TEST BANK for Human Resources Management in Canada 15th Edition, 2023. by Gary Dessler; Nita Chhinze

Human Resources Management in Canada, 15Ce (Dessler) Chapter 01: The Strategic Role of Human Resources Management 1. Human resources management involves A) management techniques for controlling people at work.

B) concepts and techniques used in leading people at work.

C) the management of people in organizations.

D) all managerial activities.

E) concepts and techniques for organizing work activities.

QuestionID: 01-01 Objective: 1.1—Define what human resources management [HRM] is and analyze how it relates to the management process and non-HR managers.

Answer: C) the management of people in organizations.

2. The knowledge, education, training, skills, and expertise of a firm's workers are known as A) management's philosophy.

B) human capital.

C) physical capital.

D) production capital.

E) cultural diversity.

QuestionID: 01-02 Objective: 1.1—Define what human resources management [HRM] is and analyze how it relates to the management process and non-HR managers.

Answer: B) human capital.

3. HRM involves formulating and implementing HRM systems that are aligned with the organization's strategy to ensure the workforce has competencies and behaviours required to achieve the organization's strategic objectives. a True b False QuestionID: 01-03 Objective: 1.1—Define what human resources management [HRM] is and analyze how it relates to the management process and non-HR managers.

Answer: a. True 4. Define HRM (1 point) and briefly describe (3 points) three activities of a "human resources manager".

QuestionID: 01-04 Objective: 1.1—Define what human resources management [HRM] is and analyze how it relates to the management process and non-HR managers.

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Answer: Four points recommended: 1 point for a definition that is close to the textbook ("the management of people in organizations to drive successful organizational performance and achievement of the organization's strategic goals"), and 3 points for being able to identify three activities of a human resource manager, including but not limited to: - ensure that the organization attracts, retains, and engages the diverse talent required to meet operational and performance commitments made to customers and shareholders - ensure that the organization finds and hires the best individuals available, develops their talent - create a productive work environment - continually build and monitor the organization's workforce - understanding of what practices help regulate employees (e.g., recruitment, compensation, performance management, training, etc.)

- use these practices or systems impact employee, team, business unit, and company level attitudes, behaviours, and outcomes - explain why specific HR practices or systems are needed for each unique business setting 5. Which term reflects the course of action a company can take to pursue its goals?

A) Strategy B) Human capital C) Business model D) Management E) Authority QuestionID: 01-05 Objective: 1.1—Define what human resources management [HRM] is and analyze how it relates to the management process and non-HR managers.

Answer: A) Strategy 6. Which of the following helps the company navigate its internal and external strengths, weaknesses, threats, and opportunities to help the company achieve its desired goals?

A) Business model B) Strategic Plan C) Authority D) Obligation E) Responsibility QuestionID: 01-06 Objective: 1.1—Define what human resources management [HRM] is and analyze how it relates to the management process and non-HR managers.

Answer: B) Strategic Plan 7. Most students graduating in the next few years either will work for small businesses or will create new small businesses of their own, usually without a designated HR department. This means that entrepreneurs, employees, HR managers, and all managers in small, medium, and large businesses should be educated on 2

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human resources management. a True b False QuestionID: 01-07 Objective: 1.2—Explain how HRM has changed over time to include a higher-level advisory role.

Answer: a. True 8. Human resources management is important to all managers so they can avoid making common mistakes which may include evaluating and compensating employees unfairly or illegally. a True b False QuestionID: 01-08 Objective: 1.2—Explain how HRM has changed over time to include a higher-level advisory role.

Answer: a. True 9. HR responsibilities are shifting from operational to strategic responsibilities, and now focus more on formulating and executing organizational strategy. a True b False QuestionID: 01-09 Objective: 1.2—Explain how HRM has changed over time to include a higher-level advisory role.

Answer: a. True 10. The practice of contracting with outside vendors to handle specified functions on a permanent basis is known as A) payroll and benefits administration.

B) outsourcing.

C) labour-management relations.

D) contract administration.

E) hiring temporary employees.

QuestionID: 01-10 Objective: 1.2—Explain how HRM has changed over time to include a higher-level advisory role.

Answer: B) outsourcing.

11. Which of the following activities dominated the traditional role of personnel administration in the early 1900s?

A) Hiring and firing employees B) Environmental scanning 3

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C) Coaching and mentoring employees D) Being part of the strategic planning discussions E) Handling union-management relations QuestionID: 01-11 Objective: 1.2—Explain how HRM has changed over time to include a higher-level advisory role.

Answer: A) Hiring and firing employees 12. The company's plan for how it will balance its internal strengths and weaknesses with external opportunities and threats to maintain a competitive advantage is known as A) company objectives.

B) environmental scanning.

C) strategic plan.

D) policies and procedures.

E) SWOT analysis.

QuestionID: 01-12 Objective: 11.1—Define what human resources management [HRM] is and analyze how it relates to the management process and non-HR managers.

Answer: C) strategic plan.

13. HR professionals are expected to be change agents who lead the organization and its employees through organizational change. a True b False QuestionID: 01-13 Objective: 1.2—Explain how HRM has changed over time to include a higher-level advisory role.

Answer: a. True 14. Which of the following is now being used more commonly to measure the activities and results of human resources?

A) Metrics or statistics B) blogs C) Science D) Strategy E) Subjective popular press articles QuestionID: 01-14 Objective: 1.2—Explain how HRM has changed over time to include a higher-level advisory role.

Answer: A) Metrics or statistics

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15. It is simpler and less complex to be an HR manager today than in previous decades. a True b False QuestionID: 01-15 Objective: 1.2—Explain how HRM has changed over time to include a higher-level advisory role.

Answer: b. False 16. Which of the follow has directly contributed to the inconsistent progress of HR transformation?

A) Globalization B) Lack of senior management C) Crowdsourcing D) non-HR managers viewing HR as a strategic partner.

E) Changing legal expectations of the HR professional.

QuestionID: 01-16 Objective: 1.2 Explain how HRM has changed over time to include a higher-level advisory role.

Answer: B) Lack of senior management 17. Evidence-based HRM involves A) intuition and brainstorming.

B) data, facts, analytics, scientific rigour, and critically evaluated research or case studies.

C) popular press articles.

D) knowledge gained by a limited number of testimonials.

E) philosophical arguments of principle.

QuestionID: 01-17 Objective: 1.3—Identify tools to help make evidence-based HRM decisions.

Answer: B) data, facts, analytics, scientific rigour, and critically evaluated research or case studies.

18. Identify three strategy HRM tools that are used to translate the companies' strategic goals into HRM policies and practices in an evidence-informed way (1 point for each tool). What is the purpose of each tool and its outcome (2 points per tool)?

QuestionID: 01-18 Objective: 1.3—Identify tools to help make evidence-based HRM decisions.

Answer: Tool (1 point each): Strategy Map Balanced Scorecard Digital Dashboard Purpose (1 point each): Strategy Map - Shows the "big picture" of how each department's performance contributes to achieving the 5

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company's overall strategic goals Balanced Scorecard - A measurement system that translates an organization's strategy into a comprehensive set of performance measures Digital Dashboard - Presents the manager with desktop graphs and charts, a computerized picture of where the company stands on all those metrics from the HR scorecard process Outcome (1 point each): Strategy Map - Helps the manager and each employee visualize and understand the role their department plays in achieving the company's strategic plan Balanced Scorecard - Balances long- and short-term actions and measures of success relating to financial results, customers, internal business processes, and human capital management Digital Dashboard - Enables the manager to take corrective action by visually highlighting areas of concern or strength.

19. Which of the following is the lowest level of HR certification currently available?

A) Certified Human Resource Leader (CHRL) B) Certified Human Resource Consultant (CHRC) C) Certified Professional in Human Resources (CPHR) or Certified Human Resource Professional (CHRP) in Ontario D) Certified Human Resource Assistant (CHRA) E) Certified Human Resource Expert (CHRE) QuestionID: 01-19 Objective: 1.4—Describe professionalism and ethics in the HRM function.

Answer: C) Certified Professional in Human Resources (CPHR) or Certified Human Resource Professional (CHRP) in Ontario 20. As of 2016, in all provinces except _________, the CHRP designated was renamed.

A) Alberta B) British Columbia C) Ontario D) Nova Scotia E) Quebec QuestionID: 01-20 Objective: 1.4—Describe professionalism and ethics in the HRM function.

Answer: C) Ontario 21. The highest level HR designation in Ontario is A) Certified Human Resource Leader (CHRL).

B) Certified Human Resource Consultant (CHRC).

C) Certified Professional in Human Resources (CPHR).

D) Certified Human Resource Associate (CHRA).

E) Certified Human Resource Executive (CHRE).

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QuestionID: 01-21 Objective: 1.4—Describe professionalism and ethics in the HRM function.

Answer: E) Certified Human Resource Executive (CHRE).

22. The Canadian Council of Human Resources Associations governs the human resources profession in all provinces except A) British Columbia.

B) Nova Scotia.

C) Quebec.

D) Ontario.

E) Manitoba.

QuestionID: 01-22 Objective: 1.4—Describe professionalism and ethics in the HRM function.

Answer: D) Ontario.

23. Certified HRM professionals must abide by a uniform code of ethics to maintain professional status. a True b False QuestionID: 01-23 Objective: 1.4—Describe professionalism and ethics in the HRM function.

Answer: a. True 24. What is corporate social responsibility?

A) A company's approach to balancing its commitments to investors, employees, customers, other businesses, and the community.

B) The political acuity of a company's social media presence.

C) A company's involvement in charitable organizations.

D) Concepts and techniques for maintaining political involvement.

E) A company's history of reporting and compliance.

QuestionID: 01-24 Objective: 1.4—Describe professionalism and ethics in the HRM function.

Answer: A) A company's approach to balancing its commitments to investors, employees, customers, other businesses, and the community.

25. Human resource managers can create more ethical environments through these two steps: instituting ethical policies and codes and enforcing the rules. a True b False

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QuestionID: 01-25 Objective: 1.4 Describe professionalism and ethics in the HRM function.

Answer: a. True 26. HRM has evolved over the last few decades due to external environmental influences, such as globalization, technological changes, and environmental concerns, all of which drive the strategic focus of HRM. a True b False QuestionID: 01-26 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: a. True 27. Economic downturns are generally associated with A) higher voluntary turnover.

B) lower unemployment rates.

C) skills shortages.

D) an overwhelming number of job applicants for vacancies.

E) more competition for qualified employees.

QuestionID: 01-27 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: D) an overwhelming number of job applicants for vacancies.

28. Which of the following refers to the ratio of an organization or person's outputs to its inputs?

A) The labour market equation B) The supply and demand equation C) Competitive ability D) The equity ratio E) Productivity QuestionID: 01-28 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: E) Productivity 29. External environmental influences having a direct or indirect influence on HRM include which of the following?

A) Increasing empowerment B) Increasing engagement 8

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C) Labour market issues D) Organizational climate E) Organizational culture QuestionID: 01-29 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: C) Labour market issues 30. When unemployment rates fall, A) there is less competition for qualified employees.

B) training and retention strategies increase in importance.

C) selection strategies increase in importance.

D) qualified workers become more engaged.

E) organizational culture becomes less relevant.

QuestionID: 01-30 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: B) training and retention strategies increase in importance.

31. Mortgage Financial needs to recruit 10 employees for a period of three months to assist its team of underwriters during the busy season. The company does not want to provide these 10 employees regular fulltime employment status. These employees will be known as which type of workers?

A) Regular workers B) Permanent workers C) Technical workers D) Contingent workers E) Primary sector workers QuestionID: 01-31 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: D) Contingent workers 32. The characteristics of the workforce, such as race, gender, and age are known as A) values.

B) qualitative considerations.

C) beliefs.

D) customs and norms.

E) demographic factors.

QuestionID: 01-32 9

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Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: E) demographic factors.

33. Which generation is preparing to retire in the next few years, and has attitudes, values, and expectations of both optimism and team orientation?

A) Traditionalists B) Generation Z-ers C) Generation X-ers D) Baby boomers E) Generation Y-ers QuestionID: 01-33 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: D) Baby boomers 34. Which generation grew up in an era of hardships, including war and depression, therefore now value loyalty and respect for authority?

A) traditionalist B) baby boomers C) generation X. D) generation Y E) generation Z. QuestionID: 01-34 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: A) traditionalist 35. One key characteristic of Generation X employees is A) technological literacy developed at a young age B) economic conservatism C) a sense of security linked to corporate loyalty.

D) value independence and differences E) results driven and entrepreneurial QuestionID: 01-35 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: E) results driven and entrepreneurial

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36. Which sector accounts for the greatest number of jobs in the Canadian economy?

A) Secondary sector B) Primary sector C) Education sector D) Tertiary or service sector E) Manufacturing sector QuestionID: 01-36 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: D) Tertiary or service sector 37. Technological advances have A) enabled people to work anywhere and everywhere.

B) decreased work-family balance issues.

C) resulted in a decline in privacy-related issues.

D) had little impact on service-sector firms.

E) have had an equal impact on all members of the labour force.

QuestionID: 01-37 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: A) enabled people to work anywhere and everywhere.

38. Questions concerning ________ are at the core of a growing controversy brought about by new information technologies.

A) data control, accuracy, the right to privacy, and ethics B) employee engagement C) job satisfaction D) environmental and social responsibility E) speed and efficiency QuestionID: 01-38 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: A) data control, accuracy, the right to privacy, and ethics 39. You are the Director of Human Resources at a real estate development company based in Toronto. To attract and retain employees from generation X (employees in their 40s and 50s), which of the following would you emphasize?

A) Economic conservatism B) Pragmatism C) Sacrifice 11

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D) Civic duty E) Informality QuestionID: 01-39 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: D) Civic duty 40. You are the HR Generalist of a national railway. Which employment legislation would you refer to when it comes to employee relations issues within the organization?

A) Jurisdictional B) Provincial C) Territorial D) Federal E) Municipal QuestionID: 01-40 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: D) Federal 41. Each of the 10 provinces and three territories, as well as the federal level jurisdiction, have their own human rights legislation. a True b False QuestionID: 01-41 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: a. True 42. Minimum wage, overtime pay requirements, and vacation entitlements A) are the same across all jurisdictions.

B) are the same across all provinces.

C) vary from one province/territory to another.

D) are the same across all territories.

E) vary from one federally regulated employer to another.

QuestionID: 01-42 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: C) vary from one province/territory to another.

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43. The tendency of firms to expand their operations around the world is known as A) cultural diversity.

B) globalization.

C) international marketing.

D) product diversification.

E) domestication.

QuestionID: 01-43 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: B) globalization.

44. The growing integration of the world economy has vastly increased A) employee turnover.

B) the quality of products and services.

C) standardization practices.

D) the prices of products and services.

E) the intensity of competition.

QuestionID: 01-44 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: E) the intensity of competition.

45. The primary sector, which includes agriculture, fishing, forestry, and mining now represents the majority of jobs in Canada. a True b False QuestionID: 01-45 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: b. False 46. Productivity refers to the amount of goods produced from one year to the next. a True b False QuestionID: 01-46 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

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Answer: b. False 47. The tertiary sector includes jobs in agriculture, fishing and trapping, forestry, and mining. a True b False QuestionID: 01-47 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: b. False 48. There are employees from all five of the age/generational groups in the workforce. Identify and briefly describe each of the five generational groups (2 points each group, one for correctly naming them and one for identifying a characteristic of this group), then describe two challenges posed by the differences between the demographic age groups in the workplace (1 point each challenge).

QuestionID: 01-48 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: For the first 10 points of this 12 point question, identify each of the groups (Traditionalists, Baby Boomers, Generation X, Generation Y/Millennials, and Generation Z) and one or two characteristics for each group. For the last 2 points, the student should express how the attitudes/values/expectations/differences may create issues in the workplace. See Table 1.3 on page 16.

49. The core values, beliefs, and norms that are widely shared by members of an organization are known as A) the strategic plan.

B) the mission statement.

C) organizational culture.

D) organizational climate.

E) the prevailing atmosphere.

QuestionID: 01-49 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: C) organizational culture.

50. Which of the following is one of the purposes that organizational culture serves?

A) Increasing training levels B) Increasing customer service levels C) Fostering employee loyalty and commitment D) Succession planning E) Encouraging use of individual incentive systems

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QuestionID: 01-50 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: C) Fostering employee loyalty and commitment 51. The prevailing atmosphere or ''internal weather" that exists in an organization and its impact on employees is known as A) performance.

B) mission.

C) vision.

D) organizational climate.

E) corporate culture.

QuestionID: 01-51 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: D) organizational climate.

52. Revlex Inc. has decided to allow its front-line workers to make decisions regarding the ordering of certain supplies that were formerly made by managers. This initiative is an example of A) workplace incentives.

B) strategic planning.

C) job restructuring.

D) employee empowerment.

E) management development.

QuestionID: 01-52 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: D) employee empowerment.

53. Joe Brown was hired by a manufacturing firm as a supervisor. During his first few weeks as a supervisor, Joe realized that the employees reporting to him expected a lot of direction and expected him to make all of the decisions. Joe Brown decided to train employees to take on additional responsibilities and make decisions within a specific scope. Joe Brown is A) outsourcing staff.

B) narrowing staff.

C) embracing staff.

D) empowering staff.

E) rewarding staff.

QuestionID: 01-53 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, 15

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and explain their impact.

Answer: D) empowering staff.

54. Internal factors impacting HRM include all of the following except A) organizational culture.

B) organizational climate.

C) globalization.

D) management practices.

E) retention strategies.

QuestionID: 01-54 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: C) globalization.

55. External factors impacting HRM include all of the following except A) government.

B) economic factors.

C) globalization.

D) management practices.

E) environmental concerns.

QuestionID: 01-55 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: D) management practices.

56. ________ consists of the core values, beliefs, and assumptions that are widely shared by members of an organization.

A) Organizational culture B) Organizational climate C) Globalization D) Management practices E) Retention strategies QuestionID: 01-56 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: A) Organizational culture 57. At Rybak Enterprises, a number of employees have started a working group to address sustainability issues.

Which external factor are they responding to?

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A) Government B) Economic factors C) Globalization D) Management practices E) Environmental concerns QuestionID: 01-57 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: E) Environmental concerns 58. A minimum wage issue has been a key topic in a provincial election. Which external factor does this most closely relate to?

A) government B) economic factors C) globalization D) management practices E) environmental concerns QuestionID: 01-58 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: A) government 59. Moving jobs offshore is usually a result of what external factor?

A) Government B) organizational climate C) Globalization.

D) Management practices E) Environmental concerns QuestionID: 01-59 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: C) Globalization.

60. Employee empowerment decreases in employers when there is a talent shortage. a True b False QuestionID: 01-60 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

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Answer: b. False 61. Describe 3 purposes of organizational culture (1 point each).

QuestionID: 01-61 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: One point for each of the following, including but not limited to: - communicating what the organization believes in and stands for - providing employees with a sense of direction and expected behaviour (norms) - shaping employees' attitudes about themselves, the organization, and their roles - creating a sense of identity, orderliness, and consistency - fostering employee loyalty and commitment 62. HR professionals play a key role in helping managers throughout the firm establish and maintain a positive organizational climate. a True b False QuestionID: 01-62 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: a. True 63. Employees of the federal government and Crown corporations, chartered banks, airlines, and the Canadian Armed Forces are covered by federal employment legislation. a True b False QuestionID: 01-63 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: a. True 64. Which of the following is a labour market issue: A) Controlling data and privacy B) Managing sustainability C) Ability to pay/give benefits D) Changes to workforce composition E) Corporate social responsibility QuestionID: 01-64 18

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Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: D) Changes to workforce composition 65. Canada is a ____ _____ oriented economy.

A) small business B) large business C) labour market D) manufacturing and construction E) manufacturing sector QuestionID: 01-65 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: A) small business 66. Some experts say that a shared responsibility for talent management will becomes fully embedded as an everyday part of doing business. Which two groups should share responsibility for the day-to-day human resource management in a company?

A) Line managers and HR professionals B) Front-line workers and HR professionals C) Recruiters and HR professionals D) HR executives and HR professionals E) The CEO (or equivalent) and HR professionals QuestionID: 01-66 Objective: 1.1—Define what human resources management [HRM] is and analyze how it relates to the management process and non-HR managers.

Answer: A) Line managers and HR professionals 67. Which of the following is the best example of crowdsourcing for recruitment?

A) A company asks current employees for names and contact information of people that might be a good fit for the company as employees B) A company encourages employees in non-HR and non-management positions to be involved in the hiring process.

C) A company asks applicants to contact current employees to learn more about the organization D) A company asks employees who retired early to return to work in a part-time or non-permanent capacity E) HR departments ask applicants to interview for other jobs in the organization, not just the one that they applied for.

QuestionID: 01-67 Objective: 1.2—Explain how HRM has changed over time to include a higher-level advisory role.

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Answer: B) A company encourages employees in non-HR and non-management positions to be involved in the hiring process.

68. Explain four reasons why it is more complicated being an HR manager today than it was 50 years ago? (1 point per explanation) QuestionID: 01-68 Objective: 1.2—Explain how HRM has changed over time to include a higher-level advisory role.

Answer: The answer should highlight the move from operational functions of HR to the strategic. The answer can address a series of internal and external environmental changes. Here are some examples from the book: - Many employers are changing how they organize their HR functions (e.g., silos versus teams).

- Tasks such as formulating strategic plans and making data-based decisions require new competencies and skills.

- HR managers can't just be good at traditional personnel tasks such as hiring and training. HR must "speak the CFO's language" by defending HR plans in measurable terms (such as return on investment).

- To create strategic plans, the HR manager must understand strategic planning, marketing, production, and finance.

- As companies merge and expand abroad, HR must be able to formulate and implement large-scale organizational changes, drive employee engagement, and redesign organizational structures and/or work processes.

- Many HR professionals need to acquire more broad-based business knowledge and skill sets to be considered and respected as equal business partners by other executives in the company.

69. In recent years, most of the Fortune 500 companies have rejected the use of talent platforms like Upwork, TopTal, Amazon Mechanical Turk because these talent platforms focus on accessing low skilled permanent workers. a True b False QuestionID: 01-69 Objective: 1.2—Explain how HRM has changed over time to include a higher-level advisory role.

Answer: b. False 70. Which of the following is the best example of allyship?

A) A young immigrant if frequently interrupted in an internal meeting, and rarely gets a chance to finish their thoughts, while others are interrupted much less. The meeting lead stops the person interrupting and asks them to let the young immigrant finish their thought.

B) Establishing a company policy whereby all employees are referred to using the pronoun "they" rather than the pronoun of their choice.

C) Unintentionally having fewer persons of colour in executive positions due to indirect biases in the development program.

D) Providing funding and time off of work for only marginalized groups to attend diversity, equity, and inclusion workshops.

E) Providing funding and time off of work for only members of historically privileged groups to attend 20

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diversity, equity, and inclusion workshops.

QuestionID: 01-70 Objective: 1.2—Explain how HRM has changed over time to include a higher-level advisory role.

Answer: A) A young immigrant if frequently interrupted in an internal meeting, and rarely gets a chance to finish their thoughts, while others are interrupted much less. The meeting lead stops the person interrupting and asks them to let the young immigrant finish their thought.

71. Other than the Certified Professional in HR (CPHR) or Certified HR Professional (CHRP) designations, there are very few additional international and national level designations to identify specialized areas of expertise in HR. a True b False QuestionID: 01-71 Objective: 1.4—Describe professionalism and ethics in the HRM function.

Answer: b. False 72. The HR audit of an organization found that visible minorities were more likely to have jobs identified as data entry jobs with low pay. In comparison, jobs that were identified as information management jobs with higher pay has significantly fewer visible minorities, although the two jobs shared a lot of the same core tasks and skills. What is this an example of?

A) occupational segregation B) allyship C) affirmative action D) occupational silos E) job stratification QuestionID: 01-72 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, and explain their impact.

Answer: A) occupational segregation 73. Gurdeep works in a lab at a Medical Center. Gurdeep is hired on a contract under a company name he registered (as the sole employee in the company). The Medical Center controls what work is done, where it is done and evaluates his performance. They also pay him directly. Therefore, the work that he is completing is deemed to be contract work and he does not have rights under any other employment relationship or considerations. a True b False QuestionID: 01-73 Objective: 1.5—Discuss the internal and external environmental factors affecting HRM policies and practices, 21

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and explain their impact.

Answer: b. False

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Human Resources Management in Canada, 15Ce (Dessler) Chapter 02: The Changing Legal Emphasis: Compliance and Impact on Canadian Workplaces 1. A main objective of employment legislation in Canada is to prevent employers from exploiting paid workers. a True b False QuestionID: 02-01 Objective: 2.1—Explain how employment-related issues are governed in Canada.

Answer: a. True 2. A company with employees in different provinces/territories must monitor the legislation in each of those jurisdictions because A) legislation often remains the same over time.

B) legislation changes and it may vary from one jurisdiction to another.

C) it is required under the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms.

D) it is required under Constitutional Law. E) legislation has commonalities across jurisdictions.

QuestionID: 02-02 Objective: 2.1—Explain how employment-related issues are governed in Canada.

Answer: B) legislation changes and it may vary from one jurisdiction to another.

3. The government in each jurisdiction has created special regulatory bodies to enforce compliance with the law and aid in its interpretation. Two such bodies are the A) human rights commissions and labour unions.

B) ministries of labour and the HRSDC. C) ministries of labour and labour unions.

D) employment equity commissions and ministries of labour.

E) human rights commissions and ministries of labour.

QuestionID: 02-03 Objective: 2.1—Explain how employment-related issues are governed in Canada.

Answer: E) human rights commissions and ministries of labour.

4. Establishing minimum employee entitlements is most closely associated with A) employment equity legislation.

B) the Charter of Rights and Freedoms.

C) pay equity legislation.

D) human rights legislation.

E) employment (labour) standards legislation.

QuestionID: 02-04 1

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Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: E) employment (labour) standards legislation.

5. Contract law governs collective agreements and individual employment contracts. a True b False QuestionID: 02-05 Objective: 2.1—Explain how employment-related issues are governed in Canada.

Answer: a. True 6. The Charter of Rights and Freedoms A) is part of the Constitution Act of 1992.

B) is province/territory-level legislation.

C) is primarily judge-based law.

D) takes precedence over all other laws.

E) is fairly limited in scope.

QuestionID: 02-06 Objective: 2.1—Explain how employment-related issues are governed in Canada.

Answer: D) takes precedence over all other laws.

7. The Charter of Rights and Freedom applies to actions at which level(s) of government?

A) Municipal B) Provincial C) Federal D) Territorial and municipal E) Federal, provincial and territorial, and municipal QuestionID: 02-07 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: E) Federal, provincial and territorial, and municipal 8. Which of the following statements describe the Charter of Rights and Freedoms accurately?

A) The Charter establishes minimum terms and conditions of the employment relationship.

B) The Courts of Appeal are the ultimate interpreters of the Charter.

C) The Charter allows laws to infringe on Charter rights if they can be demonstrably justified as reasonable limits in a free and democratic society.

D) Employment standards legislation supersedes the Charter.

E) It applies to employees in certain provinces only.

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QuestionID: 02-08 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: C) The Charter allows laws to infringe on Charter rights if they can be demonstrably justified as reasonable limits in a free and democratic society.

9. The Charter of Rights and Freedoms and the rights it contains, such as freedom of association, apply to A) actions of the federal government only.

B) actions of the municipal governments only.

C) actions of the federal, provincial/territorial, and municipal governments.

D) actions of the provincial/territorial governments only.

E) actions of the public government only.

QuestionID: 02-09 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: C) actions of the federal, provincial/territorial, and municipal governments.

10. Which of the following statements about the Charter of Rights and Freedoms is true?

A) The federal government is the ultimate interpreter of the Charter.

B) The Charter guarantees the right to paid employment.

C) The Charter specifically prohibits unintentional discrimination in employment situations.

D) The Charter provides for minority language education rights and the right to live and work anywhere in Canada.

E) The Charter guarantees the right to strike.

QuestionID: 02-10 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: D) The Charter provides for minority language education rights and the right to live and work anywhere in Canada.

11. Human rights legislation A) primarily affects compensation and selection.

B) prohibits intentional discrimination only.

C) protects every person residing in Canada.

D) is quite limited in scope.

E) is critically important to HR specialists, but has a relatively insignificant impact on supervisors and managers throughout the firm.

QuestionID: 02-11 Objective: 2.1—Explain how employment-related issues are governed in Canada.

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Answer: C) protects every person residing in Canada.

12. In Canada, all individuals who are paid by temporary agencies, rather than the company that they provide the temporary help to, are ineligible for employee status. a True b False QuestionID: 02-12 Objective: 2.1—Explain how employment-related issues are governed in Canada.

Answer: b. False 13. Mateo works as a maintenance contractor for an old age home. Under what condition would he be considered self-employed?

A) Mateo buys and maintains all of the tools for fixing the building.

B) Mateo is dispatched to fix things in the building by the old age home manager C) Mateo has no one working under him or for him.

D) Mateo gets a bonus when he comes up with ways for the old age the costs of maintenance E) Mateo attends training on communication and risk management at the same time and location as employees in the old age home.

QuestionID: 02-13 Objective: 2.1—Explain how employment-related issues are governed in Canada.

Answer: A) Mateo buys and maintains all of the tools for fixing the building.

14. Haohan is hired under a contract for a publishing company to edit and update the test bank for a new edition of a textbook. Under what condition would she be considered an employee?

A) She is given chapters with a specific due date for completion but can work when and where she wants.

B) The company owns and maintains a unique software used for editing the files.

C) The company offers base pay with no bonus for early completion of the project.

D) She asks if she can use an audio dictation software to speed up her review, and the company says she can determine what she uses but they will not pay for it.

E) She independently hires someone to review her review (as a subcontractor).

QuestionID: 02-14 Objective: 2.1—Explain how employment-related issues are governed in Canada.

Answer: B) The company owns and maintains a unique software used for editing the files.

15. All jurisdictions in Canada prohibit discrimination on the grounds of: A) age B) source of income C) criminal conviction D) political beliefs 4

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E) ancestry QuestionID: 02-15 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: D) political beliefs 16. A company that is ready to launch its operations to other countries purposely passes over some employees for related management positions, feeling their ethnic background would hinder the development of relationships and sales. This is a direct violation of the A) Citizen Rights Act. B) Employment Standards Act. C) human rights legislation of the applicable province or territory.

D) employment equity legislation of the applicable province or territory.

E) health and safety legislation of the applicable province or territory.

QuestionID: 02-16 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: C) human rights legislation of the applicable province or territory.

17. Samantha sends four of her five employees for time management training. She does not send Larry as she feels Larry is too old and therefore "stuck in his ways." What is this an example of?

A) Discrimination on the basis of association B) Intentional discrimination in the form of differential or unequal treatment C) Constructive discrimination D) Systemic discrimination E) Unintentional discrimination on the basis of association QuestionID: 02-17 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: B) Intentional discrimination in the form of differential or unequal treatment 18. Minimum height and weight requirements that screen out disproportionate numbers of women and people from Asia are an example of which of the following concepts?

A) Cultural discrimination B) Unintentional or systemic discrimination C) Intentional discrimination D) Direct discrimination E) Discrimination by association QuestionID: 02-18 5

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Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: B) Unintentional or systemic discrimination 19. Requesting that an employment agency refer only male candidates for consideration as management trainees is an example of A) discrimination on the basis of sex.

B) discrimination on the basis of association.

C) systemic discrimination.

D) reverse discrimination.

E) a permissible employment practice.

QuestionID: 02-19 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: A) discrimination on the basis of sex.

20. Asking female factory-position applicants to demonstrate their lifting skills and not asking any male candidates to do so is an example of A) discrimination on the basis of age.

B) discrimination on the basis of sex.

C) discrimination on the basis of association.

D) a permissible employment practice.

E) unintentional discrimination.

QuestionID: 02-20 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: B) discrimination on the basis of sex.

21. Deliberately refusing to hire, train, or promote an individual based on any of the prohibited grounds is an example of A) intentional discrimination.

B) proactive recruitment.

C) systemic discrimination.

D) unintentional discrimination.

E) a permissible employment practice.

QuestionID: 02-21 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: A) intentional discrimination.

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22. Kareem and his wife became first-time parents. Kareem's manager was going to promote him to Assistant Manager but since there would be travel involved, the manager promoted another employee who would not have as much responsibility at home. What is this an example of?

A) Concurrent discrimination B) Discrimination on the basis of association C) Discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation D) Incomplete discrimination E) Reverse discrimination QuestionID: 02-22 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: B) Discrimination on the basis of association 23. An employer requesting that an employment agency refer only male candidates for consideration as management trainees is an example of A) unintentional discrimination.

B) constructive discrimination.

C) systemic discrimination.

D) discrimination because of association.

E) intentional discrimination indirectly through another party.

QuestionID: 02-23 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: E) intentional discrimination indirectly through another party.

24. A company has a job evaluation system that is not gender-neutral; that is, it undervalues traditional femaledominated jobs. This is an example of A) discrimination on the basis of age.

B) unconstructive discrimination.

C) concurrent discrimination.

D) intersectional discrimination.

E) systemic discrimination.

QuestionID: 02-24 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: E) systemic discrimination.

25. An example of systemic discrimination is A) internal or word-of-mouth hiring policies in workplaces that have embraced diversity.

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B) job-related employment tests that do not have subgroup differences.

C) job evaluation systems that are not gender-neutral.

D) a job ad that says the company will not hire persons convicted of a crime in Canada.

E) an interviewer who explicitly refuses to hire persons of different ethnic origins.

QuestionID: 02-25 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: C) job evaluation systems that are not gender-neutral.

26. Which of the following statements is accurate about reasonable accommodation?

A) Accommodation well short of the point of undue hardship to the employer is acceptable in certain circumstances.

B) An employer is only required to accommodate in the case of discrimination based on gender.

C) Employers are expected to redesign a workstation to enable an individual with a physical disability to do a job.

D) Employers are not expected to adjust work schedules to accommodate religious beliefs.

E) Employers are not expected to adjust employment policies and practices if discrimination is found.

QuestionID: 02-26 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: C) Employers are expected to redesign a workstation to enable an individual with a physical disability to do a job.

27. A justifiable reason for discrimination based on business necessity is known as A) reasonable accommodation.

B) permissible indiscrimination.

C) unreasonable accommodation.

D) reverse discrimination.

E) a bona fide occupational requirement.

QuestionID: 02-27 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: E) a bona fide occupational requirement.

28. Which of the following is true regarding the concept of undue hardship?

A) Employers are not expected to accommodate to the point of undue hardship.

B) Failure to make every reasonable effort to accommodate employees is a violation of human rights legislation in all Canadian jurisdictions.

C) The concept of undue hardship is very clear and not open to interpretation.

D) Employers are required to completely alter the essence of the employment contract.

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E) The scope of the duty to accommodate has recently been clarified by the Ministry of Labour.

QuestionID: 02-28 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: B) Failure to make every reasonable effort to accommodate employees is a violation of human rights legislation in all Canadian jurisdictions.

29. Adherence to the tenets of the Roman Catholic Church when selecting faculty to teach religion in a Roman Catholic School is an example of A) undue hardship.

B) reasonable accommodation.

C) intentional discrimination.

D) a bona fide occupational requirement.

E) systemic discrimination.

QuestionID: 02-29 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: D) a bona fide occupational requirement.

30. As an example of permissible discrimination, an airline might be permitted to A) indicate a hiring preference for single persons as flight attendants.

B) indicate a hiring preference for single persons as pilots.

C) indicate a hiring preference for women as flight attendants.

D) exclude pregnant women from applying as flight attendants.

E) exclude blind persons from being employed as a pilot.

QuestionID: 02-30 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: E) exclude blind persons from being employed as a pilot.

31. Job evaluation systems that undervalue jobs traditionally held by women are an example of systemic discrimination. a True b False QuestionID: 02-31 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: a. True 9

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32. Define (1 point) and give two examples of unintentional discrimination–also known as constructive or systemic discrimination (1 point each example).

QuestionID: 02-32 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: Unintentional discrimination — Discrimination that is embedded in policies and practices that appear neutral on the surface and are implemented impartially, but have an adverse impact on specific groups of people for reasons that are not job related or required for the safe and efficient operation of the business.

See Figure 2.3 on page 14 for examples that can be used to answer this question. This list is not exhaustive, so refer to the definition above.

33. Identify six prohibited grounds (0.5 points each) of discrimination in your jurisdiction and describe how ONE of the six you identify can be the source of constructive discrimination (2 points).

QuestionID: 02-33 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: Any of the prohibited grounds will do with an example of constructive discrimination, e.g., a height requirement for police officers.

See Table 2.1 (Human Rights Acts: Prohibited Grounds of Discrimination by Jurisdiction) in Chapter 2 of the textbook for answers to this question.

34. What is a bona fide occupational requirement (BFOR)? Define the term (1 point). Discuss the 3 criteria or tests to determine if discrimination is permissible (3 points) and give two examples of a BFOR for a cross border truck driver handling valuable goods (1 point each).

QuestionID: 02-34 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: A bona fide occupational requirement is a justifiable reason for discrimination based on business necessity.

The Meiorin case established three criteria that are now used to assess if the discrimination qualifies as a BFOR (Supreme Court of Canada, 1999): 1. Question of rationale: Was the policy or procedure that resulted in the discrimination based on a legitimate, work-related purpose?

2. Question of good faith: Did the decision makers or other agents of the organization honestly believe that the requirement was necessary to fulfill the requirements of the role?

3. Question of reasonable necessity: Was it impossible to accommodate those who have been discriminated against without imposing undue hardship on the employer?

E.g., For a truck driver, a BFOR would be corrected vision of approximately 20/20, ability to lift heavy material, having a full body range of motion, etc.

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35. Two job ads for a grocery store stocker on a university campus. One is for a convenience store that has only two employees. The other is for a large national grocery store that has 83 employees. Given that Saturday is the busiest day for both grocery stores, both ads say, "must be available to work on Saturday." A qualified individual whose religious observances mean they are unavailable for work on Saturday applies with both employers. Describe the employer's responsibility for reasonable accommodation in this case (2 points). Explain if the employer would be expected to accommodate the job applicant in each case and provide reasons for your answer (2 points each).

QuestionID: 02-35 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: The requirement to work on Saturday is reasonable and would be a BFOR. Employers would generally be expected, however, to devise a work schedule to accommodate the job applicant. For the convenience store, this might not be possible, and the accommodation might be "undue hardship" given the number of people working at the store. For the large national grocery store, the accommodation could be made more easily.

36. Which of the following statements about equal pay for equal work legislation is true?

A) The principle "equal pay for equal work" makes it illegal to discriminate through pay on the basis of disability status.

B) The principle "equal pay for equal work" makes it illegal to discriminate through pay on the basis of age.

C) The principle "equal pay for equal work" makes it illegal to discriminate through pay on the basis of ethnicity.

D) The principle "equal pay for equal work" makes it illegal to have pay differences based on seniority systems.

E) Every jurisdiction in Canada has legislation incorporating the principle of equal pay for equal work.

QuestionID: 02-36 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: E) Every jurisdiction in Canada has legislation incorporating the principle of equal pay for equal work.

37. Equal pay for equal work specifies that A) there can be no pay discrimination on the basis of race.

B) there can be no pay discrimination on the basis of age.

C) jobs with similar titles must be paid the same.

D) all people doing the same job should receive the same pay.

E) an employer cannot pay male and female employees differently if they are performing the same or substantially similar work.

QuestionID: 02-37 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

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Answer: E) an employer cannot pay male and female employees differently if they are performing the same or substantially similar work.

38. If a company classifies male employees as Administrators and female employees doing the same work as Clerks and provides higher wage rates for Administrators, then the company is violating the A) collective agreement.

B) principle of equal pay for equal work.

C) gender-based discrimination principle.

D) Income Tax Act. E) Diversity Management Act. QuestionID: 02-38 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: B) principle of equal pay for equal work.

39. Which of the following statements is true?

A) Human rights legislation prohibits discrimination against all Canadians only in the area of employment.

B) The human rights tribunal has the power to award damages to a person who has been discriminated against in hiring and can fine employers who violate human rights protections, but cannot order an employer to employ someone.

C) It is legally permissible for a bus company to require new drivers to be between the ages of 24 and 35 for the business purpose that newly hired drivers will get the least favourable routes and must therefore be young enough to cope with stress.

D) Systemic remedies include payment for lost wages.

E) The human rights tribunal has the power to order an employer to give a position to an individual who has been discriminated against and also has the power to order financial compensation for pain and suffering.

QuestionID: 02-39 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: E) The human rights tribunal has the power to order an employer to give a position to an individual who has been discriminated against and also has the power to order financial compensation for pain and suffering.

40. Which of the following is correct regarding harassment?

A) Harassment from clients or customers towards an employee is not the employer's responsibility once it has been reported.

B) Harassment is a violation of reasonable accommodation.

C) Protecting employees from harassment is not part of the employer's responsibility.

D) If employers are aware of harassment that is occurring in their workplace, then they cannot be charged along with the alleged harasser.

E) Harassment includes unwelcome behaviour that demeans, humiliates, or embarrasses a person, and that 12

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a reasonable person should have known would be unwelcome.

QuestionID: 02-40 Objective: 2.3—Describe behaviour that could constitute harassment, and explain employers' responsibilities regarding harassment.

Answer: E) Harassment includes unwelcome behaviour that demeans, humiliates, or embarrasses a person, and that a reasonable person should have known would be unwelcome.

41. The Supreme Court of Canada has made it clear that A) it is solely the employee's responsibility to prevent harassment.

B) having a harassment policy is sufficient to prevent harassment claims.

C) supervisors can be held liable for failing to take action against harassment.

D) if harassment is occurring, supervisors can ignore it unless an employee reports it to them directly.

E) harassment by clients or customers is not the employer's responsibility.

QuestionID: 02-41 Objective: 2.3—Describe behaviour that could constitute harassment, and explain employers' responsibilities regarding harassment.

Answer: C) supervisors can be held liable for failing to take action against harassment.

42. A supervisor informing an employee that refusal to grant sexual favours will result in a poor performance rating is an example of A) executive privilege.

B) sexual coercion.

C) a job-related annoyance.

D) sexual annoyance.

E) undue hardship.

QuestionID: 02-42 Objective: 2.3—Describe behaviour that could constitute harassment, and explain employers' responsibilities regarding harassment.

Answer: B) sexual coercion.

43. A "poisoned" work environment is associated with A) an occupational health and safety violation.

B) sexual annoyance.

C) a direct link to tangible job benefits.

D) a direct link to intangible job benefits.

E) toxic substances.

QuestionID: 02-43 Objective: 2.3—Describe behaviour that could constitute harassment, and explain employers' responsibilities regarding harassment.

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Answer: B) sexual annoyance.

44. Jim is a new employee. He makes unwelcome sexual remarks and jokes. His behaviour is offensive and intimidating to female employees. Jim's behaviour is an example of A) undue hardship.

B) permissible behaviour until training has occurred.

C) permissible behaviour as long as it does not violate a policy.

D) sexual harassment.

E) a BFOR. QuestionID: 02-44 Objective: 2.3—Describe behaviour that could constitute harassment, and explain employers' responsibilities regarding harassment.

Answer: D) sexual harassment.

45. Susan is an employee who filed a sexual harassment claim against a fellow worker. Susan felt physically at risk and did not return to work until the matter was settled. After finding the alleged harasser guilty and having him removed from the company, the employer paid Susan for the time she was away from work. What is this an example of?

A) Human rights remedy B) Constructive remedy C) Proactive remedy D) Systemic remedy E) Restitutional remedy QuestionID: 02-45 Objective: 2.3—Describe behaviour that could constitute harassment, and explain employers' responsibilities regarding harassment.

Answer: E) Restitutional remedy 46. Guidelines for implementing a harassment policy should include A) a permissible harassment policy statement.

B) information for victims (for example, identifying and defining harassment).

C) support for alleged harassers.

D) support for retaliation against complainants.

E) permissible harassment policy procedures.

QuestionID: 02-46 Objective: 2.3—Describe behaviour that could constitute harassment, and explain employers' responsibilities regarding harassment.

Answer: B) information for victims (for example, identifying and defining harassment).

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47. Making derogatory comments implying sexual unattractiveness can constitute sexual harassment if the person making such comments continues to do so after being asked to stop. a True b False QuestionID: 02-47 Objective: 2.3—Describe behaviour that could constitute harassment, and explain employers' responsibilities regarding harassment.

Answer: a. True 48. Which of the following statements is true about human rights enforcement procedures?

A) Enforcement of human rights acts is the responsibility of the Ministry of Labour.

B) All costs are borne by the complainant, not the commission.

C) A human rights commission can initiate a complaint if it has reasonable grounds to believe that a party is engaging in a discriminatory practice.

D) Filing a human rights complaint involves significant employee costs making the process not very accessible to employees.

E) Employers do not have a duty to investigate informal discrimination accusations filed against them.

QuestionID: 02-48 Objective: 2.2—Discuss at least five prohibited grounds of discrimination under human rights legislation and requirements for reasonable accommodation.

Answer: C) A human rights commission can initiate a complaint if it has reasonable grounds to believe that a party is engaging in a discriminatory practice.

49. One group identified as having been subjected to pervasive patterns of differential treatment by Canadian employers, referred to in employment equity legislation as designated groups, include A) men.

B) visible minorities.

C) senior citizens.

D) married persons.

E) uneducated adults.

QuestionID: 02-49 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: B) visible minorities.

50. Designated groups often experience differential treatment. Evidence of this can be the _______ of designated groups.

A) higher promotion rates.

B) higher compensation.

C) equal opportunity systems.

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D) overemployment.

E) underemployment.

QuestionID: 02-50 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: E) underemployment.

51. The existence of certain occupations that have traditionally been performed by males and others that have been female dominated is known as A) gender concentration.

B) occupational segregation.

C) the glass ceiling.

D) underemployment.

E) underutilization.

QuestionID: 02-51 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: B) occupational segregation.

52. Saleem is a new immigrant to Canada with a master's degree in management. Despite his qualifications, Saleem has worked as an entry level Clerk in the shipping department of a company for the last year. This is most likely an example of A) occupational segregation.

B) a BFOR. C) underemployment.

D) positive discrimination.

E) justifiable discrimination.

QuestionID: 02-52 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: C) underemployment.

53. Employment equity legislation for the designated protected groups aims to A) bring the six traditionally disadvantaged groups into the mainstream of Canada's labour force.

B) remove employment barriers and promote equality for women, visible minorities, aboriginal people, and persons with disabilities.

C) promote unqualified people on the basis of gender, race, and disability.

D) remove employment barriers and promote equality for people who have been discriminated against based on association and political belief.

E) remove employment barriers and promote equality for people who have been discriminated against 16

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based on sexual orientation, marital status, and age.

QuestionID: 02-53 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: B) remove employment barriers and promote equality for women, visible minorities, aboriginal people, and persons with disabilities.

54. An employment equity program is designed to A) reduce effects of a toxic environment.

B) increase occupational segregation.

C) achieve a balanced representation of designated group members.

D) reduce harassment and related complaints.

E) reduce effects of a poisoned environment.

QuestionID: 02-54 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: C) achieve a balanced representation of designated group members.

55. The first step in the employment equity process is A) creating an employment equity policy statement, which should be filed in the company's HR policies and procedures manual.

B) appointing a senior official with the authority to discipline those failing to comply.

C) creating an employment equity committee.

D) ensuring that senior management will be responsible for the implementation process.

E) the demonstration of senior management commitment and support.

QuestionID: 02-55 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: E) the demonstration of senior management commitment and support.

56. The last step in the employment equity process is A) obtaining senior-management commitment and support.

B) diversity training.

C) implementation.

D) monitoring, evaluating, and revising the plan.

E) data collection and analysis.

QuestionID: 02-56 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

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Answer: D) monitoring, evaluating, and revising the plan.

57. Under equal pay for equal work legislation, pay differences based on a valid merit or seniority system or employee productivity are permitted. a True b False QuestionID: 02-57 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: a. True 58. Men are under-represented in engineering, natural sciences, and mathematics. a True b False QuestionID: 02-58 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: b. False 59. The advancement of women into senior management positions has been hindered by the existence of a "glass ceiling." a True b False QuestionID: 02-59 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: a. True 60. The Federal Contractors Program requires firms bidding on federal contracts of $100 000 or more to implement an employment equity plan. a True b False QuestionID: 02-60 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: b. False 18

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61. Identify the four designated groups under Employment Equity legislation (0.5 points for each identification). For each of the four designated groups, describe the way in which the group is under-represented in the workforce today (1 point for each group).

QuestionID: 02-61 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: Four designations (0.5 points each): Women, aboriginals, people with disabilities, and visible minorities.

Women are under-represented in leadership positions, in education in math, engineering, and technology, and remain under-represented in certain occupations (such as engineering). Aboriginal peoples have an unemployment rate significantly higher than the general population, and work less hours per week. Persons with disability have an unemployment rate significantly higher than the general population and generally lower pay.

Visible minorities are frequently under-employed, with qualifications that are not recognized in Canada.

62. How many designated groups are covered under the Employment Equity Act? A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four E) Five QuestionID: 02-62 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: D) Four 63. The Employment Equity Act applies to: A) All Canadian businesses with more than 100 employees B) Federally regulated industries C) Small businesses D) Freelance employees E) All Ontario businesses QuestionID: 02-63 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: A) All Canadian businesses with more than 100 employees 64. _______ refers to being in a job that does not fully utilize one's skills and abilities.

A) Unemployment B) Underemployment C) Contract work 19

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D) Outsourcing E) Employment equity QuestionID: 02-64 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: B) Underemployment 65. All employees and employers in Canada are covered by _________.

A) employment equity legislation B) The Truth and Reconciliation Commission C) employment (labour) standards legislation D) work-to-rule E) collective agreements QuestionID: 02-65 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: C) employment (labour) standards legislation 66. Recent changes in the Pay Equity Act require all employers, regardless of the number of employees, industry, or financial size, to develop and implement proactive pay equity plans. a True b False QuestionID: 02-66 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: b. False 67. Less than 10% of the 94 recommendations provided under the Truth and Reconciliation Committee are explicitly focused on the workplace. a True b False QuestionID: 02-67 Objective: 2.4—Describe the purpose of employment equity programs and explain the role of minimums established in employment standards legislation.

Answer: a. True

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Human Resources Management in Canada, 15Ce (Dessler) Chapter 03: Human Resources Management and Technology 1. Automation has _______ the need for manual labour.

A) increased B) accelerated C) reduced D) maximized E) eliminated QuestionID: 03-01 Objective: 3.1—Explain trends in the nature of work and the relationship these have with technology or automation.

Answer: C) reduced 2. What has been the impact on Canadian manufacturing jobs from global competition?

A) The skill level required has decreased.

B) They require more workers for the same level of production.

C) They have moved to low-wage countries.

D) The competition has decreased.

E) The pay scale has increased.

QuestionID: 03-02 Objective: 3.1—Explain trends in the nature of work and the relationship these have with technology or automation.

Answer: C) They have moved to low-wage countries.

3. What is the knowledge, education, training, skills, and expertise of a firm's workers known as?

A) Intellectual property B) Human capital C) Workforce diversity D) Employee data stores E) Labour force capacity QuestionID: 03-03 Objective: 3.1—Explain trends in the nature of work and the relationship these have with technology or automation.

Answer: B) Human capital 4. Which of the following is a factor that can hinder or prevent a McDonalds franchise location from automating some of their kitchen operations?

A) there is a labour surplus B) head office subsidizes some of the cost of the technology 1

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C) competitors are automating D) the food services industry has a greater automation potential E) significant increases to the legislated minimum wage are expected QuestionID: 03-04 Objective: 3.1—Explain trends in the nature of work and the relationship these have with technology or automation.

Answer: A) there is a labour surplus 5. What type of question can be answered using talent management analytics?

A) What business should we be in?

B) What are our areas of competitive weakness?

C) Which units, departments, or individuals need attention?

D) Where should we expand our business?

E) What are our retirees doing?

QuestionID: 03-05 Objective: 3.1—Explain trends in the nature of work and the relationship these have with technology or automation.

Answer: C) Which units, departments, or individuals need attention?

6. Which of the jobs below would be at the greatest risk of changes due to automation?

A) Teacher B) Lawyer C) Farmer D) Probation Officer E) Politician QuestionID: 03-06 Objective: 3.1—Explain trends in the nature of work and the relationship these have with technology or automation.

Answer: C) Farmer 7. Information and communication technologies increases the degree of centralization in the organization. a True b False QuestionID: 03-07 Objective: 3.1—Explain trends in the nature of work and the relationship these have with technology or automation.

Answer: b. False 2

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8. A benefit of using HR technology is that it A) reduces the administrative burden on the HR department.

B) prevents employees from accessing their personnel information.

C) allows all employees to have access their co-workers HR files.

D) collects information in a decentralized database.

E) can be accessed only in the office.

QuestionID: 03-08 Objective: 3.2—Describe the impact that HR technology has on the role of the HR professional and the resulting three major changes to the role of HR. Answer: A) reduces the administrative burden on the HR department.

9. What new technology is beginning to penetrate the workplace?

A) Artificial intelligence B) The internet C) Email D) Automation E) Androids QuestionID: 03-09 Objective: 3.1—Explain trends in the nature of work and the relationship these have with technology or automation.

Answer: A) Artificial intelligence 10. A strong strategic relationship between HR and technology allows HR to achieve which objectives?

A) Strategic alignment of HR activities B) centralization of administrative responsibility C) reduced standardization of HR policies and programs D) Improved competitive positioning E) Improved perceptions of HR power QuestionID: 03-10 Objective: 3.2—Describe the impact that HR technology has on the role of the HR professional and the resulting three major changes to the role of HR. Answer: A) Strategic alignment of HR activities 11. Research indicates that companies that use technology effectively to manage their HR functions are more effective than those that do not. a True b False QuestionID: 03-11 Objective: 3.2—Describe the impact that HR technology has on the role of the HR professional and the 3

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resulting three major changes to the role of HR. Answer: a. True 12. The impact of technology has fundamentally changed the role of HR. It has enabled HR to A) increase its involvement in transactional services.

B) decrease the time spent with employees and line staff.

C) decrease its involvement in transactional activities.

D) decrease focus on the customer.

E) increase time spent on administrative tasks.

QuestionID: 03-12 Objective: 3.2—Describe the impact that HR technology has on the role of the HR professional and the resulting three major changes to the role of HR. Answer: C) decrease its involvement in transactional activities.

13. What are the three major ways that the traditional HR role has changed as a result of the technologically enabled environment?

A) Decreased transformational activities, increased training focus, increased delivery of legal services B) Decreased strategic activities, increased employee satisfaction focus, increased delivery of evaluation services C) Decreased direct hiring activities, increased executive focus, increased delivery of outsourcing services D) Decreased financial support activities, increased work/life focus, increased delivery of employee record services E) Decreased transactional activities, increased client/customer focus, increased delivery of strategic services QuestionID: 03-13 Objective: 3.2—Describe the impact that HR technology has on the role of the HR professional and the resulting three major changes to the role of HR. Answer: E) Decreased transactional activities, increased client/customer focus, increased delivery of strategic services 14. Identify and describe two of the three major ways that technology has changed the traditional HR role (1 point for each identification and 2 points for each description).

QuestionID: 03-14 Objective: 3.2—Describe the impact that HR technology has on the role of the HR professional and the resulting three major changes to the role of HR. Answer: 1 point for identifying each major way and 2 marks for describing each.

1. Decreased transactional activities.

Technology enables the reduction of the administrative burden, resulting in lowering basic transaction costs.

Proactive HR professionals leverage technology to improve the design and delivery of basic HR services.

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2. Increased client / customer focus.

In organizations, HR deals with many internal customers, including managers, employees, and all the other departments in the organization. These customers expect HR to understand and respond to their requests quickly, reduce bureaucracy, and provide information that is meaningful, useful, and accurate. In today's economic climate, there is a significant need for HR professionals to understand the financial side of organizations, specifically, how to help the organization control labour costs.

