Anatomy & Physiology 1st Edition by Elizabeth Co. All Chapters 1-27 | TEST BANK

Chapter 02 : Introduction to the Human Body Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following definitions describes the scientific study of human anatomy? a. The study of the body’s metabolic functions. b. The study of the body’s structures. c. The study of body’s chemical processes. d. The study of the body’s molecular processes. e. The study of the body’s evolution.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.1 Overview of Anatomy and Physiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1.1 - Define the terms anatomy and physiology.

2. What two approaches do anatomists use to study the body’s structures? a. regional and systemic b. global and detailed c. holistic and microscopic d. internal and external e. active and passive ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.1 Overview of An dM P. hyWsS iology WaWtoWm.yTaBnS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1.2 - Give specific examples to show the interrelationship between anatomy and physiology.

3. Which of the following describes the study of regional anatomy? a. The skin and its functions. b. The interrelationships of all of the structures in a specific body region. c. Human evolution by regions of the world. d. The specific functions of an organ. e. Chemical changes in the human body.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.1 Overview of Anatomy and Physiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1.2 - Give specific examples to show the interrelationship between anatomy and physiology.

4. Which of the following describes the study of systemic anatomy? a. The operation of body functions. b. The sequence of chemical reactions in the body. c. The structures that make up a discrete body system. d. The evolution of the human body. e. The changes in the body over time.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember

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REFERENCES: 2.1 Overview of Anatomy and Physiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.1.2 - Give specific examples to show the interrelationship between anatomy and physiology.

5. What is phosphorylation? a. The most common form of molecular regulation in animal cells – the addition of a phosphate group to specific molecules. b. The ingestion and absorption of excessive phosphorus from the environment. c. The production of excessive amounts of phosphorus by the body. d. The conversion of phosphorus through a series of reactions in the environment. e. The removal of phosphorus from our bodies.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.2 Structure and Function LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.2.1 - Describe, compare, and contrast various structure-function relationships from molecular to organ level.

6. Early humans evolved a restructured pelvis to accommodate for what specific function? a. increased intelligence b. bipedalism c. childbirth d. self defense e. sense of smell and taste ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.2 Structure and Function LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.2.2 - Relate the commonly found branching structure to function of an organ.

7. How is human evolution defined? a. The impact of the earth’s climate on human development. b. Changes in human intelligence over time. c. The development of cognitive and motor skills over time. d. A change in gene expression that occurs from generation to generation. e. The ability to adapt to constantly changing environments.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.3 Evolution and Human Variation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3.1 - Define the term and explain the concept of evolution.

8. Why does the body require UV radiation from sunlight? a. To control the spread of bacteria. b. To improve skin tone and quality. c. For the production of proteins. d. To control blood flow. e. For the synthesis of vitamin D. ANSWER: e

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.3 Evolution and Human Variation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3.2 - Contrast the impact of selection on traits that affect reproduction and traits that do not; use this to explain examples of anatomical and physiological variation.

9. UV radiation from sunlight is harmful to folate (folic acid) structure, a vitamin. What is a reason folate is essential? a. It is essential for skin cell growth and development. b. It is essential for single cell growth and muscular strength. c. It aids in sperm production and embryonic development. d. It is important for eye sight and night vision. e. It is involved with digestion.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.3 Evolution and Human Variation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3.2 - Contrast the impact of selection on traits that affect reproduction and traits that do not; use this to explain examples of anatomical and physiological variation.

10. What are the three types of gradients that drive flow in a physiological context? a. high, medium, and low gradients b. elevated, standard, and reduced gradients c. organic, inorganic, and chemical gradients d. concentration, electrical, and pressure gradients e. kinetic, dynamic, and static gradients ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.4 Flow LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.4.1 - Describe how a gradient determines flow between two regions, and give examples of gradients that exist in different levels of organization in the body.

11. What type of gradient drives the flow of fluids and gases? a. concentration gradients b. electrical gradients c. pressure gradients d. organic gradients e. gravitational gradients ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.4 Flow LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.4.2 - Predict how changes in a gradient will affect flow rate.

12. Which of the following variables provides resistance to flow rate in liquids and gases? a. diameter and length of the tube b. speed of the molecules c. size of the molecules d. temperature of the environment e. viscosity of the medium

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ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.4 Flow LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.4.3 - Predict how differences in resistance will affect flow rate.

13. What is the definition of homeostasis? a. The state of dynamic stability of the body’s internal conditions. b. The condition of humanity at any point in history. c. The sum of all chemical reactions within the blood stream. d. Molecular concentrations within specific organs. e. The environment for human development.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.5 Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5.1 - Define the following terms as they relate to homeostasis: setpoint, variable, receptor (sensor), effector (target), and control (integrating) center.

14. Which of the following statements describes the set point for maintaining homeostasis? a. The physiological value around which the normal range fluctuates. b. The physiological value that should not be exceeded. c. The minimal physiological value that should be maintained. d. One of a range of values that could be maintained. e. A fixed value that must be maintained.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.5 Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5.3 - List the main physiological variables for which the body attempts to maintain homeostasis.

15. What is the set point for normal body temperature? a. Approximately 35 °C (95.0 °F) b. Approximately 36 °C (96.8 °F) c. Approximately 37 °C (98.6 °F) d. Approximately 38 °C (100.4 °F) e. Approximately 35 °C (102.2 °F) ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.5 Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5.3 - List the main physiological variables for which the body attempts to maintain homeostasis.

16. Which of the following variables is homeostatically regulated? a. body weight b. blood sugar levels c. stress levels d. bone density

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e. metal alertness ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.5 Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5.3 - List the main physiological variables for which the body attempts to maintain homeostasis.

17. Which statement best describes a negative feedback loop? a. A mechanism that reverses a deviation from the set point. b. A mechanism that eliminates the cause of the deviation from the set point. c. A mechanism that replaces molecules required by the body. d. A mechanism that accelerates the production of hormones. e. A mechanism that freezes the cause of negative impacts to the body.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.5 Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5.4 - List the steps in a feedback mechanism (loop) and explain the function of each step.

18. Which of the following variables is regulated by a positive feedback loop? a. body temperature b. blood sugar levels c. childbirth d. thyroid hormone levels e. pH levels ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.5 Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5.5 - Compare and contrast positive and negative feedback in terms of the relationship between stimulus and response, and describe examples of each.

19. Which statement best describes a negative feedback loop? a. A mechanism that reverses a deviation from the set point. b. A mechanism that eliminates the cause of the deviation from the set point. c. A mechanism that replaces molecules required by the body. d. A mechanism that accelerates the production of hormones. e. A mechanism that freezes the cause of negative impacts to the body.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.5 Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5.2 - Explain why negative feedback is the most common mechanism used to maintain homeostasis.

20. What is the smallest independently functioning unit of a living organism? a. An atom b. A molecule c. A cell

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d. An element e. A proton ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.6 Structural Organization of the Human Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.6.1 - Describe, in order from simplest to most complex, the major levels of organization in the human organism.

21. What is the name of the protective membranous structure that encloses a variety of tiny functioning units within human cells? a. molecules b. elements c. organelles d. cytoskeleton e. enzymes ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.6 Structural Organization of the Human Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.6.2 - Give an example of each level of organization.

22. What do you call a group of many cells that work together to perform a specific function? a. tissue b. organism c. molecules d. organ e. element ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.6 Structural Organization of the Human Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.6.3 - List the organ systems of the human body and their major components.

23. What do you call a structure of the body that is composed of two or more tissue types? a. cell b. membrane c. organ d. element e. enzyme ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.6 Structural Organization of the Human Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.6.4 - Describe the major functions of each organ system.

24. What do you call a group of organs that work together to perform major functions to meet the physiological needs of the body? a. organ system b. biological system

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c. tissue groups d. molecular grouping e. physiological group ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.6 Structural Organization of the Human Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.6.4 - Describe the major functions of each organ system.

25. Which of the following refers to a living being that has a cellular structure and can perform independently all physiologic functions necessary for life? a. human b. animal c. organism d. citizen e. lifeform ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.6 Structural Organization of the Human Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.6.4 - Describe the major functions of each organ system.

26. Which of the following statements best describes the standard anatomical position? a. The body standing upright, with feet shoulder width apart and parallel, palms facing forward. b. The body horizontal, with feet together, toes pointing forward, and palms facing up. .aWrdS, and palms facing down. c. The body face down with feet together, toesWpW oiW nt. inT gB doSwMnw d. The body on its side with feet together, toes pointing and arms resting. e. The body standing upright, with feet together, toes forward, and arms relaxed.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Terminology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.1 - Describe the human body in anatomical position.

27. What is meant by ‘right’ and ‘left’ when referring to anatomical positioning? a. The right and left of the observer. b. The patient’s or cadaver’s right and left. c. The body’s orientation. d. The position as viewed by the front or back. e. They are different based on viewing position.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference.

28. What is meant by a body in a prone position during a physical examination or surgical procedure? a. The body is lying face up. b. The body is lying face down. c. The body is on lying on the right side.

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d. The body is on lying on the left side. e. The body is in an upright seated position.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference.

29. What is meant by a body in a supine position during a physical examination or surgical procedure? a. The body is lying face up. b. The body is lying face down. c. The body is on lying on the right side. d. The body is on lying on the left side. e. The body is in an upright seated position.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference.

30. What term would you use to describe the front (belly) of a body in anatomical position? a. anterior b. posterior c. superior d. inferior e. lateral ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference.

31. To describe the BACK (spine) of the body you would use the term . a. anterior b. posterior c. superior d. inferior e. lateral ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference.

32. What term would you use to describe a position above, or higher than, another part of the body? a. anterior b. posterior c. superior d. inferior e. lateral

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ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference.

33. What term would you use to describe a position below, or lower than, another part of the body proper? a. anterior b. posterior c. superior d. inferior e. lateral ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference.

34. What term would you use to describe a structure toward the side of the body? a. anterior b. posterior c. superior d. inferior e. lateral ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: RemembW erWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference.

35. What term would you use to describe an anatomical structure along the midline or toward the middle of the body? a. anterior b. posterior c. superior d. medial e. lateral ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference.

36. What term would you use to describe a position closer to the surface of the body? a. anterior b. posterior c. superior d. superficial e. lateral ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember

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REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference.

37. What term would you use to describe a position further away from the surface of the body, or within the body? a. anterior b. posterior c. superior d. superficial e. deep ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference.

38. How would you describe an anatomical structure on a limb that is near the point of attachment or the trunk of the body? a. anterior b. posterior c. proximal d. superficial e. lateral ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical PoW siW tioWn.TBSM.WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference.

39. How would you describe an anatomical structure on a limb that is father from the point of attachment or the trunk of the body? a. anterior b. posterior c. proximal d. distal e. lateral ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.2 - Describe how to use the terms right and left in anatomical reference.

40. What do you call the vertical plane that divides the body or an organ into right and left sides? a. sagittal plane b. frontal plane c. transverse plane d. median plane e. parasagittal plane ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember

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REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.6 - Identify and define the anatomic planes in which a body might be viewed.

41. What do you call the plane that runs vertically directly down the middle of the body, bisecting the body into right and left halves? a. sagittal plane b. frontal plane c. transverse plane d. median plane e. parasagittal plane ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.6 - Identify and define the anatomic planes in which a body might be viewed.

42. What do you call the plane that divides the body into unequal right and left sides? a. sagittal plane b. frontal plane c. transverse plane d. median plane e. parasagittal plane ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical PoW siW tioWn. LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.6 - Identify and define the anatomic planes in which a body might be viewed.

43. What do you call the plane that divides the body or an organ into an anterior (front) portion and a posterior (rear) portion? a. sagittal plane b. frontal plane c. transverse plane d. median plane e. parasagittal plane ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.6 - Identify and define the anatomic planes in which a body might be viewed.

44. What do you call the plane that divides the body or organ horizontally into upper and lower portions? a. sagittal plane b. frontal plane c. transverse plane d. median plane e. parasagittal plane ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember

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REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Position LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.6 - Identify and define the anatomic planes in which a body might be viewed.

45. Which of the following is included in the anterior (ventral) cavity? a. thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities b. cranial and spinal cavities c. limbs and extremities d. heart and lungs only e. brain ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Terminology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.8 - Identify and describe the location of the body cavities and the major organs found in each cavity.

46. Which of the following is included in the posterior (dorsal) cavity? a. thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities b. cranial and spinal cavities c. limbs and extremities d. heart and lungs only e. brain ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember WinWo.loTgBy SM.WS REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical TeW rm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.8 - Identify and describe the location of the body cavities and the major organs found in each cavity.

47. The abdominopelvic cavities can be divided into how many regions? a. Two b. Five c. Seven d. Nine e. Twelve ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Terminology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.4 - List and describe the location of the major anatomical regions of the body.

48. Which of the following terms refers to the serous membrane that surrounds the lungs? a. pleura b. pericardium c. peritoneum d. perineum e. petunia ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember

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REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Terminology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.11 - Describe the structure, function, and location of serous membranes.

49. Which of the following terms refers to the serous membrane that surrounds the heart? a. pleura b. pericardium c. peritoneum d. perineum e. petunia ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Terminology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.11 - Describe the structure, function, and location of serous membranes.

50. Which of the following terms refers to the serous membrane that surrounds the abdominopelvic cavity? a. Pleura b. Pericardium c. Peritoneum d. Perineum e. Petunia ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Terminology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.11 - Describe tW hW eW st. ruT ctBuS reM , f. uW ncStion, and location of serous membranes.

Essay 51. When early humans evolved to move primarily as bipeds instead of as our tree-dwelling primate ancestors, we evolved a restructured pelvis. What physiological changes resulted from the restructured pelvis?

ANSWER: The evolved restructured pelvis can support the weight of our abdominal organs as well as accommodate the much larger gluteal muscles that are required for stabilization of our torso and efficient forward motion. If we had not needed the function of the pelvis to accommodate bipedalism, we would not have observed the structural change of the pelvis over time.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.3 Evolution and Human Variation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3.2 - Contrast the impact of selection on traits that affect reproduction and traits that do not; use this to explain examples of anatomical and physiological variation.

52. As early humans evolved, they expressed less and less body hair. Why, and what impact did this have on the skin pigment, melanin?

ANSWER: This likely had to do with early humans spending less time in trees and more time under the hot sun. With less body hair, early humans may have been cooler, but they were at a much higher risk of folate damage from UV radiation. Therefore, successive generations of early humans grew less and less body hair, yet the expression of melanin, the skin pigment, increased. Production and expression of melanin conferred a tremendous advantage to humans who evolved over generations near the equator or at high altitudes, where UV radiation is the highest. Through genetic changes these populations evolved to express and

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maintain melanin levels that protected their cells from the strong UV rays of equatorial sunlight, while allowing sufficient UV radiation for the production of Vitamin D. As humans migrated to locations with less intense UV radiation, their skin cells adapted and expressed less melanin. Although these individuals had less melanin and lighter skin, they were still able to produce Vitamin D even with low UV radiation.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.3 Evolution and Human Variation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.3.2 - Contrast the impact of selection on traits that affect reproduction and traits that do not; use this to explain examples of anatomical and physiological variation.

53. Substances, whether they are air or sodium ions, flow (i.e., move) according to gradients. What are the types of gradients that drive flow, or the movement of these molecules, from one area to another in physiological context? List the types of gradients, describe how molecules move for each, and give an example.

ANSWER: The three types of gradients that drive flow in the physiological context are concentration, electrical, and pressure gradients. Pressure gradients drive the flow of fluids or gases from high pressure to low pressure. For example, the pressure generated by the pumping of the heart drives the flow of blood. Concentration gradients drive the flow (here called diffusion) of individual molecules from a high concentration to a low concentration. For example, sodium ions flow from the outside of the cell (high concentration) to the inside of the cell (low concentration) when sodium ion channels are opened. Electrical gradients influence the flow of charged particles, including ions. For example, positively charged ions flow toward negatively charged ions.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.4 Flow LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.4.1 - Describe how a gradient determines flow between two regions, and give examples of gradients that exist in different levels of organization in the body.

54. Much of the study of physiology centers on the body’s tendency to move toward homeostasis. Define homeostasis and give an example.

ANSWER: Homeostasis is the state of dynamic stability of the body’s internal conditions. Our bodies can withstand a variety of external, or environmental, disturbances because our internal conditions stay relatively stable to maintain the health of our cells. Maintaining homeostasis requires the body to monitor internal conditions continuously, typically using a negative feedback loop. Parameters such as oxygen levels, pH, nutrient availability, and temperature must remain constant for our cells to survive and perform their functions. Each physiological condition has a particular set point. A set point is the physiological value around which the normal range fluctuates. For example, the set point for normal human body temperature is approximately 37°C (98.6°F). Examples may range from body temperature, blood pressure, or blood glucose levels (to name a few).

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.5 Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5.1 - Define the following terms as they relate to homeostasis: setpoint, variable, receptor (sensor), effector (target), and control (integrating) center.

55. In homeostasis, many of our variables are regulated by feedback loops. Describe the two types of feedback loops and give an example of each.

ANSWER: The two types of feedback loops are negative and positive feedback loops. A negative feedback loop occurs when the stimulus deviates from the setpoint and is then reversed to return the body to homeostatic levels, or back to the setpoint. Examples are body temperature and blood sugar levels. A positive feedback system, in contrast, intensifies a change in the body’s physiological condition. A deviation from the normal range results in more change, and the system moves farther away from the normal range, or the setpoint. A

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positive feedback cycle within the body will continue and intensify until there is a stop signal. Childbirth is one example of a positive feedback loop that is healthy but does not work to maintain homeostasis.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.5 Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.5.4 - List the steps in a feedback mechanism (loop) and explain the function of each step.

56. Anatomists take two general approaches to the study of the body’s structure: regional and systemic. What are the differences between the two approaches?

ANSWER: Regional anatomy is the study of the interrelationships of all the structures in a specific body region, such as the abdomen or thorax. Studying regional anatomy helps us appreciate the relatedness of body structures, such as how muscles, nerves, blood vessels, and other organs work together to serve a particular body region. A significant learning goal through a regional anatomy approach is to build a three-dimensional understanding of the placement of and relationships among structures. When an individual is then presented with an image taken from a various perspective, or while performing surgery or dissection, there is a better understanding of the structures within the image. In contrast, a systemic anatomical approach is the study of the structures that make up a discrete body system, or a group of structures that work together to perform a unique body function. For example, a systemic anatomical approach of the muscular system would consider all the skeletal muscles of the body.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.6 Structural Organization of the Human Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.6.2 - Give an example of each level of organization.

57. Organs and organ systems are fundamental levels of organization in human physiology. Define the terms organ and organ system.

ANSWER: An organ is a structure of the body that is composed of two or more tissue types; each organ performs one or more specific physiological function. An organ system is a group of organs that work together to perform major functions or meet physiological needs of the body.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.6 Structural Organization of the Human Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.6.3 - List the organ systems of the human body and their major components.

58. The posterior and anterior body cavities are each subdivided into smaller cavities. Describe the smaller cavities within each major cavity.

ANSWER: In the posterior (dorsal) cavity, there is the cranial cavity and the spinal cavity. The cranial cavity houses the brain and the spinal cavity (or vertebral cavity) encloses the spinal cord.

Just as the brain and spinal cord make up a continuous, uninterrupted structure, the cranial and spinal cavities that house them are also continuous. The brain and spinal cord are protected by the bones of the skull and vertebral column and by cerebrospinal fluid, a colorless fluid produced by the brain, which cushions the brain and spinal cord within the posterior cavity.

The anterior cavity has two main subdivisions: the thoracic cavity and the abdominopelvic cavity. The thoracic cavity is the superior subdivision enclosed by the rib cage and contains the lungs and the heart. A smaller cavity within the thoracic cavity is the mediastinum, which contains the heart, esophagus, trachea, and great vessels. Within the mediastinum is the pericardial cavity, which encloses only the heart. Each lung is contained within a separate pleural cavity, another smaller cavity within the thoracic cavity. The diaphragm forms the floor of the thoracic cavity and separates it from the abdominopelvic cavity. The

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abdominopelvic cavity is the largest cavity in the body. Although no membrane physically subdivides the abdominopelvic cavity, it can be useful to distinguish between the abdominal cavity, the division that houses the digestive organs, and the pelvic cavity, the division that houses the organs of reproduction.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Terminology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.9 - Identify and describe the location of the four abdominopelvic quadrants and the nine abdominopelvic regions, and the major structures found in each.

59. Certain directional anatomical terms appear throughout your anatomy textbook. The ten most common directional terms describe front/back, above/below, toward the side/toward the middle, close to the surface/father from the surface, and near the point of attachment/farther from the point of attachment. List these terms and define them.

ANSWER: Anterior (front), posterior (back), superior (above), inferior (below), lateral (toward the side of the body), medial (toward the middle or midline), superficial (close to the surface), deep (away from the surface or within the structure), proximal (near the point of attachment) and distal (away from the point of attachment).

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 2.7 Anatomical Terminology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 2.7.5 - Describe the location of body structures, using appropriate directional terminology.

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Chapter 03 - The Chemical Level of Organization Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following statements best describes elements? a. Anything that occupies space and has mass. b. A substance joined by chemical bonds. c. All matter in the natural world is composed of one or more of these fundamental substances. d. Any group of atoms bonded together. e. A particle that carries a positive charge.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.1 Elements and Atoms: The Building Blocks of Matter LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.1.1 - Compare and contrast the terms atoms, elements, molecules, and compounds.

2. What does the atomic weight of an atom equal? a. The number of protons in the nucleus of the atom. b. Roughly equal to the number of protons and neutrons plus a little weight from the electrons. c. Total number of protons and neutrons times the atomic weight factor. d. The total weight of protons in the atom. e. The total weight of neutrons in the atom.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember WWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 3.1 Elements and Atoms: The Building Blocks of Matter LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.1.2 - Describe the charge, mass, and relative location of electrons, protons, and neutrons in an atom.

3. How do you describe the electron valance shell of an atom? a. An atom’s outermost electron shell. b. The sum of all of the atom’s electron shells. c. The innermost electron shell. d. The average of the electron shells of the atom. e. The shell that traps all of the electrons in an atom.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.1 Elements and Atoms: The Building Blocks of Matter LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.1.6 - Relate the number of electrons in an electron shell to the atom’s chemical stability and its ability to form chemical bonds.

4. What distinguishes an isotope from the elemental form? a. Different number of protons. b. Different number of neutrons. c. Different number of electrons. d. Different radiation levels. e. Different atomic weights.

ANSWER: b

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.1 Elements and Atoms: The Building Blocks of Matter LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.1.5 - Compare and contrast the terms ion, free radical, isotope, and radioisotopes.

5. What is an ion? a. A positively charged atom. b. A negatively charged atom. c. Either a negatively or positively charged atom. d. An atom without an electrical charge. e. An atom with both a positive and negative charge at the same time.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.1 Elements and Atoms: The Building Blocks of Matter LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.1.4 - Explain how ions and isotopes are produced by changing the relative number of specific subatomic particles, using one element as an example.

6. How is the atomic number of an atom determined? a. By the number of electrons in the atom. b. By the number of protons in the atom. c. By the number of neutrons in the atom. d. By the measure of the number of daltons. e. By its radiation level.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.1 Elements and Atoms: The Building Blocks of Matter LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.1.3 - Distinguish among the terms atomic number, mass number, and atomic weight.

7. What is a positively charged ion called? a. cation b. anion c. positron d. ionize e. chloride ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.1 Elements and Atoms: The Building Blocks of Matter LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.1.7 - Predict, by examining the properties of an atom, the likelihood that it will ionize or form bonds.

8. What fact most strongly governs the tendency of an atom to participate in a chemical reaction? a. The number of electrons in its valence shell. b. The number of protons in the nucleus. c. The total number of electrons. d. The number of neutrons in the nucleus. e. The atomic activity value.

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ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.1 Elements and Atoms: The Building Blocks of Matter LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.1.7 - Predict, by examining the properties of an atom, the likelihood that it will ionize or form bonds.

9. Which of the following statements best describes an ionic bond? a. An ongoing, close association between ions of opposite charges. b. It shares electrons in a mutually stabilizing relationship. c. A bond that is individually weak and easily broken. d. An unbreakable bond between atoms. e. A strong bond between molecules.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.2 Chemical Bonds LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.2.1 - Explain the mechanism of each type of chemical bond and provide biologically significant examples of each: covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.

10. Which of the following statements best describes a covalent bond? a. An ongoing, close association between ions of opposite charge. b. It shares electrons in a mutually stabilizing relationship. c. A bond individually weak and easily broken. d. An unbreakable bond between atoms. e. A strong bond between molecules.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.2 Chemical Bonds LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.2.1 - Explain the mechanism of each type of chemical bond and provide biologically significant examples of each: covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.

11. Which of the following statements best describes a hydrogen bond? a. An ongoing, close association between ions of opposite charge. b. It shares electrons in a mutually stabilizing relationship. c. A bond individually weak and easily broken. d. An unbreakable bond between atoms. e. A strong bond between molecules.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.2 Chemical Bonds LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.2.1 - Explain the mechanism of each type of chemical bond and provide biologically significant examples of each: covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.

12. Which of the following statements best describes a nonpolar covalent bond? a. In a covalent bond, the electrons are shared equally between two atoms. b. In a covalent bond, the electrons are shared unequally between two atoms. c. In a covalent bond, the electrons between two atoms are oriented by their poles. d. In a covalent bond, the electrons between two atoms are eliminated by each other.

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e. In a covalent bond, the electrons between two atoms are expelled from their orbit.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.2 Chemical Bonds LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.2.3 - Compare and contrast nonpolar covalent and polar covalent bonds.

13. Which of the following statements best describes the role of hydrogen bonds? a. Hydrogen bonds are critical to the functioning of our molecules and cells. b. Hydrogen bonds are rarely found in nature. c. Hydrogen bonds are resistant to temperature changes and acids. d. Hydrogen bonds rarely bond with other atoms. e. Hydrogen bonds do not change with environmental factors.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.2 Chemical Bonds LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.2.2 - List the following types of bonds in order by relative strength: nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.

14. How is metabolism defined? a. The sum total of all of the chemical reactions that occur inside the body. b. The conversion of food to kinetic energy. c. The chemistry of the human brain. d. The absorption of liquids by the body. e. The speed at which the body can move.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.3 Chemical Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.3.1 - Compare and contrast kinetic and potential energy.

15. Which statement best describes kinetic energy? a. The energy produced by the body. b. The energy of motion. c. Energy not produced in the body. d. Energy stored within plants. e. The energy source primarily from the sun.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.3 Chemical Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.3.1 - Compare and contrast kinetic and potential energy.

16. What is always required to complete an endergonic reaction? a. sunlight b. energy c. chemicals d. water e. hydrogen

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ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.3 Chemical Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.3.2 - Compare and contrast endergonic and exergonic chemical reactions.

17. Which of the following lists describes the three types of chemical reactions? a. synthesis, decomposition, and exchange b. external, internal, and holistic c. potential, kinetic, and static d. dormant, active, and aggressive e. slow, medium, and fast ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.3 Chemical Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.3.3 - Describe and draw examples of the three basic types of chemical reactions.

18. Chemical reactions tend to proceed at a faster rate in which medium? a. solids b. liquids c. gases d. space e. the oceans ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: RemembW erWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 3.3 Chemical Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.3.4 - List and explain several factors that influence the rate of reactions.

19. Which statement best describes the function of enzymes? a. Enzymes reduce the activation energy required for chemical reactions to proceed. b. Enzymes provide the body with nutrients. c. Enzymes control cellular function. d. Enzymes destroy harmful molecules. e. Enzymes provide energy to the cell.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.3 Chemical Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.3.5 - Define enzyme and describe factors that affect enzyme activity.

20. What is the percentage of the composition of water in an average adult body? a. 5% to 10% b. 10% to 30% c. 30% to 50% d. 50% to 70% e. 70% to 90% ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember

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REFERENCES: 3.4 Inorganic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4.2 - Describe the physiologically important properties of water.

21. What statement best describes a suspension? a. A liquid mixture in which a heavier substance is suspended temporarily. b. A liquid mixture which is often opaque in solution. c. A liquid mixture that is always soluble. d. A liquid mixture in which substances are always visible. e. A liquid mixture that is always transparent.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.4 Inorganic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4.3 - Compare and contrast the terms solution, solute, solvent, colloid suspension, and emulsion.

22. What is a major component for many of the body’s lubricating fluids? a. white corpuses b. blood plasma c. water d. mucus membranes e. molecular soluble ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember BsSsMen.tiWaS REFERENCES: 3.4 Inorganic ComW pW ouWn. dsTE l to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4.3 - Compare and contrast the terms solution, solute, solvent, colloid suspension, and emulsion.

23. Which statement best describes the nature of salts? a. A substance, when dissolved in water dissociates into ions other than H+ or OH–. b. A substance, when dissolved in acids breaks apart into inactive ions. c. A substance, when dissolved in water becomes an acid. d. A substance, when dissolved in water becomes a base. e. A substance, when dissolved in a base becomes an acid.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.4 Inorganic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4.4 - Define the terms salt, pH, acid, base, and buffer.

24. Which statement best defines an acid? a. A substance that releases oxygen ions in solution. b. A substance that releases hydrogen ions in solution. c. A substance that releases carbon ions in solution. d. A substance that releases all ions in solution. e. A substance that restricts the release of ions in solution.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember

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REFERENCES: 3.4 Inorganic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4.4 - Define the terms salt, pH, acid, base, and buffer.

25. Which statement best defines a base? a. A substance that releases oxygen ions in solution. b. A substance that releases hydroxyl ions in solution. c. A substance that releases carbon ions in solution. d. A substance that releases all ions in solution. e. A substance that restricts the release of ions in solution.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.4 Inorganic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4.4 - Define the terms salt, pH, acid, base, and buffer.

26. The pH of human blood is normally between which of the following ranges? a. From 1.35 to 2.45 b. From 2.35 to 4,45 c. From 7.35 to 7.45 d. From 9.25 to 10.25 e. From 12.35 to 13.45 ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.4 Inorganic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning Wl. LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4.5 - State the pW HWva ueTsBfoSrMa. ciW diS c, neutral, and alkaline (basic) solutions.

27. How would you describe a buffer? a. A solution of weak acid and its conjugate base. b. A solution that releases hydroxyl ions. c. A solution that releases carbon ions. d. A solution that releases all ions. e. A solution that restricts the release of ions.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.4 Inorganic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4.5 - State the pH values for acidic, neutral, and alkaline (basic) solutions.

28. What effect does a buffer have on body fluids? a. Neutralizes small amounts of acids or bases. b. Increases the acidity of all body fluids. c. Decreases the acidity of all body fluids. d. Converts acids and bases to water. e. Reduces the cellular effects of all body fluids.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.4 Inorganic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4.5 - State the pH values for acidic, neutral, and alkaline (basic) solutions.

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29. What statement best describes an organic compound? a. A substance that does not contain carbon or hydrogen. b. A substance primarily composed of water. c. A substance that contains both carbon and hydrogen. d. A substance that contains mostly oxygen. e. All substances that contain carbon and oxygen.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.4 Inorganic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4.1 - Compare and contrast organic and inorganic compounds and give examples of each.

30. What are groupings of carbon and hydrogen called? a. carbolic groupings b. hydroxides c. hydrocarbons d. carbide groupings e. water-based groupings ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.4 Inorganic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4.1 - Compare and contrast organic and inorganic compounds and give examples of each.

31. What statement best describes an inorganic compound? a. A substance that does not contain carbon or hydrogen. b. A substance primarily composed of water. c. A substance that contains both carbon and hydrogen. d. A substance that contains mostly oxygen. e. All substances that contain carbon and oxygen.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.4 Inorganic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.4.1 - Compare and contrast organic and inorganic compounds and give examples of each.

32. What statement best describes why there is an abundance of organic compounds? a. They are required for all living organisms. b. They evolved with human evolution. c. Carbon atoms have four electrons in their valence shell. d. Carbon atoms accept and donate electrons. e. Carbon is abundant in the earth’s crust.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.1 - Define the term organic molecule.

33. What is the term to describe any large molecule? a. A super molecule b. An extended molecule c. A macromolecule d. A compound molecule e. A composite molecule ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.1 - Define the term organic molecule.

34. What are the individual units of organic molecules called? a. polymers b. monomers c. macromolecules d. atoms e. ions ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.2 - Explain the relationship between monomers and polymers.

35. Which of the following statements best describes an hydrolysis reaction? a. A molecule of water disrupts a compound, breaking its bonds. b. The reaction always results in the absorption of water. c. One reactant gives up an atom of oxygen and the other reactant gives up a carbon group. d. One reactant is water and the other reactant is an oxygen molecule. e. The reaction always results in the synthesis of carbon compounds.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.3 - Define and provide examples of dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions.

36. Which of the following is correct about fatty acid chains? a. Fatty acid chains are composed of multiple inorganic molecules. b. Fatty acids are long chains of carbon and hydrogen molecules. c. Fatty acids chains are composed of heavy metals that are stored in adipocytes. d. Fatty acids are primarily made of water molecules. e. Fatty acid chains are composed of several oxygen isotopes.

ANSWER: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

b Blooms: Remember 3.5 Organic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.3 - Define and provide examples of dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions.

37. Which of the following statements best describes a dehydration synthesis reaction? a. The reaction always results in the absorption of water. b. One reactant gives up an atom of oxygen and another reactant gives up a carbon group. c. One reactant is always water and the other reactant an oxygen molecule. d. The reaction always results in the synthesis of carbon compounds. e. A covalent bond that joins two monomers is broken.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.3 - Define and provide examples of dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions.

38. What elements are carbohydrates composed of? a. carbon and oxygen b. carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen c. carbon and water d. hydrogen, oxygen, and sucrose e. carbon and sucrose ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic CompW ou nt. iaW l tS o Human Functioning WnWd.s TEsBsSeM LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.4 - Compare and contrast the general molecular structure of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids using chemical formulas.

39. What characteristic do all lipids share? a. All lipids are radioactive. b. All lipids are hydrophobic. c. All lipids dissolve in water. d. All lipids contain nitrogen. e. All lipids contain heavy metals.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.4 - Compare and contrast the general molecular structure of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids using chemical formulas.

40. What do the five monosaccharides (glucose, fructose, galactose, ribose, and deoxyribose) have in common? a. They are not found in plants or animals. b. These molecules are all hydrocarbon rings. c. These molecules are sourced from the earth’s crust. d. They all are destroyed by sunlight. e. They are major causes of cancer.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember

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REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.5 - Describe the building blocks of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids, and explain how these building blocks combine with themselves or other molecules to create complex molecules in each class, providing specific examples.

41. Which statement best describes phospholipids? a. They are lipid molecules modified with a phosphate group. b. They are non-polar lipids. c. They are non-hydrophilic lipids. d. They are all harmful to mammalian health. e. They are all decomposed over time.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.5 - Describe the building blocks of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids, and explain how these building blocks combine with themselves or other molecules to create complex molecules in each class, providing specific examples.

42. Which of the following elements is present in all proteins? a. iron b. sulphur c. nitrogen d. lithium e. sodium ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.6 - Describe the four levels of protein structure and the importance of protein shape for function.

43. How many amino acids are there in the human body? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 e. 25 ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.6 - Describe the four levels of protein structure and the importance of protein shape for function.

44. What are the two groups of nucleic acids in cells? a. RNA and DNA b. RNA and nucleotides c. DNA and adenine d. guanine and adenine

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e. purine and adenine ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.6 - Describe the four levels of protein structure and the importance of protein shape for function.

45. What statement best describes the function of nucleic acids? a. They make up the genetic information of all living things. b. They support digestion. c. They control the pH levels within the body. d. They control acidity within cells. e. They ensure cells have the correct amount of water.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 3.5 Organic Compounds Essential to Human Functioning LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.5.6 - Describe the four levels of protein structure and the importance of protein shape for function.

Essay 46. Describe the particles within an atom and their characteristics, including charge, mass, and location within the atom.

ANSWER: Atoms are made up of even smaller particles, three types of so-called subatomic particles: proton; neutron; andWeW leW ct. roT n.BPS roM to.nW s cSarry a positive charge, electrons carry a negative charge, and neutrons are neutral, carrying no charge. Protons and neutrons lie in the nucleus (center) of the atom and have mass. The number of each proton and neutron in the nucleus of the atom determines the mass of the element. The electrons of the atom spin around the nucleus quite quickly, close to the speed of light, and do not contribute to the atom’s mass. Also, an electron has about 1/2000th the mass of a proton or neutron, so even if these orbiters did stay still, they would contribute very little mass.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 3.1 Elements and Atoms: The Building Blocks of Matter LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.1.2 - Describe the charge, mass, and relative location of electrons, protons, and neutrons in an atom.

47. Describe why radioisotopes are harmful to human cells.

ANSWER: Radioisotopes emit their unstable subatomic particles in predictable ways. As these subatomic particles disseminate, they can destabilize and cause damage to nearby molecules. For these reasons, radioactivity can be very harmful to human cells. However, this molecular and cellular damage can be harnessed in some cases to treat disease.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 3.1 Elements and Atoms: The Building Blocks of Matter LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.1.4 - Explain how ions and isotopes are produced by changing the relative number of specific subatomic particles, using one element as an example.

48. Describe the function of hydrogen bonds between water molecules.

ANSWER: Hydrogen bonds hold water molecules together – a property known as water cohesion.

Hydrogen bonding occurs between the partially positive charge on the hydrogen atoms and the partially negative charge on the oxygen atoms of neighboring water molecules.

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Hydrogen bonds are relatively weak. While individual hydrogen bonds are weak, hydrogen bonds among many water molecules simultaneously can be quite strong.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 3.2 Chemical Bonds LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.2.2 - List the following types of bonds in order by relative strength: nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.

49. Explain how temperature generally affects chemical reactions and describe temperature homeostasis within the body.

ANSWER: Nearly all chemical reactions occur at a faster rate at higher temperatures. The kinetic energy of subatomic particles increases in response to increases in thermal energy. The higher the temperature, the faster the particles move, and the more likely they are to come in contact and react with each other. For this reason, the human body maintains temperature homeostasis around 37°C (98.6°F), allowing for a predictable rate of kinetic energy and therefore rate of reactions. When the body deviates from this homeostatic range, such as during a fever, reaction rates increase but the stability of hydrogen bonds may be compromised.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 3.3 Chemical Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.3.2 - Compare and contrast endergonic and exergonic chemical reactions.

50. Name and describe the most important catalysts in the human body and their impact on activation energy.

ANSWER: The most important catalysts in the human body are enzymes. An enzyme is a protein that lowers the activation energy to speed up chemical reactions.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 3.3 Chemical Reactions WWW.TBSM.WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 3.3.5 - Define enzyme and describe factors that affect enzyme activity.

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Chapter 04 - The Cellular Level of Organization Multiple Choice 1. What are the components of cellular membranes? a. oxygen, iron, and carbon b. phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins c. water and salts d. bases, acids, and water e. organic and inorganic compounds ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.1 The Cell Membrane and Its Involvement in Transport LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1.1 - Describe the structure of the cell (plasma) membrane, including its composition and arrangement of lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates.

2. What is a glycoprotein? a. A protein that has carbohydrate molecules attached to it. b. A protein found in the blood. c. A protein required for digestion. d. A protein found only in nerve cells. e. A protein that has water molecules attached to it.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember WWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 4.1 The Cell Membrane and Its Involvement in Transport LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1.3 - Describe the functions of different plasma membrane proteins (e.g., structural proteins, receptor proteins, channels).

3. Interstitial fluid is considered . a. part of the extracellular fluid contained within blood vessels b. part of the intracellular fluid not contained within blood vessels c. part of the extracellular fluid not contained within blood vessels d. a fluid only found in the brain e. a fluid that supports digestion ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.1 The Cell Membrane and Its Involvement in Transport LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1.2 - Compare and contrast intracellular fluid and extracellular fluid with respect to chemical composition and location.

4. What is the function of the membrane’s lipid bilayer structure? a. To control the intake of water to ensure homeostasis. b. To stimulate the production of lipids. c. To control the movement of all polar, charged, or large molecules across the membrane. d. To control the movement of all fluids in the body. e. To support the follow of blood.

ANSWER: c

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.1 The Cell Membrane and Its Involvement in Transport LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1.4 - Compare and contrast simple diffusion across membranes and facilitated diffusion in respect to their mechanisms, the type of material being moved, and the energy source for the movement.

5. What is a concentration gradient? a. The gradient of a liquid within the cell. b. The difference in concentration of a substance between two regions. c. The amount of blood cells in the body. d. The highest concentration level expected. e. The accumulation of all gradients in a fluid.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.1 The Cell Membrane and Its Involvement in Transport LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1.5 - Compare and contrast facilitated diffusion, primary active transport, and secondary active transport in respect to their mechanisms, the type of material being moved, and the energy source for the movement.

6. What statement best describes diffusion? a. The movement of molecules from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration. b. Molecular separation within the cell. c. The movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. d. The dilution of ions in water. e. The separation of different molecules in the body.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.1 The Cell Membrane and Its Involvement in Transport LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1.5 - Compare and contrast facilitated diffusion, primary active transport, and secondary active transport in respect to their mechanisms, the type of material being moved, and the energy source for the movement.

7. Which of the following statements best describes osmosis? a. The diffusion of water though a semipermeable membrane. b. The transfer of fluids from the environment to the body. c. The flow of blood to all parts of the body. d. The voluntary transfer of fluids. e. The evaporation of water from cells.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.1 The Cell Membrane and Its Involvement in Transport LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1.6 - Define osmosis and explain how it differs from simple diffusion across membranes.

8.

Which of the following statements best defines isosmotic solutions? a. Solutions with different osmolarities – concentrations of solutes. b. Solutions that maintain the same temperature and viscosity.

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c. Two solutions that have the same osmolarity – concentration of solutes. d. Solutions that have radioactive properties. e. Solutions produced and secreted by the cells of the body.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.1 The Cell Membrane and Its Involvement in Transport LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1.7 - Compare and contrast osmolarity and tonicity of solutions.

9. Which of the following statements best describes a hypotonic solution? a. The state of very high concentration of molecules within the solution. b. A solution that has a lower concentration of solutes than the cell it surrounds. c. A solution that has a higher concentration of solutes than the cell it surrounds. d. The velocity of the transfer of fluids in the body. e. The flow of fluids in the body.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.1 The Cell Membrane and Its Involvement in Transport LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1.7 - Compare and contrast osmolarity and tonicity of solutions.

10. What is required to transport a substance against its concentration gradient – movement of the substance from a lower concentration to a higher concentration? a. ATP b. water c. oxygen d. carbohydrates e. electrons ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.1 The Cell Membrane and Its Involvement in Transport LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1.7 - Compare and contrast osmolarity and tonicity of solutions.

11. Which of the following best describes the cytoplasm? a. Watery inside of the cell with all its compartments and organelles. b. The entire cell including all of its components. c. A component within the nucleus of the cell. d. All of the molecules within the cell. e. The chemical reactions within a cell.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.2 The Cytoplasm and Cellular Organelles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2.1 - Compare and contrast cytoplasm and cytosol.

12. Which of the following best describes the nucleus of the cell? a. The smallest organelle in the center of all cells. b. The largest organelle that contains DNA. c. The solid mass in the center of the cell that contains protons and neutrons.

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d. Always located in the center all body cells. e. The location where all chemical reactions take place.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.2 The Cytoplasm and Cellular Organelles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2.1 - Compare and contrast cytoplasm and cytosol.

13. What statement best describes the function of endoplasmic reticulum (ER)? a. Provides the energy required for cellular function. b. Produces and secretes the plasma required for cellular function. c. Provides the materials for the transformation of molecules. d. Provides membranous passage for transporting, synthesizing and storing materials. e. Produces water and other elements required for cellular function.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.2 The Cytoplasm and Cellular Organelles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2.3 - Describe the three main parts of a cell (plasma [cell] membrane, cytoplasm, and nucleus), and explain the general functions of each part.

14. What organelles form the endomembrane system? a. The ER, cell membrane, and nucleus. b. The nucleus and Golgi apparatus. c. The ER, Golgi apparatus, and vesicles. d. The SER and RER. e. The nucleus and ER. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.2 The Cytoplasm and Cellular Organelles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2.3 - Describe the three main parts of a cell (plasma [cell] membrane, cytoplasm, and nucleus), and explain the general functions of each part.

15. What is the primary function of the cell’s cytoskeleton? a. It aids in mobility of the cell. b. It provides the chemical elements required for cellular function. c. It maintains the proper cellular temperature. d. It produces the required level of water in the cell. e. It maintains the internal structure of the cell.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.2 The Cytoplasm and Cellular Organelles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2.5 - Describe the structure and roles of the cytoskeleton.

16. What are the three major classes of cytoskeleton fibers? a. microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments b. small, medium, and large filaments c. microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and elongated filaments

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d. elastic, inelastic, and intermediate filaments e. microtubules, macrotubules, and cytofibers ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.2 The Cytoplasm and Cellular Organelles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2.5 - Describe the structure and roles of the cytoskeleton.

17. Which of the following best describes organelles? a. A membrane surrounding the cell. b. Membrane-enclosed bodies within the cell. c. The molecules within the cell. d. The chemical elements on the surface of the cells. e. The membranes not included in the cell.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.2 The Cytoplasm and Cellular Organelles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2.2 - Define the term organelle.

18. What are the three types of appendages on various human cells? a. organelles, hydrocarbons, and membranes b. micromembranes, macromembranes, and organelles c. microvilli, cilia, and flagella d. microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments e. water molecules, hydrocarbons, and oxides ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.2 The Cytoplasm and Cellular Organelles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2.4 - Describe the structure and function of the various cellular organelles.

19. Which of the following statements best describes microvilli and their function? a. They are large projections on the surface of the cell to protect the cell. b. They are membranes within the cell to support energy production. c. They are molecules within the cell to support protein production. d. They are tiny and numerous projections on the surface of cells that expand surface area. e. They are large bodies within the cell that provide stability.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.2 The Cytoplasm and Cellular Organelles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2.4 - Describe the structure and function of the various cellular organelles.

20. Which of the following best describes mitochondria? a. An organelle that provides water to the cells. b. Membranes within the cell that produce oxygen. c. Molecules within the cell to support protein production. d. Tiny and numerous projections on the surface of cells that expand surface area. e. Membranous organelles that produce energy for the cell.

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ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.2 The Cytoplasm and Cellular Organelles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2.4 - Describe the structure and function of the various cellular organelles.

21. The entire set of genetic instructions of an organism is called a(n) . a. genome b. DNA c. RNA d. genetic make-up e. genetic sequence ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.3 The Nucleus and DNA LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.3.1 - Describe the structure and contents of the nucleus.

22. What is the largest and most prominent organelle of the cell called? a. The membrane b. The nucleus c. The mitochondria d. The nucleosome e. The chromosome ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: RemembW erWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 4.3 The Nucleus and DNA LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.3.1 - Describe the structure and contents of the nucleus.

23. The collection of genetic instructions used to build and maintain every molecule of every cell is coded in the . a. RNA b. DNA c. cell membrane d. chromosomes e. genome ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.3 The Nucleus and DNA LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.3.2 - Explain the organization of the DNA molecule within the nucleus.

24. The four types of nitrogenous bases in DNA are represented by which four letters? a. A, B, C, and D b. B, T, C, and G c. A, T, C, and G d. A, X, C, and G e. C, G, T, and B ANSWER: c

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.3 The Nucleus and DNA LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.3.2 - Explain the organization of the DNA molecule within the nucleus.

25. What do you call a segment of DNA that provides the genetic information necessary to build a single protein? a. gene b. genome c. mRNA d. RNA e. ATMG ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.4 Protein Synthesis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4.1 - Define the terms genetic code, transcription, and translation.

26. Which of the following best describes the process called transcription? a. The production of water molecules within the cell. b. The transfer of genetic information into an MMA molecule. c. The destruction of genes. d. The copying of a single strand of DNA. e. The production of a protein product.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.4 Protein SyntheWsW isW.TBSM.WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4.1 - Define the terms genetic code, transcription, and translation.

27. What are the three stages of the transcription process? a. beginning, continuation, and completion b. exclusion, separation, and termination c. initiation, elongation, and termination d. initiation, distraction, and completion e. start, processing, and completion ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.4 Protein Synthesis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4.1 - Define the terms genetic code, transcription, and translation.

28. What is the process of synthesizing a chain of amino acids called? a. transcription b. DNA Synthesis c. RNA Synthesis d. translation e. genome synthesis ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.4 Protein Synthesis

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4.2 - Explain the process of RNA synthesis.

29. Which of the following best describes ribosomes? a. Organelles found outside of the nucleus. b. Membrane proteins found on the surface of most cells. c. A type of chromosome found in the nucleus. d. DNA proteins along the endoplasmic reticulum. e. Non-membranous organelles composed of ribosomal RNA and proteins.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.4 Protein Synthesis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4.2 - Explain the process of RNA synthesis.

30. What are the three stages of the translation process? a. beginning, continuation, and completions b. exclusion, separation, and termination c. initiation, elongation, and termination d. initiation, distraction, and completion e. start, processing, and completion ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.4 Protein Synthesis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4.2 - Explain the process of RNA synthesis.

31. Which of the following best defines gene splicing? a. The DNA molecule being split into two separate strands. b. The division of both the DNA and RNA molecules. c. Creating a new protein within the cell. d. Creating mature mRNA molecule from pre-miRNA e. Splitting of the genome.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.4 Protein Synthesis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4.3 - Explain the roles of tRNA, mRNA, and rRNA in protein synthesis.

32. What is the single-stranded nucleic acid that carries a copy of the genetic code into the cytosol called? a. RNA b. chromosome c. gene d. organelle e. messenger RNA ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.4 Protein Synthesis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4.3 - Explain the roles of tRNA, mRNA, and rRNA in protein synthesis.

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33. What is the sequence of three bases on the tRNA molecule called? a. anticodon b. messenger RNA c. chromosome d. organelle e. polypeptide ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.4 Protein Synthesis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4.3 - Explain the roles of tRNA, mRNA, and rRNA in protein synthesis.

34. How many chromosomes are contained in somatic cells? a. 23 b. 46 c. 54 d. 92 e. 138 ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.5 Cell Replication LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5.2 - Describe the general phases (e.g., G phases, S phase, cellular division) of the cell cycle.

35. What is the haploid chromosomal number? a. 8 b. 16 c. 23 d. 46 e. 92 ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.5 Cell Replication LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5.2 - Describe the general phases (e.g., G phases, S phase, cellular division) of the cell cycle.

36. What are the three general phases of the cell cycle? a. birth, development, and death b. evolution, reproduction, and extinction c. early, mature, and replacement d. interphase, mitosis, and cytokinesis e. initiation, elongation, and termination ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.5 Cell Replication LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5.1 - Compare and contrast somatic cell division (mitosis) and reproductive cell division (meiosis).

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37. What are the phases during interphase, in order, prior to mitotic cellular division? a. G1 – G2 – S b. G1 – G2 – G3 c. S – G1 – G2 d. S1 – G1 – G2 e. G1 – S – G2 ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.5 Cell Replication LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5.1 - Compare and contrast somatic cell division (mitosis) and reproductive cell division (meiosis).

38. What do you call the process by which the cell nucleus breaks down and two new, fully functional, nuclei are formed? a. mitosis b. DNA replication c. meiosis d. nucleation e. translation ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.5 Cell Replication LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5.1 - Compare and contrast somatic cell division (mitosis) and reproductive cell division (meiosis).

39. During which of the following phases does DNA replication occur? a. G1 phase b. S phase c. G2 phase d. G1 and S phases e. G1 and G2 phases ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.5 Cell Replication LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5.3 - Describe DNA replication.

40. What is the enzyme that adds free nucleotides to the end of a replicating DNA chain? a. nucleic acid b. RNA c. DNA polymerase d. mRNA e. telomerase ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.5 Cell Replication LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5.3 - Describe DNA replication.

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41. What are the three stages of the DNA replication process? a. beginning, continuation, and completion b. exclusion, separation, and termination c. initiation, elongation, and termination d. initiation, distraction, and completion e. start, processing, and completion ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.5 Cell Replication LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5.4 - Compare and contrast chromatin, chromosomes, and chromatids.

42. What happens to chromosomes during mitosis? a. They are eliminated from the cell. b. They are divided into their subunits. c. They are replicated. d. They are organized and distributed equally. e. They are transformed into different chromosomes.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.5 Cell Replication LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.5.5 - Describe the events that take place during mitosis and cytokinesis.

43. Which of the following best describes stem cells? a. A cell specialized for brain function. b. A highly differentiated cell in the body. c. A cell with specialized functions. d. Cells never found in early embryos. e. An unspecialized cell that can be replicated as needed.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.6 Cellular Differentiation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.6.2 - Discuss how the generalized cells of a developing embryo or the stem cells of an adult organism become differentiated into specialized cells.

44. What is the term that describes the process by which unspecialized cells become specialized? a. differentiation b. specialization c. cell conversion d. cell evolution e. cell modification ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.6 Cellular Differentiation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.6.1 - Summarize the properties of cells that distinguish them from differentiated cells.

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45. What is the class of proteins that bind to specific genes on the DNA molecule and promote its expression? a. transcription factors b. RNA molecules c. chromosomes d. stem proteins e. proteosomes ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 4.6 Cellular Differentiation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.6.1 - Summarize the properties of cells that distinguish them from differentiated cells.

Essay 46. Define and describe the differences between intracellular fluid and extracellular fluid.

ANSWER: Intracellular fluid (ICF) is the fluid within the cells which makes up the majority of total body water. The extracellular fluid (ECF) is the fluid outside of the cell and includes plasma and interstitial fluid. The term extracellular fluid always refers to the fluid immediately outside of a cell; however, it can be referred to by more regionally specific terms as well.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 4.1 The Cell Membrane and Its Involvement in Transport LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.1.1 - Describe the structure of the cell (plasma) membrane, including its composition and arrangement of lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates.

47. Describe the composition of cellular membranes and their affinity for water.

ANSWER: The cell membrane is composed of a phospholipid bilayer embedded with many types of proteins. The phospholipid bilayer is arranged so that the polar heads, which are hydrophilic, are in contact with water (e.g., intracellular fluid or extracellular fluid) and the nonpolar tails, which are hydrophobic, are not in contact with the surrounding water. Like phospholipids, proteins arrange themselves within the membrane according to their solubility in water. Hydrophobic regions of a protein will be found within the hydrophobic phospholipid tails and protein hydrophilic regions are typically at the peripheries of the membrane, near the hydrophilic, polar heads. Other molecules within the plasma membrane include cholesterol and carbohydrates on the surface.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 4.2 The Cytoplasm and Cellular Organelles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2.3 - Describe the three main parts of a cell (plasma [cell] membrane, cytoplasm, and nucleus), and explain the general functions of each part.

48. Name the two forms of membranous endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and describe differences in their structure and function.

ANSWER: There are two forms of endoplasmic reticulum (ER) within a typical cell: the rough ER and smooth ER. Rough ER (RER) is referred to as “rough” because of the rough, or studded, appearance of ribosomes on the surface of the ER membrane under an electron microscope. The ribosomes on the surface of the RER aid in protein synthesis. RER also function in protein storage and vesicular transportation to the Golgi apparatus. Smooth ER (SER) lacks surface ribosomes and has a smooth appearance under the electron microscope. SER generally functions to synthesize lipid molecules.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 4.2 The Cytoplasm and Cellular Organelles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.2.4 - Describe the structure and function of the various cellular organelles.

49. Explain the structure of a DNA molecule and the four types of nitrogenous DNA bases and base-pairing.

ANSWER: A DNA molecule is composed of two strands that “complement” each other; this means that the molecules fit together and bind to each other, which creates a double-stranded molecule that looks much like a long, twisted ladder. The particular sequence of bases along the DNA molecule determines the genetic code. Each side rail of the DNA ladder is composed of alternating sugar and phosphate groups. The “rungs” of the ladder are made up of nitrogenous base pairs. There are four types of nitrogenous bases in DNA: adenine (A); thymine (T); cytosine (C); and guanine (G). A pairs with T and G pairs with C. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 4.3 The Nucleus and DNA LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.3.2 - Explain the organization of the DNA molecule within the nucleus.

50. Describe how RNA is different from DNA. ANSWER: There are several different types of RNA, each having different functions in the cell. The structure of RNA is similar to DNA, with a few small exceptions. For one thing, unlike DNA, most types of RNA, including mRNA, are single-stranded and contain no complementary strand. Second, the ribose sugar in RNA contains an additional oxygen atom, not present in DNA. Finally, instead of the base thymine (T), RNA contains the base uracil (U). This means that adenine will always pair up with uracil during the protein synthesis process.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 4.4 Protein Synthesis MN .AWS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 4.4.2 - Explain theWpW roWc. esTsBoS fR synthesis.

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Chapter 05 - The Tissue Level of Organization Multiple Choice 1. What is the microscopic study of tissue appearance, organization, and function called? a. histology b. tissue biology c. microanalysis d. tissue detailed anatomy e. microbiology ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.1 Types and Components of Tissues LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1.1 - Define the term histology.

2. What are the four categories of tissue? a. muscle, nervous, bone, and skin b. epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous c. skin, bone, muscle, and epithelial d. transitory, epithelial, permanent, and nervous e. permanent, regenerated, muscle, and nervous ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.1 Types and Com poWn. en sS ofMT.isW su WW TtB Ses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1.2 - List the four major tissue types.

3. Which of the following statements best describes epithelial tissue? a. Tissue found in all organs of the body. b. Tissue that produces movement via contractions. c. Tissue that cover exterior surfaces of the body. d. Tissue found only in the brain. e. Tissue that binds cells to other cells.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.1 Types and Components of Tissues LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1.2 - List the four major tissue types.

4. What statement best describes connective tissue? a. The most specific tissue in the body. b. Tissue that produces body motion. c. Tissue that attaches muscles to bone. d. Tissue that ties the cells and organs of the body together. e. Tissue only found in the brain and spinal cord.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.1 Types and Components of Tissues

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1.3 - Compare and contrast the general features of the four major tissue types.

5. What statement best describes nervous tissue? a. Tissue only found in the brain. b. Tissue that attaches muscle to bone. c. Tissue that ties the cells and organs of the body together. d. Tissue only found in muscles. e. Tissue capable of short- and long-distance communication throughout the body.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.1 Types and Components of Tissues LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1.3 - Compare and contrast the general features of the four major tissue types.

6. What statement best describes extracellular matrix (ECM)? a. A network of substances that surround and support the cells in a tissue. b. A substance found in all tissues with the same properties. c. A substance found only in neural tissue. d. A substance only found as an intracellular component. e. A matrix found inside all types of cells.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.1 Types and Components of Tissues LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1.4 - Describe the components and functions of extracellular matrix.

7. What statement best describes collagen? a. A protein only found in the brain and spinal cord. b. The most abundant protein in the human body. c. A watery substance found in cells. d. A type of tissue found in muscles and bone. e. A type of cell found in all tissue types.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.1 Types and Components of Tissues LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1.4 - Describe the components and functions of extracellular matrix.

8. What are the three basic types of cell-to-cell connections? a. weak, strong, and variable b. tight, loose, and weak c. tight junctions, desmosomes, and gap junctions d. tight, gap, and weak e. strong junctions, weak junctions, and gap junctions ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.1 Types and Components of Tissues LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1.5 - Compare and contrast the types of intercellular connections (cell junctions) with respect to structure and function.

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9. What are specialized cell junctions that allow electrical and metabolic coupling between adjacent cells? a. desmosomes b. tight junctions c. fluid-like junctions d. gap junctions e. electro-metabolic junctions ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.1 Types and Components of Tissues LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1.5 - Compare and contrast the types of intercellular connections (cell junctions) with respect to structure and function.

10. What is the main function of epithelial tissue? a. Production of enzymes. b. Transfer of information from the brain to the spinal cord. c. Water homeostasis in the surrounding tissues. d. Protection, a tissue barrier. e. Connection among multiple organs.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2.1 - Describe the structural characteristics common to all types of epithelia.

11. What important structural and functional features do all epithelia share? a. Very viscous with a lot of extracellular material present. b. Watery substance with limited structural support. c. Loosely packed cells. d. Very elastic and never replaced. e. Highly cellular, with little or no extracellular material present between cells.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2.1 - Describe the structural characteristics common to all types of epithelia.

12. Why is epithelial tissue considered avascular? a. It has no direct access to blood vessels. b. It does not move from place to place. c. It is composed of many blood vessels. d. It is close to other blood vessels. e. It is often difficult to remove.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2.2 - Classify different types of epithelial tissues based on structural characteristics.

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13. What is the name of the epithelial edge exposed to the external environment within the lumen space? a. basal membrane b. apical membrane c. superior membrane d. exposed membrane e. top surface ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2.2 - Classify different types of epithelial tissues based on structural characteristics.

14. Epithelial cells can be classified into three different shapes. What are the three shapes? a. small, medium, and large b. squamous, cuboidal, and columnar c. flat, round, and oblong d. cubic, spherical, and columnar e. circular, rectangular, and triangular ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2.3 - Describe the microscopic anatomy, location, and function of each epithelial tissue type.

15. What are two characteristics of epithelial cell classification? a. location and function b. size and number of cells c. shape and number of cell layers d. cellular composition and location e. cell shape and size ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2.3 - Describe the microscopic anatomy, location, and function of each epithelial tissue type.

16. What is generally observed with simple squamous epithelium? a. Very slow passage of chemical compounds. b. Very thick cellular structure. c. No passage of any chemical compounds. d. Rapid passage of certain chemical compounds. e. The ability to move on the surface.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2.4 - Identify examples of each type of epithelial tissue.

17. What statement best describes goblet cells? a. They are water soluble. b. They are transitional cells. c. They tend to be very unstable. d. They are rare in the human body. e. They are mucus-secreting cells.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2.4 - Identify examples of each type of epithelial tissue.

18. What statement best describes endocrine glands? a. They do not secrete substances. b. They are always ductless. c. They are only found in the brain. d. They are only found in developmentally mature mammals. e. They eventually develop into exocrine glands in utero.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2.5 - Compare and contrast exocrine and endocrine glands, structurally and functionally.

19. What do you call an anatomical structure that synthesizes and secretes specific chemicals? a. A gland b. An organelle c. A type of tissue d. A molecule e. An epithelium ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2.5 - Compare and contrast exocrine and endocrine glands, structurally and functionally.

20. Endocrine glands secrete which of the following substances into the bloodstream? a. watery fluids b. hormones c. endorphins d. chemical bases e. chemical acids ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2.6 - Compare and contrast the different kinds of exocrine glands based on structure, method of secretion, and locations in the body.

21. What are the three modes of exocrine secretion? a. minimal, continuous, and extensive b. cyclical, periodic, and continuous c. merocrine, apocrine, and holocrine d. squamous, cuboidal, and columnar e. solid, liquid, and gaseous ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.2.6 - Compare and contrast the different kinds of exocrine glands based on structure, method of secretion, and locations in the body.

22. What are the three characteristic components of connective tissue? a. specialized cells, large amounts of ground substance, and proteins b. specialized cells, amino acids, and proteins c. proteins, chemical acids, and chemical bases d. proteins, hormones, and specialized cells e. specialized cells, hormones, and amino acids ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.3 Connective TisWsW ueW.TBSM.WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.3.1 - Describe the structural characteristics common to all types of connective tissue.

23. What statement best describes ground substance? a. The watery substance found in all cell types. b. The fluid or material between cells and protein fibers. c. The material found under all fiber matrices. d. The base material found in all fibers. e. The fluid inside all fibers.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.3 Connective Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.3.1 - Describe the structural characteristics common to all types of connective tissue.

24. What are the three major categories of connective tissue? a. weak, stencil, and strong b. solid, fluid, and cartilage c. proper, supportive, and fluid d. flexible, fluid, and strong e. fluid, solid, and flexible ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember

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REFERENCES: 5.3 Connective Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.3.2 - Classify different types of connective tissues based on their structural characteristics, functions, and locations in the body.

25. What statement best describes fibroblasts? a. They remove all unwanted tissue. b. They produce and secrete enzymes into the extracellular fluid. c. They are intracellular molecules. d. They are responsible for synthesizing protein fibers. e. They are found only in skeletal muscle tissue.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.3 Connective Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.3.2 - Classify different types of connective tissues based on their structural characteristics, functions, and locations in the body.

26. What are the three main types of fibers secreted by fibroblasts? a. weak, fluid, and strong b. elastic, inelastic, and variable c. collagen, fluid, and fixed d. reticular, standard, and variable e. collagen, elastic, and reticular ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remembe WrWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 5.3 Connective Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.3.3 - Identify examples of each type of connective tissue.

27. What statement best describes adipose tissue? a. Loose connective tissue with cells that have little extracellular matrix. b. Strong connective tissue with an abundance of extracellular matrix. c. Connective tissue only found in the central nervous system, brain and spinal cord. d. Watery connective tissue found on the surface of the skeleton. e. Loose connective tissue that is not replaced.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.3 Connective Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.3.3 - Identify examples of each type of connective tissue.

28. What are the three types of muscle tissue? a. smooth, rough, and elongated b. skeletal, cardiac, and smooth c. cardiac, elongated, and strong d. strong, weak, and elongated e. concentrated, light, and strong ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember

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REFERENCES: 5.4 Muscle Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.4.1 - Describe the structural characteristics common to all types of muscle tissue.

29. What statement best describes skeletal muscle? a. Mostly fixed with minimal movement. b. Found mainly within the abdominal cavity. c. Attached to bones and produces body movements. d. Responsible for involuntary movements of internal organs. e. Forms the contractile walls of the heart.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.4 Muscle Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.4.1 - Describe the structural characteristics common to all types of muscle tissue.

30. What statement best describes cardiac muscle? a. Mostly fixed with minimal movement. b. Found mainly within the abdominal cavity. c. Attached to bones and produces body movements. d. Responsible for involuntary movements of internal organs. e. Forms the contractile walls of the heart.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remembe WrWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 5.4 Muscle Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.4.2 - Classify different types of muscle tissue based on structural characteristics, functions, and locations in the body.

31. What statement best describes smooth muscle? a. Mostly fixed with minimal movement. b. Found mainly within the abdominal cavity. c. Attached to bones and produces body movements. d. Responsible for involuntary movements of internal organs. e. Forms the contractile walls of the heart.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.4 Muscle Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.4.2 - Classify different types of muscle tissue based on structural characteristics, functions, and locations in the body.

32. What are the reasons for skeletal muscle cells remaining relatively constant in number throughout life? a. Their location within the body does not allow for replication. b. They are the same as the other muscle cell types. c. There is no replication of muscle cells. d. Their DNA does not allow for replication. e. They are incapable of mitosis due to their shape and multiple nuclei.

ANSWER: e

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.4 Muscle Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.4.3 - Identify examples of each type of muscle tissue.

33. What statement best describes neurons? a. They are cells that enable communication from one body part to another. b. They are cells that protect the nervous system. c. They are cells only found in the brain. d. They are cells that can easily replicate. e. They are cells that are responsible for body movement.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.5 Nervous Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5.1 - Describe and draw neurons and glial cells.

34. What is the gap between a neuron and its target called? a. neuronal gap b. synapse c. target gap d. electron e. glial gap ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.5 Nervous TissuW e WW.TBSM.WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5.1 - Describe and draw neurons and glial cells.

35. Short branches of the neuronal cell body that receive signals from neighboring cells are . a. neurons b. synapses c. dendrites d. axons e. electrons ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.5 Nervous Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5.2 - Compare and contrast neurons and glial cells with respect to cell structure and function.

36. What do you call the electrochemical impulses sent from the neuronal cell body to other cells throughout the body? a. chemical charges b. ion flow c. electrical gradients d. action potentials e. charged impulses ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember

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REFERENCES: 5.5 Nervous Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.5.2 - Compare and contrast neurons and glial cells with respect to cell structure and function.

37. What are the four kinds of tissue membranes that cover and line certain body structures? a. skeletal, cardiac, smooth, and rough b. synovial, elongated, fixed, and strong c. mucous, cardiac, skeletal, and smooth d. strong, weak, elongated, and fixed e. mucous, serous, cutaneous, and synovial ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.6 Membranes LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.6.1 - Describe the structure and function of mucous, serous, cutaneous, and synovial membranes.

38. What statement best describes cutaneous membranes? a. Stratified squamous epithelial membranes above connective tissue. b. A composite of connective and epithelial tissue. c. Epithelial membranes that line body cavities. d. Connective tissue membranes that line the cavity of a freely movable joint. e. Membranes that protect the nervous system.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remembe WrWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 5.6 Membranes LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.6.1 - Describe the structure and function of mucous, serous, cutaneous, and synovial membranes.

39. Where do you typically find cutaneous membranes? a. The heart b. The skin c. The brain d. The digestive tract e. Joints ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.6 Membranes LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.6.2 - Describe locations in the body where each type of membrane can be found.

40. Where do you typically find synovial membranes? a. The heart b. The skin c. The brain d. The digestive tract e. Joints ANSWER: e

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.6 Membranes LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.6.2 - Describe locations in the body where each type of membrane can be found.

41. What do you call the widening of the blood vessels upon tissue injury? a. vasodilation b. inflammation c. expansion d. edema e. angiogenesis ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.7 Tissue Growth and Healing LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.7.1 - List the benefits of the inflammatory response and describe the mechanisms that comprise this response.

42. What do you call the growth of new blood vessels upon tissue injury? a. vasodilation b. inflammation c. expansion d. edema e. angiogenesis ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: RemembW erWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 5.7 Tissue Growth and Healing LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.7.1 - List the benefits of the inflammatory response and describe the mechanisms that comprise this response.

43. What statement best describes the sensation of pain? a. The effects of prostaglandins on surrounding neurons stimulate pain. b. The flow of enzymes in the blood from the surrounding tissue stimulates pain. c. The molecular flow of ions from the site of injury to the brain stimulates pain. d. Proteins produced by the surrounding organs stimulate pain. e. The growth of new cells of the surrounding area post-injury stimulates pain.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.7 Tissue Growth and Healing LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.7.2 - Describe tissue repair following an injury.

44. What are the two major changes at the cellular and tissue level that contribute to aging? a. Reduced vitamin and mineral intake. b. Decreased rate of mitosis and reduced elastic fibers. c. Increased body weight and longitudinal exposure to radiation. d. Reduced blood flow to the brain and production of proteins. e. Increased intracellular lipid and acid content.

ANSWER: b

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.7 Tissue Growth and Healing LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.7.3 - Discuss the progressive impact of aging on tissue.

45. What do you call an error made while replicating DNA? a. DNA-error b. evolution c. mutation d. transformation e. alteration ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 5.7 Tissue Growth and Healing LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.7.4 - Describe cancerous mutations’ effect on tissue.

Essay 46. List the four main tissue types and explain how they differ.

ANSWER: In general, epithelial tissue covers exterior surfaces of the body, lines internal cavities and passageways, and forms certain glands. Connective tissue, the most diverse category of tissue, binds cells and organs together, and functions in the protection, support, and integration of all regions of the body. Muscle tissue is excitable and produces contractions for movement; movement can be movement of the skeleton (e.g., walking) or contracting to pump blood through the body (i.e., cardiac muscle). Nervous tissue is capable of shortand long-distance coWmWmWu. niT caB tiS onMt. hrW ouSghout the body.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 5.1 Types and Components of Tissues LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1.2 - List the four major tissue types.

47. Describe the important structural and functional features that all epithelial tissue shares.

ANSWER: All epithelial cells share some important structural and functional features. Epithelial tissue is highly cellular, with little or no extracellular material present between cells. Cells are in contact with other cells in almost every direction, resembling a brick wall. Often, adjoining cells are linked by cellular junctions. Similarly, epithelial cells are described as polar because they have two sides that are distinct. The apical side is exposed to the external environment, or an internal space, and the basal surface is the only side of the cell that faces the ECM. The specialized ECM that supports and anchors the basal epithelium is known as a basement membrane. This supportive membrane consists of two layers: the lamina lucida, a mixture of glycoproteins and collagen, which provides the immediate attachment site for the epithelium; and a lamina densa, which has a denser and more structural weave of tough collagen fibers. The lamina densa connects the epithelium to the underlying connective tissue.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 5.2 Epithelial Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.1.2 - List the four major tissue types.

48. Discuss where skeletal muscles can be found in the body and give some examples. Then, list some basic characteristics and functions of skeletal muscle.

ANSWER: About 40 percent of your body mass is made up of skeletal muscle. Skeletal muscle is

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primarily attached to bones. A muscle contraction moves the bones at the joint and aids in maintaining posture. For example, the muscles that attach to the vertebrae are important for vertebral extension, or upright posture. Some skeletal muscle is not attached to bones. For example, the muscles that attach to the skin are responsible or facial expression and the muscles found on the superior region of the throat aid in swallowing. Skeletal muscle uses a tremendous amount of energy, and the increased conversion of nutrients to ATP during skeletal muscle contraction generates a lot of heat. Therefore, skeletal muscles have a role in body temperature homeostasis. When body temperature falls, involuntary contraction of skeletal muscles, shivering, is one mechanism to return body temperature back to the homeostatic range.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 5.4 Muscle Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.4.1 - Describe the structural characteristics common to all types of muscle tissue.

