Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) If you found an organism that was single-celled and had a nucleus, you would classify it as a member of the Archaea. ⊚ ⊚
2)
true false
The "kingdom" is the most all-inclusive taxonomic category. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) The scientific method cannot be used to answer questions about immaterial and philosophical issues. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 4) Which is the correct sequence for levels of biological organization within amulticellular organism?
A) atom - molecule - organelle - cell - tissue B) molecule - atom - organelle - tissue - cell C) cell - organelle - atom - tissue - molecule D) organelle - molecule - atom - tissue - cell E) atom - organelle - molecule - cell - tissue
5) Which is the correct sequence for levels of biological organization occurring beyond an organism?
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A) population - ecosystem - community - biosphere B) community - population - ecosystem - biosphere C) community - population - biosphere - ecosystem D) population - community - ecosystem - biosphere E) ecosystem - population - biosphere - community
6)
All living organisms
A) are prokaryotes. B) are either unicellular or multicellular. C) are eukaryotes. D) are multicellular. E) are unicellular.
7)
Organisms that extract energy from nonliving environmental resources are called
A) heterotrophs. B) decomposers. C) parasites. D) consumers. E) producers.
8) You are sorting cards with pictures of organisms and their descriptions into groups. You would place the card with an osprey and the description "organisms that obtain energy by consuming other organisms" with cards for other
A) autotrophs. B) plants. C) heterotrophs. D) producers. E) photosynthesizers.
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9) If you observed a newly discovered 'thing' and tried to decide if it might be alive, what would be the weakest distinction for life?
A) homeostasis B) movement C) structural organization D) evolution E) energy use
10)
The four kingdoms included in the domain Eukarya are
A) Bacteria, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia. B) Bacteria, Protista, Plantae, and Animalia. C) Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia. D) Archaea, Bacteria, Plantae, and Animalia. E) Archaea, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia.
11)
A major difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that prokaryotes
A) have cell walls while eukaryotes do not. B) do not have a nucleus in their cells whileeukaryotes do. C) have a nucleus in their cells while eukaryotes do not. D) are autotrophs while eukaryotes are not. E) are not living organisms, while eukaryotes are.
12) If you were grading a set of exams dealing with the scientific method, which statement would lead to a student losing points?
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A) It is a general way of answering questions with evidence. B) It is a framework to consider ideas in a repeatable way. C) It begins with observations. D) It does not apply to problems encountered in everyday life. E) It enables the testing of ideas.
13)
Which statement about ahypothesis is incorrect?
A) It can be proven true. B) It can be proven false. C) It is a tentative explanation. D) It is based on previous knowledge. E) It must be testable to be useful.
14) In a scientific experiment, the investigator manipulates the ______ variable(s) to determine whether it causes another variable to change.
A) standardized B) control group C) dependent D) independent E) control group and standardized
15) In a scientific experiment, the investigator measures the response of the _______ variable(s).
A) independent B) dependent C) control group D) standardized E) dependent and independent
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16)
Which of the following is nota "control" in an experimental procedure?
A) a placebo B) a known standard of comparison C) a normal group D) an experimental group E) a "zero"-value group
17)
A theory differs from a hypothesis in that a theory
A) has more supportive evidence than a hypothesis. B) is broader in scope than a hypothesis. C) has predictive power. D) ties together many existing observations. E) All answers are correct.
18)
A structure consisting of tissues organized to carry out a specific function defines a(n)
A) organ. B) cell. C) population. D) atom. E) molecule.
19) In cleaning up after lab, you have to sort cards into boxes. You would put all of the below cards into a box marked "ecosystem" except
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A) community. B) biosphere. C) populations. D) organisms. E) nonliving environmental components.
20)
Asexual reproduction differs from sexual reproduction in that
A) asexual reproduction produces genetically diverse offspring. B) asexual reproduction utilizes DNA from two parentsto code for traits in offspring. C) asexual reproduction occurs only in plants. D) asexual reproduction produces offspring containing DNA from only one parent. E) asexual reproduction only occursin animals.
21)
If you wanted to demonstrate homeostasis to a friend, you could use as an example
A) a population changing over time. B) environmental conditions holding constant through time. C) cells havingenough water to survive. D) plants and animals needing energy sources. E) an organism maintaining nearly constant internal conditions.
22) What statement deals with an aspect of experimentation but with the incorrect explanation?
A) The larger the sample size, the more meaningful the results. B) The smaller the sample size, the more meaningful the results. C) A control group is an untreated group and provides a basis for comparison. D) It is important to standardize aspects of an experiment that might affect the outcome, other than the independent variable. E) All answers are correct.
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23)
The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus belongs to which domain?
A) Eukarya B) Archaea C) Prokarya D) Protista E) Bacteria
24)
The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus has which of the following?
A) nucleus and ribosomes B) DNA and nucleus C) DNA and cell membrane D) cell membrane and nucleus E) None of the answer choices are correct.
25)
Homo sapiens is in which domain?
A) Archaea B) Bacteria C) Eukarya D) Animalia E) Protista
26) What did Charles Darwin predict after observing the 11-inch long nectaries of the Angraecum sesquipedale orchid in Madagascar?
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A) the existence of a moth with a 10–11 inch long tongue B) the existence of a competitor that also possessed especially long nectaries C) the presence of very small bees that could fit into long nectaries D) that the orchid must reproduce asexually E) that the orchid was an evolutionary dead end and could no longer reproduce
27) In an experiment, Charles Darwin's prediction about long nectaries and long-tongued moths would be a(n)
A) standardized variable. B) theory. C) independent variable. D) dependent variable. E) hypothesis.
28) You want to test Charles Darwin's prediction that an orchid with long pollen tubes has a pollinator with long, thin mouthparts that can reach the bottom of the elongated nectar tube. You place nets over some orchids, which allows pollinators with small, short mouthparts to enter but prevents the entry of pollinators with long, thin mouthparts. Next, you compare the number of seeds produced by plants with and without the nets. In this experiment, seed production is a(n)
A) dependent variable. B) hypothesis. C) theory. D) independent variable. E) standardized variable.
29)
What is the advantage to the Madagascan orchid of having an 11-inch long nectar tube?
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A) It can produce nectar over a larger area and attract more pollinators. B) It can collect more rainwater. C) It can be pollinated easily only by the moths with long tongues. D) It can collect more sunlight for photosynthesis. E) It can trap insects as a source of nutrients.
30) What is the advantage of a moth having a very long tongue if an orchid has a very long nectar spur?
A) It is used to attract mates through sexual selection. B) It can pollinate only one type of flower. C) It makes flying more efficient. D) It can be used to capture other flying insects for food. E) It can reach nectar that no other pollinator can reach.
31)
Pollination is a step of _____ in a plant.
A) sexual reproduction B) asexual reproduction C) development D) metabolism E) homeostasis
32)
Why isn't scientific inquiry foolproof?
A) Multiple interpretations of the data are possible. B) Definitive answers may not exist. C) Observations can be misinterpreted. D) Unexpected conclusions are not always readily accepted. E) All answers are correct.
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33)
Which of the following questions cannot be answered by science?
A) What is the meaning of life? B) Why is the sky the color blue? C) What causes species' extinctions? D) How did I start from only an egg and sperm? E) Why is too much fatty food bad for me?
34)
How do you know the computer you are working on is not alive?
A) It is not made of cells. B) It does not maintain an internal consistency of water, solutes, and other components. C) It cannot reproduce, asexually or sexually. D) It cannot evolve. E) All answers are correct.
35)
Gravity is a theory because it is
A) a tentative explanation of an observation. B) an untestable prediction. C) a changeable element of experiments. D) an opinion or hunch. E) an encompassing explanation of a natural phenomenon that is well accepted.
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions. 36) You perform an experiment in which you take 16 pots of strawberry plants and give half of them 1 gram of ammonium nitrate per liter of water and the other half receive only water. Each group is then split in half again, and exposed to either 8 or 16 hours of light each day. You monitor the height of the plants for 4 weeks. You observe that plants grown in ammonium nitrate and 16 hours of light grow taller than no ammonium nitrate and 8 hours of light.
36.1)
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Which of the following is/are independent variable(s) in this experiment?
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A) amount of ammonium nitrate and light B) amount of water C) amount of carbon dioxide D) height of the plants and amount of light E) height of the plants
36.2)
Which of the following is/are dependent variable(s) in this experiment?
A) amount of ammonium nitrate and light B) amount of carbon dioxide C) amount of water D) height of the plants E) height of the plants and amount of light
36.3)
In this experiment, the size of the pot is
A) an independent variable. B) a dependent variable. C) a standardized variable. D) a placebo. E) a control.
36.4)
Ammonium nitrate is
A) an atom. B) a molecule. C) a cell. D) a tissue. E) a biosphere.
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36.5) is
The proximate reason for the uptake by plants of nutrients like ammonium nitrate
A) asexual reproduction. B) sexual reproduction. C) natural selection. D) evolution. E) homeostasis.
36.6)
The leaf of a strawberry plant is
A) an organ. B) a molecule. C) an organelle. D) a cell. E) an organism.
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Answer Key Test name: ch 1 1) FALSE The nucleus in this organism would indicate that it was a eukaryote, and it would be classified as a member of Eukarya, not Archaea. Please see section 1.2 for more information. 2) FALSE Kingdoms are large taxonomic groupings, but domains are even larger. Please see section 1.2 for more information. 3) TRUE The scientific method can only deal with questions about the immediate physical world around us. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 4) A All living things, no matter how different, are made of cells, with multicellular organisms made up of many cells. Please see section 1.1 for more information. 5) D Organisms interact with one another and with nonliving things at a variety of levels, from populations to the entire worldwide biosphere. Please see section 1.1 for more information. 6) B Living things must include at least one cell, as in bacteria, and can be multicellular, as in the case of a human being. Please see section 1.1 for more information. 7) E Version 1
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Producers are the first, and usually most populous level in an ecosystem's passing of energy and resources from organism to organism. Please see section 1.1 for more information. 8) C Consumers eat other consumers or producers to obtain energy and reduced carbon compounds. Please see section 1.1 for more information. 9) B Nonliving things can sometimes move, and living things, like barnacles past the larval stage, sometimes do not move, at least not in some sense. Please see section 1.1 for more information. 10) C The eukaryotes include plants, fungi, animals, and the very diverse group of organisms known as the protists. Please see section 1.2for more information. 11) B The name "eukaryote" means "true nucleus." Please see section 1.2 for more information. 12) D The scientific method can be applied to a wide range of problems, including those of daily life. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 13) A Hypotheses can be shown to be false by experimentation, a normal part of the scientific method. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 14) D The independent variable is altered, and then the experimental result is seen in the changes in the dependent variable. Please see section 1.3 for more information. Version 1
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15) B While the experimenter alters the independent variable, the dependent variable is what results and is measured. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 16) D Controls are parts of the experiment which are used as a kind of baseline. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 17) E Theories are of greater certainty, backed by many different experiments, than mere hypotheses. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 18) A Organs are one level of organization higher than tissues. Please see section 1.1 for more information. 19) B Ecosystems include many parts but are much smaller than the worldwide biosphere. Please see section 1.1 for more information. 20) D Asexual reproduction produces genetic clones of the parent organism since only the one parent's DNA is present in the offspring. Please see section 1.1 for more information. 21) E Please see section 1.1 for more information. 22) B Smaller sample sizes make for weaker, less certain experimental results. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 23) E
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Bacteria belong in their own domain, separate from the other prokaryotes which fall into the Archaea. Please see section 1.2 for more information. 24) C Bacteria lack a nucleus. Please see section 1.2 for more information. 25) C Human beings, Homo sapiens, are eukaryotes, with a nucleus in each cell. Please see section 1.2 for more information. 26) A An orchid with a long nectar spur would require a pollinator with a correspondingly long tongue to drink that nectar. Please see sections 1.3 and "Investigating Life" for more information. 27) E Hypotheses, such as Darwin's about moth tongue length, are really predictions. Please see sections 1.3and "Investigating Life" for more information. 28) A Whatever is actually measured at the end of an experiment is the dependent variable. Please see sections 1.3and "Investigating Life" for more information. 29) C The orchid's long nectar tube evolved to allow a very specific relationship with its pollinator. Please see sections 1.3 and "Investigating Life" for more information. 30) E
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Having such a long tongue, the moth gains exclusive access to food with no competitors able to reach that food. Please see sections 1.3and "Investigating Life" for more information. 31) A Pollination involves the transfer of pollen from the male part of a flower to the female part of the same or another flower. Please see sections 1.3and "Investigating Life" for more information. 32) E Scientific inquiry has its limitations. Please see section 1.3for more information. 33) A Deep philosophical questions cannot be tested by the scientific method, while more immediate and material ones can. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 34) E Living things grow and reproduce and manage their internal state for themselves, none of which computers can do. Please see section 1.1 for more information. 35) E So much experimental evidence is behind our ideas about gravity that it rises to the level of a theory. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 36) Section Break 36.1) A The independent variable is the variable which the experimenter varies to look for responses in the system, rather than what is measured. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 36.2) D
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Dependent variables are what are measured in response to changing independent variable values. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 36.3) C Since pot size is uniform, this is a standardized variable. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 36.4) B Ammonium nitrate is a chemical salt used as a fertilizer. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 36.5) E Plants take up nutrients to maintain internalconcentrations of these important chemicals. Please see section 1.3 for more information. 36.6) A Organs are groups of tissues working for a common purpose, which is photosynthesis in the case of a leaf. Please see section 1.3 for more information.
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Water is a compound. ⊚ ⊚
2)
Proteins are compounds because they are polymers. ⊚ ⊚
3)
true false
Polymers are made of monomers, and both are kinds of compounds. ⊚ ⊚
4)
true false
true false
Carbon is a compound. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) If a molecule is added to a glass of water, and is easily dissolved by the water, the added molecule is described as hydrophilic. ⊚ ⊚
6)
true false
Proteins store the genetic information of the cell and transmit it to the next generation. ⊚ ⊚
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true false
1
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 7) The most abundant bulk elements that make up the vast majority of living organisms are
A) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and calcium. B) carbon, oxygen, iron, andchlorine. C) carbon, hydrogen, iron, and calcium. D) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen. E) carbon, oxygen, sulfur, and calcium.
8)
The atomic number of an atom or element is the number of
A) neutrons in the nucleus. B) electrons in the nucleus. C) protons in the nucleus. D) neutrons in the orbitals. E) protons in the orbitals.
9)
An ion could be
A) an atom that has gained electrons. B) an atom that has a positive charge. C) an atom that has lost electrons. D) an atom that has a negative charge. E) All answers are correct.
10) If you were told to sort cards into boxes after a lab on elements, you would put into a slot labelled "Mass Number" any card with text that included the total number of
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A) protons, neutrons, and electrons of an atom. B) protons and electrons of an atom. C) protons and neutrons of an atom. D) neutrons and electrons of an atom. E) protons of an atom.
11)
Isotopes of the same element are different from one another in that
A) they have a different number of protons. B) they have a different number of neutrons. C) they have a different number of electrons. D) they are a different element. E) only one of the isotopes is matter.
12)
For most atoms, the outermost electron shell would be full if it contained
A) one electron. B) four electrons. C) eight electrons. D) sixteen electrons.
13)
If an atom exists in nature with a valence shell that is full, then it is
A) highly reactive. B) chemically unstable. C) highly likely to combine with other atoms. D) found only in a gas form. E) inert.
14)
In a covalent bond
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A) atoms share electrons. B) atoms of opposite charges attract each other. C) atoms share protons. D) atoms share neutrons. E) atoms are repelled by each other.
15)
An ionic bond is a bond in which
A) atoms share electrons. B) atoms share protons. C) atoms of opposite charges attract each other. D) atoms share neutrons. E) atoms are repelled by each other.
16)
Which statement about a bond between sodium and chlorine is incorrect?
A) Na is the chemical symbol for sodium. B) Chlorine donates an electron. C) Chlorine becomes negatively charged. D) Sodium becomes positively charged. E) The bond that is formed is a strong bond.
17)
In the example of ionic bond formation between sodium and chlorine
A) Na is the chemical symbol for chlorine. B) sodium accepts an electron. C) chlorine accepts an electron. D) chlorine becomes positively charged. E) both sodium and chlorine accept electrons.
18)
If a covalent bond is polar
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A) electrons are not shared by atoms. B) protons are shared by atoms. C) it will not form in living organisms. D) the electronegativity of atoms is unequal in their pull on electrons. E) the bond is weak in strength.
19)
A hydrogen bond
A) is generally a strong bond. B) does not occur in living organisms. C) does not require electron transfer. D) forms between atoms having the same electronegativity. E) is a specialized type of covalent bond.
20)
Evaporation is
A) the conversion of a liquid into a vapor. B) the conversion of a solid into a vapor. C) the conversion of a vapor into a liquid. D) the conversion of a vapor into a solid. E) All answers are correct.
21) A friend who is not taking your Biology course fills a cup with ice and then a drink. The friend asks you why the ice in the cup is floating, and you are able to say that
A) the molecules are closer together in ice than in liquid water. B) the molecules are farther apart in ice than in liquid water. C) ice is denser than liquid water. D) convection currents caused by temperature differences push upwards on the ice. E) water vapor is less dense than liquid water.
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22)
In a chemical equation
A) the reactants are on the right of the yields arrow. B) reactants and products are on both sides of the yields arrow. C) the products are on the left of the yields arrow. D) the reactants are on the left of the yields arrow. E) the number of atoms of each element may differ on the two sides of the yields arrow.
23)
An acid
A) has a value above 7 on the pH scale. B) is a chemical that takes hydrogen ions from a solution. C) has a value of 7 on the pH scale. D) is a chemical that adds hydrogen ions to a solution. E) All answers are correct.
24)
A base
A) has a value of 7 on the pH scale. B) is a chemical that adds hydrogen ions to a solution. C) is a chemical that absorbs hydrogen ions from a solution. D) has a value below 7 on the pH scale.
25)
A substance with a pH of 2 is
A) neutral. B) a weak acid. C) a weak base. D) a strong base. E) a strong acid.
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26) As part of an exam, you are given a powder to analyze. When you perform various tests, you find that it contains a single chemical that changes the pH of neutral water to a pH of 6. You would conclude that the chemical is a
A) weak acid. B) neutral. C) weak base. D) strong acid. E) strong base.
27)
A substance with a pH of 7 is
A) a weak acid. B) a weak base. C) neutral. D) a strong acid. E) a strong base.
28) As part of a lab exam, you are given a vial of orange crystals. When you add them to pure, neutral pH water, the pH changes to 13. Other tests show that the crystals consist of asingle chemical.You could conclude the chemical is
A) a weak acid. B) a weak base. C) neutral. D) a strong acid. E) a strong base.
29)
Organic molecules are defined as chemical compounds that contain
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A) hydrophilic solutions. B) isotopes of carbon. C) ionically bonded atoms. D) strong hydrogen bonds. E) carbon and hydrogen.
30)
The four major groups of organic compounds are
A) fats, waxes, carbohydrates, and amino acids. B) carbohydrates, lipids, steroids, and monosaccharides. C) lipids, fats, waxes, and steroids. D) carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids. E) carbohydrates, proteins, amino acids, and nucleic acids.
31) You are asked to help prepare a lab and need to label some beakers. In one, you are told, there are sugars polymerizing into a large polymer, so you prepare a label that mentions
A) hydrolysis. B) reproduction. C) dehydration synthesis. D) translation. E) transcription.
32)
A process by which cells break polymers down into smaller units is
A) hydrolysis. B) dehydration synthesis. C) reproduction. D) hydrolysis and dehydration synthesis. E) unrelated to chemical bonds.
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33) Imagine that you are in a study session, and your group is taking a practice quiz that members grade for one another. For the question, "A cook decides to cook only using monomers, so what chemicals could the cook use?" you would mark correct if the paper you are grading has the answer as
A) cellulose and sucrose. B) lactose and sucrose. C) glucose and fructose. D) glucose and cellulose. E) None of the answers are correct.
34) You are asked to help solve a murder, and a note from the murderer taunting the police says that the crime was committed using a lipid. What molecule could you exclude from your search?
A) a triglyceride B) a phospholipid C) a wax D) a sterol E) a starch molecule
35)
The primary building block (monomer) of proteins is
A) a glucose molecule. B) a fatty acid. C) a nucleotide. D) an amino acid. E) four interconnected rings.
36)
If asked to build a model of an amino acid, you would need parts to represent
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A) three R groups and a glycerol. B) nitrogen, carbon, and an R group. C) multiple saccharide rings. D) carbon and phosphorus monomers. E) carbon and phosphorus.
37) As part of a lab practical, you need to attach labels about chemical models. For the bond between amino acids, you would add a label describing that it is
A) an ionic bond in proteins. B) a covalent bond in carbohydrates. C) a covalent bond in proteins. D) an ionic bond in carbohydrates. E) a hydrogen bond in nucleic acids.
38)
The primary building block (monomer) of nucleic acids is
A) a nucleotide. B) a glucose molecule. C) a fatty acid. D) an amino acid. E) four interconnected carbon rings.
39)
Water is best described as which of the following?
A) an ion B) a nonpolar molecule C) an atom D) a polar molecule E) an element
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40) You encounter a new compound that is bright purple and smells of violets. It sticks to surfaces in a way similar to water and can replace water in the running of living cells. You might expect that this new molecule will make
A) covalent bonds. B) ionic bonds. C) hydrogen bonds. D) hydrophobic bonds. E) peptide bonds.
41)
Within a single molecule of water, ____ bonds form between oxygen and hydrogen.
A) ionic B) covalent C) hydrogen D) hydrophobic E) nuclear
42)
What do a lemon, a toaster oven, and sand grains have in common?
A) All are composed of matter and energy. B) All are alive. C) All are composed of organic molecules. D) All are acidic. E) All are basic.
43) You can painlessly wade into a pool, but doing a belly flop off of the high diving board hurts because of
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A) water's higher density compared to the air. B) adhesion of your molecules with the water molecules. C) water's high boiling point. D) a neutral pH. E) cohesion of the water molecules.
44)
What is an example of matter? 4615
A) oxygen gas B) energy C) light D) heat E) None of the answers are correct.
45) Hydrogen, nitrogen, carbon, and oxygen account for 96% of the human body. These elements are
A) also the main elements in organic molecules. B) rare in nonhuman organisms. C) rare on Earth. D) always bonded by hydrogen bonds. E) All answers are correct.
46)
The polymers with the most complex and diverse three-dimensional structures are
A) saturated fats. B) unsaturated fats. C) proteins. D) waxes. E) carbohydrates.
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47)
Two hydrogen atoms and an oxygen atombonded together form
A) a molecule, but not a compound. B) a compound, but not a molecule. C) a molecule and a compound. D) an atom and a molecule. E) an atom, but not a molecule or compound.
48) The four most abundantelements needed by the human body are carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen. Because these are needed in large amounts to support our cells, these are referred to as
A) bulk elements. B) trace elements. C) isotopes. D) buffers. E) essential elements.
49) Blood is closely maintained at a pH of 7.4. A patient whose blood pH drops below 7.35 is suffering from metabolic acidosis and can go into a coma. What happens to the concentration of H + ions in a patient with a blood pH of 6.4? A) H + concentration is decreased 10-fold. B) H + concentration is decreased 2-fold. C) H + concentration is increased 2-fold. D) H + concentration is decreased 4-fold. E) H + concentration is increased 10-fold.
50)
The four nitrogen bases found in RNA are
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A) adenine, thymine, guanine, and uracil. B) adenine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil. C) adenine, thymine, cytosine, and uracil. D) thymine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil. E) None of the answer choices is correct.
51) Saturated fats have long, straight tails of fatty acids, whereas unsaturated fats from vegetables have kinks in their tails due to double bonds. These kinks prevent the fats from packing together as tightly. Hydrogenated vegetable oils, or trans fats, have hydrogens added back to the double bonds and thus behave like
A) unsaturated fats. B) waxes. C) carbohydrates. D) proteins. E) saturated fats.
52)
Which of these pairs does not correctly match a carbohydrate with its function?
A) Glycogen is the storage form of energy in animals. B) Starch is the storage form of energy in plants. C) Cellulose provides structural support for human hair. D) Chitin provides an exoskeleton for insects.
53) If a carbohydrate polymer contains only two monomer units, such as sucrose made from glucose and fructose, it is called a(n)
A) disaccharide. B) polysaccharide. C) monosaccharide. D) oligosaccharide. E) complex carbohydrate.
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54)
Tawny crazy ants survive a fire ant's sting by having a
A) venom that detoxifies the fire ant venom. B) more potent venom than the fire ant venom. C) hard carapace that protects the crazy ants. D) lipid that coats their skin.
55)
In the experiment investigating tawny crazy ants and fire ants, the control group included
A) tawny crazy ants with open venom glands. B) tawny crazy ants with plugged venom glands. C) fire ants with open venom glands. D) fire ants with plugged venom glands.
56) How does the formic acid in the venom of the tawny crazy ants protect them from the fire ant venom?
A) It deactivates enzymes in the fire ant venom. B) It raises the pH which crystallizes the fire ant venom. C) It melts the lipids in the fire ant venom. D) It turns the polysaccharides in the fire ant venom into monosaccharides.
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions. 57) Scientists use carbon dating to determine the age of fossils. 14C is a rare isotope of carbon that has a half life of 5730 years and decays into 14N. By measuring the amount of 14C remaining in a fossil, scientists can estimate when the organism died to within 60,000 years. The atomic numbers of C is 6 and of N is 7.
57.1)
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The most common isotope of carbon is
12
C.
14
C has____ than
12
C.
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A) more protons B) more neutrons C) fewer neutrons D) fewer protons E) more electrons
57.2)
14
C and
14
N have the same
A) atomic number. B) number of protons. C) mass number. D) number of neutrons. E) number of electrons.
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Answer Key Test name: ch 2 1) TRUE Water is a compound since it contains more than one chemical element. Please see sections 2.2 and 2.3 for more information. 2) FALSE Proteins are compounds, but because they are made of multiple elements. Please see section 2.2 for more information. 3) TRUE Formation of a polymer implies that several chemical elements are involved in the monomers, so both monomers and polymers must be compounds. Please see section 2.2 and 2.5 for more information. 4) FALSE Carbon is a single element, while compounds must involve multiple elements. Please see section 2.2 for more information. 5) TRUE In understanding water's function as a solvent, hydrophilic molecules are paired with polar molecules that can be dissolved easily by the polarwater molecule. Please see section2.3 for more information. 6) FALSE Although proteins have many functions, and have structures determined by the DNA genetic code, protein functions do not include storage and inheritance of genetics. Please seesection 2.5 for more information. 7) D
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These four bulk elements are required for making the macromolecules which compose all living things. Please see section 2.1 8) C The atomic number is unique to eachelement. Please see section 2.1B for more information. 9) E Ions can be positively or negatively charged due to the gain or loss of electrons. Please see section 2.1 for more information. 10) C Mass number is the total number of protons and neutronsin the nucleus of an atom. Please see section 2.1 for more information. 11) B Isotopes of the same element behave similarly in chemical reactions since they have the same number of outer shell electrons. Please see section 2.1 for more information. 12) C For elements other than hydrogen and helium, the maximum number of outer shell electrons is eight. Please see sections 2.1 and 2.2 for more information. 13) E Atoms are most stable when their valence shells are full. Please see sections 2.1 and 2.2 for more information. 14) A Sharing electrons leads to strong covalent bonds. Please see section 2.2 for more information. 15) C
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Ionic bonds involve ions and transferred electrons. Please see section 2.2 for more information. 16) B In this bond, chlorine gains an electron and sodium loses one. Please see section 2.2 for more information. 17) C In forming the bond in sodium chloride, sodium donates an electron which chlorine accepts. Please see section 2.2 for more information. 18) D When bonded atoms pull unequally on electrons, the resulting covalent bond is polar, with a net partial charge on each atom. Please see section 2.2 for more information. 19) C Hydrogen bonds form between adjacent water molecules due to the polar nature of their covalent bonds. Please see section 2.2 for more information. 20) A Liquids evaporate as their molecules obtain enough energy to escape from solution into the atmosphere. Please see section 2.3 for more information. 21) B Water is less dense when frozen than when liquid due to the structure of ice that results because of hydrogen bonding. Please see section 2.3 for more information. 22) D A chemical reaction shows the progress from reactants to products. Please see section 2.3 for more information. Version 1
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23) D Acids have low pH's, with more protons in solution. Please see section 2.4 for more information. 24) C Bases take up hydrogen ions and raise pH. Please see section 2.4 for more information. 25) E Strong acids have low pH's, well below the neutral pH of 7. Please see section 2.4 for more information. 26) A Weak acids change pH by lowering it, but not by a large amount. Please see section 2.4 for more information. 27) C A pH of 7 means that there is nonet excess of hydrogen or hydroxyl ions in solution. Please see section 2.4 for more information. 28) E Strong bases make pH swing much higher, away from 7. Please see section 2.4 for more information. 29) E Organic molecules, while they may include other elements, by definition must contain hydrogen and carbon. Please see section 2.5 for more information. 30) D All living things are made of carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids, and proteins. Please see section 2.5 for more information. 31) C
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Monomers are turned into polymers in living systems by the removal of water, dehydration. Please see section 2.5 for more information. 32) A When water is added chemically to a bond between the subunits in a polymer, breaking that bond, the reaction is a hydrolysis reaction. Please see section 2.5 for more information. 33) C Monosaccharides are single sugars molecules not linked to any others. Please see section 2.5 for more information. 34) E Starch is a carbohydrate, not a lipid. Please see section 2.5 for more information. 35) D Proteins are made of amino acids linked by the removal of water. Please see section 2.5 for more information. 36) B Amino acids have amino and carboxyl groups in common, and they vary based on the identity of their R groups. Please see section 2.5 for more information. 37) C Peptide bonds link successive amino acids in a protein. Please see section 2.5 for more information. 38) A Nucleic acids are polymers, and they are composed of a set of four nucleotides linked by the removal of water. Please see section 2.5 for more information.
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39) D Water is a polar molecule composed of three atoms of two elements. Please see section 2.3 for more information. 40) C Water molecules' ability to make hydrogen bonds is critical for their function in cells, so any substitute for water would probably make the same bonds. Please see section 2.3 for more information. 41) B Internal bonds in water molecules are polar covalent bonds. Please see section 2.3 for more information. 42) A All material things are made of matter and have energy in them. Please see section 2.1 for more information. 43) E The cohesiveness of water molecules leads to tighter bonding between them than in other solvents, and thus the difficulty/pain involved in a belly flop. Please see section 2.3 for more information. 44) A Light and heat are examples of energy, which is the ability to do work. On the other hand, matter is anything that takes up space, such as organisms, rocks, water, and gases. See section 2.1 for more information. 45) A The human body is made, mostly, of organic compounds, so it and organic compounds share common elements. Please see section 2.1 for more information. 46) C Version 1
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Proteins generally have more kinds of monomers than other large polymers, so they can have a greater diversity of shapes and functions. Please see section 2.5 for more information. 47) C Molecules involve multiple atoms, and compounds involve multiple elements. Please see section 2.2 for more information. 48) A Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins, required in reporting on nutrition labels, are organic molecules composed mainly of carbons, hydrogens, and oxygens. Please seesection 2.1for more information. 49) E Without proper homeostasis of pH controls by buffers and other body functions, relatively small numerical pH changes can result in potentially deadly consequences. Please see section2.4 for more information. 50) B For all known life, there are four nucleotides common in DNA, and the four nucleotides of RNA are similar with one substituted nucleotide. Please seesection 2.5 for more information. 51) E Hydrogenation is a technological manipulation that converts less expensive plant oils to forms that taste to us, as economic consumers, more like animal fats. Please seesection 2.5for more information. 52) C The majority of carbohydrate functions are related to energy and energy storage. Please see section 2.5 and table 2.4 for more information. 53) A Version 1
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Whether used for storage or structure, the number and arrangement of monomers in carbohydrates change the properties most, as cells use them. Please seesection 2.5 for more information. 54) A The tawnycrazy ants' venom detoxifies the fire ants' venom. Please see the "Investigating Life" section. 55) A The control group consisted of tawny crazy ants with open venom glands since the scientists were testing the ability of the tawny ants' own venom to help withstand the fire ant venom. See the "Investigating Life" section. 56) A The formic acid in the venom of the tawny crazy ants lowers the pH thereby deactivating the enzymes in the fire ant venom. Please see the"Investigating Life" section. 57) Section Break 57.1) B Higher mass number means that more neutrons are present, for isotopes of the same element. Please see section 2.1 for more information. 57.2) C Different elements can have the same mass number depending on what isotopes are being compared. Please see sections 2.1 and 2.2 for more information.
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) If you collected a piece of cell coating found directly external to a eukaryotic plasma membrane, and chemical tests showed that it was made of cellulose, you would expect to see plasmodesmata if observed with an electron microscope. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) If you were examining a plasmodesma under a microscope, you would expect to find a plant cell at each end. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) If you found a piece of animal tissue that did not allow fluid to cross between cells, you would predict that it contained tight junctions. ⊚ ⊚
4)
Scientists have discovered a few prokaryotic cells do have internal membranes. ⊚ ⊚
5)
true false
Magnetism-detecting bacteria turn with an applied magnetic field. ⊚ ⊚
6)
true false
true false
Some prokaryotes do have internal membranes, used in detecting gravity. ⊚ ⊚
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true false
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7)
The cytoskeleton consists of microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments. ⊚ ⊚
true false
8) Endosymbiosis is a theory based on the presence of structures like chloroplasts and ribosomes, which resemble cells from prokaryotic domains, in eukaryotic cells. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) Endosymbiosis is a theory based on the resemblance of chloroplasts and mitochondria to bacteria. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10) What do a pine tree, an octopus, and a bacterium have in common at the cellular level?
A) nothing in common B) nuclei C) blood supply D) cancerous tissues E) genetic material
11) was
The scientist given credit for first using the term "cell" to describe the basic unit of life
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A) Mathias Schleiden. B) Robert Hooke. C) Carl Woese. D) Rudolf Virchow. E) J. Craig Venter.
12)
Why are cells called "the fundamental unit of life"?
A) All known organisms have one or more cells. B) Earliest life on Earth is hypothesized to have been single-celled. C) Some cells are separate living entities that can survive individually. D) Cells are the smallest unit of life that can function independently. E) All answers are correct.
13)
The scientist(s) given credit for formulating the "cell theory" was (were)
A) Robert Hooke. B) Carl Woese. C) J. Craig Venter. D) Mathias Schleiden and Theodore Schwann. E) Antony van Leeuwenhoek.
14) Which component of the cell theory argues against life on Earth evolving from inorganic molecules?
A) All organisms are made of one or more cells. B) The cell is the fundamental unit of all life. C) All cells come from preexisting cells. D) Cells are small in size. E) All cells are either prokaryotic or eukaryotic.
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15) The scientist given credit for adding the third component to the cell theory, all cells come from preexisting cells, was
A) Robert Hooke. B) Theodor Schwann. C) Rudolf Virchow. D) Carl Woese. E) J. Craig Venter.
16)
The original three components of the cell theory are that
A) all organisms have DNA, DNA is the fundamental unit of life, and all cells come from preexisting cells. B) all organisms are made of one or more cells, the cell is the fundamental unit of life, and all cells come from preexisting cells. C) all organisms have DNA, all organisms are made of cells, and all cells produce proteins. D) all organisms are made of one or more cells, the cell is the fundamental unit of life, and all cells have a nucleus. E) all organisms are made of one or more cells, all cells contain DNA, and all cells come from preexisting cells.
17)
How do cells avoid surface area limitations?
A) all of the choices B) flattened shape C) long and thin shape D) transportation system that circulates materials inside the cell E) many microscopic extensions
18) Which of the following are the primary components of the cell membrane and contribute to its semi-permeability property?
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A) cholesterols B) proteins C) phospholipids D) enzymes E) sugars
19)
A phospholipid molecule
A) has a hydrophilic head that is repelled by water. B) has hydrophilic tails that are repelled by water. C) has a hydrophilic head that is attracted to water. D) has a hydrophobic head that is repelled by water. E) has hydrophobic tails that are attracted to water.
20)
Which of the following is not a characteristic of an animal cell membrane?
A) It has a fluid structure. B) It has a rigid structure. C) It has a fluid mosaic structure. D) It has a bilayer of phospholipids. E) It contains cholesterol.
21) The phospholipid bilayer of membranes allows lipids and small nonpolar molecules to pass across membranes, but prohibits the passage of ions and polar molecules. This occurs because the phospholipid tails are
A) always saturated. B) hydrophilic and hydrophobic. C) always unsaturated. D) hydrophilic and selectively permeable. E) hydrophobic and selectively permeable.
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22)
Eukaryotic cells
A) have cell walls with peptidoglycan. B) are usually smaller than prokaryotic cells. C) have nucleiods. D) have membrane-bound organelles. E) do not usually have a nucleus.
23)
The three domains in the Woese system of classification are
A) Bacteria, Animalia, and Plantae. B) Fungi, Protista, and Animalia. C) Archaea, Eukarya, and Protista. D) Monera, Bacteria, and Eukarya. E) Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya.
24)
The cell wall of bacteria
A) helps prevent the cell from bursting. B) protects the cell. C) gives bacteria distinct shapes. D) may contain a capsule. E) All answers are correct.
25)
Penicillin halts bacterial infections by
A) stimulating a person's immune system. B) damaging the cell membrane. C) interfering with the construction of the cell wall. D) causing the DNA of a bacterium to mutate. E) All answers are correct.
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26) What type of membrane protein is involved in creating anchoring junctions between animal cells?
A) transport proteins B) enzymes C) recognition proteins D) adhesion proteins E) receptor proteins
27) What type of membrane protein is involved in passing ions and polar molecules across membranes?
A) transport proteins B) enzymes C) recognition proteins D) adhesion proteins E) receptor proteins
28)
Which pair of junctions, have the most analogous function?
A) plasmodesmata, gap junction B) plasmodesmata, tight junction C) tight junction, anchoring junction D) gap junction, anchoring junction E) anchoring junction, plasmodesmata
29)
The theory of endosymbiosis is based on
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A) the knowledge that ribosomes are structures found in bacteria, plants, and animals. B) the experiments in which bacteria were grown in plant cells and formedchloroplasts. C) the knowledge that chloroplasts and mitochondria resemble bacteria. D) evidence from the fossil record. E) similarities between chloroplasts and other organelles in animals.
30) Which of the following organelles would help you differentiate between plant and animal cells?
A) a centriole B) a ribosome C) a cell membrane D) a peroxisome E) a chloroplast
31)
The function of the nucleolus is
A) protein synthesis. B) photosynthesis. C) to transport materials out of the nucleus. D) to assemble components of ribosomes. E) to assemble DNA.
32) the
The most prominent organelle in most eukaryotic cells, that contains most of its DNA, is
A) endoplasmic reticulum. B) nucleus. C) ribosome. D) nucleolus. E) cell membrane.
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33) Which of the following roles is not performed by the rough endoplasmic reticulum nor the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
A) protein production B) lipid production C) detoxification of poisons D) DNA production E) vesicle formation for transport to the Golgi apparatus
34) If you asked students to describe the Golgi apparatus on an exam, you would deduct points if a student described it as
A) an organelle. B) a processing center. C) studded with ribosomes. D) a stack of membrane enclosed sacs. E) involved with secretion of cellular components.
35)
In order, the organelles involved in the production of milk are
A) nucleus, nuclear pore, rough ER, smooth ER, transport vesicle, Golgi body, and vesicle for secretion. B) nucleus, smooth ER, rough ER, nuclear pore, transport vesicle, Golgi body, and vesicle for secretion. C) nucleus, transport vesicle, rough ER, smooth ER, Golgi body, and vesicle for secretion. D) nucleus, nuclear pore, Golgi body, rough ER, transport vesicle, smooth ER, and vesicle for secretion. E) None of the answers are correct.
36)
Which of the following are cellular digestion centers?
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A) peroxisomes and ribosomes B) lysosomes and peroxisomes C) ribosomes and chloroplasts D) chloroplasts and ribosomes E) lysosomes and Golgi apparatus
37)
Chloroplasts are known for all of the following except being
A) glucose factories. B) responsible for respiration. C) found in plants. D) organelles that carry out photosynthesis. E) found in some protists.
38)
Mitochondria are known for all of the following except that they do not
A) have their own DNA. B) extract energy from food. C) have two membranes. D) have cristae. E) carry out photosynthesis.
39)
In most mammals, the mitochondrial DNA is inherited from
A) the father only. B) the mother and father. C) either parent. D) the mother only. E) Mitochondria are not found in mammals.
40)
In plant cells, a central vacuole
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A) produces protein. B) degrades molecules and organelles and maintains water pressure. C) produces mRNA. D) stores genetic information. E) produces energy from food.
41)
Which of the following are recycling centers for cells?
A) ribosomes and Golgi apparatus B) endoplasmic reticulum and chloroplasts C) mitochondria and nucleus D) central vacuole and lysosomes E) All answers choices are correct.
42)
A cytoskeleton is
A) a structure that aids in the process of cell division. B) found in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells. C) a system of tracks used for transport. D) composed of microtubules and microfilaments. E) All answers are correct.
43)
Flagella can be
A) found on prokaryotic cells. B) found on human sperm. C) used for movement. D) found on eukaryotic cells. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
44)
A protein channel linking the cytoplasm of adjacent cells is called
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A) a tight junction. B) a gap junction. C) an adhering junction. D) an adjacent junctions. E) a microtubular junction.
45) All eukaryotic cells produce proteins. Proteins that will be secreted from the cell are made by ribosomes attached to the
A) cell wall. B) chloroplast. C) rough endoplasmic reticulum. D) mitochondrion. E) Golgi apparatus.
46) Cells typically keep the surface to volume ratio high. If a cell was a cube and you doubled the height, width, and length of the cell, how much would the surface area increase?
A) 2 times greater B) 4 times greater C) It would stay the same. D) 9 times greater E) 8 times greater
47) Cells typically keep the surface to volume ratio high. If a cell was a cube and you doubled the height, width, and length of the cell, how much would the volume increase?
A) 2 times greater B) 8 times greater C) It would stay the same. D) 9 times greater E) 4 times greater
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48) What would be the reason for a scientist engineering a cell for a high surface area-tovolume ratio?
A) To maximize the relative surface area to exchange nutrients, water, and waste. B) To maximize the exchange of heat. C) To provide more volume to store extra organelles. D) To provide more volume to store nutrients. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
49) What is the advantage of a mature red blood cell having aflattened shaperather than a spherical shape?
A) It is easier for them to fit through arteries and veins. B) It provides more membrane for the electron transport chains where oxygen is consumed. C) It provides more receptor sites for the membrane-bound hemoglobin molecules which transport oxygen. D) It saves energy by making more membrane relative to the volume of the cell. E) It maximizes the relative surface area for gas exchange.
50) Eukaryotic cells are 10-100 times larger than prokaryotic cells. How do eukaryotic cells resolve the surface area to volume limitations that favor smaller cells?
A) They have pumps that move gasses and nutrients through the cell. B) Movement of materials is prevented in cells without a cell wall. C) Organelles keep reactions compartmentalized and concentrated. D) Gasses are taken up by active transport. E) None of the biochemical reactions in prokaryotes occur in eukaryotes.
51) You discover a new life form, and study it under an electron microscope. You find that it has no organelles, a peptidoglycan cell wall, and fatty acids in its plasma membrane. You conclude that the new life form is in domain
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A) Bacteria. B) Archaea. C) Eukarya. D) Protista. E) Animalia.
52)
Which of the following do plants use to transport nutrients between adjacent cells?
A) tight junction B) gap junction C) plasmodesmata D) anchoring junction E) cell wall
53) You are working on a forensics team and collect cells from a crime scene. The cells have a cell wall made of cellulose. This sample most likely came from
A) an animal. B) a bacterium. C) a plant. D) a fungus. E) an archaean.
54) What type of microscope would you use if you wanted to examine the movement of a freshwater protist?
A) light microscope B) transmission electron microscope C) scanning electron microscope D) light microscope and transmission electron microscope E) transmission and scanning electron microscopes
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55) Unlike microtubules, which operate in the cilia and flagella, what is the role of microfilaments in eukaryotic cells?
A) a component of the cytoskeleton B) provide strength during cell stretching and compression C) anchor cells to each other D) involved in muscle contractions with myosin protein E) All of the answers choices are correct.
56)
Bacteria with magnetosomes swim based on the direction of the
A) magnetic fields. B) gravity. C) sunlight. D) moving water. E) turbulence.
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Answer Key Test name: ch 3 1) TRUE Please see sections 3.1 and 3.6 for more information. 2) TRUE Please see section 3.6 for more information. 3) TRUE Tight junctions are used by tissues like those lining the intestines to hold fluid in one space. Please see section 3.6 for more information. 4) TRUE Some prokaryotic cells have internal membranes containing minerals used in detecting magnetic fields. Please see the Investigating Life box for more information. 5) TRUE Some prokaryotic cells have internal membranes containing minerals used in detecting magnetic fields. Please see the Investigating Life box for more information. 6) FALSE Some prokaryotic cells have internal membranes containing minerals used in detecting magnetic fields. Please see the Investigating Life box for more information. 7) TRUE The eukaryotic cytoskeleton consists of three parts. Please see section 3.5 for more information. 8) FALSE Version 1
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Endosymbiosis is based on the idea that eukaryotes took up prokaryotes, but ribosomes are not derived from prokaryotic cells. Please see section 3.4 for more information. 9) TRUE Endosymbiosis occurred when bacteria were taken up by eukaryotic cells, which turned them into chloroplasts and mitochondria. Please see section 3.4 for more information. 10) E All living things are made of cells. Please see sections 3.1 and 3.2 for more information. 11) B Hooke observed small box-like structures in pieces of cork, which he termed "cells". Please see Section 3.1 for more information. 12) E All living things contain at at least one cell, while many contain a large number of cells. Please see section 3.1 for more information. 13) D Schleiden and Schwann observed a large number of cells from various organisms, leading to the idea that all life is made of cells, which are the fundamental unit of life. Please see section 3.1 for more information. 14) C If all cells that ever existed came from prexisting cells, then life cannot have come from inorganic molecules. Please see section 3.1 for more information. 15) C Virchow modified Schleiden and Schwann's theory. Please see section 3.1 for more information. Version 1
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16) B The original cell theory was formulated with three tenets in the 1800s. Please see section 3.1 for more information. 17) A Surface area considerations govern the shape and function of many cells. Please see section 3.1 for more information. 18) C Phospholipids bond together to form hydrophobic barriers. Please see section 3.3 for more information. 19) C The water-loving head groups of phospholipids form a bridge between water and the hydrophobic interior of membranes. Please see section 3.3 for more information. 20) B The cell membane is a liquid and is thus flexible. Please see section 3.3 for more information. 21) E Selective permeability means that some but not all molecules can pass through due to the hydrophobic nature of the interior of the membrane. Please see section 3.3 for more information. 22) D Eukaryotic cells are unlike prokaryotic cells in part because they have membrane-bound organelles. Please see section 3.2 for more information. 23) E
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Woese separated the bacteria and archaea based on biochemical data, and those two had long been seen as separate from the eukarya. Please see section 3.2 for more information. 24) E The cell wall of the bacterium is rigid, providing the overall shape of the cell. Please see section 3.2 for more information. 25) C Antibiotics sometimes kill bacteria by inhibiting a critical cellular process like wall synthesis. Please see section 3.2 for more information. 26) D Membrane proteins are critical for the junctions which attach animal cells to one another and to other objects. Please see sections 3.3 and 3.6 for more information. 27) A Ions need help in crossing membranes since their charged nature keeps them from passing unassisted through the hydrophobic interior of the membrane. Please see section 3.3 for more information. 28) A Gap junctions and plasmodesmata both create pores between adjacent cells. Please see section 3.6 for more information. 29) C Mitochondria and chloroplasts are the two organelles believed to have originated by endosymbiosis. Please see section 3.4 for more information. 30) E Chloroplasts are found only in plants and some plant-like members of the protists. Please see section 3.4 for more information. Version 1
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31) D The nucleolus is the site of rRNA synthesis and ribosome assembly. Please see section 3.4 for more information. 32) B The nucleus is quite large compared to most other eukaryotic organelles. Please see section 3.4 for more information. 33) D The endoplasmic reticulum normally has nothing directly to do with DNA. Please see section 3.4 for more information. 34) C The Golgi apparatus performs several functions, not including protein synthesis, which would involve ribosomes in its structure. Please see section 3.4 for more information. 35) A Milk production involves the synthesis of proteins and lipids; thus, the organelles involved are those for the production and secretion of proteins. Please see section 3.4 and figure 3.11 for more information. 36) B Eukaryotic cells have multiple compartments where molecules can be digested. Please see section 3.4 for more information. 37) B Chloroplasts perform photosynthesis, not cellular respiration. Please see section 3.4 for more information. 38) E Mitochondria perform cellular respiration, not photosynthesis. Please see section 3.4 for more information.
