Mosbys Textbook for Nursing Assistants 10th Edition Sorrentino Test Bank Chapter 01: Health Care Agencies Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An acute illness is: a. a sudden illness from which a person is expected to recover. b. an ongoing illness for which there is no known cure. c. an illness that is slow or gradual in onset. d. an illness for which there is no reasonable expectation of recovery. ANS: A
REF: p. 1
2. A long-term health condition that may have no known cure is: a. an acute illness. b. a chronic illness. c. a terminal illness. d. a physical illness. ANS: B
REF: p. 1
3. A nursing pattern that brings services from departments to the bedside is: a. primary nursing. b. team nursing. c. patient-focused care. d. case management. ANS: C
REF: p. 1
4. Functional nursing is: a. a nursing care pattern focusing on tasks and jobs. b. a nursing care pattern in which an RN is responsible for the person’s total care. c. when a team of nursing staff is led by an RN who decides the amount and kind of
care each person needs. d. when services are moved from departments to the bedside. ANS: A
REF: p. 1
5. An RN is responsible for the person’s total care. This is: a. team nursing. b. primary nursing. c. functional nursing. d. patient-focused care. ANS: B
REF: p. 1
6. RNs do which of the following? a. Write doctor’s orders. b. Supervises LPNs/LVNs. c. Decide which type of facility the person needs. d. Prescribe treatments for the person.
ANS: B
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7. Which is the goal of the health care team? a. Provide quality care. b. Provide sources of income for residents. c. Decide which procedures will be paid for. d. Train nursing assistants and other students. ANS: A
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8. Who is responsible for the entire nursing staff? a. Nurse manager b. Charge nurse c. Staff nurse d. Director of nursing ANS: D
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9. An assisted living residence: a. provides three meals a day and housekeeping and laundry services. b. is for persons with terminal illnesses. c. provides complex, ongoing rehabilitation. d. is for persons with chronic mental illness. ANS: A
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10. Assisted living residences provide which of the following? a. Housing b. Help with finances c. Complex medical care d. Terminal illnesses ANS: A
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11. These individuals give basic nursing care under the supervision of a licensed nurse: a. nurse practitioners. b. social workers. c. nursing assistants. d. medical technologists. ANS: C
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12. The director of nursing (DON) is a(n) a. LPN/LVN b. RN c. PT d. OT ANS: B
.
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13. The nursing team involves which of the following? a. Physicians
b. Pharmacists c. LPNs d. Occupational therapists ANS: C
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14. Nursing assistants may report to which of the following? a. An RN b. A physician c. An occupational therapist d. Another nursing assistant ANS: A
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15. Nursing assistants may perform delegated tasks from which of the following? a. A licensed nurse b. The medical director c. A physical therapist d. A physician’s assistant ANS: A
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16. Who assesses, makes nursing diagnoses, plans, implements, and evaluates nursing care? a. RNs b. LPNs c. Nursing assistants d. Case managers ANS: A
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17. Which member of the health team assists persons to learn skills needed for daily living? a. Occupational therapist b. Pharmacist c. Radiographer d. Homemaker ANS: A
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18. As a nursing assistant, you are a part of: a. the nursing team. b. the board of trustees. c. the case management team. d. the prospective payment system. ANS: A
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19. Who assesses and plans for the nutritional needs of patients and residents? a. The RN b. The dietitian c. The pharmacist d. The doctor ANS: B
REF: p. 6
20. LPNs/LVNs are supervised by: a. doctors and RNs. b. physical therapists and occupational therapists. c. agency administrators. d. social workers, pharmacists, and RNs. ANS: A
REF: p. 6
21. Who is responsible for diagnosing and treating diseases and injuries? a. The physician b. The nurse practitioner c. RNs d. Physician’s assistant ANS: A
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22. Who helps patients, residents, and families deal with social, emotional, and environmental
issues affecting illness and recovery? a. The speech-language pathologist b. The podiatrist c. The activities director d. The social worker ANS: D
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23. Who makes policies for health care agencies? a. The board of trustees b. The health team c. The PPO d. Medicare and Medicaid ANS: A
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24. A hospice is: a. a skilled nursing facility. b. a home health care agency. c. a health care program for persons who present dangers to themselves or others. d. a health care agency or program for persons who are dying. ANS: D
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25. A federal health insurance program for persons 65 years of age and older is: a. private insurance. b. group insurance. c. an HMO. d. Medicare. ANS: D
REF: p. 8
26. Medicaid is: a. a preferred provider organization. b. a private insurance plan bought by individuals.
c. a federal health insurance program for persons with disabilities. d. a health care payment program jointly funded by the federal government and the
states. ANS: D
REF: p. 8
27. The goal of the health team is to: a. provide quality care. b. carry out the doctor’s orders. c. develop care plans for patients and residents. d. follow agency policies and procedures. ANS: A
REF: p. 5
28. What must an agency have to operate and provide care? a. A certificate b. Accreditation c. Policies and procedures d. A license ANS: D
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29. Accreditation for health care agencies is: a. a voluntary process that signals quality and excellence. b. required to receive Medicare and Medicaid funds. c. a federal requirement for a health care agency to operate. d. a process required by preferred providers. ANS: A
. 9S REF: TpE
30. You have an important role in meeting standards and in the survey process. You must do
which of the following? a. Provide quality care. b. Interview patients and families. c. Contact the families to notify them of the survey. d. Avoid the site visitors. ANS: A
REF: p. 9
TRUE/FALSE 1. In an assisted-living facility, the person must have a roommate. ANS: F
REF: p. 3
Chapter 02: The Person’s Rights Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which requires nursing assistant training and competency evaluation? a. Medicare and Medicaid b. Health maintenance organizations c. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 d. The Older Americans Act ANS: C
REF: p. 12
2. Henry Parks is a nursing center resident. Which is the proper way to address him? a. Mr. Parks b. Henry c. Grandpa d. Sweetie ANS: A
REF: p. 17
3. You are going to give a resident a bath. Which will protect the person’s privacy? a. Open window shades so that the person can see outside. b. Open the door to the person’s room. c. Close the privacy curtain. d. Avoid draping the person to prevent chilling. ANS: C
REF: p. 17
4. An ombudsman: a. is an RN. b. promotes the resident’s needs and interests. c. is employed by the nursing center. d. makes care decisions for the resident. ANS: B
REF: p. 12
5. An ombudsman does which of the following? a. Provides a person’s care. b. Pays a person’s medical bill. c. Protects a person’s rights. d. Orders necessary prescriptions for the person. ANS: C
REF: p. 13
6. The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 is a: a. State law. b. Nurse practice act. c. Federal law. d. Criminal law. ANS: C
REF: p. 12
7. Before entering a person’s room, you should: a. get the person’s attention. b. knock on the door and wait to be asked in. c. check to see if the person has visitors. d. check to see if the person is in the bathroom. ANS: B
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8. An example of a resident’s right is: a. right to a job. b. right to information. c. right to select his/her roommate. d. right to elope. ANS: B
REF: p. 14
9. A nurse asks you to inspect a person’s closet and drawers. To protect yourself, you should: a. refuse to do it. b. ask the nurse to do it instead. c. ask a co-worker to be present with you during the inspection. d. ask the family to inspect the closet and drawers themselves. ANS: C
REF: p. 16
10. A person has the right to be free from involuntary seclusion. An example of involuntary
seclusion would be: a. having the person sleep in his/her room at night. TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. forcing the person to remain in his/her room during breakfast. c. allowing the person to talk in the courtyard area during daylight hours. d. permitting the person to remain in his/her room while it is being cleaned. ANS: B
REF: p. 16
11. You are responsible for the care you give. To provide quality care: a. follow agency policy only when completing a task you have not done before. b. refuse to mop the floor that is wet since it is not your normal routine. c. reprimand a person who is disrespectful to you so that he/she will not be able to
get away with it. d. maintain good work ethics. ANS: D
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TRUE/FALSE 1. You are responsible for protecting the resident’s rights. ANS: T
REF: p. 12
2. The resident can visit with family and friends in private. ANS: T
REF: p. 14
3. A resident wants a bath in the evening, not in the morning. The person has the right to make
this choice. ANS: T
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4. A student wants to observe a treatment. The person’s consent is not needed because the
observer is a student. ANS: F
REF: p. 14
5. Restraints may be used for disciplining a person who has been using the call light excessively. ANS: F
REF: p. 14
6. Every person has the right to refuse treatment regardless of what the doctor suggests. ANS: T
REF: p. 14
7. It is a resident’s right to have his/her privacy and confidentiality maintained of written
communications only. ANS: F
REF: p. 14
8. It is a resident’s right to be seen by the facility’s main doctor even if the resident prefers
someone else. ANS: F
REF: TpE . 1S4
Chapter 03: The Nursing Assistant Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The official recognition by a state that standards or requirements have been met is known as: a. accountability. b. responsibility. c. certification. d. reciprocity. ANS: C
REF: p. 21
2. The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 is a: a. State law. b. Nurse practice act. c. Federal law. d. Criminal law. ANS: C
REF: p. 22
3. Which law protects the public from persons practicing nursing without a license? a. OBRA b. The Older Americans Act c. A state’s nurse practice act d. Criminal law ANS: C
REF: p. 22
4. Which state law affects what nursing assistants can do? a. The state’s nurse practice act b. The nursing assistant registry c. OBRA d. Civil law ANS: A
REF: p. 22
5. OBRA requires a training and a competency evaluation program for nursing assistants
working in: a. out-patient clinic. b. nursing centers. c. hospices. d. doctors’ offices. ANS: B
REF: p. 22
6. How many hours of instruction does OBRA require at a minimum? a. 16 b. 32 c. 48 d. 75
ANS: D
REF: p. 22
7. The competency evaluation required by OBRA involves a: a. written test only. b. skills test only. c. Both written test and a skills test. d. licensing examination. ANS: C
REF: p. 23
8. How many testing attempts does OBRA allow? a. Only 1 b. At least 2 c. At least 3 d. At least 4 ANS: C
REF: p. 23
9. The nursing assistant registry includes information about: a. prior education. b. children. c. marriages. d. findings of abuse, neglect, or dishonest use of property. ANS: D
REF: p. 23
10. OBRA requires re-training and/or a new competency evaluation for persons who: a. have not worked as a nT urEsiSnT gB asAsiNstK anStEfoLrL2E 4R co.nC seOcM utive months. b. were found guilty of abuse or neglect. c. were convicted of a crime. d. did not have good performance evaluations. ANS: A
REF: p. 23
11. As a nursing assistant, you can: a. report changes in the person’s condition to the nurse. b. give drugs and insert tubes into body openings. c. take verbal or phone orders from doctors. d. discuss the person’s diagnosis with the family. ANS: A
REF: p. 26
12. As a nursing assistant, you are responsible for: a. giving drugs. b. performing sterile procedures. c. meeting the person’s hygiene needs. d. telephoning the doctor. ANS: C
REF: p. 26
13. Which of the following determines the tasks you can do? a. The doctor’s orders
b. The lead nursing assistant c. The person’s family d. State laws ANS: D
REF: p. 26
14. A nurse asks you to perform a task that is beyond the legal limits of your role. What should
you do? a. Perform the task so that you do not lose your job. b. With respect, firmly refuse the task. c. Ignore the request. d. Think about it for a few days. ANS: B
REF: p. 26
15. Which tells you what your employer expects? a. Your job description b. The state nurse practice act c. OBRA d. Code of ethics ANS: A
REF: p. 26
16. A nurse asks you to do a urinary catheterization. This involves sterile technique and inserting
a tube into the person’s bladder. The nurse gives you very clear instructions. What should you do? a. Perform the task. The nurse’s directions were clear. b. Perform the task if the T nuErS seTiB s aAvNaiKlaSbE leLtoLaEnR sw uestions. .eCrOqM c. Refuse the task. It is beyond the legal limits of your role. d. Perform the task if another nursing assistant can help you. ANS: C
REF: p. 26
17. You may lose your certification as a nursing assistance for which of the following reasons? a. Giving unsafe care b. Being late to work c. Bringing your children to work d. Refusing to give family members confidential information ANS: A
REF: p. 24
18. A nursing assistant is also an EMT who works for the fire department. In her EMT role, she is
allowed to start IVs. On the weekend, she works as a nursing assistant at a nursing center. The RN asks her to start an IV on a resident. What should the nursing assistant do? a. Perform the task that was delegated to her. b. Politely refuse to do the task and explain why. c. Tell another nurse to do the task. d. Report the RN to the doctor. ANS: B
REF: p. 26
Chapter 04: Delegation Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A nurse can delegate: a. responsibilities. b. accountability. c. the five rights of delegation. d. tasks. ANS: D
REF: p. 33
2. Which nursing team members can delegate? a. Physicians b. Therapists c. LVNs d. Nursing assistants ANS: C
REF: p. 33
3. Before a nurse delegates a task to you, the nurse must know which of the following? a. Whether you have met the person before or not. b. If you are willing to perform the task. c. How long your shift is for the day? d. What your role is in the agency? ANS: D 4.
REF: p. 36
Does a nurse have to delegate a task to you? a. Yes, if the task is in your job description. b. Yes, if the nurse teaches you how to perform the task. c. No. The nurse makes delegation decisions that are best for the person. d. No. The nurse performs the task unless he or she is busy. ANS: C
REF: p. 34
5. The five rights of delegation involve: a. the right task, the right circumstance, the right person, the right directions and
communication, and the right supervision and evaluation. b. the right law, the right job description, the right policies and procedures, the right
training, and the right communication and supervision. c. the right task, the right job description, the right person, the right training, and the
right supervision. d. the right job description, the right task, the right person, the right directions and
communication, and the right supervision. ANS: A
REF: p. 36
6. You can refuse to perform a delegated task if: a. you are too busy.
b. you do not like the task. c. it is the end of your shift and you are ready to go home. d. the task is not in your job description. ANS: D
REF: p. 36
7. Which of the following is an example of a task that can be delegated to you? a. Perform a sterile dressing change. b. Insert an intravenous catheter. c. Develop a care plan for a new resident. d. Re-position a person in bed. ANS: D
REF: p. 37
8. Whether or not your state allows you to perform a particular task relates to which of the five
rights of delegation? a. The right task b. The right circumstances c. The right person d. The right supervision ANS: A
REF: p. 36
TRUE/FALSE 1. When you agree to perform a delegated task, you are responsible for your own actions. ANS: T
REF: TpE . 3S6
2. The delegating nurse must be present with you when you are performing home care. ANS: F
REF: p. 35
Chapter 05: Ethics and Laws Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The willful infliction of injury that results in physical harm is: a. assault. b. defamation. c. battery. d. abuse. ANS: D
REF: p. 39
2. Touching a person without that person’s consent is: a. assault. b. battery. c. invasion of privacy. d. libel. ANS: B
REF: p. 39
3. Threatening to touch a person’s body without that person’s consent is: a. assault. b. battery. c. invasion of privacy. d. defamation. ANS: A
REF: p. 39
4. Knowledge of what is right conduct and wrong conduct is: a. ethics. b. torts. c. civil law. d. public law. ANS: A
REF: p. 39
5. You give false information regarding your education on a job application. This is: a. libel. b. slander. c. defamation. d. fraud. ANS: A
REF: p. 39
6. Unlawful restraint or restriction of a person’s freedom of movement is: a. malpractice. b. invasion of privacy. c. negligence. d. false imprisonment. ANS: D
REF: p. 39
7. An act or behavior of being overinvolved with a person is known as: a. a crime. b. assault. c. a boundary crossing. d. defamation. ANS: C
REF: p. 39
8. An ethical person: a. does not cause another person harm. b. is biased. c. is prejudiced. d. does not have opinions or facts. ANS: A
REF: p. 40
9. You discuss the previous patient you just saw with your current patient. This is: a. invasion of privacy. b. boundary crossing. c. slander. d. emotional abuse. ANS: A
REF: p. 43
10. Protecting the right to privacy involves which of the following? a. Keeping information about the person confidential b. Allowing visitors to remain in the room when care is given TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Exposing all of the body parts throughout the treatment procedure d. Opening the door when giving care in case others need to know where you are ANS: A
REF: p. 44
11. You are about to give care to a person who you realize goes to your church. What should you
do? a. b. c. d.
Refuse to care for the person. Delegate care to another nursing assistant. Tell the nurse that you know the person. Tell the person how convenient it will be to know each other.
ANS: C
REF: p. 44
12. While performing a task, a nursing assistant harmed a person. Which is correct? a. The nursing assistant is appropriate in disciplining the person. b. The nursing assistant is responsible for the harm. The supervising nurse is not
responsible. c. The nursing assistant will be held to the standard of care of other nurses. d. Harm can occur from what a person does or fails to do. ANS: D
REF: p. 40
13. Which is a source for standards of care? a. Textbooks
b. Social media c. The nurse’s directions d. Blogs ANS: A
REF: p. 42
14. You can protect yourself from a charge of assault and battery by: a. explaining to the person what you are going to do and getting consent. b. getting the person’s informed consent in writing. c. refusing to perform a task that involves touching the person. d. making sure the task was delegated by a nurse. ANS: A
REF: p. 43
15. A nursing center resident asks you to make out a will. What should you do? a. Do what the person asks. b. Refuse, but explain why. Then tell the nurse about the person’s request. c. Call a lawyer for the person. d. Find out if you will be named in the will. ANS: B
REF: p. 53
16. A nursing assistant pinches and pushes a patient. This is: a. negligence. b. malpractice. c. neglect. d. abuse. ANS: D
. 3S9 REF: TpE
17. A patient’s call light goes unanswered. The person’s son finds the patient lying on sheets
soaked with urine. This is: a. neglect. b. emotional abuse. c. physical abuse. d. malpractice. ANS: A
REF: p. 39
18. A resident did not get to the bathroom in time. She urinated and had a bowel movement in her
clothing. When trying to get up, she fell and broke her arm. This is: a. malpractice. b. involuntary seclusion. c. neglect. d. physical abuse. ANS: C
REF: p. 39
19. You see a nursing assistant hitting a resident. What should you do? a. Talk to the resident. b. Call the police. c. Tell the administrator. d. Mind your own business.
ANS: C
REF: p. 45
20. A 14-year-old child is a hospital patient. You find bruises on the child’s face after her brother
leaves. What should you do? a. Call the police if you suspect child abuse. b. Call a child protection agency if you suspect child abuse. c. Tell the nurse. d. Call the parents. ANS: C
REF: p. 45
21. You hear a nurse telling a patient that he/she will never see his/her family again. This is: a. battery. b. a tort. c. verbal abuse. d. neglect. ANS: C
REF: p. 45
22. A co-worker often comes to work with bruises and other injuries. She also borrows lunch
money from you right after payday. What should you do? a. Call the police. b. Tell her husband. c. Tell the nurse. d. Mind your own business. ANS: C
REF: p. 45
23. A child is 7 years old. Which is a sign of child abuse? a. Burns on the legs b. Arm and leg fractures c. A dirty face d. Missing teeth ANS: B
REF: p. 51
24. You suspect that a nursing center resident is being abused. What should you do? a. Tell the nurse. b. Call the police. c. Talk to the family. d. Mind your own business. ANS: A
REF: p. 49
25. Which statement about child abuse is correct? a. Suspected child abuse must be reported. b. Only child sexual abuse must be reported. c. The victim must report the abuse. d. Only parents can report abuse. ANS: A
REF: p. 51
26. In intimate partner violence, the abuser is typically a: a. caregiver. b. family member. c. neighbor. d. partner. ANS: D
REF: p. 52
27. These statements are about domestic abuse. Which is correct? a. It does not happen in nursing centers. b. Usually just one type of abuse is present. c. The abuser has power and control over the victim. d. The older adult is not at risk for domestic abuse. ANS: C
REF: p. 52
28. A nursing assistant decides to go home sick after she has accepted her assignment. She
decides to go ahead and leave the agency without telling anyone. This is known as: a. elder abuse. b. tort. c. neglect. d. abandonment. ANS: D
REF: p. 47
Chapter 06: Student and Work Ethics Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Work ethics means: a. trusting others with personal information. b. being polite and considerate. c. behavior in the workplace. d. right and wrong conduct. ANS: C
REF: p. 57
2. You say things that offend another person. This is: a. gossip. b. defamation. c. being rude. d. harassment. ANS: D
REF: p. 57
3. Which will promote physical and mental health? a. Balanced diet b. Limiting exercise to conserve energy c. Taking herbal drugs that your doctor does not approve of d. Fatigue ANS: A
REF: p. 58
4. Good personal hygiene involves: a. daily bathing. b. taking a weekly shower. c. washing feet twice per week. d. brushing teeth daily. ANS: A
REF: p. 59
5. To look professional at work: a. wear required uniforms. b. wear your favorite clothes. c. keep your nails polished. d. wear shoes that are in style. ANS: A
REF: p. 59
6. Uniforms, stockings, socks, and shoes must be: a. clean. b. in style. c. white. d. provided by the agency. ANS: A
REF: p. 59
7. Underclothes must: a. be simple and attractive. b. be clean and fit well. c. give needed support. d. be in style. ANS: B
REF: p. 59
8. You have a tattoo. You should: a. have it removed. b. wear uniforms that allow it to be seen. c. cover it while at work. d. show it to patients and residents. ANS: C
REF: p. 59
9. You have multiple earring piercings. You should: a. wear only one set of earrings. b. plug the holes. c. wear as many earrings as needed. d. limit earrings to the lower ear lobe. ANS: A
REF: p. 59
10. Large rings and bracelets are dangerous because: a. patients and residents can pull them off. b. they can scratch patients and residents. TESTBANKS c. they provide a place for microbes to grow and multiply. d. they can damage care equipment. ANS: B
REF: p. 59
11. Necklaces and earrings are dangerous because: a. patients and residents can pull them off. b. they can scratch patients and residents. c. they provide a place for microbes to grow and multiply. d. they can damage care equipment. ANS: A
REF: p. 59
12. In order to count pulse and respirations accurately, you should wear a wristwatch that: a. is digital. b. has a sweep hand. c. has a stopwatch. d. has an alarm. ANS: B
REF: p. 59
13. Nail polish: a. must be a light shade. b. must be in good repair. c. must be a dark shade.
d. should not be worn. ANS: D
REF: p. 59
14. Perfumes, colognes, and after-shave lotions: a. should not be worn. b. must be a light fragrance. c. must be approved by the agency. d. prevent body odors. ANS: A
REF: p. 59
15. Being dependable means which of the following? a. Reporting to work on time more than 50% of the time b. Minimizing the number of times you bring your children to work c. Performing only the delegated tasks you like to perform d. Stay the entire shift ANS: D
REF: p. 59
16. Being honest as a nursing assistant means which of the following? a. Reporting that you completed your assignment when in reality your peer
completed it for you b. Reporting errors c. Reporting your dislike of the rules d. Reporting gossip ANS: B
REF: p. 58
17. Having concern for a person is: a. caring. b. empathy. c. enthusiasm. d. respect. ANS: A
REF: p. 58
18. Treating the person with dignity is: a. consideration. b. empathy. c. respectfulness. d. cheerfulness. ANS: C
REF: p. 58
19. Understanding your feelings, strengths, and weaknesses is: a. consideration. b. trustworthiness. c. conscientiousness. d. self-awareness. ANS: D
REF: p. 58
20. Children emergencies are: a. your responsibility. b. the agency’s responsibility. c. your co-workers’ responsibility. d. part of your benefits package. ANS: A
REF: p. 60
21. You are the carpool driver today. You need to get gas. What should you do? a. Leave earlier than usual to get the gas. b. Get it after you pick everyone up. c. Get it after work. d. Ask everyone to help pay for gas. ANS: A
REF: p. 60
22. You are ill and cannot work as scheduled. What should you do? a. Find someone to work for you. b. Follow the agency’s attendance policy. c. Call your supervisor after your shift starts. d. Go to bed. ANS: B
REF: p. 61
23. You need to arrive for work: a. before your shift starts. b. when your shift starts. c. within 5 minutes of yoT urEsS hiT ftB ’sAsN taK rtiSnE gL tim e. LE d. within 10 minutes of your shift’s starting time. ANS: A
REF: p. 60
24. You are scheduled to work from 3:00 PM to 11:30 PM. Which statement is correct? a. You must stay the entire time. b. You can leave at 11:00 PM. c. You can leave when your work is done. d. You do not have to work overtime. ANS: A
REF: p. 61
25. Which statement displays a bad attitude? a. The nursing assistant who says “I can’t, I’m too busy.” b. The nursing assistant who asks “Would you be able to assist me with a bath within
the next 30 minutes?” c. The RN who states “I really appreciate your help today.” d. The nursing assistant who states “I’m sorry. I can’t help you right now, but I can in
20 minutes when I finish this bath.” ANS: A
REF: p. 62
26. A resident did not get her meal served on time. How should you respond to the nurse? a. “I’m sorry. Can you help me plan better?” b. “It’s not my fault.”