49. Describe the characteristics and function of tissue membrane.

ANSWER: Tissue membrane is a thin sheet of cells that covers the outside of the body (for example, skin), the organs (for example, pericardium), internal passageways that lead to the exterior of the body (for example, abdominal mesenteries), or the lining of the moveable joint cavities. There are four types of tissue membranes: mucous; serous; cutaneous; and synovial.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 5.6 Membranes LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.6.1 - Describe the structure and function of mucous, serous, cutaneous, and synovial membranes.

50. Describe the four signs of inflammation and the treatment of each.

ANSWER: Inflammation is generally presented with these four signs: heat; pain; redness; and swelling at the site of injury. Pain associated with inflammation is due to the secretion of prostaglandins that bind to the neurons that send pain signals to the brain. The perceived pain from inflammation is from physical damage to the tissue and the tissue constraints of swelling. To help alleviate the pain, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), like acetaminophen and ibuprofen, are drugs that prevent the release of prostaglandins by inhibiting enzymes that make them. To reduce the swelling and the pain associated with it, the most effective mechanism is to induce vasoconstriction (i.e., a reduction in blood flow).

The best way to vasoconstrict at an injured area is to cool the inflamed region using ice.

The body’s natural reaction to cold is vasoconstriction. Another treatment that can be helpful is compression or elevation of the area to assist in fluid drainage through the lymph vessels.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 5.7 Tissue Growth and Healing LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 5.7.1 - List the benefits of the inflammatory response and describe the mechanisms that comprise this response.

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Chapter 06 - The Integumentary System Multiple Choice 1. What is the largest organ in the body? a. skin b. heart c. lungs d. intestine e. skeleton ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.1 - List the components of the integumentary system.

2. What is the name of the organ system that refers to the skin, hair, nails, and exocrine glands? a. integumentary b. epidermis c. exoskeleton d. dermis e. exterior ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the SWkW inW.TBSM.WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.1 - List the components of the integumentary system.

3. What do you call the intracellular fibrous protein that gives hair, nails, and skin their hardness and water-resistant properties? a. keratinocyte b. facia c. keratin d. melanin e. basale ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.4 - Identify and describe the layers of the epidermis, indicating which are found in thin skin and which are found in thick skin.

4. What do you call the epidermal layer of cells that is only found on the palms of the hands and the sole of the feet? a. keratinocyte b. stratum corneum c. stratum granulosum d. stratum lucidum e. stratum spinosum ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember

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REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.2 - Describe the general functions of the integumentary system and the subcutaneous layer.

5. The epidermis is composed of which of the following tissue types? a. connective tissue b. fascia tissue c. stratum tissue d. nervous tissue e. epithelial tissue ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.3 - Identify and describe the tissue type making up the epidermis.

6. The specialized squamous epithelium the epidermis is primarily composed of is called . a. keratinized stratified squamous epithelium b. corneum squamous epithelium c. granulosum stratified squamous epithelium d. lucidum squamous epithelium e. spinosum squamous epithelium ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the SWkW inW.TBSM.WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.3 - Identify and describe the tissue type making up the epidermis.

7. Which of the following statements best describes thin skin? a. It is found only on the palms and soles of the feet. b. It exists all over the body and has four cell layers. c. It has five separate epithelial layers. d. It is found only in young skin. e. It tends to disappear with age.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.4 - Identify and describe the layers of the epidermis, indicating which are found in thin skin and which are found in thick skin.

8. Which of the following statements best describes thick skin? a. It is found only on the palms and soles of the feet. b. It exists all over the body and has four cell layers. c. It has five separate epithelial layers. d. It is found only in young skin. e. It tends to disappear with age.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.4 - Identify and describe the layers of the epidermis, indicating which are found in thin skin and which are found in thick skin.

9. What is the name of the deepest layer of cells within the epidermis, most of them are stem cells, or precursors for keratinocytes? a. corneum squamous b. stratum granulosum c. stratum lucidum d. stratum spinosum e. stratum basale ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.5 - Describe the processes of growth and keratinization of the epidermis.

10. What are the two primary forms of melanin? a. eumelanin and pheomelanin b. darker and lighter c. red and white d. large-celled and small-celled e. basale and lucidum ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remembe WrWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.5 - Describe the processes of growth and keratinization of the epidermis.

11. What is the primary function of the Langerhans (dendritic) cell? a. Accelerate the production of melanin. b. Engulf bacteria and damaged cells. c. Provide elasticity to the skin. d. Protect and support skin DNA. e. Produce enzymes needed for epithelial cell reproduction.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.6 - Compare and contrast thin and thick skin with respect to location and function.

12. What do you call the connective tissue sheet that anchors the skin to the muscle beneath? a. epidermis b. fascia c. dermis d. keratinocyte e. basale ANSWER: b

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.10 - Identify and describe the dermis and its layers, including the tissue types making up each dermal layer.

13. The relative coloration of the skin depends on which of the following factors? a. The type of enzymes produced by the skin. b. Exposure to UV light. c. The amount of melanin stored in the melanocytes. d. The speed of skin cell reproduction. e. The number of Langerhans cells in the skin layers.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.8 - Describe the factors that contribute to skin color.

14. The thickness of the dermis varies based primarily on which of the following factors? a. Age of the individual. b. Nutrients ingested daily. c. Exposure to UV light. d. Location on the body. e. Altitude of the external environment.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: UnderstaW ndWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.10 - Identify and describe the dermis and its layers, including the tissue types making up each dermal layer.

15. When the dermis is stretched beyond its limits of elasticity, the skin shows evidence of . a. wrinkles b. massive skin deformities c. dermal destruction d. dermatitis e. stretch marks ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.10 - Identify and describe the dermis and its layers, including the tissue types making up each dermal layer.

16. What are the major functions of the hypodermis, or subcutaneous layer? a. Water retention, reproduction of new epithelium and temperature regulation. b. Fat storage, insulation and cushioning. c. A barrier against pathogens, water retention and cushioning. d. A barrier against pathogens and water retention. e. Water repellent, insulation and temperature regulation.

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ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.11 - List and identify the types of tissues found in the hypodermis.

17. What is the name of the layer directly below the dermis and serves to connect the skin to the underlying facia? a. reticular layer b. papillary layer c. hypodermal layer d. stratum basale e. stratum corneum ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.12 - Describe the functions of the subcutaneous layer.

18. What is the primary cause of wrinkles in the skin? a. dehydration during aging b. chronic excess salt intake c. decline in steroid hormones d. loss of collagen e. excessive adipose tissue ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: UnderstaW ndWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.7 - Explain how each of the five layers, as well as each of the following cell types and substances, contributes to the functions of the epidermis: stem cells of stratum basale, keratinocytes, melanocytes, epidermal dendritic (Langerhans) cells, tactile (Merkel) cells and discs, keratin, and extracellular lipids.

19. What makes the skin thinner and slower to heal during aging? a. Chronic dehydration, or decreased water intake, during aging. b. An abundance of dietary salt intake. c. Reduced production of steroid hormones. d. Reduced number of stem cells in the basal layer. e. Excessive adipose tissue.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.7 - Explain how each of the five layers, as well as each of the following cell types and substances, contributes to the functions of the epidermis: stem cells of stratum basale, keratinocytes, melanocytes, epidermal dendritic (Langerhans) cells, tactile (Merkel) cells and discs, keratin, and extracellular lipids.

20. What statement best describes the composition of the reticular layer within the dermis? a. Sparce, or few, connective tissue cells. b. Lacks sympathetic nerve innervation.

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c. No significant collagen fibers. d. Very thin collagen fibers. e. Well vascularized and rich sensory nerve supply.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.9 - Describe the functions of the dermis, including the specific function of each dermal layer.

21. What statement best describes the role played by adipose tissue in the hypodermis, or subcutaneous layer? a. thermoregulation b. hydration c. respiration d. reproduction e. disease control ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.13 - Describe the thermoregulatory role played by adipose tissue in the subcutaneous layer.

22. What is the name of the epidermal structure that the shaft of hair grows within? a. The hair follicle b. The hair bulb c. The hair matrix d. The hair root e. The dermis ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2.1 - Describe the structure and function of hair.

23. The oil gland associated with each hair follicle is called the . a. hair eccrine gland b. sebaceous gland c. follicular gland d. merocrine gland e. bulbus gland ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2.1 - Describe the structure and function of hair.

24. What is the name of the thin strip of just epidermis at the meeting point between the proximal nail fold and the nail body? a. nail folds

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b. lunula c. nail cuticle d. nail follicle e. nail beds ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2.3 - Describe the structure and function of nails.

25. Dermcidin is produced by eccrine glands and functions . a. to bring water to the skin’s surface b. as a supporting enzyme c. in producing large proteins d. as an antimicrobial e. to bring salt to the skin’s surface ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2.5 - Explain the physiological significance of the presence or absence of sebaceous (oil) glands, sudoriferous (sweat) glands, and hair in the skin of the palms and fingers.

26. Sweat from apocrine glands result in which of the following responses? a. Higher skin temperature. b. Dilated blood vessels. c. Odorous chemicals, or smell. d. Lower blood pressure. e. Increased heart rate.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2.4 - Describe the structure and function of exocrine glands of the integumentary system.

27. What factor determines the growth cycle of your hair follicles? a. environment b. age c. genetics d. nutrition e. nervous system ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2.2 - Describe the growth cycles of hair follicles and the growth of hairs.

28. Apocrine sweat glands secrete sweat though

.

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a. convection b. water pressure c. osmosis d. exocytosis e. molecular transfer ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2.2 - Describe the growth cycles of hair follicles and the growth of hairs.

29. The dermcidin and antibodies left behind on the skin from the evaporation of sweat provides what function? a. Repairs the skin. b. Softens the skin. c. Repairs skin DNA. d. Provides additional hormone secretions. e. Controls bacterial growth.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2.2 - Describe the growth cycles of hair follicles and the growth of hairs.

30. Which of the following statements best characterizes the activity of sebaceous glands? a. They are very active from birth until death. b. Their activity is constant and consistent throW ugWhW ou.t T thB eS daMy..WS c. They are only active during warm weather. d. They are typically inactive during childhood. e. They are only active during cold weather.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 6.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2.5 - Explain the physiological significance of the presence or absence of sebaceous (oil) glands, sudoriferous (sweat) glands, and hair in the skin of the palms and fingers.

31. What is the name of the oil glands found all over the body to help lubricate and waterproof the skin and hair? a. pineal glands b. oil follicular glands c. ductless glands d. secretory glands e. sebaceous glands ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2.5 - Explain the physiological significance of the presence or absence of sebaceous (oil) glands, sudoriferous (sweat) glands, and hair in the skin of the palms and fingers.

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32. The presence of keratin layers and glycolipids in the stratum corneum prevent . a. water loss b. the loss of vitamin D c. blood loss d. the loss of lipids e. the loss of respiration ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.3 Functions of the Integumentary System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3.1 - Explain how the integumentary system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.

33. The tactile corpuscles are responsible for which of the following sensations? a. touch b. pressure c. temperature d. pain e. humidity ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.3 Functions of the Integumentary System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3.1 - Explain how the integumentary system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.

34. The nociceptors are responsible for which of the following sensations? a. touch b. pressure c. temperature changes d. pain e. heat ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.3 Functions of the Integumentary System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3.1 - Explain how the integumentary system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.

35. The lamellated corpuscles are responsible for which of the following sensations? a. touch b. pressure c. temperature d. pain e. water ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.3 Functions of the Integumentary System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3.1 - Explain how the integumentary system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.

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36. The sympathetic nervous system is continuously monitoring and initiating appropriate responses to . a. changes in body temperature b. temperature of the environment c. humidity levels d. pain e. tactile pressure changes ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.3 Functions of the Integumentary System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3.2 - Explain how the integumentary system maintains homeostasis with respect to thermoregulation and water conservation.

37. The human skin needs to synthesize vitamin D. a. water b. steroid hormones c. UV radiation d. acidic proteins e. basic proteins ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 6.3 Functions of the Integumentary System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3.2 - Explain how the integumentary system maintains homeostasis with respect to thermoregulatioW nW an ervation.

Wd.wTaBteSrMco.nWsS 38. Rickets in children and osteomalacia in older adults have which of the following characteristic in common? a. Lack of exercise. b. Lack of protein in the diet. c. Lack of pure, or distilled, water. d. Lack of acidic intake. e. Lack of vitamin d.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.3 Functions of the Integumentary System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3.2 - Explain how the integumentary system maintains homeostasis with respect to thermoregulation and water conservation.

39. Where on the body are the specialized sensory nerves highly concentrated? a. Palm of the hand b. Tip of the fingers c. Bottom of the feet d. The face e. Both arms and legs ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.3 Functions of the Integumentary System

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.3.2 - Explain how the integumentary system maintains homeostasis with respect to thermoregulation and water conservation.

40. How do you accurately characterize a burn that affects both the epidermis and a portion of the dermis resulting in swelling and a painful blistering of the skin? a. First-degree burn b. Second-degree burn c. Third-degree burn d. Fourth-degree burn e. Severe burn ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 6.4 Healing the Integument LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.4.1 - Given a factor or situation (e.g., second-degree burns [partial-thickness burns]), predict the changes that could occur in the integumentary system and the consequences of those changes (i.e., given a cause, state a possible effect).

41. What is the first step to repairing damaged skin? a. Formation of scar. b. Formation of granulation tissue. c. Formation of blood clot. d. Formation of scabs. e. Blood vessels infiltration.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.4 Healing the Integument LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.4.1 - Given a factor or situation (e.g., second-degree burns [partial-thickness burns]), predict the changes that could occur in the integumentary system and the consequences of those changes (i.e., given a cause, state a possible effect).

42. What is the name of the scar tissue that has a sunken appearance due to insufficient collagen laid down in the healing process? a. keloid b. scab c. granulation tissue d. atrophic scar e. depression scar ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.4 Healing the Integument LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.4.1 - Given a factor or situation (e.g., second-degree burns [partial-thickness burns]), predict the changes that could occur in the integumentary system and the consequences of those changes (i.e., given a cause, state a possible effect).

43. Damage to DNA from overexposure to UV light most likely promotes which type of disease? a. infectious disease b. deficiency disease c. hereditary disease

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d. recurring disease e. cancer ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.4 Healing the Integument LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.4.2 - Given a disruption in the structure or function of the integumentary system (e.g., blisters), predict the possible factors or situations that might have caused that disruption (i.e., given an effect, predict possible causes).

44. What is the term that is defined as the process by which cancer cells are mobilized and tumors establish in multiple organs of the body? a. metastasis b. devolution c. cancer spread d. tumor transport e. carcinoma ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.4 Healing the Integument LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.4.2 - Given a disruption in the structure or function of the integumentary system (e.g., blisters), predict the possible factors or situations that might have caused that disruption (i.e., given an effect, predict possible causes).

45. What type of skin cancer is most common? a. basal cell carcinoma b. squamous cell carcinoma c. melanoma d. epidermis cancer e. bloom’s cancer ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 6.4 Healing the Integument LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.4.2 - Given a disruption in the structure or function of the integumentary system (e.g., blisters), predict the possible factors or situations that might have caused that disruption (i.e., given an effect, predict possible causes).

Essay 46. Describe the process that leads to acne.

ANSWER: Acne is the name for the immune reaction that can occur when the hair follicle becomes inflamed. The bacteria that feed off sebum can overgrow, triggering an inflammatory response. When hormone levels are changing or particularly high, especially during puberty, an overproduction and accumulation of sebum, along with keratin or dead cells, can block hair follicles. The bacteria and Staphylococcus species that live around the follicle, feeding off sebum and apocrine sweat, will multiply and may trigger an immune reaction and inflammation. If neutrophils are involved in the inflammatory process, a white pus may be present, the pus may turn black over time with exposure to air.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 6.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2.2 - Describe the growth cycles of hair follicles and the growth of hairs.

47. Explain two processes by which the skin aids in thermoregulation.

ANSWER: If body temperature rises significantly above homeostatic range, either due to a warm environment or exercise, sweat glands are stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system to produce large amounts of sweat, as much as 0.7–1.5 L per hour. When the sweat evaporates from the skin’s surface, the body is cooled because body heat is dissipated. In addition to sweating, blood vessels in the dermis dilate (vasodilation) so that excess heat is carried in the blood and can dissipate through the skin into the surrounding environment.

The combination of increased sweat production and a hotter skin surface to promote evaporation is very effective in cooling the body. During times when the body temperature dips below the homeostatic range, these blood vessels in the dermis vasoconstrict, reducing heat loss at the skin surface. If the temperature of the skin drops too much (such as environmental temperatures below freezing), the conservation of body core heat can result in the skin actually freezing, a condition called frostbite.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.2 Accessory Structures of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.2.4 - Describe the structure and function of exocrine glands of the integumentary system.

48. Describe the several overlapping stages during skin repair and healing.

ANSWER: The first step to repairing damaged skin is the formation of a blood clot, which helps stop the flow of blood and scabs over with time. Many different types of cells are involved in wound repair, especially if the surface area that needs repair is extensive. Before the basal stem cells of the stratum basale can recreate the epidermis, fibroblasts must mobilize and divide rapidly to depWoW siW t c. olTlaB geSnMa. ndWfS orm a bridge across which the epidermis can grow.

This quickly-made collagen bridge is called granulation tissue. Blood vessels infiltrate the area, bringing nutrients and an oxygen supply to the healing tissue. Immune cells, such as macrophages, roam the area and engulf any debris from the damaged tissue, or pathogens that invaded the wound, to reduce infection. Because the granulation tissue and epithelial covering are created so quickly, this healed area may have a different feel or texture to the surrounding skin. The dermis may be thicker, raised, or more rigid, and the epidermis may be thinner. The intense fibrous nature of the new tissue does not allow for the regeneration of accessory structures, such as hair follicles, sweat glands, or sebaceous glands. The combination of these characteristics is what we know of as a scar.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.4 Healing the Integument LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.4.1 - Given a factor or situation (e.g., second-degree burns [partial-thickness burns]), predict the changes that could occur in the integumentary system and the consequences of those changes (i.e., given a cause, state a possible effect).

49. Describe the composition of the stratum basale layer, its major cell types, and the function of each cell type.

ANSWER: The stratum basale is the deepest epidermal layer and attaches the epidermis to its basement membrane, which ties the epidermis to the dermis. The stratum basale is a single layer primarily composed of stem cells, precursors to keratinocytes of the epidermis. All keratinocytes are produced from this single layer of cells, which are constantly going through mitosis to produce replacement cells. As new cells are produced, the existing cells of the epidermis are pushed superficially away from the stratum basale. Just like all stem cells, the cells of the stratum basale exhibit decreased function as we age, leading to a thinner epidermis and slower wound healing.

Two other cell types are found dispersed among the stem cells in the stratum basale. The first is a Merkel cell, a sensory receptor stimulated by touch that is connected to sensory

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nerves to send signals to the brain for processing. These cells are especially abundant on the surfaces of the hands and feet. The second cell type is a melanocyte, a cell that produces the pigment melanin. Melanin, a protein that can be made in two forms, protects cells from ultraviolet radiation damage.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.4 - Identify and describe the layers of the epidermis, indicating which are found in thin skin and which are found in thick skin.

50. Describe the composition of the epidermis and its layers, include both thin and think skin.

ANSWER: The epidermis is composed of specialized stratified squamous epithelium called keratinized stratified squamous. Keratin is a fibrous protein that protects the underlying structures and gives hair, nail, and skin their hardness and water-resistant properties. Like all epithelia, the epidermis is avascular (does not contain blood vessels). The thin epithelium has four layers. From deep to superficial, the layers are the stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, and stratum corneum. The thick epithelium, located mainly on the palm of the hands and sole of the feet, has five layers. From deep to superficial, the layers are the stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 6.1 Layers of the Skin LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 6.1.3 - Identify and describe the tissue type making up the epidermis.

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Chapter 07 - Bone Tissue and the Skeletal System Multiple Choice 1. Where is calcium stored in the body? a. bone extracellular matrix b. bone marrow c. cartilage surrounding the bones d. blood e. collagen ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.1 The Functions of the Skeletal System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.1.1 - Describe the major functions of the skeletal system.

2. What are the two types of bone marrow? a. weak and strong marrow b. yellow and red marrow c. active and inactive marrow d. viscous and solid marrow e. brown and yellow marrow ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.1 The FunctionsWoW f tW h. eT SkBeSleMta.l W SySstem LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.1.1 - Describe the major functions of the skeletal system.

3. Where does hematopoiesis occur? a. yellow marrow b. yellow and red marrow c. red marrow d. in the blood surrounding the bone e. in hyaline cartilage ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.1 The Functions of the Skeletal System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.1.1 - Describe the major functions of the skeletal system.

4. What is the principal cause of the familiar bone ache sensation that we experience during an illness? a. Impact of the disease cells. b. The variation in body temperature during an illness. c. Immune cells in bone marrow reproducing wildly. d. The effect of the fever. e. Increase in the level of calcium.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 7.1 The Functions of the Skeletal System

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.1.4 - Predict disruptions to homeostasis if damage to the skeletal system occurred.

5. Circulating cells in your blood are generated from . a. multiple locations in the body, including bone marrow and the liver b. various organs over time c. multiple endocrine glands in the body and bone marrow d. stem cells in bone marrow e. bone marrow and the respiratory system ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.1 The Functions of the Skeletal System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.1.4 - Predict disruptions to homeostasis if damage to the skeletal system occurred.

6. What statement best describes the role of elastic cartilage in the skeletal system? a. A component of joints that can withstand heavy loads. b. Maintains hydration levels. c. Reduces any pain or damage to the underlying bones. d. Fights off pathogens, or disease. e. Found in the external ears, tip of the nose, and the epiglottis.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.1 The FunctionsWoW f tW he SkBeSleMta.l W SySstem .T LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.1.2 - Describe the locations of the three types of cartilage in the skeletal system.

7. What statement best describes the role of fibrocartilage in the skeletal system? a. A component of joints that can withstand heavy loads. b. Maintains hydration levels. c. Reduces any pain or damage to the underlying bones. d. Fights off pathogens, or disease. e. Found in the external ears, tip of the nose, and the epiglottis.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.1 The Functions of the Skeletal System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.1.2 - Describe the locations of the three types of cartilage in the skeletal system.

8. What statement best describes the role of hyaline cartilage in the skeletal system? a. A component of joints that can withstand heavy loads. b. Maintains hydration levels. c. Reduces any pain or damage to the underlying bones. d. Fights off pathogens, or disease. e. Found in the external ears, tip of the nose, and the epiglottis.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.1 The Functions of the Skeletal System

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.1.2 - Describe the locations of the three types of cartilage in the skeletal system.

9. As a person ages, what happens to the quantity of yellow bone marrow? a. Yellow bone marrow increases with age. b. Yellow bone marrow decreases with age. c. Yellow bone marrow completely disappears with age. d. Yellow bone marrow stays constant with age. e. Varies based on exposure to UV radiation.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.1 The Functions of the Skeletal System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.1.3 - Describe how the location and distribution of red and yellow bone marrow varies during a lifetime.

10. Which of the following statements best describes a long bone? a. Functions as levers; they move when muscles contract. b. Provide stability and support as well as some limited motion. c. Primarily functions to protect internal organs. d. Many facial bones, particularly surrounding the sinuses. e. Often develop in the tendons in the soles of the feet or at the knee.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.1 - Classify boW neWsWo. fT thB eS skMe. leW toSn based on their shape.

11. Which of the following statements best describes a short bone? a. Functions as levers; they move when muscles contract. b. Provide stability and support as well as some limited motion. c. Primarily functions to protect internal organs. d. Many facial bones, particularly surrounding the sinuses. e. Often develop in the tendons in the soles of the feet or at the knee.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.1 - Classify bones of the skeleton based on their shape.

12. Which of the following statements best describes a flat bone? a. Functions as levers; they move when muscles contract. b. Provide stability and support as well as some limited motion. c. Primarily functions to protect internal organs. d. Many facial bones, particularly surrounding the sinuses. e. Often develop in the tendons in the soles of the feet or at the knee.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.1 - Classify bones of the skeleton based on their shape.

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13. Which of the following statements best describes irregular bones? a. Functions as levers; they move when muscles contract. b. Provide stability and support as well as some limited motion. c. Primarily functions to protect internal organs. d. Many facial bones, particularly surrounding the sinuses. e. Often develop in the tendons in the soles of the feet or at the knee.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.1 - Classify bones of the skeleton based on their shape.

14. Which of the following statements best describes a sesamoid bone? a. Functions as levers; they move when muscles contract. b. Provide stability and support as well as some limited motion. c. Primarily functions to protect internal organs. d. Many facial bones, particularly surrounding the sinuses. e. Often develop in the tendons in the soles of the feet or at the knee.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.1 - Classify bones of the skeleton based on their shape.

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15. Which of the following statements best describes the epiphyses? a. They are located at both ends of a long bone. b. It is the end of the bone closest to the trunk. c. It is the end of the bone farthest from the trunk. d. It is the shaft between the two diaphysis. e. It is the hollow region within the diaphysis.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.2 - Identify and describe the structural components of a long bone, and explain their functions.

16. Which of the following statements best describes the proximal epiphysis? a. It is located at both ends of a long bone. b. It is the end of the bone closest to the trunk. c. It is the end of the bone farthest from the trunk. d. It is the shaft between the two epiphyses. e. It is the hollow region within the diaphysis.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.2 - Identify and describe the structural components of a long bone, and explain their functions.

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17. Which of the following statements best describes the distal epiphysis? a. It is located at both ends of a long bone. b. It is the end of the bone closest to the trunk. c. It is the end of the bone farthest from the trunk. d. It is the shaft between the two epiphyses. e. It is the hollow region within the diaphysis.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.2 - Identify and describe the structural components of a long bone, and explain their functions.

18. Which of the following statements best describes the diaphysis? a. It is located at both ends of a long bone. b. It is the end of the bone closest to the trunk. c. It is the end of the bone farthest from the trunk. d. It is the shaft between the two epiphyses. e. It is the hollow region within the diaphysis.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.2 - Identify and describe the structural components of a long bone, and explain their functions.

19. Which of the following statements best describes the medullary cavity? a. It is located at both ends of a long bone. b. It is the end of the bone closest to the trunk. c. It is the end of the bone farthest from the trunk. d. It is the shaft between the two epiphyses. e. It is the hollow region within the diaphysis.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.2 - Identify and describe the structural components of a long bone, and explain their functions.

20. An articulation is . a. a joint where two bone surfaces come together b. an area of a bone above the surface of the bone c. a rounded protuberance at the end of some bones d. a small, rounded process for muscle attachments e. a hole though bone ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.3 - Define common bone marking terms (e.g., condyle, tubercle, foramen, canal).

21. A projection is a bony marking that is a(n) . a. joint where two bone surfaces come together b. area of a bone above the surface of the bone c. rounded protuberance at the end of some bones d. small, rounded process for muscle attachments e. space, or hole, though the bone ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.3 - Define common bone marking terms (e.g., condyle, tubercle, foramen, canal).

22. A condyle is a bony marking that is a(n) . a. joint where two bone surfaces come together b. area of a bone above the surface of the bone c. rounded protuberance at the end of some bones d. small, rounded process for muscle attachments e. space, or hole, though the bone ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone ClassificW atW ioW n .TBSM.WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.3 - Define common bone marking terms (e.g., condyle, tubercle, foramen, canal).

23. Which of the following statements best describes a tubercle? a. A joint where two bone surfaces come together. b. An area of a bone above the surface of the bone. c. A rounded protuberance at the end of some bones. d. A small, rounded process for muscle attachments. e. A space, or hole, though the bone.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.3 - Define common bone marking terms (e.g., condyle, tubercle, foramen, canal).

24. Which of the following statements best describes a foramen? a. A joint where two bone surfaces come together. b. An area of a bone above the surface of the bone. c. A rounded protuberance at the end of some bones. d. A small rounded process. e. A space, or hole, though the bone.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 7.2 Bone Classification LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.2.3 - Define common bone marking terms (e.g., condyle, tubercle, foramen, canal).

25. Chondroblasts are . a. cells capable of generating cartilaginous matrix b. holes in the cartilage occupied by chondrocytes c. vascularized coverings of dense irregular connective tissue d. cartilaginous structures that aid in cellular removal e. blood vessels that run through the cartilage ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.3 The Microscopic Structure of Cartilage and Bone LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3.3 - Using microscopic images, distinguish between the three different types of cartilage.

26. Lacunae are . a. cells capable of generating cartilaginous matrix b. holes in the cartilage occupied by chondrocytes c. vascularized coverings of dense irregular connective tissue d. cartilaginous structures that aid in cellular removal e. blood vessels that run through the cartilage ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understan WdWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 7.3 The Microscopic Structure of Cartilage and Bone LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3.3 - Using microscopic images, distinguish between the three different types of cartilage.

27. What statement best describes perichondrium? a. Cells capable of generating cartilaginous matrix. b. Holes in the cartilage occupied by chondrocytes. c. Vascularized coverings of dense irregular connective tissue. d. Cartilaginous structures that aid in cellular removal. e. Blood vessels that run through the cartilage.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.3 The Microscopic Structure of Cartilage and Bone LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3.3 - Using microscopic images, distinguish between the three different types of cartilage.

28. What statement best describes osteogenic cells? a. Bone stem cells capable of replication. b. The holes in the cartilage occupied by chondrocytes. c. Vascularized coverings of dense irregular connective tissue. d. Cartilaginous structures that aid in cellular removal. e. Blood vessels that run through the cartilage ANSWER: a

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.3 The Microscopic Structure of Cartilage and Bone LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3.2 - List and describe the cellular and extracellular components of bone tissue.

29. What statement best describes osteoblasts? a. Bone stem cells capable of replication. b. Differentiated bone cells that form new bone matrix. c. Vascularized bone coverings of dense irregular connective tissue. d. Cartilaginous structures that aid in cellular removal. e. Blood vessels that run through the cartilage.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.3 The Microscopic Structure of Cartilage and Bone LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3.2 - List and describe the cellular and extracellular components of bone tissue.

30. What statement best describes osteocytes? a. Bone stem cells capable of replication. b. Differentiated bone cells that form new bone matrix. c. The most common cells in bone tissue and are fully mature. d. Cartilaginous structures that aid in cellular removal. e. Blood vessels that run through the cartilage.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand WaSrtilage and Bone REFERENCES: 7.3 The MicroscopWicWSWtr.uT ctB urS eMo. fC LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3.2 - List and describe the cellular and extracellular components of bone tissue.

31. What statement best describes osteoclast cells? a. Bone stem cells capable of replication. b. Differentiated bone cells that form new bone matrix. c. The most common cells in bone tissue and are fully mature. d. Cells responsible for bone breakdown. e. The cells responsible for blood flow through the bone.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.3 The Microscopic Structure of Cartilage and Bone LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3.2 - List and describe the cellular and extracellular components of bone tissue.

32. What is the name of the structural unit of compact bone that acts as a supportive column and runs along the weightbearing direction of the bone? a. lamellae b. trabeculae c. osteoclast d. osteocytes e. osteon ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember

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REFERENCES: 7.3 The Microscopic Structure of Cartilage and Bone LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3.4 - Identify the microscopic structure of compact bone and spongy bone.

33. What is the name of the lattice-like network of beams found in spongy bone? a. lamellae b. trabeculae c. osteoclast d. osteocytes e. osteon ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.3 The Microscopic Structure of Cartilage and Bone LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3.4 - Identify the microscopic structure of compact bone and spongy bone.

34. What is the tissue type that lines the bone’s outer surface? a. dense regular connective issue b. trabeculae c. dense irregular connective tissue d. osteocytes e. osteon ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.3 The Microscopic Structure of Cartilage and Bone LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3.1 - Describe thW eWroWle.sToBf S deMn. seWS regular and dense irregular connective tissue in the skeletal system.

35. Embryonic cells that gather and differentiate into specialized cells are called . a. dense regular connective cells b. trabeculae cells c. dense irregular connective cells d. mesenchymal cells e. osteon cells ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.4 Formation and Growth of Bone and Cartilage LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.4.1 - Explain the roles that specific bone cells play in the formation of bone tissue.

36. What statement best describes embryonic and fetal skeleton formation? a. Bone cell, or osteocyte, replication. b. Cartilaginous growth and transformation. c. Dense irregular connective tissue cells develop into a skeleton. d. Development of bone cells into a skeleton. e. A combination of intramembranous and endochondral ossification.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 7.4 Formation and Growth of Bone and Cartilage LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.4.2 - Compare and contrast intramembranous and endochondral (intracartilaginous) bone formation 37. What is the only site where bone is capable of growing longer? a. The epiphyseal plate. b. The proliferative zone. c. The reserve zone. d. The zone of mature cartilage. e. The epiphyseal line.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.5 Growth, Repair, and Remodeling LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5.1 - Compare and contrast interstitial (lengthwise) and appositional (width or circumferential) growth in bone tissue.

38. What hormone inhibits osteoclast activity and stimulates calcium uptake by the bones, to reduce the concentration of calcium ions in the blood? a. parathyroid hormone (PTH) b. calcitonin c. testosterone d. estrogen e. growth hormone (GH) ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.5 Growth, Repair, and Remodeling LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5.2 - Compare and contrast the function of osteoblasts and osteoclasts during bone growth, repair, and remodeling.

39. What do you call the process that results in the thickening of cartilage? a. interstitial growth b. elongation growth c. appositional growth d. cartelizational growth e. width development ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.5 Growth, Repair, and Remodeling LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5.1 - Compare and contrast interstitial (lengthwise) and appositional (width or circumferential) growth in bone tissue.

40. Which of the following hormones increases the activity of osteoblasts, resulting in more bone matrix? a. growth hormone (GH) b. estrogen c. thyroid hormone (T4) d. testosterone e. calcitonin

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ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.5 Growth, Repair, and Remodeling LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5.4 - Explain the hormonal regulation of skeletal growth.

41. Which of the following hormones increases the absorption of Ca+ and phosphate from the digestive track? a. growth hormone (GH) b. estrogen c. thyroid hormone (T4) d. calcitriol e. calcitonin ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.5 Growth, Repair, and Remodeling LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5.5 - Explain the roles of parathyroid hormone, calcitriol, and calcitonin in plasma calcium regulation and bone remodeling.

42. What do you call the fibrocartilage template formed within about 48 hours after a bone fracture? a. bone bond b. fibroplate c. bone template d. calcitriol e. callus ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 7.5 Growth, Repair, and Remodeling LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5.6 - Explain the steps involved in fracture repair.

43. Why is skeletal health a key component of homeostasis? a. It is a source of calcium. b. It keeps the body in an upright posture. c. It ensures blood flow to all areas of the body. d. It helps to maintain body temperature. e. It controls oxygen flow to the tissue.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.6 Bones and Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.6.1 - Explain how the skeletal system participates in homeostasis of plasma calcium levels.

44. What is the primary effect of a sedentary lifestyle and the absence of weight-bearing exercise on bone? a. Lateral growth of bone mass. b. Rapid loss of both collagen and mineral matrix. c. Loss of fluids, dehydration, of the bone marrow. d. The increase of fluids in bone mass. e. Reduction of vitamin D production.

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ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 7.6 Bones and Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.6.2 - Explain how exercise impacts bone formation.

45. What is the primary cause of osteoarthritis? a. Lateral growth of bone mass. b. Rapid loss of both collagen and mineral matrix. c. Reduction in the amount of hyaline cartilage at the joints. d. Loss of calcium in the bones. e. Reduction of vitamin D production.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.6 Bones and Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.6.4 - Given a disruption in the structure or function of the skeletal system (e.g., osteoarthritis), predict the possible factors or situations that might have caused that disruption (i.e., given an effect, predict the possible causes).

Essay 46. Discuss the five most important functions of bones.

ANSWER: (1) Bones provide muscle attachments that enable movement; (2) bones provide hard, protective cases for our most vulnerable organs; (3) bone matrix functions to store calcium and other minerals for the body; (4) calcium is removed from the bones to be secreted into the bloodstream to serve other cells of the body as needed, but if too much mineral is removed, the bones may weaken; and (5) the hollow interior of bones is filled with red and yellow bone marrow. Red marrow contains stem cells for production of new blood cells and yellow marrow contains lipid for a potential energy source.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.1 The Functions of the Skeletal System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.1.1 - Describe the major functions of the skeletal system.

47. Define the term lamellae and state its principal function for bone.

ANSWER: Lamellae are sheets of connected osteocytes within their lacunae that wrap around the central canal. Each osteocyte is alone in its lacuna but connected to osteocytes in neighboring lacunae through canaliculi. This system allows nutrients to be transported to the osteocytes and wastes to be removed from them.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.3 The Microscopic Structure of Cartilage and Bone LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.3.4 - Identify the microscopic structure of compact bone and spongy bone.

48. Explain intramembranous ossification, include the four stages of development and the changes that occur from birth to adult.

ANSWER: The formation of bone within a sheet of connective tissue is a process that can be broken into four stages. (1) Mesenchymal cells group into a cluster and begin to differentiate into bone cells; (2) newly differentiated osteoblasts secrete an osteoid matrix; (3) trabeculae and periosteum form; and (4) compact bone develops, surrounding the trabecular bone.

Intramembranous ossification begins in utero during fetal development but continues into adolescence. At birth, the skull and clavicles are not fully ossified; this is an evolutionary

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adaptation to the narrow pelvises of bipedal humans. The partially formed fetal skull and shoulders are able to deform during passage through the birth canal. Ossification continues after birth but does not end until the individual is fully grown. The last bones to ossify via intramembranous ossification are the flat bones of the face, which reach their adult size at the end of the adolescent growth spurt.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.4 Formation and Growth of Bone and Cartilage LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.4.2 - Compare and contrast intramembranous and endochondral (intracartilaginous) bone formation 49. Describe the five major stages of repair in bone breaks.

ANSWER: The healing of a bone fracture follows a series of steps: (1) the formation of a hematoma prevents further loss of blood; (2) a cartilaginous callus forms; (3) callus cartilage is replaced by bone; and (4) compact bone is built around the outer surface of the bone.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 7.5 Growth, Repair, and Remodeling.

LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.5.3 - Describe the bone repair and remodeling process and how it changes as humans age.

50. Briefly discuss the process of embryonic and fetal skeleton development.

ANSWER: Embryonic and fetal skeletons are formed by a combination of intramembranous and endochondral ossification. In this early embryonic skeleton, long bones are formed first as cartilage while flat bones, including the skull, are forming via intramembranous ossification. In the later fetal skeleton, bones of the skull have formed and most long bones have primary ossification centers and appear more densely mineralized.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: UnderstaW ndWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 7.4 Formation and Growth of Bone and Cartilage LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 7.4.2 - Compare and contrast intramembranous and endochondral (intracartilaginous) bone formation

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Chapter 08 - Axial Skeleton Multiple Choice 1. What do you call the collection of bones from the upper and lower limbs, including all the bones that attach each limb to the axial skeleton? a. appendicular skeleton b. primary skeleton c. upper skeleton d. dominant skeleton e. principal skeleton ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.1.1 - Distinguish between the axial and appendicular skeletons and list the major bones contained within each.

2. Movement of the upper and lower limb bones is function of which of the following parts of the skeletal system? a. appendicular skeleton b. axial skeleton c. upper skeleton d. dominant skeleton e. principal skeleton ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.1.1 - Distinguish between the axial and appendicular skeletons and list the major bones contained within each.

3. The axial skeleton of the adult consists of how many bones? a. 40 b. 60 c. 80 d. 110 e. 120 ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.1 Divisions of the Skeletal System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.1.1 - Distinguish between the axial and appendicular skeletons and list the major bones contained within each.

4. What is the anatomical term for the flat bones that house, or protect, the brain? a. brain bones b. facial bones c. meningeal bones d. cranial bones e. cerebral bones

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ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.1 - Know the bones of the skull and their features.

5. Which of the following bones of the skull is unpaired? a. temporal bone b. maxilla c. parietal bone d. nasal bone e. frontal bone ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.1 - Know the bones of the skull and their features.

6. What do you call the smaller air-filled spaces, or cavities, within the skull? a. sinuses b. air passages c. oral cavities d. nasal cavities e. pharyngeal spaces ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: RemembW erWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.1 - Know the bones of the skull and their features.

7. Which of the following statements best describes the glabella? a. The superior rim of the eye orbit. b. A slight depression between the eyebrows on the frontal bone. c. An opening that provides a passageway for nerves. d. Bones that form the superolateral sides of the skull. e. The joint that is visible on the lateral sides of the skull.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.1 - Know the bones of the skull and their features.

8. Which of the following statements best describes the supraorbital margin? a. The superior rim of the eye orbit. b. A slight depression between the eyebrows on the frontal bone. c. An opening that provides a passageway for nerves. d. Bones that form the superolateral sides of the skull. e. The joint that is visible on the lateral sides of the skull.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.1 - Know the bones of the skull and their features.

9. Which of the following statements best describes the supraorbital foramen? a. The superior rim of the eye orbit. b. A slight depression between the eyebrows on the frontal bone. c. An opening that provides a passageway for nerves. d. Bones that form the superolateral sides of the skull. e. The joint that is visible on the lateral sides of the skull.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.1 - Know the bones of the skull and their features.

10. Which of the following statements best describes the parietal bones? a. The superior rim of the eye orbit. b. A slight depression between the eyebrows on the frontal bone. c. An opening that provides a passageway for nerves. d. Bones that form the superolateral sides of the skull. e. The joint that is visible on the lateral sides of the skull.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull WtS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.2 - List and ideWnW tifW y. thT e BskSuMll . su ures.

11. Which statement best describes the squamous suture? a. The superior rim of the eye orbit. b. A slight depression between the eyebrows on the frontal bone. c. An opening that provides a passageway for nerves. d. Bones that form the superolateral sides of the skull. e. The joint that is visible on the lateral sides of the skull.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.2 - List and identify the skull sutures.

12. What do all the sinuses have in common? a. They all connect to the nasal cavity. b. None of them are lined with nasal mucosa. c. They all vary by age. d. They are all the same size. e. They all flow in the same direction.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.3 - Identify the skull sinuses and describe their functions.

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13. What are the two major functions of the sinuses? a. Provide flow of air and nutrients for the skull. b. Lighten the skull and provide resonance. c. Capture pollens and nutrients in the air. d. Filter the air and capture pollens. e. Provide air to the skull.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.3 - Identify the skull sinuses and describe their functions.

14. What statement best describes the frontal sinus? a. It is located just above the eyebrows, within the frontal bone. b. It is the largest paired sinus. c. A single midline sinus, the most posterior of the paranasal sinuses. d. It has multiple small spaces separated by very thin bony walls. e. It is located within the occipital bone.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.3 - Identify the skull sinuses and describe their functions.

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15. What statement best describes the maxillary sinus? a. It is located just above the eyebrows, within the frontal bone. b. It is the largest paired sinus. c. A single midline sinus, the most posterior of the paranasal sinuses. d. It has multiple small spaces separated by very thin bony walls. e. It is located within the occipital bone.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.3 - Identify the skull sinuses and describe their functions.

16. What statement best describes the sphenoid sinus? a. It is located just above the eyebrows, within the frontal bone. b. It is the largest paired sinus. c. A single midline sinus, the most posterior of the paranasal sinuses. d. It has multiple small spaces separated by very thin bony walls. e. It is located within the occipital bone.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.3 - Identify the skull sinuses and describe their functions.

17. What statement best describes the ethmoid sinus?

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a. It is located just above the eyebrows, within the frontal bone. b. It is the largest paired sinus. c. A single midline sinus, the most posterior of the paranasal sinuses. d. It has multiple small spaces separated by very thin bony walls. e. It is located within the occipital bone.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.3 - Identify the skull sinuses and describe their functions.

18. What statement best describes the fontanelle? a. A major section of the adult cranium. b. The development of the forehead. c. The first skull bones developed as an adult. d. The multiple layers of bone in the cranium. e. The “soft spots” on an infant’s head.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.4 - Describe the changes to the skull throughout development and aging.

19. When does the cartilage of the facial bones completely convert to bone? a. Soon after birth. b. Within 1 years after birth. c. When the skull achieves its full size. d. Cartilage does not convert to bone, it continues as cartilage. e. Not until later in life.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.4 - Describe the changes to the skull throughout development and aging.

20. What do all mammals, regardless of their body size, have in common? a. They all have the same bone structure. b. They all have identical RNA. c. They all must have the same range of temperatures. d. They all have seven cervical vertebrae. e. They all live on the surface of the earth.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.1 - Describe the vertebral column as a whole, including the curvatures and regions.

21. What is the distribution of the 24 vertebrae? a. 5 cervical, 12 thoracic, and 7 lumbar.

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b. 12 cervical, 7 thoracic, and 5 lumbar c. 5 cervical, 12 thoracic, and 7 lumbar. d. 4 cervical, 12 thoracic, and 8 lumbar e. 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, and 5 lumbar ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.1 - Describe the vertebral column as a whole, including the curvatures and regions.

22. Obesity, the accumulation of body weight in the abdominal region, can result in which of the following conditions? a. lordosis b. scoliosis c. kyphosis d. hunchback e. humpback ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Analyses REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.1 - Describe the vertebral column as a whole, including the curvatures and regions.

23. What statement best describes the body of the vertebra? a. The bulky anterior portion of each vertebra. b. Forms the posterior aspect of each vertebra, contains the laminae and the pedicles. c. Forms the lateral sides of the vertebral arch. d. Forms the roof of the vertebral arch. e. Completely contains and protects the spinal cord.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.1 - Describe the vertebral column as a whole, including the curvatures and regions.

24. What statement best describes the vertebral arch? a. The bulky anterior portion of each vertebra. b. Forms the posterior aspect of each vertebra, contains the lamina and the pedicles. c. Forms the lateral sides of the vertebral arch. d. Forms the posterior edge of the vertebral arch. e. Contains the spinal cord.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.1 - Describe the vertebral column as a whole, including the curvatures and regions.

25. What statement best describes the pedicle?

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a. The bulky anterior portion of each vertebra. b. Forms the posterior aspect of each vertebra, contains the lamina and the pedicles. c. Forms the lateral sides of the vertebral arch. d. Forms the posterior edge of the vertebral arch. e. Contains the spinal cord.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.1 - Describe the vertebral column as a whole, including the curvatures and regions.

26. What statement best describes the laminae? a. The bulky anterior portion of each vertebra. b. Forms the posterior aspect of each vertebra, contains the lamina and the pedicles. c. Forms the lateral sides of the vertebral arch. d. Forms the posterior edge of the vertebral arch. e. Contains the spinal cord.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.1 - Describe the vertebral column as a whole, including the curvatures and regions.

27. What statement best describes the vertebral foraWmWeW n?.TBSM.WS a. The bulky anterior portion of each vertebra. b. Forms the posterior aspect of each vertebra, contains the lamina and the pedicles. c. Forms the lateral sides of the vertebral arch. d. Forms the posterior edge of the vertebral arch. e. Contains the spinal cord.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.1 - Describe the vertebral column as a whole, including the curvatures and regions.

28. What is the name given to the first cervical (C1) vertebra? a. atlas b. axis c. superior vertebra d. premier vertebra e. lead vertebra ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.2 - Identify major bone markings (e.g., spines, processes, foramina) on individual vertebrae.

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29. What is the name given to the second cervical (C2) vertebra? a. atlas b. axis c. superior vertebra d. premier vertebra e. lead vertebra ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.2 - Identify major bone markings (e.g., spines, processes, foramina) on individual vertebrae.

30. What statement best describes the thoracic vertebrae? a. Distinguished by the downward pointing spinous process. b. Characterized by the large size and thickness of the vertebral body. c. Formed by the fusion of five vertebrae. d. Formed by the fusion of four small vertebrae. e. Characterized by the very thin vertebral body.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.3 - Compare and contrast vertebrae from each region of the spinal column.

31. What statement best describes the lumbar verteW brW aeW ? .TBSM.WS a. Distinguished by the downward pointing spinous process. b. Characterized by the large size and thickness of the vertebral body. c. Formed by the fusion of five vertebrae. d. Formed by the fusion of four small vertebrae. e. Characterized by the very thin vertebral body.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.3 - Compare and contrast vertebrae from each region of the spinal column.

32. What statement best describes the sacrum? a. Distinguished by the downward pointing spinous process. b. Characterized by the large size and thickness of the vertebral body. c. Formed by the fusion of five vertebrae. d. Formed by the fusion of four small vertebrae. e. Characterized by the very thin vertebral body.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.3 - Compare and contrast vertebrae from each region of the spinal column.

33. What statement best describes the coccyx?

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a. Distinguished by the downward pointing spinous process. b. Characterized by the large size and thickness of the vertebral body. c. Formed by the fusion of five vertebrae. d. Formed by the fusion of four small vertebrae. e. Characterized by the very thin vertebral body.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.3 - Compare and contrast vertebrae from each region of the spinal column.

34. What do you call the fibrocartilaginous pad that fills the gap between adjacent vertebral bodies? a. cartilaginous pads b. fibropads c. z discs d. vertebral pads e. intervertebral disks ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.3 The Vertebral Column LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.3.4 - Identify and describe the intervertebral joints.

35. The thoracic cage articulates with how many pairs of ribs? a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14 e. 16 ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.4 The Thoracic LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4.1 - Identify the three components of the sternum, its position in the thoracic cage, and its features.

36. What are the three parts of the sternum called? a. upper, middle, and lower sternum b. the body, lateral sides, and extremities. c. the manubrium, body, and sides. d. the manubrium, body, and xiphoid process. e. the interior, exterior, and lateral parts.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.4 The Thoracic LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4.1 - Identify the three components of the sternum, its position in the thoracic cage, and its features.

37. What statement best describes the manubrium of the sternum?

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a. The wider, superior portion of the sternum. b. The elongated, central portion of the sternum. c. The inferior tip that gradually becomes ossified starting during middle age. d. Where the manubrium and body join. e. A shallow u-shape on the superior border of the sternum.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.4 The Thoracic LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4.1 - Identify the three components of the sternum, its position in the thoracic cage, and its features.

38. What statement best describes the body of the sternum? a. The wider, superior portion of the sternum. b. The elongated, central portion of the sternum. c. The inferior tip that gradually becomes ossified starting during middle age. d. Where the manubrium and body join. e. A shallow u-shape on the superior border of the sternum.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.4 The Thoracic LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4.1 - Identify the three components of the sternum, its position in the thoracic cage, and its features.

39. What statement best describes the xiphoid procW esW s oWf.thTeB stS erM nu.mW?S a. The wider, superior portion of the sternum. b. The elongated, central portion of the sternum. c. The inferior tip that gradually becomes ossified starting during middle age. d. Where the manubrium and body join. e. A shallow u-shape on the superior border of the sternum.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.4 The Thoracic LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4.1 - Identify the three components of the sternum, its position in the thoracic cage, and its features.

40. What statement best describes the sternal angle of the sternum? a. The wider, superior portion of the sternum. b. The elongated, central portion of the sternum. c. The inferior tip that gradually becomes ossified starting during middle age. d. Where the manubrium and body join. e. A shallow u-shape on the superior border of the sternum.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.4 The Thoracic LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4.1 - Identify the three components of the sternum, its position in the thoracic cage, and its features.

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41. What statement best describes the suprasternal notch of the sternum? a. The wider, superior portion of the sternum. b. The elongated, central portion of the sternum. c. The inferior tip that gradually becomes ossified starting during middle age. d. Where the manubrium and body join. e. A shallow u-shape on the superior border of the sternum.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.4 The Thoracic LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4.1 - Identify the three components of the sternum, its position in the thoracic cage, and its features.

42. What statement best describes the costal cartilage? a. Hyaline cartilage that articulates with the sternal end of the ribs and attaches the ribs to the sternum. b. Fibrocartilage that articulates with the sternal end of the ribs and attaches the ribs to the sternum. c. Hyaline cartilage that attaches the ribs to the transverse processes of the thoracic vertebrae. d. The last two ribs (11–12), which do not articulate with the sternum. e. Fibrocartilage that supports the head of the ribs.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.4 The Thoracic LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4.1 - Identify the three components of the sternum, its position in the thoracic cage, and its features.

43. What statement best describes true ribs? a. Hyaline cartilage that articulates with the sternal end of the ribs and attaches the ribs to the sternum. b. Each of these ribs and their corresponding costal cartilage directly attaches to the sternum. c. Each of these ribs and their corresponding costal cartilage do not directly attach to the sternum. d. The last two ribs (11–12), which do not articulate with the sternum. e. They articulate with fibrocartilage that directly attaches to the thoracic vertebrae.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.4 The Thoracic LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4.1 - Identify the three components of the sternum, its position in the thoracic cage, and its features.

44. What statement best describes false ribs? a. Hyaline cartilage that articulates with the sternal end of the ribs and attaches the ribs to the sternum. b. Each of these ribs and their corresponding costal cartilage directly attaches to the sternum. c. Each of these ribs and their corresponding costal cartilage do not directly attach to the sternum. d. The last two ribs (11–12), which do not articulate with the sternum. e. They articulate with fibrocartilage that directly attaches to the thoracic vertebrae.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.4 The Thoracic LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4.1 - Identify the three components of the sternum, its position in the thoracic cage, and its features.

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45. What is the name of the channel tucked along the body of the rib where blood vessels and a nerve are located? a. rib channel b. rib groove c. rib nerve channel d. costal channel e. costal groove ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 8.4 The Thoracic LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.4.1 - Identify the three components of the sternum, its position in the thoracic cage, and its features.

Essay 46. Describe the primary functions of the skeleton and how the human skeleton developed over time.

ANSWER: The primary functions of the skeleton are to provide a rigid structure that can support the body’s weight, to attach muscles to produce body movements, and to assist the body in calcium homeostasis. Over generations, humans evolved to walk and run in pursuit of food and to carry objects and perform complex tasks. Therefore, the structure of the lower skeleton is specialized for stability during walking or running and the structure of the upper skeleton has greater mobility and ranges of motion, features that allow you to lift and carry objects or turn your head and trunk.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Analyze REFERENCES: 8.1 Divisions of the WW SkWe. leT taBl S SyMs. teWmS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.1.1 - Distinguish between the axial and appendicular skeletons and list the major bones contained within each.

47. Discuss the differences in nose shapes among different ethnicities and their adaptation to climates and climate change.

ANSWER: Differences in nose shape among different ethnicities are due to adaptations to climates and climate change. One of the main functions of the nasal cavity is to condition the air before it travels to the respiratory tract. As the air swirls around the nasal conchae, it is moistened and warmed. This feature would be of utmost importance if you were breathing in the cold dry air of, for example, Northern Europe, but it would be of much less importance if you were breathing in warm tropical air of, for example, the Philippines. Homo sapiens first evolved in the hot climates of Africa, and then slowly migrated around the world, adapting to their environments as they evolved over hundreds of thousands of years. Remains of early humans and related species indicate that humans had shorter, wider nostrils. Groups of humans from hotter, more humid climates kept this nose shape, but some humans who migrated to colder climates slowly evolved longer, narrower nostrils. It is likely that these longer noses provided an advantage in colder climates.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Analyze REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.4 - Describe the changes to the skull throughout development and aging.

48. Describe how the skull bones develop during embryonic development.

ANSWER: During embryonic development, the skull bones develop in two different ways. The flat bones of the top and sides of the cranium develop through intramembranous ossification, while some facial bones and some bones at the base of the skull develop through endochondral ossification. Early in embryonic development, the brain is shielded by just a

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sheet (or membrane) of connective tissue. Throughout the fetal period, islands of bone develop within this sheet, eventually forming an incomplete cranial shell at the time of birth. At birth, the bones of the fetal skull remain separated from each other by large areas of dense connective tissue, each of which is called a fontanelle.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.4 - Describe the changes to the skull throughout development and aging.

49. Describe the sutures of the skull and unique structure of their articulations.

ANSWER: The skull is a patchwork of bones, joined by immobile joints called sutures. The narrow gap between the bones is filled with dense, fibrous connective tissue that unites the bones.

The long sutures located between the bones of the brain case are not straight, but instead follow irregular, tightly twisting paths. These twisting lines serve to tightly interlock the adjacent bones, thus adding strength to the skull for brain protection.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.1 - Know the bones of the skull and their features.

50. Explain the location of the occipital bone and its function.

ANSWER: The occipital bone forms the back, or the posterior aspect, of the cranium. From an inferior view, the occipital bone comprises much of the base of the skull and has the large foramen magnum through which the spinal cord passes. The occipital bone articulates with the first vertebra, the atlas (C1).

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 8.2 The Skull LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 8.2.1 - Know the bones of the skull and their features.

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Chapter 09 - The Appendicular Skeleton Multiple Choice 1. What statement best describes the clavicle? a. An S-shaped bone that connects the sternum to the scapula. b. A flat, triangular-shaped bone with a prominent ridge. c. A posterior bone that articulates with the thoracic vertebrae to stabilize the upper limb. d. A small anterior bone that does not articulate with any other bone. e. The principal stabilizing bone for the shoulder.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.1 The Shoulder Girdle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.1.1 - Identify the bones and bone features of the shoulder girdle.

2. What statement best describes the scapula? a. An S-shaped bone that connects the sternum to the shoulder. b. A flat, triangular-shaped bone with a prominent ridge. c. A posterior bone that articulates with the thoracic vertebrae to stabilize the upper limb. d. A small anterior bone that does not articulate with any other bone. e. The anterior bone that is the principal stabilizing bone for the shoulder.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.1 The Shoulder W GW irdWle.TBSM.WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.1.1 - Identify the bones and bone features of the shoulder girdle.

3.

What statement best describes the acromioclavicular joint? a. The articulation between the clavicle and the sternum. b. The articulation between the clavicle and the scapula. c. The point, or tip, of the shoulder. d. The articulation between the scapula and the humerus. e. The only articulation within the upper limb that is immovable.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.1 The Shoulder Girdle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.1.1 - Identify the bones and bone features of the shoulder girdle.

4. What statement best describes the shoulder girdle? a. The bones of the upper limb, including the humerus, radius, and ulna. b. The place where the upper limb attaches to the trunk, the bones include the scapula and the humerus. c. The articulation between the sternum and the clavicle. d. The place where the upper limb attaches to the trunk, the bones include the clavicle and scapula. e. The point, or tip, of the shoulder.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.1 The Shoulder Girdle

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.1.1 - Identify the bones and bone features of the shoulder girdle.

5. Why is the inferior angle of the scapula a particularly significant bone feature? a. Largest bone feature in the upper body. b. Provides protection for several key organs. c. Provides a passageway for several nerves. d. Developed from cartilage early in life. e. Serves as the attachment point for several powerful muscles.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.1 The Shoulder Girdle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.1.2 - List the functions of each of the bones of the pectoral girdle.

6. What are the two prominent projections of the scapula called? a. Coracoid and acromion process b. Interior and exterior processes c. Supraspinous and infraspinous fossa d. Superior and inferior process e. Proponent and internal processes ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 9.1 The Shoulder Girdle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.1.2 - List the functions of each of the bones of the pectoral girdle.

7. What do the humerus and glenoid cavity form? a. The shoulder joint b. Glenohumeral joint c. Superior and inferior projection point d. The connection of the upper limb with the trunk e. A hinge joint ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 9.1 The Shoulder Girdle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.1.2 - List the functions of each of the bones of the pectoral girdle.

8. What statement best describes the brachial region? a. It is located between the shoulder and elbow joint. b. It is located between the elbow and wrist joint. c. It is located distal to the wrist joint. d. It is the single bone of the shoulder. e. It includes the radius and ulna.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.1 - Identify the bones of the arm and describe the bones features.

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9. What statement best describes the antebrachium? a. It is located between the shoulder and elbow joint. b. It is located between the elbow and wrist joint. c. It is located distal to the wrist joint. d. It is the single bone of the shoulder. e. It includes the humerus and the radius.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.1 - Identify the bones of the arm and describe the bones features.

10. What statement best describes the hand? a. It is located between the shoulder and elbow joint. b. It is located between the elbow and wrist joint. c. It is located distal to the wrist joint. d. It is the single bone of the upper limb. e. It includes the humerus and the radius.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.1 - Identify the bones of the arm and describe the bones features.

11. What statement best describes the humerus? a. It is located between the shoulder and elbowWjW oiW nt. . TBSM.WS b. It is located between the elbow and wrist joint. c. It is located distal to the wrist joint. d. It is the single bone of the brachium. e. It includes the humerus and the radius.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.1 - Identify the bones of the arm and describe the bones features.

12. What statement best describes the ulna and radius? a. They are bones located between the shoulder and elbow joint. b. They are short bones that make up the wrist. c. They are bones distal to the wrist joint. d. They are bones of the shoulder. e. They are the bones of the antebrachium.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.1 - Identify the bones of the arm and describe the bones features.

13. What statement best describes the anatomical neck of the humerus? a. Where the smooth head meets the rougher and narrower proximal end of the humerus.

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b. The larger projection on the lateral side of the proximal humerus. c. The smaller projection on the anterior side of the humerus. d. Provides a passage for a tendon of the biceps brachii muscle. e. Where the epiphysis becomes the diaphysis.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.1 - Identify the bones of the arm and describe the bones features.

14. What statement best describes the greater tubercle? a. Where the smooth head meets the rougher and narrower proximal end of the humerus. b. The larger projection on the lateral side of the proximal humerus. c. The smaller projection on the anterior side of the humerus. d. Provides a passage for a tendon of the biceps brachii muscle. e. Where the epiphysis becomes the diaphysis.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.1 - Identify the bones of the arm and describe the bones features.

15. What statement best describes the lesser tubercle? a. Where the smooth head meets the rougher and narrower proximal end of the humerus. b. The larger projection on the lateral side of the proximal humerus. c. The smaller projection on the anterior side oW fW thW e h.uT mB erS usM. .WS d. Provides a passage for a tendon of the biceps brachii muscle. e. Where the epiphysis becomes the diaphysis.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.1 - Identify the bones of the arm and describe the bones features.

16. What statement best describes the bicipital groove? a. Where the smooth head meets the rougher and narrower proximal end of the humerus. b. The larger projection on the lateral side of the proximal humerus. c. The smaller projection on the anterior side of the humerus. d. Provides a passage for a tendon of the biceps brachii muscle. e. Where the epiphysis becomes the diaphysis.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.1 - Identify the bones of the arm and describe the bones features.

17. What statement best describes the shaft of the humerus? a. Where the smooth head meets the rougher and narrower proximal end of the humerus. b. The larger projection on the lateral side of the proximal humerus. c. The smaller projection on the anterior side of the humerus.

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d. Provides a passage for a tendon of the biceps brachii muscle. e. Where the epiphysis becomes the diaphysis.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.1 - Identify the bones of the arm and describe the bones features.

18. What statement best describes the trochlea? a. The distal end of the humerus that articulates with the ulna. b. A knoblike structure on the anterior surface of the distal humerus. c. A projection of the ulna on the anterior side. d. The large process of the ulna on the posterior side. e. It articulates with the head of the radius when the elbow is flexed.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.2 - List the bones and bony landmarks that articulate at each joint of the upper limb.

19. What statement best describes the capitulum? a. The distal end of the humerus that articulates with the ulna. b. A knoblike structure on the anterior surface of the distal humerus. c. The large projection of the ulna on the anterior side. d. The large process of the ulna on the posterioW rW sidWe. . TBSM.WS e. It articulates with the head of the ulna when the elbow is flexed.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.2 - List the bones and bony landmarks that articulate at each joint of the upper limb.

20. What statement best describes the coronoid fossa? a. The distal end of the humerus that articulates with the ulna. b. A knoblike structure on the anterior surface of the distal humerus. c. A projection of the ulna on the anterior side. d. The large process of the ulna on the posterior side. e. It articulates with the ulna when the elbow is flexed.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.2 - List the bones and bony landmarks that articulate at each joint of the upper limb.

21. What statement best describes the olecranon fossa? a. The distal end of the humerus that articulates with the ulna. b. A knoblike structure on the anterior surface of the distal humerus.

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c. The large projection of the ulna on the anterior side. d. The large process of the ulna on the posterior side. e. It articulates with the ulna when the elbow is flexed.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.2 - List the bones and bony landmarks that articulate at each joint of the upper limb.

22. What statement best describes the olecranon fossa? a. The distal end of the humerus that articulates with the ulna. b. A knoblike structure on the anterior surface of the distal humerus. c. The large projection of the ulna on the anterior side. d. The large process of the ulna on the posterior side. e. It articulates with the ulna when the elbow is flexed.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.2 - List the bones and bony landmarks that articulate at each joint of the upper limb.

23. The coronoid process is . a. a prominent lip on the anterior edge of the trochlear notch of the ulna b. the posterior process of the proximal ulna c. on the lateral radius and attaches to the medial ulna d. the movement of the forearm which allows us to flip the orientation of the hand e. a carpal bone that articulates with the distal end of the radius ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.2 - List the bones and bony landmarks that articulate at each joint of the upper limb.

24. The olecranon process is . a. a prominent lip on the anterior edge of the trochlear notch of the ulna b. the posterior process of the proximal ulna c. on the lateral radius and attaches to the medial ulna d. the movement of the forearm that allows us to flip the orientation of the hand e. a carpal bone that articulates with the distal end of the radius ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.2 - List the bones and bony landmarks that articulate at each joint of the upper limb.

25. What statement best describes the interosseous membrane? a. The membrane that attaches the proximal ulna with the distal humerus.

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b. The membrane that holds the tendons down on the anterior wrist. c. A flat, flexible ligament that attaches the shaft of the radius with the shaft of the ulna. d. A flexible ligament that stabilizes the wrist joint. e. A flat ligament that lies in the anterior portion of the elbow.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.2 - List the bones and bony landmarks that articulate at each joint of the upper limb.

26. What statement best defines supination and pronation of the forearm? a. Anterior movement of the hand along the sagittal plane. b. Medial and lateral movement of the hand at the wrist. c. Lateral and medial movement of the fingers. d. The movement of the forearm that flips the orientation of the hand. e. Movement at the hinge joint of the elbow.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.2 - List the bones and bony landmarks that articulate at each joint of the upper limb.

27. The radiocarpal joint . is the articulation between the radius and ulnWaWatWth.eTwBriSstM.WS a. b. includes the head of the radius and the head of the ulna c. is the articulation between the ulna and the two proximal bones of the wrist d. the joint that aids in the movement of the forearm that flips the orientation of the hand e. the direct articulation between the radius and two proximal bones of the wrist ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.2 - List the bones and bony landmarks that articulate at each joint of the upper limb.

28. How many bones form the wrist at the base of the hand? a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 e. 12 ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.2 - List the bones and bony landmarks that articulate at each joint of the upper limb.

29. How many elongated metacarpal bones form the palm of a single hand?

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a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 e. 8 ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.2 - List the bones and bony landmarks that articulate at each joint of the upper limb.

30. How many phalangeal bones are contained in the fingers and thumb on one hand? a. 8 b. 10 c. 12 d. 14 e. 18 ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 9.2 Bones of the Arm LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.2.2 - List the bones and bony landmarks that articulate at each joint of the upper limb.

31. In the adult hip bone, what statement best descrW ibW esWth.eTilB iuS mM? .WS a. Is the superior bone of the hip and is the largest bone of the os coxae. b. Forms the posteroinferior region of each hip bone and supports the body when sitting. c. Forms the anterior portion of the hip bone. d. The large posterior indentation of the hip bone. e. The cartilage that forms the hip bone during development.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.3 The Pelvic Girdle and Pelvis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.3.1 - Describe the three regions of the hip bone and identify their bony landmarks.

32. In the adult hip bone, what statement best describes the ischium? a. Is the superior bone of the hip and is the largest bone of the os coxae. b. Forms the posteroinferior region of each hip bone and supports the body when sitting. c. Forms the anterior portion of the hip bone. d. The large posterior indentation of the hip bone. e. The cartilage that forms the hip bone during development.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.3 The Pelvic Girdle and Pelvis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.3.3 - Describe the openings of the pelvis and the boundaries of the greater and lesser pelvis.

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33. In the adult hip bone, what statement best describes the pubis? a. Is the superior bone of the hip and is the largest bone of the os coxae. b. Forms the posteroinferior region of each hip bone and supports the body when sitting. c. Forms the anterior portion of the hip bone. d. The large posterior indentation of the hip bone. e. The cartilage that forms the hip bone during development.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.3 The Pelvic Girdle and Pelvis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.3.3 - Describe the openings of the pelvis and the boundaries of the greater and lesser pelvis.

34. What is a key physiological factor in determining the shape of the pelvis? a. blood flow b. nutrition during development in utero c. environment and climate d. estrogen e. vitamin d ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.3 The Pelvic Girdle and Pelvis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.3.3 - Describe the openings of the pelvis and the boundaries of the greater and lesser pelvis.

35. What is the longest and strongest bone of the body, accounting for approximately one-quarter of a person’s total height? a. ulna b. radius c. fibula d. tibia e. femur ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 9.4 Bones of the Leg LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.4.1 - Identify the bones of the leg and describe the bones’ features.

36. What statement best describes the fovea capitis? a. A small indentation on the head of the femur. b. A large, upward-pointing, bony projection located above the base of the neck of the femur. c. The bony ridge between the greater and lesser trochanter on the anterior aspect of the femur. d. The prominent ridge between the greater and lesser trochanters on the posterior side of the femur. e. The projection located along the posterior shaft of the femur.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.4 Bones of the Leg LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.4.1 - Identify the bones of the leg and describe the bones’ features.

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37. What statement best describes the greater trochanter? a. A small indentation on the head of the femur. b. A large, upward-pointing, bony projection located above the base of the neck of the femur. c. The bony ridge between the greater and lesser trochanter on the anterior aspect of the femur. d. The prominent ridge between the greater and lesser trochanters on the posterior side of the femur. e. The projection located along the posterior shaft of the femur.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.4 Bones of the Leg LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.4.1 - Identify the bones of the leg and describe the bones’ features.

38. What statement best describes the intertrochanteric crest? a. A small indentation on the head of the femur. b. A large, upward-pointing, bony projection located above the base of the neck of the femur. c. The bony ridge between the greater and lesser trochanter on the anterior aspect of the femur. d. The prominent ridge between the greater and lesser trochanters on the posterior side of the femur. e. The projection located along the posterior shaft of the femur.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.4 Bones of the Leg LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.4.1 - Identify the bones of the leg and describe the bones’ features.

39. What statement best describes the intertrochanteric line? a. A small indentation on the head of the femuW r. WW.TBSM.WS b. A large, upward-pointing, bony projection located above the base of the neck of the femur. c. The bony ridge between the greater and lesser trochanter on the anterior aspect of the femur. d. The prominent ridge between the greater and lesser trochanters on the posterior side of the femur. e. The projection located along the posterior shaft of the femur.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.4 Bones of the Leg LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.4.1 - Identify the bones of the leg and describe the bones’ features.

40. What statement best describes the gluteal tuberosity? a. A small indentation on the head of the femur. b. A large, upward-pointing, bony projection located above the base of the neck of the femur. c. The bony ridge between the greater and lesser trochanter on the anterior aspect of the femur. d. The prominent ridge between the greater and lesser trochanters on the posterior side of the femur. e. The projection located along the posterior shaft of the femur.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 9.4 Bones of the Leg LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.4.1 - Identify the bones of the leg and describe the bones’ features.

41. What is the main weight-bearing bone of the lower leg and the second longest bone of the body? a. tibia

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b. fibula c. patella d. talus e. femur ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 9.4 Bones of the Leg LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.4.1 - Identify the bones of the leg and describe the bones’ features.

42. What do you call the slender bone located on the lateral side of the leg? a. tibia b. fibula c. patella d. talus e. femur ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 9.4 Bones of the Leg LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.4.1 - Identify the bones of the leg and describe the bones’ features.

43. How many tarsal bones form the interior ankle and posterior foot? a. 5 b. 7 c. 12 d. 15 e. 26 ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 9.4 Bones of the Leg LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.4.1 - Identify the bones of the leg and describe the bones’ features.

44. What is the hinge joint formed at the distal end of the humerus and the proximal ends of the ulna and radius bones? a. wrist joint b. shoulder joint c. elbow joint d. hand joint e. finger joints ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 9.4 Bones of the Leg LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.4.2 - List the bones and bony landmarks that articulate at each joint of the lower limb.

45. What is the joint at the distal end of the radius that are directly articulates with two proximal carpal bones? a. wrist joint b. shoulder joint

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c. elbow joint d. hand e. fingers ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 9.4 Bones of the Leg LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.4.2 - List the bones and bony landmarks that articulate at each joint of the upper limb.

Essay 46. Discuss why the clavicle bones can be used in forensics when trying to decide if an adult skeleton is from a biologically male or female body.

ANSWER: The clavicle is one of the bones that can be used in forensics when trying to decide if an adult skeleton is from a biologically male body (that is to say, a body that matured under the influence of higher levels of testosterone) or a biologically female body (that is to say, a body that matured under the influence of higher levels of estrogen). Whereas some clavicles (those from biological females) tend to be shorter, thinner, and less curved, other clavicles (those from the bodies of biological males) tend to be longer and have a larger diameter, greater curvatures, and rougher surfaces where muscles attach.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Analyze REFERENCES: 9.1 The Shoulder Girdle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.1.1 - Identify the bones and bone features of the shoulder girdle.