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39) D Mitochondria are responsible for non-Mendelian, maternal inheritance. Please see section 3.4 for more information. 40) B The central vacuole of a plant cell serves foe both storage and digestion. Please see section 3.4 for more information. 41) D The lysosome digests for animal cells, while the central vacuole performs this function for plant cells. Please see section 3.4 for more information. 42) E The functions of the cyoskeleton generally involve some kind of motion. Please see section 3.5 for more information. 43) E Flagella are found in some prokaryotes and eukaryotes to provide movement. Please see section 3.5 for more information. 44) B Gap junctions form small open connections between animal cells for the purpose of communication. Please see section 3.6 for more information. 45) C Ribosomes stud the rough endoplasmic reticulum for the synthesis of proteins found inside membrane-bound compartments. Please see section 3.4 for more information. 46) B Surface area generally increases more slowly than volume when shape stays the same. Please see section 3.1 for more information.
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47) B Volume increases more quickly than surface area, given no change in shape. Please see section 3.1 for more information. 48) A In nature, cells with abundant surface area for their total volume are often involved in doing alot of transport. Please see section 3.1 for more information. 49) E The high surface area-to-volume ratio of red blood cells makes them ideal for their job during gas exchange. Please see section 3.1 for more information. 50) C The internal compartments of eukaryotic cells provide needed internal surface area. Please see section 3.1 for more information. 51) A The prokaryotic domains require an electron microscope for viewing details of the structure of their cells. Please see section 3.2 and refer to figure 3.4 for more information. 52) C Plant cells are connected by open plasmodesmata, which provide rapid transport between the cells. Please see section 3.6 for more information. 53) C Only plants and a few protists make their cell walls out of cellulose. Please see section 3.6 for more information. 54) A Protists are large enough to view comfortably with a light microscope. Please see section 3.1 for more information.
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55) E Mircofilaments are found in the cytoplasm doing various jobs, while only microtubules operate in the cilia and flagella. Please see section 3.5 for more information. 56) A The new discovery of bacteria with internal membranes involves detection of magnetism. Please see the Investigating Life box for more information.
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Redox reactions involve the loss of an electron by an electron donor, and a gain of an electron by an electron acceptor. ⊚ ⊚
2)
true false
Enzymes speed up chemical reactions. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) When the concentration gradient driving osmosis becomes larger, osmosis occurs at a faster rate. ⊚ ⊚
4)
Reactions that take up energy proceed spontaneously. ⊚ ⊚
5)
true false
Diffusion occurs against concentration gradients. ⊚ ⊚
6)
true false
true false
Potential energy is the energy of motion. ⊚ ⊚
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true false
1
7) In photosynthesis, potential energy in the bonds of sugars is converted into kinetic energy. ⊚ ⊚
8)
true false
Energy sometimes appears spontaneously in living systems. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) Whenever ATP is produced by a chemical reaction some energy is lost into the surroundings as heat. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) Reactions that break down substrates do not release any energy because enzymes are used. ⊚ ⊚
11)
Oxidation is the loss of electrons. ⊚ ⊚
12)
true false
true false
Reduction is the gain of electrons. ⊚ ⊚
true false
13) The most common way for energy-absorbing reactions to be powered in cells is for them to be coupled with the breakdown of ATP.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
14) Some antibiotics target enzymes specific to bacteria. Some work by binding to the active site and; therefore, act as noncompetitive inhibitors. ⊚ ⊚
15)
true false
Phagocytosis is the process used by cells to bring in small amounts of fluid. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 16) A ball at the top of a hill is an example of ______ and a ball rolling down the hill is an example of ______.
A) potential energy; kinetic energy B) kinetic energy; potential energy C) exergonic reaction; endergonic reaction D) noncompetitive inhibition; competitive inhibition E) competitive inhibition; noncompetitive inhibition
17) The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of one gram of water by one degree Celsius is a
A) calorie. B) joule. C) kilocalorie. D) measure of density. E) measure of light.
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18)
Examples of potential energy include
A) chemical bonds and concentration gradients. B) light and chemical bonds. C) quartz crystals vibrating in a wristwatch. D) soil heated by sunlight. E) light and the motion of a muscle.
19)
Which statement is not directly connected with the law about energy being conserved?
A) The amount of energy in the universe is constant. B) Energy cannot be created or destroyed. C) Energy can be converted to other forms of energy. D) Any energy transformation loses some energy to its surroundings as heat. E) None of the answers are correct.
20)
In which case is the energy involved farthest from being kinetic energy?
A) heat B) light C) sound D) the energy in chemical bonds E) random molecular movement
21)
Entropy is a measurement of
A) order. B) complexity. C) disorder. D) organizing potential. E) None of the answer choices are correct.
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22)
Cells use energy for which of the following?
A) to do work B) to synthesize proteins C) to expel waste D) to move substances across membranes E) All of the answer choices are correct.
23)
The chemical formula for glucose is
A) C 6H 6O 6. B) C12H6O12. C) C12H22O11. D) C6H6O12. E) C6H12O6.
24)
The energy source that powers photosynthesis is
A) water. B) glucose. C) carbon dioxide. D) sunlight. E) oxygen.
25)
The reactants of photosynthesis are
A) water and carbon dioxide. B) organic compounds. C) glucose and water. D) glucose and carbon dioxide. E) glucose and sunlight.
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26) If you were looking for a card describing the breakdown of glucose to carbon dioxide and water, you would look in a drawer labelled with what information?
A) takes up energy, photosynthesis B) takes up energy, cellular respiration C) releases energy, photosynthesis D) releases energy, cellular respiration E) No answer is correct
27) When NaCl (table salt) forms, sodium (Na) loses energy by ______ and chlorine (Cl) gains energy by______.
A) giving up an electron in oxidation; gaining an electron in reduction B) going with its concentration gradient; going against its concentration gradient C) going against its concentration gradient; going with its concentration gradient D) gaining an electron in oxidation; by giving upan electron in reduction E) gaining an electron in reduction; giving up an electron in oxidation
28)
Oxidation-reduction reactions
A) transfer electrons from one molecule to another. B) are not used by living cells. C) transfer protons from one molecule to another. D) reduce the amount of oxygen in the cell. E) increase the amount of oxygen in the cell.
29)
Oxidation is
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A) the gain of oxygen by a cell. B) the loss of electrons from an atom ormolecule. C) the loss of oxygen from a cell. D) the gain of electrons by an atom ormolecule. E) the loss of protons by an atom ormolecule.
30)
Reduction is
A) the gain of oxygen by a cell. B) the loss of oxygen from a cell. C) the gain of electrons by an atom ormolecule. D) the loss of electrons by an atom ormolecule. E) the loss of protons by an atom ormolecule.
31) If you had to grade an exam question about oxidation-reduction reactions, you would give the most points if a student said that they
A) never occur at the same time. B) remove electrons from both molecules involved. C) remove protons from one molecule and join them to another molecule. D) occur simultaneously. E) remove oxygen from the cell.
32) Enzymes speed up reactions by lowering the activation energy of a reaction. This is analogous with
A) reducing the force a ball needs to start rolling down a hill. B) increasing the height an apple will fall from a tree. C) blocking a flowing river with a dam to stop the flow. D) causing a snow storm in the middle of summer when temperatures are hot. E) All answers are correct.
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33)
In most cases, the chemical structure of enzymes represents a(an)
A) carbohydrate. B) lipid. C) ion. D) protein. E) inorganic molecule.
34)
Enzymes speed chemical reactions by
A) lowering the amount of reactants that are needed. B) maintaining temperature. C) lowering the energy required to start a chemical reaction. D) raising the temperature of the surroundings. E) supplying energy to the reaction process.
35)
The area on the enzyme where the substrate binds is called
A) an active site. B) a binding pocket. C) a reaction site. D) a catalyst site. E) an analog.
36)
Competitive inhibition of enzymes occurs
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A) when a substance other than the correct substrate binds at the active site of an enzyme. B) when a substance binds to an enzyme at a site away from the active site. C) by denaturation of an enzyme. D) by blocking the production of an enzyme. E) when two enzymes bind together.
37)
Noncompetitive inhibition of enzymes occurs
A) when a substance other than the correct substrate binds at the active site of an enzyme. B) when a substance binds to an enzyme at a site away from the active site. C) by denaturation of an enzyme. D) by blocking the production of an enzyme. E) when two enzymes bind together.
38)
Simple diffusion
A) requires energy. B) utilizes proteins to move molecules across a membrane. C) moves molecules against a concentration gradient. D) cannot occur without a membrane present. E) does not require energy.
39)
The diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane is
A) facilitated diffusion. B) active transport. C) a rare occurrence. D) osmosis. E) always beneficial to a cell.
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40) If a cell contains 95% water in its cytoplasm and the environment surrounding the cell contains 90% water will flow
A) into the cell by osmosis. B) out of the cell by active transport. C) out of the cell by osmosis. D) into the cell by active transport. E) into the cell by facilitated diffusion.
41)
Which of the following statements is incorrect about turgor pressure?
A) It occursin organisms with cell walls when placed into a hypertonic environment. B) It is necessary to keep plants from wilting. C) It is theforce of water against the inside of the cell wall. D) It is maintained byosmosis. E) It occurs organisms with cell walls when placed into a hypotonic environment.
42)
Active transport is different from simple diffusion because active transport
A) requires energy. B) moves molecules against a concentration gradient. C) requires the use of proteins embedded within the cell membrane. D) moves molecules from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration. E) All answers are correct.
43)
Phagocytosis is an example of
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A) exocytosis. B) passive transport. C) simple diffusion. D) endocytosis. E) facilitated diffusion.
44)
Which of the following are examples of potential energy?
A) electrons moving through the electron transport chain, proton gradient B) electrons in chemical bonds, proton gradient, ATP C) protons moving through ATP synthase, ATP D) electrons moving through the electron transport chain, and protons moving through ATP synthase E) All answer choices are correct.
45)
Which of the following are examples of kinetic energy?
A) electrons moving through the electron transport chain, protons moving through ATP synthase B) electrons in chemical bonds, proton gradient, ATP C) electrons moving through the electron transport chain, proton gradient D) protons moving through ATP synthase, ATP E) All answer choices are correct.
46)
When electrons are removed from a food molecule,the moleculeis
A) reduced. B) in equilibrium. C) oxidized. D) polymerized. E) conducting an endergonic reaction.
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47) If you drop a rubber ball and it does not bounce back to the height you dropped it from. This is consistent with
A) conversion of entropy into potential energy. B) energy being neither created nor destroyed. C) conversion of kinetic energy into potential energy. D) conversion of kinetic energy into entropy. E) the tendency to increase disorder.
48) The wood in a match is made of cellulose, a polymer of glucose molecules. When you light the match heat and light are given off, indicating that a(n) ________ reaction is occurring.
A) endergonic B) kinetic energy C) exergonic D) potential energy E) equilibrium
49) Plants require energy fromlight to perform photosynthesis in which glucose is formed from carbon dioxide and water. This is an example of
A) a process that releases energy. B) kinetic energy. C) a process that takes up energy. D) potential energy. E) equilibrium.
50) The CFTR receptor moves chloride ions out of a cell by active transport. This is an example of
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A) a reaction coupled with the production of ATP. B) an oxidation reaction. C) a reduction reaction. D) a reaction requiring the input of ATP. E) equilibrium.
51) ADP
After ATP donates a phosphate groupto a coupled reaction, thenit becomes ADP. The
A) can be recharged with the release of energy to form ATP. B) is a waste product that will be broken down. C) can be recharged in an equilibrium reaction to form ATP. D) can be recharged in an oxidation reaction to form ATP. E) can be recharged with the uptake of energy to form ATP.
52) A bowl of sugar water is very stable. If you feed it to cells it is rapidly broken down into carbon dioxide, water, and ATP. What is the best explanation for this reaction?
A) Enzymes in the cells catalyze the breakdown of the glucose. B) Cells use energy to break down the glucose. C) Glucose becomes more chemically reactive inside of cells. D) Glucose cannot be broken down outside of cells. E) Glucose is removed from the cells by active transport.
53) If a drug is designed to denature enzymes involved in digesting phenylalanine, why would patients treated with this drug develop phenylketonuria?
A) They lack an enzyme to break down phenylalanine. B) They lack an enzyme to produce phenylalanine. C) They produce too much phenylalanine. D) They lack an inhibitor of an enzyme to break down phenylalanine. E) They eat more phenylalanine than most people.
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54) Changes in the tide level can cover plants and animals that would usually not be covered by seawater. The exposure to seawater would result in the cells
A) bursting by osmosis of water. B) dehydrating by facilitated diffusion of salts. C) dehydrating by osmosis of water. D) bursting by active transport of salts. E) dehydrating by active transport of salts.
55) If a lion eats a gazelle, before the molecules have been broken down by its cells, the lion has gained
A) potential energy. B) kinetic energy. C) entropy. D) respiratory capacity. E) enzymes for digesting grass.
56)
Dye placed at one end of a beaker of otherwise pure water will
A) diffuse towards the other side. B) remain in place. C) slowly bleach. D) form crystals. E) No answer is correct.
57) In the section "Investigating Life: Does Natural Selection Maintain Cystic Fibrosis?," why does water leave the cellby osmosis after the active transport of chloride ions out of the cell by CFTR?
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A) The cell is now in a hypertonic solution. B) The cell is now in a hypotonic solution. C) The cell is now in an isotonic solution. D) The cell needs to regenerate the ATP used in active transport. E) The cell must pump out water to avoid bursting.
58) In the section "Investigating Life: Does Natural Selection Maintain Cystic Fibrosis?," those with the genetic mutation in the protein are resistant to cholera infections. What did the scientists hypothesize about the relationship between cysticfibrosis and cholera resistance?
A) Carriers with one copy of the defective CFTR gene have decreased resistance to cholera compared to those with no defective copies. B) These individuals were exposed to cholera, causing mutations in their CFTR gene that can then be passed on to their children. C) Carriers will be more likely to have children who develop cystic fibrosis. D) Carriers with one copy of the defective CFTR gene have increased resistance to cholera compared to those with no defective copies. E) Only carriers would be able to survive exposure to cholera.
59) In the section "Investigating Life: Does Natural Selection Maintain Cystic Fibrosis?," which infection did researchers hypothesize that the CFTR protected cystic fibrosis patients against?
A) pneumonia B) malaria C) staph D) strep throat E) cholera
60) Studies of fireflies show that as they produce light, they constantly recycle ATP. Why might this be?
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A) ATP breakdown releases light. B) ATP is light-sensitive. C) ATP powers light production in fireflies. D) Fireflies need ATP for other processes. E) No answer is correct.
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.
61)
61.1)
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A) temperature ranges are not the same for all enzyme activity. B) temperature is not related to enzyme efficiency. C) optimal temperature ranges are the same for all enzymes. D) pH is not related to enzyme efficiency. E) All answers are correct.
61.2)
The vertical drop slightly after the peak of each curve on the figure illustrates
A) that enzymes will not work if temperatures are too hot (or too cold). B) an increased rate of reaction. C) a decreased temperature. D) that temperatures only affect enzymes up to a specific temperature. E) that enzymes are most efficient at cold temperatures.
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Answer Key Test name: ch 4 1) TRUE Redox stands for oxidation-reduction. To understand more about the process, see section 4.2. 2) TRUE Enzymes speed chemical reactions without themselves being used up in the reactions. Please see section 4.4 for more information. 3) TRUE A larger concentration gradient makes for a larger driving force and faster diffusion. Please see section 4.5 for more information. 4) FALSE Reactions which release energy are spontaneous on their own. Please see section 4.2 for more information. 5) FALSE Diffusion occurs down, or with, concentration gradients. Please see section 4.5 for more information. 6) FALSE Potential energy is stored energy, while the energy of motion is kinetic energy. Please see section 4.1 for more information. 7) FALSE In photosynthesis, kinetic energy in sunlight is converted into potential energy stored in the chemical bonds of sugars. 8) FALSE
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Energy in living systems must be captured from a source, living or nonliving. Please see section 4.1 for more information. 9) TRUE Any energy transfers in the physical universe, including those in living things, involve some loss of useful energy, some increase in entropy. Please see sections 4.1 and 4.3 for more information. 10) FALSE Please see sections 4.2 and 4.4 for more information. 11) TRUE Oxidized molecules have lost some of their electrons. Please see section 4.2 for more information. 12) TRUE Reduced molecules are those that have gained electrons in redox reaction. Please see section 4.2 for more information. 13) TRUE The breakdown of ATP provides ample energy to power many cellular processes. Please see section 4.3 for more information. 14) FALSE To differentiate between competitive and non-competitive inhibition please see section 4.4. 15) FALSE Pinocytosis is used to uptake fluids and dissolved substances. Please see section 4.5 for more information. 16) A
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Potential energy is energy which may be used for some purpose, while kinetic energy is the energy of motion. Please see section 4.1 for more information. 17) A Calories are a measure of energy related to heating potential. Kilocalories are the units commonly used to describe the energy in food. Please see section 4.1 for more information. 18) A Living things have potential energy stored in chemical bonds and in gradients, such as proton gradients in mitochondria. Please see section 4.1 for more information. 19) D Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. Please see section 4.1 for more information. 20) D Chemical bond energy may have come from some kind of kinetic energy, but it is not itself kinetic energy. Please see section 4.1 for more information. 21) C Entropy is a measure of disorder and randomness. Please see section 4.1 for more information. 22) E Cells use energy to power all of their basic functions. Please see section 4.1 for more information. 23) E Glucose is a six carbon sugar. Please see section 4.2 for more information. Version 1
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24) D The name "photosynthesis" literally means "to build up with light." Please see section 4.2 for more information. 25) A In photosynthesis, water and carbon dioxide are converted into oxygen gas and glucose. Please see section 4.2 for more information. 26) D Glucose contains a large amount of energy in its chemical bonds, energy which is released by cellular respiration. Please see section 4.2 and figure 4.4 for more information. 27) A Read section 4.2 and see figure 4.5 for more information on redox reactions. 28) A Redox reactions involve the transfer of electrons. Please see section 4.2 for more information. 29) B Oxidation involves loss of control of electrons. Please see section 4.2 for more information. 30) C Reduction is the gain of electrons by atoms or molecules. Please see section 4.2 for more information. 31) D Reduction and oxidation occur in the same reaction, thus the term "redox." Please see section 4.2 for more information. 32) A
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Enzymes' shapes help lower the energy needed to start reactions. Please see section 4.4 and figure 4.11 for more information. 33) D Enzymes in nature are almost always proteins. Please see section 4.4 for more information. 34) C Enzymes have specific shapes into which reactants fit. Please see section 4.4 for more information. 35) A The active site of an enzyme is where the reaction occurs. Please see section 4.4 and figure 4.11 for more information. 36) A Competitive inhibitors compete with proper substrates for the active site. Please see section 4.4 and figure 4.12 for more information. 37) B Noncompetitive inhibitors bind at a site other than at the enzyme's active site. Please see section 4.4 and figure 4.12 for more information. 38) E Simple diffusion does not require any energy input. Please see section 4.5 and figure 4.14 for more information. 39) D When water moves down its concentration gradient across a selectively permeable membrane, it is called osmosis. Please see section 4.5 and figure 4.15 for more information. 40) C
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Water, like other substances, will move down a concentration gradient. Please see section 4.5 and figure 4.15 for more information. 41) A Turgor pressure occurs when enough water is taken up by cells with cell walls that the cellular contents are pressurized and push against the wall. Please see section 4.5 for more information. 42) E Active transport requires an input of energy and results in the creation of a concentration gradient. Please see section 4.5 for more information. 43) D Phagocytosis literally means "cell eating." Please see section 4.5 for more information. 44) B Potential energy is stored energy which may be used later. Please see section 4.1 for more information. 45) A Kinetic energy is the energy of motion. Please see section 4.1 for more information. 46) C Loss of control of electrons, as when they are removed, is oxidation. Please see sections 4.1 and 4.2 and figure 4.5 for more information. 47) E Disorder, randomness, tends to increase in systems. Please see section 4.1 for more information. 48) C
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Exergonic reactions release energy in the process. Please see section 4.2 for more information. 49) C Photosynthesis puts the energy from absorbed light into the energy in chemical bonds. Please see section 4.2 for more information. 50) D ATP powers most reactions in cells where the reaction would otherwise not be spontaneous. Please see section 4.3 for more information. 51) E ATP is recharged by adding phosphate to ADP, adding energy at the same time. Please see section 4.3 and figure 4.10 for more information. 52) A Enzymes speed the breakdown of glucose inside cells. Please see sections 4.1 and 4.4 for more information. 53) A PKU results when phenylalanine cannot be properly and safely broken down. Please see the Why We Care section in 4.4 for more information. 54) C At high tide, cells would be covered with seawater, which would tend to draw out water from them by osmosis. Please see section 4.5 for more information. 55) A The energy in a meal of gazelle is potential energy. Please see section 4.1 for more information. 56) A
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Dye will diffuse from where it is in high concentration out into pure water, where it is at low (zero) concentration to start. Please see section 4.5 for more information. 57) A Please see section 4.5 and the Investigating Life section in this chapter. 58) D Please read the Investigating Life and section 4.5 in this chapter for more information. 59) E Please see the Investigating Life and section 4.5 in this chapter for more information. 60) C ATP is used to power the light-producing reactions in fireflies. Please see section 4.3 for more information. 61) Section Break 61.1) A The two organisms shown live and do biological work at different temperatures. Please see section 4.4 for more information. 61.2) A Enzymes are designed to work at temperatures which correspond with temperatures experienced by the organisms in which those enzymes are found. Please see section 4.4 for more information.
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The light reactions produce ATP, while the carbon reactions consume it. ⊚ ⊚
2)
The carbon reactions produce NADPH, while the light reactions consume it. ⊚ ⊚
3)
true false
The carbon reactions can run on their own without the products of the light reactions. ⊚ ⊚
5)
true false
The light reactions provide energy to fuel the carbon reactions to produce carbohydrates. ⊚ ⊚
4)
true false
true false
Most biologists agree that the light reactions are less important than the carbon reactions. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) If oxygen could be traced, the oxygen in the water in a leaf would end up in carbohydrates after photosynthesis. ⊚ ⊚
7)
true false
Plants need water to fill their cells and to perform the light reactions.
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⊚ ⊚
8)
true false
Water interacts with the machinery in photosystem II during the photosynthesis. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) Electrons from water are used to replenish those removed from chlorophyll during the light reactions. ⊚ ⊚
10)
true false
The carbon reactions produce ATP and NADPH. ⊚ ⊚
true false
11) For many plantsto grow well in hot, dry weather, they must be watered so their stomata will remain open for longer periods of time to let inoxygen. ⊚ ⊚
12)
true false
Green and yellow wavelengths of light are used to power photosynthesis. ⊚ ⊚
true false
13) Biologists consider photosynthesis to be the most important metabolic process because without it, there would be no CO 2 in the atmosphere. ⊚ ⊚
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true false
2
14)
Without photosynthesis, autotrophs would be more abundant. ⊚ ⊚
true false
15) Rubisco catalyzes the fixation of CO Calvin cycle. ⊚ ⊚
2 with ribulose bisphosphate in the first step of the
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 16) Of the following organisms, which one does not use photosynthesis to convert CO 2 and water into glucose?
A) algae B) oak trees C) humans D) some bacteria E) a flowering plant
17)
Photosynthesis
A) is not dependent on chlorophyll. B) does not involve oxidation-reduction reactions. C) produces water and carbon dioxide. D) produces glucose and oxygen. E) No answer is correct.
18)
The reactions of photosynthesis aresummarized as
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A) 6CO 2+ 6H 2O C 6H 12O 6+ 6O 2. B) 6CO + 6H 2O C 6H 12O 6+ 6H 2O. C) 12CO 2+ 6H 2O C 12H 12O 6+ 6H 2O. D) 6CO + 6H 2O C 6H 12O 6+ 6O 2. E) No answer is correct.
19) Reactants in a chemical reaction are the molecules that are assembled together or broken down to form products. The reactants in photosynthesis are
A) oxygen and glucose. B) water and carbon dioxide. C) chlorophyll and oxygen. D) glucose and water. E) glucose and oxygen.
20)
The main product of photosynthesis used by plants for food is
A) carbohydrate. B) oxygen. C) carbon dioxide. D) chlorophyll. E) sunlight.
21) Photosynthesis provides _____ in the atmosphere that support(s) much of the life on earth.
A) organic compounds B) carbon dioxide C) chlorophyll D) oxygen E) sunlight
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22)
The primary pigment molecule needed for photosynthesis is
A) sunlight. B) oxygen. C) carbon dioxide. D) glucose. E) chlorophyll a.
23)
The energy source for photosynthesis is
A) oxygen. B) sunlight. C) carbon dioxide. D) chlorophyll. E) glucose.
24)
Which does not usually increase in overall abundance as a result of photosynthesis?
A) nitrogen B) glucose C) sunlight D) ATP E) oxygen
25)
Organisms that gain energy by consuming preexisting organic molecules are called
A) heterotrophs. B) autotrophs. C) animorphs. D) plants. E) None of the answer choices are correct.
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26)
Organisms that make their own organic compounds from inorganic substances are called
A) animals. B) animorphs. C) heterotrophs. D) autotrophs. E) None of the answer choices are correct.
27) If you were asked to sort cards into drawers, a drawer marked "Packets of Light" would receive cards referring to
A) photons. B) protons. C) electrons. D) lasers. E) grana.
28)
In algae and plants, photosynthesis takes place in the
A) chloroplast. B) mitochondrion. C) ribosome. D) nucleus. E) lysosome.
29)
The _____, in the chloroplast, contains photosynthetic pigments in its membrane.
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A) granum B) mesophyll C) chlorophyll D) thylakoid E) stroma
30) What is the gelatinous matrix inside chloroplasts thatcontains ribosomes, DNA, and enzymes?
A) granum B) chlorophyll C) thylakoid D) stroma E) mitochondria
31)
Examples of photosynthetic accessory pigments are
A) chlorophyll b and carotenoids. B) chlorophyll a and carotenoids. C) chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b. D) carotenoids and DNA. E) chlorophyll b and DNA.
32)
Leaves of many plants change colors in the fall because
A) the cooler weather causes plants to produce more of the photosyntheticaccessory pigments. B) chlorophyll in the leaves degrades with shorter days and cooler temperatures. C) the decrease indaylight hours causes the plant to produce more of the photosynthetic accessory pigments. D) the plants produce more chlorophyll. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
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33) Sunlight is the energy source for the light reactions. The energy sources forthe carbon reactions are
A) ATP and carbon dioxide. B) NADPH and carbon dioxide. C) NADPH and ATP. D) ATP and oxygen. E) NADPH and oxygen.
34)
What is released at each step of an electron transport chain?
A) ultraviolet wavelengths B) electrons C) photons D) energy E) All answers are correct.
35)
Electrons excited in photosystem II help the chloroplast produce
A) water. B) NADPH. C) glucose. D) NADH. E) ATP.
36)
The product of photosystem I is
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A) NADPH. B) ATP. C) glucose. D) water. E) NADH.
37)
Photosystem I and photosystem II are part of
A) the light reactions and the carbon reactions. B) the light reactions only. C) the light reactions and respiration. D) the carbon reactions only. E) respiration.
38)
Herbicides may kill plants by
A) blocking carotenoid synthesis. B) blocking electron flow in photosystem II. C) diverting electrons away from photosystem I. D) interfering with amino acid synthesis. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
39)
The main product of the carbon reactions is
A) oxygen. B) NADPH. C) carbon dioxide. D) a carbohydrate. E) ATP.
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40) Tiny openings in the epidermis of the leaf that allow plants to exchange gases with the atmosphere are called
A) thylakoids. B) pigments. C) stomata (singular: stoma). D) grana (singular: granum). E) thylakoid spaces.
41) If you were placing orders for experiments with rubisco, you would need ribulose bisphosphate and what other molecule to conduct the experiments?
A) glucose B) ATP C) carbon monoxide D) organic compounds E) carbon dioxide
42)
The Calvin cycle is a
A) cyclic pathway that produces three-carbon carbohydrates from CO 2. B) linear pathway that produces three-carbon carbohydrates from CO 2. C) cyclic pathway that produces ATP and NADPH. D) linear pathway that produces ATP and NADPH. E) cyclic pathway that produces ATP and three-carbon carbohydrates from CO 2.
43) If you were conducting research on the functioning of a stoma (plural: stomata) to suit your awake-at-night personality, with which plants would you choose to work?
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A) CAM B) C 3 C) C 4 D) CAM or C 3 E) C 3 or C 4
44)
Which plants are best suited to cool, wet conditions?
A) C 4 B) C 3 C) CAM D) All types are equally suited.
45)
In photosynthesis, the carbon in CO
2 is _____ to form glucose.
A) respired B) oxidized C) reduced D) energized E) broken down
46)
In photosynthesis, the oxygen atoms in H
2O are
A) energized. B) reduced. C) reformed into other elements. D) oxidized. E) broken down.
47) The carbon atoms in the cellulose of a woodlog originally came from _____ absorbed by the plant.
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A) glucose B) carbon dioxide C) nutrients in the soil D) water E) oxygen
48) Burning wood is a reverse reaction of photosynthesis. Knowing this, what products would be formed?
A) carbon dioxide and water B) glucose and oxygen C) oxygen and carbon dioxide D) oxygen and water E) carbon dioxide and glucose
49)
How do C
4 plants minimize photorespiration?
A) Stomata are open onlyat night and oxygen isstored in afour-carbon compound. B) The light reactions and the carbon reactions occur in different cells, so CO 2 does not come into contact with rubisco. C) Stomata are open onlyat night and CO 2 isstored in a four-carbon compound. D) The light reactions and thecarbon reactions occur in different cells, so that high levels of CO 2 are always around rubisco. E) None of the answer choices are correct.
50)
How do CAM plants minimize photorespiration?
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A) The light reactions and thecarbon reactions occur in different cells, so carbon dioxide does not come into contact with rubisco. B) The light reactions and thecarbon reactions occur in different cells, so oxygen does not come into contact with rubisco. C) Stomata are open onlyat night and oxygen isstored in a four-carbon compound. During the day the carbon dioxide is released for photosynthesis. D) Stomata are open onlyat night and carbon dioxideisstored in a four-carbon compound. During the day the carbon dioxideis released for photosynthesis. E) None of the answer choices are correct.
51)
Which of the following occurs as a result of splitting a water molecule in photosystem II?
A) O 2 is produced that can be released by the cell. B) O 2 is produced that can be used by the plant in respiration. C) Protons are released to assist in the electron transport chain. D) Electrons are released to assist in the electron transport chain. E) All answer choices are correct.
52)
How would Earth be differentwithout photosynthesis?
A) The amount of oxygen in the atmosphere would be lower. B) Heterotrophs would have fewer food sources. C) There would be destruction to the food web. D) More sunlight would be absorbed and converted to environmental heat. E) All answers are correct.
53) If you were planning to extract chlorophyll from an oak tree, what would be the best starting material?
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A) leaves B) bark C) roots D) stems E) None of the answer choices are correct.
54)
Why are accessory pigments necessary in photosystems?
A) They capture a wider spectrum of wavelengths of light. B) They donate electrons to the reaction center. C) They split water into hydrogen ions and oxygen. D) They conduct the carbon reactions of photosynthesis. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
55)
The light reactions harvest_____, while the carbon reactions produce _____.
A) energy;carbohydrates B) energy;phosphate C) phosphate;carbohydrates D) energy; nucleic acids E) lipids; nucleic acids
56) What is produced in the light reactions that is used in the carbon reactions of photosynthesis?
A) ATP and NADPH B) ADP and NADP + C) carbon dioxide and oxygen D) water and glucose E) oxygen and glucose
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Answer Key Test name: ch 5 1) TRUE The light reactions produce ATP at photosystem II, while this is used in the carbon reactions for fixing and reducing carbon. Please see section 5.4 for more information. 2) FALSE The light reactions produce ATP and NADPH, which are both used in the carbon reactions. Please see section 5.4 for more information. 3) TRUE The light reactions power the carbon reactions. Please see section 5.6 for more information. 4) FALSE The light reactions power the carbon reactions. Please see section 5.6 for more information. 5) FALSE The light reactions and the carbonreactions are both critical for life on Earth for the oxygen and organic compounds provided. Please see section 5.1 for more information. 6) FALSE The oxygen in water ends up as oxygen gas in the atmosphere after the light reactions. Please see section 5.5 for more information. 7) TRUE
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Plant cells are full of water, like other cells, but they also use water as a raw material in the light reactions. Please see section 5.4 for more information. 8) TRUE Photosystem II breaks down water to produce oxygen. Please see section 5.5 for more information. 9) TRUE Photosystem II breaks down water to produce oxygen. Please see section 5.5 for more information. 10) FALSE Please see section 5.4 for more information. 11) FALSE Please see section 5.7 to learn more about the role of the stoma. 12) FALSE The wavelengths of light used for photosynthesis fall in the blue and red parts of the spectrum. Please see section 5.2 for more information. 13) FALSE Remember what photosynthesis provides to all living organisms. Please see section 5.1 for more information. 14) FALSE Photosynthesis powers most of Earth's autotrophs. Without it, they would disappear. Please see section 5.1 for more information. 15) TRUE Please see section 5.6 and figure 5.8 for more information. 16) C Please see section 5.1 for more information. Version 1
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17) D Photosynthesis uses water and carbon dioxide to produce oxygen gas and glucose. Please see section 5.1 for more information. 18) E Many water molecules and carbon dioxide molecules are needed to produce one glucose. Please see section 5.1 for more information. 19) B Carbon dioxide and water are the starting chemicals in photosynthesis. Please see section 5.1 for more information. 20) A Please see section 5.1 for more information. 21) D Most living things need oxygen to survive, and that oxygen is derived from photosynthesis. Please see section 5.1 for more information. 22) E Chlorophyll a is a green pigment which colors leaves. Please see section 5.2 for more information. 23) B The light that drivesphotosynthesis comes naturally from the sun. Please see section 5.2 for more information. 24) D ATP is involved in photosynthesis, but all that is made as a result of the light reactions is usually used up during the carbon reactions. Please see section 5.4 for more information. 25) A Heterotrophs cannot use the energy of sunlight to reduce carbon for themselves and must consume what ultimately came from a photosynthetic organism. Please see section 5.1 for more information.
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26) D Photosynthetic organisms produce their own organic compounds from carbon dioxide. Please see section 5.1 for more information. 27) A Light arrives for photosynthesis in discrete packets called photons. Please see section 5.2 for more information. 28) A The light reactions and the carbon reactions occur in the chloroplasts. Please see section 5.3 for more information. 29) D Pigments such as carotenoid and chlorophyll are inserted into the thylakoid membrane. Please see section 5.3 for more information. 30) D The stroma is the chloroplast's inner fluid region. Please see section 5.3 for more information. 31) A Accessory pigments help the main photosynthetic pigment by capturing more photons of light and passing their energy along. Please see section 5.2for more information. 32) B When chlorophyll disappears from leaves, the accessory pigments are left behind. Please see Burning Question 5.1for more information. 33) C The light reactions turn sunlight into the chemical energy in ATP, which is then used to power the carbon reactions. Please see section 5.4 for more information. 34) D
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The electron transport chain extracts energy in a stepwise fashion. Please see section 5.5 for more information. 35) E The energy of light captured by photosytem II is transformed into the chemical energy of ATP via ATP synthase. Please see section 5.5 for more information. 36) A NADPH is used for powering the carbon reactions just like ATP from photosystem II. Please see section 5.5 for more information. 37) B The photosystems are only involved in the capture and conversion of light energy, not in the production of organic compounds. Please see section 5.5 for more information. 38) E Herbicides target a range of important biochemical processes, but some of the most commonly targeted are parts of photosynthesis. Please see Why We Care 5.1for more information. 39) D The carbon reactions produce organic compounds, particularly carbohydrates. Please see section 5.6 for more information. 40) C Stomata control loss of water and uptake of carbon dioxide. Please see section5.3 and figure 5.4 for more information. 41) E Rubisco catalyzes the addition of carbon dioxide to ribulose bisphosphate. Please see section 5.6 for more information.
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42) A The Calvin cycle is where oxidized carbon dioxide is reduced into carbohydrates. Please see section 5.6 and figure 5.8 for more information. 43) A Nighttime work would be best with plants that only open their stomata at night−CAM plants. Please see section 5.7 for more information. 44) B If water is abundant, C 3photosynthesis is the most efficient pathway. Please see section 5.7 for more information. 45) C Reduction involves the addition of electrons, which is done when carbon dioxide is added to an existing carbohydrate. Please see section 5.4 for more information. 46) D Oxygen atoms removed from water and turned into oxygen gas are oxidized. When that happens, they lose electrons. Please see section 5.4 for more information. 47) B Carbon atoms originate in the atmosphere and return there when organisms die and are broken down. Please see section 5.6 for more information. 48) A Carbon dioxide and water are both the starting material for photosynthesis and the end products of burning material from photosynthetic organisms. Please see section 5.6 for more information. 49) D Version 1
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C 4 plants separate parts of the carbon reactions in space to achieve greater efficiency in the use of water. Please see section 5.7 for more information. 50) D By opening stomata at night, CAM plants reduce water loss since it is cooler at night with less thermal energy to drive evaporation. Refer to the discussion of CAM plants in section 5.7. 51) E The splitting of water in photosystem II provides electrons, protons, and a release of oxygen. Please see section 5.5 for more information. 52) E Without photosynthesis, many of the nonliving parts of Earth would change, and most living things would not exist for lack of oxygen. Please see section 5.1 for more information. 53) A Leaves contain large numbers of chloroplasts with large concentrations of chlorophyll. Please see section 5.3 for more information. 54) A Accessory pigments allow wavelengths of light other than the red and blue absorbed by chlorophyll to power photosynthesis. Please see section 5.2 for more information. 55) A The light reactions absorb energy from the sun, while the carbon reactions use that energy to make carbohydrates. Please see section 5.4 for more information. 56) A
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The light reactions produce ATP and NADPH, from different photosystems, which are used for carbon reduction in the carbon reactions. Please see section 5.6 for more information.
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Aerobic respiration includes glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and electron transport chain. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) Aerobic respiration uses oxygen gas (O electron transport chain. ⊚ ⊚
3)
4)
true false
true false
In plants, chloroplasts function as the site of cellular respiration. ⊚ ⊚
7)
true false
Energy cannot be extracted from lipids by cellular respiration. ⊚ ⊚
6)
2) can be used as the final electron acceptor.
Energy can be extracted from proteins by cellular respiration. ⊚ ⊚
5)
true false
In aerobic respiration, nitrogen gas (N ⊚ ⊚
2) as its final electron acceptor at the end of the
true false
The Krebs cycle can be used to manufacture amino acids.
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⊚ ⊚
8)
true false
All diet pills are approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA). ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 9) Plants are
A) net O 2 consumers and CO 2 producers. B) net O 2 producers and CO 2 consumers. C) net O 2 and CO 2 producers. D) net O 2 and CO 2 consumers. E) able to conduct photosynthesis, not cellular respiration.
10)
Animals are
A) net O 2 producers and CO 2 consumers. B) net O 2 and CO 2 producers. C) net O 2 consumers and CO 2 producers. D) net O 2 and CO 2 consumers. E) able to conduct photosynthesis, not cellular respiration.
11)
In animal cells, the primary organelle that generates molecules of ATP is the
A) ribosome. B) lysosome. C) golgi body. D) mitochondrion. E) No answer is correct.
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12)
Cellular respiration occurs in a sequential order. This allows the cell to
A) store oxygen in the process. B) maintain control over the mitochondria. C) efficiently breakdown glucose without damaging the cell. D) harness all the energy released at one time. E) produce the enzymes needed for cellular respiration very slowly.
13)
The chemical formula for glucose is
A) C6H12O6. B) C12H6O12. C) C6H6O12. D) C12H12O6. E) C1H2O1.
14)
As a result of glycolysis, glucose is
A) broken down into two molecules of carbon dioxide. B) combined to form two molecules of pyruvate. C) combined to form two molecules of carbon dioxide. D) broken down into two molecules of pyruvate. E) broken down into two molecules of oxygen.
15)
Glycolysis of a glucose molecule
A) produces a net gain of two molecules of ATP. B) occurs only in animal cells. C) transfers electrons to FAD. D) occurs only in microorganisms. E) occurs in mitochondria.
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16)
The three main biochemical pathways of cellular respiration are
A) glycolysis, photosystems, and carbon reactions. B) carbon reactions, Krebs cycle, and light reactions. C) Krebs cycle, carbon reactions, and electron transport chain. D) glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and electron transport chain. E) light reactions, carbon reactions, and electron transport chain.
17)
During cellular respiration, electrons are transferred to the electron carrier molecules
A) ATP and FADH 2. B) NADH and FADH 2. C) carbon dioxide. D) NADH 2 and glucose. E) acetyl CoA.
18) If asked to point on a diagram of a cell to the place where glycolysis occurs, you would point to the
A) cytosol. B) mitochondrion. C) lysosome. D) nucleus. E) cell membrane.
19)
In eukaryotic cells, the Krebs cycle occurs in the
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A) lysosome. B) nucleus. C) cytoplasm. D) mitochondrion. E) ribosome.
20)
In eukaryotic cells, the electron transport chain occurs in the
A) lysosome. B) nucleus. C) cytoplasm. D) ribosome. E) mitochondrion.
21) At the end of cellular respiration, the electrons are transferred to a final electron acceptor. In aerobic cellular respiration, this molecule is
A) oxygen (O 2). B) nitrogen. C) hydrogen. D) sulfur. E) carbon dioxide.
22) In the electron transport chain, which structure forms a channel in the inner membrane of the mitochondria and adds phosphate toADP?
A) ATP synthase B) NADH synthase C) FADH 2 synthase D) ADP synthase E) NADPH synthase
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23)
The reactants for cellular respiration are
A) glucose and ATP. B) water and ATP. C) oxygen and ATP. D) glucose and oxygen. E) carbon dioxide and glucose.
24)
Fermentation is most common in
A) plants. B) animals. C) multicellular organisms. D) microorganisms. E) viruses.
25)
The area enclosed by the highly folded inner mitochondrial membrane is the
A) cytosol. B) cristae. C) outer membrane. D) intermembrane compartment. E) mitochondrial matrix.
26) Glycolysis has two steps. The first step is the energy investment where _____ is used to activate the glucose molecule.
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A) NAD B) ATP C) FAD D) ADP E) NADP
27)
In glycolysis, the net number of NADH produced is
A) 0. B) 3. C) 2. D) 4. E) 30.
28) Four ATP molecules are made in the second step in glycolysis. However, the net production of ATP is two because
A) two molecules of ATP are needed to "activate" glucose. B) two molecules of ATP are used to move glucose into the chloroplast. C) glycolysis is the final step of aerobic respiration. D) ATP production cannot exceed NADH production. E) glycolysis may occur without oxygen being present.
29)
The compound that enters the Krebs cycle is
A) ATP. B) pyruvate. C) PGAL. D) ATP synthase. E) acetyl CoA.
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30) Some microorganisms that live in anaerobic environments can produce ATP using fermentation, which involves
A) glycolysis. B) the Krebs cycle. C) photosynthesis. D) electron transport. E) the Calvin cycle.
31)
Which of the following is not a product of the Krebs cycle?
A) ATP B) carbon dioxide C) NADH D) FADH 2 E) pyruvate
32) Glycolysis and the Krebs cycle do not capture all of the potential energy in a glucose molecule because
A) ATP easily vaporizes. B) energy cannot be created or destroyed. C) some glucose is not broken down. D) some energy is always lost as heat during chemical reactions. E) All answers are correct.
33)
The Krebs cycle continues the breakdown of glucose and
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A) provides intermediates for manufacturing fats and amino acids. B) replicates DNA. C) provides oxygen to cells. D) manufactures carbohydrates. E) All answers are correct.
34) The electron transport chain produces a(n) ________ gradient that provides energy for the ATP synthase.
A) electron B) ATP C) NADH D) oxygen E) proton
35) Many toxins are known to kill organisms by interfering with cellular respiration. Which poison blocks the Krebs cycle by inhibiting the formation of acetyl-coA?
A) arsenic. B) carbon monoxide. C) cyanide. D) mercury compounds. E) DNP.
36)
The theoretical net ATP yield from a molecule of glucose is ________ ATP molecules.
A) 2 B) 36 C) 4 D) 15 E) 42
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37)
Muscle cells use lactic acid fermentation to A) regenerate NAD + so that glycolysis can continue in the absence of oxygen. B) produce ATP in the presence of oxygen. C) produce more ATP than in respiration. D) allow an animal to survive for long periods of time in the absence of oxygen. E) produce less CO 2.
38)
Alcoholic fermentation
A) is carried out by yeasts. B) produces far less ATP than aerobic respiration. C) produces ethanol. D) produces carbon dioxide. E) All answers are correct.
39)
Which energy pathway can be performed by all living organisms?
A) aerobic respiration B) carbon reactions C) photosynthesis D) Krebs cycle E) glycolysis
40) In glycolysis and the Krebs cycle, electrons are removed from glucose and taken up by molecules like NAD +. In such a reaction, glucose is being _____ and NAD + is being ____.
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A) reduced, oxidized B) oxidized, reduced C) phosphorylated, oxidized D) phosphorylated, reduced E) reduced, phosphorylated
41) In the electron transport chain, what occurs between the two membranes of mitochondria?
A) Glycolysis occurs in the membranes. B) Protons are pumped into the space between the membranes. C) Oxygen is transported across the membranes. D) The membranes prevent the mitochondria from rupturing during osmosis without two membranes. E) The Krebs cycle enzymes are found on the outer mitochondrial membrane.
42) During glycolysis and the Krebs cycle, NAD + picks up two electrons and a proton to form NADH.The NADH molecule is the ________ form of NAD+.
A) oxidized B) phosphorylated C) reduced D) hydrolyzed E) lysed
43)
What is the role of oxygen (O
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A) It is formed from the oxidation of water at the beginning of the electron transport chain. B) It flows through the electron transport chain, losing energy. C) It is reduced at the end of the electron transport chain, forming water. D) It is necessary to obtain any ATP from glucose. E) It flows down its concentration gradient through an ATPase to produce ATP.
44) Which of the following toxins would interfere with the electron transport chain by preventing the formation of a proton gradient?
A) mercury B) arsenic C) cyanide D) DNP E) carbon monoxide
45) Philodendron flowers pass electrons through a modified electron transport chain to generate heat. What is the source of these electrons?
A) water B) oxygen C) ATP D) sunlight E) NADH and FADH 2
46) In the Investing Life, Hot Plants Offer Heat Rewards, scientists were working with heat production by flowers. What hypothesis were the scientists testing?
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A) Does generating heat increase the metabolism of Philodendron? B) Does generating heat decrease the metabolism of Philodendron? C) Is heat being used by Philodendron to attract pollinators? D) Is heat being used by Philodendron to increase the rate of pollen production? E) Does heat increase the rate of photosynthesis by Philodendron?
47) In the Investigating Life, Hot Plants Offer Heat Rewards, what did scientists conclude about beetles and self-heating flowers?
A) At higher temperatures resting beetles saved energy. B) At higher temperatures active beetles saved energy. C) At lower temperatures active beetles saved energy. D) At lower temperatures resting beetles saved energy. E) Generating heat led to increased pollination of Philodendron flowers by beetles.
48)
If glucose is unavailable, aerobic respiration may occur with
A) proteins. B) carbohydrates. C) fats. D) glycogen. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
49) When compared to other foods, fats have the most calories per gram. For energy to be harvested, the long carbon chains are broken into many two-carbon _______ molecules that enter the Krebs cycle.