3. Increased delivery of strategic services.

Traditionally, strategy (representing the company's plan for how it will balance its internal strengths and weaknesses with external opportunities and threats to maintain a competitive advantage) was formulated without HR input. Today, HR professionals are increasingly involved in both formulating and implementing organizational strategy.

15. What is one unrelated impact of technology on the human resources function?

A) decreased transactional activities B) increased customer focus C) increased delivery of strategic services D) improved applicant tracking E) a need for more HR generalists QuestionID: 03-15 Objective: 3.2—Describe the impact that HR technology has on the role of the HR professional and the resulting three major changes to the role of HR. Answer: E) a need for more HR generalists 16. Employers are grappling with the problem of how to balance employee privacy rights with their need to monitor the use of technology-related tools because A) employers are trying to understand how to use technology to increase employee productivity.

B) employers force employees to respond to work issues when they are at home and on weekends.

C) employers must maintain the ability to effectively manage their employees and prevent liability to the company.

D) employers want employees to voluntarily maintain the organization's social media accounts.

E) employers fundamentally do not trust their employees.

QuestionID: 03-16 Objective: 3.2—Describe the impact that HR technology has on the role of the HR professional and the resulting three major changes to the role of HR. Answer: C) employers must maintain the ability to effectively manage their employees and prevent liability to the company.

17. The Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act governs A) the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information across Canada.

B) systemic remedies for harassment.

C) reasonable accommodations for the functionally illiterate.

D) tort law provisions.

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E) employment equity programs.

QuestionID: 03-17 Objective: 3.2—Describe the impact that HR technology has on the role of the HR professional and the resulting three major changes to the role of HR. Answer: A) the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information across Canada.

18. ABC Company has installed video surveillance equipment throughout its premises, including in the employee washrooms, to prevent theft of company equipment and supplies. What would the likely result be if employees challenged the washroom specific surveillance as an invasion of privacy in the court system?

A) Courts would uphold the right of ABC company to install video surveillance equipment anywhere on its property.

B) Courts would deny the right of ABC company to install video surveillance equipment anywhere on its property.

C) If the company could demonstrate evidence of widespread employee theft, then the surveillance system would be allowed.

D) Courts would refuse to rule because they are not involved in surveillance cases.

E) Courts would ask if there is a less invasive way to monitor employees and request other means to be used.

QuestionID: 03-18 Objective: 3.2—Describe the impact that HR technology has on the role of the HR professional and the resulting three major changes to the role of HR. Answer: E) Courts would ask if there is a less invasive way to monitor employees and request other means to be used.

19. XYZ is a technology company. In the lobby of its corporate office, it has a large-screen television that profiles employees who work at XYZ. Employees are asked to supply their name, business title, and their favourite hobby. The collection of employee information for this purpose A) is a violation of PIPEDA and would never be allowed.

B) can be made a mandatory condition of continued employment at XYZ. C) is allowed as long as the hobby listed does not contain any information that is defamatory or would otherwise harm the image of the employer.

D) is allowed as long as everyone participates without discrimination based on age, race, or sex.

E) is allowed if employees give their consent.

QuestionID: 03-19 Objective: 3.2—Describe the impact that HR technology has on the role of the HR professional and the resulting three major changes to the role of HR. Answer: E) is allowed if employees give their consent.

20. A company policy that allows for the monitoring of employee use of the internet on company computers is a violation of the privacy rights of employees.

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a True b False QuestionID: 03-20 Objective: 3.2—Describe the impact that HR technology has on the role of the HR professional and the resulting three major changes to the role of HR. Answer: b. False 21. In general, courts in Canada have permitted electronic monitoring (e.g., tracking the websites that employees are visiting) as long as there is proper balancing of opposing interests. a True b False QuestionID: 03-21 Objective: 3.2—Describe the impact that HR technology has on the role of the HR professional and the resulting three major changes to the role of HR. Answer: a. True 22. Courts have generally decided that video surveillance is not reasonable, and that other means could be used. a True b False QuestionID: 03-22 Objective: 3.2—Describe the impact that HR technology has on the role of the HR professional and the resulting three major changes to the role of HR. Answer: a. True 23. An integrated system that is used to gather, store, and analyze information regarding an organization's human resources is known as A) a web database.

B) a human resources administration system.

C) an interactive database.

D) a relational database.

E) a human resources information system.

QuestionID: 03-23 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

Answer: E) a human resources information system.

24. The costs of implementing human resources information system ranges, but is commonly A) $1 per month per employee.

B) $9 per month per employee 7

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C) $145 per month per employee.

D) $1000 per month per employee.

E) $1250 per month per employee.

QuestionID: 03-24 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

Answer: C) $145 per month per employee.

25. Much of the data now available to HR comes from A) a data warehouse.

B) the job interview process.

C) the reference checking stage.

D) job application forms.

E) customer testimonials.

QuestionID: 03-25 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

Answer: A) a data warehouse.

26. The main user groups for an organization's HRIS include A) employees, managers, and HR. B) employees, customers, and HR. C) managers, clients, and HR. D) clients, board members, and the government.

E) managers, the ministry of labour, and the government.

QuestionID: 03-26 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

Answer: A) employees, managers, and HR. 27. Workforce analytics are also known as A) biometrics.

B) metrics.

C) psychometrics.

D) data manipulations.

E) data warehousing.

QuestionID: 03-27 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

Answer: B) metrics.

28. An HRIS would help with making which of the following decisions?

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A) Deciding on the auditing firm that should be hired B) Deciding on the recommended salary increases for employees C) Deciding on the next market that should be entered D) Deciding on the branding strategy that should be followed E) Deciding on the most effective supply chain to follow QuestionID: 03-28 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

Answer: B) Deciding on the recommended salary increases for employees 29. Using tools like statistical analysis to sift through data looking for relationships is an example of?

A) Strategy-based metrics B) Data mining C) Talent management D) Applicant tracking E) Trend analysis QuestionID: 03-29 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

Answer: B) Data mining 30. An HRIS is primarily a transaction processor, editor, and record keeper, maintaining employee, organizational, and HR-related data. a True b False QuestionID: 03-30 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

Answer: a. True 31. It is uncommon for managers to request reports from the HRIS. a True b False QuestionID: 03-31 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

Answer: b. False 32. A learning management system is part of which of the following HRIS components?

A) Employment equity B) Performance evaluation C) Organizational management 9

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D) Training and development E) Employee administration QuestionID: 03-32 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

Answer: D) Training and development 33. Tamara is an HR Manager and is analyzing data regarding the length of service related to the amount of vacation time employees are given. Which source of information will help Tamara the most?

A) Labour relations B) Payroll interface C) Employee equity D) Time and attendance E) Performance evaluation QuestionID: 03-33 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

Answer: D) Time and attendance 34. Joseph's company is undergoing fast growth. He would like to begin maintaining records of the skill level of candidates that have applied to the company for employment so that he can have a pool of talent to go to when needed. Which information will Joseph use to do this?

A) Labour relations B) Payroll interface C) Employment equity information D) Performance management E) Recruitment and applicant tracking QuestionID: 03-34 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

Answer: E) Recruitment and applicant tracking 35. Which subsystem of a company's HRIS will be most helpful for providing information, such as the date of plan entry, normal retirement date, and annual company contribution?

A) Labour relations B) Pension administration C) Employment equity D) Training and development E) Compensation and benefits administration QuestionID: 03-35 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

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Answer: B) Pension administration 36. Which of the following is a special software tool that supports internet training by helping employers identify training needs as well as scheduling, delivering, assessing, and managing the online training itself?

A) Learning management systems B) Talent management systems C) Development management systems D) Management information systems E) Leadership information systems QuestionID: 03-36 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

Answer: A) Learning management systems 37. Stacey needs to ensure that her team has completed health and safety training. Which software tool will help her?

A) Learning management systems B) Talent management systems C) Development management systems D) Management information systems E) Leadership information systems QuestionID: 03-37 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

Answer: A) Learning management systems 38. Payroll is often one of the first functions employers outsource because of its complexity and the need for accuracy. a True b False QuestionID: 03-38 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

Answer: a. True 39. Stacey works for a large organization and she scans her employer's website to determine if there is any online training to help her improve her presentation skills. What is the name for the part of the employer's website where Stacey will most likely find online access to training courses?

A) Skills exchange blog B) Instructional database C) Training menu D) Learning portal E) Skills module 11

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QuestionID: 03-39 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

Answer: D) Learning portal 40. Identify three reasons why employers integrate their learning management and talent management systems?

(1 point per reason) QuestionID: 03-40 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

Answer: To have skills inventories and succession plans automatically update as employees complete their training.

To have better visibility into the training needs of their top performers.

To identify training gaps.

To build succession plans.

41. Employment equity reports can be generated from HRIS enabling companies to easily report on employment equity requirements. a True b False QuestionID: 03-41 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

Answer: a. True 42. Recruitment and applicant tracking is a subsystem in an HRIS that enables an organization to program rules into the system, such as how unused vacation can accumulate. a True b False QuestionID: 03-42 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

Answer: b. False 43. Talent analytics help managers to answer six types of talent management questions. A manager analyzing why employees choose to stay with or leave the company is addressing the question related to the talent value model. a True b False QuestionID: 03-43 Objective: 3.1—Explain trends in the nature of work and the relationship these have with technology or 12

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automation.

Answer: a. True 44. Which of the following refers to a web-based application that enables managers and employees to access and manage information directly without having to go through HR or higher-level management?

A) Self-service options B) The autonomous HRIS C) The decentralized HRIS D) Relational database options E) Transactional database options QuestionID: 03-44 Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

Answer: A) Self-service options 45. Celine is a Sales Account Manager. Before calling on a customer she can look into the financial records of her company's system to determine whether the customer has had any previous payment issues when interacting with other departments in her company. What kind of system does this company have?

A) MRP (Major Repository Process) B) SAT (Secured Access Transition) C) ERP (Enterprise Resource Planning) D) SMM (Systems Multi-level Management) E) RFP (Requirements for Personnel) QuestionID: 03-45 Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

Answer: C) ERP (Enterprise Resource Planning) 46. A system that supports company-wide or cross-functional requirements, rather than a single department or group within the organization, is known as a(n) A) HRIS. B) intranet.

C) enterprise resource planning.

D) HR portal.

E) relational database.

QuestionID: 03-46 Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

Answer: C) enterprise resource planning.

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47. A company in the banking industry has decided to purchase a human resources information system. The organization is conducting a review of the company's background, management and HR considerations, and technical considerations. The company is in the ________ of the selection process.

A) integration phase B) implementation phase C) adoption phase D) revision phase E) cost analysis phase QuestionID: 03-47 Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

Answer: C) adoption phase 48. Liana is conducting a needs analysis determine the best HRIS for her company. She is comparing hardware, operating systems, networking, and telecommunications. Which area of the HRIS is Liana focusing on?

A) Company background B) Management considerations C) Technical considerations D) HR considerations E) Cost considerations QuestionID: 03-48 Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

Answer: C) Technical considerations 49. A company requests that HRIS vendors submit proposals about what HRIS systems they have available, what the systems can do, and how much they cost. What is this request known as?

A) The adoption phase request B) Request for information C) Request for proposal D) A selection request E) The implementation phase request QuestionID: 03-49 Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

Answer: C) Request for proposal 50. Organizations typically require HR software after they reach A) 10 employees.

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B) 50 employees.

C) 75 employees.

D) 100 employees.

E) 1000 employees.

QuestionID: 03-50 Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

Answer: D) 100 employees.

51. Which HRIS phases involves getting the system operating in a controlled environment, conversion of existing data into the new system, and establishing security profiles?

A) Needs analysis B) Integration C) Follow-up D) Implementation E) Adoption QuestionID: 03-51 Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

Answer: D) Implementation 52. What is the main reason why there are major privacy concerns when setting-up an HRIS? A) The amount of data stored there B) The cost/benefit of the system C) The sensitive personal nature of much of the data stored there D) The need for buy-in from all organizational members E) The fact that anyone can access an HRIS and modify the data stored there QuestionID: 03-52 Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

Answer: C) The sensitive personal nature of much of the data stored there 53. A company that recently purchased an HRIS train all of their employees on how to use the system. Which phase of HRIS implementation does this align with?

A) Onboarding B) Needs analysis C) Adoption D) Integration E) Cost analysis 15

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QuestionID: 03-53 Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

Answer: D) Integration 54. Which of the following is the term used to describe a self-contained system that does not rely on other systems to operate?

A) A single-phase system B) A stand-alone system C) A focal point system D) A lone portal system E) A central module system QuestionID: 03-54 Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

Answer: B) A stand-alone system 55. Investigating management considerations for purchasing an HRIS is conducted during the implementation stage of the selection process. a True b False QuestionID: 03-55 Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

Answer: b. False 56. What are three key issues to be considered for an organization in Phase 1 (Adoption–Determining the Need) in choosing a HRIS (1 point each)? Briefly describe the three chosen issues (2 points each).

QuestionID: 03-56 Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

Answer: 9 points for correcting identifying and describing three of the five key issues.

Company Background: The industry, the size of the company, and the projected growth are important elements to consider. Typically, organizations require HR software after they reach 100 employees.

Management Considerations: Normally, management would have some preconceived views regarding what they want the system to do and the type of software that might be required. They may want a complex system with enterprise-wide capabilities or a stand-alone system.

Technical Considerations: Elements such as hardware, operating systems, networking, databases, and telecommunications all need to be considered. It is important to understand the kind of technology the company 16

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currently has and is able to support.

HR Considerations: The HR department must consider its own needs. What type of daily requests and which employee transactions would make the most sense to automate? What types of forms, reports, or listings are maintained? The needs assessment would identify the types of data required to produce reports, where these data can be found, and how reliable the data are. HR would look at the manual reports currently being maintained and decide how these can be automated.

Cost Considerations: Factored into the price that an organization can afford are considerations such as additional hardware purchases required, the number of additional staff needed during the implementation phase, training costs, and ongoing support costs.

57. Web-based HR applications have enabled companies to shift responsibility for viewing and updating records onto employees and managers, thus changing the manner in which employees acquire information and interact with their HR departments. Two of the most popular web-based HR applications are A) board and employee self-service.

B) board and management self-service.

C) employee and management self-service.

D) client and management self-service.

E) customer and employee self-service.

QuestionID: 03-57 Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

Answer: C) employee and management self-service.

58. What is a single internet access point for customized and personalized HR services called?

A) An HR intranet B) An HR website C) An HR portal D) e-HR E) An HR module QuestionID: 03-58 Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

Answer: C) An HR portal 59. Some of the common employee self-service (ESS) applications allow employees to A) update the information of other employees.

B) access and manage their personal information.

C) change information about the employees who report to them.

D) update HR and related policies.

E) process HR-related paperwork that pertains to their staff.

QuestionID: 03-59 17

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Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

Answer: B) access and manage their personal information.

60. Employee self-service (ESS) systems have fundamentally changed the way employees relate to their HR department because A) they are able to access and manage their personal information directly.

B) ESS systems have made HR redundant in the organization.

C) they need to visit HR more often for personnel-related information.

D) line managers and employees now have the primary responsibility for HR. E) HR no longer provides personnel-related services.

QuestionID: 03-60 Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

Answer: A) they are able to access and manage their personal information directly.

61. Which system allows managers to access a range of information not only about themselves but also about the employees who report to them?

A) ESS B) MSS C) The internet D) HRIS E) MIS QuestionID: 03-61 Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

Answer: B) MSS 62. MSS systems have been shown to increase the workload of HR Generalists because they are spending more time planning annual compensation increases, viewing employee histories, and initiating requests for positions. a True b False QuestionID: 03-62 Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

Answer: b. False 63. What is a HRIS (1 point)? Identify and briefly describe four of the major components of a HRIS (hint: major components are subsystems that align with a specific HR area of specialization) (1 point for 18

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identification, 1 point for description).

QuestionID: 03-63 Objective: 3.3—Explain the key functions of HR systems and their strategic importance.

Answer: A HRIS is an integrated system used to gather, store, and analyze information regarding an organization's human resources. The key functions of an HRIS are to create and maintain employee records, ensure legal compliance, enable managers to forecast and plan their staffing requirements, enable managers and HR to manage knowledge and talent through career and succession planning, ensure the organization is aligned more effectively with its strategic plan, and assist managers with decision-making by providing the relevant data required to make effective and informed decisions.

There are several different generic subsystems that comprise a HRIS: administration, recruitment, time and attendance, training and development, pension administration, employment equity, performance evaluation, compensation and benefit administration, organization management, health and safety, labour relations, and payroll interface. See Figure 3.2 in Chapter 3.

HR Administration - The day-to-day details of maintaining and updating employee information, such as checking leave balances, maintaining address records, and monitoring employee benefits distributions. HRIS packages substitute powerful computerized processing for a wide range of the firm's HR transactions. HR information systems also facilitate employee self-processing. By integrating numerous individual HR tasks (training records, appraisals, employee personal data, etc.), the HRIS improves HR's reporting capabilities.

Recruitment and Applicant Tracking - One way to track and analyze such data is by using a computerized applicant tracking system (ATS) Metrics here might include the quality of new hires and which recruitment sources produce the most new hires. Includes automated résumé screening.

Time and Attendance - Typically, vacation entitlement is based on service. To calculate this information the HR specialist would need the hire date, any leaves of absence (paid or unpaid), termination date (if applicable), and any other events that interrupted service. This information can be found in an HRIS. Other data that can be found with respect to time and attendance include information on absenteeism (the number of days an employee was absent), leaves of absence, whether these leaves were sabbatical or personal, parental leaves, and the dates the employee started and ended the leave Training and Development/Knowledge Management - Employers use Internet-based learning to deliver almost all the types of training. A learning portal is a section of an employer's website that offers employees online access to training courses. Many employers integrate the LMS with the company's talent management systems.

Learning management systems (LMS) are special software tools that support Internet training by helping employers identify training needs, and to schedule, deliver, assess, and manage the online training itself. That way, skills inventories and succession plans automatically update as employees complete their training.

Pension Administration - For organizations that sponsor retirement plans for their employees, information necessary to produce annual pension statements will be recorded. This data includes date of plan entry, normal retirement date, employee elections regarding contributions, and the annual company contribution.

Employment Equity Information - Federally regulated organizations are responsible for annual reporting of their employment equity information to the government. For example, organizations that are subject to employment equity legislation are required to file an annual report. These reports can be generated with ease if this information has been recorded and maintained appropriately. Some HRIS software interfaces directly with the Workplace Equity Information Management System (WEIMS) provided by the government Performance Evaluation - Employers increasingly use computerized or Internet-based appraisal systems. These enable managers to compile computerized notes on subordinates during the year, and then to merge these with ratings for the employee on several performance traits. The software presents written examples to support part 19

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of the appraisal.

Compensation and Benefits Administration - The HRIS includes information regarding the company's compensation and benefits plans and its policies relating to these plans. For example, information can include the pay increase associated with a promotion, data regarding pay grades and ranges for each position, the bonus structure, and which positions are entitled to a bonus. In addition, information can be entered regarding the type of benefit plans, whether there is a cost-sharing arrangement, and how it would change if an employee took an unpaid leave.

Organization Management - This subsystem identifies the organizational structure and stores job descriptions for each position in the structure. It can also link the positions/jobs to specific workers. It may also have a field to enter the National Occupational Classification (NOC) codes. Department managers or owners of smaller firms often use manual devices to track employee qualifications. Thus, an employee inventory and development record form compiles qualifications information on each employee. The information includes education, company-sponsored courses taken, career and development interests, languages, desired assignments, and skills.

Personnel replacement charts are another option, particularly for the firm's top positions. They show the present performance and promotability for each position's potential replacement. As an alternative, you can develop a position replacement card. For this you create a card for each position, showing possible replacements as well as their present performance, promotion potential, and training.

Health and Safety - Managers should routinely inspect for problems using safety audit/checklists as aids. Also, investigate all accidents and "near misses." Set up employee safety committees to evaluate safety adequacy, conduct and monitor safety audits, and suggest ways for improving safety. Managers expedite safety audits by using personal digital assistants.

Labour Relations - Information such as union membership, seniority lists, grievances, and resolutions can be found in this subsystem.

Payroll Interface - Administering the payroll system—keeping track of each employee's worker status, wage rate, dependents, benefits, overtime, tax status, and so on; computing each paycheque; and then directing the actual printing of cheques or direct deposits—is a time-consuming task, one complicated by the need to comply with many different employment law and jurisdictions.

64. Implementing an MSS system will typically help to _____ the workload of an HR generalist.

A) increase B) accelerate C) reduce D) magnify E) double QuestionID: 03-64 Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

Answer: C) reduce 65. Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HRIS (2 point each step).

QuestionID: 03-65 Objective: 3.4—Describe the three-step process involved in selecting and implementing an HR information system and the benefits of online service applications.

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Answer: Phase 1: Adoption—Determining the Need In this phase, organizations typically engage in a needs analysis to determine what type of system they will purchase. A needs analysis helps the organization decide on what the system should be capable of doing and what the technical specifications will be. There are several main areas to be considered: company background, management considerations, technical considerations, HR considerations, and cost considerations. Once the needs analysis is complete, companies send out a request for proposal (RFP) to a number of vendors requesting details of how the implementation of their particular HRIS will meet the organization's needs.

Phase 2: Implementation In this phase, the company selects a project team that typically includes outside consultants who have knowledge and expertise on the technical side and expertise in change management to help the organization with the implementation. In addition to the outside consultants, there is usually a senior project manager who leads the team, subject matter experts from HR and payroll, and management from the various functional areas across the organization. These managers will be using the system, so it is important for them to ensure that the system is implemented effectively and that their requirements are clearly understood.

"Going live" means disengaging any previous HRIS and providing users access to the new system only.

Phase 3: Integration The final step in implementing an HRIS is to train the users on the system. The organization's goal is for the stakeholders to use the system and reap the benefits identified through the needs analysis. However, many difficulties can arise with the implementation of a new system and, as with any change, people need to become comfortable with it.

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Human Resources Management in Canada, 15Ce (Dessler) Chapter 04: Designing and Analyzing Jobs 1. Alex Griffin, CEO of the retail company Griffin Toys is interested in adopting a talent management software.

Give two reasons why this software would be advantageous for Alex's company (1 point for each reason).

QuestionID: 04-01 Objective: 4.1—Define talent management and explain what talent management–oriented managers do.

Answer: Employers use talent management software to help ensure that their talent management activities are aimed in a coordinated way to achieve the company's HR aims. It helps the manager to recruit, manage, and retain its best employees.

2. When administering steps in the talent management process, it is important to: A) Change the goals in each step B) Treat each step independently C) Loop back through steps for continuous improvement D) Look only at the existing step and don't look ahead to future steps E) Isolate results of each step QuestionID: 04-02 Objective: 4.1—Define talent management and explain what talent management–oriented managers do.

Answer: C) Loop back through steps for continuous improvement 3. The holistic, integrated process of planning, recruiting, selecting, managing, and compensating employees is referred to as: A) Job analysis B) Organization design C) Talent management D) Exit interviews E) Job specification QuestionID: 04-03 Objective: 4.1—Define talent management and explain what talent management–oriented managers do.

Answer: C) Talent management 4. The term "incumbent" refers to A) the individual currently in the position.

B) the person who just resigned from the position.

C) the manager.

D) the applicant for the role.

E) the individual who has just been hired for the role.

QuestionID: 04-04 1

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Objective: 4.3a—Identify the steps in job analysis, and describe the evolution of job analysis.

Answer: A) the individual currently in the position.

5. The terms "job" and "position" can be used interchangeably. a True b False QuestionID: 04-05 Objective: 4.2—Define job analysis and explain multiple uses of job analysis in HR decisions.

Answer: b. False 6. The collection of tasks and responsibilities performed by one person is known as A) a job specification.

B) a job description.

C) a job analysis.

D) an occupation.

E) a position.

QuestionID: 04-06 Objective: 4.2—Define job analysis and explain multiple uses of job analysis in HR decisions.

Answer: E) a position.

7. In an office with one Supervisor, one Assistant, two Clerks, and two Data-Entry Operators, there are A) four jobs and four positions.

B) six jobs and six positions.

C) four positions and four jobs.

D) four jobs and six positions.

E) four positions and six jobs.

QuestionID: 04-07 Objective: 4.2—Define job analysis and explain multiple uses of job analysis in HR decisions.

Answer: D) four jobs and six positions.

8. The procedure for determining the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job and the human attributes required to perform it is known as A) job description.

B) job design.

C) job evaluation.

D) job analysis.

E) job specification.

QuestionID: 04-08 2

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Objective: 4.2—Define job analysis and explain multiple uses of job analysis in HR decisions.

Answer: D) job analysis.

9. Job analysis information is primarily used for developing A) staffing tables.

B) skills inventories.

C) HR policies and procedures.

D) organization charts.

E) job descriptions and job specifications.

QuestionID: 04-09 Objective: 4.2—Define job analysis and explain multiple uses of job analysis in HR decisions.

Answer: E) job descriptions and job specifications.

10. Job analysis must be structured enough to allow for modifications as required while still providing current and future employees with an understanding of what they are expected to do. a True b False QuestionID: 04-10 Objective: 4.3a—Identify the steps in job analysis, and describe the evolution of job analysis.

Answer: a. True 11. Job analysis information should be verified by A) jobholders and supervisors.

B) comparisons with the procedures manual.

C) comparisons with the previous job description.

D) HR department staff members.

E) external consultants.

QuestionID: 04-11 Objective: 4.3a—Identify the steps in job analysis, and describe the evolution of job analysis.

Answer: A) jobholders and supervisors.

12. The final step in job analysis involves A) reviewing employee performance.

B) developing a job description and a job specification.

C) reviewing relevant organizational information.

D) communicating and updating the information.

E) collecting data on job activities.

QuestionID: 04-12 3

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Objective: 4.3a—Identify the steps in job analysis, and describe the evolution of job analysis.

Answer: D) communicating and updating the information.

13. Using job analysis to ensure that all of the duties that need to be done have actually been assigned and for identifying areas of overlap within duties is most related to A) compensation.

B) performance management.

C) restructuring.

D) labour relations.

E) training.

QuestionID: 04-13 Objective: 4.2—Define job analysis and explain multiple uses of job analysis in HR decisions.

Answer: C) restructuring.

14. The first step in the job analysis process is A) reviewing relevant organizational information.

B) communicating and updating the information.

C) developing a job description and job specification.

D) selecting the representative jobs and positions to be analyzed.

E) matching candidates to positions.

QuestionID: 04-14 Objective: 4.3a—Identify the steps in job analysis, and describe the evolution of job analysis.

Answer: A) reviewing relevant organizational information.

15. Job analysis is sometimes called the cornerstone of human resources management because information gathered through job analysis forms the basis for a number of interrelated HRM activities. a True b False QuestionID: 04-15 Objective: 4.2—Define job analysis and explain multiple uses of job analysis in HR decisions.

Answer: a. True 16. Job analysis is defined as the collection of tasks and responsibilities performed by one person. a True b False QuestionID: 04-16 Objective: 4.2—Define job analysis and explain multiple uses of job analysis in HR decisions.

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Answer: b. False 17. Identify the six steps involved in job analysis (0.5 points for each step) and describe any four of the six steps (1 point for each description) QuestionID: 04-17 Objective: 4.3a—Identify the steps in job analysis, and describe the evolution of job analysis.

Answer: The six steps involved in job analysis are as follows: 1. Relevant organizational information is reviewed.

Step 1 includes the review of relevant background information, such as organization charts, process charts, and existing job descriptions.

2. Jobs are selected to be analyzed.

This is the selection of representative positions and jobs to be analyzed. This selection is necessary when there are many incumbents in a single job and when a number of similar jobs are to be analyzed because it would be too time-consuming to analyze every position and job.

3. Using one or more job analysis techniques, data are collected on job activities.

Collecting job analysis data usually involves a joint effort by an HR specialist, the incumbent, and the jobholders' supervisor. The HR specialist (an HR manager, job analyst, or consultant) might observe and analyze the work being done and then develop a job description and specification. The supervisor and incumbent generally also get involved, perhaps by filling out questionnaires. The supervisor and incumbent typically review and verify the job analyst's conclusions regarding the job's duties, responsibilities, and requirements.

4. The information collected in Step 3 is then verified and modified, if required.

The job analysis information should be verified with any workers performing the job and with the immediate supervisor. This corroboration will help to confirm that the information is factually correct and complete, and it can also help gain the employees' acceptance of the job analysis data.

5. Job descriptions and specifications are developed based on the verified information.

No standard format is used in writing job descriptions, but most include the following types of information: job identification, job summary, relationships, duties and responsibilities, authority of incumbent, performance standards, and working conditions. Job specifications (human qualifications) may also be included.

6. The information is then communicated and updated on an as-needed basis.

Most organizations adopt strategies with a three- to five-year target, and many are forced to adjust according to environmental factors much sooner. Significant organizational changes—such as restructuring, new product development, technological changes, and competition—modify the nature of how work is done, resulting in a need for revisions to the existing job descriptions and specifications.

18. Which of the following is one of the most popular pre-developed, structured job analysis questionnaires?

A) The Personality Research Form (PRF) B) The National Occupational Classification (NOC) C) The Managerial Competencies Checklist (MCC) D) The Functional Job Analysis (FJA) E) The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) QuestionID: 04-18 Objective: 4.3b—Describe and evaluate multiple methods of collecting job analysis information.

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Answer: E) The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) 19. Job analysis questionnaires typically A) contain non-job-related questions.

B) contain questions regarding previous employment with other companies.

C) fall between the two extremes of structured and open-ended.

D) have a completely structured format.

E) have a completely open-ended format.

QuestionID: 04-19 Objective: 4.3b—Describe and evaluate multiple methods of collecting job analysis information.

Answer: C) fall between the two extremes of structured and open-ended.

20. Which of the following jobs could be analyzed effectively using direct observation?

A) Human Resources Consultant B) Lawyer C) Forklift Operator D) Design Engineer E) Philosopher QuestionID: 04-20 Objective: 4.3b—Describe and evaluate multiple methods of collecting job analysis information.

Answer: C) Forklift Operator 21. Direct observation is often combined with which other job analysis method?

A) Questionnaires B) Participant diary/log C) Functional job analysis D) Position analysis method E) Interviewing QuestionID: 04-21 Objective: 4.3b—Describe and evaluate multiple methods of collecting job analysis information.

Answer: E) Interviewing 22. Having each employee record every activity in which they are involved (as well as the time spent on each activity) results in a detailed, chronological job analysis collection technique known as the A) participant diary/log.

B) position analysis questionnaire.

C) individual interview.

D) survey questionnaire.

E) functional job analysis.

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QuestionID: 04-22 Objective: 4.3b—Describe and evaluate multiple methods of collecting job analysis information.

Answer: A) participant diary/log.

23. Which job analysis technique is inappropriate for jobs requiring a lot of immeasurable mental effort?

A) A survey questionnaire B) Direct observation C) An individual interview D) A position analysis questionnaire E) A participant diary/log QuestionID: 04-23 Objective: 4.3b—Describe and evaluate multiple methods of collecting job analysis information.

Answer: B) Direct observation 24. The job analysis technique that involves 194 items, each of which represents a basic element that may or may not play an important role in the job, is known as the A) functional job analysis.

B) participant diary/log.

C) structured survey.

D) point factor method.

E) position analysis questionnaire.

QuestionID: 04-24 Objective: 4.3b—Describe and evaluate multiple methods of collecting job analysis information.

Answer: E) position analysis questionnaire.

25. The Position Analysis Questionnaire rates jobs on which one of the following dimensions?

A) Mental processes B) Incumbent education levels C) Incumbent personality D) Previous employment E) Compensation QuestionID: 04-25 Objective: 4.3b—Describe and evaluate multiple methods of collecting job analysis information.

Answer: A) Mental processes 26. The job analysis method that rates each job in terms of the incumbent's responsibilities pertaining to data, people, and things is known as A) functional job analysis.

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B) direct observation.

C) a qualitative survey.

D) a participant diary/log.

E) position analysis questionnaire.

QuestionID: 04-26 Objective: 4.3b—Describe and evaluate multiple methods of collecting job analysis information.

Answer: A) functional job analysis.

27. The most widely used method for determining the duties and responsibilities of a job is A) direct observation.

B) a participant diary/log.

C) the interview.

D) the position analysis questionnaire.

E) the functional job analysis questionnaire.

QuestionID: 04-27 Objective: 4.3b—Describe and evaluate multiple methods of collecting job analysis information.

Answer: C) the interview.

28. An HR department engaged in a job analysis exercise is conducting an interview with multiple employees who hold the same job. Which type of interview is the HR department using?

A) Group interview B) Multiple meeting interview C) Analysis interview D) Structured interview E) Individual interview QuestionID: 04-28 Objective: 4.3b—Describe and evaluate multiple methods of collecting job analysis information.

Answer: A) Group interview 29. Field-based research by Human Resources and Skills Development Canada has resulted in which of the following resources that is often helpful for developing job descriptions?

A) HRDC Job Classification Dictionary B) National Occupational Classification C) Canadian Classification and Dictionary of Occupations D) Dictionary of Occupational Titles E) Standard Occupational Classification QuestionID: 04-29 Objective: 4.3b—Describe and evaluate multiple methods of collecting job analysis information.

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Answer: B) National Occupational Classification 30. The National Occupational Classification is a reference tool for writing job descriptions and job specifications. It classifies occupations based on two key dimensions—skill level and skill type. a True b False QuestionID: 04-30 Objective: 4.3b—Describe and evaluate multiple methods of collecting job analysis information.

Answer: a. True 31. What is a written statement of what the jobholder actually does, how he or she does it, and under what conditions the job is performed?

A) A position analysis B) A job standard C) A job specification D) A job description E) A job analysis QuestionID: 04-31 Objective: 4.3c—Explain how to write a job description and job specifications.

Answer: D) A job description 32. A list of the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to perform a particular job is known as A) a position analysis.

B) a job description.

C) a job specification.

D) a job standard.

E) a job analysis.

QuestionID: 04-32 Objective: 4.3c—Explain how to write a job description and job specifications.

Answer: C) a job specification.

33. A survey instrument designed to assist managers in identifying potential personality-related traits that may be important in a job is the A) Career Information Network.

B) National Personality Classification.

C) Occupational Information Network.

D) National Occupational Classification.

E) Personality-Related Position Requirements Form.

QuestionID: 04-33 9

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Objective: 4.3c—Explain how to write a job description and job specifications.

Answer: E) Personality-Related Position Requirements Form.

34. Which part of the job description presents a detailed list of each of the job's major tasks and describes them in a few sentences?

A) Summary of performance evaluations B) Job position within the organizational chart C) Required skills and experience D) Duties and responsibilities E) Job summary QuestionID: 04-34 Objective: 4.3c—Explain how to write a job description and job specifications.

Answer: D) Duties and responsibilities 35. A job description reads: "This role will report to the Vice President, Sales." Which part of the job description would this information be included under?

A) Summary of performance evaluations B) Job position within the organizational chart C) Required skills and experience D) Relationships E) Job summary QuestionID: 04-35 Objective: 4.3c—Explain how to write a job description and job specifications Answer: D) Relationships 36. The job identification section of a job description includes which of the following?

A) Working conditions B) Position title C) Performance standards D) Job summary E) Duties and responsibilities QuestionID: 04-36 Objective: 4.3c—Explain how to write a job description and job specifications.

Answer: B) Position title 37. The section of the job description in which the major functions or activities are briefly identified is the A) job summary.

B) job identification.

C) job outline.

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D) job analysis.

E) job abstract.

QuestionID: 04-37 Objective: 4.3c—Explain how to write a job description and job specifications.

Answer: A) job summary.

38. The section of the job description that describes contact with others inside and outside the organization (both directly and indirectly) is titled A) relationships.

B) associations C) links.

D) interactions.

E) connections.

QuestionID: 04-38 Objective: 4.3c—Explain how to write a job description and job specifications.

Answer: A) relationships.

39. Peter is promoted from a first line manager to a middle manager. He is reviewing his job description and in particular the level of expenditure in his budget. Which section of the job description is Peter reading?

A) Relationships B) Duties and responsibilities C) Authority D) Working conditions E) Performance standards QuestionID: 04-39 Objective: 4.3c—Explain how to write a job description and job specifications.

Answer: C) Authority 40. "No more than three posting errors per month can occur on average." Which component of the job description would this statement belong to?

A) Job identification B) Performance standards C) Job summary D) Authority E) Responsibilities and duties QuestionID: 04-40 Objective: 4.3c—Explain how to write a job description and job specifications.

Answer: B) Performance standards 11

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41. The document that results from an examination of the duties and responsibilities and answering the question, "What human traits and experience are required to do this job?" is the A) job specification.

B) position analysis questionnaire.

C) job description.

D) job evaluation.

E) position description.

QuestionID: 04-41 Objective: 4.3c—Explain how to write a job description and job specifications.

Answer: A) job specification.

42. Other than the physical effort involved in a job, the physical demands analysis identifies A) religious accommodations.

B) gender requirements.

C) age limitations.

D) senses used.

E) required experience.

QuestionID: 04-42 Objective: 4.3c—Explain how to write a job description and job specifications.

Answer: D) senses used.

43. Describe one advantage (1 point) and one disadvantage (1 point) of developing a job specification based on statistical analysis.

QuestionID: 04-43 Objective: 4.3c—Explain how to write a job description and job specifications.

Answer: One advantage is that job specifications based on statistical analysis are more legally defensible since it is not based on judgement only.

A disadvantage is that it is more difficult to determine the statistical relationship between some predictors and criteria of job effectiveness.

44. Basing job specifications on statistical analysis is more legally defensible than a judgmental approach. a True b False QuestionID: 04-44 Objective: 4.3c—Explain how to write a job description and job specifications.

Answer: a. True 12

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45. Identify four reasons why organizations do job evaluations (0.5 point for each).

QuestionID: 04-45 Objective: 4.3c—Explain how to write a job description and job specifications.

Answer: Organizations might do job evaluations for the following reasons (based on a study by the Conference Board of Canada): - Internal equity - Market competitiveness validation - Good practice - Compliance with pay equity legislation - Other (e.g., required in collective agreement) See Table 4.1 on page 90.

46. A job-requirements matrix includes the job's main job duties, task statements, relative importance of the job duties, time spent on each duty and the knowledge, skills and abilities and other human characteristics related to a job duty. a True b False QuestionID: 04-46 Objective: 4.3c—Explain how to write a job description and job specifications.

Answer: a. True 47. The definition of ________ is the formal relationships among jobs in an organization.

A) chain-of-command B) organization chart C) job hierarchy D) organizational structure E) organizational design QuestionID: 04-47 Objective: 4.3a—Identify the steps in job analysis, and describe the evolution of job analysis.

Answer: D) organizational structure 48. What does an organizational chart do?

A) Presents a financial "snapshot" of the firm at a particular point in time B) Presents a learning and growth "snapshot" of the firm at a particular point in time C) Specifies duties and responsibilities D) Depicts the formal relationships among jobs in an organization E) Identifies by name all of the employees within an organization QuestionID: 04-48 Objective: 4.3a—Identify the steps in job analysis, and describe the evolution of job analysis.

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Answer: D) Depicts the formal relationships among jobs in an organization 49. Which of the following statements about organizational structures is true?

A) The decentralized management approach is consistent with bureaucratic structures.

B) Bureaucratic designs are associated with each job having two components: functional and product.

C) Bureaucratic designs have increased spans of control.

D) Narrowly defined jobs are common in flat organizational structures.

E) An organization's structure should support the organization's strategic goals.

QuestionID: 04-49 Objective: 4.3a—Identify the steps in job analysis, and describe the evolution of job analysis.

Answer: E) An organization's structure should support the organization's strategic goals.

50. Candace works for a small start-up with a few levels of management. Which type of organizational structure most likely exists at the company that Candace works for?

A) Bureaucratic organization B) Hierarchical organization C) Flat organization D) Boundaryless organization E) Matrix organization QuestionID: 04-50 Objective: 4.3a—Identify the steps in job analysis, and describe the evolution of job analysis.

Answer: C) Flat organization 51. Deepak is a Director of HR. He is restructuring the organization from a top-down, centralized management approach with many levels of management to a decentralized management approach with fewer levels of management and more broadly defined jobs. Deepak is planning to move the structure from a ________ organization to a ________ organization.

A) bureaucratic; geographic B) bureaucratic; flat C) flat; bureaucratic D) boundaryless; matrix E) matrix; boundaryless QuestionID: 04-51 Objective: 4.3a—Identify the steps in job analysis, and describe the evolution of job analysis.

Answer: B) bureaucratic; flat 52. A diagram that shows the flow of inputs to and outputs from the job under review is known as A) a process chart.

B) an organization chart.

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C) a job description.

D) a job specification.

E) an organizational structure.

QuestionID: 04-52 Objective: 4.3a—Identify the steps in job analysis, and describe the evolution of job analysis.

Answer: A) a process chart.

53. An organization chart provides details about actual communication patterns, degree of supervision, amount of power and authority, and specific duties and responsibilities. a True b False QuestionID: 04-53 Objective: 4.3a—Identify the steps in job analysis, and describe the evolution of job analysis.

Answer: b. False 54. An organizational chart is often used to depict the organizational structure. a True b False QuestionID: 04-54 Objective: 4.3a—Identify the steps in job analysis, and describe the evolution of job analysis.

Answer: a. True 55. The process of systematically organizing work into tasks required to perform a specific job is consistent with A) organizational design.

B) job design.

C) job analysis.

D) job evaluation.

E) writing job descriptions.

QuestionID: 04-55 Objective: 4.3a—Identify the steps in job analysis, and describe the evolution of job analysis.

Answer: B) job design.

56. Work simplification is an approach to job design. Which of the following statements is true of work simplification?

A) Most of the administrative aspects of work are decentralized to lower-level employees.

B) It may be very appropriate in settings employing highly educated persons.

C) It is effective in a changing environment.

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D) Lower-level employees have broadly defined tasks to perform.

E) It is based on the premise that work can be broken down into clearly defined tasks.

QuestionID: 04-56 Objective: 4.4—Describe the evolution of job design and how organizational structure influences job design.

Answer: E) It is based on the premise that work can be broken down into clearly defined tasks.

57. The field of study concerned with analyzing work methods and establishing time standards is known as A) ergonomics.

B) job analysis.

C) job design.

D) job evaluation.

E) industrial engineering.

QuestionID: 04-57 Objective: 4.4—Describe the evolution of job design and how organizational structure influences job design.

Answer: E) industrial engineering.

58. Making jobs more rewarding or satisfying by adding more meaningful tasks is primarily associated with A) industrial democracy.

B) job rotation.

C) co-determination.

D) job enlargement.

E) job enrichment.

QuestionID: 04-58 Objective: 4.4—Describe the evolution of job design and how organizational structure influences job design.

Answer: E) job enrichment.

59. Job enlargement involves A) vertical loading.

B) multi-loading.

C) systematically moving employees from one job to another.

D) increased challenge.

E) horizontal loading.

QuestionID: 04-59 Objective: 4.4—Describe the evolution of job design and how organizational structure influences job design.

Answer: E) horizontal loading.

60. Amir works as a social media creator. He has been managing his company's Instagram account and his manager has asked him to set up and manage a TikTok account as well. This is an example of 16

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A) industrial democracy.

B) job rotation.

C) co-determination.

D) job enlargement.

E) job enrichment.

QuestionID: 04-60 Objective: 4.4—Describe the evolution of job design and how organizational structure influences job design.

Answer: D) job enlargement.

61. Assigning workers additional tasks at the same level of responsibility to increase the number of tasks that they have to perform is known as A) job enlargement.

B) job rotation.

C) job enrichment.

D) task identity.

E) skill variety.

QuestionID: 04-61 Objective: 4.4—Describe the evolution of job design and how organizational structure influences job design.

Answer: A) job enlargement.

62. Lance primarily works in the receiving department for a manufacturer. Every month he moves around to other areas such as to production to help finish products and to shipping to help with packaging. This is known as A) job enrichment.

B) task identity.

C) task significance.

D) job rotation.

E) job enlargement.

QuestionID: 04-62 Objective: 4.4—Describe the evolution of job design and how organizational structure influences job design.

Answer: D) job rotation.

63. Which of the following is true of work simplification?

A) It increases autonomy.

B) It often leads to higher job satisfaction.

C) Among educated workers it often leads to lower rates of absenteeism and turnover.

D) It enhances skill variety.

E) Among educated workers it often leads to lower job satisfaction and sometimes to a demand for premium pay.

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QuestionID: 04-63 Objective: 4.4—Describe the evolution of job design and how organizational structure influences job design.

Answer: E) Among educated workers it often leads to lower job satisfaction and sometimes to a demand for premium pay.

64. Which of the following is true of industrial engineering?

A) It is about flexibility and autonomy.

B) It is a field of study concerned with human considerations, such as repetitive strain.

C) It is a field of study that is concerned with making work methods more efficient.

D) It is a field of study focused on satisfying psychological needs.

E) It is a field of study focused on worker autonomy.

QuestionID: 04-64 Objective: 4.4—Describe the evolution of job design and how organizational structure influences job design.

Answer: C) It is a field of study that is concerned with making work methods more efficient.

65. Work simplification can increase operating efficiency in a stable environment. a True b False QuestionID: 04-65 Objective: 4.4—Describe the evolution of job design and how organizational structure influences job design.

Answer: a. True 66. Jobs have become more cognitively complex, more team-based, and more time pressured, which has led some organizations to focus on personal competencies and skills in job analysis, rather than specific duties and tasks. a True b False QuestionID: 04-66 Objective: 4.3a—Identify the steps in job analysis, and describe the evolution of job analysis.

Answer: a. True 67. Identify the three main types of organizational structure (3 points). Briefly describe each of the types identified (2 points for each description).

QuestionID: 04-67 Objective: 4.3c—Explain how to write a job description and job specifications.

Answer: There are three common types of organizational structures: bureaucratic, flat, and matrix. See Figure 4.3 on page 79 of the textbook for the characteristics of each type of organizational structure.

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68. Which type of organizational structure would you recommend for a retail convenience store and why (2 points – 1 point for the appropriate recommendation and 2 points for the reason)?

QuestionID: 04-68 Objective: 4.3c—Explain how to write a job description and job specifications.

Answer: A flat organizational structure would be suited for the retail convenience store since the manager might want employees to have a broad scope of responsibilities. This type of organizational structure allows the retail store manager to have a greater span of control over employees while entrusting employees with more responsibility for day-to-day store operations.

69. Identify (1 point) and describe two of the three ways in which specialized jobs might be redesigned to make them more challenging (2 points for each description).

QuestionID: 04-69 Objective: 4.4—Describe the evolution of job design and how organizational structure influences job design.

Answer: Job enlargement (horizontal loading) - Involves assigning workers additional tasks at the same level of responsibility to increase the number of tasks they have to perform.

Job rotation - A technique to relieve monotony and employee boredom that involves systematically moving employees from one job to another.

Job enrichment (vertical loading) - Any effort that makes an employee's job more rewarding or satisfying by adding more meaningful tasks and duties.

70. Team-based job design works best in which type(s) of organizational structure?

A) Hierarchical B) Flat and matrix C) Hierarchical and matrix D) Matrix E) Flat QuestionID: 04-70 Objective: 4.5—Explain the three reasons why competency-based job analysis has become more common.

Answer: B) Flat and matrix 71. Job competencies are observable and measurable behaviours that comprise part of a job. a True b False QuestionID: 04-71 Objective: 4.5—Explain the three reasons why competency-based job analysis has become more common.

Answer: a. True 19

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72. Monique, an HR Consultant, is drafting a job description. She begins by writing "In order to perform this job competently, the employee should be able to..." Her approach is indicative of A) a competency-based job analysis.

B) a personality assessment.

C) a list of job-specific duties.

D) a group interview.

E) a questionnaire.

QuestionID: 04-72 Objective: 4.5—Explain the three reasons why competency-based job analysis has become more common.

Answer: A) a competency-based job analysis.

73. Aligning an employee's competencies with the job can encourage high-performance, be more strategic and support the employer's performance management process. a True b False QuestionID: 04-73 Objective: 4.5—Explain the three reasons why competency-based job analysis has become more common.

Answer: a. True 74. Team-based job design focuses on giving a team, rather than an individual, a whole and meaningful piece of work to do. a True b False QuestionID: 04-74 Objective: 4.5—Explain the three reasons why competency-based job analysis has become more common.

Answer: a. True 75. What are the benefits of having a "virtual team" (2 points)?

QuestionID: 04-75 Objective: 4.5—Explain the three reasons why competency-based job analysis has become more common.

Answer: People can work together effectively and efficiently across boundaries of time and space and use software to make team meetings more productive.

76. A job description reads "Budgeting–creating accurate and effective budgets." This is an example of A) a competency-based statement.

B) a personality assessment.

C) a job-specific duty.

D) a group interview.

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E) a questionnaire.

QuestionID: 04-76 Objective: 4.5—Explain the three reasons why competency-based job analysis has become more common.

Answer: A) a competency-based statement.

77. A job description reads: "In order to perform this job competently, the employee should be able to handle ten customer calls each hour." This is an example of articulating a role based on: A) statistics B) business process engineering C) competencies D) vertical loading E) horizontal loading QuestionID: 04-77 Objective: 4.5—Explain the three reasons why competency-based job analysis has become more common.

Answer: C) competencies 78. Explain two of the three reasons why it is better to describe a job in terms of its competencies rather than duties (1 point for identifying the reason and 2 points for correct explanations).

QuestionID: 04-78 Objective: 4.5—Explain the three reasons why competency-based job analysis has become more common.

Answer: Aligning an employee's competencies with the job can encourage high-performance, be more strategic, and support the employer's performance management process.

Traditional job descriptions (with their lists of specific duties) may actually backfire if a high performance work system is the goal. The whole thrust of these systems is to encourage employees to work in a self-motivated way by organizing the work around teams, encouraging team members to rotate freely among jobs (each with its own skill set), pushing more responsibility for things—such as day-to-day supervision—down to the workers, and organizing work around projects or processes in which jobs may blend or overlap.

Describing the job in terms of the skills, knowledge, and competencies the worker needs is more strategic.

Measurable skills, knowledge, and competencies support the employer's performance management process.

Training, appraisals, and rewards should be based on fostering and rewarding the skills and competencies required to achieve work goals. Describing the job in terms of skills and competencies facilitates understanding of those required competencies.

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Human Resources Management in Canada, 15Ce (Dessler) Chapter 05: Human Resources Planning 1. Human resources planning is a reactive process. a True b False QuestionID: 05-01 Objective: 5.1—Define human resource planning [HRP] and discuss its strategic importance.

Answer: b. False 2. The process of reviewing human resources requirements to ensure that the organization has the required number of employees with the necessary skills to meet its goals is known as A) selection.

B) training and development.

C) strategic management.

D) recruitment.

E) human resources planning.

QuestionID: 05-02 Objective: 5.1—Define human resource planning [HRP] and discuss its strategic importance.

Answer: E) human resources planning.

3. Failure to integrate HR planning and strategic planning often results in A) cost savings.

B) an oversupply of labour, which in turn causes layoffs.

C) complaints to the HR Planning bureau.

D) substantial fines or penalties for the organization.

E) complaints to the Ministry of Labour.

QuestionID: 05-03 Objective: 5.1—Define human resource planning [HRP] and discuss its strategic importance.

Answer: D) substantial fines or penalties for the organization.

4. Before embarking on an HR planning exercise, A) the current internal labour force must be assessed.

B) results must be monitored and analyzed.

C) jobs must be restructured.

D) a forecast of potential external candidates must be conducted.

E) supply and demand must be balanced.

QuestionID: 05-04 Objective: 5.2—Briefly discuss the four strategies used to forecast internal human resources supply and three 1

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types of market conditions assessed when forecasting external human resources supply.

Answer: A) the current internal labour force must be assessed.

5. HR planning is a process of reviewing human resources requirements to ensure that an organization has the required number of employees, with the necessary skills, to meet its goals. a True b False QuestionID: 05-05 Objective: 5.1—Define human resource planning [HRP] and discuss its strategic importance.

Answer: a. True 6. Define human resources planning (HRP) (1 point) and explain its connection to strategic planning using two examples (4 points- 2 points for identifying the connection and 2 points for an appropriate example).

QuestionID: 05-06 Objective: 5.1—Define human resource planning [HRP] and discuss its strategic importance.

Answer: Human resources planning is "the process of forecasting future human resources requirements to ensure that the organization will have the required number of employees with the necessary skills to meets its strategic objectives." The connection to strategy is that an HR plan (HRP) does not occur independently of the other departments within an organization (such as finance, marketing, and research and development). The HRP must align with the overall goals of the organization as well as both the long-term and short-term strategic plans set by the organization. An organization's strategic decision to expand, redirect, diverge, divest, partner, or merge will have an associated effect on the HR expectations and plans of the organization. An example is provided in the textbook (Improving performance at the Four Seasons Hotel pg. 100). The answer must show how the strategic goal of the organization is met through its HR planning.

7. The unemployment rate best represents: A) Persons who were actively searching for and willing to work, but unable to find employment.

B) Persons aged 24 to 64 in the population.

C) Persons who are unable to work due to illness, personal reasons or due to education.

D) Persons who have lost their job due to layoff or plant closings E) Number of job postings currently available.

QuestionID: 05-07 Objective: 5.1—Define human resource planning [HRP] and discuss its strategic importance.

Answer: A) Persons who were actively searching for and willing to work, but unable to find employment.

8. Short-term and long-range HR demand forecasts provide A) half of the staffing equation.

B) external supply forecasts.

C) none of the information for the staffing equation.

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D) internal supply forecasts.

E) the full staffing equation.

QuestionID: 05-08 Objective: 5.2—Briefly discuss the four strategies used to forecast internal human resources supply and three types of market conditions assessed when forecasting external human resources supply.

Answer: A) half of the staffing equation.

9. Human resources planning occurs independently of other departments in an organization a True b False QuestionID: 05-09 Objective: 5.1—Define human resources planning [HRP] and discuss its strategic importance.

Answer: b. False 10. An assessment of external factors affecting an organization's ability to find and secure talent, including economic, competitive, legislative, social, technological, and demographic trends is an example of _______.

A) outsourcing B) environment scanning C) performance metrics D) workforce projection E) forecasting supply QuestionID: 05-10 Objective: 5.1—Define human resources planning [HRP] and discuss its strategic importance.

Answer: B) environment scanning 11. Metro Mixes wants to hire a bartender. The estimate for their local market is that there under 100 unemployed bartenders, but 100 active job postings for bartenders. What does this indicate from an HR planning perspective?

A) A labour shortage B) A labour surplus C) A labour equilibrium D) A skills mismatch E) Underemployment QuestionID: 05-11 Objective: 5.1—Define human resources planning [HRP] and discuss its strategic importance.

Answer: A) A labour shortage 12. Logan is appointed to Manager, Customer Service after performing well as a Customer Service Associate 3

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for two years. This transition is an example of a A) horizontal move.

B) merit-based promotion.

C) job enrichment.

D) preferential treatment.

E) job share.

QuestionID: 05-12 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: B) merit-based promotion.

13. ________ is legally required in specific situations, such as mass layoffs.

A) Outsourcing B) Severance pay C) Retention pay D) Bonus pay E) Succession planning QuestionID: 05-13 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: B) Severance pay 14. ________ is/are a visual representation of who will replace whom when a critical position in the company becomes vacant.

A) Outsourcing B) Replacement summaries C) Replacement charts D) Skills inventory E) Management inventory QuestionID: 05-14 Objective: 5.2—Briefly discuss the four strategies used to forecast internal human resources supply and three types of market conditions assessed when forecasting external human resources supply.

Answer: C) Replacement charts 15. The demographics of those in a population, such as education levels, age, gender, etc., are referred to as A) labour market conditions.

B) occupational market conditions.

C) general economic conditions.

D) future needs.

E) projected turnover.

QuestionID: 05-15 4

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Objective: 5.2—Briefly discuss the four strategies used to forecast internal human resources supply and three types of market conditions assessed when forecasting external human resources supply.

Answer: A) labour market conditions.

