TEST BANK for Cognition Theory and Practice 1st Edition Russell Revlin

Page 1


Chapter 01: Essay 1

Explain how the role of the outside world differs when comparing empiricism to rationalism. Answer: Empiricism says that reason is used to understand outside world, while rationalism says that concepts are intuitively known, and the outside world reminds us.

2

Cognition can be defined as the study of the processes by which the sensory input is transformed, reduced, elaborated, stored, recovered, and used. Explain how each of these five functions is different. Answer: Your answer should differentiate among these different cognitive functions.

3

Explain how both information reduction and information elaboration play roles in cognitive processing. Answer: Information reduction involves reducing what is stored to crucial elements; information elaboration involves expanding recollection to include inferred content.

4

Describe the behaviorist approach and explain how the cognitive approach differs from it. Be sure to address how the two approaches view mental processes differently. Answer: The behaviorist approach believes that science should exclude unseen entities; consequently, mental processes are not part of scientific explanation. The cognitive approach focuses on understanding mental processes.

5

How did Gestalt psychology contribute to the development of cognitive psychology? Answer: Gestalt psychology was interested in the relationship between perception of whole and how it relates to perception of parts.

6

Describe how interest in computer simulation contributed to the development of cognitive psychology. Answer:


It provided the computer metaphor and computer models of mental processes. 7

Explain the difference between serial processing and parallel distributed processing in computer models of human information processing. Answer: Serial processing provides a description of sequential steps in the process; parallel distributed processing emphasizes processes that occur simultaneously.

8

Describe how behaviorism, Gestalt psychology, human factors, computer simulation, and cognitive neuroscience all played roles in the development of cognitive psychology. Answer: Your answer should be that behaviorism has a scientific emphasis, Gestalt focuses on perceptual processes, human factors focus on the impact of cognitive processes on interactions with technology, computer simulation involves modeling cognitive processes, and cognitive neuroscience focuses on the neurological basis of cognitive processes.

9

Explain how response accuracy, produced response, and response latency differ as measures of cognitive processes. For each method, describe a research situation where it would be the most useful approach. Answer: Your answer should show an understanding of the differences in what each measures; examples may vary, but information sought should match the method used.

10

How might transfer of training be used to investigate cognitive processes? Answer: It allows investigation of whether information can be used in a novel setting.

11

One of the primary goals of this text is to link research, theory, and practice. Give two examples of areas where cognitive findings have had practical implications. Answer: Answers may vary, but should illustrate practical implications.

12

Use an example to explain the difference between cognitive universals that have a biological basis and cultural differences that may still play a role. Answer:


Answer: Examples may vary, but should recognize that there can be cultural differences even when there is an underlying universal process. 13

Explain how advance organizers can be useful in reader comprehension. Answer: They provide information about the organization of the information to be learned.


False 1

John Locke was a rationalist. True False

2

According to the symbolic distance effect, the larger the difference in size between two objects, the faster the judgment of which is larger. True False

3

Behaviorists believed that hypothesizing mental processes was critical to understanding human behavior. True False

4

Gestalt psychologists believed that the whole is more than the sum of its parts. True False

5

Human factors is concerned with helping people to perform tasks efficiently and safely. True False

6

Serial processors describe human information processing as a group of decisions and actions that all are produced at the same time. True False

7

Cognitive science is a field that includes cognitive psychology, linguistics, and artificial intelligence. True False


8

Testing how many photographs can be correctly recognized on a memory test is a method used in cognitive psychology and is known as produced response. True False

9

Using response latency as a measure is based on the assumption that the more difficult a mental task is, the more time it should take to complete it. True False

10

Transfer of training refers to testing whether someone can use information in new circumstances. True False

11

Cognitive psychology is primarily interested in looking at differences between cultural groups rather than in identifying universals. True False

12

Advance organizers help people to learn new information. True False


TestBanks Chapter 01: Web Quiz 1

Who of the following believed in rationalism? Aristotle Plato Locke Skinner

2

The larger the difference in size between two objects, the faster the judgment of which is larger will be. This finding is known as ____________ and illustrates how cognitive processes _______________ information. categorical clustering; transform categorical clustering; reduce symbolic distance effect; transform symbolic distance effect; reduce

3

Human recollections are rarely perfect duplications of an original event. Rather, they involve reconstruction of the event. The processes in this reconstruction illustrate which of the following aspects of cognitive processing? transformation of information reduction of information elaboration of information storage of information

4

Which of the following approaches emphasized that humans can be scientifically understood by looking exclusively at behavior? behavioral cognitive psychology Gestalt psychology human factors research

5

Who of the following would be MOST likely to emphasize that when we listen to music we tend to hear a melody rather than a sequence of individual notes? a behaviorist a Gestalt psychologist a human factors researcher a cognitive neuroscientist

6

Jane is interested in redesigning the array of instruments in an airplane cockpit to reduce the number pilot errors. Her interest is MOST closely associated with: behaviorism. cognitive neuroscience. Ggestalt psychology. human factors research.

7

The neural networks approach:


7

The neural networks approach: emphasizes that human information processing occurs in parallel. is concerned with the study of the relationship between brain structures, neurological activity, and cognitive function. emphasizes the sequential nature of cognitive processes. focuses on the limits of our cognitive capacities.

8

Researchers from fields such as anthropology, artificial intelligence, linguistics, and cognitive psychology, who are interested in the study of mental activity and intelligent behavior, are included in the broad field of: human factors. gestalt studies. cognitive science. empiricism.

9

Looking at the number of questions correctly answered on a multiple choice test is an example of using ____________ as a research methodology. produced response response accuracy response latency transfer of training

10

A researcher is interested in studying the kinds of memory distortions that result from the reconstruction processes involved in memory. Which of the following research techniques allows the researcher to examine the types of memory distortions that are produced? produced response response accuracy response latency transfer of training

11

Which of the following research methodologies assumes that the more difficult a mental task is, the more time it should take to complete? produced response response accuracy response latency transfer instead of “elements,” “processes” training


TestBanks Chapter 01: Multiple Choice 1

Which of the following examples BEST illustrates interference between cognitive processes? looking for a parking space while talking on a cell phone mentally rehearsing an address while talking with a friend driving a car while talking to a friend driving a car while looking for an address

2

The branch of psychology that identifies our mental processes and how they affect our ability to interact with the world around us is called: behaviorism. cognitive psychology. neuroscience. Gestalt psychology.

3

We use basic human reasoning to understand and learn about the world outside ourselves. This statement BEST illustrates the basic tenet of: empiricism. rationalism. behaviorism. All of the answers are correct.

4

Who of the following was an advocate of empiricism? Aristotle Descartes Chomsky Plato

5

Who of the following was NOT an advocate of rationalism? Aristotle Plato Descartes Chomsky

6

The position that there are concepts that we know intuitively and that real­world experience only reminds of this knowledge is known as: empiricism. rationalism. cognition. behaviorism.

7 Cognition can be defined as the study of those processes by


Cognition can be defined as the study of those processes by which the sensory input is _________. transformed reduced stored All of the answers are correct. 8

The ability to perceive shapes and colors as a result of the stimulation of millions of individual receptors illustrates how cognitive processes _______ information. transform reduce elaborate store and recover

9

The symbolic distance effect predicts that: the larger the difference in size between two objects, the faster the judgment of which is larger. the smaller the difference in size between two objects, the faster the judgment of which is larger. the closer together two objects are, the faster the judgment of which is larger. the further apart two objects are, the faster the judgment of which is larger.

10

Based on the symbolic distance effect, for which of the following pairs of animals would you expect the fastest time to judge which was larger? a fly and an ant a horse and a cow a horse and a fly a zebra and a donkey

11

In research conducted by Noordzij, Zuidhock, & Postma (2007), they asked both sighted and blind subjects to imagine different clock times on a clock face and determine which produced the greater angle between the clock hands. They found that responses were: faster when the difference between the two sets of clock hands was bigger, regardless of whether the participants were sighted or blind. faster when the difference between the two sets of clock hands was bigger but only for sighted participants. faster when the difference between the two sets of clock hands was bigger but only for blind participants. unaffected by the size of the difference between the two sets of clock hands.

12

George asks Jennifer about her trip to see the Grand Canyon. As Jennifer recalls her memory of that trip, she doesn't remember every single thing that happened but rather she remembers the highlights. This example


rather she remembers the highlights. This example illustrates how cognitive processes ________ information. transform reduce elaborate use 13

In a demonstration found in the text, you were asked to pick out the correct picture of a penny. Most people find this to be a difficult task despite having seen pennies on a regular basis throughout their lives. This difficulty is MOST closely associated with what aspect of cognitive processing? transformation of information reduction of information elaboration of information recovery of information

14

Categorical clustering illustrates which of the following aspects of cognitive processing? transformation of information reduction of information elaboration of information storage of information

15

Mary was presented with a short story about a person named John going to a restaurant. While the story did not include any information about John placing an order with the waiter, Mary later recollects that he did. This aspect of her memory illustrates which aspect of cognitive processing? transformation of information reduction of information elaboration of information storage of information

16

Memory is MOST closely associated with which of the following aspects of cognitive processing? transformation of information reduction of information elaboration of information storage and recovery of information

17

Jennifer is asked whether a goldfish can smell. Although she doesn't at first know the answer to this question, she does remember learning that salmon can smell and reasons that, if salmon can smell, then goldfish can probably smell too. Jennifer's conclusion BEST illustrates which aspect of cognitive processes? transformation of information reduction of information elaboration of information use of information

18

Which of the following is a function of cognitive processes?


18

Which of the following is a function of cognitive processes? reducing the information being stored elaborating on the information being retrieved using information All of the answers are correct.

19

George describes thought as “nothing but talking to ourselves.” This description illustrates the position of a(n): empiricist. rationalist. cognitive psychologist. behaviorist.

20

Which of the following approaches to psychology holds that mental phenomena cannot be observed, and so they are not a valid topic for scientific explanation? behaviorism cognitive psychology Gestalt psychology information processing

21

Who of the following would have MOST objected to the claim that in order to understand humans, we need to include the scientific study of mental processes? behaviorists cognitive psychologists Gestalt psychologists human factors researchers

22

Which of the following was NOT a line of work that made major contributions to the development of cognitive psychology? human factors research computer simulations of human behavior human perception the study of individual differences

23

Information processing is closely associated with: behaviorism. empiricism. cognitive psychology. Information processing is a major part of all these approaches.

24

Which of the following approaches to psychology is MOST closely associated with the claim that the whole is greater than the sum of the parts? behaviorism Gestalt psychology human factors computer science


computer science 25

Which of the following approaches to psychology is MOST closely associated with discovering the principles that determine how the perception of the whole is derived from the perception of individual parts? human factors behaviorism Gestalt psychology cognitive neuroscience

26

Illusory contours would be of MOST interest to a: behaviorist. Gestalt psychologist. human factors psychologist. researcher interested in computer simulation.

27

Which of the following approaches to psychology is concerned with helping people to perform tasks efficiently and safely? human factors behaviorism Gestalt psychology information processing

28

Mark is interested in measuring attentional limitations while performing basic tasks under different conditions. This type of research would be of the MOST interest to a: human factors researcher. Gestalt psychologist. behaviorist. computer scientist.

29

A human factors researcher would be MOST likely to: study subvocal speech as a way of understanding language acquisition. design a computer program that simulates the decision­ making stages involved in choosing between two options. study the ability to attend to blips on a radar screen. study the brain areas involved in language acquisition.

30

The use of the computer metaphor for understanding cognitive processes led to all of the following EXCEPT: talking about human intellectual activity using terms like memory capacity, retrieval, and encoding that originally came from computer science. the development of computer programs that produced output that matches the behavior of a real person. an emphasis on an experimental approach to cognitive psychology. the creation of new theories of human cognition.


the creation of new theories of human cognition. 31

Which of the following approaches to understanding cognitive processes emphasizes developing computer programs that match human behavior? Gestalt psychology human factors computer simulation cognitive neuroscience

32

Which of the following is a goal of cognitive neuroscience? discovering how the brain contributes to cognitive activity using neurological findings to test cognitive theories of how the mind works finding treatments for debilitating neurological diseases All of the answers are correct.

33

Computer models that describe the sequential steps of processing information through some cognitive process involve: serial processing. parallel distributed processing. neural networks. human factors.

34

The neural networks approach to computer simulation has done all of the following EXCEPT: provided models of facial recognition. been helpful to law enforcement's efforts to identify terrorists. described the process by which a physician might diagnosis what disease a person might have. described the sequential steps in processing from the encoding of a question to the determination of an answer.

35

The description of the relationship between brain structures, neurological activity, and cognitive function is the goal of: human factors. neural networks. cognitive neuroscience. Gestalt psychology.

36

Which of the following is NOT a primary goal of cognitive neuroscientists? examining how sequential processors can account for cognitive processes discovering how the brain contributes to cognitive activity using neurological findings to test cognitive theories finding treatments for debilitating neurological diseases


finding treatments for debilitating neurological diseases 37

The finding that damage to a particular area of the brain disrupted speech production would MOST likely result from research studying: human factors. neural networks. cognitive neuroscience. computer simulation.

38

Cognitive science is an interdisciplinary field that includes all of the following EXCEPT: artificial intelligence. philosophy. cognitive neuroscience. All of these disciplines are part of cognitive science.

39

A researcher is recording how many words on a list a participant is able to correctly recall. What she is doing illustrates the use of _________ as a research methodology. response latency produced response response accuracy transfer of training

40

Placing a research participant in a challenging situation and determining whether the participant makes the correct response is representative of a research approach known as: response accuracy. produced response. response latency. transfer of training.

41

A researcher has participants read a story and recall it after a delay. The researcher looks at the parts of the story that the participants are MOST likely to recall. This example illustrates the use of ______________ as a research methodology. response latency produced response response accuracy transfer of training

42

A researcher is interested in how culture impacts what is remembered from a story. Which research method is MOST likely to be used to answer that question? response latency produced response response accuracy transfer of training

43

Using response latency as a way of examining cognitive


43

Using response latency as a way of examining cognitive processes assumes that: reaction time is filled with specific cognitive processes. the response made reflects the participants interpretation of the task. more difficult tasks result in lower response accuracy. cognitive processes happen in parallel.

44

When using response latency as a measure of a cognitive task, ______ reaction times would be indicative of greater task difficulty, while, with response accuracy, ______ accuracy rates would be indicative of greater task difficulty. faster; higher faster; lower slower; higher slower; lower

45

The min method approach to mental arithmetic would predict that which of the following addition problems would take the LEAST time to respond to? 1+9 2+3 2+5 5+2

46

A researcher has participants learn information in one of two different formats. The researcher then examines how well the participants can use that information in a novel context. This example illustrates the use of ________ as a research methodology. response accuracy produced response response latency transfer of training

47

A researcher is interested in whether having participants learn to solve one problem improves the likelihood that they can solve a different problem. This question could be BEST addressed using __________ as a research methodology. response accuracy produced response response latency transfer of training

48

Which of the following is an example of an application of cognitive research? Cognitive research has helped physicians to determine whether a patient is suffering from Parkinson's disease or Alzheimer's dementia. Cognitive research has helped police learn how to reduce biases when they create lineups. Cognitive research has provided a theoretical basis for


Cognitive research has provided a theoretical basis for treating depression. All of the answers are correct. 49

When shown two faces of novel animals, infants prefer to look at the more attractive face. This example provides evidence that the preference for attractive faces is ____________ and illustrates a __________ preference. biologically based; universal biologically based; learned culturally based; universal culturally based; learned

50

Different languages have different numbers of color names, yet there is no evidence that speakers of these languages differ in their basic ability to see color. These findings indicate that: color perception is a universal process. color naming is a culturally determined process. color perception is a biologically based process. All of the answers are correct.

51

According to the section of the textbook that describes its organization, the processes that focus on the interface between the world outside us and our internal experience of it are made up of: sensory systems. memory systems. language systems. problem solving and reasoning.


TestBanks Chapter 02: Essay 1

Describe how information is transmitted through a neuron and communicated to other neurons. Answer: Describe the functions of components of the neuron, synapse, and neurotransmitters.

2

What are the primary functions of the hindbrain, and what would be the likely outcome if the central hindbrain was damaged? Answer: Describe life­support functions: Coma or death would be the likely outcome.

3

Describe the neurological basis of Parkinson's dementia. Answer: Damage to substantia nigra reduces dopamine, the key neurotransmitter involved in muscle control.

4

Describe brain lateralization, being as specific as possible. Answer: Description should include specific functions of right and left hemispheres.

5

What is phrenology? In what way was phrenology correct? In what way was it incorrect? Answer: It was correct to study bumps on the head, phrenology was correct about localization of function. Phrenology was incorrect about the bumps on the head having anything to do with functional localization.

6

What is melodic intonation therapy (MIT)? What type of brain injury would it likely be useful in treating? Be as specific as possible about the likely areas of injury, the areas that would have to be uninjured, and the reasons why. Answer: Describe MIT. It would be likely to help inability to speak fluently as a result of left frontal lobe damage. The right frontal lobes need to be undamaged because of the right


frontal lobes need to be undamaged because of the right frontal lobes' role in singing songs. 7

Describe what is meant by “brain plasticity.” Be sure that your answer explains the role of neurogenesis. Answer: It is the ability of the brain to alter function to compensate for damage, as well as other regions taking over function for damaged areas; neurogenesis describes development of new connections.

8

Explain how EEG can be used to help a paralyzed person to communicate. Answer: EEG monitors brain waves: A person can learn to produce different brain waves as a means of responding.

9

Describe how positron emission tomography (PET) is used to examine the brain areas involved in specific cognitive tasks. Identify one limitation of PET as an imaging technique. Answer: PET shows the role of radioactive glucose, tracing blood flow and to do so involves the use of subtraction. Limitations could include poor temporal resolution, limited time before tracer is absorbed, and that it is an invasive technique.

10

Describe the subtraction method that is used in PET and fMRI imaging. Answer: It uses two tasks that differ in terms of one cognitive process. Identify what is activated with the process that isn't activated without it.

11

How do fMRI and rTMS differ in the way that they use magnets? Answer: fMRI measures brain activity; rTMS influences brain activity.


False 1

Trepanning (or trephining) is cutting a hole in the skull to allow evil spirits to escape. True False

2

The typical adult brain consists of around 1 million neurons. True False

3

Signals from other neurons are transmitted to the cell body through the axon. True False

4

People with Parkinson's disease have lost many of their cells that produce dopamine. True False

5

Automatic life­support functions like breathing and heart rate are controlled by the forebrain. True False

6

The corpus callosum connects the two hemispheres of the brain. True False

7

The visual cortex is located in the occipital lobes. True False


8

Melodic intonation therapy (MIT) is a technique that can help some people communicate by singing when they have lost the ability to speak fluently due to frontal lobe damage. True False

9

The brain imaging technique known as electroencephalograh (EEG) involves applying a strong electromagnetic field to the brain. True False

10

The brain imaging technique known as positron emission tomography (PET) involves injecting radioactive glucose into the bloodstream. True False

11

The BOLD (blood oxygen level dependent) response is associated with the brain imaging technique known as functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI). True False

12

The brain imaging technique known as functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) involves using magnets to cause an increase or decrease in a specific brain area's activity. True False


TestBanks Chapter 02: Web Quiz 1

The “valleys” of the “hills and valleys” that make up the topography of the brain are called: fissures. gyri. synapses. axons.

2

_______ conduct input to the cell body, and ______ convey signals from the cell bodies toward connections with other neurons. Axons; dendrites Dendrites; axons Synapses; axons Synapses; dendrites

3

Damage to which brain area is MOST likely to result in coma or death? forebrain midbrain hindbrain corpus callosum

4

Which of the following is a typical function of the right hemisphere of the brain? controls grammatical analysis controls speech production controls basic language comprehension understands figurative or metaphorical use of language

5

Damage to the occipital lobes is MOST likely to result in: cortical blindness. inability to feel things touching the skin. inability to produce speech. inability to hear.

6

Which of Einstein's lobes was more developed and larger than a typical adult his age? It has been suggested that this larger size might help explain his extraordinary mathematical ability. frontal lobes temporal lobes occipital lobes parietal lobes

7

Damage to the right­frontal lobe is likely to interfere with the ability to ________ , while damage to the left­frontal lobe is likely to interfere with the ability to ________. talk fluently; sing


talk fluently; sing sing; talk fluently see; hear hear; see 8

A child born with damage to the regions of the brain that normally control language functions nonetheless learns to express and understand language. This outcome BEST illustrates which of the following aspects of brain function? brain lateralization brain localization brain plasticity neural transmission

9

A researcher is MOST likely to use EEG to determine: if more blood flows to the visual cortex when reading a book. what specific brain structures are involved in making a decision. whether Parkinson's disease is associated with a lack of dopamine. the brain wave patterns associated with being in a coma.

10

A researcher is interested in being able to detect whether an observer is surprised by seeing particular objects. Which of the following techniques allows the researcher to detect this type of emotional reaction? PET fMRI rTMS ERP

11

Which of the following is a limitation of using the PET methodology as a neuroimaging technique? It lacks precision in measuring the timing of a response. Tracer chemicals are absorbed quickly, limiting the time in which research can occur. It requires injecting a radioactive chemical into the research participant. All of these answers are correct.

12

_____ uses magnets to influence activity in the brain, while _____ uses magnets to measure activity in the brain. PET; fMRI PET; rTMS fMRI; rTMS rTMS; fMRI


TestBanks Chapter 02: Multiple Choice 1

An early treatment for mental disorders that involved cutting a hole in the skull to allow evil spirits to escape was called: trepanning. phrenology. splitting the brain. neuroimaging.

2

Research examining Albert Einstein's brain revealed that: he had a much larger brain than the typical person. he had less­developed fissures than the typical person. he had a more developed corpus callosum than the typical person. his left hemisphere was noticeably larger than his right hemisphere.

3

Approximately how many neurons are found in the typical adult brain? 10 thousand 1 million 10 million 10 billion

4

The large mass of the brain that we see when we look at the surface of the brain is called the: cortex. corpus callosum. midbrain. axon.

5

Which part of the neuron receives input from other neurons? dendrite cell body axon synapse

6

Which part of the neuron conducts electrical activity from a neuron to other neurons? dendrite cell body axon nucleus

7

Transmission of information through a neuron travels from the: axon to the dendrites and then to the cell body.


axon to the dendrites and then to the cell body. cell body to the axon and then the dendrites. dendrites to the cell body and then to the axon. axon to the cell body and then to the dendrites. 8

The gap between neurons is known as the: dendrite. axon. synapse. neurotransmitter.

9

Which of the following is TRUE of the transmission of information from one neuron to another? Each neuron is directly “wired” to many other neurons. An electrical signal jumps the gap between neurons. Neurotransmitters cross the gap between neurons. Each neuron only communicates with one other neuron.

10

People with Parkinson's disease: lack a sufficient amount of a neurotransmitter. have difficulty with the electrical signal passing down the axon. have too few dendrites. All of the answers are correct.

11

The part of the brain that controls basic automatic life­ support functions, such as breathing and heart rate, is known as the: hindbrain. midbrain. forebrain. cortex.

12

Field sobriety tests ask people to engage in coordinated actions like walking in a straight line. Alcohol makes this difficult because of its impact on the: hindbrain. midbrain. forebrain. cortex.

13

The relay center for visual and auditory sensory information is found in which part of the brain? forebrain midbrain hindbrain cerebellum

14 Voluntary movement is controlled by the ________, which


Voluntary movement is controlled by the ________, which is found in the ________.

15

16

cerebellum; hindbrain cerebellum; midbrain cortex; hindbrain cortex; midbrain People with Parkinson's dementia have damage to the _________, and this damage is associated with _______ of dopamine. cerebellum; a deficit cerebellum; an excess substantia nigra; a deficit substantia nigra; an excess An excess of the neurotransmitter dopamine is associated with which of the following disorders? Parkinson's disease schizophrenia Joubert syndrome All of these disorders are related to excess dopamine but in different parts of the brain.

17

The part of the brain that enables people to engage in complex learning, memory, and problem solving is found in the: forebrain. midbrain. hindbrain. cerebellum.

18

The right hemisphere of the brain controls the _______ side of the body and registers sensations from the _______side of the body right; right right; left left; right left; left

19

The cortex is found in the: hindbrain. midbrain. forebrain. cerebellum.

20

People who have “split brains” have had their _________ cut. frontal lobes dendrites hindbrain corpus callosum


21

The two hemispheres of the brain are connected by the: corpus callosum. anterior commissure. fornix. All of the answers are correct.

22

Which of the following is NOT a typical function of the left hemisphere? controlling movement of the right side of the body controlling speech production receiving sensory input from the right side of the body understanding figurative or metaphorical use of language

23

After a stroke, Sarah no longer understands that the statement “John has a heavy heart” means John is sad; but Sarah believes the statement means that John's heart weighs a lot. Sarah MOST likely has experienced damage to her: cerebellum. hindbrain. right hemisphere. left hemisphere.

24

The raised areas (bumps) that you see as you look at the brain are called: lobes. fissures. gyri. commissures.

25

Phrenologists believed that: cutting a hole in the skull allowed evil spirits to escape. mental faculties could be measured by examining the bumps on the skull. the brain was too inert to produce thought. the corpus callosum was the seat of the soul.

26

Phrenology is MOST closely associated with which of the following aspects of brain function? brain plasticity localization of function neurogenesis neural transmission

27

The primary visual cortex is in the: occipital lobes. parietal lobes.


parietal lobes. frontal lobes. temporal lobes. 28

After brain injury, Bill has impairment in his sense of touch in his right hand and has difficulty identifying the location of objects on his right. Bill's injury is likely to be to the: left­temporal lobe. right­temporal lobe. left­parietal lobe. right­parietal lobe.

29

George is in a car accident and suffers a brain injury. After the injury, he is blind even though his eyes are still functioning normally. Which lobe of the brain is likely to have been injured? frontal occipital parietal temporal

30

Sensory input from a touch on the skin is transmitted to the: frontal lobes. occipital lobes. parietal lobes. temporal lobes.

31

Auditory language perceptual functions are primarily found in the ________ lobes. frontal occipital parietal temporal

32

Loss of the ability to speak fluently is MOST frequently associated with damage to the ______ lobe. left­frontal right­frontal left­parietal right­parietal

33

When damage occurs to the _______________ lobe, it can result in loss of the ability to speak fluently. However, these people can sometimes still sing songs if the ___________ lobe is not damaged. left­frontal; left­parietal left­frontal; right­frontal right­frontal; left­parietal right­frontal; left­frontal

34

Neurogensis is MOST closely related to:


35

information transmission across a synapse. the initiation of a neural impulse. brain plasticity. brain localization. People who are blind from birth show activation of the ___________ when reading Braille, while sighted Braille readers don't. This example illustrates ___________. parietal lobes; brain plasticity parietal lobes; brain lateralization occipital lobes; brain plasticity occipital lobes; brain lateralization

36

Sleep researchers look at changes in brain wave patterns during different types of sleep. They use ______ to examine these wave patterns. PET fMRI rTMS EEG

37

Higher levels of alertness are indicated by: higher­frequency brain waves. lower­frequency brain waves. higher­amplitude brain waves. more varied frequency and amplitude of brain waves.

38

A person has electrodes attached to his or her head as a part of which of the following neuroimaging techniques? EEG PET fMRI rTMS

39

Which of the following imaging techniques has also been used to help a paralyzed person communicate? EEG PET fMRI rTMS

40

Event­related potentials are measured using: EEG. PET. fMRI rTMS.

41 Which of the following techniques would be MOST useful for


Which of the following techniques would be MOST useful for determining the precise timing of cognitive processes? ERP PET fMRI rTMS 42

A researcher is presenting images as a participant watches. The researcher is looking for momentary changes in electrical responses that correspond to particular reactions and occur at precise times after the presentation of the image. The researcher is using which of the following neuroimaging techniques? ERP PET fMRI rTMS

43

Which of the following techniques would be the MOST useful for determining whether a particular brain structure is involved in a specific cognitive process? EEG ERP PET All the techniques are equally useful for this task.

44

Which of the following neuroimaging techniques detects where radioactive glucose goes within the brain? rTMS fMRI EEG PET

45

______ is an imaging technique that is particularly helpful in identifying when broad areas of the brain are involved in specific cognitive events, while _______ is effective in identifying more precisely which specific brain areas are involved. PET; EEG ERP; PET fMRI; EEG PET; ERP

46

Which of the following techniques subtracts brain activity during a task that involves minimal processing of information from the brain activity during a task that includes a specific cognitive process in order to determine which brain structures are activated during the cognitive process of interest? EEG ERP PET rTMS


47

A researcher is interested in determining the brain structures that are involved in determining which of two visual stimuli is larger. The researcher (1) measures the brain activity of participants while they are just looking at the two stimuli, (2) subtracts this pattern of activity from the pattern of activity when participants are looking at the two stimuli, and (3) then calculates which is larger. The researcher is using which of the following imagery techniques? EEG ERP PET rTMS

48

Which of the following is a limitation of using the PET methodology? PET lacks specificity in determining the brain structures involved in the processes being investigated. The tracer chemicals are not absorbed by the brain, and so they continue to circulate through the bloodstream. PET is more invasive than other techniques in that it requires the injection of a radioactive chemical. All of the answers are correct.

49

Which of the following techniques uses magnets to measure the distribution of oxygen molecules throughout the brain? rTMS fMRI PET ERP

50

The BOLD response is associated with which of the following brain imaging techniques? EEG ERP PET fMRI

51

Which of the following brain imaging techniques is MOST closely associated with linking areas of the brain to specific cognitive functions? EEG ERP fMRI MIT

52

Which of the following techniques uses repetitive magnetic pulses to alter electrical activity in the brain? EEG PET fMRI rTMS


rTMS 53

Which of the following brain imaging techniques may be used as a therapeutic tool to help individuals with neurological dysfunctions by either disrupting or enhancing brain activity? ERP PET rTMS fMRI


TestBanks Chapter 03: Essay 1

Explain preattentive processing and focused attentional processing. When are you likely to use each type of processing? Answer: Preattentive processing is automatic and occurs when an object has a unique feature, and does not require focusing on each object; focused attentional processing is used when the target shares features with other objects and requires attention to each object.