A) glucose B) pyruvate C) acetyl CoA D) amino acid E) protein
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50) In the electron transport chain, if some of the protons are utilized for other functions in the cell and do not flow through the ATP synthase, then
A) fewer ATP will be made. B) fewer glucose molecules are needed. C) more ATP will be made. D) more glucose molecules are needed. E) more carbon dioxide molecules are generated.
51) In aerobic respiration, which of following is(are) required for ATP production in the electron transport chain?
A) a proton gradient B) the oxidation of the electron carrier molecules C) oxygen gas (O 2) D) movement of electrons through proteins E) All of the answer choices are correct.
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Answer Key Test name: ch 6 1) TRUE There are three parts to cellular respiration. Please see section 6.2 for more information. 2) TRUE Oxygen accepts electrons to finish electron transport. Please see section 6.5 for more information. 3) FALSE Oxygen gas is absolutely required for the completion of aerobic cellular respiration. Please see section 6.5 for more information. 4) TRUE Many molecules can be used as fuel for cellular respiration. Please see section 6.7 for more information. 5) FALSE Many molecules can be used as fuel for cellular respiration. Please see section 6.7 for more information. 6) FALSE Plants, like animals, have mitochondria for cellular respiration. Please see section 6.3 for more information. 7) TRUE The Krebs cycle can be used to make organic molecules from the intermediates. Read section 6.5 for more information. 8) FALSE See the Burning Question in section 6.5 for more information. Version 1
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9) B Plants give off more oxygen in photosynthesis than they take up in cellular respiration. Please see section 6.1 for more information. 10) C Animals have no way to produce oxygen but do use it in cellular respiration, so they are net consumers of oxygen and producers of carbon dioxide. Please see section 6.1 for more information. 11) D Cellular respiration occurs in the mitochondria, different parts of the overall process occurring in different places within it. Please see section 6.1 for more information. 12) C Stepwise processes can more efficiently and completely extract energy. Please see section 6.2 for more information. 13) A Glucose is the most common 6 carbon sugar in nature. Please see section 6.1 for more information. 14) D Glycolysis literally means "sugar breaking" and involves the breaking of glucose into two pieces. Please see section 6.4 for more information. 15) A Glycolysis removes a small amount of energy from glucose. Please see section 6.4 for more information. 16) D In cellular respiration of glucose, after glycolysis, its products are fed into the Krebs cycle and then ATP is produced by the electron transport chain. Please see section 6.2 for more information. Version 1
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17) B NADH and FADH 2 carry excited electrons from the Krebs cycle to the electron transport chain. Please see section 6.2 for more information. 18) A While the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain occur in the mitochondrion, glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm. Please see section 6.3 for more information. 19) D The Krebs cycle takes place inside the mitochondrion. Please see section 6.3 for more information. 20) E The electron transport chain occurs in and across the inner membrane of the mitochondrion. Please see section 6.3 for more information. 21) A Oxygen is the ultimate electron acceptor in aerobic cellular respiration. Please see section 6.5 for more information. 22) A ATP synthase is a membrane protein that is a channel for protons and that synthesizes ATP from ADP and Pi. Please see section 6.5 for more information. 23) D Sugar and oxygen are the starting materials for cellular respiration. Please see section 6.1 for more information. 24) D Fermentation is most common in microbes such as bacteria and fungi, not surprisingly, given that these are some of the metabolically diverse groups of organisms. Please see section 6.8 for more information. Version 1
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25) E The inner mitochondrial membrane encloses the mitochondrial matrix, and much of cellular respiration involves this area. Please see section 6.3 for more information. 26) B High energy phosphate from ATP makes glucose more reactive for glycolysis. Please see section 6.4 for more information. 27) C When sugar is "broken" during glycolysis, it yields two NADH molecules. Please see section 6.4 for more information. 28) A Four ATP are made during glycolysis, but two are used up in early stages. Please see section 6.4 for more information. 29) E The products of glycolysis are converted into acetyl CoA for further decomposition in the Krebs cycle. Please see section 6.5 for more information. 30) A In fermentation, ATP is generated by glycolysis. The Krebs cycle and electron transport are not part of fermentation. Please see section 6.8 for more information. 31) E The Krebs cycle produces ATP, carbon dioxide, and molecules whose energy is converted into the energy in ATP by the electron transport chain. Please see section 6.5 for more information. 32) D
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Any chemical process loses energy at each step due to the regular increase in entropy. Please see section 6.5 for more information. 33) A The Krebs cycle can provide raw material for some syntheses, not just breakdown of molecules for energy. Please see section 6.5 for more information. 34) E The electron transport chain moves protons to one side of the inner mitochondrial membrane for ATP production. Please see section 6.5 for more information. 35) A Please see the "Why We Care" part of section 6.5 for more information. 36) B Under ideal circumstances, cellular respiration yields three dozen ATP, with abundant stored energy, from one glucose molecule. Please see section 6.6 for more information. 37) A Lactic acid fermentation allows muscles which don't receive enough oxygen for cellular respiration to continue to extract some energy from glucose. Please see section 6.8 for more information. 38) E Alcoholic fermentation is used in the production of beer and wine. Please see section 6.8 for more information. 39) E Glycolysis, since it can occur without oxygen, can be performed by all organisms, both aerobes and anaerobes. Please see section 6.8 for more information. Version 1
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40) B When a molecule loses electrons and is oxidized, another molecule gains electrons and is reduced. Please see section 6.5 for more information. 41) B The two membranes in mitochondria allow for a proton gradient to be created. Please see section 6.5 for more information. 42) C Electron uptake is, chemically speaking, reduction. Please see section 6.5 for more information. 43) C The oxygen used in cellular respiration accepts electrons at the end of the electron transport chain and is reduced to form water. Please see section 6.5 for more information. 44) D Please see the "Why We Care" portion of section 6.5 for more information. 45) E Short-circuiting proton gradients is a useful trick for some plants in attracting pollinators. Please see the "Investigating Life" and section 6.5 for more information. 46) C The energy used to heat the flowers benefits the plants by increasing pollination. Please see section 6.5 and "Investigating Life" for more information. 47) B
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Hot flowers save beetles' energy and thus encourage their own pollination. Please see section 6.6 and "Investigating Life" for more information. 48) E Many different molecules can be fed into respiration. Please see section 6.7 for more information. 49) C As long as they are turned into acetyl coA, many molecules can be run through cellular respiration. Please see section 6.7 for more information. 50) A Less protons through ATP synthase makes for less ATP production. Please see section 6.6 for more information. 51) E Please see section 6.5 for more information.
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Mutations can be caused by chemicals. ⊚ ⊚
2)
Mutations can be caused by radiation. ⊚ ⊚
3)
true false
Changes in gene expression can be adaptive. ⊚ ⊚
5)
true false
Mutations can be caused by errors in copying DNA. ⊚ ⊚
4)
true false
true false
The amino acid that starts every protein and that is encoded by ACG is methionine.
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⊚ ⊚
6)
true false
"Mad cow disease" is caused by a viroid. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) If you found a living Neanderthal, genetic analysis of FOXP2 would show maximal similarity to the homologous gene in mice. ⊚ ⊚
true false
8) If you were creating a system for gene expression in a test tube, for RNA you would only need tRNA and rRNA. ⊚ ⊚
9)
true false
A gene consists of multiple chromosomes, and each chromosome contains a genome. ⊚ ⊚
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true false 2
10)
A gene is a sequence of nucleotides that encodes a protein or RNA molecule. ⊚ ⊚
11)
A poly A tail is added to the mature mRNA after transcription. ⊚ ⊚
12)
true false
true false
Cystic fibrosis may be caused by a protein that does not fold correctly. ⊚ ⊚
true false
13) If you were looking at an electron micrograph of amRNA molecule being translated by many ribosomes at once, you would be looking at a picture from a prokaryote. ⊚ ⊚
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true false
3
14) In the bacterium E. coli, a repressor protein binds to the operator region of the DNA in the absence of lactose, thuspreventing the transcription of the genes of the lactose operon. ⊚ ⊚
15)
Many viruses are inhibited by antibiotics. ⊚ ⊚
16)
true false
A drug that inhibits reverse transcriptase could be used to fight some viruses. ⊚ ⊚
18)
true false
A cell can receive new genes from a virus and then produce a new set of proteins. ⊚ ⊚
17)
true false
true false
RNA processing involves splicing. ⊚ ⊚
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true false 4
19)
In DNA, A binds to C. ⊚ ⊚
20)
In DNA, T binds to G. ⊚ ⊚
21)
true false
Antibiotic resistance enhances the reproductive success of bacteria that have it. ⊚ ⊚
23)
true false
RNA processing involves covalently attaching a piece of RNA to a piece of DNA. ⊚ ⊚
22)
true false
true false
Plant cells may help the whole plant fight a virus by dying on purpose.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 24) The double helixof DNA is composed of building blocks called
A) amino acids. B) monosaccharides. C) phospholipids. D) disaccharides. E) nucleotides.
25)
The rungs of the DNA ladder are formed by base pairs
A) joined by covalent bonds. B) joined by hydrogen bonds. C) joined by ionic bonds. D) NOT joined to each other.
26)
In DNA molecules,
A) cytosine pairs with adenine. B) thymine pairs with uracil. C) adenine pairs with uracil. D) adenine pairs with thymine. E) cytosine pairs with thymine.
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27)
In DNA molecules,
A) cytosine pairs with guanine. B) thymine pairs with uracil. C) adenine pairs with uracil. D) adenine pairs with guanine. E) cytosine pairs with thymine.
28)
The "central dogma" of molecular biology described by Watson and Crick describes
A) the passing of genetic information from DNA to RNA by translation. B) the passing of genetic information from RNA to protein by transcription. C) the inheritance of traits between generations. D) the production of energy in a cell. E) the directional flow of genetic information in cells.
29)
RNA differs from DNA in many ways, including
A) DNA contains deoxyribose while RNA contains ribose. B) DNA contains thymine while RNA contains uracil. C) DNA forms a double helix while RNA is usually single-stranded or forms loops. D) RNA can catalyze some chemical reactions and DNA cannot. E) All answers are correct.
30)
DNA differs from RNA because, unlike RNA,
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A) DNA contains uracil. B) DNA contains thymine. C) DNA can catalyze some chemical reactions. D) DNA is usually single-stranded in cells. E) DNA contains ribose.
31)
What type of RNA carries the information that specifies a protein?
A) transfer RNA B) ribosomal RNA C) messenger RNA D) double-stranded RNA E) complementary RNA
32)
What type of RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome?
A) complementary RNA B) messenger RNA C) ribosomal RNA D) double-stranded RNA E) transfer RNA
33)
A DNA sequence that signals the start of a gene is
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A) a codon. B) an anticodon. C) a terminator. D) a promoter. E) an amino acid attachment site.
34)
In eukaryotic cells, sequences of mRNA removed before translation are called
A) introns. B) anticodons. C) exons. D) rRNA. E) terminators.
35)
What process converts the mRNA "message" into a sequence of amino acids?
A) transcription B) replication C) mitosis D) amino acid synthesis E) translation
36)
Initiation, elongation, and termination are the three main steps in
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A) translation only. B) transcription and translation. C) transcription only. D) photosynthesis.
37) A three-base sequence (loop) in tRNA that is complementary to a three-base sequence in mRNA is
A) a codon. B) an anticodon. C) a promoter. D) a terminator. E) an amino acid attachment site.
38)
A tRNA molecule is "bilingual" because it binds to
A) amino acids and DNA. B) DNA and mRNA codons. C) promoters and amino acids. D) codons of mRNA and amino acids. E) promoters and terminators.
39) The step of translation in which an mRNA, a small ribosomal subunit, and the initiator tRNA are aligned together is
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A) initiation. B) mitosis. C) elongation. D) termination. E) transcription.
40)
The step of translation in which amino acids are added to the growing polypeptide is
A) mitosis. B) initiation. C) elongation. D) termination. E) transcription.
41)
A group of genes, a promoter, and an operator that control transcription are calleda(n)
A) translational unit. B) chromosome. C) ribosome. D) envelope. E) operon.
42)
In the la c operon, the protein that binds to the operator to prevent transcription is
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A) the repressor. B) RNA polymerase. C) DNA polymerase. D) the promoter. E) lactose.
43) Proteins that initiate transcription in eukaryotes by recognizing sequences within the promoter region of a gene and attracting RNA polymerase are called:
A) repressors B) inducers C) transcription factors D) TATA boxes E) poly A tails
44)
A change in a cell's DNA sequence is
A) replication. B) transcription. C) a mutation. D) translation. E) an operon.
45)
In a "silent" mutation, the
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A) codon that mutates causes a change in the amino acid specified. B) codon that mutates does not cause a change in the amino acid specified. C) codon that mutates causes a stop codon to occur instead of the placement of an amino acid. D) mutation does not occur in a codon. E) mutation is not in DNA.
46)
In a "frameshift" mutation
A) the codon that mutates causes no change in the amino acid specified. B) the codon that mutates causes a stop codon to occur instead of the placement of an amino acid. C) the mutation does not occur in a codon. D) the mutation is caused by an addition or deletion of one or more nucleotides. E) the mutation is not in DNA.
47)
If the DNA in a cell consists of 20% adenine, thenit will also contain___ guanine.
A) 20% B) 80% C) 30% D) 40% E) 10%
48)
If the DNA in a cell consists of 20% adenine, it will also have_____ thymine.
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A) 30% B) 80% C) 40% D) 20% E) 10%
49) The DNA sequence 5' ATGCATGC 3' will pair with which of the following DNA strands?
A) 3' TACGTACG 5' B) 3' TACCTACC 5' C) 3' ATGCATGC 5' D) 3' TTGCATCC 5' E) 3' CGTACGTA 5'
50) Why would it take more energy to separate DNA with the sequence GCGCGCGCand its complementary strand than the sequence ATATATAT and its complementary strand?
A) A's and T's do not form pairs between separate DNA strands. B) The helix is wound more tightly in G and C base pairs. C) G and C base pairs form more hydrogen bonds between DNA strands. D) The sequence containing G's and C's is longer. E) G and C base pairs form more covalent bonds between DNA strands.
51) The DNA sequence 5' ATGCATGC 3' will pair with which of the following RNA strands?
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A) 3' UACGUACG 5' B) 3' CGAUCGAU 5' C) 3' AUGCAUGC 5' D) 3' TAGCTAGC 5' E) 3' UAGCTAGC 5'
52)
Only one of the twostrands of DNA is transcribed because
A) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter, initiating transcription on only one strand of DNA. B) the start of transcription is random along the chromosome and does notalways occur on a gene. C) RNA polymerase binds to the terminator, stopping transcription on one strand of DNA. D) both strands are transcribed, but only one strand of DNA contains a reading frame. E) DNA consists of only one strand in the nucleus of the cell.
53)
In a eukaryotic cell, mature mRNA contains
A) exons, introns, and a poly A tail. B) a nucleotide cap, poly A tail, introns, and exons. C) a nucleotide cap, poly A tail, and exons. D) a poly A tail, introns, and a nucleotide cap. E) introns, exons, and a nucleotide cap.
54)
How many codons are in the mRNA sequence GGAAUGAAACAGGAACCC?
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A) 12 B) 6 C) 27 D) 9 E) 3
55) Amanatin is a toxin found in the death cap mushroom, Amanita phalloides. It inhibits RNA polymerase, thus blocking
A) transcription. B) translation. C) replication. D) cell division. E) RNA splicing.
56)
If E. coli bacterium are grown in the presence of lactose
A) the repressor will bind the operator, thus allowing transcription of the lac operon genes. B) the repressor will not bind the operator, thus preventingtranscription of the lac operon genes. C) the repressor will not bind the operator, thus allowing transcription of the lac operon genes. D) the repressor will bind the operator, thuspreventing transcription of the lac operon genes. E) No answer is correct.
57)
If E. coli bacteria are grown in the absence of lactose
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A) the repressor will not bind the operator, thusallowing transcription of the lac operon genes. B) the repressor will bind the operator, thusallowing transcription of the lac operon genes. C) the repressor will not bind the operator, thuspreventing transcription of the lac operon genes. D) the repressor will bind the operator, thuspreventing transcription of the lac operon genes. E) No answer is correct.
58) What type of mutation occurred in the following? Normal allele GGAAUGAAACAGGAACCC Mutant allele GGAAUGAAACAGGUACCC
A) substitution B) insertion C) deletion D) frameshift E) No answer is correct.
59) What type of mutation occurred in the following? Normal allele GGAAUGAAACAGGAACCC Mutant allele GGAAUGAAAUCAGGAACCC
A) insertion B) substitution C) deletion D) All answers are correct
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60) What did scientists discover was the primary cause for a genetically controlled language disorder in humans?
A) The cause was one mutation in a single gene on one chromosome. B) The disorder was not inherited but related to diet. C) Affected family members were lacking vocal chords. D) The cause was multiple mutations in multiple genes on one chromosome. E) The cause was multiple mutations in multiple genes on many chromosomes.
61) In studies of the genetic basis of language, FOXP2 sequences differed the most between mice and
A) rhesus monkeys. B) gorillas. C) chimpanzees. D) humans. E) All answers are correct.
62)
In a DNA molecule,hydrogen bonds link the
A) complementary nitrogenous bases, thus holding the two strands of DNA together. B) two strands of DNA end to end during transcription and translation. C) two strands of DNA end to end during transcription only. D) complementary deoxyribose sugars, thus maintaining a separation between the two DNA strands.
63) If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence 5' ATTCGACGCTA 3', then the complementary strand has the nitrogenous base sequence Version 1
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A) 3' TAAGCTGCGAT 5'. B) 3' ATCGCAGCTTA 5'. C) 3' UAAGCUGCGAU 5'. D) 3' ATTCGACGCTA 5'.
64)
Mutations produce new alleles that may
A) be beneficial to the organism's fitness. B) have no effect on the organism's fitness. C) decrease the organism's fitness. D) increase diversity at a genetic locus. E) All answers are correct.
65)
Most viruses
A) infect only a few closely related species. B) infect only animal cells. C) infect a wide variety of organisms. D) cannot infect living cells. E) infect only plant cells.
66)
Which of the following diseases is caused by something other than viruses?
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A) influenza B) mononucleosis C) polio D) AIDS E) diabetes
67)
Viruses
A) consist of only a single cell. B) are smaller than cells. C) consist of multiple cells. D) contain a nucleus. E) contain ribosomes.
68)
The genetic information in viruses
A) is found in the nucleus of the virus. B) is always DNA. C) is eitherDNA or RNA. D) is always RNA. E) can be replicated outside of a cell.
69)
A layer of membrane attached to a virus is called
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A) an envelope. B) a protein coat. C) a chromosome. D) a plasmid. E) a nucleus.
70)
HIV is a
A) double-stranded DNA virus. B) single-stranded RNA virus. C) single-stranded DNA virus. D) double-stranded RNA virus. E) prion.
71)
The correct sequence of stages of viral replication is
A) attachment—synthesis—penetration—assembly—release B) penetration—attachment—assembly—synthesis—release C) penetration—attachment—synthesis—release—assembly D) attachment—penetration—assembly—synthesis—release E) attachment—penetration—synthesis—assembly—release
72)
The stage of viral replication in which the viral nucleic acid is released inside the cell is
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A) penetration. B) release. C) attachment. D) synthesis. E) assembly.
73) The stage of viral replication in which the host cell produces viral nucleic acids and proteins is
A) release. B) attachment. C) synthesis. D) penetration. E) assembly.
74)
The stage of viral replication in which the virus binds to a cell surface receptor is
A) release. B) penetration. C) synthesis. D) attachment. E) assembly.
75)
The stage of viral replication in which the new viruses leave the host cell is
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A) release. B) attachment. C) penetration. D) synthesis. E) assembly.
76) You are sorting labels for a diagram about viral replication, and you find a part of the diagram that says: "the stage of viral replication in which viral components are put together to form new viruses," you would look for a label referring to
A) release. B) assembly. C) attachment. D) penetration. E) synthesis.
77) If you were a vet examining a cat with an illness, and tests showed that a viral infection was causing the cat's cells to burst, you would say that the cat had
A) a rare form of viral infection. B) a transgenic infection. C) a lysogenic infection. D) a lytic infection. E) a systematic infection.
78) If genetic tests showed that a tomato plant had viral DNA integrated into its chromosomes without outward symptoms caused by the virus, you could say that the tomato plant had
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A) a rare form of viral infection. B) a transgenic infection. C) a lytic infection. D) a systematic infection. E) a lysogenic infection.
79)
HIV
A) is a retrovirus. B) infects most mammals. C) can be killed with antibiotics. D) causes liver cancer. E) can be transmitted through the skin.
80)
The enzyme that HIV uses to transcribe viral RNA into DNA is
A) reverse transcriptase. B) DNA polymerase. C) RNA polymerase. D) RNA integrase. E) translase.
81)
Our most potent weapon in the fight against viruses is
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A) antibiotics. B) sulfa drugs. C) gene therapy. D) surgery. E) vaccinations.
82)
A highly wound circle ofRNA without a protein coatis a
A) virus. B) virion. C) viroid. D) prion. E) prophage.
83)
An infectious protein is a
A) virus. B) viroid. C) prion. D) virion. E) prophage.
84)
One key reasonwhy viruses are not considered living organisms is
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A) viruses do not contain genetic information. B) viruses do not reproduce on their own. C) viruses are all smaller than the smallest known cells. D) viruses do not contain a nucleus. E) viruses can be frozen and still survive.
85) Most antibiotics are not effective against viruses because they _____ and this does not affect the activity of viruses.
A) inhibit synthesis of cell walls B) destroy DNA and RNA C) inhibit all protein synthesis D) target envelopes E) inhibit reverse transcriptase
86) Viruses often spread from plant to plant by plant eating insects who physically injure the plant while eating the plant. What probably prevents viruses from easily entering plant cells?
A) the virus' cell walls B) the plant'splasma membrane C) the plant'scell wall D) the virus'plasma membrane E) the virus'protein coat
87) Oral infections with herpes simplex virus 1 can lie dormant in nerve cells for years. When a patient becomes stressed, the virus is released, forming cold sores on the lips. While lying dormant, the virus is in which of the following states?
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A) lytic B) symptomatic C) latent D) replicative E) infective
88) Oral infections with herpes simplex virus 1 can lie dormant in nerve cells for years. When a patient becomes stressed the virus is released, forming cold sores on the lips. Why would the virus form a cold sore?
A) to spread to a new host B) so that it can mutate and survive antibiotic treatment C) to become latent in the body D) to avoid the immune system E) to warn other people that the host is infected
89) The influenza virus contains an RNA genome. Scientists typically need to make a new fluvaccine every year because
A) our bodies develop resistance to the vaccine and it becomes less effective. B) the virus develops resistance to the vaccine. C) the virus can mutate into new strains. D) people change their habits each year and become susceptible to different strains of the virus. E) the common influenza virus can come from many species of animals including cats and dogs.
90)
How does the spread of viruses differ between plants and animals?
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A) Viruses must penetrate through cell walls of plant cellsand not animal cells. B) Viruses spread faster in plants than animals because of photosynthesis. C) Viruses do not spread to plants, only animals. D) Viruses spread more slowly in plants than animals because of photosynthesis. E) Viruses that affect plants are all DNA viruses.
91)
Where is the majority of DNA located in ahuman cell?
A) nucleus B) mitochondrion C) chloroplast D) ribosome
92) Which of the following best describes the relationship between DNA, proteins, and RNA?
A) DNA is transcribed into RNA, then RNA is translated into proteins. B) DNA is transcribed into proteins, then proteins are translated into RNA. C) DNA is translated into RNA, then RNA is transcribed into proteins. D) DNA is translated into proteins, then proteins are transcribed into RNA.
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions. 93) %media:ch7_38_sb_png.ext%
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93.1) Using the genetic code, what are the amino acids encoded by the sequenceAUGUCAACGUGA?
A) Met, Ser, Thr, (Stop) B) Tyr, Ser, Cys, Thr C) Ser, Tyr, Leu, Val D) Met, Val, Asp, Met
93.2) Using the genetic code, how many amino acids are encoded by the followingsequence from the start codon and up to the stop codon? AUGCUUGACUAAGUCCCC
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 5 F) 6
93.3) Using the genetic code, predict what type of mutation has occurred in the hemoglobin sickle cell anemia allele. Normal allele GGAAUGAAACAGGAACCC Mutant allele GGAAUGAAACAGGUACCC
A) a substitution mutation, Val to Glu B) a frame shiftmutation, Val to Glu C) addition of a new stop codon D) a substitution mutation, Glu to Val E) a frame shiftmutation, Glu to Val
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Answer Key Test name: ch 7
1) TRUE Mutations can be caused by radiation, chemicals, and accidents in copying DNA. Please see section 7.6 for more information. 2) TRUE Mutations can be caused by radiation, chemicals, and accidents in copying DNA. Please see section 7.6 for more information. 3) TRUE Mutations can be caused by radiation, chemicals, and accidents in copying DNA. Please see section 7.6 for more information. 4) TRUE Changing gene expression helps organisms adapt to changing conditions. Please see section 7.5 for more information. 5) FALSE Methionine is the universal start codon, but that codon reads AUG. Please see section 7.4 for more information. 6) FALSE
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This disease is caused by a prion. Please see section 7.10 for more information. 7) FALSE This gene produces a protein most similar between Neanderthals and modern humans. Please see section 7.6 and Investigating Lifefor more information. 8) FALSE The information in mRNA is absolutely required for gene expression. 9) FALSE A chromosome contains multiple genes, and a genome may consist of multiple chromosomes. See section 7.1 for more information. 10) TRUE See sections 7.1 and 7.7 for more information. 11) TRUE The addition of a poly A tail is a normal post-transcriptional modification during gene expression. Please see section 7.3 for more information. 12) TRUE Mutations in protein sequences lead to changes in protein shape and, thus, function. Please see section 7.4 for more information. Version 1
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13) FALSE Eukaryotes can increase gene expression by having more than one ribosome translate an mRNA simultaneously. Please see section 7.5 for more information. 14) TRUE In the absence of lactose, a repressor protein binds to the operator and prevents transcription. The enzymes are not produced. Please see section 7.5 for more information. 15) FALSE Antibiotics are designed to affect bacteria, not viruses. Please see section 7.9 for more information. 16) TRUE Viruses bring new genes, their own, into host cells. Please see section 7.7 for more information. 17) TRUE RNA viruses have to be copied into DNA before they can be replicated. Please see sections 7.7 and 7.9 for more information. 18) TRUE Splicing is the term for attaching one piece of RNA to another. Please see section 7.3 for more information.
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19) FALSE In DNA, A binds to T. Please see section 7.1 for more information. 20) FALSE In DNA, A binds to T. Please see section 7.1 for more information. 21) FALSE Splicing is the term for attaching one piece of RNA to another. Please see section 7.3 for more information. 22) TRUE Antibiotic resistance allows bacteria which have it to survive and reproduce in spite of the presence of antibiotics. Please see section 7.6 for more information. 23) TRUE Plant cells may undergo programmed death to help defeat the spread of viruses. Please see section 7.8 for more information. 24) E DNA is a double helix of two hydrogen-bonded strands. Please see section 7.1 for more information. 25) B
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Hydrogen bonds connect the two antiparallel strands of DNA in a double helix. Please see section 7.1 for more information. 26) D AT and GC base pairs are critical for the structure of DNA. Please see section 7.1 for more information. 27) A AT and GC base pairs are critical for the structure of DNA. Please see section 7.1 for more information. 28) E Information flows from DNA to RNA to protein. Please see section 7.2 for more information. 29) E RNA has different bases than DNA and doesn't form double helices as a normal matter of course. Please see section 7.2 for more information. 30) B DNA and RNA have different chemical letters in their languages. Please see section 7.2 for more information. 31) C Messenger RNA carries a copy of the information in DNA to the ribosome. Please see section 7.2 for more information. Version 1
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32) E Transfer RNA has an amino acid attached at one end. Please see section 7.2 for more information. 33) D The promoter is like the cover of a book, showing the cellular machinery that a gene is present and where to start copying it. Please see section 7.3 for more information. 34) A Introns are not junk DNA, but they do not contain information which is translated. Please see section 7.3 for more information. 35) E Translation takes information written in one chemical language and switches it to another. Please see section 7.4 for more information. 36) B Together, transcription and translation take the information in a gene and convert it into a working protein. Please see sections 7.3 and 7.4 for more information. 37) B The three bases in a tRNA which base pair with three in an mRNA are called an anticodon. Please see section 7.4 for more information.
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38) D RNA and proteins are two different chemical languages which meet in the tRNA. Please see section 7.4 for more information. 39) A Three parts are needed for each step in adding amino acids to a growing protein. Please see section 7.4 for more information. 40) C Amino acids are added to a protein one-by-one. Please see section 7.4 for more information. 41) E Operons are used by prokaryotes for coordinated expression of functionally related genes. Please see section 7.5for more information. 42) A Operons are groups of functionally connected proteins which are expressed together by prokaryotes. Please see section 7.5 for more information. 43) C Transcription factors bind to DNA and help or hinder gene expression. Please see section 7.5 for more information. 44) C Version 1
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Mutations are changes in what DNA is present, and these changes can range to cover many base pairs. Please see section 7.6 for more information. 45) B Silent mutations have no obvious outward effect, thus their "silence." Please see section 7.6 for more information. 46) D Frameshift mutations change the reading frame of the codons and thus the sense of all codons after the frameshift. Please see section 7.6 for more information. 47) C The amount of adenine should be equal to the amount of thymine. Since A=20% then T=20% so A+T=40%.100%-40%=60%. Sinceguanine should be equal to the amount of cytosine then 60%/2=30% which is the percent of guanine (30%) and cytosine (30%).Please see section 7.1 for more information. 48) D The amount of thymine should be equal to the amount of adenine due to the requirement for base pairing in the DNA double helix. Please see section 7.1 for more information. 49) A
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One strand of a DNA double helix can be predicted from the other using A-T and G-C base pairing as guidelines. Please see section 7.1 for more information. 50) C GC base pairs, with three hydrogen bonds, are stronger and harder to break than AT base pairs, with only two hydrogen bonds each. Please see section 7.1 for more information. 51) A DNA pairing with RNA works like DNA pairing with DNA except that RNA would have U in place of T. Please see sections 7.3 and 7.4 for more information. 52) A The correct sequences for the various parts of a gene are found on only one strand, with the other strand containing an antisense version. Please see section 7.3 for more information. 53) C Post-transcriptional processing of RNA includes the addition of a nucleotide cap and poly A tail and the removal of intron sequences. Please see section 7.3 for more information. 54) B For a sequence, divide the number of bases by three to find the number of codons. Please see section 7.4 for more information. Version 1
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55) A Inhibiting RNA polymerase prevents transcription of DNA into RNA. Please see section 7.3 for more information. 56) C By binding to regulatory machinery, lactose stimulates expression of the lac operon. Please see section 7.5 for more information. 57) D Without lactose, the machinery for activation of the operon for its uptake and metabolism is not expressed. Please see section 7.5 for more information. 58) A Substitution mutations change one base for another. Please see section 7.6 for more information. 59) A Insertion mutations change the length and reading frame of a sequence. Please see section 7.6 for more information. 60) A Mutating PFOX2 leads to problems in controlling facial muscles important for speech. Please see section 7.6 and "Investigating Life" for more information.
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61) D FOXP2 is more similar between other primates and humans than between mice and humans. Please see section 7.6 and "Investigating Life" for more information. 62) A Hydrogen bonds hold together the bases which pair from opposite strands in the double helix. Please see section 7.1 for more information. 63) A Base pairing and its regularity can be used to predict the sequence of one DNA strand in a double helix from the sequence of the other strand. Please see section 7.1 for more information. 64) E Change in a DNA sequence in a copy of gene makes that new sequence a new allele for that gene. Please see section 7.6 for more information. 65) A Viruses usually have a limited host range. Please see section 7.7 for more information. 66) E Diabetes is caused by problems with the immune system or with gene expression, not by a virus. Please see section 7.7 for more information.
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67) B Almost all viruses are much smaller than living cells. Please see section 7.7 for more information. 68) C Unlike living organisms, viruses can have either RNA or DNA for genetic material. Please see section 7.7 for more information. 69) A Viruses consist of nucleic acid wrapped by membrane and protein. Please see section 7.7 for more information. 70) B HIV has one strand of RNA for its genetic material. Please see section 7.7 for more information. 71) E Viruses first attach to host cells before inserting their DNA for copying and packaging. Finally, new virus particles are released. Please see section 7.7 for more information. 72) A After attachment, the virus can insert its genetic material into its host. Please see section 7.7 for more information. 73) C Version 1
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Copies of a virus' genetic material are made by the machinery of the host cell. Please see section 7.7 for more information. 74) D When a virus makes contact with a potential host cell, it is said to be attached. Please see section 7.7 for more information. 75) A New virus particles are released when the genetic material has been synthesized and packaged. Please see section 7.7 for more information. 76) B Assembly occurs when the parts of a new viral particle are put together. Please see section 7.7 for more information. 77) D Lytic infections lead to immediate replication and rupture. Please see section 7.8 for more information. 78) E Lysogenic infections are ones where the virus "hides" in host cells. Please see section 7.8 for more information. 79) A HIV is a virus of primates. Please see section 7.8 for more information. 80) A Version 1
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Reverse transcriptase reverses the normal process of transcription, making DNA sequences based on RNA sequences. Please see section 7.8 for more information. 81) E Vaccinations provide the immune system an opportunity to prepare specific defenses against viruses without an organism actually being infected. Please see section 7.9 for more information. 82) C Viroids are similar to viruses but structurally different. Please see section 7.10 for more information. 83) C Prions are proteins which cause disease by refolding other proteins in host cells to make copies of themselves. Please see section 7.10 for more information. 84) B To be alive, a thing must be self-replicating and self-regulating. Please see section 7.7 for more information. 85) A Antibiotics attack bacteria by causing biochemical problems in the target cells. Please see section 7.9 for more information. 86) C Version 1
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The plant cell wall presents a significant barrier to many pathogens, and it makes a big difference between plants and animals in the working of cells. Please see section 7.8 for more information. 87) C A latent virus lies hidden, in terms of outward effects, in the host cell, sometimes for years. Please see section 7.8 for more information. 88) A Cold sores allow viral particles to spread to new host organisms. Please see section 7.8 for more information. 89) C Viruses tend to mutate much more quickly than living cells, so new versions of viruses are always appearing. Please see section 7.9 for more information. 90) A Plant cell walls are a significant barrier to virus entry. Please see section 7.8 for more information. 91) A Though some DNA is present in human mitochondria, the vast majority of it is in the nuclei. Please see section 7.1 for more information. 92) A
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The information in DNA is copied into RNA, which is then translated to form a protein. Please see section 7.2 for more information. 93) Section Break 93.1) A The amino acid sequence of a protein can be deciphered from the RNA sequence using the genetic code. Please see section 7.4 for more information. 93.2) C Each amino acid is coded fromthree RNA bases. Please see section 7.4 for more information. 93.3) D Sickle cell anemia shows that a single base change can lead to devastating consequences. Please see sections 7.4 and 7.6for more information.
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Each newly replicated molecule of DNA contains one strand from the original DNA molecule. ⊚ ⊚
2)
true false
During cytokinesis of a plant cell, the cell divides by forming a cleavage furrow. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) During the cell cycle there are several checkpoints that ensure that the cell cycle is proceeding correctly. ⊚ ⊚
4)
true false
An abnormal mass of tissue is a tumor. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) If a cancer metastasizes, its cells travel through the blood stream and colonize other areas of the body. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) Bacteria and archaeans do not receive new genetic material from binary fission, but from mutations and gene transfers. ⊚ ⊚
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true false
1
7)
Some risk of cancer comes from genetic issues. ⊚ ⊚
8)
true false
Exposure to UV radiation from the sun can increase the risk of cancer. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) A mutation in a gene controlling a cell cycle checkpoint could pose a significant risk of cancer. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) DNA replication utilizes the base pairing that is part of the basic structure of the DNA double helix. ⊚ ⊚
true false
11) Apoptosis could explain the death of lines of cells in palm leaves that lead to separate "fingers" in the structure of those leaves. ⊚ ⊚
true false
12) Apoptosis could be used to limit the spread of an intracellular disease-causing agent by isolating it with dead cells. ⊚ ⊚
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true false
2
13)
No real risk of cancer comes from an organism's environment. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 14) What molecule holds instructions forthe synthesis of proteins and copies itself before cell division?
A) ATP synthase B) DNA C) RNA D) NAD E) FAD
15)
DNA's sugar-phosphate backbones are joined with
A) ionic bonds. B) hydrogen bonds. C) weak chemical bonds. D) covalent bonds. E) No answer is correct.
16)
Strands of DNA are joined by
A) hydrogen bonds. B) covalent bonds. C) ionic bonds. D) phosphodiester bonds.
17)
The genome of an organism is all of its
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A) proteins. B) RNA. C) characteristics. D) genetic material. E) All answers are correct.
18) If you were watching a cell undergoing a doubling of the DNA in its nucleus, you would be observing
A) protein synthesis. B) aerobic respiration. C) replication. D) substrate-phosphorylation. E) photosynthesis.
19)
The enzyme that unwinds DNA is
A) helicase. B) transcriptase. C) DNA polymerase. D) amylase. E) ligase.
20)
The enzyme that adds nucleotides to form new strands of DNA is
A) amylase. B) transcriptase. C) ligase. D) helicase. E) DNA polymerase.
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21)
Mutations may be caused by
A) errors in prokaryotic replication. B) exposure to radiation. C) exposure to chemicals. D) errors in eukaryotic replication. E) All answers are correct.
22)
Apoptosis is also called
A) replication. B) mitosis. C) programmed cell death. D) the cell cycle. E) programmed cellular reproduction.
23)
A discrete package of DNA and associated proteins in eukaryotes is a
A) chromosome. B) nucleus. C) ribosome. D) Golgi body. E) centriole.
24)
A nucleosome consists of
A) a stretch of DNA and histones. B) a stretch of DNA only. C) a stretch of RNA only. D) a stretch of RNA and a ribosome. E) histones only.
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25) Eukaryotic chromosomes become visible with a light microscope before cell division because they
A) become less tightly wound. B) become more tightly wound. C) increase in length. D) decrease in length. E) combine with RNA.
26)
One of two identical attached copies of a replicated chromosome is called a
A) centromere. B) chromatin. C) chromosome. D) nucleosome. E) chromatid.
27)
A part of a chromosome that attaches sister chromatids to each other defines the term
A) chromatin. B) nucleosome. C) centromere. D) histone. E) No answer is correct.
28)
DNA and its associated proteins in the nucleus is referred to as the
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A) centromere. B) nucleosome. C) histone. D) chromatin. E) microtubule.
29) If you were putting description on a model, you would put a card saying "a discrete continuous molecule of DNA wrapped around protein" on a model of a
A) nucleosome. B) chromosome. C) centromere. D) histone. E) genome.
30)
Sister chromatids are
A) genetically identical and attached to each other at the centromere. B) genetically different and attached to each other at the centromere. C) genetically different. D) genetically identical. E) attached to each other at the centromere.
31)
The process by which a sperm cell combines with an egg cell is
A) fertilization. B) recombination. C) replication. D) mitosis. E) germination.
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32)
All of the following refer to mitosis, except
A) repair of damaged cells. B) growth of an organism. C) asexual reproduction. D) formation of gametes. E) production of genetically identical daughter cells.
33)
Meiosis is a process used for
A) repair of damaged cells. B) growth of an organism. C) asexual reproduction. D) production of stem cells. E) production of gametes.
34)
The two main stages of the eukaryotic cell cycle are
A) interphase and cytokinesis. B) interphase and mitosis. C) mitosis and cytokinesis. D) interphase and prophase. E) mitosis and meiosis.
35)
The splitting of a cell into two daughter cells in the eukaryotic cell cycle is
A) mitosis. B) interphase. C) cytokinesis. D) metaphase. E) anaphase.
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36)
The division of the nucleus during the eukaryotic cell cycle is
A) mitosis. B) interphase. C) synthesis. D) cytokinesis. E) replication.
37) You are told that you will receive an automatic "A" in your course if you look in a drawer marked with a part of the cell cycle most clearly associated with DNA replication and find a special token. Therefore you look in a drawer containing items related to
A) mitosis. B) cytokinesis. C) prophase. D) telophase. E) interphase.
38)
The correct sequence for the phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle is
A) interphase—prophase—metaphase—anaphase—telophase—cytokinesis. B) interphase—metaphase—anaphase—telophase. C) prophase—anaphase—metaphase—telophase. D) interphase—prophase—cytokinesis—anaphase—telophase. E) metaphase—anaphase—interphase—prophase—telophase—cytokinesis.
39)
The correct sequence for the phases of mitosis is
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A) interphase—prophase—metaphase—anaphase—telophase—cytokinesis. B) interphase—prophase—metaphase—anaphase—telophase. C) metaphase—anaphase—prophase—telophase. D) prophase—metaphase—cytokinesis—anaphase—telophase. E) prophase—metaphase—anaphase—telophase.
40) The component of the cytoskeleton that attaches tothe chromosomes to separate them during anaphase is the
A) Golgi apparatus. B) centromere. C) centrosome. D) mitotic spindle. E) kinetochore.
41) In early stages of mitosis, a structure appears and functions to organize the protein subunits of the mitotic spindle. This is the
A) centromere. B) kinetochore. C) centrosome. D) cytoskeleton. E) microfilaments.
42) The phase of mitosis in which the centromeres split and sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of the cell is
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A) prophase. B) anaphase. C) interphase. D) metaphase. E) telophase.
43) is
The phase of mitosis in which the chromosomes are aligned along the equator of the cell
A) metaphase. B) prophase. C) interphase. D) anaphase. E) telophase.
44) The phase of mitosis in which the chromosomes condense and centrosomes move to opposite poles of the cell is
A) interphase. B) metaphase. C) prophase. D) anaphase. E) telophase.
45)
The first sign of cytokinesis in an animal cell is the formation of a
A) cell plate. B) cleavage furrow. C) cell wall. D) nucleolus. E) nuclear envelope.
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46)
In an asexual life cycle, cells reproduce by
A) meiosis. B) fertilization. C) meiosis and fertilization. D) mitosis. E) All answers are correct.
47)
In a sexual life cycle, a zygote (fertilized egg)grows to an adult by
A) meiosis. B) fertilization. C) meiosis and fertilization. D) mitosis. E) All answers are correct.
48)
How does the space between our fingers arise?
A) The cells form by apoptosis. B) Mitosis of the cells is blocked. C) The cells die by apoptosis. D) Meiosis of the cells is blocked. E) The cells become part of the fingers.
49) If one strand of a DNA molecule has the base sequence of 5' ATGTGCC 3' the complementary strand of DNA will read
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A) 3' ATGTGCC 5'. B) 3' TACACGG 5'. C) 3' UACACGG 5'. D) 3' CGTGTAA 5'. E) 3' GGCACAT 5'.
50)
When DNA replicates
A) the original DNA is not affected and a new double-stranded DNA is made from two new strands of DNA. B) one strand of the original DNA ends up in each of the new DNA molecules. C) the original DNA unwinds, and multiple copies of a region are transcribed before the DNA closes back up. D) transcription factors determine where to begin DNA replication. E) a cell that was diploid (2N) will now be tetraploid (4N).
51) The chemotherapy drug taxol inhibits microtubule function. A cell treated with taxol would become stuck in which phase?
A) prophase B) metaphase C) anaphase D) telophase E) cytokinesis
52)
Bypassing a checkpoint in the cell cycle may result in a cancer cell
A) dividing after mutations are fixed. B) continuing to divide and replicatewith faulty DNA. C) condensing its chromosomes before mitosis. D) aligning chromosomes on the equator of the cell during metaphase. E) pulling chromosomes apart during anaphase.
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53) In the section "Investigating Life: Evolutionary Strategies in the Race Against Cancer," scientists studied the effects of adaptive cancer therapies on tumors in mice. What is the dependent variable in this study?
A) Volume of the tumor in humans. B) Skipped doses. C) Standard therapy. D) Declining doses. E) Volume of the tumor in mice.
54) In the section "Investigating Life: Evolutionary Strategies in the Race Against Cancer,"what did the researchers conclude?
A) Standard therapy led to the smallest tumors. B) Skipped dose therapy led to the smallest tumors. C) Declining dose therapy led to the smallest tumors. D) Standard, skipped and declining dose therapy all led to the small tumors. E) Standard, skipped and declining dose therapy were not effective in treating tumors.
55) Adaptive therapy aims to combat _______ amongst cancer cells that leads totumor growth continuing even after therapy treatments.
A) cooperation B) camoflauge C) colegiality D) competition E) cohesiveness
56) An asexual process used by prokaryotes in which replicated DNA and other cell parts are distributed into two daughter cells is called
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A) mitosis. B) binary fusion. C) daughter cell duplication. D) binary fission. E) conjugation.
57)
Which of the following is correct about bothbinary fission and mitosis?
A) Both are asexual forms of cell reproduction. B) Both result in genetically identical cells. C) Both replicate the DNA before the cell splits. D) Both result in two daughter cells. E) All answers are correct.
58)
Which of the following is correct about bothbinary fission and meiosis?
A) Both result in genetically identical cells. B) Both result in one daughter cell. C) Both are asexual forms of cell reproduction. D) Both replicate the DNA before the cell splits. E) All answers are correct.
59) Binary fission produces ______ cells, mitosis produces ______ cells, and meiosis produces ______ cells.
A) prokaryotic; eukaryotic body; eukaryotic sex B) genetic; body; sex C) eukaryotic; prokaryotic body; prokaryotic sex D) genetically different; genetically identical; genetically different E) genetically identical; genetically different; genetically identical
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60)
Which of the following does not increase the risk for developing cancer?
A) vigorous exercise B) poor diet C) obesity D) sun exposure E) tobacco
61)
Which is a common cause of cervical cancer?
A) human papillomavirus B) UV radiation C) dietary saturated fat D) tobacco use E) All answers are correct.
62) If you wanted to lower your chances oflung cancer, what would be the best factor to avoid?
A) human papillomavirus B) UV radiation C) dietary saturated fat D) tobacco use E) All answers are correct.
63)
Apoptosis could be used to protect an organism against
A) excessive DNA damage. B) excess fat in the diet. C) allergens. D) a family history of cancer. E) No answer is correct.
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SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions.
64)
64.1)
The cell in the image labeled "A"is in the cell cycle stage
A) interphase. B) prophase. C) anaphase. D) telophase. E) metaphase.
64.2)
The cell in the image labeled "B"is in the cell cycle stage
A) interphase. B) telophase. C) anaphase. D) metaphase. E) prophase.
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64.3)
The cell in the image labeled "D" is in the cell cycle stage
A) metaphase. B) anaphase. C) prophase. D) telophase. E) interphase.
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Answer Key Test name: ch 8 1) TRUE Following replication, a new DNA helix is made of onepreexisting DNA strands and one newly synthesized DNA strand. Please see section 8.2 for more information. newly synthesized. Please see section 8.2 for more information. 2) FALSE Plant cells' walls prevent their having a cleavage furrow, so a cell plate forms instead. Please see section 8.5 for more information. 3) TRUE Cell cycle checkpointsassure that the right number of cells are made and that each step of the cell cycle is correctly completed before proceeding to the next step. Please see section 8.6 for more information. 4) TRUE Tumors are the result of uncontrolled cell division. Please see section 8.6 for more information. 5) TRUE Metastasis makes cancer much more likely to be fatal and much harder to treat. Please see section 8.6 for more information. 6) TRUE Binary fission is intended to produce two identical daughter cells. Please see section 8.3 for more information. 7) TRUE
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Some risk of cancer can come from defective genes, such as those involved in cell cycle checkpoints. Please see section 8.6 for more information. 8) TRUE UV radiation damages DNA, so excess exposure to sunlight can lead to DNA damage and cancer. Please see section 8.6 for more information. 9) TRUE Since cell cycle checkpoints are critical for avoiding cancer, a mutation in one such gene might disable the checkpoint and allow cancer to grow. Please see section 8.6 for more information. 10) TRUE DNA base pairing means that it is easy to first copy a strand to make a new double helix and then to keep the one new and one old strand together. Please see section 8.2 for more information. 11) TRUE Palm leaves use apoptosis to help form their compound leaves. Please see section 8.1 for more information. 12) TRUE Apoptosis is in fact used by plants for this purpose, to limit the spread of viruses from cell to cell. Please see section 8.1 for more information. 13) FALSE Some risk of cancer can come from various environmental sources, such as agricultural chemicals. Please see section 8.6 for more information. 14) B DNA carries the information to run a cell, so it must be copied before cells divide. Please see section 8.1 for more information.