c. “I didn’t do it.” d. “It’s not my turn. I did it yesterday.” ANS: A
REF: p. 62
27. You see two health team members talking quietly to each other. You tell your co-workers
what you overheard. This is: a. eavesdropping. b. gossip. c. an invasion of privacy. d. defamation. ANS: B
REF: p. 62
28. During lunch, your co-workers are talking about other staff members. What should you do? a. excuse yourself and leave the table. b. sit there without saying anything. c. tell the nurse what happened. d. share the comments with staff members who were not there. ANS: A
REF: p. 62
29. You can share information about a patient or resident with: a. the family. b. your family members at home. c. the nurse. d. visitors. ANS: C
. 6S2 REF: TpE
30. You need to talk to the nurse about a patient or resident. Where should you do this? a. In the person’s room b. In the hallway c. In a private place where only you and the nurse can hear d. Over the intercom system ANS: C
REF: p. 62
31. When you eavesdrop, you: a. invade the person’s privacy. b. commit fraud. c. promote confidentiality. d. gossip. ANS: A
REF: p. 62
32. What is the best way to look professional at work? a. Ask your friends to help you shop for a uniform. b. Wear your favorite clothes to work. c. Check yourself in the mirror before leaving for work. d. Follow the agency’s dress code. ANS: D
REF: p. 59
33. Professional speech and language includes which of the following? a. Using slang b. Speaking softly and gently c. Avoiding using vulgar language unless another person uses it d. Calling a person “sweetie” or “honey” ANS: B
REF: p. 63
34. Which is a courtesy? a. Saying “please” and “thank you” b. Choosing to lead the line instead of letting a resident lead to ensure he knows
where he is going c. Nodding your head as opposed to answering out loud d. Calling a patient by his first name ANS: A
REF: p. 63
35. You need to call your children. When should you make the call? a. After you finish assigned tasks. b. When patients or residents are napping. c. During meal or break times. d. When the nurse is talking to the doctor. ANS: C
REF: p. 63
36. Which of the following is a good example of keeping personal matters out of the workplace? a. Carrying a personal pager TE b. Asking a co-worker for lunch money c. Using the agency’s computer to check your e-mail d. Making a doctor’s appointment for your day off ANS: D
REF: p. 63
37. To keep personal matters out of the workplace, you should: a. use cellphones on the nursing unit to make personal calls. b. sell your handmade crafts at work. c. have your son meet you over your lunch break. d. send text messages from the hallway as opposed to the person’s room. ANS: C
REF: p. 63
38. Your break time is 15 minutes long. How long can you take? a. 10 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 20 minutes d. As long as you need ANS: B
REF: p. 63
39. Before leaving the unit for a break, you need to: a. use the restroom. b. tell the nurse.
c. log off the computer. d. turn off your pager or phone. ANS: B
REF: p. 63
40. A patient’s care is assigned to Sally Jones. The patient needs to use the bathroom. Sally Jones
is on a meal break. Who will help the patient? a. Sally Jones. She will have to return to the unit. b. No one. The patient will have to wait until Sally Jones is done eating. c. Any staff member on the unit will help. d. The patient’s family will help. ANS: C
REF: p. 63
41. Which will protect patients, residents, and you from harm? a. Following your job description and agency policies and procedures b. Following the other nursing assistant’s instructions c. Telling the nurse when you make a mistake once you have gone home for the day d. Making excuses or blaming others for your actions ANS: A
REF: p. 64
42. You have planned your work. Which is a good part of your plan? a. Discussing priorities with the nurse b. Listing care that needs to be done without using a schedule or time frame c. Gathering needed supplies once you go in the person’s room to complete the task d. Looking like you are staying busy so others will not ask for help ANS: A
. 6S4 REF: TpE
43. Stress is: a. anything that is not pleasant. b. the response or change in the body caused by any emotional, physical, social, or
economic factor. c. anxiety, fear, anger, dread, and depression. d. what causes illness. ANS: B
REF: p. 64
44. A stressor is: a. an event or factor that causes stress. b. anything that is not pleasant. c. what causes illness. d. the response or change in the body caused by any emotional, physical, social, or
economic factor. ANS: A
REF: p. 64
45. The following can help reduce or cope with stress: a. limited exercise. b. setting priorities. c. eating favorite meals regardless of nutritional value. d. minimizing sleep.
ANS: B
REF: p. 64
46. Your work is causing you stress. What should you do? a. Stay home from work. b. Talk to the nurse. c. Talk to your co-workers. d. Tell your patients about the problem. ANS: B
REF: p. 64
47. These statements are about harassment. Which is correct? a. Harassment is always sexual. b. Harassment always involves touch. c. Harassment does not involve pictures. d. Victims of sexual harassment can be men or women. ANS: D
REF: p. 66
48. You decide to resign from your job. What should you do? a. Not show up for work. b. Give a 2-week notice. c. Hire someone to take your place. d. Give a 1-day notice. ANS: B
REF: p. 67
49. When you resign from a job, you should do which of the following? a. Give your reason for leT avEiS ngT. b. Give a 5-day notice. c. Tell the employer you would have been able to work at the agency if things had
changed. d. Make a list of the things you do not like about your job and the agency. ANS: A
REF: p. 67
50. You could lose your job for which of the following reasons? a. Showing respect to patients, families, and visitors b. Perfect attendance c. Abandonment d. Using alcohol at home ANS: C
REF: p. 68
TRUE/FALSE 1. Stress can cause life-threatening problems. ANS: T
REF: p. 65
2. Stress in your personal life can affect your work and the care you give. ANS: T
REF: p. 65
3. Spending time with those who make you laugh can help you reduce and cope with stress. ANS: T
REF: p. 65
4. Unethical behavior in the clinical setting as a student could cause you to be dismissed from
the program. ANS: T
REF: p. 68
5. As a student, you do not have to follow a code of conduct when taking care of the person. ANS: F
REF: p. 68
Chapter 07: Communicating With the Person Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A concept that considers the whole person is called: a. religion. b. culture. c. comatose. d. holism. ANS: D 2.
REF: p. 70
Verbal communication uses: a. written or spoken words. b. body language. c. needs. d. culture. ANS: A
REF: p. 70
3. Experiencing one’s potential is: a. esteem. b. self-esteem. c. self-actualization. d. holism. ANS: C
REF: p. 70
4. Messages sent through facial expressions, gestures, posture, and body movements is: a. body language. b. paraphrasing. c. focusing. d. holism. ANS: A
REF: p. 70
5. These statements are about the whole person. Which is correct? a. The whole person has physical, social, psychological, and spiritual parts. b. The parts can be separated. c. Each part stands alone with no relation to the others. d. The parts are independent of each other. ANS: A
REF: p. 71
6. Which is correct? a. Calling a resident by his or her first name shows respect b. Calling a resident “sweetheart” promotes the person’s dignity c. Calling patients and residents by their titles (Mr., Mrs., Ms., or Dr.) promotes
dignity and shows respect d. Calling a male resident “grandpa” shows respect and caring
ANS: C
REF: p. 71
7. According to Maslow, which basic needs must be met first? a. Physical needs b. Safety and security needs c. Love and belonging needs d. Self-esteem and self-actualization needs ANS: A
REF: p. 71
8. Which is a physical need? a. Oxygen b. Money c. Happiness d. Love ANS: A
REF: p. 71
9. You are going to help a resident with a shower. To meet the person’s safety and security
needs, you must do which of the following? a. Tell the resident that taking a shower is required. b. Offer to allow the resident to shower with his roommate. c. Tell the resident that he will not be able to attend breakfast without having taken a shower. d. Encourage the resident to take a shower. ANS: D
REF: p. 71
10. You can help a new resident feel safe and secure by: a. listening to the person’s concerns. b. keeping the person in his or her room. c. asking direct questions. d. asking visitors to leave the room. ANS: A
REF: p. 71
11. Family and friends usually help meet the person’s: a. physical needs. b. love and belonging needs. c. self-actualization needs. d. holism needs. ANS: B
REF: p. 71
12. A person’s cultural beliefs and practices are: a. included in the person’s care plan. b. ordered by the doctor. c. not allowed in nursing centers. d. determined by the health care team. ANS: A
REF: p. 72
13. A nursing center resident wants to attend religious services in the center’s chapel. What
should you do? a. Assist the person to the chapel. b. Report the request to the nurse. c. Check the person’s care plan. d. Ask why the person wants to attend. ANS: A
REF: p. 72-73
14. A person’s cultural beliefs and practices are different from yours. What should you do? a. Judge the person by your standards. b. Ask to care for other patients or residents. c. Learn about the person’s culture. d. Tell the person what you believe. ANS: C
REF: p. 72-73
15. A person’s religion is different from yours. What should you do? a. Judge the person by your standards. b. Ask to care for other patients or residents. c. Learn about the person’s religion. d. Tell the person what you believe. ANS: C
REF: p. 72-73
16. A lost, absent, or impaired physical or mental function is: a. an illness. b. a physical need. c. a medical problem. d. a disability. ANS: D
REF: p. 70
17. Which is a common response to illness and disability? a. Anger b. Demanding behavior c. Self-centered behavior d. Withdrawal ANS: A
REF: p. 83
18. Which will improve a person’s quality of life? a. Encouraging the sick role b. Changing the person’s cultural beliefs and practices c. Promoting the person’s optimal level of functioning d. Focusing on the person’s disabilities ANS: C
REF: p. 81
19. This branch of medicine is concerned with the growth, development, and care of children. a. Pediatrics b. Geriatrics c. Obstetrics
d. Psychiatry ANS: A
REF: p. 70
20. This branch of medicine is concerned with mental health disorders. a. Pediatrics b. Geriatrics c. Obstetrics d. Psychiatry ANS: D
REF: p. 70
21. Persons who need more time to recover than hospital care allow need: a. nursing center care. b. subacute care or rehabilitation. c. hospice care. d. disability care. ANS: B
REF: p. 74
22. Generally, persons needing complete care in nursing centers: a. know who and where they are, the year, and the time of day. b. are recovering from an acute illness or surgery. c. are very disabled and confused or disoriented. d. need physical and occupational therapy. ANS: C
REF: p. 74
23. Short-term nursing center rTeE siS deTnB tsA : a. have birth defects. b. have childhood injuries or diseases. c. are recovering from fractures, acute illness, or surgery. d. are dying. ANS: C
REF: p. 74
24. Persons needing respite care: a. are confused and disoriented. b. have limited language and learning abilities. c. are angry and withdrawn. d. are admitted to nursing centers for short stays. ANS: D
REF: p. 74
25. When caring for terminally ill persons, the goal is to promote: a. optimal level of functioning. b. quality care to persons who are dying. c. independent functioning. d. exercise and activity. ANS: B
REF: p. 74
26. You ask a patient a question. You should:
a. b. c. d.
give the person time to process what you asked. expect an answer right away. ask the question in another way. ask the question only once.
ANS: A
REF: p. 75
27. You want to make sure that a patient understands what you said. You should: a. assume the person understands. b. assume the person is confused and disoriented. c. respect the person’s culture and religion. d. ask questions to see if the person understands. ANS: D
REF: p. 75
28. A resident asks the same question many times. What should you do? a. Be patient. b. Say that you already answered the question. c. Tell the person that you are answering again. d. Report the person’s behavior to the nurse. ANS: A
REF: p. 75
29. A resident uses slang when he talks to you. You should: a. ask him not to use such words. b. ask the nurse to speak to him. c. avoid using slang words yourself. d. ignore him when he usT esEsS ucThBwAoNrdKsS . ANS: C
REF: p. 75
30. A resident cannot speak or read. To communicate with the person, you should: a. follow the person’s care plan. b. shout slowly and distinctly. c. use sign language. d. use body language. ANS: A
REF: p. 75
31. A resident cannot hear and has poor vision. You need to write messages to the person. You
should: a. use your notepad. b. use a black felt pen and white paper. c. write small so that others nearby cannot read the messages. d. use a computer. ANS: B
REF: p. 75
32. Which conveys comfort, caring, and reassurance? a. Body language b. Gestures c. Posture d. Touch
ANS: D
REF: p. 77
33. To use touch correctly, you should: a. follow the person’s care plan. b. ask where the person wants to be touched. c. ask how the person wants to be touched. d. use both hands. ANS: A
REF: p. 77
34. Which statement about body language is correct? a. It is difficult to know what someone means by observing her body language. b. Patients and residents send messages through body language. c. Body language is only expressed by the patient or resident. d. Body language involves speech. ANS: B
REF: p. 78
35. Which statement about body language is correct? a. Your appearance sends messages. b. Facial expressions mean the same thing in all cultures. c. Maintaining eye contact is important in all cultures. d. Controlling your body language is not an issue in the health care setting. ANS: A
REF: p. 78
36. A patient turns her eyes away from you. Her face is flushed. These facial expressions most
likely mean that she is: a. afraid. b. angry. c. surprised. d. embarrassed. ANS: D
REF: p. 78
37. A resident’s eyes are wide open and the eyebrows are raised. The person’s mouth is tense with
the lips turned back. These facial expressions most likely mean: a. coldness. b. fear. c. disgust. d. tiredness. ANS: B
REF: p. 78
38. A resident’s bowel movement has a strong odor. You should: a. tell the person that the bowel movement smells. b. ask what the person ate. c. control your body language. d. avoid eyes contact with the person. ANS: C
REF: p. 78
39. Which shows that you are listening to a person? a. Having good eye contact with the person b. Leaning away from the person c. Sitting with your arms crossed d. Changing the subject ANS: A
REF: p. 78
40. Listening involves: a. focusing on the person’s verbal and nonverbal communication. b. using communication boards. c. leaning back with your arms crossed. d. using communication barriers. ANS: A
REF: p. 78
41. A patient says “I’m tired of waiting for my lunch. I want it now!” To paraphrase, you say: a. “Why do you want your lunch now?” b. “You want your lunch now.” c. “What do you want for lunch?” d. “Could you tell me that again?” ANS: B
REF: p. 79
42. Which communication technique will give “yes” or “no” answers? a. Paraphrasing b. Direct questions c. Focusing d. Clarifying ANS: B
REF: p. 79
43. Which is a direct question? a. “What do you want for lunch?” b. “Why don’t you want to eat?” c. “Tell me that again, please.” d. “Tell me about your family.” ANS: A
REF: p. 79
44. Which communication technique allows the person to decide what to talk about? a. Paraphrasing b. Direct questions c. Open-ended questions d. Focusing ANS: C
REF: p. 79
45. A resident wants his meatloaf prepared a certain way. To clarify what the person is saying,
you say: a. “Can you tell me that again?” b. “Do you want more pepper in it?” c. “Why do you want it made that way?”
d. “Let’s talk about the meatloaf on your plate.” ANS: A
REF: p. 79
46. You want to make sure that you understand a message. Which communication technique
should you use? a. Paraphrasing b. Direct questions c. Clarifying d. Focusing ANS: C
REF: p. 79
47. Which is useful when a person is rambling? a. Paraphrasing b. Silence c. Clarifying d. Focusing ANS: D
REF: p. 79
48. A resident is very upset about her lunch. Which communication technique can help the person
gain control? a. Paraphrasing b. Silence c. Clarifying d. Focusing ANS: B
. 7S9 REF: TpE
49. When someone changes the subject, it usually means that the person is: a. angry. b. embarrassed. c. uncomfortable with the topic. d. bored. ANS: C
REF: p. 80
50. Which shows a lack of interest and caring? a. Silence and touch b. Open-ended questions c. Clarifying d. Failure to listen ANS: D
REF: p. 80
51. Which is a pat answer? a. “Everything will be just fine.” b. “I’m sure this must be discouraging for you.” c. “Can you tell me what’s wrong?” d. “How does this make you feel?” ANS: A
REF: p. 80
52. Disabilities are acquired: a. at birth. b. in childhood. c. in old age. d. any time. ANS: D
REF: p. 81
53. Which is important when communicating with persons who are disabled? a. Your attitude b. The type of disability c. When the disability occurred d. How the disability occurred ANS: A
REF: p. 81
54. A person is in a wheelchair. When communicating with the person, you should: a. lean on the wheelchair. b. pat the person on the head. c. speak directly to the person. d. look over the person’s head. ANS: C
REF: p. 81
55. When speaking to a person who is disabled, you should do which of the following? a. Protect the person’s privacy. b. Use the person’s first name. TES c. Move from one statement to the next with little time in between for the person to
respond so that he or she knows you have not left him or her. d. Do not maintain eye contact. ANS: A
REF: p. 81
56. A person is in a coma. This means that the person: a. is confused and disoriented. b. has lost, absent, or impaired physical or mental function. c. cannot hear. d. cannot respond to others. ANS: D
REF: p. 81
57. You are caring for a person who is comatose. You should do which of the following? a. Knock once and enter the person’s room. b. Tell the person your name, the time, and the place every time you enter the room. c. Explain what you did after you did it. d. Leave the room quietly without telling the person. ANS: B
REF: p. 81
58. You should always assume that a person who is comatose can: a. hear. b. see.
c. touch. d. speak. ANS: A
REF: p. 81
59. A resident’s son is visiting. Which will protect the resident’s privacy? a. Allowing the resident’s son to assist in giving the care b. Asking the resident’s son to leave while you give care c. Exposing the resident’s body in front of her son d. Allowing the resident’s son to read the resident’s mail to her before she sees it ANS: B
REF: p. 81
60. You think that a visitor is tiring a patient. What should you do? a. Ask the visitor to leave. b. Report the observations to the nurse. c. Allow the visitor privacy. d. Ask the visitor to help you give care. ANS: B
REF: p. 81
61. Family and visitors: a. affect the person’s quality of life. b. visit in the afternoon and evening. c. use effective communication techniques. d. need a doctor’s order to visit. ANS: A
REF: p. 81
62. Family and visitors: a. are treated with respect. b. share the person’s cultural and religious beliefs. c. help with the person’s care. d. are encouraged to stay in the room during care measures. ANS: A
REF: p. 81
63. A person exchanges information with someone else. They send and receive messages. This is: a. gossip. b. communication. c. reporting. d. resolving conflict. ANS: B
REF: p. 70
64. Communication is: a. the verbal account of care and observations. b. the written account of care and observations. c. the medical record. d. the exchange of information. ANS: D
REF: p. 75
65. Which has the same meaning for everyone? a. Hot b. Warm c. Elevated temperature d. Temperature of 99 F ANS: D
REF: p. 75
66. The patient uses a term that you do not understand that’s in Spanish. What should you do? a. Pretend to understand. b. Ask the nurse if a translator is needed. c. Look the word up on the Internet when you get home that day. d. See if you can locate other uses of the word within the medical record. ANS: B
REF: p. 77
67. Which promotes communication? a. Being brief and concise b. Giving information in the reverse order of how it occurred c. Presenting opinions d. Talking about two subjects at once ANS: A
REF: p. 75
TRUE/FALSE 1. In order to provide effective care, you must consider the whole person. ANS: T
REF: p. 70
Chapter 08: Health Team Communications Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. These statements are about medical records. Which is correct? a. The person’s identifying information may be shared as long as the diagnosis is not
shared. b. They are legal documents. c. They are used to communicate information about a person to the family. d. All agency staff can access them. ANS: B
REF: p. 86
2. Health care agencies have policies about medical records. Policies generally cover which of
the following? a. Medical terms b. How long the records are stored c. Type of handwriting required d. Correcting errors ANS: D
REF: p. 90
3. A patient asks to see his chart. What should you do? a. Give it to him. b. Tell the nurse. c. Tell the doctor. d. Make a copy for him. ANS: B
REF: p. 90
4. Which form has the person’s identifying information? a. Admission record b. Progress notes c. Activities-of-daily-living flow sheet d. Kardex ANS: A
REF: p. 88
5. You are working in a nursing center. Where would you record information about a person’s
intake and output? a. Admission record b. Progress notes c. Graphic sheet d. Kardex ANS: C
REF: p. 88
6. Which of the following is a type of card file? a. Admission record b. Progress notes
c. Activities-of-daily-living flow sheet d. Kardex ANS: D
REF: p. 90
7. Which of the following are used to record frequent measurements or observations? a. Kardex b. Flow sheets c. Progress notes d. Health history sheets ANS: B
REF: p. 88
8. You are reporting to the nurse. Which is correct? a. Be short and vague in your report. b. Give the person’s name, room, and bed number and the time you gave care or
made observations. c. Report what co-workers did. d. Refrain from using your notes. ANS: B
REF: p. 97
9. When should you report changes in the person’s condition? a. At once b. At the end of your shift c. Before you take your lunch break d. During the end-of-shift report ANS: A
. 9S7 REF: TpE
10. Anyone who reads your charting should know which of the following? a. When you took your lunch break? b. What you did? c. What your co-workers did? d. How long it took you to get the trays delivered? ANS: B
REF: p. 99
11. The agency allows you to record on paper charts. Which is correct? a. Pencil is preferred over ink. b. Only agency-approved abbreviations are used. c. Errors are erased. d. All entries are signed with only your initials. ANS: B 12.
