134, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
22. Which of the following muscles is responsible for closing the mouth during chewing? a. Masseter b. Zygomaticus c. Buccinator d. Mastoid ANS: A
REF: p. 134, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
23. Which of the following muscles is located in the neck and is responsible for flexing and rotating the head? a. Trapezius b. Errector spinae c. External oblique d. Sternocleiodomastoid ANS: D
REF: p. 134, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
24. Which of the following muscles assist with inspiration? a. External intercostal muscles b. Transverse abdominis c. Deep back muscles d. Internal intercostal muscles ANS: A
REF: p. 137, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
25. What is the name of the dome-shaped muscle that forms a partition between the thorax and abdomen? a. Errector spinae b. Rectus abdominis c. Diaphragm d. Rotator cuff ANS: C
REF: p. 137, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
26. All of the following muscles move and shoulder and upper arm except: a. trapezius. b. pectoralis major. c. biceps brachii. d. deltoid. ANS: C
REF: p. 137, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
27. Which of the following muscles is used to administer an IM injection? a. Gluteus maximus b. Gluteus medius c. Gluteus minimus d. Iliopsoas ANS: B
REF: p. 138, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
28. The function of the quadriceps femoris muscle is to: a. extend the leg. b. flex the thigh. c. rotate the leg. d. adduct the thigh. ANS: A
REF: pp. 138, 141, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
29. Which of the following muscles is/are used to flex the leg and extend the thigh? a. Gastrocnemius b. Peroneus c. Soleus d. Hamstrings ANS: D
REF: p. 141, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
3
30. What is another name for the calcaneal tendon? a. Achilles tendon b. Ankle c. Insole d. Plantar tendon ANS: A
REF: p. 141, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
MATCHING
Directions: Match each word part with its word part meaning. Meaning of Word Part a. muscle b. enzyme c. peel, rind d. flesh, muscle e. against f. work g. above, around h. nerve i. together j. across Word Part 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
-ase antimys neur/o transsarc/o lemmsynerg/o epi-
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
ANS: B ANS: E ANS: A ANS: H ANS: J ANS: D ANS: C ANS: I ANS: F ANS: G
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 143, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 143, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 143, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 143, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 143, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 143, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 143, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 143, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 143, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 143, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9.
4
Chapter 09: Nervous System Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What are the two main divisions of the nervous system (NS)? a. Sympathetic NS and parasympathetic NS b. Brain and spinal cord c. Central NS and peripheral NS d. Somatic NS and autonomic NS ANS: C
REF: p. 145, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.2.
2. The function of a neuron is to: a. transmit nerve impulses. b. synthesize myelin. c. regenerate nerve fibers. d. protect nerves from damage. e. all are correct. ANS: A
REF: p. 146, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
3. What makes up a neuron? a. Neuroglia b. Axon and dendrites c. Cell body, dendrites, and axon d. Schwann cells ANS: C
REF: p. 146, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
4. Gray matter is made up of: a. neuron cell bodies and unmyelinated fibers. b. collagenous fibers. c. myelinated fibers. d. ganglia and unmyelinated fibers. ANS: A
REF: p. 147, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
5. What type of neurons carry impulses from sense receptors to the central nervous system? a. Interneurons b. Sensory neurons c. Efferent neurons d. Motor neurons ANS: B
REF: p. 147, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
6. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of neuroglia? a. They support and protect neurons. b. They nourish neurons. c. They conduct nerve impulses. d. They are capable of mitosis. ANS: C
REF: p. 147, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
7. A myelin sheath is formed around axons within the central nervous system by: a. microglia. b. schwann cells. c. astrocytes. d. oligodendrocytes. ANS: D
REF: p. 147, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
8. What is the name of the region of communication between two neurons? a. Action potential b. Threshold stimulus c. Synapse d. Internet ANS: C
REF: p. 149, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
9. What is the name given to a chemical that transmits a nerve impulse across a synaptic cleft from one neuron to another? a. Depolarizer b. Neurotransmitter c. Cholinesterase d. Ion ANS: B
REF: p. 149, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
1
10. Which of the following is NOT an example of reflexes? a. Coughing b. Reaction to pain stimuli c. Sneezing d. Chewing ANS: D
REF: p. 151, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
11. What makes up the central nervous system? a. Reflex arcs b. Brain and spinal cord c. Cranial nerves and spinal nerves d. Somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous system ANS: B
REF: p. 145, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.4.
12. What are the meninges? a. Fluid-filled cavities in the brain. b. Membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord. c. Fissures that separate the lobes of the brain. d. Protrusions on the surface of the brain. ANS: B
REF: p. 151, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
13. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the dura mater? a. Tightly bound to the brain b. Outermost layer of the meninges c. Consists of tough, white fibrous connective tissue d. Contains sinuses that collect venous blood ANS: A
REF: p. 151, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
14. Which of the following structures of the meninges is filled with cerebrospinal fluid and contains blood vessels? a. Subarachnoid space b. Pia mater c. Arachnoid d. Dura mater ANS: A
REF: p. 151, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
15. What is the band of white fibers that connects the cerebral hemispheres? a. Insula b. Vermis c. Corpus callosum d. Arbor vitae ANS: C
REF: p. 152, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
16. Which of the following divides the cerebrum into two hemispheres? a. Transverse fissure b. Central sulcus c. Longitudinal fissure d. Sagittal sulcus ANS: C
REF: p. 152, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
17. Which of the following is NOT a lobe of the cerebrum? a. Parietal b. Cerebellum c. Temporal d. Frontal ANS: B
REF: p. 152, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
18. The cerebral cortex consists of: a. gray matter. b. myelinated nerve fibers. c. white matter. d. ganglia. ANS: A
REF: p. 152, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
19. Which of the following functions are controlled by the cerebral cortex? a. Intelligence b. Language c. Personality d. Memory e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 152, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
2
20. What makes up the white matter of the brain? a. Unmyelinated fibers b. Neuron cell bodies c. Myelinated fibers d. Gyri ANS: C
REF: p. 152, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
21. Which of the following serves as a relay station for sensory impulses going to the cerebral cortex? a. Thalamus b. Infundibulum c. Epithalamus d. Cerebral peduncles ANS: A
REF: p. 153, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
22. Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus? a. Regulates body temperature. b. Regulates sleep/wake cycles. c. Involved with the onset of puberty. d. Regulates secretions of hormones from the pituitary gland. ANS: C
REF: p. 153, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
23. Which of the following regulates rhythmic cycles in the body? a. Cerebellar peduncles b. Pituitary gland c. Alarm clock d. Pineal gland ANS: D
REF: p. 155, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
24. Which of the following structures does NOT make up the brain stem? a. Pons b. Medulla c. Diencephalon d. Midbrain ANS: C
REF: p. 155, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
25. Which of the following are under control of the medulla? a. Adjustment of heart rate b. Regulation of blood pressure c. Regulation of breathing d. Vomiting e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 155, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
26. Which of the following functions in body coordination, posture, and balance? a. Cerebrum b. Cerebellum c. Pons d. Middle ear ANS: B
REF: p. 155, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
27. What is the name of the interconnected fluid-filled cavities in the brain? a. Central canals b. Fossa c. Ventricles d. Dorsal columns ANS: C
REF: p. 155, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
28. The spinal cord extends from the base of the skull to the: a. sacrum. b. first lumbar vertebra. c. coccyx. d. fourth lumbar vertebra. ANS: B
REF: p. 155, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
29. What is the function of ascending tracts of the spinal cord? a. Carry sensory impulses from body parts to the brain. b. Carry both sensory and motor impulses to the brain. c. Carry motor impulses from the brain to muscles and glands. d. Make up reflex arcs. ANS: A
REF: p. 156, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
3
30. Which of the following is an advantage of a spinal reflex if you touch a hot stove? a. It prevents you from touching the stove again. b. It allows you to heal faster. c. It makes you forget about the pain. d. It allows you to withdraw the affected part before you are aware of pain. ANS: D
REF: p. 156, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
31. The peripheral nervous system is made up of: a. cranial nerves and spinal nerves. b. effectors and ganglia. c. cranial nerves and the brain. d. reflex arcs. ANS: A
REF: p. 145, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.2.
32. What is the function of the peripheral nervous system? a. Provides centers for sight, smell, and hearing. b. Regulates emotional responses. c. Forms conduction tracts between the higher brain centers and spinal cord. d. Provides a communication network between the central nervous system and the
body. ANS: D
REF: p. 156, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
33. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the autonomic nervous system? a. It is under involuntary control. b. It is responsible for conscious body movements. c. It supplies motor impulses to visceral organs. d. It is divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. ANS: B
REF: pp. 157-158, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
34. Nerves that carry both sensory and motor fibers are known as: a. sensory nerves. b. motor nerves. c. mixed nerves. d. interneurons. ANS: C
REF: p. 157, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
35. How many pairs of cranial nerves are in the body? a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 31 ANS: C
REF: p. 145, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
36. What is a group of nerve cell bodies located outside the brain? a. Horn b. Plexus c. Ganglia d. Terminal ANS: C
REF: p. 145, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
37. How many pairs of spinal nerves are in the human body? a. 9 b. 12 c. 31 d. 206 ANS: C
REF: p. 145, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
38. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system? a. Prepares the body for stress. b. Increases activity in the digestive tract. c. Increases blood flow to skeletal muscle. d. Increases heart rate. ANS: B
REF: p. 158, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
4
MATCHING
Match each term with its definition. Definition a. Main part of a neuron b. Transmits impulse to the cell body of a neuron c. Transmits impulse away from the cell body of a neuron d. Short branches at the distal end of an axon e. Small sacs that contain neurotransmitters f. An enlargement that contains vesicles located at the distal end of a telodendria g. White fatty substance that surrounds nerve fibers h. Short unmyelinated spaces between segments of myelin in a myelinated nerve fiber i. A layer of Schwann cells that surrounds a nerve fiber in the PNS j. Space between the synaptic knob of a neuron and cell membrane of an adjacent neuron Term 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Axon Cell body Dendrite Myelin sheath Neurilemma Node of Ranvier Synaptic knob Synaptic vesicles Synaptic cleft Telodendria
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
ANS: C ANS: A ANS: B ANS: G ANS: I ANS: H ANS: F ANS: E ANS: J ANS: D
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 164, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I. p. 146, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I. p. 164, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I. p. 147, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I. p. 164, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I. p. 147, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I. p. 149, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I. p. 149, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I. p. 149, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I. p. 147, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.
Directions: Match each word part with its word part meaning. Meaning of Word Part a. process of b. cerebrum c. motion d. nerve e. cerebellum f. head g. sheath, covering h. together, with i. body j. knot k. glue Word Part 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.
actcerebell/o cerebr/o cephal/o neur/o -lemma -tion syngangligli/a somat/o
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
ANS: C ANS: E ANS: B ANS: F ANS: D ANS: G ANS: A ANS: H
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 164, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 164, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 164, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 164, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 164, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 164, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 164, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 164, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. 5
19. ANS: J 20. ANS: K 21. ANS: I
REF: p. 164, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. REF: p. 164, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. REF: p. 164, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9.
6
Chapter 10: The Senses Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What type of senses have receptors that are localized in a particular area? a. General senses b. Special senses c. Nonsenses d. Diverse senses ANS: B
REF: p. 166, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
2. Which of the following is an example of a sense receptor? a. Mechanoreceptors b. Chemoreceptors c. Thermoreceptors d. Photoreceptors e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 166, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
3. A decreased sensitivity to a continued stimulus is known as: a. negative feedback. b. action potential. c. sensory adaptation. d. tolerance. ANS: C
REF: p. 166, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
4. All of the following are examples of general senses except: a. touch. b. vision. c. temperature. d. pain. ANS: B
REF: p. 166, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
5. Which of the following mechanoreceptors are stimulated by heavy pressure? a. Free nerve endings b. Meissner’s corpuscles c. Pacinian corpuscles d. Muscle spindles ANS: C
REF: p. 166, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
6. The sense of position or orientation is known as: a. proprioception. b. equilibrium. c. global positioning. d. placement. ANS: A
REF: p. 166, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
7. What are the mechanoreceptors involved with proprioception? a. Taste buds b. Golgi tendon organs c. Free nerve endings d. Organ of Corti ANS: B
REF: pp. 166-167, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
8. Where are thermoreceptors located? a. Deep in the dermis b. In superficial muscles c. In subcutaneous tissue d. Immediately under the skin ANS: D
REF: p. 167, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
9. Where are thermoreceptors most numerous? a. Back b. Feet c. Eyes d. Lips ANS: D
REF: p. 167, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
1
10. How do the number of cold receptors compare with the number of heat receptors? a. Up to 10 times more cold receptors in a given area. b. There are the same number of cold receptors as heat receptors. c. There are 10 times more heat receptors in a given area. d. None are correct. ANS: A
REF: p. 167, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
11. What type of receptors do extreme temperatures stimulate? a. Heat receptors b. Pain receptors c. Cold receptors d. Pressure receptors ANS: B
REF: p. 167, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
12. What happens several minutes after a heating pad has been applied to an individual’s skin? a. It starts feeling hotter. b. It feels the same. c. It no longer feels warm. d. It feels cold. ANS: C
REF: p. 167, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
13. What stimulates a nociceptor? a. Pressure b. Touch c. Tissue damage d. Tickling ANS: C
REF: p. 167, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
14. All of the following are examples of nociceptors except: a. they may continue to send signals after the stimulus is removed. b. they exhibit sensory adaptation. c. they are widely distributed throughout the skin. d. they are not present in the nervous tissue of the brain. ANS: B
REF: p. 167, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
15. What are the organs of taste? a. Taste buds b. Organ of Corti c. Papillae d. Macula ANS: A
REF: p. 167, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.4.
16. What stimulates the receptors that determine taste? a. Pressure of food on the tongue b. Swallowing c. Chewing d. Chemicals in food ANS: D
REF: p. 167, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
17. All of the following are taste sensations except: a. salty. b. pungent. c. sweet. d. bitter. ANS: B
REF: p. 168, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
18. Which of the following nerves carries taste impulses from the posterior one third of the tongue to the brain? a. Olfactory nerve b. Facial nerve c. Vestibular nerve d. Glossopharyngeal nerve ANS: D
REF: p. 168, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
19. Which of the following lobes of the brain interprets taste sensations? a. Medulla b. Parietal c. Occipital d. Temporal ANS: B
REF: p. 168, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
2
20. What area of the brain interprets smell sensations? a. Olfactory cortex b. Gustatory cortex c. Prefrontal cortex d. Auditory cortex ANS: A
REF: p. 168, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
21. Which of the following muscles closes the eye? a. Orbicularis oris b. Levator palpebrae superioris c. Orbicularis oculi d. Temporalis ANS: C
REF: p. 168, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
22. What condition results from inflammation of a sebaceous gland associated with the eyelashes? a. Boil b. Stye c. Conjunctivitis d. Blepharitis ANS: B
REF: p. 168, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.
23. All of the following are functions of tears except: a. moisten and cleanse the eye. b. destroy bacteria. c. prevent foreign objects from entering the eye. d. lubricate the eye. ANS: C
REF: p. 169, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
24. What happens when the ciliary muscle contracts? a. Lens relaxes for distance vision. b. The lens becomes flat. c. Lens bulges for close vision. d. Pupil dilates. ANS: C
REF: p. 169, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
25. What is the name of the white spot in the eye where the optic nerve leaves the eye? a. Macula lutea b. Optic disk c. Sclera d. Pupil ANS: B
REF: p. 170, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
26. What region of the retina produces the sharpest image? a. Fovea centralis b. Optic disc c. Optic nerve d. Ciliary body ANS: A
REF: p. 170, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
27. All of the following are functions of vitreous humor except: a. maintains internal pressure of the eye. b. presses the retina firmly against the wall of the eye. c. supports the internal parts of the eye. d. maintains the shape of the eye. ANS: A
REF: p. 170, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
28. The bending of light rays so that they can be focused on the retina is known as: a. accommodation. b. refraction. c. photoreception. d. visual acuity. ANS: B
REF: p. 170, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
29. Which of the following allows the eye to adapt to dim light? a. Vitreous humor b. Rhodopsin c. Accommodation d. Aqueous humor ANS: B
REF: p. 170, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
3
30. All of the following are characteristics of cones except: a. provide sharp images and fine detail. b. are located primarily in the fovea centralis. c. are much more numerous than rods. d. contain the receptors for color vision. ANS: C
REF: p. 170, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
31. Which of the following part of the brain interprets visual impulses? a. Temporal lobe b. Parietal lobe c. Occipital lobe d. Frontal lobe ANS: C
REF: p. 171, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
32. Receptors for hearing are: a. chemoreceptors. b. thermoreceptors. c. nociceptors. d. mechanoreceptors. ANS: D
REF: p. 171, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
33. Which of the following helps prevent foreign substances from reaching the eardrum? a. Cerumen b. Mucus c. Auditory tube d. Perilymph ANS: A
REF: p. 172, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
34. Which of the following equalizes the pressure between the outside and the middle ear? a. Tympanic membrane b. Ear ossicles c. Eustachian tube d. Oval window ANS: C
REF: p. 172, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
35. What is the range of frequencies for normal speech? a. 300 to 4,000 vibrations per second b. 500 to 1,000 vibrations per second c. 1,000 to 10,000 vibrations per second d. 5,000 to 10,000 vibrations per second ANS: A
REF: p. 173, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
36. What nerve transmits auditory impulses to the brain for interpretation? a. Cranial nerve II b. Cranial nerve V c. Cranial nerve VIII d. Cranial nerve X ANS: C
REF: p. 173, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
MATCHING
Match each eye structure with its definition. Definition a. The space between the lens and retina b. Inner layer of the eye that contains rods and cones c. Space between the cornea and lens d. Keeps perspiration out of the eye e. Helps keep foreign objects from entering the eye f. Mucous membrane that lines the eyelid and covers the front of the eye except for the cornea g. Traps foreign particles and prevents them from entering the eye h. Produces tears i. White part of the eye j. Pigmented vascular middle layer of the eye k. Colored part of the eye l. Opening in the eye Eye Structure 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
Anterior cavity Choroid Conjunctiva Eyebrows Eyelashes Eyelids 4
7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
Iris Lacrimal gland Posterior cavity Pupil Retina Sclera
1. ANS: C 2. ANS: J 3. ANS: F 4. ANS: D 5. ANS: G 6. ANS: E 7. ANS: K 8. ANS: H 9. ANS: A 10. ANS: L 11. ANS: B 12. ANS: I
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 170, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 169, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 168, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 168, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 168, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 168, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 169, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 168, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 170, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 169, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 170, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 169, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
Match each ear structure with its definition. Definition a. Structure in the cochlea that houses the sound receptors b. Located between the auricle and tympanic membrane c. Collects sounds waves and directs them toward the auditory meatus d. S-shaped tube that extends from the auricle to the tympanic membrane e. Begins at the tympanic membrane and ends at the oval and round window f. Connects the middle ear with the throat g. Contains the sense organs for dynamic equilibrium h. Ear ossicle nicknamed the hammer i. Ear ossicle nicknamed the anvil j. Ear ossicle nicknamed the stirrup k. Contains the sense organs for static equilibrium l. Spiral structure in the inner ear that functions in hearing Ear Structure 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.
Auricle Cochlea Eustachian tube External auditory canal External ear Incus Malleus Middle ear Organ of Corti Semicircular canals Stapes Vestibule
13. ANS: 14. ANS: 15. ANS: 16. ANS: 17. ANS: 18. ANS: 19. ANS: 20. ANS: 21. ANS: 22. ANS: 23. ANS: 24. ANS:
C L F D B I H E A G J K
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 171, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 172, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 172, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 171, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 171, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 172, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 172, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 172, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 172, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 173, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 172, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 173, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
5
Directions: Match each word part with its word part meaning. Meaning of Word Part a. light b. chemical c. receptor d. heat e. mechanical f. causing harm or damage g. one’s own h. spot i. red j. snail k. smell l. tears m. stone n. yellow o. taste p. ear Word Part 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
chem/o mechan/o noci-ceptor phot/o propri/o therm/o cochgustlacrmaculluteolfact/o ot/o lith rhod/o
25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
ANS: B ANS: E ANS: F ANS: C ANS: A ANS: G ANS: D ANS: J ANS: O ANS: L ANS: H ANS: N ANS: K ANS: P ANS: M ANS: I
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 177, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 177, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 177, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 177, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 177, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 177, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 177, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 177, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 177, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 177, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 177, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 177, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 177, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 177, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 177, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 177, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9.
6
Chapter 11: Endocrine System Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following glands have ducts that empty their secretions onto a surface? a. Exocrine glands b. Merocrine glands c. Endocrine glands d. Apocrine glands ANS: A
REF: p. 179, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
2. All of the following are examples of exocrine glands except: a. sweat gland. b. sebaceous gland. c. pineal gland. d. mammary gland. ANS: C
REF: p. 179, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
3. What would happen if insulin were given orally? a. It would cause an allergic reaction. b. It would be inactivated by digestive enzymes in the stomach. c. It would irritate the lining of the digestive tract. d. It would have a toxic effect on the body. ANS: B
REF: p. 179, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
4. The sex hormones are made up of: a. steroids. b. minerals. c. proteins. d. carbohydrates. ANS: A
REF: p. 179, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
5. What is the name of a tissue that has receptor sites for a particular hormone? a. Glandular tissue b. Target tissue c. Kleenex tissue d. Connective tissue ANS: B
REF: p. 179, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
6. All of the following are produced by the anterior pituitary gland except: a. growth hormone. b. oxytocin. c. thyroid-stimulating hormone. d. luteinizing hormone. ANS: B
REF: p. 183, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
7. In an adult, an excess secretion of growth hormone can cause: a. gigantism. b. pituitary dwarfism. c. acromegaly. d. Down syndrome. ANS: C
REF: p. 180, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.
8. What condition results when there is not enough antidiuretic hormone secreted by the body? a. Hypertension b. Diabetes insipidus c. Osteoporosis d. Diabetes mellitus ANS: B
REF: p. 183, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.
9. A commercial preparation of oxytocin is: a. synthyroid. b. pitocin. c. calcium. d. adrenalin. ANS: B
REF: p. 183, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a.
1
10. The thyroid gland consists of two lobes which are located on either side of the: a. liver. b. esophagus. c. trachea. d. pancreas. ANS: C
REF: p. 183, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
11. What hormones make up thyroid hormone? a. Thyroxine b. Thyroid-stimulating hormone c. Triiodothyronine d. Both A and C e. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 183, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
12. What condition results when there is a lack of iodine in the body? a. Anemia b. Rickets c. Goiter d. Hypothyroidism ANS: C
REF: p. 183, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
13. Which of the following reduces the calcium level in the body? a. Mineralocorticoids b. Calcitonin c. Aldosterone d. Glucocorticoids ANS: B
REF: p. 183, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
14. The parathyroid glands are located: a. on the anterior surface of the thyroid glands. b. near the upper portion of each kidney. c. on the lateral side of the pineal gland. d. on the posterior surface of the thyroid glands. ANS: D
REF: p. 183, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
15. Where are the adrenal glands located? a. On the posterior surface of the thyroid glands b. Above the kidneys c. At the base of the brain d. Just below the pancreas ANS: B
REF: p. 183, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
16. Which of the following regulates blood volume and the concentration of electrolytes in the blood? a. Mineralocorticoids b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone c. Antidiuretic hormone d. Thyroxine ANS: A
REF: p. 183, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
17. All of the following are characteristics of cortisol except: a. increases blood glucose levels. b. secreted in increased amounts in times of prolonged stress. c. stimulates growth of bone and muscles. d. counteracts the inflammatory response. ANS: C
REF: p. 183, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
18. Epinephrine and norepinephrine exert all of the following actions except: a. increase digestive activity. b. increase heart rate. c. increase respiratory rate. d. increase blood supply to skeletal muscle. ANS: A
REF: p. 184, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
19. What secretes insulin? a. Liver b. Cells of the pancreas c. Adrenal glands d. Cells of the pancreas ANS: D
REF: p. 184, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
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20. All of the following are characteristics of insulin except: a. secreted in response to a high concentration of glucose in the blood. b. decreases the blood glucose level. c. serves as a primary source of energy for the nervous system. d. a lack of insulin can lead to diabetes mellitus. ANS: C
REF: pp. 184-185, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
21. Which of the following raises blood glucose levels? a. Glucagon b. Bile c. Hydrochloric acid d. Pepsin ANS: A
REF: p. 184, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
22. What is the function of testosterone (beginning at puberty)? a. Growth and development of the male reproductive structures b. Increased skeletal and muscular growth c. Voice changes d. Growth and distribution of body hair e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 185, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
23. Which of the following is a function of progesterone? a. Causes shedding of the uterine lining. b. Stimulates production of milk in the lactating breast. c. Causes the uterine lining to thicken in preparation for pregnancy. d. Stimulates ovulation to occur. ANS: C
REF: p. 185, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
24. What hormone regulates the sleep/wake cycle? a. Melatonin b. Epinephrine c. Melanin d. Estrogen ANS: A
REF: p. 185, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
MATCHING
Hormones of the Pituitary Gland Match each hormone with its function. Function a. Stimulates growth of bones, muscles, and other organs b. Causes thyroid gland to secrete thyroid hormone c. Promotes reabsorption of water in the kidney tubules d. Reacts with receptor sites in the adrenal gland to stimulate secretion of cortical hormone e. Promotes development of glandular tissue in female breast during pregnancy f. Stimulates development of eggs in the ovaries and sperm in the testes g. Causes ovulation to occur h. Causes contraction of smooth muscle in wall of uterus Hormone 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Growth hormone Luteinizing hormone (LH) Oxytocin Prolactin Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
ANS: D ANS: C ANS: F ANS: A ANS: G ANS: H ANS: E ANS: B
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 180, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7. p. 183, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7. p. 182, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7. p. 180, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7. p. 182, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7. p. 183, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7. p. 183, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7. p. 180, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
3
Directions: Match each word part with its word part meaning. Meaning of Word Part a. to secrete b. in, within c. nerve d. to grow e. male, maleness f. gland g. sugar h. out, away from Word Part 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.
aden/o gluc/o -physis endo-crine exoandr/o neur/o
9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.
ANS: F ANS: G ANS: D ANS: B ANS: A ANS: H ANS: E ANS: C
REF: p. 187, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. REF: p. 187, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. REF: p. 187, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. REF: p. 187, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. REF: p. 187, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. REF: p. 187, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. REF: p. 187, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. REF: p. 187, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9.
4
Chapter 12: Circulatory System Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of the following describe the location of the heart except: a. posterior to the sternum. b. between the lungs. c. posterior to the vertebral column. d. in the thoracic cavity. ANS: C
REF: p. 190, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.5.
2. What is the name given to the pointed end of the heart? a. Base b. Crown c. Apex d. Septum ANS: C
REF: p. 190, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
3. What is the name of the loose-fitting sac that encloses the heart? a. Pericardium b. Pleura c. Endocardium d. Peritoneum ANS: A
REF: p. 190, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
4. What is another name for the epicardium? a. Pericardial cavity b. Visceral pericardium c. Fibrous pericardium d. Parietal pericardium ANS: B
REF: p. 190, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
5. All of the following are characteristics of the myocardium except: a. forms the bulk of the heart wall. b. provides the force needed to eject blood from the heart. c. forms the valves of the heart. d. composed of cardiac muscle tissue. ANS: C
REF: p. 190, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): 1.7.
6. Which of the following heart chambers receives deoxygenated blood from the body? a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle ANS: A
REF: p. 190, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
7. The superior vena cava returns blood to the heart from the: a. abdomen. b. thorax. c. head. d. lower extremities. ANS: C
REF: p. 191, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
8. What is the partition that separates the right and left atria? a. Interventricular septum b. Foramen ovale c. Fossa ovalis d. Interatrial septum ANS: D
REF: p. 191, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
9. What is the name of the valve located between the right atrium and right ventricle? a. Mitral valve b. Triscuspid valve c. Bicuspid valve d. Aortic semilunar valve ANS: B
REF: p. 192, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
1
10. What is the name of the valve located in the right ventricle at the base of the pulmonary trunk? a. Pulmonary semilunar valve b. Triscuspid valve c. Bicuspid valve d. Aortic semilunar valve ANS: A
REF: p. 192, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
11. What are the names of the two arteries that branch off the aorta to supply the heart with oxygen and nutrients? a. Pulmonary veins b. Carotid arteries c. Coronary arteries d. Inferior vena cava ANS: C
REF: p. 193, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
12. All of the following are characteristics of the SA node except: a. initiates impulses without neural stimulation. b. initiates an impulse four to five times per minute. c. known as the “pacemaker” of the heart. d. located in the right atrium. ANS: B
REF: p. 193, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
13. Why is the heart’s impulse delayed at the AV node? a. gives the atria enough time to fill with blood. b. gives the ventricles enough time to contract. c. allows the entire heart time to rest. d. gives the atria time to finish contracting. ANS: D
REF: p. 193, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
14. What is the correct pathway that the impulse takes through the ventricles? a. Atrioventricular (AV) bundle, bundle branches, conduction myofibrils b. Bundle branches, AV bundle, conduction myofibrils c. Conduction myofibrils, bundle branches, AV bundle d. AV bundle, conduction myofibrils, bundle branches ANS: A
REF: p. 193, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
15. One complete heartbeat is known as a/an: a. ECG cycle. b. cardiac cycle. c. sinus rhythm. d. ventricular contraction. ANS: B
REF: p. 193, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
16. Which of the following occurs when the ventricles are contracting? a. Semilunar valves are closed. b. Atria are relaxed. c. Atrioventricular valves are open. d. Ventricles are filling with blood. ANS: B
REF: p. 193, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
17. What causes the “lubb” heart sound? a. Opening of the atrioventricular valves b. Opening of the semilunar valves c. Closing of the atrioventricular valves d. Closing of the semilunar valves ANS: C
REF: p. 194, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
18. How much blood is in the body of an adult male? a. 2 to 3 L b. 4 to 5 L c. 5 to 6 L d. 10 to 12 L ANS: C
REF: p. 194, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
19. What percentage of the blood is made up of plasma? a. 35% b. 45% c. 55% d. 65% ANS: C
REF: p. 196, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
2
20. What makes up the buffy coat? a. White blood cells and platelets b. Red blood cells and platelets c. Plasma and platelets d. Serum and plasma ANS: A
REF: p. 196, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
21. Which of the following is NOT a plasma protein? a. Albumins b. Urea c. Globulins d. Fibrinogen ANS: B
REF: p. 196, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
22. All of the following are characteristics of erythrocytes except: a. biconcave disk shape. b. produced in red bone marrow. c. engulfs bacteria by phagocytosis. d. lack a nucleus. ANS: C
REF: p. 196, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
23. What is the name of the stem cell from which blood cells develop? a. Erythroblast b. Hemocytoblast c. Hemoglobin d. Myoglobin ANS: B
REF: p. 196, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
24. What is the normal red blood cell count for an adult female? a. 3 to 4.5 million b. 4 to 5.5 million c. 4.5 to 6.2 million d. 5.5 to 7.4 million ANS: B
REF: p. 196, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
25. What is the function of erythropoietin? a. Stimulates leukocyte production. b. Destroys worn-out red blood cells. c. Stimulates erythrocyte production. d. Stimulates thrombocyte production. e. All are correct. ANS: C
REF: p. 197, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
26. Which of the following is necessary for red blood cell production? a. Iron b. Vitamin B12 c. Folic acid d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 198, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.d.f.
27. What is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 from the intestines? a. Vitamin K b. Intrinsic factor c. Bile d. Hydrochloric acid e. All are correct ANS: B
REF: p. 198, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.f.
28. What condition is caused by a lack of vitamin B12 in the body? a. Iron deficiency anemia b. Hemolytic anemia c. Aplastic anemia d. Pernicious anemia ANS: D
REF: p. 198, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV. 1.f.
29. What is the life span of a red blood cell? a. 30 days b. 60 days c. 120 days d. 1 year ANS: C
REF: p. 198, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
3
30. What is the name of the yellow pigment that results from the breakdown of red blood cells? a. Globin b. Bilirubin c. Heme d. Bile ANS: B
REF: p. 198, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
31. What is the function of leukocytes? a. Defend the body against disease. b. Initiate the clotting mechanism. c. Transport carbon dioxide. d. Transport nutrients to the cells. ANS: A
REF: p. 198, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
32. The movement of leukocytes through a capillary wall and into the tissues is known as: a. diffusion. b. osmosis. c. diapedesis. d. filtration. ANS: C
REF: p. 198, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
33. Which of the following causes an increase in the number of neutrophils? a. Parasitic infections b. Viral infections c. Acute infections d. Fungal infections ANS: C
REF: p. 198, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.
34. Thrombocytes are also known as: a. platelets. b. factor VIII. c. thromboplastin. d. prothrombin. ANS: A
REF: p. 196, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
35. All of the following are characteristics of thrombocytes except: a. normal range is 150,000 to 400,000. b. they close breaks in blood vessels. c. they initiate the formation of blood clots. d. they engulf bacteria and clean up cellular debris. ANS: D
REF: p. 199, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
36. Thrombocytes develop from large cells known as: a. macrophages. b. megakaryocytes. c. fibroblasts. d. osteoblasts. ANS: B
REF: p. 199, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
37. What is the term for the stoppage of bleeding? a. Hemolysis b. Hemostasis c. Anticoagulants d. Fibrinolysis ANS: B
REF: p. 199, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
38. Which of the following is the first response of the body to a blood vessel injury? a. Serotonin is secreted b. The blood vessel constricts c. Increased activity of procoagulants d. The formation of a platelet plug ANS: B
REF: p. 199, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
39. Which of the following converts fibrinogen to fibrin? a. Prothrombin b. Prothrombin activator c. Thrombin d. Vitamin K ANS: C
REF: p. 199, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
4
40. All of the following are characteristics of fibrin except: a. forms a mesh. b. adheres to damaged tissue. c. traps blood cells and platelets. d. forms fibrous connective tissue. ANS: D
REF: p. 199, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
41. What antigens are present in an individual with type AB- blood? a. A and B antigens b. A, B, and Rh antigens c. No antigens d. Rh antigen ANS: A
REF: p. 200, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
42. What antibodies are present in an individual with type A+ blood? a. A antibodies b. A and B antibodies c. B antibodies d. B and Rh antibodies ANS: C
REF: p. 200, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
43. Microscopic arteries are known as: a. capillaries. b. arterioles. c. venules. d. veins. ANS: B
REF: p. 201, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
44. The tunica media of an arterial wall consists of: a. connective tissue. b. epithelial tissue. c. smooth muscle. d. skeletal muscle. ANS: C
REF: p. 201, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
45. Which of the following carries blood toward the heart? a. Arteries b. Veins c. Arterioles d. Capillaries ANS: B
REF: p. 201, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
46. Which of the following is part of the pulmonary circuit? a. Oxygen is distributed to the tissues. b. Blood is pumped from the left ventricle and into the aorta. c. Deoxygenated blood is returned from the tissues to the right atrium. d. Oxygen is picked up in the lungs. ANS: D
REF: p. 202, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
47. Which of the following changes may take place as an individual ages? a. Left ventricle becomes slightly smaller. b. Thickening of the valves of the heart. c. Arteriosclerosis. d. Dysrhythmias are more frequent. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 210, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
48. Heart murmurs are caused by: a. buildup of cholesterol on the walls of the coronary arteries. b. blood clots. c. snoring. d. faulty heart valves. e. all are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 194, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.
49. All of the following are functions of the blood except: a. carries oxygen and nutrients to cells. b. regulates body metabolism. c. carries hormones from endocrine glands to target tissues. d. regulates body temperature. ANS: B
REF: p. 194, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
5
50. Which of the following is a function of the lymphatic system? a. Returns excess interstitial fluid to the blood. b. Provides a defense against invading microorganisms. c. Assists in the absorption of fat and fat-soluble vitamins. d. All are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 202, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
51. Lymph is derived from: a. erythrocytes. b. plasma. c. hormones. d. leukocytes. ANS: B
REF: p. 202, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
52. What is the function of lymphatic vessels? a. To carry fluid away from the tissues and returns it to the venous system b. To carry blood to the head and neck c. To carry fluid from the venous system to the tissues d. To carry fluid from the brain to the spinal cord ANS: A
REF: p. 202, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
53. All of the following are characteristics of lymphatic organs except: a. consist of clusters of lymphocytes. b. contain macrophages. c. composed of a mesh-like framework of connective fibers. d. produce white blood cells. ANS: D
REF: p. 205, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
54. All of the following are examples of lymphatic organs except: a. tonsils. b. liver. c. spleen. d. thymus. ANS: B
REF: p. 205, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.5.
55. What is the function of lymph nodes? a. To filter and cleanse lymph before it enters the blood b. To produce lysosome c. To produce antibodies d. To filter and cleanse the blood ANS: A
REF: p. 205, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
56. Where are the cervical lymph nodes located? a. Neck b. Armpit c. Chest d. Groin ANS: A
REF: p. 205, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
57. What is another name for pharyngeal tonsils? a. Uvula b. Adenoids c. Vocal cords d. Internal naris ANS: B
REF: p. 205, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
58. What is the function of the tonsils? a. To filter and warm the air entering the trachea b. To produce T cells c. To protect against pathogens that enter the body through the mouth and nose d. To provide natural immunity for the body ANS: C
REF: p. 205, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
59. All of the following are functions of the spleen except: a. serves as a reservoir for blood. b. destroys old erythrocytes. c. filters the blood. d. produces digestive enzymes. ANS: D
REF: p. 205, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
6
60. Which of the following is a characteristic of the thymus? a. Consists of a two-lobed organ. b. Produces thymosin. c. Responsible for maturation of T lymphocytes. d. All are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 205, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
61. What is the term for the ability of the body to counteract the effects of pathogens and other harmful substances? a. Inflammation b. Infection c. Resistance d. Susceptibility ANS: C
REF: p. 205, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
62. Which of the following provides a defense against invading agents regardless of their nature? a. Vaccines b. Non-specific defense mechanisms c. B-lymphocytes d. Specific defense mechanisms ANS: B
REF: p. 205, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
63. All of the following are examples of non-specific defense mechanisms except: a. intact skin. b. antibodies. c. hydrochloric acid in the stomach. d. mucous membranes. ANS: B
REF: p. 206, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
64. What are the primary cells involved in immunity? a. Megakaryocytes and platelets b. Erythrocytes and leukocytes c. Lymphocytes and macrophages d. Plasma cells and Neutrophils ANS: C
REF: p. 206, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
65. Which of the following is a characteristic of specific defense mechanisms? a. Acts against all harmful invading agents. b. Triggers the inflammatory process. c. Act against specific invading pathogens. d. Provides a mechanical and chemical barrier against invading pathogens. ANS: C
REF: p. 206, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
66. What is the name given to the type of immunity that is the result of T cell action? a. Cell-mediated immunity b. Passive immunity c. Antibody-mediated immunity d. Vaccination ANS: A
REF: p. 207, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
67. Cell-mediated immunity is most effective against: a. virus-infected cells. b. cancer cells. c. fungi. d. protozoan parasites. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 207, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
68. What is the term for a substance produced by the body that inactivates or destroys an invading antigen? a. Antibody b. Enzyme c. Vaccine d. Toxin ANS: A
REF: p. 207, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
69. Which of the following is a characteristic of antibody-mediated immunity? a. Immunity that is the result of B-cell action b. Involved in allergic reactions c. Also known as humoral immunity d. Most effective against bacteria and viruses that are outside body cells e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: pp. 207-208, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
7
70. What type of antibody (immunoglobulin) is found in breast milk and provides immunity for the newborn? a. IgG b. IgA c. IgM d. IgE ANS: B
REF: p. 209, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
71. What type of antibody (immunoglobulin) is responsible for allergic reactions? a. IgG b. IgA c. IgM d. IgE ANS: D
REF: p. 209, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
MATCHING
Leukocytes Directions: Match each description with a particular leukocyte. Leukycyte a. Neutrophils b. Eosinophils c. Basophils d. Lymphocytes e. Monocytes Description 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
Engulfs bacteria by phagocytosis Has a purple multilobed nucleus (3 to 5 lobes) with many fine granules in the cytoplasm Has a round or slightly indented nucleus that almost completely fills the cell and stains a deep purplish blue Has a segmented nucleus of no more than 2 lobes with bright reddish-orange granules in the cytoplasm Has large, coarse granules that contain histamine and heparin Increases during an allergic reaction Increases during certain viral diseases, such as mononucleosis Is the first leukocyte to respond to tissue damage Largest white blood cell Normal range is 0% to 1% Normal range is 50% to 70% Produces antibodies
1. ANS: A 2. ANS: A 3. ANS: D 4. ANS: B 5. ANS: C 6. ANS: B 7. ANS: D 8. ANS: A 9. ANS: E 10. ANS: C 11. ANS: A 12. ANS: D
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 198, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 198, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 199, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 198, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 198, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10 p. 198, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 199, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 198, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 199, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 198, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 198, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 199, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
Immunity Directions: Match each type of immunity with its method of development. Method of Development a. Maternal antibodies are received by an infant through the placenta or breast milk b. An individual receives a vaccination and produces memory cells c. An individual contracts a disease and produces memory cells d. An individual receives an antiserum containing antibodies from another host Type of Immunity 13. 14. 15. 16.
Active natural immunity Active artificial immunity Passive natural immunity Passive artificial immunity
13. 14. 15. 16.
ANS: C ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D
REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 209, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 209, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 209, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 209, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
8
Directions: Match each word part with its word part meaning. Meaning of Word Part a. to eat, devour b. blood c. large d. red e. white f. clotting g. kidney h. formation i. cell j. clot k. immunity or protection l. through m. substance that forms n. to form Word Part 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
mega immun/o coagul/o phagdiaerythr/o -cyt -poieses -poietin -blast hemat/o leuk/o thromb/o ren/o
17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
ANS: C ANS: K ANS: F ANS: A ANS: L ANS: D ANS: I ANS: H ANS: M ANS: N ANS: B ANS: E ANS: J ANS: G
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 215, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 215, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 215, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 215, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 215, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 215, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 215, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 215, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 216, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 215, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 215, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 215, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 216, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 216, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9.
9
Chapter 13: Respiratory System Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The exchange of gases between the blood and tissue cells is known as: a. inhalation. b. external respiration. c. exhalation. d. internal respiration. ANS: D
REF: p. 218, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
2. Which of the following make(s) up the lower respiratory tract? a. Trachea b. Bronchial tree c. Lungs d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 218, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.4.
3. Which of the following lines the paranasal sinuses? a. Mucous membrane b. Serous membrane c. Connective tissue d. Synovial membrane ANS: A
REF: p. 218, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
4. What is the function of mucus in the respiratory tract? a. Warms air entering from the outside. b. Destroys microorganisms. c. Traps foreign particles. d. Helps to equalize air pressure. ANS: C
REF: p. 219, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
5. Which of the following propels mucus toward the pharynx? a. Flagella b. Cilia c. Goblet cells d. Eustachian tubes ANS: B
REF: p. 219, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
6. The Eustachian tubes open into the: a. laryngopharynx. b. larynx. c. oropharynx. d. nasopharynx. ANS: D
REF: p. 219, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
7. Which of the following receives air, food, and water from the oral cavity? a. Nasopharynx b. Oropharynx c. Laryngopharynx d. Trachea ANS: B
REF: p. 219, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
8. What is the term for the opening between the oral cavity and the oropharynx? a. Nasopharynx b. Fauces c. Laryngopharynx d. Trachea ANS: B
REF: p. 219, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
9. What is the name of the passageway for air for air between the pharynx and the trachea (also called the voice box)? a. Bronchi b. Esophagus c. Larynx d. Trachea ANS: C
REF: p. 219, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
1
10. Which of the following prevents food and water from entering the trachea? a. Epiglottis b. Glottis c. Cricoid cartilage d. Fauces ANS: A
REF: p. 220, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
11. The thyroid cartilage located in the larynx is commonly called the: a. true vocal cords. b. Adam’s apple. c. false vocal cords. d. uvula. ANS: B
REF: p. 220, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
12. What makes up the vocal cords? a. Tendons b. Muscle c. Ligaments d. Simple squamous epithelium ANS: C
REF: p. 220, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
13. Which of the following is supported by 15 to 20 C-shaped pieces of hyaline cartilage? a. Larynx b. Trachea c. Bronchi d. Esophagus ANS: B
REF: p. 220, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
14. After the bronchi enter the lungs, they branch into smaller passages that terminate in: a. alveolar ducts. b. bronchioles. c. alveoli. d. secondary bronchi. ANS: C
REF: p. 220, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
15. Which of the following is a characteristic of the right lung? a. Divided into two lobes b. Contains the cardiac notch c. Is long and narrow d. Divided into three lobes ANS: D
REF: p. 221, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
16. What is the double-layered serous membrane that encloses the lungs? a. Pleura b. Pericardium c. Peritoneum d. Mediastinum ANS: A
REF: p. 221, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
17. What is pulmonary ventilation? a. Removing carbon dioxide from the lungs b. Yawning c. Breathing d. The exchange of oxygen between the blood and tissues ANS: C
REF: p. 221, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
18. The process of taking air into the lungs is known as: a. inhalation. b. exhalation. c. internal respiration. d. external respiration. ANS: A
REF: p. 221, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
19. Which of the following does NOT occur during exhalation? a. The diaphragm relaxes. b. The alveoli become smaller. c. Lung volume decreases. d. The size of the thoracic cavity increases. ANS: D
REF: p. 221, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
2
20. The respiratory center is located in the: a. pons and medulla of the brain stem. b. cerebellum. c. hypothalamus. d. occipital lobe. ANS: A
REF: p. 222, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
21. What happens when there is an increase of carbon dioxide in the blood? a. Decrease in rate and depth of breathing b. Nothing c. Increase in rate and depth of breathing d. Temporary cessation of breathing ANS: C
REF: p. 222, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
22. Which of the following are examples of nonrespiratory air movements? a. Sighing b. Laughing c. Crying d. Sneezing e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 223, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
23. Which of the following occur to the respiratory system as an individual ages? a. Loss of elasticity in the tissues of the respiratory system b. Bronchioles are less able to stretch and contract c. Decreased ability to acquire and deliver oxygen to the blood d. Cartilage in the trachea undergoes progressive calcification e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 223, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
24. How does an increase in body temperature affect the respiratory rate? a. Decreases it. b. Increases it. c. Has no effect. ANS: B
REF: p. 223, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
MATCHING
Directions: Match each nasal structure with its definition. Definition a. Air-filled cavities that reduce the weight of the skull b. Bony ridges that project into the nasal cavity c. Interior chamber of the nose d. Divides the nose into two parts e. Opening through which air enters the nasal cavity f. Openings from the nasal cavity into the pharynx g. Separates the nasal cavity from the oral cavity h. Posterior portion of the soft palate that helps direct food into the oropharynx Nasal Structure 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
Internal nares Nasal cavity Nasal conchae Nasal septum Nostrils Palate Paranasal sinuses Uvula
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
ANS: F ANS: C ANS: B ANS: D ANS: E ANS: G ANS: A ANS: H
REF: p. 218, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 218, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 218, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 218, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 218, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 218, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 218, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 218, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
3
Directions: Match each word part with its correct word part meaning. Meaning of Word Part a. mouth b. tiny cavity c. breath d. larynx e. ribs, pleura f. bronchi g. nose h. pharynx Word Part 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.
alveolbronchilaryng/o nas/o or/o pharyn/o pleur/o respir/o
9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.
ANS: B ANS: F ANS: D ANS: G ANS: A ANS: H ANS: E ANS: C
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 227, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 227, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 227, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 227, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 227, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 227, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 227, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 227, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9.
4
Chapter 14: Digestive System Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The digestive tract is also known as the: a. alimentary cavity. b. peritoneum. c. gastrointestinal tract. d. mysentery. ANS: C
REF: p. 229, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
2. Which of the following makes up the digestive tract? a. Mouth and pharynx b. Esophagus c. Stomach d. Intestines e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 229, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.4.
3. All of the following are accessory organs of the digestive system except: a. tongue. b. salivary glands. c. kidneys. d. pancreas. ANS: C
REF: p. 229, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.4.
4. The taking in of food is known as: a. inhalation. b. mastication. c. deglutition. d. ingestion. ANS: D
REF: p. 229, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
5. Food is broken down into smaller particles through the mixing actions of the stomach through a process known as: a. hydrolysis. b. mechanical digestion. c. chemical digestion. d. mastication. ANS: B
REF: p. 229, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
6. What is the term for the process of swallowing? a. Mastication b. Hydrolysis c. Deglutition d. Ingestion ANS: C
REF: p. 229, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
7. What is the term for the removal of indigestible wastes through the anus? a. Defecation b. Absorption c. Excretion d. Voiding ANS: A
REF: p. 229, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
8. What is the term for the rhythmic waves of contractions that propel food particles through the digestive tract? a. Peristalsis b. Reflexes c. Spasms d. Cramps ANS: A
REF: p. 229, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
9. What is the innermost layer of the digestive tract? a. Muscularis b. Mucosa c. Submucosa d. Serosa ANS: B
REF: p. 230, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
1
10. What is the function of the sensory receptors located in the lips? a. To judge the temperature and texture of foods b. To detect the taste of the food c. To assist in swallowing d. To assist in speech ANS: A
REF: p. 231, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
11. What muscle makes up the cheek? a. Temporalis muscle b. Buccal muscle c. Mastication muscle d. Buccinator muscle ANS: D
REF: p. 231, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
12. Which of the following directs food away from the nasal cavity and into the oropharynx during swallowing? a. Teeth b. Hard palate and uvula c. Lingual tonsils d. Soft palate and uvula ANS: D
REF: p. 231, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
13. Which of the following forms the roof of the oral cavity? a. Mandible b. Septum c. Palate d. Maxilla ANS: C
REF: p. 231, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
14. Which of the following contains taste buds and provides friction for manipulating food in the mouth? a. Microvilli b. Papillae c. Lingual frenulum d. Soft palate ANS: B
REF: p. 232, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
15. All of the following are functions of the tongue except: a. mixes food with saliva. b. shapes food into a bolus. c. directs food toward the pharynx. d. secretes digestive enzymes. ANS: D
REF: p. 232, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
16. Which of the following connects the tongue anteriorly to the floor of the mouth? a. Papillae b. Lingual frenulum c. Buccinator muscle d. Salivary glands ANS: B
REF: p. 232, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
17. What is the total number of secondary teeth? a. 10 b. 16 c. 32 d. 40 ANS: C
REF: p. 232, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
18. Which of the following teeth have sharp edges that are used for biting food? a. Incisors b. Bicuspids c. Cuspids d. Molars ANS: A
REF: p. 232, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
19. Which salivary glands are located on each side of the head, just in front of the ears? a. Palatine b. Parotid c. Submandibular d. Sublingual ANS: B
REF: p. 233, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
2
20. All of the following are functions of saliva except: a. cleanses the teeth. b. moistens the food. c. lubricates the food. d. begins the chemical digestions of proteins. ANS: D
REF: p. 235, CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.7.
21. Which of the following opens into both the esophagus and larynx? a. Nasopharynx b. Laryngopharynx c. Oropharynx d. Fauces ANS: B
REF: p. 234, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
22. Which of the following provides a passageway for food between the pharynx and stomach? a. Larynx b. Trachea c. Esophagus d. Oropharynx ANS: C
REF: p. 234, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
23. Which of the following acts as a valve between the stomach and small intestine? a. Cardiac sphincter b. Pyloric sphincter c. Esophageal sphincter d. Fauces ANS: B
REF: p. 234, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
24. Longitudinal folds in the wall of the stomach that allow the stomach to expand are known as: a. rugae. b. villi. c. fundus. d. striations. ANS: A
REF: p. 234, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
25. Which of the following aids in the absorption of vitamin B12 from the digestive tract? a. Mucus b. Hydrochloric acid c. Intrinsic factor d. Pepsinogen e. All are correct ANS: C
REF: p. 235, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.f.
26. Which of the following begins the chemical digestion of protein? a. Pepsinogen b. Amylase c. Gastrin d. Pepsin ANS: D
REF: p. 235, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.c.
27. What is the name of the semifluid that results when food is broken down in the stomach? a. Saliva b. Bile c. Chyme d. Mucus ANS: C
REF: p. 235, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
28. What causes the release of gastric juice during the gastric phase of digestion? a. Thinking about food b. Smelling food c. Presence of food in the stomach d. Passage of chyme through the pyloric sphincter ANS: C
REF: p. 235, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
29. What is the function of gastrin? a. Increases the activity of the gastric glands. b. Decreases gastric secretions. c. Decreases peristalsis. d. Prevents excess chyme from entering the small intestine. ANS: A
REF: p. 235, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
3
30. How long does it take the stomach to empty after eating a meal? a. 1 hour b. 4 hours c. 8 hours d. 12 hours ANS: B
REF: p. 235, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
31. Which of the following increases the surface area for absorption in the small intestine? a. Plicae circularis b. Villi c. Microvilli d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 235, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
32. What is the first part of the small intestine? a. Sigmoid colon b. Ileum c. Duodenum d. Jejunum ANS: C
REF: p. 235, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
33. What is the name of the valve located between the small intestine and large intestine? a. Ileocecal valve b. Cardiac valve c. Pyloric valve d. Mitral valve ANS: A
REF: p. 235, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
34. The appendix is attached to the: a. stomach. b. duodenum. c. cecum. d. rectum. ANS: C
REF: p. 237, CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.1.
35. What is the name of the S-shaped portion of the colon? a. Ascending colon b. Descending colon c. Sigmoid colon d. Transverse colon ANS: C
REF: p. 237, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
36. What is the function of the large intestine? a. Production of digestive enzymes b. Elimination of waste products c. Absorption of nutrients d. Breakdown of food molecules ANS: B
REF: p. 238, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
37. What are hepatocytes? a. Liver cells b. Pancreatic cells c. Kidney cells d. Gallbladder cells ANS: A
REF: p. 238 CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
38. Which of the following are stored in the liver? a. Vitamin K b. Iron c. Glycogen d. Vitamin A e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 239, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.f.
39. Which of the following cells located in the liver remove bacteria, damaged red blood cells, and other particles from the blood? a. Macrophages b. Goblet cells c. Kupffer cells d. Cells ANS: C
REF: p. 238, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
4
40. Which of the following emulsifies fat into small fat droplets? a. Amylase b. Cholesterol c. Lipase d. Bile salts ANS: D
REF: p. 239, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
41. Which of the following is a waste product that results from the breakdown of hemoglobin? a. Urea b. Fatty acids c. Bilirubin d. Triglycerides e. All are correct ANS: C
REF: p. 239, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
42. What is the function of the gallbladder? a. Stores bile. b. Secretes bile. c. Stores hemoglobin. d. Breaks down fat. ANS: A
REF: p. 239, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
43. What causes contraction of the gallbladder? a. Cholecystokinin b. Gastrin c. Presence of fat in the stomach d. Secretin ANS: A
REF: p. 239, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
44. Which of the following secretes insulin and glucagon into the blood? a. Pancreatic acinar b. Liver c. Gallbladder d. Islets of Langerhans ANS: D
REF: p. 239, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
45. All of the following digestive enzymes are found in pancreatic juice except: a. trypsin. b. secretin. c. pancreatic lipase. d. peptidase. ANS: B
REF: p. 240, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
46. In which part of the small intestine does most absorption take place? a. Duodenum b. Ileum c. Jejunum d. Cecum ANS: C
REF: p. 241, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
47. What is the end product of protein digestion? a. Glucose b. Fatty acids c. Fructose d. Amino acids ANS: D
REF: p. 240, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.c.
5
MATCHING
Parts of a Tooth Directions: Match each tooth part with its definition. Definition a. Visible portion of the tooth b. Portion of the tooth embedded in the sockets of the mandible and maxilla c. Small region in which the crown and root meet d. Central core of the tooth e. Consists of connective tissue, blood vessels, and nerves, and is located in the pulp cavity f. The pulp cavity that is located in the root of the tooth g. Gums h. Opening in the root for nerves and blood vessels i. Surrounds pulp cavity and forms the bulk of the tooth j. Connective tissue that surrounds the dentin in the root k. Firmly anchors the root in the socket l. Surrounds the dentin in the crown of the tooth Tooth Part 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
Apical foramen Cementum Crown Dentin Enamel Neck Gingiva Periodontal ligaments Pulp cavity Pulp Root Root canal
1. ANS: H 2. ANS: J 3. ANS: A 4. ANS: I 5. ANS: L 6. ANS: C 7. ANS: G 8. ANS: K 9. ANS: D 10. ANS: E 11. ANS: B 12. ANS: F
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 232, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 233, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 232, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 233, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 233, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 232, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 232, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 233, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 232, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 232, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 232, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 232, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
Directions: Match each word part with its word part meaning. Meaning of Word Part a. water b. cecum c. stomach d. contraction e. gums f. colon or large intestine g. breaking apart h. ileum Word Part 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
gastr/o gingiv/o hydr/o -lysis ile/o -cee -stalsis col-
13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18.
ANS: C ANS: E ANS: A ANS: G ANS: H ANS: B
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 246, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 246, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 246, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 246, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 246, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 246, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. 6
19. ANS: D 20. ANS: F
REF: p. 246, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. REF: p. 246, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9.
7
Chapter 15: Urinary System Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is a function of the urinary system? a. Rids the body of wastes. b. Maintains normal pH of the blood. c. Plays a role in the production of red blood cells. d. Helps to regulate the blood pressure. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 248, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
2. All of the following make up the urinary system except: a. prostate gland. b. kidneys. c. ureters. d. urinary bladder. ANS: A
REF: p. 248, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.2.