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15) D The sugars and phosphates are connected by strong covalent bonds, while opposite strands of DNA in a double helix are joined by hydrogen bonds. Please see section 8.2 for more information. 16) A Hydrogen bonds between paired bases on opposite DNA strands hold together the double helix. Please see section 8.2 for more information. 17) D A genome is all of the DNA in one place, be it one cell, one nucleus, one mitochondrion. Please see section 8.2 for more information. 18) C DNA replication is the process of copying DNA before cell division. Please see sections 8.1 and 8.2 for more information. 19) A Helicase breaks apart the DNA double helix to allow copying of the two strands. Please see section 8.2 for more information. 20) E DNA polymerase is the enzyme which adds nucleotides to a growing strand of DNA. Please see section 8.2 for more information. 21) E When DNA polymerase works, it makes errors, though rarely. These mutations in the DNA sequence are copied. Please see section 8.2 for more information. 22) C Programmed cell death is a deliberate process which various organisms use for defense against disease or for developmental purposes. Please see section 8.1 for more information. Version 1
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23) A A chromosome consists of DNA and associated protein. Please see section 8.4 for more information. 24) A Nucleosomes are units of organization within the chromosomes consisting of both DNA and protein. Please see section 8.4 for more information. 25) B Being more tightly wound means that the DNA and protein are more densely packed and block more light in the microscope, increasing contrast. Please see section 8.4 for more information. 26) E Chromosomes are separate physical units, while chromatids are attached copies of a chromosome, not yet separated by cell division. Please see section 8.4 for more information. 27) C Sister chromatids attach at centromeres, and microtubules also attach there to separate copies of chromosomes during mitosis. Please see section 8.4 for more information. 28) D Chromatin is DNA wrapped around proteins. Please see section 8.4 for more information. 29) B Chromosomes are long, single pieces of DNA wrapped around many proteins. Please see section 8.4 for more information. 30) A
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Sister chromatids are the product of DNA replication and are separated during the M phase of the cell cycle. Please see section 8.4 and8.5 for more information. 31) A Fertilization is needed to restore diploid chromosome numbers after meiosis reduces cells to haploidy. Please see section 8.1 for more information. 32) D Production of gametes(sex cells)requires meiosis(reductive cell division)not mitosis. Please see section 8.1 for more information. 33) E Meiosis reduces the normal diploidy of a cell to haploidy, making sex cells appropriate for the purpose of fusion with another sex cell. Please see section 8.1 for more information. 34) B Interphase finds cells quite busy, but not at a visible level, while mitosis contains the visible steps in separating two daughter cells. Please see section 8.5 for more information. 35) C When a cell divides into two, the physical split, rather than the separation of daughter nuclei, is called cytokinesis. Please see section 8.5 for more information. 36) A Mitosis is when two daughter nuclei are formed at the end of the separation of duplicated copies of the parent cell's chromosomes. Please see section 8.5 for more information. 37) E Version 1
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Though there are not the vivid visual steps seen in mitosis, interphase still includes vigorous biochemical activity, such as DNA replication. Please see section 8.5 for more information. 38) A The phases of the cell cycle move the cell from one parent cell to two daughter cells, each with the same set of chromosomes. Please see section 8.5 for more information. 39) E The phases of mitosis are the various steps involved in separating copies of chromosomes into two new nuclei. Please see section 8.5 for more information. 40) D Microtubules appear and grip the center of chromsomes so that sister chromatids can be pulled to opposite new nuclei starting in anaphase. Please see section 8.5 for more information. 41) C Centrosomes organize the mitotic spindle and so are critical for separating sister chromatids. Please see section 8.5 for more information. 42) B Anaphase comes late in mitosis, after chromosomes have lined up in the center of the cell but before the reappearance of the nuclear envelope. Please see section 8.5 for more information. 43) A In metaphase, the chromosomes are lined up by the spindle. Please see section 8.5 for more information. 44) C Version 1
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Prophase is a phase when the cell prepares to line up chromosomes. Please see section 8.5 for more information. 45) B Animal cells divide by pinching in the center until the two daughter cells each have a complete and separate membrane.Please see section 8.5 for more information. 46) D Asexually-reproducing eukaryotes use only mitosis to produce more cells and new individuals. Please see section 8.1 for more information. 47) D In a sexually reproducing animal, mitosis is still important for increases in cell number and organism size. Please see section 8.1 for more information. 48) C In the womb, human fingers are attached by tissue, but these attachments normally are lost via apoptosis before birth. Please see section 8.1 for more information. 49) B DNA sequence complementation allows one strand to be used to predict the sequence of a newly synthesized strand.Please see section 8.2 for more information. 50) B New double-stranded DNA is made from one original strand and one newly-synthesized strand. Please see section 8.2 for more information. 51) A After prophase, microtubules must form to align and then separate chromosomes. Please see section 8.6 for more information.
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52) B Checkpoints are normally responsible to prevent the formation of too many cells too quickly, which is what happens when the checkpoints fail and cancer begins. Please see section 8.6 for more information. 53) E The effect of chemotherapy on tumor volume of mice was assessed. Please see section 8.6 and "Investigating Life" for more information. 54) C The experiment demonstrated that declining dose therapy resulted in the smallest tumors. See 8.6 and the Investigating Life sections. 55) D Competition amongst cancer cells keeps drug resistant cancer cells at bay. With chemotherapy, some cancer cells die, leaving a disproportionate number of cancer cells that are resistant to the treatment. Please see section 8.6 and "Investigating Life" for more information. 56) D "Binary fission" implies a splitting into two pieces.Please see section 8.3 for more information. 57) E Binary fission and mitosis both involve splitting of chromosome copies without genetic recombination into usually identical daughter cells. Please see section 8.3 for more information. 58) D Though they occur in very different organisms, binary fission and meiosis both start with replicated DNA. Please see section 8.3 for more information.
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59) A Prokaryotes and eukaryotes have a range cell division types and purposes for those divisions. Please see section 8.1 and 8.3 for more information. 60) A Many things can increase the chance an individual will develop cancer, but vigorous exercise usually helps protect against several health risks. Please see section 8.6 and Table 8.1 for more information. 61) A Human papillomavirus, transmitted by sexual contact, can cause cervical cancer. Please see section 8.6 and Table 8.1for more information. 62) D Tobacco use is a risk factor associated with lung cancer. Please see section 8.6 for more information. 63) A Apoptosis could be used to eliminate cells too badly damaged for repair. Please see section 8.1 for more information. 64) Section Break 64.1) A Interphase is the time for DNA replication.Please see section 8.5 for more information. 64.2) E Prophase is the first phase of mitosis with visible changes to cells. Please see section 8.5 for more information. 64.3) A Metaphase is the middle stage of mitosis. Please see section 8.5 for more information. Version 1
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Mitosis occurs in somatic cells throughout life. ⊚ ⊚
2)
If a human zygote has either 45 or 47 chromosomes it was caused byrandom fertilization. ⊚ ⊚
3)
true false
true false
Haploid germ cells undergo meiosis, including crossing over, to produce sex cells. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) Meiosis generates genetic variability by crossing over of homologous chromosomes in haploid somatic cells. ⊚ ⊚
5) half.
true false
Identical twins result from a single fertilization to form a zygote, which then splits in
⊚ ⊚
true false
6) Genetic variability will not occur among offspring if crossing over does not occur during prophase I of meiosis. ⊚ ⊚
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true false
1
7) Genetic variability will not occur among offspring if random alignmentdoes not occur during anaphase I of meiosis. ⊚ ⊚
true false
8) The roundworm Caenorhabditis sexual reproduction. ⊚ ⊚
elegans is a hermaphrodite and can only undergo
true false
9) During anaphase of Meiosis I (the first phase of Meiosis), homologous chromosomes separate to opposite poles of the cell, whereas sister chromatids remain joined. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10) Chromosomes that look alike and carry the same genes are
A) the X and Y chromosome. B) heterologous chromosomes. C) homologous chromosomes. D) found in females only. E) found in males only.
11)
Meiosis is a process that produces
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A) sperm cells. B) egg cells. C) gametes. D) haploid cells. E) All answers are correct.
12) Sexual reproduction is important to the survival of a species in a changing environment because
A) it requires less overall energy expenditure than asexual reproduction. B) it produces genetically different individuals. C) it requires only one individual. D) itproduces genetically identical individuals. E) All answers are correct.
13)
2 n is an abbreviation for
A) diploid. B) gametes. C) haploid. D) mitosis. E) meiosis.
14)
Diploid means having
A) one homologous set of chromosomes. B) three homologous sets of chromosomes. C) two homologous sets of chromosomes. D) two chromosomes in each somatic cell. E) two chromosomes in each gamete.
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15)
If human gametes were diploid
A) the products of fertilization would have the same number of chromosomes as their parents. B) the products of fertilization would have fewer chromosomes than their parents. C) fertilization could not occur. D) the products of fertilization would have more chromosomes than their parents. E) the embryo would be diploid.
16)
1 n is an abbreviation for
A) haploid. B) somatic cells. C) diploid. D) mitosis. E) meiosis.
17) If you were looking at a diagramof the male human body and were asked to locate the germ cells, you would point to the
A) bone marrow. B) blood. C) brain. D) skin. E) testes.
18) A diploid germ cell will produce cells with half the number of chromosomes, haploid cells, in
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A) fertilization. B) mitosis. C) meiosis. D) replication. E) mutation.
19) After the completion ofmeiosis in human males, a diploid germ cell has produced cells with half the originalchromosome number, generating __________ haploid cells.
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 23 E) 46
20)
The process that merges the gametes from two parents is
A) fertilization. B) meiosis. C) mitosis. D) mutation. E) conjugation.
21)
A zygote is
A) a haploid cell. B) a gamete. C) a direct product of meiosis. D) a diploid cell. E) All answers are correct.
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22)
Sexual reproduction includes
A) mitosis, fission, and fertilization. B) mitosis, meiosis, and budding. C) meiosis, fertilization, and mitosis. D) meiosis, fertilization, and transduction. E) fertilization, fission, and meiosis.
23) Mitotic cell division creates identical copies by replicating a cell's DNA ________ and then dividing ________.
A) once; twice B) twice; once C) twice; twice D) once; once E) No answer is correct.
24)
Meiotic cell division replicates a cell's DNA ________ and then divides ________.
A) twice; once B) once; twice C) twice; twice D) once; once E) No answer is correct.
25)
Human diploid cells have
A) 23 pairs of chromosomes. B) 23 chromosomes. C) 46 pairs ofchromosomes. D) 2 pairs of sex chromosomes. E) 1 pair of autosomes.
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26)
The human chromosomes that do not determine an individual's sex are
A) not found in pairs. B) the "X" and "Y" chromosomes. C) autosomes. D) sex chromosomes. E) No answer is correct.
27)
The chromosomal designation for a human male is
A) XX. B) XO. C) XY. D) YY. E) XXX.
28)
The chromosomal designation for a human female is
A) XYY. B) XY. C) YY. D) XX. E) No answer is correct.
29) If you were looking at a set of human chromosomes under the microscope, you would know when you saw the X chromosome in part because it is
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A) larger than the Y chromosome. B) smaller than the Y chromosome. C) the same size as the Y chromosome. D) genetically identical to the Y chromosome. E) larger and genetically identical to the Y chromosome.
30)
The Y chromosome
A) is larger than the X chromosome. B) contains more genes than the X chromosome. C) is the same size as the X chromosome. D) is smaller than the X chromosome. E) is genetically identical to the X chromosome.
31)
In meiosis, DNA replicates during
A) prophase I. B) prophase II. C) interphase prior to meiosis II. D) interphase prior to meiosis I. E) both prophase I and prophase II.
32)
In meiosis, homologous chromosomes align next to one another during
A) interphase I. B) metaphase II. C) prophase I. D) metaphase I. E) prophase II.
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33) If you were told that you would get extra credit for finding a model showing chromsomes separating while sister chromatids were still attached, you would look for a model of
A) prophase I. B) prophase II. C) anaphase I. D) metaphase I. E) anaphase II.
34)
Sexual reproduction and meiosis generate genetic variability by
A) random fertilization. B) crossing over. C) random alignment. D) All answers are correct.
35)
The process by which homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material
A) is crossing over. B) is random fertilization. C) occurs only in bacteria. D) occurs only in animals. E) is independent assortment.
36)
Alternate forms of the same gene
A) do not exist. B) are alleles. C) are homologs. D) are sister chromatids. E) do not occur in the same individual.
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37)
What process leads to siblings only sharing, on average, 25% of their genetic material?
A) asexual reproduction B) semiconservative replication C) random fertilization D) random orientation E) mutation
38)
A cell having one or more complete sets of extra chromosomes
A) cannot be produced by meiosis. B) cannot participate in fertilization. C) is polyploid. D) is haploid. E) is dizygotic.
39)
When chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, this is known as
A) crossing over. B) nondisjunction. C) translocation. D) random separation. E) mitosis.
40)
Nondisjunction may cause
A) trisomy 21. B) Turner syndrome. C) Jacobs syndrome. D) Klinefelter syndrome. E) All answers are correct.
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41)
What is an advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?
A) genetic variability during an ecological disaster B) genetic variability when the environment is stable C) faster reproduction D) requirement of less energy E) simpler form of reproduction
42) People who have a single X chromosome are female, while those with XXY sex chromosomes are males. In order to be a female, a human
A) must have two X chromosomes. B) cannot have a Y chromosome. C) must have only one X chromosome. D) must have only one Y chromosome. E) cannot have an X chromosome.
43)
Why is it essential that meiosis produce haploid cells?
A) so that the number of chromosomes will double each generation B) to produce haploid offspring C) to prevent the number of chromosomes from doubling each generation D) to produce diploid gametes E) to allow asexual reproduction
44)
When a diploid germ cell in a male goes through meiosis, it will generate
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A) two haploid cells. B) four diploid cells. C) two diploid cells. D) four haploid cells. E) This is not possible.
45)
If a haploid cell goes through meiosis it will generate
A) four haploid cells. B) two diploid cells. C) two haploid cells. D) four diploid cells. E) No answer is correct.
46)
If a diploid cell goes through mitosis it will generate
A) four haploid cells. B) two diploid cells. C) two haploid cells. D) four diploid cells. E) This is not possible.
47)
If a haploid cell goes through mitosis it will generate
A) two haploid cells. B) two diploid cells. C) four haploid cells. D) four diploid cells. E) No answer is correct.
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48) Genes A and B are on the same chromosome. What gametes could an individual with the allele combination AABB produce?
A) AABB B) A C) AB D) B E) AAB
49) Genes A and B are on the same chromosome. If a person has one chromosome with the alleles AB and a second chromosome with the alleles ab, how could they produce a gamete with a chromosome containing the alleles Ab or aB?
A) independent assortment B) random fertilization C) mitosis D) fragmentation of the chromosome E) crossing over
50)
Which of the following will occur in meiosis but not in mitosis?
A) metaphase B) cytokinesis C) crossing over D) DNA replication E) chromosome condensation
51) If a chromosome in one of your bone cells becomes mutated, you will not pass this mutation onto your children because
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A) somatic cells cannot undergo mitosis. B) germ cells cannot undergo meiosis. C) germ cells cannot undergo mitosis. D) somatic cells cannot undergo meiosis.
52)
If a diploid sperm fertilizes a diploid egg it will produce a ____ zygote.
A) triploid B) tetraploid C) diploid D) haploid E) hexaploid
53)
Fraternal twins (dizygotic) result from the fertilization of
A) two eggs and two sperm. B) two eggs and one sperm. C) one egg and two sperm. D) one egg and one sperm. E) two eggs and one sperm OR one egg and two sperm.
54)
Genetic information is passed from one generation to the next through
A) DNA. B) asexual reproduction. C) sexual reproduction. D) gametes. E) All answers are correct.
55)
What two processes resultin genetically different products?
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A) mitosis and meiosis B) mitosis and asexual reproduction C) meiosis and asexual reproduction D) meiosis and sexual reproduction E) mitosis and sexual reproduction
56)
What creates genetically different offspring in both asexual and sexual reproduction?
A) mutations B) mitosis C) meiosis D) mutations and mitosis E) mitosis and meiosis
57) If you mate a donkey (2 n = 62) with a horse (2 n = 64) you get a mule. Mules are sterile and cannot produce gametes by meiosis because they
A) contain too few chromosomes. B) have an odd number of chromosomes. C) have an even number of chromosomes. D) contain too many chromosomes. E) lack genes that are essential for life.
58) Researchers exposed the microscopic roundworm, Caenorhabditis elegans, to disease causing bacteria.The roundworm can reproduce either asexually or sexually. In the presence of live bacteria, more roundworms reproduced sexually, and the resulting offspring were
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A) unique, giving the roundworms a better chance of survival. B) identical, giving the roundworms a better chance for survival. C) identical, giving the bacteria a greater chance to kill the entire round worm population. D) unique, giving the roundworms a more energy-conserving type of reproduction. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
59)
In the presence of parasites, a hermaphroditic roundworm will reproduce
A) sexually, producing varied offspring B) sexually, producing identical offspring C) asexually, producing identical offspring D) asexually, producing varied offspring E) None of the above are correct.
60)
Sister chromatids
A) have different alleles. B) are the same as homologous chromosomes. C) are connected on chromosomes by centromeres. D) are not found in diploid cells.
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Answer Key Test name: ch 9 1) TRUE Somatic cells undergo mitosis to produce cells needed for growth and tissue repair. Please see sections 9.1 and 9.3 for more information. 2) FALSE Odd numbers of chromosomes result from nondisjunction in meiosis. Please see section 9.5 and 9.7 for more information. 3) FALSE All of the statement is true except that germ cells are diploid. Please see section 9.3 for more information. 4) FALSE Crossing over does generate genetic variability, but it acts in diploid germ cells. Please see sections 9.1 and 9.5 for more information. 5) TRUE One zygote splitting involves no genetic change. Please see section 9.5 for more information. 6) FALSE Genetic variability also results from random fertilization and/or random orientation. Please see section 9.5 for more information. 7) FALSE Genetic variability also results from crossing over. Please see section 9.5 for more information. 8) FALSE
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Hermaphrodite organisms can reproduce sexually or asexually. Please see the section "Investigating Life" for more information. 9) TRUE Meiosis has two distinct phases of DNA separation. Homologous chromosomes separate in Meiosis I and chromatids separate in Meiosis II. Please see section 9.4 for more information. 10) C Homologous chromosomes are the corresponding chromosomes in a genome which came from the two parental organisms. Please see section 9.2 for more information. 11) E The purpose of meiosis is to reduce cells to haploidy and to create new combinations of alleles. Please see section 9.3 for more information. 12) B The new genetic combinations resulting from meiosis provide offspring which may be able to survive changes in the environment. Please see section 9.1 for more information. 13) A In "2n,'' the '2' refers to the number of copies of chromosomes and the ''n'' refers to whole sets of chromosomes. Please see section 9.2 and 9.3 for more information. 14) C Diploid cells have two copies of every chromosome. Please see sections 9.2 and 9.3 for more information. 15) D
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A doubling of chromosomes in every generation would lead to a genetic disaster for diploid organisms. Please see section 9.3 for more information. 16) A "1n" means that a cell has one copy of each chromosome for that species. Please see sections 9.2 and 9.3 for more information. 17) E Germ cells are used to produce the gametes. Please see section 9.3 for more information. 18) C Meiosis reduces the number of copies of each chromosome from 2 to 1. Please see sections 9.3 and 9.4 for more information. 19) C Since meiosis starts with a diploid cell that has replicated its DNA to yield four sets of chromosomes, four haploid cells would have to be the result. Please see section 9.4 for more information. 20) A Fertilization restores the normal diploid number of chromosomes for a species. Please see section 9.3 for more information. 21) D A zygote, which all of us were at one time, is the first diploid cell in the life of an organism. Please see section 9.3 for more information. 22) C Meiosis produces gametes, which can then undergo fertilization. Please see section 9.3 for more information. 23) D
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Mitosis in eukaryotes serves to make organisms larger and to repair tissue, and for replication in some cases. Please see section 9.6 for more information. 24) B By having only one replication but two divisions, meiosis reduces diploid germ cells to haploid sex cells. Please see section 9.6 for more information. 25) A Human diploid cells have one pair of sex chromosomes and twenty-two pairs of autosomes. Please see section 9.2 for more information. 26) C Autosomes are the majority of the DNA in a eukaryotic nucleus, but they do not determine sex in organisms with distinct sex chromosomes. Please see section 9.2 for more information. 27) C Male mammals such as human males have two different sex chromosomes. Please see section 9.2 for more information. 28) D Human females, like other female mammals, have two X chromosomes. Please see section 9.2 for more information. 29) A Y chromosomes are much smaller than X chromosomes, but they do share a small region of homology. Please see section 9.2 for more information. 30) D The X chromosome is much larger than the Y. Please see section 9.2 for more information. Version 1
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31) D Meiosis, by having one replication but two divisions, produces to haploid cells. Please see section 9.4 for more information. 32) C Homologous chromosomes align during prophase I and crossing over can occur. Please see section 9.4 for more information. 33) C At the end of anaphase I, chromosomes separate to opposite poles, but meiosis II still needs to occur. Please see section 9.4 for more information. 34) D Meiosis generates genetic variability by several means. This variability maybenefita species, since the variableprogeny will potentially respond differently under different conditions. Please see section 9.5 for more information. 35) A The process of genetic exchange during meiosis is called "crossing over" because DNA literally crosses from one homologous chromosome to another. Please see section 9.5 for more information. 36) B Alleles are found at the same location on different homologous chromosomes and have somewhat different sequences. Please see section 9.2 for more information. 37) D
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In meiosis I, the alignment of chromosomes during metaphase is a random process, such that resulting gametes will contain different mixes of paternal and maternal chromosomes. Please see section 9.5 for more information. 38) C Cells with extra sets of chromosomes are polyploid; an example would be a diploid gamete. Please see section 9.7 for more information. 39) B Nondisjunction occurs when two copies of a chromosome fail to separate, resulting in gametes with one more or one less than the normal complement of chromosomes. Please see section 9.7 for more information. 40) E A number of genetic disorders result from nondisjunction and the imbalance of chromosomes that results. Please see section 9.7 for more information. 41) A The genetic variation generated by sexual reproduction provides a pool for adapting to changes and disasters in the environment. This has been long recognized by indigenous farmers and, more recently, by operators of seed banks. Please see section 9.1 for more information. 42) B Sex determination systems vary in different organisms; in humans, the Y chromosome must be absent for individuals to be female. Please see section 9.2 for more information. 43) C
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Fusion of haploid gametes restores the normal diploid state when a zygote forms. Please see section 9.3 for more information. 44) D Meiosis starts with a diploid cell. In males,four haploid cells are produced at the end of meiosis. Please see section 9.3 for more information. 45) E Meiosis cannot start with a haploid cell since homologous pairs cannot be made, among other things. Please see section 9.6 for more information. 46) B Diploid cells produce diploid cells by mitosis since mitosis copies cells without altering their DNA content. Please see section 9.6 for more information. 47) A Mitosis produces cells with identical genetic contents to the starting cells. Please see section 9.6 for more information. 48) C Each gamete gets one allele per gene. Please see section 9.5 for more information. 49) E Crossing over allows for combinations on the same resulting chromosome from two different homologs. Please see section 9.5 for more information. 50) C Mitosis lacks any exchange of DNA between homologs. Please see section 9.6 for more information.
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51) D Somatic cells, distinct from germ cells, do not produce gametes for starting a new generation. Please see section 9.3 for more information. 52) B Two diploid gametes, if fused, give four sets of chromosomes to the zygote. Please see section 9.7 for more information. 53) A Fraternal twins are the result of two fertilization events. Please see section 9.5 for more information. 54) E There are many means by which genetic information passes from generation to generation, depending on the lifecycle of a particular organism. Please see section 9.1 for more information. 55) D Mitosis is designed to produce genetically identical cells, while meiosis and sexual reproduction lead to new genetic combinations. Please see section 9.1 for more information. 56) A Mutation changes DNA sequences and thus the genetic information in organisms which inherit the mutated DNA. Please see section 9.1 for more information. 57) B Fertilization of gametes would yield an unmatched chromosome. Please see section 9.7 and "Burning Question" for more information. 58) A
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The roundworm, C. elegans is able to change from asexual to sexual reproduction. Switching to sexual reproduction occurs whenthe worms are challenged by a stressor, such as parasitic bacteria. Sexual reproduction increases genetic variation with more offspring surviving. Please see the section "Investigating Life" for more information. 59) A A hermaphrodite worm can reproduce sexually, producing varied offspring. It can also self-reproduce, in which case the offspring are identical to the parent. With a parasite threat, sexual reproduction will yield variable offspring and a higher probability that some of those offspring will survive. Please see the section "Investigating Life". 60) C Once replicated, each chromosome consists of two identical sister chromatids that are connected at centromeres. Please see section 9.2 for more information.
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Each gamete arises from a diploid cell containing two sets of homologous chromosomes. ⊚ ⊚
2)
A recessive allele is one whose effect is masked if a dominant allele is also present. ⊚ ⊚
3)
true false
The most common allele for any trait is always the dominant allele. ⊚ ⊚
4)
true false
true false
Genotypes are the outward expression of an allele combination. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) Mendel's law of segregation states that the two alleles of each gene are packaged into separate gametes. ⊚ ⊚
6)
true false
If two genes are linked, they will appear to violate Mendel's law of segregation. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) If the probability of one genetic event is 1/2 and of another 1/6, then the probability of both occurring is 1/12.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
8) On a diagram of linked genes on a chromosome, the distance between the genes would be based on the frequency of crossing over between the genes during meiosis. ⊚ ⊚
9)
A gene thataffects flower color, root length, and leaf shape is pleiotropic. ⊚ ⊚
10)
true false
true false
A gene that has alleles for blue, pink, red, and white flowers is pleiotropic. ⊚ ⊚
true false
11) If X inactivation fails, problems will result because protein production for sex-linked genes will be too great. ⊚ ⊚
12)
true false
If X inactivation fails, this is a good thing as it is an error of meiosis. ⊚ ⊚
true false
13) In the ABO blood type system, there are six possible genotypes, but only two possible phenotypes. ⊚ ⊚
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14)
The environment only rarely affects gene expression. ⊚ ⊚
true false
15) The individual sometimes referred to as the "father of genetics" because he influenced the science of genetics more than anyone else is Gregor Mendel. ⊚ ⊚
16)
true false
X-linked recessive disorders affect more females than males. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 17) Of all the people who have studied inheritance, the person who made the most lasting impression on the science of genetics is
A) Charles Darwin. B) Robert Hooke. C) King George III. D) Frederick Griffith. E) Gregor Mendel.
18) If ahealthy young couple are both carriers of cystic fibrosis, the chance that their future child will have this serious illness is
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A) 0%. B) 25%. C) 75%. D) 50%. E) 100%.
19)
A portion of DNA that encodes a specific protein is a
A) gene. B) chromosome. C) chromatid. D) centromere. E) kinetochore.
20)
In humans, alleles for a gene locus on autosomes are inherited from
A) females only (mothers). B) males only (fathers). C) males and females (one allele from each parent). D) males and females (two alleles from each parent). E) No answer is correct.
21)
The pea plant ( Pisum sativum) is a good choice for studying heredity because it
A) develops slowly. B) produces only a few offspring. C) is easy to control which plants mate with each other. D) has only a few traits that appear in two easily distinguishable forms. E) All answers are correct.
22)
Mendel called a masking trait
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A) dominant. B) recessive. C) homologous. D) homozygous. E) heterozygous.
23)
Mendel called a trait that is masked
A) homozygous. B) heterozygous. C) dominant. D) recessive. E) No answer is correct.
24)
An allele that exerts its effects whenever it is present is
A) recessive. B) dominant. C) homologous. D) homozygous. E) heterozygous.
25)
When Mendel crossed short (tt) pea plants with short (tt) pea plants the offspring
A) were all tall. B) were a mix of tall and short. C) were nonexistent. D) were all short. E) No answer is correct.
26)
When Mendel crossed tall (Tt) plants with tall (Tt) plants the offspring
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A) did not grow and reproduce. B) were always short. C) were always tall. D) were always medium height. E) were mostly tall individuals and a few short individuals.
27)
If the two alleles for a particular gene are identical the gene pair is
A) homozygous. B) homologous. C) heterozygous. D) dominant. E) recessive.
28)
If the two alleles for a particular gene are different the gene pair is
A) homologous. B) heterozygous. C) homozygous. D) dominant. E) recessive.
29)
If an individual is heterozygous for a particular trait
A) each parent contributed a different allele for that trait. B) each parent contributed the same allele for that trait. C) one parent contributed two different alleles for that trait. D) one parent contributed two copies of the same allele for that trait. E) a mutation must have occurred.
30)
If an individual is homozygous for a particular trait
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A) each parent contributed a different allele for that trait. B) one parent contributed two different alleles for that trait. C) each parent contributed the same allele for that trait. D) one parent contributed two copies of the same allele for that trait. E) a mutation must have occurred.
31) Recessive alleles seem to vanish in some generations and reappear in later generations because they
A) cannot be expressed in males. B) are masked by a dominant allele. C) cannot be expressed in females. D) cannot be expressed in successive generations. E) are lost by mutation.
32)
Genotype means the
A) number of gametes in an individual. B) combination of alleles in an individual. C) number of chromosomes in an individual. D) observable expression of the genes in an individual. E) genes an individual has.
33)
Phenotype means the
A) number of gametes in an individual. B) number of chromosomes in an individual. C) combination of alleles in an individual. D) genes an individual has. E) observable expression of the genes in an individual.
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34)
The most common allele, genotype, or phenotypein a population is referred to as the
A) wild type. B) dominant population. C) recessive population. D) P generation. E) F1 generation.
35)
The "P" in "P generation" refers to
A) pure breeding. B) parental. C) potential offspring. D) recessive allele. E) All answers are correct.
36)
In the study of genetics, the offspring of the P generation are referred to as the
A) wild type generation. B) F1 generation. C) genotype. D) F2 generation. E) phenotype.
37)
A pea plant with ( Tt) as its genotype should be referred to as
A) the wild type. B) homozygous dominant. C) heterozygous. D) homozygous recessive. E) mutant.
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38)
An example of a monohybrid cross would be
A) an individual that is homozygous dominant for one trait undergoing self-fertilization. B) a mating between two individuals that are heterozygous for two traits. C) an individual that is homozygous recessive for one trait undergoing self-fertilization. D) a mating between two individuals that are heterozygous for one trait. E) an individual that is homozygous recessive for two traits undergoing selffertilization.
39) A scientist wants to perform a monohybrid cross for stem length in pea plants that willshow all possible genotypes in the progeny. Which pea plants will theycross?
A) ttgg x ttgg B) tt x tt C) TT x TT D) TTGG x TTGG E) Tt x Tt
40) Mendel's monohybrid cross of tall parents, each with the genotype Tt, resulted in a tall to short ratio of
A) 1:1. B) 1:2. C) 2:1. D) 3:1. E) 1:3.
41)
A test cross is a mating of an individual with an unknown genotype and an individual that
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A) is heterozygous. B) is homozygous dominant. C) is homozygous recessive. D) has any known genotype. E) is the wild type.
42) If all the offspring show the dominant phenotype in a test cross, then the individual with the unknown genotype was
A) heterozygous. B) homozygous dominant. C) homozygous recessive. D) a clone of the other test cross individual. E) heterozygous recessive.
43)
The alleles of each gene packaged into separate gametes summarizes Mendel's law of
A) segregation. B) random fertilization. C) population dynamics. D) crossing over. E) independent assortment.
44)
A dihybrid cross would be a mating between two individuals that are both
A) homozygous recessive for one gene. B) homozygous dominant for two genes. C) homozygous recessive for two genes. D) heterozygous for one gene. E) heterozygous for two genes.
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45) The statement that segregation of alleles for a gene on one chromosome does not influence the segregation of alleles for a gene on another chromosome during gamete formation is Mendel's law of
A) independent assortment. B) random fertilization. C) population dynamics. D) crossing over. E) segregation.
46)
In the ABO blood type system the alleles IA, IB, and i produce
A) three phenotypes. B) two phenotypes. C) one phenotype. D) four phenotypes. E) type A and type B blood types only.
47)
In the ABO blood type system, the IA allele is _____ with the IB allele.
A) dominant B) codominant C) recessive D) homologous E) heterologous
48) If the heterozygous phenotype is intermediate between that of the homozygotes, this is called
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A) codominance. B) independent assortment. C) linkage. D) incomplete dominance. E) polygenic.
49)
A gene that produces a protein important in more than one biochemical pathway is
A) dominant. B) recessive. C) pleiotropic. D) codominant. E) incomplete dominant.
50)
Traits that depend on more than one gene are
A) polygenic. B) pleiotropic. C) codominant. D) recessive. E) incomplete dominant traits.
51)
Autosomes
A) are chromosomes that are the same for both sexes. B) include the Y chromosome in humans. C) include the X chromosome in humans. D) are the sex chromosomes. E) All answers are correct.
52)
Linked genes, by definition, are genes that
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A) are found on the same chromosome. B) have no alleles. C) are found in the same species. D) have more alleles than usual. E) are found in different daughter cells.
53) have
If any of the traits that Mendel worked with were linked genes, his dihybrid crosseswould
A) not yielded the phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1. B) produced more offspring. C) produced fewer offspring. D) exhibited the phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1. E) produced sterile offspring.
54)
Recombinant chromosomes have a mix of paternal and maternal alleles due to
A) random fertilization. B) linkage. C) independent assortment. D) crossing over. E) mutation.
55)
Crossing over is more likely to separate genes on a chromosome if they are
A) close together. B) far apart. C) recessive genes. D) dominant genes. E) mutated genes.
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56)
Diagrams of gene order and spacing on chromosomes are
A) genotypes and phenotypes. B) phenotypes. C) linkage maps. D) genotypes. E) metabolic maps.
57) To inherit an autosomal dominant disorder a person could receive the allele leading to the disease from
A) the father only, not the mother. B) the mother only, not the father. C) the mother or the father. D) the parent who does not exhibit the disease. E) All answers are correct.
58) To inherit an autosomal recessive disorder requires that the person receive the allele leading to the disease from
A) the father only. B) the mother only. C) only the parent having the disease. D) only one parent who is homozygous recessive for the disease. E) both parents.
59) A person has a recessive, faulty allele for a disease, but the person does not have the disease since they also haveanormal dominant allele. Thisperson
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A) is homozygous for the disease. B) cannot produce gametes. C) is termed a carrier. D) is termed a linkage group. E) has the disease but cannot pass this disease to their offspring.
60)
Diagrams depicting family relationships and phenotypes for a genetic disorder are
A) linkage maps. B) pedigree charts. C) genotype maps. D) Punnett squares. E) bell-shaped curves.
61)
In pedigree charts, autosomal dominant disorders typically
A) appear only in males. B) appear only in females. C) appear in every generation. D) seem to disappear in one generation, only to reappear in the next generation. E) occur every third generation.
62)
In pedigree charts, autosomal recessive disorders typically
A) appear in every generation. B) appear only in males. C) appear only in females. D) may disappear in one generation and reappear in the next generation. E) occur every third generation.
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63) If a genetic counselor examines a pedigree chart and notices an occurrence of a disease in every generation, the counselorwould assume that the disease was caused by
A) a new mutation. B) an autosomal recessive disorder. C) a chromosomal abnormality. D) an autosomal dominant disorder. E) having an extra set of chromosomes.
64)
The chromosome that has the genes that determinewhether a human is male or female is
A) the X chromosome. B) chromosome number 21. C) the group of autosomes known as the SRY group. D) chromosome number 22. E) the Y chromosome.
65)
A male expresses
A) only the dominant alleles on his X chromosome. B) both the dominant and recessive alleles on his X chromosome. C) only the homozygous recessive alleles on his X chromosome. D) none of the alleles on his X chromosome. E) only the homozygous dominant alleles on his X chromosome.
66)
Hemophilia A is caused by
A) an X-linked recessive disorder. B) a Y-linked recessive disorder. C) a defective neuron response. D) an X-linked dominant disorder. E) a Y-linked dominant disorder.
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67)
Females who are "carriers" for hemophilia
A) usually do not show symptoms of hemophilia but pass the allele for hemophilia to all of their offspring. B) pass the allele for hemophilia to all of their sons. C) usually show symptoms of hemophilia but do not pass the allele for hemophilia to their offspring. D) usually show symptoms of hemophilia and pass the allele for hemophilia to all of their offspring. E) usually do not show symptoms of hemophilia.
68)
If a diploid cell has 14 chromosomes, it will have
A) 14 pairs of homologous chromosomes. B) 7 pairs of homologous chromatids. C) 14 pairs of homologous chromatids. D) 7 pairs of homologous chromosomes. E) 14 alleles.
69)
Homologous chromosomes have
A) the same genes but can have different alleles. B) the same genes and alleles. C) different genes and alleles. D) different genes, but can have the same alleles.
70) If you cross two pea plants, one with green peas and the other with yellow peas, and all of the offspring have yellow peas, you conclude
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A) green is dominant over yellow. B) yellow and green are codominant. C) yellow is incompletely dominant over green. D) yellow is dominant over green. E) color is random in pea plants.
71) If you cross two pea plants, one with green peas and the other with yellow peas, and all of the offspring have yellow peas, you conclude
A) the yellow parent was homozygous for the recessive allele. B) the green parent was homozygous for the dominant allele. C) the yellow parent was homozygous for the dominant allele. D) the green parent was heterozygous. E) the yellow parent was heterozygous.
72)
A single chromosome has
A) multiple genes each with a single allele. B) multiple genes each with multiple alleles. C) a single gene with a single allele. D) a single gene with multiple alleles. E) No answer is correct.
73)
Yellow peas are an example of
A) a phenotype. B) a genotype. C) an allele. D) a gene. E) a locus.
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74)
Having the alleles Tt is
A) a phenotype. B) linkage. C) a genotype. D) a gene. E) a locus.
75) If you cross two heterozygous ( Yy) pea plants, what proportion of the offspring will be heterozygous?
A) 25% B) 75% C) 50% D) 0% E) 100%
76) If you cross two heterozygous Yy pea plants, what proportion of the offspring will be the dominant color yellow?
A) 50% B) 75% C) 25% D) 0% E) 100%
77) If you cross RrYy and RRyy pea plants, what fraction of the offspring will have yellow peas? R=round, r=wrinkled, Y=yellow, y=green
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A) 50% B) 75% C) 25% D) 0% E) 100%
78) If you cross RrYy and RRyy pea plants, what fraction of the offspring will have round peas? R=round, r=wrinkled, Y=yellow, y=green
A) 50% B) 75% C) 100% D) 25% E) 0%
79) If you cross RrYy and RRyy pea plants, what percent of the offspring will have round yellow peas? R=round, r=wrinkled, Y=yellow, y=green
A) 100% B) 75% C) 25% D) 0% E) 50%
80)
Which gametes can a RrYy plant produce?
A) Rr or Yy B) RY or ry C) RrYy D) RY, Ry, rY, or ry E) R or r
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81)
Which gametes can a RRyy plant produce?
A) RR or yy B) Ry C) RY or ry D) RRyy E) R or y
82) In an inherited form of high cholesterol, HH individuals have a blood cholesterol level greater than 500mg/dL, RH individuals are near 300mg/dL, and normal ( RR) cholesterol levels should be less than 200mg/dL. The H allele is ________ to the R allele.
A) codominant B) dominant C) recessive D) homozygous E) incompletely dominant
83) A man with type A blood and a woman with type B blood have a child with type O blood. What are the genotypes of the man and woman? A) IA i, and IB i B) both are i i C) IA IA, and IB IB D) IA i, and i i E) i i, and IB i
84) Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive disorder. What is the probability that a son will have hemophilia if the parents are a normal man and a woman who is a carrier?
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A) 50% B) 25% C) 0% D) 100% E) 75%
85) Average heights of American men and women have increased steadily since the 1940s. The best explanation for this observation is that height is
A) a polygenic trait. B) influenced by an X-linked gene. C) influenced by environmental changes like improvements in diet. D) influenced by a Y-linked gene. E) influenced by crossing over.
86)
In humans skin color widely varies. This is because skin color is
A) a polygenic trait. B) influenced by environmental changes like improvements in diet. C) influenced by an X-linked gene. D) influenced by a Y-linked gene. E) influenced by crossing over.
87) Adult female bollworm moths lay eggs on cotton bolls. These eggs then hatch and grow into caterpillars that eat the seeds of the boll. The eggs and sperm are produced by
A) meiosis. B) mitosis. C) fertilization. D) crossing over. E) mutation.
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88) Place the following events in the correct order in which they occur: fertilization, haploid gametes produced, meiosis of diploid cell, and new diploid organism formed.
A) meiosis of diploid cell, haploid gametes produced, fertilization, new diploid organism formed B) haploid gametes produced, fertilization, meiosis of diploid cell, new diploid organism formed C) fertilization, haploid gametes produced, new diploid organism formed, meiosis of diploid cell D) meiosis of diploid cell, new diploid organism formed, haploid gametes produced, fertilization E) haploid gametes produced, new diploid organism formed, fertilization, meiosis of diploid cell
89)
Sexual reproduction passes on hereditary information through
A) gametes produced by mitosis. B) gametes produced by meiosis. C) only autosomes. D) only sex chromosomes. E) only linked genes.
90)
Uncorrected sequence mistakes during meiosis will lead to
A) production of only autosomes with mutations. B) production of only sex chromosomes with mutations. C) no living offspring. D) no change. E) production of gametes with mutated genes.
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SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions. 91) Review Investigating Life 10.1, in which resistance to the Bt toxin among larvae of bollworm moths is examined.
91.1)
In the figure showing a cross between rr and Rr moths, the bar graph shows the
A) phenotypes of larvae offspring. B) distribution of RR and Rr genotypes in larvae offspring. C) survival of the parents after mating. D) result of the F 2 generation when Rr moths are crossed with Rr moths.
91.2) In this figure, the genotype of the resistant parental moth is ______, while the genotype of the susceptible parental moth is ______.
A) Rr; rr B) RR; rr C) rr; Rr D) rr; RR E) Rr; RR
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91.3) In the offspring of the cross between rr and Rr moths, the bollworms at the lower larvae weights are susceptible and would have what genotype?
A) rr B) RR C) Rr D) Rr or rr E) Rr or RR
91.4) In the offspring of the cross between rr and Rr moths, the bollworms at the normal larvae weights are resistant and would have what genotype?
A) Rr or rr B) RR C) rr D) Rr or RR E) Rr
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Answer Key Test name: ch 10 1) TRUE Haploid gametes are produced from diploid germ cells by meiosis. Please see section 10.1 for more information. 2) TRUE Recessive alleles have effects which cannot be seen when a dominant allele is present. Please see section 10.2 for more information. 3) FALSE Dominance depends on effects of the gene, not its abundance. Please see section 10.2 for more information. 4) FALSE The outward expression of an allele combination is the phenotype. Please see section 10.2 for more information. 5) TRUE Alleles of a gene go into separate gametes because they are found on separate copies of the same chromosome. Please see section 10.3 for more information. 6) TRUE Linked genes, because they are physically close, are often inherited together rather than segregating independently during meiosis. Please see section 10.5 for more information. 7) TRUE
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The product rule says that the probability of two independent events happening together is the product of their individual probabilities. Please see section 10.4 for more information. 8) TRUE The distance between genes on a linkage map depends on the frequency of crossing over events during meiosis. Please see section 10.5 for more information. 9) TRUE Pleiotropic effects occur when one gene affects multiple phenotypes. Please see section 10.6 for more information. 10) FALSE Pleiotropic effects occur when one gene affects multiple phenotypes. Please see section 10.6 for more information. 11) TRUE Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, without X inactivation they will produce double the amount of protein encoded from genes on the X chromosome. Please see section 10.7 for more information. 12) FALSE X inactivation is a deliberate process which protects females against excessive expression of genes on the X chromosome. Please see section 10.7 for more information. 13) FALSE The ABO system can have I AI A, I BI B, I Ai, I Bi, I AI B, and ii genotypes and A, B, AB, and O phenotypes. Please see section 10.6 for more information. 14) FALSE Version 1
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Since the environment provides critical supplies and conditions for the growth of an organism, the environment usually has an effect on gene expression. Please see section 10.9 for more information. 15) TRUE Fr. Mendel discovered the basic laws of heredity in his studies of pea plants. Please see section 10.2 for more information. 16) FALSE Because males only have one X chromosome, the effect of any recessive alleles on the X chromosome will be seen in male phenotype morethan in female phenotype. Since females have two X chromsomes, in females in the presence of the dominant allele, the effect of the recessive allele will not be seen. Please see section 10.7 for more information. 17) E Mendel was an Austrian monk who chose to work on pea plants' heredity. Please see section 10.2 for more information. 18) B The probability of inheritanceof a single gene trait can be calculated using Mendelian principles. A four square Punnett square can be produced to obtain the answer.Please see sections 10.1, 10.2, and 10.3 for more information. 19) A Protein sequence is derived from gene sequence. Please see section 10.1 for more information. 20) C Mother and father each provide an allele for each gene locus on autosomes. Please see section 10.1 for more information. 21) C Version 1
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Because pea plants have flowers which close over on themselves, it is easy to prevent cross-pollination unless an experimenter wants that to happen. Please see section 10.2 for more information. 22) A A dominant trait is encoded by a dominant allele, whose effects mask those of a recessive allele. Please see section 10.2for more information. 23) D A recessive allele has effects which are masked or covered by the effects of a dominant allele. Please see section 10.2 for more information. 24) B In a classical Mendelian case,dominant alleles are always expressed. Please see section 10.2 for more information. 25) D Crosses between two homozygous recessive individuals always result in homozygous recessive offspring. Please see section 10.3 for more information. 26) E A Mendelian cross between heterozygous individuals willproduce about 3/4 dominant and 1/4 recessive phenotypes. Please see section 10.3 for more information. 27) A Homozygous individuals always have the same allele on both chromosomes. Please see section 10.2 for more information. 28) B Heterozygous individuals have different alleles for a gene on the two copies of the chromosome containing that gene. Please see section 10.2 for more information. Version 1
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29) A Heterozygosity is the state in which the alleles of a gene on the two copies of a chromosome are different. Please see section 10.2 for more information. 30) C Homozygosity is the state in which the alleles of a gene on the two copies of a chromosome are the same. Please see section 10.2 for more information. 31) B When two recessive alleles are found in an individual, the recessive trait is seen. When one dominant allele is present,the recessive trait seemsto "disappear.'' Please see section 10.2 for more information. 32) B The genotype of an individual is the set of alleles found for any given gene. Please see section 10.2 for more information. 33) E Phenotype refers to the observable effect of the genotype, e.g. the color of pea flowers. Please see section 10.2 for more information. 34) A A wild type most often survives and reproduces best in nature and is the most common phenotype in nature. Please see section 10.2 for more information. 35) B Parental generations start out experiments. Please see section 10.3 for more information. 36) B
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"F1" means "first filial," first offspring. Please see section 10.3 for more information. 37) C A genotype with two different alleles for a given gene is heterozygous for that gene. Please see section 10.2 for more information. 38) D A monohybrid cross deals with one genetic locus, one gene. Please see section 10.3 for more information. 39) E A cross between two heterozygous individuals should show all possible genotypes in the progeny. Please see section 10.3 for more information. 40) D The phenotypic ratio of the progeny of a monohybrid cross between two heterozygotes is always 3:1. Please see section 10.3 for more information. 41) C The homozygous individual in a test cross has no genes which can mask any recessive genes in the unknown individual, so the genotype of the unknown individual can be easily found. Please see section 10.3 for more information. 42) B A test cross is between a homozygous recessive individual and anindividual for which the genotype is unknown. Since all progeny show the dominant phenotype, the second individual has to be homozygous dominant.Please see section 10.3 for more information. 43) A
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Mendel did not use terms like "allele," but his work showed that what we now call alleles go separately into gametes. Please see section 10.3 for more information. 44) E A dihybrid cross looks at two variations for two traits in a single cross. Please see section 10.4 for more information. 45) A In Mendelian genetics, genes do not influence one another as they are inherited. Please see section 10.4 for more information. 46) D Because the alleles for A and B blood types are codominant, both can be seen at once and more than two phenotypes can be found. Please see section 10.6 for more information. 47) B In codominance, alleles can be seen in their complete effects even in the presence of different alleles for the same gene, which can also be seen in their effects. Please see section 10.6 for more information. 48) D In incomplete dominance, the phenotype of the heterozygote is intermediate between that of the two homozygotes. Please see section 10.6 for more information. 49) C A gene involved in more than one biochemical pathway or more than one body process is said to be pleiotropic. Please see section 10.6 for more information. 50) A
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Polygenic traits depend on the activity of many genes and usually show continuous variation in phenotype. Please see section 10.9 for more information. 51) A Autosomes are the non-sex chromosomes. Please see sections 10.1 and 10.7 for more information. 52) A Linked genes are physically linked by being part of the same linear piece of DNA. Please see section 10.5 for more information. 53) A Mendel's work, while showing basic rules in genetics, did not account for linked genes. Please see section 10.5 for more information. 54) D New genetic combinations of alleles at different genetic loci result from physical crossing over. Please see sections 10.3 and 10.5 for more information. 55) B The further apart two genes are on a chromosomes, the more likely that at least one crossing over event will occur between them. Please see section 10.5 for more information. 56) C A linkage map shows the distance between genes on a chromosome. Please see section 10.5 for more information. 57) C
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Dominant disorders manifest themselves even when only one faulty allele is present. Hence, either the mother or the father can contribute the faulty allele. Please see sections 10.2, 10.3, and 10.8 for more information. 58) E To be seen, any recessive trait must be inherited from both parents. Please see sections 10.2 and10.3 for more information. 59) C A carrier can pass on a faultyallele that will lead to a disease but does not have the disease. Please see section 10.2 and 10.8 for more information. 60) B Pedigree analysis can help track the genetics of disease in an extended family. Please see section 10.8 for more information. 61) C Dominant traits show up generation after generation because only one copy of the allele for the disease is needed for the disease to show up in a phenotype. Please see sections 10.2 and 10.8 for more information. 62) D Recessive phenotypes can skip generations in a pedigree because their alleles can pass from parent to grandchild masked in the F1 generation by dominant alleles. Please see sections 10.2 and 10.8 for more information. 63) D Dominant alleles can be seen no matter what the other copy of the gene in a diploid organism is like. Please see sections 10.2 and 10.8 for more information.