16. What company specific HR planning information must management determine before hiring and recruiting candidates?

A) How high the unemployment rate is for the current year B) How many candidates for projected openings will likely come from within the firm C) How many new graduates are entering the market D) How many employees are likely to leave to start their own businesses E) How to use Indeed and Facebook QuestionID: 05-16 Objective: 5.2—Briefly discuss the four strategies used to forecast internal human resources supply and three types of market conditions assessed when forecasting external human resources supply.

Answer: B) How many candidates for projected openings will likely come from within the firm 17. The method of forecasting internal labour supply that involves tracking the pattern of employee movements through various jobs and developing a transitional probability matrix is known as A) a trend analysis.

B) a ratio analysis.

C) a multiple regression analysis.

D) a Markov analysis.

E) computerized forecasting.

QuestionID: 05-17 Objective: 5.2—Briefly discuss the four strategies used to forecast internal human resources supply and three types of market conditions assessed when forecasting external human resources supply.

Answer: D) a Markov analysis.

18. Management inventories A) are visual representations of the employees that are likely to become managers.

B) record information about managerial responsibilities and management training.

C) are used to keep track of the leadership qualifications of non-managerial staff.

D) record the consensus of managers on strategic initiatives.

E) provide a record of how different management levels qualify for different levels of salary and bonuses.

QuestionID: 05-18 Objective: 5.2—Briefly discuss the four strategies used to forecast internal human resources supply and three types of market conditions assessed when forecasting external human resources supply.

Answer: B) record information about managerial responsibilities and management training.

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19. Economic conditions refers to A) the impact of fluctuations in economic activity.

B) the demographics of those in the population.

C) the availability of potential candidates in specific occupations.

D) retirement trends in the population.

E) immigration trends in the population.

QuestionID: 05-19 Objective: 5.2—Briefly discuss the four strategies used to forecast internal human resources supply and three types of market conditions assessed when forecasting external human resources supply.

Answer: A) the impact of fluctuations in economic activity.

20. The economy is booming and unemployment rates are low. What obstacle will HR managers face when they want to hire more workers?

A) A smaller labour supply B) Less difficulty with recruitment C) A larger labour supply D) A more skilled labour supply E) More third-party subcontractors QuestionID: 05-20 Objective: 5.2—Briefly discuss the four strategies used to forecast internal human resources supply and three types of market conditions assessed when forecasting external human resources supply.

Answer: A) A smaller labour supply 21. Over the next 10 years, immigrants are expected to account for a(n) _________ proportion of the workforce in Canada.

A) increasing B) decreasing C) equivalent D) unpredictable E) insignificant QuestionID: 05-21 Objective: 5.2—Briefly discuss the four strategies used to forecast internal human resources supply and three types of market conditions assessed when forecasting external human resources supply.

Answer: A) increasing 22. Employees in which of the following groups are likely to retire earliest in Canada?

A) Private sector B) Public sector C) Self-employed D) Primary sector 6

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E) Tertiary sector QuestionID: 05-22 Objective: 5.2—Briefly discuss the four strategies used to forecast internal human resources supply and three types of market conditions assessed when forecasting external human resources supply.

Answer: B) Public sector 23. The shortage of available workers in which occupation is projected to cost the Canadian economy $10 billion per year until it is resolved?

A) Teachers/professors B) Information technology (IT) workers C) Industrial chemists D) Accountants E) Geologists QuestionID: 05-23 Objective: 5.2—Briefly discuss the four strategies used to forecast internal human resources supply and three types of market conditions assessed when forecasting external human resources supply.

Answer: B) Information technology (IT) workers 24. HR demand forecasts attempt to answer the question "How many employees will we need?" a True b False QuestionID: 05-24 Objective: 5.2—Briefly discuss the four strategies used to forecast internal human resources supply and three types of market conditions assessed when forecasting external human resources supply.

Answer: a. True 25. A Markov analysis tracks an employee's previous career movements prior to joining a company. a True b False QuestionID: 05-25 Objective: 5.2—Briefly discuss the four strategies used to forecast internal human resources supply and three types of market conditions assessed when forecasting external human resources supply.

Answer: b. False 26. Briefly identify (1 point) and describe three methods that management can use to forecast the supply of internal candidates for any job openings resulting from a demand analysis (2 points for each description).

QuestionID: 05-26 7

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Objective: 5.2—Briefly discuss the four strategies used to forecast internal human resources supply and three types of market conditions assessed when forecasting external human resources supply.

Answer: Skills Inventories (or) Management Inventories - Skills inventories contain comprehensive information about the capabilities of current employees. They are manual or computerized records—summarizing employees' education, experience, interests, skills, and so on—that are used to identify internal candidates eligible for transfer or promotion.

Management inventories are records summarizing the qualifications, interests, and skills of management employees, along with the number and types of employees supervised, duties of such employees, total budget managed, previous managerial duties and responsibilities, and managerial training received.

Replacement charts - Typically used to keep track of potential internal candidates for the firm's most critical positions. They are visual representations of who will replace whom in the event of a job opening. Likely internal candidates are listed, along with their age, present performance rating, and promotability status.

Succession Plans - Involve a process of ensuring a suitable supply of successors for current and future senior or key jobs so that the careers of individuals can be effectively planned and managed.

Markov analysis - A method of forecasting internal labour supply that involves tracking the pattern of employee movements through various jobs and developing a transitional probability matrix.

27. Which of the following is a quantitative (number focused) technique for determining human resources requirements (demand)?

A) The Delphi technique B) Markov analysis C) The nominal group technique D) Trend analysis E) Managerial judgment QuestionID: 05-27 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources demand.

Answer: D) Trend analysis 28. Which of the following is a qualitative (text focused) approach to forecasting human resources needs?

A) Regression analysis B) The nominal group technique C) A scatter plot D) Trend analysis E) Ratio analysis QuestionID: 05-28 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources demand.

Answer: B) The nominal group technique 29. Calculating the number of employees in the firm over the last three to five years in order to predict future 8

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needs is most associated with which of the following forecasting techniques?

A) Time-series analysis B) A scatter plot C) Regression analysis D) Ratio analysis E) Trend analysis QuestionID: 05-29 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources demand.

Answer: E) Trend analysis 30. Sheila is helping a Sales Manager determine if the sales department should hire more people. They are comparing the sales volume with the number of salespeople. Which HR forecasting approach is Sheila and the Sales Manager using?

A) A scatter plot B) Time-series analysis C) Trend analysis D) Regression analysis E) Ratio analysis QuestionID: 05-30 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources demand.

Answer: E) Ratio analysis 31. In large organizations, HR needs forecasting is mostly A) qualitative in nature.

B) quantitative in nature.

C) clinical in nature.

D) intuition-based.

E) subjective.

QuestionID: 05-31 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources demand.

Answer: B) quantitative in nature.

32. Which of the following would an airline use to visually illustrate the relationship between passenger volume and the number of flight check-in agents required?

A) Trend analysis B) Time-series analysis C) Regression analysis 9

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D) Scatter plot E) Ratio analysis QuestionID: 05-32 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources demand.

Answer: D) Scatter plot 33. Anthony is a company's HR Manager. Anthony tracks multiple variables (client demand, customer satisfaction, employee productivity) to determine the line of best fit in order to predict future employment levels. Which HR forecasting method is Anthony using?

A) Regression analysis B) A scatter plot C) A computerized forecast D) Trend analysis E) Ratio analysis QuestionID: 05-33 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources demand.

Answer: A) Regression analysis 34. Unlike quantitative approaches, qualitative techniques rely solely on A) scatter plots.

B) regression analyses.

C) trend analyses.

D) multiple regression analyses.

E) expert judgments.

QuestionID: 05-34 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources demand.

Answer: E) expert judgments.

35. Two approaches used to gather qualitative data to forecast HR demand (or supply) are the A) trend analysis and scatter plot techniques.

B) nominal group and Delphi techniques.

C) regression analysis and nominal group techniques.

D) ratio analysis and nominal group techniques.

E) scatter plot and Delphi techniques.

QuestionID: 05-35 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources 10

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demand.

Answer: B) nominal group and Delphi techniques.

36. A decision-making technique that involves experts meeting face to face in open discussion to make HR forecasting estimates is known as A) an informal expert forecast.

B) managerial judgment.

C) the nominal group technique.

D) a formal expert forecast.

E) the Delphi technique.

QuestionID: 05-36 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources demand.

Answer: C) the nominal group technique.

37. Which forecasting technique has drawbacks that include subjectivity and the potential for group pressure to lead to less accurate assessments than could be obtained through other means?

A) A formal expert forecast B) An informal expert forecast C) Managerial judgment D) The Delphi technique E) The nominal group technique QuestionID: 05-37 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources demand.

Answer: E) The nominal group technique 38. Which term is used to describe the qualitative approach to forecasting HR needs that involves the exchange of expert ideas and perspectives, and results in greater acceptance of estimates?

A) The nominal group technique B) Trend analysis C) Regression analysis D) An informal expert forecast E) A formal expert forecast QuestionID: 05-38 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources demand.

Answer: A) The nominal group technique 11

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39. You work in a dynamic industry, so you want to use a qualitative technique to forecast long-term HR needs, that doesn't involve experts talking to each other face to face, since you want to minimize groupthink or one person influencing others too much. Which technique is most suitable?

A) A formal expert forecast B) The nominal group technique C) An informal expert forecast D) The Delphi technique E) Managerial judgment QuestionID: 05-39 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources demand.

Answer: D) The Delphi technique 40. The drawbacks of which forecasting technique include the time and costs involved as well as the potential difficulty in integrating diverse opinions?

A) A formal expert forecast B) The Delphi technique C) The nominal group technique D) An informal expert forecast E) Managerial judgment QuestionID: 05-40 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources demand.

Answer: B) The Delphi technique 41. Permitting a group of outside experts as well as company employees to critically evaluate a wide range of views is an advantage of which forecasting technique?

A) An informal expert forecast B) The nominal group technique C) The Delphi technique D) A formal expert forecast E) Managerial judgment QuestionID: 05-41 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources demand.

Answer: C) The Delphi technique 42. A manufacturing firm has a set productivity level, based on how fast their machines can produce the items they sell. Thus, they determine staffing levels and how long they run the machines for based on what the clients have already ordered. Thus, the forecasted number of employees is linked most strongly with what factor?

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A) Turnover B) Profitability C) Absenteeism D) Sales E) Commitment QuestionID: 05-42 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources demand.

Answer: D) Sales 43. Trend analysis is used to study a firm's past employment levels to predict future needs. a True b False QuestionID: 05-43 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources demand.

Answer: a. True 44. Ratio analysis assumes that productivity will increase over time. a True b False QuestionID: 05-44 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources demand.

Answer: b. False 45. Regression analysis determines the line of best fit and often involves multiple variables. a True b False QuestionID: 05-45 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources demand.

Answer: a. True 46. The nominal group forecasting technique typically involves outside experts as well as company employees. a True b False 13

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QuestionID: 05-46 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources demand.

Answer: b. False 47. A pictorial or visual representation of all jobs within the organization, along with the number of current incumbents and future employment requirements, is known as A) a scatter plot.

B) an organization chart.

C) a replacement chart.

D) a skills inventory.

E) a staffing table.

QuestionID: 05-47 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: E) a staffing table.

48. A potential solution when labour demand exceeds labour supply is A) initiating layoffs.

B) job sharing.

C) hiring temporary workers.

D) initiating terminations.

E) shifting full-time workers to part-time hours.

QuestionID: 05-48 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: C) hiring temporary workers.

49. Due to an economic recession, which lead to a drop in sales, Rita's company now has too many workers.

Which can Rita do in this situation?

A) Subcontract work B) Move part-time employees to full-time hours C) External recruitment D) Schedule overtime hours E) Institute a hiring freeze QuestionID: 05-49 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: E) Institute a hiring freeze 50. When labour demand equals labour supply what will likely occur?

A) Work would be outsourced to third party service providers.

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B) Vacancies would be filled internally through training, transfers, or promotions.

C) Managers would be asked to provide a layoff plan.

D) Leaves of absence would be encouraged.

E) A hiring freeze would be instituted.

QuestionID: 05-50 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: B) Vacancies would be filled internally through training, transfers, or promotions.

51. A shortage of employees occurs when A) projected labour supply exceeds projected labour demand.

B) projected labour demand matches projected labour supply.

C) projected labour demand exceeds projected labour supply.

D) hiring freezes begin.

E) employees are rotated to different jobs.

QuestionID: 05-51 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: C) projected labour demand exceeds projected labour supply.

52. In which of the following situations would a hiring freeze be the best HR decision to be made by a company's CEO? A) When the company is experiencing labour equilibrium B) When the company is experiencing a labour shortage C) When labour demand is greater than labour supply D) When the supply of workers exceeds demand E) When the demand for workers exceeds supply QuestionID: 05-52 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: D) When the supply of workers exceeds demand 53. You are the HR Manager of a company experiencing the loss of market share and declining profits. The CEO would like you to recommend a strategy for gradually reducing the number of staff while avoiding involuntary turnover. Which of the following would be the best recommendation?

A) Firing poor performers B) Laying off employees C) Outsourcing jobs that are repetitive or highly unskilled D) Attrition E) Contracting out work QuestionID: 05-53 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

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Answer: D) Attrition 54. What is the main challenge with attrition?

A) It is hard to implement.

B) It costs large sums of money.

C) Employees do not accept this strategy.

D) The organization has no control over who goes and who stays.

E) It results in a lack of commitment.

QuestionID: 05-54 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: D) The organization has no control over who goes and who stays.

55. Which of the following HR strategies will cost a company a great deal of money up front?

A) Offering early retirement packages B) Downsizing through attrition C) Implementing a hiring freeze D) Initiating job sharing E) Laying off employees QuestionID: 05-55 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: A) Offering early retirement packages 56. Creating a job-share position or offering part-time employment can be win-win strategies, since A) the employees involved will be able to work more hours.

B) the employees involved will be able to work the same number of hours.

C) layoffs can be avoided.

D) the employees involved will take home more pay.

E) the employees involved will have less free time at their disposal.

QuestionID: 05-56 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: C) layoffs can be avoided.

57. With which of the following strategies for handling a labour surplus is the potential for a human rights violation most likely?

A) Forcing early retirement B) Engaging in layoffs C) Offering work sharing D) Offering reduced workweeks E) Offering job sharing 16

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QuestionID: 05-57 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: A) Forcing early retirement 58. The layoff-avoidance strategy that involves employees working three or four days a week and receiving employment insurance benefits on their non-workday(s) is related to which HR strategy?

A) Work sharing B) Unemployment insurance C) Position sharing D) Job sharing E) The early leave package QuestionID: 05-58 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: A) Work sharing 59. What do supplemental unemployment benefits do?

A) Provide a top-up of employment insurance benefits B) Provide benefits that are paid indefinitely C) Provide compensation to non-union employees D) Increase income levels when on the job E) Recognize top employees for their contributions QuestionID: 05-59 Objective: 5.1—Define human resource planning [HRP] and discuss its strategic importance.

Answer: A) Provide a top-up of employment insurance benefits 60. The guarantee by the employer to pay specified compensation and benefits to executives in the case of termination due to downsizing or restructuring is known as A) an early retirement buyout package.

B) supplemental unemployment benefits.

C) a guaranteed annual wage clause.

D) a golden parachute clause.

E) wage protection insurance.

QuestionID: 05-60 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: D) a golden parachute clause.

61. Survivor syndrome is A) an ongoing illness caused by working in a toxic building.

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B) a common physical ailment among production workers.

C) a chronic wrist and neck pain common to white-collar workers.

D) a range of emotions experienced by employees remaining after a major restructuring initiative, which can include feelings of betrayal or violation.

E) the feeling of elation in workers when a crisis has been avoided and planned layoffs are cancelled.

QuestionID: 05-61 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: D) a range of emotions experienced by employees remaining after a major restructuring initiative, which can include feelings of betrayal or violation.

62. Outplacement assistance is A) a lump-sum payment provided to employees who are being terminated.

B) when terminated employees are offered another job at the company that they were terminated from.

C) when terminated employees are offered a job at a former employer.

D) a service generally offered by an outside agency that can assist terminated employees in finding employment elsewhere.

E) when terminated employees are offered a job at a competing company.

QuestionID: 05-62 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: D) a service generally offered by an outside agency that can assist terminated employees in finding employment elsewhere.

63. An initial response to a labour shortage is usually A) engaging in promotions.

B) engaging in transfers.

C) engaging in retraining.

D) scheduling layoffs.

E) scheduling overtime hours.

QuestionID: 05-63 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: E) scheduling overtime hours.

64. Entry-level jobs are A) filled more easily externally.

B) filled more easily internally.

C) filled most often through transfers.

D) filled most often through promotions.

E) filled most often through demotions.

QuestionID: 05-64 18

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Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: A) filled more easily externally.

65. Job sharing occurs when an employee covers the work for another employee who is temporarily absent due to illness or other circumstances. a True b False QuestionID: 05-65 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: b. False 66. A strategy used to deal with an employee surplus is the promotion of employees. a True b False QuestionID: 05-66 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: b. False 67. A golden parachute clause refers to A) a pre-negotiated guarantee by the employer to pay specified compensation and benefits in the case of termination because of downsizing or restructuring.

B) when terminated employees are offered another job at the company that they were terminated from.

C) when terminated employees are offered a job at a former employer.

D) a service generally offered by an outside agency that can assist terminated employees in finding employment elsewhere.

E) when terminated employees are offered a job at a competing company.

QuestionID: 05-67 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: A) a pre-negotiated guarantee by the employer to pay specified compensation and benefits in the case of termination because of downsizing or restructuring.

68. To round out her skill set, Neerja, a Manager in Department A takes a lateral role as a Manager in Department B. This is also referred to as a A) promotion.

B) downsizing.

C) outsourcing.

D) transfer.

E) early retirement.

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QuestionID: 05-68 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: D) transfer.

69. You are the HR professional in charge of human resources planning at Blue Fruit Inc., a company that designs and sells cell phones and tablets. Recently, demand for your company's products and services has been falling, resulting in a surplus of employees. Identify (1 point) and describe four possible actions you would consider implementing in order to reduce the labour surplus at Blue Fruit (2 points for each description).

QuestionID: 05-69 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: Strategies to manage a labour surplus include a hiring freeze; downsizing through attrition; early retirement buyout programs; reduced hours through job sharing, part-time work, work sharing, or reduced workweeks; leaves of absence; and termination of employment.

Hiring freeze - Openings are filled by reassigning current employees and no outsiders are hired.

Attrition - The normal separation of employees from an organization because of resignation, retirement, or death.

Early retirement buyout programs - A strategy that could be used to accelerate attrition. It involves offering attractive buyout packages or the opportunity to retire on full pension with an attractive benefits package.

Job sharing - Dividing the duties of a single position between two or more employees. Full-time positions might be reduced to part-time as this is sometimes more effective, especially if there are peak demand periods.

Work sharing - Employees work three or four days a week and receive EI benefits on their non-workday(s) .

Reduced workweek - Employees work fewer hours and receive less pay.

Layoff - The temporary or permanent withdrawal of employment to workers for economic or business reasons.

Termination - The permanent separation of the worker from the organization. Termination is often triggered by a management decision to sever the employment relationship due to reasons that are related to job performance.

Leave of absence - Allows those who may be interested in taking time away from work for a variety of reasons (e.g., personal, educational, etc.) to have a set period of time away from their position without pay, but with a guarantee that their job will be available upon their return.

70. The board of directors of a fintech company have identified the current Chief Operating Officer as a potential candidate for the CEO role in three to five years. This process is known as A) job sharing.

B) succession planning.

C) external recruitment.

D) outsourcing.

E) Markov analysis.

QuestionID: 05-70 Objective: 5.2—Briefly discuss the four strategies used to forecast internal human resources supply and three types of market conditions assessed when forecasting external human resources supply.

Answer: B) succession planning.

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71. Paula is offered a severance package which will bridge her to retirement. This is also referred to as a A) promotion.

B) downsizing.

C) outsourcing.

D) transfer.

E) early retirement.

QuestionID: 05-71 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: E) early retirement.

72. Ben and Felix are both part-time students. Ben works Mondays to Wednesdays as an Administrative Assistant at a medical clinic. Felix works the same job Thursdays and Fridays. This is also referred to as A) a lateral movement.

B) subcontracting.

C) outsourcing.

D) job transferring.

E) work sharing.

QuestionID: 05-72 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: E) work sharing.

73. A content marketing firm has lost a large client. The leadership team has decided to enact a hiring freeze.

What is one positive and one challenge with this approach (2 points)?

QuestionID: 05-73 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: A positive is that the staffing level decreases gradually without any involuntary terminations.

However, in addition to the time it takes, a major drawback of this approach is that the firm has no control over who stays and who leaves.

74. Forecasting external HR supply requires an assessment of all of the following except A) general economic conditions.

B) management inventories.

C) labour market conditions.

D) occupational labour conditions.

E) demographic trends.

QuestionID: 05-74 Objective: 5.2—Briefly discuss the four strategies used to forecast internal human resources supply and three types of market conditions assessed when forecasting external human resources supply.

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Answer: B) management inventories.

75. Four qualitative techniques for forecasting future HR demand are trend analysis, ratio analysis, scatter plots, and regression analysis. a True b False QuestionID: 05-75 Objective: 5.3—Describe four quantitative and two qualitative techniques used to forecast human resources demand.

Answer: b. False 76. Labour equilibrium is extremely rare. a True b False QuestionID: 05-76 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources.

Answer: a. True 77. Both a transfer and a promotion are possible internal solutions to a A) hiring freeze.

B) leave of absence.

C) labour shortage.

D) termination.

E) layoff.

QuestionID: 05-77 Objective: 5.4—Explain how organizations deal with both a surplus and a shortage of human resources Answer: C) labour shortage.

78. Many corporations prefer to utilize this tool, which lists likely replacements for each position.

A) Succession planning B) Management inventories C) Replacement summaries D) Skills inventories E) Executive audits QuestionID: 05-78 Objective: 5.2—Briefly discuss the four strategies used to forecast internal human resources supply and three types of market conditions assessed when forecasting external human resources supply.

Answer: C) Replacement summaries 22

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Human Resources Management in Canada, 15Ce (Dessler) Chapter 06: Recruitment 1. _______ is the process of searching out and attracting qualified job applicants.

A) Compensation B) Recruitment C) Leadership D) Retention E) Succession planning QuestionID: 06-01 Objective: 6.1—Define recruitment and discuss the increasing use of employer branding.

Answer: B) Recruitment 2. Research shows that organizations with superior recruiting practices experienced ______________ than organizations with weaker recruiting practices.

A) decreased market share B) lower customer satisfaction ratings C) higher employee turnover D) stronger financial performance E) increased accident rates QuestionID: 06-02 Objective: 6.1—Define recruitment and discuss the increasing use of employer branding.

Answer: D) stronger financial performance 3. Many employers of choice are applying which of the following concepts in order to strengthen their recruitment activities?

A) Executive empowerment B) Financial risk tolerance C) Social acceptance of cancel culture D) Financial liquidity E) Positive employer branding QuestionID: 06-03 Objective: 6.1—Define recruitment and discuss the increasing use of employer branding.

Answer: E) Positive employer branding 4. What is the primary role of the recruiter?

A) To manage payroll B) To find qualified candidates C) To manage health and safety D) To make compensation recommendations 1

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E) To manage employee training QuestionID: 06-04 Objective: 6.1—Define recruitment and discuss the increasing use of employer branding.

Answer: B) To find qualified candidates 5. Organizations are increasingly interested in being known as A) an employer with high turnover.

B) an "employer of choice".

C) an employer that has the same requirements for all employees.

D) an employer that underpays its employees.

E) an employer with generous severance packages.

QuestionID: 06-05 Objective: 6.1—Define recruitment and discuss the increasing use of employer branding.

Answer: B) an "employer of choice".

6. Recruitment is the process of searching out and hiring qualified job applicants, which begins with the identification of current employees wanting a job change. a True b False QuestionID: 06-06 Objective: 6.1—Define recruitment and discuss the increasing use of employer branding.

Answer: b. False 7. Proactive employers are trying to obtain a competitive advantage in recruitment by establishing themselves as employers of choice through employer branding. a True b False QuestionID: 06-07 Objective: 6.1—Define recruitment and discuss the increasing use of employer branding.

Answer: a. True 8. Define what "employer branding" is with respect to the recruitment process (1 point) and identify the three steps involved in employer branding (1 point each).

QuestionID: 06-08 Objective: 6.1—Define recruitment and discuss the increasing use of employer branding.

Answer: Employer branding is the image or impression of an organization as an employer based on the benefits 2

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of being employed by the organization.

The three steps of employer branding are: - Defining the target audience.

- Developing the employee value proposition (why the organization is desirable to work for).

- Reinforcing the value proposition in communication and recruitment efforts.

9. Usman is a Manager of Data Analytics at Data Enterprises Inc. He has an opening for a Senior Data Analyst and asks Theresa on his team to apply for the role. This is an example of: A) Job slotting B) External recruitment C) Job posting D) Advertising E) Nepotism QuestionID: 06-09 Objective: 6.3—Analyze the internal recruitment strategies of job posting and job slotting, including the importance of human resources records and skills inventories.

Answer: A) Job slotting 10. Examples of job slotting include: A) Social media advertising B) Online job ads C) Succession planning and replacement planning D) Competency analysis E) Severance planning QuestionID: 06-10 Objective: 6.3—Analyze the internal recruitment strategies of job posting and job slotting, including the importance of human resources records and skills inventories.

Answer: C) Succession planning and replacement planning 11. Job openings are identified through which of the following?

A) Job specifications B) HR planning or manager request C) Job descriptions D) Job analysis E) Job evaluation QuestionID: 06-11 Objective: 6.2—Explain the recruitment process and the importance of applicant tracking.

Answer: B) HR planning or manager request 12. What is the first step in the recruitment process?

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A) Selecting the most qualified applicants B) Generating a pool of qualified applicants C) Selecting methods of recruitment D) Specifying job requirements E) Identifying job openings QuestionID: 06-12 Objective: 6.2—Explain the recruitment process and the importance of applicant tracking.

Answer: E) Identifying job openings 13. Determining the job requirements during the recruitment process involves A) reviewing the employment equity plan and updating the plan, if necessary.

B) reviewing the performance management strategy and updating the strategy, if necessary.

C) reviewing the job description and the job specifications and updating them, if necessary.

D) solely relying on the supervisor's judgment with input from employees.

E) solely relying on the human resources requisition form related to the most recent hire.

QuestionID: 06-13 Objective: 6.2—Explain the recruitment process and the importance of applicant tracking.

Answer: C) reviewing the job description and the job specifications and updating them, if necessary.

14. Which of the following would be an example of a constraint that would result from a promote-from-within policy?

A) A Recruiter having to offer higher compensation in order to attract external candidates B) A Recruiter having to offer higher compensation in order to retain internal candidates C) A Recruiter not being able to start recruiting externally for a specified period, even if he or she is aware that there are no suitable internal candidates D) A Recruiter always having to select an external candidate when there is a qualified external candidate E) A Recruiter always having to select an external candidate when there is a qualified internal candidate QuestionID: 06-14 Objective: 6.2—Explain the recruitment process and the importance of applicant tracking.

Answer: C) A Recruiter not being able to start recruiting externally for a specified period, even if he or she is aware that there are no suitable internal candidates 15. The final step in the recruitment process is A) identifying job openings.

B) generating a pool of qualified applicants.

C) establishing the recruitment budget.

D) specifying the job requirements.

E) selecting methods of recruitment.

QuestionID: 06-15 4

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Objective: 6.2—Explain the recruitment process and the importance of applicant tracking.

Answer: B) generating a pool of qualified applicants.

16. Describe three of the four main steps in the recruitment process (2 points each).

QuestionID: 06-16 Objective: 6.2—Explain the recruitment process and the importance of applicant tracking.

Answer: 1. Job openings are identified through HR planning or manager request.

HR plans play a vital role in the identification process because they indicate present and future openings and specify which should be filled internally and which externally.

2. The job requirements are determined.

This step involves reviewing the job description and the job specifications and updating them, if necessary.

3. Appropriate recruiting sources and methods are chosen.

The major decision here is whether to start with internal or external recruiting. There is no single, best recruiting technique, and the most appropriate for any given position depends on a number of factors.

4. A pool of qualified candidates is generated.

The requirements of employment equity legislation (if any) and the organization's diversity goals should be reflected in the applicant pool.

17. Which of the following provides an efficient means of collecting verifiable historical data from candidates in a standardized format?

A) Having candidates complete a personality test when submitting their resume B) Having candidates complete an intelligence test when submitting their resume C) Hosting phone interviews before meeting candidates in person D) Using an applicant tracking system to code and log data from an application form E) Matching notes taken in an unstructured interview with a candidate's application form QuestionID: 06-17 Objective: 6.2—Explain the recruitment process and the importance of applicant tracking.

Answer: D) Using an applicant tracking system to code and log data from an application form 18. Why is there an increase in the use of Application Tracking Systems from Applicant Service Providers?

A) Online tools are needed since HR staff is declining.

B) Most jurisdictions make online applications a legal requirement.

C) It reduces the risk of lost applications and increases the exposure of the job ad.

D) HR legislation requires a hiring process to be completely devoid of judgment.

E) They want to increase the volume of applications for each job opening.

QuestionID: 06-18 Objective: 6.2—Explain the recruitment process and the importance of applicant tracking.

Answer: C) It reduces the risk of lost applications and increases the exposure of the job ad.

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19. What is one of the potential drawbacks of accepting online job applications?

A) It reduces the risk of lost applications.

B) It minimizes the likelihood of bias associated with other forms of face-to-face recruitment.

C) It can result in a large number of applicants putting pressure on staff to manage the high volume.

D) It allows for better tracking of applicants.

E) It allows for better data mining.

QuestionID: 06-19 Objective: 6.2—Explain the recruitment process and the importance of applicant tracking.

Answer: C) It can result in a large number of applicants putting pressure on staff to manage the high volume.

20. Daniel completed an application form that focused on his background, experiences, and preferences, such as his willingness to travel. What type of application form did Daniel complete?

A) Biographical information blank B) Historical career record C) Experience and skills timeline D) Work / life balance evaluation E) Personality assessment form QuestionID: 06-20 Objective: 6.2—Explain the recruitment process and the importance of applicant tracking.

Answer: A) Biographical information blank 21. Biographical information blanks can ask questions relating to age, gender, and race. a True b False QuestionID: 06-21 Objective: 6.2—Explain the recruitment process and the importance of applicant tracking.

Answer: b. False 22. What method would a company be most likely to use to inform current (internal) employees about job opportunities in the company that are available?

A) Job description B) Job posting C) Classified advertisement in the newspaper D) Radio advertising E) Job specification QuestionID: 06-22 Objective: 6.3—Analyze the internal recruitment strategies of job posting and job slotting, including the importance of human resources records and skills inventories.

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Answer: B) Job posting 23. How are skills inventories used with respect to job postings?

A) Skills inventories eliminate the need for job postings.

B) Job postings eliminate the need for skills inventories.

C) Skills inventories are used to create job postings.

D) Applicants must create a skills inventory before applying to a job posting.

E) Skills inventories are often used as a supplement to job postings.

QuestionID: 06-23 Objective: 6.3—Analyze the internal recruitment strategies of job posting and job slotting, including the importance of human resources records and skills inventories.

Answer: E) Skills inventories are often used as a supplement to job postings.

24. What is an advantage of job postings?

A) Unsuccessful job candidates may become demotivated if feedback is delayed.

B) Tensions may rise if a qualified internal candidate was passed over for an equally qualified or less qualified external candidate.

C) Selection may be more difficult if there are two or more equally qualified candidates.

D) Qualified employees are provided with a chance for a transfer or promotion.

E) The likelihood of special deals and favouritism increases.

QuestionID: 06-24 Objective: 6.3—Analyze the internal recruitment strategies of job posting and job slotting, including the importance of human resources records and skills inventories.

Answer: D) Qualified employees are provided with a chance for a transfer or promotion.

25. What is a disadvantage of job postings?

A) Qualified employees are provided with a chance for a transfer or promotion.

B) Unsuccessful job candidates may become demotivated if feedback is delayed.

C) The likelihood of special deals and favouritism increases.

D) The organization's commitment to career growth and development is demonstrated.

E) Organization's policies and guidelines regarding promotions and transfers are clearly communicated.

QuestionID: 06-25 Objective: 6.3—Analyze the internal recruitment strategies of job posting and job slotting, including the importance of human resources records and skills inventories.

Answer: B) Unsuccessful job candidates may become demotivated if feedback is delayed.

26. What is often consulted to determine if there are qualified employees in the company that could be suitable candidates for a vacant position?

A) Job postings B) Human resources records 7

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C) Biographical information blanks D) Blind ads E) Want ads QuestionID: 06-26 Objective: 6.3—Analyze the internal recruitment strategies of job posting and job slotting, including the importance of human resources records and skills inventories.

Answer: B) Human resources records 27. Which of the following is an internal recruitment tool?

A) Internet job boards B) Former employees C) Online networking sites D) Job fairs E) Skills inventories QuestionID: 06-27 Objective: 6.3—Analyze the internal recruitment strategies of job posting and job slotting, including the importance of human resources records and skills inventories.

Answer: E) Skills inventories 28. Which of the following is an advantage of external recruitment?

A) Potential cost savings resulting from hiring individuals who already have the required skills B) The generation of a more homogeneous pool of applicants C) Access to a smaller pool of qualified candidates D) Demonstrates the organization's commitment to career growth and development E) Communicates to employees the organization's policies and guidelines regarding promotions and transfers QuestionID: 06-28 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: A) Potential cost savings resulting from hiring individuals who already have the required skills 29. Which of the following do companies normally rely on when hiring externally for an executive-level position?

A) Social media B) Professional search firms C) University career fairs D) Temporary employment agencies E) Newspaper ads QuestionID: 06-29 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

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Answer: B) Professional search firms 30. Research shows that the most successful way to find a job in Canada is through A) online job boards.

B) agencies.

C) recruiters.

D) networking.

E) classified ads.

QuestionID: 06-30 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: A) online job boards.

31. What is the yield ratio in the recruitment process?

A) The percentage of applicants that have the required skills for the job opening B) The percentage of applicants that proceed to the next stage of the recruitment/selection process C) The percentage of applicants that are current employees of the hiring organization D) The percentage of applicants that have previously applied to work for the hiring organization E) The percentage of applicants that received an in-person interview during the hiring process QuestionID: 06-31 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: B) The percentage of applicants that proceed to the next stage of the recruitment/selection process 32. Using the ratios from a recruiting yield pyramid, which of the following can be determined?

A) The projected turnover rate given the number of applicants responding to a job opening B) The number of applicants that must be generated in order to hire the required number of new employees C) The amount of lead time needed to hire the required number of new employees D) The number of applicants that lack the work experience requirements at each stage of the hiring process E) The number of applicants that lack the educational requirements at each stage of the hiring process QuestionID: 06-32 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: B) The number of applicants that must be generated in order to hire the required number of new employees 33. Time-lapse data refers to the average number of days between what two points of time?

A) when the company is created compared to when it becomes profitable.

B) when the company creates a new product compared to when that product becomes profitable.

C) when a new employee is hired compared to when that employee begins to add value to the company.

D) when the company initiates a recruitment method compared to when the successful candidate begins to work.

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E) when a senior manager is hired compared to when that senior manager is able to increase the company's share price.

QuestionID: 06-33 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: D) when the company initiates a recruitment method compared to when the successful candidate begins to work.

34. The majority of companies use which of the following recruitment tools?

A) Online recruitment B) Open houses C) Job fairs D) Professional and trade associations E) Cold calls QuestionID: 06-34 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: A) Online recruitment 35. What is a disadvantage associated with Internet job boards?

A) Job seekers cannot search multiple job boards with one query.

B) Employers often withhold the title of the job.

C) They are not accessible to new graduates.

D) Internet job boards are vulnerable to privacy breaches.

E) Job seekers are unable to post their resumes on job boards.

QuestionID: 06-35 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: D) Internet job boards are vulnerable to privacy breaches.

36. Recruiters are increasingly using online networking sites to source candidates. One advantage of this source is A) the ability to source passive candidates who are not actively looking for jobs.

B) the ability to conduct face-to-face interviews.

C) they are not usually an extension of the employment brand.

D) candidates are typically not on social media.

E) candidates will continue to fax in their applications.

QuestionID: 06-36 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: A) the ability to source passive candidates who are not actively looking for jobs.

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37. Many employers have social media strategies and career pages that establish an online presence highlighting the benefits of working for them. a True b False QuestionID: 06-37 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: a. True 38. Which of the following best describes "passive job seekers"?

A) Employees that fake satisfaction with their work B) Employees that are happily employed C) Job seekers that apply to every job opening they find online D) Job seekers that are looking for a new job in their current industry E) Job seekers that are willing to accept any new position that they are offered QuestionID: 06-38 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: B) Employees that are happily employed 39. Fake job postings can lead to which of the following?

A) Performance decreases B) Additional job offers C) Share value declines D) Turnover increases E) Identity theft QuestionID: 06-39 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: E) Identity theft 40. Walk-ins and write-ins are A) an inexpensive recruitment method.

B) an expensive recruitment method.

C) generally screened by department managers.

D) the most effective way to find a job.

E) known as nepotism.

QuestionID: 06-40 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: A) an inexpensive recruitment method.

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41. Why are blind ads used in recruitment?

A) They allow for the hiring firm to remain confidential.

B) They are more effective than want ads.

C) They avoid the need for resumes.

D) They avoid the need for an accurate job description.

E) They avoid the need for job applications.

QuestionID: 06-41 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: A) They allow for the hiring firm to remain confidential.

42. Why are want ads used in recruitment?

A) They allow for the hiring firm to remain confidential.

B) They are more effective than blind ads.

C) They avoid the need for resumes.

D) They provide an accurate job description and the company's name.

E) They avoid the need for job applications.

QuestionID: 06-42 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: D) They provide an accurate job description and the company's name.

43. Recent surveys shows that the least successful way to find a job in Canada is through: A) Online networks B) Online job boards C) Social media D) LinkedIn E) Agencies or recruiters QuestionID: 06-43 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: C) Social media 44. The biggest possible drawback associated with employee referrals is the A) potential for unintentional/systemic discrimination.

B) dissatisfaction of employees whose referral is not hired.

C) inaccuracy of job expectations.

D) potential for increased turnover levels.

E) cost associated with providing cash awards.

QuestionID: 06-44 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

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Answer: A) potential for unintentional/systemic discrimination.

45. Which of the following statements accurately defines nepotism?

A) Nepotism is a preference for recruiting mostly new graduates and new entrants to the workforce.

B) Nepotism is a preference for hiring relatives of current employees.

C) Nepotism describes the desire to hire a diverse workforce.

D) Nepotism is commonly associated hiring foreign workers to fill jobs for which a qualified domestic candidate cannot be found.

E) Nepotism applies only to the entertainment industry, indicating permissible discrimination based on role identity.

QuestionID: 06-45 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: B) Nepotism is a preference for hiring relatives of current employees.

46. Nepotism is a problem most closely associated with A) write-ins.

B) educational institutions.

C) human resource agencies.

D) employee referrals.

E) walk-ins.

QuestionID: 06-46 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: D) employee referrals.

47. Co-op students and interns have insider experience with the organization. Thus, co-op students hired after their internship have higher retention rates that new recruits who have no previous work experience with the firm. a True b False QuestionID: 06-47 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: a. True 48. Recruiting through employee referrals is typically a very expensive recruitment method. a True b False QuestionID: 06-48 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

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Answer: b. False 49. One of the benefits of a virtual career fair is A) access to many candidates simultaneously across a wide geography.

B) the ability to meet potential candidates in person.

C) the ability to recruit candidates in a specific geographic region.

D) being able to collect resumes in person.

E) access to a limited amount of candidates.

QuestionID: 06-49 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: A) access to many candidates simultaneously across a wide geography.

50. Mohammed needs to recruit 30 IT specialists in the next 90 days. These IT specialists can work remotely once they are hired. Describe three of the four main recruitment methods you recommend Daniel use to access this external candidate pool (1 point each)?

QuestionID: 06-50 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: Online recruitment includes internet-based job boards, corporate websites, and social networking sites.

Traditional networking includes cold calls, print advertising, employee referrals, and former employees who have remained in contact with the organization. Organizations can gain access to large pools of candidates through relationships formed during open houses and job fairs, professional and trade associations, labour organizations, and military personnel.

Agency recruitment includes Employment and Social Development Canada, executive search firms, and private employment agencies.

Recruitment of non-permanent staff can come from temporary help agencies and contract workers.

51. As the HR Manager for a company, you are hiring for a position that requires some formal training but relatively little full-time work experience. Which of the following recruitment methods is most applicable?

A) Employment agencies B) Newspaper advertisements C) Human resource agencies D) Professional journal advertisements E) Educational institutions QuestionID: 06-51 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: E) Educational institutions 52. Cooperative education and field placement programs are part of which traditional networking method?

A) Print advertising B) Employee referrals 14

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C) Walk-ins D) Educational institutions E) Write-ins QuestionID: 06-52 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: D) Educational institutions 53. Employment and Social Development Canada (ESDC) primarily helps which of the following?

A) Skilled trades employees B) Management-level employees C) Unionized employees D) Unemployed individuals E) Applicants with higher-level education QuestionID: 06-53 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: D) Unemployed individuals 54. Which of the following do firms use to seek out middle- to senior-level professional and managerial employees?

A) A talent scout B) An employment agency C) A professional association D) A trade association E) An executive search firm QuestionID: 06-54 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: E) An executive search firm 55. You are a recruiter with a software development firm and are seeking to fill positions requiring specialized skills in computer programming as well as relevant job experience. Which of the following recruitment sources or methods would be most useful to you?

A) Educational institutions B) A labour organization C) Professional and trade associations D) Write-ins E) Newspaper advertising QuestionID: 06-55 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

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Answer: C) Professional and trade associations 56. Some firms, particularly in the construction industry, obtain recruits through union hiring halls; this method is associated with which way of accessing candidates?

A) Open houses B) Job fairs C) Trade associations D) Professional associations E) Labour organizations QuestionID: 06-56 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: E) Labour organizations 57. Which of the following methods is a retail firm looking to staff an entire new store most likely to utilize in order to access candidates?

A) A professional association B) A trade association C) An open house D) A labour organization E) Military personnel QuestionID: 06-57 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: C) An open house 58. Non-permanent staff are also known as A) new hires.

B) job applicants.

C) work-to-hire employees.

D) job seekers.

E) contingent workers.

QuestionID: 06-58 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: E) contingent workers.

59. Temporary help agencies can be a useful source for recruiting non-permanent, seasonal staff. a True b False QuestionID: 06-59 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

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Answer: a. True 60. Lisa is an expert in executive compensation. She has been hired by a bank to provide three months of consulting work to update the executive compensation plan. What type of employment arrangement is this?

A) Full-time hire B) Contractor C) Offshoring D) Executive leadership E) Succession planning QuestionID: 06-60 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: B) Contractor 61. One advantage of employee referrals is that, because there are no advertising fees involved, paying referral rewards represents a low recruiting cost. a True b False QuestionID: 06-61 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: a. True 62. A disadvantage of using social networking sites as a recruitment method is the cost involved. a True b False QuestionID: 06-62 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: b. False 63. A risk of using social networking sites as a recruitment method is that disgruntled former employees or customers may post negative comments on the site. a True b False QuestionID: 06-63 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: a. True 64. What are four advantages of external recruitment (2 points each)?

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QuestionID: 06-64 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: The advantages of external recruitment include the following: - Access to a larger pool of qualified candidates, which may have a positive impact on the quality of the selection decision.

- Availability of a more diverse applicant pool, which can assist in meeting employment equity goals and timetables.

- Acquisition of skills or knowledge not currently available within the organization or the introduction of new ideas and creative problem-solving techniques.

- Elimination of rivalry and competition caused by employees jockeying for transfers and promotions, which can hinder interpersonal and interdepartmental cooperation.

- Potential cost savings resulting from hiring individuals who already have the required skills, rather than providing extensive training.

65. Why do companies use temporary workers?

A) To supplement a labour surplus B) To outsource non-repetitive tasks C) To acquire employees with special skills on an as needed basis D) To evade income taxes payments E) To improve stock prices QuestionID: 06-65 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: C) To acquire employees with special skills on an as needed basis 66. Temporary workers compensation is commonly ___________ permanent workers compensation.

A) similar to B) more than C) less than D) half of E) double QuestionID: 06-66 Objective: 6.4—Identify at least 10 methods used for external recruitment.

Answer: C) less than 67. Relying on employee referrals can result in systemic discrimination. a True b False QuestionID: 06-67 Objective: 6.5—Discuss strategies for recruiting a more diverse workforce.

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Answer: a. True 68. Benefits associated with hiring and retaining older employees include A) superior productivity levels.

B) strong work ethic.

C) interest in developmental activities.

D) interest in promotion opportunities.

E) ability to improve upon their employability.

QuestionID: 06-68 Objective: 6.5—Discuss strategies for recruiting a more diverse workforce.

Answer: B) strong work ethic.

69. Which of the following specifically addresses goals for increasing recruitment from the designated groups?

A) Business plans B) Promote-from-within policies C) Strategic plans D) Compensation plans E) Employment equity plans QuestionID: 06-69 Objective: 6.1—Define recruitment and discuss the increasing use of employer branding.

Answer: E) Employment equity plans 70. Which of the following are the values that most appeal to the younger generation (millennials)?

A) Job security and independence B) Work-life balance and independence C) Job security and diversity D) Creativity and social responsibility E) Creativity and work-life balance QuestionID: 06-70 Objective: 6.5—Discuss strategies for recruiting a more diverse workforce.

Answer: B) Work-life balance and independence 71. It is illegal to use alternative publications targeted at designated group members in recruitment advertising. a True b False QuestionID: 06-71 Objective: 6.5—Discuss strategies for recruiting a more diverse workforce.

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Answer: b. False 72. What does the term BIPOC stand for?

A) Biodata, Information, and Points of Concern B) Black, Indigenous, and Persons of Colour C) Bisexual, Intersectional Persons of Culture D) Biography, Intelligence, Personality, Oppression, Culture E) Baseline Inappropriate Policies that Oppress Culture QuestionID: 06-72 Objective: 6.5—Discuss strategies for recruiting a more diverse workforce.

Answer: B) Black, Indigenous, and Persons of Colour 73. Using words like competitive or determined in describing the ideal candidate in a job ad for a firefighter can result in: A) Fewer women candidates feeling a sense of belonging or welcome to the company B) Direct discrimination C) Bona fide occupational requirements D) Immigrants opting out of the applicant pool E) A greater diversity in the applicant pool QuestionID: 06-73 Objective: 6.5—Discuss strategies for recruiting a more diverse workforce.

Answer: B) Direct discrimination

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Human Resources Management in Canada, 15Ce (Dessler) Chapter 07: Selection 1. What is selection?

A) The process of posting a job B) The process of choosing among individuals who have been recruited to fill existing or projected job openings C) The process of completing an exit interview after an employee has resigned D) The process of downsizing E) The process of succession planning QuestionID: 07-01 Objective: 7.1—Define selection and discuss its strategic importance.

Answer: B) The process of choosing among individuals who have been recruited to fill existing or projected job openings 2. When does the selection process begin?

A) When an employee receives a job offer B) The employee's first day of work C) When the employee resigns D) When a pool of applicants has submitted their résumés E) When a job is posted QuestionID: 07-02 Objective: 7.1—Define selection and discuss its strategic importance.

Answer: D) When a pool of applicants has submitted their résumés 3. _________ is when employers hire employees with questionable backgrounds, ignoring concerns that indicate a higher likelihood for issues or workplace accidents.

A) Upward bias B) Conflation of risk C) Hazard acceptance D) Negligent hiring E) Reckless abandonment QuestionID: 07-03 Objective: 7.1—Define selection and discuss its strategic importance.

Answer: D) Negligent hiring 4. Managers are increasingly realizing that the quality of the company's ____________ is often the single most important factor in determining whether the firm is going to survive and be successful in reaching the objectives specified in its strategic plan.

A) supply chain process 1

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B) brand image C) human resources D) foreign investments E) moral reputation QuestionID: 07-04 Objective: 7.1—Define selection and discuss its strategic importance.

Answer: C) human resources 5. During selection, employers are generally allowed to ask which of the following without violating human rights legislation?

A) Marital status B) Age or date of birth C) Information about illnesses D) Previous work experience E) Maiden name QuestionID: 07-05 Objective: 7.2—Describe considerations in the preliminary applicant screening.

Answer: D) Previous work experience 6. To be legally defensible, the entire recruitment and selection procedure must comply with human rights legislation. a True b False QuestionID: 07-06 Objective: 7.2—Describe considerations in the preliminary applicant screening.

Answer: a. True 7. In the selection process, which of the following refers to requirements that are absolutely essential for the job?

A) Want criteria B) Must criteria C) Necessary criteria D) Desired criteria E) Basic criteria QuestionID: 07-07 Objective: 7.1—Define selection and discuss its strategic importance.

Answer: B) Must criteria

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8. In the selection process, which of the following refers to requirements that are highly desirable but not critical for the job?

A) Want criteria B) Must criteria C) Necessary criteria D) Desired criteria E) Basic criteria QuestionID: 07-08 Objective: 7.1—Define selection and discuss its strategic importance.

Answer: A) Want criteria 9. Which of the following best describes the multiple-hurdle strategy used in the selection process?

A) The process of selecting instruments for selection purposes B) Candidates interviewing across the organization with multiple interviewers C) A reliability and validity analysis conducted throughout the hiring process D) A series of successive steps where only candidates clearing the hurdle are permitted to move on to the next step E) Increasing levels of testing of candidates focusing on personality and intelligence QuestionID: 07-09 Objective: 7.1—Define selection and discuss its strategic importance.

Answer: D) A series of successive steps where only candidates clearing the hurdle are permitted to move on to the next step 10. Shekhar hires an employee to clean the office, without conducting a proper background check. After the employee engages in theft in the office, Shekhar learns that the employee was fired from the last job due to office theft. What is this an example of?

A) Want criteria B) Must criteria C) Nepotism D) Negligent hiring E) Multiple hurdle QuestionID: 07-10 Objective: 7.1—Define selection and discuss its strategic importance.

Answer: D) Negligent hiring 11. What is a selection ratio?

A) The ratio of the number of interviews conducted to the total number of applicants B) The ratio of the total number of applicants hired to the total number of applicants C) The ratio of the cost per hire to the probability of turnover D) The ratio of the number of applicants passing the testing stage to the total number of applicants 3

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E) The ratio of the cost per hire to the company's total payroll cost QuestionID: 07-11 Objective: 7.2—Describe considerations in the preliminary applicant screening.

Answer: B) The ratio of the total number of applicants hired to the total number of applicants 12. In many instances, a small selection ratio also means a low quality of recruits. a True b False QuestionID: 07-12 Objective: 7.2—Describe considerations in the preliminary applicant screening.

Answer: a. True 13. Identify the five steps that should be followed when composing job-related questions as part of designing an effective selection process (1 point). Describe four of the five steps identified (2 points for each description).

QuestionID: 07-13 Objective: 7.1—Define selection and discuss its strategic importance.

Answer: 1. Describe who will be involved in the selection process and develop selection criteria.

Specifying selection criteria involves clarifying and weighting the information in the job description and job specifications and holding discussions among the interview team members, especially those most familiar with the job and co-workers.

2. Specify musts and wants and weigh the wants.

Must criteria are those that are absolutely essential for the job, include a measurable standard of acceptability, or are absolute and can be screened initially on paper. The want criteria include skills and abilities that cannot be screened on paper or are not readily measurable as well as qualifications that are highly desirable but not critical.

3. Determine assessment strategies and develop an evaluation form.

Once the must and want criteria have been identified, appropriate strategies for learning about each should be specified. For some qualifications, especially those that are critically important, the team may decide to use several assessment strategies.

4. Develop interview questions to be asked of all candidates.

Questions should be developed for each knowledge, skill, and ability (KSA) to be assessed during the interview.

Job-knowledge questions and worker-requirements questions to gauge the applicants' motivation and willingness to perform under prevailing working conditions, such as shift work or travel, should also be included.

5. Develop-candidate specific questions.

A few open-ended, job-related questions that are candidate specific should be planned, based on each candidate's résumé and application form.

14. To help evaluate candidates for a quality control position, Jennifer uses an applicant-tracking system to match the applicant's information with that of current Quality Control employees; she then asks those 4

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employees to provide their feedback on the applicant's suitability for the position. What is this an example of?

A) Participatory selection B) 360-degree recruitment C) Groupthink D) Teamscreen E) Crowdsourcing QuestionID: 07-14 Objective: 7.2—Describe considerations in the preliminary applicant screening.

Answer: E) Crowdsourcing 15. Which of the following is true of preliminary applicant screening?

A) The use of technology is becoming increasingly popular to help HR professionals improve the initial screening process.

B) Initial applicant screening involves eliminating candidates lacking the "nice to have" selection criteria.

C) Initial applicant screening is generally performed by mid-level managers.

D) The use of technology is becoming less popular due to privacy-related issues.

E) Very few large firms use technological applications to help screen candidates.

QuestionID: 07-15 Objective: 7.2—Describe considerations in the preliminary applicant screening.

Answer: A) The use of technology is becoming increasingly popular to help HR professionals improve the initial screening process.

16. Which members of the organization typical perform initial applicant screening?

A) Hiring managers B) HR department members C) Line managers D) Supervisors E) Senior management team members QuestionID: 07-16 Objective: 7.2—Describe considerations in the preliminary applicant screening.

Answer: B) HR department members 17. Recruiters may be biased in selection. When these rules are used in artificial intelligence (AI) based recruitment, AI is most likely to ________ the bias?

A) correct B) reinforce C) ignore D) overvalue E) decode

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QuestionID: 07-17 Objective: 7.2—Describe considerations in the preliminary applicant screening.

Answer: B) reinforce 18. During a hiring process Belinda was given an assessment of her self-awareness, empathy, and social awareness. What kind of test was Belinda undergoing?

A) A cognitive ability test B) An integrity test C) An emotional intelligence test D) An achievement test E) A personality test QuestionID: 07-18 Objective: 7.3—Define reliability and validity, explain their importance in selection techniques, and describe at least four types of selection tests.

Answer: C) An emotional intelligence test 19. Chase is hiring for a bookkeeper. He asks potential hires to complete a short math test. What kind of test is this?

A) A cognitive ability test B) An integrity test C) An emotional intelligence test D) An aptitude test E) A personality test QuestionID: 07-19 Objective: 7.3—Define reliability and validity, explain their importance in selection techniques, and describe at least four types of selection tests.

Answer: D) An aptitude test 20. Sandeep, the manager of a provincial credit union, hired five new tellers based solely on their interviews.

Although Sandeep thought he had planned the candidate interviewing process well, the three candidates who were rated the highest in the interview, and hired, did not meet the basic performance expectations once they were on the job. Which of the following is the primary problem associated with these interviews?

A) Validity B) Integrity C) Utility D) Stability E) Consistency QuestionID: 07-20 Objective: 7.3—Define reliability and validity, explain their importance in selection techniques, and describe at least four types of selection tests.

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Answer: A) Validity 21. The consistency of scores obtained by a person when he or she is retested on the same test at two different times is an example of A) reliability.

B) utility.

C) integrity.

D) accuracy.

E) validity.

QuestionID: 07-21 Objective: 7.3—Define reliability and validity, explain their importance in selection techniques, and describe at least four types of selection tests.

Answer: A) reliability.

22. The extent to which a selection tool predicts or significantly correlates with important elements of work behaviour is known as A) criterion-related reliability.

B) criterion-related consistency.

C) criterion-related validity.

D) criterion-related stability.

E) criterion-related integrity.

QuestionID: 07-22 Objective: 7.3—Define reliability and validity, explain their importance in selection techniques, and describe at least four types of selection tests.