REF: p. 99
When recording, you should do which of the following? Write using abbreviations that are easy to figure out. Use correct spelling, grammar, and punctuation. Skip lines. Record what you saw your peers do.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
REF: p. 99
13. These statements are about charting. Which is correct? a. You can chart a procedure before completing it. b. You should never use the person’s exact words. c. You need to use terms with more than one meaning. d. You need to record facts. ANS: D
REF: p. 99
14. You are charting changes in the person’s condition. You also need to chart which of the
following? a. That you informed another nursing assistant of the changes? b. What you told the nurse about the changes? c. When you took your lunch break? d. When you called the doctor about the changes? ANS: B
REF: p. 99
15. When charting, you should record: a. safety measures performed. b. what co-workers observed? c. what co-workers did? d. what the doctor said? ANS: A
REF: p. 99
16. The clock shows 11:42 AM. In 24-hour clock time, this is: a. 11:42. b. 1142. c. 2342. d. 11:43 AM. ANS: B
REF: p. 97
17. The clock shows 7:29 PM. In 24-hour clock time, this is: a. 7:29 PM. b. 729. c. 0729. d. 1929. ANS: D
REF: p. 97
18. The clock shows 12:00 noon. In 24-hour clock time, this is: a. 12:00 noon. b. 12:00. c. 1200. d. Noon. ANS: C
REF: p. 97
19. You have access to the agency’s computer system. Which is correct? a. You can use another person’s password to open e-mail. b. You can use the computer to send personal e-mail.
c. You can use the computer to send confidential information to the nurse. d. You can change your password following agency policy. ANS: D
REF: p. 101
20. These statements are about computer use in health care agencies. Which is correct? a. You should use the computer to send information that requires immediate
reporting. b. You should use the computer to send jokes and other entertainment material. c. Authorized staff can retrieve deleted computer files. d. You should use the computer to post your opinions and messages on the Internet. ANS: C
REF: p. 101
21. These statements are about computer use in health care agencies. Which is correct? a. You should share your password with co-workers. b. You should use correct spelling, punctuation, and grammar. c. You should allow only other nursing assistants to see what is on the screen. d. You should triple-check your entries. ANS: B
REF: p. 101
22. You should answer a phone by the: a. second ring. b. fourth ring. c. sixth ring. d. eighth ring. ANS: B
. 1S0T 2 REF: TpE
23. After taking a message, which is correct? a. Repeat the message and phone number back to the caller. b. Put the caller on hold. c. Transfer the caller. d. Lay the phone down. ANS: A
REF: p. 102
24. Before transferring a call, you should: a. explain that you are going to transfer the call. b. lay the phone down and find out where to transfer the call. c. take a message. d. find out the reason for the call. ANS: A 25.
REF: p. 102
Before putting a caller “on hold,” you should: find out if the call is about an emergency. thank the person for calling. take a message. ask how long the caller can wait.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
REF: p. 102
26. When answering the phone in a patient’s home, you should: a. give the patient’s name and your name. b. identify yourself by name and title. c. simply answer with “hello.” d. give your name and the name of the agency you work for. ANS: C
REF: p. 102
27. Who is responsible for giving the end-of-shift report on the unit? a. Provider b. Nurse c. Nursing assistant d. Unit secretary ANS: B
REF: p. 98
TRUE/FALSE 1. It is an acceptable practice to record a procedure in the patient’s medical record prior to
completing it, and then returning to initial that you have done it afterwards. ANS: F
REF: p. 99
2. Making changes to the nursing process is a task that can be delegated to the nursing assistant. ANS: F
REF: p. 91
3. It is an acceptable practice to record your user name and password on a notepad that is stored
in a drawer at your work station. ANS: F
REF: p. 101
Chapter 09: Medical Terminology Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A suffix is: a. placed at the beginning of a word. b. the main part of the word. c. placed after a root. d. a shortened form of a word or phrase. ANS: C
REF: p. 104
2. Which term means located at or toward the front of the body or body part? a. Anterior b. Distal c. Medial d. Posterior ANS: A
REF: p. 104
3. Dys- means: a. without, not, lack of. b. slow. c. difficult. d. inners, inside. ANS: C
REF: p. 105
4. Olig- means: a. half. b. under, deceased, less than normal. c. small, scant. d. many, much. ANS: C
REF: p. 105
5. Tachy- means: a. bad, difficult, abnormal. b. normal, good, well, healthy. c. slow. d. fast, rapid. ANS: D
REF: p. 105
6. Poly- means: a. many, much. b. before, in front of. c. around. d. large. ANS: A
REF: p. 105
7. Arthro- means: a. rib. b. joint. c. bone. d. head. ANS: B
REF: p. 105
8. Cyano- means: a. heart. b. skin. c. sugar. d. blue. ANS: D
REF: p. 105
9. Angio- means: a. heart. b. artery. c. vein. d. vessel. ANS: D
REF: p. 105
10. Derma- means: a. water. b. stone. c. tongue. d. skin. ANS: D
REF: p. 105
11. Gastro- means: a. stomach. b. large intestine. c. small intestine. d. intestines. ANS: A
REF: p. 105
12. Gluco- means: a. blood. b. water. c. stone. d. sweetness. ANS: D 13. Hemo- means: a. artery. b. heart. c. vein.
REF: p. 106
d. blood. ANS: D
REF: p. 106
14. Hydro- means: a. bladder. b. water. c. kidney. d. air. ANS: B
REF: p. 106
15. Myo- means: a. spinal cord. b. eye. c. muscle. d. straight, normal, correct. ANS: C
REF: p. 106
16. Osteo- means: a. spinal cord. b. joint. c. bone. d. nerve. ANS: C
REF: p. 106
17. Pnea- means: a. breathing, respiration. b. lung, air, gas. c. nose. d. lung. ANS: A
REF: p. 107
18. Stomato- means: a. stomach. b. opening. c. narrow, constriction. d. mouth. ANS: D
REF: p. 106
19. Toxico- and toxo- mean: a. poison. b. heat. c. chest. d. clot. ANS: A 20. Vaso- means:
REF: p. 106
a. b. c. d.
artery. vein. blood vessel. dilate.
ANS: C
REF: p. 106
21. The suffix -algia means: a. condition. b. pain. c. enlargement. d. disease. ANS: B
REF: p. 106
22. The suffix -emia means: a. removal of. b. blood condition. c. inflammation. d. tumor. ANS: B
REF: p. 106
23. The suffix -phagia means: a. the study of. b. destruction of. c. disease. d. swallowing. ANS: D
REF: p. 107
24. The suffix -phasia means: a. swallowing. b. speaking. c. paralysis. d. fear. ANS: B
REF: p. 107
25. The suffix -rrhage means: a. discharge. b. stitching. c. excessive flow. d. drooping. ANS: C
REF: p. 107
26. The suffix -stomy means: a. removal of. b. cutting into. c. stomach. d. creation of an opening.
ANS: D
REF: p. 107
27. The suffix -plegia means: a. paralysis. b. swallowing. c. speaking. d. sagging. ANS: A
REF: p. 107
28. The abbreviation ADL means: a. abdomen. b. before meals. c. activities of daily living. d. as desired. ANS: C
REF: p. 109
29. Proximal means: a. at or near the front of the body or body part. b. the farthest from the center or from the point of attachment. c. away from the midline. d. the part nearest to the center or to the point of origin. ANS: D
REF: p. 108
Chapter 10: Body Structure and Function Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The basic unit of body structure is the: a. cell. b. nucleus. c. organ. d. system. ANS: A
REF: p. 112
2. Each cell has the same: a. basic structure. b. function. c. size. d. shape. ANS: A
REF: p. 112
3. To live and function, cells need: a. carbon dioxide and blood. b. food, water, and oxygen. c. genes and oxygen. d. genes and blood. ANS: B
REF: p. 112
4. Which part of the cell directs the cell’s activities? a. Cell membrane b. Cytoplasm c. Protoplasm d. Nucleus ANS: D
REF: p. 113
5. Where is the nucleus located? a. Outside the cell b. In the center of the cell c. Inside the genes d. Inside the chromosomes ANS: B
REF: p. 113
6. How many chromosomes are in each cell? a. 15 b. 23 c. 46 d. 92 ANS: C
REF: p. 113
7. Which controls inherited traits? a. Protoplasm b. Chromosomes c. Genes d. Sex cells ANS: C
REF: p. 113
8. The process of cell division is called: a. protoplasm. b. chromosomes. c. nucleosis. d. mitosis. ANS: D
REF: p. 113
9. Groups of cells with similar functions are: a. tissues. b. organs. c. chromosomes. d. genes. ANS: A
REF: p. 113
10. Which allows the body to move by stretching and contracting? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nerve tissue ANS: C
REF: p. 113
11. Groups of tissues with the same function form: a. systems. b. organs. c. mitosis. d. chromosomes. ANS: B
REF: p. 114
12. Systems are: a. groups of organs that work together to perform special functions. b. tissues that cover internal and external body surfaces. c. tissues that receive and carry impulses to the brain and body parts. d. connective tissue that anchors, connects, and supports the body. ANS: A
REF: p. 114
13. These statements are about the integumentary system. Which is correct? a. It is the skin. b. It is the body’s artificial covering. c. It is the smallest body system.
d. It has three layers. ANS: A
REF: p. 114
14. Which is the outer layer of the skin? a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Epithelium d. Nerves ANS: B
REF: p. 114
15. What gives skin its color? a. Genes b. Chromosomes c. Pigment d. Epidermis ANS: C
REF: p. 114
16. Where are blood vessels, nerves, sweat and oil glands, and hair roots found? a. The dermis b. The epidermis c. The integument d. The epithelium ANS: A
REF: p. 114
BpAeNraKtuSreE? 17. Which helps the body reguT laEteStT em a. The skin b. The bones c. The hair d. The oil glands ANS: A
REF: p. 114
18. Which helps to keep the hair and skin soft and shiny? a. The dermis and epidermis b. The chromosomes c. The sweat glands d. The oil glands ANS: D
REF: p. 114
19. Which is a function of the skin? a. It allows bacteria and other substances to enter the body. b. It allows excessive amounts of water to leave the body. c. It protects organs from injury. d. It stores vitamins. ANS: C
REF: p. 114
20. The musculo-skeletal system does which of the following?
a. b. c. d.
Provides the framework for the body. Stores water within the body. Protects the body from fluid loss. Helps regulate body temperature.
ANS: A
REF: p. 115
21. Which bones bear the body’s weight? a. Long bones b. Short bones c. Flat bones d. Irregular bones ANS: A
REF: p. 115
22. Which part of the bone contains blood vessels that supply bone cells with oxygen? a. Cartilage b. Tendons c. Bone marrow d. Periosteum ANS: D
REF: p. 115
23. Blood cells are formed in the: a. cartilage. b. tendons. c. bone marrow. d. periosteum. ANS: C
REF: p. 115
24. The point at which two or more bones meet is: a. a joint. b. cartilage. c. muscles. d. tendons. ANS: A
REF: p. 115
25. Bones are held together at a joint by: a. cartilage. b. tendons. c. ligaments. d. periosteum. ANS: C
REF: p. 115
26. Which allow movement? a. Joints b. Cartilage c. Tendons d. Ligaments
ANS: A
REF: p. 115
27. The hips and shoulders are: a. ball-and-socket joints. b. hinge joints. c. pivot joints. d. ligament joints. ANS: A
REF: p. 115
28. Which are voluntary muscles? a. Arm and leg muscles b. Stomach muscles c. Heart muscles d. Intestinal muscles ANS: A
REF: p. 116
29. Which is a function of muscles? a. Production of sweat b. Maintenance of posture c. Production of pigment d. Regulation of body temperature ANS: B
REF: p. 116
30. Muscles are connected to bones by: a. ligaments. b. cartilage. c. tendons. d. joints. ANS: C
REF: p. 116
31. Circular bands of muscle fibers that constrict a passage are called: a. ligaments. b. sphincters. c. tendons. d. joints. ANS: B
REF: p. 116
32. Which is a main part of the brain? a. Skull b. Cerebellum c. Spinal cord d. Eardrum ANS: B
REF: p. 118
33. Thought and intelligence are centered in the: a. cerebrum. b. cerebellum.
c. midbrain. d. brainstem. ANS: A
REF: p. 118
34. Damage to the cerebral cortex can affect which of the following? a. Balance and coordination b. Reasoning and memory c. Body movement coordination d. Breathing ANS: B
REF: p. 118
35. Which regulates and coordinates body movements? a. The cerebral cortex b. The cerebrum c. The cerebellum d. The brainstem ANS: C
REF: p. 118
36. The brainstem contains which of the following structures? a. The cerebrum b. The pons c. The cerebellum d. The cerebral cortex ANS: B
REF: p. 118
37. Heart rate, breathing, and blood vessel size are controlled by the: a. midbrain. b. pons. c. medulla. d. cerebral cortex. ANS: C
REF: p. 118
38. Swallowing, coughing, and vomiting are controlled by the: a. midbrain. b. pons. c. medulla. d. cerebral cortex. ANS: C
REF: p. 118
39. Pathways that conduct messages to and from the brain are contained in the: a. brainstem. b. pons. c. spinal cord. d. meninges. ANS: C
REF: p. 118
40. The spinal cord is about: a. 12 inches long. b. 18 inches long. c. 24 inches long. d. 30 inches long. ANS: B
REF: p. 118
41. The cerebrospinal fluid: a. protects the central nervous system. b. conducts messages to and from the brain. c. controls thought and intelligence. d. controls movement and balance. ANS: A
REF: p. 118
42. The peripheral nervous system consists of: a. the spinal cord. b. cranial nerves and spinal nerves. c. the cerebrum, cerebellum, and brainstem. d. the right and left hemispheres. ANS: B
REF: p. 118
43. The sympathetic nervous system: a. regulates voluntary muscles. b. controls thought and intelligence. c. speeds up body functioT ns. E d. slows down body functions. ANS: C
REF: p. 119
44. Which system is stimulated when you are excited, exercising, or scared? a. The central nervous system b. The autonomic nervous system c. The sympathetic nervous system d. The parasympathetic nervous system ANS: C
REF: p. 119
45. The white of the eye is the: a. sclera. b. pupil. c. cornea. d. iris. ANS: A
REF: p. 119
46. The opening in the middle of the iris is the: a. sclera. b. pupil. c. cornea. d. choroid.
ANS: B
REF: p. 119
47. In bright light, pupil size: a. increases. b. stays the same. c. decreases. d. widens. ANS: C
REF: p. 119
48. Nerve fibers for vision are found in the: a. sclera. b. cornea. c. iris. d. retina. ANS: D
REF: p. 119
49. Light enters the eye through the: a. sclera. b. cornea. c. iris. d. retina. ANS: B
REF: p. 119
50. Besides hearing, another ear function is: a. balance. b. touch. c. hammering. d. sensation. ANS: A
REF: p. 119
51. The waxy substance secreted by glands in the ear is: a. cerumen. b. malleus. c. incus. d. cochlea. ANS: A
REF: p. 119
52. Which separates the external ear and the middle ear? a. The malleus b. The incus c. The stapes d. The tympanic membrane ANS: D
REF: p. 119-120
53. The tympanic membrane is also called the: a. eardrum.
b. hammer. c. anvil. d. stirrup. ANS: A
REF: p. 119-120
54. Which carries messages to the brain? a. The auditory nerve b. The semicircular canals c. The cochlea d. The eustachian tube ANS: B
REF: p. 119-120
55. The liquid part of the blood is: a. red blood cells. b. white blood cells. c. hemoglobin. d. plasma. ANS: D
REF: p. 120
56. Which substance gives red blood cells their color? a. Oxygen b. Carbon dioxide c. Hemoglobin d. Plasma ANS: C
. 1S2T 0 REF: TpE
57. Red blood cells are bright red when they are saturated with: a. oxygen. b. carbon dioxide. c. hemoglobin. d. plasma. ANS: A
REF: p. 120
58. Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are produced by: a. the heart. b. the bone marrow. c. the valves. d. hemoglobin. ANS: B
REF: p. 120
59. White blood cells: a. are needed for clotting. b. carry oxygen and carbon dioxide. c. protect the body against infection. d. produce heat. ANS: C
REF: p. 120
60. Which is the muscular part of the heart? a. The pericardium b. The myocardium c. The endocardium d. The ventricles ANS: B
REF: p. 120
61. Which heart chamber receives blood from body tissues? a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle ANS: A
REF: p. 120
62. Which heart chamber pumps blood to all parts of the body? a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle ANS: D
REF: p. 120
63. Which is the working phase of the heart? a. Bicuspid valve b. Tricuspid valve c. Systole d. Diastole ANS: C
REF: p. 120
64. Which vessels carry blood away from the heart? a. Arteries b. Capillaries c. Veins d. Venules ANS: A
REF: p. 120
65. Which is the largest artery? a. Aorta b. Carotid artery c. Radial artery d. Brachial artery ANS: A
REF: p. 121
66. Which vessels are involved in passing food and oxygen to the cells? a. Arteries b. Capillaries c. Veins
d. Venules ANS: B
REF: p. 121
67. Which vessels return blood to the heart? a. Arteries b. Capillaries c. Veins d. Venules ANS: C
REF: p. 121
68. Which carries blood from the legs and trunk back to the heart? a. Inferior vena cava b. Superior vena cava c. Aorta d. Veins ANS: A
REF: p. 121
69. The process of supplying the cells with oxygen and removing carbon dioxide from them is: a. respiration. b. inhalation. c. expiration. d. circulation. ANS: A
REF: p. 122
70. Inspiration involves: a. breathing in. b. breathing out. c. breathing in and out. d. exhalation. ANS: A
REF: p. 122
71. Normally air enters the body through the: a. nose. b. mouth. c. windpipe. d. alveoli. ANS: A
REF: p. 123
72. Another name for the trachea is the: a. nose. b. mouth. c. windpipe. d. alveoli. ANS: C
REF: p. 123
73. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged:
a. b. c. d.
during inspiration and expiration. during inhalation and exhalation. between the alveoli and capillaries. at the pharynx and larynx.
