Test Bank for Personality Psychology, Domains of Knowledge About Human Nature 3rd Canadian Edition b by ACADEMIAMILL

TEST BANK

Chapter 1 Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Features of personality that differentiate one person from another usually take the form of in language. A) differential pronouns B) trait-descriptive adjectives C) action-descriptive verbs D) trait-differentiating adverbs 2) If I describe Juan as "possessive" or Anita as "friendly," I am employing the use of A) trait-descriptive adjectives. B) inner psychological states. C) strategies to attain goals. D) inner qualities of personality. 3) How many trait-descriptive adjectives are there in the English language? A) More than 500 B) More than 1,800 C) More than 5,000 D) Nearly 20,000 4) Psychologists have found it difficult to define personality because A) psychologists are not smart enough to determine the boundaries of human personality. B) personality has a commonsense definition that psychologists find hard to falsify. C) the idea of studying human personality is a rather new concept in psychology. D) any definition of personality needs to be sufficiently comprehensive to include a

multitude of concepts. 5) Research on personality traits asks all of these questions EXCEPT A) how many fundamental personality traits there are. B) how personality traits are organized. C) where personality traits come from. D) which cues cause behaviour in a situation.

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6) Philippe walks the same path home after work every day at the same time. To state that he

will most likely take the same route at the same time next Wednesday is using the nature of personality traits. A) descriptive B) explanatory C) predictive D) individualistic 7) Mike makes several social errors at a party. He calls the host by the wrong name, spills his

red wine on the carpet, and insults the guest of honour. A researcher labels Mike's behaviour as "socially unskilled." This labelling of Mike's behaviour utilizes the research approach to personality traits. A) explanatory B) descriptive C) intuitive D) presumptive 8) Traits define the A) central B) average C) overt D) outlying

tendencies of an individual person.

9) A talkative person will A) always talk more than a quiet person. B) never shut up. C) talk more than a quiet person in theaters. D) talk more, on average, than a quiet person. 10) To say that someone will tend to display a trait with regularity is to say that the person has

a(n) A) B) C) D)

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average tendency. obsessive-compulsive disorder. adaptation. social-cognitive approach.

11) Which of the following questions does research on personality traits NOT emphasize? A) How many fundamental traits are there? B) How are traits organized within individuals? C) What are the origins of traits? D) How are all persons similar? 12) Psychological mechanisms differ from traits in that mechanisms A) are less stable. B) refer more to processes. C) do not have decision rules. D) are biologically "hard wired." 13) Which of the following is NOT part of most personality mechanisms? A) Access codes B) Decision rules C) Inputs D) Outputs 14) The trait of courageousness is an especially good example of A) an adaptive trait. B) how traits are consistent. C) how traits are activated only under certain conditions. D) how traits change over time. 15) Personality is A) outside the person. B) inside the person. C) both outside and inside the person. D) inside or outside, depending on the person. 16) To say that someone has the trait of happiness, you need to know that the person A) is happy at a given moment. B) is frequently happy. C) remembers being happy. D) makes others happy.

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17) Which of the following is NOT defined as part of the person-environment interaction? A) Serializations B) Perceptions C) Manipulations D) Selections 18) Responses to an inkblot test can demonstrate which part of the person-environment

interaction? A) Perceptions B) Manipulations C) Evocations D) Selections 19) Mo looks at the inkblot and sees two birds nesting. Heidi looks at the inkblot and sees a

tranquil forest. Joe looks at the inkblot and sees something sexual. These three responses are illustrating that are important components of the person-environment interaction. A) prostheses B) provocations C) perceptions D) projections 20) Evocations are demonstrated when A) different people see the same situation differently. B) our characteristics unintentionally cause other people to act a certain way. C) we intentionally attempt to make other people act in a certain way. D) individuals select environments to match their traits. 21) Every time Neil walks into the room everyone laughs. This demonstrates the person-

environment interaction of A) evocation. B) elocution. C) exultation. D) emaciation.

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22) Lena always picks out restaurants that have a very quiet, subdued atmosphere. She always

tries to avoid loud restaurants. WHat is the person-environment fit mechanism that may account for this behaviour? A) sublimation B) selection C) manipulation D) evocation 23) To say that a trait is adaptive means that the trait A) is the result of sexual selection. B) easily changes as necessary. C) serves a useful function. D) indicates psychopathology. 24) At the psychological level, the physical environment may lead to the development of A) shivering mechanisms when people are cold. B) hunger pangs to motivate people to seek food. C) friction mechanisms to prevent calluses in skin. D) fear mechanisms to help us avoid environmental threats. 25) In the social environment, our "effective environment" represents the/a A) strongest environmental cues that are found in any given environment. B) environmental cues that are directly related to survival in the immediate environment. C) set of cues emitted by other people in the environment. D) subset of environmental features people attend to based on their psychological

mechanisms. 26) The intrapsychic environment is A) not as objectively verifiable as the social or physical environment. B) often easy to verify through the analysis of dreams. C) relatively consistent across social, but not physical, environments. D) based on how others in the environment react to a person. 27) The human nature level of personality analysis addresses how every human is A) like all others. B) like some others. C) like no others. D) somewhat like other mammals.

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28) The group differences level of personality analysis addresses how every human is A) like all others. B) like some others. C) like no others. D) somewhat like other mammals. 29) The individual uniqueness level of personality analysis addresses how every human is A) like all others. B) like some others. C) like no others. D) somewhat like other mammals. 30) The ability to learn spoken language is an example of the A) human nature level of analysis. B) individual and group differences level of analysis. C) individual uniqueness level of analysis. D) social psychological level of analysis. 31) Studying how people vary in levels of anxiety, self-esteem, or worry represents a(n)

approach to studying personality psychology. A) individual differences B) human nature C) ideographic D) environmental 32) Which of the following is an example of "idiographic research"? A) Comparing men and women on emotionality. B) Developing a questionnaire that measures sociability. C) Writing a case study of Albert Einstein's personality. D) Conducting a field study of helping behaviours. 33) Which of the following is an example of "nomothetic research"? A) Preparing a case study of Sigmund Freud. B) Comparing freshmen and seniors on a personality inventory. C) Attempting to identify the genes related to impulsivity. D) Analyzing the correspondence of Chris Rock.

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34) The study of a single individual is an example of A) idiographic research. B) nomothetic research. C) correlational research. D) cognitive psychology research. 35) Most current personality research is done at the A) idiographic B) human nature C) individual uniqueness D) group and individual differences

level of analysis.

36) Most grand theories of personality focus on the _ A) idiographic B) human nature C) individual uniqueness D) group and individual differences

level of analysis.

37) A problem with studying only the grand theories of personality is that only portions of the

grand theories A) have stood the test of time and inform modern personality research. B) apply to men. C) are based on non-German populations. D) address the human nature level of analysis. 38) Grand theories of personality are usually based on statements about the A) universal core of human nature. B) major individual differences. C) individual uniqueness of all humans. D) differences between the sexes. 39) In modern personality psychology, the grand theories A) guide all modern personality research. B) are still argued about in the literature. C) are seen as having primarily historical interest. D) are used only in clinical applications of personality theory.

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40) The textbook presents the example of the three blind men and the elephant to suggest that A) people are like animals in some ways and all living creatures have a personality. B) individual and group differences are the most effective approach to studying

personality. C) each of the different approaches to personality research is inadequate for studying the full range of human personality. D) using ancient legends is an inadequate approach to explaining the full range of differences in human personality. 41) The fact that there are many differing views on personality suggests that A) researchers study different domains of knowledge. B) most views about personality psychology are incorrect. C) one of the views is probably more accurate than others. D) personality psychologists ignore one another's theories. 42) A "domain of knowledge" is a A) laboratory where personality research is conducted. B) single theory about the nature of personality. C) specialty area of science and scholarship. D) grand theory of personality psychology. 43) Researchers in a given domain of personality share all of these EXCEPT A) common methods of inquiry. B) foundations of known facts. C) theoretical explanations. D) common laboratory space. 44) The domains of knowledge in personality differ mainly in the A) number of active researchers. B) degree to which they emphasize internal or external factors. C) degree to which they emphasize adaptation and adjustment. D) degree to which they understand personality. 45) When different domains of knowledge contradict one another, we can conclude that A) the most recent domains are most correct. B) the more historical domains are most correct. C) none of the domains is correct. D) the contradictions may be more apparent than real.

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46) The dispositional domain focuses on A) understanding the ways individuals differ from one another. B) the emotional consequences of dispositions. C) the biological nature of dispositions. D) the outer nature of dispositions. 47) Which of the following does NOT fall within the biological domain of knowledge? A) Subjective experience B) Genetics C) Psychophysiology D) Evolution 48) A researcher who compares identical twins to fraternal twins probably conducts most of their

research within which domain? A) Intrapsychic B) Biological C) Adjustment D) Cognitive-Experiential 49) The domain of knowledge most concerned with unconscious mechanisms is the A) cognitive-experiential domain. B) biological domain. C) intrapsychic domain. D) adjustment domain. 50) Sigmund Freud's theory of personality falls within the A) biological B) dispositional C) social and cultural D) intrapsychic

domain of knowledge.

51) Jay is interested in investigating unconscious conflict in a sample of college interns. Jay will

most likely use the methods and theories associated with the A) dispositional B) biological C) social and cultural D) intrapsychic

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domain of personality.

52) Which domain is most concerned with identifying the number of fundamental individual

differences? A) Biological B) Dispositional C) Intrapsychic D) Social and cultural 53) The lexical approach (i.e., using natural language to identify fundamental traits) falls most

squarely within the A) social and cultural domain. B) cognitive-experiential domain. C) dispositional domain. D) intrapsychic domain. 54) Which domain relies most on statistical methods to identify fundamental traits? A) Dispositional B) Biological C) Adjustment D) Social and cultural 55) You collect data on three personality tests from several hundred participants. You then

examine the statistical similarities and differences among the traits assessed by each test. You are using the logic and methods of the domain of personality. A) biological B) intrapsychic C) social and cultural D) dispositional 56) Which domain of knowledge places the most emphasis on the external (to the person)

dimensions of personality? A) dispositional B) social and cultural C) biological D) intrapsychic 57) The fact that almost all humans live in groups suggests the importance of the A) intrapsychic B) cognitive-experiential C) adjustment D) social and cultural

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domain.

58) You are a researcher interested in differences in the levels of extraversion of British people

and Italian people. You will most likely use the methods and theories used by researchers studying personality within the domain. A) cognitive-experiential B) dispositional C) social and cultural D) intrapsychic 59) Which domain focuses most on the relationships between personality and health behaviours? A) dispositional B) adjustment C) social and cultural D) cognitive-experiential 60) The study of personality disorders falls within the A) biological B) social and cultural C) adjustment D) intrapsychic

domain.

61) You are a researcher interested in how borderline personality disorder affects everyday

behaviours in a clinical population. You will most likely use the methods and the models of the domain of personality in conducting his research. A) dispositional B) biological C) adjustment D) intrapsychic 62) Which of the following is NOT a function of a theory? A) Guides research B) Eliminates domains of knowledge C) Organizes research findings D) Makes predictions

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63) Which of the following is NOT an example of a theory that provides a guide for researchers? A) A Freudian psychoanalyst predicting stinginess from the ideas about development

through a particular stage of psychological development. B) A biological psychologist predicting a decrease in social behaviour when the frontal lobe of the brain is damaged. C) A personality psychologist analyzing a large pool of responses to questionnaire items to find the underlying structure of the data. D) A cognitive psychologist predicting how an individual's self-evaluation will determine theirreaction to a specific stimuli. 64) Which of the following is a scientific theory? A) astrology B) Einstein's ideas on relativity C) reincarnation D) extra sensory perception 65)

are based on systematic observation, whereas A) Theories; beliefs B) Beliefs; theories C) Domains; approaches D) Approaches; domains

are not.

66) A theory of personality leads to the discovery of new links between cognition and brain

functioning that were previously believed to be impossible. This theory has A) comprehensiveness. B) heuristic value. C) testability. D) parsimony. 67) The most important criterion for generating a testable theory is A) the generalizability of its predictions. B) its compatibility with other theories. C) the precision of its predictions. D) its comprehensiveness. 68) Which trait theory best exemplifies the principle of parsimony? A theory that proposes A) two personality dispositions. B) three personality dispositions. C) five personality dispositions. D) 16 personality dispositions.

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69) If it were ever found, what would NOT be a characteristic of a grand theory of personality? A) It would explain personality characteristics and how they develop over time. B) It would explain how people experience the world and process information about it. C) It would unify all major domains of personality theory and research. D) It would be clearly related to the most frequently cited personality theories in the

published research.

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 1 1) B 2) A 3) D 4) D 5) D 6) C 7) B 8) B 9) D 10) A 11) D 12) B 13) A 14) C 15) B 16) B 17) A 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) D 25) D 26) A 27) A 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) A 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) D 36) B 37) A

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38) A 39) C 40) C 41) A 42) C 43) D 44) B 45) D 46) A 47) A 48) B 49) C 50) D 51) D 52) B 53) C 54) A 55) D 56) B 57) D 58) C 59) B 60) C 61) C 62) B 63) C 64) B 65) A 66) B 67) C 68) A 69) D

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Chapter 2 Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) What people tell you about their attitudes would be considered A) S-data. B) O-data. C) T-data. D) L-data. 2) What a person's friend tells you about that person would be considered A) S-data. B) O-data. C) T-data. D) L-data. 3) How a person performs on an intelligence test would be considered A) S-data. B) O-data. C) T-data. D) L-data. 4) A person's police record would be considered A) S-data. B) O-data. C) T-data. D) L-data. 5) Which type of data is most commonly used to measure personality? A) S-data B) O-data C) T-data D) L-data

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6) You conduct a study of safe drivers for a major insurance company and collect data from a

sample of 1,000 drivers. You then examine their driving records over a 10-year period. This study is using A) life-outcome data. B) observer-report data. C) test data. D) self-report data. 7) Of the different ways to collect self-report data, which is most common? A) Interviews B) Periodic reports C) Questionnaires D) Experience sampling 8) Which of the following is the best reason for collecting self-report data? A) Individuals have access to a wealth of information about themselves. B) Observer bias is very difficult to remove from the data. C) The desire to portray oneself in a positive light is very prevalent. D) There is an almost total lack of bias in self-report data. 9) You are asked to describe Dr. Larsen's personality on a questionnaire. This is an example of A) observer data. B) student data. C) subordinate data. D) omniscient data. 10) Which of the following is an example of an unstructured questionnaire? A) True/False B) Forced choice C) Open-ended D) Rorschach test 11) The Twenty Statements Test (i.e., the "Who am I?" test) is an example of a(n) A) structured questionnaire. B) unstructured questionnaire. C) projective test. D) bias-free test.

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12) In the Twenty Statements Test (i.e., the "Who am I?" test), which of the following is

important to the scoring? A) The order and syntax of the statements B) The context and structure of the statements C) The order and content of the statements D) The complexity and syntax of the statements 13) Which of the following has been noted as a potential problem with the Twenty Statements

Test, i.e., the "Who am I?" test? A) It can be biased by intelligence differences in participants. B) It can show biases due to the gender of the participants. C) It can show biases due to the participants' cultural differences. D) It can show differences between people in adjusted and unadjusted marriages. 14) Research has shown that compared to people from Western cultures, people from Eastern

cultures tend to have more references to A) themselves B) their environment C) their culture D) other people

in their self-concept.

15) Among Chinese-born Canadian university students, completing the Twenty Statement Test in

Chinese resulted in A) reduced reliability of responses over time. B) more references that were in line with a collectivistic cultural orientation. C) more incomplete responses due to lack of sufficient completion time. D) fewer references to Canadian culture. 16) Personality scales are usually made up of A) one rating on a Likert scale. B) the sum of a few individual ratings. C) open-ended questions. D) projective ratings of personality. 17) Which of the following is NOT a weakness of self-report data? A) People may intentionally lie about themselves. B) People may not know how to answer questions accurately. C) Self-report data is especially difficult to collect. D) People may intentionally distort reports on unusual experiences.

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18) One strength of experience-sampling data is that A) one is able to detect rhythms over time in behaviour or feelings. B) it is easier to collect than other self-report data. C) it is a completely objective form of self-report data. D) it is free of biases associated with other self-report data. 19) In order to collect experience sampling data, a researcher might A) manipulate participants' experiences in the lab. B) ask participants to fill out the same questionnaire many times. C) record participants' physiological reactions in the lab. D) conduct a telephone survey. 20) Dr. Ensley conducts a study in which participants receive mobile alerts on their phones.

Every time the participants receive an alert they complete a short questionnaire. Participants are alerted three times for eight days. This type of research is called A) experiential research. B) experience sampling. C) life sampling. D) observer query. 21) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of observer-report data? A) It provides another point of view to self-report data. B) Many observers' data can be combined. C) Observers have unique access to information about a person. D) Observers can best capture the subjective experience of the person being measured. 22) Usually, combining the data from many observers is A) more confusing and less precise than using data from a single observer. B) more valid and reliable than the data from a single observer. C) less reliable and valid than the data from a single clinical psychologist. D) more reliable and valid than using single measures of personality. 23) Which of the following is a good reason to use many intimate observers to collect O-data? A) You are interested in studying multiple social personalities. B) Professional observers are especially biased. C) You are interested in studying personality in a public context. D) It is important to know if a person has lots of friends.

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24) Which of the following statements about O-data is FALSE? A) Intimate observers can fail to see flaws in loved ones they report about. B) Intimate observers are useless if they do not understand personality psychology. C) Intimate observers may have hidden agendas unknown to investigators. D) Intimate observers may not have access to the information the researcher is seeking. 25) Research from the University of Toronto suggests that observer ratings of personality are

better predictors of performance behaviours at work compared to A) self-ratings. B) interview data. C) survey data. D) online surveys. 26) Naturalistic observation occurs A) only when a person does not know that he or she is being observed. B) when we observe people in the normal course of their daily lives. C) when we observe people in a natural setting like a forest, beach, or desert. D) only when humans, not machines, provide the personality ratings. 27) The "bridge-building test" is an example of A) S-data. B) O-data. C) T-data. D) L-data. 28) Test data differs from observer-report data in that A) test data usually requires less inference about the behaviour of the participants. B) people who collect test data are more objective than observers. C) test data is always more expensive to collect than other types of data. D) test data always is more reliable than observer data. 29) Which of the following is NOT a potential problem in collecting T-data? A) Participants might guess what is being measured and alter their behaviour. B) Attempts to gather T-data often elicit behaviour from the participants. C) The testing situation might not be viewed the same by participants and researchers. D) A researcher can inadvertently influence behaviour in the testing situation.

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30) The Megargee study of sex roles and dominance found that A) there are no significant differences in dominance between men and women. B) women did not want to be followers as they generally lacked mechanical ability. C) dominant women behave differently than equally dominant men. D) dominant men became submissive under certain experimental conditions. 31) The Megargee study highlights all of these features of T-data EXCEPT A) laboratory test data is sensitive to personality characteristics. B) there are often interesting links between self-report data and test data. C) the interpersonal style of the experimenter changed the results of the study. D) it is possible to set up conditions that make indicators of personality observable. 32) Megargee found that dominant women tend to

leadership roles when placed in mixed

gender dyads with . A) assume; submissive males B) delegate; submissive males C) assume; dominant males D) delegate; submissive females 33) The "actometer" has been used to measure A) activity level. B) action counts. C) actor influence. D) length of the activity. 34) A study discussed in the text showed that activity level measured by a mechanical device at

age 3 correlated with all of the following EXCEPT A) activity level measured by the same device at age 4. B) activity level in adulthood. C) teacher's ratings of activity level. D) teacher's ratings of traits other than activity level. 35) The best reason to use a mechanical device, such as an actometer, is that A) it permits the researcher to be free to measure other things in the study. B) it is free from biases associated with human raters. C) mechanical devices can assess a wide range of overt and covert behaviours. D) it is easier to use with children than using questionnaires.

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36) The best way to measure the speed at which people process information would be to use A) physiological data. B) projective tests. C) an actometer. D) fMRI data specifically. 37) When most people (but those with psychopathy) look at fear-inducing photographs A) their startle response is no different than usual. B) their startle response is faster than usual. C) their startle response is slower than usual. D) they cannot be startled. 38) Which of the following is NOT a limitation of physiological data? A) It usually requires an artificial setting. B) Participants may not construe the testing situation as the researchers do. C) It is easy to fake desirable responses. D) It shares most of the other limitations of other types of test data. 39) The use of functional magnetic resonance imaging (FMRI) A) is extremely useful for eliciting eyeblink responses when individuals are startled. B) can be used to assess an individual's activity level. C) measures oxygen flow in the brain due to blood concentrations. D) is used to discover individuals with "magnetic" personalities. 40) Projective techniques are examples of A) S-data. B) O-data. C) T-data. D) L-data. 41) Rasheed is asked to tell the researcher what he sees in a series of inkblots. He is completing

a(n) A) B) C) D)

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projective test. ambiguous test. psychoanalytic test. visual span test.

42) Projective tests are considered test data for all of these reasons EXCEPT A) all participants are given the same instructions during the testing session. B) all persons are placed in a standardized testing situation. C) the stimuli are ambiguous to all of the participants in the study. D) personality characteristics are believed to be elicited by the stimuli. 43) The use of differentiates projective tests from other kinds of test data. A) standardized scoring B) ambiguous stimuli C) psychoanalytic assumptions D) video projectors 44) Projective techniques are unlike other types of T-data because A) everyone receives the same instructions. B) they reveal responses that indicate personality. C) they use a standard testing situation. D) responses are usually interpreted. 45) When scoring an inkblot test, a psychologist considers all of these EXCEPT A) what the person saw in the inkblots. B) where the person saw things in the inkblots. C) how the person acted while taking the inkblot test. D) the length of time taken by the person. 46) Proponents of projective tests argue that they are the best measure of A) subjective experience. B) physiology. C) unconscious material. D) social expectations. 47) Proponents of projective tests believe that these tests A) are useful for assessing wishes, desires, fantasies, etc. a person may not be aware of

and cannot disclose in other ways. B) are useful for determining the reactions individuals have when they are placed in ambiguous situations. C) are useful in eliciting unconscious anger and inciting arguments in married couples during laboratory sessions. D) are best used in areas of personality psychology that relate to psychopathology and mental illness.

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48) L-data are any data that are concerned with A) the lies an individual tells. B) the life of a person. C) the lability of the nervous system. D) the likeability of an individual. 49) A study discussed in the text showed that childhood temper tantrums predicted divorce. This

is an example of predicting A) T-data; S-data B) O-data; L-data C) L-data; T-data D) S-data; T-data

50) A study discussed in the text showed that children who had more temper tantrums also had A) more negative life outcomes. B) more positive life outcomes. C) life outcomes similar to children with fewer temper tantrums. D) more temper tantrums as adults. 51) You conduct a study of the general population and collect information on the number of

marriages and/or divorces a person has experienced to date, if any. Additionally, you send out a questionnaire to select participants, which they are asked to complete before returning in the mail. This study is using A) life-report data and test data. B) life-report data and observer-report data. C) self-report data and test data. D) self-report data and life-report data. 52) Lucy is trying to buy a new car. She finds that she can only get a loan at a very unfavourable

interest rate due to the financial trouble she created for herself with a credit card she got while in university. Lucy's poor credit rating is an example of at work. A) life-report data B) observer-report data C) commercial-report data D) investment-report data

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53) S-data will agree more with O-data when A) T-data is not available. B) the trait being assessed is unconscious. C) the trait being assessed requires few inferences. D) the trait being assessed is not easily observable. 54) New measures of personality are often designed in ways that minimize participants' efforts to A) fake their responses. B) appear in socially desirable ways. C) Both "fake their responses" and "appear in socially desirable ways." D) None of the choices are correct. 55) The Self-Deceptive Enhancement subscale of the Balanced Inventory of Desirable

Responding (BIDR) measures A) more conscious motivations to respond in a socially desirable way. B) respondents' tendency to exaggerate or inflate their social and intellectual status. C) respondents' self-presentation motives. D) respondents' tendency to be dishonest with themselves in their daily lives. 56) Impression management is most highly correlated with which 2 'Big Five' traits? A) Agreeableness, Conscientiousness B) Agreeableness, Extraversion C) Conscientiousness, Extraversion D) Agreeableness, Openness to Experience 57) Canadian research suggests that positive illusions about oneself are maladaptive in which

kind of circumstances? A) Emotional B) Financial C) Health D) Interpersonal 58) The best reason to use multiple sources of data in personality research is to A) establish cross-data source consistency across all of the sources of data. B) increase the validity of each of the data sources under investigation. C) average out any idiosyncrasies of any particular single source of data. D) increase the resultant split half reliability coefficients.

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59) "Triangulation" refers to A) assessing personality traits in geometric space. B) a statistical technique that compares three traits. C) assessing personality with various types of data. D) a method for plotting personality profiles. 60) You measure dominance in business executives in a variety of ways. The executives

complete a dominance questionnaire and their employees complete observer reports of their boss' dominance. You examine the executives' employment histories and measure their serum testosterone. Collecting all this data about one specific personality characteristic is called A) cross-fertilization. B) triangulation. C) cross-validation. D) data manipulation. 61) "Reliability" refers to the ability A) to assign a personality test score to a person. B) to measure what the personality test purports to measure. C) of the personality test to produce the same test score for an individual at other testing. D) of a personality test to measure other personality traits. 62)

is NOT a form of reliability. A) Split-half reliability B) Inter-rater reliability C) Construct reliability D) Test-retest reliability

63) If a personality measure is given to a person four times, and each time the person receives the

same score, we know the measure is A) reliable. B) valid. C) statistically significant. D) repetitive.

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64) If a person receives similar scores when taking a personality test many times, that test has

high A) B) C) D)

alternative-form reliability. generalization. internal consistency. test-retest reliability.

65) "Validity" refers to the ability A) of the personality test to produce the same test score for an individual at other testing. B) to assign a personality test score to a person. C) of a personality test to measure other personality traits. D) to measure what the personality test purports to measure. 66) You develop an awesomeness scale. It consists of one item, "How awesome are you?" The

most likely form of validity represented by this scale is A) criterion. B) face. C) construct. D) internal. 67) Which of the following terms describes the extent to which a test actually measures what it

claims to measure? A) Reliability B) Validity C) Correlation coefficient D) Internal consistency 68) If a questionnaire test of sociability correlates with the number of conversations people have,

the sociability test has high A) discriminant validity. B) face validity. C) generalizability. D) predictive validity. 69) Observer ratings of narcissism correlate with the number of times individuals refer to

themselves during subsequent interviews. This relationship demonstrates A) predictive validity. B) inter-rater reliability. C) discriminant validity. D) split-half reliability.

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70) When alternative measures of the same construct correlate highly with a test, the test can be

described as having high A) convergent validity. B) discriminant validity. C) face validity. D) predictive validity. 71) When three measures of extraversion correlate highly with each other they can be described

as having A) discriminant validity. B) triangulated validity. C) convergent validity. D) inter-test validity. 72) Establishing that a test does not correlate with measures of unrelated constructs indicates

high A) B) C) D)

convergent validity. discriminant validity. face validity. dysfunctional validity.

73) Shoe size is positively correlated with height and hand size, but not correlated with

intelligence. Shoe size has validity with height and hand size and intelligence. A) convergent; discriminant B) discriminant; convergent C) predictive; face D) face; predictive

validity with

74) The type of validity that subsumes all other types of validity is A) predictive validity. B) construct validity. C) face validity. D) discriminant validity. 75) If a test of suggestibility measures suggestibility the test has A) face validity. B) test validity. C) predictive validity. D) construct validity.

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76) All personality variables are A) highly heritable. B) unconscious. C) theoretical constructs. D) easily assessed with questionnaires. 77) If a measure is equally valid in people of different ages, genders, and cultures, it can be

described as having high A) face validity. B) construct validity. C) statistical significance. D) generalizability. 78) A test needs to be

to be a(n) test. A) reliable; valid; reliable; valid B) valid; reliable; valid; reliable C) easy; good; easy; good D) good; easy; good; easy

test, but every

test is NOT NECESSARILY

a(n)

79) Which of the following is NOT important in evaluating a personality measure? A) Manipulation B) Generalizability C) Validity D) Reliability 80) If a measure predicts behaviours in many contexts, it has high A) discriminant validity. B) reliability. C) generalizability. D) coherence. 81) A measure of extraversion that has construct validity in samples in Canada also has construct

validity with university samples of participants assessed for extraversion in Japan. This demonstrates A) convergent validity. B) generalizability. C) test-retest reliability. D) cross-cultural validity.

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82) Which of the following is NOT one of the major types of research design? A) Correlational B) Physiological C) Experimental D) Case study 83) Which of the following research methods is best suited to establishing causality? A) Correlational B) Experimental C) Case study D) Historical 84) In order to show that variable A causes variable B, you need to A) manipulate B) counter balance C) randomly assign D) control

variable A.

85) In order to establish causality, participants in all conditions should be A) manipulated. B) equivalent. C) undergraduate students. D) counter balanced. 86) The process of random assignment helps to ensure A) statistical significance. B) good counter balancing. C) equivalence. D) fairness. 87) In an experimental design, the manipulated variable is called the A) dependent B) controlled C) independent D) causal

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variable.

88) The reason experimental designs are counterbalanced is to control A) manipulations. B) personality effects. C) random assignment. D) order effects. 89) In an experimental design, it is important to know if observed differences between

experimental groups are A) directional. B) statistically significant. C) correlational. D) inferential. 90) Which of the following pieces of information is NOT needed to establish statistical

significance in an experimental design? A) The mean B) The standard deviation C) Alpha coefficient D) Sample size 91) If a researcher wants to know whether or not people who score high on extraversion also

score high on activity level, the researcher should use the A) experimental B) case study C) correlational D) ANOVA

method.

92) If people who score high on extraversion also score high on measures of happiness,

extraversion and happiness are A) not correlated. B) positively correlated. C) negatively correlated. D) possibly correlated, but there is not enough information here to know. 93) Self-esteem and depression are probably A) not B) positively C) negatively D) irregularly

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correlated.

94) If dominance correlates positively with self-esteem, we know that A) dominance causes self-esteem. B) self-esteem causes dominance. C) people who score high on dominance also tend to score high on self-esteem. D) people who score high on dominance tend to score low on self-esteem. 95) Correlation cannot provide any information about A) significance. B) causality. C) directionality. D) generalizability. 96) Statistically significant correlations may be observed between two variables that are actually

unrelated. This is an example of A) correlations inferring causality. B) the directionality problem. C) the third variable problem. D) the restriction of range problem. 97) The case study method can be useful for A) generating new hypotheses. B) knowing how two variables are related in a given population. C) establishing causality. D) proving a hypothesis to the scientific community. 98) In using the case study method, a researcher A) must follow rigorous guidelines. B) must collect all four types of data. C) must try to generalize findings to other people. D) can gather any kind of data he or she finds useful. 99) Case studies of famous serial killer Ted Bundy revealed all of the following about his

personality except that A) he had a classic psychopathic personality. B) he expressed some remorse for his crimes. C) he displayed warning signs in his childhood known as the ‘homicidal triad.' D) he had repeated failures to meet normally expected obligations of school and work.

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100)

Tomiko wants to study the relationship between income and dominance. Which personality research method would she be most likely to use? A) Case study B) Correlational design C) Experimental design D) Naturalistic observation

101)

Jacques is interested in finding out if caffeine affects levels of task performance for introverts and extraverts. From which research method would Jacques benefit the most? A) Case study B) Correlational design C) Experimental design D) Naturalistic observation

102)

Jade is interested in developing a scale to measure entrepreneurial personality types. As an initial step in this research program, what should she do? A) Conduct a case study of famous entrepreneurs like Mary Kay, Estée Lauder, and Donald Trump. B) Have several business people observed in their natural environments. C) Conduct a correlational study of the relationship between social status and social dominance. D) Have two groups of business people play Monopoly with different amounts of startup money.

103)

The process of repeating a research study with different participants and in different settings or situations in order to gain confidence about the findings is referred to as A) meta-analysis. B) experimentation. C) replication. D) reproduction.

104)

is a quantitative process used to examine conclusions across studies and integrate the findings so that they can be better understood collectively. A) Replication B) Correlation C) Meta-analysis D) Experimentation

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105)

You are a researcher studying a new phenomenon which has never been studied before by psychologists. is a process that you would likely engage in early on in your studies, while is a process that you would strive to achieve over time. A) case study; meta-analysis B) experimentation; replication C) case study; experimentation D) replication; meta-analysis

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 2 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) A 6) A 7) C 8) A 9) A 10) C 11) B 12) C 13) A 14) D 15) B 16) B 17) C 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) D 22) D 23) A 24) B 25) A 26) B 27) C 28) A 29) B 30) C 31) C 32) B 33) A 34) B 35) B 36) A 37) B

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38) C 39) C 40) C 41) A 42) C 43) B 44) C 45) D 46) C 47) A 48) B 49) B 50) A 51) D 52) A 53) C 54) C 55) B 56) A 57) D 58) C 59) C 60) B 61) C 62) C 63) A 64) D 65) D 66) B 67) B 68) D 69) A 70) A 71) C 72) B 73) A 74) B 75) D 76) C 77) D

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78) A 79) A 80) C 81) B 82) B 83) B 84) A 85) B 86) C 87) C 88) D 89) B 90) C 91) C 92) B 93) C 94) C 95) B 96) C 97) A 98) D 99) B 100) 101) 102) 103) 104) 105)

B C A B C B

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Chapter 3 Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following is NOT a fundamental question of people who study traits? A) How can traits be changed? B) Which traits are most important? C) How can we identify which traits are most important in research D) How can we develop a comprehensive taxonomy of traits? 2) The "traits as causes" perspective on personality characteristics is useful in all of the

following areas EXCEPT A) ruling out alternative explanations for behaviour. B) explaining why a person's behaviour seems inconsistent with a trait at times. C) viewing traits as internal structures. D) counting how often a behaviour is performed. 3) Ellen works into the night studying for chemistry and biology examinations to reach her goal

of entering medical school. She studies so hard that she often appears bored and uninterested in class. Which of the following trait formulations best explains Ellen's personality characteristics? A) Traits as internal causes. B) Traits as purely descriptive summary. C) Traits as biological structure. D) Traits as genetic predisposition. 4) From the "traits as descriptive summaries" point of view, which of the following would be

the most convincing evidence that a person has a given trait? A) The person behaves in ways consistent with that trait. B) The person says that they have the trait. C) The person's behaviour is caused by situations. D) The person's traits are caused by biology and heredity.

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5) If the trait of stinginess is viewed as a purely descriptive summary of behaviour, it can be

represented best by A) Johan’s constant thoughts about spending too much money. B) Andrew always leaving a very small tip at restaurants. C) Beth living with several roommates. D) Mohammad not contributing for a gift for a coworker. 6) Which of the following is an example of the view that traits are descriptive summaries? A) Eysenck's theory B) Theoretical scale construction C) The act frequency approach D) The sociosexual orientation scale 7) If you collect the central behaviours for a category and assess how frequently people perform

those behaviours you would be using the act A) manipulation B) selection C) frequency D) analysis 8) A robin is a more A) prototypical B) aerodynamic C) orthodontic D) elemental

_ approach to studying personality.

example of bird than is a penguin.

9) The "frequency" part of the "act frequency approach" represents how often an individual

performs a behaviour in a period of time. This element of the act frequency approach is assessed by act ratings. A) nomination B) performance C) occurrence D) repetition 10) The A) B) C) D)

identifies how much of a trait a person has by counting relevant behaviours. circumplex model act frequency approach rational approach to scale construction theoretical approach to scale construction

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11) Which of the following is NOT typically a step in the act frequency approach? A) Act nominations B) Assessing synonym frequency C) Recording of act performance D) Prototypicality judgments 12) What procedure do researchers use to identify the potential hundreds of acts that belong to a

trait category? A) Act nominations B) Act effectiveness C) Act performance D) Act likelihood 13) Roberto is interested in studying the trait of empathy using the act frequency approach. He

asks each of the participants in this phase of the study to write down several behaviours highly empathetic people might perform. Roberto collects a pool of 251 empathetic acts. This is called the act procedure of the act frequency approach. A) nominalization B) nomenclature C) nomination D) nomothetic 14)

used by the act frequency approach to figure out which acts are most central to a trait category. A) Act nominations are B) Assessing synonym frequency is C) Recording of act performance is D) Prototypicality judgments are

15) If the act "she made direct eye contact and smiled" is central to the category of flirting, it

would be considered a(n) A) effective B) likely C) prototypical D) centrifugal

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act for that category of behaviour.

16) Which of the following is NOT one of the criticisms of the act frequency approach to

studying personality? A) The amount of context for the performance of acts is not specified by the act frequency approach. B) The act frequency approach does not assess acts that are covert or directly observable. C) The act frequency approach assesses explicit behavioural phenomenon. D) The act frequency approach may not assess complex traits easily or accurately. 17) The approach that uses natural language to identify important traits is the A) lexical B) theoretical C) statistical D) act frequency

approach.

18) The idea that all important individual differences have been encoded within the natural

language is known as A) the lexical hypothesis. B) the projective hypothesis. C) factor analysis. D) a personality taxonomy. 19) The lexical approach assumes that A) the lexicon is an unchanging catalog of human traits. B) humans invented words to describe all of the important personality traits. C) statistical techniques, like factor analysis, are poor ways of discovering important

personality traits. D) new words in the lexicon are better at describing personality traits than old words. 20) Dr. Larsen is interested in researching the personalities of Smurfs. He collects all the terms

that Smurfs use in the Smurf cartoons to differentiate themselves from one another. Dr. Larsen is using the approach to identifying important traits. A) maniacal B) statistical C) prototypical D) lexical

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21) If a trait-descriptive word is found in only one or two languages the word A) will probably be imported by other languages. B) will probably be important to a universal personality taxonomy. C) will probably not be included in a universal personality taxonomy. D) is probably known only to personality psychologists. 22) Which of the following would be one way that you might determine the importance of a trait

using the lexical strategy? A) Find the number of synonyms for that characteristic in the lexicon. B) Determine if that trait is represented in all parts of the lexicon (noun, verb, adjective, etc.). C) Examine the lexicon for biological words that represent that trait. D) Determine if there are words representing each pole (end) of that trait in the language. 23) Which approach would most likely be used to undertake cross-cultural comparisons of

language? A) Lexical approach B) Theoretical approach C) Statistical approach D) Act frequency approach 24) If a trait is sufficiently important that it appears in the lexicon of most human languages, then

that trait demonstrates the concept of A) act B) cross-cultural C) trait D) synonym

universality.

25) The idea that a language might have numerous words for happiness is most consistent with

the

approach. A) lexical B) theoretical C) statistical D) act frequency

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26) The fact that there are trait-descriptive adjectives that few people know is a problem for the

approach. A) lexical B) theoretical C) statistical D) act frequency 27) Which of the following approaches would utilize the technique of factor analysis? A) Lexical approach B) Theoretical approach C) Statistical approach D) Act frequency approach 28) If factor analysis is used to reduce the number of trait descriptive adjectives in a pool of

words, one is combining the approaches. A) lexical and statistical B) theoretical and statistical C) act frequency and statistical D) theoretical and act frequency 29) Factor analysis cannot be applied to A) adjective ratings. B) a true/false questionnaire. C) self-ratings on personality relevant statements. D) a case study. 30)

is a statistical approach that identifies groups of items that are similar to each other. A) Orthogonality B) Factor analysis C) The act frequency approach D) Rational scale construction

31) Factor loadings indicate the A) correlation B) deviation C) analysis D) kurtosis

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between an item and a factor.

32) Which of the following is useful in reducing the number of personality traits to a more

manageable number? A) Synonym frequency B) The act frequency approach C) Factor analysis D) Cross-cultural universality 33) A problem with factor analysis is that A) it leads to an unmanageable number of traits. B) you can only identify traits that you include in your analysis. C) factor loadings are like correlations. D) it reduces the number of traits being studied. 34) A researcher who defines a specific set of traits as a part of a model of personality before

conducting any empirical investigation of that model of personality is taking the approach to theory development. A) lexical B) theoretical C) statistical D) empirical 35) Psychologists Simpson and Gangestad developed the concept of sociosexuality based on

evolutionary theory. Then they developed the sociosexual orientation inventory. They employed the approach to developing a model of personality. A) lexical B) theoretical C) statistical D) act frequency 36) Ander believes that the having a large big toe is related to how extraverted a person may be,

while having a large small toe is an indicator of how conscientious a person may be. He then starts measuring toe size and personality traits. Ander’s research represents the approach to studying personality. A) act frequency B) lexical C) statistical D) theoretical

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37) A Freudian scholar develops personality measures to assess oral, anal, and phallic fixations.

The scholar is using the A) psychoanalytic B) theoretical C) regressive D) clinical

approach to identifying important individual differences.

38) Which of the following is a criticism of the theoretical approach? A) The approach can only be as good as the theory. B) It is theoretically based. C) It depends on the lexical hypothesis. D) It has restricted investigations to adjectives. 39) Which of the following researchers supported controversial and inaccurate ideas about the

relationship between race and IQ? A) Goldberg B) Wiggins C) Eysenck D) Leary 40) Whose model of personality includes three main traits? A) Costa and McCrae B) Wiggins C) Eysenck D) Cattell 41) Which taxonomy was developed by identifying traits that were thought to be heritable and

thought to have biological substrates? A) PEN model B) HEXACO model C) The Wiggins circumplex D) The five factor model 42) A worrier would likely score high on the trait of A) extraversion. B) neuroticism. C) psychoticism. D) quarrelsomeness.

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43) Juanita is observed as being somewhat aloof and distant. She tends to lead a predictable and

well-organized life. Juanita is demonstrating behaviours related to Eysenck's dimension of A) introversion. B) conscientiousness. C) agency. D) psychoticism. 44) Fu is an excessive worrier, who always seems tense and has trouble sleeping. His friends

report that Fu has very low self-esteem and is moody much of the time. Fu is demonstrating behaviours related to Eysenck's dimension of A) introversion. B) quarrelsomeness. C) psychoticism. D) neuroticism. 45) A person who is antisocial and lacks empathy would score high on the trait of A) extraversion. B) neuroticism. C) psychoticism. D) introversion 46) Salspends a lot of time alone and doesn't have many friends. He likes to catch flies and pull

their wings off when he's bored. He is also addicted to violent movies. Sal most likely scores high on the personality trait of A) introversion. B) psychoticism. C) sensation seeking. D) neuroticism. 47) Which taxonomy includes a four-level hierarchy of specific acts, habitual acts, traits, and

super traits? A) The PEN model B) HEXACO Model C) The Wiggins circumplex D) The five-factor model

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48) Eysenck put the most important traits at A) the top of his hierarchy. B) the bottom of his hierarchy. C) an intermediate level in his hierarchy. D) the third level of his hierarchy. 49) Which of the following is NOT an attribute of Eysenck's taxonomy? A) Hierarchical structure. B) Traits are heritable. C) Traits have many synonyms. D) Traits have physiological substrates. 50) According to Eysenck, which of the following traits is related to central nervous system

arousal and reactivity? A) Extraversion B) Neuroticism C) Psychoticism D) Dominance 51) Eysenck's taxonomy has been criticized on which one of these issues? A) The traits in Eysenck's model are not heritable in the population. B) Eysenck failed to include some important personality traits in his model. C) Eysenck did not take the physiological substrates of traits into consideration in his

model. D) There is a dispute about whether or not personality traits are arranged hierarchically. 52) Who of the following was the first to propose a circumplex model of personality? A) Costa & McCrae B) Wiggins C) Eysenck D) Leary 53)

are traits that describe how people act with other people. A) Factor loadings B) Adjacent traits C) Bipolar traits D) Interpersonal traits

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54) Circumplex models are composed of A) two B) three C) five D) eight

primary dimensions of personality.

55) The primary dimensions in Wiggins's circumplex model are love and A) hate. B) dominance. C) interpersonal behaviour. D) neuroticism. 56) Wiggins' circumplex model of personality is limited to traits that A) have a biological basis in the nervous system. B) pertain to what people do to and with each other. C) show how people interact with the environment. D) were found in the LSD experiences of subjects. 57) Which of the following is NOT a clear advantage of Wiggins's circumplex model of

personality? A) The relationship of each and every other trait is specified in the model. B) There is an explicit definition of the nature of interpersonal behaviour. C) It alerts researchers to gaps in knowledge about some interpersonal behaviours. D) The relationships between traits can be traced to biological-based traits. 58) The concept of

holds that items near one another in a circumplex are positively

correlated. A) adjacency B) bipolarity C) orthogonality D) factor loadings 59) In Wiggins' model of personality, bipolar traits are A) related to clinical disorders. B) uncorrelated with other. C) on opposite sides of the circle. D) orthogonal with each other.