Answer: C) criterion-related validity.

23. Demonstrating that a selection technique is a valid predictor of job success for all subgroups is consistent with which of the following forms of validity?

A) Criterion-related validity B) Differential validity C) Content validity D) Construct validity E) Discriminant validity QuestionID: 07-23 Objective: 7.3—Define reliability and validity, explain their importance in selection techniques, and describe at least four types of selection tests.

Answer: B) Differential validity 24. Which of the following can be assessed in a test of general mental ability or intelligence quotient (IQ)?

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A) Emotional intelligence B) Personality C) Numerical ability D) Interests E) Achievements QuestionID: 07-24 Objective: 7.3—Define reliability and validity, explain their importance in selection techniques, and describe at least four types of selection tests.

Answer: C) Numerical ability 25. Which of the following would be able to test an applicant's understanding of basic mechanical principles when considering that candidate for the job of machinist?

A) An aptitude test B) An interest inventory C) An achievement test D) A personality test E) An intelligence test QuestionID: 07-25 Objective: 7.3—Define reliability and validity, explain their importance in selection techniques, and describe at least four types of selection tests.

Answer: A) An aptitude test 26. Which of the following can measure attributes, such as finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and reaction time?

A) Personality tests B) Specific cognitive ability tests C) Emotional intelligence tests D) Intelligence tests E) Motor ability tests QuestionID: 07-26 Objective: 7.3—Define reliability and validity, explain their importance in selection techniques, and describe at least four types of selection tests.

Answer: E) Motor ability tests 27. Instruments used to measure aspects, such as introversion, stability, and motivation are known as which type of test?

A) An achievement test B) An interest inventory C) An intelligence test D) A personality test 8

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E) An aptitude test QuestionID: 07-27 Objective: 7.3—Define reliability and validity, explain their importance in selection techniques, and describe at least four types of selection tests.

Answer: D) A personality test 28. What are the "Big Five" personality dimensions as they apply to employment testing?

A) Extroversion, emotional stability, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience B) Visualization, emotional stability, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and cognitive abilities C) Agreeableness, emotional stability, visualization, cognitive abilities, and openness to experience D) Emotional stability, extroversion, visualization, conscientiousness, and memory E) Memory, visualization, agreeableness, cognitive abilities, and openness to experience QuestionID: 07-28 Objective: 7.3—Define reliability and validity, explain their importance in selection techniques, and describe at least four types of selection tests.

Answer: A) Extroversion, emotional stability, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience 29. Tests used to measure knowledge or proficiency acquired through education, training, and experience are known as A) achievement tests.

B) intelligence tests.

C) personality tests.

D) interest inventories.

E) aptitude tests.

QuestionID: 07-29 Objective: 7.3—Define reliability and validity, explain their importance in selection techniques, and describe at least four types of selection tests.

Answer: A) achievement tests.

30. What do work samples focus on directly measuring?

A) Hypothetical situations B) The information a person has learned C) The "Big Five" personality dimensions D) Emotional intelligence E) Job performance QuestionID: 07-30 Objective: 7.3—Define reliability and validity, explain their importance in selection techniques, and describe at least four types of selection tests.

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Answer: E) Job performance 31. What do interest inventories accomplish?

A) The measurement of basic elements of personality, such as seriousness B) The comparison of a candidate's interests with those of people in various occupations C) The measurement of a candidate's job performance within three months of being hired D) The collection of data regarding an employee's level of extroversion or introversion E) The measurement of knowledge and proficiency over a period of time QuestionID: 07-31 Objective: 7.3—Define reliability and validity, explain their importance in selection techniques, and describe at least four types of selection tests.

Answer: B) The comparison of a candidate's interests with those of people in various occupations 32. What of the following is known as a comprehensive and systematic procedure used to evaluate a candidate's management potential?

A) A management group discussion B) A managerial aptitude test C) A management assessment centre D) A management interest inventory E) A management cognitive test QuestionID: 07-32 Objective: 7.3—Define reliability and validity, explain their importance in selection techniques, and describe at least four types of selection tests.

Answer: C) A management assessment centre 33. In Canada, which of the following is true regarding screening candidates for substance abuse?

A) Employers are always permitted to screen candidates for substance abuse if they choose to do so.

B) Employers are only permitted to screen candidates for substance abuse if the substance that they are abusing is illegal.

C) Employers are only permitted to screen candidates for substance abuse if the substance that they are abusing is legal.

D) Alcohol and drug addiction is considered to be a disability under human rights codes.

E) It is often acceptable to discriminate against candidates during the selection process when that discrimination is based on alcohol or drug addiction.

QuestionID: 07-33 Objective: 7.3—Define reliability and validity, explain their importance in selection techniques, and describe at least four types of selection tests.

Answer: D) Alcohol and drug addiction is considered to be a disability under human rights codes.

34. Which of the following is true regarding the use of polygraph tests in selection?

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A) In Ontario, the Employment Standards Act specifically prohibits the use of polygraphs in preemployment selection.

B) Polygraphs in pre-employment selection are allowed in all jurisdictions.

C) Polygraphs test for psychological responses to stimuli.

D) Polygraphs are more useful and reliable in the selection process than honesty tests.

E) Polygraphs are more useful and reliable in the selection process than integrity tests.

QuestionID: 07-34 Objective: 7.3—Define reliability and validity, explain their importance in selection techniques, and describe at least four types of selection tests.

Answer: A) In Ontario, the Employment Standards Act specifically prohibits the use of polygraphs in preemployment selection.

35. There is very clear empirical evidence supporting the validity of emotional intelligence in the workplace. a True b False QuestionID: 07-35 Objective: 7.3—Define reliability and validity, explain their importance in selection techniques, and describe at least four types of selection tests.

Answer: b. False 36. Criterion-related validity is the extent to which a selection instrument, such as a test, adequately samples the knowledge and skills needed to perform the job. a True b False QuestionID: 07-36 Objective: 7.3—Define reliability and validity, explain their importance in selection techniques, and describe at least four types of selection tests.

Answer: b. False 37. The in-basket exercise is when a leaderless group is given a discussion question and told to arrive at a group decision. a True b False QuestionID: 07-37 Objective: 7.3—Define reliability and validity, explain their importance in selection techniques, and describe at least four types of selection tests.

Answer: b. False

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38. Which of the following interview question types is most representative of the interview question: "How would you handle an angry customer?"

A) Intelligence-testing interview question B) Knowledge-based interview question C) Behavioural interview question D) Emotional intelligence interview question E) Situational interview question QuestionID: 07-38 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: E) Situational interview question 39. In a phone interview, employers have a harder time judging a candidate's A) conscientiousness.

B) intelligence.

C) interpersonal skills.

D) spontaneity.

E) appearance.

QuestionID: 07-39 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: E) appearance.

40. Monique was interviewing Milli for a pharmaceutical job. One of the first things that Monique noticed was that Milli's clothes were wrinkled and stain. In addition, Milli's hair was relatively messy/unkempt. Based on that, within the first few minutes of the interview, Monique decided that Milli would be ranked poorly. What is this an example of?

A) snap judgements B) discrimination C) poor planning D) contrast error E) comparable factors QuestionID: 07-40 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: A) snap judgements 41. Which of the following is used by virtually all organizations for selecting job applicants?

A) Work sampling B) The assessment centre 12

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C) The interview D) A personality test E) An intelligence test QuestionID: 07-41 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: C) The interview 42. What is the interview technique that involves questions being asked as they come to the mind of the interviewer?

A) The situational interview B) The behavioural interview C) The unstructured interview D) The arbitrary interview E) The random interview QuestionID: 07-42 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: C) The unstructured interview 43. What interview format asks each candidate a series of predetermined, job-related questions based on the job description and specifications?

A) The unstructured interview B) The structured interview C) The biographical interview D) The performance-based interview E) The chronological interview QuestionID: 07-43 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: B) The structured interview 44. Research shows that interviewers using high levels of structure in the interview process evaluated applicants A) less favourably than those who used semi-structured or unstructured interviews.

B) more favourably than those who used semi-structured or unstructured interviews.

C) less reliably than those who used semi-structured or unstructured interviews.

D) less validly than those who used semi-structured or unstructured interviews.

E) in the exact same manner as those who used semi-structured or unstructured interviews.

QuestionID: 07-44 13

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Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: A) less favourably than those who used semi-structured or unstructured interviews.

45. Which interview format involves a combination of pre-set, structured questions as well as a series of candidate-specific questions based on information provided in the application form or resume?

A) The mixed interview B) The situational interview C) The structured interview D) The sequential interview E) The behavioural interview QuestionID: 07-45 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: A) The mixed interview 46. One advantage of a panel interview is that there is an increased likelihood that the information provided will be heard and recorded accurately. a True b False QuestionID: 07-46 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: a. True 47. The less structured the interview is, the less reliable and valid the evaluation of each candidate will be. a True b False QuestionID: 07-47 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: a. True 48. Identify (1 point) and describe five common interviewing mistakes which compromise the quality of the selection process (2 points for each description).

QuestionID: 07-48 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

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Answer: Poor planning: Many selection interviews are simply not carefully planned and may be conducted without having prepared written questions in advance. Lack of planning often leads to a relatively unstructured interview, in which whatever comes up is discussed. The end result may be little or no cross-candidate jobrelated information. The less structured the interview is, the less reliable and valid the evaluation of each candidate will be.

Snap judgments: Interviewers tend to jump to conclusions—make snap judgments—about candidates during the first few minutes of the interview (or even before it starts, based on test scores or résumés). First impressions are especially damaging when the prior information is negative.

Negative emphasis: Many interviewers seem to have a consistent negative bias. They are generally more influenced by unfavourable than favourable information about the candidate. Also, their impressions are much more likely to change from favourable to unfavourable than vice versa. Providing information about the value or weight of criteria in the selection process can ensure that the interviewer assesses the criteria accordingly.

Halo effect: A positive initial impression that distorts an interviewer's rating of a candidate because subsequent information is judged with a positive bias.

Poor knowledge of the job: Interviewers who don't have an accurate picture of what the job entails and the sort of candidate that's best for it usually make their decisions based on incorrect stereotypes of what a good applicant is. They then erroneously match interviewees with their incorrect stereotypes. You should clarify what sorts of traits you're looking for, and why, before starting the interview.

Contrast or candidate-order error: The order in which applicants are seen can affect how they are rated. This is an error of judgment on the part of the interviewer because of interviewing one or more very good or very bad candidates just before the interview in question.

Influence of nonverbal behaviour: The applicant's nonverbal behavior (smiling, avoiding your gaze, and so on) can affect his or her rating. Nonverbal behaviors are probably so important because interviewers infer your personality from how you behave in the interview.

Leading: Some interviewers are so anxious to fill a job that they help the applicants to respond correctly to their questions by asking leading questions or guiding the candidate to the expected answer.

Talking too little or too much: If the applicant is permitted to dominate the interview, the interviewer may not have a chance to ask their prepared questions and often learns very little about the candidate's job-related skills.

At the other extreme, some interviewers talk so much that the interviewee is not given enough time to answer questions.

Similar-to-me bias: Interviewers tend to provide more favourable ratings to candidates who possess demographic, personality, and attitudinal characteristics similar to their own, regardless of the value of those characteristics to the job. The result can be a lack of diversity in the organization and a poor fit with the job if secured.

Stereotyping: When interviewing candidates, an employer might be influenced by stereotypes. During interviews, an interviewer might be influenced by these traits and make judgement calls about the person's fit with the organization or job based on these non-job or organization related factors.

49. Raj is hiring a junior accountant at his firm. He has selected only candidates who went to the same university that he went to. What interview mistake is Raj potentially making?

A) Too much talking B) Negative bias C) Similar to me bias D) Leading questions E) Influence of nonverbal behaviour 15

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QuestionID: 07-49 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: C) Similar to me bias 50. Kristen has worked with Kyle in the past through a volunteer organization. She was impressed with Kyle's strong organizational skills. She is now hiring for a communications consultant at her company. What interview mistake is Kristen potentially making?

A) Too much talking B) Negative bias C) Similar to me bias D) Halo effect E) Influence of nonverbal behaviour QuestionID: 07-50 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: D) Halo effect 51. How is work sampling a good predictor of job performance (2 points)?

QuestionID: 07-51 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: Work samples focus on measuring job performance directly. To develop a work-sampling test, experts first list all the possible tasks that jobholders would be required to perform. Then, by listing the frequency of performance and relative importance of each task, key tasks are identified. Each applicant then performs the key tasks, and their work is monitored by the test administrator, who records the approach taken. Finally, the worksampling test is validated by determining the relationship between the applicants' scores on the work samples and their actual performance on the job.

52. Chester is a candidate for a Customer Service Representative position; asking him what he would do should he encounter an especially frustrated customer is an example of which interview technique?

A) The mixed interview B) The behavioural interview C) The situational interview D) The relational interview E) The affective interview QuestionID: 07-52 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

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Answer: C) The situational interview 53. While ________ interviews ask interviewees to describe how they would react in a hypothetical situation, ________ interviews ask candidates to describe how they did react in the past in such situations.

A) stressful; situational B) behavioural; situational C) structured; situational D) situational; behavioural E) nondirective; behavioural QuestionID: 07-53 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: D) situational; behavioural 54. What is the underlying assumption associated with behavioural interviews?

A) The best predictor of future performance is a person's intentions.

B) The best predictor of future performance is past performance in similar circumstances.

C) The best predictor of future performance is a person's level of intelligence.

D) The best predictor of future performance is the personality of a candidate.

E) The best predictor of future performance is the integrity of a candidate.

QuestionID: 07-54 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: B) The best predictor of future performance is past performance in similar circumstances.

55. An example of a behavioural question is: A) "What type of work do you want to be doing in five years?"

B) "Tell me about a time when you were in a situation that required negotiation skills."

C) "If a co-worker tried to sabotage your reputation, what would you do?"

D) "What are the skill areas that you would like to develop?"

E) "How would this position help you to achieve your career goals?"

QuestionID: 07-55 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: B) "Tell me about a time when you were in a situation that required negotiation skills."

56. An example of a situational question is A) "Tell me about a time when you managed numerous priorities in a short period of time."

B) "Tell me about a time when you had to discipline an employee."

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C) "How would you handle an irate boss who has just been told that the output in your department was below standard?"

D) "What type of computer skills are you proficient in?"

E) "How would this position help you to achieve your career goals?"

QuestionID: 07-56 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: C) "How would you handle an irate boss who has just been told that the output in your department was below standard?"

57. Which of the following is true of the panel interview technique?

A) Interviewee time and travel/accommodation expenses are increased.

B) There is an increased likelihood of human rights violations.

C) There is an increased likelihood that the information provided will be heard and recorded accurately.

D) There is an increased likelihood of employment equity violations.

E) There is an increased likelihood of interviewer error.

QuestionID: 07-57 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: C) There is an increased likelihood that the information provided will be heard and recorded accurately.

58. How are most interviews administered?

A) Within a group B) Virtually C) Via telephone D) One-on-one E) Using social media QuestionID: 07-58 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: D) One-on-one 59. Which interviewing method occurs when an applicant is interviewed by a number of interviewers at once?

A) The panel interview B) The situational interview C) The sequential interview D) The serialized interview E) The behavioural interview

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QuestionID: 07-59 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: A) The panel interview 60. Carmine was interviewed for a stockbroker position. Carmine and the other candidates were brought together and asked questions such as how they would react if the market started crashing. The interviewers revealed that they wanted to see which of the candidates would take the lead in formulating an answer. What type of interview is this an example of?

A) The mass interview B) The unstructured interview C) The sequential interview D) The behavioural interview E) The patterned interview QuestionID: 07-60 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: A) The mass interview 61. A hiring manager asked a candidate how she would handle an irate customer; this is an example of a behavioural interview question. a True b False QuestionID: 07-61 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: b. False 62. Identify (1 point) and describe three of the five steps that apply to designing and conducting an effective interview (2 points for each description).

QuestionID: 07-62 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: Planning the Interview - Before the first interview, agreement should be reached on the procedure that will be followed. Sometimes all members of the team ask a question in turn; in other situations, only one member of the team asks questions, and the others serve as observers. Sitting around a large table in a conference room is much more appropriate and far less stressful than having all panel members seated across from the candidate behind a table or desk, which forms both a physical and a psychological barrier.

Establishing Rapport - The main purpose of an interview is to find out as much as possible about the candidate's 19

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fit with the job specifications, something that is difficult to do if the individual is tense and nervous. The candidate should be greeted in a friendly manner and put at ease.

Asking Questions - The questions written in advance should then be asked in order. Interviewers should listen carefully, encourage the candidate to express their thoughts and ideas fully, and record the candidate's answers briefly but thoroughly. Taking notes increases the validity of the inter-view process, since doing so (1) reduces the likelihood of forgetting job-relevant information and subsequently reconstructing forgotten information in accordance with biases and stereotypes; (2) reduces the likelihood of making a snap judgment and helps to prevent the halo effect, negative emphasis, and candidate-order errors; and (3) helps to ensure that all candidates are assessed on the same criteria.

Closing the Interview - Toward the end of the interview, time should be allocated to answer any questions that the candidate may have and, if appropriate, to advocate for the firm and position. It is useful to also inform the candidate about the next steps and timelines that the organization will follow at this point.

Evaluating the Candidate - Immediately following each interview, the applicant's interview performance should be rated by each panel member independently, based on a review of their notes or an observation form. Because interviews are only one step in the process, and because a final decision cannot be reached until all assessments (including reference checking) have been completed, these evaluations should not be shared at this time.

63. When should the applicant's interview performance be rated?

A) After the reference checking stage has been completed B) Immediately following each interview C) The day after the interview D) The week after the interview E) Immediately after all candidates have been interviewed QuestionID: 07-63 Objective: 7.4—Describe the major types of selection interviews by degree of structure, type of content, and manner of administration.

Answer: B) Immediately following each interview 64. If an honest, fair, and candid reference is given by an individual who is asked to provide confidential information regarding the performance of a former employee, what doctrine protects the reference giver even if negative information is imparted about the candidate?

A) Qualified right B) Qualified concession C) Qualified assessment D) Qualified privilege E) Qualified opinion QuestionID: 07-64 Objective: 7.5—Describe four ways to improve an employer's background checking process and explain how selection decisions are made.

Answer: D) Qualified privilege 65. For financially sensitive positions, a credit check may also be included as part of the background 20

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investigation and reference checking stage. a True b False QuestionID: 07-65 Objective: 7.5—Describe four ways to improve an employer's background checking process and explain how selection decisions are made.

Answer: a. True 66. A manager provides a favourable reference about a past employee even though that employee was terminated from the company for stealing; this would be an example of negligent misrepresentation if that employee then went on to steal from the new employer as well. a True b False QuestionID: 07-66 Objective: 7.1—Define selection and discuss its strategic importance.

Answer: a. True 67. A recent survey found that almost one-quarter of employers are using social networking sites to gather information on job applicants. a True b False QuestionID: 07-67 Objective: 7.5—Describe four ways to improve an employer's background checking process and explain how selection decisions are made.

Answer: a. True 68. Explain four ways in which an employer can improve the information quality and accuracy associated with reference checks as a selection tool.

QuestionID: 07-68 Objective: 7.5—Describe four ways to improve an employer's background checking process and explain how selection decisions are made.

Answer: - Include on the application form a statement for applicants to sign explicitly authorizing a background check.

- Phone references tend to produce more candid assessments. Remember that you can get relatively accurate information regarding dates of employment, eligibility for rehire, and job qualifications. It's more difficult to get other background information (such as reasons for leaving a previous job) - Persistence and attentiveness to possible red flags improve results. For example, if the former employer hesitates or seems to qualify their answer, don't go on to the next question. Try to unearth what the applicant did 21

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to make the former employer pause. If the former employer says, "Joe requires some special care," say, "Special care?"

- Compare the application to the résumé; people tend to be more creative on their résumés than on their application forms, where they must certify the information.

- Try to ask open-ended questions (such as, "How much structure does the applicant need in their work?") to get the references to talk more about the candidate. But keep in mind: Stick to information that you're going to use; using arrest information is highly problematical; use information that is specific and job related; many provinces and territories prohibit asking about salary history; and keep information confidential.

- Ask the references supplied by the applicant to suggest other references. You might ask each of the applicant's references, "Could you give me the name of another person who might be familiar with the applicant's performance?" Then you begin getting information from references that may be more objective, because they did not come directly from the applicant (or use LinkedIn's Reference Search service) - Aim for "360" reference checking: A full picture requires contacting the person's former supervisors, colleagues, and subordinates.

69. What is a strategy used to provide applicants with realistic information—both positive and negative—about the job demands, the organization's expectations, and the work environment?

A) The realistic job description B) The realistic job analysis C) The realistic job portrayal D) The realistic job representation E) The realistic job preview QuestionID: 07-69 Objective: 7.5—Describe four ways to improve an employer's background checking process and explain how selection decisions are made.

Answer: E) The realistic job preview 70. Subjective evaluation is generally a more reliable and valid approach than a statistical strategy when making hiring decisions. a True b False QuestionID: 07-70 Objective: 7.5—Describe four ways to improve an employer's background checking process and explain how selection decisions are made.

Answer: b. False 71. When making a job offer, it should be communicated verbally only. a True b False QuestionID: 07-71 Objective: 7.5—Describe four ways to improve an employer's background checking process and explain how 22

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selection decisions are made.

Answer: b. False

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Human Resources Management in Canada, 15Ce (Dessler) Chapter 08: Onboarding and Training 1. Once employees have been recruited and selected, the next step is onboarding them to A) their new company and their new job.

B) pay scales and career planning.

C) fit in with their clients.

D) corporate strategies.

E) the company's position on equality.

QuestionID: 08-01 Objective: 8.1—Explain the purpose of onboarding programs and describe special considerations for onboarding.

Answer: A) their new company and their new job.

2. Which of the following is the first step in helping new employees manage the learning curve?

A) Diversity management programs B) Employment equity programs C) Development programs D) Onboarding programs E) Training programs QuestionID: 08-02 Objective: 8.1—Explain the purpose of onboarding programs and describe special considerations for onboarding.

Answer: D) Onboarding programs 3. What is the HR term used to describe the ongoing process of instilling in all employees the prevailing attitudes, standards, values, and patterns of behaviour that are expected by the organization and its departments.

A) Immersion B) Affirmation C) Declaration D) Socialization E) Culturization QuestionID: 08-03 Objective: 8.1—Explain the purpose of onboarding programs and describe special considerations for onboarding.

Answer: D) Socialization 4. What is the state that results from the discrepancy between what the new employee expected from their new job and the realities of it?

A) Cognitive dissonance 1

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B) Job conflict C) Reality permeation D) Employee divergence E) Contract discrepancy QuestionID: 08-04 Objective: 8.1—Explain the purpose of onboarding programs and describe special considerations for onboarding.

Answer: A) Cognitive dissonance 5. Which of the following is true about employee handbooks?

A) Employee handbooks should not form part of the orientation process since the handbook is updated regularly.

B) Employees must review handbooks outside of the actual workplace.

C) In employee dismissal situations, courts rarely review handbooks as the contents are not legally important.

D) Some courts have found employee handbook contents to represent a legally binding agreement with the employee.

E) It is a best practice to keep benefits static over time particularly to appease long-term employees who may feel that new employees are receiving a better deal.

QuestionID: 08-05 Objective: 8.1—Explain the purpose of onboarding programs and describe special considerations for onboarding.

Answer: D) Some courts have found employee handbook contents to represent a legally binding agreement with the employee.

6. There are three ways to evaluate an onboarding program. What is one of these ways?

A) Customer satisfaction scores B) Case studies C) Cost/benefit analysis D) Quality circles E) Markov analysis QuestionID: 08-06 Objective: 8.1—Explain the purpose of onboarding programs and describe special considerations for onboarding.

Answer: C) Cost/benefit analysis 7. A key aspect of a successful executive integration process includes which of the following?

A) Understanding all of the nuances of the organization before the first day of work B) Understanding that executives rarely experience reality shock C) Letting executives integrate on their own initiative 2

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D) Stressing the importance of listening as well as demonstrating competency E) Clarifying the perks that managers receive once they have reached executive status QuestionID: 08-07 Objective: 8.1—Explain the purpose of onboarding programs and describe special considerations for onboarding.

Answer: D) Stressing the importance of listening as well as demonstrating competency 8. How long can full executive integration take?

A) Up to 2 months B) Up to 4 months C) Up to 8 months D) Up to 18 months E) Up to three years QuestionID: 08-08 Objective: 8.1—Explain the purpose of onboarding programs and describe special considerations for onboarding.

Answer: D) Up to 18 months 9. Employee onboarding refers to the discrepancy between what the new employee expects from his/her new job and the realities of it. a True b False QuestionID: 08-09 Objective: 8.1—Explain the purpose of onboarding programs and describe special considerations for onboarding.

Answer: b. False 10. Onboarding should provide new employees with basic background information about the employer and specific information that they need to perform their jobs satisfactorily. a True b False QuestionID: 08-10 Objective: 8.1—Explain the purpose of onboarding programs and describe special considerations for onboarding.

Answer: a. True 11. An employee handbook cannot be considered to represent a legally binding agreement with the employee. a True 3

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b False QuestionID: 08-11 Objective: 8.1—Explain the purpose of onboarding programs and describe special considerations for onboarding.

Answer: b. False 12. Newly hired or promoted executives typically do not participate in formal orientation activities. a True b False QuestionID: 08-12 Objective: 8.1—Explain the purpose of onboarding programs and describe special considerations for onboarding.

Answer: a. True 13. A cost/benefit analysis of an orientation program compares the cost of the program to the revenues it could generate if licensed to other companies. a True b False QuestionID: 08-13 Objective: 8.1—Explain the purpose of onboarding programs and describe special considerations for onboarding.

Answer: b. False 14. Olga has joined a tech start-up as its HR Associate. The company has grown from 5 to 50 employees in just three years. The CEO has asked Olga to design an onboarding program for new employees. Describe four considerations for onboarding as Olga designs this new program (2 points for each description).

QuestionID: 08-14 Objective: 8.1—Explain the purpose of onboarding programs and describe special considerations for onboarding.

Answer: Olga should consider the following: Orientation Process - The length of the orientation program will depend on what is covered. The HR specialist performs the first part of the orientation by explaining basic matters, such as working hours and benefits. Then the supervisor continues the orientation by explaining the department's organization, introducing the person to their new colleagues, familiarizing them with the workplace, and reducing first-day jitters. At a minimum, the orientation should provide information on matters such as employee benefits, personnel policies, safety measures and regulations, and a facilities tour.

Orientation Technology - Employers use technology to support orientation. For example, organizations might choose to integrate apps or gamify the onboarding process.

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Responsibility for Orientation - The orientation process is a continuous, long-term process aimed at moulding desired behaviours and aligning values of the employee and the organization. As such, there is a formal component of orientation that often occurs when a new employee first joins the organization. There is also an ongoing informal orientation process, with the aim to build a strong employee bond with organizational values, history, and tradition.

Executive Integration - Newly hired or promoted executives typically do not participate in formal orientation activities, and there is little planning regarding how they will be integrated into their new position and company.

The common assumption is that the new executive is a professional and will know what to do, but full executive integration can take up to 18 months.

The Employee Handbook - Courts may find that the employee handbook's contents are legally binding commitments, provided that the handbook was provided to the employee at the time of hiring, there was an expressed intent that employment conditions are to be bound by the handbook, and/or the employer intended for the handbook to be binding.

Evaluation of Orientation Programs - Orientation programs should be evaluated to assess whether they are providing useful information to new employees in a timely and cost-effective manner. Three approaches to evaluating orientation programs are employee reaction, socialization effects and cost/benefit analysis.

Problems with Orientation Programs - A number of potential problems can arise with orientation programs.

Often, too much information is provided in a short time (usually one day) and the new employee is overwhelmed. New employees commonly find themselves inundated with forms to fill out for payroll, benefits, pensions, and so on. Another problem is that little or no orientation is provided, which means that new employees must personally seek answers to each question that arises and work without a good understanding of what is expected of them.

15. What is the process of teaching employees the basic skills they need to perform their jobs?

A) Recruiting B) Training C) Orientating D) Managing E) Coaching QuestionID: 08-15 Objective: 8.2—Discuss how to maximize the effectiveness of the training program.

Answer: B) Training 16. Development as it relates to training is best described as _______ in nature.

A) immediate B) technical C) operational D) short-term E) long-term QuestionID: 08-16 Objective: 8.2—Discuss how to maximize the effectiveness of the training program.

Answer: E) long-term 5

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17. In today's service-based economy, a company's most important assets are often A) the production teams.

B) the sales teams.

C) the finance professionals.

D) highly knowledgeable workers.

E) the HR specialists.

QuestionID: 08-17 Objective: 8.2—Discuss how to maximize the effectiveness of the training program.

Answer: D) highly knowledgeable workers.

18. A skills crisis has led to what major problem in the manufacturing sector?

A) Demand for greater compensation B) Reduction in quantity of products C) Higher absenteeism D) Reduction in quality of products E) Lack of qualified workers QuestionID: 08-18 Objective: 8.2—Discuss how to maximize the effectiveness of the training program.

Answer: E) Lack of qualified workers 19. Training employees is a ______________ process.

A) testing B) technical C) learning D) planning E) validation QuestionID: 08-19 Objective: 8.2—Discuss how to maximize the effectiveness of the training program.

Answer: C) learning 20. Negligent training occurs when an employer does which of the following?

A) Does not conduct a needs analysis of the position B) Fails to develop an employee for a long-term opportunity C) Does not implement a validation process to test the training methods D) Fails to train adequately and an employee subsequently harms a third party E) Fails to consider different learning styles when delivering the training program QuestionID: 08-20 Objective: 8.2—Discuss how to maximize the effectiveness of the training program.

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Answer: D) Fails to train adequately and an employee subsequently harms a third party 21. Programmed learning should be developed in manner that recognizes that trainees learn best at what pace?

A) At the pace set by their trainer B) At an average pace based on past training C) At the pace set by their supervisor D) At their own pace E) At the job's required pace QuestionID: 08-21 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: D) At their own pace 22. Employees who are dismissed for poor performance may claim that the employer was A) negligent in that the employee's training was inadequate.

B) negligent in that the employee's development was inadequate.

C) negligent in that the employee's orientation was inadequate.

D) negligent in that the employee's onboarding was inadequate.

E) acceptable in that the employee's manager was effective.

QuestionID: 08-22 Objective: 8.2—Discuss how to maximize the effectiveness of the training program.

Answer: A) negligent in that the employee's training was inadequate.

23. After validation, what is the next step in the training process?

A) Needs analysis B) Training evaluation C) Instructional design D) Implementation E) Analysis of training options QuestionID: 08-23 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: D) Implementation 24. In which step of the training process are the issues associated with the training program worked out by presenting that training program to a small, representative audience?

A) Needs analysis B) Training evaluation C) Instructional design 7

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D) Implementation E) Validation QuestionID: 08-24 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: E) Validation 25. Identify (1 point each) and describe three steps in the training and development process (2 points for each description).

QuestionID: 08-25 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: Training Needs Analysis The first step in training is to determine what training is required, if any. The main challenge in assessing the training needs of new employees is to determine what the job entails and to break it down into subtasks, each of which is then taught to the new employee. Task analysis and performance analysis are the two main techniques for identifying training needs.

Instructional Design After the employees' training needs have been determined and training objectives have been set, the training program can be designed. There are two major considerations in developing the instructional design: First, will learning be programmed or informal? Second, what is the medium for training? While a large portion of training occurs in the workplace, the option of assisted or third-party learning allows organizations to gain expertise not available in house and may offer significant cost reductions through the benefits of economies of scale.

Validation and Implementation Validation of the training program that has been designed is an often-overlooked step in the training process. In order to ensure that the program will accomplish its objectives, it is necessary to conduct a pilot study, or "run through," with a representative group of trainees. The results of the pilot study are used to assess the effectiveness of the training.Revisions to the program can be made to address any problems encountered by the pilot group of trainees in using the training material and experiences provided to them. Testing at the end of the pilot study can measure whether or not the program is producing the desired improvement in skill level.

Once the program has been validated, it is ready to be implemented by professional trainers. In some cases, a train-the-trainer workshop may be required to familiarize trainers with unfamiliar content or with unique and innovative new methods for presenting the training content.

Evaluation of Training It is important to assess the return on investment in human capital made through training by determining whether the training actually achieved the objectives. Transfer of training is the application of the skills acquired during the training program into the work environment and the maintenance of these skills over time.

26. In which step of the training process are training objectives established?

A) Needs analysis B) Training evaluation 8

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C) Instructional design D) Implementation E) Validation QuestionID: 08-26 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: A) Needs analysis 27. The first step in a training program is to determine A) the validation of training.

B) the number of trainees.

C) training needs.

D) who will be the instructor.

E) training evaluation methods.

QuestionID: 08-27 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: C) training needs.

28. A technique used for determining the training needs of newly hired employees is A) task analysis.

B) observation analysis.

C) personnel record analysis.

D) performance analysis.

E) job analysis.

QuestionID: 08-28 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: A) task analysis.

29. The list of specific duties and skills required on the job, which are used in determining the training required for performing the job, are found in which of the following?

A) Job instruction for on-the-job training B) Employee handbooks C) Job standards and job specializations D) Performance standards E) Job descriptions and job specifications QuestionID: 08-29 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional 9

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design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: E) Job descriptions and job specifications 30. Which of the following is typically included in a task analysis record form?

A) The immediate supervisor of the task B) The number of colleagues also working on the same task C) The conditions under which the task is performed D) The compensation range for the task E) Safety issues associated with the job in general QuestionID: 08-30 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: C) The conditions under which the task is performed 31. A technique for determining the training needs of current employees is A) position analysis.

B) job analysis.

C) training analysis.

D) motivation analysis.

E) performance analysis.

QuestionID: 08-31 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: E) performance analysis.

32. The technique used when verifying whether there is a significant performance deficiency of a current employee and, if so, determining if that deficiency should be rectified through training or by some other means (such as changing the machinery or transferring the employee), is called which of the following?

A) Training analysis B) Task analysis C) Motivation analysis D) Employee analysis E) Performance analysis QuestionID: 08-32 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: E) Performance analysis 33. The first step in performance analysis is to appraise the employee's performance and compare it with which 10

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of the following?

A) What it should be B) Co-workers' performance C) Maximum industry performance D) Work group performance E) What it used to be QuestionID: 08-33 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: A) What it should be 34. Performance analysis distinguishes between which of the following?

A) Different supervisory practices B) Can't do and won't do problems C) Employee training levels D) Education levels of employees E) Experience levels of employees QuestionID: 08-34 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: B) Can't do and won't do problems 35. Once training needs have been identified, training objectives can be established, which should be A) flexible and fluid.

B) complex and challenging.

C) concrete and measurable.

D) differentiated and adaptable.

E) subjective and unique.

QuestionID: 08-35 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: C) concrete and measurable.

36. Training objectives provide a focus for the efforts of the trainer and the trainees and also provide which of the following?

A) Input for the Markov analysis B) Performance measurement techniques C) A benchmark for evaluating the success of the training program D) Development topics for new hires E) Selection interview question options 11

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QuestionID: 08-36 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: C) A benchmark for evaluating the success of the training program 37. You have recently been hired as the human resources director of a retailer operating across Canada. One of your first priorities is to determine whether training is an issue in some stores that are not meeting sales expectations. Describe how you will determine if there are employee training needs at these stores (Describing task analysis (2 points), describing performance analysis (2 points) and distinguishing can't do and wont' do problems (2 points) - Step 1 of the Training and Development Process).

QuestionID: 08-37 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: The first step in training is to determine what training is required, if any. This includes task analysis— identifying the broad competencies and specific skills required to perform job-related tasks. Once the essential skills involved in doing the job are determined, employees' proficiency in these skills can be assessed and training needs identified for each individual.

This should be followed by performance analysis, which is verifying whether there is a significant performance deficiency and, if so, determining whether that deficiency should be rectified through training or some other means. Distinguishing between can't do and won't do problems is at the heart of performance analysis. First, the firm must determine whether it is a can't do problem and, if so, its specific causes. Conversely, it might be a won't do problem. In this case, employees could do a good job if they wanted to. If so, the reward system might have to be changed, perhaps by implementing an incentive program.

38. When an employee learns a job by actually performing that job, this training method is called A) interactive training.

B) job instruction training.

C) vestibule training.

D) on-the-job training.

E) one-on-one training.

QuestionID: 08-38 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: D) on-the-job training.

39. A process by which individuals become skilled workers through a combination of classroom instruction and on-the-job training is referred to as A) vestibule training.

B) job instruction training.

C) apprenticeship training.

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D) computerized training.

E) classroom training.

QuestionID: 08-39 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: C) apprenticeship training.

40. Many jobs consist of a logical sequence of steps and are best taught step by step. This type of training is called A) vestibule training.

B) job instruction training.

C) on-the-job training.

D) computerized training.

E) process training.

QuestionID: 08-40 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: B) job instruction training.

41. Which type of training uses a combination of instructor-led training and online e-learning?

A) Vestibule training B) Job instruction training C) On-the-job training D) Computerized training E) Blended learning QuestionID: 08-41 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: E) Blended learning 42. A training method where participants practice with virtual reality (VR) equipment is also referred to as A) classroom training.

B) simulated training.

C) programmed learning.

D) on-the-job training.

E) job instruction training.

QuestionID: 08-42 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

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Answer: B) simulated training.

43. Apprenticeships are widely used to train individuals for many occupations, including those of A) supervisor.

B) manager.

C) lawyer.

D) electrician.

E) executive.

QuestionID: 08-43 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: D) electrician.

44. Short, on demand training is common in gig economies such as Uber. Another term for this is: A) Systematic learning B) Micro learning C) Virtual reality D) Apprenticeships E) Team training QuestionID: 08-44 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: B) Micro learning 45. A systematic method of training that is used for teaching job skills involving presenting questions or facts, allowing the trainee to respond, and giving the trainee immediate feedback on the accuracy of his/her answers, is known as which of the following?

A) Programmed learning B) Responsive learning C) Immediate feedback learning D) Systematic learning E) On-the-job training QuestionID: 08-45 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: A) Programmed learning 46. A training technique by which trainees learn on the actual or simulated equipment that they will use on the job, with the training taking place off the job is known as 14

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A) on-the-job training.

B) actual training.

C) off-the-job training.

D) simulated training.

E) programmed learning.

QuestionID: 08-46 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: D) simulated training.

47. Harveer works for a call centre for a cell phone company. When a customer calls for help, Harveer is guided by a system with an analytical sequence to determine the problem and how to resolve it. This is an example of a(n) A) electronic performance support system.

B) customer support system.

C) solution support system.

D) product specifications support system.

E) instruction and specification system.

QuestionID: 08-47 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: A) electronic performance support system.

48. It is estimated that learners don't complete ________ of online courses.

A) 20% to 40% B) 10% to 50% C) 5% to 10% D) 90% to 100% E) 50% to 90% QuestionID: 08-48 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: E) 50% to 90% 49. Online training costs about ________ less than traditional classroom-based training.

A) 80% B) 40% C) 20% D) 50% E) 5% 15

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QuestionID: 08-49 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: D) 50% 50. About two-thirds of workplace training results from day-to-day unplanned interactions between the new worker and their colleagues. a True b False QuestionID: 08-50 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: a. True 51. Simulated training is virtually a necessity when it is too costly or dangerous to train employees on the job. a True b False QuestionID: 08-51 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: a. True 52. Which of the training and development process steps involves conducting a pilot study with a representative group of trainees?

A) Training needs analysis B) Development needs analysis C) Validation D) Instructional design E) Evaluation of training QuestionID: 08-52 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: C) Validation 53. What is the best method to use when evaluating a training program?

A) Goal setting techniques B) Relapse-prevention techniques C) Employee reaction questionnaires 16

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D) Observational recording E) Controlled experimentation QuestionID: 08-53 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: E) Controlled experimentation 54. Cultural sensitivity training most likely focuses on which of the following?

A) Training for first-time supervisors/managers B) Customer service training C) On-the-job training for designated group members D) Audiovisual exercises that provide scenarios for cross-cultural interpersonal skill development E) Sensitizing employees to the views of different cultural groups toward work QuestionID: 08-54 Objective: 8.4—Explain common types of training for special purposes.

Answer: E) Sensitizing employees to the views of different cultural groups toward work 55. New supervisors/managers are often chosen for their technical ability, but their level of interpersonal and communication skills often gets overlooked. a True b False QuestionID: 08-55 Objective: 8.4—Explain common types of training for special purposes.

Answer: a. True 56. All of the following are part of the five-step training process except A) needs analysis.

B) instructional design.

C) validation.

D) implementation.

E) onboarding.

QuestionID: 08-56 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: E) onboarding.

57. Brad is designing an e-learning module on accessibility. Which step is he following with regard to the fivestep training process?

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A) Needs analysis B) Instructional design C) Evaluation D) Implementation E) Validation QuestionID: 08-57 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: B) Instructional design 58. With increasingly diverse workforces and customers, there is a strong business case for implementing global business and diversity training programs. a True b False QuestionID: 08-58 Objective: 8.4—Explain common types of training for special purposes.

Answer: a. True 59. Simon is attending a workshop on "Diversity at Work." This is an example of A) onboarding.

B) training for special purposes.

C) e-learning.

D) instructional design.

E) video conferencing.

QuestionID: 08-59 Objective: 8.4—Explain common types of training for special purposes.

Answer: B) training for special purposes.

60. Sarah was recently promoted into a managerial role. Her company has asked her to attend a "New Leaders" workshop. This is an example of A) onboarding.

B) training for special purposes.

C) e-learning.

D) instructional design.

E) video conferencing.

QuestionID: 08-60 Objective: 8.4—Explain common types of training for special purposes.

Answer: B) training for special purposes.

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61. Four global literacies, or critical competencies, required to succeed in the global economy include all of the following except A) personal literacy–understanding and valuing oneself B) social literacy–engaging and challenging other people C) business literacy–focusing and mobilizing the business D) cultural literacy–understanding and leveraging cultural differences E) customer literacy-understanding customers QuestionID: 08-61 Objective: 8.4—Explain common types of training for special purposes.

Answer: E) customer literacy-understanding customers 62. Cross-cultural communication training focuses on workplace cultural etiquette and interpersonal skills. a True b False QuestionID: 08-62 Objective: 8.4—Explain common types of training for special purposes.

Answer: a. True 63. Cultural sensitivity training focuses on sensitizing employees to the views of different cultural groups toward work so that employees from diverse backgrounds can work together more effectively. a True b False QuestionID: 08-63 Objective: 8.4—Explain common types of training for special purposes.

Answer: a. True 64. Sarah is a new manager. To build her team and encourage them to work together, she has scheduled a "team building" workshop. This is an example of A) training for special purposes.

B) onboarding.

C) e-learning.

D) instructional design.

E) cultural sensitivity training.

QuestionID: 08-64 Objective: 8.4—Explain common types of training for special purposes.

Answer: A) training for special purposes.

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65. Social literacy involves understanding and leveraging cultural differences. a True b False QuestionID: 08-65 Objective: 8.4—Explain common types of training for special purposes.

Answer: b. False 66. Define what behaviour modeling is (1 point). Describe the steps involved in behaviour modeling (2 points each).

QuestionID: 08-66 Objective: 8.3—Identify and describe the five steps in the training process—needs analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation, and evaluation.

Answer: Behavior modeling is a training technique in which trainees are first shown good management techniques in a film, are asked to play roles in a simulated situation, and are then given feedback and praise by their supervisor. The steps involved are: 1. Modeling. First, trainees watch live or video examples showing models behaving effectively in a problem situation.

2. Role-playing. Next, the trainees get roles to play in a simulated situation; here they are to practice the effective behaviors demonstrated by the models.

3. Social reinforcement. The trainer provides reinforcement in the form of praise and constructive feedback.

4. Transfer of training. Finally, trainees are encouraged to apply their new skills when they are back on their jobs.

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Human Resources Management in Canada, 15Ce (Dessler) Chapter 09: Career and Management Development 1. The hardest part of organizational change is overcoming employee resistance. a True b False QuestionID: 09-01 Objective: 9.1—List and briefly discuss the importance of the steps in leading organizational change.

Answer: a. True 2. Top reasons that organizational change efforts fail include: A) Employees champion the change B) Sufficient resources are allocated to the change C) Individual productivity declining as employees become distracted D) Leaders accept the change E) The organization chart and people's roles change QuestionID: 09-02 Objective: 9.1—List and briefly discuss the importance of the steps in leading organizational change.

Answer: C) Individual productivity declining as employees become distracted 3. Describe four steps managers can take as part of a process to minimize employee resistance and bring about desired organizational change at work (2 points for each description).

QuestionID: 09-03 Objective: 9.1—List and briefly discuss the importance of the steps in leading organizational change.

Answer: 1. Establish a sense of urgency. Create a sense of urgency. For example, present employees with an analyst's report describing the firm's anticipated challenges and future outcomes.

2. Mobilize commitment through joint diagnoses of problems. Create a task force to diagnose the problems facing the department or the company. This can help to produce a shared understanding of what can and must be improved.

3. Create a guiding coalition. It's never easy to implement big changes alone. Therefore, create a "guiding coalition" of influential people. They'll act as missionaries and implementers.

4. Develop and communicate a shared vision of what you see coming from the change. Keep the vision simple (for example, "We will be faster than anyone at satisfying customer needs."), and lead by example.

5. Help employees make the change. Eliminate impediments. For example, do current policies or procedures make it difficult to act? Do intransigent managers discourage employees from acting?

6. Aim first for attainable short-term accomplishments. Use the credibility from these to make additional changes.

7. Reinforce the new ways of doing things with changes to the company's systems and procedures. For example, use new appraisal systems and incentives to reinforce the desired new behaviours.

8. Monitor and assess progress. In brief, this involves comparing where the company or department is with 1

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where it should be.

4. Elliott runs an educational technology company. He is introducing a new sales software system which will modernize the sales cycle. Having said that, employees have been working with the old system for five years.

He invites four employees to serve on an advisory committee to guide the implementation of this system. What change management strategy is Elliott employing?

A) Reinforcing new ways of doing things B) Creating a sense of urgency C) Developing a shared vision D) Creating a guiding coalition E) Joint diagnosis of the problem QuestionID: 09-04 Objective: 9.1—List and briefly discuss the importance of the steps in leading organizational change.

Answer: D) Creating a guiding coalition 5. ________ is a change process through which employees formulate the change that's required and implement it, often with the assistance of trained consultants.

A) Career development B) Organizational development C) Organizational design D) Leadership development E) Performance management QuestionID: 09-05 Objective: 9.1—List and briefly discuss the importance of the steps in leading organizational change.

Answer: B) Organizational development 6. According to psychologist Kurt Lewin, implementing change means reducing the forces for the status quo as well as building up the forces for change. a True b False QuestionID: 09-06 Objective: 9.1—List and briefly discuss the importance of the steps in leading organizational change.

Answer: a. True 7. Kai is the Vice President of operations at a large bakery. He knows that there are ways the bakery can be more efficient and appoints a task force of employees to generate ideas. What organizational change process is he using?

A) Creating a sense of urgency B) Monitoring and assessing C) Mobilizing commitment 2

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D) Reinforcing a new way of doing things E) Communications a shared vision QuestionID: 09-07 Objective: 9.1—List and briefly discuss the importance of the steps in leading organizational change.

Answer: C) Mobilizing commitment 8. _________ is the lifelong series of activities that contribute to a person's career exploration, establishment, success, and fulfillment.

A) Career planning B) Career cycles C) Career growth D) Career development E) Career advancement QuestionID: 09-08 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: D) Career development 9. Individuals who feel that their work was their "calling" in life are more likely to work beyond the basic requirements at work than those who do not feel that their work is part of their life "calling". a True b False QuestionID: 09-09 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: a. True 10. __________ represents the deliberate process through which someone becomes aware of personal skills, interests, knowledge, motivations, and other characteristics and establishes action plans to attain specific goals.

A) Career planning B) Career cycles C) Career growth D) Career development E) Career advancement QuestionID: 09-10 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: A) Career planning 3

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11. A(n) ____________ is a series of work-related positions, paid or unpaid, that help a person grow in job skills, success, and fulfillment.

A) occupation B) career C) profession D) calling E) job QuestionID: 09-11 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: B) career 12. Career development is a short-term series of activities that contribute to a person's career exploration, establishment, success, and fulfillment. a True b False QuestionID: 09-12 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: b. False 13. Which of the following suggests that there are six basic personal orientations that determine the sorts of careers to which people are drawn?

A) Work-related orientation B) Job orientation C) Career orientation D) Occupational orientation E) Professional orientation QuestionID: 09-13 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: D) Occupational orientation 14. During career planning, which of the following will a person not give up?

A) Value anchor B) Moral anchor C) Occupational anchor D) Planning anchor E) Career anchor 4

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QuestionID: 09-14 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: E) Career anchor 15. For career planning purposes, a person's aptitudes are often measured using what?

A) Career testing battery B) Occupational task paradox test C) General aptitude test D) Conventional career centering E) Talent testing battery QuestionID: 09-15 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: C) General aptitude test 16. The Vocational Preference Test (VPT) identifies six basic personality types or orientations: realistic, investigative, social, conventional, enterprising, and artistic. These orientations assume that a person's values, motives, and needs are important factors in their career choices. a True b False QuestionID: 09-16 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: a. True 17. Which of the following career anchors recognizes that some people desire to do something meaningful in a larger context?

A) Technical/functional B) Service/dedication C) Security D) Creativity and autonomy E) Independence and lifestyle QuestionID: 09-17 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: B) Service/dedication 5

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18. People who become successful entrepreneurs have a need to build something that is entirely their own product; which of the following career anchors does this reflect?

A) Technical/functional B) Security C) Service/dedication D) Creativity E) Lifestyle QuestionID: 09-18 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: D) Creativity 19. People who are driven by the need to be on their own, free of the dependence that can arise when working in a large organization where promotions, transfers, and salary decisions make them subordinate to others, have which career anchor?

A) Technical and functional B) Pure challenge C) Security D) Managerial competence E) Autonomy and independence QuestionID: 09-19 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: E) Autonomy and independence 20. Which of the following career anchors is associated with a stable future that offers a good retirement program and benefits?

A) Managerial competence B) Creativity and intuition C) Technical and functional D) Security E) Pure challenge QuestionID: 09-20 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: D) Security 21. The Vocational Preference Test (VPT) assumes that a person's intelligence level determines his or her occupational orientation. a True 6

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b False QuestionID: 09-21 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: b. False 22. 'Lifestyle' is a known career anchor. a True b False QuestionID: 09-22 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: a. True 23. People who have a strong technical/functional career anchor tend to make decisions that drive them toward general management. a True b False QuestionID: 09-23 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: b. False 24. The necessity to shift to a more holistic life design for career development is related to which of the following shifts in thinking about career development?

A) From traits and states to context B) From prescriptive to process C) From linear to non-linear D) From scientific facts to narrative evaluations E) From describing to modelling QuestionID: 09-24 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: C) From linear to non-linear 25. In the new economy, career patterns should be viewed as professional identities that are dynamic; which shift in thinking about career development is this related to?

A) From traits and states to context 7

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B) From prescriptive to process C) From linear to non-linear D) From scientific facts to narrative evaluations E) From describing to modelling QuestionID: 09-25 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: A) From traits and states to context 26. Career development must empower employees to self-assess and interpret their own life experiences and assist employees in making sense of their distinct perspective and implementing co-evolution. Which shift in thinking about career development is this related to?

A) From traits and states to context B) From prescriptive to process C) From linear to non-linear D) From scientific facts to narrative evaluations E) From describing to modelling QuestionID: 09-26 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: D) From scientific facts to narrative evaluations 27. Traditional career paths involving a single, committed occupational choice are no longer a reality. Instead, career planners must stay informed about all of the job-specific requirements and offer a best fit of career patterns, focusing on adding information and content to enable employees to achieve a range career ambitions.

Which shift in thinking about career development is this related to?

A) From traits and states to context B) From prescriptive to process C) From linear to non-linear D) From scientific facts to narrative evaluations E) From describing to modelling QuestionID: 09-27 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: B) From prescriptive to process 28. Career development must adapt to individual experiences, ambitions, abilities, opportunities, and perspectives. Which shift in thinking about career development is this related to?

A) From traits and states to context B) From prescriptive to process 8

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C) From linear to non-linear D) From scientific facts to narrative evaluations E) From describing to modelling QuestionID: 09-28 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: E) From describing to modelling 29. _________ is the foundation of active career management in todays connected world.

A) Altruism B) Career development C) Networking D) Coaching E) Planning QuestionID: 09-29 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: C) Networking 30. People, groups, and organizations can be categorized into different areas of one's network. Which network would colleagues be most related to?

A) Personal B) Professional C) Career D) Organizational E) Charitable QuestionID: 09-30 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: B) Professional 31. People, groups, and organizations can be categorized into different areas of one's network. Which network would neighbours and friends be most related to?

A) Personal B) Professional C) Career D) Organizational E) Charitable QuestionID: 09-31 9

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Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: A) Personal 32. The individual, the manager, and the employer all have roles in the individual's career development. a True b False QuestionID: 09-32 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: a. True 33. What is a career anchor (1 point)? Describe five career anchors (2 points for each description).

QuestionID: 09-33 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: A career anchor is a concern or value that a person will not give up if a choice has to be made.

Technical/functional: People who have a strong technical/functional career anchor tend to avoid decisions that would drive them toward general management. Instead, they make decisions that will enable them to remain and grow in their chosen technical or functional fields.

Managerial competence: Other people show a strong motivation to become managers, and their career experience convinces them that they have the skills and values required to rise to general management positions. A management position of high responsibility is their ultimate goal.

Creativity: People who become successful entrepreneurs have a need to build or create something that is entirely their own product—a product or process that bears their name, a company of their own, or a personal fortune that reflects their accomplishments.

Autonomy and independence: Some people seem driven to be on their own, free of the dependence that can arise when a person works in a large organization where promotions, transfers, and salary decisions make them subordinate to others.

Security: Some people are mostly concerned with long-run career stability and job security. A stable future with one organization that offers a good retirement program and benefits or maintaining similar geographic surroundings may be important.

Service/dedication: More and more people feel a need to do something meaningful in a larger context.

Information technology has made global problems, such as the environment, overpopulation, and poverty, highly visible.

Pure challenge: A small group of people define their career in terms of overcoming impossible odds, solving unsolved problems, and winning out over competitors.

Lifestyle: A growing number of people, particularly dual-career couples, define their careers as part of a larger lifestyle, integrating two careers and two sets of personal and family concerns.

34. Mimi has strong numeracy skills. She moves across employers with ease, changing jobs from data 10

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management to statistical agent to HR metrics. Her skills clearly transcend employers. What would Mimi's career approach be known as?

A) Boundaryless career B) Contingent work C) Portfolio career D) Narrative evaluations E) Competency-centric career QuestionID: 09-34 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: A) Boundaryless career 35. Which of the following individuals are more likely to adopt a boundaryless career?

A) People with low levels of education B) People who value career promotion and management authority C) People who have financial resources to manage periods of risk D) People who resist change E) People who want long lasting workplace friendships QuestionID: 09-35 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: C) People who have financial resources to manage periods of risk 36. Glenn has multiple sources of income at one time. Currently, he is a writer, provides editing services, and has a weekend catering business. What type of career does Glenn have?

A) Boundaryless career B) Contingent work C) Portfolio career D) Narrative evaluations E) Competency-centric career QuestionID: 09-36 Objective: 9.2—Discuss new approaches to career development, and analyze the factors that affect career choices.

Answer: C) Portfolio career 37. Union agreements often contain a clause that emphasizes which of the following in promotions?

A) Ability B) Expertise C) Performance D) Seniority 11

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E) Productivity QuestionID: 09-37 Objective: 9.3—Recommend how to manage transfers and promotions more effectively.

Answer: D) Seniority 38. Jason and Jennifer both work for a hospital. Jennifer is promoted to the next level because she has ten years of experience in her role whereas Jason has only four. This is an example of promotion based on A) ability.