ANS: C
REF: p. 123
74. Which separates the lungs from the abdominal cavity? a. The pharynx b. The larynx c. The bronchus d. The diaphragm ANS: D
REF: p. 123
75. After passing through the trachea, air enters the: a. right bronchus and left bronchus. b. bronchioles. c. alveoli. d. pharynx and larynx. ANS: A
REF: p. 123
76. Each lung is covered by a two-layered sac called the: a. bronchus. b. bronchiole. c. alveoli. d. pleura. ANS: D
REF: p. 123
77. The process of breaking food down physically and chemically for absorption and use by the
body is: a. peristalsis. b. digestion. c. metabolism. d. mitosis. ANS: B
REF: p. 123
78. The digestive system: a. removes solid wastes from the body. b. removes waste products from the blood. c. maintains the body’s water balance. d. protects the body against disease. ANS: A
REF: p. 123
79. Which is a part of the digestive system? a. The sinuses b. The larynx c. The esophagus d. The kidneys
ANS: C
REF: p. 123
80. Which is a part of the digestive system? a. The small intestine b. The lungs c. The nose d. The kidneys ANS: A
REF: p. 123
81. Which is an accessory organ of the digestive system? a. The small intestine b. The stomach c. The pancreas d. The bladder ANS: C
REF: p. 123
82. Digestion begins in the: a. mouth. b. stomach. c. pharynx. d. small intestine. ANS: A
REF: p. 123
83. Saliva is secreted by salivary glands in the: a. mouth. b. taste buds. c. teeth. d. tongue. ANS: A
REF: p. 123
84. What is the function of saliva? a. It allows sweet, sour, bitter, and salty tastes to be sensed. b. It pushes food closer to the pharynx. c. It cuts, chops, and grinds food for digestion and swallowing. d. It moistens food particles for easier swallowing. ANS: D
REF: p. 123
85. Which secretion starts digestion? a. Gastric juice b. Bile c. Saliva d. Mucus ANS: C
REF: p. 123
86. During swallowing, the tongue pushes food into the: a. stomach.
b. esophagus. c. pharynx. d. pancreas. ANS: C
REF: p. 123
87. Food is moved through the esophagus by: a. peristalsis. b. gravity. c. digestion. d. the blood. ANS: A
REF: p. 123
88. The stomach is located in the: a. upper left part of the abdominal cavity. b. upper right part of the abdominal cavity. c. lower right part of the abdominal cavity. d. lower left part of the abdominal cavity. ANS: A
REF: p. 123
89. What is the stomach’s function in digestion? a. It cuts, chops, and grinds food. b. It pushes food through the GI tract. c. It chemically breaks down food. d. It stirs and churns food to break it down into small particles. ANS: D
. 1S2T 3 REF: TpE
90. Chyme is produced in the: a. stomach. b. small intestine. c. pancreas. d. large intestine. ANS: A
REF: p. 123
91. Which is a part of the small intestine? a. Duodenum b. Pancreas c. Anus d. Rectum ANS: A
REF: p. 124
92. Bile is a greenish liquid made in the: a. stomach. b. liver. c. gallbladder. d. pancreas. ANS: B
REF: p. 124
93. Bile is stored in the: a. stomach. b. liver. c. gallbladder. d. pancreas. ANS: C
REF: p. 124
94. Chyme moves through the small and large intestine by: a. peristalsis. b. gravity. c. digestion. d. the blood. ANS: A
REF: p. 124
95. Most food absorption occurs in the: a. stomach. b. small intestine. c. liver. d. large intestine. ANS: B
REF: p. 124
96. The large intestine is also called the: a. colon. b. rectum. c. anus. d. villi. ANS: A
REF: p. 124
97. Most of the water is absorbed from chyme in the: a. stomach. b. small intestine. c. liver. d. colon. ANS: D
REF: p. 124
98. After water is absorbed from chyme, the remaining semi-solid material is called: a. chyme. b. feces. c. mucus. d. a bowel movement. ANS: B
REF: p. 124
99. The waste products of digestion pass out of the body through the: a. colon. b. large intestine. c. rectum.
d. anus. ANS: D
REF: p. 124
100. The urinary system: a. maintains the body’s water balance. b. brings water into the body. c. produces hormones. d. burns food for energy. ANS: A
REF: p. 124
101. The urinary system involves which of the following? a. Uterus b. Gallbladder c. Urethra d. Ovaries ANS: C
REF: p. 124
102. The basic working unit of the kidney is the: a. bladder. b. nephrons. c. penis. d. urethra. ANS: B
REF: p. 124
103. Urine is stored in the: a. ureters. b. bladder. c. penis. d. urethra. ANS: B
REF: p. 125
104. The opening at the end of the urethra is the: a. penis. b. bladder. c. meatus. d. vagina. ANS: C
REF: p. 125
105. The female sex glands are: a. testes. b. ovaries. c. testicles. d. fallopian tubes. ANS: B
REF: p. 125
106. Sperm cells are produced in the:
a. b. c. d.
testes. ovaries. scrotum. prostate gland.
ANS: A
REF: p. 125
107. The male hormone is: a. testosterone. b. estrogen. c. progesterone. d. vas deferens. ANS: A
REF: p. 125
108. Which fluid carries sperm? a. Urine b. Menstrual flow c. Semen d. Chyme ANS: C
REF: p. 125
109. Sperm cells leave the body through the: a. testes. b. urethra. c. prostate gland. d. vagina. ANS: B
REF: p. 125
110. The penis contains the: a. fallopian tubes. b. prostate gland. c. urethra. d. vagina. ANS: C
REF: p. 125
111. Which part of the male reproductive tract enters the female vagina? a. Testes b. Penis c. Scrotum d. Prostate gland ANS: B
REF: p. 125
112. Female sex cells are called: a. estrogen. b. progesterone. c. ova. d. labia.
ANS: C
REF: p. 125
113. During the reproductive years, a female sex cell is released: a. during intercourse. b. monthly. c. weekly. d. daily. ANS: B
REF: p. 125
114. The process of releasing a female sex cell is: a. ovulation. b. menstruation. c. fertilization. d. lactation. ANS: A
REF: p. 125
115. The female sex glands secrete: a. estrogen and progesterone. b. testosterone. c. menstruation. d. the endometrium. ANS: A
REF: p. 126
116. Where does a fertilized sex cell grow during pregnancy? a. The fallopian tube b. The uterus c. The vagina d. The ovary ANS: B
REF: p. 126
117. Which part of the female reproductive system opens to the outside of the body? a. The vagina b. The urethra c. The uterus d. The fallopian tube ANS: A
REF: p. 126
118. External genitalia in the female is/are called the: a. breasts. b. mammary glands. c. vulva. d. labia. ANS: C
REF: p. 126
119. The labia majora and labia minora: a. are covered with hair. b. become hard when sexually stimulated.
c. secrete hormones. d. are folds of tissue on each side of the vagina. ANS: D
REF: p. 126
120. Menstruation normally occurs: a. after intercourse. b. every day. c. every week. d. every 28 days. ANS: D
REF: p. 126
121. During menstruation: a. the endometrium is discharged from the body. b. a sex cell is released. c. erectile tissue become hard. d. a male sex cell and a female sex cell unite. ANS: A
REF: p. 126
122. Menstrual flow usually lasts: a. a few minutes. b. a few hours. c. 3 to 7 days. d. 28 days. ANS: C
REF: p. 126
123. Menstrual flow is: a. clear. b. bloody. c. yellow. d. white. ANS: B
REF: p. 126
124. The master gland of the body is the: a. thyroid gland. b. adrenal medulla. c. pituitary gland. d. pancreas. ANS: C
REF: p. 128
125. Growth hormone is secreted by the: a. thyroid gland. b. adrenal glands. c. parathyroid glands. d. pituitary gland. ANS: D
REF: p. 128
126. Which hormone regulates metabolism? a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone b. Oxytocin c. Thyroid hormone d. Antidiuretic hormone ANS: C
REF: p. 128
127. Too little thyroid hormone results in which of the following? a. Weight gain b. Rapid movements c. Increased body processes d. Too much sugar in the blood ANS: A
REF: p. 128
128. The adrenal glands are located: a. in the neck. b. behind the eyes. c. next to the thyroid glands. d. on top of each kidney. ANS: D
REF: p. 128
129. The adrenal glands secrete: a. parathormone. b. epinephrine and norepinephrine. c. insulin. d. adrenocorticotropic hormone. ANS: B
REF: p. 128
130. Which increase(s) heart rate, blood pressure, and energy? a. Parathormone b. Epinephrine and norepinephrine c. Insulin d. Adrenocorticotropic hormone ANS: B
REF: p. 128
131. The pancreas secretes: a. parathormone. b. epinephrine and norepinephrine. c. insulin. d. adrenocorticotropic hormone. ANS: C
REF: p. 128
132. Which hormone controls the amount of sugar in the blood? a. Glucocorticoid b. Estrogen c. Thyroid hormone d. Insulin
ANS: D
REF: p. 128
133. The immune system functions to: a. regulate body activities. b. protect the body against disease and infection. c. regulate water balance. d. eliminate waste. ANS: B
REF: p. 127
134. A person has protection against a disease or condition. This is: a. an antibody. b. an antigen. c. immunity. d. hormones. ANS: C
REF: p. 127
135. An abnormal or unwanted substance is: a. an antibody. b. an antigen. c. immunity. d. hormones. ANS: B
REF: p. 127
136. Which produces antibodies? a. Phagocytes b. Hormones c. Insulin d. Lymphocytes ANS: D
REF: p. 127
Chapter 11: Growth and Development Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Development is: a. an involuntary movement. b. a skill that must be completed. c. changes in mental, emotional, and social function. d. the physical changes that can be measured and that occur in a steady, orderly
manner. ANS: C
REF: p. 131
2. Growth is: a. the development of social and physical skills. b. a skill that must be completed. c. changes in mental, emotional, and social function. d. the physical changes that are measured and that occur in a steady, orderly manner. ANS: D
REF: p. 131
3. The person mainly responsible for providing or assisting with the child’s basic needs is: a. the court-appointed guardian. b. the parent. c. the primary caregiver. d. the parent substitute. ANS: C
REF: p. 131
4. Which statement about growth and development is correct? a. They involve a physical process. b. There is no over-lap. c. They do not depend on each other. d. They occur at the same time. ANS: A
REF: p. 131
5. Which is a principle of growth and development? a. The process starts at birth and continues until death. b. The process proceeds from the simple to the complex. c. The process occurs in a random order, without any particular pattern. d. The rate of the process is even and at a set pace. ANS: B
REF: p. 132
6. Which statement about growth and development is correct? a. Each stage has to be completed before the next stage can begin. b. A stage can be skipped. c. The process occurs in no certain direction: it can occur from head to foot or from
foot to head.
d. Each stage has its own characteristics and developmental tasks. ANS: D
REF: p. 132
7. Which is a development task of infancy? a. Learning to brush teeth b. Beginning to communicate c. Asserting independence d. Learning to ride a tricycle ANS: B
REF: p. 132
8. Which is a characteristic of the average newborn? a. The head is small compared to the rest of the body. b. The skin is pink and wrinkled. c. The abdomen is small in comparison. d. Movements are coordinated and with purpose. ANS: B
REF: p. 132
9. Which statement about newborns is correct? a. They can see depths of 2 to 3 feet. b. They do not hear well. c. They know the mother’s voice. d. They do not react to touch and pain. ANS: C
REF: p. 133-134
BA 10. Newborns have certain refT leE xeSs.TW hiN chKrSefEleLxLgE uiRd. esCtO heMbaby’s mouth to the nipple? a. The sucking reflex b. The rooting reflex c. The Moro reflex d. The grasp reflex ANS: B
REF: p. 133-134
11. At 1 month old, infants can: a. lift their heads up briefly. b. reach for objects. c. roll from front to back. d. babble, coo, and make sounds. ANS: A
REF: p. 133-134
12. Infants have more skills at 6 months. They can: a. change from lying to sitting and from sitting to lying positions. b. sit for long periods. c. hold small objects with the thumb and index finger. d. bear weight when pulled into a standing position. ANS: D
REF: p. 133-134
13. When are solid foods given?
a. b. c. d.
At 4 to 6 months At 9 months At 10 to 11 months At 1 year
ANS: A
REF: p. 136
14. Which is a developmental task of toddlerhood? a. Gaining control of bowel and bladder function b. Becoming more dependent on the primary caregiver c. Learning how to walk d. Performing self-care ANS: A
REF: p. 137
15. Which of the following statements about toddlerhood is correct? a. Toddlers need to depend on their parents. b. Toddlers are curious and like to explore their environment. c. Eating is a major task. d. Toddlers can walk on tiptoe and balance on one foot. ANS: B
REF: p. 137
16. Development tasks of the preschool child include which of the following? a. Tolerating separation from the primary caregiver b. Learning gender appropriate behaviors and attitudes c. Learning how to toilet train d. Asserting independencT e ANS: B
REF: p. 137
17. At what age do children start to lose their baby teeth? a. 4 years b. 6 years c. 7 years d. 8 years ANS: B
REF: p. 139
18. Which is a developmental task for school-age children? a. Learning how to button their pants b. Learning how to ride a tricycle c. Developing a conscience and morals d. Developing and keeping friendships with peers ANS: C
REF: p. 139
19. Which statement about late childhood (pre-adolescence) is correct? a. Boys are taller and heavier than girls are. b. Children need factual sex education. c. Family is the center of activities. d. Children accept adult standards and rules without question.
ANS: B
REF: p. 140
20. The time between puberty and adulthood is: a. menarche. b. adolescence. c. menopause. d. middle adulthood. ANS: B
REF: p. 140
21. The period when reproductive organs begin to function and the secondary sex characteristics
appear is called: a. pre-adolescence. b. menarche. c. teenage. d. puberty. ANS: D
REF: p. 140
22. Boys reach puberty between the ages of: a. 10 and 12 years. b. 13 and 15 years. c. 15 and 20 years. d. 16 and 20 years. ANS: B
REF: p. 140
23. Girls reach puberty between the ages of: TESTBANK a. 9 and 16 years. b. 12 and 16 years. c. 14 and 18 years. d. 16 and 20 years. ANS: A
REF: p. 140
24. Which is a development task of adolescence? a. Accepting changes in the body and appearance b. Accepting the parents’ attitudes and values c. Getting along with brothers and sisters d. Choosing a career ANS: A
REF: p. 140
25. What marks the onset of puberty in girls? a. Deepening of the voice b. Increase in breast size c. A growth spurt d. Menarche ANS: D
REF: p. 140
26. What signals the onset of puberty in boys? a. Menarche
b. Growth of facial hair c. Ejaculation d. Deepening of the voice ANS: C
REF: p. 140
27. Which is correct regarding teenagers? a. Teenagers maintain stable emotions. b. Teenagers need guidance, discipline, and support from parents. c. Teens usually are not involved in exploring their sexuality. d. Adolescents begin to think about end of life. ANS: B
REF: p. 140
28. Young adulthood is from about age: a. 17 to 35 years. b. 18 to 40 years. c. 25 to 50 years. d. 30 to 55 years. ANS: B
REF: p. 141
29. Which of the following is a developmental task of young adulthood? a. Adjusting to physical changes b. Adjusting to aging parents c. Developing a satisfactory sex life d. Adjusting to physical changes ANS: C
. 1S4T 1 REF: TpE
30. Which of the following is a developmental task of middle adulthood? a. Developing friendships b. Adjusting to physical changes c. Selecting a partner d. Developing a satisfactory sex life ANS: B
REF: p. 142-143
31. During middle adulthood, several physical changes occur. Which is correct? a. Most changes occur suddenly. b. Weight control becomes easier. c. Energy and endurance increase. d. It is common to need eyeglasses. ANS: D
REF: p. 142-143
32. Middle adulthood is from about age: a. 35 to 45 years. b. 40 to 65 years. c. 50 to 70 years. d. 55 to 75 years. ANS: B
REF: p. 142-143
33. The time when menstruation stops is called: a. adolescence. b. menarche. c. menopause. d. middle adulthood. ANS: C
REF: p. 142-143
34. Which is a developmental task of late adulthood? a. Adjusting to aging parents b. Choosing education and a career c. Coping with a partner’s death d. Preparing for one’s parent’s death ANS: C
REF: p. 143
35. Which is a developmental task of late adulthood? a. Adjusting to physical changes b. Developing new friends and relationships c. Developing leisure activities d. Developing a satisfactory sex life ANS: B
REF: p. 143
TRUE/FALSE
TB LeEfRo. 1. The rate of growth and devTeE loS pm enAt N isKthSeEsL am r eCaO chMperson. ANS: F
REF: p. 131
2. 3 year olds know that there are two sexes. ANS: T
REF: p. 137
3. 4 year olds prefer the primary caregiver of the same sex. ANS: F
REF: p. 137
4. School-age children are concerned about being well liked. ANS: T
REF: p. 139
5. Young adults need to cope with children leaving home and being in-laws and grandparents. ANS: F
REF: p. 142
6. Open and honest communication is needed for a successful partnership. ANS: T
REF: p. 142
Chapter 12: The Older Person Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which statement about older persons is correct? a. A chronic illness is uncommon in older persons. b. Disabilities typically decrease with aging. c. Most older persons live in nursing centers. d. Social changes occur with aging. ANS: D
REF: p. 145
2. Geriatrics is: a. the study of the aging process. b. age-related farsightedness. c. the care of aging people. d. the physical changes that occur with aging. ANS: C
REF: p. 145
3. Gerontology is: a. the study of the aging process. b. age-related farsightedness. c. the care of aging people. d. the physical changes that occur with aging. ANS: A
REF: p. 145
4. Persons who are age of 65 are considered to be in the phase of: a. the oldest old. b. senior citizens. c. late adulthood. d. the very old. ANS: C
REF: p. 145
5. People cope with aging in their own way. How they cope depends on which of the following? a. Birthday b. Gender c. Nationality d. Finances ANS: D 6.
REF: p. 145
Which statement about older persons is correct? a. Most older people need nursing center care. b. All old people are the same. c. Older people lose interest in sex. d. Most older people have frequent contact with their children. ANS: D
REF: p. 146
7. Which statement is correct? a. All old people are the same. b. Most older people need nursing center care. c. Older adults are at risk for health problems and disabilities. d. Aging means illness and disability. ANS: C
REF: p. 145
8. These statements are about aging. Which is correct? a. Most changes are rapid. b. People develop during the first half of their life. c. Changes in speech occur. d. Psychological and social changes occur. ANS: D
REF: p. 145
9. These statements are about retirement. Which is correct? a. Some retired people do volunteer work or have part-time jobs. b. Retired persons have fewer expenses. c. Retirement is a burden because of not earning a paycheck. d. Once a person has retired, he is not allowed to work again. ANS: A
REF: p. 146
10. Older people may be lonely because: a. family and friends die or move away. b. they live with adult children. TEST c. they live in nursing centers. d. they have contact with people their own age. ANS: A
REF: p. 146
11. Some children care for older parents. Which is correct? a. This helps some older people feel more secure. b. This helps all older people feel wanted and useful. c. This always creates stress in the home. d. It is never recommended. ANS: A
REF: p. 147
12. Which statement about aging is correct? a. Body processes speed up. b. Energy level increases. c. Changes are always noted when they occur. d. Some people age faster than others. ANS: D
REF: p. 147
13. Aging: a. is normal. b. means loss of health. c. decreases quality of life.
d. occurs at the same rate in all people. ANS: A
REF: p. 145
14. These statements are about changes in the skin. Which is correct? a. The skin thickens. b. Folds, lines, and wrinkles disappear. c. The skin is easily injured. d. Oil and sweat glands secrete more. ANS: C
REF: p. 148
15. Brown spots on the skin: a. are caused by bruising. b. are common on the wrists and hands. c. usually occur on the face and legs. d. have fewer nerve endings. ANS: B
REF: p. 148
16. Why is the ability to sense heat, cold, and pain reduced in older persons? a. Circulation is poor. b. The skin loses its fatty tissue layer. c. The skin has fewer nerve endings. d. The risk of burns is great. ANS: A
REF: p. 148
ES KhSicEhLoLf EthRe.foCllOoM 17. To stay warm, older peopleTm ayTnBeA edNw wing? a. Electric blankets b. Hotter water temperatures c. Warm socks d. Hot water bottles ANS: C 18.
REF: p. 148
Because older people tend to have dry skin: a. mild soaps or soap substitutes are used. b. lotions are not used. c. tub baths are taken daily. d. only showers are recommended. ANS: A
REF: p. 148
19. Older people usually need a shower or bath: a. every day. b. every other day. c. twice a week. d. once a week. ANS: C
REF: p. 148
20. These statements are about an older person’s feet. Which is correct?
a. b. c. d.
Nails become thick and tough. Feet usually have good circulation. Usually no infection results from nicks or cuts. Deodorants are needed for foot odors.