47. Compare and contrast the bones of the shoulderWwWitW h. thT eB boSnM es.oW f tShe pelvis.

ANSWER: The bones of the shoulder are highly mobile to enable a wide range of arm movements, while the bones of the pelvis are strongly united to each other to form a more weightbearing structure, that generally has less range of motion compared to the shoulder. The clavicle is the only upper limb bone that directly attaches to the trunk, while the sacrum articulates with the hip bones. The shoulder bones are important for reaching, throwing, hanging, etc. while the main function of the pelvis is to provide stability during standing, walking, and running.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Evaluate REFERENCES: 9.3 The Pelvic Girdle and Pelvis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.3.1 - Describe the three regions of the hip bone and identify their bony landmarks.

48. Describe how the arch of the foot allows humans to jump.

ANSWER: When the foot comes into contact with the ground during walking, running, or jumping activities, the impact of the body weight puts a tremendous amount of pressure and force on the foot. During running, the force applied to each foot as it contacts the ground can be up to 2.5 times your body weight. The bones, joints, ligaments, and muscles of the foot absorb this force, thus greatly reducing the amount of shock that is passed superiorly into the lower limb and body. The arches of the foot play an important role in this shockabsorbing ability. When weight is applied to the foot, these arches will flatten somewhat, thus absorbing and dissipating the energy. When the weight is removed, the arch rebounds, giving “spring” to the step. The arches also serve to distribute body weight side to side and to either end of the foot. Animals without arches, such as elephants, are not able to jump because the force received by the skeleton without arches would likely result in bone fractures.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Analyze

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REFERENCES: 9.1 The Shoulder Girdle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.1.1 - Identify the bones and bone features of the shoulder girdle.

49. Describe the changes in the human pelvis over time for both biological males and biological females.

ANSWER: In childhood and early adolescence, the pelvis looks very similar to each other, varying by size but not by shape. During puberty, as estrogen signaling increases dramatically in some individuals, pelvic shape begins to change. Under the influence of high levels of estrogen, characteristic of biological females, a few notable changes occur. The distance between the anterior superior iliac spines and the ischial tuberosities increase. Together these two changes increase the size of the pelvic outlet, which eases one anatomical constraint of childbirth. Because of this increased pelvic width, the subpubic angle is larger, typically greater than 80 degrees compared to an average of less than 70 degrees in individuals without high estrogen signaling. The female sacrum is wider, shorter, and less curved, and the sacral promontory projects less into the pelvic cavity, thus giving the female pelvic inlet (pelvic brim) a more rounded or oval shape compared to that of males. Lastly, the sciatic notch is narrower and deeper in biological males than the broader notch of biological females. These differences are often so pronounced that the pelvis is often used in sex determination of skeletal remains. Interestingly, once the much higher estrogen levels of the reproductive period decline in middle and late age these characteristic differences also change, and the once wider pelvis of biological females narrows progressively after menopause DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Evaluate REFERENCES: 9.3 The Pelvic Girdle and Pelvis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.3.2 - Compare and contrast the child and adult pelvis, and the pelvis of biological males and biological females’ 50. Describe the functions of the clavicle and scapuWlaW . W.TBSM.WS ANSWER: The clavicle functions to push the shoulder away from the rib cage and prevents anterior collapse even during moments of anterior compression such as doing a push-up or swinging a tennis racket. The scapula (shoulder blade) anchors the shoulder posteriorly.

These bones serve as important attachment sites for muscles that aid with movements of the shoulder and arm.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Analyze REFERENCES: 9.1 The Shoulder Girdle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 9.1.1 - Identify the bones and bone features of the shoulder girdle.

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Chapter 10 - Joints Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following statements best describe a fibrous joint? a. Fibrous joints unite adjacent bones with fibrous connective tissue. b. Fibrous joints join bones with hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage. c. Fibrous joints allow for free movement between the bones and are the most common joints of the body. d. Fibrous joints are rigidly attached to a bony structure. e. Fibrous joints are loosely attached to a bony structure.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.1 Classification of Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.1.1 - Describe the anatomical classification of joints based on structure: fibrous (i.e., gomphosis, suture, syndesmosis), cartilaginous (i.e., symphysis, synchondrosis), and synovial (i.e., planar/gliding, hinge, pivot, condylar, saddle, ball-and-socket), and provide examples of each type.

2. Which of the following statements best describes a cartilaginous joint? a. Cartilaginous joints unite adjacent bones with fibrous connective tissue. b. Cartilaginous joints join bones with hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage. c. Cartilaginous joints allow for free movement between the bones and are the most common joints of the body. d. Cartilaginous joints are rigidly attached to a bony structure. e. Cartilaginous joints are loosely attached to a bony structure.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.1 Classification of Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.1.1 - Describe the anatomical classification of joints based on structure: fibrous (i.e., gomphosis, suture, syndesmosis), cartilaginous (i.e., symphysis, synchondrosis), and synovial (i.e., planar/gliding, hinge, pivot, condylar, saddle, ball-and-socket), and provide examples of each type.

3. Which of the following statements best describe a synovial joint? a. Synovial joints unite adjacent bones with fibrous connective tissue. b. Synovial joints join bones with hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage. c. Synovial joints allow for free movement between the bones and are the most common joints of the body. d. Joints rigidly attached to a bony structure. e. Joints loosely attached to a bony structure.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.1 Classification of Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.1.1 - Describe the anatomical classification of joints based on structure: fibrous (i.e., gomphosis, suture, syndesmosis), cartilaginous (i.e., symphysis, synchondrosis), and synovial (i.e., planar/gliding, hinge, pivot, condylar, saddle, ball-and-socket), and provide examples of each type.

4. Which of the following statements best describe a synarthrosis joint? a. A synarthrosis joint occurs between the radius and ulna or the tibia and fibula to stabilize the bones.

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b. A lot of motion is possible at a synarthrosis joint. c. A synarthrosis joint allows for free movement between the bones. d. Slight movement is possible at the synarthrosis joint. e. A synarthrosis joint is an immovable joint.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.1 Classification of Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.1.3 - Describe the functional classification of joints (e.g., synarthrosis, diarthrosis) based on amount of movement permitted, and provide examples of each type.

5. Which of the following statements best describe a diarthrosis joint? a. A diarthrosis joint unites the adjacent bones with fibrous connective tissue. b. A diarthrosis joint is freely movable. c. An example of a diarthrosis joint is the squamous suture. d. Diarthrosis joints are slightly movable. e. No motion is possible at a diarthrosis joint.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.1 Classification of Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.1.3 - Describe the functional classification of joints (e.g., synarthrosis, diarthrosis) based on amount of movement permitted, and provide examples of each type.

6. Which of the following statements best describe an amphiarthrosis joint? a. An amphiarthrosis joint unites the adjacent bones at a synovial cavity. b. An amphiarthrosis joint is freely movable. c. An example of an amphiarthrosis joint is the squamous suture. d. Amphiarthrosis joints are slightly movable. e. No motion is possible at an amphiarthrosis joint.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.1 Classification of Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.1.3 - Describe the functional classification of joints (e.g., synarthrosis, diarthrosis) based on amount of movement permitted, and provide examples of each type.

7. An example of a synarthrosis joint . a. is the sagittal suture b. contains intervertebral disks c. is the hip joint d. is the patellar joint e. is any appendicular joint ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.1 Classification of Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.1.2 - Explain the relationship between the anatomical classification and the

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functional classification of joints.

8. An example of an amphiarthrosis joint . a. is the sagittal suture b. contains intervertebral disks c. is the hip joint d. is the patellar joint e. is any appendicular joint ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.1 Classification of Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.1.2 - Explain the relationship between the anatomical classification and the functional classification of joints.

9. An example of a diarthrosis joint . a. is the sagittal suture b. contains intervertebral disks c. is the cartilaginous joint between the sternum and the ribs d. is the fibrous joint between the tibia and the fibula e. is the hip joint ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.1 Classification of Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.1.2 - Explain thW eW reWla.tiT onBsS hiM p. bW etS ween the anatomical classification and the functional classification of joints.

10. What statement best describes a suture joint? a. Forms a tight union that prevents most movement between the bones. b. Two parallel bones joined by fibrous connective tissue, with little movement. c. Anchors the root of a tooth into its bony socket. d. A broad sheet of connective tissue that lies between two bones. e. Allows the radius to roll over the ulna during pronation.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.2 Fibrous Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.2.3 - Compare and contrast a suture, syndesmosis, and gomphosis.

11. What statement best describes a syndesmosis joint? a. Forms a tight union that prevents most movement between the bones. b. Two parallel bones joined by fibrous connective tissue, with little movement. c. Anchors the root of a tooth into its bony socket. d. A broad sheet of connective tissue that lies between two bones. e. Typically found at the end of long bones within a synovial cavity.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.2 Fibrous Joints

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.2.3 - Compare and contrast a suture, syndesmosis, and gomphosis.

12. What statement best describes a gomphosis joint? a. Forms a tight union that prevents most movement between the bones. b. Two parallel bones joined by fibrous connective tissue, with little movement. c. Anchors the root of a tooth into its bony socket. d. A broad sheet of connective tissue that lies between two bones. e. Typically found at the end of long bones within a synovial cavity.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.2 Fibrous Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.2.3 - Compare and contrast a suture, syndesmosis, and gomphosis.

13. What statement best describes interosseous membrane? a. Forms a tight union that prevents most movement between the bones. b. Two parallel bones joined by fibrous connective tissue, with little movement. c. Anchors the root of a tooth into its bony socket. d. A broad sheet of connective tissue that lies between two bones. e. Typically found at the end of long bones within a synovial cavity.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.2 Fibrous Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.2.3 - Compare and contrast a suture, syndesmosis, and gomphosis.

14. What statement best describes pronation? a. Prevention of movement between bones. b. Two parallel bones are united to each other by fibrous connective tissue. c. An action that involves lateral rotation of the forearm. d. A broad sheet of connective tissue that lies between two bones. e. An action that allows the radius to roll over the ulna.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.2 Fibrous Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.2.3 - Compare and contrast a suture, syndesmosis, and gomphosis.

15. What statement best describes a synchondrosis joint? a. The bones are joined by a tough hyaline cartilage. b. The bones are joined by fibrocartilaginous disks. c. The hyaline cartilage that covers the epiphysis of a long bone. d. The root ligament between long bones. e. The joint is freely movable, found in the appendicular skeleton.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 10.3 Cartilaginous Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.3.1 - Describe the structural features of cartilaginous joints.

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16. What statement best describes a symphysis joint? a. The bones are joined by a tough hyaline cartilage. b. The bones are joined by fibrocartilaginous disks. c. The hyaline cartilage that covers the epiphysis of a long bone. d. The root ligament between long bones. e. The joint is freely movable, found in the appendicular skeleton.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 10.3 Cartilaginous Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.3.1 - Describe the structural features of cartilaginous joints.

17. What statement best describes the epiphyseal plate? a. The hyaline cartilage that covers the epiphysis. b. The fibrocartilaginous disk at the end of a long bone. c. The hyaline cartilage found between the diaphysis and epiphysis of a long bone. d. The root ligament between long bones. e. A freely movable region of the long bone during development.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 10.3 Cartilaginous Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.3.1 - Describe the structural features of cartilaginous joints.

18. What do you call a cartilaginous joint where hyaline cartilage is present between the bones? a. A synchondrosis joint b. A symphysis joint c. A gomphosis joint d. A synarthrosis joint e. A fibrous joint ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 10.3 Cartilaginous Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.3.3 - Compare and contrast a synchondrosis and symphysis.

19. What do you call a cartilaginous joint where two bones articulate at a fibrocartilaginous pad? a. A synchondrosis joint b. A symphysis joint c. A gomphosis joint d. A synarthrosis joint e. A fibrous joint ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 10.3 Cartilaginous Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.3.3 - Compare and contrast a synchondrosis and symphysis.

20. What type of joint is found between the ribs and costal cartilage? a. A synchondrosis joint

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b. A symphysis joint c. A gomphosis joint d. A synarthrosis joint e. A fibrous joint ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 10.3 Cartilaginous Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.3.3 - Compare and contrast a synchondrosis and symphysis.

21. What statement best describes an articular capsule? a. A fibrous connective tissue attached to each bone just outside the area of the bone’s articulating surface. b. The inner membranous layer composed of loose connective tissue that secretes synovial fluid. c. The fluid secreted by the cells of the membrane to provide lubrication between bone joints. d. A thin layer of hyaline cartilage that covers the epiphyseal surface of each long bone. e. A disconnected bony structure within the joint.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.4 Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.4.1 - Identify and describe the major structural components of a typical synovial joint.

22. What statement best describes the synovial membrane? a. A fibrous connective tissue attached to each bone just outside the area of the bone’s articulating surface. b. The inner membranous layer composed of loWoW seWc. onTnB ecS tivMe.tiW ssS ue that secretes synovial fluid. c. The fluid secreted by the cells of the membrane to provide lubrication between bone joints. d. A thin layer of hyaline cartilage that covers the epiphyseal surface of each long bone. e. A disconnected bony structure within the joint.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.4 Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.4.1 - Identify and describe the major structural components of a typical synovial joint.

23. What statement best describes synovial fluid? a. A fibrous connective tissue attached to each bone just outside the area of the bone’s articulating surface. b. The inner membranous layer composed of loose connective tissue that secretes synovial fluid. c. The fluid secreted by the cells of the membrane to provide lubrication between bone joints. d. A thin layer of hyaline cartilage that covers the epiphyseal surface of each long bone. e. A disconnected bony structure within the joint.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.4 Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.4.1 - Identify and describe the major structural components of a typical synovial joint.

24. What statement best describes articular cartilage?

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a. A fibrous connective tissue attached to each bone just outside the area of the bone’s articulating surface. b. The inner membranous layer composed of loose connective tissue that secretes synovial fluid. c. The fluid secreted by the cells of the membrane to provide lubrication between bone joints. d. A thin layer of hyaline cartilage that covers the epiphyseal surface of each long bone. e. A disconnected bony structure within the joint.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.4 Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.4.1 - Identify and describe the major structural components of a typical synovial joint.

25. What statement best describes a pivot joint? a. Rotation around an axis, such as between the first and second cervical vertebrae. b. The rounded end of one bone that another bone moves around within one plane. c. One rounded bone end that is cupped within a bowl-like depression of another bone. d. Two curved-in bones that fit into each other complementarily. e. Flattened, articulating, bony surfaces on both bones, which allow for limited gliding movements.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.4 Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.4.2 - For each of the six structural types of synovial joints, describe its anatomic features, identify locations in the body, and predict the kinds of movement each joint allows.

26. What statement best describes a hinge joint? a. Rotation around an axis, such as between the first and second cervical vertebrae. b. The rounded end of one bone that another bone moves around within one plane. c. One rounded bone end that is cupped within a bowl-like depression of another bone. d. Two curved-in bones that fit into each other complementarily. e. Flattened, articulating, bony surfaces on both bones, which allow for limited gliding movements.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.4 Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.4.2 - For each of the six structural types of synovial joints, describe its anatomic features, identify locations in the body, and predict the kinds of movement each joint allows.

27. What statement best describes a condyloid joint? a. Rotation around an axis, such as between the first and second cervical vertebrae. b. The rounded end of one bone that another bone moves around within one plane. c. One rounded bone end that is cupped within a bowl-like depression of another bone. d. Two curved-in bones that fit into each other complementarily. e. Flattened, articulating, bony surfaces on both bones, which allow for limited gliding movements.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.4 Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.4.2 - For each of the six structural types of synovial joints, describe its anatomic

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features, identify locations in the body, and predict the kinds of movement each joint allows.

28. What statement best describes saddle joints? a. Rotation around an axis, such as between the first and second cervical vertebrae. b. The rounded end of one bone that another bone moves around within one plane. c. One rounded bone end that is cupped within a bowl-like depression of another bone. d. Two curved-in bones that fit into each other complementarily. e. Flattened, articulating, bony surfaces on both bones, which allow for limited gliding movements.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.4 Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.4.2 - For each of the six structural types of synovial joints, describe its anatomic features, identify locations in the body, and predict the kinds of movement each joint allows.

29. What statement best describes plane joints? a. Rotation around an axis, such as between the first and second cervical vertebrae. b. The rounded end of one bone that another bone moves around within one plane. c. One rounded bone end that is cupped within a bowl-like depression of another bone. d. Two curved-in bones, like saddles, that fit into each other complementarily. e. Flattened, articulating, bony surfaces on both bones, which allow for limited gliding movements.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand WWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 10.4 Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.4.2 - For each of the six structural types of synovial joints, describe its anatomic features, identify locations in the body, and predict the kinds of movement each joint allows.

30. Gout, a form of arthritis, is the result of which of the following? a. Deposition of uric acid crystals within a body joint. b. Depletion of synovial fluid within the joint. c. Loss of articular cartilage at the joint. d. Loss of bone surface within the joint. e. Loss of calcium at the joint.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.4 Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.4.3 - Given a description, diagram, or photo, categorize the joint as one of the six structural types of synovial joints.

31. What statement best describes flexion, a body movement? a. A decrease in the joint angle. b. Brings the joint back to the anatomical position. c. Increases the joint angle to greater than 180 degrees. d. Moves the bony structure away from the body. e. Brings the fingers and toes together.

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ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.5 Movements at Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.5.1 - Define the movements that typically occur at a joint (e.g., flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation, circumduction, inversion, eversion, protraction, retraction).

32. What statement best describes extension, a body movement? a. A decrease in the joint angle. b. Brings the joint back to the anatomical position. c. Increases the joint angle to greater than 180 degrees. d. Moves the bony structure away from the body. e. Brings the fingers and toes together.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.5 Movements at Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.5.1 - Define the movements that typically occur at a joint (e.g., flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation, circumduction, inversion, eversion, protraction, retraction).

33. What statement best describes hyperextension? a. A decrease in the joint angle. b. Brings the joint back to the anatomical position. c. Increases the joint angle to greater than 180 degrees.

WWW.TBSM.WS d. Moves the bony structure away from the body. e. Brings the fingers and toes together.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.5 Movements at Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.5.1 - Define the movements that typically occur at a joint (e.g., flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation, circumduction, inversion, eversion, protraction, retraction).

34. What statement best describes abduction, a body movement? a. A decrease in the joint angle. b. Brings the joint back to the anatomical position. c. Increases the joint angle to greater than 180 degrees. d. Moves the bony structure away from the body. e. Brings the fingers and toes together.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.5 Movements at Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.5.1 - Define the movements that typically occur at a joint (e.g., flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation, circumduction, inversion, eversion, protraction, retraction).

35. What statement best describes adduction, a body movement?

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a. A decrease in the joint angle. b. Brings the joint back to the anatomical position. c. Increases the joint angle to greater than 180 degrees. d. Moves the bony structure away from the body. e. Brings the fingers and toes together.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.5 Movements at Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.5.1 - Define the movements that typically occur at a joint (e.g., flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, rotation, circumduction, inversion, eversion, protraction, retraction).

36. What statement best describes supination? a. Movement to bring the radius and ulna parallel and palms facing forward in anatomical position. b. Movement in which the radius crosses over the ulna so the palm faces posteriorly. c. Movement of the foot to elevate the toes while the heel is on the ground. d. Movement of the foot to elevate the heel and point the toes. e. Movement of the foot so that the sole of the foot faces laterally, or outward.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.5 Movements at Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.5.2 - For a given joint, list (if you know) or predict (if a new joint) the motion available based on joint anatomy.

37. What statement best describes pronation? a. Movement to bring the radius and ulna parallel and palms facing forward in anatomical position. b. Movement in which the radius crosses over the ulna so the palm faces posteriorly. c. Movement of the foot to elevate the toes while the heel is on the ground. d. Movement of the foot to elevate the heel and point the toes. e. Movement of the foot so that the sole of the foot faces laterally, or outward.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.5 Movements at Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.5.2 - For a given joint, list (if you know) or predict (if a new joint) the motion available based on joint anatomy.

38. What statement best describes dorsiflexion? a. Movement to bring the radius and ulna parallel and palms facing forward in anatomical position. b. Movement in which the radius crosses over the ulna so the palm faces posteriorly. c. Movement of the foot to elevate the toes while the heel is on the ground. d. Movement of the foot to elevate the heel and point the toes. e. Movement of the foot so that the sole of the foot faces laterally, or outward.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.5 Movements at Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.5.2 - For a given joint, list (if you know) or predict (if a new joint) the motion available based on joint anatomy.

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39. What statement best describes plantar flexion? a. Movement to bring the radius and ulna parallel and palms facing forward in anatomical position. b. Movement in which the radius crosses over the ulna so the palm faces posteriorly. c. Movement of the foot to elevate the toes while the heel is on the ground. d. Movement of the foot to elevate the heel and point the toes. e. Movement of the foot so that the sole of the foot faces laterally, or outward.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.5 Movements at Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.5.2 - For a given joint, list (if you know) or predict (if a new joint) the motion available based on joint anatomy.

40. What statement best describes plantar eversion? a. Movement to bring the radius and ulna parallel and palms facing forward in anatomical position. b. Movement in which the radius crosses over the ulna so the palm faces posteriorly. c. Movement of the foot to elevate the toes while the heel is on the ground. d. Movement of the foot to elevate the heel and point the toes. e. Movement of the foot so that the sole of the foot faces laterally, or outward.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.5 Movements at Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.5.2 - For a given joint, list (if you know) or predict (if a new joint) the motion available based onWjW oiW nt.aTnB atS om y.WS M. 41. The temporomandibular joint . a. is a joint that allows for depression/elevation, excursion, and protraction/retraction of the mandible b. is a ball-and-socket joint formed by the articulation between the head of the humerus and the glenoid cavity of the scapula c. is a hinge joint formed by the trochlea of the humerus and the trochlear notch of the ulna d. is a ball-and-socket joint that provides the greatest stability for the trunk e. is an articulation of the femur, the patella, and the tibia ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.6 Anatomy of Selected Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.6.2 - Describe the components (bones, bone features, and other structures) that articulate together to form the TMJ, shoulder, elbow, knee, and hip joints.

42. What statement best describes the glenohumeral joint? a. A joint that allows for depression/elevation, excursion, and protraction/retraction of the mandible. b. A ball-and-socket joint formed by the articulation between the head of the humerus and the glenoid cavity of the scapula. c. A hinge joint formed by the trochlea of the humerus and the trochlear notch of the ulna. d. A ball-and-socket joint that provides the greatest stability for the trunk. e. The articulation between the femur, the patella, and the tibia.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 10.6 Anatomy of Selected Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.6.2 - Describe the components (bones, bone features, and other structures) that articulate together to form the TMJ, shoulder, elbow, knee, and hip joints.

43. What statement best describes elbow joint? a. A joint that allows for depression/elevation, excursion, and protraction/retraction of the mandible. b. A ball-and-socket joint formed by the articulation between the head of the humerus and the glenoid cavity of the scapula. c. A hinge joint formed by the trochlea of the humerus and the trochlear notch of the ulna. d. A ball-and-socket joint that provides the greatest stability for the trunk. e. The articulation between the femur, the patella, and the tibia.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.6 Anatomy of Selected Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.6.2 - Describe the components (bones, bone features, and other structures) that articulate together to form the TMJ, shoulder, elbow, knee, and hip joints.

44. What statement best describes the hip joint? a. A joint that allows for depression/elevation, excursion, and protraction/retraction of the mandible. b. A ball-and-socket joint formed by the articulation between the head of the humerus and the glenoid cavity of the scapula. c. A hinge joint formed by the trochlea of the humerus and the trochlear notch of the ulna. d. A ball-and-socket joint that provides the greatest stability for the trunk. e. The articulation between the femur, the patella, and the tibia.

WWW.TBSM.WS ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.6 Anatomy of Selected Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.6.2 - Describe the components (bones, bone features, and other structures) that articulate together to form the TMJ, shoulder, elbow, knee, and hip joints.

45. The knee joint . a. is a joint that allows for depression/elevation, excursion, and protraction/retraction of the mandible b. is a ball-and-socket joint formed by the articulation between the head of the humerus and the glenoid cavity of the scapula c. is a hinge joint formed by the trochlea of the humerus and the trochlear notch of the ulna d. is a ball-and-socket joint that provides the greatest stability for the trunk e. is an articulation betweem the femur, the patella, and the tibia ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.6 Anatomy of Selected Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.6.2 - Describe the components (bones, bone features, and other structures) that articulate together to form the TMJ, shoulder, elbow, knee, and hip joints.

Essay 46. Explain why the shoulder joint has the largest range of motion compared to other joints of the body. Include in your discussion the anatomical bony features and ligaments that are at the shoulder joint to provide some support and stability.

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ANSWER:

The freedom of movement at the shoulder joint allows for a large range of motion yet lacks the structural support and stability compared to other joints (e.g., knee or hip joint). Thus, the glenohumeral joint is most frequently dislocated joint in the human body. The large range of motion at the shoulder joint is due, in part, to the size difference between the two bones that articulate at this joint. The head of the humerus is large and rounded but the glenoid cavity of the scapula is quite small and shallow, surrounding only about one-third of the surface of the humeral head. The perimeter of the glenoid cavity has a slightly raised ridge of fibrocartilage called the glenoid labrum that does little to aid in shoulder stability.

The articular capsule that surrounds the glenohumeral joint is relatively thin and loose to allow for large motions of the upper limb. Some structural support is provided by ligaments that thicken of the wall of the articular capsule. These include the coracohumeral ligament, running from the coracoid process of the scapula to the anterior humerus, and the three glenohumeral ligaments that strengthen the anterior and superior sides of the joint.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.6 Anatomy of Selected Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.6.1 - Compare and contrast the movements possible and the anatomical constraints of these joints.

47. Describe the evolution of the fontanelles from birth to later life.

ANSWER: In newborns and infants, the areas of connective tissue between the bones are much wider, especially in the regions on the top and sides of the skull that will eventually become the sagittal, coronal, squamous, and lambdoid sutures. These broad areas of connective tissue are called fontanelles. During birth, the fontanelles provide flexibility for the skull, allowing the bones to push closer together or to overlap slightly to aid the infant’s head through the birth canal. After birth, these expanded regions of connective tissue allow for rapid growth of the skull and enlargement of the brain. The fontanelles greatly decrease in width during the first year after birth as ossification of the skull bones continues. When the connective tissue between the adjacent bones is reduced to a narrow layer, these fibrous joints are now called sutures and the fontanelles no longer exist. At some sutures, the connective tissue will ossify and be converted into bone, causing the adjacent bones to fuse to each other later in life.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 10.2 Fibrous Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.2.2 - Given the description of a joint, characterize it as a suture, syndesmosis, or gomphosis 48. Describe the evolution of synchondroses from early life to late teens and early twenties.

ANSWER: In early life, hyaline cartilage is present between the epiphysis and the diaphysis, referred to as the epiphyseal plate (i.e., growth plate) to allow the bone to grow and develop.

During an individual’s late teens and early twenties, the epiphyseal plates of each long bone are ossified, the cartilage is completely replaced by bone. Once this occurs, bones cannot grow any longer and the synchondrosis is no longer present.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 10.3 Cartilaginous Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.3.1 - Describe the structural features of cartilaginous joints.

49. Define bursae and bursitis. Then, describe the most common causes, symptoms, and treatments for bursitis at multiple joints.

ANSWER: Bursae function to help joints move with more fluidly by reducing any friction between ligaments or tendons against the bones of the joint. Bursitis is the inflammation of a bursa.

This generally results in reduced movement at the joint because of pain, swelling, or tenderness of the bursa and the surrounding area. Bursitis is most commonly associated

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with the bursae found at or near the shoulder, hip, knee, or elbow joints. Bursitis can be either acute (lasting only a few days) or chronic. It can arise from mechanical issues such as muscle overuse, trauma, or excessive or prolonged pressure on the skin. Any type of anti-inflammatory treatment should help to reduce the inflammation until the source can be found. At the knee, inflammation and swelling of the bursa located between the skin and patella bone is prepatellar bursitis. At the elbow, olecranon bursitis is inflammation of the bursa between the skin and olecranon process of the ulna.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 10.4 Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.4.2 - For each of the six structural types of synovial joints, describe its anatomic features, identify locations in the body, and predict the kinds of movement each joint allows.

50. Describe the two syndesmoses in the human body (each between the parallel bones in the distal limbs) and how they differ.

ANSWER: There are two syndesmoses in the human body, each between the parallel bones in the distal limbs. In the forearm, the shaft of the radius and ulna are strongly united by an interosseous membrane. Similarly, in the lower leg the shafts of the tibia and fibula are also united by an interosseous membrane. The interosseous membranes of the leg and forearm also provide areas for muscle attachment. While these two joints have parallel anatomy, there are some key differences in structure and function. The arms function in tasks like carrying, grasping, throwing, and even fighting. The proximal radioulnar joint is stabilized by ligaments, but the distal radioulnar joint is much more flexible, allowing the radius to roll over the ulna (this movement is called pronation) so that the palm of the hand can face any direction. The leg is a site of intense load-bearing both during standing and while bearing the impact of the body during walking and running. Thus, stability is a key function for this location. At the distal tibiofibular joint, the articulating surfaces of the bones are bound by fibrous connective tissue and reinforced by ligaments, creating a more stable tibiofibular syndesmosis. Because syndesmoses do not prevent all movement between the bones, they are functionally classified as amphiarthroses.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Analyze REFERENCES: 10.4 Synovial Joints LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 10.4.2 - For each of the six structural types of synovial joints, describe its anatomic features, identify locations in the body, and predict the kinds of movement each joint allows.

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Chapter 11 - Muscle Tissue Multiple Choice 1. What are the three types of muscle tissue? a. skeletal, smooth and cardiac b. motion, skeletal and cardiac c. cartilage, skeletal and cardiac d. skeletal, cardiac and kinetic e. skeletal, smooth and motion ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 11.1 Overview of Muscle Tissues LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.1.1 - Describe the major functions of muscle tissue.

2. What statement best describes cardiac muscle tissue? a. Cardiac muscle is primarily located in the appendages. b. Cardiac muscle is primarily responsible for the production of enzymes within the body. c. Cardiac muscle makes up the walls of the heart and surrounds the blood-filled chambers. d. Cardiac muscle makes up the walls of the hollow organs, such as blood vessels. e. Cardiac muscle is responsible for external limb movement.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.1 Overview of M isS suMe. s WS WuWsWcl.e TTB LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.1.2 - Describe the structure, location in the body, and function of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle.

3. What statement best describes smooth muscle tissue? a. Smooth muscle is primarily located in the appendages. b. Smooth muscle is primarily responsible for the production of enzymes within the body. c. Smooth muscle makes up the walls of the heart and surrounds the blood-filled chambers. d. Smooth muscle makes up the walls of the hollow organs, such as blood vessels. e. Smooth muscle is responsible for external limb movement.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.1 Overview of Muscle Tissues LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.1.2 - Describe the structure, location in the body, and function of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle.

4. Skeletal muscle tissue . a. is primarily located in the abdominal cavity b. is primarily responsible for the production of enzymes within the body c. makes up the walls of the heart and surrounds the blood-filled chambers d. makes up the walls of the hollow organs, such as blood vessels e. is responsible for overall body movement ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 11.1 Overview of Muscle Tissues LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.1.2 - Describe the structure, location in the body, and function of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle.

5. Cardiac muscle (myocardial) cells . a. typically have a single nucleus, are striated, and are physically and electrically connected to each other b. are small and elongated, nonstriated with a single nucleus c. are long multinucleated cells d. are voluntary yet lack a nucleus e. are composed primarily of pericardium ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.1 Overview of Muscle Tissues LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.1.3 - Compare and contrast the general microscopic characteristics of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle.

6. Smooth muscle cells . a. typically have a single nucleus, are striated, and are physically and electrically connected to each other b. are small and elongated, nonstriated with a single nucleus c. are long multinucleated cells d. are voluntary yet lack a nucleus e. are composed primarily of pericardium ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understan WdWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 11.1 Overview of Muscle Tissues LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.1.3 - Compare and contrast the general microscopic characteristics of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle.

7. Skeletal muscle cells . a. typically have a single nucleus, are striated, and are physically and electrically connected to each other b. are small and elongated, nonstriated with a single nucleus c. are long multinucleated cells d. are voluntary yet lack a nucleus e. are composed primarily of perimysium ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.1 Overview of Muscle Tissues LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.1.3 - Compare and contrast the general microscopic characteristics of skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle.

8. What statement best describes epimysium? a. It is the connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle. b. It is a bundle of muscle cells. c. It is the connective tissue that surrounds the fascicles. d. It is a thin layer of collagen and reticular fibers that surrounds the muscle fiber. e. It is also referred to as the muscle tissue nuclei.

ANSWER: a

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.2 Skeletal Muscle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2.1 - Describe the organization of skeletal muscle, from cell (skeletal muscle fiber) to whole muscle.

9. What statement best describes perimysium? a. It is the connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle. b. It is a bundle of muscle cells. c. It is the connective tissue that surrounds the fascicles. d. It is a thin layer of collagen and reticular fibers that surrounds the muscle fiber. e. It is also referred to as the muscle tissue nuclei.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.2 Skeletal Muscle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2.1 - Describe the organization of skeletal muscle, from cell (skeletal muscle fiber) to whole muscle.

10. What statement best describes fascicle? a. It is the connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle. b. It is a bundle of muscle cells. c. It is the connective tissue that surrounds the fascicles. d. It is a thin layer of collagen and reticular fibers that surrounds the muscle fiber. e. It is also referred to as the muscle tissue nuclei.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.2 Skeletal Muscle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2.1 - Describe the organization of skeletal muscle, from cell (skeletal muscle fiber) to whole muscle.

11. What statement best describes endomysium? a. It is the connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle. b. It is a bundle of muscle cells. c. It is the connective tissue that surrounds the fascicles. d. It is a thin layer of collagen and reticular fibers that surrounds the muscle fiber. e. It is also referred to as the muscle tissue nuclei.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.2 Skeletal Muscle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2.1 - Describe the organization of skeletal muscle, from cell (skeletal muscle fiber) to whole muscle.

12. In skeletal muscle cells, which of the following structures refers to the sarcolemma? a. The plasma membrane b. The cytoplasm c. The specialized smooth endoplasmic reticulum d. An invagination of the plasma membrane to bring the electrical current into the muscle fiber e. Long, cylindrical contractile proteins that shorten during contraction

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ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.2 Skeletal Muscle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2.2 - Name the connective tissue layers that surround each skeletal muscle fiber, fascicle, entire muscle, and group of muscles, and indicate the specific type of connective tissue that composes each of these layers.

13. In skeletal muscle cells, which of the following structures refers to the sarcoplasm? a. The plasma membrane b. The cytoplasm c. The specialized smooth endoplasmic reticulum d. An invagination of the plasma membrane to bring the electrical current into the muscle fiber e. Long, cylindrical contractile proteins that shorten during contraction ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.2 Skeletal Muscle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2.2 - Name the connective tissue layers that surround each skeletal muscle fiber, fascicle, entire muscle, and group of muscles, and indicate the specific type of connective tissue that composes each of these layers.

14. In skeletal muscle cells, which of the following structures refers to the sarcoplasmic reticulum? a. The plasma membrane b. The cytoplasm c. The specialized smooth endoplasmic reticulum WWW.TBSM.WS d. An invagination of the plasma membrane to bring the electrical current into the muscle fiber e. Long, cylindrical contractile proteins that shorten during contraction ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.2 Skeletal Muscle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2.3 - Describe the components within a skeletal muscle fiber (e.g., sarcolemma, transverse [T] tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum, myofibrils, thick [myosin] myofilaments, thin [actin] myofilaments, troponin, tropomyosin).

15. In skeletal muscle cells, which of the following structures refers to the T-tubules? a. The plasma membrane b. The cytoplasm c. The specialized smooth endoplasmic reticulum d. An invagination of the plasma membrane to bring the electrical current into the muscle fiber e. Long, cylindrical contractile proteins that shorten during contraction ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.2 Skeletal Muscle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2.3 - Describe the components within a skeletal muscle fiber (e.g., sarcolemma, transverse [T] tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum, myofibrils, thick [myosin] myofilaments, thin [actin] myofilaments, troponin, tropomyosin).

16. In skeletal muscle cells, which of the following structures refers to the myofibril?

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a. The plasma membrane b. The cytoplasm c. The specialized smooth endoplasmic reticulum d. An invagination of the plasma membrane to bring the electrical current into the muscle fiber e. Long, cylindrical contractile proteins that shorten during contraction ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.2 Skeletal Muscle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2.3 - Describe the components within a skeletal muscle fiber (e.g., sarcolemma, transverse [T] tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum, myofibrils, thick [myosin] myofilaments, thin [actin] myofilaments, troponin, tropomyosin).

17. The smallest contractile unit in a muscle cell is the a. sarcomere b. nucleus c. plasma d. T-tubule e. sarcoplasmic reticulum ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 11.2 Skeletal Muscle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2.4 - Define sarcomere.

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18. What are the two main contractile proteins presW enWt W in.saTrcBoS mM er. esW ?S a. muscle protein and actin b. myosin and actin c. myosin and cell protein d. muscle protein and myosin e. cell protein and actin ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 11.2 Skeletal Muscle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2.5 - Describe the arrangement and composition of the following components of a sarcomere: A band, I band, H zone, Z disc (Z line), and M line.

19. Which of the following statements best describe the A band of a sarcomere? a. The region of the sarcomere where the thick filaments align. b. The region where only thin filaments are found. c. A horizontal line at the exact center of the sarcomere. d. The boundaries of the sarcomere. e. The region where the structural protein, dystrophin, is found.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.2 Skeletal Muscle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2.5 - Describe the arrangement and composition of the following components of a sarcomere: A band, I band, H zone, Z disc (Z line), and M line.

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20. Which of the following statements best describe the I band of a sarcomere? a. The region of the sarcomere where the thick filaments align. b. The region where only thin filaments are found. c. A horizontal line at the exact center of the sarcomere. d. The boundaries of the sarcomere. e. The region where the structural protein, dystrophin, is found.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.2 Skeletal Muscle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2.5 - Describe the arrangement and composition of the following components of a sarcomere: A band, I band, H zone, Z disc (Z line), and M line.

21. Which of the following statements best describe the M line within a sarcomere? a. The region of the sarcomere where the thick filaments align. b. The region where only thin filaments are found. c. A horizontal line at the exact center of the sarcomere. d. The boundaries of the sarcomere. e. The region where the structural protein, dystrophin, is found.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.2 Skeletal Muscle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2.5 - Describe the arrangement and composition of the following components of a sarcomere: A band, I band, H zone, Z disc (Z line), and M line.

22. Which of the following statements best describe the Z disk of a sarcomere? a. The region of the sarcomere where the thick filaments align. b. The region where only thin filaments are found. c. A horizontal line at the exact center of the sarcomere. d. The boundaries of the sarcomere. e. The region where the structural protein, dystrophin, is found.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.2 Skeletal Muscle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2.5 - Describe the arrangement and composition of the following components of a sarcomere: A band, I band, H zone, Z disc (Z line), and M line.

23. What statement best describes the neuromuscular junction (NMJ)? a. A synapse between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle cell. b. Neurons that control skeletal muscle cells. c. The surface of the skeletal muscle cell at the synapse. d. The surface of the skeletal muscle. e. The nucleus of the muscle cell.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.2 Skeletal Muscle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2.6 - Describe the structure of the neuromuscular junction.

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24. What statement best describes motor neurons? a. A synapse between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle cell. b. Neurons that control skeletal muscle cells. c. The surface of the skeletal muscle cell at the synapse. d. The surface of the skeletal muscle. e. The nucleus of the muscle cell.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.2 Skeletal Muscle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2.6 - Describe the structure of the neuromuscular junction.

25. What statement best describes motor end plate? a. A synapse between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle cell. b. Neurons that control skeletal muscle cells. c. The surface of the skeletal muscle cell at the synapse. d. The surface of the skeletal muscle. e. The nucleus of the muscle cell.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.2 Skeletal Muscle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.2.6 - Describe the structure of the neuromuscular junction.

26. An isometric contraction is . a. the force generated by the contraction of theWmWuW sc. leTBSM.WS b. a contraction with tension yet does not move a load c. muscle tension that moves an object d. muscle shortening to move a load e. a decrease in muscle tension while the muscle lengthens ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.3 Skeletal Muscle Cell Contraction and Relaxation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3.1 - Define the sliding filament model of skeletal muscle contraction.

27. An isotonic contraction is . a. the force generated by the contraction of the muscle b. a contraction with tension yet does not move a load c. muscle tension that moves an object d. muscle shortening without movement e. a decrease in muscle tension while the muscle lengthens ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.3 Skeletal Muscle Cell Contraction and Relaxation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3.1 - Define the sliding filament model of skeletal muscle contraction.

28. What statement best describes a concentric contraction? a. The force generated by the contraction of the muscle.

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b. A contraction that does not move a load. c. Muscle tension that moves an object. d. Involves muscle shortening to move a load. e. A decrease in muscle tension while the muscle lengthens.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.3 Skeletal Muscle Cell Contraction and Relaxation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3.1 - Define the sliding filament model of skeletal muscle contraction.

29. What statement best describes eccentric contraction? a. The force generated by the contraction of the muscle. b. A contraction that does not move a load. c. Muscle tension that moves an object. d. Involves muscle shortening to move a load. e. A decrease in muscle tension while the muscle lengthens.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.3 Skeletal Muscle Cell Contraction and Relaxation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3.1 - Define the sliding filament model of skeletal muscle contraction.

30. Which of the following statements best describe the troponin-tropomyosin relationship? a. Troponin-tropomyosin is activated when ATP is available in the sarcoplasm, it occurs when the myosin head binds to actin. b. Troponin-tropomyosin is responsible for preW veWnW tin.gTthBeSmMy. osW inSheads from binding to actin, and consequently preventing contraction during the resting state. c. Troponin-tropomyosin complex is at the axon terminal and is responsible for the release of a chemical messenger into the synapse. d. Troponin-tropomyosin is responsible for the initiation of muscle contraction because its binds to actin. e. Troponin-tropomyosin complex decreases muscle tension while the muscle lengthens.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.3 Skeletal Muscle Cell Contraction and Relaxation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3.2 - Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber, including events at the neuromuscular junction, excitation-contraction coupling, and cross-bridge cycling.

31. Which of the following statements best describe a cross-bridge? a. A cross-bridge is activated when ATP is available in the sarcoplasm, it occurs when the myosin head binds to actin. b. A cross-bridge is responsible for preventing the myosin heads from binding to actin, and consequently preventing contraction during the resting state. c. A cross-bridge complex is at the axon terminal and is responsible for the release of a chemical messenger into the synapse. d. A cross-bridge is responsible for the initiation of muscle contraction because its binds to actin. e. A cross-bridge complex decreases muscle tension while the muscle lengthens.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 11.3 Skeletal Muscle Cell Contraction and Relaxation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3.2 - Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber, including events at the neuromuscular junction, excitation-contraction coupling, and cross-bridge cycling.

32. What state best describes troponin-tropomyosin? a. When there is ATP available in the sarcoplasm, myosin heads will bind to actin. b. Responsible for preventing the myosin heads from binding to actin, and consequently preventing contraction. c. At the end of the axon the arrival of the action potential causes the release of a chemical messenger.

Neurotransmitter. d. At the initiation of muscle contraction, its binds to troponin. Ca2+ e. The muscle tension decreases and the muscle lengthens.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.3 Skeletal Muscle Cell Contraction and Relaxation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3.2 - Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber, including events at the neuromuscular junction, excitation-contraction coupling, and cross-bridge cycling.

33. Which of the following statements best describe acetylcholine? a. Acetylcholine is activated when ATP is available in the sarcoplasm, it binds the myosin head to actin. b. Acetylcholine is responsible for preventing the myosin heads from binding to actin, and consequently preventing contraction during the resting state. c. Acetylcholine is released into the neuromuscular junction when an action potential arrives at the axon terminal. d. Acetylcholine is responsible for the initiation of muscle contraction because its binds to actin. e. Acetylcholine decreases muscle tension while the muscle lengthens.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.3 Skeletal Muscle Cell Contraction and Relaxation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3.2 - Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber, including events at the neuromuscular junction, excitation-contraction coupling, and cross-bridge cycling.

34. Which of the following statements best describe calcium (Ca2+)? a. Calcium is activated when ATP is available in the sarcoplasm, it binds the myosin head to actin. b. Calcium is responsible for preventing the myosin heads from binding to actin, and consequently preventing contraction during the resting state. c. Calcium is released into the neuromuscular junction when an action potential arrives at the axon terminal. d. Calcium is responsible for the initiation of muscle contraction because its binds to troponin which removes tropomyosin off the actin-myosin binding sites. e. Calcium decreases muscle tension while the muscle lengthens.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.3 Skeletal Muscle Cell Contraction and Relaxation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3.2 - Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber, including events at the neuromuscular junction, excitation-contraction coupling, and cross-bridge cycling.

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35. Which of the following statements best describe creatine phosphate? a. It powers the first few seconds of muscle contraction. b. It is an anaerobic process that breaks down glucose to produce ATP. c. If oxygen is not available, pyruvate is converted to creatine phosphate. d. It is the key molecule to initiate muscle contraction. e. It is a process that occurs in the mitochondria and can produce high amounts of ATP. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.4 Skeletal Muscle Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.4.1 - Describe the sources of ATP (e.g., glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation, creatine phosphate) that muscle fibers use for skeletal muscle contraction.

36. What state best describes glycolysis? a. It powers the first few seconds of muscle contraction. b. It is an anaerobic process that breaks down glucose to produce ATP and pyruvate. c. If oxygen is not available, it is converted to creatine phosphate. d. It is a key molecule important in initiating muscle contraction. e. It is a process that occurs in the mitochondria and can produce high amounts of ATP. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.4 Skeletal Muscle Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.4.1 - Describe the sources of ATP (e.g., glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation, creatine phosphate mB usScM le.fiW be W)WthWa.t T Srs use for skeletal muscle contraction.

37. What state best describes lactic acid? a. It provides energy during the first few seconds of muscle contraction. b. It is an anaerobic process that breaks down glucose to produce ATP and pyruvate. c. If oxygen is not available, pyruvate is converted to lactic acid. d. It is a key molecule important in initiating muscle contraction. e. It is a process that occurs in the mitochondria and can produce high amounts of ATP. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.4 Skeletal Muscle Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.4.1 - Describe the sources of ATP (e.g., glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation, creatine phosphate) that muscle fibers use for skeletal muscle contraction.

38. What state best describes aerobic respiration? a. It provides energy during the first few seconds of muscle contraction. b. It is an anaerobic process that breaks down glucose to produce ATP and pyruvate. c. It is a metabolic process that produces ATP but does not require oxygen. d. It is a key molecule important in initiating muscle contraction. e. It is a process that occurs in the mitochondria and can produce high amounts of ATP. ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.4 Skeletal Muscle Metabolism

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.4.1 - Describe the sources of ATP (e.g., glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation, creatine phosphate) that muscle fibers use for skeletal muscle contraction.

39. Why does respiratory rate continue to be high for a short period of time following a bout of exercise? a. To ensure the lungs are completely oxygenated. b. To remove the lactic acid from all cells. c. To replenish the myoglobin stores in preparation for the next burst of activity. d. To replenish the moisture lost within the body. e. To ensure removal of carbon dioxide.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.4 Skeletal Muscle Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.4.2 - Describe the events that occur during the recovery period from skeletal muscle activity.

40. Which of the following statements best describe slow oxidative muscle fibers? a. Fibers that make ATP efficiently and use it slowly, so they can continually contract without fatigue. b. Fibers that make ATP efficiently but use it quickly, so they fatigue after some time. c. Fibers that make ATP inefficiently, use it quickly, and fatigue rapidly. d. Fibers that make ATP that does not dissipate. e. Fibers that do not make ATP for use by the muscle cells.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.4 Skeletal MuscWle M. etT ab WW BoSlisMm.WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.4.4 - Compare and contrast the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of slow oxidative (Type I), fast oxidative (Type IIa), intermediate, or fast twitch oxidative glycolytic), and fast glycolytic (Type IIb/IIx or fast twitch anaerobic) skeletal muscle fibers.

41. Which statement best describes fast oxidative muscle fibers? a. Fibers that make ATP efficiently and use it slowly, so they can continually contract without fatigue. b. Fibers that make ATP efficiently but use it quickly, so they fatigue after some time. c. Fibers that make ATP inefficiently, use it quickly, and fatigue rapidly. d. Fibers that make ATP that does not dissipate. e. Fibers that do not make ATP for use by the muscle cells.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.4 Skeletal Muscle Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.4.4 - Compare and contrast the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of slow oxidative (Type I), fast oxidative (Type IIa), intermediate, or fast twitch oxidative glycolytic), and fast glycolytic (Type IIb/IIx or fast twitch anaerobic) skeletal muscle fibers.

42. Which statement best describes glycolytic muscle fibers? a. Fibers that make ATP efficiently and use it slowly, so they can continually contract without fatigue. b. Fibers that make ATP efficiently but use it quickly, so they fatigue after some time. c. Fibers that make ATP inefficiently, use it quickly, and fatigue rapidly.

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d. Fibers that make ATP that does not dissipate. e. Fibers that do not make ATP for use by the muscle cells.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.4 Skeletal Muscle Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.4.4 - Compare and contrast the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of slow oxidative (Type I), fast oxidative (Type IIa), intermediate, or fast twitch oxidative glycolytic), and fast glycolytic (Type IIb/IIx or fast twitch anaerobic) skeletal muscle fibers.

43. Which of the following statements best describe the differences between skeletal and cardiac muscle tissue? a. Skeletal and cardiac tissues are both found in the heart. b. Only cardiac tissue contains pacemaker cells. c. Skeletal and cardiac fibers are of the same length. d. Skeletal and cardiac nuclei are located in the central region of the cell. e. Skeletal muscle cannot be consciously controlled.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.6 Cardiac Muscle Tissue LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.6.1 - Compare and contrast the function and structure of cardiac and skeletal muscle cells.

44. Smooth muscle contraction is regulated by which of the following proteins? a. troponin b. calmodulin c. tropomyosin d. myosin e. calcium ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 11.7 Smooth Muscle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.7.1 - Describe the sources of calcium in smooth muscle contraction and explain how an increase in cytoplasmic calcium initiates contraction.

45. Which of the following statements best describe the differences between skeletal and smooth muscle contraction? a. Contraction is identical in both types of muscle. b. Contraction of skeletal muscle has less force compared to smooth muscle contractions. c. Contraction in skeletal muscle does not spread from one cell to the next but is confined to the cell that was originally stimulated. d. Both muscle types have T-tubules that carry the electrical signal into the muscle cell. e. Smooth muscle is voluntary while skeletal muscle is involuntarily controlled.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.7 Smooth Muscle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.7.2 - Compare the signals that initiate smooth muscle contraction to the signal that initiates skeletal muscle contraction.

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Essay 46. Describe the sliding filament model of skeletal muscle contraction.

ANSWER: After years of careful experimentation, scientists have accepted an explanation of contraction called the sliding filament model. The sliding filament theory suggests that muscle contraction is accomplished with the thin filament framework slides past the static thick filaments, bringing the Z-discs of the sarcomere closer together; this shortens the sarcomeres. Since sarcomeres are lined up Z-disc to Z-disc down the length of the myofibril and cell, the tiny shortening of each sarcomere multiplies and significant muscle shortening occurs. The filaments slide because of the cross-bridge interaction between the myosin globular heads (thick filaments) and the actin (thin filaments).

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 11.3 Skeletal Muscle Cell Contraction and Relaxation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3.2 - Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber, including events at the neuromuscular junction, excitation-contraction coupling, and cross-bridge cycling.

47. Describe the process of skeletal muscle cell relaxation.

ANSWER: The contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscle cells is controlled by the motor neuron.

To initiate relaxation, the motor neuron stops releasing acetylcholine (ACh) into the synapse at the NMJ. The ACh that has already been released is broken down by acetylcholinesterase and the nicotinic receptors close. The muscle fiber repolarizes, which closes the gates along the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) where Ca2+ was released. ATPdriven pumps now pump Ca2+ from the sarcoplasm back into the SR. Without available Ca2+, calcium dissociates from troponin, and troponin and tropomyosin slide back into place, covering the actin-myosin binding sites on the thin filaments. The formation of cross-bridges betweW enWthWe.thTinBaSnM d. thW icS k filaments is prevented, and the muscle fiber loses its tension and relaxes.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 11.3 Skeletal Muscle Cell Contraction and Relaxation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.3.3 - Describe the sequence of events involved in skeletal muscle relaxation.

48. Describe the process of sarcomere shortening (muscle tension) for skeletal muscle.

ANSWER: For skeletal muscle to contract, myosin heads attach to actin to form the cross-bridges that result in sarcomere shortening (muscle tension). The length of the sarcomere has a direct influence on the force generated in muscle contraction. This is called the length-tension relationship. Structurally, cross-bridges can only form at locations where thin and thick filaments already overlap. In a stretched sarcomere there may not be sufficient overlap of the thin and thick filaments for many cross-bridges to form, so not much tension can be produced. When the sarcomere is already contracted, there is not much space for the thin filaments to come any closer together and no more tension can be generated. There is an optimal length of overlap between these states that maximizes the overlap of actin-binding sites and myosin heads and maximum force within the muscle fiber can be generated.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 11.5 Whole Muscle Contraction LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.5.4 - Interpret a graph of the length-tension relationship and describe the anatomical basis for that relationship.

49. Describe the three phases of a skeletal muscle fiber twitch.

ANSWER: Each skeletal muscle fiber twitch undergoes three phases. The first phase is the latent period, during which the action potential is propagating along the sarcolemma and Ca2+ ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). This is the phase during which

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excitation and contraction are being coupled but contraction has yet to occur. The contraction phase occurs next. The Ca2+ ions in the sarcoplasm bind to troponin, this binding shifts tropomyosin off the actin-myosin binding sites and cross-bridges have formed. Continual cross-bridge cycling actively shortens the sarcomeres to the point of peak tension. The last phase is the relaxation phase when tension decreases as the contraction stops. Ca2+ ions are pumped out of the sarcoplasm into the SR, cross-bridge cycling stops, and the muscle fibers return to their resting state.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 11.5 Whole Muscle Contraction LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.5.5 - Interpret a myogram of a twitch contraction with respect to the duration of the latent, contraction, and relaxation periods and describe the events that occur in each period.

50. Describe the role of motor neurons in skeletal muscle activation.

ANSWER: Every skeletal muscle cell is controlled by a single motor neuron that terminates at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ). However, each motor neuron innervates multiple muscle cells. A single motor neuron that innervates multiple skeletal muscle cells is called a motor unit because they all contract together. Motor neurons are incredibly long, their cell body is in the spinal cord but their long axons may split many times, with each branch ending at the NMJ of a different muscle cell. When a motor neuron is stimulated and fires an action potential, that action potential travels down all of the branches of the axon to release acetylcholine (Ach) into the NMJ synapse of each muscle cell innervated by that motor neuron. Therefore, each muscle cell of the motor unit contracts and relaxes at the same time. The size of a motor unit is variable depending on the nature of the muscle. When a muscle contracts, the nervous system may activate all the motor units in the muscle or just a few; this gives the nervous system control over the degree of contraction within a muscle.

A muscle composed of many small motor units is capable of very fine motor movements, such as movement of the fingers or facial expression. In contrast, a muscle that is composed of fewer larger motor units would be capable of larger muscle movements, such as movement of the thigh muscles or back muscles.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 11.5 Whole Muscle Contraction LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 11.5.1 - Define the following terms: tension, contraction, twitch, motor unit, and myogram.

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Chapter 12 - The Muscular System Multiple Choice 1. What statement best describes a fixator? a. The principal muscle involved in an action. b. Muscles that helps with the movement of the prime mover. c. The muscle that produces the opposite action of the muscle being moved. d. The prime mover of an action. e. Stabilizes one part of the body during a specific movement.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.1 Interactions of Skeletal Muscles, Their Fascicle Arrangement, and Their Lever Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.1.2 - Define the terms prime mover (agonist), antagonist, synergist, and fixator.

2.

What statement best describes the prime mover? a. The principal muscle involved in an action. b. Muscles that helps with the movement of the prime mover. c. The muscle that produces the opposite action of the muscle being moved. d. The muscle that does not contribute to the movement. e. Stabilizes one part of the body during a specific movement.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand WWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 12.1 Interactions of Skeletal Muscles, Their Fascicle Arrangement, and Their Lever Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.1.2 - Define the terms prime mover (agonist), antagonist, synergist, and fixator.

3. A synergist muscle is . a. the principal muscle involved in an action b. a muscle that helps, or reinforces, the movement of the prime mover c. the muscle that produces the opposite action of the prime mover d. the prime mover of an action e. a stabilizer of one part of the body during a specific movement ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.1 Interactions of Skeletal Muscles, Their Fascicle Arrangement, and Their Lever Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.1.2 - Define the terms prime mover (agonist), antagonist, synergist, and fixator.

4. The antagonist muscle is . a. the principal muscle involved in an action b. a muscle that helps with, or reinforces, the movement of the prime mover c. the muscle that produces the opposite action of the prime mover d. the prime mover of an action e. the stabilizer of one part of the body during a specific movement ANSWER: c

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DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

Blooms: Understand 12.1 Interactions of Skeletal Muscles, Their Fascicle Arrangement, and Their Lever Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.1.2 - Define the terms prime mover (agonist), antagonist, synergist, and fixator.

5. A muscle that is the agonist during a body movement is . a. the principal muscle involved in the action b. a muscle that helps with the movement of the prime mover c. the muscle that produces the opposite action of the prime mover d. the muscle that does not contribute to the action e. the stabilizer of one part of the body during a specific movement ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.1 Interactions of Skeletal Muscles, Their Fascicle Arrangement, and Their Lever Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.1.2 - Define the terms prime mover (agonist), antagonist, synergist, and fixator.

6. In relation to fascicle arrangement, what statement best describes parallel muscles? a. Fascicles that are arranged in the same direction along the long axis of the muscle. b. When the muscle fibers are relaxed, the diameter of the opening is larger compared to when the fibers are contracted. c. The fascicles have a widespread origin over a sizable area, but then come to a single, narrow insertion point. d. Fascicles that converge into a tendon which runs through the central region of the muscle for its entire length. e. Fascicles that run along the length of the bonWeWwWit. hT laB rgS erMm.uW scS le bellies.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.1 Interactions of Skeletal Muscles, Their Fascicle Arrangement, and Their Lever Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.1.1 - For a given movement, differentiate specific muscles that function as prime mover, antagonist, synergist, or fixator.

7. In relation to fascicle arrangement, what statement best describes circular muscles? a. Fascicles that are arranged in the same direction along the long axis of the muscle. b. When the muscle fibers are relaxed, the diameter of the opening is larger compared to when the fibers are contracted. c. The fascicles have a widespread origin over a sizable area, but then come to a single, narrow insertion point. d. Fascicles that converge into a tendon which runs through the central region of the muscle for its entire length. e. Fascicles that run along the length of the bone with larger muscle bellies.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.1 Interactions of Skeletal Muscles, Their Fascicle Arrangement, and Their Lever Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.1.1 - For a given movement, differentiate specific muscles that function as prime mover, antagonist, synergist, or fixator.

8.

In relation to fascicle arrangement, what statement best describes convergent muscles? a. Fascicles that are arranged in the same direction along the long axis of the muscle.

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b. When the muscle fibers are relaxed, the diameter of the opening is larger compared to when the fibers are contracted. c. The fascicles have a widespread origin over a sizable area, but then come to a single, narrow insertion point. d. Fascicles that converge into a tendon which runs through the central region of the muscle for its entire length. e. Fascicles that run along the length of the bone with larger muscle bellies.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.1 Interactions of Skeletal Muscles, Their Fascicle Arrangement, and Their Lever Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.1.1 - For a given movement, differentiate specific muscles that function as prime mover, antagonist, synergist, or fixator.

9. In relation to fascicle arrangement, what statement best describes pennate muscles? a. Fascicles that are arranged in the same direction along the long axis of the muscle. b. When the muscle fibers are relaxed, the diameter of the opening is larger compared to when the fibers are contracted. c. The fascicles have a widespread origin over a sizable area, but then come to a single, narrow insertion point. d. Fascicles that converge into a tendon which runs through the central region of the muscle for its entire length. e. Fascicles that run along the length of the bone with larger muscle bellies.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.1 Interactions of Skeletal Muscles, Their Fascicle Arrangement, and Their Lever Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.1.1 - For a given movement, differentiate specific muscles that function as prime mover, antaW goWnWis. t,TsB ynSeM rg.isW t,Sor fixator.

10. In relation to fascicle arrangement, what statement best describes fusiform muscles? a. Fascicles that are arranged in the same direction along the long axis of the muscle. b. When the muscle fibers are relaxed, the diameter of the opening is larger compared to when the fibers are contracted. c. The fascicles have a widespread origin over a sizable area, but then come to a single, narrow insertion point. d. Fascicles that converge into a tendon which runs through the central region of the muscle for its entire length. e. Fascicles that run along the length of the bone with larger muscle bellies.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.1 Interactions of Skeletal Muscles, Their Fascicle Arrangement, and Their Lever Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.1.1 - For a given movement, differentiate specific muscles that function as prime mover, antagonist, synergist, or fixator.

11. Which of the following muscles is named based on the shape? a. deltoid muscle b. gluteus maximus c. triceps brachii d. rectus abdominis e. sternocleidomastoid muscle ANSWER: a

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.1 - Identify the location, general attachments, and actions of the major skeletal muscles.

12. Which of the following muscles is named based on the size? a. deltoid muscle b. gluteus maximus c. triceps brachii d. rectus abdominis e. sternocleidomastoid muscle ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.1 - Identify the location, general attachments, and actions of the major skeletal muscles.

13. Which of the following muscles is named based on the location? a. deltoid muscle b. trapezius c. triceps brachii d. sartorius e. sternocleidomastoid muscle ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.1 - Identify the location, general attachments, and actions of the major skeletal muscles.

14. Which of the following muscles is named based on the muscle fiber orientation? a. deltoid muscle b. gluteus maximus c. triceps brachii d. rectus abdominis e. sternocleidomastoid muscle ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.1 - Identify the location, general attachments, and actions of the major skeletal muscles.

15. Which of the following muscles is named based on attachments (origin and/or insertion)? a. deltoid muscle b. gluteus maximus c. triceps brachii d. rectus abdominis e. sternocleidomastoid muscle

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ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.1 - Identify the location, general attachments, and actions of the major skeletal muscles.

16. Which of the following muscle(s) allows you to whistle, blow air, or suck from a straw? a. buccinator b. zygomaticus major and zygomaticus minor c. platysma d. occipitofrontalis e. orbicularis oculi ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

17. Which of the following muscle(s) raises the corners of the mouth when contracted? a. buccinator b. zygomaticus major and zygomaticus minor c. platysma d. corrugator supercilii e. orbicularis oculi ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

18. Which of the following muscle(s) allows the skin of the neck to be tensed? a. buccinator b. zygomaticus major and zygomaticus minor c. platysma d. corrugator supercilii e. orbicularis oculi ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

19. Which of the following muscle(s) moves the scalp and eyebrows? a. buccinator b. zygomaticus major and zygomaticus minor c. platysma d. occipitofrontalis

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e. orbicularis oculi ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

20. Which of the following muscle(s) closes the eyes when contracted? a. buccinator b. zygomaticus major and zygomaticus minor c. platysma d. occipitofrontalis e. orbicularis oculi ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

21. Which of the following muscle(s) is primarily used for chewing food, mastication? a. masseter b. zygomaticus major and zygomaticus minor c. mentalis d. risorius e. orbicularis oris ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

22. Which of the following muscle(s) are used for primarily for side-to-side movements of the jaw during chewing? a. masseter b. lateral and medial pterygoid c. genioglossus d. styloglossus e. palatoglossal ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

23. Which of the following muscle(s) originates on the mandible and moves the tongue downward and forward? a. masseter b. lateral and medial pterygoid c. genioglossus

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d. styloglossus e. palatoglossal ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

24. Which of the following muscle(s) originates on the styloid process of temporal bone and elevates and retracts the tongue? a. masseter b. pterygoid c. genioglossus d. styloglossus e. palatoglossal ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

25. Which of the following muscle(s) originates on the soft palate to elevate the back of the tongue? a. masseter b. pterygoid c. genioglossus d. styloglossus e. palatoglossal ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

26. Which of the following muscle(s) laterally flexes the head and rotates head to the opposite side? a. sternocleidomastoid b. semispinalis thoracis c. splenius capitis d. erector spinae group e. spinalis thoracis ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

27. Which of the following muscle(s) originates at the midline and runs laterally and superiorly to its insertion? a. platysma

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b. multifidus c. splenius capitis d. erector spinae group e. semispinalis group ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

28. Which of the following muscle(s) inserts into the occipital bone to extend the head and neck when contracted? a. iliocostalis cervicis b. semispinalis thoracis c. splenius capitis d. longissimus cervicis e. spinalis thoracis ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

29. Which of the following muscle(s) forms the majority of the muscle mass of the intermediate layer of the back and is the primary extensor of the vertebral column? a. transversospinales group b. quadratus lumborum c. splenius group d. erector spinae group e. semispinalis group ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

30. Which of the following muscle(s) run from the transverse process to the spinous process of the vertebrae? a. sternocleidomastoid b. splenius group c. quadratus lumborum d. erector spinae group e. transversospinalis group ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

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31. The muscles of the anterolateral abdominal wall can be divided into how many groups? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 e. 8 ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

32. How many pairs of internal intercostal muscles are there? a. 5 b. 6 c. 10 d. 11 e. 15 ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

33. What statement best describes the diaphragm? a. A bell- or parachute-shaped muscle that divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. b. A muscle that plays a key role in stabilization of the body and maintaining posture. c. A muscle that passes through the caval opening. d. A muscle that assists in breathing by changing the dimensions, or directly moving the rib cage. e. A muscle involved in flexion of the abdomen.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

34. What statement best describes the quadratus lumborum? a. A bell- or parachute-shaped muscle that divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. b. A muscle that plays a role in maintaining upright posture. c. A muscle that passes through the caval opening of the diaphragm. d. A muscle that assists in breathing by changing the dimensions, or directly moving the rib cage. e. A muscle involved in flexion of the abdomen.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

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35. What statement best describes the inferior vena cava? a. A bell- or parachute-shaped muscle that divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. b. A vessel that plays a role in maintaining upright posture. c. A vessel that passes through the caval opening of the diaphragm. d. A vessel that carries blood to the intercostal muscles. e. A vessel that passes through the aortic hiatus of the posterior diaphragm.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

36. What statement best describes the intercostal muscles? a. A bell- or parachute-shaped group of muscles that divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. b. Muscles that play a major role in maintaining upright posture. c. Muscles that assist in swallowing food following mastication. d. Muscles that assist in breathing by direct movement of the rib cage during inhalation or exhalation. e. Muscles involved in abdominal flexion.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g.W ,a ) oWrSregion (e.g., deep back).

WnWte.riTorBaSrm M. 37. What statement best describes the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein? a. Bell- or parachute-shaped muscles that divide the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. b. Vessels that play a role in maintaining upright posture. c. Vessels that pass through the caval opening of the diaphragm. d. Vessels that carry blood directly to the intercostal muscles. e. Vessels that pass through the aortic hiatus of the posterior diaphragm.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

38. What statement best describes the pelvic floor? a. A muscular layer that provides a base for the pelvic cavity. b. All openings within the pelvic cavity including the anal canal and urethra, and the vagina in females. c. The superior muscular layers of the pelvic cavity. d. The diamond-shaped space between the pubic symphysis, the coccyx, and the ischial tuberosities. e. The region that includes the external genitalia.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

39. What statement best describes the urogenital triangle? a. A muscular sheet that provides a base for the pelvic cavity. b. Anterior muscles of the perineal region that includes the external urethral sphincter. c. Considered the most important muscle group of the pelvic floor because it supports the pelvic viscera. d. The diamond-shaped space between the pubic symphysis, the coccyx, and the ischial tuberosities. e. The region that includes the external genitalia.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

40. What statement best describes the levator ani? a. A muscular layer that provides a base for the pelvic cavity. b. All openings within the pelvic cavity including the anal canal and urethra, and the vagina in females. c. Considered the most important muscle group of the pelvic floor because it supports the pelvic viscera. d. The diamond-shaped space between the pubic symphysis, the coccyx, and the ischial tuberosities. e. The region that includes the external genitalia.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

41. What statement best describes the perineum? a. A muscular layer that provides a base for the pelvic cavity. b. All openings within the pelvic cavity including the anal canal and urethra, and the vagina in females. c. Considered the most important muscle group of the pelvic floor because it supports the pelvic viscera. d. The diamond-shaped space between the pubic symphysis, the coccyx, and the ischial tuberosities. e. The region that includes the external genitalia.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.3 Axial Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.3.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

42. What statement best describes the pectoralis major? a. A large, fan-shaped muscle that covers much of the superior portion of the anterior thorax. b. The muscle located on the inferior part of the back. c. The thick muscle that caps the lateral shoulder and is the major abductor of the arm. d. A thick and flat muscle important for arm extension. e. The circle of tendons around the shoulder joint.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 12.4 Appendicular Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.4.1 - Identify the location, general attachments, and actions of the major skeletal muscles.

43. What statement best describes the latissimus dorsi? a. A large, fan-shaped muscle that covers much of the superior portion of the anterior thorax. b. The muscle located on the inferior part of the back. c. The thick muscle that caps the lateral shoulder and is the major abductor of the arm. d. A thick and flat muscle important for arm extension. e. The circle of tendons around the glenohumeral joint that provides strength to the shoulder.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.4 Appendicular Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.4.1 - Identify the location, general attachments, and actions of the major skeletal muscles.

44. What statement best describes the deltoid? a. A large, fan-shaped muscle that covers much of the superior portion of the anterior thorax. b. The muscle located on the inferior part of the back. c. The thick muscle that caps the lateral shoulder and is the major abductor of the arm. d. A thick and flat muscle important for arm extension. e. The circle of tendons around the glenohumeral joint that provides strength to the shoulder.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understan WdWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 12.4 Appendicular Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.4.1 - Identify the location, general attachments, and actions of the major skeletal muscles.

45. What statement best describes the teres major? a. A large, fan-shaped muscle that covers much of the superior portion of the anterior thorax. b. The muscle located on the inferior part of the back. c. The thick muscle that caps the lateral shoulder and is the major abductor of the arm. d. A thick and flat muscle important for arm extension. e. The circle of tendons around the glenohumeral joint that provides strength to the shoulder.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.4 Appendicular Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.4.1 - Identify the location, general attachments, and actions of the major skeletal muscles.

46. What statement best describes the rotator cuff? a. A large, fan-shaped muscle that covers much of the superior portion of the anterior thorax. b. The muscle located on the inferior part of the back. c. The thick muscle that caps the lateral shoulder and is the major abductor of the arm. d. A thick and flat muscle important for arm extension. e. The circle of tendons around the glenohumeral joint that provides strength to the shoulder.

ANSWER: e

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.4 Appendicular Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.4.1 - Identify the location, general attachments, and actions of the major skeletal muscles.

47. What statement best describes the biceps brachii? a. A muscle that crosses the shoulder and elbow joints to flex and supinate the forearm. b. The prime mover of forearm flexion at the elbow. c. A muscle that crosses the shoulder and elbow joints to extend the forearm. d. A muscle involved in shoulder adduction. e. A muscle that extends over the palmar surface of the hand.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.4 Appendicular Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.4.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

48. What statement best describes the brachialis? a. A muscle that crosses the shoulder and elbow joints to flex and supinate the forearm. b. The prime mover of forearm flexion at the elbow. c. A muscle that crosses the shoulder and elbow joints to extend the forearm. d. A muscle involved in shoulder adduction. e. A muscle that extends over the palmar surface of the hand.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.4 Appendicular Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.4.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

49. What statement best describes the brachioradialis? a. A muscle that crosses the shoulder and elbow joints to flex and supinate the forearm. b. The prime mover of forearm flexion at the elbow. c. A muscle that can flex the forearm quickly or help lift a load slowly and is in the lateral forearm. d. A muscle involved in shoulder adduction. e. A muscle that extends over the palmar surface of the hand.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.4 Appendicular Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.4.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

50. What statement best describes the flexor retinacula? a. A muscle that crosses the shoulder and elbow joints to flex and supinate the forearm. b. The prime mover of forearm flexion at the elbow. c. A muscle that can flex the forearm quickly or help lift a load slowly and is in the lateral forearm. d. Dense fibers that sheathe, or cover, the anterior tendons at the wrist. e. A muscle that extends over the palmar surface of the hand.

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ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.4 Appendicular Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.4.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

51. What statement best describes the extensor retinaculum? a. Dense fibers that cover the posterior tendons at the wrist. b. A muscle that crosses the shoulder and elbow joints to flex and supinate the forearm. c. The prime mover of forearm flexion at the elbow. d. A muscle that can flex the forearm quickly or help lift a load slowly and is in the lateral forearm. e. Dense fibers that sheathe, or cover, the anterior tendons at the wrist.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.4 Appendicular Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.4.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

52. What statement best describes the thenar muscles? a. A muscle group on the radial/thumb side of the palm. b. The muscles in the anterior compartment of the lower leg. c. Muscles that support the sole of the foot. d. A muscle group that extends over the palmar surface of the hand. e lWitW tle.fT inB geSr.M.WS e. A muscle group that aids in movement of thW ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.4 Appendicular Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.4.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

53. What statement best describes the plantar aponeurosis? a. A fibrous sheathe that covers the muscles on the radial/thumb side of the palm. b. A muscle group in the anterior compartment of the lower leg. c. A dense fibrous connective tissue layer that supports the sole of the foot. d. A dense connective tissue layer that extends over the palmar surface of the hand. e. Dense fibers that cover the posterior tendons at the wrist.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.4 Appendicular Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.4.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

Essay 54. Describe the muscles of the anterolateral abdomen, their orientation and their function.