3. What are the two main parts of a nephron? a. Renal cortex and renal medulla b. Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule c. Renal corpuscle and renal tubule d. Renal pyramids and renal columns ANS: C
REF: p. 249, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
4. What makes up the glomerulus? a. Hyaline cartilage b. Cluster of capillaries c. Neurons d. Loose connective tissue ANS: B
REF: p. 249, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
5. What is the name for the glomerular capsule? a. Loop of Henle b. Proximal convoluted tubule c. Bowman’s capsule d. Renal capsule ANS: C
REF: p. 249, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
6. Blood enters the glomerulus through the: a. afferent arteriole. b. renal artery. c. efferent arteriole. d. cystic duct. ANS: A
REF: p. 249, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
7. Which of the following carries fluid away from the glomerular capsule toward a collecting duct? a. Major calyx b. Renal papillae c. Minor calyx d. Renal tubule ANS: D
REF: p. 249, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
8. What is the function of the ureters? a. Transport urine from the urinary bladder to the outside. b. Filters the urine. c. Transport urine from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder. d. Assist in expelling urine from the urinary bladder. ANS: C
REF: p. 248, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
9. Which of the following layers of the ureter exhibits peristalsis? a. Mucosa b. Muscular layer c. Fibrous coat d. None are correct ANS: B
REF: p. 250, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
1
10. What is the function of the urinary bladder? a. Storage reservoir for urine b. Filters the urine c. Reabsorption of substances back into the blood d. Removal of waste products from the blood ANS: A
REF: p. 250, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
11. What is the function of rugae located in the wall of the urinary bladder? a. Expels urine from the bladder. b. Causes contraction of the urinary bladder. c. Allows the bladder to expand. d. Secretes mucus. ANS: C
REF: p. 250, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
12. Urine is expelled from the urinary bladder through contraction of the: a. detrusor muscle. b. external abdominal muscles. c. buccinator muscle. d. rectus abdominis muscles. ANS: A
REF: p. 250, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
13. Which of the following is made up of three openings and is located on the floor of the urinary bladder? a. Renal pyramid b. Trigone c. Calyx d. Cortex ANS: B
REF: p. 251, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
14. Which of the following is a characteristic of the urethra in a male? a. Transports urine and semen. b. Is short. c. Transports urine only. d. Consists of fibrous connective tissue. ANS: A
REF: p. 251, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
15. Which of the following controls the passage of urine through the urethra? a. Collecting duct b. Trigone c. Urethral orifice d. Internal and external sphincters ANS: D
REF: p. 251, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
16. Which of the following is the longest part of the male urethra? a. Membranous urethra b. Prostatic urethra c. Spongy urethra d. Urethral orifice ANS: C
REF: pp. 251-252, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
17. Which of the following are involved in urine formation? a. Glomerular filtration b. Tubular reabsorption c. Tubular secretion d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: pp. 252-253, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
18. Which of the following substances is NOT reabsorbed into the body in the renal tubule? a. Glucose b. Urea c. Water d. Sodium ANS: B
REF: p. 253, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
19. Which of the following is a hormone secreted by the adrenal gland that increases reabsorption of sodium and reduces urine output? a. Atrial natriuretic hormone b. Aldosterone c. Erythropoietin d. ACTH ANS: B
REF: p. 253, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
2
20. Which of the following occurs in the absence of antidiuretic hormone? a. The urine is more concentrated. b. More water is reabsorbed by the body. c. The amount of urine excreted is reduced. d. The urine is more dilute. ANS: D
REF: p. 253, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
21. Which of the following is an enzyme secreted by the kidneys that helps to regulate the blood pressure? a. Epinephrine b. Insulin c. Renin d. Thyroid-stimulating hormone ANS: C
REF: p. 253, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
22. What is the term for the act of expelling urine? a. Mensuration b. Excretion c. Peristalsis d. Micturition ANS: D
REF: p. 254, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
23. Which of the following does NOT occur to the urinary system as an individual ages? a. The muscles in the wall of the urinary structures become less elastic. b. The kidneys are unable to maintain a stable balance in the blood under normal c. d.
conditions. The urinary bladder is unable to expand or contract as much as it once used to. Awareness of the need to urinate may be delayed until the bladder is nearly full.
ANS: B
REF: p. 254, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
MATCHING
Parts of the Kidney Directions: Match each part of the kidney with its definition. Definition a. Functional unit of the kidney b. Large cavity in the central region of the kidney that collects urine as it is produced c. Triangular-shaped regions of the kidney that appear striated d. Part of the renal cortex that extends into the spaces between adjacent pyramids e. Connective tissue that holds the kidney in place f. Thick layer of adipose tissue that surrounds each kidney g. Tough fibrous connective tissue that encases each kidney h. Indentation in the kidney i. Outer reddish region of the kidney j. Inner reddish brown region of the kidney Kidney Part 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Hilum Nephron Perirenal fat Renal capsule Renal columns Renal cortex Renal fascia Renal medulla Renal pelvis Renal pyramids
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
ANS: H ANS: A ANS: F ANS: G ANS: D ANS: I ANS: E ANS: J ANS: B ANS: C
REF: p. 249, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 249, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 249, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 249, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 249, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 249, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 249, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 249, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 249, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 249, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
3
Directions: Match each word part with its word part meaning. Meaning of Word Part a. kidney b. urine c. red d. kidney e. near to f. three g. to pass Word Part 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.
erythr/o juxtamictnephr/o ren/o triur-
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.
ANS: C ANS: E ANS: G ANS: D ANS: A ANS: F ANS: B
REF: p. 257, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.9. REF: p. 257, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.9. REF: p. 257, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.9. REF: p. 257, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.9. REF: p. 257, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.9. REF: p. 258, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.9. REF: p. 258, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.9.
4
Chapter 16: Reproductive System Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of the following are functions of the reproductive system except: a. to produce gametes. b. to produce enzymes. c. to transport and sustain gametes. d. to produce hormones. ANS: B
REF: p. 260, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.2.
2. The gonads include: a. egg and sperm cells. b. ovaries and testes. c. vagina and penis. d. uterus and scrotum. ANS: B
REF: p. 260, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
3. All of the following are functions of the secondary reproductive organs except: a. transport gametes. b. sustain the gametes. c. nurture the development of offspring. d. produce eggs and sperm. ANS: D
REF: p. 260, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
4. Why are the testes located outside the body of a male? a. A temperature higher than body temperature is required for the production of b. c. d.
viable sperm. A temperature lower than body temperature is required for the production of viable sperm. To provide better blood flow to the testes. To prevent damage to the wall of the testes.
ANS: B
REF: p. 260, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
5. Which of the following pulls the testes closer to the body? a. Contraction of the cremaster muscle b. Vertical septum c. Contraction of the dartos muscle d. Relaxation of the cremaster muscle ANS: A
REF: p. 260, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
6. Which of the following produce male sex hormones? a. Tunica albuginea b. Septa c. Seminiferous tubules d. Interstitial cells of Leydig ANS: D
REF: p. 261, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
7. All of the following are characteristics of spermatogonia except: a. they are immature cells. b. they remain dormant until puberty. c. each spermatogonia contains 46 chromosomes. d. they divide by meiosis. ANS: D
REF: p. 261, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
8. How many mature sperm eventually result from each primary spermatocyte? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 ANS: B
REF: p. 262, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
9. Which of the following is a characteristic of the head of a sperm? a. Consists of a flagella. b. Contains adenosine triphosphate. c. Contains 23 chromosomes. d. Contains 46 chromosomes. ANS: C
REF: p. 262, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
1
10. What is the function of the enzymes located in the acrosome? a. Help sperm penetrate the female gamete. b. Provide energy for the sperm in the form of adenosine triphosphate. c. Help sperm move through the female reproductive tract. d. Provide nourishment for the sperm. e. All are correct. ANS: A
REF: p. 262, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
11. Which of the following provides locomotion for a sperm? a. Head b. Acrosome c. Midpiece d. Tail ANS: D
REF: p. 262, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
12. Beginning with a primary spermatocyte, how long does it take for a mature sperm to be produced? a. 48 hours b. 7 days c. 36 days d. 74 days ANS: D
REF: p. 262, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
13. What structures does a sperm pass through to reach the outside? a. Seminiferous tubules, epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra b. Ejaculatory duct, ductus deferens, epididymis, seminiferous tubules, urethra c. Seminiferous tubules, ductus deferens, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, urethra d. Epididymis, seminiferous tubules, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra ANS: A
REF: p. 262, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
14. Sperm are propelled through the ductus deferens by: a. gravity. b. a series of valves. c. peristalsis. d. endoplasmic reticulum. ANS: C
REF: p. 263, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
15. Which part of the male urethra extends the length of the penis? a. Prostatic urethra b. Membranous urethra c. Spongy urethra d. Urethral orifice ANS: C
REF: p. 263, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
16. Which of the following secretes a fluid containing fructose to provide an energy source for sperm? a. Bulbourethral glands b. Epididymis c. Seminal vesicles d. Prostate gland ANS: C
REF: p. 263, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
17. Which of the following is a function of the fluid secreted by the bulbourethral glands? a. Neutralizes the acidity of the urine residue in the urethra. b. Helps to neutralize the acidity of the vagina. c. Provides lubrication for the tip of the penis during intercourse. d. All are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 263, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
18. Seminal fluid has a pH that is: a. slightly alkaline. b. slightly acidic. c. highly Alkaline. d. neutral. ANS: A
REF: p. 263, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
19. Semen consists of all of the following except: a. secretions of the seminal vesicles. b. oocytes. c. secretions of the prostate gland. d. secretions of the bulbourethral glands. ANS: B
REF: p. 265, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
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20. How many sperm are in each millimeter of semen? a. 40 to 60 thousand. b. 100 to 200 thousand. c. 10 to 20 million. d. 50 to 150 million. ANS: D
REF: p. 263, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
21. Which of the following are columns of erectile tissue located in the penis? a. Prostatic urethra and membranous urethra b. Glans penis and prepuce c. Corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum d. None are correct ANS: C
REF: p. 263, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
22. What is the name of the loose fold of skin that covers the glans penis? a. Prepuce or foreskin b. Root c. Urethral orifice d. Membranous urethra ANS: A
REF: p. 264, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
23. What is the term for the forceful discharge of semen into the urethra? a. Ejaculation b. Emission c. Coitus d. Orgasm ANS: B
REF: p. 264, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
24. All of the following are functions of testosterone except: a. promote maturation of male reproductive organs. b. stimulates spermatogenesis. c. promotes development of male secondary sex characteristics. d. initiates puberty. ANS: D
REF: p. 264, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
25. All of the following are characteristics of the prostate gland except: a. encircles the ductus deferens. b. secretes a thin, milky colored fluid. c. secretes a fluid that enhances motility of the sperm. d. is the size of a walnut. ANS: A
REF: p. 263, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
26. Which of the following is a function of the female reproductive system? a. Produces and sustains female sex cells. b. Transports ova to fertilization site. c. Provides a favorable environment for developing offspring. d. Produces female sex hormones. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 265, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.2.
27. Which of the following is located in the cortex of the ovary? a. Ovarian follicles b. Blood vessels c. Lymphatic vessels d. Nerve fibers ANS: A
REF: p. 265, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
28. The process of egg formation is known as: a. menstruation. b. oogenesis. c. hemopoiesis. d. oogonia. ANS: B
REF: p. 265, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
29. When an infant girl is born, which of the following cells are present in the ovaries? a. Primitive germ cells b. Oogonia c. Primary oocytes d. Secondary oocytes ANS: C
REF: p. 265, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
3
30. What happens to the corpus luteum if fertilization does NOT take place? a. It continues to grow and enlarge. b. It degenerates. c. It develops into a graafian follicle. d. It secretes follicle-stimulating hormone. ANS: B
REF: p. 266, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
31. What is the name of the funnel-shaped structure located at the end of the fallopian tube? a. Fimbriae b. Infundibulum c. Fundus d. External os ANS: B
REF: p. 267, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
32. What is the function of the fimbriae? a. Help propel the oocyte into the fallopian tube. b. Help propel sperm through the uterus. c. Attach the fertilized egg to the wall of the uterus. d. Secrete mucus. ANS: A
REF: p. 267, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
33. How long does it take an oocyte to move through the fallopian tube and into the uterus? a. 24 to 48 hours b. 3 days c. 7 days d. 10 days ANS: C
REF: p. 267, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
34. Where does fertilization usually take place? a. In the uterus b. In the fallopian tube c. In the vagina d. In the peritoneal cavity ANS: B
REF: pp. 271-272, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
35. The bulk of the uterine wall is made up of the: a. perimetrium. b. myometrium. c. endometrium. d. tunica albuginea. ANS: B
REF: p. 268, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
36. Which of the following uterine layers is sloughed off during menstruation? a. Stratum functionale b. Stratum basale c. Perimetrium d. Myometrium ANS: A
REF: p. 268, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
37. All of the following are characteristics of the vagina except: a. passageway for menstrual flow. b. receives penis and semen during sexual intercourse. c. provides nourishment for a developing fetus. d. serves as birth canal. ANS: C
REF: p. 268, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
38. Which of the following consists of a small mass of erectile tissue in the female that becomes erect in response to sexual
stimulation? a. Vestibule b. Clitoris c. Labia majora d. Labia minora ANS: B
REF: p. 269, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
39. During what part of the ovarian cycle does the growth of the ovarian follicle occur? a. Follicular phase b. Ovulatory phase c. Luteal phase d. Graafian phase ANS: A
REF: p. 269, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
4
40. Which of the following is a function of follicle-stimulating hormone in the female? a. Stimulates development of the corpus luteum. b. Responsible for secondary sex characteristics in the female. c. Stimulates the hypothalamus to secrete gonadotropin-releasing hormone. d. Stimulates growth of ovarian follicles. ANS: D
REF: p. 266, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
41. Which of the following is a function of leuteinizing hormone in the female? a. Stimulates growth and thickening of the endometrium. b. Stimulates the breasts to produce milk. c. Stimulates ovulation to occur. d. Causes shedding of the endometrium. ANS: C
REF: p. 269, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
42. During which part of the uterine cycle is the outer layer of the endometrium shed from the uterine wall? a. Menstrual phase b. Proliferative phase c. Secretory phase d. Menarche phase ANS: A
REF: p. 270, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
43. The cessation of the female reproductive cycle is known as: a. menarche. b. menopause. c. dysmenorrhea. d. amenorrhea. ANS: B
REF: p. 271, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
44. What is the name of the circular pigmented area that surrounds the nipple? a. Vestibule b. Ampulla c. Areola d. Prepuce ANS: B
REF: p. 271, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
45. The size and shape of the breasts is determined by: a. connective tissue. b. adipose tissue. c. ligaments. d. muscle tissue. ANS: B
REF: p. 271, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
46. Which of the following collects milk from the lobules of the breast and carries it to the nipples? a. Lactiferous ducts b. Ampulla c. Alveoli d. Lactating canals ANS: A
REF: p. 271, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
47. Which of the following hormones causes the ejection of milk from the mammary glands? a. Prolactin b. Estrogen c. Progesterone d. Oxytocin ANS: D
REF: p. 271, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
MATCHING
Male Reproductive System Directions: Match each structure with its definition. Definition a. Pouch of skin and subcutaneous tissue that contains the testes b. Tightly coiled structures in the testes in which sperm are produced c. Extends from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body d. Tightly coiled tube in which sperm complete the maturation process e. Tubular structure that transports sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct f. Opening of the urethra to the outside g. Empties sperm and fluid from the seminal vesicles into the urethra h. Male copulatory organ Structure 1. Ductus deferens 5
2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
Ejaculatory duct Epididymis Penis Scrotum Seminiferous tubules Urethra (male) Urethral orifice
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
ANS: E ANS: G ANS: D ANS: H ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C ANS: F
REF: p. 263, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 263, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 263, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 263, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 260, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 261, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 263, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 263, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
Female Reproductive System Directions: Match each structure with its definition. Definition a. Primary reproductive organs in the female b. Tubes that extend laterally from the uterus to the ovaries c. Muscular organ that receives the fertilized ovum d. Upper bulging surface of the uterus e. Main portion of the uterus f. Lower narrow region of the uterus that projects into the vagina g. Opening of the vagina to the outside h. Rounded elevation of fat that overlies the pubic symphysis i. Two fat-filled folds of skin that enclose the other female external genitalia j. Holds the uterus in place k. Fibromuscular tube that extends from the cervix to the outside l. Opening of the uterus between the body and the cervix m. Opening of the uterus from the cervix into the vagina Structure 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.
Body of the uterus Broad ligament Cervix External os Fallopian tubes Fundus Internal os Labia majora Mons pubis Ovaries Uterus Vagina Vaginal orifice
9. ANS: E 10. ANS: J 11. ANS: F 12. ANS: M 13. ANS: B 14. ANS: D 15. ANS: L 16. ANS: I 17. ANS: H 18. ANS: A 19. ANS: C 20. ANS: K 21. ANS: G
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 268, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 268, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 268, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 268, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 267, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 268, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 268, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 269, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 269, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 265, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 267, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 268, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 268, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
6
Directions: Match each word part with its word part meaning. Meaning of Word Part a. body b. ovary c. egg, ovum d. spermatozoa, sperm cells e. uterus f. producing, forming g. vulva h. to lead or carry i. menses; menstruation j. yellow k. layer l. semen m. beginning n. muscle Word Part 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36.
oogenesis ovary/o spermat/o corp/o uter/o lute/o duct/o men/o -arche my/o semin/i -stratvulv/o spermi/o
22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36.
ANS: C ANS: F ANS: B ANS: D ANS: A ANS: E ANS: J ANS: H ANS: I ANS: M ANS: N ANS: L ANS: K ANS: G ANS: D
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 281, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 281, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 281, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 282, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 281, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 282, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 281, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 281, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 281, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 281, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 281, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 281, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 282, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 282, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 282, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9.
7
Chapter 17: Medical Asepsis and the OSHA Standard Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the name given to a tiny living plant or animal that cannot be seen with the naked eye? a. Pathogen b. Microorganism c. Nonpathogen d. Microbiology ANS: B
REF: p. 284, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
2. What term is used to describe a microorganism that produces disease? a. Nonpathogen b. Pathogen c. Bacteria d. Infection ANS: B
REF: p. 284, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
3. Which of the following is NOT an example of a microorganism? a. Pinworms b. Bacteria c. Virus d. Protozoa ANS: A
REF: p. 284, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.1.
4. What term is used to describe a microorganism that does NOT produce disease? a. Sterile b. Aseptic c. Nonpathogen d. Pathogen ANS: C
REF: p. 284, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
5. What may remain on an object that is medically aseptic? a. Nonpathogens b. Pathogens c. Droplet infection d. Anaerobes ANS: A
REF: pp. 284-285, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
6. All of the following are growth requirements for microorganisms except: a. darkness. b. moisture. c. nutrition. d. acidic environment. ANS: D
REF: p. 286, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III. 4.
7. What is the name given to a microorganism that can exist only in the presence of oxygen? a. Anaerobe b. Oxygenophile c. Aerobe d. Heterotroph ANS: C
REF: p. 285, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V. 10.
8. The optimal growth temperature is: a. 98.6° F, or body temperature. b. the temperature at which a microorganism grows best. c. room temperature. d. the temperature that kills pathogens. ANS: B
REF: p. 285, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): 1V.10.
9. Microorganisms can be transmitted through: a. droplet infection. b. insects. c. contaminated food. d. contaminated hands. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 285, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.2.d.
1
10. What is the name given to a person who cannot fight off a pathogen that has entered his or her body? a. Reservoir host b. Resistant host c. Contagious d. Susceptible host ANS: D
REF: p. 285, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.2.c.
11. All of the following makes a person less resistant to a pathogen except: a. poor nutrition. b. immunizations. c. poor hygiene. d. stress. ANS: B
REF: p. 285, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.2.c.
12. Which of the following help prevent the entrance of microorganisms into the body? a. Coughing and sneezing b. Acidic nature of urine c. Hydrochloric acid in the stomach d. Mucus in the nose and respiratory tract e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 286, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.2.d.
13. Cilia remove pathogens from the body by: a. providing an acidic environment. b. engulfing pathogens. c. trapping microorganisms. d. constantly beating toward the outside. e. all are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 286, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
14. What term is used to describe practices that help to keep an object or area clean and free from infection? a. Medical asepsis b. Surgical asepsis c. Disinfection d. Sterilization ANS: A
REF: p. 284, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.3.a.
15. Which of the following are picked up in the course of daily activities, are attached loosely to the skin, and are often pathogenic? a. Transient flora b. Normal flora c. Opportunistic infections d. Resident flora ANS: A
REF: p. 287, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
16. Which of the following is the MOST important means of preventing the spread of microorganisms in the medical office? a. Disinfecting examining tables b. Gloving c. Hand hygiene d. Immunizations ANS: C
REF: p. 286, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III. 4.
17. The CDC recommends that washing the hands with soap and water be performed: a. after eating. b. when the hands are visibly soiled. c. before using the restroom. d. after taking a patient’s blood pressure. ANS: B
REF: p. 287, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III. 6.
18. All of the following are advantages of alcohol-based hand rubs except: a. they do not require rinsing. b. less time is required to perform hand hygiene. c. they remove all resident flora from the skin. d. they contain emollients to prevent drying of the hands. ANS: C
REF: p. 287, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
19. All of the following are good aseptic practices in the medical office except: a. keeping the medical office free of dirt and dust. b. wearing jewelry. c. avoiding coughs and sneezes of patients. d. carefully disposing of wastes. ANS: B
REF: p. 288, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III. 4.
2
20. When should clean disposable gloves be used? a. Administering an injection b. Performing a venipuncture c. Performing urinalysis d. All of the answer options ANS: D
REF: p. 288, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III. 6.
21. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a mild allergy to latex gloves? a. Shortness of breath b. Redness of the skin c. Itching d. Urticaria ANS: A
REF: p. 288, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I. 8.
22. All of the following are guidelines for working with gloves except: a. wearing the correct size gloves. b. keeping the fingernails short. c. storing gloves away from extremes of temperature. d. using an oil-based hand lotion before applying latex gloves. ANS: D
REF: p. 288, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I. 12.
23. The purpose of the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is to: a. improve the quality of laboratory testing in the United States. b. protect public health and the environment outside of the workplace. c. reduce the risk to employees of exposure to infectious diseases. d. prevent exposure of employees to bloodborne pathogens. ANS: C
REF: pp. 288-289, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.5.
24. Which of the following employees would be least likely to have occupational exposure? a. Medical laboratory technician b. Dental hygienist c. Electrician d. Law enforcement officer ANS: C
REF: p. 289, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.5.
25. All of the following are examples of bloodborne pathogens except: a. hepatitis B virus. b. HIV. c. hepatitis C. d. white blood cells. ANS: D
REF: p. 289, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.5.
26. Which of the following is NOT an example of a sharp? a. Needle b. Cotton-tipped applicator c. Lancet d. Scalpel ANS: B
REF: p. 289, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.5.
27. Which of the following is NOT considered an OPIM (other potentially infectious material)? a. Any body fluid visibly contaminated with blood b. Vaginal secretions c. Tears and sweat d. Semen ANS: C
REF: p. 289, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.5.
28. All of the following are examples of nonintact skin except: a. skin with dermatitis. b. burned skin. c. bruised skin. d. chapped skin. ANS: C
REF: p. 289, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.5.
29. Which of the following is an example of an exposure incident? a. Spilling blood on a laboratory worktable b. Sticking yourself with the needle after drawing up an injectable medication c. Getting blood onto your bare hands d. Splashing blood into your eyes e. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 289, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.5.
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30. How often does OSHA require employers to review and update their exposure control plan? a. Every 6 months b. Once each year c. Every 2 years d. Only when a new procedure is instituted ANS: B
REF: p. 290, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.5.
31. A biohazard warning label must be attached to all of the following except: a. container of regulated waste. b. refrigerator used to store blood. c. cabinet used to store laboratory testing supplies. d. plastic bag used to transport blood to the lab. ANS: C
REF: p. 291, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.5.
32. What term is used to describe all measures and devices that isolate or remove the bloodborne pathogens hazard from the
workplace? Engineering control Work practice control Personal protective equipment Universal precaution
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
REF: p. 292, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.5.
33. What term describes a device that makes an exposure incident involving a contaminated sharp less likely to occur? a. Postexposure prophylaxis b. Decontamination c. Personal protective equipment d. Safer medical device ANS: D
REF: p. 292, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.5.
34. All of the following are examples of work practice controls except: a. sanitizing the hands after removing gloves. b. placing a lancet in a biohazard sharps container. c. recapping a contaminated needle. d. bandaging a cut on the hands before gloving. ANS: C
REF: pp. 292-293, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.5.
35. Which of the following is an example of personal protective equipment (PPE)? a. Clean disposable gloves b. Biohazard sharps container c. Scrubs d. Prescription eyeglasses ANS: A
REF: p. 293, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.6.
36. All of the following are guidelines that should be followed when using PPE except: a. decontaminate and reuse disposable gloves. b. remove all PPE before leaving the medical office. c. replace gloves that become torn or contaminated as soon as possible. d. remove a garment penetrated by blood as soon as possible. ANS: A
REF: pp. 293-294, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.6.
37. Which of the following is a violation of the OSHA standard? a. Eating in the office laboratory b. Storing the exposure control plan on the computer c. Recapping a needle after withdrawing medication from a vial d. Refusing to get the hepatitis B vaccination e. All are correct ANS: A
REF: pp. 294-295, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.6.
38. What is the first thing you should do if a cut on your bare hand accidentally comes in contact with a patient’s blood? a. Report the incident to the provider. b. Immediately wash your hands thoroughly with soap and water. c. Apply gloves. d. Obtain a hepatitis B vaccination. ANS: B
REF: p. 306, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.5.
39. Personal protective equipment must be used to: a. draw blood. b. label a specimen container. c. measure oral temperature. d. perform a vision screening test. e. all are correct. ANS: A
REF: p. 293, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.6.
4
40. Which of the following is a violation of the OSHA standard with respect to biohazard sharps containers? a. Locating sharps containers as close as possible to the area of use b. Maintaining sharps containers in an upright position c. Reaching into a sharps container with a gloved hand. d. Replacing sharps containers when they are 3 4 full. ANS: C
REF: p. 295, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.6.
41. The hepatitis B vaccine does not have to be offered to medical office personnel when: a. the individual has previously received the vaccine. b. antibody testing has revealed that the individual is immune to hepatitis B. c. the vaccine is contraindicated for medical reasons. d. all are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 296, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.5.
42. What is required of a medical office employee if he or she declines the hepatitis B vaccine? a. Perform ten push-ups. b. Sign a hepatitis B waiver form. c. Be tested for hepatitis B antibodies. d. Double-glove when administering injections. ANS: B
REF: p. 296, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.5.
43. Which of the following used items is NOT an example of regulated medical waste? a. Suture needle. b. Microbiologic collection device. c. Gauze saturated with blood. d. Urine testing strip ANS: D
REF: p. 296, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.5.
44. Which of the following represents an error in technique when preparing and storing regulated medical waste for disposal by an
infectious waste service? a. Closing the lid of a full sharps container in the examining room b. Double-bagging regulated medical waste c. Placing a biohazard bag in a cardboard box and sealing it d. Storing a biohazard box in the front office for pickup by the medical waste service ANS: D
REF: pp. 296-297, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.6.
45. What information is included on a regulated waste tracking form? a. The type of waste b. The quantity of waste in pounds c. Where the waste is being sent d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 298, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.6.
46. The most likely means of contracting hepatitis B in the health care setting is through: a. contaminated food and water. b. needlesticks and blood splashes. c. handling contaminated equipment. d. touching a patient infected with hepatitis B. ANS: B
REF: p. 299, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
47. What is the immunization schedule for the hepatitis B vaccine? a. 0, 1, and 2 months b. 0, 2, and 4 months c. 0, 6, and 12 months d. 0, 1, and 6 months ANS: D
REF: p. 299, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.
48. The most common side effect of the hepatitis B vaccine is: a. nausea. b. hives. c. irritability. d. soreness at the injection site. ANS: D
REF: p. 299, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.
49. Patients with chronic hepatitis B face an increased risk of developing: a. liver cancer. b. pancreatitis. c. rheumatic heart disease. d. gallstones. ANS: A
REF: p. 300, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.
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50. What is the most common means of transmission for hepatitis C? a. Sharing needles for illegal injection drug use b. Coughs and sneezes from an infected person c. Sexual intercourse d. Mosquitoes ANS: A
REF: p. 300, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
51. What is the term for an infection that results from a defective immune system that cannot defend itself from pathogens normally
found in the environment? Acute infection Opportunistic infection Contagious infection Chronic infection
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
REF: p. 300, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
52. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is caused by a: a. bacteria. b. fungus. c. parasite. d. virus. ANS: D
REF: p. 300, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
53. Treatment administered to an individual after exposure to an infectious disease to prevent the disease is known as: a. immunization. b. postexposure prophylaxis. c. first aid measures. d. antiviral drug therapy. ANS: B
REF: p. 299, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.
54. AIDS cannot be transmitted through: a. casual contact. b. blood splashes. c. sexual intercourse. d. needlestick injuries. ANS: A
REF: p. 301, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
MATCHING
Directions: Match each word part meaning with its correct word part. aer/o anantienter/o -gen microNatal nonpath/o peripostSeptic
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k. l. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11.
After Against Air Disease Infection Not Pertaining to birth Producing Small Without Intestine
1. ANS: K 2. ANS: C 3. ANS: A 4. ANS: I 5. ANS: L 6. ANS: H 7. ANS: G 8. ANS: E 9. ANS: F 10. ANS: B 11. ANS: D
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 303, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 303, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 303, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 303, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 303, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 303, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 303, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 303, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 303, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 303, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 303, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9.
6
Chapter 18: Sterilization and Disinfection Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is used most often to sterilize articles in the medical office? a. Dry heat oven b. Ethylene oxide sterilizer c. Autoclave d. Chemical agents ANS: C
REF: p. 311, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
2. The agent used to destroy microorganisms on an article depends on the: a. size of the article. b. intended use of the article. c. number of microorganisms present on the article. d. weight of the article. ANS: B
REF: p. 311, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
3. Which of the following is removed from an article during sanitization? a. Blood b. Body fluids c. Tissue d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 311, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
4. What is the term for an agent that is applied to inanimate objects to kill disease-producing microorganisms? a. Disinfectant b. Antiseptic c. Fungicide d. Detergent ANS: A
REF: p. 311, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
5. Which of the following is a characteristic of bacterial spores? a. They consist of a hard, thick-walled capsule. b. They represent a resting and protective stage. c. They are more resistant to heat. d. They usually cannot be killed by disinfectants. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 311, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.1.
6. Something that is sterile is free of: a. pathogens. b. all living microorganisms. c. all living microorganisms and spores. d. nonpathogens. ANS: C
REF: p. 311, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
7. The purpose of the Hazard Communications Standard (HCS) is to ensure that employees: a. do not come in contact with hazardous chemicals. b. are protected from bloodborne pathogens in the workplace. c. practice quality control when performing laboratory tests. d. are informed of the hazards associated with chemicals in the workplace. ANS: D
REF: p. 311, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.6.
8. Which of the following is an example of a health hazard? a. Skin corrosion b. Serious eye damage c. Reproductive toxicity d. Respiratory sensitization e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 312, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.2.d.
9. Which of the following is true regarding the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals (GHS)? a. Provides consistency in the classification and labeling of chemicals. b. Classifies chemicals according to their health and physical hazards. c. Enables employees to quickly obtain information regarding hazardous chemicals. d. It is an international standard. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 312, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.5.
1
10. According to the Hazard Communications Standard, which of the following must be included on the label of a hazardous chemical? a. Product identifier b. GHS hazard pictogram c. GHS signal word d. GHS hazard statements and precautionary statements e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: pp. 312-313, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.1.b.and c.
11. Which of the following indicates the degree of severity of a hazardous chemical? a. GHS signal word b. GHS hazard statement c. GHS precautionary statement d. Product identifier ANS: A
REF: p. 313, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.1.c.
12. All of the following are characteristics of GHS pictograms except: a. consist of standardized graphic symbols. b. allow for quick identification of hazards associated with chemicals. c. consists of 8 different pictograms. d. identifies the proper handling and storage of chemicals. ANS: D
REF: p. 313, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency C (2015): XII.1. b.
13. What is the term for a phrase that describes the recommended measures to be taken to minimize or prevent adverse effects resulting
from exposure to a hazardous chemical? a. GHS hazard classification b. GHS hazard statement c. GHS precautionary statement d. GHS signal word ANS: C
REF: p. 313, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.2.d.
14. Which of the following is true regarding a SDS? a. Provides information regarding hazardous chemicals. b. Must be kept on file for each hazardous chemical stored in the workplace. c. Must be readily available to employees. d. Available from the manufacturer of the hazardous chemical. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 313, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.5.
15. Which section of SDS includes information on the care to administer to an individual who has been exposed to the hazardous
chemical? Exposure controls/personal protection First-aid measures Accidental release measures Regulatory information
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
REF: p. 317, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.5.
16. Which section of SDS includes information on the personal protective equipment that should be used with the hazardous chemical? a. Exposure controls/personal protection b. Accidental release measures c. Stability and reactivity d. Regulatory information ANS: A
REF: p. 317, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.5.
17. Which section of SDS includes information on the signs and symptoms of overexposure to the hazardous chemical? a. Exposure controls/personal protection b. Physical and chemical properties c. Stability and reactivity d. Toxicologic information ANS: D
REF: p. 318, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.5.
18. Which section of SDS includes the emergency telephone number of the manufacturer of the hazardous chemical? a. Accidental release measures b. Identification c. First-aid measures d. Hazards identification ANS: B
REF: p. 313, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.5.
19. Which of the following is accomplished through sanitization? a. Organic matter is removed from the article. b. All microorganisms are removed from the article. c. The article is sterilized. d. Spores are killed. ANS: A
REF: p. 318, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
2
20. Utility gloves over clean disposable gloves should be worn during the sanitization procedure to protect the hands from a. Bloodborne pathogens b. Infectious materials c. Irritating chemicals d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 319, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.6.
21. Which of the following represents an error in technique during the sanitization procedure? a. Using a low-sudsing detergent b. Cleansing the grooves of hinged instruments with a wire brush c. Using steel wool to remove stains from an instrument d. Keeping sharp instruments separate from other instruments ANS: C
REF: p. 320, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
22. Why should a chemical not be used past its expiration date? a. It may cause stains on an instrument. b. It may lose its potency. c. It may cause an instrument to malfunction d. It may leave residue on an instrument ANS: B
REF: p. 319, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
23. What should be used when cleaning the surface of an instrument? a. Antiseptic wipe b. Nylon brush c. Stainless steel wire brush d. Soft cloth ANS: B
REF: p. 320, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
24. Which of the following indicates an instrument is defective and not in proper working condition? a. The blades of the instrument are bent. b. The tips of an instrument approximately tightly when closed. c. The cutting edge of a sharp instrument is smooth and devoid of nicks. d. Thumb forceps have sufficient tension to grasp objects tightly. e. All are correct. ANS: A
REF: p. 320, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
25. What is the purpose of lubricating an instrument? a. Makes the instrument last longer and function better. b. Prevents rusting of the instrument. c. Assists in killing pathogens on the instrument. d. Reduces the time needed to sterilize the instrument. ANS: A
REF: p. 320, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
26. High-level disinfection is a process that: a. destroys all pathogenic microorganisms. b. destroys all microorganisms and spores. c. destroys all microorganisms except tubercle bacilli. d. destroys all microorganisms, but not spores. ANS: D
REF: p. 320, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
27. Which of the following items requires high-level disinfection? a. Stethoscope b. Flexible fiberoptic sigmoidoscope c. Surgical instruments d. Examining table ANS: B
REF: p. 322, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
28. Which of the following is an example of a critical item? a. Percussion hammer b. Stethoscope c. Surgical instrument d. Tongue blade ANS: C
REF: p. 322, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
29. Low-level disinfection cannot be used for which of the following? a. Examining tables b. Countertops c. Floors d. Flexible fiberoptic sigmoidoscope ANS: D
REF: p. 321, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.3.a.
3
30. Which of the following should be used to disinfect a laboratory work surface? a. Soap and water b. Phenol c. Glutaraldehyde d. Iodine ANS: B
REF: p. 321, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.3.
31. The most common temperature and pressure used for autoclaving is: a. 320° F at 20 pounds of pressure/square inch. b. 145° F at 20 pounds of pressure/square inch. c. 212° F at 15 pounds of pressure/square inch. d. 250° F at 15 pounds of pressure/square inch. ANS: D
REF: p. 323, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
32. Autoclave tape: a. ensures whether sterilization has occurred. b. indicates whether the article was in the autoclave. c. can be used only to close the pack. d. plays “Jingle Bells” when it has been exposed to steam. ANS: B
REF: p. 324, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
33. Sterilization strips should be positioned: a. on the bottom tray of the autoclave. b. on the top tray of the autoclave. c. in the center of the wrapped pack. d. on the outside of the pack. ANS: C
REF: p. 324, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
34. What should be done if a sterilization indicator does not change properly? a. Check for a problem with the sterilization technique. b. Check the working order of the autoclave. c. Review the manufacturer’s guidelines for proper operation of the autoclave. d. Resterilize the article. e. All are correct. ANS: C
REF: p. 323, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
35. How should sterilization indicators be stored? a. In a cool, dry area b. In the refrigerator c. In a warm, moist area d. In an airtight container ANS: A
REF: p. 324, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
36. Which of the following is the best means of determining the effectiveness of the sterilization process? a. The temperature gauge on the autoclave b. Biologic indicators c. Sterilization strips d. Autoclave tape ANS: B
REF: p. 324, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
37. The purpose of wrapping articles before they are sterilized in the autoclave is to: a. permit better steam penetration during autoclaving. b. protect the articles from recontamination after autoclaving. c. ensure complete destruction of all pathogens. d. protect the articles from damage. e. all are correct. ANS: B
REF: p. 325, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
38. The wrapper used to autoclave articles should: a. prevent contaminants from getting in during handling and storage. b. be made of a substance that does not tear or puncture easily. c. be made of a substance not affected by the sterilization process. d. allow steam to penetrate it. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 325, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
39. All of the following are characteristics of sterilization pouches except: a. they provide good visibility of the contents. b. a sterilization indicator is usually present on the pouch. c. they can be labeled. d. they are reusable. ANS: D
REF: p. 326, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
4
40. What type of water should be used in the autoclave? a. Salt water b. Tap water c. Distilled water d. Mineral water ANS: C
REF: p. 326, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
41. Which of the following represents an error in technique when loading the autoclave? a. Placing small packs 1 2 inch apart b. c. d.
Placing glassware on their sides Placing a dressing pack in a vertical position Positioning sterilization pouches on their sides
ANS: A
REF: p. 326, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
42. The proper time for sterilizing an article in the autoclave depends on: a. the type of autoclave being used. b. what is being sterilized. c. the type of sterilization indicator being used. d. the intended use of the article. ANS: B
REF: p. 328, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
43. Removing a wet pack from the autoclave results in: a. rusting of metal instruments. b. dulling of sharp instruments. c. contamination of the pack. d. invalid results on the sterilization indicator. e. all are correct. ANS: C
REF: p. 328, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
44. Which of the following must be resterilized? a. A pack that has been dropped. b. A pack that has opened up. c. A pack that has been crushed. d. A pack that is torn. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 328, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
45. How should sterilized packs be stored? a. In a clean dry area b. In an area free from dust and insects c. With the most recently sterilized article placed in the back d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 328, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
46. The inside of the autoclave should be wiped every day with a: a. damp cloth. b. disinfectant. c. low-sudsing detergent. d. scouring pad. ANS: A
REF: p. 329, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
47. Dry heat is preferred for sterilizing: a. disposable syringes. b. vaginal specula. c. flexible sigmoidoscopes. d. instruments with sharp cutting edges. ANS: D
REF: p. 329, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
48. The recommended exposure time and temperature for a dry heat oven is: a. 250° F for 1 hour. b. 320° F for 1 to 2 hours. c. 320° F for 15 to 20 minutes. d. 212° F for 20 to30 minutes. ANS: B
REF: p. 329, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
49. Which of the following sterilization methods is often used by medical manufacturers to sterilize disposable items? a. Cold sterilization b. Dry heat oven c. Ethylene oxide gas d. Autoclave ANS: C
REF: p. 329, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
5
50. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding cold sterilization with a chemical agent? a. The chemical must be designated as a sterilant by the EPA. b. Items must be submerged in the chemical for 6 to 24 hours. c. Each time a new item is added to the chemical, the clock must be reset for the d.
entire amount of time. It is the preferred method for sterilizing instruments with sharp cutting edges.
ANS: D
REF: p. 329, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.3.
6
Chapter 19: Vital Signs Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What name is given to the heat-regulating center of the body? a. Medulla b. Hypothalamus c. Pituitary gland d. Olfactory lobe ANS: B
REF: p. 343, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
2. Most of the heat produced in the body is through: a. shivering. b. perspiration. c. voluntary muscle contractions. d. digestion. ANS: C
REF: p. 343, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
3. The transfer of heat from one object to another is known as: a. conduction. b. radiation. c. convection. d. microwaves. ANS: A
REF: p. 343, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
4. What is the normal range for body temperature? a. 96° to 98° F b. 97° to 99° F c. 98° to 99° F d. 97° to 100.4° F ANS: B
REF: p. 344, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
5. Which of the following represents the average normal body temperature? a. 37.8° C b. 96.8° F c. 98.6° F d. 99.6° F ANS: C
REF: p. 344, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
6. A temperature of 100° F is classified as: a. normal. b. hyperpyrexia. c. hypothermia. d. low-grade fever. ANS: D
REF: p. 344, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
7. A temperature of 103° F is classified as: a. hyperpyrexia. b. pyrexia. c. hypopyrexia. d. low-grade fever. ANS: B
REF: p. 344, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
8. A temperature of 97.6° F is classified as: a. normal. b. hypothermia. c. subnormal. d. low-grade fever. ANS: A
REF: p. 344, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
9. Which of the following terms refers to a fever? a. Hypothermia b. Febrile c. Dehydration d. Afebrile ANS: B
REF: p. 345, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
1
10. Which of the following does NOT tend to increase body temperature? a. Crying b. Vigorous physical exercise c. Pregnancy d. Cold weather ANS: D
REF: p. 345, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
11. You take Mrs. Main’s temperature at 7:00 a.m.; it reads 97.8° F. At 3:00 p.m., you take her temperature again; it reads 99° F. How
do you account for the difference? During sleep, body metabolism slows down. Mrs. Main normally runs a low body temperature. During sleep, muscle activity increases. Women normally run a higher body temperature than men.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
REF: p. 345, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
12. Which of the following symptoms is experienced by a patient when his or her temperature begins to rise? a. Coldness and chills b. Perspiration c. Bradycardia d. Hyperventilation e. All are correct ANS: A
REF: p. 345, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
13. What is the name given to the type of fever in which a wide range of temperature fluctuations occurs, all of which are above
normal? Crisis Remittent Intermittent Continuous
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
REF: p. 346, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
14. What is the name given to the type of fever in which the temperature fluctuates minimally but always remains elevated? a. Stadium b. Remittent c. Intermittent d. Continuous ANS: D
REF: p. 346, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I. 9.
15. Which of the following are symptoms that may occur during the course of a fever? a. Headache b. Increased pulse and respirations c. Increased thirst d. Loss of appetite e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 345, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
16. A vague sense of body discomfort, weakness, and fatigue is known as: a. the blahs. b. malaise. c. crisis. d. adventitious. ANS: B
REF: p. 345, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
17. Before taking body temperature with an electronic thermometer, what must happen? a. The probe must be covered with a disposable cover. b. The thermometer must be shaken down to 96° F. c. The thermometer must be calibrated. d. The ear canal must be straightened. ANS: A
REF: p. 347, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
18. The axilla is recommended as the preferred site for taking the temperature of: a. an infant. b. a preschooler. c. an adult. d. an uncooperative patient. ANS: B
REF: p. 347, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
19. When taking axillary body temperature, the arm should be held close to the body to: a. allow for proper placement of the thermometer. b. prevent irritation to the skin. c. prevent the transfer of pathogens. d. prevent air currents from affecting the reading. ANS: D
REF: p. 346, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
2
20. If an axillary temperature of 100° F was taken orally, it would register as: a. 98° F. b. 99° F. c. 100° F. d. 101° F. ANS: D
REF: p. 347, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
21. The rectal site should not be used to take the temperature of: a. a newborn. b. an unconscious patient. c. an infant. d. a mouth-breathing patient. ANS: A
REF: p. 347, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
22. If a rectal temperature of 99° F was taken orally, it would register as: a. 97° F. b. 98° F. c. 99° F. d. 100° F. ANS: B
REF: p. 347, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
23. Which of the following probes should be selected to measure rectal body temperature with an electronic thermometer? a. Blue-collared probe b. Red-collared probe c. Pink-collared probe d. Green-collared probe ANS: B
REF: p. 347, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
24. A rectal thermometer must be lubricated before insertion to prevent: a. the transfer of pathogens. b. an inaccurate temperature reading. c. the thermometer from breaking. d. irritation of the rectal mucosa. ANS: D
REF: p. 377, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
25. How far should the probe be inserted when measuring the rectal temperature of an infant? a. 1 2 inch b. c. d.
inch 1 inch 1 1 2 inches 1
4
ANS: A
REF: p. 377, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
26. After measurement of rectal temperature with an electronic thermometer, the probe cover should be ejected into: a. the regular trash. b. a biohazard sharps container. c. a biohazard waste container. d. a chemical disinfectant. ANS: A
REF: p. 378, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.6.
27. Which of the following may occur if the lens of a tympanic membrane thermometer is dirty? a. The lens may break. b. The reading may be falsely low. c. The tympanic membrane may become irritated. d. The reading may be falsely high. ANS: B
REF: p. 350, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
28. The lens of a tympanic membrane thermometer should be cleaned with: a. a mild detergent. b. an abrasive cleanser. c. an antiseptic (alcohol) wipe. d. a soft tissue. ANS: C
REF: p. 350, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
29. What should be done with a used probe cover for a tympanic membrane thermometer? a. It should be ejected into a regular waste container. b. It should be ejected into a biohazard waste container. c. It should be cleaned with an antiseptic and reused. d. It should be left on the thermometer and used on the next patient. ANS: A
REF: p. 348, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.6.
3
30. Why is the temporal artery a good site for measuring body temperature? a. It is easily accessible. b. It has a constant, steady flow of blood. c. It is located close to the surface of the skin. d. All are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 347, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
31. The temporal artery site can be used to measure body temperature in: a. infants. b. children. c. adults. d. elderly. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 347, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
32. How does a temporal artery temperature reading compare with an oral body temperature reading? a. Approximately 1° F higher than an oral reading b. Approximately 1° F lower than an oral reading c. Approximately 2° F higher than an oral reading d. It is the same as an oral reading ANS: A
REF: p. 347, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
33. Which of the following could result in an inaccurate temporal artery temperature reading? a. Having the patient remove his SpongeBob hat b. Using a probe with a shiny lens c. Quickly scanning the forehead d. Keeping the button continually depressed while scanning ANS: C
REF: p. 350, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
34. When the patient’s forehead is sweating, which of the following ensures an accurate temporal artery temperature reading? a. Cleaning the lens with an antiseptic wipe b. Brushing the patient’s hair to the side c. Applying a probe cover d. Taking the temperature behind the earlobe ANS: D
REF: p. 350, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
35. Chemical thermometers must be stored in: a. the freezer. b. a dry heat oven. c. a watertight container. d. a cool area. ANS: D
REF: p. 350, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
36. The purpose of measuring pulse includes all of the following except: a. to assess pulse rate after special procedures that affect heart functioning. b. to determine if the patient is developing hypertension. c. to assess pulse rate after the administration of medications that affect heart d.
functioning. to establish the patient’s baseline pulse rate.
ANS: B
REF: p. 352, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
37. Excessive pressure should not be applied when measuring radial pulse because: a. the pulse may increase. b. the pulse may decrease. c. it could close off the radial artery, and the pulse may not be felt. d. it could affect the rhythm of the pulse. ANS: C
REF: p. 352, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
38. Which of the following individuals has the fastest pulse rate? a. Infant b. School-age child c. Adolescent d. Adult ANS: A
REF: p. 350, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
39. How does physical exercise temporarily affect the pulse? a. Increases the pulse rate. b. Decreases the pulse rate. c. Has no effect. d. Results in a dysrhythmia. ANS: A
REF: p. 351, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
4
40. For an artery to be considered as a pulse site, it must be: a. located in a closed cavity. b. located away from major nerves. c. located over a firm tissue such as bone. d. located close to the heart. ANS: C
REF: p. 351, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
41. Where is the radial pulse located? a. On the thumb side of the wrist b. In the center of the antecubital space c. On the little finger side of the wrist d. On the anterior side of the neck ANS: A
REF: p. 351, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
42. The apical pulse is located: a. in the fourth intercostal space, at the left margin of the sternum. b. in the fifth intercostal space, at the junction of the left midclavicular line. c. on the anterior side of the neck, slightly to one side of the midline. d. on the fourth rib, at the junction of the right margin of the sternum. ANS: B
REF: p. 351, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
43. Where is the popliteal pulse located? a. In front of the ear, just above eye level b. In the middle of the groin c. On the anterior side of the neck d. In the back of the knee ANS: D
REF: p. 352, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
44. Where is the femoral pulse located? a. In the posterior hip region b. In the back of the knee c. In the middle of the groin d. On the anterior side of the neck ANS: C
REF: p. 352, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
45. Which of the following pulse sites can be used to assess circulation to the foot? a. Posterior tibial b. Ulnar c. Femoral d. Popliteal ANS: A
REF: p. 352, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
46. Which of the following pulse sites is often used to monitor pulse during exercise? a. Temporal b. Carotid c. Ulnar d. Dorsalis pedis ANS: B
REF: p. 352, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
47. What is the normal range for the resting pulse rate of an adult? a. 60 to 100 beats/min b. 60 to 80 beats/min c. 70 to 90 beats/min d. 80 to 100 beats/min ANS: A
REF: pp. 352-353, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
48. Which of the following terms describes an abnormally fast pulse rate? a. Tachypnea b. Bounding c. Tachycardia d. Bradycardia ANS: C
REF: p. 352, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
49. You are measuring the pulse and find it has a normal rhythm and volume. How should you document this? a. Dysrhythmia and regular b. Bounding and strong c. Regular and strong d. Thready and regular ANS: C
REF: p. 353, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
5
50. You are measuring the pulse and find it feels weak and rapid. How would you document this? a. Bounding b. Thready c. Tachycardia d. Bradycardia ANS: B
REF: p. 353, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
51. You are taking the pulse and find it feels extremely strong and full. How would you document this? a. Bounding b. Thready c. Bradycardia d. Tachycardia ANS: A
REF: p. 353, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
52. Which of the following individuals may normally exhibit bradycardia? a. A trained athlete b. An infant c. An elderly person d. A diabetic patient ANS: A
REF: p. 353, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
53. What term is used to describe an irregularity in the heart’s rhythm? a. Fibrillation b. Ectopic beat c. Bradycardia d. Dysrhythmia ANS: D
REF: p. 353, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
54. Which of the following is used to describe the condition in which the radial pulse rate is less than the apical pulse? a. Apical-radial pulse b. Pulse pressure c. Pulse deficit d. Atrial fibrillation ANS: C
REF: p. 353, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
55. Which of the following tests might be ordered for a patient with a dysrhythmia? a. MRI b. Heart catheterization c. ECG d. Blood gas analysis ANS: C
REF: p. 353, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
56. One respiration consists of: a. one inhalation. b. one exhalation. c. one inhalation and one exhalation. d. the opening and closing of the valves of the heart. ANS: C
REF: p. 354, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
57. During exhalation: a. oxygen is taken into the lungs. b. the diaphragm descends. c. the lungs expand. d. carbon dioxide is removed from the lungs. ANS: D
REF: p. 354, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
58. Internal respiration is the: a. exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and blood. b. removal of carbon dioxide from the lungs. c. exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and body cells. d. measurement of the oxygen saturation of the blood. ANS: C
REF: p. 354, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
59. The control center for involuntary respiration is the: a. medulla. b. thalamus. c. hypothalamus. d. olfactory lobe. ANS: A
REF: p. 354, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
6
60. The normal respiratory rate of an adult ranges from: a. 8 to 16 respirations per minute b. 10 to 18 respirations per minute c. 12 to 20 respirations per minute d. 16 to 22 respirations per minute ANS: C
REF: p. 355, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
61. Which of the following individuals has the slowest respiratory rate? a. Newborn b. Infant c. Preschool child d. Adult ANS: D
REF: p. 355, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
62. What term is used to describe an abnormal decrease in the rate and depth of respiration? a. Tachypnea b. Hypopnea c. Orthopnea d. Bradycardia ANS: B
REF: p. 356, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
63. What term is used to describe breathing that is easier in a sitting position? a. Orthopnea b. Dyspnea c. Bradypnea d. Eupnea ANS: A
REF: p. 356, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
64. What type of breathing may occur with a panic attack? a. Wheezing b. Bradypnea c. Hyperventilation d. Hypoxia ANS: C
REF: p. 356, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
65. What term is used to describe temporary cessation of breathing? a. Hypoxia b. Hypopnea c. Apnea d. Anoxia ANS: C
REF: p. 356, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
66. What term is used to describe a bluish discoloration of the skin caused by a lack of oxygen? a. Cyanosis b. Hypoxia c. Apnea d. Ischemia ANS: A
REF: p. 356, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
67. Which of the following individuals would be least likely to have dyspnea? a. A patient with chronic bronchitis b. A patient with arthritis c. A patient with emphysema d. A patient with asthma ANS: B
REF: p. 356, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
68. Which of the following conditions is often characterized by hypopnea? a. Sleep disorders b. Dehydration c. Fever d. Chills ANS: A
REF: p. 356, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
69. If a patient’s pulse rate is 80 beats/min, the patient’s respirations would most likely be: a. 14 respirations per minute. b. 16 respirations per minute. c. 18 respirations per minute. d. 20 respirations per minute. ANS: D
REF: p. 355, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
7
70. Pulse oximetry gives the provider information on: a. the rate and depth of respiration. b. cardiac dysrhythmias. c. the amount of oxygen being delivered to the tissues. d. circulation to the extremities. ANS: C
REF: p. 357, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
71. The function of hemoglobin is to: a. transport oxygen in the body. b. defend the body against infection. c. assist in blood clotting. d. transport nutrients to the cells. ANS: A
REF: p. 357, I.5, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
72. The abbreviation used to document oxygen saturation as measured by a pulse oximeter is: a. SaO2. b. PCO2. c. PO2. d. SpO2. ANS: D
REF: p. 357, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
73. The oxygen saturation level of a healthy individual is: a. 95% to 99%. b. 90% to 95%. c. 85% to 90%. d. 75% to 85%. ANS: A
REF: p. 358, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
74. What term designates a decrease in the oxygen saturation of the blood? a. Apnea b. Hypoxemia c. Hypopnea d. Hypoxia ANS: B
REF: p. 358, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
75. Which of the following will NOT cause a decrease in the SpO2 reading? a. Pneumonia b. Asthma c. Emphysema d. Gastritis ANS: D
REF: p. 358, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
76. The purpose of the power-on self-test (POST) performed by a pulse oximeter is to: a. determine if the battery is low. b. check the internal systems of the oximeter. c. calculate the patient’s oxygen saturation level. d. search for the patient’s pulse. ANS: B
REF: p. 359, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
77. Proper care of the pulse oximeter includes: a. cleaning the probe with a disinfectant cleaner. b. autoclaving the probe for 20 minutes. c. lifting the monitor by the cable. d. cleaning the monitor with an abrasive cleaner. e. all are correct. ANS: A
REF: p. 360, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
78. Which of the following does NOT affect the SpO2 reading? a. Dark fingernail polish b. Darkly pigmented skin c. Bruises d. Artificial fingernails ANS: B
REF: p. 360, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
79. Which of the following prevents ambient light from interfering with the SpO2 reading? a. Cleansing the placement site with an alcohol wipe b. Warming the probe placement site c. Covering the probe with a washcloth d. Proper alignment of the probe on the patient’s finger ANS: C
REF: p. 360, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
8
80. What effect can patient movement have on the pulse oximetry procedure? a. Prevents the probe from picking up the pulse signal. b. Causes a decrease in blood flow to the finger. c. Prevents the probe from being aligned properly. d. Causes the photodetector to absorb too much light. ANS: A
REF: p. 360, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
81. If the patient’s fingers are cold when performing pulse oximetry, the medical assistant should: a. take the reading on another finger. b. use a disposable probe to take the reading. c. cleanse the probe with an antiseptic wipe. d. ask the patient to rub his or her fingers together. ANS: D
REF: p. 360, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
82. Which of the following is NOT used as a probe placement site? a. Toe b. Earlobe c. Finger of an arm to which an automatic blood pressure cuff is applied d. Index finger ANS: C
REF: p. 359, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
83. Blood pressure measures: a. the contraction and relaxation of the heart. b. the number of times the heart beats/min. c. the force exerted on the walls of the arteries by the blood. d. the expansion and recoiling of the aorta. ANS: C
REF: p. 360, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
84. The phase in the cardiac cycle in which the heart relaxes between contractions is known as: a. diastole. b. systole. c. pulse pressure. d. baseline recording. ANS: A
REF: p. 360, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
85. The systolic blood pressure represents the: a. pressure in the arteries when the ventricles contract. b. pressure in the arteries when the heart relaxes. c. pressure in the arteries when the atria contract. d. expansion and recoiling of the aorta. ANS: A
REF: p. 360, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
86. What term is used to describe the point of lesser pressure on the arterial walls when assessing blood pressure? a. Systolic pressure b. Diastolic pressure c. Diastole d. Hypotension e. Pulse pressure ANS: B
REF: p. 360, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
87. Normal blood pressure for an adult is: a. 120/80 mm Hg or higher. b. less than 120/80 mm Hg. c. 110 to 140 over 60 to 90 mm Hg. d. 70 to 80 beats/min. ANS: B
REF: p. 360, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
88. Blood pressure is measured in: a. units. b. degrees. c. beats/min. d. millimeters of mercury. ANS: D
REF: p. 360, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
89. Which of the following BP readings can be classified as hypertension, stage 1? a. 116/78 mm Hg b. 120/80 mm Hg c. 130/88 mm Hg d. 144/92 mm Hg e. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 361, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
9
90. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing hypertension? a. Obesity b. Smoking c. Sleep apnea d. Alcohol consumption ANS: C
REF: pp. 361-362, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.
91. If a patient’s blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg, the patient’s pulse pressure would be: a. 45. b. 85. c. 130. d. 215. ANS: A
REF: p. 361, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
92. Which of the following has an effect on blood pressure? a. Pain b. Bladder distention c. Body position d. Smoking e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 362, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
93. What type of cuff would probably be needed to measure blood pressure on an overweight adult weighing 250 pounds? a. Small adult b. Adult c. Child d. Thigh ANS: D
REF: p. 364, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
94. Over which artery is the stethoscope placed when taking blood pressure? a. Radial b. Brachial c. Apical d. Carotid ANS: B
REF: p. 369, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
95. When measuring blood pressure, the patient’s arm should be positioned: a. above heart level. b. at heart level. c. across the chest. d. with the palm facing downward. ANS: B
REF: p. 367, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
96. Which of the following indicates that the proper cuff size has been selected? a. The cuff fits snugly. b. The bladder of the cuff encircles 80% of the circumference of the arm. c. The cuff is at least 1 inch above the bend in the elbow. d. The bladder is centered over the antecubital space. ANS: B
REF: p. 364, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
97. All of the following are advantages of using an automated blood pressure monitor except: a. the cuff does not have to be manually inflated. b. the blood pressure measurement is easy to read. c. can be used to measure blood pressure in a patient with a dysrhythmia. d. the brachial artery does not need to be located. ANS: C
REF: p. 369, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
98. Which of the following represents an error in (manual) blood pressure technique? a. Directing the ear pieces of the stethoscope slightly forward in the ear b. Placing the cuff 2 inches above the bend in the elbow c. Positioning the manometer at a viewing distance of 2 feet d. Releasing the air in the cuff as slowly as possible ANS: D
REF: p. 367, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
99. When measuring blood pressure, the first clear tapping sound represents: a. the systolic pressure. b. phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds. c. the diastolic pressure. d. the palpatory blood pressure reading. ANS: A
REF: p. 368, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
10
100. When measuring blood pressure, the Korotkoff phase in which the sounds disappear is: a. phase I. b. phase III. c. phase IV. d. phase V. ANS: D
REF: p. 368, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
MATCHING
Directions: Match each word part meaning with its correct word part. Word Part a. bradyb. cardi/o c. cost/o d. dyse. euf. -ex g. hyperh. hypoi. -ia j. ink. interl. -metry m. orth/o n. -osis o. ox/i p. -pnea q. pyr/o r. -scope s. tachyt. therm/o Meaning of Word Part 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Abnormal condition Above, excessive Below, deficient Between Breathing Condition of diseased or abnormal state Difficult, painful, abnormal Fast Fever Heart Heat In, into Measurement Normal, good Outside, outward Oxygen Rib Slow Straight To view, to examine
1. ANS: N 2. ANS: G 3. ANS: H 4. ANS: K 5. ANS: P 6. ANS: I 7. ANS: D 8. ANS: S 9. ANS: Q 10. ANS: B 11. ANS: T 12. ANS: J 13. ANS: L 14. ANS: E 15. ANS: F 16. ANS: O 17. ANS: C 18. ANS: A 19. ANS: M 20. ANS: R
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 371, IV.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 371, IV.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 371, IV.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 372, IV.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 372, IV.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 371, IV.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 371, IV.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 372, IV.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 370, IV.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 371, IV.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 372, IV.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 372, IV.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 372, IV.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 371, IV.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 371, IV.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 372, IV.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 371, IV.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 371, IV.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 372, IV.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 372, IV.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
11
Chapter 20: The Physical Examination Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is NOT included in a complete patient examination? a. The health history b. Therapeutic procedures c. The physical examination d. Laboratory tests ANS: B
REF: p. 394, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.e.