ANS: A
REF: p. 148
21. These statements are about an older person’s hair. Which is correct? a. White or gray hair is common. b. Hair thickens on men and women. c. Hair tends to be oily. d. Shampooing frequency should be increased. ANS: A
REF: p. 148
22. Skin disorders: a. increase with age. b. decrease with age. c. are the same for all age-groups. d. decrease with sun exposure. ANS: A
REF: p. 148
23. In older persons, bones become: a. stronger. b. brittle. c. shorter. d. larger. ANS: B
REF: p. 148
24. Musculo-skeletal changes result in which of the following? a. Loss of height b. Increased strength c. Increased mobility d. Less joint pain and stiffness ANS: A
REF: p. 149
25. Musculo-skeletal changes in the older person require which of the following? a. Rest as much as possible. b. Be as active as possible. c. Have a diet low in protein, calcium, and vitamins. d. Use force when moving the older person. ANS: B
REF: p. 149
26. Which helps prevent losses in bone and muscle strength? a. Activity b. Limited movement c. A low-fat diet d. Bed rest
ANS: A
REF: p. 149
27. Which is a change in the nervous system due to aging? a. Nerve conduction and reflexes are quicker. b. Blood flow to the brain is increased. c. Nerve cells are lost. d. Sleep periods are longer. ANS: C
REF: p. 148
28. Changes in the nervous system do which of the following? a. Decrease the risk of falling. b. Decrease the ability to fall asleep. c. Improve memory ability. d. Result in slowed responses. ANS: D
REF: p. 148
29. The older person’s ability to sense pain is: a. increased. b. decreased. c. the same as a younger adult’s. d. the same as a young child’s. ANS: B
REF: p. 148
30. Older people often complain about how food tastes. This is because: a. taste buds decrease in number. b. responses are slower. c. the tongue only senses sweet, salty, bitter, and sour tastes. d. the sense of smell is increased. ANS: A
REF: p. 149
31. Age-related changes in the eye cause which of the following? a. Improved vision at night b. Vision problems when going from a dark to a bright room c. Nearsightedness d. Increased tear secretion ANS: B
REF: p. 148
32. Older people have difficulty seeing: a. red and green colors. b. blue and green colors. c. yellow and orange colors. d. purple and yellow colors. ANS: B
REF: p. 148
33. Changes in the ear occur with aging. These changes: a. make high-pitched sounds hard to hear. b. make low-pitched sounds hard to hear.
c. cause increased risk for ear infections. d. cause increased production of thin earwax. ANS: A
REF: p. 148
34. Which is a cause of poor circulation in order persons? a. Thicker heart muscle. b. Narrowed arteries. c. Arteries are more elastic. d. Decreased amounts of blood. ANS: B
REF: p. 149
35. These statements are about changes in the respiratory system. Which is correct? a. Respiratory muscles strengthen. b. Lung tissue is more elastic. c. Coughing may be easier to accomplish. d. Respiratory infections and diseases can threaten the person’s life. ANS: D
REF: p. 149
36. An older person has respiratory changes. Which is helpful? a. Short, shallow breathing b. Lying in a supine position c. Repositioning d. Resting as much as possible ANS: C
REF: p. 149
37. An older person may have swallowing difficulties because of: a. less saliva. b. dulled taste and smell. c. increased digestive juices. d. increased peristalsis. ANS: A
REF: p. 149
38. The person with chewing difficulties usually avoids: a. a high-fiber diet. b. whole-grain cereal. c. cooked fruits and vegetables. d. ground or chopped food. ANS: A
REF: p. 149
39. Older persons usually have difficulty digesting: a. meat. b. dry, fried, and fatty foods. c. high-fiber foods. d. soft bulk foods. ANS: B
REF: p. 149
40. Constipation is a common problem in older persons because of: a. decreased digestive juices. b. chewing problems. c. swallowing problems. d. decreased peristalsis. ANS: D
REF: p. 149
41. Older persons need: a. fewer calories. b. more calories. c. less water. d. more water. ANS: A
REF: p. 149
42. Because of changes in the urinary system, older persons: a. have fewer urinary tract infections. b. urinate more often. c. have less urine. d. need less fluids. ANS: B
REF: p. 149
43. Changes in the urinary system with aging include which of the following? a. Kidneys atrophy. b. Bladder size increases. c. Bladder muscles strengTthEeS n. d. Blood flow to the kidneys increases. ANS: A
REF: p. 149
44. Men may have difficulty urinating because the: a. kidneys atrophy. b. bladder decreases in size. c. prostate gland enlarges. d. urethra loses tone. ANS: C
REF: p. 149
45. The need to urinate at night is reduced if the person: a. drinks only water. b. drinks most fluids before 1700. c. urinates before going to bed. d. chooses what beverages to drink. ANS: B
REF: p. 149
46. In men, this sex hormone decreases with aging. a. Testosterone b. Insulin c. Estrogen d. Progesterone
ANS: A
REF: p. 150
47. In men, which of the following occurs with aging? a. An erection lasts longer. b. The time between erection and orgasm is shorter. c. Orgasm is longer and more forceful. d. Erections are lost quickly. ANS: D 48.
REF: p. 150
In women, which of the following occurs with aging? a. The uterus, vagina, and external genitalia atrophy. b. Vaginal walls become fatty. c. Vaginal moisture increases. d. Growth of pubic hair increases. ANS: A
REF: p. 150
49. Menopause is when: a. menstruation stops. b. menstruation slows. c. impotence occurs. d. interest in sexual activity diminishes. ANS: A
REF: p. 150
50. Most older people live: a. in their own homes. b. with adult children. c. in nursing centers. d. in assisted living residence. ANS: A
REF: p. 147
51. An older woman lives with her adult son. She has some disabilities and needs some
supervision. Her son works during the day. He might consider: a. congregate housing. b. adult day care. c. foster care. d. nursing center care. ANS: B
REF: p. 150
52. When an older parent moves in with an adult child: a. the parent must adjust. b. the adult child must adjust. c. sleeping arrangements are adjusted. d. everyone in the home must adjust. ANS: D
REF: p. 150
53. Adult day-care centers provide:
a. b. c. d.
supervised activities and meals. medical care. housekeeping and laundry services. nursing care services.
ANS: A
REF: p. 150
54. Which housing option is for persons who need help with daily living? a. Apartment living b. Elder cottage housing opportunity c. Home-sharing d. Assisted living residences ANS: D
REF: p. 150
55. Which housing option provides the most services? a. Congregate housing b. Board and care homes c. Assisted living residences d. Continuing care retirement communities ANS: D
REF: p. 150
56. Which is a housing option for older persons who cannot care for themselves? a. Adult foster care b. Assisted living residences c. Board and care homes d. Nursing centers ANS: D
REF: p. 153
57. You are looking for a quality nursing center. Which should you look for? a. Narrow hallways b. Wheelchair ramps c. Food that is not being eaten by anyone d. No windows in resident rooms ANS: B
REF: p. 153
58. You are looking for a quality nursing center. Which should you look for? a. Hand rails in hallways b. Exits which are not marked c. Peeling paint and wallpaper d. A strong smell of cigarette smoke ANS: A
REF: p. 153
59. A quality nursing center must: a. have large gardens. b. be Medicare-certified. c. serve only older persons. d. be near shopping and churches.
ANS: B
REF: p. 153
60. OBRA requires that nursing centers have which of the following? a. Hand rails in good repair b. One closet space to share c. Warmer than usual temperature levels d. Loud music played overhead throughout the center ANS: A
REF: p. 153
Chapter 13: Safety Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Coma: a. a state of being unaware of one’s settings. b. being able to respond to people, places, or things. c. losing memory and the ability to think and reason. d. paralysis. ANS: A
REF: p. 157
2. The loss of cognitive and social function caused by changes in the brain is: a. hemiplegia. b. dementia. c. stroke. d. confusion. ANS: B
REF: p. 157
3. A resident has paralysis in the arms, legs, and trunk. This is: a. hemiplegia. b. paraplegia. c. quadriplegia. d. MSDS. ANS: C
REF: p. 157
4. Electrical current passes through the body. This is: a. a disaster. b. a ground. c. suffocation. d. electrical shock. ANS: D
REF: p. 157
5. A person with hemiplegia is paralyzed: a. from the neck down. b. from the waist down. c. on one side of the body. d. from the knees down. ANS: C
REF: p. 157
6. Paralysis in the legs and lower trunk is: a. hemiplegia. b. quadriplegia. c. suffocation. d. paraplegia. ANS: D
REF: p. 157
7. Suffocation is: a. the loss of memory and thinking and reasoning abilities. b. a sudden event in which people are killed and injured. c. when breathing stops from lack of oxygen. d. when electrical current passes through the body. ANS: C
REF: p. 157
8. A ground: a. prevents hazards in the workplace. b. is a sudden, catastrophic event. c. carries leaking electricity to the earth. d. is a chemical. ANS: C
REF: p. 157
9. Patient and resident safety involves: a. decreasing the risk of accidents and injuries. b. preventing all injuries. c. limited mobility. d. limiting independence. ANS: A
REF: p. 159
10. Safety measures are intended to: a. result in a decreased workload. b. cost money to the person. TE c. interfere with the person’s rights. d. calm the person. ANS: D
REF: p. 158
11. These statements are about a safe setting. Which is correct? a. Accidents and injuries never occur. b. The person has more risk of illness or injury. c. The person is afraid. d. The person feels safe and secure. ANS: D
REF: p. 158
12. To protect the person from harm, you need to: a. follow the person’s care plan. b. check on the person every hour. c. explain all safety rules to the person. d. keep the bed in the low position with bed rails raised. ANS: A
REF: p. 158
13. To make sure you give the right care to the right person, you need to: a. follow the person’s care plan. b. identify the person before giving care. c. check the label on the person’s clothing.
d. check the MSDS. ANS: B
REF: p. 159
14. To identify a patient or a resident: a. call the person by name. b. use the MSDS. c. use the ID bracelet. d. use the person’s clothing. ANS: C
REF: p. 160
15. When checking the person’s ID bracelet, you should: a. call the person by name. b. use the MSDS. c. touch the person. d. shout so the person can hear you. ANS: A
REF: p. 160
16. To correctly identify the person before giving care, which is correct? a. Check identifying information on the assignment sheet with that on the ID
bracelet. b. Check the ID bracelet against the MDS. c. Ask the person if the information on the ID bracelet is correct. d. Check the identifying information on the ID bracelet with that on the Kardex. ANS: A
REF: p. 160
17. Which is a common cause of burns in nursing centers? a. Playing with matches b. Windburn c. Hot bath water d. Sunburn ANS: C
REF: p. 161
18. Which measure will help prevent burns? a. Leaving smoking materials at the bedside b. Turning on hot water first, then cold water c. Checking bath water temperature before the person gets into the tub d. Allowing the use of space heaters ANS: C
REF: p. 161
19. A patient is receiving continuous oxygen. The person wants to smoke. Which is correct? a. The person can smoke if you close the room door. b. The person can smoke if you turn off the oxygen. c. Take the person to a nonsmoking area. d. Smoking is not allowed where oxygen is being used. ANS: D
REF: p. 161
20.
These statements are about preventing burns. Which is correct? a. Patients and residents can use a space heater in their rooms. b. Patients and residents can smoke in bed. c. Patients and residents can use heating pads and electric blankets. d. Patients and residents cannot smoke where oxygen is used. ANS: D
REF: p. 161
21. Major risk factors for accidental poisoning in adults are: a. confusion and poor vision. b. age and impaired hearing. c. coma and dementia. d. medications and impaired mobility. ANS: A
REF: p. 162
22. Children between the ages of 6 months and 6 years are at risk for lead poisoning. Which is
correct? a. Lead enters the body through contaminated foods. b. Signs and symptoms are sudden in onset. c. Lead always affects the neurological system. d. Lead can lower intelligence and cause learning problems. ANS: D
REF: p. 162
23. Which will prevent suffocation? a. Using bed rails incorrectly b. Leaving a person unattT enEdS edTiBnAthNeKbS atE htLuL b c. Reporting teeth which have been lost d. Positioning the person in bed properly ANS: D
REF: p. 168
24. These statements are about carbon monoxide. Which is correct? a. It is a blue tasteless gas. b. It is produced by the burning of candles. c. It is a harmless gas. d. It can cause death. ANS: D
REF: p. 167
25. To prevent a person from suffocating, you should do which of the following? a. Make sure the person’s dentures are loose. b. Check for braces. c. Report swallowing problems to the nurse. d. Give the person who has a feeding tube fluids only. ANS: C
REF: p. 168-169
26. Which of the following will help prevent suffocation in infants and children? a. Keeping plastic bags away from children b. Positioning an infant on his or her stomach for sleep c. Using pillows to position an infant
d. Tying a pacifier around a child’s neck ANS: A
REF: p. 168-169
27. You smell a smoke odor. What should you do? a. Use a scented air freshener. b. Pull the fire alarm. c. Move patients and residents away from the area. d. Get a fire extinguisher. ANS: C
REF: p. 169
28. A person is choking. If the obstruction is not relieved: a. stroke will occur. b. shock will occur. c. seizures will occur. d. cardiac arrest will occur. ANS: D
REF: p. 170-171
29. What is the most common cause of obstructed airway? a. Loose dentures b. The tongue falling to the back of the throat c. A large, poorly chewed piece of meat d. Drinking alcohol ANS: C
REF: p. 170-171
SE 30. Older persons are at risk foTr E chSoTkB inA g;NcK om mL onLE caR us.eC sO inM clude which of the following? a. Tightly fitting dentures b. Dysphagia c. Aphasia d. Talking ANS: B
REF: p. 170-171
31. A patient is choking. The person is conscious and can cough. Which action is needed? a. CPR b. Abdominal thrusts c. Encourage the person to continue coughing d. Leave the person to try and find help ANS: C
REF: p. 170-171
32. A resident is choking. The person is clutching at the throat. The person cannot speak or
breathe. Which action is needed? a. CPR b. Abdominal thrusts c. Encouraging the person to cough forcefully d. Back blow ANS: B
REF: p. 170-171
33. Abdominals thrusts can be performed in which of the following positions? a. Squatting b. Trendelenburg c. Prone d. Supine ANS: D
REF: p. 170-171
34. A 2 year old is showing signs of airway obstruction. The child has a fever, a rash, and
hoarseness. You should: a. perform abdominal thrusts. b. start CPR. c. give rescue breathing if not breathing and activate the EMS system. d. place the child in the recovery position. ANS: C
REF: p. 170-171
35. Abdominal thrusts are not used for: a. very obese persons. b. very tall persons. c. persons with heart disease. d. older persons. ANS: A
REF: p. 170-171
36. When relieving choking in an infant, which is correct? a. Lay the infant down on the bed. b. Hold the infant face doT wEnSinTtB heApNaK lm ofLyLoE urRh.anCdO. M SE c. The infant’s head is lower than the chest. d. Five up to three forceful back slaps. ANS: C
REF: p. 173
37. Equipment is unsafe for which of the following reasons? a. It is brought from home. b. It is more than 1 year of age. c. The instructions are not with the piece of equipment. d. Any part of the equipment is broken. ANS: D
REF: p. 174-175
38. A person’s radio has a frayed cord. You should: a. fix it. b. remove it from the room and tag it for repair. c. respect the person’s right to use the radio. d. use the person’s money to buy a new radio. ANS: B
REF: p. 174-175
39. Which is safe? a. A 3-pronged plug b. A frayed cord c. Cracked or chipped items
d. An overloaded electrical outlet ANS: A
REF: p. 174-175
40. The safe use of electrical equipment involves which of the following? a. Keeping the item away from water b. Wiping up spills as soon as you are free c. Standing in water d. Keeping work areas moist ANS: A
REF: p. 174-175
41. The safe use of electrical equipment involves which of the following? a. Turning on equipment before unplugging it b. Having moist hands c. Using water to put out an electrical fire d. Keeping electrical cords away from heating vents ANS: D
REF: p. 174-175
42. A resident is in her wheelchair. The wheelchair is not moving. Which is correct? a. Follow her care plan for locking wheels. b. The person can stand on the footplates. c. The armrests can be removed. d. The footplates are moved out of the way. ANS: A
REF: p. 176
43. When transferring a personTtE oSoT r fBroAmNK thS eE wL heLeE lcR ha.irC: OM a. the wheels must be locked. b. the person needs to stand on the footplates. c. the hand grips are held. d. the person is given needed accessories. ANS: A
REF: p. 176
44. Hazardous substances include which of the following? a. Oxygen b. Foods c. Makeup d. Soaps and shampoos ANS: A
REF: p. 176
45. You should always check the MSDS at which of the following times? a. At the beginning of your shift b. Before using a hazardous substance c. After cleaning up a leak or spill d. After disposing of a hazardous substance ANS: B
REF: p. 176
46. A warning label on a hazardous substance container is damaged. What should you do?
a. b. c. d.
Try to read the label. Take the container to the nurse. Pour the substance into a different container. Apply a new warning label.
ANS: B
REF: p. 176
47. A hazardous substance container does not have a warning label. What should you do? a. Take the container to the nurse. b. Pour the substance down the toilet. c. Apply a new warning label. d. Get a new container. ANS: A
REF: p. 176
48. You spilled a hazardous substance. Before cleaning up the spill, you should: a. check the material safety data sheet (MSDS). b. put on a gown, gloves, mask, and boots. c. call the fire department. d. wash your hands. ANS: A
REF: p. 176
49. A person is receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following is allowed? a. Lit candles b. Cotton pajamas c. Nail polish remover d. Smoking materials ANS: B
REF: p. 180
50. You need to empty a person’s ashtray. Which is correct? a. The ashtray is emptied into a wastebasket. b. The ashtray is emptied into a plastic container. c. The ashtray is emptied into a metal container with sand or water. d. The ashtray is emptied when the person is done smoking. ANS: C
REF: p. 180
51. You are warming your lunch in a microwave. While the lunch is warming, you: a. can give needed care. b. can finish a task. c. can do an errand. d. stay by the microwave. ANS: D
REF: p. 178
52. You find a fire in a person’s room. What should you do first? a. Move the person to a safe area. b. Sound the nearest fire alarm. c. Close doors and windows. d. Get the nearest fire extinguisher.
ANS: A
REF: p. 180
53. When there is a fire, you should do which of the following? a. Use the elevator. b. Move persons in immediate danger to a safe place. c. Call home to inform them you will be late. d. Open doors and windows to allow the fire to escape. ANS: B
REF: p. 180
54. Your clothing is on fire. Which action should you do? a. Run for help as fast as you can. b. Drop to the floor and roll to smother the fire. c. Pour water on yourself. d. Stand still and call for help. ANS: B
REF: p. 180
55. To use a fire extinguisher, you must first: a. pull the safety pin. b. direct the hose at the fire. c. push down on the top handle. d. sound the nearest fire alarm. ANS: A
REF: p. 181
56. Natural disasters include which of the following? a. House fires b. Chemical spills c. Blizzards d. Explosions ANS: C
REF: p. 177
57. You can help prevent workplace violence by: a. reporting safety and security concerns. b. carrying a handgun or other weapon. c. giving drugs to persons with mental illness. d. using touch to calm a person who is angry or agitated. ANS: A
REF: p. 183-184
58. A person is agitated. You should do which of the following? a. Remain close to the person. b. Keep your hand on the person to comfort him. c. Talk to the person in a calm manner. d. Stay with the person until the nurse arrives. ANS: C
REF: p. 183-184
59. How you dress can reduce your risk for workplace violence. You should do which of the
following? a. Wear jewelry that can serve as a weapon.
b. Wear long hair. c. Wear uniforms that are loose. d. Wear shoes with good soles. ANS: D
REF: p. 183-184
60. For your personal safety, you should do which of the following? a. Have plenty of gas in your car. b. Keep your car parked in a remote area. c. Keep your keys in the car. d. Park on the upper level of a parking building. ANS: A
REF: p. 185-186
61. You have to walk to work. Which is correct? a. Wear headphones. b. Use the alleys so you can get to work quicker. c. Walk near vacant lots, wooded areas, or construction sites. d. Carry a phone with you held in your hand. ANS: D
REF: p. 185-186
62. You are going to take the train to work. You should do which of the following? a. Hold your cash in your hand until needed. b. Try to sit alone near the back of the train. c. Sit near the conductor. d. Put your purse or backpack on the seat next to you. ANS: C
. 1S8T 5-B 18A6 REF: TpE
63. Someone tries to attack you. You should do which of the following? a. Use your car keys as a weapon. b. Stare at the person in the eyes. c. Calmly ask the person to stop. d. Try not to scream. ANS: A 64.
REF: p. 185-186
Which is a role of risk management? a. Providing malpractice insurance b. Looks for patterns in accidents or errors. c. Dealing with resident preferences d. Keeping family members happy ANS: B
REF: p. 186
65. A resident got a new bracelet for her birthday. It needs to go into her valuables envelopes.
What should you do? a. State that it is a bracelet. b. Describe it as a gold bracelet. c. Describe it as a yellow, 7-inch-long bracelet that is 1-inch wide with no stones. d. Drop it in an envelope with other bracelets.
ANS: C
REF: p. 187
66. You break a person’s eyeglasses. Which is correct? a. They should have been in the valuables envelope. b. You need to complete an incident report. c. The person needs to be more careful. d. You can buy new ones with the person’s money. ANS: B
REF: p. 187
67. A patient is wearing a purple bracelet on her wrist. Purple indicates this person has a(n): a. fall risk. b. allergy alert. c. do not resuscitate order. d. elopement risk. ANS: C
REF: p. 187
TRUE/FALSE 1. Back slaps and chest thrusts are used to relieve foreign body airway obstruction in infants. ANS: T
REF: p. 171
2. You should never self-administer abdominal thrusts. ANS: F
REF: p. 171
3. If evacuation is necessary, patients and residents farthest from the fire are taken out first. ANS: F
REF: p. 182
4. Color-coded wristbands are used to divide the residents into groups. ANS: F
REF: p. 187
Chapter 14: Preventing Falls Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which statement about falls is correct? a. Falls are the least common accidents in nursing centers. b. The risk of falling decreases with age. c. A history of falls decreases the risk of falling again. d. Most falls are caused by many risk factors. ANS: D 2.
REF: p. 192
Falls are likely to occur: during shift changes. during meal times. when visitors are present. when care is given.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
REF: p. 192
3. The following increases a person’s risk for falls: a. weakness. b. awareness of surroundings. c. regular elimination. d. shoes that fit properly. ANS: A
REF: p. 192
4. A person has dizziness on standing. The person: a. is at risk for falls. b. is taking medications. c. will have memory problems. d. is confused. ANS: A
REF: p. 192
5. A person has balance problems. The person: a. is at risk for falls. b. is taking medications. c. will have memory problems. d. has impaired hearing. ANS: A
REF: p. 192
6. The following helps to prevent falls: a. night-lights. b. throw rugs. c. shoes with a larger fit. d. keeping lights on only during the daytime. ANS: A
REF: p. 193
7. To prevent a person from falling, the person: a. has long shoelaces. b. wears slip-resistant footwear. c. wears bedroom slippers. d. wears loose clothing. ANS: B 8.
Call lights can help prevent falls. Which is correct? a. The call light must be within the person’s reach. b. The person is asked to use the call light only at routine intervals. c. Call lights are answered as soon as you are free to answer them. d. Call lights are taken away from those who use them too often. ANS: A
9.