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60) Traits that are orthogonal with each other. A) are not correlated B) have a strong positive correlation C) have a negative correlation D) are causally linked 61)

describes the relationship between traits that are perpendicular to one another in a circumplex. A) "Adjacency" B) "Bipolarity" C) "Orthogonality" D) "Polarity"

62) In Wiggins' circumplex, the traits of dominance and warmth-agreeableness are A) adjacent. B) bipolar. C) orthogonal. D) polar opposites. 63) Which of the following is NOT a strength of the Wiggins interpersonal circumplex? A) It identifies new areas of research by mapping the interpersonal domain. B) It includes all the traits needed to understand interpersonal behaviour. C) It specifies the relationships between items in the circumplex. D) It explicitly defines what interpersonal behaviour is. 64) Wiggins' dimensions of status and love correspond with what two primary traits underlying

social behaviour? A) Extraversion and agreeableness, respectively. B) Agreeableness and extraversion, respectively. C) Agency and communion, respectively. D) Dominance and submissiveness, respectively. 65) More research in the past few decades has focused on this taxonomy than other taxonomies. A) PEN model B) HEXACO model C) The Wiggins circumplex D) The five factor model

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66) The five-factor model is a combination of

approaches to studying personality

taxonomies. A) lexical and statistical B) lexical and biological C) theoretical and statistical D) statistical and causal 67) Where did Allport and Odbert locate 17,953 trait terms? A) Act nominations B) Self reports C) Dictionary D) Peer ratings 68) Which one of the following is NOT one of the four categories into which Allport and Odbert

divided the 17,953 trait terms? A) Stable traits B) Unstable traits C) Temporary states D) Social evaluations 69) The first researcher to discover the five factor model of personality by analyzing the structure

of trait descriptive adjectives was A) Costa. B) Allport. C) Fiske. D) Tupes. 70) Researchers have found empirical evidence for the five-factor model in all of these ways

EXCEPT A) similar factor structures for men and women. B) different factor analytic techniques. C) extensively in English-speaking samples. D) in five robust biological structures. 71) The five-factor model of personality consists of these five traits: A) surgency, sensation seeking, conscientious, psychoticism, and openness-intellect. B) extraversion, surgency, agreeableness, intellect, and dominance. C) psychoticism, extraversion, neuroticism, agreeableness, and openness-intellect. D) extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, neuroticism, and openness-intellect.

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72) A problem with the five-factor model is that A) the five factors are only found in males. B) the structure does not replicate across item formats. C) researchers disagree about what to call the fifth factor. D) most factors do not replicate across cultures. 73) In the five-factor model, the fifth factor is NOT called A) intellect. B) openness. C) openness-intellect. D) surgency. 74) What is one of the reasons that researchers have had trouble agreeing about the nature of the

fifth factor of the five-factor model of personality? A) Cross-cultural researchers have been unable to study the fifth factor across many languages. B) Different researchers use different item pools in the factor analysis of big five data. C) Researchers using questionnaire items favor "openness to experience" as the trait label. D) Researchers using trait descriptive adjectives favor "intellect" as the trait label. 75) In five-factor models of personality, an alternative way to refer to low neuroticism is A) low anxiety. B) low emotional stability. C) high anxiety. D) high emotional stability. 76) In five-factor models of personality, surgency is another name for A) introversion. B) extraversion. C) agreeableness. D) openness. 77) A person who is good natured and cooperative would score high on the trait of A) surgency. B) agreeableness. C) conscientiousness. D) emotional stability.

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78) A person who is responsible and tidy would score high on the trait of A) surgency. B) agreeableness. C) conscientiousness. D) emotional stability. 79) According to the textbook, one reason that people high in neuroticism may underperform in

the workplace is A) their experience of greater emotional fatigue and burnout. B) their tendency to feel guilty on the job. C) their difficulty in overcoming obstacles. D) their poor interpersonal skills. 80) A person who engages in risky sexual behaviour would have this combination of five factor

traits: A) B) C) D)

high neuroticism, low conscientious, and low agreeableness. high extraversion, low conscientiousness, and moderate emotional stability. high extraversion, high openness to experience, and low conscientiousness. high neuroticism, low intellect, and low extraversion.

81) A person who tends to happy and experience positive affect in life would have this

combination of five factor traits: A) high conscientious and high agreeableness. B) high extraversion and high agreeableness. C) high extraversion and low neuroticism. D) high intellect and low neuroticism. 82) Disordered eating behaviours, including anorexic and bulimic tendencies, is associated with

what combination of traits? A) low neuroticism and low extraversion B) high neuroticism and high extraversion C) low neuroticism and high extraversion D) high neuroticism and low extraversion 83) The five-factor model has been criticized because A) it lacks a research tradition. B) it may not include some important traits. C) it lacks circumplex structure. D) most factors do not replicate across cultures.

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84) Many proponents of the five factor model have not included more traits A) as they are unwilling to go beyond five traits. B) as additional traits lack a theoretical basis. C) as they see the newly proposed traits as already included in the "big five." D) as no one has suggested additional traits. 85) The most promising model of personality that incorporates and builds on the five-factor

model is A) the NEO-FFI. B) the HEXACO model. C) the Big Five model. D) the biopsychological model. 86) The sixth trait proposed by the HAXACO model is A) positive and negative evaluation. B) faithfulness. C) honesty-humility. D) attractiveness. 87) One reason that serious consideration has been given to the HEXACO model as an

alternative to the Five-Factor Model is A) the declining support for the Five-Factor model. B) the cross-cultural validity of honesty-humility as a key personality trait. C) the potential for the model to reconcile inconsistencies between the Five-Factor and Big Five models. D) the mounting evidence that honesty-humility is a better predictor of behaviour than agreeableness. 88) In addition to a sixth factor, one other way that the HEXACO model differs from the Five-

Factor model is A) its inclusion of anger under agreeableness rather than emotional stability. B) its inclusion of anger under agreeableness rather than extraversion. C) its inclusion of anger under emotional stability rather than agreeableness. D) its inclusion of anger under emotional stability rather than extraversion. 89) The 'X' in the HEXACO model represents which trait? A) Emotionality B) Neuroticism C) Extraversion D) None of these

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90) In the HEXACO model, which of the following adjectives does NOT belong with the newly

proposed sixth factor? A) sincere B) peaceful C) fair-minded D) modest 91) In the HEXACO model, which of the following adjectives describes the low end of honesty-

humility? A) vulnerable B) irresponsible C) stubborn D) hypocritical 92) The low end of the Honesty-Humility trait in the HEXACO model has been correlated with A) hostility. B) the dark triad. C) cheating behaviour in relationships. D) neuroticism. 93) The "dark triad" describes what cluster of traits? A) narcissism, egotism, and psychopathy B) narcissism, Machiavellianism, and psychopathy C) Machiavellianism, psychopathy, and neuroticism D) narcissism, neuroticism, and egocentrism 94) Which new model of personality has been suggested by some to be the most comprehensive

cross-language taxonomy of personality to date? A) The five-factor model B) The Wiggins circumplex C) The Big Five D) The HEXACO model 95) What is meant by the suggestion that certain traits are "dark." A) They are more likely to be observed at night. B) They are socially malevolent. C) They are socially benevolent. D) They are inherently evil.

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96) The Dark Tetrad includes which additional trait that is not included in the Dark Triad? A) apathy B) dispositional sadism C) egotism D) aggressiveness 97) Psychopathy in the Dark Triad and Dark Tetrad models is described as "subclinical." This

means that A) it is just below a diagnosis of psychopathy. B) it has no clinical implications. C) it exists within a normal range in the population and does not reflect a clinical diagnosis. D) it is worse than a diagnosis of psychopathy. 98) Dispositional sadism refers to A) the tendency to gain enjoyment from being hurt by others. B) the tendency to gain enjoyment from laughing at others. C) the tendency to gain enjoyment from being laughed at by others. D) the tendency to gain enjoyment from hurting others. 99) Which of the following online behaviours has not been associated with the Dark Tetrad traits

in research? A) internet trolling behaviour B) catfishing C) cyberstalking D) cyberbullying 100)

People high in the Dark Tetrad are more likely to believe in conspiracy theories, likely because of their A) high level of openness to experience. B) fatalistic attitudes and distrust of others. C) distrust of others and low level of agreeableness. D) tendency to associate with people who are high in openness and fantasy.

101)

Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 facets of the Honesty-Humility factor of the HEXACO model? A) greed avoidance B) fairness C) modesty D) straightforwardness

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102)

You are a researcher attempting to identify the most important traits that explain individual differences in an isolated indigenous culture in the Amazon rainforest. As there is no previous research on the personality traits of this culture, what approach to identifying traits would offer a good starting point for your research? A) the dispositional approach B) the lexical approach C) the theoretical approach D) the statistical approach

103)

You are a researcher employing the lexical and statistical approaches to determine the most important traits that characterize a never-before-studied isolated culture. What would you need to do early in your study? A) Translate a self-report measure of the Big Five traits into the language of the culture being studied and administer the questionnaire to the population. B) Identify key trait-relevant words in the language of the culture and then use factor analysis to group them together. C) Survey the language of the culture for important trait-relevant words, and then administer a self-report survey in the culture's own language in order to measure these trait adjectives in the population. D) Interview members of the culture in order to determine what traits they believe are more important than others.

104)

Based on what you know about the identification of important traits, what is the best reason for identifying and incorporating into existing taxonomies a trait like HonestyHumility? A) The trait is one that is widely recognized and endorsed by members of the general population, warranting its inclusion in taxonomies of personality. B) The trait is observed to be highly stable across the lifespan and therefore is indicative of a core facet of human personality. C) The trait explains important differences in human behaviour, as well as important differences in life outcomes, that are not well accounted for by the traits included in existing models. D) The traits is correlated with other traits in the same model, providing evidence that the trait should be included due to its covariance.

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 3 1) A 2) D 3) A 4) A 5) C 6) C 7) C 8) A 9) B 10) B 11) B 12) A 13) C 14) D 15) C 16) C 17) A 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) C 22) A 23) A 24) B 25) A 26) A 27) C 28) A 29) D 30) B 31) A 32) C 33) B 34) B 35) B 36) D 37) B

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38) A 39) C 40) C 41) A 42) B 43) A 44) D 45) C 46) B 47) A 48) A 49) C 50) A 51) B 52) D 53) D 54) A 55) B 56) B 57) D 58) A 59) C 60) A 61) C 62) C 63) B 64) C 65) D 66) A 67) C 68) B 69) C 70) D 71) D 72) C 73) D 74) B 75) D 76) B 77) B

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78) C 79) A 80) A 81) C 82) D 83) B 84) C 85) B 86) C 87) B 88) A 89) C 90) B 91) D 92) B 93) B 94) D 95) B 96) B 97) C 98) D 99) B 100) 101) 102) 103) 104)

B D B C C

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Chapter 4 Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Trait psychology is sometimes also called psychology. A) social B) differential C) cognitive D) developmental 2) Compared to other approaches to personality, the trait approach is more concerned with A) measurement. B) the unconscious. C) the theory of evolution. D) disorders of personality. 3) Because trait psychology focuses on the amounts of various traits, it tends to focus on A) psychopathology. B) measurement. C) situational selection. D) integrity testing. 4) Of all the perspectives and strategies for studying personality, the trait approach is the most A) oriented towards individual differences. B) reliable method for describing human beings. C) measurement oriented. D) mathematically and statistically oriented. 5) The text compares the complexities and richness of human personality to the way a colour

wheel, consisting of a mere three colours, can create the entire spectrum of colours visible to the human eye. This analogy illustrates how A) the colour spectrum varies with different human emotions. B) individuals are as unique and diverse as the range of colour spectrum. C) a few basic and primary traits could be responsible for the idiosyncrasies of every personality. D) the use of colour therapy over an extended period of time may change the amount of a trait in an individual.

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6) Anoushka has been your friend for several years. Generally she is a very friendly, outgoing,

and sociable person. Based on what you know about Anoushka’s personality you predict that she A) will have greater amounts of these traits in the future. B) was probably an unfriendly, nonsocial, and withdrawn child. C) will be as friendly, outgoing, and sociable as she is now in the future. D) will have far lower amounts of these traits in the future. 7) Traits are A) assumed to be consistent over time. B) expected to vary over time. C) expected to be consistent only if they have a biological basis. D) expected to be consistently meaningful over time. 8) At 20 years of age, Hamir is the life of the party, hanging off of the chandelier, and leading

everyone at the party in a rousing chorus of the latest hit song. In old age, he most likely will be the person A) who encourages everyone in the senior citizen home to have a shuffleboard tournament. B) most likely to sneak out to the local bar to have a drink with students. C) who will stubbornly refuse to be admitted to a retirement community. D) most likely to be the loneliest member of his peer group. 9) If a trait changes over time, test-retest correlations A) will always be low. B) will always be high. C) are high if rank order remains the same. D) are low if rank order remains the same. 10) The concept of rank order consistency suggests that A) traits are not consistent over time within an individual. B) trait levels in an individual may decrease with age when compared to the general

population. C) a person with more of a trait at one time will have a different trait score at another time. D) trait levels are unaffected by the chronological age of an individual.

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11) A study by Hartshorne and May (1928) found that children who cheated in games were A) much more likely to cheat on written exams. B) not much more likely to cheat on written exams. C) more likely to help strangers. D) more likely to be aggressive. 12)

challenged the idea that traits are consistent across situations. A) Cattell B) Eysenck C) Mischel D) Larson

13) Canadian researcher Norman Endler was best known for his A) circumplex model of personality B) interactional model of personality C) transactional model of personality D) interpersonal model of personality 14) Mischel thought that were most important in determining behaviour. A) situations B) attitudes C) traits D) intellectual abilities 15) The idea that traits are less important than immediate circumstances in determining

behaviour is known as A) aggregation. B) situationism. C) acquiescence. D) social desirability. 16) According to personality psychologists, the level of personality measurement that most

robustly predicts behaviour is the A) behaviour level. B) factor level. C) trait level. D) adjective level.

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17) The "Goldilocks zone" of personality measurement refers to A) the point of measurement where all personality traits converge. B) the level of trait measurement at which we can make the most accurate predictions of

behaviour. C) a normal bell curve distribution resulting from trait measurement. D) one's score on a personality questionnaire falling in the ideal range for mental health. 18) What constitutes the lowest possible level of the personality hierarchy? A) adjectives B) narrow traits C) behavioural tendencies D) behavioural acts 19) What is the limitation of measuring personality factors at their highest position in the

hierarchy? A) Too many items are required to capture the full breadth of each of the highest factors. B) It is not possible to subject these broad traits to a factor analysis. C) Measurement of these broad traits will not offer the degree of specificity required to make accurate predictions about behaviour. D) Measurement of these broad traits will not offer the ability to distinguish between traits. 20) According to Paunonen and Nicol (2001),

_ are better predictors of performance

outcomes than . A) narrower traits; broad traits B) broad traits; narrower traits C) adjectives; narrower traits D) broad traits; adjectives 21) According to Paunonen and colleagues, which narrow trait is a better predictor of grade point

average than the broader trait of conscientiousness? A) Achievement motivation B) Order C) Self-discipline D) Methodicalness

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22)

Most personality and social psychologists agree that actual behaviour is based on A) constant interaction between the individual's personality and the situation. B) the consistent behaviour across a multitude of situations. C) extremely strong situations that constantly change behaviour. D) the need to disagree.

23) Vince is watching his school's team play in the championship basketball game. He is wildly

cheering his team on to victory, talking to everyone around him, even though they are strangers, and shouting at the referees for making bad calls on his team. From psychologist Walter Mischel's perspective, Vince is primarily behaving due to A) his extremely strong competitiveness and extraversion. B) the extremely strong effects of the six tacos he ate for lunch. C) his extremely strong long-term commitment to the basketball team. D) the extremely strong effects of the immediate situation. 24) Using forced choice responding in place of Likert scale response options on personality

measures may A) result in a decrease in participant response biases. B) help researchers better determine whether respondents are high or low on a particular trait. C) reduce the need for tedious data entry and analysis. D) result in more robust predictive validity when faking is present. 25)

One result of Mischel's critique of trait approaches has been A) an increased interest in person-situation interactions. B) a decreased interest in person-situation interactions. C) a decrease in the practice of aggregation. D) that personality traits are no longer studied.

26) Mischel has pointed out that personality psychologists are NOT very good at predicting A) the effects of important situations on most individuals. B) how a particular individual will behave in a specific situation. C) how personality traits direct individuals to specific situations. D) the effects of personality test scores on an individual. 27) According to the person-situation interaction point of view, behaviour A) = f( P). B) = f( S). C) = f( P × S). D) = f( P + S).

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28) The equation B = f( P x S) A) shows that the appearance of a trait is related to an interaction between the phenotype

and stereotype. B) is a way to determine heritability estimates for behaviour of personalities in situations. C) specifies that behaviour is the result of an interaction between the person and the situation. D) indicates that behaviour is primarily the result of personality and secondarily the situation. 29)

is the concept that refers to the idea that a person may act in a certain way only in particular circumstances. A) Faking response B) Situational specificity C) Extreme responding D) Aggregation

30) José is a very brave man, but otherwise a laid-back guy. One day he hears tires squealing and

metal crashing. He turns to the street, and upon seeing an accident, rescues a young child from one of the cars involved in the accident. The combination of José‘s trait of bravery and the dangerous situation illustrate the idea of situational A) specificity. B) generalization. C) reactivity. D) synergism. 31) Personality is likely to have the least effect on behaviour A) in ambiguous situations. B) when people are older. C) in strong situations. D) when behaviours are aggregated.

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32) After spending time in this class, you notice the wide range of personalities in your family

while attending a family gathering. During the gathering at Aunt Millie's home, she insists on everyone singing traditional holiday songs together. The neurotic, the extraverted, the shy, the anxious, the open, and all of the other personality types in your family join in song at Aunt Millie's request. Her success at getting all of these personalities to join in song is due to the A) common family environment. B) social influence effect. C) strong situation. D) shared family environment. 33) You are in a traffic jam and are not able to discern the cause of the delay. While waiting you

observe the behaviour of the individuals in the cars around you. The angry woman is honking her horn. The narcissistic man is carefully combing his hair. A patient girl is sitting back calmly listening to music. And you're thinking your analytic skills are going to make you a great psychologist! The variety of behaviours being exhibited by the drivers in this situation are most likely due to the A) ambiguity of the situation. B) different cars the drivers own. C) your misinterpretation of the situation. D) differences of driver's personalities. 34) The idea that personality traits influence the situations people put themselves in is known as A) situational selection. B) evocation. C) manipulation. D) aggregation. 35) Which of the following might NOT explain why a person often acts in a friendly manner? A) The person has the trait of friendliness. B) The person is often in social situations. C) The person chooses to go to many parties and social events. D) The person thinks of himself or herself as being friendly. 36) A study by Diener et al. discussed in the text did NOT find that A) people who scored high on the need for achievement spent more time working. B) extraverts spent more time engaging in social forms of recreation. C) individuals' personalities were related to the situations they were in. D) people selected different situations when wearing pagers then they usually selected.

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37) Andrea likes to draw pictures, enjoys solving complex mathematical problems, and enjoys

building things. Her decision to major in architecture best demonstrates A) situational selection. B) evocation. C) manipulation. D) equivocation. 38) A person who acts aggressively and often gets into uncomfortable conflicts demonstrates the

concept of A) situational selection. B) evocation. C) manipulation. D) aggregation. 39) Whenever AJ walks into a room everyone always smiles and seeks him out for conversation.

He does not understand why people react to him that way. Most likely AJ is demonstrating the idea of A) evocation. B) equivocation. C) elocution. D) elation. 40) The main difference between evocation and manipulation is that A) evocation is the result of personality but manipulation is not. B) manipulation is the result of personality by evocation is not. C) evocation is not intentional, but manipulation is. D) manipulation is not intentional but evocation is. 41) A person who intentionally charms others to get what they want demonstrates the concept of A) situational selection. B) evocation. C) manipulation. D) aggregation.

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42) You call your parents and tell them about an amazing opportunity you have been given by

your university to go to an important conference. You tell your parents about all of the opportunities for career development and networking that the conference will offer. Then, you tell your parents that you need only $500 from them to make the trip. You are demonstrating the concept of A) situational selection. B) evocation. C) manipulation. D) guilt initiation. 43)

refers to adding up or averaging several single observations of behaviour to assess personality. A) Situational selection B) Evocation C) Manipulation D) Aggregation

44) Aggregation usually results in a A) more reliable measure than single behaviours. B) less reliable measure than single behaviours. C) measure that does a good job of predicting individual behaviours. D) measure that predicts group behaviours. 45) The correlation between and would likely be the highest. A) shyness averaged over a month; shyness on a given day B) shyness averaged over a month; shyness averaged over a week C) shyness averaged over a month; shyness averaged over a different month D) shyness on a given day; shyness on another day 46) Single measures of behaviour A) predict behaviour well in other situations. B) predict behaviour well over time. C) are poor measures of anything. D) are typically face valid. 47) Which of the following assessments would you expect to be the best predictor of behaviour? A) A single observation of behaviour B) A short questionnaire C) A long questionnaire D) A single experiment

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48) The concept of aggregation suggests that traits are A) internal causes. B) mere descriptions. C) average tendencies. D) blended concepts. 49) A baseball player's statistical batting average is an example of A) aggregation. B) reliability. C) validity. D) variance. 50) Your grade point average best indicates your average performance in your classes over time.

This illustrates the concept of A) amalgamation. B) aggregation. C) amelioration. D) aggrandizement. 51) The concept of aggregation A) does not predict performance on a specific occasion. B) predicts performance on specific occasions. C) predicts behaviour based on traumatic events. D) predicts behaviour from single measures. 52) We might include the same questions in a questionnaire multiple times to assess A) carelessness. B) faking. C) social desirability. D) response sets. 53) The item "Whenever I walk up stairs, I always do so on my hands" on a questionnaire

assesses A) carelessness. B) faking. C) extraversion. D) seriousness.

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54)

is most likely to be a measurement issue when important decisions will be based on the outcome of the measure. A) Acquiescence B) Faking C) Carelessness D) Restriction of range

55) Santiago has been required to complete an anger management course as part of his

sentencing for his conviction in a road rage incident. He completes a personality test and answers the questions in a way that he believes will reduce the amount of time he will spend in the course. In terms of psychological measurement issues Santiago is A) faking good. B) faking bad. C) false negative. D) false positive. 56) If a psychologist thinks a truthful person is "faking good," the psychologist has A) demonstrated a false positive. B) demonstrated a false negative. C) created a response set. D) created a criterion problem. 57) The term

refers to making the mistake of thinking that a person was answering a questionnaire truthfully when that person was actually faking. A) false positive B) false negative C) extreme responding D) restriction of range

58)

are general statements that could apply to anyone. A) Cues B) Barnum statements C) Feedback responses D) Integrity tests

59) Integrity tests may measure attitudes related to any of the following EXCEPT A) tolerating others who steal. B) ethical and moral beliefs regarding cheating. C) beliefs that many others engage in theft. D) antisocial beliefs and behaviours.

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60) In industry settings, personality tests are used to do all of the following except A) match people with particular jobs. B) make decisions about inmates in prisons. C) help screen people for employment. D) select people for promotion. 61) Integrity tests measure attitudes related to all of the following EXCEPT A) antisocial beliefs and behaviours. B) tolerating others who steal. C) rationalization regarding the acceptability of thievery. D) political attitudes and beliefs. 62) Integrity tests appear to be valid because they A) have test-retest correlations in the range of 0.85. B) predict theft criteria such as supervisors' ratings of dishonesty and likelihood of

getting caught stealing once hired. C) predict theft criteria such as criminal history and evidence of theft during adolescence. D) Both "predict theft criteria such as supervisors' ratings of dishonesty and likelihood of getting caught stealing once hired" and "predict theft criteria such as criminal history and evidence of theft during adolescence" are correct. 63) Today, polygraph tests are most often used A) by fast food restaurants. B) by government agencies. C) in courtrooms. D) to select graduate students. 64) Many legal concerns have been raised about the use of personality tests in hiring decisions.

All of these are legitimate legal concerns EXCEPT A) the possible use of personality tests to discriminate during the hiring process. B) the infringement of personality tests on individuals' right to privacy. C) the potential race and gender norming during the hiring process. D) the lack of statistical reliability among personality tests in occupational settings.

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65) The

requires that federally regulated industries in Canada adopt proactive employment practices in order to improve the employment rates of four designated social groups. A) Canadian Human Rights Act B) Employment Standards Act C) Canadian Occupational Health Code D) Employment Equity Act

66) The

prohibits workplace discrimination based on race, national or ethnic origin, colour, religion, age, sex, sexual orientation, marital status, and disability. A) Employment Equity Act B) Canadian Occupational Health Code C) Canadian Human Rights Act D) Employment Standards Act

67) In Canada, the use of polygraph tests in the private sector has been outlawed in which two

provinces? A) Ontario and Nova Scotia B) Ontario and Manitoba C) Ontario and New Brunswick D) Nova Scotia and New Brunswick 68) Disparate impact occurs when A) an employment practice disadvantages people from a protected group. B) employers use different norms or cutoff scores on employee personality tests for

different groups of people. C) different employees in the same workplace are treated differently. D) differences are observed in the effects of workplace discrimination. 69) An example of gender norming in personality testing is A) developing different interview questions for men and women. B) interviewing only men. C) setting a higher threshold for women than men. D) interpreting the meaning of scores differently according to gender.

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70) Facet-level personality traits should not be considered by employers during the hiring process

because A) important information can be lost at this level of analysis. B) they may increase the likelihood of employers discriminating based on gender role stereotypes. C) they make the hiring process more time-consuming and confusing for employers. D) they have not been shown to predict important job performance criteria. 71) Which of the following is the personality assessment used by the Royal Canadian Mounted

Police in their hiring procedures? A) The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory B) The Six Factor Personality Questionnaire C) The California Personality Inventory D) The 16 Personality Factor Questionnaire 72) In the Six Factor Personality Questionnaire, which Big Five trait is separated into two

distinct factors? A) Conscientiousness B) Extraversion C) Neuroticism D) Agreeableness 73) Which of the following traits is NOT associated with successful police performance? A) Need for adventure B) Boldness C) Self-confidence D) Sociability 74) Which popular personality test used by employers uses forced-choice responses? A) The 16 Factor Personality Questionnaire B) The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator C) The Six Factor Personality Questionnaire D) The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory

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75) Which of the following is NOT a cited problem with the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator? A) The same individual score will be interpreted very differently depending on the

median used to perform the cutoff for classification. B) It assumes large between-category differences, and no within-category differences, among people. C) Slight changes in people's raw scores on retesting can result in a large percentage being reclassified into different personality types. D) It assumes that personality traits like introversion and extraversion are normally distributed in the population. 76) What personality test is a good alternative to the MBTI for businesses to use when hiring

employees? A) The Hogan Personality Inventory B) The Six Factor Personality Questionnaire C) The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory D) The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator 77) Which of the following is not one of the three motives underlying the approach taken by the

Hogan Personality Inventory? A) acceptance B) methodicalness C) predictability D) status and the control of resources 78) The idea that there are particular environments that are more complementary to a person’s

traits is referred to as A) situational specificity B) situational selection C) person-environment fit. D) evocation

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79) Prairie has always been a highly introverted person, often getting stressed out easily when

she doesn’t have enough time to recover from loud and overstimulating situations. Prairie has just started a volunteer position at a veterinary office because she loves animals, but she is finding it stressful because she’s been asked to help at the reception desk, which is very loud and busy. Which theory would provide an explanation for Prairie’s stress in this situation? A) situationism B) person-environment fit C) interactionism D) situational specificity 80) You have just started a new job and are loving it because so far, it complements your high

levels of extraversion and openness to experience. This illustrates what theory? A) person-environment fit B) situationism C) evocation D) situational specificity 81) You are a researcher who is conducting a study of personality, but you are concerned about

the possibility of your participants faking their responses on questionnaires. In order to screen for "faking good" and "faking bad" responses, how many groups of participants would you need in total? A) one (the group you're intending to study) B) two (one group with special instructions in addition to the group you're intending to study) C) three (two groups with special instructions in addition to the group you're intending to study) D) four (three groups with special instructions in addition to the group you're intending to study) 82) You are conducting a study in which you are concerned that your participants may be

inclined to "fake good." What variable could you also measure in your study in order to account for possible faking? A) ego inflation B) Machiavellianism C) positive illusions D) social desirability

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83) You are interested in examining the effectiveness of the MBTI as an assessment of

personality in a new population. In light of the concerns raised by other researchers, what would you want to examine? A) construct validity and criterion validity B) test-retest reliability and predictive validity C) predictive validity D) test-retest reliability 84) As a researcher, what would you need to examine in order to determine if data collected

using a new personality measure were consistent with a trait versus a typology approach? A) the extent to which your data correlate with established measures of personality B) the results of a factor analysis of your data C) the distribution of data and whether it conforms to a normal distribution D) the predictive validity of your data

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 4 1) B 2) A 3) B 4) D 5) C 6) C 7) A 8) A 9) C 10) D 11) B 12) C 13) B 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) B 18) D 19) C 20) A 21) C 22) A 23) D 24) D 25) A 26) B 27) C 28) C 29) B 30) A 31) C 32) C 33) A 34) A 35) D 36) D 37) A

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38) B 39) A 40) C 41) C 42) C 43) D 44) A 45) C 46) C 47) C 48) C 49) A 50) B 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) B 55) A 56) B 57) A 58) B 59) B 60) B 61) D 62) B 63) B 64) D 65) D 66) C 67) C 68) A 69) C 70) C 71) B 72) A 73) D 74) B 75) D 76) A 77) B

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78) C 79) B 80) A 81) C 82) D 83) B 84) C

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Chapter 5 Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) is defined as both the consistencies in people and the ways people change over time. A) Personality development B) Rank order stability C) Mean level stability D) Personality coherence 2) When people maintain their position in a group over time, they display A) mean level stability. B) rank order stability. C) personality coherence. D) possible selves. 3) If we measure height from the age of 12 to 18, we would likely see high degrees of A) mean level stability. B) rank order stability. C) rank order instability. D) both "mean level stability" and "rank order stability." 4) When the average level of a trait remains constant over time, we observe A) mean level change. B) mean level stability. C) rank order stability. D) rank order instability. 5) The finding that sensation seeking tends to decrease with age is an example of A) mean level change. B) mean level stability. C) rank order stability. D) rank order instability.

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6) If we studied political attitudes and found that everyone became more conservative with age,

we would observe A) mean level change. B) mean level stability. C) rank order stability. D) rank order change. 7) If an individual maintains their rank order for a trait relative to a group, but changes the

behaviours manifested by that trait over time that individual is exhibiting A) mean level stability. B) rank order stability. C) personality coherence. D) validity coefficients. 8) An example of

would be that ambivalently attached babies cry when their mothers leave them, and that later in life as adults these individuals have many short-lived relationships. A) mean level stability B) mean level change C) rank order stability D) personality coherence

9) When Maria was a child she always did her homework on time and was an excellent student.

As an adult Maria is a highly organized business woman with a reputation for meeting deadlines. Maria's behaviour throughout her life demonstrates A) personality coherence. B) mean level reliability. C) rank order stability. D) mean level stability. 10) Which of the following concepts does Gandhi's life best illustrate? A) How a personality changes over time. B) How a personality can remain stable over time. C) The concept of rank order stability. D) Traits that are correlated with leadership skills.

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11) Personality changes take place when those changes are A) internal; progressive B) external; phenotypical C) internal; enduring D) external; durable

and

12) Freud's theory of psychosexual stages is an example of personality change at the

level

of analysis. A) population B) group differences C) individual differences D) individual uniqueness 13) Which of the following is NOT an example of a topic at the group level of analysis? A) Male versus female differences in empathy toward others. B) Cultural differences in coming of age rituals. C) Arousal differences that correlate with extraversion. D) Ethnic differences in body satisfaction. 14)

usually is/are defined as the individual differences that show up early in life and are likely to be heritable and involved in behaviours linked with emotionality. A) Traits B) Temperament C) Individual differences D) Dispositions

15) Which level of analysis would consider the question, "Can we predict healthy aging from

personality traits?" A) Population B) Group differences C) Individual differences D) Cultural differences 16) Compared to Asian Canadian children, European Canadian children tend to be higher in

which 2 traits? A) Extraversion and Hostility B) Extraversion and Antagonism C) Antagonism and Aggression D) Extraversion and Self-Esteem

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17) Personality profiles characteristic of European Canadian children appear to predispose them

to A) B) C) D)

internalizing disorders, such as depression. externalizing disorders, such as attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. relationship problems, such as marital dissatisfaction. good adjustment and mental health.

18) Personality is least stable in A) early infancy. B) late infancy. C) adolescence. D) adulthood. 19) Personality differences usually can be first observed in A) early infancy. B) late infancy. C) adolescence. D) adulthood. 20) Which of the following aspects of temperament is probably most stable? A) Activity level B) Fear C) Duration of orienting D) Soothability 21) Temperament has been found to be A) unstable. B) more stable in early infancy. C) more stable over short interval. D) more stable over long intervals. 22) Correlations between the same measure taken at different points in time are called A) validity coefficients. B) stability coefficients. C) mean level stability. D) rank order stability.

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23) Correlations between different measures of the same trait taken at the same time are called A) validity coefficients. B) stability coefficients. C) mean level stability. D) rank order stability. 24) Buss, Block, and Block's longitudinal study of activity level found A) stability in activity level over time. B) less stability over short intervals. C) more stability over long intervals. D) a lack of personality coherence. 25) Research suggests that children classified as bullies in the 6th grade A) will be more popular in the 10th grade. B) will become "whipping boys" by the 7th grade. C) are more likely to have felony convictions by the time they are 24. D) are more likely to have been bullied by parents. 26) Victims of childhood bullying are NOT more likely to experience which of the following in

adulthood? A) anxiety B) depression C) relationship problems D) resilience 27) Traits from the five-factor model have been found to A) be only slightly stable in adulthood. B) be moderately stable in adulthood. C) lack stability in early adulthood. D) have population stability in adulthood. 28) Researchers have found that personality stability A) does not change reliably over time. B) tends to decrease with age. C) tends to increase with age. D) is best estimated by validity coefficients.

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29) Trait consistency tends to reach each peak after age A) 20. B) 30. C) 40. D) 50. 30) Which of the following is not a finding about personality stability and change from the

Victoria Longitudinal Study? A) Older age was correlated with lower scores on Extraversion. B) Older adults were more likely to show increases in Neuroticism over time. C) Older age was correlated with higher scores on Extraversion. D) Agreeableness was correlated with higher education and better health at baseline. 31) Research suggests that traits from the five-factor model A) do not show B) show small C) show moderate D) show large

mean level changes with age.

32) The traits of extraversion, neuroticism, and openness tend to A) increase substantially in a person's thirties. B) decline gradually with age until a person is about fifty years old. C) fluctuate greatly in mean level stability during adolescence. D) decrease markedly after a person reaches their sixties. 33) Trait neuroticism and negative affect scores tend to

from the freshman to senior years

in college and university. A) increase strongly B) decrease strongly C) remain stable D) fluctuate wildly 34) Trait levels of and tend to increase with age. A) agreeableness; openness to experience B) extraversion; openness to experience C) neuroticism; extraversion D) conscientiousness; agreeableness

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35) Some have suggested that more research focuses on personality stability, rather than change,

because A) longitudinal studies are difficult to conduct. B) terms that refer to stability are generally more positive. C) assessing change is easier than assessing stability. D) there might be a bias among researchers against even looking for personality change. 36) The Victoria Longitudinal Study has drawn into question what conclusion made by

personality researchers? A) Personality becomes more difficult to measure as people age. B) There is very little change in personality after the age of 50. C) Personality measures increase in reliability with age. D) Mean level change appears to occur at a significant level between the ages of 55 and 85. 37) In the Victoria Longitudinal Study, older adults showed increases in A) neuroticism B) openness C) introversion D) agreeableness

_ over time.

38) Women in the Victoria Longitudinal Study were more likely than men to show decreases in

and increases in . A) agreeableness; neuroticism B) neuroticism; agreeableness C) neuroticism; antagonism D) antagonism; neuroticism 39) According to the researchers involved in the Victoria Longitudinal Study, what is a likely

factor in personality change observed in old age? A) Increasingly poor physical health. B) Reduced cognitive functioning. C) The increased incidence of dementia, which predisposes people to personality change. D) Unique life events, such as retirement or death of a loved one. 40) People whose actual selves are close to their ideal selves score high on measures of A) possible selves. B) feared selves. C) desired selves. D) self-esteem.

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41) During adolescence, the self-esteem of

increases and the self-esteem of

decreases. A) males; females B) females; males C) irritable persons; calm persons D) calm persons; irritable persons 42) A longitudinal study of architects that spanned 25 years found that A) successful architects scored high on independence and spontaneity scales. B) successful architects scored high on conventionality and conservatism scales. C) impulsivity and flexibility scale scores increased with age for successful architects. D) successful architects had fewer health problems than less creative architects. 43) The architects classified as being "average" in a longitudinal, 25-year study, were found to A) have become somewhat more creative over the years, but not as much as the

successful architects. B) score very low on conformity scales at both times data was collected in the study. C) have become less impulse and flexible and to have become more rigid as they aged. D) have considerably fewer health problems then the successful architects over the years. 44) A longitudinal study followed male management employees working a large

telecommunications firm over 20 years starting in the late 1950s while the men were in their twenties. The study found that the managers' levels of decreased over their careers. A) autonomy B) ambition C) motivation D) dominance 45) Which of the following is NOT a component of sensation seeking? A) Thrill and adventure seeking B) Disinhibition C) Sociability D) Boredom susceptibility 46) When does the trait of sensation seeking tend to peak? A) In early childhood. B) In late adolescence. C) In midlife. D) In late life.

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47) According to research, sensation seeking and impulsivity are best understood as A) distinct traits with divergent patterns of age-related change. B) overlapping traits with similar patterns of age-related change. C) very similar traits with the same patterns of age-related change. D) the same traits. 48) Which of the following is true about the development of sensation seeking and impulsivity? A) Sensation seeking increases while impulsivity decreases from late adolescence to

early adulthood. B) Both traits decline steadily and at similar rates from late adolescence to early adulthood. C) Both traits decline from late adolescence to early adulthood, but the decline in impulsivity is much steeper and begins earlier than the decline in sensation seeking. D) Impulsivity increases while sensation seeking decreases from late adolescence to early adulthood. 49) Impulsivity is defined as A) the tendency to act on behavioural impulses without planning or consideration of

consequences. B) the tendency to be require more stimulation in order to reach optimal arousal. C) the tendency to engage in socially problematic and sometimes destructive behaviours. D) the tendency to seek out experiences and situations that are novel, exciting, or rewarding. 50) Which kind of training was found to be associated with increases in openness to experience

in older adults? A) physical training B) cognitive training C) mindfulness training D) emotion regulation training 51) Which active compound found in a specific recreational drug has been associated with

increases in openness to experience? A) psilocybin B) CBD C) THC D) tryptophan

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52) What activity has been found to improve both openness to experience and creativity

specifically? A) solving puzzles B) mindfulness-based meditation C) yoga D) cognitive training 53)

are defined as the social times in which people live. A) "Cohort effects" B) "Generational effects" C) "Historical byproducts" D) "Longitudinal effects"

54) The effects on individuals of living through the first gulf war is an example of A) cohort effects. B) generational effects. C) historical byproducts. D) longitudinal effects. 55) North American women in the 1930s were more _ A) sexually active B) self-sufficient C) passive D) resilient 56) North American women's scores for

than women of the 1950s.

rose from 1931 to 1945 and also from 1968 to

1993. A) B) C) D)

domesticity level of education assertiveness sensation seeking

57) A 2018 study of narcissism in German adults, which compared people who grew up in West

Germany to those who grew up in East Germany, offered support for the general idea that A) narcissism is a relatively stable trait which has not changed over generations. B) narcissism has decreased over time in the population. C) sociocultural conditions have little impact on personality change over time. D) sociocultural conditions can shape key aspects of personality.

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58) The study by Hudson and Fraley (2015) set out to determine if what is possible? A) volitional personality change B) lifelong personality stability C) extreme personality change D) changing from high to low neuroticism 59) Which statement best describes how most people would like to change their personality on

the Big Five traits? A) Most people would like to become more emotionally stable, extraverted, conscientious, and agreeable. B) Most people would like to become more emotionally stable and extraverted. C) Most people would like to become more emotionally stable and conscientious. D) Most people would like to become more open to new experiences, agreeable, outgoing. 60) In the study by Hudson and Fraley (2015), students who expressed goals to increase any Big

Five trait at the start of the study tended to A) stay relatively the same when examined 16 weeks later. B) change only on emotional stability when examined 16 weeks later. C) experience some change over the 16-week period, but not what could be considered statistically significant. D) experience actual increases in that trait over the 16-week period. 61) In Hudson and Fraley's (2015) study of volitional personality change, who was most likely to

display successful change in Big Five traits over the 16-week period? A) Those with the highest level of emotional stability at the start of the study. B) Those who set the most practical intentions for implementing their change-related goals. C) Those who expressed a desire to change on only one or two of the Big Five traits. D) Those who had the highest level of social support. 62) In Hudson and Fraley's (2015) study of volitional personality change, which Big Five trait

was not observed to change for participating students in a meaningful way? A) conscientiousness B) neuroticism C) openness to experience D) agreeableness

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63) Which of the following has NOT been associated with marital satisfaction? A) The husband's neuroticism B) The wife's neuroticism C) The husband's impulsivity D) The wife's impulsivity 64) Twenge concluded from her studies of cohort effects from 1968 to 1993 that A) females internalized the social change and cultural messages of the era, and their

personalities were molded by these messages. B) cohort effects are interesting to study historically, but of little relevance to personality psychology. C) social and cultural changes had only marginal effects on personality. D) the culture in which an individual is immersed is the major determinant of personality. 65) "Personality coherence" refers to the predictable changes in A) the outcomes of personality factors over time. B) the mean level stability of personality traits. C) how much "common sense" a personality score makes. D) the effects of rank-order stability over time. 66) Which of the following personality traits is one of the strongest predictors of divorce in the

Kelly and Conley longitudinal study of married couples? A) High extraversion B) Low agreeableness C) High neuroticism D) Low conscientiousness 67) Husbands who score low on

have been found to be more likely to have extramarital

affairs. A) B) C) D)

neuroticism impulse control dominance extraversion

68) Individuals with a high level of A) dominance B) impulse control C) emotional stability D) independence

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tend to cope better with the loss of a spouse.

69) Which of the following has been suggested as the key factor with the later development of

alcoholism in men? A) High levels of neuroticism B) Low levels of neuroticism C) Low levels of impulse control D) High levels of impulse control 70) Which of the following has been associated with the later development of emotional

disturbances in men? A) High levels of neuroticism B) Low levels of neuroticism C) Low levels of impulse control D) High levels of impulse control 71) Impulsivity in men has been associated with all of the following EXCEPT A) lower levels of marital satisfaction. B) alcoholism. C) high creativity and exploration. D) lower levels of academic achievement. 72) Which of the following does NOT predict later levels of marital satisfaction? A) Impulse control B) Childhood temper tantrums C) Neuroticism D) Sensation seeking 73) A study found that men who had many childhood temper tantrums later A) achieved higher levels of academic success. B) were more likely to be divorced. C) had more successful military careers. D) achieved great financial success. 74) Men classified as being "explosive" children in a 40-year longitudinal study presented by

Caspi and his colleagues in 1987 differed from the "nonexplosive" group by A) earning more promotions for valor. B) achieving lower military ranks. C) earning more medals for bravery. D) benefiting from military discipline.

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75) When people in marriages have similar personalities A) they are more likely to divorce. B) their personalities remain more stable over time. C) their personalities change more over time. D) their personalities are neither more nor less likely to change over time. 76)

been associated with greater stability of personality over time. A) Marrying someone with a similar personality has B) Marrying someone with a very different personality has C) High levels of neuroticism have D) Low levels of neuroticism have

77) Research has indicated a negative correlation between postsecondary GPA and A) parent ratings of aggression before entering university. B) peer ratings of neuroticism before entering university. C) peer ratings of impulsivity before entering university. D) parent ratings of impulsivity before entering university. 78) You are conducting a study on married couples in order to examine personality change over

time. What would you need to do in order to assess personality change as a function of the similarity in traits between married partners? A) Measure the personality traits of one partner from each couple being studied at two points in time. B) Measure the personality traits of both partners at more than one point in time over many years. C) Measure the personality traits of both partners at two points in time, one year apart. D) Measure the personality traits of both partners at a single point in time. 79) If you studied a group of adolescents and found that the majority showed signs of addiction,

which personality trait would be best to measure based on previous research? A) conscientiousness B) agreeableness C) extraversion D) emotional stability

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80) As a researcher, which level of analysis would you need to study if you were interested in

how much people tend to change in extraversion over the lifespan? A) group differences level B) population level C) individual differences level D) species level 81) You are interested in investigating the extent to which agreeableness changes from young

adulthood to old age. What kind of study would you need to conduct? A) test-retest study B) comparative case study analysis C) longitudinal study D) cross-sectional study 82) Which of the following scenarios is most consistent with rank-order change? A) A person's level of extraversion in a group relative to others changes significantly

across time points. B) The level of extraversion of at least two people in a group changes significantly across time points. C) A person's level of extraversion in a group stays the same despite normative changes over time. D) A person's level of extraversion in a group fluctuates over time as normative increases in extraversion are also observed.