2. Which of the following may require a physical examination? a. Prerequisite for employment b. Participation in sports c. School admission d. Summer camp attendance e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 394, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.e.
3. What term describes the probable course and outcome of a disease? a. Cure b. Prognosis c. Final diagnosis d. Therapy ANS: B
REF: p. 394, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
4. What term is used to describe a tentative diagnosis obtained through the evaluation of the health history and the physical
examination? Differential diagnosis Final diagnosis Clinical diagnosis Physical diagnosis
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
REF: p. 394, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
5. The process of determining which of two diseases that have similar symptoms is causing a patient’s illness is known as a: a. differential diagnosis. b. final diagnosis. c. clinical diagnosis. d. tentative diagnosis. ANS: A
REF: p. 394, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
6. Which of the following is an example of a chronic illness? a. Strep throat b. Chickenpox c. Arthritis d. Poison ivy ANS: C
REF: p. 395, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
7. What term describes an illness characterized by symptoms that have a rapid onset, that are severe and intense, and that subside after
a short period? a. Chronic illness b. Self-limiting illness c. Acute illness d. Fatal illness ANS: C
REF: p. 395, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
8. A risk factor means that: a. a patient will develop a certain disease. b. a patient must avoid foods that trigger an allergic reaction. c. a patient has a genetic disorder. d. the chances are increased of a patient developing a certain disease. ANS: D
REF: p. 394, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
9. Which of the following is an example of a therapeutic procedure? a. Electrocardiography b. Antibiotic injection c. CT scan d. Sigmoidoscopy ANS: B
REF: p. 395, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
1
10. What is the name of the instrument used to examine the interior of the eye? a. Otoscope b. Ophthalmoscope c. Rhinoscope d. Stethoscope ANS: B
REF: p. 396, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
11. What is the name of the instrument used to examine the external ear canal and tympanic membrane? a. Otoscope b. Ophthalmoscope c. Stethoscope d. Laryngoscope ANS: A
REF: p. 396, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
12. The function of a speculum is to: a. measure intraocular pressure. b. grasp tissue and prevent it from slipping. c. clamp off blood vessels and establish hemostasis. d. open a body orifice or cavity for viewing. ANS: D
REF: p. 396, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
13. How should a patient be identified? a. By phone number and address b. By hair and eye color c. By SSN d. By name and date of birth ANS: D
REF: p. 397, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
14. The process of measuring the patient is known as: a. inspection. b. mensuration. c. micturition. d. calibration. ANS: B
REF: p. 397, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
15. The reason for weighing a prenatal patient is to: a. detect the presence of twins. b. determine if the fetus is growing. c. determine the due date. d. ensure the placenta is developing normally. ANS: B
REF: p. 397, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.
16. What is the reason for weighing a child? a. To observe the pattern of growth b. To determine medication dosage c. To identify nutritional problems d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 399, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
17. Which of the following need NOT be removed before weighing a patient? a. Shoes b. Jewelry c. Heavy sweater d. Jacket ANS: B
REF: p. 401, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
18. The lower calibration bar of a balance-beam scale is divided into: a. 1-lb increments. b. 2-lb increments. c. 25-lb increments. d. 50-lb increments. ANS: D
REF: p. 401, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.1.
19. An adult patient’s weight should be measured to the nearest: a. quarter-pound. b. half-pound. c. pound. d. ounce. ANS: A
REF: p. 401, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.1.
2
20. One pound is equal to: a. 10 oz. b. 2.2 kg. c. 1000 g. d. 200 kg. ANS: B
REF: p. 401, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.1.
21. The patient’s height should be documented in: a. inches. b. feet and inches. c. centimeters. d. meters. ANS: B
REF: p. 402, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.1.
22. The patient’s height should be measured to the nearest: a. 1 8 inch. b. c. d.
inch. 2 inch. 1 inch. 1
4
1
ANS: B
REF: p. 402, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.1.
23. The height of an adult patient usually is measured only: a. when the patient is ill. b. during the first office visit. c. when medication has been prescribed. d. after a loss of weight. ANS: B
REF: p. 399
24. Using proper body mechanics helps to prevent which of the following? a. Musculoskeletal injuries b. Arthritis c. Bursitis d. Chronic disease ANS: A
REF: p. 406, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.7.
25. Which of the following is NOT a curvature of the vertebral column? a. Cervical b. Thoracic c. Lumbar d. Coccyx ANS: D
REF: p. 403, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
26. Which of the following principles should be followed when practicing proper body mechanics? a. Do not reach for something farther than 14 to 18 inches away. b. Store lighter items on higher shelves. c. If possible, push or slide an item rather than lifting it. d. Use the large muscles of the arms and legs when lifting an object. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 404, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.7.
27. What should you do if a patient starts to fall? a. Hold the patient in an upright position. b. Form a wide base of support and gradually lower the patient to the floor. c. Let the patient fall. d. Call out for assistance and try to break the patient’s fall. ANS: B
REF: p. 404, XI.2, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.7.
28. Which of the following steps should NOT be followed when lifting an object? a. Determine if you can safely lift the object. b. Stand in front of the object with the feet 6 to 8 inches apart. c. Bend at the hips to lift the object. d. Keep the back straight when lifting the object. ANS: C
REF: p. 405, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.7.
29. The purpose of draping a patient is to: a. make it easier for the provider to examine the patient. b. assist the provider in making a diagnosis. c. protect the patient from pathogens. d. provide patient with warmth and modesty. e. All are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 406, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
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30. The lithotomy position is used to examine the: a. vagina. b. abdomen. c. sigmoid colon. d. breasts. ANS: A
REF: p. 417, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
31. Sims’ position is used to perform which of the following? a. Breast examination b. Flexible sigmoidoscopy c. Pelvic examination d. Urinary catheterization ANS: B
REF: p. 418, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII. 7.
32. A patient has a burn on his lower back from lying on a heating pad. For his physical examination, you place him in which of the
following positions? Lithotomy Dorsal recumbent Supine Prone
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
REF: p. 415, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.7.
33. What is the purpose of a transfer belt? a. Provides a secure grip for holding onto a patient. b. Helps in controlling a patient’s movements. c. Helps prevent musculoskeletal injuries. d. Makes the transfer more comfortable for the patient. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 406, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.7.
34. Which of the following can be generated by an EMR program from the input of findings from the provider? a. Patient statements b. Physical examination report c. Insurance forms d. Patient’s final diagnosis ANS: B
REF: p. 407, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): VI.12.
35. Which of the following is an example of palpation? a. Measuring visual acuity b. Assessing the fetal heart rate c. Assessing a patient’s mental status d. Performing a breast examination ANS: D
REF: p. 407, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
36. Which of the following examinations requires the use of deep palpation? a. Bimanual pelvic examination b. Breast examination c. Detection of areas of tenderness d. Detection of swelling ANS: A
REF: p. 408
37. Which of the following is an example of percussion? a. Measuring pulse b. Testing reflexes with a rubber hammer c. Testing hearing with a tuning fork d. Listening to breath sounds ANS: B
REF: p. 408, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
38. Which of the following is an example of auscultation? a. Measuring body temperature b. Measuring blood pressure c. Urine testing d. Testing pupillary reaction ANS: B
REF: p. 408, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
39. Before applying a stethoscope chest piece to the patient’s skin, it should be: a. soaked in bleach. b. warmed. c. autoclaved. d. calibrated. ANS: B
REF: p. 408, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
4
40. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of asking a patient if he or she needs to void before the physical examination? a. To obtain a urine specimen b. To make the examination easier c. To prevent urinary incontinence d. To provide for patient comfort ANS: C
REF: p. 397, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.e.
41. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the medical assistant during the physical examination? a. Positioning the patient b. Handing the provider instruments and supplies c. Listening to the patient’s heart and lung sounds d. Providing the patient with educational information ANS: C
REF: pp. 408-409
MATCHING
Directions: Match each word part meaning with its correct word part. Word Part a. audi/o b. bar/o c. diad. -gnosis e. -iatrics f. -meter g. ophthalm/o h. ot/o i. -scope Meaning of Word Part 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
A branch of medicine Ear Eye Hearing Instrument used to measure Knowledge Through, complete To view, to examine Weight
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
ANS: E ANS: H ANS: G ANS: A ANS: F ANS: D ANS: C ANS: I ANS: B
REF: p. 409, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.10. REF: p. 410, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 410, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 409, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 409, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 410, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 410, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 410, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 409, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
5
Chapter 21: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Visual acuity refers to: a. Sharpness of vision. b. The ability to distinguish colors. c. An error of refraction. d. A weakness in muscle tone of the eye. ANS: A
REF: p. 429, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
2. Refraction is: a. dilation of the pupil. b. ability of the eye to bend light rays so that they can be focused on the retina. c. ability of the eye to distinguish colors. d. transmission of light stimuli from the optic nerve to the brain. ANS: B
REF: p. 429, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
3. A person who cannot see objects at a distance has a condition known as: a. hyperopia. b. presbyopia. c. myopia. d. amblyopia. ANS: C
REF: p. 429, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
4. A person who cannot see close objects has a condition known as: a. myopia. b. strabismus. c. cataracts. d. hyperopia. ANS: D
REF: p. 429, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
5. Which of the following represents a decrease in the elasticity of the lens as a result of the aging process? a. Glaucoma b. Presbyopia c. Hyperopia d. Cataracts ANS: B
REF: p. 429, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V. 10.
6. An optometrist performs all of the following except: a. diagnoses and treats eye disorders. b. prescribes corrective lenses. c. measures visual acuity. d. performs eye surgery. ANS: D
REF: p. 430, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
7. Which of the following individuals interprets and fills ophthalmic prescriptions such as a prescription for eyeglasses? a. Optician b. Optometrist c. Oculist d. Orthopedist ANS: A
REF: p. 430, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
8. The Snellen eye chart is used to: a. assess visual acuity. b. diagnose conjunctivitis. c. assess peripheral vision. d. diagnose glaucoma. e. all are correct. ANS: A
REF: p. 430, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
9. The Snellen Big E chart is used for assessing: a. elderly individuals. b. individuals with cataracts. c. preschoolers. d. school-age children. ANS: C
REF: p. 430, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
1
10. A Snellen eye test is conducted at a distance of: a. 30 inches. b. 10 feet. c. 20 feet. d. 40 feet. ANS: C
REF: p. 430, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
11. Which of the following represents an error in Snellen eye testing technique? a. Positioning the chart at the patient’s eye level b. Having the patient keep his or her glasses on for distance vision c. Instructing the patient not to squint during the test d. Asking the patient to close the eye not being tested ANS: D
REF: p. 430, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
12. A patient has a distance visual acuity of 20/40 in the left eye. At what distance would a person with normal acuity be able to read
this line? 20 feet 30 feet 40 feet 60 feet
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
REF: p. 430, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
13. A patient has a distance visual acuity of 20/15 in the right eye. At what distance would a person with normal acuity be able to read
this line? a. 10 feet b. 15 feet c. 20 feet d. 25 feet ANS: B
REF: p. 430, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
14. Near visual acuity testing is conducted with the patient holding the test card: a. at a distance of 14 to 16 inches. b. at a distance of 30 inches. c. parallel to the patient’s line of vision. d. in a vertical position for 10 seconds. ANS: A
REF: p. 431, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
15. What is the most common color vision defect? a. Acquired color vision defects b. Total color blindness c. Congenital color vision defects d. Green-blue color vision defect ANS: C
REF: p. 431, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
16. How much time should the patient be given to identify the number on each Ishihara color plate? a. 3 seconds b. 10 seconds c. 1 minute d. As long as is needed ANS: A
REF: p. 443, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
17. When not in use, Ishihara color plates must be protected from: a. high humidity. b. light. c. cold temperatures. d. loud music. ANS: B
REF: p. 444, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
18. When performing an eye irrigation, the solution should be released: a. at the outer canthus. b. toward the upper eyelid. c. directly onto the cornea. d. at the inner canthus. ANS: D
REF: p. 446, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
19. An eye instillation may be performed to: a. remove a foreign object from the eye. b. remove eye drainage. c. flush out a harmful chemical. d. treat an eye infection. ANS: D
REF: p. 434, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
2
20. Which of the following represents an error in the eye instillation technique? a. Making sure the medication bears the word ophthalmic b. Asking the patient to look up before instilling drops c. Instilling drops onto the center of the cornea d. Asking the patient to close and roll the eye after the instillation ANS: C
REF: p. 446, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
21. The function of cerumen is to: a. inhibit the growth of pathogens. b. lubricate and protect the ear canal. c. facilitate the transmission of sound waves. d. stabilize air pressure in the middle ear. ANS: B
REF: p. 435, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
22. The range of frequencies for normal speech is: a. 80 to 120 db. b. 512 to 1,024 Hz. c. 300 to 4,000 Hz. d. 6,000 to 8,000 Hz. ANS: C
REF: p. 435, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
23. Which of the following can result in sensorineural hearing loss? a. Impacted cerumen b. Intense noise c. Otitis media d. Otosclerosis e. All are correct ANS: B
REF: p. 435, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
24. Which of the following can result in conductive hearing loss? a. Serous otitis media b. Ototoxicity c. Old age d. Pierced ears ANS: A
REF: p. 435, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
25. Which of the following is an example of a tuning fork test? a. Decibel test b. Whisper test c. Weber test d. Piano test ANS: C
REF: p. 435, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
26. Which of the following is the most specific type of hearing test? a. Tuning fork test b. Audiometry c. Whisper test d. Otoscopy ANS: B
REF: p. 437, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
27. Tympanometry is most useful in diagnosing patients with: a. serous otitis media. b. conductive hearing loss. c. sensorineural hearing loss. d. auditory nerve damage. ANS: A
REF: p. 437, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
28. The external auditory canal of an adult is straightened by: a. pulling outward on the ear auricle. b. pulling the ear upward and backward. c. asking the patient to look up. d. pulling the ear downward and backward. ANS: B
REF: p. 451, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
29. Impacted cerumen can be softened by: a. irrigating the ear with an antiseptic solution. b. inserting a moistened cotton-tipped applicator into the ear. c. instilling several drops of warm mineral oil into the ear. d. placing a heating pad next to the ear. ANS: C
REF: p. 439, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
3
30. During ear irrigation, which of the following techniques is performed to prevent injury to the tympanic membrane? a. Cleansing the outer ear b. Straightening the external ear canal c. Injecting the irrigating solution toward the roof of the ear canal d. Placing a cotton wick loosely in the ear canal ANS: C
REF: p. 450, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
31. An ear instillation may be performed to: a. apply heat to the ear. b. remove discharge from the ear. c. remove cerumen. d. treat an ear infection. ANS: D
REF: p. 439, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
32. After performing an ear instillation, the patient is instructed to lie on the unaffected side to: a. avoid pressure on the tympanic membrane. b. allow complete distribution of the medication. c. allow drainage of excess medication. d. prevent dizziness. ANS: B
REF: p. 451, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
MATCHING
Directions: Match each word part meaning with its correct word part. Word Part a. ab. audi/o c. hyperd. -ic e. -ism f. -meter g. -opia h. ot/o i. -scope j. tympan/o Meaning of Word Part 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Above, excessive Ear Eardrum Hearing Instrument used to measure Pertaining to State of To view, to examine Vision Without
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
ANS: C ANS: H ANS: J ANS: B ANS: F ANS: D ANS: E ANS: I ANS: G ANS: A
REF: p. 441, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 441, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 441, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 440, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 440, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 441, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 440, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 441, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 441, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 440, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
4
Chapter 22: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An ice bag is an example of: a. dry heat. b. moist heat. c. dry cold. d. moist cold. ANS: C
REF: p. 454, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
2. The time that is usually recommended for the application of heat or cold is: a. 10 to 15 minutes. b. 15 to 30 minutes. c. 30 to 45 minutes. d. 1 hour. ANS: B
REF: p. 454, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
3. Which of the following individuals would have a more than usual sensitivity to the local application of heat? a. Elderly individual b. Preschool child c. Patient with diabetes mellitus d. Patient with an open wound e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 455, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
4. Local application of heat results in: a. dilation of blood vessels in the area. b. decreased blood supply to the area. c. decreased tissue metabolism. d. constriction of blood vessels in the area. ANS: A
REF: p. 455, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
5. Redness of skin caused by dilation of superficial blood vessels in the skin is known as: a. hypoxia. b. erythema. c. suppuration. d. inflammation. ANS: B
REF: p. 455, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
6. Heat is often prescribed by the provider for: a. black eyes. b. osteoporosis. c. fractures. d. arthritis. ANS: D
REF: p. 455, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
7. The local application of cold may be used to: a. soften exudates. b. relieve muscle spasms. c. prevent swelling. d. increase suppuration. ANS: C
REF: p. 456, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
8. When explaining the use of a heating pad, the medical assistant should instruct a patient to: a. lie on the pad. b. use pins to secure the pad in place. c. adjust the pad to a higher setting if it no longer feels warm. d. place a protective covering over the pad. e. all are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 467, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.c.
9. After immersing a patient’s foot in a hot soak, the medical assistant should: a. ask the patient how the temperature feels. b. increase the temperature of the water. c. add crushed ice. d. instruct the patient to wiggle his or her toes. ANS: A
REF: p. 468, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
1
10. An ice bag should be filled with small pieces of ice to: a. prevent the application from becoming too cold. b. allow the bag to mold better to a body area. c. prevent adverse secondary effects. d. avoid irritation to the patient’s skin. ANS: B
REF: p. 470, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
11. Chemical cold packs should be stored: a. at body temperature. b. at room temperature. c. in the refrigerator. d. in an airtight container. ANS: B
REF: p. 457, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
12. All of the following help prevent low back pain except: a. sitting in a chair with a firm back. b. having good posture. c. maintaining a healthy body weight. d. bending from the waist when lifting an object. ANS: D
REF: p. 457, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6
13. The most frequent reason for applying a cast is to: a. support and stabilize a dislocated joint. b. align a fracture until proper healing occurs. c. promote healing after a surgical correction. d. aid in the nonsurgical correction of a deformity. ANS: B
REF: p. 457, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.
14. Which of the following can cause a pressure area? a. A cast that is too thick b. A wet cast c. A cast that rubs against the skin d. Resting a dry cast against a hard surface ANS: C
REF: p. 458, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
15. If a pressure area is not corrected, it may result in: a. infection. b. paralysis. c. numbness. d. crutch palsy. ANS: A
REF: p. 458, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
16. Synthetic casts are usually made of: a. plaster. b. cotton. c. fiberglass. d. clay. ANS: C
REF: p. 459, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
17. Before applying a cast, the area should be inspected for: a. redness. b. bruises. c. open areas. d. all are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 459, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
18. The purpose of a stockinette is to: a. prevent pressure areas. b. provide patient comfort. c. reduce edema. d. facilitate healing. e. all are correct. ANS: B
REF: p. 459, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
19. Extra layers of cast padding should be applied over bony prominences to: a. prevent pressure areas. b. prevent itching. c. reduce edema. d. facilitate healing. e. all are correct. ANS: A
REF: p. 460, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
2
20. All of the following should be relayed to the patient regarding cast care except: a. elevate the cast above heart level for the first 24 to 48 hours. b. apply a heating pad to the cast to relieve pain. c. gently move the fingers or toes to help prevent swelling. d. do not insert anything into the cast. ANS: B
REF: pp. 460-461, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.c.
21. The best way to dry a wet cast is to use a: a. fan set on high. b. heating pad on a medium setting. c. sun lamp. d. hair dryer on a low setting. ANS: D
REF: p. 461, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.c.
22. All of the following indicates that a cast is too tight or that an infection is developing except: a. itching. b. chills or fever. c. foul odor or drainage. d. numbness or tingling of the fingers or toes. e. fiberglass casts should not be signed. ANS: A
REF: p. 461, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
23. How long does it usually take for a fracture to heal? a. 2 to 4 weeks b. 4 to 6 weeks c. 10 to 12 weeks d. 6 months ANS: B
REF: p. 459, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
24. After removing a cast, it is normal for the extremity to appear: a. thin and flabby. b. red and swollen. c. slightly deformed. d. shorter than the other extremity. ANS: A
REF: p. 461, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
25. Which of the following can be used to support and immobilize a fractured wrist? a. Splint b. Brace c. Ace bandage d. Sling ANS: A
REF: p. 461, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: I. 9.b.
26. A short leg walker can be used to assist in the healing of: a. torn ligaments in the knee. b. a stress fracture of the tibia. c. a fracture of the femur. d. bursitis. ANS: B
REF: p. 462, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
27. What is the definition of the term ambulation? a. Being confined to bed b. The inability to walk c. The ability to walk d. Poor muscular coordination and balance ANS: C
REF: p. 463, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
28. Which of the following factors is taken into consideration before an ambulatory assistive device is prescribed? a. The age of the patient b. The patient’s muscular coordination c. The type of disability d. The amount of support required e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 463, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
29. Forearm crutches are often used by patients with: a. cerebral palsy. b. a fracture of a lower extremity. c. an amputated leg. d. paralysis on one side of the body. ANS: A
REF: p. 463, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
3
30. Which of the following is an advantage of forearm crutches? a. The patient can use his or her hands. b. They make it easier to move around in a crowd. c. They are inexpensive. d. They fold up when not in use. ANS: A
REF: p. 463, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
31. If axillary crutches have been properly fitted: a. the shoulders are bent over the crutches. b. two fingers can be inserted between the top of the crutch and the axilla. c. the elbow is flexed at an angle of 45 degrees. d. the shoulder rest presses lightly against the axilla. ANS: B
REF: p. 473, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
32. Incorrectly fitted crutches may cause: a. carpal tunnel syndrome. b. sciatic nerve damage. c. crutch palsy. d. tendinitis. ANS: C
REF: p. 463, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
33. Which of the following should NOT be relayed to the patient regarding crutch use? a. To wear well-fitting flat shoes with nonskid soles b. To support the weight of the body with the hands c. To take steps that are at a safe and comfortable distance d. To look down at his or her feet when taking a step ANS: D
REF: p. 464, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.c.
34. What is the name of the crutch stance that is used before crutch walking? a. Two-point position b. Quad position c. Four-point position d. Tripod position ANS: D
REF: p. 474, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.7.
35. Which of the following gaits is the slowest and most stable crutch gait? a. Two-point b. Four-point c. Three-point d. Swing-through ANS: B
REF: p. 474, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.7.
36. The three-point gait is used for which of the following conditions? a. Leg fracture b. Muscular dystrophy c. Multiple sclerosis d. Paraplegia ANS: A
REF: p. 475, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
37. Canes are used most frequently for individuals with: a. an amputated lower extremity. b. weakness on one side of the body. c. poor muscular coordination. d. paralysis of the lower extremities. ANS: B
REF: p. 464, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
38. A cane should be held: a. on the strong side of the body. b. with the cane handle 2 inches above the greater trochanter. c. on the weak side of the body. d. with the elbow flexed at a 45-degree angle. ANS: A
REF: p. 477, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.7.
39. Walkers are used primarily by: a. pediatric patients. b. prenatal patients. c. geriatric patients. d. psychiatric patients. ANS: C
REF: p. 465, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
4
MATCHING
Directions: Match each definition with its medical term. Ambulation Brace Compress Edema Exudate Maceration Orthopedist Soak Sprain Strain Suppuration
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11.
A discharge produced by the body’s tissues An overstretching of a muscle caused by trauma A soft, moist, absorbent cloth that is folded in several layers and applied to a part of the body in the local application of heat or cold Walking or moving from one place to another The direct immersion of a body part in water or a medicated solution The retention of fluid in the tissues, resulting in swelling An orthopedic device used to support and hold a part of the body in the correct position to allow functioning and healing Trauma to a joint that causes injury to the ligaments The process of pus formation A physician who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of the musculoskeletal system The softening and breaking down of the skin as a result of prolonged exposure to water
1. ANS: E 2. ANS: J 3. ANS: C 4. ANS: A 5. ANS: H 6. ANS: D 7. ANS: B 8. ANS: I 9. ANS: K 10. ANS: G 11. ANS: F
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 455, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: IV. 11. p. 456, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: IV. 11. p. 455, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: IV. 11. p. 463, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: IV. 11. p. 456, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: IV. 11. p. 455, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: IV. 11. p. 462, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: IV. 11. p. 456, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: IV. 11. p. 456, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: IV. 11. pp. 457-458, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: IV. 11. p. 461, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency Met: IV. 11.
5
Chapter 23: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Gynecology is the branch of medicine that deals with the: a. care of a pregnant woman before delivery. b. health maintenance and diseases of the reproductive system of women. c. health care and diseases of geriatric patients. d. care of the newborn. ANS: B
REF: p. 479, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
2. What is the term for the lower narrow end of the uterus that opens into the vagina? a. Perineum b. Labia c. Fundus d. Cervix ANS: D
REF: p. 480, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
3. What is the term used to describe anything that increases an individual’s chance of developing a disease? a. Symptom b. Susceptibility factor c. Risk factor d. Opportunistic infection ANS: C
REF: p. 480, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
4. A precancerous condition that may or may not develop into cancerous is known as: a. dysplasia. b. inflammation. c. adenocarcinoma. d. melanoma. ANS: C
REF: p. 480, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
5. The absence or cessation of the menstrual period is known as: a. perimenopause. b. dysfunctional uterine bleeding. c. amenorrhea. d. pregnancy. ANS: C
REF: p. 480, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
6. Pain associated with the menstrual period is known as: a. dysmenorrhea. b. dysplasia. c. dysuria. d. dyspareunia. ANS: A
REF: p. 480, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
7. Excessive bleeding during the menstrual period is known as: a. metrorrhagia. b. dysfunctional uterine bleeding. c. hemorrhaging. d. dyspareunia. ANS: B
REF: p. 480, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
8. What is the term for the permanent cessation of menstruation? a. Puberty b. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding c. Menopause d. Perimenopause ANS: C
REF: p. 480, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
9. What is the term for the external region between the vaginal orifice and the anus? a. Labia b. Internal Os c. Fundus d. Perineum ANS: D
REF: p. 480, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
1
10. A complete gynecologic examination consists of a: a. breast examination and pelvic examination. b. breast examination and vaginal examination. c. cervical cancer screening evaluation. d. bimanual pelvic examination and Pap test. ANS: A
REF: p. 479, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
11. In what position is the patient placed for a breast examination performed by a provider? a. Prone b. Supine c. Lithotomy d. Dorsal recumbent ANS: B
REF: p. 480, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.3.b.
12. Which of the following is a characteristic of a woman who is at average risk for breast cancer? a. Does not have a personal history of breast cancer. b. Does not have a family history of breast cancer. c. Does not have a genetic mutation known to increase the risk of breast cancer. d. Has not had chest radiation therapy before the age of 30. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 480, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
13. The American Cancer Society recommends that women between the ages of 44 to 54 obtain a mammogram: a. Every year b. Every 2 years c. Every 3 years d. Every 5 years ANS: A
REF: p. 480, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.b.
14. A woman should report all of the following to her provider except: a. a hard knot in the breast. b. discharge or bleeding from her nipple. c. lumpy feeling breast tissue. d. puckering or dimpling of the skin of her breast. ANS: C
REF: p. 481, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
15. Which of the following is included in a pelvic examination? a. Inspection of the external genitalia, vagina, and cervix b. Collection of a specimen for cervical cancer screening c. Bimanual pelvic examination d. Rectal-vaginal examination e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 481, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
16. Which of the following positions is used to perform a pelvic examination? a. Supine b. Dorsal recumbent c. Lithotomy d. Sims e. Knee-chest ANS: C
REF: p. 481, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.7.
17. Why is it important that the patient be relaxed during the pelvic examination? a. For easier insertion of the vaginal speculum b. To make the examination easier for the patient c. To make it easier for the provider to perform the bimanual pelvic examination d. To reduce patient discomfort e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 481, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
18. The function of a vaginal speculum is to: a. magnify the cervix. b. hold the walls of the vagina apart. c. aspirate secretions from the uterus. d. lubricate the vaginal wall. ANS: B
REF: p. 481, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
19. Almost all cervical cancers are caused by: a. HIV. b. HPV. c. hepatitis B. d. having multiple sexual partners. ANS: B
REF: p. 483, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.2.a.
2
20. All of the following place a woman at higher risk for cervical cancer except: a. cigarette smoking. b. women who began menstruating at an early age. c. use of oral contraceptives for more than 5 years. d. infection with a high-risk HPV. ANS: B
REF: p. 483, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.c.
21. Which of the following is the preferred ACS cervical cancer screening recommendation for women between the ages of 30 and 65? a. Pap test every 3 years b. Pap test plus an HPV test every 5 years c. Women in this age group do not need to be tested d. Gonorrhea and chlamydia testing every 5 years ANS: B
REF: p. 483, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
22. What is the primary purpose of a Pap test? a. Detection of abnormal cells that may develop into cervical cancer b. Diagnosis of gonorrhea c. Evaluation of the cause of infertility d. Evaluation of postmenopausal bleeding e. All are correct ANS: A
REF: p. 484, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
23. All of the following are characteristics of the HPV test except: a. It is a DNA test. b. It can be performed on a liquid-based cytology specimen. c. It detects high-risk HPVs that may cause the cervical cells to become abnormal. d. It should be performed on women under the age of 30. ANS: D
REF: p. 484, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
24. Why should a patient be instructed not to douche before having a cervical cancer screening test? a. Changes the pH of the vagina resulting in an invalid specimen. b. Results in a false-positive test result. c. Changes the appearance of the epithelial cells. d. Reduces the number of cells available for analysis. ANS: D
REF: p. 484, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
25. It is recommended that a Pap specimen not be collected: a. 10 to 20 days after the first day of the patient’s last menstrual period. b. when a patient has a low-grade fever. c. during the patient’s menstrual period. d. if a patient has a vaginal discharge. ANS: C
REF: p. 484, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
26. When collecting a specimen for a Pap test, the ectocervical specimen can be obtained using: a. the S-shaped end of a cytospatula. b. the rounded end of a cytospatula. c. a moistened cotton-tipped applicator. d. a cytobrush. ANS: A
REF: p. 484, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
27. Which of the following can be used to collect a scraping of cells from both the ectocervix and the endocervix at the same time? a. A cytospatula b. A cytobroom c. A moistened cotton-tipped applicator d. A cytolobrush ANS: B
REF: p. 484, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
28. The maturation index can be used to evaluate which of the following conditions? a. The cause of infertility b. Amenorrhea c. Postmenopausal bleeding d. Results of treatment with hormones e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 487, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
29. The Bethesda System for reporting the results of the Pap test includes: a. whether or not the patient has HIV. b. a brief description of the results. c. categorization of the results in classes I through V. d. a detailed cytologic description of the results. ANS: D
REF: p. 487, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.6.
3
30. What is the cause of most abnormal Pap test results? a. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding b. Cancerous lesions c. Precancerous lesions d. Infection or inflammation ANS: D
REF: p. 489, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
31. The purpose of a bimanual pelvic examination is to: a. detect the presence of a vaginal infection. b. collect a specimen for a Pap test. c. determine the size, shape, and position of the uterus and ovaries. d. detect the presence of hemorrhoids and fissures. e. all are correct. ANS: C
REF: pp. 489-490, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.2.
32. Which of the following is not an example of a sexually transmitted infection? a. Gonorrhea b. Genital herpes c. HIV d. Vulvovaginal candidiasis e. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 491, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.1.
33. What is the most common cause of an abnormal vaginal discharge in women of childbearing age? a. Gonorrhea b. Bacterial vaginosis c. Trichomoniasis d. Vulvovaginal candidiasis ANS: B
REF: p. 490, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
34. Which of the following is a symptom of bacterial vaginosis? a. Thick, odorless, cottage cheese–like discharge b. Vaginal warts c. Grayish-white vaginal discharge that has a fishy odor d. Purulent vaginal discharge e. All are correct ANS: C
REF: p. 491, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
35. Which of the following increases the risk of developing bacterial vaginosis? a. Vaginal douching b. Multiple sexual partners c. IUDs d. Use of antibiotics e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 491, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.c.
36. Which of the following gynecologic infections can be diagnosed through a DNA-probe test? a. Vulvovaginal candidiasis b. Trichomoniasis c. Bacterial vaginosis d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: pp. 491-492, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
37. Which of the following patients is most likely to develop vulvovaginal candidiasis? a. A patient with poor hygiene b. A patient with irregular menstrual periods c. A patient on prolonged antibiotic therapy d. A patient with multiple sexual partners ANS: C
REF: p. 491, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.c.
38. Which of the following is a symptom of vulvovaginal candidiasis? a. Thick, odorless, cottage cheese–like discharge b. Red spots on the cervix c. Lower abdominal pain d. Purulent vaginal discharge e. All are correct ANS: A
REF: p. 491, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
39. If Candida albicans is present, what would be observed under the microscope? a. Yeast buds, spores, and hyphae b. Motile protozoa c. Gram-negative diplococci d. Nits and eggs ANS: A
REF: p. 491, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
4
40. What is the drug commonly used to treat vulvovaginal candidiasis? a. Nystatin (Mycostatin) b. Tetracycline (Sumycin) c. Amoxicillin (Amoxil) d. Metronidazole (Flagyl) ANS: A
REF: p. 491, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a.
41. Which of the following is not a symptom of trichomoniasis? a. Profuse, frothy vaginal discharge b. Painful urination and intercourse c. Itching of the vulva and vagina d. Lower abdominal pain ANS: D
REF: p. 492, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
42. The causative agent of trichomoniasis is a: a. yeast. b. motile protozoan. c. bacterium. d. virus. ANS: B
REF: p. 492, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.2.a.
43. What preparation is required to examine Trichomonas vaginalis under the microscope? a. The vaginal discharge is placed on a slide with a drop of isotonic saline. b. A culture medium is inoculated with the vaginal discharge. c. The swab containing the discharge is placed in a transport medium. d. The vaginal discharge is placed on a slide with a drop of KOH. ANS: A
REF: p. 492, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
44. Which of the following is a CDC screening recommendation for chlamydia and gonorrhea? a. Annual screening of women older than 25 with multiple sexual partners b. Annual screening of all sexually active females ages 25 or younger c. Annual screening of women older than 25 with a sexual partner who has an STI d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 493, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
45. Symptoms of chlamydial infection in a female (if they occur) include: a. dysuria. b. itching. c. irritation of the genital area. d. yellowish, odorless vaginal discharge. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 493, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
46. If left untreated, a chlamydial infection in a woman may result in: a. pelvic inflammatory disease. b. cervical cancer. c. dysmenorrhea. d. cervical erosion. ANS: A
REF: p. 493, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.c.
47. Chlamydial infection often occurs in association with: a. genital warts. b. onorrhea. c. Ssphilis. d. hepatitis B. ANS: B
REF: p. 493, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
48. Gonorrhea is transmitted through: a. droplet infection. b. sexual intercourse. c. contaminated water. d. insects. ANS: B
REF: p. 493, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.2.d.
49. Which of the following is not a characteristic of gonorrhea in a male? a. Whitish discharge that may progress to a thick and creamy discharge b. Enlargement of the prostate gland c. Dysuria d. Progression to epididymitis, if not treated ANS: B
REF: p. 493, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
5
50. Which of the following is the recommended method for diagnosing chlamydia and gonorrhea? a. Culture test b. Antigen-antibody test c. NAA test d. Blood test ANS: C
REF: p. 493, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
51. All of the following are characteristics of genital herpes except: a. most often occurs in individuals aged 14 to 49. b. more common in women than in men. c. symptoms include small fluid-filled blisters in and around the genitals, anus, or d.
lips. can be cured with antibiotics.
ANS: D
REF: pp. 494, 496, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
52. What can occur from infection with a low-risk HPV? a. Genital warts b. Cervical cancer c. Infertility d. Anal cancer ANS: A
REF: p. 496, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
53. All of the following are characteristics of the HPV vaccine except: a. does not protect against HPV infections already contracted by an individual. b. prevents sexually-transmitted HPV infections. c. cannot be administered to males. d. should be administered before an individual becomes sexually active. ANS: C
REF: p. 497, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a.
54. What is the purpose of prenatal care? a. To prevent disease b. To promote health c. To provide prenatal education d. Early detection of problems e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 499, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
55. In preparation for a gynecologic examination, the patient should be instructed to: a. empty her bladder, if needed. b. undress completely. c. wear the examining gown with the opening in front. d. breathe deeply, slowly, and evenly during the examination. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 519, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.a.
56. What is the term for a child in utero from the third month after conception to birth? a. Fetus b. Infant c. Prenatal d. Embryo ANS: A
REF: p. 499, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
57. What is the term for the dome-shaped upper portion of the uterus between the fallopian tubes? a. Perineum b. Ovary c. Fundus d. Cervix ANS: C
REF: p. 499, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
58. What is the term for a woman who has been pregnant more than once? a. Multigravida b. Multipara c. Nullipara d. Primigravida ANS: A
REF: p. 499, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
59. In the absence of complications, the first prenatal visit should be scheduled after the patient: a. exhibits the signs and symptoms of pregnancy. b. misses her first menstrual period. c. misses her second menstrual period. d. obtains positive results on a pregnancy test. ANS: C
REF: p. 499, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.2.
6
60. Which of the following is not included in the first prenatal visit? a. Fundal height measurement b. Pelvic examination c. Completion of a prenatal record form d. Determination of fetal presentation and position ANS: D
REF: p. 500, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.2.
61. The purpose of the prenatal record is to: a. provide information on the past health status of the patient. b. identify high-risk patients. c. provide information on the present health status of the patient. d. serve as a flow sheet for prenatal visits. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 500, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): VI.4.
62. The purpose of the past medical history is to obtain information from the patient on: a. conditions that may affect the health of the mother and fetus. b. drug allergies. c. her menstrual cycle. d. previous pregnancies. ANS: A
REF: p. 502, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): VI.4.
63. The purpose of the present pregnancy history is to: a. establish a baseline for the present health status of the prenatal patient. b. document medications being taken by the patient. c. determine if the patient has experienced any of the early signs of pregnancy. d. calculate the EDD. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: pp. 503-504, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): VI.4.
64. What is the LMP? a. The date of the last day of the last menstrual period b. The duration of the last menstrual period c. The date of the first day of the last menstrual period d. The length of the interval between menstrual periods ANS: C
REF: p. 504, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
65. All of the following are warning signs during pregnancy except: a. heartburn. b. vaginal bleeding. c. blurred vision. d. abdominal pain. ANS: A
REF: p. 505, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.
66. The purpose of the interval prenatal history is to: a. document weight, blood pressure, and urine testing results. b. determine the presence of any concerns or problems. c. determine the occurrence of any additional signs of pregnancy. d. document the fetal heart tones and fundal height. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 504, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
67. Which of the following is performed during the initial prenatal examination? a. Measurement of vital signs b. Physical examination c. Breast examination d. Pelvic examination e. all are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 504, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
68. Which of the following urine tests is performed at each return prenatal visit? a. Glucose and protein b. Glucose and ketone bodies c. Specific gravity and pH d. Pregnancy test ANS: A
REF: p. 507, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.10.
69. If not treated, infection of the infant’s eyes with gonorrhea during delivery could result in: a. cataracts. b. detached retina. c. blindness. d. glaucoma. ANS: C
REF: p. 505, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
7
70. An infant infected with group B Streptococcus during delivery may develop: a. septicemia. b. meningitis. c. pneumonia. d. all are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 506, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
71. When is a pregnant woman tested for group B Streptococcus? a. 18 to 20 weeks b. 24 to 28 weeks c. 35 to 37 weeks d. Just after delivery ANS: C
REF: p. 505, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
72. What is the usual schedule of prenatal visits during the first 28 weeks of gestation? a. Twice each week b. Every week c. Every 2 weeks d. Every 4 weeks ANS: D
REF: p. 507, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
73. What is the most common medical disorder of pregnancy? a. Hypertension b. Thrombophlebitis c. Preeclampsia d. Gestational diabetes ANS: A
REF: p. 507, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
74. The purpose of measuring fundal height is to: a. diagnose pregnancy. b. determine the presence of fetal distress. c. assess whether fetal growth is progressing normally. d. determine the degree of cervical dilation and effacement. ANS: C
REF: p. 507, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
75. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Doppler fetal pulse detector? a. The FHT can first be detected between 2 and 4 weeks of gestation. b. The fetal heart rate is digitally displayed on a screen. c. Sound waves are used to detect the fetal pulse. d. A coupling gel must be used to increase conductivity. ANS: A
REF: p. 508, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
76. What is the normal range for the fetal pulse rate? a. 80 to 120 beats/min b. 100 to 140 beats/min c. 120 to 160 beats/min d. 140 to 180 beats/min ANS: C
REF: p. 508, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
77. A vaginal examination is usually performed as the patient nears term. All of the following are reasons for performing this
examination except: a. to confirm the presenting part. b. to determine the degree of cervical dilation. c. to determine the degree of cervical effacement. d. to determine when the patient will go into labor. ANS: D
REF: p. 509, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
78. Carrier screening is usually recommended when a woman or her partner: a. has a genetic disorder. b. has a child with a genetic disorder. c. has a family history of a genetic disorder. d. belongs to an ethnic group with an increased risk of a genetic disorder. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 510, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.c.
79. What is included in a first trimester prenatal screening test? a. Urine test and Pap test b. Blood test and ultrasound c. Ultrasound and amniocentesis d. Blood test and vaginal examination ANS: B
REF: p. 510, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
8
80. The multiple marker test is used to detect which of the following fetal abnormalities? a. Kidney problems b. Neural tube defects c. Cleft palate d. Cerebral palsy e. all are correct ANS: B
REF: p. 510, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.c.
81. Obstetric ultrasound is used to: a. detect ectopic pregnancy. b. determine gestational age. c. detect the presence of multiple fetuses. d. determine the position of the placenta. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 512, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
82. Amniocentesis can be used to: a. aid in the diagnosis of congenital abnormalities. b. assess fetal lung maturity. c. determine the gender of the fetus. d. detect fetal distress. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 511, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
83. Which of the following conditions may warrant fetal heart rate monitoring? a. Decreased fetal activity b. Fetal growth that is not progressing well c. Overdue baby d. Gestational diabetes mellitus e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 511, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
MATCHING
GYNECOLOGIC PROCEDURES Directions: Match the following gynecologic procedures with the correct description of the procedure. Procedure Description a. The passing of an electrical current through a thin wire loop which functions as a scalpel to remove abnormal cells from the cervix. b. The removal of a cone-shaped section of the cervix containing abnormal cells. c. Examination of the vagina and cervix using a magnifying device to detect areas of abnormal tissue growth. d. The application of extreme cold to destroy abnormal cervical cells that show changes that may lead to cancer. e. The use of heat from a laser beam to destroy abnormal cervical cells. f. The removal of a cervical tissue specimen for examination by a pathologist to detect the presence of cervical dysplasia or cancer of the cervix. Gynecologic Procedure: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
Colposcopy Cervical biopsy LEEP Cervical cryotherapy Laser treatment Conization
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
ANS: C ANS: F ANS: A ANS: D ANS: E ANS: B
REF: p. 489, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 489, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 480, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 489, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 489, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 489, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
9
PRENATAL TEST Directions: Match the following test names with the correct test purpose. Test Purpose a. To detect the presence of anemia b. To detect the presence of an organism that if left untreated could infect the infant’s eyes at birth c. To anticipate any ABO or Rh incompatibilities d. Used as a basic screening test to assess the patient’s state of health; includes white blood cell count, red blood cell count, hematocrit, hemoglobin blood type, and differential e. To detect the presence of syphilis f. To assess the antibody level present against rubella g. To screen individuals for gestational diabetes mellitus h. To detect the presence of the amount of circulating Rh antibodies Test Name 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
CBC Glucose challenge test Gonorrhea test Hemoglobin and hematocrit Rh antibody titer Rh factor and ABO blood type Rubella antibody titer VDRL
7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
ANS: D ANS: G ANS: B ANS: A ANS: H ANS: C ANS: F ANS: E
REF: p. 506, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 506, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 505, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 506, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 507, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 506, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 507, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 506, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
WORD PARTS Directions: Match each word part meaning with its correct word part. Word Part a. colp/o b. dysc. ectod. endoe. -scopy f. gynec/o g. men/o h. nat/o i. -ology j. -orrhea k. cyt/o l. -plasia m. par/o Word Part Meaning 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.
Menstruation Flow, excessive discharge Vagina Visual examination Birth Study of Difficult, painful, abnormal Outside, outer Within Woman Cell A growth Give birth to
15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.
ANS: G ANS: J ANS: A ANS: E ANS: H ANS: I ANS: B
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 515, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 514, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 514, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 514, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 515, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 515, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 514, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. 10
22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27.
ANS: C ANS: D ANS: F ANS: K ANS: L ANS: M
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 514, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 515, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 515, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 514, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 514, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 515, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9.
11
Chapter 24: The Pediatric Examination Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the name for the physician who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of disease in children? a. Pediatrician b. Podiatrist c. Obstetrician d. Neonatologist ANS: A
REF: p. 527, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
2. Which of the following is not included in a well-child visit? a. Administration of immunizations b. Physical examination c. Collection of a urine specimen d. Evaluation of growth and development ANS: C
REF: p. 527, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.a.
3. Topics included in anticipatory guidance include: a. safety. b. nutrition. c. development. d. sleep. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 527, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
4. The first pediatric well-child visit is usually scheduled at: a. 3 to 5 days. b. 2 weeks. c. 1 month. d. 6 weeks. ANS: A
REF: p. 527, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.a.
5. All of the following are characteristics of the sick-child visit except: a. the child is exhibiting the symptoms of disease. b. the provider evaluates the child’s condition. c. treatment is prescribed. d. the child is cured of his or his illness. ANS: D
REF: p. 527, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.b.
6. Which of the following is performed by the medical assistant during a pediatric office visit? a. Measurement of vital signs b. Measurement of weight and height c. Measurement of visual acuity d. Assisting with the physical examination e. All are correct ANS: E 7.
REF: p. 528, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.a.
Why is it important to develop a rapport with a pediatric patient? a. The child is more likely to be cooperative during procedures b. To prevent inaccurate test results c. To prevent the child from crying d. To reduce pain when an injection is administered ANS: A
REF: p. 528, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.e.
8. What is the term used to describe a child between 1 and 3 years of age? a. Infant b. Rug rat c. Toddler d. Preschooler ANS: C
REF: p. 528, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
9. The techniques used to interact with a child depends on: a. the weight of the child. b. the age of the child. c. the motor skills of the child. d. the head circumference of the child. ANS: B
REF: p. 528, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
1
10. Which of the following is an important reason for weighing a child? a. To determine the proper dosage of medication for the child b. To compare the child’s weight with weights of other children of the same age c. To determine if the child is deficient in vitamins or minerals d. To assess the rate of brain growth e. All are correct ANS: A
REF: p. 530, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
11. How is length measured? a. The child lies in a supine position. b. The child stands with his or her back to the measuring device. c. The child sits in a chair with both feet flat on the floor. d. The child lies in a prone position. ANS: A
REF: p. 530, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.3.b.
12. What is the purpose of measuring head circumference? a. To determine if normal brain development is taking place b. To determine if the fontanelles are closing properly c. To assess the nutritional state of the infant d. To screen for microcephaly and macroencephaly ANS: D
REF: p. 531, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
13. Head circumference is measured in: a. millimeters. b. grams. c. centimeters or inches. d. microns. ANS: C
REF: p. 531, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.3.a.b.
14. The most important use of growth charts is to: a. assess the child’s individual growth pattern. b. compare the child’s growth with that of other children of the same age. c. identify children with prehypertension. d. identify children with type 2 diabetes. e. all are correct. ANS: A
REF: p. 532, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
15. Which of the following is a guideline for preventing childhood obesity? a. Encourage active play. b. Do not use food as a reward. c. Limit television, video, and computer time. d. Limit the amount of junk food in the home. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 532, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.
16. All of the following are problems associated with childhood obesity except: a. high blood pressure. b. skin disorders. c. type 1 diabetes. d. low self-esteem. ANS: C
REF: p. 532, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
17. Assessment of blood pressure should start at age: a. 2 years. b. 3 years. c. 5 years. d. 8 years. ANS: B
REF: p. 532, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
18. Measuring pediatric blood pressure helps to identify children at risk for developing a. Hypertension as adults b. Type 2 diabetes c. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis d. Liver disease e. All are correct ANS: A
REF: p. 532, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
19. Which of the following indicates that the proper cuff size has been selected for a pediatric patient? a. The cuff fits snugly on the child’s arm. b. The cuff is positioned at least 1 inch above the bend in the elbow. c. The bladder of the cuff encircles 80% to 100% of the child’s arm. d. The bladder of the cuff is centered over the antecubital space. e. All are correct. ANS: C
REF: p. 533, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
2
20. A blood pressure cuff that is too large for a child may result in: a. a blood pressure reading that is falsely high. b. not being able to hear the first clear tapping sound. c. discomfort for the child. d. a blood pressure reading that is falsely low. ANS: D
REF: p. 533, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
21. Which of the following may result in a falsely high pediatric blood pressure reading? a. Apprehension b. Malnutrition c. Obesity d. Fever ANS: A
REF: p. 533, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
22. All of the following are used in determining if a child has hypertension except: a. age. b. weight. c. height. d. gender. ANS: B
REF: p. 534, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
23. All of the following are reasons for obtaining a pediatric urine specimen except: a. to diagnose a pathologic condition. b. to screen for the presence of disease. c. to evaluate the effectiveness of therapy. d. to prevent a urinary tract infection. ANS: D
REF: p. 534, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.10.
24. The child’s genitalia should be cleansed before applying a pediatric urine collector to: a. prevent contaminants from entering the urine specimen. b. protect the child from infection. c. prevent false-negative test results. d. ensure adhesion of the urine collector to the skin surrounding the genitalia. ANS: A
REF: p. 535, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
25. The length of the needle used to administer an intramuscular injection to a child depends on: a. the age of the child. b. the amount of medication being administered. c. the size of the child. d. whether the child is walking. ANS: C
REF: p. 535, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
26. What is the needle length range for a pediatric IM injection? a. 3 8 to 5 8 inch b. c. d.
to 1 inch 1 2 to 1 2 inches 1 to 2 inches 5
8
1
ANS: B
REF: p. 535, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
27. When might the length of the needle for a pediatric IM injection need to be decreased? a. Preterm infant b. Child with an illness c. Overweight child d. Infant younger than 12 months of age ANS: A
REF: p. 535, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
28. Which of the following injection sites should be used to administer IM injections to infants and young children? a. Dorsogluteal b. Vastus lateralis c. Deltoid d. Ventrogluteal ANS: B
REF: p. 535, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
29. The deltoid site should not be used as an IM injection site until the child a. Is at least 18 months old. b. Has been walking for at least a year. c. Is at least 10 years old. d. Can sit quietly while the injection is administered. ANS: A
REF: p. 535, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
3
30. How is the vastus lateralis site located in an infant and young child? a. Divide the lateral thigh into thirds and administer the injection into the middle b. c. d.
third. Divide the mid-anterior thigh into thirds and administer the injection into the middle third. Divide the buttocks into quadrants and administer the injection into the upper outer quadrant. Divide the upper arm into thirds and administer the injection into the middle third.
ANS: B
REF: p. 535, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
31. What is the recommended site for administering a subcutaneous injection to an infant younger than 12 months of age? a. Lower abdomen b. Lateral part of the upper arm c. Lower back d. Anterior thigh ANS: D
REF: p. 535, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
32. The resistance of the body to pathogenic microorganisms or their toxins is known as: a. immunization. b. inflammation. c. immunity. d. contagious. ANS: C
REF: p. 537, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
33. What is the term for the process of becoming immune through the use of a vaccine or toxoid? a. Passive artificial immunization b. Active artificial immunization c. Inflammation d. Passive natural immunization ANS: B
REF: p. 537, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
34. What is the term for a suspension of attenuated or killed microorganisms that stimulate antibody production in an individual? a. Toxoid b. Antiserum c. Antitoxin d. Vaccine ANS: D
REF: p. 537, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
35. What immunizations are included in a DTaP injection? a. Diphtheria, polio, tetanus b. Dysentery, pertussis, mumps c. Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus d. Diphtheria, rubella, rubeola ANS: C
REF: p. 537, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a.
36. Which of the following immunizations can be administered to a newborn? a. Hepatitis B b. DTaP c. Polio d. MMR ANS: A
REF: p. 538, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a.
37. What immunizations are included in an MMR injection? a. Meningitis, mumps, rubella b. Measles, mumps, rubella c. Measles, mumps, chickenpox d. Measles, hepatitis, rubella ANS: B
REF: p. 537, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.
38. Which of the following is required by the NCVIA before an immunization is administered? a. The parent must be provided with information on the benefits and risks of the b. c. d.
immunization. The parent must sign a consent form. The child must be promised a sticker after the injection. The vaccine label must be checked three times.
ANS: A
REF: p. 537, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.b.
39. All of the following information is included in a VIS except: a. benefits and risks of the immunization. b. publication date of the VIS. c. reporting moderate to severe reaction. d. lot number of the vaccine. ANS: D
REF: p. 537, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.b.
4
40. After administration of an immunization, the NCVIA requires that all of the following be documented in the medical record except
the: a. b. c. d.
manufacturer and lot number of the vaccine. signature of the child’s parent or guardian. date of administration of the vaccine. name and address of the medical office.
ANS: B
REF: p. 537, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
41. The newborn screening test does not screen for which of the following diseases? a. Congenital hypothyroidism b. Phenylketonuria c. Cystic fibrosis d. Sickle cell anemia ANS: C
REF: p. 539, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
42. If PKU is left untreated, it may lead to: a. malnutrition. b. mental retardation. c. aplastic anemia. d. spinal curvature. ANS: B
REF: p. 539, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
43. Which of the following sites can be used to obtain a blood specimen for a newborn screening test? a. Lateral or medial curve of the plantar surface of the heel b. Earlobe c. Lateral surface of the finger d. Big toe ANS: A
REF: p. 544, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
44. Which of the following is a characteristic of the newborn screening test? a. Is required in all states by law. b. Best time to perform the test is between 1 and 7 days after birth. c. The specimen is placed on a special filter paper. d. Positive results require further testing. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 544, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
45. Most invalid test results on a newborn screen test are caused by: a. not wiping away the first drop of blood when collecting the specimen. b. collection of an inadequate amount of the blood specimen. c. warming the puncture site before collecting the specimen. d. improper storage of the blood specimen. ANS: B
REF: p. 544, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
5
Chapter 25: Minor Office Surgery Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of minor office surgery? a. Performed in an ambulatory health care facility. b. Performed in a short period of time. c. Requires a general anesthetic. d. Does not pose a major risk to life. ANS: C
REF: p. 557, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
2. Which of the following requires the use of surgical asepsis? a. Application of a bandage b. Instillation of eye drops c. Insertion of sutures d. Collection of a Pap specimen e. All are correct ANS: C
REF: p. 558, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.3.b.
3. The purpose of practicing surgical asepsis during minor office surgery is to: a. protect the patient from pathogenic microorganisms. b. prevent the formation of a purulent discharge. c. reduce the amount of bleeding from the operative site. d. reduce patient discomfort and pain. ANS: A
REF: p. 558, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.3.b.
4. Something that is sterile is considered contaminated if it: a. comes in contact with a pathogen. b. comes in contact with a nonpathogen. c. becomes wet. d. touches something clean. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 558, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.3.b.
5. What should the medical assistant do if in doubt about the sterility of an article? a. Use the article, making sure to use sterile technique. b. Do not use the article; replace it with a sterile article. c. Ask the provider if the article should be used. d. Cleanse the article with a disinfectant before using. ANS: B
REF: p. 558, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.3.b.
6. Which of the following is a violation of sterile technique? a. Holding a sterile article above waist level b. Facing a sterile field c. Reaching over a sterile field d. Placing a sterile item in the center of a sterile field e. All are correct ANS: C
REF: p. 558, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.3.b.
7. Which of the following instruments consists of a handle and a blade and is used to make surgical incisions and divide tissue? a. Operating scissors b. Scalpel c. Bandage scissors d. Dissecting scissors ANS: B
REF: p. 559, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
8. Which of the following instruments has teeth that are used to grasp tissue? a. Hemostatic forceps b. Splinter forceps c. Tissue forceps d. Thumb forceps ANS: C
REF: p. 559, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
9. Which of the following instruments has serrated tips, ring handles, and ratchets and is used to clamp off blood vessels? a. Allis tissue forceps b. Hemostatic forceps c. Sponge forceps d. Curette ANS: B
REF: p. 559, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
1
10. Which of the following instruments is used to hold tissue aside to improve exposure of the operative area? a. Retractors b. Biopsy forceps c. Probe d. Tenaculum ANS: A
REF: p. 562, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
11. When not in use, an instrument with a ratchet should be stored: a. in an open position. b. with the tips tightly approximated. c. in a closed position. d. with a protective cover over the ratchet. ANS: A
REF: p. 562, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
12. Which of the following represents an error in technique when pouring a sterile solution? a. Ensuring that the solution is within its expiration date b. Placing the solution cap on a flat surface with the open end facing down c. Palming the label of the solution bottle d. Rinsing the lip of the bottle ANS: B
REF: p. 593, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
13. What is the term for a break in the skin surface or mucous membrane that exposes underlying tissues? a. Open wound b. Contusion c. Infection d. Closed wound ANS: A
REF: p. 563, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
14. What name is given to the type of wound in which the tissues are torn apart, leaving ragged and irregular edges? a. Cut b. Puncture c. Laceration d. Abrasion ANS: C
REF: p. 563, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
15. For which of the following wounds, would the provider be most likely to order a tetanus booster? a. Cut b. Puncture c. Laceration d. Abrasion ANS: B
REF: p. 563, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a.