REF: p. 193
REF: p. 193
A person has a chair alarm. Which is correct? a. It serves the same purpose as a call light. b. You need to respond to the alarm at once. c. Alarms are used only at night. d. Bed rails must be up. ANS: B
REF: p. 194-195
10. These statements are about preventing falls. Which is correct? a. You can borrow a resident’s wheelchair for another person. b. Meeting elimination needs on a regular schedule can eliminate falls. TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Bed, wheelchair, and stretcher wheels are unlocked for transfers. d. Safety checks are made of patient and resident rooms after visitors leave. ANS: D
REF: p. 194-195
11. Bed rails are used: a. for all patients and residents. b. according to the person’s care plan. c. at night. d. whenever the person is in bed. ANS: B
REF: p. 196
12. The greatest risk from bed rail use is: a. anxiety. b. entrapment. c. coma. d. confusion. ANS: B
REF: p. 196
13. Bed rails can be used: a. for persons who try to get out of bed without help. b. when a person is at high risk for falling. c. if they are needed to treat a person’s medical symptoms.
d. if the person’s family requests them. ANS: C
REF: p. 196
14. You raise the bed to give care. Bed rails are: a. removed according to the care plan. b. lowered according to the care plan. c. raised according to the care plan. d. used according to the care plan. ANS: D
REF: p. 196
15. A resident does not use bed rails. To prevent the person from falling, when making an
occupied bed: a. ask a co-worker to help you. b. tell the person to be very careful when the bed is raised. c. keep the bed in the low position. d. get the person up in the chair. ANS: A
REF: p. 196
16. Residents who have bed rails: a. must be checked often. b. can be left alone. c. need restraints. d. need hand rails and grab bars. ANS: A
REF: p. 196
17. What is the purpose of hand rails? a. They prevent a person from falling out of bed. b. They provide support when walking. c. They provide support when sitting down or getting up from the toilet. d. They are used to propel a wheelchair. ANS: B
REF: p. 197
18. What is the purpose of grab bars? a. They prevent a person from falling out of bed. b. They provide support when walking. c. They provide support when sitting down or getting up from the toilet. d. They are used to propel a wheelchair. ANS: C
REF: p. 197
19. Bed wheels are locked: a. whenever a patient or a resident requests them to be. b. when moving the bed. c. only when the bed is in the high position. d. at all times except when moving the bed. ANS: D
REF: p. 197
20. A patient has an abdominal wound. Before using a transfer belt to transfer the person, you
need to: a. ask the person if it is OK. b. change the person’s abdominal wound dressing. c. add extra dressings to the abdominal wound dressing. d. check with the nurse and the care plan. ANS: D
REF: p. 198
21. To use a transfer belt safely, you need to follow: a. the care plan. b. the manufacturer’s instructions. c. the doctor’s orders. d. the person’s preferences. ANS: B
REF: p. 198
22. You need to transfer a patient using a transfer belt. Which is correct? a. The access strap is left dangling. b. The belt is applied over clothing. c. The belt is applied over the breasts. d. The buckle is positioned over the person’s spine. ANS: B
REF: p. 198
23. A transfer belt is snug but not too tight if: a. the person tells you so. b. you can slide an open fT laEt S haTnB dA unNdKerStE heLbLeE ltR . c. the person can breathe normally. d. the belt buckle is off center. ANS: B
REF: p. 198
24. You are assisting a resident to the bathroom. The person starts to fall. What should you do? a. Call for the nurse. b. Try to prevent the fall. c. Ease the person to the floor. d. Have the person use the commode instead. ANS: C
REF: p. 200
25. After a person falls, you need to: a. provide a walking aid. b. call for the nurse. c. call the family. d. call the doctor. ANS: B 26.
REF: p. 200
After a person falls, you need to: a. complete an incident report. b. check the person for injuries. c. call the doctor.
d. keep the person in bed. ANS: A
REF: p. 200
27. A confused person tries to move about after a fall. Which action is correct? a. Use force to hold the person down. b. Yell for another assistant to come. c. Talk to the person in a calm, soothing voice. d. Call the family for help. ANS: C
REF: p. 200
TRUE/FALSE 1. Bed rails are considered restraints if the person cannot lower them without help. ANS: T
REF: p. 196
2. Drop-side cribs meet current safety standards. ANS: F
REF: p. 196
Chapter 15: Restraint Alternatives and Restraints Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which statement about the use of restraints and seclusion is correct? a. Any health team member can order their use. b. They may be used only for continuous physical safety of the person, a staff
member, or others. c. They may only be used when less restrictive measures fail to protect the person, a
staff member, or others. d. They must be discontinued when the physician rounds again. ANS: C
REF: p. 204
2. Restraints are used: a. to discipline a person. b. for staff convenience. c. to control or prevent a behavior. d. to protect persons from harming themselves or others. ANS: D
REF: p. 204
3. Restraints are used: a. when the nurse thinks, they are needed. b. when the health team thinks, they are needed. c. when other measures faTilEtS oT prBoA teN ctKthSeEpLerLsE onR. d. to prevent falls. ANS: C
REF: p. 204
4. Freedom of movement: a. is a change in a part of the body that the person can control. b. is a nursing center policy. c. applies only to confused and disoriented persons. d. requires informed consent. ANS: A
REF: p. 204
5. A patient scratches and picks at his skin. You would expect the nurse to: a. find out the reason for the behavior. b. order mitt restraints for the person. c. order wrist restraints for the person. d. ask the doctor to order an ointment. ANS: A
REF: p. 205
6. These statements are about restraint alternatives. Which is correct? a. They are identified in the person’s care plan. b. They require a doctor’s order. c. The least restrictive method is required.
d. They prevent or control a behavior. ANS: A
REF: p. 205
7. Restraints are used to: a. punish a person. b. control a behavior. c. treat medical symptoms. d. help the staff. ANS: C
REF: p. 205
8. These statements are about physical restraints. Which is correct? a. They are attached to the person’s chair. b. They are attached to the head-board of the bed. c. The person can easily remove them. d. They restrict movement or access to one’s body. ANS: D
REF: p. 207
9. A resident’s sheets are tucked in very tight. The person cannot get out of bed, and it is hard for
the person to move in bed. Which is correct? a. The tight sheets are restraint alternatives. b. The tight sheets are restraints. c. The person needs to have the bed rails up. d. The tight sheets prevent agitation and restlessness. ANS: B
REF: p. 207
10. A drug makes a person sleepy and unable to function. The drug is: a. used to treat medical symptoms. b. a chemical restraint. c. a restraint alternative. d. part of the person’s care plan. ANS: B
REF: p. 207
11. A restraint is ordered. Which is the least likely to cause injuries? a. Following the manufacturer’s instructions b. Trying to get free from the restraint c. Keeping the restraint on the entire shift d. Using whatever restraint is available ANS: A
REF: p. 208
12. These statements are about restraints. Which is correct? a. Restraints can cause a skin decubitus. b. The agency must report any time a person is in a restraint. c. Restraints affect a person’s dignity and self-esteem. d. Restraints decrease confusion and agitation. ANS: C
REF: p. 208
13. Restraints are ordered by the: a. nurse. b. health team. c. doctor. d. the person’s legal representative. ANS: C
REF: p. 208
14. Restraints can be ordered: a. after all other measures fail to protect the person. b. when the family requests them. c. to control or prevent a behavior. d. when the least restrictive method is available. ANS: A 15.
REF: p. 208
Unnecessary restraint is: false imprisonment. malpractice. negligence. involuntary seclusion.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
REF: p. 208
16. A resident has wrist restraints. You need to check the person at least every: a. 5 minutes. b. 10 minutes. c. 15 minutes. d. 20 minutes. ANS: C
REF: p. 208
17. Restraints are removed and basic needs met at least every: a. 15 minutes. b. 30 minutes. c. hour. d. 2 hours. ANS: D
REF: p. 208
18. Restraints are applied so that they are: a. loose enough for the person to get free of them. b. snug. c. tight. d. the least restrictive. ANS: B
REF: p. 217
19. Which is a restraint alternative? a. Loud music, television, or radio. b. Answering call lights as soon as you are able. c. Withholding fluids. d. Giving back massages.
ANS: D
REF: p. 205
20. Which is a restraint alternative? a. Staff assignments are changed daily. b. Floor cushions are placed next to beds. c. Lights are always bright in rooms and hallways. d. The person is kept in his or her room as much as possible. ANS: B
REF: p. 205
21. Certain patients and residents tend to wander. Who needs to know who they are? a. The nursing team involved in their care b. The health team c. The nursing assistants d. The entire staff ANS: D
REF: p. 205
22. Which is a restraint? a. A chair with an attached tray table b. A rocking chair c. A reclining chair d. A low bed ANS: A
REF: p. 207
23. Which statement about restraints is correct? a. Any member of the heaTltEhSteTaB mAcN anKoSrE deLr L aE reRst.raCinOt Mto protect the person. b. Restraints are almost always necessary with older adults. c. Informed consent is only required when the patient has dementia. d. The manufacturer’s instructions are followed. ANS: D
REF: p. 206
24. A restraint is ordered for a patient. What restraint should you use? a. The least restrictive device b. The one that can be obtained the quickest c. Mitt or wrist restraints d. A vest or jacket restraint ANS: A
REF: p. 208
25. Before applying a restraint, the person must be: a. sitting. b. lying down. c. in good alignment. d. resting quietly. ANS: C
REF: p. 208
26. Restraint straps are secured: a. to the bed rails.
b. within the person’s reach. c. to the movable part of the bed frame out of the person’s reach. d. to the foot-board or head-board. ANS: C
REF: p. 212
27. A patient has a wrist restraint. Which of the following is especially important to report to the
nurse? a. Why the restraint was applied b. The person’s temperature c. The person’s respiratory rate d. If you felt a pulse in the restrained extremity ANS: D
REF: p. 213
28. Jacket restraints: a. are applied with the opening in back. b. can be worn backwards. c. cross in back. d. open at the side. ANS: A
REF: p. 209
29. Bed rail covers and gap protectors: a. are restraints. b. protect the person from entrapment. c. are never used with restraints. d. protect the person fromTw g. EaSnTdeBrin AN ANS: B
REF: p. 215
30. These statements are about restraints. Which is correct? a. A back cushion is used if the person is restrained in a chair. b. A person restrained in the sitting position is at great risk for aspiration. c. Bed rails are lowered when using vest, jacket, or belt restraints. d. The call light is kept within the person’s reach. ANS: D
REF: p. 210
31. A resident keeps trying to pull out her feeding tube. Which restraint is the least restrictive? a. Mitt restraint b. Jacket restraint c. Vest restraint d. Belt restraint ANS: A
REF: p. 213
32. Mitt restraints prevent: a. finger use. b. hand movements. c. wrist movements. d. arm movements.
ANS: A
REF: p. 213
33. Vest and jacket restraints are applied to the: a. chest. b. waist. c. limbs. d. hands. ANS: A
REF: p. 214
34. Which allows the person to turn from side to side or sit up in bed? a. Vest restraint b. Jacket restraint c. Belt restraint d. Full-body restraint ANS: C
REF: p. 214
35. A person has a vest restraint. You need to check the person’s: a. Pulse b. Skin color c. Skin temperature d. Breathing ANS: D
REF: p. 215
36. A person has a restraint. Skin care is given at least every: a. 15 minutes. b. 30 minutes. c. hour. d. 2 hours. ANS: D
REF: p. 209-210
37. A person has a restraint. The person is repositioned at least every: a. 15 minutes. b. 30 minutes. c. hour. d. 2 hours. ANS: D
REF: p. 209-210
TRUE/FALSE 1. It is a person’s right to be free from restraint. ANS: T
REF: p. 204
2. Informed consent is needed for restraint use. ANS: T
REF: p. 208
3. Never use force to apply a restraint. ANS: T
REF: p. 216
Chapter 16: Preventing Infection Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Asepsis means: a. clean technique. b. the process of destroying pathogens. c. an infection acquired after admission to a health care agency. d. absence of disease-producing microbes. ANS: D
REF: p. 221
2. A drug that kills microbes that cause infections is: a. a germicide. b. an autoclave. c. an antibiotic. d. a vaccine. ANS: C
REF: p. 221
3. Items are sterilized in: a. an autoclave. b. a reservoir. c. a germicide. d. normal flora. ANS: A
REF: p. 230
4. Clean technique is the same as: a. sterile technique. b. surgical asepsis. c. medical asepsis. d. normal flora. ANS: C
REF: p. 221
5. The process of becoming unclean is: a. asepsis. b. contamination. c. sterilization. d. disinfection. ANS: B
REF: p. 221
6. A disease caused by pathogens that spread easily is: a. a communicable disease. b. an infection. c. a nosocomial infection. d. immunity. ANS: A
REF: p. 222
7. A person has protection against a certain disease. The person has: a. immunity. b. personal protective equipment. c. a vaccine. d. a germicide. ANS: A
REF: p. 221
8. Certain practices remove or destroy pathogens. They also prevent them from spreading from
one person or place to another person or place. These practices are: a. Standard Precautions. b. Transmission-Based Precautions. c. medical asepsis. d. sterile technique. ANS: C
REF: p. 221
9. A microbe usually does not cause an infection. The microbe is: a. a non-pathogen. b. a pathogen. c. normal flora. d. a spore. ANS: A
REF: p. 221
10. A person develops an infection after being admitted to a health care agency. The person has: a. a healthcare-associated infection. TESTBA b. normal flora. c. immunity. d. a contagious disease. ANS: A
REF: p. 221
11. A microbe that is harmful and can cause an infection is: a. a virus. b. a pathogen. c. normal flora. d. a spore. ANS: B
REF: p. 221
12. Microbes that live and grow in a certain area are: a. non-pathogens. b. pathogens. c. normal flora. d. spores. ANS: C
REF: p. 221
13. A sterile field is: a. a work area free of all pathogens and non-pathogens. b. the same as sterile technique.
c. the same as surgical asepsis. d. the process of destroying all microbes. ANS: A
REF: p. 221
14. A carrier is: a. the environment in which microbes live and grow. b. someone who is a reservoir for microbes but who does not develop the infection. c. the location where microbes usually live and grow. d. a preparation given to produce immunity against an infectious disease. ANS: B
REF: p. 221
15. Sterile means: a. the absence of all microbes. b. a work area free of all pathogens and non-pathogens. c. the process of destroying all microbes. d. the practices that keep equipment and supplies free of all microbes. ANS: A
REF: p. 221
16. A vaccine is: a. given to produce immunity. b. used to disinfect supplies and equipment. c. a microbe that causes infection. d. normal flora. ANS: A
REF: p. 221
17. Who is responsible for preventing infections from spreading? a. Nurses b. Doctors c. The nursing team d. The health team ANS: D
REF: p. 224
18. Microbes are found: a. in blood, body fluids, excretions, and secretions b. in the air and in water. c. in the respiratory system and digestive system. d. everywhere. ANS: D
REF: p. 222
19. Which of the following are known as plant-like organisms? a. Germs b. Fungi c. Viruses d. Spores ANS: B
REF: p. 222
20. These statements are about microbes. Which is correct? a. They grow best without oxygen. b. The need water and nourishment. c. They grow best in a cool and well-lit environment. d. They can live and grow on their own. ANS: B
REF: p. 222
21. A microbe normally lives and grows in the respiratory system. Which is correct? a. The microbe will cause a respiratory infection. b. The microbe is a pathogen in the respiratory system. c. The microbe can cause an infection in another part of the body. d. The same microbe is found on the skin. ANS: C
REF: p. 222
22. Microbes that can resist the effects of antibiotics are: a. multidrug-resistant organisms. b. Staphylococcus aureus organisms. c. methicillin organisms. d. infection-resistant organisms. ANS: A
REF: p. 222
23. A local infection occurs in: a. the person’s neighborhood. b. a body part. c. the whole body. d. normal flora. ANS: B
REF: p. 223
24. An infection involving the whole body is: a. a local infection. b. a systemic infection. c. a contagious disease. d. normal flora. ANS: B
REF: p. 223
25. Which system protects the body from disease and infection? a. Circulatory system b. Respiratory system c. Urinary system d. Immune system ANS: D
REF: p. 223
26. Signs and symptoms of infection include which of the following? a. Increased energy and appetite b. Fever c. Cool sensation of a body part d. Decreased pulse and respiratory rates
ANS: B 27.
REF: p. 223
Infection starts with a: a. source or pathogen. b. reservoir or host. c. portal of exit or portal of entry. d. susceptible host. ANS: A
REF: p. 223
28. A carrier: a. can transmit pathogens to others. b. has immunity. c. has the signs and symptoms of an infection. d. is a susceptible host. ANS: A
REF: p. 223
29. Which of the following would be considered a susceptible host? a. A healthy pre-schooler b. A very old person c. A healthy middle-aged adult d. An adolescent who is healthy ANS: B
REF: p. 223
30. A susceptible host is: a. a person at risk for infeTcE tioSnT . b. an animal or insect. c. a reservoir where a pathogen lives and grows. d. a carrier. ANS: A
REF: p. 223
31. Portals of exit are: a. the same as portals of entry. b. personal care items. c. eating and drinking utensils. d. blood, body fluids, secretions, and excretions. ANS: A
REF: p. 223
32. Healthcare-associated infections can be spread by which of the following? a. Carpet b. Poor hand hygiene c. Medical asepsis d. Sterile technique ANS: B
REF: p. 224
33. Who can develop healthcare-associated infections? a. Residents and patients
b. The nursing team c. Doctors d. The health team ANS: A
REF: p. 224
34. In medical asepsis, an item is contaminated if: a. pathogens are present. b. non-pathogens are present. c. pathogens and non-pathogens are present. d. bacteria and viruses are present. ANS: A
REF: p. 225
35. Which is the easiest and most important way to prevent infections from spreading? a. Standard Precautions b. Practicing hand hygiene c. Transmission-Based Precautions d. The Bloodborne Pathogen Standard ANS: B
REF: p. 226
36. To prevent the spread of microbes, wash your hands in the following situations: a. when gloves are on. b. after taking a shower. c. after eating your lunch. d. before and after handling, preparing, or eating food. ANS: D
. 2S2T 7 REF: TpE
37. When washing your hands, you should stand so that: a. your uniform touches the sink. b. your hands touch the sink. c. your body touches the sink. d. soap and faucets are easy to reach. ANS: D
REF: p. 227
38. When washing your hands, your hands and forearms are kept: a. above your elbows. b. lower than your elbows. c. even with your elbows. d. close to your body. ANS: B
REF: p. 227
39. You are going to decontaminate your hands with an alcohol-based rub. Which is correct? a. Wash your hands before applying the hand rub. b. Spread the foam on the tops and bottoms of your hands. c. Cover all surfaces of your hands and fingers. d. Rub your hands together for 3 seconds. ANS: C
REF: p. 227
40. Hands are washed for at least: a. 10 seconds. b. 15 seconds. c. 25 seconds. d. 30 seconds. ANS: B
REF: p. 227
41. When drying your hands, start at the: a. fingertips and work up to your forearms. b. elbows and work down to your fingers. c. forearms and work down to your fingers. d. wrist and work down to the fingers. ANS: A
REF: p. 227
42. To turn off the faucets, use: a. your clean hands. b. a clean paper towel for each faucet. c. the paper towel used for drying your hands. d. the same paper towel for each faucet. ANS: B
REF: p. 227
43. Which measure will help prevent the spread of microbes in the home? a. Flushing the toilet after every other use b. Wiping out the tub daily T c. Using a washcloth to clean toilet surfaces d. Wiping up spills right away ANS: D
REF: p. 231
44. Single-use items are: a. reused. b. discarded after use. c. cleaned for reuse. d. used by more than one person. ANS: B
REF: p. 230
45. Disposable items are used: a. to lower health care costs. b. to prevent infection. c. to save time. d. to save soap and cleaning solutions. ANS: B
REF: p. 230
46. The purpose of cleaning is to: a. destroy all pathogens and non-pathogens. b. reduce the number of microbes present. c. make disposable items reusable.
d. produce a sterile field. ANS: B
REF: p. 230
47. You are going to clean a bedpan. Which statement is correct? a. You need to wear gloves only if there is diarrhea. b. You rinse the item in hot water first. c. You wash the item with soap and cool water. d. You use a brush if necessary. ANS: D
REF: p. 230
48. Disinfection destroys: a. spores. b. pathogens. c. all microbes. d. bacteria. ANS: B
REF: p. 230
49. Before handling a disinfectant, you need to check the: a. person’s care plan. b. material safety data sheet. c. assignment sheet. d. amount remaining. ANS: B
REF: p. 230
50. These statements are aboutTcEoS ntT roBllA inN gKthSeEtrLanLsE mRis.siC onOM of microbes. Which is correct? a. You can borrow a resident’s equipment to use for another person. b. You need to assist patients and residents with hand-washing only after eating. c. You need to assist patients and residents with hand-washing after elimination. d. Items on the floor are considered clean unless soiled. ANS: C
REF: p. 232
51. When cleaning, you need to clean: a. toward your body. b. away from your body. c. from the dirtiest area to the cleanest. d. as fast as possible. ANS: B
REF: p. 232
52. Which of the following will control portals of entry? a. Providing skin care b. Providing good oral hygiene once per day c. Keeping linens moist d. Wiping from the rectum to the urethra ANS: A
REF: p. 232
53. The Bloodborne Pathogen Standard is a regulation of:
a. b. c. d.
OBRA. OSHA. the CDC. the MSDS.
ANS: B
REF: p. 233
54. Bloodborne pathogens exit the body through the: a. blood. b. respiratory system. c. urinary tract. d. reproductive system. ANS: A
REF: p. 233
55. According to the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard, potentially infectious materials are: a. contaminated with a body fluid that may contain blood. b. spread by airborne droplets. c. spread by coughing, sneezing, and talking. d. viruses and bacteria that spread disease. ANS: A
REF: p. 233
56. The hepatitis B vaccination involves: a. 1 injection. b. 2 injections. c. 3 injections. d. 4 injections. ANS: C
REF: p. 235
57. The hepatitis B vaccination is given: a. every year. b. before exposure to HBV. c. after exposure to HBV. d. before or after exposure HBV. ANS: D
REF: p. 235
58. You were just hired at a nursing center. Which statement is correct? a. The nursing center makes the hepatitis B vaccination available to you within the
first 10 days of being hired. b. You cannot refuse to have the hepatitis B vaccination. c. If you refuse the hepatitis B vaccination, you will be terminated. d. You pay for the hepatitis B vaccination. ANS: A
REF: p. 235
59. Your lips are chapped. You can apply lip balm in the: a. person’s room. b. residents’ dining room. c. dirty utility room. d. employee restroom.