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 5 1) A 2) B 3) B 4) B 5) A 6) A 7) C 8) D 9) A 10) B 11) C 12) A 13) C 14) B 15) C 16) B 17) B 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) C 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) C 26) D 27) B 28) C 29) D 30) C 31) B 32) B 33) B 34) D 35) D 36) B 37) A

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38) B 39) D 40) D 41) A 42) A 43) C 44) B 45) C 46) B 47) A 48) C 49) A 50) B 51) A 52) B 53) A 54) A 55) B 56) C 57) D 58) B 59) A 60) D 61) B 62) C 63) D 64) A 65) A 66) C 67) B 68) C 69) C 70) A 71) C 72) D 73) B 74) B 75) B 76) A 77) C

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78) B 79) A 80) B 81) C 82) A

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Chapter 6 Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The term refers to the complete set of genes an organism possesses. A) "genome" B) "eugenics" C) "phenotypic" D) "genotypic" 2) All human genes are located somewhere on one of A) 12 B) 17 C) 23 D) 32 3) The human genome contains about A) 10,000-15,000 B) 20,000-30,000 C) 30,000-40,000 D) 1,000,000-2,000,000

pairs of chromosomes.

separate genes.

4) The goal of the Human Genome Project was to A) identify which genes are related to personality. B) identify the particular sequence of DNA molecules in humans. C) identify genotypic variance. D) solve the nature-nurture debate once and for all. 5) The Human Genome Project has A) been a large failure. B) identified the sequence of DNA molecules in humans. C) identified the functions of most human genes. D) discovered that people differ widely in their particular genes.

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6) Which one of the following is NOT one of the fears about genetic research? A) Genetic research will lead to the development of "designer" babies. B) If criminal behaviour is genetic then attempts at rehabilitation will be fruitless. C) Decoding genetic differences will reveal complexities in human nature. D) Genetic research will marginalize research in other areas of psychology. 7) Research demonstrating a link between politics and genes may be controversial because A) it suggests that socialization and personal experience play little role in political

perspective. B) it is difficult for the average person to understand the meaning of heritability coefficients. C) it may inflate the role of personal experience in the formation of personality. D) it is contrary to people's expectations regarding the role of genes in their attitudes and beliefs. 8) A common concern regarding behavioural genetic research is A) the use of research findings for financial gain. B) the misrepresentation of research findings in the media. C) the lack of understanding of research findings by the public. D) the use of research findings to support political agendas. 9) The idea that people with "desirable" characteristics should be encouraged to have children

while "less desirable" people should be discouraged from having children is called A) eugenics. B) molecular genetics. C) selective placement. D) heritability. 10) Most psychologists who study genetics A) support the idea of eugenics. B) believe creating "designer babies" is a worthwhile goal. C) believe that the environment does not contribute to personality. D) are interested in the causes of individual differences. 11) The fact that North Americans are, on average, taller than a hundred years ago demonstrates

that A) B) C) D)

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the environment determines height. the environment can contribute to highly heritable traits. height is not heritable. height is only slightly heritable.

12) If a score for a characteristic is divided into its different causes, researchers are typically

assessing the due to each of the causes of that score. A) genotype-environment interaction B) genotype-environment correlation C) percentage of variance D) environmentalism 13) Behavioural geneticists are generally NOT interested in the A) percentage of variance due to environment. B) percentage of variance due to genes. C) percentage of genetic variance in an individual. D) ways in which genes and the environment interact to form personality. 14) The proportion of phenotypic variation in a group of individuals due to genetic variance is

called A) B) C) D) 15)

"heritability." "phenotypic percentage of variance." "genome." "eugenics."

refers to the proportion of variance in a group of individuals that can be accounted for by genetic variance. A) Heritability B) Phenotypic percentage of variance C) Genome D) Eugenics

16)

refers to observed differences among individuals. A) Heritability B) Phenotypic variance C) Genotypic variance D) Environmentality

17)

refers to individual differences in the collection of genes of each person. A) Heritability B) Phenotypic variance C) Genotypic variance D) Environmentality

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18) If the heritability of sociability is.30, the environment is responsible for A) 70 percent of phenotypic variation. B) 70 percent of genotypic variation. C) 30 percent of phenotypic variation. D) 30 percent of genotypic variation. 19) The percentage of variance in a group of individuals that can be attributed to nongenetic

differences is called A) heritability. B) phenotypic variance. C) genotypic variance. D) environmentality. 20) If the heritability of a trait is very large, then the _ A) phenotypic variance B) genotypic variance C) environmentality D) genomic variance

of the trait is small.

21) Which of the following statements about heritability is NOT true? A) Heritability can be applied to a single individual. B) Heritability can change over time. C) The heritability of the same trait can be different in different groups. D) The phenotype is the expression of a characteristic's genotype. 22) Which of the following is NOT a reason why heritability can vary? A) It is an imprecise estimate. B) Environments change. C) Unreliability in measurement. D) Heritability coefficients are fixed in a population. 23) The argument over whether the environment or genes determine personality is known as A) the eugenics debate. B) the nature-nurture debate. C) heritability. D) the equal environments assumption.

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24) If we were attempting to determine how much of Sam’s personality was due to genetics and

how much were due to the environment we would A) measure Sam’s genome. B) compare Sam to his siblings. C) be asking an impossible question. D) map his chromosomes. 25) At the level of the individual A) there is no nature-nurture debate. B) genes are useful in studying personality. C) the idiographic genetic approach should be used. D) genes determine most of personality. 26) The technical term for dividing a trait's score into genetic and environmental variance at the

population level is called A) apportioning. B) subdivision. C) partitioning. D) extrapolating. 27) Which of the following methods is NOT used with humans? A) Selective breeding B) Twin studies C) Adoption studies D) Family studies 28) The use of selective breeding in animals can be used to study A) sexual selection pressures for behaviours. B) the heritability of behaviours. C) natural selection pressures for behaviours. D) the dominance hierarchies of animals. 29)

is shown when successive generations show more and more of a trait. A) Shared environment B) Selective breeding C) Genotype-environment correlation D) The equal environments assumption

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30) Selective breeding in dogs demonstrates that A) behavioural traits can be heritable. B) human personality is heritable. C) the equal environments assumption is not violated. D) the representativeness assumption is not violated. 31) For selective breeding to be successful, the desired trait must A) be entirely under genetic control. B) occur in all offspring. C) be heritable. D) not be affected by the environment. 32) A parent shares, on average, A) 25 B) 50 C) 75 D) 100

percent of their genes with each child.

33) Aunts and uncles share, on average, A) 0 B) 12.5 C) 25 D) 50

percent of their genes with nieces and nephews.

34) If a trait is highly heritable A) all family members will possess the trait. B) all children in the family will possess the trait. C) the more closely family members are genetically related, the more similar they will be

on the trait. D) all members of the population will possess the trait. 35) Which of the following is NOT a problem with the family-study method? A) Family members sharing environments. B) The degree of genetic similarity is often correlated with environmental similarity. C) Siblings may share traits because they grew up in the same household. D) The fact that parents contribute 50 percent of their genes to each child.

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36) Which of the following methods provides the LEAST conclusive evidence that a trait is

heritable? A) Family studies B) Twin studies C) Adoption studies D) Selective breeding 37) Which of the following could potentially develop from a single fertilized egg? A) All siblings B) Fraternal twins C) Identical twins D) Zygotic twins 38) A) B) C) D)

are also known as "monozygotic twins." Fraternal twins Genotypic twins Identical twins Phenotypic twins

39) Which of the following share 100 percent of their genes? A) Parents and children B) All siblings C) Dizygotic twins D) Monozygotic twins 40) Dizygotic twins share

genes compared to ordinary siblings, and compared to monozygotic twins. A) the same percent of; less B) more; less C) more; more D) less; more

genes

41) A trait is likely to be heritable if are more similar in that trait than A) dizygotic twins; monozygotic twins B) monozygotic twins; dizygotic twins C) ordinary siblings; dizygotic twins D) dizygotic twins; ordinary siblings

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42) Which of the following estimates heritability most accurately? A) The difference between the correlations of MZ twins and DZ twins. B) Twice the difference between the correlations of MZ twins and DZ twins. C) One-half the difference between the correlations of MZ twins and DZ twins. D) Multiplying the correlations between MZ twins and DZ twins. 43) One of the most common formulas for assessing heritability is A) heritability = ( rdz - rmz). 2 B) heritability = ( rmz - rdz). 2 C) heritability = 2( rmz - rdz). D) heritability = 2( rmz - rdz). 44) The equal environments assumption states that A) all people in a population share similar environments. B) dizygotic twins are not treated differently from monozygotic twins. C) twins are not treated differently from ordinary siblings. D) parents treat all their children the same. 45) Which of the following could be a violation of the equal environments assumption? A) Dressing identical twins in the identical clothes. B) Dressing fraternal twins in the identical clothes. C) Twins are treated differently than other children. D) Fraternal twins are similar to ordinary siblings. 46) Ling and Lucy are identical twins. Their parents dress them alike, put them in the same

classes and treat them identically. If Lucy and Ling were selected to participate in a twin study, they may contaminate the results by leading to a violation of the assumption. A) nonshared family variance B) shared family environment C) equal environments D) confluence effects 47) Researchers have studied cases where parents were wrong about whether their twins were

identical or fraternal to address A) shared environments. B) selective breeding. C) genotype-environment correlation. D) the equal environments assumption.

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48) Philippe displays a high level of confidence, is committed to goals, feels in control of

circumstances, and values change. Which trait best summarizes these aspects of Philippe's personality? A) resilience B) conscientiousness C) mental toughness D) hardiness 49) Canadian research indicates that the component of mental toughness that is most heritable is A) challenge B) control C) commitment D) confidence 50) In their study of the heritability of mental toughness, Horsburgh and colleagues also included

measures of the Big Five personality traits. Why was this important? A) It allowed them to determine potential congruence in heritability among multiple traits. B) It allowed them to examine correlations among mental toughness and other traits such as conscientiousness, informing their conclusions on reliability. C) It allowed them to better estimate the degree of environmentality in the sample. D) It allowed them to determine if their sample was similar to or different from other populations, better informing their conclusions on generalizability. 51) The personality trait of mental toughness has been shown to be positively associated with all

of the Big Five traits except A) agreeableness. B) neuroticism. C) extraversion. D) openness to experience. 52) The observed correlations among mental toughness and the Big Five personality traits

suggests what about their heritability? A) They share a common genetic substrate. B) They are all associated with the same gene. C) It is difficult for scientists to precisely determine heritability. D) They share similar epigenetic causes.

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53) If adopted children differ in important ways from most other people, it would violate the

assumption. A) representativeness B) equal environments C) eugenics D) shared family environment 54) If the correlation between adoptive parents' traits and adopted children's traits is high we can

assume A) B) C) D)

a genetic influence. an environmental influence. an influence of shared environment. that adoptive parents pick children similar to themselves.

55) An advantage of adoption studies is that they A) depend on the equal environments assumption. B) depend on the representativeness assumption. C) do not depend on the equal environments assumption. D) do not depend on the representativeness assumption. 56) A trait is heritable if A) adoptive parents and the children they have adopted have similar levels of a

characteristic. B) the biological parents of children they placed for adoption have similar levels of a characteristic. C) adoptive parents and biological parents of a child have similar levels of a characteristic. D) the children that have been adopted have levels of a characteristic that are similar to those of the other siblings in the home. 57) Selective placement is a potential problem with behavioural genetics studies as it artificially

inflates the A) estimates of genetic influences. B) estimates of nonshared family environment. C) estimates of environmental influences. D) effects of the equal environments assumption.

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58) Xander was adopted by his mother's sister (his maternal aunt) and his uncle. If he were to

participate in a behavioural genetics study, his scores would A) skew the results to favour the percentage of the variance for his scores to genetic influences. B) skew the results to favour the percentage of the variance for his scores to environmental influences. C) skew the results to show the greater effects of maternal influences. D) not bias the effects for either the genes or the environment. 59) Combining adoption studies and twin studies A) methodologically is not appropriate in behavioural genetics studies. B) provides an especially powerful method for studying behavioural genetics. C) requires selective breeding over many generations of lab animals. D) provides an error-free estimate of heritability for behavioural genetics studies. 60) The personality traits of extraversion and neuroticism have been found to be A) highly heritable. B) moderately heritable. C) slightly heritable. D) not at all heritable. 61) Most major personality traits A) have been found to be moderately heritable. B) have been found to not be heritable at all. C) have not been studied with respect to heritability. D) are more heritable than height. 62)

traits show moderate to high heritability. A) Psychopathic B) Religious C) Idiographic D) Political

63) Chimpanzees show moderate heritability for dominance and A) extraversion. B) well-being. C) aggressiveness. D) sociability.

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64) Which of the following attitudes has been found to be somewhat heritable? A) Traditionalism B) Belief in God C) Involvement in religious activities D) Attitudes about racial integration 65) Canadian research has suggested that heritability coefficients for diverse categories of social

values are in the A) low to moderate range. B) moderate range. C) high range. D) moderate to high range. 66) Which of the following is probably most heritable? A) Drinking behaviour in men. B) Drinking behaviour in women. C) Alcoholism in men and women. D) Alcoholism is not heritable. 67) Recent findings from behavioural genetics and brain research point to the strong likelihood

that sexual orientation is A) heritable only in men. B) heritable only in women. C) heritable in both women and men. D) not heritable at all. 68) Based on genomic analyses, what has been concluded about recent studies of the heritability

of sexual orientation? A) It is likely that a single gene accounts for variability in sexual orientation. B) It seems to be the case that there are just a few genes that explain the variance in sexual orientation. C) Multiple genes play a role in determining variability in sexual orientation, and the contribution of each is small. D) Same-sex sexual orientation is associated with a specific genetic marker. 69) Which of the following is an example of a shared environmental influence? A) A child's friends B) The grades a child gets C) Special treatment from a parent D) Parents' values and attitudes

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70)

refers to the unique things that happen to one sibling and not another. A) Phenotypic variance B) Genotypic variance C) Shared environment D) Nonshared environment

71) Nonshared family environment is best expressed as those aspects of the family environment

that A) B) C) D)

are uniquely experienced by the family. are uniquely experienced by an individual family member. are hoarded by the family members. represent differential genetic dimorphism.

72) Shared family environment is BEST expressed by which of the following? A) The friends a child selects while growing up. B) A shared family vacation. C) A parent's rapid rise up the corporate ladder. D) Differential effects of grandparenting on children. 73) The number of books in a child's home is an example of A) phenotypic variance. B) genotypic variance. C) shared environment. D) nonshared environment. 74) A yearly family trip to visit grandparents in Florida would be considered part of the

environment. A) shared common family B) nonshared family C) family experiential D) phenotypic family 75) Research indicates that shared environmental factors correlate about A) .05 B) .25 C) .50 D) .65

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with personality.

76) Evidence for the extremely small effects of shared family environment includes the low

correlations A) across biological siblings for personality traits. B) between adopted children's personality traits in the same family. C) between adopted and biological children in the same family for personality traits. D) between adopted children and their parents personality traits. 77) One problem with attempting to study the effects of nonshared family environment is that A) there are myriad environmental variables that affect personality, but each may have

only a small effect. B) the nonshared environmental effects on each child in the family are too subtle to analyze with current methods. C) the effects of shared family environments interfere with clearly observing the effects of the nonshared family environments. D) the equal environments assumption is violated by variables attributable to nonshared family environment. 78) All of these are significant shared family environment variables EXCEPT A) smoking and drinking. B) gender nonconformity. C) verbal intelligence. D) health behaviour. 79) The idea that individuals with different genotypes respond differently to the same

environmental cues is called A) passive genotype-environment interaction. B) genotype-environment interaction. C) active genotype-environment correlation. D) genotype-environment correlation. 80) David, an extravert, and Mo, an introvert, are studying in a small room in which the

television's volume is quite loud. Based on what you know about genotype-environment interactions, what can you say about how effectively the two are studying? A) Mo will most likely study better than David due to the background noise of the television. B) David will find the television much more distracting than Mo will. C) Mo will find the television much more distracting than David will. D) Both David and Mo will start watching television and scheme to move the test back one week.

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81) Genotype-environment _

describes what occurs when people with different genotypes are exposed to different environments. A) interaction B) correlation C) variance D) concordance

82) Juanita is a fantastic basketball player. She has great innate ability. She is tall, agile, and has

a great head for the game. Her parents take every opportunity to send her to basketball camps and clinics, and make sure she gets extra coaching. Juanita's basketball skills are due to a genotype-environment A) interaction. B) correlation. C) variance. D) concordance. 83) A child shows early musical ability, which causes her parents to buy a piano for her. This

scenario demonstrates the idea of genotype-environment A) interaction. B) correlation. C) variance. D) concordance. 84) Which of the following is NOT a type of genotype-environment correlation? A) Interclass B) Active C) Passive D) Reactive 85) Winston, the son of a professional musician, grew up surrounded by many musical

instruments in his home. This is an example of a(n) A) interclass B) active C) passive D) reactive

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genotype-environment correlation.

86) Bindi is a renowned naturalist. Her parents were both park rangers and she grew up in

various national parks. Bindi's predilection to become a naturalist was most likely due to a(n) genotype-environment correlation. A) active B) positive C) negative D) passive 87) When individuals respond to someone else based on that person's genotype, there is a(n)

genotype-environment correlation. A) reactive B) interpersonal C) active D) evocative 88) Alex scores high on the neuroticism scale. He acts extremely anxious much of the time,

which causes other people to constantly try to calm him. The responses Alex elicits from others are an example of a(n) genotype-environment correlation. A) active B) reactive C) elicitive D) evocative 89) When a mother increases the number of times she holds a child because the child loves it so

much, we observe a(n) _ A) direct B) active C) passive D) reactive

genotype-environment correlation.

90) Sharon scores high on the sensation seeking scale. There is nothing she likes better then to

seek out thrills like skydiving or bungee jumping. Sharon seeks out these high-risk behaviours due to a(n) genotype-environment correlation. A) reactive B) aggressive C) active D) evocative

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91) An extravert who seeks out stimulating environments in which to work demonstrates a(n)

genotype-environment correlation. A) direct B) active C) passive D) reactive 92) Muhammad is extremely extraverted and will monopolize conversations. His girlfriend,

Trissa, does a good job of forcing Muhammad to let other people get a few words into the conversation. Muhammad's incessant talkativeness and Trissa's ability to do something about it is an example of a genotype-environment correlation. A) passive B) restrained C) negative D) positive 93) Sal always tries to decide the team's strategy. Over time, the rest of the team works to let

everybody have a voice in the team strategy. This is an example of a(n) genotypeenvironment correlation. A) positive B) negative C) reactive D) active 94)

aim to identify specific genes associated with personality traits. A) Adoption studies B) Molecular genetics C) Twin studies D) Behavioural genetics

95) The gene DRD4 has been associated with A) neuroticism. B) novelty seeking. C) sexual orientation. D) traditionalism.

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96) Individuals with so-called "long repeat" versions of the DRD4 gene tend to be relatively

unresponsive to the effects of A) dopamine. B) epinephrine. C) serotonin. D) acetylcholine. 97) Most studies linking a specific gene to personality A) fail to find a relationship. B) find that the gene accounts for a small percentage of variance. C) find that the gene accounts for a moderate percentage of variance. D) find that the gene accounts for a large percentage of variance. 98) The search for the discovery of specific genes that are responsible for personality traits is

called

genetics. A) molecular B) behavioural C) molar D) univariate

99) It is unlikely that a single gene will ever be found that explains more than a

percentage

of variation in personality. A) small B) marginal C) moderate D) large 100)

Based on the molecular genetic research done to date, we can speculate that A) personality is probably not related to genes. B) most traits are caused by a single gene plus the environment. C) the genetic component of a personality trait is likely the result of many genes. D) genes are more important than the environment in shaping personality.

101)

The idea that personality is determined primarily by socialization and parenting is called A) eugenics. B) the nature-nurture debate. C) the equal environments assumption. D) environmentalism.

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102)

The idea that genes contribute to personality is A) unsupported by research. B) more accepted today than it was 10 years ago. C) less accepted today than it was 10 years ago. D) a branch of environmentalism.

103)

The finding that a change in behaviour is a due to a change in gene expression resulting from an environmental effect would indicate what type of mechanism? A) shared environmental B) molecular genetic C) genotype-environment correlation D) epigenetic

104)

You are a researcher studying the effects of the environment on personality and behaviour. In addition to examining possible evidence of genotype-environment interactions and genotype-environment correlations, what else should you examine? A) molecular measures B) epigenetic effects C) genetic mutations D) reactive correlations

105)

Which of the following personality traits has NOT been associated with epigenetic markers in research? A) anxiety B) risk taking C) openness to experience D) stress reactivity

106)

A researcher is trying to understand whether differences in early life environments are associated with differences in gene expression relevant to stress reactivity. This researcher is interested in looking at A) genetics. B) epigenetics. C) passive genotype-environment correlations. D) active genotype environment correlations.

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107)

As a researcher, which approach would you need to take in research if you were interested in identifying specific genes associated with the Big Five traits? A) Molecular genetics B) Epigenetics C) Heritability estimation D) Genotype-environment correlation

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 6 1) A 2) C 3) B 4) B 5) B 6) C 7) A 8) D 9) A 10) D 11) B 12) C 13) C 14) A 15) A 16) B 17) C 18) A 19) D 20) C 21) A 22) D 23) B 24) C 25) A 26) C 27) A 28) B 29) B 30) A 31) C 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) D 36) A 37) C

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38) C 39) D 40) A 41) B 42) B 43) C 44) B 45) A 46) C 47) D 48) C 49) B 50) D 51) B 52) A 53) A 54) B 55) C 56) B 57) C 58) B 59) B 60) B 61) A 62) A 63) B 64) A 65) B 66) C 67) C 68) C 69) D 70) D 71) B 72) B 73) C 74) A 75) A 76) B 77) A

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78) B 79) B 80) C 81) B 82) B 83) B 84) A 85) C 86) D 87) A 88) B 89) D 90) C 91) B 92) C 93) B 94) B 95) B 96) A 97) B 98) A 99) A 100) 101) 102) 103) 104) 105) 106) 107)

C D B D B C B A

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Chapter 7 Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Phineas Gage's personality became after his brain was penetrated by an iron rod in an accident. A) agreeable and conscientious B) obstinate and capricious C) extraverted and neurotic D) extraordinarily conventional 2) Unlike Phineas Gage, Canadian brain injury patient Kent Cochrane A) maintained his polite and easygoing nature. B) became violent and aggressive. C) lived the life that he probably would have lived had he not been injured. D) increased in his extraverted and sociable ways. 3) Patient K. C.'s final brain injury had its most significant effect on his A) language skills. B) spatial reasoning. C) intelligence. D) episodic memory. 4) An advantage of the physiological approach to personality is that physiology A) is easy to measure. B) can be measured mechanically and reliably. C) is the most important part of personality. D) is the same for all people. 5) Most physiological psychologists would agree that A) physiology is destiny. B) physiology does not change over time. C) physiology is one cause of personality. D) physiology determines behaviour.

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6) Most physiological personality psychologists today focus on A) body types. B) physiological systems. C) the four humors. D) telemetry. 7) Sensors placed on the surface of the skin can be used to measure A) brain waves, cardiovascular measures, and electrodermal activity. B) neurotransmitters. C) dopamine level. D) telemetry. 8) Electrodermal activity measures A) alpha waves. B) how much sweat is present on the skin. C) cardiovascular activity. D) actual biological substrates of personality. 9) Measuring the amount of electricity that passes between two electrodes placed on a person's

skin measures A) cardiovascular reactivity. B) electrocardiogram activity. C) electrodermal activity. D) electroencephalogram activity. 10) Some individuals have spontaneous electrodermal responses even when in a resting state in a

quiet room. The personality traits most consistently associated with these nonspecific electrodermal responses are A) extroversion and openness to experience. B) anxiety and neuroticism. C) sensation seeking and aggression. D) impulsivity and psychoticism. 11) Which of the following best indicates cardiovascular activity? A) Skin conductance B) Alpha waves C) Electrodermal activity D) Blood pressure

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12) To obtain an accurate measure of cardiovascular activity researchers typically A) measure the number of heartbeats per minute. B) measure skin conductance between heartbeats. C) measure the intervals between heartbeats. D) measure the average systolic blood pressure. 13) The increase in blood pressure observed in response to stress is an indication of A) cardiovascular reactivity. B) alpha waves. C) skin conductance. D) hormonal activity. 14) People with Type A personality show A) lower levels of cardiovascular reactivity. B) higher levels of cardiovascular reactivity. C) higher levels of electrodermal activity. D) lower levels of electrodermal activity. 15) Carlos is very competitive, hostile, impatient, and has a strong level of cardiac reactivity.

Carlos most likely has a A) mesomorphic B) Type A C) impulsive D) reactive

personality.

16) Jin, a Type A personality, suffers from chronic cardiovascular activity. He should be careful

as these behaviours may contribute to A) cancer proneness. B) coronary artery disease. C) chronic diabetes. D) Crohn's disease. 17) Electrical activity in the brain is measured with A) cardiovascular reactivity. B) the electrocardiogram. C) skin conductance. D) the electroencephalogram or EEG.

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18) Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) is used by psychologists to study A) the portions of the brain that are active while performing a task. B) vascular system in humans during stress. C) how much magnetic activity can be measured on a person's skin. D) assess how quickly blood flows through the bloodstream. 19) Monique is shown some pictures with very negative content. Activity in the frontal brain

would indicate that she may have the personality trait of A) extroversion. B) neuroticism. C) quarrelsomeness. D) sensation seeking. 20) According to Eysenck, _ is related to low physiological arousal. A) extraversion B) introversion C) the Behavioural Activation System D) the Behavioural Inhibition System 21) A person who is sociable, outgoing, venturesome, and easily bored A) has a Type A personality. B) is an introvert. C) is an extravert. D) would score high on harm avoidance. 22) Which of the following physiological mechanisms is thought to control overall cortical

arousal? A) Parasympathetic nervous system B) Ascending reticular activating system or ARAS C) Behavioural activation system or BAS D) Behavioural inhibition system or BIS 23) According to Hebb's theory, there is a(n)

state of arousal for every task that will lead to the highest level of performance for each individual. A) marginal B) optimal C) maximal D) progressive

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24) Which of the following is NOT part of Hebb's theory about "optimal levels of arousal"? A) A person can be too aroused to perform well. B) A person has the same optimal level of arousal for all stimuli. C) A person can perform poorly because they are not sufficiently aroused. D) Different activities have different optimal levels of arousal. 25) According to Eysenck, introverts avoid social situations because A) they do not like people. B) they also score high on measures of anxiety. C) they have too much monoamine oxidase. D) they are likely to become over aroused in social situations. 26) According to Eysenck, extraverts seek out social situations and stimulation as they A) need the arousal of social situations. B) have high levels of anxiety when alone. C) have overactive ascending reticular activating systems. D) have greater impulse control when in social situations. 27) Eysenck's revised theory of extraversion suggests that introverts and extraverts differ in A) baseline level of arousal. B) their arousal response. C) maximal level of arousal. D) behavioural activating systems. 28) The following were all findings of Russell Geen's study of introverts and extraverts EXCEPT A) introverts preferred lower levels of arousal than extraverts. B) extraverts and introverts had different levels of baseline arousal. C) introverts performed better under conditions of low arousal. D) extraverts performed better when they chose their own level of arousal. 29) Which name is most associated with the reinforcement sensitivity theory? A) Pavlov B) Eysenck C) Gray D) Zuckerman

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30) International research using fMRI technology has demonstrated that in order to understand

other people's behaviour, the human brain does which of the following? A) It uses schemas to fill in missing information. B) It develops its own model of human personality. C) It perceives information that is in line with preconceived notions about the personalities of others. D) It incorporates information from the environment to determine situational factors. 31) Which of the following is evidence that the brain develops its own model of personality? A) Different people appear to use the same brain regions to code for the same personality

traits. B) When interpreting personality, the frontal cortex appears to be most active. C) Emotional centres in the brain are consistently activated according to the traits observed in others. D) Different brain regions appear code for different personality traits. 32) According to Gray,

_ is responsive to cues for incentives, rewards, and approach behaviour. A) the behavioural activation system B) the behavioural inhibition system C) dopamine D) he fight-flight-freeze system

33) According to Gray, _ is responsible for resolving goal conflict. A) the behavioural activation system B) the behavioural inhibition system C) the fight-flight-freeze system D) frontal brain asymmetry 34) According to Gray,

_ is responsive to aversive stimuli that are immediately threatening

or punishing. A) the behavioural inhibition system B) the fight-flight-freeze system C) monoamine oxidase D) the behavioural activation system

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35) In Gray's model of personality, individuals with a reactive behavioural inhibition system are

prone to experience A) frustration and anger. B) anxiety and rumination. C) fear. D) changes in MAO levels. 36) Individuals with a reactive behavioural activating system may be very A) extraverted. B) impulsive. C) conscientious. D) psychopathic. 37) According to Gray’s original theory, a person who scores high on extraversion in Eysenck's

model will also score high on A) anxiety. B) Type A personality. C) cardiovascular reactivity. D) impulsivity. 38) According to Gray, a person who displays the traits of fear-proneness and avoidance, as seen

in some clinical disorders, would likely have an overactive A) fight-flight-freeze system. B) behavioural inhibition system. C) behavioural activation system. D) cardiovascular system. 39) Most of Gray's research A) was done on the brains of animals. B) used questionnaires. C) used measures of electrodermal activity. D) was done on university students. 40) In Gray's original theory of personality, anxiety and impulsivity were related to A) emotional stability and openness to experience. B) psychoticism and extraversion. C) sensation seeking and liberalism. D) reinforcement and punishment.

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41) Individuals with high scores on the behavioural activating scale perform better when they are

working A) to obtain a reward. B) to avoid a punishment. C) alone on a task. D) in a group on a task. 42) According to Gray's theory, people in jails probably A) score high on measures of anxiety. B) lack sufficient levels of dopamine. C) have strong behavioural activation systems. D) have strong behavioural inhibition systems. 43) Sheri wants to get her partner, Kabir, to finish waxing the car before they go out for the

evening. Being a student of Jeffery Gray's theory of personality, Sheri knows that the best way to get her impulsive partner to complete the task is to A) go about her business because she knows Kabir will finish waxing the car on his own. B) promise to reward him with his favourite dinner if he finishes waxing the car. C) threaten to not make dinner if he does not complete the wax job. D) yell at Kabir every time he starts to slack off from working on the wax job. 44)

tend to take more risks and engage in more exciting activities. A) People who score high on introversion B) People who score high on sensation seeking C) People who score high on Type A personality D) People with weak nervous systems

45) Bored people may seek out mild stimulation to A) invigorate their nervous systems. B) reach an optimal level of arousal. C) avoid a much higher level of stimulation. D) to reduce tension in their systems. 46) Hebb's theory of an optimal level of arousal was controversial as it hypothesized that

individuals A) seek out tension and stimulation as well as try to reduce tension in the body. B) seek out higher levels of tension without a means for reducing that tension in the body. C) cannot maintain an optimal low arousal for significant period of time. D) are punished when the individual is not in a state of optimal arousal.

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47) Zuckerman found that people found sensory deprivation particularly unpleasant. A) who score on introversion scales B) with more activation in the left hemisphere C) who were sensation seekers D) who scored high on harm avoidance 48) There is a

correlation between scores on Zuckerman's sensation seeking scale and Eysenck's trait of extraversion. A) very low positive B) marginally negative C) moderately strong positive D) very strong negative

49) Research has found that tend to score lower on sensation seeking scales. A) people who enjoy skydiving B) people who have more sexual partners C) students who volunteer for unconventional psychology experiments D) people who endure sensory deprivation conditions for long periods of time 50) Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria for gambling disorder? A) the persistent need to gamble B) a need to gamble with increasing amounts of money C) loss of sleep due to preoccupation with gambling D) making repeated and unsuccessful efforts to control or stop gambling 51) Problem gambling has been associated with which two personality traits? A) impulsiveness and sensation-seeking B) impulsiveness and substance use C) sensation-seeking and extraversion D) impulsiveness and aggression 52) Research suggests that problem gambling shares a similar genetic risk factor with A) anxiety disorders. B) addictive disorders. C) depression. D) posttraumatic stress disorder.

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53) Canadian researchers at the Centre for Gambling Research have demonstrated that

receptors in the brain are associated with problem gambling. A) oxytocin B) adrenaline C) neurotransmitter D) dopamine 54) Research by Dr. Clark at the Centre for Gambling Research has shown that problem

gamblers may be especially motivated by A) aversion to loss. B) a strong preference for wins and near-wins. C) aversion to near-wins and near-losses. D) a preference for near-losses. 55) The enzyme monoamine oxidase works by A) blocking too many neurotransmitters from entering the synaptic cleft. B) acting as a conductor to facilitate the transmission of neurotransmitters between

neurons. C) manufacturing neurotransmitters inside the neuron. D) breaking down neurotransmitters after a nerve impulse has passed. 56) If there is too little monoamine oxide present A) too much transmission will take place between the nerves. B) not enough neurotransmitters will be produced in the nervous system. C) the neurons will fire at a slow rate, inhibiting behaviour. D) the lack of oxides will damage the nervous system. 57) Monoamine oxidase acts upon the nervous system by A) maximizing B) inhibiting C) optimizing D) moderating

neurotransmission.

58) Monoamine oxidase A) breaks down neurotransmitters. B) facilitates nerve transmissions. C) is linked to cardiovascular reactivity. D) holds neurons together.

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59) According to Zuckerman, A) sensation seekers; low B) introverts; low C) sensation seekers; high D) extraverts; low 60) The neurotransmitter A) norepinephrine B) serotonin C) dopamine D) monoamine oxide

have

levels of monoamine oxidase.

is associated with feeling pleasure.

61) Drugs such as Prozac and Zoloft act to block the reuptake of A) norepinephrine. B) serotonin. C) dopamine. D) monoamine oxidase. 62) Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in activating the sympathetic nervous

system for fight-or-flight responses? A) Serotonin B) Dopamine C) Norepinephrine D) Monoamine oxide 63) Who of the following associated specific neurotransmitters with personality traits? A) Eysenck B) Pavlov C) Gray D) Cloninger 64) Which of the following is NOT a trait in Cloninger's tridimensional personality model? A) Harm avoidance B) Sensation seeking C) Novelty seeking D) Reward dependence

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65) According to Cloninger, the trait of novelty seeking is related to low levels of A) norepinephrine. B) serotonin. C) dopamine. D) monoamine oxidase. 66) Initially increased levels of serotonin may result in , but over time may lead to A) high levels of anxiety; decreased vulnerability to overreacting to stress B) strong euphoric states; generally increased happiness C) high levels of depression; modal levels of euphoria D) low sensation seeking; high vulnerability to stress

67) Individuals who score high on harm avoidance can be described as A) energetic, outgoing, and optimistic. B) cautious, inhibited, and apprehensive. C) shy, paranoid, and tense. D) happy, positive, and extroverted. 68) People who score high on the trait of

are persistent and continue to work in situations

in which others would likely give up. A) extraversion B) novelty seeking C) reward dependence D) sensation seeking 69) Recent work in the area of genetics and personality has led researchers to conclude that A) there is a one-to-one correspondence between genes and personality traits. B) there are a large number of genes involved in the creation of any single personality

trait. C) only genes associated with neurotransmitters are responsible for the creation of personality traits. D) genes appear to exist in bipolar hairs on the chromosomes and affect behaviour in opposing ways. 70) Cloninger's model of personality has much in common with all of these models of

personality EXCEPT A) Wiggins' circumplex model of personality. B) Eysenck's three-dimensional model of personality. C) Gray's reinforcement sensitivity theory. D) Zuckerman's model of sensation seeking.

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71) Which of the following traits is most related to biological rhythms? A) Extraversion B) Sensation seeking C) Morningness-eveningness D) Impulsivity 72) A person who is deprived of time cues in the environment to influence behaviours or biology

is said to be in time. A) showing frontal asymmetry B) free running C) off track D) symmetrical 73) Which of the following has been shown to fluctuate with a circadian rhythm? A) Body temperature B) Extraversion C) Frontal asymmetry D) Serotonin 74) A person with a circadian rhythm that is longer than 24 hours will score higher on

scales. A) B) C) D)

eveningness sensation-seeking harm avoidance morningness

75) The trait of morningness-eveningness A) often changes over time. B) remains stable over time. C) has been studied only in North America. D) is correlated with anxiety. 76) A study discussed in the text showed that roommates who scored similarly on the trait of

liked each other more than roommates who were mismatched on this trait. A) extraversion B) anxiety C) morningness-eveningness D) achievement motivation

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77) Drinking caffeinated coffee in the morning will provide a greater performance boost to this

group than if they drink coffee in the evening. A) People with greater left-hemisphere activation B) People with a greater right-hemisphere activation C) People scoring high on morningness D) People scoring high on eveningness 78) Qiang flies non-stop from San Francisco to London. He finds he has little trouble with the

time change. Most likely Qiang is a(n) A) novelty-seeking type. B) evening type. C) extraverted type. D) diurnal type. 79) Disruptions in sleep-wake cycles due to long airline flights that pass through many time

zones are best tolerated by A) Morning types, if the flights are eastbound. B) Evening types, if the flights are westbound. C) Morning types, regardless of the direction of the flight. D) Evening types, regardless of the direction of the flight. 80) The greater the alpha wave activity in the brain, the A) greater the level of harm avoidance is at a given time. B) lesser the amount of symmetrical brain activity is at a given time. C) greater the amount of norepinephrine is at a given time. D) lesser the brain activity is at a given time. 81) An electroencephalograph measures A) alpha waves. B) skin conductance. C) cardiovascular reactivity. D) morningness-eveningness. 82) People who have higher levels of activation in the

hemisphere of the brain tend to

have more . A) right; positive emotions B) right; sexual partners C) left; positive emotions D) left; sexual partners

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83) A study by Fox and Davidson showed that infants who reacted more strongly to bitter

solutions placed in their mouths A) had more activation in the left hemispheres than in the right hemispheres of their brains. B) had more activation in the right hemispheres than in the left hemispheres of their brains. C) were more likely to be morning types than evening types. D) tended to score lower on activity scales than less sensitive infants did. 84) Test-retest correlations of frontal asymmetry have been shown to be A) weak and positive. B) strong and positive. C) weak and negative. D) strong and negative. 85) If a person responds to an amusing film with more positive emotions than average, that

person is likely to A) be a morning type. B) be an evening type. C) have more activation in the right hemisphere. D) have more activation in the left hemisphere. 86) Increased activation of the right hemisphere of the brain has been found to be related to

increased levels of A) cortisol B) norepinephrine C) serotonin D) dopamine

in both monkeys and 6-month-old children.

87) A person who has greater right hemispheric activation would likely report more

in response to unpleasant stimuli compared to a person with greater left hemispheric activation. A) pleasant emotions B) distress C) anger D) sadness

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88) fMRI research by Hassabis and colleagues (2014) has revealed that A) we all develop the same internal working models of personality. B) the hippocampus is responsible for creating internal models of personality. C) different brain regions actually code for different personality traits in other people. D) the lateral temporal and posterior cingulate cortex are responsible for affective style. 89) Research by Hassabis and colleagues (2014) found that A) the brain uses its own models of personality to predict the behaviour of others. B) the brain relies primarily on social cues to predict the behaviour of others. C) the brain continuously adjusts its internal models of the traits of others. D) the brain relies entirely on environmental or situational factors when predicting

behaviour. 90) Measuring the amount of communication or interaction between two brain regions would

provide information about what aspect of brain physiology? A) structure B) function C) connectivity D) electrical activity 91) You are interested in understanding whether the volume of various brain regions is

associated with the Big Five personality traits. What aspect of brain activity are you studying? A) function B) structure C) electrical activity D) connectivity 92) Examining whether the reward centers in the brain are more active during specific tasks or

behaviours would provide information about what aspect of brain physiology? A) structure B) Connectivity C) electrical activity D) function

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93) Based on previous research, what would you conclude about people who show more

activation in their brain reward centres when looking at pictures of themselves? A) They're likely higher in neuroticism. B) They're likely higher in self-esteem. C) They're likely higher in agreeableness. D) They're likely lower in self-esteem. 94) You are a researcher examining EEG patterns of infants' brains, and you find that they show

higher right-sided activation when a stranger approaches. What else would you expect these same infants to display in response to a stranger? A) Higher dopamine levels B) Higher oxytocin levels C) Higher connectivity between left and right hemispheres D) Higher cortisol levels 95) Of the following statements, which one best summarizes the association between human

physiology and personality? A) Many physiological variables have been found to make up the substrate that serves as the biological underpinning of personality traits. B) Many personality traits are correlated with physiological variables, so it can be assumed these two aspects of human functioning are associated on the biological level. C) Many personality traits are correlated with physiological variables, but these variables are assumed to be more than just correlates of traits; they are assumed to underlie the behaviours that make up personality traits. D) There is no clear understanding of the relationship between personality and physiological variables.

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 7 1) B 2) A 3) D 4) B 5) C 6) B 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) B 11) D 12) C 13) A 14) B 15) B 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) A 21) C 22) B 23) B 24) B 25) D 26) A 27) B 28) D 29) C 30) B 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) B 35) B 36) B 37) D

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38) A 39) A 40) D 41) A 42) C 43) B 44) B 45) B 46) A 47) C 48) C 49) D 50) C 51) A 52) B 53) D 54) B 55) D 56) A 57) B 58) A 59) A 60) C 61) B 62) C 63) D 64) B 65) C 66) A 67) B 68) C 69) B 70) A 71) C 72) B 73) A 74) A 75) B 76) C 77) D

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78) B 79) D 80) D 81) A 82) C 83) A 84) B 85) D 86) A 87) B 88) C 89) A 90) C 91) B 92) D 93) B 94) D 95) C

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Chapter 8 Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) We are all the products of a long line of ancestors that successfully and . A) evolved to near perfection; were physically fit B) survived to old age; were strong C) left a long list of ancestors; mate guarded D) survived to reproductive age; reproduced 2)

refers to the idea that more adaptive variants of an organism replace less adaptive variants of an organism over time. A) Natural selection B) Xenophobia C) Effective polygyny D) Functionality

3) The process called natural selection is sometimes also called survival selection as individuals

must overcome the A) hostile forces of nature. B) impediments to survival. C) paleontological obstacles. D) natural adaptations. 4) Food shortages, disease, and extreme weather are all examples of A) adaptations. B) domain specificity. C) byproducts of adaptation. D) hostile forces of nature. 5)

are inherited solutions to survival and reproductive problems. A) Hostile forces of nature B) Adaptations C) Outcomes D) Adaptive problems

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Darwin proposed the theory of sexual selection to account for A) how organisms respond to the hostile forces of nature. B) genetic diversity. C) traits that seem to impede survival. D) Freudian theory. 7) Traits that lead to mating benefits rather than survival benefits are probably A) the result of sexual selection. B) the result of survival selection. C) byproducts of adaptation. D) evolutionary noise. 8) Lena is going out to a baby shower with her girlfriends. Even though there will not be any

potential partners around, she goes out of her way to make herself as attractive as she possibly can. This is an example of competition based on selection. A) intersexual B) intrasexual C) innersexual D) inertsexual 9) Eric competes to make more money than the rest of his male friends. When he pursues the

most attractive woman as his partner, this is an example of A) intersexual B) intrasexual C) natural D) mate

selection.

10) Missy believes that men appreciate a woman with very attractive legs. She works out

frequently to keep her body in shape and before she goes out for the evening puts on a dress and pair of shoes that accentuate her attractive legs. Missy is reacting to the pressure exerted by men on women. A) sexual B) intersexual selection C) adaptive D) intrasexual selection

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11) A peacock's elaborate plumage is probably the result of A) intersexual B) intrasexual C) natural D) adaptive

selection.