16. What is the first line of defense of the body? a. Mucous membranes b. Skin c. Acidic secretions of the stomach d. White blood cells ANS: B
REF: p. 564, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
17. The protective response of the body to trauma and the entrance of foreign substances is called: a. infection. b. inflammation. c. healing. d. immunity. ANS: B
REF: p. 564, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
18. The function of the healing process of a wound is to: a. restore the structure and function of damaged tissue. b. prevent infection of the wound. c. prevent inflammation of the wound. d. control bleeding. ANS: A
REF: p. 564, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
19. Which of the following is not a local sign of inflammation? a. Redness b. Fever c. Swelling d. Pain ANS: B
REF: p. 564, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
2
20. What occurs during the inflammatory phase in the healing process? a. New capillaries grow. b. The tissue becomes a translucent red color. c. Fibroblasts synthesize collagen. d. A blood clot plugs the opening of the wound. ANS: D
REF: p. 564, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
21. Which of the following is a characteristic of granulation tissue? a. Translucent red or dark pink in color b. Soft and moist to the touch c. Bumpy or granular in appearance d. Painless e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 565, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
22. What occurs during the maturation phase of the healing process? a. A scab forms. b. Scar tissue forms. c. New skin is generated. d. Bleeding is controlled. ANS: B
REF: p. 565, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
23. Which of the following types of exudates contains pus? a. Serous b. Sanguineous c. Serosanguineous d. Purulent ANS: D
REF: p. 565, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
24. Which of the following types of exudates contains both serum and blood? a. Serous b. Sanguineous c. Serosanguineous d. Purulent ANS: C
REF: p. 565, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
25. What is the function of a sterile dressing? a. To protect a wound from contamination b. To absorb drainage c. To restrict motion d. To protect a wound from trauma e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 565, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
26. After a sterile dressing change, the medical assistant should instruct the patient to: a. keep the dressing dry. b. keep the dressing clean. c. contact the office if signs of inflammation occur. d. return for further care as directed by the provider. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: pp. 565-566, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.c.
27. The function of sutures is to: a. prevent inflammation. b. approximate a wound. c. prevent infection of a wound. d. promote the formation of scar tissue. e. all are correct. ANS: B
REF: p. 566, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
28. What is the name given to the type of sutures that are gradually digested by the body? a. Absorbable sutures b. Silk sutures c. Nonabsorbable sutures d. Swaged sutures ANS: A
REF: p. 566, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
29. All of the following are examples of materials used for nonabsorbable sutures except: a. silk. b. surgical gut. c. nylon. d. polypropylene. ANS: B
REF: p. 566, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
3
30. Which of the following sutures has the smallest diameter? a. Surgical silk, 2-0 b. Surgical silk, 4-0 c. Surgical silk, 1 d. Surgical silk, 4 ANS: B
REF: p. 567, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.3.
31. What type of suture needle has a sharp point? a. Noncutting b. Curved c. Cutting d. Straight ANS: C
REF: p. 567, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
32. Which of the following types of suture needles requires the use of a needle holder? a. Straight b. Noncutting c. Curved d. Swaged ANS: C
REF: p. 567, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
33. What information is found on the label of a swaged suture packet? a. Type of suture material b. Length and gauge of the suture material c. Type of needle point d. Shape of suture needle e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 568, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.1.c.
34. Sutures inserted into the arms or legs are usually removed after: a. 24 hours b. 3 to 5 days c. 7 to 14 days d. 2 weeks ANS: C
REF: p. 570, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
35. Which of the following is an advantage of using surgical skin staples? a. Fastest method of skin closure for long skin incisions b. A local anesthetic is not required for their application c. Better approximation of the edges of a wound d. Faster healing of the wound ANS: A
REF: p. 570, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
36. All of the following are characteristics of tissue adhesives except: a. they eliminate the need for sutures. b. a local anesthetic is not needed. c. they can be used on any area of the body. d. they result in less scarring. ANS: C
REF: p. 570, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
37. Which of the following is not a characteristic of skin closure tape? a. It is easy to apply. b. A local anesthetic is not required for its application. c. It results in less scarring than sutures. d. It is stronger than skin sutures. ANS: D
REF: pp. 570-571, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
38. The purpose of a sterile fenestrated drape is to: a. provide comfort and warmth. b. provide a sterile area around the operative site. c. prevent the patient from observing the operative site. d. protect the patient’s clothing from blood and other secretions. ANS: B
REF: p. 572, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.3.b.
39. Which of the following is a characteristic of a local anesthetic, such as Xylocaine? a. Causes a brief stinging sensation. b. Begins working in 5 to 15 minutes. c. Has a duration of action of 1 to 3 hours. d. Produces a loss of sensation in a localized area. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 573, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.b.
4
40. The purpose of adding epinephrine to a local anesthetic is to: a. prevent an allergic reaction. b. prolong the effect of the anesthetic. c. increase the rate of systemic absorption of the anesthetic. d. reduce patient discomfort during the minor surgery. e. all are correct. ANS: B
REF: p. 573, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.b.
41. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a sebaceous cyst? a. It forms when the outlet of the sebaceous gland becomes obstructed. b. It consists of a thin closed sac or capsule located just under the skin surface. c. It usually occurs on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. d. It is usually painless and nontender. ANS: C
REF: p. 575, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
42. What would a provider do if a sebaceous cyst is infected? a. Remove the cyst. b. Incise and drain the cyst. c. Cauterize the cyst. d. Perform a needle biopsy on the cyst. ANS: B
REF: p. 577, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
43. What is an abscess? a. A localized staphylococcal infection that originates within a hair follicle b. Inflammation of the subcutaneous tissue c. A collection of pus in a cavity surrounded by inflamed tissue d. Inflammation of a sweat gland ANS: C
REF: p. 576, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
44. What is another name for a furuncle? a. Wart b. Stye c. Boil d. Blister ANS: C
REF: p. 577, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
45. The purpose of inserting gauze packing after incising a localized infection is to: a. facilitate drainage of the exudate. b. prevent scar formation. c. absorb drainage. d. reduce pain. ANS: A
REF: p. 577, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
46. What is the term for a mole that is present at birth? a. Congenital nevi b. Acquired nevi c. Raised mole d. Flat mole ANS: A
REF: p. 577, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
47. The dark color of a mole is caused by: a. precancerous cells. b. melanin. c. dysplasia. d. melanoma. ANS: B
REF: p. 578, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
48. All of the following are characteristics of benign moles except: a. round or oval shape. b. size is usually smaller than a pencil eraser. c. painful and tender. d. may be raised or flat. ANS: C
REF: p. 578, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
49. Which of the following is a small, painless, benign growth that projects from the skin on a small narrow stalk? a. Dysplastic nevi b. Raised mole c. Flat mole d. Skin tag ANS: D
REF: p. 578, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
5
50. All of the following are characteristics of dysplastic nevi except: a. are larger than normal moles. b. always develop into malignant melanoma. c. have irregular coloration. d. have an irregular shape. ANS: B
REF: p. 578, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
51. Which of the following is a characteristic of melanoma? a. Itches, bleeds, and oozes b. Irregular border c. Color varies from one area to another d. Painful or tender e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 578, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
52. Shave excision is often used to remove: a. skin tags. b. melanoma. c. flat moles. d. dysplastic nevi. ANS: A
REF: p. 579, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
53. Laser mole surgery is used to remove: a. raised moles. b. small or flat moles. c. dysplastic nevi. d. melanoma. ANS: B
REF: p. 579, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
54. A biopsy is usually performed to: a. determine if an infection is present. b. cauterize tissue. c. determine whether a tumor is benign or malignant. d. remove a benign tumor. ANS: C
REF: p. 580, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
55. Which of the following will not cause an ingrown toenail? a. Tight shoes b. Trauma c. Improper nail trimming d. Long periods of standing ANS: D
REF: p. 580, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
56. Which of the following is a postoperative instruction for toenail removal? a. Elevate the foot for 24 hours. b. Keep the area clean and dry. c. Apply an antibiotic ointment daily. d. Wear loose-fitting shoes. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 581, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.c.
57. Colposcopy is frequently performed: a. after abnormal Pap test results. b. to evaluate vaginal lesions. c. to evaluate cervical lesions. d. all are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 581, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
58. What patient position is used to perform a colposcopy? a. Lithotomy b. Supine c. Sims d. Knee-chest ANS: A
REF: p. 581, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.3.b.
59. The purpose of swabbing the cervix with acetic acid during colposcopy is to: a. allow visualization of abnormal areas. b. kill microorganisms present on the cervix. c. numb the cervix to reduce pain. d. control bleeding. ANS: A
REF: p. 582, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
6
60. The purpose of performing a cervical punch biopsy is to: a. detect the presence of cervical cancer or dysplasia. b. destroy inflamed tissue. c. treat cervical cancer. d. prevent cervical erosion. ANS: A
REF: p. 582, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
61. Which of the following instructions should be relayed to the patient after a cervical punch biopsy? a. Rest in bed for 24 hours. b. Do not have intercourse for 1 week. c. Bleeding will occur for 3 weeks after the procedure. d. Change tampons every 4 hours. e. All are correct. ANS: B
REF: p. 583, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.c.
62. Cervical cryosurgery operates on the basis of: a. freezing temperatures. b. sound waves. c. x-rays. d. chemicals. ANS: A
REF: p. 583, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
63. Cervical cryosurgery is used most often for the treatment of: a. polyps. b. vaginitis. c. cervical cancer. d. cervical dysplasia. ANS: D
REF: p. 583, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
64. Which of the following is not a postoperative instruction for cervical cryosurgery? a. Normal activity can be resumed the day after surgery. b. Abstain from intercourse for 2 to 3 weeks after the procedure. c. A clear, watery vaginal discharge may occur for 1 to 2 days after surgery. d. Use sanitary pads to absorb discharge. ANS: C
REF: p. 584, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.c.
65. Cryosurgery can also be used to: a. remove freckles. b. remove warts and skin tags. c. control bleeding. d. treat dermatitis. ANS: B
REF: p. 584, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
66. The function of a bandage is to: a. support a body part. b. control bleeding. c. immobilize a part of the body. d. hold a dressing in place. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 584, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
67. Which of the following represents an error in bandaging technique? a. Applying a bandage from the distal to the proximal part of the body b. Checking to ensure that the bandage is not applied too tightly c. Applying the bandage over an open wound d. Padding joints and prominent parts of bones ANS: C
REF: pp. 584-585, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
68. Which of the following bandage turns is used to anchor a bandage? a. Recurrent turn b. Spiral reverse turn c. Spiral turn d. Circular turn ANS: D
REF: p. 585, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
69. Which of the following bandage turns is used to bandage a part that varies in width? a. Spiral turn b. Figure-eight turn c. Recurrent turn d. Spiral reverse turn ANS: D
REF: p. 586, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
7
70. Which of the following is used to immobilize a sprained ankle? a. An elastic bandage using a figure-eight turn b. Roller gauze using a spiral turn c. A long leg cast d. A tubular gauze bandage ANS: A
REF: p. 586, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
8
Chapter 26: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The study of drugs is known as: a. pharmacy. b. immunology. c. pharmacology. d. mycology. ANS: C
REF: p. 610, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
2. Which of the following is an example of administering medication? a. The provider writes a prescription for a medication. b. A medical assistant gives an IM injection to a patient. c. A provider gives a patient drug samples to take at home. d. A medical assistant performs a venipuncture. ANS: B
REF: p. 610, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a.
3. The term parenteral refers to: a. sites located outside the gastrointestinal tract. b. intramuscular injection sites. c. administration of medication PO. d. topical administration of medication. ANS: A
REF: p. 610, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
4. Which of the following references could you use to look up the adverse reactions of Zithromax? a. Physicians’ Desk Reference b. United States Pharmacopeia c. National Formulary d. The Farmer’s Almanac ANS: A
REF: p. 611, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.d.
5. Which of the following is assigned by the pharmaceutical company that first develops a drug? a. Chemical name b. Official name c. Generic name d. Brand name ANS: C
REF: p. 614, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
6. What is the name of a drug preparation that is applied externally to produce a feeling of heat or warmth? a. Spirit b. Ointment c. Liniment d. Tincture ANS: C
REF: p. 614, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a.b.
7. Which of the following medications is administered through the sublingual route? a. Penicillin b. Nitroglycerin c. Lisinopril d. Heparin ANS: B
REF: p. 614, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a.
8. The reason for enterically coating a tablet is to: a. allow the medication to dissolve slowly. b. reduce the incidence of side effects. c. prevent the medication from being destroyed by intestinal enzymes. d. prevent the medication from irritating the stomach lining. e. All are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 614, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.b.
9. Which of the following represents an equivalent value for a cubic centimeter? a. 1 cc to 1 drop b. 1 cc to 1 mg c. 1 cc to 1 unit d. 1 cc to 1 mL ANS: D
REF: p. 615, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.4.
1
10. Which of the following systems is used most often to prescribe and administer medication? a. Apothecary b. Household c. Metric d. Avoirdupois ANS: C
REF: p. 615, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.3.a.
11. Which of the following is not a unit of weight? a. Gram b. Milligram c. Milliliter d. Kilogram ANS: C
REF: p. 615, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.3.a.
12. Which of the following is a unit of volume? a. Inch b. Grain c. Centimeter d. Liter ANS: D
REF: p. 629, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.3.a.
13. All of the following are characteristics of controlled drugs except: a. they have the potential for abuse. b. telephone prescription orders are not permitted. c. they are classified into five categories. d. there are federal and state restrictions placed on them. ANS: B
REF: p. 629, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
14. Which of the following must be included in a prescription for a controlled drug? a. Schedule category of the drug b. Lot number of the drug c. Provider’s DEA number d. Patient’s Social Security number ANS: C
REF: p. 634, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
15. Which of the following categories includes drugs that have a high potential for abuse and accepted medical use? a. Schedule I b. Schedule II c. Schedule III d. Schedule IV ANS: B
REF: p. 630, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
16. Which of the following is not an example of a schedule II drug? a. Codeine b. Vicodin c. Xanax d. Adderall ANS: C
REF: p. 630, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a.
17. A prescription for a schedule III drug expires: a. 7 days from the date of issue. b. 2 months from the date of issue. c. 6 months from the date of issue. d. 1 year from the date of issue. ANS: C
REF: p. 630, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
18. Which of the following is a form in which a prescription may be authorized? a. Handwritten prescription b. Computer-generated printed prescription c. Electronic transmission to a pharmacy d. Telephoned to a pharmacy e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 633, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.e.
19. The inscription of a prescription consists of: a. directions to the pharmacist. b. the abbreviation Rx. c. the number of doses to be dispensed. d. the name of the drug and the dose. ANS: D
REF: p. 632, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
2
20. Which of the following parts of a prescription indicates the information that is included on the label? a. Superscription b. Subscription c. Signature d. Inscription ANS: C
REF: p. 632, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
21. Why is it important for the patient’s age to be indicated on a prescription? a. For insurance and billing purposes b. To prevent drug interactions c. The pharmacist can double-check to ensure the proper dose is being dispensed d. Allows the pharmacist to determine the side effects that the patient may
experience ANS: C
REF: p. 632, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
22. An EHR prescription program can perform all of the following functions except: a. print a list of medications being taken by the patient. b. determine the number of prescription refills. c. check the prescription against the patient’s drug allergies. d. transmit the prescription electronically to the patient’s pharmacy. ANS: B
REF: p. 636, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.8.
23. Which of the following types of medications should be documented in a patient’s medication record? a. Prescription medications b. Nonprescription medications c. Vitamin supplements d. Herbal products e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 638, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): VI.4.
24. Which of the following is included in a medication record? a. Name and dose of the medication b. Date the medication is prescribed c. Drug allergies d. Route of administration e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 638, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
25. Which of the following situations causes an oral medication to be absorbed at a slower rate? a. Taking the medication prn b. Taking the medication pc c. Taking the medication bid d. Taking the medication q3h ANS: B
REF: p. 640, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
26. When the same dose of a drug no longer produces the desired effect, it is said that the patient has developed: a. an idiosyncratic reaction. b. an allergic reaction. c. a drug interaction. d. a drug tolerance. ANS: D
REF: p. 639, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
27. What is the name given to an adverse reaction that is harmless and often tolerated by the patient to obtain the therapeutic effect of
the drug? Idiosyncratic reaction Side effect Contraindication Warning
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
REF: p. 639, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
28. The early symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction include: a. sneezing, hives, erythema, angioedema, disorientation. b. diplopia, diaphoresis, tachycardia, increased blood pressure. c. dyspnea, cyanosis, decreased blood pressure, thready pulse. d. abdominal cramping, nausea, vomiting, fever. ANS: A
REF: p. 639, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
29. What is the usual treatment for an anaphylactic reaction? a. Epinephrine injection b. Oral administration of antihistamines c. Steroid injection d. Antibiotic injection ANS: A
REF: p. 640, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.14.
3
30. Which of the following guidelines should be followed when administering a medication? a. Check that you have the correct medication. b. Check the expiration date of the medication. c. Identify the patient by full name and date of birth. d. Check that the patient is not allergic to the medication. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 640, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
31. Where does the absorption of most oral medications take place? a. Mouth b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Large intestine ANS: C
REF: p. 640, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
32. All of the following is a characteristic of parenteral medication except: a. the medication is absorbed more rapidly. b. it may be the only way a medication can be administered such as immunizations. c. the medication is absorbed more completely. d. parenteral medications reduce the occurrence of side effects. ANS: D
REF: p. 641, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a.
33. What is the term for the slanted edge at the top of a needle? a. Tip b. Bevel c. Gauge d. Lumen ANS: B
REF: p. 641, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
34. Which of the following needles has the largest lumen? a. 18 G b. 20 G c. 25 G d. 27 G ANS: A
REF: p. 641, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.3.a.
35. Which of the following is a function of the flange of a syringe? a. Attaches the needle to the syringe. b. Helps in injecting the medication. c. Assists in penetrating body tissues. d. Measures the proper amount of medication. ANS: B
REF: p. 642, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
36. Which of the following is used to administer an intradermal injection? a. Hypodermic syringe b. Insulin syringe c. Tuberculin syringe d. 5 mL syringe ANS: C
REF: p. 649, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
37. What is the purpose of a safety-engineered syringe? a. To reduce the discomfort experienced by the patient during the injection b. To reduce the risk of a needlestick injury c. To administer the medication in a shorter period of time d. To prevent an infection at the injection site ANS: B
REF: p. 642, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.5.
38. What is the name given to a closed glass container with a rubber stopper that holds more than one dose of medication? a. Ampule b. Prefilled disposable syringe c. Multiple-dose vial d. Single-dose vial ANS: C
REF: p. 642, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
39. What may occur if an equal amount of air is not injected into a vial when withdrawing medication from the vial? a. It may be difficult to remove the medication from the vial. b. The medication may become contaminated. c. Air bubbles may enter the syringe. d. The vial may crack. ANS: A
REF: p. 644, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
4
40. When withdrawing medication from a vial, the needle must be inserted below the fluid level to: a. prevent altering the effectiveness of the medication. b. prevent the entrance of air bubbles into the syringe. c. prevent the entrance of air bubbles into the vial. d. avoid dulling the point of the needle. ANS: B
REF: p. 644, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
41. Which of the following techniques should not be performed when an ampule is used to administer medication? a. Use a filter needle to withdraw the medication. b. Cleanse the ampule with an alcohol wipe before opening it. c. Inject air into the ampule before removing the medication. d. Insert the needle below the fluid level to withdraw the medication. ANS: C
REF: p. 645, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
42. A subcutaneous injection is given into what type of tissue? a. Fat b. Muscle c. Connective tissue d. Dermal tissue ANS: A
REF: p. 646, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
43. What is the maximal amount of medication that can be administered through the subcutaneous route? a. 1 mL b. 2 mL c. 3 mL d. 5 mL ANS: A
REF: p. 646, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.3.
44. Which of the following is administered through the subcutaneous route? a. Allergy skin tests b. Penicillin c. Insulin d. Mantoux test e. All are correct. ANS: C
REF: p. 646, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a.
45. Which of the following sites is commonly used to administer a subcutaneous injection? a. Gluteus medius muscle b. Upper lateral arm c. Anterior forearm d. Deltoid muscle ANS: B
REF: p. 646, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
46. Which of the following needle lengths is used to administer a subcutaneous injection? a. 3 8 inch b. c. d.
inch 1 inch 1 1 2 inches 5
8
ANS: B
REF: p. 646, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
47. The purpose of aspirating when administering an IM injection is to: a. prevent air bubbles from entering the tissues. b. ensure that the needle is not in a blood vessel. c. reduce patient discomfort. d. prevent tissue damage. e. All are correct. ANS: B
REF: p. 647, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
48. Which of the following needle lengths is used to administer an intramuscular injection into the dorsogluteal site on an average-size
adult? a. b. c. d.
3
inch 5 8 inch 1 inch 1 1 2 inches 8
ANS: D
REF: p. 647, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
49. Why is the dorsogluteal site used to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult? a. It causes less patient discomfort. b. It is easily accessible. c. It can absorb a large amount of medication. d. The buttocks contain no major nerves or blood vessels. e. All are correct. ANS: C
REF: p. 647, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
5
50. The vastus lateralis site is used most often to administer medication to: a. adults. b. infants and young children. c. adolescents. d. elderly patients. ANS: B
REF: p. 648, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.6.
51. When administering an IM injection, the skin over the injection site must be held taut to: a. prevent staining the patient’s skin with the medication. b. permit easier insertion of the needle. c. prevent the needle from entering a blood vessel. d. reduce the chance of infection. e. All are correct. ANS: B
REF: p. 676, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
52. What angle of needle insertion should be used to administer an IM injection? a. 10 to 15 degrees b. 45 degrees c. 90 degrees d. Parallel to the skin ANS: C
REF: p. 673, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
53. Which of the following helps to reduce the pain of an IM injection? a. Allowing the alcohol/antiseptic to dry completely b. Inserting the needle quickly into the patient’s skin c. Holding the needle steady after inserting it d. Withdrawing the needle at the same angle as that used for insertion e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 641, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
54. All of the following are reasons for documenting the location of the injection except: a. to avoid injecting the medication into a major nerve or blood vessel. b. to avoid overuse of a site if the patient requires more than one injection. c. to locate the site if test results need to be read at a later date. d. to provide a reference point if a problem results at the injection site. ANS: A
REF: p. 641, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
55. The Z-track method is used to administer medications that: a. are poorly absorbed. b. are irritating to subcutaneous tissue. c. are likely to cause a drug interaction. d. are thick and oily. e. All are correct. ANS: B
REF: p. 648, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
56. Intradermal injections are used to administer: a. allergy injections. b. pediatric immunizations. c. insulin injections. d. skin tests. e. All are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 649, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a.
57. Which of the following is used to administer an intradermal injection? a. 26 G, 3 8 inch b. c. d.
23 G, 1 2 inch 21 G, 1 inch 24 G, 5 8 inch
ANS: A
REF: p. 649, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.3.
58. When administering an intradermal injection, the needle must be inserted with the bevel facing upward to: a. prevent leakage of the medication onto the skin surface. b. allow proper wheal formation. c. avoid pressure on nerve endings. d. prevent contamination of the medication. e. All are correct. ANS: B
REF: p. 676, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
6
59. Why is it important not to apply pressure to the injection site after administering an intradermal injection? a. To prevent the medication from being absorbed into the tissues b. To reduce patient discomfort c. To prevent the medication from staining the skin d. To prevent an allergic reaction to the medication e. All are correct. ANS: A
REF: p. 677, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
60. Symptoms of active tuberculosis include all of the following except: a. low-grade fever. b. chronic cough. c. abdominal pain. d. chest pain. ANS: C
REF: p. 650, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
61. A patient with a latent tuberculosis infection exhibits all of the following except: a. is unable to spread TB to others. b. has a negative reaction to a TB test. c. has no symptoms. d. has a normal chest X-ray. ANS: B
REF: p. 650, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
62. A TB test is recommended for which of the following individuals? a. Health care worker b. Patient in a nursing home c. An individual who cares for a person with active tuberculosis d. An individual entering the military e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 650, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
63. Which of the following areas of the forearm should be avoided when administering a tuberculin skin test? a. Bruised areas b. Hairy areas c. An area with scar tissue d. Red or swollen areas e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: pp. 651-652, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
64. The patient’s forearm should be held taut while administering the Mantoux test to: a. prevent the needle from entering a blood vessel. b. prevent an allergic reaction from occurring. c. reduce the incidence of a false-positive test result. d. permit easier insertion of the needle. e. All are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 651, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
65. After administering a tuberculin skin test, it should be read within: a. 15 to 20 minutes. b. 12 to 24 hours. c. 36 to 48 hours. d. 48 to 72 hours. ANS: D
REF: p. 653, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
66. Which of the following methods of examination must be used when reading a tuberculin skin test? a. Auscultation and palpation b. Inspection and percussion c. Inspection and palpation d. Inspection only ANS: C
REF: p. 652, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
67. Induration measuring 5 mm resulting from a Mantoux test in an individual with no known risk factors indicates: a. a negative reaction. b. a doubtful reaction. c. a positive reaction. d. an invalid reaction. ANS: A
REF: p. 652, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.3.
68. Erythema without induration occurring from a Mantoux test indicates: a. a negative reaction. b. a doubtful reaction. c. a positive reaction. d. an allergic reaction. ANS: A
REF: p. 652, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
7
69. What is done if a patient has a positive reaction to a Mantoux test? a. The patient is placed on drugs to combat tuberculosis. b. Further diagnostic procedures are performed. c. The patient is referred to a pathologist. d. The patient is given a series of immunizations. ANS: B
REF: p. 654, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
70. What does it mean if both tests in a two-step TB test are negative? a. Further diagnostic procedures must be performed. b. The patient is considered infected with tuberculosis. c. It is considered a boosted reaction. d. The patient is classified as noninfected. ANS: D
REF: p. 653, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
71. Which of the following is a blood test for tuberculosis? a. Mantoux test b. Tine test c. IGRA d. BCG ANS: C
REF: p. 655, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
72. How do allergens enter the body? a. By being inhaled b. By being swallowed c. By coming into contact with the skin d. By being injected e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 655, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
73. Which of the following is an example of an allergen? a. Peanuts b. House dust c. Insect stings d. Plant pollens e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 655, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
74. What is the term for an abnormal reaction to a substance that is normally harmless? a. Asthma b. Anaphylactic shock c. Allergy d. Idiosyncrasy ANS: C
REF: p. 655, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
75. All of the following are forms in which allergies may appear in an individual except: a. allergic rhinitis. b. hay fever. c. joint pain. d. contact dermatitis. ANS: C
REF: p. 655, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
76. Patient preparation for allergy skin testing includes: a. discontinuing antihistamines for 3 days before the test. b. fasting for 12 hours before the test. c. avoiding allergens for 12 hours before the test. d. collecting a first-voided urine specimen on the morning of the test. e. All are correct. ANS: A
REF: p. 656, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
77. Which of the following tests is used to identify allergens causing contact dermatitis? a. Skin-prick test b. Patch test c. Intradermal test d. Tine test ANS: B
REF: p. 656, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
78. An allergy skin test that is positive results in: a. localized itching, erythema, induration. b. generalized edema. c. wheezing, rash, watery eyes. d. localized bruising of the skin. ANS: A
REF: p. 657, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
8
79. The maximal reaction to a skin-prick test occurs between: a. 5 and 10 minutes. b. 15 and 20 minutes. c. 1 and 2 hours. d. 48 and 72 hours. ANS: B
REF: p. 658, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
80. What is the abbreviation for before meals? a. ac b. pc c. qh d. ad lib ANS: A
REF: p. 633, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
81. What is the abbreviation for three times per day? a. q3h b. qod c. tid d. bid ANS: C
REF: p. 633, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
82. What is the abbreviation for immediately? a. ASA b. STAT c. NPO d. prn ANS: B
REF: p. 633, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
83. What is the abbreviation for as desired? a. ad lib b. PM c. DAW d. aq ANS: A
REF: p. 633, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
84. What is the abbreviation for by mouth? a. SL b. OP c. OTC d. po ANS: D
REF: p. 633, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
85. What is IV therapy? a. Administration of a liquid agent directly into a vein b. Removal of a blood specimen from a vein for laboratory analysis c. Administration of topical medication d. Administration of medication through inhalation ANS: A
REF: p. 659, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
86. Which of the following blood vessels is used most often for administering IV therapy? a. Subclavian vein b. Peripheral veins of the arm and hand c. Brachial artery d. Peripheral veins of the leg and foot ANS: B
REF: p. 659, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
87. What is the term for administration of fluids, medications, or nutrients through the IV route? a. Transfusion b. IV drip c. Infusion d. Chemotherapy ANS: C
REF: p. 659, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
88. What is the term for the administration of whole blood or blood products through the IV route? a. Transfusion b. Enteral nutrition c. Infusion d. Effusion ANS: A
REF: p. 659, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
9
89. Outpatient IV therapy may be administered in which of the following facilities? a. Medical offices b. Infusion clinics c. Urgent care centers d. Patient’s home e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 659, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
90. Advantages of administering IV therapy in an outpatient setting include all of the following except: a. patient savings in medical costs. b. avoidance of hospitalization. c. less pain and tissue trauma. d. patient convenience. ANS: C
REF: p. 660, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
91. The medical assistant should relay the following instructions to the patient regarding IV therapy: a. time to arrive for the IV therapy. b. amount of time required for the therapy. c. to wear loose-fitting, comfortable clothing. d. whether someone needs to drive the patient to and from the appointment. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 661, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.c.
MATCHING
Directions: Match each drug category with its definition. Definitions a. Used to manage high blood pressure b. Increases strength and force of myocardial contractions and slows heart rate c. Suppresses inflammation and modifies normal immune response d. Neutralizes gastric acid to relieve gastric pain and irritation e. Removes excess fluid from the body by increasing urine output f. Relieves symptoms of osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis g. Used to prevent or relieve coughs h. Promotes clearance of mucus from respiratory tract i. Kills or inhibits growth of bacteria j. Used to relieve constipation k. Used to lower cholesterol l. Used to treat and prevent osteoporosis m. Promotes sleep by CNS depression n. Used to manage moderate-to-severe pain o. Inhibits ovulation p. Relieves symptoms associated with allergies Drug Categories 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.
Analgesic (opioid) Antacid Antihistamine Antihypertensive Anti-infective Anti-inflammatory Antitussive Bone resorption inhibitor Cardiac glycoside Contraceptive (hormonal) Corticosteroid Diuretic Expectorant Laxative Lipid-lowering agent Sedative-hypnotic
1. ANS: N 2. ANS: D 3. ANS: P 4. ANS: A 5. ANS: I 6. ANS: F 7. ANS: G 8. ANS: L 9. ANS: B 10. ANS: O 11. ANS: C 12. ANS: E
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 616, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a. p. 616, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a. p. 619, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a. p. 620, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a. p. 621, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a. p. 622, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a. p. 623, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a. p. 623, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a. p. 624, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a. p. 624, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a. p. 624, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a. p. 625, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a. 10
13. 14. 15. 16.
ANS: H ANS: J ANS: K ANS: M
REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 625, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a. p. 626, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a. p. 626, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a. p. 627, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a.
11
Chapter 27: Cardiopulmonary Procedures Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An electrocardiogram is a recording of the: a. electrical activity of the heart. b. opening and closing of the valves of the heart. c. force of the blood against the walls of the blood vessels. d. contraction and relaxation of the ventricles. ANS: A
REF: p. 682, IV.11, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
2. Electrocardiography is used to: a. detect a dysrhythmia. b. evaluate chest pain or shortness of breath. c. detect the presence of cardiac ischemia. d. determine the presence of hypertrophy of the heart. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 682, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
3. What is a cardiac cycle? a. Contraction of the atria b. One complete heartbeat c. Relaxation of the entire heart d. Contraction of the ventricles ANS: B
REF: p. 682, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
4. What is the name given to the portion of the ECG between two waves? a. Segment b. Baseline c. Interval d. Polarization line ANS: A
REF: p. 683, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
5. Which of the following conditions can cause the ECG tracing to exhibit a larger than normal Q wave and an elevated S-T segment? a. Congestive heart failure b. Myocardial infarction c. Hypertrophy of the heart d. Coronary artery disease ANS: B
REF: p. 684, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.
6. How high is the standardization mark when the electrocardiograph is properly standardized? a. 5 mm b. 10 mm c. 15 mm d. 20 mm ANS: B
REF: p. 684, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
7. How many leads are there on a standard electrocardiogram? a. 5 b. 10 c. 12 d. 15 ANS: C
REF: p. 684, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
8. A device placed on the skin that picks up electrical impulses released by the heart is known as: a. a lead wire. b. an amplifier. c. an electrode. d. an electrolyte. ANS: C
REF: p. 685, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
9. Electrical voltage received by the electrocardiograph is changed to mechanical motion in the: a. stylus. b. galvanometer. c. amplifier. d. patient cable. ANS: B
REF: p. 685, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
1
10. Which electrode is used as a ground reference? a. Right arm b. Right leg c. Left arm d. Left leg ANS: B
REF: p. 685, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
11. An electrolyte must be used when running an ECG to: a. facilitate the transmission of the electrical impulses of the heart. b. reduce the amount of dryness of the skin. c. protect the patient from shocks that are generated by the electrocardiograph. d. amplify the electrical impulses coming from the heart. ANS: A
REF: p. 686, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
12. A disposable electrode is held in place by: a. a rubber strap. b. a vacuum cup. c. an adhesive backing on the electrode. d. superglue. ANS: C
REF: p. 686, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
13. All of the following are guidelines for electrodes except: a. check the expiration date on the electrode pouch before use. b. after use, reseal the electrode pouch and place it in a plastic bag. c. do not use a dried out electrode. d. store electrodes in a refrigerator. ANS: D
REF: p. 686, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
14. Leads 1, 2, and 3 are the: a. bipolar leads. b. chest leads. c. augmented leads. d. precordial leads. ANS: A
REF: p. 686, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
15. The aVR, aVL, and aVF are known as the: a. standard leads. b. chest leads. c. augmented leads. d. bipolar leads. ANS: C
REF: p. 687, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
16. Chest lead V2 is located at the: a. fourth intercostal space at the left margin of the sternum. b. fifth intercostal space at the junction of the left midclavicular line. c. fifth intercostal space at the left margin of the sternum. d. fourth intercostal space at the right margin of the sternum. ANS: A
REF: p. 687, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
17. Where is chest lead V5 located? a. Midway between V4 and V6 b. At the fifth intercostal space at the junction of the left midclavicular line c. At the horizontal level of V4 at the left anterior axillary line d. At the horizontal level of V4 at the left midaxillary line ANS: C
REF: p. 687, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
18. All of the following are guidelines for patient preparation for an ECG except: a. do not consume food or fluids except water for 12 hours before the ECG. b. women should not wear tights. c. do not apply body lotion or oil on the day of the test. d. wear comfortable clothing. ANS: A
REF: p. 689, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.e.
19. What type of maintenance should be performed on the electrocardiograph machine? a. The casing of the electrocardiograph should be cleaned with a soft cloth and a b. c. d. e.
mild detergent. The patient cables, lead wires, and power cord should be cleaned with a disinfectant cleaner. The cables should be inspected for cracks or fraying and replaced if needed. The alligator clips should be checked periodically to make sure they fit snugly on the metal tip of each lead wire. All are correct.
ANS: E
REF: p. 689, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
2
20. What are artifacts? a. The marking code recorded by the ECG to indicate which lead is being run b. Additional electrical activity picked up by the electrocardiograph c. A type of standardization mark d. Rare objects uncovered in ancient Peru ANS: B
REF: p. 692, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
21. Which of the following artifacts appears as small, straight, spiked lines that are consistent in nature? a. Muscle artifact b. Wandering baseline artifact c. 60-cycle interference artifact d. Interrupted baseline artifact ANS: C
REF: p. 692, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
22. All of the following result in muscle artifacts except: a. patient discomfort. b. an apprehensive patient. c. electrodes that have come loose. d. patient coughing or talking. ANS: C
REF: p. 692, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
23. Which of the following may cause a 60-cycle interference artifact? a. Patient movement b. Lead wires not following body contour c. A broken patient cable d. Parkinson’s disease ANS: B
REF: p. 692, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
24. Which of the following represents an error in technique when running an electrocardiogram? a. Positioning the machine so that the power cord runs under the patient table b. Working on the left side of the patient c. Instructing the patient to lie still and not to talk during the procedure d. Positioning the limb electrodes on the fleshy part of the upper arms and lower
legs ANS: A
REF: p. 706, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
25. Holter monitor electrocardiography is used to: a. assess the rate and rhythm of the heart during daily activities. b. evaluate patients with unexplained chest pain. c. detect cardiac dysrhythmias that are intermittent in nature. d. assess the effectiveness of a pacemaker. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 694, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
26. Which of the following is included in a Holter monitor computer-generated ECG report? a. Information about the patient’s heart rate and rhythm b. Any abnormalities that occurred during the monitoring period c. Selected samples of the patient's cardiac activity d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 695, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
27. What term is used to refer to an electrocardiogram result that is within normal limits? a. Sinus arrhythmia b. Baseline recording c. Normal sinus rhythm d. WNL ANS: C
REF: p. 695, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
28. Which of the following is an example of a cardiac dysrhythmia? a. Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia b. Premature ventricular contraction c. Atrial fibrillation d. Ventricular fibrillation e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 695, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
29. The purpose of pulmonary function testing is to: a. detect the presence of lung cancer. b. dilate the bronchial tubes. c. detect cardiac dysrhythmias. d. assess lung functioning. ANS: D
REF: p. 695, I.6, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
3
30. All of the following are examples of pulmonary function tests except: a. coronary angiography. b. diffusion capacity. c. arterial blood gas studies. d. pulse oximetry. ANS: A
REF: p. 695, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
31. Which of the following devices measures how much air is exhaled by the lungs and how fast it is exhaled? a. Tympanogram b. Spirometer c. Pulse oximeter d. Blood gas analyzer ANS: B
REF: p. 696, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
32. All of the following are indications for spirometry except: a. A patient complaining of dyspnea b. A patient with emphysema c. A patient who has worked in a coal mines for 20 years d. A patient with an upper respiratory infection ANS: D
REF: p. 696, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
33. All of the following are patient preparation requirements for spirometry except: a. do not consume food or fluids for 8 hours before the test. b. wear loose, nonrestrictive clothing. c. do not take bronchodilators for 4 hours before the test. d. stop smoking at least 8 hours before the test. ANS: A
REF: p. 696, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.e.
34. All of the following are characteristics of asthma except: a. it is a chronic disease with no cure. b. its symptoms include wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness. c. it primarily affects the alveolar ducts and alveoli of the lungs. d. it most often affects children and young adults. ANS: C
REF: p. 696, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
35. Which of the following are asthma triggers? a. House dust b. Tobacco smoke c. Animal dander d. Vigorous physical exercise e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 698, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.c.
36. What happens to the bronchial tubes during an asthma attack? a. They dilate and go into a spasm. b. They become hard and stiff. c. They become hyposensitive to allergens. d. They constrict, swell, and become clogged with mucus. ANS: D
REF: p. 698, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
37. Which of the following is a characteristic of quick-relief asthma medication? a. It rapidly opens up the airways. b. It is usually taken every day. c. It is used to prevent asthma symptoms. d. It helps to relieve bronchial inflammation. e. All are correct. ANS: A
REF: p. 698, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a.b.
38. The purpose of a peak flow meter is to: a. diagnose asthma. b. prevent an asthma attack. c. measure how quickly air flows out of the lungs. d. deliver asthma medication to the lungs. ANS: C
REF: p. 699, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
39. All of the following are characteristics of a low range peak flow meter except: a. measures the breathing maneuver in liters per minute. b. only available with a prescription. c. used by young children. d. has a scale that ranges from 0 to 300. ANS: B
REF: p. 699, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
4
40. All of the following are guidelines for measuring peak flow rate except: a. tightly seal the lips around the mouthpiece. b. take a deep breath until the lungs are full. c. blow all the air out of the lungs as fast as possible. d. calculate the average of three acceptable breathing maneuvers. ANS: D
REF: pp. 709-710, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
41. All of the following can lead to inaccurate peak flow measurements except: a. a fearful and anxious patient. b. not moving the indicator to the bottom of the numbered scale. c. not changing the disposable mouthpiece between patients. d. a crack in the peak flow meter. ANS: C
REF: p. 700, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
42. Oxygen combines with glucose in the cells of the body to produce: a. lactose. b. adrenalin. c. energy. d. insulin. ANS: C
REF: p. 700, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
43. All of the following are symptoms of a low oxygen level in the body except: a. cyanosis of the lips and fingernails. b. nausea and vomiting. c. drowsiness and confusion. d. difficult or irregular breathing. ANS: B
REF: p. 704, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
44. Which of the following may occur when the body cannot maintain an adequate oxygen level? a. Death of cells b. Organ failure c. Body system failure d. Death e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 701, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8a.b.
45. All of the following conditions may require home oxygen therapy except: a. COPD. b. congestive heart failure. c. heart palpitations. d. cystic fibrosis. ANS: C
REF: p. 701, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
46. Which of the following oxygen delivery systems separates oxygen from the air for use by the patient? a. Compressed oxygen gas b. Liquid oxygen c. Oxygen concentrator d. Oxygen compressor ANS: C
REF: p. 702, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
47. All of the following are characteristics of a nasal cannula except: a. most frequently used device for administering home oxygen therapy. b. contains two prongs that are inserted into the patient’s nose. c. does not interfere with the patient’s ability to talk, eat, or drink. d. used for patients who need a high flow of oxygen. ANS: D
REF: p. 702, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
48. All of the following are guidelines for oxygen usage except: a. store in a clean, dry, well-ventilated room. b. store oxygen cylinders in an upright position. c. never smoke while using oxygen. d. use at least 50 feet of tubing with the oxygen delivery system. ANS: D
REF: p. 704, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
5
MATCHING
ECG GRAPH CYCLE Directions: Match each of the following components of the ECG graph cycle with its definition. Definitions a. Represents the time interval from the beginning of ventricular depolarization to the end of repolarization of the ventricles b. Represents the electrical recovery of the ventricles c. Represents the contraction of the ventricles d. Represents the time from the end of ventricular depolarization to the beginning of repolarization of the ventricles e. Represents the contraction of the atria f. Represents the time from the end of atrial depolarization to the beginning of ventricular depolarization g. Represents the time from the beginning of atrial depolarization to the beginning of ventricular depolarization h. Represents the period of time when the heart rests ECG Components 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
P wave QRS complex T wave P-R interval Q-T interval P-R segment ST segment Baseline
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.
ANS: E ANS: C ANS: B ANS: G ANS: A ANS: F ANS: D ANS: H
REF: p. 683, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 683, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 683, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 683, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 684, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 683, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 683, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 683, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
WORD PARTS Directions: Match each word part meaning with its correct word part. Word Part a. ather/o b. cardio/o c. electr/o d. -emia e. -gram f. -graph g. hypoh. -ia i. isch/o j. -meter k. -metry l. ox/i m. -sclerosis n. spir/o Meaning of Word Part 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.
Hardening of Yellowish, fatty plaque Heart Electrical, electrical activity Record of Below, deficient Oxygen Measurement Instrument used to record Condition of diseased or abnormal state Deficiency, blockage Breathe, breathing Instrument used to measure Blood condition
9. 10. 11. 12.
ANS: M ANS: A ANS: B ANS: C
REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 705, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 705, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 705, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 705, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. 6
13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.
ANS: E ANS: G ANS: L ANS: K ANS: F ANS: H ANS: I ANS: N ANS: J ANS: D
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 705, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 705, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 705, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 705, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 705, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 705, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 705, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 705, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 705, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 705, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9.
7
Chapter 28: Specialty Examinations and Procedures: Colon Procedures, Male Reproductive Health, and Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following conditions may cause blood in the stool? a. Hemorrhoids b. Diverticulosis c. Colorectal cancer d. Polyps e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 714, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8 a.b.
2. What is the appearance of stool exhibiting melena? a. Dry and hard b. Black and tarlike c. Streaked with blood d. Streaked with mucus ANS: B
REF: p. 714, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8 a.b.
3. What is occult blood? a. Less than 5 mL of blood in the stool b. Digested blood c. Blood that is not visible d. Visible red blood ANS: C
REF: p. 714, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
4. All of the following are symptoms of colorectal cancer except: a. visible bleeding from the rectum. b. change in bowel habits. c. abdominal discomfort. d. unexplained weight gain. ANS: D
REF: p. 714, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.
5. Which of the following may result in a false-positive test result on a guaiac slide test? a. Taking aspirin b. Eating red meat c. Eating foods containing peroxidase d. Performing the test during a menstrual period e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 716, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
6. Why must the patient consume a high-fiber diet before guaiac slide testing? a. To prevent a false-negative test result b. To prevent gastrointestinal irritation c. To encourage bleeding from intestinal lesions d. To prevent a false-positive test result ANS: C
REF: p. 716, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.10.
7. All of the following medications must be discontinued before and during guaiac slide testing except: a. ibuprofen (Tylenol). b. calcium supplement. c. iron supplement. d. vitamin C. ANS: B
REF: p. 716, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
8. Patient instructions for the guaiac slide test include all of the following except: a. begin the diet modifications 3 days before collecting the first stool specimen. b. collect a sample from two different parts of each stool specimen. c. spread a thin smear of the specimen over the filter paper. d. use a regular envelope to mail the specimen to the medical office. ANS: D
REF: pp. 739-740, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.b.
9. Any trace of blue appearing on or at the edge of the guaiac slide test is interpreted as: a. positive. b. negative. c. no reaction. d. invalid. ANS: A
REF: p. 716, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.10.
1
10. Which of the following can cause failure of the expected control results to occur on a guaiac slide test? a. Outdated slides b. Outdated developing solution c. Error in technique d. Improper storage of the testing kit e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 716, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
11. Which of the following tests may be performed if the fecal occult blood test result is positive? a. MRI b. Colonoscopy c. Upper GI x-ray study d. Colposcopy e. All are correct ANS: B
REF: p. 718, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
12. How should guaiac slide tests be stored? a. At room temperature b. In the freezer c. In an airtight container d. In the refrigerator ANS: A
REF: p. 716, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
13. All of the following are advantages of the fecal immunochemical test (FIT) as compared with the guaiac slide test except: a. FIT is more sensitive to lower GI bleeding. b. FIT has fewer false-positive test results. c. FIT is less expensive. d. FIT does not require dietary or medication restrictions. ANS: C
REF: p. 718, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.10.
14. The purpose of sigmoidoscopy is to detect the presence of: a. lesions. b. inflammatory bowel disease. c. polyps. d. hemorrhoids. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 719, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
15. What type of bowel preparation may be required before a sigmoidoscopy? a. Not consuming any solid food the day before the procedure b. Drinking only clear liquids the day before the procedure c. Taking a laxative the evening before the examination d. Performing cleansing enemas the day of the procedure e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 719, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.e.
16. Which of the following positions is used for flexible fiberoptic sigmoidoscopy? a. Sims b. Lithotomy c. Prone d. Supine ANS: A
REF: p. 720, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.3.b.
17. What is the purpose of the DRE before a sigmoidoscopy? a. To palpate the rectum for tenderness b. To palpate the rectum for hemorrhoids, polyps, and tumors c. To relax the sphincter muscles of the anus d. To prepare the patient for insertion of the endoscope e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 719, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
18. Which of the following is not a responsibility of the medical assistant during a sigmoidoscopy? a. Lubricating the provider’s gloved finger for the digital examination b. Insufflating air into the colon c. Placing lubricant on the sigmoidoscope d. Assisting with suctioning equipment ANS: B
REF: p. 721, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
19. When the provider is finished with the sigmoidoscope, it should be: a. sterilized in the autoclave. b. sanitized and returned to its storage case. c. sterilized in the dry heat oven. d. sanitized and disinfected. ANS: D
REF: p. 721, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.4.
2
20. What parts of the colon are viewed during a colonoscopy? a. Sigmoid colon b. Descending colon c. Transverse colon d. Ascending colon e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 721, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
21. What is the reason for removing a precancerous polyp during a colonoscopy? a. To prevent the polyp from developing into cancer b. To prevent the development of hemorrhoids c. To prevent constipation d. To prevent a colon obstruction e. All are correct ANS: A
REF: p. 723, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
22. The function of the prostate gland is to: a. store sperm. b. secrete fluid that transports sperm. c. secrete testosterone. d. produce sperm. ANS: B
REF: p. 723, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
23. All of the following are symptoms of prostate cancer except: a. difficulty in urinating. b. painful urination. c. blood in the urine. d. thick, yellow discharge from the penis. ANS: D
REF: p. 723, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
24. A normal prostate gland feels: a. lumpy. b. firm. c. soft. d. hard. ANS: C
REF: p. 723, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
25. All of the following conditions can cause an elevated PSA level except: a. prostatitis. b. testicular cancer. c. benign prostatic hyperplasia. d. prostate cancer. ANS: B
REF: p. 723, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
26. The normal range for a PSA test is: a. 0 to 4 ng/mL. b. 4 to 10 ng/mL. c. 10 to 20 ng/mL. d. greater than 20 ng/mL. ANS: A
REF: p. 723, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
27. Which of the following increases the PSA level? a. Fasting b. Smoking c. Vigorous exercise d. Alcohol consumption e. All are correct ANS: C
REF: p. 723, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
28. Which of the following tests may be ordered if a patient has a positive prostate screening test? a. Transrectal ultrasound b. Bone scan c. Biopsy of the prostate gland d. CT scan e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 724, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
29. Testicular cancer occurs most commonly: a. between age 15 and 34. b. between age 30 and 50. c. after age 40. d. after age 50. ANS: A
REF: p. 724, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
3
30. All of the following are risk factors for testicular cancer except: a. family history of testicular cancer. b. undescended testicles. c. being an African American male. d. cancer of the other testicle. ANS: C
REF: p. 724, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
31. When should a testicular self-examination be performed? a. In the morning b. After taking a warm shower c. After sexual intercourse d. After vigorous exercise ANS: B
REF: p. 724, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.b.
32. All of the following are risk factors for testicular cancer except: a. history of undescended testicles. b. multiple sexual partners. c. family history of testicular cancer. d. being of the Caucasian race. ANS: B
REF: p. 724, I.6, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
33. The most common sign of testicular cancer is: a. a small, hard, painless lump on the testicle. b. bleeding during urination. c. a change in bowel habits. d. difficulty in urinating. ANS: A
REF: p. 724, I.6, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
34. Who discovered x-rays? a. Radcliffe b. Roentgen c. Pasteur d. Fleming ANS: B
REF: p. 724, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10
35. A provider specializing in the diagnosis and treatment of disease using radiation and other imaging techniques is known as a(n): a. radiologist. b. radiology technician. c. pathologist. d. cardiologist. ANS: A
REF: p. 724, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
36. The permanent record of the picture produced on the x-ray film is known as a: a. radiologram. b. sonogram. c. radiograph. d. tomogram. ANS: C
REF: p. 724, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
37. The function of x-rays includes all of the following except: a. to visualize internal structures. b. to prevent disease. c. to detect the presence of disease. d. to treat disease. ANS: B
REF: p. 724, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.b.
38. Which of the following is an advantage of digital radiology? a. Images can be taken and viewed immediately. b. Images can be sent electronically to a network of computers. c. Images can be enhanced and enlarged on the computer screen d. Higher quality images are produced. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 725, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
39. How does a radiopaque structure appear on a radiograph? a. Black b. Clear c. Silver d. White ANS: D
REF: p. 726, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
4
40. Which of the following is an example of a radiolucent structure? a. Lungs b. Urinary bladder c. Stomach d. Intestines e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 726, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
41. The purpose of contrast medium is to: a. prevent the radiographic film from becoming blurred. b. decrease the amount of time needed to develop radiographic film. c. make a structure visible on a radiograph. d. allow direct visualization of internal organs and structures. ANS: C
REF: p. 726, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
42. All of the following are methods used to administer a contrast medium except: a. oral administration. b. subcutaneous injection. c. IV. d. enema. ANS: B
REF: p. 726, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.
43. Which of the following x-ray studies does not require the use of a contrast medium? a. Bronchogram b. Chest radiograph c. IVP d. Angiocardiogram ANS: B
REF: p. 731, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
44. An instrument used to view internal organs directly is known as a: a. fluoroscope. b. radiography. c. fluoroscopy. d. fluorometer. ANS: A
REF: p. 726, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
45. The patient should be instructed not to move during the radiographic examination to prevent: a. being exposed to an excessive amount of radiation. b. being burned by the x-rays. c. blurring of the image on the film. d. confusing shadows on the film. ANS: C
REF: p. 727, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.e.
46. Mammography is used to detect: a. fibrocystic breast disease. b. breast cancer. c. benign breast masses. d. breast calcifications. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 727, I.6, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
47. The breasts are compressed during mammography to: a. prevent the patient from moving. b. protect the patient from excessive radiation. c. obtain a clear radiograph. d. reduce patient discomfort. e. all are correct. ANS: C
REF: p. 728, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
48. Patient instructions for a mammogram include which of the following? a. Do not wear lotions, powders, or deodorants. b. Avoid caffeine for 12 hours before the examination. c. Schedule the examination several days before your menstrual period. d. Take a mild sedative before the examination. e. All are correct. ANS: A
REF: p. 727, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.e.
49. What is the purpose of a bone density scan? a. To detect a ruptured disk b. To detect bone loss c. To detect a stress fracture d. To detect bone cancer e. All are correct ANS: B
REF: p. 728, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
5
50. Which of the following instructions should be relayed to the patient regarding a bone density scan? a. Do not take a calcium supplement on the morning of the scan. b. Take a laxative the evening before the scan. c. Do not eat or drink after midnight on the day before the scan. d. Avoid vigorous physical exercise for 2 days before the scan. e. All are correct. ANS: A
REF: p. 728, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.e.
51. Which of the following individuals is at particular risk for osteoporosis? a. A patient with osteoarthritis b. An obese individual c. A patient with diabetes d. A postmenopausal woman ANS: D
REF: p. 728, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.c.
52. The upper gastrointestinal (GI) radiographic examination is helpful in diagnosing all of the following except: a. hiatal hernia. b. tumors of the large intestine. c. peptic ulcer. d. GERD. ANS: B
REF: p. 729, I.6, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
53. Which of the following instructions should be relayed to the patient regarding an upper GI radiographic examination? a. Perform a cleansing enema on the morning of the examination. b. Take a laxative the evening before the examination. c. Do not eat or drink after midnight on the day before the examination. d. Take dye tablets with the evening meal. e. All are correct. ANS: C
REF: p. 729, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.e.
54. All of the following occurs during an upper GI radiographic examination except: a. barium is introduced into the colon through a tube. b. the radiologist observes the passage of the barium through the GI tract. c. radiographs are taken periodically. d. the patient’s position is changed at various times. ANS: A
REF: p. 729, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
55. What effect does the barium suspension have on the stool after an upper GI is performed? a. It is dark and tarlike. b. It is streaked with blood. c. It is whitish in color. d. It is loose and watery. ANS: C
REF: p. 729, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.e.
56. A lower GI radiographic examination assists in evaluating and diagnosing: a. polyps. b. cancerous tumors. c. ulcerative colitis. d. diverticulosis. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 729, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
57. Why must gas be removed from the colon before a lower GI radiographic study? a. It shows up as confusing shadows on the radiograph. b. It obscures the image of the colon. c. It makes the examination uncomfortable for the patient. d. It results in blurring of the radiograph. ANS: A
REF: p. 729, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
58. Which of the following is not a form of patient preparation for a lower GI radiographic examination? a. Consume only clear liquids the day before the examination. b. Take a laxative the day before the examination. c. Do not drink anything (except water) beginning after midnight on the day before d.
the examination. Take tablets containing a contrast medium the evening before the examination.
ANS: D
REF: p. 730, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.e.
59. Which of the following radiographic examinations uses air and barium to view the colon in great detail? a. Myelogram b. Double-contrast barium enema c. Hysterosalpingogram d. Colonoscopy ANS: B
REF: p. 730, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
6
60. An IVP is a radiograph of the: a. kidneys, ureters, and bladder. b. brain and spinal cord. c. liver. d. gallbladder and common bile duct. ANS: A
REF: p. 730, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
61. An IVP is used to assist in the diagnosis of all of the following except: a. kidney stones. b. blockage of the urinary tract. c. growths of the urinary system. d. urinary tract infections. ANS: D
REF: p. 730, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
62. Before performing an IVP, the patient must be asked if he or she is allergic to: a. penicillin. b. beets. c. iodine. d. barium. ANS: C
REF: p. 730, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.e.
63. Which of the following is a characteristic of ultrasonography? a. Cannot be used for bone studies. b. Shows movement. c. Allows for continuous viewing of a structure. d. Does not use radiation. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 731, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
64. What is the term for the recorded image obtained with ultrasonography? a. Radiograph b. Sonogram c. Cardiogram d. Audiogram ANS: B
REF: p. 732, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
65. The purpose of an obstetric ultrasound is to: a. determine gestational age. b. detect congenital abnormalities. c. detect multiple pregnancies. d. determine the position of the fetus in the uterus. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 732, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
66. Which of the following uses ultrasound to measure the direction and speed of blood as it flows through blood vessels? a. DXA scan b. Doppler ultrasound c. PET scan d. Electrocardiography ANS: B
REF: p. 732, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
67. An echocardiogram can be used to assess which of the following? a. Size of the heart b. Movement of the heart valves c. Shape and position of the heart d. Movement of the heart chambers e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 731, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
68. All of the following are characteristics of computed tomography (CT) except: a. uses sound waves to produce an image. b. used for diagnostic studies of the brain. c. produces a series of cross-sectional pictures. d. may use a contrast dye during the scan. ANS: A
REF: p. 732, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
69. To prepare for a CT scan, the patient must: a. discontinue all medications 2 days before the scan. b. remove all radiopaque objects. c. consume four glasses of water 1 hour before the scan. d. perform a cleansing enema on the morning of the examination. ANS: B
REF: p. 734, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.e.