B) expertise.

C) performance.

D) seniority.

E) productivity.

QuestionID: 09-38 Objective: 9.3—Recommend how to manage transfers and promotions more effectively.

Answer: D) seniority.

39. Ruchika and Ryan both work in sales at a car dealership. Ruchika is promoted to lead the team because she has historically been the top seller. This is an example of promotion based on A) tenure.

B) expertise.

C) performance.

D) seniority.

E) mobility.

QuestionID: 09-39 Objective: 9.3—Recommend how to manage transfers and promotions more effectively.

Answer: C) performance.

40. There are at least three questions that an employer needs to consider when making promotion decisions.

Evaluating an employee's previous job performance and predicting their potential in the future are examples that fall under which promotion decision question?

A) Is seniority or competence the rule?

B) How is competence measured?

C) Is the process formal or informal?

D) Are the promotions vertical or horizontal?

E) Will there be future management-level promotions?

QuestionID: 09-40 Objective: 9.3—Recommend how to manage transfers and promotions more effectively.

Answer: B) How is competence measured?

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41. When the availability and requirements of open positions are kept secret and only shared with a select or limited number of eligible or targeted employees, the employers is using a(n) _______ system of selection.

A) objective B) systematic C) informal D) formal E) scientific QuestionID: 09-41 Objective: 9.3—Recommend how to manage transfers and promotions more effectively.

Answer: C) informal 42. When employees are not made aware of core workplace information about jobs (e.g., what jobs are available, what the criteria for promotion are, and how promotion decisions are made), the link between job performance and career promotion is A) improved.

B) severed.

C) significantly strengthened.

D) moderately strengthened.

E) unchanged.

QuestionID: 09-42 Objective: 9.3—Recommend how to manage transfers and promotions more effectively.

Answer: B) severed.

43. Location or branch transfers of internal employees are problematic because the cost of relocating employees and that the required physical transfer has a bad effect on the employee's A) family life.

B) job description.

C) job performance.

D) career stability.

E) financial status.

QuestionID: 09-43 Objective: 9.3—Recommend how to manage transfers and promotions more effectively.

Answer: A) family life.

44. To overcome the record number of rejections of relocation offers, companies are A) increasing salaries for all employees.

B) paying moving expenses for all employees.

C) increasing financial incentives for all employees.

D) offering additional perquisites, such as dedicated parking at the new location.

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E) offering spousal support in the form of career transition programs.

QuestionID: 09-44 Objective: 9.3—Recommend how to manage transfers and promotions more effectively.

Answer: E) offering spousal support in the form of career transition programs.

45. The majority of transfer refusals are due to A) the cost of transferring employees.

B) the difficulty in finding employees to fill the transferred employee's former position.

C) the negative impact of transfers on diversity programs.

D) family or spousal concerns.

E) competitive necessities.

QuestionID: 09-45 Objective: 9.3—Recommend how to manage transfers and promotions more effectively.

Answer: D) family or spousal concerns.

46. A Picker (someone who selects and packs orders for delivery) at Amazon was recently selected for an internal move to an HR Generalist position at their Amazon warehouse. What type of career move is this?

A) downwards trajectory B) upwards promotion C) horizontal movement D) vertical movement E) downwards promotion QuestionID: 09-46 Objective: 9.3—Recommend how to manage transfers and promotions more effectively.

Answer: C) horizontal movement 47. Companies generally have very high acceptances of their relocation offers. a True b False QuestionID: 09-47 Objective: 9.3—Recommend how to manage transfers and promotions more effectively.

Answer: b. False 48. Felix, a Vice President of finance agrees to accept a role as a Vice President of sales to develop his skills.

This is an example of a(n) A) downwards trajectory.

B) upwards promotion.

C) horizontal movement.

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D) vertical movement.

E) downwards promotion.

QuestionID: 09-48 Objective: 9.3—Recommend how to manage transfers and promotions more effectively.

Answer: C) horizontal movement.

49. Improving managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or enhancing skills, is called A) assessment centre training.

B) management development.

C) T-group training.

D) career enhancement.

E) succession planning.

QuestionID: 09-49 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: B) management development.

50. A management development program that is aimed at filling a specific executive position in the future is usually called which of the following?

A) Management needs development B) Individual development C) Management forecasting D) Succession planning E) Personnel planning QuestionID: 09-50 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: D) Succession planning 51. Who generally oversees succession planning for senior managers?

A) The immediate manager B) The top HR executive C) The Board of Directors D) The Controller E) The CEO QuestionID: 09-51 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: E) The CEO 15

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52. Which management development technique involves moving a trainee from department to department to broaden their experience and identify their areas of strength and weakness?

A) Job enrichment B) Developmental job rotation C) Action learning D) Job enlargement E) Succession planning QuestionID: 09-52 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: B) Developmental job rotation 53. In the _____________ approach, the management trainee works directly with the person that they are to replace.

A) job rotation B) learning C) coaching/understudy D) replacement E) direct replacement QuestionID: 09-53 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: C) coaching/understudy 54. A main drawback of using 'action learning' to develop employee skills is that A) the employee's skills deteriorate.

B) the employee's motivation declines.

C) the employee's satisfaction declines.

D) the employee becomes more likely to leave the organization.

E) the employer loses the full-time services of a competent manager.

QuestionID: 09-54 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: E) the employer loses the full-time services of a competent manager.

55. In _______________, management trainees are released from their regular duties so to work full time on projects, analyzing and solving problems in other departments.

A) action learning B) off-the-job training C) the coaching/understudy approach D) job rotation E) the case study method 16

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QuestionID: 09-55 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: A) action learning 56. In __________, trainees act out the situations that they are likely to encounter in a realistic management situation, to get evaluated on and learn how to react.

A) positional training B) realistic training C) role-playing D) the case study method E) action learning QuestionID: 09-56 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: C) role-playing 57. Employers are increasingly granting technical and professional employees extended periods of time off to attend a college or university to pursue a higher degree or to upgrade their skills. These periods of time off are referred to as A) upgrade programs.

B) vacations.

C) sabbaticals.

D) temporary leaves of absence.

E) employee severance.

QuestionID: 09-57 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: C) sabbaticals.

58. The employer's role in university-related programs often involves the provision of an incentive for employees to develop job-related skills; this incentive often takes what form?

A) Paid leaves of absence B) Cash bonuses C) Tuition refunds or subsidies D) Tutoring services E) Desirable job assignments QuestionID: 09-58 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: C) Tuition refunds or subsidies 59. Loblaws Inc has an internal method and training that is offered to internal employees who show the 17

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potential to succeed in management roles. A core function of the training is that the employee completed realistic exercises to develop their management skills. What is this Loblaws Inc's training system referred to as?

A) Management games B) In-house development centres C) Role-playing activities D) Assessment centres E) Succession planning exercises QuestionID: 09-59 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: B) In-house development centres 60. A management development technique that involves presenting a trainee with a written description of an organizational problem with relevant information and asking them to work through it is known as which of the following?

A) The case study method B) An action learning program C) A coaching/understudy approach D) A role-play exercise E) A management game QuestionID: 09-60 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: A) The case study method 61. A management development technique that has teams of trainees competing with one another by making decisions regarding realistic but computer simulated companies is reflective of which of the following techniques?

A) A computerized junior board B) A computerized simulation exercise C) A computerized case study D) A computerized management game E) Computerized action learning QuestionID: 09-61 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: D) A computerized management game 62. Which of the following is true of mentoring programs?

A) They provide benefits to protégés only.

B) They do not provide individual attention.

C) Effective mentoring builds trust both ways in the mentor-protégé relationship.

D) They provide benefits to mentors only.

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E) Organizational mentoring may only be formal in nature.

QuestionID: 09-62 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: C) Effective mentoring builds trust both ways in the mentor-protégé relationship.

63. The use of an experienced individual to teach and train someone with less knowledge in a given area is referred to as which of the following?

A) Basic training B) Lecturing C) On-the-job training D) Mentoring E) Off-the-job training QuestionID: 09-63 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: D) Mentoring 64. Which of the following is most likely to occur in a reverse mentoring program?

A) Young workers providing guidance to new hires.

B) Senior executives providing guidance to new employees.

C) Senior executives providing guidance to junior employees in management.

D) Younger workers providing guidance to senior executives.

E) Older workers providing guidance to younger workers in the same position.

QuestionID: 09-64 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: D) Younger workers providing guidance to senior executives.

65. Succession planning is the process through which senior managers prepare for life in retirement. a True b False QuestionID: 09-65 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: b. False 66. Developmental job rotation not only helps the trainee to broaden his or her experience, but it also helps the trainee discover which jobs he or she prefers. a True b False 19

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QuestionID: 09-66 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: a. True 67. Amy is the new Director of learning and development at a pharmaceutical company, Medica Inc. She is designing a management development program. Identify (1 point each) and describe how Amy might implement two different management development techniques (2 points for each description).

QuestionID: 09-67 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: Developmental Job Rotation - A management training technique that involves moving a trainee from department to department to broaden their experience and identify strong and weak points.

In addition to providing a well-rounded training experience for each person, job rotation helps to prevent stagnation through the constant introduction of new points of view in each department. It also tests the trainee and helps to identify the person's strong and weak points.

Coaching/Understudy Approach - In the coaching/understudy approach, the trainee works directly with the person that they are to replace; the latter is, in turn, responsible for the trainee's coaching. Normally, the trainee relieves the executive of certain responsibilities and learns the job by doing it. This helps to ensure that the employer will have trained managers to assume key positions. To be effective, the executive has to be a good coach and mentor. Their motivation to train the replacement will depend on the quality of the relationship between them.

Action learning - A training technique by which management trainees are allowed to work full time, analyzing and solving problems in other departments. The idea of developing managers in this way has pros and cons. It gives trainees real experience with actual problems, and to that extent it can develop skills, such as problem analysis and planning. Furthermore, working with the others in the group, the trainees can and do find solutions to major problems. The main drawback is that, in releasing trainees to work on outside projects, the employer loses the full-time services of a competent manager.

68. Kevin's company received the rights to sell a revolutionary office chair for all central and Eastern Canada.

Kevin forecasts quick growth and the need for more employees in sales, logistics, operations, and quality control. He also sees his management team undergoing much change. Define what succession planning is (1 point). Briefly describe the steps Kevin should take as part of succession planning to prepare for his company's growth (2 points for each step described).

QuestionID: 09-68 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: Succession planning is a process through which senior-level and critical strategic job openings are planned for and eventually filled.

Kevin should take the following steps: 1. Establish a strategic direction for the organization and jobs that are critical to achieving that strategic direction.

2. Identify core skills and competencies needed in jobs that are critical to achieve the strategy.

3. Identify people inside the organization who have, or can acquire, those skills and provide them with 20

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developmental opportunities.

69. Many firms retain ________ to develop their top managers' effectiveness.

A) mentors B) executive coaches C) instructional designers D) leaders E) managers QuestionID: 09-69 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: B) executive coaches 70. There is a growing need for leaders who can listen to others and tolerate mistakes made in good faith as part of a learning process. a True b False QuestionID: 09-70 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: a. True 71. Derek has recently been hired into a key role at an insurance brokerage. His manager has partnered him with Amit who has a similar role but no direct reporting relationship. Based on this, Amit might be Derek's A) executive coach.

B) manager.

C) manager-once-removed.

D) mentor.

E) direct report.

QuestionID: 09-71 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: D) mentor.

72. Amit has recently been promoted into an executive role after succeeding for many years as the country's top salesperson. To ensure that he effectively transitions into this leadership role, the firm has hired Stacey. Stacey gives advice on what the role of the leadership team is, and how Amit might fit in his role and the team. Stacey is likely Amit's A) executive coach.

B) manager.

C) manager-once-removed.

D) mentor.

E) direct report.

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QuestionID: 09-72 Objective: 9.4—List and briefly discuss four management or leadership development methods.

Answer: A) executive coach.

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Human Resources Management in Canada, 15Ce (Dessler) Chapter 10: Performance Management 1. The process that includes goal setting, pay for performance, training and development, career management, and disciplinary action is known as which of the following?

A) Profit management B) Efficiency management C) Cost management D) Skill management E) Performance management QuestionID: 10-01 Objective: 10.1—Explain the strategic value and importance of performance management.

Answer: E) Performance management 2. __________ is a process for improving work performance in a frequent contact, hands-on process.

A) Bias B) Training C) Coaching D) Retention E) Ethics QuestionID: 10-02 Objective: 10.1—Explain the strategic value and importance of performance management.

Answer: C) Coaching 3. In high-performing organizations, managers tend to manage performance A) daily.

B) monthly.

C) annually.

D) bi-annually.

E) infrequently.

QuestionID: 10-03 Objective: 10.1—Explain the strategic value and importance of performance management.

Answer: A) daily.

4. What is bias (1 point)? Describe four guidelines for reducing bias and developing an effective performance appraisal process (2 points each).

QuestionID: 10-04 Objective: 10.1—Explain the strategic value and importance of performance management.

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Answer: Bias is the tendency to allow individual differences such as age, visible minority status, ethnicity, indigenous group membership, and gender affiliation to affect employees' appraisal ratings.

Guidelines for developing an effective appraisal process include the following: 1. Conduct a job analysis to ascertain characteristics (such as "timely project completion") required for successful job performance. Use this information to create job performance standards.

2. Incorporate these characteristics into a rating instrument. (The professional literature recommends rating instruments that are tied to specific job behaviours—that is, BARS.) 3. Make sure that definitive performance standards are provided to all raters and ratees.

4. Use clearly defined individual dimensions of job performance (such as "quantity" or "quality") rather than undefined, global measures of job performance (such as "overall performance").

5. When using a graphic rating scale, avoid abstract trait names (such as "loyalty" or "honesty") unless they can be defined in terms of observable behaviours.

6. Employ subjective supervisory ratings (e.g., essays) as only one component of the overall appraisal process.

7. Train supervisors to use the rating instrument properly. Give instructions on how to apply performance appraisal standards ("outstanding," "satisfactory," etc.) when making judgments. Ensure that subjective standards are not subject to bias.

8. Allow appraisers regular contact with the employee being evaluated.

9. Whenever possible, have more than one appraiser conduct the appraisal, and conduct all such appraisals independently. This process can help to cancel out individual errors and biases.

10. Use formal appeal mechanisms and a review of ratings by upper-level managers.

11. Document evaluations and reasons for any termination decision.

12. Where appropriate, provide corrective guidance to assist poor performers in improving their performance.

5. The overall objective of high-ethics performance reviews should be to provide an honest assessment of performance and to mutually develop a plan to improve the individual's effectiveness. a True b False QuestionID: 10-05 Objective: 10.1—Explain the strategic value and importance of performance management.

Answer: a. True 6. Which of the following effective performance appraisal factor will lead to optimum employee performance?

A) Training employees on receiving performance-related feedback B) The quantity of performance appraisal dialogue between non-managerial employees C) The quality of the performance appraisal dialogue between non-managerial employees D) The quantity of performance appraisal dialogue between a manager and an employee E) The quality of the performance appraisal dialogue between a manager and an employee QuestionID: 10-06 Objective: 10.2—Discuss the five steps in the performance management process.

Answer: E) The quality of the performance appraisal dialogue between a manager and an employee 7. Performance appraisal is often an easy interpersonal task for managers.

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a True b False QuestionID: 10-07 Objective: 10.1—Explain the strategic value and importance of performance management.

Answer: b. False 8. Performance appraisals can be required in courts when assessing wrongful termination cases and are considered to be legal documents in Canada. a True b False QuestionID: 10-08 Objective: 10.1—Explain the strategic value and importance of performance management.

Answer: a. True 9. Sophie will be meeting with each of her team members at the start of the fiscal year. Her agenda includes discussing their performance goals, pay, career aspirations and training and development needs. This process is referred to as A) onboarding.

B) orientation.

C) performance appraisals.

D) performance management.

E) career development.

QuestionID: 10-09 Objective: 10.1—Explain the strategic value and importance of performance management.

Answer: D) performance management.

10. Effective performance management begins with defining the job and which of the following?

A) Clarifying career planning B) Identifying promotion decisions C) Describing the appraisal methods D) Defining its performance standards E) Calculating the related pay scale QuestionID: 10-10 Objective: 10.2—Discuss the five steps in the performance management process.

Answer: D) Defining its performance standards 11. The performance management process contains five steps. Identify these steps (1 point each) and describe three of the five steps (2 points for each description).

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QuestionID: 10-11 Objective: 10.2—Discuss the five steps in the performance management process.

Answer: 1. Defining performance expectations.

Defining performance expectations and goals is a critical step in employees' understanding of how their work makes a contribution to achieving business results. Managers use one or more of three bases—goals, job dimensions or traits, and behaviours or competencies—to establish ahead of time what the person's performance standards should be. Such goals should derive from the company's strategy such as overall profitability, cost reduction, or efficiency goals.

2. Providing ongoing coaching and feedback.

Effective appraisals are essential to managing the performance required of an organization's employees to achieve that organization's strategic objectives. The key success factor for effective performance appraisal that will lead to optimum employee performance is the quality of the performance appraisal dialogue between a manager and an employee. Managers need to engage in training on an ongoing basis to ensure that they are in a position to engage in high-quality formal appraisal discussions.

3. Conducting performance appraisal and evaluation discussions.

The appraisal itself is generally conducted with the aid of a predetermined and formal method, such as one or more of those described next. This includes a discussion of the options of multiple formal appraisal methods and common performance appraisal problems (with solutions) in detail. An important component of the performance management process is the effective use of feedback. This often happens in a formal appraisal discussion after the performance has been evaluated.

4. Determining performance rewards/consequences.

It is important to clear up performance problems by setting goals and a schedule for achieving them. However, even if you have obtained agreement from your employees about the areas for performance improvement, they may or may not be satisfied with their appraisals. In one study, researchers found that whether employees expressed satisfaction with their formal appraisal discussions depended mostly on three factors: (1) not feeling threatened during the interview, (2) having an opportunity to present their ideas and feelings and to influence the course of the interview, and (3) having a helpful and constructive supervisor conduct the interview.

5. Conducting career development discussions.

During this discussion, the manager and employee discuss opportunities for development to strengthen or improve the employee's knowledge, skills, and abilities. Business needs must be balanced with the employee's preferences. These opportunities may focus on actions to boost performance in the area of current goals or to develop new knowledge aimed at a future career plan.

12. What is an individual's direct contribution to their job-related processes known as?

A) Productivity evaluations B) Task performance C) An efficiency measure D) Effectiveness of activity E) Logistical appraisals QuestionID: 10-12 Objective: 10.2—Discuss the five steps in the performance management process.

Answer: B) Task performance 4

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13. SMART performance goals are: A) specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, and timely B) solutions, metrics, achievements, role-oriented, and transferrable C) small, micro, asynchronistic, relevant, and tangential D) specialized, methodological, actionable, research-based, and trainable E) social, manual, action-oriented, reasonable, and transparent QuestionID: 10-13 Objective: 10.2—Discuss the five steps in the performance management process.

Answer: B) solutions, metrics, achievements, role-oriented, and transferrable 14. A manager wishes to give a new employee a pay increase sooner than scheduled. The new employee has a great positive attitude that has made other workers more positive and productive. What is this employee receiving an earlier pay increase for?

A) Related performance B) Social performance C) Influential performance D) Direct performance E) Contextual performance QuestionID: 10-14 Objective: 10.2—Discuss the five steps in the performance management process.

Answer: E) Contextual performance 15. Culturally specific values, used in parts of Asia, lead to an emphasis on appraisals that are based upon personal attitudes and moral characteristics that appear to reflect traditional values, such as hard work, loyalty, and respect toward senior staff. What are these values called?

A) Western values B) Eastern values C) Confucian values D) Unconventional values E) Conventional values QuestionID: 10-15 Objective: 10.2—Discuss the five steps in the performance management process.

Answer: C) Confucian values 16. In global companies, performance appraisal criteria may need to be modified to be consistent with cultural norms and values. a True b False 5

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QuestionID: 10-16 Objective: 10.2—Discuss the five steps in the performance management process.

Answer: a. True 17. Job performance is a unidimensional construct. a True b False QuestionID: 10-17 Objective: 10.2—Discuss the five steps in the performance management process.

Answer: b. False 18. What does PIP refer to in the performance management process?

A) Performance implementation policy B) Performance incident procedure C) Performance increase in pay D) Performance improvement plan E) Performance installation process QuestionID: 10-18 Objective: 10.2—Discuss the five steps in the performance management process.

Answer: D) Performance improvement plan 19. Managers and their reports should only discuss progress towards performance expectations at the annual performance management meeting. a True b False QuestionID: 10-19 Objective: 10.2—Discuss the five steps in the performance management process.

Answer: b. False 20. An interview with the supervisor and the employee to review the appraisal and make plans to remedy deficiencies and reinforce strengths is referred to as which of the following?

A) Formal appraisal discussion B) Post-appraisal review C) Follow-up appraisal feedback D) Official appraisal assessment E) Informal appraisal interview QuestionID: 10-20 Objective: 10.2—Discuss the five steps in the performance management process.

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Answer: A) Formal appraisal discussion 21. The easiest formal appraisal discussion to conduct is based on outcomes that show the employee is: A) Satisfactory–unpromotable B) Unsatisfactory–unpromotable C) Unsatisfactory–correctable D) Unsatisfactory–uncorrectable E) Satisfactory–promotable QuestionID: 10-21 Objective: 10.2—Discuss the five steps in the performance management process.

Answer: E) Satisfactory–promotable 22. _________ is a common first employee response when a supervisor tells them that their performance is poor or below average.

A) An emotional display B) Aggression C) Changing the subject D) Anger E) Denial QuestionID: 10-22 Objective: 10.2—Discuss the five steps in the performance management process.

Answer: E) Denial 23. Which of the following is a best practice to be used when dealing with defensive employees?

A) Use position power to convince the employee that the appraisal is accurate.

B) Highlighting the emotions you feel as an assessor during the evaluation process.

C) Recognize that defensive behaviour is normal.

D) Explain to the person that defensive behaviour is unacceptable.

E) Tell the person that the appraisal will be repeated by another manager.

QuestionID: 10-23 Objective: 10.2—Discuss the five steps in the performance management process.

Answer: C) Recognize that defensive behaviour is normal.

24. Step 5 of the performance management process the manager and employee discussing opportunities for development in order to strengthen or improve the employee's knowledge, skills, and abilities; this step is known as the A) training improvement process step.

B) career development discussion step.

C) job management step.

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D) performance rewards step.

E) performance consequences step.

QuestionID: 10-24 Objective: 10.2—Discuss the five steps in the performance management process.

Answer: B) career development discussion step.

25. What is the simplest and most popular technique for appraising employee performance?

A) Narrative forms B) Critical incident method C) Forced distribution method D) Graphic rating scale E) Paired comparison method QuestionID: 10-25 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: D) Graphic rating scale 26. Which performance appraisal method lists several traits and a range of performance values for each trait?

A) Alternation ranking method B) Behaviourally anchored rating scale C) Graphic rating scale D) Forced distribution method E) Paired comparison method QuestionID: 10-26 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: C) Graphic rating scale 27. Which performance appraisal technique involves listing all employees to be rated followed by indicating the employee who is the highest on the characteristic being measured and also the one who is the lowest?

A) Behaviourally anchored rating scale B) Paired comparison method C) Forced distribution method D) Alternation ranking method E) Graphic rating scale QuestionID: 10-27 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: D) Alternation ranking method 28. Peter is appraising his employees. For each trait, he evaluates two employees at a time in order to determine 8

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the better employee of the two. Which appraisal technique is Peter using?

A) Paired comparison method B) Forced distribution method C) Alternation ranking method D) Graphic rating scale E) Critical incident method QuestionID: 10-28 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: A) Paired comparison method 29. Which performance appraisal technique uses a "+" to denote "better than" and a "-" to denote "worse than" and then adds up the number of times that each employee was rated as "better than"?

A) Alternation ranking method B) Critical incident method C) Paired comparison method D) Forced distribution method E) Graphic rating scale method QuestionID: 10-29 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: C) Paired comparison method 30. Which performance appraisal technique places a predetermined percentage of employees being rated in various performance categories?

A) Paired comparison method B) Critical incident method C) Alternation ranking method D) Graphic rating scale E) Forced distribution method QuestionID: 10-30 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: E) Forced distribution method 31. Neerja is rating her team of ten employees. According to company policy, one employee should be "below expectations" and three employees should be rated "exceptional." What performance appraisal technique does this company use?

A) Paired comparison method B) Critical incident method C) Alternation ranking method D) Graphic rating scale E) Forced distribution method 9

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QuestionID: 10-31 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: E) Forced distribution method 32. A manager is considering changing her current performance appraisal method, the graphic rating scale, to the forced distribution method. What criticism of this new method would you advise her about?

A) The traits being appraised are often incorrect.

B) The employees are placed in categories unrelated to their actual skills.

C) Employee comparisons are often unfair as veterans may be compared with newcomers.

D) Comparisons are very technical and this removes the manager's personal judgment.

E) The majority of the workforce is classified as at or below average and this may be demotivating.

QuestionID: 10-32 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: E) The majority of the workforce is classified as at or below average and this may be demotivating.

33. Which performance appraisal technique maintains a record of uncommonly good or undesirable examples of an employee's work-related behaviour, which are reviewed with the employee at predetermined times?

A) Paired comparison method B) Behaviourally anchored rating scales C) Alternation ranking method D) Critical incident method E) Forced distribution method QuestionID: 10-33 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: D) Critical incident method 34. Which performance appraisal techniques is useful for identifying specific examples of good and poor performance and for planning how deficiencies can be corrected?

A) Critical incident method B) Paired comparison method C) Narrative form D) Forced distribution method E) Ranking method QuestionID: 10-34 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: A) Critical incident method 35. Which performance appraisal technique quantifies ratings by anchoring a quantified scale with specific 10

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narrative examples of good and poor performance?

A) Behaviourally anchored rating scale B) Forced distribution scale C) Graphic rating scale D) Paired comparison scale E) Alternation ranking method scale QuestionID: 10-35 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: A) Behaviourally anchored rating scale 36. The performance improvement plan is most closely associated with which performance appraisal technique?

A) Critical incident B) Paired comparison C) Narrative forms D) Forced distribution E) Ranking QuestionID: 10-36 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: C) Narrative forms 37. What does a summary performance appraisal discussion focus on?

A) Problem solving B) Administration C) Training supervisors D) Critical incidents E) Pay scales QuestionID: 10-37 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: A) Problem solving 38. Which performance appraisal technique combines the benefits of narrative, critical incidents, and quantified ratings by attaching a quantified scale with specific narrative examples of good or poor performance?

A) Graphic rating scale method B) Paired narrative-quantitative method C) Critical incident method D) Behaviourally anchored rating scale method E) Forced distribution method QuestionID: 10-38 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

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Answer: D) Behaviourally anchored rating scale method 39. Which of the following is an advantage of the critical incident method?

A) It provides instant feedback to employees on critical issues.

B) It is useful by itself for comparing employees.

C) Results are easily linked to pay increase decisions.

D) Both managers and their employees agree to the criteria in advance.

E) It provides specific behaviours for explaining the appraisal.

QuestionID: 10-39 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: E) It provides specific behaviours for explaining the appraisal.

40. Which method for appraising performance involves setting specific measurable goals with each employee and then periodically reviewing the progress made?

A) Progress review method B) Critical goal method C) Behaviourally anchored rating scale method D) Management by objectives E) Periodic review method QuestionID: 10-40 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: D) Management by objectives 41. A potential problem that can occur when using management by objectives is that objectives set are A) too easy to achieve.

B) not directly related to an employee's tasks.

C) common to all employees.

D) unclear and unmeasurable.

E) unrealistic and unattainable.

QuestionID: 10-41 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: D) unclear and unmeasurable.

42. When using management by objectives (MBO), how should the job performance goals be set?

A) The goals should not be set and should be allowed to change throughout the review period B) Collaboratively between the employee and their manager C) Collaboratively between the employee and their work team or coworkers D) Independently by the manager E) Independently by the senior management team 12

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QuestionID: 10-42 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: B) Collaboratively between the employee and their manager 43. Belinda manages the data entry department of a credit card company. Employees are ranked based on the accuracy and quantity of data they can input. Belinda is able to observe and monitor her employee's work digitally through a shared folder that collects employee metrics; what is this performance appraisal method formally called?

A) Data entry detection B) Production evaluation C) Employee systems assessment D) Records processing review E) Electronic performance monitoring QuestionID: 10-43 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: E) Electronic performance monitoring 44. Performance appraisal systems must be based on performance criteria that are ________ for the position being rated and ________ in that their application must produce consistent ratings for the same level of performance.

A) reliable; valid B) reliable; reliable C) valid; measurable D) measurable; valid E) valid; reliable QuestionID: 10-44 Objective: 10.4—Discuss the major problems inhibiting effective performance appraisals.

Answer: E) valid; reliable 45. When a performance appraisal scale is too open to interpretation of traits and standards, this rating scale problem is known as which of the following?

A) Non-quantitative standards B) Translation openness C) Unclear performance standards D) Appraisal bias E) Critical incidents QuestionID: 10-45 Objective: 10.4—Discuss the major problems inhibiting effective performance appraisals.

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Answer: C) Unclear performance standards 46. Although the graphic rating scale seems objective, it may result in unfair appraisals because the traits and degrees of merit are A) open to interpretation.

B) contradictory of each other.

C) repetitive.

D) consistently applied.

E) outdated.

QuestionID: 10-46 Objective: 10.4—Discuss the major problems inhibiting effective performance appraisals.

Answer: A) open to interpretation.

47. Mindy is Gary's supervisor. She is very impressed with Gary's ability to work in a team, so has rated Gary as "outstanding" for this trait. Although Gary missed more deadlines than his peers over the past quarter, Mindy also rated Gary as "above average" for the trait of "personal effectiveness" as well. Mindy's ratings indicate which performance appraisal problem?

A) Performance bias B) Halo effect C) Trait effect D) Appraisal bias E) Trait bias QuestionID: 10-47 Objective: 10.4—Discuss the major problems inhibiting effective performance appraisals.

Answer: B) Halo effect 48. Kai ranks his employees on a scale from 1 to 5. In general, most of his employees receive a rating of around 3 although his employees differ more on their actual performance. Kai's actions seem to indicate which performance appraisal problem?

A) Central tendency B) Halo effect C) Performance bias D) Appraisal bias E) Equal rating tendency QuestionID: 10-48 Objective: 10.4—Discuss the major problems inhibiting effective performance appraisals.

Answer: A) Central tendency 49. When supervisors who are engaged in a performance appraisal tend to rate all employees either high or low, this problem is referred to as: 14

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A) Halo effect B) Performance bias C) Appraisal bias D) Central tendency E) Strictness/leniency QuestionID: 10-49 Objective: 10.4—Discuss the major problems inhibiting effective performance appraisals.

Answer: E) Strictness/leniency 50. Evaluations of a company's performance management system show that individual differences in employees around age, race, and sex unfairly affect the appraisal ratings that employees received. This is indicative of which performance appraisal problem?

A) Strictness/leniency B) Central tendency C) Appraisal bias D) Halo effect E) Trait effect QuestionID: 10-50 Objective: 10.4—Discuss the major problems inhibiting effective performance appraisals.

Answer: C) Appraisal bias 51. Jordan is a relatively younger manager. He rates his older employees lower than the younger ones. What performance appraisal problem may be occurring?

A) Strictness/leniency B) Central tendency C) Appraisal bias D) Halo effect E) Trait effect QuestionID: 10-51 Objective: 10.4—Discuss the major problems inhibiting effective performance appraisals.

Answer: C) Appraisal bias 52. Although Jia was an average sales performer for most of the year, her last client experience was very positive. The client wrote to the company about the excellent experience they had with Jia and posted a positive review on Google reviews about the company, specifically referring to interactions with Jia. Jia's manager rated her overall performance as "outstanding". Which performance appraisal problem does this reflect?

A) Appraisal bias B) Recency effect C) Central tendency D) Similar-to-me 15

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E) Halo effect QuestionID: 10-52 Objective: 10.4—Discuss the major problems inhibiting effective performance appraisals.

Answer: B) Recency effect 53. Janice sees a lot of herself in her employee Danielle as they both went to the same school, earned the same degree, and enjoy the same types of hobbies. Danielle often receives a higher appraisal from Janice compared with other workers. What performance management error is Janice likely making?

A) Appraisal bias B) Recency effect C) Central tendency D) Similar-to-me bias E) Halo effect QuestionID: 10-53 Objective: 10.4—Discuss the major problems inhibiting effective performance appraisals.

Answer: D) Similar-to-me bias 54. Improving performance appraisal accuracy requires appraiser training and A) decreased quantification of performance metrics.

B) input from more members of management.

C) reducing the influence of outside factors, such as union pressure and time constraints.

D) a lack of dependence on the HR information system for performance results.

E) creating a more effective employee orientation program.

QuestionID: 10-54 Objective: 10.4—Discuss the major problems inhibiting effective performance appraisals.

Answer: C) reducing the influence of outside factors, such as union pressure and time constraints.

55. Paolo is a Vice President of finance at GameStop. He wants to get some feedback on concerns around how a specific manager works with their team and peers. Why might the 360-degree appraisal be most appropriate (2 points)?

QuestionID: 10-55 Objective: 10.5—Discuss the various sources of performance appraisal, including the 360-degree appraisal.

Answer: The 360-degree appraisal is most appropriate since it is multisource feedback which collects "all around" performance information on an employee—from their supervisors, subordinates, peers, and internal or external customers. Paolo would be able to receive information from the manager's team and peers which can be used to inform his performance feedback, coaching, leadership development, succession planning, and rewards and recognition as necessary for the manager.

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56. Describe two reasons why 360-degree appraisals are increasingly common (2 points for each reason).

QuestionID: 10-56 Objective: 10.5—Discuss the various sources of performance appraisal, including the 360-degree appraisal.

Answer: Today's flatter organizations employ a more open communicative climate conducive to such an approach, and 360-degree appraisal fits closely with the goals of organizations committed to continuous learning.

A multiple-rater system is also more meaningful in today's reality of complex jobs, with matrix and team reporting relationships. A 360-degree appraisal can be perceived as a jury of peers, rather than the supervisor as a single judge, which enhances perceptions of fairness.

57. When peers rate one another's performance, one potential problem is logrolling—peers rate each other highly. a True b False QuestionID: 10-57 Objective: 10.5—Discuss the various sources of performance appraisal, including the 360-degree appraisal.

Answer: a. True 58. Costco uses a peer performance appraisal, in which coworkers formally rate the performance of each other.

Costco notices that rating are relatively high (e.g., average 4.5 out of 5 overall). What performance appraisal problem does this represent?

A) Halo error B) Logrolling C) Appraisal bias D) Preferential evaluation E) Leniency error QuestionID: 10-58 Objective: 10.5—Discuss the various sources of performance appraisal, including the 360-degree appraisal.

Answer: B) Logrolling 59. Brenda is preparing for performance appraisals on her project management team. She solicits feedback from three other managers who have worked with her team members. What type of performance appraisal is she conducting?

A) 360-degree B) Rating committee C) Alternation rating D) Paired comparison E) Graphic rating QuestionID: 10-59 17

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Objective: 10.5—Discuss the various sources of performance appraisal, including the 360-degree appraisal.

Answer: B) Rating committee 60. What is the basic problem associated with employee self-ratings in the performance appraisal process?

A) Lack of anonymity B) Employee reluctance to self-rate C) Peers rate the employee higher than they rate themselves D) Employees do not value the opportunity to participate in performance appraisal E) Employees usually rate themselves higher than they are rated by supervisors or peers QuestionID: 10-60 Objective: 10.5—Discuss the various sources of performance appraisal, including the 360-degree appraisal.

Answer: E) Employees usually rate themselves higher than they are rated by supervisors or peers 61. Many firms today let employees anonymously evaluate the performance of their supervisor; what is this process known as?

A) Subordinate appraisal B) Team appraisal C) Downward feedback D) Upward feedback E) Anonymous evaluation QuestionID: 10-61 Objective: 10.5—Discuss the various sources of performance appraisal, including the 360-degree appraisal.

Answer: D) Upward feedback 62. 360-degree feedback was originally used only for training and development purposes, but it has rapidly spread to being used in the management of which of the following?

A) Job evaluation B) Performance and pay C) Employee orientation D) Organizational finances E) Rating errors QuestionID: 10-62 Objective: 10.5—Discuss the various sources of performance appraisal, including the 360-degree appraisal.

Answer: B) Performance and pay 63. The 360-degree appraisal approach fits closely with the goals of organizations committed specifically to which of the following?

A) Employment equity B) Hierarchical chain of command 18

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C) Management by objectives D) Continuous learning E) Pay equity QuestionID: 10-63 Objective: 10.5—Discuss the various sources of performance appraisal, including the 360-degree appraisal.

Answer: D) Continuous learning 64. The most popular technique for appraising performance is the graphic rating scale. a True b False QuestionID: 10-64 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: a. True 65. When using the paired comparison method, every employee is paired with and compared with every other employee. a True b False QuestionID: 10-65 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: a. True 66. The critical incident method is useful by itself for comparing employees and making salary decisions. a True b False QuestionID: 10-66 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: b. False 67. Developing a graphic rating scale is usually more time-consuming than developing a behaviourally anchored rating scale. a True b False QuestionID: 10-67 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: b. False 19

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68. When using management by objectives, it is important to know the job and the employee's ability. a True b False QuestionID: 10-68 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: a. True 69. Using a graphic rating scale can help to avoid the central tendency rating scale problem. a True b False QuestionID: 10-69 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: b. False 70. Identify the eight formal appraisal methods (0.5 points each). Of the eight methods identified, describe one method from each category: comparative, qualitative and quantitative (1 point for the appraisal method being in the appropriate category, 2 points for each description).

QuestionID: 10-70 Objective: 10.3—Describe five performance appraisal methods and the pros and cons of each.

Answer: Comparative methods: Graphic rating scale - A scale that lists a number of traits and a range of performance for each. The employee is then rated by identifying the score that best describes their level of performance for each trait. It is the simplest and most popular technique for appraising performance.

Alteration ranking method - Ranking employees from best to worst on a particular trait. Because it is usually easier to distinguish between the worst and best employees than to rank them, an alternation ranking method is popular. First, list all employees to be rated, and then cross out the names of any not known well enough to rank. Then, on a form, indicate the employee who is the highest on the characteristic being measured and also the one who is the lowest. Then choose the next highest and the next lowest, alternating between highest and lowest until all the employees to be rated have been ranked.

Paired comparison method - Ranking employees by making a chart of all possible pairs of employees for each trait and indicating the better employee of the pair.

Forced distribution method - Predetermined percentages of ratees are placed in various performance categories.

Qualitative methods: Critical incident - Keeping a record of uncommonly good or undesirable examples of an employee's workrelated behaviour and reviewing the list with the employee at predetermined times.

Narrative forms - Some employers use narrative forms to evaluate employees. For example, feedback is commonly presented in a standard form used for identifying a performance issue and presenting a performance improvement plan (PIP). The performance problem is described in specific detail, and its organizational impact is specified. The improvement plan identifies measurable improvement goals, provides directions regarding 20

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training and any other suggested activities to address the performance issue, and encourages the employee to add ideas about steps to be taken to improve performance.

Quantitative methods: Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS) - An appraisal method that aims to combine the benefits of narratives, critical incidents, and quantified ratings by anchoring a quantified scale with specific narrative examples of good and poor performance.

Management by Objectives (MBO) - Involves setting specific measurable goals with each employee and then periodically reviewing the progress made toward these goals, aligned with a comprehensive, organization-wide goal-setting and appraisal program.

71. Describe five appraisal rating scale problems (1 point for each description) and identify two ways to avoid appraisal problems (1 point for each solution).

QuestionID: 10-71 Objective: 10.4—Discuss the major problems inhibiting effective performance appraisals.

Answer: Unclear standards - An appraisal scale that is too open to interpretation of traits and standards.

Halo effect - In performance appraisal, the problem that occurs when a supervisor's rating of an employee on one trait biases the rating of that person on other traits.

Central tendency - A tendency to rate all employees in the middle of the scale.

Strictness/leniency - The problem that occurs when a supervisor has a tendency to rate all employees either low or high.

Appraisal bias - The tendency to allow individual differences, such as age, race, and sex, to affect the appraisal ratings that these employees receive.

Recency effect - The rating error that occurs when ratings are based on the employee's most recent performance rather than on performance throughout the appraisal period.

Similar-to-me bias - The tendency to give higher performance ratings to employees who are perceived to be similar to the rater in some way.

Ways to avoid appraisal problems: - First, raters must be familiar with the problems just discussed. Understanding the problem can help to prevent it.

- Second, training supervisors on how to eliminate rating errors, such as the halo effect, leniency, and central tendency, can help them avoid these problems. In a typical training program, raters are shown videos of jobs being performed and are asked to rate the worker. Ratings made by each participant are then placed on a flip chart and the various errors (such as leniency and halo) are explained.

- Third, raters must choose the right appraisal tool.

72. The following may all be appropriate to rate an employee's performance except A) peers on the same team.

B) the employee themselves.

C) manager.

D) colleagues who don't work with the employee.

E) subordinates.

QuestionID: 10-72 Objective: 10.5—Discuss the various sources of performance appraisal, including the 360-degree appraisal.

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Answer: D) colleagues who don't work with the employee.

73. When conducting 360-degree feedback, organizations should be advised to do all of the following except A) have the performance criteria developed by a representative group that is familiar with each job.

B) be clear about who will have access to reports.

C) provide training for all supervisors, raters, and ratees.

D) identify to the reader who provided comments.

E) evaluate the 360-degree feedback system for fine-tuning.

QuestionID: 10-73 Objective: 10.5—Discuss the various sources of performance appraisal, including the 360-degree appraisal.

Answer: D) identify to the reader who provided comments.

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Human Resources Management in Canada, 15Ce (Dessler) Chapter 11: Strategic Pay Plans 1. _________ is the extent to which rewards support outcomes that are important to achieving the organization's strategic objectives.

A) Compensation B) Pay equity C) Competency-based pay D) Strategic alignment E) Job evaluation QuestionID: 11-01 Objective: 11.1—Discuss the strategic importance of total rewards.

Answer: D) Strategic alignment 2. Which of the following are the two main components of employee compensation?

A) Payroll costs and government taxes B) Direct and indirect financial payments C) Regular pay and bonuses D) Salary or wages and overtime pay E) Earnings and incentives QuestionID: 11-02 Objective: 11.1—Discuss the strategic importance of total rewards.

Answer: B) Direct and indirect financial payments 3. Wages, salaries, incentives, commissions, and bonuses are known as which of the following?

A) Indirect deposits B) Indirect financial payments C) Variable payments D) Direct deposits E) Direct financial payments QuestionID: 11-03 Objective: 11.1—Discuss the strategic importance of total rewards.

Answer: E) Direct financial payments 4. Victoria has been a contract worker for a construction company and has just been offered a full-time, noncontract position. She will now receive additional benefits, such as employer-paid insurance and an extra paid vacation. What are these components of employee compensation called?

A) Indirect deposits B) Indirect financial payments C) Variable payments 1

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D) Direct deposits E) Direct financial payments QuestionID: 11-04 Objective: 11.1—Discuss the strategic importance of total rewards.

Answer: B) Indirect financial payments 5. The term "total rewards" refers only to the monetary components of compensation. a True b False QuestionID: 11-05 Objective: 11.1—Discuss the strategic importance of total rewards.

Answer: b. False 6. An employer ensures that they are gender-neutral in devising salaries for jobs that are both male- and femaledominated. Which type of legislation is the employer adhering to?

A) Comparable worth B) Pay equity C) External equity D) Internal inequity E) Broadbanding QuestionID: 11-06 Objective: 11.2—Explain the concept of equity in pay and how an organization can address feelings of inequity.

Answer: B) Pay equity 7. Fareena runs a small manufacturing company. A worker hurt his hand on a vertical grinding machine.

Fareena filed the proper legal documents quickly so that the worker could receive benefits while recovering from his injury. Which type of legislation did Fareena adhere to?

A) Pay equity B) Workers' compensation C) Human rights D) Overtime pay E) Pensions QuestionID: 11-07 Objective: 11.1—Discuss the strategic importance of total rewards.

Answer: B) Workers' compensation 8. What type of compensation system do most Canadian employers adhere to?

A) Time-based pay 2

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B) Effort-based pay C) Piecework compensation D) Tip-based compensation E) Commission-based pay QuestionID: 11-08 Objective: 11.1—Discuss the strategic importance of total rewards.

Answer: A) Time-based pay 9. When Mary started her web application company one of her goals was to ensure job applicants and employees would not experience discrimination as it related to their pay and opportunities for advancement.

Which type of legislation did Mary adhere to?

A) Equity theory B) Workers compensation C) Human rights D) Overtime pay E) Pensions QuestionID: 11-09 Objective: 11.1—Discuss the strategic importance of total rewards.

Answer: C) Human rights 10. Who do unions think is best able to judge the relative value of a job?

A) The immediate manager B) The HR manager C) The top company executives D) The workers themselves E) A third-party labour consultant QuestionID: 11-10 Objective: 11.1—Discuss the strategic importance of total rewards.

Answer: D) The workers themselves 11. Up to how many weeks does the Employment Insurance Act provide compensation for workers that are unemployed through no fault of their own?

A) 58 B) 45 C) 35 D) 28 E) 18 QuestionID: 11-11 Objective: 11.1—Discuss the strategic importance of total rewards.

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Answer: B) 45 12. Pay equity laws were enacted to specifically address A) pay discrimination against senior citizens.

B) the variety of compensable factors being used to evaluate jobs.

C) the historical undervaluing of female-dominated job classes.

D) pay discrimination against people with disabilities.

E) the variety of job evaluation systems being used to evaluate jobs.

QuestionID: 11-12 Objective: 11.2—Explain the concept of equity in pay and how an organization can address feelings of inequity.

Answer: C) the historical undervaluing of female-dominated job classes.

13. Justin used to assemble 18 desks per hour during his shift for the furniture company he works for; then he found out that other workers who only assemble 13 to 15 desks per hour were receiving the same compensation as he was. Justin now assembles 14 desks per hour. Which of the following would help to explain Justin's behaviour?

A) Pay scales B) Workers compensation C) Human rights D) Equity theory E) Piece work QuestionID: 11-13 Objective: 11.2—Explain the concept of equity in pay and how an organization can address feelings of inequity.

Answer: D) Equity theory 14. Julien and Bernard, friends in the same commerce program, find similar summer jobs at different banks at the end of their winter school terms. Julien learns that Bernard's compensation is 11% more than what he is being paid. Julien feels that this employer provides unfair compensation and begins looking for a new job; what is this an example of?

A) Pay equity legislation B) Controllable equity C) External equity D) Comparable equity E) Internal equity QuestionID: 11-14 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: C) External equity 15. Julien and Bernard, friends in the same commerce program, find a summer internship in a company that 4

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hired 2 interns. The positions have the same title and responsibilities, but report to different team leaders. Both team leaders are under the same manager and in the same business unit. Julien learns that Bernard's compensation is 11% more than what he is being paid, although they both have similar prior work experience and education. Julien feels that this employer provides unfair compensation and begins looking for a new job; what is this an example of?

A) Pay equity legislation B) Controllable equity C) External equity D) Comparable equity E) Internal equity QuestionID: 11-15 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: D) Comparable equity 16. Which of the following components of equity theory specifically refers to the perceived fairness of the processes used to make decisions regarding the allocation of pay?

A) Pay equity legislation B) Procedural equity C) External equity D) Individual equity E) Internal equity QuestionID: 11-16 Objective: 11.2—Explain the concept of equity in pay and how an organization can address feelings of inequity.

Answer: B) Procedural equity 17. What do managers use to compare and understand what their competitors are paying for same or similar jobs?

A) Salary surveys B) Pay equity legislation C) Human rights acts D) Performance appraisals E) Employee grievances QuestionID: 11-17 Objective: 11.2—Explain the concept of equity in pay and how an organization can address feelings of inequity.

Answer: A) Salary surveys 18. Joe and Kiran work the same or very similar jobs within the same company. Kiran is a stronger performer than Joe, and has consistently been a stronger performer. Kiran gets paid 10% more than Joe, but neither of them feel that the pay difference is unfair, given the performance differences. What comparison is being used in this example?

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A) Pay equity legislation B) Procedural equity C) External equity D) Individual equity E) Employment equity QuestionID: 11-18 Objective: 11.2—Explain the concept of equity in pay and how an organization can address feelings of inequity.

Answer: D) Individual equity 19. The purpose of pay equity legislation is to eliminate discrimination based on age and ethnicity. a True b False QuestionID: 11-19 Objective: 11.2—Explain the concept of equity in pay and how an organization can address feelings of inequity.

Answer: b. False 20. Most of the pay equity acts in Canada focus on four compensable factors. These include all of the following below, except which one?

A) Skill B) Effort C) Responsibility D) Working conditions E) Customers QuestionID: 11-20 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: E) Customers 21. Elaine runs a call centre in Calgary. She is worried that her employees will leave for a similar role at another call centre nearby. What tool will help her determine if her employees are being paid competitively?

A) Employee grievances B) Pay equity legislation C) Human rights acts D) Performance appraisals E) Salary surveys QuestionID: 11-21 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: E) Salary surveys 6

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22. What does job evaluation determine?

A) Performance appraisals of individuals to the group B) Promotability of employees who are not yet managers C) Merit reviews of individuals to the group D) The relative value of an individual's career earnings to the group's E) The relative worth of jobs within a firm QuestionID: 11-22 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: E) The relative worth of jobs within a firm 23. The job evaluation committee typically includes several employees and has the important task of evaluating the worth of each job using which of the following?

A) Job variety B) Job design C) Comparable worth D) Behavioural anchors E) Compensable factors QuestionID: 11-23 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: E) Compensable factors 24. Jeffrey is the newly hired HR professional who is responsible for evaluating compensation practices at the company using the point system. All of the following are compensable factors that Jeffrey can use to evaluate jobs, except for which one?

A) Skill B) Effort C) Accountability D) Responsibility E) Working conditions QuestionID: 11-24 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: C) Accountability 25. Sanem's job as a corporate trainer involves a lot of travel. What compensable factors would this fall under?

A) Skill B) Effort C) Accountability D) Responsibility E) Working conditions 7

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QuestionID: 11-25 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: E) Working conditions 26. Yigit's job as a caterer involves a lot of planning. What compensable factors would this fall under?

A) Skill B) Effort C) Accountability D) Responsibility E) Working conditions QuestionID: 11-26 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: D) Responsibility 27. Leila's job as a probation officer requires a high level of interpersonal skills. What compensable factors would this fall under?

A) Skill B) Effort C) Accountability D) Responsibility E) Working conditions QuestionID: 11-27 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: A) Skill 28. Ceycey's job as a personal support worker at a retirement home involves physically lifting and moving residence who need assistance. What compensable factors would this fall under?

A) Skill B) Effort C) Accountability D) Responsibility E) Working conditions QuestionID: 11-28 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: B) Effort 29. When using a job evaluation method, such as the ranking method, it eventually results in a A) job hierarchy.

B) demotion decision.

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C) internal inequity claim.

D) human rights claim.

E) compensable factor review.

QuestionID: 11-29 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: A) job hierarchy.

30. ________ describes jobs that represent all of the various business units and departments in an organization from all levels of an organization, that are clear and well known in the industry.

A) Standard jobs B) Benchmark jobs C) Equitable jobs D) Comparable jobs E) Common jobs QuestionID: 11-30 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: B) Benchmark jobs 31. What term describes the diverse group of people that work together to ensure that compensation discussions fairly represent the nature and requirements of jobs being assessed?

A) Performance appraisal committee B) Job evaluation committee C) Union negotiating team D) Management negotiating team E) Position review committee QuestionID: 11-31 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: B) Job evaluation committee 32. Which of the following most commonly uses the classification/grading job evaluation method to categorize jobs into groups?

A) Small businesses B) Leading-edge Fortune 500 businesses C) The public sector D) The private sector E) Non-profit charitable organizations QuestionID: 11-32 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

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Answer: C) The public sector 33. What is the job evaluation method that rates each job relative to other jobs, usually based on some overall factor like "more important" or "of greater value or worth"?

A) Critical incidence method B) Factor comparison method C) Classification method D) Point method E) Ranking method QuestionID: 11-33 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: E) Ranking method 34. The classification/grading method of job evaluation involves categorizing jobs into which of the following?

A) Teams B) Groups C) Hierarchies D) Occupations E) Departments QuestionID: 11-34 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: B) Groups 35. When evaluating jobs, which of the following as a disadvantage associated with using the job classification/grading method?

A) Not all jobs will be grouped into classes.

B) This method creates an unmanageable amount of jobs.

C) Most companies do not have readily available job descriptions.

D) Considerable judgment is required in applying the class or grade descriptions.

E) Most employers do not end up classifying jobs anyway.

QuestionID: 11-35 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: D) Considerable judgment is required in applying the class or grade descriptions.

36. Which job evaluation method identifies compensable factors in a job as well as the degree to which each of these factors is present in the job and then calculates a value for each job?

A) Factor comparison method B) Ranking method C) Point method D) Hay plan method 10

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E) Job classification method QuestionID: 11-36 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: C) Point method 37. The primary function of a job evaluation committee is which of the following?

A) Determining contracts for each job B) Determining pay ranges for each job C) Evaluating the total rewards for each job D) Determining the job classes for each job E) Evaluating the worth of each job QuestionID: 11-37 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: E) Evaluating the worth of each job 38. What are the three stages in establishing pay rates?

A) Job evaluation, conducting salary surveys, and combining job evaluation and salary survey results B) Consulting with industry, determining salaries for executive positions, and deciding on a benefits plan C) Pricing of benchmark jobs, collecting data on insurance benefits, and evaluating benefits packages D) Collecting data on insurance benefits, creating a salary survey, and hiring external consultants E) Collecting data used to price every job in the organization, working with a compensation consultant, and working with a benefits specialist QuestionID: 11-38 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: A) Job evaluation, conducting salary surveys, and combining job evaluation and salary survey results 39. A ______ grade is comprised of jobs of approximately the same value or importance, as determined by job evaluation.

A) salary B) comparable C) pay D) classification E) point QuestionID: 11-39 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: C) pay 40. Computerized job evaluation systems have two main components: 11

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A) wage and salary surveys B) structured questionnaire and statistical models C) external and internal benchmarks D) professional and government surveys E) wage curves and pay ranges QuestionID: 11-40 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: B) structured questionnaire and statistical models 41. Some compensation surveys are constructed, interpreted, and used in ways that leads to firms set higher wages than they otherwise would have. What does this reflect?

A) Employee discrimination B) Upward bias C) Systemic undervaluing D) Stereotyping of data E) Report bias QuestionID: 11-41 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: B) Upward bias 42. There are 15 barbershops in a specific geographic region that all compete for clients and employees. Most of these businesses periodically conduct salary surveys. Most businesses want to be market leaders on pay, thinking that they can attract and retain staff if they pay more than the competitor. What is the likely impact on rates of pay for local barbers in the region?

A) Discriminatory practices may dominate the industry.

B) Pay rates will increase over time.

C) Pay rates will decrease over time.

D) Stereotyping will occur.

E) Pay rates will remain constant over time.

QuestionID: 11-42 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: B) Pay rates will increase over time.

43. Which of the following is an example of an informal compensation survey conducted by an employer?

A) Governmental agency surveys B) Professional association surveys C) Telephone surveys D) Industry-wide surveys E) Commercial firm surveys 12

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QuestionID: 11-43 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: C) Telephone surveys 44. _______________ is the graphical depiction of the relationship between the value of the job and the average wage paid for that job.

A) Pay grade chart B) Wage curve C) Rate range graph D) Wage chart E) Pay grade curve QuestionID: 11-44 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: B) Wage curve 45. Assigning pay rates to each pay grade (or to each job) is usually accomplished with which of the following?