12) Craig works out for hours on end because he believes that possible dating partners prefer

muscular guys. He is reacting to the males. A) intersexual B) intrasexual C) innersexual D) inertsexual 13)

14)

selection pressure exerted by human females on

occur(s) when members of one sex choose mates based on their preferences for particular characteristics in the opposite sex. A) Intersexual selection B) Intrasexual selection C) Reactive heritabilities D) Adaptive byproducts are the smallest intact unit that can be inherited by offspring. A) DNA molecules B) Adaptations C) Genes D) Byproducts of adaptations

15) Differential gene production is defined as A) the number of different genes an individual passes on to their offspring. B) an individual's reproductive success relative to that of other individuals of the species. C) the total number of different genes produced by a species in the gene pool. D) the ability of an individual to produce different genes in different environments. 16) These are all components of differential gene reproduction EXCEPT A) successful mate competition. B) success at being chosen as a mate. C) successful group selection. D) successful survival skills.

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17) Survival is only important inasmuch as it is necessary for A) fitness. B) adaptation. C) senescence. D) reproduction. 18) Evolutionary theorists speculate that the mechanism of altruism may have developed to

increase A) altruism. B) reproductive value. C) inclusive fitness. D) adaptive alliance formation. 19) According to the inclusive fitness theory, the probability that you will help people depends

most on A) whether or not they are wealthy. B) how genetically related they are to you. C) whether or not they are physically attractive. D) whether or not they are potential mates. 20) Which of the following is probably not an adaptation? A) Desire for fatty foods. B) Mate preferences. C) Variations in the shape of human ears. D) Fear of snakes. 21) Anything that impedes survival or reproduction is a(n) A) evolutionary block. B) adaptive problem. C) evolutionary byproduct. D) systematic variation. 22)

emerge from and interact with recurrent structures of the world in a manner that solves adaptive problems and aids in reproductive success. A) Strategies B) Adaptations C) Byproducts D) Dimorphisms

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23) Which of the following is an example of an adaptation that is probably NOT adaptive in

today's environments? A) Social anxiety B) Xenophobia C) Sexual selection D) Sexual desire 24) The incidental effects produced by adaptations are called A) evolutionary byproducts. B) random variations. C) domain-specific adaptations. D) functional adaptations. 25) To determine whether something is an adaptation or a byproduct requires knowledge of A) the range of functioning for the adaptation. B) the reproductive success gained by the adaptation. C) the adaptation and a description of its nature. D) all possible byproducts of the adaptation. 26) Characteristics such as the shape of the human earlobe are most likely A) auxiliary adaptations. B) random variations. C) evolutionary byproducts. D) functional adaptations. 27) The idea that adaptations solve specific, as opposed to general, adaptive problems is known

as A) B) C) D)

domain specificity. functionality. numerousness. species typicality.

28) If we successfully selected our mates based on our food preferences the mechanism of

would NOT be functioning. A) cognitive complexity B) domain specificity C) species typicality D) prototypicality

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29) The idea of

implies/imply that we have mechanisms that are specialized in solving certain adaptive problem an individual encounters. A) cognitive complexity B) domain specificity C) evolutionary niches D) prototypicality

30) The idea that adaptive problems accomplish specific adaptive goals is known as A) specificity. B) functionality. C) specialization. D) attenuation. 31) The "top down" approach or theory driven method of empirical research is also called the

approach. A) inductive reasoning B) analysis of variance C) deductive reasoning D) regression analysis 32) Researchers using the approach observe a phenomenon and then develop a theory. A) inductive reasoning B) deductive reasoning C) experimental D) correlational 33)

is probably the result of the human evolutionary history of living in social groups. A) Sexual desire B) Our "sweet tooth" C) The need to belong D) Sexual dimorphism

34)

may have evolved as a mechanism that functions as a species-typical mechanism that prevents individuals from being socially excluded from a group. A) Altruism B) Inclusive fitness C) Social anxiety D) Psychopathology

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35) Research showing that group cohesion increases when resources or survival depend on group

membership help support the idea A) of sexual selection. B) that humans have a need to belong. C) of survival selection. D) that humans have evolved universal emotions. 36) Sayid is very loyal to his old army unit. They have reunions and regularly keep in touch with

each other. Membership in Sayid's army unit most likely has elicited war veterans. A) a strong need to belong B) strong memory biases C) strong altruistic tendencies D) strong militaristic bonds 37) Evolutionary theorists believe the need to belong is at the A) human nature B) individual nature C) individual differences D) sex differences uniqueness

in that group of

level of analysis.

38) Research on helping and altruism suggest that people A) help anyone in real need regardless of genetic relatedness. B) help others by how closely they are genetically related to them. C) help all genetically relatives roughly the same. D) always help assist genetically related relatives when asked. 39) Research on altruism has found that younger individuals are helped

relatives and older individuals are helped A) less; less B) more; less C) more; more D) less; more

than 45-year-old than 45-year-old relatives in everyday tasks.

40) In life or death situations, the primary variable that predicts helping behaviour is the

the person in need of assistance. A) age B) sex C) ethnicity D) environment

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41) Research suggests that in a famine situation, A) infants B) older children C) adults D) elderly adults

_ are most likely to receive help.

42) Research by Paul Ekman and his colleagues has demonstrated that emotional expression A) differs widely across cultures. B) can be identified by people in diverse cultures. C) can be identified by people in similar cultures only. D) serve no adaptive function. 43) Which of the following is NOT an adaptive problem faced by women? A) Finding a good mate B) Securing resources C) Parental uncertainty D) Mate guarding 44) Guy shows off his new baby to the neighbours. The baby looks more like Guy's best friend

Philippe than Guy. Guy could be doubting his A) child's attachment. B) certainty of paternity. C) parenting skills. D) neighbour's judgment. 45) From an evolutionary perspective, females will most generally prefer males who A) are extremely attractive, even if they are not wealthy. B) accrue resources and invest them in a particular woman. C) are assertive and aggressive towards other males. D) have large-sized sexual cells (gametes). 46) Research on homicides indicates that A) males; females B) males; males C) females; males D) females; females

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are most likely to kill

47) More homicides can be explained by A) intrasexual competition B) intersexual competition C) frequency-dependent selection D) the human need to belong

than any of the other evolutionary phenomenon.

48) If the sex ratios between males and females are about the same and one man has several

mates the other men must, by default, be without a mate. This is an example of polygyny. A) strategic B) effective C) selective D) differential 49) The idea that some males will have more offspring than others is best described as A) intersexual selection. B) intrasexual selection. C) survival selection. D) effective polygyny. 50) Which species has the greatest degree of effective polygyny? A) Elephant seals B) Chimpanzees C) Humans D) Dogs 51) Evolutionary theory predicts sex differences in jealousy due to A) sexual dimorphism. B) effective polygyny. C) paternal uncertainty. D) intrasexual competition. 52) Buss and his colleagues found that when men imagined that their partners were committing

sexual infidelity A) they became very aggressive and physically violent. B) they began plotting their revenge on their partners. C) their heart rates and skin conductance levels increased. D) they had increased activity in the parasympathetic nervous system.

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53) According to evolutionary theory, a man would be most upset by his female mate's A) sexual fantasies B) emotional infidelity C) sexual dimorphism D) sexual infidelity

54) According to evolutionary theory, which of the following is most important to a woman?

That her mate is A) physically attractive. B) emotionally faithful. C) conscientious. D) sexually faithful. 55) Males and females value

equally in potential mates, but males place more value on

. A) B) C) D)

physical attractiveness; earning potential physical attractiveness; a good personality a good personality; physical attractiveness earning potential; physical attractiveness

56) Buss and his colleagues have found that females place more importance on earning potential

in potential mates than males do A) in the majority of the cultures that were studied. B) only in the individualistic western cultures that were studied. C) in cultures where men control more resources than women. D) in the traditionally paternalistic cultures that were studied. 57) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) may have evolved in our ancestors because A) restlessness gave nomads a survival advantage. B) being overactive was a sign of strength and stamina to potential mates. C) it allowed for greater variability in early societies. D) it contributed to the formation of additional roles in nomad societies.

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58) Evolutionary support for the adaptive role of hyperactivity and restlessness has been found in A) research demonstrating significant cross-cultural variation in the rate of ADHD in

adolescents. B) studies showing that the DRD4-7R gene mutation, which has been linked to risktaking, is more common in migratory cultures than settled ones. C) research findings which suggest increased survival and life expectancy for children diagnosed with ADHD. D) the recent identification of the DRD4-7R gene in over 30% of the human population. 59) The nomadic Ariaal tribes people in Kenya are an ideal population for understanding the

evolutionary role of A) aggression. B) extraversion. C) boredom. D) restlessness. 60) Evolutionary psychologists have placed comparatively little emphasis in their research efforts

upon

. A) the human nature level of analysis. B) sex differences in behaviour. C) individual differences in behaviour. D) species typical phenomenon.

61) An explanation for individual differences in behaviour from an evolutionary perspective is

that A) individual differences are genetic errors across individuals. B) they are the result of environmental differences that affect species-typical

mechanisms. C) they are the result of differential intersexual selection in the environment. D) they are random variations in species-typical psychological mechanisms. 62) The presence or absence of a father during early childhood is an example of

that is

associated with individual differences. A) an environmental effect B) an adaptive self-assessment C) a frequency-dependent strategy D) sex-role effect

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63) Something that is is a secondary consequence of a heritable trait. A) intersexually selected B) intrasexually selected C) reactively heritable D) an adaptation 64) The idea that a man might decide on a particular social strategy based on how he views

himself is an example of A) an environmental effect. B) an adaptive self-assessment. C) a frequency-dependent alternative strategy. D) xenophobia. 65) In some contexts two or more heritable variants evolve in a population. This is called A) frequency-dependent selection. B) adaptive self-assessment. C) xenophobia. D) double-shot hypothesis. 66) Some women prefer mates who will invest in their offspring, while other women prefer

mates with good genes. This suggests A) an environmental effect that influences personality. B) an adaptive self-assessment. C) frequency-dependent selection strategies. D) sex differences in jealousy. 67) Competition that tends to be very intense among individuals using the same strategy may

lead to the development of A) adaptive self-assessments. B) frequency-dependent alternative strategies. C) double-shot hypotheses. D) variant competitive strategies. 68) Women who pursue an unrestricted mating strategy prefer men

than women who

pursue a restricted mating strategy. A) who will invest significantly more in their children B) who are significantly more physically attractive C) who have a much better set of personality traits D) who will make strong commitments to their relationship

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69) Rhonda only dates men that she finds to be extremely physically attractive. She is not as

concerned about having a man who will commit to a relationship with her, or much about the man's past relationships. Rhonda is most likely pursuing a(n) mating strategy. A) restricted B) unrestricted C) shallow D) independent 70) Katie believes in long-term relationships and does not believe in premarital sex, refusing to

date anyone who has already been in a long-term relationship or who has been sexually active. She is most likely pursuing a(n) mating strategy. A) restricted B) indiscriminate C) unrestricted D) coy 71) The theory of frequency-dependent selection would state that as the number of women in the

population use a restricted mating strategy for attracting men the A) number of sexy sons in the population will increase. B) number of men willing to invest in their children will increase. C) average success of the restricted mating strategy will decline. D) restricted mating strategy will become a human nature level characteristic. 72) Psychopathy may be an effective strategy for some people in the population to be

reproductively successful based on the A) frequency-dependent B) mental health C) double shot D) individual differences

theory.

73) Humans may have evolved

, so that they may notice and remember those individual differences that are most relevant for solving social-adaptive problems. A) difference detecting mechanisms B) individual differences C) unrestricted mate competition D) the five-factor model of personality

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74) Which of the following is NOT a limitation of the evolutionary approach? A) Lack of knowledge about conditions during human evolution. B) Selective pressures today may be different than during most of human history. C) Different evolutionary explanations can be used to explain the same phenomenon. D) Using an inductive method to generate evolutionary based-hypotheses. 75) The notion that depression is triggered by complex social problems related to fitness and

survival describes the A) adaptive ruminative hypothesis. B) rumination hypothesis. C) demand withdrawal hypothesis. D) adaptive depression hypothesis. 76) According to Andrews, A) isolation B) social stress C) depression D) social anxiety

may have served an adaptive role in social situations.

77) Neuroimaging studies have shown that depression activates the left ventrolateral prefrontal

cortex (VLPFC), which increases the capacity of A) long-term memory. B) working memory. C) episodic memory. D) abstract reasoning. 78) Experimental research suggests that people who are

solve social dilemmas more

carefully than people. A) ruminative; non-ruminative B) non-depressed; depressed C) non-ruminative; ruminative D) depressed; non-depressed 79) According to Andrews, the best way to deal with depression is to allow an individual to A) Withdraw. B) Ruminate. C) Catastrophize. D) Take antidepressant medication.

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80) Evidence for the idea that depression is adaptive during social problems can be seen in the

tendency for people to A) show less sympathy and support towards partners who are depressed. B) show less aggression towards partners who are depressed. C) show more aggression towards partners who are depressed. D) show more anxiety about their partners who are depressed. 81) In addition to the need to belong and altruism, what other aspect of human nature would have

offered an evolutionary advantage by facilitating cooperation? A) openness to experience B) happiness C) agreeableness D) empathy 82) According to recent research, what trait is shared by chimpanzees and humans that is not

shared by other primates? A) social anxiety B) the propensity for aggression and warfare C) high activity level D) the tendency to be highly cooperative 83) You’re a researcher and you’ve just discovered a new personality trait that is correlated with

the degree to which countries around the world have experienced conflict. Which of the following would most likely explain such a correlation? A) frequency-dependent selection B) contingencies among traits C) optimal variance over time and space D) difference detecting mechanisms 84) The finding that personality differences tend to be most pronounced in highly social species

supports what idea? A) The expression of a trait can be contingent upon other traits possessed by an individual. B) The social environment provides a variety of adaptive niches in which different personalities can succeed. C) The reproductive success of a trait depends on its frequency relative to other traits in the population. D) Heritable individual differences can be maintained in a population because different values are adaptive under different conditions.

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85) According to psychologists, narcissism may have evolved in humans in order to do what? A) Aid in the pursuit of status. B) Buffer the impact of stress on health. C) Buffer the negative effects of social exclusion. D) Aid in the pursuit of communion. 86) The idea that attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) may have been maintained

over time because it was more adaptive in certain environments compared to others is consistent with what evolutionary perspective on individual differences? A) Contingencies among traits B) Frequency-dependent selection C) Optimal variance over time and space D) Environmental triggers of differences 87) Which evolutionary explanation(s) for individual differences suggests that individual

differences can arise within a single generation? A) frequency-dependent selection; contingencies among traits B) environmental triggers of differences; contingencies among traits C) environmental triggers of differences; frequency-dependent selection D) Environmental triggers of differences

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 8 1) D 2) A 3) A 4) D 5) B 6) C 7) A 8) B 9) B 10) B 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) C 15) B 16) C 17) D 18) C 19) B 20) C 21) B 22) B 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) B 27) A 28) B 29) B 30) A 31) C 32) A 33) C 34) C 35) B 36) A 37) A

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38) B 39) C 40) A 41) B 42) B 43) C 44) B 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) B 49) D 50) A 51) C 52) C 53) D 54) B 55) C 56) A 57) A 58) B 59) D 60) C 61) B 62) A 63) C 64) B 65) A 66) C 67) B 68) B 69) B 70) C 71) C 72) A 73) D 74) D 75) A 76) C 77) B

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78) D 79) B 80) B 81) D 82) B 83) C 84) B 85) A 86) C 87) B

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Chapter 9 Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The case of Sandra (who had forgotten, and later remembered, being abused by her father) is an example of A) denial. B) repression. C) sublimation. D) reaction formation. 2) Before psychoanalysis, Freud did research in the field of A) neurology. B) spiritualism. C) geology. D) philosophy. 3) The Freudian idea of A) dream analysis B) the talking cure C) free association D) case studies

is basic to most psychotherapies.

4) Lou spends most of his time thinking about Priscilla, the love of his life. This has led to Lou

neglecting his course work. From a Freudian perspective Lou's neglect of his school work most likely is due to A) his very strong libido. B) sublimation of his aggressive thoughts. C) his lack of interest in the courses. D) his fixed amount of psychic energy. 5) The death instinct is also called A) Eros. B) thanatos. C) wham. D) Zeus.

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6) The life instincts are typically called A) libido. B) Eros. C) lustatos. D) catharsis. 7) The A) B) C) D)

is the part of the mind about which the conscious mind has no awareness. ego superego conscious unconscious

8) According to Freud, the amount of psychic energy in a person A) changes when personality changes. B) increases with age. C) decreases with age. D) always remains constant. 9) Freud's idea of instincts was probably most influenced by A) Darwin. B) Galileo. C) Jung. D) Helmholtz. 10) Freud's two basic instincts are A) yin; yang B) ego; id C) sex; aggression D) love; sex 11)

and

refers to the instinct for aggression and destruction. A) The unconscious B) Libido C) Thanatos D) The superego

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12) If someone invests most of their death instinct in a socially acceptable behaviour (like

playing a sportl), Freud would expect them to be A) less aggressive in other ways. B) more aggressive in other ways. C) fixated in the oral stage. D) fixated in the anal stage. 13) Which of the following is NOT part of Freud's model of the mind? A) Conscious mind B) Preconscious mind C) Unconscious mind D) Metacognitive mind 14) According to Freud, the

mind is the part of the mind that contains thoughts and feelings of which you are currently aware. A) conscious B) preconscious C) unconscious D) metacognitive

15) According to Freud, the

mind is the part of the mind that contains all the information that you are not currently thinking about, but could easily bring to mind. A) conscious B) preconscious C) unconscious D) metacognitive

16) You are answering this question. Therefore, Freud would say the information is in the

mind. A) B) C) D)

conscious preconscious unconscious metacognitive

17) I ask you to recall your mother's maiden name. This information resides in the

mind,

according to Freud. A) conscious B) preconscious C) unconscious D) metacognitive

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18) Freud used the metaphor of a(n) A) glacier B) iceberg C) forest D) mountain

to describe the three parts of the mind.

19) According to Freud, the

mind is the part of the mind that contains unacceptable information that can only be brought into awareness with great effort. A) conscious B) preconscious C) unconscious D) metacognitive

20) Freudian slips are A) a motivated loss of coordination. B) a result of the motivated unconscious. C) true accidents that are usually socially unacceptable. D) only observed in heterosexual men. 21) Freud believed that _ occurred by accident. A) nothing B) everything C) superego development D) embarrassing things usually 22) As unconscious thoughts, feelings, and urges can take on a life of their own, Freud called this

part of the mind the A) collective B) motivated C) universal D) emotional

_ unconscious.

23) In his iceberg metaphor, Freud illustrates that the

exists entirely in the unconscious

mind. A) B) C) D)

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superego libido id superego

24) The phenomenon of 'blindsight' has been interpreted as evidence for A) the preconscious. B) the unconscious. C) bilateralization. D) the id. 25) The phenomenon of unconscious decision making is referred to by psychologists as A) contemplation-without-attention. B) the "let me think on it" effect. C) incubation. D) deliberation-without-attention. 26) Which of the following would most likely be an indicator of the id operating on an

individual's behaviour? A) Mikey has to have it, and have it right now. B) Omar knows he has to wait for his turn. C) Yousef will wait to have twice as much later. D) Chris will wait to find out what his parents think. 27) If the id cannot find the external object to satisfy its desires, it will A) search until it finds the appropriate object. B) create a fantasy object to replace the object. C) use reason and logic to substitute an alternate object. D) delegate finding the appropriate object to the superego. 28) The most primitive part of the mind is the A) ego. B) preconscious mind. C) id. D) superego. 29) Which part of the mind operates on the pleasure principle? A) Ego B) Preconscious C) Id D) Superego

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30) Thinking without the logical rules of conscious thought is known as A) primary process thinking. B) secondary process thinking. C) moral reasoning. D) defence mechanisms. 31) The process whereby an image of something unavailable is used to satisfy an urge is known

as A) B) C) D)

the id. secondary process thinking. wish fulfillment. projection.

32) Which part of personality redirects energy from potentially problematic and unacceptable

outlets into more appropriate outlets? A) Id B) Ego C) Superego D) Sublimator 33) The ego operates A) on the pleasure principle. B) on the reality principle. C) on the anxiety principle. D) with primary process thinking. 34) Which part of the mind engages in secondary process thinking? A) Id B) Ego C) Superego D) Conscious 35)

involves developing strategies for problem solving and satisfying urges. A) Secondary process thinking B) Primary process thinking C) The phallic stage D) The superego

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36) The A) B) C) D)

is concerned with making a person do what is morally right. id ego superego preconscious

37) Which of the following parts of the mind is bound by reality? A) Id B) Ego C) Superego D) Conscious 38) Which of the following statements about the id, ego, and superego is true? A) The id, ego, and superego are always interacting. B) The id, ego, and superego operate completely independently. C) The superego must manage the demands of both the ego and the id. D) The ego is always subservient to both the id and superego. 39) According to Freud,

is unpleasant and indicates that the control of the ego is

threatened. A) projection B) anxiety C) reality D) sublimation 40) A person who has a well-balanced mind, one that is free from anxiety, will typically have a A) strong superego. B) weak collective unconscious. C) strong ego. D) very weak id. 41) According to Freud, anxiety is typically the result of the control of the

_ being

threatened. A) id B) ego C) superego D) archetype

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42) Which of the following is NOT a type of anxiety described by Freud? A) Objective B) Moral C) Neurotic D) Inferiority 43) You are walking down the street and encounter a large, angry dog that growls and bares its

teeth at you. You are experiencing A) objective B) canine C) traumatic D) neurotic

anxiety.

44) Yang is lost in a major city and will likely be late for an important job interview. He is most

likely experiencing A) geographic B) objective C) neurotic D) moral

_ anxiety.

45) A conflict between the superego and the ego is experienced as A) objective B) neurotic C) moral D) social

anxiety.

46) Jess tries to be the perfect business manager. She works extraordinarily long hours, is

extremely conscientious, and tries to be a good role model to her employees. However, no matter how much praise she earns or professional awards she receives, Jess feels anxiety about her performance and is constantly worried about getting fired. A) objective B) moral C) social D) neurotic

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47) Gabe is a deacon at his church, but feels guilty that he is setting a bad example for the

congregation by enjoying an occasional beer. He is suffering from A) objective B) neurotic C) moral D) histrionic 48) A conflict between the id and the ego results in A) objective B) neurotic C) moral D) social

anxiety.

49) Anxiety that is experienced in response to an external threat was called

anxiety by

Freud. A) B) C) D) 50) The

objective neurotic moral histrionic is responsible for balancing the demands of reality and the other parts of the

mind. A) B) C) D)

superego ego id Oedipal conflict

51) The ego uses to deal with anxiety. A) fantasy B) reality C) defence mechanisms D) wish fulfillment 52) Defence mechanisms have all of these properties EXCEPT they A) operate unconsciously. B) require psychic energy. C) are the result of ego functioning. D) are secondary processes.

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53)

is the defence mechanism that prevents unacceptable thoughts, feelings, and urges from reaching consciousness. A) Repression B) Projection C) Denial D) Sublimation

54) Soo Ling refuses to believe that her boyfriend broke up with her. From a Freudian

perspective, what defence mechanism may be operating? A) Repression B) Denial C) Projection D) Reaction formation 55) Marco was in a terrible car accident at a young age, but has no memory of the event today.

According to Freudian theory, which defence mechanism is likely operating? A) Repression B) Denial C) Reaction formation D) Sublimation 56) A person who ignores some unpleasant part of the environment is exhibiting A) repression. B) denial. C) projection. D) reaction formation. 57) Daydreaming can be an expression of A) repression. B) denial. C) sublimation. D) projection. 58)

describes channeling an unacceptable impulse to a more acceptable target. A) Repression B) Denial C) Projection D) Displacement

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59) A person has no memory of a horrible accident. What defence mechanism may be at work? A) repression B) reaction formation C) regression D) projection 60) An 8-year-old girl's hatred of a mean teacher would most likely be A) projected B) rationalized C) displaced D) regressed

to a toy.

61) If a woman unconsciously redirects anger she felt toward her boss to her partner when she

returns home from work, it would be an example of A) projection. B) displacement. C) sublimation. D) reaction formation. 62) If a woman consciously redirected anger she felt toward her boss to chopping wood when she

returned home from work, it would be an example of A) projection. B) displacement. C) reaction formation. D) sublimation. 63) Making excuses or acceptable explanations for unacceptable behaviour is an example of A) reaction formation. B) displacement. C) rationalization. D) projection.

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64) A person sitting next to you in class gets a low grade on this exam. When you discuss the

exam results, the person blames their performance on the difficulty of the material, their lack of belief in psychoanalytic theory, lack of the necessity to have this knowledge in the future, belief that the material is irrelevant, etc. This student may be using the Freudian defence mechanism of to explain their poor behaviour. A) repression B) reaction formation C) regression D) rationalization 65) A man who adamantly objects to drinking alcohol even though his id loves drinking

demonstrates A) sublimation. B) reaction formation. C) projection. D) repression. 66) Recent empirical studies of repression have defined repressors as

in anxiety and

in defensiveness. A) low; low B) high; high C) high; low D) low; high 67) Recent studies of repression have shown that repressors report

anxiety and phrases. A) low; low B) high; high C) high; low D) low; high

levels of subjective levels of physiological arousal when exposed to sexual or aggressive

68) Recent studies of repression have been A) unrelated to B) generally inconsistent with C) generally consistent with D) in complete agreement

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Freud's ideas.

69) Repressors tend to have A) better B) worse C) similar D) more detailed

memories of emotional events compared to non repressors.

70) Curtis is romantically infatuated with his favourite pop singer. He has all of her recordings,

has made his apartment into a shrine for her, and reads everything he can about her. One day he happens to see her on the street and he tries to talk to her, only to be coldly rebuffed by her. Curtis goes home and throws out everything having to do with her. The defence mechanism Curtis is experiencing is A) displacement. B) projection. C) reaction formation. D) denial. 71) Someone replaces one impulse with its opposite (e.g., love for hate). What defence

mechanism may be at work? A) Repression B) Reaction formation C) Projection D) Sublimation 72) When we see negative qualities that we possess in others, it could be the result of A) displacement. B) projection. C) reaction formation. D) denial. 73) A politician who is a closeted gay man but engages in anti-gay-and-lesbian campaigns would

likely be demonstrating which defence mechanism? A) repression B) projection C) sublimation D) denial

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74) Miasha looks around her apartment and sees her clothes scattered about, her lunch dishes

sitting in the sink, and her bed unmade. When her roommates complain about her lack of cleanliness, she calls them all slobs and leaves quite angry. Miasha is using the defence mechanism of A) sublimation. B) reaction formation. C) projection. D) repression. 75) John loves to party and thinks everyone else enjoys partying as much as he does. He is

demonstrating the effect. A) Zeigarnik B) false consensus C) social facilitation D) object relations 76) According to Freud, the most adaptive defence mechanism is A) sublimation. B) reaction formation. C) projection. D) repression. 77)

refers to the channeling of unacceptable urges into socially desirable activities. A) Subcortical B) Subjugation C) Sublimation D) Substitution

78) Freud thought that the skyscrapers of New York City might be the result of A) sublimation. B) reaction formation. C) projection. D) repression. 79) A defence mechanism is probably a problem if it A) exists at all. B) interferes with one's relationships or ability to be productive. C) uses psychic energy. D) is in the conscious mind.

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80) According to Freud, if a child does not fully resolve a conflict in the oral stage, that child will

become A) repressed. B) fixated at the oral stage. C) especially messy in adulthood. D) excessively cleanly. 81) The term refers to getting stuck in a given stage of development. A) "identification" B) "symbolism" C) "fixation" D) "displacement" 82) According to Freud, which stage focuses on the sexual gratification on the mouth, lips, and

tongue? A) Oral B) Anal C) Phallic D) Latency 83) The main conflict during the A) oral B) anal C) phallic D) latency

stage is excessive pleasure versus dependency.

84) According to Freud, a person who smokes and overeats is probably fixated at the

stage. A) B) C) D)

oral anal phallic latency

85) According to Freud, a child who is fixated at the biting part of the oral stage will be

an adult. A) dependent B) messy C) hostile D) stingy

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86) During the A) oral B) anal C) phallic D) latency

stage, a child receives pleasure from expelling or retaining feces.

87) The psychosexual stage most associated with control is the A) oral B) anal C) phallic D) genital

stage.

88) Drake is very messy and refuses to clean up after himself. He may be fixated at the

stage of development, according to Freud. A) oral B) anal C) phallic D) latency 89) In which stage does a child discover that he has, or she does not have, a penis? A) Oral B) Anal C) Phallic D) Genital 90) According to Freud, children first begin to direct sexual desire outward during the

stage. A) B) C) D)

oral anal phallic genital

91) What type of personality can result from a child becoming overly dependent on parents

during the oral stage? A) oral receptive B) anal receptive C) oral aggressive D) oral dependent

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92) According to Freud, the main reason little boys give up on their sexual desire for their mother

is A) B) C) D) 93)

identification. castration anxiety. that Oedipus did too. a sexual attraction to the father.

is the process in which boys imitate and take on the values of their father. A) Identification B) Castration anxiety C) Fixation D) Penis envy

94) According to Freud, little girls blame A) Oedipus B) Electra C) their mothers D) their fathers

for the fact that they do not have a penis.

95) What type of personality can result from a child developing too much self-control during the

anal stage? A) anal expulsive B) anal retentive C) anal receptive D) anal aggressive 96) Freud believed that _ occurred during the latency period. A) very little B) superego development C) ego development D) the Electra complex 97) Puberty begins at about the same time as the A) oral B) anal C) phallic D) genital

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stage.

98) The A) B) C) D)

stage is unique in that it is not accompanied by a specific conflict. oral anal phallic genital

99) If a person is fixated at a particular stage, they A) have less psychic energy for other activities. B) will resolve that stage in adulthood. C) will be schizophrenic. D) will be better adjusted as an adult. 100)

101)

The goal of psychoanalysis is A) to make people happy. B) to make the unconscious conscious. C) to regress patients to the phallic stage. D) dream analysis. Which of the following is NOT a technique for revealing unconscious conflict? Free association Dream analysis The inkblot test Identification

A) B) C) D) 102)

involves letting one's mind wander and saying everything that comes to mind without censorship. A) Free association B) Dream analysis C) The inkblot test D) Identification

103)

Freud called the royal road to the unconscious. A) free association B) the inkblot test C) dreams D) the id

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104)

In dream analysis, Freud would interpret the A) latent content; manifest content B) manifest content; latent content C) latent content; id impulses D) free association; projective hypothesis

_ for the hidden

105)

Merindah dreams that a giant panda bear is chasing her through the mall. The giant panda bear is part of the content of the dream. A) manifest B) latent C) projective D) maladaptive

106)

According to Freud, dreams function to reduce anxiety. allow a person to release unconscious tension. fulfill unconscious desires. clarify preconscious thoughts.

A) B) C) D) 107)

The storytelling method is best described as A) an independent and self-driven method of dream analysis. B) a projective technique. C) a method for accessing manifest dream content during therapy. D) a therapeutic tool for clinicians to analyze patients' dreams.

108)

In the storytelling method of dream interpretation, the key words contained in the description of the dream represent A) the latent content of the dream. B) the manifest content of the dream. C) the dreamer's unconscious desires and wishes. D) the dreamer’s conscious desires and wishes.

109)

In the storytelling method, writing down the very first word that comes to mind when reading each original word or phrase in the dream report allows individuals to gain insight about A) the therapist's possible interpretation of the dream. B) the libido-driven content of the dream. C) the latent content of the dream. D) the manifest content of the dream.

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110)

The meaning or insight gained from a dream is often referred to as contemporary psychologists. A) wisdom B) discovery C) an 'aha' moment D) projection

111)

Canadian research showing that sexual dreams are often unrelated to sex offers support for Freud's notion of A) manifest dream content. B) latent dream content. C) the preconscious. D) the unconscious.

112)

is the idea that people reveal their personalities by their responses to ambiguous stimuli. A) Insight B) Projection C) The projective hypothesis D) Thanatos

113)

All of these are goals of projective techniques EXCEPT to A) bypass conscious censorship. B) reveal unconscious motives. C) assess personality. D) unleash pent up psychic energy.

114)

When a patient in psychoanalytic therapy understands unconscious conflicts, that person

has A) B) C) D) 115)

libido. insight. transference. secondary process thinking.

is a psychoanalytic therapist's attempts to describe a patient's unconscious conflict. A) Interpretation B) Transference C) Projection D) Insight

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116)

According to Freud, when patients hamper their own therapy, they demonstrate A) transference. B) insight. C) resistance. D) reaction formation.

117)

A patient in psychoanalytic therapy may avoid understanding their unconscious conflicts by engaging in the process of A) resistance. B) projective techniques. C) insight. D) sublimation.

118)

occurs when a patient in psychoanalysis treats the therapist as someone in the patient's life. A) Resistance B) Insight C) Transference D) Primary process thinking

119)

In psychoanalysis, transference A) is counterproductive to psychoanalysis. B) can reveal a patient's unconscious. C) is unethical. D) reduces psychic energy.

120)

Which of the following is NOT a criticism of psychoanalysis? A) Little current research relates directly to psychoanalysis. B) Psychoanalysis relies too much on the case study method. C) The emphasis on childhood sexuality is inappropriate. D) Freud's writings influenced sociology, literature, and the arts.

121)

Freud's ideas on psychosexual development played a significant role in A) shaping the field of behavioural psychology. B) initiating the field of developmental psychology. C) Initiating the field of clinical psychology. D) shaping the field of humanistic psychology.

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122)

Proponents of psychoanalysis point to A) the major impact that Freud's theory has had on Western thought. B) the ability of Freud's theories to generate accurate predictions of human behaviour today. C) the ongoing role of Freud's theories in contemporary personality research. D) the lasting impact that Freud's theory had on clinical psychology research.

123)

What is one major criticism of Freud and his work? A) Freud relied on diverse case studies to generate his ideas and theories. B) Freud engaged in too little collaboration with others. C) Freud did not start out as a psychologist. D) Freud himself did not believe in the value of experimentation or hypothesis testing in establishing the validity of psychoanalysis.

124)

Rather than reporting or describing the behaviours of his case studies, Freud relied on the interpretations of his colleagues and students. his own interpretations. the interpretations of the case studies themselves. dream interpretation.

A) B) C) D) 125)

Which of the following is not a major criticism of Freud's original ideas? A) Personality is now understood to stop developing around the age of 12, not 5. B) Some personality psychologists take issue with Freud's generally negative view of human nature. C) Many believe that Freud's emphasis on sexual drives in his theory of childhood development is inappropriate. D) Freud relied primarily on the case study method.

126)

According to Freud, a child who does not resolve their Oedipal conflict will go on to develop what personality in adulthood? A) anal retentive B) anal expulsive C) oral aggressive D) phallic

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127)

An individual who obtained pleasure from biting and chewing as a child, and who is hostile as an adult, would likely have what personality according to Freud? A) oral aggressive B) oral receptive C) anal aggressive D) phallic

128)

An individual who achieved too little control as a child, and who is dirty and messy as an adult, would likely have what personality according to Freud? A) anal retentive B) anal expulsive C) oral aggressive D) oral receptive

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 9 1) B 2) A 3) B 4) D 5) B 6) A 7) D 8) D 9) A 10) C 11) C 12) A 13) D 14) A 15) B 16) A 17) B 18) B 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) B 25) D 26) A 27) B 28) C 29) C 30) A 31) C 32) B 33) B 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) B

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38) A 39) B 40) C 41) B 42) D 43) A 44) B 45) C 46) D 47) C 48) B 49) A 50) B 51) C 52) D 53) A 54) B 55) A 56) B 57) B 58) D 59) A 60) A 61) B 62) D 63) C 64) D 65) B 66) B 67) D 68) C 69) B 70) C 71) B 72) B 73) B 74) C 75) B 76) A 77) C

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78) A 79) B 80) B 81) C 82) A 83) A 84) A 85) C 86) B 87) B 88) B 89) C 90) C 91) A 92) B 93) A 94) C 95) B 96) A 97) D 98) D 99) A 100) 101) 102) 103) 104) 105) 106) 107) 108) 109) 110) 111) 112) 113) 114) 115) 116) 117)

B D A C B A B A B C B B C D B A C A

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118) 119) 120) 121) 122) 123) 124) 125) 126) 127) 128)

C B D B A D B A D A B

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Chapter 10 Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Holly Ramona's memories of being abused as a child were A) most likely implanted in her memory by her therapist. B) considered accurate by memory researchers. C) were thought to be misinterpretations of childhood fantasies. D) based on the manifest content of her dreams. 2) The Ramona case discussed in the text demonstrates that A) repression never occurs. B) repression occurs often. C) child abusers can be brought to justice based on recovered memories. D) therapists can be held accountable for inducing false memories. 3) Memory research conducted by Loftus suggests that false memories can be created A) with leading questions. B) through head trauma. C) by child abuse. D) by subliminal prompts. 4) Which of the following statements would a modern psychoanalyst most likely agree with? A) Most behaviour is the result of unconscious conflict. B) The unconscious plays an important role in human functioning. C) Childhood sexuality is more important than childhood relationships. D) Childhood is unimportant in development. 5) The neo-analytic view places

emphasis on relating to others and

emphasis on

sexual urges than Freud did. A) more; more B) more; less C) less; more D) less; less

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6) Westen defines all of these as fundamental postulates of modern psychoanalytic theory

EXCEPT A) the unconscious still plays a large role in life, although not as important as Freud believed. B) behaviour often reflects compromises in conflicts between motives, emotions, and thoughts. C) childhood plays a relatively minor role, irrelevant for studying adult relationship styles. D) mental representations of the self and relationships guide interactions with others. 7) One of the main factors influencing people to report false memories is A) advances in psychoanalytic therapy. B) the many books on the topic in the popular press. C) new types of memory enhancing drugs. D) recent findings in hypnosis research. 8) A study on false memories by psychologist Elizabeth Loftus demonstrated that A) false memories can occur only in brain damaged individuals. B) individuals find it impossible to bring forth false memories when hypnotized. C) asking leading questions could implant false memories in individuals. D) individuals remembered only salient cues when under the influence of sodium amytal. 9) If individuals are directed to imagine something that did not happen to them, it might lead to

what Loftus and her colleagues called the A) intellect enhancement B) imagination inflation C) directed retention D) thematic apperception

effect.

10) Without telling you that I have used photo-editing software to create a photo, I show you a

picture of yourself next to a flying saucer. Later I ask you if you ever had an encounter with a flying saucer in your childhood. You most likely will report that you A) probably are more confident that you had seen a flying saucer when a child than you would have been before seeing the picture. B) do not have any more confidence that you have seen a flying saucer than before you saw the obviously edited picture. C) will readily be able to recall an alien abduction in a past life while under hypnosis after seeing the picture. D) will be prompted to have a dream about an alien encounter in the near future.

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11) The A) B) C) D)

bias is the tendency to only look for evidence that confirms a previous hunch. confirmatory repression priming regression

12) Experimental procedures developed by Henry Roediger and Kathleen McDermott can create

false memories in A) 20 B) 35 C) 55 D) 80 13)

percent of research participants.

refers to a model of memory that suggests that information is stored with associations to other related elements in memory. A) Cognitive unconscious B) Confirmatory bias C) Spreading activation D) Internalized objects

14) The idea that memory influences what people recall is known as A) the motivated unconscious view. B) priming. C) constructive memory. D) confirmatory bias. 15) You are assigned to learn the following list of words: bagel, bread, pie, cake, and turnover. I

then ask you to tell me what words on a second list you remember from the first list. You add the word "donut" to the list. This is an example of the A) imagination inflation effect. B) spreading activation model of memory. C) confirmatory bias hypothesis. D) unconscious collusion hypotheses. 16) A behaviourist is certain that the problem one of her clients is facing must be due to bad

learning. She may be suffering from the A) priming B) constructiveness C) confirmatory D) imaginative

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bias.

17) The

view holds that information in our unconscious mind operates mostly the same as information in our conscious mind. A) id psychology B) Freudian C) social power D) cognitive unconscious

18) Research participants who are subliminally primed with the word "candy" would probably A) have an unexplainable urge to eat candy. B) recognize that they were being manipulated, but still desire candy. C) be quicker to recognize the word candy a few minutes later. D) be slower to recognize the word candy a few minutes later. 19) A) B) C) D)

is a procedure that makes associated material more accessible to conscious awareness. Priming Constructive memory Fixation Attachment

20) Research on subliminal perception suggests that A) it can usually influence people's motivations. B) information can enter memory unconsciously. C) subliminal perception is impossible. D) it can lead to important changes in personality. 21) Alex listens to the song "Slaughter" by his favourite band, In Pain. Research on subliminal

research indicates that Alex will A) become increasing violent by listening to this song. B) not become more violent by listening to this song. C) be primed to be more violent when listening to this song. D) emulate the actions of the musicians more than the lyrics of the song. 22) Jenn constantly listens to music by her favourite musical group, Gotta Be Good. This group

is known for its positive, upbeat, message of love and altruism. From the cognitive unconscious perspective, Jenn will mostly A) be a better person for listening to that music. B) remain the same as if she never heard of the group. C) start attending religious services more often. D) tap into her primitive religious archetype.

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23) The A) B) C) D)

view holds that the unconscious mind causes behaviours. motivated unconscious cognitive unconscious priming confirmatory bias

24) Which of the following best represents Freud's ideas? A) The cognitive unconscious B) Ego psychology C) Id psychology D) Object relations psychology 25) Many psychoanalysts think that Freud placed too much emphasis on the

focus more on the A) ego; superego B) id; superego C) superego; id D) id; ego

and now

26) Erikson is credited with starting A) id psychology. B) ego psychology. C) superego psychology. D) psychoanalysis. 27) People who feel uncertain about who they are and what they value are probably undergoing A) hypnosis. B) false memories. C) an identity crisis. D) attachment problems. 28) Freud and Erikson mostly disagreed that A) people go through stages. B) each stage involves a developmental crisis. C) people can get fixated. D) personality development continues throughout life.

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29) According to Erikson, each stage of development A) does not involve a crisis. B) could only be resolved adaptively. C) was more sexual than social. D) could result in fixation and arrested development. 30) Erikson believed that each stage of development was marked by a A) psychosexual B) libidinal C) psychosocial D) thanatic

conflict.

31) According to Erikson, the first developmental stage is A) trust versus mistrust. B) initiative versus guilt. C) generativity versus stagnation. D) the oral stage. 32) If infants do not receive the love and care they need, Erikson would predict that they will A) become violent and aggressive in later life. B) develop a deep sense of shame and guilt about themselves. C) develop a strong inferiority complex in adulthood. D) be suspicious and mistrust others throughout their lives. 33) A good outcome of the stage is that a child feels a sense of mastery and control. A) initiative versus guilt B) autonomy versus shame and doubt C) trust versus mistrust D) identity versus role confusion 34) According to Erikson, overprotective parents can contribute to a child's sense of A) guilt. B) stagnation. C) doubt. D) mistrust.

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35) Three-year-old Christian follows his father around with his toy tools while his father is

making some home repairs and mimics his father's tool use. Christian is accomplishing tasks associated with Erikson's stage of development. A) initiative versus guilt B) autonomy versus shame and doubt C) trust versus mistrust D) identity versus role confusion 36) A poor outcome of the _ stage can lead to lack of ambition and failure to pursue goals. A) initiative versus guilt B) autonomy versus shame and doubt C) trust versus mistrust D) identity versus role confusion 37) A child successfully completing Erikson's stage of industry versus inferiority would A) play games that imitate and practice adult tasks. B) compare their success and failure to that of children their own age. C) start to develop a sense of their role in life. D) begin to prepare for coming-of-age rituals. 38) Erikson used the word "industry" to describe A) his first developmental stage. B) a sense of low self-esteem. C) the feeling of failure. D) the feeling that one can achieve what they want. 39) Erikson's fifth stage is identity versus A) inferiority. B) stagnation. C) role confusion. D) isolation. 40) A person deals with the question "Who am I?" is in the A) initiative versus guilt B) autonomy versus shame and doubt C) trust versus mistrust D) identity versus role confusion

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stage.

41) Justin is trying to find his place in the world. He tries a variety of sports, part-time jobs, and

is starting to explore what his college major might be next year. He is in Erikson's stage of development. A) intimacy versus isolation B) integrity versus despair C) identity versus role confusion D) generativity versus stagnation 42) Omar has chosen to return to his hometown after graduating from college and join the family

business. He is a very talented musician and his friends are encouraging him to join a band. Omar shrugs off their suggestions and says going home is the right thing to do. From Erik Erikson's perspective, Omar most likely is experiencing A) identity foreclosure. B) a conventionality press. C) identity certainty. D) an inferiority complex. 43) Sunaina is taking off a year after college to travel throughout Europe. Erikson would believe

she is experiencing in the development of her identity. A) an identity confusion B) a moratorium C) a delay D) fixation 44) Rites of passage usually occur during Erikson's stage of A) intimacy versus isolation. B) integrity versus despair. C) identity versus role confusion. D) generativity versus stagnation. 45) Connecting with others, both as friends and romantically, is the focus of the A) intimacy versus isolation B) integrity versus despair C) autonomy versus shame and self-doubt D) generativity versus stagnation

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stage.