ANSWER: The muscles of the anterolateral abdominal wall can be divided into four groups: the external obliques, the internal obliques, the transversus abdominis, and the rectus

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abdominis. There are four groups of muscles, but there are only three layers. The external oblique, the most superficial layer, is composed of fibers in a diagonal (oblique) orientation that run inferiorly. Deep to the external obliques are the internal obliques, with fibers that run perpendicular to the external obliques. Internal oblique fibers run superiorly and medially. The rectus abdominis muscles share the same layer as the internal obliques. The rectus abdominus muscle fibers run along the longitudinal axis from the sternum to the pubic symphysis. The deepest muscle within the abdominal wall is the transversus abdominis. The transversus abdominis muscle fibers are arranged along the transverse plane around the abdomen, like wearing a belt. This arrangement of the four muscle groups of the anterolateral abdominal wall allow for abdominal flexibility and various movements or rotations of the trunk. The abdominal muscle group also helps protect the internal abdominal organs in an area where there is no bone.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 12.4 Appendicular Muscles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 12.4.2 - Describe similar actions (functional groupings) of muscles in a particular compartment (e.g., anterior arm) or region (e.g., deep back).

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Chapter 13 - The Nervous System and Nervous Tissue Multiple Choice 1. What are the two major anatomical regions of the nervous system? a. central and peripheral nervous systems b. brain and the spinal cord c. spinal nerves and brain d. brain and motor neurons e. brain and the central nervous systems ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization and Functions of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.1 - Describe the general functions of the nervous system.

2. What are the two basic types of cells found in nervous tissue? a. nerve cells and neurons b. neurons and glial cells c. neurons and nerve cells d. glial cells and brain cells e. brain cells and neurons ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization W aW ndWF ctS ioM ns.oWfSthe Nervous System .uTnB LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.1 - Describe the general functions of the nervous system.

3. What statement best describes glial cells? a. They provide structure and support for neurons and neuronal activity. b. They are responsible for conscious perception and voluntary motor responses. c. They are responsible for involuntary control of the body and homeostasis. d. They surround axons in the central nervous system only. e. They are responsible for brain function at the synapse.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization and Functions of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.2 - Compare and contrast the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS) with respect to structure and function.

4. What statement best describes the somatic nervous system? a. It provides structure and support for neurons and neuronal activity. b. It is responsible for conscious perception and voluntary motor responses. c. It is responsible for involuntary control of the body and homeostasis. d. It surrounds axons in the central nervous system only. e. It is responsible for brain function at the synapse.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization and Functions of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.2 - Compare and contrast the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS) with respect to structure and function.

5. What statement best describes the autonomic nervous system? a. It provides structure and support for neurons and neuronal activity. b. It is responsible for conscious perception and voluntary motor responses. c. It is responsible for involuntary control of the body and homeostasis. d. It surrounds axons in the central nervous system only. e. It is responsible for brain function at the synapse.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization and Functions of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.2 - Compare and contrast the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS) with respect to structure and function.

6. What statement best describes an axon? a. A single process from the neuronal cell body that conducts impulses toward other cells. b. Processes that receive incoming information from other neurons. c. The location within the neuron where threshold must be met to conduct impulses to the terminal bouton. d. Cells that increase the speed of conduction. e. Supporting cells that aid in neuronal function.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understan WdWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization and Functions of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.4 - Describe the nervous system as a control system with the following components: sensory receptors, afferent pathways, control (integrating) center, efferent pathways, and effector (target) organs.

7. What statement best describes dendrites? a. A single process from the neuronal cell body that conducts impulses toward other cells. b. Processes that receive incoming information from other neurons. c. The location within the neuron where threshold must be met to conduct impulses to the terminal bouton. d. Cells that increase the speed of conduction. e. Supporting cells that aid in neuronal function.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization and Functions of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.4 - Describe the nervous system as a control system with the following components: sensory receptors, afferent pathways, control (integrating) center, efferent pathways, and effector (target) organs.

8. What statement best describes the axon hillock? a. A single process from the neuronal cell body that conducts impulses toward other cells. b. Processes that receive incoming information from other neurons. c. The location within the neuron where threshold must be met to conduct impulses to the terminal bouton. d. Cells that increase the speed of conduction.

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e. Supporting cells that aid in neuronal function.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization and Functions of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.4 - Describe the nervous system as a control system with the following components: sensory receptors, afferent pathways, control (integrating) center, efferent pathways, and effector (target) organs.

9. What statement best describes a neurofibril node? a. A single process from the neuronal cell body that conducts impulses toward other cells. b. Processes that receive incoming information from other neurons. c. The location within the neuron where threshold must be met to conduct impulses to the terminal bouton. d. Gaps between the myelin that cover a myelinated axon. e. Supporting cells that aid in neuronal function.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization and Functions of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.4 - Describe the nervous system as a control system with the following components: sensory receptors, afferent pathways, control (integrating) center, efferent pathways, and effector (target) organs.

10. What statement best describes the axon terminals? a. The storage vesicles for the neurotransmitters. b. Processes that receive incoming information from other neurons.

W W W.TB SM . W S c. The location within the neuron where the cell body meets the axon. d. Where the nucleus is located within the neuron. e. The end of the axon located at the synapse.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization and Functions of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.4 - Describe the nervous system as a control system with the following components: sensory receptors, afferent pathways, control (integrating) center, efferent pathways, and effector (target) organs.

11. What statement best describes unipolar neurons? a. They have only one process that splits into an axon and dendrites, or sensory receptors. b. They are not very common; in humans they are found only in the nose and eyes. c. They have one axon and many dendrites. d. They collect information about the internal and external environment and send it toward the central nervous system. e. They are neurons that are typically referred to as motor neurons.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization and Functions of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.4 - Describe the nervous system as a control system with the following components: sensory receptors, afferent pathways, control (integrating) center, efferent pathways, and effector (target) organs.

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12. What statement best describes bipolar neurons? a. They have only one process that splits into an axon and dendrites, or sensory receptors. b. They are not very common; in humans they are found only in the nose and eyes. c. They have one axon and many dendrites. d. They collect information about the internal and external environment and send it toward the central nervous system. e. They are neurons that are typically referred to as motor neurons.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization and Functions of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.4 - Describe the nervous system as a control system with the following components: sensory receptors, afferent pathways, control (integrating) center, efferent pathways, and effector (target) organs.

13. What statement best describes multipolar neurons? a. They have only one process that splits into an axon and dendrites, or sensory receptors. b. They are not very common; in humans they are found only in the nose and eyes. c. They have one axon and many dendrites. d. They collect information about the internal and external environment and send it toward the central nervous system. e. They are neurons that are typically referred to as sensory neurons.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization and Functions of the Nervous System

W W W.TBS M. WS

LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.4 - Describe the nervous system as a control system with the following components: sensory receptors, afferent pathways, control (integrating) center, efferent pathways, and effector (target) organs.

14. What statement best describes sensory neurons? a. Sensory neurons are all bipolar neurons. b. Sensory neurons are not very common; in humans they are found only in the nose and eyes. c. Sensory neurons generally have one axon and many dendrites. d. Sensory neurons collect information about the internal and external environment and send it toward the central nervous system. e. Sensory neurons send information to the effector cells.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization and Functions of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.4 - Describe the nervous system as a control system with the following components: sensory receptors, afferent pathways, control (integrating) center, efferent pathways, and effector (target) organs.

15. How many types of glial cells are there? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 e. 10

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ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization and Functions of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.4 - Describe the nervous system as a control system with the following components: sensory receptors, afferent pathways, control (integrating) center, efferent pathways, and effector (target) organs.

16. Which of the following statements best describe astrocytes, glial cells? a. They regulate the flow of materials from the blood into neurons. b. They act as resident immune cells. c. They insulate axons within the CNS. d. They filter blood to make cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). e. They insulate axons within the PNS. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization and Functions of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.4 - Describe the nervous system as a control system with the following components: sensory receptors, afferent pathways, control (integrating) center, efferent pathways, and effector (target) organs.

17. Which of the following statements best describe microglia? a. They regulate the flow of materials from the blood into neurons. b. They act as resident immune cells. c. They insulate axons within the CNS. d. They filter blood to produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). e. They insulate axons within the PNS. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization and Functions of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.4 - Describe the nervous system as a control system with the following components: sensory receptors, afferent pathways, control (integrating) center, efferent pathways, and effector (target) organs.

18. Which of the following statements best describe oligodendrocytes? a. They regulate the flow of materials from the blood into neurons. b. They act as resident immune cells. c. They insulate axons within the CNS. d. They filter blood to produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). e. They insulate axons with myelin in the PNS. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization and Functions of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.4 - Describe the nervous system as a control system with the following components: sensory receptors, afferent pathways, control (integrating) center, efferent pathways, and effector (target) organs.

19. Which of the following statements best describe ependymal cells?

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a. They regulate the flow of materials from the blood into neurons. b. They act as resident immune cells. c. They insulate axons within the CNS. d. They filter blood to produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). e. They insulate axons with myelin in the PNS. ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization and Functions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.4 - Describe the nervous system as a control system with the following components: sensory receptors, afferent pathways, control (integrating) center, efferent pathways, and effector (target) organs.

20. Which of the following statements best describe the neurilemma? a. They regulate the flow of materials from the blood into neurons. b. They act as resident immune cells. c. They insulate axons within the CNS. d. They filter blood to produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). e. They insulate axons with myelin in the PNS. ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization and Functions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.4 - Describe the nervous system as a control system with the following components: sensory receptors, afferent pathways, control (integrating) center, efferent pathways,WaWnW d. efT feBcS toM r (.taWrgSet) organs.

21. What is the primary function of the myelin sheath? a. To provide the neuron with moisture and nutrients. b. To prevent the electrical charge from leaking out of the neuron. c. To generate electrical signals for the neuron. d. To provide oxygen to support neuronal development. e. To provide the stimulus for neuronal conduction.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.2 Nervous Tissue and Cells LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.2.5 - Define myelination and describe its function, including comparing and contrasting how myelination occurs in the CNS and PNS. 22. What is the term used to describe the charge difference across the plasma membrane of a neuron when the voltage decreases, gets closer to zero or becomes positive? a. depolarization b. hyperpolarization c. repolarization d. a neuronal discharge e. degradation ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.1 - Define and describe depolarization, repolarization, hyperpolarization, and threshold.

23. What statement best describes an action potential? a. The signal that travels along the axon of the neuron. b. The release of neurotransmitters into the synapse. c. The distribution of uneven charges across the resting membrane. d. When the neuronal cell membrane has a more positive environment on its external surface and a more negative environment on its internal surface. e. The signal that travels within the inside of the neuronal cell body that reaches threshold at the axon hillock.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.2 - Describe the role of the sodium-potassium ATPase pump in maintaining the resting membrane potential.

24. What statement best describes a neurotransmitter? a. The signal that travels along the axon of the neuron. b. The chemical signal released from the axon terminal that binds to receptors on the post-synaptic cell. c. The ions that distribute an uneven charge across the resting membrane. d. The chemical messenger that is released into the bloodstream and travels to target cells. e. A positive chemical messenger within the brain that provides nutrients for the neuron.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand WWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.2 - Describe the role of the sodium-potassium ATPase pump in maintaining the resting membrane potential.

25. What statement best describes the Na+/K+ pump? a. The signal that travels along the axon of the neuron. b. The movement of ions across the membrane to release neurotransmitters into the synapse. c. The constant movement of ions across the membrane to ensure an uneven charge distribution at rest. d. The movement of ions across the membrane only during depolarization. e. The movement of ions across the membrane only during repolarization.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.2 - Describe the role of the sodium-potassium ATPase pump in maintaining the resting membrane potential.

26. What statement best describes the resting membrane potential? a. The signal that travels along the axon of the neuron. b. The movement of ions across the membrane to release neurotransmitters into the synapse. c. The uneven distribution of ions across the cell membrane; the inside of the membrane is negative compared to the outside. d. The movement of cations to the inside of the cell to increase voltage to zero. e. The passive movement of cations outside of the cell to decrease voltage across the membrane.

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ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.2 - Describe the role of the sodium-potassium ATPase pump in maintaining the resting membrane potential.

27. What statement best describes a ligand-gated channel? a. A channel that requires the binding of a molecule to the extracellular region. b. A channel that opens when there is a change in membrane potential. c. A channel that responds to changes in the electrical properties of the membrane. d. A channel that is either always open or will randomly open or close when necessary. e. A channel that is always closed under any circumstance.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.3 - List the major ion channels of neurons and describe them as leak (leakage or passive) or voltage-gated channels, mechanically gated channels, or ligandgated (chemically gated) channels, and identify where they typically are located on a neuron.

28. What statement best describes a mechanically gated channel? a. A channel that requires the binding of a molecule to the extracellular region. b. A channel that opens when there is a change in membrane potential. c. A channel that responds to changes in the electrical properties of the membrane.

W W W.T BSM . WS d. A channel that is either always open or will randomly open or close when necessary. e. A channel that is always closed under any circumstance.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.3 - List the major ion channels of neurons and describe them as leak (leakage or passive) or voltage-gated channels, mechanically gated channels, or ligandgated (chemically gated) channels, and identify where they typically are located on a neuron.

29. What statement best describes a voltage-gated channel? a. A channel that requires the binding of a molecule to the extracellular region. b. A channel that opens for a specific ion in high concentration outside of the cell. c. A channel that responds to changes in the electrical properties of the membrane. d. A channel that is either always open or will randomly open or close when necessary. e. A channel that is always closed under any circumstance.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.3 - List the major ion channels of neurons and describe them as leak (leakage or passive) or voltage-gated channels, mechanically gated channels, or ligandgated (chemically gated) channels, and identify where they typically are located on a neuron.

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30. What statement best describes a leak channel? a. A channel that requires the binding of a molecule to the extracellular region. b. A channel that opens for a specific ion in high concentration outside of the cell. c. A channel that responds to changes in the electrical properties of the membrane. d. A channel that is either always open or will randomly open or close when necessary. e. A channel that is always closed under any circumstance.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.3 - List the major ion channels of neurons and describe them as leak (leakage or passive) or voltage-gated channels, mechanically gated channels, or ligandgated (chemically gated) channels, and identify where they typically are located on a neuron.

31. What statement best describes the resting membrane potential (RMP)? a. The steady state of the cell when it is not firing a signal. b. The RMP is initiated in all neurons with an external depolarization event, or stimulus. c. A membrane potential of -55 mV. d. When the membrane voltage moves back toward -70 mV. e. During a stimulus that moves the membrane voltage closer to zero, or positive.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.4 - Describe the physiological basis of the resting membrane potential (RMP) in a neuron including the ion channels involved, the relative ion concentrations, and the electrochemical gradient.

32. What statement best describes graded potential? a. The steady state of the cell when it is not firing a signal. b. The graded potential is initiated in the neuronal cell body with an external depolarization event, or stimulus. c. A membrane potential of -55 mV. d. When the membrane voltage moves back toward -70 mV. e. A graded potential occurs during a stimulus that moves the membrane voltage closer to zero, or more positive.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.4 - Describe the physiological basis of the resting membrane potential (RMP) in a neuron including the ion channels involved, the relative ion concentrations, and the electrochemical gradient.

33. What statement best describes the threshold voltage at the axon hillock? a. The steady state of the cell when it is not firing a signal. b. The graded potential is initiated in the neuronal cell body with an external depolarization event, or stimulus. c. A membrane potential of -55 mV. d. When the membrane voltage moves back toward -70 mV. e. A graded potential occurs during a stimulus that moves the membrane voltage closer to zero, or more positive.

ANSWER: c

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.4 - Describe the physiological basis of the resting membrane potential (RMP) in a neuron including the ion channels involved, the relative ion concentrations, and the electrochemical gradient.

34. What statement best describes the repolarization phase? a. The steady state of the cell when it is not firing a signal. b. The graded potential is initiated in the neuronal cell body with an external depolarization event, or stimulus. c. A membrane potential of -55 mV. d. When the membrane voltage moves back toward -70 mV. e. A graded potential occurs during a stimulus that moves the membrane voltage closer to zero, or more positive.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.4 - Describe the physiological basis of the resting membrane potential (RMP) in a neuron including the ion channels involved, the relative ion concentrations, and the electrochemical gradient.

35. Which of the following statements is TRUE about graded potentials? a. An excitatory postsynaptic potential (i.e., graded potential) results in depolarization of the neuron. b. A graded potential is conducted down the neuronal axon. c. An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (i.e., graded potential) causes depolarization of the neuron. d. A graded potential always repolarizes the neuron back to resting membrane potential.

WWW.TBSM.WS e. A graded potential is the same as an action potential.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.5 - Compare and contrast graded potentials and action potentials, with particular attention to their locations in the neuron and the ions and ion channels involved in each.

36. All graded potentials are due to the opening of which of the following channels? a. voltage-gated or leak channels b. mechanically gated or ligand-gated channels c. voltage-gated or ligand-gated channels d. mechanically gated or multi-gated channels e. multi-gated or leak channels ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.6 - Compare and contrast IPSPs and EPSPs with respect to the ions involved and effects on the postsynaptic cell.

37. What statement best describes postsynaptic potential (PSP)? a. The graded potential in the dendrites of a neuron that receives signals across a synapse from other cells. b. Depolarization in a postsynaptic cell.

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c. Hyperpolarization in a postsynaptic cell. d. The membrane potential that always reaches threshold if the charges add together. e. The neuron that does not have a charge, or a change in voltage across the membrane.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.6 - Compare and contrast IPSPs and EPSPs with respect to the ions involved and effects on the postsynaptic cell.

38. What statement best describes an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPEP)? a. The graded potential in the dendrites of a neuron that receives signals across the synapse from other cells. b. Depolarization in a postsynaptic cell. c. Hyperpolarization in a postsynaptic cell. d. The membrane potential that always reaches threshold if the charges add together. e. The neuron that does not have a charge, or a change in voltage across the membrane.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.6 - Compare and contrast IPSPs and EPSPs with respect to the ions involved and effects on the postsynaptic cell.

39. What statement best describes an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)? a. The graded potential in the dendrites of a neuron that receives signals across the synapse from other cells. b. Depolarization in a postsynaptic cell. c. Hyperpolarization in a postsynaptic cell. d. The membrane potential that always reaches threshold if the charges add together. e. The neuron that does not have a charge, or a change in voltage across the membrane.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.6 - Compare and contrast IPSPs and EPSPs with respect to the ions involved and effects on the postsynaptic cell.

40. What statement best describes summation of postsynaptic potentials? a. The graded potential signals across the synapse. b. Depolarization in a postsynaptic cell. c. Hyperpolarization in a postsynaptic cell. d. The membrane potential that may reach threshold if the charges add together. e. The neuron that does not have a charge, or a change in voltage across the membrane.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.6 - Compare and contrast IPSPs and EPSPs with respect to the ions involved and effects on the postsynaptic cell.

41. What statement best describes spatial summation? a. EPSPs occur in several synapses within a close period of time along the same neuron.

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b. When a single synapse causes graded potentials within a short period of time. c. The summation of all the available charges on the neuronal cell body. d. The neuron always reaches threshold when the charges add together. e. The neuron that does not have a charge, or a change in voltage across the membrane.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.7 - Explain temporal and spatial summation of postsynaptic potentials.

42. What statement best describes temporal summation? a. EPSPs occur in several synapses within a close period of time along the same neuron. b. When a single synapse causes multiple graded potentials within a short period of time. c. The summation of all the available charges on the neuronal cell body. d. The neuron always reaches threshold when the charges add together. e. The neuron that does not have a charge, or a change in voltage across the membrane.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.7 - Explain temporal and spatial summation of postsynaptic potentials.

43. What statement best describes the refractory period? a. The period after the start of the first action potential and before a second action potential can begin. b. Another action potential cannot start, regardless of the strength of the stimulus. c. The summation of all available potentials. d. The neuron can only reach threshold during the refractory period. e. The depolarization phase of the action potential.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.8 - Distinguish between absolute and relative refractory periods and compare the physiological basis of each.

44. What statement best describes the absolute refractory period? a. The period after the start of the first action potential and before a second action potential can begin. b. Another action potential cannot start, regardless of the strength of the stimulus. c. The summation of all available potentials. d. The neuron can only reach threshold during the refractory period. e. The depolarization phase of the action potential.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.8 - Distinguish between absolute and relative refractory periods and compare the physiological basis of each.

45. What statement best describes the relative refractory period? a. The period after the start of the first action potential and before a second action potential can begin.

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b. Another action potential cannot start, regardless of the strength of the stimulus. c. The summation of all available potentials. d. The neuron can only reach threshold during the refractory period. e. A stronger stimulus is required to initiate another action potential.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.8 - Distinguish between absolute and relative refractory periods and compare the physiological basis of each.

46. What is the term to describe the propagation along the length of a myelinated axon? a. continuous conduction b. myelinated conduction c. saltatory conduction d. axon propagation e. axon conduction ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.10 - Describe the physiological process involved in the conduction (propagation) of an action potential, including the types and locations of the ion channels involved.

47. What statement best describes electrical synapsW esW ? W.TBSM.WS a. They require a chemical messenger between the two neurons. b. The pre-synaptic neuron and post-synaptic neuron are very close together and contain gap junctions. c. Electrical synapses are not present in the human nervous system. d. Electrical synapses are only present in the brain. e. They are important only for sensory organs.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.4 Communication between Neurons LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.4.1 - Diagram the inheritance patterns of autosomal recessive and dominant disorders with specific examples.

48. Reuptake is defined as . a. the destruction of neurotransmitters b. the ability to take the released neurotransmitter back into the presynaptic cell c. the regeneration of most neurons d. a neuron that releases the neurotransmitter acetylcholine e. a neuron with no synaptic interaction ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.4 Communication between Neurons LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.4.2 - Describe the structures involved in a typical chemical synapse (e.g., axon terminal [synaptic knob], voltage-gated calcium channels, synaptic vesicles of presynaptic cell, synaptic cleft, neurotransmitter receptors of the postsynaptic cell).

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49. What statement best describes a cholinergic neuron? a. A neuron that does not contain synaptic vesicles. b. A neuron that is only found in the brain and spinal cord, not in the peripheral nervous system. c. A neuron that can easily regenerate when injured. d. A neuron that releases the neurotransmitter, acetylcholine. e. A neuron with no synaptic interaction.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 13.4 Communication between Neurons LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.4.3 - Describe the events of synaptic transmission in proper chronological order from the release of neurotransmitter by synaptic vesicles to the effect of the neurotransmitter on the postsynaptic cell.

Essay 50. Discuss the main function of the blood-brain barrier. Then, discuss the disadvantages of the blood brain barrier.

ANSWER: The blood-brain barrier (BBB) keeps many molecules that circulate in the rest of the body from getting into the central nervous system (CNS). Most neurons in the CNS are not capable of mitosis, and therefore neurons that die are not typically replaced. Therefore, the BBB evolved to help protect the CNS environment from any damage. Nutrients, such as glucose or amino acids, can pass through the highly selective BBB, but most other molecules cannot. A side effect of the BBB’s protective structure is that it interferes with drug delivery to the CNS. Pharmaceutical companies are challenged to design drugs that can cross the BBB as well as influence the nervous system. Another consequence of the BBB is that white blood cells—the body’s main line of defense against infection—cannot cross it. While this barrier protects the CNS from exposure to toxic or pathogenic substances, it also keeps out the cells that could protect the brain and spinal cord from disease and damage.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Analyze REFERENCES: 13.1 Organization and Functions of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.1.1 - Describe the general functions of the nervous system.

51. Describe the key role refractory periods play within the nervous system, or the neuron. Give an example in which stimulation of an action potential during the relative refractor period can be helpful.

ANSWER: Neurons communicate to other neurons using only one signal, the action potential, which results in the release of a neurotransmitter into the synapse to stimulate the next neuron. An action potential is all-or-none; either the action potential is conducted down the axon, or it is not conducted down the axon, yet the amplitude is always the same. However, the nervous system must be capable of refinement. For example, we need to be able to feel the difference between something that is pleasantly warm and something that is dangerously hot. The neurons cannot fire more intense action potentials (i.e., higher amplitudes); their only way of communicating intensity is through the frequency of action potentials. The absolute refractory period prevents action potentials from being fired too frequently, but very intense stimuli (i.e., dangerously hot surfaces) can cause action potentials to occur during the relative refractory period. Therefore, neurons are able to communicate very intense stimuli by firing action potentials during the relative refractory period.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Analyze REFERENCES: 13.3 Neurophysiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.3.5 - Compare and contrast graded potentials and action potentials, with particular attention to their locations in the neuron and the ions and ion channels

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involved in each.

52. Describe the differences between neurons and glial cells in nervous tissue.

ANSWER: Nervous tissue is composed of two types of cells: neurons, and glial cells. Neurons, or neural cells, generate and propagate electrical signals into, within, and out of the nervous system. These cells are responsible for communication to various body regions. Glial cells are various cell types that are responsible for maintaining and supporting neurons. They make up neural tissue, excluding neurons.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Analyze REFERENCES: 13.2 Nervous Tissue and Cells LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 13.2.1 - Identify and describe the major components of a typical neuron (e.g., cell body, nucleus, nucleolus, chromatophilic substance [Nissl bodies], axon hillock, dendrites, and axon) and indicate which parts receive input signals and which parts transmit output signals.

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Chapter 14 - Anatomy of the Nervous System Multiple Choice 1. Gray matter is . a. the region of the central nervous system (CNS) with many cell bodies and dendrites b. the region of the CNS with many axons or tracts c. a bundle of axons in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) d. a bundle of axons in the CNS e. a cluster of unmyelinated cell bodies and/or short unmyelinated axons only present in the brain ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.1 General Anatomy of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.1.1 - Describe the composition and arrangement of the gray and white matter in the CNS. 2. White matter is . a. the region of the central nervous system (CNS) with many cell bodies and dendrites b. the region of the CNS with many axons or tracts c. a bundle of axons in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) d. a bundle of axons in the CNS e. a cluster of unmyelinated cell bodies and/or short unmyelinated axons only present in the brain ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand WWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 14.1 General Anatomy of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.1.1 - Describe the composition and arrangement of the gray and white matter in the CNS. 3. A nerve is defined as . a. the region of the central nervous system (CNS) with many cell bodies and dendrites b. the region of the CNS with many axons or tracts c. a bundle of axons in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) d. a bundle of axons in the CNS e. a cluster of unmyelinated cell bodies and/or short unmyelinated axons only present in the brain ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.1 General Anatomy of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.1.2 - Compare and contrast the structure and location of a tract and a nerve.

4. A tract is defined as . a. the region of the central nervous system (CNS) with many cell bodies and dendrites b. the region of the CNS with many axons or tracts c. a bundle of axons in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) d. a bundle of axons in the CNS e. a cluster of unmyelinated cell bodies and/or short unmyelinated axons only present in the brain ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 14.1 General Anatomy of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.1.2 - Compare and contrast the structure and location of a tract and a nerve.

5. A nucleus is . a. the region of the central nervous system (CNS) with many cell bodies and dendrites b. the region of the CNS with many axons or tracts c. a bundle of axons in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) d. a bundle of axons in the CNS e. a cluster of unmyelinated cell bodies and/or short unmyelinated axons only present in the brain ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.1 General Anatomy of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.1.3 - Compare and contrast the structure and location of a nucleus and a ganglion.

6. What are the three meningeal layers? a. superior, inferior, and internal meninges b. external mater, internal mater, and superior mater c. exterior mater, dura mater, and interior mater d. pia mater, interior mater, and dura mater e. dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember WW Me.rvWoSus System REFERENCES: 14.1 General AnatW om y. ofTthBeSN LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.1.4 - Identify the layers of the meninges and describe their anatomical and functional relationships to the CNS (brain and spinal cord).

7. What statement best describes the dural venous sinuses? a. A collection space for the venous blood that leaves the brain and returns to the heart. b. A membranous structure found directly in the center of the skull that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres. c. The space along the superior edge of the falx cerebri, just inside the cranial bones. d. A membrane sandwiched between the cerebral hemispheres as the deepest or most inferior portion of the falx cerebri. e. Anatomical structures that protect the brain from external pressures.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.1 General Anatomy of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.1.5 - Identify and describe the epidural space, subdural space, and subarachnoid space associated with the brain and the spinal cord, and identify which space contains cerebrospinal fluid 8. What statement best describes the falx cerebri? a. A collection space for the venous blood that leaves the brain and returns to the heart. b. A membranous structure found directly in the center of the skull that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres. c. The space between the pia mater and the arachnoid mater, a weblike structure.

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d. The deepest meningeal layer. e. An anatomical structure that protects the brain from external pressures.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.1 General Anatomy of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.1.6 - Describe the structure and location of the dural venous sinuses, and explain their role in drainage of blood from the brain.

9.

What statement best describes the superior sagittal sinus? a. A specific covering that protects the occipital lobes. b. A membranous structure found directly in the center of the skull that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres. c. The space along the superior edge of the falx cerebri, just inside the cranial bones. d. A membrane sandwiched between the cerebral hemispheres as the deepest or most inferior portion of the falx cerebri. e. An anatomical structure that protects the brain from external pressures.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.1 General Anatomy of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.1.7 - Identify and describe the structure and function of the cranial dural septa.

10. What statement best describes the inferior sagittal sinus? a. A specific covering that protects the occipital lobes. b. A membranous structure found directly in thWe W ceWn. teT r oBf S thM e. skW ulS l that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres. c. The space along the superior edge of the falx cerebri, just inside the cranial bones. d. A space sandwiched between the cerebral hemispheres as the deepest or most inferior portion of the falx cerebri. e. An anatomical structure that protects the brain from external pressures.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.1 General Anatomy of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.1.7 - Identify and describe the structure and function of the cranial dural septa.

11. CSF . a. is a clear fluid derived from blood that circulates within the tissues of the central nervous system b. are paired (right and left) superior ventricles housed within the cerebral hemispheres c. is a membranous structure between the pia mater and the arachnoid mater d. is an anatomical structure connected to the fourth ventricle e. is a fluid layer connected to the skull ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.1 General Anatomy of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.1.6 - Describe the structure and location of the dural venous sinuses, and explain their role in drainage of blood from the brain.

12. The lateral ventricles are

.

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a. a clear fluid derived from blood that circulates within the tissues of the central nervous system b. paired (right and left) superior ventricles housed within the cerebral hemispheres c. are membranous structures between the pia mater and the arachnoid mater d. are anatomical structures directly connected to the fourth ventricle e. are fluid layers connected to the skull ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.1 General Anatomy of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.1.6 - Describe the structure and location of the dural venous sinuses, and explain their role in drainage of blood from the brain.

13. What statement best describes interventricular foramen? a. A space within the peripheral nervous system that connects the brain to the spinal cord. b. A space filled with CSF that connects the third and fourth ventricle. c. A space filled with CSF that connects the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle. d. It is also referred to as the fourth ventricle. e. It is a fluid layer that connects the brain to the skull.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.1 General Anatomy of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.1.8 - Describe how the cranial bones and the vertebral column protect the CNS. 14. What statement best describes the third ventricle?

WWthWat.cT a. A space within the peripheral nervous system onBnS ecM ts.thWeS brain to the spinal cord. b. A space filled with CSF in the medulla oblongata. c. A membranous structure between the pia mater and the dura mater. d. A space filled with CSF connected to the fourth ventricle via the cerebral aqueduct. e. It is a fluid layer that connects the brain to the skull.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.1 General Anatomy of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.1.10 - Identify and describe the ventricular system components.

15. The telencephalon is a secondary brain vesicle that develops into the . a. cerebrum b. retinas of the eyes, the thalamus, and the hypothalamus c. pons and cerebellum d. medulla oblongata e. midbrain region of the brainstem ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.2 - Identify and describe the five secondary brain vesicles formed from the neural tube and name the parts of the adult brain arising from each.

16. The diencephalon is comprised of

.

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a. the cerebral hemispheres b. the epithalamus, the thalamus, and the hypothalamus c. the pons and the cerebellum d. the midbrain and the medulla oblongata e. the hippocampus and limbic system ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.2 - Identify and describe the five secondary brain vesicles formed from the neural tube and name the parts of the adult brain arising from each.

17. The metencephalon is a secondary brain vesicle that develops into the . a. cerebrum b. retinas of the eyes, the thalamus, and the hypothalamus c. pons and cerebellum d. medulla oblongata e. midbrain region of the brainstem ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.2 - Identify and describe the five secondary brain vesicles formed from the neural tube and name the parts of the adult brain arising from each.

18. The myelencephalon is a secondary brain vesicW le W thW at.dT evBeS loM ps.inWtoSthe . a. cerebrum b. retinas of the eyes, the thalamus, and the hypothalamus c. pons and cerebellum d. medulla oblongata e. midbrain region of the brainstem ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.2 - Identify and describe the five secondary brain vesicles formed from the neural tube and name the parts of the adult brain arising from each.

19. The mesencephalon is a secondary brain vesicle that develops into the . a. cerebrum b. retinas of the eyes, the thalamus, and the hypothalamus c. pons and cerebellum d. medulla oblongata e. midbrain region of the brainstem ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.2 - Identify and describe the five secondary brain vesicles formed from the neural tube and name the parts of the adult brain arising from each.

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20. What are the four major regions of the adult brain? a. cerebellum, forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain b. cortex, cerebellum, brainstem, midbrain c. brainstem, medulla, cerebrum, cortex d. cerebrum, diencephalon, brainstem, cerebellum e. cerebellum, brainstem, cortex, diencephalon ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.3 - Identify and describe the four major parts of the adult brain (i.e., cerebrum, diencephalon, brainstem, cerebellum).

21. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the gyrus, or gyri? a. The ridges on the outer surface of the brain are called gyri. b. The grooves between the folds are called gyrus. c. The larger groove, specifically the groove between the cerebral hemispheres, is referred to as the central gyrus. d. The gyrus is located deep within the cerebrum. e. The separation between the cerebrum and the cerebellum is the gyrus.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.5 - Identify and define the general terms gyrus, sulcus, and fissure.

22. Which of the following statements is TRUE aboWuW t tW he.sTulBcuSsM , o.r W suSlci? a. The ridges on the outer surface of the brain are called sulci. b. The grooves between the folds, or ridges, are called sulci. c. The larger groove, specifically the deep groove between the cerebral hemispheres, is referred to as the central sulcus. d. The sulcus is located deep within the cerebrum. e. The separation between the cerebrum and the cerebellum is the sulcus.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.5 - Identify and define the general terms gyrus, sulcus, and fissure.

23. Which of the following statements is TRUE about fissures? a. Fissures are ridges on the outer surface of the brain. b. Fissures are grooves between the folds, or brain ridges. c. Fissures are the larger grooves visible on the brain. d. Fissures are located deep within the cerebrum. e. Fissures are clusters of cells within the brain that are visible only when the brain is dissected.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.5 - Identify and define the general terms gyrus, sulcus, and fissure.

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24. What statement best describes the cerebral cortex? a. It contains the cell bodies of the neurons responsible for the higher functions of the nervous system. b. It is the region of white matter within the brain. c. It contains specific clusters of nuclei that contribute to cortical processes. d. It is located deep within the cerebrum. e. It separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.4 - Identify and describe the three major cerebral regions (i.e., cortex, white matter, cerebral nuclei [basal nuclei]).

25. What statement best describes white matter? a. It contains the cell bodies of the neurons responsible for the higher functions of the nervous system. b. It is the region that contains myelinated fibers or tracts within the brain and spinal cord. c. It contains specific clusters of nuclei that contribute to cortical processes. d. It is located deep within the cerebrum. e. It is only found in the spinal cord.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.4 - Identify and describe the three major cerebral regions (i.e., cortex, white matter, cerebral nuclei [basal nuclei]).

26. What statement best describes cerebral nuclei? a. It contains the cell bodies of the neurons responsible for the higher functions of the nervous system. b. It is the region that contains myelinated fibers or tracts within the brain and spinal cord. c. It is a cluster of neuronal cell bodies within the brain that contribute to cortical processes. d. The nuclei lie on within the cerebral cortex. e. The separation between the two sides of the cerebrum.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.4 - Identify and describe the three major cerebral regions (i.e., cortex, white matter, cerebral nuclei [basal nuclei]).

27. What are the five functional regions of the cerebral cortex? a. cerebrum, diencephalon, brainstem, cerebellum, frontal lobe b. cerebellum, brainstem, cortex, diencephalon, frontal lobe c. occipital lobes, frontal lobe, external lobe, parietal lobe, temporal lobe d. cortex, frontal lobe, occipital lobe, temporal lobe, cerebrum e. frontal lobe, parietal lobes, occipital lobes, temporal lobes, insula ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.7 - Identify and describe the cerebral hemispheres and the five lobes of each (i.e., frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, insula).

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28. What primary functions are processed within the occipital lobes? a. visual stimuli b. auditory information c. language comprehension d. smell e. taste ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.8 - Identify and describe the primary functional cortical areas of the cerebrum (e.g., primary motor cortex, primary somatosensory cortex, primary auditory cortex, primary visual cortex, primary olfactory cortex, primary gustatory cortex).

29. What functions are primarily processed within the temporal lobes? a. visual stimuli b. auditory information c. language comprehension d. smell e. taste ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.8 - Identify anWdWdW e. scT riB beStM he prS imary functional cortical areas of the cerebrum .W (e.g., primary motor cortex, primary somatosensory cortex, primary auditory cortex, primary visual cortex, primary olfactory cortex, primary gustatory cortex).

30. What functions are primarily processed within Broca’s area? a. visual stimuli b. auditory information c. language comprehension d. smell e. taste ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.8 - Identify and describe the primary functional cortical areas of the cerebrum (e.g., primary motor cortex, primary somatosensory cortex, primary auditory cortex, primary visual cortex, primary olfactory cortex, primary gustatory cortex).

31. What functions are primarily processed within the temporal lobes? a. visual stimuli b. auditory information c. language comprehension d. smell e. taste ANSWER: d

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.8 - Identify and describe the primary functional cortical areas of the cerebrum (e.g., primary motor cortex, primary somatosensory cortex, primary auditory cortex, primary visual cortex, primary olfactory cortex, primary gustatory cortex).

32. What functions are primarily processed within the insula? a. visual stimuli b. auditory information c. language comprehension d. smell e. taste ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.9 - Compare and contrast the cerebral location and function of the motor speech area (Broca area) and Wernicke’s area.

33. What statement best describes the diencephalon? a. It contains the relay, or control centers for sensory processing and autonomic nervous system function. b. It only relays and processes sensory input, except for the sense of smell. c. It is a small collection of nuclei that are largely involved in regulating homeostasis. d. It consists of the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla. e. It is responsible for the regulation of our moW stWbW as. icThB om SeMos.taWtiSc functions.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.27 - Describe the structure, location, and function of ascending and descending spinal cord tracts.

34. What statement best describes the thalamus? a. It contains the relay, or control centers for sensory processing and autonomic nervous system function. b. It relays and processes sensory input, except for the sense of smell. c. It is a small collection of nuclei that are largely involved in regulating homeostasis. d. It consists of the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla. e. It is responsible for the regulation of our most basic homeostatic functions, like respiration and heart rate.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.24 - Identify and describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord, including its enlargements (i.e., cervical and lumbar), conus medullaris, cauda equina, and filum terminale.

35. What statement best describes the hypothalamus? a. It contains the relay, or control centers for sensory processing and autonomic nervous system function. b. It relays and processes sensory input, except for the sense of smell. c. It is a collection of nuclei that are largely involved in regulating homeostatic mechanisms.

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d. It consists of the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla. e. It is responsible for the regulation of our most basic homeostatic functions, like respiration and heart rate.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.24 - Identify and describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord, including its enlargements (i.e., cervical and lumbar), conus medullaris, cauda equina, and filum terminale.

36. What statement best describes the brainstem? a. It contains the relay, or control centers for sensory processing and autonomic nervous system function. b. It relays and processes sensory input, except for the sense of smell. c. It is a small collection of nuclei that are largely involved in regulating homeostasis. d. It consists of the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla. e. It is responsible for the regulation of our most basic homeostatic functions, like respiration and heart rate.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.24 - Identify and describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord, including its enlargements (i.e., cervical and lumbar), conus medullaris, cauda equina, and filum terminale.

37. What statement best describes the medulla oblongata? a. It contains the relay, or control centers for sensory processing and autonomic nervous system function.

WWW.TBSM.WS b. It relays and processes sensory input, except for the sense of smell. c. It is a small collection of nuclei that are largely involved in regulating homeostasis. d. It consists of the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla. e. It is responsible for the regulation of our most basic homeostatic functions, like respiration and heart rate.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.17 - Describe the structure, location, and major functions of the midbrain (mesencephalon), including the cerebral peduncles, superior colliculi, and inferior colliculi.

38. What statement best describes posterior (ventral) root ganglion? a. A cluster of cell bodies of the sensory axons that travel to the CNS. b. A cluster of cell bodies that are only found in the brain. c. Cell bodies that are in the gray matter of the spinal cord. d. It articulates with the vertebrae surrounding the spinal nerves. e. They control and regulate the gastrointestinal tract.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.3 The Peripheral Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.3.2 - Describe the major functions of each cranial nerve and identify each cranial nerve as predominantly sensory, motor, or mixed (i.e., sensory and motor).

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39. What statement best describes cranial nerve? a. A cluster of cell bodies of the sensory axons that travel to the CNS. b. Peripheral nerves that attach directly to the inferior aspect of the brain. c. Peripheral nerves that enter and exit the spinal cord through the intervertebral foramen. d. Nerves that articulate with the vertebrae surrounding the spinal cord. e. Nerves that control and regulate the gastrointestinal tract.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.3 The Peripheral Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.3.2 - Describe the major functions of each cranial nerve and identify each cranial nerve as predominantly sensory, motor, or mixed (i.e., sensory and motor).

40. What statement best describes the spinal nerve? a. A cluster of cell bodies of the sensory axons that travel to the CNS. b. Peripheral nerves that attach directly to the inferior aspect of the brain. c. Peripheral nerves that enter and exit the spinal cord through the intervertebral foramen. d. Nerves that articulate with the vertebrae surrounding the spinal cord. e. Nerves that control and regulate the gastrointestinal tract.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.3 The Peripheral Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.3.5 - List the number of spinal nerve pairs emerging from each spinal cord region (i.e., cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal).

41. What statement best describes the intercostal nerves? a. A cluster of neuronal cell bodies for motor neurons that exit the spinal cord. b. Peripheral nerves that attach directly to the inferior aspect of the brain. c. Peripheral nerves that enter and exit the spinal cord through the intervertebral foramen. d. Peripheral nerves that run between the ribs to innervate muscles along the thoracic wall. e. Nerves that control and regulate the gastrointestinal tract.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.3 The Peripheral Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.3.7 - For the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral nerve plexuses, list the spinal nerves that form each plexus, describe the plexus’ major motor and sensory distributions, and list the major named nerves that originate from each plexus.

42. What statement best describes the enteric nervous system? a. A cluster of neuronal cell bodies for motor neurons that exit the spinal cord. b. Peripheral nerves that attach directly to the inferior aspect of the brain. c. Peripheral nerves that enter and exit the spinal cord through the intervertebral foramen. d. Peripheral nerves that run between the ribs to innervate muscles along the thoracic wall. e. Nerves that control and regulate the gastrointestinal tract.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 14.3 The Peripheral Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.3.2 - Describe the major functions of each cranial nerve and identify each

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cranial nerve as predominantly sensory, motor, or mixed (i.e., sensory and motor).

43. How many pairs of cranial nerves are there in the PNS? a. 6 b. 12 c. 31 d. 62 e. 120 ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 14.3 The Peripheral Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.3.2 - Describe the major functions of each cranial nerve and identify each cranial nerve as predominantly sensory, motor, or mixed (i.e., sensory and motor).

44. How many pairs of spinal nerves are there in the PNS? a. 6 b. 12 c. 31 d. 62 e. 120 ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 14.3 The Peripheral Nervous System .W LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.3.4 - Identify anWdWdW e. scT riB beStM he foS rmation, structure, and branches of a typical spinal nerve, including the roots and the rami (e.g., anterior [ventral], posterior [dorsal]).

Essay 45. Describe cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and how it is produced.

ANSWER: Cerebrospinal fluid is a clear fluid derived from blood that circulates within the tissues of the central nervous system. The peripheral nervous system does not have CSF or an equivalent. CSF is produced by ependymal cells (one of the types of glial cells) within the four ventricles of the brain. Ependymal cells surround capillaries within the pia mater and filter blood plasma to generate CSF. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 14.1 General Anatomy of the Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.1.12 - Describe the general functions of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

46. Describe the limbic system, including the brain structures that have been identified to contribute to limbic function.

ANSWER: The limbic system is a network of structures in the diencephalon and cerebrum that work together to process emotion. The brain structures that have been identified to contribute to the limbic function are the hippocampus, the amygdala, the olfactory bulbs and tracts, the cingulate gyrus, the para hippocampal gyrus, the fornix, the anterior thalamic nuclei, the habenular nuclei, the septal nuclei, and the mammillary bodies. Of these, the hippocampus and amygdala are of particular interest, as we understand their functions more completely.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.23 - Describe the major components and functions of the limbic system.

47. Describe the spinal cord and its anatomy.

ANSWER: The spinal cord is part of the central nervous system. Whereas the brain develops out of expansions of the neural tube, the spinal cord maintains the tube structure and is relatively consistent in its anatomy throughout its regions. The spinal cord is divided into regions that correspond to the regions of the vertebral column. The name of each spinal cord region corresponds to the level at which spinal nerves that exit it pass through the intervertebral foramina. The most superior is the cervical region, followed by the thoracic, lumbar, and finally the sacral region. The spinal cord is shorter than the full length of the vertebral column because it stops growing after the second year of life, yet the skeleton continues to grow through adolescence. The spinal cord ends in the lumbar region (~L1/L2) at the conus medullaris, and a long bundle of nerves hangs down encased within the inferior spinal region referred to as the cauda equina. The filum terminale is an extension of the pia mater that anchors the conus medullaris to the coccyx.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.24 - Identify and describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord, including its enlargements (i.e., cervical and lumbar), conus medullaris, cauda equina, and filum terminale.

48. Describe the reticular formation and its related functions.

ANSWER: The reticular formation is a diffuse region of interconnected gray matter throughout the brainstem, diencephalon, and spinal cord and contains both sensory and motor pathways. It primarily functions in sleep and wakefulness, but also processes general brain activity and attention. The sensory portion, called the reticular activating system (RAS) processes the visual, auditory, andWtW ouW ch.sTtiB mS ulM i t. haWt S influence alertness. Falling asleep to a gentle sound, waking at the sound of your alarm, and not being able to sleep on a plane when someone is kicking the back of your seat are all examples of the RAS influencing your level of alertness. The motor components control our muscle tone when sleeping and the relaxation of our skeletal muscles, as well as the changes in respiratory rate and heart rate between sleeping and wakefulness. The activity of the reticular formation operates on a spectrum; rather than having just two modes of awake and asleep, there are many modes between, such as drowsy.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.22 - Describe the major components and functions of the reticular activating system (RAS).

49. Describe the medulla oblongata and its functions.

ANSWER: The medulla oblongata, or simply the medulla, is the most inferior structure in the brain and continues with the spinal cord. It houses the fourth ventricle and its choroid plexus along its posterior aspect. Its anterior aspect is composed of tracts of ascending and descending neurons. These tracts, called pyramidal tracts, cross over on the medulla’s surface. The crossing over of the tracts is what leads to the right cerebral hemisphere controlling and receiving sensory information from the left side of the body and the left cerebral hemisphere controlling and receiving sensory information from the right side of the body. The interior aspect of the medulla contains nuclei responsible for the regulation of our most basic homeostatic functions. There are three functional clusters: 

The cardiovascular center—this includes several nuclei that function to regulate the force and rate of heart contraction as well as the diameter of blood vessels to adjust blood pressure.

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 

The respiratory centers—these function to adjust the rate and depth of breathing.

The abdominal and thoracic motor centers—these nuclei are responsible for various coordinated muscle activities of the thorax and abdomen, including swallowing, vomiting, sneezing, and coughing.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 14.2 The Central Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 14.2.22 - Describe the major components and functions of the reticular activating system (RAS).

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Chapter 15 - The Somatic Nervous System Multiple Choice 1. An intrinsic reflex is defined as . a. a reflex developed during the fetal period and present at birth b. a reflex with a motor response carried out by a skeletal muscle c. a reflex with a motor response that involves smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, or a gland d. a reflex that begins and ends on the same side of the body e. a reflex that begins and ends on opposite side of the body ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.1 Structure and Function of Sensory and Motor Pathways LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.1.5 - Describe reflex responses in terms of the major structural and functional components of a reflex arc.

2. A somatic reflex is defined as . a. a reflex developed during the fetal period and present at birth b. a reflex with a motor response carried out by a skeletal muscle c. a reflex with a motor response that involves smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, or a gland d. a reflex that begins and ends on the same side of the body e. a reflex that begins and ends on opposite side of the body ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand WWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 15.1 Structure and Function of Sensory and Motor Pathways LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.1.5 - Describe reflex responses in terms of the major structural and functional components of a reflex arc.

3. A visceral reflex is defined as . a. a reflex developed during the fetal period and present at birth b. a reflex with a motor response carried out by a skeletal muscle c. a reflex with a motor response that involves smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, or a gland d. a reflex that begins and ends on the same side of the body e. a reflex that begins and ends on opposite side of the body ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.1 Structure and Function of Sensory and Motor Pathways LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.1.5 - Describe reflex responses in terms of the major structural and functional components of a reflex arc.

4. An ipsilateral reflex is defined as . a. a reflex developed during the fetal period and present at birth b. a reflex with a motor response carried out by a skeletal muscle c. a reflex with a motor response that involves smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, or a gland d. a reflex that begins and ends on the same side of the body e. a reflex that begins and ends on opposite side of the body ANSWER: d

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.1 Structure and Function of Sensory and Motor Pathways LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.1.5 - Describe reflex responses in terms of the major structural and functional components of a reflex arc.

5. What statement best describes osmoreceptors? a. Sensory receptors that respond to body fluid solute concentration. b. Receptors sensitive to pressure and vibration. c. A specialized sensory receptor that responds to deep pressure. d. Receptors that respond to photons. e. Specialized receptors for pain.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.2 Sensory Receptors LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.2.4 - Compare and contrast the types of sensory receptors based on the type of stimulus (i.e., thermoreceptor, photoreceptor, chemoreceptor, baroreceptor, nociceptor [pain receptor], mechanoreceptor).

6. What statement best describes mechanoreceptors? a. Sensory receptors that respond to body fluid solute concentration. b. Receptors sensitive to pressure and vibration, as well as the sensation of sound and body position. c. A specialized sensory receptor that responds to deep pressure. d. Receptors that respond to photons. e. Specialized receptors for pain.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.2 Sensory Receptors LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.2.4 - Compare and contrast the types of sensory receptors based on the type of stimulus (i.e., thermoreceptor, photoreceptor, chemoreceptor, baroreceptor, nociceptor [pain receptor], mechanoreceptor).

7. What statement best describes baroreceptors? a. Sensory receptors that respond to body fluid solute concentration. b. Receptors sensitive to pressure and vibration, as well as the sensation of sound and body position. c. A specialized sensory receptor that responds to changes in blood pressure. d. Receptors that respond to photons. e. Specialized receptors for pain.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.2 Sensory Receptors LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.2.4 - Compare and contrast the types of sensory receptors based on the type of stimulus (i.e., thermoreceptor, photoreceptor, chemoreceptor, baroreceptor, nociceptor [pain receptor], mechanoreceptor).

8. What statement best describes photoreceptors? a. Sensory receptors that respond to body fluid solute concentration. b. Receptors sensitive to pressure and vibration, as well as the sensation of sound and body position.

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c. A specialized sensory receptor that responds to changes in blood pressure. d. Receptors that respond to photons. e. Specialized receptors for pain.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.2 Sensory Receptors LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.2.4 - Compare and contrast the types of sensory receptors based on the type of stimulus (i.e., thermoreceptor, photoreceptor, chemoreceptor, baroreceptor, nociceptor [pain receptor], mechanoreceptor).

9. What statement best describes nociceptors? a. Sensory receptors that respond to body fluid solute concentration. b. Receptors sensitive to pressure and vibration, as well as the sensation of sound and body position. c. A specialized sensory receptor that responds to changes in blood pressure. d. Receptors that respond to photons. e. Specialized receptors for pain.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.2 Sensory Receptors LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.2.4 - Compare and contrast the types of sensory receptors based on the type of stimulus (i.e., thermoreceptor, photoreceptor, chemoreceptor, baroreceptor, nociceptor [pain receptor], mechanoreceptor).

10. What statement best describes unencapsulated rW ecWepWt. orT s?BSM.WS a. The dendrites of a sensory neuron enmeshed in the surrounding tissue. b. The dendrites of a sensory neuron wrapped in such a way that enables their function. c. Only found in the epidermal layer. d. A lamellated corpuscle is an example of one unencapsulated receptor. e. Present in joint capsules, where they measure stretch in the components of the skeletal system.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.3 General Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3.1 - Compare and contrast the location, structure, and function of the different types of tactile receptors (e.g., tactile [Merkel] corpuscle, lamellated [Pacinian] corpuscle).

11. What statement best describes encapsulated receptors? a. The dendrites of a sensory neuron enmeshed in the surrounding tissue. b. The dendrites of a sensory neuron wrapped in such a way that enables their function. c. Only found in the epidermal layer. d. A free nerve ending is an example of one encapsulated receptor. e. Present in joint capsules, where they measure stretch in the components of the skeletal system.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.3 General Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3.1 - Compare and contrast the location, structure, and function of the different types of tactile receptors (e.g., tactile [Merkel] corpuscle, lamellated [Pacinian]

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corpuscle).

12. What statement best describes lamellated corpuscles? a. The dendrites of a sensory neuron enmeshed in the surrounding tissue. b. The dendrites of a sensory neuron wrapped in such a way that enables their function. c. Encapsulated receptors found deep in the dermis, or subcutaneous tissue. d. Found in the dermal papillae. e. Present in joint capsules, where they measure stretch in the components of the skeletal system.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.3 General Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3.1 - Compare and contrast the location, structure, and function of the different types of tactile receptors (e.g., tactile [Merkel] corpuscle, lamellated [Pacinian] corpuscle).

13. What statement best describes tactile corpuscles? a. The dendrites of a sensory neuron enmeshed in the surrounding tissue. b. The dendrites of a sensory neuron wrapped in such a way that enables their function. c. Encapsulated receptors found deep in the dermis, or subcutaneous tissue. d. Found in the dermal papillae. e. Present in joint capsules, where they measure stretch in the components of the skeletal system.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.3 General SensWeW s W.TBSM.WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3.1 - Compare and contrast the location, structure, and function of the different types of tactile receptors (e.g., tactile [Merkel] corpuscle, lamellated [Pacinian] corpuscle).

14. What statement best describes bulbous corpuscles? a. The dendrites of a sensory neuron enmeshed in the surrounding tissue. b. The dendrites of a sensory neuron wrapped in such a way that enables their function. c. Encapsulated receptors found deep in the dermis, or subcutaneous tissue. d. Found in the dermal papillae. e. Present in joint capsules, where they measure stretch in the components of the skeletal system.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.3 General Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3.1 - Compare and contrast the location, structure, and function of the different types of tactile receptors (e.g., tactile [Merkel] corpuscle, lamellated [Pacinian] corpuscle).

15. The conjunctiva . a. extends over the white areas of the eye and folds in on itself to line the inside of the eyelids b. produces tears that flow across the eye to cleanse and keep it moist c. is highly vascularized loose connective tissue that provides blood to the eyeball d. is a muscle that is attached to the lens by suspensory ligaments e. overlays the ciliary body and is visible when viewing the anterior eye

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ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.1 - Identify and describe the accessory eye structures (e.g., conjunctiva and lacrimal apparatus).

16. The lacrimal gland . a. extends over the white areas of the eye and folds in on itself to line the inside of the eyelids b. produces tears that flow across the eye to cleanse and keep it moist c. is highly vascularized loose connective tissue that provides blood to the eyeball d. is a muscle that is attached to the lens by suspensory ligaments e. overlays the ciliary body and is visible when viewing the anterior eye ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.1 - Identify and describe the accessory eye structures (e.g., conjunctiva and lacrimal apparatus).

17. The choroid layer . a. extends over the white areas of the eye and folds in on itself to line the inside of the eyelids b. produces tears that flow across the eye to cleanse and keep it moist c. is highly vascularized loose connective tissue that provides blood to the eyeball d. is a muscle that is attached to the lens by suspensory ligaments inT gB thS eM a n.teWriS or eye e. overlays the ciliary body and is visible whenWvWieWw. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.2 - Identify the tunics of the eye and their major components (e.g., cornea, sclera, iris, ciliary body), and describe the structure and function of each.

18. The ciliary body . a. extends over the white areas of the eye and folds in on itself to line the inside of the eyelids b. produces tears that flow across the eye to cleanse and keep it moist c. is highly vascularized loose connective tissue that provides blood to the eyeball d. is a muscle that is attached to the lens by suspensory ligaments e. overlays the retina and is visible when viewing the anterior eye ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.2 - Identify the tunics of the eye and their major components (e.g., cornea, sclera, iris, ciliary body), and describe the structure and function of each.

19. The iris . a. extends over the white areas of the eye and folds in on itself to line the inside of the eyelids b. produces tears that flow across the eye to cleanse and keep it moist c. is highly vascularized loose connective tissue that provides blood to the eyeball d. is a muscle that is attached to the lens by suspensory ligaments

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e. overlays the ciliary body and is visible when viewing the anterior eye ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.2 - Identify the tunics of the eye and their major components (e.g., cornea, sclera, iris, ciliary body), and describe the structure and function of each.

20. What individual tastes have been recognized by scientists? a. sweet, salty, sour, and bitter b. salty, sour, and bitter c. salty, bitter, sweet, and spicy d. sweet, salty, sour, bitter, umami, and fat e. salty, sour, sweet, fat, and spicy ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.13 - Describe the primary taste sensations.

21. What statement best describes the tongue papillae? a. Raised bumps on the tongue. b. Composed of specialized epithelial cells. c. Stem cells that can reproduce to replace the taste receptor cells. d. The receptors and transducers of taste stimuli. e. Removes taste buds.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.15 - Explain the process by which tastants activate gustatory receptors.

22. What statement best describes taste buds? a. Raised bumps on the tongue. b. Composed of specialized epithelial cells. c. Stem cells that can reproduce to replace the taste receptor cells. d. The receptors and transducers of taste stimuli. e. Removes taste buds.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.14 - Identify and describe the location and structure of taste buds.

23. What statement best describes basal epithelial cells? a. Raised bumps on the tongue. b. Composed of specialized epithelial cells. c. Stem cells that can reproduce to replace the taste receptor cells. d. The receptors and transducers of taste stimuli. e. Removes taste buds.

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ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.12 - Classify gustatory receptor cells based on the type of stimulus (i.e., modality).

24. What statement best describes taste receptor cells? a. Raised bumps on the tongue. b. Composed of specialized epithelial cells. c. Stem cells that can reproduce to replace the taste receptor cells. d. The receptors and transducers of taste stimuli. e. Removes taste buds.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.12 - Classify gustatory receptor cells based on the type of stimulus (i.e., modality).

25. What do you call people who express very high numbers of taste buds? a. taste budders b. excessive tasters c. supertasters d. over stimulated tasters e. unregulated tasters ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.12 - Classify gustatory receptor cells based on the type of stimulus (i.e., modality).

26. Olfaction is . a. the sense of smell b. a small region within the superior nasal cavity c. the dendrite that extends inferiorly into the mucous lining of the nasal cavity d. epithelial tissue that dissolves into mucus e. on the inferior surface of the frontal lobe ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.17 - Identify and describe the composition and location of the olfactory epithelium.

27. What statement best describes the olfactory epithelium? a. It is the sense of smell. b. It is a small region within the superior nasal cavity that contains specialized cells. c. It has dendrites that extend down into the mucous lining of the nasal cavity. d. It is tissue that dissolves into the mucosal lining when odorants are present.

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e. It is tissue found only on the inferior surface of the frontal lobe.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.17 - Identify and describe the composition and location of the olfactory epithelium.

28. What statement best describes an olfactory sensory neuron? a. A neuron that contains motor information from the nasal cavity. b. Tissue within the superior nasal cavity that senses taste and smell. c. Neurons that have dendrites that extend down into the mucous lining of the nasal cavity. d. A neuron with specialized axons to carry more impulses to the brain. e. The axon of an olfactory sensory neuron carries signals to the occipital lobe for further processing.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.17 - Identify and describe the composition and location of the olfactory epithelium.

29. What statement best describes odorant molecules? a. Molecules that sense smell. b. Molecules along the superior nasal cavity that carry motor input. c. Molecules that stimulate epithelial tissue in the nasal cavity. alWre.gT ioB nS anMd.dW issSolve into the mucus. d. Molecules that pass over the olfactory epitheWliW e. Molecules on the inferior surface of the frontal lobe.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.17 - Identify and describe the composition and location of the olfactory epithelium.

30. What statement best describes the olfactory bulb? a. The olfactory bulb contains motor receptors to sense odorants in the nasal cavity. b. It is a small epithelial region within the superior nasal cavity. c. It has dendrites that extend down into the mucous lining of the nasal cavity. d. Neuron with specialized axons to carry more afferent impulses to the brain. e. It is on the inferior surface of the frontal lobe.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.19 - Trace the path of olfaction from the olfactory receptors, to the initiation of an action potential in the olfactory nerves, through the olfactory bulb, the olfactory tract, and to the various parts of the brain.

31. What statement best describes the auricle of the ear? a. The large, fleshy structure on the lateral aspect of the head. b. The structure that enters the skull through the external auditory meatus of the temporal bone.

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c. The anatomical structure in the outer ear that vibrates as it is struck by sound waves. d. It is the space that contains three small bones called the ossicles. e. It is the anatomical structure that articulates with the stapes.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.21 - Identify the macroscopic structures of the outer (external), middle, and inner (internal) ear and their major components (e.g., auditory ossicles, auditory [pharyngotympanic] tube), and describe the structure and function of each.

32. What statement best describes the auditory canal? a. The large, fleshy structure on the lateral aspect of the head. b. The structure that enters the skull through the external auditory meatus of the temporal bone. c. The anatomical structure in the outer ear that vibrates as it is struck by sound waves. d. It is the space that contains three small bones called the ossicles. e. It is the anatomical structure that articulates with the stapes.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.21 - Identify the macroscopic structures of the outer (external), middle, and inner (internal) ear and their major components (e.g., auditory ossicles, auditory [pharyngotympanic] tube), and describe the structure and function of each.

33. What statement best describes the tympanic meW mW brW an.eT ? BSM.WS a. The large, fleshy structure on the lateral aspect of the head. b. The structure that enters the skull through the external auditory meatus of the temporal bone. c. The anatomical structure in the outer ear that vibrates as it is struck by sound waves. d. It is the space that contains three small bones called the ossicles. e. It is the anatomical structure that articulates with the stapeses.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.21 - Identify the macroscopic structures of the outer (external), middle, and inner (internal) ear and their major components (e.g., auditory ossicles, auditory [pharyngotympanic] tube), and describe the structure and function of each.

34. What statement best describes the middle ear? a. The large, fleshy structure on the lateral aspect of the head. b. The structure that enters the skull through the external auditory meatus of the temporal bone. c. The anatomical structure in the outer ear that vibrates as it is struck by sound waves. d. It is the space that contains three small bones called the ossicles. e. It is the anatomical structure that articulates with the stapes.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.21 - Identify the macroscopic structures of the outer (external), middle, and inner (internal) ear and their major components (e.g., auditory ossicles, auditory

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[pharyngotympanic] tube), and describe the structure and function of each.

35. What statement best describes the incus? a. The large, fleshy structure on the lateral aspect of the head. b. The structure that enters the skull through the external auditory meatus of the temporal bone. c. The anatomical structure in the outer ear that vibrates as it is struck by sound waves. d. It is the space in the middle ear and contains three small bones called the ossicles. e. It is the anatomical bony structure that articulates with the stapes.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.21 - Identify the macroscopic structures of the outer (external), middle, and inner (internal) ear and their major components (e.g., auditory ossicles, auditory [pharyngotympanic] tube), and describe the structure and function of each.

36. The ossicles . a. amplify vibrations received by the tympanic membrane b. are found on the floor of the cochlear duct and the roof of the scala tympani c. are responsible for our sense of balance d. are the sensory receptors that sit atop the basilar membrane e. are all-together a long tube curled like a snail ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special SensW esWW.TBSM.WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.21 - Identify the macroscopic structures of the outer (external), middle, and inner (internal) ear and their major components (e.g., auditory ossicles, auditory [pharyngotympanic] tube), and describe the structure and function of each.

37. The basilar membrane . a. amplifies vibrations received by the tympanic membrane b. is found on the floor of the cochlear duct and the roof of the scala tympani c. is responsible for our sense of balance d. is connective tissue that sits atop the semicircular duct e. is another name for the tympanic membrane ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.21 - Identify the macroscopic structures of the outer (external), middle, and inner (internal) ear and their major components (e.g., auditory ossicles, auditory [pharyngotympanic] tube), and describe the structure and function of each.

38. What statement best describes the vestibule and the semicircular canals? a. They amplify the vibrations received by the tympanic membrane. b. They are on the floor of the cochlear duct and the roof of the scala tympani. c. They are responsible for our sense of balance. d. They are in the middle ear. e. They contain sensory neurons that directly connect the ear to the parietal lobe for processing.

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ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.21 - Identify the macroscopic structures of the outer (external), middle, and inner (internal) ear and their major components (e.g., auditory ossicles, auditory [pharyngotympanic] tube), and describe the structure and function of each.

39. What statement best describes hair cells within the cochlea? a. They amplify vibrations received by the tympanic membrane. b. They are sensory receptors/neurons that carry both sensory and motor information to and from the ear. c. They are responsible for sensing changes in linear acceleration. d. They are sensory receptors that sit atop the basilar membrane. e. They are constantly stimulated until a loud noise is present.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.21 - Identify the macroscopic structures of the outer (external), middle, and inner (internal) ear and their major components (e.g., auditory ossicles, auditory [pharyngotympanic] tube), and describe the structure and function of each.

40. What statement best describes the cochlea? a. It is in the middle ear to amplify the vibrations received by the tympanic membrane. b. It contains sensory receptors that carry both sensory and motor information to and from the ear. c. It is an organ responsible for our sense of balance. TBSM.WS W WW. d. It is an organ within the inner ear that houses the vestibule and the semicircular canals. e. It is a long tube curled like a snail within the inner ear.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.21 - Identify the macroscopic structures of the outer (external), middle, and inner (internal) ear and their major components (e.g., auditory ossicles, auditory [pharyngotympanic] tube), and describe the structure and function of each.

41. Equilibrium is . a. the sense of balance b. stretch on the muscles of the ear c. sensory input from odorant molecules d. when the body is in homeostasis e. when sound has similar amplitude and frequency ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.21 - Identify the macroscopic structures of the outer (external), middle, and inner (internal) ear and their major components (e.g., auditory ossicles, auditory [pharyngotympanic] tube), and describe the structure and function of each.

42. What statement best describes equilibrium?

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a. The sense of balance. b. Determined by the vestibule. c. Determined by the semicircular canals. d. The hair cells of the vestibule sit, surrounded by supporting cells, on a flat membrane. e. A long tube curled like a snail.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.21 - Identify the macroscopic structures of the outer (external), middle, and inner (internal) ear and their major components (e.g., auditory ossicles, auditory [pharyngotympanic] tube), and describe the structure and function of each.

43. What statement best describes static equilibrium? a. The overall sense of balance. b. Detected by the vestibule apparatus within the inner ear. c. Detected by the semicircular canals within the inner ear. d. The sense that the head is moving. e. The body in complete homeostasis when sleeping.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.21 - Identify the macroscopic structures of the outer (external), middle, and inner (internal) ear and their major components (e.g., auditory ossicles, auditory [pharyngotympanic] anSdMd.eW scSribe the structure and function of each.

WWtuWb.e)T, B 44. What statement best describes dynamic equilibrium? a. The overall sense of balance. b. Detected by the vestibule apparatus within the inner ear. c. Detected by the semicircular canals within the inner ear. d. The sense that the head is moving. e. The body in complete homeostasis when sleeping.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.21 - Identify the macroscopic structures of the outer (external), middle, and inner (internal) ear and their major components (e.g., auditory ossicles, auditory [pharyngotympanic] tube), and describe the structure and function of each.

45. What statement best describes a macula? a. Another name for the vestibule apparatus within the inner ear. b. Motor output to the semicircular canals when the head is moving. c. Sensory input when sound waves are high in frequency. d. The hair cells of the vestibule that sit, surrounded by supporting cells, on a flat membrane. e. A long tube curled like a snail to detect position in space.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.21 - Identify the macroscopic structures of the outer (external), middle, and inner (internal) ear and their major components (e.g., auditory ossicles, auditory [pharyngotympanic] tube), and describe the structure and function of each.

Essay 46. Digging deeper into the senses: describe the role of endogenous opioids and then, explain the dangers associated with exogenous opioids (i.e., opioid drugs).

ANSWER: Endogenous opioids, or endorphins, are released in a variety of physiological circumstances, including during intense exercise. Their release sometimes prevents, or reduces, pain sensation. For example, a player might sprain their ankle during a soccer game, but not really feel the pain from the injury until they are resting after the end of the game. Opioid receptors are expressed within the brain, not only on nociceptors. Oftentimes opioids are associated with addiction and respiratory dysfunction.

Exogenous opioids can bind to endogenous opioid receptors within the brain. These molecules, collectively called opioids, have been used in medicine to reduce pain yet, unfortunately, have been abused for hundreds of years. Opioids are among the most addictive substances in the world. Opioid addiction is a severe public health crisis in the United States; it is imperative to treat those currently battling addiction and to find alternatives to opioid use in pain management.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Analyze REFERENCES: 15.3 General Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3.3 - Explain how the anatomical pathway of pain sensation can confuse pain information in referred pain and phantom pain.

47. Describe the general process of dark and light vision, include a brief discussion about adaptation.

ANSWER: Phototransduction is the process of converting light or dark into sensory information processed within the occipital lobe. At the molecular level, the arrival of particles of light (i.e., photons) causes changes in the photopigment molecules that lead to changes in membrane potential of the photoreceptor cell. Each type of cone accepts photons traveling within very narrow wavelength ranges. Rods, however, accept photons traveling over a wider range of wavelengths and cannot discriminate the various wavelengths, meaning they do not detect color. Dark adaptation can take up to 20 or even 30 minutes to complete.

Our dark vision lacks color and has less acuity than our light vision. The opposite event, light adaptation, occurs as we step out from the dark space and into a brightly lit one.

Immediately our irises constrict to reduce the amount of incoming light, and rods and cones both send signals initially, creating a confusing visual signal that we might call a glare. The rods turn off, or bleach, quickly and the cones adjust their signaling within the first few minutes outdoors.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.5 - Describe phototransduction (i.e., how light activates photoreceptors) and explain the process of light and dark adaptation. DATE CREATED: 4/20/2022 48. Describe the process of a simple monosynaptic reflex.

ANSWER: The reflex begins with a stimulus at the sensory receptor, which then causes a graded potential. If the potential is sufficient to bring the sensory receptor membrane to threshold, the sensory receptor fires an action potential, which travels along the length of its fiber from the dendrite to the axon terminal within the spinal cord. Here, the sensory neuron releases its neurotransmitter into the synapse, causing a graded potential in the postsynaptic neuron, or a motor neuron. The motor neuron’s axon exits the anterior horn and terminates at the neuromuscular junction, ultimately causing a muscle contraction.

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Analyze REFERENCES: 15.1 Structure and Function of Sensory and Motor Pathways LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.1.5 - Describe reflex responses in terms of the major structural and functional components of a reflex arc.

49. Discuss the importance of pain and the differences between somatic and visceral pain, include an explanation about referred pain.

ANSWER: While unpleasant, our ability to feel pain is incredibly important to our survival. Pain is a signal to stop before further damage to the cells and tissues of the body can occur.

Nociceptors transmit pain information to the CNS and up to the brain for conscious processing in chains of three neurons like all other sensory stimuli. However, somatic pain and visceral pain can sometimes share the same ascending pathway, leading to a lack of acuity in the brain as to where the pain is coming from. Because somatic pain is so much more common than pain from within the organs, the brain may assume that visceral pain is actually somatic in origin. This idea, that somatic pain is perceived when the stimulus is visceral, is called referred pain. Referred pain is important for clinicians to learn about so that they can investigate all of the potential sources of tissue damage. For example, among biological men, it is common for tissue damage of the heart to be perceived as shoulder pain, so if a patient in the emergency room complains of shoulder pain and also has shortness of breath or other symptoms of cardiac issues, testing for damage to the heart may be a good idea. Biological women, however, are much less likely to experience referred pain with a heart attack but are more likely to experience nausea and vomiting, so even if a patient arrives at the ER without shoulder pain, cardiac damage is still a possibility.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Analyze REFERENCES: 15.3 General Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.3.3 - Explain hoWwWtW he anBaS toM m.icWaS l pathway of pain sensation can confuse pain .T information in referred pain and phantom pain.