A) A rate range B) A job analysis C) A wage grade D) A wage curve E) A performance appraisal QuestionID: 11-45 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: D) A wage curve 46. A wage curve shows the relationship between which two factors?

A) The value of the job and the employee's performance B) The value of the job and the current average pay rates for each job or grade C) The value of the job and the company's performance D) The current average pay rates for each job or grade and the employee's satisfaction E) The current average pay rates for each job or grade and the employee's seniority QuestionID: 11-46 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: B) The value of the job and the current average pay rates for each job or grade 47. Using pay ranges for each pay grade allows for _____________ between employees within the same grade.

A) age differences B) gender differences C) appraisal biases 13

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D) employer inflexibility E) performance differences QuestionID: 11-47 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: E) performance differences 48. The number of salary grades and ranges can be reduced to fewer wide levels using A) broadbanding.

B) job specialization.

C) departmentalization.

D) job classification.

E) position grading.

QuestionID: 11-48 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: A) broadbanding.

49. What is the basic advantage of broadbanding?

A) Facilitates internal and external equity B) Encourages human rights adherence by the employer C) Eliminates upward bias in job evaluation D) Injects greater flexibility into employee compensation E) Works well with highly specialized jobs QuestionID: 11-49 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: D) Injects greater flexibility into employee compensation 50. A major financial institution is moving from nine pay levels in the organization to six. Another term for this is A) broadbanding.

B) job specialization.

C) departmentalization.

D) job classification.

E) position grading.

QuestionID: 11-50 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: A) broadbanding.

51. Describe two advantages of broadbanding (2 points for each advantage described)?

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QuestionID: 11-51 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: Broadbanding's basic advantage is that it injects greater flexibility into employee compensation. The new broad salary bands can include both supervisors and those reporting to them.

Broadbanding also facilitates less specialized, boundaryless jobs and organizations. Less specialization and more participation in cross-departmental processes generally mean enlarged duties or capabilities and more possibilities for alternative career tracks.

52. After a compensation review is completed, often underpaid employees have their wages raised to which of the following?

A) The external industry average B) The midpoint of the company's applicable pay grade C) The minimum of the company's applicable pay grade D) The maximum of the company's applicable pay grade E) The maximum of the pay grade that is one lower than the company's applicable pay grade QuestionID: 11-52 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: C) The minimum of the company's applicable pay grade 53. Juan was hired last month. After a compensation review was completed, the company realized that Juan's job as a painter was a level 5 job (with a pay range of $20-25 per hour), but he was paid $17 per hour. The level below was for Level 4 jobs and had a pay range of $16-$21 per hour). What should the company do in this situation?

A) Keep Juan's pay rate as is, until his next promotion.

B) Increase Juan's pay to $20 per hour (the minimum of the Level 5 pay grade).

C) Increase Juan's pay to $22.50 per hour (the midpoint of the Level 5 pay grade).

D) Increase Juan's pay to $25.00 per hour (the maximum of the Level 5 pay grade).

E) Increase Juan's pay to $21 per hour (the maximum of the Level 4 pay grade).

QuestionID: 11-53 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: B) Increase Juan's pay to $20 per hour (the minimum of the Level 5 pay grade).

54. What is the term for rates of pay that are above the pay range maximum?

A) Red circle pay rates B) Premium job pay rates C) Excessive pay rates D) Overage pay rates E) Outlier pay rates QuestionID: 11-54 15

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Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: A) Red circle pay rates 55. ABC Healthcare has a pay range for its occupational therapists which is $55,000 to $75,000 annually. A small group of employees who merged with the company during a recent acquisition are paid $80,000 and higher annually. What is the term to define their circumstance?

A) Red circle pay rates B) Premium job pay rates C) Excessive pay rates D) Overage pay rates E) Outlier pay rates QuestionID: 11-55 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: A) Red circle pay rates 56. Job evaluation committees may include employees, HR staff, and union representatives. a True b False QuestionID: 11-56 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: a. True 57. A benchmark job is a job held by the top performers of a company. a True b False QuestionID: 11-57 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: b. False 58. Suzy recently joined an organization as an IT Consultant. The pay range for the role is $60,000 to $80,000 annually. What is the minimum amount that Suzy should be paid?

A) $50,000 B) $60,000 C) $70,000 D) $80,000 E) $90,000 QuestionID: 11-58 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

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Answer: B) $60,000 59. The point method of job evaluation involves identifying several compensable factors, each having several degrees, as well as the degree to which each of these factors is present in the job. a True b False QuestionID: 11-59 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: a. True 60. Most employers rely heavily on formal or informal surveys of what other employers are paying. a True b False QuestionID: 11-60 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: a. True 61. Point systems used in job evaluation are not very time consuming or difficult to develop. a True b False QuestionID: 11-61 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: b. False 62. A pay grade comprises jobs of varying value and importance to the company. a True b False QuestionID: 11-62 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: b. False 63. Dominique has just been hired as the HR manager for a small but growing manufacturing company. Pay rates were determined at the time of hire, based on what the hiring manager and supervisor collectively felt were "market" pay rates. Dominique has already noticed that some employees don't think the rates of pay are fair. Describe the three steps Dominique should take to establish pay rates that are fair (2 points for each description)? Indicate two issues that may arise if this is not done (1 point each).

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QuestionID: 11-63 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: Dominique should do the following: 1. Job evaluation - A systematic comparison to determine the relative worth of jobs within a firm should first be carried out. This is a formal and systematic comparison of jobs within a firm to determine the worth of one job relative to another. The basic procedure is to compare the content of jobs in relation to one another. Job evaluation usually focuses on benchmark jobs that are critical to the firm's operations or that are commonly found in other organizations.

2. Conduct a wage/salary survey - This is a survey aimed at determining prevailing wage rates. Dominique may use wage/salary surveys in three ways. First, survey data are used to determine pay rates for benchmark jobs that serve as reference points or anchors for the employer's pay scale, meaning that other jobs are then paid based on their relative worth compared to the benchmark jobs. Second, an increasing number of positions are paid solely based on the marketplace (rather than relative to the firm's benchmark jobs). Finally, surveys also collect data on employee benefits, work–life programs, pay-for-performance plans, recognition plans, and so on to provide a basis on which to make decisions regarding other types of rewards.

3. Combine the Job Evaluation and Salary Survey Information to Determine Pay for Jobs-The final stage is to assign pay rates to each pay grade. Of course, if jobs were not grouped into pay grades, individual pay rates would have to be assigned to each job. Assigning pay rates to each pay grade (or to each job) is usually accomplished with a wage curve. A wage curve shows the pay rates currently paid for jobs, relative to the points assigned to each job by the job evaluation for this job.

If this is not done: - Dissatisfaction might continue and be reflected in high turnover.

- Work stoppages, or arguments may result from paying employees different rates for similar jobs.

- Managers may express uneasiness with an informal way of assigning pay rates.

64. Identify four major compensable factors used in most point method job evaluation systems (1 point each) and list two sub-factors that might be used for each of the four major compensable factors you identified (0.5 each).

QuestionID: 11-64 Objective: 11.3—Explain in detail each of the three stages in establishing pay rates.

Answer: Compensable factors Sub factors Skill Education and Experience Interpersonal Skill Effort Physical Effort Mental Effort Responsibility Supervision of Others Planning Working Conditions Physical Environment Travel 65. What are "pay-for-knowledge" systems also known as when they are used for management and professional employees?

A) Education-based pay 18

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B) Skill-based pay C) Competency-based pay D) Experience-based pay E) Performance-based pay QuestionID: 11-65 Objective: 11.4—Describe the elements of compensation for competency-based pay and special positions— executives, managers, and professionals.

Answer: C) Competency-based pay 66. Executive compensation tends to emphasize performance incentives less than typical employee pay plans. a True b False QuestionID: 11-66 Objective: 11.4—Describe the elements of compensation for competency-based pay and special positions— executives, managers, and professionals.

Answer: b. False 67. Describe the three key requirements that a pay-for-knowledge program should include (2 points for each description).

QuestionID: 11-67 Objective: 11.4—Describe the elements of compensation for competency-based pay and special positions— executives, managers, and professionals.

Answer: A pay-for-knowledge program should include the following: - Competencies and skills—directly important to job performance—that can be defined in measurable and objective terms. Skills tend to be easier to define and measure than competencies.

- New and different competencies that replace obsolete competencies or competencies that are no longer important to job performance. If additional competencies are needed, the obsolete competency should be removed from the program.

- On-the-job training, not "in-the-classroom" training. Those who possess the competencies or skills should teach them. Also include on-the-job assessment, which can be supplemented by paper-and-pencil exams administered on the job.

68. In practice, traditional methods of job evaluation are rarely used for professional jobs such as scientists and engineers, because it is so difficult to identify compensable factors and degrees of factors that meaningfully capture the value of professional work. a True b False QuestionID: 11-68 Objective: 11.4—Describe the elements of compensation for competency-based pay and special positions— 19

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executives, managers, and professionals.

Answer: a. True 69. Most employers use a(n) _________ approach to determine compensation for professional jobs.

A) market-pricing B) job evaluation C) internal benchmarking D) incentive-based E) wage gap QuestionID: 11-69 Objective: 11.4—Describe the elements of compensation for competency-based pay and special positions— executives, managers, and professionals.

Answer: A) market-pricing 70. Sarah works for a software development company. Her CEO has asked her to make a salary recommendation with regard to incoming engineers. She is most likely to use which approach?

A) Market-pricing B) Job evaluation C) Internal benchmarking D) Incentive-based E) Wage gap QuestionID: 11-70 Objective: 11.4—Describe the elements of compensation for competency-based pay and special positions— executives, managers, and professionals.

Answer: A) Market-pricing 71. Tyrique has been asked to make a recommendation to his CEO with regard to how to pay construction workers being hired for a specific project. He is most likely to use which approach?

A) Skill-based pay B) Job evaluation C) Internal benchmarking D) Market pricing E) Wage gap QuestionID: 11-71 Objective: 11.4—Describe the elements of compensation for competency-based pay and special positions— executives, managers, and professionals.

Answer: A) Skill-based pay 72. There are five elements in an executive/managerial compensation package: salary, benefits, short-term 20

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incentives, long-term incentives, and perquisites. a True b False QuestionID: 11-72 Objective: 11.4—Describe the elements of compensation for competency-based pay and special positions— executives, managers, and professionals.

Answer: a. True 73. Evelyn is hiring for an accountant with strong financial acumen. This is an example of hiring based on: A) Functional competencies B) Pay equity C) Behavioural competencies D) Executive leadership skills E) Managerial competencies QuestionID: 11-73 Objective: 11.4—Describe the elements of compensation for competency-based pay and special positions— executives, managers, and professionals.

Answer: A) Functional competencies

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Human Resources Management in Canada, 15Ce (Dessler) Chapter 12: Pay-for-Performance and Financial Incentives 1. The ratio of an organization's outputs (goods and services) to its inputs (people, capital, energy, and materials) is known as A) financial incentive.

B) pay-for-performance.

C) productivity.

D) bonus structure.

E) gainsharing.

QuestionID: 12-01 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: C) productivity.

2. ________ represents compensation that provides for income stability whereas ________ is tied to the company and/or individual's performance.

A) Variable pay; fixed pay B) Perquisite; fixed pay C) Fixed pay; variable pay D) Commission; variable pay E) Variable pay; commission QuestionID: 12-02 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: C) Fixed pay; variable pay 3. George works for a small start-up that develops educational apps. His company offers a bonus of up to 20% of his salary which is contingent on his performance as well as the company's performance. This type of compensation plan is also known as A) fixed pay.

B) gainsharing.

C) risk capitalization.

D) incentive pay.

E) benefit pay.

QuestionID: 12-03 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: D) incentive pay.

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4. What does Frederick Herzberg call factors that satisfy lower-level needs?

A) Hygienes B) Satisfiers C) Motivators D) Basics E) Incentives QuestionID: 12-04 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: A) Hygienes 5. In which of the following jobs is variable pay expected to be highest?

A) Passport clerk job at Services Canada B) Grade 10 math teacher job with a local regional public school board C) Corporate Secretary at a non-profit organization D) Executive at a privately owned gaming company E) Finance Director at a local hospital QuestionID: 12-05 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: D) Executive at a privately owned gaming company 6. A pay plan that ties pay to productivity or profitability is called A) competency-based pay.

B) base pay.

C) variable pay.

D) salary pay.

E) fixed pay.

QuestionID: 12-06 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: C) variable pay.

7. What is the term used to describe compensation that is independent of the performance level of the individual, group, or organization?

A) Competency-based pay B) Piecework pay C) Variable pay D) Pay-for-performance E) Fixed pay 2

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QuestionID: 12-07 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: E) Fixed pay 8. What is the fundamental premise of variable pay plans?

A) Workers should only be paid for the work that they complete.

B) Top performers must get top pay to secure their commitment to the organization.

C) Create incentives for customers to purchase the company's products.

D) Enable the organization to reduce labour costs when profits decline.

E) Accommodate the different needs of workers.

QuestionID: 12-08 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: B) Top performers must get top pay to secure their commitment to the organization.

9. An important prerequisite for effective variable pay plans is referred to as "line of sight." What does this refer to with respect to the employee?

A) Relating daily work to the achievement of social needs B) Relating daily work to the achievement of personal needs C) Relating daily work to the achievement of overall corporate goals D) Relating daily work to how society is impacted E) Relating daily work to other employee efforts to ensure equity is achieved QuestionID: 12-09 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: C) Relating daily work to the achievement of overall corporate goals 10. Accurate ________ are required for effective pay-for-performance plans.

A) wage curves B) training programs C) performance appraisals D) salary curves E) development programs QuestionID: 12-10 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: C) performance appraisals 3

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11. According to Frederick Herzberg what kind of factor is working conditions?

A) Hygiene B) Motivator C) High-level D) Intrinsic E) Premium QuestionID: 12-11 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: A) Hygiene 12. According to Frederick Herzberg what kind of factor is salary?

A) Hygiene B) Motivator C) High-level D) Intrinsic E) Premium QuestionID: 12-12 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: A) Hygiene 13. What motivation is derived from the pleasure that someone gets from doing the job or task?

A) Hygiene motivation B) Intrinsic motivation C) Extrinsic motivation D) Psychological motivation E) High-level motivation QuestionID: 12-13 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: B) Intrinsic motivation 14. Which psychologist warned that extrinsic rewards could at times actually detract from the person's intrinsic motivation?

A) Edward Deci B) Frederick Herzberg C) Frederick Taylor D) Victor Vroom 4

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E) Douglas McGregor QuestionID: 12-14 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: A) Edward Deci 15. What is Victor Vroom's term for when a worker believes that his or her effort will lead to performance?

A) Motivation B) Valence C) Hygiene D) Expectancy E) Instrumentality QuestionID: 12-15 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: D) Expectancy 16. What is Victor Vroom's term for the perceived relationship between successful performance and actually obtaining the reward?

A) Motivation B) Valence C) Hygiene D) Expectancy E) Instrumentality QuestionID: 12-16 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: E) Instrumentality 17. What is Victor Vroom's term for the perceived value that a person attaches to the reward?

A) Motivation B) Valence C) Hygiene D) Expectancy E) Instrumentality QuestionID: 12-17 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

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Answer: B) Valence 18. Using cash bonuses when employees meet sales targets is an example of employing the concept of A) long-term incentives.

B) stock option plans.

C) behaviour modification.

D) non-cash incentives.

E) punishment for lack of results.

QuestionID: 12-18 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: C) behaviour modification.

19. Colin runs a data analytics company called Decker and Associates. He sells his company to a large software firm. Within six months of the deal closing, Colin leaves the company with a large payout but relinquishes his control to the new owner. What is this an example of?

A) Group incentive program B) Golden parachute C) Individual incentive plan D) Spot bonus plan E) Profit-sharing plan QuestionID: 12-19 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: B) Golden parachute 20. Alan was rated as excellent on his individual work performance evaluation, earning him $2,000, provided as an individual bonus. His annual salary this year is $48,000. He works in a team of 3 people. What is likely to happen?

A) His annual salary will be reduced to $46,000 this year to adjust for the bonus.

B) His base salary next year will be increased to $50,000.

C) He will get 1/3 of his bonus, and the other 2/3rds will be redistributed among his co-workers.

D) He will be automatically granted the $2,000 bonus next year.

E) There will be no change to his base pay.

QuestionID: 12-20 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: E) There will be no change to his base pay.

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21. Alan was rated as excellent on his individual work performance evaluation, earning him $2,000, provided as a merit pay increase. His annual salary this year is $48,000. He works in a team of 3 people. What is likely to happen?

A) His annual salary will be reduced to $46,000 this year to adjust for the bonus.

B) His base salary next year will be increased to $50,000.

C) He will get 1/3 of his bonus, and the other 2/3rds will be redistributed among his co-workers.

D) He will be automatically granted the $2,000 bonus next year.

E) There will be no change to his base pay.

QuestionID: 12-21 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: B) His base salary next year will be increased to $50,000.

22. Julianna works as a CEO for a financial services company. After an exceptionally problematic few quarters of organizational financial performance, it was announced that she was resigning from the CEO job, and given 2 years' worth of pay and $0.5 million in stock. What executive incentive is this an example of?

A) Golden parachute B) Kiss of death C) Forced redistribution D) Phoenix rising effect E) Profit sharing QuestionID: 12-22 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: A) Golden parachute 23. Amy is part of a team of four software developers. Upon completion of a major client project, she and each of her team members received a set cash bonus in addition to their base salary. What is this most likely an example of?

A) Group incentive program B) Gainsharing program C) Individual incentive plan D) Spot bonus plan E) Profit-sharing plan QuestionID: 12-23 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

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Answer: A) Group incentive program 24. Frederick Herzberg encourages the use of cash bonuses and pay increases as the best way to motivate workers to improve performance. a True b False QuestionID: 12-24 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: b. False 25. Employers continue to increase their use of variable pay plans while holding salary increases or fixed compensation at modest levels. a True b False QuestionID: 12-25 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: a. True 26. Victor Vroom says an employee must value the reward from higher performance in order to be motivated. If valence is zero, then there will be no motivation. a True b False QuestionID: 12-26 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: a. True 27. Describe how Frederick Herzberg explained factors (hygienes and motivators) related to motivation (3 points) and define intrinsic and extrinsic motivation (1 point each).

QuestionID: 12-27 Objective: 12.1—Discuss the impact of money as a means to incentivize employee motivation, and compare fixed and variable pay plans and the appropriate use of each.

Answer: Herzberg said the factors ("hygienes") that satisfy lower-level needs are different from those ("motivators") that satisfy or partially satisfy higher-level needs.

If hygiene factors (factors outside the job itself, such as working conditions, salary, and incentive pay) are 8

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inadequate, employees become dissatisfied. However, adding more of these hygienes (such as incentives) to the job (supplying what Herzberg called "extrinsic motivation") is an inferior way to try to motivate someone, because lower-level needs are quickly satisfied.

Instead of relying on hygienes, managers interested in creating a self-motivated workforce should emphasize "job content," or motivator factors. Managers do this by enriching workers' jobs so that the jobs are more challenging, and by providing feedback and recognition––they make doing the job intrinsically motivating.

Intrinsic motivation - Motivation that derives from the non-monetary pleasure someone gets from doing the job or task.

Extrinsic motivation - Motivation that derives from factors outside of the completion of work, such as base salary, incentive pay.

28. Merit pay is most often used with respect to which one of the following employee groups?

A) Temporary employees B) White-collar employees C) Contract workers D) Blue-collar employees E) Part-time employees QuestionID: 12-28 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: B) White-collar employees 29. Amanda received a salary increase based on her individual performance as a Marketing Manager over the past year. Which type of compensation did Amanda receive?

A) Merit bonus B) Equity incentive C) Special award D) Individual bonus E) Merit pay QuestionID: 12-29 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: E) Merit pay 30. How is a merit raise different from a merit bonus?

A) A merit raise represents a continuing increment, whereas the bonus represents a one-time payment.

B) A merit bonus represents a continuing increment, whereas the raise represents a one-time payment.

C) A merit raise is based exclusively on group performance, whereas the bonus is based exclusively on individual performance.

D) A merit raise is based exclusively on individual performance, whereas the bonus is based exclusively on 9

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group performance.

E) A merit raise is based exclusively on organizational performance, whereas the bonus is based exclusively on group performance.

QuestionID: 12-30 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: A) A merit raise represents a continuing increment, whereas the bonus represents a one-time payment.

31. Paula reviews her company's financial reports to ensure that revenues exceed expenses before distributing a percentage of the resulting difference amongst her company's employees; what is this most likely an example of?

A) Group incentive plan B) Semi-variable incentive plan C) Individual incentive plan D) Profit-sharing plan E) Calculated contingency plan QuestionID: 12-31 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: D) Profit-sharing plan 32. Which type of incentive plan engages many or all employees in a common effort and is designed to reward those employees for improvements in productivity?

A) An employee share purchase plan B) An employee stock ownership plan C) A profit-sharing plan D) A performance bonus plan E) A gainsharing plan QuestionID: 12-32 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: E) A gainsharing plan 33. A cash plan, which distributes a percentage of profits as profit shares at regular intervals, is an example of a type of which of the following compensation plans?

A) Profit-sharing plans B) Lump-sum bonus plans 10

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C) Gainsharing plans D) Merit raise plans E) Piece-rate production plans QuestionID: 12-33 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: A) Profit-sharing plans 34. Which is the most commonly used and oldest type of incentive plan system of pay and is based on the number of items processed by each individual worker in a unit of time?

A) Standard hour plan B) Item plan C) Piecework plan D) Process plan E) Gainsharing plan QuestionID: 12-34 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: C) Piecework plan 35. Under which pay system does each worker receive a set payment for each item produced or processed in a factory or shop when there is no guaranteed minimum wage and no extra percentage premium?

A) Process piecework plan B) Straight piecework plan C) Gainsharing piecework plan D) Guaranteed piecework plan E) Differential piecework plan QuestionID: 12-35 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: B) Straight piecework plan 36. Under this pay system, each worker receives the minimum hourly wage plus an incentive for each unit produced above a set number of units per hour; this system is known as a A) process piecework plan.

B) straight piecework plan.

C) gainsharing piecework plan.

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D) guaranteed piecework plan.

E) differential piecework plan.

QuestionID: 12-36 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: D) guaranteed piecework plan.

37. Which plan rewards a worker by linking their pay increase the percentage by which their performance exceeds the standard per hour or per day?

A) The differential piece-rate plan B) The gainsharing plan C) The percent incentive plan D) The premium plan E) The guaranteed piecework plan QuestionID: 12-37 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: A) The differential piece-rate plan 38. A plan in which a production standard is set for a specific work group and its members are paid extra if the group exceeds the production standard, is known as a team or group _____________ plan.

A) incentive B) standardization C) gainsharing D) indirect pay E) merit QuestionID: 12-38 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: A) incentive 39. Which incentive for operations employees includes a premium that equals the percentage by which the employee's performance exceeds the standard?

A) Process piecework plan B) Straight piecework plan C) Gainsharing piecework plan D) Guaranteed piecework plan 12

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E) Differential piece-rate plan QuestionID: 12-39 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: E) Differential piece-rate plan 40. In group incentive plans A) each worker's rewards are no longer based just on his or her own effort.

B) conflict between group members increases.

C) on-the-job training reduces.

D) collaboration is minimized.

E) project teams feel heavy internal competition.

QuestionID: 12-40 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: A) each worker's rewards are no longer based just on his or her own effort.

41. The oldest and most commonly used type of incentive plan for operations employees is the standard hour plan. a True b False QuestionID: 12-41 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: b. False 42. Piecework means that earnings are tied directly to the worker's production levels. a True b False QuestionID: 12-42 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: a. True 13

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43. One approach to using the team or group incentive plan is to set work standards for each member of the group and maintain a count of the output of each member. a True b False QuestionID: 12-43 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: a. True 44. Describe what a piecework incentive plan is using an example (1 point for definition, 2 points for an appropriate example). Discuss one advantage (2 points) and one disadvantage of piecework (2 points) using your example.

QuestionID: 12-44 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: Piecework - A system of pay based on the number of items processed by each individual worker in a unit of time, such as items per hour or items per day.

Example from textbook - Tom Smith gets paid a piecework rate of $3.00 per customer phone query completed via phone in his customer service position. He would make $90 for completing 30 calls a day and $120 for 40 calls a day.

Advantages: - They are simple to calculate and easily understood by employees.

- Piece-rate plans appear equitable in principle, and their incentive value can be powerful since rewards are directly tied to performance.

Disadvantages: - A main disadvantage is its somewhat unsavoury reputation among many employees, based on some employers' habits of arbitrarily raising production standards whenever they find their workers earning "excessive" wages.

- Since the piece rate is quoted on a per-piece basis, in workers' minds production standards become tied inseparably to the amount of money earned. Therefore, revising production standards might be met with considerable worker resistance, even if the revision is fully justified.

45. ______________ is the cornerstone of executive compensation because it is the element on which the other compensation package elements are based.

A) Benefits B) Gainsharing C) Salary D) Profit-sharing E) Incentives 14

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QuestionID: 12-45 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: C) Salary 46. Which of the following are the three criteria for determining eligibility for a short-term incentive program for senior managers and executives?

A) Key position, professional membership, and salary grade B) Length of service, key position, and professional membership C) Key position, salary grade, and length of service D) Salary grade, professional membership, and salary level E) Eligibility, fund-size determination, and individual awards QuestionID: 12-46 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: E) Eligibility, fund-size determination, and individual awards 47. When all senior management and executive-level employees earning over a threshold amount are automatically eligible for consideration for short-term incentives, this criterion is referred to as which of the following?

A) Key position B) Job evaluation C) Job clusters D) Salary grade E) Salary-level cut-off point QuestionID: 12-47 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: E) Salary-level cut-off point 48. Revlex Inc. has implemented a refinement of the salary cut-off approach to short-term incentive eligibility, which assumes that all managers should be eligible for short-term incentives; this criterion is referred to as which of the following?

A) Salary grade B) Performance appraisal C) Gainsharing D) Key position E) Profit-sharing 15

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QuestionID: 12-48 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: A) Salary grade 49. For short-term incentives, what does the term fund size refer to?

A) The specific amount that each employee will receive from productivity gains B) The total amount of bonus money that will be available to be paid out C) The percentage of the company's operating loss to be paid out D) The specific base salary increases for each employee E) The percentage of variable pay that will be available in the following year QuestionID: 12-49 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: B) The total amount of bonus money that will be available to be paid out 50. What is a non-deductible formula as it relates to short-term incentives for senior managers and executives?

A) Compensation paid over a threshold amount B) A formula incorporating years of service and value to the company C) The fund that begins to accumulate after a specified level of earnings D) A straight percentage (usually of the company's net income used to create a short-term incentive fund) E) A long-term incentive that pays out on a straight-line basis with no deductible QuestionID: 12-50 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: D) A straight percentage (usually of the company's net income used to create a short-term incentive fund) 51. What is the term used to refer to a target bonus that is set for each eligible position and then adjustments are made for greater or less than targeted performance?

A) A lump-sum bonus B) Retirement income C) Team or group incentive plan D) An individual award E) Gainsharing QuestionID: 12-51 16

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Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: D) An individual award 52. One drawback to the split-award method is that it pays too much to the marginal performer who, even if his or her own performance is mediocre, at least gets the second, company-based bonus. What is one way to get around this problem?

A) Use the lump-sum bonus method.

B) Use the individual award system method.

C) Use the group incentive plan method.

D) Use the individual bonus method.

E) Use the multiplier method.

QuestionID: 12-52 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: E) Use the multiplier method.

53. What long-term incentive is most often reserved for senior executives but has more recently begun to be extended to employees at lower organizational levels?

A) Performance achievement plans B) Book value plans C) Capital accumulation programs D) Stock value programs E) Stock rights programs QuestionID: 12-53 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: C) Capital accumulation programs 54. The right to purchase a specific number of shares of company stock at a specific price at some point in the future is called a A) book value plan.

B) stock appreciation right.

C) phantom stock plan.

D) stock option plan.

E) restricted stock plan.

QuestionID: 12-54 17

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Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: D) stock option plan.

55. In some long-term incentive plans, shares are promised to the executive, but are forfeited if the executive leaves the company before a vesting period; what are these plans called?

A) Stock appreciation rights plans B) Restricted share unit plans C) Book value plans D) Stock option plans E) Phantom stock plans QuestionID: 12-55 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: B) Restricted share unit plans 56. A waiting period in order to ensure that the employee has contributed to any increase in stock price is referred to as which of the following?

A) Strategic period B) Corporate period C) Investing period D) Vesting period E) Engagement period QuestionID: 12-56 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: D) Vesting period 57. Many experts argue that, in most organizations, managerial- and executive-level bonuses should be tied to both organizational and individual performance. a True b False QuestionID: 12-57 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

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Answer: a. True 58. The stock option is currently the most popular long-term incentive in Canada. a True b False QuestionID: 12-58 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: a. True 59. Sales compensation plans have typically relied heavily on which form of incentive for salespeople?

A) Profit-sharing B) Stock appreciation rights C) Gainsharing D) Sales commissions E) Stock options QuestionID: 12-59 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: D) Sales commissions 60. Lack of recognition and praise is the number one reason that employees leave an organization. a True b False QuestionID: 12-60 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: a. True 61. Which combination is the most prevalent approach for compensating salespeople?

A) Salary and stock options B) Commission and stock options C) Salary and commissions D) Commissions and profit-sharing E) Salary and profit-sharing QuestionID: 12-61 19

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Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: C) Salary and commissions 62. There has been a definite movement away from the extremes of straight commission or fixed salary for salespeople. What has there been a movement towards in order to compensate salespeople?

A) Pay-for-performance B) Combination plans C) Variable pay D) Incentive plans E) Merit pay QuestionID: 12-62 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: B) Combination plans 63. Extroverted salespeople are likely to secure more sales that those who are less extroverted when what occurs?

A) Selling included a presentation in front of groups of buyers.

B) Their total compensation was in the form of guaranteed payouts.

C) Their compensation was all salary based.

D) Their rewards were contingent on their performance.

E) They were given a listing of high potential buyers.

QuestionID: 12-63 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: D) Their rewards were contingent on their performance.

64. What is a main disadvantage associated with having salary plans for salespeople?

A) They tend to only motivate recently hired salespeople.

B) They do not depend on results.

C) They are hard to keep track of.

D) Salespeople do not know in advance what their income will be.

E) A short-term perspective is encouraged.

QuestionID: 12-64 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and 20

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executives.

Answer: B) They do not depend on results.

65. Compensation plans for salespeople have typically relied heavily on incentives, such as sales commissions. a True b False QuestionID: 12-65 Objective: 12.2—Explain how to use incentives for various groups of employees, including all employees, professional employees, operational employees, teams/groups, sales employees, senior managers, and executives.

Answer: a. True 66. Describe three of the five important points to consider before deciding to implement an incentive plan (2 points for each description).

QuestionID: 12-66 Objective: 12.3—Explain under what conditions it is best to use an incentive plan.

Answer: 1. Performance pay cannot replace good management. Performance pay is supposed to motivate workers, but lack of motivation is not always the culprit. Ambiguous instructions, lack of clear goals, inadequate employee selection and training, unavailability of tools, and a hostile workforce (or management) are just a few of the factors that impede performance.

2. Firms get what they pay for. An incentive plan that rewards a group based on how many pieces are produced could lead to rushed production and lower quality. Awarding a plant-wide incentive for reducing accidents may simply reduce the number of reported accidents.

3. "Pay is not a motivator." Psychologist Frederick Herzberg makes the point that money only buys temporary compliance; as soon as the incentive is removed, the "motivation" disappears too. Instead, Herzberg says, employers should provide adequate financial rewards and then build other motivators, such as opportunities for achievement and psychological success, into their jobs.

4. Rewards rupture relationships. Incentive plans have the potential for reducing teamwork by encouraging individuals (or individual groups) to blindly pursue financial rewards for themselves.

5. Rewards may undermine responsiveness. Since the employees' primary focus is on achieving some specific goal, such as cutting costs, any changes or extraneous distractions mean that achieving that goal will be harder.

Incentive plans can, therefore, mediate against change and responsiveness.

67. Incentive plans have the potential for reducing teamwork by encouraging individuals (or individual groups) to blindly pursue financial rewards for themselves. a True b False QuestionID: 12-67 Objective: 12.3—Explain under what conditions it is best to use an incentive plan.

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Answer: a. True 68. Incentive plans work best under all of the following conditions except A) when units of output can be measured.

B) when the job is standardized.

C) the workflow is regular.

D) delays are few.

E) when performance expectations are unclear.

QuestionID: 12-68 Objective: 12.3—Explain under what conditions it is best to use an incentive plan.

Answer: E) when performance expectations are unclear.

69. You have been asked by your CEO to guide the effective implementation of an incentive plan. Identify five of the seven principles you will use to ensure the incentive pay program will be effective (2 points each).

QuestionID: 12-69 Objective: 12.3—Explain under what conditions it is best to use an incentive plan.

Answer: 1. Pay for performance—and make sure that performance is tied to the successful achievement of critical business goals.

2. Link incentives to other activities that engage employees in the business, such as career development and challenging opportunities.

3. Link incentives to measurable competencies that are valued by the organization.

4. Match incentives to the culture of the organization—its vision, mission, and operation principles.

5. Keep group incentives clear and simple—employee understanding is the most important factor differentiating effective from ineffective group incentive plans.

6. Overcommunicate—employees become engaged when they hear the message that they are neither faceless nor expendable.

7. Remember that the greatest incentive is the work itself.

70. What has been the traditional role of employee recognition plans?

A) Set benchmarks for employee productivity B) Foster loyalty in new workers C) Ensure salespeople receive the greatest rewards D) Reward employees for long service E) Ensure executive receive the greatest rewards QuestionID: 12-70 Objective: 12.3—Explain under what conditions it is best to use an incentive plan.

Answer: D) Reward employees for long service 71. Line managers are critical to the success of recognition programs. a True 22

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b False QuestionID: 12-71 Objective: 12.3—Explain under what conditions it is best to use an incentive plan.

Answer: a. True 72. Effective recognition needs to be all of the following except A) immediate.

B) personal.

C) spontaneous.

D) specific.

E) unclear.

QuestionID: 12-72 Objective: 12.3—Explain under what conditions it is best to use an incentive plan.

Answer: E) unclear.

73. High performers are driven by internal motivation and look to reward programs to add fuel to their achievements. a True b False QuestionID: 12-73 Objective: 12.3—Explain under what conditions it is best to use an incentive plan.

Answer: a. True 74. Andrew leads a small team of employees in a retail store. Following a busy weekend, he sends an email to the team recognizing their hard work. This is an example of A) incentive pay.

B) gainsharing.

C) employee recognition.

D) fixed pay.

E) profit-sharing.

QuestionID: 12-74 Objective: 12.3—Explain under what conditions it is best to use an incentive plan.

Answer: C) employee recognition.

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Human Resources Management in Canada, 15Ce (Dessler) Chapter 13: Employee Benefits and Services 1. What are the indirect financial payments given to employees known as?

A) Financial incentives B) Stock options C) Company shares D) Commissions E) Employee benefits QuestionID: 13-01 Objective: 13.1—Explain the strategic role of employee benefits.

Answer: E) Employee benefits 2. Which of the following employee benefits is becoming increasingly important for the aging workforce?

A) Coinsurance B) Healthcare benefits C) Work sharing D) Employment insurance E) Job sharing QuestionID: 13-02 Objective: 13.1—Explain the strategic role of employee benefits.

Answer: B) Healthcare benefits 3. According to the Conference Board of Canada research, employers spend roughly ________ per employee annually on employee benefits.

A) $90 B) $300 C) $900 D) $3000 E) $9000 QuestionID: 13-03 Objective: 13.1—Explain the strategic role of employee benefits.

Answer: C) $900 4. Which of the following is expected to reduce the costs of employee benefits?

A) a labour shortage B) an aging workforce C) a burnout pandemic D) healthcare advancements E) sedentary work environments 1

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QuestionID: 13-04 Objective: 13.1—Explain the strategic role of employee benefits.

Answer: D) healthcare advancements 5. What is the federal government program called that provides temporary financial assistance to a person who is unable to work through no fault of their own?

A) Service insurance B) Employment insurance C) Worker insurance D) Labour insurance E) Illness and injury insurance QuestionID: 13-05 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: B) Employment insurance 6. The employment insurance benefit is generally 55% of average earnings during the A) qualifying period.

B) previous calendar year.

C) probationary period.

D) previous month.

E) benefit period.

QuestionID: 13-06 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: A) qualifying period.

7. What is the purpose of a supplemental unemployment benefit plan?

A) To supplement employment insurance benefits by receiving a combined benefit closer to the actual working wage.

B) It enables employees who are eligible for EI benefits to receive additional benefits from an employer fund.

C) To extend the maternity leave period for both parents.

D) To facilitate collective bargaining so that striking workers can receive strike pay without delay.

E) To facilitate an agreement between an employer and the employees for benefits as employee needs change.

QuestionID: 13-07 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: A) To supplement employment insurance benefits by receiving a combined benefit closer to the actual working wage.

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8. Which two groups jointly fund the employment insurance program in Canada?

A) Employees and employers B) Unions and employers C) Employees and provincial government D) Employers and federal government E) Provincial and federal government QuestionID: 13-08 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: A) Employees and employers 9. The three types of benefits provided under the Canada/Quebec Pension Plan are A) retirement pensions, survivor pensions, and old age security.

B) retirement pensions, healthcare, and disability pensions.

C) retirement pensions, survivor pensions, and old age security.

D) retirement pensions, disability benefits, and survivor benefits.

E) retirement pensions, survivor benefits, and healthcare.

QuestionID: 13-09 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: D) retirement pensions, disability benefits, and survivor benefits.

10. The initial purpose of the Canada/Quebec Pension Plan was to A) shift income from working Canadians to retired Canadians.

B) provide financial support when a person was too ill to work or enjoy retirement.

C) transition working Canadians into retirement.

D) provide retiring Canadians with the same financial security on retirement or disability as they had when they worked.

E) provide working Canadians with a basic level of financial security on retirement or disability.

QuestionID: 13-10 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: E) provide working Canadians with a basic level of financial security on retirement or disability.

11. Which two groups jointly fund the Canada/Quebec Pension Plan?

A) Employees and employers B) Unions and employers C) Employees and provincial government D) Employers and federal government E) Provincial and federal government QuestionID: 13-11 3

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Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: A) Employees and employers 12. In 2020, the average retirement pension was _______ per month in Canada.

A) $350 B) $700 C) $1700 D) $2350 E) $2700 QuestionID: 13-12 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: A) $350 13. Workers' compensation is, in effect, what type of insurance plan?

A) Pension B) Bureaucratic C) Guaranteed D) "No cost" E) "No fault" QuestionID: 13-13 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: E) "No fault" 14. What is the best way to manage workers' occupational health and safety compensation costs over the long term?

A) Accident prevention B) Privatization of workers' compensation C) Instituting employee premiums D) Better supervising employees E) Better claims monitoring QuestionID: 13-14 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: A) Accident prevention 15. The amount of time off provided for bereavement leave varies by jurisdiction and also depends on A) the employee's length of service with the company.

B) the employee's compensation level.

C) the employee's gender.

D) the closeness of the relationship between the employee and the deceased.

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E) the employee's performance over the last review period.

QuestionID: 13-15 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: D) the closeness of the relationship between the employee and the deceased.

16. Shahid and Alia are expecting their first baby next month. Which of the following is true about their qualification for maternity or paternity leave?

A) Only Alia can take the leave since she is the mom.

B) They are both entitled to take a year off for parenting responsibilities.

C) The company must pay for the employee(s) who are off on parental leave.

D) They can split the leave, but each of them will be guaranteed their old jobs or similar jobs when they return.

E) Shahid can take a leave, but will not be guaranteed his old or an equivalent job upon return.

QuestionID: 13-16 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: D) They can split the leave, but each of them will be guaranteed their old jobs or similar jobs when they return.

17. Jenelle is preparing for a paternity leave. How many weeks is she most likely to take?

A) 12 to 15 B) 34 to 52 C) 9 to 25 D) 6 to 50 E) 2 to 40 QuestionID: 13-17 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: B) 34 to 52 18. Employees in Ontario and the federal jurisdiction may be eligible for what kind of additional pay in certain termination situations, in addition to pay in lieu of notice?

A) Unemployment pay B) Notice pay C) Exit pay D) Severance pay E) Terminal pay QuestionID: 13-18 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: D) Severance pay 5

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19. Zendaya has worked for the employer for 4 years. According to the Canada Labour Code, they are entitled to _________ weeks of vacation this year.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 QuestionID: 13-19 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: B) 2 20. Zendaya has worked for the employer for 24 years. According to the Canada Labour Code, they are entitled to _________ weeks of vacation this year.

A) unlimited B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 QuestionID: 13-20 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: D) 4 21. An employer is required to provide advance notice to an employee whose employment is being terminated, unless the employee is working on a short-term contract or which of the following?

A) The company is shutting down B) A layoff is occurring due to economic conditions C) The employee is eligible for early retirement D) The employee has seasonal work E) The employee is being fired for just cause QuestionID: 13-21 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: E) The employee is being fired for just cause 22. Some provinces require additional termination pay when mass layoffs occur. The amount of additional pay depends on which of the following?

A) The level of unemployment in the region B) The employee's length of service C) The time of year D) The number of employees being laid off 6

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E) The reasons for the layoff QuestionID: 13-22 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: D) The number of employees being laid off 23. The employment insurance program is funded by contributions from eligible employees but not their employers. a True b False QuestionID: 13-23 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: b. False 24. Employment insurance programs are meant for eligible persons who are unable to work through no fault of their own. a True b False QuestionID: 13-24 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: a. True 25. The provincial and federal governments pay the full cost of the workers' compensation system. a True b False QuestionID: 13-25 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: b. False 26. Describe three of the five government-mandated benefits for employees in Canada (2 points for each description).

QuestionID: 13-26 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: Employment insurance (EI) - A federal program intended to provide temporary financial assistance to eligible persons who experience interruption to their work through no fault of their own. EI benefits are not payable when an employee is terminated for just cause—for example, for theft of company property—or when an employee quits for no good reason.

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Canada/Quebec Pension Plans (C/QPP) - Programs that provide three types of benefits: retirement income, survivor or death benefits payable to the employee's dependants regardless of age at time of death, and disability benefits payable to employees with disabilities and their dependants. Benefits are payable only to those individuals who make contributions to the plans or to their family members.

Workers' compensation - Provides income and medical benefits to victims of work-related accidents or illnesses or their dependants, regardless of fault.

Paid Time Off - Firms should have policies in place to address maternity and paternity leave and several holiday- or vacation-related issues, such as how many vacation days employees get, and which days (if any) are paid holidays. In addition, provincial or jurisdictional legislation determines minimum breaks to be given in a workday.

Pay on Termination of Employment - Employment and labour standards legislation requires that employees whose employment is being terminated by the employer be provided with termination pay when they leave. The amount to be paid varies among jurisdictions and with the circumstances.

27. What is the benefit that provides pay to an employee when he or she is out of work because of a non-work related injury or illness?

A) Severance pay B) Unemployment pay C) Workers' compensation D) Short-term disability plans E) Hospitalization benefits QuestionID: 13-27 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: D) Short-term disability plans 28. In response to the COVID-19 pandemic in 2020, the Canadian government offered temporary unemployment related benefits. Describe two of these benefits (2 points each).

QuestionID: 13-28 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: Canada Emergency Response Benefits (CERB) - Provided $500 a week (flat rate, regardless of previous employment income) to employed and self-employed Canadians unable to work due to COVID-19 closures or restrictions.

Canada Recovery Benefits (CRB) - Provided $500 per week (maximum of 26 weeks) to those who were selfemployed or not eligible for EI and had lost work (more than 50 percent drop in income) due to COVID-19.

Canada Recovery Sickness Benefit (CRSB) - Provided $500 per week up to 2 weeks for those who had to selfisolate or miss work due to COVID-19-related illness.

Canada Recovery Sickness Benefit (CRSB) - Provided $500 per week up to 26 weeks for those who had to miss work due to caring for a family member or child under the age of 12 due to COVID-19-related illness, or school/daycare closures.

29. A type of life insurance that provides lower rates than individual insurance and includes all employees, regardless of health or physical condition, is called 8

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A) whole life insurance.

B) group life insurance.

C) endowment insurance.

D) term insurance.

E) universal life insurance.

QuestionID: 13-29 Objective: 13.3—Discuss five types of voluntary healthcare-related employee services or benefits offered to employees.

Answer: B) group life insurance.

30. What amount of life insurance does group life insurance usually provide?

A) $100,000 B) Five years' salary C) Two years' salary D) $25,000 E) One year's salary QuestionID: 13-30 Objective: 13.3—Discuss five types of voluntary healthcare-related employee services or benefits offered to employees.

Answer: C) Two years' salary 31. What is the benefit that provides a fixed lump-sum benefit in addition to life insurance benefits when death is accidental?

A) Bereavement and home care insurance B) Loss of life and physical injury insurance C) Survivors' benefit and recovery insurance D) Accidental death and dismemberment coverage E) Casualty and injury insurance QuestionID: 13-31 Objective: 13.3—Discuss five types of voluntary healthcare-related employee services or benefits offered to employees.

Answer: D) Accidental death and dismemberment coverage 32. What is critical illness insurance?

A) Coverage providing financial support to an employee who is diagnosed with a life-threatening or serious illness B) Coverage for prescription drugs when an employee is diagnosed with an illness that will require a leave of absence C) A deductible expense per year that provides a fund to be used for the purchase of drugs not covered by health insurance 9

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D) Incremental payments made to employees who no longer can return to work E) Coverage providing a fixed lump-sum benefit in addition to life insurance benefits when injury is accidental QuestionID: 13-32 Objective: 13.3—Discuss five types of voluntary healthcare-related employee services or benefits offered to employees.

Answer: A) Coverage providing financial support to an employee who is diagnosed with a life-threatening or serious illness 33. In addition to supplementary healthcare/medical insurance, health-related insurance plans commonly include which of the following?

A) Vision care, physiotherapy, and dental services B) Chronic illness benefits, vision care, and dental services C) Vision care, hearing aids, and dental services D) Vision care, prescription drugs, and dental insurance E) Vision care, dental services, and medical supplies QuestionID: 13-33 Objective: 13.3—Discuss five types of voluntary healthcare-related employee services or benefits offered to employees.

Answer: C) Vision care, hearing aids, and dental services 34. What is the term used to refer to the annual amount of health/dental expenses that an employee must pay before insurance benefits will be paid?

A) The premium B) The fee C) The charge D) The supplement E) The deductible QuestionID: 13-34 Objective: 13.3—Discuss five types of voluntary healthcare-related employee services or benefits offered to employees.

Answer: E) The deductible 35. What are the main reasons for increasing healthcare costs in Canada?

A) Increasing use of expensive new drugs and rising drug use by an aging population B) "Cost cutting" in provincial healthcare plans and the arrival of new types of diseases C) The rise in psychiatric and psychological support costs D) Increasing management group illnesses and associated legal costs from employee complaints E) Workers compensation claim prepayment and the use of expensive new drugs 10

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QuestionID: 13-35 Objective: 13.3—Discuss five types of voluntary healthcare-related employee services or benefits offered to employees.

Answer: A) Increasing use of expensive new drugs and rising drug use by an aging population 36. What is known as the percentage of expenses (in excess of the deductible) that are paid for by the insurance plan?

A) Insured amount B) Uninsured amount C) Coinsurance D) Premium E) Assessment QuestionID: 13-36 Objective: 13.3—Discuss five types of voluntary healthcare-related employee services or benefits offered to employees.

Answer: C) Coinsurance 37. An approach to reducing health-benefit costs of organizations is to increase the amount of healthcare costs paid by which of the following?

A) Employees B) The federal government C) Workers' compensation plans D) Customers E) Provincial governments QuestionID: 13-37 Objective: 13.3—Discuss five types of voluntary healthcare-related employee services or benefits offered to employees.

Answer: A) Employees 38. What is known as a proactive, employer-centred process that coordinates the activities of the employer, the insurance company, and healthcare providers in an effort to minimize the impact of injury, disability, or disease on a worker's capacity to successfully perform their job?

A) Disability management B) Productivity management C) Worker health management D) Benefits management E) Workforce management QuestionID: 13-38 Objective: 13.3—Discuss five types of voluntary healthcare-related employee services or benefits offered to employees.

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Answer: A) Disability management 39. Effective disability management programs include A) monitoring worker's compensation.

B) early and safe return-to-work policies.

C) outplacement programs.

D) monitoring unemployment levels.

E) monitoring unemployment insurance.

QuestionID: 13-39 Objective: 13.3—Discuss five types of voluntary healthcare-related employee services or benefits offered to employees.

Answer: B) early and safe return-to-work policies.

40. What is the leading cause of short- and long-term disability claims in Canada?

A) Upper body injuries B) Mental health issues C) Injuries to feet and legs D) Eyesight and hearing issues E) Mobility injuries and issues QuestionID: 13-40 Objective: 13.3—Discuss five types of voluntary healthcare-related employee services or benefits offered to employees.

Answer: B) Mental health issues 41. What is the most common psychiatric disability Impacting Canadian workplaces and workers?

A) Schizophrenia B) Depression C) Bipolar disorder D) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder E) Loneliness QuestionID: 13-41 Objective: 13.3—Discuss five types of voluntary healthcare-related employee services or benefits offered to employees.

Answer: B) Depression 42. Which of the following is the top challenge in improving how mental health issues are addressed in the workplace?

A) Lack of front-line manager awareness B) Lack of senior management buy-in 12

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C) Lack of tools and support D) Inability to identify suitable modified work E) Employee perceptions and stigma related to mental health issues QuestionID: 13-42 Objective: 13.3—Discuss five types of voluntary healthcare-related employee services or benefits offered to employees.

Answer: E) Employee perceptions and stigma related to mental health issues 43. If all employees living with depression or anxiety had access to better treatments and supports, workplace functioning would improve significantly. a True b False QuestionID: 13-43 Objective: 13.3—Discuss five types of voluntary healthcare-related employee services or benefits offered to employees.

Answer: a. True 44. Describe three of the five voluntary employer-sponsored healthcare benefits (2 points for each description).

QuestionID: 13-44 Objective: 13.3—Discuss five types of voluntary healthcare-related employee services or benefits offered to employees.

Answer: Life insurance - Life insurance provided at lower rates for all employees, including new employees, regardless of health or physical condition. In most cases, the employer pays 100 percent of the base premium, which usually provides life insurance equal to about two years' salary. Additional life insurance coverage is sometimes made available to employees on an optional, employee-paid basis.

Supplementary Healthcare/Medical Insurance - Most employers provide their employees with supplementary healthcare and medical insurance (over and above that provided by provincial healthcare plans). Along with life insurance and long-term disability, these benefits form the cornerstone of almost all benefits programs.

Supplementary healthcare insurance is aimed at providing protection against medical costs arising from off-thejob accidents or illness.

Short-term disability or sick leave plans (also known as salary continuation plans) - Provide a continuation of all or part of an employee's earnings when the employee is absent from work because of non-work-related illness or injury. Usually, a medical certificate is required if the absence extends beyond two or three days.

These plans typically provide full pay for some period (often two or three weeks) and then gradually reduce the percentage of earnings paid as the period of absence lengthens. The benefits cease when the employee returns to work or when the employee qualifies for long-term disability.

Long-term disability - Long-term disability insurance is aimed at providing income protection or compensation for loss of income because of long-term illness or injury that is not work related. The disability payments usually begin when normal short-term disability or sick leave is used up and may continue to provide income to age 65 or beyond. The disability benefits usually range from 50 to 75 percent of the employee's base pay.

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Mental health benefits - Mental health issues continue to be the leading cause of short- and long-term disability claims in Canada. Psychiatric disabilities are the fastest growing of all occupational disabilities, with depression being the most common.

45. Which of the following is the type of pension plan that contains a formula for determining retirement benefits so that the actual benefits to be received are defined ahead of time?

A) Money purchase pension plan B) Defined contribution pension plan C) Defined benefit pension plan D) Deferred profit-sharing plan E) Undefined retirement plan QuestionID: 13-45 Objective: 13.4—Describe the two categories of pension plans and legal considerations in the development of pension plans.

Answer: C) Defined benefit pension plan 46. Which of the following is the type of retirement plan that does not define the eventual benefit amount, but only the periodic employer contribution to the plan?

A) Government-sponsored plan B) Defined contribution pension plan C) Deferred profit-sharing plan D) Undefined retirement plan E) Defined benefit pension plan QuestionID: 13-46 Objective: 13.4—Describe the two categories of pension plans and legal considerations in the development of pension plans.

Answer: B) Defined contribution pension plan 47. Which of the following is the retirement benefit plan in which an amount of company profits is credited to each employee's account, payable at retirement, termination, or death?

A) Group profit pension plan B) Defined profit pension plan C) Defined contribution profit plan D) Deferred profit-sharing plan E) Group profit-sharing plan QuestionID: 13-47 Objective: 13.4—Describe the two categories of pension plans and legal considerations in the development of pension plans.

Answer: D) Deferred profit-sharing plan 14

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48. Why are group registered retirement savings plan/deferred profit-sharing plan combinations popular in Canada?

A) No tax is paid at all and the money can be withdrawn at any time after 5 years of retirement.

B) They increase severance payments over and above the amount legislated.

C) Employers provide contributions to them at three times the individual employee contribution.

D) No tax is paid until money is received from the plans at the time of the employee's death or termination of employment (at retirement or otherwise).

E) Membership is automatic upon beginning employment with any employer in Canada.

QuestionID: 13-48 Objective: 13.4—Describe the two categories of pension plans and legal considerations in the development of pension plans.

Answer: D) No tax is paid until money is received from the plans at the time of the employee's death or termination of employment (at retirement or otherwise).

49. A provision in pension plans referring to the money contributed by the employer that has been placed in a pension fund and cannot be forfeited for any reason is known as which of the following?

A) Employee vesting rights B) Employee equity rights C) Employee security rights D) Employee guarantee rights E) Employee assurance rights QuestionID: 13-49 Objective: 13.4—Describe the two categories of pension plans and legal considerations in the development of pension plans.

Answer: A) Employee vesting rights 50. In most provinces, pension legislation requires that employer contributions be vested once the employee has completed how many years of service?

A) 3 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4 E) 5 QuestionID: 13-50 Objective: 13.4—Describe the two categories of pension plans and legal considerations in the development of pension plans.

Answer: C) 2 51. Mandatory retirement is now prohibited by human rights laws across the country, employees cannot be required to retire at age 65.

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a True b False QuestionID: 13-51 Objective: 13.4—Describe the two categories of pension plans and legal considerations in the development of pension plans.

Answer: a. True 52. A pension provision whereby employees who change jobs can transfer the lump-sum value of the pension that they have earned to a locked-in registered retirement savings plan or to their new employer's pension plan is referred to as which of the following?

A) Non-funding B) Vesting C) A non-locked-in provision D) A flexible pension E) Portability QuestionID: 13-52 Objective: 13.4—Describe the two categories of pension plans and legal considerations in the development of pension plans.

Answer: E) Portability 53. Once an employee is vested, all pension plan contributions are "locked-in" and cannot be withdrawn by the employee on termination of employment; in this case, when must employees wait until to receive a pension from the plan?

A) Changing jobs B) Retirement C) At least 5 years of service D) Transfer E) Promotion QuestionID: 13-53 Objective: 13.4—Describe the two categories of pension plans and legal considerations in the development of pension plans.

Answer: B) Retirement 54. Most group life insurance plans contain a provision for coverage of all employees regardless of health or physical condition. a True b False QuestionID: 13-54 Objective: 13.3—Discuss five types of voluntary healthcare-related employee services or benefits offered to 16

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employees.

Answer: a. True 55. A defined benefit pension plan contains a formula for determining retirement benefits. a True b False QuestionID: 13-55 Objective: 13.4—Describe the two categories of pension plans and legal considerations in the development of pension plans.