2

Describe the where/what circuits and their functions. Answer: The where circuit determines spatial location—and runs from the visual/auditory cortex to the parietal lobe; the what circuit identifies stimuli—and runs from the visual/auditory cortex to the temporal lobe.

3

Explain how the flanker task can be used to measure the span of apprehension. Answer: The effect of flankers at varying distances can be compared. If they fall outside the span of apprehension, then they shouldn't have an effect.

4

What limitation in the whole report technique was the partial report technique designed to overcome? Explain the logic of the partial report technique. Answer: In the whole report, items decay while others are being reported, but the partial report only requires the report of a subset, with total available inferred based on percentage of subset reported.

5

Explain how the partial report technique can be used to measure capacity and duration of the visual sensory memory. Answer: Percentage of recall items is used to estimate the total number of items initially available; delay of cue in the partial report makes it possible to measure the speed of decay.

6 Describe a finding that demonstrates that sensory storage


Describe a finding that demonstrates that sensory storage is precategorical. Answer:

7

The inability to use conceptual categories to signal material to report in the partial report technique is such a finding. Explain how a dichotic listening task can be used to determine the fate of information that is not being attended to. Answer: With two channels of input, shadow one and test the ability to report changes in the unattended channel.

8

Describe the basic characteristics of automatic processes. Answer: They occur without intention, occur rapidly, don't require attentional resources, and are not subject to conscious awareness.

9

Why is it beneficial to have both automatic and controlled processes? Answer: Automatic processing has minimal attentional demands, is rapid but not reflective, and allows multiple processes; controlled processing allows thoughtful adjustment but requires attentional resources.

10

Describe how rapid serial visual presentation (RSVP) can be used to measure attentional blink. Answer: In a two­stage task, finding target 1 initiates the search for target 2; If target 2 comes too quickly after target 1, it falls in the attentional blink.

11

Describe the research on inattentional blindness and the impact of cell phone use while driving. Be sure to address use of handheld vs. hands­free phones and compare using a cell phone to engaging in a conversation with a passenger. Answer: Primary difficulty with using cell phones while driving is attentional; consequently, hands­free phones don't help. Conversation with a passenger is different because it is easier to adapt conversation to road conditions.

12

What is hemispheric neglect? How can it be detected?


12

What is hemispheric neglect? How can it be detected? Answer: It is attentional neglect of one­half of the spatial world, detected through examining drawings (they tend to lack detail on the neglected side), and looking for disregard of one hand in tasks that require use of the hands.

13

Explain how methylphenidate produces its effects on those with ADHD. Answer: It increases blood flow to the frontal cortex, decreases blood flow to the motor cortex, and maintains availability of dopamine.


False 1

The attentional spotlight refers to moving our eyes to focus on something new. True False

2

The span of apprehension is typically about 1 degree to either side of the center of attention. True False

3

Subitizing refers to rapid labeling of small quantities of simultaneously presented items. True False

4

The duration of visual sensory memory can be measured using a delay before signaling what to report in the partial report technique. True False

5

The partial report technique can be used to accurately estimate the capacity of the visual sensory memory by signaling that the participant should report the letters in an array of letters and numbers. True False

6

Evidence that items in the unattended message of a shadowing task can elicit a galvanic skin response (GSR) supports a late­selection account of attention. True False

7

With practice, a controlled process can become more automatic. True False


8

A closed skill is one that is applied in unpredictable circumstances. True False

9

The attentional blink is the moment when you are shifting your attentional focus and are unable to fully attend to a new target event. True False

10

Change blindness refers to a decrease in the ability to perceive repeated stimuli during a rapid serial presentation of items. True False

11

Research on the use of cell phones while driving indicates that using a hands­free phone is much safer than using hand­held phones. True False

12

Hemispheric neglect is associated with parietal lobe damage. True False

13

Children with ADHD show decreased blood flow to the frontal lobes compared with age­ and IQ­matched peers. True False

14

Dopamine appears to be a neurotransmitter that is involved in both ADHD and Parkinson's dementia. True False


TestBanks Chapter 03: Multiple Choice 1

The more time a person has been working on an attention task, the worse performance becomes. This finding BEST illustrates: that attention is limited. that attention is selective. the operation of preattentive processing. that attention is part of everyone's cognitive architecture.

2

Research by Mackworth (1950) showed that when recruits had to watch for a jerking motion in the hands of a Mackworth Clock: performance was unaffected by the time spent staring at the clock. there was a gradual reduction in accuracy over the first 60 minutes, but after that performance fell dramatically. there was a substantial reduction in accuracy over the first 60 minutes, but after that performance leveled out. performance over the first 30 minutes improved, but after 60 minutes the performance fell back to earlier levels.

3

Looking for a green triangle surrounded by red triangles involves ________, which is characterized by processing _______. preattentive processing; all the stimuli at once preattentive processing; the stimuli one at a time focused attention; all the stimuli at once focused attention; the stimuli one at a time

4

Looking for a green triangle surrounded by red triangles and green squares involves _______, which is characterized by processing ________. preattentional processing; all the stimuli at once preattentional processing; the stimuli one at a time focused attention; all the stimuli at once focused attention; the stimuli one at a time

5

Looking for a green triangle surrounded by red triangles and blue squares involves _______, which is characterized by processing ________. preattentional processing; all the stimuli at once preattentional processing; the stimuli one at a time focused attention; all the stimuli at once focused attention; the stimuli one at a time

6

When Connie is searching for her car in the parking lot, she spots it immediately because of its unique color. This example illustrates __________ processing, which is a __________ process. preattentional; serial


preattentional; serial preattentional; parallel focused attentional; serial focused attentional; parallel 7

When a newborn is exposed to a loud sound, she will turn her head in the direction of the sound. This response illustrates: habituation. focused attentional processing. an orienting reflex. attentional limitations.

8

Daniel is hiking in the rainforest and hears the call of a jaguar for the first time. His “where circuit” is likely to show activation going from the auditory cortex to the _______ lobe, and his “what circuit” is likely to show activation going from the auditory cortex to the _______ lobe. occipital; frontal frontal; occipital parietal; temporal temporal; parietal

9

When a novel stimulus is visually presented, there is increased activity in the circuit that runs from the visual cortex to the ____________ lobe. frontal temporal parietal occipital

10

Often when a stimulus doesn't change, we cease to attend to it. This is known as: attentional limitiations. an orienting reflex. preattentive processing. habituation.

11

When he first puts his watch on in the morning, Jesse notices that the band feels tight. However, as the day progresses, he attends to it less and less. This reduction in attention is known as: preattentive processing. habituation. an orienting reflex. an attentional spotlight.

12

Which of the following represents a way that attention is like a spotlight? Attention can be moved and refocused like a spotlight. It takes time to shift attention from one thing to another. Attention has a limited range, just as a spotlight is


Attention has a limited range, just as a spotlight is dimmer at its periphery. All of the answers are correct. 13

Posner, Snyder, and Davidson (1980) asked participants to stare at a plus sign in the middle of the screen and press a button when a target appeared in the periphery. Before the target would appear, an arrow flashed on the screen that indicated where the target was likely to appear. The researchers found that participants: would quickly move their eyes to the anticipated location of the target. were both faster and more accurate when the arrow cue was correct. were faster but not more accurate when the arrow cue was correct. were more accurate but not faster when the arrow cue was correct.

14

In a flanker task, the participant is instructed to move the lever to the right if the center letter is an H or a K and to the left if the center letter is an S. Which of the following sequences would you expect to have the longest response time and lowest accuracy? KKHKK SSHSS SHHHS All of these sequences would be responded to equally.

15

According to research on subitizing, how many items can fit into the basic attentional spotlight? 1 2 4 7

16

Sensory storage: is a single, large, undifferentiated buffer that includes inputs from different sensory modalities. is readily available to conscious awareness in everyday life. serves as a buffer for the stream of information that is constantly coming in through our senses. All of the answers are correct.

17

The format for sensory storage is: primarily visual. primarily auditory. primarily conceptual. different for each type of sensory input.


18

We do not experience a blur in the visual signal when we move our eyes during reading. This is because of saccadic suppression. the limited span of apprehension. a narrowly focused attentional spotlight. habituation.

19

In Sperling's (1960) study of the capacity of visual sensory memory, he first tried to measure it with the whole report technique. Using this technique, he found that participants could: only remember four to five items but reported that more were initially available. remember almost all the items in the display. only report seeing the small number of items that they were able to report. only report one to two items because the items were presented so briefly.

20

Studies using Sperling's partial report technique suggest that the capacity of visual sensory memory is: two to three items. four to five items. approximately seven items. very large, perhaps unlimited.

21

In examining visual sensory memory, a delay in the signal that indicates which part of the display to report in the partial report procedure allowed researchers to assess the: capacity of sensory memory. duration of sensory memory. coding used in sensory memory. All of the answers are correct.

22

Using Sperling's partial report technique, a participant is shown a display with three rows of letters having three letters in each row. The participant is able to report two of the three letters in the indicated row. According to the logic of the partial report procedure, this indicates that ____ letters were available in memory. two three six nine

23

Studies of the duration of visual sensory memory suggest that the original image: lasts less than 1 second. lasts about 10 seconds. lasts about 30 seconds. is of unlimited duration.

24

In a study of visual sensory memory, an X is briefly


24

In a study of visual sensory memory, an X is briefly displayed followed by a briefly displayed O in the same position. If the two letters are only separated by 50 ms, the participant is MOST likely to report seeing: an O with an X inside it. just an X. something but is uncertain about the identification of either thing. two distinct events composed of an X, quickly followed by an O.

25

In a study of visual sensory memory, an X is briefly displayed followed by a briefly displayed O in the same position. If the two letters are separated by 350 ms, the participant is MOST likely to report seeing: an O with an X inside it. just an X. something but is uncertain about the identification of either thing. two distinct events composed of an X, quickly followed by an O.

26

Which distinction would NOT be effective in indicating which items to retrieve in the partial report technique? reporting the small letters in a display of small and large letters reporting the numbers in a display of letters and numbers reporting the top row in a display with top, middle, and bottom rows All of these alternatives would be equally effective.

27

The fact that the partial report technique does not work if the signal indicates that letters should be reported from an array of letters and numbers is MOST important to understanding the __________ of sensory memory. capacity duration code masking

28

You are in a noisy environment where many conversations are going on. Suddenly your attention is grabbed by someone saying your name in a conversation that you were not originally listening to. This example illustrates: the span of apprehension. the cocktail­party phenomenon. the spotlight of attention. shadowing.

29

In a shadowing task, which of the following changes would you expect the participant to be MOST likely to fail to notice in the unattended channel? a change from a male voice to a female voice


a change from a male voice to a female voice a change from Spanish to French a change from a human voice to a tone a change from a loud voice to a quiet voice 30

Which of the following findings is the BEST evidence that some attention is assigned to the unattended channel in a shadowing task? detecting a change of voice from a male voice to a female voice in the unattended channel detecting a change from a voice to a tone in the unattended channel switching to the unattended channel when a coherent message in the attended channel suddenly switches to the unattended channel failing to detect a change from Spanish to French in the unattended channel

31

Which of these findings support late selection rather than early selection in a filter model of attention? detecting one's own name in the unattended message detecting sexually explicit words in the unattended message detecting a call for “help” All of these findings support late selection.

32

A model of attention where the selection of the message that is being focused on is based on physical characteristics is a(n)_________________ model of attention. early­selection filter late­selection filter spotlight capacity

33

Automatic processing: occurs without conscious awareness. occurs rapidly. does not require attentional resources. All of answers are correct.

34

In the Stroop Color–Word Interference Test, identifying the color of the ink is a(n)____________ and reading the color word is a(n)_______________. automatic process; automatic process automatic process; controlled process controlled process; automatic process controlled process; controlled process

35

Controlled processing: occurs without conscious awareness. does not require attentional resources.


does not require attentional resources. can become more automatic with practice. None of these alternatives characterizes controlled processing. 36

Typing by an expert typist is generally considered a(n) ______ skill and is an example of ______ processing. closed; automatic closed; controlled open; automatic open; controlled

37

Automatic processing can become dangerous if: automatic processes are not interrupted and taken over by conscious processes when they should be. automatic processes and conscious processes interact in unpredictable ways. attentional processes are misdirected to the wrong task. All of the answers are correct.

38

According to the generic error modeling system, many accidents can be traced to: automatic processes being interrupted by conscious processes. upredicatable interactions between automatic and conscious processes. relying too heavily on conscious processing. All of the answers are correct.

39

The idea that attention is a resource distributed among tasks is embodied in the: capacity theory of attention. spotlight model of attention. early­selection filter theory of attention. late­selection filter theory of attention.

40

The moment when you are shifting your attentional focus and are unable to attend fully to a new target event is known as: attentional blink. repetition blindness. change blindness. inattentional blindness.

41

The laboratory technique known as rapid serial visual presentation (RSVP) involves a two­part task, where discovering the first target requires the participant to switch to searching for a different target. This technique is useful for investigating: attentional blink. repetition blindness.


repetition blindness. change blindness. inattentional blindness. 42

You are participating in an experiment where letters are presented in rapid succession. You are presented with G followed by g, but you only recall seeing one G. Your response illustrates: attentional blink. repetition blindness. change blindness. inattentional blindness.

43

The inability to identify peripheral changes in a visual scene is known as: attentional blink. repetition blindness. change blindness. inattentional blindness.

44

In some field studies (e.g., Simons, 2000), an experimenter stops a person to ask for directions. While they are speaking, workers carrying a door pass between the experimenter and the person giving directions. At that moment, an accomplice takes the place of the experimenter and continues the conversation with the person giving directions. If the person giving directions fails to notice that the experimenter has changed, that is an example of: attentional blink. repetition blindness. change blindness. inattentional blindness.

45

In research by Most et al. (2001) and Simons & Chabris (1999), participants were given different tasks to complete while watching a video where two teams passed a basketball around. In the middle of the video, a person in a gorilla suit walks through the group passing the basketball. Those performing the more difficult task reported seeing the gorilla less often than those in the easier task. This example illustrates: attentional blink. repetition blindness. change blindness. inattentional blindness.

46

Studies of driving and distraction indicate that: using a hands­free phone while driving impacts reaction time less than using a hand­held phone. having a conversation with a passenger impacts reaction time as much as a conversation on the phone. using a cell phone while driving has a greater impact on


using a cell phone while driving has a greater impact on reaction time for older drivers than for young drivers. None of these answers is true. 47

Research suggests that which of the following impairs driving performance? listening to a conversation listening to books on tape talking on a cell phone All of the answers are correct.

48

Having difficulty recognizing two or more objects at the same time is a defining characteristic of: simultanagnosia. hemispheric neglect. attention deficit/hyperactive disorder. Parkinson's disease.

49

Attentional difficulties like simultanagnosia or hemispheric neglect are usually associated with damage to the ________ lobe. frontal parietal occipital temporal

50

The inability to identify items in a portion of the visual field is known as __________ and is the result of __________ disruption. simultanagnosia; visual system simultanagnosia; attentional hemispheric neglect; visual system hemispheric neglect; attentional

51

Children with attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD): fail to attend to important stimuli because they filter them out. have difficulty in inhibiting responsiveness to competing stimuli. are successfully treated with drugs that decrease activity in the frontal cortex. have excessive dopamine levels in the brain.

52

Methylphenidate (Ritalin) has its effect on ADHD by: increasing blood flow to the frontal cortex. decreasing motor activity. maintaining the availability of dopamine. All the answers are correct.

53 In a study conducted by Vaidya et al. (1999), the


In a study conducted by Vaidya et al. (1999), the researchers compared brain scans of boys with and without ADHD when they were doing a task that required impulse control. They found that Ritalin __________ activity in the striatum for ADHD boys and _________ activity in the striatum for control group boys.

54

increased; increased increased; decreased decreased; increased decreased; decreased Which of the following circumstances is likely to elicit attentional difficulties in a person with advanced stages of Parkinson's disease? The patient needs to engage in activity that is not well learned. The patient needs to suppress a habitual response. The patient needs to keep focused and not be distracted in performing a task. All the answers are correct.


TestBanks Chapter 03: Web Quiz 1

Preattentive processing occurs when the target _____________ and processes ________. has a unique feature that other objects don't; the objects one at a time has a unique feature that other objects don't; all of the objects at once shares common features of the other objects; the objects one at a time shares common features of the other objects; all of the objects at once

2

When a novel stimulus is visually presented, there is increased activity in the circuit that runs from the visual cortex to the ____________ lobe. frontal temporal parietal occipital

3

Posner, Snyder, and Davidson (1980) had participants stare at a plus sign in the middle of the screen and press a button when a target appeared in the periphery. Before the target would appear, an arrow flashed on the screen that indicated where the target was likely to appear. They found that: participants were faster to respond when the arrow cue was correct. participants were more accurate when the arrow cue was correct. they could measure the time it took to shift attention by subtracting the time it took to respond when the cue was accurate from the time it took to respond when the cue was inaccurate. All of the answers are correct.

4

In Sperling's (1960) study of the capacity of visual sensory memory, a whole report technique was initially used. What was the limitation of this approach? The stimuli were presented for such a long period of time that the participants were able to transfer the stimuli into short­term memory while the card was being shown. Some stimuli were lost from sensory memory in the time it took to report other stimuli. It overestimated the capacity of sensory memory because the report was given immediately after the card was shown. It underestimated the capacity of sensory memory because of the cue delay.

5 In a study of visual sensory memory, an X is briefly


In a study of visual sensory memory, an X is briefly displayed followed by a briefly displayed O in the same position. If the two letters are separated by 150 ms, the participant is MOST likely to report seeing:

6

an O with an X inside it. just an X. something, but is uncertain about the identification of either stimulus. two distinct events composed of an X, quickly followed by an O. The inability to sort letters in sensory memory according to whether they are vowels or consonants is indicative of _____________ in sensory memory. precategorical storage masking interference forgetting

7

Which of the following characteristics would you expect to be noticed in the unattended message during a shadowing task? a change from Spanish to French the repetition of the same word multiple times a change from a male voice to female voice sentences that are nonsensical

8

Noticing your own name in the unattended message during a dichotic listening task is evidence of a(n): spotlight model of attention. capacity model of attention. early­selection filter. late­selection filter.

9

Typing by an expert typist is generally considered a(n) ______ skill and is an example of ______ processing. closed; automatic closed; controlled open; automatic open; controlled

10

The length of the attentional blink is: approximately 2 seconds. longer for young adults than for older adults. longer if your are closer to the stimulus that caught your attention. None of the answers is correct.

11

Change blindness would be MOST likely to occur for:

peripheral animate objects.


peripheral animate objects. peripheral inanimate objects. central animate objects. central inanimate objects. 12

The inability of someone to focus attention on a portion of his or her visual field is a characteristic of ____________. simultanagnosia hemispheric neglect ADHD Parkinson's dementia


TestBanks Chapter 04: Essay 1

Explain the roles of bottom­up processing and top­down processing in pattern recognition. Answer: Bottom­up processing emphasizes the role of basic elements of the stimulus in producing the perception, while top­down processing emphasizes the role of the perceiver's expectation in producing the perception.

2

Explain what the principle of Pragnanz is and how the basic laws of perceptual grouping are related to it. Answer: The perception will be organized into as cohesive a figure as possible. Explanations should include how the basic laws help make that possible.

3

Explain how the distinctive features theory and recognition by components theory are similar and different in their explanation of pattern recognition. Answer: They are similar in that edges are important in both; they are different in that distinctive features generally considers individual perceptual features, while RBC is concerned with the 3­D geons from which the object is constructed.

4

Describe how distinctive features theory would explain the recognition of letters. What predictions does it make about the ease of discriminating different letters? Answer: Letters are determined by a list of basic features. Those with more common features and few unique features will be harder to discriminate.

5

Describe the stages of object recognition in the recognition­ by­components theory. Answer: The stages are: Sub­divide object into sub­objects, classify sub­objects into geons, and determine object composed of those geons.

6

Describe how prototypes develop. Answer: Based on exposure to individual instances of category, they


Based on exposure to individual instances of category, they are the result of an averaging of those individual instances. 7

Explain why top­down processing is important to perception. Answer: Top­down processing and experience allow context to suggest expectations that help us put the basic features together. They allow us to fill in gaps—missing features.

8

Describe the role of top­down processing in speech perception. Answer: It allows us to use the sentence context to fill in missing phonemes. More experience makes this more likely.

9

Describe how infant preferences for faces can be examined. Answer: Describe high­amplitude sucking procedure.

10

What is the basic finding regarding the ability to recognize inverted faces? What does this finding suggest about the facial recognition process? Answer: Most people are much worse at recognizing inverted faces. Facial prototypes develop through experience. We have little experience with inverted faces. Consequently, we switch from holistic processing using prototypes to processing individual facial features.

11

Describe the cross­race effect, its origins, and its implications. Answer: People are better able to recognize faces of their own race, due to experience, which helps create expectations about what a face should look like (facial prototype). Categorizing faces by race can aid in facial recognition but also can distort memory to better fit expectations. Implications for police lineups should be addressed.

12

Describe evidence that the fusiform gyrus is involved in facial recognition. Answer: It is more active when viewing faces than other objects,


It is more active when viewing faces than other objects, damage to it is associated with prosopagnosia, it tends to be smaller in schizophrenics, and there is less activity when autistic people look at faces compared to nonautistic people.


False 1

Top­down processing takes into account the role of the perceiver's expectations in determining the perception. True False

2

The law of proximity is one of the gestalt principles that involve motion. True False

3

The law of closure predicts the perception of illusory contours. True False

4

Distinctive features theory is particularly good at explaining facial recognition. True False

5

Hubel and Wiesel's (1962) discovery that some neurons in the visual cortex respond selectively to lines of a particular orientation supports the distinctive features theory. True False

6

Evidence from studying Navon figures suggests that we process local features before processing global features. True False

7

Biederman's recognition by components theory suggests that obscured objects can still be recognized as long as the 3­D shapes that make up the object can be identified. True False


8

According to prototype theory, an object must have all features of the prototype to be recognized. True False

9

People with pure word deafness cannot speak. True False

10

People are better at recognizing letters when they are embedded in words than when they are alone. True False

11

Evidence suggests that three­week­old infants can imitate adult facial gestures. True False

12

The development of facial prototypes can help explain the cross­race effect. True False

13

The fusiform gyrus is important to facial recognition. True False

14

Autistic children focus more on the eyes than the mouth when recognizing faces. True False


TestBanks Chapter 04: Multiple Choice 1

Pattern recognition is made possible by the activities of: sensory memory. attention. long­term memory. All of the answers are correct.

2

Pattern recognition characterized by extracting primitive features that are then compared to known patterns of stimulation is an example of: bottom­up processing. top­down processing. pointillism. photomosaic.

3

When pattern recognition is influenced by the observer's expectations, this illustrates the effects of: bottom­up processing. top­down processing. distinctive features. prototypes.

4

Jane went to Loch Ness to search for the Loch Ness monster. While standing on the bank, she mistakenly identifies a log floating by as the Loch Ness monster. This example illustrates the influence of ________ in pattern recognition. the principle of common fate the principle of good continuation bottom­up processing top­down processing

5

Artistic techniques like pointillism and photomosaic illustrate that we: can notice the global pattern without identifying the elementary features that make it up. must identify the elementary features first in order to identify the global pattern. identify the elementary features and the global pattern simultaneously. can identify the elementary features but not the global pattern.

6

Which of the following is NOT one of the Gestalt laws of perceptual organization? common fate extension closure symmetry


symmetry 7

The perception of a stimulus in a way that organizes it as a cohesive figure illustrates the principle of: Pragnanz. closure. proximity. of good continuation.

8

Devices like remote controls often have buttons that have similar functions arranged close to one another and with the same color. What two laws of perceptual grouping are being utilized in this arrangement? proximity and similarity common fate and similarity proximity and symmetry common fate and symmetry

9

XXXOOO is described as a group of 3 X's followed by a group of 3 O's. This example illustrates the gestalt law of perceptual grouping known as: proximity. similarity. common fate. closure.

10

Illusory contours such as those seen in the Kanizsa triangle reflect the influence of the law of perceptual grouping known as: good continuation. common fate. closure. symmetry.

11

Soldiers in uniform march by in a single line. Which of the following laws of perceptual grouping is NOT involved with onlookers, creating the perception that the soldiers are a single group? similarity common fate good continuation closure

12

The following sequence of six slashes can be grouped in different ways depending on the law of perceptual grouping that is used: / \ \ //\ . If the second and third slashes are grouped together, it illustrates the influence of ________, while if the third and forth slashes are grouped together, it illustrates the influence of ________. symmetry; similarity similarity; proximity proximity; symmetry similarity; symmetry


similarity; symmetry 13

A group of geese flying overhead as they migrate south are perceived as a single flock. This example illustrates the law of perceptual grouping known as: proximity. common fate. closure. symmetry.

14

[ ][ ][ ] are described as three pairs of of left­right brackets. This example illustrates the law of perceptual grouping know as: similarity. proximity. symmetry. closure.

15

Which of the following theories assumes that all complex visual stimuli are composed of distinctive and separable attributes such as lines, angles, and dots that are directly used to identify the pattern? distinctive features theory recognition by components theory template­matching theory prototype theory

16

Which of the following perceptual tasks would be BEST explained by the distinctive features theory? differentiating between different letters of the English alphabet differentiating between different faces differentiating between different 3­dimensional objects identifying members of the category bird

17

Based on the distinctive features theory, which of the following should be hardest to differentiate from an uppercase E? an uppercase F a lowercase E a uppercase D All of these letters should be equally easy to differentiate from each other.

18

Hubel and Wiesel (1962) found that there were some neurons in the visual cortex of cats that responded maximally to lines of a particular orientation. That finding is most supportive of the _______ theory of pattern recognition. distinctive features recognition by components template­matching prototype


19

In Navon figures, a large letter is composed of a number of smaller letters. In his research using these figures, Navon (1977, 2003) compared conditions where the same letter was used for both sizes of letters to conditions where the letters were different. He found that when they were different, the: conflict between the letters increases the time to identify either type of letter. time to identify the small letters increased, but the time to identify the large letters was unaffected. time to identify the large letters increased, but the time to identify the small letters was unaffected. time it took to identify either type of letter was unaffected.

20

The general conclusion drawn from research that examines the time it takes to identify the letters that make up Navon figures is that: global and local features are processed at the same time. global features are processed before local features. local features are processed before global features. the level of feature that is processed first is determined by the question that is asked.

21

When people with hemineglect participate in recognition tasks with Navon figures, they: show a deficit with processing both global and local features. only show a deficit in processing global features. only show a deficit in processing local features. don't show a deficit in processing Navon figures.

22

Which of the following is an example of a geon? a dot a line a circle a cube

23

According to recognition­by­components theory, what is the MOST important predictor of whether a person will be able to recognize an object? the number of geons involved in the pattern whether all the geons can be identified how common the geons are that make up the pattern All of these answers are correct.

24

The theory that assumes we have stored away an unlimited number of patterns that are literal copies corresponding to every object we have experienced is known as: distinctive features theory. recognition­by­components theory.


recognition­by­components theory. template­matching theory. prototype theory. 25

Which of the following is a limitation of template­matching theory as a good model of how humans recognize patterns? The number of templates required would be enormous. It can't explain how we would recognize new objects. It would require too much time to find a match by searching one template at a time. All of the answers are correct.

26

Which theory of pattern recognition suggests that objects are identified by comparing to an average or typical instance of the many different views of that object? distinctive features theory recognition by components theory template­matching theory prototype theory

27

Which of the following would be closer to most people's prototypes for the category of bird? ostrich penguin robin According to prototype theory, all birds are equally close to the prototype.

28

Prototype theory requires __________________ for recognition to occur. an exact match between the object and the prototype the storage of patterns for every possible view of an object a match between central properties of the object and the stored category All of the anwers are correct.

29

According to prototype theory, prototypes are: innate patterns that we don't have to learn. learned through experience with individual instances of the category. fixed and cannot be changed. simply commonly experienced exemplars of a category.

30

Experiments are said to be ecologically valid when they: measure the psychological constructs they are designed to measure. are based on how people operate in the real world. accurately describe the behaviors observed in the


accurately describe the behaviors observed in the laboratory. produce the same results if repeated. 31

Our expectations of what we will see impact our perceptions. This result is BEST explained by: distinctive features theory. template matching theory. prototype theory. top­down processing.

32

In a study by Warren & Warren (1970), the researchers replaced a phoneme in a sentence with a cough. However, students reported actually hearing the missing phoneme. This result illustrates the importance of _________ in pattern recognition. top­down processing distinctive features templates prototypes

33

The restoration of missing phonemes in a sentence as seen in Warren & Warren (1970) occurs because of ___________ processing and is more likely to occur in _________ skilled speakers of the language. bottom­up; less bottom­up; more top­down; less top­down; more

34

Based on the research of Warren and his associates investigating the restoration of missing phonemes and our knowledge of top­down processes, a missing phoneme would be MOST likely to be restored in a word in ________ by a person who has _______ language experience. isolation; little isolation; a lot of a sentence; little a sentence; a lot of

35

People with pure word deafness can: read. write. speak. All of the answers are correct.

36

The term superiority effect illustrates the importance of _______ in letter identification. features templates bottom­up processing top­down processing


top­down processing 37

You can identify that there is a D in COLD faster than you can identify that there is a D in CFSD. This finding illustrates the importance of _______ in letter identification. features prototypes bottom­up processing top­down processing

38

People often overlook typographical errors when proofreading. This example illustrates the importance of _______ in perception. context expectations top­down processing All of the answers are correct.

39

Research on facial recognition suggests: recognizing faces is a learned ability that emerges around the same time infants start to talk. boys and girls process faces in the same way. two­ to three­week­old infants can imitate facial expressions that adults make. All of the answers are correct.

40

Studies of the ability of two­ to three­week­old infants to recognize faces suggest that infants: sometimes produce facial expressions that match adults, but this is almost always the result of the infants being excited. cannot perceive facial expressions. can differentiate among different adult facial expressions and can imitate them. can differentiate among different adult facial expressions, but they don't have the ability to imitate them.