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64) E The presence of genes on theY chromosome makes a human male, while, in the absence of these genes, and most often the Y chromosome, lead to afemale. Please see sections 10.1 and 10.7 for more information. 65) B Since males only have one allele for loci on the X chromosome, the effects of all X alleles can be seen in males. Please see section 10.7 for more information. 66) A Hemophilia A is sex-linked. Since males have only one X chromosome, every male with the recessive allele will have the disorder. Therefore,the disorder shows up much more in human males than in females. Please see section 10.7 for more information. 67) E Females who are carriers are heterozygotes. They have one allele that codes for the normal clotting factor and a faulty allele. Hence, they do not havehemophilia. Please see section 10.7 for more information. 68) D If 2n=14, then n=7. Please see section 10.1 for more information. 69) A Homologous chromosomes have the same genetic loci, homologous loci, on each. Please see section 10.1 for more information. 70) D Dominant alleles mask recessive alleles. Please see section 10.2 for more information. 71) C
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In essence, this was a test cross. Please see section 10.2 for more information. 72) A One chromosome is a long piece of DNA with many genes on it. Please see section 10.1 for more information. 73) A Outward appearances are phenotypes. Please see section10.2 for more information. 74) C The alleles possessed by an organism at a genetic locus is its genotype. Please see section 10.2 for more information. 75) C Heterozygotes produce half of their progeny like themselves when crossed with the same genotype. Please see section 10.3 for more information. 76) B In a monohybrid cross, the progeny phenotypes are easily predictable if parental genotypes are known. Please see sections 10.2 and 10.3 for more information. 77) A This is essentially a test cross for the gene controlling pea color. Please see sections 10.3 and 10.4 for more information. 78) C Pea shape is determined independently of pea color. Please see sections 10.3 and 10.4 for more information. 79) E
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For independently assorting genes, probabilities multiply for both genes to be in a particular state. Please see section 10.4 for more information. 80) D Each gamete will receive one allele per gene. Please see section 10.4 for more information. 81) B Each gamete will receive one allele per gene. Please see section 10.4 for more information. 82) E Incomplete dominance means that one gene dominates the other, but there is some blending of phenotype. Please see section 10.6 for more information. 83) A Given the codominance of blood type alleles and the homozygous recessive nature of the child, it is easy to work back to the parental genotypes. Please see section 10.6 for more information. 84) A For sex-linked inheritance, the proportion of males who will receive a condition from their mothers can be seen from the proportion of recessive alleles carried by the mother. Please see section 10.7 for more information. 85) C The effects of gene expression can only be seen if the environment provides raw materials for that expression. Please see section 10.9 for more information. 86) A
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Skin color is decided by a number of genes working together. Please see section 10.9 for more information. 87) A Meiosis reduces diploid cells to haploid sex cells. Please see section 10.3 and "Investigating Life" for more information. 88) A The independent assortment of alleles into gametes leads to fertilization by such gametes. This, in turn, leads to a wide range of diploid genotypes. Please see sections 10.1 and 10.4 for more information. 89) B The DNA ina new organism comes from the male and female gamete joining to form the zygote duringsexual reproduction. Please see section 10.1 for more information. 90) E Mistakes in meiosis can lead to genes with altered sequences. Please see section 10.1 for more information. 91) Section Break 91.1) A See section 10.3 and Investigating Life 10.1 for more information. 91.2) C See section 10.3 and Investigating Life 10.1 for more information. 91.3) C See section 10.3 and Investigating Life 10.1 for more information. 91.4) C See section 10.3 and Investigating Life 10.1 for more information.
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) A transgenic organism is an organism that receives all of its genes from only a single parent. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) Gene therapy might someday be used to treat many genetic disorders by removing faulty genes from somatic cells and replacing them with functional gene copies. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) DNA technology can be used to determine how humans are related to other living organisms. ⊚ ⊚
4)
true false
98.5% of the human genome does not encode proteins. ⊚ ⊚
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true false
1
5)
All of the human genome encodes proteins. ⊚ ⊚
6)
true false
Cloning and sexual reproductionresult in two genetically identical cells/organisms. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) Cloning results in two genetically identical cells/organisms; sexual reproduction results in genetically different cells/organisms. ⊚ ⊚
8)
true false
DNA technology can be applied toprevent, detect, and treat genetic diseases. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) DNA probes are typicallylabeled with a radioactive isotope or fluorescent tag to locate within the genome after binding.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
10) Genetic testing may lead to ethical issues, such as whether results should be used to determine who receives health insurance. ⊚ ⊚
true false
11) Transgenes for herbicide resistance have been accidentally transferred from crop plants to their weedy wild relatives. ⊚ ⊚
true false
12) Transfer of transgenes from crop plants to wild relatives can render chemicals like glyphospate ineffective. ⊚ ⊚
true false
13) If farmers use glyphosate-resistant crops, they can spray their fields with a herbicides and it will not harm the plant.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 14) An organism that receives recombinant DNA
A) has a genetic disease. B) is a transgenic organism. C) will develop cancer. D) is sterile. E) is a new species.
15) In creating a transgenic organism, the ____ from one species is inserted into another species.
A) RNA B) DNA C) protein D) DNA or protein E) plasmid
16) In cloning the sheep Dolly, a nucleus was implanted into an egg that had its nucleus removed. The result of this somatic cell nuclear transfer was a(n) ____ egg.
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A) haploid B) recombinant C) unfertilized D) diploid E) tetraploid
17) The Taq _______ enzymeis used in polymerase chain reaction (PCR) because it remains stable at high temperatures.
A) DNA polymerase B) RNA polymerase C) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) D) primase E) cytoskeleton
18)
Which of the following is not an application of DNA technology?
A) selection of desired traits in breeding B) detection ofgenetic illnesses C) replacement offaulty copies of genes D) production of genetically modified crops with greater nutritional value E) determination of identity of criminalsthrough DNA profiling
19)
Genetically modified bacteria are responsible for producing
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A) the amino acid phenylalanine used in the artificial sweetener aspartame. B) human insulin to treat diabetes. C) blood clotting factors to treat hemophilia. D) fertility hormones for humans. E) All answers are correct.
20)
The results of DNA sequencing are used
A) to predict protein sequences. B) to compare DNA sequences between humans. C) to compare DNA sequences between different species. D) to compare DNA sequences between related extinct and extant organisms. E) All answers are correct.
21) Since its invention in the 1980s, thepolymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a very common tool, because PCR
A) rapidly replicates DNA sequences with the use of bacterial cells. B) rapidly replicates DNA sequences with the use of animal cells. C) rapidly replicates DNA sequences without the use of living organisms. D) eliminates the need for recombinant DNA. E) reduces the size of plasmids and speeds their insertion.
22)
How does DNA profiling detect genetic differences between individuals? It uses
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A) short tandem repeats and other variable parts of the genome. B) shared genetic sequences. C) entire genomes. D) detection of non-AGCT bases. E) only coding regions of the genome.
23)
Growth and development of a normal cell differs from a stem cell because
A) normal cells do not specialize into stem cells. B) stem cells do not specialize into normal cells. C) stem cells are not found in adult organisms. D) mature stem cells do not contain DNA. E) mature normal cells do not contain DNA.
24)
How can stem cells replace faulty cells in the body?
A) Stem cells can be coaxed to differentiate into the neededspecific cell type. B) Stem cells can mitotically divide, providing more stem cells to directly replace the faulty cells and their functions. C) Stem cells can meiotically divide, providing more stem cells to directly replace the faulty cells and their functions. D) Faulty cells can be coaxed to differentiate into stem cells and directly replace the faulty cells and their functions. E) Stem cells can directly serve as nerve or blood cells.
25)
Stem cell technology has the potential to
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A) produce any type of cell in the body. B) replace damaged cells after an injury. C) replace absent or incorrect cells resulting from a genetic disease. D) replace absent or incorrect cells resulting from a nongenetic disease. E) All answers are correct.
26)
Cloning through DNA technology is most similar to
A) asexual reproduction. B) sexual reproduction. C) stem cells' replacement of faulty cells. D) meiosis. E) mate selection.
27)
To which types oforganisms can cloning technology be applied?
A) asexually reproducing organisms B) sexually reproducing organisms C) animals D) prokaryotes E) all organisms with DNA available to scientists
28)
DNA technology is used to
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A) copy DNA. B) sequence DNA nucleotides. C) search for specific sequences of DNA. D) turn genes on and off. E) All answers are correct.
29)
An example of DNA technology is
A) transferring genes from a bacterium to a fish. B) sexual reproduction between two fish. C) asexual reproduction in one bacterium. D) a cat feeding upon a mouse. E) a parasitic fungus infecting a bird.
30)
DNA technology can result in
A) cloned pets. B) removal of genetic disorders. C) plants with an added gene that slows the rate of fruit decay. D) detection of DNA at a crime scene. E) All answers are correct.
31)
What is the correct order of steps to create a transgenic organism?
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A) acquire source DNA, obtain a plasmid, create recombinant DNA, insert the recombinant DNA into a recipient cell B) obtain a plasmid, create recombinant DNA, acquire source DNA, insert the recombinant DNA into a recipient cell C) obtain a plasmid, acquire source DNA, insert the recombinant DNA into a recipient cell, create recombinant DNA D) insert the recombinant DNA into a recipient cell, obtain a plasmid, acquire source DNA, create recombinant DNA E) acquire source DNA, obtain a plasmid, insert the recombinant DNA into a recipient cell, create recombinant DNA
32)
Electrophoresis is used in DNA sequencing to
A) separate the DNA fragments. B) make copies of the DNA fragments. C) transfer DNA between organisms. D) remove DNA from an organism. E) mutate DNA.
33)
Human DNA encodes
A) proteins. B) regulatory sequences that control gene expression. C) tRNA. D) rRNA. E) All answers are correct.
34)
Human DNA includes
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A) encoding RNA and regulatory sequences that control gene expression. B) genes that are transcribed but not translated. C) pseudogenes. D) remnants of old genes from ancestors. E) All answers are correct.
35)
Growth of ______ does not include turning off genes.
A) stem cells B) cardiac tissue C) red blood cells D) bacterial cells E) All answers are correct.
36) Mitosis of a stem cell in an embryo results in ______; mitosis of a specialized cell in an embryo results in ______.
A) one stem cell and one specialized cell; two specialized cells B) two specialized cells; one specialized cell C) two stem cells; one stem cell D) one stem cell and one specialized cell; two stem cells E) two stem cells; one stem cell and one specialized cell
37) If the gene for a genetic disorder has a DNA sequence AATCGACTACCGTA, then the DNA probe has the sequence
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A) AATCGACTACCGTA. B) AAUCGACUACCGUA. C) UUAGCUGACGGCAU. D) TTAGCTGATGGCAT.
38)
DNA probes can be used to detect the alleles for
A) cystic fibrosis. B) hemophilia. C) sickle cell disease. D) Tay-Sachs syndrome. E) All answers are correct.
39)
Gene probes locate specific DNA sequences by
A) binding with the complementary sequence in a genome. B) turning off genes in specialized cells. C) creating cloned genes. D) electrophoresis. E) All answers are correct.
40) Which of the following is used to ensure absence of a specific genetic disorder through selection of human embryos produced by in vitro fertilization?
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A) preimplantation genetic diagnosis B) genetic testing C) gene therapy D) somatic cell nuclear transfer E) genetic transformation
41) A common feature of preimplantation genetic diagnosis, genetic testing, and gene therapy is the
A) use of DNA technology to detect or treat genetic disorders. B) destruction of faulty DNA in the human genome. C) replacement of faulty DNA in the human genome. D) use of stem cells. E) transfer of DNA from transgenic cells.
42) Which of the following is used to detect the presence of specific genetic disorders in fetuses, newborns, children, and adults?
A) somatic cell nuclear transfer B) preimplantation genetic diagnosis C) genetic testing D) gene therapy E) All answers are correct.
43) Which of the following is used to replace faulty DNA by introducing alleles that do not result in a genetic disorder?
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A) gene therapy B) somatic cell nuclear transfer C) genetic testing D) preimplantation genetic diagnosis E) All answers are correct.
44)
What are the possibleeffects of gene doping?
A) encode for new or more proteins than previously existed in the cell B) boost the production of erythropoietin to stimulate red blood cell production C) make athletes better competitors D) result in negative effects in the body E) All answers are correct.
45)
Applications of DNA technology may result in negative effects, including
A) triggering unwanted immune responses. B) creating too much of a cellular product. C) insertion into an incorrect location in a chromosome. D) triggering cancer. E) All answers are correct.
46) Which of the following is not an ethical issue surrounding the use of DNA technology in human medicine?
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A) It may reduce human suffering through elimination of genetic disorders. B) Cost may limit use to only wealthy people. C) If no treatments exist, the knowledge may lead to depression. D) It may result in a quest for perfection, for example, of appearance. E) All of the choices are ethical issues.
47) An ill or injured patient may have suffered from damaged tissues that the cell cycle, including mitosis, won't naturally repair or replace. This may include damaged nerves, or skin, or muscle. A form of biotechnology that attempts to stimulate new cell divisions with application of cells that are genetically unspecialized, is
A) stem cell research. B) cloning. C) preimplantation genetic diagnosis. D) DNA profiling. E) genetic engineering.
48) When comparing the genetic characteristics between embryonic and adult stem cells, embryonic stem cells
A) can differentiate into any specialized cells, while adult stem cells can't. B) can't differentiate into any specialized cells, while adult stem cells can. C) are collected from the testes and ovaries, while adult stem cells are collected from other tissues. D) are produced naturally in human development, while adult stem cells are from cloning. E) There is no real genetic difference between embryonic and adult stem cells, except how they were collected.
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49) A couple, both carriers of cystic fibrosis (CF) alleles, can decrease their odds of having a child with CF by performing an in vitro fertilization procedure and screening the embryo for the CF alleles. This process is called
A) preimplantation genetic diagnosis. B) gene therapy. C) cloning and testing the unborn child. D) polymerase chain reaction. E) genetic typing.
50)
Superweeds result from cross pollination of
A) transgenic cultivated and noncultivated plants in the field. B) transgenic cultivated and noncultivated plants in the laboratory. C) two transgenic cultivated plants in the field. D) two transgenic cultivated plants in the lab. E) two noncultivated plants in the field.
51)
The techniqueCRISPR-Cas9 can be used to
A) edit specific genes. B) identify a missing person from a blood sample. C) test if an embryo is afflicted with a genetic disorder. D) amplify DNA sequences. E) clone an organism from another.
52)
The techniqueCRISPR-Cas9 has great potential because it can
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A) remove a gene or add new DNA to it. B) make a chromosome visible. C) turn a cell intototipotent one. D) make an embryo of one species develop into another species. E) make a clone of an organism.
53)
What kind of DNA profiling information is useful for determining ancestry?
A) Single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) B) Short tandem repeats C) Entire genomes D) Coding regions of the genomes
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions. 54) In 2008, aDNA technology company, Florigene, Ltd., a Japanese subsidiary from Australia, claimed the production of a genetically blue rose. This was a great success since roses have no natural gene for producing blue pigments; further, roses do have a gene that controls the destruction of blue pigment molecules. To obtain the blue color, researchers had to inject genes from pansies and other flowers to counteract the natural chemistry of the plant.
54.1)
Florigene, the rose plant that produces blue flowers, is an example of
A) a transgenic organism. B) a clone. C) stem cell research. D) applying gene therapy. E) traditional breeding.
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Answer Key Test name: ch 11
1) FALSE Transgenic organisms are ones which have received DNA from other organisms. Please see section 11.2 for more information. 2) TRUE Gene therapy seeks to replace or supplement defective gene copies with functional ones. Please see section 11.5 for more information. 3) TRUE Comparison of corresponding DNA sequences from different organisms can help show how those organisms are related. Please see section 11.1 for more information. 4) TRUE The great majority of the human genome is spacer, regulatory, or other DNA. Please see section 11.2 for more information. 5) FALSE Most of the human genome serves functions other than encoding proteins. Please see section 11.2 for more information.
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6) FALSE Cloning results in genetically identical organisms, while sexual reproduction leads to genetic diversity among organisms. Please see section 11.4 for more information. 7) TRUE Cloning results in genetically identical organisms, while sexual reproduction produces diversity. Please see section 11.4 for more information. 8) TRUE DNA technology can find the causes of genetic diseases and help in dealing with them. Please see section 11.5 for more information. 9) TRUE DNA probes must be made visible using some kind of detectable tag. Please see section 11.5 for more information. 10) TRUE Much of the information obtained through DNA technology was never available before, so new ethical issues arise. Please see section 11.5 for more information. 11) TRUE
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Transgenes can be transferred accidentally to non-transgenic plants by conventional means. Please see section 11.1 and "Investigating Life" for more information. 12) TRUE Transgenes can be transferred accidentally to non-transgenic plants by conventional means. Please see section 11.1 and "Investigating Life" for more information. 13) TRUE Please see section 11.1 and "Investigating Life" for more information. 14) B Transgenic organisms receive DNA from other organisms via several natural and man-made processes. Please see sections 11.1 and 11.2 for more information. 15) B DNA is the stuff of genes, so it is inserted to give organisms new traits via genetic modification. Please see section 11.2 for more information. 16) D A diploid nucleus is needed for animal cloning since the mature animal needs to have two copies of each chromosome. Please see section 11.4 for for more information. 17) A
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Taq is a heat tolerant DNA polymerase from a prokaryote which lives in hot springs. Please see section 11.2 for more information. 18) A Conventional breeding does not involve DNA technology. Please see section 11.1 for more information. 19) E Many proteins and other organic chemicals have been produced using transgenic organisms. Please see section 11.2 for more Information. 20) E Researchers can use DNA sequences to study relationships among organisms and to predict protein sequences. Please see section 11.2 for more information. 21) C PCR allows for cheap, rapid production of many copies of pieces of DNA in a cell-free system. Please see section 11.2 for more infomation. 22) A DNA profiling takes advantage of regions of chromosomes which most easily distinguish different people. Please see section 11.3 for more information. 23) A
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Stem cells give rise to normal cells, not vice versa. Please see section 11.4 for more information. 24) A Stem cells change and differentiate into various cell types needed to grow and repair the body. Please see section 11.4 for more infomation. 25) E Stem cells have great potential for treating various disorders, though tests of embryonic stem cells have generally shown very poor results. In contrast, adult stem cells have already been successfully used in therapies. Please see sections 11.1 and 11.4 for more information. 26) A Cloning produces more organisms genetically identical to the original organism, as in asexual reproduction. Please see section 11.4 for more information. 27) E Cloning can, at least in theory, be applied to a very wide range of organisms. Please see section 11.4 for more information. 28) E DNA technology has been used in a wide range of ways to alter or measure gene expression. Please see section 11.1 for more information. 29) A
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DNA technology generally involves transfer or manipulation of DNA outside normal interactions in nature. Please see section 11.1 for more information. 30) E DNA technology can involve a range of applications to living organisms or material taken at some point from living organisms. Please see section 11.1 for more information. 31) A To make transgenic organisms, appropriate DNA must be isolated and manipulated before being inserted into the transgenic organism. Please see section 11.2 for more information. 32) A Electrophoresis takes advantage of charge to separate molecules based on size. Please see section 11.2 for more information. 33) E The human genome encodes a wide range of RNAs, proteins, and regulatory sequences. Please see section 11.2 for more information. 34) E Many kinds of DNA sequences make up the human genome. Please see section 11.2 for more information. 35) A
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Any functional role of transposable elements in human DNA remains somewhat mysterious. Please see section 11.4 for more information. 36) A When a stem cell divides mitotically to yield two daughter cells, one remains a stem cell, able to divide again. The other specializes. On the other hand, specialized cells that divide mitotically yield other specialized cells, regardless if this occurs in an embryo or an adult. Please see section 11.4 for more information. 37) D DNA probe sequences can be predicted from sequences to be probed using base pairing. Please see section 11.5 for more information. 38) E Various disease-causing alleles can be detected using DNA technology. Please see section 11.5 for more information. 39) A Gene probes work based on DNA base pairing. Please see section 11.5 for more information. 40) A Genetic testing uses a range of techniques to detect defective alleles. Please see section 11.5 for more information. 41) A
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DNA technologies can be used to detect various disease-related alleles. Please see section 11.5 for more information. 42) C Genetic testing uses a range of techniques to detect defective alleles. Please see section 11.5 for more information. 43) A Gene therapy uses different means, depending on the target organism, to introduce foreign DNA designed to replace defective alleles. Please see section 11.5 for more information. 44) E Gene doping is gene therapy used to cheat at sports. Please see section 11.5 for more information. 45) E Given the complexity of biological systems, it is no surprise that gene therapy, which tinkers with such a complex system, can lead to unintended problems in some cases. Please see section 11.5 for more information. 46) A Reduction of suffering is a good end and the aim of medical practice. Please see section 11.5 for more information. 47) A
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Genetically unspecialized cells have all genes "turned on," compared to specialized cells, which might not trigger cell divisions for healing. Please see section 11.4 for more information. 48) A Embryonic stem cells are undifferentiated, and embryos can survive when cells are removed. Please see section 11.4 for more information. 49) A A cell is extracted early in development, for analysis of the presence of the disease allele. Please see section11.5 for more information. 50) A Please see section "Investigating Life" for more information. 51) A CRISPR-Cas9edits DNA regions. Sequences can be removed or inserted. Please see section 11.4 for more information. 52) A CRISPR-Cas9 enables researchers to remove genes or insert sequence into genes. Please see section 11.4 for more information. 53) A
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Single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) are single base substitutions that are relatively common in the genome (1%), and relatively well conserved. Please see section 11.2 for more information. 54) Section Break 54.1) A Genes, identified in other plants, and inserted into the rose, produce a new mixed genome in the rose. Please see section 11.2 for more information.
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The hundreds of dog breeds are a product of natural selection. ⊚ ⊚
2)
Evolution answers the question of how life began. ⊚ ⊚
3)
true false
true false
Artificial selection is responsible for many vegetable varieties. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) Darwin believed that because of "differential reproductive success" a population would change over time. ⊚ ⊚
5)
Natural selection is a random process. ⊚ ⊚
6)
true false
true false
Evolution occurs in individuals, not populations. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) In an evolutionary sense, "fitness" refers to an organism's contribution to the next generation's gene pool.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
8) Since the conditions needed for the Hardy-Weinberg principle do not occur in real populations, this principle has no importance in population studies. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) Natural populations usually fulfill the conditions needed for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) The chance that a mutation will occur is independent of whether a new phenotype will benefit a population. ⊚ ⊚
true false
11) Sexual selection is a type of natural selection resulting from variation in the ability to obtain mates. ⊚ ⊚
true false
12) You observe that red sea turtles have become more common over time in a previously all-green population. You attribute the change to a selective advantage for the red phenotype, leading to a change in allele frequency. ⊚ ⊚
true false
13) The frequency of the sickle cell allele is kept up by the heterozygote advantage under natural selection. Version 1
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⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 14) Antibiotic resistance is becoming more common in disease-causing bacteria because
A) antibiotics are used in feed for livestock. B) antibiotics are sometimes prescribed for viral infections (due to pressure from patients). C) some patients do not take the antibiotics as directed. D) antibiotics are used to treat infections in cattle, chickens, and other animals used for agricultural purposes. E) All answers are correct.
15)
Changes in heritable traits in a population through multiple generations is called
A) heredity. B) mitosis. C) phenotype. D) evolution. E) genotype.
16) In 1749, __________, a French naturalist, became one of the first scientists to suggest that closely related species arose from a common ancestor.
A) Charles Darwin B) Georges Buffon C) James Hutton D) Georges Cuvier E) Charles Lyell
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17) In 1809, _______, a French taxonomist, suggested that organisms that use one part of their body repeatedly would increase their abilities.
A) Charles Darwin B) Alfred Russel Wallace C) Jean Lamarck D) Georges Buffon E) Charles Lyell
18) The geologist who suggested that natural processes are slow and steady and that the Earth is much older than 6,000 years was
A) Charles Darwin. B) Charles Lyell. C) Alfred Russel Wallace. D) Jean Lamarck. E) Georges Buffon.
19)
Who authored the book On the Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection?
A) Alfred Russel Wallace B) Jean Lamarck C) Georges Buffon D) Charles Darwin E) Charles Lyell
20)
Darwin referred to a gradual change from an ancestral type as
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A) uniformitarianism. B) descent with modification. C) fossils. D) natural selection. E) special creation.
21) If you were going to apply the principles of Darwin to business, you would allow employees to submit a wide range of ideas and then test many, keeping the winners because in evolution, natural selection
A) neither preserves nor rejects harmful variations in a population. B) preserves harmful variations and rejects favorable variations in a population. C) preserves favorable and harmful variations in a population. D) preserves favorable variations and rejects harmful variations in a population. E) No answer is correct.
22)
The entire collection of genes and alleles is a population's
A) genotype. B) phenotype. C) dominant traits. D) recessive traits. E) gene pool.
23)
Small, generation-by-generation changes to a population's gene pool is
A) uniformitarianism. B) artificial selection. C) microevolution. D) natural selection. E) macroevolution.
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24)
The observable properties of genes is an organism's
A) genotype. B) phenotype. C) allele frequency. D) gene pool. E) macroevolution.
25) The mode of natural selection in which one extreme phenotype is fittest and the environment selects against the others is
A) directional selection. B) disruptive selection. C) stabilizing selection. D) artificial selection. E) uniformitarianism.
26) The mode of natural selection in which two or more extreme phenotypes are fitter than the intermediate phenotype is
A) directional selection. B) stabilizing selection. C) disruptive selection. D) artificial selection. E) uniformitarianism.
27) The mode of natural selection in which extreme phenotypes are less fit than the optimal intermediate phenotype is
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A) directional selection. B) disruptive selection. C) stabilizing selection. D) artificial selection. E) uniformitarianism.
28)
The three types of natural selection are
A) directional selection, artificial selection, and disruptive selection. B) directional selection, artificial selection, and normalizing selection. C) disruptive selection, stabilizing selection, and normalizing selection. D) disruptive selection, stabilizing selection, and artificial selection. E) directional selection, disruptive selection, and stabilizing selection.
29) Individuals, who have one normal allele and one sickle cell allele, are able to resist malaria. This gives them a better chance of reaching reproductive age. This is known as
A) heterozygote advantage. B) homozygote advantage. C) artificial selection. D) heterozygote disadvantage. E) dominant advantage.
30)
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium will not occur in a population in which
A) mutations do not occur. B) individuals mate at random. C) natural selection does not occur. D) individuals immigrate or emigrate. E) sexual selection does not occur.
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31) In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, p + q = 1, p and q represent the frequency of alleles in a population of diploid organisms if
A) two or more alleles exist for that gene. B) two or more genes are needed to express a trait. C) only two alleles exist for that gene. D) the trait is polygenic. E) only one allele exists for that gene.
32) of
In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, p2 + 2 pq + q
2
= 1, 2 pq represents the frequency
A) homozygous recessive individuals. B) homozygous dominant individuals. C) heterozygous individuals. D) homozygous recessive and heterozygous individuals. E) homozygous dominant and heterozygous individuals.
33)
At Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, allele frequencies
A) change from one generation to the next so evolution occurs. B) remain constant from one generation to the next so evolution occurs. C) change from one generation to the next so evolution does not occur. D) remain constant from one generation to the next so evolution does not occur. E) None of the answers are correct.
34)
Sexually dimorphic features do not include
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A) colored plumage. B) intelligence. C) antlers. D) body size. E) horns.
35) Farmers and horticulturalists bred broccoli, cauliflower, kale, and cabbage from the wild mustard plant through
A) artificial selection. B) commensalism. C) genetic drift. D) natural selection. E) sexual selection.
36) Darwin obtained which of the following in the Essay on the Principle of Population by Malthus?
A) Organisms are varied and some variations are inherited. B) Populations grow constantly. C) An individual's chance of survival is random. D) Species do not change over time. E) More individuals of a population are born than survive to reproduce.
37) If an environment changes rapidly, organisms with _____ will be more likely to survive and reproduce.
A) existing beneficial mutations B) existing neutral mutations C) the ability to produce beneficial mutations D) the ability to adapt their genotype E) All the answer choices are correct.
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38) Use the Hardy-Weinberg equations: p + q = 1 and p 2 + 2 pq + q 2 = 1. If the dominant allele frequency is 0.8, what percentage of the population will be heterozygous?
A) 32% B) 16% C) 64% D) 4% E) 20%
39) Use the Hardy-Weinberg equations: p + q = 1 and p 2 + 2 pq + q 2 = 1. If the dominant allele frequency is 0.8, what percent of the population will be homozygous dominant?
A) 0.32 B) 0.16 C) 0.04 D) 0.64 E) 0.40
40) Babies that are at a low birth weight are more likely to have health problems, while women will have difficulty delivering babies with high birth weight. Together this leads to ______ for babies of average birth weight.
A) stabilizing selection B) disruptive selection C) directional selection D) artificial selection E) sexual selection
41) Ancestors of giraffes with shorter necks could not reach branches high up in trees for food. This led to _____ for giraffes with longer necks.
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A) stabilizing selection B) disruptive selection C) artificial selection D) sexual selection E) directional selection
42) Ancestors of the Galápagos finches had two different types of seeds to eat on some islands. Some seeds were very small and required small beaks to handle. Other seeds were very large and required large strong beaks to crack. This led to _____ among the Galápagos finches.
A) directional selection B) stabilizing selection C) disruptive selection D) artificial selection E) sexual selection
43) Ancestors of giraffes with shorter necks could not reach branches high up in trees for food. This led to ____ for giraffes with longer necks.
A) stabilizing selection B) disruptive selection C) artificial selection D) sexual selection E) directional selection
44) A male peacock has enormous tail feathers that it uses in mating displays to attract females. While the tail feathers are an advantage in mating, what is the potential disadvantage of these feathers to the male?
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A) The feathers require a lot of energy to produce. B) Bright feathers make males less susceptible to predation. C) The feathers make the male more attractive to other males. D) There are no disadvantages to having large tail feathers. E) The large tail feathers would make it easier to fly.
45)
The founder effect occurs when
A) large groups of individuals leave their home population and establish new settlements, mating only among themselves. B) small groups of individuals leave their home population and establish new settlements, mating only among themselves. C) many members of a population die, resulting in a great loss of genetic diversity. D) many members of a population reproduce causing too much genetic diversity within the population. E) small groups of individuals leave their home population and join established settlements, and mating with natives.
46) Which type of genetic drift occurs when many members of a population die, resulting in a great loss of genetic diversity?
A) the founder effect B) the bottleneck effect C) the directional effect D) the selective effect E) None of the answer choices are correct.
47)
The few ancestors of the Galápagos finches who colonized the islands is an example of
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A) the bottleneck effect. B) natural selection. C) increased mutation rate. D) artificial selection. E) the founder effect.
48) The North American bison was hunted to near-extinction in the 1800s. It has since recovered, but with decreased genetic diversity. This is an example of
A) the founder effect. B) the bottleneck effect. C) natural selection. D) increased mutation rate. E) artificial selection.
49)
Evolution occurs
A) over generations. B) during one lifetime. C) at birth of an organism. D) when a mutation occurs. E) All answers are correct.
50)
Evolution must include a change in
A) the gene pool of a population. B) the genes of an individual. C) the dominant phenotype. D) the recessive phenotype. E) the percentage of individuals in a population with the dominant phenotype.
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Answer Key Test name: ch 12 1) FALSE Please see Why We Care 12.1 and section 12.2 for more information. 2) FALSE Evolution is a theory which explains how new species originate. Please see section 12.1 for more information. 3) TRUE Please see section 12.2 for more information. 4) TRUE Please see section 12.2 for more information. 5) FALSE Natural selection is not random. Please see section 12.3 for more information. 6) FALSE Evolution is a description of what happens in populations, species, and higher levels of organizations, not individuals. However, individuals being subject to natural selection leads to evolution. Please see section 12.1 for more information. 7) TRUE One measure of fitness is how many progeny are produced by an organism. Please see section 12.3 for more information. 8) FALSE
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Hardy-Weinberg is useful as a theoretical tool against which real world examples can be measured. Please see section 12.4 for more information. 9) FALSE Please see section 12.4 for more information on populations that fulfill Hardy-Weinberg requirements. 10) TRUE Please see section 12.7 for more information. 11) TRUE Sexual selection is natural selection directed at characteristics used as the basis for choosing mates. Please see section 12.6 for more information. 12) TRUE Allele frequencies change when evolution acts to select phenotypes based on them. Please see section 12.5 for more information. 13) TRUE The sickle cell allele provides resistance to infection with the parasite that causes malaria, and in the heterozygous condition, it does not cause sickle cell disease. Please see section 12.5 for more information. 14) E The overuse of antibiotics in many applications has led to resistance commonly arising to this critical drug. Please see Why We Care 12.2 for more information. 15) D Evolution explains the change in the organisms we see and their connection to past life forms. Please see section 12.1 for more information. Version 1
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16) B While modern evolutionary theory begins in Western Europe, the ancient Greeks had some ideas in the same vein. Please see section 12.2 for more information. 17) C Lamarck's ideas about evolution have been rejected. Please see section 12.2 for more information. 18) B We now know that Earth's age is in the order of billions of years. Please see section 12.2 for more information. 19) D Darwin's ideas about evolution, many of which came from others, especially his grandfather Erasmus Darwin, were published in his first book. Please see section 12.2 for more information. 20) B The idea behind evolutionary theory is that species change over long periods of time, accumulating adaptations. Please see section 12.2 for more information. 21) D Natural selection means that natural forces choose the evolutionary winners from the genetic variants present in a population. Please see section 12.2 for more information. 22) E The gene pool consists of all of the alleles for all of the genes of the organisms in some interbreeding population. Please see section 12.1 for more information. 23) C Version 1
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Microevolution occurs over short periods and can be easily reversed by a reversal in selective pressure. Please see section 12.1 for more information. 24) B Natural selection operates on an organism's outward appearances, its phenotype. Please see section 12.3 for more information. 25) A Directional selection pushes a population towards one or the other extreme in terms of phenotype, such as no feathers or extra feathers, but not an intermediate amount. Please see section 12.5 for more information. 26) C Disruptive selection tends to drive a population into two segments which can evolve further into separate species. Please see section 12.5 for more information. 27) C Stabilizing selection tends to keep phenotypes the same. Please see section 12.5 for more information. 28) E Natural selection can work either towards or against one or both extreme phenotypes. Please see section 12.5 for more information. 29) A Deleterious alleles can be advantageous in some cases when in a heterozygous condition, where some of the effects seen with the homozygous condition are masked. Please see section 12.5 for more information. 30) D Version 1
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One of the assumptions behind the Hardy Weinberg Equilibrium is that there will be no movement of individuals in or out of the population in equilibrium. Please see section 12.4 for more information. 31) C The Hardy Weinberg equilibrium includes the assumption that the gene being considered only has two alleles in the population studied. Please see section 12.4 for more information. 32) C The Hardy Weinberg equation essentially represents the results of a random mating of the individuals in a population to produce a new generation. Please see section 12.4 for more information. 33) D The conditions of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are set up so that evolution will not occur when they are obeyed. Please see section 12.4 for more information. 34) B Sexual dimorphism is generally restricted to phenotypes involving physical features. Please see section 12.6 for more information. 35) A Artificial selection is like natural selection except that the selection is made consciously by humans rather than by blind natural forces. Please see section 12.2 and figure 12.5 for more information. 36) E Malthus painted a picture of a grim world, which holds true for animals but which has not held true in human populations, especially since the Green revolution. Please see section 12.2 for more information. 37) A Version 1
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Rapid change does not leave time for new mutations to arise, so existing advantageous phenotypes win out evolutionarily. Please see section 12.3 for more information. 38) A Calculating 2pq gives the percentage of heterozygotes. Please see section 12.4 for more information. 39) D p 2 is the proportion of the population which is homozygous dominant. Please see section 12.4 for more information. 40) A The safest birth weight for a baby, for both successful birth and survival afterwards, is an intermediate weight. Please see section 12.5 for more information. 41) E Directional selection pushes a population towards one phenotype. Please see section 12.5 for more information. 42) C Disruptive selection favors either extreme phenotype over the intermediate. Please see section 12.5 for more information. 43) E Directional selection pushes a population towards one phenotype. Please see section 12.5 for more information. 44) A The basic idea behind any examples of sexual selection is that the trait which is sexually selected is a disadvantage, so a superior genotype can show itself by surviving in spite of such a handicap. Please see section 12.6 for more information. Version 1
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45) B Founder effects involve small founding populations, such as those which manage to reach small islands distant from existing populations. Please see section 12.7 for more information. 46) B Disasters and diseases can cause crashes in population, which can, in turn, lead to bottleneck effects. Please see section 12.7 for more information. 47) E The finches that managed to reach the Galápagos Island were few because of the great distance from South America to the Galápagos as well as the usually short distance travelled by finches. Please see section 12.7 for more information. 48) B Bison populations crashed, leading to refounding of current populations by a small group of survivors. Please see section 12.7 for more information. 49) A Evolution occurs over many generations. Please see section 12.1 for more information. 50) A Evolution changes allele frequencies by selecting some phenotypes over others. Please see sections 12.1 and 12.5 for more information.
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Dinosaurs lived during the Paleozoic era. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) If you were looking for a time line of Earth's history, you would need one spanning about 4.6 billion years. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) The abundant presence of ammonite fossils in a large area indicates that the area was once part of an ocean. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) The fossil record is often incomplete, in part because scientists will never be able to discover some of the fossils that are buried deep in the earth and in part because some living things fossilize more readily than others. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) When a land bridge formed about 70 million years ago, marsupial mammals moved into South America and displaced many of the placental mammal species. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) Placental mammals give birth to more fully developed offspring than marsupial mammals and therefore have a greater chance of survival.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
7) The techniques used to study molecular evolution are based on the comparison of nucleotide and amino acid sequences among species. ⊚ ⊚
8)
true false
Data from embyros can be used to help establish evolutionary relationships. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) The theory of plate tectonics states that the Earth's surface is constantly moving from forces exerted on the surface layer. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10) The sequence of erasbeginning with the earliest era and proceeding forward to the most recent era in the geologic timescaleis
A) Archean - Mesozoic - Cenozoic. B) Cenozoic - Archean - Mesozoic. C) Archean - Paleozoic - Proterozoic. D) Mesozoic - Cenozoic - Paleozoic. E) Paleozoic - Mesozoic - Cenozoic.
11)
The Cretaceous and Jurassic periods are part of the
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A) Mesozoic era. B) Archean era. C) Proterozoic era. D) Cenozoic era. E) Paleozoic era.
12)
A fossil is defined as any evidence of an organism from at least
A) 500 years ago. B) 1000 years ago. C) 25,000 years ago. D) 10,000 years ago. E) 100,000 years ago.
13)
The abundant remains of ammonites in Oklahoma indicate that Oklahoma was
A) always a vast desert with almost no rainfall. B) once part of a mountain range that has now eroded. C) once covered by a shallow ocean. D) once part of a vast tropical forest. E) always a grassland.
14)
Fossils may be
A) from impressions left after an organism decays. B) formed as organic matter is replaced by minerals, turning to stone. C) formed when plant resin or tar preserves the specimen. D) casts from footprints that have filled with mud and then turned to stone. E) All answers are correct.
15)
Relative dating uses ______ to estimate how old a fossil is.
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A) radioactive isotopes B) a molecular clock C) structural features D) depth within rock layers E) embryonic structures
16)
Absolute dating uses ______ to estimate how old a fossil is.
A) depth within rock layers B) radioactive isotopes C) a molecular clock D) structural features E) embryonic structures
17)
If an isotope's half-life is 100 years, then
A) that isotope will no longer exist in 50 years. B) that isotope will no longer exist in 200 years. C) in 50 years only half of the atoms in a sample of that isotope will remain. D) in 100 years only half of the atoms in a sample of that isotope will remain. E) in 200 years only half of the atoms in a sample of that isotope will remain
18)
Carbon-14 is useful in determining the age of a fossil up to about ______ years ago.
A) 40,000 B) 10,000 C) 20,000 D) 50,000 E) 100,000
19)
Potassium-40 is useful in determining the age of a fossil in samples
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A) less than 25,000 years of age. B) of 40,000 to 50,000 years of age. C) 300,000 years of age and older. D) aged between 50,000 and 100,000 years of age. E) aged between 100,000 years and 250,000 years.
20)
Earth once consisted of a single large landmass and one ocean. The landmass is named
A) Panthalassa. B) Pangaea. C) Laurasia. D) Gondwana. E) Ultima Continenta.
21) If similarities between two structures in different organisms reflect common ancestry, these structures are
A) vestigial. B) analogous. C) homologous. D) homeotic. E) heterologous.
22) If similarities between two structures in different organisms reflect independent evolution, these structures are
A) analogous. B) vestigial. C) homologous. D) homeotic. E) heterologous.
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23) If a structure has no apparent function in one species, yet is homologous to a functional organ in another species, this structure is termed
A) analogous. B) homologous. C) homeotic. D) vestigial. E) heterologous.
24) A gene that when mutated leads to organisms with structures in abnormal places is termed
A) parsimonious. B) homeotic. C) homologous. D) vestigial. E) dominant.
25)
Which of the following is most likely to be preserved as a fossil?
A) a leaf or stem B) a bone or shell C) an organ like an eye or lung D) a complete large organism E) an organism that died on land
26)
Which of the following is least likely to be preserved as a fossil?
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A) a bone or shell B) a leaf or stem C) an organ like an eye or lung D) a complete large organism E) an organism that died on land
27) The half life of 14C is 5,730 years. 11,460 years after an organism dies what percent of the initial 14C will still be present in the organism bones?
A) 50% B) 25% C) 75% D) 100% E) 0%
28) The half life of 14C is 5,730 years. If you test a fossilized bone and find that it has 1/8th the 14C as a modern bone, you could conclude that it is approximately _____ years old.
A) 11,460 B) 5,730 C) 42,960 D) 716 E) 17,190
29)
Marsupials are mammals that
A) lay eggs. B) do not give live birth. C) have evolved recently. D) carry their young in a pouch. E) breathe through gills.
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30) The fossil record indicates that at one time marsupials were common to both Australia and South America, but today most South American marsupials have become extinct. The most probable explanation for marsupials being common to Australia yet not very common to South America today is that
A) South American marsupials were displaced by placental mammals when a land bridge formed between North America and South America about seven million years ago. B) marsupials were able to flourish in South America because of its isolation from other land masses. C) placental mammals are less fully developed than marsupials when born and therefore have a better chance of survival after birth. D) South American and Australian marsupials interbred. E) marsupials can survive onlyin warm climates like Australia.
31)
The wings of a bat and a bird are examples of
A) analogous structures. B) homologous structures. C) vestigial structures. D) homeotic structures. E) heterologous structures.
32)
The wings of a bat and an insect are examples of
A) analogous structures. B) homologous structures. C) vestigial structures. D) homeotic structures. E) heterologous structures.
33)
The femur in a snake and pelvis in a whale are examples of
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A) homologous structures. B) analogous structures. C) homeotic structures. D) vestigial structures. E) heterologous structures.
34) The observation that most aquatic animals, like fish, penguins, and whales, all have streamlined bodies and fins or flippers for steering are a result of
A) sexual selection. B) artificial selection. C) analogous selection. D) vestigial selection. E) convergent evolution.
35)
Amphibians, birds, and mammals look the most similar as
A) newborns. B) embryos. C) adults. D) fossils. E) juveniles.
36) In a fruit fly embryo, the end that becomes the head contains high amounts ofthe protein bicoid. What may happen if you injected high levels ofbicoid in the other end of the embryo?
A) It would fail to develop a head. B) It would develop two heads. C) Legs would grow out of its head. D) It would not grow legs. E) It would not have segments.
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37) The number of differences between cytochrome c of humans and cytochrome c of other organisms is as follows: Rhesus monkey - 1 difference; pigeon - 12 differences; fruit fly 24 differences. The order in which these species are most similar to humans is
A) Rhesus monkey, pigeon, fruit fly. B) pigeon, Rhesus monkey, fruit fly. C) pigeon, fruit fly, Rhesus monkey. D) Rhesus monkey, fruit fly, pigeon. E) fruit fly, pigeon, Rhesus monkey.
38) If many human genes differ in about 10% of their bases from another species' same genes and substitutions occur at an estimated rate of 2% per one million years, approximately how many years have passed since the two species diverged?
A) 5 million B) 3 million C) 10 million D) 20 million E) 200 million
39) If many genes from two species differ in about 5% of their bases and substitutions occur at an estimated rate of 5% per one million years, approximately how many years have passed since the two species diverged?
A) 1 million B) 5 million C) 10 million D) 20 million E) 50 million
40)
Why do different mutations accumulate in two species once they diverge?
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A) They can no longer mate and exchange mutated genes. B) The molecular clock runs at different speeds in different species. C) Convergent evolution causes the difference in mutations. D) Natural selection favors mutations in one species over another. E) All answers are correct.
41) Boa constrictors and pythons lack external limbs but their skeletons reveal bones of tiny hindlimbs. What structure is represented in this example?
A) analogous B) convergent C) homologous D) vestigial E) homeotic
42) What can be usedas a molecular clock to estimate the time since organisms diverged from a common ancestor?
A) DNA B) all types of RNA C) only ribosomal RNA D) ATP E) All answers are correct.
43)
What is needed to estimate species relatedness with a molecular clock?
A) the known mutation rate of a gene B) the original DNA sequence for the gene without mutations C) the number of differences in DNA sequences for a gene in two species D) the same gene identified in two species E) All answers are correct.
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44)
Which of the following pairs radioactive isotopes is used in radioactive fossil dating? A) 14C and 40K B) 12C and 40K C) 12C and 40Ar D) 40K and 14N
45)
During which period of the Paleozoic era did the first winged insects evolve?
A) Carboniferous B) Devonian C) Cambrian D) Permian E) Ordovician
46)
In which period of evolution, in the Cenozoic era, would you find
Homo sapiens?
A) Neogene B) Quaternary C) Paleogene D) Cretaceous E) Jurassic
47)
Which of the following evolutionary events did not occur during the Mesozic era?