Answer: a. True 56. Melanie has a defined contribution pension plan; she will get paid all of her pension upon retirement. a True b False QuestionID: 13-56 Objective: 13.4—Describe the two categories of pension plans and legal considerations in the development of pension plans.

Answer: b. False 57. Who is generally not eligible to collect CPP upon retirement?

A) Self-employed individuals B) Full-time employees C) Casual and migrant workers D) Part-time employees E) Individuals who make contributions to the plan or their surviving members QuestionID: 13-57 Objective: 13.2—Describe five government-mandated benefits.

Answer: C) Casual and migrant workers 58. Which of the following is the popular work arrangement that involves using technology to work away from the office?

A) Flextime B) Telecommuting C) Flexwork D) Compressed workweeks E) Work sharing QuestionID: 13-58 Objective: 13.5—Discuss five types of employee-specific benefits and identify the impact of these benefits on 17

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the employee—employer relationship.

Answer: B) Telecommuting 59. XYZ is a content marketing firm. They have clients across Canada and hire consultants across the country as well. They have no physical office and instead allow employees to work from home and connect remotely for meetings. This arrangement is referred to as A) flextime.

B) telecommuting.

C) flexwork.

D) compressed workweeks.

E) work sharing.

QuestionID: 13-59 Objective: 13.5—Discuss five types of employee-specific benefits and identify the impact of these benefits on the employee—employer relationship.

Answer: B) telecommuting.

60. Liz and Larry are both part-time students. They both work as a receptionist in a small business. Liz works Mondays to Wednesdays and Larry works Thursdays and Fridays. This arrangement is referred to as A) flextime.

B) telecommuting.

C) flexwork.

D) compressed workweeks.

E) work sharing.

QuestionID: 13-60 Objective: 13.5—Discuss five types of employee-specific benefits and identify the impact of these benefits on the employee—employer relationship.

Answer: E) work sharing.

61. Mark works at an IT consulting firm. He has to drop his daughter at daycare every morning. Instead of beginning work at 9 a.m. and finishing at 5 p.m., he works from 9:30 a.m. to 5:30 p.m. This arrangement is referred to as A) flextime.

B) telecommuting.

C) flexwork.

D) compressed workweeks.

E) work sharing.

QuestionID: 13-61 Objective: 13.5—Discuss five types of employee-specific benefits and identify the impact of these benefits on the employee—employer relationship.

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Answer: C) flextime.

62. What type of leave can employers provide for employees who want time off to rejuvenate or to pursue a personal goal?

A) Bereavement leave B) Maternity leave C) Paternity leave D) Sabbatical leave E) Mental leave QuestionID: 13-62 Objective: 13.5—Discuss five types of employee-specific benefits and identify the impact of these benefits on the employee—employer relationship.

Answer: D) Sabbatical leave 63. What are some examples of "family-friendly" benefits?

A) Flexible work hours and onsite childcare B) Employee recognition programs C) Employee surveys D) Commission plans E) Occupational health and safety training QuestionID: 13-63 Objective: 13.5—Discuss five types of employee-specific benefits and identify the impact of these benefits on the employee—employer relationship.

Answer: A) Flexible work hours and onsite childcare 64. Define three types of flexible work arrangements (1 point each). Briefly describe two advantages of flexible work arrangements (1 point each).

QuestionID: 13-64 Objective: 13.5—Discuss five types of employee-specific benefits and identify the impact of these benefits on the employee—employer relationship.

Answer: Flextime - A work schedule in which employees' workdays are built around a core of midday hours and employees determine, within limits, what other hours they will work.

Telecommuting - Using technology to work away from the office.

Compressed work week - Schedule in which an employee works fewer but longer days each week.

Job sharing - Allows two or more people to share a single full-time job.

Work sharing - A temporary reduction in work hours by a group of employees during economic downturns as a way to prevent layoffs.

The advantages of flexible work arrangements are: - Single parents use them for balancing work and family responsibilities.

- For many employees, flexible work schedules provide a way to pursue their careers without surrendering the 19

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quality of life they desire.

- Studies show that flexible work schedules have positive effects on employee productivity, job satisfaction, and employee absenteeism.

65. Which of the following is a salary guarantee that protects executives if their firms are the targets of acquisitions or mergers?

A) Relocation benefits B) Golden parachutes C) Termination benefits D) Outplacement assistance E) Expense accounts QuestionID: 13-65 Objective: 13.5—Discuss five types of employee-specific benefits and identify the impact of these benefits on the employee—employer relationship.

Answer: B) Golden parachutes 66. Which of the following includes executive perquisites related to subsidized mortgages, purchase of the executive's current house, and payment for the actual move?

A) Relocation benefits B) Golden parachutes C) Termination benefits D) Outplacement assistance E) Expense accounts QuestionID: 13-66 Objective: 13.5—Discuss five types of employee-specific benefits and identify the impact of these benefits on the employee—employer relationship.

Answer: A) Relocation benefits 67. A job-related service benefit that is designed to assist employees who must help aging parents or relatives who are not fully able to care for themselves is known as A) personal care.

B) eldercare.

C) aging care.

D) family care.

E) parental care.

QuestionID: 13-67 Objective: 13.5—Discuss five types of employee-specific benefits and identify the impact of these benefits on the employee—employer relationship.

Answer: B) eldercare.

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68. Which of the following is a formal employer program for providing employees with confidential counselling or treatment programs for problems, such as mental health issues, marital/family problems, legal problems, and stress?

A) Employee assistance plans B) Psychological, family, and legal benefits C) Anonymous plans D) Crisis aid plans E) Educational subsidy benefits QuestionID: 13-68 Objective: 13.5—Discuss five types of employee-specific benefits and identify the impact of these benefits on the employee—employer relationship.

Answer: A) Employee assistance plans 69. Individualized benefit plans that accommodate unique employee needs and preferences for benefits, are known as which of the following?

A) Perquisite benefit plans B) Flexible benefit programs C) Individualized benefit plans D) Constrained benefit programs E) Family-friendly benefit plans QuestionID: 13-69 Objective: 13.6—Explain how to set up a flexible benefits program and cost considerations in benefits plan management.

Answer: B) Flexible benefit programs 70. Eldercare is designed to help older employees who are not fully able to care for themselves. a True b False QuestionID: 13-70 Objective: 13.6—Explain how to set up a flexible benefits program and cost considerations in benefits plan management.

Answer: b. False 71. The number of flexible benefits programs in Canada has been decreasing. a True b False QuestionID: 13-71 Objective: 13.6—Explain how to set up a flexible benefits program and cost considerations in benefits plan management.

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Answer: b. False 72. Cost containment is one advantage to an employer offering a flexible benefit plan. a True b False QuestionID: 13-72 Objective: 13.6—Explain how to set up a flexible benefits program and cost considerations in benefits plan management.

Answer: a. True 73. Carlos has noticed that employees in his organization don't really value the benefits package his organization has designed for them. The workforce in Carlos' organization is quite diverse in age and other demographic variables. Provide Carlo with some advice about flexible benefits by describing what they are and the constraints of these benefits (3 points) and be sure to tell him about one key advantage (2 points) and one disadvantage (2 points) of flexible benefits.

QuestionID: 13-73 Objective: 13.6—Explain how to set up a flexible benefits program and cost considerations in benefits plan management.

Answer: Flexible benefits programs are individualized benefit plans to accommodate employee needs and preferences. Flexible benefits plans empower the employee to put together their own benefit package, subject to two constraints. First, the employer must carefully limit total cost for each total benefits package. Second, each benefit plan must include certain items that are not optional—for example, Canada/Quebec Pension Plan, workers' compensation, and employment insurance.

Advantages: - The flexibility for employees is the main advantage of this type of plan.

- The organization is better able to meet diverse employee needs while containing benefit cost increases.

Disadvantages: - Although most employees favour flexible benefits, some do not like to spend time choosing among available options, and some choose inappropriate benefits.

- Communication regarding the choices available in a flexible plan is considered the biggest challenge for employers.

- The administrative problems of keeping track of the benefits status of each employee can be a time-consuming task as employees are hired and separated and as they use or want to change their benefits.

74. Rybak Inc. offers its employees $1000 per year to spend on health-related expenses. This type of program is referred to as A) a defined benefit pension plan.

B) a healthcare spending account.

C) a commission.

D) a defined contribution plan.

E) a flexible work arrangement.

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QuestionID: 13-74 Objective: 13.6—Explain how to set up a flexible benefits program and cost considerations in benefits plan management.

Answer: B) a healthcare spending account.

75. Your CEO has asked you for ways to reduce the company's health-benefit costs. What are three options you can suggest (2 points each)?

QuestionID: 13-75 Objective: 13.6—Explain how to set up a flexible benefits program and cost considerations in benefits plan management.

Answer: 1. The simplest approach to reducing health-benefit costs is to increase the amount of healthcare costs paid by employees. This can be accomplished by increasing employee premiums, increasing deductibles, reducing company coinsurance (percentage of expenses in excess of the deductible that are paid for by the insurance plan levels), instituting or lowering annual maximums on some services, or even eliminating coverage for spouses, private hospital rooms, and other benefits.

2. Another cost-reduction strategy is to publish a restricted list of drugs that will be paid for under the plan to encourage the use of generic rather than more expensive brand-name drugs. New drugs may not be covered if equally effective, cheaper alternatives are available. This approach should be combined with employee education to effectively manage the demand for drugs/medicines.

3. A third approach is health promotion. In-house newsletters can caution workers to take medication properly and advertise programs on weight management, smoking cessation, exercise classes, on-site massage therapy, nutrition counselling, and other wellness programs.

4. A fourth approach is to implement risk-assessment programs. A third party conducts a confidential survey of the health history and lifestyle choices of employees to identify common health risk factors, such as those associated with heart disease or mental health, so that problem-specific programs can be implemented.

5. Finally, healthcare spending accounts (HCSA) are offered by more than 90 percent of Canadian employers, either alone or in combination with a standard healthcare plan. The employer establishes an annual account for each employee containing a certain amount of money (determined by the employer to control costs). The employee can spend the money on healthcare costs as they want. This provides flexibility for the employee.

76. The last few years have seen a trend away from employer-provided retiree health benefits. a True b False QuestionID: 13-76 Objective: 13.6—Explain how to set up a flexible benefits program and cost considerations in benefits plan management.

Answer: a. True 77. Benefits fraud is not a legitimate concern for companies. a True 23

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b False QuestionID: 13-77 Objective: 13.6—Explain how to set up a flexible benefits program and cost considerations in benefits plan management.

Answer: b. False 78. Jane distributes a monthly e-blast to employees on ways to improve health and wellness including smoking cessation, healthy recipes, and exercise strategies. This is an example of A) a risk assessment.

B) a health-case spending account.

C) health promotion.

D) benefits fraud.

E) retiree benefits.

QuestionID: 13-78 Objective: 13.6—Explain how to set up a flexible benefits program and cost considerations in benefits plan management.

Answer: C) health promotion.

79. A third party conducts a confidential survey of the health history and lifestyle choices of employees to identify common health risk factors so that problem-specific programs can be implemented This is an example of A) a risk assessment.

B) a health-case spending account.

C) health promotion.

D) benefits fraud.

E) retiree benefits.

QuestionID: 13-79 Objective: 13.6—Explain how to set up a flexible benefits program and cost considerations in benefits plan management.

Answer: A) a risk assessment.

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Human Resources Management in Canada, 15Ce (Dessler) Chapter 14: Occupational Health and Safety 1. Investments in disability management and proactive wellness programs create positive measurable bottomline return on investment for the company. a True b False QuestionID: 14-01 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: a. True 2. Approximately how many Canadian workplace fatalities are there each day (including injury and occupational disease-based fatalities)?

A) 20 B) 1 C) 50 D) 300 E) 100 QuestionID: 14-02 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: A) 20 3. All provinces, territories, and the federal jurisdiction have occupational health and safety legislation based on which principle?

A) Diligence B) Complexity C) External responsibility D) Joint responsibility E) Education QuestionID: 14-03 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: D) Joint responsibility 4. Under the "due diligence" requirement in occupational health and safety legislation, which groups share responsibility to ensure the health and safety of workers?

A) Employers, workplace safety bureaus, and provincial government B) Safety committees, unions, and labour ministries 1

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C) Employees, employers, and supervisors D) Regional, provincial/territorial, and federal governments E) Shareholders, Executives, and the Board of Directors QuestionID: 14-04 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: A) Employers, workplace safety bureaus, and provincial government 5. Baz complained about a workplace hazard that has not been satisfactorily resolved. Baz is refusing to work until the hazard has been fixed or the work environment is safer. What is this work refusal based on?

A) Lost-time predictions B) Due diligence C) Restitution D) Reasonable cause E) Work contravention QuestionID: 14-05 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: D) Reasonable cause 6. "Corporate killing" laws, which impose criminal liability on "all persons" who direct the work of other employees and fail to ensure an appropriate level of safety in the workplace, are included under which of the following?

A) Employment Standards Act B) Occupational Health and Safety Act C) The Criminal Code D) Human rights legislation E) Employment standards legislation QuestionID: 14-06 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: C) The Criminal Code 7. Idris is a supervisor at a grocery store. He pressured an employee to work alone in an unsafe environment, even though it was against company policy. When the employee said they felt unsafe, Idris threatened to terminate the employee for job abandonment if they didn't do the work. The employee had an accident during the shift and unfortunately did not survive the accident. Idris could be sent to prison for his actions under what legislation?

A) Employment Standards Act B) Occupational Health and Safety Act 2

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C) The Criminal Code D) Human rights legislation E) Employment standards legislation QuestionID: 14-07 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: C) The Criminal Code 8. Idris is a supervisor at a grocery store. Although steel toed boots are mandatory in the workplace and all employees have attended training that indicated this, Kamal comes to work with running shoes. What should Idris do in this situation?

A) Let Kamal work this shift with runners and make a note to dock pay next time B) Write up Kamal for insubordination and creating a hostile work environment.

C) Refuse to let Kamal work unless steel toed boots are used, and write up Kamal for failure to comply with safety rules D) Keep an extra pair of steel toed boots available as the employer is required to have back up shoes since they implemented the policy E) Pay for Kamal's travel time home to get the required steel toed boots, since it was the company-initiated rule that was violated.

QuestionID: 14-08 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: C) Refuse to let Kamal work unless steel toed boots are used, and write up Kamal for failure to comply with safety rules 9. Most jurisdictions require a joint health and safety committee to be established in each workplace that has what minimum number of workers?

A) 0-4 B) 5-10 C) 10-20 D) 20-30 E) 30-40 QuestionID: 14-09 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: C) 10-20 10. In Ontario, how many management and labour representatives are required to be certified in occupational health and safety through a provincial training program?

A) At least one manager and two employee representatives 3

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B) At least two managers and two employee representatives C) At least one manager and one employee representative D) At least two managers and one employee representative E) At least one manager and three employee representatives QuestionID: 14-10 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: C) At least one manager and one employee representative 11. How many basic rights do employees have under the joint responsibility model?

A) 4 B) 2 C) 5 D) 3 E) 6 QuestionID: 14-11 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: D) 3 12. Which of the following is the acronym for the Canada-wide, legally mandated system designed to protect workers by providing crucial information about hazardous materials or substances in the workplace?

A) VDT/RSI B) Bill C-45 C) MSDS D) OHSA E) WHMIS QuestionID: 14-12 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: E) WHMIS 13. What are the three components of the Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System legislation?

A) Public information sessions, material safety data sheets, and employee training B) Labelling of hazardous material, material safety data sheets, and employee training C) Storage of hazardous material, public information sessions, and material safety data sheets D) Labelling of hazardous material, public information sessions, and employee training E) Material safety data sheets, storage of hazardous materials, and executive training QuestionID: 14-13 4

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Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: B) Labelling of hazardous material, material safety data sheets, and employee training 14. To promote the inclusion of persons with disabilities, which of the following did the Ontario government develop?

A) The Disability Act B) The Ontario Mental Health Network C) The Accessibility for Ontarians with Disabilities Act D) The Disability Help Network E) The Acute Care Clinic of Ontario QuestionID: 14-14 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: C) The Accessibility for Ontarians with Disabilities Act 15. The Accessibility for Ontarians with Disabilities Act requires companies to comply with rules for full accessibility by A) 2020.

B) 2025.

C) 2030.

D) 2035.

E) 2040.

QuestionID: 14-15 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: B) 2025.

16. Employees have a responsibility for taking reasonable care to protect their own health and safety at work. a True b False QuestionID: 14-16 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: a. True 17. A worker can be disciplined for refusing to do a job when performance of that task would likely negatively affect their health and safety. a True 5

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b False QuestionID: 14-17 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: b. False 18. The function of joint health and safety committees is to provide a non-adversarial atmosphere where management and employees can work together to ensure a safe and healthy workplace. a True b False QuestionID: 14-18 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: a. True 19. Health and safety inspectors may inspect a workplace only when they have a warrant and give prior notification. a True b False QuestionID: 14-19 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: b. False 20. Canadian corporate executives and directors cannot receive prison sentences for health and safety violations. a True b False QuestionID: 14-20 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: b. False 21. Identify the three basic rights of employees under the joint responsibility model of occupational health and safety (3 points) and define the employer's "due diligence" requirement (1 point).

QuestionID: 14-21 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

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Answer: Employees have three basic rights under the joint responsibility model: 1. The right to know about workplace safety hazards.

2. The right to participate in the occupational health and safety process.

3. The right to refuse unsafe work if they have "reasonable cause" to believe that the work is dangerous.

Due diligence is the employers' responsibility regarding taking every reasonable precaution to ensure the health and safety of their workers.

22. Describe four of the six characteristics that a workplace with a safety-oriented culture exhibits (1 points each).

QuestionID: 14-22 Objective: 14.1—Analyze the responsibilities and rights of employees, supervisors, and employers under occupational health and safety legislation.

Answer: 1. Teamwork, in the form of management and employees both involved in safety.

2. Highly visible and interactive communication and collaboration on safety matters.

3. A shared vision of safety excellence (specifically, an overriding attitude that all accidents and injuries are preventable).

4. Assignment of critical safety functions to specific individuals or teams.

5. A continuous effort toward identifying and correcting workplace safety problems and hazards.

6. Encouragement of incident reporting.

23. Which of the following are the three basic causes of accidents in organizations?

A) Random occurrences, employee loafing, and unsafe behaviours B) Old equipment, untrained employees, and unsafe acts C) Chance occurrences, unsafe conditions, and unsafe acts D) Ineffective health and safety committees, chance occurrences, and cost-cutting E) Unsafe conditions, untrained employees, and cost-cutting QuestionID: 14-23 Objective: 14.2—Analyze in detail three basic causes of accidents.

Answer: C) Chance occurrences, unsafe conditions, and unsafe acts 24. Which of the following contributes to workplace accidents but is essentially beyond management's control?

A) Untrained employees B) Workplace hazards C) Unsafe acts D) Unsafe conditions E) Chance occurrences QuestionID: 14-24 Objective: 14.2—Analyze in detail three basic causes of accidents.

Answer: E) Chance occurrences 7

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25. Accidents occurring more frequently in plants with a high seasonal layoff rate and where there is hostility among employees best reflects which of the following work-related factors that contribute to accidents?

A) The job itself B) The work schedule C) The workplace psychological climate D) Chance conditions E) Chance occurrences QuestionID: 14-25 Objective: 14.2—Analyze in detail three basic causes of accidents.

Answer: C) The workplace psychological climate 26. Which of the following changes would most likely indicate the presence of a job hazard?

A) Decreased number of employee complaints B) Decreased absenteeism C) Decreased turnover D) Increased number of accidents E) Increased product quality QuestionID: 14-26 Objective: 14.2—Analyze in detail three basic causes of accidents.

Answer: D) Increased number of accidents 27. In addition to unsafe conditions, which of the following are the three other work-related factors that contribute to accidents?

A) The psychological climate of the workplace, equipment maintenance, and the work itself B) The job itself, the work schedule, and the psychological climate of the workplace C) The work schedule, equipment maintenance, and the job itself D) The work schedule, safety training, and the psychological climate of the workplace E) Safety training, equipment maintenance, and the job itself QuestionID: 14-27 Objective: 14.2—Analyze in detail three basic causes of accidents.

Answer: B) The job itself, the work schedule, and the psychological climate of the workplace 28. Which of the following would be most likely to be considered as an unsafe act?

A) Improper ventilation B) Defective equipment C) Insufficient light D) Operating or working at unsafe speeds E) Glare 8

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QuestionID: 14-28 Objective: 14.2—Analyze in detail three basic causes of accidents.

Answer: D) Operating or working at unsafe speeds 29. Which group of workers is likely to have the highest level of accidents?

A) Workers who do not consider their jobs to be threatened B) Workers who work under stress C) Workers who are secure D) Workers with longer experience in the firm E) Workers with high educational attainment QuestionID: 14-29 Objective: 14.2—Analyze in detail three basic causes of accidents.

Answer: B) Workers who work under stress 30. Which of the following would be most likely to be considered as an unsafe condition?

A) Throwing materials B) Lifting improperly C) Instigating horseplay D) Defective equipment E) Using equipment unsafely QuestionID: 14-30 Objective: 14.2—Analyze in detail three basic causes of accidents.

Answer: D) Defective equipment 31. Ron and Vick were hired as summer students at Toys R Us. On one shift, they opened some Nerf guns and started a nerf battle during their scheduled shift. Vick was hit in the eye with a nerf dart causing injury. What category would this workplace injury fall under?

A) Untrained employees B) Workplace hazards C) Unsafe acts D) Unsafe conditions E) Chance occurrences QuestionID: 14-31 Objective: 14.2—Analyze in detail three basic causes of accidents.

Answer: C) Unsafe acts 32. A professor lectures to a large class in an auditorium style classroom. The microphone has been broken for a few weeks and has yet to be replaced, so the professor has to speak really loudly so everyone can hear them.

After a few weeks, the professor loses their voice due to overuse. What category would this workplace injury 9

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fall under?

A) Untrained employees B) Workplace hazards C) Unsafe acts D) Unsafe conditions E) Chance occurrences QuestionID: 14-32 Objective: 14.2—Analyze in detail three basic causes of accidents.

Answer: D) Unsafe conditions 33. An employee working at a carnival was hurt when 2 cars in the parking lot got into an accident and one of them was projected into the carnival area. What category would this workplace injury fall under?

A) Untrained employees B) Workplace hazards C) Unsafe acts D) Unsafe conditions E) Chance occurrences QuestionID: 14-33 Objective: 14.2—Analyze in detail three basic causes of accidents.

Answer: E) Chance occurrences 34. Across Canada, young workers between the ages of 15 and 24 are much more likely to be injured during their first four weeks on the job than workers over 24 years of age. a True b False QuestionID: 14-34 Objective: 14.2—Analyze in detail three basic causes of accidents.

Answer: a. True 35. The risk of accidents is higher for employees who cannot read and understand machinery operating instructions, safety precautions, and equipment and repair manuals; this reflects which one of the following personal characteristics that is linked to accidents?

A) Vision B) Literacy C) Age D) Perceptual skills E) Motor skills QuestionID: 14-35 Objective: 14.2—Analyze in detail three basic causes of accidents.

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Answer: B) Literacy 36. Lina immigrated to Calgary, Canada from Germany last year. Although she speaks German and French, this workplace is predominantly English speaking (and all documentation and training is in English). She is taking Introductory level English classes at night. Although the handbook and posters indicate how to correctly handle hazardous materials, Lina has had multiple accidents associated with this. Which personal characteristics is linked to these accidents?

A) Ethnicity B) Literacy C) Gender D) Perceptual skills E) Motor skills QuestionID: 14-36 Objective: 14.2—Analyze in detail three basic causes of accidents.

Answer: B) Literacy 37. Accidents are generally most frequent between the ages of 17 and 28, declining thereafter to reach a low at what age?

A) In the late twenties and thirties B) In the late forties and fifties C) In the late thirties and forties D) In the late fifties and sixties E) At age 65 QuestionID: 14-37 Objective: 14.2—Analyze in detail three basic causes of accidents.

Answer: D) In the late fifties and sixties 38. An employee whose perceptual skill is at a lower level than his or her motor skill is likely to be a relatively safe worker. a True b False QuestionID: 14-38 Objective: 14.2—Analyze in detail three basic causes of accidents.

Answer: b. False 39. In practice, accident prevention involves reducing which of the following?

A) Policies and procedures B) Turmoil and morale C) Labour-management relations 11

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D) Pro-union sentiments E) Unsafe conditions and unsafe acts QuestionID: 14-39 Objective: 14.3—Describe how accidents at work can be prevented.

Answer: E) Unsafe conditions and unsafe acts 40. Which of the following selection tests measure employee reliability dimensions, such as emotional maturity and safe job performance?

A) Intelligence tests B) Literacy tests C) Personality tests D) The Employee Reliability Inventory E) The Employee Self-Awareness Inventory QuestionID: 14-40 Objective: 14.3—Describe how accidents at work can be prevented.

Answer: D) The Employee Reliability Inventory 41. Studies consistently find that successful health and safety programs require A) employees who engage in organizational citizenship behaviours.

B) employees who work in teams.

C) employees who have high levels of job satisfaction.

D) a strong leadership and management commitment.

E) an ethical leadership and management team.

QuestionID: 14-41 Objective: 14.3—Describe how accidents at work can be prevented.

Answer: D) a strong leadership and management commitment.

42. Unsafe acts can be reduced by praising workers when they perform selected activities safely; this approach is referred to as which of the following?

A) Training and education B) Selection testing C) Behavioural justification D) Positive reinforcement E) Leadership modelling QuestionID: 14-42 Objective: 14.3—Describe how accidents at work can be prevented.

Answer: D) Positive reinforcement 12

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43. Using safety posters to help reduce unsafe acts is consistent with which of the following actions?

A) Selection testing B) Leadership commitment C) Positive reinforcement D) Training and education E) Negative reinforcement QuestionID: 14-43 Objective: 14.3—Describe how accidents at work can be prevented.

Answer: D) Training and education 44. What question can an employer legally ask to screen out unsafe employees?

A) "Did you have any workplace accidents in your last employer?"

B) "Do you know of any reason why you would not be able to perform the various functions of the job in question?"

C) "On a scale of 1-100 (100 being the highest), how would you rate your overall physical health?"

D) "Do you wear glasses or need any form of vision correction assistance?"

E) "Do you know of any safety risks that this job presents to you?"

QuestionID: 14-44 Objective: 14.3—Describe how accidents at work can be prevented.

Answer: B) "Do you know of any reason why you would not be able to perform the various functions of the job in question?"

45. Workers' compensation premiums for employers are proportional to which of the following?

A) The safety reputation of the firm B) The number of employees in the firm C) The number of years of operation for the firm D) The workers' compensation experience rate E) The different positions the workers have held QuestionID: 14-45 Objective: 14.3—Describe how accidents at work can be prevented.

Answer: D) The workers' compensation experience rate 46. As the number of workplace accidents increases, A) the safety reputation of the firm increases.

B) the number of part-time employees in the firm decreases.

C) individual workers' compensation payouts decrease.

D) the workers' compensation premiums increase.

E) individual workers' compensation payouts increase.

QuestionID: 14-46 13

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Objective: 14.3—Describe how accidents at work can be prevented.

Answer: D) the workers' compensation premiums increase.

47. Safety programs based on positive reinforcement can improve safety behaviour at work. a True b False QuestionID: 14-47 Objective: 14.3—Describe how accidents at work can be prevented.

Answer: a. True 48. Functional abilities evaluations are an important step in reducing chance occurrences. a True b False QuestionID: 14-48 Objective: 14.3—Describe how accidents at work can be prevented.

Answer: b. False 49. The appropriate time to begin "controlling" workers' compensation claims is before the accident happens, not after. a True b False QuestionID: 14-49 Objective: 14.3—Describe how accidents at work can be prevented.

Answer: a. True 50. Amin is the manager of an auto parts manufacturing plant in Oakville, Ontario. The plant has experienced an increase in workplace injuries over the past year. Discuss three possible HR actions Amin can take to reduce unsafe acts in the workplace (2 points each).

QuestionID: 14-50 Objective: 14.3—Describe how accidents at work can be prevented.

Answer: 1. Selection Testing Certain selection tests can help screen out accident-prone individuals before they are hired. A test called the employee reliability inventory (ERI), which measures reliability dimensions such as emotional maturity, conscientiousness, safe job performance, and courteous job performance, can also be helpful in selecting employees who are less likely to have accidents. Research shows that employees who score high on safety behaviour tests are also more conscientious about their job/work and contribute more effectively to a safety climate.

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2. Top-management/Leadership Commitment Studies consistently find that successful health and safety programs require a strong leadership and management commitment. This commitment manifests itself in the values, resource allocation, and culture established by leaders, and when senior managers are personally involved in safety activities on a routine basis. Leaders and managers work together ensuring safety matters can be given high priority in company meetings and production scheduling, involving safety officer(s) with relatively high rank and status, and including safety training in new workers' training.

3. Training and Education All employees should be required to participate in occupational health and safety training programs, and opportunities for employee input into the content and design of such programs is advisable. The training should include a practical evaluation process to ensure that workers are applying the acquired knowledge and following recommended safety procedures. Such training is especially appropriate for new employees.

4. Positive Reinforcement Safety programs based on positive reinforcement can improve safety behaviour at work. Employees often receive little or no positive reinforcement for performing safely. One approach is to establish and communicate a reasonable goal (in terms of observed incidents performed safely) so that workers know what is expected of them in terms of good performance. Employees are encouraged to increase their performance to the new safety goal for their own protection and to decrease costs for the company. Various observers (such as safety coordinators and senior managers) walk through the plant regularly, collecting safety data. The results are then posted on a graph charting the percentage of incidents performed safely by the group as a whole, thus providing workers with feedback on their safety performance. Workers can compare their current safety performance with their assigned goal. In addition, supervisors should praise workers when they perform selected activities safely.

51. The report by the Conference Board of Canada concluded that employers can reduce accidents by improving which of the following?

A) Employee motivation B) Employee engagement C) Employee literacy rates D) Employee job satisfaction E) Employee organizational commitment QuestionID: 14-51 Objective: 14.2—Analyze in detail three basic causes of accidents.

Answer: C) Employee literacy rates 52. Random drug tests A) measure actual impairment and are therefore justifiable.

B) do not measure actual impairment and are therefore unjustifiable in most circumstances.

C) they should be used in all organizations.

D) are justifiable in non-safety-sensitive positions.

E) do not face any restrictions in Canada.

QuestionID: 14-52 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

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Answer: B) do not measure actual impairment and are therefore unjustifiable in most circumstances.

53. In what case can an employer terminate employment of a worker with a known alcoholism and drug addiction?

A) Only after repeated attempts at rehabilitation have failed B) Immediately upon recognizing an alcohol or drug issue C) Only when the issue is alcohol-related D) Only when the issue is related to legal drugs E) Only when the issue is related to illegal drugs QuestionID: 14-53 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

Answer: A) Only after repeated attempts at rehabilitation have failed 54. What are the two main sources of job stress?

A) A lack of control over work and environmental factors B) Personal factors and unclear company directions C) Personal factors and inconsistent performance management D) Environmental factors and personal factors E) Environmental factors and poor supervision QuestionID: 14-54 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

Answer: D) Environmental factors and personal factors 55. Too little stress can create ___________ in workers.

A) burnout B) optimal performance C) anxiety D) boredom and apathy E) passion QuestionID: 14-55 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

Answer: D) boredom and apathy 56. What is the major cause of burnout in the workplace?

A) Competing family matters B) A lack of commitment to the organization 16

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C) Excessive striving to reach an unrealistic work-related goal D) Clients complaining about issues with the company E) Stress about meeting the requirements for a promotion QuestionID: 14-56 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

Answer: C) Excessive striving to reach an unrealistic work-related goal 57. Repetitive strain injuries (RSI) are rapidly becoming the most prevalent work-related injury because of the increasing number of workers who use computers to complete work tasks. a True b False QuestionID: 14-57 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

Answer: a. True 58. The art of modifying the workstation and work tools to the individual is part of which of the following approaches?

A) Employee assistance B) Wellness C) Ergonomics D) Retooling E) Diligence QuestionID: 14-58 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

Answer: C) Ergonomics 59. Aikam is 6'6" tall. When Aikam started working as a graphics designer, his manager noticed that the standard work desk was too small for him. The manager ordered him lifts to put under the desks that increased Aikam's desk height by 4 inches. What is this an example of?

A) Employee assistance B) Wellness C) Ergonomics D) Retooling E) Reasonable notice QuestionID: 14-59 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should 17

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be handled.

Answer: C) Ergonomics 60. Short-term eye problems, like burning, itching, and tearing, as well as eyestrain and eye soreness, are common complaints among A) retail workers.

B) barbers.

C) accountants.

D) personal trainers.

E) actors.

QuestionID: 14-60 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

Answer: D) personal trainers.

61. The leading cause of work-related deaths around the world is A) accidents.

B) violence.

C) mental disorders.

D) cancer.

E) heart disease.

QuestionID: 14-61 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

Answer: D) cancer.

62. Research shows that employees who smoke have A) reduced productivity.

B) increased productivity.

C) a lower risk of occupational accidents.

D) higher job satisfaction.

E) higher organizational commitment.

QuestionID: 14-62 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

Answer: A) reduced productivity.

63. Employers may be found vicariously liable for the violent acts of their employees on the basis of which of the following?

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A) Insufficient security B) Blackmail and duress C) Malice and larceny D) Negligence in hiring or retention E) Employee discrimination QuestionID: 14-63 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

Answer: D) Negligence in hiring or retention 64. Re-experiencing the event and avoidance of emotions, persons, and physical space associated with the event are likely symptoms associated with which of the following?

A) Burnout B) Lost-time injury rates C) Repetitive strain injuries D) Hazardous materials E) Post-traumatic stress disorder QuestionID: 14-64 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

Answer: E) Post-traumatic stress disorder 65. Immediate dismissal is generally justifiable in the case of first-time, positive employee drug test results. a True b False QuestionID: 14-65 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

Answer: b. False 66. Which of the following is a program that takes a proactive approach to employee health and well-being?

A) Workers' compensation B) Employment insurance program C) Loss-control program D) lost-time programs E) Employee wellness program QuestionID: 14-66 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

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Answer: E) Employee wellness program 67. Provide and describe three reasons that HR management becomes more critical than usual during periods of pandemics (2 points each).

QuestionID: 14-67 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

Answer: HR is a key player in responding to a pandemic because of many reasons. Some are listed below, but answers can vary: - Most employers continue their business operations using the existing workforce—with substantially fewer employees.

- Immediate decisions are required regarding telecommuting and working at remote worksites, compensation for absent employees, and maintenance of occupational health for employees who are working on company premises.

- HR is needed to work through details on the status of quarantined employees, compensating employees who cover for absent co-workers, responding to employee refusals to work in an unsafe environment, and business shutdown if health and safety officers declare the entire workplace to be unsafe.

- HR plays a key role in decisions around travel, communication, remote work, and other contingency plans.

68. Violence against employees at work is particularly prevalent for which of the following?

A) Men in healthcare professions B) Women in healthcare professions C) Men in education-related professions D) Women in education-related professions E) Female executives QuestionID: 14-68 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

Answer: B) Women in healthcare professions 69. Reports of workplace abuse from patients was highest amongst which group?

A) Geriatrics or long-term care B) Palliative care C) Psychiatry or mental health D) Critical care E) Emergency room QuestionID: 14-69 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

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Answer: A) Geriatrics or long-term care 70. What group of stakeholders are most likely to instigate issues that result in workplace violence?

A) Co-workers B) Managers C) Top executives D) Members of the public, such as customers or strangers E) Members of the Board of Directors QuestionID: 14-70 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

Answer: D) Members of the public, such as customers or strangers 71. A workplace violence policy should include all of the following except A) provide definitions of prohibited conduct.

B) specify consequences of violating the policy.

C) encourage reporting of violent incidents.

D) specify that all physical assaults will be reported to police.

E) a provision that minor incidents should be ignored.

QuestionID: 14-71 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

Answer: E) a provision that minor incidents should be ignored.

72. Specific to violence in the workplace, a company should identify jobs with high risk of violence, institute a workplace violence policy, and heighten security measures. a True b False QuestionID: 14-72 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

Answer: a. True 73. Most workplace violence arises from co-workers–rather than customers or strangers. a True b False QuestionID: 14-73 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

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Answer: b. False 74. The most common form of workplace violence for Canadian nurses is physical assault. a True b False QuestionID: 14-74 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

Answer: a. True 75. What are the three questions that the courts ask to determine if an employee was subject to internet harassment (1 point each question)?

QuestionID: 14-75 Objective: 14.4—Discuss at least six major employee health issues at work, and recommend how they should be handled.

Answer: 1. Did the defendant maliciously engage in communication that was outrageous in character, duration and/or extreme in degree, beyond the possible bounds of decency and tolerance?

2. Was the communication intended to cause fear, anxiety, emotional update or to call into question the decency of the plaintiff?

3. Did the plaintiff suffer from harm due to the actions of the defendant?

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Human Resources Management in Canada, 15Ce (Dessler) Chapter 15: Managing Employee Separations: Turnover, Communication, and Employee Engagement 1. Managing employee relations is usually assigned to a company's Finance Department. a True b False QuestionID: 15-01 Objective: 15.1—Define employee relations and employee engagement.

Answer: b. False 2. Define employee relations (1 point) and advise a CEO on four actions that can be taken as part of the organization's "employee relations program" to build positive employer-employee relationships (1 point each).

QuestionID: 15-02 Objective: 15.1—Define employee relations and employee engagement.

Answer: Employee relations is the activity that involves establishing and maintaining the positive employee– employer relationships that contribute to satisfactory productivity, motivation, morale, and discipline, and to maintaining a positive, productive, and cohesive work environment.

Actions that can be taken include: - Employee fair treatment programs - Improving employee relations through improved communications - Developing employee recognition and relations programs - Having fair and predictable disciplinary procedures 3. Consequences of unfair treatment in the workplace can include all of the following except A) employees feel demoralized.

B) employees feel distrustful.

C) employees' performance may be impacted.

D) employees are highly engaged.

E) employees are less productive.

QuestionID: 15-03 Objective: 15.1—Define employee relations and employee engagement.

Answer: D) employees are highly engaged.

4. Employee engagement is important because it improves job performance. a True b False QuestionID: 15-04 Objective: 15.1—Define employee relations and employee engagement.

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Answer: a. True 5. With respect to employee relations, experts generally define organizational justice in terms of which three components?

A) distributive, procedural, and interactional justice B) distributive, performance, and managerial justice C) engagement, performance, and interactional justice D) distributive, procedural, and managerial justice E) external, procedural, and interactional justice QuestionID: 15-05 Objective: 15.1—Define employee relations and employee engagement.

Answer: A) distributive, procedural, and interactional justice 6. Helena feels that her employer's method and process for deciding on pay increases is not fair; this indicates Helena's concern with which of the following components of organizational justice?

A) Allocation justice B) Distributive justice C) Interactional justice D) Procedural justice E) Pay equity justice QuestionID: 15-06 Objective: 15.1—Define employee relations and employee engagement.

Answer: D) Procedural justice 7. Concern with the fairness and justice in factors that contributed to a termination decision might violate which organization justice perception?

A) Allocation justice B) Distributive justice C) Interactional justice D) Procedural justice E) Pay equity justice QuestionID: 15-07 Objective: 15.1—Define employee relations and employee engagement.

Answer: D) Procedural justice 8. Mammoth Industries is laying off employees. It asks the manager of the Western sales division to lay off 10% of their sales agent, and the Eastern sales division to lay off 30% of their sales agents. What organization justice perception might this violate?

A) Allocation justice B) Distributive justice 2

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C) Interactional justice D) Procedural justice E) Pay equity justice QuestionID: 15-08 Objective: 15.1—Define employee relations and employee engagement.

Answer: D) Procedural justice 9. Tim feels mistreated by his manager. He made an error in completing a customer profile and his manager disrespected him by angrily criticized his work in front of his fellow workers. What organization justice perception might this violate?

A) Allocation justice B) Distributive justice C) Interactional justice D) Procedural justice E) Pay equity justice QuestionID: 15-09 Objective: 15.1—Define employee relations and employee engagement.

Answer: C) Interactional justice 10. Tim made an error in completing a customer profile and his manager disrespected him by angrily criticized the work in front of fellow workers. What organization justice perception might this violate?

A) Allocation justice B) Distributive justice C) Interactional justice D) Procedural justice E) Pay equity justice QuestionID: 15-10 Objective: 15.1—Define employee relations and employee engagement.

Answer: C) Interactional justice 11. What is the emotional and intellectual involvement of employees in their work, such as intensity, focus, and involvement known as?

A) Employee engagement B) Employee loyalty C) Employee tenure D) Employee commitment E) Employee fidelity QuestionID: 15-11 Objective: 15.1—Define employee relations and employee engagement.

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Answer: A) Employee engagement 12. Robin works in a busy hospital and rarely gets positive recognition for things that they do well or initiatives that they take to improve the workplace. This lack of feedback or recognition can have what outcome?

A) Increase organizational commitment B) Increased work disengagement C) Increased workplace initiative D) Improved productivity E) Decreased burnout QuestionID: 15-12 Objective: 15.1—Define employee relations and employee engagement.

Answer: B) Increased work disengagement 13. Research indicates that there are patterns and norms with employee engagement. Describe the three types of employee engagement (2 points each).

QuestionID: 15-13 Objective: 15.1—Define employee relations and employee engagement.

Answer: 1. Personal Role Engagement: An individual's cognitive, emotional, and physical expression of how authentic they feel at work.

2. Multidimensional Engagement: A distinct set of cognitive, emotional, and behavioural mechanisms associated with a person's role performance.

3. Work Tasks and Job Engagement: The positive state of mind that a person experiences towards their work tasks (the opposite effect of burnout).

14. The hospitality industry has an average annual turnover rate of: A) 50% B) 30% C) 20% D) 40% E) 10% QuestionID: 15-14 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: C) 20% 15. What is the formal term used for the termination of an individual's employment with an organization for any reason?

A) Firing B) Parting 4

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C) Severance D) Turnover E) Quitting QuestionID: 15-15 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: D) Turnover 16. As employees gain tenure and seniority in a company, they are likely to A) quit more.

B) quit less.

C) be fired more.

D) be laid off less.

E) turnover more.

QuestionID: 15-16 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: B) quit less.

17. Which of the following industries has the highest turnover rate in Canada?

A) Automotive B) Communications C) Financial D) Construction E) Health QuestionID: 15-17 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: D) Construction 18. Total turnover costs have been estimated at ___________ percent of the vacant position salary.

A) 50 to 70 B) 70 to 100 C) 10 to 20 D) 0 to 10 E) 150 to 250 QuestionID: 15-18 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

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Answer: E) 150 to 250 19. Diana has 5 employees in her marketing department. Their years of experience are as follows: Don is 1, Sarah is 2, Muhammad is 3, Miko is 8, and Paulo is 11. Which employee is least likely to experience turnover with Diana's company based on only their tenure?

A) Sarah B) Don C) Miko D) Paulo E) Muhammad QuestionID: 15-19 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: D) Paulo 20. Diana has 5 employees in her marketing department. Their years of experience are as follows: Don is 1, Sarah is 2, Muhammad is 3, Miko is 8, and Paulo is 11. Which employee is most likely to experience turnover with Diana's company based on only their tenure?

A) Sarah B) Don C) Miko D) Paulo E) Muhammad QuestionID: 15-20 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: B) Don 21. What are the four components associated with the cost of turnover?

A) Separation, vacancy, replacement, and training B) Vacancy, legal, separation, and training C) Replacement, separation, legal, and administrative D) Administration, overhead, operating, and human resources E) Overhead, operating, human resources, and communication QuestionID: 15-21 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: A) Separation, vacancy, replacement, and training 6

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22. Colin's company manufactures cable wire. A new employee informs Colin that he is leaving. Colin considers the costs associated with his most senior employee, Moira, who will have to show the person that replaces Colin how to run the cable process and which paperwork to fill out. Which turnover cost is Colin thinking about?

A) Severance costs B) Inherent business costs C) Interviews and testing costs D) Training costs E) Sales loss costs QuestionID: 15-22 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: D) Training costs 23. The indirect costs of turnover include the cost of posting the job, recruiting, and interviewing new candidates. a True b False QuestionID: 15-23 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: b. False 24. Ahmed is conducting the exit interviews for a group of employees who have left the company. Which turnover cost is Ahmed part of?

A) Separation B) Vacancy C) Recruitment and hiring D) Training E) Overhead QuestionID: 15-24 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: A) Separation 25. Liliana runs a personal planning and insurance company. An employee has left in the middle of RRSP season. Liliana is worried that there are too few employees to keep up with customer demand. Which cost of turnover is Liliana concerned about?

A) Separation B) Vacancy 7

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C) Replacement D) Training E) Overhead QuestionID: 15-25 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: B) Vacancy 26. Which of the following costs of turnover directly includes the cost of exit interviews and separation or severance pay?

A) Separation B) Vacancy C) Replacement D) Training E) Overhead QuestionID: 15-26 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: A) Separation 27. Umair resigns from his current employer to pursue further education; what kind of turnover is this an example of?

A) Informal B) Voluntary C) Formal D) Involuntary E) Dysfunctional QuestionID: 15-27 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: B) Voluntary 28. Research shows that the most common reason for voluntary turnover is A) poor relationship with managers.

B) employee disliked work-life balance.

C) employee sought better compensation or benefits.

D) ineffective leadership.

E) employee sought new challenges.

QuestionID: 15-28 8

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Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: E) employee sought new challenges.

29. Antoinette reviews the performance of an employee who continually produces less than the standard for her job. Antoinette informs the employee that she is fired; what kind of turnover is this an example of?

A) Informal B) Voluntary C) Formal D) Involuntary E) Dysfunctional QuestionID: 15-29 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: D) Involuntary 30. Amin runs a café. A competitor recently opened a café across the street from his location. An employee left Amin to work for the competitor. Amin was happy about this because the employee was his weakest worker; what kind of turnover is this an example of?

A) Informal B) Dysfunctional C) Poaching D) Functional E) Involuntary QuestionID: 15-30 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: D) Functional 31. Which of the following describes the situation where good performers choose to leave an organization while poor performers stay?

A) Informal turnover B) Dysfunctional turnover C) Formal turnover D) Functional turnover E) Involuntary turnover QuestionID: 15-31 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

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Answer: B) Dysfunctional turnover 32. Which of the following is an example of involuntary turnover?

A) Quitting B) Resignation C) Dismissal D) Retirement E) An employment discontinuation decision made by the employee QuestionID: 15-32 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: C) Dismissal 33. According to managers, what is the number one reason for employees engaging in voluntary turnover?

A) Lack of feedback or recognition B) Insufficient pay or unfair pay practices C) A desire to pursue personal goals D) An excessive workload E) A job opportunity QuestionID: 15-33 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: B) Insufficient pay or unfair pay practices 34. According to employees, what is the number one reason for voluntary turnover?

A) A lack of work-life balance B) A lack of trust in senior leaders C) An unhealthy or undesirable culture D) Insufficient pay or unfair pay practices E) A lack of honesty, integrity, and ethics QuestionID: 15-34 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: D) Insufficient pay or unfair pay practices 35. Factors such as globalization, technological advancements, and market pressures have resulted in A) an increase in job stability.

B) a decrease in job stability.

C) an increase in employee job tenure.

D) an increase in affective organizational commitment.

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E) a decrease in continuance organizational commitment.

QuestionID: 15-35 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: B) a decrease in job stability.

36. What was the average age of retirement in 2016 for private sector employees in Canada?

A) 59 B) 72 C) 64 D) 82 E) 55 QuestionID: 15-36 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: C) 64 37. Which of the following is a program where retirees can come back to work on a part-time or on an asneeded basis?

A) Retirees on call B) Phased retirement C) Contracting out retiring employees D) Hiring younger workers E) Information technology automation QuestionID: 15-37 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: A) Retirees on call 38. According to the Statistics Canada data, what is closest to the average life expectancy for women?

A) 93 years B) 90 years C) 83 years D) 80 years E) 75 years QuestionID: 15-38 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

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Answer: C) 83 years 39. In the early 1900s, what was the average life expectancy for women in Canada?

A) 50 years B) 70 years C) 80 years D) 40 years E) 60 years QuestionID: 15-39 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: A) 50 years 40. What was the average age of retirement for public sector employees in Canada in 2016?

A) 75 B) 71 C) 66 D) 62 E) 55 QuestionID: 15-40 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: D) 62 41. Having employees gradually reduce the number of hours that they work as they prepare to retire is known as which of the following?

A) Retirees on call B) Phased retirement C) Pre-retirement schedule D) Post-retirement schedule E) Planned employment discontinuation QuestionID: 15-41 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: B) Phased retirement 42. Anthony would like to retire but is unsure of how to assess his financial situation or what he would do in retirement. His manager hires a Retirement Consultant to speak with Anthony about transitioning into retirement; what term best describes this?

A) Preretirement strategies 12

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B) Retirement education C) Preretirement counselling D) Involuntary retirement planning E) Involuntary retirement scheduling QuestionID: 15-42 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: C) Preretirement counselling 43. Voluntary reductions in pay, voluntary time off, and work-sharing programs are alternatives a firm can use toa avoid of minimize the impact of layoffs. a True b False QuestionID: 15-43 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: a. True 44. Preretirement counselling to employees covers matters such as financial planning, relationship issues, and health issues. a True b False QuestionID: 15-44 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: a. True 45. In Canada, the public sector has lower turnover levels than the private sector. a True b False QuestionID: 15-45 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: a. True 46. In Canada, employees are forced to take mandatory retirement once they reach the age of 65. a True b False 13

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QuestionID: 15-46 Objective: 15.2—Describe forms of voluntary turnover and explain the costs associated with employee turnover.

Answer: b. False 47. Which of the following is the most severe disciplinary step that can be taken towards an employee?

A) Suspension B) Written warning C) Verbal warning D) Training and development E) Dismissal QuestionID: 15-47 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: E) Dismissal 48. Willful disregard or disobedience of the boss' authority or legitimate orders is known as which of the following?

A) Reprimanding B) Insubordination C) Wrongful conduct D) Employer sabotage E) Dismissal QuestionID: 15-48 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: B) Insubordination 49. Jennifer regularly disregards her manager's instructions. This is known as A) reprimanding.

B) insubordination.

C) wrongful conduct.

D) employer sabotage.

E) dismissal.

QuestionID: 15-49 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: B) insubordination.

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50. The most common involuntary turnover reason is: A) Downsizing or restructuring B) Company's financial instability C) Company relocation D) Poor relationship with managers E) Seeking a better fit for their skills QuestionID: 15-50 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: A) Downsizing or restructuring 51. The Wong Accounting firm has recently purchased a smaller accounting firm. As a result, they have merged two marketing departments into one and no longer need three Marketing Managers. The impending job loss will be through A) a voluntary leave.

B) a layoff.

C) full termination.

D) progressive discipline.

E) a partial termination.

QuestionID: 15-51 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: B) a layoff.

52. Richard resigned from his role as a data analyst to go back to school and pursue a graduate degree. This is referred to as A) a voluntary leave.

B) a layoff.

C) full termination.

D) progressive discipline.

E) partial termination.

QuestionID: 15-52 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: A) a voluntary leave.

53. The temporary withdrawal of employment to workers based on economic or business reasons is referred to as A) a voluntary leave.

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B) a layoff.

C) full termination.

D) progressive discipline.

E) partial termination.

QuestionID: 15-53 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: B) a layoff.

54. The intentional decision made by executives that involves a reduction of the workforce to improve efficiency or effectiveness of the organization by affecting the work process is referred to as which of the following?

A) Division of work B) Job specification C) Downsizing D) Job specialization E) Layoff analysis QuestionID: 15-54 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: C) Downsizing 55. A system of progressive penalties usually begins with warnings (verbal and written), then suspensions (paid or unpaid), and, ultimately, dismissal. a True b False QuestionID: 15-55 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: a. True 56. A layoff refers to a situation where there is a permanent shortage of work for employees and management does not intend to recall the employees when work is again available. a True b False QuestionID: 15-56 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

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Answer: b. False 57. Describe the three pillars of fair employee discipline (2 points each).

QuestionID: 15-57 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: 1. Rules and Regulations - An acceptable disciplinary process begins with a set of clear disciplinary rules and regulations. The rules should cover problems such as theft, destruction of company property, drinking on the job, and insubordination.

2. Progressive Discipline - This is a system of progressive penalties (ranging from warnings to suspension to dismissal) aimed at effectively disciplining employees. The severity of the penalty is usually a function of the type of offence and the number of times the offence has occurred.

3. Appeals Process - Third, the aim of an appeals process is to ensure that supervisors manage discipline fairly.

Often employers can mitigate the effects of unfair discipline by catching it during an appeal.

58. Without just cause, a termination without reasonable notice is considered unfair and is known as which of the following?

A) Wrongful dismissal B) Employment contract grievance C) "At will" termination D) Quasi-legal termination E) Valid termination QuestionID: 15-58 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: A) Wrongful dismissal 59. What are the laws that require an employer to notify employees in the event that the employer decides to terminate employees without just cause known as?

A) Dismissal legislation B) Involuntary turnover legislation C) Termination legislation D) Downsizing legislation E) Reasonable notice legislation QuestionID: 15-59 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: E) Reasonable notice legislation 60. The likelihood to file a wrongful dismissal claim increases if an employee feels that they were treated 17

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unfairly at the time of termination. This is known as A) the wrongful dismissal effect.

B) the vendetta effect.

C) the employee grievance effect.

D) the mismanagement revenge effect.

E) the deconstructive dismissal effect.

QuestionID: 15-60 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: B) the vendetta effect.

61. Ling was Maddie's supervisor. Ling fired Maddie due to repeated poor performance. While Maddie accepted that their job performance was consistently bad, Maddie was upset that Ling appeared frustrated and angry during the termination meeting. According to Vendetta effect, what is a likely outcome of this interaction?

A) Ling is likely to refuse to be a positive reference for Maddie in future job opportunities.

B) Maddie is likely to file a wrongful dismissal lawsuit.

C) Ling is likely to talk openly about firing Maddie to show workers what the consequences of consistently poor job performance are.

D) Coworkers are likely to improve job performance.

E) Maddie is likely to post negative comments about the company on social media.

QuestionID: 15-61 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: B) Maddie is likely to file a wrongful dismissal lawsuit.

62. The general rule for organizations to follow when providing reasonable notice beyond the legislated minimums is to provide A) no more than 3 weeks in total.

B) 3 to 4 weeks per year of employment.

C) at least 24 months.

D) 2 weeks per year of employment.

E) 6 weeks per year of employment.

QuestionID: 15-62 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: B) 3 to 4 weeks per year of employment.

63. Which of the following terms is used to describe the damages that are reserved for extreme circumstances in which the employer was untruthful, misleading, or insensitive to the employee during a dismissal meeting?

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A) Bad-faith damages B) Insubordination damages C) Termination damages D) Malicious damages E) Dismissal damages QuestionID: 15-63 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: A) Bad-faith damages 64. Which of the following terms is used to describe the damages that are reserved for malicious or outrageous cases in which an employer engages in harsh and vindictive treatment of an employee, of if the employee suffered undue distress from not being given adequate notice of termination?

A) Faithless damages B) Insubordination damages C) Termination damages D) Punitive damages E) Dismissal damages QuestionID: 15-64 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: D) Punitive damages 65. Which of the following terms is used to describe the situation whereby the employer makes unilateral changes to the employment contract that are unacceptable according to the employee, even though the employee has not been formally terminated?

A) Bad-faith damages B) Insubordination C) Constructive dismissal D) Punitive actions E) Involuntary turnover QuestionID: 15-65 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: C) Constructive dismissal 66. Required notice periods during employee separations rarely exceed 24 months. a True b False 19

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QuestionID: 15-66 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: a. True 67. In Canada employers cannot fire employees at will or as they please, whenever they want. a True b False QuestionID: 15-67 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: a. True 68. Define what insubordination is (1 point) and provide 4 examples of actions that could provide grounds for an employee's just-cause dismissal of insubordination (1 point each).