7
70. During the CT scan, the patient must: a. remain still. b. move into various positions. c. recite the Pledge of Allegiance. d. consume a concentrated glucose solution. ANS: A
REF: p. 734, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
71. Magnetic resonance imaging is used to assist in the diagnosis of: a. spinal lesions. b. cardiovascular abnormalities. c. herniated disks. d. joint diseases. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 734, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
72. Which of the following is a characteristic of magnetic resonance imaging? a. It is safe and painless. b. The patient must remove all metal before the procedure. c. The patient must remain still during the procedure. d. The patient hears a metallic clacking sound during the procedure. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 734, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
73. Which of the following is not a characteristic of nuclear medicine diagnostic imaging procedures? a. Radioactive substances are introduced into the body. b. It shows the actual function of organs. c. A gamma camera detects the radiation given off by the body. d. The examination takes only a short time. ANS: D
REF: p. 735, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
74. Which of the following assists in the diagnosis of coronary artery disease? a. DXA scan b. Echocardiogram c. Nuclear cardiac stress test d. Cerebral angiogram ANS: C
REF: pp. 735-736, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
75. Which of the following conditions can be diagnosed with a PET scan? a. Brain cancer and heart disease b. Diabetes c. Inflammatory bowel disease d. Multiple sclerosis e. All are correct ANS: A
REF: p. 736, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
MATCHING
WORD PARTS Directions: Match each word part meaning with its correct word part. Word Part a. -ase b. bi/o c. colon/o d. endoe. -opsy f. ox/i g. -scope h. -scopy i. sigmoid/o Meaning of Word Part 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
Life To view Colon Visual examination Within Enzyme Oxygen Sigmoid colon Instrument for visual examination
1. ANS: B
REF: p. 737, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. 8
2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
ANS: E ANS: C ANS: H ANS: D ANS: A ANS: F ANS: I ANS: G
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 737, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 737, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 737, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 737, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 737, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 737, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 738, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 738, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9.
IMAGING PROCEDURES Directions: Match each type of imaging procedure with its definition. Definition a. A radiograph of the urinary bladder b. A radiograph of the lungs c. A radiograph of the bile ducts d. An ultrasound examination of the heart e. A radiograph of the heart f. A radiograph of the major arteries of the brain g. A radiograph of the coronary arteries h. A radiograph of the uterus and fallopian tubes Imaging Procedure 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.
Angiocardiogram Bronchogram Cerebral angiogram Cholangiogram Coronary angiogram Cystogram Echocardiogram Hysterosalpingogram
10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.
ANS: E ANS: B ANS: F ANS: C ANS: G ANS: A ANS: D ANS: H
REF: p. 730, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 731, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 731, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 731, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 731, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 731, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 731, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. REF: p. 731, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
9
Chapter 29: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following assists the provider in making a diagnosis? a. Health history b. Physical examination c. Laboratory tests d. Diagnostic tests e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 744, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12
2. Which of the following occurs when the body is in homeostasis? a. Laboratory test results are above the reference range. b. An imbalance exists in the body. c. Laboratory test results fall within the reference range. d. Laboratory test results are invalid. ANS: C
REF: p. 744, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
3. Which of the following is an example of using a laboratory test to regulate treatment? a. A diabetic patient tests his or her blood before administering insulin. b. A patient undergoes a blood cholesterol screening test. c. A CBC is performed to determine if a patient has anemia. d. A gonorrhea test is performed on a pregnant woman as required by state law. ANS: A
REF: p. 745, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.b.
4. What is the purpose of performing a routine test? a. To detect the presence of an acute infection b. To assist in the clinical diagnosis of a patient’s condition c. To assist in the early detection of disease d. To determine the medication dosage to administer to a patient ANS: C
REF: p. 746, III.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
5. Which of the following is an example of using a laboratory test to assist in the differential diagnosis of a patient’s condition? a. Running a profile on a patient who complains of vague symptoms b. Performing a strep test to determine if a patient has strep throat or pharyngitis c. Performing an OGTT on a patient who exhibits the symptoms of diabetes d. Performing a CBC on a patient as part of a general physical examination ANS: B
REF: p. 745, III.10, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
6. All of the following are characteristics of a CLIA waived tests except: a. they are easy to perform. b. they require the use of highly sophisticated automated equipment. c. they are often performed in a POL. d. there is a low risk of erroneous test results. ANS: B
REF: p. 746, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.10.
7. All of the following are guidelines for storing specimens and testing components in a laboratory refrigerator except: a. attach a biohazard warning label to the refrigerator. b. maintain the refrigerator temperature between 36° and 46° F. c. check the temperature of the refrigerator once each week. d. do not store food in the refrigerator. ANS: C
REF: p. 747, IX.13, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
8. What temperature is usually required for storing testing materials and performing laboratory tests? a. Body temperature b. Room temperature c. A temperature below 20° F d. A temperature above 212° F ANS: B
REF: p. 748, XI.2, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
9. Which of the following guidelines should be followed when using an emergency eyewash station? a. The eyewash should be located within a 10 second walking distance of the b. c. d. e.
hazard. Direct the flow of water at an angle to the eyes. Tepid water should be used to flush the eyes. Flush the eyes for 15 minutes. All are correct.
ANS: E
REF: p. 747, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
1
10. All of the following may need to be flushed out of the eyes using an emergency eyewash station except: a. other potentially infectious materials. b. hazardous chemicals. c. eye discharge. d. dust and irritants. ANS: C
REF: p. 747, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.14.
11. All of the following are found in a laboratory directory except: a. names and CPT codes of the tests performed by the laboratory. b. patient preparation required for laboratory tests. c. amount and type of specimen required by the laboratory. d. instructions for testing specimens in the POL. e. handling and storage of laboratory specimens. ANS: D
REF: p. 749, IV.12, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015).
12. All of the following are included on a laboratory request form except: a. provider’s name and address. b. patient’s age and gender. c. date and time of collection of the specimen. d. source of the specimen. e. laboratory test results. ANS: E
REF: pp. 751-752, IV.12, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
13. What is a profile? a. A substance that is being identified or measured in a laboratory test. b. A quantitative laboratory test. c. A combination of laboratory tests for identifying a disease. d. A laboratory test that is required by state law. ANS: C
REF: p. 753, IV.11, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
14. All of the following are included in a lipid profile except: a. glucose. b. total cholesterol. c. HDL cholesterol. d. triglycerides. ANS: A
REF: p. 754, IV.12, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
15. All of the following are reasons for indicating the clinical diagnosis on the laboratory request form except: a. to alert laboratory personnel to the presence of a possible pathogen. b. to inform laboratory personnel of the source of the specimen. c. to assist in third-party billing. d. to correlate laboratory data with the needs of the provider. ANS: B
REF: pp. 752-753, IV.12, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
16. What is the purpose of a laboratory report? a. To indicate the patient diagnosis b. To relay the results of laboratory tests to the provider c. To order laboratory tests on a patient d. To indicate the patient prognosis ANS: B
REF: p. 755, IV.12, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
17. What is the purpose of the patient accession number found on the laboratory report? a. To provide identification of each specimen in the laboratory b. To provide information required for third-party billing c. To identify the source of the specimen d. To assist the provider in making a diagnosis e. All are correct ANS: A
REF: pp. 755-756, IX.13, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
18. How are laboratory reports delivered to the medical office? a. Faxed b. Mailed c. Hand-delivered by a laboratory courier d. Electronically using a computer e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 758, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.8.
19. All of the following are advantages of the laboratory component of an EHR program except: a. laboratory requests can be completed on the computer. b. laboratory requests can be transmitted electronically to the medical laboratory. c. the type of tests required by the patient can be determined by the program. d. laboratory tests performed on a routine based can be plotted on a flow sheet. ANS: C
REF: p. 758, V.11, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.8.
2
20. What is the purpose of patient preparation for a laboratory test? a. To reduce patient discomfort during specimen collection b. To provide a specimen that yields accurate test results c. To ensure that the test results fall within the reference range d. To ensure that the patient receives the proper treatment ANS: B
REF: p. 758, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): 1.9.a.
21. A patient who is fasting (in preparation for a laboratory test) can consume: a. baked chicken. b. water. c. diet soda. d. orange juice. e. none are correct. ANS: B
REF: p. 759, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
22. Which of the following laboratory tests requires fasting? a. OGTT b. Comprehensive metabolic profile c. Triglycerides d. FBG e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 759, IV.12, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
23. Antibiotics taken by the patient before the collection of a throat specimen for culture may result in: a. a false-negative report. b. overgrowth of the specimen with extraneous microorganisms. c. a false-positive report. d. positive results. ANS: A
REF: p. 760, I.12, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
24. A small sample taken from the body to represent the nature of the whole is known as a: a. laboratory test. b. culture. c. specimen. d. biopsy. ANS: C
REF: p. 761, IV.11, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
25. Which of the following is an example of a unique identifier? a. Date and time of the specimen collection b. Patient’s name and date of birth c. Medical assistant’s initials d. Source of the specimen ANS: B
REF: p. 762, IV.11, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
26. If a laboratory report is returned to the medical office marked QNS, it means that: a. an insufficient amount of the specimen was submitted. b. the patient did not prepare properly for the test. c. the test results fall outside of the reference range. d. a contaminated specimen was submitted. ANS: A
REF: p. 764, IV.11, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
27. Why is it important to handle and store a specimen properly? a. To reduce the time needed to test the specimen b. To maintain the in vitro qualities of the specimen c. To ensure valid results from quality control methods d. To maintain the in vivo qualities of the specimen ANS: D
REF: p. 764, IX.13, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
28. The purpose of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment (CLIA) is to: a. improve the quality of laboratory testing in the United States. b. prevent the exposure of employees to bloodborne pathogens in the workplace. c. ensure safety in the laboratory. d. prevent errors in technique during laboratory testing. ANS: A
REF: pp. 764-765, IX.13, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
29. If a POL is performing moderate-complexity tests, CLIA requires: a. proficiency testing three times per year. b. calibration procedures at least every 6 months. c. two levels of controls daily. d. a system to identify patient specimens throughout the testing process. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 766, IX.13, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
3
30. What is the term for a substance that is being identified or measured in a laboratory test? a. Standard b. Analyte c. Calibration d. Control ANS: B
REF: p. 766, IV.11, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
31. All of the following are examples of CLIA-waived tests except: a. fecal occult blood testing. b. urine pregnancy testing. c. blood glucose determination. d. microscopic analysis of urine sediment. ANS: D
REF: p. 767, IX.13, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.10.
32. Which of the following is included in a product insert of a testing kit? a. Intended use b. Principles of the procedure c. Storage and stability d. Interpretation and reading results e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 767, IV.12, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
33. The purpose of quality control is to: a. prevent accidents in the laboratory. b. protect the medical assistant from bloodborne pathogens. c. ensure accurate and valid test results. d. ensure that the test results fall within the normal range. e. all are correct. ANS: C
REF: p. 766, IV.11, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
34. Which of the following is a quality control method? a. Discarding outdated reagents b. Proper storage of test systems c. Calibration d. Allowing refrigerated controls to come to room temperature before use e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: pp. 769-770, IX.13, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
35. What is the name for a control that is built into the test system? a. External control b. Standard c. Proficiency control d. Internal control ANS: D
REF: p. 770, IV.11, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
36. What type of results are produced by a high-level control? a. Results that fall below the reference range for the test b. Invalid results c. Results that fall above the reference range for the test d. Positive results ANS: C
REF: p. 771, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
37. Which of the following may cause a control to fail to produce expected results? a. Outdated testing reagents b. Not performing the control procedure correctly c. Improper storage of testing components d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 771, II.7, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.6.
38. What should be done if a control does not perform as expected? a. Do not perform patient testing until the problem is resolved. b. Perform patient testing as usual. c. Perform calibration procedures. d. Document results as invalid. ANS: A
REF: p. 771, IX.13, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
39. What is the term for a test result that indicates whether a substance is present in the specimen being tested and provides an
approximate indication of the amount of the substance present? Quantitative test result Positive test result Negative test result Qualitative test result
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
REF: p. 772, IV.11, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
4
40. Which of the following is a violation of laboratory safety precautions? a. Disposing of broken glassware in a puncture-resistant container b. Talking in the laboratory c. Opening a centrifuge before it comes to a complete stop d. Recapping reagent bottles immediately after use ANS: C
REF: p. 773, XI.2, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
5
Chapter 30: Urinalysis Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Most of the urine is composed of what substance? a. Urea b. Organic substances c. Water d. Inorganic substances ANS: C
REF: p. 778, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
2. How much urine does the normal adult excrete each day? a. 250 to 500 mL b. 500 to 1,000 mL c. 750 to 2,000 mL d. 1 to 3 L ANS: C
REF: p. 778, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
3. Polyuria may be caused by: a. excessive intake of fluids. b. consumption of caffeine. c. diabetes mellitus. d. taking a diuretic. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 778, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.c.
4. Which of the following does not result in oliguria? a. Profuse perspiration b. Vomiting c. Diarrhea d. Edema ANS: D
REF: p. 778, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.c.
5. Which of the following urine specimens contains the greatest concentration of dissolved substances? a. First-voided morning specimen b. Random specimen c. Clean-catch midstream specimen d. First-catch urine specimens ANS: A
REF: p. 779, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
6. Which of the following tests is performed on a first-catch urine specimen? a. Complete urinalysis b. Pregnancy test c. NAA test for chlamydia and gonorrhea d. Kidney stone evaluation ANS: C
REF: p. 780, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
7. All of the following are guidelines for the collection of a first-catch urine specimen except: a. the patient should not urinate for at least 1 hour prior to collection. b. the patient should cleanse the genital area before collection of the specimen. c. the patient should only collect 15 to 30 mL of urine. d. the initial urine stream should be collected. ANS: B
REF: p. 780, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
8. Which of the following normally contains microorganisms? a. Kidneys b. Ureters c. Urinary meatus d. Urinary bladder ANS: C
REF: p. 779, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
9. Which of the following tests requires a clean-catch midstream specimen? a. Urine pregnancy testing b. Microscopic examination of urine sediment c. Urine drug testing d. Urine culture ANS: D
REF: p. 779, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
1
10. When collecting a clean-catch midstream urine specimen, a front-to-back motion is used to cleanse the urinary meatus to: a. avoid drawing microorganisms from the anal region into the area being cleansed. b. avoid contaminating the distal urethra. c. prevent patient discomfort during the cleansing process. d. prevent the cleaning solution from irritating the urinary meatus. ANS: A
REF: p. 795, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
11. When collecting a clean-catch midstream urine specimen, a small amount of urine is voided into the toilet before obtaining the
specimen to: remove pathogens from the bladder. ensure the collection of an adequate amount of urine. prevent irritation of the urethra. flush microorganisms out of the distal urethra.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
REF: p. 779, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
12. A 24-hour urine specimen may be collected to: a. detect the presence of liver disease. b. diagnose a UTI. c. determine the cause of kidney stone formation. d. determine if a patient has diabetes mellitus. ANS: C
REF: p. 780, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
13. A urinalysis may be performed for all of the following except to: a. diagnose a pathologic condition. b. treat a patient’s condition. c. screen a patient for the presence of disease. d. evaluate the effectiveness of therapy. ANS: B
REF: p. 780, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
14. What is included in a complete urinalysis? a. A physical examination of urine b. A chemical examination of urine c. Microscopic examination of urine sediment d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 780, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.10.
15. What occurs if a urine specimen is allowed to stand for more than 1 hour at room temperature? a. It becomes cloudy. b. The pH becomes more acidic. c. The specific gravity decreases. d. Pathogens are destroyed. ANS: A
REF: p. 781, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
16. What does it mean if a urine specimen is light yellow in color? a. White blood cells are present in the urine specimen. b. The urine specimen does not contain many dissolved substances. c. The pH of the urine specimen is slightly acidic. d. Bacteria are present in the urine specimen. ANS: B
REF: p. 781, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
17. The presence of bile pigments in a urine specimen causes the specimen to be: a. light amber. b. foul-smelling. c. yellow-brown. d. red. ANS: C
REF: p. 781, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
18. If a freshly voided specimen is cloudy, it means that: a. a urinary tract infection may be present. b. the specimen has remained in the bladder too long. c. nitrates are present in the specimen. d. improper technique was used to collect the specimen. ANS: A
REF: p. 781, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.
19. What odor does a urine specimen have if it has been allowed to stand at room temperature for long time? a. Ammonia b. Slightly aromatic c. Fruity d. Foul-smelling ANS: A
REF: pp. 781-782, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
2
20. Which of the following test results indicates a concentrated urine specimen? a. pH: 6 b. Red blood cells: 3/HPF c. Protein: trace d. Ketone bodies: 3.0 e. Specific gravity: 1.025 ANS: E
REF: p. 782, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
21. What is the normal range for the specific gravity of urine? a. 1.003 to 1.030 b. 500 to 750 c. 1.040 to 1.060 d. 4.6 to 8 ANS: A
REF: p. 782, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
22. Which of the following is an example of a quantitative test result? a. Trace b. Small c. 2 + d. 500 mg/dL e. Positive ANS: D
REF: p. 782, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.6.
23. Which of the following substances is normally present in urine? a. Ketones b. Urea c. Leukocytes d. Bilirubin e. All are correct ANS: B
REF: p. 778, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
24. The pH of most urine specimens is: a. acidic. b. alkaline. c. neutral. d. negative. ANS: A
REF: p. 784, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
25. A pH reading of 8 means that the urine specimen is: a. acidic. b. alkaline. c. neutral. d. contaminated. ANS: B
REF: p. 784, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
26. When a patient has a urinary tract infection, all of the following tests may be positive except: a. nitrite. b. protein. c. ketone bodies. d. leukocytes. ANS: C
REF: p. 784, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
27. Which of the following urine tests may be positive when a patient has undiagnosed diabetes mellitus? a. Glucose b. Protein c. Nitrite d. Bilirubin e. All are correct ANS: A
REF: p. 784, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
28. What is the term for the presence of ketone bodies in the urine? a. Acidosis b. Alimentary glycosuria c. Ketosis d. Ketonuria ANS: D
REF: p. 784, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
29. Which of the following urine tests may be positive when a patient has hepatitis? a. Glucose b. Protein c. Bilirubin d. Ketone bodies e. All are correct ANS: C
REF: p. 784, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
3
30. Blood may normally be present in the urine because of: a. pregnancy. b. cystitis. c. menstruation. d. vigorous physical exercise. ANS: C
REF: p. 785, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
31. What type of specimen should be used to test for the presence of nitrite in the urine? a. Specimen that has been left standing at room temperature for 1 1 2 hour b. c. d.
24-hour urine specimen Freshly voided random specimen First-voided morning specimen
ANS: D
REF: p. 785, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
32. How should urine reagent strips be stored? a. In a cool area b. In a dark container c. In a dry area d. With the cap tightly closed e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 785, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
33. Which of the following represents an error in technique when testing a urine specimen with a reagent strip? a. Using a freshly voided urine specimen b. Touching the reagent areas with the fingers c. Completely immersing the reagent areas in the urine specimen d. Holding the reagent strip in a horizontal position when reading results e. All are correct ANS: B
REF: p. 785, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
34. Why is a first-voided morning specimen preferred for performing a microscopic examination of urine? a. It is more dilute. b. It contains more dissolved substances. c. It contains more abnormal substances. d. It contains fewer microorganisms. ANS: B
REF: p. 786, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
35. What effect does concentrated urine have on red blood cells? a. It causes them to swell and become rounded. b. It has no effect on them. c. It causes them to shrink and become crenated. d. It causes them to develop hypochromia. ANS: C
REF: p. 789, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
36. When performing a microscopic examination of urine, the presence of how many white blood cells/HPF is considered normal? a. 0 to 8 b. 0 to 15 c. 0 to 20 d. 2 to 6 ANS: A
REF: p. 789, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.6.
37. Where are urinary casts formed? a. In the ureters b. In the lumen of the nephron tubules c. In the urinary bladder d. In Bowman’s capsule ANS: B
REF: p. 790, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
38. Which of the following is usually found in the urine sediment of a patient with candidiasis? a. Parasites b. Yeast c. Bacteria d. Casts ANS: B
REF: p. 790, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.
39. What is the name of the hormone present only in the urine and blood of a pregnant woman? a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. HCGH d. Human chorionic gonadotropin e. Testosterone ANS: D
REF: p. 791, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
4
40. Which of the following represents an error in technique when performing a urine pregnancy test? a. A clean specimen container is used to collect the specimen. b. A first-voided morning specimen is used to run the test. c. The urine specimen is at room temperature. d. The specific gravity of the specimen is 1.003. e. All are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 792, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
41. If the internal control of a urine pregnancy test does not perform as expected, the test results are interpreted as: a. invalid. b. positive. c. negative. d. weakly reactive. ANS: A
REF: p. 792, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.10.
MATCHING
MEDICAL TERMS Directions: Match each definition with its medical term. (Not all of the medical terms are used). Medical Terms a. Anuria b. Diuresis c. Dysuria d. Frequency e. Glycosuria f. Hematuria g. Micturition h. Nocturia i. Nocturnal enuresis j. Oliguria k. Polyuria l. Pyuria m. Retention n. Urgency o. Urinary incontinence Definition 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.
Difficult or painful urination Presence of blood in the urine Presence of pus in the urine Presence of sugar in the urine Inability to empty the bladder; the urine is being produced normally by the kidneys, but is not being voided Immediate need to urinate Inability to control urination at night (bedwetting) Failure of the kidneys to produce urine Excessive (voluntary) urination during the night Need to urinate often Normal act of voiding urine Inability to retain urine in the bladder
1. ANS: C 2. ANS: F 3. ANS: L 4. ANS: E 5. ANS: M 6. ANS: N 7. ANS: I 8. ANS: A 9. ANS: H 10. ANS: D 11. ANS: G 12. ANS: O
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 778, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 778, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 778, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 784, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 778, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 778, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 778, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 778, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 778, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 778, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 778, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10. p. 778, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
5
WORD PARTS Directions: Match each word part meaning with its correct word part. Word Part a. anb. bilirubin/o c. dysd. glyc/o e. hemat/o f. keton/o g. noct/i h. olig/o i. -osis j. poly k. py/o l. ur/o Meaning of Word Part 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.
Without, absence of Urine Bilirubin Difficult, labored, painful Pus Blood Ketone Abnormal condition Night Scanty, few Many Sugar
13. ANS: 14. ANS: 15. ANS: 16. ANS: 17. ANS: 18. ANS: 19. ANS: 20. ANS: 21. ANS: 22. ANS: 23. ANS: 24. ANS:
A L B C K E F I G H J D
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 794, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 794, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 794, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 794, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 794, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 794, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 794, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 794, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 794, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 794, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 794, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 794, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9.
6
Chapter 31: Phlebotomy Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An individual who collects blood specimens is known as a(n): a. vampire. b. venipuncturist. c. optometrist. d. phlebotomist. ANS: D
REF: p. 806, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
2. Phlebotomy includes which of the following? a. Skin punctures b. Arterial punctures c. Venipunctures d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 806, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
3. When collecting a venous blood specimen to be transported to an outside laboratory for testing, which of the following should be
consulted for information on collecting and handling requirements? a. Laboratory directory or website b. Manufacturer’s instructions of the test system c. Physicians’ Desk Reference d. Medical dictionary ANS: A
REF: p. 807, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
4. Which of the following is the proper method for identifying a patient before performing a venipuncture? a. State the patient’s full name and DOB and ask the patient to verify this b. c. d.
information. Ask the patient to state his or her full name and date of last visit. Ask the patient to state his or her full name and DOB. Ask the patient for two forms of written identification.
ANS: C
REF: p. 807, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
5. All of the following are guidelines that should be followed when assembling equipment and supplies for a venipuncture except: a. check each blood tube for damage. b. do not substitute one blood tube for another. c. check the expiration date of the blood tubes. d. label each blood tube with one unique patient identifier. ANS: D
REF: p. 808, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
6. What position should be used for a venipuncture if a patient appears nervous or has fainted in the past from a venipuncture? a. Semi-Fowler b. Prone c. Sims d. Sitting ANS: A
REF: p. 809, XI.2, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
7. You need to collect a venous blood specimen from a patient to run a FBG. Which of the following would be an inappropriate
statement to make to the patient during this procedure? a. “Which arm was used in the past to draw blood from you?” b. “Please do not move during this procedure.” c. “This procedure will not hurt.” d. “When did you last eat or drink?” ANS: C
REF: p. 809, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.e.
8. When collecting a blood specimen using the vacuum tube method of venipuncture, venous reflux is prevented by: a. keeping the patient’s arm in a downward position. b. inserting the needle at a 15-degree angle to the patient’s arm. c. filling the evacuated tube to the exhaustion of the vacuum. d. removing the tourniquet before withdrawing the needle from the patient’s arm. ANS: A
REF: p. 810, IX.2, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
9. The purpose of applying a tourniquet when performing venipuncture is to: a. make the patient’s veins more visible and easier to palpate. b. prevent hemolysis of the blood specimen. c. make the procedure more comfortable for the patient. d. make it easier to insert the needle. ANS: A
REF: p. 810, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
1
10. All of the following are correct techniques for applying a tourniquet except: a. placing the tourniquet 3 to 4 inches above the bend in the elbow. b. asking the patient to clench his or her fist. c. applying the tourniquet so that it is snug, but not tight. d. leaving the tourniquet on for at least 3 minutes before drawing the specimen. ANS: D
REF: p. 810, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
11. Which of the following may occur if a tourniquet is applied too tightly? a. It may be uncomfortable for the patient. b. Inaccurate test results may occur. c. The arterial blood flow may be obstructed. d. The venous blood flow may be obstructed. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 810, XI.2, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
12. Which of the following antecubital veins is considered the best vein to use for a venipuncture? a. Basilic vein b. Cephalic vein c. Brachial vein d. Median cubital vein ANS: D
REF: p. 812, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
13. Which of the following represents an error in technique when selecting a vein for venipuncture? a. Examining the antecubital veins of both arms b. Using the thumb to palpate the vein c. Determining the size and depth of the vein d. Tracing the path of the vein ANS: B
REF: p. 813, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
14. Which of the following are characteristics of the brachial artery (located in the antecubital space)? a. Pulsates when palpated. b. Has a more elastic and thicker wall than a vein. c. If punctured, the blood is bright red in color. d. If punctured, the patient feels more than usual amount of pain. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 812, II.5, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
15. Why should the veins of the hands be used as a venipuncture site only as a last resort? a. They have a tendency to roll. b. They are more difficult to stick. c. The procedure is more uncomfortable for the patient. d. The hand veins are more susceptible to collapsing. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 813, XI.2, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
16. On standing, a blood specimen to which an anticoagulant has been added separates into: a. plasma and blood cells. b. serum and blood cells. c. plasma, buffy coat, and blood cells. d. serum, buffy coat, and blood cells. ANS: C
REF: p. 814, I.5, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
17. On standing, a blood specimen to which an anticoagulant has not been added separates into: a. plasma and blood cells. b. serum and blood cells. c. plasma, buffy coat, and blood cells. d. serum, buffy coat, and blood cells. ANS: B
REF: p. 814, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
18. How is serum obtained? a. From whole blood that has been centrifuged b. By using a tube containing an anticoagulant c. From clotted blood that has been centrifuged d. From whole blood that has been left standing ANS: C
REF: p. 814, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
19. Whole blood is obtained by: a. using a tube containing an anticoagulant b. centrifuging a clotted blood specimen c. using a red-stoppered tube d. using a tube that does not contain an anticoagulant ANS: A
REF: p. 814, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
2
20. When performing a venipuncture, which of the following techniques represents a violation of the OSHA standard? a. Applying the tourniquet 1 inch above the bend in the elbow b. Using a small-gauge needle to collect the specimen c. Not labeling the blood tube d. Recapping the needle after performing a venipuncture ANS: D
REF: p. 815, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.5.
21. Which of the following gauge needles is used most often to perform a routine venipuncture using the vacuum tube method? a. 16 G b. 18 G c. 21 G d. 25 G ANS: C
REF: p. 816, III.4, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
22. The size of the evacuated tube you choose to obtain a venous blood specimen depends on the: a. size of the patient’s veins. b. patient’s clinical diagnosis. c. color of the evacuated tube stopper. d. amount of specimen required for the test. ANS: D
REF: p. 820, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
23. An evacuated tube with a lavender stopper contains: a. heparin. b. EDTA. c. nothing. d. potassium oxalate. e. sodium citrate. ANS: B
REF: p. 818, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
24. An evacuated tube with a red stopper contains: a. heparin. b. EDTA. c. nothing. d. potassium oxalate. e. sodium citrate. ANS: C
REF: p. 818, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
25. What color stopper tube is used to collect a blood specimen for a complete blood cell count (CBC)? a. Red b. Lavender c. Gray d. Green e. Light blue ANS: B
REF: p. 818, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
26. What color stopper tube is used to collect a blood specimen for a prothrombin time test? a. Red b. Lavender c. Gray d. Green e. Light blue ANS: E
REF: p. 818, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
27. All of the following tubes can be used to collect serum except: a. lavender-stoppered tube. b. red/gray-stoppered SST tube. c. gold-stoppered Hemogard SST tube. d. red-stoppered tube. ANS: A
REF: p. 818, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
28. What may occur if an outdated evacuated tube is used to collect the blood specimen? a. The specimen may become hemolyzed. b. The tube may crack. c. The tube may no longer have a vacuum. d. The test results may be inaccurate. ANS: C
REF: p. 820, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
29. Which of the following indicates the correct order of draw for the vacuum tube method of venipuncture? a. Red, green, lavender, gray b. Red, lavender, gray, green c. Lavender, red, gray, green d. Red, gray, lavender, green ANS: A
REF: pp. 818, 820, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
3
30. Which of the following represents an error in technique when working with evacuated tubes? a. Using a computer bar code label to identify the tube b. Filling a tube to the exhaustion of its vacuum c. Shaking a tube containing an anticoagulant after drawing it d. Removing the last tube from the plastic holder before removing the needle ANS: C
REF: p. 825, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
31. Which of the following is another name for the butterfly method of venipuncture? a. Winged infusion method b. Syringe method c. Luer adapter method d. Z-track method ANS: A
REF: p. 821, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
32. Which of the following should be performed if an evacuated tube contains a clot activator? a. Store the tubes in the refrigerator. b. Fill the tube only half-full with blood. c. Gently invert the tube five times after drawing it. d. Centrifuge the tube immediately after drawing it. ANS: C
REF: p. 821, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
33. Which of the following should not be used as a venipuncture site? a. Scarred skin b. Bruised skin c. An area that is painful to the patient d. Burned skin e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 823, XI.2, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
34. On palpation, a scarred vein feels: a. elastic and pliable. b. stiff and hard. c. soft and pliable. d. swollen. ANS: B
REF: p. 823, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
35. Which of the following techniques can be used to prevent a vein from rolling? a. Applying firm pressure below and to the side of the vein b. Applying the tourniquet tightly c. Inserting the needle at a 10-degree angle d. Inserting the needle 1/2 inch below the puncture site ANS: A
REF: p. 824, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
36. What may occur if an angle of less than 15 degrees is used to perform the venipuncture? a. The needle may enter the skin above the vein and not puncture it. b. The needle may go completely through the vein. c. The vein may collapse. d. The needle may penetrate a tendon. ANS: A
REF: p. 824, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
37. Which of the following results in patient discomfort during the venipuncture procedure? a. Allowing the alcohol to dry before making the puncture b. Moving the needle after it has been inserted into the vein c. Using the flange to change from one tube to another d. Removing the needle at the same angle as insertion ANS: B
REF: p. 833, XI.2, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
38. Which of the following veins is most likely to collapse when performing a venipuncture? a. Veins that roll b. Scarred veins c. Sclerosed veins d. Small veins ANS: D
REF: p. 824, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
39. If you think a vein selected for venipuncture may collapse, you should: a. use an 18-gauge needle to collect the specimen. b. use the butterfly method to perform the venipuncture. c. fill the tube only one-half full with blood. d. insert the needle slowly into the vein. ANS: B
REF: p. 824, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
4
40. During the venipuncture procedure, a sudden swelling occurs in the area around the puncture site. You should: a. apply pressure to the area with an antiseptic wipe. b. continue with the venipuncture. c. immediately remove the tourniquet and then the needle. d. call 911. ANS: C
REF: p. 825, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.14.
41. What may occur if the needle is removed from the arm before removing the tourniquet? a. The patient may experience pain. b. The blood specimen may become hemolyzed. c. Bleeding may occur around the puncture site. d. The evacuated tube may not fill completely. e. All are correct. ANS: C
REF: p. 824, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
42. Which of the following may result in hemolysis of the blood specimen? a. Storing evacuated tubes at room temperature b. Using a needle with a small lumen to collect the specimen c. Allowing the evacuated tube to fill to the exhaustion of the vacuum d. Removing the needle before removing the tourniquet e. All are correct ANS: B
REF: p. 825, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
43. Hemolysis of a blood specimen results in: a. collection of an insufficient quantity of blood. b. inaccurate test results. c. a contaminated specimen. d. exposure of the medical assistant to bloodborne pathogens. ANS: B
REF: p. 825, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
44. You are performing a venipuncture, and the patient becomes dizzy and is about to faint. Your first priority in this situation should
be to: protect the patient from injury. place the patient in a reclining position. protect the blood specimen from hemolysis. notify your provider.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
REF: p. 825, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.14.
45. Which of the following is found in the serum of blood? a. Glucose b. Hormones c. Chloride d. Antibodies e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 825, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
46. Your provider has requested an electrolyte profile on a patient. The laboratory directory indicates this test requires 4 mL of serum.
Which of the following tubes should be used to collect the specimen? a. A 4-mL SST b. A 7-mL SST c. A 10-mL SST d. A 4-mL lavender-stoppered tube e. A 7-mL lavender-stoppered tube ANS: C
REF: p. 826, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
47. After drawing a blood specimen for an electrolyte profile, the next step is to: a. centrifuge the blood specimen for 10 minutes. b. allow the blood specimen to stand in an upright position for 30 to 45 minutes. c. pipet the serum and place it in a transfer tube. d. place the blood specimen in the refrigerator. ANS: B
REF: p. 826, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
48. If a fibrin clot forms in the serum layer of a blood specimen, it will: a. interfere with adequate serum collection. b. result in hemolysis of the blood cells. c. cause evaporation of the serum. d. lead to inaccurate test results. ANS: A
REF: p. 826, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
5
49. Which of the following sites can be used to make a skin puncture on an adult? a. Earlobe b. Lateral part of the tip of the index finger c. Lateral part of the tip of the little finger d. Lateral part of the tip of the third finger ANS: D
REF: p. 827, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
50. What may occur if a finger puncture is made that is deeper than 3.1 mm? a. Damage to nerves in the finger b. Penetration of the bone c. Inaccurate test results d. Excessive bleeding ANS: B
REF: p. 827, XI.2, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
51. Which of the following represents an error in technique when obtaining a capillary blood specimen? a. Warming the patient’s finger by massaging it b. Allowing the antiseptic to dry before making the puncture c. Making the puncture perpendicular to the lines of the fingerprint d. Using the first drop of blood for the test ANS: D
REF: p. 830, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
52. When performing a capillary puncture, the finger should not be squeezed, to avoid: a. diluting the blood sample with tissue fluid. b. excessive bleeding around the puncture site. c. exposure of the medical assistant to bloodborne pathogens. d. bruising of the patient’s finger. ANS: A
REF: p. 830, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
MATCHING
WORD PARTS Directions: Match each word part meaning with its correct word part. Word Part a. anteb. antic. chondr/o d. hemat/o e. -itis f. lysis g. myel/o h. -oma i. oste/o j. -otomy k. -ous l. phleb/o m. stasis Meaning of Word Part 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.
Pertaining to Bone marrow Inflammation of Before Tumor or swelling Vein Against Cartilage Blood Control, stop Breakdown Bone Incision
1. ANS: K 2. ANS: G 3. ANS: E 4. ANS: A 5. ANS: H 6. ANS: L 7. ANS: B 8. ANS: C 9. ANS: D 10. ANS: M 11. ANS: F
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 831, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 831, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 831, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 831, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 831, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 831, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 831, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 831, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 831, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 831, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 831, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. 6
12. ANS: I 13. ANS: J
REF: p. 831, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. REF: p. 831, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9.
7
Chapter 32: Hematology Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The study of blood is known as: a. serology. b. hematology. c. blood chemistry. d. blood banking. ANS: B
REF: p. 846, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
2. Which of the following tests is not included in a CBC? a. Differential white blood cell count b. Hemoglobin c. Hematocrit d. Prothrombin time e. Red and white blood cell counts ANS: D
REF: p. 846, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
3. The function of hemoglobin is to: a. defend the body against infection. b. transport oxygen in the body. c. assist in blood clotting. d. transport electrolytes in the body. ANS: B
REF: p. 846, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
4. Mr. Peterson has a hemoglobin reading of 16. This is considered to be: a. within the reference range. b. above the reference range. c. below the reference range. d. an invalid result. ANS: A
REF: p. 846, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.2.
5. A low hemoglobin reading may occur with all of the following except: a. anemia. b. polycythemia. c. leukemia. d. severe hemorrhaging. ANS: B
REF: p. 846, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
6. An increase in the hemoglobin level occurs with: a. polycythemia. b. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. c. congestive heart failure. d. all are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 846, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): 1.9.a.
7. The term hematocrit means: a. to separate blood. b. the breakdown of blood. c. a decrease in blood cells. d. an increase in blood cells. ANS: A
REF: p. 848, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
8. The buffy coat consists of: a. red blood cells and serum. b. white blood cells. c. plasma and fibrinogen. d. white blood cells and platelets. ANS: D
REF: p. 848, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
9. Mr. Johnson has a hematocrit reading of 60. This is considered to be: a. increased. b. decreased. c. normal. d. invalid. ANS: A
REF: p. 848, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
1
10. Hematocrit is used as a screening measure for the early detection of: a. colon cancer. b. diabetes. c. anemia. d. coronary artery disease. ANS: C
REF: p. 848, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.10.
11. When using a microhematocrit centrifuge, the hematocrit test results should be read at the: a. top of the red cell column. b. bottom of the red cell column. c. top of the buffy coat. d. top of the plasma column. ANS: A
REF: p. 848, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
12. Mrs. Nelson has a white blood cell count of 14,500. This is considered: a. within the reference range. b. above the reference range. c. below the reference range. d. an invalid test result. ANS: B
REF: p. 849, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.2.
13. Mr. Stoney has a white blood cell count of 8,000. This is considered: a. within the reference range. b. above the reference range. c. below the reference range. d. an invalid test result. ANS: A
REF: p. 849, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
14. Which of the following results in leukocytosis? a. Appendicitis b. Chickenpox c. Mononucleosis d. Rheumatic fever e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 849, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.
15. Which of the following results in leukopenia? a. Appendicitis b. Chickenpox c. Chemotherapy d. Rheumatic fever ANS: C
REF: p. 849, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.
16. All of the following can result in a decrease in the red blood cell count except: a. leukemia. b. Hodgkin’s disease. c. polycythemia. d. anemia. ANS: C
REF: p. 846, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.
17. The red blood cell indices assist in the diagnosis of the different types of: a. anemia. b. hepatitis. c. influenza. d. leukemia. ANS: A
REF: p. 850, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
18. The red blood cell indices include all of the following except: a. MCV. b. MCHC. c. RBC. d. RDW. ANS: C
REF: p. 850, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
19. How many blood smears are required for a differential white blood cell count? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANS: B
REF: p. 850, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
2
20. The results of a differential white blood cell count indicate that there are 80 neutrophils. This is considered: a. below normal. b. normal. c. above normal. d. invalid. ANS: C
REF: p. 851, CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.1.
21. The results of a differential white blood cell count indicate there are no basophils. This is considered: a. below normal. b. normal. c. above normal. d. invalid. ANS: B
REF: p. 851, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
22. What is the PT/INR result of a healthy individual with a normal clotting ability? a. 10 to 20 seconds b. 0.8 to 1.2 c. 1 to 2 d. 2.5 to 3.5 ANS: B
REF: p. 852, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
23. What is the function of warfarin? a. To inhibit the formation of blood clots b. To prevent atrial fibrillation c. To encourage blood clotting d. To speed up production of red blood cells ANS: A
REF: p. 852, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.b.
24. How often should a patient on warfarin therapy have a PT/INR test performed? a. Once each week b. Every 2 to 4 weeks c. Every 2 months d. Every 6 months ANS: B
REF: p. 852, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
25. Which of the following may occur if the PT/INR blood tube is not filled to the exhaustion of the vacuum? a. Hemolysis of the blood specimen b. Clotting of the blood specimen c. Inaccurate test results d. Contamination of the blood specimen ANS: C
REF: p. 853, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
MATCHING
Word Parts Directions: Match each word part meaning with its correct word part. Word Part a. anb. -emia c. cyt/o d. hemat/o e. antif. leuk/o g. -coagulant h. -ology i. polyj. -osis k. -penia Word Pat Meaning 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11.
Blood condition Against Without or absence of Abnormal reduction in number Study of Abnormal condition Clotting Cell Blood Many White
3
1. ANS: B 2. ANS: E 3. ANS: A 4. ANS: K 5. ANS: H 6. ANS: J 7. ANS: G 8. ANS: C 9. ANS: D 10. ANS: I 11. ANS: F
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 855, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9. p. 855, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9. p. 855, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9. p. 855, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9. p. 855, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9. p. 855, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9. p. 855, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9. p. 855, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9. p. 855, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9. p. 855, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9. p. 855, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.9.
4
Chapter 33: Blood Chemistry and Immunology Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What type of specimen is required for most blood chemistry tests? a. Plasma b. Serum c. Whole blood d. Clotted blood ANS: B
REF: p. 862, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
2. What is the term for a substance that is being identified or measured in a laboratory test? a. Standard b. Analyte c. Calibration d. Control ANS: B
REF: p. 865, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
3. The purpose of quality control is to: a. prevent accidents in the laboratory. b. protect the medical assistant from bloodborne pathogens. c. ensure accurate and valid test results. d. ensure that the test results fall within the normal range. e. all are correct. ANS: C
REF: p. 865, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
4. The use of a standard to detect errors caused by laboratory equipment that is not working properly is known as: a. proficiency testing. b. calibration. c. standardization. d. quality analysis. ANS: B
REF: p. 865, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
5. What results are produced by a high-level control? a. Results that fall below the reference range for the test b. Invalid results c. Results that fall above the reference range for the test d. Negative results ANS: C
REF: p. 867, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
6. Which of the following may cause a control to fail to produce expected results? a. Outdated testing reagents b. Error in technique c. Improper storage of testing components d. All are correct. ANS: D 7.
REF: p. 867, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
What should be done if a control does not perform as expected? a. Do not perform patient testing until the problem is resolved. b. Perform patient testing as usual. c. Perform calibration procedures. d. Document results as invalid. ANS: A
REF: p. 867, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
8. The function of glucose in the body is to: a. maintain healthy epithelial tissue. b. provide energy for the body. c. make bones and teeth hard. d. assist in normal blood clotting. ANS: B
REF: p. 868, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
9. What is the term for glucose that is stored in muscle and liver tissue for later use? a. Glucagon b. Carbohydrate c. Glycogen d. Lipoprotein ANS: C
REF: p. 868, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
1
10. What hormone is required for the normal use of glucose in the body? a. Insulin b. Estrogen c. Thyroxine d. Bilirubin ANS: A
REF: p. 868, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
11. Which of the following instructions should be relayed to the patient regarding a fasting blood glucose test? a. Consume a low-carbohydrate evening meal. b. Refrain from smoking for 12 hours before the test. c. Minimize activity for 24 hours before the test. d. Do not consume food or fluid (except water) for 12 hours before the test. e. All are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 868, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.e.
12. According to the American Diabetes Association, what is the normal range for a fasting blood glucose level (in mg/dL)? a. 20 to 80 b. 70 to 99 c. 100 to 125 d. 140 to 160 ANS: B
REF: p. 868, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.6.
13. Which of the following is true regarding a 2-hour postprandial glucose test? a. Blood specimens are collected at intervals over 3 hours. b. The patient is required to fast for 2 hours before the test. c. A blood specimen is collected 2 hours after the patient consumes 100 g of d.
glucose. A blood specimen is collected 2 hours after the patient administers his or her insulin injection.
ANS: C
REF: p. 868, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
14. Which of the following is not a function of an oral glucose tolerance test? a. To assist in the diagnosis of pre-diabetes b. To assist in the diagnosis of hypoglycemia c. To assist in the diagnosis of diabetes d. To monitor insulin dosage ANS: D
REF: p. 869, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
15. All of the following are restrictions that must be followed by the patient during an oral glucose tolerance test except: a. no food consumption. b. no water consumption. c. minimize activity. d. no smoking. ANS: B
REF: p. 869, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.e.
16. Which of the following is a serious side effect of an oral glucose tolerance test? a. Headache b. Irrational speech c. Fainting d. Profuse perspiration e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 869, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
17. What term is used to describe an abnormally low level of glucose in the blood? a. Hyperglycemia b. Glycosuria c. Hypoglycemia d. Acidosis ANS: C
REF: p. 869, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
18. What is the purpose of SMBG testing? a. To maintain good blood glucose control b. To delay or prevent long-term complications of diabetes c. To test blood glucose when a side effect common to diabetes occurs d. To make decisions regarding insulin dosage, meal planning, and physical activity e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 870, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.10.
19. Prolonged high blood glucose levels can cause all of the following conditions except: a. blindness. b. arthritis. c. kidney disease. d. circulatory problems. ANS: B
REF: p. 872, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
2
20. Before meals, it is recommended that the blood glucose level for a diabetic patient fall between: a. 60 and 80 mg/dL. b. 80 and 120 mg/dL. c. 100 and 140 mg/dL. d. 100 and 180 mg/dL. ANS: B
REF: p. 872, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
21. The hemoglobin A1c test measures the: a. average amount of glucose in the blood over a 3-month period. b. amount of hemoglobin in the blood. c. fasting blood glucose level. d. amount of glycogen in the body over a 30-day period. ANS: A
REF: p. 873, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.10.
22. The recommended A1c level for an individual with diabetes is: a. 4% to 6%. b. less than 6%. c. less than 7%. d. greater than 8%. ANS: C
REF: p. 873, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.6.
23. All of the following are handling and storage requirements for blood glucose reagent test strips except: a. remove the desiccant after opening a new test strip container. b. store in a cool, dry area. c. store at room temperature. d. store with the cap tightly closed. ANS: A
REF: p. 874, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
24. Control testing should be performed on a glucose meter during all of the following situations except: a. daily, before using the meter for the first time. b. when a new container of strips is opened. c. when a new battery is inserted into the meter. d. if the glucose meter is dropped. ANS: C
REF: p. 875, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
25. Which of the following is a characteristic of cholesterol? a. White, waxy substance b. Component of all cell membranes c. Used in the production of hormones d. Used in the production of bile e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 876, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.2.
26. Most of the cholesterol found in the blood comes from: a. dietary cholesterol intake. b. being manufactured by the liver. c. saturated fat. d. cellulite. ANS: B
REF: p. 876, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.2.
27. The buildup of fatty deposits on the walls of arteries is known as: a. congestive heart failure. b. atherosclerosis. c. pericarditis. d. thrombophlebitis. ANS: B
REF: p. 876, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
28. The primary use of the cholesterol test is to: a. study liver functioning. b. screen for the presence of coronary artery disease. c. study thyroid functioning. d. diagnose a myocardial infarction. ANS: B
REF: p. 877, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.2.
29. Which of the following does not contain cholesterol? a. Fruit juice b. Whole milk c. Liver d. Egg yolk ANS: A
REF: p. 876, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.2.
3
30. Cholesterol is transported in the blood as a complex molecule known as a: a. trans fat. b. glycogen complex. c. lipid. d. lipoprotein. ANS: D
REF: p. 876, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
31. The function of LDL is to: a. carry cholesterol to the cells. b. transport fat-soluble vitamins in the blood. c. remove cholesterol from the cells. d. protect against coronary artery disease. ANS: A
REF: p. 876, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
32. Which of the following is considered a risk factor for coronary artery disease? a. LDL cholesterol level of 90 mg/dL b. HDL cholesterol level of 25 mg/dL c. Triglyceride level of 140 mg/dL d. Low blood pressure ANS: B
REF: pp. 877, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
33. A total cholesterol reading of 250 is considered: a. high. b. borderline high. c. desirable. d. low. ANS: A
REF: p. 877, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.6.
34. Patient preparation instructions for a triglyceride test include which of the following? a. Follow a normal diet for 7 days before the test. b. Do not consume alcohol for 24 hours before the test. c. Do not eat or drink (except for water) for 12 hours before the test. d. Do not consume lipid-lowering medications before the test. e. All are correct. ANS: C
REF: p. 868, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): VI.6.
35. All of the following may result in elevated blood triglyceride levels except: a. obesity. b. hyperthyroidism. c. type 2 diabetes. d. smoking. ANS: B
REF: p. 879, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.
36. The BUN test is used to: a. detect kidney disease. b. assess liver functioning. c. detect anemia. d. assess thyroid functioning. ANS: A
REF: p. 879, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
37. What is the term for a substance that is capable of combining with an antigen? a. Antibody b. Antitoxin c. Vaccine d. Antigen ANS: A
REF: p. 879, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10
38. Which of the following is an example of an antigen? a. Viruses b. Bacterial toxins c. Allergens d. Blood antigens e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 879, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
39. Which of the following is a screening test for syphilis? a. STD b. VDRL c. RRP d. ASO ANS: B
REF: p. 880, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
4
40. Which of the following tests is used to detect a blood incompatibility problem with a mother and her unborn child? a. Rh antigen titer b. C-reactive protein c. Rh antibody titer d. Rubella titer ANS: C
REF: p. 880, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
41. What is the name of the microorganism that causes infectious mononucleosis? a. Epstein-Barr b. Varicella c. Treponema pallidum d. HIV ANS: A
REF: p. 880, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
42. Infectious mononucleosis is transmitted through: a. coughing and sneezing. b. contaminated food. c. sexual intercourse. d. saliva by direct oral contact. e. all are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 880, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.2.d.
43. Which of the following is not a symptom of infectious mononucleosis? a. Severe fatigue b. Anemia c. Fever d. Sore throat e. Swollen lymph nodes ANS: B
REF: p. 880, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.
5
Chapter 34: Medical Microbiology Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What term is used to describe the scientific study of microorganisms and their activities? a. Parasitology b. Histology c. Microbiology d. Pathology ANS: C
REF: p. 890, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
2. All of the following are used to identify a pathogen except: a. sensitivity testing. b. microbial culture. c. biochemical tests. d. DNA testing. ANS: A
REF: p. 891, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
3. Harmless microorganisms that normally reside in the body but do not cause disease are known as: a. transient flora. b. normal flora. c. extraneous microorganisms. d. staphylococci. ANS: B
REF: p. 891, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
4. The invasion of the body by a pathogenic microorganism is known as: a. inflammation. b. infection. c. disease. d. susceptibility. ANS: B
REF: p. 891, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
5. All of the following are natural defense mechanisms of the body except: a. phagocytosis by white blood cells. b. inflammation. c. antibiotics. d. antibodies. ANS: C
REF: p. 891, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.7.
6. A disease that can be spread from one person to another is known as: a. an infectious disease. b. a contagious disease. c. an acute disease. d. droplet infection. ANS: B
REF: p. 891, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
7. The transfer of pathogens on a fine spray of moisture droplets is known as: a. droplet infection. b. susceptibility. c. indirect transfer. d. inoculation. ANS: A
REF: p. 891, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
8. What name is given to the interval of time between the invasion by a pathogen and the appearance of the first symptoms of the
disease? a. Prodromal period b. Infectious period c. Inoculation d. Incubation period ANS: D
REF: p. 892, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
9. The period of time in which the first symptoms indicating an approaching disease occur is known as the: a. convalescent period. b. acute period. c. prodromal period. d. symptomatic. ANS: C
REF: p. 892, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
1
10. What name is given to round bacteria growing in pairs? a. Bacilli b. Diplococci c. Staphylococci d. Streptococci ANS: B
REF: p. 892, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
11. Conditions caused by Staphylococcus aureus include: a. boils. b. wound infections. c. food poisoning. d. abscesses. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 892, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.1.
12. Staphylococcal infections usually result in which of the following? a. Gangrene b. Petechiae c. Pus formation d. Maculopapular vesicles ANS: C
REF: p. 892, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
13. Which of the following conditions is not caused by streptococci? a. Scarlet fever b. Streptococcal sore throat c. Rheumatic fever d. Tuberculosis ANS: D
REF: pp. 892-893, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.1.
14. Escherichia coli normally reside in the: a. vagina. b. urinary tract. c. large intestine. d. stomach. ANS: C
REF: p. 893, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.2.
15. Syphilis is caused by a: a. spirochete. b. bacillus. c. streptococcus. d. diplococcus. ANS: A
REF: p. 894, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.1.
16. Which of the following diseases is not caused by a virus? a. Chickenpox b. Tetanus c. Mumps d. Rubella ANS: B
REF: p. 894, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.1.
17. Which of the following microscopes has adjustment knobs that allow movement of the slide in a vertical or horizontal position? a. Monocular microscope b. Compound microscope c. Mechanical stage microscope d. Binocular microscope ANS: C
REF: p. 894, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
18. Which of the following parts of a microscope is used for precise focusing? a. Diaphragm b. Coarse adjustment c. Substage condenser d. Fine adjustment ANS: D
REF: p. 895, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
19. The high-power objective has a magnification of: a. 10. b. 40. c. 60. d. 100. ANS: B
REF: p. 895, IV.11, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): II.1.
2
20. Which of the following requires the use of the oil immersion objective? a. For initial focusing of a specimen b. Examination of a Gram-stained smear c. For light adjustment of a specimen d. Examination of urine sediment ANS: B
REF: p. 896, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
21. Which of the following is not a guideline for the proper care of a microscope? a. Carry the microscope with two hands. b. Store the microscope with the nosepiece rotated to the low-power objective. c. Clean the enameled surface of the microscope with soap and water. d. Clean the lenses of the microscope with gauze or tissue. ANS: D
REF: p. 896, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): VI.9.
22. A microbiologic specimen may be obtained from the: a. throat. b. nose. c. wounds. d. vagina. e. all are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 896, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.2.
23. A specimen taken for microbiologic examination must not become contaminated with extraneous microorganisms, because the
extraneous microorganisms may: a. change the pH of the specimen. b. alter the morphology of the pathogen. c. prevent identification of the pathogen. d. result in the death of any pathogens present. ANS: C
REF: p. 896, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
24. Which of the following could result in the medical assistant becoming infected with a pathogen? a. Eating while testing a microbiologic specimen b. Licking a label for a specimen container c. Having an open sore on the hand d. Drinking coffee in the office laboratory e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 897, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.5.
25. The purpose of using transport media is to: a. preserve a specimen in its original state until it reaches its destination. b. keep the specimen at its optimal growth temperature. c. reduce the number of pathogens in the specimen. d. provide nutrients for the multiplication of the specimen. e. all are correct. ANS: A
REF: p. 897, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
26. What is strep throat? a. A viral infection of the throat b. A bacterial infection of the nasal mucosa c. A yeast infection of the upper respiratory tract d. A bacterial infection of throat and tonsils ANS: D
REF: p. 898, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.1.
27. Strep throat most commonly affects individuals of which of the following age groups? a. 1 to 5 years old b. 5 to 15 years old c. 18 to 25 years old d. 65 years and older ANS: B
REF: p. 898, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.1.
28. All of the following are symptoms of strep throat except: a. painful sore throat. b. nausea and vomiting. c. white patches on the throat and tonsils. d. fever of 101° F or higher. ANS: B
REF: p. 898, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
29. Which of the following is a poststreptococcal infection to streptococcal sore throat? a. Diphtheria b. Rheumatic fever c. Pertussis d. Viral pneumonia ANS: B
REF: p. 898, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.c.
3
30. Which of the following is an advantage of using a RADT to diagnose strep throat? a. It provides results in a short period of time. b. It prevents the development of poststreptococcal complications. c. It is the most accurate way to diagnose strep throat. d. There is less chance of a false-negative test result. e. All are correct. ANS: A
REF: p. 898, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.10.
31. A throat specimen should be collected from the: a. tonsillar area and posterior pharynx. b. posterior pharynx. c. adenoids. d. hard palate. ANS: A
REF: p. 908, I.7, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
32. Which of the following represents a violation of technique when collecting a throat specimen? a. Using a sterile swab to collect the specimen b. Touching the inside of the mouth with the swab c. Firmly rubbing the swab over inflamed areas d. Using a rotating motion to collect the specimen ANS: B
REF: p. 896I, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
33. Which of the following is responsible for most annual influenza outbreaks? a. Influenza Type A b. Influenza Type B c. Influenza Type C d. Influenza Type D ANS: A
REF: p. 899, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.1.
34. What is the most common means of spreading influenza? a. Indirect contact with an infected individual b. Sexual intercourse c. Mosquito bite d. Droplet infection ANS: D
REF: p. 899, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.2.d.
35. What is the incubation period range for influenza? a. 12 to 24 hours b. 1 to 4 days c. 7 to 10 days d. 2 to 4 weeks ANS: B
REF: p. 899, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
36. Which of the following is a symptom of influenza? a. Sudden onset b. Fever and chills c. Muscle aches and joint pain d. Nasal congestion e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 899, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
37. Which of the following increases an individual’s risk of developing a serious complication from influenza? a. Asthma b. Emphysema c. Diabetes d. Age 65 and older e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 900, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.c.
38. All of the following are complications of influenza except: a. viral pneumonia. b. acute glomerulonephritis. c. bronchitis. d. otitis media. ANS: B
REF: p. 899, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.c.
39. Following administration, how long does it take for the influenza vaccine to become effective? a. 3 days b. 1 week c. 2 weeks d. 4 to 6 weeks ANS: C
REF: p. 900, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.b.
4
40. All of the following are benefits of receiving the influenza vaccine except: a. prevention of influenza. b. reduction in the severity of influenza symptoms. c. decreased risk of complications. d. remains effective for 5 years. ANS: D
REF: p. 900, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a.
41. Which of the following helps to prevent the transmission of influenza? a. Frequent handwashing b. Avoiding close contact with infected individuals c. Sneezing into a tissue d. Staying home for 24 hours after the fever has subsided e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 900, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): III.2.d.
42. All of the following are characteristics of influenza antiviral medication except: a. limits the multiplication of the influenza virus. b. serves as a substitute for the influenza vaccine. c. lessens the severity of the disease. d. shortens the duration of the disease. ANS: B
REF: p. 900, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a.
43. Influenza antiviral medications are recommended for which of the following? a. Individuals who are allergic to eggs. b. Individuals who have an increased risk of developing influenza complications. c. Individuals in a community with an influenza outbreak. d. None are correct. ANS: B
REF: p. 901, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a.
44. To be most effective, when should influenza antiviral medication be started? a. Within 7 days of developing symptoms b. When there is an influenza outbreak in the community c. Within the first 48 hours of developing symptoms d. When the symptoms first begin to subside e. All are correct. ANS: C
REF: p. 901, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.11.a.