50. Discuss the anatomy of the basilar membrane within the cochlea and its importance in auditory processing.

ANSWER: The basilar membrane is in the cochlea. It is not the same width all along its length; instead, it is wider at the beginning—near the oval window—and steadily narrows along its length. The different widths of the basilar membrane mean that different regions along its length bounce in response to different frequency of sound waves. Higher frequency waves move the region of the basilar membrane that is close to the base of the cochlea; lowerfrequency waves move the region of the basilar membrane that is near the tip of the cochlea. Sound wave frequency has to do with the pitch of the sound, with higher-pitched sounds (a squeak, a soprano singing, a scream) having higher frequencies and lowerpitched sounds (drumbeats, deep voices, thunder, bass guitars) having lower frequencies.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Analyze REFERENCES: 15.4 Special Senses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 15.4.25 - Explain how the structures of the ear enable differentiation of pitch, intensity (loudness), and localization of sounds.

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Chapter 16 - The Autonomic Nervous System Multiple Choice 1. What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system? a. Inferior and superior division b. Sympathetic and parasympathetic division c. Primary and secondary division d. Internal and external division e. Medial and lateral division ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.2 - Name the two main divisions of the ANS and compare and contrast the major functions of each division, their neurotransmitters, the origination of the division in the CNS, the location of their preganglionic and postganglionic (ganglionic) cell bodies, and the length of the preganglionic versus postganglionic axons.

2. What branch of the nervous system is often associated with the “fight-or-flight” response? a. Involuntary nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Somatic nervous system d. Parasympathetic nervous system e. Peripheral nervous system ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.2 - Name the two main divisions of the ANS and compare and contrast the major functions of each division, their neurotransmitters, the origination of the division in the CNS, the location of their preganglionic and postganglionic (ganglionic) cell bodies, and the length of the preganglionic versus postganglionic axons.

3. What nervous system is associated with voluntary motor response? a. Autonomic nervous system b. Central nervous system c. Somatic nervous system d. Parasympathetic nervous system e. Peripheral nervous system ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.2 - Name the two main divisions of the ANS and compare and contrast the major functions of each division, their neurotransmitters, the origination of the division in the CNS, the location of their preganglionic and postganglionic (ganglionic) cell bodies, and the length of the preganglionic versus postganglionic axons.

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4. What branch of the nervous system is often associated with the “rest/digest” response? a. Involuntary nervous system b. Sympathetic nervous system c. Somatic nervous system d. Parasympathetic nervous system e. Peripheral nervous system ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.2 - Name the two main divisions of the ANS and compare and contrast the major functions of each division, their neurotransmitters, the origination of the division in the CNS, the location of their preganglionic and postganglionic (ganglionic) cell bodies, and the length of the preganglionic versus postganglionic axons.

5. What nervous system controls cardiac and smooth muscle? a. Involuntary nervous system b. Autonomic nervous system c. Central nervous system d. Visceral nervous system e. External nervous system ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.2 - Name the two main divisions of the ANS and compare and contrast the major functions of each division, their neurotransmitters, the origination of the division in the CNS, the location of their preganglionic and postganglionic (ganglionic) cell bodies, and the length of the preganglionic versus postganglionic axons.

6. What statement best describes dual innervation? a. Input by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system divisions. b. Two neurons that have axon terminals on a single organ. c. Neurons that release neurotransmitters to compete with other neurons at the effector binding site. d. The second neuron in the autonomic nervous system. e. Input by the somatic and the autonomic nervous system divisions on a single organ.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.2 - Name the two main divisions of the ANS and compare and contrast the major functions of each division, their neurotransmitters, the origination of the division in the CNS, the location of their preganglionic and postganglionic (ganglionic) cell bodies, and the length of the preganglionic versus postganglionic axons.

7. The thoracolumbar region . a. contains both parasympathetic and sympathetic nerve fibers b. refers to the sympathetic NS connections that emerge from the thoracic and upper lumbar spinal cord

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c. consists of spinal nerves from the spinal cord that only innervate the thoracic cavity d. refers to the parasympathetic NS connections that emerge from the thoracic and upper lumbar spinal cord e. contains the ganglia for all autonomic nerves ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.2 - Name the two main divisions of the ANS and compare and contrast the major functions of each division, their neurotransmitters, the origination of the division in the CNS, the location of their preganglionic and postganglionic (ganglionic) cell bodies, and the length of the preganglionic versus postganglionic axons.

8. What statement best describes the preganglionic neuron? a. The sensory neurons for both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. b. The alpha motor neuron that innervates skeletal muscle fibers. c. The first neuron of the autonomic nervous system that terminates in the ganglia. d. The second neuron of the autonomic nervous system that terminates in the ganglia. e. The majority of ganglia of the sympathetic nervous system.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.2 - Name the two main divisions of the ANS and compare and contrast the major functions of each division, their neurotransmitters, the origination of the division in the CNS, the location of their preganglionic and postganglionic (ganglionic) cell boWdW ieW s,.aTnB dS thM e.leWnS gth of the preganglionic versus postganglionic axons.

9. What statement best describes the postganglionic neuron? a. The sensory neurons for both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. b. The alpha motor neuron that innervates skeletal muscle fibers. c. The first neuron of the autonomic nervous system that terminates in the ganglia. d. The second neuron of the autonomic nervous system that terminates in the ganglia. e. The majority of ganglia of the sympathetic nervous system.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.2 - Name the two main divisions of the ANS and compare and contrast the major functions of each division, their neurotransmitters, the origination of the division in the CNS, the location of their preganglionic and postganglionic (ganglionic) cell bodies, and the length of the preganglionic versus postganglionic axons.

10. The sympathetic chain ganglia . a. consists of neuronal input by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions b. synapses with the alpha motor neuron, important for skeletal muscle innervation c. is the first neuron of the autonomic nervous system that terminates in the ganglia d. is the second neuron of the autonomic nervous system that terminates in the ganglia e. is the primary location for the sympathetic ganglia

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ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.2 - Name the two main divisions of the ANS and compare and contrast the major functions of each division, their neurotransmitters, the origination of the division in the CNS, the location of their preganglionic and postganglionic (ganglionic) cell bodies, and the length of the preganglionic versus postganglionic axons.

11. Stress is defined as . a. a change in neural pathways b. the excess flow of proteins in the nervous system c. a real or perceived threat to homeostasis d. the reduction of key nutrients in the body e. the production of stimulants within the brain ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.1 - Compare and contrast the autonomic nervous system (ANS) to the somatic nervous system (SNS) with respect to site of origination, number of neurons involved in the pathway, effectors, receptors, and neurotransmitters.

12. White rami communicantes . a. are comprised of preganglionic axons of the sympathetic nervous system b. are unmyelinated postganglionic axons withW inWthWe.syTmBpS atM he.tiW cS nervous system c. is the location where the preganglionic neuron synapse with the postganglionic neuron d. are situated anterior to the vertebral column and receive inputs from splanchnic nerves e. are the three collateral ganglia ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.3 - Describe the major components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions (e.g., sympathetic trunk [chain], white and gray rami communicantes, splanchnic nerves, pelvic splanchnic nerves, CN III, CN VII, CN IX, CN X) and the major ganglia of each division (e.g., terminal ganglia, intramural ganglia, sympathetic trunk [chain] ganglia, prevertebral [collateral] ganglia).

13. Gray rami communicantes a. are comprised of preganglionic axons of the sympathetic nervous system b. are unmyelinated postganglionic axons within the sympathetic nervous system c. is the location where the preganglionic neuron synapse with the postganglionic neuron d. are situated anterior to the vertebral column and receive inputs from splanchnic nerves e. are the three collateral ganglia ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.3 - Describe the major components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions (e.g., sympathetic trunk [chain], white and gray rami communicantes,

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splanchnic nerves, pelvic splanchnic nerves, CN III, CN VII, CN IX, CN X) and the major ganglia of each division (e.g., terminal ganglia, intramural ganglia, sympathetic trunk [chain] ganglia, prevertebral [collateral] ganglia).

14. What statement best describes the superior cervical ganglion? a. They are comprised of preganglionic axons of the sympathetic nervous system. b. They are unmyelinated postganglionic axons within the sympathetic nervous system. c. The location where the preganglionic neuron synapses with the postganglionic neuron. d. They are situated anterior to the vertebral column and receive inputs from splanchnic nerves. e. They are referred to as the three collateral ganglia.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.3 - Describe the major components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions (e.g., sympathetic trunk [chain], white and gray rami communicantes, splanchnic nerves, pelvic splanchnic nerves, CN III, CN VII, CN IX, CN X) and the major ganglia of each division (e.g., terminal ganglia, intramural ganglia, sympathetic trunk [chain] ganglia, prevertebral [collateral] ganglia).

15. What statement best describes the collateral ganglia? a. They are comprised of preganglionic axons of the sympathetic nervous system. b. They are unmyelinated postganglionic axons within the sympathetic nervous system. c. The location where the preganglionic neuron synapses with the postganglionic neuron. d. They are situated anterior to the vertebral column and receive inputs from splanchnic nerves. e. They are referred to as the sympathetic trunkW. WW.TBSM.WS ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.3 - Describe the major components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions (e.g., sympathetic trunk [chain], white and gray rami communicantes, splanchnic nerves, pelvic splanchnic nerves, CN III, CN VII, CN IX, CN X) and the major ganglia of each division (e.g., terminal ganglia, intramural ganglia, sympathetic trunk [chain] ganglia, prevertebral [collateral] ganglia).

16. What statement best describes the celiac ganglion? a. They are comprised of preganglionic axons of the sympathetic nervous system. b. They are unmyelinated postganglionic axons within the sympathetic nervous system. c. The location where the preganglionic neuron synapses with the postganglionic neuron. d. They are situated anterior to the vertebral column and receive inputs from splanchnic nerves. e. It is one of the three collateral ganglia.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.3 - Describe the major components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions (e.g., sympathetic trunk [chain], white and gray rami communicantes, splanchnic nerves, pelvic splanchnic nerves, CN III, CN VII, CN IX, CN X) and the major ganglia of each division (e.g., terminal ganglia, intramural ganglia, sympathetic trunk [chain] ganglia, prevertebral [collateral] ganglia).

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17. What are the classifications of neurons within the autonomic nervous system? a. cholinergic or adrenergic neurons b. adrenergic or autonomic neurons c. synoptical or cholinergic neurons d. superior or inferior autonomic neurons e. posterior or inferior autonomic neurons ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.3 - Describe the major components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions (e.g., sympathetic trunk [chain], white and gray rami communicantes, splanchnic nerves, pelvic splanchnic nerves, CN III, CN VII, CN IX, CN X) and the major ganglia of each division (e.g., terminal ganglia, intramural ganglia, sympathetic trunk [chain] ganglia, prevertebral [collateral] ganglia).

18. What are the two classes of receptors for acetylcholine released from cholinergic neurons? a. cholinergic or adrenergic receptors b. somatic or autonomic receptors c. synoptical or ganglionic receptors d. nicotinic or muscarinic receptors e. posterior or inferior cholinergic receptors ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.3 - Describe the major components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions (e.g., sympathetic trunk [chain], white and gray rami communicantes, splanchnic nerves, pelvic splanchnic nerves, CN III, CN VII, CN IX, CN X) and the major ganglia of each division (e.g., terminal ganglia, intramural ganglia, sympathetic trunk [chain] ganglia, prevertebral [collateral] ganglia).

19. What are the two primary classes of receptors for adrenaline (epinephrine) or noradrenaline (norepinephrine)? a. cholinergic or adrenergic receptors b. somatic or autonomic receptors c. synoptical or ganglionic receptors d. nicotinic or muscarinic receptors e. alpha (α)-adrenergic or beta (β)-adrenergic receptors ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.3 - Describe the major components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions (e.g., sympathetic trunk [chain], white and gray rami communicantes, splanchnic nerves, pelvic splanchnic nerves, CN III, CN VII, CN IX, CN X) and the major ganglia of each division (e.g., terminal ganglia, intramural ganglia, sympathetic trunk [chain] ganglia, prevertebral [collateral] ganglia).

20. What are the three types of β-adrenergic receptors? a. β1, β2, β3 b. αA, αB, αC

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c. βA, βB, βC d. β10, β20, β30 e. α1, α2, α3 ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.3 - Describe the major components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions (e.g., sympathetic trunk [chain], white and gray rami communicantes, splanchnic nerves, pelvic splanchnic nerves, CN III, CN VII, CN IX, CN X) and the major ganglia of each division (e.g., terminal ganglia, intramural ganglia, sympathetic trunk [chain] ganglia, prevertebral [collateral] ganglia).

21. What are the two types of α-adrenergic receptors? a. β1 and β2 receptors b. αA and αB receptors c. synoptical and cholinergic receptors d. nicotinic and muscarinic receptors e. α1 and α2 receptors ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.3 - Describe the major components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions (e.g., sympathetic trunk [chain], white and gray rami communicantes, splanchnic nerves, pelvic splanchnic nerves, CN III, CN VII, CN IX, CN X) and the major ganglia of eW acWhWd. ivT isB ioS nM (e..gW.,Sterminal ganglia, intramural ganglia, sympathetic trunk [chain] ganglia, prevertebral [collateral] ganglia).

22. Terminal ganglia . a. are located near the target effector within the walls of the target organ b. are only located in the orbital musculature c. contribute to the production of saliva d. are the axonal ends of preganglionic neurons from CN IX e. are formed by the preganglionic neurons of the sacral portion of the parasympathetic division ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.3 - Describe the major components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions (e.g., sympathetic trunk [chain], white and gray rami communicantes, splanchnic nerves, pelvic splanchnic nerves, CN III, CN VII, CN IX, CN X) and the major ganglia of each division (e.g., terminal ganglia, intramural ganglia, sympathetic trunk [chain] ganglia, prevertebral [collateral] ganglia).

23. Ciliary ganglion . a. are located near the target effector within the walls of the skeletal muscle b. are postganglionic neuronal cell bodies within the eye orbits c. contribute to the production of saliva d. are the axonal ends of preganglionic neurons from CN X e. are formed by the preganglionic neurons of the sacral portion of the parasympathetic division

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ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.3 - Describe the major components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions (e.g., sympathetic trunk [chain], white and gray rami communicantes, splanchnic nerves, pelvic splanchnic nerves, CN III, CN VII, CN IX, CN X) and the major ganglia of each division (e.g., terminal ganglia, intramural ganglia, sympathetic trunk [chain] ganglia, prevertebral [collateral] ganglia).

24. What statement best describes the glossopharyngeal nerve? a. It innervates upper limb musculature. b. The postganglionic neurons are in the sympathetic trunk. c. It contributes to the production of saliva. d. It is also referred to as CN X. e. This nerve is formed by the preganglionic neurons of the sacral portion of the parasympathetic division.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.3 - Describe the major components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions (e.g., sympathetic trunk [chain], white and gray rami communicantes, splanchnic nerves, pelvic splanchnic nerves, CN III, CN VII, CN IX, CN X) and the major ganglia of each division (e.g., terminal ganglia, intramural ganglia, sympathetic trunk [chain] ganglia, prevertebral [collateral] ganglia).

25. The otic nucleus . a. is located near the target effector, within the walls of the skeletal muscle b. is comprised of postganglionic neuronal cell bodies within the orbital walls c. contributes to the production of saliva d. is where the preganglionic neurons from CN IX terminate e. is formed by the preganglionic neurons of the sacral portion of the parasympathetic division ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.3 - Describe the major components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions (e.g., sympathetic trunk [chain], white and gray rami communicantes, splanchnic nerves, pelvic splanchnic nerves, CN III, CN VII, CN IX, CN X) and the major ganglia of each division (e.g., terminal ganglia, intramural ganglia, sympathetic trunk [chain] ganglia, prevertebral [collateral] ganglia).

26. Pelvic splanchnic nerves . a. are located near the target effector, within the walls of the skeletal muscle b. are comprised of postganglionic neuronal cell bodies within the orbital walls c. contribute to the production of saliva d. are where the preganglionic neurons from CN IX terminate e. are formed by the preganglionic neurons of the sacral portion of the parasympathetic division ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.3 - Describe the major components of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions (e.g., sympathetic trunk [chain], white and gray rami communicantes, splanchnic nerves, pelvic splanchnic nerves, CN III, CN VII, CN IX, CN X) and the major ganglia of each division (e.g., terminal ganglia, intramural ganglia, sympathetic trunk [chain] ganglia, prevertebral [collateral] ganglia).

27. What statement best describes a cholinergic neuron? a. A neuron that releases acetylcholine (ACh). b. A neuron that releases norepinephrine. c. A neuron that has only chemically-gated ion channels along the membrane. d. A neuron with receptors that trigger changes within the cell without allowing ions to pass through the membrane. e. A neuron with receptors that can bind to both norepinephrine and epinephrine.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.2 Chemical Components of the Autonomic Responses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.2.1 - Compare and contrast cholinergic and adrenergic receptors with respect to neurotransmitters that bind to them, receptor subtypes, receptor locations, target cell response (i.e., excitatory or inhibitory), and examples of drugs, hormones, and other substances that interact with these receptors.

28. What statement best describes an adrenergic neuron? a. A neuron that releases acetylcholine (ACh). b. A neuron that releases norepinephrine. c. A neuron that has only chemically-gated ionWcW haWn. neTlsBaS loM ng.tW heSmembrane. d. A neuron with receptors that trigger changes within the cell without allowing ions to pass through the membrane. e. A neuron with receptors that can bind to both norepinephrine and epinephrine.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.2 Chemical Components of the Autonomic Responses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.2.1 - Compare and contrast cholinergic and adrenergic receptors with respect to neurotransmitters that bind to them, receptor subtypes, receptor locations, target cell response (i.e., excitatory or inhibitory), and examples of drugs, hormones, and other substances that interact with these receptors.

29. What statement best describes nicotinic receptors? a. Receptors that release acetylcholine (ACh). b. Receptors that release norepinephrine. c. Receptors that are chemically-gated ion channels. d. Receptors that trigger changes within the cell without allowing ions to pass through the membrane. e. Receptors that can bind to both norepinephrine and epinephrine.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.2 Chemical Components of the Autonomic Responses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.2.1 - Compare and contrast cholinergic and adrenergic receptors with respect to neurotransmitters that bind to them, receptor subtypes, receptor locations, target cell response (i.e., excitatory or inhibitory), and examples of drugs, hormones, and other substances that interact with these receptors.

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30. What statement best describes muscarinic receptors? a. Receptors that release acetylcholine (ACh). b. Receptors that release norepinephrine. c. Receptors that are chemically-gated ion channels. d. Receptors that trigger changes within the cell without allowing ions to pass through the membrane. e. Receptors that can bind to both norepinephrine and epinephrine.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.2 Chemical Components of the Autonomic Responses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.2.1 - Compare and contrast cholinergic and adrenergic receptors with respect to neurotransmitters that bind to them, receptor subtypes, receptor locations, target cell response (i.e., excitatory or inhibitory), and examples of drugs, hormones, and other substances that interact with these receptors.

31. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the autonomic reflex? a. It consists of two neurons in a chain with the synapse at a ganglion. b. It involves a motor pathway that consists of a single motor neuron which ends at the neuromuscular junction of a skeletal muscle cell. c. It only activates the sympathetic nervous system. d. It only activates the parasympathetic nervous system. e. The sensory neurons of an autonomic reflex consist of two afferent neurons that synapse at a ganglion.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand WWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 16.3 Autonomic Reflexes and Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.3.1 - Describe visceral reflex arcs, including structural and functional details of sensory and motor (autonomic) components.

32. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a somatic reflex? a. It consists of two neurons in a chain with the synapse at a ganglion. b. It involves a motor pathway that consists of a single motor neuron which ends at the neuromuscular junction of a skeletal muscle cell. c. It only activates the sympathetic nervous system. d. It only activates the parasympathetic nervous system. e. The sensory neurons of a somatic reflex consist of two afferent neurons that synapse at a ganglion.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.3 Autonomic Reflexes and Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.3.1 - Describe visceral reflex arcs, including structural and functional details of sensory and motor (autonomic) components.

33. What statement best describes the cardiac plexus? a. A branch off the brachial plexus that innervates the heart. b. A branch off the cervical plexus that innervates the heart. c. Located at the base of the heart, activation of the sympathetic pathway will increase heart rate and myocardial contractions. d. Located at the apex of the heart, activation of the parasympathetic pathway will increase heart rate and myocardial contractions.

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e. Activation of the cardiac plexus will inhibit skeletal muscle contraction.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.3 Autonomic Reflexes and Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.3.1 - Describe visceral reflex arcs, including structural and functional details of sensory and motor (autonomic) components.

34. What statement best describes the pulmonary plexus? a. A branch off the brachial plexus that innervates the diaphragm. b. A branch off the cervical plexus that innervates the lungs. c. Activation of the sympathetic neuron pathways of the pulmonary plexus will increase respiratory rate. d. Activation of the sympathetic neuron pathways of the pulmonary plexus will dilate the bronchioles to allow more air to travel to the lungs. e. Activation of the parasympathetic neuron pathways of the pulmonary plexus will dilate the bronchioles to allow more air to travel to the lungs.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.3 Autonomic Reflexes and Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.3.1 - Describe visceral reflex arcs, including structural and functional details of sensory and motor (autonomic) components.

35. What statement best describes the esophageal plexus? a. A branch off the brachial plexus that innervates the esophagus. b. A branch off the cervical plexus that innervates the esophagus.

W WW .TBS M. W S c. Activation of the sympathetic neuron pathway of the esophageal plexus will reduce food intake. d. Activation of the sympathetic neuron pathways will increase esophageal muscle contractions. e. Activation of the sympathetic neuron pathways will inhibit muscle contraction and parasympathetic pathway activation will increase muscle contraction in the wall of the esophagus.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.3 Autonomic Reflexes and Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.3.1 - Describe visceral reflex arcs, including structural and functional details of sensory and motor (autonomic) components.

36. Parasympathetic dominance . a. promotes digestion by increasing autonomic signals to the intestinal smooth muscle to contract b. inhibits smooth muscle activity within the intestines to decrease digestion c. is a term to explain homeostasis during exercise d. promotes an increase in heart rate at rest e. promotes hormone production in the adrenal cortex to regulate glucose balance ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.4 Broad Impacts of Autonomic Responses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.4.2 - Compare and contrast the effects (or lack thereof) of sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation on various effectors (e.g., heart, airways, gastrointestinal tract, iris of the eye, blood vessels, sweat glands, arrector pili muscles).

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37. Sympathetic dominance . a. promotes digestion by increasing autonomic signals to the intestinal smooth muscle to contract b. inhibits smooth muscle activity within the intestines to decrease digestion c. is a term to explain homeostasis during the resting state d. promotes a decrease in heart rate at rest e. promotes hormone production in the adrenal cortex to regulate glucose balance ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.4 Broad Impacts of Autonomic Responses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.4.2 - Compare and contrast the effects (or lack thereof) of sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation on various effectors (e.g., heart, airways, gastrointestinal tract, iris of the eye, blood vessels, sweat glands, arrector pili muscles).

38. What statement best describes autonomic tone? a. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system at rest. b. Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system alone, at rest. c. Sympathetic or parasympathetic dominance in the resting state. d. Autonomic hormone production that increases in blood during and after stressful events. e. Activation of hormone production of the adrenal cortex to help regulate glucose balance.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.4 Broad Impacts of Autonomic Responses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.4.2 - Compare and contrast the effects (or lack thereof) of sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation on various effectors (e.g., heart, airways, gastrointestinal tract, iris of the eye, blood vessels, sweat glands, arrector pili muscles).

39. What statement best describes cortisol? a. A hormone released from the postganglionic neuron of the sympathetic nervous system. b. The hormone released following parasympathetic activation of the adrenal cortex. c. A hormone released from the adrenal medulla during a stressful situation. d. A hormone released from the adrenal cortex during and after stressful events. e. A hormone produced by the hypothalamus that triggers the release of insulin to regulate blood glucose levels.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.4 Broad Impacts of Autonomic Responses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.4.2 - Compare and contrast the effects (or lack thereof) of sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation on various effectors (e.g., heart, airways, gastrointestinal tract, iris of the eye, blood vessels, sweat glands, arrector pili muscles).

40. What statement best describes corticosteroids? a. A general term for a group of hormones that control heart rate. b. Hormones that activate digestion. c. A general term for a group of hormones that control electrolyte balance. d. Hormones that directly increase blood pressure during stressful events. e. Hormones produced in the adrenal cortex that help regulate glucose balance.

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ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.4 Broad Impacts of Autonomic Responses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.4.2 - Compare and contrast the effects (or lack thereof) of sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation on various effectors (e.g., heart, airways, gastrointestinal tract, iris of the eye, blood vessels, sweat glands, arrector pili muscles).

41. What are the names of the three interconnected plexuses of the abdominal aortic plexus? a. celiac plexus, superior mesenteric plexus, inferior mesenteric plexus b. inferior mesenteric plexus, superior mesenteric plexus, aortic plexus c. exterior mesenteric plexus, superior mesenteric plexus, internal mesenteric plexus d. celiac plexus, external mesenteric plexus, internal mesenteric plexus e. mesenteric plexus, celiac plexus, aortic plexus ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 16.4 Broad Impacts of Autonomic Responses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.4.2 - Compare and contrast the effects (or lack thereof) of sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation on various effectors (e.g., heart, airways, gastrointestinal tract, iris of the eye, blood vessels, sweat glands, arrector pili muscles).

42. The solar plexus is the nickname for a. the superior mesenteric plexus

.

b. the inferior mesenteric plexus c. the celiac plexus d. the aortic plexus e. the pulmonary plexus ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 16.3 Autonomic Reflexes and Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.3.1 - Describe visceral reflex arcs, including structural and functional details of sensory and motor (autonomic) components.

43. The release of norepinephrine has which of the following effects? a. Increases blood pressure. b. Decreases blood pressure. c. Regulates blood volume. d. Reduces blood viscosity. e. Increases blood viscosity.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 16.4 Broad Impacts of Autonomic Responses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.4.1 - Explain the role of the nervous system in the maintenance of homeostasis and give examples of how the nervous system interacts with other body systems to accomplish this.

44. What term is used to describe the resting heart?

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a. parasympathetic tone b. sympathetic tone c. homeostasic tone d. automatic tone e. somatic tone ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 16.4 Broad Impacts of Autonomic Responses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.4.1 - Explain the role of the nervous system in the maintenance of homeostasis and give examples of how the nervous system interacts with other body systems to accomplish this.

45. What hormone increases in the blood during and after stressful events? a. insulin b. estrogen c. cortisol d. oxytocin e. melatonin ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 16.4 Broad Impacts of Autonomic Responses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.4.1 - Explain the role of the nervous system in the maintenance of homeostasis and give examples of how the nervous system interacts with other body systems to accomplish this.W

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Essay 46. Describe the basic differences between the somatic and the autonomic nervous systems.

ANSWER: The somatic nervous system sends signals through motor neurons to contract skeletal muscles. The autonomic nervous system controls cardiac and smooth muscle, as well as glandular tissue. The somatic nervous system is associated with voluntary responses (though many, such as breathing, can happen without conscious awareness), and the autonomic nervous system is associated with involuntary responses related to homeostasis such as blood pressure regulation.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.1 - Compare and contrast the autonomic nervous system (ANS) to the somatic nervous system (SNS) with respect to site of origination, number of neurons involved in the pathway, effectors, receptors, and neurotransmitters.

47. Describe the differences between the pathways of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.

ANSWER: The sympathetic division’s preganglionic neurons are short and exit from the thoracic and lumber regions of the spinal cord. The postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division are long and highly branched. The parasympathetic division’s preganglionic neurons are long, highly branched, and exit from the brainstem and the sacral spinal cord. The parasympathetic division’s postganglionic neurons are short and, at times, located on the viscera.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.1 Overview of the Autonomic Nervous System

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.1.4 - Describe the different anatomical pathways through which sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons reach target effectors.

48. Discuss the neurotransmitters released from the preganglionic and postganglionic neurons for both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems and their target receptors on the postsynaptic cell.

ANSWER: All preganglionic neurons, both sympathetic and parasympathetic, release acetylcholine (Ach). Ach binds to nicotinic receptors on the cell membrane of the postganglionic neuron within the ganglion. The nicotinic receptor is a ligand-gated cation channel that results in depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane. The postganglionic parasympathetic fibers release Ach, yet bind to muscarinic receptors on their target cells. Muscarinic receptors are typically G protein-coupled receptors, not ion channels. In general, postganglionic sympathetic axons release norepinephrine and bind to adrenergic receptors, except for axons that project to sweat glands and to blood vessels associated with skeletal muscles, which release Ach. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.2 Chemical Components of the Autonomic Responses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.2.1 - Compare and contrast cholinergic and adrenergic receptors with respect to neurotransmitters that bind to them, receptor subtypes, receptor locations, target cell response (i.e., excitatory or inhibitory), and examples of drugs, hormones, and other substances that interact with these receptors.

49. Describe and discuss how the adrenal gland secretes the hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine in response to stimulation from a preganglionic sympathetic neuron.

ANSWER: The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines – epinephrine and norepinephrine – as hormones in response to stimulation from a preganglionic sympathetic neuron. Upon stimulation from the sympathetic NS, the adrenal medulla secretes a mix of epinephrine M).iW (~80%) and norepinW epWhW rin.eT(~B2S 0% ntS o the blood. These hormones spread rapidly throughout the body and bind to target cells with adrenergic receptors systemically. The release of these molecules into the bloodstream allows the sympathetic nervous system response to go on longer than it would if only neurotransmitters were released, which are quickly cleared from the synapse. Evolution may have driven the incorporation of a hormone into the sympathetic nervous system response due to the advantage of having prolonged alertness and readiness after an initial activation.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.2 Chemical Components of the Autonomic Responses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.2.1 - Compare and contrast cholinergic and adrenergic receptors with respect to neurotransmitters that bind to them, receptor subtypes, receptor locations, target cell response (i.e., excitatory or inhibitory), and examples of drugs, hormones, and other substances that interact with these receptors.

50. Describe and discuss the differences between the somatic and visceral reflexes.

ANSWER: The outgoing motor pathway differs between an autonomic and a somatic reflex. An autonomic reflex consists of two neurons, a preganglionic and a postganglionic neuron, in a chain with their synapse at a ganglion (a cluster of cells outside of the CNS). The synapse between the postganglionic neuron and the target cells often occurs at varicosities. In contrast, the motor pathway of the somatic reflex consists of a single motor neuron, which ends at a neuromuscular junction of a skeletal muscle cell.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 16.3 Autonomic Reflexes and Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 16.3.1 - Describe visceral reflex arcs, including structural and functional details of sensory and motor (autonomic) components.

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Chapter 17 - The Endocrine System Multiple Choice 1. Hormones are defined as . a. signaling molecules released into the bloodstream b. chemical messengers released by a neuron in the synaptic cleft c. signaling molecules released into the digestive tract d. chemical messengers released by neurons to communicate with a local cell or cells e. target cells of chemical messengers ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.1 An Overview of the Endocrine System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.1.1 - Describe the major functions of the endocrine system.

2. What statement best describes paracrine signaling? a. A chemical messenger released into the bloodstream to target effector cells. b. A chemical messenger released by one cell to induce a response in a neighboring cell. c. A signaling molecule that binds to the cell that released it to elicit a response. d. Chemicals released by neurons to communicate with a local cell or cells. e. Chemical signals released into the bloodstream that induce cellular responses throughout the body.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.1 An OverviewW oW f tW he.E cr. inW eS System TnBdSoM LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.1.1 - Describe the major functions of the endocrine system.

3. What statement best describes autocrine signaling? a. A chemical messenger released into the bloodstream to target effector cells. b. A chemical messenger released by one cell to induce a response in a neighboring cell. c. A signaling molecule that binds to the cell that released it to elicit a response. d. Chemicals released by neurons to communicate with a local cell or cells. e. Chemical signals released into the bloodstream that induce cellular responses throughout the body.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.1 An Overview of the Endocrine System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.1.1 - Describe the major functions of the endocrine system.

4. Neurotransmitters are . a. signaling molecules released into the bloodstream b. chemical messengers that bind to their target cells at a slower rate c. signaling molecules released into the digestive tract d. chemical messengers released by neurons to communicate with a local cell or cells e. target cells of chemical messengers ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.1 An Overview of the Endocrine System

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.1.1 - Describe the major functions of the endocrine system.

5. What statement best describes endocrine signaling? a. It involves inhalation and exhalation during resting periods. b. It encompasses and controls all digestive activity within the digestive tract. c. It includes local communication and signaling between immune cells. d. It results in a rapid response from the effector cells. e. It involves hormones that induce cellular responses throughout the body.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.1 An Overview of the Endocrine System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.1.1 - Describe the major functions of the endocrine system.

6. What primary endocrine glands are included in the endocrine system? a. pituitary, heart, lungs, adrenal, and pineal b. pituitary, thyroid, cerebral cortex, adrenal, and pineal c. pineal, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, and heart d. pineal, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, and skin e. pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, and pineal ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 17.1 An Overview of the Endocrine System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.1.2 - Define the terms hormone, endocrine gland, endocrine tissue (organ), and target cell.

7. What statement best describes steroid hormones? a. They are produced by cholesterol modification. b. They are produced by modifying a single amino acid. c. They consist of multiple amino acids that link to form an amino acid chain. d. They are proteins located either inside the cell or within the cell membrane. e. They are water soluble.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.2 Hormones LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2.1 - List the three major chemical classes of hormones (i.e., steroid, peptide, amino acid-derived [amine]) found in the human body.

8. What statement best describes amine hormones? a. They are produced by cholesterol modification. b. They are produced by modifying a single amino acid. c. They consist of multiple amino acids that link to form an amino acid chain. d. They are proteins located either inside the cell or within the cell membrane. e. They are lipid-soluble and can easily cross the plasma membrane.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.2 Hormones

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2.1 - List the three major chemical classes of hormones (i.e., steroid, peptide, amino acid-derived [amine]) found in the human body.

9. What statement best describes peptide and protein hormones? a. They are produced by cholesterol modification. b. They are produced by modifying a single amino acid. c. They consist of multiple amino acids that link to form an amino acid chain. d. They are proteins located either inside the cell or within the cell membrane. e. They are lipid soluble and can easily cross the plasma membrane.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.2 Hormones LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2.1 - List the three major chemical classes of hormones (i.e., steroid, peptide, amino acid-derived [amine]) found in the human body.

10. What statement best describes hormone receptors? a. They are produced by cholesterol modification. b. They are produced by modifying a single amino acid. c. They consist of multiple amino acids that link to form an amino acid chain. d. They are proteins located either inside the cell or within the cell membrane. e. They are lipid soluble and can easily cross the plasma membrane.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.2 Hormones LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2.3 - Compare and contrast the locations of target cell receptors for steroid and peptide hormones.

11. What statement best describes intracellular hormone receptors? a. They bind to protein hormones. b. They bind to water-soluble hormones that can easily cross the plasma membrane. c. They are located only within the cytosol of the cell. d. They are transmembrane proteins within the cell membrane. e. They are located within the cell because they bind to lipid-soluble hormones.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.2 Hormones LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2.3 - Compare and contrast the locations of target cell receptors for steroid and peptide hormones.

12. What statement best describes cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)? a. The second messenger used most during intracellular signaling. b. An intracellular fibrous component that aids in structural support. c. An enzyme that converts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to ADP. d. A protein messenger that inhibits intracellular signaling. e. An enzyme initiated by activated protein kinases.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 17.2 Hormones LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2.3 - Compare and contrast the locations of target cell receptors for steroid and peptide hormones.

13. What statement best describes a G protein? a. The second messenger used most during intracellular signaling. b. A membrane spanning protein involved in signal transduction. c. An enzyme that converts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to cAMP. d. A protein messenger that inhibits intracellular signaling. e. An enzyme initiated by activated protein kinases.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.2 Hormones LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2.4 - Compare and contrast the mechanisms of action of plasma membrane hormone receptors and intracellular hormone receptors, including the speed of the response.

14. What statement best describes adenylyl cyclase? a. The second messenger used most during intracellular signaling. b. A membrane-spanning protein involved in signal transduction. c. An enzyme that converts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to cAMP. d. A protein messenger that inhibits intracellular signaling. e. An enzyme initiated by activated protein kinases.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.2 Hormones LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2.4 - Compare and contrast the mechanisms of action of plasma membrane hormone receptors and intracellular hormone receptors, including the speed of the response.

15. What statement best describes protein kinases? a. The second messenger most used in signal transduction pathways. b. A membrane-spanning protein involved in signal transduction. c. Enzymes that convert adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to cAMP. d. Enzymes activated by cAMP. e. They are transmembrane receptor enzymes.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.2 Hormones LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2.4 - Compare and contrast the mechanisms of action of plasma membrane hormone receptors and intracellular hormone receptors, including the speed of the response.

16. What statement best describes a phosphorylation cascade? a. A signaling transduction pathway that initiates gene transcription. b. A membrane-spanning protein involved in signal transduction. c. A signaling pathway that begins with binding of a steroid hormone.

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d. A protein messenger that inhibits intracellular signaling. e. Enzymes initiated by activated protein kinases.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.2 Hormones LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2.4 - Compare and contrast the mechanisms of action of plasma membrane hormone receptors and intracellular hormone receptors, including the speed of the response.

17. What statement best describes a phosphodiesterase (PDE)? a. An enzyme that degrades cAMP to ensure that a target cell’s response ends quickly. b. An enzyme that activates protein kinase A (PKA) to initiate a phosphorylation cascade. c. A protein that results in the release of calcium ions from storage sites within the cytosol. d. A protein that decreases the number of expressed receptors for the hormone. e. A process that allows cells to be more sensitive to the available hormone.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.2 Hormones LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2.5 - Describe the various signals that initiate hormone production and secretion (e.g., monitored variables, direct innervation, neurohormones, other hormones).

18. What statement best describes diacylglycerol (DAG)? a. An enzyme that degrades cAMP to ensure that a target cell’s response ends quickly.

WWW.TBSM.WS b. An enzyme that activates protein kinases to initiate a phosphorylation cascade. c. A protein that results in the release of calcium ions from storage sites within the cytosol. d. A protein that decreases the number of expressed receptors for the hormone. e. A process that allows cells to be more sensitive to the available hormone.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.2 Hormones LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2.5 - Describe the various signals that initiate hormone production and secretion (e.g., monitored variables, direct innervation, neurohormones, other hormones).

19. What statement best describes inositol triphosphate (IP3)? a. An enzyme that degrades cAMP to ensure that a target cell’s response ends quickly. b. An enzyme that activates protein kinase A (PKA) to initiate a phosphorylation cascade. c. A protein that results in the release of calcium ions from storage sites within the cytosol. d. A protein that decreases the number of expressed receptors for the hormone. e. A process that allows cells to be more sensitive to the available hormone.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.2 Hormones LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2.5 - Describe the various signals that initiate hormone production and secretion (e.g., monitored variables, direct innervation, neurohormones, other hormones).

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20. What statement best describes downregulation? a. A process that degrades cAMP to ensure that a target cell’s response ends quickly. b. A process that activates protein kinase A (PKA) to initiate a phosphorylation cascade. c. A process that releases calcium ions from storage sites within the cytosol. d. A process that decreases the number of expressed receptors for a specific hormone. e. A process that allows cells to be more sensitive to the available hormone.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.2 Hormones LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2.5 - Describe the various signals that initiate hormone production and secretion (e.g., monitored variables, direct innervation, neurohormones, other hormones).

21. What statement best describes upregulation? a. A process that degrades cAMP to ensure that a target cell’s response ends quickly. b. A process that activates protein kinase A (PKA) to initiate a phosphorylation cascade. c. A process that releases calcium ions from storage sites within the cytosol. d. A process that decreases the number of expressed receptors for a specific hormone. e. A process that allows cells to be more sensitive to the available hormone.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.2 Hormones LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2.5 - Describe tW hW eW va.riT ou alS s that initiate hormone production and BsSsMig.nW secretion (e.g., monitored variables, direct innervation, neurohormones, other hormones).

22. What statement best describes the hypothalamus? a. It has both neural and endocrine functions and secretes many regulatory hormones. b. It is two separate structures, the neurohypophysis and the adenohypophysis. c. It is a brain structure that is enclosed in the sella turcica, part of the sphenoid bone. d. It is a brain region primarily involved in processing sensory perception. e. It is the anatomical connection between the thalamus and the pituitary gland.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.3 Endocrine Control by the Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.3.1 - Describe the locations and the anatomical relationships of the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary, and posterior pituitary, including the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system.

23. What statement best describes the pituitary gland? a. It has both neural and endocrine functions and secretes many regulatory hormones. b. It is two separate structures – the neurohypophysis and the adenohypophysis. c. It is a brain structure that is enclosed within the ethmoid bone. d. It is a brain region primarily involved in processing sensory perception. e. It is the anatomical connection between the thalamus and the pituitary gland.

ANSWER: b

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.3 Endocrine Control by the Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.3.1 - Describe the locations and the anatomical relationships of the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary, and posterior pituitary, including the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system.

24. What statement best describes the anterior pituitary? a. It has both neural and endocrine functions and secretes many regulatory hormones. b. It is two separate structures – the neurohypophysis and the adenohypophysis. c. It is a brain structure that is a true endocrine gland, not neural. d. It is a brain region primarily involved in processing sensory perception. e. It is the anatomical connection between the thalamus and the pituitary gland.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.3 Endocrine Control by the Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.3.1 - Describe the locations and the anatomical relationships of the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary, and posterior pituitary, including the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system.

25. What statement best describes the posterior pituitary? a. It has both neural and endocrine functions and secretes many regulatory hormones. b. It is two separate structures – the neurohypophysis and the adenohypophysis. c. It is a brain structure that is a true endocrine gland and secretes many regulatory hormones. d. It is a brain region that secretes two neurohormones, oxytocin and anti-diuretic hormone (ADH).

WWW.TBSM.WS e. It is the anatomical connection between the thalamus and the pituitary gland.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.3 Endocrine Control by the Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.3.1 - Describe the locations and the anatomical relationships of the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary, and posterior pituitary, including the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system.

26. What statement best describes the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system? a. It is a stalk between the hypothalamus and the posterior pituitary gland. b. It is a remnant of the connection between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland following fetal development. c. It is a brain structure that is important for processing autonomic nervous system input. d. It is a brain region primarily involved in processing sensory perception. e. It is the vascular connection between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.3 Endocrine Control by the Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.3.1 - Describe the locations and the anatomical relationships of the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary, and posterior pituitary, including the hypothalamic-hypophyseal portal system.

27. Growth hormone . a. is a protein hormone produced and secreted by the anterior pituitary gland that directly targets body cells

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b. is a hormone that aids in the breakdown of adipose tissue to release fatty acids into the blood during a metabolic fast c. is a hormone secreted by the hypothalamus that enhances cellular proliferation yet inhibits apoptosis, or programmed cell death d. promotes the production of milk in individuals who are lactating e. stimulates the production and maturation of sex cells ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.3 Endocrine Control by the Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.3.5 - Describe major hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary, their control pathways, and their primary target(s) and effects.

28. Lipolysis . a. is the breakdown of glycogen in the liver b. is the breakdown of triglycerides in adipose tissue, releasing fatty acids into the blood c. is the breakdown of muscle protein during starvation d. is a hormone involved in cellular proliferation e. breaks down cholesterol to make steroid hormones ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.3 Endocrine Control by the Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.3.5 - Describe major hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary, their control pathways, and their primary target(s) and effects.

29. Insulin-like growth factor . a. is a protein hormone produced and secreted by the anterior pituitary gland that directly targets body cells b. is a hormone that aids in the breakdown of adipose tissue to release fatty acids into the blood during a metabolic fast c. enhances cellular proliferation and inhibits apoptosis, or programmed cell death d. promotes the production of milk in individuals who are lactating e. stimulates the production and maturation of sex cells ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.3 Endocrine Control by the Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.3.5 - Describe major hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary, their control pathways, and their primary target(s) and effects.

30. Prolactin . a. is a protein hormone produced and secreted by the anterior pituitary gland that directly targets body cells b. is a hormone that aids in the breakdown of adipose tissue to release fatty acids into the blood during a metabolic fast c. enhances cellular proliferation and inhibits apoptosis, or programmed cell death d. promotes the production of milk in individuals who are lactating e. stimulates the production and maturation of sex cells ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.3 Endocrine Control by the Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.3.5 - Describe major hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary, their control pathways, and their primary target(s) and effects.

31. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) . a. is a protein hormone produced and secreted by the anterior pituitary gland that directly targets body cells b. is a hormone that aids in the breakdown of adipose tissue to release fatty acids into the blood during a metabolic fast c. enhances cellular proliferation and inhibits apoptosis, or programmed cell death d. promotes the production of milk in individuals who are lactating e. stimulates the production and maturation of sex cells ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.3 Endocrine Control by the Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.3.5 - Describe major hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary, their control pathways, and their primary target(s) and effects.

32. The thyroid gland . a. lies over the anterior surface of the trachea, just inferior to the larynx b. is composed of a ring of specialized epithelial cells surrounding a central cavity c. is important for producing immune cells but gets smaller in size as an adult d. produces thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) e. induces growth and development during fetal growth ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand WWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 17.4 The Major Hormones of the Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4.1 - Describe the anatomy of the thyroid gland, its location, the major hormones secreted, the control pathway(s) for hormone secretion, and the hormones’ primary targets and effects.

33. The follicular cells of the thyroid gland . a. produce and secrete calcitonin b. secrete thyroid hormones that require iodine to function c. contain a hormone that stimulates parathyroid hormone production d. aid in structural support of the thyroid gland e. produce growth hormone ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.4 The Major Hormones of the Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4.1 - Describe the anatomy of the thyroid gland, its location, the major hormones secreted, the control pathway(s) for hormone secretion, and the hormones’ primary targets and effects.

34. What statement best describes the colloid in the follicular lumen of the thyroid gland? a. It produces and secretes calcitonin. b. It is a storage place for thyroid hormones. c. It contains the precursors to stimulate parathyroid hormone production. d. It aids in the structural support of the thyroid gland.

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e. It produces and secretes growth hormone.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.4 The Major Hormones of the Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4.1 - Describe the anatomy of the thyroid gland, its location, the major hormones secreted, the control pathway(s) for hormone secretion, and the hormones’ primary targets and effects.

35. What statement best describes parafollicular cells of the parathyroid gland? a. They produce and secrete calcitonin, which regulates blood calcium levels. b. They store thyroid hormones for future use. c. They stimulate thyroid hormone synthesis. d. They release parathyroid hormone (PTH) to regulate calcium levels in the blood. e. They produce and secrete growth hormone.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.4 The Major Hormones of the Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4.1 - Describe the anatomy of the thyroid gland, its location, the major hormones secreted, the control pathway(s) for hormone secretion, and the hormones’ primary targets and effects.

36. What statement best describes thyroxine (T4)? a. A protein hormone secreted from the thyroid gland. b. A hormone involved in stimulating gamete development.

WWW.TBSM.WS c. The precursor to thyroid hormone. d. A tropic hormone that stimulates the production of cortisol. e. A thyroid hormone with four iodine molecules.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.4 The Major Hormones of the Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4.1 - Describe the anatomy of the thyroid gland, its location, the major hormones secreted, the control pathway(s) for hormone secretion, and the hormones’ primary targets and effects.

37. What statement best describes T3 and T4? a. Metabolic hormones secreted from the thyroid gland. b. Hormones that contribute to the regulation of blood calcium levels. c. The amount of energy used by the body at rest. d. Tiny, round structures embedded on the posterior surface of the thyroid gland. e. Transmembrane proteins involved in thyroid signaling.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.4 The Major Hormones of the Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4.1 - Describe the anatomy of the thyroid gland, its location, the major hormones secreted, the control pathway(s) for hormone secretion, and the hormones’ primary targets and effects.

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38. What statement best describes calcitonin? a. A metabolic hormone secreted from the thyroid gland. b. A hormone that regulates blood calcium levels. c. A tropic hormone that signals the release of thyroid hormone. d. A tiny, round structure embedded on the posterior surface of the thyroid gland. e. A transmembrane protein involved in thyroid signaling.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.4 The Major Hormones of the Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4.1 - Describe the anatomy of the thyroid gland, its location, the major hormones secreted, the control pathway(s) for hormone secretion, and the hormones’ primary targets and effects.

39. What statement best describes the basal metabolic rate (BMR)? a. The metabolic rate during exercise. b. The rate at which hormones are released from the hypothalamus. c. The amount of energy used by the body at rest. d. The production of hormones in a single endocrine gland. e. The regulation of calcium levels in the blood.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.4 The Major Hormones of the Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4.1 - Describe the anatomy of the thyroid gland, its location, the major hormones secreted, the control pathway(s) for hormone secretion, and the hormones’ primary targets and effects.

40. The parathyroid glands are anatomically located on the posterior surface of which of the following structures? a. the thymus b. the pineal gland c. the adrenal gland d. the thyroid gland e. the heart ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.4 The Major Hormones of the Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4.1 - Describe the anatomy of the thyroid gland, its location, the major hormones secreted, the control pathway(s) for hormone secretion, and the hormones’ primary targets and effects.

41. Parathyroid hormones . a. are the primary metabolic hormones of the body b. contribute to blood calcium regulation c. control blood glucose levels d. regulate secretion of catecholamines, epinephrine and norepinephrine from the adrenal medulla e. decrease heart rate during a stressful event ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 17.4 The Major Hormones of the Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4.1 - Describe the anatomy of the thyroid gland, its location, the major hormones secreted, the control pathway(s) for hormone secretion, and the hormones’ primary targets and effects.

42. What statement best describes adrenal glands? a. Glands that sit on top of the kidney surrounded by a fibrous capsule. b. Anatomically and functionally distinct glandular tissue that secretes peptide hormones. c. Glands that secrete tropic hormones that travel to the hypothalamus. d. A gland that secretes hormones that only target the kidneys. e. Is both an exocrine and endocrine gland.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.4 The Major Hormones of the Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4.5 - Describe the anatomy of the adrenal cortex, its location, the major hormones secreted, the control pathway(s) for hormone secretion, and the hormones’ primary targets and effects.

43. What statement best describes adrenal cortex? a. The core of the adrenal gland that secretes catecholamines, epinephrine and norepinephrine. b. Anatomically and functionally distinct glandular tissue that secretes steroid hormones. c. Stimulated by the secretion of acetylcholine from the sympathetic preganglionic neuron. d. Glandular tissue that secretes calcitonin to regulate blood calcium levels. e. Involved in filtration of blood.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.4 The Major Hormones of the Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4.5 - Describe the anatomy of the adrenal cortex, its location, the major hormones secreted, the control pathway(s) for hormone secretion, and the hormones’ primary targets and effects.

44. Mineralocorticoids are secreted from the adrenal cortex and regulate . a. calcium secretion b. steroid hormone production c. fluid and electrolyte balance d. cortisol levels in the blood e. glucose production in the liver ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.4 The Major Hormones of the Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4.5 - Describe the anatomy of the adrenal cortex, its location, the major hormones secreted, the control pathway(s) for hormone secretion, and the hormones’ primary targets and effects.

45. Aldosterone is an important mineralocorticoid that a. aids in calcium secretion b. is involved in iron production

.

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c. regulates blood pressure d. regulates sodium and potassium levels e. increases glucose production in the liver ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.4 The Major Hormones of the Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.4.5 - Describe the anatomy of the adrenal cortex, its location, the major hormones secreted, the control pathway(s) for hormone secretion, and the hormones’ primary targets and effects.

Essay 46. Describe the three different types of stimuli that control the release of hormones.

ANSWER: The three different types of stimuli that control or regulate the release of hormones are: (1) blood levels of non-hormone chemicals, such as nutrients or ions, can increase or decrease outside of the homeostatic range to alter the release of a hormone; (2) in response to the presence of another hormone (i.e., tropic hormone) produced by a different endocrine gland, such as the hypothalamus or the anterior pituitary gland; and (3) hormones can also be controlled in response to stimulation from the nervous system. A common example is the adrenal medulla, which secretes both the hormones norepinephrine and epinephrine in response to stimulation by the sympathetic nervous system.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.3 Endocrine Control by the Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.3.5 - Describe major hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary, their control pathways, and their primary target(s) and effects.

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47. Describe the role of growth hormone on the body. Include in your discussion the impact of having either increased or decreased concentrations during childhood growth and development.

ANSWER: Growth hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary and has effects throughout the body.

It is best known for its promotion of mitosis in cartilage and its hypertrophy of skeletal muscle cells. Notably, growth hormone does not act directly on bone cells, but instead promotes mitosis in cartilage, specifically at the epiphyseal plates of growing bones. It aids in elongation of bones during development. Consistently decreased levels of growth hormone during childhood or adolescence can reduce overall stature. Significant decreases in growth hormone signaling can cause some of the types of dwarfism. Consistently increased, or excess, growth hormone levels can result in substantial gains in height, a condition known as gigantism. Individuals with gigantism typically grow to between seven and nine feet in height, creating substantial issues for these individuals in terms of their interaction with the cars, furniture, and buildings built for a smaller population. When growth hormone secretion occurs or is continued past epiphyseal (growth) plate fusion, bone length is no longer impacted but the cartilage at the joints grows in response to the excess growth hormone. This condition, called acromegaly, is characterized by larger-thanaverage hands, feet, and ears. Because growth hormone can affect other tissues as well, individuals with any of these disorders can have cardiovascular or other organ system complications. Gigantism and acromegaly are typically caused by tumors in the anterior pituitary; if these tumors are significant enough in size, they can compress the optic nerves, which cross over in the brain just in front of the anterior pituitary. Thus, vision problems are a common complaint of those with gigantism or acromegaly.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.3 Endocrine Control by the Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.3.5 - Describe major hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary, their control pathways, and their primary target(s) and effects.

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48. Describe the four types of chemical signaling in the body.

ANSWER: The four types of chemical signaling in the body are: 1. Local intercellular communication, in which a chemical is released by one cell and induces a response in neighboring cells. This is called paracrine signaling.

2. Local communication can also affect the cell that releases the signal; this is known as autocrine signaling.

3. Chemicals released by neurons to communicate with a local cell or cells are neurotransmitters.

4. Endocrine signaling involves releasing chemical signals into the bloodstream that induce responses in cells throughout the body.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 17.1 An Overview of the Endocrine System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.1.3 - Compare and contrast how the nervous and endocrine systems control body functions, the anatomical pathways by which the signals reach their targets, what determines the target of the pathway, the speed of the target response(s), the duration of the response, and how signal intensity is coded.

49. List the three main groups of hormones and discuss their structural differences.

ANSWER: The hormones of the human body can be divided into three main groups based on their chemical structure. (1) Lipid-derived hormones, or steroid hormones, are lipid-based and lipophilic and can easily cross cellular membranes. Receptors for steroid hormones can be found in the cytosol or the nucleus. This also means steroid hormones cannot be stored or excluded from a cell. (2) Amine hormones are modified versions of single amino acids. As such, they are very sWmWalW l a.nT dB tran rt S easily; their precise characteristics are based on the SMsp.oW chemical makeup of their functional groups. Amine hormones can either be lipid-soluble (e.g., thyroid hormone) or water-soluble (e.g., epinephrine). (3) Peptide, or protein, hormones are produced when multiple amino acids are joined together. Protein hormones are water-soluble and do not cross the cell membrane easily. Receptors for protein hormones are found on the outside of the cell.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 17.2 Hormones LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.2.1 - List the three major chemical classes of hormones (i.e., steroid, peptide, amino acid-derived [amine]) found in the human body.

50. Discuss the anatomical and functional differences of the anterior and posterior pituitary.

ANSWER: The anterior pituitary is a true endocrine gland and is anatomically and functionally separate from the hypothalamus. A system of blood vessels called the hypothalamohypophseal portal system connects the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary. The hypothalamus secretes tropic hormones that regulate the secretion of anterior pituitary hormones. On the contrary, the posterior pituitary is neural and an extension of the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus contains the cell bodies of the neurons that synthesize two important hormones (oxytocin and ADH). The axons of these neurons run along the infundibulum, and the axon terminals end in the posterior pituitary, which stores the hormones (oxytocin and ADH). Then, upon stimulation, these hormones are released from the posterior pituitary into the bloodstream.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 17.3 Endocrine Control by the Hypothalamus and Pituitary Gland LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 17.3.5 - Describe major hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary, their control pathways, and their primary target(s) and effects.

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Chapter 18 - The Cardiovascular System: Blood Multiple Choice 1. 1. Blood is . a. a type of connective tissue b. a type of red blood cell (RBC) c. a type of epithelial tissue d. a fluid-like substance that is extremely viscous e. mainly made up of formed elements ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.2 - Describe the general composition of blood (e.g., plasma, formed elements).

2. Erythrocytes are also known as . a. cellular fragments b. red blood cells (RBCs) c. white blood cells (WBCs) d. platelets e. the extracellular matrix ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand WWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.2 - Describe the general composition of blood (e.g., plasma, formed elements).

3. Leukocytes are also known as . a. cellular fragments b. red blood cells (RBCs) c. white blood cells (WBCs) d. platelets e. the extracellular matrix ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.2 - Describe the general composition of blood (e.g., plasma, formed elements).

4. Platelets are important for a. carrying oxygen to the tissue b. cellular immunity c. neuronal transmission d. blood clotting e. stimulating muscle contraction ANSWER: d

.

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.2 - Describe the general composition of blood (e.g., plasma, formed elements).

5. What statement best describes plasma? a. The formed elements within the blood. b. The main oxygen carrier in blood. c. It is only important for immunity. d. The cellular fragments within the blood. e. The extracellular matrix in blood.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.2 - Describe the general composition of blood (e.g., plasma, formed elements).

6. What is the approximate percentage of water in plasma? a. 55% b. 76% c. 92% d. 97% e. 99% ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.5 - Describe the composition of blood plasma.

7. What are the three major groups of plasma proteins? a. albumin, globulins, fibrinogen b. erythrocytes, leukocytes, albumin c. antibodies, globulins, erythrocytes d. fibrinogen, globulins, leukocytes e. erythrocytes, albumin. globulins ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.5 - Describe the composition of blood plasma.

8. Hemoglobin is a protein found on erythrocytes important for a. transporting gases, specifically oxygen, to the tissue b. detecting low blood oxygen levels c. maintaining oxygen homeostasis d. an immune protection within the blood e. maintaining water balance in the blood ANSWER: a

.

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

9. Hypoxemia is a condition when an individual has . a. high oxygen content within the blood b. low blood oxygen c. an inability to metabolize oxygen molecules d. an overproduction of red blood cells e. no hemoglobin in their red blood cells ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

10. Anemia is a condition when an individual has . a. high oxygen content within the blood b. low blood carbon dioxide c. insufficient numbers of RBCs or insufficient ability to carry oxygen d. an overproduction of RBCs e. blood that releases too many oxygen molecules at the tissue level ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

11. Polycythemia is a condition when an individual has . a. high carbon dioxide levels in the blood b. low blood oxygen levels c. an abundance of white blood cells d. an overproduction of red blood cells (RBCs) e. low carbon dioxide levels in the blood ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

12. Deoxygenated blood, or systemic venous blood, means that the hemoglobin on erythrocytes a. binds strongly to oxygen at the tissue level b. has a lower carbon dioxide content compared to oxygenated blood c. does not work anymore d. releases oxygen into the lungs e. releases some of the oxygen into the tissue

.

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ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

13. Biliverdin is . a. the non-iron portion of heme that is degraded into a waste product b. produced in the bone marrow c. removed from the blood by the liver and becomes a yellow pigment d. the precursor for red blood cell production e. a compound released into the intestines to help emulsify dietary fats ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

14. Erythrocytes are . a. the non-iron portion of heme that is degraded into a waste product b. produced in the bone marrow c. removed from the blood by the liver and becomes a yellow pigment d. the precursor for white blood cell production lsiBfySdMie.taWrySfats e. a compound released into the intestines to heWlpWeWm.uT ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

15. Bilirubin is . a. the non-iron portion of heme that is degraded into a waste product b. produced in the bone marrow c. removed from the blood by the liver and becomes a yellow pigment d. the precursor for white blood cell production e. a compound released into the intestines to help emulsify dietary fats ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

16. Vitamins and minerals are important for red blood cell production. Which of the following vitamins and/or minerals are key to erythropoiesis? a. vitamin K and calcium b. vitamin A and D vitamins c. vitamin E and iron

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d. B vitamins and iron e. iron and calcium ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

17. Bile is . a. the non-iron portion of heme that is degraded into a waste product b. produced in the bone marrow c. removed from the blood by the liver and becomes a yellow pigment d. the precursor for white blood cell production e. a compound released into the intestines to help emulsify dietary fats ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

18. Gamma globulins are also known as . a. antibodies b. white blood cells c. red blood cells d. plasma e. fibrous proteins ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

19. What statement best describes leukocytes and erythrocytes production? a. Originates from stem cells in the bone marrow. b. Production occurs in the thymus. c. Production occurs in the liver. d. They are produced in the kidneys. e. Synthesis is inhibited by the adrenal glands.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

20. Hematopoiesis . a. is another name for white blood cells b. is a term for the production of blood cells

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c. is another term for blood clotting d. produces cytokines that attract leukocytes to the site of injury e. are specialized vesicles that contain chemicals used in a cell’s response ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

21. The site of an injury results in a series of steps to help decrease pathogen entrance into the blood. What statement best defines the term diapedesis? a. An increase in white blood cell production. b. Release of antibodies into the bloodstream to attack any pathogen that has entered at the wound site. c. Leukocytes that leave the blood vessel and go into the tissue at the site of the injury. d. Signaling molecules that attract white blood cells to the site of infection. e. Specialized vesicles that contain chemicals used in the cell’s response to the injury.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

22. The site of an injury results in a series of steps to help decrease pathogen entrance into the blood. What statement best describes positive chemotaxis? a. An increase in white blood cell production. b. Release of antibodies into the bloodstream to attack any pathogen that has entered at the wound site. c. Leukocytes that leave the blood vessel and go into the tissue at the site of the injury. d. Signaling molecules that attract white blood cells to the site of infection. e. Specialized vesicles that contain chemicals used in the cell’s response to the injury.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

23. Leukocytes that contain granules . a. are released from the bone marrow following a pathogenic invasion b. move from the bloodstream into the tissue immediately following a pathogenic invasion c. are typically B and T lymphocytes d. attract other leukocytes at the infection site e. have specialized vesicles that contain chemicals used in the cell’s response ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

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24. Granular leukocytes, or granulocytes, have a grainy appearance when stained and examined under a microscope.

Granular leukocytes include . a. neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils b. neutrophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes c. monocytes and lymphocytes d. erythrocytes, neutrophils, and lymphocytes e. eosinophils, basophils, and lymphocytes ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

25. A pathogen is best defined as . a. a cluster of local cells near the surface of the skin, including neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils b. a disease-causing agent c. proteins on the surface of a red blood cell d. substances within the blood that phagocytize, or ingest, bacteria e. an allergen ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elemenWtsW(Wi.e. , eBrySthr .T M.ocWyStes, leukocytes, platelets).

26. Which of the following statements best describe agranular leukocytes? a. White blood cells that include neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils. b. They are disease-causing agents. c. White blood cells that include monocytes and lymphocytes. d. They comprise roughly 40–60 percent of the total leukocytes in the blood. e. The nucleus will typically have two to three lobes and the granules will have a bright pink or red color.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

27. Which of the following statements is FALSE about neutrophils? a. They are granular leukocytes. b. They are phagocytes; they ingest pathogens when they encounter them. c. Neutrophils are the most abundant leukocyte and account for roughly 40-60 percent of total leukocytes in the blood. d. They are generally found in the thymus and travel through the blood when there is an infection. e. The nucleus is multilobed with pale red and blue granules.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

28. What statement best describes an eosinophil? a. It is considered an agranulocyte. b. It is a disease-causing agent. c. It is the most abundant leukocyte within the blood. d. It only targets host tissue, or self cells. e. The nucleus have two to three lobes and the granules have a bright pink or red color.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

29. What statement best describes macrophages? a. Cells capable of phagocytizing debris, foreign pathogens, worn-out erythrocytes, and many other damaged cells. b. A type of cell found in the bone marrow that travels through the blood to seek out infection. c. A type of red blood cell that aids in carrying carbon dioxide. d. They are the most abundant leukocytes within the blood. e. They are produced in lymph nodes and travel through the blood to the infection site.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember WWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

30. What statement best describes megakaryocytes? a. A cell that carries large pathogens to the liver for destruction. b. A type of cell found in the bone marrow that releases platelets. c. A cell that replaces red blood cells when they are destroyed. d. A type of lymphocyte that is available only when a host is exposed to a pathogen for a second time. e. A cell that carries destroyed red blood cells to the liver for destruction.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

31. Which of the following statements is TRUE about hematopoiesis? a. A hormone released by the kidney when red blood cells are low in the blood. b. A type of cell found in the bone marrow. c. The process by which blood replacement occurs. d. The process of blood clotting. e. The process of blood removal.

ANSWER: c

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

32. What statement best describes hematopoietic stem cells? a. They reside in the bone marrow and give rise to all the formed elements of blood. b. They only give rise to lymphocytes, which include the T cells, B cells, and natural killer (NK) cells, all of which function in immunity. c. They only give rise to erythrocytes. d. Endocrine cells that secrete a hormone in response to low oxygen levels. e. They stimulate both nonspecific and specific resistance to disease during an infection.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

33. What statement best describes lymphoid stem cells? a. They reside in the bone marrow and give rise to all the formed elements of blood. b. They only give rise to lymphocytes, which include the T cells, B cells, and natural killer (NK) cells, all of which function in immunity. c. They only give rise to erythrocytes. d. Endocrine cells that secrete a hormone in response to low oxygen levels.

W W W. TBS M. WS e. They stimulate both nonspecific and specific resistance to disease during an infection.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

34. What statement best describes myeloid stem cells? a. They reside in the bone marrow and give rise to all the formed elements of blood. b. They only give rise to lymphocytes, which include the T cells, B cells, and natural killer (NK) cells, all of which function in immunity. c. They give rise to erythrocytes, platelets, granulocytes, and monocytes. d. Endocrine cells that secrete a hormone in response to a parasitic worm invasion. e. They stimulate both nonspecific and specific resistance to disease during an infection.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

35. What statement best describes erythropoietin? a. A hormone released by the kidneys when red blood cells, or oxygen levels, are low in the blood. b. A hormone secreted from the bone marrow in response to infection.

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c. The process by which blood replacement occurs. d. A hormone that stimulates blood clotting. e. A hormone released by the liver when blood calcium is low.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

36. There are various cellular factors that aid in immunity, or an immune response during an infection. Cytokines are just one of these factors. What statement best describes cytokines? a. They reside in bone marrow and are triggered by both B cells and T cells during an infection. b. They are factors that only stimulate lymphocyte development, which include T cells, B cells, and natural killer (NK) cells when a host is reinfected. c. Hormones that initiate apoptosis, cell death, in normal cells. d. Substances that bind to red blood cells to alert them where the infection is located. e. They stimulate the proliferation of progenitor cells and stimulate both nonspecific and specific resistance to disease.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

37. What statement best describes hemostasis? a. The process by which the body plugs a ruptured blood vessel to prevent blood loss. b. A term for excessive bleeding. c. The specific process when the smooth muscle in the vessel walls contracts dramatically. d. The term for the enzymes involved in platelet production. e. The maintenance of our internal environment around a set point.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.9 - Define hematocrit and discuss healthy ranges for adults and common reasons for deviation from homeostasis.

38. Hemorrhage is defined as . a. blood oxygen levels are too low b. excessive bleeding, or blood loss c. vasoconstriction of all blood vessels d. the damage to a blood vessel e. an infiltration of platelets at the site of injury ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.9 - Define hematocrit and discuss healthy ranges for adults and common reasons for deviation from homeostasis.

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39. What statement best describes a vascular spasm? a. The process by which the body plugs a ruptured blood vessel to prevent blood loss. b. A term for excessive bleeding. c. The specific process when the smooth muscle in the vessel walls contracts dramatically. d. The term for the enzymes involved in platelet production. e. The maintenance of our internal environment around a set point.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.9 - Define hematocrit and discuss healthy ranges for adults and common reasons for deviation from homeostasis.

40. What statement best describes the von Willebrand factor? a. A plasma protein that secretes signals for red blood cells to attach to the platelet plug. b. A hormone that stimulates platelet production. c. The factor to stimulate vascular smooth muscle to contract. d. A plasma protein that stabilizes a growing platelet plug. e. Netlike mesh that covers the platelets once the platelet plug has been formed.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.9 - Define hematocrit and discuss healthy ranges for adults and common reasons for deviatiW oW nW fro hoSm stS asis. .mTB Me.oW 41. What statement best describes fibrin? a. A plasma protein that secretes signals for red blood cells to attach to the platelet plug. b. A hormone that stimulates platelet production. c. The factor to stimulate vascular smooth muscle to contract. d. A plasma protein that stabilizes a growing platelet plug. e. Netlike mesh that covers the platelets once the platelet plug has been formed.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Blood LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.9 - Define hematocrit and discuss healthy ranges for adults and common reasons for deviation from homeostasis.

42. Which of the following statements is TRUE about an antigen? a. It triggers a defensive response from the leukocytes of the immune system. b. It stimulates an allergic reaction. c. It is a protein made by B lymphocytes that attacks pathogens. d. It is released from T lymphocytes during a second infection. e. It is only found on the surface of red blood cells.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.4 Blood Typing

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.4.1 - Explain the role of surface antigens on erythrocytes in determining blood groups.

43. What statement best describes antibodies? a. It triggers a defensive response from the leukocytes of the immune system. b. It stimulates an allergic reaction. c. It is a protein made by B lymphocytes that attacks pathogens. d. It is released from T lymphocytes during a second infection. e. It is only found on the surface of red blood cell.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.4 Blood Typing LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.4.1 - Explain the role of surface antigens on erythrocytes in determining blood groups.

44.

determines ABO blood types. a. Evolution of proteins in the blood b. Genetics c. An immune response from leukocytes d. The impact of various pathogens over time e. Blood transfusions ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 18.4 Blood Typing LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.4.1 - Explain the role of surface antigens on erythrocytes in determining blood groups.

Essay 45. Describe the pulse oximeter, its functional uses, and its limitations.

ANSWER: A pulse oximeter is a non-invasive method to determine percent oxygen saturation. The device measures light absorbance from the red wavelength and the infrared wavelength through the finger. Hemoglobin absorbs and reflects these wavelengths differently and is detected by the pulse oximeter. Oxygen saturation levels measured at 95–100 percent are considered healthy while lower saturation levels reflect hypoxemia, or low blood oxygen.

Pulse oximeter readings are often used to determine whether a patient needs supplemental oxygen or be put on a ventilator if oxygen levels are extremely low. Unfortunately, very recent medical warnings suggest that pulse oximeters may not be accurate enough in patients with poor circulation, dark pigmented skin, thicker skin, etc.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Bloods LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.9 - Define hematocrit and discuss healthy ranges for adults and common reasons for deviation from homeostasis.

46. There are many homeostatic mechanisms to ensure oxygen levels are maintained within the body. One important factor is the release of erythropoietin (EPO). Identify the organ that secretes EPO, discuss when it is released into the blood, and potential limitations.

ANSWER: The kidneys receive a tremendous amount of blood flow each day (roughly 180L per day).

When they detect low oxygen levels, or a reduction in oxygen-carrying capacity, they

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secrete erythropoietin. EPO targets the bone marrow to increase the production of red blood cells, or oxygen-carrying capacity. An increase in red blood cells will increase oxygen levels in the blood back to homeostatic levels (95-100 percent saturation).

Unfortunately, many athletes have abused synthetic EPO and used it to gain an advantage – higher oxygen content – for longer endurance in their sport. However, an increase in red blood cell production can also increase blood viscosity, which can reduce blood flow or even result in blood clots (e.g., stroke) in many top athletes.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Bloods LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.9 - Define hematocrit and discuss healthy ranges for adults and common reasons for deviation from homeostasis.

47. Stimulation of the development of stem cells into formed elements within the blood is guided by the secretion of various substances called growth factors. List the three hemopoietic growth factors, the source of these factors, and their functions.

ANSWER: Development from stem cells to precursor cells to mature cells is guided by secreted chemicals called growth factors. These include the following: a. Erythropoietin (EPO) is a hormone secreted by the kidneys in response to low oxygen levels. It prompts the production of erythrocytes. b. Thrombopoietin, another hormone, is produced by the liver and kidneys. It triggers the development of megakaryocytes into platelets. c. Cytokines are chemical signals secreted by a wide variety of cells, including red bone marrow, leukocytes, macrophages, fibroblasts, and endothelial cells. They act locally as autocrine or paracrine factors, stimulating the proliferation of progenitor cells and helping to stimulate both nonspecific and specific resistance to disease.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 18.1 The ComposW itio loS odMs.WS WnWo.f TBB LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.9 - Define hematocrit and discuss healthy ranges for adults and common reasons for deviation from homeostasis.