QuestionID: 15-68 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: Insubordination is the willful disregard or disobedience of the boss's authority or legitimate orders.

This generally includes: 1. Criticizing the boss in public.

2. Direct disregard of the boss's authority; refusal to obey the boss's reasonable instructions—particularly in front of others.

3. Deliberate defiance of clearly stated company policies, rules, regulations, and procedures.

4. Public criticism of the boss; contradicting or arguing with them.

5. Contemptuous display of disrespect—making insolent comments and portraying these feelings in terms of the employee's attitude on the job.

6. Disregard for the chain of command, shown by going around the immediate supervisor or manager with a complaint, suggestion, or political maneuver.

7. Participation in (or leadership of) an effort to undermine and remove the boss from power.

69. Minimum notice varies based on the size of the layoffs, with smaller layoffs determining minimum notice based on employee tenure, and mass layoffs determining minimum notice based on total layoff size.

QuestionID: 15-69 Objective: 15.3—Analyze three core legal risks associated with involuntary turnover via layoffs and explain the concepts of dismissal for just cause and progressive discipline.

Answer: 70. The interview in which an employee is informed of the fact that he or she has been dismissed is called the 20

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A) nonpunitive interview.

B) selection interview.

C) punitive interview.

D) termination interview.

E) "at will" interview.

QuestionID: 15-70 Objective: 15.4—Explain the six steps in the termination interview and describe how risks from wrongful dismissal lawsuits can be minimized.

Answer: D) termination interview.

71. In the second step of the termination interview process, the manager should A) move slowly but positively through the termination interview.

B) get to the point by informing the employee of the decision.

C) get to the point, but reassure the employee this was not the manager's decision, and that the final decision is open for discussion.

D) smile and be friendly, but also be direct and accommodating in order to ensure that the employee's opinion is considered in the final decision.

E) start with discussing the employee's positive characteristics, deliver the termination decision news, and then end with a positive comment about the employee's skillset.

QuestionID: 15-71 Objective: 15.4—Explain the six steps in the termination interview and describe how risks from wrongful dismissal lawsuits can be minimized.

Answer: B) get to the point by informing the employee of the decision.

72. In the third step of the termination interview process, the manager should A) describe the situation rather than attack the employee personally.

B) smile and be friendly, but also be direct and accommodating in order to ensure that the employee's opinion is considered in the final decision.

C) get to the point by informing the employee of the decision.

D) get to the point, but reassure the employee this was not the manager's decision, and that the final decision is open for discussion.

E) describe the situation extensively and spend a significant portion of the interview comparing the employee's performance to that of his/her colleagues.

QuestionID: 15-72 Objective: 15.4—Explain the six steps in the termination interview and describe how risks from wrongful dismissal lawsuits can be minimized.

Answer: A) describe the situation rather than attack the employee personally.

73. In the termination interview process, which of the following was the final step in that process?

A) Identify the next step 21

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B) Listen to the employee C) Review all elements of the severance package D) Describe the situation briefly E) Arrange for an outplacement counselling meeting QuestionID: 15-73 Objective: 15.4—Explain the six steps in the termination interview and describe how risks from wrongful dismissal lawsuits can be minimized.

Answer: A) Identify the next step 74. Identify the six steps to be followed in a termination interview (0.5 points per step). Describe four of the six steps identified (2 points each).

QuestionID: 15-74 Objective: 15.4—Explain the six steps in the termination interview and describe how risks from wrongful dismissal lawsuits can be minimized.

Answer: Step 1: Plan the interview.

Carefully schedule the meeting on a day early in the week, and try to avoid Fridays, pre-holidays, and vacation times. Have the employee agreement, human resources file, and release announcement (internal and external) prepared in advance. Be available at a time after the interview in case questions or problems arise, and have phone numbers ready for medical or security emergencies.

Step 2: Get to the point.

As soon as the employee arrives, give the person a moment to get comfortable and then inform them of the decision.

Step 3: Describe the situation briefly.

In three or four sentences, explain why the person is being let go. For instance, "Production in your area is down 4 percent and we are continuing to have quality problems. We have talked about these problems several times in the past three months and the solutions are not being followed through. We have to make a change." Remember to describe the situation rather than attacking the employee personally.

Step 4: Listen.

It is important to continue the interview until the person appears to be talking freely and reasonably calmly about the reasons for his or her termination and the severance package that they are to receive.

Step 5: Review all elements of the severance package.

Describe severance payments, benefits, and the way in which references will be handled. However, under no conditions should any promises or benefits beyond those already in the severance package be implied. The termination should be complete when the person leaves.

Step 6: Identify the next step.

The terminated employee may be disoriented, so explain where they should go on leaving the interview.

Remind the person whom to contact at the company regarding questions about the severance package or references.

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Human Resources Management in Canada, 15Ce (Dessler) Chapter 16: Labour Relations 1. A union is a(n)____________ recognized association of employees who share a common___________.

A) formally; employer or industry B) formally; job title C) informally; employer D) informally; industry E) informally; job title QuestionID: 16-01 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: A) formally; employer or industry 2. What is the term used to refer to the negotiations between a labour union and an employer?

A) Collective bargaining B) Constructive bargaining C) Union–management bargaining D) Worker representation bargaining E) Cooperative bargaining QuestionID: 16-02 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: A) Collective bargaining 3. Managers in firms choosing a ________ view the union as the legitimate representative of the firm's employees. Such relationships can lead to innovative initiatives and win–win outcomes.

A) union suppression approach B) union substitution approach C) reactive human resources approach D) union avoidance strategy E) union acceptance strategy QuestionID: 16-03 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: E) union acceptance strategy 4. Managers select a ________ when they believe that it is preferable to operate in a non-unionized environment.

A) union avoidance strategy B) labour relations strategy C) proactive human resources approach D) union negotiation approach 1

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E) union acceptance strategy QuestionID: 16-04 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: A) union avoidance strategy 5. Walmart closed their Quebec location when it became unionized, under the excuse that the store suddenly became unprofitable. This is an example of a(n) A) union suppression approach.

B) union substitution approach.

C) reactive human resources approach.

D) union avoidance strategy.

E) union acceptance strategy.

QuestionID: 16-05 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: A) union suppression approach.

6. Uber developed a joint working group with equal members of management and employees to address issues leading to employee dissatisfaction. This is an example of a(n) A) union suppression approach.

B) union substitution approach.

C) reactive human resources approach.

D) union avoidance strategy.

E) union acceptance strategy.

QuestionID: 16-06 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: B) union substitution approach.

7. Domtar has multiple locations in operation; some unionized and some not. A manager commented that it would be easier if they were all unionized so that there could be consistent rules for how to treat employees and that would remove time pressures on management to handle one-on-one cases. What management strategy towards unions does this represent?

A) Union suppression approach B) Union substitution approach C) Reactive human resources approach D) Union avoidance strategy E) Union acceptance strategy QuestionID: 16-07 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

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Answer: E) Union acceptance strategy 8. Which of the following terms refers to an officially recognized body representing a group of employees who have joined together to present a collective voice in dealing with management?

A) A labour union B) A collective grievance unit C) A negotiating committee D) An employee committee E) A management committee QuestionID: 16-08 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: A) A labour union 9. The process by which a formal collective bargaining agreement between labour and management is established is known as A) contract ratification.

B) collective bargaining.

C) conciliation.

D) distributive bargaining.

E) integrative negotiating.

QuestionID: 16-09 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: B) collective bargaining.

10. Being responsive to employee needs so that there is no incentive for unionization is associated with which approach to labour relations?

A) Union relations B) Union substitution C) Union suppression D) Union acceptance E) Union adherence QuestionID: 16-10 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: B) Union substitution 11. An organizing union drive begins at a bank branch and the managers wish to avoid a union at all costs; what is this approach to labour relations called?

A) A negative bargaining zone B) Union suppression C) Union substitution 3

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D) Union acceptance E) Union adherence QuestionID: 16-11 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: B) Union suppression 12. Which of the following terms refers to an organization's overall plan or approach for dealing with unions?

A) Labour relations strategy B) Bargaining unit process C) Collective agreement approach D) Labour–worker relations E) Collective bargaining protocols QuestionID: 16-12 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: A) Labour relations strategy 13. Which of the following refers to the union philosophy of obtaining economic benefits and improved treatment for union members?

A) Pre-strike activity B) Social (reform) unionism C) Information picketing D) Political unionism E) Business unionism QuestionID: 16-13 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: E) Business unionism 14. A union representative speaking out on proposed legislative reforms that will influence the working conditions of workers is most closely associated with which of the following?

A) Social (reform) unionism B) Post-strike activity C) Pre-strike activity D) Political modification E) Union collectivism QuestionID: 16-14 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: A) Social (reform) unionism 4

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15. According to surveys of managers in Canadian unionized environments, the relationship between Canadian managers and unions is generally hostile. a True b False QuestionID: 16-15 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: b. False 16. There is a belief that there is an implicit power imbalance between managers and employees, with managers having more power and control in the workplace than employees. a True b False QuestionID: 16-16 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: a. True 17. What is the relationship between employee engagement and unionization?

A) Once workers become unionized, their employee engagement levels drop.

B) Employees with more disengagement are more to support union representation in the workplace.

C) Unionization rates have no impact on employee engagement.

D) As employee engagement increases, so does unionization rates.

E) Unions prioritize employee engagement as their primary contribution metric.

QuestionID: 16-17 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: B) Employees with more disengagement are more to support union representation in the workplace.

18. The collective bargaining agreement A) is informally enforceable.

B) is applicable across all jobs and employers.

C) has no end date.

D) must be written in French and English.

E) is legally binding.

QuestionID: 16-18 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: E) is legally binding.

19. An officially recognized body representing a group of employees who have joined together to present a collective voice in dealing with management is known as a labour union.

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a True b False QuestionID: 16-19 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: a. True 20. Which of the following is the most restrictive form of union security whereby only union members in good standing may be hired by the employer?

A) Secure shop B) Preventive shop C) Union shop D) Approved shop E) Closed shop QuestionID: 16-20 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: E) Closed shop 21. Almira gets a fall job as a teaching assistant with one of her HR professors. She does not necessarily want to be part of a union, as she sees this job as temporary and part-time, but the job still requires her to pay union fees. What is this an example of?

A) Maintenance-of-membership B) Closed shop C) The Rand formula D) Union shop E) Membership formula QuestionID: 16-21 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: C) The Rand formula 22. What type of union arrangement specifies that new hires are required to join the union on the day that they either commence work or complete probation?

A) Maintenance-of-membership B) Closed shop C) The Rand formula D) Union shop E) Membership formula QuestionID: 16-22 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

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Answer: D) Union shop 23. Which type of union arrangement does not require union membership but does require that all members of the bargaining unit pay union dues?

A) Open shop B) Union shop C) Closed shop D) Rand formula E) Maintenance-of-membership QuestionID: 16-23 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: D) Rand formula 24. The decision to accept or avoid unions is the basis of an organization's labour relations strategy. a True b False QuestionID: 16-24 Objective: 16.1—Discuss why employees unionize and the concept of union security.

Answer: a. True 25. Which of the following is true regarding labour relations legislation across Canada?

A) Collective agreements must be in force for a minimum of two years.

B) Disputes over matters arising from the interpretation of a collective agreement are only settled through conciliation.

C) Procedures are in place for the certification of a union.

D) Labour relations boards are comprised only of union representatives.

E) Strikes or lockouts are allowed during the life of a collective agreement.

QuestionID: 16-25 Objective: 16.2—Explain three trends in the labour movement in Canada and describe the purpose of Canadian labour laws.

Answer: C) Procedures are in place for the certification of a union.

26. What is a labour organization of persons performing a specific type of skill or trade called?

A) A manual labour union B) An operator's union C) A craft union D) A skilled-workers union E) An industrial union QuestionID: 16-26 7

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Objective: 16.2—Explain three trends in the labour movement in Canada and describe the purpose of Canadian labour laws.

Answer: C) A craft union 27. A(n)_______________is a labour organization comprising all workers eligible for union membership in a particular company or industry, irrespective of the type of work performed.

A) craft union B) industrial union C) district labour council D) company union E) local labour council QuestionID: 16-27 Objective: 16.2—Explain three trends in the labour movement in Canada and describe the purpose of Canadian labour laws.

Answer: B) industrial union 28. A labour union with branches and members in both Canada and the United States, the Head Office in the United States, is known as A) a member of International Unionism Group.

B) a Canada–US Union Group.

C) a North American Union Group.

D) an international union.

E) a continental union.

QuestionID: 16-28 Objective: 16.2—Explain three trends in the labour movement in Canada and describe the purpose of Canadian labour laws.

Answer: D) an international union.

29. Which of the following statements best describes how the American Federation of Labour and Congress of Industrial Organizations (AFL–CIO) and Canadian Labour Congress (CLC) are related?

A) The AFL–CIO is the major central labour organization in Canada the CLC belongs to the United States.

B) The purpose of the CLC is social reform and it governs the specific terms and conditions of the AFL– CIO. C) The AFL–CIO and CLC operate independently in Canada.

D) Most international unions in the CLC are also members of the AFL–CIO. E) The provincial, local, and district labour councils in Canada belong to the AFL–CIO but not the CLC. QuestionID: 16-29 Objective: 16.2—Explain three trends in the labour movement in Canada and describe the purpose of Canadian labour laws.

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Answer: D) Most international unions in the CLC are also members of the AFL–CIO. 30. The Confederation of National Trade Unions is the A) largest chartered local union in the Canadian Labour Congress.

B) Quebec counterpart of the Canadian Labour Congress.

C) American counterpart of the Canadian Labour Congress.

D) parent union of the Canadian Labour Congress.

E) parent union of the Ontario Federation of Labour.

QuestionID: 16-30 Objective: 16.2—Explain three trends in the labour movement in Canada and describe the purpose of Canadian labour laws.

Answer: B) Quebec counterpart of the Canadian Labour Congress.

31. Tn elected union official who is responsible for representing the interests of bargaining unit employees in their department or area is called a(n) A) management steward.

B) union steward.

C) elected steward.

D) grievance steward.

E) employee steward.

QuestionID: 16-31 Objective: 16.2—Explain three trends in the labour movement in Canada and describe the purpose of Canadian labour laws.

Answer: B) union steward.

32. A group of unionized employees in a particular area (representing the basic or lowest level union unit that the employee belongs to) is referred to as A) a department.

B) a local.

C) the labour force.

D) the negotiation unit.

E) a steward.

QuestionID: 16-32 Objective: 16.2—Explain three trends in the labour movement in Canada and describe the purpose of Canadian labour laws.

Answer: B) a local.

33. Managers are permitted to interfere with and discriminate against employees who are exercising their rights under labour relations legislation. a True 9

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b False QuestionID: 16-33 Objective: 16.2—Explain three trends in the labour movement in Canada and describe the purpose of Canadian labour laws.

Answer: b. False 34. Canadian labour laws have two general purposes, which are A) balancing the rights of the public stakeholders and protecting public welfare at all costs.

B) protecting union rights and management rights to ensure that both sides have a fair and equitable chance at achieving their negotiation goals.

C) providing a common set of rules for fair negotiations and protecting public interest.

D) specifying management rights and union rights to ensure that both sides have a fair and equitable chance at achieving their collective bargaining goals.

E) ensuring the right to unionize for all workers regardless of public responsibility and facilitating the choice to remain union-free for all employers regardless of public responsibility.

QuestionID: 16-34 Objective: 16.2—Explain three trends in the labour movement in Canada and describe the purpose of Canadian labour laws.

Answer: C) providing a common set of rules for fair negotiations and protecting public interest.

35. Roughly what percentage of the Canadian workforce is unionized?

A) 10% B) 20% C) 40% D) 30% E) 60% QuestionID: 16-35 Objective: 16.2—Explain three trends in the labour movement in Canada and describe the purpose of Canadian labour laws.

Answer: D) 30% 36. Unionization rates have been relatively stable in Canada in the last 2 decades. a True b False QuestionID: 16-36 Objective: 16.2—Explain three trends in the labour movement in Canada and describe the purpose of Canadian labour laws.

Answer: a. True 10

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37. The right to ________ is legally mandated for workers who are not permitted to strike, such as hospital employees.

A) mediation–arbitration B) rights arbitration C) collective arbitration D) conciliation arbitration E) interest arbitration QuestionID: 16-37 Objective: 16.2—Explain three trends in the labour movement in Canada and describe the purpose of Canadian labour laws.

Answer: E) interest arbitration 38. When expectations of work and work experience are in conflict, the desire to join a union is often triggered.

This reason for joining a union is referred to as A) a dissonance-based reason.

B) a utility-based reason.

C) a political/ideological reason.

D) a grievance reason.

E) a career planning reason.

QuestionID: 16-38 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: A) a dissonance-based reason.

39. Maria joins the union after calculating that with the union she will increase her net pay from the company by 4% after union dues compared with the 2% per year increase that she has been receiving. What is Maria's reason for joining the union called?

A) A dissonance-based reason B) A utility-based reason C) A political/ideological reason D) A grievance reason E) A career planning reason QuestionID: 16-39 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: B) A utility-based reason 40. Fabri values environmental and green initiatives. He wants to join a company that has a union that advances and advocates for environmentally friendly practices. What is Fabri's reason for joining the union called?

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A) A dissonance-based reason B) A utility-based reason C) A political/ideological reason D) A grievance reason E) A career planning reason QuestionID: 16-40 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: C) A political/ideological reason 41. Under the law, which of the following is the employer permitted to do?

A) Decrease the wages of the employees who are involved in the union organizing drive B) Give bonuses to employees who are leading the campaign to counteract the union organizing drive C) Terminate any employees who express positive sentiments regarding the union organizing drive for just cause D) Force employees to attend a meeting outside working hours in order to state the company's position regarding the union organizing campaign E) Forbid the distribution of union literature on company property QuestionID: 16-41 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: E) Forbid the distribution of union literature on company property 42. Large unions have a number of ________ on staff who are responsible for identifying organizing opportunities and launching organizing campaigns.

A) union organizers B) regional representatives C) chief stewards D) bargaining delegates E) labour representatives QuestionID: 16-42 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: A) union organizers 43. The group of employees working towards unionization and willing to assist the union organizer are called the A) in-house organizing committee.

B) union organizer committee.

C) regional representative committee.

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D) union steward committee.

E) labour–management committee.

QuestionID: 16-43 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: A) in-house organizing committee.

44. Which of the following is an alternative mechanism for certification used in situations where there is evidence of irregularities early in an organizing campaign, such as unfair management practices?

A) Voluntary recognition B) Arbitrated certification C) A representation vote D) A pre-hearing vote E) Automatic decertification QuestionID: 16-44 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: D) A pre-hearing vote 45. Which of the following is the term used to describe the process whereby a union is legally deprived of its official recognition as the exclusive bargaining agent for a group of employees?

A) De-unionization B) Union termination C) Decertification D) Collective disbursement E) Management unification QuestionID: 16-45 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: C) Decertification 46. In a ski resort, there was high turnover last year, with almost 60% new hires. The general sentiment towards the union was that it was unnecessary, so employees felt that they had no benefit from being part of a union.

What can the employees apply for to eliminate union recognition in the workplace?

A) De-unionization B) Union termination C) Decertification D) Collective disbursement E) Management unification 13

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QuestionID: 16-46 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: C) Decertification 47. Janine is asked to sign a card that will indicate her willingness to be represented by the union in collective bargaining with the employer; what is this card called?

A) An authorization card B) A union card C) A collective bargaining card D) An approval card E) A representation card QuestionID: 16-47 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: A) An authorization card 48. Jennifer is part of a union team negotiating with management for a new collective bargaining agreement.

Jennifer and her bargaining team meet in a separate room to discuss how they should respond to management's offer; what is this meeting called?

A) A bargaining conference B) A rebuttal forum C) A closed hearing D) A caucus session E) A steward assembly QuestionID: 16-48 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: D) A caucus session 49. Which of the following is the term used to describe the common area between management's position and unions position on a topic, in which compromise is possible to achieve a settlement that is agreeable to both parties?

A) Distributive range B) Mutual gains range C) Common interest zone D) Bargaining zone E) Integrative range QuestionID: 16-49 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, 14

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conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: D) Bargaining zone 50. Which of the following represents the bargaining zone between Union and Management?

A) Union's resistance point and Management's target point B) Management's resistance point and Union's resistance point C) Union's target point and Management's target point D) Management's resistance point and Management's target point E) Management's resistance point and Union's target point QuestionID: 16-50 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: B) Management's resistance point and Union's resistance point 51. Which of the following terms is used to describe the bargaining strategy often typified as "win-lose"?

A) Concessionary bargaining B) Productivity bargaining C) Interest-based bargaining D) Distributive bargaining E) Integrative bargaining QuestionID: 16-51 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: D) Distributive bargaining 52. Which bargaining approach is often used when there is a history of distrust and adversarial relations?

A) Distributive bargaining B) Productivity bargaining C) Concessionary bargaining D) Mutual gains bargaining E) Integrative bargaining QuestionID: 16-52 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: A) Distributive bargaining 53. Which type of bargaining is characterized by three distinct components: the initial point, the target point, and the resistance point?

A) Concessionary bargaining 15

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B) Productivity bargaining C) Mutual gains bargaining D) Conciliatory bargaining E) Distributive bargaining QuestionID: 16-53 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: E) Distributive bargaining 54. Which bargaining strategy requires that both management and union negotiators adopt genuine interest in the joint exploration of creative solutions to common problems?

A) Integrative bargaining B) Arbitrative bargaining C) Concessionary bargaining D) Distributive bargaining E) Conciliatory bargaining QuestionID: 16-54 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: A) Integrative bargaining 55. Wage rates and vacation entitlements are more likely to be fixed-sum issues that are typically handled by a(n) ________ approach.

A) productivity B) concessionary C) interest-based D) distributive E) mutual gains QuestionID: 16-55 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: D) distributive 56. The objective of ________ bargaining is to establish a creative negotiating relationship that benefits labour and management.

A) productivity B) integrative C) conciliatory D) distributive E) concessionary 16

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QuestionID: 16-56 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: B) integrative 57. Which of the following involves key union and management negotiators being trained in the fundamentals of effective problem solving and conflict resolution?

A) Productivity bargaining B) Conciliatory bargaining C) Union acceptance bargaining D) Mutual gains (interest-based) bargaining E) Distributive bargaining QuestionID: 16-57 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: D) Mutual gains (interest-based) bargaining 58. Shivangi was unable to negotiate the desired increase in wages for the bargaining unit members of the union. However, she was able to negotiate improved working conditions and benefits as well as flexible working hours. Shivangi feels that the bargaining unit members will be satisfied with the agreement and the union calls for a secret-ballot vote to formally approve the negotiated agreement; what is this formal approval called?

A) Approval B) Consent C) Authorization D) Ratification E) Endorsement QuestionID: 16-58 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: D) Ratification 59. What is the memorandum of settlement?

A) Management's agreement to bargain with the union in good faith B) A summary of the terms and conditions agreed to by the parties C) A proposal for negotiation that is imposed by a governmental authority D) The signed collective agreement that is ratified by both parties as well as their constituents E) The union's agreement to bargain with management in good faith QuestionID: 16-59 17

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Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: B) A summary of the terms and conditions agreed to by the parties 60. _____________ is a neutral third party whose primary purpose is to bring the parties together and keep them talking without providing direct input on the negotiation process.

A) Arbitration B) Intercession C) Mediation D) Conciliation E) Intervention QuestionID: 16-60 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: D) Conciliation 61. Unionized employees at a company learn that management is eliminating bonuses and spontaneously go on strike without waiting for union leaders to address this situation; what is this type of strike called?

A) A wildcat strike B) A membership strike C) An unsolicited strike D) An independent strike E) A lockout strike QuestionID: 16-61 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: A) A wildcat strike 62. All Canadian jurisdictions permit the inclusion of a(n) ________ clause in the collective agreement to protect labour union interest by specifying aspects like membership requirements and the payment of union dues.

A) union recognition B) union rights C) union security D) bargaining unit descriptor E) union exclusivity QuestionID: 16-62 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

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Answer: C) union security 63. Which of the following refers to the process involved in settling a rights dispute?

A) Binding mediation B) Interest arbitration C) Final conciliation D) Rights arbitration E) Dispute grievance QuestionID: 16-63 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: D) Rights arbitration 64. The actual settlement range in contract negotiations generally lies in the bargaining zone, between the resistance points of each side. a True b False QuestionID: 16-64 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: a. True 65. Integrative bargaining is an approach that assumes that a win–win solution will always be the outcome of contract negotiations. a True b False QuestionID: 16-65 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: b. False 66. It is illegal to call a strike during the term of an existing collective agreement. a True b False QuestionID: 16-66 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: a. True 19

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67. A closed shop provision is a common type of security clause in the construction industry. a True b False QuestionID: 16-67 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: a. True 68. The final step in collective bargaining is A) negotiation.

B) ratification.

C) a strike.

D) organizing.

E) drafting a memorandum of understanding.

QuestionID: 16-68 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: B) ratification.

69. Conciliation involves A) the union and management.

B) the union, management and a neutral third party.

C) a third party only.

D) management and a neutral third party only.

E) the union and a neutral third party only.

QuestionID: 16-69 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: B) the union, management and a neutral third party.

70. The aim of conciliation is to try to help the parties avoid the hardship of a strike or lockout. a True b False QuestionID: 16-70 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: a. True 20

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71. When talks are reaching an impasse, unions will often hold a strike vote. a True b False QuestionID: 16-71 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: a. True 72. A ________ occurs when a union asks its members, other union members, the employer's customers or clients, and supporters in the public not to patronize the business involved in the labour dispute.

A) strike B) boycott C) strike vote D) lockout E) picket QuestionID: 16-72 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: B) boycott 73. A lockout involves the employer prohibiting the bargaining unit employees from entering the company premises to pressure the union to agree to the terms and conditions being offered by management. a True b False QuestionID: 16-73 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: a. True 74. Identify the five steps of the labour relations process (1 point each). Describe three of the five steps identified (2 points each).

QuestionID: 16-74 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: Step 1: Desire for Collective Representation - Individuals may choose to join unions for dissonance based, utility-based, or political and ideological based reasons. However, research studies have made it clear that dissatisfaction alone will not lead to unionization. More important seems to be the employees' belief that it 21

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is only through unity that they can protect themselves from the arbitrary whims of management. In other words, it is only when workers are dissatisfied and believe that, except through collective action, they are without the ability to change the factors causing dissatisfaction that they become interested in unionizing.

Step 2: Union Organizing Campaign - Once interest in joining a union has been aroused, the union organizing process begins. There are five steps typically involved in this process; employee/union contact; initial organizational meeting; formation of an in-house organizing committee, the organizing campaign, and the outcome.

Step 3: Union Recognition - A union can obtain recognition as a bargaining unit for a group of workers in three basic ways: (1) voluntary recognition, (2) the regular certification process, and (3) a prehearing vote. Bargaining rights can also be terminated in various ways.

Step 4: Collective Bargaining - Collective bargaining is the process by which a formal collective agreement is established between labour and management. The collective agreement is the cornerstone of the Canadian LR system. Both union and management representatives are required to bargain in good faith. This means that they must communicate and negotiate, that proposals must be matched with counterproposals, and that both parties must make every reasonable effort to arrive at an agreement.

Step 5: Contract Administration - After a collective agreement has been negotiated and signed, the contract administration process begins. Both union and management are required to abide by the contract provisions. It is also in day-to-day contract administration that the bulk of labour–management relations occurs. Regardless of the amount of time and effort put into the wording of the contract, it is almost inevitable that differences of opinion will arise regarding the application and interpretation of the agreement. Seniority and discipline issues tend to be the major sources of disagreement between union and management.

75. The Canadian Auto Workers have just unionized Jaime's company. None of the supervisors has worked in a unionized company before and Jaime must outline the grievance procedure for the supervisors. Provide an outline of the steps in the grievance procedure for Jaime to use (2 points for each step).

QuestionID: 16-75 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: See Figure 16.5 on page 374 of the textbook for the outline of a typical grievance procedure.

1. Employee prepares written grievance with aid of union steward; grievance is presented to employee's supervisor for decision.

2. If the problem is not resolved to the satisfaction of the employee at the first step, they may then take the problem to the next higher managerial level designated in the contract. Grievance is discussed by HRM professional, labour relations specialist, grievor, and union steward.

3. Grievance is taken forward to senior management, senior labour relations specialist and top union officials for discussion.

4. Grievance is submitted to arbitration; arbitrator hears evidence and renders decision. This is a final and binding arbitration.

76. Peter owns a large giftware distribution company with his wife, Mary. Mary informs Peter that some employees are actively seeking support to form a union. Explain one way in which Peter and Mary should respond to this if they would prefer to maintain a non-unionized organization (2 points) and describe three actions they can legally take during the union campaign (2 points each).

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QuestionID: 16-76 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: Peter and Mary should give as much information about the union as possible pertaining to dues, strike record, salaries of officers, and any other relevant facts that might cause employees to question the benefits of unionization.

Peter and Mary may also plan communication strategies with the aim of reminding employees about the company's good points, pointing out disadvantages of unionization, and refuting any misleading union claims.

The employer's case for remaining non-union should be presented in a factual, honest, and straightforward manner.

Under the law, employers are granted the right to do the following: - Express their views and opinions regarding unions.

- State their position regarding the desirability of remaining non-unionized.

- Prohibit distribution of union literature on company property on company time.

- Increase wages, make promotions, and take other HR actions, as long as they would do so in the normal course of business; in most jurisdictions, however, once an application for certification is received by the LRB, wages, benefits, and working conditions are frozen until the application is dealt with.

- Assemble employees during working hours to state the company's position, as long as employees are advised of the purpose of the meeting in advance, attendance is optional, and threats and promises are avoided (employers have no obligation to give the union the same opportunity).

77. How can an employer tell if employees might be planning to become unionized? Indicate five signs of organizing activity (1 point each).

QuestionID: 16-77 Objective: 16.3—Outline the five steps in the labour relations process, including organizing the campaign, conducting collective bargaining, and establishing grievance procedures.

Answer: See Table 16.2 on page 364 of the textbook.

- Low employee morale - Increased complaints - Increased questions about policies, wages, and benefits - Employees huddle frequently, but become silent around supervisors - Heated discussions and the development of new relationships - Sudden shifts in specific employees' popularity - New vocabulary emerges - Prolonged meal and rest breaks - Increased employee congregation after hours - Increased exchange of paperwork among employees

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Human Resources Management in Canada, 15Ce (Dessler) Chapter 17: Managing Human Resources in a Global Business 1. Explain two challenges that an organization operating in different countries might face in managing HR globally (1 point each) and how an organization could overcome each challenge (2 point).

QuestionID: 17-01 Objective: 17.1—Describe the influence of intercountry differences on the workplace.

Answer: What works in one country may not work in another. The employer faces an array of political, social, legal, and cultural differences among countries and people abroad (each of these are detailed in the text). This include acquiring, training, appraising, and compensating employees, and attending to their labour relations, health and safety, and fairness concerns. International HR managers address questions such as "What steps can we take to support the company's global strategy?" "What's the best way for us to pay our expatriate employees?" and "How can we best staff our assignments abroad with global leaders?"

Workforce mobility problems focus on effectively managing the recruitment, relocation, and retention of employees who complete work-related tasks and activities outside of the core or primary head office or region of the company.

A company that is operating multiple units abroad has multiple laws to consider, no formal requirements for employee participation vary, the need for tight security and terrorism awareness training for employees sent to countries with an increased risk of kidnapping of foreign executives.

Employers should therefore rely on international human resource management to effectively support a company's global strategy and to deal with global HR challenges like these.

2. Keri is Canadian citizen working for a Canadian brewery. She is sent to Japan to expand the brewery's market. What is the formal term for Keri given her location of work and her citizenship?

A) Deportee B) Exiled C) Settler D) Expatriate E) Refugee QuestionID: 17-02 Objective: 17.1—Describe the influence of intercountry differences on the workplace.

Answer: D) Expatriate 3. Nigel is a person legally residing in Canada who was born outside of Canada; what is the term used to describe Nigel with respect to working in Canada?

A) Deportee B) Immigrant C) Exiled foreigner D) Settler E) Refugee QuestionID: 17-03 1

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Objective: 17.4—Discuss challenges immigrants to Canada face and identify the role of multiple stakeholders in ensuring successful integration of talent in Canada.

Answer: B) Immigrant 4. Eli works for Statistics Canada out of the Ottawa office. He is sent to New York (USA) to work for 3 years.

He would be considered a(n) A) deportee.

B) immigrant.

C) emigrant.

D) expatriate.

E) refugee.

QuestionID: 17-04 Objective: 17.1—Describe the influence of intercountry differences on the workplace.

Answer: D) expatriate.

5. What is the formal term for people legally residing in Canada who were born outside of Canada (excluding temporary foreign workers, Canadian citizens born outside of Canada, and those with student or work visas)?

A) Deportee B) Immigrant C) Emigrant D) Expatriate E) Refugee QuestionID: 17-05 Objective: 17.4—Discuss challenges immigrants to Canada face and identify the role of multiple stakeholders in ensuring successful integration of talent in Canada.

Answer: B) Immigrant 6. Stacy moved from Banff, Canada to London, England with her accounting firm (Canadian Accounting Experts Inc.). Based on this information, Stacy can be referred to as a(n) A) expatriate.

B) domestic employee.

C) exchange student.

D) supervisor.

E) union steward.

QuestionID: 17-06 Objective: 17.1—Describe the influence of intercountry differences on the workplace.

Answer: A) expatriate.

7. Which type of program focuses on managing the recruitment, relocation, and retention of employees who 2

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complete work-related tasks and activities outside of the core or primary head office or region of the company?

A) Nomad recruitment program B) Divergence programs C) Workforce mobility program D) Remote evaluation program E) Human capital fulfillment program QuestionID: 17-07 Objective: 17.1—Describe the influence of intercountry differences on the workplace.

Answer: C) Workforce mobility program 8. Research shows that making workforce mobility management a strategic priority and managing mobility programs in a more integrated way can improve corporate profitability by what percent?

A) 150% to 204% B) 100% to 124% C) 50% to 74% D) 25% to 34% E) 1% to 4% QuestionID: 17-08 Objective: 17.1—Describe the influence of intercountry differences on the workplace.

Answer: E) 1% to 4% 9. Expatriates are citizens of the country where the parent company is based, who are sent to work for that company in another country. a True b False QuestionID: 17-09 Objective: 17.1—Describe the influence of intercountry differences on the workplace.

Answer: a. True 10. Global workforce mobility is enabled by all of the following except A) technological advancements.

B) globalization.

C) tight labour markets.

D) customer demands.

E) domestic needs.

QuestionID: 17-10 Objective: 17.1—Describe the influence of intercountry differences on the workplace.

Answer: E) domestic needs.

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11. In Canada, most of the labour force growth over the last decade has been attributable to immigration. a True b False QuestionID: 17-11 Objective: 17.1—Describe the influence of intercountry differences on the workplace.

Answer: a. True 12. An entry level worker believes that members of management have more power over workplace decisions than an entry level worker does. What cultural factor is this an example of?

A) Power distance B) Persuasion factor C) Need for power D) Power suspicion E) Power distinction QuestionID: 17-12 Objective: 17.1—Describe the influence of intercountry differences on the workplace.

Answer: A) Power distance 13. Hamid believes that all members of the work team should have equal opportunity to speak and be heard, thus decision making should be democratic. What cultural factor is this an example of?

A) Power distance B) Persuasion factor C) Need for power D) Power suspicion E) Power distinction QuestionID: 17-13 Objective: 17.1—Describe the influence of intercountry differences on the workplace.

Answer: A) Power distance 14. What is the formal term that is used to describe the degree to which ties between people are normally close or loose?

A) Individualism vs. collectivism B) Group vs. team C) Socialism vs. Marxism D) Communalism vs. egoism E) Communism vs. capitalism QuestionID: 17-14 Objective: 17.1—Describe the influence of intercountry differences on the workplace.

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Answer: A) Individualism vs. collectivism 15. In some cultures, it is normally expected that work colleagues are friends outside of work, often intermingling their spouse and other family members with the families of coworkers. What cultural factor is this an example of?

A) Individualism vs. collectivism B) Group vs. team C) Socialism vs. Marxism D) Communalism vs. egoism E) Communism vs. capitalism QuestionID: 17-15 Objective: 17.1—Describe the influence of intercountry differences on the workplace.

Answer: A) Individualism vs. collectivism 16. What is the cultural dimension used to describe countries where people tend to look out for themselves?

A) Collectivism B) Egoism C) Individualism D) Socialism E) Communalism QuestionID: 17-16 Objective: 17.1—Describe the influence of intercountry differences on the workplace.

Answer: C) Individualism 17. Although team incentives exist, Johanna prefers that her work be recognized independently, outside of the team output. What cultural factor is this an example of?

A) Collectivism B) Egoism C) Individualism D) Socialism E) Communalism QuestionID: 17-17 Objective: 17.1—Describe the influence of intercountry differences on the workplace.

Answer: C) Individualism 18. What is the cultural dimension used to describe countries where people tend to link their individual identity to their extended family group or even to their work group?

A) Collectivism B) Egoism 5

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C) Individualism D) Socialism E) Communalism QuestionID: 17-18 Objective: 17.1—Describe the influence of intercountry differences on the workplace.

Answer: A) Collectivism 19. In more socialist systems, HR practices tend to shift toward preventing unemployment, even at the expense of which of the following?

A) Work-life balance B) Enhancing personal relationships C) Efficiency D) Enhancing social relationships E) Workplace culture QuestionID: 17-19 Objective: 17.1—Describe the influence of intercountry differences on the workplace.

Answer: C) Efficiency 20. The cost of doing business abroad should be based on the wage differences between the countries. a True b False QuestionID: 17-20 Objective: 17.1—Describe the influence of intercountry differences on the workplace.

Answer: b. False 21. ______________ describes the process whereby employees have the legal right to a voice in setting company policies.

A) Cooperative planning B) Codetermination C) Joint strategic setting D) Participatory goal setting E) Communal rule setting QuestionID: 17-21 Objective: 17.1—Describe the influence of intercountry differences on the workplace.

Answer: B) Codetermination 22. Differences in cultural factors help to explain why incentive plans vary between teamwork based and individual worker based.

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a True b False QuestionID: 17-22 Objective: 17.1—Describe the influence of intercountry differences on the workplace.

Answer: a. True 23. What is the number one reason why many employees are reluctant to accept expatriate assignments?

A) Cost projections B) Candidate assessment C) Relocation assistance D) Family issues E) Candidate selection QuestionID: 17-23 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: D) Family issues 24. What is the formal term used to describe employees who continuously move from country to country on multiple assignments?

A) Global wanderers B) Workforce wanderers C) Workforce transients D) Global nomads E) Transitional employees QuestionID: 17-24 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: D) Global nomads 25. What is the average cost of sending an employee and their family on an overseas assignment relative to the employee's pre-departure salary?

A) 1 to 2 times the pre-departure salary B) 3 to 5 times the pre-departure salary C) 6 to 7 times the pre-departure salary D) 8 to 10 times the pre-departure salary E) 11 to 12 times the pre-departure salary QuestionID: 17-25 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

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Answer: B) 3 to 5 times the pre-departure salary 26. _________ compensate employees for difficult living and working conditions.

A) Assignment letters B) Mobility premiums C) Variable pay rates D) Hardship allowances E) Base pay rates QuestionID: 17-26 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: D) Hardship allowances 27. _________ are typically lump-sum payments to reward employees for moving from one assignment to another.

A) Assignment letters B) Mobility premiums C) Variable pay rates D) Hardship allowances E) Base pay rates QuestionID: 17-27 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: B) Mobility premiums 28. The ___________ contains the expatriate's specific job requirements and remuneration, vacation, home leave, and repatriation agreement.

A) immigration agreement B) foreign work agreement C) emigrant bond D) assignment letter E) project dispatch QuestionID: 17-28 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: D) assignment letter 29. Demographically, expatriates tend to be mostly A) male with a working spouse.

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B) male with a non-working spouse.

C) female with a working spouse.

D) female with a non-working spouse.

E) male or female a working spouse.

QuestionID: 17-29 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: B) male with a non-working spouse.

30. Which of the following terms is used to formally describe the early return from an expatriate assignment?

A) Failure to recover expatriation investments B) Expatriate loss C) Incompletion of expatriate work D) Re-assimilating the expatriate E) Expatriate assignment failure QuestionID: 17-30 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: E) Expatriate assignment failure 31. Globally, the most likely destination for expatriates (regardless of their country) is A) the United States.

B) Mexico.

C) Singapore.

D) Russia.

E) China.

QuestionID: 17-31 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: E) China.

32. In Canada, there has been a trend toward A) permanent relocation instead of long-term global assignments.

B) permanent relations instead of short-term global assignments.

C) medium-term global assignments instead of permanent relocations.

D) short-term global assignments instead of permanent relocations.

E) long-term global assignments instead of permanent relocations.

QuestionID: 17-32 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation 9

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planning.

Answer: D) short-term global assignments instead of permanent relocations.

33. One of the reasons Canadian executives are in demand across the globe is because A) Canada's living standards are relatively low compared with many European countries and the United States.

B) Canadians are widely perceived as polite and able to get along well with others, which directly translates into improved organizational profitability.

C) Canadian business schools produce managers who are among the very best in the world, as demonstrated in multiple large-scale international studies.

D) Canada's diverse ethnic makeup has produced a generation of business leaders who mix easily with different cultures.

E) Canadian executives come from similar backgrounds, with similar demographics and this uniformity helps them succeed globally.

QuestionID: 17-33 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: D) Canada's diverse ethnic makeup has produced a generation of business leaders who mix easily with different cultures.

34. The number of expatriates working abroad decreased in the last 10 years. a True b False QuestionID: 17-34 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: b. False 35. What are the three international staffing policies?

A) Geocentric, ecocentric, and unicentric B) Unicentric, polycentric, and biocentric C) Polycentric, biocentric, and geocentric D) Ethnocentric, unicentric, and multicentric E) Ethnocentric, polycentric, and geocentric QuestionID: 17-35 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: E) Ethnocentric, polycentric, and geocentric

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36. A corporation where the prevailing attitude is that the home-country managers are superior to those in the host country, thus all key management positions are to be filled by parent-country nationals, has which global staffing policy?

A) Ethnocentric B) Geocentric C) Unicentric D) Polycentric E) Multicentric QuestionID: 17-36 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: A) Ethnocentric 37. Which global staffing policy would a corporation adopt if the belief was that only host-country managers can ever really understand the culture and behaviour of the host-country market?

A) Unicentric B) Multicentric C) Geocentric D) Polycentric E) Ethnocentric QuestionID: 17-37 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: D) Polycentric 38. Which global staffing policy would a corporation adopt if the belief was that the best manager for any specific position anywhere on the globe may be found in any of the countries in which the firm operates?

A) Ethnocentric B) Unicentric C) Multicentric D) Geocentric E) Polycentric QuestionID: 17-38 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: D) Geocentric 39. The citizens of a country who have jobs in their home country are referred to as which of the following?

A) Expatriates B) Locals 11

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C) Immigrants D) Third-country nationals E) Emigrants QuestionID: 17-39 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: B) Locals 40. A British executive working in a Tokyo subsidiary of a Canadian multinational bank would be referred to as which of the following?

A) Inpatriate B) Local C) Repatriate D) Third-country national E) Settler QuestionID: 17-40 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: D) Third-country national 41. Most managerial positions in both headquarters and foreign subsidiaries are filled by which of the following?

A) Third-country nationals B) Expatriates C) Repatriates D) Locals E) Emigrants QuestionID: 17-41 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: D) Locals 42. Identify two alternatives an organization might choose, instead of using expats (1 point each). Describe one of the alternatives identified (2 points).

QuestionID: 17-42 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: Offshoring - An alternative to using expats. This involves moving business processes such as 12

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manufacturing or call-centre operations abroad, and thus having local employees abroad do jobs that the firm's domestic employees previously did in-house.

Global Virtual Teams - Global virtual teams are groups of geographically dispersed and generally same-level co-workers who meet and interact using information technologies to accomplish an organizational task 43. Ventura Management Consulting operates out of Montreal, Quebec. They recently moved their call centre operations to Abuja, Nigeria. This is an example of A) third-country nationals.

B) expatriation.

C) repatriation.

D) emigration.

E) offshoring.

QuestionID: 17-43 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: D) emigration.

44. When planning offshoring, all workers are recognized formally as 'employees' of the parent company. a True b False QuestionID: 17-44 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: b. False 45. Global virtual teams are groups of geographically ________ employees who have ________ levels in the organization.

A) different; different B) similar; similar C) similar; different D) different; similar E) similar; non-comparable QuestionID: 17-45 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: D) different; similar 46. A benefit of working in a virtual team over a face-to-face team is a A) reduced likelihood of burnout.

B) ease in building trust.

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C) diversity of ideas.

D) lower team isolation levels.

E) labour surplus.

QuestionID: 17-46 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: C) diversity of ideas.

47. What is the major reason for using expatriates (either parent-country or third-country nationals) for staffing subsidiary operations?

A) Many people prefer not to work in a foreign country.

B) The cost of using expatriates is far greater than the cost of using local management talent.

C) The multinational corporation may be viewed locally as a "better citizen."

D) Expatriates may overemphasize short-term projects.

E) Technical competence.

QuestionID: 17-47 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: E) Technical competence.

48. Talia works as an HR manager for the Department of National Defense (DND) in Halifax, Nova Scotia.

DND sends her to train at the Ministry of Defense (MINDEF) at the Republic of Singapore for 6 months. Given the higher rent and cost of living in Singapore, the company agrees to pay her 30% more of her base pay for the period that she is in Singapore. What is this known as?

A) Retention monitor B) Foreign service premium C) Hardship allowance D) Golden parachute E) Mobility premium QuestionID: 17-48 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: B) Foreign service premium 49. Talia works as an HR manager for the Department of National Defense (DND) in Halifax, Nova Scotia.

DND sends her to train at the Ministry of Defense (MINDEF) at the Republic of Singapore for 6 months. To reward Talia for accepting this 6 month move, the company will pay her a lump sum payment of $10,000 (Canadian) when she completes the 6 months. What is this known as?

A) Retention monitor B) Foreign service premium 14

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C) Hardship allowance D) Golden parachute E) Mobility premium QuestionID: 17-49 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: E) Mobility premium 50. Canadian Armed Forces (CAF) members deployed to certain locations are entitled to additional compensation in recognition of the dangers and conditions associated with each specific location. What is this known as?

A) Retention monitor B) Foreign service premium C) Hardship allowance D) Golden parachute E) Mobility premium QuestionID: 17-50 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: C) Hardship allowance 51. Which of the following is the first step in ensuring that a foreign assignee is successful?

A) Careful screening B) Spontaneous cultural training C) Post-hoc HR planning D) Resource-based cost allocation E) Diligent repatriation activities QuestionID: 17-51 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: A) Careful screening 52. What approach is used by organizations to equalize purchasing power for internationally assigned employees or expats?

A) The balance sheet approach B) The balance of payments approach C) The international equity approach D) The income statement approach E) The positive cash flow approach

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QuestionID: 17-52 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: A) The balance sheet approach 53. In the balance sheet approach, compensation for the relocated manager would be modified to have the same purchasing power as which of the following?

A) A salary of an equal position in the country of the company's head office B) A foreign country salary of an equally paid position C) The manager's home-country salary D) A percentage of the productivity created by the expatriate manager E) The average expatriate salary for the company across all subsidiaries QuestionID: 17-53 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: C) The manager's home-country salary 54. ____________ are often used to provide mental health support to expatriates who may feel high levels of stress during the relocation process.

A) Hardship allowances B) Mobility premiums C) Variable pay incentives D) International EAPs E) Multinational CBAs QuestionID: 17-54 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: D) International EAPs 55. Research shows that most companies offer cross cultural training A) as a core policy to all employees.

B) to select assignees.

C) to only a specific combination of host-home country expats.

D) at the discretion of the company manager.

E) to very few employees.

QuestionID: 17-55 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: A) as a core policy to all employees.

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56. Research shows that most companies offer compensation for global assignments aligned with A) home country compensation.

B) the company's headquarters country compensation.

C) case-by-case determination.

D) host country compensation.

E) the higher or host or home country compensation.

QuestionID: 17-56 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: A) home country compensation.

57. The majority of global assignment compensation is aligned to pay expatriates according to compensation levels in the host country. a True b False QuestionID: 17-57 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: b. False 58. A Canadian company has offices in the United States, France, and Japan. Each office outside of Canada is managed by a Canadian expatriate; this company appears to have a polycentric staffing policy. a True b False QuestionID: 17-58 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: b. False 59. Third-country nationals are employees who are returning home following the completion of multiple, successful foreign work assignments. a True b False QuestionID: 17-59 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: b. False 17

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60. Discuss the difference between the balance sheet and variable pay approaches to compensation (2 points each).

QuestionID: 17-60 Objective: 17.2—Explain how to improve global assignments through employee selection and compensation planning.

Answer: The balance sheet approach is a method of formulating expatriate pay based on equalizing purchasing power across countries. The basic idea is that each expatriate should enjoy the same standard of living that they would have at home. The employer estimates what the cost of major expenses (e.g., housing) would be in the expatriate's home country and the equivalent cost of each in the host country. Any differences—such as higher housing expenses—are then paid by the employer.

On the other hand, the variable pay approach is focused on individual performance differentiation. Target bonuses for management and professional employees, as a percentage of base salary, have become quite similar globally. Although broad-based variable pay was a lot less common in the past, it has now gone global and is an integral part of the compensation landscape for management and professional employees in every region.

61. Which term describes the process of moving expatriates and their families back home from the foreign assignment?

A) Repatriation B) Expatriation C) Immigration D) Emigration E) Migration QuestionID: 17-61 Objective: 17.3—Describe the main considerations in repatriating employees from abroad.

Answer: A) Repatriation 62. Define what repatriation is (1 point) and describe four of the steps that progressive organizations take to avoid potential repatriation challenges (1 point each).

QuestionID: 17-62 Objective: 17.3—Describe the main considerations in repatriating employees from abroad.

Answer: Repatriation is the process of moving the expatriate and their family back home from the foreign assignment.

Progressive multinationals anticipate and avoid repatriation problems by taking a number of sensible steps: 1. Assigning a mentor. The employee should be assigned a sponsor or mentor (such as a senior manager at the parent firm's home office). This person's role is to look after the expatriate while they are away. This includes keeping the person apprised of significant company events and changes back home, monitoring their career interests, and nominating the person to be considered for key openings when the expatriate is ready to come home.

2. Providing career management. Provide formal career management sessions to ensure that the repatriate's job 18

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assignments on return will meet their needs. This includes providing opportunities to use competencies and skills acquired in expat assignments when repatriated.

3. Writing repatriation agreements. Many firms use repatriation agreements, which guarantee in writing that the international assignee will not be kept abroad longer than some period (such as five years) and that on return they will be given a mutually acceptable job.

4. Keeping communication open with work networks. Keep the expatriate "plugged in" to home-office business affairs through management meetings around the world and frequent home leave combined with meetings at headquarters.

5. Offering financial support. Many firms pay real estate and legal fees and help the expatriate to rent or in some other way maintain their residence so that the repatriate and their family can actually return "home."

6. Developing reorientation programs. Provide the repatriate and their family with a reorientation program to facilitate the adjustment back into the home culture.

63. Statistics Canada identifies a decline in the percentage of long-term immigrants who had successfully completed a university degree, but found jobs with low educational requirements. a True b False QuestionID: 17-63 Objective: 17.4—Discuss challenges immigrants to Canada face and identify the role of multiple stakeholders in ensuring successful integration of talent in Canada.

Answer: b. False 64. The issues associated with the overemployment of immigrants and foreign workers is especially critical today, given the younger workforce and the current labour surpluses in Canada. a True b False QuestionID: 17-64 Objective: 17.4—Discuss challenges immigrants to Canada face and identify the role of multiple stakeholders in ensuring successful integration of talent in Canada.

Answer: b. False 65. Identify the three barriers confronting new immigrants to Canada upon attempting to enter the labour force (1 point each). Briefly describe two of the barriers identified (2 points each).

QuestionID: 17-65 Objective: 17.4—Discuss challenges immigrants to Canada face and identify the role of multiple stakeholders in ensuring successful integration of talent in Canada.

Answer: Lack of Canadian Experience - As immigrants enter the Canadian workforce, research on earnings shows low, or even zero, returns (monetary recognition) for their foreign work experience. When only their Canadian work experience is taken into account, immigrants' earnings are similar to those of the Canadian-born with the same years of Canadian experience, regardless of how many years of international experience the 19

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immigrant had prior to joining the Canadian workforce. These results suggest a significant inability to transfer and recognize skills and experiences immigrants acquired in their country of origin to the Canadian labour market, representing a lost value to the immigrant.

Poor Transferability of Foreign Education or Training - While finding a job can be difficult for many, the employment prospects for new immigrants are often diminished due to poor recognition of foreign qualifications. Licensing bodies of certain trades and professions may not accept foreign-obtained certification, and employers have difficulty assessing foreign education in a meaningful way.

Lack of Literacy Skills - Language ability has been shown to improve labour-market outcomes among educated immigrants. The earnings differential between immigrants and Canadian-born individuals would narrow if immigrants had the same average literacy scores as the native born. Consequently, this would eliminate more than half of the immigrant earnings disadvantage among university educated workers alone. The variance and in some cases lack of literacy skills in Canada's official languages is viewed as a significant barrier to the successful integration of immigrants in the labour market.

66. Language ability has also been shown to improve labour-market outcomes among educated immigrants. a True b False QuestionID: 17-66 Objective: 17.4—Discuss challenges immigrants to Canada face and identify the role of multiple stakeholders in ensuring successful integration of talent in Canada.

Answer: a. True 67. In which industry are skilled immigrants who are relatively new to Canada least likely to find comparable employment in Canada to the jobs and fields that they were previously employed in?

A) Healthcare B) IT support C) Manufacturing D) Food services E) Construction QuestionID: 17-67 Objective: 17.3—Describe the main considerations in repatriating employees from abroad.

Answer: A) Healthcare 68. ________ is a system meant to aide in the recognition of the learning adults acquire outside of formal Canadian education.

A) PLAR B) CBDC C) UAE D) IABC E) CPRS QuestionID: 17-68 20

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Objective: 17.4—Discuss challenges immigrants to Canada face and identify the role of multiple stakeholders in ensuring successful integration of talent in Canada.

Answer: A) PLAR 69. Approximately how many people residing in Canada were born outside of the country?

A) 21% B) 40% C) 64% D) 5% E) 55% QuestionID: 17-69 Objective: 17.4—Discuss challenges immigrants to Canada face and identify the role of multiple stakeholders in ensuring successful integration of talent in Canada.

Answer: A) 21% 70. Offering a workplace mentorship program for employees who are newcomers to Canada is an example of what type of immigrant-friendly workplace practice?

A) Attraction and retention B) Integration C) Embedment D) Retention E) Turnover QuestionID: 17-70 Objective: 17.4—Discuss challenges immigrants to Canada face and identify the role of multiple stakeholders in ensuring successful integration of talent in Canada.

Answer: B) Integration 71. Including links to educations assessment and evaluation sites that the company partners with in all job ads, as well as on the careers section of the corporate website is an example of what type of immigrant-friendly workplace practice?

A) Attraction and retention B) Integration C) Embedment D) Retention E) Turnover QuestionID: 17-71 Objective: 17.4—Discuss challenges immigrants to Canada face and identify the role of multiple stakeholders in ensuring successful integration of talent in Canada.

Answer: A) Attraction and retention 21

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72. Providing cultural diversity training to all employees in the firm is an example of what type of immigrantfriendly workplace practice?

A) Attraction and retention B) Integration C) Embedment D) Retention E) Turnover QuestionID: 17-72 Objective: 17.4—Discuss challenges immigrants to Canada face and identify the role of multiple stakeholders in ensuring successful integration of talent in Canada.

Answer: D) Retention

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