46) Divorce is a poor resolution at the stage. A) intimacy versus isolation B) integrity versus despair C) autonomy versus shame and self-doubt D) generativity versus stagnation 47) Nearly of Canadians between the ages of 25 and 29 report never being married. A) 60% B) 75% C) 50% D) 90% 48) During the

stage people are concerned with whether or not they have created something they really care about in life. A) intimacy versus isolation B) integrity versus despair C) autonomy versus shame and self-doubt D) generativity versus stagnation

49) A professor enters the lecture hall with notes that look like they were written by candlelight.

He is not very interested in what he is doing. From Erikson's perspective, this professor is not progressing very well through the stage of development. A) autonomy versus shame and self-doubt B) generativity versus stagnation C) integrity versus despair D) identity versus role confusion 50) Dr. Winters is considered one of the most prominent obstetricians in town. She has just

delivered her one thousandth baby. Dr. Winters feels that this delivery is just as emotionally satisfying as the first. She is successfully progressing through the stage of development in Erikson's model of development. A) autonomy versus shame and self-doubt B) generativity versus stagnation C) integrity versus despair D) identity versus role confusion

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51) In adulthood, people are usually in the generativity versus A) mistrust B) guilt C) stagnation D) role confusion

stage.

52) Erikson's last developmental stage is A) intimacy versus isolation. B) integrity versus despair. C) autonomy versus shame and self-doubt. D) generativity versus stagnation. 53) A person who would choose to live their life over again in exactly the same way has resolved

the

stage in a positive way. A) integrity versus despair B) identity versus role confusion C) autonomy versus shame and self-doubt D) initiative versus guilt

54) Grandpa Hugo sits with his grandchildren recounting his life. He tells them that if he had to

live it all over again he would not change a thing. Grandpa Hugo has successfully negotiated the stage of development. A) intimacy versus isolation B) integrity versus despair C) autonomy versus shame and self-doubt D) generativity versus stagnation 55) Suedfeld examined biographical reports of Holocaust survivors in order to examine A) Horney's concepts of feminism and masculinity. B) Erikson' stage theory of psychosocial development. C) the object relations theory. D) the narcissistic paradox. 56) In the majority of Erikson's stages, Suedfeld's research on the Holocaust revealed that A) survivors showed more favourable than unfavourable outcomes. B) survivors showed more unfavourable than favourable outcomes. C) survivors showed favourable and unfavourable outcomes equally. D) survivors seemed to report no impact on psychosocial development.

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57) In Suedfeld's analyses of Holocaust survivors' biographical information, survivors showed

the most unfavourable outcomes on which of Erikson's stages? A) Autonomy Versus Shame and Doubt B) Integrity Versus Despair C) Generativity Versus Stagnation D) Trust Versus Mistrust 58) The observation of high industry (versus inferiority) among Holocaust survivors is likely due

to A) B) C) D)

the active roles that these individuals took in their own survival. the strong family ties within Jewish families. the feelings of pride associated with survivorship. the desire among survivors to create a more positive experience for their own children.

59) The absence of feelings of shame and doubt among Holocaust survivors may have been due

to A) B) C) D)

the presence of identity early on. the absence role confusion early in life. the presence of autonomy early on. the absence of despair in old age.

60) The observation of a strong identity (versus role confusion) among Holocaust survivors is

likely due to A) the active roles that these individuals took in their own survival. B) strong family ties and feelings of pride associated with survivorship. C) the desire among survivors to create a more positive experience for their own children. D) the presence of autonomy early on. 61) Karen Horney made her feminist critiques of psychoanalysis from A) 1910 to 1930. B) 1930 to 1950. C) 1950 to 1970. D) 1970 to 1990.

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62) Horney taught that the penis was A) important in understanding the development in boys. B) not important in understanding the development in girls. C) a symbol of social power. D) even more important than Freud believed. 63) Horney believed that girls A) had an unconscious desire to become boys. B) wanted a penis unconsciously. C) wanted the social power boys possessed. D) unconsciously believed that boys are inferior. 64) As an early feminist, Horney believed that A) culture affects men and women differently. B) men and women behave similarly across cultures. C) Freud's views about women were fundamentally correct. D) culture affects both genders in a similar manner. 65) According to Horney, most differences between boys and girls can be attributed to A) genes. B) hormones. C) differences in resolving the phallic stage. D) cultural influences. 66) According to Horney,

is a term that describes a set of shared standards for many

behaviours. A) culture B) gender C) cognitive unconscious D) social power 67) Horney argued that girls may avoid achievement because they have A) poor attachments. B) low social power. C) high levels of narcissism. D) an unconscious fear of success.

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68) The terms "feminine" and "masculine" refer to A) sex. B) personality disorders. C) traits or roles assigned to women and men in a particular culture. D) personality traits 69)

refer to differences in culturally ascribed roles and traits that we view as "masculine" and "feminine." A) Sex differences B) Gender differences C) Confirmatory biases D) Collectivism

70) The distinction between "sex" and "gender" can be traced back to A) Horney. B) Freud. C) Erikson. D) Bowlby. 71) Zoya decides to stay at home and go to the local community college rather than going away

to a prestigious university. Karen Horney would say that she A) is fixated at a stage of development. B) is off time due to chronic shyness. C) has very strong a fear of success. D) needs to be a stronger feminist. 72) Karen Horney believed that A) biological processes were the primary determinants of behaviour. B) social influence was a more important factor than biological processes. C) separate psychological theories were needed for men and women. D) culture imposed similar standards on both men and women. 73) Will received an "A" on his personality test and a "D" on his history test. He blames the "D"

on the difficulty of his history textbook and the "A" on his mastery of personality psychology. Will is engaging in bias. A) confirmatory B) selective memory C) narcissist D) self-serving

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74) Inflated self-admiration and constant attempts to draw attention to oneself are signs of an

individual's A) Self-esteem. B) narcissism. C) grandiosity. D) dominance. 75) Alexis studies the fashion magazines and copies the looks of the supermodels. She gets lots

of attention for her fashion sense and all the girls praise her as a fashion leader. However, when Gwen criticizes her for wearing last year's shoes, Alexis runs to the bathroom and cries. This best demonstrates A) fragile self-esteem. B) the confirmatory bias. C) over-inflated ego. D) the narcissistic paradox. 76) A person with an inflated sense of self-admiration who constantly attempts to draw attention

can be described as A) narcissistic. B) fixated in the trust versus mistrust stage. C) securely attached. D) ambivalently attached. 77) Narcissism is A) always pathological. B) the result of an oral fixation. C) adaptive at moderate levels. D) the result of the narcissistic paradox. 78) The narcissistic paradox is the idea that narcissists A) appear to have high self-esteem, but it is fragile. B) have high self-esteem, but are aggressive. C) act modestly, but actually have very high self-esteem. D) act violently, but deny these actions. 79) Research suggests that when criticized, a narcissist may tend to A) ignore it. B) behave aggressively. C) congratulate themselves quietly. D) boast loudly to everyone who will listen.

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80) Research discussed in the text found that people who scored low, compared to high, on

narcissism A) used more first-person pronouns in essays. B) do not punish opponents in video games when insulted. C) spent more time looking at themselves on videos. D) rated their performance more positively than other observers. 81) What did Alfred Adler call it when people high in narcissism belittle and bully those around

them? A) B) C) D)

striving for superiority inferiority narcissistic paradox narcissistic superiority

82) The common tendency for people to take credit for successes yet to deny responsibility for

failure is referred to as A) positive bias. B) narcissistic bias. C) narcissism. D) self-serving bias. 83) Object relations theory stresses the importance of A) the oral stage B) childhood relationships C) the cognitive unconscious D) fear of success

in determining adult relationships.

84) According to the object relations theory, relationships with A) parents B) peers C) siblings D) teachers 85) According to the object relations theory, children

are especially important.

the mother in an unconscious

representation. A) repress B) internalize C) fixate D) project

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86) In the object relations theory, the objects are A) real people. B) the id, ego, and superego. C) mental representations of people. D) features of the environment. 87) The first social attachments an infant develops become

for all meaningful

relationships in the future in object relations theory. A) objects B) templates C) archetypes D) forms 88) Eva's mother left her on her own quite often and did not care for her needs when she was a

child. If Eva internalizes this image of her mother she may, from an object relations perspective A) have difficulty trusting people later in life. B) search for acceptance in later life. C) become a poor mother herself in later life. D) become an overly cautious mother in later life. 89) Which of the following is NOT true about what Harlow learned in his experiment on baby

monkeys? Baby monkeys A) prefer real mothers to fake mothers. B) need a responsive mother to develop normally. C) prefer cloth to fake wire mothers. D) prefer fake mothers who provided food. 90) The strange situation procedure assesses A) attachment style. B) ego conflict. C) object relations. D) neurotic anxiety. 91) Some children experience

anxiety, or in other words, cannot be calmed when removed

from their mothers' care. A) moral B) neurotic C) objective D) separation

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92) Bowlby suggested that

anxiety indicates a problem with a child's attachment to the

mother. A) moral B) neurotic C) objective D) separation 93) The name most associated with attachment research is A) Horney. B) Freud. C) Erikson. D) Bowlby. 94) While little Mandy is playing her mother leaves the room for a few minutes. When her

mother returns, Mandy hardly noticed that she had been gone. Ainsworth and her colleagues would probably label Mandy as being attached. A) securely B) avoidantly C) independently D) ambivalently 95) Toddler Roberto is left with a stranger for a few minutes. He was quite upset and hard to

calm down while his mother was away, but did not really seem happy when she returned. According to Ainsworth's theory, Roberto is probably attached. A) securely B) avoidantly C) independently D) ambivalently 96) Who created the "strange situation procedure"? A) Erikson B) Ainsworth C) Horney D) Roediger 97) More infants fall into the A) securely attached B) avoidantly attached C) ambivalently attached D) separation anxiety

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category than the other categories.

98) In the "strange situation procedure," A) securely attached B) avoidantly attached C) ambivalently attached D) separation anxiety

infants are happiest when the mother returns.

99) Which of the following terms does NOT describe an attachment style identified by

Ainsworth? A) Secure B) Avoidant C) Ambivalent D) Separated 100)

Ambivalently attached infants procedure. A) cried the most B) cried the least C) were indifferent D) were calm

when the mothers left in the strange situation

101)

In the strange situation procedure, when do ambivalently attached infants act ambivalently? A) When the mother returns. B) When the mother cuddles the infant. C) When the stranger enters. D) When a stranger cuddles the infant.

102)

Mothers of attached infants provide the most affection and stimulation to their babies. A) securely B) avoidantly C) ambivalently D) symbiotically

103)

Mothers who are very responsive to their baby's crying in its early months of life will find that when their baby is about 1 year old the baby will A) be ambivalently attached to the mother. B) cry just as much as it did as an infant. C) be securely attached to the mother. D) cry substantially less then when it was an infant.

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104)

Bowlby's "working models" for adult relationships are A) based on the externalized projections of parental objects. B) internalized in the form of unconscious expectations about relationships. C) based on the identification with the same-gendered parent. D) based on a series of trial and error learning experiences.

105)

Hazan and Shaver believe the in trusting other people. A) secure B) avoidant C) paranoid D) ambivalent

106)

adult attachment style is characterized by difficulty

A person who feels vulnerable and uncertain in relationships has Hazan and Shaver's adult attachment style. A) secure B) avoidant C) ambivalent D) defensive

107)

Which attachment style in adulthood do Hazan and Shaver characterize as having the fewest problems? A) Secure B) Avoidant C) Ambivalent D) Separated

108)

Deidre is always suspicious of the nice things Barbara tries to do for her. She worries that Barbara will end up letting her down. Hazen and Shaver would say that Deidre has a(n) attachment style. A) insecure B) avoidant C) ambivalent D) fearful-avoidant

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109)

Your good friend Deepak's girlfriend, Ellie, is very high maintenance and demands far more from Frederick than he can possibly give. As a good student of personality, you tell Deepak that Ellie most likely has a(n) attachment style. A) insecure B) fearful-avoidant C) ambivalent D) possessive

110)

Adults with a(n) secure. A) avoidant B) ambivalent C) fearful-avoidant D) dependent

attachment style shun romance and believe that love never lasts

111)

Those who study attachment and relationship styles would agree that A) there is little correspondence between childhood and adult styles. B) a childhood style cannot be changed in adulthood. C) a positive relationship in adulthood can compensate for a negative childhood. D) a negative childhood predicts a strong motive to form deep attachments in adult relationships.

112)

What are the two types of narcissism that have been identified by psychologists? A) vulnerable and superior B) neurotic and extraverted C) grandiose and submissive D) grandiose and vulnerable

113)

Johanne displays a sense of superiority over others and often acts entitled, but is also very sensitive to criticism and feels inadequate in most social situations. According to recent research, Johanne is likely high in A) narcissism. B) vulnerable narcissism. C) grandiose narcissism. D) hypersensitive grandiosity.

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114)

According to research, which type of narcissism is most closely related to narcissistic personality disorder? A) paradoxical B) vulnerable C) covert D) grandiose

115)

According to research by Krizan and Herlache (2018), what two traits are shared by both grandiose and vulnerable narcissism? A) low agreeableness and entitlement B) entitlement and self-importance C) low agreeableness and the narcissistic paradox D) self-importance and sensitivity

116)

At high levels, grandiosity is associated with what trait? neuroticism extraversion antagonism empathy

A) B) C) D) 117)

A child who displays erratic behaviour in the strange situation would likely be described as having what type of attachment? A) anxious-ambivalent B) disorganized C) avoidant D) unpredictable

118)

An adult who is avoidant in relationships because they are uncomfortable with closeness would likely have what attachment style? A) avoidant B) ambivalent C) fearful-avoidant D) dismissing

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 10 1) A 2) D 3) A 4) B 5) B 6) C 7) B 8) C 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) D 13) C 14) C 15) B 16) C 17) D 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) B 22) B 23) A 24) C 25) D 26) B 27) C 28) D 29) D 30) C 31) A 32) D 33) B 34) C 35) B 36) A 37) B

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38) D 39) C 40) D 41) C 42) A 43) B 44) C 45) A 46) A 47) B 48) D 49) B 50) B 51) C 52) B 53) A 54) B 55) B 56) A 57) D 58) A 59) C 60) B 61) B 62) C 63) C 64) A 65) D 66) A 67) D 68) C 69) B 70) A 71) C 72) B 73) D 74) B 75) D 76) A 77) C

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78) A 79) B 80) B 81) A 82) D 83) B 84) A 85) B 86) C 87) B 88) A 89) D 90) A 91) D 92) D 93) D 94) B 95) D 96) B 97) A 98) A 99) D 100) 101) 102) 103) 104) 105) 106) 107) 108) 109) 110) 111) 112) 113) 114) 115) 116) 117)

A A A D B B C A B C B C D B D B C B

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118)

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Chapter 11 Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) What early challenge did Wayne Gretzky overcome by using it as a source of motivation? A) jealousy from other players. B) a negative body image. C) a leg injury. D) criticism from his father. 2) Which term below best describes a state of tension within a person usually caused by a lack

of something? A) Alpha press B) Motive C) Beta press D) Need 3) From a theoretical point of view, motives are like dispositions in that A) people differ from one another in terms of type and strength of motives. B) differences between people are unmeasurable. C) differences in motives are unreliably associated with life outcomes. D) people differ from one another in terms of the number of motives that matter. 4) Motives satisfy needs with A) thoughts and fantasies. B) behaviours. C) thoughts, fantasies, and behaviours. D) dreams. 5) Motivational psychologists ask which of the following questions? A) What are people like? B) What do people want? C) What do people do? D) Why do people like what they like?

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6) Which term best describes an internal state that arouses and directs behaviour toward specific

objects or goals? A) Need B) Desire C) Motive D) Press 7) Which of these psychologists was the first to develop a modern theory of motivation? A) Rogers B) Maslow C) Murray D) McClelland 8) Henry Murray assumed that needs varied in all of these ways EXCEPT A) over time. B) by situation. C) between people. D) between regions. 9) Henry Murray was a before turning to work on motivation. A) physician, embryologist, and biochemist B) lawyer C) entrepreneur D) priest 10) According to Murray, people might purposely increase tension A) only if they suffered from mental illness. B) because they wanted attention from others. C) because the process of reducing tension can be pleasurable. D) due to interpersonal conflict. 11) The idea that people have different levels of different needs is known as A) the hierarchy of needs. B) press. C) motive constellations. D) the need tree.

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12) Why do we think of motives as dynamic? A) Levels decrease with age. B) Gender differences have been found in some motives. C) Motives interact with one another within a person. D) Everyone has at least two motives. 13) Murray's list included A) three B) five C) eight D) more than 10

needs.

14) In Murray's theory of needs, the need for achievement is an example of A) needs related to social power B) ambition needs. C) materialistic needs. D) exchange of information needs. 15) In Murray's theory of needs, the need to gain possessions and property is an example of A) needs related to social power B) ambition needs. C) materialistic needs. D) exchange of information needs. 16) In Murray's theory of needs, the need to explore one's environment is an example of A) needs related to social power B) ambition needs. C) materialistic needs. D) exchange of information needs. 17) The act of interpreting the environment and perceiving the meaning of what is going on in a

situation is termed A) integration. B) apperception. C) self-actualization. D) motivation.

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18) An important feature of the Thematic Apperception Test is that it is A) highly reliable. B) popular among clinicians. C) ambiguous. D) easily scored. 19) Beta press refers to the A) objective features of the environment. B) subjective features of the environment. C) strength of a need. D) strength of a motive. 20)

refers to the objective features of the environment. A) Alpha press B) Beta press C) A need D) A motive

21) The Thematic Apperception Test was developed by A) Freud. B) Rorschach. C) Maslow. D) Murray. 22) Murray developed the Thematic Apperception Test in the A) 1860s. B) 1950s. C) 1930s. D) 1970s. 23) The Thematic Apperception Test is a(n) A) self-report questionnaire. B) intelligence inventory. C) psychopathology index. D) projective test.

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24) McClelland described two different types of motivation A) internal motivation and external motivation. B) alpha press and beta press. C) implicit motivation and self-attributed motivation. D) conscious motivation and unconscious motivation. 25) Some researchers have criticized the Thematic Apperception Test because A) it has moderate test-retest reliability. B) scores from different pictures correlate too highly. C) it has poor internal reliability. D) it has poor construct validity. 26) Spangler found that the

the

was a better predictor of the long-term effects of motives and was a better predictor of the short-term effects of motives. A) interview method; Thematic Apperception Test B) Thematic Apperception Test; interview method C) questionnaire method; Thematic Apperception Test D) Thematic Apperception Test; questionnaire method

27) The Multi-Motive Grid is A) a term used to describe the interconnected relationship between motives. B) a procedure used to access alpha press and beta press. C) a relatively new technique used to assess motives. D) the idea that our needs and motives influence apperception. 28) The name most associated with research on the need for achievement is A) McClelland. B) Winter. C) Maslow. D) McAdams. 29) People high in the need for achievement are very concerned with A) having impact. B) making money. C) doing things better. D) helping other people.

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30) The late Steve Jobs is a good example of someone who is high in A) intimacy motivation. B) achievement motivation. C) power motivation. D) self-actualization. 31) Jody Wilson-Raybould, Canada's current Minister of Justice and Attorney General, is a good

example of someone who is high in A) achievement motivation. B) intimacy motivation. C) goal achievement. D) power motivation. 32) The "Big Three" motives are A) sex, aggression, and play. B) competence, sex, and aggression. C) self-esteem, self-expression, and reality. D) achievement, power, and intimacy. 33) People who score high on the need for achievement prefer tasks with a

level of

difficulty. A) low B) high C) moderate D) very high 34) People who score high on the need for achievement A) prefer highly challenging activities. B) enjoy tasks where they are not personally responsible for outcomes. C) enjoy activities involving many other people. D) prefer tasks where feedback is available. 35) Men tend to score women on measures of the need for power. A) higher than B) lower than C) about the same as D) both higher and lower, depending on the measurement tool than

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36) People who score high on implicit measures of achievement motivation do especially well in A) business. B) relationships. C) university classes. D) volunteer work. 37) Men tend to have A) much higher B) slightly higher C) lower D) equal

levels of achievement motivation compared to women.

38) Independence training is thought to increase A) need for power. B) need for achievement. C) need for intimacy. D) need for communion. 39) The name most associated with research on the need for power is A) McClelland. B) Winter. C) Maslow. D) McAdams. 40) People high in the need for power are very concerned with A) making an impact on other people. B) making money. C) altruistic acts. D) a desire for relationships. 41)

who score high on the need for power tend to be more impulsive and aggressive. A) People who score high on the need for achievement and B) Women C) Men D) Both men and women

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42) Which of the following motives is associated with poor health when inhibited? A) Achievement B) Intimacy C) Power D) Affiliation 43) The name most associated with research on the need for intimacy is A) McClelland. B) Winter. C) Maslow. D) McAdams. 44) People who score high on the need for intimacy are very concerned with A) having impact. B) making money. C) a desire for relationships. D) a desire for understanding. 45) High levels of have been associated with having a satisfying job and family life. A) the need for intimacy B) the need for power C) the need for achievement D) the need for ambition 46) People who score high on the need for intimacy tend to A) have a few close friends. B) have more friends than people who score low in the need for intimacy. C) be physically attractive. D) be extraverted too. 47) Women tend to score higher than men on measures of A) need for power. B) need for intimacy. C) need for achievement. D) need for control.

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48) Research from McGill University has demonstrated that the promotion of autonomy and

independence by parents A) contributes to higher power motivation in young adults. B) interferes with teamwork and cooperation in young adults. C) can interfere with achievement when provided in excess. D) supports goal achievement in young adults. 49) Behaviours that are self-determined and based on inherent satisfaction are considered A) extrinsically motivated. B) intrinsically motivated. C) individuated. D) innate. 50) Behaviours that are performed for instrumental reasons are considered A) socially motivated. B) intrinsically motivated. C) situational. D) extrinsically motivated. 51)

is a stronger predictor of success and positive psychological outcomes compared to . A) Extrinsic motivation; intrinsic motivation B) The situation; innate ability C) Intrinsic motivation; extrinsic motivation D) Power motivation; achievement motivation

52) Canadian research has suggested that a more collectivistic cultural orientation is associated

with A) B) C) D)

greater intrinsic motivation. greater extrinsic motivation. greater intimacy motivation. lower power motivation.

53) Canadian research has shown that Indian-Canadian adolescents are more _

to their Indian counterparts, while Indian adolescents are more Canadians. A) achievement oriented; intimacy oriented B) extrinsically motivated; intrinsically motivated C) intrinsically motivated; extrinsically motivated D) individuated; discreet

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compared compared to Indian-

54) Research on acculturation and achievement has suggested that

is associated with

lower academic achievement among Indian-Canadian adolescents. A) intrinsic motivation B) extrinsic motivation C) power motivation D) intimacy motivation 55) The humanistic tradition is most associated with the A) motive to self-actualize. B) need for power. C) need for intimacy. D) need for achievement. 56) Compared to the behaviourist tradition, the humanistic tradition places

free will. A) more B) less C) about the same D) more or less, depending on the particular humanistic theorist 57) Compared to the psychoanalytic tradition, the humanistic tradition is more

emphasis on

about

human nature. A) confused B) optimistic C) pessimistic D) open-minded 58) The humanist tradition emphasizes all of the following EXCEPT A) free will. B) personal responsibility. C) growth. D) overcoming dysfunction. 59) Which of the following is a growth motive? A) Power B) Achievement C) Intimacy D) Self-actualization

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60) Using Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following correctly lists needs from

weakest to strongest? A) Physiological, Esteem, Belongingness, Safety, Self-actualization B) Physiological, Safety, Belongingness, Esteem, Self-actualization C) Self-actualization, Esteem, Belongingness, Safety, Physiological D) Self-actualization, Safety, Belongingness, Esteem, Physiological 61) Examples of physiological needs are A) food and air. B) shelter and security. C) respect and achievement. D) love and acceptance. 62) Examples of safety needs are A) food and air. B) shelter and security. C) respect and achievement. D) love and acceptance. 63) Who theorized a "hierarchy of needs"? A) Rogers B) Maslow C) Winter D) McClelland 64) Maslow thought that A) esteem B) physiological C) self-actualization D) safety

needs are usually satisfied before people work on other needs.

65) Needs at the of Maslow's hierarchy are the strongest. A) top B) bottom C) middle D) top and at the bottom

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66) Loneliness is a sign that A) belongingness B) safety C) esteem D) self-actualization

needs are not being satisfied.

67) Examples of esteem needs are A) food and air. B) shelter and security. C) respect and achievement. D) love and acceptance. 68) What term best describes a person becoming everything they are capable of being? A) Self-actualization B) Self-esteem C) The idiographic approach D) Positive regard 69) Maslow thought that about

percent of people are working primarily on self-

actualization needs. A) 1 B) 10 C) 25 D) 50 70) Living according to your "true self" is a goal of which need according to Maslow? A) esteem need B) self-actualization need C) being need D) love/belonging need 71) A study described in the text suggests that, according to Maslow's hierarchy, people working

on higher level needs compared to people working on more basic needs. A) are less happy B) are happier C) are no different in terms of happiness D) sleep more

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72) Maslow conducted case studies on individuals A) in over a dozen countries. B) he knew personally. C) he believed to be self-actualizing or self-actualized. D) at each of the hierarchically organized levels. 73) Later in his career, Maslow argued that people only fully achieved actualization by also

giving themselves to some higher goal that extended beyond themselves. This was referred to as A) self-sacrifice. B) transcendence. C) the peak experience. D) self-transcendence. 74) Maslow referred to the momentary feeling of extreme wonder, awe, and vision as A) flow. B) a mystical experience. C) self-actualization. D) a peak experience. 75) The peak experience is similar to what other concept in psychology? A) awe B) flow C) autotelic personality D) love 76) An autotelic personality involves all of the following EXCEPT A) being inclined to experience flow states, often seeking them out in their work and

other activities. B) enjoying life and doing things for their own sake, rather than to achieve some later goal. C) having a general curiosity and interest in life. D) satisfying one’s belongingness and esteem needs.

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77)

is defined as a subjective state that people report when they are completely involved in something to the point of forgetting time, fatigue, and everything else but the activity itself. A) A peak experience B) Flow C) A mystical experience D) Self-actualization

78) Experiences of flow can be markers of which of Maslow's stages in the hierarchy? A) self-actualization B) esteem C) belongingness D) peak experiences 79) In a recent study using a new self-report measure of self-actualization characteristics, those

scoring high on self-actualization were more motivated by A) love. B) exploration. C) humility. D) agency. 80) In terms of the Big Five traits, self-actualizers tended to be higher in A) agreeableness and extraversion only. B) emotional stability, agreeableness, and extraversion. C) conscientiousness, openness to experience, extraversion, agreeableness, and

emotional stability. D) conscientiousness and openness to experience only. 81) Who developed client-centred therapy? A) Rogers B) Maslow C) Murray D) McClelland 82) Rogers believed that the natural human state was to be A) miserable. B) slightly unhappy. C) fully self-actualized. D) fully functioning.

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83) A fully functioning person A) has met physiological and safety needs. B) has achieved self-actualization. C) is moving towards self-actualization. D) rejects experiences that are incongruent with that person's goals. 84) Rogers believed that have the potential to self-actualize. A) only those who undergo client-centred therapy B) very few people C) most people D) all people 85) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of self-actualizing people? A) They are spontaneous. B) They have an affinity for solitude. C) They are creative. D) They are well enculturated. 86) People who are self-actualizing are usually A) famous. B) wealthy. C) creative. D) proud. 87) Rogers described the need to be loved and accepted by parents and others as the desire for A) conditions of worth. B) positive regard. C) intimacy. D) attachment. 88) A parent may withhold love from a child unless they earn good grades. Rogers would cite

this as an example of A) bullying. B) positive regard. C) conditions of worth. D) low need for intimacy.

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89) According to Rogers, people who experience many conditions of worth may do all of the

following EXCEPT A) deny their feelings. B) work for the approval of others. C) distort their shortcomings. D) experience less anxiety. 90) According to Rogers, good parents should A) give their children unconditional positive regard. B) set firm expectations for their children. C) try to self-actualize their child. D) encourage children to find their own positive regard. 91) People who accept their weaknesses and shortcomings probably experience A) conditions of worth. B) unconditional positive self-regard. C) positive regard. D) conditional positive regard. 92) According to Rogers, anxiety is the result of A) positive regard. B) distorting one's experiences. C) experiences that do not fit with one's self-concept. D) conditions of worth. 93) In order to reduce your anxiety, Rogers would recommend that you A) change your self-concept. B) engage in distortion. C) use more empathy. D) sublimate. 94) The term that best describes altering an experience to reduce threat is A) conditions of worth. B) distortion. C) anxiety. D) reflection.

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95) Which of the following defence mechanisms did Rogers theorize? A) Reaction formation B) Sublimation C) Distortion D) Projection 96) By doing client-centred therapy, Rogers attempted to A) get a person back on the path to self-actualization. B) interpret a person's problems. C) solve a person's problems. D) make the person responsible for their own suffering. 97) Which of the following is not a necessary condition for client-centred therapy? A) Unconditional positive regard B) Genuine acceptance C) Empathic understanding D) Transference 98) Which of the following provides the best metaphor for client-centred therapy? A) A mirror B) A steamroller C) A puzzle D) A textbook 99) The term that best describes understanding a person from their point of view is A) positive regard. B) genuine acceptance. C) empathy. D) reflection. 100)

Which of the following statements would you expect to hear from a client-centred therapist? A) It sounds like you are feeling angry. B) Your superego controls your actions. C) You must have experienced conditions of worth as a child. D) You need to stop denying and start self-actualizing.

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101)

Which of the following statements about empathy is supported by research? A) Empathy is moderately heritable. B) Empathy can be effectively taught. C) It is easier to teach empathy to women than to men. D) Empathy is highly stable over the lifespan.

102)

Research suggests that people who score high on measures of empathy A) are better at giving positive regard. B) tend to be male. C) are more accurate in guessing what others are thinking and feeling. D) cannot improve their empathy skills with practice.

103)

Nikki has spent much of her life fulfilling her aspirations to be a conscious business leader in her community. Recently, she has come to the realization that helping others in the community realize their dreams and aspirations is even more fulfilling, as it brings her a greater sense of meaning and purpose. According to Maslow, Nikki is likely at what stage of the hierarchy of needs? A) self-actualization B) self-transcendence C) esteem needs D) love and belongingness needs

104)

Philippe has worked much of his life to be =come a successful artist, but only recently feels like he has been able to satisfy his true potential. According to Maslow, Philippe is likely at what stage of the hierarchy of needs? A) self-actualization B) love and belongingness needs C) self-transcendence D) esteem needs

105)

You are attempting to study self-actualization in a population of students using a newly devised measure of relevant traits. Given what you know about the research on selfactualization and Maslow’s original assumptions, what might you want to look at? A) the association between self-actualization and psychiatric conditions B) the correlation between self-actualization traits and indicators of physical health C) the prevalence of self-actualization traits in the student population D) the prevalence of low levels of correlated traits in the student population

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106)

Which of the following approaches to studying self-actualization would be most valid today? A) Maslow’s original approach involving the biographical study of a small number of exceptional people. B) Kaufman’s recent approach involving the development of a self-report measure to assess traits associated with self-actualization in the general population. C) A new approach in which researchers interview a small number of exceptional people. D) A new approach in which random people share their experiences of self-actualization anonymously online, so that they can later be analyzed.

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 11 1) A 2) D 3) A 4) C 5) B 6) C 7) C 8) D 9) A 10) C 11) A 12) C 13) D 14) B 15) C 16) D 17) B 18) C 19) B 20) A 21) D 22) C 23) D 24) C 25) C 26) D 27) C 28) A 29) C 30) B 31) A 32) D 33) C 34) D 35) C 36) A 37) D

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38) B 39) B 40) A 41) C 42) C 43) D 44) C 45) A 46) A 47) B 48) D 49) B 50) D 51) C 52) B 53) C 54) B 55) A 56) A 57) B 58) D 59) D 60) C 61) A 62) B 63) B 64) B 65) B 66) A 67) C 68) A 69) A 70) B 71) C 72) C 73) D 74) D 75) B 76) D 77) B

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78) A 79) B 80) C 81) A 82) D 83) C 84) D 85) D 86) C 87) B 88) C 89) D 90) A 91) B 92) C 93) A 94) B 95) C 96) A 97) D 98) A 99) C 100) 101) 102) 103) 104) 105) 106)

A B C B A C B

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Chapter 12 Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) an important aspect of the self. A) The ways people evaluate their self-worth is B) Social relationships are C) The evaluation of other people in one’s life is D) The interaction between a person and the environment is 2) A person who relates a new event to past experiences is engaging in A) personalizing cognition. B) objectifying cognition. C) causal attribution. D) defensive pessimism. 3) A woman who states that skydiving reminds her of riding roller coasters is said to be

engaging in A) personalizing cognition. B) objectifying cognition. C) attributional cognition. D) interpretation. 4) A person who recalls factual information in response to a new event is engaging in A) personalizing cognition. B) objectifying cognition. C) causal attribution. D) defensive pessimism. 5) A man who recalls that a cup of milk contains 130 calories when he pours a glass of milk is

said to be engaging in A) personalizing cognition. B) objectifying cognition. C) attributional cognition. D) interpretation.

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is a general term to refer to awareness, thinking, and other mental acts. A) Strategies B) Explanatory style C) Cognition D) Perception describes the transformation of sensory information to mental representations, and the manipulation of those representations. A) Explanatory style B) Life tasks C) Interpretation D) Information processing

8) People who see a Necker Cube differently are showing differences in A) objectifying cognitions. B) personalizing cognitions. C) perception. D) learned helplessness. 9) The process of refers to making sense of or explaining events in the world. A) interpretation B) perception C) learned helplessness D) augmenting 10) Differences in responses to the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) are the result of

differences in A) perception. B) learned helplessness. C) memory. D) interpretation. 11) Individual differences can be observed in all of these EXCEPT A) perception. B) interpretation. C) beliefs and desires. D) the need to belong.

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12) Herman Witkin introduced the idea of A) defensive pessimism. B) field dependence versus field independence. C) learned helplessness. D) life tasks. 13) The Rod and Frame Test (RFT) has been used to assess A) defensive pessimism. B) field dependence versus field independence. C) learned helplessness. D) life tasks. 14) A person who "sees the trees rather than the forest" is said to be A) a defensive pessimist. B) field dependent. C) field independent. D) an optimist. 15) Field-dependent people A) pay more attention to visual cues than field-independent people. B) pay less attention to visual cues than field-independent people. C) do not differ from field-independent people with regard to using visual cues. D) are less successful than field-independent people. 16)

measure(s) field dependence versus field dependence. A) The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) B) The Rod and Frame Test (RFT) C) The Embedded Figures Test (EFT) D) Both the Rod and Frame Test (RFT) and the Embedded Figures Test (EFT)

17) An advantage of the Embedded Figures Test (EFT) over the Rod and Frame Test (RFT) is

that A) B) C) D)

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the EFT measures field dependence/independence better than the RFT. the EFT is much easier to administer than the RFT. the EFT is more valid than the RFT. The EFT is more reliable than the RFT.

18) Which of the following postsecondary majors would be MOST likely to have many field-

independent people? A) Journalism B) History C) Sociology D) Physics 19)

tend to be more sociable than those . A) Individuals with an external locus of control; with an internal locus of control B) Individuals with an internal locus of control; with an external locus of control C) Field-independent individuals; who are field-dependent D) Field-dependent individuals; who are field-independent

20) A study by Vrij et al. suggests that field-independent police officers, compared to field-

dependent police officers A) notice fewer details under distracting conditions. B) remember more details encoded under distracting conditions. C) generally perform worse under distraction conditions. D) hit fewer targets in simulated shooting tasks. 21) Students who are

are especially good at seeing connections between different

categories. A) field dependent B) field independent C) both field dependent and field independent D) intelligent 22) Pain tolerance has been studied with respect to A) field dependence versus field independence. B) explanatory style. C) life tasks. D) reducing or augmenting pain. 23) The person most associated with research on reducing/augmenting is A) Goleman. B) Petrie. C) Seligman. D) Witkin.

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24)

seek out more stimulation than . A) Reducers; augmenters B) Augmenters; reducers C) Field-independent people; field-dependent people D) Field-dependent people; field-independent people

25) Research on Canadian university students learning English as a second language has

indicated that field independence is associated with A) having a better grasp of syntax. B) better memory retention. C) having an easier time learning a second language. D) better conversation skills using the second language. 26) Who argued that people construct explanations for the events in their lives just as scientists

construct explanations for phenomena in the laboratory? A) Aneseth Petrie B) George Kelly C) Julian Rotter D) Martin Seligman 27) Which of the following is NOT a construct? A) Gravity B) Anxiety C) Intelligence D) Observed behaviour 28) "Postmodernism" in psychology can be summarized as A) "Perception is not necessarily reality." B) "Experience defines reality." C) "Reality is constructed and so there are many different views of reality." D) "There is no spoon." 29) According to Rotter, people differ in A) their expectations that a course of action will recur over time. B) the value they place on a given action. C) whether or not their beliefs influence external events. D) their expectations that a course of action will lead to a reinforcement.

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30) Generalized expectancies are A) characteristics of a situation that can be applied generally. B) perceptions that generalize from one situation to the next. C) expectations for reinforcement held across a variety of situations. D) interpretations of other people’s assumed behaviour. 31) Which of the following is NOT an example of a generalized expectancy? A) The belief that people are solely responsible for their actions. B) The belief that all tests are unfair. C) The belief that good things happen to lucky people. D) The belief in God. 32) People who take personal responsibility for events A) are field independent. B) are field dependent. C) have an internal locus of control. D) have an external locus of control. 33) A person who believes that luck plays an important part in their life has a(n) A) internal locus of control. B) external locus of control. C) supernatural explanatory style. D) naturalistic explanatory style. 34) People with a(n)

are more likely to be active in taking charge of circumstances in their

lives. A) B) C) D)

internal locus of control external locus of control global explanatory style stable explanatory style

35) It is probably less adaptive to have an internal locus of control A) in the domain of health behaviours. B) in academic domains. C) when negative events are not controllable. D) when positive events are frequent and numerous.

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36)

is observed when people passively endure an uncomfortable situation. A) Learned helplessness B) Passive endurance C) Internalized anxiety D) Freezing

37) Participants who were first exposed to problems without solutions later A) completed more problems that did have solutions. B) completed fewer problems that did have solutions. C) demonstrated the concept of learned helplessness. D) completed fewer problems with solutions and demonstrated learned helplessness. 38) The reformulated learned helplessness model focuses on individuals' A) perceptions of events. B) memories of events. C) explanations of events. D) learning styles. 39) A) B) C) D)

refers to the way people explain why events occur. Causal attribution Learned helplessness Field independence Perception

40) The idea that trauma experienced by earlier generations can have lasting effects that are still

felt today is referred to as A) transmitted trauma. B) intergenerational trauma. C) traumatic stagnation. D) cross-generational experience. 41) According to Dr. Wesley-Esquimaux, two factors involved in intergenerational trauma are A) locus of control and learned helplessness. B) learned helplessness and self-efficacy. C) locus of control and self-efficacy. D) learned helplessness and field independence.

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42) According to Dr. Wesley-Esquimaux, learned helplessness can cause intergenerational

trauma by A) reducing collective feelings of control. B) impairing the ability of subsequent generations to maintain a sense of self-efficacy. C) interfering with field independence. D) maintaining collective expectations of failure in the future. 43) In addition to learned helplessness, one possible explanation for the intergenerational trauma

observed in Indigenous people is A) low external locus of control. B) a diminished internal locus of control. C) an insufficient sense of self-efficacy. D) low field independence. 44) One explanation for the increasing rates of suicide and attempted suicide in some Indigenous

communities is A) low internal locus of control. B) high internal locus of control. C) low external locus of control. D) high external locus of control. 45) A person who takes personal credit for choosing winning lottery numbers probably has a(n)

explanatory style. A) internal B) external C) stable D) unstable 46) A student who attributes his failure to get into a graduate school as due to the fact that he was

sick on the day of his interview has a(n) A) specific B) global C) unstable D) stable

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explanatory style.

47) A woman who concludes that all men are untrustworthy after her partner was unfaithful has

a(n)

explanatory style. A) specific B) global C) unstable D) stable

48) The "pessimistic explanatory style" is defined as making

attributions for negative

events. A) B) C) D)

external, stable, and specific internal, stable, and specific internal, temporary, and global internal, stable, and global

49) A pessimistic explanatory style has been shown to be associated with all of the following

EXCEPT A) aggressiveness. B) poor health. C) mortality. D) lowered immunocompetence. 50) A set of relevant actions intended to achieve a goal that the person has selected is known as

a(n) A) B) C) D)

explanatory style. causal attribution. personal project. outcome-focused strategy.

51) Personal projects analysis often addresses A) the likelihood that goals will be abandoned. B) the difficulty of meeting the goals. C) the personal importance of morals and values. D) the tension that occurs between a person and their life achievements. 52) People who score high on A) psychoticism B) conscientiousness C) neuroticism D) extraversion

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rate their personal projects as stressful and difficult.

53) People who rate their personal projects are generally more satisfied with life. A) as stressful B) optimistically C) as within their control D) optimistically and within their control 54) Self-efficacy is an important notion in which theory? A) Bandura's social learning theory B) Dweck's theory of mastery orientation C) Higgins' theory of regulatory focus D) Kelly's personal construct theory 55) The belief that one can execute a specific course of action to achieve a goal is referred to as A) self-esteem. B) self-efficacy. C) goal orientation. D) implicit bias. 56) Simply believing that intelligence is a fixed trait that cannot change has been associated with A) higher academic success. B) giving up earlier on academic challenges. C) putting less effort into relationships D) performance in sports 57) In the theory of regulatory focus, promotion focus refers to A) being concerned with advancement, growth, and accomplishments. B) motivation based on promoting and building up others. C) being concerned with protection, safety, and the prevention of negative outcomes. D) motivation based on protecting others from harm. 58) Extraversion is correlated with which factor in the theory of regulatory focus? A) Prevention focus B) Promotion focus C) Both prevention focus and promotion focus D) Neither prevention focus nor promotion focus

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59) CAPS stands for A) control-approach personality system. B) cognitive-affective personality system. C) conscious awareness of psychological systems. D) cognitive-avoidance personality system. 60) The concept of intelligence that emphasizes the amount of knowledge one has gained is

known as intelligence. A) achievement B) aptitude C) general D) multiple 61) IQ tests have usually been interpreted as measures of A) achievement intelligence. B) aptitude intelligence. C) emotional intelligence. D) multiple intelligence. 62)

intelligence is the term that most refers to a single broad factor of intelligence. A) Achievement B) Aptitude C) General D) Emotional

63) The name most associated with the idea of multiple intelligences is A) Gardner. B) Cantor. C) Petrie. D) Witkin. 64) The ability to control one's impulses is considered an aspect of A) emotional B) aptitude C) kinesthetic D) interpersonal

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intelligence.

65) A person who scores low in

may do well in school, but have difficulty in most other

areas of life. A) kinesthetic intelligence B) aptitude intelligence C) emotional intelligence D) general intelligence 66) Some researchers feel that the abilities Gardner calls "intelligences" are correlated enough

with each other to A) represent only three distinct intelligences-verbal, quantitative, and analytical. B) warrant more distinct types of intelligence. C) justify thinking of intelligence as a general factor. D) justify thinking of intelligence as an abstract concept that cannot be studied. 67) What is defined as "intelligent behaviour"? A) is consistent across cultures. B) differs across cultures. C) is only found in Western cultures. D) is only found in non-Western cultures. 68)

refers to the time it takes to make a simple discrimination between two displayed objects. A) Inspection time B) Reaction time C) Discrimination effort D) Examination time

69) Which of the following is NOT debated among intelligence researchers? A) Whether intelligence can be measured accurately. B) Whether measures of intelligence are biased to favour some individuals. C) Whether intelligence has been increasing or decreasing in the population. D) Whether intelligence is an important facet of psychology. 70) The different domains or areas of knowledge measured by standardized tests are examples of A) different kinds of intelligence. B) types of mental processing. C) cognitive frameworks. D) mental fields.