45. How is influenza most commonly diagnosed? a. Rapid influenza diagnostic test b. Culture and sensitivity c. Clinical signs and symptoms d. Complete blood count ANS: C
REF: p. 901, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
46. What is a culture? a. A mixture of nutrients on which microorganisms are grown in the laboratory b. A small sample taken to show the nature of the whole c. Material spread on a slide for microscopic examination d. A mass of microorganisms growing in a laboratory culture medium ANS: D
REF: p. 902, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
47. The purpose of incubating a culture is to: a. allow the pathogen to grow and multiply. b. prevent overgrowth of the specimen with extraneous microorganisms. c. produce a pure culture. d. kill any pathogens present. ANS: A
REF: p. 902, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
48. A mixed culture is a culture that: a. contains only one kind of microorganism. b. contains two or more kinds of microorganisms. c. contains nutrient agar. d. has become contaminated with nonpathogens. ANS: B
REF: p. 902, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
49. The purpose of sensitivity testing is to: a. identify the type of microorganism present. b. produce a pure culture. c. determine the best antibiotic to use to treat the condition. d. determine the effectiveness of drug therapy. e. all are correct. ANS: C
REF: p. 903, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
5
50. If the pathogen were sensitive to an antibiotic, what would be observed when using the disc diffusion method of sensitivity testing? a. Bacterial growth around the disc b. Overgrowth of the disc with bacteria c. A change in color of the disc d. A clear zone without bacterial growth around the disc ANS: D
REF: p. 903, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.9.a.
6
Chapter 35: Nutrition Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the term for a chemical substance found in food that is needed by the body for survival and well-being? a. Diet b. Nutrient c. Antioxidant d. Nutrition ANS: B
REF: p. 918, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
2. All of the following are benefits of good nutrition except: a. supports good physical and mental well-being. b. helps to maintain a healthy weight. c. prevention of cancer. d. lowers the risk of heart disease and diabetes. ANS: C
REF: p. 918, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.a.
3. All of the following are performed by the medical assistant using a knowledge of nutrition except: a. conducting a nutritional assessment of a patient and recommending nutrition b. c. d.
therapy. scheduling an appointment for a patient with a dietitian. relaying dietary restrictions to a patient for a test or procedure. providing a patient with nutrition handouts.
ANS: A
REF: p. 918, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.6.a.
4. What is the term for a food that has vitamins and minerals added to it to replace those lost during processing of that food? a. Whole-grain food b. Enriched food c. Pasteurized food d. Fortified food ANS: B
REF: p. 918, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
5. A food with a high nutrient density is: a. high in calories and low in nutrients. b. fortified with vitamins and minerals. c. low in calories and high in nutrients. d. high in protein and low in fat. ANS: C
REF: p. 918, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
6. All of the following are examples of macronutrients except: a. carbohydrates. b. fats. c. protein. d. minerals. ANS: D
REF: p. 919, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.a.b.c.
7. How many kilocalories are provided by 1 g of carbohydrate? a. 4 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12 ANS: A
REF: p. 919, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.a.
8. What is the function of carbohydrate in the body? a. Primary source of energy for the body b. Build and repair of body tissue c. Assists in blood clotting d. Production of blood cells ANS: A
REF: p. 919, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.a.
9. Which of the following enables glucose to enter the body cells and be converted to energy? a. Glycogen b. Insulin c. Cells of the pancreas d. Lactase ANS: B
REF: p. 919, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.a.
1
10. All of the following are examples of monosaccharides except: a. glucose. b. fructose. c. galactose. d. sucrose. ANS: D
REF: p. 919, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.a.
11. Complex carbohydrates are made up of: a. many sugar units strung together in a long chain. b. one sugar unit. c. two sugar units. d. amino acids. ANS: A
REF: p. 919, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.a.
12. Which of the following is an example of an empty calorie food? a. Candy b. Cake c. Cookies d. Soft drinks e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 919, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.a.
13. All of the following provide kilocalories for the body except: a. carbohydrates. b. dietary fiber. c. fat. d. protein. ANS: B
REF: p. 919, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.g.
14. Which of the following is a characteristic of soluble fiber? a. It helps to lower blood cholesterol. b. Good food sources include oatmeal, applies, broccoli, and legumes. c. It makes an individual feel full longer. d. All are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 920, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.g.
15. All of the following are functions of fat in the body except: a. it provides energy for the body. b. it assists in the transmission of nerve impulses. c. it insulates and cushions the body. d. it transports water-soluble vitamins in the body. ANS: D
REF: p. 921, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.b.
16. What percent of the daily caloric intake of an individual should come from fat? a. Approximately 45% to 65% b. No more than 20% to 35% c. Less than 7% d. Between 70% and 80% ANS: B
REF: p. 921, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.b.
17. All of the following contain saturated fat except: a. nuts. b. butter. c. bacon. d. cheese. ANS: A
REF: p. 921, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.b.
18. All of the following are characteristics of monounsaturated fat except: a. it has a protective effect against heart disease. b. it is liquid at room temperature. c. it is found primarily in plant-based foods. d. good food sources include palm oil and coconut oil. ANS: D
REF: p. 921, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.b.
19. Which of the following are good food sources of polyunsaturated fat? a. Walnuts b. Flax seeds c. Corn oil d. Fatty fish e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 921, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.b.
2
20. What is the disadvantage of trans fat? a. It increases the HDL cholesterol level. b. It increases the risk of liver disease. c. It interferes with the absorption of iron. d. It increases the risk of heart disease. ANS: D
REF: p. 922, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.b.
21. All of the following are characteristics of cholesterol except: a. dietary cholesterol is only found in plant sources. b. it helps to make up cell membranes. c. it is needed for the production of hormones and bile. d. it is manufactured by the liver. ANS: A
REF: p. 922, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.b.
22. Which of the following may occur in an individual with a high blood cholesterol level? a. Hypertension b. Atherosclerosis c. Hyperglycemia d. Joint pain ANS: B
REF: p. 922, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.b.
23. What is the term for the chemical form in which most fat exists in food? a. Polyunsaturated fat b. Triglycerides c. Fatty acids d. Amino acids ANS: B
REF: p. 922, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.b.
24. Which of the following may result in an elevated triglyceride level in the body? a. Type 2 diabetes b. Excess alcohol consumption c. Being physically inactive d. Smoking e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 922, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.b.
25. Which of the following is the primary function of protein in the body? a. To build, repair, and maintain body tissue b. To provide energy for the body c. To assist in regulating body processes d. To maintain a healthy immune system ANS: A
REF: p. 922, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.c.
26. All of the following are good food sources of protein except: a. pasta. b. milk. c. eggs. d. meat. ANS: A
REF: p. 922, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.c.
27. Through the process of digestion, protein is broken down into: a. glucose. b. amino acids. c. fatty acids. d. disaccharides. ANS: B
REF: p. 923, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.c.
28. What is the term for an amino acid that is required by the body and must be obtained from food? a. Nonessential amino acid b. Incomplete amino acid c. Essential amino acid d. Micronutrient ANS: C
REF: p. 923, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.c.
29. What is a complete protein? a. A protein that contains all of the essential amino acids needed by the body. b. A type of protein found in plant-based foods. c. A protein that can be synthesized by the body. d. A protein that lacks one or more essential amino acids needed by the body. ANS: A
REF: p. 924, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.c.
3
30. Which of the following is a characteristic of vitamins? a. Provide energy for the body. b. Consists of inorganic compounds. c. Needed in small amounts for normal growth and development. d. Can be produced by the body. e. All are correct. ANS: C
REF: p. 924, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.f.
31. Which of the following is a function of the B vitamins? a. To regulate metabolism b. To facilitate nervous system function c. To maintain healthy skin d. To assist enzymes in converting food into energy e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 924, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.f.
32. All of the following are good food sources of the B vitamins except: a. citrus fruits. b. whole-grain bread and cereals. c. legumes. d. dark green leafy vegetables. ANS: A
REF: p. 924, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.f.
33. All of the following are characteristics of fat-soluble vitamins except: a. they dissolve in fat. b. an excessive intake may lead to toxicity symptoms. c. they cannot be stored in the body. d. they include vitamins A, D, E, and K. ANS: C
REF: p. 924, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.f.
34. Which of the following conditions can result from a deficiency of vitamin B1 (thiamine)? a. Pellegra b. Scurvy c. Osteoporosis d. Beriberi ANS: D
REF: p. 925, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.f.
35. Which of the following conditions can result from a deficiency of vitamin B9 (folic acid)? a. Cerebral palsy b. Osteomalacia c. Cleft palate d. Neural tube birth defects ANS: D
REF: p. 925, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.f.
36. Which of the following conditions can result from a deficiency of vitamin B12 (cobalamin)? a. Dermatitis b. Pernicious anemia c. Muscle cramps d. Night blindness ANS: B
REF: p. 925, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.f.
37. Which of the following conditions can result from a deficiency of vitamin C? a. Bleeding gums b. Easy bruising c. Poor wound healing d. Muscle cramps e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 925, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.f.
38. Which of the following vitamins is needed for healthy skin and to maintain vision in dim light? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin E d. Vitamin K ANS: A
REF: p. 926, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.f.
39. Which of the following conditions can result from a deficiency of vitamin D in children? a. Rickets b. Osteoporosis c. Scurvy d. Anemia ANS: A
REF: p. 926, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.f.
4
40. Which of the following vitamins is required for the formation of prothrombin needed for normal blood clotting? a. Vitamin D b. Vitamin C c. Vitamin K d. Vitamin E ANS: C
REF: p. 926, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.f.
41. Which of the following minerals is needed for healthy bones and teeth? a. Calcium b. Potassium c. Iodine d. Zinc ANS: A
REF: p. 927, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.d.
42. Which of the following minerals is needed to make hemoglobin? a. Calcium b. Iron c. Magnesium d. Chromium ANS: B
REF: p. 928, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.d.
43. Which of the following conditions can result from a deficiency of iron? a. Hemophilia b. Osteomalacia c. Goiter d. Anemia ANS: D
REF: p. 928, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.d.
44. Which of the following minerals provide an increased resistance to dental cavities? a. Phosphorus b. Chloride c. Fluoride d. Copper ANS: C
REF: p. 928, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.d.
45. What percentage of an adult is made up of water? a. 10% to 20% b. 20% to 25% c. 60% to 65% d. 80% to 85% ANS: C
REF: p. 927, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.h.
46. Which of the following is a function of water? a. Transportation of substances in and out of cells. b. Cools the body through perspiration. c. Provides a solvent for ridding the body of waste products. d. Cushions the shock to bones and joints. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 927, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.h.
47. Most water is lost from the body through: a. urine. b. feces. c. perspiration. d. breathing. ANS: A
REF: p. 927, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.1.h.
48. Which of the following individuals may require a multivitamin and mineral supplement? a. An individual consuming less than 1,200 kcal/day b. An individual with Crohn’s disease c. A pregnant woman d. An elderly individual e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: pp. 928-929, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.2.
49. How much of MyPlate should consist of the protein group? a. 10% b. 25% c. 30% d. 50% ANS: B
REF: p. 929, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.a.
5
50. Which of the following requires a food label? a. Fresh fruits b. Packaged foods c. Fresh vegetables d. Restaurant food ANS: B
REF: p. 930, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
51. Which of the following nutrients (listed on a food label) should be limited in the diet? a. Total fat b. Calcium c. Iron d. Dietary fiber ANS: A
REF: p. 932, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.a.c.
52. All of the following are names for added sugar except: a. corn syrup. b. ascorbic acid. c. molasses. d. honey. ANS: B
REF: p. 933, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.a.
53. How are ingredients listed on a food label? a. In descending order of weight from lowest to highest b. From the most nutritious ingredient to the least nutritious ingredient c. In descending order of weight from highest to lowest d. In descending order of calories from most to least ANS: C
REF: p. 930, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.12.
54. What name is used on a food label to identify trans fat? a. Sodium citrate b. Monosodium glutamate c. Hydrogenated vegetable oil d. Triglycerides ANS: C
REF: p. 921, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.a.
55. What is the term for the application of the science of nutrition to promote optimal health and treat illness? a. Dietitian b. Malnutrition c. Nutrition therapy d. Weight management ANS: C
REF: p. 933, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
56. Obesity increases the risk of developing which of the following? a. Hypertension b. Type 2 diabetes c. Sleep apnea d. Osteoarthritis e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 936, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.a.
57. All of the following are key elements in the treatment of obesity except: a. reduced calorie eating plan. b. physical exercise program. c. fad diets. d. behavior modification plan. ANS: C
REF: p. 937, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.a.
58. What occurs in the body when more calories are used for energy by the body than are consumed? a. Calorie surplus b. Malnutrition c. Insulin resistance d. Calorie deficit ANS: D
REF: p. 937, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.a.
59. How many kilocalories make up 1 pound of body fat? a. 1,200 b. 2,500 c. 3,500 d. 5,000 ANS: C
REF: p. 937, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.a.
6
60. How many minutes each week should a healthy adult spend in moderate-intensity physical exercise? a. 60 minutes b. 100 minutes c. 150 minutes d. 180 minutes ANS: C
REF: p. 937, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.a.
61. Which of the following may result from atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries? a. Narrowing of the coronary arteries b. Partial blockage of the coronary arteries c. Hardening of the arterial walls d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 938, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.c.
62. All of the following are recommendations of the TLC (Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes) eating plan except: a. saturated fat: Less than 7% of total calories. b. sodium: At least 5,000 mg/day. c. cholesterol: Less than 200 mg/day. d. dietary fiber: 20 to 30 g/day. ANS: B
REF: p. 938, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.c.
63. All of the following are high in dietary cholesterol except: a. egg whites. b. milk. c. liver. d. shellfish. ANS: A
REF: p. 938, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.c.
64. Which of the following may occur if high blood pressure is not brought under control? a. Heart attack b. Kidney damage c. Stroke d. Damaged vision e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 939, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.d.
65. Which of the following is recommended for the prevention and control of hypertension? a. TLC eating plan b. MyPlate eating plan c. DASH eating plan d. Exchange list system ANS: C
REF: p. 939, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.d.
66. Which of the following foods is low in sodium? a. Pickles b. Fruit juice c. Hot dogs d. Canned soup ANS: B
REF: p. 939, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.d.
67. Type 1 diabetes is caused by an inability of the body to: a. break down carbohydrates into glucose. b. produce insulin. c. break down fat. d. store glycogen. ANS: B
REF: p. 940, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.b.
68. Which of the following is recommended nutrition therapy for type 1 diabetes? a. Exchange list system b. Reduced calorie diet c. Low fat diet d. Low sodium diet ANS: A
REF: p. 940, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.b.
69. Which of the following risk factors contributes the most to the development of type 2 diabetes? a. Smoking b. High blood pressure c. Lack of physical activity d. Excess body weight ANS: D
REF: p. 941, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.b.
7
70. What is the name of the condition in which the body produces insulin but does not use it effectively? a. Malnutrition b. Hypoglycemia c. Insulin resistance d. Insulin shock ANS: C
REF: pp. 939-940, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
71. All of the following are characteristics of lactose intolerance except: a. body doesn’t produce enough lactase. b. caused by an allergy to lactose. c. body cannot fully digest lactose. d. usually begins during late adolescence or adulthood. ANS: B
REF: pp. 941-942, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.f.
72. Which of the following is a symptom of lactose intolerance? a. Abdominal bloating b. Diarrhea c. Flatulence d. Abdominal cramping e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 942, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.f.
73. Which of the following foods does not contain lactose? a. Soy milk b. Cheese c. Ice cream d. Whole milk ANS: A
REF: p. 942, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.f.
74. Which of the following foods does not contain gluten? a. Whole wheat bread b. Eggs c. Pasta d. Beer ANS: B
REF: p. 943, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.g.
75. Which of the following occurs with celiac disease? a. Erosion of the lining of the stomach b. Inflammation of the colon c. Shortness of breath d. Damage to the villi of the small intestine ANS: D
REF: p. 942, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.g.
76. Which of the following is not a common food allergen? a. Milk b. Apples c. Eggs d. Wheat ANS: B
REF: p. 943, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.h.
77. Which of the following are symptoms of a food allergy? a. Skin rash b. Hives c. Swelling d. Shortness of breath e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 943, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.h.
78. What type of nutrition therapy is typically used for a patient with a severe food allergy to peanuts? a. Elimination diet b. Rotation diet c. Denaturation d. Allergy injections ANS: A
REF: p. 944, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.h.
79. What occurs with a rotation diet? a. Exposure of the food allergen to heat so the body no longer recognizes it as an b. c. d.
allergen. Gradual desensitization of the body to the food allergen by limiting the number of times it is ingested. Removal of the food allergen from the diet. Exposure of the food allergen to acid to prevent an allergic reaction.
ANS: B
REF: p. 944, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.h.
8
80. How do supplemental digestive enzymes assist in treating food allergies? a. They cause the blood to become more alkaline which helps to relieve allergic b. c. d.
symptoms. They suppress the allergic response. They break down food into smaller, less allergenic molecules. They reduce the amount of histamine released by the body.
ANS: C
REF: p. 944, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): IV.3.h.
MATCHING
Directions: Match each word part meaning with its correct word part. Word Part a. antib. ather/o c. bar/o d. die. -gen f. glyc/o g. -iatrics h. kiloi. lact/o j. macro k. micro l. monom. nonn. nutriti/o o. -ose p. ox/i q. saturr. -sclerosis s. trit. vit/a Meaning of Word Part 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Against Oxygen Yellowish, fatty plaque Hardening Weight A branch of medicine Two Sugar Substance or agent that produces or causes Thousand Milk Full of (sugar) Large Nourishing Small One Not Full, well-fed Three Life
1. ANS: A 2. ANS: P 3. ANS: B 4. ANS: R 5. ANS: C 6. ANS: G 7. ANS: D 8. ANS: F 9. ANS: E 10. ANS: H 11. ANS: I 12. ANS: O 13. ANS: J 14. ANS: N 15. ANS: K 16. ANS: L 17. ANS: M 18. ANS: Q 19. ANS: S
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 944, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 944, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 944, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 944, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 944, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 944, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 945, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 945, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 945, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 945, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 945, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 945, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 945, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 945, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 945, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 945, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 945, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 945, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9. p. 945, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9.
9
20. ANS: T
REF: p. 945, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.9.
10
Chapter 36: Emergency Preparedness and Protective Practices Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. All of the following are examples of natural disasters except: a. flood. b. earthquake. c. bomb explosion. d. tornado. ANS: C
REF: p. 947, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.8.
2. All of the following are characteristics of man-made disasters except: a. are caused by negligent human actions. b. are caused by the failure of a man-made system. c. are caused by the natural processes of the earth. d. consists of an event that causes serious damage. ANS: C
REF: p. 947, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.8.
3. All of the following are examples of man-made disasters except: a. power outage. b. influenza epidemic. c. fire. d. terrorism. ANS: B
REF: p. 947, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.8.
4. All of the following are examples of a positive reaction to a disaster except: a. filling sandbags to minimize damage. b. opening a shelter at a community high school. c. providing counseling services for individuals with stress reactions. d. becoming angry and depressed. ANS: D
REF: p. 948, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.8.
5. Disasters that tend to cause the most serious psychological effects include those that: a. occur without warning. b. pose a serious threat to personal safety. c. have an uncertain duration. d. result from malicious intent. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 948, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.8.
6. What is stress? a. An event that occurs without advance warning b. Loss of self-worth and interest in day-to-day activities c. The body’s response to threat or change d. An event that poses a serious threat to personal safety ANS: C
REF: p. 948, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
7. Which of the following occurs during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)? a. The body senses a stressor and begins to react. b. Epinephrine is released. c. The attention becomes narrowly focused on the perceived threat. d. The body prepares for fight or flight. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: pp. 948-949, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.8.
8. All of the following occur when epinephrine stimulates the sympathetic nervous system except: a. decrease in blood pressure. b. dilation of the pupils. c. increased heart rate. d. increased respiratory rate. ANS: A
REF: p. 949, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.8.
9. Which of the following is a characteristic of the resistance phase of the GAS? a. The stress remains but the body adapts. b. May last hours, days, or months. c. Cortisol is secreted. d. The body remains “on-guard.” e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: p. 949, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.8.
1
10. What occurs during the recovery phase of the GAS? a. The body returns to its normal level of functioning. b. The immune system becomes compromised. c. The blood glucose level increases. d. Resources to combat stress become depleted. ANS: A
REF: p. 949, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.8.
11. Which of the following is an example of a stress-related symptom that may occur as a result of stress? a. Fatigue b. Irritability c. Lethargy d. Lapses in concentration e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 949, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.3.
12. A feeling of worry or uneasiness is known as: a. fight or flight syndrome. b. post-traumatic stress disorder. c. anxiety. d. depression. ANS: C
REF: p. 949, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
13. All of the following are symptoms of severe anxiety except: a. hyperventilation. b. rapid pulse rate. c. loss of emotional control. d. loss of voluntary muscle control. ANS: D
REF: p. 949, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.3.
14. All of the following are characteristics of an emergency action plan except: a. helps to prevent injuries and fatalities. b. helps to prevent property damage. c. describes the actions to take in an emergency situation. d. prevents disasters from occurring. ANS: D
REF: p. 951, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.8.
15. According to OSHA, which of the following must be included in an emergency action plan? a. Preferred means of reporting fires and other emergencies b. Procedures for employees performing rescue duties c. Procedures to account for all employees after an evacuation d. Emergency evacuation plan e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: pp. 951-953, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.8.
16. Which of the following are typically used to report an emergency and/or alert employees to an emergency situation? a. Dialing 911 b. Dialing an internal emergency number c. Activate a manual alarm d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 951, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.4.
17. According to OSHA, when is it acceptable to use direct voice communication to alert employees of an emergency situation? a. When the office is located in a one-story building. b. When all the employees have good hearing. c. When there are ten or fewer employees. d. When there are 20 or more employees. ANS: C
REF: p. 951, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.4.
18. All of the following are components of an emergency evacuation plan except: a. evacuation floor plan posted in multiple locations. b. a list of the hazardous chemicals stored in the workplace. c. conditions that would require evacuation of the area. d. evacuating individuals with disabilities. ANS: B
REF: pp. 951-953, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.4.
19. What is the responsibility of an emergency evacuation coordinator? a. To prevent emergencies in the medical office b. To take charge of and manage evacuation procedures during an emergency c. To maintain and test fire extinguishers d. To locate fire hazards in the workplace ANS: B
REF: p. 951, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.4.
2
20. An immediate and complete evacuation of a building is usually required for which of the following? a. Thunderstorm b. Large fire c. Child vomiting in the waiting room d. Small fire in a waste basket ANS: B
REF: p. 951, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.4.
21. Which of the following is a guideline required by OSHA for exit routes? a. Must be unlocked from the inside. b. Should be clearly marked and well-lit. c. Should be at least 28 inches wide. d. Should be unobstructed and free of clutter. e. All are correct. ANS: E
REF: pp. 951-952, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.4.
22. The quickest and easiest way to exit a building during an evacuation is known as the: a. wheelchair accessible exit. b. primary exit route. c. secondary exit route. d. fire door. ANS: B
REF: p. 952, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.4.
23. An evacuation floor plan includes the location of all of the following except: a. occupant’s current location. b. portable fire extinguishers. c. smoke detectors. d. fire alarms. ANS: C
REF: pp. 952-953, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.4.
24. In the event of an evacuation, what document can be used to account for patients after exiting the building? a. Patient log-in sheet b. Emergency action plan c. Employee roster d. Telephone book ANS: A
REF: p. 953, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.4.
25. An employee who performs rescue or medical duties during an evacuation is known as an: a. emergency responder. b. emergency evacuation coordinator. c. office supervisor. d. evacuation warden. ANS: D
REF: p. 953, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.4.
26. Which of the following is a way in which fires start in the medical office? a. Improper storage of chemicals b. Arson c. Overloaded electrical outlets d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 953, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.3.
27. All of the following are elements must exist in order for a fire to occur except: a. fuel source. b. carbon dioxide. c. oxygen. d. ignition source. ANS: B
REF: p. 953, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.3.
28. What is the term for a material that catches on fire easily? a. Flammable material b. Flame-retardant material c. Combustible material d. Hazardous material ANS: A
REF: p. 953, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.3.
29. All of the following are examples of fuel sources that might be found in the medical office except: a. patient medical records. b. hot surfaces. c. laboratory testing chemicals. d. furniture. ANS: B
REF: pp. 953-954, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.3.
3
30. Which of the following is an example of an ignition source? a. Trash b. Drapes and rugs c. Faulty electrical equipment d. Oxygen tanks ANS: C
REF: p. 954, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.3.
31. Which of the following is a characteristic of a fire prevention plan? a. Identifies flammable and combustible materials stored in the workplace. b. Identifies ways to control workplace fire hazards. c. Reduces the probability that a workplace fire will ignite or spread. d. All are correct. ANS: D
REF: pp. 954-955, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.3.
32. All of the following are characteristics of a sprinkler system except: a. located at ceiling level. b. are activated by the buildup of smoke in an area. c. usually includes an alarm system to alert building occupants. d. only those sprinklers closest to the fire are activated. ANS: B
REF: p. 956, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.3.
33. Which of the following prevents the spread of fire from one area of a building to another? a. Fire alarm b. Fire resistant cabinet c. Smoke detector d. Fire door ANS: D
REF: p. 956, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.3.
34. A fire extinguisher should NOT be used for which of the following? a. To extinguish a small fire that has just started b. To protect an evacuation route that a fire may block c. To fight a large fire that is out of control d. To extinguish a fire in a waste basket ANS: C
REF: p. 957, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.3.
35. Which of the following are examples of Class A fuel sources? a. Wood, paper, plastics, rubber b. Wiring, circuit breakers, electrical outlets c. Gasoline, oil, grease, alcohol d. Vegetable oil and animal oil ANS: A
REF: p. 957, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.1.
36. Where should a fire extinguisher be located in the medical office? a. Near the door of a room b. Near the exit of the building c. Along normal paths of travel d. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 958, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.3.
37. Which of the following determines the requirements for the number, size, location, and type of fire extinguishers in the medical
office? a. Fire code requirements b. Smokey the Bear c. Owner of the building d. Medical office manager ANS: A
REF: p. 957, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.3.
38. The first step in using a fire extinguisher is to: a. aim the nozzle at the base of the fire. b. slowly squeeze the handle. c. sweep the nozzle from side to side. d. pull out the pin. ANS: D
REF: p. 958, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.3.
39. What is the proper sequence of events that should occur in responding to a fire? a. Rescue, activate, confine, extinguish/evacuate b. Activate, rescue, confine, extinguish/evacuate c. Confine, activate, rescue, extinguish/evacuate d. Extinguish/evacuate, rescue, activate, confine ANS: A
REF: p. 958, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.3.
4
40. Which of the following must be included in the training of employees on the emergency action plan? a. Emergency response procedures b. Location and use of emergency equipment c. Evacuation procedures d. Emergency shutdown procedures e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: pp. 958-959, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): XII.8.
5
Chapter 37: Emergency Medical Procedures and First Aid Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the purpose of first aid? a. To save a life b. To reduce pain c. To prevent further injury d. To reduce the incidence of permanent disability e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 968, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.14.
2. A specially equipped cart for holding and transporting medications, equipment, and supplies needed in an emergency is known as
a: a. b. c. d.
first-aid cart. go-cart. crash cart. code blue cart.
ANS: C
REF: p. 968, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.14.
3. What is the name of the individual who is qualified to perform advanced life support measures? a. EMT-Basic b. EMT-Paramedic c. MLT d. EMD ANS: B
REF: p. 969, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.14.
4. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of an EMD? a. To answer emergency calls b. To obtain needed information from a caller c. To provide consent for treatment of a conscious patient d. To send appropriate personnel and equipment ANS: C
REF: p. 969, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.14.
5. Which of the following should NOT be performed when providing emergency care? a. Obtain information about what happened from bystanders. b. Administer care to a conscious patient who refuses it. c. Follow the OSHA standard. d. Do not move the patient unnecessarily. ANS: B
REF: p. 970, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.14.
6. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of an asthmatic attack? a. Wheezing b. Hives c. Coughing d. Dyspnea ANS: B
REF: p. 971, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
7. What term describes a progressive lung disorder in which there is a loss of elasticity of the alveoli of the lungs? a. Emphysema b. Chronic bronchitis c. Asthma d. Cystic fibrosis ANS: A
REF: p. 971, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
8. Which of the following is not a symptom of hyperventilation? a. Rapid and deep respirations b. Palpitations c. Abdominal pain d. Tachycardia e. Light-headedness ANS: C
REF: p. 971, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
9. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a heart attack? a. Sudden weakness on one side of the body b. Chest pain c. Shortness of breath d. Nausea ANS: A
REF: p. 972, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
1
10. What is another name for a stroke? a. Paraplegia b. Transient ischemia c. Coronary artery disease d. Cerebrovascular accident ANS: D
REF: p. 972, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
11. What type of shock is caused by loss of blood or other body fluids? a. Neurogenic b. Hypovolemic c. Cardiogenic d. Hemorrhaging ANS: B
REF: p. 972, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
12. What type of shock is caused by a reaction of the body to a substance to which an individual is highly allergic? a. Psychogenic b. Status asthmaticus c. Anaphylactic d. Allergenic ANS: C
REF: p. 973, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
13. With what type of bleeding is there is a slow and steady flow of dark red blood? a. Capillary b. Venous c. Arterial d. Profuse ANS: B
REF: p. 974, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
14. Which of the following is an example of a closed wound? a. Laceration b. Puncture c. Contusion d. Abrasion e. All are correct ANS: C
REF: p. 978, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
15. Which of the following is not a symptom of a fracture? a. Cyanosis b. Pain c. Deformity and swelling d. Loss of function ANS: A
REF: p. 978, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.b.
16. What is the name of the type of fracture in which the broken ends of the bone are forcefully jammed together? a. Transverse b. Greenstick c. Impacted d. Closed ANS: C
REF: p. 979, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
17. In what type of fracture is the bone splintered or shattered into three or more fragments? a. Spiral b. Comminuted c. Open d. Oblique ANS: B
REF: p. 979, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
18. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a partial-thickness burn? a. It extends into the dermis. b. The burned area appears red and mottled. c. There is little pain involved. d. Blistering occurs. ANS: C
REF: p. 980, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
19. In what type of seizure is the abnormal electrical activity localized to very specific areas of the brain? a. Tonic-clonic b. Partial c. Generalized d. Status epilepticus ANS: B
REF: p. 982, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
2
20. Which of the following is an example of an ingested poison? a. Carbon monoxide b. Fertilizers c. Insect stings d. Aspirin overdose e. All are correct ANS: D
REF: p. 983, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
21. Which of the following spiders can cause a serious or life-threatening reaction? a. Wolfe spider b. Daddy long legs c. Brown recluse spider d. The itsy-bitsy spider that went up the water spout ANS: C
REF: p. 985, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.14.
22. Which of the following snakes is poisonous? a. Rattlesnake b. Copperhead c. Cottonmouth d. Coral snake e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 985, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.14.
23. Which of the following animals is associated with a high incidence of rabies? a. Raccoons b. Gophers c. Rabbits d. Chipmunks e. All are correct ANS: A
REF: p. 985, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.14.
24. Which of the following individuals is at higher risk for heat-related or cold-related injury? a. An elderly man b. An individual who works outdoors c. An individual with cardiovascular disease d. An individual under the influence of alcohol e. All are correct ANS: E
REF: p. 986, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.14.
25. Which of the following body areas is most susceptible to frostbite? a. Arms and legs b. Fingers and toes c. Head d. Abdomen ANS: B
REF: p. 987, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.14.
26. A severe form of diabetes that usually appears in childhood is known as: a. type 1 diabetes. b. diabetes insipidus. c. type 2 diabetes. d. gestational diabetes. ANS: A
REF: p. 987, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): V.10.
27. Which of the following may result in insulin shock? a. Forgetting to administer an insulin injection b. Skipping meals c. Overeating d. Not administering enough insulin ANS: B
REF: p. 987, CAAHEP Cognitive Competency (2015): I.8.a.b.
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Chapter 38: The Medical Record Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What information is contained in the medical record? a. Health history b. Results of the physical examination c. Laboratory reports d. Progress notes e. All are correct ANS: E REF: pp. 993-994, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 2. Which of the following is NOT a function of the medical record? a. To provide information for making decisions regarding the patient’s care b. To document the patient’s progress c. To serve as a legal document d. To share information between members of the patient’s family ANS: D REF: p. 991, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 3. What is the purpose of the HIPAA Privacy Rule? a. Reduce exposure of patients to bloodborne pathogens. b. Provide patients with more control over the use and disclosure of their health c. d.
information. Prevent the patient’s records from being copied. Encourage the patient to become more involved in preventive health care.
ANS: B
REF: p. 992, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.3; ABHES Competency: 4.b.
4. What is included in the patient registration record? a. Demographic and billing information b. Medication instructions given to the patient c. The results of the physical examination d. A list of problems associated with the patient’s illness e. All are correct ANS: A REF: p. 995, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 4.c. 5. Which of the following demographic data were introduced as part of the patient registration record in order to qualify for Medicare
incentive payments? a. Siblings b. Ethnicity c. Current employer d. Birth place ANS: B REF: p. 995, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.12; ABHES Competency: 7.c. 6. Which of the following provides subjective data about a patient to assist the physician in arriving at a diagnosis? a. Laboratory tests b. Physical examination c. Health history d. Diagnostic tests ANS: C REF: p. 1000, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.16; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 7. Which of the following is included on an immunization record that may not be included on an ordinary record for medication
administered at the office? Name of the medication Route of administration Dosage administered Manufacturer and lot number All are correct
a. b. c. d. e.
ANS: D REF: p. 1000, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 8. What is a narrative report of an opinion about a patient’s condition by a practitioner other than the attending physician called? a. Correspondence report b. Discharge summary report c. Consultation report d. Health history report ANS: C REF: p. 1002, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a.
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9. Which of the following services may be provided through home health care? a. IV therapy b. Respiratory care c. Rehabilitation d. Maternal-child care e. All are correct ANS: E REF: p. 1003, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 10. What type of report contains the results of the analysis of body specimens? a. Therapeutic report b. Diagnostic report c. Laboratory report d. Progress report ANS: C REF: p. 1002, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 11. Which of the following is NOT an example of a report of a diagnostic procedure? a. Urinalysis report b. Spirometry report c. Colonoscopy report d. Radiology report ANS: A REF: p. 1002, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 12. Which of the following is a physical therapy service? a. Activities of daily living b. Hydrotherapy c. Dressing change d. Breathing treatment ANS: B REF: p. 1003, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 13. Which of the following helps a patient with a disability learn new ways to perform skills such as dressing or cooking? a. Speech therapy b. Occupational therapy c. Physical therapy d. Dietitian ANS: B REF: p. 1003, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 14. What term is used to describe a patient who has been admitted to the hospital for at least one overnight stay? a. Outpatient b. Ambulatory patient c. Guest d. Inpatient ANS: D REF: p. 1003, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.10; ABHES Competency: 3.a. 15. What term might be used before there is enough information to make a definitive diagnosis? a. Medical impression b. Prognosis c. Symptom d. Physical examination ANS: A REF: p. 1002, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.10; ABHES Competency: 4.a. 16. Which of the following describes a surgical procedure? a. Consent form b. Operative report c. Discharge summary d. Emergency department report ANS: B REF: p. 1003, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 17. Which of the following reports consists of an account of the significant events of a patient’s hospitalization? a. Emergency department report b. Pathology report c. History and physical report d. Discharge summary report ANS: D REF: p. 1004, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a.
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18. Which of the following reports consists of a macroscopic and microscopic description of tissue removed during surgery? a. Laboratory report b. Pathology report c. Diagnostic imaging report d. Operative report ANS: B REF: p. 1003, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 19. Who receives a copy of the patient’s emergency department report? a. Patient’s insurance company b. Patient c. Patient’s family physician d. Laboratory ANS: C REF: p. 1003, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 20. What procedure requires a consent to treatment form? a. Tuberculin skin testing b. Sebaceous cyst removal c. Ear irrigation d. Blood pressure measurement ANS: B REF: p. 996, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.13.a; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 21. Which of the following must be included in informed consent? a. An explanation of risks involved with the procedure b. Any alternative treatments or procedures available c. The prognosis d. The purpose of the recommended procedure e. All are correct ANS: E REF: pp. 44, 996, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.13.a; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 22. What does it mean when a medical assistant witnesses a patient’s signature? a. The medical assistant verified the patient’s identity and watched the patient sign b. c. d.
the form. The information on the form is correct. The patient is aware of the risks involved with the procedure to be performed. The physician discussed informed consent with the patient.
ANS: A REF: p. 996, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.13.a; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 23. Which of the following situations requires the completion of a release of medical information form? a. Transferring the patient’s records to a new physician b. Billing the patient’s insurance company c. Having the patient seen by a physician other than the primary care provider in the d.
same medical office Determining the patient’s eligibility for insurance benefits
ANS: A
REF: p. 996, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.4; ABHES Competency: 4.b.
24. Which of the following is NOT included on a release of medical information form? a. The specific information to be released b. The need for the information c. The patient’s signature d. The expiration date of the release form e. Medications being taken by the patient ANS: E REF: pp. 996, 999, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.4; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 25. Which of the following can be performed by an electronic health record software program? a. Creation of a medical record b. Storage of a medical record c. Editing of a medical record d. Retrieval of a medical record e. All are correct ANS: E REF: p. 993, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.6; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 26. In a source-oriented record, a radiology report is filed under which of the following chart divisions? a. History and physical b. Progress notes c. Lab/x-ray d. Hospital ANS: C REF: p. 993, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.5.b; ABHES Competency: 8.a.
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27. With reverse chronologic order, how is the most recent document filed? a. Alphabetically b. By subject title c. Placed in front of the other documents d. Placed in back of the other documents ANS: C REF: p. 993, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.5; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 28. Which of the following is NOT included in the database section of a POR? a. Health history report b. Physical examination report c. Baseline laboratory test results d. Plan of treatment ANS: D REF: p. 993, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.5.a; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 29. The acronym for the format used to organize POR progress notes is: a. SOAP. b. TGIF. c. OSHA. d. PPR. ANS: A REF: p. 994, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.5.a; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 30. What are data obtained from the patient are recorded in POR progress notes under? a. Subjective data b. Objective data c. Assessment d. Plan ANS: A REF: p. 994, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.5.a, V.C.16; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 31. What is the physician’s interpretation of the patient’s condition is recorded in POR progress notes under? a. Subjective data b. Objective data c. Assessment d. Plan ANS: C REF: p. 994, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.5.a; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 32. What is the purpose of the tab on a paper file folder? a. To hold documents in place in the folder b. To identify the contents of the folder c. To prevent the folder from being misfiled d. To keep the folder closed when not in use ANS: B REF: p. 993, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 33. Which of the following does NOT assist in the collection of data for a health history? a. A quiet, comfortable room b. Showing interest in the patient c. Showing concern for the patient d. Calling the patient “honey” ANS: D REF: p. 1004, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 34. Which of the following can be used to enter a health history into an electronic health record? a. The patient completes a paper form, and the medical assistant scans it into the b. c. d.
computer. The medical assistant enters information while asking the patient questions. The patient completes a health history on a computer. All are correct.
ANS: D REF: p. 1000, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 35. When is the health history taken? a. After the physician performs the physical examination. b. After laboratory test results are reviewed. c. Before the physician performs the physical examination. d. After the physician makes a diagnosis of the patient’s condition. ANS: C REF: p. 1004, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a.
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36. What is the chief complaint? a. The probable outcome of the patient’s condition b. The symptom causing the patient the most trouble c. A detailed description of the patient’s illness using medical terms d. A tentative diagnosis of the patient’s condition ANS: B REF: p. 1004, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.10; ABHES Competency: 3.a. 37. Which of the following questions should be used to elicit the chief complaint from a patient? a. Where does it hurt? b. Are you sick? c. How long have you been ill? d. What seems to be the problem? e. All are correct ANS: D REF: p. 1004, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 38. Which of the following is a correct example for recording the chief complaint? a. “Complains of pain in the left shoulder.” b. “The patient does not feel well today.” c. “Burning in the chest and coughing for the past 2 days.” d. “Otitis media that began following a cold.” ANS: C REF: p. 1004, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 39. What is the past medical history? a. The patient’s previous diseases, injuries, and operations b. The symptom causing the patient the most trouble c. Information about the patient’s lifestyle d. The hereditary diseases and health of blood relatives ANS: A REF: p. 1005, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 40. Which of the following is NOT included in the medical history? a. Accidents and injuries b. Immunizations c. Operations d. Medications e. Occupation ANS: E REF: p. 1005, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 41. What is the name for the review of the health status of blood relatives? a. Family history b. Review of systems c. Genetic review d. Chronologic history ANS: A REF: p. 1005, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 42. Which of the following is an example of a familial disease? a. Tuberculosis b. Pneumonia c. Diabetes mellitus d. Emphysema ANS: C
REF: p. 1005, CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.C.8; ABHES Competency: 2.c.
43. Which of the following is/are NOT included in the social history? a. Dietary history b. Health habits c. Occupation d. Chronic illnesses ANS: D REF: p. 1005, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 44. What is the review of systems (ROS)? a. A history of the patient’s previous diseases, injuries, and operations b. The symptom causing the patient the most trouble c. Systematic questions about each body system d. A review of the hereditary diseases and health of blood relatives ANS: C REF: p. 1005, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a.
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45. What term is used to describe the process of making written entries about a patient in the medical record? a. Entering b. Registering c. Putting in data d. Documenting ANS: A REF: p. 1008, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 4.a. 46. Why should a procedure be charted immediately after being performed? a. Avoids charting the procedure out of sequence. b. Avoids performing the wrong procedure on a patient. c. Avoids forgetting certain aspects of the procedure. d. Prevents another staff member from charting the procedure. ANS: C REF: p. 1008, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 4.a. 47. What is the purpose of progress notes? a. Provide a review of each body system. b. Update the medical record with new patient information. c. Prevent the patient’s condition from getting worse. d. Ensure that the patient returns for follow-up care. ANS: B REF: p. 1012, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 4.a. 48. What is a symptom? a. Conclusions drawn from an interpretation of data b. Any change in the body or its functioning that indicates disease c. The probable outcome of a disease d. The scientific method of identifying a patient’s condition ANS: B REF: p. 1013, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.10; ABHES Competency: 3.a. 49. Why should laboratory tests ordered on a patient at an outside laboratory be documented in the medical record? a. In case the patient does not undergo the test. b. In case the test results are abnormal. c. In case the patient’s condition gets worse. d. In case the test results are negative. ANS: A REF: p. 1015, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.i; ABHES Competency: 4.e. 50. Why is it important to document any instructions provided to the patient? a. To ensure that the patient understands the instructions provided b. To protect the physician legally if the patient is harmed by not following the c. d.
instructions To ensure that the patient follows the instructions To provide a record for the insurance company
ANS: B REF: p. 1016, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.i; ABHES Competency: 4.e.
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Chapter 39: Patient Reception Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When the medical assistant opens the office, what should he or she do first? a. Unlock file cabinets, paper medical record files, and medicine cabinets. b. Review the electronic task system or tickler file. c. Sterilize the instruments. d. Review the day’s activities. ANS: A
REF: p. 1024, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 8.e.
2. Which of the following is NOT included in organizing activities for the day? a. Paying the bills for the office b. Reviewing the appointment lists c. Noting which doctors are in the office for appointments d. Noting which doctors are out of the office for various engagements ANS: A
REF: p. 1024, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 8.e.
3. How might the medical assistant prepare the telephone system for the day’s activities? a. Check the fax machine for faxes that have arrived overnight. b. Notify the answering service that the office is open. c. Place the handsets of all cordless phones into their chargers. d. Turn on all office computers and printers. ANS: B
REF: p. 1024, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 8.f.
4. How many folders are necessary to set up a manual tickler file? a. 12 b. 31 c. 43 d. 365 ANS: C
REF: p. 1024, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 8.a.
5. What may be attached to the paper medical record for each patient who is going to be seen that day in the office? a. Laboratory slip b. X-ray order form c. Blank prescription sheet d. Charge slip ANS: D
REF: p. 1024, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 8.a.
6. Which of the following activities is the medical assistant most likely to perform just before patients start arriving? a. Prepare medical records for patients who will be seen that day. b. Print appointment schedules for each physician. c. Check the fax machine for faxes that may have arrived overnight. d. Check the schedule to determine which physicians will be in the office that day. ANS: B REF: p. 1024, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 7. What does the medical assistant do in the morning to prepare the medical office laboratory? a. Make sure that food has not been stored in the laboratory refrigerator. b. Remove all specimens from the incubator if one is used. c. Run the controls to make sure that equipment and supplies are working properly. d. Clean and disinfect all surfaces and equipment in the laboratory. ANS: C REF: p. 1025, CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.C.12; ABHES Competency: 10.a. 8. Which of the following is usually performed by the medical assistant while closing the office? a. Turn off the fax machine. b. Put the telephone system on a timer. c. Disarm the alarm system. d. Lock the door through which patients enter the office. ANS: D
REF: p. 1025, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 8.e.
9. Why is it important to acknowledge everyone who enters the office as soon as possible? a. It prevents patients from feeling awkward. b. It alerts office staff when unauthorized individuals are in the waiting room. c. It maintains patient confidentiality. d. It is required under the HIPAA legislation. ANS: A REF: p. 1025, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
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10. What is the purpose of a sliding window between the waiting room and reception desk? a. To prevent staff from being distracted by noise in the waiting room b. To prevent patients in the waiting room from hearing confidential patient c. d.
information To facilitate temperature control of the waiting room To make staff aware of patients entering the waiting room
ANS: B REF: pp. 1025-1026, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.3; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 11. What is usually included on the same form that allows the office to release information to the insurance company for billing
purposes? a. Assignment of benefits consent b. Receipt of HIPAA privacy practices c. Medical and social history d. Managed care referral ANS: C REF: p. 1026, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.3; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 12. What is it called when the office accepts payments directly from the insurance company? a. Assignment of benefits b. Direct pay c. Insurance benefits d. Capitation ANS: A REF: p. 1026, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.b; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 13. What is required under HIPAA related to the medical office statement of privacy practices? a. The patient must be given a copy of the office privacy practices. b. The patient must take a short test about the office privacy practices. c. HIPAA does not have any requirement related to office privacy practices. d. The patient must sign a form acknowledging the opportunity to read or receive a
copy of the office privacy practices. ANS: D REF: p. 1026, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.3; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 14. For which of the following patients must the medical assistant verify insurance coverage every time the patient visits the office? a. Patients with Medicaid b. Patients with Medicare and Medicaid c. Patients with any managed care insurance d. All patients ANS: A REF: p. 1029, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.3.a; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 15. How is the information on a patient’s insurance card usually recorded if the medical office uses an electronic health record (EHR)? a. Both sides of the insurance card are photocopied. b. The insurance card is scanned into the EHR. c. The information on the card is entered into appropriate fields of the EHR. d. The patient enters insurance information into the EHR using a computer terminal. ANS: B REF: p. 1029, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 16. Which of the following forms are usually filled out by the patient before the patient sees the physician? a. Physical examination form b. Patient history form c. Laboratory request form d. X-ray request form e. All are correct ANS: B REF: p. 1026, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 17. What should the medical assistant verify for accuracy at each visit for an established patient? a. The patient’s marital status b. The patient’s clinic number c. The patient’s address and telephone number d. The patient’s Social Security number ANS: C REF: p. 1030, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 18. How does the medical assistant verify that a patient’s insurance will cover a procedure that will be done in the office? a. Call the insurance carrier. b. Call the patient’s employer. c. Make a photocopy of the patient’s insurance card and keep it in the file. d. Call the subscriber of the insurance plan. ANS: A REF: p. 1030, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.3.a; ABHES Competency: 8.c.
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19. When making an appointment for a patient in a managed care plan who says that he has a referral from another physician, what
should the medical assistant tell the patient? The patient will need a letter from the managed care plan in addition to the referral form. b. It will not be a problem to obtain the referral form after the patient has been seen. c. The medical assistant will call the managed care company to obtain the completed referral form. d. The office of the referring physician must provide a written or electronic referral form. a.
ANS: D REF: p. 1030, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 20. Written referrals usually state which of the following items? a. How many visits are allowed? b. The problem for which the patient is being referred. c. The name of the physician who is making the referral. d. The name of the physician to whom the patient is being referred. e. All are correct. ANS: E REF: p. 1030, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 21. Who is responsible for identifying the charges for which the patient will be billed? a. Physician b. Medical assistant c. Billing specialist d. Office manager ANS: A REF: p. 1030, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.5; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 22. Under a managed care plan, what is the fixed amount of money that a patient is required to pay each time he or she receives
treatment? Balance payment Co-payment Referral balance Charge slip balance
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B REF: p. 1030, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 23. When is the patient placed in an examination room? a. Immediately after entering the waiting room. b. After the patient’s name and date of birth has been verified. c. After all front office paperwork has been completed. d. Before the patient has completed signing the necessary authorization forms. ANS: C
REF: p. 1036, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 8.c.
24. Why may some physicians in a practice not be accepting patients? a. They are planning to retire or move. b. They have joined the practice very recently. c. They want to pick and choose patients with interesting conditions. d. They have not yet chosen a medical specialty. e. All are correct. ANS: A REF: p. 1031, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.3; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 25. What is an advantage of having a patient information booklet? a. Medical assistants will not have to give information about the practice on the b. c. d.
telephone. Patients can be held responsible for knowing specific information about the practice. It can be a useful tool to market the practice and attract new patients. It serves as a legal notification about which physicians are accepting new patients.
ANS: C REF: p. 1032, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.13; ABHES Competency: 4.c. MATCHING
Match each activity depending on if the medical assistant performs it when opening or closing the office. Answers may be used more than once. a. When opening the office b. When closing the office 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Sets the alarm system Unloads the autoclave Turns on the radio, television, and/or DVD player in the waiting room Checks for messages and/or faxes Backs up the office computers
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1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
ANS: B ANS: A ANS: A ANS: A ANS: B
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 1025, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 8.e. p. 1025, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 8.e. p. 1024, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 8.e. p. 1024, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 8.e. p. 1025, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 8.e.
TRUE/FALSE 1. A tickler file is used to contain charge slips for all patients to be seen on a given day. ANS: F
REF: p. 1024, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 8.a.
2. The medical assistant should perform a visual check of the office and waiting room daily to check for safety hazards, such as items
blocking hallways. ANS: T REF: pp. 1024-1025, CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.P.5; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 3. At the end of the day, all the money in the cash drawer should be added to the daily bank deposit. ANS: F REF: p. 1025, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 4. When closing the office, some rooms or areas should be locked including any paper medical record files. ANS: T
REF: p. 1025, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 8.e.
5. The medical assistant should photocopy both sides of the patient’s insurance card or scan it into the EHR. ANS: T REF: p. 1029, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.5; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 6. Every patient must be given a written copy of the office’s privacy statement. ANS: F REF: p. 1026, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.3; ABHES Competency: 4.c. 7. The medical assistant may need to verify the patient’s insurance coverage each time the patient visits the medical office. ANS: T REF: p. 1029, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.5; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 8. When a physician sees a patient with a managed care referral, the physician is usually allowed to bill charges that insurance does
not pay to the patient. ANS: F REF: p. 1030, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 9. New patients should be given information that includes the specialties of the physicians in the practice and the basic philosophy of
the physicians. ANS: T REF: p. 1031, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.12; ABHES Competency: 4.c. 10. A website is a useful tool for providing information about a medical practice to the practice’s patients and the general public. ANS: T REF: p. 1032, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 4.c.
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Chapter 40: Medical Office Computerization Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What type of computer is used most often in a medical office? a. Supercomputer b. Desktop computer c. Mainframe computer d. Laptop computer ANS: B REF: p. 1040, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 2. When five computers in the medical office are linked together, it is known as a: a. mini-network. b. LAN (local area network). c. WAN (wide area network). d. server. ANS: B REF: p. 1040, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 3. What is the term used to describe raw, unorganized facts about subject matter presented to the computer for processing? a. Input b. Program c. Data d. Data processing ANS: C REF: p. 1040, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 4. What is the term used to describe a set of instructions that tells the computer how to perform a specific function? a. Program b. Application c. Data processing d. Control unit ANS: A REF: p. 1040, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 5. What is the transfer of data to the computer for processing called? a. Input b. Output c. Booting d. Loading ANS: A REF: p. 1040, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 6. Which of the following is an example of an output device? a. Keyboard b. Mouse c. Printer d. Scanner ANS: C REF: p. 1040, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 7. What is the manipulation of data by the computer according to a program known as? a. Output b. Editing c. Formatting d. Processing ANS: D REF: p. 1040, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 8. Which of the following is an example of an operating system? a. Medical Management Program b. Microsoft Excel c. Microsoft Windows d. Microsoft Word e. All are correct ANS: C REF: p. 1042, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b.
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9. A word processing program can be used to perform which of the following? a. Enter text b. Edit text c. Format text d. All are correct ANS: D REF: p. 1042, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.a. 10. What type of software consists of an electronic ledger designed to perform mathematic calculations quickly? a. Spreadsheet b. Database management c. Telecommunications d. Gaming ANS: A REF: p. 1042, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 11. Which of the following can be performed by database management software? a. Generation of financial reports b. Design of patient education brochures c. Electronic submission of insurance claims d. Storage and retrieval of information ANS: D REF: p. 1042, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 12. What feature do many physicians use to dictate progress notes directly into the electronic health record? a. Spreadsheet software b. Word processing software c. Voice recognition software d. Database software ANS: C REF: pp. 1042-1043, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 13. Which statement is generally true about electronic health records (EHR)? a. They only store and have access to patient’s health information. b. They are usually linked to the office e-mail system. c. They link to and/or include practice management programs or functions. d. They can interface with all other types of electronic health records. ANS: C REF: p. 1042, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 14. What is one gigabyte approximately equal to? a. 1,000 bytes b. 1,000 KB c. 1,000 MB d. 1,000 TB ANS: C REF: p. 1044, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 15. Which of the following is a guideline for the care and maintenance of the main computer unit? a. Do not obstruct the ventilation slots. b. Clean the casing with an aerosol spray. c. Place a computer tower in a horizontal position. d. Keep the computer at a temperature of at least 72° F. ANS: A REF: p. 1044, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 16. What is the primary cause of improper functioning of the main unit? a. Not enough computer memory b. Exposure to environmental contaminants c. Placing the main unit in a horizontal position d. A slow microprocessor ANS: B REF: p. 1044, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 17. How should the screen of the monitor be positioned to prevent back and neck tension? a. 2 to 3 inches above eye level b. On a flat, stable surface c. On top of the main computer unit d. Away from bright light ANS: A REF: p. 1045, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b.
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18. When working on a monitor, which of the following helps prevent eye strain? a. Blinking frequently b. Occasionally focusing on a distant object c. Positioning screen so that it reflects bright light d. Using a wrist guard ANS: B REF: p. 1045, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 19. How does a privacy filter work? a. Logs the user out after 1 minute of inactivity. b. Increases glare when looking from above. c. Requires a password to make the screen visible. d. Blocks the screen image to anyone not directly in front of it. ANS: D REF: p. 1045, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 20. Which of the following can be used to clean the screen of an LCD monitor? a. A paper towel b. A microfiber cloth c. Spraying the screen with a screen cleaner d. Using a cleaner containing acetone ANS: B REF: p. 1045, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 21. How can grime be removed from a computer keyboard? a. Using an aerosol spray b. Using a compressed inert gas c. Using a vacuum cleaner d. Using a slightly damp cloth e. All are correct ANS: D REF: p. 1046, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 22. Which of the following printers requires toner powder, usually housed in a plastic cartridge? a. Thermal b. Virtual c. Laser d. Dot matrix ANS: C REF: p. 1047, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 23. Which of the following documents would print the fastest from an inkjet printer? a. Text b. Color images c. Graphics d. Black-and-white photographs ANS: A REF: p. 1047, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 24. Which of the following is an advantage of a laser printer compared to an inkjet printer? a. Uses ink cartridges. b. Prints at a faster speed. c. Noticeably better print quality. d. No particular advantages. ANS: B REF: p. 1047, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 25. Which of the following is a characteristic of a USB flash drive? a. Consists of a small circuit board in a plastic case. b. Consists of a flat, round, portable disc. c. Stores information in the form of magnetized particles. d. Storage capacity ranges from 65 to 1,000 GB or more. ANS: A REF: p. 1049, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 26. What is an example of an optical disc? a. Disc that uses flash memory b. Portable hard disc c. Compact disc (CD) d. All are correct ANS: C REF: p. 1049, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b.
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27. What is the function of an audit trail? a. To detect the presence of a computer virus b. To detect a hardware malfunction c. To detect irregularities in data entry d. To prevent unauthorized access to the computer ANS: C REF: p. 1049, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 28. How is information transmitted and exchanged using the Internet? a. Using the Internet protocol (TCP/IP) b. Using satellite telephone systems c. Using various types of wired or wireless devices d. All are correct ANS: A REF: p. 1050, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 29. What is used to access the World Wide Web? a. An operating system such as Windows b. A web browser such as Internet Explorer c. A hard drive or server d. A router such as a broadband router or digital subscriber line (DSL) ANS: B REF: p. 1050, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 30. What is the advantage of secure messaging within the electronic health record (EHR)? a. It cannot be attacked by computer viruses. b. It allows communication with more individuals than ordinary e-mail. c. It is faster than ordinary e-mail. d. Patient information is as secure as the EHR itself. ANS: D REF: p. 1051, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 31. What is an online application that allows patients to communicate with their health care providers? a. Practice website b. Secure e-mail within the EHR c. Patient portal d. Internet Explorer ANS: C REF: p. 1051, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 32. Which of the following does the electronic health record prescription program NOT have the ability to perform? a. Check for potential interactions with other medication being taken by the patient. b. Check the prescription against any patient drug allergies. c. Determine the number of medication refills. d. Print a list of medications being taken by the patient. ANS: C REF: p. 1051, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 33. How does an electronic health record prescription program can send a prescription to the pharmacy? a. E-fax or e-prescribing b. FedEx c. U.S. postal services d. Telephone ANS: A REF: p. 1051, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 34. Which of the following should the medical assistant use as a computer password? a. A random series of letters and digits b. Medical office telephone number c. The physician’s DEA number d. His or her last name ANS: A REF: p. 1051, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 35. What is the name for software designed to penetrate a computer or network without consent? a. Computer virus b. Computer crash c. Utility program d. Burglar ANS: A REF: p. 1052, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b.
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36. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of antivirus software? a. Operates in the background. b. Monitors all files for viruses. c. Updates itself regularly. d. Performs periodic backups. ANS: D REF: p. 1052, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 37. Which of the following protects a computer network from unauthorized access? a. Utility program b. Audit control c. Firewall d. Backup ANS: C REF: p. 1052, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 38. What is the term for a duplicate copy of a program or data kept for reference in case the original is damaged, lost, or destroyed? a. Operating system b. DVD c. Backup d. Optical disc ANS: C REF: p. 1052, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.11; ABHES Competency: 7.b. TRUE/FALSE 1. The type of computer network that includes all computers in a medical office as well as all computers in a local hospital is called a
LAN. ANS: F REF: p. 1040, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 2. A database management program would be used for office correspondence. ANS: F REF: p. 1042, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 3. The keyboard must be connected to the computer with a cable. ANS: F REF: p. 1045, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 4. The print quality from a laser printer is better than the print quality from a dot matrix printer. ANS: T REF: p. 1047, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 5. A CD-ROM (compact disc) holds more information than a DVD (digital versatile disc). ANS: F REF: p. 1048, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 6. Printers, keyboards, and flash drives may be connected to the computer through a USB port. ANS: T REF: p. 1042, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 7. Patient information stored in an electronic health record is more accessible than information stored in a paper medical record. ANS: T REF: p. 1042, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 8. When implementing an electronic health record, all or part of the old paper record is usually entered into the new electronic record. ANS: T REF: p. 1042, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 9. Practice management software is only used for appointment scheduling. ANS: F REF: p. 1042, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 10. The electronic health record (EHR) usually interfaces with practice management software in the office computer system. ANS: T REF: p. 1042, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 11. Encryption is a process by which electronic information is changed into an unreadable form before electronic transmission. ANS: T REF: p. 1051, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b.