41

Girls tend to show greater reactivity to faces in the _______ hemisphere. Boys tend to show greater reactivity to faces in the _______ hemisphere. right; right right; left left; right left; left

42

Research comparing the ability to recognize upright and inverted faces suggests: upright faces are processed holistically. we are poor at recognizing inverted faces. inverted faces are processed using individual facial


inverted faces are processed using individual facial features. All of these answers are correct. 43

Facial recognition seems to be BEST explained by: distinctive features theory. recognition by components theory. template­matching theory. prototype theory.

44

Neonates show a preference for looking at: novel faces. their mothers' faces. faces in general, but they don't seem to be able to differentiate between different faces until they are several months old. faces that have been distorted.

45

Which of the following findings supports the conclusion that the cross­race effect is NOT just the result of having more experience with faces of your own race? White students in Singapore show just as poor recognition of Asian faces as do white students in Ontario. White children (6–7 years old) recognize white and Asian faces equally well, but white adults recognize white faces better than Asian faces. In general, recognition accuracy for faces of people of a different race is poorer than for your own race. All of these findings support the conclusion that the cross­race effect is not just the result of more experience with faces of your own race.

46

Damage to the fusiform gyrus is likely to result in remembering names. recognizing faces. forming new memories. reading.

47

A person with prosopagnosia has recognizing common household objects. recognizing familiar faces. remembering things that happened in their past. reading.

48

People with prosopagnosia are MORE likely to use _________ when trying to recognize faces. holistic processing prototypes


prototypes detailed features None of these answers is correct; they can't identify that they are looking at a face. 49

The finding that some people with prosopagnosia are better at recognizing inverted faces than right­side­up faces is evidence that people with prosopagnosia rely more on __________ in identifying faces. holistic processing facial prototypes detailed features None of these answers is correct.

50

The inability to recognize faces after a brain injury is known as: acquired prosopagnosia. developmental prosopagnosia. antereograde amnesia. retrograde amnesia.

51

Research on people with schizophrenia has found that they tend to have: difficulty recognizing faces. a smaller fusiform gyrus. more difficulty identifying emotions from facial expressions. All of the answers are correct.

52

Which of the following disorders is associated with difficulty in facial recognition? prosopagnosia schizophrenia autism All of the answers are correct.

53

Research using fMRI shows that when nonautistic people look at faces, they show more activity in the ________ than autistic people looking at faces. frontal lobes substantia nigra fusiform area parietal lobes


TestBanks Chapter 04: Web Quiz 1

Bottom­up processing emphasizes the role of ____________ in perception, while top­down processing emphasizes the role of ____________. basic features of the stimulus; expectations of the perceiver expectations of the perceiver; basic features of the stimulus lines and angles; 3­D shapes 3­D shapes; lines and angles

2

XX XX XX is described as three pairs of X's. This example illustrates the gestalt law of perceptual grouping known as: proximity. similarity. common fate. closure.

3

In the textbook, there is a picture of a Dalmatian dog that is made up of dots and lines. At first, it is hard to differentiate the dog from background. However, when the viewer finally sees the dog as a whole, the fragmentary nature of the dots and lines seems to disappear. This perception is MOST closely related to which of the following gestalt principles? law of proximity law of closure law of common fate law of similarity

4

Which gestalt principle involves motion? law of proximity. law of good continuation law of common fate law of closure

5

Each letter of the alphabet involves a different combination of features. That characteristic makes perceiving the letters of the alphabet MOST easily explained by: distinctive features theory. recognition by components theory. template­matching theory. prototype theory.

6

__________ theory explains recognition in terms of low­ level features, such as lines, angles, and dots, while ____________ theory explains recognition in terms of 3–D shapes. Template­matching; distinctive features Distinctive features; template­matching


Distinctive features; template­matching Distinctive features; recognition by components Recognition by components; distinctive features 7

Which of the following theories deals with one limitation of template matching theory by suggesting that the template is not a literal match with an object, but is an average or typical instance of that object? distinctive features theory recognition by components prototype theory None of the answers is correct.

8

Words can be understood more easily when they are in a meaningful sentence rather than in isolation. This fact can be BEST explained in terms of: distinctive features theory. prototype theory. template­matching theory. top­down processing.

9

A series of letters is briefly exposed on a screen and then replaced with a series of X's to mask the initial letters. The observer's task is to identify whether the letter D is presented among the initial letters. For which of the following stimuli would the observer be MOST likely to detect the D? WORD D WKRD They are all equally likely.

10

Which of the following accounts of pattern recognition is BEST able to account for our ability to recognize different faces? distinctive features theory recognition by components theory template­matching theory prototype theory

11

Activity in the fusiform gyrus would be greatest when looking at: individual letters. words. objects. faces.

12

Research by Joseph and Tanaka (2003) found that when trying to recognize a previously seen face in a choice between two very similar alternatives, children with autism: are more likely to detect changes in the mouth than changes in the eyes. are more likely to detect changes in the eyes than


are more likely to detect changes in the eyes than changes in the mouth. show no difference in their ability to detect changes in the mouth and changes in the eyes. can not detect changes in any of the faces.


TestBanks Chapter 05: Essay 1

Explain the role of chunking in STM. Answer: Multiple items can be combined into a single meaningful unit (chunk). Chunking is the process of combining items into single units. Prior knowledge is important to this process. Capacity of STM is approximately seven chunks.

2

Describe the Brown­Peterson task, and explain how it used in the assessment of short­term memory. Answer: The task involves three memory items, followed by counting backward by threes, which prevents rehearsal. It is used to assess STM duration without rehearsal.

3

Describe the role of proactive interference in the Brown­ Peterson task. How can proactive interference in short­term memory be reduced when it does develop? Answer: First­time through the task, there is little loss of information. However, subsequent trials become more difficult because of interference from items on earlier trials. The proactive interference can be reduced by changing the type of information.

4

Explain the difference between maintenance rehearsal and elaborative rehearsal. Answer: Maintenance rehearsal—keeping an item active by saying it repeatedly maintains the item in STM. Elaborative rehearsal —thinking about meaningful relationships between items and other things you know enhances LTM.

5

Describe the Sternberg task and what the serial exhaustive search predicts as an outcome. Answer: Present memory sets of varying size. Present the probe. Determine if the probe is in the memory set. Serial exhaustive search is a search of the entire memory set, and then it determines whether there is a match. It also predicts memory scanning time will be the same for positive and negative trials.

6

Describe the components of the serial position curve and


6

Describe the components of the serial position curve and the explanation for each effect. Answer: The components are the primacy effect and the recency effect; the primacy effect is superior memory for first items on the list, which is attributed to more rehearsal and availability in LTM; the recency effect is superior memory for last items on the list, which is attributed to availability in STM.

7

Describe how the primacy and recency effects can be reduced independently of one of another. Answer: You can reduce primacy by reducing opportunities for more rehearsal of first items (e.g., deliver the list faster); you can reduce recency by delaying recall in such a way that items fade from STM (e.g., use the Brown­Peterson technique at the end of the list).

8

Describe the components of the visuospatial sketchpad and its role in working memory. Answer: The sketchpad stores visual information and kinesthetic motor movements; the visual cache stores visual information that comes from perceptual experience; the inner scribe refreshes information stored in the sketchpad and stores spatial relationships associated with bodily movement.

9

Describe the role of the central executive in the working memory model. Answer: It coordinates activities of the other components, guides attention, and allocates resources.

10

Explain how the working memory model can explain the word­length effect. Answer: Identify word­length effect; the articulatory control process takes longer to say longer words, which means fewer words will fit. Consequently, there is shorter memory span.

11

Klein and Boals (2001) examined the impact of unwanted intrusive thoughts on working memory. Based on their findings, what would you suggest to someone who is having cognitive difficulties because of intrusive thoughts? Answer:


Answer: Write about the event that is associated with the intrusive thoughts; this allows better understanding of the negative emotional event and, consequently, the thoughts intrude less and working memory function improves.


False 1

In a running memory span test, the length of the list is increased by one item on each successive list. True False

2

The Brown­Peterson task is used to measure the duration of short­term memory. True False

3

Proactive interference occurs when something you know now makes it difficult to recall something that you learned previously. True False

4

Elaborative rehearsal is generally MORE effective than maintenance rehearsal in retaining and recognizing items over a long period of time. True False

5

In a serial exhaustive search, a person stops looking for the probe in the memory set when it is found. True False

6

The primacy effect refers to better memory for the last items on a memory list. True False

7

In the serial position curve, the recency effect is attributed to items being available in STM. True False


8

The articulatory control process refreshes and maintains the items in the phonological store. True False

9

The inner scribe briefly stores spatial relationships associated with bodily movement. True False

10

The central executive is the main system for controlling attention. True False

11

The word­length effect can be explained in the working memory model by the function of the inner scribe. True False

12

In research on the effect of emotion on working memory, Klein and Boals (2001) found that students who had been asked to write about a negative event showed an increase in WM capacity. True False


TestBanks Chapter 05: Multiple Choice 1

Which of following statements is true of learning? It involves permanent changes in behavior. It refers to changes in behavior that result from experience. Learned information must be stored for it to be retrieved later. All of the answers are correct.

2

Working memory is: the memory that contains our moment­to­moment conscious thoughts and perceptions. easy to study because people have immediate experience of its presence. the set of mechanisms that underlies short­term memory. All of the answers are correct.

3

The adult capacity of short­term memory is: approximately 3 chunks. approximately 7 chunks. approximately 15 chunks. virtually unlimited.

4

Memory span is a test that is used to measure the ________ of short­term memory capacity duration coding All of the answers are correct.

5

A test of short­term memory in which the number of items on the list varies from list to list is known as a ____________ and is used to measure the __________ of short­term memory. running memory span test; capacity memory span test; duration Brown­Peterson task; duration memory span test; capacity

6

Research suggests that short­term memory capacity: goes up as we age. goes down as we age. goes up until young adulthood and begins to decline in old age. does not change as a function of age.


does not change as a function of age. 7

The increase in the capacity of STM as children become adults has been attributed to: neurological development during this time period. changing memory strategies as people age. changes in coding as people age. All of these answers are correct.

8

In his tests of memory capacity, Ebbinghaus (1885, 1913): used nonsense syllables as the items to be remembered. measured capacity by measuring how many items he could remember from studying the list one time. always used the same length of list. All of the answers are correct.

9

A participant in a short­term memory study sees the following list of letters: C A T S H O E B I R D. Although there are 11 letters on the list, the student easily remembers all of them because they are encoded as the letters that make up just three words. This example illustrates: chunking. the serial position effect. the primacy effect. the recency effect.

10

Research on chunking suggests that: a person's memory spans may be different for different types of items. someone who has phenomenal memory in one domain is likely to have phenomenal memory in all domains. chunking does not involve long­term memory. All of the answers are correct.

11

Chi (1978) compared the memory performance of 10­year­ old advanced chess players and adults who were inexperienced in playing chess. On a memory span test, __________________________, and on a task that tests memory for the positions of chess pieces on a chessboard, ______________________. the 10­year­olds performed better; the adults performed better the adults performed better; the 10­year­olds performed better there was no difference between the two groups; the 10­year­olds performed better the adults performed better; there was no difference between the two groups


12

The duration of short­term memory can be measured using: a memory span test. a running memory span test. the Brown­Peterson task. the paced auditory serial addition task.

13

The Brown­Peterson task can be used to measure the: capacity of short­term memory. duration of short­term memory. code in short­term memory. difference between short­term memory and long­term memory.

14

Based on research using the Brown­Peterson task, when there are several items being held in memory and rehearsal is prevented, most of the items from short­term memory are lost in: less than a second. 3–4 seconds. 10–20 seconds. 1–2 minutes.

15

In the Brown­Peterson task, participants count backward by threes after being presented with the memory set. The participant is asked to count backward by threes in order to: create proactive interference. create retroactive interference. prevent rehearsal. clear the memory for the next trial.

16

Alice learned Spanish last year, and this year she is taking a class in Italian. However, remembering Italian terms is made more difficult because she keeps remembering the Spanish term instead of the Italian one. Alice is experiencing: proactive interference. retroactive interference. the primacy effect. the recency effect.

17

Sean learned Spanish last year, and this year he is taking a class in Italian. As he learns more Italian, it becomes more difficult for him to remember the Spanish that he learned earlier. When Sean tries to remember Spanish, he is experiencing: proactive interference. retroactive interference. the primacy effect. the recency effect.


18

Proactive interference in the Brown­Peterson task is greatest: on the first trial of the task. after many trials with the same type of memory items. after the type of memory items being used changes. when there is only one item in the memory set.

19

Trying to remember several things that you need at the grocery store by silently repeating the list in your head is an example of: maintenance rehearsal. elaborative rehearsal. using the inner scribe. using the episodic buffer.

20

Trying to remember several things that you need at the grocery store by developing a story that has the various items on your list interacting with one another is an example of: maintenance rehearsal. elaborative rehearsal. using the inner scribe. using the episodic buffer.

21

Which of the following statements is true of the comparison between maintenance and elaborative rehearsal? Maintenance rehearsal is more effective in retaining items in memory over a long period. Elaborative rehearsal is more effective in retaining items in memory over a long period. Maintenance rehearsal is more effective for recognition tests, but elaborative rehearsal is more effective for recall tests. Maintenance rehearsal is more effective for recall tests, but elaborative rehearsal is more effective for recognition tests.

22

In the Sternberg task, a memory set of the digits 5, 3, 6, 2, 8 are presented and then a probe is presented. A serial exhaustive search predicts that saying “yes” that: 8 was on the list will take longer than saying “yes” that 3 was on the list. 3 was on the list will take longer than saying “yes” that 8 was on the list. 8 was on the list will take the same amount of time as saying “yes” that 3 was on the list. 8 was on the list will take longer than saying “no” that 4 was not on the list.

23

If you were using a serial exhaustive search to find an item in short­term memory: you would stop searching when you found the item in


you would stop searching when you found the item in the memory set. you would continue to search even after you found the item in the memory set. you would search all of the items in the memory set at the same time. when searching for an item that wasn't in the memory set, you would go through the memory set multiple times to make sure it wasn't there. 24

Using a serial exhaustive search in the Sternberg task predicts that which of the following will influence the time it takes to respond? the size of the memory set whether the probe is present or absent in the memory set the position of the probe within the memory set All of the answers are correct.

25

If you were using a serial self­terminating search to find an item in short­term memory: you would stop searching when you found the item in the memory set. you would continue to search even after you found the item in the memory set. you would search all of the items in the memory set at the same time. when searching for an item that wasn't in the memory set, you would go through the memory set multiple times to make sure it wasn't there.

26

The superior recall that is seen for items at the beginning of a memory list is known as the______ and is attributed to those items being in _______. primacy effect; short­term memory primacy effect; long­term memory recency effect; short­term memory recency effect; long­term memory

27

In a serial position study, increasing the speed with which list items are presented should: decrease both primacy effect and the recency effect. decrease the primacy effect while not impacting the recency effect. decrease the recency effect while not impacting the primacy effect. have no impact on either the primacy effect or the recency effect.

28

In a test of memory for a long list of items, which of the following changes would be MOST likely reduce the recency effect without impacting the primacy effect? increasing the speed with which the list items are


increasing the speed with which the list items are presented having the participant only rehearse the most recent item presented delaying the recall by having the participant complete another task first having the list made up of nonsense syllables rather than words 29

Research examining the effect of modality on the serial position curve suggests no difference between auditory and visual presentation for the ________ effect, but ________ presentation resulted in a smaller ________ effect. recency; auditory; primacy recency; visual; primacy primacy; auditory; recency primacy; visual; recency

30

Using a visual presentation rather than an auditory presentation of items for a long list of items in a memory test is likely to: reduce both the primacy and recency effects. reduce the primacy effect but not the recency effect. reduce the recency effect but not the primacy effect. have no impact on the primacy and the recency effects.

31

One way to circumvent the power of the serial position effect is to: make the information distinctive. connect the information that you are trying to remember. place the important information to remember at the beginning or the end of the list. All of the answers are correct.

32

Which of the following are included as components of Baddeley and Hitch's (1974) working memory model? visuospatial sketchpad central executive phonological loop All of the answers are correct.

33

Which of the following is NOT a component of the phonological loop in Baddeley and Hitch's (1974) model of working memory? phonological store articulatory control process episodic buffer All of these are components of the phonological loop.

34

According to the working memory model, the articulatory control process refreshes the items stored in the _______ roughly every _____ seconds.


roughly every _____ seconds. phonological store; 2 phonological store; 18 episodic buffer; 2 episodic buffer; 18 35

The articulatory control process is to the phonological loop, as the ______ is to the visuospatial sketchpad. central executive inner scribe visual cache episodic buffer

36

Research on the working memory model suggests that use of the articulatory control process is associated with activity in the: left­parietal lobe. right­parietal lobe. prefrontal cortex. occipital lobe.

37

Research on the working memory model suggests that the basic storage function of the phonological loop is associated with activity in the: left­parietal lobe. right­parietal lobe. prefrontal cortex. occipital lobe.

38

Based on the working memory model, which of the following tasks would be MOST likely to interfere with memory for a checkerboard? using a stylus to track the motion of a “ladybug” on a computer screen completing a memory span task saying a nursery rhyme None of these tasks should interfere with memory for a checkerboard.

39

Which component of working memory is responsible for briefly storing spatial relationships associated with bodily movement? visual cache inner scribe episodic buffer articulatory control process

40

What component of the central executive is involved in creating images? visual cache inner scribe visual buffer episodic buffer


episodic buffer 41

Knocking out electrical activity in the dorsolateral medial prefrontal cortex using an rTMS pulse is MOST likely to interfere with memory for: faces. dot patterns. a sentence that was heard. the sound of someone's voice.

42

Based on research on the role of the inner scribe and visual cache, selectively knocking out activity associated with the visual cache is: likely to interfere with memory for faces but not memory for spatial arrangements. likely to interfere with memory for spatial arrangements but not memory for faces. likely to interfere with memory for both faces and spatial arrangements. not likely to interfere with memory for either faces or spatial arrangements.

43

The system that is responsible for integrating events occurring in the visuospatial sketchpad and the phonological loop into a coherent sequence along with memory for the goals that initiated those events is known as the: inner scribe. central executive. articulatory control process. episodic buffer.

44

The central executive: coordinates activities of the visuospatial sketchpad, phonological loop, and episodic buffer. communicates with long­term memory via the episodic buffer. is the main system for controlling attention. All of the answers are correct.

45

The central executive is: centered in the parietal lobes. the main memory store for working memory. coordinates, manipulates, and updates the content of the WM subsystems. All of the answers are correct.

46

The functioning of the central executive is measured by the: Brown­Peterson task. paced auditory serial addition task.


paced auditory serial addition task. running memory span. Sternberg task. 47

In the paced auditory serial addition task: participants count backward by threes. numbers are presented visually. participants add together the two most recently presented numbers. All of the answers are correct.

48

In a memory experiment, a series of letters that sound similar are visually presented one at a time on a computer screen. When recalling the list, the participant recalls some nonpresented letters that also sound similar. This phonological confusion is MOST directly caused by the: articulatory control process. inner scribe. visual cache. episodic buffer.

49

New Yorkers have a reputation for speaking fast, while Georgians have a reputation for speaking slow. If this stereotype is true, based on what you know about working memory, which of the following statements would MOST likely to be true? New Yorkers would tend to have a greater memory span than Georgians. New Yorkers are more likely to experience phonological confusions than Georgians. Georgians are more likely to perform better on the PASAT than New Yorkers. New Yorkers are more likely to have a greater capacity in their episodic buffer.

50

The ability of an inconsequential background conversation to interfere with silent verbal rehearsal is known as: retroactive interference. proactive interference. phonological confusion. irrelevant speech effect.

51

Klein and Boals (2001) examined the relationship between emotion and working memory and found that having participants write about a _______ event in their lives produced the greatest ________ in working memory capacity. positive; increase positive; decrease negative; increase negative; decrease

52

Kim has unwanted intrusive thoughts about an event that


52

Kim has unwanted intrusive thoughts about an event that happened earlier in her life. These intrusive thoughts interfere with the function of her working memory. Based on research by Klein and Boals (2001), the BEST advice for improving her memory function would be to: write about all the good things happening in her life. just ignore the intrusive thoughts. write about the event that resulted in the intrusive thoughts. keep very busy so the unwanted thoughts won't have an opportunity to intrude.

53

Research on the effect of mood on working memory has found that: the effect of positive mood is not consistent. negative mood impairs performance on central executive tasks. negative mood has a direct influence on blood flow to regions of the brain involved with memory. All of the answers are correct.


TestBanks Chapter 05: Web Quiz 1

Which of the following is a way of measuring the capacity of short­term memory? the Brown­Peterson task memory span memory scanning the paced auditory serial addition task

2

In his research into memory for lists of nonsense syllables, Ebbinghaus found that the number of viewings needed for a perfect memory showed a discontinuity when the length of the list exceeded ______ syllables. 3 5 7 10

3

This semester, you are taking a course in Italian, but every time you try to remember the Italian word for “something,” you recall the Spanish word that you learned in the Spanish class you took last year. This example illustrates: proactive interference. retroactive interference. the primacy effect. the recency effect.

4

If three unrelated items are placed in short­term memory and rehearsal is NOT prevented, they can be maintained in memory: for about 3 seconds. for about 18 seconds. for about 2 minutes. indefinitely.

5

A serial exhaustive search of short­term memory assumes that: we search through the memory set one item at a time. we continue to search the memory set even after we have found the item. the time it takes to scan memory when the target is present, and when the target is absent, will be the same. All of the answers are correct.

6

The superior recall that is seen for items at the end of a memory list is known as the______ and is attributed to those items being in _______ . primacy effect; short­term memory primacy effect; long­term memory recency effect; short­term memory recency effect; long­term memory


7

Having a person count backward by threes for 30 seconds before recalling a long list of words is likely to: reduce both the primacy and recency effects. reduce the primacy effect without impacting the recency effect. reduce the recency effect without impacting the primacy effect. have no impact on either primacy or recency.

8

The part of the working memory model that is most closely associated with the idea of maintenance rehearsal in STM is the: phonological store. articulatory control process. central executive. inner scribe.

9

The visual cache is to the visuospatial sketchpad, as the ______ is to the phonological loop. central executive phonological store articulatory control process inner scribe

10

The paced auditory serial addition task (PASAT) is useful for measuring the functioning of which of the following components of working memory? central executive phonological loop visuospatial sketchpad episodic buffer

11

The word­length effect can be explained by which of the following components of working memory? central executive inner scribe articulatory control process episodic buffer

12

On several occasions over a two­week period, Klein and Boals (2001) had students write about a negative event about which they had unwanted thoughts. At the end of the study, participants' working memory capacities were tested and compared to a control group that had simply written about their day. The group writing about the negative events showed a(n)__________ in working memory capacity, which the researchers explained by suggesting that writing about the events made these events______ likely to pop up in unwanted thoughts. increase; less increase; more decrease; less decrease; more


decrease; more


TestBanks Chapter 06: Essay 1

Explain what it means to say that implicit memory and explicit memory are process­dissociated and what that tells us about the two types of memory. Answer: Learning conditions affect one type of memory but not the other, suggesting relative independence of the two memory processes.

2

Describe the results of Bahrick and associates' study of long­term memory for material from high school and college Spanish classes. Be sure to describe how time since course completion and type of test (recall vs. recognition) have an impact on performance. Answer: There is a drop in performance over first three years; however, at longer retention intervals, performance stabilizes, reflecting a kind of permastore. Recognition performance is consistently better than recall.

3

Describe the type of code for memory for sentences, and give an example of a research finding that supports this conclusion. Answer: Code is semantic; gist of sentence is stored. Examples may include descriptions of types of sentence recognition errors that illustrate semantic coding, differential ability to identify semantic changes vs. syntax changes, or other findings that illustrate sensitivity to semantics.

4

Describe the general relationship between feelings of knowing and memory retrieval. How does this relationship relate to the tip­of­the­tongue phenomenon? Answer: Generally, memory retrieval is likely when feelings of knowing are high. When memory retrieval fails, TOT phenomena often occur in which the item is temporarily unavailable, but some characteristics of the word may be reported.

5

What is encoding specificity? How can knowledge of encoding specificity be used to help someone who initially fails to retrieve information on an exam? Answer: Retrieval is best when encoding and retrieval conditions match. If memory fails, use imagery to try to recreate the encoding context.


encoding context. 6

According to Klein's theory of autobiographical memory, what are the three essential elements for a fully functioning autobiographical memory? Answer: They are capacity for self­reflection, sense of personal ownership of thoughts and actions, and the ability to think about time as an unfolding of personal happenings centered about oneself.

7

Explain the difference between retrograde and anterograde amnesia. Answer: Retrograde amnesia is memory failure for events that occurred before brain injury; anterograde amnesia is memory failure for events that occurred after brain injury— inability to form new explicit memories.

8

What is infantile amnesia? What are two explanations for it? Answer: It is difficulty in recollecting events from before the ages of three to four. Explanations may include lack of brain development, infants and young children being less likely to pay attention to context­of­life events, a gap between current worldview and encoding of events in infancy, and lack of narrative structure.

9

What is the reminiscence bump? Explain how it is related to the serial position curve. Answer: Recollections tend to be better for events and other aspects of life from the ages of 10 to 25. Like the primacy effect, events from this period are more likely to be first experiences of different categories.

10

Describe how flashbulb memories and everyday memories are similar and how they are different. Answer: Both tend to lose accuracy over time, but flashbulb memories retain vividness over time while everyday memories don't.

11

Describe the memory abilities of HM after his hippocampi were surgically removed. Be sure to address the results of tests with a mirror­tracing task. Answer:


Answer: He was unable to form new episodic or semantic memories. His working memory was, however, intact, while mirror tracing showed intact implicit learning even without explicit memory. 12

What is the Pollyanna principle? How does depression impact it? Answer: It is the tendency to retrieve a greater number of pleasant memories than unpleasant memories; people with depression don't show this tendency.

13

Give an example of how eyewitness memory can be impacted by questions that are asked about the event that was witnessed. Answer: Example should demonstrate the impact of misleading information on subsequent memory performance.


False 1

In Quillian's teachable language comprehender model, properties of an object are stored at the highest node to which they apply. True False

2

Quillian's teachable language comprehender model predicts that you should be faster to judge that a sparrow is a bird than to judge that a penguin is a bird. True False

3

Characterizing features are those that are necessary and jointly sufficient to specify the requirements for a category. True False

4

In the feature comparison model, responses to sentences with low subject–predicate similarity should have faster response times than sentences with medium subject– predicate similarity. True False

5

Connectionist models of memory assume that humans are parallel processors of information. True False

6

Scripts are schemas that tell us what behavior we should expect of ourselves and others in certain situations. True False

7

Infants prefer to look at an upright T shape more than upside­down T shape. True False


8

Stories of personal experiences that are prompted by the questions of others are known as accounts. True False

9

In remembering stories, recall of a sentence is higher if the previous sentence was recalled and was from the same category rather than a different category. True False

10

Seductive details are characteristics of advance organizers that increase the overall recall of facts. True False

11

A stereotype is a person schema that is applied to an entire group. True False

12

The encoding specificity principle is one of the three principles of skilled memory. True False

13

Experts tend to perceive their domains of knowledge differently than do nonexperts. True False


TestBanks Chapter 06: Multiple Choice 1

Remembering that George Washington was the first president of the United States is an example of a(n): semantic memory. episodic memory. implicit memory. prospective memory.

2

Remembering when you learned that George Washington was the first president of the United States in your second grade class is an example of a(n): semantic memory. episodic memory. implicit memory. prospective memory.

3

Remembering that I ate scrambled eggs for breakfast is an example of a(n): semantic memory. retrospective memory. prospective memory. procedural memory.

4

Remembering to pick up a newspaper on the way home from work is an example of a(n): semantic memory. retrospective memory. prospective memory. procedural memory.

5

When knowledge that we possess influences our behavior, yet we are unable to deliberately recall the pieces of information on which our behavior relies, the type of memory involved is known as _________ memory. semantic episodic implicit retrospective

6

You know how to tie your shoe, but you cannot describe the process. This description indicates that you have a ________ memory of the process but NOT a ________ memory. procedural; declarative procedural; implicit perceptual; declarative perceptual; implicit

7 Jason remembers the smell of his favorite apple pies that


Jason remembers the smell of his favorite apple pies that his grandmother used to bake. The type of memory described in this example is: semantic memory. procedural memory. perceptual memory. prospective memory. 8

The Gollin test shows a person a series of line drawings that are progressively more detailed drawings of a familiar object. It can be used as a test of _______ memory. semantic procedural perceptual declarative

9

The capacity of long­term memory: is about seven unrelated items. is the number of items that can be rehearsed in approximately two seconds. has no obvious limit. requires that old facts must be eliminated from memory to make room for new ones.

10

Bahrick and associates tested academic knowledge from a Spanish course up to 49 years after the course was taken. They found that: over the first three years after taking the course, recall dropped but recognition did not. recall and recognition remained relatively stable over time when tested at least three years after taking the course. recall performance is generally better than recognition performance. All of the answers are correct.

11

Bahrick and associates tested academic knowledge from a Spanish course up to 49 years after the course was taken. They found that: over the first three years after taking the course, recall dropped more dramatically than recognition. recall and recognition remained relatively stable over time when tested at least three years after taking the course. recognition performance is generally better than recall performance. All of the answers are correct.

12

Which of the following statements about long­term memory is true? Performance on tests of long­term memory are unaffected by the passage of time. Retrieval from long­term memory is essentially a


Retrieval from long­term memory is essentially a verbatim record of the past. Long­term memories often include reconstructions rather than verbatim recall. There is a consistent gradual decline in long­term memory performance over time. 13

The code in long­term memory is: visual. auditory. kinesthetic. All of these codes can be used in long­term memory.

14

Our mental representation of man probably includes human, male, and adult. These characteristics are: known as semantic features. known as phonemes. examples of implicit memories. examples of metamemory.