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71) According to Kahan and colleagues (2017), when people are presented with politically

relevant information, they are more likely to A) use their intelligence to ignore information and adhere to their pre-existing beliefs. B) determine what information is accurate and what information is inaccurate. C) interpret data accurately. D) develop an opinion that is accurate and in line with reality. 72) You are a researcher attempting to measure Carol Dweck’s concept of fixed mindset. What

specific behaviour related to academic performance should you measure? A) Inflation of GPA B) Giving up early on academic challenges C) Cheating on exams D) Expectations regarding performance. 73) You are a researcher interested in studying Carol Dweck’s concept of growth mindset. What

outcome would you want to measure? A) IQ B) locus of control C) academic motivation D) learned helplessness 74) A recent study found that an online growth mindset intervention was associated with A) Improved grades among low-achieving students B) Improved academic motivation for all students regardless of their academic

achievement C) Improved grades only among those who already reported a growth mindset D) Improved time commitment and goal engagement among those with a fixed mindset

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 12 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) B 5) B 6) C 7) D 8) C 9) A 10) D 11) D 12) B 13) B 14) C 15) A 16) D 17) B 18) D 19) D 20) B 21) A 22) D 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) B 27) D 28) C 29) D 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) A 37) D

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38) C 39) A 40) B 41) A 42) D 43) B 44) A 45) A 46) C 47) B 48) D 49) A 50) C 51) B 52) C 53) D 54) A 55) B 56) B 57) A 58) B 59) B 60) A 61) B 62) C 63) A 64) A 65) C 66) C 67) B 68) A 69) D 70) A 71) A 72) B 73) C 74) A

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Chapter 13 Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following is NOT considered a component of emotions? A) Subjective feelings B) Bodily changes C) Categorizations D) Action tendencies 2)

is the component of emotions that refers to the increase in probabilities of certain behaviours. A) Subjective feelings B) Bodily changes C) Categorizations D) Action tendencies

3) A functional analysis of emotions and emotional expression focuses on the

emotions and emotional expression. A) "why" B) "how" C) "what" D) "where" 4)

depend more on particular situations than personality characteristics. A) Emotional states B) Emotional traits C) Mood inductions D) Dimensional emotions

5) The patterns of emotional reactions that a person consistently experiences over time are

called A) B) C) D)

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emotional states. emotional traits. explanatory styles. the cognitive triad.

6) The A) B) C) D)

is most concerned with identifying primary emotions. categorical view of emotions dimensional view of emotions diathesis-stress model circumplex model

7) Happiness can be best thought of as an emotional A) state. B) trait. C) state and as an emotional trait. D) feature of human nature. 8) Which of the following has NOT been used as a criterion for identifying fundamental or

primary emotions? A) Subjective experience B) Unique motivational properties C) Distinct facial expressions D) Relationship to biological processes 9) Ekman has argued that primary emotion facial expressions are innate based on A) universal recognition of facial expressions. B) research that shows people who are blind from birth make facial expressions. C) factor analysis. D) universal recognition of facial expressions and the observation of blind persons' facial

expressions. 10) Most lists of primary emotions contain emotions. A) equal numbers of positive and negative B) more positive emotions than negative C) more negative emotions than positive D) only negative emotions or positive 11) The

has focused on gathering self-ratings of emotions and using statistical techniques to reduce the number of emotion terms. A) categorical view of emotions B) dimensional view of emotions C) diathesis-stress model D) functional view of emotions

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12) There is much consensus among proponents of the dimensional view of emotions that

are the basic dimensions underlying emotions. A) pleasantness/unpleasantness and arousal level B) pleasantness/unpleasantness and universality of facial expressions C) arousal level and universality of facial expressions D) subjective experience and bodily change 13) Valence refers to the A) arousal level B) pleasantness/unpleasantness C) subjective feeling D) physiological correlates

of emotions.

14) According to the dimensional view, emotions define a common dimension when they A) have similar facial expressions. B) serve similar functions. C) occur together in experience. D) are rated as feeling distinct. 15) Jess Tracy, a Canadian researcher, has provided evidence for which additional discrete

emotion? A) contempt B) pride C) shame D) surprise 16) Pride was identified as one of the most distinct and evident human emotions by whom? A) Sigmund Freud B) Abraham Maslow C) Charles Darwin D) Hans Eysenck

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17) Jessica Tracy and her colleagues accumulated a great deal of support for the inclusion of

pride as a basic emotion, including A) forced-choice response research in which participants successfully identified pride among photographs of multiple emotions. B) open-ended response research in which previously identified photos of pride were consistently labelled as pride. C) survey-based response research in which pride was shown to be correlated with other theoretically related emotions, such as happiness. D) Both "forced-choice response research in which participants successfully identified pride among photographs of multiple emotions" and "open-ended response research in which previously identified photos of pride were consistently labelled as pride." 18) The most frequent identification of pride in photographs of emotion expression include what

three physical markers? A) a slight smile, the head tilted forward with the chin down, and an expanded posture with either arms raised or hands on hips B) a slight smile, the head tilted back with the chin up, and a narrow posture with either arms crossed or hands behind the back C) a slight smile, the head tilted back with the chin up, and an expanded posture with either arms raised or hands on hips D) a wide smile, the head tilted back with the chin up, and an expanded posture with either arms raised or hands on hips 19)

pride is based on achievement and contributes to a genuine sense of self-esteem. On the other hand, pride is associated with self-aggrandizing aspects of narcissism. A) Hubristic; authentic B) Authentic; hubristic C) Authentic; learned D) Learned; hubristic

20) Which type of pride may contribute to aggression and hostility? A) self-aggrandizing B) authentic C) learned D) hubristic

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21) Support for the cross-cultural importance of pride as a basic emotion was found in A) an isolated, preliterate tribe West Africa. B) a nomadic foraging and farming community in Bolivia. C) an isolated Amazonian tribe. D) multiple agricultural tribes in Africa. 22)

is the part of a person's emotional life that refers to the kinds of emotions that are being experienced. A) Style B) Content C) Action tendency D) Intensity

23) Happiness is usually measured A) with a polygraph. B) with life-outcome data. C) with self-report questionnaires. D) in the limbic system. 24) The average person A) is happy more often than unhappy. B) is unhappy more often than happy. C) is happy and unhappy about equal amounts of time. D) does not care about happiness. 25) The extent to which people are satisfied with their lives correlates with all of the following

EXCEPT A) social desirability. B) having many positive emotions. C) positive illusions. D) openness to experience. 26) An inflated view of abilities and desirable characteristics is referred to as A) self-deceptive happiness. B) life satisfaction. C) subjective well-being. D) positive illusions.

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27) Questionnaire measures of happiness A) correlate with measures of social desirability. B) appear to be valid. C) are invalid due to response bias. D) correlate with measures of social desirability and appear to be valid. 28) Seidlitz and Diener found that when given five minutes to recall happy events and five

minutes to recall unhappy events, happy people recalled A) more pleasant events and fewer unpleasant events B) as many pleasant events, but fewer unpleasant events C) more pleasant events, but as many unpleasant events D) more events, both happy and unhappy events

than unhappy people.

29) Studies of sex differences in happiness indicate that A) men and women are about equally happy. B) men are more likely than women to be depressed. C) women are more likely than men to become alcoholics. D) men are more likely to report experiencing blows to their self-esteem. 30) Studies of happiness and age have found that A) levels of happiness are predicted well by age. B) relationships and success at work are less important to young people. C) financial security is more important to older people. D) happiness declines between the ages of 50 and 70, and then increases again after 70. 31) Wealth has been found to correlate with happiness A) in studies of lottery winners. B) across different nations. C) when comparing people within most countries. D) across Western nations only. 32) People in countries with tend to be happier. A) high incomes B) low incomes C) more civil liberties D) high incomes and more civil liberties

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33) Which of the following is NOT a potential "third variable" that might explain the correlation

between wealth and happiness across countries? A) Civil rights B) Health care C) Education D) Diet 34) Diener et al. (1995) found that the correlation between personal income and happiness was

in the United States. A) 0.0 B) + .12 C) + .32 D) + .52 35) Which of the following traits is strongly associated with increased happiness? A) High levels of extraversion B) High levels of neuroticism C) Type A personality D) High levels of extraversion and high levels of neuroticism 36) Canadian research suggests that cross-cultural research on happiness may be limited by A) differences in the ways that cultures experience positive emotions. B) differences in the extent to which cultures place importance on positive emotions. C) differences in the ways that cultures define happiness. D) cultural differences in the number of synonyms for happiness. 37) Analyses of data from the 2003 Statistics Canada General Social Survey revealed that A) happiness was unrelated to income level. B) happiness was positively correlated with income level. C) happiness was negatively correlated with income level. D) there appeared to be a third variable underlying the link between happiness and

income. 38) Canadian research suggests that spending money on

impact on happiness than spending the same amount on A) family; friends B) others; oneself C) oneself; others D) friends; family

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can have a larger positive .

39) The effect of prosocial spending on happiness appears to be greater when givers are A) unaware of their impact. B) aware of the long-term effect of their spending. C) unaware of their own level of self-esteem. D) aware of their positive impact. 40) Pictures designed to create an emotional reaction would be used A) in the emotional Stroop task. B) in a mood induction. C) to assess Type A personality. D) to assess field dependence. 41) Studies of personality and mood inductions find that it is easier to put people who score A) B) C) D)

in good moods. high on extraversion low on extraversion high on neuroticism low on neuroticism

42) Correlational studies have A) provided evidence of a direct effect of personality on happiness. B) provided evidence of an indirect effect of personality on happiness. C) shown that high extraversion and low neuroticism are associated with happiness. D) shown that personality type causes happiness. 43) Studies that have used mood inductions have A) supported the idea of an indirect effect of personality on happiness. B) supported the idea of a direct effect of personality on happiness. C) shown that personality can influence the mood of a group. D) supported the theory of mood stability. 44) Which of the following is NOT likely to increase happiness? A) Spending time with friends B) Helping others C) Wishing for happiness D) Exercise

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45) People who spend much time worrying score A) high on measures of hostility. B) low on measures of hostility. C) high on measures of neuroticism. D) low on measures of neuroticism. 46) People who score high on neuroticism A) take a dimensional view of emotions. B) take a categorical view of emotions. C) are irritated by many things. D) take a categorical view of emotions and are irritated by many things. 47) Eysenck linked the trait of A) extraversion B) neuroticism C) Type A personality D) hostility

to activation in the limbic system.

48) Which of the following brain imaging techniques CANNOT easily test Eysenck's biological

explanation of neuroticism? A) EEG B) MRI C) PET D) Both EEG and PET 49) Which of the following is inconsistent with Eysenck's biological explanation of neuroticism? A) Neuroticism scores are stable over time. B) Neuroticism is partially heritable. C) Neuroticism is described by almost all cultures. D) Neuroticism changes over the lifespan. 50) Studies have shown that emotion is associated with an increased activation of the A) hippocampus. B) hypothalamus. C) anterior cingulate. D) prefrontal cortex.

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51) Studies have shown that the control of emotion is associated with an increased activation of

the A) B) C) D)

hippocampus. hypothalamus. anterior cingulate. prefrontal cortex.

52) Which of the following MOST suggests a cognitive basis of neuroticism? A) Neuroticism scores are stable over time. B) Neuroticism is associated with better recall of negative information. C) Neuroticism is partially heritable. D) Neuroticism is described by almost all cultures. 53) People who tend to complain of more physical ailments. A) score high on neuroticism B) score high on extraversion C) have positive illusions D) score low on agreeableness 54) People who score high (as compared to low) on neuroticism tend to A) underestimate their physical symptoms. B) reported fewer serious physical symptoms. C) have exaggerated memories of the physical symptoms they experienced. D) believe that others have physical symptoms even when they do not. 55) Which of the following is related to neuroticism? A) Coronary disease B) Cancer C) Diabetes D) Complaining about health problems 56) Research suggests that may be more susceptible to immune-mediated diseases. A) people with Type A personality B) people who score high on hostility C) people who score high on neuroticism D) people who score high on depressive attributional style

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57) The emotional Stroop task has been used to study personality differences in A) emotional reactivity. B) attention biases. C) physical symptoms. D) affect intensity. 58) Which of the following words would NOT cause emotional interference in a person who is

high in neuroticism? A) Disease B) Fear C) Failure D) Love 59) People high in neuroticism are often

to name colours of anxiety- and threat-related

words. A) B) C) D)

faster slower unwilling eager

60) It is estimated that clinical depression strikes

percent of the people in Canada at some

point in their lives. A) 5 B) 8 C) 10 D) 14 61) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of major depressive disorder? A) Diminished pleasure in most activities B) Fatigue C) Feelings of worthlessness D) Dwelling on the past 62) Symptoms of major depressive disorder must be present for how long in order to make a

diagnosis? A) 1 week B) 2 weeks C) 4 weeks D) 6 weeks

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63) According to the diathesis-stress model, depression results from A) stressful life events. B) a pre-existing vulnerability. C) an active limbic system. D) stressful life events and a pre-existing vulnerability. 64)

refer(s) to a way of organizing and interpreting the world. A) Cognitive schemas B) Cognitive triads C) Syndromes D) Cognitive categorization

65) Which of the following is NOT a part of Beck's cognitive triad? A) Information about the self B) Information about one's past C) Information about one's future D) Information about the world 66) Beck emphasized in explaining depression. A) vulnerability to negative emotions B) activity in the limbic system C) distortions in thoughts D) the categorical approach to emotions 67) According to Beck, which of the following is NOT a cognitive distortion among people with

depression? A) Making arbitrary inferences B) Personalizing C) Catastrophizing D) Compartmentalizing 68) Beck thought all of the following about cognitive distortions EXCEPT that they A) lead to self-fulfilling prophesies. B) lead to negative feelings about the self. C) were automatic in depressed people. D) are more likely to occur in Western cultures.

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69) Depressed persons maintain an A) external; unstable; specific B) external; stable; specific C) internal; stable; global D) internal; unstable; global

, and

explanatory style.

70) According to the neurotransmitter theory of depression, which of the following

neurotransmitters are NOT involved in depression? A) Dopamine B) Serotonin C) Norepinephrine D) Glutamate 71) Someone who becomes very angry and irritated when receiving a bill in the mail or

encountering traffic delays, for example, may be labelled A) neurotic. B) hostile. C) psychopathic. D) antisocial. 72) Hostility includes all of the following EXCEPT A) becoming easily irritated. B) feeling frequent resentment. C) acting in a rude and critical manner in everyday interactions. D) using more extreme and foul language. 73) Recent research on Type A personality has focused on A) defining the categorical approach to emotion. B) defining the dimensional approach to emotion. C) neuroticism. D) hostility. 74) People who are concerned with aggressively achieving more in less time A) score high on measures of neuroticism. B) tend to be depressed. C) exhibit Type A personality. D) score high on measures of extraversion.

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75) A cluster of several traits is referred to as a(n) A) "taxonomy." B) "syndrome." C) "explanatory style." D) "diathesis-stress model." 76) Research on Type A personality suggests that the component of

is most associated

with poor health. A) time urgency B) achievement strivings C) hostility D) competitiveness 77) Which of the following traits refers to an emotional style? A) Type A personality B) Hostility C) Affect intensity D) Easygoingness 78) A person who experiences very high "highs" and very low "lows" scores high on the trait of A) affect intensity. B) neuroticism. C) extraversion. D) hostility. 79) A person who scores low on affect intensity A) never experiences strong emotions. B) experiences negative emotions more frequently than a person who scores high. C) experiences strong emotions less frequently than a person who scores high. D) experiences negative emotions all of the time. 80) Which of the following was identified using the experience sampling method? A) Type A personality B) Affect intensity C) Neuroticism D) Explanatory style

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81) Researchers agree that A) it is better to be high on affect intensity. B) it is better to be low on affect intensity. C) it is better to be high on affect intensity most of the time. D) we cannot say whether it is bad or good to be low or high on affect intensity. 82) Research on affect intensity suggests that most people A) prefer to be high in B) prefer to be low in C) prefer to be moderate in D) would not want to change their level of

affect intensity.

83) People who score high on affect intensity A) experience only negative emotions more strongly than people who score low. B) experience more physiological arousal than people who score low. C) experience less physiological arousal than people who score low. D) Both "experience only negative emotions more strongly than people who score low"

and "experience more physiological arousal than people who score low." 84) A benefit of low affect intensity is A) fewer psychosomatic symptoms. B) lower levels of concern about psychosomatic symptoms. C) experiencing less intense positive emotions. D) experiencing more intense positive emotions. 85) High levels of affect intensity are associated with A) Type A personality. B) high levels of neuroticism. C) high levels of extraversion. D) high levels of neuroticism and extraversion. 86) Mood variability is a component of A) Type A personality. B) affect intensity. C) extraversion. D) anxiety.

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87) People in affect intensity exhibit A) low; slightly more B) low; many more C) high; more D) high; less

frequent changes in their moods.

88) Emotional content and emotional style A) correlate at high levels. B) correlate at moderate levels. C) correlate at low levels. D) do not correlate at all. 89) The degree of pleasantness in a person's life over time is referred to as A) Valence. B) hedonic balance. C) emotional balance. D) emotional stability. 90) According to research, which path to happiness is the least correlated with life satisfaction? A) the meaningful life B) the engaged life C) the pleasant life D) the mindful life 91) According to research, the COVID-19 pandemic has had a negative impact on Canadians’ A) hedonic balance. B) life satisfaction. C) emotional style. D) depressive style. 92) You are a researcher interested in studying emotional life. In addition to measuring emotional

intensity, which other variable should you measure? A) emotional variability B) emotional frequency C) neuroticism D) hedonic balance

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93) You are a researcher studying pride, and it is your goal to assess all physical expressions of

this discrete emotion. What type(s) of physical expression should you study for a complete analysis? A) facial expressions B) bodily expressions C) facial and bodily expressions D) reactive facial expressions 94) The observation that although anger and anxiety are similar in their valence and arousal but

different in their facial expressions underscores a tension between what two perspectives on emotions? A) dimensional and categorical B) dimensional and functional C) categorical and functional D) dimensional and universal

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 13 1) C 2) D 3) A 4) A 5) B 6) A 7) C 8) A 9) D 10) C 11) B 12) A 13) B 14) C 15) B 16) C 17) D 18) C 19) B 20) D 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) D 27) D 28) A 29) A 30) C 31) B 32) D 33) D 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) A

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38) B 39) D 40) B 41) A 42) C 43) B 44) C 45) C 46) C 47) B 48) A 49) D 50) C 51) D 52) B 53) A 54) C 55) D 56) C 57) B 58) D 59) B 60) B 61) D 62) B 63) D 64) A 65) B 66) C 67) D 68) D 69) C 70) D 71) B 72) D 73) D 74) C 75) B 76) C 77) C

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78) A 79) C 80) B 81) D 82) D 83) B 84) A 85) D 86) B 87) C 88) D 89) B 90) C 91) B 92) D 93) C 94) A

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Chapter 14 Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The way you see and define your self is known as your A) self-esteem. B) self-concept. C) social identity. D) self-esteem variability. 2) The extent to which you value yourself is known as your A) self-esteem. B) self-concept. C) social identity. D) possible selves. 3) The aspect(s) of yourself that you present to others is/are known as your A) self-esteem. B) self-concept. C) social identity. D) possible selves. 4) If you describe yourself to other people as extraverted, but in fact you are introverted, then

extraversion is a part of your A) self-esteem. B) self-concept. C) social identity. D) possible selves. 5) Most people look at A) themselves B) romantic partners C) family members D) close friends

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first in a photo.

6) People are especially sensitive to events that change their sense of self in A) early childhood. B) late adolescence. C) middle adulthood. D) late adulthood. 7) Our sense of self influences all of the following EXCEPT A) how we evaluate life events. B) how we interact with other people. C) how others view us. D) how many relationships we engage in. 8) A person who fails an exam will A) feel bad if doing well on the exam was important to their self-concept. B) feel bad if they have low self-esteem. C) feel bad if they have high self-esteem. D) likely begin to self-handicap. 9) People who evaluate their personal characteristics as positive A) demonstrate identity contrast. B) engage in selective valuation. C) have high self-esteem. D) have low self-esteem. 10) The information on your driver's license is mostly a part of your A) self-esteem. B) self-concept. C) social identity. D) possible selves. 11) The self-concept begins to develop as early as A) infancy. B) childhood. C) adolescence. D) adulthood.

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12)

begins to develop when an infant notices that their body is distinct from the rest of the world. A) B) C) D)

13)

Self-esteem Self-concept Social identity The first possible self

People differ from most other animals in that A) most other animals do not have traits. B) most other animals do not have a self-concept. C) most other animals do not engage in unconscious behaviour. D) most other animals so not have emotions.

14) The primary method for psychologists to test for the presence of self-recognition is the A) self-reflection test. B) apperception test. C) mirror test. D) forehead test. 15) In humans, self-recognition in mirrors occurs on average at the age of A) 12 months B) 14 months C) 16 months D) 18 months 16) An example of another species that has passed the mirror self-recognition test is A) lemurs. B) elephants. C) pigeons. D) dogs. 17) All of the following species have been shown to pass the mirror self-recognition test

EXCEPT: A) Asian elephants B) monkeys C) bottlenose dolphins D) magpies

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18) Cross-cultural research on self-recognition in mirrors suggests that the mirror test is A) also a test of self-esteem in select cultures. B) only applicable in English-speaking populations. C) probably not a reliable and universal measure of self-concept. D) only relevant in collectivistic cultures when parents are present. 19) Children can follow rules set up by parents around the age of A) 6 months. B) 9 months. C) 1 year. D) 2 years. 20) When a person evaluates his performance relative to peers, he engages in A) identity conflict. B) identity deficit. C) selective valuation. D) social comparison. 21) Around 5 or 6 years of age, children develop A) the ability to engage in social comparison. B) a private self-concept. C) objective self-awareness. D) the ability to engage in social comparison and a private self-concept. 22) Imaginary friends often indicate that a child has developed A) the ability to engage in social comparison. B) a private self-concept. C) objective self-awareness. D) an identity deficit. 23) Perspective taking usually develops around the age of A) 2 B) 5 C) 9 D) 13

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years.

24) The ability to see oneself as other people might is known as A) a private self-concept. B) social comparison. C) perspective taking. D) social identity. 25) Seeing oneself as the object of others' attention is known as A) social comparison. B) perspective taking. C) objective self-awareness. D) a private self-concept. 26) People living in modern societies begin to organize their lives in narrative terms in A) early adolescence. B) late adolescence. C) early adulthood. D) late adolescence and early adulthood. 27) The specific knowledge structures of self-concepts are called A) self-schema. B) possible selves. C) social identities. D) self-esteem. 28) Self-schemas A) guide attention. B) are stored in short-term memory. C) influence how long we are likely to live. D) interact with identity to influence self-esteem. 29) "Possible selves" describe A) who we would like to become. B) who we do not want to become. C) Who we think we might become. D) who we would like to become, who we do not want to become, and who we think we

might become.

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30) A person who has a possible self of a musician A) knows that they will be a musician someday. B) knows the steps needed to take to become a musician. C) will be guided towards musical opportunities. D) will experience distress if they do not at least try a career in music. 31) Possible selves A) describe past behaviours. B) motivate behaviour. C) are unrelated to behaviour. D) develop in early infancy. 32)

is/are what a person wants to be. A) Self-esteem B) The ideal self C) The ought self D) Possible selves

33) A person's understanding of how others want them to be is known as the A) "self-guide." B) "ideal self." C) "ought self." D) “future self.” 34) Tory Higgins described _

as standards that individuals use to organize information and motivate appropriate behaviour. A) self-guides B) possible selves C) self-esteem D) identity crises

35) A person who is especially motivated to avoid harm A) has high self-esteem. B) is engaging in prevention focus. C) is engaging in promotion focus. D) has lost their self-guide.

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36) Feeling like your "true self" is the subjective experience of A) self-concept. B) identity. C) the ought self. D) authenticity. 37) Which of the following is not one of the 4 main factors of authenticity proposed by Kernis

and Goldman (2006)? A) Awareness of strengths and weaknesses B) Authentic relationships C) Emotional intelligence D) Unbiased processing 38) In consideration of authenticity, unbiased processing refers to A) the tendency to perceive reality accurately, and to process information in a realistic

way. B) the tendency to interpret information in social situations without bias. C) the tendency to not employ one's schemas when solving a problem. D) unfounded and inaccurate interpretations of the world. 39) Authenticity has been correlated with high levels of all Big Five traits EXCEPT A) emotional stability. B) neuroticism. C) openness to experience. D) agreeableness. 40) Compared to people with high self-esteem, people with low self-esteem are more A) prevention focused. B) promotion focused. C) concerned with not failing than with succeeding. D) prevention focused and more concerned with not failing than with succeeding. 41) Self-esteem is the sum of your reactions to all the aspects of your self-concept. A) positive B) negative C) positive and negative D) positive, negative, and standard

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42) When people behave in ways that are inconsistent with their self-concepts A) they self-handicap. B) they abandon their possible selves. C) their self-esteem increases. D) their self-esteem decreases. 43)

is the composite of self-evaluations across many different domains. A) Self-esteem variability B) Global self-esteem C) Self-concept D) Social identity

44) Self-esteem in the academic domain

with self-esteem in the physical attractiveness

domain. A) correlates highly B) correlates moderately C) correlates a little D) does not correlate 45) A person who agrees with the statement, "I feel I do not have much to be proud of," would

score

self-esteem. A) low on academic B) score high on academic C) score low on global D) score high on global

46) People tend to respond to criticism with decreased motivation. A) with low self-esteem B) with high self-esteem C) who are shy D) who are not shy 47) People who score high on self-esteem tend to A) work harder B) give up C) become angry D) increase their self-esteem

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after receiving failure feedback.

48) People who have low self-esteem A) are interested only in positive feedback. B) are interested only in negative feedback. C) are not interested in receiving feedback. D) do not differ from those high in self-esteem in their interest in feedback. 49) People who tend to be motivated by a fear of failure. A) have high self-esteem B) have low self-esteem C) are shy D) have low self-esteem and are shy 50) A person with high (as opposed to low) self-esteem would be more likely to respond to

failure by A) giving up. B) accepting it. C) thinking of other things that are going well. D) becoming aggressive. 51) People who desire social contact but are held back by insecurity are best described as A) having low self-esteem. B) antisocial. C) shy. D) lacking self-schema. 52) People who are shy also A) have low self-esteem variability. B) are introverted. C) score high on social anxiety. D) low in warmth. 53) Shyness is unrelated to A) introversion/extraversion. B) social anxiety. C) self-esteem. D) neuroticism.

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54) Canadian researcher Robert Coplan has distinguished between shyness and what other

psychological construct? A) agoraphobia B) social anxiety C) low self-esteem D) social disinterest 55) To stress the underlying social anxiety involved in shyness, Coplan has more precisely

referred to the construct as A) conflicted shyness. B) anxious shyness. C) neurotic shyness. D) social shyness. 56) Kagan has found that about A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40

percent of 4-month-old infants are shy.

57) Children who were shy as infants, but overcame their shyness A) were encouraged into social interactions by parents. B) were not encouraged into social interactions by parents. C) did not have the shyness gene. D) had parents that were more outgoing. 58) Canadian research has shown that children high in conflicted shyness also display A) hypervigilance for visual stimuli in laboratory experiments. B) hypersensitivity for auditory stimuli in the environment. C) hyper-reactivity to stressful stimuli in the environment. D) hypersensitivity for smells and tastes. 59) People who experience discomfort related to social interactions score A) high on measures of self-esteem. B) low on measures of self-esteem. C) high on measures of social anxiety. D) low on measures of social anxiety.

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60) People who are socially anxious A) are less likely to ask for help. B) are often perceived as unfriendly. C) do not want to have friends. D) are less likely to ask for help and are often perceived as unfriendly. 61) To overcome shyness, people should A) force themselves into social situations. B) only enter social situations where they feel comfortable. C) carefully monitor their part of the conversation. D) take the view that conversation should come easily. 62) Which of the following is NOT a step that would tend to help decrease shyness? A) Try not to avoid social situations. B) Mentally review aspects of conversation that went poorly. C) Pay attention to others. D) Make more eye contact. 63) A person with many distinct aspects of self is best described as having A) high self-esteem variability. B) high global self-esteem. C) high self-complexity. D) self-guides. 64) People with low (as opposed to high) self-complexity A) respond better to negative life events. B) are devastated by negative life events. C) tend to respond to failure with aggression. D) score higher on measures of self-esteem. 65)

A positive aspect of defensive pessimism is that A) it helps transform anxiety into pleasure. B) it leads to motivation. C) other people find it attractive. D) it leads to positive affect.

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66) When a person deliberately does something that increases the chances of failure, they are

engaging in A) defensive pessimism. B) prevention focus. C) promotion focus. D) self-handicapping. 67) A person who goes to a wild, all-night party the night before an exam may be engaging in A) stupidity. B) prevention focus. C) promotion focus. D) self-handicapping. 68) People who score low in self-esteem are more likely to do all of the following EXCEPT A) engage in self-handicapping. B) engage in defensive pessimism. C) avoid failure feedback. D) display a promotion focus. 69) Individual differences in short-term self-evaluations refer to the dimension of A) self-esteem variability. B) global self-esteem. C) promotion focus. D) prevention focus. 70) Self-esteem level and self-esteem variability A) correlate at high levels. B) do not correlate. C) interact to predict important outcomes. D) do not correlate and interact to predict important outcomes. 71) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of people who score high on self-esteem

variability? A) Enhanced sensitivity to social events B) Tendency for a low sense of self-worth C) Tendency to react with anger and hostility D) Increased concern about their self-view

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72) Research on Indigenous populations indicates that overweight and obese children score lower

on A) B) C) D)

global self-concept. self-esteem related to their physical appearance only. four specific self-esteem domains. self-construal.

73) Gender and ethnicity are necessarily a component of one's A) self-concept. B) self-esteem. C) social identity. D) global self-esteem. 74) When people have high social anxiety, they're more likely to interpret ambiguous text

messages A) positively. B) negatively. C) as meaningless. D) as hostile. 75) In Canadian research on text message communication, social anxiety predicted interpretation

biases among male participants only when A) the sender was described as male. B) the sender was described as female. C) the sender's gender was unknown. D) the sender was older. 76) In Kingsbury and Coplan's (2016) research, female participants were more likely to interpret

ambiguous text messages from other females as negative. One explanation for this offered by the researchers is A) the tendency for females to gossip more than males. B) the greater hostility that defines most female-female friendships. C) the greater closeness observed in female-female friendships. D) the tendency for females to worry more than males.

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77) Canadian research has shown that individuals with

tend to post more negative

content on Facebook. A) low self-esteem B) high narcissism C) low self-construal D) high neuroticism 78) An individual's global self-evaluation as a member of social groups or categories is called A) collectivistic orientation. B) global self-esteem. C) interdependent self-construal. D) collective self-esteem. 79) According to Canadian research, being a bully in adolescence is associated with A) higher self-esteem but poorer mental health. B) higher self-esteem and better mental health. C) lower self-esteem and poorer mental health. D) lower self-esteem but better mental health. 80) The idea that identity remains relatively stable is referred to as identity A) continuity. B) contrast. C) deficit. D) conflict. 81) The idea that a people's identity sets them apart from others is known as identity A) continuity. B) contrast. C) deficit. D) conflict. 82)

first popularized the concept of identity. A) Eysenck B) Freud C) Erikson D) Skinner

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83) Experimentation with different identities is most common in A) childhood. B) adolescence. C) adulthood. D) old age. 84) People differ in A) the extent to which identity is important to them. B) the amount of effort expended on creating an identity. C) whether or not they have identities. D) the size of their identity. 85) Anxiety related to changes in one's identity is called identity A) continuity. B) contrast. C) crisis. D) conflict. 86) When a person has failed to find an adequate identity they experience identity A) continuity. B) contrast. C) deficit. D) rigidity. 87)

A person who has an identity deficit A) has trouble making decisions. B) experiences more identity contrast. C) has more difficulty changing their identity. D) has trouble making decisions and experiences more identity contrast.

88) When individuals discard their parents' values, they may be at risk for identity A) conflict. B) continuity. C) contrast. D) deficit.

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89) Important and difficult life decisions are often accompanied by identity A) rigidity. B) contrast. C) deficit. D) conflict. 90) Identity conflicts are conflicts. A) approach-avoidance B) approach-approach C) avoidance-avoidance D) benign 91) Midlife identity crises are most likely to be A) approach-approach conflicts. B) identity deficits. C) identity conflicts. D) identity contrasts. 92) The character Lester from the movie "American Beauty" most demonstrates the concept of A) self-esteem variability. B) defensive pessimism. C) self-handicapping. D) identity crisis. 93) Examining differences in self-reported levels of Big Five traits across different social roles

has been used to measure A) self-concept differentiation. B) identity deficit. C) identity conflict. D) positive illusions about the self. 94) Self-concept differentiation has been associated with A) depression. B) low self-esteem. C) Both depression and low self-esteem. D) Neither depression nor self-esteem.

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95) You have a friend who used to spend a lot of time trying to please others, but now seems to

be acting in a way that aligns with their own values and preferences. They also seem to be acting more honest and sincere in their close relationships. According to Kernis and Goldman, your friend appears to be satisfying half of the criteria for A) the ideal self B) authenticity C) self-actualization D) Identity formation 96) How would you expect someone who is behaving authentically to be perceived by others in

an evaluation scenario? A) more positively B) more negatively C) as more attractive D) as less attractive 97) You are a researcher studying authenticity and the true self in a group of university students.

In addition to examining models or theories of authenticity, what discrepancy could you also measure in participants as an indicator of authenticity? A) the discrepancy between the ought self and the true self B) the discrepancy between agency and communion C) the discrepancy between self-concept and self-esteem D) the discrepancy between the ideal self and the ought self 98) In order to measure positive illusions about the self, what representation of self-esteem would

you need to measure in addition to explicit self-esteem? A) repressed self-esteem B) implicit self-esteem C) collective self-esteem D) daily self-esteem

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 14 1) B 2) A 3) C 4) C 5) A 6) B 7) D 8) A 9) C 10) C 11) A 12) B 13) B 14) C 15) D 16) B 17) B 18) C 19) D 20) D 21) D 22) B 23) D 24) C 25) C 26) D 27) A 28) A 29) D 30) C 31) B 32) B 33) C 34) A 35) B 36) D 37) C

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38) A 39) B 40) D 41) C 42) D 43) B 44) B 45) C 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) D 50) C 51) C 52) C 53) A 54) D 55) A 56) B 57) A 58) B 59) C 60) D 61) A 62) B 63) C 64) B 65) B 66) D 67) D 68) D 69) A 70) D 71) B 72) A 73) C 74) B 75) B 76) C 77) A

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78) D 79) B 80) A 81) B 82) C 83) B 84) A 85) C 86) C 87) A 88) D 89) D 90) B 91) B 92) D 93) A 94) C 95) B 96) A 97) D 98) B

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Chapter 15 Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) People consider personality traits most when they friends. A) manipulate B) evoke C) select D) argue with 2) When a person's behaviour unintentionally elicits a certain response from another person, we

observe A) manipulation. B) selection. C) evocation. D) provocation. 3) If a person is treated nicely because she is a friendly person the mechanism of

may be

operating. A) manipulation. B) selection. C) evocation. D) stagnation. 4) Intentionally influencing other people's behaviour is known as A) manipulation. B) selection. C) evocation. D) stagnation. 5) A boy who persuades his brother to steal some candy demonstrates the concept of A) manipulation. B) selection. C) evocation. D) stagnation.

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6) According to international research, the characteristic most desirable in a mate is A) extraversion. B) mutual attraction or love. C) openness. D) agreeableness. 7) Which of the following is most important to most people in choosing a mate? A) Political ideology B) Personality characteristics C) Health D) Good looks 8) The complementary needs theory states that individuals select mates A) with personality characteristics that differ from theirs. B) who fulfill their needs for being complimented and flattered. C) with personality characteristics similar to their own. D) who have characteristics that are related to marital satisfaction. 9) Francis, a miserable cook, is looking for a partner who is a wonderful cook. Francis'

preference for someone who cooks would support the A) assortative mating B) complementary needs C) wishful thinking D) self-deception

hypothesis on human mating.

10) Which of the following names the theory that states that individuals select individuals with

characteristics similar to their own for marriage partners? A) Long-term mating B) Mirror image mating C) Assortative mating D) Matching hypothesis 11) Investigators have found evidence for assortative mating A) only for physical characteristics (height, weight, etc.). B) only for psychological characteristics (attitudes, beliefs, personality traits). C) in a few selected variables important in the area of evolutionary psychology. D) for almost every variable that has been investigated.

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12) Samantha places an online personal ad. In her ad she writes that she is very outgoing,

conscientious, and open to experience. She states that she wants the same characteristics in potential mate. Her ad supports the hypothesis of mate selection. A) assortative mating B) complimentary needs C) wishful thinking D) self-deception 13) According to the assortative mating hypothesis, individuals who score high on extraversion

scales will prefer potential mates who score high on A) neuroticism. B) agreeableness. C) extraversion. D) introversion. 14) In 1997, Botwin, Buss, and Shackelford found that individuals preferred mates with

personality traits that A) made up for deficits in their own personality traits. B) were strongly skewed to the positive pole of each personality trait. C) were similar to their own personality traits. D) matched their opposite sex parent's personality traits. 15) When the correlations between an individual's mate preferences for personality traits and the

scores for their partner's personality traits are examined A) there is no evidence that an individual's preferences for a mate are related to their own personality traits. B) there is modest evidence to support the idea that an individual's preferences for a mate are related to their partner's personality traits. C) there is an extremely strong correspondence between an individual's trait preferences and the trait ratings of their partner's personality. D) correlations between an individual's preferences for personality traits match their partner's scores for preferences for personality traits. 16) Correlations between a person's preferences ratings for personality characteristics in a mate

and ratings of the mate's personality characteristics measured across different sources of data are A) weakly positive. B) moderately positive. C) weakly negative. D) close to zero.

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17) People who are married to someone who has personality characteristics close to their ratings

of their preferred partner are A) much more satisfied than people who are married to someone less like their ideal. B) slightly much more satisfied than people who are married to someone less like their ideal. C) less satisfied than people who are married to someone less like their ideal. D) no different from other people in terms of satisfaction. 18) People who are married to someone who scores high on all of these personality traits

EXCEPT tend to be more satisfied in their relationships than individuals whose spouse score low on this trait. A) agreeableness B) extraversion C) emotional stability D) openness to experience 19) People who are married to someone who has high trait ratings for agreeableness report higher

levels of marital satisfaction A) if their spouse also has high trait ratings for emotional instability. B) if their spouse also has low trait ratings for intellect-openness. C) if their spouse also has high trait ratings for surgency. D) no matter what other personality traits their spouse has. 20) Women who are married to men who score high on openness rate their A) husbands as sources of stimulating conversation compared to other women's view of

their husbands. B) husbands as being sources of encouragement and support. C) husbands as being someone in whom they can confide. D) love and affection expressed with their husbands as being high. 21) According to the "violation of desire" theory, people are most likely to break up with mates A) with whom they are no longer romantically infatuated after a period of time in the

relationship. B) who violate the person's desire to reach their level of optimal reproductively success. C) who lack widely sought personality characteristics in a mate, such as dependability,

emotional stability, or pleasing disposition. D) who discover, over time, that their partner no longer meets their complementary needs.

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22) In terms of personality, the best predictor of divorce is A) low levels of emotional stability. B) high levels of emotional stability. C) high levels of openness. D) low levels of openness. 23) Low levels of which of the following personality traits are NOT correlated with a higher

likelihood of a divorce or breakup in a relationship? A) Agreeableness B) Emotional stability C) Conscientiousness D) Openness 24) The finding that partners in a relationship who are dissimilar in personality are more likely to

break up supports the A) violation of desire theory. B) assortative mating hypothesis. C) complementary needs hypothesis. D) attraction similarity theory. 25) Research on same-sex couples suggests

similarity in characteristics compared to

straight couples. A) much more B) slightly more C) slightly less D) much less 26) Research on assortative mating in same-sex couples suggests that compared to straight

couples, gay male couples are less homogenous on what 2 traits? A) age and income B) age and education C) education and income D) age and ethnicity

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27) Regarding research on assortative mating in same-sex couples, we can say that A) sufficient research has been conducted to make accurate comparisons with straight

couples. B) more research is needed to understand how and to what extent assortative mating occurs in different-sex relationships. C) the research has been largely inconclusive despite the number of studies conducted. D) more research has been conducted on assortative mating in lesbian couples compared to gay male couples. 28) The tendency to feel tense, anxious, or worried during social interactions, or even when

anticipating a social interaction, is known as A) openness. B) emotional stability. C) expectation confirmation. D) shyness. 29) In terms of health issues, shy women when compared to non-shy women. A) are more likely to see a gynecologist. B) are less likely to see a gynecologist. C) are more likely to insist on contraception before having sex. D) avoid potentially dangerous sexual situations. 30) Shy people engage in all of the following behaviours more than less shy people EXCEPT

they A) B) C) D)

take fewer risks. avoid other people. are more likely to get divorced. create socially isolating situations.

31) The following are all examples of how personality traits guide the selection of situations

EXCEPT individuals scoring high on A) sensation-seeking scales avoid risky situations. B) psychoticism scales choose volatile and spontaneous situations. C) Machiavellianism scales prefer face-to-face situations. D) emphases scales are likely to volunteer for community activities.

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32) Individuals scoring high on sensation-seeking scales prefer NOT to select situations that A) are characterized by higher risk sexual behaviour. B) involve unusual psychological experiments on topics such as drugs or sex. C) consists of a series of highly repetitive tasks. D) frequently involve attending parties where alcohol or drugs are available. 33) Buss, Block, and Block found that highly active children elicited behaviours to bring them

under control by their parents and teachers. This finding is an example of the mechanism of person-environment mechanism of A) manipulation. B) evocation. C) exasperation. D) provocation. 34) Aggressive people tend to evoke A) hostility B) submission C) understanding D) praise

from others.

35) As he walks down the hallway, Aaron accidentally bumps into Jin, a well-known

neighbourhood bully. Jin immediately becomes aggressive, demanding that Aaron tell him what he meant to do when he bumped into him. Jin's behaviour demonstrates the attributional bias. A) fundamental B) hostile C) externalization D) aggressive 36) Evocation is NOT demonstrated in which of the following situations? A) When a person acts in a way that causes an emotional response in another person. B) When a person’s actions cause their partner to behave in ways that elicit anger and

conflict. C) When one partner in a relationship nags the other person to accomplish a task around the house. D) When a charismatic person walks into a room and a dull party turns to an enjoyable one.

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37) The finding that aggressive people interpret ambiguous situations as hostile demonstrates the A) evocative imperative. B) paranoid externalization bias. C) hostile attributional bias. D) fundamental situation error. 38) Husbands who score low on conscientiousness tend to evoke anger from their wives by A) having extramarital affairs. B) drinking too much. C) being abusive. D) withholding sex. 39) Husbands who score low on

tend to evoke anger from their wives by being condescending, failing to spend time with them, neglecting them, and ignoring their feelings. A) extraversion B) agreeableness C) openness D) conscientiousness

40) People who score tend to evoke the most anger from their spouses. A) low on agreeableness B) high on agreeableness C) low on conscientiousness D) high on conscientiousness 41) Individuals who are highly agreeable tend to evoke

than individuals with lower

agreeableness scores. A) much more love from their spouses B) far less interpersonal conflict C) longer conversations with peers D) more upper limit control 42) Expectancy confirmations are also known as A) evocative corroborations. B) self-fulfilling prophesies. C) behavioural substantiations. D) likelihood verifications.

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43) A study showed that when people had to interact with someone whom they expected to be a

hostile person they A) were more hostile towards the person. B) were more accommodating towards the person. C) acted more agreeable towards the person. D) acted more neurotic towards the person. 44) You have heard that Dean Radcliffe has a reputation for being very arrogant and

condescending to students. One day your professor sends you to see the Dean to discuss an important educational issue. You are quite apprehensive when you enter the Dean's office and act very anxious and fearful. Since Dean Radcliffe has little patience for nervous behaviour, he snaps at you, thus confirming the that you evoked. A) self-fulfilling corroborations B) expectancy confirmations C) behavioural verifications D) likelihood substantiations 45) People who are being manipulated by another person are A) affected by the person doing the manipulating. B) always harmed by the manipulation. C) less likely to use manipulation themselves. D) likely to attempt a retaliatory manipulation. 46) The taxonomy of manipulation tactics described in the text was developed with A) a two-step procedure: nominations of acts of influence and factor analysis of self-

reports and observer-reports of the previously nominated acts. B) observer reports based on lengthy questionnaires. C) physiological measures. D) behavioural tests. 47) The manipulation tactic of might involve yelling at someone. A) coercion B) reason C) charm D) responsibility invocation

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48) Which of the following is an example of the hardball manipulation tactic? A) Bribing someone. B) Acting in a loving way. C) Whining. D) Hitting someone. 49) Telling someone that "everyone else is doing it" is an example of the

manipulation

tactic. A) B) C) D)

hardball social comparison charm self-abasement

50) Showing someone how fun an activity will be is an example of the

manipulation

tactic. A) B) C) D)

pleasure induction hardball silent treatment self-abasement

51) Which of the following is NOT one of the eleven tactics of manipulation? A) Coercion B) Silencing C) Pleasure induction D) Hardball 52) Niccolo Machiavelli was a 16th century Italian A) prince. B) cardinal. C) diplomat. D) inventor. 53)

is the deliberate, manipulative style of behaviour that uses other individuals for personal gain. A) Dictatorialism B) Machiavellianism C) Zoroasterism D) Rastafarianism

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54) Which of the following statements would a person scoring high on Machiavellianism agree

with? A) B) C) D)

Honesty is the best policy. Most people are generally good and kind. It is wise to flatter important people. Cooperation is the best strategy.