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12. Antivirus software tracks the activity of individuals using the computer system. ANS: F REF: p. 1052, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b.
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Chapter 41: Telephone Techniques Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which is most important when the medical assistant answers the telephone? a. Obtain insurance information from new patients. b. Be courteous with a positive attitude and personality. c. Be willing to keep callers on hold; this is the sign of a busy office and a good d.
doctor. Be able to answer any inquiry a caller to the medical office may have.
ANS: B REF: p. 1056, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 2. What is the first thing the medical assistant should do when answering a telephone call? a. Put the caller on hold. b. Finish with the patient who is at your desk. c. Find out who the caller is. d. Identify the practice and himself or herself. ANS: D REF: p. 1056, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 3. When answering the telephone, what is the best question for the medical assistant to ask to find out a caller’s name? a. “What is your name?” b. “Who is this?” c. “May I ask who is calling, please?” d. “Who are you?” ANS: C REF: p. 1056, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 4. Which of the following is an important aspect of a pleasing telephone personality? a. Speaking rapidly b. Multitasking c. Assuming a pleasing but artificial telephone voice d. Speaking louder than normally ANS: D REF: p. 1056, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 5. How often should the medical assistant check back with a caller who is on hold? a. At least every 10 seconds b. At least every 20 seconds c. At least every 30 seconds d. At least every minute ANS: C REF: p. 1056, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 6. How can the medical assistant prevent neck and shoulder strain when answering telephone calls? a. Use a telephone headset. b. Tuck the receiver between the head and shoulder to leave the hands free. c. Be sure that the computer screen is tilted downward. d. Use a cordless telephone. ANS: A REF: pp. 1056-1057, CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.C.7.b; ABHES Competency: 2.a. 7. Which of the following items should be readily available when taking telephone messages? a. Desk clock, computer clock, or wristwatch b. Loose-leaf notebook c. Paper clips d. Telephone book or Rolodex containing telephone numbers ANS: A REF: p. 1056, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P. 7; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 8. If the medical assistant has transferred a telephone call, but the light for that extension continues to blink, what does it mean? a. The caller is talking to the intended recipient. b. The caller has been accidentally disconnected. c. The call has gone to the recipient’s voicemail. d. The intended recipient has not yet answered the telephone. ANS: D
REF: p. 1057, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P.6; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
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9. What is the name of the telephone feature that allows a medical assistant to send calls from one telephone number or extension to
another? Speed dialing Call forwarding Call waiting Caller ID
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
REF: p. 1058, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P.6; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
10. When is call forwarding used? a. When a telephone call must be transferred to a different extension. b. When the line is busy and the call is sent to voicemail. c. When all incoming calls are rerouted to another telephone number. d. When the person answering the telephone wants to be able to identify a caller
before answering the telephone. ANS: C
REF: p. 1058, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P.6; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
11. Which is done by an answering service if one is used by the medical office? a. Answer calls when the office is closed. b. Answer all of the physician’s telephone calls. c. Answer calls only when the office is very busy. d. Make it unnecessary for the office to hire a receptionist. ANS: A REF: p. 1058, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 12. Which of the following is true about voicemail? a. It is built into the telephone system. b. It requires a separate answering device attached to each telephone. c. It requires one separate electronic device for the entire office. d. It requires an independent company that answers the telephone for a number of
clients. ANS: A REF: p. 1058, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 13. Which type of electronic device may add computer capabilities to a telephone with software such as a drug reference? a. Pager b. Smartphone c. Radio phone d. Ordinary cell phone ANS: B REF: p. 1058, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 14. Which type of pager can display a message in addition to the telephone number of the caller? a. Digital pager b. Numeric pager c. Alphanumeric pager d. Alert-only ANS: C REF: p. 1059, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 15. What type of telephone system offers the caller a menu with several options when the telephone is answered? a. Referral system b. Voice mail system c. Answering service d. Electronic routing system ANS: D REF: pp. 1059-1060, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 16. What is it called when the medical assistant determines which telephone calls will go to the physician? a. Tampering b. Eavesdropping c. Screening d. Policing ANS: C REF: p. 1060, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P.6; ABHES Competency: 9.b. 17. If a caller asks for the office manager by name, what should the medical assistant usually do? a. Ask for the caller’s name and then transfer the call to the office manager’s b. c. d.
extension. Ask for the caller’s name and offer to take a message for the office manager. Place the caller on hold and call the office manager to find out if she wants to take the call. Offer to transfer the call to the office manager’s voicemail.
ANS: A REF: p. 1060, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P.6; ABHES Competency: 9.b.
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18. Which of the following calls is put through immediately to the doctor, even if the doctor is with a patient? a. A laboratory reporting negative results. b. Another doctor to whom a referral was made. c. An angry patient who insists on speaking to the doctor. d. A caller who says that she will only speak with the physician. ANS: B REF: p. 1065, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P.6; ABHES Competency: 9.b. 19. What is the purpose of taking messages for the physician even if he or she is in the office? a. To allow the physician to avoid constant interruptions while he or she is seeing b. c. d. e.
patients To be sure that patient’s understand how important the physician’s time is To encourage patients to make appointments if they have questions for the physician To save the expense of having one person assigned to answering incoming calls All are correct
ANS: A
REF: p. 1060, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P.6; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
20. Which of the following types of call does the medical assistant usually handle only by taking a message? a. Requests to schedule appointments b. Billing inquiries c. Requests for results of laboratory tests or diagnostic procedures d. Requests for directions to the office ANS: C
REF: p. 1060, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
21. How can the medical assistant take telephone messages in an organized manner? a. Use abbreviations that only she is familiar with. b. Use pieces of paper for the messages to leave on the doctor’s desk. c. Give the message verbally to the receptionist to write down. d. Have the appropriate materials readily available to properly document the call. ANS: D REF: p. 1056, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P.7; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 22. For which of the following symptoms can the medical assistant offer advice over the telephone? a. Nausea of 2 days’ duration b. Diarrhea that appears to be getting more frequent c. Pain in the arms with shortness of breath d. All are correct e. None are correct ANS: E REF: p. 1062, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P.6; ABHES Competency: 9.b. 23. Which of the following should always be included when the medical assistant takes a message? a. The patient’s address b. If the patient is calling from home or work c. The patient’s age and/or date of birth d. The patient’s temperature ANS: C REF: p. 1060, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P.7; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 24. How can the medical office reduce the number of telephone calls from patients requesting laboratory results? a. Set up a system to send patients letters with laboratory results. b. Tell patients that they will only be notified about laboratory results if they are c. d.
abnormal. Call all patients if laboratory results are normal to avoid bothering the physician. Instruct patients not to bother the office with requests for laboratory results.
ANS: A REF: p. 1061, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 25. If a patient calls to request a medication refill, which information should always be included in the message? a. How many months or years the patient has been taking the medication b. The medication name and dose c. The approximate date of the last appointment with the physician d. Symptoms the patient is having that require a refill of the medication ANS: B REF: p. 1067, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P.7; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 26. When a patient calls to request a medication refill, which information should be included in the message? a. The address to which the prescription should be mailed. b. If the pharmacy used by the patient accepts e-prescriptions. c. The prescription number of the patient’s current supply of the medication. d. If the patient wants the prescription filled at a pharmacy or by mail order. ANS: D REF: p. 1067, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P.7; ABHES Competency: 8.a.
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27. If a patient calls to request authorization for a laboratory or diagnostic test, what should the medical assistant do? a. Give the patient directions to the hospital or laboratory usually used by the b. c. d.
patients of the office. Obtain authorization for the test from the physician and complete any necessary paperwork. Tell the patient that he or she must make an appointment to discuss the request with the physician. Complete a referral form if the patient has managed care insurance coverage.
ANS: B REF: p. 1060, CAAHEP Competency (2015): 8.C.3.a; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 28. To whom can medical assistants leave a telephone message containing test results? a. Family members who have inquired about the patient’s status b. The parents of a patient who is a child c. A patient of the medical office d. None are correct ANS: D REF: p. 1061, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.3; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 29. If a sales representative from a pharmaceutical company calls and asks to speak to the physician, what would be the best response
by the medical assistant? a. To put the call through to the physician’s extension b. To provide information about the next available appointment time for a pharmaceutical representative to meet with the physician c. To offer to take a message for the physician d. To say that the caller will have to come to the office and see if the physician has time to speak with him or her ANS: B REF: p. 1062, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 30. Which of the following statements about emergency telephone calls is true? a. In an emergency, the medical assistant is permitted to give medical advice over b. c. d.
the telephone. The medical assistant should transfer an emergency call to a licensed health professional if one is in the office. A caller with a medical emergency should usually be instructed to come to the medical office immediately. The medical assistant should always ask to speak to the patient about his or her symptoms in an emergency.
ANS: B REF: p. 1062, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P.6; ABHES Competency: 9.g. 31. The medical assistant receives a telephone call before any other office staff have arrived at the office stating that the caller’s child
has burned her left hand and arm with boiling water. What should the medical assistant tell the patient? a. Call back in 20 minutes, because the physician should have arrived by then. b. Call an ambulance (911) and have the child taken to the emergency department. c. Wait by the telephone while the medical assistant contacts the physician and asks for advice. d. Take the child’s temperature and call back if it is above 103° F. ANS: B REF: p. 1062, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P.6; ABHES Competency: 9.g. 32. The medical assistant receives a telephone call in the morning from a patient who states that she has had a respiratory infection for
several days, and that today she feels worse and is running a fever. Which of the following is the best response by the medical assistant? a. The medical assistant should instruct the patient to call an ambulance. b. The medical assistant should offer to take a message for the physician. c. The medical assistant should offer the patient an open appointment for that afternoon. d. The medical assistant should instruct the patient to drive to the emergency department of the local hospital. ANS: C REF: p. 1062, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 33. If an angry person calls the office, what should the medical assistant do or try to do? a. Interrupt while the caller is talking if the caller says something that is incorrect. b. Say nothing and let the caller vent. c. Hang up on the caller after telling him or her to call back when he or she feels d.
calmer. Use a calm voice to ask questions and obtain information about what has angered the caller.
ANS: D REF: p. 1062, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
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34. How should the medical assistant handle a call if the caller refuses to give any information and insists on speaking to the physician? a. Put the call through to the physician. b. Instruct the caller to write a letter to the physician and mark it “personal.” c. Describe the call on a message form and state that the caller refused to identify d.
himself. Keep the caller on the line while a coworker calls the police to have the telephone call traced.
ANS: B REF: p. 1062, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 35. If a medical assistant makes a call to a patient regarding the patient’s bill and obtains an answering machine, what message should
the medical assistant leave? A request to call him or her at the medical office, and the medical office telephone number. b. A request to call him or her regarding a bill, and his or her cell phone number. c. A description of the problem with the bill and a request to call the office, including the office telephone number. d. No message, to protect the patient’s privacy. a.
ANS: A REF: p. 1063, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.3; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 36. What should the medical assistant determine before placing a call for a physician? a. If the physician already knows the party being called. b. If the physician will be ready to talk as soon as the call has been completed. c. If the call is local or long distance. d. If the caller is expecting the call. ANS: B REF: p. 1063, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 37. When should the medical assistant make a personal telephone call if he or she is at work at a medical office? a. Whenever there are a few free minutes. b. At any time when the physician is not in the office. c. During a scheduled break or lunch period. d. When the medical assistant can be sure that someone is available to cover his or
her duties. ANS: C REF: p. 1063, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 11.b. 38. When are appointment reminder calls usually placed to patients? a. The day of the appointment b. 24 to 48 hours before the appointment c. 3 to 4 days before the appointment d. 1 week before the appointment ANS: B REF: p. 1063, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 39. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using computer programs for telephone calls to remind patients about
appointments? a. They save time for the medical assistant. b. The patient can usually confirm or cancel the appointment as part of the call. c. They are linked to the appointment schedule and occur automatically. d. Patients prefer to receive a computerized call instead of talking to the medical assistant. ANS: D REF: p. 1063, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 40. When placing a long-distance call to ask about an equipment order from a company in a different state, what should the medical
assistant keep in mind? a. The call needs to be placed through an operator. b. The call should be dialed with a country code. c. The medical assistant should always ask the physician if she may make a long-distance call. d. The call should be placed during business hours of the time zone in which the company is located. ANS: D REF: p. 1063, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.f. TRUE/FALSE 1. Qualities such as friendliness and concern or boredom and indifference are clearly communicated over the telephone. ANS: T REF: p. 1056, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
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2. Call park allows storage of frequently called telephone numbers in the telephone system’s memory. ANS: F REF: p. 1058, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 3. A voicemail system in a medical office usually allows a caller to leave messages for a specific individual or department. ANS: T REF: p. 1058, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 4. When a patient asks to speak to the physician, the medical assistant usually transfers the call if the physician is in the office. ANS: F REF: p. 1062, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P. 7; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 5. When a patient calls to report satisfactory progress after a specified interval, the medical assistant must either put the call through
to the physician or take a message asking the physician to call the patient. ANS: F REF: p. 1060, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P. 7; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 6. When a patient calls to request a refill of a prescription for an antibiotic, the medical assistant should ask what symptoms the
patient is having that would require a refill. ANS: T REF: p. 1061, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P.7; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 7. Most offices have a guide with screening questions to assist medical assistants with telephone calls related to urgent or emergency
conditions. ANS: T REF: p. 1061, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P.6; ABHES Competency: 9.g. 8. The telephone number of the poison control center should be placed next to every telephone in the medical office. ANS: T REF: p. 1062, CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.C.8; ABHES Competency: 9.g. 9. If the medical assistant answers a telephone call, and the caller seems confused, the medical assistant should just take a message for
the physician. ANS: F REF: pp. 1062-1063, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 10. The HIPAA privacy rule prohibits health care providers from calling patients and leaving messages unless the patient has signed a
form consenting to telephone calls. ANS: F REF: p. 1063, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.3; ABHES Competency: 4.b.
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Chapter 42: Scheduling Appointments Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is NOT a guideline for appointment scheduling? a. Concentrate on the person to whom you are speaking. b. Repeat information back to the patient. c. Speak quickly to save time when another patient is waiting. d. Schedule the proper amount of time for the type of appointment. ANS: C REF: p. 1071, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 2. What is one advantage of a computer appointment system? a. It is always available. b. It is useful if the office includes several practitioners and several locations. c. Both are correct. d. None are correct. ANS: B REF: p. 1072, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.2.a; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 3. Which of the following applies to any manual appointment book? a. The pages display a single day. b. There is a separate book for each physician. c. It is a legal document that must be kept on file. d. It can provide a backup to the computer schedule. ANS: D REF: p. 1072 CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.2.a; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 4. What time interval is frequently used to set up the appointment schedule in a medical office? a. 5 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 30 minutes d. 45 minutes ANS: B REF: p. 1074, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 5. How is patient confidentiality maintained related to the daily schedule? a. Create only one copy of the daily appointment schedule. b. Do not post the schedule in areas to which patients have access. c. Accompany patients at all times when walking through the office. d. Use a number system instead of a name system for the daily schedule. ANS: B REF: p. 1072, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.3; ABHES Competency: 4.f. 6. What is the name for scheduling patients with similar problems or conditions on certain days? a. Wave b. Clustering c. Modified wave d. Stream ANS: B REF: p. 1074, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 7. What system schedules three or four patients every half hour, who are seen in the order they arrive? a. Wave b. Clustering c. Modified wave d. Stream ANS: A REF: p. 1073, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 8. What is the goal of stream scheduling? a. To schedule the same amount of time for each appointment b. To be sure that there is always a patient waiting to see the physician c. To give the physician time to respond to telephone messages between patients d. To schedule patients so that there is a steady flow of patients moving through the
office ANS: D REF: p. 1072, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d.
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9. What is the minimum amount of time that would commonly be allotted for the examination of a new patient? a. 10 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 20 minutes d. 30 minutes ANS: D REF: p. 1072, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 10. What is the advantage of open office hours? a. They give patients more flexibility. b. They reduce patient waiting time. c. They take full advantage of a computer scheduling system. d. Patients know what to expect about how long they will have to wait. ANS: A REF: pp. 1073-1074, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 11. When is double-booking often used? a. When the physician uses two examination rooms. b. When a patient with an acute injury or illness must be fitted into the schedule. c. When there is more than one physician scheduled to be in the office. d. When the physician is running behind schedule. ANS: B REF: p. 1073, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 12. If an office uses a modified wave scheduling system, approximately how many patients are given individual appointment times? a. No patients (0%) b. All patients (100%) c. Most patients (80% to 90%) d. About half of the patients (50%) ANS: D REF: p. 1073, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 13. Which of the following is an advantage of patient self-scheduling compared to scheduling using an appointment book? a. Appointment times can be more easily changed if necessary. b. Patients always receive the appointment time they request. c. Patients must receive confirmation of their appointment time electronically or by d.
letter. Patients do not need to place a telephone call to the office to schedule an appointment.
ANS: D REF: p. 1074, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 14. How does the medical assistant set up the appointment schedule? a. Block out the times when patients can be seen. b. Block out the times when the medical assistant will not be available. c. Block out the times when the physician is not available to see patients. d. Block out the times when the medical office is open. ANS: C REF: p. 1074, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 15. How long in advance can patients usually schedule appointments? a. Up to 3 months b. Up to 6 months c. Up to 12 months d. Up to 2 years ANS: B REF: p. 1074, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 16. Which of the following reasons for an office visit will require the most time? a. An immunization b. A postoperative checkup c. A complete physical examination d. A follow-up visit for hypertension ANS: C REF: p. 1072, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 17. Which of the following variables will have the greatest effect on the appointment matrix? a. The availability of facilities and equipment b. The season of the year c. The type of scheduling system used by the office d. The location of examination rooms within the office ANS: A REF: pp. 1075-1076, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d.
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18. Which of the following is a physician preference or need that may affect the appointment schedule? a. The time of day a physician prefers to do certain types of examinations. b. The type of scheduling method used by the medical practice. c. The availability of medical assistants and other staff. d. The number of satellite offices affiliated with the medical practice. ANS: A REF: p. 1075, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 19. Which of the following are included as established patients? a. Patients who do not need a physical examination. b. Patients who have appointments at regular intervals. c. Patients with insurance referrals. d. Patients who have been seen in the medical office during the past 3 years. ANS: D REF: p. 1076, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.b; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 20. If patients must fast for laboratory tests, what special scheduling requirements should be initiated? a. Schedule the patient for the laboratory test at least 1 week before an appointment b. c. d.
with the physician. Schedule the patient early in the morning if possible. Instruct the patient to arrive for the laboratory test with a full bladder. The patient can be scheduled at any time of day that is convenient.
ANS: B REF: p. 1076, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.3; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 21. What information must be obtained from a new patient for billing purposes? a. The patient’s work schedule b. The patient’s past medical history c. Whether the patient smokes cigarettes d. The type of medical insurance and coverage ANS: D REF: p. 1076, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.5; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 22. Which of the following adult patients has the highest priority to be seen by the physician on the day the patient calls, if possible? a. The patient who complains of nausea and vomiting for the past 3 days. b. The patient with a fever of 101.8° F since the previous evening. c. The patient who has an unexplained weight loss over the past 2 months. d. A patient who has had difficulty falling asleep for 2 weeks. ANS: A REF: p. 1077, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.P.1; ABHES Competency: 9.b. 23. Which condition is the lowest priority and could wait until an available appointment in 1 or 2 days? a. Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy b. Earache with drainage c. Cold with runny nose d. A laceration (cut) that will not stop bleeding ANS: C REF: p. 1077, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.P.1; ABHES Competency: 9.b. 24. Which method(s) can be used to allow the physician to avoid falling behind or catch up with appointment times? a. Leave at least 15 to 20 minutes free each morning and/or afternoon. b. Schedule a lunch break that is 20 to 30 minutes longer than the physician will c. d. e.
need. End appointment times about an hour before the physician really plans to go home. Schedule the physician for examination rooms that are side by side. All are correct.
ANS: E REF: pp. 1075-1076, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 25. How does the office usually handle visits from pharmacy representatives or medical salespeople who want to see the physician? a. Give them a specific appointment time, often during the lunch break. b. Take their cards and inform them that the physician will contact them if needed. c. Allow them to wait until the physician has a free minute between patients. d. See them at the completion of scheduled office hours. ANS: A REF: p. 1075, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d.
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26. If an unscheduled patient comes to the office but does not appear to be ill, what should the medical assistant do? a. Plan to fit the patient in between patients. b. Allow the patient to wait until the end of office hours to be seen as the last patient c. d.
of the day. Tell the patient that he can wait to see if there is a cancellation or missed appointment. Explain that patients are seen with appointments only, and give the patient the first available appointment.
ANS: D REF: p. 1077, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 27. What is important when changing the appointment date and time for a patient? a. Delete or erase the original appointment completely. b. Record that the appointment was changed in the patient’s medical record. c. Always draw a line through the original appointment if a manual appointment d.
book is used. Give the patient an appointment within 2 days of the original appointment, double-booking if necessary.
ANS: A REF: p. 1086, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 28. What is important when rescheduling a group of patients due to an unexpected change in the physician’s schedule? a. Give the patients new appointments as soon as possible. b. Reschedule the patients on an extra day, such as a Saturday. c. Write a note of apology to each patient because of the appointment change. d. Extend the physician’s schedule by 1 hour for each of the next 3 days. ANS: A REF: p. 1078, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 29. When a patient does not keep an appointment or call to cancel, what should the medical assistant do? a. Send the patient a letter instructing him or her to find another physician. b. Expect that the physician will call the patient. c. Document the missed appointment in the medical record. d. Nothing—the patient obviously does not want to see the physician. ANS: C REF: p. 1086, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.P. 11; ABHES Competency: 4.a. 30. Why is it important to document missed appointments in the patient’s medical record? a. It shows that the patient had an appointment and didn’t keep it. b. It is a potential defense against a claim that the physician was not available. c. It provides grounds to terminate a relationship with the patient. d. If provides written documentation that the patient does not follow medical advice. e. All are correct. ANS: E REF: pp. 1078-1079, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.i; ABHES Competency: 4.e. 31. What is a way to handle a patient who has a pattern of being late for appointments? a. Give the patient the last appointment of the day. b. Encourage the patient to find another physician. c. Call the patient the day before the appointment and remind him or her to be on d.
time. Send the patient a note encouraging him to be on time for his or her next appointment.
ANS: A REF: p. 1079, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 32. If a patient with managed care insurance must be referred to a specialist physician, what is the responsibility of the primary care
physician’s office? a. Nothing; the patient just makes an appointment with the specialist. b. To make the appointment with the specialist. c. To submit a referral form the managed care organization and obtain preauthorization for the referral. d. To notify the specialist so that the specialist’s office can obtain preauthorization for a patient appointment. ANS: C REF: p. 1079, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 33. Which of the following information should the medical assistant have on hand before scheduling a diagnostic test for a patient? a. The patient’s name and telephone number b. The patient’s insurance information c. The type of procedure being performed d. The patient’s diagnosis or the reason the procedure is being performed e. All are correct ANS: E REF: p. 1080, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.3; ABHES Competency: 8.d.
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34. Why should the office have a system to verify that the results of diagnostic tests were given to patients? a. To verify that the tests were done b. To place the results of the test somewhere permanent c. To protect the physician from possible lawsuits for malpractice or abandonment d. To have test results ready for the physician to discuss with the patient at the next
visit ANS: C REF: p. 1081, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.i; ABHES Competency: 4.e. 35. When the patient is going to be admitted to the hospital from home, what should the medical assistant do? a. Make sure there is preauthorization for the admission. b. Arrange transportation for the patient. c. Schedule the physician to be at the hospital when the patient is admitted. d. Instruct the patient not to eat or drink after midnight the night before the e.
admission. All are correct.
ANS: A REF: p. 1081, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.3.c; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 36. Within what time period must the physician visit a patient he or she has admitted to the hospital? a. 1 hour b. 12 hours c. 24 hours d. 48 hours ANS: C REF: p. 1081, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.b; ABHES Competency: 4.c. 37. When scheduling surgery for a patient, what information should be provided in addition to the type of surgery, name of the surgery,
and name of the surgeon and any assistant surgeon? The insurance prior authorization number The exact date that the surgeon wants to perform the surgery The name and telephone number of the patient’s next of kin Whether the patient has completed a living will or health care proxy All are correct
a. b. c. d. e.
ANS: A REF: p. 1081, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.3; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 38. Which of the following diagnostic tests is usually included in preadmission testing before any surgery? a. Ultrasound of the operative area b. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) c. Electroencephalogram (EEG) d. Electrocardiogram (ECG) e. All are correct ANS: D REF: p. 1081, CAAHEP Competency (2015): I.C.9.a; ABHES Competency: 2.c. 39. Why must proper procedures be adhered to in scheduling patients for consultations with specialists? a. Specialists will only accept patients who are referred by another physician. b. Managed care insurance often requires written referral forms, or it will not pay. c. The physician must demonstrate that the patient needs the service. d. The specialist needs to have a complete history on the patient before seeing him. ANS: B REF: p. 1079, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 9.e. 40. Who is responsible for giving the patient written instructions before surgery? a. The surgeon’s office b. The primary care physician’s office c. The hospital or day surgery center d. Written instructions are not necessary ANS: A REF: p. 1081, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C. 6.c; ABHES Competency: 9.h. MATCHING
Directions: Match the definition of the scheduling system to its name(s). Each definition can be used more than once. a. Scheduling two patients for the same appointment time b. An appointment scheduling method in which each patient is given a specific appointment time c. Scheduling similar types of patients for examinations on the same day or part of the day d. An appointment system in which some patients have individual appointment times and some have the same appointment time as other patients e. A method of scheduling appointments in which several patients are given the same appointment time and seen in the order they arrive f. Patients may come to the office at any time during a range of hours 1. Stream scheduling 5
2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Wave scheduling Single booking Double-booking Fixed appointment scheduling Clustering Modified wave scheduling Time-specified scheduling Open hours Categorization
1. ANS: B REF: p. 1072, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 2. ANS: E REF: p. 1073, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 3. ANS: B REF: p. 1072, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 4. ANS: A REF: p. 1073, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 5. ANS: B REF: p. 1072, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 6. ANS: C REF: p. 1074, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 7. ANS: D REF: p. 1073, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 8. ANS: B REF: p. 1072, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 9. ANS: F REF: pp. 1073-1074, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 10. ANS: C REF: p. 1074, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. TRUE/FALSE 1. Established patients are usually scheduled for 10 to 20 minutes for a sick visit. ANS: T REF: p. 1072, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 2. In appointment scheduling, a blocked time is a time that already has a patient appointment. ANS: F REF: p. 1074, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 3. Scheduling an appointment for an established patient requires the medical assistant to ask more questions than scheduling an
appointment for a new patient. ANS: F REF: p. 1076, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.3; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 4. If a patient has been seen in by a dermatologist in a medical group, the patient will be considered an established patient for all
physicians affiliated with the medical group even if they have different medical specialties. ANS: F REF: p. 1076, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.b; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 5. When using a computer program to schedule appointments, it is usually only necessary to confirm that the computer has brought up
the correct telephone number (instead of asking the patient for the telephone number). ANS: T REF: p. 1076, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 6. When appointments are changed or cancelled in a computer appointment scheduling program, the original appointment remains
visible, but appears in a different color. ANS: F REF: p. 1085, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.2.b; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 7. If a patient telephones the medical office with a serious medical problem, the medical assistant should instruct the patient to come
to the office immediately. ANS: F REF: p. 1077, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.3; ABHES Competency: 8.d. 8. If there are scheduled patients in the medical office and the physician must leave for an emergency, it is important to give the
patients the option to reschedule. ANS: T REF: p. 1078, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.d.
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9. Managed care insurance requires the medical office to submit a referral request for a consultation so that the proposed care can be
reviewed and approved or denied. ANS: T REF: p. 1079, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 10. If a patient will be admitted to the hospital, admitting orders must be telephoned or faxed from the attending physician’s office
before the patient is admitted. ANS: T REF: p. 1081, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.3; ABHES Competency: 8.d.
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Chapter 43: Medical Records Management Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following types of medical records may be reviewed to record statistical information? a. Paper medical records b. Electronic health records c. Both paper medical records and electronic health records d. Neither paper medical records nor electronic health records ANS: C REF: p. 1090, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 2. Which of the following are true about both paper medical records and electronic health records? a. They provide for continuity of care. b. They provide an ongoing record of the patient’s state of health. c. They are legal documents if there is a question about care given. d. They usually include information form more than one source. e. All are correct. ANS: E REF: p. 1090, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 3. What usually happens to the paper medical record after a medical office transitions to an electronic health record system? a. It is scanned into the electronic medical record but kept available. b. It is scanned into the electronic medical record and then shredded. c. Baseline data and recent information is scanned into the electronic record, and the d.
paper record is photographed and stored digitally. Baseline data and recent information is scanned into the electronic record, and the paper record is kept available for 2 to 3 years.
ANS: D REF: p. 1091, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.P.6; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 4. How does a medical office prevent medical assistants from ordering prescriptions if an electronic health record is used? a. Levels of access b. Password protection c. Staff training d. Audit trail ANS: A REF: p. 1090, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.P.6; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 5. Which of the following may/should medical assistants do if an electronic health record (EHR) is used? a. Share password with only one or two other staff members. b. Leave the EHR on the screen when the patient is alone in the exam room. c. Exit the program or lock the screen before stepping away from a computer. d. Review the EHR of friends and family to be sure information is accurate. ANS: C REF: p. 1090, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.P.6; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 6. What is a guideline for the storage of backup copies of electronic health records? a. If possible, they should be stored off site in a secure location. b. They should be stored in a locked file cabinet in the office. c. Their storage area should always be protected from light. d. They should be encrypted so that only the system administrator can load them
into the computer. ANS: A REF: p. 1091, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.6.c; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 7. What is always necessary if a paper medical record system is used? a. A means to back up data every day b. A means to lock the medical record storage cabinets or storage room c. A means to maintain high humidity in the medical record storage area d. Color-coded labels or file folders to facilitate identification of records ANS: B REF: p. 1091, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.6.b; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 8. What is used when creating a paper medical record to give a visual cue about the name or number on the medical record folder? a. Large letters or numbers b. Color-coded labels c. Raised dots on the folder tabs d. Nothing is used for this ANS: B REF: p. 1092, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.6.a; ABHES Competency: 8.a.
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9. What is an outguide? a. A stiff piece of paper or plastic that is placed in a file when a medical record is b. c. d.
removed. A metal device that facilitates removing a medical record from the filing cabinet or shelf. A metal divider that is placed on file shelves at specified intervals to support the records. An index card that is filled out to identify who has taken a medical record from the file.
ANS: A REF: p. 1093, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.6.c; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 10. Which of the following is an indirect method of filing? a. Subject b. Numeric c. Chronologic d. Alphabetic ANS: B REF: p. 1095, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.P.5; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 11. What is an advantage of using color-coded labels or folders? a. It preserves patient confidentiality. b. It simplifies removal of inactive records. c. It reduces the risk of misfiling. d. It simplifies the process of creating the record. ANS: C REF: p. 1091, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.6.b; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 12. If the office is using a color-coded system, who needs to know the meaning of the colors in use? a. All office staff b. Both office staff and patients c. Only the medical assistants d. Office staff and staff of the insurance companies billed by the office ANS: A REF: p. 1092, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.6.b; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 13. In a paper medical record system, how are laboratory reports often filed if they are smaller than 912 inches? a. Using chart dividers b. From the top as separate short pages c. Using mounting sheets, with the oldest report in front on top d. Using mounting sheets, with the oldest report at the back on the bottom ANS: D REF: p. 1093, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.6.a; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 14. What is an indexing unit in an alphabetic filing system for medical records? a. The patient’s full name b. Each color-coded label placed on the medical record c. Each part of a patient’s name d. Each letter of a patient’s name ANS: C REF: p. 1094, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 15. What is the first indexing unit in alphabetic filing? a. First name b. Last name c. Middle initial d. Professional title ANS: B REF: p. 1093, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 16. What is the second indexing unit in alphabetic filing? a. First name b. Last name c. Middle initial d. Second letter of the last name ANS: A REF: p. 1093, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 17. How are companies and businesses indexed? a. Exactly as written b. Using the most important word as the first indexing unit c. Using any proper noun as the first indexing unit d. Disregarding articles such as “a,” “an,” and “the” ANS: D REF: p. 1095, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.a.
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18. Which filing system used for paper medical records protects patient identity most successfully? a. Subject b. Alphabetic c. Numeric d. Cross-indexed ANS: C REF: p. 1096, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.6.b; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 19. Which of the following would be filed first? a. Jones, Jane b. Jones, Louise c. Jones, Kristine d. Jones, L. W. ANS: A REF: p. 1094, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 20. Using the alphabetic system of filing, what would “The Harris Office Supply Company” be filed under? a. T b. H c. O d. C ANS: B REF: p. 1095, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 21. If Mary Jane Mitchell marries John L. Walker, which of the following names might Mary Jane choose to use as her married name? a. Mary Jane Walker b. Mary Jane Mitchell c. Mary Jane Mitchell-Walker d. Mary Mitchell Walker e. All are correct ANS: E REF: p. 1094, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 22. Which of the following is an advantage of using a numeric filing system for paper medical records? a. It is easy because it is a direct filing system. b. It is easier to identify patients when several patients have the same name. c. Fewer label colors are required to mark the medical records. d. A separate system must be maintained to link the patient’s name with the
numbering system. ANS: B REF: p. 1096, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.6.b; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 23. If the terminal digit filing system is used, what is the first filing unit for the number 01-68-72-59? a. 01 b. 59 c. 68 d. 72 ANS: B REF: p. 1095, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 24. If a chronologic numeric filing system is used, which of the following medical records comes last in the files? a. 0219 b. 1944 c. 3294 d. 7281 ANS: D REF: pp. 1095-1096, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 25. If the subject method of filing is used for folders, which of the following would be filed first? a. Bank accounts b. Cleaning services c. Pharmaceutical companies d. Medical supply companies ANS: A REF: p. 1095, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 26. What must occur before a piece of correspondence can be filed in a patient’s paper medical record? a. It must be indexed. b. It must be coded. c. It must be annotated. d. It must be initialed by the physician. ANS: D REF: p. 1096, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a.
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27. In what order are documents filed into a section of the source-oriented medical record? a. The order in which they are received in the office b. With the oldest date first c. In reverse chronologic order (most recent first) d. In random order ANS: C REF: p. 1093, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.5.b; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 28. How long should the medical records of minors be kept? a. Indefinitely—no medical record should ever be destroyed. b. Until the patient becomes 18 years of age. c. Until the patient becomes 21 years of age. d. Until the patient reaches the age of majority plus the number of years for the
statute of limitations in that particular state. ANS: D REF: p. 1098, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.i; ABHES Competency: 4.e. 29. Which of the following is the least common method for backing up the electronic medical record? a. DVD optical disks b. External hard drive c. External tape drive d. Network storage ANS: A REF: p. 1091, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.11; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 30. What records (besides medical records) should be kept indefinitely? a. Insurance policies b. Licenses c. Drug Enforcement Administration controlled-substance records d. All are correct ANS: D REF: p. 1098, CAAHEP Competency (2008); CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.6; ABHES Competency: 4.f. TRUE/FALSE 1. A numeric filing system is only used for problem-oriented medical records (POMR). ANS: F REF: p. 1095, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.5.a; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 2. It is common for paper medical records to be filed based on the date of the patient’s last visit. ANS: F REF: p. 1093, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.P. 5; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 3. Electronic health records are updated periodically which may require additional staff training. ANS: T REF: p. 1091, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.P.6; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 4. File folders used for paper medical records are similar to loose-leaf notebooks. ANS: F REF: p. 1092, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.6.a; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 5. A sorter is a device that facilitates placing documents in alphabetic or numeric order. ANS: T REF: p. 1093, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.6.b; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 6. If a patient has a hyphenated last name, it may be helpful to cross-index the medical record in an alphabetic filing system. ANS: T REF: p. 1094, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.6.b; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 7. In an alphabetic filing system, the name Helen De Larosa would be filed after Miles Dennis. ANS: F REF: p. 1094, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 8. If a medical office uses an electronic health record, it often uses a numeric system to maintain patient confidentiality. ANS: F REF: p. 1090, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.P.6; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 9. Most offices that use paper medical records place a sticker identifying the year of the patient’s last visit on the outside of the chart
to facilitate identifying active records. ANS: T REF: p. 1092, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.6.b; ABHES Competency: 8.a.
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10. The medical record of a Medicare patient must be retained for at least 10 years after the last contact with the patient. ANS: F REF: p. 1098, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7; ABHES Competency: 4.f.
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Chapter 44: Written Communications and Mail Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What type of computer program does the medical assistant usually use to prepare letters? a. Word processing b. Database c. Spreadsheet d. Letters are usually prepared on a typewriter, not the computer ANS: A REF: p. 1105, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 2. What part of a letter will contain the date line? a. Body b. Closing c. Heading d. End notations ANS: C REF: p. 1106, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 3. How is the return address formatted on a letter sent by the medical office? a. Centered six lines below the top of the paper. b. Left-justified 1 inch below the top of the paper. c. Right-justified 1 1 2 inches below the top of the paper. d.
Most offices use letterhead stationery, and the placement varies.
ANS: D REF: p. 1106, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 4. What part of a letter includes the name and address of the party to whom a letter is being sent? a. Body b. Heading c. Salutation d. Inside address ANS: D REF: p. 1106, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 5. Which of the following is the correct way for the medical assistant to begin a letter from Dr. Taylor to Samuel Matthews, M.D.? a. Dear Sam, b. Dear Dr. Matthews: c. Dear Samuel Matthews: d. Dear Samuel Matthews, M.D.: ANS: B REF: p. 1106, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 6. Which of the following best describes the spacing in the body of a business letter? a. Single-spaced throughout b. Double-spaced throughout c. Single-spaced with double space between paragraphs d. Double-spaced with triple space between paragraphs ANS: C REF: p. 1106, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 7. Which of the following comes last in a business letter? a. Reference line b. Typed signature c. Complimentary close d. Handwritten signature ANS: A REF: p. 1107, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 8. Which of the following is the most formal closing for a business letter? a. Regards b. Sincerely c. Sincerely yours d. Very truly yours ANS: D REF: p. 1106, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
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9. What punctuation mark follows the complimentary closing of a business letter? a. Colon b. Comma c. Semicolon d. None ANS: B REF: p. 1106, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 10. If the physician wants to use a printed title, such as “Professor of Medicine,” in the closing of a letter, where would it be placed? a. On the reference notation line b. On the same line as the typed signature c. Right-justified on the last line of the letter d. On the line immediately below the typed signature ANS: D REF: p. 1106, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 11. Which of the following is considered an end notation in a business letter? a. Date line b. Enclosure line c. Typed signature d. Complimentary closing ANS: B REF: p. 1106, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 12. Whose initials are placed in uppercase in the reference notation of a letter from a medical office? a. Office manager b. Initials of the managing partner c. Individual who composed the letter d. Individual who typed or keyed the letter ANS: C REF: p. 1106, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 13. Which of the following statements is true about the margins of a business letter? a. The top margin of a letter should be 2 to 2 1 2 inches. b. c. d.
The side margins should be 3 4 inch to 1 inch wide. The bottom margin should be larger than the top margin. The margins on all four sides of the letter should always be equal.
ANS: A REF: p. 1107, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.a. 14. What is the advantage of using or creating a template for letters from a medical office? a. It is easier to add a second page to the letter. b. It is easier to find the inside address for a new letter. c. It is easier to maintain the same format for all letters. d. It is easier to make each letter sound more personal. ANS: C REF: p. 1107, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.a. 15. What is the letter style in which the first line of each new paragraph is indented five spaces? a. Block b. Semiblock c. Simplified d. Modified block ANS: B REF: pp. 1107-1108, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 7.a. 16. Which of the following letter styles requires all lines to begin at the left margin? a. Full block b. Semiblock c. Modified block d. None are correct ANS: A REF: p. 1107, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.a. 17. Which part(s) of a standard letter is/are not used in the simplified letter style? a. Salutation only b. Printed signature line only c. Salutation and complimentary closing d. Printed signature line and end notations ANS: C REF: p. 1108, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
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18. Where is the date line placed in the full block letter style? a. Left-justified b. Right-justified c. On a tab at the center d. On a tab to the right of the center ANS: A REF: p. 1107, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.a. 19. Which of the following letters would most likely be signed by the medical assistant? a. Order for office supplies b. Medical reports to an insurance company c. Letter dictated by the physician to a patient d. Letter to another physician about a consultation ANS: A REF: p. 1110, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 20. Which of the following is NOT a way to monitor laboratory test results using the electronic health record? a. Posting an alert when follow-up testing is overdue. b. Tracking how fast patients follow up with additional tests. c. Tracking that patients have been notified of laboratory results. d. Tracking that results have been received from the testing facility. ANS: B REF: p. 1110, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 21. What is the proper way to prepare the address on a business envelope? a. Format all lines with a uniform left margin. b. Use a comma between the state and ZIP code. c. Use a script or italic typeface for a computer-generated letter. d. Place delivery instructions below the delivery address. ANS: A REF: p. 1111, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IV.C.8; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 22. Where is the barcode clear zone on an envelope? a. Above the return address b. Lower right of the envelope c. Lower left part of the envelope d. Above the area where postage is placed ANS: B REF: p. 1111, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 23. Which of the following is not usually one of the headings in a memo? a. TO b. FROM c. DATE d. ADDRESS ANS: D REF: p. 1112, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 24. In the sentence, “Roger is a very tall boy,” which word is a proper noun? a. Boy b. Tall c. Very d. Roger ANS: D REF: p. 1112, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 25. Which part of speech can modify a noun, adjective, or adverb? a. Adverb b. Pronoun c. Adjective d. Preposition e. All are correct ANS: A REF: p. 1112, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 26. Which part of speech shows relationships of space, time, or possession? a. Noun b. Preposition c. Interjection d. Conjunction ANS: B REF: p. 1112, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
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27. Which of the following is an example of a complex sentence? a. I must open the letter in the outer office. b. After I open the envelope, I will read its contents. c. I will open the envelope, and then I will prepare a reply. d. I will open the envelope, read its contents, and prepare a reply. ANS: B REF: p. 1113, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 28. Which of the following is punctuated correctly? a. June 13 1987 b. June 13, 1987 c. June 13th, 1987 d. June 13, of 1987 ANS: B REF: p. 1114, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 29. Why should the medical assistant proofread all letters, memos, or other documents that will be distributed? a. The computer cannot add proofreader’s marks. b. It isn’t necessary; the computer spell check function will correct all misspelled c. d.
words. The physician or other individual who composed the letter may want to make changes. The computer spell check function cannot verify that a word is used in its correct context.
ANS: D REF: p. 1114, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 30. After printing a letter to be sent by the medical office, a medical assistant notices that a word is not spelled correctly. What should
the medical assistant do? Correct the mistake neatly in ink. Correct the computer file and reprint the letter. Send the letter as is because up to two errors in a letter are allowed. Ask the office manager whether to take the time to correct the letter on the computer.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B REF: p. 1114, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.a. 31. When the medical assistant answers an e-mail, why is it customary to create the answer as a reply? a. To save time b. To acknowledge receipt of the first e-mail c. To answer the e-mail in the most efficient way d. To allow the recipient to read previous correspondence ANS: D REF: p. 1115, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 32. Why should the medical assistant avoid opening e-mail attachments from individuals who are strangers? a. The medical assistant can open all attachments with equal confidence. b. The sender will know that the medical assistant has opened the attachment. c. If an attachment contains a virus, opening the attachment will launch the virus. d. There is no sense opening an attachment if the medical assistant is going to delete
the message anyway. ANS: C REF: p. 1115, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 33. Why is a cover sheet recommended when sending information about patients by fax? a. It provides instructions to the fax machine. b. It helps protect patient confidentiality and privacy. c. It identifies all authorized recipients of the information. d. It informs the recipient of the name and telephone/fax number of the sender. ANS: B REF: p. 1116, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.P. 2.a.; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 34. When a letter must reach its destination within 24 hours, how should it be sent? a. Media Mail b. Priority Mail c. Priority Mail Express d. First-Class Mail ANS: C REF: p. 1117, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
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35. The physician’s office has a letter weighing 12 ounces to mail. How should this letter be sent? a. USPS Retail Ground b. Priority Mail c. Priority Mail Express d. First-Class Mail ANS: D REF: p. 1117, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 36. What classification of mail would most likely be used to send office supplies to the medical office using the U.S. Postal Service? a. Media Mail b. Priority Mail c. USPS Retail Ground d. First-Class Mail ANS: C REF: p. 1117, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 37. Which type of correspondence is best sent by Certified Mail with Return Receipt requested? a. Fragile items with a high dollar value b. Patient records needed by another physician c. Payment to a supplier of office forms d. Letter informing a patient that he should find a new physician because he has e.
missed several appointments All are correct
ANS: D REF: pp. 1117-1118, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.i.; ABHES Competency: V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 4.e. 38. Which letters to the physician may the medical assistant usually open? a. All mail except First-Class letters. b. All letters except those marked “personal” or “confidential.” c. All letters received by the practice. d. All mail addressed to the medical office, but not letters with the physician’s name
on the recipient line or the attention line. ANS: B REF: p. 1118, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.P.1; ABHES Competency: X.P.1; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 39. What is the first thing the medical assistant should do to handle the mail? a. Sort it. b. Open it. c. Log it in. d. Annotate it. ANS: A REF: p. 1125, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 40. What should the medical assistant do after each piece of mail has been opened? a. Staple the letter to the envelope b. Initial the letter or piece of mail c. Sort it depending on the intended recipient d. Stamp it with the date stamp in the upper right-hand corner ANS: D REF: p. 1124, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 41. How should the medical assistant arrange letters or reports about patients for the physician to review? a. In order of the date of the letter b. Alphabetically by the patient’s name c. Depending on the source of the letters or reports (from patients, hospitals, d.
laboratories, etc.) None are correct—mail can be presented in the order it was opened
ANS: B REF: p. 1118, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 42. When would the medical assistant prefer to prepare labels for mailing envelopes instead of printing the address on the envelope? a. If the office does not have a typewriter b. In order to use a #10 business envelope c. When it is a mailing consisting of several pieces d. If the completed letter and envelope will weigh less than 11 ounces ANS: C REF: p. 1120, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.a. 43. What is the primary purpose of a postage meter? a. To weigh envelopes b. To ensure envelopes are the correct size c. To count the number of pieces being mailed d. To print postage on envelopes or tape strips ANS: D REF: p. 1120, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f.
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44. If the office uses stamps for mailings, what is the most efficient way to calculate postage? a. Subscribe to an online postage service integrated with a postal scale. b. Use an online mailing service, because it is not necessary to weigh items for c. d.
mailing. Place one first-class stamp on letters of two pages or less and bring other items to the post office. Place two first-class stamps on all letters, and set packages aside for a weekly trip to the post office.
ANS: A REF: p. 1121, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 45. Which of the following may pose a safety hazard when using a postage meter? a. Wearing hair pulled back from the face b. Unplugging the meter before clearing a paper jam c. Keeping everything from covering the ventilation slots d. Touching one of the moving parts while the machine is operating ANS: D REF: p. 1121, CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.C.7.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.e. TRUE/FALSE 1. A period is placed after each line in the inside address of a business letter. ANS: F REF: p. 1106, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 2. The typed signature should be entered on the line directly below the complimentary closing on a business letter. ANS: F REF: p. 1106, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 3. In a business letter, all parts of the letter should be created in the same font. ANS: T REF: p. 1107, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.a. 4. Many medical offices notify patient of laboratory results by letter. ANS: T REF: p. 1110, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 5. A word that modifies or qualifies a noun is an interjection. ANS: F REF: p. 1112, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 6. A comma is used to set off introductory elements such as a prepositional phrase or dependent clause. ANS: T REF: p. 1113, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 7. A memorandum is usually printed on letterhead just like a business letter. ANS: F REF: p. 1112, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 7.a. 8. Most e-mail programs allow a signature to be created with contact information that will be included at the bottom of every e-mail. ANS: T REF: pp. 1116-1117, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.b. 9. The five-digit ZIP code identifies a specific delivery area such as a city block or office building. ANS: F REF: p. 1117, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 10. If a medical assistant who has been asked by a physician to annotate letters and reports will underline or highlight any abnormal
values on laboratory results. ANS: T REF: p. 1119, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 11. A letter mailed in a square envelope requires more postage than a letter mailed in a #10 envelope even if it weighs the same
amount. ANS: T REF: p. 1110, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.a. 12. When several envelopes must be prepared, it is most common to print them from the manual feed tray of the printer. ANS: F REF: p. 1120, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.8; ABHES Competency: 7.a.
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13. Some postage meters only print postage, whereas other types of postage meters weigh letters, seal the envelopes, and add postage. ANS: T REF: p. 1120, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 14. Postage for postage meters can be purchased online, by telephone, or from the post office. ANS: T REF: p. 1120, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 15. Using an online postage service requires a postal scale which can be integrated with the computer software to calculate postage. ANS: T REF: p. 1120, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.e.
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Chapter 45: Managing Practice Finances Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the term used to describe money that is owed to the medical office? a. Accounts payable b. Revenue accounts c. Cash due accounts d. Accounts receivable ANS: D REF: p. 1147, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.1.c.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 2. What term is used to describe the bills that the practice has for office rent, equipment rental, and salaries? a. Outgo accounts b. Accrual accounts c. Accounts payable d. Accounts receivable ANS: C REF: p. 1147, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.1.d.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 3. When is income calculated if a medical office uses the cash basis of accounting? a. When a bill is sent to the patient. b. At the time a patient bill is paid. c. When a charge is posted to a patient account. d. At the end of the month in which service occurred. ANS: B REF: p. 1147, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 4. What is the function of a daily journal (day sheet) in a bookkeeping system? a. To record financial activity for the month b. To keep a chronologic record of transactions each day c. To keep a record of cumulative financial activity d. To keep a record of transactions related to a single patient ANS: B REF: p. 1131, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.5; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 5. What is the major disadvantage of the single-entry bookkeeping system? a. It requires extensive training to perform correctly. b. It is not commonly used, so it is unfamiliar to most people. c. It requires more record keeping than other bookkeeping systems. d. There is no method to cross-check for accuracy of recording and calculations. ANS: D REF: p. 1148, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.5; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 6. What type of record is used to keep track of all the charges and payments for each individual patient? a. Patient ledger b. Daily journal c. Patient statement d. Transaction entry record ANS: A REF: p. 1130, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.5; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 7. In which type of bookkeeping system is every transaction posted into two different records, once as a credit and one as a debit? a. Pegboard bookkeeping system b. Single-entry bookkeeping system c. Double-entry bookkeeping system d. Medical office computer billing bookkeeping system ANS: C REF: p. 1148, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.5; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 8. In bookkeeping, what is an example of a credit? a. A patient is charged for an office visit. b. A patient’s bill is sent to the insurance company. c. A patient is given a discount for paying in full at the time of the visit. d. The amount of a check returned by the bank is added to a patient’s account. ANS: C REF: p. 1131, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.1.e.; ABHES Competency: 8.b.
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9. Who is responsible to determine the type or level of service provided to the patient? a. Physician or other provider b. Office manager c. Medical assistant d. Whichever staff member is at the desk when the patient is ready to leave ANS: A REF: p. 1127, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 10. Which codes are necessary in order to submit insurance claims? a. Diagnosis codes only b. Procedure codes only c. Both diagnosis and procedure codes d. Codes are optional when submitting insurance claims ANS: C REF: p. 1128, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.b.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 11. How does the medical assistant know what the usual charge is for a procedure? a. The usual charge is always set by the patient’s insurance company. b. The physician always fills in the amount to charge on the charge slip. c. The charge appears from computer memory when the procedure is selected. d. The charge will not be set until the insurance payment is received. ANS: C REF: p. 1130, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 12. Before leaving the office, the patient gives the medical assistant $10 on account. What type of entry does the medical assistant
make to the computer billing program? a. Charge b. Ledger c. Payment d. Adjustment ANS: C REF: p. 1130-1131, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.1.b.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 13. Which of the following is an example of a debit adjustment (increases the amount the patient owes)? a. Professional courtesy b. Discount for cash payment c. Discount to an insurance company d. Check returned by the bank for Not Sufficient Funds ANS: D REF: p. 1131, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.1.e.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 14. Which of the following is a way that patients make payments on their outstanding accounts? a. Checks sent by insurance company through the mail. b. Third-party checks presented at the time of the patient visit. c. Automatic monthly payments made online from an Internet bank account. d. Online payments made by credit or debit card through the practice website. ANS: D REF: p. 1130, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.1.b.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 15. What precaution should be taken when accepting a credit card for payment by a patient? a. The name on the card should be the name of the individual presenting the card. b. The patient should verbally verify the last four numbers of the credit card. c. The patient should sign a signature card that will be kept on file. d. The patient must show a second credit card issued in the same name. ANS: A REF: p. 1136, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.1.b.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 16. What is an advantage of a computer billing system related to posting payments? a. Using a computer prevents human errors. b. The record of the payment appears in various types of reports (ledger, day sheet, c. d.
etc.). A record of cumulative financial activity for the month can be compiled. It is easier to verify that all charges and payments for the day were entered.
ANS: B REF: p. 1130, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.1.b.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 17. What does it mean to close the day (close out the day)? a. A manual day sheet can be destroyed. b. All patients have been seen and staff can go home. c. The medical assistant has posted all charges and insurance payments. d. No further accounts receivable transactions can be made using that date. ANS: D REF: p. 1131, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.b.
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18. Which type of check should the medical assistant accept from a patient? a. Third-party check b. Post-dated check c. Check with the notation “payment in full” to pay a co-payment d. Check for the outstanding amount e. All are correct ANS: D REF: p. 1134, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.3.b.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 19. What is usually collected as payment for a patient with managed care insurance at the time of an office visit? a. Nothing b. Co-payment c. Expected cost of the visit d. Expected cost of the visit minus the discount given to the managed care insurance
plan ANS: B REF: p. 1130, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 20. What types of procedures usually are NOT covered by insurance? a. Office visits b. Consultations c. Elective surgery d. Preventative care e. All are correct ANS: C REF: p. 1132, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 21. What must be given to patients with original Medicare if it is possible that Medicare might not cover the service which will be
provided? Nothing Medicare fee schedule Important Notice from Medicare Medicare Advance Beneficiary Notice
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D REF: p. 1132, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 22. How do money market accounts compare with checking accounts? a. They usually pay a lower rate of interest. b. Checks must usually be written for a higher minimum amount. c. Money market accounts usually do not require a minimum balance. d. Neither type of account limits the number of checks that can be written each
month. ANS: B REF: p. 1133, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 23. How will the medical office usually utilize a savings account? a. To hold fund so that checks can be written for ordinary expenses b. To pay the salaries for employees of the medical practice c. To keep a reserve fund of money that is not necessary to pay expenses d. To hold funds so that checks can be written for regular but infrequent expenses ANS: C REF: p. 1132-1133, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 24. Dr. Brown has a large bill that he has to pay for his professional liability (malpractice) insurance. Which account is the medical
assistant most likely to use to pay this bill? Office savings account Office checking account Office money market account The doctor’s personal checking account
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C REF: pp. 1133, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 25. A large check has to be written out for a piece of expensive equipment. The company selling the equipment to the practice wants to
make sure that the check will clear the bank. How can the office pay for the equipment and satisfy the seller? Issue a check with an ABA number. Obtain a cashier’s check from the bank. Write a check on the practice checking account. Write a check on the office money-market account.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B REF: p. 1133-1134, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b.
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26. Where is the MICR line located on a check? a. Top right corner b. Top left side of the check c. Above the date line d. Along the bottom of the check ANS: D REF: p. 1134, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 27. Which practice should the medical office avoid when accepting checks from patients? a. Comparing the signature on a check to the signature on a valid ID b. Asking for identification from patients who are not known to the office c. Accepting the patient’s paycheck after the patient has endorsed it to the office d. Making sure that the date on the check corresponds to the date of the visit ANS: C REF: p. 1134, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.3.b.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 28. What is recommended when accepting credit cards in a medical office? a. Most medical offices refuse to accept credit cards. b. Credit cares should only be accepted from established patients. c. The patient name and signature should be verified when a credit card is accepted. d. Credit cards may be accepted from any family member who has the same last
name. ANS: C REF: p. 1136, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.3.c.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 29. What is a valid system to reduce the number of manual checks that need to be written? a. Use an online bill payment system. b. Pay bills every 6 months instead of every month. c. Delay ordering new supplies until the current supply is gone. d. Accept payments from insurance companies by electronic transfer. ANS: A REF: p. 1136, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 30. What amount of money is left in the cash drawer at the end of the day? a. None b. Money received after preparing the bank deposit c. A set amount used daily to provide change for patients who pay cash d. All money collected during the day ANS: C REF: p. 1136, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 31. A patient presents a debit card to pay a co-payment and asks for $25.00 cash back. What should the medical assistant say or do? a. Accept the card for the payment and give the patient the amount requested. b. Accept the card for payment and tell the patient where an ATM is located. c. Ask the patient to pay with a check or cash. d. Inform the patient that the office will be happy to send a bill. ANS: B REF: p. 1135, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.3.d.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 32. How should checks that are received by the medical facility be endorsed? a. Blank endorsement b. Special endorsement c. Personal endorsement d. Restrictive endorsement ANS: D REF: p. 1137, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 33. When can a signature stamp be used to endorse a check? a. Never b. When the check will be deposited c. When the words Pay to the order of appear above the endorsement d. When the check will be cashed by the individual whose signature is on the stamp ANS: B REF: p. 1137, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 34. What does it mean to successfully reconcile a bank statement? a. The bank records and medical office records are in agreement. b. The bank has credited all the deposits the office has made. c. All of the checks that were written by the office have “cleared.” d. There are adequate funds in the office checking account to cover anticipated
expenses. ANS: A REF: p. 1137, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b.