15

Based on Fillenbaum's (1966) research on memory for sentences, if you were presented with the sentence, “The triangle is above the square,” which of the following incorrect sentences would you be MOST likely to falsely recognize? The square is above the triangle. The square is below the triangle. The triangle is next to the square. The triangle is below the square.

16

Fillenbaum's (1966) research on memory for sentences suggests that memory is guided primarily by remembering the: particular words that appeared in the sentence. gist of the sentence. acoustic characteristics of the sentence. visual appearance of the sentence.

17

Research on memory for sentences and paragraphs suggests that these memories are primarily encoded in terms of: the exact words used. visual features. semantic features. syntactic structure.

18

In Sach's (1967) research investigating memory for paragraphs, participants were tested in their ability to detect semantic and syntactic changes in the sentences that they had read in a paragraph. The participants were: good at detecting both semantic and syntax changes. good at detecting semantic changes but near chance


good at detecting semantic changes but near chance when detecting syntax changes. good at detecting syntax changes but near chance when detecting semantic changes. near chance when detecting both semantic and syntax changes. 19

Sach's (1967) research investigating memory for paragraphs found that: students are good at detecting changes in meaning (semantic change). students are not good at detecting changes in sentence form (syntax only). the ability of people to detect any change in the sentences declines as time between reading the passage and being tested increases. All of the answers are correct.

20

Our awareness of our memory system and what resides in there is known as: explicit memory. implicit memory. metamemory. semantic memory.

21

Brad asks Steve whether he thinks he is ready for the big exam that they have been studying for. Answering Brad's question requires Steve to assess his: episodic memory. metamemory. implicit memory. procedural memory.

22

Studies of feelings of knowing suggest that: people without memory impairment tend to be correct in their feelings of knowing. for people with amnesia, feelings of knowing predicted their ability to recognize the answer to questions. the accuracy of our feelings of knowing decline with age. All of the answers are correct.

23

When we have high feeling of knowing, but still find ourselves unable to retrieve the word, our searching for this is known as_______________. encoding specificity retrograde amnesia antereograde amnesia the tip­of­the­tongue phenomenon

24

The tip­of­the­tongue phenomenon:


is only found in some cultures. occurs more often in younger adults than older ones. shows that sound­based codes play a role in word retrieval. All of the answers are correct. 25

Barclay and associates (1974) showed students sentences like (a) “The man tuned the piano,” while other students saw (b) “The man lifted the piano.” When they were tested, some of them were given the memory cue “something heavy,” while others got the cue “something melodious.” The researchers found that those who got the _______________ cue were more likely to recall the sentence (b). These results illustrate the _________. something heavy; encoding specificity principle something heavy; tip­of­the­tongue phenomenon something melodious; encoding specificity principle something melodious; tip­of­the­tongue phenomenon

26

Tulving and Osler (1968) had students learn word lists. One group got no cues while they learned the words and the other got poor cues. When they were tested, the groups were split with half of each group getting no cues when tested and half getting the poor cues. Which students remembered the MOST items? those who were given the poor cue at learning, regardless of whether the cues were present at testing those who were given the poor cue at testing, regardless of whether the cues were present at learning those who were not given cues at learning, regardless of whether the cues were present at testing those who had matching conditions at learning and at testing, regardless of whether cues were present or not

27

Tulving and Osler's (1968) study in which students were asked to learn and recall word lists either with or without poor cues found that those given: poor cues during learning relied on subjective organization to encode the words. poor cues at testing relied on subjective organization to recall the words. no cues during learning relied on subjective organization to encode the words. no cues at testing recalled the most, regardless of whether they were given cues at learning.

28

If you were intoxicated when you studied a list of words, you are likely to remember more of the words if you are ________ when you recall them. This example illustrates ____________. sober; context­dependent retrieval sober; state­dependent retrieval intoxicated; context­dependent retrieval intoxicated; state­dependent retrieval


intoxicated; state­dependent retrieval 29

Goodwin et al. (1969) studied memory when students were either intoxicated or sober at study and recall. Students made the MOST errors when they were ________ at study and ________ at recall. sober; sober sober; intoxicated intoxicated; sober intoxicated; intoxicated

30

Goodwin et al. (1969) studied memory when students were either intoxicated or sober at study and recall. Students made the FEWEST errors when they were ________ at study and ________ at recall. sober; sober sober; intoxicated intoxicated; sober intoxicated; intoxicated

31

Autobiographical memory refers to your: retrospective episodic memory for your own life events. procedural knowledge about yourself. memory for information about the lives of others. implicit memory resulting from your own life events.

32

According to Klein et al. (2004), to have a fully functioning autobiographical memory, we must possess: a capacity for self­reflection. a sense of personal ownership. the ability to think about time as an unfolding of personal happenings centered about ourself. All of the answers are correct.

33

Someone who can't remember new events after damage to the brain is experiencing: antereograde amnesia. retrograde amnesia. proactive interference. retroactive interference.

34

Three young adults suffered damage to their hippocampi and other brain areas during very early childhood. As a result, they cannot remember life events, but they have normal IQs, perform well in school, and show vocabulary development and language comprehension. These individuals are showing evidence of _________ impairment but NOT ____________ impairment. implicit memory; declarative memory episodic memory; declarative memory episodic memory; semantic memory


episodic memory; semantic memory implicit memory; explicit memory 35

That infants can learn new actions and imitative sequences suggests: infantile amnesia may result from a lack of narrative ability. infantile amnesia is tied to the development of language ability. memory for actions may rely on nonverbal, image­based memories. All of the answers are correct.

36

The textbook suggests that the reminiscence bump is related to: the primacy component of the serial position effect. the recency component of the serial position effect. the offset of infantile amnesia. encoding specificity.

37

Research suggests that flashbulb memories are more: accurate than everyday memories. vivid than everyday memories. resistant to false intrusions than everyday memories. All the answers are correct.

38

In a study of memory for the events of 9/11 and autobiographical recollections of learning about the events, Pezdek (2003) compared New Yorkers, Californians, and Hawaiians. She found that _________ were the MOST factually accurate about the event, and __________ had the poorest autobiographical recall of learning about the event. New Yorkers; New Yorkers New Yorkers; Hawaiians Hawaiians; New Yorkers Hawaians; Hawaiians

39

The hemispheric encoding­retrieval asymmetry (HERA) model looks at hemispheric asymmetries in brain activity during different types of memory tasks. Encoding information into episodic memory involves greater activation in the ____________. Damage to this area would be MORE likely to result in _____________. left­prefrontal cortex; antereograde amnesia left­prefrontal cortex; retrograde amnesia right­prefrontal cortex; antereograde amnesia right­prefrontal cortex; retrograde amnesia

40

The hemispheric encoding­retrieval asymmetry (HERA) model looks at hemispheric asymmetries in brain activity during different types of memory tasks. Retrieving


during different types of memory tasks. Retrieving information from episodic memory involves greater activation in the ____________. Damage to this area would be MORE likely to result in _____________. left­prefrontal cortex; antereograde amnesia left­prefrontal cortex; retrograde amnesia right­prefrontal cortex; antereograde amnesia right­prefrontal cortex; retrograde amnesia 41

Remembering to take a pill at 5:00 p.m. is an example of a (n)_____________ prospective memory. _________ adults tend to perform better with this type of prospective memory. event­based; Older event­based; Younger self­initiated; Older self­initiated; Younger

42

The development of prospective memory ability is associated with the physiological development of the ____________ lobes. frontal temporal parietal occipital

43

The hippocampi are found in the ________ lobes. frontal temporal parietal occipital

44

After his hippocampi were removed, HM's _______________ memory still appeared to function normally. episodic semantic explicit implicit

45

Korsakoff's syndrome: is a consequence of malnutrition caused by excessive alcohol consumption. is characterized by sufferers making up answers to questions rather than indicating lack of knowledge. tends to get progressively more severe over time. All the answers are correct.

46

The area of the temporal lobes associated with emotionality is the: amygdala.


amygdala. hippocampus. thalamus. hypothalamus. 47

The tendency to recall a greater number of pleasant memories than unpleasant memories is known as the: encoding specificity principle. Pollyanna principle. context­dependent retrieval. tip­of­the­tongue phenomenon.

48

Research on the relationship between emotion and memory for events has found that the emotional reaction: fades faster for positive events than for negative events. fades faster for negative events than for positive events. gets stronger for positive events but not for negative events. gets stronger for negative events but not for positive events.

49

The Pollyanna principle does NOT hold for: older adults. younger adults. depressed adults. children.

50

Bartlett's (1932) research studying the memories of people in Great Britain for the Kwak'wala story known as the “War of the Ghosts” found that: initially, people had very consistent and accurate memories. over time, they began to elaborate on the story and, consequently, retellings became longer. over time, the supernatural components tended to get left out. All of the answers are correct.

51

Loftus, Miller, and Burns (1978) presented participants with a series of slides that showed an auto–pedestrian accident. One of the slides showed either a yield sign or a stop sign. The researchers then asked a series of questions that included a question that referred to the sign in either a consistent or misleading way. They found that: participants given the misleading information were initially unaffected but were more likely to be wrong about what they had seen a week later. the consistent information group and the control group that had not been asked about the sign did not differ in their initial accuracy.


their initial accuracy. the accuracy of the participants given the misleading information was initially below chance but was more accurate a week later. None of the answers is correct. 52

The cognitive interview includes which of the following components? The witness is asked to imagine being back at the crime scene witnessing the event. The witness is encouraged to report everything that he or she can recall. The witness is asked to recount the event in different sequences. All of the answers are correct.

53

The cognitive interview takes advantage of the: encoding specificity principle. Pollyanna effect. weapons focus. prospective memory.


TestBanks Chapter 06: Web Quiz 1

Remembering that there are 50 states in the United States is an example of: semantic memory. explicit memory. long­term memory. All of the answers are correct.

2

After seeing a commercial for a particular brand of coffee, I am unable to remember the name of the brand yet I am now more likely to purchase that particular brand. This example illustrates the influence of: semantic memory. retrospective memory. prospective memory. implicit memory.

3

Fillenbaum (1966) had students study a long list of sentences until their meaning was clear. Then he gave them a multiple­choice test that asked them to identify the sentences they had seen. If they had seen the sentence, “The door was open,” which of the following incorrect answers would they be MOST likely to select? “The door was closed.” “The door was not open.” “The door was not closed.” “The door was white.”

4

You are fixing a toaster in the kitchen and realize you need a screwdriver. When you go to the garage to get a screwdriver, you forget why you went there. However, when you reenter the kitchen, you immediately remember what you needed. This example illustrates ___________, and the ability to remember when you enter the kitchen can be attributed to ____________. flashbulb memories; reminiscence bump flashbulb memories; availability of retrieval cues encoding specificity; reminiscence bump encoding specificity; availability of retrieval cues

5

Which of the following has been suggested as an explanation for infantile amnesia? The necessary brain mechanisms may not be mature yet. Young children may not pay attention to context of life events. Young children haven't learned narrative structure yet. All of the answers are correct.

6

The reminiscence bump occurs:


7

when children start going to school. in mid­to­late teens. in mid­20s in mid­30s Flashbulb memories are: resistant to decay. more accurate than everyday memories. associated with strong emotional reactions. All of the answers are correct.

8

Wilkins and Baddeley (1978) gave participants tests of both retrospective memory (recall of a list of unrelated words) and prospective memory (remember to press a button several times each day). They found that: retrospective memory and prospective memory are unrelated. those with good retrospective memory tend to have poorer prospective memory. those with good retrospective memory also tend to have good prospective memory. those with good retrospective memory also tend to have good prospective memory, but this relationship was only seen among participants who were college students.

9

The hemispheric encoding­retrieval asymmetry (HERA) model looks at hemispheric asymmetries in brain activity during different types of memory tasks. Encoding information into episodic memory involves greater activation in the ____________, while retrieving information involves greater activation of ______________. left­prefrontal cortex; right­prefrontal cortex right­prefrontal cortex; left­prefrontal cortex left­occipital lobe; right­occipital lobe right­occipital lobe; left­occipital lobe

10

After the hippocampi were removed, HM had ________ amnesia. Nevertheless, his _____ memory seemed to function normally. retrograde; implicit retrograde; sematic anterograde; implicit anterograde; semantic

11

Korsakoff's syndrome is associated with damage to the: hippocampi. frontal lobes. mammillary bodies. amygdala

12

In general, eyewitness memories:


12

In general, eyewitness memories: are quite accurate because strong emotional reactions broaden focus on more aspects of the scene. can be influenced by questions asked after the event. are uninfluenced by source monitoring errors. are uninfluenced by eyewitnesses being forced to lie about the situation because they remember that what they said was a lie.


TestBanks Chapter 07: Essay 1

Describe Quillian's teachable language comprehender model. Include at least one research finding that it can explain and one that it can't explain. Answer: Answer should include network components, including hierarchical nature, maximally efficient storage, spreading activation, predictions for time to verify different sentences. Findings consistent with predictions or repeated path hypothesis could be considered findings that support, typicality effect, or semantic distance effect are examples of things it can't explain.

2

Describe how the feature comparison model would account for typicality effects. Answer: Typical instances should have high similarity leading to faster response times using only the initial feature comparison. Atypical instances should have medium similarity leading to slower response times requiring second feature comparison to defining features only.

3

Describe three ways that connectionist models are useful in explaining human processing and storage of knowledge. Answer: They can account for learning, how people often confuse information, and explain the loss of information due to brain damage. Answer might also include that they reflect the brain's architecture.

4

Explain how a schema can both assist and mislead as we try to understand a conversation. Answer: It can assist by allowing inferences to fill in gaps but mislead when those inferences are false. It is difficult to distinguish between inferences and the information that was actually in the conversation.

5

What is the fate of schema­inconsistent information when assessing memory? Answer: It may not be encoded as in the “Office Study,” but schema­inconsistent events in stories generally stand out, making it more likely to be recalled as a part of the story.


6

Sulin and Dooling (1974) had students read a passage that was portrayed as either being about a fictitious character (Carol Harris) or a famous person (Helen Keller). Describe the major findings of the study. Answer: Immediate test—both groups were highly accurate in determining whether the sentences had been a part of the passage. After 1 week, the fictitious character group was still fairly accurate, but the famous person group was not accurate when the sentences had not been presented and was strongly thematically related to Helen Keller.

7

Name and describe three newborn reflexive schemas. Answer: Answer could include description of any of these schemas— blink, Moro, Landau, protective, palmar, or walking.

8

Describe the development of narrative schemas. Answer: 2­year­olds can narrate one­ or two­word accounts; 4–5­ year­olds begin to narrate sequences of events along with recounts (personal experience prompted by a question, first to occur), eventcasts (running commentary of events at hand), and accounts (personal experience that is speaker­ initiated); story schemas that have more structure containing additional elements, such as plot, first appear in 8­year­olds.

9

What are the basic constituents of a story schema? How do we know that they are used to understand and remember the story? Answer: Answer should describe setting, theme, plot, and resolution; evidence that story schemas are used comes from better recall for stories that conform to the schema structure; and more likely recall of a sentence if a previous sentence from the same category has been recalled.

10

Describe how person schemas can lead to stereotypes and how that can impact memory. Answer: Stereotypes are person schemas applied to an entire group. People misremember events so that they are more consistent with the assumptions of the stereotype.

11

Describe the three components of skilled memory theory.


11

Describe the three components of skilled memory theory. Answer: Answer should explain the meaningful encoding principle, the retrieval structure principle, and the speed­up principle.


False 1

Imagery does not help us with respect to survival. True False

2

The spacing between numbers in a math problem can interfere with problem solving. True False

3

The dual­task method allows us to investigate whether various cognitive tasks rely on the same mental resources. True False

4

When asked to identify which animal in each pair is larger, people should respond to “cat­whale” equally quickly as “cat­horse.” True False

5

The areas of the brain activated in response to imagining small or larger letters are the same as those activated when viewing small or large letters, which suggests that these two cognitive processes share some neural correlates. True False

6

Dual codes may help us remember the name of an object when we can only remember what it looks like. True False

7

Visual representations can always be represented with a verbal code, but an object with a verbal code does not necessarily have a visual code. True False


8

Compared to people who form very vivid mental images, people with less vivid mental images are more likely to forget whether they experienced an event or simply imagined it. True False

9

Spatial ability may have an impact on how successful we are at performing everyday activities. True False

10

The terms eidetic image and afterimage refer to the same type of mental image. True False

11

Performance motivation can be thought of as a desire to master a skill, coupled with general arousal. True False

12

People incorrectly judge the relative positions of two countries because they have failed to organize the spatial relations hierarchically. True False

13

When using the method of loci and imagines, you should be very familiar with the structure you use to organize the information for it to be MOST effective. True False

14

Bower & Clark (1969) found that people who remembered a story using mnemonics outperformed those who did not use a strategy, regardless of the delay between training and testing. True False

15 Older adults with larger working memory capacities tend to


Older adults with larger working memory capacities tend to show the greatest benefits when prompted to use the method of story. True False


TestBanks Chapter 07: Multiple Choice 1

In the teachable language comprehender model, the meaning of a concept is: composed of all the links associated with it. defined by the length of the connections with other nodes. defined by a list of its features. organized around particular instances of the concept.

2

In the teachable language comprehender model: the network is hierarchical. the length of a link represents the relatedness of the two nodes being linked. all properties of a node are directly connected to the node. All of the answers are correct.

3

According to the teachable language comprehender model, which of the following sentences would be verified fastest? A robin lays blue eggs. A robin can fly. A robin is an animal. A robin has skin.

4

A section of the network for the teachable language comprehender model includes Robin, Bird, and Animal. Robin and Bird would be connected using a ________ link. Lays blue eggs would be attached to Robin with a _________ link. class­inclusion; class­inclusion class­inclusion; property­relations property­relations; class­inclusion property­relations; property­relations

5

A section of the network for the teachable language comprehender model includes Robin, Bird, and Animal. Breathes would be attached to _________ using a _________ link. Robin; class­inclusion Robin; property­relations Animal; class­inclusion Animal; property­relations

6

The aspect of the teachable language comprehender model that allows for a quick “No” response to questions that link two things that are clearly not related is the: hierarchical structure of the network. type of links involved. question interface. distance between the nodes.


distance between the nodes. 7

Which of the following is an assumption of the teachable language comprehender model? All links are of equal length. Properties are stored at the highest appropriate node in the hierarchy. Activation spreads from the activated nodes in all directions at the same time. All of the answers are correct.

8

In the teachable language comprehender model, the time it takes to answer a question about a sentence is determined by: the length of the direct link between two nodes. the distance between the two nodes in the network. the strength of the connection between two nodes. All of the answers are correct.

9

According to the repeated path hypothesis, if you were asked to determine whether a canary had skin, your answer would be faster if you had first determined whether which of the following statements were true? A bird is an animal. A tomato has skin. A robin is a bird. A robin sings.

10

Which of the following is difficult to explain by Quillian's network theory? Why “a canary has skin” takes longer to determine than why “a canary is an animal.” Why “a sparrow is a bird” takes less time to determine than why “an ostrich is a bird.” Why first determining whether “a bird is an animal” will make determining whether ”a robin is an animal” faster. Quillian's network theory can explain all of these findings.

11

When verifying that an instance is a member of a category, central members of the category are responded to faster than peripheral members. Quillian's network theory: explains this by having shorter links between the central members and the category. explains this because the activation has to spread through more nodes for peripheral members. explains this by having multiple pathways between the category and the central members. cannot explain this finding.

12

Which of the following changes from the teachable language comprehender model have been included in new network theories to deal with the semantic distance effect?


reducing the hierarchical structure allowing varied length and strength of connections allowing information to be stored in more than one place All of the answers are correct. 13

The main problem for alternative network models that give up the hierarchical nature of TLC and introduce links of different strengths is that they: can't explain typicality effects. can't explain semantic distance effects. are difficult to test scientifically. don't allow different individuals to have different versions of the networks.

14

The model that portrays human knowledge as a giant semantic space is known as the: teachable language comprehender model. feature comparison model. perceptual theory of knowledge. connectionist model of memory.

15

Which theory of knowledge is MOST closely related to prototype models of pattern recognition? the teachable language comprehender model the feature comparison model the perceptual theory of knowledge the connectionist model of memory

16

In the feature comparison model, the initial comparison of features: includes both defining and characterizing features. includes only defining features. includes only characterizing features. compares defining features to characterizing features.

17

In the feature comparison model, if the initial comparison of features results in an intermediate match, then the person will compare features again; but this time the comparison will include: both defining and characterizing features. only defining features. only characterizing features. only features that did not match in the initial comparison.

18

In the feature comparison model, if the initial comparison of features finds very little match, then: a second comparison is made using only defining features. a second comparison is made using both defining and characterizing features. a “No” response can be given without further


a “No” response can be given without further comparisons. the model will be unable to determine whether the instance is a member of the category. 19

Which of the following is a key difference between the feature comparison model and the teachable language comprehender model? The feature comparison model assumes that people have an overall sense of defining and characterizing features for natural categories. The feature comparison model relies only on the defining features for determining membership. The feature comparison model assumes that everyone uses the same standards and features to determine membership. All of the answers are correct.

20

When judging category membership, the feature comparison model predicts that when similarity is high the response will be _______, and when the similarity is low the response will be ________. fast; fast fast; slow slow; fast slow; slow

21

Under which conditions does the feature comparison model predict the slowest response to category membership judgments? when the similarity is high when the similarity is low when the similarity is medium Similarity does not predict response time.

22

Which theory of knowledge assumes that when we think about a category, we reactivate the images of earlier experiences with that category? the teachable language comprehender model of knowledge the feature comparison model of knowledge the perceptual theory of knowledge the connectionist model of knowledge

23

When Julie was asked how she determined whether an elephant had toes, she said she imagined an elephant and “inspected” the image to see if it had toes. Her explanation is MOST consistent with: a network theory of knowledge. the feature comparison model of knowledge. the perceptual theory of knowledge. a connectionist model of memory.

24

A connectionist model:


24

A connectionist model: is a broad type of model that borrows from network, feature comparison, and perceptual theories of knowledge. is based on the way the nervous system works. assumes humans are parallel processors of information. All of the answers are correct.

25

In a connectionist model: connection strength is influenced by past experience. there are separate unconnected networks for each conceptual domain. activation spreads instantaneously. All of the answers are correct.

26

Which of the following characteristics do both connectionist models and perceptual models emphasize? Information is processed in parallel. We acquire information through experience. Every node of knowledge is connected either directly or indirectly. Activation spreads through the entire knowledge network.

27

Connectionist models are useful because they: can be modified based on a person's development of knowledge. can explain how people often confuse related information. explain the loss of information resulting from brain damage. All of the answers are correct.

28

The progression of semantic dementia can BEST be predicted by: the teachable language comprehender model. the feature comparison model. connectionist models. a perceptual symbol system.

29

Schemas: help fill in missing information. can interact with each other. evolve over time. All of the answers are correct.

30

Schemas:


30

Schemas: are examples of specific instances that you have experienced. are used to infer missing information. do not change over time. All the answers are correct.

31

Which of the following is NOT true of scripts? They are schemas that describe physical objects such as faces. They are schemas that tell us what behavior we should expect in particular situations. They interact with other schemas. They are organized hierarchically.

32

Which of the following characteristics are benefits of using schemas? They assist in understanding conversations by allowing listeners to make inferences. They allow us to know what to expect next in a situation. They make comprehension of conversations faster. All of the answers are correct.

33

When schemas fill in missing information, it is _______ to determine what information came from the schema and what information was actually present. This is because _______. easy; schemas automatically fill the working memory with the missing information easy; schemas must be consciously consulted to fill in information difficult; schemas automatically fill the working memory with missing information difficult; schemas must be consciously consulted to fill in information

34

Based on the Brewer and Treyens (1981) “Office Schema” study, when a schema is used to recall an event that generally fits the schema, it makes recall of schema­ consistent information that wasn't actually present______ likely and recall of schema­inconsistent information that was present ______ likely. more; more more; less less; more less; less

35

When schema­inconsistent events occur in a story: people tend not to notice them.


people tend not to notice them. people notice them but quickly forget them. they sometimes stand out with special clarity. are sometimes remembered but never as clearly as schema­consistent events. 36

In Sulin and Dooling's (1974) study, students read a story that was either titled “Carol Harris” or “Helen Keller,” and their ability to recognize sentences from the story was tested. When tested with a sentence that had not been part of the story but was highly related to Helen Keller, the group who believed that the passage was about Helen Keller was ________ in their recognition of sentences from the story when tested after 5 minutes and _________ when tested after 1 week. accurate; accurate accurate; inaccurate inaccurate; accurate inaccurate; inaccurate

37

In Sulin and Dooling's (1977) study, students read a story that was either titled “Carol Harris” or “Helen Keller,” and their ability to recognize sentences from the story was tested. When tested with a sentence that had not been part of the story but was highly related to Helen Keller, the group who believed that the passage was about Carol Harris was ________ in their recognition of sentences from the story when tested after 5 minutes and _________ when tested after 1 week. accurate; accurate accurate; inaccurate inaccurate; accurate inaccurate; inaccurate

38

Involuntary closure of the eye to a flash of light is known as the: blink reflex. Moro reflex. protective reflex. palmar reflex.

39

When there is a loud noise, infants tend to extend their arms and legs and then bring them together as if to grab onto something. This is known as the: Moro reflex. Landau reflex. protective reflex. palmar reflex.

40

The walking reflex first appears: at about 6 months of age. in newborns and gets progressively stronger over the


in newborns and gets progressively stronger over the first year of life. in newborns but disappears within a few days, then reappears about a year later. first appears around the time that infant begins to learn to walk. 41

That infants prefer to look at an upright T shape more than an upside­down T shape has been interpreted as being the result of: their preference for looking at faces. a general preference for letter shapes. a natural language learning module. the Landau reflex.

42

Plots develop in stories around the age of: 3 years old. 5 years old. 8 years old. 10 years old.

43

Narratives in which stories are organized around the speaker's personal experience and are prompted by a question are called: recounts. eventcasts. accounts. fictionalized stories.

44

Running commentaries of events at hand are called: recounts. eventcasts. accounts. fictionalized stories.

45

Accounts differ from recounts in that accounts: tend to develop earlier. are speaker­initiated. describe what will happen in the future. are about fictional characters and events.

46

Sarah races into the house and tells her father, “You'll never believe what happened at school today.” Before he can say anything, she launches into a story describing what happened in her class that day. Sarah's story MOST clearly illustrates a(n): recount. eventcast. account. fictionalized story.


fictionalized story. 47

Zelinski and Miura (1988) compared memory for narratives in young adults and older adults. Participants listened to a recording of a story in which the main character engaged in three scripted activities. They found that: older participants recalled more details than younger ones. older participants and younger participants were equally able to recognize sentences that were consistent with the story schemas. younger participants were better able to recognize sentences that were consistent with the story schemas. older participants did not rely on schemas for either recognition or recall.

48

Research on story schema constituents has found that recall of a sentence is MOST likely if the previous sentence has been recalled and: both sentences are from the same category. the two sentences form a transition between categories. the first sentence is part of the setting and the second sentence is part of the plot. the first sentence is part of the plot and the second sentence is part of the setting.

49

Story maps: serve as advance organizers. lead to increased comprehension among young students when compared with alternative instructional strategies. are especially helpful for students with learning disabilities. All of the answers are correct.

50

The type of schema MOST closely associated with stereotypes is a: story schema. person schema. script. face schema.

51

Peters and associates (2007) showed students a cartoon­ like story depicting an interaction between two men on a subway. In the last frame, one man held a knife. They found that: when both men were White, the participants couldn't identify the man who held the knife. when one man was Black and one was White, they falsely recognized the Black man as holding the knife. weapon focus led participants to accurately recognize the person holding the knife but not the other man. weapon focus prevented participants from being able to


weapon focus prevented participants from being able to identify either man. 52

Which of the following is NOT an element of skilled memory theory? the meaningful encoding principle the retrieval structure principle the speed­up principle the encoding specificity principle

53

Which of the following is NOT true regarding experts and novices? Experts tend to have a better overall memory to begin with. Experts perceive tasks differently. Experts sort problems differently. Experts have more domain knowledge.

54

Experts tend to organize their knowledge into memory chunks that create perceptual units that a novice cannot see. This facilitates the: meaningful encoding principle. retrieval structure principle. encoding specificity principle. speed­up principle.

55

A waiter encodes the orders around a table, always beginning at the same point and always going in the same order. This facilitates the: meaningful encoding principle. retrieval structure principle. encoding specificity principle. speed­up principle.


TestBanks Chapter 07: Web Quiz 1

A theory of knowledge in which things are represented in memory as nodes and everything is ultimately connected to everything else is a: network theory. feature­based theory. perceptual theory. None of these answers is correct.

2

Which of the following is true of the feature comparison model? In the first comparison of features, only defining features are compared. Judging an instance that somewhat resembles a category takes less time than judging an instance that is very different from the category. Judging an instance that is a close match in terms of features takes fewer steps in processing than judging an instance that somewhat resembles a category. All of the answers are correct.

3

First asking, “Does a horse have a mane?” reduces the time it takes to decide whether a pony has a mane. However, first asking, “Does a lion have a mane?” does not reduce the time it takes to make the decision regarding a pony. Which theory can BEST explain this finding? teachable language comprehender feature comparison theory perceptual theory of knowledge None of these answers is correct.

4

Connectionist models: assume humans are parallel processors of information. are similar to the way the nervous system works. emphasize that we acquire information through experience. All of the answers are correct.

5

Which of the following statements about schemas is true? Schemas are stable, unchanging representations of the world. Schema­inconsistent events are generally not remembered. Schemas can lead to memory of schema­consistent information that was not present in the original event. All of the answers are correct.

6 Sulin and Dooling (1974) had students read a passage


Sulin and Dooling (1974) had students read a passage about either “Carol Harris” or “Helen Keller.” In a test of recognition memory, the researchers found that those who thought the passage was about Helen Keller were much _______ likely to falsely recognize nonpresented sentences that were ___________ related to Helen Keller when the test was administered 1 week after they read the passage.

7

more; highly more; poorly less; highly less; poorly Reflexive crawling is known as the: Moro reflex. Landau reflex. protective reflex. palmar reflex.