48. Briefly discuss the process of blood coagulation.

ANSWER: The more sophisticated and durable blood vessel repairs are collectively called coagulation, the formation of a blood clot. The process is characterized as a cascade, because one event prompts the next step in the process. There are a series of clotting factors involved in coagulation and integration of intrinsic and extrinsic pathways to ensure the formation and activation of thrombin. Thrombin is an important enzyme that catalyzes the formation of fibrinogen into fibrin. The result is the production of a gelatinous but robust clot made up of a mesh of fibrin in which platelets and blood cells are trapped.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Bloods LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.7 - Compare and contrast the morphological features and general functions of the formed elements (i.e., erythrocytes, leukocytes, platelets).

49. Describe the general composition of blood plasma.

ANSWER: Like other fluids in the body, plasma is composed primarily of water; in fact, it is about 92 percent water. Dissolved or suspended within this water is a mixture of substances, including many proteins. The main plasma proteins are albumin, globulins, and fibrinogen.

It also contains by-products of cellular metabolism (nitrogenous substances), nutrients (e.g., glucose, amino acids, fatty acids, etc.), respiratory gases (e.g., oxygen and carbon dioxide) and hormones. However, there are literally hundreds of substances dissolved or suspended in the plasma, although many of them are found only in very small quantities.

Plasma reflects the current homeostatic state of the blood. If you have just eaten lunch, for

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example, your plasma may contain different substances at that moment than it will in the middle of the night while you are sleeping (and therefore not eating or digesting).

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Analyze REFERENCES: 18.1 The Composition of Bloods LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 18.1.2 - Describe the general composition of blood (e.g., plasma, formed elements).

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Chapter 19 - The Cardiovascular System: The Heart Multiple Choice 1. The mediastinum is . a. the space between the lungs b. the space that contains the lungs c. the sac that surrounds the heart d. another name for the thoracic cavity e. surrounded by membranous parietal pleura ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.1 - Describe the position of the heart in the thoracic cavity.

2. What statement best describes the atria? a. The two inferior chambers within the heart. b. They are two chambers within the heart that receive venous blood. c. Vessels that carry blood away from the heart. d. Vessels that carry blood to the heart. e. Chambers of the heart that push blood into the circulation.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart AnatomWyWW.TBSM.WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.8 - Identify and describe the structure and function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, fibrous skeleton, and venous and arterial openings.

3. What statement best describes the ventricles? a. The two superior chambers within the heart. b. They are two chambers within the heart that receive venous blood. c. Vessels that carry blood away from the heart. d. Vessels that carry blood to the heart. e. Chambers of the heart that push blood into the circulation.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.8 - Identify and describe the structure and function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, fibrous skeleton, and venous and arterial openings.

4. What statement best describe arteries? a. The two inferior chambers within the heart. b. They are two chambers within the heart that receive venous blood. c. Vessels that carry blood away from the heart. d. Vessels that carry blood to the heart. e. Chambers of the heart that push blood into the circulation.

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ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.8 - Identify and describe the structure and function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, fibrous skeleton, and venous and arterial openings.

5. Which statement best describes veins? a. The two inferior chambers within the heart. b. They are two chambers within the heart that receive venous blood. c. Vessels that carry blood away from the heart. d. Vessels that carry blood to the heart. e. Chambers of the heart that push blood into the circulation.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.8 - Identify and describe the structure and function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, fibrous skeleton, and venous and arterial openings.

6. The epicardium . a. is the outermost layer of the heart, also referred to as visceral pericardium b. is a superficial pouchlike extension of each atrium c. carries oxygenated blood directly to the heart WWW.TBSM.WS d. is located between the atria and ventricles e. is a thick, muscular layer of the heart that separates the ventricles ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.4 - Identify and describe the location, structure, and function of the fibrous pericardium, parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium, serous fluid, and the pericardial cavity.

7. The auricles of the heart are . a. the outermost layer of the heart, also referred to as visceral pericardium b. superficial pouchlike extensions of each atrium c. located between the atrium and ventricle to prevent backflow d. only on the left ventricle of the heart to aid in pumping e. thick, muscular layers of the heart that separate the ventricles ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.4 - Identify and describe the location, structure, and function of the fibrous pericardium, parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium, serous fluid, and the pericardial cavity.

8. Which of the following statements is TRUE of coronary vessels?

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a. Vessels that are in the endocardial layer of the heart. b. Vessels that transport blood to and from the pericardial sac. c. Blood vessels that transport blood to and from the myocardium. d. Vessels located between the atria and ventricles to prevent backflow of blood. e. Large vessels within the thoracic cavity.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.4 - Identify and describe the location, structure, and function of the fibrous pericardium, parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium, serous fluid, and the pericardial cavity.

9. The coronary sulcus is identified on the surface of the heart and divides the . a. right and left atrium b. aorta and the vena cava c. left atrium and the left ventricle d. right and left ventricles e. base and the apex of the heart ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.4 - Identify and describe the location, structure, and function of the fibrous pericardium, parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium, serous fluid, and the pericardiaW l cWaW vi. tyT . BSM.WS 10. What are the three layers that compose the wall of the heart? a. epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium b. pericardium, fascicular cardium, and endocardium c. coronary cardium, superior cardium, and inferior cardium d. epicardium, inferior cardium, and pericardium e. myocardium, superior cardium, and endocardium ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Remember REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.7 - Describe the structure and functions of each layer of the heart wall (i.e., epicardium, myocardium, endocardium).

11. What statement best describes the fossa ovalis? a. An oval-shaped depression in the interatrial septum. b. A remnant ligament of the ductus arteriosus. c. Another name for the entrance to the right atrium. d. A groove on the surface of the heart that separates the right and left ventricles. e. An anatomical structure that is only present during fetal development.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.8 - Identify and describe the structure and function of the primary internal

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structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, fibrous skeleton, and venous and arterial openings.

12. What statement best describes the foramen ovale? a. An oval-shaped depression in the interatrial septum. b. A remnant ligament of the ductus arteriosus. c. Another name for the entrance to the right atrium. d. A groove on the surface of the heart that separates the right and left ventricles. e. An opening between the atria that is only present during fetal development.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.8 - Identify and describe the structure and function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, fibrous skeleton, and venous and arterial openings.

13. The interventricular septum is . a. an oval-shaped depression in the interatrial septum b. a remnant ligament of the ductus arteriosus c. a muscular layer that contributes to pushing blood into the ventricles during atrial contraction d. the thick myocardium between the left and right ventricles e. a vessel that lies on the surface of the heart and drains venous blood into the vena cava ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand WWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.8 - Identify and describe the structure and function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, fibrous skeleton, and venous and arterial openings.

14. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the atrioventricular (AV) valves? a. They prevent backflow of blood into the atria. b. They are located between the atria and ventricles. c. The left AV valve is the mitral valve and the right AV valve is the tricuspid valve. d. They are semilunar valves that open during ventricular contraction. e. They are attached to the myocardium by chordae tendinae.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.8 - Identify and describe the structure and function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, fibrous skeleton, and venous and arterial openings.

15. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the semilunar valves? a. They prevent backflow of blood into the ventricles. b. The semilunar valve on the left side of the heart is also called the aortic valve. c. The semilunar valve on the right side of the heart is the pulmonary valve. d. They are valves that open during ventricular contraction.

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e. They are attached to the myocardium by chordae tendinae.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.8 - Identify and describe the structure and function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, fibrous skeleton, and venous and arterial openings.

16. The right atrium . a. receives deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the systemic circulation b. is primarily visible when viewing the posterior aspect of the heart c. ejects blood into the aorta during ventricular contraction d. is the inferior right chamber of the heart e. receives oxygenated blood from the lungs ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.9 - Trace the path of blood through the right and left sides of the heart, including its passage through the heart valves, and indicate whether the blood is oxygen-rich or oxygen-poor.

17. What statement best describes the right ventricle? a. It receives oxygenated blood returning to the heart from the systemic circulation. b. It receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium through the tricuspid valve.

WWW.TBSM.WS c. It receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium through the mitral (bicuspid) valve. d. It receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circulation. e. It directly pumps blood into the aorta following ventricular contraction.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.9 - Trace the path of blood through the right and left sides of the heart, including its passage through the heart valves, and indicate whether the blood is oxygen-rich or oxygen-poor.

18. The left atrium . a. receives deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the systemic circulation b. is primarily visible when viewing the posterior aspect of the heart c. ejects blood into the aorta during ventricular contraction d. is the inferior right chamber of the heart e. receives oxygenated blood from the lungs ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.9 - Trace the path of blood through the right and left sides of the heart, including its passage through the heart valves, and indicate whether the blood is oxygen-rich or oxygen-poor.

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19. What statement best describes the left ventricle? a. It receives oxygenated blood returning to the heart from the systemic circulation. b. It receives deoxygenated blood from the left atrium through the tricuspid valve. c. It receives deoxygenated blood from the left atrium through the mitral (bicuspid) valve. d. It receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circulation. e. It pumps blood into the aorta through a semilunar valve following ventricular contraction.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.9 - Trace the path of blood through the right and left sides of the heart, including its passage through the heart valves, and indicate whether the blood is oxygen-rich or oxygen-poor.

20. What statement best describes the coronary arteries? a. They supply oxygenated blood to the myocardium. b. They drain venous blood into the right atrium. c. They are located within the chambers of the heart. d. They supply the pericardium with oxygenated blood. e. They pump blood into the atria.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.10 - Describe the blood flow to and from the heart wall, including the location of the openings for the left and right coronary arteries, left coronary artery and its major branches, right coronary artery and its major branches, cardiac veins, and coronary sinus.

21. The gives rise to two branches, the circumflex artery and the anterior interventricular artery. a. right coronary artery b. left coronary artery c. coronary sinus d. marginal artery e. pulmonary trunk ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.10 - Describe the blood flow to and from the heart wall, including the location of the openings for the left and right coronary arteries, left coronary artery and its major branches, right coronary artery and its major branches, cardiac veins, and coronary sinus.

22. The gives rise to the posterior interventricular artery. a. right coronary artery b. left coronary artery c. coronary sinus d. marginal artery e. pulmonary trunk

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ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.10 - Describe the blood flow to and from the heart wall, including the location of the openings for the left and right coronary arteries, left coronary artery and its major branches, right coronary artery and its major branches, cardiac veins, and coronary sinus.

23. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the coronary veins? a. The coronary sinus drains directly into the right atrium. b. They drain the heart wall, the myocardium. c. The great cardiac vein lies primarily on the surface of the left ventricle. d. The small cardiac vein drains into the great cardiac vein. e. The middle cardiac vein runs parallel to the posterior interventricular artery.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.10 - Describe the blood flow to and from the heart wall, including the location of the openings for the left and right coronary arteries, left coronary artery and its major branches, right coronary artery and its major branches, cardiac veins, and coronary sinus.

24. What statement best describes autorhythmicity? a. Ability to initiate an electrical potential at a fixed rate that spreads rapidly from cell to cell to trigger contraction. b. Electrical stimulation initiated by the endocrine and nervous systems. c. Ability to pass electrical impulses from one cell to another, but the cells cannot initiate these impulses. d. Maintaining a constant heart rate during exercise. e. Also referred to as a functional syncytium.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.2 Cardiac Muscle and Electrical Activity LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2.2 - List the parts of the electrical conduction system of the heart in the correct sequence for one contraction and explain how the electrical conduction system functions.

25. Heart rate is . a. the pressure against the blood vessel walls b. initiated by autorhythmic cells, but modulated by the endocrine and nervous systems c. the ability for impulses to travel from cell to cell within the heart d. measured by a sphygmomanometer e. the same as cardiac output ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.2 Cardiac Muscle and Electrical Activity LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2.2 - List the parts of the electrical conduction system of the heart in the correct sequence for one contraction and explain how the electrical conduction system functions.

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26. What statement best describes myocardial contractile cells? a. They can initiate an electrical potential at a fixed rate that spreads rapidly from cell to cell to trigger contraction. b. They are modulated solely by the endocrine and nervous systems. c. They can pass electrical impulses from one cell to another but cannot initiate these impulses. d. They maintain a constant heart rate during exercise. e. They are also referred to as a functional syncytium.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.2 Cardiac Muscle and Electrical Activity LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2.2 - List the parts of the electrical conduction system of the heart in the correct sequence for one contraction and explain how the electrical conduction system functions.

27. What statement best describes intercalated discs? a. They can initiate an electrical potential at a fixed rate that spreads rapidly from cell to cell to trigger contraction. b. They are proteins that support the nucleus of myocardial cell to ensure metabolic reactions. c. They block electrical impulses at the superior aspect of the ventricular myocardium. d. They are responsible for generating and conducting the action potential that drives heart contractions. e. They contain both gap junctions through which the electrical signals can pass as well as desmosomes, which tie the cells together physically.

ANSWER: e WWW.TBSM.WS DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.2 Cardiac Muscle and Electrical Activity LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2.2 - List the parts of the electrical conduction system of the heart in the correct sequence for one contraction and explain how the electrical conduction system functions.

28. Which of the following statements is FALSE about troponin in the heart? a. A regulatory protein found within myocardial cells that is typically released into the blood when they die. b. A regulatory protein that binds to calcium. c. When it changes conformation, it pulls tropomyosin off the actin-myosin binding sites. d. An important contributor to myocardial contraction. e. Constantly released into the bloodstream during contractions of the heart.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.2 Cardiac Muscle and Electrical Activity LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2.1 - Describe the microscopic anatomy of the myocardium, including the location and function of the intercalated discs.

29. Angiogenesis refers to . a. the regulatory protein only found in myocardial cells b. new blood vessel growth to feed the increasingly active cells c. establishing the normal cardiac rhythm of the heart d. increased gene expression of regulatory proteins in myocardial cells

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e. the coronary vasculature ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.2 Cardiac Muscle and Electrical Activity LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2.1 - Describe the microscopic anatomy of the myocardium, including the location and function of the intercalated discs.

30. The sinoatrial (SA) node . a. stores calcium ions for release upon electrical stimulation b. are responsible for the contractile performance of the heart c. establishes the normal cardiac rhythm d. releases the hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine to regulate heart rate e. contain conductive fibers that spread the impulse throughout the ventricle walls ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.2 Cardiac Muscle and Electrical Activity LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2.1 - Describe the microscopic anatomy of the myocardium, including the location and function of the intercalated discs.

31. What statement best describes the sinus rhythm? a. The electrical pattern of the heart during exercise or intense stress. b. The rate at which electrical impulses move through the gap junctions between myocardial cells. c. The nonconductive fibers between the atria and ventricles of the heart. ioTnBofStM he.hWeaSrt. d. The normal electrical pattern followed by coWntWraWct. e. Conductive fibers that spread the impulse throughout the ventricle walls.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.2 Cardiac Muscle and Electrical Activity LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2.1 - Describe the microscopic anatomy of the myocardium, including the location and function of the intercalated discs.

32. Purkinje fibers . a. store calcium ions for release upon electrical stimulation b. are responsible for the contractile performance of the heart c. establish the normal cardiac rhythm d. release the hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine to regulate heart rate e. contain conductive fibers that spread the impulse throughout the ventricle walls ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.2 Cardiac Muscle and Electrical Activity LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2.1 - Describe the microscopic anatomy of the myocardium, including the location and function of the intercalated discs.

33. occurs in the cardiac conductive cells when sodium ions slowly move across the plasma membrane, which gives the heart its autorhythmicity. a. Spontaneous depolarization b. Immediate depolarization

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c. Membrane potential d. Repolarization e. Hyperpolarization ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.2 Cardiac Muscle and Electrical Activity LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2.1 - Describe the microscopic anatomy of the myocardium, including the location and function of the intercalated discs.

34. Damage to the sinoatrial (SA) node can lead to , a condition with a slower heart rate at rest. a. tachycardia b. bradycardia c. arrythmia d. ventricular fibrillation e. a heart murmur ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.2 Cardiac Muscle and Electrical Activity LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2.1 - Describe the microscopic anatomy of the myocardium, including the location and function of the intercalated discs.

35. Relaxation of the heart muscle is important so the heart can completely fill with blood before contraction. What statement best describes the refractory period of the myocardial contractile cell? a. Is extremely short in the cardiac muscle cellWcoWm Wp.arTedBtSo Mth.e WskSeletal muscle cell. b. Lasts about 2 ms before contraction occurs following stimulation. c. Required for cardiac muscle cells to prevent tetanus, or summation of muscle contraction. d. The period of normal electrical pattern followed by contraction of the heart. e. Requires the influx of potassium ions to maintain a relaxed state.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.2 Cardiac Muscle and Electrical Activity LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2.1 - Describe the microscopic anatomy of the myocardium, including the location and function of the intercalated discs.

36. What statement best describes the cardiac cycle? a. Series of events that begins with atrial contraction and ends with ventricular relaxation. b. Events related to the relaxation of the atria. c. Events related to ventricular contraction. d. The early phase of ventricular diastole. e. The turbulent flow of blood within the heart during contraction and relaxation.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.3 Cardiac Cycle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.3.1 - Define cardiac cycle, systole, and diastole.

37. Atrial diastole . a. is the period of atrial relaxation

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b. refers to ventricular relaxation c. refers to atrial contraction d. refers to the change in pressure of the atria during the cardiac cycle e. ensures all the valves are closed while the heart is contracting ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.3 Cardiac Cycle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.3.1 - Define cardiac cycle, systole, and diastole.

38. Ventricular systole . a. is the period of atrial relaxation b. refers to ventricular relaxation c. refers to ventricular contraction d. refers to the change in pressure of the ventricles during the cardiac cycle e. ensures all the valves are closed while the heart is contracting ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.3 Cardiac Cycle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.3.1 - Define cardiac cycle, systole, and diastole.

39. The early phase of ventricular diastole when all valves are closed is referred to as a. isovolumic ventricular relaxation b. isovolumic ventricular contraction

.

c. ventricular contraction d. atrial contraction e. ventricular filling ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.3 Cardiac Cycle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.3.1 - Define cardiac cycle, systole, and diastole.

40. An unusual sound coming from the heart caused by turbulent blood flow is which of the following conditions? a. tachycardia b. bradycardia c. arrythmia d. ventricular fibrillation e. a heart murmur ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.3 Cardiac Cycle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.3.1 - Define cardiac cycle, systole, and diastole.

41. What statement best describes cardiac output? a. The amount of blood pumped by each ventricle per minute. b. Blood volume that is pumped or ejected from the heart with each contraction. c. The amount of blood that returns to the heart from the venous circulation.

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d. The volume of blood at the end of ventricular filling. e. The number of pulse rates per minute.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.4 Cardiac Physiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4.1 - Define cardiac output (CO) and state its units of measurement.

42. What statement best describes ejection fraction? a. A measurement of the amount of blood pumped by each ventricle. b. The portion of the blood that is pumped or ejected from the heart with each contraction. c. The amount of blood pumped by each ventricle. d. The duration of ventricular diastole during which filling occurs. e. The difference between maximum and resting CO. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.4 Cardiac Physiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4.4 - Describe the concepts of ejection fraction and cardiac reserve.

43. What statement best describes stroke volume? a. The amount of blood pumped by each ventricle per minute. b. Blood volume that is pumped or ejected from the heart with each contraction. c. The amount of blood pumped by each ventricle. d. The volume of blood at the end of ventricular filling. e. The number of pulse rates per minute.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.4 Cardiac Physiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4.2 - Calculate the cardiac output given the stroke volume and the heart rate.

44. End diastolic volume (EDV) is . a. the amount of blood pumped by each ventricle per minute b. the blood volume pumped or ejected from the heart with each contraction c. the amount of blood pumped by each ventricle d. the volume of blood at the end of ventricular filling e. the number of pulse rates per minute ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.4 Cardiac Physiology LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.4.11 - Explain the relationship between changes in HR and changes in filling time and EDV. Essay 45. Describe the embryonic development of the heart.

ANSWER: Embryonic development of the heart begins during the third week of gestation. The embryonic heart folds on itself twice, once at around 24 weeks and again at 35 days of

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gestation. It is the first of these folds that pushes the majority of the embryonic ventricle toward the left. Before these folds, at around day 23, the early embryonic heart is a tube with five distinct zones. The most superior, the truncus arteriosus, becomes the two great arteries. The next two zones, the bulbus cordis and the ventricle, will eventually be the most inferior parts of the heart, the left and right ventricles. The most inferior zones are the embryonic atrium and the sinus venosus; these areas, after the folding of the organ, will become the atria, which are superior in the adult heart. Then, walls between the chambers must form.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.4 - Identify and describe the location, structure, and function of the fibrous pericardium, parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium, serous fluid, and the pericardial cavity.

46. Cardiovascular disease is currently the leading cause of death globally and 85 percent of these deaths were due to heart attack or stroke. Discuss the causes of coronary artery disease and its complications.

ANSWER: Coronary artery disease is the most common heart disease. It occurs when there is a buildup of plaque—a fatty material including cholesterol, connective tissue, white blood cells, and some smooth muscle cells—within the walls of the coronary arteries. Recall the coronary arteries supply blood to the heart muscle (i.e., myocardium). The plaque can obstruct the flow of blood to the myocardium and decrease the flexibility of these vessels.

When a coronary artery is obstructed, there is less oxygen available to the myocardium and a heart attack (i.e., myocardial infarction) can occur. An additional complication of these plaques is that they can occasionally become unstable and break off, traveling elsewhere in the circulation and potentially becoming stuck in smaller vessels, which leads to strokes or embolisms.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 19.1 Heart Anatomy LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.1.10 - Describe the blood flow to and from the heart wall, including the location of the openings for the left and right coronary arteries, left coronary artery and its major branches, right coronary artery and its major branches, cardiac veins, and coronary sinus.

47. List the two major types of cardiac muscle cells and discuss their differences.

ANSWER: There are two major types of cardiac muscle cells: myocardial contractile cells and myocardial conducting cells. The myocardial contractile cells constitute the bulk (99 percent) of the cells in the myocardium. Contractile cells can pass the impulses that are responsible for contractions from one cell to another, but they cannot generate these impulses on their own. The myocardial conducting cells (1 percent of the cells) form the conduction system of the heart. These cells are responsible for generating and conducting the action potential (the electrical impulse) that drives heart contractions. These cells are generally much smaller than the contractile cells and have few of the myofibrils or filaments needed for contraction.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 19.2 Cardiac Muscle and Electrical Activity LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2.5 - Contrast the initiation of action potentials in cardiac autorhythmic cells, in cardiac contractile cells, and in skeletal muscle cells.

48. Describe how normal cardiac rhythm is established.

ANSWER: Normal cardiac rhythm is established by the sinoatrial (SA) node, a specialized clump of myocardial conducting cells located in the superior/posterior wall of the right atrium. The SA node has the highest inherent rate of depolarization and is known as the pacemaker of

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the heart. It initiates the sinus rhythm, or the normal electrical pattern followed by contraction of the heart.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 19.2 Cardiac Muscle and Electrical Activity LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.2.3 - Explain why the SA node normally paces the heart.

49. Discuss where in the cardiac cycle heart sounds (S1 and S2) are produced.

ANSWER: Heart sounds are produced by the closing of the valves of the heart. In a healthy heart, there are only two audible heart sounds referred to as S1 and S2. S1 is the sound created by the closing of the atrioventricular (AV) valves during ventricular contraction and is normally described as a “lub,” or first heart sound. The second heart sound, S2, is the sound of the closing of the semilunar valves during early ventricular diastole and is described as a “dub.”

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 19.3 Cardiac Cycle LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 19.3.9 - Relate the heart sounds to the events of the cardiac cycle.

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Chapter 20 - The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Circulation Multiple Choice 1. Arteries . a. are blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart b. are vessels that bring blood back to the heart c. are the site of exchange d. only carry blood to the lungs, with the goal of taking on more oxygen and getting rid of carbon dioxide e. are thin walled to allow the vessel to stretch ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1.1 - Define the terms artery, capillary, and vein.

2. Veins . a. are blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart b. are vessels that bring blood back to the heart c. are the site of exchange d. only carry blood to the lungs, with the goal of taking on more oxygen and getting rid of carbon dioxide e. have a muscular thick wall ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.1 Anatomy of BWloWoW d.

VT esBsS elM s .WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1.1 - Define the terms artery, capillary, and vein.

3. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the systemic circuit? a. It contains arteries that always carry oxygenated blood away from the heart. b. The capillaries of the systemic circuit release oxygen into the tissue. c. The veins are more muscular than the arteries, to withstand higher pressures. d. Many veins within the systemic circuit have valves to prevent backflow. e. Arterioles are referred to as resistance vessels.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1.3 - Compare and contrast tunic thickness, composition, and lumen diameter among arteries, capillaries, and veins.

4. Which of the following statements is TRUE of the pulmonary circuit? a. It contains veins that always carry oxygenated blood away from the heart. b. The capillaries of the pulmonary circuit release oxygen into the tissue. c. Arteries of the pulmonary circuit carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs. d. The left ventricle pumps blood into the pulmonary circuit. e. There are no capillaries within the pulmonary circuit.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 20.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1.3 - Compare and contrast tunic thickness, composition, and lumen diameter among arteries, capillaries, and veins.

5. Which of the following statements best describes the elastic membrane? a. The outermost layer of collagen fibers that supports the vessel. b. The smooth muscular layer of the vessel. c. The innermost layer of the vessel, also referred to as endothelium. d. Mainly found in veins to enhance structural support. e. Primarily found in arteries to provide structure while allowing the vessel to stretch.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1.3 - Compare and contrast tunic thickness, composition, and lumen diameter among arteries, capillaries, and veins.

6.

Which of the following statements best describes the tunica media? a. The outermost layer of collagen fibers that supports the vessel. b. The smooth muscular layer of the vessel. c. The innermost layer of the vessel, also referred to as endothelium. d. Mainly found in veins to enhance structural support. e. Primarily found in arteries to provide structure while allowing the vessel to stretch.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understan WdWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 20.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1.2 - List the three tunics associated with most blood vessels and describe the composition of each tunic.

7. Which of the following statements best describes vasoconstriction? a. Plaque build-up in the arteries that restricts blood flow. b. A narrowing of the vessel that restricts flow within. c. An increase in diameter of the vessel to increase blood flow. d. Another term to describe the capillaries’ small diameter. e. A disease state in which the immune cells are unable to get to the tissue.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1.2 - List the three tunics associated with most blood vessels and describe the composition of each tunic.

8. Which of the following statements best describes tunica externa? a. The outermost layer of collagen fibers that supports the vessel. b. The muscular layer of the vessel. c. The innermost layer of the vessel, also referred to as endothelium. d. Mainly found in veins to enhance structural support. e. Primarily found in arteries to provide structure while allowing the vessel to stretch.

ANSWER: a

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1.2 - List the three tunics associated with most blood vessels and describe the composition of each tunic.

9.

Which of the following statements best describes the tunica intima? a. The outermost layer of collagen fibers that supports the vessel. b. The smooth muscular layer of the vessel. c. The innermost layer of the vessel, also referred to as endothelium. d. Mainly found in veins to enhance structural support. e. Primarily found in arteries to provide structure while allowing the vessel to stretch.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1.2 - List the three tunics associated with most blood vessels and describe the composition of each tunic.

10. The lumen of a blood vessel is . a. the middle layer of blood vessel walls composed largely of smooth muscle b. found mainly in capillaries to allow for gas exchange c. normally the thickest tunic in veins, but usually thinner than the tunica media in arteries d. typically larger in arteries compared to veins e. the hollow space within the vessel, where blood flows through ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1.2 - List the three tunics associated with most blood vessels and describe the composition of each tunic.

11. Which of the following statements best describes arterioles? a. Smaller, resistance vessels that lead to a capillary. b. Larger vessels that carry blood away from the heart. c. Thin-walled microscopic channels that supply blood to the tissue. d. They are nutrient exchange vessels. e. Lower pressure vessels that have valves.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1.5 - Identify and describe the structure and function of specific types of blood vessels (i.e., elastic [conducting] arteries, muscular [distributing] arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins).

12. The smooth muscle fibers of arterioles are normally slightly contracted, which is maintained by the sympathetic nervous system. This phenomenon is referred to as . a. capillary perfusion b. vascular tone c. endothelial activation

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d. fenestration e. vascular resistance ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1.5 - Identify and describe the structure and function of specific types of blood vessels (i.e., elastic [conducting] arteries, muscular [distributing] arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins).

13. Which of the following statements best describes a capillary? a. Smaller, resistance vessels that lead to a venule. b. Larger vessels that carry blood away from the heart. c. Thin-walled microscopic channels that supply blood to the tissue. d. They have high vascular tone. e. Lower pressure vessels that have valves.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1.5 - Identify and describe the structure and function of specific types of blood vessels (i.e., elastic [conducting] arteries, muscular [distributing] arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins).

14. Capillaries characterized by an endothelial lining with tight junctions are . a. glomerular capillaries b. fenestrated capillaries c. muscular capillaries d. continuous capillaries e. sinusoid capillaries ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1.5 - Identify and describe the structure and function of specific types of blood vessels (i.e., elastic [conducting] arteries, muscular [distributing] arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins).

15. Capillaries with endothelial pores to allow fluid to flow into the surrounding tissue are . a. glomerular capillaries b. fenestrated capillaries c. muscular capillaries d. continuous capillaries e. sinusoid capillaries ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1.5 - Identify and describe the structure and function of specific types of blood vessels (i.e., elastic [conducting] arteries, muscular [distributing] arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins).

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16. Which of the following statements best defines the general term, blood pressure? a. The force exerted by blood upon the walls of the blood vessels or the chambers of the heart. b. Directly reflects the pressure in the brachial artery during ejection of blood when the ventricles contract. c. Arterial pressure during ventricular relaxation. d. The difference between systolic pressure and diastolic pressure. e. Pressure along the lymphatic vessels that force fluid into the systemic circulation.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.2 Blood Flow, Blood Pressure, and Resistance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2.1 - Define blood flow, blood pressure, and peripheral resistance.

17. Which of the following statements best describes systolic pressure? a. The force exerted by blood upon the walls of the blood vessels or the chambers of the heart. b. Directly reflects the pressure in the brachial artery during ejection of blood when the ventricles contract. c. Arterial pressure during ventricular relaxation. d. Arteriolar pressure that pushes blood into the capillary bed. e. Blood pressure not high enough to ensure circulation to and through the tissues.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.2 Blood Flow, Blood Pressure, and Resistance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2.1 - Define blood flow, blood pressure, and peripheral resistance.

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18. Which of the following statements best describes diastolic pressure? a. The force exerted by blood upon the walls of the blood vessels or the chambers of the heart. b. Directly reflects the pressure in the brachial artery during ejection of blood when the ventricles contract. c. Arterial pressure during ventricular relaxation. d. Arteriolar pressure that pushes blood into the capillary bed. e. Blood pressure not high enough to ensure circulation to and through the tissues.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.2 Blood Flow, Blood Pressure, and Resistance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2.1 - Define blood flow, blood pressure, and peripheral resistance.

19. Which of the following statements best describes pulse pressure? a. The force exerted by blood against the chambers of the heart during contraction. b. Contractions of the heart within each minute. c. Arterial pressure during ventricular relaxation d. The difference between systolic pressure and diastolic pressure. e. Blood pressure not high enough to ensure circulation to and through the tissues.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.2 Blood Flow, Blood Pressure, and Resistance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2.1 - Define blood flow, blood pressure, and peripheral resistance.

20. Reduced, or insufficient blood flow to a tissue bed due to arterial narrowing is called

.

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a. hypoxia b. hypotension c. hypertension d. edema e. ischemia ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.2 Blood Flow, Blood Pressure, and Resistance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2.1 - Define blood flow, blood pressure, and peripheral resistance.

21. Which of the following statements best describes the skeletal muscle pump? a. Vein compression to increase pressure during skeletal muscle contraction. b. Capillary sphincters open to allow for increased blood flow to the muscle. c. Blood redistribution to the skeletal muscles during exercise. d. Thoracic pressures during inhalation to increase blood flow back to the heart. e. Blood pressure within the skeletal muscle tissue.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.2 Blood Flow, Blood Pressure, and Resistance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2.7 - Describe the maintenance of driving pressure in veins including the skeletal and pulmonary pumps.

22. Which of the following statements best describes respiratory pump? a. Vein compression to increase pressure durinW gW skWel.etT alBmSuM sc.leWcS ontraction. b. Capillary sphincters open to allow for increased blood flow to the muscle. c. Blood redistribution to the skeletal muscles of the thoracic cavity during exercise. d. Thoracic pressures during inhalation to increase blood flow back to the heart. e. Blood pressure within the thoracic cavity.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.2 Blood Flow, Blood Pressure, and Resistance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2.7 - Describe the maintenance of driving pressure in veins including the skeletal and pulmonary pumps.

23. The force that draws water toward an area with higher solute concentration is . a. osmotic pressure b. systolic pressure c. hypertension d. diastolic pressure e. hydrostatic pressure ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.3 Capillary Exchange LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.3.1 - Explain the mechanisms of capillary exchange of gases, nutrients, and wastes.

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24. The force exerted by blood on the walls of blood vessels and is the primary force driving fluid across the capillary wall is . a. osmotic pressure b. systolic pressure c. hypertension d. diastolic pressure e. hydrostatic pressure ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.3 Capillary Exchange LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.3.1 - Explain the mechanisms of capillary exchange of gases, nutrients, and wastes.

25. Which of the following statements best describes net filtration pressure? a. The force exerted by blood on the walls of blood vessels or heart chambers. b. The force that draws water toward an area with higher solute concentration. c. Represents the balance of the hydrostatic and osmotic pressures along a vessel. d. Is another term for hydrostatic pressure. e. Pressure changes along the capillary, from the arterial end to the venous end.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.3 Capillary Exchange LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.3.1 - Explain the mechanisms of capillary exchange of gases, nutrients, and wastes.

26. Which of the following statements best describes capillary exchange factors? a. The force exerted by the blood onto the walls of the blood vessels or heart chambers. b. The force that draws water toward an area with higher solute concentration. c. Represents the balance of the hydrostatic and osmotic pressures. d. Balance between the opposing forces of osmotic pressure and hydrostatic pressure. e. Blood pressure not high enough to ensure circulation to and through the tissues.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.3 Capillary Exchange LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.3.1 - Explain the mechanisms of capillary exchange of gases, nutrients, and wastes.

27. Specialized mechanoreceptors located in the carotid sinus, aortic arch, and large neck arteries that respond to the degree of stretch caused by arterial pressure are . a. baroreceptors b. chemoreceptors c. Merkel’s discs d. proprioceptors e. nociceptors ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.4 Homeostatic Regulation of the Vascular System

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.4.1 - Explain the role of the autonomic nervous system in regulation of blood pressure and volume.

28. Which of the following statements best describes the catecholamines, epinephrine and norepinephrine? a. They are powerful vasodilators. b. They are released by the adrenal medulla to increase heart rate during sympathetic activation. c. They are released by the kidneys when blood flow and/or oxygen levels of the blood decrease. d. They are located near baroreceptors and respond to changes in oxygen, carbon dioxide, or hydrogen ions levels in the blood. e. Hormones secreted by the liver during parasympathetic activation to decrease heart rate.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.4 Homeostatic Regulation of the Vascular System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.4.5 - Explain how local control mechanisms and myogenic autoregulation influences blood flow to tissues.

29. Which of the following statements best describes erythropoietin? a. Hormone released to increase blood pressure during exercise. b. Released by the adrenal medulla to increase heart rate during sympathetic activation. c. Released by the kidneys when blood flow and/or oxygen levels of the blood decrease. d. Hormone that is a powerful vasodilator. e. Hormone secreted by the liver during parasympathetic activation to decrease heart rate.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand WWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 20.4 Homeostatic Regulation of the Vascular System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.4.5 - Explain how local control mechanisms and myogenic autoregulation influences blood flow to tissues.

30. Which of the following substances is a potent vasodilator? a. norepinephrine b. erythropoietin c. anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) d. nitric oxide e. angiotensin II ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.4 Homeostatic Regulation of the Vascular System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.4.6 - List some chemicals that cause either vasodilation or vasoconstriction and explain the circumstances in which they are likely to be active.

31. Which of the following statements best describes a myogenic response? a. A systemic reaction during skeletal muscle contraction to decrease vessel diameter. b. A vascular response from the sympathetic nervous system during a stressful situation. c. Increased blood flow to the kidney to maintain blood pressure. d. Vasodilation of all blood vessels to ensure oxygen delivery. e. A localized reaction to changes in blood flow that alter arteriolar diameter.

ANSWER: e

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.4 Homeostatic Regulation of the Vascular System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.4.6 - List some chemicals that cause either vasodilation or vasoconstriction and explain the circumstances in which they are likely to be active.

32. What circuit brings deoxygenated blood to the lungs and returns oxygenated blood to the left atrium? a. pulmonary circuit b. systemic circuit c. sympathetic circuit d. neural circuit e. pleural circuit ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.5 Circulatory Pathways LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.5.1 - Describe the systemic and pulmonary circuits (circulations) and explain the functional significance of each.

33. The pulmonary trunk . a. bifurcates into the right and left pulmonary arteries b. carries oxygenated blood to the lungs c. is the largest artery in the body d. prevents backflow of blood into the right ventricle during ventricular relaxation e. drains oxygenated blood into the left atrium ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.5 Circulatory Pathways LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.5.2 - Identify the major arteries and veins of the pulmonary circuit.

34. Which of the following statements best describes the aorta? a. It bifurcates into the right and left pulmonary arteries. b. It carries oxygenated blood to the lungs. c. It is the largest artery in the body. d. It prevents backflow of blood into the left ventricle during ventricular relaxation. e. It drains oxygenated blood into the left atrium.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.5 Circulatory Pathways LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.5.3 - Identify the major arteries and veins of the systemic circuit.

35. Which of the following statements best describes the aortic semilunar valve? a. It is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle. b. It prevents backflow of blood into the right ventricle during ventricular relaxation. c. It aids in pushing blood into the pulmonary trunk. d. It is the largest valve in the body. e. It prevents backflow of blood into the left ventricle during ventricular relaxation.

ANSWER: d

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.5 Circulatory Pathways LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.5.3 - Identify the major arteries and veins of the systemic circuit.

36. Which of the following arteries does not supply the upper limb? a. axillary artery b. brachial artery c. radial artery d. subclavian artery e. intercostal artery ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.5 Circulatory Pathways LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.5.3 - Identify the major arteries and veins of the systemic circuit.

37. The internal carotid arteries and the vertebral arteries . a. supply blood to the brain b. carry blood to the upper abdomen c. are branches off the brachiocephalic trunk d. are branches off the brachial plexus e. supply systemic blood to the lungs and visceral pleura ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand Wa.yTs BSM.WS REFERENCES: 20.5 Circulatory PW atW hw LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.5.3 - Identify the major arteries and veins of the systemic circuit.

38. Which of the following statements best describes the cerebral arterial circle? a. Carries blood through the neck region to the brain. b. Ensures blood flow to the brain even if blood flow is interrupted in one of the feeding vessels. c. Formed by the merging of the right and left anterior cerebral arteries. d. Drains blood from the brain through the neck region. e. Supplies systemic blood to the lungs and visceral pleura.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.5 Circulatory Pathways LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.5.3 - Identify the major arteries and veins of the systemic circuit.

39. Which of the following statements best describes the anterior communicating artery? a. Part of the cerebral arterial circle that merges into the basilar artery. b. Located between the pons and the medulla oblongata on the inferior surface of the brain. c. An arterial connection between the right and left anterior cerebral arteries. d. Supplies the frontal lobe and the anterior aspect of the parietal lobe with oxygenated blood. e. An arterial connection between the vertebral arteries.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.5 Circulatory Pathways

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.5.3 - Identify the major arteries and veins of the systemic circuit.

40. Which of the following statements best describes the common hepatic artery? a. Supplies blood to the kidneys. b. A branch off the celiac trunk to supply blood to the liver. c. Supplies blood to the stomach. d. A branch off the superior mesenteric artery to supply blood to the gallbladder. e. Supplies systemic blood to the mesentery.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.5 Circulatory Pathways LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.5.3 - Identify the major arteries and veins of the systemic circuit.

41. The arteries that directly branch off the abdominal aorta to supply the gastrointestinal tract are the a. celiac trunk, common hepatic artery, and renal artery b. splenic artery, gastric artery, and inferior mesenteric artery c. celiac trunk, colic artery, and renal artery d. superior mesenteric artery, inferior mesenteric artery, and splenic artery e. celiac trunk, superior mesenteric artery, and inferior mesenteric artery ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.5 Circulatory Pathways LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.5.2 - Identify the major arteries and veins of the pulmonary circuit.

.

42. Which of the following statements best describes the umbilical vein? a. Vessel that emerges from the placenta to carry oxygen-rich blood to the fetal inferior vena cava. b. Vessel that carries oxygen-depleted fetal blood, including wastes and carbon dioxide, to the placenta from the fetal systemic circulation. c. Keeps fetal blood within capillary beds while maternal blood bathes the outer surface of the capillaries. d. A connection vessel between the right and left atrium. e. The vessel that allows for maternal and fetal blood to mix to ensure oxygenation occurs.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.6 Development of Blood Vessels and Fetal Circulation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.6.1 - Describe the role of the placenta, umbilical vessels, ductus venosus, foramen ovale, and ductus arteriosus in fetal circulation.

43. Which of the following statements best describes the umbilical arteries? a. Vessel that emerges from the placenta to carry oxygen-rich blood to the fetal inferior vena cava. b. Vessel that carries oxygen-depleted fetal blood, including wastes and carbon dioxide, to the placenta from the fetal systemic circulation. c. Keeps fetal blood within capillary beds while maternal blood bathes the outer surface of the capillaries. d. A connection vessel between the right and left atrium. e. The vessel that allows for maternal and fetal blood to mix to ensure oxygenation occurs.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 20.6 Development of Blood Vessels and Fetal Circulation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.6.1 - Describe the role of the placenta, umbilical vessels, ductus venosus, foramen ovale, and ductus arteriosus in fetal circulation.

44. Which of the following statements best describes the placenta? a. Vessel that emerges from the placenta to carry oxygen-rich blood to the fetal inferior vena cava. b. Vessel that carries oxygen-depleted fetal blood, including wastes and carbon dioxide, to the placenta from the fetal systemic circulation. c. Keeps fetal blood within capillary beds while maternal blood bathes the outer surface of the capillaries. d. A connection vessel between the right and left atrium. e. The anatomical structure that allows for maternal and fetal blood to mix to ensure oxygenation occurs.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.6 Development of Blood Vessels and Fetal Circulation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.6.1 - Describe the role of the placenta, umbilical vessels, ductus venosus, foramen ovale, and ductus arteriosus in fetal circulation.

Essay 45. Compare and contrast the structural differences between arteries and veins.

ANSWER: Arteries carry blood away from the heart, and therefore are exposed to blood traveling at a higher velocity and pressure. Their walls must be able to accommodate that pressure and their lumens are smaller as the blood spends less time there. Veins, by comparison, do not have a wall structure that tolerates high pressure. They have thinner walls that are more compliant and less rW igW idW .B seMb. loW odSmoves more slowly through veins, they have .eTcaBuS larger lumens. As blood travels away from the heart, it steadily loses pressure. Due to lower pressures in the veins, many veins of the body, particularly those of the limbs, contain valves to ensure a one-way flow toward the heart; once blood has moved past a valve, the valve closes and prevents backflow.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.1 Anatomy of Blood Vessels LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.1.3 - Compare and contrast tunic thickness, composition, and lumen diameter among arteries, capillaries, and veins.

46. A typical blood pressure measurement is 120/80. What do these numbers represent? Explain.

ANSWER: When systemic arterial blood pressure is measured, it is recorded as a ratio of two numbers (e.g., 120/80 mmHg is a typical blood pressure value for a healthy adult). The top number represents the systolic pressure, and the bottom number represents the diastolic pressure.

The systolic pressure reflects the arterial pressure in the brachial artery during ejection of blood when the heart’s ventricles contract. The diastolic pressure is the arterial pressure of blood during ventricular relaxation, or diastole.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.2 Blood Flow, Blood Pressure, and Resistance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.2.3 - Explain the clinical and physiological significance of pulse pressure and mean arterial pressure values.

47. Describe the role of lymphatic capillaries.

ANSWER: Since overall hydrostatic pressure is higher than osmotic pressure in the systemic capillaries, it is inevitable that more net fluid will exit the capillary than is reabsorbed. In fact, approximately three to four liters of fluid are lost per day. Since an average adult

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human has two to three total liters of plasma, it is essential to drain this excess fluid and return it to the blood. As fluid leaves the capillaries and becomes interstitial fluid, the interstitial fluid pressure rises, and that excess fluid enters the lymphatic system. These extremely thin-walled vessels have copious numbers of valves that ensure unidirectional flow through ever-larger lymphatic vessels that eventually drain into the bloodstream close to the heart. In this way, lymph may be thought of as recycled blood plasma.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 20.3 Capillary Exchange LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.3.3 - Predict the impact of alterations in fluid and solute exchange at capillaries on blood pressure or the tissues.

48. Blood pressure is maintained by many mechanisms throughout the body to ensure proper blood flow to all tissue. The nervous system plays a critical role in maintaining blood pressure through vascular regulation. List the cardiovascular centers located in the medulla oblongata and describe their general regulation of blood pressure and blood flow.

ANSWER: These nuclei respond to changes in blood pressure as well as blood concentrations of oxygen, carbon dioxide, and hydrogen ions. There are three components: 1. The cardioaccelerator centers stimulate cardiac function by regulating heart rate and stroke volume via sympathetic stimulation from the (sympathetic) cardiac accelerator nerve.

2. The cardioinhibitory centers slow cardiac function by decreasing heart rate and stroke volume via parasympathetic stimulation from the vagus nerve.

3. The vasomotor centers control vessel tone or contraction of the smooth muscle in the tunica media.

Changes in diameter affect peripheral resistance, pressure, and flow, which affect cardiac output. The majority of these neurons act via the release of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine from sympathetic neurons.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand WWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 20.4 Homeostatic Regulation of the Vascular System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.4.1 - Explain the role of the autonomic nervous system in regulation of blood pressure and volume.

49. The textbook described multiple reasons as to why some individuals have veins that are more difficult to find compared to others. Explain these reasons.

ANSWER: Significant factors that make it more likely to be able to have a quick and painless blood draw include hydration level, percent body fat, and athleticism. The more hydrated you are, the higher your blood volume. Since veins hold 60 percent of the body’s blood at any given time, this number will play a significant role in the volume of the veins and therefore, their plumpness. Large veins travel within the hypodermics, or subcutaneous layer of the skin.

This area can have more or less fat embedded in it, depending on the individual. The subcutaneous fat surrounding the vein can shroud it, making it harder to see and access with the needle. Last, the level of athleticism plays a key role in how accessible the veins are. The veins of athletes tend to be much more visible than the veins of nonathletes.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 20.5 Circulatory Pathways LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 20.5.3 - Identify the major arteries and veins of the systemic circuit.

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Chapter 21 - The Lymphatic and Immune System Multiple Choice 1. A collection of vessels that collects interstitial fluid from the tissue and returns it back to the heart is a. the lymphatic system b. the cardiovascular system c. the respiratory system d. immunity e. edema ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.1 Anatomy of the Lymphatic and Immune Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1.1 - Describe the major functions of the lymphatic system.

2. Which of the following statements best describes lymph? a. Fluid within the blood vessels. b. The interstitial fluid once it has entered the lymphatic vessels. c. The fluid only contained within swollen lymph nodes. d. One of the several small, bean-shaped organs located throughout the lymphatic system. e. Fluid present only during an immune response.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.1 Anatomy of thWeWLWy. mT phBaStiM c. anWdSImmune Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1.1 - Describe the major functions of the lymphatic system.

3. Which of the following statements best describes edema? a. A condition that returns excess tissue fluid back to the blood. b. A fluid imbalance within the cranial cavity. c. When fluid flow out of the capillary exceeds the rate of collection. d. A capillary that returns leaky proteins into the blood. e. Critical for the transport of dietary lipids and lipid-soluble vitamins to the bloodstream.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.1 Anatomy of the Lymphatic and Immune Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1.1 - Describe the major functions of the lymphatic system.

4. Which of the following statements is FALSE about lymph nodes? a. Lymph nodes cleanse the lymph fluid, destroy pathogens and other debris within the fluid. b. A location site that houses T lymphocytes. c. One of the several small, bean-shaped organs located throughout the lymphatic system. d. Endocrine organs that secrete several hormones to aid in fluid filtration. e. Nodes that are prone to swell during an infection.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.1 Anatomy of the Lymphatic and Immune Systems

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.

LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1.3 - Compare and contrast lymphatic vessels and blood vessels in terms of structure and function.

5. Which of the following statements best describes lacteals? a. A condition that returns excess tissue fluid back to the blood. b. A location site that houses T lymphocytes. c. When fluid flow out of the capillary exceeds the rate of collection. d. A lymphatic vessel that only returns leaky proteins into the blood. e. Critical for the transport of dietary lipids and lipid-soluble vitamins to the bloodstream.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.1 Anatomy of the Lymphatic and Immune Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1.3 - Compare and contrast lymphatic vessels and blood vessels in terms of structure and function.

6. Which of the following statements is FALSE of the cisterna chyli? a. A saclike chamber that receives lymph from the lower abdomen, pelvis, and lower limbs. b. A structure that receives chyle from the small intestine. c. Anatomically located in the abdominal cavity, where the thoracic duct begins. d. An anatomical structure within the lymphatic system. e. Found in the space between the sternum and the aorta of the heart.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.1 Anatomy of thWeWLWy. mT phBaSticMa .nWdSImmune Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1.4 - Describe the path of lymph circulation.

7. Which of the following statements best describes the subcapsular sinus? a. A saclike chamber that receives lymph from the lower abdomen, pelvis, and lower limbs. b. Occupied by cells that are capable of engulfing and destroying bacteria and debris. c. An important structure in developing immunity to oral pathogens. d. Important in mounting immune responses to gastrointestinal pathogens as well as for developing tolerance to foods. e. Found in the space between the sternum and the aorta of the heart.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.1 Anatomy of the Lymphatic and Immune Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1.4 - Describe the path of lymph circulation.

8. Which of the following statements best describes the tonsils? a. A saclike chamber that receives lymph from the lower abdomen, pelvis, and lower limbs. b. A primary lymphoid organ where T and B lymphocytes mature. c. A secondary lymphoid organ important in developing immunity to oral pathogens. d. A lymphoid organ important in the immune response against gastrointestinal pathogens. e. Also referred to as Peyer’s patches, an aggregation of lymphoid nodules.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 21.1 Anatomy of the Lymphatic and Immune Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1.6 - Describe the structure, function, and major locations of lymphatic nodules (e.g., mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue [MALT], tonsils).

9. Which of the following statements best describes mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)? a. Lymphoid tissue located in the cranial cavity to detect any pathogens within the brain. b. Found within the thoracic cavity, contains lymph and stores B and T lymphocytes. c. Important in developing immunity to injuries within the skin. d. Important in mounting immune responses to gastrointestinal pathogens. e. Found in the colon, specifically the sigmoid and rectum.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.1 Anatomy of the Lymphatic and Immune Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1.6 - Describe the structure, function, and major locations of lymphatic nodules (e.g., mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue [MALT], tonsils).

10. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the thymus? a. An organ that is generally larger in children yet shrinks throughout adulthood. b. Composed of lymphoid tissue to help filter lymph during an infection. c. Secretes specific paracrine hormones thought to be involved with T cell development. d. A primary lymphoid organ that lacks B cells and does not directly fight against pathogens. e. Found in the space between the sternum and the aorta of the heart.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understan WdWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 21.1 Anatomy of the Lymphatic and Immune Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1.5 - Describe the structure, function, and major locations of the following lymphatic organs: lymph nodes, thymus, and spleen.

11. Which of the following statements best describes phagocytic cells? a. Mostly involved in the innate immune response, but many of them are capable of kickstarting the adaptive immune response. b. A specialized class of leukocytes, which coordinate the activities of adaptive immunity. c. Cells that secrete noxious, or toxic, materials during an attack against pathogens. d. Notable for their long-lasting memory capability. e. T and B cells are primarily these types of cells.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.2 Overview of the Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.2.2 - Compare and contrast innate (nonspecific) with adaptive (specific) defenses.

12. Which of the following statements best describes lymphocytes? a. Mostly involved in the innate immune response, but many of them are capable of kickstarting the adaptive immune response. b. A specialized class of leukocytes, which coordinate the activities of adaptive immunity. c. They develop into macrophages, which are phagocytic cells at the tissue site of infection. d. Non-specific cells found in the dermal layer of the skin that are activated during an infection.

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e. A variety of cells and soluble factors that activate quickly but have limited efficacy.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.2 Overview of the Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.2.3 - Describe the roles of various types of leukocytes in innate (nonspecific) and adaptive immune responses.

13. Which of the following statements best describes granular cells? a. Thrombocytes involved in activating the adaptive immune system upon reinfection. b. A specialized class of leukocytes, which coordinate the activities of adaptive immunity. c. Cells with packets of noxious materials that can be released in an attack against pathogens. d. Involves many cell types and soluble factors and is notable for its long-lasting memory capability. e. Includes a variety of leukocytes, such as monocytes and lymphocytes.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.2 Overview of the Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.2.1 - Describe the three levels of defense in the immune system.

14. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the adaptive immune response? a. Leukocytes involved in phagocytosis that carry out a coordinated local response at the tissue level. b. A specialized class of leukocytes, which attack specific antigens. c. B and T cells are the primary cells for this immune response. d. Involves many cell types and soluble factors and is notable for its long-lasting memory capability. e. Gives rise to a secondary immune response W upWonWp.aT thB ogSeM n. reW -eS xposure.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.2 Overview of the Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.2.1 - Describe the three levels of defense in the immune system.

15. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the innate immune response? a. Leukocytes involved in phagocytosis that carry out a coordinated local response at the tissue level. b. A specialized class of leukocytes, which attack specific antigens. c. B and T cells are the primary cells for this immune response. d. Involves many cell types and soluble factors and is notable for its long-lasting memory capability. e. Gives rise to a secondary immune response upon pathogen re-exposure.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.2 Overview of the Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.2.1 - Describe the three levels of defense in the immune system.

16. Which of the following statements best describes lysozymes? a. An enzyme that destroys bacteria by digesting their cell walls. b. The destruction of debris or pathogens through engulfment. c. An irregularly shaped phagocytic cell that is the most versatile of the phagocytes in the body. d. Granular cells and phagocytic cells that destroy pathogens at a wound site. e. A white viscous material comprised of dead neutrophil debris during infection clearing.

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ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.3 Barrier Defenses and the Innate Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.3.1 - Name surface membrane barriers and describe their physical, chemical, and microbiological mechanisms of defense.

17. Which of the following statements best describes phagocytosis? a. Destruction of certain bacteria by direct digestion of their cell walls. b. The destruction of debris or pathogens through cellular engulfment. c. Process of intracellular removal of destroyed substances. d. The binding of a cytokine to a receptor to activate signal transduction. e. The secretion of various interleukins to activate neighboring leukocytes.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.3 Barrier Defenses and the Innate Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.3.2 - Describe the steps involved in phagocytosis and provide examples of important phagocytic cells in the body.

18. Irregularly shaped phagocytic cells that are the most versatile of the phagocytes in the body are . a. neutrophils b. eosinophils c. macrophages d. basophils e. erythrocytes ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.3 Barrier Defenses and the Innate Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.3.2 - Describe the steps involved in phagocytosis and provide examples of important phagocytic cells in the body.

19. Cells that are considered both granular and phagocytic cells are . a. neutrophils b. eosinophils c. macrophages d. basophils e. erythrocytes ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.3 Barrier Defenses and the Innate Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.3.2 - Describe the steps involved in phagocytosis and provide examples of important phagocytic cells in the body.

20. Which of the following statements best describes pus? a. A cluster of enzymes that destroy bacteria by digesting their cell walls. b. A milky substance secreted from dendritic cells during an infection. c. An increase in interstitial fluid surrounding the injury. d. The excess fluid secreted from local phagocytes during an infection.

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e. A white viscous material comprised of dead neutrophil debris.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.3 Barrier Defenses and the Innate Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.3.5 - Explain how complement and interferon function as antimicrobial chemicals.

21. Which of the following statements best describes a natural killer cell? a. A type of lymphocyte that can induce apoptosis, or programmed cell death, in an infected cell. b. A specialized granulocyte that circulates in the blood during an infection. c. A cell with membrane-bound receptors that recognize characteristic features of a pathogen or molecules released by stressed or damaged cells. d. A cell that secretes cytokines to communicate with other leukocytes over short distances. e. A cell that secretes soluble chemical mediators whose function is to attract cells (chemotaxis) from longer distances.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.3 Barrier Defenses and the Innate Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.3.3 - Describe the functions of natural killer cells.

22. Which of the following statements best describes basophils and eosinophils? a. Types of lymphocytes that can induce apoptosis, or programmed cell death, in an infected cell. b. Specialized granulocytes that circulate in the blood. c. Cells with membrane-bound receptors that rW ecW ogWn. izT eB chSarM ac.teWriS stic features of a pathogen or molecules released by stressed or damaged cells. d. Cells that secrete cytokines to communicate with other leukocytes over short distances. e. Cells that secrete soluble chemical mediators whose function is to attract cells (chemotaxis) from longer distances.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.3 Barrier Defenses and the Innate Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.3.5 - Explain how complement and interferon function as antimicrobial chemicals.

23. Membrane-bound receptors that recognize characteristics of a pathogen or molecules released by stressed or damaged cells are . a. G protein coupled receptors b. nuclear receptors c. pattern recognition receptors d. nicotinic receptors e. tyrosine kinase receptors ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.3 Barrier Defenses and the Innate Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.3.6 - Define diapedesis, chemotaxis, opsonization, and membrane attack complex, and explain their importance for innate defenses.

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24. Which of the following statements best describes a cytokine? a. A type of lymphocyte that can induce apoptosis, or programmed cell death. b. A specialized granulocyte that circulates in the blood. c. An enzyme released during degranulation. d. A signaling molecule that allows cells to communicate with each other over short distances. e. A soluble chemical mediator whose function is to attract cells (chemotaxis) from longer distances.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.3 Barrier Defenses and the Innate Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.3.6 - Define diapedesis, chemotaxis, opsonization, and membrane attack complex, and explain their importance for innate defenses.

25. Which of the following statements best describes chemokine? a. A type of lymphocyte that can induce apoptosis, or programmed cell death. b. A specialized granulocyte that circulates in the blood. c. An enzyme released during degranulation. d. A signaling molecule that allows cells to communicate with each other over short distances. e. A soluble chemical mediator whose function is to attract cells (chemotaxis) from longer distances.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.3 Barrier Defenses and the Innate Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.3.6 - Define diapedesis, chemotaxis, opsonization, and membrane attack complex, and explain their importance for innate defenses.

26. A virus-infected cell will secrete , a group of cytokines to warn its neighbors of the virus. a. interferons b. histamine c. lysozymes d. interleukins e. growth factors ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.3 Barrier Defenses and the Innate Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.3.6 - Define diapedesis, chemotaxis, opsonization, and membrane attack complex, and explain their importance for innate defenses.

27. Which of the following statements is TRUE about opsonization? a. The coating of a pathogen using a group of cytokines to attract phagocytes. b. The tagging of a pathogen for phagocytosis by the binding of an antibody or an antimicrobial protein. c. A series of proteins always found in the blood plasma that when activated will increase phagocytosis. d. Destruction of an antigen during an infection. e. Induces vasodilation by directly relaxing vascular smooth muscle.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.3 Barrier Defenses and the Innate Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.3.6 - Define diapedesis, chemotaxis, opsonization, and membrane attack complex, and explain their importance for innate defenses.

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28. Which of the following statements best describes the complement system? a. The coating of a pathogen using a group of cytokines to attract phagocytes. b. The tagging of a pathogen for phagocytosis by the binding of an antibody or an antimicrobial protein. c. A series of proteins found in the blood plasma that when activated will increase phagocytosis. d. Destruction of an antigen during an infection. e. Induces vasodilation by directly relaxing vascular smooth muscle.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.3 Barrier Defenses and the Innate Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.3.6 - Define diapedesis, chemotaxis, opsonization, and membrane attack complex, and explain their importance for innate defenses.

29. There are four parts to an inflammatory reaction within the body, which of the following is NOT part of the immediate response? a. tissue injury b. vasodilation to the local capillaries c. an increase in vascular permeability d. recruitment of phagocytes e. an increase in adaptive immunity ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.3 Barrier Defenses and the Innate Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.3.8 - SummarizW eWthWe.cT elB lsSaM nd chSemicals involved in the inflammatory process. .W 30. Which of the following statements best describes prostaglandins? a. Coats a pathogen using a group of cytokines to attract phagocytes. b. Tags a pathogen for phagocytosis by the binding of an antibody or an antimicrobial protein. c. A series of proteins found in the blood plasma that when activated will increase phagocytosis. d. Enzymes that destroy an antigen during an infection. e. Induces vasodilation by directly relaxing vascular smooth muscle and can increase pain sensation.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.3 Barrier Defenses and the Innate Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.3.8 - Summarize the cells and chemicals involved in the inflammatory process.

31. The molecules or groups of molecules the body does not recognize as “self” cells, but are recognized by receptors on the surface of B and T lymphocytes are referred to as . a. antigens b. antibodies c. opsonins d. complement proteins e. prostaglandins ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.4 The Adaptive Immune Response

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4.1 - Define antigen, self-antigen, and antigen receptor.

32. Which of the following statements best describes a primary response? a. A local tissue reaction when T cells are brought to the injury. b. The immune system’s first exposure to a pathogen. c. The set of actions made possible by antibodies, secreted proteins of the adaptive immune response. d. A response based on immunological memory. e. A delayed reaction of the immune system.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.4 The Adaptive Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4.1 - Define antigen, self-antigen, and antigen receptor.

33. Which of the following statements best describes the antibody-mediated responses? a. A local tissue reaction when T cells are brought to the injury. b. The immune system’s first exposure to a pathogen. c. The set of actions made possible by antibodies, secreted proteins of the adaptive immune response. d. A neutrophil response at the site of infection. e. A delayed reaction of the immune system.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.4 The Adaptive Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4.1 - Define antigen, self-antigen, and antigen receptor.

34. Which of the following statements best describes the secondary adaptive response? a. A local tissue reaction when macrophages are brought or attracted to the site of injury. b. The immune system’s immediate response to a foreign pathogen. c. When the T cells do not recognize “self” cells and the B cells attack the T cells. d. Re-exposure to a pathogen results in an immediate response from the lymphocytes. e. A delayed reaction of the immune system.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.4 The Adaptive Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4.1 - Define antigen, self-antigen, and antigen receptor.

35. Which of the following statements best describes T cell receptors? a. Receptors located on dendritic cells that activate T cells. b. Enzyme receptors on macrophages that attach to T cells for phagocytosis. c. Antibody receptors on T cells. d. Receptors on “self” cells to ensure T cells do not bind to them. e. Composed of two chains of proteins together with a binding site for antigens.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.4 The Adaptive Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4.4 - Explain the roles of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and provide examples of cells that function as APCs.

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36. Which of the following statements best describes an antigen presenting cell? a. Antigen fragments on the surface of a dendritic cell. b. A cell that attaches to the antigen of a pathogen to present to a B cell. c. Antigens that have been coated with antibodies. d. Cells that eliminate the parasitic pathogen. e. Intact pathogens that have been delivered to the lymph nodes to activate T cells.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.4 The Adaptive Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4.4 - Explain the roles of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and provide examples of cells that function as APCs. 37. Which of the following statements best describes the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)? a. Nuclear proteins from the antigen in the T cell. b. Antigen fragments brought to the cell’s surface by an antigen-presenting cell. c. Another name for a T cell receptor. d. A specific cytokine that acts to enhance other immune responses. e. A complex that kills target cells by inducing apoptosis, using a similar mechanism as NK cells.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.4 The Adaptive Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4.6 - Explain the functions of class I and class II major histocompatibility complex (MHC) prW otWeW in. sT inBaS da veS(specific) immunity.

Mp.tiW 38. Long-lived cells that can persist for decades yet are primed to act rapidly upon re-exposure to an antigen are . a. cytotoxic T cells b. natural killer cells c. memory T cells d. helper T cells e. regulatory T cells ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.4 The Adaptive Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4.10 - Describe the general structure and functions of the various types of lymphocytes (e.g., helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory [suppressor] T cells, B cells, plasma cells, memory cells).

39. Cytokine secretion from a. cytotoxic T cells b. natural killer cells c. memory T cells d. helper T cells e. regulatory T cells ANSWER: DIFFICULTY:

acts to enhance other immune cell responses.

d Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 21.4 The Adaptive Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4.10 - Describe the general structure and functions of the various types of lymphocytes (e.g., helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory [suppressor] T cells, B cells, plasma cells, memory cells).

40. Cells that kill local infected target cells by inducing apoptosis, using a similar mechanism as NK cells. a. cytotoxic T cells b. natural killer cells c. memory T cells d. helper T cells e. regulatory T cells ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.4 The Adaptive Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4.10 - Describe the general structure and functions of the various types of lymphocytes (e.g., helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory [suppressor] T cells, B cells, plasma cells, memory cells).

41.

aid in cessation of the immune response once the threat of infection has passed. a. Cytotoxic T cells b. Natural killer cells c. Memory T cells d. Helper T cells e. Regulatory T cells ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.4 The Adaptive Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4.10 - Describe the general structure and functions of the various types of lymphocytes (e.g., helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory [suppressor] T cells, B cells, plasma cells, memory cells).

42. Which of the following statements best describes antibodies? a. Proteins that are secreted by memory T cells upon reinfection. b. Proteins consisting of four chains of amino acids and decorated with carbohydrates. c. Lipid structures that aid in pathogen digestion. d. Bind to cytotoxic T cells to induce apoptosis in the infected cell. e. Attach to nonspecific antigens within the blood.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.4 The Adaptive Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4.10 - Describe the general structure and functions of the various types of lymphocytes (e.g., helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory [suppressor] T cells, B cells, plasma cells, memory cells).

43. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning active immunity? a. The resistance to pathogens acquired during an adaptive immune response. b. Natural immunity to a pathogen upon entering the body.

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c. An immune response when an individual encounters an antigen and fights against the infection on their own. d. Can be activated during an injection with a vaccine (dead viral proteins). e. Arises from the transfer of antibodies to an individual without requiring them to mount their own active immune response.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.4 The Adaptive Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4.16 - Compare and contrast the anatomical locations and immune responses against different types of pathogens.

44. Which of the following statements best describes passive immunity? a. The resistance to pathogens acquired during an adaptive immune response. b. Natural immunity to a pathogen upon entering the body. c. An immune response when an individual encounters an antigen and fights against the infection on their own. d. Can be activated during an injection with a vaccine (dead viral proteins). e. Arises from the transfer of antibodies to an individual without requiring them to mount their own active immune response.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.4 The Adaptive Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4.16 - Compare and contrast the anatomical locations and immune responses against different types of pathogens.

Essay 45. Describe the major differences between the lymphatic and cardiovascular systems.

ANSWER: A major distinction between the lymphatic and cardiovascular systems in humans is that lymph is not actively pumped by the heart. The pressure that drives lymphatic flow occurs because of the movements of the body, the contraction of skeletal muscles during body movements, and breathing. Lymphatic vessels are studded with one-way valves that prevent backflow, while the lymph moves toward the heart. Lymph flows from the lymphatic capillaries through lymphatic vessels, and then is dumped into the circulatory system via the lymphatic ducts located at the junction of the jugular and subclavian veins in the neck. The cardiovascular system pumps blood through the heart using a pressure system, and contains arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules and veins (which have valves) to drive blood flow through the body.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.1 Anatomy of the Lymphatic and Immune Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.1.1 - Describe the major functions of the lymphatic system.

46. Describe the three major protective phases of the immune system.

ANSWER: The phases of the immune system are grouped in three ways: 1. Barriers such as the skin and mucous membranes, which act instantaneously to prevent pathogenic invasion into the body tissues.

2. The rapid “emergency responders” of the innate immune response. A variety of cells and soluble factors that activate quickly but have limited efficacy.

3. The slower but more specific and effective adaptive immune response, which involves many cell types and soluble factors and is notable for its long-lasting memory capability.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 21.3 Barrier Defenses and the Innate Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.2.1 - Describe the three levels of defense in the immune system.

47. Describe the benefits of a fever in response to an infection.

ANSWER: Fever has several benefits. Generally, the increased temperature can interfere with replication of bacteria and viruses as well as increase interferon activity to help cells protect themselves against viral infection. Because all chemical reactions take place faster at higher temperatures, the enzymes required to produce and release cytokines can work faster. Fever also increases the binding of iron to its transport and storage proteins, making it less available in the fluids of the body. A reduction of iron in the blood inhibits bacterial replication and lifespan. If it is safe and can be tolerated, allowing a patient to endure a fever may limit the duration of the infection.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.2 Overview of the Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.3.11 - Explain the benefits of fever.

48. Describe the mechanisms of T cell-mediated immune responses.

ANSWER: Mature T cells become activated upon recognition of a processed foreign antigen protein in association with an MHC molecule. This MHC recognition induces mitosis, creating many new identical T cell clones in a short period of time. This proliferation of T cells, called clonal expansion, is necessary for an immune response strong enough to control a pathogen effectively. The specificity of a T cell is based on the amino acid sequence and the threedimensional shape of the antigen-binding site formed by the variable regions of the two chains of the T cell receptor. Clonal selection is the process of antigen binding only to those T cells that have receptors specific to that antigen. Each T cell that is activated has a specific receptor “hard-wired” into its DNA, and all of its progeny will have identical DNA and T cell receptors,WfW orW m. inT gB clS onMe. s oWf S the original T cell. By the time this process is complete, the body will have large numbers of specific lymphocytes available to fight the infection.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.4 The Adaptive Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4.9 - Compare and contrast the mechanisms of antigen challenge and the clonal selection processes of B and T cells, including effector cells, helper cells, memory cells, and important cytokines.

49. Describe the structure of antibodies.

ANSWER: Antibodies are proteins consisting of four chains of amino acids and decorated with carbohydrates. The two heavy chains and the two light chains form the antibody. The antigen-binding sites are composed of antibodies from both the heavy chain and the light chain. There are five different styles of antibodies that are slightly different in structure and function but mainly different in the time and location in which they are found. All antibody molecules have a Y-shape; the base of the Y is known as the Fc region. The Fc region of the antibody is formed by the two heavy chains coming together. The Fc portion of the antibody is important in that many cells of the immune system have Fc receptors. Cells having these receptors can then bind to antibody-coated pathogens and phagocytose or destroy them. At the other end of the molecule are two identical antigen-binding sites.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 21.4 The Adaptive Immune Response LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 21.4.13 - Describe antibody structure.

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Chapter 22 - The Respiratory System Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following statements best describes the upper respiratory tract? a. Anatomical structures within the head and neck. b. Anatomical structures in the thorax. c. Anatomical structures of the lungs. d. Includes the bronchi and the alveoli. e. Refers to the nasal cavity.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and Anatomy of the Respiratory System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.3 - Identify the anatomical division of the upper versus lower respiratory tract.

2. Which of the following statements best describes the lower respiratory tract? a. Anatomical structures within the head and neck. b. Anatomical structures in the thorax. c. Anatomical structures of the lungs. d. Includes the bronchi and the alveoli. e. Refers to the nasal cavity.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions anW dW An thW eS Respiratory System Wa.toTmBySoMf .

LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.3 - Identify the anatomical division of the upper versus lower respiratory tract.

3. Which of the following statements best describes the dorsum nasi? a. The opening into the nasal cavity. b. The cartilage that makes up the tip of the nose. c. The length of the nose. d. The concave surface that connects the apex of the nose to the upper lip. e. A pair of bones that lies on the superior aspect of the nose, inferior to the bridge.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and Anatomy of the Respiratory System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.3 - Identify the anatomical division of the upper versus lower respiratory tract.

4. Which of the following statements best describes the philtrum? a. The opening into the nasal cavity. b. The cartilage that makes up the tip of the nose. c. The length of the nose. d. The concave surface that connects the apex of the nose to the upper lip. e. A pair of bones that lies on the superior aspect of the nose, inferior to the bridge.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and Anatomy of the Respiratory System

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.3 - Identify the anatomical division of the upper versus lower respiratory tract.

5. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the pharynx? a. Another term for the throat. b. Has three anatomical separations, the nasopharynx, the oropharynx, and the laryngopharynx. c. Continuous with the nasal cavities. d. A tube formed by skeletal muscle and lined by mucous membrane. e. Contains the vocal folds, or the vocal cords for sound production.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and Anatomy of the Respiratory System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.3 - Identify the anatomical division of the upper versus lower respiratory tract.

6. Which of the following statements best describes the nasopharynx? a. The pharynx posterior to the nasal cavities. b. The pharynx posterior to the epiglottis. c. Continues the route for ingested material and air until its inferior end. d. An anatomical structure that both the respiratory and digestive system share. e. Contains the vocal folds, or the vocal cords for sound production.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and Anatomy of the Respiratory System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.5 - Describe the major functions, gross anatomical features, and epithelial BrS WlSsinuses, and pharynx. lining of the nasal W caWvW ity., T pa anMa.sa 7. Which of the following statements best describes the oropharynx? a. The pharynx posterior to the nasal cavities. b. The pharynx posterior to the epiglottis. c. Continues the route for ingested material and air until its inferior end. d. An anatomical structure that both the respiratory and digestive system share. e. Contains the vocal folds, or the vocal cords for sound production.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and Anatomy of the Respiratory System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.5 - Describe the major functions, gross anatomical features, and epithelial lining of the nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, and pharynx.