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35. Which of the following is a reason the bank statement may not agree with the office record for a checking account? a. All the outstanding checks have cleared the bank. b. The statement is received by mail instead of online. c. There may be interest on the account that must be added to the balance. d. The office may have written more checks than usual during the month. ANS: C REF: p. 1137, CAAHEP Competency (2008): VI.C.3; CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b. TRUE/FALSE 1. Bookkeeping refers to the process of recording financial transactions, but accounting is a more general term used for the systematic
recording and reporting of financial transactions. ANS: T REF: p. 1127, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 2. When a patient charge is entered into a computerized medical billing system, the posting is reflected both in the patient ledger as
well as the daily record of charges. ANS: T REF: p. 1127, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 3. Charges, payments, and adjustments can be posted using a manual system or practice management software. ANS: T REF: p. 1127, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 4. A credit adjustment is a change to a patient’s account that reduces the balance of a patient’s account. ANS: T REF: p. 1141, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.1.e.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 5. A postal money order may have up to three endorsements. ANS: F REF: p. 1135, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 6. In a business checkbook, the stubs on the left side of the checkbook function as a running checkbook ledger. ANS: T REF: p. 1134, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 7. The bag used to leave bank deposits in a night deposit box may contain an electronic device to allow the bank to identify the owner
of the deposit bag. ANS: T REF: p. 1137, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 8. The account balance provided by the bank should always agree with the account balance of the medical office checkbook ledger. ANS: F REF: p. 1137, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 9. The cash disbursements journal usually contains columns to track expenses by categories. ANS: T REF: p. 1138, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.1.d.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 10. The petty cash fund should be replenished by writing a check to return the petty cash fund to the original starting amount. ANS: T REF: p. 1138, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b.
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Chapter 46: Medical Coding Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which organization compiled the first disease classification system in the United States? a. American Board of Internists b. American Medical Association c. American College of Surgeons d. Department of Health and Human Services ANS: B REF: p. 1145, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 2. How does a classification system become a coding system? a. Names are shortened to abbreviations. b. Names are arranged in alphabetic order. c. Names are replaced by numbers and letters. d. Letters in the names of items are rearranged. ANS: C REF: p. 1145, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 3. For which reason(s) are procedure codes used? a. To classify the type of care given to patients b. To identify and/or justify medical services a patient received c. To collect statistics about frequency and effectiveness of procedures d. To determine how frequently certain diseases occur in the population e. All are correct ANS: E REF: p. 1145, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 4. How often should the medical office purchase new code books or computer code sets? a. Annually b. Every 2 years c. Every 6 months d. Every time there is a new edition of the CPT manual ANS: A REF: p. 1145, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 5. Who publishes the CPT manual for procedure codes? a. Various publishers b. World Health Organization c. American Medical Association d. The U.S. Department of Health ANS: C REF: p. 1145, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 6. What do CPT Category II and Category III codes consist of? a. Five digits b. Five letters c. Four digits and one letter d. Five digits and two letters ANS: C REF: p. 1146, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 7. What coding system is used by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services for services and equipment that are not usually
covered by ordinary health insurance? CPT DRG HCPCS Level II ICD-9-CM
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C REF: p. 1145, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.3; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 8. What is the first section of the CPT manual? a. Surgery b. Radiology c. Anesthesia d. Evaluation and management ANS: D REF: p. 1146, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c.
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9. What is the format of most CPT codes? a. Two-digit code b. Five-digit code c. Four-digit code d. Three-digit code ANS: B REF: p. 1146, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 10. What would be added to a code for a procedure that was extensive or unusual or that required an assistant? a. A two-digit modifier b. A two-letter modifier c. A three-digit modifier d. A three-letter modifier ANS: A REF: p. 1147, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 11. In the index of the CPT manual, for which of the following might the medical assistant find a modifying term? a. Code range b. Cross reference c. Anatomic location d. Time allotted ANS: C REF: p. 1147, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 12. Dr. Barry Manning is an internist. In which section of the CPT manual would the codes for his office visits be found? a. Surgery b. Medicine c. Radiology d. Evaluation and management ANS: D REF: p. 1148, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 13. Which of the following is a key factor determining the level of service for an E/M code? a. Coordination of care b. The extent of the medical history c. The nature of the patient’s problem d. The amount of time spent with the patient ANS: B REF: p. 1149, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 14. Which of the following types of history focuses mainly on the chief complaint? a. Detailed history b. Comprehensive history c. Problem-focused history d. Expanded problem–focused history ANS: C REF: p. 1149, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 15. If the patient has multiple problems and is seriously ill, what type of medical decision making is probably necessary? a. Straightforward b. Low-complexity c. High-complexity d. Moderate-complexity ANS: C REF: p. 1149, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 16. In which section of the CPT manual is there an attempt to link reimbursement to the completeness of the examination and the
amount of skill required to manage the patient’s problems? Primary care Initial consultation Diagnosis establishment Evaluation and management
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D REF: p. 1148, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 17. How is an established patient defined? a. A patient who has been seen in consultation. b. A patient who has been seen in the past 3 years. c. A patient who has made a payment to the office. d. A patient who has a medical record in the office. ANS: B REF: p. 1148, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c.
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18. Which type of anesthesia does not receive a separate code? a. Epidural or spinal anesthesia b. Anesthesia by intravenous infusion c. Anesthesia administered by inhalation d. Local anesthesia administered by infiltration ANS: D REF: p. 1150, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 19. Which factor is used to calculate payment for anesthesia services? a. The patient’s diagnosis b. The base value of the anesthesia code c. The type of facility at which the services were provided d. The type of provider (physician or nurse anesthetist) who provided the service ANS: B REF: p. 1150, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 20. In an anesthesiologist’s practice, which type of modifiers indicates the patient’s condition at the time of the administration of the
anesthesia? a. Standard modifiers b. Complexity modifiers c. Conditional modifiers d. Physical status modifiers ANS: D REF: p. 1150, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 21. What is included in the code for a surgery? a. Local or topical anesthesia b. The 6-month postoperative checkup c. One or more office visits before the decision for surgery has been made d. Care for any complications that occur because of the surgery e. All are correct ANS: A REF: p. 1150, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 22. Which of the following diagnostic tests is/are included in the radiology section of the CPT manual? a. Standard angiography b. Computed tomography c. Magnetic resonance imaging d. Standard radiologic procedures e. All are correct ANS: E REF: p. 1150, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 23. What is a panel related to CPT coding? a. A group of laboratory tests that are done together. b. A group of individuals who review insurance claims. c. A radiologic test that is done with the patient lying on the back. d. A set of five codes that are used together for certain diagnostic tests. ANS: A REF: p. 1151, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 24. When procedure codes are used to bill an insurance company, which of the following is an example of upcoding? a. A medical office bills for performing a urinalysis in the office. b. A medical office charges for venipuncture performed in the office. c. A physician sends a patient to an outside laboratory and the laboratory bills the d.
insurance company. A medical office uses a separate code for each lab test in a panel when all tests in the panel were performed.
ANS: D REF: p. 1157, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.4.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 25. During a routine examination, the physician decides to have an electrocardiogram (ECG) performed on the patient. How should
this be coded? a. As a separate visit b. As a separate procedure c. In the code for the office visit d. Only if the physician interprets the ECG ANS: B REF: p. 1148, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c.
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26. What problems with CPT codes may cause insurance claims to be rejected? a. Modifiers are used to describe special circumstances. b. The code has been selected from the list of codes in the manual. c. The service is not backed up with documentation in the patient record. d. All are correct. e. None are correct. ANS: C REF: p. 1151, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.1.b.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 27. If the medical assistant is coding for the removal of a lesion, what might influence selection of the proper code? a. Type of lesion b. Size of the lesion c. Location of the lesion d. Method of removal of the lesion e. All are correct ANS: E REF: p. 1148, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 28. What is the format of HCPCS Level II codes? a. Five-digit codes. b. It depends on the code. c. One letter followed by four digits. d. Three digits followed by a decimal point and then one or two additional digits. ANS: C REF: p. 1151, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.3; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 29. Which of the following is most likely to require a HCPCS Level II code? a. Spirometry b. Metal crutches c. Electrocardiogram d. Removal of a lesion ANS: B REF: p. 1151, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.3; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 30. Why was diagnostic coding originally developed? a. To track disease processes b. To classify the cause of disease c. To collect data for medical research d. To evaluate hospital service utilization e. All are correct ANS: E REF: p. 1153, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 31. What organization first published and continues to manage the International Classification of Diseases? a. The Joint Commission b. American Medical Association c. The World Health Organization d. The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ANS: C REF: p. 1135, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 32. What is the meaning of the “10” in the abbreviation ICD-10-CM? a. 10th edition b. Began to be used in 2010 c. Up to 10 characters in a code d. 10 times more codes than ICD-9-CM ANS: A REF: p. 1135, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 33. Which of the following is an addition in the ICD-10 compared to the ICD-9? a. Greater number of codes b. Expansion of injury codes c. Additional digits and letters d. More information related to ambulatory care e. All are correct ANS: E REF: p. 1135, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 34. How are most diseases or conditions arranged in the tabular section of the ICD-10 manual? a. Alphabetically b. By age group most commonly affected c. By severity of symptoms or effects d. By classification of disease or body system affected ANS: D REF: p. 1135, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c.
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35. What is the format of the first three characters of an ICD-10 code? a. Five digits b. Three digits c. One letter followed by two digits d. One letter followed by four digits ANS: C REF: p. 1135, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 36. In which chapter of the ICD-10 manual would you expect to find the diagnosis code for an adolescent who comes to the office for a
physical examination before enrolling in a school sports program? The last chapter The first chapter The chapter dedicated to adolescents The chapter dedicated to physical examinations
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A REF: p. 1154, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 37. How do insurance companies use diagnosis codes? a. To determine the level of care received by the patient b. To determine whether the patient was well taken care of c. To decide whether the care given corresponds to the patient’s disease d. To decide whether there is adequate information in the medical record ANS: C REF: p. 1153, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 38. In the ICD-10 code M84.50xA, what is the function of the “x”? a. It is a placeholder for information that is not specified. b. It makes the code more specific by indicating right or left. c. It indicates whether it the visit is the initial visit, or a subsequent visit. d. It determines the number of sites of involvement for the condition. ANS: A REF: p. 1154, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 39. What is the purpose of external cause codes in the ICD-10? a. They usually only contain four characters. b. They are used as first-listed diagnosis codes. c. They are used to gather statistics about causes and severity of injury. d. They are required on insurance forms in order to obtain reimbursement. ANS: C REF: p. 1155, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 40. If a diagnosis is listed by the physician as “wedge compression fracture of the fifth lumbar vertebra,” which word should be
referenced in the alphabetic index of the ICD-10 manual? Wedge Lumbar Fracture Compression
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C REF: p. 1157, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 41. Which of the following abbreviations or punctuation indicates that a more specific ICD-9 or ICD-10 code cannot be identified? a. NOS b. NEC c. [ ] (brackets) d. ( ) (parentheses) ANS: A REF: p. 1155, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 42. In the ICD-10, which term indicates that a condition is not coded here, and the patient cannot have this condition in addition to the
condition listed above it? Includes Code first Excludes 1 Excludes 2
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C REF: p. 1156, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 43. Why is it important for a medical assistant to be aware of guidelines for medical necessity? a. To determine what diagnostic tests should be ordered for patients b. To link procedure codes to correct diagnosis codes c. To be sure that codes reflect a high enough level of service d. To use a variety of codes instead of overusing certain codes ANS: B REF: p. 1157, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.5; ABHES Competency: 8.c.
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44. If an office has a pattern of downcoding, what is the effect on insurance payments? a. The insurance company will reject a large number of claims. b. Insurance payments will tend to be higher than average for the services. c. The insurance payments will be delayed because of requests for documentation. d. Insurance payments will tend to be lower than average for the services. ANS: D REF: p. 1157, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.4.b.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 45. What is the penalty (if any) if a medical office is found to have a practice of upcoding? a. No penalty is leveed. b. The practice must pay a large fine. c. Claims in question are simply not paid. d. Billing personnel may be given a jail sentence. ANS: B REF: p. 1157, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.4.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. TRUE/FALSE 1. HCPCS Level I codes include the current CPT codes. ANS: T REF: p. 1145, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 2. Category II CPT codes represent services that represent emerging technology. ANS: F REF: p. 1146, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 3. The section of the CPT manual that contains the most codes is the evaluation and management section. ANS: F REF: p. 1148-1149, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 4. In the CPT manual, a code that provides only text to replace the words after a semicolon in the code above it is called an indented
code. ANS: T REF: p. 1148, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 5. If the evaluation and management code on an insurance claim is for a lower level of care than is reflected in the patient’s medical
record, the claim is an example of upcoding. ANS: F REF: p. 1157, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 6. The medical assistant must look up CPT codes for most office visits and office procedures when billing insurance companies for
patient services. ANS: F REF: p. 1147, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 7. The standards of electronic transmission and require code sets had to be changed in order to accommodate ICD-10 codes. ANS: T REF: p. 1153, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 8. When coding the diagnosis “tachycardia, R/O angina pectoris,” the medical assistant should look up the code in the index under
“angina.” ANS: F REF: p. 1156, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 9. For ICD-10 codes, the instruction “code first” tells the coder to use another code as the first code because it identifies the
underlying cause or condition. ANS: T REF: p. 1156, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 10. The term “upcoding” can be defined as using codes incorrectly in order to obtain more reimbursement. ANS: T REF: p. 1157, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.4.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c.
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Chapter 47: Medical Insurance Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Historically, how did health insurance become linked with an individual’s employment? a. One of the first insurance plans was arranged by a group of Dallas schoolteachers. b. As an employee benefit, health insurance can increase functional income without c. d.
affecting taxable income. The insurance industry wanted to expand from accident insurance to more comprehensive health insurance. The industrial revolution increased the likelihood of on-the-job injury, resulting in higher health costs for workers.
ANS: B REF: p. 1167, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 2. Which of the following plans was one of the first to offer prepaid health care paid for by capitation? a. CHAMPUS b. Kaiser Permanente c. Harvard Medical Plan d. Blue Cross Blue Shield ANS: B REF: p. 1167, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 3. Which federal insurance plan provides for services for the elderly and disabled? a. Medicare b. Medicaid c. TRICARE d. CHAMPVA ANS: A REF: p. 1167, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 4. What insurance plan provides for care for patients who are suffering from end-stage kidney disease? a. Medicare b. Medicaid c. TRICARE d. CHAMPUS ANS: A REF: p. 1167, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 5. What insurance plan provides care for low-income individuals and children? a. Medicare b. Medicaid c. TRICARE d. CHAMPVA ANS: B REF: p. 1167, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 6. Tom Bloom is a disabled serviceman whose disability is caused by service-related injuries. What insurance plan covers his wife
and children? Medicare Medicaid TRICARE CHAMPVA
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D REF: p. 1167, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 7. What type of insurance plan usually covers full-time employees? a. Group insurance b. Individual insurance c. Government insurance plans d. Other types of insurance plans ANS: A REF: p. 1167, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 8. When a payment for a service covered by health insurance is made, what is that payment called? a. Benefit b. Premium c. Deductible d. Assignment ANS: A REF: p. 1168, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c.
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9. What is the term for the amount of money that must be paid each year for services before the insurance company begins to pick up
the payments? Benefit Premium Deductible Assignment
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C REF: p. 1168, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 10. When the insurance company pays 80% of the allowed charge, and the patient pays the remaining 20%, what is the patient’s
portion called? a. Benefit b. Deductible c. Co-payment d. Coinsurance ANS: D REF: p. 1168, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 11. Mary and Tom Weatherly both work and participate in the family health insurance plan offered by their separate employers. What
term relates to the rules used by their insurance companies relating to paying for services? Coinsurance Birthday rule Double coverage Coordination of benefits
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D REF: p. 1168, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.b.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 12. Mary and Tom Weatherly are both covered by a family health insurance plan. Whose plan is the primary plan for their children? a. Whoever earns the highest annual income. b. Whoever’s birthday comes first in the year. c. Whoever has worked the longest. d. Whoever’s birthday falls the closest to the child’s. ANS: B REF: p. 1168, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.b.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 13. Mary and Tom divorced after a few years. However, they both continued to work and share custody of their children (joint
custody). The children reside with Mary. Neither parent has remarried. Tom is the “responsible party” for the children. Whose insurance is the primary insurance for the children? a. Both b. Tom’s c. Mary’s d. The birthday rule applies ANS: B REF: p. 1168, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.b.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 14. When is the physician reimbursed directly for his services by the insurance company? a. Never b. Always c. If the patient has signed a written consent for treatment d. If the patient has signed an assignment of benefits form ANS: D REF: p. 1169, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.b.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 15. Mary’s insurance plan pays 100% of allowed charges and does not allow balance billing. She has a procedure done that is covered
by her insurance. She is billed for $500 by the physician, but her insurance company only allows $350. How much will Mary have to pay? a. Mary must pay $150. b. Mary has to pay only 20% of the $500 charge ($100). c. Mary must pay only 20% of the allowed charge, which would come to $70. d. Nothing—the physician must accept the $350 from the insurance company as payment in full. ANS: D REF: p. 1170, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.4.d.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 16. Tom’s insurance plan is a traditional indemnity insurance plan. If Tom wants to make an appointment with a dermatologist to treat
his acne, what must he do? a. Simply make the appointment. b. Obtain a referral from his primary care physician. c. Visit the plan website and fill out a request for referral form. d. Call the insurance company and obtain a preauthorization number. ANS: A REF: p. 1170, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c.
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17. What type of payments do patients with HMO insurance usually make? a. Deductible b. Co-payment c. Coinsurance d. Both deductible and coinsurance ANS: B REF: p. 1171, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 18. In what type of HMO model are the physicians employed by a managed care organization that provides services in its own offices? a. Staff model HMO b. Network model HMO c. Group practice model HMO d. Independent practice association ANS: A REF: p. 1171, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 19. If a patient has managed care insurance, who is the usual gatekeeper to authorize consultations with specialists? a. The referral coordinator b. The nurse practitioner c. The primary care provider d. An employee at the managed care insurance company ANS: C REF: p. 1170, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 20. Which type of insurance plan usually requires the patient to pay a higher percentage of out-of-network services? a. Network HMO b. Preferred provider organization c. Exclusive provider organization d. Independent physicians association ANS: B REF: p. 1171, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 21. In which of the following types of insurance does the subscriber belong to both an HMO and an additional out-of-network plan? a. Point of service plan (POS) b. Preferred provider organization (PPO) c. Exclusive provider organization (EPO) d. Independent practice association (IPA) ANS: A REF: p. 1171, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 22. Under Medicare Part A, which of the following goods/services would be covered? a. Hospital stay b. Homemaker/health aide services c. Canes and walkers purchased in a pharmacy d. Medications administered in the medical office ANS: A REF: p. 1172, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 23. Under Medicare Part B, which of the following goods/services are covered? a. Cosmetic surgery b. Over-the-counter drugs c. Services in the hospital on an inpatient basis d. Medications administered in the medical office ANS: D REF: p. 1172, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 24. For which of the following must the patient pay a regular monthly premium? a. Medicare Part A b. Medicare Part B c. Neither A nor B— the cost is the same d. Neither A nor B—there is no cost for either plan ANS: B REF: p. 1172, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 25. Who processes Medicare claims? a. The federal government b. State insurance companies c. The Department of Health and Human Services d. Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC) ANS: D REF: p. 1172, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c.
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26. What classification system forms the basis for payments for claims under Medicare Part A? a. Title XIX (Title 19) fees b. Diagnostic-related groups (DRGs) c. Usual, customary, and reasonable charges (UCR) d. A resource-based relative value system (RBRVS) ANS: B REF: p. 1172, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 27. If a patient with Medicare is admitted to a hospital for 3 days, what portion of the hospital costs must the patient pay? a. Nothing b. A deductible of $135.00 c. A deductible amount that is adjusted annually d. 20% of the amount charged by the hospital ANS: C REF: p. 1172, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 28. How does Medicare set allowable charges for services under Part B using resource-based relative value systems (RBRVS)? a. Based on the usual, customary and reasonable charge in the geographic area b. Using base units multiplied by time units and a factor to adjust for geographic c. d.
location Based on the education of the practitioner who performs the procedure with a geographic adjustment Based on the amount of work for each procedure with adjustments for overhead and malpractice insurance
ANS: D REF: p. 1172, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 29. A doctor who participates in Medicare performs a service for which he or she ordinarily charges $350. How much should the
physician charge Medicare? a. $350 b. $280 c. $250 d. $0 ANS: A REF: p. 1173, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.c.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 30. What percentage of the allowed charges will Medicare pay a participating physician for office services if the patient has already
met the annual deductible? a. 20% b. 50% c. 80% d. 100% ANS: C REF: p. 1172, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 31. If a patient has Medicare insurance and a Medicare supplemental policy, which insurance is considered the primary insurance? a. Medicare. b. It depends on the birthday rule. c. Medicare supplemental insurance. d. It depends on the state in which the patient lives. ANS: A REF: p. 1172, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.c.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 32. How much is the co-payment or coinsurance that a patient with Medicaid must pay? a. 20% coinsurance b. $10 co-payment c. 20% and a $100 deductible d. The patient with Medicaid does not pay anything ANS: D REF: p. 1173, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 33. What type of insurance covers long-term nursing home costs for eligible patients (low-income without savings)? a. Medicaid b. Medicare c. CHIP plans d. None are correct ANS: A REF: p. 1173, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c.
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34. What is an HMO-type insurance plan available for spouses and dependents of active military personnel? a. TRICARE Basic b. TRICARE Extra c. TRICARE Prime d. TRICARE Standard ANS: C REF: p. 1173, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 35. Into which insurance plan are children eligible for the Children’s Health Insurance Program (CHIP) enrolled in some states? a. Medicaid b. TRICARE c. CHAMPUS d. CHAMPVA ANS: A REF: p. 1173, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 36. Which of the following applies to patients who are injured at work and covered under workers’ compensation? a. They should be treated as ordinary patients. b. They should have separate medical and financial records. c. They should have all of their previous medical records sent to the employer’s d.
insurance company. They should be aware that they can be charged for services not covered by the insurance company.
ANS: B REF: p. 1173, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 37. What should the medical assistant know about each type of insurance accepted by the medical office? a. If referrals to a specialist can be made over the telephone. b. The specific procedures covered by type of insurance. c. Which laboratory can do laboratory work? d. The pharmacy or pharmacies that can be used. e. All are correct. ANS: E REF: p. 1174, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 38. In which of the following cases is a referral is required by most managed care organizations? a. Hospitalization b. Consultation by a specialist c. Surgery to remove a tumor d. Certain diagnostic tests, such as an MRI ANS: B REF: p. 1170, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 39. When the medical assistant uses an insurance plan’s website to verify a patient’s eligibility, what information is obtained? a. That the insurance plan is the patient’s primary insurance. b. That the patient can be referred for a consultation with a specialist. c. That the planned service will be covered by the patient’s insurance plan. d. That the patient is covered by the insurance plan during the proposed time period. ANS: D REF: p. 1174, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 40. What is a requirement for a physician to participate in a specific insurance plan? a. Agreement to accept the insurance plan’s fee schedule b. Agreement to accept only patients who have the specific insurance plan c. Provision of service in a location specified by the insurance plan d. Provision of all outpatient services required by the patient ANS: A REF: p. 1170, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 41. Which of the following is NOT required for each charge on an insurance claim form? a. Procedure code b. Time of service c. Place of service d. Date(s) of service ANS: B REF: p. 1178, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.c.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 42. What can the medical assistant use to determine the patient’s identification or policy group number? a. The patient’s insurance card b. The patient’s driver’s license c. The patient’s Social Security number d. A telephone call to the patient’s insurance company ANS: A REF: p. 1178, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.b.; ABHES Competency: 8.c.
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43. Which method is most commonly used to submit insurance forms? a. Typed paper forms b. Handwritten paper forms c. Electronically submitted forms d. Computer-generated paper forms ANS: C REF: p. 1178, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.c.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 44. What does the abbreviation SOF indicate on an insurance claim? a. The physician will accept any payment by the insurance company as payment in b. c. d.
full. The office has verified that the patient is eligible for benefits for the services billed on the claim. The office maintains a document signed by the patient that authorizes submission insurance claims. The physician promises that all information on the claim form is correct to the best of his or her knowledge.
ANS: C REF: p. 1178, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.b.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 45. On an insurance claim form, when should the box asking whether the patient had been charged for outside laboratory work be
checked “yes”? Whenever any laboratory tests were done. Only if blood was collected from the patient in the office. Whenever the office sent specimens to a hospital laboratory. Whenever the office charged the patient for laboratory work done outside the office.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D REF: p. 1188, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.c.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 46. What name is given to the process where an insurance company determines if a proposed service such as physical therapy is
medically necessary? a. Verifying eligibility b. Utilization review c. Explanation of benefits d. Reimbursement ANS: B REF: p. 1170, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.3; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 47. Which of the following information must always be completed on the insurance claim? a. The referring physician name b. The employer’s name or school name c. The date of onset of the illness or condition d. If the physician accepts assignment of benefits ANS: D REF: p. 1176, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.c.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 48. What is a frequent reason for an insurance claim to be rejected? a. The claim was not filed in a timely manner. b. A two-digit modifier was used with the procedure code. c. The procedures are not medically justified by the diagnosis. d. The secondary insurance company is billed after the primary insurance has paid
on the claim. ANS: C REF: p. 1178-1179, CAAHEP Competency (2015): IX.C.5; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 49. When an insurance form has been completed and is ready to be submitted to the insurance company, where should a record be
made? a. In the patient’s medical record b. In the insurance claims register c. On the patient’s financial ledger card d. None are correct—no record is necessary until reimbursement is received ANS: B REF: p. 1179, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.c.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 50. If a claim is rejected by an insurance company, what should the medical assistant do first? a. Immediately resubmit the claim exactly as it before. b. Resubmit the claim with corrections and/or additional information. c. Mark in the insurance claims register that the claim will not be paid. d. Prepare a bill for the patient, since he or she is now completely responsible. ANS: B REF: p. 1179, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.c.; ABHES Competency: 8.c.
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TRUE/FALSE 1. If a person must pay a fixed amount of money every time he or she receives medical services, that amount is called a co-payment. ANS: T REF: p. 1171, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 2. A participating provider (PAR) in the Medicare program is allowed to bill a patient for the portion of the bill that Medicare did not
allow. ANS: F REF: p. 1169, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 3. Managed care companies often negotiate a fee schedule that is lower than traditional indemnity insurance plans. ANS: T REF: p. 1169, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 4. Unlike ordinary health insurance, workers’ compensation also covers wages lost due to illness or accident. ANS: T REF: p. 1173, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 5. In order to obtain authorization for many procedures under managed care, the physician’s proposed referral or procedure is subject
to utilization review. ANS: T REF: p. 1170, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.3.c.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 6. Diagnosis-related groups (DRGs) are used to classify patients by diagnosis in order to gather statistics for National Center for
Health Statistics ANS: F REF: p. 1172, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 7. Resource-based relative value scales (RBRVS) are used to set fee schedules for procedures in outpatient settings. ANS: T REF: p. 1172, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 8. Practices that result in unnecessary costs to the Medicare program are considered insurance fraud. ANS: F REF: p. 1171, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.5; ABHES Competency: 8.c. 9. When managed care organizations include a prescription drug benefit, they often publish a list of approved medications called a
formulary. ANS: T REF: p. 1175, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VIII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.c.
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Chapter 48: Billing and Collections Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When is the first bill sent to a patient? a. The next time bills are prepared. b. Within a week of the office visit c. When the patient calls to request a bill d. At the next scheduled billing after insurance has paid ANS: D REF: p. 1192, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 2. What is the term used for a billing method in which bills are sent to some patients every week, although each patient receives only
one bill each month? Cycle billing Monthly billing Alphabetic billing Balance due billing
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A REF: p. 1192, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 3. If the billing for a medical office is done by a private company, which tasks are performed in the medical office? a. Enter patient charges into the computer. b. Process patient and insurance payments. c. Print patient bills and send them to patients. d. All are correct. e. None are correct. ANS: A REF: p. 1192, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.1; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 4. Which bills may be handled in a different manner from those of other patients? a. Those for patients who have died b. Those for minors who received treatment for STDs c. Those for patients whose credit agreements allow time payments d. All are correct e. None are correct ANS: D REF: pp. 1193-1194, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 5. What is the term used for the outstanding amount owed when a bill is sent to that patient? a. Balance due b. Balance billing c. Patient balance d. Payment on account ANS: A REF: p. 1192, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 6. Cathy is a 16-year-old who goes to the doctor for an HIV test. Which is the best method for the office to collect the amount due if
Cathy does not want her parents to know that the test was done? Send a bill to Cathy’s home address. Bill the parent’s insurance company. Ask Cathy to pay at the time of the visit. Try to collect the money from Cathy’s parents.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C REF: p. 1193, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 7. What is overdraft protection? a. An increase in the maximum amount for which a check may be written b. An agreement that the bank will transfer money between accounts as needed c. An extra review to prevent errors in calculating the balance of a bank account d. A delay in cashing any check written on an account without adequate funds to
cover it ANS: B REF: p. 1193, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 8. In which situation should the medical office stop payment on a check? a. The recipient of a check (payee) reports that it has been lost. b. A check has been returned to the office lacking a signature. c. The medical assistant makes an error writing a check and must write a new one. d. The medical assistant is afraid that there isn’t enough money in the office account
to cover an outstanding check. ANS: A REF: p. 1193, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b.
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9. To whom does a bank usually charge a fee for an NSF (not sufficient funds) check? a. The party that attempts to cash the check only. b. Most banks do not charge fees for NSF checks. c. The owner of the account on whom the check is written only. d. Both the owner of the account and the party that attempts to cash the check. ANS: D REF: p. 1194, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 10. If a patient’s check is returned by the bank marked NSF, how does the medical assistant enter it to the patient account? a. As a payment b. As a charge for service c. As a debit adjustment that increases the patient’s balance d. As a credit adjustment that decreases the patient’s balance ANS: C REF: p. 1194, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.4.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 11. If a patient has overpaid on his or her account, what does the medical office usually do? a. Adjust the patient balance. b. Issue a refund in the form of a check. c. Leave the credit balance in place for at least 90 days. d. Ask how the patient wants to handle the credit balance. ANS: A REF: p. 1194, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.4.c.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 12. What indicates that a patient has a credit balance in a computerized billing system? a. The patient’s balance is zero. b. The patient owes less than $100. c. The patient’s balance is a negative number. d. The patient has received a discount for a cash payment at the time of the visit. ANS: C REF: p. 1194, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.4.c.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 13. For which of the following do banks usually charge an extra fee? a. Making deposits using a smartphone b. Requesting online statements c. Stopping payment on a check d. A refund check written to a patient ANS: C REF: p. 1194, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 14. What is the process of determining how long specific accounts and balances have been outstanding? a. Aging b. Crediting c. Recording d. Ledger balancing ANS: A REF: p. 1194, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.5; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 15. Which of the following is an advantage of using a computerized billing system? a. Statements and mailing labels are created by the computer. b. The office can create accurate account aging reports. c. Credit agreements can be generated for any overdue account. d. Claim messages can be automatically added to bills of overdue accounts. ANS: D REF: p. 1195, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.5; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 16. At what point is a patient account considered overdue if there is no specific credit agreement? a. 30 days after being billed b. 60 days after being billed c. 90 days after being billed d. 120 days after being billed ANS: A REF: p. 1194, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 17. After what period does an account require additional collection activity? a. 30 days b. 60 days c. 90 days d. 120 days ANS: D REF: p. 1194, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b.
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18. What should accompany bills that are sent to patients for balances due? a. An office business card b. One of the office claim messages c. A sticker that says Please Call the Office d. A copy of the Fair Debt Collection Act of 1966 ANS: B REF: p. 1196, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 19. If a patient’s account is overdue, when is it recommended to follow up an overdue bill with a telephone call? a. 30 days b. 60 days c. 90 days d. 120 days ANS: C REF: p. 1196, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 20. If the office writes a letter writing to a patient who has a delinquent account, when is the office allowed to threaten to send an
account to collection? a. If the outstanding balance is greater than $100.00. b. If the patient has not made a payment for 6 months. c. If the office really intends to send the account to a collection agency. d. At any time as a legal measure to collect on the account. ANS: C REF: p. 1196, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 21. What federal law contains restrictions about the way a debt collector can treat a debtor and prohibits harassment and threats against
individuals who owe money? Fair Debt Collection Act Fair Credit Reporting Act Federal Truth in Lending Act Equal Credit Opportunity Act
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A REF: p. 1200, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.6; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 22. A patient with an overdue account may request that he or she be allowed to make monthly payments instead of putting the account
into collection. What should the medical assistant do? a. Send the bill to collection anyway. b. Take the patient to small claims court. c. Ignore the request because too much time has gone by. d. Prepare a written credit agreement with the patient. ANS: D REF: p. 1196, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 23. If a medical office sends a collection letter to a patient, what should be included? a. The patient’s account number. b. A specific date by which payment is required. c. The letter should be notarized by a notary public. d. A statement that the office may be forced to take action that will ruin the patient’s
credit rating. ANS: B REF: p. 1196, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 24. Once an agreement has been made with the patient to accept monthly installments, what regulations apply to the written
agreement? a. Bankruptcy laws b. Fair Practices Act c. Truth in Lending Act d. Lenders Protective Act ANS: C REF: p. 1200, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 25. When calling an individual who owes money to the medical office, what is the medical assistant allowed to do? a. Call the individual at home before 7:00 AM. b. Threaten to tell the individual’s boss that he or she owes the practice money. c. Call the individual at work one time, so long as the reason for the call is not given d. e.
to a third party. Call the patient every day to remind him or her of a promise to send a payment at the end of the week. All are correct.
ANS: C REF: pp. 1197-1198, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.A.1; ABHES Competency: 4.b.
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26. If a patient’s account is turned over to a collection agency, and the patient is given a reasonable period of time to find another
physician, how should the letter be mailed? First-Class Registered Mail Certified Mail with Return Receipt First Class and insured for $100.00
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C REF: p. 1198, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 27. Which of the following items of information should the medical office NOT include in a written credit agreement with a patient? a. The total number of payments allowed b. The minimum amount of each payment c. An interest rate based on the patient’s payment history d. The amount the patient will be allowed to pay over time ANS: C REF: pp. 1196-1197, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 28. When the medical office is trying to locate a patient who has “skipped” with a large balance due, what should the medical assistant
do? a. b. c. d. e.
Try to call the patient. Try to send a letter by Certified Mail to the last known address. Try to see if the patient has a new telephone number by calling information. Call the person who is listed on the patient information form as the next of kin. All are correct.
ANS: E REF: pp. 1197-1198, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 29. Dr. Blank sent an account owing $1,000 to a collection agency. The agency charged its usual fee of 40%. After collection of the
amount owed, what was the amount received by Dr. Blank from the collection agency? a. $400.00 b. $600.00 c. $800.00 d. $1000.00 ANS: B REF: pp. 1198-1199, CAAHEP Competency (2015): II.C.2; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 30. When an account is sent to collection, what is done to prevent further bills from being sent? a. A “hold” is placed on the account in the computer. b. The account is moved from the patient accounts to a special accounts file. c. The anticipated collection agency fee is subtracted from the account balance. d. The balance on the account is changed to zero using a debit (negative)
adjustment. ANS: D REF: p. 1199, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.4.b.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 31. If a patient whose account is in collection makes an appointment, what is the usual policy? a. Charges for the new visit must be paid in full before the patient will be seen. b. The patient must sign a written credit agreement before an appointment can be c. d.
made. The previous balance must be paid to the collection agency before the patient will be seen. Only minor children will be seen by the office while the patient has an account in collection.
ANS: A REF: p. 1199, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 32. When a collection agency sends a check to the medical office, what is the first step to post the check to the patient account? a. Post a payment labeled Collection Agency Payment in the amount of the check b. c. d.
received. Post a payment labeled Collection Agency Payment in the amount that the patient owes. Post a credit adjustment labeled Reverse Collection in the amount that the patient owes. Post a credit adjustment labeled Reverse Collection in the amount of the check received.
ANS: D REF: p. 1199, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.4.b.; ABHES Competency: 8.b.
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33. If a patient whose account is in collection calls the office and states that he is sending a check for a portion of the outstanding
amount, what should the medical assistant tell him? To address the envelope to her attention To send the check to the collection agency To write account in collection on the memo line of the check To send 60% of the amount to the office and the other 40% to the collection agency
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B REF: p. 1199, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.4.b.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 34. If the physician’s office decides to take a patient to small claims court to try to collect a balance, who usually represents the
medical facility? Clerk of the court Collection agency representative Medical assistant or other office staff member The attorney that handles legal work for the practice
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C REF: p. 1199, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.6; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 35. Which of the following cases is most likely to be tried in a small claims court? a. Lawsuit for negligence resulting in a broken ankle b. First arrest for driving under the influence of alcohol c. Failure to pay 2 months’ rent before moving out of an apartment d. Dispute over a moving violation ticket received for an improper left turn ANS: C REF: p. 1199, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.6; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 36. When a patient dies, how should the medical office send the final bill? a. Filed with the clerk of probate b. Sent by Certified Mail to the family c. Usually none d. To the patient’s address, headed “To the Estate of” and the patient’s name ANS: D REF: p. 1199, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 37. Assuming that a deceased patient had a will, who is responsible to pay outstanding obligations of that patient? a. The probate court b. The spouse or next of kin c. The patient’s bank or financial institution d. The executor or personal representative named in the will ANS: D REF: p. 1199, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 38. If a patient has filed bankruptcy under Chapter VII, what must have occurred for the medical office to collect an outstanding
balance? The patient must have an outstanding balance owed to the office. The office must have a signed written credit agreement with the patient. The office will not be able to receive payment under any circumstances. The office must have already turned the account over to a collection agency.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B REF: p. 1200, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.6; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 39. If a patient has filed bankruptcy under Chapter XIII, what must have occurred for the office to receive some payments? a. The patient must have an outstanding balance owed to the office. b. The office must have a signed written credit agreement with the patient. c. The office will not be able to receive payment under any circumstances. d. The office must have already turned the account over to a collection agency. ANS: A REF: p. 1200, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 40. A patient who has declared bankruptcy under Chapter VII comes into the office and tries to pay part of the account. What should
the medical assistant do? Accept the payment from the patient. Inform the patient that the case has been referred to small claims court. Make a deal with the patient to accept 50% of the balance due as payment in full. Inform the patient that no creditor is allowed to collect a debt outside the bankruptcy process.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D REF: p. 1200, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. TRUE/FALSE 1. Even if a patient’s account is being paid by capitation, a billing record is usually kept for that patient. ANS: T REF: p. 1192, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.5; ABHES Competency: 8.b.
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2. A check returned for not sufficient funds (NSF) is an example of an overdraft. ANS: T REF: p. 1193, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.4.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 3. A patient often has a credit balance when the patient is seen twice in the same month. ANS: F REF: p. 1194, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.4.c.; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 4. Claim messages attached to patient bills often become more forceful each month that the account remains unpaid. ANS: T REF: p. 1195, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 5. If a patient receives permission to make several payments on an overdue account, a written agreement is only required if the office
plans to charge interest. ANS: F REF: p. 1196, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 6. If a patient’s account is in collection, the medical office should tell the patient to find another physician and refuse any further
appointments. ANS: F REF: p. 1199, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.5; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 7. The medical office can file a lawsuit in small claims court for an unpaid patient bill. ANS: T REF: p. 1199, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b. 8. If a patient files for bankruptcy, the medical office is always considered a secured creditor. ANS: F REF: p. 1200, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.6; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 9. It will probably cost less to bring a lawsuit against a patient in small claims court compared to a lawsuit in a regular court. ANS: T REF: p. 1199, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.6; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 10. The medical office may agree to treat a patient who has declared bankruptcy, but it will probably require the patient to pay in full
for any new services at the time the services are provided. ANS: T REF: p. 1200, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 8.b.
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Chapter 49: The Medical Assistant as Office Manager Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. How are old telephone logs, payroll records, minutes of practice management meetings, and canceled checks categorized? a. Recyclable paper b. Confidential documents c. Nonessential bits of information d. Regular office maintenance documents ANS: B REF: p. 1208, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.3; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 2. In the medical office, what measures should be taken when discarding confidential documents? a. By tearing them up before placing in a waste basket. b. By placing them in a recycle bin. c. By first shredding them and then placing them in a recycling bin. d. Confidential documents should never be discarded. ANS: C REF: p. 1208, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.3; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 3. What should be available for hand hygiene in every examination room? a. Sink only b. Hand sanitizer only c. Hand sanitizer and a sink d. Hand sanitizer, sink with foot controls, and packages of sterile towels ANS: B REF: p. 1209, CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.C.4; ABHES Competency: 9.a. 4. What may be stored in examination rooms in cupboards or drawers? a. Syringes b. Medication samples c. Alcohol prep pads d. Cleaning solutions e. All are correct ANS: C REF: p. 1209, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.i.; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 5. What type of waste container should needles and glass slides be discarded in? a. Ordinary trash container b. Rigid biohazard waste container c. Covered biohazard waster container with plastic liner d. It depends on whether the item is contaminated with blood or potentially
infectious material ANS: B REF: p. 1209, CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.P.10.a.; ABHES Competency: 10.c. 6. What is an important feature of biohazard waste containers? a. A foot pedal is used to open and close them. b. They should have a biohazard emblem on them. c. They are kept closed, except when adding new materials. d. The plastic liner is usually red or marked with a red biohazard emblem. e. All are correct. ANS: E REF: p. 1209, CAAHEP Competency (2015): III.P.10.a.; ABHES Competency: 10.c. 7. What is the best location for storage of cleaning supplies and chemical solutions to clean the examination? a. In the examination room, under the counter b. In a central area used to store all cleaning materials c. In the medical assistant’s work area d. In the office manager’s desk ANS: B REF: p. 1209, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.9; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 8. What furniture should be located in the waiting room? a. Ten to twelve chairs b. Two couches so that patients can sit together c. Two to four chairs per doctor in the office at one time d. One chair per doctor so that the doctor will hurry and not have patients waiting ANS: C REF: p. 1209, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.9; ABHES Competency: 8.e.
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9. What type of magazines should be located in the waiting room? a. Current magazines of general interest b. Magazines the staff have brought from home c. Medical journals that the physician has finished reading d. Mainly free magazines obtained from medical supply companies ANS: A REF: p. 1209, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.9; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 10. If there is a rack of brochures with medical information in the waiting room, who should oversee the selection available? a. The physician should approve all materials. b. The medical assistant should select and order brochures. c. The office manager is responsible for selecting brochures. d. The office should consult with a registered nurse to select informational material. ANS: A REF: p. 1209, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.9; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 11. Who is usually responsible for minor, routine office maintenance? a. Office staff b. The physician c. The rental agent d. A maintenance company ANS: A REF: p. 1210, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.9; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 12. How should workplace injuries be minimized or avoided? a. Staff members should wear sturdy shoes with low heels. b. Minimal lighting in corridors can save on energy costs. c. Sturdy stepladders should be used to place items on high shelves. d. A note should be left for the cleaners about any spills that occurred during the
day. ANS: C REF: p. 1215, CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.C.7.b.; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 13. What is a comfortable temperature for treatment rooms or special procedure rooms? a. 68° to 70° F b. 70° to 72° F c. 72° to 74° F d. 74° to 76° F ANS: A REF: p. 1210, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.9; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 14. How should spills that occur in the patient restrooms be handled? a. They should be treated as biohazard waste. b. They should be reported to the office manager. c. They should be taken care of by the cleaning company. d. They should be cleaned by staff wearing disposable gloves. ANS: D REF: p. 1210, CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.C.9; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 15. What color should be used for caution signs? a. White with red lettering or red with white lettering b. Green with white lettering or white with green lettering c. Red on the upper panel with black lettering and a white background d. Yellow lettering on a black background or black lettering on a yellow background ANS: D REF: p. 1216, CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.C.1.a.; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 16. How should biohazard waste containers be emptied? a. By the staff, daily b. Nightly, by the cleaning staff c. By the staff, when they are three-quarters full d. Only when a pickup is scheduled by the company that collects biohazard waste ANS: C REF: p. 1210, CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.C.6; ABHES Competency: 10.c. 17. What items in the medical office should have labels or be color-coded for safety reasons? a. Flammable gases b. Plastic biohazard bags c. Rigid biohazard waste containers d. Refrigerators containing biohazardous materials e. All are correct ANS: E REF: p. 1216, CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.C.1.c.; ABHES Competency: 10.c.
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18. Which parts of the office require the ability to be locked in addition to the main office doors? a. Treatment rooms b. Medical laboratory c. Examination rooms d. Medical assistant work area e. All are correct ANS: B REF: p. 1215, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.9; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 19. If controlled substances are stored in the office, how should they be stored? a. In the office safe b. In the physician’s office c. In the locked medication cabinet with other medications d. In a locked drawer within a locked cabinet separate from other items ANS: D REF: p. 1210, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.6; ABHES Competency: 4.b. 20. What should be assessed during a safety inspection? a. Adequate supply of soap in all soap dispensers b. Serial number of each piece of medical equipment c. Presence of a biohazard container in each exam room d. Electrical cords in good repair and not obstructing walkways e. All are correct ANS: D REF: p. 1216, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.9; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 21. How should lighted exit signs be tested? a. Room lights should be switched off. b. Exit sign lights should be turned off and on. c. A test button on the light switch should be pressed. d. It is not necessary to test them; a burned-out bulb will be obvious. ANS: A REF: p. 1216, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.9; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 22. How should all medical records, including computer data backup disks, be stored? a. In boxes b. In the physician’s office c. In the physician’s house d. In locked, fire-resistant file cabinets ANS: D REF: pp. 1209-1210, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.11; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 23. What is important information about the equipment purchased for the medical office? a. Serial number b. Date of purchase c. Type and length of warranty d. Suggested service schedule, and name of provider who provides service e. All are correct ANS: E REF: p. 1211, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.10; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 24. Equipment wears out. Which of the following would be most likely to result in a decision to replace a piece of equipment instead of
repairing it? It is 10 years old. It costs more than $1,000. The manufacturer no longer produces parts for repair. It is used for special tests or procedures about once a week.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C REF: p. 1212, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.10; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 25. What is involved in keeping a supply inventory? a. Supplies can only be ordered from approved suppliers. b. Supplies must have secure labels, or be discarded. c. A list is maintained of all supplies used in the medical office. d. Expiration dates on all supplies are checked before using them. ANS: C REF: p. 1211, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.10; ABHES Competency: 8.e.
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26. What is necessary in order to prevent running out of needed supplies? a. Create a good relationship with each supplier. b. Order as many supplies as there is room to store. c. Keep supplies with the expiration date closest to the current date to the front. d. Determine a realistic reorder point, and order new supplies when that point is
reached. ANS: D REF: p. 1213, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.10; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 27. When newly ordered supplies arrive in the office, what should the medical assistant do first? a. Give the delivery man a tip from petty cash. b. Keep the supplies in the reception area until there is time to put them away. c. Put the new supplies away in front of the supplies that are already in the storage d.
area. Check the supplies received against the packing slip to make sure that everything that has been ordered has arrived.
ANS: D REF: p. 1214, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.10; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 28. What is the general term for establishing and maintaining policies and procedures that protect the medical office and staff from
lawsuits? a. Prioritizing b. Risk management c. Liability insurance d. Policies and procedures ANS: B REF: p. 1219, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.i.; ABHES Competency: 4.e. 29. What protects physicians and office staff if patients claim that diagnostic procedures, tests, or treatments caused an injury? a. Small claims court b. Property and theft insurance c. Professional liability insurance d. None are correct e. All are correct ANS: C REF: p. 1219, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.8; ABHES Competency: 4.d. 30. When does an incident report need to be completed? a. When a patient trips over a chair. b. When a staff member slips on a wet floor. c. When a staff member gets stuck with a needle. d. When syringes or prescription pads are suddenly missing. e. All are correct. ANS: E REF: p. 1220, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.i.; ABHES Competency: 4.e. TRUE/FALSE 1. An electronic security system makes it unnecessary to have other locked areas in a medical office. ANS: F REF: p. 1209, CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.C.3; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 2. Regular safety inspections should include a review of storage for compressed gases, medications, and chemicals. ANS: T REF: p. 1216, CAAHEP Competency (2015): XII.C.3; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 3. Service contracts cover repair costs for equipment after the manufacturer’s warranty has expired. ANS: T REF: p. 1212, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.10; ABHES Competency: 8.e. 4. Staff meetings should be held at least twice a week to promote teamwork and share information. ANS: F REF: p. 1216, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.4; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 5. When a medical office contracts with an outside payroll service, employee files are also maintained by the outside service. ANS: F REF: p. 1217, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.11; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 6. In addition to medical office appointments, physicians must be scheduled for other responsibilities, such as being on call and
making nursing home visits. ANS: T REF: p. 1218, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.3; ABHES Competency: 8.d.
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7. It is not necessary for a medical office to have written policies about sexual harassment, confidentiality, or patient rights, so long as
every employee knows the expectations of the organization. ANS: F REF: p. 1219, CAAHEP Competency (2015): VI.C.11; ABHES Competency: 8.a. 8. A medical assistant may be expected to help patients identify community resources for visiting nurse and homemaker services. ANS: T REF: p. 1219, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.12; ABHES Competency: 8.f. 9. An incident report should always include names and identifying information for any witness to the incident that is described in the
report. ANS: T REF: p. 1220, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.7.8; ABHES Competency: 4.e. 10. Professional liability insurance for a medical office will cover costs of repairing damage caused by a tornado. ANS: F REF: p. 1219, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.8; ABHES Competency: 4.d.
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Chapter 50: Obtaining Employment Bonewit-West: Today’s Medical Assistant, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Jean would like to work at the medical facility where she is doing her practicum. Which action is most likely to lead to the offer of
a permanent position? a. Talking with her practicum coordinator b. Letting the people in the department know how she feels c. Talking with the people in the facility’s human resources department d. Trying to do everything she sees, even if she is not sure of the procedure ANS: C REF: p. 1228, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 11.b. 2. What is one of the first things a medical assistant graduate should do when starting a job search? a. Construct a résumé. b. Call a recruiting company and have it perform the search. c. Set a goal and identify the ideal job for his or her current circumstances. d. Have friends ask their bosses if they are planning on hiring anyone else. ANS: C REF: p. 1228, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 3. How can the medical assistant identify potential employers? a. Scan advertisements for possible open positions. b. Fill out applications at larger institutions where résumés remain on file. c. Perform Internet searches to identify local physicians and medical facilities. d. Ask contacts who work at health care facilities to look at internal job postings. e. All are correct. ANS: E REF: p. 1228, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 4. Which of the following is the best example of networking? a. Meeting your best friend for coffee every week b. Describing your job search to a friend of the family c. Dropping by to visit former instructors in your medical assisting program d. Asking your boyfriend to proofread your résumé for grammar and spelling ANS: C REF: p. 1228, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 5. What is the primary purpose of networking during the job search? a. To demonstrate good people skills b. To obtain verbal information about potential jobs c. To stay in contact with other individuals in the health care field d. To give and receive emotional support during the job-hunting process ANS: B REF: p. 1228, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 6. What is the primary purpose of a résumé? a. Obtain an interview for an open position. b. Show that you have graduated from an accredited program. c. Make your qualifications appear more extensive than they really are. d. Write down everything about yourself so that you do not forget facts during the
interview. ANS: A REF: p. 1228, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 7. What information is not included on a résumé? a. Education b. Work history c. Marital status d. Name, address, and telephone number ANS: C REF: p. 1228, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 8. A medical assistant with several years of experience might want to highlight skills that will transfer to a different type of work.
What style of résumé meets this goal? Targeted Functional Experiential Chronologic
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B REF: p. 1229, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a.
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9. What style of résumé would a recent graduate from an accredited medical assistant program probably use if he or she has worked
part-time and summers as a cashier? Targeted Functional Experiential Chronologic
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D REF: p. 1229, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 10. Where will a medical assistant include a branding statement that emphasizes skills and accomplishments? a. Near the top of the résumé, in the “Summary Statement b. In the “Position Sought” statement at the bottom of the résumé c. In the cover letter, so that the person reading the letter does not have to bother d.
reading the résumé In the résumé, under “Work Experience,” to highlight that the medical assistant has experience in those tasks
ANS: A REF: p. 1229, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 11. Which of the following should be included with personal demographic information at the top of the résumé? a. E-mail address b. Best time to call c. How many miles you are willing to travel? d. If you have taken and/or passed the CMA (AAMA) or RMA examination ANS: A REF: p. 1229, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 12. What should a medical assistant in a training program include if preparing a resume before graduation? a. A statement that he or she is currently in a training program b. The date of high school graduation only c. The term “anticipated” before the name of the degree or certificate d. The name of the degree or certificate without any date ANS: C REF: p. 1229, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 13. In what order should information about education be presented on a medical assistant’s résumé? a. Chronologic order b. Reverse chronologic order c. The medical assisting training program should always be last d. Information about the medical assisting training program should always be first ANS: B REF: p. 1229, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 14. When preparing a résumé, what information should be included about each educational experience and/or educational program
attended? Grade point average for each year Year(s) the institution or program was attended Name of the director of the program or student’s major Street address, city, and state of the institution or program
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B REF: p. 1229, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 15. If a section of the résumé is titled Work Experience, which of the following previous experience can be included? a. Years as a homemaker b. Volunteer experience at a local hospital c. Employment as a cashier at a supermarket d. Medical assisting externship in an accredited medical assisting program e. All are correct ANS: C REF: pp. 1229-1231, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 16. Which of the following statements would be most descriptive when describing job responsibilities on a résumé? a. Was a team player. b. Assisted the manager as required. c. Worked well with other employees. d. Sorted and opened mail in a 10-person office. ANS: D REF: pp. 1231-1232, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a.
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17. Linda is a medical assistant student who is about to graduate from an accredited medical assistant program. She has no prior paid
work experience relevant to medical assisting; however, she did volunteer as a “candy striper” in a hospital for a couple of years. Linda also completed a 200-hour practicum as a component of her medical assistant program. How should these experiences be noted in the résumé? a. They can be included under “Work Experience.” b. They should not appear on the résumé but should be included in the cover letter. c. They should be included under another heading, such as “Related Health Care Experience.” d. They do not need to be on the résumé—Linda can mention these items during the interview. ANS: C REF: pp. 1229-1230, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 18. How many names and addresses of references should be included on a résumé? a. None b. Two to four c. Exactly four d. Five to seven ANS: A REF: pp. 1232-1233, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 19. Which of the following is the least desirable reference? a. Former instructor b. Previous employer c. Practicum coordinator or supervisor d. Neighbor who has known the applicant for many years ANS: D REF: p. 1233, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 20. What should be done before an individual’s name is used as a reference? a. The person should be asked if his or her name can be used. b. No specific action is required, because he or she may never be contacted. c. The person should be sent a letter stating that his or her name will be used. d. The person should give permission in writing for his or her name to be used. ANS: A REF: p. 1233, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 21. What guideline(s) relate to the use of a cover letter in the job search? a. It should accompany every résumé sent out by mail. b. It should explain briefly why the résumé is being sent. c. It may state whether the applicant is responding to a particular ad. d. It may state that the applicant is sending an open query about possible job e.
opportunities. All are correct.
ANS: E REF: p. 1233, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 22. What action should the medical assistant take after sending out a résumé? a. Call daily in order to show interest in the job. b. Wait patiently for a call to set up an interview. c. Call after a few days to inquire whether the résumé has been received. d. Call and ask how many résumés have been received and what the chances are for
having an interview. ANS: B REF: p. 1234, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.b. 23. Many large medical facilities ask a job applicant to fill out an application in addition to submitting a résumé. Which of the
following actions is NOT recommended when filling out an application? a. Using only positive statements b. Answering all questions fully and truthfully c. Including names and telephone numbers of previous supervisors d. Referring to your résumé for questions on the application form that are covered there ANS: D REF: p. 1234, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 24. Which action is most helpful for a job candidate between the time an interview is arranged and the actual interview? a. Having a manicure to apply fresh nail polish b. Learning as much as possible about the facility c. Purchasing a pair of designer jeans to wear to the interview d. Making an anonymous visit to the facility to observe how it functions ANS: B REF: p. 1235, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.15; ABHES Competency: 11.b.
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25. If the interviewer says, “Tell me about yourself,” how should a job applicant answer? a. By telling the interviewer about his or her family b. By telling the interviewer that he or she has some weaknesses c. By telling the interviewer about his or her education and previous work d.
experience By telling the interviewer about character traits and skills that will help him or her do the job
ANS: C REF: p. 1237, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 26. What should a job applicant do on the day after a job interview? a. Send another résumé—as a follow-up. b. Call the interviewer and ask for feedback about the job interview. c. Call and ask if there is additional information that the interviewer needs. d. Write the interviewer a thank-you note reaffirming his or her interest in the job. ANS: D REF: p. 1236, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 27. After a position has been offered, the question of salary is explored. What should an applicant do if the salary offered is less than
anticipated? Ask when raises will next be given. Accept the job and hope for the best. Decline the job and look elsewhere. Ask for a specific time frame when his or her performance will be reviewed and if a raise will be possible.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D REF: p. 1236, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 28. What question is it illegal for an employer to ask a female candidate who looks to be in her fifties during an interview for a medical
assistant position? a. How many children do you have? b. Are you Chinese? c. How old are you? d. Does your family celebrate Christmas? e. All are correct ANS: E REF: p. 1236, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.9; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 29. What term used to describe the situation of an employee who has become disillusioned with his or her work and has lost interest in
and enthusiasm about the job? a. Conceit b. Burnout c. Boredom d. Self-actualization ANS: B
REF: p. 1238, CAAHEP Competency (2015); ABHES Competency: 11.b.
30. After 5 years of employment at a family practice facility, Margaret decided that she would like to upgrade her administrative skills
and enrolled in a health care management program. For what type of position would this training be useful? Coding specialist Clinical supervisor Laboratory supervisor Office manager or practice manager
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D REF: p. 1238, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.15; ABHES Competency: 11.b. TRUE/FALSE 1. A job search will usually be successful if a medical assistant applies for three to five positions using the Internet. ANS: F REF: p. 1228, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.15; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 2. When the medical assistant sends a résumé to a medical office, he or she will usually not be asked to fill out a job application. ANS: F REF: p. 1233, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 3. If possible, it is best to limit a résumé to a single page. ANS: T REF: p. 1229, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 4. A targeted résumé usually begins with a specific employment objective that describes the type of position the applicant is seeking. ANS: T REF: p. 1229, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a.
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5. On a chronologic résumé, a potential employer will assume that any gaps in employment for a woman can be attributed to staying
home and raising children. ANS: F REF: p. 1230, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 6. The statement, “prepared patients for examination” would be an example of the participle form of the verb. ANS: F REF: p. 1232, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 7. Credentials for CPR and first aid should be included on a medical assistant’s résumé. ANS: T REF: p. 1232, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 8. Even if a résumé is submitted to a potential employer electronically, it is still recommended to include a cover letter or e-mail. ANS: T REF: p. 1233, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.7; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 9. It is illegal for an employer to ask an applicant for a medical assistant position to take a keyboarding test. ANS: F REF: p. 1234, CAAHEP Competency (2015): X.C.9; ABHES Competency: 11.a. 10. When interviewing for a position as a medical assistant, an applicant should focus primarily on describing his or her clinical and
administrative skills and try to give an impression of being “all business.” ANS: F REF: p. 1235, CAAHEP Competency (2015): V.C.1; ABHES Competency: 11.b.
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