8

At what age do children develop stories as a sequence of events that have a beginning, middle, and end? 2–3 years old 4–5 years old 7–8 years old 10–11 years old

9

Which of the following is considered a basic constituent of a story schema? setting theme resolution All of the answers are correct.

10

In a demonstration in the text, a passage that describes the operation of a bicycle pump is read with and without a diagram of the pump. The diagram of the pump serves as a(n): advance organizer. eventcast. seductive detail. stereotype.

11

Expert cognitive processing differs from that of novices in a variety of ways and has been studied using different methods. If physics experts and novices are asked to sort problems by the type of physics knowledge required, this is an example of a: recall task. perceiving task. categorization task. None of the answers is correct.

12

Memory experts use their prior knowledge to encode new


12

Memory experts use their prior knowledge to encode new information in their area of expertise. Their doing this illustrates the: meaningful encoding principle. retrieval structure principle. speed­up principle. schema utilization principle.


TestBanks Chapter 08: Essay 1

Explain how spatial imagery is used while deciding your route to a destination, organizing your dresser, and planning your upcoming week. Answer: Answers will address how each task relies on planning and organizing ideas in a spatial manner, such as planning the shortest or fastest route, organizing the drawers from top to bottom based on the weight of the clothing, and writing out a timeline of things to accomplish.

2

Consider three groups who are asked to learn words by repeating them, pairing them with an unrelated picture, or pairing them with a picture in a meaningful way. Predict how each of these groups will perform on recognition and recall tests and justify your answer in terms of the dual coding hypothesis. Answer: We would expect similar performance across groups in the recognition task, but those who formulate meaningful associations would outperform those who do not in the recall task. A meaningful cue has a semantically relevant visual and verbal component, whereas repeating a word or associating it with an irrelevant picture establishes a primarily verbal or visual association. Dual coding would predict the best recall for cues that are verbally and visually relevant.

3

People are asked to look at silhouettes on a piece of paper and are able to identify two animal shapes when this figure is viewed upright or physically rotated 90°. However, if they are asked to mentally rotate the figures 90° instead, people cannot identify the second animal. How does this finding challenge other evidence on the nature of mental imagery? Answer: Mental images are treated as realistic and appropriate representations of a physical object or an idea. For example, in both visual and mental imagery, stimuli that are similar in size or shape are more difficult to differentiate than stimuli that are obviously different from each other. However, the fact that students cannot identify the second object when mentally performing the tasks suggests that having an external stimulus facilitates some judgments.

4

Explain how studies on mental rotation provide support for images having an analog code. Answer: As the angular disparity between two objects increases,


As the angular disparity between two objects increases, people take longer and are less accurate at judging whether the two objects are the same. This trend mirrors people's performance when they are physically manipulating an object. 5

How are individuals with a split brain useful in trying to understand the neuropsychology of imagery? Answer: We can selectively present information to one hemisphere of a split­brain individual without any involvement of the other hemisphere. People with a divided brain are better at mental rotation when the information is presented to the right hemisphere, implicating the importance of this area in mental imagery.

6

Describe hemineglect and explain how the behaviors associated with this condition provide us with important insight into the relationship between mental and external images. Answer: Hemineglect patients describe mental and external scenes similarly in that they don't attend to left­sided information, but if asked to mentally or physically reorient their perspective, they will report the previously ignored information. These behaviors suggest that to some extent, mental imagery and visual perception share similar neural areas and cognitive processes.

7

Suppose that people in an experiment were good at recognizing the content of pictures they had seen before, but were not good at remembering whether the original presentation had been simple (e.g., line drawing) or complex (e.g., photograph). Provide an explanation why a more complex cue does not always elicit better recognition memory. Answer: People may only need to extract basic, critical features from an image to remember its content, in which case we would not expect a difference in performance as the result of adding more salient details.

8

Describe the difference between visual and spatial imagery and explain the types of judgments associated with each skill. Answer: Visual imagery concerns the appearance of the object— such as shape, color, and brightness—and can be evaluated by asking someone to describe these features (e.g., “Is the block red?”). Spatial imagery concerns two­ or three­


block red?”). Spatial imagery concerns two­ or three­ dimensional representations of objects in space, which can be evaluated by asking someone to consider the orientation of a single object or a number of objects with respect to one another (e.g., “Is the red block to the left of the blue block?”). 9

Describe the visualizer–verbalizer distinction. Explain how this distinction could be useful for education but is limited in its predictive ability. Answer: This distinction characterizes the extent to which people use visuospatial or verbal representations in problem solving. The classification can be useful in order to improve and personalize teaching, but should not be thought of as a dichotomous measure. Skill in one dimension is not necessarily universal (e.g., a visualizer does not necessarily have good spatial ability), nor does it preclude skill in the other dimension.

10

You imagined that South America and Africa were aligned on an imaginary horizontal axis, but when shown a map you discovered that Africa appears farther north than South America. Explain why mental representations of geography do not necessarily reflect the maps we have studied. Answer: We don't remember maps as perfect pictures but rather organize their information in a structured and easily accessible way. An example would be visualizing the relative positions of North America, Europe, South America, and Africa as four corners of a perfect square.

11

Describe a situation outside of the classroom in which teaching and using mnemonics can be useful. Answer: Answers will vary but generally describe situations in which mnemonics help people remember a large group or sequence of items (e.g., clusters of symptoms in clinical settings, musical chords, terminology within a specialized field, etc.).

12

Imagine that you are a health­care provider and have been put in charge of creating memory exercises to help your elderly patients. Briefly describe a memory strategy that is effective for older adults, explain how you would implement it, and predict the type of patient for whom your intervention will be the most effective. Answer:

Answers will vary, but first define the method (e.g., loci and


Answers will vary, but first define the method (e.g., loci and imagines, story, or keyword) and explain the underlying structure (e.g., associations with place, theme, or word). Generally speaking, older adults with better comprehension, spatial ability, and working memory will benefit the most from these strategies.


False 1

Imagery does not help us with respect to survival. True False

2

The spacing between numbers in a math problem can interfere with problem solving. True False

3

The dual­task method allows us to investigate whether various cognitive tasks rely on the same mental resources. True False

4

When asked to identify which animal in each pair is larger, people should respond to “cat­whale” equally quickly as “cat­horse.” True False

5

The areas of the brain activated in response to imagining small or larger letters are the same as those activated when viewing small or large letters, which suggests that these two cognitive processes share some neural correlates. True False

6

Dual codes may help us remember the name of an object when we can only remember what it looks like. True False

7

Visual representations can always be represented with a verbal code, but an object with a verbal code does not necessarily have a visual code. True False


8

Compared to people who form very vivid mental images, people with less vivid mental images are more likely to forget whether they experienced an event or simply imagined it. True False

9

Spatial ability may have an impact on how successful we are at performing everyday activities. True False

10

The terms eidetic image and afterimage refer to the same type of mental image. True False

11

Performance motivation can be thought of as a desire to master a skill, coupled with general arousal. True False

12

People incorrectly judge the relative positions of two countries because they have failed to organize the spatial relations hierarchically. True False

13

When using the method of loci and imagines, you should be very familiar with the structure you use to organize the information for it to be MOST effective. True False

14

Bower & Clark (1969) found that people who remembered a story using mnemonics outperformed those who did not use a strategy, regardless of the delay between training and testing. True False

15 Older adults with larger working memory capacities tend to


Older adults with larger working memory capacities tend to show the greatest benefits when prompted to use the method of story. True False


TestBanks Chapter 08: Multiple Choice 1

A mental image can be about ______. the texture of a dog's fur planning your jogging route the sound of your teacher's voice All of the answers are correct.

2

Visualizing your golf swing is an example of ______ imagery. haptic motoric auditory None of the answers is correct.

3

With respect to the study of imagery, cognitive psychologists have primarily focused on investigating ______. what we can do with a mental image how mental images reveal personality traits whether mental images are classically conditioned how our culture influences the mental images we experience

4

You are asked to imagine a cat standing next to another animal, and then asked whether the cat has a bell on its collar. According to Kosslyn's research, you would answer MOST quickly if the cat were standing next to a(an) ______. mouse ant horse whale

5

You are asked to learn word pairs such as bird­chair. Using pairs of images to remember these words would be the MOST effective if the images are: distinct and separate. highly detailed. meaningfully related. not interacting.

6

The man known as “S” had remarkable visual imagery skills and was unable to forget anything he had memorized. However, he had problems predicting simple patterns of numbers. This observation suggests that he: needed to understand what he was learning in order to memorize it. was good at distinguishing between real and imagined experiences. was not uniformly superior to others in terms of


was not uniformly superior to others in terms of cognitive skills. developed a superior memory to compensate for his lack of mathematical skill. 7

The man known as “S” would have the MOST difficulty with which of the following tasks? memorizing a short story imagining numbers as spatially arranged mental images finding the next number in an arithmetic sequence recalling a matrix of numbers

8

Hayes' 1973 study of imagery revealed that students were ______ at mentally solving arithmetic problems when the numbers they were shown were ______. slower; loosely spaced slower; tightly spaced equally fast; loosely spaced or tightly spaced faster; tightly spaced numbers

9

When asked to name different countries of the world, you imagine a basic arrangement of seven pieces stretched over a sphere. We would describe this type of image as having a(n): propositional code. analog code. linear ordering. hallucination.

10

Finke and Pinker (1982) had college students view an array of four dots that disappeared and was replaced by an arrow. The students' task was to indicate whether the arrow pointed to the location of a previously shown dot. Their results supported the hypothesis that: mental images are like photographs. people can scan their mental images. larger distances yield slower response times. All of the answers are correct.

11

Which of the following is NOT true of propositional codes? must be true or false. resemble an experience. similar to words or logical structures. used when we lack an adequate visual representation of something.

12

It could be argued that participants report longer traveling times when imagining large distances simply because they expect this relationship to exist. This potential confound has been successfully controlled for by giving participants: instructions not to answer according to expectations.


instructions not to answer according to expectations. misleading information about the expected results. tasks that only deal with short distances. incentives for reporting shorter traveling times. 13

The dual­task method is most important for investigating: whether different tasks utilize the same cognitive resources. how many tasks people can perform at once. whether people are visualizers or verbalizers. how people mentally represent problems.

14

People should be fastest to respond when a ______ task is paired with a verbal response (e.g., speaking) and a ______ task is paired with a spatial response (e.g., pointing). verbal; verbal verbal; visual visual; verbal visual; visual

15

When people are asked to mentally rotate a letter to its upright position, they imagine the letter turning: clockwise. counterclockwise. whichever way is the shortest distance. clockwise if they are right­handed, and counterclockwise if they are left­handed.

16

Which of the following demonstrates a way in which mental imagery and visual perception are isomorphic? Mental imagery is stored in a propositional code, whereas visual perception is stored in an analog code. People are more successful at interpreting ambiguous figures when they are visually presented rather than imagined. The time taken to perform a mental rotation is comparable to the amount of time it would take to physically rotate the two objects. None of the answers is correct.

17

Shepard and Metzler (1971) found that people performing a 3­D mental rotation task rotate the figure at a rate of approximately ______ degrees per second. 10 60 135 270

18

The symbolic distance effect hold true for: physical objects only.


physical objects only. imagined objects only. both physical and imagined objects. people with low spatial ability only. 19

Mental imagery seems to be easier when the ______ is used as opposed to the ______. left hemisphere; right hemisphere right hemisphere; left hemisphere frontal lobe; parietal lobe parietal lobe; frontal lobe

20

With respect to mental imagery, research with blind individuals has shown that: only individuals who once had sight can experience mental images. they can form mental images but do not respond to images in the same way as sighted individuals. the congenitally blind can form mental images. they cannot form mental images.

21

Kerr asked congenitally blind individuals to learn a 3­D map of an island and then answer questions about the relative locations of the landmarks. These individuals show a ______ relationship between scanning time and the distance between objects. non­significant negative positive None of the answers are correct; they are unable to perform the task.

22

The Perky (1910) experiments showed that: people could not always distinguish between real and imagined events. people were aware of faint images shown on a projector screen. external stimulation is qualitatively different from internal stimulation. people were good at source monitoring.

23

Picturing your stove while trying to remember if you turned it off is an example of: reality monitoring. hemispheric neglect. propositional coding. semantic satiation.

24

Source monitoring does NOT involve which of the following?

reality monitoring


reality monitoring separating imagined and perceptually driven memories comparing specific features of a memory to other experiences translating propositional codes into analog representations 25

People with Charles Bonnet syndrome: have visual hallucinations of people. are blind. have severely impaired imagery ability. All of the answers are true.

26

Who is most susceptible to semantic satiation? newborn babies young adults older adults People of all ages are affected equally.

27

Imagery value is a rating of the ______ of an image. vividness usefulness emotionality abstractness

28

Which of the following is MOST easily represented with dual codes? animal emotion the color red happiness

29

Students view a series of cards and are asked to remember the order in which they were presented. According to the picture superiority effect, this task should be easiest for people who are presented with ______. ambiguous shapes pictures of clouds playing cards words

30

Neural activity is greatest in the left prefrontal cortex when encoding ______, the right prefrontal cortex when encoding ______, and both hemispheres when encoding______. nameable objects; faces without names; words faces without names, nameable objects; words words; nameable objects; faces without names words; faces without names; nameable objects


31

Neurological findings that support the dual code hypothesis show brain activity in the ______, an area that is implicated in encoding meaning and long­term memory. occipital lobe corpus callosum medial temporal lobes anterior cingulate

32

Which of the following is true about droodles (doodle + riddle)? They are usually coded verbally. They are usually coded verbally and visually. People are equally poor at remembering them whether they are labeled or not. They are more easily remembered when given meaningful labels.

33

Imagine that some college students are shown a series of pictures and words that they are told to imagine. The students would MOST likely: be able to identify the pictures they had seen, but not the words. be able to identify the words they had seen, but not the pictures. perform poorly and confuse whether they had seen words or pictures. remember the pictures and words they had seen equally well.

34

Inuit children in Alaska score much higher on measures of visual memory than nonnative children in Alaskan cities. Which of the following has been offered as an explanation for this difference? Inuit children are usually educated within the community and do not take part in mainstream public schooling. Nonnative children are less physically active and engage in fewer outdoor activities. Inuit children receive more educational benefits and outperform nonnative children on a number of achievement measures. Inuit children are better prepared for this task because of the emphasis on hunting within their community.

35

Which of the following is a spatial quality of a mental image? its size relative positions of objects vividness of color familiarity

36 When asked to solve spatial problems, high spatial


When asked to solve spatial problems, high spatial visualizers are more likely to ______, whereas low spatial visualizers are more likely to _______.

37

imagine a spatial configuration; draw a diagram represent problem elements in a useful way; misrepresent the elements of a spatial configuration give up solving a difficult spatial problem; succeed at spatial problem solving None of the answers is correct. A student has difficulty understanding and solving word problems about distance and rate, although he likes to represent these problems as pictures rather than formulas. His difficulty with this type of problem despite his strong preference for visualization can MOST likely be attributed to him having: low spatial ability. high spatial ability. a visual deficit. a genetic disorder.

38

With respect to mechanical reasoning, a(n) ______ property requires visual imagery and a(n) ______ requires spatial imagery. kinematic; static static; kinematic propositional; analog analog; propositional

39

The ability to find your way around a college campus is called _____ spatial ability. integrative navigational directional environmental

40

Which of the following is NOT true of eidetic images? They persist when a physical object is taken away. They only last as long as the person's eyes are fixated. They can be mentally manipulated. They have the quality of reviving an earlier perceptual event.

41

Eidetic imagers: have very high IQ scores. are autistic savants. are also good problem solvers. do not necessarily have other exceptional skills.

42 Studies that have trained people to imagine passing a


Studies that have trained people to imagine passing a volleyball or swinging a golf club (as opposed to not engaging in any physical or mental practice) have demonstrated that mental rehearsal:

43

consistently interferes with physical performance. can improve physical performance. does not have an effect on physical performance. and physical rehearsal are equally effective in improving performance. Mentally practicing a sport may be the MOST useful for improving performance by: slowing the cardiovascular system. reducing skin temperature. increasing motivation. lowering expectations.

44

People often imagine that the streets in their neighborhood intersect at right angles, even when they know this is not really the case. It seems that people impose a grid­like organization on their mental images as a(n) ______ to help them remember the spatial layout of an area. heuristic algorithm mnemonic directive

45

All of the following must be true of mnemonics EXCEPT they: are stored in long­term memory. are plans for retrieval. are memory­enhancing techniques. have rhyming cues.

46

All of the following must be true of a mnemonic EXCEPT: the cues are well­learned, salient, or meaningful. the information to be remembered is organized in an appropriate way. it uses visual imagery. it aids memory retrieval.

47

Which is NOT one of the four major steps to using the method of loci and imagines? commit structural knowledge to memory associate each item to be remembered with a familiar word identify each item to be remembered and imagine it as an object combine the imagined items with the schema in long­ term memory

48

Which of the following groups of older adults would you


48

Which of the following groups of older adults would you expect to benefit MOST from using the method of loci and imagines? retired athletes dementia patients stroke sufferers graphic designers

49

Incorporating a list of items to be remembered into a narrative mnemonic is called the: method of story. method of narrative. thematic method. key­word method.

50

Hill and colleagues found that some older adults trained to use the method of story outperformed those who were not given any strategy instruction on a recall test. Using the method of story was effective in increasing older adults' recall for: immediate testing only. immediate testing and delayed testing. people with low working­memory capacity only. people with high spatial ability only.

51

The key­word method will NOT be very effective at improving recall if: used to learn a foreign language. explained to older adults. the cues are associated with multiple images. the vocabulary word is imagined as a picture.

52

The indigenous people of the Australian Outback have a religious tradition of retracing the routes their ancestors once walked. Even though these routes aren't marked, the aborigines preserve this spatial knowledge by: following the stars in the sky. singing songs. using ancient maps. following migratory animals.

53

Using a catchy jingle in a commercial is a good marketing tool because rhymes: put people in a good mood. help create an association with a product. draw attention away from the risks or shortcomings of a product. make the product more appealing to children.

54

Research has shown that the ridiculous image story technique can help people with _____ improve their memory. multiple sclerosis


multiple sclerosis head injuries amnesia All of the answers are correct. 55

Which of the following is a correctly ordered list of steps for an amnesic patient to learn the ridiculous image story (RIS) technique? receive word list; remember target words; create story; study story study story; remember target words; receive word list; create story create story; receive word list; remember target words; study story receive word list; create story; study story; remember target words


TestBanks Chapter 08: Web Quiz 1

Images can be described as: motoric. haptic. auditory. All of the answers are correct.

2

When you move to a new neighborhood, you have to learn the names of the streets and their spatial arrangement in order to get to school, work, and important landmarks. This type of learning is BEST described as: way finding. classical conditioning. rote learning. source monitoring.

3

With respect to driving directions, a list of turns is best described as a ______ representation, whereas a route map is best described as a(n) ______ representation. visual; verbal heuristic; algorithmic propositional; analog None of the answers is correct.

4

Students are asked imagine the time it would take to walk from the parking lot to the campus library while either holding a coffee cup or carrying a backpack filled with books. Based on prior research, which of the following would you expect to observe? Students who imagined holding the coffee cup would report the longer traveling times. Students who imagined carrying the backpack would report the longer traveling times. Regardless of what they were told to imagine, students' reported traveling times would be similar. There is no prior research to help predict this relationship.

5

Research using the dual task method have revealed all of the following EXCEPT: Image coding is more similar to picture coding than word coding. People are more accurate when simultaneously performing tasks that utilize the same rather than different cognitive resources. Images have an analog code under some conditions. People are slow to respond when the task and response medium share similar cognitive demands.

6

According to the symbolic distance effect, you would be the


6

According to the symbolic distance effect, you would be the fastest at recognizing your friend if he was standing next to: a newborn baby. his twin brother. his wife. a toddler.

7

A person with hemineglect moves into a house that has a chimney on the left side when you are outside and facing the front door. A clinician asks her to describe the features of her house from various perspectives. She is MOST likely to include the chimney in her description after she is asked to imagine facing her house and: looking straight at it. turning 90° to the right. turning 90° to the left. turning 180° so that her back is toward the house.

8

With respect to performing mental rotation, blind individuals: are unable to complete the task. take longer to respond when the solution requires a greater degree of angular rotation. do not show a predictable pattern of responses. show different patterns of responding compared to sighted individuals.

9

Which of the following brain areas is activated when a person correctly distinguishes between an experienced and imagined event? precuneus anterior cingulate cortex inferior parietal cortex left­anterior hippocampus

10

With respect to mechanical reasoning, protocol analysis is MOST directly relevant to understanding how: people solve problems. parts of a mechanical system function interdependently. to design diagrams for use with mental simulations. spatial ability measures are correlated with successful mechanical reasoning.

11

Photographic memory is: different from eidetic memory. more common in adults than children. different from the phenomenon of afterimages. All of the answers are correct.

12

Compared to people who did not engage in any mental or


12

Compared to people who did not engage in any mental or physical practice, Rovre et al (199) found that volleyball players who only imagined performing a passing drill were better at physically performing the drill later. With respect to this observation, it was suggested that players with a ______ of physiological arousal in the final training session were the ______ to improve their physical skill. low level; most motivated low level; most likely high level; least likely high level; most motivated

13

Which of the following sets of cues would be MOST appropriate for use with the peg­word method? the rhyme “One, two, buckle my shoe, three, four, shut the door, five, six, pick up sticks” the items you view in your bedroom as you turn in a clockwise direction words that are familiar and sound similar to the items to be learned None of the answers are correct.


TestBanks Chapter 09: Essay 1

Provide one biological and one behavioral example to demonstrate the universality of human language. Answer: Answers will refer to various examples in the chapter. A biological example will refer to neural or genetic contributions to language (e.g., the majority of people have language areas predominantly in the left hemisphere). A behavioral example will refer to observed commonalities in various languages (e.g., a predictable array of color terms).

2

Describe the role of each of the four components of language: message, physical constraints, medium, and social constraints. Answer: The message conveys the important semantic information. Physical constraints (syntax) organize words into meaningful structures that facilitate comprehension. The medium is the way in which the language is expressed, either through articulation or gesture. Social constraints are practical rules that facilitate communication (e.g., dictating when it is appropriate to speak in a classroom).

3

Describe how deaf infants acquire verbal and gestural communication and how these observations support the universality of human language. Answer: Deaf children produce the same early speech sounds as hearing children, despite the fact they cannot hear themselves or others. They acquire gesture­based communication in a similar fashion. Both groups of children progress toward mastery of their native language at a similar pace. These findings demonstrate that language acquisition relies on more than just the environment.

4

Explain why writing is not a universal component of language. Answer: Unlike verbal and gestural media, writing is not a part of every language. Articulation and gesture can be learned without specific instruction, whereas writing must be taught. Illiteracy is very high in some parts of the world.

5

Describe the HASP procedure, and provide an example of how it has been used to investigate prenatal language learning. Answer:


Answer: During the high­amplitude sucking procedure (HASP), a baby is given a pacifier to suck on: The rate at which the baby sucks induces changes in the observed stimuli. In one study, mothers read a story out loud, twice a day during their last trimester. After birth, the babies would suck the pacifier so that they could hear the story they had been exposed to in the womb as well as hear their mothers' voices. 6

Define turnabout, and provide an example. Explain how this sort of interaction is useful for language acquisition and allows children to appreciate a large number of grammatical rules without necessarily being able to articulate them. Answer: Turnabouts are interactive communications between caregiver and child. For example, when a parent teaches the names of different body parts, he may point to his foot and his child's foot while saying “foot.” This type of interaction engages infants and models communicative behavior for him or her. Children as young as four years old who have not been explicitly taught syntactical rules can nonetheless identify incorrect sentences based on this kind of experience.

7

Describe the relationship between handedness and the localization of language areas in the brain. Provide an example of how we can investigate whether a typical person has language areas in one or both hemispheres of his brain. Answer: Around 90% of right­handed people and 60–70% of left­ handed people have language areas predominantly on the left side. The remainder have language areas in the right hemisphere or distributed across both hemispheres. Using the Wada test, a clinician selectively paralyzes one hemisphere by injecting an anesthetic into one side of the patient's body. If that hemisphere is involved in language processing, the patient will become unable to perform language tasks once the anesthetic takes effect. One could also use imaging techniques (e.g., fMRI) to observe neural areas that are engaged during language tasks.

8

Describe the different symptoms associated with Broca's and Wernicke's aphasias. Answer: Broca's aphasia (cortical motor, expressive, nonfluent) is associated with grammar and speech production difficulties. Wernicke's aphasia (cortical sensory, receptive, fluent) is associated with poor comprehension and fluid but


associated with poor comprehension and fluid but meaningless speech. 9

Describe how an individual with right­hemisphere damage could misinterpret the statement, “When she heard the good news, a huge weight was lifted off her shoulders.” Answer: People with damage to the right hemisphere show difficulty understanding the purpose and subtleties of language. Someone with right­hemisphere damage would have difficulty understanding that the “huge weight” referred to in the statement is not describing mass but is actually a metaphor for an emotional burden.

10

Briefly describe the consequences and outlook for children who suffer damage to their language dominant hemisphere at: (a) 0–20 months, (b) 21–36 months, (c) 3–10 years, (d) 11–14 years, and (e) over 15 years. Answer: (a) There would be a delayed onset of language but normal development afterward. (b) Previous language accomplishments disappear but will be reacquired in the same sequence. (c) They experience aphasias and deficits in reading and writing. (d) They experience selective aphasia and learning disorders. (e) They experience selective aphasia and irreversible damage.

11

Describe a disability that is associated with intellectual deficits but competent language skills. Answer: Answers will describe one of the following: (a) Williams syndrome: exceptional conversation skills but low IQ and difficulty navigating and performing simple tasks; (b) Turner's syndrome: normal language skills despite below average scores on verbal, spatial, and social intelligence measures, as well as difficulty with other tasks; (c) spina bifida: productive use of language despite high frequency of learning disabilities

12

Describe a research study that challenges the linguistic relativity hypothesis. Answer: Answers could include research findings that: (a) young children without sufficient vocabulary and people with few color terms in their native language can identify focal colors, (b) people perform counterfactual reasoning similarly in Mandarin and English despite Mandarin lacking the subjunctive conditional construction “If I had … I would have …”


13

Based on the different types of numbering systems, explain why a Japanese­speaking child is expected to reach a higher level of arithmetic competency sooner than an English­speaking child. Answer: In Japanese, the numbers 11–20 translate to ten one, ten two, ten three, and so on, whereas English takes on the irregular forms eleven, twelve, thirteen, and so on. Children whose native languages use the decimal logic are able to count to higher numbers sooner than children who must learn additional irregular forms like those used in English.


False 1

A logographic writing system uses symbols to represent the meaning of a word or concept. True False

2

The number of similarities shared by languages all over the world may reflect our common biological heritage. True False

3

A person's mouth must create an obstacle in order to make a speech sound. True False

4

The high­amplitude sucking procedure reveals that babies are sensitive to language and voices they hear while in the mother's womb. True False

5

Children between the ages of two and four are unable to identify errors in speech. True False

6

Most people have language areas primarily on the left side of their brains; the remainder have language areas on the right side of their brains or distributed on both sides. True False

7

Individuals with paroxysmal aphasia are unaware of their language deficit. True False


8

Men are more likely than women to develop an aphasia after damage to Broca's area, whereas the pattern is reversed with damage to Wernicke's area. True False

9

A two­year­old child who suffers injury to his language­ dominant hemisphere may regress in his speaking ability but is likely to reacquire normal language ability over time. True False

10

There does not seem to be a critical period for language: feral (wild) children deprived of communication will learn to speak normally once reintegrated with society. True False

11

People with Williams or Turner's syndrome demonstrate that intelligence and language ability are not always related. True False

12

People with spina bifida are above average in intelligence but are limited in their ability to express themselves. True False

13

According to anthropological evidence, a language that only has six color terms is unlikely to have a label for the color green. True False

14

Counterfactual reasoning involves pretending about things that are not necessarily true. True False

15 The numbering system in the English language may


The numbering system in the English language may interfere with the arithmetic competency of English­ speaking schoolchildren. True False


TestBanks Chapter 09: Multiple Choice 1

Language is considered a cognitive universal because all normal healthy individuals learn to: write. speak. read. All of the answers are correct.

2

A natural language must have all of following EXCEPT: physical constraints. psychological constraints. a medium. a message.

3

The meaningful components of a language are collectively called: pragmatics. logistics. semantics. syntax.

4

Which of the following is NOT a principle of how speech sounds are mapped to properties of objects? nonredundancy of words regularization whole object reference

5

Children begin to find meaning beyond what is superficially expressed in sentences around the age of ______ months. 1–2 6–8 12 18–36

6

Which of the following is an example of holophrastic speech? someone yelling “Fire!” to get people out of a building an infant's first utterance of “dadada” a patient with Broca's aphasia describing a desk as “that … thing … book on top” a toddler saying “eated” instead of “ate”

7

The rules used to express tense or mood in a language are collectively called: syntax. lexicon. semantics.


semantics. pragmatics. 8

Compared to human language, animal communication appears to lack ______. syntactic rules meaning the ability to convey direction All of the answers are correct.

9

Although Lewis Carroll's poem Jabberwocky is mostly composed of nonsense words, people report having a sense of their meaning because the nonsense words: rhyme with real words. use familiar syntactic cues. are defined by the author. are real words with the letters scrambled.

10

Which of the following is a universally recognized media for language? writing reading gesture All of the answers are correct.

11

During the first 10 months of life, deaf infants: develop language at the same time as hearing infants. are about 3 months behind in language development compared to hearing infants. gesture, but do not babble. do not show any language capabilities.

12

Damage to the left hemisphere usually disrupts language ability for: hearing speakers only. deaf signers only. hearing speakers and deaf signers. neither hearing speakers nor deaf signers.

13

Almost all languages use ______ or ______ or both, but not all languages have ______. speech; writing; gestures gestures; writing; speech speech; gestures; writing None of the answers is correct.