A) cycads and ferns were abundant B) widespread dinosaurs extinction C) first dinosaurs roamed the earth D) giant reptiles were on land and in water E) first primates were abundant
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48) Any gene, when mutated, that leads to an organism with structures in abnormal or unusual places, is referred to as a(n) _____ gene.
A) homeotic B) heterotic C) embryotic D) mutagenic E) vestigial
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions. 49) %media:ch13_39_sb_png.ext%
49.1) In the section "Investigating Life: Evolving Backwards," what was hypothesized about the loss of legs in modern-day snakes?
A) Snakes descended from land-dwelling ancestors. B) Snakes descended onlyfrom burrowing lizards on land. C) Snakes descended onlyfrom marine lizards. D) Snakes do not have forelimbs or hindlimbs. E) Some extant snakes have forelimbs or hindlimbs.
49.2) In the section "Investigating Life: Evolving Backwards," how did the scientists test the hypothesis?
A) They examined decrease in length of hind limbs in land-dwelling snakes. B) They compared anatomyof fossil ancestors and extant snakes. C) They examined decrease in length of hind limbs in marine snakes. D) They compared terrestrial, freshwater, and marine snakes. E) They compared anatomyof snakes, other reptiles, mammals, and birds.
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Answer Key Test name: ch 13 1) FALSE Dinosaurs lived during the Mesozoic. Please see section 13.1 for more information. 2) TRUE Earth has existed for billions of years, but life has been on land for only a small fraction of that time. Please see section 13.1 for more information. 3) TRUE Ammonites are oceanic creatures, so their presence in a place indicates the former existence of an ocean there. Please see section 13.2 for more information. 4) TRUE The fossil record is very valuable, but its incompleteness requires caution from scientists. Please see section 13.2 for more information. 5) FALSE Placental mammals displaced many of the marsupial mammals in South America beginning around 2 million years ago. Please see section 13.3 for more information. 6) TRUE More advanced young at birth have a phenotype which is promoted by natural selection over the less advanced young of marsupials. Please see section 13.3 for more information. 7) TRUE Version 1
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Sequences diverge over time in different species, giving some idea of just how distantly related species are. Please see section 13.6 for more information. 8) TRUE Embryo formation helps to show critical steps in gene expression and pattern formation, which help to show evolutionary connections. Please see section 13.5 for more information. 9) FALSE The Earth's surface moves based on pressures from below the surface. Please see section 13.3 for more information. 10) E There are three eras in the history of life on Earth. Please see section 13.1 for more information. 11) A Cretaceous and Jurassic are parts of the time when dinosaurs were the dominant land animals. Please see section 13.1 for more information. 12) D Fossils predate the historic period. Please see section 13.2 for more information. 13) C Fossilized remains of aquatic organisms like ammonites indicate that the area where they were found was an aquatic habitat when the fossils were deposited. Please see section 13.2 for more information. 14) E Fossils can be formed from many parts or activities of living things. Please see section 13.2 for more information.
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15) D Relative dating uses the age and the position of one fossil or rock relative to another to date the second item. Please see section 13.2 for more information. 16) B Absolute dating uses a directly measurable property, the amount of a radioactive isotope, to give a date for a fossil. Please see section 13.2 for more information. 17) D The half-life of an isotope is the time needed for half of the isotope to decay. Please see section 13.2 for more information. 18) A The usefulness of a radioactive isotope is determined by the amount of time after which a usefully measurable amount of the isotope can still be found in a specimen. Please see section 13.2 for more information. 19) C Potassium-40 decays slowly enough that it only becomes useful for dating specimens hundreds of thousands of years old. Please see section 13.2 for more information. 20) B "Pangaea" literally means "all Earth." Please see section 13.3 for more information. 21) C Homology, whether in genes or in parts of organisms, points to common ancestry. Please see section 13.4 for more information. 22) A
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Analogy is a sign of evolution having arrived at the same solution more than once. Please see section 13.4 for more information. 23) D Vestigial structures once had a function but have lost it. Please see section 13.4 for more information. 24) B Homeotic genes help to determine the placement and identity of body structures. Please see section 13.5 for more information. 25) B The harder and more durable an object, the more likely it can be preserved as fossil. Please see section 13.2 for more information. 26) C The softest and most delicate specimens are most likely to decay and to fail to be preserved as fossils, leading to a bias in the fossil record. Please see section 13.2 for more information. 27) B After two half lives, a half of a half of the original amount, 25%, will remain. Please see section 13.2 for more information. 28) E 1/8 is 1/2 of 1/2 of 1/2, implying that three half lives have passed. Please see section 13.2 for more information. 29) D Marsupials arose earlier than placental mammals. Please see section 13.3 for more information. 30) A
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Most marsupials have disappeared from the Americas, with the exception of some types of opossums. Please see section 13.3 for more information. 31) B Since wings are derived, in bats and in birds, from forelimbs of vertebrates, they are homologous. Please see section 13.4 for more information. 32) A Since bat and insect wings are derived from completely different structures, they are considered analogous. Please see section 13.4 for more information. 33) D Whales and snakes have lost functional limbs, so the remnant femur and pelvis bones are vestigial. Please see section 13.4 for more information. 34) E Many aquatic animals from very different lineages have converged on streamlined bodies as an effective solution for moving through the water. Please see section 13.4 for more information. 35) B Similar embryogenesis results from similar patterns generated by gene expression and provides significant clues about how organisms are related. Please see section 13.5 for more information. 36) B The injection of extra bicoid protein out of its usual place would disrupt normal pattern formation. Please see section 13.5 for more information. 37) A
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Evolutionary closeness can be seen in the gene sequence differences between organisms. Please see section 13.6 and figure 13.14 for more information. 38) A Combining fossil data with molecular data allows us to time the divergence of different groups of organisms. Please see section 13.6 for more information. 39) A Putting timing on the separation of species based, in part, on gene sequence data, is known as using a molecular clock. Please see section 13.6 for more information. 40) A Two non-mixing gene pools cannot homogenize by mating and remain similar--they diverge in the sequence of their genes. Please see section 13.6 for more information. 41) D Please see section 13.4 for more information. 42) A DNA sequences are used to create molecular clocks. Please see section 13.6 for more information. 43) E Molecular clocks need DNA to connect time with genetic data. Please see section 13.6 for more information. 44) A Please see section 13.2 to differentiate between radioactive isotopes and stable isotopes.
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45) A Study the geologic timescale in figure 13.2 in section 3.1 for more information. 46) B Study figure 13.2 in section 13.1 for more information. 47) E Study figure 13.2 and section 13.1 for more information. 48) A Please see section 13.5 to understand gene influences during embryo development. 49) Section Break 49.1) A Various hypotheses have been advanced over time to identify the ancestors of snakes. Please see section 13.6 and "Investigating Life" for more information. 49.2) B Fossils can be a great help in seeing connections between ancestors and current animals, using the anatomy of each for comparison. Please see section 13.6 for more information.
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) A biological species is defined as a population whose members can interbreed, although the offspring may be infertile. ⊚ ⊚
2)
Scientists can fill in gaps in defining species by DNA sequence analysis. ⊚ ⊚
3)
true false
true false
Mules are a defined species because they produce fertile offspring when mated. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) An evolutionary tree depicts species' relationships based on descent from shared ancestors. ⊚ ⊚
5)
The more heritable traitsorganisms share, the more taxonomic levels they share. ⊚ ⊚
6)
true false
true false
Bacteria are not defined as species when applying the biological species concept. ⊚ ⊚
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1
7) New species that arise in the same physical area as its parent species is called sympatric speciation. ⊚ ⊚
8)
true false
Sympatric speciation is more accepted by scientists than allopatric speciation. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) Punctuated equilibrium is the steady, gradual loss of species due to normal evolutionary processes. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 10) The process by which new species originate and can no longer interbreed with others in the group is
A) germination. B) extinction. C) migration. D) speciation. E) immigration.
11)
The process by which species cease to exist is
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A) isolation. B) speciation. C) extinction. D) migration. E) differentiation.
12) Types of living organisms on Earth have changed over time; new species have originated and existing species have disappeared. This describes
A) speciation. B) extinction. C) macroevolution. D) alternation of generations. E) hybridization.
13) The scientist given credit for devising the two-word naming system of all living organismsis
A) Aristotle. B) Charles Darwin. C) Gregor Mendel. D) Carolus Linnaeus. E) Louis Pasteur.
14)
Biologists divide barriers of reproductive isolation into 2 groups
A) sexual and geographic. B) prezygotic and sexual. C) postzygotic and geographic. D) sexual and postzygotic. E) prezygotic and postzygotic.
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15)
Which of the following is not a type of prezygotic reproductive barrier?
A) temporal isolation B) gametic isolation C) hybrid infertility D) habitat isolation E) mechanical isolation
16) You are studying two species of dung beetles, one of which rolls its dung balls during the day and rests at night. The other rolls its dung balls at night and rests during the day. These species will not breed because of
A) behavioral isolation. B) gametic isolation. C) mechanical isolation. D) temporal isolation. E) sexual selection.
17) The type of reproductive barrier in which the offspring matures to adulthood but is unable to produce offspring is
A) gametic isolation. B) mechanical isolation. C) hybrid infertility. D) hybrid inviability. E) temporal isolation.
18) If you saw two populations of a species of snail, separated by a water-filled valley that they could not cross, you might eventually expect to see speciation due to
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A) mechanical isolation. B) habitat isolation. C) hybrid inviability. D) behavioral isolation. E) temporal isolation.
19) If you observed that the sperm of a bull could not fuse in a lab dish with the eggs of a cow, you would say that the bull and the cow showed
A) hybrid inviability. B) gametic isolation. C) temporal isolation. D) hybrid infertility. E) ecological isolation.
20)
Postzygotic isolation barriers prevent
A) a hybrid embryo from developing into a fertile adult. B) fertilization. C) male gametes from joining with female gametes. D) formation of gametes by one of the parents. E) All answers are correct.
21)
The idea that evolution proceeds in small, incremental changes over many generations is
A) temporal isolation. B) gradualism. C) punctuated equilibrium. D) hybrid breakdown. E) mechanical isolation.
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22) The idea that evolution proceeds with long periods of stasis with relatively brief bursts of fast evolutionary change is
A) temporal isolation. B) mechanical isolation. C) gradualism. D) punctuated equilibrium. E) hybrid breakdown.
23)
The rate of background extinctions per year per million species is
A) 0.1 to 1.0 species. B) 0.001 to 0.01 species. C) 1.0 to 10 species. D) 10 to 100 species. E) No answer is correct.
24)
Centimeter-thin layers of earth that are rich in iridium give evidence to support the
A) allopatric theory. B) ecological isolation theory. C) gradualism theory. D) impact theory. E) punctuated equilibriumtheory.
25) The impact of a large meteorite with Earth would have most likely caused mass extinctions by
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A) causing a great prolonged rise in the earth's temperature and destroying plant life. B) creating large clouds of dust that blocked out sunlight only. C) causing a great prolonged rise in the earth's temperature only. D) creating large clouds of dust that blocked out sunlight and destroying plant life. E) destroying only plant life.
26)
It is believed that the two main reasons for mass extinctions in Earth's history have been
A) collision between Earth and a large celestial body and human intervention. B) global warming and human intervention. C) human intervention and shifting of Earth's continents. D) global warming and shifting of Earth's continents. E) collision between Earth and a large celestial body and shifting of Earth's continents.
27)
Phylogenetics is study of
A) evolutionary relationships among species. B) describing, naming, and classifying species. C) inherited attributes. D) features only found in living species. E) anatomical parts of unrelated species.
28)
A small angle for a branch point in an evolutionary tree indicates
A) extinction. B) punctuated equilibrium. C) gradualism. D) convergent evolution. E) temporal isolation.
29)
A horizontal branch in an evolutionary tree indicates
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A) gradualism. B) punctuated equilibrium. C) extinction. D) convergent evolution. E) temporal isolation.
30) A sterile mule is produced by mating a horse and a donkey. From this observation you could conclude
A) that horses and donkeys are the same species. B) that horses and donkeys are different species. C) that mules are a result of macroevolution. D) that increasing the number of mules in a population will affect the allele frequency in the next generation. E) the DNA sequences of horses and donkeys are more than 97% identical.
31) If a sheep and goat are bred, their offspring would die as an embryo. This is an example of a(n)_____ reproductive barrier.
A) prezygotic B) allopatric C) sympatric D) postzygotic E) outgroup
32) Hawthorn maggot flies that breed on native hawthorns and those that breed on introduced European apples can mate in the lab, but rarely mate in the wild. The inability to breed in the wild is an example of _____ reproductive barrier.
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A) postzygotic B) prezygotic C) allopatric D) sympatric E) outgroup
33) Some flowers bloom in the spring while others bloom in the summer. This is an example ofa(n) _____ reproductive barrier.
A) postzygotic B) allopatric C) sympatric D) outgroup E) prezygotic
34) Birds use specific songs, coloring, and mating dances to attract mates of their species. This is an example of a(n) _____ reproductive barrier.
A) postzygotic B) allopatric C) prezygotic D) sympatric E) outgroup
35) Different geographical barriers physically separated the tortoises on the Galápagos Islands. This separation resulted in the evolution of subspecies. This is an example of _____ speciation.
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A) prezygotic B) allopatric C) postzygotic D) sympatric E) outgroup
36) Two species of finches found on the same Galápagos island but feeding on different food sources is an example of _____ speciation.
A) allopatric B) sympatric C) prezygotic D) postzygotic E) outgroup
37) Scientists have a complete fossil record showing the evolution of horses over millions of years. The fossil record indicates the legs becomes longer and the teeth larger, as ancestors of the modern horse adapted from living in forest to grasslands. This is an example of
A) punctuated equilibrium. B) extinction. C) a postzygotic barrier to evolution. D) gradualism. E) a prezygotic barrier to evolution.
38) Conservation biologists are often concerned that when the population size of an endangered species becomes too small it is at risk of extinction. What is the basis of their concern?
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A) They can no longer evolve. B) Their rate of breeding will decline. C) They may be more susceptible to changes in the environment or disease. D) They are at risk of sympatric isolation. E) They are at risk of developing prezygotic barriers to reproduction.
39) Three species of tigers have become extinct due to overharvesting or habitat destruction. This is an example of
A) mass extinction. B) background extinction rate. C) sympatric speciation. D) increased extinction rate by human activity. E) allopatric speciation.
40)
Reading a cladogram, birds are least related to
A) nonavian dinosaurs. B) crocodiles. C) turtles. D) mammals. E) amphibians.
41) Closely related plant species, found in the same geographical location, can attractdifferent pollinators. This type of reproductive barrier is an example of
A) sympatric speciation. B) allopatric speciation. C) hybrid inviability. D) hybrid infertility. E) hybrid breakdown.
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42)
Every species has a unique two-word name called the
A) scientific name. B) genus. C) phylogeny. D) evolutionary tree. E) clade.
43)
What is the most inclusive level of the hierarchical classification scheme?
A) domain B) phylum C) kingdom D) genus E) species
44)
What is the least inclusive level of the hierarchical classification scheme?
A) domain B) phylum C) kingdom D) genus E) species
45)
The scientific name of humans is Homo sapiens. What is the genus of humans?
A) Homo B) sapiens C) Homo sapiens D) Animalia E) Eukarya
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46)
Humans are placed into what kingdom and domain?
A) Animalia, Archaea B) Chordata, Archaea C) Archaea, Eukarya D) Animalia, Eukarya E) Archaea, Animalia
47)
Which of the following is not an example of microevolution?
A) bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics B) HIV evolving from chimpanzees C) insects becoming resistant to pesticides D) staph infections not responding to medicines E) All of the answer choices are examples of microevolution.
48)
Polyploidy
A) is a type of sympatric speciation. B) occurs in 95% of ferns. C) results from an increase in chromosomes. D) occurs naturally in about 50% of all plant species. E) All the answer choices are correct.
49) Which of the following is described by the steady, gradual loss of species due to normal evolutionary processes?
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A) mass extinction B) impact theory C) background extinction rate D) punctuated equilibrium E) gradualism
50)
Which of the following species' extinction was not a result of habitat destruction?
A) Chinese paddlefish B) Dodo C) Passenger pigeon D) Palestinian painted frog E) Las Vegas dace
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Answer Key Test name: ch 14 1) FALSE Members of the same biological species must be able to produce fertile offspring . Please see section 14.1 for more information. 2) TRUE DNA sequence data, along with other data such as morphology, development, etc., gives the best phylogenetic trees. Please see section 14.1 for more information. 3) FALSE Mules are the product of mating between two distinct species and are themselves infertile. Please see section 14.2 for more information. 4) TRUE Evolutionary trees are attempts to reconstruct the evolutionary relationships among groups of organisms. Please see section 14.6 for more information. 5) TRUE Please see section 14.6 for information of hierarchy organization. 6) TRUE Please see section 14.1 for more information about the biological species concept. 7) TRUE Please see section 14.3 for the differences between sympatric and allopatric speciation. 8) FALSE Version 1
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Please see section 14.3 to understand the acceptance of speciation mechanisms. 9) FALSE Background extinction rate is the gradual loss of species due to normal evolutionary processes. Please see section 14.5 for more information. 10) D Speciation is the process by which new species form from existing species, and many different driving forces can lead to speciation. Please see section 14.1 for more information. 11) C Extinct species no longer exist. Please see section 14.1 for more information. 12) C Macroevolution is about the change in species, while microevolution is about smaller changes, such as alteration of allele frequencies in populations. Please see section 14.1 for more information. 13) D Linnaeus codified the use of two word Latin names and formal descriptions in 1753. Please see section 14.1 for more information. 14) E Prezygotic reproductive isolation barriers prevent fertilization, while postzygotic barriers prevent survival of the zygote or embryo. Please see section 14.2 for more information. 15) C If a hybrid is infertile, that is a problem after the production of a zygote, and, thus, not prezygotic. Please see section 14.2 for more information.
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16) D Populations active at different times can speciate due to temporal isolation, being active at the wrong time for mating between the populations. Please see section 14.2 for more information. 17) C When chromosomes cannot line up during meiosis, infertility results since sex cells cannot be formed. Please see section 14.2 for more information. 18) B If two populations of a species live in separate habitats, they cannot interbreed, and speciation is likely to result. Please see section 14.2 for more information. 19) B When gametes cannot physically meet or cannot fuse, gametic isolation results. Please see section 14.2 for more information. 20) A Postzygotic barriers either result in the new individual not surviving or not being able to reproduce. Please see section 14.2 for more information 21) B In gradualism, groups of organisms separate slowly over time, step-bystep. Please see section 14.4 for more information. 22) D Punctuated equilibrium proposes that evolution occurs in short, concentrated bursts, with long unchanged periods in between. Please see section 14.4 for more information. 23) A Version 1
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Scientists estimate that, under normal conditions, species go extinct at a low rate. Please see section 14.5 for more information. 24) D Iridium is rare on Earth but common in some parts of outer space, such as asteroids. The presence of a large amount of Iridium in a thin layer of sediment is evidence of an extraterrestrial impact. Please see section 14.5 for more information. 25) D The loss of plant life would drastically disrupt ecosystems since plants are almost always the primary producers on which the rest of life relies for energy. Please see section 14.5 for more information. 26) E Impacts of smaller extraterrestrial bodies and shifting continents leading to loss of habitat and changed climate have been responsible for the mass extinctions in the history of life on Earth. Please see section 14.5 for more information. 27) A Phylogenetics seeks to reconstruct evolutionary relationships. Please see section 14.6 for more information. 28) C In phylogenetic trees, shallow angles indicate gradual change, and sharp angles much more rapid alterations. Please see section 14.4 and figure 14.9 for more information. 29) B Horizontal branches in phylogenetic trees indicate large, rapid shifts. Please see section 14.4 and figure 14.9 for more information. 30) B Version 1
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Different species show reproductive isolation when mating is tried, postzygotic isolation in the case used in this question. Please see section 14.1 for more information. 31) D When fertilization occurs but the offspring produced are nonviable, this is a case of a postzygotic reproduction barrier. Please see section 14.2 for more information. 32) B Prezygotic reproductive barriers occurs when anything prevents fusion of gametes. Please see section 14.2 for more information. 33) E Please see section 14.2 for help differentiating post- and prezygotic reproductive barriers. 34) C Please see section 14.2 to differentiate between post- and prezygotic reproductive barriers. 35) B When new species arise due to physical separation of populations, this is called allopatric speciation. Please see section 14.3 for more information. 36) B Sympatric speciation occurs when populations are in the same geographic location but are otherwise kept from mating by factors such as food source used, time of day active, etc. Please see section 14.3 for more information. 37) D
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The steady changes seen in the history of horses, leading up to today's grassland-adapted species, is an example of gradual change, and thus of gradualism. Please see section 14.4 for more information. 38) C Species with very few individuals remaining alive can be easily made extinct by crises which kill the few individuals due to their geographic concentration or their lack of genetic diversity. Please see section 14.5 for more information. 39) D Human activity can damage habitat, decreasing populations or leading species to extinction. Please see section 14.5 for more information. 40) E The most distantly related groups on a phylogenetic tree are those which are farthest apart. Please see section 14.6 and figure 14.15 for more information. 41) A One cause of sympatric speciation is when different species of plants transfer their pollen in different enough ways that crossing does not occur. Please see section 14.3 for more information. 42) A An organism's scientific name is a two-word Latin name. Please see section 14.1 for more information. 43) A Domains include all of the other taxonomic levels. Please see section 14.6 for more information. 44) E
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Taxonomically speaking, species are the smallest group in the hierarchy of life. Please see section 14.6 for more information. 45) A " Homo" means "man." Please see section 14.6 for more information. 46) D Humans are eukaryotic animals. Please see section 14.6 for more information. 47) E See the Burning Question 14.1 for more information. 48) E Please see section 14.3 for more information on polyploidy in plants. 49) C Please see section 14.5 for more information on extinction. 50) C Please see the Why We Care 14.1 in section 14.5 for a list of recent species extinctions.
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The Miller experiment was the first in history that attempted to recreate chemical conditions on Earth before life arose. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) The endosymbiont theory states that eukaryotic cells work together to form a multicellular organism. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) The endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi body, and other membranous organelles of cells might have formed by numerous infoldings of the cell's outer membrane. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) Antibiotics usually are not dangerous to humans when treating bacterial infections because most antibiotics exploit structures and functions in bacteria that are not present in host cells. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) Because archaea were first found in environments that lacked oxygen or were very hot, acidic, or salty, they were nicknamed "extremophiles." ⊚ ⊚
6)
true false
Autotrophs must acquire carbon from organic molecules produced from other organisms.
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⊚ ⊚
7)
Many prokaryotes play vital roles in global nutrient cycles. ⊚ ⊚
8)
true false
Diatoms and brown algae contain yellowish photosynthetic pigments. ⊚ ⊚
13)
true false
A dinoflagellate has two flagella. ⊚ ⊚
12)
true false
Protists can be heterotrophs. ⊚ ⊚
11)
true false
All protists are single-celled. ⊚ ⊚
10)
true false
Most bacteria inside and on the human body cause disease. ⊚ ⊚
9)
true false
true false
Protists can be autotrophs.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
14) Slime molds may exist as either single amoeboid cells or large masses of cells that behave as one multicellular organism. ⊚ ⊚
15)
A mushroom is a dikaryotic structure of Basidiomycota. ⊚ ⊚
16)
true false
Protein was the first molecule carrying genetic information. ⊚ ⊚
18)
true false
Molecular evidence places fungi closer to plants than animals. ⊚ ⊚
17)
true false
true false
RNA was the first molecule carrying genetic information. ⊚ ⊚
true false
19) When testing a sample of cells for preferred growing conditions, you find that they are obligate for growth in high concentrations of salt. These are probably bacteria. ⊚ ⊚
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3
20) Cooperation between or among cells could have been a key step in the evolution of multicellularity. ⊚ ⊚
21)
true false
Multicellular organisms generally consist of a large number of identical cells. ⊚ ⊚
true false
22) If you sample prokaryotes from a kitchen faucet, there are likely to be bacteria, not archaea. ⊚ ⊚
23)
true false
Scientists have fossils of the first life on Earth. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 24) Clues from geology and paleontology suggest that simple cells or their precursors arose about
A) six billion years ago. B) six million years ago. C) four billion years ago. D) four million years ago. E) one million years ago.
25) The Russian chemist Oparin suggested that for organic molecules to form on Earth, the atmosphere was probably rich in all of these except
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A) oxygen. B) water. C) ammonia. D) methane. E) hydrogen.
26)
What did Stanley Miller's simulation of Earth's early conditions produce?
A) living cells B) amino acids C) plants D) DNA molecules E) RNA molecules
27) Photosynthesis probably originated during the _____ eon and most likely used _____ as an electron donor.
A) Proterozoic; water B) Archean; water C) Archean; hydrogen sulfide D) Proterozoic; hydrogen sulfide E) Paleozoic; water
28) Clays often have positively charged surfaces. How may this have been important in the formation of organic macromolecules?
A) They are a source of ATP to run chemical reactions. B) They form covalent bonds with organic building blocks. C) They can form templates by binding organic building blocks. D) They are a source of oxygen to break down organic building blocks. E) They are formed from meteorites that carried organic molecules to Earth.
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29)
Why do scientists hypothesize that RNA was the first form of genetic material?
A) RNA can use genetic information to make proteins. B) RNA can catalyze reactions. C) RNA can store genetic information. D) RNA can self-replicate. E) All answers are correct.
30) How is the ability of phospholipids to spontaneously form membranes when placed in water important in the origin of life on Earth?
A) Membranes are used by cells to catalyze reactions. B) Membranes are used by cells to store genetic information. C) Membranes protect a cell from high temperatures and pressures in the environment. D) Membranes are used by cells to isolate their contents from the environment. E) Membranes protect a cell from gases in the atmosphere
31)
The first multicellular organisms probablyarose about
A) 1.2 billion years ago. B) 500 million years ago. C) two billion years ago. D) 3.5 billion years ago. E) six billion years ago.
32) In setting up a lab for a general biology course, you are asked to match labels with a timeline on the wall. For "First Cells," you need to find a point on the timeline
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A) 500 million years ago. B) 1.2 billion years ago. C) two billion years ago. D) six billion years ago. E) four billion years ago.
33)
Which theory explains the origin of chloroplasts and mitochondria?
A) the theory of evolution B) the theory of natural selection C) the geologic time theory D) the cell theory E) the endosymbiont theory
34) Evidence supporting the idea that mitochondria and chloroplasts in present-day cells originated as independent organisms includes
A) similarities in DNA sequences between mitochondrial and bacterial genomes. B) similarities in size and shape between mitochondria and some prokaryotes. C) similarity between photosynthetic pigments in chloroplasts and cyanobacteria. D) similarity in the way mitochondria, chloroplasts, and prokaryotes reproduce. E) All answers are correct.
35)
Mitochondria evolved before chloroplasts based on which observation?
A) Mitochondria produced the oxygen found in the atmosphere. B) Almost all organisms have mitochondria. C) All eukaryotes have mitochondria, but not chloroplasts. D) All prokaryotes have mitochondria, but not chloroplasts. E) Mitochondria are larger than chloroplasts.
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36)
Mitochondria arose by endosymbiosis of a(an)
A) anaerobic bacterium. B) photosynthetic bacterium. C) aerobic bacterium. D) aerobic archaeon. E) photosynthetic archaeon.
37)
Chloroplasts arose by endosymbiosis of a(an)
A) aerobic bacterium. B) photosynthetic bacterium. C) anaerobic bacterium. D) aerobic archaeon. E) photosynthetic archaeon.
38)
How did multicellular organisms evolve from unicellular organisms?
A) Single-celled organisms joined together, or failed to separate after cell division. B) Single-celled organisms joined together only. C) Single-celled organisms failed to separate after cell division only. D) Single-celled organisms joined together, or absorbed other species by endosymbiosis. E) One species absorbed another species by endosymbiosis only.
39)
Which of the following is true of prokaryotes?
A) Prokaryotes have a nucleus. B) Prokaryotes are single-celled. C) Prokaryotes do not have a chromosome. D) Prokaryotes have membrane-bounded organelles. E) Prokaryotes do not have ribosomes.
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40)
A prokaryote that occupies a habitat consisting of a low pH is a(n)
A) thermophile. B) halophile. C) basophile. D) acidophile. E) hydrophile.
41)
A prokaryote that occupies a habitat that is extremely salty is a(n)
A) thermophile. B) acidophile. C) halophile. D) basophile. E) hydrophile.
42) a(n)
A prokaryote that occupies a habitat that is characterized by extreme heat (above 50°C) is
A) thermophile. B) acidophile. C) halophile. D) basophile. E) hydrophile.
43)
The domain (domains) that contain prokaryotes is (are)
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A) Archaea. B) Bacteria. C) both Archaea and Bacteria. D) Eukarya. E) both Bacteria and Eukarya.
44)
The region of a prokaryotic cell where the bacterial chromosome (DNA) is located is the
A) cell membrane. B) nucleus. C) cell wall. D) nucleoid. E) ribosome.
45)
DNA that is circular and apart from the chromosome in a prokaryote is a(n)
A) ribosome. B) endospore. C) nucleus. D) nucleoid. E) plasmid.
46)
In prokayotes, the structure that assembles proteins by using information in RNA a(an)
A) plasmid. B) ribosome. C) cell membrane. D) endospore. E) nucleoid.
47)
The rigid barrier that surrounds most prokaryotes is the
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A) cell membrane. B) flagellum. C) ribosome. D) cell wall. E) cytoplasm.
48)
The complex polysaccharide component of cell walls of bacteria is
A) peptidoglycan. B) glucose. C) chitin. D) cellulose. E) All answers are correct.
49)
The structures of prokaryotes that are used to transfer DNA from one cell to another are
A) sex pili. B) flagella. C) endospores. D) calcium carbonate threads. E) cilia.
50) You are examining samples from a site in a dry pond that alternates between freezing cold winters and hot dry summers. When you find dormant thick-walled structures, you suspect that these are from bacteria and are
A) plasmids. B) pili. C) ribosomes. D) flagella. E) endospores.
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51)
The three most common shapes of bacteria are
A) spirillum, endospore, and peptidoglycan. B) bacillus, spirillum, and coccus. C) cubical, spiral, and thread-like. D) spirillum, nucleiod, and peptidoglycan. E) cubical, spherical, and rod-shaped.
52) Clostridium tetani, the bacterium that causes tetanus, can survive in soil for up to 40 years. It is most likely in which of the following structures?
A) a cell membrane B) a nucleus C) a cell wall D) a pilus E) an endospore
53) Escherichia coli and Salmonella can live in our intestines in the presence or absence of oxygen. They are considered
A) obligate anaerobes. B) phototrophs. C) facultative anaerobes. D) autotrophs. E) aerobic.
54)
Prokaryotes lack which feature?
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A) a nucleus B) RNA C) DNA D) a cell membrane E) a cell wall
55)
All protists
A) are prokaryotes. B) lack a nucleus. C) lack membrane-bounded organelles. D) are eukaryotes. E) are multicellular.
56) DNA sequence evidence suggests that plants, fungi, and animals arose from different lineages of unicellular protists. This suggests which of the following?
A) Protists evolved before the other three kingdoms. B) Early ancestors to plants, fungi, and animals could interbreed. C) Multicellular organisms arose only once in evolutionary history. D) All unicellular organisms are now extinct. E) The animal, plant, and fungal kingdoms contain some single-celled organisms.
57)
Which protists produce much of the Earth's oxygen?
A) amoeba B) slime molds C) algae D) protozoa E) radiolarians
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58)
Silica walls are a characteristic of
A) diatoms. B) euglenoids. C) red algae. D) brown algae. E) slime molds.
59) A jellylike substance produced by red algae and used as a culture medium for microorganisms is
A) red ooze. B) All answers are correct. C) gelatin. D) agar. E) algin.
60) If you were taken to the beach and asked to stand near a sample of the largest kind of algae, you would search for a piece of
A) kelp. B) diatoms. C) red algae. D) golden algae. E) green algae.
61) Euglena and dinoflagellates have chloroplasts and flagella. This means they have what characteristic(s)?
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A) photosynthetic only B) motile only C) multicellular only D) Both are photosynthetic and motile. E) Both are multicellular and motile.
62) Chlamydomonas is unicellular and photosynthetic. Chlamydomonas is which of the following?
A) a slime mold B) an apicomplexan C) an amoeba D) a water mold E) a green alga
63) The Irish potato famine in the mid-1840s was caused by which heterotrophic protist decomposer that secreted digestive enzymes onto potatoes?
A) a water mold B) a red alga C) a dinoflagellate D) a protozoan E) a fungus
64) In areas of the world where malaria is endemic, people have a relatively high incidence of the allele for
A) sickle cell. B) blue eyes. C) cystic fibrosis. D) mental retardation. E) hemophilia.
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65) Dictyostelium discoideum consists of amoeba-like cells that move independently, feeding on bacteria. When the food runs out, cells begin to aggregate to produce spores. Dictyostelium discoideum is which kind of organism?
A) an autotroph B) a heterotroph and autotroph C) a heterotroph D) a detritovore E) a heterotroph and detritovore
66)
Cytoplasmic extensions by which some protozoa move are
A) cilia. B) flagella. C) pseudopodia. D) pili. E) All answers are correct.
67)
In the ecosystems of the world, fungi act primarily as
A) decomposers. B) autotrophs. C) primary consumers. D) secondary consumers. E) photosynthesizers.
68)
Yeasts are
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A) multicelled autotrophs. B) single-celled heterotrophs. C) single-celled autotrophs. D) multicelled heterotrophs. E) All answers are correct.
69)
Fungi and animals are similar because they both
A) are phototrophs. B) have cell walls made of chitin. C) are heterotrophs. D) use starch as their main storage carbohydrate. E) are decomposers.
70)
Fungi and plants are similar because they both
A) carry out photosynthesis. B) have cellulose as the main component of their cell walls. C) have glycogen as the main storage carbohydrate. D) have cell walls. E) All answers are correct.
71)
The main storage carbohydrate in fungi is
A) glycogen. B) glucose. C) starch. D) cellulose. E) chitin.
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72) You are analyzing samples under a microscope, and one sample comes from what you suspect is a fungus. You find tiny filaments, which, in your report, you call
A) hyphae. B) spores. C) fruiting bodies. D) gills. E) chitin.
73)
Microscopic reproductive cells produced by most fungi are
A) hyphae. B) fruiting bodies. C) mycelia. D) gills. E) spores.
74)
In fungi, a mass of aggregated hyphae is called a(n)
A) mycelium. B) pilus. C) gill. D) spore. E) ascus.
75)
Fungi are classified into phyla based on which characteristic?
A) organelles B) composition of cell wall C) photosynthesis D) reproductive structures E) multicellular vs. unicellular
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76)
Fungi that live between the cells of plant tissue without causing disease is called
A) endophytes. B) basidiomycota. C) ascomycota. D) mycorrhizae. E) chytridiomycota.
77) If a friend at the next lab bench was working on an unknown fungus and shouted "I've found zygospores," you would tell your friend that the fungus was probably a member of the
A) Chytridiomycota. B) Ascomycota. C) Zygomycota. D) Basidiomycota. E) Glomeromycota.
78)
Associations of fungi and plant roots are called
A) pili. B) mycorrhizae. C) lichens. D) root forks. E) endophytes.
79)
Which of the following is not a characteristic of lichen?
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A) It is a partnership between fungus and a photosynthetic partner. B) The fungi in the relationship can be an ascomycete. C) The fungi in the relationship can be a basidiomycete. D) The photosynthetic partner can be a green algae or cynanobacteria. E) The photosynthetic partner can be a protist.
80) The fusion of two haploid hyphae whereby the nuclei remain separate in the cell creates a(n) ______ cell.
A) dikaryotic B) haploid C) tetraploid D) diploid E) uniploid
81) Sexual sporesare formed by the fusion of two haploid nuclei. They then go through meiosis to form spores. Spores are which of the following?
A) haploid B) diploid C) dikaryotic D) tetraploid E) uniploid
82)
A lichen is made up of which two types of organisms?
A) a fungus and a plant B) a plant and a cyanobacterium C) a fungus and an alga or cyanobacterium D) an alga and a bacterium E) an alga and a plant
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83)
Which is the best description of the mutual benefit to both species found in a lichen?
A) The autotroph provides food and the heterotroph provides water and minerals. B) The autotroph prevents dehydration and the heterotroph provides energy. C) The autotroph provides water and minerals and the heterotroph prevents dehydration. D) The heterotroph protects the autotroph from predation. E) The autotroph produces antibiotics to ward off infection to the heterotroph by bacteria.
84)
Why are lichens a good indicator of environmental quality?
A) They cannot absorb toxins. B) If the air is polluted they cannot get enough sunlight for photosynthesis. C) They cannot excrete absorbed toxins. D) If the soil is polluted they cannot produce roots. E) Toxins inhibit their reproduction.
85) Which of the following phyla of fungi contain the organism responsible for Dutch elm disease and chestnut blight?
A) Ascomycetes B) Zygomycetes C) Basidiomycetes D) Chytridiomycetes
86) After a haploid spore germinates, it then completes mitosis, forming hyphae. The resulting hyphae are
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A) diploid. B) dikaryotic. C) zygotes. D) gametes. E) haploid.
87)
The first life on Earth was probably most similar to modern-day
A) bacteria. B) protists. C) Archaeans. D) plants. E) fungi.
88)
The first life on Earth was
A) prokaryotic. B) eukaryotic. C) prokaryotic and multicellular. D) eukaryotic and multicellular. E) eukaryotic and unicellular.
89)
Which of the following was not a characteristic of the Hadean eon?
A) volcanic eruptions and earthquakes B) prokaryotic life appeared at the end of this eon C) ultraviolet radiation D) large amounts of comets and meteorites E) photosynthetic organisms were abundant
90)
How did the first life on Earth obtain energy?
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A) photosynthesis in the presence of oxygen B) photosynthesis in the absence of oxygen C) heterotrophic consumptionof organic molecules D) autotrophic consumptionof organic molecules E) phototrophic consumption of inorganic molecules
91)
What was likely the first informational molecule of life?
A) carbohydrates B) lipids C) proteins D) RNA E) DNA
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Answer Key Test name: ch 15 1) TRUE The Miller experiment explained that under controlled conditions, amino acids, lipids, and carbohydrates could from. Please see section 15.1 for more information. 2) FALSE The endosymbiont theory says that mitochondria and chloroplasts originated as free living bacteria which were taken up into eukaryotic cells and incorporated as parts of those cells. Please see section 15.3 for more information. 3) TRUE Organelles which have membranes as part of their structures but which are not mitochondria or plastids probably originated as infoldings of the plasma membrane. Please see section 15.3 for more information. 4) TRUE Antibiotics target prokaryotic features, leaving eukaryotic cells with minimal effects. Please see section 15.2 for more information. 5) TRUE Archaea can be found in a wide range of environments, but all of them tend to be extreme in some aspect of chemistry or temperature. Please see section 15.2 for more information. 6) FALSE Autotrophs make their own organic molecules. Please see section 15.2 for more information.
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7) TRUE Prokaryotes are critical to the cycling of chemical elements from one living thing to another and between living things and nonliving things. Please see section 15.2 for more information. 8) FALSE Many helpful bacteria live in and on the human body, and disease can occur when other bacteria take their places. Please see section 15.2 for more information. 9) FALSE While many protists are single-celled, others are large, multicellular creatures. Please see section 15.4 for more information. 10) TRUE Some, but not all, protists are unable to perform photosynthesis. Please see section 15.4 for more information. 11) TRUE Dinoflagellates are small, single-celled protists. Please see section 15.4 for more information. 12) TRUE The yellowish pigments are accessory pigments which help with photosynthesis. Please see section 15.4 for more information. 13) TRUE Many protists are photosynthetic. Please see section 15.4 for more information. 14) TRUE Slime molds have a complex lifecycle with several stages, culminating in spore production. Please see section 15.4 for more information.
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15) TRUE Mushrooms are the pedestal-like fruiting bodies of basidiomycetes. Please see section 15.5 for more information. 16) FALSE Please see section 15.5 and figure 15.33 for more information. 17) FALSE The first genetic molecule was probably RNA. Please see section 15.1 for more information. 18) TRUE The first genetic molecule was probably RNA due to its combined ability to carry information and to catalyze chemical reactions. Please see section 15.1 for more information. 19) FALSE Extreme environmental conditions are usually preferred by archaea. Please see section 15.2 for more information. 20) TRUE Cooperation between cells is a key feature in any modern multicellular organism. Please see section 15.3 for more information. 21) FALSE Multicellularity usually comes with different cells in an organism having different specialized roles. Please see section 15.3 for more information. 22) TRUE Bacteria prefer the milder environmental conditions of domestic kitchens, while archaea prefer harsher conditions, as found in domestic hot water heaters. Please see section 15.2 for more information. 23) FALSE
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The first living things would have been very small and very rare, and thus unlikely to have been found fossilized. Please see section 15.1 for more information. 24) C The evidence suggests that life has existed on Earth for most of Earth's own existence. Please see section 15.1 for more information. 25) A It is thought that the atmosphere of the early Earth was a reducing one, and thus lacking in any significant amount of oxygen. Please see section 15.1 for more information. 26) B Miller's work showed that at least some of the molecules of life could be produced inorganically by simple, natural processes. Please see section 15.1 for more information. 27) C Photosynthesis originated deep in the history of Earth, and oxygen was probably not the first electron acceptor used. Please see section 15.1 for more information. 28) C Clay is thought to have been critical in forming the first macromolecules from inorganically synthesized subunits. Please see section 15.1 for more information. 29) E The structural and functional versatility of RNA make it an appealing candidate for the first genetic material. Please see section 15.1 for more information. 30) D Version 1
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Phospholipids spontaneously form bilayers, which separate inside from outside, and thus allow for a key attribute of life. Please see section 15.1 for more information. 31) A Multicellular organisms have only existed for about 30% of the time life has existed. Please see section 15.1 and figure 15.1 for more information. 32) E The first cells probably arose from abiotically-produced molecules about 4 billion years ago. Please see section 15.1 for more information. 33) E Chloroplasts and mitochondria, which still have their own bacterial-type chromosomes, probably arose as bacteria which were taken up by eukaryotic cells but not digested. Please see section 15.3 for more information. 34) E Mitochondria and chloroplasts share a great many similarities with their identified bacterial ancestors. Please see section 15.3 for more information. 35) C If all eukaryote cells have mitochondria but not chloroplasts, the ancestor of all living eukaryotes must have passed on the mitochondria, but a second, later event would have given rise to chloroplasts. Please see section 15.3 for more information. 36) C
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An aerobic bacterium could have given mitochondria the aerobic form of respiration which they provide cells. Please see section 15.3 for more information. 37) B Photosynthetic bacteria, particularly the kind able to conduct oxygenproducing photosynthesis, were the likely ancestors of chloroplasts. Please see section 15.3 for more information. 38) A Multicellularity in its simplest form involves cells sticking together. Please see section 15.3 for more information. 39) B Prokaryotes, even if the cells aggregate, cannot form truly multicellular organisms. Please see section 15.2 for more information. 40) D "-phile" indicates an affinity for something, such as an environmental condition. Please see section 15.2 for more information. 41) C "Halo-" means "salt." Please see section 15.2 for more information. 42) A "Thermophile" literally means "heat lover." Please see section 15.2 for more information. 43) C While there is one domain for eukaryotes, there are two for prokaryotes. Please see section 15.2 for more information. 44) D
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A nucleoid is something like a nucleus without a nuclear membrane around it. Please see section 15.2 for more information. 45) E Plasmids are small, circular pieces of extra DNA possessed by many bacteria. Please see section 15.2 for more information. 46) B Ribosomes exist in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, though these two types of cells have different-sized ribosomes. Please see section 15.2 for more information. 47) D Cell walls are found among both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, but their chemical composition varies widely among those groups. Please see section 15.2 for more information. 48) A Most bacterial cell walls contain abundant peptidoglycan. Please see section 15.2 for more information. 49) A Sex pili are hollow tubes connecting one bacterium to another for DNA transfer. Please see section 15.2 for more information. 50) E Endospores are some of the most durable dormant living structures known. Please see section 15.2 for more information. 51) B The three most common shapes for bacterial cells are spiral, spherical, and rod-like. Please see section 15.2 for more information. 52) E
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Endospores can lie dormant for very long periods. Please see section 15.2 for more information. 53) C "Facultative" implies an ability to live under a condition, while a requirement for something involves the term "obligate." Please see section 15.2 for more information. 54) A The name "prokaryote" implies a lack of a membrane-bound nucleus. Please see section 15.2 for more information. 55) D Protists all have nuclei. Please see section 15.4 for more information. 56) A The protists came first, and then, from them came the various multicellular eukaryotic kingdoms. Please see section 15.3 for more information. 57) C The various algae perform oxygen-producing photosynthesis, including the red, green, and brown algae. Please see section 15.4 for more information. 58) A Diatoms make intricately detailed structures for protection, and these are made of silica. Please see section 15.4 for more information. 59) D Agar is chemically related to the pectin added to jelly to cause it to thicken. Please see section 15.4 for more information. 60) A
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Kelp, nearly 200 feet long from base to top, are the largest protists. Please see section 15.4 for more information. 61) D Chloroplasts are for photosynthesis and flagella for motility. Please see section 15.4 for more information. 62) E Chlamydomonas is a green alga favored for research on flagella and the microtubules which they contain. Please see section 15.4 for more information. 63) A The Irish potato famine led to many deaths as well as a wave of emigration. Please see section 15.4 for more information. 64) A The gene for sickle cell gives resistance to malaria without sickle cell disease when found in the heterozygous state. Please see section 15.4 for more information. 65) C Heterotrophs have to eat other organisms to obtain energy and organic chemicals. Please see section 15.4 for more information. 66) C "Pseudopod" literally means "false foot." Please see section 15.4 for more information. 67) A Fungi perform extracellular digestion, most often on dead matter. Please see section 15.5 for more information. 68) B
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Yeasts are unicellular fungi. Please see section 15.5 for more information. 69) C Both fungi and animals must obtain energy and organic chemicals from other organisms. Please see section 15.5 for more information. 70) D Fungi have cell walls made of chitin, while those of plants are made of cellulose. Please see section 15.5 for more information. 71) A Like animals, fungi store glycogen, a polymer of glucose. Please see section 15.5 for more information. 72) A Hyphae are chains of fungal cells. Please see section 15.5 for more information. 73) E Spores are dormant structures for dispersal, something like seeds. Please see section 15.5 for more information. 74) A Hyphae continue to increase in size and number near one another until they make a visible mass called a mycelium. Please see section 15.5 for more information. 75) D Fungal classification relies on the distinctive spore-producing structures of each phylum. Please see section 15.5 for more information. 76) A Endo- means inside. Please see section 15.5 for more information.
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77) C Zygospores are characteristic of the Zygomycota. Please see section 15.5 for more information. 78) B "Mycorrhizae" literally means "fungus roots." Please see section 15.5 for more information. 79) E Lichens consists of either an ascomycete or a basidiomycete that harbors green algae or cyanobacteria in its hyphae. Please see section 15.5 for more information. 80) A Dikaryotic hyphae have two distinct haploid nuclei which have not fused. Please see section 15.5 and figure 15.35 for more information. 81) A Fungal spores, whether produced sexually or asexually, are haploid. Please see section 15.5 for more information. 82) C A lichen consists of a fungus and a photosynthetic partner. Please see section 15.5 for more information. 83) A In a lichen, the alga or cyanobacterium performs photosynthesis, and the fungus absorbs minerals and water. Please see section 15.5 for more information. 84) C Because lichens cannot secrete toxins and they are very good at absorbing, any environmental toxins will be readily absorbed, killing the lichen. Please see section 15.5 for more information. Version 1
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85) A Please see section 15.5 for more information. 86) E Please see section 15.5 and figure 15.35 for more information. 87) A Living bacteria are the simplest creatures on Earth and thus most similar to what the first cells must have been like. Please see section 15.1 for more information. 88) A Prokaryotic cells, with their simpler structures for nucleic acid, evolved before eukaryotes, as the fossil record shows. Please see section 15.1 for more information. 89) E The Hadean eon was the first eon in the Precambrian supereon. Please see section 15.1 for more information. 90) C The evidence does not point to the first organisms being photosynthetic, so they would have had to have been heterotrophs. Please see section 15.1 for more information. 91) D RNA has several properties which make it a more likely first genetic molecule than DNA. Please see section 15.1 for more information.