55) Machiavellian strategies work best A) in structured situations. B) in unstructured situations. C) when they are used by trusting people. D) when they are used on untrusting people. 56) People who score high on Machiavellianism are more likely to pursue a A) tit-for-tat strategy. B) short-term social strategy. C) long-term social strategy. D) reciprocal strategy 57) Workers who score low on Machiavellianism make more money A) in companies where there are many rules. B) in companies where there are few rules. C) in companies that frequently evaluate performance. D) compared to people who score high. 58) A study by Wilson et al. showed that people who scored high in Machiavellianism were A) more likely to prefer highly structured situations. B) less likely to steal money. C) more likely to lie about stealing money. D) scrupulously honest in financial transactions. 59) The personality trait which involves enjoyment gained from the displeasure or pain of others

is referred to as A) social pessimism. B) antisocial personality disorder. C) Machiavellianism. D) dispositional sadism.

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60) In research examining the personality correlates of Internet trolling behaviour, frequency of

online commenting was significantly associated with higher levels of Machiavellianism, psychopathy, and what additional two traits? A) narcissism and neuroticism B) introversion and narcissism C) narcissism and sadism D) sadism and neuroticism 61) In addition to being associated with certain Dark Tetrad dimensions, internet trolling

behaviour has also been correlated with what two Big 5 personality traits? A) Low extraversion and low agreeableness B) High extraversion and low agreeableness C) High extraversion and high agreeableness D) Low extraversion and high agreeableness 62) Enjoyment gained from Internet trolling has been associated with all components of the 'dark

tetrad' of personality EXCEPT A) narcissism. B) Machiavellianism. C) psychopathy. D) dispositional sadism. 63) In addition to internet trolling behaviour, what other manipulative behaviours have the Dark

Tetrad traits been associated with? A) cyberbullying and cyberstalking on social media B) online sexual harassment C) increased use of profanity on social media D) more noticeable profile pictures on social media 64) Among the Big Five traits, Internet trolls appear to be

in extraversion and

in agreeableness. A) higher; higher B) higher; lower C) lower; higher D) lower; lower

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65) People who score low on

tend to use the self-abasement manipulation tactic more

often. A) B) C) D)

surgency agreeableness conscientiousness emotional stability

66) People who score high on

tend to use the manipulation tactics of pleasure induction and

reason more. A) surgency B) agreeableness C) conscientiousness D) emotional stability 67) The manipulation tactic most often used by people low in emotional stability is A) hardball. B) self-abasement. C) regression. D) pleasure induction. 68) The following are all characteristics of narcissism EXCEPT A) being grandiose. B) being exploitative. C) being self-centred. D) apathetic behaviour. 69) People who score high on openness tend to use the manipulation tactic of A) reason B) self-abasement C) hardball D) pleasure induction

most.

70) People who score low on openness tend to use the manipulation tactic of A) reason B) social comparison C) regression D) silent treatment

most.

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71) Mei chooses friends who admire her and reflect her highly positive view of herself. Mei most

likely scores high on the personality trait of A) extraversion. B) narcissism. C) Machiavellianism. D) manipulation. 72) Narcissists who are very self-aggrandizing tend to evoke reactions of

from other

people. A) B) C) D)

anger laughter exasperation humility

73) Narcissists tend to use a predictable set of manipulation tactics which are typically

exemplified by being in social situations. A) very generous and giving and described as altruistic B) very aggressive and hostile C) exploitative of others and being described as "users" D) supportive and nurturing 74) Narcissists react to failure by A) becoming socially withdrawn. B) derogating other people. C) accepting responsibility for their actions. D) engaging in self-abasement. 75) Of the following, who appears to use social media less? A) people high in neuroticism B) people low in openness C) people low in agreeableness D) people low in neuroticism 76) Which trait has most consistently been associated with social media use across studies? A) extraversion B) openness to experience C) neuroticism D) agreeableness

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77)

According to recent research, narcissists A) spend less time on social media. B) update their online profile photos more often. C) post more pictures of their pets on social media. D) spend more time on Twitter.

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 15 1) C 2) C 3) C 4) A 5) A 6) B 7) B 8) A 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) A 13) C 14) C 15) B 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) D 20) D 21) C 22) A 23) D 24) A 25) C 26) B 27) B 28) D 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) B 36) C 37) C

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38) A 39) B 40) A 41) B 42) B 43) A 44) B 45) A 46) A 47) A 48) D 49) B 50) A 51) B 52) C 53) B 54) C 55) B 56) B 57) A 58) C 59) D 60) C 61) B 62) A 63) A 64) B 65) A 66) B 67) C 68) D 69) A 70) B 71) B 72) A 73) C 74) B 75) D 76) A 77) B

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Chapter 16 Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Differences between women and men in terms of personality or behaviour without regard to the causes of those differences are called A) sex differences. B) gender differences. C) adaptive problems. D) gender stereotypes. 2) The fact that males are, on average, taller than females is best described by the term A) sex difference. B) gender difference. C) adaptive problem. D) gender stereotype. 3) The sociocultural interpretation of what it means to be a woman or a man is referred to as A) sex. B) gender. C) social learning theory. D) social role theory. 4) The label of an individual as male or female based on physiology or anatomy is referred to as A) sex. B) gender. C) sexual orientation. D) sexual role theory. 5) One's sexual or romantic attraction to the same or opposite sex is referred to as A) sex. B) gender. C) sexual orientation. D) gender identity.

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6) Beliefs about the ways women and men differ, in contrast to actual differences, are called A) sex differences. B) gender differences. C) adaptive problems. D) gender stereotypes. 7) The idea that men are not capable of being nurturing is an example of a(n) A) sex difference. B) gender difference. C) adaptive problem. D) gender stereotype. 8) The conclusion that any one sex difference is entirely natural or innate is A) debatable. B) controversial. C) impossible. D) problematic. 9) Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons some individuals have argued that

studying sex differences is potentially dangerous? A) The findings may be used to support political agendas. B) Minimizing these differences may hamper the feminist agenda. C) The findings may be used to support the status quo. D) The findings may reflect gender stereotypes rather than real differences. 10) Feminist psychologists like Alice Eagly argue that it is impossible to ignore the study of sex

differences since A) scientific and social change will be impossible without coming to terms with real sex differences between men and women. B) science will show that the differences between men and women have been exaggerated and are minimal. C) it is important to understand how gender stereotypes make men and women different from one another. D) researchers need to be able to dismiss the role of sex differences in behaviour to advance the feminist agenda.

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11) The study of sex differences in psychology became popular in the A) 1920s. B) 1950s. C) 1970s. D) 1990s. 12) In an influential book, "The Psychology of Sex Differences," Eleanor Maccoby and Carol

Jacklyn argued that A) men were slightly better at verbal tasks. B) men were more aggressive than women. C) men and women do not differ significantly in personality. D) women were slightly better at object rotation tasks. 13) The statistical technique of A) factor analysis B) meta-analysis C) gender analysis D) qualitative analysis

summarizes findings from many different studies.

14) An effect size of.51 would be considered as A) small B) moderate C) large D) no difference

between two groups.

15) An effect size of -.82 would be considered as A) small B) moderate C) large D) no difference

between two groups.

16) The "d" effect size statistic is interpreted as the A) average difference in units of standard deviations. B) standard deviation of the sample. C) mean difference between samples. D) difference score between two samples.

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17) When interpreting effect sizes as they pertain to sex differences, it is important that they

never be applied to A) actual groups of men and women. B) individuals. C) other cultures. D) children. 18) The findings that females score higher in verbal ability and that males score higher in math

ability have effect sizes that are considered A) small. B) moderate. C) large. D) very large. 19) When we observe a sex difference where females score higher than males, we can conclude

that A) B) C) D)

most women will score higher than most men. some men will score higher than most women. there is a difference between men's average score and women's average score. the difference is due to hormones.

20) When we examine average sex differences between males and females, regardless of the size

of those differences, it is important to remember that A) sex differences may have political implications and must be interpreted very carefully. B) the implications of average sex differences do not necessarily apply to any particular individual. C) researchers may upset someone by finding any particular sex difference between men and women. D) there is generally little overlap between distributions of male and female scores for any particular characteristic. 21)

views sex differences as small and inconsequential. A) Social role theory B) Socialization theory C) The minimalist position D) The maximalist position

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22)

argues that the magnitude of sex differences is comparable to the magnitude of many other effects in psychology and should not be trivialized. A) The antifeminist position B) The minimalist position C) The moderation position D) The maximalist position

23) A proponent of a social role theory, Alice Eagly's views on the importance of sex differences

are best characterized by the A) minimalist B) undifferentiated C) maximalist D) feminist 24)

view.

is a facet of extraversion that has been shown to have the largest sex difference between men and women. A) Gregariousness B) Assertiveness C) Activity D) Talkativeness

25) A large study of women and men, many of whom were Canadian, found only a slight sex

difference in , with women scoring slightly higher on average. A) extraversion B) gregariousness C) activity D) aggression 26) The finding that men interrupt conversations more frequently than women do is consistent

with research on sex differences for which of the following facets of extraversion? A) Activity B) Trust C) Assertiveness D) Impulsiveness

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27) Women tend to score higher than men on the

facet of the agreeableness personality

trait. A) B) C) D)

activity good-natured tender-mindedness cooperative

28) People who score high on the tender-mindedness facet of the agreeableness trait in the five-

factor model of personality tend to A) lack intelligence. B) be nurturing and empathetic. C) have a poor grasp of reality. D) be psychologically fragile. 29) Men tend to score higher than women on personality measures of A) aggressiveness. B) warmth. C) neuroticism. D) conscientiousness. 30) Men commit about A) 60 B) 70 C) 80 D) 90

percent of all homicides that are committed worldwide.

31) In addition to committing more homicides and violent crimes, Canadian men are also more

likely than Canadian women to A) be the victims of relational aggression. B) be the victims of homicides. C) commit more acts of relational aggression. D) influence others to commit violent crimes. 32) Women tend to score slightly higher than men on the

facet of the conscientiousness

trait. A) B) C) D)

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order self-discipline responsibility scrupulous

33) Women tend to score higher than men on the A) impulsivity B) aggressiveness C) anxiety D) insecurity

facet of the neuroticism trait.

34) Women and men show the least differences on the personality trait of

in the five-

factor model of personality. A) extraversion B) emotional stability C) agreeableness D) openness 35) In order to detect sex differences in conscientiousness, it is necessary to examine the A) narrower aspects of the trait. B) other related traits, such as industriousness. C) other Big Five traits. D) changes in conscientiousness over time. 36) Research on sex differences in openness to experience by Weisberg and colleagues (2011)

suggests that women score higher on A) intellect; openness B) imagination; creativity C) openness; intellect D) openness to new ideas; creativity

while men score higher on

37) Brebner's international study of the basic emotions found that women experience emotion

than men. A) less frequently and less intensely B) more frequently and more intensely C) less frequently and more intensely D) more frequently and less intensely 38) A person's general self-evaluation is known as A) global self-esteem. B) domain-specific self-esteem. C) self-esteem variability. D) overall self-concept.

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39) Overall, sex differences in self-esteem have been found to be A) small. B) moderate. C) large. D) very large. 40) The gender gap in self-esteem appears to be higher in countries that are A) more authoritarian. B) more egalitarian. C) more culturally diverse. D) wealthier. 41) Sex differences between women and men in terms of self-esteem A) start occurring in childhood, continue increasing during adolescence, and increase

steadily during adulthood. B) are slight in childhood, peak during the teenage years, and steadily decrease during adulthood. C) are not present in childhood, begin to occur in adolescence, and steadily decrease during adulthood. D) are extremely large during childhood and decrease over the remainder of the life span. 42) One of the largest differences in sexuality between men and women is found in their interest

in A) B) C) D)

sex. casual sex. specific sex acts. safe sex.

43) Research on sex differences in women and men in terms of depression A) fails to find consistent differences. B) finds that women tend to be more depressed than men. C) finds that men tend to be more depressed than women. D) finds that the depression differences are due to differences on the people-things

dimension. 44) Depressed women are more likely to A) become socially withdrawn B) act aggressively C) seek treatment D) hide their emotions

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than depressed men.

45) Sex differences in depression between men and women are observed A) across the life span. B) only in childhood. C) mostly in adolescence and adulthood. D) mostly in old age. 46) Approximately

percent of adult women and least one episode of depression during their lives. A) 15; 5 B) 30; 20 C) 25; 10 D) 20; 20

47) Some researchers speculate that

percent of adult men will have at

explains sex differences between women and men for

depression. A) hormones B) genetic susceptibility C) rumination D) differences on the trait of trust 48) If a person focuses repeatedly on his or her symptoms and the causes of that distress, the

person may be involved in A) rumination. B) recidivism. C) regression. D) rehabilitation. 49) The greater rate of depression that women suffer as compared to men may be due to A) increases in male happiness due an increased number of televised sports on cable

television. B) increasing body dissatisfaction occurring around the onset of puberty when heterosexual interaction increases. C) greater levels of "hostile masculinity" by males around the onset of puberty when heterosexual interaction increases. D) differences in brain structure between women and men that physiologically predisposes women to ruminate.

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50) Which is NOT predicted from Bleske and Buss's study of opposite sex friendships among

straight men and women? A) Men are more likely than women to initiate friendship with someone of the opposite sex because they are sexually attracted to them. B) Men are more likely to have female friends that closely match their personality characteristics. C) Men are more likely to dissolve friendships with women when they do not result in sex. D) Men are more likely to become sexually attracted to their female friends. 51) The idea that women view close relationships as a more central part of their identity is A) consistent with the feminine mystique stereotype. B) supported by research on the people-things dimension. C) most related to differences in self-esteem. D) related to sex differences in the agreeableness personality trait. 52) Fraternal twins Jin and Sun have been raised in the same environment. Sun aspires to become

a clinical psychologist while Jin intends to be a mechanical engineer. Their career choices most likely are due to sex differences that are expressed by their scores on the dimension of personality. A) people-things B) openness to experience C) Machiavellianism D) need for achievement 53) If we think of masculinity-femininity as a single bipolar dimension A) a person can be both masculine and feminine. B) a person cannot score high on both masculinity and femininity. C) a person must be more masculine or more feminine. D) we must assume hormonal origins of these traits. 54) A person who is androgynous scores A) low on both masculinity and femininity. B) high on both masculinity and femininity. C) high on masculinity and low on femininity. D) high on femininity and low on masculinity.

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55) The

dimension contains items related to assertiveness, dominance, and instrumentality. A) people-things B) sociosexuality C) masculinity D) femininity

56) The

dimension contains items related to nurturance, empathy, and emotional

expression. A) people-things B) sociosexuality C) masculinity D) femininity 57) Alex has a garage full of tools; loves to throw big dinner parties for friends; is very assertive

at work; and likes to be self-sufficient. One often finds Alex working on his own or friends' cars. He will spend hours listening to friends' problems or nurturing students he tutors after work. Alex most likely scores towards the end of the Bem sex role inventory. A) undifferentiated B) androgynous C) masculinity D) femininity 58) Two-dimensional measures of gender have been criticized because A) it is impossible to establish validity for two dimensions of personality simultaneously. B) recent research suggests that masculinity-femininity is a single dimension. C) there are so few androgynous people. D) there are too many undifferentiated people. 59) Psychologist Janet Spence now views her measure of sex roles as more of a measure of A) instrumentality and expressiveness. B) people versus things. C) gender stereotypes. D) androgyny.

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60) Traditional notions of femininity and masculinity align with what two previously reviewed

concepts in psychology? A) Agency and communion, respectively B) Communion and agency, respectively C) Communion and warmth, respectively D) Agency and dominance, respectively 61)

refers to the traits involved with getting tasks completed in a direct, independent fashion, being self-sufficient, and working with objects. A) Tender-mindedness B) Gender schema C) Expressiveness D) Instrumentality

62) Showing emotions, empathy, and nurturance is associated with the trait of A) expressiveness. B) instrumentality. C) global self-esteem. D) rumination. 63) The renaming of masculinity and femininity as instrumentality and expressiveness is

important because A) expressiveness and instrumentality are more positive terms. B) it prevents people from stereotyping. C) it recognizes that the research on masculinity and femininity is all wrong. D) it removes the implicit association between these terms and sex or gender. 64) The cognitive orientations that lead people to process information on the basis of sex-linked

associations are known as A) gender stereotypes. B) gender schemas. C) sex differences. D) masculinity-femininity. 65) Researchers who used to view androgyny as ideal now consider

, that is, not using gender and sex-linkage at all in the processing of social information, as best. A) undifferentiated gender B) masculinity C) femininity D) gender-aschematic thinking

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66) Thinking of men as either "dads" or "cads" is an example of A) sex differences. B) gender differences. C) social categories. D) social learning theory. 67) Roberta Bondar, the first Canadian woman in space, illustrates the relatively recent gender

stereotype of women as A) assertive and career-minded. B) politically-oriented. C) power figures. D) achievement oriented. 68) Which of the following is NOT a component of gender stereotypes? A) Cognitive B) Affective C) Behavioural D) Perceptual 69) Gender-based discrimination is an example of the A) cognitive B) affective C) behavioural D) perceptual

component of gender stereotypes.

70) Research on gender stereotypes A) consistently finds that men are seen as more instrumental. B) consistently finds that men are seen as less instrumental. C) consistently finds that men and women are seen as equally instrumental. D) finds that they differ too much across cultures to make generalizations. 71) Research on gender stereotype subtypes has found that A) gender stereotypes are univariate constructs. B) gender stereotypes can be divided into an equal number of subtypes for each sex. C) the structure and number of male and female gender stereotype subtypes are very

different. D) gender stereotype subtypes are psychologically equivalent for males and females.

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72) What do people develop when they encounter women and men who do not fit their existing

gender stereotypes? A) gender stereotypes B) gender stereotype subgroups C) gender schemas D) gender stereotype subtypes 73) Research on gender discrimination has found that A) discrimination always favours men. B) women are quoted higher prices on new automobiles. C) women are more likely to be recommended for heart surgery. D) women are more likely to get negative book reviews in Contemporary Psychology. 74) Gender discrimination against men has been found A) in legal settings. B) in medical settings. C) in book reviews. D) when buying cars. 75) Being transgender (or trans) means that a person's gender identity differs from conventional

expectations based on A) the gender roles assigned to them in childhood. B) the sex assigned to them at birth. C) the clothing they wear on a regular basis. D) the physical characteristics they adopt in adulthood. 76) Gender dysphoria describes a condition in which one's sex or gender assigned at birth causes

significant A) distress and impairment. B) depression. C) anxiety. D) anger. 77) The stigma associated with being transgender has been associated with all of the following

EXCEPT A) job discrimination. B) depression. C) experiencing barriers to addiction services. D) increased social inclusion.

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78) The Trans PULSE Project in Ontario, a large study of adults who identify as transgender,

found that A) 25 B) 30 C) 35 D) 40

% reported having seriously considered suicide in the past year.

79) According to Canadian research, one of the most significant factors in suicidal ideation

among transgender adults is A) job discrimination. B) personal experience with transphobia. C) lack of representation in the media. D) implicit stereotyping. 80) The deeply-felt, inherent sense of being a man, a woman, some combination of both, or

neither is referred to as A) gender. B) gender identity. C) gender-related self-concept. D) gender schema. 81) The term cisgender refers to A) a gender identity in which a person's self-concept regarding gender is different from

that assigned to them at birth. B) a gender identity in which a person's self-concept regarding gender is incompatible with that assigned to them at birth. C) a gender identity in which a person's self-concept regarding gender is the same as that assigned to them at birth. D) a gender identity in which a person's self-concept regarding gender is similar to that assigned to them at birth. 82) The study of transgender children by Olson and colleagues (2015) found that A) the children displayed inconsistent and unpredictable gender-related cognition. B) the children displayed evidence of being confused about gender. C) the children all displayed gender cognition typical of males. D) the children genuinely identified with the opposite gender and were likely not

confused.

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83)

theory describes sex differences in behaviour as due to differences in how they are reinforced for different behaviours. A) Socialization B) Social role C) Evolutionary D) Hormonal

84) Social learning theory is a variant of the A) socialization B) social role C) evolutionary D) hormonal

theory.

85) The idea that boys learn masculine behaviours by observing men is most consistent with the

theory. A) socialization B) evolutionary C) hormonal D) social learning 86) Studies that show parents are more likely to encourage their daughters to be dependent

supports the theory. A) socialization B) social role C) evolutionary D) hormonal 87) Rasheed and Sunaina's parents assign them different chores in the family. The parents

assume that Rasheed will continue working on the family farm, so most of his chores are related to the business of agriculture. They assume Sunaina will get married and have to maintain a household, so they assign her cooking and cleaning chores. The differential treatment that Rasheed and Sunaina's parents give their children can best be explained by A) the social role theory. B) gender stereotypes. C) complimentary needs. D) sex role discrimination.

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88) A problem for the socialization theory is that A) research suggests fathers prefer to spend time with daughters. B) children may evoke sex differences in the way they are treated. C) there is no cross-cultural evidence for the differential treatment of boys and girls. D) boys and girls behave differently even if they have been intentionally socialized in a

similar manner. 89) The theory that most emphasizes the expectations about the jobs men and women are

"supposed" to have is the A) social role B) evolutionary C) socialization D) social learning

theory.

90) The finding that women and men are differentially represented in different jobs is most

consistent with the A) social role B) evolutionary C) socialization D) social learning 91) The A) B) C) D)

theory.

theory predicts decreases in sex differences as more men assume domestic duties. socialization social role evolutionary hormonal

92) Which of the following theories MOST accounts for the origins of sex differences in

behaviour? A) Social role theory B) Evolutionary theory C) Socialization theory D) Social learning theory 93) The one sex difference that shows virtually no overlap in the distributions of men and women

is in A) B) C) D)

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warmth. self-esteem. sexuality. testosterone levels.

94) Which of the following MOST emphasizes physiological differences as causing sex

differences? A) Socialization theory B) Social role theory C) Evolutionary theory D) Hormonal theory 95) Young girls with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) grow up into women who A) show deficits in traditional female characteristics like empathy. B) show superiority in traditionally masculine cognitive skills. C) become hyper feminized in adulthood. D) have extreme difficulty with cognitive spatial rotation skills. 96) High levels of testosterone in women are linked to all of these behaviours EXCEPT A) Being the more "masculine" partner in lesbian relationships. B) Increased sexual desire just prior to ovulation. C) Greater success in traditionally masculine careers. D) Frequent disciplinary infractions when incarcerated. 97) The theory that most emphasizes differences in sexual strategies is the A) social role B) evolutionary C) socialization D) social learning

theory.

98) From an evolutionary perspective, the optimal reproductive strategy for men is to A) withhold sex until you find the perfect mate. B) invest heavily in one mate. C) mate indiscriminately with as many women as possible. D) attempt to mate with a modal number of women. 99) The fact that women (rather than men) give birth to children is most important to the

theory. A) B) C) D)

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social role evolutionary socialization social learning

100)

The finding that men have more desire for sexual variety is most consistent with the theory. A) social role B) evolutionary C) socialization D) social learning

101)

A problem for evolutionary theory is that A) it does not address the origins of sex differences. B) it does not explain individual differences within the sexes. C) research suggests that fathers prefer to spend time with daughters. D) differences between short- and long-term mating strategies are too small.

102)

An integrated theory of sex differences would take all of these levels of analysis into account because A) they are all equally accurate. B) they are compatible with each other. C) they have all received equal amounts of support in research. D) surveys indicate that they are each favoured equally by personality psychologists.

103)

Socialization and hormonal theory may provide the answers for how the sexes differ, whereas evolutionary psychology provides the answers for A) why the sexes differ. B) when the sexes began to differ historically. C) where the sexes differ around the world and across cultures. D) why the environment affects how the sexes differ.

104)

You have a male friend who seems to overemphasize the importance of being self-reliant, socially dominant, tough, and competitive. He also avoids appearing emotionally sensitive and is fearful of appearing or being perceived as feminine. Your friend would likely score high in A) typical masculinity. B) agency. C) gender stereotypes. D) hegemonic masculinity.

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105)

A person who focuses on themselves to the exclusion of others would be characterized as A) being high in unmitigated communion. B) being high in unmitigated agency. C) being high in both agency and communion. D) being high in agency and moderate in communion.

106)

A person who focuses on others to the exclusion of themselves would be characterized as A) being high in unmitigated communion. B) being high in unmitigated agency. C) being high in both agency and communion. D) being high in communion and moderate in agency.

107)

As a researcher who is studying sex differences in surgency, which of the following would you NOT be interested in assessing in a sample of infants? A) high activity B) impulsivity C) neediness D) approach behaviour

108)

All things considered, what is the most widely held theory of sex differences in personality? A) Hormonal theory B) Socialization theory C) Evolutionary theory D) Social learning theory

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 16 1) A 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) C 6) D 7) D 8) C 9) B 10) A 11) C 12) B 13) B 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) C 22) D 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) C 27) C 28) B 29) A 30) D 31) B 32) A 33) C 34) D 35) A 36) C 37) B

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38) A 39) A 40) B 41) B 42) B 43) B 44) C 45) C 46) C 47) C 48) A 49) B 50) B 51) B 52) A 53) B 54) B 55) C 56) D 57) B 58) B 59) A 60) B 61) D 62) A 63) D 64) B 65) D 66) C 67) A 68) D 69) C 70) A 71) C 72) D 73) B 74) C 75) B 76) A 77) D

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78) C 79) B 80) B 81) C 82) D 83) A 84) A 85) D 86) A 87) A 88) B 89) A 90) A 91) B 92) B 93) D 94) D 95) B 96) B 97) B 98) C 99) B 100) 101) 102) 103) 104) 105) 106) 107) 108)

B B B A D B A C B

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Chapter 17 Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following is NOT one of the goals of cultural personality psychology? To discover A) the principles underlying cultural diversity. B) how individual humans differ. C) how human psychology shapes culture. D) how culture shapes personality. 2) The question of whether personality characteristics are universal addresses the

level of

analysis. A) human nature B) group differences C) individual differences D) individual uniqueness 3) Tooby and Cosmides define cultural variations as within-group A) similarities and between-group similarities. B) similarities and between-group differences. C) differences and between-group similarities. D) differences and between-group differences. 4) Almost all members of the Bleeminese tribe go bowling. However, it is rare for a member of

the Bloopine tribe to bowl at all. This difference in behaviour between the two tribes represents a cultural A) variation. B) stratification. C) deviation. D) divergence. 5) Environmental conditions are most responsible for A) transmitted culture. B) cultural universals. C) evoked culture. D) elicited culture.

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6) The bulky clothes that people in northern cultures often wear is an example of A) transmitted culture. B) cultural universals. C) evoked culture. D) a culture of honour. 7) Characteristics that are universally common to all people, but only evident in some cultures

are examples of A) transmitted culture. B) cultural universals. C) evoked culture. D) elicited culture. 8) The X people live in a desert where the temperature often exceeds 38 degrees Celsius. They

wear lightweight, loose robes and large-brimmed hats. The X people's mode of dress is an example of A) transmitted culture. B) cultural universals. C) evoked culture. D) elicited culture 9) Evoked cooperation is usually the result of A) no variance B) low variance C) medium variance D) high variance

conditions in the environment.

10) If every day all the hunters in a tribe successfully return from the daily hunting expedition

with plenty of meat, there will be due to the . A) little evoked cooperation; low-variance conditions B) much evoked cooperation; low-variance conditions C) little evoked cooperation; high-variance conditions D) much evoked cooperation; high-variance conditions 11) Research suggests that cooperative cultures develop A) in cooler climates. B) in warmer climates. C) where resources are more variable. D) where resources are less variable.

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12) High-variance conditions are most associated with A) independence. B) aggression. C) sharing. D) social inequality. 13) Jay Belsky and his colleagues believe that an early environment with harsh, rejecting, and

inconsistent child rearing practices, and erratic parental investment will foster A) in children the desire to constantly evoke cooperation across all environmental conditions. B) in children an impulsive personality and a mating strategy marked by early reproduction. C) unconscientious children that have lower levels of formal education. D) highly cooperative children with mating strategies marked by delayed reproduction. 14) Children raised in unpredictable environments are more likely to A) pursue a short-term mating strategy. B) pursue a long-term mating strategy. C) expect to be married throughout adulthood. D) develop narcissistic personalities. 15) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cultures that emphasize chastity to their

children? They are more likely to A) invest in their children. B) have many stable marriages. C) have many divorces. D) become extinct. 16) The proclivity of evoked mating strategies to vary cross-culturally may be based upon

differences in the A) relative value of women across different cultures. B) value placed on chastity and parental investment across cultures. C) in the geographical factors that vary across cultures. D) the level of the equality between men and women across cultures.

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17) Nisbett and his colleagues have proposed the notion that a(n)

is a variable based upon defending oneself against aggression evoked by other individuals in the environment. A) provoked environment B) culture of honour C) den of inequity D) elicited culture

18)

Egalitarianism is associated with A) high-variance conditions. B) low-variance conditions. C) agricultural cultures. D) cultures of honour.

19) Cultural characteristics that start out as ideas are most likely examples of A) transmitted culture. B) cultural universals. C) evoked culture. D) elicited culture. 20) The Bleeminese, a little known culture located northeast of Pixley, have a set of coming-of-

age rituals that include watching 50 hours of Green Acres reruns, dressing like Arnold the Pig, reciting the secret Bleem chants, and other strenuous tasks. The Bleeminese have passed down their coming-of-age ceremony to each 12-year-old Bleem who, in turn, will make sure to pass on the tradition to their children. This Bleeminese ritual is an example of A) transmitted culture. B) cultural universals. C) evoked culture. D) elicited culture. 21) Nisbett's notion of a "culture of honour" is an example of A) interdependence. B) independence. C) evoked culture. D) transmitted culture. 22) According to Nisbett, honour is most important in A) cultures with low variance in resources. B) cultures with high variance in resources. C) agricultural cultures. D) herding cultures.

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23) Nisbett has attributed greater aggression among southern Americans to A) transmitted culture. B) false politeness. C) the greater need to protect resources that could easily be stolen. D) the warmer southern climate. 24) In a study by Nisbett, were more likely to respond to insults with aggression. A) southern Americans B) northern Americans C) people from independent cultures D) people from interdependent cultures 25) Which of the following traits has not been associated with historical pathogen prevalence? A) Conformity B) Authoritarianism C) Low Openness to Experience D) High Conscientiousness 26) Because it helps people avoid exposure to disease, higher historical pathogen prevalence is

believed to have given rise to higher A) extraversion B) conformity C) openness D) individualism

in some cultures.

27) What personality trait involves submission and blind allegiance to authority? A) Conformity B) Authoritarianism C) Submission D) Agreeableness 28) The idea that it is wrong to eat beef is an example of A) evoked culture. B) transmitted culture. C) Balkanization. D) reactive culture.

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29) North American children's judgments of right and wrong A) have been diluted significantly by the media. B) do not reflect adult judgments until adolescence. C) are extremely similar to adult judgments by age five. D) are more similar to their grandparents than parents. 30) Culturally transmitted ideas about morality are first evident in A) infancy. B) childhood. C) adolescence. D) adulthood. 31) Which of the following moral ideas is most widely accepted across cultures? A) Incest is wrong. B) Eating pork is wrong. C) Combing one's hair during a thunderstorm is wrong. D) Beating one's wife is wrong. 32) Cultural differences are most apparent in A) expression of emotions. B) recognizing emotion expressions. C) the dimensional structure of personality traits. D) self-concepts. 33) The cultural task of

involves how you are affiliated with, attached to, or engaged in the larger group of which you are a member. A) independence B) interdependence C) individualism D) collectivism

34) Western cultures tend to emphasize the cultural task of

more than non-Western

cultures. A) agency B) evoking culture C) independence D) interdependence

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35) According to Markus and Kitayama, people in

are more likely to think of themselves

in reference to their larger cultural group. A) England B) Zaire C) Canada D) Japan 36) People in Eastern cultures tend to use more A) relational statements B) personal adjectives C) global adjectives D) attitudinal statements 37)

to describe themselves.

is the process of adapting to the ways of life and beliefs that are common in one's new culture. A) Acclamation B) Emancipation C) Acculturation D) Emaciation

38) Which of the following descriptions is more typical of a person from a non-Western culture? A) I am Mary's brother. B) I am submissive. C) I am agreeable. D) I am self-reliant. 39) Collectivistic cultures are comparable to A) individualist B) interdependent C) independent D) agentic

cultures.

40) Canadian research has shown that Chinese adolescents who immigrated to Canada are more

likely to label themselves as A) Canadian B) collectivistic C) Chinese D) interdependent

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compared to Canadian-born adolescents.

41) Compared to Chinese adolescents born in Canada, the personal self-esteem of immigrated

Chinese adolescents was more closely tied to their A) collectivistic cultural orientation. B) collective self-esteem. C) self-concept. D) collective self-concept. 42) A study of Asian Americans living in New York who did not identify themselves as Asian

found that they used more A) self-descriptive adjectives than Euro-Americans. B) social role adjectives than Euro-Americans. C) self-descriptive adjectives than Euro-Americans if they identified themselves as Asian. D) abstract and autonomous self-statements. 43) Compared to Asian Americans who did not identify themselves as Asian, those who did

identify as Asian were more similar to in their self-descriptions. A) Chinese respondents B) American respondents C) Chinese respondents who were less 'westernized' D) Chinese respondents with a high collectivistic cultural orientation 44) Research has found that Japanese university students give

when compared to North

American university students. A) more context-dependent self-descriptions B) fewer context-dependent self-descriptions C) longer self-descriptions D) shorter self-descriptions 45) The representation of the self within a much broader context, such as the global community,

humankind, the planet, or the cosmos describes a(n) A) independent self-construal. B) interdependent self-construal. C) collectivistic self-construal. D) metapersonal self-construal.

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46) According to Canadian research, seeing oneself as part of a natural order is an example of

which type of self-construal? A) metapersonal B) independent C) interdependent D) collectivistic 47) Monique tends to see herself as part of an interconnected and complex web of life, in which

she recognizes her relationship to other living things. Monique likely has a high A) interdependent self-construal. B) metapersonal self-construal. C) collectivistic cultural orientation. D) collective self-esteem. 48) Canadian research has shown that while interdependent self-construal is associated with

, metapersonal self-construal is associated with . A) resource cooperation; resource competition B) resource competition; resource sharing C) resource cooperation; resource sharing and environmentalism D) resource sharing and environmentalism; resource cooperation 49) A biospheric value orientation, which focuses on the inherent value of the environment, has

been associated with having a high A) metapersonal self-construal. B) interdependent self-construal. C) conservation orientation. D) environmental self-concept. 50) Findings by Davis and Stroink (2016) suggest that a metapersonal self-construal leads to

, which in turn contributes to . A) a biospheric value orientation; a collectivistic cultural orientation B) feelings of connectedness with nature; higher within-person reliability in environmentalism C) conservation behaviours; a pro-environmental value orientation D) feelings of connectedness with nature; pro-environmental behaviour

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51) Canadian research suggests that

may play an important role in environmental

conservation efforts. A) interdependent self-construal B) metapersonal self-construal C) collectivistic cultural orientations D) acculturation 52) Research suggests that American students are more likely to describe themselves as

when compared to Japanese students. A) ordinary B) related to someone C) special D) eccentric 53) A study of Chinese students' self-descriptions found that they A) described themselves independent of the situation. B) described themselves within the context of the situation. C) typically described themselves by referring specifically to other people. D) described themselves as being pretty ordinary. 54) People in cultures are more likely to give priority to personal goals. A) variable resource B) herding C) individualistic D) collectivistic 55)

Oyserman and her colleagues speculate that humans have evolved mechanisms so that A) individuals are born with mechanisms to fit into the culture they are born into. B) when resources are abundant and mobility is high, individuals will be interdependent. C) when resources are scarce and mobility is low, individuals will strive for independence. D) individuals will choose either individualistic or interdependent self-concepts depending on the fitness advantage of that strategy.

56) Compared to North Americans, Japanese individuals tend to explain events

with

attention to relationships, contacts, and links to the object as a whole. A) holistically B) analytically C) statistically D) mechanically

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57) Which of the following is NOT one of the criticisms of the interdependence-independence

and collectivist-individualistic concepts? A) cross-cultural theories are almost always conducted between North America and East Asia and, thus, may not be generalized about other cultures. B) cross-cultural research is almost always conducted on college students. C) there is a considerable overlap in the self-concepts of people from different cultures. D) characterizing cultures in broad cultural dichotomies may be overly simplistic. 58) North Americans tend to explain events

with the object detached from its context, attributes of objects, or people assigned to categories, and with a reliance on rules about the categories to describe behaviour. A) holistically B) analytically C) statistically D) mechanically

59) Differences in the ways Western and non-Western people describe themselves are most

likely due to A) hormones. B) genes. C) cultural transmission. D) evolution. 60) The tendency to present oneself using positive attributes is known as A) acculturation. B) an independent strategy. C) an agentic strategy. D) self-enhancement. 61) Research has found that, compared to North American participants, Asian participants are

more likely to A) use less positive self-descriptive adjectives. B) score lower on measures of self-esteem. C) describe themselves individualistically. D) use more spontaneous positive statements about themselves.

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62) Research suggests that, as compared to people from non-Western cultures, North Americans

tend to A) B) C) D) 63)

express themselves more positively. experience themselves more negatively. use less self-enhancement. use context-dependent descriptions.

refers to a person's sense of belonging to a particular culture or group. A) Collectivism B) Social identity C) Cultural self-concept D) Cultural identity

64) Indigenous cultures in Canada, although diverse, tend to be A) self-enhancing. B) collectivistic. C) individualistic. D) Independent in their self-construal. 65) As concluded by Burack and colleagues (2019), Indigenous youth tend to display higher

levels of success and well-being when they A) report feeling connected meaningfully to their Indigenous culture. B) avoid being influenced by the broader Canadian culture. C) develop a more independent self-construal. D) see themselves as individuals outside of a cultural context. 66) People from A) lower B) middle C) higher D) elite

social classes tend to emphasize the importance of obedience to authority.

67) Kohn found that differences in conformity and self-direction A) were best predicted by independence-interdependence. B) varied more between cultures. C) varied more within cultures. D) were the result of self-enhancement.

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68) Kohn found that men from lower social classes A) were more self-directed B) emphasized greater obedience to authority C) showed lower levels of conformity D) had greater intellectual flexibility

than men from higher social classes.

69) Men from higher social classes in

cultures tended to have low levels of conformity, more self-direction, and have greater intellectual flexibility than did men from lower social classes. A) collectivist B) individualist C) interdependent D) both collectivistic and individualistic

70) Differences in historical eras are most likely to affect A) cultural variation. B) within-culture variation. C) cultural universals. D) acculturation. 71) Research on personality profiles from 51 different countries led to what conclusion about

cultural differences in personality? A) Numerous differences in the Big Five traits exist across countries. B) Differences in personality seem to align with levels of individualism and collectivism. C) Agreeableness is higher on average in Eastern countries compared to Western countries. D) Only extraversion appears to differ significantly between Western countries and some other countries. 72) Most of the differences in personality occur A) within; between B) within; outside of C) between; outside of D) between; within

cultures, not

cultures.

73) Margaret Mead argued A) for cultural universals. B) against cultural universals. C) for within-culture variation. D) that historical eras were important to culture.

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74) Recent research suggests that A) some of the cultural differences observed by Mead were inaccurate. B) the idea of cultural universals is untenable. C) cultural universals are more important than cultural differences. D) within-culture variation is much smaller than between culture variation. 75) Which of the following is probably NOT a cultural universal? A) Prohibitions against incest. B) Facial expressions of basic emotions. C) Division of labour by sex. D) Prohibition against spousal abuse. 76) When referring to populations used in psychological research, WEIRD stands for A) White, educated, industrialized, rich, and democratic B) Western, educated, industrialized, rich, and democratic C) Western, educated, intelligent, rich, and democratic D) Western, European, industrialized, rich, and democratic 77) It is estimated that approximately

of all psychology citations come from the United

States. A) B) C) D)

30% 50% 70% 90%

78) Assuming that a cognitive bias is characteristic of all people is an example of A) explicitly assuming that research findings are universally applicable. B) implicitly assuming that research findings are universally applicable. C) explicitly assuming that research findings are not universally applicable. D) implicitly assuming that research findings are not universally applicable.

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79) The following are all examples of how psychological research has NOT supported the

generalizability of WEIRD populations EXCEPT A) the finding that Americans are the most individualistic people in the world, even within a Western context. B) the finding that Western cultures are more analytic, while Eastern cultures are more holistic. C) the finding that college and university students differ significantly than non-student populations. D) the finding that acculturation in Western cultures has been associated with an increased emphasis on individualism and the self. 80) Williams and Best found that most trait adjectives were rated as A) positive. B) negative. C) neutral. D) masculine or feminine. 81) Most cultures agree that the trait of A) affection B) arrogance C) fearfulness D) appreciativeness

is more associated with men.

82) Most cultures agree that the trait of A) emotionality B) independence C) activeness D) conceitedness

is more associated with women.

83)

was one of the first to suggest that emotions are universal. A) Mead B) Markus C) Darwin D) Larsen

84) The German word "schadenfreude" describes A) pleasure in another's misfortune. B) grief. C) the fifth factor of personality in Germany. D) sadness.

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85) Pinker argues that people in different cultures A) experience different emotions. B) express emotions similarly. C) use different words to talk about their emotions. D) cannot recognize emotions cross-culturally. 86) People

are able to identify facial expressions of basic emotions made by North

Americans. A) in New Guinea B) in Germany C) in Japan D) universally 87) Expressions of basic emotions are an example of A) transmitted culture. B) cultural universals. C) evoked culture. D) elicited culture. 88)

Cross-cultural research on personality structure indicates that A) the idea of stable personality is a purely Western idea. B) many cultures lack words to describe personality traits. C) the five-factor model is always found. D) there are great similarities in personality structure across cultures.

89) The Whorfian hypothesis of linguistic relativity states that language A) creates thoughts and experiences. B) is not necessary to experience emotions. C) provides an unlimited capacity to express thoughts and emotions. D) clouds the true experience of thoughts and emotions. 90) Trait-descriptive terms are found A) mostly in Western cultures. B) mostly in Asian cultures. C) only in non-Western cultures. D) in most cultures.

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91) Studies that have translated English questionnaires into different languages A) have been successful in replicating the five-factor model of personality. B) have only replicated four factors in the five-factor model of personality. C) have not been conducted yet. D) indicate that personality structure is not universal. 92) Studies that begin with indigenous trait terms in many cultures A) provide a more stringent test of cultural universality than translation studies. B) provide a less stringent test of cultural universality than translation studies. C) find the five-factor model of personality in all cultures. D) replicate Cattell's 16 factor personality model. 93) Research has found the LEAST degree of cross-cultural universality on the factor of A) emotional stability. B) openness. C) extraversion. D) agreeableness. 94) Research using the Cross-Cultural (Chinese) Personality Assessment Inventory has suggested

one additional personality factor that may be unique to Chinese and other Eastern cultures. What is the name of this factor? A) social potency B) accommodation C) interpersonal relatedness D) individualism 95) Research on the Tsimane indigenous people of the Bolivian Amazon has suggested a two-

factor model of personality consisting of A) prosociality and industriousness. B) prosociality and dependability. C) interpersonal relatedness and social potency. D) interpersonal relatedness and industriousness.