14

Pragmatic rules help you know whether it's appropriate to: added to a past tense verb. ask your friend about his income. end a sentence with a preposition like in or with.


end a sentence with a preposition like in or with. use a colon or semi­colon. 15

Which animal is BEST known for its ability to master basic human language? dog dolphin parrot chimpanzee

16

It is unclear whether languages: exist in all cultures. have commonalities across cultures. originated from one or many sources. are represented similarly in the brains of all humans.

17

A Creole is a: fragmented language. language that originated in Hawaii. pidgin that has become a native language. nonnative language.

18

Which of the following structures help us form speech sounds? larynx teeth nasal cavity All of the answers are correct.

19

Understanding how we perceive individual phonemes is challenging because: speakers produce multiple phonemes almost at the same time. the separation between phonemes is barely perceptible. we often hear whole words as a single sound. All of the answers are correct.

20

Of the six possible arrangements of subject, object, and verb in a sentence, ______ of them are commonly used in languages around the world. two three four five

21

Which of the following is NOT a typical combination of subject (S), object (O), and (V) verb? VSO VOS


VOS SOV SVO 22

Humans first become sensitive to language: before birth. a few days after birth. by 3 months. by 10 months.

23

Infants can distinguish their mother's voice and language from those of others because they are sensitive to ______ during the third trimester. syntax prosody pragmatics semantics

24

The language spoken by the mother during pregnancy influences her child's: capacity to become bilingual. normal speech development. crying. accent.

25

With respect to turnabout interactions, mothers of deaf infants differ from mothers of hearing infants in that they: initiate the interactions. share the initiation of the interactions. let the child initiate the interactions. do not engage in this behavior.

26

A 3­year­old is MOST likely to be able to identify and correct the error in ______. juice your drink I wented home cook the car she spells good

27

The term poverty of the stimulus refers to the: misuse of grammatical rules that begins around age 4½. ability to generate language that has not been previously experienced. inability to match focal colors demonstrated by speakers of languages with few color terms. limited utility of pidgin languages.

28 During the first year of life, infants are sensitive to speech


During the first year of life, infants are sensitive to speech sounds of:

29

their mother's native language. their mother's native language and similar languages. any language they are exposed to regularly. any language. Which of the following developmental milestones appears first in Level 1 language development? front to back consonants vowel­like cooing frequent repetitions two­word phrases

30

Which of the following is NOT one of the seven basic linguistic functions identified by Slobin? refuse negate describe qualify

31

Which of the following utterances is an example of regularization? “All gone milk” “Doggie drink” “I ated cheeses” “ba ba ba ba”

32

An adult might use an erroneous verb form: because this information is still in long­term memory from childhood. while performing under pressure. in a situation that promotes old habits of speaking. All of the answers are correct.

33

Most dextrals have language areas located in the: left hemisphere. right hemisphere. occipital lobe. temporal lobe.

34

The Wada test allows us to evaluate the ______ by ______. location of language area lesions; asking a patient to describe a series of pictures location of language area lesions; using magnetic resonance imaging dominant hemisphere for language; stimulating individual neurons dominant hemisphere for language; anesthetizing one


dominant hemisphere for language; anesthetizing one hemisphere 35

With respect to language, the angular gyrus is primarily associated with ______. motor initiation of speech word categorization syntactic analysis semantic processing

36

The general term for a language impairment is: anomia ataxia aphasia anosognosia

37

Paroxysmal aphasia is often brought on by: epileptic seizure. Alzheimer's disease. stroke. birth defects.

38

For those who have suffered language disruption due to brain trauma, ______ recover fully, ______ recover some abilities with a great deal of effort, and ______ show almost no recovery. almost none; 1/2; 1/2 1/2; 1/4; 1/4 1/3; 1/3; 1/3 1/4; 1/2; 1/4

39

Dysarthria is associated with damage to the: connection between Broca's area and the motor cortex. connection between Wernicke's area and the auditory cortex. areas around the Sylvian fissure. angular gyrus.

40

When gestures function as linguistic signs, this information is processed by the ______. dominant language hemisphere non­dominant language hemisphere right hemisphere, regardless of an individual's dominant hemisphere motor cortex

41

The non­dominant hemisphere is particularly important for understanding a passage that ______. is written in simple language


is written in simple language does not have a clear theme has many unfamiliar words has a meaningful title 42

A hemispherectomy is a procedure in which ______. the connections between the left and right hemisphere are temporarily inactivated the connections between the left and right hemisphere are severed one hemisphere of the brain is temporarily inactivated one hemisphere of the brain is removed

43

______ refers to the brain's ability to make new connections after injury and preserve its function. Regenerativity Plasticity Lability Transitivity

44

A two­year­old who suffers complete damage to the language­dominant hemisphere will typically: have lifelong learning disorders. suffer irreversible damage. continue to develop normally without any immediate deficits. experience some setbacks in language development but ultimately recover.

45

Which of the following characterizes the deficits found in Wernicke's aphasia? difficulty executing the motor movements needed for speech effortful speech and poor comprehension fluent speech but poor comprehension inability to generate new sentences

46

A person with anomia is asked to name as many sports as she can. She will have the MOST understanding the task. retrieving different instances of the category. coordinating her muscles to form the words. remembering what she is supposed to be doing.

47

Which of the following would be MOST useful for a child's language development? playing with friends listening to the radio watching movies All of these activities are equally beneficial for language


All of these activities are equally beneficial for language acquisition. 48

Feral children provide psychologists with a unique source of information because these children: may not have developed language normally. demonstrate that language can be fully acquired at any age. never learn to speak. are exceptionally good communicators despite their lack of education.

49

Individuals with Down syndrome show: an absent or damaged second X chromosome. excellent conversation skills. mild to severe developmental delays. vertebral defects.

50

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of people with Williams syndrome? below­average IQ short stature poor communication skills difficulty navigating

51

Which of the following is characteristic of someone with Turner's syndrome? male normal language skills physically healthy excellent social skills

52

People with a specific language impairment (SLI) have normal intelligence but difficulty developing language. This condition appears to be caused by: problems with the second X chromosome. extra chromosomes. a lack of chromosomes. factors other than genetics.

53

Sapir and Whorf studied anthropologists' reports of Native American languages and hypothesized that: all languages share a similar structure. children could be taught any language as long as they were introduced to it in infancy. the number of words in your language for a particular concept is unrelated to its importance in your culture. the language you speak shapes your perceptions about the world.

54

The linguistic relativity hypothesis refers to the idea that:


54

The linguistic relativity hypothesis refers to the idea that: people who speak different languages share the same basic concepts. cognition is shaped by language. the words used to describe an object are not relevant to the way the object is understood. cultures understand each other without a shared communication system.

55

Any language that has at least two color terms will include words for: black and white. red and blue. green and brown. black and gray.


TestBanks Chapter 09: Web Quiz 1

Four­year­old Stacey visits the park and meets a dog named Shadow. She insists that this dog cannot be named Shadow, because that's the name of her dog at home. Which of the following principles offers an explanation for Stacey's confusion? whole object reference nonredundancy of words None of the answers is correct.

2

Syntax includes: rules for how sentences are put together. different types of gestures. rules about social constraints. All of the answers are correct.

3

In a(n) ______ system, a letter or symbol corresponds to a syllable of a spoken word; in a ______ system, a pictogram corresponds to a whole word or concept. alphabetic; phonological alphabetic; syllabary phonological; logographic syllabary; logographic

4

Phonemes are: the smallest meaningful units of language. individual sounds that make up words. words that sound alike. vowel sounds.

5

The sound of an infant's crying is ______. universally similar characterized by a quick rise in pitch followed by a slow decline characterized by a slow rise in pitch followed by a quick decline influenced by the mother's native language

6

All of the following are one of the seven early linguistic functions in children EXCEPT: locate. pretend. negate. demand.

7

People who are ______ are more likely than other people to


7

People who are ______ are more likely than other people to have language areas in the left and right hemispheres of their brain. verbally and mathematically gifted right handed left handed bilingual

8

A primary function of Broca's area is to: process auditory information. activate cortical motor areas. help understand the intent of a message. perform semantic analyses.

9

Anomia is thought to reflect difficulty with ______ rather than a ______ deficit. retrieval; memory loss recognition; language recognition; retrieval memory loss; language

10

A person with mosaic type Down syndrome has: a faulty 21st chromosome in all of his or her cells. the most common form of the syndrome. more severe symptoms than other Down syndrome children. less severe symptoms than other Down syndrome children.

11

An elementary school child with Williams syndrome has difficulty navigating the hallways of her school and following simple instructions in class. Her teachers may not be aware of her problems because she also: avoids communicating with others and keep to herself. communicates well with other children and relies on them for help. excels on homework and exams. has difficulty verbalizing her feelings.

12

In the matching­to­sample task, children and adults can match different samples of focal colors: if their native language has at least 5 color terms. if their native language has at least 11 color terms. if the color has a specific name in their language. even if their language lacks specific names for these colors.

13

Children use the same words as adults but do not always interpret them the same way. This observation ______ the linguistic relativity hypothesis.


linguistic relativity hypothesis. proves supports challenges is not relevant to 14

Emmorey, Klima, and Hickok (1998) found that ASL signers were better at a(n) ______ task than hearing nonsigners, which supports the hypothesis that language acquisition can influence broader cognitive skills. mental rotation paired­associate counterfactual reasoning implicit memory


TestBanks Chapter 10: Essay 1

Describe the motor theory of speech perception and how it accounts for the McGurk effect. Answer: This theory says that listeners mentally simulate the creation of speech sounds they hear in order to understand them. This process is helped by looking at the speaker's lips, which is called analysis by synthesis. The McGurk effect occurs when a person views a speaking face that is saying something different from what he or she is hearing. Because of this mismatched information, the viewer perceives hearing a sound that is not in the video or audio recording.

2

Describe how interaction models of speech perception account for our ability to understand a conversation that is being interrupted by background noise. Answer: Interaction models claim that speech perception requires the consideration of both linguistic and social elements. If we don't hear a part of a word, we can substitute a possible meaning based on the context of the sentence. Context constrains the way we interpret language, which allows us to infer additional information from what we are given.

3

Describe the progression of symptoms in primary progressive aphasia. Answer: Primary progressive aphasia (PPA) is characterized by a slow deterioration in language comprehension. The progression of symptoms mirrors the sequence in which we learn language. People with PPA first have difficulty with isolated words, then object names, and finally general comprehension. They are increasingly unable to understand others and ultimately lose the ability to speak.

4

Explain how someone could interpret and complete a sentence that starts with: After she took the right turn …. How do multiple interpretations affect people's sentence completions? Answer: The fragment could be referring to a turn to the right, or a turn in the correct direction. You would expect someone to take longer to finish a sentence that starts with an ambiguous prompt like this one, compared to something like: She turned to the right and…. Language processing is slowed when more meanings must be considered to


slowed when more meanings must be considered to interpret a sentence. 5

Describe the five universal cases, and provide an example of how a child learning to talk would use each. Answer: The five cases are (a) agent: animate instigator of an action; e.g., Mommy made a sandwich, (b) instrument: inanimate object that brings about an action; e.g., the shovel scoops sand, (c) patient: animate being that receives or is affected by an action; e.g., I threw the ball to her, (d) object: inanimate object that receives an action; e.g., we built the sand castle, and (e) locative: provides the location of an action; e.g., we played at the beach.

6

Describe three different speech acts and provide an example of each. Answer: The five speech acts are (a) representative: expresses speaker's beliefs; e.g., I wonder if it will rain, (b) directive: gets the listener to do something; e.g., Will you get my umbrella? (c) commissive: makes a commitment to listener; e.g., I promise I will pick you up, (d) expressive: expresses psychological state; e.g., I am thrilled you will be joining us, and (e) declarative: brings about the state of affairs it describes; e.g., You are dismissed.

7

What is the cooperative principle and what are its four maxims? Answer: The cooperative principle assumes that the speaker and listener are trying to communicate efficiently, so several assumptions are made to avoid ambiguity. The four maxims are (a) quantity: the communication is sufficiently but not overly informative, (b) quality: speaker believes the information is valid, (c) relation: the information is relevant to the communication, and (d) manner: the information is clear and concise.

8

Explain how Path 1 and Path 2 are used in the reading process. Answer: When a person reads, the visual information is encoded into working memory. Path 1 (indirect access) recodes this information into speech sounds, and Path 2 (direct access) relies on lexical access. Semantic and contextual information from long­term memory is used to make sense of the information in working memory.


9

Briefly describe the type of semantic, visual, syntactic, and phonetic challenges experienced by someone with acquired dyslexia. Answer: A person who suffers from acquired dyslexia tends to have the following types of difficulties: (a) semantic: substitutes words with similar meanings, (b) visual: substitutes words with similar letters, (c) syntactic: alters syntax such as omitting function words, and (d) phonetic: skips pronounceable nonwords.

10

Define the direct and indirect access hypotheses, and explain how each is useful for language instruction. Answer: The direct access hypothesis claims that people extract meaning from whole words, whereas the indirect hypotheses places more emphasis on how individual phonemes convey meaning. The direct access approach emphasizes rote learning of words, which helps children remember irregular words and grammatical forms. The indirect access approach is particularly useful when children are presented with a new word, because they are better equipped to pronounce it and break it down into meaningful constituents.

11

How is reading span measured, and how is this different from a simple working memory capacity test? What skills are associated with high reading span? Answer: Reading span is measured by having people remember the last word of each sentence they read. This measure is a better predictor of reading comprehension scores than simple working memory measures. High reading span is associated with better retention of contextual elements and interpretation of ambiguous words. People with high reading span are better able to understand complex sentences and do so more quickly.

12

How do the eye movements of a skilled reader differ from those of a poor reader? In your answer, define saccades and regressions. Answer: Saccades are eye movements (“jumps”) from place to place, whereas regressions are eye movements back to previously viewed material. Skilled readers make larger saccades, fixate on words for shorter periods of time, and make fewer regressions.


False 1

The McGurk effect explains why a person might report hearing the sound da while viewing a video of a person saying ga and listening to a soundtrack of ba sounds. True False

2

The TRACE model claims that speech perception is a serial process, whereas the cohort model describes it as a parallel process. True False

3

The fuzzy logic model states that we identify, evaluate, integrate, and assess speech in order to recognize its message. True False

4

A word can have a generally agreed­on denotation as well as several different personal connotations. True False

5

After viewing the phrase soda can, a person is more likely to remember having seen soda when later cued with baking soda rather than soda fountain. True False

6

Some comedians create humor by misleading listeners and then surprising them with a punchline that reveals an alternate interpretation of what they said. True False

7

The utilization process is the first step of language understanding and requires a listener to use the information embedded in a message productively. True False


8

The cooperative principle assumes that the speaker will provide sufficient information to convey a truthful message. True False

9

In the statement “Your sister is coming home from camp today,” the information you have a sister is given and the announcement of her arrival is new information. True False

10

People read temporal sequences more quickly than causal sequences. True False

11

Speech recoding involves the translation of graphemic features into subvocal speech. True False

12

The Auditory Analysis Test evaluates a person's ability to sound out the individual phonemes that make up different words. True False

13

Speech recoding is essential for reading comprehension in deaf and hearing children. True False

14

The dual route hypothesis claims that readers can use both speech and visual access for reading comprehension. True False

15 Skilled readers make smaller saccades and longer fixations


Skilled readers make smaller saccades and longer fixations than less­skilled readers. True False


TestBanks Chapter 10: Web Quiz 1

If we only used acoustic analysis for speech comprehension, we would experience: still communicate normally. only have difficulty understanding abstract material. experience word deafness. None of the answers is correct.

2

The cohort model claims that to comprehend speech, we: detect sounds and identify the appropriate meanings of words based on context. compare what we hear to a number of stored prototypes in long­term memory. mentally simulate making the same speech sounds. None of the answers is correct.

3

People who suffer from primary progressive aphasia: are helped by behavioral intervention. are not helped by medication. decline rapidly in their cognitive abilities once symptoms are present. do not show a predictable pattern of cognitive decline.

4

A lexicon is a: fragmented language. universal set of concepts in all languages. the arrangement of subject, object, and verb in a sentence. mental dictionary.

5

A sentence that begins with an ambiguous fragment takes longer to complete than a sentence with an unambiguous fragment because the former: takes longer to read. allows for multiple interpretations. loads down language processing. All of the answers are correct.

6

A three­year­old who knows her age responds to the question “Can you tell me how old you are?” with a simple “Yes.” With respect to the utilization process, the child probably answered this way because she: does not know how to count yet. is too shy to talk to strangers. did not understand the speaker's intent. is already competent with numbers.


7

You are in the wilderness with your hiking club when you hear your group leader shout in the distance, “Help! Quick! I need some towels over here!” Based on the reality principle, which of the following is a likely interpretation of your group leader's exclamation? She wants to go for a swim. She is injured and bleeding. She has fallen in a stream and wants to dry off. She has forgotten to take her toiletries with her.

8

When deciding what a sentence is about, people focus on ______ information. When deciding whether a sentence is true, people focus on ______ information. given; given new; new new; given given; new

9

The bridging process is MOST important to which of the following? resolving unclear requests making convincing arguments learning a new language applying grammatical rules

10

Given that people typically remember the gist of a message, which of the following is MOST likely to be confused with the statement: “The girl is in the front yard.” The dog is in the backyard. The boy is sitting with the girl. The house has a front yard. The girl is not in the backyard.

11

Two groups of people read the same description of a tropical island, but one was told that the story was written by a travel agent, while the other was told it was written by an anthropologist. You would predict that compared to the people in the anthropologist condition, people in the travel agent condition would remember: more details about the island overall. fewer details about the island overall. more details about the island's amenities than its history. more details about the island's history than its amenities.

12

According to the U.S. Department of Education, ______ of North American adults have difficulty understanding package labels. 10% 40% 75% 90%


13

Women are more likely than men to have: language processing localized in one hemisphere. significant, long­term impairment after a stroke. both hemispheres engaged during semantic processing. difficulty compensating for dyslexia.

14

Sight vocabulary increases substantially from ages: 1–3. 5–8. 10–12. 15–17.

15

Reading span is measured by asking people to: read a passage and answer questions. recall as many details from a narrative as they can. evaluate increasingly difficult narratives. remember the final words in a series of sentences.


TestBanks Chapter 10: Multiple Choice 1

In the last two months of gestation, fetuses: can learn to pair sound and relaxation. can learn but will not retain this information after birth. are unresponsive to sound. are not startled by loud sounds.

2

We are typically good at identifying the words in sentences: when there are very brief pauses between words. when there is music in the background. whether a person has a low­ or high­pitched voice. All of the answers are correct.

3

According to the motor theory of speech perception, listeners can identify the words they hear by: acting them out with gestures. mentally simulating their production. repeating them out loud. comparing them to prototypical forms of speech.

4

People with dysarthria can perceive speech even though they CANNOT: speak. hear. move. see.

5

Interaction models state that people perform speech recognition by evaluating the ______ of the message. content and prosody familiar and unfamiliar content linguistic and social elements speaker's lip movements during the delivery

6

Which of the following models of speech recognition assumes that people store prototypical speech sounds in long­term memory? cohort model motor theory TRACE model fuzzy logic

7

In the integration stage of the fuzzy logic model, the listener: estimates to what extent the prototype matches the input. identifies the relevant features of the sound.


identifies the relevant features of the sound. compares the sound with prototypical syllables. assesses the best­fitting match between the signal and the candidate. 8

Primary progressive aphasia is associated with all of the following EXCEPT: slow deterioration in language ability. general intellectual decline. eventual inability to talk. difficulty understanding sign language.

9

Conduction aphasia is characterized by ______. difficulty repeating sentences poor comprehension damage to the occipital cortex inability to speak other than repeating what is heard

10

The arcuate fasciculus and the left auditory cortex are implicated in: primary progressive aphasia. conduction aphasia. pure word deafness. Broca's aphasia.

11

Although there may be a generally accepted ______ of a word, a word may have several different personal ______. connotation; denotations connotation; selection restrictions denotation; connotations denotation; selection restrictions

12

The server at the coffee shop asks you, “How much room for cream do you want?” and “How many sugar packets would you like?” Conditions under which we use much or many are examples of: ambiguity. universal cases. different words with the same meaning. selection restrictions.

13

You would be most likely to recall having seen the word skateboard if prompted with the cue: school board surfboard cardboard motherboard

14

Listeners can access multiple meanings of ambiguous words and retain them in working memory for about ______. 3 msec


3 msec 300 msec 3 minutes 3 hours 15

When we hear an ambiguous clause at the beginning of a sentence, we commit to a particular interpretation of its content ______. as we read each word at the clause boundary after the end of the sentence at the end of the paragraph

16

A universal set of concepts that is expressed in the sentences of all languages is called: lexicon. maxim. given­new contract. case grammar.

17

A student listened to the sentence “The plumber tightened the fitting” but incorrectly identifies “The plumber tightened the fitting with a wrench” as the sentence he heard. This type of error is an example of filling in a(n) ______ case when it is not provided. patient object instrument agent

18

The utilization process refers to the fact that the listener is supposed to ______ the speaker's message. ignore repeat use tell someone else

19

“Will you throw this away?” is an example of a ______ speech act. directive representative declarative expressive

20

Which of the following is an example of a commissive speech act? “I think it's going to be sunny tomorrow.” “I am pleased that I don't have any homework.” “I will walk your dog while you are out of town.” “I pronounce you husband and wife.”

21 The ______ principle refers to the listener's assumption


The ______ principle refers to the listener's assumption that the speaker is referring to a real or possible situation.

22

validity honesty reality truthfulness The reality principle helps us: follow Grice's maxims. determine whether people are telling the truth. fill in the missing parts of a message based on context. None of the answers is correct.

23

The store owner heard a loud crash and saw a boy run across the parking lot. She later told the police she saw the boy break her window with a brick. The store owner is violating Grice's principle of ______. quality relation manner quantity

24

According to the principle of quantity, you would assume that the statement “Claire tried to run the marathon” implies she: did not finish the race. was successful. was only able to run during the first part of the marathon. is an accomplished athlete.

25

The teacher says to her assistant, “Alex will be late today.” The assistant's knowledge that Alex is scheduled to work is ______ information, and the time of his arrival is ______ information. given; given given; new new; given new; new

26

When deciding ______, people focus on the ______ information. what a sentence is about; given what a sentence is about; new whether a sentence is true; given None of the answers is correct.

27

______ is the process of linking the speaker's words to his or her intended meaning. Bridging Recoding Case grammar


Case grammar Phonemic awareness 28

Bransford and Johnson (1972) asked students to read an ambiguous paragraph and write down what they were able to remember. Students who were given ______ remembered about twice as much. the topic of the paragraph one sentence at a time extra study time extra reading time

29

Knowing the topic of a paragraph in advance helps: create a structure for the information. activate knowledge from long­term memory. integrate knowledge to be used for retrieval cues. All of the answers are correct.

30

Graphemic encoding refers to the processing of ______. visual characters phonemes meaning ambiguous words

31

The translation of visual characters into subvocal speech is called ______ recoding. visual speech auditory graphemic

32

The Auditory Analysis Test is one way to test a child's: sensitivity to sounds. pronunciation skills. listening comprehension skills. ability to follow directions.

33

Women tend to have ______ representation for language in the brain and are therefore ______ than men to have significant language impairments following a stroke. unilateral; more likely unilateral; less likely bilateral; more likely bilateral; less likely

34

People who read silently to themselves:

have heightened electrical activity in the muscles


have heightened electrical activity in the muscles associated with speaking. may miss spelling errors that omit silent letters. can detect errors that are phonetically incompatible with the intended meaning. All of the answers are correct. 35

______ provided the first evidence for the possibility of reading based on direct visual access. Stroke patients Deaf people People with dyslexia People with learning disorders

36

______ is associated with acquired dyslexia. Substituting semantically related words while reading The inability to pronounce nonwords Damage to Broca's area None of the above is true.

37

People with pure alexia can ______ and ______ but have difficulty ______. read; spell; writing read; write; spelling write; spell; reading talk; read; writing

38

People with word blindness show that phonemic awareness ______ word recognition. relies on the same brain areas as is inseparable from can be independent of is sufficient for

39

Which of the following is an example of a semantic error made by someone with acquired dyslexia? sees slipper and says sandal cannot say blex sees quirk and says quilt leaves out the when reading I went to the car

40

The ______ hypothesis claims that readers can use direct or indirect access. speech recording dual route multiple access utilization

41

The indirect access hypothesis emphasizes ______ processing.


bottom­up top­down visual context­based 42

Students taught according to the indirect access hypothesis do all of the following EXCEPT: sound out words. learn consonant blends. have rigidly sequenced phonics instruction. memorize words with unusual spelling.

43

Which instructional strategy BEST illustrates a direct access approach to language learning? sounding out unfamiliar words studying words on flashcards with pictures asking students to break up words into phonemes studying letter­sound correspondences

44

According to Chall's reading instruction system, children at Stage 0 should be introduced to reading with a ______ approach. whole­word phonics bottom­up All of the answers are correct.

45

Poor readers and normal readers are equally good at copying ______ , but poor readers do not do as well copying ______. real words; nonwords real words; shapes shapes; nonwords shapes; real words

46

Poor or dyslexic readers may have difficulties with ______ compared to normal readers. overall perceptual processing working memory resources spatial processing visual processing

47

Daneman and Carpenter (1980) assessed reading span by asking students to remember: the last word of each sentence they read. a series of word pairs. specific details from a narrative. a list of letters.

48

People with high reading spans: interpret ambiguous words early in the reading process.


interpret ambiguous words early in the reading process. take longer to understand complex sentences. have difficulty understanding complex sentences. keep their interpretations open until additional information is available. 49

Children with dyslexia are typically ______ behind in ______ performance. six months; reading six months; school two or more years; reading two or more years; school

50

Which of the following distinguishes people with dyslexia from people who are poor readers? Poor readers have randomly aligned ectopia. Poor readers show significantly more brain activation in Broca's area while performing a reading task. People with dyslexia frequently have a parent or sibling who is also affected. People with dyslexia have reading abilities that do not reflect their IQ scores.

51

The eye makes movements called ______ to bring images to the fovea. saccades switches jumps digressions

52

Compared to more skilled readers, all of the following are true of poor readers EXCEPT that: they take longer to read the ends of sentences. they take longer to fixate difficult words. they commit to an interpretation of text too early. they make more pronunciation errors.

53

With respect to reading comprehension, students who are low achievers on verbal measures perform more like students who are high achievers when they are given: a private testing room. twice as much time to complete the test. interesting and familiar subject matter. fiction rather than non­fiction passages.

54

When tested on a subject they are knowledgeable about, low verbal aptitude students: are better at discussing what they remembered. are better at understanding passages. can perform as well as high verbal aptitude students. All of the answers are correct.


All of the answers are correct.


TestBanks Chapter 11: Essay 1

Define routine and nonroutine problem solving, and provide an example of each from your everyday life. Answer: Routine problem solving is used when someone can rely on prior knowledge or experience to make a decision. Finding the shortest route somewhere on a map is a straightforward task because all of the relevant information is given. A physicist has a repertoire of formulas that can be applied to various conditions. Nonroutine problem solving is used when an appropriate strategy is not clear, so a person pursues reasonable solutions that might be successful. For example, there are many different ways to choose a college major and no guaranteed way to make a correct choice. Some people take a variety of courses to make a decision, or they may ask friends, family, and counselors for advice.

2

Describe Duncker's monk problem. Are people typically successful at finding the solution? Why or why not? Answer: Duncker's problem describes a monk who makes a journey to and from a destination on two separate days. He begins each trip at the same time in the morning. The task is to decide whether he is at the same location on the path at the same time on both days. Most people find this problem very challenging because they impose unnecessary constraints on the problem and represent the relations in a restricted way. They tend to focus on the lack of information regarding distance and time, which is unnecessary for solving the problem. They should simply imagine the monk's trajectories as overlapping graphs to see there must be a point of intersection.

3

Define well­defined and ill­defined problems. Provide an example of each that is a familiar game or puzzle, and explain why the activity meets the criteria for that type of problem. Answer: Well­defined problems have clear goals, all relevant information, and have a definite solution. For example, a crossword puzzle only has one set of solutions, and the arrangement of answers is constrained by the layout of the spaces. In contrast, ill­defined problems do not have a definite goal, solution process, or outcome. For games like charades or Pictionary (games in which the objective is to guess what someone is acting out or drawing), a person invents a novel way to express a concept without using language, in order for his teammates to guess what it is.


language, in order for his teammates to guess what it is. There is no definite way to do this, so the actor must be inventive and the players must be creative in their interpretations. 4

Describe two versions of the trolley problem and how people typically respond to these dilemmas. Why do people choose these solutions? Answer: In the trolley problem, people are asked whether they would sacrifice one person for the sake of five others stranded on a track. One presentation is impersonal: The reasoner is asked to whether he would like to flip a switch to divert the trolley to an alternate track where the single person is stranded. People almost always choose to flip the switch and sacrifice the one person for the sake of the other five. However, the other presentation is personal: The reasoner is asked whether he would push a large stranger onto the track to stop the trolley. In this case, very few people want to sacrifice the individual by directly causing his demise. Even though these scenarios have the same undesirable outcome, people are more reluctant to cause harm if they feel as if they are directly causing it.

5

Define framing, and explain how it could be used in advertising and marketing. Provide two examples, and explain how each could influence someone's behavior. Answer: Framing refers to the way in which a problem is represented. A problem with the same underlying information can be expressed in various ways, e.g., ground beef can be called 75% fat or 25% lean. Framing can be used to portray something in a positive light to increase sales. Stores prefer to advertise “Buy One Get One Free” as opposed to “Two Items for 25% off” because the word free is attractive to consumers looking for a good buy. Alternately, framing can make a competitor's product look inferior. Pointing out that a competing product has a 2% greater risk of failure makes that product seem less valuable, even if the actual difference in quality is negligible.