8. Which of the following statements best describes the laryngopharynx? a. The pharynx posterior to the nasal cavities. b. The pharynx posterior to the epiglottis. c. Continues the route for ingested material and air until its inferior end. d. An anatomical structure that both the respiratory and digestive system share. e. Contains the vocal folds, or the vocal cords for sound production.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and Anatomy of the Respiratory System

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.5 - Describe the major functions, gross anatomical features, and epithelial lining of the nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, and pharynx.

9. Which of the following statements best describes the thyroid cartilage? a. Covers the glottis during swallowing to ensure food does not enter the trachea. b. The only bone in the body that does not articulate with another bone. c. The only complete ring that encompasses the trachea. d. The largest cartilaginous structure that makes up the larynx. e. Functions to control the vocal cords.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and Anatomy of the Respiratory System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.5 - Describe the major functions, gross anatomical features, and epithelial lining of the nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, and pharynx.

10. Which of the following statements best describes the role of the arytenoids, the corniculates, and the cuneiforms? a. Covers the glottis during swallowing to ensure food does not enter the trachea. b. The only bone in the body that does not articulate with another bone. c. The only complete ring that encompasses the trachea. d. The largest cartilaginous structure that makes up the larynx. e. Functions to control the vocal cords.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and An thW eS Respiratory System WW Wa.toTmBySoMf .

LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.5 - Describe the major functions, gross anatomical features, and epithelial lining of the nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, and pharynx.

11. Which of the following statements best describes the trachea? a. Extends from the larynx toward the lungs, providing a passageway for air into the thorax. b. Provides a passageway for air to move into and out of each lung. c. A cluster of vessels that enter/leave at the same location on the medial surface of the lung. d. Where the lungs and the blood exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide during the process of breathing. e. A rigid structure that lies posterior to the esophagus.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and Anatomy of the Respiratory System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.10 - Describe the major functions of the trachea.

12. Which of the following statements best describes the bronchi? a. Extends from the larynx toward the lungs, providing a passageway for air into the thorax. b. Provides a passageway for air to move into and out of each lung. c. A cluster of vessels that enter/leave at the same location on the medial surface of the lung. d. Where the lungs and the blood exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide during the process of breathing. e. A rigid structure that lies posterior to the esophagus.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and Anatomy of the Respiratory System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.13 - Identify and describe the anatomic features of the bronchial tree (e.g., main [primary] bronchi, lobar [secondary] bronchi, segmental [tertiary] bronchi, smaller bronchi, bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli).

13. The hilum of the lung provides a passageway into and out of the lungs for many structures. Which of the following structures does NOT pass through the hilum of the lung? a. bronchi b. pulmonary blood vessels c. systemic blood vessels d. lymphatic vessels and nerves e. alveoli ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and Anatomy of the Respiratory System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.13 - Identify and describe the anatomic features of the bronchial tree (e.g., main [primary] bronchi, lobar [secondary] bronchi, segmental [tertiary] bronchi, smaller bronchi, bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli).

14. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the alveoli? a. The primary site for gas exchange within the lungs during breathing. b. Contains type II alveolar cells that produce surfactant. c. Are a single cell layer thick. d. They are part of the conducting zone within the thorax. e. They are highly vascularized and many capillaries surround them.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and Anatomy of the Respiratory System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.13 - Identify and describe the anatomic features of the bronchial tree (e.g., main [primary] bronchi, lobar [secondary] bronchi, segmental [tertiary] bronchi, smaller bronchi, bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli).

15. Which of the following statements best describes the bronchioles? a. Branching of the trachea at the carina. b. Provides a passageway for air to move into and out of each hilum of the lung. c. The primary site of gas exchange within the lungs. d. The vessels that supply blood to the lungs. e. Smaller vessels branching from the smallest bronchi.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and Anatomy of the Respiratory System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.13 - Identify and describe the anatomic features of the bronchial tree (e.g., main [primary] bronchi, lobar [secondary] bronchi, segmental [tertiary] bronchi, smaller bronchi, bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli).

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16. Which of the following statements best describes type I alveolar cell? a. A squamous epithelial cell that makes up the walls of the alveoli. b. Cell within the lung that secretes pulmonary surfactant. c. Phagocytic cell interspersed among cells of the lungs that remove debris and pathogens. d. Cell that makes up a serous membrane that surrounds each lung. e. Cell that lines the lung fissures.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and Anatomy of the Respiratory System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.13 - Identify and describe the anatomic features of the bronchial tree (e.g., main [primary] bronchi, lobar [secondary] bronchi, segmental [tertiary] bronchi, smaller bronchi, bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli).

17. Which of the following statements best describes type II alveolar cell? a. A squamous epithelial cell that makes up the walls of the alveoli. b. Cell within the lung that secretes pulmonary surfactant. c. Phagocytic cell interspersed among cells of the lungs that remove debris and pathogens. d. Cell that makes up a serous membrane that surrounds each lung. e. Cell that lines the lung fissures.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions anW dW An thW eS Respiratory System Wa.toTmBySoMf .

LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.13 - Identify and describe the anatomic features of the bronchial tree (e.g., main [primary] bronchi, lobar [secondary] bronchi, segmental [tertiary] bronchi, smaller bronchi, bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli).

18. Which of the following statements best describes alveolar macrophages? a. A squamous epithelial cell that makes up the walls of the alveoli. b. Cell within the lung that secretes pulmonary surfactant. c. Phagocytic cell interspersed among cells of the lungs that remove debris and pathogens. d. Cell that makes up a serous membrane that surrounds each lung. e. Cell that lines the lung fissures.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and Anatomy of the Respiratory System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.13 - Identify and describe the anatomic features of the bronchial tree (e.g., main [primary] bronchi, lobar [secondary] bronchi, segmental [tertiary] bronchi, smaller bronchi, bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli).

19. Which of the following statements best describes the parietal pleura? a. Cellular sheet that makes up the walls of the alveoli. b. Interspersed among the type I cells and secretes pulmonary surfactant. c. Phagocytic cells of the immune system that remove debris and pathogens. d. A serous membrane that lies along the thoracic walls.

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e. The layer that directly touches the surface of the lungs, and extends into and lines the lung fissures.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and Anatomy of the Respiratory System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.17 - Compare and contrast the gross anatomic features of the left and right lungs, and explain the reasons for these differences.

20. Which of the following statements best describes the visceral pleura? a. Cellular sheet that makes up the walls of the alveoli. b. Interspersed among the type I cells and secretes pulmonary surfactant. c. Phagocytic cells of the immune system that remove debris and pathogens. d. A serous membrane that lies along the thoracic walls. e. The layer that directly touches the surface of the lungs, and extends into and lines the lung fissures.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and Anatomy of the Respiratory System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.17 - Compare and contrast the gross anatomic features of the left and right lungs, and explain the reasons for these differences.

21. The three lobes of the right lung are . a. the superior lobe, the middle lobe, and the inferior lobe b. the horizontal lobe, the middle lobe, and the vertical lobe c. the internal lobe, the middle lobe, and the external lobe erWlo.bT e BSM.WS d. the greater lobe, the inferior lobe, and the lesWsW e. the greater lobe, the middle lobe, and the lesser lobe ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and Anatomy of the Respiratory System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.17 - Compare and contrast the gross anatomic features of the left and right lungs, and explain the reasons for these differences.

22. The two lobes of the left lung are . a. the superior lobe and the middle lobe b. the horizontal lobe and the vertical lobe c. the internal lobe and external lobe d. the greater lobe and the lesser lobe e. the superior lobe and the inferior lobe ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and Anatomy of the Respiratory System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.17 - Compare and contrast the gross anatomic features of the left and right lungs, and explain the reasons for these differences.

23. Pulmonary ventilation is the act of breathing and there are many mechanisms important for driving ventilation. Which of the following mechanisms do NOT drive ventilation? a. arterial pressure b. atmospheric pressure

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c. intrapulmonary pressure d. intra-alveolar pressure e. intrapleural pressure ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.2 The Process of Breathing LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.2.2 - Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration (inhalation), and expiration (exhalation).

24. The pressure within the alveoli is called . a. arterial pressure b. atmospheric pressure c. intrapulmonary pressure d. intra-alveolar pressure e. intrapleural pressure ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.2 The Process of Breathing LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.2.2 - Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration (inhalation), and expiration (exhalation).

25. The pressure within the pleural cavity, between the two pleural membranes is . a. arterial pressure b. atmospheric pressure c. intrapulmonary pressure d. intra-alveolar pressure e. intrapleural pressure ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.2 The Process of Breathing LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.2.2 - Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration (inhalation), and expiration (exhalation).

26.

occurs when the external intercostal muscles contract, pulling the ribs up and expanding laterally. a. Vital capacity b. Ventilation c. Tidal volume d. Inspiration e. Expiration ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.2 The Process of Breathing LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.2.2 - Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration (inhalation), and expiration (exhalation).

27. The external intercostal muscle relaxes and the ribs return to their resting position during a. vital capacity

.

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b. ventilation c. tidal volume d. inspiration e. expiration ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.2 The Process of Breathing LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.2.2 - Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration (inhalation), and expiration (exhalation).

28. Which of the following statements best describes tidal volume? a. The amount of air that normally enters the lungs during quiet breathing. b. The amount of air you can forcefully exhale past a normal tidal expiration. c. The extra volume that can be brought into the lungs during a forced inspiration. d. The air left in the lungs if you exhale as much air as possible. e. The amount of air that remains in the lung after a normal tidal expiration.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.3 Respiratory Volumes and Capacities LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.3.1 - Define, identify, and determine values for the pulmonary volumes (inspiratory reserve volume [IRV], tidal volume [TV], expiratory reserve volume [ERV], and residual volume [RV]) and the pulmonary capacities (inspiratory capacity [IC], functional residual capacity [FRC], vital capacity [VC], and total lung capacity [TLC]).

29. Which of the following statements best describes expiratory reserve volume? a. The amount of air that normally enters the lungs during quiet breathing. b. The amount of air you can forcefully exhale past a normal tidal expiration. c. The extra volume that can be brought into the lungs during a forced inspiration. d. The air left in the lungs if you exhale as much air as possible. e. The amount of air that remains in the lung after a normal tidal expiration.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.3 Respiratory Volumes and Capacities LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.3.1 - Define, identify, and determine values for the pulmonary volumes (inspiratory reserve volume [IRV], tidal volume [TV], expiratory reserve volume [ERV], and residual volume [RV]) and the pulmonary capacities (inspiratory capacity [IC], functional residual capacity [FRC], vital capacity [VC], and total lung capacity [TLC]).

30. Which of the following statements best describes inspiratory reserve volume? a. The amount of air that normally enters the lungs during quiet breathing. b. The amount of air you can forcefully exhale past a normal tidal expiration. c. The extra volume that can be brought into the lungs during a forced inspiration. d. The air left in the lungs if you exhale as much air as possible. e. The amount of air that remains in the lung after a normal tidal expiration.

ANSWER: c

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.3 Respiratory Volumes and Capacities LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.3.1 - Define, identify, and determine values for the pulmonary volumes (inspiratory reserve volume [IRV], tidal volume [TV], expiratory reserve volume [ERV], and residual volume [RV]) and the pulmonary capacities (inspiratory capacity [IC], functional residual capacity [FRC], vital capacity [VC], and total lung capacity [TLC]).

31. Which of the following statements best describes residual volume? a. The amount of air that normally enters the lungs during quiet breathing. b. The amount of air you can forcefully exhale past a normal tidal expiration. c. The extra volume that can be brought into the lungs during a forced inspiration. d. The air left in the lungs if you exhale as much air as possible. e. The amount of air that remains in the lung after a normal tidal expiration.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.3 Respiratory Volumes and Capacities LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.3.1 - Define, identify, and determine values for the pulmonary volumes (inspiratory reserve volume [IRV], tidal volume [TV], expiratory reserve volume [ERV], and residual volume [RV]) and the pulmonary capacities (inspiratory capacity [IC], functional residual capacity [FRC], vital capacity [VC], and total lung capacity [TLC]).

32. Which of the following statements best describes functional residual capacity? a. The amount of air that normally enters the luWnW gsWd. urTinBgSqM ui. etWbrSeathing. b. The amount of air you can forcefully exhale past a normal tidal expiration. c. The extra volume that can be brought into the lungs during a forced inspiration. d. The air left in the lungs if you exhale as much air as possible. e. The amount of air that remains in the lung after a normal tidal expiration.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.3 Respiratory Volumes and Capacities LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.3.1 - Define, identify, and determine values for the pulmonary volumes (inspiratory reserve volume [IRV], tidal volume [TV], expiratory reserve volume [ERV], and residual volume [RV]) and the pulmonary capacities (inspiratory capacity [IC], functional residual capacity [FRC], vital capacity [VC], and total lung capacity [TLC]).

33. Boyle’s law states that gas volume is . a. directly proportional to pressure b. directly proportional to temperature c. inversely proportional to pressure d. inversely proportional to temperature e. dependent on atmospheric pressure ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.4 Gas Exchange LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.4.1 - Explain the relationship between the total pressure of gases in a mixture

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and the partial pressure of an individual gas (i.e., Dalton’s Law).

34. Dalton’s Law states that . a. pressure of a gas does not contribute to the overall pressure b. each of the component gasses contributes pressure to the total gas mixture c. gasses will dissolve in liquids according to their solubility and concentration gradients d. the rate of diffusion is based on the available surface area, the concentration gradient, the permeability of the molecule to the membrane, and the membrane thickness e. ventilation is dependent on temperature and atmospheric pressure ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.4 Gas Exchange LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.4.1 - Explain the relationship between the total pressure of gases in a mixture and the partial pressure of an individual gas (i.e., Dalton’s Law).

35. Henry’s Law states that . a. pressure of a gas does not contribute to the overall pressure b. each of the component gasses contributes pressure to the total gas mixture c. gasses will dissolve in liquids according to their solubility and concentration gradients d. the rate of diffusion is based on the available surface area, the concentration gradient, the permeability of the molecule to the membrane, and the membrane thickness e. ventilation is dependent on temperature and atmospheric pressure ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand WWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 22.4 Gas Exchange LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.4.2 - Explain the relationship between the partial pressure of a gas in air, the solubility of that gas in water, and the amount of the gas that can dissolve in water.

36. Fick’s Law states that . a. pressure of a gas does not contribute to the overall pressure b. each of the component gasses contributes pressure to the total gas mixture c. gasses will dissolve in liquids according to their solubility and concentration gradients d. the rate of diffusion is based on the available surface area, the concentration gradient, the permeability of the molecule to the membrane, and the membrane thickness e. ventilation is dependent on temperature and atmospheric pressure ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.4 Gas Exchange LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.4.2 - Explain the relationship between the partial pressure of a gas in air, the solubility of that gas in water, and the amount of the gas that can dissolve in water.

37. The respiratory system integrates with the cardiovascular system to transport gases. Which of the following statements best describes hemoglobin? a. A complex protein which binds to oxygen in the presence of iron. b. A lipid molecule that binds oxygen at the lungs to be transported to the tissue. c. A glycoprotein that binds oxygen in the presence of glucose at the lungs. d. A small peptide which primarily binds to carbon dioxide at the tissue to get rid of it in the lungs.

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e. An enzyme carried in red blood cells, combines carbon dioxide and water to form carbonic acid (H2CO3), which dissociates into two ions: bicarbonate (HCO-) and hydrogen (H+).

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.5 Transport of Gasses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.5.1 - Describe the ways in which oxygen is transported in blood, and explain the relative importance of each to total oxygen transport.

38. The majority of carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as . a. solutes dissolved in plasma b. bicarbonate ions c. carbaminohemoglobin d. solutes dissolved in cytoplasm of erythrocytes e. carbonic acid ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.5 Transport of Gasses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.5.1 - Describe the ways in which oxygen is transported in blood, and explain the relative importance of each to total oxygen transport.

39. Which of the following statements best describes ventilation perfusion? a. The movement of air in and out of the lungs. b. The volume of air needed for each inhalation. c. The flow of blood in the pulmonary capillarW iesWtW o. enTsuBreStM he.aWlvSeoli can exchange oxygen. d. The release of carbon dioxide into the alveolar space during exhalation. e. The increase in oxygen concentration during inhalation.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.5 Transport of Gasses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.5.1 - Describe the ways in which oxygen is transported in blood, and explain the relative importance of each to total oxygen transport.

40. Which of the following statements best describes the Bohr effect? a. Hemoglobin’s increased affinity for oxygen at lower pH levels. b. Hemoglobin’s decreased affinity for oxygen at the lungs. c. Hemoglobin’s increased affinity for carbon dioxide at lower pH levels. d. Hemoglobin’s increased affinity for oxygen at higher pH levels. e. Hemoglobin’s decreased affinity for carbon dioxide at higher pH levels.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.5 Transport of Gasses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.5.6 - Explain the role of each of the following in carbon dioxide transport: carbonic anhydrase, hydrogen ions binding to hemoglobin, the chloride shift, and oxygen-hemoglobin saturation level.

41. Which of the following statements best describes carbonic anhydrase? a. A complex protein which, due to the iron found inside, is able to bind oxygen.

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b. An enzyme that aids in oxygen dissociation from hemoglobin. c. An enzyme that increases the strength and length of the molecular interaction between oxygen and hemoglobin. d. An enzyme that lowers blood pH to decrease the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. e. An enzyme in red blood cells that combines carbon dioxide and water to ultimately form bicarbonate (HCO-) and hydrogen (H+).

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.5 Transport of Gasses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.5.6 - Explain the role of each of the following in carbon dioxide transport: carbonic anhydrase, hydrogen ions binding to hemoglobin, the chloride shift, and oxygen-hemoglobin saturation level.

42. Which of the following statements best describes the respiratory rate? a. The total number of breaths that occur each minute. b. The volume of air into the lungs during inhalation. c. The volume of air out of the lungs during exhalation. d. The amount of blood that passes through the lungs each minute. e. The amount of oxygen that is transported to the tissue with each breath.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.6 Respiratory Rate and Control of Ventilation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.6.1 - Describe the locations and functions of the brainstem respiratory centers.

43. Which of the following statements best describes the dorsal respiratory group and the ventral respiratory group? a. Ventilation control centers found in the medulla oblongata. b. Structures in the cerebellum that innervate the muscles for breathing. c. A cluster of neurons in the midbrain important for sending signals to the heart to control heart rate. d. A network of neurons that inhibits neuronal activity in the DRG, allowing relaxation after inspiration. e. Neurons in the brainstem sensitive to hemoglobin levels within the blood.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.6 Respiratory Rate and Control of Ventilation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.6.1 - Describe the locations and functions of the brainstem respiratory centers.

44. A cluster of neuronal cell bodies that stimulate neurons in the DRG to control depth of inspiration (deep breathing) is the . a. pneumotaxic center b. ventral respiratory group c. apneustic center d. midbrain e. cerebellum ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.6 Respiratory Rate and Control of Ventilation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.6.1 - Describe the locations and functions of the brainstem respiratory centers.

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Essay 45. Describe the process by which oxygenated and deoxygenated blood travels throughout the lungs.

ANSWER: The major function of the lungs is to perform gas exchange between the air in the alveoli and the blood within the pulmonary capillaries. Deoxygenated blood travels from the right ventricle to the lungs through the left and right pulmonary arteries, which are two branches off the pulmonary trunk. The right pulmonary artery enters the right lung at the hilum and its many branches carry deoxygenated blood to the alveoli. Capillary beds surround the alveoli and gas exchange takes place across the respiratory membrane, oxygen moves into the capillary and carbon dioxide exits the capillary. A pulmonary venule drains the capillary bed and carries the now-oxygenated blood through the pulmonary veins, which exit the lungs through the hilum and carries the oxygenated blood to the left side of the heart.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.1 Functions and Anatomy of the Respiratory System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.1.1 - Describe the major functions of the respiratory system.

46. Discuss the general process of breathing, include the four categories of respiration and respiratory system function that was mentioned in the textbook.

ANSWER: (1) Ventilation: the movement of air in and out of the lungs, due to pressure and volume changes within the thoracic cavity.

(2) Gas Exchange across the Respiratory Membrane: oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the respiratory membrane (at the alveoli) according to their concentration gradients, moving from the air-filled alveoli to the blood-filled pulmonary capillaries.

(3) Gas Transport: the movement of gasses within the blood around the body. Oxygen binds and travels through the blood primary bound to hemoglobin, while carbon dioxide primarily travels thrW ouWgW h. thT e bBloSoM d. asWbSicarbonate ions (4) Gas Exchange: between the blood and the tissues; at the tissue itself. Oxygen moves into the tissue to be used for cellular respiration and carbon dioxide enters the blood because it is a waste product.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 22.2 The Process of Breathing LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.2.1 - Describe the processes associated with the respiratory system (i.e., ventilation, pulmonary gas exchange [gas exchange between alveoli and blood], transport of gases in blood, tissue gas exchange [gas exchange between blood and body tissues]).

47. Define Boyle’s Law then explain its relevance to the process of ventilation, inspiration and expiration.

ANSWER: Boyle’s law indicates that the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to the volume of the container that the gas is in. During inhalation, the thoracic cavity increases in size (expands), this is indicative of an increase in volume. According to Boyle’s law, when volume increases, pressure decreases. Thus, during inhalation intra-alveolar pressure decreases and is lower than atmospheric pressure, allowing air to flow into the thorax from the atmosphere (down its pressure gradient). The opposite occurs during expiration; as the thoracic cavity volume decreases, air pressure inside the lungs increases. Eventually, this pressure exceeds the atmospheric pressure and air flows out of the lungs, down its pressure gradient.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand or Remember REFERENCES: 22.2 The Process of Breathing LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.2.5 - Explain the inverse relationship between gas pressure and volume of the gas (i.e., Boyle’s Law) and apply this relationship to explain airflow during inspiration and expiration.

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48. Describe respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) and its primary causes.

ANSWER: Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) primarily occurs in infants born prematurely. Up to 50 percent of infants born between 26 and 28 weeks, and fewer than 30 percent of infants born between 30 and 31 weeks, develop RDS. RDS results from insufficient production of pulmonary surfactant, thereby preventing the lungs from properly inflating at birth. A small amount of pulmonary surfactant is produced beginning at around 20 weeks; however, this is not sufficient for inflation of the lungs. As a result, dyspnea occurs, and gas exchange cannot be performed properly. Blood oxygen levels are low, while blood carbon dioxide levels and pH are high.

The primary cause of RDS is premature birth, which may occur because of a variety of known or unknown causes. Other risk factors include gestational diabetes, cesarean delivery, second-born twins, and family history of RDS. The presence of RDS can lead to other serious disorders, such as septicemia (infection of the blood) or pulmonary hemorrhage. Therefore, it is important that RDS is immediately recognized and treated to prevent death and reduce the risk of developing other disorders.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 22.2 The Process of Breathing LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.2.9 - Describe the forces that tend to collapse the lungs and those that normally oppose or prevent collapse (e.g., elastic recoil of the lung versus subatmospheric intrapleural pressure).

49. Explain how the process of gas exchange occurs at the tissue.

ANSWER: Gasses flow according to their partial pressure gradients. Red blood cells passing through tissue capillaries are generally higher in oxygen content (high oxygen concentration on hemoglobin) compared to the tissue itself. At the tissue, oxygen will then dissociate from hemoglobin and diffW usWeWin.toTtB heStiMss.uW e bSecause the tissue has a lower oxygen concentration. It flows along its concentration gradient to reach the mitochondria to then be consumed. On the contrary, carbon dioxide is at its highest concentration in the mitochondria (i.e., tissue level) because the process of cellular respiration will increase carbon dioxide concentration at the tissue level. Carbon dioxide will diffuse down its concentration gradient, from the tissue to the blood, and it is either converted to carbonic acid or carried in its CO2 form.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 22.5 Transport of Gasses LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 22.5.1 - Describe the ways in which oxygen is transported in blood, and explain the relative importance of each to total oxygen transport.

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Chapter 23 - The Digestive System Multiple Choice 1. The organs of the gastrointestinal tract include all the following organs EXCEPT . a. the liver b. the small intestine c. the stomach d. the esophagus e. the large intestine ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.1 Overview of the Digestive System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.1.3 - List and identify the organs that compose the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.

2. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the digestive system? a. Each of the GI organs has its own function and contributes to the breakdown of food and absorption of nutrients. b. It is composed of the GI tract and the accessory digestive organs. c. Accessory organs include the liver, pancreas, gallbladder, salivary glands, and spleen. d. Consists of a tubing from mouth to anus. e. Organs within the digestive system have endocrine cells that secrete hormones.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand WWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 23.1 Overview of the Digestive System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.1.3 - List and identify the organs that compose the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.

3. Which of the following is/are NOT considered an accessory organ within the digestive system? a. liver b. pancreas c. kidneys d. gallbladder e. salivary glands ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.1 Overview of the Digestive System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.1.3 - List and identify the organs that compose the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.

4. Which of the following statements best describes the submucosa? a. Rich with blood and lymphatic vessels and contains some submucosal glands that release digestive secretions. b. Contractions of these layers propel food along the tract and function to mix and churn the digested food. c. The outermost layer of the alimentary canal that serves to hold the GI organs in place near the vertebral column. d. Consists of a layer of connective tissue that helps to hold bigger arteries, veins, and nerves to the GI tract wall. e. Partially digested liquid food from the stomach into the small intestine.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 23.2 General Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Gastrointestinal (GI) Tract LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.2.1 - Identify and describe the gross anatomic and microscopic structure and function of each of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract tunics (layers): mucosa, submucosa, muscularis (muscularis externa), and serosa or adventitia.

5. Which of the following statements best describes the muscularis? a. Rich with blood and lymphatic vessels and contains some submucosal glands that release digestive secretions. b. Contractions of these layers propel food along the tract and function to mix and churn the digested food. c. The outermost layer of the alimentary canal that serves to hold the GI organs in place near the vertebral column. d. Consists of a layer of connective tissue that helps to hold bigger arteries, veins, and nerves to the GI tract wall. e. Partially digested liquid food from the stomach into the small intestine.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.2 General Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Gastrointestinal (GI) Tract LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.2.1 - Identify and describe the gross anatomic and microscopic structure and function of each of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract tunics (layers): mucosa, submucosa, muscularis (muscularis externa), and serosa or adventitia.

6. Which of the following statements best describes peristalsis? a. The movement of fluids and solutes from the GI tract into the blood capillaries. b. Stimulation of hormones from the GI tract into the blood. c. Sequential, alternating waves of contraction and relaxation of two muscularis layers that function to propel food along the tract. d. Consists of a layer of connective tissue that W heW lpW s. toThB olS dM bi. ggWeS r arteries, veins, and nerves to the GI tract wall. e. Serves to hold these organs of the GI tract in place near the vertebral column.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.2 General Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Gastrointestinal (GI) Tract LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.2.1 - Identify and describe the gross anatomic and microscopic structure and function of each of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract tunics (layers): mucosa, submucosa, muscularis (muscularis externa), and serosa or adventitia.

7. Which of the following statements best describes the serosa? a. Rich with blood and lymphatic vessels and contains some submucosal glands that release digestive secretions. b. Contractions of these layers propel food along the tract and function to mix and churn the digested food. c. The outermost layer of the alimentary canal that serves to hold the GI organs in place near the vertebral column. d. Consists of a layer of connective tissue that helps to hold bigger arteries, veins, and nerves to the GI tract wall. e. Partially digested liquid food from the stomach into the small intestine.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.2 General Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Gastrointestinal (GI) Tract LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.2.1 - Identify and describe the gross anatomic and microscopic structure and function of each of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract tunics (layers): mucosa, submucosa, muscularis (muscularis externa), and serosa or adventitia.

8. Which of the following statements best describes the adventitia?

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a. Rich with blood and lymphatic vessels and contains some submucosal glands that release digestive secretions. b. Contractions of these layers propel food along the tract and function to mix and churn the digested food. c. The outermost layer of the alimentary canal that serves to hold the GI organs in place near the vertebral column. d. Consists of a layer of connective tissue that helps to hold bigger arteries, veins, and nerves to the GI tract wall. e. Partially digested liquid food from the stomach into the small intestine.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.2 General Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Gastrointestinal (GI) Tract LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.2.1 - Identify and describe the gross anatomic and microscopic structure and function of each of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract tunics (layers): mucosa, submucosa, muscularis (muscularis externa), and serosa or adventitia.

9. The enteric nervous system . a. consists of a network of nerves that connects the GI tract organs b. specifically lies in the muscularis layer and is responsible for motility and movement of food through the GI tract c. specifically lies in the submucosal layer and is responsible for regulating digestive secretions and reacting to the presence of food d. a network of nerves that lines the abdominal wall e. is part of the somatic nervous system to control the GI tract ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.2 General Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Gastrointestinal (GI) Tract

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.2.4 - Describe the enteric nervous system (ENS) and explain its role in controlling digestive system function.

10. The myenteric plexus . a. consists of a network of nerves that connects the GI tract organs b. specifically lies in the muscularis layer and is responsible for motility and movement of food through the GI tract c. specifically lies in the submucosal layer and is responsible for regulating digestive secretions and reacting to the presence of food d. a network of nerves that lines the abdominal wall e. is part of the somatic nervous system to control the GI tract ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.2 General Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Gastrointestinal (GI) Tract LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.2.5 - Identify and describe the location, structure, and function of the visceral and parietal peritoneum, serous fluid, and the peritoneal cavity.

11. The submucosal plexus . a. consists of a network of nerves that connects the GI tract organs b. specifically lies in the muscularis layer and is responsible for motility and movement of food through the GI tract c. specifically lies in the submucosal layer and is responsible for regulating digestive secretions and reacting to the presence of food d. is a network of nerves that lines the abdominal wall

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e. is part of the somatic nervous system to control the GI tract ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.2 General Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Gastrointestinal (GI) Tract LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.2.5 - Identify and describe the location, structure, and function of the visceral and parietal peritoneum, serous fluid, and the peritoneal cavity.

12. The is a serous membrane that lines the abdominal wall. a. parietal pleura b. parietal pleura c. visceral perineum d. parietal peritoneum e. visceral peritoneum ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.2 General Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Gastrointestinal (GI) Tract LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.2.5 - Identify and describe the location, structure, and function of the visceral and parietal peritoneum, serous fluid, and the peritoneal cavity.

13. The is a serous membrane that covers and envelops the abdominal organs. a. parietal pleura b. parietal pleura c. visceral perineum d. parietal peritoneum e. visceral peritoneum ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.2 General Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Gastrointestinal (GI) Tract LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.2.5 - Identify and describe the location, structure, and function of the visceral and parietal peritoneum, serous fluid, and the peritoneal cavity.

14. Which of the following statements best describes the lesser omentum? a. A vertical mesentery sheet that connects the inferior edge of the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach. b. Mesentery that hangs down from the greater curvature of the stomach like a curtain, covering the intestines. c. A mesentery sheet that anchors a portion of the large intestine. d. Connects the small intestine to the posterior wall of the abdominal cavity. e. A small space behind the peritoneum where the kidneys reside.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.2 General Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Gastrointestinal (GI) Tract LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.2.5 - Identify and describe the location, structure, and function of the visceral and parietal peritoneum, serous fluid, and the peritoneal cavity.

15. Which of the following statements best describes the greater omentum? a. A vertical mesentery sheet that connects the inferior edge of the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach. b. Mesentery that hangs down from the greater curvature of the stomach like a curtain, covering the intestines. c. A mesentery sheet that anchors a portion of the large intestine.

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d. Connects the small intestine to the posterior wall of the abdominal cavity. e. A small space behind the peritoneum where the kidneys reside.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.2 General Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Gastrointestinal (GI) Tract LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.2.5 - Identify and describe the location, structure, and function of the visceral and parietal peritoneum, serous fluid, and the peritoneal cavity.

16. Which of the following statements best describes the transverse mesocolon? a. A vertical mesentery sheet that connects the inferior edge of the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach. b. Mesentery that hangs down from the greater curvature of the stomach like a curtain, covering the intestines. c. A mesentery sheet that anchors a portion of the large intestine. d. Connects the small intestine to the posterior wall of the abdominal cavity. e. A small space behind the peritoneum where the kidneys reside.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.2 General Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Gastrointestinal (GI) Tract LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.2.5 - Identify and describe the location, structure, and function of the visceral and parietal peritoneum, serous fluid, and the peritoneal cavity.

17. Which of the following organs are considered primarily retroperitoneal? a. stomach b. small intestine c. large intestine d. kidney e. liver ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.2 General Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Gastrointestinal (GI) Tract LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.2.5 - Identify and describe the location, structure, and function of the visceral and parietal peritoneum, serous fluid, and the peritoneal cavity.

18. Which of the following statements best describes retroperitoneal? a. A vertical mesentery sheet that connects the inferior edge of the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach. b. Mesentery that hangs down from the greater curvature of the stomach like a curtain, covering the intestines. c. A mesentery sheet that anchors a portion of the large intestine. d. Connects the small intestine to the posterior wall of the abdominal cavity. e. A small space behind the peritoneum where the kidneys reside.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.2 General Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Gastrointestinal (GI) Tract LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.2.5 - Identify and describe the location, structure, and function of the visceral and parietal peritoneum, serous fluid, and the peritoneal cavity.

19. Which of the following statements best describes the labial frenulum, an anatomical structure of the mouth? a. A fold of mucous membrane that attaches the inner surface of each lip to the gum and found at the midline. b. The superior border or roof of the oral cavity.

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c. A muscular fold that lies next to the base of the tongue when the mouth is closed. d. Forms the superior and lateral margins of the fauces. e. Small, raised bumps of stratified squamous epithelium on the superior and lateral aspect of the tongue.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.3 - Compare and contrast the composition and functions of the hard palate, soft palate, and uvula.

20. Which of the following statements best describes the palate? a. A fold of mucous membrane that attaches the inner surface of each lip to the gum and found at the midline. b. The superior border or roof of the oral cavity. c. A muscular fold that lies next to the base of the tongue when the mouth is closed. d. Forms the superior and lateral margins of the fauces. e. Small, raised bumps of stratified squamous epithelium on the superior and lateral aspect of the tongue.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.3 - Compare and contrast the composition and functions of the hard palate, soft palate, and uvula.

21. Which of the following statements best describes the palatoglossal arch? a. A fold of mucous membrane that attaches the inner surface of each lip to the gum and found at the midline. b. The superior border or roof of the oral cavityW. WW.TBSM.WS c. A muscular fold that lies next to the base of the tongue when the mouth is closed. d. Forms the superior and lateral margins of the fauces. e. Small, raised bumps of stratified squamous epithelium on the superior and lateral aspect of the tongue.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.3 - Compare and contrast the composition and functions of the hard palate, soft palate, and uvula.

22. Which of the following statements best describes the palatopharyngeal arch? a. A fold of mucous membrane that attaches the inner surface of each lip to the gum and found at the midline. b. The superior border or roof of the oral cavity. c. A muscular fold that lies next to the base of the tongue when the mouth is closed. d. Forms the superior and lateral margins of the fauces. e. Small, raised bumps of stratified squamous epithelium on the superior and lateral aspect of the tongue.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.3 - Compare and contrast the composition and functions of the hard palate, soft palate, and uvula.

23. Which of the following statements best describes the papillae? a. A fold of mucous membrane that attaches the inner surface of each lip to the gum and found at the midline.

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b. The superior border or roof of the oral cavity. c. A muscular fold that lies next to the base of the tongue when the mouth is closed. d. Forms the superior and lateral margins of the fauces. e. Small, raised bumps of stratified squamous epithelium on the superior and lateral aspect of the tongue.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.3 - Compare and contrast the composition and functions of the hard palate, soft palate, and uvula.

24. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the salivary glands? a. They are found within the mucous membranes of the mouth and tongue. b. They secrete saliva into the oral cavity. c. They are endocrine glands that secrete hormones to control salivation. d. Considered part of the first stage of digestion. e. Can secrete more than 1.5 L of fluid daily into the GI tract.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.3 - Compare and contrast the composition and functions of the hard palate, soft palate, and uvula.

25. Which of the following statements is FALSE about saliva? bsWtaWn. ceT s,BsuScM h. asWeS nzymes and ions. a. A watery substance enriched with several suW b. Secretion is regulated by the parasympathetic nervous system. c. Saliva production is increased when an individual is dehydrated. d. Produced by various salivary glands near the oral cavity. e. Saliva contains growth factors and is considered antimicrobial.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.6 - Describe the composition and functions of saliva.

26. Salivary amylase is an enzyme that . a. digests any pathogens that enter the mouth b. initiates the breakdown of carbohydrates c. breaks down fats present in food d. catabolizes proteins into peptides for easier digestion e. buffers the acidic environment of the oral cavity ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.6 - Describe the composition and functions of saliva.

27. Lingual lipase is an enzyme that a. digests any pathogens that enter the mouth

.

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b. initiates the breakdown of carbohydrates c. breaks down fats present in food d. catabolizes proteins into peptides for easier digestion e. buffers the acidic environment of the oral cavity ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.6 - Describe the composition and functions of saliva.

28. Connective tissue strings that hold teeth in the socket at the gomphosis are a. sutural ligaments b. interosseous membranes c. lateral ligaments d. periodontal ligaments e. sublingual ligaments ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.7 - Describe the structure and function of teeth.

.

29. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the pharynx? a. An anatomical structure most commonly known as the throat. b. A structure separated into three subdivisions.

WW SoMut.hWanSd the nasal cavities c. It receives food from the mouth, and air from boWth.tT heBm d. A muscular tube that connects the oral cavity to the stomach. e. Muscles aid in swallowing or deglutition.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.8 - Identify and describe the different regions of the pharynx with respect to the passage of air and/or food.

30. Which of the following statements if TRUE of the esophagus? a. An anatomical structure most commonly known as the throat. b. A structure separated into three subdivisions. c. It receives food from the mouth, and air from both the mouth and the nasal cavities. d. A muscular tube that connects the oral cavity to the stomach. e. Muscles aid in swallowing or deglutition.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.10 - Identify and describe the gross anatomy of the esophagus, including its location relative to other body structures.

31. Muscle fibers that form a circle to control the opening or closing of a passageway are called a(n) a. pylorus

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.

b. sphincter c. gastric fold d. mesenteric membrane e. intestinal valve ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.10 - Identify and describe the gross anatomy of the esophagus, including its location relative to other body structures.

32. Which of the following statements best describes the lower esophageal sphincter? a. Involved in preventing backflow of food into the stomach from the esophagus. b. Regulates food leaving the pharynx and entering the esophagus. c. Regulates food entering the stomach and prevents stomach acids from entering the esophagus. d. Is always open for food to enter the stomach. e. Controls the stomach contents leaving the stomach and entering the small intestine.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.11 - Describe the general functions of the esophagus.

33. Which of the following statements best describes the cardia region? a. A pharyngeal region that lies immediately superior to the heart. b. Circular muscles that control the opening orWclWosWin.gToB f aSpMa. ssW agSeway. c. An anatomical structure on the superior aspect of the liver. d. A stomach region just internal to the lower esophageal sphincter; where food passes into the stomach. e. An esophageal region immediately posterior to the heart.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.11 - Describe the general functions of the esophagus.

34. Which of the following statements best describes the pyloric sphincter? a. Involved in preventing backflow of food into the stomach from the esophagus. b. Regulates food leaving the pharynx and entering the esophagus. c. Regulates food entering the stomach and prevents stomach acids from entering the esophagus. d. Is always open for food to enter the stomach. e. Controls the stomach contents leaving the stomach and entering the small intestine.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.11 - Describe the general functions of the esophagus.

35. Parietal cells of the stomach . a. are located primarily within the gastric glands and produce hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor b. secrete the hormone gastrin

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c. are neurons that stimulate digestive juice secretion d. are located in the pyloric region to aid in muscular movement of chyme into the small intestine e. regulate entry of food into the stomach ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.20 - Identify and describe the gastric glands, including their cells (e.g., parietal cells, chief cells).

36. Which of the following statements best describes pepsin? a. Located primarily in the gastric glands and produces hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor. b. An enzyme that cleaves the bonds between amino acids, important in protein digestion. c. An enzyme that digests carbohydrates in the stomach. d. The primary digestive enzyme within the GI tract. e. Catalyst that increases lipid breakdown in the stomach.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.20 - Identify and describe the gastric glands, including their cells (e.g., parietal cells, chief cells).

37. A problem that individuals with diabetes typically have is delayed gastric emptying. Which of the following statements best describes gastric emptying? a. Process by which contents of the esophagusW arWe W fo.rcTedBiS ntMo. thW eS stomach. b. A gastric phase immediately following ingestion and swallowing to prepare the stomach for food. c. Muscular process that forces small amounts of chyme through the pyloric sphincter into the duodenum. d. The process to trigger secretion of pepsin and hydrochloric acid in the stomach. e. Method of absorption within the stomach.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.22 - Explain the effects of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase of digestion on various parts of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.

38. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the small intestine? a. Located primarily in the lower right and left quadrants of the abdomen. b. Has three separate regions: the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. c. The primary digestive and absorptive organ of the body. d. The unique anatomical structures, the teniae coli, aid in muscular movement of the small intestine. e. Both mechanical and chemical digestion occurs throughout the entire small intestine.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.24 - Describe the general functions of the small intestine.

39. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the duodenum? a. Located primarily in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen and is a retroperitoneal organ.

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b. Joins the large intestine at the ileocecal valve. c. The majority of digestive juices are secreted into the duodenum. d. The primary digestive organ in the body. e. Primary site of absorption within the small intestine.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.25 - Identify the specific segments of the small intestine (i.e., duodenum, jejunum, ileum), including their relative length.

40. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the liver? a. The only organ within the abdominopelvic cavity capable of regeneration. b. Produces bile, which is carried away from the lobule in bile ducts. c. The largest gland in the body. d. Plays a large role in metabolism, stores glucose as glycogen when necessary. e. Lies mostly in the upper left quadrant opposite the stomach.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.4 Accessory Organs in Digestion: The Liver, Pancreas, and Gallbladder LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.4.1 - Describe the general functions of the liver.

41. The liver’s main cell type that produces bile is the . a. erythrocyte b. hepatocyte c. adipocyte d. renal cell e. hepatic sinusoid ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.4 Accessory Organs in Digestion: The Liver, Pancreas, and Gallbladder LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.4.1 - Describe the general functions of the liver.

42. Which of the following statements best describes bile? a. An enzyme that breaks down all macromolecules within the small intestine. b. Cells that aid in the absorption of micronutrients. c. Acts as an emulsifier to aid in fat digestion in the small intestine. d. Another name for a gallstone. e. Exocrine ducts that secrete directly into the small intestine.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.4 Accessory Organs in Digestion: The Liver, Pancreas, and Gallbladder LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.4.5 - Define emulsification, and explain how and where bile salts facilitate fat digestion.

43. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the gallbladder? a. Stores, concentrates, and propels bile into the duodenum.

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b. Located inferior to the liver, specifically the right lobe of the liver. c. Secretes bile into the cystic duct which merges within the hepatic duct to form the bile duct. d. A muscular sac that produces and propels bile into the duodenum. e. Separates the right lobe of the liver from the quadrate lobe.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.4 Accessory Organs in Digestion: The Liver, Pancreas, and Gallbladder LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.4.5 - Define emulsification, and explain how and where bile salts facilitate fat digestion.

44. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the pancreas? a. Lies posterior to the stomach in the left upper quadrant. b. It is both an exocrine and an endocrine organ, comprised of a mix of these two tissue types. c. Secretes insulin and glucagon from the pancreatic islets. d. Produces and secretes digestive enzymes and buffers into the duodenum. e. Stores glucose as glycogen to be broken down for later use.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.4 Accessory Organs in Digestion: The Liver, Pancreas, and Gallbladder LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.4.8 - Identify and describe the structure and functions of the pancreas.

Essay 45. Discuss how proteins are digested into their moW noWmWe. ricTuBnS itsM. .

ThWeS n explain protein digestion, include the organs involved in both mechanical and chemical digestion of proteins.

ANSWER: Proteins are polymers composed of amino acids linked by peptide bonds to form long chains. They are complex, highly folded molecules. Digestion involves first unfolding the proteins, then cleaving the bonds between the amino acids to release these monomers.

Mechanical digestion (mastication) begins the digestion of proteins in the oral cavity. The digestion of protein starts in the stomach, where HCl works to denature (or unfold) the proteins and pepsin breaks proteins into smaller polypeptides, which then travel to the small intestine. Chemical digestion in the small intestine is continued by pancreatic enzymes, including chymotrypsin and trypsin, each of which act on specific bonds in amino acid sequences. Brush border enzymes further break down peptide bonds, releasing amino acids. This results in molecules small enough to traverse the cell membranes and enter the bloodstream via absorption.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.5 Chemical Digestion and Absorption: A Closer Look LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.5.3 - Explain the transport processes involved in the absorption of various nutrients.

46. List the three pairs of major salivary glands. Then, describe where they are anatomically located and their function.

ANSWER: The three pairs of major salivary glands, which secrete the majority of saliva into ducts that open into the mouth, are: The submandibular glands; these are in the floor of the mouth and secrete saliva into the mouth through the submandibular ducts.

The sublingual glands; these lie below the tongue and use the lesser sublingual ducts to secrete saliva into the oral cavity.

The parotid glands; these lie between the skin and the masseter muscle, near the ears. They secrete saliva into the mouth through the parotid duct, which is located on the posterior

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upper cheek.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.5 - Describe the structure and function of the salivary glands.

47. Describe the regulation of salivation.

ANSWER: The autonomic nervous system regulates the secretion of saliva. In the absence of food, parasympathetic stimulation keeps saliva flowing at a comfortable level for speaking and breathing. During times of stress, such as before speaking in public, sympathetic stimulation takes over, reducing salivation and producing the symptom of dry mouth often associated with anxiety. When you are dehydrated, salivation is reduced, causing the mouth to feel dry and prompting you to take action to quench your thirst.

Production and secretion of saliva can be stimulated by the sight, smell, and taste of food.

Taste receptors on the tongue communicate both with the taste-processing insula and nuclei in the brainstem that regulate the parasympathetic impulses that stimulate salivation.

Most saliva is swallowed along with food and is reabsorbed, so that fluid is not lost.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.5 - Describe the structure and function of the salivary glands.

48. List the three stages in swallowing and explain each stage.

ANSWER: (1) The Voluntary Phase. Skeletal muscle (i.e., voluntary movement) is used to swallow food. In this phase, the tongue moves upward and backward against the palate, pushing the chewed food, called a bolus, to the back of the oral cavity and into the oropharynx. At this point, the two involuntary phases of swallowing begin.

(2) The Pharyngeal W PhWaW se. . TThB eS phMa. ryW ngSeal phase begins when stimulation of receptors in the oropharynx sends impulses to the medulla oblongata. Signals are then sent back to the uvula and soft palate, causing them to move upward and close off the nasopharynx. The laryngeal epiglottis covers the glottis to prevent aspiration of food into the trachea. At this point, breathing stops for a very brief time. Contractions of the pharyngeal muscles move the bolus through the oropharynx and laryngopharynx. Relaxation of the upper esophageal sphincter then allows food to enter the esophagus.

(3) The Esophageal Phase. The entry of food into the esophagus marks the beginning of the esophageal phase of swallowing and the initiation of peristalsis. Peristalsis propels the bolus through the esophagus and toward the stomach. When the bolus nears the stomach, the stretching of the esophageal walls initiates a reflexive relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter that allows the bolus to pass into the stomach. During the esophageal phase, esophageal glands secrete mucus that lubricates the bolus and minimizes friction.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.13 - Relate the anatomic specializations of the esophagus to the organ’s functions.

49. The stomach has unique histology compared to other organs of the GI tract. Describe the histology of the stomach.

ANSWER: The wall of the stomach is made of the same four layers as most of the rest of the GI tract: the mucosal layer, submucosal layer, muscularis layer, and the serosa. However, adaptations to the mucosa and muscularis layers make this organ unique. The mucosal layer is extremely thick compared to other GI organs because of the highly acidic environment within the stomach. In addition to the typical circular and longitudinal smooth muscle layers, the muscularis layer of the stomach is composed of an inner oblique smooth muscle layer. As a result, in addition to moving food through the canal, the stomach can vigorously churn food, mechanically breaking it down into smaller particles. Once food is

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mixed with the gastric secretions, it is called chyme.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 23.3 The Mouth, Pharynx, and Esophagus LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 23.3.19 - Relate the anatomic specializations of the stomach tunics (e.g., number of layers of muscle in the muscularis [muscularis externa]) to the organ’s functions.

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Chapter 24 - Metabolism and Nutrition Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following statements best describes catabolic reactions? a. Break down large organic molecules into smaller subunits, releasing the energy contained in the chemical bonds. b. Create new molecules that form new cells and tissues, enable communication among cells, and are vital for the repair and growth of cells, tissues, and organs. c. A polysaccharide reaction that stores glucose molecules. d. Reactions that only occur in adipose cells, or adipocytes. e. Molecules—usually proteins—that act as a catalyst to a particular chemical reaction.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.1 Overview of Metabolic Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.1.1 - Define metabolism, anabolism, and catabolism, and provide examples of anabolic and catabolic reactions.

2. Which of the following statements best describes anabolic reactions? a. Break down large organic molecules into smaller subunits, releasing the energy contained in the chemical bonds. b. Create new molecules that form new cells and tissues, enable communication among cells, and are vital for the repair and growth of cells, tissues, and organs. c. A polysaccharide reaction that stores glucose molecules. d. Reactions that only occur in adipose cells, oW r aWdW ip. ocTytBesS. M.WS e. Molecules—usually proteins—that act as a catalyst to a particular chemical reaction.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.1 Overview of Metabolic Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.1.1 - Define metabolism, anabolism, and catabolism, and provide examples of anabolic and catabolic reactions.

3. A polysaccharide that stores glucose molecules in our body cells, particularly the liver and muscle, is . a. triglyceride b. protein c. glycogen d. cellulose e. starch ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 24.1 Overview of Metabolic Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.1.1 - Define metabolism, anabolism, and catabolism, and provide examples of anabolic and catabolic reactions.

4. Fats stored in adipose cells, or adipocytes, are a. triglycerides b. proteins c. glycogen molecules

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d. cellulose molecules e. starch molecules ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.1 Overview of Metabolic Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.1.4 - Compare and contrast the roles of enzymes and cofactors in metabolic processes.

5. Which of the following statements is FALSE about enzymes? a. Aids in catabolic reactions. b. Aids in anabolic reactions. c. Found only throughout the digestive system. d. They decrease the activation energy of a reaction. e. Molecules, usually proteins, that act as a catalyst to a particular chemical reaction.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.1 Overview of Metabolic Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.1.4 - Compare and contrast the roles of enzymes and cofactors in metabolic processes.

6. Which of the following statements best describes cofactors? a. Substances that bind to enzymes and enable their activity. b. Substances that always remove an electron from a molecule. le. cuTleB . SM.WS c. Substances that always adds an electron to aWmWoW d. Are large proteins that aid in reducing the activation energy. e. Are ions important in a redox reaction.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.1 Overview of Metabolic Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.1.4 - Compare and contrast the roles of enzymes and cofactors in metabolic processes.

7. Which of the following statements best describes oxidation reactions? a. A reaction that binds two enzymes to enable their activity. b. Reactions in which an electron is removed from a molecule. c. Reaction where an electron is added to a molecule. d. Reactions that require NAD or FAD to complete. e. Reactions that only use hydrogen atoms, which consist of an electron and a proton.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.1 Overview of Metabolic Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.1.5 - Define a redox reaction, relate redox reactions to metabolism, and explain the component processes of oxidation and reduction.

8. Which of the following statements best describes a reduction reaction? a. A reaction that binds two enzymes to enable their activity. b. Reaction in which an electron is removed from a molecule.

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c. Reaction where an electron is added to a molecule. d. Reaction that requires NAD or FAD to complete. e. Reaction that only uses hydrogen atoms, which consist of an electron and a proton.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.1 Overview of Metabolic Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.1.5 - Define a redox reaction, relate redox reactions to metabolism, and explain the component processes of oxidation and reduction.

9. Which of the following statements best describes nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)? a. They are both involved in glycolysis and enter the citric acid cycle. b. They are both products of glycolysis. c. Enzymes that speed up cellular respiration. d. The two most common coenzymes of oxidation-reduction reactions. e. They are widespread cofactors important for thyroid hormone production.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.1 Overview of Metabolic Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.1.5 - Define a redox reaction, relate redox reactions to metabolism, and explain the component processes of oxidation and reduction.

10. Electrons in commonly come from hydrogen atoms, which consist of an electron and a proton. a. acid-base reactions b. precipitation reactions c. metabolic reactions d. glycolytic reactions e. oxidation-reduction reactions ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.1 Overview of Metabolic Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.1.5 - Define a redox reaction, relate redox reactions to metabolism, and explain the component processes of oxidation and reduction.

11. Polysaccharides . a. are carbohydrates that serve as energy storage and, in some organisms, are structural components b. make up most of fecal mass c. are enzymes that break apart a monosaccharide, typically glucose, to release the energy stored in its bonds to produce ATP d. are enzymes involved in most cells of the body when oxygen is limited e. are carbohydrates that are easily absorbed and immediately used in the cell ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.1 Overview of Metabolic Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.1.5 - Define a redox reaction, relate redox reactions to metabolism, and explain the component processes of oxidation and reduction.

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12. Fecal mass is primarily composed of . a. polysaccharides b. fiber c. lipids d. proteins e. glucose ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.2 Macronutrients and Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.2.2 - Describe the processes of anaerobic respiration (e.g., glycolysis) in the oxidation of carbohydrates to generate ATP. 13. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning cellular respiration? a. A group of catabolic reactions to produce ATP. b. Is primarily an oxidation-reduction reaction. c. Occurs only in cells of the body when oxygen is limited. d. Breaks apart a monosaccharide, typically glucose, to release the energy stored in its bonds to produce ATP. e. Consists of both substrate-level and oxidative phosphorylation.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.2 Macronutrients and Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.2.1 - Describe the processes of aerobic respiration (e.g., citric acid [Krebs, tricarboxylic acid or TCA] cycle, electron transport chain) in the oxidation of glucose to generate WWAWT.P.T BSM.WS 14. Which of the following statements best describes anaerobic respiration? a. ATP production is increased during the anaerobic process. b. Endurance is sustained within cells that undergo the anaerobic process. c. Occurs in all cells when an individual is dehydrated. d. Occurs in most cells of the body when oxygen is limited. e. In the presence of oxygen, pyruvate can enter the citric acid cycle, where additional energy is extracted.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.2 Macronutrients and Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.2.2 - Describe the processes of anaerobic respiration (e.g., glycolysis) in the oxidation of carbohydrates to generate ATP. 15. Which of the following statements best describes aerobic respiration? a. ATP production is reduced during the aerobic process. b. Cells that consistently go through aerobic respiration fatigue rather quickly. c. Occurs in all cells when an individual is dehydrated. d. Occurs in most cells of the body when oxygen is limited. e. In the presence of oxygen, pyruvate can enter the citric acid cycle, where additional energy is extracted.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.2 Macronutrients and Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.2.1 - Describe the processes of aerobic respiration (e.g., citric acid [Krebs,

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tricarboxylic acid or TCA] cycle, electron transport chain) in the oxidation of glucose to generate ATP. 16. What are the two general phases of glycolysis? a. energy consuming and energy yielding b. glucose production and glucose destruction c. ATP production and ATP reduction d. energy production and energy destruction e. glycol producing and glycol using ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 24.2 Macronutrients and Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.2.1 - Describe the processes of aerobic respiration (e.g., citric acid [Krebs, tricarboxylic acid or TCA] cycle, electron transport chain) in the oxidation of glucose to generate ATP. 17. Pyruvate molecules generated during glycolysis and metabolized by enzymes within the mitochondrial matrix is which of the following steps in cellular respiration? a. the citric acid cycle (Kreb’s cycle) b. the electron transport chain c. glycolysis d. pentose phosphate pathway e. anaerobic respiration ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.2 Macronutrients and Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.2.1 - Describe the processes of aerobic respiration (e.g., citric acid [Krebs, tricarboxylic acid or TCA] cycle, electron transport chain) in the oxidation of glucose to generate ATP. 18. A system of proteins that can convert NADH and FADH2 back to NAD+ and FAD and utilize the energy to generate ATP is which of the following steps in cellular respiration? a. the citric acid cycle (Kreb’s cycle) b. the electron transport chain c. glycolysis d. pentose phosphate pathway e. anaerobic respiration ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.2 Macronutrients and Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.2.1 - Describe the processes of aerobic respiration (e.g., citric acid [Krebs, tricarboxylic acid or TCA] cycle, electron transport chain) in the oxidation of glucose to generate ATP. 19. Which statement best describes pyruvate dehydrogenase? a. The rate-limiting enzyme in glycolysis. b. The initial enzyme in glycolysis that converts glucose into glucose-6-phosphate. c. The enzyme that aids in the conversion of pyruvate into acetyl CoA, the molecule necessary to begin ATP

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production. d. The enzyme important for production of NADH and FADH2 in the citric acid cycle. e. The enzyme that produces ATP in the electron transport chain.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.2 Macronutrients and Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.2.1 - Describe the processes of aerobic respiration (e.g., citric acid [Krebs, tricarboxylic acid or TCA] cycle, electron transport chain) in the oxidation of glucose to generate ATP. 20. Which statement best describes all carbohydrates? a. Macromolecules generated during glycolysis and metabolized by enzymes within the mitochondrial matrix. b. Macromolecules that can convert NADH and FADH2 back to NAD+ and FAD and utilize the energy to generate ATP. c. Enzymes that convert pyruvate into acetyl CoA, the molecule necessary to begin the cycle to produce ATP. d. Can be broken down into monomers, which can be fully broken down through the phases of cellular respiration. e. The primary source of ATP for metabolic and mechanical work.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.2 Macronutrients and Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.2.1 - Describe the processes of aerobic respiration (e.g., citric acid [Krebs, tricarboxylic acid or TCA] cycle, electron transport chain) in the oxidation of glucose to generate ATP. 21. Gluconeogenesis is . a. the synthesis of new glucose molecules from pyruvate, lactate, glycerol, or the amino acids alanine or glutamine b. required to maintain levels of glucose within a homeostatic range c. the breakdown of stored fat for release into the bloodstream and use in cellular respiration d. a fuel in times of prolonged starvation or when patients suffer from uncontrolled diabetes and cannot utilize most of the circulating glucose e. a set of biochemical reactions to prevent a toxic level of nitrogen buildup in the body ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.2 Macronutrients and Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.2.3 - Describe metabolic pathways that produce or store glucose (e.g., glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis).

22. Glycogenolysis is . a. the synthesis of new glucose molecules from pyruvate, lactate, glycerol, or the amino acids alanine or glutamine b. required to maintain levels of glucose within a homeostatic range c. the breakdown of stored fat for release into the bloodstream and used in cellular respiration d. a fuel in times of prolonged starvation or when patients suffer from uncontrolled diabetes and cannot utilize most of the circulating glucose e. a set of biochemical reactions to prevent a toxic level of nitrogen buildup in the body ANSWER: b

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.2 Macronutrients and Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.2.3 - Describe metabolic pathways that produce or store glucose (e.g., glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis).

23. Lipolysis is . a. the synthesis of new glucose molecules from pyruvate, lactate, glycerol, or the amino acids alanine or glutamine b. required to maintain levels of glucose within a homeostatic range c. the breakdown of stored fat for release into the bloodstream and used in cellular respiration d. a fuel in times of prolonged starvation or when patients suffer from uncontrolled diabetes and cannot utilize most of the circulating glucose e. a set of biochemical reactions to prevent a toxic level of nitrogen buildup in the body ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.2 Macronutrients and Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.2.4 - Describe the anabolic and catabolic processes of fat metabolism (e.g., lipolysis, lipogenesis) and how these processes interact with carbohydrate metabolism.

24. Which statement best describes ketones? a. When new glucose molecules are synthesized from pyruvate, lactate, glycerol, or the amino acids alanine or glutamine. b. Enzymes to maintain the levels of glucose within a homeostatic range. .W c. The breakdown of stored fat for release intoWthWeW bl. ooTdB stS reM am anSd directly used in cellular respiration. d. Serves as fuel in times of prolonged starvation or when patients suffer from uncontrolled diabetes and cannot utilize most of the circulating glucose. e. Initiates a set of biochemical reactions to prevent a toxic level of nitrogen buildup in the body.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.2 Macronutrients and Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.2.5 - Describe the anabolic and catabolic processes of protein metabolism (e.g., deamination, transamination) and how these processes interact with carbohydrate metabolism.

25. Which statement best describes the urea cycle? a. Synthesizes new glucose molecules from pyruvate, lactate, glycerol, or the amino acids alanine or glutamine. b. Maintains the levels of glucose within a homeostatic range during the fed state. c. Consists of enzymes that break down stored fat for release into the bloodstream and use in cellular respiration. d. Produces fuel in times of prolonged starvation or when patients cannot utilize most of the circulating glucose. e. A set of biochemical reactions to prevent a toxic level of nitrogen buildup in the body.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.2 Macronutrients and Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.2.6 - Explain the significance of protein intake to nitrogen balance.

26. Excess glucose is stored as glycogen in certain cell types during a. the absorptive state

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b. the postabsorptive state c. starvation d. dehydration e. gluconeogenesis ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.3 Metabolic States of the Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.3.1 - Compare and contrast carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism in the fed (absorptive) and fasted (post-absorptive) states.

27. The food from the last meal is digested, absorbed, and stored is called . a. the absorptive state b. the postabsorptive state c. starvation d. dehydration e. gluconeogenesis ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.3 Metabolic States of the Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.3.1 - Compare and contrast carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism in the fed (absorptive) and fasted (post-absorptive) states.

28. Which of the following hormones is secreted by the beta cells of the pancreas to aid in glucose movement from the blood into hepatocytes, adipocytes, and muscle cellW s?WW.TBSM.WS a. glucagon b. thyroid hormone c. insulin d. cortisol e. vasopressin ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.3 Metabolic States of the Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.3.1 - Compare and contrast carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism in the fed (absorptive) and fasted (post-absorptive) states.

29. Kwashiorkor is a condition . a. when excess glucose is stored as glycogen in the brain b. in which food from the last meal has been digested, absorbed, and stored abnormally c. by which glucose is unable to enter the cells for cellular respiration d. associated with malnutrition in some developing countries e. that inhibits glycogen synthesis so no glucose is stored within the body ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.3 Metabolic States of the Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.3.1 - Compare and contrast carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism in the fed (absorptive) and fasted (post-absorptive) states.

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30. Which of the following hormones is secreted from the alpha cells of the pancreas to inhibit the synthesis of glycogen and stimulate the breakdown of glycogen, releasing glucose into the blood? a. glucagon b. thyroid hormone c. insulin d. cortisol e. vasopressin ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.3 Metabolic States of the Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.3.1 - Compare and contrast carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism in the fed (absorptive) and fasted (post-absorptive) states.

31. The process by which the body can maintain its temperature within certain boundaries, even when the surrounding temperature is very different is called . a. thermoregulation b. ketogenesis c. gluconeogenesis d. conduction e. convection ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.4 Energy and Heat Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.4.1 - Explain thW eW im rtaBnSce ofWth Wp.oT M. Sermoregulation in the body.

32. The hypothalamus is a small brain structure that plays an important role in homeostasis. Which statement is FALSE of the hypothalamus? a. It senses osmolarity to help maintain blood volume. b. It keeps body temperature tightly regulated. c. It secretes multiple regulatory hormones into the portal system to target the anterior pituitary directly. d. It directly measures how much energy the body needs for normal, basic, daily activity. e. It regulates blood pressure.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.4 Energy and Heat Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.4.1 - Explain the importance of thermoregulation in the body.

33. Which statement best describes metabolic rate? a. The process by which the body can maintain its temperature within certain boundaries, even when the surrounding temperature is very different. b. The rate at which insulin is secreted during the fed state, or after a meal. c. The amount of energy consumed minus the amount of energy expended by the body. d. The energy the body needs for normal, basic, daily activity. e. A condition associated with energy loss.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.4 Energy and Heat Balance

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.4.1 - Explain the importance of thermoregulation in the body.

34. Which statement best describes the basal metabolic rate? a. The process by which the body can maintain its temperature within certain boundaries, even when the surrounding temperature is very different. b. The rate at which insulin is secreted during the fed state, or after a meal. c. The amount of energy consumed minus the amount of energy expended by the body. d. The energy the body needs for normal, basic, daily activity. e. A condition associated with energy loss.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.4 Energy and Heat Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.4.1 - Explain the importance of thermoregulation in the body.

35. Which statement best describes a nutritional calorie? a. The amount of heat it takes to raise 1 kilogram (1,000 grams) of water by 1 degree Celsius. b. A fat-soluble vitamin that is secreted when food is present in the stomach. c. The sum of all the catabolic and anabolic reactions within the body. d. The reactions that occur during cellular respiration. e. Molecules the body can synthesize needed to fuel our daily and life activities.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.5 Nutrition and Diet .loWrS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.5.1 - Define calW orWieWa.nT d BkiS loM ca ie.

36. Which of the following hormones is secreted from the parietal cells in the stomach to signal the brain that the stomach is empty? a. insulin b. ghrelin c. leptin d. glucagon e. trypsin ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.5 Nutrition and Diet LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.5.3 - Describe the neural and chemical control of appetite and food intake.

37. Which of the following hormones is secreted in proportion to the amount of fat stored and decreases appetite? a. insulin b. ghrelin c. leptin d. glucagon e. trypsin ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.5 Nutrition and Diet

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.5.3 - Describe the neural and chemical control of appetite and food intake.

38. Nutrients include . a. vitamins b. proteins c. carbohydrates d. lipids e. all of the above ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.5 Nutrition and Diet LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.5.4 - Define nutrient, essential nutrient, and non-essential nutrient.

39. Which statement best describes nonessential nutrients? a. The nutrients that when eaten, will make an individual sick. b. Hormones involved in metabolic processes. c. Hormones involved in bone and muscle growth. d. Substances the body must ingest from the external environment. e. Molecules the body can synthesize to fuel our daily and life activities.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.5 Nutrition and Diet LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.5.4 - Define nutrient, essential nutrient, and non-essential nutrient.

40. Vitamins are . a. organic compounds in foods necessary for biochemical reactions in the body b. inorganic compounds that work with other nutrients to ensure the body functions properly c. also referred to as electrolytes d. toxic under any circumstances e. substances important for neuronal processing of muscle movements ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.5 Nutrition and Diet LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.5.5 - Classify vitamins as either fat-soluble or water-soluble, and describe the major uses in the body of each vitamin.

41. Minerals are . a. organic compounds in foods necessary for biochemical reactions in the body b. inorganic compounds that work with other nutrients to ensure the body functions properly c. also referred to as electrolytes d. toxic under any circumstances e. substances important for neuronal processing of muscle movements ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.5 Nutrition and Diet LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.5.6 - Name the major minerals (e.g., calcium, sodium, potassium) and trace

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elements (e.g., iron, iodine, zinc) and their roles within various physiological processes in the body.

42. Which of the following vitamins are synthesized in skin cells when exposed to UV radiation? a. potassium b. vitamin C c. vitamin D d. vitamin K e. zinc ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.5 Nutrition and Diet LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.5.5 - Classify vitamins as either fat-soluble or water-soluble, and describe the major uses in the body of each vitamin.

43. Which statement best describes hypervitaminosis? a. A condition in which the body has a vitamin deficiency. b. A disease when vitamins increase an immune response. c. A disease in which vitamins cause slow growth in bones. d. A condition in which the body is exposed to a toxic level of vitamins. e. A condition that results in anemia.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.5 Nutrition and W DW ieW t .TBSM.WS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.5.5 - Classify vitamins as either fat-soluble or water-soluble, and describe the major uses in the body of each vitamin.

44. What is the normal range for caloric intake a person needs per day to sustain (or carry out) daily activities? a. 100 to 150 calories b. 300 to 500 calories c. 500 to 1000 calories d. 1,500 to 2,000 calories e. 3,000 to 5,000 calories ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 24.5 Nutrition and Diet LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.5.1 - Define calorie and kilocalorie.

Essay 45. Describe the factors that influence metabolism and how they fluctuate throughout life.

ANSWER: Some of the factors that influence metabolism are: age, activity level, fuel consumption, gender, and muscle mass. Metabolic rate fluctuates throughout life. In general, younger individuals tend to have a higher metabolism than older individuals. In addition, the more active an individual, the higher the metabolism to fuel the working muscles during the increased physical activity, or exercise. Biological sex may play a role in metabolism; biological males tend to have more lean muscle mass, which increases metabolism.

Estrogen, a. hormone found at much higher concentrations in those with ovaries and during

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reproductive years of the lifespan, influences the types and degrees to which adipose tissue is built, and this does influence metabolism. Lastly, genes play a big role in metabolism.

While there is a tremendous amount of diversity in the processes of metabolism, each person’s body engages in the same overall metabolic processes.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.1 Overview of Metabolic Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.1.1 - Define metabolism, anabolism, and catabolism, and provide examples of anabolic and catabolic reactions.

46. Describe glycolysis from the phosphorylation of glucose to the generation of pyruvate molecules.

ANSWER: Glycolysis begins with the phosphorylation of glucose. Phosphorylation is the process of adding a phosphate group to a molecule. Often the phosphate group is the inorganic phosphate (Pi) molecule liberated from the breakdown of ATP into ADP and Pi. In this case, the enzyme hexokinase adds the phosphate group to glucose, forming glucose-6phosphate. The phosphate group used to form glucose-6-phosphate came from ATP; therefore, this step uses one ATP. Another enzyme, phosphofructokinase, converts glucose-6-phosphate into fructose-6-phosphate. At this point, the sugar is phosphorylated again, and a second ATP is required to donate its phosphate group, forming fructose-1,6bisphosphate. This six-carbon sugar is split to form two phosphorylated three-carbon molecules, glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate, which are both converted into glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. The glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is further phosphorylated with groups donated by dihydrogen phosphate present in the cell to form the three-carbon molecule 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate. The energy of this reaction comes from the oxidation of (removal of electrons from) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. In a series of reactions leading to pyruvate, the two phosphate groups are then transferred to two ADPs to form two ATPs. Thus, glycolysis uses two ATPs but generates four ATPs, yielding a net gain of two ATPs and two molecules of pyruvate. In the presence of oxygen, pyruvate continues on to the citric acid cycle, where the additional energy stored in the bonds of the sugar can be extracted.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 24.2 Macronutrients and Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.2.3 - Describe metabolic pathways that produce or store glucose (e.g., glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis).

47. Define stress. Then, name and explain the two hormones involved during stressful situations, such as starvation or the demand for nutrients (i.e., exercise).

ANSWER: Stress is defined physiologically as any real or perceived threat to our homeostasis.

Whether that threat is starvation or predation, stressful circumstances often required early humans to go without food for some time. Our main two stress hormones are epinephrine and cortisol; both enable the body to endure periods without food consumption. (1) Epinephrine promotes the breakdown of glycogen to add glucose to the bloodstream, increasing blood glucose concentrations. Epinephrine also promotes the breakdown of adipose tissue, adding glycerol and fatty acids to the bloodstream to use for fuel when needed. Generally, epinephrine levels are high during short-term stress responses and emergency situations. During this short-term stress response the amount of available energy for fueling cellular respiration inevitably increases exponentially. Therefore, should this individual need to fight off a predator or run to catch a meal, this energy will fuel that process. (2) Cortisol, which is associated with longer term or resigned stress, promotes protein breakdown in bones and muscles while simultaneously encouraging the liver to increase the rate of gluconeogenesis from amino acid precursors. Cortisol also inhibits growth and reproduction, preserving the blood nutrient supplies for enduring the period of stress. These stress mechanisms work incredibly well to allow the body to survive for periods of time without nutrients or at a higher level of nutrient demand. However, when stress occurs in a chronic fashion, these hormones can have detrimental effects on health

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and metabolism.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.2 Macronutrients and Metabolism LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.2.5 - Describe the anabolic and catabolic processes of protein metabolism (e.g., deamination, transamination) and how these processes interact with carbohydrate metabolism.

48. Describe the starvation mode and how the body will sustain itself over time.

ANSWER: When the body is deprived of nourishment for an extended period, it goes into “survival mode.” The priority for survival is to provide enough glucose or fuel for the brain. Because glucose levels are very low during starvation, glycolysis will shut off in cells that can use alternative fuels. For example, muscles will switch from using glucose to fatty acids as fuel. Ketone can be used in glucose-dependent cells as gluconeogenesis will begin in the liver to generate glucose from any available pyruvate, lactate, and alanine amino acids. If starvation continues, muscle cells will begin to break down their proteins to liberate amino acids for gluconeogenesis; glycerol from fatty acids can also be liberated and used as a source for gluconeogenesis.

After several days of starvation, ketone bodies become the major source of fuel for the heart and other organs. As starvation continues, fatty acids and triglyceride stores are used to create ketones for the body. This prevents the continued breakdown of proteins that serve as carbon sources for gluconeogenesis. Once these stores are fully depleted, proteins from muscles are released and broken down for glucose synthesis. Overall survival is dependent on the amount of fat and protein stored in the body.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 24.3 Metabolic States of the Body LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.3.1 - Compare and contrast carbohydrate, fat, and protein metabolism in the Ws.teTdB(S fed (absorptive) anWdWfa poMs. t-aWbSsorptive) states.