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Hornworts are bryophytes. ⊚ ⊚
2)
All land plants have a cuticle. ⊚ ⊚
3)
true false
Horsetails and club mosses are seedless vascular plants like ferns. ⊚ ⊚
5)
true false
Gymnosperms are less successful than ferns because ferns make seeds. ⊚ ⊚
4)
true false
true false
All angiosperms have their pollen and seeds moved by animals. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) The purpose of fruit is to provide nourishment for the growing plant after the seed germinates. ⊚ ⊚
true false
7) The main function of phloem is to transport nutrients produced in photosynthesis to the roots and other nongreen parts of the plant.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 8) Plants are
A) multicellular organisms. B) autotrophs. C) eukaryotes. D) capable of photosynthesis. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
9)
What part of plant cells containschlorophyll a and carries out photosynthesis?
A) mitochondrion B) chloroplast C) central vacuole D) cell membrane E) Golgi body
10)
In flowering plants, the gametophyte is ______ the sporophyte.
A) larger than B) the same size as C) located on a separate plant from D) much smaller than E) absent and the entire plant is composed of
11)
In plants,
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A) the diploid zygote develops into the sporophyte. B) the haploid zygote develops into the sporophyte. C) the haploid gametophyte develops into the sporophyte. D) the diploid zygote develops into the gametophyte. E) the haploid gametophyte produces gametes by meiosis.
12)
The parts of the plant that absorb water and minerals are the
A) stomata. B) roots. C) flowers. D) pollen. E) cuticle.
13) The parts of the plant that conduct water and dissolved minerals from the roots to the leaves are the
A) xylem. B) stomata. C) roots. D) phloem. E) cuticle.
14)
The parts of the plant that allow for gas exchange are the
A) roots. B) stomata. C) xylem. D) phloem. E) cuticle.
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15)
The ______ provide(s) a waxy coating that minimizes water loss from leaves of the plant.
A) stomata B) roots C) xylem D) phloem E) cuticle
16) You are asked to place descriptive labels on a plant model which all students in an introductory laboratory will examine. ________ would receive a label saying "transports sugars around the plant."
A) Stomata B) Roots C) Phloem D) Xylem E) Cuticle
17)
The two types of vascular tissue in most plants are
A) lignin and xylem. B) xylem and phloem. C) lignin and phloem. D) xylem and stomata. E) stomata and lignin.
18) What evolved in terrestrial plants to provide support and transport for water and minerals?
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A) stomata B) pollen C) vascular tissues D) cuticle E) lignin
19)
What evolved in terrestrial plants to allow the exchange of gases with air?
A) pollen B) stomata C) vascular tissues D) cuticle E) lignin
20)
What reproductive adaptation did plants evolve ondry land?
A) stomata B) vascular tissues C) cuticle D) pollen E) lignin
21)
Evidence that green algae are the closest relatives to plants is that they both
A) have chloroplasts. B) contain chlorophyll a. C) have cellulose-rich cell walls. D) use starch as a nutrient reserve. E) All answers are correct.
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22) Gymnosperms and angiosperms evolved ______ allowing them to live and reproduce in drier habitats than bryophytes and seedless vascular plants.
A) spores B) seeds, spores, and fronds C) vascular tissue, spores, and fronds D) pollen grains and seeds E) fruit and flowers
23)
Ferns have advantage over bryophytes in that ferns
A) photosynthesize. B) are heterotrophs. C) have a vascular system, which allow them to grow taller. D) do not require water to reproduce. E) have alternation of generations.
24)
Gymnosperms have an advantage over ferns in that gymnosperms
A) produce pollen and do not require water to reproduce. B) have alternation of generations. C) have a vascular system, which allows them to grow taller. D) can grow larger gametophytes. E) can produce flowers and fruits to aid in seed dispersal.
25) You are reading about a garden designer who has invented something called the "megagarden space" in which a few specimens are planted in a disturbed area and allowed to make a garden by self-propagation. Why might this designer choose to work with angiosperms rather than gymnosperms?
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A) Angiosperms can produce flowers and fruits to aid in seed dispersal. B) Angiosperms produce pollen and do not require water to reproduce. C) Angiosperms have alternation of generations. D) Angiosperms have a vascular system, which allows them to grow taller. E) Angiosperms can produce spores, which are more stable than seeds from gymnosperms.
26) Based on the fossil record, all major groups of angiosperms evolved quickly during the age of the dinosaurs. What might explain the rapid rise and success of the flowering plants?
A) use of the wind to disperse pollen and seeds B) use of flowers and fruits to protect and disperse both pollen and seeds C) use of the wind to disperse spores D) use of water to disperse pollen and seeds E) All answers are correct.
27) In alternation of generations, a diploid sporophyte goes through meiosis to form _____ spores.
A) diploid B) tetraploid C) haploid D) uniploid E) No spores are formed. (This occurs in mitosis, not meiosis.)
28) In alternation of generations, a haploid gametophyte goes through mitosis to form a ____ gamete.
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A) haploid B) diploid C) tetraploid D) uniploid E) No gametes are formed.(This occurs in meiosis, not mitosis.)
29)
In plants that have two haploid gametes fuse during fertilization, the zygote is
A) haploid. B) diploid. C) tetraploid. D) either haploid or tetraploid. E) uniploid.
30) In the section "Investigating Life: Genetic Messages from Ancient Ecosystems," what was the advantage of looking for DNA samples in permafrost?
A) Most plants and animals evolved in Siberia. B) It is easier to take solid core samples. C) The enzymes that make DNA are still active in the cells. D) The freezing temperatures preserve the DNA. E) Areas with permafrost are older than other parts of the world, allowing scientists to collect samples back 1.5 to 2 million years.
31)
Mosses are an example of which of the following?
A) autotrophs B) primary consumers C) detritivores D) decomposers E) heterotrophs
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32)
Which is not a member of the gymnosperms?
A) conifers B) ferns C) gnetophytes D) cycads E) ginkgos
33)
The term "gymnosperm" means
A) "clothed ovule." B) "naked seed." C) "naked ovule." D) "clothed seed." E) "clothed sperm."
34)
The four phyla of the gymnosperms are
A) monocotyledons, dicotyledons, conifers, and cycads. B) horsetails, true ferns, whisk ferns, and club mosses. C) conifers, monocotyledons, dicotyledons, and cycads. D) mosses, liverworts, club mosses, and hornworts. E) conifers, cycads, ginkgos, and gnetophytes.
35)
Cycads are
A) trees that produce flowers. B) bryophytes. C) trees that produce large cones. D) algae. E) ferns.
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36)
Flowers and fruits are unique to
A) angiosperms. B) bryophytes. C) gymnosperms. D) conifers. E) cycads.
37)
What is the advantage of a gymnosperm producing a seed over a fern producing a spore?
A) Seeds are diploid, and can grow directly into a sporophyte. B) Seeds are haploid, and can grow directly into a sporophyte. C) Seeds are diploid, and can grow directly into a gametophyte. D) Seeds are haploid, and can grow directly into a gametophyte. E) Producing seeds over spores is a disadvantage.
38)
A cotyledon is
A) the first leaf structure to arise in the embryo of an angiosperm. B) a spore-like structure used for reproduction in plants. C) the fruit produced by flowers of angiosperms. D) a fragment of tissue used for reproduction in bryophytes. E) the zygote formed in ferns from the union of two gametes.
39)
The two groupsof angiosperms are
A) mosses and club mosses. B) ginkgos and cycads. C) monocots and eudicots. D) horsetails and ferns. E) conifers and gnetophytes.
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40)
The fruits of plants function in
A) providing food for animals. B) seed protection. C) both protecting and dispersing seeds. D) seed dispersal. E) both feeding animals and protecting seeds.
41)
The structure of the angiosperm that supplies nutrients to the germinating seedling is the
A) endosperm. B) fruit. C) seed coat. D) spore coat. E) pollen grain.
42)
How haveplants transformed the world?
A) They are a food source for many animals, fungi, and even some prokaryotes and protists. B) They are a habitat for breeding, rearing young, and escaping predators. C) Photosynthesis provides oxygen for aerobic respiration to make ATP. D) Fibers are used for clothing and paper. E) All answers are correct.
43)
What is NOT an ecological role of plants?
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A) occupy top level of food webs B) habitat for microscopic and macroscopic organisms C) fuel source directly as nutrition and indirectly as wood and coal D) prevent erosion of landscape by rooting into soil and other substrates E) provide oxygen that forms the ozone layer
44)
Which group ofplants lack true leaves and roots?
A) liverworts, hornworts, and mosses B) ferns, club mosses, horsetails, and whisk ferns C) ginkgo, cycads, conifers, and gnetophytes D) monocots and eudicots E) All plants lack true leaves and roots.
45)
Bryophytes lack vascular tissue and lignin and therefore cannot
A) sexually reproduce. B) grow tall. C) asexually reproduce. D) produce a gametophyte stage. E) produce a sporophyte stage.
46)
Which group ofplants have phloem andxylem but lack seeds, flowers, and fruit?
A) liverworts, hornworts, and mosses B) ferns, club mosses, horsetails, and whisk ferns C) ginkgo, cycads, conifers, and gnetophytes D) monocots and eudicots E) All plants have phloem andxylem but lack seeds, flowers, and fruit.
47)
Seedless vascularplants can ______ without water, but cannot ______ without water.
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A) reproduce asexually; reproduce sexually B) reproduce sexually; reproduce asexually C) grow; reproduce D) utilize phloem; utilize xylem E) utilize xylem; utilize phloem
48) Which group of plants have phloem andxylem, seeds, flowers, and fruit and inmany cases require animals for reproduction?
A) liverworts, hornworts, and mosses B) ferns, club mosses, horsetails, and whisk ferns C) ginkgo, cycads, conifers, and gnetophytes D) monocots and eudicots E) This is true of all groups of plants.
49)
The cones of gymnosperms play the same role as ______ in angiosperms.
A) flowers B) seeds C) leaves D) fruit E) roots
50)
What is the purpose of flowers?
A) to attract pollinators B) to support gamete production C) to capture windblown pollen D) to protect reproductive structures E) All answers are correct.
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Answer Key Test name: ch 16 1) TRUE Bryophytes include liverworts, hornworts, and mosses. Please see section 16.2 for more information. 2) TRUE All land plants need a cuticle to help retain water. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 3) FALSE Gymnosperms have seeds, not ferns. Please see section 16.4 for more information. 4) TRUE Seedless vascular plants include ferns, club mosses, horsetails, and whisk ferns. Please see section 16.3 for more information. 5) FALSE Some flowering plants have their pollen transferred by wind or water, and the same is true for some seeds. Please see section 16.5 for more information. 6) FALSE Fruits exist in most cases to get animals to transport seeds, either in their guts or attached to their fur. Please see section 16.5 for more information. 7) TRUE Phloem is an important vascular tissue. Please see section 16.1 for more information. Version 1
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8) E Plants are multicellular, eukaryotic organisms that perform photosynthesis and are autotrophs. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 9) B Chloroplasts are organelles specialized for photosynthesis. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 10) D The gametophyte of an angiosperm is small and dependent on the sporophyte. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 11) A Plants, like animals, have a diploid zygote which is a fertilized egg. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 12) B Roots have abundant surface area to allow for rapid absorption of water and minerals. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 13) A Xylem cells conduct water and minerals upwards. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 14) B Stomata are small pores on the underside of leaves for gas exchange. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 15) E The waxy cuticle helps retain water. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 16) C
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Phloem moves sugars and amino acids around the plant body. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 17) B Though they transport different substances, phloem and xylem are both kinds of vascular tissue. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 18) C The vascular tissues of land plants evolved to provide support and transport for life on land. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 19) B To understand the role of the stomata, please see section 16.1. 20) D Pollen is amazingly hardy in the face of dry conditions, having less water as a fraction of its total weight than almost any other living thing on Earth. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 21) E Eukaryotic green algae share many features which highlight their close relationship with the land plants. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 22) D Flowering plants and gymnosperms moved into much drier places than ferns or mosses due to the dispersal and survival properties of pollen and seeds. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 23) C Ferns have a vascular system for greater support and greater movement of water and solutes than do bryophytes. Please see section 16.1 for more information.
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24) A Gymnosperms not needing droplets or films of water to effect fertilization means that they can live in much drier settings than ferns. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 25) A Angiosperms get help in dispersing new diploid individuals from animals which eat or otherwise transport their fruit and seeds. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 26) B Dispersal of young is key for a group of plants to spread widely and compete successfully with other plants. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 27) C Meiosis reduces from the diploid state to the haploid by having one replication of DNA but two cells divisions. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 28) A Gametophytes produce haploid gametes, and, since they are haploid themselves, this can be accomplished by mitosis. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 29) B Any fusion of two haploid cells should result in a diploid cell once the nuclei have joined together. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 30) D Permafrost preserves DNA because frozen cells do not decay. Please see section 16.5 for more information.
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31) A With the exception of a few parasitic plants, all land plants are autotrophs. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 32) B Ferns are not seed plants. Please see section 16.4 for more information. 33) B "Gymnos" means "naked," and "sperma" means "seed." Please see section 16.4 for more information. 34) E Monocots and dicots are flowering plants, ferns and allies are not seed plants, and mosses, liverworts, and hornworts are bryophytes. Please see section 16.4 for more information. 35) C Cycads are primitive conifers found mostly in the Southern Hemisphere. Please see section 16.4 for more information. 36) A The flower and the fruit may, in some cases, seem like cones, but they are a great leap forward from the reproductive structures of gymnosperms. Please see section 16.5 for more information. 37) A Seeds when dispersed move a more durable sporophyte with a large supply of food while spores move a small gametophyte. Please see sections 16.3 and 16.4 for more information. 38) A Cotyledons have some leaf-like properties, and do perform photosynthesis when they reach the light, but also store resources in the seed. Please see section 16.5 for more information. Version 1
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39) C Eudicots make two cotyledons while monocots make one. Several other morphological comparisons differentiate them. Please see section 16.5 for more information. 40) C Fruits protect seeds and aid in seed dispersal by attaching to an animal, moving in wind or water, or being transported through the gut of an animal . Please see section 16.5 for more information. 41) A The endosperm is a specialized storage tissue which helps fuel the seedling until it can do enough photosynthesis to support itself. Please see section 16.5 for more information. 42) E Plants have changed the world radically, first by changing the atmosphere and then by providing food and raw materials. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 43) A Except for carnivorous and parasitic plants, plants are usually at the bottom of food webs. Please see section 16.1 for more information. 44) A Bryophytes do not have true leaves and roots. Please see section 16.2 for more information. 45) B Vascular tissue and the lignin which hardens and strengthens its cell walls is needed for plants to grow much more than a few tens of centimeters tall. Please see section 16.2 for more information. 46) B Version 1
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Seedless vascular plants can grow tall because of lignin and vascular tissue, as seen in tree ferns, but they do not produce seeds . Please see section 16.3 for more information. 47) A Seedless vascular plants can reproduce asexually using vegetative parts which do not need water, but they still have swimming sperm. Please see section 16.3 for more information. 48) D Only angiosperms use animals to disperse their new sporophytes. Please see section 16.5 for more information. 49) A Cones and flowers produce the gametophytes in their respective groups of plants. Please see sections 16.4 and 16.5 for more information. 50) E Flowers play a number of roles, but all have to do with the eventual production of new sporophytes. Please see section 16.5 for more information.
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Some animals are autotrophs. ⊚ ⊚
2)
true false
If you were eating sea urchin and starfish soup, you would be eating echinoderms. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) When asked to analyze a sample of marine life, you notice the animal has an incomplete digestive tract, stinging cells, and swims by propeling water through itself. You conclude that you are observing a cnidarian polyp. ⊚ ⊚
4)
Nematodes are protected from environmental hazards in part by their cuticle. ⊚ ⊚
5)
true false
Some sponges have spicules made of calcium carbonate. ⊚ ⊚
7)
true false
Segmentation is easy to observe in the cuticle of a nematode. ⊚ ⊚
6)
true false
true false
Flatworms have complete digestive tracts.
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⊚ ⊚
true false
8) If you had found a flattened worm with bilateral symmmetry, you would know that you had found a flatworm. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) At the beach, you find an animal with a two-part shell, a muscular foot, and a radula. You conclude that you have found a mollusk. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) Most mollusks have an open circulatory system that keeps blood in specialized vessels as the fluid flows throughout the body. ⊚ ⊚
true false
11) If you found a worm with obvious segments and a complete digestive tract, you might conclude that it was an annelid. ⊚ ⊚
12)
Arthropoda means "jointed foot." ⊚ ⊚
13)
true false
true false
Sea cucumbers belong to the plant kingdom. ⊚ ⊚
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14)
An internal membrane in chordates that protects the developing fetus is the notochord. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 15) The "Cambrian explosion" refers to the
A) mass extinction of dinosaurs. B) origination of most major phyla of animals. C) development of the first true cell. D) origination of life. E) creation of Earth.
16)
The Mesozoic era lasted from
A) 65 million years ago to 2 million years ago. B) 500 million years ago to 250 million years ago. C) 250 million years ago to 65 million years ago. D) 540 million years ago to 250 million years ago. E) one billion years ago to 500 million years ago.
17) How do scientists believe thatan asteroid impact inthe Yucatán peninsula of Central America caused a worldwide mass extinction?
A) by blocking the sun and inhibiting photosynthesis B) by using up all of the oxygen in the atmosphere C) most of the animals in the world were in the tropics of Central America D) by causing massive floods E) by heating up the planet
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18)
Characteristics shared by primates include
A) flat nails instead of claws. B) grasping hands with opposable thumbs. C) binocular vision and excellent depth perception. D) large brain size in comparison to body size. E) All answers are correct.
19) A skeleton has a foramen magnum tucked beneaththe skull; this indicates that the skeletal remains are of a
A) chimpanzee. B) human. C) lesser ape. D) gorilla. E) All answers are correct.
20)
Hominids include
A) humans. B) orangutans. C) chimpanzees. D) gorillas. E) All answers are correct.
21)
Swinging from one arm to the other with the body dangling below is
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A) bipedalism. B) brachiation. C) "knuckle walking." D) quadrupedalism. E) All answers are correct.
22)
The closest living relatives to humans on the evolutionary tree are
A) gibbons. B) gorillas. C) orangutans. D) homo erectus. E) chimpanzees.
23) A skeleton has a foramen magnum near the rear of the skull; this indicates the skeletal remains may be those of
A) a chimpanzee. B) a gorilla. C) a chimpanzee or a gorilla. D) human.
24) Scientists use DNA to track the migration of humans across the planet. After a group migrates away from their ancestral homeland, any mutations that occur are not mixed with those left in the ancestral population. Therefore, DNA samples taken from ____ would have the most unique mutations, representing the most recent population to migrate to a new area.
A) Africa B) Asia C) Australia D) Europe E) the Americas
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25) Which of the following enabled Homo sapiens to develop complex cultures unlike other members of the Homo genus?
A) the ability to walk upright B) the development of agriculture C) the ability to migrate out of Africa D) changes in skin color E) the ability to use stone tools
26)
An invertebrate is an animal that
A) does not have a backbone. B) has a backbone. C) has a complete digestive tract. D) has an incomplete digestive tract. E) does not have true tissues.
27)
A vertebrate is an animal that
A) has a complete digestive tract. B) does not have a backbone. C) has a backbone. D) has an incomplete digestive tract. E) does not have true tissues.
28)
Which of the following characteristics do all animals share?
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A) They are single-celled eukaryotes. B) They are multicellular prokaryotes. C) They are multicellular eukaryotes. D) They are single-celled prokaryotes. E) No answer is correct.
29)
Which of the following is found in a group other than animals?
A) They have cell walls. B) They have a developmental stage called a blastula. C) They are multicellular eukaryotes. D) They are heterotrophs. E) They secrete and bind to an extracellular matrix.
30) If you were looking at a model of a sphere of animal cells with a hollow, fluid-filled center, you would identify it as a
A) gastrovascular cavity. B) blastula. C) coelom. D) gastrula. E) hydrostatic skeleton.
31) The embryonic germ layer of tissue in animals that develops into the skin and nervous system is the
A) pachyderm. B) endoderm. C) mesoderm. D) protoderm. E) ectoderm.
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32) The embryonic germ layer of tissue in animals that develops into the digestive tract and organs derived from the digestive tract is the
A) pachyderm. B) ectoderm. C) mesoderm. D) endoderm. E) protoderm.
33) If asked to point in a photograph to the part of a fruit fly embryo that develops into the muscles and reproductive system, you would point to the
A) pachyderm. B) ectoderm. C) mesoderm. D) endoderm. E) protoderm.
34) When examining a picture of a jellyfish, you notice that if a mirror is placed in any orientation so that one end of the mirror touches the top of the jellyfish and the other end touches the mouth, the mirror shows the other half of the jellyfish. Therefore, you conclude that the jellyfish has
A) longitudinal symmetry. B) mirrored symmetry. C) bilateral symmetry. D) radial symmetry. E) asymmetry.
35) When examining a picture of a butterfly, you notice that there is one position in which a mirror, running from one end of the butterfly to the other, completes the image as a whole butterfly. You conclude that the butterfly has
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A) radial symmetry. B) bilateral symmetry. C) longitudinal symmetry. D) mirrored symmetry. E) asymmetry.
36)
A fluid-filled body cavity that forms completely within the mesoderm of animals is a
A) coelom. B) blastula. C) pseudocoelom. D) protostome. E) deuterostome.
37)
Which of the following does not have a true coelom?
A) earthworm B) snail C) flatworm D) sea star E) insect
38)
Sponges belong to the phylum
A) Porifera. B) Cnidaria. C) Platyhelminthes. D) Nematoda. E) Annelida.
39)
Corals and jellyfish belong to the phylum
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A) Porifera. B) Cnidaria. C) Platyhelminthes. D) Nematoda. E) Annelida.
40)
Cnidarians are animals found in ______ environments.
A) land-dwelling B) tree-dwelling C) desert D) aquatic E) All answers are correct.
41)
All cnidarians share the ability to do which of the following?
A) photosynthesize B) secrete a thick mantle that sometimes forms a shell C) sting predators and prey D) live on land E) fly
42)
Flukes and tapeworms belong to the phylum
A) Platyhelminthes. B) Cnidaria. C) Porifera. D) Nematoda. E) Annelida.
43)
Platyhelminthes include which of the following organisms?
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A) flukes B) jellyfish C) sponges D) insects E) mollusks
44)
Snails and squids belong to the phylum
A) Cnidaria. B) Porifera. C) Platyhelminthes. D) Mollusca. E) Annelida.
45)
A mollusk with multiplearms for locomotion and grabbing prey is a
A) gastropod. B) cephalopod. C) bivalve. D) chiton. E) fluke.
46) a(n)
A circulatory system that keeps blood confined within vessels after leaving the heart is
A) closed circulatory system. B) gastrovascular cavity. C) open circulatory system. D) incomplete circulatory system. E) complete circulatory system.
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47) A circulatory system in which the heart pumps fluid to tissues throughout the body cavity is a(n)
A) closed circulatory system. B) gastrovascular cavity. C) incomplete circulatory system. D) complete circulatory system. E) open circulatory system.
48)
Leeches and earthworms belong to the phylum
A) Porifera. B) Mollusca. C) Annelida. D) Nematoda. E) Platyhelminthes.
49)
Pinworms and hookworms belong to the phylum
A) Nematoda. B) Annelida. C) Platyhelminthes. D) Porifera. E) Cnidaria.
50) You have discovered a new worm-like animal. You are convinced it is not a nematode because it
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A) has a complete digestive tract. B) is unsegmented. C) has bilateral symmetry. D) has a coelom. E) has tapered ends.
51)
Spiders and scorpions belong to the phylum
A) Cnidaria. B) Echinodermata. C) Annelida. D) Mollusca. E) Arthropoda.
52)
What are thethree major body regions of many arthropods?
A) head, thorax, and abdomen B) head, abdomen, and legs C) head, thorax, and legs D) head, gastrovascular cavity, and thorax E) head, gills, and legs
53)
The most successful phylum with regards to diversity and numbers is
A) Mollusca. B) Nematoda. C) Platyhelminthes. D) Arthropoda. E) Echinodermata.
54)
Sea cucumbers and sea urchins belong to the phylum
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A) Cnidaria. B) Arthropoda. C) Echinodermata. D) Nematoda. E) Mollusca.
55) If asked on an exam to give a property not found in the echinoderms, which would you write on the exam?
A) They exhibit cephalization. B) Adults exhibit radial symmetry. C) Larvae exhibit bilateral symmetry. D) They have a complete digestive tract. E) They have spiny skin.
56)
Which is a characteristic of the phylum Chordata?
A) They do not have true tissues. B) They have a gastrula with only two germ layers. C) They have radial symmetry. D) They have a notochord. E) They have a pseudocoelom.
57)
A tunicate is a(n)
A) invertebrate chordate. B) vertebrate. C) echinoderm. D) amphibian. E) fish.
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58)
A lancelet is a(n)
A) invertebrate chordate. B) vertebrate. C) echinoderm. D) amphibian. E) fish.
59)
A bony or cartilaginous structure that surrounds and protects the brain of chordates is a(n)
A) cranium. B) notochord. C) amnion. D) vertebra. E) jaw.
60)
The function of vertebrae is to
A) protect the nerve chord only. B) provide attachment points for muscles only. C) both protect the nerve cord and provide attachment points for muscles. D) protect the brain only. E) both protect the brain and nerve cord.
61) You are given temperature data showing that a newly discovered animal has the same body temperature as long as the temperature of the room in which the animal is found remains constant. When the room temperature varies, the animal shows a similar variation in its temperature. You are looking at data from a(n)
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A) thermophile. B) mesophile. C) mammal. D) endotherm. E) ectotherm.
62) An animal that maintains its body temperature by using heat generated from its own metabolism is a(n)
A) endotherm. B) ectotherm. C) thermophile. D) mesophile. E) invertebrate.
63)
Which is a characteristic of hagfishes?
A) They have both a cranium and skeleton made of bone. B) They have a cranium made of cartilage. C) They have a cranium made of bone and vertebrae made of cartilage. D) They have a cranium made of bone but lack vertebrae. E) They have vertebrae made of cartilage but lack a cranium.
64)
What was most key in the transition of fish into amphibians?
A) limbs only B) both lungs and limbs C) lungs only D) fins only E) both lungs and fins
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65)
Which of the following is a jawless fish?
A) skate B) shark C) tuna D) salmon E) lamprey
66)
Which of the following is a cartilaginous fish?
A) shark B) tuna C) salmon D) lungfish E) catfish
67)
Which of the following is a lobe-finned fish?
A) stingray B) lamprey C) eel D) lungfish E) shark
68)
Which of the following is an amphibian?
A) turtle B) lizard C) toad D) octopus E) coelacanth
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69) You are helping to prepare images for a textbook when you see a caption saying "first land vertebrates," so you look for pictures of
A) amphibians. B) reptiles. C) tortoises. D) lampreys. E) lungfish.
70)
Which characteristic would exclude an animal from being an amphibian?
A) lungs B) a cartilaginous skeleton C) ectothermic temperature regulation D) "jellylike" eggs E) vertebrae
71)
Which is acharacteristic of reptiles?
A) They have gills. B) They are endotherms. C) They have skeletons composed of cartilage. D) They are ectotherms with lungs. E) They lack a coelom.
72)
Birdsare classified as
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A) reptiles. B) mammals. C) amphibians. D) fishes. E) invertebrate chordates.
73)
Which of the following is not a reptile?
A) bat B) snake C) crocodile D) turtle E) penguin
74)
Which of the following is not classified as a mammal?
A) dolphin B) platypus C) kangaroo D) penguin E) whale
75)
Which of the following is a characteristicof annelids?
A) incomplete digestive tract B) radial symmetry C) cephalization D) psuedocoelom E) All of the answer choices are characteristics of annelids.
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76) Cnidarian bodies are one of two forms. A(n) ______ consists of a sessile stalk with tentacles on one end. A(n) ______ is a free-swimming, bell-shaped, "tentacles-down" body form with a single opening forming the mouth.
A) cephalization; amnion B) amnion; medusa C) amnion; polyp D) polyp; medusa E) medusa; polyp
77) Flatworms are very thin and can exchange materials across their surface. Flatworms lack which of the following anatomical systems?
A) respiratory B) nervous C) digestive D) movement E) excretion
78)
Octopuses and squids are cephalopods and are members of which group?
A) echinoderms B) arthropods C) amphibians D) cnidarians E) mollusks
79) Which of the following is a trait shared by mammals and reptiles that is not shared by the other groups of chordates?
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A) hair B) mammary glands C) an amnion D) legs E) lungs
80)
Which were the first vertebrates to appear on land?
A) amphibians B) nonavian reptiles C) birds D) mammals E) fish
81) In the Investigating Life, the observation that Tiktaalik had both gills and lungs suggests that it could absorb
A) oxygen from the air. B) oxygen from both the air and water. C) oxygen from the water. D) food from the water. E) both food and oxygen from the water.
82) The early amphibian Tiktaalik either crawled or paddled in shallow tropical streams about 380 mya, during the late Devonian period. These shallow waters often became anaerobic. What selective advantage did Tiktaalik have under these conditions?
A) It could lift its head out of the water and breathe air through its gills. B) It could crawl out of the water and walk over to new shallow streams. C) It could swim better than fish. D) It could crawl on shore and feed on birds and reptiles that were on land. E) It could breathe air through its lungs.
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83) Sharp slivers, called _____, are made of silica or calcium carbonate and provide sponges with support.
A) spicules B) pores C) collar cells D) amoebocytes E) No answer is correct.
84) If you were able to remove the _______ from the sponge, you would destroy its filtering system.
A) spicules B) cnidocytes C) collar cells D) amoebocytes E) protein fibers
85)
Which of the following is not an animal?
A) penguin B) mushroom C) shrimp D) sponge E) spider
86) Though animals are very diverse, some features are only found in nonanimals. Which of the following is not a feature of animals?
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A) Animals are unicellular and multicellular eukaryotes. B) Animals consume others to obtain energy and nutrients. C) Animal embryos have a blastula stage. D) All animals arein kingdom Animalia. E) Animals may beinvertebrates or vertebrates.
87) Segmentation occurs in annelids, arthropods, and chordates. What can therefore be concluded about segmentation?
A) Segmentation occurs in all animals. B) Segmentation occurs only in invertebrates. C) Segmentation occurs only in vertebrates. D) Segmentation evolved multiple times. E) The first animal that gave rise to all other animals was segmented.
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Answer Key Test name: ch 17 1) FALSE Animals are all heterotrophs. Please see section 17.1 for more information. 2) TRUE Starfish and sea urchins are echinoderms. Please see section 17.9 for more information. 3) FALSE Swimming cnidarians are usually medusas. Please see section 17.3 for more information. 4) TRUE Nematodes have a protective and durable proteinaceous cuticle on the outside of their bodies. Please see section 17.7 for more information. 5) FALSE Nematodes do not have the obvious segmentation of annelids. Please see section 17.7 for more information. 6) TRUE The greater proportion of sponges have spicules made of silica. Please see section 17.2 for more information. 7) FALSE Flatworms have incomplete digestive tracts with just one opening. Please see section 17.4 for more information. 8) TRUE
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Flatworms have flattened bodies for gas exchange and two mirror-image sides. Please see section 17.4 for more information. 9) TRUE Mollusks called bivalves have a muscular foot, a visceral mass, and a mantle that secretes a two-part, hinged shell. Please see section 17.5 for more information. 10) FALSE Most mollusks have an open circulatory system in which blood flows throughout the body cavity. Please see section 17.5 for more information. 11) TRUE Annelids have closed circulatory systems and complete digestive systems. Please see section 17.6 for more information. 12) TRUE "Arthro" means "jointed," and "pod" means "foot." Please see section 17.8 for more information. 13) FALSE Sea cucumbers are echinoderms. Please see section 17.9 for more information. 14) FALSE The notochord protects the spinal cord. Please see section 17.10 for more information. 15) B During the Cambrian explosion, a large number of animal phyla appeared very quickly, in a geological sense, not all of which are extant today. Please see section 17.1 for more information.
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16) C The Mesozoic was the time of the evolution and dominance of the dinosaurs. Please see section 17.1 and figure 17.1 for more information. 17) A A large amount of dust was placed in the atmosphere by the impact of the asteroid which ended the Mesozoic. Please see sections 17.1 and 17.11 for more information. 18) E The general characteristics of primates are ones which we recognize in ourselves. Please see section 17.12 for more information. 19) B The position of the foramen magnum in the human skull points to our bipedalism. Please see section 17.12 and figure 17.32 for more information. 20) E Hominids are the so-called "great apes." Please see section 17.12 for more information. 21) B Compared to bipedalism, brachiation is a more ancestral trait among primates. Please see section 17.12 for more information. 22) E Based on morphology and molecular evidence, chimps and human are very closely related. Please see section 17.12 for more information. 23) C A foramen magnum near the rear of the skull shows that the remains come from a primate which does not walk upright on two legs. Please see section 17.12 for more information. Version 1
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24) E Please see section 17.12 and figure 17.36 for more information 25) B Please see section 17.12 for more information on the role agriculture played on developing complex cultures. 26) A Invertebrates can have spinal cords, but not vertebral columns. Please see section 17.1 for more information. 27) C Vertebrates have vertebral columns to support their spinal cords. Please see section 17.1 for more information. 28) C All animals have many cells and have nuclei with nuclear membranes around them. Please see section 17.1 for more information. 29) A Animal cells are usually surrounded by soft material, not a hard cell wall. Please see section 17.1 for more information. 30) B A blastula is a hollow sphere of embryonic cells. Please see section 17.1 for more information. 31) E The cells which give rise to the skin and parts of the nervous system begin on the outside of the embryo. Please see section 17.1 for more information. 32) D
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It is no great surprise that the cells giving rise to the centrally-located digestive tract are themselves centrally located in the embryo. Please see section 17.1 for more information. 33) C Mesoderm is the middle layer in an animal embryo. Please see section 17.1 for more information. 34) D Radial symmetry means that the organism is divided into many similar parts arranged in a circle. Please see section 17.1 for more information. 35) B Bilateral symmetry means that an animal has two sides with the same parts arranged in mirror-image fashion. Please see section 17.1 for more information. 36) A Whether a hollow body cavity is present in an animal and the exact nature of any such cavity is very important for classifying animals. Please see section 17.1 for more information. 37) C Please see more about body cavities in section 17.1. 38) A "Porifera" means "pore bearer," referring to the pores in the structure of a sponge. Please see section 17.2 for more information. 39) B Cnidarians have radial symmetry and use stinging cells to capture prey. Please see section 17.3 for more information. 40) D
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All cnidarians live in the water, whether it is salt or fresh. Please see section 17.3 for more information. 41) C The stinging cells of cnidarians are called cnidocytes. Please see section 17.3 for more information. 42) A Platyhelminthes contains many important parasites. Please see section 17.4 for more information. 43) A Flukes, such as liver flukes, are important parasites. Please see section 17.4 for more information. 44) D Mollusks all share a large, muscular foot. Please see section 17.5 for more information. 45) B "Cephalopod" literally means "head foot." Please see section 17.5 for more information. 46) A Mollusks, annelids, and mammals are three kinds of animals with closed circulatory systems. Please see section 17.5 for more information. 47) E The organs of arthropods are bathed by fluid from an open circulatory system. Please see section 17.8 for more information. 48) C Annelids are segmented worms. Please see section 17.6 for more information.
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49) A Nematodes take a very wide range of sizes, and many are parasites. Please see section 17.7 for more information. 50) D Nematodes have a pseudocoelom, rather than a true, mesoderm-lined coelom. Please see section 17.7 for more information. 51) E The arthropods, based on numbers of individuals and numbers of species, are the most successful group of animals. Please see section 17.8 for more information. 52) A Arthropod bodies have three major regions, just like mammalian ones. Please see section 17.8 for more information. 53) D There are estimated to be over one million species of arthropods. Please see section 17.8 for more information. 54) C Echinoderms have bumpy skin which gives them their Latin name. Please see section 17.9 for more information. 55) A Echinoderms do not have any obvious head. Please see section 17.9 for more information. 56) D Chordates, even the invertebrate ones, all have a notochord when embryos to support and protect the dorsal nerve cord. Please see section 17.10 for more information.
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57) A Tunicates do not have bones, but they do have the four characteristics of chordates shared with vertebrates. Please see section 17.11 for more information. 58) A Lancelets do not have backbones, but they share key characteristics with vertebrates. Please see section 17.11 for more information. 59) A The cranium protects the advanced brain of a vertebrate. Please see section 17.10 for more information. 60) C Vertebrae both help create the support needed by the vertebrate body and protect the delicate spinal cord. Please see section 17.10 for more information. 61) E Chordates vary in terms of how their bodies do or do not match the external temperature. Please see section 17.10 for more information. 62) A Endotherms set their own body temperatures. Please see section 17.10 for more information. 63) B Hagfish have a cranium made of cartilage but do not have vertebrae. Please see section 17.11 for more information. 64) B
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Lungs are needed for efficient gas exchange, especially once animals left standing water even on a part-time basis, and limbs are usually needed on land for efficient transportation. Please see section 17.11 for more information. 65) E Lampreys have a ring of teeth built to form a sucker for their mouth. Please see section 17.11 for more information. 66) A Sharks are cartilaginous fishes. Please see section 17.11 for more information. 67) D Lobe-finned fishes have thicker fins which show signs of developing the bones of the tetrapod limb. Please see section 17.11 for more information. 68) C Even though toads live in some of the drier places where amphibians are found, they must return to the water to reproduce. Please see section 17.11 for more information. 69) A One sign that amphibians were early land animals is the fact that they must return to the water to breed. Please see section 17.11 for more information. 70) B Amphibians have a bony skeleton. Please see section 17.11 for more information. 71) D
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Reptiles take their body temperature from their surroundings. Please see section 17.11 for more information. 72) A Though they at first seem very different, the birds fit into the reptiles. Please see section 17.11 for more information. 73) A Bats are mammals. Please see section 17.11 for more information. 74) D Penguins are birds. Please see section 17.11 for more information. 75) C Annelids have some concentration of sensory organs and their nervous system at the mouth end of their bodies. Please see section 17.6 for more information. 76) D Polyps have the digestive opening facing up, while medusas have it facing down. Please see section 17.3 for more information. 77) A Flatworms do not need respiratory systems since their flat bodies have enough external surface area for gas exchange. Please see section 17.4 for more information. 78) E Cephalopods have a distinct head with large, sophisticated eyes. Please see section 17.5 for more information. 79) C
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The amnion is a critical membrane in the amniote egg, which was key for the tetrapod conquest of land. Please see section 17.10 for more information. 80) A Amphibians were the first land vertebrates, and they still must return to fresh water to reproduce. Please see section 17.11 for more information. 81) B Tiktaalik was truly transitional, able to obtain oxygen on land or in the water. Please see section 17.11 for more information. 82) E Having lungs and gills allowed for oxygen to be obtained under a wider range of settings. Please see section 17.11 for more information. 83) A Spicules form the skeleton of a sponge. Please see section 17.2 for more information. 84) C The beating flagella on the collar cells of sponges create a water current through the sponge. Please see section 17.2 for more information. 85) B Mushrooms are the fruiting bodies of fungi. Please see section 17.1 for more information. 86) A There are no unicellular animals. Please see section 17.1 for more information. 87) D Please see section 17.1 for more information.
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) When exponential growth is plotted over time an S-shaped curve emerges. ⊚ ⊚
2)
true false
When exponential growth is plotted over time a J-shaped curve emerges. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) The maximum number of individuals of a population that a habitat can support indefinitely is its carrying capacity. ⊚ ⊚
4)
true false
The overall human population growth rate is steadily increasing each year. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) Conditions whose growth-limiting effects increase as a population grows are densityindependent factors. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) A density-independent factor is one that limits population without regard to the number of individuals per area. ⊚ ⊚
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7) If a species of fruit fly needs a minimum amount of leaf surface area for mating, once there are enough fruit flies to occupy all mating spaces, the population is at carrying capacity. ⊚ ⊚
true false
8) If a species of guppy lives in a stream where there is more food than they need, they are at carrying capacity. ⊚ ⊚
true false
9) If there are 10 tortoises on a 2 hectare island, the population density is 5 tortoises per hectare. ⊚ ⊚
10) 4.
If a scientist sees 20 finches in 3 trees where they nest at 5 p.m., the population density is
⊚ ⊚
11)
true false
Water accounts for about half of the ecological footprint. ⊚ ⊚
12)
true false
true false
Density-independent factors are abiotic. ⊚ ⊚
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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 13) A group of organisms of one species occupying a geographical location at the same time is a
A) population. B) community. C) peer group. D) flock. E) herd.
14)
The physical location where an organism lives is termed its
A) home boundary. B) range. C) habitat. D) community. E) ecosystem.
15)
All of the organisms in a given location or area are termed a
A) peer group. B) flock. C) community. D) population. E) herd.
16)
The study of the relationships among organisms and the environment is
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A) ethology. B) habitology. C) ergonomics. D) ecology. E) geology.
17)
The number of individuals of a species per unit area or volume of habitat is
A) carrying capacity. B) population density. C) a community. D) population distribution. E) population dynamics.
18)
The number of new individuals produced per unit time in a population is its
A) immigration rate. B) emigration rate. C) death rate. D) birth rate. E) expatriation rate.
19)
The number of individuals that die in a population per unit time is its
A) immigration rate. B) emigration rate. C) death rate. D) birth rate. E) expatriation rate.
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20) A population age structure diagram depicting an equal number of individuals in each age group suggests that the population is
A) stable. B) growing. C) declining. D) facing extinction. E) very small.
21)
In a survivorship curve, a type I species, like a human or elephant, is a species that has
A) an equal probability of dying at any age. B) the highest probability of dying as it reaches its maximum life span. C) a strong possibility of becoming extinct in a relatively short period of time. D) an extremely short life span. E) the highest probability of dying at a very young age.
22)
In a survivorship curve, a type II species, like a song bird, is a species that has
A) an equal probability of dying at any age. B) a strong possibility of becoming extinct in a relatively short period of time. C) the highest probability of dying as it reaches its maximum life span. D) an extremely short life span. E) the highest probability of dying at a very young age.
23) has
In a survivorship curve, a type III species, like most insects and plants, is a species that
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A) an equal probability of dying at any age. B) a strong possibility of becoming extinct in a relatively short period of time. C) the highest probability of dying at a very young age. D) the highest probability of dying as it reaches its maximum life span. E) an extremely long life span.
24) The maximum number of individuals that a habitat can support indefinitely is the habitat's
A) density dispersion. B) carrying capacity. C) growth capacity. D) environmental load. E) dispersion capacity.
25)
In regards to a species' life history, opportunistic species
A) are long-lived. B) provide extensive care for their offspring. C) are limited primarily by carrying capacity. D) reproduce later in life. E) produce many offspring.
26)
In regards to a species' life history, equilibriumspecies
A) have only a few offspring. B) are short-lived. C) reproduce at an early age. D) have a large number of offspring. E) give very little care to their offspring.
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27) in
A human population with a large percentage of pre-reproductive individuals is common
A) less-developed countries and will most likely increase in size. B) more-developed countries and will most likely increase in size. C) less-developed countries and will most likely decrease in size. D) more-developed countries and will most likely decrease in size. E) more-developed countries and will not effect the population size.
28) in
A human population with a large percentage of post-reproductive individuals is common
A) less-developed countries and will most likely increase in size. B) more-developed countries and will most likely increase in size. C) more-developed countries and will most likely decrease in size. D) less-developed countries and will most likely decrease in size. E) No answer is correct.
29)
Predation of deer by wolves is an example of a
A) density-independent limit. B) density-codependent limit. C) density-dependent limit. D) death-dependent factor. E) death-independent factor.
30)
An example of a density-independent factor that limits a population's growth is
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A) insects eating your tomato plants. B) your tomato plants competing for water. C) a fungus infecting your tomato plants. D) frost killing all of your tomato plants. E) All answers are correct.
31) In 2010, India had a population of 1,170,000,000, a birth rate of 0.027, and a death rate of 0.013. What was the growth rate of India's population?
A) 0.027 B) 0.013 C) 0.014 D) 0.040 E) 0.001
32) In 2010, India had a population of 1,170,000,000, a birth rate of 0.027, and a death rate of 0.013. Approximately how much did the Indian population grow in 2010?
A) 170,000,000 B) 1,700,000 C) 170,000 D) 17,000,000 E) 17,000
33)
Which best describes the link between survivorship curves and opportunistic species?
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A) Opportunistic species are limited by density-dependent factors and have few offspring. B) Opportunistic species are limited by density-independent factors and have few offspring. C) Opportunistic species are limited by density-independent factors and have many offspring. D) Opportunistic species are limited by density-dependent factors and have many offspring. E) No answer is correct.
34) Researchers studying guppies in Trinidad found that guppies in streams with high predation reproduced earlier and more frequently. Which of the following is most important in driving the guppies to change their life history in face of predation?
A) The guppies are an equilibrium species. B) The guppies are an opportunistic species. C) Density-independent factors limit the guppy populations. D) Density-dependent factors limit the guppy populations. E) Sexual selection affects the guppy populations.
35) Why have human growth rates increased the most in developing countries in the past 50 years?
A) Death rates have fallen more slowlythan birth rates. B) Death rates have gone up faster than birth rates. C) Death rates have fallen faster than birth rates. D) Death rates have gone up more slowlythan birth rates. E) Death rates have remained the same and birth rates have decreased.
36) A country's ecological footprint can be calculated by multiplying its population size by the footprint of each individual. Why are some ecologists concerned about the ecological footprint of a country like India?
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A) Its population is increasing. B) The birth rate is decreasing. C) Its land availability is increasing. D) Its population and land area are increasing. E) Its birth rate is decreasing and its land area is increasing.
37) Which of the following is not a characteristic for an organism with an opportunistic life history?
A) High reproduction rate B) Many offspring C) Each offspring receives extensive parental care D) Low survival rate for juveniles E) Early reproduction maturity
38) Based on the information provided, which of these would not be considered a species with an equilibrium life history?
A) Elephants have 1 calf every 3 years. B) Dolphins provide extensive care for their offspring. C) Humans have a late maturity age of approximately 14 years. D) Spiders lay egg sacks and do not return to care for their young. E) Bears exhibit a type I survivorship curve.
39)
Ecologists study
A) prokaryotes only. B) eukaryotes only. C) interactions between all organisms. D) plants and animals only. E) animals only.
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40)
Which falls outside the study of ecology?
A) spread of disease B) predator-prey relationships C) invasive plant species D) bonds of DNA E) land management
41)
Which is an example of an aquatic ecosystem?
A) fishes, snails, crabs, water, and salinity B) fishes, snails,and crabs only C) both water and salinity D) water only E) salinity only
42)
Which of the following is an example of an aquaticcommunity?
A) fishes, snails, crabs, water, and salinity B) fishes, snails, and crabs only C) both water and salinity D) water only E) salinity only
43) Oysters and many other mollusks produce many offspring of which only a few survive to adulthood and then have little risk of predation with their strong adult shells. Oysters are an example of an organism with a type ______ survivorship curve.
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A) 0 B) I C) II D) III E) IV
44) Hydra, a type of cnidarian, have equal survival rates through life because they are equally fit at all stages. Hydra are an example of an organism with a type ______ survivorship curve.
A) 0 B) I C) II D) III E) IV
45)
Which level includes all the other levels?
A) organisms B) population C) ecosystem D) biosphere E) community
46)
The _____ measures the amount of land needed to support a country's overall lifestyle.
A) ecological footprint B) carrying capacity C) life table D) survivorship curve E) age structure
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47) In the Investigating Life, researchers discovered that Mollies produced the most offspring in
A) light, nontoxic water. B) light, toxic water. C) dark, nontoxic water. D) dark, toxic water. E) All answer choices are correct since the amount of light or toxins didn't affect the number of offspring.
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions. 48)
Source: Data from U.S. Census Bureau, International Data Base
48.1)
Based upon the age structure diagram,you expect the Uganda population to
A) grow because all of the age classes have roughly equal proportions of people. B) grow then shrink because many of the people will be entering the postreproductive years. C) grow because a large proportion of the population are in the youngest age classes. D) grow then decline because a lower proportion of individuals are in prereproductive age classes. E) No answer is correct.