6

Describe Duncker's tumor problem. How successful are people at finding the correct solution? Describe one experimental manipulation that provided problem solvers with additional information, and explain whether it improved people's success. Answer: Duncker's tumor problem poses a situation in which a man has a tumor that can be destroyed with a ray. However, a ray of sufficient strength to destroy the tumor would harm his healthy tissue as it passed through his body. Very few


his healthy tissue as it passed through his body. Very few people (typically less than 10%) find the correct solution: Multiple rays must be passed through his body so that they only converge in the area of the tumor. Students who read an analogous passage about a fortress only improve success marginally. Summarizing the principle and drawing a picture did not help students either. However, students' success improved dramatically when they were explicitly told to apply the information from the fortress story to the tumor problem. 7

Describe how matchstick problems are set up and the task that participants are ask to complete. How does this task involve insight and creativity? Answer: In this task, matches are arranged to form Roman numerals. The matches are arranged so that they show an incorrect arithmetic expression, and participants are asked to move only one match to fix the error. The strategies and solutions in this task are not clear, so people must think of novel ways to manipulate the array. People experience insight into these problems, as they often report that the solutions come to them all at once.

8

Duncker (1945) tested functional fixedness by asking people how they would construct a candle holder made out of a corkboard, matchbook, and a box of tacks. Describe research that manipulated people's moods before they solved this problem and whether it influenced their accuracy. How could positive mood influence performance? Answer: Isen et al (1987) showed students a comedy (positive mood) or math lesson (neutral mood) video before solving the problem. Only about 20% of the neutral group was able to solve it after 10 minutes, whereas 75% of the positive mood group answered it correctly. Positive mood seems to increase cognitive flexibility and the number of elements a problem solver can consider; these skills can help with insight.

9

Describe the three components of the dopaminergic theory of positive affect (DTPA). Answer: (a) dopamine and its associated circuitry is especially active during positive moods; (b) dopamine is critical to prefrontal cortex activity, which is related to working memory; (c) the relationship among dopamine, the prefrontal cortex, and the anterior cingulate cortex facilitates cognitive flexibility.

10 What does Wason's 2­4­6 task test? Provide some


What does Wason's 2­4­6 task test? Provide some examples of how people typically respond and explain how this pattern of reasoning illustrates confirmation bias. Answer: Wason's 2­4­6 task asks people to find a rule that governs three numbers. They generate additional triplets of numbers to find out whether their hypotheses are correct. People typically focus only on confirming their hypotheses (e.g., if they believe the numbers must be ascending, they will test 1­3­5 and 1­100­1,000). This strategy does not allow them to falsify (and thus potentially disconfirm) the rule. This tendency illustrates confirmation bias because it shows people select information that supports rather than contradicts their opinions. 11

Describe either the Tower of Hanoi or the Hobbits and Orcs problem. Describe a hill­climbing strategy and explain why this approach hinders people from finding the correct solution to the problems. Answer: (a) Tower of Hanoi: Disks of increasing size on pegs (e.g., 3 disks and 3 pegs) are to be rearranged according to problem constraints: The disks can only be moved one at a time and cannot be placed on top of a smaller disk: (b) Hobbits and Orcs: Three Hobbits and three Orcs must cross a river in a boat, but only three can cross at a time and Orcs can never outnumber the Hobbits. In both problems, items or creatures must be moved back to where they were before in order to make progress toward the correct solution. People using a hill­climbing strategy try to move toward their goal without making any regressions. This strategy is not appropriate for this type of problem, because people must backtrack in order to solve it correctly.

12

Describe how a substantial frontal lobe injury impairs cognitive abilities related to problem solving. Explain why a person with this type of injury would have difficulty solving a problem like the Tower of Hanoi or the Hobbits and Orcs. Provide an example of an everyday problem that would also pose a challenge for someone with frontal lobe injury. Answer: Damage to the frontal lobe can severely impair planning ability. These sorts of problems that require regressions are especially difficult for those with frontal lobe injuries, because having this sort of insight requires a person to think at least a few steps ahead. A person with frontal lobe injury and planning deficits would have problems maintaining a schedule, completing tasks on time, and performing complex problem solving.


False 1

A problem exists when there is a difference between one's current state and the goal state. True False

2

Problem solving begins with the goal state. True False

3

Changing your representation of a problem can help you find a solution. True False

4

Ill­defined problems are always abstract. True False

5

Ill­defined problems are sometimes challenging because the problem solver invents constraints that interfere with finding a solution. True False

6

Negative emotion enhances basic cognitive processes. True False

7

When closed domain knowledge is fragmentary, we can use analogies to draw a reasonable inference based on what we know. True False


8

Insight in problem solving sometimes requires a change in problem representation. True False

9

The two­string problem is a test of creativity. True False

10

Emotion does not promote creativity in problem solving. True False

11

Disconfirming a hypothesis means that you are trying to falsify it or prove it incorrect. True False

12

In the 2­4­6 task, people are given a set of three numbers and asked to find the rule that governs them by testing additional sets of numbers. People usually test combinations that confirm their hypotheses. True False

13

People use a counterfactual strategy by testing an alternate explanation that is compatible with their original hypothesis. True False

14

A flowchart diagram called a problem solution graph can be used to track the solution process used by students on the Hobbits and Orcs problem. True False

15 The ability to plan ahead is more important for solving well­


The ability to plan ahead is more important for solving well­ defined problems than it is for solving ill­defined problems. True False


TestBanks Chapter 11: Multiple Choice 1

In problem solving, the ______ state is the starting point and the ______ state is the desired condition. primary; secondary current; goal initial; final illumination; integration

2

A representation of a problem includes: the facts it specifies. the questions it asks. methods that can be used to solve it. All of the answers are correct.

3

Taking a break while thinking about a difficult problem is called ______, and it can substantially increase solution rates. deliberation marination incubation rumination

4

Duncker gave people a problem about a monk who traveled to and from a destination along the same path. When asked to determine whether the monk is at the same place at the same time on both days, many people ask about ______, even though this information is not needed to solve the problem. his rate of travel his physical stamina the weather conditions None of the answers is correct.

5

______ percent of students are confident in the correct solution for Duncker's monk problem. Less than 10 Twenty­five Fifty Ninety to ninety­five

6

Which of the following is the BEST example of changing a problem representation? calculating the fuel efficiency of your car drawing a spatial diagram of a word problem applying rules of algebra to solve equations creating a rhyme to remember vocabulary words

7

Cryptarithmetic requires people to:


8

find the formula that defines a sequence of numbers. decode a message by assigning numbers to letters. solve arithmetic problems while remembering words. test hypotheses about the relationship between numbers. Using tables to solve truth­teller/liar problems is useful because this method: alleviates working memory resources. organizes a large amount of information. keeps track of which hypotheses have been tested. All of the answers are correct.

9

Which of the following is the BEST example of a well­ defined problem for a medical professional? telling a family their loved one has passed away measuring a person's blood pressure discovering his or her personal talents finding better treatments for cancer

10

Given the choice to (a) allow five people to be hit by a trolley or (b) flip a switch to divert the trolley and hit one person, people typically choose: (a). (b). (a) and (b) equally often. neither solution: they are undecided or refuse to answer.

11

Given the choice to (a) allow five people to be hit by a trolley or (b) push a large man onto the track to stop the trolley, people typically choose: (a). (b). (a) and (b) equally often. refuse to choose.

12

Most people would rather not directly push a person onto trolley tracks in order to save five other people. However, people are more willing to push the person to save the others in this situation if they ______ before solving the problem. watch comedy clips talk about a personal tragedy are angered by the experimenter are given a memory task

13

When considering impersonal dilemmas, people show more activity in the ______ and parietal areas: these areas are associated with working memory. ventromedial prefrontal cortex medial frontal gyrus


medial frontal gyrus posterior cingulate gyrus None of the answers is correct. 14

The ability to monitor whether problem solving is progressing correctly is called ______. metacognition framing hill climbing satisficing

15

Ill­defined problems require a third level of skill called ______, which reflects the problem solver's evaluation of whether she has represented the problem correctly and is using the right methods to solve it. analogical reasoning epistemic monitoring routine problem solving counterfactual reasoning

16

People can use analogical reasoning to: solve well­defined problems. employ their long­term memories in an unfamiliar situation. compare the current situation to previous experiences. All of the answers are correct.

17

Although using analogies can be useful for solving problems, this strategy: rarely provides the best answer. can be misleading. is limited to personal decision making. is limited to scientific domains.

18

A man has a tumor in his body, and a ray sufficiently strong enough to destroy it would harm his healthy tissue. When students are asked to figure out how else the tumor can be treated, they ______ answer this problem correctly. never rarely frequently always

19

A man has a tumor in his body, and a ray sufficiently strong enough to destroy it would harm his healthy tissue. Students must figure out another way the tumor can be treated. If they are given a story about a fortress with an analogous solution, they are better at solving the tumor problem: under all conditions. only if they are explicitly told to apply the information


only if they are explicitly told to apply the information from the story. only if they are drawn a picture of the story. None of the answers is correct. 20

Students don't always apply appropriate analogies even if they have used them successfully before. It is important for teachers to keep this is mind because students: are not capable of learning by example alone. may need to be prompted to use a specific strategy. should not be given more than one example of a concept or else they will be confused. All of the answers are correct.

21

Problems that involve a specific set of facts are said to be in a(n) ______ domain. absolute closed complete restricted

22

When we suddenly perceive the solution to a problem, we experience ______, which is described as an aha! experience. insight enlightenment clarity discovery

23

When we experience insight, our solution can be: useful. unusual. creative. All of the answers are correct.

24

Knoblich et al (2004) used matchsticks to express invalid math formulas in terms of Roman numericals (e.g., I – I = III). They asked people to move only matchstick to correct the problem. According to their results, which of the following should be easiest for people to solve? changing III to II changing + to = changing X to V All of these solutions are equally difficult.

25

Two pieces of rope hang from the ceiling and are too far apart for someone to hold both at the same time. A research participant is asked to join the two ropes and is provided with various tools and pieces of furniture to help. This task is a test of: creativity. insight.


insight. problem solving. All of the answers are correct. 26

During the illumination stage of problem solving, people: think about the requirements of the problem. unconsciously process important information. become consciously aware of what has been unconsciously processed. verify new information with the problem.

27

A person's mood can by elevated by: watching comedy bloopers. sniffing a pleasant fragrance. receiving candy before completing a task. All of the answers are correct.

28

Positive mood has been positively associated with all of the following EXCEPT: successful problem solving. functional fixedness. increased cognitive resources. cognitive flexibility.

29

______ and its associated brain circuitry is especially active when people experience a positive mood. Norepinephrine Epinephrine Dopamine Serotonin

30

Cognitive flexibility requires ______ and attention­ switching resources. working memory spatial ability language skills perceptual discrimination

31

A mother points out a white bird to her child and tells him it is a swan. The boy points out several more white birds on the lake and asks his mother if they are all swans. She says, “Yes,” so he concludes that all swans must be white. Why is the boy's hypothesis testing incomplete? There may be white birds other than swans on the lake. There may be black birds on the lake that are swans. He didn't ask about a large enough number of birds. He doesn't know whether his mother told him the truth.


32

Another student in the class states that all health care providers can write prescriptions, and you respond by saying that most psychologists cannot prescribe drugs. You are using a ______ strategy to argue against your classmate's statement. disconfirmation depth­first breadth­first counterfactual

33

According to Platt (1964) and Wharton, Cheng, and Wickens (1993), Scientists tend to use a two­pronged approach to evaluate their hypotheses: They seek out confirmatory information and: disconfirming hypotheses. competing hypotheses. alternative explanations for their past research. data that contradicts their assumptions.

34

Compared to university students, scientists are ______ accurate at the 2­4­6 task. more equally less This comparison has not been tested.

35

A counterfactual strategy is similar to a disconfirmation strategy EXCEPT: for the underlying assumption. people assume their original hypothesis is correct. there are only three steps instead of four. people do not look for contradictory information.

36

During the twentieth century, psychologists interested in ______ principles put forth some important ideas about how people mentally represent problems. humanist behaviorist Gestalt Freudian

37

Computer simulations of human thinking are primarily used to: calculate the optimal solutions to a problem. mimic human behavior and decision making. reveal the best strategies for solving a particular problem. All of the answers are correct.

38

Which area of study provided metaphors that are commonly used in cognitive psychology? chemistry


chemistry anthropology computer science physics 39

The first computer program that impacted cognitive psychology simulated how people: play chess. reason inductively. mentally represent problems. prove math theorems.

40

The sum of all relevant information and interpretations useful for solving a problem is called ______ space. reference problem knowledge domain

41

The Tower of Hanoi problem asks people to: rearrange pegs on disks. consider the relative location of a monk over two days. move two groups across a river in a boat. decide whether one person should be sacrificed to save the lives of five others.

42

Techniques that allow you to move from one state of affairs to another in problem solving are called: operators. activators. motivators. None of the answers is correct.

43

A breadth­first strategy is used when the problem solver: uses general information given in the problem to derive specific conclusions. investigates the most promising solutions before moving onto less promising ones. explores all of the main possibilities first. exhausts all of the information in a category before exploring the next option.

44

A runner is struggling to finish a marathon. Which of the following is the BEST example of a hill­climbing strategy to finish the race? She continues toward the finish line no matter how slowly she progresses. She goes back to the last rest stop to see a medic. She decides to run one block at a time and take a short


She decides to run one block at a time and take a short break at each intersection. She takes a detour that is longer than the recommended path but less steep. 45

Regarding the Hobbits and Orcs problem, Thomas (1974), people tend to have the MOST understanding the goal of the problem. creating a physical representation of the problem. reversing their previous moves. keeping track of the relative numbers of Hobbits and Orcs.

46

The problem­solving strategy that relies upon forming and accomplishing subgoals is called ______ analysis. incremental means­ends sequential stepwise

47

The amount of time it takes to solve a problem is ______ related to the number of subgoals a person creates. positively negatively not This relationship has not been investigated.

48

Which of the following is a step in means­end analysis? Recognize the difference between current and goal states. Apply an operator. Reduce differences between current and goal states. All of the answers are correct.

49

You need to buy a new suit to wear to an interview. Which of the following is the BEST example of a satisficing strategy? You go to your favorite store and pick the nicest­looking suit on the sale rack. You let your mother buy the suit for you even though you dislike her fashion choices. You go to all of the local stores looking for the lowest price on a suit you've been hoping to buy. You buy a suit you like but decide to return it for something better the next day.

50

Under which condition is it MOST likely for problem solvers to use a satisficing strategy? A decision must be made very quickly. They are expert in that domain of knowledge. It is critically important to find an optimal decision.


It is critically important to find an optimal decision. They feel as if all possible options must be considered. 51

People who are satisficers tend to have better overall ______ than people who are optimizers. emotional control decision outcomes reasoning ability cognitive skills

52

Phineas Gage probably suffered planning deficits because of damage to his ______ lobe. temporal parietal occipital frontal

53

People with frontal lobe damage have particular difficulty with the Tower of Hanoi problem because finding its solution: involves emotional judgment. requires intact language ability. conflicts with a hill­climbing strategy. requires sustained attention.

54

A person with significant frontal lobe damage is likely to have difficulty with: arranging an office to maximize the use of space. paying bills on time. cooking a large meal. All of the answers are correct.

55

Which of the following is NOT a component of the general problem solver? parallel processing heuristics limited­capacity storage long­term retrieval

56

The general problem solver includes libraries of condition– action pairs known as ______ systems. feedback production reference contingency

57

The ACT­R theory states that productions are used to: bring forth information from long­term memory. change the current goal. call for a motor response. All of the answers are correct.


All of the answers are correct.


TestBanks Chapter 11: Web Quiz 1

Even though Andy had struggled all day to fix the kitchen sink, Alex was able to quickly and easily clear the blockage. For Alex, an experienced plumber, this task is an example of ______ problem solving. systematic routine insight counterfactual

2

A well­defined problem is characterized by all the following EXCEPT: clear goals. relevant information. an unspecified solution. an obvious ending.

3

Most people would choose to flip a switch to divert a trolley to injure one person rather than not take action and let five people get hurt. In this situation, people are probably willing to sacrifice one person because they are performing ______ reasoning. personal impersonal immoral well­defined

4

College students reported they would be more likely to use condoms that were described as having high efficacy rather than low failure, when the two are equally risky. Students choose differently in these two situations because of ______ effects. skewing framing insight disconfirmation

5

Which of the following is NOT an example of analogical reasoning? applying a math formula to a new word problem using computer terminology to describe communication in the brain thinking about what you would have done yesterday if you had taken the day off describing clouds as if they were different kinds of animals

6

Which of the following is NOT an example of problem solving in a closed domain? studying for a geography test formulating scientific hypotheses


formulating scientific hypotheses solving a jigsaw puzzle finding the shortest route to school 7

While a large wildfire burned nearby, local residents used umbrellas to avoid getting covered in ash when they went outside. These people found a novel use for something they already owned and thus overcame ______. confirmation bias semantic satiation functional fixedness epistemic monitoring

8

According to Wallas (1986), a problem solver's mind unconsciously activates the problem elements and past solutions during the ______ stage. illumination incubation verification preparation

9

Dopamine is critical for activity in the ______, an area that plays a central role in human working memory. angular gyrus prefrontal cortex cerebellum corpus callosum

10

The tendency to only seek out information that supports your hypothesis is called ______ bias. confirmation validity reinforcement certainty

11

Students who were given a more realistic version of the 2­ 4­6 problem answer similarly to those given the more abstract task. Successful solvers tend to generate ______, whereas unsuccessful solvers generate______. tests only; hypotheses only tests only; hypotheses and tests hypotheses and tests; hypotheses only hypotheses and tests; tests only

12

A couple is making a list of their favorite baby names in anticipation of their daughter's birth. Which of the following is an example of a depth­first strategy for choosing a name? looking through the most popular names of the year thinking of famous female authors throughout history reading through all of the names in a baby book letter by letter writing down the names of immediate family members


writing down the names of immediate family members


TestBanks Chapter 12: Essay 1

Describe the type of thinking associated with each reasoning stage, and provide the approximate age at which children reach each of these stages. Answer: Stage 1 (4–6 years old): Children can understand the implications of or statements, but this type of reasoning is relatively automatic: the child is not aware of the underlying logic. Stage 2 (6–10 years old): Children begin to understand that conclusions follows from premises, and that it is sometimes possible to draw more than one conclusion. Stage 3 (approximately 11 years): Reasoning is characterized by the ability to consider logical validity and content separately: Children are able to draw logically valid conclusions from false information. Children are able to draw logical conclusions from information they know is false.

2

Provide an example of a seriation task. How is performance on this used to assess intelligence? Answer: A seriation task requires the arrangement of objects in a series or order. The Binet­Simon test of intelligence evaluates this skill by asking children to arrange five boxes from heaviest to lightest. Scores are based on the number of changes (if any) that must be made to correct the ordering. Individual's scores are compared to normative scores of people of various ages. Mental age refers to the chronological age level at which someone performs. For example, a child whois 8 years old who performs similarly to a typical 5­year­old has a a mental age of 5.

3

Define deduction, induction, and abduction. For each example, describe a recent personal experience during which you used that kind of reasoning. Answer: Deduction involves the application of general knowledge to specific situations (e.g., the university always has final exams in June; therefore, final exams this school year will also take place in June), whereas induction involves reasoning from specific cases to broader generalizations (e.g., because my chemistry class is very challenging, I assume that all science classes are equally difficult). Abduction is a form of induction in which the reasoner selects the best explanation for the information that is being considered (e.g., Mary was not feeling well earlier and she is not in class; therefore, she must have gone home sick).


4

What are Euler circles? Describe how they are used in syllogistic reasoning and the conditions under which they are useful. Answer: Euler circles are spatial representations of quantified sentences. For example, the statement All A are B can be represented as either a single set of A = B (concentric circles), or the set of A within set B (smaller circle A within a larger circle B). With the additional information that All B are C, the diagram can be redrawn to show A = B = C as a single set, or set A within Set B within set C, etc. Even though Euler diagrams are helpful for understanding categorical relations, students often fail to represent the premises correctly, even with instruction.

5

With respect to reasoning, what is conversion? Answer: Conversion is the erronoeous interpretation that All A are B also implies All B are A. While these two statements could be factually true, this kind of reversal is not logically inferred and is therefore not guaranteed to be true. People probably make this error in an effort to simplify their interpretation of the premises. The context of the relations influences whether people use conversion. People are less likely to convert a concrete relation when its reversal is factually untrue. For example, All cows are animals does not invite the inference that All animals are cows.

6

Describe abstract and concrete syllogisms, and provide an example of each. Which brain areas are activated when solving these problems? What specific cognitive skills are associated with these areas? Answer: Syllogisms are arguments composed of quantified relations that compare abstract (e.g., symbolic) or concrete (e.g., familiar) components. For example, the combination of All A are B and All B are C can be used to draw the valid conclusion that All A are C (abstract). By the same logic, the information that All babies are humans and All humans are mammals leads to the conclusion that All babies are mammals (concrete). When people perform syllogistic reasoning with abstract relations, there is an associated increase in right­hemisphere activity, which is related to spatial processing. When considering concrete relations, people rely more upon the left­hemisphere language areas. People have prior semantic knowledge to rely on when considering concrete relations, whereas abstract or unfamiliar relations must be considered in a more general sense.


7

Describe the principles of linear marking and congruity, and explain how they contribute to the reasoning process. Answer: Linear marking and congruity are principles that describe how language processing contributes to reasoning. The principle of lexical marking refers to how we think about relations that can be expressed linearly (e.g., height). Unmarked terms are simple to understand because they name a dimension and implicate one end of the scale (tallness refers to an increasing measure of vertical height). Marked terms represent the other end of the scale (e.g., shortness) and are more difficult to reason from and remember (e.g., we say five feet tall rather than five feet short). The principle of congruity says that when information is encoded about and retrieved in the same way. For example, given the information “Adam is six feet tall,” you would expect people to respond more quickly when asked, “How tall is Adam” rather than “How short is Adam?” When the information and question are encoded differently, the reasoner must reinterpret part of the information to establish consistency with the other relations.

8

What is the belief bias effect? Explain how this effect could be relevant to a person solving a problem like: Some animals are dogs. Some dogs are pets. Does it follow that some animals are pets? Answer: People exhibit belief bias when they allow their personal beliefs to interfere with their logical reasoning. As a result, people accept believable but invalid conclusions and reject disbelieved but valid conclusions. This syllogism is invalid, but people exhibiting belief bias would believe that a conclusion can be drawn based on its factual believability.

9

What is the dual task methodology? How can we use this type of task to evaluate whether spatial processing interferes with syllogistic reasoning? Answer: The dual task methodology asks people perform two tasks simultaneously. The underlying assumption of this paradigm is that if two tasks rely on the same cognitive resources, then performing these tasks at the same time will be more challenging than performing either task by itself. With increased cognitive demands, people will make more errors and/or take longer to respond. By asking people to remember a low­load or high­load spatial array during a reasoning task, we can observe whether their performance on syllogisms decreases with a greater cognitive load. In fact, people make more errors while performing the high­ load spatial task, suggesting that spatial processes are


load spatial task, suggesting that spatial processes are needed for this type of reasoning. 10

Describe the selection task and explain how people typically answer this problem in an abstract context. Under what conditions do people's performance on this task improve? Answer: The selection task asks people to consider four cards and use them to evaluate whether a rule is true or false. The cards are double­sided, so someone may be asked to verify a rule like If a card has a vowel on one side, then it has an even number on the other side. This rule is considered abstract because it is arbitrary in terms of everyday knowledge. Given cards A, D, 2, and 3, people are generally very good at choosing to test the A card. However, people frequently make the error of testing the A and 2, rather than the A and 3. They are much more likely to choose the logically correct response when asked to test a more familiar situation like, If you are drinking in a bar, then you must be 21 years old.

11

Briefly describe the research on aging and memory. Does memory always worsen with age? Provide examples of other factors that may contribute to cognitive decline in the elderly. Answer: Research on aging and memory has often been conducted with a cross section of people of various ages. These studies suggest an age­related decline in memory, but this hypothesis is not supported by longitudinal studies. The detrimental effects of age on memory seem more related to the physical and psychological complications of the aging process, rather than aging itself. Impairments in memory are primarily the result of disease, neurological deficits, or depression.

12

What kinds of errors in reasoning are demonstrated by people suffering from schizophrenia? Are these errors similar to those made by people who do not have schizophrenia? Answer: People with schizophrenia often demonstrate conversion, which leads them to draw conclusions that are invalid but phrased like a syllogistic argument. Their thinking is sometimes described as paralogical, in the sense that it appears logically structured but inappropriately regards similarity as equivalence. People with schizophrenia tend to make the same errors as typical individuals, although they do so more frequently. They appear to draw conclusions based on superficial relations between categories.


False 1

Humans seem uniquely able to imagine a situation that has never happened before. True False

2

People expect others to act irrationally. True False

3

Stage 1 children pretend about situations when they play, so they can also imagine the consequences of a hypothetical situation. True False

4

Children around 9–10 years old can categorize different arguments based on their logical validity. True False

5

An understanding of transitivity makes it easier to complete seriation tasks. True False

6

Linear syllogisms that are challenging for children are relatively easy for adults. True False

7

You are told “Ann is slower than Ben, and Ben is slower than Carl.” You would respond more quickly to the question, “Who is the slowest?” than to the question, “Who is the fastest?” True False


8

People show increased activity in the parietal lobe while solving abstract reasoning problems. True False

9

When people solve linear syllogisms with concrete relations, neural activity in language processing areas decreases. True False

10

Some cultures prohibit syllogistic reasoning when it requires speaking about someone who the reasoner does not know. True False

11

Inductive reasoning from true statements always yields a valid conclusion, but deductive reasoning sometimes leads to the wrong conclusion. True False

12

If people practice with concrete syllogisms, they do not make conversion errors when solving abstract syllogisms. True False

13

Increased activity in the right hemisphere is associated with solving concrete categorical syllogisms, whereas increased activity in the left hemisphere is associated with solving abstract categorical syllogisms. True False

14

Students make more logical errors if they reason while performing a high­load spatial memory task. True False

15 People suffering from schizophrenia make different logical


People suffering from schizophrenia make different logical errors than people who do not have schizophrenia. True False


TestBanks Chapter 12: Multiple Choice 1

Reasoning sets humans apart from other animals because it enables us to: adapt strategies. see an overall pattern. develop plans. All of the answers are correct.

2

______ is the process by which we draw conclusions from given information. Perception Reasoning Attention None of the answers is correct.

3

Which of the following is a way in which reasoning has been characterized? We lack an innate module for reasoning. We reason by constructing mental representations. We acquire reasoning ability in two stages. All of the answers are correct.

4

Which of the following skills is first demonstrated in Stage 1 reasoning development? conditional reasoning knowledge of logical rules hypothetical reasoning metacognitive ability

5

Metacognition refers to a person's ability to: apply logical procedures. monitor his or her own thoughts. make rational decisions. reason from disbelieved assertions.

6

Counterfactual reasoning is key to: hypothesis testing. abduction. the belief­bias effect. paralogical thinking.

7

Which of the following must be true of a valid argument? It is supported by inductive reasoning. It is based on rational thinking. It has a conclusion that logically follows from the


It has a conclusion that logically follows from the premises. It is factually truthful. 8

Your friend tells you the results of the race: Claire finished before Lizzy, Tyler finished after Lizzy, and Alex finished after Tyler. You would use ______ reasoning to determine the order in which they finished. inductive pragmatic linear syllogistic

9

______ is the process of arranging objects according to a linear dimension. Lexical marking Seriation Dual processing Set inclusion

10

Seriation has been used as a test of ______ in children since the early 1900s. belief bias perceptual ability moral judgment intelligence

11

In order to determine ______ age, a child's performance on the seriation task is compared to the performance of a typical child of the same age. cognitive mental intellectual functional

12

Which of the following examples is difficult to express on a linear dimension? “My surgery is in two days and my follow­up appointment is next week.” “My sister and her husband love each other and their three children very much.” “The nurse who works in the evening is nicer than the doctor.” “The algebra book is underneath her blue backpack.”

13

People are ______ when they evaluate syllogisms presented in a canonical linear order. slowest error­prone fast and accurate most challenged

14

The principle of ______ is one of two language processing


14

The principle of ______ is one of two language processing principles important for solving linear syllogisms. conversion congruity transitivity set inclusion

15

______ is an example of a marked term, whereas ______ is unmarked. Light; heavy Deep; shallow Happy; sad Lion; lioness

16

The principle of congruity is similar to the concept of ______. reality monitoring encoding specificity transitivity convergent relations

17

Banks et al (1975) students are asked to judge the relative position of two balloons or two yo­yos on a vertical dimension. In terms of accuracy and speed, students' performances would be best if they were asked which balloon is ______ and which yo­yo is ______. lower; lower lower; higher higher; lower higher; higher

18

Concurrent tasks that interfere with the ______ disrupt a person's ability to solve four­term linear syllogisms. articulatory loop visuospatial sketchpad phonological loop episodic buffer

19

You are told A is heavier than B, B is heavier than C, C is heavier than D, and D is heavier than E. When asked to verify whether one item is heavier than another, you would expect the fastest response to the question: Is A heavier than B? Is A heavier than E? Is B heavier than D? Is D heavier than E?

20

The _______ is highly active when people solve linear syllogisms with concrete relations, whereas the ______ is highly active when the relations are abstract or unfamiliar. left hemisphere; occipital lobe left hemisphere; temporal lobe


left hemisphere; temporal lobe occipital lobe; left hemisphere parietal lobe; left hemisphere 21

Given This shape is a triangle and All triangles are polygons, what can you conclude? All polygons are triangles. All polygons are shapes. This shape is a polygon. There is no valid conclusion.

22

Cole and Scribner (1974) found that among Kpelle farmers in Liberia, willingness to solve syllogisms was positively associated with: general intelligence. spatial ability. two or more years of schooling. extraversion.

23

Deduction occurs when we reason from: single cases to establish laws and rules. generalizations to draw specific conclusions. scientific data to form theories. analogous situations.

24

______ reasoning is used to infer a rule that explains a number of examples. Abductive Counterfactual Deductive Inductive

25

Which of the following are examples of quantifiers? plus, minus, equals mass, weight, volume is behind, is in front of all, some, not

26

Students make reasoning errors with Euler diagrams because: there may be more than one valid diagram. they have not been instructed in how to use them. this technique is not useful for deductive reasoning. All of the answers are correct.