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96) Based on 272 commonly used personality descriptors in Khoekhoegowab, researchers

identified an of personality that proved more advantageous for predicting adjustment outcomes among participants in Namibia compared to other established measures of personality. A) Six-factor model B) 11-factor model C) Big Three model D) Big Two model 97) Recent research found that during the COVID-19 pandemic, people who reported greater

concern over the virus also reported more time at home and reduced mobility. This is consistent with what mechanism? A) transmitted culture B) evoked culture C) cultural universality D) provoked culture 98) Cultural orientation is understood to consist of what two components? A) values and practices B) self-concept and attitudes C) value orientation and self-construal D) attitudes and practices 99) Ruby tends to take in the whole picture when analyzing a problem, often considering key

contextual factors that her friends overlook. There is a good chance that Ruby has a(n) A) independent self-construal. B) analytic cognitive style. C) individualistic cultural orientation. D) collectivistic cultural orientation. 100)

The United States would be best characterized by what type of individualism? A) horizontal B) vertical C) agentic D) unmitigated

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101)

You are studying a previously unknown and isolated culture whose members display a high value for equality while also desiring to stand out and express themselves as unique individuals. What cultural orientation would you want to examine more closely? A) horizontal collectivism B) vertical collectivism C) vertical individualism D) horizontal individualism

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 17 1) B 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) C 6) C 7) C 8) C 9) D 10) A 11) C 12) C 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) B 17) B 18) A 19) A 20) A 21) C 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) B 27) B 28) B 29) C 30) B 31) A 32) D 33) B 34) C 35) D 36) A 37) C

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38) A 39) B 40) C 41) B 42) D 43) A 44) A 45) D 46) A 47) B 48) C 49) A 50) D 51) B 52) C 53) C 54) C 55) D 56) A 57) B 58) B 59) C 60) D 61) A 62) A 63) D 64) B 65) A 66) A 67) C 68) B 69) D 70) B 71) D 72) A 73) B 74) A 75) D 76) B 77) C

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78) A 79) D 80) D 81) B 82) A 83) C 84) A 85) C 86) D 87) B 88) D 89) A 90) D 91) A 92) A 93) B 94) C 95) A 96) B 97) B 98) C 99) D 100) B 101) D

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Chapter 18 Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) People high in what trait(s) were less likely to take the COVID-19 pandemic seriously? A) Extraversion and Agreeableness B) Neuroticism C) Aggression D) The Dark Tetrad 2) It is thought that in North America, lifestyle contributes to more than

percent of

premature deaths. A) 10 B) 30 C) 50 D) 90 3) Stress is the feeling produced by events that are uncontrollable or threatening. A) objective B) subjective C) acute D) chronic 4) Which of the following is NOT a model of the links between behaviour and health? A) Circumplex model B) Interactional model C) Transactional model D) Predisposition model 5)

are diagrams of variables and the causal relationships between them. A) Appraisals B) Models C) Theories D) Hypotheses

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6) Which of the following is NOT an important variable in most health psychology models? A) stress B) appraisals C) coping D) heart rate 7) In the A) B) C) D)

model, personality has its effect on people's ability to cope with events. health behaviour interactional transactional predisposition

8) A problem for the

model was that psychologists had difficulty identifying coping strategies that were consistently adaptive or maladaptive. A) health behaviour B) interactional C) transactional D) predisposition

9) In the transactional model, personality has the effect of influencing A) coping and appraisals. B) appraisals. C) stressful events. D) coping, appraisals, and stressful events. 10) Which model describes personality as having an effect on stressful events (e.g., through

selection, evocation, or manipulation)? A) Health behaviour model B) Interactional model C) Transactional model D) Predisposition model 11) Which of the following models is least complex? A) Health behaviour model B) Interactional model C) Transactional model D) Illness behaviour model

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12) Which model focuses on how personality influences life style choices (e.g., smoking) that in

turn influence health? A) Health behaviour model B) Interactional model C) Transactional model D) Illness behaviour model 13) The finding that extraverts are more likely to smoke is most consistent with the A) health behaviour model. B) interactional model. C) transactional model. D) predisposition model. 14) Which model sees no direct relationship between personality and health but instead attributes

correlations between the two to a third variable? A) Health behaviour model B) Interactional model C) Transactional model D) Predisposition model 15) Behaviour genetics research on personality and illness fits best into the A) health behaviour B) interactional C) transactional D) predisposition

model.

16) Going to the doctor, missing work, and complaining about symptoms are all examples of A) appraisals. B) self-efficacy. C) illness behaviours. D) health behaviours. 17) The

model emphasizes how personality influences the degree to which people pay attention to bodily sensations that can indicate illness. A) health behaviour B) interactional C) transactional D) illness behaviour

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18) A variable is called a

if it influences the direction or degree of relationship

between two other variables. A) mediator B) moderator C) confound D) extraneous variable 19) Which Big Five trait is most reliably related to good health at a high level? A) Conscientiousness B) Extraversion C) Agreeableness D) Openness to experience 20) Low conscientiousness has been found to be correlated with heavy drinking, and heavy

drinking is associated with an increased risk of mortality. In this relationship, which variable would be described as a mediator? A) Low conscientiousness B) Heavy drinking C) Increased risk of mortality D) Mortality 21)

is/are the feelings of being overwhelmed by events that seem uncontrollable. A) Stress B) Stressors C) Appraisals D) Pessimism

22) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of stressors? A) They produce a state of feeling overwhelmed. B) They are major life events. C) They produce opposing tendencies. D) They are uncontrollable. 23) The reaction to being startled and the increase in blood pressure and other physiological

responses is known as A) a stressor. B) fight-or-flight response. C) pessimism. D) hostility.

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24) Who is responsible for developing the stress response concept of general adaptation

syndrome? A) Hanlye B) Lazarus C) Holmes D) Selye 25) Selye described repeated stressors as leading to A) primary appraisals. B) secondary appraisals. C) the general adaptation syndrome (GAS). D) primary and secondary appraisals. 26) In the general adaptation syndrome, the fight-or-flight response falls under the A) appraisal B) alarm C) stage of resistance D) stage of exhaustion

stage.

27) In the general adaptation syndrome, the stage of resistance is characterized by A) the fight-or-flight response. B) exhaustion. C) increased physiological energy. D) arteriosclerosis. 28) According to Selye, people are most prone to illness in the

stage of the general

adaptation syndrome. A) appraisal B) alarm C) resistance D) exhaustion 29) Which of the following is generally considered to be the MOST stressful major life event? A) Christmas B) Buying a new car C) Getting married D) Changing residence

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30) Stressful life events A) are always objectively negative. B) are always objectively positive. C) are always objectively neutral. D) can be objectively positive, negative, or neutral. 31) Research by Holmes and Rahe found that people who had more major life stresses were A) more likely to have a serious illness. B) less likely to have a serious illness. C) more likely to die during the course of the study. D) not much different from those who had few major stresses. 32) Research suggests that people are more susceptible to the common cold A) if they follow the illness behaviour model. B) if they are in the alarm stage of the GAS. C) if they have experienced more stressful life events. D) when they are engaging in primary appraisal. 33) Stress is thought to have the greatest influence on the A) circulatory B) cardiovascular C) reproductive D) immune

system.

34) Concerns about weight, crime, and taxes are examples of A) daily hassles. B) major life events. C) attributional style. D) emotional inhibition. 35) The major sources of stress in most people's lives are A) chronic stressors. B) major life events. C) daily hassles. D) emotions.

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36)

Psychologists recognize varieties of stress: . A) three; episodic acute, traumatic, and chronic stress B) three; benign, traumatic, and chronic stress C) four; acute, episodic acute, traumatic, and chronic stress D) four; acute, benign, traumatic, and chronic stress

37) An example of acute stress is A) divorce. B) being late for an appointment. C) military combat. D) a serious accident. 38) Canadian research has suggested that one way that acute social stress has an impact on our

emotions is by impairing our ability to A) process them. B) manage stress. C) cope successfully. D) problem-solve. 39) All of the following are examples of episodic acute stress EXCEPT A) divorce. B) being fired from work. C) managing a chronic illness. D) a fight with a friend. 40) Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) may develop in persons who

life-threatening

events. A) B) C) D)

experienced witnessed imagined experienced or witnessed

41) All of the following are likely examples of traumatic stress EXCEPT A) military combat. B) divorce. C) sexual assault. D) a serious accident.

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42)

43)

An example of chronic stress is A) ongoing marital conflict. B) missing an important meeting. C) spraining your ankle. D) getting into a car accident. is the term to describe how the effects of stress add up and accumulate in a person over time. A) Additive effects B) Stress accumulation C) Longitudinal build-up D) Stress accrual

44) When a person perceives that an event is a threat to his goals, he engages in a(n) A) optimistic bias. B) pessimistic bias. C) primary appraisal. D) secondary appraisal. 45) According to Lazarus, what must be present for an event to be stressful? A) Fight-or-flight response. B) Primary appraisal. C) Secondary appraisal. D) Primary and secondary appraisal. 46) According to Lazarus, an exam will be stressful A) always. B) if a person views the exam as important. C) if a person wants to do well but has to cram. D) if a person views the exam as important or wants to do well but has to cram. 47)

is a dispositional way of explaining the causes of bad events. A) Defensive pessimism B) Attributional style C) Problem-focused coping D) Negative event interpretation

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48) The

technique for measuring attributional style was developed by Peterson and his

colleagues. A) Content Analysis of Verbatim Explanations (CAVE) B) Attributional Analysis (AA) C) Attribution Vocabulary (AV) D) Peterson Attributional Analysis of Vocabulary (PAAV) 49) Positive emotions are thought to help with stress by A) broadening attention and helping people build stores of energy. B) helping people build stores of energy and helping people build social networks. C) helping people build stores of energy. D) broadening attention, helping people build stores of energy, and helping people build

social networks. 50) The "broaden and build" model addresses A) how positive emotions can buffer against stress. B) the optimistic bias. C) the fight-or-flight response. D) how frustration leads to stress. 51) Which of the following coping mechanisms can generate positive emotions during stress? A) Problem-focused coping B) Defensive pessimism C) Primary appraisal D) Secondary appraisal 52) Focusing on the good aspects of a generally stressful situation is an example of A) problem-focused coping. B) positive reappraisal. C) creating positive events. D) disclosure. 53) Problem-focused coping A) can generate negative emotions. B) is useful when events are controllable. C) Is especially useful when events are controllable. D) can lead to chronic stress.

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54) Takings breaks and using humour in stressful situations are examples of the

coping

strategy. A) problem-focused coping B) positive reappraisal C) creating positive events D) disclosure 55) A person with a pessimistic explanatory style explains bad events as due to A) internal B) global C) temporary D) internal and global

causes.

56) Dispositional optimism is defined as A) the belief that one can do the behaviours necessary to achieve a desired outcome. B) making attributions that are unstable, temporary, and global. C) the expectation that good events will be plentiful, and bad events will be rare. D) having higher than average self-esteem. 57) Self-efficacy is defined as A) the belief that one can do the behaviours necessary to achieve a desired outcome. B) making attributions that are unstable, temporary, and global. C) the expectation that good events will be plentiful, and bad events will be rare. D) having higher-than-average self-esteem. 58)

tend to greatly underestimate the chances that negative events will happen to them. A) People with Type A personality B) Optimists C) Extraverts D) People who score high on hostility

59) The fact that most people underestimate their risk for negative events is known as A) optimism. B) optimistic-bias. C) time urgency. D) general adaptation syndrome.

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60) Optimism predicts good health when measured by all of the following EXCEPT A) self-reports. B) physician reports. C) number of visits to a doctor. D) blood pressure. 61) A large study by Peterson et al. found that optimists and pessimists differed in the number of

deaths due to A) immune system problems. B) cancer. C) cardiovascular disease. D) accidents. 62) Which of the following has NOT been proposed as a way that optimism can lead to better

health? A) B) C) D)

Optimists have better social networks. Optimism does not correlate with depression. Optimism is associated with better immune system functioning. Optimists engage in more health behaviours.

63) Optimists engage in

levels of problem-focused coping and

levels of avoidance

coping. A) B) C) D)

lower; higher lower; lower higher; lower higher; higher

64) Psychologists do not understand fully the link between optimism and health because A) most of the research is correlational. B) it is difficult to measure optimism. C) most of the research is non-correlational. D) optimism has only recently been studied. 65) Efforts to maintain social relationships during stressful events are referred to as A) emotion-focused coping. B) support-seeking. C) empathic responding. D) relationship-focused coping.

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66) All of the following are examples of relationship-focused coping responses EXCEPT A) confrontation. B) empathy. C) avoidance. D) compromise. 67) Canadian research has shown that coping responses such as

may reduce next-day

marital tension. A) empathy and compromise B) compromise and forgiveness C) withdrawal and empathy D) compromise and withdrawal 68) Blame is an example of a(n) A) adaptive relationship-focused coping response. B) maladaptive relationship-focused coping response. C) adaptive emotion-focused coping response. D) maladaptive emotion-focused coping response. 69) Interpersonal withdrawal has been shown to be more common among individuals A) high on neuroticism. B) high on agreeableness. C) low on agreeableness. D) low on extraversion. 70) According to Canadian research, individuals high in neuroticism are more likely to do which

of the following? A) describe relationship conflict as meaningless. B) engage in emotion-focused coping responses that involve hostility. C) divorce early when they marry young. D) engage in relationship-focused coping with individuals who are high in extraversion. 71) Smiling when you receive a gift that you do not really like is an example of A) hostility. B) primary appraisal. C) secondary appraisal. D) emotional inhibition.

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72) Research suggests that inhibiting the expression of negative emotions A) makes people feel better. B) makes people feel worse. C) leads to increased physiological activity. D) leads to reduced physiological activity. 73) In a study conducted by James Gross and Robert Levenson, participants who were instructed

to inhibit their emotional expressions A) Showed less outward expression. B) Showed more outward expression. C) Showed decreased physiological activity. D) Both "showed more outward expression" and "showed decreased physiological activity." 74) When people express their negative emotions, they are A) less effective in communicating with others. B) likely to have more problems in relationships. C) likely to have fewer problems in relationships. D) effective communicators, but have more problems in relationships. 75) Research suggests that emotional expressiveness is associated with A) better health. B) better relationships. C) more physiological reactivity. D) better health and better relationships. 76) Telling others about private aspects of ourselves is known as A) disclosure. B) problem-focused coping. C) self-efficacy. D) the general adaptive syndrome. 77) When psychologist James Pennebaker asked research participants to write about secret

unpleasant events, he found that A) people felt good as they wrote. B) many people found it difficult to think of secrets. C) everyone had secrets. D) people felt good as they wrote and that everyone had secrets.

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78) Pennebaker has suggested that keeping negative events secret A) helps maintain self-esteem. B) requires physical energy. C) is associated with good physical health. D) helps maintain self-esteem and is associated with good physical health. 79) A study that compared participants who wrote about traumatic events to people who wrote

about neutral events found that people who wrote about the traumatic events A) visited the campus health centre less. B) visited the campus health centre more. C) found the task more enjoyable. D) re-experienced the traumatic event. 80) Research suggests that disclosing traumatic events results in all of the following EXCEPT A) increased physiological arousal during disclosure. B) improved physical health. C) reduced likelihood of depression. D) increased likelihood of developing PTSD. 81) Cardiovascular disease is the A) first B) second C) third D) fourth

leading cause of death in Canada.

82) People who are very achievement-motivated and always in a hurry score high on measures of A) dispositional optimism. B) Type A personality. C) hostility. D) pessimistic attributional style. 83) Which of the following is NOT a component of Type A behaviour pattern? A) Competitive achievement motivation B) Time urgency C) Hostility D) Disagreeableness

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84) Which of the following components of Type A behaviour pattern is most lethal? A) Achievement striving B) Time urgency C) Hostility D) Disagreeableness 85)

is the subjective experience of being blocked from achieving a goal. A) Stress B) Frustration C) Primary appraisal D) Secondary appraisal

86) People who are achievement-motivated and time-urgent but otherwise not prone to hostility A) are at a greater risk for heart disease. B) are at reduced risk for heart disease. C) do not really have Type A personality. D) are not described as Type A. 87) Early questionnaire measures of Type A personality, compared to structured interviews A) found more effects on heart disease. B) found fewer effects on heart disease. C) are less reliable measures. D) Both "found fewer effects on heart disease" and "are less reliable measures." 88) People who score high on hostility A) are usually violent and aggressive. B) are violent and aggressive when dealing with submissive people. C) act in a disagreeable manner when frustrated. D) are reliably higher in psychoticism. 89) Research on Type A behaviour can fall under all of these models EXCEPT the A) health behaviour model. B) interactional model. C) transactional model. D) predisposition model.

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90) Hostile Type A behaviour is thought to lead to heart disease through A) primary appraisals. B) secondary appraisals. C) the general adaptation syndrome. D) arteriosclerosis. 91) Jenny is high in neuroticism but also very high in conscientiousness. Based on this

information, there is a good chance that Jenny has what psychologists refer to as A) balanced neuroticism. B) healthy neuroticism. C) negative conscientiousness. D) unhealthy conscientiousness. 92) Marco tends to be hypervigilant about his health, seeing his doctor at the first sign of any

symptom or illness. It is possible that Marco’s personality is consistent with what concept? A) somatization disorder B) conversion disorder C) hyper-conscientiousness D) healthy neuroticism 93) You are a researcher studying the link between conscientiousness and life expectancy, and

based on previous research, you are curious about the possible role of health behaviours in this relationship, given that conscientiousness is associated with good health behaviours. What kind of model should you be testing? A) mediation B) moderation C) interaction D) predisposition 94) All things considered, what two personality traits appear to play the greatest role in health? A) conscientiousness and extraversion B) neuroticism and agreeableness C) conscientiousness and neuroticism D) agreeableness and extraversion

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95) Recent research found that

was a mediator in the relationship between neuroticism and reduced well-being during the COVID-19 pandemic. A) hardiness B) resilience C) coping D) reactivity

96) Mohammed responds to a stressful situation by leaning on his partner for both emotional

support and advice on how to help fix the situation. Mohammed is engaging in what two functions of coping in this scenario? A) problem-focused and emotion-focused B) problem-focused and relationship-focused C) emotion-focused and relationship-focused D) meaning-focused and problem-focused

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 18 1) D 2) C 3) B 4) A 5) B 6) D 7) B 8) B 9) D 10) C 11) B 12) A 13) A 14) D 15) D 16) C 17) D 18) B 19) A 20) B 21) A 22) B 23) B 24) D 25) C 26) B 27) C 28) D 29) C 30) D 31) A 32) C 33) D 34) A 35) C 36) C 37) B

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38) A 39) D 40) D 41) B 42) A 43) A 44) C 45) D 46) C 47) B 48) A 49) D 50) A 51) A 52) B 53) B 54) C 55) D 56) C 57) A 58) B 59) B 60) D 61) D 62) B 63) C 64) A 65) D 66) C 67) A 68) B 69) A 70) B 71) D 72) C 73) A 74) C 75) D 76) A 77) C

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78) B 79) A 80) D 81) B 82) B 83) D 84) C 85) B 86) D 87) B 88) C 89) D 90) D 91) B 92) D 93) A 94) C 95) B 96) B

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Chapter 19 Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Personality disorders usually include all of the problems below, EXCEPT for A) difficulties with social relationships. B) emotional problems. C) deficits in intelligence. D) problems with self-concept. 2) Personality disorders can be thought of as A) exaggerated levels of cognitive activity. B) maladaptive variations or combinations of normal personality traits. C) special categories of abnormal personality traits. D) extreme levels of emotionality unaffected by personality traits. 3) Which of the following is NOT a reason why motives are important in understanding

maladaptive personality disorders? A) an exaggerated need for power at high levels may result in a maladaptive personality disorder. B) variations in normal personality traits are not related to maladaptive personality disorders. C) individuals with maladaptive personality disorders may have a lack of motivation for intimacy. D) an extreme need for superiority is found in individuals with narcissistic personality disorder. 4) The field of psychology mainly studies mental disorders. A) differential B) abnormal C) health D) social

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5) The statistical definition of abnormal focuses on A) ways that behaviour cause an individual to suffer. B) ways that behaviours cause the community to suffer. C) characteristics that are rare in the population. D) ways standard personality traits can be seen as abnormal. 6) Which of the following is one of the biggest problems in using social and statistical

definitions of abnormal? A) Societal norms change over time. B) It is difficult to determine what behaviours are not acceptable in a society. C) It is difficult to collect data on atypical behaviours. D) Every person is unique. 7) Psychological definitions of abnormality focus on A) how rare personality characteristics are. B) the objective experience of people. C) behaviour patterns that put people at higher risk for problems. D) social definitions of abnormality. 8) The DSM-5 is A) a gene related to dopamine. B) a manual that describes categories of mental disorders. C) a personality disorder. D) a statistical technique to determine validity. 9)

is defined as enduring patterns of behaviour or experience that differs greatly from the expectations of a person's culture. A) Abnormal psychology B) A disorder C) A personality disorder D) Psychopathy

10) A behavioural problem is not considered a personality disorder if it A) is the result of drug abuse. B) has been evident since childhood. C) is an enduring pattern of behaviour. D) leads to clinically significant stress.

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11) A characteristic common to all personality disorders is A) avoidance of social situations. B) impaired social relations. C) indifference to social rules. D) an erratic pattern of behaviour. 12) According to , a person either has a disorder or does not. A) abnormal psychologists B) the neurotic paradox C) the dimensional view D) the categorical view 13) The A) B) C) D)

states that there is a qualitative break between abnormal and normal personalities. dimensional view categorical view neurotic paradox narcissistic paradox

14) According to the dimensional view of personality disorders each disorder A) is seen as a quantitative break between abnormal and normal personalities. B) is seen as a continuum ranging from normality at one end to severe disability and

disturbance at the other. C) is bimodal, with both normal and abnormal modes of behaviours. D) has a different mean level of abnormality in the population. 15) Modern theorists believe the

view of personality disorders provides a reliable and meaningful way of describing . A) dimensional; extreme forms of normal personality traits B) categorical; qualitative breaks between normal and abnormal personality C) dimensional; qualitative breaks between normal and abnormal personality D) categorical; extreme forms of normal personality traits

16) A psychologist should be especially hesitant before diagnosing a personality disorder in all of

these groups EXCEPT A) adolescent populations. B) criminal populations. C) adults undergoing a severe loss. D) immigrant populations.

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17) Adolescents who experiment with different identities A) will most likely grow out of this stage. B) will most likely have narcissistic personality disorder. C) will most likely have borderline personality disorder. D) will most likely have histrionic personality disorder. 18) Chinn has just immigrated to Toronto, Ontario from Singapore. He seems depressed and

quite withdrawn. A friend suggests that he should make an appointment with a psychologist. Chinn's problems are most likely the result of A) an antisocial personality disorder. B) his recent immigration to Toronto. C) the narcissistic Canadian culture. D) his basic personality traits. 19) On average, men tend to have more personality disorders than women in which they A) internalize behaviours like depression and self-harm. B) externalize behaviours like fighting and violence. C) exhibit narcissistic behaviours like self-aggrandizement. D) exhibit obsessive-compulsive behaviours like repeatedly checking locks. 20) People with

personality disorders have also been described as sociopaths or

psychopaths. A) borderline B) antisocial C) obsessive-compulsive D) schizoid 21) Zack is 30 years old and living on his own. When Zack was 11 years he enjoyed torturing

snakes. He also disobeyed his parents and frequently stayed out all night. Based on his behaviour as a child, Zack may have personality disorder. A) schizoid B) antisocial C) histrionic D) schizotypal 22) Antisocial personality disorder is associated with A) withdrawn behaviour in childhood. B) aggression and cruelty in childhood. C) hallucinations in childhood. D) paranoid behaviour in childhood

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23) If a child does not display signs of conduct disorder by the age of 16, it is very A) unlikely that they will develop antisocial personality disorder. B) likely that they will develop antisocial personality disorder. C) likely that that they will develop avoidant personality disorder. D) unlikely that they will develop avoidant personality disorder. 24) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of antisocial personality disorder? A) little concern for others B) impulsivity C) strong emotions D) lack of guilt 25) Alec walked by a car he liked and just decided to steal it. After he was incarcerated for his

crime, Alec confided to his cellmate that he did not plan to take the car in advance, and did not even look in the back seat where Detective Nguyen was taking a nap. These behaviours are consistent with _ personality disorder. A) schizoid B) antisocial C) borderline D) histrionic 26) Which of the following is NOT a trait related to antisocial personality disorder? A) Irresponsibility B) Excessive attention-seeking C) Superficial charm D) Recklessness 27) People with

personality disorder are unlikely to feel remorse if they cause others to

suffer. A) B) C) D)

schizoid antisocial avoidant histrionic

28) Some researchers have theorized that one cause of

personality disorder might be an

inability to experience fear. A) antisocial B) paranoid C) histrionic D) schizoid

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29) Research suggests that, compared to other people, in fearful situations psychopaths A) self-report more fear. B) self-report less fear. C) exhibit smaller physiological reactions. D) exhibit larger physiological reactions. 30)

The social learning perspective on antisocial personality disorder suggests that A) people with antisocial personality disorder were that way since infancy. B) people with antisocial personality disorder were likely abused as children. C) people with antisocial personality disorder are unconcerned with power. D) people with antisocial personality disorder were likely abused as children and tend to be unconcerned with power.

31) Using Gray's theory to explain the antisocial personality disorder, we might hypothesize that

such psychopaths have a A) strong BIS. B) weak BIS. C) strong BAS D) weak BAS. 32) From the social learning perspective, antisocial personality disorder may be the result of A) having an extremely strong fear response. B) operant conditioning of the behavioural inhibition system. C) desensitization and repetition of antisocial behaviours. D) the presence of a strong behavioural inhibition system. 33) Individuals with antisocial personality disorder who are both highly irritable and highly

impulsive are at greater risk for A) suicidal behaviour. B) depression. C) anxiety disorders. D) incarceration. 34) The lives of individuals with borderline personality disorders are primarily marked by A) hopelessness. B) instability. C) immobility. D) insecurity.

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35) Kelly has been married three times, has trouble keeping a job for more than a couple of

years, and is very emotionally unstable. Kelly’s troubles are consistent with personality disorder. A) schizoid B) antisocial C) borderline D) histrionic 36) People with

personality disorder have unstable emotions, relationships, and images of

themselves. A) borderline B) dependent C) narcissistic D) schizotypal 37) Individuals with which of the following personality disorders might attempt suicide or

engage other self-harming behaviour in an attempt to manipulate people with whom they have relationships? A) Schizoid B) Dependent C) Borderline D) Histrionic 38) People with

personality disorder are likely to have romantic relationships that are intense and unstable. A) antisocial B) schizoid C) borderline D) dependent

39) Impairments in emotional perception in individuals with borderline personality disorder

increase the risk for A) social isolation. B) self-harm. C) suicidal ideation. D) depression.

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40) One researcher has suggested that the Star Wars character Anakin Skywalker most likely has

personality disorder. A) borderline B) dependent C) narcissistic D) schizotypal 41) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of borderline personality disorder? A) Strong emotions B) Aggressiveness C) Prone to self-harm D) Detachment from social relationships 42) A) B) C) D)

personality disorder is thought to be the result of abuse in early childhood. Obsessive-compulsive Histrionic Borderline Dependent

43) People with

personality disorder tend to have difficulty correctly identifying neutral

facial expressions. A) borderline B) antisocial C) dependent D) histrionic 44) Individuals with

_ personality disorder have been shown to have difficulty accurately recalling events from the past. A) histrionic B) antisocial C) borderline D) narcissistic

45) The following are all things a person married to an individual with borderline personality

disorder may do to help form a stable relationship with their partner EXCEPT A) Provide structure and support. B) Be accepting and stable. C) Concentrate on trouble as it occurs. D) Meets expectations for commitment.

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46) Many researchers believe that borderline personality disorder is caused by A) being very spoiled as a child. B) a strong behavioural activating system. C) childhood physical or sexual abuse or an early loss of love from parents. D) desensitization to the emotions of other individuals. 47) If a child comes to believe that other people are not to be trusted, they may be at risk of

developing a(n) personality disorder. A) obsessive-compulsive B) histrionic C) borderline D) narcissistic 48) Canadian research has found that compared to controls, individuals with borderline

personality disorder are less accurate when asked to classify facial expressions that are A) neutral. B) intense. C) mildly sad. D) either neutral or mildly sad. 49) When shown a neutral facial expression, individuals with borderline personality disorder are

more likely to interpret it as A) happy. B) sad. C) either happy or sad. D) intensely sad. 50) When shown a mildly sad facial expression, individuals with borderline personality disorder

are more likely to interpret it A) accurately B) as intensely sad. C) as happy D) as neutral. 51) People with personality disorder are often sexually provocative in inappropriate ways. A) schizotypal B) histrionic C) obsessive-compulsive D) borderline

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52) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of people with histrionic personality

disorder? A) Strong need for attention B) Suspiciousness C) Shallow opinions D) Strong emotions 53) Mohammed always has to be the centre of attention. He will often seek attention by being

overly dramatic. He always has an opinion about everything, even if he does not know what he is talking about. Mohammed most likely has a(n) personality disorder. A) histrionic B) impulsive C) borderline D) dependent 54) Jillian wears an excessive amount of carefully applied makeup and flashy clothes, in addition

to displaying exaggerated social behaviours. This behaviour is most consistent with personality disorder. A) histrionic B) antisocial C) borderline D) dependent 55) Histrionic individuals are difficult to get along with due to their excessive need for A) intimacy. B) achievement. C) attention. D) power. 56) A person with a need to be admired and an inflated sense of self-importance is displaying

traits consistent with A) borderline B) antisocial C) schizoid D) narcissistic

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personality disorder.

57) The

paradox refers to the finding that some people have apparently high self-esteem, but actually are very emotionally fragile. A) neurotic B) narcissistic C) dependent D) histrionic

58) People with

personality disorder often achieve much because of their drive and

ambition. A) antisocial B) narcissistic C) schizoid D) dependent 59) Toshiko has an extremely strong sense of entitlement. She believes she is the most important

supervisor in her firm. She routinely expects that her employees give her praise and adulation. Toshiko is displaying behaviour consistent with personality disorder. A) histrionic B) narcissistic C) schizoid D) dependent 60) People who have narcissistic personality disorder A) generally do not achieve much in life. B) are insensitive to the needs of others. C) tend to be very suggestible. D) have shallow opinions about issues. 61) People with

personality disorder most likely experience little pleasure from sex or

eating. A) B) C) D)

antisocial histrionic avoidant schizoid

62) Individuals with a schizoid personality disorder have A) strong emotions. B) an inflated sense of self-importance. C) suspicions of other people. D) a tendency to appear socially clumsy.

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63) People with

personality disorder are more likely to stare at other people without initiating any social interaction. A) avoidant B) schizoid C) schizotypal D) obsessive-compulsive

64) Sam has just relocated to Toronto after growing up on a farm in rural Saskatchewan. He has

great difficulty in adapting to life in the big city and appears socially numb and passive. Sam's behaviour is A) consistent with antisocial personality disorder. B) consistent with schizoid personality disorder. C) related to schizotypal type behaviours. D) representative of avoidant personality disorder. 65) People who feel anxious because they feel they do not fit into social groups are displaying

behaviour consistent with A) schizoid B) schizotypal C) antisocial D) borderline

personality disorder.

66) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of schizotypal personality disorder? A) Suspiciousness. B) Odd and unusual habits. C) A propensity to be jealous. D) Anxiety in social situations. 67) A person who experiences odd sensations that border on hallucinations may have

personality disorder. A) schizotypal B) schizoid C) antisocial D) avoidant

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68) Ashanti believes in ghosts and spends much of his time going to séances, reading about

ghosts, and visiting haunted houses. Ashanti is displaying behaviour consistent with personality disorder. A) schizotypal B) schizoid C) eccentric D) histrionic 69) Which of the following traits is NOT one of the traits Mason and his colleagues have

developed to measure schizotypal personality disorder? A) Cognitive disorganization B) Unusual experiences C) Conformity D) Tendency to avoid people 70) People with

personality disorder tend to be distrustful of others and see others as

constant threats. A) avoidant B) antisocial C) histrionic D) paranoid 71) A person with a paranoid personality disorder would most likely A) disregard the feelings of their partner or spouse. B) accuse their partner or spouse of cheating on them. C) abuse their partner or spouse without remorse. D) leave their partner or spouse to pursue short-term sexual relationships. 72) Sun suspects that her husband is being unfaithful. She goes to great lengths to find support

for her jealous beliefs despite that there is no evidence to show that he is cheating. Her husband cannot do anything to quell her jealous beliefs. Sun's pathological jealousy consistent with personality disorder. A) antisocial B) histrionic C) paranoid D) schizotypal

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73) Maggie Scarf has argued that the "Unabomber" Ted Kaczynski has

personality

disorder. A) antisocial B) narcissistic C) borderline D) avoidant 74) Reporter Maggie Scarf argued that the Ted Kaczynski began mailing bombs to people

because A) his sense of self-esteem was threatened. B) he had antisocial personality disorder. C) he was not very smart. D) he wanted attention, even if it was negative. 75) The

paradox refers to behaviour patterns that avoid one problem, but create other problems. A) neurotic B) narcissistic C) schizoid D) disorder

76) People with

personality disorder are motivated by feelings of inadequacy and sensitivity to criticism. A) antisocial B) avoidant C) obsessive-compulsive D) schizoid

77) People who have avoidant personality disorder A) have extremely high self-esteem. B) have an aloof interactional style. C) restrict their activities to avoid embarrassment. D) reject any external criticism of their behaviour. 78) Which of the following is a characteristic of the avoidant personality disorder? A) feelings of inadequacy B) lack of concern for other people C) seeking reassurance from others D) strong pathological jealousy

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79) Amy refuses to complete her term paper. She is very worried about the reaction of her

professor to her ideas that are diametrically opposed to his ideas about a topic in psychology. Amy’s behaviour is consistent with personality disorder. A) avoidant B) histrionic C) nervous D) distressed 80) People with an excessive need to be taken care of most likely have

personality

disorder. A) avoidant B) histrionic C) dependent D) narcissistic 81) Nidhi has trouble working independently. Instead of working independently, he will tolerate

the abuse of others at work, avoiding disagreements at all costs. Nidhi’s behaviour is consistent with personality disorder. A) dependent B) eccentric C) obsessive D) paranoid 82) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of dependent personality disorder? A) a strong need for praise from others B) performing many submissive behaviours C) not working well independently D) an excessive need for someone to take care of them 83) A person who is preoccupied with order and perfection is displaying behaviour consistent

with

personality disorder. A) histrionic B) dependent C) antisocial D) obsessive-compulsive

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84) A person with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is likely to A) put play before work. B) hold very high personal standards. C) avoid social contact. D) have a poor self-concept. 85) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of people with obsessive-compulsive

personality disorder? A) Striving for perfection. B) Rigid and inflexible. C) Frequently stingy. D) Does not work well independently. 86) Alejandro, who attends church every Sunday, has a strong moral and ethical code. Alejandro

is displaying behaviour consistent with A) obsessive compulsive B) dependent C) paranoid D) histrionic

disorder.

87) The most prevalent personality disorder discussed in your text is A) histrionic. B) dependent. C) avoidant. D) obsessive compulsive. 88) The least prevalent personality disorder discussed in your text is A) antisocial. B) borderline. C) narcissistic. D) dependent. 89) At any given time, approximately

percent of the population is diagnosed with at least

one type of personality disorder. A) .02 B) 5 C) 12 D) 25

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90) Comorbidity is the notion that A) individuals may have symptoms that meet the criteria for more than one personality

disorder. B) two or more individuals in a relationship may share the traits for the same personality disorder. C) personality disorders are heritable between parents and their children. D) one individual may morbidly transmit their personality disorder to another person. 91) According to the dimensional view of personality disorders, an avoidant personality disorder

is A) B) C) D)

high conscientiousness. low neuroticism and high extraversion. high introversion and high neuroticism. low agreeableness and high openness.

92) According to the dimensional view of personality disorders, a histrionic personality disorder

is extreme A) extraversion. B) agreeableness. C) conscientiousness. D) neuroticism. 93) Currently the DSM-5 utilizes a A) dimensional B) categorical C) qualitative D) taxonomic

view to classify mental disorders.

94) Alexithymia involves all of the following characteristics EXCEPT A) difficulty identifying feelings. B) an externally bound cognitive style. C) difficulty describing feelings to other people. D) internally motivated emotion regulation. 95) Canadian research has suggested that alexithymia is present in about A) 10% B) 12% C) 13% D) 15%

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of the population.

96) Alexithymia is often observed in individuals diagnosed with A) anorexia nervosa, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and major depression. B) anorexia nervosa, substance use disorder, and major depression. C) bulimia nervosa, substance use disorder, and major depression. D) anorexia nervosa, substance use disorder, posttraumatic stress disorder. 97) Research has shown that

often exacerbates psychosomatic illnesses and substance use among people with alexithymia. A) antidepressants B) relationship conflict C) group therapy D) psychotherapy

98) The overall prevalence rate for personality disorders is A) higher in men than it is in women. B) higher in women than it is in men. C) largely unknown in terms of gender differences. D) fairly equal in men and women. 99)

and

personality disorders may be somewhat more prevalent in women

than men A) Borderline; narcissistic B) Borderline; dependent C) Obsessive-compulsive; dependent D) Obsessive-compulsive; narcissistic 100)

You are a researcher interested in studying the causes of psychopathy. Based on what you know from past research, what kind of technology should you employ in your research? A) EEG recording technology B) brain imaging technology like fMRI C) measures of skin conductance D) a polygraph machine

101)

You are attempting to assess a sample of participants according to the newly proposed approach for diagnosing personality disorders outlined in the DSM-5. In addition to assessing specific symptoms of personality disorders, what else would you need to assess? A) the Five-Factor model B) agency communion C) the Dark Tetrad D) five trait domains

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 19 1) C 2) B 3) B 4) B 5) C 6) A 7) D 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) D 13) B 14) B 15) A 16) B 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) B 21) B 22) B 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) B 27) B 28) A 29) C 30) B 31) B 32) C 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) A 37) C

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38) C 39) B 40) A 41) D 42) C 43) A 44) C 45) C 46) C 47) C 48) D 49) C 50) B 51) B 52) B 53) A 54) A 55) C 56) D 57) B 58) B 59) B 60) B 61) D 62) D 63) B 64) B 65) B 66) C 67) A 68) A 69) C 70) D 71) B 72) C 73) B 74) A 75) A 76) B 77) C

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78) A 79) A 80) C 81) A 82) A 83) D 84) B 85) D 86) A 87) D 88) D 89) C 90) A 91) C 92) A 93) B 94) D 95) A 96) B 97) D 98) D 99) B 100) B 101) D

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Chapter 20 Student name: MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The goal of personality psychology is to understand A) differences between people. B) how people behave across different cultures. C) how people are similar to one another. D) the whole of personality. 2) Current research in personality psychology focuses mostly on A) grand theories of personality. B) the cognitive/experiential domain. C) the biological domain. D) specific components of personality. 3) An understanding of the totality of human personality A) will never be possible because human personality is much too complex to completely

understand. B) can be accomplished by gaining and integrating knowledge about its many parts. C) has been accomplished by modern personality psychologists using the latest personality research methods. D) cannot be accomplished by modern personality psychology in the foreseeable future of the science. 4) To gain an understanding of the complete picture of human personality, researchers must A) all work together to gain an understanding of the human nature level of human

behaviour. B) be systematic in their approaches, use diverse methods and approaches of study, and communicate clearly with other researchers working in various areas of personality psychology. C) build upon the foundation of the knowledge developed by researchers investigating the intrapsychic domain. D) continue to work in even narrower specialty areas within personality psychology.

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5) Researchers working in which of the following domains are most interested in stable

characteristics that make people different from one another? A) Adjustment B) Dispositional C) Social and cultural D) Cognitive/experiential 6) All of the following are questions personality psychologists that study the dispositional

domain will continue to ask in the future EXCEPT A) How many new personality traits exist? B) How will future advancements in measurement theory affect the study of personality dispositions? C) How do personality traits interact with situations to produce behaviours? D) Are the major personality traits of human personality moderately heritable? 7) Canadian researchers will likely play an especially relevant role in our future understanding

of which domain of knowledge? A) Biological B) Dispositional C) Adjustment D) Social and cultural 8) This approach to personality dispositions suggests that each person has a distinct

psychological signature in terms of the specific dispositions. A) temporal B) if-then C) cause-effect D) yin-yang

relationships between traits and

9) Further research using the lexical approach is A) unnecessary. B) likely to find new traits related to sociability. C) likely to find new traits related to sexuality or sex differences. D) likely to find new traits related to agreeableness.

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10) Which of the following topics do the authors of your text believe will be a focus of much of

the future research in the biological domain of personality? A) Approach and avoidance relationships B) The number of basic personality dispositions C) The genetic bases of human personality D) The molecular level of genetic analysis 11) Research has found that

percent of the variation in most of the major personality traits can be attributed to genetic variations. A) 10-20 B) 30-50 C) 60-80 D) 100

12) Future research on genetics and behaviour is likely to lead to new discoveries in all of these

areas EXCEPT A) the identification of specific genes that contribute to explaining the genetic variance in behavioural dimensions and disorders. B) how our genetic makeup contributes to physiological features like eye colour or height. C) genetics researchers studying the effects of shared and non-shared family environments. D) genes will be found that synthesize specific neurotransmitters that will be related to specific personality traits. 13) Researchers investigating personality from the evolutionary perspective will most likely find

in the future. A) a few basic adaptations B) a set of new adaptive problems C) a few basic traits D) many more psychological mechanisms than we are now aware of 14) Proponents of the evolutionary perspective on personality will continue to ask which of the

following basic questions? A) "What are the basic traits of personality?" B) "What is the adaptive function of each psychological mechanism?" C) "Are there sex differences in every domain of personality?" D) "How close have evolutionary adaptations come to perfection?"

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15) The authors of your textbook believe that in the future evolutionary psychology will A) supplant the other domains of personality as the dominant force in personality

psychology. B) continue to gain in importance, but will not supplant other perspectives. C) replace the cognitive domain by basing mental functioning on a variety of psychological mechanisms. D) provide a layer of insight into human nature for discovering a universal set of personality dispositions. 16) The domain of personality most concerned with unconscious motivation is the

domain. A) intrapsychic B) dispositional C) biological D) cognitive/experiential 17) Research in modern personality psychology from the perspective of the intrapsychic domain A) does not believe there is such a thing as an unconscious. B) does not study the unconscious. C) uses many innovative methods to study the unconscious, such as priming and

subliminal exposure. D) believes the unconscious is a cognitive by-product. 18) Much of the current research in the intrapsychic domain addresses A) the oedipal complex. B) libido. C) thanatos. D) repression. 19) Recent experimental demonstrations of false memories are A) indicating that patterns of memories are inconsistent over time. B) a long way from the issue of repressed or false childhood memories of traumatic

events. C) showing that there are higher instances of childhood sexual abuse than previously believed. D) questioning the id's responsibility for repressed and false memories.

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20) One modern view on the unconscious is that A) there is no empirical support for the notion of an unconscious mind as there has been

little support for most of Freud's other theories. B) it is an automatic information processing mechanism that can influence conscious awareness. C) the unconscious is irrelevant as it can be shown to hold inaccurate or false memories. D) Freud's view of a motivated unconscious based on sexual and aggressive energy is still the dominant perspective in the intrapsychic domain. 21) The metaphor most commonly used within the cognitive/experiential domain to describe

human information processing is a A) telephone switching box. B) computer. C) blank slate. D) suitcase. 22) The following are all concepts subsumed by the cognitive-experiential domain EXCEPT A) emotions. B) dispositions. C) goals. D) information processing. 23) The A) B) C) D)

domain is most concerned with understanding subjective experiences. intrapsychic dispositional biological cognitive/experiential

24) Researchers working in which of the following domains are especially interested in how

people influence the environment, and how the environment influences personality? A) Intrapsychic B) Social and cultural C) Biological D) Cognitive/experiential

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25) The fact that our world is becoming "smaller" demonstrates the importance of the

domain. A) intrapsychic B) social and cultural C) biological D) cognitive/experiential 26) The study of gender most often takes place in the _ A) intrapsychic B) dispositional C) social and cultural D) cognitive/experiential

domain.

27) Which of the following concepts is studied by researchers examining the social and cultural

domain of personality? A) Individualism/Collectivism B) Psychopathology C) Pleasantness/Unpleasantness D) Introversion/Extraversion 28) Research on the relationship between personality and health will NOT likely benefit in the

future from A) studies of positive emotions. B) longitudinal studies. C) studies of unconscious goals. D) studies of heart disease. 29) Relationships between personality characteristics and health are addressed in the

domain. A) adjustment B) dispositional C) social and cultural D) cognitive/experiential

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30) The most exciting work in personality psychology in the new millennium will be based on

the A) work of many personality researchers working on their own in narrow slices of the

domains they have specialized in over time. B) convergence of teams of researchers across different domains using methods that span multiple levels of analysis. C) syntheses of all personality psychology under a common framework based on evolutionary psychology. D) foundation of biological determinism using the results of the human genome project as the basis for studying human personality.

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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 20 1) D 2) D 3) B 4) B 5) B 6) D 7) B 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) B 13) D 14) B 15) B 16) A 17) C 18) D 19) B 20) B 21) B 22) B 23) D 24) B 25) B 26) C 27) A 28) C 29) A 30) B

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