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48.2)
Based upon the age structure diagram,you expect the Japanese population to
A) grow because all of the age classes have roughly equal proportions of people. B) grow then shrink because many of the people will be entering the post-reproductive years. C) grow because a large proportion of the population will be entering the reproductive years. D) grow then decline because a lower proportion of individuals are in prereproductive age classes. E) No answer is correct.
48.3)
Based upon the age structure diagram,you expect the American population to
A) grow because all of the age classes have roughly equal proportions of people. B) grow then shrink because many of the people will be entering the post-reproductive years. C) grow because a large proportion of the population will be entering the reproductive years. D) grow then decline because a lower proportion of individuals are in prereproductive age classes. E) No answer is correct.
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Answer Key Test name: ch 18 1) FALSE An S-shaped curve is characteristic of logistic growth. Please see section 18.5 for more information. 2) TRUE Exponential growth continues to increase very rapidly. Please see section 18.5 for more information. 3) TRUE Carrying capacity is determined by the availability of key resources such as space and energy. Please see section 18.5 for more information. 4) FALSE While the human population is increasing, the overall growth rate is declining. Please see section 18.6 for more information. 5) FALSE Density-dependent factors increase in importance as population density increases. Please see section 18.5 for more information. 6) TRUE Examples of density-independent factors include fires and floods. Please see section 18.5 for more information. 7) TRUE Carrying capacity is reached when there are no more unused resources available. Please see section 18.5 for more information. 8) FALSE
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Carrying capacity is reached when there are no more unused resources available. Please see section 18.5 for more information. 9) TRUE Population density is measured as number of individuals per area. Please see section 18.2 for more information. 10) FALSE Population density is measured as number of individuals per area. Please see section 18.2 for more information. 11) FALSE Energy accounts for about half of the ecological footprint. See section 18.6 for more information. 12) TRUE Examples of density-independent factors are usually related to natural disasters. See section 18.5 for more information. 13) A A population is one interbreeding group of organisms from a species. Please see section 18.1 for more information. 14) C Animals are usually well adapted to their particular habitat. Please see section 18.2 for more information. 15) C A community is composed of populations from a number of different species. Please see section 18.1 for more information. 16) D Ecology looks at both living and non-living parts of an environment. Please see section 18.1 for more information.
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17) B Changes in population density can have either negative or positive effects on population size. Please see section 18.2 for more information. 18) D When the birth rate exceeds the death rate, population grows. Please see section 18.3 for more information. 19) C When the death rate exceeds the birth rate, population shrinks. Please see section 18.3 for more information. 20) A Equal-sized cohorts for different ages in a population means that population size should remain the same over time. Please see section 18.3 for more information. 21) B Type I species tend to live for their full life span, having few or no predators. Please see section 18.3 for more information. 22) A Type II species can die at any age, having many predators. Please see section 18.3 for more information. 23) C Type III species tend to correct for high mortality among their young offspring by producing many, many new organisms each generation. Please see section 18.3 for more information. 24) B Carrying capacity depends on critical resource availability. Please see section 18.5 for more information.
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25) E Opportunistic species have many offspring which can take advantage of favorable conditions, if they exist, but which perish in large numbers if that is not the case. Please see section 18.4 for more information. 26) A Equilibrium species have fewer offspring since they need fewer to maintain population size. Please see section 18.4 for more information. 27) A More prereproductive humans will eventually lead to more people of reproductive age, and thus increases in population. Please see section 18.6 for more information. 28) C Having a population skewed towards older individuals is common in many developed countries. Please see section 18.6 for more information. 29) C For wolves to effectively prey upon deer, there must be sufficient numbers of prey to support the wolf population. Please see section 18.5 for more information. 30) D Since the occurrence of frost depends on the weather and not on the number of plants, it is density-independent. Please see section 18.5 for more information. 31) C Population growth rate is the excess of the birth rate over the death rate. Please see sections 18.3 and 18.6 for more information. 32) D
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The population increase is simply the birth rate minus the death rate, multiplied by the original population size. Please see sections 18.3 and 18.6 for more information. 33) C Opportunistic species have many less-well-provided-for offspring and so are not subject to density-dependent factors. Please see section 18.5 for more information. 34) B Having many offspring implies opportunism. Please see section 18.5 for more information. 35) C Contrary to popular misconceptions, the recent increases in world population have been due to longer life spans rather than high birth rates. Please see section 18.6 for more information. 36) A Please see section 18.6 for more information. 37) C In opportunistic life history, the offspring receive little parental care. Please see section 18.4 for more information. 38) D Among other factors, equilibrium species are those that care for their young for an extensive period after birth. Please see section 18.4. 39) C Ecology can study any organisms, though a particular study is usually limited to a few. Please see section 18.1 for more information. 40) D
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Ecology studies interactions, not biochemical structure, though such structures might explain what ecologists find. Please see section 18.1 for more information. 41) A Ecosystems include living and non-living factors. Please see section 18.1 for more information. 42) B A community consists of all the populations of organisms interacting in an area. Please see section 18.1 for more information. 43) D Type III survivorship curves show high early mortality and low mortality later in life. Please see section 18.3 for more information. 44) C When death is distributed uniformly across the lifespan in a population, that is a type II survivorship curve. Please see section 18.3 for more information. 45) D To understand the levels studied by ecologist see section 18.1. 46) A See section 18.6 for more information on ecological footprints. 47) A See the Investigating Life section for more information. 48) Section Break 48.1) C
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More people in the youngest classes means more babies when these groups reach reproductive age. Please see sections 18.3 and 18.6 for more information. 48.2) E More people coming to reproductive age means more babies for the next generation, but fewer people coming to a reproductive age means less babies in the future. Please see sections 18.3 and 18.6 for more information. 48.3) E Constant numbers in each age cohort leads to a stable population. Please see sections 18.3 and 18.6 for more information.
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) The term abiotic means nonliving. ⊚ ⊚
true false
2) The reliance of a plant on one type of insect for pollination and that insect having only the nectar of that plant as its food source is an example of coevolution. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) Parasitism is a symbiotic relationship in which neither member of the relationship benefits. ⊚ ⊚
true false
4) An example of a keystone species is a root-associated fungus that conifer trees need in order to survive and also supplies food for rodents. ⊚ ⊚
true false
5) If you found a durable organism growing on bare rock and breaking it down into small particles of soil, it would be considered a pioneer species. ⊚ ⊚
true false
6) The species that appear in a climax community usually are short-lived, early-maturing, r-selected species that are strong competitors in a stable environment. ⊚ ⊚
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7)
Energy can bedepletedwithin an ecosystem. ⊚ ⊚
true false
8) If asked to put an arrow in a diagram showing energy flow through an ecosystem, you would use a single-headed arrow. ⊚ ⊚
9)
A network of interconnected food chains is a food web. ⊚ ⊚
10)
true false
Streams lead torivers that carry water and sediment toward the ocean or an interior basin. ⊚ ⊚
13)
true false
Examples of terrestrial biomes are grasslands, forests, lakes, and deserts. ⊚ ⊚
12)
true false
Raw sewage affects nutrient flow through an ecosystem more than energy flow. ⊚ ⊚
11)
true false
true false
Species richness is an important measure of diversity in an ecosystem.
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⊚ ⊚
14)
true false
Species evenness is an important measure of diversity in an ecosystem. ⊚ ⊚
true false
15) A flowering plant and a bird which occasionally perches on its branches are not likely to coevolve. ⊚ ⊚
true false
16) Competitive exclusion says that two species trying to occupy the same niche in the same ecosystem will not be able to do so indefinitely, one species ultimately outcompeting the other. ⊚ ⊚
17)
true false
The chaparral has cool summers with constant rainfall. ⊚ ⊚
true false
18) A pyramid of energy represents each trophic level as a block whose size is directly proportional to the energy used in that level. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 19) A species that is so important to its community that its removal can dismantle a food webis termed a
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A) capstone species. B) flagstone species. C) cobblestone species. D) cornerstone species. E) keystone species.
20)
All the organisms plus the nonliving components of a defined area is a(n)
A) population. B) community. C) ecosystem. D) habitat. E) niche.
21)
Abiotic components of an ecosystem include
A) living components only. B) both nonliving and living components. C) only plant life. D) nonliving components only. E) only animal life.
22) A genetic change in one species that selects for a subsequent change in a different species is termed
A) coevolution. B) genetic dispersion. C) gene dynamics. D) competitive exclusion. E) evolutionary dynamics.
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23)
The physical place where members of a population live is termed a
A) competitive zone. B) community. C) habitat. D) symbiont. E) niche.
24) The total of all the resources, both biotic and abiotic, that a species exploits for its survival, growth, and reproduction is its
A) competitive zone. B) habitat. C) food web. D) niche. E) biosphere.
25)
When two or more species vie for the same limited resource, ______ occurs.
A) succession B) symbiosis C) coevolution D) stotting E) competition
26) In ______, multiple species use the same resource in a slightly different way or at a different time.
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A) symbiotic inclusion B) resource partitioning C) mutualism D) intraspecific competition E) No answer is correct.
27)
A relationship between different species in which one species lives in or on another is
A) resource partitioning. B) coevolution. C) symbiosis. D) predation. E) niche sharing.
28)
The ______ states that two species cannot coexist indefinitely in the same niche.
A) endosymbiotic theory B) zonal exclusion theory C) co-inclusion principle D) second law of thermodynamics E) competitive exclusion principle
29) You observe a situation in which a worm and a species of mustard grow better when both are present in an ecosystem, helping one another exploit resources. You are observing
A) predation. B) parasitism. C) mutualism. D) commensalism. E) intraspecific competition.
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30) A type of symbiosis in which one member of the relationship benefits with no effect on the other is
A) predation. B) mutualism. C) commensalism. D) parasitism. E) intraspecific competition.
31) When a tapeworm steals nutrients from the gut of a mammalian host, that symbiosis is called
A) predation. B) mutualism. C) commensalism. D) parasitism. E) intraspecific competition.
32)
Which of the following is not a type of symbiosis?
A) parasitism B) mutualism C) commensalism D) predation E) No answer is correct.
33) If a species makes up a small portion of the community by weight, yet exerts a disproportionate influence on community diversity, it is recognized as a _______ species.
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A) keystone B) cornerstone C) capstone D) flagstone E) No answer is correct.
34) A gradual change in a community's species composition, occurring as competing organisms respond to and modify the physical environment, is referred to as ecological
A) completion. B) conversion. C) climax. D) magnification. E) succession.
35)
In ecology, a _____ community is one that remains fairly constant over time.
A) punctuated B) climax C) keystone D) primary E) tertiary
36) The type of succession that occurs in an area where no community previously existed is ______ succession.
A) keystone B) tertiary C) secondary D) climax E) primary
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37)
Species that are the first to colonize an area are termed _____ species.
A) keystone B) primary C) tertiary D) pioneer E) secondary
38)
A food chain is a series of organisms that
A) transfer energy through feeding relationships. B) compete for the same food source. C) exhibit mutualism with each other. D) exhibit parasitism with each other. E) succeed one another as a climax community develops.
39) An organism's ______ is its position in the food chain relative to the ecosystem's energy source.
A) habitat B) niche C) climax level D) trophic level E) keystone level
40) An organism that can use solar energy and inorganic substances to produce all the organic material it requires is a(n)
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A) primary producer and heterotroph. B) heterotroph. C) autotroph and primary producer. D) autotroph. E) primary producer.
41) In the pyramid of energy, organisms that obtain their energy from only eating primary producers are called
A) secondary producers. B) tertiary consumers. C) secondary consumers. D) tertiary producers. E) primary consumers.
42)
Decomposers
A) obtain nutrients from detritus. B) return organic molecules to their inorganic form. C) include bacteria. D) include fungi. E) All answers are correct.
43)
The remaining energy in the producer level that is available for consumers is the
A) net primary consumption. B) gross primary production. C) gross primary consumption. D) net primary production. E) net energy fixation.
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44)
"Net primary productivity" is the amount of energy
A) used in metabolism by producers. B) given off as heat by producers. C) trapped by the autotrophs of an ecosystem. D) available for consumers. E) used in metabolism by consumers.
45)
Which ecosystem would have the highest net primary production?
A) desert B) tropical rain forest C) temperate forest D) boreal forest E) tundra
46) As an overall average, about ______ of the energy at one trophic level is generally available to the next highest rank in the food chain.
A) 2% B) 10% C) 4% D) 7% E) 20%
47)
Biomagnification occurs with chemicals that
A) dissolve in only acidic solvents. B) dissolve in water. C) are not readily degraded and dissolve in fat. D) are not readily degraded and dissolve in water. E) dissolve in only basic solvents.
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48)
Which is not an important biogeochemical cycle on Earth?
A) ATP cycle B) water cycle C) carbon cycle D) phosphorus cycle E) nitrogen cycle
49)
In the water cycle, animals return water to the environment by
A) both transpiration and excretion. B) excretion only. C) transpiration only. D) both respiration and excretion.
50) If you were to shine a lightbulb on a puddle, and the water in the puddle disappeared, you would say that you had added energy to the puddle and had seen
A) sublimation. B) condensation. C) convection. D) evaporation. E) All answers are correct.
51)
Carbon returns to the atmosphere
A) as carbon dioxide. B) from respiration of plants. C) by the burning of fossil fuels. D) from respiration of animals. E) All answers are correct.
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52)
If you gave N
2 to a culture of nitrogen-fixing bacteria, you would expect to detect
A) nitrates. B) ammonium ions. C) nitrites. D) carbon dioxide. E) methane.
53)
______ bacteria return nitrogen to the atmosphere by converting nitrates to N
2.
A) Nitrogen-fixing B) In nitrification, C) In denitrification, D) In transpiration, E) In respiration,
54) If a person takes an antibiotic for a bacterial infection, this can reduce the amount of bacteria in their normal microbiota and allow yeast in their genitourinary tract to flourish, which could result in a yeast infection. This is an example of
A) predation. B) symbiosis. C) the competitive exclusion principle. D) the co-inclusion principle. E) endosymbiosis.
55) Based on the 10% rule, if there are 10,000 calories of net primary productivity in an ecosystem, how much energy will be generally available to a primary consumer?
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A) 100 calories B) 10,000 calories C) 10 calories D) 1,000 calories E) 1 calorie
56) Based on the 10% rule, if there are 10,000 calories of net primary productivity in an ecosystem, how much energy will be generally available to a secondary consumer?
A) 1,000 calories B) 100 calories C) 10,000 calories D) 10 calories E) 1 calorie
57) Mycorrhizal fungi contribute to nutrient cycles by aiding in the absorption of minerals, which they share with plants in return for carbohydrates. This shows that nutrient cycling can be an example of
A) commensalism. B) parasitism. C) mutualism. D) predation. E) herbivory.
58)
The concentration of the pesticide DDT is likelyhighest in which organism?
A) a minnow B) a mosquito larva C) a seagull D) plankton E) algae
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59)
The concentration of the pesticide DDT is likelylowest in which organism?
A) a seagull B) a minnow C) a mosquito larvae D) algae E) plankton
60) Some scientists predict that as atmospheric carbon dioxide levels increase, plant growth will also increase. What is the best explanation for this hypothesis?
A) Plants consume carbon dioxide from the atmosphere during photosynthesis. B) Plants release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere during photosynthesis. C) Plants consume carbon dioxide from the atmosphere during respiration. D) Plants release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere during respiration. E) No answer is correct.
61) Some scientists predict that as atmospheric carbon dioxide levels increase, the pH of the oceans will drop, threatening coral and organisms with shells. What is the best explanation for this hypothesis?
A) Carbon dioxide combines with water to form a base. B) Carbon dioxide combines with water to form an acid. C) As the pH of the ocean decreases, more carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere. D) As the pH of the ocean increases, more carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere. E) As the oceans warm, more water is evaporated, lowering the pH of the remaining water.
62) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria in the roots of soybeans help provide a source of nitrogen to the plants, and in exchange, the bacteriaobtain food from the plants. Which type of interaction is this? Version 1
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A) mutualism B) commensalism C) parasitism D) predation E) herbivory
63)
The major types of ecosystems are termed
A) habitats. B) niches. C) biospheres. D) terrestrial zones. E) biomes.
64)
Which of the following is NOT an abiotic component or condition of an ecosystem?
A) water B) archaea C) rock D) salinity E) temperature
65)
On Earth, solar energy is most intense at
A) the South Pole. B) the North Pole. C) 60°N latitude. D) the equator. E) 60°S latitude.
66)
The different seasons of the year are caused by the
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A) tilt of the Earth's axis as theEarth travels around the Sun. B) rotation of the Earth around the Sun. C) rotation of the Earth on its axis. D) rotation of the moon around the Earth. E) gravitational pull of the moon as it travels around the Earth.
67)
The Earth has a constant tilt of ______ on its axis from its plane of orbit.
A) 12.5 degrees B) 23.5 degrees C) 30 degrees D) 9 degrees E) 5.5 degrees
68)
Which item helps compose a living thing rather then being a major component of soil?
A) rock fragments B) organic matter C) microbes D) bacteria E) chloroplasts
69)
Which of the following is not a major terrestrial biome of Earth?
A) the temperate grasslands B) the tundra C) the taiga D) the Antarctic E) the tropical rainforest
70)
Tropical rain forest soils are usually
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A) nutrient-rich. B) low in organic matter. C) nutrient-poor and low in organic matter. D) nutrient-rich and low in organic matter. E) nutrient-poor.
71)
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the tropical rain forest biome?
A) warm climate B) nutrient-rich soil C) a year-round growing season for plants D) a tremendous diversity of animal life E) a locationnear the equator
72)
Trees that lose only a few leaves at a time are
A) deciduous trees. B) carnivorous trees. C) maple trees. D) hickory trees. E) coniferous trees.
73)
The taiga
A) consists of mostly coniferous trees. B) has nutrient-rich soil. C) has a long growing season. D) is warm and dry. E) consists of mosses and lichens.
74)
A grassland biome
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A) consists of mostly coniferous trees. B) has nutrient-rich soil. C) has many self-pollinating flowering plants. D) is warm and dry. E) consists of mosses and lichens.
75)
The yearly rainfall of a desert biome is
A) 150 to 200 centimeters per year. B) more than 300 centimeters per year. C) less than 20 centimeters per year. D) more than 200centimeters per year. E) 50 to 100centimeters per year.
76)
Water covers about ______ of the Earth's surface.
A) 33% B) 40% C) 50% D) 70% E) 80%
77)
Which of the following eats free-floating photosynthetic organisms found in lakes?
A) phytoplankton B) green algae C) zooplankton D) cyanobacteria E) diatom
78)
The area where the fresh water of a river meets the salt water of theocean is a(n)
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A) intertidal zone. B) continental shelf. C) hydrothermal vent. D) open ocean. E) estuary.
79)
Along coastlines, the area between high tide and low tide is the
A) open ocean. B) hydrothermal vent. C) intertidal zone. D) estuary. E) continental shelf.
80)
At the equator, the Earth receives the
A) maximum amount of solar radiation per unit area. B) minimum amount of solar radiation per unit area. C) maximum amount of solar radiation only over the ocean. D) maximum amount of solar radiation only over the land mass. E) None of the answer choices are correct.
81) As temperatures in an African savanna increase and rainfall decreases, it would most likely change into
A) taiga. B) desert. C) tropical rainforest. D) temperate forest. E) tundra.
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82) Scientists observed that over the past 40 years, marmots, a type of ground squirrel, are located at increasing elevations on mountains. What is the best explanation for this observation?
A) The marmots are adapting to the cold temperatures. B) Other species are competing with the marmots for their normal habitat. C) More snow and rain is falling at the top of the mountains. D) It is becoming colder at the top of the mountains. E) It is becoming warmer at the top of the mountains.
83)
As temperatures in the Arctic rise, which of the following changes may occur?
A) Tundra will be replaced by taiga. B) Taiga will be replaced by tundra. C) Temperate forest will be replaced by taiga. D) Tundra will be replaced by desert. E) Taiga will be replaced by temperate rain forest.
84) If you went diving in a freshwater lake, you would see very few rooted aquatic plants after a certain depth. What limits plant growth in deeper water?
A) cold temperatures B) a lack of nutrients C) a lack of light D) too many herbivores E) a lack of oxygen
85) What is a challenge that organisms living in an intertidal zone face that other aquatic organisms normally do not face?
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A) damage from pollution B) changes in temperature at different depths C) movement of water D) light penetrating only through the photic zone E) daily changes in water depth
86)
Why are estuaries and coral reefs more productive than deeper regions of the ocean?
A) They have more access to light and nutrients. B) They have more access to light and lower salt concentrations in the water. C) They have more access to light. D) They have more access to nutrients and lower salt concentrations in the water. E) They have lower salt concentrations in the water.
87) A coral reef is a complex ______ of calcium carbonate shells that are home to microbes, algae, invertebrates, and fishes, and its high productivity helps provide great species richness.
A) abiotic structure B) community C) biome D) population E) niche
88)
Coral obtains energy
A) by capturing and digesting small animals and through symbiosis with photosynthetic algae. B) by capturing and digesting small animals. C) through symbiosis with photosynthetic algae. D) by performing photosynthesis. E) by performing photosynthesis and capturing and digesting small animals.
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89)
The diversity in a kelp forest community can be measured by the number of
A) kelp living in the community. B) fishes living in the community. C) abiotic resources utilized by the community. D) niches in the community. E) different species of living organisms in the community.
90)
The photic zone
A) has the most nutrients closer to land. B) is an area with sufficient light for photosynthesis. C) has an abundance of photosynthetic organisms. D) is very shallow. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
91)
Which of the following is not a characteristic of eutrophication?
A) It is caused by sewage entering into waterways. B) It is caused by fertilizers entering into waterways C) It can result in massive fish kills. D) It can result in algae blooms. E) All of the answer choices are characteristics of eutrophication.
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions. 92) You go on a canoe trip to the Boundary Waters Canoe Area (BWCA) in Northern Minnesota. This ecosystem is cold most of the year and receives plenty of rainfall. It has many lakes that are full of walleye pike fish. You know that walleye like to eat minnows. In turn, the minnows feed on scuds (zooplankton) which eat algae (phytoplankton).
92.1)
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A) secondary consumers B) tertiary consumers C) primary consumers D) producers E) decomposers
92.2)
In this system, the zooplankton are the
A) tertiary consumers. B) secondary consumers. C) producers. D) decomposers. E) primary consumers.
92.3) In this system, mercury released from coal-burning power plants would be at the highest concentration in
A) the phytoplankton. B) the zooplankton. C) the minnows. D) the walleye pike fish. E) The amount of mercury would be the same in all organisms.
93) You are hiking in the Colorado Rockies in the summer. You start hiking at 6,000 feet in a warm grassland full of elk. As you climb the mountain, you pass through forests from 8,000– 10,000 feet with lots of deer. Above 10,000 feet, you are in an alpine tundra with furry marmots.
93.1)
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A) altitude and latitude B) latitude and temperature C) temperature and precipitation D) precipitation and altitude E) precipitation and latitude
93.2)
As you climb the mountain, why are the biomes changing?
A) The air is thinner. B) The latitude is changing. C) More rain falls in a rain shadow. D) Some animals live better at higher elevations. E) It is colder.
93.3)
What types of plants would you expect to find in an alpine tundra?
A) tall trees B) aquatic plants C) lichens and mosses D) tall grasses E) cactus
94) You go to the Boundary Waters Canoe Area (BWCA) in Northern Minnesota. This ecosystem contains mostly coniferous and a few deciduous trees. It has mild winters and cool summers. It also receives plenty of rainfall.
94.1)
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A) temperate coniferous forest B) tropical rainforest C) short grass prairie D) tundra E) temperate rainforest
94.2) If global temperatures increase, which biome will the Boundary Waters Canoe Area (BWCA) turn into?
A) tropical rainforest B) deciduous forest C) boreal forest D) short grass prairie E) tundra
95)
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95.1) Within convection cells, warm moist air rises from the equator and descends at 20–30 degrees from the equator. Convection cellsare partially responsible for the distribution of which two biomes?
A) tropical rain forests and temperate grasslands B) boreal forests and subtropical deserts C) tropical rain forests and subtropical deserts D) tropical rain forests and arctic tundra E) boreal forests and temperate forests
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Answer Key Test name: ch 19 1) TRUE Abiotic parts of an ecosystem include wind and water. Please see section 19.1 for more information. 2) TRUE Coevolution of two species tends to make them more and more dependent on one another. Please see section 19.4 for more information. 3) FALSE In a parasitism relationship, one organism is harmed at the expense of the other. Please see section 19.4 for more information. 4) TRUE Keystone species interact with many other species and are critical in an ecosystem for those other species. Please see section 19.4 for more information. 5) TRUE Pioneer species in primary succession are those which break down rock and start producing soil. Please see section 19.5 for more information. 6) FALSE Climax community members are generally long-lived and late to reproduce, which works well when the community is stable for a long period. Please see section 19.5 for more information. 7) FALSE Ecosystems constantly obtain energy from an abiotic source, usually the sun. Please see section 19.6 for more information. Version 1
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8) TRUE Energy enters an ecosystem at the producers and flows upward through successive levels of consumers. Please see section 19.6 for more information. 9) TRUE Just as a spider makes a web of many strands, so many food chains are linked together to make a food web in an ecosystem. Please see section 19.6 for more information. 10) TRUE Raw sewage provides a burst of nutrients, but little energy is directly extracted from it by organisms. Please see section 19.6 for more information. 11) FALSE Biomes are defined by temperature and the amount of precipitation. See section 19.3 for more information. 12) TRUE Water flows downhill until it finds a final destination in an ocean or inland basin. Please see section 19.3 for more information. 13) TRUE Scientists use both species richness and species evenness to measure the diversity of ecosystems. Please see section 19.5 for more information. 14) TRUE Scientists use both species richness and species evenness to measure the diversity of ecosystems. Please see section 19.5 for more information. 15) TRUE Species which are likely to coevolve are those which interact closely. Please see section 19.4 for more information. Version 1
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16) TRUE Competitive exclusion can explain why one does not find two large sharks with the same prey living together, over a long period, in the same kelp bed. Please see section 19.4 for more information. 17) FALSE The chaparral has hot dry summers. See section 19.3 for more information. 18) FALSE A pyramid of energy is a measure of stored energy. See section 19.6 for more information. 19) E A keystone species holds a food web together in the same way that a keystone holds an arch together. Please see section 19.4 for more information. 20) C Ecosystems include both living and nonliving things. Please see section 19.1 for more information. 21) D "Abiotic" means "without life." Please see section 19.1 for more information. 22) A Coevolution occurs when evolution of one species creates a selection pressure for a concomitant evolutionary change in another. Please see section 19.4 for more information. 23) C Organisms are usually well-adapted to their natural habitats. Please see section 19.1 for more information. Version 1
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24) D An organism's niche includes things like habitat, food sources, water sources, and other resources. Please see section 19.1 for more information. 25) E Species compete when they want the same resource, and usually only one species can remain in a given ecosystem once the competition is done. Please see section 19.4 for more information. 26) B Resource partitioning occurs when two species do not go to competitive exclusion over some resource of common interest. Please see section 19.4 for more information. 27) C "Symbiosis" literally means "living together." Please see section 19.4 for more information. 28) E Competitive exclusion means that if two species try to live with the same ecological niche, only one will remain in the end. Please see section 19.4 for more information. 29) C Mutualism is a kind of symbiosis in which both partners derive a benefit. Thus, the benefit is mutual. Please see section 19.4 for more information. 30) C Lichens do not benefit trees on which they live but derive benefit from the habitat provided. That makes the symbiosis a commensalism. Please see section 19.4 for more information.
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31) D Parasitism is a kind of symbiosis in which one partner gains while the other is harmed. Please see section 19.4 for more information. 32) D Predation does not involve animals which live together. Please see section 19.4 for more information. 33) A Please see section 19.4 for more information. 34) E Among plants, succession usually involves taller plants replacing shorter ones by overtopping and shading their predecessors. Please see section 19.5 for more information. 35) B A climax community on land usually involves the tallest trees which the area will support or other plants which are large enough and vigorous enough to exclude competitors. Please see section 19.5 for more information. 36) E An example of primary succession is when a community grows after even the topsoil has been removed by glaciation. Please see section 19.5 for more information. 37) D Pioneer species, the first to enter a new area and start the process of succession, are exemplified by the lichens which begin to break down rock and turn it into soil. Please see section 19.5 for more information. 38) A
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Food chains pass energy and nutrients from producers to various levels of consumers. Please see section 19.6 for more information. 39) D Trophic levels are different levels in food webs, with fewer organisms and less energy usually available at higher and higher levels. Please see section 19.6 for more information. 40) C Producers use energy from an inorganic source to provide the base of the food chain, and autotrophs can make all of the organic molecules which they need from inorganic precursors. Please see section 19.3 and 19.6 for more information. 41) E Primary consumers obtain energy captured through photosynthesis by primary producers. Please see section 19.6 for more information. 42) E Decomposers are often microbes, working to extract energy and nutrients from dead material. Please see section 19.6 for more information. 43) D The energy entering an ecosystem, usually from the sun, comes in via primary producers, almost all of which are photosynthetic. Please see section 19.6 for more information. 44) D Net primary productivity is the difference between the capture of energy by primary producers and their own use of energy. Please see section 19.6 for more information. 45) B Version 1
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The ecosystems with the highest net primary productivity are those with the greatest availability of nutrients, light, and water. Please see section 19.6 for more information. 46) B In an ecosystem with four levels, only about one-thousandth of the originally-captured energy is available to the top-level consumers. Please see section 19.6 for more information. 47) C Biomagnification occurs when molecules are passed up the food web and retained at higher and higher concentrations. Please see section 19.6 for more information. 48) A While ATP production is critical, ATP does not cycle between organisms and abiotic components of the Earth. Please see section 19.7 for more information. 49) D Animals release water into the environment when they breathe out and when they excrete wastes. Please see section 19.7 for more information. 50) D Evaporation of abiotic water returns it to the atmosphere. Please see section 19.7 for more information. 51) E Carbon is used in many ways and can, thus, find its way back to the atmosphere in many ways. Please see section 19.7 for more information. 52) B Nitrogen-fixers like Rhizobium first produce ammonia. Please see section 19.7 for more information. Version 1
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53) C In denitrification, different bacteria than those which fixed the nitrogen obtain energy by returning the nitrogen to the atmosphere. Please see section 19.7 for more information. 54) C Many beneficial microbes protect our bodies by competitively excluding from our bodies harmful fungi and bacteria. Please see section 19.4 for more information. 55) D Primary consumers receive one-tenth of the energy found at the level of primary producers. Please see section 19.6 for more information. 56) B Secondary consumers can access one one-hundredth of the energy found at the primary producer level. Please see section 19.6 for more information. 57) C Mycorrhizae use their abundant surface area to help plants with their abilities as autotrophs. Please see sections 19.4 and 19.6 for more information. 58) C Pesticides will be most greatly biomagnified in organisms highest on a food chain. Please see section 19.6 for more information. 59) D Pesticides are least concentrated in the lowest-level members of a food chain. Please see section 19.6 for more information. 60) A
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More carbon dioxide makes for more photosynthesis, and, thus, more plant growth. Please see section 19.7 for more information. 61) B Carbon dioxide reacts with water and forms carbonic acid. See section 19.7 for more information. 62) A Mutual benefit in an ecological interaction implies a mutualistic relationship. Please see section 19.4 for more information. 63) E Biomes are characterized by their precipitation, temperature, flora, and fauna. Please see section 19.3 for more information. 64) B Archaea are living organisms. Abiotic refers to nonliving. See section 19.1 for more information. 65) D Across the year, the greatest amount of sunlight falls at the equator. Please see section 19.2 for more information. 66) A Seasons are different due to differences in received solar energy, which drives differences in weather. Please see section 19.2 for more information. 67) B The angle of tilt in the Earth's axis helps create the varied seasons. Please see section 19.2 for more information. 68) E
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Chloroplasts are critical for the structure and function of plant cells, but not for the structure of soil. Please see section 19.3 for more information. 69) D While the Antarctic is an important geographic region, it is not also the name of a biome. Please see section 19.3 for more information. 70) C Most of the nutrients in a tropical rainforest are in the organisms rather than in the soils. Please see section 19.3 for more information. 71) B Tropical rainforest soils are usually acidic and low in nutrients and organic matter. Please see section 19.3 for more information. 72) E Conifers are evergreens and only lose a few leaves at a time. Please see section 19.3 for more information. 73) A Taiga is an area of cold boreal forest far from the equator, unless it is found at high altitude. Please see section 19.3 for more information. 74) B Grasslands, like those of the central part of North America before the creation of the farm belt, tend to have young, nutrient-rich, high-fertility soils. Please see section 19.3 for more information. 75) C Deserts see little rainfall, but some have beautiful blooms of many plants if the rain comes in a concentrated burst. Please see section 19.3 for more information.
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76) D The great majority of the surface of the Earth is covered by water, making aquatic biomes quite common. Please see section 19.3 for more information. 77) C Zooplankton are tiny, floating animals. Please see section 19.3 for more information. 78) E Estuaries are very productive habitats, in part due to the abundant water available to organisms. Please see section 19.3 for more information. 79) C The intertidal zone is periodically inundated and exposed. Please see section 19.3 for more information. 80) A The equator is not always closest to the Sun, but averaged over the year, it receives more solar radiation than any other part. Please see section 19.2 for more information. 81) B Savannas are often found next to deserts. Please see section 19.3 for more information. 82) E Marmots have moved to stay in climate conditions which they prefer. Please see section 19.3 for more information. 83) A Taiga biomes are warmer than tundra biomes. See section 19.3 for more information.
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84) C Light is absorbed or reflected more and more as light penetrates the water column, eventually enough that plants can no longer grow. Please see section 19.3 for more information. 85) E Intertidal plants have to adjust to changing water depths due to changes in the tide. See section 19.3 for more information. 86) A More energy and more resources make for more productivity. Please see section 19.3 for more information. 87) C Coral reefs are biomes, rich in species from the animal and plant kingdoms. Please see sections 19.3 and 19.5 for more information. 88) A Coral rely on algae for survival. See section 19.3 for more information. 89) E The number of species is a good indicator of ecosystem health—having more species indicates greater health. Please see section 19.5 for more information. 90) E The photic zone is the layer of water with an abundance of light which leads to nutrients and growth. See section 19.3 for more information. 91) E Eutrophication is the addition of excess nutrients to water that can result in massive fish kills and algae blooms. See section 19.7 for more information.
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92) Section Break 92.1) B Tertiary consumers are the fourth level in a food chain. Please see section 19.6 for more information. 92.2) E Zooplankton eat phytoplankton, the primary producers in many aquatic ecosystems. Please see section 19.6 for more information. 92.3) D Biomagnified substances show up at the highest concentrations in the highest levels of a food web. Please see section 19.6 for more information. 93) Section Break 93.1) C Biomes are first defined by the plants in them, which in turn are limited in type by temperature and precipitation. Please see section 19.3 for more information. 93.2) E Average temperature generally decreases with increasing latitude and altitude. Please see section 19.3 for more information. 93.3) C Mosses and lichens are able to withstand the cold, dry, windy conditions of the tundra. Please see section 19.3 for more information. 94) Section Break 94.1) A Temperate coniferous forests have mild temperatures year round and plenty of rain. See section 19.3 for more information.
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94.2) B Temperate deciduous forests have warmer summers than temperate coniferous forests. See section 19.3 for more information. 95) Section Break 95.1) C Convection cells are the cycles of heating and cooling. See section 19.2 for more information.
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Student name:__________ TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false. 1) Conservation biologists study the preservation of biodiversity. ⊚ ⊚
2)
true false
Forests are expanding and deserts are shrinking worldwide. ⊚ ⊚
true false
3) The ozone layer absorbs much of the harmful UV wavelengths of light that would otherwise reach Earth. ⊚ ⊚
4)
Carbon dioxide gas is not a major contributor to the greenhouse effect. ⊚ ⊚
5)
true false
Of every 100 species introduced, only one persists to take over a niche. ⊚ ⊚
7)
true false
Habitat destruction is the primary threat to biodiversity. ⊚ ⊚
6)
true false
true false
Overexploitation is harvesting a species faster than it can reproduce.
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⊚ ⊚
8)
Since the 1950s, only 1% of the ocean's large predatory fish have disappeared. ⊚ ⊚
9)
true false
true false
The zebra mussel and the gypsy moth are native species of North America. ⊚ ⊚
true false
10) One important conservation tool used to restore native populations is to set aside an area and protect it from overexploitation, invasive species, and habitat destruction. ⊚ ⊚
11)
true false
After nearing extinction in the 1960s, the bald eagle population is now about 10,000. ⊚ ⊚
true false
12) One key to reversing environmental decline is to slow the growth of the human population. ⊚ ⊚
13)
true false
The greatest threat to the endangered great spotted kiwi of New Zealand is predation. ⊚ ⊚
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14)
Humans can survive on Earth without biodiversity. ⊚ ⊚
15)
true false
A worldwide loss of biodiversityis underway because ofhuman activities. ⊚ ⊚
true false
16) A vulnerable species is one that is likely to become extinct in the more distant future. Therefore, it is not monitored by conservation biologists. ⊚ ⊚
true false
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 17) The primary cause for loss of biodiversity is
A) predation. B) parasitism. C) genetic mutation. D) habitat destruction. E) global warming.
18) Since the settling of North America by Europeans, only about _____of the original temperate forest area survives.
A) 1% B) 5% C) 10% D) 20% E) 25%
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19) Any chemical, physical, or biological change in the environment that harms living organisms is
A) nitrification. B) an "upwelling." C) deforestation. D) ozone depletion. E) pollution.
20)
A type of air pollution that forms a visible haze in the lower atmosphere is
A) fog. B) particulation. C) smog. D) acid rain. E) smoke.
21)
The pH of acid depositionoccurring in the eastern United States is about
A) 4.6. B) 5.6. C) 6.4. D) 7.0. E) 8.4.
22)
Which of the following is not an effect of acid deposition?
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A) destruction of aquatic food webs B) thinning of high-elevation forests C) decrease in the number of species that can survive in the lake ecosystem D) increase of pH in lakes E) deformities in fish and other aquatic organisms
23) The ______ in the stratosphere above Earth's surface absorbs much of the harmful UV wavelengths of light.
A) benthic zone B) ozone layer C) cumulus clouds D) particulate layer E) profundal zone
24) An increase in the surface temperature of the Earth caused by heat-trapping gases in the atmosphere is known as
A) the greenhouse effect. B) the biome effect. C) bioremediation. D) desertification. E) the nursery effect.
25)
Greenhouse gases block
A) carbon dioxide from escaping Earth's atmosphere. B) oxygen from escaping Earth's atmosphere. C) UV wavelengths from reaching Earth's surface. D) UV wavelengths from escaping Earth's atmosphere. E) heat from escaping Earth's atmosphere.
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26)
Which of the following is not a "greenhouse gas"?
A) carbon dioxide B) methane C) nitrous oxide D) oxygen E) CFCs
27)
There are _____ parts per million of carbon dioxide in the Earth's atmosphere.
A) 10 B) 17 C) 400 D) 125 E) 21
28)
The ozone layer is part of the
A) ionosphere. B) stratosphere. C) troposphere. D) biosphere. E) limnetic zone.
29)
A species that humans bring to an area where it did not previously occur is a(n)
A) exotic species. B) native species. C) endemic species. D) existing species. E) endangered species.
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30) To be considered ______,an introduced species must begin breeding in its new location and spread widely from its point of introduction causing destruction.
A) resourceful B) harmful C) native D) dominant E) invasive
31)
Which of the following is NOT aninvasive species?
A) hydrilla in freshwater B) European starlings in North America C) the bison in the North American plains D) the marine toad in Florida E) gypsy moth caterpillars in North America
32)
Since the 1950s, ______ of the ocean's large predatory fishes have disappeared.
A) 20% B) 50% C) 90% D) 70% E) 1%
33) The current extinction rate of vertebrates is some ______ times the historical background. This is primarily due to habitat destruction.
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A) 5 to 10 B) 25 to 50 C) 100 to 1000 D) 1000 to 10,000 E) 50 to 75
34)
Which of the following would be a positive environmental impact of damming a river?
A) Fish can no longer migrate up and down the river. B) Animal migration may be disrupted. C) Streamside habitats may be disrupted. D) It would provide irrigation water. E) All of the answer choices are positive impacts for damming rivers.
35)
How is tropical deforestation linked to climate change?
A) Burning the forests releases carbon dioxide and transpiration by trees is diminished. B) Burning the forests consumes oxygen and transpiration by trees is diminished. C) Burning the forests releases carbon dioxide and transpiration by trees is increased. D) Burning the forests consumes oxygen and transpiration by trees is increased.
36)
The normal pH of rainfall is
A) slightly acidic, pH 5.6. B) slightly basic, pH 9.6. C) slightly acidic, pH 9.6. D) neutral, pH 7.0. E) slightly basic, pH 5.6.
37)
Release of sulfate and nitrate during the burning of coal contributes to
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A) acid rain. B) accumulation of persistent organic pollutants. C) loss of the ozone layer. D) the dead zone. E) All of the answer choices are correct.
38) In addition to eutrophication in lakes, which process is caused by excess nutrients in rivers?
A) warming of the water in the Gulf of Mexico B) introduction of exotic species like Zebra mussels C) the dead zone in the Gulf of Mexico D) decreased plant growth E) clogging of city water lines
39) Conservation biologists breed some endangered species like the panda bear in captivity. Which is the most likely reason that panda populations in the wild are still threatened?
A) Not enough animals can be bred to release into the wild. B) Their environment is polluted. C) Loss of habitat has occurred. D) The wild pandas cannot breed. E) Their population density is too high.
40)
What resulted in the biodiversity on Earth?
A) evolution B) global climate change C) the greenhouse effect D) overexploitation E) bycatch
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41)
How is biodiversity measured in a given area?
A) genetic diversity within the population of trees B) the diversity of species of trees C) the diversity of ecosystems in the area D) the diversity of species of bacteria E) All answers are correct.
42)
Extinctions affect biodiversity. The more extinctions,
A) the lower the species biodiversity. B) the lower the habitat biodiversity. C) the higher the genetic biodiversity. D) the higher the species biodiversity. E) the higher the habitat diversity.
43)
What areas are most susceptible to loss of biodiversity?
A) open ocean B) locations near human activities C) rain forests D) temperate forests E) polar regions
44)
Why is it important to maintain biodiversity?
A) to preserve ecosystems B) to protect species richness C) to provide resources to humans D) to maintain genetic variation E) All answers are correct.
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45)
Trees are important in the water cycle by
A) returning water to the atmosphere. B) helping to recharge groundwater. C) preventing rainwater runoff into streams. D) providing an upper layer of organic matter. E) All the answer choices are correct.
46)
Which of the following is an organic chemical water pollutant?
A) chloride ions B) nitrogen from fertilizer C) heavy metals D) pesticides E) cyanide
47)
Particulates are
A) found in streams of water. B) carried by air. C) not a concern of air quality. D) approximately 1 cm. in diameter. E) all nonliving.
48) In the Investigating Life, "Up, Up, and Away," researchers showed that the population of alpine chipmunks
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A) moved toward the top of the mountain as the climate increased. B) had a decrease in genetic isolation. C) moved toward the top of the mountain and had an increase in genetic isolation. D) moved toward the top of the mountain and had a decrease in genetic isolation. E) remained at the bottom of the mountain.
SECTION BREAK. Answer all the part questions. 49) In many wetlands, nonnative purple loosestrife has become the dominant plant species, often accounting for 90% of the total plant mass. The populations of cattails, canvasback ducks, and bog turtles have decreased in areas with purple loosestrife.
49.1)
Purple loosestrife are a(n)
A) exotic species. B) native species. C) consumer. D) parasite. E) beneficial species.
49.2)
Canvasback ducks and bog turtles are likely impacted by purple loosestrife by
A) loss of food. B) loss of diversity. C) overexploitation. D) pollution. E) climate change.
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Answer Key Test name: ch 20 1) TRUE Conservation biologist study why species disappear and work to maintain diversity. See section 20.1. 2) FALSE Forests are shrinking. See section 20.2 for more information. 3) TRUE The ozone acts as a protective shield from UV radiation. See section 20.3 for more information. 4) FALSE Carbon dioxide is one of the main gases that contribute to the greenhouse effect. See section 20.4 for more information. 5) TRUE Habitat destruction causes loss of areas for organisms to thrive which decreases biodiversity. See section 20.2 for more information. 6) TRUE While there are few that take over niches, there have been 498 reported by the Global Invasive Species Database. See section 20.5 for more information. 7) TRUE Overexploitation can lead to extinction. See section 20.5 for more information. 8) FALSE
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Ninety percent of predatory ocean fish have disappeared. See section 20.5 for more information. 9) FALSE The zebra mussel and the gypsy moth are nonnative species of North America. See section 20.5 for more information. 10) TRUE Protecting areas is one of the most important tools for conservation. See section 20.6 for more information. 11) TRUE See Figure 20.15 and section 20.6 for more information. 12) TRUE The human population puts pressure on natural resources. See section 20.6 for more information. 13) TRUE Predators introduced by European settlers caused the kiwi to become endangered. See section 20.6 for more information. 14) FALSE Humans rely on a variety of organisms for survival. See section 20.1 for more information. 15) TRUE Habitat destruction by humans is the most common cause of biodiversity loss. See section 20.1 for more information. 16) FALSE Conservation biologists are concerned about vulnerable species. See section 20.1 for more information. 17) D Version 1
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Habitat destruction is the primary threat to biodiversity. See section 20.2 for more information. 18) A Logging, mining, and exploration for oil and gas has drastically reduced the original temperate forest. See section 20.2 for more information. 19) E Pollution degrades the quality of the ecosystems. See section 20.3 for more information. 20) C Smog is a common air pollutant in industrial regions. See section 20.3 for more information. 21) A Acid rain has a lower pH due to air pollutants. See section 20.3 for more information. 22) D The pH of lakes decreases due to acid deposition. See section 20.3 for more information. 23) B The ozone protects living organisms from harmful UV radiation. See section 20.4 for more information. 24) A The greenhouse effect is an increase in surface temperature. See section 20.4 for more information. 25) E The greenhouse effect is an increase in surface temperature. See section 20.4 for more information.
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26) D Oxygen is not related to the greenhouse effect. See section 20.4 for more information. 27) C The concentration of CO 2 in the atmosphere is400ppm. See section 20.4 for more information. 28) B The stratosphere is the lowest part of the atmosphere. See section 20.4 and the Burning Question 20.3 for more information. 29) A A nonnative animal is an exotic animal. See section 20.5 for more information. 30) E Invasive species are nonnative and cause immense destruction. See section 20.5 for more information. 31) C Bison are native to the North American plains. See section 20.5 for more information. 32) C Overexploitation results in a drastic reduction in populations. See section 20.5 for more information. 33) C This is the estimate of how quickly species will disappear without the intervention of humans. See section 20.1 for more information. 34) D
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Some dams provide power to the surrounding city, control flooding, and provide irrigation water. See section 20.2 for more information. 35) A Releasing CO information.
2 can cause global warming. See section 20.2 for more
36) A Rainfall is slightly acidic. See section 20.3 for more information. 37) A Sulfuric acid and nitric acid form which results in acid deposition. See section 20.3 for more information. 38) C The "dead zone" is a seasonal lack of oxygen. See section 20.3 for more information. 39) C Habitat destruction has prevented restoring populations in the wild. See section 20.6 for more information. 40) A Biodiversity is the existence of different species on Earth. See section 20.1 for more information. 41) E See section 20.1 for more information on how biodiversity is measured. 42) A Biodiversity decreases as organisms become extinct. See section 20.1 for more information. 43) B
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Habitat destruction by humans is the most common cause of biodiversity loss. See section 20.1 for more information. 44) E Biodiversity is important at the species and the ecosystem level. See section 20.1 for more information. 45) E Forests have a great affect on the water cycle. See section 20.2 for more information 46) D Water pollutants can be organic or inorganic. See section 20.3 and figure 20.6 for more information. 47) B Air also carries suspended particulates which can be biotic or abiotic. See section 20.3 for more information. 48) C A movement would increase the genetic isolation. See the Investigating Life 20.1 and section 20.4 for more information. 49) Section Break 49.1) A A nonnative species is referred to as exotic. See section 20.5 for more information. 49.2) A Competition for resources is common with exotic species introduction. See section 20.5 for more information.
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