27

Jack is told that All A are B; so he infers that All B are A. Jack is making a reversal error called: transitivity. conversion. belief bias.


belief bias. seriation. 28

People incorrectly convert relations to: make them symmetrical. reduce the need to keep track of exceptions. interpret them in the simplest way. All of the answers are correct.

29

The belief­bias effect occurs when people: follow the beliefs of a group and resist forming a personal opinion. allow their personal beliefs to influence their logical reasoning. do not consider prior information in making their answer choice. rely on System 2 rather than System 1 reasoning.

30

According to a dual process model, System 1 reasoning is ______ and System 2 reasoning is ______. slow; fast deliberate; automatic unconscious; conscious learned; innate

31

If ______ is ______, people are more likely to make belief bias errors. System 1; accompanied by System 2 processing System 1; interfered with System 2; interfered with System 2; relied upon too heavily

32

Reasoning ______ are rules or procedures that people use automatically to draw conclusions. structures schemas proofs programs

33

The selection task asks people to determine whether a rule is ______. relevant true useful important

34

The selection task is a test of ______.

reasoning


reasoning memory perception attention 35

Students are given the rule If there is a B on one side of the card, there is a 4 on the other side. They are shown cards with B, D, 4, and 6 and asked which of these they should turn over to test the rule. People typically make the error of turning over: D only. D and 4. B and 4. B and 6.

36

You are shown four cards that are printed with a letter on one side and a number on the other: E, F, 5, and 6. In order to test the rule If there is a vowel on one side of the card, there is an even number on the other side, it is not necessary to turn over ______. E F 5 None of the answers is correct.

37

People's performance on the selection task is BEST when the problem is presented: in abstract terms. as a familiar scenario. using symbols. with a diagram.

38

When students are given the selection task framed as a problem about the legal drinking age, their performance is ______ preformance on abstract versions of the task. worse than similar to better than There is not a reliable relationship between abstract and concrete selection tasks.

39

Deontic rules involve: necessity and sufficiency. permission and obligation. reliability and validity. induction and abduction.

40

Deontic rules are useful for: negotiation. detecting violations. maintaining peace.


maintaining peace. All of the answers are correct. 41

______ reasoning schemas describe preconditions that one must satisfy in order to take an action. Practicable Practical Pragmatic Probability

42

People are given a selection task which asks them to test a rather strange rule: If Astrid wears blue socks, then it must be Tuesday. Based on a study by Manktelow & Evans (1979), you would expect their accuracy to be ______ performance on selection tasks that test ______ rules. similar to; familiar concrete similar to; abstract better than; familiar concrete better than; abstract

43

Which of the following is NOT an example of a social exchange? “I will drive you to the airport if you give me money for gas.” “My mother mailed me a card for my birthday.” “My sister washes the dishes to earn her weekly allowance.” “My students will turn in their homework only if they are given points.”

44

Cheater detection is used to identify situations in which someone has: taken a benefit without paying the cost. fulfilled a precondition in order to take an action. granted permission for someone else to act. complied with social exchange rules.

45

Cosmides and colleagues (2010) compared performance on the selection task with respect to ______ contracts to determine whether appropriate reasoning can be elicited solely by the activation of a permission schema. social and nonsocial permission and obligation pragmatic and social exchange familiar and unfamiliar

46

When people cannot remember the rules they are supposed to reason from, their responses are typically: consistent with the original rule. consistent with the rule they think is correct. not based on any kind of logic. picked randomly.


47

The belief that reasoning ability declines with age has been supported primarily by ______ studies of young and old people. cross­sectional longitudinal case introspective

48

Age­related declines in reasoning are primarily attributed to: simply getting older. genetic predispositions. the presence of other physical and mental symptoms. gender and race.

49

______ reasoning has been used as a diagnostic tool for schizophrenia. Syllogistic Analogical Abductive Counterfactual

50

People suffering from schizophrenia exhibit ______ thinking because they draw conclusions based on the similarity of items rather than the validity of their relations to each other. paradoxical paralogical paranormal None of the answers is correct.

51

Logical errors made by people suffering from schizophrenia may result from an emphasis on ______ processing. analytic System 2 semantic None of the answers is correct.


TestBanks Chapter 12: Web Quiz 1

Rational thought and logic are ______ processes. rule­based identical similar but not identical completely different

2

If you are put under time pressure while solving a difficult problem, you may resort to using System ______ processing. 1 2 3 4

3

A syllogism must have: a conclusion that follows the premises. an invalid conclusion. premises about permission or obligation. deontic rules.

4

The principle of lexical marking says that unmarked terms are: difficult to store in memory. more easily reasoned about than marked terms. less commonly used than marked terms. None of the answers is correct.

5

The right hemisphere is recruited for solving concrete linear syllogisms when these problems are: easy. familiar. difficult. invalid.

6

______ are arguments with a logical conclusion that cannot be disputed. Syllogisms Propositions Assertions Quantifiers

7

The goal of abduction is to find the conclusion that ______. logically follows from the premises contradicts your original hypothesis offers the best explanation for the facts


offers the best explanation for the facts is the most desirable to you 8

By definition a paradox is a ______ statement. logically valid conditional categorical self­contradictory

9

System 1 and 2 processes are also referred to, respectively, as _______ and ______ processes. deductive; inductive heuristic; analytic conscious; unconscious valid; invalid

10

The dual task methodology helps us evaluate: theories of reasoning. the skills needed to complete a task. how people perform on simultaneous tasks. All of the answers are correct.

11

Students are given the rule If there is a B on one side of the card, there is a 4 on the other side. They are shown cards with B, D, 4, and 6 and asked which of these they should turn over to test the rule. The correct solution is to turn over: B and 4. B and 6. D and 6. all four cards

12

Which of the following is NOT true about how people interpret tests of falsification and violation? The context of the problem influences its interpretation. People consider the content of the problem as well as the purpose of the task in order to make a decision. People look for examples that violate or disprove the rules they are trying to test. People treat falsification and violation similarly.


TestBanks Chapter 13: Essay 1

Describe a situation in which you committed the sunk cost fallacy. What was the investment and how did you behave? Did you try to recover your investment? Describe any errors in judgment you might have made. Answer: Students identify physical/emotional effort, money, time, or some other resource they invested. Students should describe why they committed the sunk cost fallacy: how and why they tried to earn back their losses. They should explain why their decisions were poor/made in error; for example, they knew that spending more money would prevent them from paying their bills, but they did it anyway.

2

What is the unconscious thought theory? Describe its main three principles as they relate to cognitive capacity, processing, and the weighing of options. Why could this theory be considered counterintuitive? Answer: The UTT states that unconscious processing has unique qualities that foster reliable and accurate decision making. Unconscious thought is relatively automatic and requires little cognitive capacity, freeing up resources that can be utilized for other purposes. Unconscious processing also slowly integrates information in an objective way and weighs evidence appropriately. In contrast, conscious deliberation is mentally demanding and likely to be driven by expectations and bias. Many people would assume that careful deliberation always yields the best choices, but this is not supported experimentally.

3

Describe a situation in which you committed the sunk cost fallacy. What was the sunk cost and why did you try to recover it? How did you try to replace it or earn it back? Were you successful? Describe any errors in judgment you might have made. Answer: For example, a student describes a situation in which he tries to recover an initial investment by devoting additional effort to the cause. He may have borrowed additional money to get out of debt or stayed in a bad job with the hope of getting paid more. He may have not wanted to pursue a new strategy (e.g., finding a better way to manage his money) or felt as if quitting would have been a waste of time. He may have inappropriately estimated the likelihood of success. Although it is possible that the cost was recovered, it is also likely that devoting additional resources (e.g., time, money, emotion) was unnecessarily


resources (e.g., time, money, emotion) was unnecessarily damaging, wasteful, or simply unproductive. 4

Describe the Monty Hall dilemma. Explain how people typically interpret this problem, and whether this strategy is the optimal choice. Answer: In the Monty Hall dilemma, a contestant is allowed to choose one of three curtains that may be concealing a prize. Once the choice is made (but the object not revealed), the host reveals an undesirable item behind one of the other curtains. The contestant is asked whether she would like to keep her original choice or change it to the unopened curtain. People typically see these two options as having an equal likelihood of being correct. However, the optimum solution is to change the original choice. Once the original curtain has been selected, the two other curtains have a 2/3 of the probability of concealing the prize. Once the host reveals which of these two curtains does not have the prize, the 2/3 probability falls on the remaining curtain (i.e., the one not chosen originally). Therefore, there is a higher probability of finding the prize behind the curtain that was not chosen originally.

5

Describe Tversky and Kahneman's (1983) problem about Linda, the feminist bank teller. How do people typically respond, and is this the correct choice? What motivates people to make their decision? Explain how the representativeness heuristic is relevant to the conjunction fallacy. Answer: People are given a short description of a woman and asked whether it's more likely that she is a bank teller, or a bank teller and a feminist. People say it is more likely she is both a bank teller and a feminist, even though one characteristic should occur in the population equally or more often than the two characteristics put together. People make this error of judgment because they think the description is more representative of a person who identifies as a feminist bank teller, rather than bank tellers in general. It has also been suggested people don't understand the implications of the problem, but people still commit the conjunction fallacy when the task is simplified.

6

A couple buys several pregnancy tests that guarantee 98% accuracy. The tests all yield negative results, so they are shocked to hear from their doctor that they are expecting a baby. Based on what we know about people's understanding of base rates, explain why the couple was surprised and why were they misled by the reported accuracy of the test. Did the pharmaceutical company's advertisement deceive the couple? Answer:


Answer: The couple probably interpreted 98% accuracy to mean that the test could only be wrong 2 out of a 100 times, and thus the probability of several errors in a row is highly unlikely. However, because they don't know the base rates of the original sample, it is hard to know the true accuracy of the test. For example, if the vast majority of the women in the sample had been pregnant, the likelihood of false positives would be unclear. Conversely, if the sample had been tested on a sample with very few pregnant women, it would be difficult to estimate the likelihood of misses. The company is not falsifying the data, but some people may believe that the company is relying on a common misconception to promote its products in a potentially misleading way. 7

As described in the chapter on reasoning, deductive reasoning is a process that involves drawing specific conclusions from previous generalizations. Inductive reasoning is a complementary process that involves drawing generalizations from specific cases. How are these two types of reasoning related to the law of large numbers and the law of small numbers? Answer: The law of large numbers describes the assumption we make that small numbers of events should resemble large numbers of events (e.g., we expect randomly selected numbers should have similar frequencies of each value). This idea is similar to deductive reasoning in that we expect isolated instances to conform to rules of a larger or superordinate category. The law of small numbers is the assumption that small samples can be used to extrapolate information about large samples. The idea is similar to inductive reasoning in that we try to make hypotheses and theories about processes based on the data points we have collected (e.g., we may assume that all prime numbers must be odd, because many of them are odd).

8

All of the items in a clothing store have price tags that show the manufacturer's suggested retail price for the item. However, the store owner advertises that everything in the store is marked at a 15% discount for a limited time. According to the chapter, how could this scheme be effective in encouraging sales? Answer: In this scenario, customers are led to believe that they would have paid 15% more to buy the product normally. According to prospect theory, people who are faced with losses are risk seeking: They would rather take a gamble to reduce the possibility of a more severe loss. In this situation, a customer may feel compelled to buy more items and not delay purchases because the items are


items and not delay purchases because the items are viewed as more attractive and thus less likely to be acquired later. 9

What is the clustering illusion and what causes it? Describe how this fallacy has important implications for the way our society views crime and disease. Answer: The clustering illusion refers to the erroneous assumption that groupings of random events must have a common cause. This fallacy is important because people are prone to draw invalid conclusions about causal relationships, especially when the prevalence of importance of certain information is misrepresented. People assume that randomly occurring events are evenly spaced out in time and location, but this is not always the case. People tend to notice unusual events disproportionately more often, which can lead them to believe these events are more common than they truly are (or conversely, underestimate the prevalence or more typical or mundane events). News sources often focus on violent crimes among disadvantaged populations, which may lead people to develop inappropriate stereotypes about stigmatized cultures and areas. A prevalence of disease cases in one area can cause great concern about an epidemic or common cause, when, in most instances, a moderate increase in cases can be attributed to natural patterns of variation or extraneous variables.

10

Define and distinguish the hot hand, hot outcome, and gambler's fallacies. For each of these decision errors, describe a situation in which someone demonstrates this type of thinking. Answer: The hot hand and hot outcome refer to a belief that prior successes or losses enhance the future probability of continued success or loss. Hot hand concerns an animate object and its behavior (such as a person's ability to score soccer goals), whereas hot outcome refers to a pattern of outcomes (such as the likelihood of being dealt a certain card). A person may continue to bet on a racehorse that has been particularly successful recently, or a poker player may continue to place large bets on the assumption he will continue to receive good hands. In contrast, the gambler's fallacy refers to a belief that prior losses must eventually give way to a success. In this case, a gambler may continue to play at a slot machine that has brought him extremely bad luck on the assumption he is due a big win.


False 1

Listing “pros” and “cons” when making a decision is useful when you do not know the consequences of a course of action. True False

2

A problem with using a list of “pros” and “cons” as a decision­making strategy is that events have a different likelihood of occurrence. True False

3

It can be challenging to make decisions based on subjective utility because we do not always know the probabilities of events. True False

4

The anchoring effect is eliminated when the reasoner is uncertain about the reliability of the starting point. True False

5

Heuristics are useful in part because they allow us to rely on System 1 processing. True False

6

People with damage to the right hemisphere ventromedial prefrontal cortex find it difficult to resist immediate gain for the sake of a larger long­term gain. True False

7

The gambler's fallacy and the sunk cost effect show that people assume their investment returns will be worthwhile. True False


8

When thinking about the Monty Hall dilemma, people often make the error of treating dependent events as if they are independent. True False

9

The belief that two independent events occurring together is more likely than either occurring independently violates the basic idea of independence. True False

10

The reported percent accuracy of medical diagnostic tests can be misleading when a disease is extremely rare. True False

11

People are usually equally good at reasoning with frequencies and probabilities. True False

12

You and your roommate flip a coin to decide who has to take out the garbage. You've lost five weeks in a row, and you are starting to suspect that your roommate is playing a trick on you. You have hastily concluded that this string of losses is unusual due to the law of small numbers. True False

13

The gambler's fallacy predicts that luck will continue, while the hot outcome fallacy predicts that luck will change. True False

14

People asked to produce random sequences of numbers include fewer repetitions of numbers than a truly random sequence would. True False

15 According to cumulative prospect theory, people are risk


According to cumulative prospect theory, people are risk averse when there are potential gains. True False


TestBanks Chapter 13: Multiple Choice 1

Benjamin Franklin made a list of “pros” and “cons” while making decisions in order to: compare different options and arrive at an optimal decision. create a spatial representation of the information he was considering. randomly pick a solution from the list. None of the answers is correct.

2

You yell angrily and punch the vending machine because it did not dispense your candy. This type of behavior is called: sunk cost. hot outcome. extinction burst. hot hand.

3

A decision maker selects a course of action with the highest subjective utility, which is the option that he or she: feels is the most socially acceptable. arrives at logically, logically without being influenced by emotion. values the most. thinks will be the easiest to execute.

4

Subjective expected utility does not work well when the decision includes a: potentially large benefit. personally important matter. loss. known probability.

5

The folk wisdom that you should “sleep on it” or wait before making an important decision is ______ by psychological research. strongly opposed supported unsupported untested

6

Some college roommates are looking for a new place to live, so they make a list of the benefits and drawbacks of several houses they have seen for rent. Based on a number of studies by Dijksterhuis, you would expect them to make the BEST choices if they make the list and decide which house is the best ______. immediately after after thinking for a few minutes after being distracted for a few minutes after discussing the options as a group


after discussing the options as a group 7

According to the unconscious thought theory, conscious thought: is like automatic attentional processing. leads to biased weighting. slowly integrates information. naturally weighs the relative importance of items.

8

Your roommate is trying to plan her busy schedule for the last week of the semester. Although she needs to study for finals, she is only setting aside a small amount of time to work because her boyfriend will be in town. According to unconscious thought theory, she would probably allocate her time better if she: discussed her goals and priorities under hypnosis. thought about something else before arriving at a decision. was not unconsciously biased to give herself the benefit of the doubt. allocated more of her attention and working memory to her decision making.

9

Heuristics: are like rules of thumb. sometimes fail. often lead to a correct solution. All of the answers are correct.

10

An algorithm: does not need clearly defined rules. guarantees a solution. is a reasoning fallacy. is a shortcut that sometimes fails.

11

Your new neighbor leaves the house early every morning wearing blue surgical scrubs. You assume she works at the hospital based on: representativeness. sunk cost. anchoring and adjustment. prospect theory.

12

Students read about a tall, muscular man who lives on an island and runs and lifts weights every day. Students in Group A are told there are more teachers than professional athletes on this island, whereas those in Group B are told there are more athletes than teachers. Based on Kahneman and Tversky's research, you would to expect students in Group A to say the man is a(n) ______ and students in


Group A to say the man is a(n) ______ and students in Group B to say the man is a(n) ______. athlete; teacher teacher; athlete athlete; athlete teacher; teacher 13

Of the 100 children at summer camp, 40 come from California. This value is called a(n) ______ rate. sampling base occurrence hit

14

Jack is asked to name as many first names as he can. He begins by listing some of the most common names in the United States, followed by the names of his friends and acquaintances. He is using a(n) ______ heuristic. conjunction clustering availability representativeness

15

The ______ heuristic is used when a person's choices are guided by the most familiar and easily recalled examples. availability anchoring and adjustment representativeness number of cases

16

Use of the availability heuristic can lead to undesirable consequences when a person: overestimates the likelihood of improbable events. underestimates the likelihood of dangerous events. draws faulty conclusions from his or her observations. All of the answers are correct.

17

Anchoring and adjustment is a decision­making strategy in which the reasoner: thinks of how similar an example is to prior instances. makes a decision based off a starting value. relies on familiar examples. bets twice as much if he or she is unsuccessful.

18

The anchoring and adjustment heuristic may lead doctors to ______, which prevents them from weighing all the evidence and updating their knowledge appropriately. rely too much on their personal experiences place too much emphasis on their initial impressions try to link new cases to old ones incorrectly believe there is a disease outbreak due to a


incorrectly believe there is a disease outbreak due to a modest increase in cases 19

The ______ is described as default­interventionist processing because it involves systems that are competing for control. dual process explanation unconscious thought theory cumulative prospect theory somatic marker hypothesis

20

The dual process explanation of heuristic processing says that both systems are engaged when people are: doing any kind of problem solving. making automatic, low­level decisions. torn between heuristic and rational decisions. thinking about a problem analytically.

21

The somatic marker hypothesis states that: emotion and decision making are not directly related. emotional circuitry is centered in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex. right­side lesions of the ventromedial prefrontal cortex result in intellectual deficits but spare personal and social decision making. positive emotions encourage people to work on problems more slowly.

22

Which of the following brain areas is highly active when a person is conflicted between heuristic and rational responses? right temporal lobe left prefrontal cortex anterior cingulate ventromedial prefrontal cortex

23

Damage to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex at any age often results in: decision­making problems although social skills remain intact. an increased ability to delay gratification. intellectual deficits. difficulty making personal decisions.

24

A sunk cost refers to funds or resources that have been: invested and cannot be recovered. donated to someone. wasted due to lack of use. used to start a new project or organization.

25

Three business partners recently opened a clothing store.


25

Three business partners recently opened a clothing store. Their year­long lease is coming to an end, and the store has not been profitable because there is little pedestrian traffic nearby. The partners seem to have fallen victim to the sunk cost fallacy because they are: ending their lease and moving the store to a busier part of town. closing the store with the possibility of reopening in the future. remodeling the existing store and promoting a new advertising campaign. renewing their lease and hoping sales will improve without intervention.

26

One explanation for the sunk cost effect is that people believe: dependent events are not connected. adding to an investment will improve their chances of reaching a goal. it is a waste of time to use a strategy that has previously failed them. they should be less committed to options that could lead to large losses.

27

After parking illegally on several occasions and not receiving a ticket, the professor reasons that he is due to get one soon. The belief that his prior luck will cause him to receive a ticket in the future is an example of the ______ fallacy. hot hand availability conjunction gambler's

28

The doubling strategy called the Martingale system is problematic because: people have limited resources to invest. the eventual return can be very small there may be a limited number of betting opportunities. All of the answers are correct.

29

Three cups are turned upside down on a table, and a ball is hidden under one of them. The assumption that each cup has a 1/3 probability of having the ball under it is based on the: law of large numbers. law of small numbers. number of cases heuristic. availability heuristic.

30

On the show Let's Make a Deal, contestants chose one of three curtains they believed concealed a prize. One of the other curtains was pulled back to reveal an undesirable


other curtains was pulled back to reveal an undesirable prize, and the contestants were asked whether they wanted to keep or change their original selection. People typically think it is best to ______, whereas the ideal solution is to ______. keep their first choice; choose either option because both are equally probable switch curtains; choose either option because both are equally probable choose either option because both are equally probable; keep their first choice choose either option because both are equally probable; switch curtains 31

Your friend's father, who grew up in a very religious community and enjoys a modest lifestyle. You believe it is much more likely her father is a banker and a church attendee, rather than just a banker. This error in probability judgment is called the ______. Monty Hall dilemma conjunction fallacy number of cases heuristic None of the answers is correct.

32

People commit the conjunction fallacy based on the ______. representativeness heuristic availability heuristic sunk cost effect law of small numbers

33

The southeast region of the United States is particularly susceptible to hurricanes, which are often covered in the national news. Students commiting the conjunction fallacy would believe the likelihood of a hurricane in the southeast is ______than the likelihood of a hurricane occurring in the ______. lower; United States higher; United States lower; southwest higher; southwest

34

When considering the accuracy of a medical test, you need to know the ______ of the disease to fully understand the likelihood of diagnostic error. time course base rate severity consequences

35

A strep throat test is reported to be 80% accurate. This statistic could be derived from which of the following observations? Of 100 sick people sampled, 80 of them received a


Of 100 sick people sampled, 80 of them received a positive test result. The test missed 20 people. Of 1,000 people tested, no one received a positive test result. It was later discovered that the test missed 200 people infected with strep throat. All of the 10 students who visited the nurse's office received a positive test result. It was later discovered that only 8 of the students were infected with strep throat. All of the answers are correct. 36

With respect to medical diagnostics, Bayes' theorem can be used to calculate the: base rate of a disease in the population. likelihood that someone has been correctly diagnosed. number of people who are incorrectly diagnosed. number of people who will adhere to a treatment regimen.

37

Medical students are told, “If you hear hoof beats on Main Street, don't look for zebras,” which means that more common, plausible explanations should be considered first before moving on to less likely explanations. This strategy may yield more accurate diagnoses and treatments because: when diseases are very rare, even highly accurate tests can be wrong. it is more difficult to rule out common disorders, so they should be addressed first. testing for rare conditions rarely leads to significant findings and is unnecessarily costly. All of the answers are correct.

38

Tversky and Kahneman's taxicab problem (1982) involves a witness who saw a blue cab involved in a hit­and­run accident. People solving this problem are told the percentage of blue cabs in the city and the witness' identification accuracy in a controlled setting. The likelihood the witness made the correct identification is: impossible to solve from the given information. usually underestimated by problem solvers. found by using a formula or a diagram. easily calculated by most problem solvers.

39

Students are better at solving the engineer­lawyer problem (Kahneman & Tversky, 1973) when the base rates are expressed as ______ and better at solving the Pingping problem (Zhu & Gigerenzer, 2006) when the base rates are expressed as ______. percentages; frequencies frequencies; percentages percentages; percentages frequencies; frequencies

40

Even though the taxicab and Pingping problems are


40

Even though the taxicab and Pingping problems are challenging for most adults, these types of base rate problems can be solved by elementary school children when the problem information: does not use numbers larger than 10. is represented in an accessible way. is concrete rather than abstract. All of the answers are correct.

41

Students are given the relative probabilities of soccer players, swimmers, boys, and girls enrolled in the athletic league. They are asked to estimate the probability that a player is a female swimmer. You would expect them to find the task difficult when the relevant probabilities are ______ and more successful if the probabilities are ______. very high; very low very low; very high percentages; frequencies frequencies; percentages

42

One area in which people seem to use base rates effectively is: baseball management. medical diagnostics. evaluating test accuracy. mking judgements about group affiliations.

43

The average temperature for the last 3 weeks has been 72°F, so I assume that the average temperature is 72°F year round. My conclusion is based on the: law of small numbers. cumulative prospect theory. anchoring and adjustment heuristic. hot outcome fallacy.

44

A convenience store is featured on the evening news because three local residents have purchased winning lottery tickets there in the last week. People are convinced the store is lucky and believe they have a better chance of winning if they buy their tickets there. This rationalization is motivated by the: law of large numbers. clustering illusion. hot hand fallacy. gambler's fallacy.

45

Atul Gawande (1999) discussed the small town of McFarland, CA, where a disturbingly high number of child cancer cases had been reported. This observation sparked a great deal of concern over possible contaminants or environmental hazards. This concern could be attributed to a clustering illusion because it was later found that the


a clustering illusion because it was later found that the children: actually had diseases other than cancer. were sick for various reasons. recovered at different rates. lived there because it was close to a children's hospital. 46

Hot hand refers to a person's belief in: clusters of personal success. clusters of desired outcomes. success that is due after a number of failures. locus of control.

47

The hot hand is only demonstrated: by the top competitors in an area. in some disciplines. by men. None of the answers is correct.

48

The gambler's fallacy is related to beliefs about ______ , whereas the hot hand fallacy is related to beliefs about ______. taking risks; avoiding risks outcomes; behaviors animate beings; patterns the likelihood of a pattern continuing; the likelihood of a pattern changing

49

The last four lottery winners had numbers that ended in 4. Your number ends in 4, so you feel very confident that you will be the next winner. The belief that winning numbers will continue to end in 4 is called the ______ fallacy. hot outcome hot hand gambler's sunk cost

50

Jamie has an internal locus of control. He believes that if ______, he will win his events at the track meet this weekend. the other runners are not as experienced he trains hard enough the weather is good he is assigned a good starting position

51

People with an internal locus of control are prone to committing the hot outcome fallacy because they: believe they have discovered a pattern if they anticipate an outcome. know their success is guided by luck.


know their success is guided by luck. do not think they need skill to win. do not see random events as dependent on each other. 52

A gas station owner would be more successful at encouraging his customers to use cash if he advertised higher rates for credit card transactions rather than discounts for cash payments. According to prospect theory, the credit card surcharge encourages customers to: take a risk to reduce the impact of the loss. adopt a risk averse strategy. make more careful financial decisions. buy more at once than they would normally.

53

Students are told about a disease epidemic and asked to choose a course of action to address it. In one scenario, they are given option (A), which saves 200 people, or option (B), which offers as a 1/3 probability 600 people will be saved and a 2/3 probability no one will be saved. In another scenario, the options are framed as plan (C), which kills 400 people, or plan (D), which offers a 1/3 probability that no one will die and a 2/3 probability everyone will die. People will MOST likely choose: (A) and (C). (A) and (D). (B) and (C). (B) and (D).


TestBanks Chapter 13: Web Quiz 1

Subjective utility is based on the ______ of an outcome. general popularity typical success rate validity individual's evaluation

2

Dijksterhuis, Bos, Nordgren, & Van Buren (2006) asked students to rate four cars based on their positive, negative, important, and unimportant attributes. Students who were given time to consider their choices gave ______ quality cars compared to students who were distracted and not given time to think about their options. higher ratings to lower ratings to similar ratings to inconsistent ratings of

3

Which of the following is an algorithmic approach to figuring out which of your friends has your jacket? You call the friends you have visited in the last two days. You call your friends who are not working at the moment. You call your friends who are the most helpful and organized. You call all of your friends.

4

Although chronic illnesses are among the leading causes of death in the United States, people are often more concerned about dying from violence and natural disasters. Violent homicides and disasters are unusual and more frequently reported and discussed, so it seems that people's fears stem from their use of the: law of small numbers. representativeness heuristic. conjunction fallacy. None of the answers is correct.

5

The erroneous belief that independent events are somehow dependent on each other leads to the: sunk cost effect and the gambler's fallacy. sunk cost effect and the Monty Hall dilemma. conjunction fallacy and the Monty Hall dilemma. gambler's fallacy and the conjunction fallacy.

6

Students rarely represent the Monty Hall dilemma correctly because: they use the number of cases heuristic.


they use the number of cases heuristic. assume all of the options have the same likelihood of being correct. the appropriate representation is demanding on working memory. All of the answers are correct. 7

One explanation for why people make conjunction fallacy errors is that these types of problems are difficult to understand. Regarding the problem about Linda the feminist bank teller, some students were simply asked how many out of 100 people like Linda would be bank tellers and feminists (Mellers, Hertwig, & Kahneman, 2001). In this simplified task, people: commit the conjunction fallacy. do not rely on the representativeness heuristic. realize it is more likely that Linda is simply a bank teller. None of the answers is correct.

8

Some baseball managers appear to have a good understanding of base rates due to their player selections. However, they usually do not use this information explicitly and may rely on ______to make an optimal decision. anchoring and adjustment somatic markers unconscious thought top­down processing

9

An analysis of professional basketball games conducted by Gilovich et al. (1985) revealed that players reliably experience ______ streaks of play. hot hand and cold hand hot hand cold hand neither hot hand nor cold hand

10

Dee and Chris are supporting different teams at a football game. Dee believes her favorite player will continue to score touchdowns. Chris's team is losing, but he believes the team will win because it has been a long time since it earned a championship title. Dee is committing the ______ fallacy, and Chris is committing the ______ fallacy. hot hand; sunk cost hot hand; gambler's gambler's; sunk cost gambler's; hot outcome

11

Gabe thinks he is a good runner, but believes his placement in the race will depend on the weather conditions, the course, and the other runners' abilities. Gabe has a(n) ______ locus of control. detached internal negative


negative helpless 12

Prospect theory helps predict: how people weigh gains and losses. framing effects. situations in which people will take risks. All of the answers are correct.


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