ANS: D
REF: p. 239
60. These statements are about surgical asepsis. Which is correct? a. A sterile item cannot touch another sterile item. b. Sterile items are always kept within your vision. c. Sterile items are always kept below your waist. d. Airborne microbes cannot contaminate a sterile field. ANS: B
REF: p. 236
61. These statements are about surgical asepsis. Which is correct? a. A sterile package is torn and wet. The package is contaminated. b. The date on a sterile package has expired. The package is contaminated if it has
been 30 days past the expiration. c. Sterile items are handled with clean gloves or sterile forceps. d. Sterile gloved hands are kept below your waist. ANS: A
REF: p. 236
62. These statements are about surgical asepsis. Which is correct? a. You can turn your back on a sterile field. b. You can leave a sterile field unattended. c. You can reach over a sterile field. d. Wet items are held down. ANS: D
REF: p. 236
63. The nurse asks you to assisTt E wS itT hB aA stN erK ileSpErL ocLeE duRr. e.CYOoM u will need to put on sterile gloves.
When do you put them on? a. When the procedure is explained to the person b. Before setting up the sterile field c. After setting up the sterile field d. When you contaminate your disposable gloves ANS: C
REF: p. 238
64. Your sterile gloves tear after you put them on. You need to: a. keep them on so the nurse can finish the procedure. b. remove them. c. remove them, decontaminate your hands, and put on a new pair. d. put a new pair on over the torn pair. ANS: C
REF: p. 238
65. You are putting on sterile gloves. You contaminate the inner package. What should you do? a. Continue. You have not touched the gloves. b. Discard the gloves and get a new package. c. Put on the gloves and then put another pair on over them. d. Do whatever is easiest at the time. ANS: B
REF: p. 238
66. You are putting on the first sterile glove. Some fingers get caught in the glove. What should
you do? a. Ask the nurse to straighten the glove. b. Straighten the glove with your ungloved hand. c. Get a new pair of gloves. d. Put on the other glove. ANS: D
REF: p. 238
67. What parts of sterile gloves are not sterile? a. The outsides b. The fingers c. The cuffs and inside d. The cuffs and fingers ANS: C
REF: p. 238
Chapter 17: Isolation Precautions Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse asks you to perform three tasks for a resident. Assume that contact with blood,
body fluids, secretions, or excretions is likely. How many pairs of gloves do you need? a. 1 pair b. At least 2 pairs c. At least 3 pairs d. No gloves ANS: C
REF: p. 242
2. Your gloves are contaminated. You need to touch a clean surface. You should: a. remove the gloves and wash your hands. b. wash your gloved hands. c. complete necessary care and remove the gloves. d. ask the nurse what to do. ANS: A 3.
REF: p. 242
Goggles and face shields: a. are worn for all tasks. b. protect your mouth, eyes, and nose. c. are worn only when blood is present. d. are reusable on multiplT eE reSsiT deBnAtsN . ANS: B
REF: p. 242
4. Which is correct? a. Masks prevent the spread of infection from the respiratory tract. b. Masks are reusable. c. A wet mask is not considered to be contaminated unless soaked. d. Practice hand hygiene after putting on a mask. ANS: A
REF: p. 242
5. These statements are about gowns. Which is correct? a. They are worn when splashes or sprays of blood, body fluids, secretions, or
excretions are likely. b. The gown must partially cover you from your neck to your knees. c. A wet gown is considered to be contaminated if soaked. d. The gown front and sleeves are considered to be clean. ANS: A
REF: p. 242
6. Soiled linen is: a. handled according to the agency’s policies. b. discarded. c. sent home with the family.
d. washed in the person’s room. ANS: A
REF: p. 251
7. The nurse hands you a used disposable syringe with the needle attached. You should: a. recap the needle. b. break the needle off of the syringe. c. bend the needle. d. place the needle and syringe in a puncture-resistant container. ANS: D
REF: p. 242
8. A resident has a communicable disease. The nurse tells you that droplet precautions are
needed. You know that droplets are produced by: a. splashes and sprays of blood, body fluids, secretions, or excretions. b. coughing, sneezing, or talking. c. chickenpox or the measles. d. touching surfaces or care items in the person’s room. ANS: B
REF: p. 244
9. When following droplet precautions, you need to wear: a. a tuberculosis respirator. b. a mask when entering the person’s room or care setting. c. a gown. d. eye protection. ANS: B
REF: p. 243
10. Contact precautions always require the use of: a. gloves. b. masks. c. gowns. d. goggles. ANS: A
REF: p. 243
11. A gown is needed for isolation precautions. The gown is removed: a. before leaving the room. b. after leaving the room. c. after care is completed. d. in the dirty utility room. ANS: A
REF: p. 243
12. You are delegated tasks that involve Transmission-Based Precautions. The nurse needs to tell
you: a. when to wash your hands? b. how to respect the person’s rights? c. what personal protective equipment to use? d. to keep the call light within reach. ANS: C
REF: p. 243
13.
Gloves are easier to put on: a. at the start of your shift. b. when your hands are wet. c. when your hands are dry. d. if you have lotion on your hands. ANS: C
REF: p. 246
14. You tear a glove while performing a task. You should: a. complete the task before removing the gloves. b. ask the nurse what to do. c. remove the gloves, practice hand hygiene, and put on a new pair. d. remove the glove and put on a new one. ANS: C
REF: p. 246
15. These statements are about gloves. Which is correct? a. Only one pair is needed for each person. b. Gloves are discarded after use. c. Gloves must cover your elbows. d. The inside of the gloves is always sterile. ANS: B
REF: p. 246
16. A mask is wet. Which is correct? a. The mask is contaminated. b. You must complete the task as quickly as possible. TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. You must control your breathing. d. You must take the mask off and let it dry. ANS: A
REF: p. 246
17. You are moving a mask. Which part is contaminated? a. The upper ties b. The lower ties c. The front part d. The entire mask ANS: C
REF: p. 245
18. When removing a mask, you must: a. touch only the ties or the elastic bands. b. practice hand hygiene. c. put on new gloves. d. leave the room. ANS: A
REF: p. 245
19. Which parts of a gown are contaminated? a. The neck ties and cuffs b. The gown front and sleeves c. The inside and the waist strings
d. The inside and the neck ties ANS: B
REF: p. 245
20. A wet gown is considered to be: a. clean. b. contaminated. c. sterile. d. safe. ANS: B
REF: p. 245
21. You need to wear gloves, a gown, and a mask. Which do you put on first? a. The gloves b. The gown c. The mask d. It does not matter ANS: B
REF: p. 247
22. Before removing a gown, you must: a. decontaminate your hands. b. remove your gloves and goggles. c. leave the room. d. get the person’s consent. ANS: B
REF: p. 248
23. Disposable goggles and facTeEsS hiT elB dsAaNrK e: a. cleaned for reuse. b. discarded after use. c. labeled with the person’s name and room number. d. sterilized. ANS: B
REF: p. 248
24. Contaminated items are placed in: a. melt-away bags. b. leak-proof plastic bags with the BIOHAZARD symbol. c. trash containers. d. the toilet. ANS: B
REF: p. 251
25. Double-bagging is needed when: a. droplet or contact precautions are used. b. the outside of the bag is soiled. c. the inside of the bag is soiled. d. Transmission-Based Precautions are ordered. ANS: B
REF: p. 252
26. When collecting a specimen, you always need to wear:
a. b. c. d.
gloves. a mask. eyewear. a gown.
ANS: A
REF: p. 252
27. You use a stretcher to transport a person who is on Transmission-Based Precautions. Which is
correct? a. an extra layer of sheets is put on the stretcher. b. the person wears a gown if airborne or droplet precautions are used. c. the stretcher is disinfected before use. d. no special precautions are needed. ANS: A
REF: p. 252
28. Persons needing Transmission-Based Precautions often experience: a. loss of self-esteem. b. self-actualization. c. love and belonging. d. safety. ANS: A
REF: p. 253
29. A resident needs Transmission-Based Precautions. Which will meet the person’s basic needs? a. Visiting the person at least once per shift b. Saying hello from the nurses’ station using the call bell system c. Providing a current TVTgEuS idT e d. Getting out of the person’s room as quickly as possible ANS: C
REF: p. 253
30. You need to put on a face mask. You should: a. let the person see your face first. b. enter the room with the mask on. c. put the mask on, and then tell the person your name. d. wash your face first. ANS: A
REF: p. 253
31. You need to clean the counter in the dirty utility room. You need to wear: a. gloves. b. a mask and gown. c. gloves, a mask, and a gown. d. protective eyewear. ANS: A
REF: p. 242
32. Your work surface becomes contaminated. When should you decontaminate the area? a. When you complete the task b. At once c. When you have time d. At the end of your shift
ANS: B
REF: p. 242
33. A person’s linens are soiled with urine and feces. What should you do with the linens? a. Take them to the dirty utility room. b. Put them with other laundry. c. Place them in a leak-proof plastic bag. d. Wash the laundry. ANS: C
REF: p. 244
TRUE/FALSE 1. Standard Precautions prevent the spread of infection from blood. ANS: T
REF: p. 241
Chapter 18: Body Mechanics Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When you have to turn, reposition, or transfer a person, you must: a. use a transfer belt. b. use a lift sheet. c. use a mechanical lift. d. use your body correctly. ANS: D
REF: p. 258
2. Older persons have fragile bones and joints. To prevent injury when moving these persons,
you should do which of the following? a. Move the person as quickly as possible. b. Request for help if you start to struggle. c. Move the person in one movement. d. Keep the person in good alignment. ANS: D
REF: p. 261
3. To prevent work-related injuries, OSHA recommends: a. working alone whenever possible. b. holding the person under the arms during transfers. c. manual lifting be eliminated whenever possible. d. scheduling harder tasksTlE atS eT inBtA heNsKhS iftE. ANS: C
REF: p. 259
4. Before moving a person in bed, what information do you need from the nurse and the care
plan? a. How to use body mechanics? b. What procedure to use? c. The patient’s preference for pajamas. d. Which type of restraints to use? ANS: B
REF: p. 260
5. When transferring persons, you should use good body mechanics. This includes which of the
following? a. Stand with a narrow posture. b. Face the person. c. Bend your back, not your legs. d. Use your arms to do the work. ANS: B
REF: p. 258
6. When transferring the person, you should use good body mechanics. This includes which of
the following? a. Stand with good posture.
b. Face the person’s back. c. Bend your back, not your legs. d. Use your arms to do the work. ANS: A
REF: p. 258
7. High-Fowler’s position is when the: a. bed is flat. b. head of the bed is raised 60 to 90 degrees. c. head of the bed is raised, and the foot of the bed is lowered. d. head of the bed is lowered, and the foot of the bed is raised. ANS: B
REF: p. 262
8. You need to move a resident up in bed. To reduce bending and reaching: a. use a lift sheet. b. use a transfer belt. c. raise the bed for body mechanics. d. lock the bed wheels. ANS: C
REF: p. 260
9. Before moving a person up in bed, you need to: a. put slip-resistant footwear on the person. b. lock the bed wheels. c. apply a transfer belt. d. raise the head of the bed. ANS: B
. 2S6T 0 REF: TpE
10. Before moving, positioning, or transferring a person, you need to: a. explain to the person what you are going to do. b. apply a transfer belt. c. ask a co-worker to help you. d. move the person to the middle of the bed. ANS: A
REF: p. 260
11. Some under-pads are used as assist devices. For a safe lift, the under-pad must: a. be strong enough to support the person’s weight. b. extend from the person’s shoulders to above the knees. c. be 2 feet wide. d. be a disposable, single-use under-pad. ANS: A
REF: p. 260
12. In which position is the person lying on their abdomen with their face turned to one side or the
other? a. Semi-Fowler’s b. Prone c. Lateral d. Sims’
ANS: B
REF: p. 263
13. Which position is known as the back-lying position? a. Semi-Fowler’s b. Prone c. Lateral d. Sims’ ANS: A
REF: p. 263
14. Which position forms a 90-degree angle in the bed? a. Fowlers b. Semi-Fowlers’ c. High Fowler’s d. Supine ANS: C
REF: p. 263
15. Maintaining good body mechanics includes: a. a narrow base of support. b. bending your back. c. twist your body. d. turn your whole body to change directions. ANS: D
REF: p. 258
Chapter 19: Moving the Person Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Moving the person from one place to another is: a. a transfer. b. logrolling. c. lifting. d. handling. ANS: A
REF: p. 281
2. Two surfaces rub together. This is: a. friction. b. shearing. c. ergonomics. d. pressure. ANS: A
REF: p. 267
3. A person is turned as a unit, in alignment, with one motion. This is: a. body mechanics. b. logrolling. c. ergonomics. d. safety. ANS: B
REF: p. 267
4. A resident has slid down in bed. Her skin sticks to the bed while her muscles move down.
This is: a. shearing. b. friction. c. ergonomics. d. logrolling. ANS: A
REF: p. 267
5. Friction and shearing can lead to: a. back injuries. b. infection and pressure injuries. c. poor posture and body mechanics. d. difficulty breathing. ANS: B
REF: p. 269
6. You can reduce friction and shearing by: a. rolling the person. b. using a transfer belt. c. positioning the person in Fowler’s position. d. sliding the person.
ANS: A
REF: p. 278
7. Older persons are at risk for shearing. Which measure will protect the person from pain and
injury? a. Ask the family member to assist you. b. Use a friction-reducing device when moving the person. c. Pull the person quickly toward you. d. Move the person on your own. ANS: B
REF: p. 284
8. A resident is 80 years old. He weighs 195 pounds and is weak. How many workers are needed
to move him up in bed? a. Just 1 b. At least 2 and a friction-reducing device c. At least 3 and a friction-reducing device d. At least 4 ANS: B
REF: p. 274
9. A resident is recovering from spinal surgery. You need to move the person to the side of the
bed. Which procedure is the best to use? a. Moving the person in segments b. Using an assist device c. Logrolling d. Moving the person with the assist of a co-worker ANS: A
. 2S7T 6-B 27A7 REF: TpE
10. When moving a person in segments, what do you move first? a. The legs and feet b. The middle of the body c. The upper part of the body d. The head ANS: C
REF: p. 276-277
11. A resident is recovering from spinal surgery. You need to reposition the person onto her right
side. What procedure should you use? a. Moving the person in segments b. Using an assist device c. Logrolling d. Using a mechanical lift ANS: C
REF: p. 276-277
12. How many workers are needed to safely logroll a person? a. Just 1 b. 2 or 3 c. 3 or 4 d. At least 4
ANS: B
REF: p. 280
13. When a person is logrolled, the person is: a. moved in segments. b. moved with the spine straight. c. turned using a transfer belt. d. turned away from you. ANS: B
REF: p. 280
14. Logrolling is used to turn which of the following? a. All children b. Older persons with arthritic spines c. Persons with arm fractures d. Persons recovering from brain surgery ANS: B
REF: p. 280
15. To dangle means to: a. hang in the air. b. sit on the side of the bed. c. use a mechanical lift. d. be transferred to a stretcher. ANS: B
REF: p. 281
16. The nurse asks you to dangle a resident. Before you do so, you need which of the following
information? a. Which side is strong and which side is weak? b. How long the person has been asleep? c. How to use good body mechanics? d. Which family member is available to help? ANS: A
REF: p. 281
17. For a bed to wheelchair transfer, the person needs to wear: a. slippers. b. socks. c. panty hose. d. slip-resistant footwear. ANS: D
REF: p. 284
18. To prevent falls during transfers, wheelchair, bed, shower chair, and stretcher wheels must: a. be fully inflated. b. be locked. c. not squeak. d. be clean. ANS: B
REF: p. 284
19. A resident has weakness on her left side. You are transferring her from the bed to the
wheelchair. Where should you position the wheelchair?
a. b. c. d.
Next to the bed on her left side Next to the bed on her right side At the foot of the bed At the head of the bed
ANS: B
REF: p. 284
20. When transferring a person: a. the person’s strong side moves first. b. the person’s weak side moves first. c. the side closest to you moves first. d. the person’s right side moves first. ANS: A
REF: p. 283
21. A transfer belt is not needed to transfer a resident from the bed to a chair. For the transfer,
how should you hold onto the person? a. Have the person put her arms around your waist. b. Have the person put her arms around your neck. c. Place your hands under the person’s arms and around her shoulder blades. d. Hold the person’s weak arm while she supports herself with her strong arm. ANS: C
REF: p. 284
22. You are going to transfer a resident from the wheelchair back to bed. Where should you
position the wheelchair? a. On the person’s strong side b. On the person’s weak sTidE c. Where it was when the person was transferred from the bed to the wheelchair d. Wherever the person prefers ANS: A
REF: p. 284
23. A mechanical lift is used to transfer a patient to the wheelchair. Before using the lift, you need
to: a. b. c. d.
clean it. read the manufacturer’s instructions. apply a transfer belt. apply an assist device.
ANS: B
REF: p. 300-302
24. A person is heavier than the weight limit of the mechanical lift. What should you do? a. Tell the nurse. b. Use the lift. c. Get another co-worker to help. d. Allow personal choice. Ask the person what to do. ANS: A
REF: p. 300-302
25. How many workers are needed to safely transfer a person using a mechanical lift? a. Just 1 b. At least 2
c. At least 3 d. At least 4 ANS: B
REF: p. 300-302
26. The nursing center has a new mechanical lift. Which statement is correct? a. If you used the old model, you know how to use the new one. b. All mechanical lifts are the same. c. You need to be trained in its use. d. The new one is safer to use. ANS: C
REF: p. 300-302
27. You need to reposition a person in the chair. Which is correct? a. Follow the nurse’s directions and the care plan. b. Pull the person up from behind. c. Use a transfer belt. d. Ask the person what to do. ANS: A
REF: p. 284
28. A resident has slid down in the wheelchair. The person can follow directions and assist with
repositioning. Which action is unsafe? a. You lock the wheelchair wheels. b. You position the person’s feet flat on the floor. c. You apply a transfer belt. d. You stand behind the wheelchair. ANS: D
. 2S8T 4 REF: TpE
29. A patient has slid down in the wheelchair. The person cannot assist with repositioning. To
safely reposition the person: a. a mechanical lift is used. b. 1 worker is needed. c. 2 workers and an assist device are needed. d. at least 3 workers are needed. ANS: A
REF: p. 284
TRUE/FALSE 1. When using an assist device to move a person to the side of the bed, you need at least 1
co-worker to help you. ANS: T
REF: p. 276
2. To move the person in segments, move the person away from you. ANS: F
REF: p. 276
Chapter 20: Transferring the Person Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse asks you to transfer a resident to a wheelchair. Before transferring the person, the
nurse and care plan tell you which of the following? a. What procedure to use? b. How many people you will need? c. How many times you should transfer the person? d. How to protect the person’s privacy? ANS: A
REF: p. 289
2. For a bed to wheelchair transfer, the person needs to wear: a. slippers. b. socks. c. panty hose. d. slip-resistant footwear. ANS: D
REF: p. 289
3. To prevent falls during transfers, wheelchair, bed, shower chair, and stretcher wheels must: a. be fully inflated. b. be locked. c. not squeak. d. be clean. ANS: B
REF: p. 289
4. A resident has weakness on her left side. You are transferring her from the bed to the
wheelchair. Where should you position the wheelchair? a. Next to the bed on her left side b. Next to the bed on her right side c. At the foot of the bed d. At the head of the bed ANS: B
REF: p. 289
5. A stand-pivot transfer is used if: a. the person requests it. b. the person is not able to assist. c. a mechanical lift is not available. d. the person is strong enough, cooperative, and can assist. ANS: D
REF: p. 291
6. When transferring a person: a. the person’s strong side moves first. b. the person’s weak side moves first. c. the side closest to you moves first.
d. the person’s right side moves first. ANS: A
REF: p. 292
7. A transfer belt is not needed to transfer a resident from the bed to a chair. For the transfer,
how should you hold on to the person? a. Have the person put her arms around your waist. b. Have the person put her arms around your neck. c. Place your hands under the person’s arms and around her shoulder blades. d. Hold the person’s weak arm while she supports herself with her strong arm. ANS: C
REF: p. 292
8. You are going to transfer a resident from the wheelchair back to bed. Where should you
position the wheelchair? a. On the person’s strong side b. On the person’s weak side c. Where it was when the person was transferred from the bed to the wheelchair d. Wherever the person prefers ANS: A
REF: p. 295
9. A mechanical lift is used to transfer a patient to the wheelchair. Before using the lift, you need
to: a. clean it. b. read the manufacturer’s instructions. c. apply a transfer belt. d. apply an assist device. ANS: B REF: p. 300-301 10. A person is heavier than the weight limit of the mechanical lift. What should you do? a. Tell the nurse. b. Use the lift. c. Get another co-worker to help. d. Allow personal choice. Ask the person what to do. ANS: A
REF: p. 300-301
11. Which type of lift sling is used for a person with extra large thighs? a. A standard full sling b. An extended length sling c. A bathing sling d. An amputee sling ANS: B
REF: p. 300-301
12. How many workers are needed to safely transfer a person using a mechanical lift? a. Just 1 b. At least 2 c. At least 3 d. At least 4
ANS: B
REF: p. 300-301
13. The nursing center has a new mechanical lift. Which statement is correct? a. If you used the old model, you know how to use the new one. b. All mechanical lifts are the same. c. You need to be trained in its use. d. The new one is safer to use. ANS: C
REF: p. 300-301
14. You are going to transfer a patient from the wheelchair to the toilet. Which statement is
correct? a. The person needs a lowered toilet seat. b. The person uses the towel bars by the sink for support. c. The wheelchair is positioned in front of the toilet. d. The wheelchair brakes are locked. ANS: D
REF: p. 296
15. After transferring a person to the toilet, you should: a. close the bathroom door and stay in the person’s room. b. close the bathroom door and leave the room. c. always stay in the bathroom with the person. d. leave the room. ANS: A
REF: p. 296
16. How many workers are needed for safe stretcher transfers? TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. Just 1 b. 2 or 3 c. 3 or 4 d. At least 4 ANS: B
REF: p. 289
17. You are transferring a patient from the bed to a stretcher. When should you apply the safety
straps? a. When the stretcher is positioned next to the bed. b. After the person’s ID bracelet is checked. c. Before the person is transferred to the stretcher. d. After the person is transferred to the stretcher. ANS: D
REF: p. 289
18. When can you leave a person on a stretcher unattended? a. After the safety straps are on. b. After the side rails are raised. c. After the person is transported. d. Never. ANS: D
REF: p. 289
19. You need to reposition a person in the chair. Which is correct?
a. b. c. d.