49. Describe the differences between catabolism and anabolism.

ANSWER: Catabolism is the breakdown of molecules; this breakdown releases molecular components and energy. Anabolism is the building of new molecules from molecular pieces and requires energy. The three energy-yielding macromolecules—carbohydrates, proteins, and fats—are each used by the body in different ways.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 24.1 Overview of Metabolic Reactions LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 24.1.1 - Define metabolism, anabolism, and catabolism, and provide examples of anabolic and catabolic reactions.

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Chapter 25 - The Urinary System Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following statements best describes renal columns? a. Connective tissue extensions that radiate downward from the cortex through the medulla to separate the most characteristic features of the medulla. b. Bundles of collecting ducts that transport urine made by nephrons to the calyces of the kidney for excretion. c. Merge to form the renal pelvis. d. Cortical nephrons are primarily located here. e. Serves to anchor the kidneys firmly to the posterior abdominal.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.2.1 - Identify and describe the anatomic structure of the kidney, including its coverings.

2. What are the three renal processes to maintain homeostasis though the production of urine? a. conversion, transformation, and secretion b. filtration, reabsorption, and secretion c. production, transformation, and expulsion d. absorption, filtration, and expulsion e. production, filtration, and secretion ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.2.1 - Identify and describe the anatomic structure of the kidney, including its coverings.

3. Which of the following statements best describes the renal papillae? a. Connective tissue extensions that radiate downward from the cortex through the medulla to separate the most characteristic features of the medulla. b. Bundles of collecting ducts that transport urine made by nephrons to the calyces of the kidney for excretion. c. Merge to form the renal pelvis. d. Cortical nephrons are primarily located here. e. Serve to anchor the kidneys firmly to the posterior abdominal.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.2.2 - Distinguish histologically between the renal cortex and the renal medulla.

4. Which of the following statements best describes the major calyces? a. Connective tissue extensions that radiate downward from the cortex through the medulla to separate the most characteristic features of the medulla. b. Bundles of collecting ducts that transport urine made by nephrons to the calyces of the kidney for excretion. c. Merge to form the renal pelvis. d. Cortical nephrons are primarily located here.

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e. Serve to anchor the kidneys firmly to the posterior abdominal.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.2.2 - Distinguish histologically between the renal cortex and the renal medulla.

5. Which of the following statements best describes the renal medulla? a. Cortical nephrons are primarily located here. b. Location of the glomerulus. c. Merge to form the renal pelvis. d. The pyramids and renal columns taken together. e. Serve to anchor the kidneys firmly to the posterior abdominal.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.2.2 - Distinguish histologically between the renal cortex and the renal medulla.

6. Which of the following statements best describes the fascia and the overlying peritoneum? a. Connective tissue extensions that radiate downward from the cortex through the medulla to separate the most characteristic features of the medulla. b. Bundles of collecting ducts that transport urine made by nephrons to the calyces of the kidney for excretion. c. Merge to form the renal pelvis. d. The pyramids and renal columns taken together.

Mi.naWl.S e. Serves to anchor the kidneys firmly to the poWsW teW rio.r T abBdS om ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.2.2 - Distinguish histologically between the renal cortex and the renal medulla.

7. Which of the following statements best describes the renal hilum? a. The entry and exit site for structures servicing the kidneys. b. Carries oxygenated blood to the kidney. c. Carries the filtered, deoxygenated blood away from the kidney. d. Innervates the kidney and the ureter. e. The “functional units” of the kidney; they cleanse the blood and balance the constituents of the circulation.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.2.3 - Trace the path of blood flow through the kidney, from the renal artery to the renal vein.

8. The renal artery . a. carries deoxygenated blood to the kidney b. brings oxygenated blood to the kidney c. carries the filtered, deoxygenated blood away from the kidney d. directly carries blood to the nephron through the glomerulus

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e. is found wrapped around the vasa recta within the renal medulla ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.2.3 - Trace the path of blood flow through the kidney, from the renal artery to the renal vein.

9. The renal vein . a. carries deoxygenated blood to the kidney b. brings oxygenated blood to the kidney c. carries the filtered, deoxygenated blood away from the kidney d. directly carries blood to the nephron through the glomerulus e. is found wrapped around the vasa recta within the renal medulla ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.2.3 - Trace the path of blood flow through the kidney, from the renal artery to the renal vein.

10. The renal plexus . a. carries filtrate to the nephron b. filters the blood c. is primarily involved in reabsorption of nutrients teW r W.TBSM.WS d. supplies the nerves to the kidney and the ureW e. is the “functional unit” of the kidney; it cleanses the blood and balances the constituents of the circulation ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.2.3 - Trace the path of blood flow through the kidney, from the renal artery to the renal vein.

11. Which of the following statements is FALSE about nephrons? a. The “functional units” of the kidney; they cleanse the blood and balance the constituents of the circulation. b. Most nephrons are in the renal cortex. c. They produce urine through filtration, reabsorption, and secretion. d. Nerves that innervate the kidney and the ureter. e. A tube that contains filtrate from the blood.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.2.4 - Identify and describe the vascular elements associated with the nephron (i.e., afferent and efferent arterioles, glomerulus, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta).

12. The renal artery divides into segmental arteries once it passes the hilum and enters the kidney. The segmental arteries then branch to form the within the renal sinus. a. interlobar arteries

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b. glomerular capillaries c. arcuate arteries d. cortical radiate arteries e. afferent arterioles ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.2.4 - Identify and describe the vascular elements associated with the nephron (i.e., afferent and efferent arterioles, glomerulus, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta).

13. Fenestrated capillaries that allow material to pass through the capillary wall are . a. interlobar arteries b. glomerular capillaries c. arcuate arteries d. cortical radiate arteries e. afferent arterioles ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.2.4 - Identify and describe the vascular elements associated with the nephron (i.e., afferent and efferent arterioles, glomerulus, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta).

14. Which of the following statements best describes the renal corpuscle? a. A collection of arteries, including the segmental arteries, interlobar arteries, arcuate arteries, and afferent arterioles. b. Is part of the nephron that includes the descending and ascending limbs. c. The location where blood is filtered. d. The space that connects two capillary beds—the glomerulus and the peritubular capillaries. e. The region that connects the distal convoluted tubule with the collecting duct.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.2.4 - Identify and describe the vascular elements associated with the nephron (i.e., afferent and efferent arterioles, glomerulus, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta).

15. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the efferent arteriole? a. It pushes blood into the glomerular capillaries. b. It is a low pressure arteriole that carries blood to the renal medulla. c. Filtration occurs along the efferent arteriole. d. Connects two capillary beds, the glomerulus and the peritubular capillaries. e. The only arteriole within the body that drains the peritubular capillaries.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.2.4 - Identify and describe the vascular elements associated with the nephron (i.e., afferent and efferent arterioles, glomerulus, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta).

16. Which of the following statements best describes the vasa recta? a. A collection of cells surrounding the afferent and efferent arterioles that monitor salt concentration. b. Vessels that serve only the cortical nephrons, particularly the nephron loop. c. Filtration of blood occurs along the vasa recta. d. Connects two capillary beds, the glomerulus and the peritubular capillaries. e. The efferent arterioles of juxtamedullary nephrons form bundles of these vessels.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.2.4 - Identify and describe the vascular elements associated with the nephron (i.e., afferent and efferent arterioles, glomerulus, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta).

17. Which of the following statements best describes the interlobular vein, the arcuate vein, and the interlobar veins? a. They merge and drain into the renal vein. b. They wrap around the nephron tubing to help with urine production. c. They are the only veins within the body that have higher pressures. d. They allow any material below a certain size to pass through them into the renal medulla. e. They are veins associated with the nephron loop.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.3.7 - Describe specific mechanisms of transepithelial transport that occur in different parts of the nephron (e.g., active transport, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, electrochemical gradients, receptor-mediated endocytosis, transcytosis).

18. Which of the following statements best describes the proximal convoluted tubule? a. It connects the nephron loop to the collecting duct. b. The stretch of tubule closest to the glomerulus. c. The region of the nephron that allows only water to pass through the walls of the tube. d. The glomerular capillaries drain into this tubule to allow for filtrate reabsorption. e. Region of the nephron important for concentrating the filtrate to produce urine.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.3.7 - Describe specific mechanisms of transepithelial transport that occur in different parts of the nephron (e.g., active transport, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, electrochemical gradients, receptor-mediated endocytosis, transcytosis).

19. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the nephron loop? a. Consists of a descending limb and an ascending limb. b. Uses a countercurrent mechanism to determine concentration and volume of urine. c. Ascends toward the cortex and widens to form the distal convoluted tubule.

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d. Located within the renal medulla, not the renal cortex. e. Contains specialized epithelial cells that cover the outer surfaces of glomerular capillaries.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.3.7 - Describe specific mechanisms of transepithelial transport that occur in different parts of the nephron (e.g., active transport, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, electrochemical gradients, receptor-mediated endocytosis, transcytosis).

20. Which of the following statements best describes the filtration membrane? a. Found along the entire nephron tubing. b. The vascular membrane that surrounds the nephron loop. c. Connective tissue within the nephron to support the tubing structures. d. Allows water and solutes, smaller than plasma proteins, to pass through between the blood and the lumen of Glomerular capsule. e. Specialized epithelial cells that cover the outer surfaces of glomerular capillaries.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.3.7 - Describe specific mechanisms of transepithelial transport that occur in different parts of the nephron (e.g., active transport, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, electrochemical gradients, receptor-mediated endocytosis, transcytosis).

21. Which of the following statements best describes podocytes? a. Specialized cells found along the entire nephron tubing. b. The vascular membrane that surrounds the nephron loop. c. Connective tissue within the nephron to support the tubing structures. d. Allows water and solutes, smaller than plasma proteins, to pass through between the blood and the lumen of Glomerular capsule. e. Specialized epithelial cells that cover the outer surfaces of glomerular capillaries.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.3.7 - Describe specific mechanisms of transepithelial transport that occur in different parts of the nephron (e.g., active transport, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, electrochemical gradients, receptor-mediated endocytosis, transcytosis).

22. Collecting ducts are . a. continuous with the nephron but are not technically part of it b. channels embedded within membranes that allow water molecules to pass from one side of the membrane to the other c. longer nephron loops that extend deep into the medulla d. connected with the proximal convoluted tubule and only allow water to be reabsorbed e. specialized veins that carry blood back to the renal veins ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.3.9 - Explain the role of the nephron loop (of Henle), its permeability to water, and the high osmolarity of the interstitial fluid in the renal medulla in the formation of dilute urine.

23. Aquaporins are . a. glucose transporters that aid in water movement across the plasma membrane b. embedded transmembrane water channels that allow water molecules to pass across the plasma membrane c. short nephron loops that are only located within the renal cortex d. channels within the collecting duct that allow for specific solutes to be reabsorbed that were not reabsorbed throughout the nephron e. specialized epithelial cells that cover the outer surfaces of glomerular capillaries ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.3.9 - Explain the role of the nephron loop (of Henle), its permeability to water, and the high osmolarity of the interstitial fluid in the renal medulla in the formation of dilute urine.

24. Long nephron loops that extend deep into the renal medulla are called a. the juxtaglomerular complex b. macula densa c. juxtamedullary nephrons d. the vasa recta e. granular cells

.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.3.11 - Identify the location, structures and cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) and discuss its significance.

25. The volume of filtrate formed per minute by both kidneys is referred to as . a. the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) b. the rate of reabsorption of substances from the nephron tube to the blood c. the number of solutes secreted into the nephron tube following filtration d. cardiac output e. net filtration pressure (NFP) ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.3 Physiology of Urine Formation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.3.12 - Compare and contrast blood plasma, glomerular filtrate, and urine.

26. Which of the following statements best describes renin? a. An enzyme secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the afferent arteriole at the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA). b. A hormone precursor, an inactive form of a circulating hormone. c. An enzyme produced in the lungs and added to the blood at a consistent rate over time. d. A peptide hormone released by the posterior pituitary that promotes the recovery of water and decreases urine

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volume, thereby increasing blood volume and blood pressure. e. Peptides that stimulate the kidneys to excrete sodium.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.4 Homeostasis and Control Over the Formation of Urine LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.4.1 - For the renin-angiotensin system (RAS), describe the factors that initiate renin release, the pathway from angiotensinogen to angiotensin II (ANGII), and the effects of ANGII on various tissues.

27. Which of the following statements best describes angiotensinogen? a. An enzyme secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the afferent arteriole at the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA). b. A hormone precursor, an inactive form of a circulating hormone. c. An enzyme produced in the lungs and added to the blood at a consistent rate over time. d. A peptide hormone released by the posterior pituitary that promotes the recovery of water and decreases urine volume, thereby increasing blood volume and blood pressure. e. Peptides that stimulate the kidneys to excrete sodium.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.4 Homeostasis and Control Over the Formation of Urine LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.4.1 - For the renin-angiotensin system (RAS), describe the factors that initiate renin release, the pathway from angiotensinogen to angiotensin II (ANGII), and the effects of ANGII on various tissues.

28. Which of the following statements best describeWsWanWg. ioT teB nsSinMc. onWvS erting enzyme (ACE)? a. An enzyme secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the afferent arteriole at the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA). b. A hormone precursor, an inactive form of a circulating hormone. c. An enzyme produced in the lungs and added to the blood at a consistent rate over time. d. A peptide hormone released by the posterior pituitary that promotes the recovery of water and decreases urine volume, thereby increasing blood volume and blood pressure. e. Peptides that stimulate the kidneys to excrete sodium.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.4 Homeostasis and Control Over the Formation of Urine LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.4.1 - For the renin-angiotensin system (RAS), describe the factors that initiate renin release, the pathway from angiotensinogen to angiotensin II (ANGII), and the effects of ANGII on various tissues.

29. Which of the following statements best describes antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? a. An enzyme secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the afferent arteriole at the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA). b. A hormone precursor, an inactive form of a circulating hormone. c. An enzyme produced in the lungs and added to the blood at a consistent rate over time. d. A peptide hormone released by the posterior pituitary that promotes the recovery of water and decreases urine volume, thereby increasing blood volume and blood pressure. e. Peptides that stimulate the kidneys to excrete sodium.

ANSWER: d

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.4 Homeostasis and Control Over the Formation of Urine LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.4.1 - For the renin-angiotensin system (RAS), describe the factors that initiate renin release, the pathway from angiotensinogen to angiotensin II (ANGII), and the effects of ANGII on various tissues.

30. Which of the following statements best describes natriuretic hormones? a. An enzyme secreted by the juxtaglomerular cells of the afferent arteriole at the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA). b. A hormone precursor, an inactive form of a circulating hormone. c. An enzyme produced in the lungs and added to the blood at a consistent rate over time. d. A peptide hormone released by the posterior pituitary that promotes the recovery of water and decreases urine volume, thereby increasing blood volume and blood pressure. e. Peptides that stimulate the kidneys to excrete sodium.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.4 Homeostasis and Control Over the Formation of Urine LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.4.1 - For the renin-angiotensin system (RAS), describe the factors that initiate renin release, the pathway from angiotensinogen to angiotensin II (ANGII), and the effects of ANGII on various tissues.

31. Which of the following statements best describes angiotensin II? a. A powerful vasoconstrictor, to rapidly increase blood pressure. b. A hormone that lowers blood pressure during periods of high blood pressure. c. A hormone that targets cells to increase reabW soWrpWti. onToBfSNM a+., W orSsecretion of K+. d. Hormone released to stimulate the kidneys to excrete sodium. e. A hormone precursor, an inactive form of angiotensin I. ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.4 Homeostasis and Control Over the Formation of Urine LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.4.1 - For the renin-angiotensin system (RAS), describe the factors that initiate renin release, the pathway from angiotensinogen to angiotensin II (ANGII), and the effects of ANGII on various tissues.

32. Which of the following statements best describes aldosterone? a. A powerful vasoconstrictor, to rapidly increase blood pressure. b. A hormone that lowers blood pressure during periods of high blood pressure. c. A hormone that targets cells to increase reabsorption of Na+, or secretion of K+. d. Hormone released to stimulate the kidneys to excrete sodium. e. A hormone precursor, an inactive form of angiotensin I. ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.4 Homeostasis and Control Over the Formation of Urine LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.4.1 - For the renin-angiotensin system (RAS), describe the factors that initiate renin release, the pathway from angiotensinogen to angiotensin II (ANGII), and the effects of ANGII on various tissues.

33. Which of the following statements best describes erythropoietin (EPO)?

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a. Secreted by the kidneys in response to low oxygen levels in the blood. b. A hormone secreted by the liver to aid in the removal of toxins in the blood. c. Secreted when blood Ca2+ levels are low. d. A peptide hormone released by the posterior pituitary to maintain water balance. e. A hormone secreted by the kidneys to increase water reabsorption.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.5 Additional Endocrine Activities of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.5.1 - Describe the role of the kidney in vitamin D activation.

34. is important for Ca2+ absorption within the digestive tract, Ca2+ reabsorption in the kidney, and the maintenance of Ca2+ and phosphate homeostasis in the blood. a. Vitamin K b. Vitamin D c. Renin d. Thyroid hormone e. Aldosterone ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.5 Additional Endocrine Activities of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.5.1 - Describe the role of the kidney in vitamin D activation.

35. Which of the following statements best describes parathyroid hormone (PTH)? a. Secreted by the kidneys in response to low oWxW ygWen.lT evBeS ls M in.thWeSblood. b. A hormone secreted by the liver to aid in the removal of toxins in the blood. c. Secreted when blood Ca2+ levels are low. d. A peptide hormone released by the posterior pituitary to maintain water balance. e. A hormone secreted by the kidneys to increase water reabsorption.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.5 Additional Endocrine Activities of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.5.3 - Describe the effect of parathyroid hormone (PTH) on renal handling of calcium and phosphate.

36. Which of the following statements is FALSE about the ureters? a. Tubing that connects to the bladder at a diagonal (oblique) angle. b. Pushes urine into the urinary bladder using peristaltic waves. c. Drains the urine from the renal pelvis into the urinary bladder. d. Organs within the abdomen that are retroperitoneal. e. Allows for excess water reabsorption into the blood in the presence of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH).

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.6 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Urinary Tract (Ureters, Urinary Bladder, and Urethra) LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.6.1 - Identify and describe the gross anatomy and location of the ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra.

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37. Which of the following statements best describes the urethra? a. An anatomical structure that connects to the bladder at the ureteral openings. b. Allows the urine to exit the bladder and the body. c. Allows urine into the bladder but prevents reflux of urine from the bladder. d. Lies superiorly to the urinary bladder. e. Structure with exocrine glands that secrete into the tubing of the urethra.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.6 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Urinary Tract (Ureters, Urinary Bladder, and Urethra) LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.6.1 - Identify and describe the gross anatomy and location of the ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra.

38. The opens to allow urine into the urethra yet prevents reflux of urine back into the urinary bladder. a. urethral valve b. urethral gate c. urethral sphincter d. connective tissue cap e. trigone ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.6 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Urinary Tract (Ureters, Urinary Bladder, and Urethra) LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.6.1 - Identify and describe the gross anatomy and location of the ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra.

39. The act of emptying the bladder is referred to as . a. urination b. voiding c. micturition d. A and B e. A, B, and C ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.6 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Urinary Tract (Ureters, Urinary Bladder, and Urethra) LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.6.1 - Identify and describe the gross anatomy and location of the ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra.

40. What is the approximate volume of filtrate created by the glomeruli per day? a. 0.2 liters b. 2 liters c. 20 liters d. 200 liters e. 2000 liters ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember

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REFERENCES: 25.7 Urine Characteristics and Elimination LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.7.1 - Describe the typical characteristics of urine.

41. What is the approximate volume of urine excreted per day? a. Less than 1 liter b. Less than 2 liters c. More than 3 liters d. More than 4 liters e. More than 5 liters ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 25.7 Urine Characteristics and Elimination LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.7.1 - Describe the typical characteristics of urine.

42. What is the approximate pH of urine? a. 1 to 3.5 b. 3.6 to 4.4 c. 4.5 to 8 d. 8.1 to 10 e. 10.1 to 13 ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 25.7 Urine Characteristics and Elimination LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.7.1 - Describe tW hW eW ty. piT caBl S chMa. raWcS teristics of urine.

Essay 43. The urinary system maintains homeostasis in a multitude of ways. Describe four major mechanisms performed by the urinary system to maintain homeostasis.

ANSWER: The major mechanisms performed by the urinary system to maintain homeostasis are the following: * Filters the blood, removing wastes. The cells of the body continually break down and recycle proteins. During this process, nitrogenous wastes, which can be harmful to the body, are generated. These wastes are removed from body fluids and added to urine to be excreted or eliminated. * Regulates blood pH. While the pH of the body fluids is kept within an incredibly narrow range, the pH of urine varies widely. The kidneys maintain blood pH by adding any excess hydrogens or bicarbonate ions to the urine to ensure blood pH stays constant. * Regulates blood pressure. Blood volume impacts blood pressure. The higher the volume of blood, the higher the pressure on the walls of the blood vessels. The urinary system removes excess fluid, or volume, in the blood when necessary. It also works to conserve blood volume when blood pressure is low by creating a lower volume of more concentrated urine. * Regulates the concentration of solutes in the blood. The kidneys work to excrete or retain solutes in the blood as necessary to maintain body homeostasis. * Influences the concentration of red blood cells through the production of erythropoietin (EPO). As blood passes through the kidneys, cells within are monitoring blood for its oxygen-carrying capacity. When blood carries less oxygen than is optimal, the kidneys release EPO, which stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. * Performs the final synthesis step of vitamin D production. It converts calcidiol to

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calcitriol, the active form of vitamin D. Vitamin D is synthesized in the skin in response to UV radiation from the sun, but it is not released in its active form. This final step of vitamin D production is contributed by the kidneys.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.1 Functions of the Urinary System LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.1.1 - Describe the major functions of the urinary system and which organs are responsible for those functions.

44. List and describe the three major renal processes that occur within the nephron.

ANSWER: In general, three major renal processes occur in the nephron to produce urine: glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion (excretion also occurs to get rid of the urine). Blood from the afferent arteriole is filtered within the glomerulus; any small solutes, water, including glucose and amino acids, etc. are pushed into the glomerular capsule. The fluid within the capsule is now referred to as “filtrate.” The cell-free and protein-free filtrate then travels into the proximal convoluted tubule where most of the reabsorption occurs, yet reabsorption does take place along the entire nephron tube. In fact, 99% of filtrate gets reabsorbed. Reabsorbed materials will include water, glucose, amino acids, and many of the solutes such as Na+, Ca2+, and so on. Tubular secretion (substances moving from the blood into the tube) occurs along the length of the nephron tube and collecting duct to maintain blood pH and other ion or solute concentrations. The peritubular capillary or the vasa recta is a site of exchange between the filtrate and the blood. Mechanisms by which substances move across membranes for reabsorption or secretion include: active transport, simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, secondary active transport, and osmosis. At the end of this exchange system, the blood passes back into the venous circulation and returns to the heart. Any materials left in the tubule become urine and are excreted.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand WWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.2.5 - Identify and describe the structure of a typical nephron, including the renal corpuscle (i.e., glomerular [Bowman’s] capsule, glomerulus) and renal tubule (i.e., proximal convoluted tubule, nephron loop [loop of Henle], distal convoluted tubule).

45. Define net filtration pressure (NFP). Explain the NFP across the capillary and how these pressures result in filtration within the glomerular capsule.

ANSWER: Net filtration pressure (NFP) determines glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and consists of various pressures that filter the blood. NFP is dependent on blood flow to the glomerulus and blood pressure. Forces that determine NFP are glomerular hydrostatic pressure, capsular hydrostatic pressure, and blood colloid osmotic pressure. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure favors filtration, while capsular hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries favors reabsorption. Therefore, if glomerular hydrostatic pressure is higher than the sum of capsular hydrostatic pressure + osmotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries, the resulting pressure will favor filtration (a positive value). Normally, glomerular hydrostatic pressure = 55 mmHg, capsular hydrostatic pressure = 15, and osmotic pressure within the glomerular capillaries = 30 mmHg. Thus, the NFP = 10 mmHg, favors filtration.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 25.3 Physiology of Urine Formation LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.3.10 - Trace the changes in filtrate osmolarity as it passes through the segments of the nephron.

46. List the sources and the inactive form of vitamin D. Then, describe its importance to our health.

ANSWER: Vitamin D is a vitamin that can be obtained through your food, but can be synthesized in

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the skin in response to UV radiation from the sun. The skin synthesizes calcidiol from cholesterol, but calcidiol must become the active form of vitamin D. Activated vitamin D is important for absorption of Ca2+ in the digestive tract, its reabsorption in the kidney, and the maintenance of Ca2+ and phosphate homeostasis in the blood.

Additional information: Calcium is vitally important in bone health, muscle contraction, hormone secretion, and neurotransmitter release. Inadequate Ca2+ leads to disorders like osteoporosis and osteomalacia in adults and rickets in children. Deficits may also result in problems with cell proliferation, neuromuscular function, blood clotting, and the inflammatory response. Recent research has confirmed that vitamin D receptors are present in most, if not all, cells of the body, reflecting the systemic importance of vitamin D. Many scientists have suggested it be referred to as a hormone (a compound made by the body and released into the bloodstream) rather than a vitamin (a compound obtained in the diet). In many parts of the world vitamin D is a vitamin in colder winter months when skin exposure to UV radiation from the sun is limited, but a hormone in the warmer months when skin exposure is more common.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Analyze REFERENCES: 25.5 Additional Endocrine Activities of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.5.1 - Describe the role of the kidney in vitamin D activation.

47. Describe the external anatomy of the two kidneys and their differences.

ANSWER: The two kidneys are the same size, but they are not perfectly parallel to each other; the left kidney is slightly lower due to displacement by the very large liver. Each kidney is covered by a fibrous capsule composed of dense, irregular connective tissue that helps to hold their shape and protect them. This capsule is covered by a shock-absorbing layer of adipose tissue called perinephric fat, which in turn is encompassed by a tough renal fascia. The fascia and, to a lesser extent, the overlying peritoneum serve to anchor the kidneys firmly to the posterior abdominal.

WWW.TBSM.WS DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Analyze REFERENCES: 25.2 Gross and Microscopic Anatomy of the Kidney LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 25.2.1 - Identify and describe the anatomic structure of the kidney, including its coverings.

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Chapter 26 - Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance Multiple Choice 1. In biology and general chemistry, you learned about solutes. In general, solutes are . a. substances dissolved in a solution b. minerals that carry an electrical charge c. hormones that diffuse easily across the capillary wall d. salts that determine hydrostatic pressures e. the accumulation of excess water in tissue beds ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.1 Body Fluids and Fluid Compartments LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.1.1 - Describe the boundary walls that separate different body fluid compartments and list transport mechanisms by which water and other substances move between compartments.

2. Electrolytes are . a. substances dissolved in a solution b. minerals that carry an electrical charge c. hormones that diffuse easily across the capillary wall d. salts that determine hydrostatic pressures e. the accumulation of excess water in tissue beds ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.1 Body Fluids and Fluid Compartments LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.1.1 - Describe the boundary walls that separate different body fluid compartments and list transport mechanisms by which water and other substances move between compartments.

3. Which of the following statements best describes the term osmosis? a. The number of dissolved substances in a solution. b. The electrical charge across the plasma membrane. c. The movement of water from regions of higher water concentration to regions of lower water concentration. d. The diffusion of various small solutes across a semi-permeable membrane from high solute concentration to low solute concentration. e. The accumulation of excess water in the tissues.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.1 Body Fluids and Fluid Compartments LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.1.5 - Describe the factors that influence the direction and degree of movement of fluid between compartments.

4. A difference in water concentration across a semi-permeable membrane is specifically referred to as a(n) a. pressure gradient b. osmotic gradient c. solute gradient

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.

d. ionic exchange e. extracellular fluid compartment ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.1 Body Fluids and Fluid Compartments LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.1.5 - Describe the factors that influence the direction and degree of movement of fluid between compartments.

5. Edema is a condition defined as . a. the number of dissolved substances in the tissue bed b. the unequal distribution of solutes across a semi-permeable membrane c. a lymphatic disorder d. increased pressure along the vessel wall e. the accumulation of excess water in a tissue bed ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.1 Body Fluids and Fluid Compartments LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.1.5 - Describe the factors that influence the direction and degree of movement of fluid between compartments.

6. In the adult human, what percentage of body weight is water? a. 15% to 19% b. 20% to 30% c. 35% to 45% d. 50% to 60% e. 70% to 80% ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 26.1 Body Fluids and Fluid Compartments LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.1.5 - Describe the factors that influence the direction and degree of movement of fluid between compartments.

7. The sodium-potassium pump is a well-studied protein pump found almost all cells. Which of the following statements best describes the sodium-potassium pump? a. It transfers sodium into the cell and potassium out of the cell. b. It transports sodium out of the cell and potassium into the cell. c. It transports sodium and potassium in a 1:1 ratio. d. It is open most of the time to allow potassium to leave the cell. e. It does not require ATP. ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.1 Body Fluids and Fluid Compartments LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.1.5 - Describe the factors that influence the direction and degree of movement of fluid between compartments.

8. The force exerted against a wall, or membrane, by a fluid that causes fluid movement across that membrane is .

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a. hydrostatic pressure b. blood pressure c. colloid osmotic pressure d. osmolarity e. net filtration pressure ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.1 Body Fluids and Fluid Compartments LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.1.5 - Describe the factors that influence the direction and degree of movement of fluid between compartments.

9. A pressure primarily produced by circulating albumin at the arteriolar end of the capillary is . a. hydrostatic pressure b. blood pressure c. colloid osmotic pressure d. osmolarity e. net filtration pressure ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.1 Body Fluids and Fluid Compartments LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.1.5 - Describe the factors that influence the direction and degree of movement of fluid between compartments.

10. Capillary exchange refers to . a. the transportation of only sodium out of the cell and into the extracellular fluid b. the force exerted by a fluid that can cause the movement of fluid out of one compartment and into another c. the primary production of protein by circulating albumin at the arteriolar end of the capillary d. the regulation of plasma that will exit a blood vessel at a capillary e. fluid that is hypoosmotic to interstitial fluid ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.1 Body Fluids and Fluid Compartments LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.1.5 - Describe the factors that influence the direction and degree of movement of fluid between compartments.

11. Sweating is a homeostatic mechanism that helps cool the skin when our internal temperature rises. Which of the following statements best describes the comparison between sweat and interstitial fluid (ISF)? a. Sweat transfers sodium out of the cell and into the ECF. b. Sweat is generally hyperosmotic compared to interstitial fluid. c. Sweat refers to the fluid movement by circulating albumin at the arteriolar end of the capillary into the interstitium. d. Sweating regulates the amount of plasma that will exit a blood vessel at a capillary. e. Sweat is generally hypoosmotic compared to the ISF. ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.1 Body Fluids and Fluid Compartments LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.1.5 - Describe the factors that influence the direction and degree of movement

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of fluid between compartments.

12. Solutes must be able to cross the plasma membrane, when needed, to maintain homeostasis. You have learned about many ways in which these solutes cross the membrane. Which of the following statements best describes active transport? a. Transport that moves a specific substance against its concentration gradient through a membrane protein with the use of ATP, either directly or indirectly. b. Transportation of solutes across the membrane through a channel or with a transporter with the solute’s concentration gradient. c. The movement of water across the plasma membrane. d. The plasma membrane engulfs, or eats, a large volume of solutes. e. The cell releases solute waste into the interstitium to be removed by the lymphatic system.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.1 Body Fluids and Fluid Compartments LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.1.5 - Describe the factors that influence the direction and degree of movement of fluid between compartments.

13. Which of the following statements best describes facilitated diffusion? a. Transport that moves a specific substance against its concentration gradient through a membrane protein with the use of ATP, either directly or indirectly. b. Transportation of solutes across the membrane through a channel or with a transporter with the solute’s concentration gradient. c. The movement of water across the plasma membrane. d. The plasma membrane engulfs, or eats, a large volume of solutes. e. The cell releases solute waste into the intersW titW iuW m.toTbBeSreMm.oW veS d by the lymphatic system.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.2 Water Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.2.1 - Describe the normal routes of body water entry and loss, and explain how changes in water intake/loss can disrupt osmolarity homeostasis.

14. A net loss of water that results in insufficient water in the blood and other tissues is referred to as . a. hyper-hydration b. sweating c. dehydration d. diuresis e. overhydration ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.2 Water Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.2.2 - Describe behavioral mechanisms that control water intake and loss.

15. Sensory receptors that monitor the concentration of solutes in the blood are a. baroreceptors b. chemoreceptors c. nociceptors d. osmoreceptors

.

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e. proprioceptors ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.2 Water Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.2.5 - Describe changes to body fluid compartment volumes and osmolarity when a person drinks a large volume of pure water, and then explain the compensatory mechanisms that attempt to restore normal volumes and osmolarity.

16. Approximately 30 minutes after drinking large quantities of fluid, urine production is high. This condition is referred to as . a. hyper-hydration b. sweating c. dehydration d. diuresis e. overhydration ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.3 - Describe the integrated responses of the endocrine and urinary systems to disruptions of potassium homeostasis.

17. In terms of body function, which are the six most important electrolytes? a. sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, calcium, and phosphate b. manganese, molybdenum, copper, bicarbonate, calcium, and phosphate WWW.TBS M.WS c. sodium, potassium, chloride, manganese, zinc, and copper d. iron, potassium, chloride, strontium, calcium, and phosphate e. radium, potassium, chloride, zinc, calcium, and phosphate ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

18. Which of the following statements is FALSE about sodium ions? a. Sodium is the most common ion in the extracellular fluid. b. Sodium is primarily excreted through the kidneys. c. Sodium is pumped out of the intracellular fluid by a pump, or primary active transport. d. Sodium is the most common ion found in the intracellular fluid. e. Sodium is typically found in sweat.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

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19. Having lower than normal levels of sodium in the blood is referred to as . a. hypernatremia b. hyponatremia c. hypokalemia d. hyperkalemia e. hypocalcemia ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

20. Having higher than normal levels of sodium in the blood is referred to as . a. hypernatremia b. hyponatremia c. hypokalemia d. hyperkalemia e. hypocalcemia ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

21. Which of the following statements best describes the potassium ion? a. The most common ion in the extracellular fluid. b. The ion never found in the intracellular fluid. c. The ion found in abundance on the red blood cell. d. The most common ion found in the intracellular fluid. e. The ion rarely found in bodily fluids.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

22. Having low levels of potassium in the blood is referred to as a. hypernatremia b. hyponatremia c. hypokalemia d. hyperkalemia e. hypocalcemia ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

.

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REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

23. Which of the following statements best describes the chloride anion? a. The most common anion found in the extracellular fluid. b. The most common cation found in the blood and interstitium. c. An anion that is commonly found in the cells. d. An enzyme that converts carbon dioxide into bicarbonate in the cytoplasm. e. Contributes to the hardness of bones.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.2 - Explain the importance of maintaining calcium homeostasis, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma calcium levels are too high or too low.

24. Hypocalcemia is a condition when . a. the blood has low levels of sodium b. the blood has low blood chloride levels c. the extracellular fluid has high calcium levels d. the blood has high levels of sodium e. the blood has low calcium levels ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

25. Electrolytes serve many roles. One important role is maintaining acid-base balance, or to serve as a buffer. Which of the following ions best serve this role? a. sodium b. calcium c. bicarbonate d. potassium e. hydrogen ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

26. Carbonic anhydrase is . a. the most common anion found in the extracellular fluid b. present when blood chloride levels are low

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c. an anion present when hydrogens ions are high in the blood d. an enzyme that converts carbon dioxide into bicarbonate in the cytoplasm e. a protein that contributes to the hardness of bones ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

27. An electrolyte that contributes to bone density and muscle contractions is . a. sodium b. calcium c. bicarbonate d. potassium e. hydrogen ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

28. Hypercalcemia is a condition when W.WW.TBSM.WS a. the blood has low levels of sodium b. the blood has low blood chloride levels c. the extracellular fluid has high calcium levels d. the blood has high levels of sodium e. the blood has low calcium levels ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.4 - Describe the integrated responses of the endocrine, digestive, skeletal, and urinary systems to disruptions of calcium homeostasis.

29. Which of the following statements best describes hypophosphatemia? a. Abnormally low blood calcium levels. b. Abnormally high blood calcium levels. c. Abnormally low blood phosphate levels. d. Abnormally increased levels of phosphates in the blood. e. Sodium and potassium levels are kept within homeostatic ranges.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

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30. Which of the following statements best describes hyperphosphatemia? a. Abnormally low blood calcium levels. b. Abnormally high blood calcium levels. c. Abnormally low blood phosphate levels. d. Abnormally increased levels of phosphates in the blood. e. Sodium and potassium levels are kept within homeostatic ranges.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

31. The principal function of the kidneys is to . a. maintain calcium levels in bone b. maintain hemoglobin levels c. increase phosphate levels d. increase aldosterone secretion e. maintain sodium and potassium levels in the blood ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain thW eW im rtaBnScM e. ofWm Wp.oT Saintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

32. The kidneys regulate sodium and potassium levels in the blood by the RAA system. Which of the following statements best describes angiotensin II? a. A potent vasoconstrictor to increase systemic blood pressure. b. Released into the blood when blood levels of potassium increase. c. Released into the blood when calcium levels are high. d. An enzyme secreted by the lungs. e. An active form of vitamin D that intestinal epithelial cells require to absorb calcium.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

33. Which of the following statements best describes aldosterone? a. A potent vasoconstrictor to increase systemic blood pressure. b. Released into the blood when blood levels of potassium increase. c. Released into the blood when calcium levels are high. d. An enzyme secreted by the lungs. e. An active form of vitamin D that intestinal epithelial cells require to absorb calcium.

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ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

34. The adrenal glands release aldosterone when stimulated by either an increase in potassium or a decrease in sodium levels within the blood to excrete potassium and reabsorb sodium. This is an example of . a. a hypotonic solution b. hemostasis c. a negative feedback loop d. a positive feedback loop e. acid-base balance ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

35. Calcium and phosphate levels are regulated through the actions of which of the following hormones? a. parathyroid hormone (PTH) b. dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol) c. calcitonin d. B and C e. all of the above ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

36. Dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol) . a. is a potent vasoconstrictor and therefore a useful tool to increase systemic blood pressure b. is absorbed in the skin c. is released by the adrenal glands when there is a change in the concentration of Na+ or K+ in the blood d. regulates the secretion of calcium from bones e. is the active form of vitamin D that stimulates calcium absorption in the intestinal epithelial cells ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

37. To maintain acid-base balance, the formation of bicarbonate occurs

.

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a. when carbonic acid encounters a strong base, such as NaOH b. in any situation that impairs respiratory functions, including pneumonia and congestive heart failure c. most frequently in people with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus d. when there are changes in calcium and phosphate levels e. only in the small intestine ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

38. Abnormally high blood levels of carbon dioxide is referred to as . a. hypocapnia b. hypercapnia c. ketoacidosis d. hypoxia e. hyperemia ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potaW ssWiuWm leve .T BSlsMa.reWtSoo high or too low.

39. Individuals with diabetes mellitus can have when the disease is poorly controlled. a. hypocapnia b. hypercapnia c. ketoacidosis d. hypoxia e. hyperemia ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

40. Which of the following statements best describes metabolic acidosis? a. Occurs when the blood is too acidic (pH below 7.35) due to too little bicarbonate, or excess H+ ions. b. Occurs in any situation that impairs respiratory functions, including pneumonia and congestive heart failure. c. Occurs most frequently in people with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. d. Occurs when the blood is too alkaline (pH above 7.45) due to too much bicarbonate. e. Occurs when the blood is overly acidic due to an excess of carbonic acid, resulting from too much CO2 in the blood.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand

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REFERENCES: 26.5 Acid-Base Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.5.1 - Define acidosis and alkalosis.

41. Which of the following statements best describes metabolic alkalosis? a. Occurs when the blood is too acidic (pH below 7.35) due to too little bicarbonate, or excess H+ ions. b. Occurs in any situation that impairs respiratory functions, including pneumonia and congestive heart failure. c. Occurs most frequently in people with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. d. Occurs when the blood is too alkaline (pH above 7.45) due to too much bicarbonate. e. Occurs when the blood is overly acidic due to an excess of carbonic acid, resulting from too much CO2 in the blood.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.5 Acid-Base Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.5.1 - Define acidosis and alkalosis.

42. Which of the following statements best describes respiratory acidosis? a. Occurs when the blood is too acidic (pH below 7.35) due to too little bicarbonate, or excess H+ ions. b. Occurs in any situation that impairs respiratory functions, including pneumonia and congestive heart failure. c. Occurs most frequently in people with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. d. Occurs when the blood is too alkaline (pH above 7.45) due to too much bicarbonate. e. Occurs when the blood is overly acidic due to an excess of carbonic acid, resulting from too much CO2 in the blood.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understan WdWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 26.5 Acid-Base Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.5.1 - Define acidosis and alkalosis.

43. Which of the following statements best describes respiratory alkalosis? a. Occurs when the blood is too acidic (pH below 7.35) due to too little bicarbonate, or excess H+ ions. b. Occurs when the blood is overly alkaline due to a deficiency in carbonic acid and CO2 levels in the blood. c. Occurs most frequently in people with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus. d. Occurs when the blood is too alkaline (pH above 7.45) due to too much bicarbonate. e. Occurs when the blood is overly acidic due to an excess of carbonic acid, resulting from too much CO2 in the blood.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.5 Acid-Base Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.5.1 - Define acidosis and alkalosis.

44. Which of the following statements best describes respiratory compensation? a. Adjustment to increase hydrogen ion urination. b. Occurs when the blood is overly alkaline and the kidneys stimulate excretion of bicarbonate. c. Adjustment in breathing rate to change the amount of CO2 exhaled to return the blood pH to homeostatic levels. d. An increase in the release of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) from the lungs. e. Adjustment of sodium and potassium levels in the blood by the lungs.

ANSWER: c

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.5 Acid-Base Homeostasis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.5.2 - Compare and contrast metabolic and respiratory causes of pH imbalances.

Essay 45. Define total body water, then list and describe the bodily fluid compartments.

ANSWER: Total body water is the amount of water in the entire body. Total body water is normally between 50-60% yet can be reduced during aging. Body fluids are separated into specific compartments by some form of a physical barrier. The intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment includes all fluid enclosed in cells by their plasma membranes. The extracellular fluid (ECF) surrounds all cells in the body. Extracellular fluid has two primary constituents: the fluid component of the blood (called plasma) and the interstitial fluid (IF) that surrounds all cells not in the blood. Together, the ICF + ECF = Total body water.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.1 Body Fluids and Fluid Compartments LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.1.1 - Describe the boundary walls that separate different body fluid compartments and list transport mechanisms by which water and other substances move between compartments.

46. How does the composition of extracellular fluid (ECF) differ from intracellular fluid (ICF)? Explain.

ANSWER: Extracellular fluid (ECF) is composed of blood plasma and interstitial fluid (IF), which are very similar in composition. Blood plasma has high concentrations of sodium, chloride, bicarbonate, and proWteW inW s..TT heBoSnM ly.dW iffSerence between the IF and blood plasma is that the IF has a relatively lower concentration of protein than plasma. In contrast, the ICF has elevated concentrations of potassium, phosphate, magnesium, and protein anions. Overall, the ICF contains high concentrations of potassium and phosphate, the ECF contain high concentrations of sodium and chloride.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 26.1 Body Fluids and Fluid Compartments LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.1.4 - Compare and contrast relative volumes and osmolarities of intracellular fluid (ICF) and extracellular fluid (ECF).

47. Your textbook goes into detail about how a clinician may examine a patient’s electrolytes. Briefly discuss how each of the six key ions (sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, calcium, and phosphate) are easily analyzed in a clinical setting.

ANSWER: In a clinical setting, sodium, potassium, and chloride are typically analyzed in a routine urine sample. In contrast, calcium and phosphate analysis requires a collection of urine across a 24-hour period, because the output of these ions can vary considerably over the course of a day. Urine values reflect the rates of excretion of these ions. Bicarbonate is the one ion that is not normally excreted in urine because it is needed for use in the body’s buffering systems.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 26.3 Electrolyte Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.3.1 - Explain the importance of maintaining potassium homeostasis with regards to membrane potential, and provide examples of dysfunction that occur when plasma potassium levels are too high or too low.

48. We discussed in lecture and throughout the chapter that buffers can maintain homeostasis. Interestingly, proteins can

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act as buffers. Explain why nearly all proteins can function as buffers.

ANSWER: Proteins are made up of amino acids, which contain positively charged amino groups and negatively charged carboxyl groups. The charged regions of these molecules can bind hydrogen and hydroxyl ions, and thus function as buffers. Buffering by proteins accounts for two-thirds of the buffering power of the blood and most of the buffering within cells.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 26.4 Acid-Base Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.4.2 - Describe the major buffer systems of the body (e.g., bicarbonate buffer system, protein buffer system) and their locations (e.g., extracellular fluid) in the body.

49. Describe how the respiratory system contributes to the balance of acids and bases in the body.

ANSWER: The respiratory system contributes to the balance of acids and bases in the body by regulating the blood levels of carbonic acid. Because CO2 in the blood reacts with water to form carbonic acid, when the CO2 level in the blood rises the excess CO2 reacts with water to form additional carbonic acid, lowering blood pH. Increasing the rate and/or depth of respiration allows you to exhale more CO2 (i.e., get rid of CO2). The loss of CO2 from the body reduces blood levels of carbonic acid and thereby adjusts the pH upward, toward the normal range. Increases in CO2 in the blood will occur during increases in cellular respiration, such as during exercise, or when the breath rate is insufficient to rid the body of CO2, such as when an individual holds their breath. This process also works in the opposite direction. Excessive deep and rapid breathing (as in hyperventilation) gets rid of too much CO2 and reduces the level of carbonic acid, making the blood too alkaline.

Individuals who are hyperventilating are often encouraged to breathe into a paper bag. This “rebreathing” of expelled air rapidly brings blood pH down toward the normal range by increasing the amount of CO2 within the air in the lungs.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand WWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 26.4 Acid-Base Balance LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 26.4.3 - Explain the relationship between transport of carbon dioxide in the blood and the bicarbonate buffer system in the plasma.

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Chapter 27 - The Reproductive Systems Multiple Choice 1. An individual with the prototypical anatomy and natural estrogen levels within typical ranges is considered . a. a biological female b. a biological male c. a developing person d. a fetus e. an elderly individual ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.1 Overview of Human Reproductive Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.1.1 - Define and contrast the terms sex, gender, gender expression and sexual orientation.

2. Gender identity is a term that . a. refers to individuals with prototypical anatomy and hormone levels within ranges that are typical b. reflects who a person knows themselves to be c. describes whom an individual is sexually attracted to d. refers to individuals with different hormone levels e. refers to individuals with different anatomy ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.1 Overview of Human Reproductive Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.1.1 - Define and contrast the terms sex, gender, gender expression and sexual orientation.

3. Sexual orientation is a term that . a. refers to individuals with prototypical anatomy and hormone levels within ranges that are typical b. reflects who a person knows themselves to be c. describes whom an individual is sexually attracted to d. refers to individuals with different hormone levels e. refers to individuals with different anatomy ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.1 Overview of Human Reproductive Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.1.1 - Define and contrast the terms sex, gender, gender expression and sexual orientation.

4. Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) is . a. a tropic hormone, secreted by the hypothalamus, to regulate the secretion of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary b. a hormone released by the anterior pituitary that regulates the development of gametes c. a hormone released by the anterior pituitary that affects the ovaries or testes; in ovaries, it promotes the release of the mature ovum

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d. a group of hormones produced in the gonads and the adrenal cortex; they influence gamete production, sex drive, and tissue function all over the body e. a hormone made in the gonads as part of the feedback system to regulate the anterior pituitary ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 27.1 Overview of Human Reproductive Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.1.2 - Describe the functions of the hormones involved in the regulation of the reproductive processes (e.g., gonadotropin releasing hormone [GnRH], follicle stimulating hormone [FSH], luteinizing hormone [LH], androgens, inhibin, estrogens, progesterone.

5. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) is . a. a tropic hormone, secreted by the hypothalamus, to regulate the secretion of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary b. a hormone released by the anterior pituitary that regulates the development of gametes c. a hormone released by the anterior pituitary that affects the ovaries or testes; in ovaries, it promotes the release of the mature ovum d. a group of hormones produced in the gonads and the adrenal cortex; they influence gamete production, sex drive, and tissue function all over the body e. a hormone made in the gonads as part of the feedback system to regulate the anterior pituitary ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 27.1 Overview of Human Reproductive Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.1.2 - Describe the functions of the hormones involved in the regulation of the reproductive proceWsW seWs.(e g.S , gMo.nW adSotropin releasing hormone [GnRH], follicle T.B stimulating hormone [FSH], luteinizing hormone [LH], androgens, inhibin, estrogens, progesterone.

6. Luteinizing hormone (LH) is . a. a tropic hormone, secreted by the hypothalamus, to regulate the secretion of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary b. a hormone released by the anterior pituitary that regulates the development of gametes c. a hormone released by the anterior pituitary that affects the ovaries or testes; in ovaries, it promotes the release of the mature ovum d. a group of hormones produced in the gonads and the adrenal cortex; they influence gamete production, sex drive, and tissue function all over the body e. a hormone made in the gonads as part of the feedback system to regulate the anterior pituitary ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 27.1 Overview of Human Reproductive Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.1.2 - Describe the functions of the hormones involved in the regulation of the reproductive processes (e.g., gonadotropin releasing hormone [GnRH], follicle stimulating hormone [FSH], luteinizing hormone [LH], androgens, inhibin, estrogens, progesterone.

7. Androgens are . a. tropic hormones, secreted by the hypothalamus, to regulate the secretion of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary b. hormones released by the anterior pituitary that regulates the development of gametes

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c. hormones released by the anterior pituitary that affects the ovaries or testes; in ovaries, it promotes the release of the mature ovum d. a group of hormones produced in the gonads and the adrenal cortex; they influence gamete production, sex drive, and tissue function all over the body e. hormones made in the gonads as part of the feedback system to regulate the anterior pituitary ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 27.1 Overview of Human Reproductive Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.1.2 - Describe the functions of the hormones involved in the regulation of the reproductive processes (e.g., gonadotropin releasing hormone [GnRH], follicle stimulating hormone [FSH], luteinizing hormone [LH], androgens, inhibin, estrogens, progesterone.

8. Inhibin is . a. a tropic hormone, secreted by the hypothalamus, to regulate the secretion of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary b. a hormone released by the anterior pituitary that regulates the development of gametes c. a hormone released by the anterior pituitary that affects the ovaries or testes; in ovaries, it promotes the release of the mature ovum d. a group of hormones produced in the gonads and the adrenal cortex; they influence gamete production, sex drive, and tissue function all over the body e. a hormone made in the gonads as part of the feedback system to regulate the anterior pituitary ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 27.1 Overview of H prM od tive Systems WuWmWa.nTRBeS .uWcS LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.1.2 - Describe the functions of the hormones involved in the regulation of the reproductive processes (e.g., gonadotropin releasing hormone [GnRH], follicle stimulating hormone [FSH], luteinizing hormone [LH], androgens, inhibin, estrogens, progesterone.

9. is a hormone produced in the gonads, adipose tissue, or the adrenal cortex. This hormone influences gamete (i.e., ova) production, enhances sex drive, and influences tissue function all over the body. a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Testosterone d. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) e. Luteinizing hormone (LH) ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 27.1 Overview of Human Reproductive Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.1.2 - Describe the functions of the hormones involved in the regulation of the reproductive processes (e.g., gonadotropin releasing hormone [GnRH], follicle stimulating hormone [FSH], luteinizing hormone [LH], androgens, inhibin, estrogens, progesterone.

10. is a hormone produced by the corpus luteum in the ovaries (when they are present) and the placenta (when present). a. Estrogen b. Progesterone

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c. Testosterone d. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) e. Luteinizing hormone (LH) ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 27.1 Overview of Human Reproductive Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.1.2 - Describe the functions of the hormones involved in the regulation of the reproductive processes (e.g., gonadotropin releasing hormone [GnRH], follicle stimulating hormone [FSH], luteinizing hormone [LH], androgens, inhibin, estrogens, progesterone.

11. is a hormone produced by an embryo to regulate some aspects of development; it also feeds back to the ovaries to encourage continued hormone signaling. a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Testosterone d. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) e. Luteinizing hormone (LH) ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Remember REFERENCES: 27.1 Overview of Human Reproductive Systems LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.1.2 - Describe the functions of the hormones involved in the regulation of the reproductive processes (e.g., gonadotropin releasing hormone [GnRH], follicle stimulating hormone [FSH], luteinizing hormone [LH], androgens, inhibin, estrogens, progesW teW roWn. e.TBSM.WS 12. Which of the following statements best describes the indifferent stage of embryogenesis? a. No difference among embryos, regardless of chromosomes. b. The fetal development of body organs and organ system. c. One set of ducts will go on to develop into gonads; the other will be destroyed. d. Stage where the lungs are fully developed. e. Period of large increase in weight gain and the start of myelination of the spinal cord.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.2 Development of Reproductive Structures LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.2.1 - Identify homologues of reproductive system structures.

13. A slim ridge of mesodermal tissue during week five fetal development is called . a. cloaca b. the genital ridge c. testis d. ovary e. metanephros ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.2 Development of Reproductive Structures LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.2.1 - Identify homologues of reproductive system structures.

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14. The mesonephric ducts . a. will develop into biological female gonads b. carry oxygenated blood to the fetal heart c. will develop into biological male gonads d. are formed during late gestation (21-30 weeks) e. invaginate inward to become the lower two-thirds of the vagina ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.2 Development of Reproductive Structures LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.2.1 - Identify homologues of reproductive system structures.

15. If the SRY gene is absent, the fetus . a. will develop ovaries b. will likely not survive in utero c. will develop testes d. will develop lungs and surfactant during mid-gestation e. will likely be born prematurely ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.2 Development of Reproductive Structures LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.2.1 - Identify homologues of reproductive system structures.

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16. The urogenital sinus, which was formed from endoderm, will develop into the . a. anus b. ovaries c. testes d. appendix e. urinary bladder and urethra ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.2 Development of Reproductive Structures LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.2.1 - Identify homologues of reproductive system structures.

17. Which of the following statements is FALSE about puberty? a. The release of LH and FSH from the anterior pituitary stimulates the gonads to increase their production of sex hormones, resulting in changes to the external genitalia and other tissues throughout the body. b. Physical changes outside the reproductive organs, such as the growth of pubic hair, occur during puberty. c. Sex hormones promote osteoblastic activity and bone matrix production. d. Destruction of oogonia or spermatogonia mark the beginning of puberty. e. Gametogenesis continues following puberty.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.2 Development of Reproductive Structures LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.2.2 - Describe the physiological and anatomical changes that occur during puberty.

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18. Physical changes outside the reproductive organs, such as growth of pubic hair, are referred to as . a. primary sex characteristics b. secondary sex characteristics c. puberty d. ovulation e. gametogenesis ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.2 Development of Reproductive Structures LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.2.2 - Describe the physiological and anatomical changes that occur during puberty.

19. Breasts are . a. under the control of all anterior pituitary hormones b. only present in biological females to foster milk production for a newborn c. present in all individuals and increase in size with the presence of estrogens d. involved only in the lymphatic system e. an anatomical region composed of only fatty deposits ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.2 Development of Reproductive Structures LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.2.3 - Identify the structures of human mammary glands and describe their functions.

20. Anatomically, the lactiferous sinus . a. makes up most of the breast, where breast milk is produced b. is a small canal that opens to the surface of the nipple c. is composed of fatty tissue for milk storage d. is a space along the lactiferous duct that contains groups of milk-secreting cells in clusters e. is a cylindrical projection on the anterior region of the breast surrounded by an areola ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.2 Development of Reproductive Structures LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.2.3 - Identify the structures of human mammary glands and describe their functions.

21. Anatomically, the nipple . a. makes up most of the breast, where breast milk is produced b. is a small canal that opens to the surface of the nipple c. is composed of fatty tissue for milk storage d. is a space along the lactiferous duct that contains groups of milk-secreting cells in clusters e. is a cylindrical projection on the anterior region of the breast surrounded by an areola ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.2 Development of Reproductive Structures

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LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.2.3 - Identify the structures of human mammary glands and describe their functions.

22. Which of the following statements best describes the mons pubis? a. A fat pad located in the anterior pubic region, covers the pubic bone. b. Serves to protect the urethra and vagina. c. An organ that originates from the same cells as the glans penis and has abundant nerves that make it important in sexual sensation and orgasm. d. A muscular canal that serves as the entrance and exit of the reproductive tract. e. The gonads that produce oocytes.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.3 Anatomy of Biological Females LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.4.1 - Define the process of oogenesis (oocyte development).

23. Which of the following statements best describes the labia minora? a. A fat pad located the anterior pubic region, covers the pubic bone. b. Serves to protect the urethra and vagina. c. An organ that originates from the same cells as the glans penis and has abundant nerves that make it important in sexual sensation and orgasm. d. A muscular canal that serves as the entrance and exit of the reproductive tract. e. The gonads that produce oocytes.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand WWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 27.3 Anatomy of Biological Females LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.3.1 - Identify and describe the structure and functions of the external genitalia (e.g., mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, greater vestibular glands).

24. Which of the following statements best describes the glans clitoris? a. A fat pad located the anterior pubic region, covers the pubic bone. b. Serves to protect the urethra and vagina. c. An organ that originates from the same cells as the glans penis and has abundant nerves that make it important in sexual sensation and orgasm. d. A muscular canal that serves as the entrance and exit of the reproductive tract. e. The gonads that produce oocytes.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.3 Anatomy of Biological Females LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.3.1 - Identify and describe the structure and functions of the external genitalia (e.g., mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, greater vestibular glands).

25. Which of the following statements best describes the vagina? a. A fat pad located the anterior pubic region, covers the pubic bone. b. Serves to protect the urethra and vagina. c. An organ that originates from the same cells as the glans penis and has abundant nerves that make it important in sexual sensation and orgasm. d. A muscular canal that serves as the entrance and exit of the reproductive tract.

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e. The gonads that produce oocytes.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.3 Anatomy of Biological Females LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.3.2 - Identify and describe the structure and function of the vagina.

26. The gonad that produces oocytes is the . a. uterine tube b. epididymis c. testis d. uterus e. ovary ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.3 Anatomy of Biological Females LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.3.3 - Identify and describe the gross anatomy, microscopic anatomy, and functions of the ovaries.

27. Blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves of the ovary are located in the . a. ovarian medulla b. ovarian cortex c. tunica albuginea d. uterine tube e. mature follice ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.3 Anatomy of Biological Females LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.3.3 - Identify and describe the gross anatomy, microscopic anatomy, and functions of the ovaries.

28. Which of the following statements best describes the fallopian tubes? a. The site of blood vessels, lymph vessels, and the nerves of the ovary. b. Serve as the conduit of the egg from the ovary to the uterus. c. The narrow medial end of each uterine tube connected to the uterus. d. The inferior surface is connected to the vagina. e. They stabilize the uterus posteriorly by its connection from the cervix to the pelvic wall.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.3 Anatomy of Biological Females LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.3.3 - Identify and describe the gross anatomy, microscopic anatomy, and functions of the ovaries.

29. Which of the following statements best describes the isthmus? a. The site of blood vessels, lymph vessels, and the nerves of the ovary. b. Serves as the conduit of the egg from the ovary to the uterus. c. The narrow medial end of each uterine tube connected to the uterus.

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d. The inferior surface is connected to the vagina. e. It stabilizes the uterus posteriorly by its connection from the cervix to the pelvic wall.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.3 Anatomy of Biological Females LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.3.4 - Identify and describe the ligaments of the female reproductive system (e.g., broad ligament, ovarian ligament, suspensory ligament of the ovary, round ligament of the uterus).

30. Which of the following statements best describes the uterus? a. The site of blood vessels, lymph vessels, and the nerves of the ovary. b. Serves as the conduit of the egg from the ovary to the uterus. c. The narrow medial end of each uterine tube connected to the uterus. d. The inferior surface is connected to the vagina. e. It stabilizes the uterus posteriorly by its connection from the cervix to the pelvic wall.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.3 Anatomy of Biological Females LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.3.4 - Identify and describe the ligaments of the female reproductive system (e.g., broad ligament, ovarian ligament, suspensory ligament of the ovary, round ligament of the uterus).

31. Which of the following statements best describes the uterosacral ligament? a. The site of blood vessels, lymph vessels, and the nerves of the ovary.

WWW.TBSM.WS b. Serves as the conduit of the egg from the ovary to the uterus. c. The narrow medial end of each uterine tube connected to the uterus. d. The inferior surface is connected to the vagina. e. It stabilizes the uterus posteriorly by its connection from the cervix to the pelvic wall.

ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.3 Anatomy of Biological Females LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.3.4 - Identify and describe the ligaments of the female reproductive system (e.g., broad ligament, ovarian ligament, suspensory ligament of the ovary, round ligament of the uterus).

32. Which of the following statements best describes the cervix? a. The narrow inferior portion of the uterus that projects into the vagina. b. Consists of epithelial tissue that covers the exterior portion of the uterus. c. A thick layer of smooth muscle responsible for uterine contractions. d. The innermost layer of the uterus. e. Production site of oocytes.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.3 Anatomy of Biological Females LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.3.4 - Identify and describe the ligaments of the female reproductive system (e.g., broad ligament, ovarian ligament, suspensory ligament of the ovary, round ligament of the uterus).

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33. Which of the following statements best describes the perimetrium? a. The narrow inferior portion of the uterus that projects into the vagina. b. Consists of epithelial tissue that covers the exterior portion of the uterus. c. A thick layer of smooth muscle responsible for uterine contractions. d. The innermost layer of the uterus. e. Production site of oocytes.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.3 Anatomy of Biological Females LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.3.4 - Identify and describe the ligaments of the female reproductive system (e.g., broad ligament, ovarian ligament, suspensory ligament of the ovary, round ligament of the uterus).

34. Which of the following statements best describes the myometrium? a. The narrow inferior portion of the uterus that projects into the vagina. b. Consists of epithelial tissue that covers the exterior portion of the uterus. c. A thick layer of smooth muscle responsible for uterine contractions. d. The innermost layer of the uterus. e. Production site of oocytes.

ANSWER: c DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.3 Anatomy of Biological Females LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.3.4 - Identify anWdWdW e. scT riB beStM he ligSaments of the female reproductive system .W (e.g., broad ligament, ovarian ligament, suspensory ligament of the ovary, round ligament of the uterus).

35. Which of the following statements best describes the endometrium? a. The narrow inferior portion of the uterus that projects into the vagina. b. Consists of epithelial tissue that covers the exterior portion of the uterus. c. A thick layer of smooth muscle responsible for uterine contractions. d. The innermost layer of the uterus. e. Production site of the oocytes.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.3 Anatomy of Biological Females LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.3.4 - Identify and describe the ligaments of the female reproductive system (e.g., broad ligament, ovarian ligament, suspensory ligament of the ovary, round ligament of the uterus).

36. The production of oocytes is referred to as a. oogonia b. atresia c. ovulation d. mitosis e. oogenesis ANSWER: e

.

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DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.4 The Ovarian and Uterine Cycles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.4.1 - Define the process of oogenesis (oocyte development).

37. Which of the following statements best describes folliculogenesis? a. The growth and development of ovarian follicles. b. When the nucleus from the sperm enters the cytoplasm of the egg. c. Follicular growth during the corpus luteal phase. d. The death of the ovarian follicle. e. An anatomical structure capable of producing both estrogen and the steroid hormone progesterone.

ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.4 The Ovarian and Uterine Cycles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.4.4 - Describe a typical ovarian cycle and explain how the process of folliculogenesis spans multiple ovarian cycles.

38. Which of the following statements best describes fertilization? a. The growth and development of ovarian follicles. b. When the nucleus from the sperm enters the cytoplasm of the egg. c. Follicular growth during the corpus luteal phase. d. The death of the ovarian follicle. e. An anatomical structure capable of producing both estrogen and the steroid hormone progesterone.

ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: UnderstaW ndWW.TBSM.WS REFERENCES: 27.4 The Ovarian and Uterine Cycles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.4.4 - Describe a typical ovarian cycle and explain how the process of folliculogenesis spans multiple ovarian cycles.

39. Which of the following statements best describes atresia? a. The growth and development of ovarian follicles. b. When the nucleus from the sperm enters the cytoplasm of the egg. c. Follicular growth during the corpus luteal phase. d. The death of the ovarian follicle. e. An anatomical structure capable of producing both estrogen and the steroid hormone progesterone.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.4 The Ovarian and Uterine Cycles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.4.4 - Describe a typical ovarian cycle and explain how the process of folliculogenesis spans multiple ovarian cycles.

40. Which of the following statements best describes the corpus luteum? a. The growth and development of ovarian follicles. b. When the nucleus from the sperm enters the cytoplasm of the egg. c. Follicular growth during the corpus luteal phase. d. The death of the ovarian follicle. e. An anatomical structure capable of producing both estrogen and the steroid hormone progesterone.

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ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.4 The Ovarian and Uterine Cycles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.4.4 - Describe a typical ovarian cycle and explain how the process of folliculogenesis spans multiple ovarian cycles.

41. Anatomically, the testes . a. are housed within the scrotum because sperm are produced at an ideal temperature lower than body temperature b. are also referred to as the epididymis c. are composed of three critical accessory glands of the male reproductive system d. carry on the process of follicular growth and development e. are capable of producing both estrogen and the steroid hormone progesterone ANSWER: a DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.5 Anatomy of Biological Males LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.5.1 - Identify and describe the structure and functions of the male external genitalia (e.g., scrotum, penis).

42. The anatomical structure that extends inferiorly from the body and posterior to the penis is the . a. ductus deferens b. scrotum c. prostate gland d. epididymis e. spongy urethra ANSWER: b DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.5 Anatomy of Biological Males LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.5.1 - Identify and describe the structure and functions of the male external genitalia (e.g., scrotum, penis).

43. Biological males produce semen via the accessory glands. Which of the following are the accessory glands? a. prostate gland b. seminal vesicles c. bulbo-urethral glands d. A and C e. all of the above ANSWER: e DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.5 Anatomy of Biological Males LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.5.5 - Describe the production, composition, and functions of semen.

44. Which of the following statements best describes the prostate gland? a. Housed within the scrotum to produce sperm. b. A tubal structure that extends from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct. c. The location of the spongy urethra. d. It excretes an alkaline, milky fluid critical to coagulate the semen following ejaculation.

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e. An organ capable of producing testosterone.

ANSWER: d DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.5 Anatomy of Biological Males LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.5.5 - Describe the production, composition, and functions of semen.

Essay 45. Describe how a mature oocyte can be fertilized following ovulation. Include the important anatomical structures and hormones involved in this process.

ANSWER: During the late follicular phase, there is an estrogen positive feedback loop. This increase in estrogen increases secretion of LH (luteinizing hormone), high levels of LH (i.e., LH surge) rupture the follicle, and ovulation occurs. During ovulation, an egg (i.e., oocyte) is released from the ovary and swept up into the uterine tube. High concentrations of estrogen during ovulation increase the beating of the cilia that line the lumen along the length of the uterine tube and uterine tube contractions. As a result, the egg is pulled into the interior of the tube via fimbriae. Once inside, the muscular contractions and beating cilia move the egg slowly toward the uterus. If sperm are present in the reproductive tract, they typically meet the egg while it is still moving through the ampulla. Fertilization generally occurs within the uterine tube.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.3 Anatomy of Biological Females LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.3.5 - Describe the pathway of the oocyte from the ovary to the uterus.

46. Describe oogenesis from the formation of the oogonia during fetal development to the end of menopause.

ANSWER: Oogenesis begins with the ovarian stem cells, or oogonia. Oogonia are formed during fetal development and divide via mitosis. During the fetal period, prior to birth, oogonia begin the process of meiosis, forming primary oocytes. These primary oocytes pause in the meiosis I phase and can be found in the ovaries throughout childhood. A primary oocyte will complete meiosis during the ovarian cycle to prepare for fertilization. This process occurs approximately once every 28 days beginning at puberty and continues until menopause (the cessation of reproductive function in biological women). If fertilization does not occur, the oocyte is removed, or shed, from the uterus via menses (i.e., menstruation). The ovarian cycle can only begin with these arrested primary oocytes; therefore, the number of primary oocytes present in the ovaries at birth represents the total number of oocytes available for the individual’s entire lifetime. This number declines from 1 to 2 million in an infant, to approximately 400,000 at puberty, to zero by the end of menopause.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.4 The Ovarian and Uterine Cycles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.4.1 - Define the process of oogenesis (oocyte development).

47. Describe the differences between monozygotic and dizygotic twin pregnancies.

ANSWER: There are two types of twins, commonly known as identical (monozygotic) and fraternal (dizygotic) twins. Identical twins do not run in families; rather, they form from a completely random event likely to occur in any one pregnancy. Out of every 1,000 pregnancies, 1 will result in identical twins.

In identical (monozygotic) twin pregnancies, one egg is fertilized by one sperm forming a single zygote. The zygote goes through an initial round of mitosis multiple times. At the two- , four- , or eight-cell stage, the embryo might spontaneously separate into two clusters of cells. Each cluster of cells is identical to the other, carrying 100 percent of the same

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genes. If both embryos implant, the resulting pregnancy is termed monozygotic because it came from the same zygote.

Fraternal (dizygotic), or nonidentical, twins, on the other hand, occur when two eggs are fertilized by separate sperm. Because these embryos resulted from two different eggs and two different sperm, the twins are no more alike or different than any other set of siblings, sharing on average about 50 percent of their genome. These twin pregnancies are called dizygotic because they result from two different zygotes.

Whereas monozygotic twins are random, dizygotic twin pregnancies do run in families.

The tendency to ovulate more than one egg is called hyperovulation, and about 4 percent of biological females are prone to hyperovulation. There are two genes that contribute to the likelihood of hyperovulation. Both genes play a role in FSH signaling. The first gene, FSHB, causes this individual to secrete more FSH. More FSH in the blood stimulates more follicles to grow and increases the chance of ovulating more than one egg concurrently.

The second gene, SMAD3, increases responsiveness to FSH. While individuals with alterations in SMAD3 do not have more FSH in their blood, they respond more to typical levels of FSH. DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Apply REFERENCES: 27.4 The Ovarian and Uterine Cycles LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.4.4 - Describe a typical ovarian cycle and explain how the process of folliculogenesis spans multiple ovarian cycles.

48. Describe the process of spermatogenesis.

ANSWER: The process of spermatogenesis begins with mitosis of the diploid spermatogonia. Two identical diploid cells result from spermatogonia mitosis. Because these cells are diploid (2n), they each have a complete copy of genetic material, or 46 chromosomes. However, mature gametes are haploid (1n), containing 23 chromosomes—meaning that daughter cells of spermatogonia must undergo a second cellular division through the process of meiosis. One of these cells remains a spermatogonium, meaning that it remains a stem cell for future use. The other becomes a primary spermatocyte, which undergoes meiosis to yield haploid gametes. The resulting cells (secondary spermatocytes) undergo meiosis II, resulting in four haploid cells, each called a spermatid. Although they have reduced their chromosome number, early spermatids look very similar to cells in the earlier stages of spermatogenesis, with a round shape, central nucleus, and large amount of cytoplasm.

Spermiogenesis transforms these early spermatids into sperm by reducing the amount of cytoplasm and elongating the flagellum in preparation for swimming. At the end of this process the formed sperm can be found within the wall of the seminiferous tubule nearest the lumen. Eventually, the sperm are released into the lumen and are moved along a series of ducts in the testis toward the epididymis and ductus deferens.

The process of spermatogenesis begins at puberty and continues relatively constantly throughout the rest of the lifespan. Each seminiferous tubule undergoes its own cycle, but the cycle of one seminiferous tubule is not linked or coordinated with another. Therefore, the production of sperm within the entire human is relatively constant. Following a single cell, the process of generating sperm from a spermatogonium takes approximately 64 days.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.6 Spermatogenesis and Spermiogenesis LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.6.1 - Define the processes of spermatogenesis and spermiogenesis.

49. Describe the physiological events during the orgasm phase of sex.

ANSWER: Orgasm is a brief but intense response ranging in duration from one to fifteen seconds that may occur at the end of the excitement and plateau phase. During the orgasm phase, the sympathetic nervous system is dominant, increasing heart rate up to as high as 180 beats per minute (near the maximum heart rate of an individual), respiratory rate up to 40 breaths per minute, and blood pressure. Orgasm is characterized by two physiological events: a surge in blood oxytocin levels and pelvic muscular contractions. Oxytocin, a posterior

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pituitary hormone, has a relaxing effect on the body, promoting the activation of the parasympathetic nervous system. Oxytocin also promotes social bonding and feelings of affection. Pelvic muscular contractions occur at intervals of 0.8 second in all individuals.

In biological females, it is hypothesized (though in debate) that these contractions may help propel sperm, if present, toward the egg for fertilization. Pelvic muscle contraction in biological males may expel semen from the urethra. However, ejaculation, the expulsion of semen from the penis, may not always occur simultaneously with orgasm.

DIFFICULTY: Blooms: Understand REFERENCES: 27.7 Sex (Coitus) LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 27.7.1 - List and describe the physiology and stages of sexual responses.

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