Follow the nurse’s directions and the care plan. Pull the person up from behind. Use a transfer belt. Ask the person what to do.
ANS: A
REF: p. 287
20. When a person can bear some weight, can sit up with help, and may be able to pivot to
transfer, this is known as what level of dependence? a. Total b. Extensive c. Limited d. Supervision ANS: B
REF: p. 287
TRUE/FALSE 1. For a lateral transfer, you should make sure the bed rails are down. ANS: T
REF: p. 298
Chapter 21: The Person’s Unit Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Full visual privacy means that: a. the privacy curtain is drawn. b. windows and shades are adjusted. c. the person is completely free from public view while in bed. d. the room door is closed. ANS: C
REF: p. 308
2. The person’s area of the room is considered: a. public space. b. working space. c. private. d. home-like. ANS: C 3.
REF: p. 308
Nursing center residents are allowed to: bring one personal item from home. arrange personal items as they choose. put personal items in another person’s unit. use any part of the room.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
REF: p. 308
4. These statements are about room temperatures. Which is correct? a. Older persons and those who are ill may need higher room temperatures. b. You can change the person’s room temperature to meet your needs. c. Less active persons are usually comfortable in cooler areas. d. You can decide how warm a person’s room should be. ANS: A
REF: p. 309
5. A person does not like drafts. Which of the following should you do? a. Make sure you put triple layers on the person. b. Offer the person another roommate. c. Always keep the person covered with a bath blanket. d. Keep the person away from drafty areas. ANS: D
REF: p. 310
6. A resident cannot control his bladder. To prevent odors, you need to: a. check him often. b. change his clothing every 2 hours. c. dispose of wet clothing and linens at the end of your shift. d. remind him to use the bathroom. ANS: A
REF: p. 310
7. Which reduces odors? a. Changing soiled linen and clothing each shift b. Cleaning urinals and bedpans daily c. Disposing of incontinence and ostomy products every 2 hours d. Providing good hygiene ANS: D
REF: p. 310
8. You just finished smoking a cigarette. Before going to a patient or resident, you must: a. extinguish the cigarette. b. put your smoking materials away. c. practice hand-washing. d. put on clean gloves. ANS: C
REF: p. 310
9. Several staff members are talking and laughing at the nurses’ station. Besides causing a lot of
noise, what other problem does their behavior create? a. Their behavior is negligent. b. Their behavior is abuse. c. Patients and residents cannot hear what their visitors are saying. d. Patients and residents may think the staff are talking and laughing about them. ANS: D
REF: p. 310
10. Which statement is correct? a. All people are sensitive to noises and sounds. TESTBANKSELLE b. Patients and residents may find sounds dangerous, frightening, and irritating. c. Sounds typically do not affect the older person. d. There is little you can do to control noise in health care agencies. ANS: B
REF: p. 310
11. You can reduce noise in health care agencies by doing which of the following? a. Handling equipment carefully b. Answering phones by the fourth ring c. Speaking in a loud voice d. Keeping equipment on silent mode at all times ANS: A
REF: p. 310
12. A resident has dementia. The person becomes very upset whenever a chair alarm sounds. Why
might the person react this way? a. The alarm is too loud. b. The person thinks the chair alarm is cruel. c. The person wants more attention from staff. d. The person does not understand what the sound means. ANS: D
REF: p. 310
13. Which is an OBRA requirement for resident rooms? a. Bed rails on all beds
b. Premium carpet and padding c. Access to an exit corridor by way of an elevator d. A clean, comfortable mattress ANS: D
REF: p. 309
14. What kind of lighting is cheerful to most people? a. Bright lighting b. Dim lighting c. Soft lighting d. Lighting that causes glares and shadows ANS: A
REF: p. 311
15. Lighting in a person’s room is adjusted to meet: a. your needs. b. the person’s needs. c. the nurse’s needs. d. the needs of the health team. ANS: B
REF: p. 311
16. Persons with poor vision need: a. dull light. b. natural light. c. bright light. d. soft light. ANS: C
. 3S1T 1 REF: TpE
17. Which is an OBRA requirement for resident rooms? a. A phone in each room b. Shared closet space c. Beds which are electronically raised and lowered d. Appropriate lighting ANS: D
REF: p. 311
18. Electric bed controls do which of the following? a. Lock and unlock the bed wheels. b. Raise and lower the head of the bed. c. Move the bed from one area to another. d. Notify the nurse when the person is soiled. ANS: B
REF: p. 311
19. A resident has a manually operated bed. Which statement is correct? a. Hand cranks are at the head of the bed. b. The cranks are pushed down for use. c. The cranks are kept in the down position when not in use. d. The bed can be locked into a certain position. ANS: C
REF: p. 311
20. A resident has a manually operated bed. You want to raise the head of the bed. What do you
use? a. The left crank b. The right crank c. The center crank d. The hand controls ANS: A
REF: p. 311
21. Which bed position requires a doctor’s order? a. The flat position b. Fowler’s position c. Semi-Fowler’s position d. Trendelenburg’s position ANS: D
REF: p. 313
22. Which bed position requires a doctor’s order? a. Reverse Trendelenburg’s position b. Semi-Fowler’s position c. Fowler’s position d. The flat position ANS: A
REF: p. 313
23. In Trendelenburg’s position: a. the head of the bed is raised 30 degrees. TESTBANKSE b. the head of the bed is lowered and the foot of the bed is raised. c. the head of the bed is raised and the foot of the bed is lowered. d. the head of the bed is elevated 45 to 90 degrees. ANS: B
REF: p. 313
24. Persons at risk for entrapment within the hospital bed system include which of the following? a. Persons who are younger b. Persons with good muscle control c. Ambulatory persons who are alert and oriented d. Persons who are restrained ANS: D
REF: p. 315
25. Which statement about bed wheels is correct? a. Bed wheels are unlocked at all times except when moving the bed. b. Bed wheels must be unlocked when giving bedside care. c. Lock bed wheels when transferring a person to and from the bed. d. Bed wheels are unlocked when the bed is in the lowest horizontal position. ANS: C
REF: p. 313
26. You feel that a person is at risk for entrapment in the hospital bed system. What should you
do? a. Tell the person about your concern.
b. Report your concern to the nurse at once. c. Tell the person’s family. d. Report your concern to the person’s doctor. ANS: B
REF: p. 315
27. These statements are about over-bed tables. Which is correct? a. They can be used as a seat if lowered. b. They can be used for storage of dentures. c. You can place urinals and bedpans on them. d. They are used for meals. ANS: D
REF: p. 317
28. These statements are about over-bed tables. Which is correct? a. You can place soiled linen on them. b. Persons should not be allowed to use them for a work space. c. Never allow persons to store personal items in them. d. Only clean and sterile items are placed on them. ANS: D
REF: p. 317
29. Where are bedpans and urinals stored? a. In the lower shelf or bottom drawer of the bedside stand b. In the drawer of the over-bed table c. In closets d. Under the bed ANS: A
. 3S1T 7 REF: TpE
30. A resident brought a chair from home. The chair is unsafe if: a. it has armrests. b. it tips during transfers. c. it is comfortable for the person. d. the person can get into and out of it easily. ANS: B
REF: p. 317
31. You are going to help a resident get dressed. Which helps provide full visual privacy from the
person’s roommate? a. Closing window shades b. Pulling the privacy curtain around the person’s bed c. Closing the person’s room door d. Holding a bath blanket around the person ANS: B
REF: p. 317
32. Privacy curtains block: a. conversations from being heard. b. embarrassing odors. c. irritating noises. d. others from seeing the person.
ANS: D
REF: p. 317
33. A resident does not like the soap and shampoo provided by the center. She has her son buy
what she likes. Which statement is correct? a. She has to use the soap and shampoo provided by the center. b. She has the right to personal choice. c. You can pretend to use what she likes. d. Her items are kept in the closet. The center’s items are kept in the bedside stand. ANS: B
REF: p. 318
34. These statements are about the call system. Which is correct? a. The call light must be within the person’s reach when the person is ambulating. b. When the person signals for help, a signal is sent to the patient’s family. c. When the person signals for help, a light goes on above the room door. d. Bathrooms do not have call lights. Therefore, you need to stay with the person. ANS: C 35.
REF: p. 318-319
Which statement about call lights is correct? a. Keep the person’s call light within reach. b. Place the call light on the person’s weak side. c. Remind the person to use the call light only for emergencies. d. Answer call lights when you have time. ANS: A
REF: p. 318-319
36. The hospital has an intercom system between patient rooms and the nurses’ station. When
using the intercom system, you must be very careful to protect the person’s right to: a. personal choice. b. confidentiality. c. refuse treatment. d. informed consent. ANS: B
REF: p. 318-319
37. A patient had a stroke. The person’s left side is paralyzed. Where should you place the call
light? a. On the person’s left side b. On the person’s right side c. Wherever you can attach it d. Attached to the person’s pillow ANS: B
REF: p. 318-319
38. A resident has his call light on. When should you respond? a. As soon as you know the call light is on. b. When the nurse tells you to. c. When you are near the room. d. After you finish other care. ANS: A
REF: p. 318-319
39. A person receiving home care needs a way to call for help. Which is correct? a. A dinner bell or baby monitor can be used. b. Tell the person to shout loudly if he needs anything. c. Ask the person to hit the wall if he needs anything. d. Have the person raise his hand if he needs something. ANS: A
REF: p. 318-319
40. Which is a safety feature of patient and resident bathrooms? a. Towel racks b. Grab bars c. Lowered toilet seats d. Bathtubs with high sides ANS: B
REF: p. 320
41. These statements are about resident closets. Which is correct? a. The center is not required to provide each person with closet space. b. The person must have access to the closet and its contents once per day. c. Two residents can share the same closet space. d. Closet space includes shelves and a clothes rack. ANS: D
REF: p. 320
42. These statements are about resident closet and drawer space. Which is correct? a. You can search the person’s closet and drawers whenever you want to. b. Items in the closet and drawers are the center’s property. c. The person’s consent isTnEoS tT neBeA deNdKtoSsEeL arL chEcRlo.sC etO sM and drawers. d. The person is present when closets and drawers are inspected. ANS: D
REF: p. 320
43. Bariatric beds typically have which of the following features? a. A weight capacity of 250 to 500 pounds b. Front and rear egress positions c. A built-in scale d. One position only ANS: C
REF: p. 316
44. Part of your job is to maintain patient and resident units. Which of the following means that
you are doing your job? a. You keep the call light, over-bed table, and bedside stand within each person’s reach. b. You make sure that each person can reach the phone and light controls at least twice per day. c. You make sure that each person knows where the toilet paper is stored should he need extra. d. You adjust the room temperature for your comfort. ANS: A
REF: p. 309
45. You are straightening a person’s unit. What should you do?
a. b. c. d.
Rearrange the room. Discard papers, flowers, food, and other clutter. Empty the wastebasket daily. Adjust lighting for your comfort.
ANS: C
REF: p. 309
TRUE/FALSE 1. Entrapment within the hospital bed system is a risk. Serious injury and death have occurred
from head, neck, and chest entrapment. ANS: T
REF: p. 315
2. To prevent entrapment in cribs, the mattress and crib must be the same size. ANS: T
REF: p. 316
3. When providing care in the person’s home, full visual privacy is needed. ANS: T
REF: p. 317
Chapter 22: Bedmaking Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A clean, neat, wrinkle-free bed does which of the following? a. Increases the person’s comfort. b. Helps prevent nightmares. c. Aids in development of pressure injuries. d. Prevents incontinence. ANS: A
REF: p. 323
2. Which will keep beds neat and clean? a. Ask the person to wear a diaper to prevent accidents. b. Straighten loose or wrinkled linens once per day. c. Check for and remove food and crumbs at the end of the day. d. Change linens when they become wet, soiled, or damp. ANS: D
REF: p. 323
3. In nursing centers, a complete linen change is usually done: a. in the morning. b. before visitors arrive. c. when the person is up for the day. d. once or twice per week, on the person’s bath day. ANS: D
REF: p. 326
4. Linen changes in the home are usually done: a. in the morning. b. before visitors arrive. c. when the person is up for the day. d. once or twice per week, according to the person’s routine. ANS: D 5.
REF: p. 326
Linens are always changed: a. when loose or wrinkled. b. if there are crumbs. c. at bedtime. d. when wet, damp, soiled, or very wrinkled. ANS: D
REF: p. 326
6. When changing linens, you must follow: a. the material safety data sheet. b. Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. c. Standard Precautions and Transmission-Based Precautions. d. OBRA and OSHA standards. ANS: B
REF: p. 326
7. A resident is up all day. What kind of bed should you make? a. Closed bed b. Open bed c. Occupied bed d. Surgical bed ANS: A
REF: p. 323
8. A resident is not feeling well. The person will spend most of the day in bed. What kind of bed
should you make after the person’s bath? a. Closed bed b. Open bed c. Occupied bed d. Surgical bed ANS: B
REF: p. 323
9. A resident needed hospital care. The person will return to the nursing center by ambulance.
What kind of bed should you make? a. Closed bed b. Open bed c. Occupied bed d. Surgical bed ANS: D
REF: p. 323
10. When handling clean linenT s,EyS ouTB mA usNt K prSaE ctL icL e: a. medical asepsis. b. surgical asepsis. c. the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. d. OBRA. ANS: A 11.
REF: p. 324
Linens are held: a. with forceps. b. close to your body and uniform. c. away from your body and uniform. d. with gloves on. ANS: C
REF: p. 324
12. Clean linens are placed: a. on the floor. b. on top of used linens. c. under used linens. d. on a clean surface. ANS: D
REF: p. 324
13. Which spreads microorganisms? a. Shaking linens
b. Placing used linens in a laundry bag c. Rolling used linens away from you d. Practicing hand hygiene before handling clean linens ANS: A
REF: p. 324
14. You brought extra linen into a patient’s room. The extra linen is: a. stored in the person’s closet. b. placed in the bedside stand. c. used for the person’s roommate. d. considered contaminated. ANS: D
REF: p. 324
15. Which goes on the bed first? a. Bedspread b. Blanket c. Bottom sheet d. Drawsheet ANS: C
REF: p. 324
16. In hospitals, which is always part of a daily linen change? a. Bottom sheet b. Mattress pad c. Blanket d. Bedspread ANS: A
. 3S2T 5 REF: TpE
17. When removing used linens, you must wear: a. gloves. b. a gown. c. a face mask. d. goggles. ANS: A
REF: p. 325
18. You are removing used linens from a person’s bed. Which is correct? a. Remove all used linens at once. b. Roll each piece away from you. c. Keep the side that touched the person outside the roll. d. Place used linens on the floor. ANS: B
REF: p. 325
19. Which piece of linen is waterproof? a. Mattress pad b. Bottom sheet c. Plastic drawsheet d. Pillowcase ANS: C
REF: p. 326
20. A plastic drawsheet is used. It must: a. completely cover the bottom sheet. b. completely cover the cotton drawsheet. c. be completely covered by the cotton drawsheet. d. be completely covered by the bottom sheet. ANS: C
REF: p. 326
21. Plastic drawsheets can cause: a. incontinence. b. heat retention. c. a healthcare-associated infection. d. discomfort. ANS: D
REF: p. 326
22. Which can be used as an assist device to transfer a person in bed? a. Mattress pad b. Bottom sheet c. Plastic drawsheet d. Cotton drawsheet ANS: D
REF: p. 326
23. Which is a safety measure for making beds? a. Lower the bed for body mechanics. b. Wear gloves when removing linen from the person’s bed. TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. After making a bed, raise the bed to its highest position. d. After making an occupied bed, never raise the bed rails. ANS: B
REF: p. 326
24. You are going to make a bed. For good body mechanics, the bed is: a. in Fowler’s position. b. raised. c. locked into position. d. moved so you can reach it with ease. ANS: B
REF: p. 327
25. You brought 2 pillowcases into a resident’s room. The person uses 1 pillow. What should you
do with the other pillowcase? a. Return it to the linen supply. b. Leave it in the person’s room for another time. c. Take it to another resident’s room. d. Put it with the dirty laundry. ANS: D
REF: p. 327
26. Which linens must be tight and wrinkle-free? a. Bottom linens b. The blanket
c. The bedspread d. The pillowcase ANS: A
REF: p. 327
27. A plastic drawsheet should never touch the: a. bottom sheet. b. cotton drawsheet. c. top linens. d. person’s body. ANS: D
REF: p. 327
28. Linens are straightened and tightened: a. daily. b. after the bath or shower. c. at bedtime. d. whenever needed. ANS: D
REF: p. 327
29. Wet, damp, or soiled linens are changed: a. right away. b. after meals. c. after the shower or bath. d. each shift. ANS: A
REF: p. 327
30. You are going to make a patient’s bed. The nurse and care plan will give you which of the
following information? a. If the person uses bed rails. b. How to use good body mechanics? c. How many times per day the bed needs making? d. How many pillowcases are needed? ANS: A
REF: p. 328
31. A resident has a closed bed. How can you make an open bed for the person? a. Remove the linens. b. Make a cuff with the top sheet, blanket, and bedspread. c. Fan-fold back the top linen. d. Push the linens to the side so the person can crawl into the bed. ANS: C
REF: p. 332
32. The bottom sheet is placed on the bed correctly if: a. the hem-stitching is down. b. the hem-stitching is up. c. the top edge is even with the top of the mattress. d. it completely covers the plastic drawsheet. ANS: A
REF: p. 329
33. The top sheet is placed on the bed correctly if: a. the hem-stitching is down. b. the hem-stitching faces outward. c. the top edge is even with bottom of the mattress. d. it completely covers the plastic drawsheet. ANS: B
REF: p. 329
34. After making an occupied bed, you must: a. place the call light within the person’s reach. b. raise the bed. c. ask the nurse to check your work. d. fold back top linens. ANS: A
REF: p. 334
35. A person does not use bed rails. You need to make an occupied bed. For the person’s safety,
you should: a. raise the bed rails. b. keep the bed in low position. c. ask a co-worker to help you. d. make an open bed instead. ANS: C
REF: p. 333
36. You are beginning to make an occupied bed. You should position the person in: a. the supine position. b. the prone position. c. semi-Fowler’s position. d. lateral position. ANS: D
REF: p. 333-334
37. The nursing center has white, yellow, green, blue, and lilac-colored linens. What color should
you use for a male resident? a. White b. Green or blue c. Yellow or lilac d. Whatever color the person chooses ANS: D
REF: p. 337
38. A resident brought a pillow from home. Which is correct? a. The person needs to bring a pillowcase, too. b. The person must use a pillow provided by the nursing center. c. The person has the right to use the pillow. d. The pillow must have a safety check by the maintenance department. ANS: C
REF: p. 337
39. You are making a surgical bed for a patient returning from surgery. Which is correct? a. A complete linen change is needed.
b. After making the bed, leave the bed in the lowest position. c. After making the bed, leave both bed rails up. d. Attach the call light to the bed. ANS: A
REF: p. 336
TRUE/FALSE 1. A plastic trash bag can be used as a mattress protector. ANS: F
REF: p. 326
Chapter 23: Oral Hygiene Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Oral hygiene does which of the following? a. Increases oral pain. b. Decreases the ability to taste food. c. Reduces the risk of cavities and periodontal disease. d. Promotes the buildup of plaque and tartar. ANS: C
REF: p. 340
2. Inflammation of the tissues around the teeth is: a. periodontal disease. b. plaque. c. oral hygiene. d. tartar. ANS: A
REF: p. 340
3. A patient is receiving oxygen therapy. You know that the person needs frequent oral hygiene
because of: a. dry mouth. b. a bad taste in the mouth. c. plaque. d. tartar. ANS: A
REF: p. 339
4. Flossing begins: a. when two baby teeth touch. b. when all permanent teeth have erupted. c. when the child starts school. d. during the teenage years. ANS: A
REF: p. 340
5. Flossing is usually done: a. before breakfast. b. after each meal. c. after brushing teeth. d. before bathing. ANS: C
REF: p. 341
6. A resident wants to brush his teeth before lunch. What should you do? a. Help him as needed. b. Tell him that oral hygiene is done after meals. c. Ask the nurse if he can have oral hygiene at this time. d. Check his care plan.
ANS: A
REF: p. 341
7. A resident has the following oral hygiene equipment. Which should you report to the nurse? a. Toothpaste b. Dental floss c. Hard-bristled toothbrush d. Mouthwash ANS: C
REF: p. 341
8. A resident has a lower denture. The person needs which of the following? a. Sponge swabs b. Regular toothpaste c. Glue d. A denture brush ANS: D
REF: p. 346
9. Before using a sponge swab, you need to: a. check the care plan. b. make sure the foam pad is tight on the stick. c. make sure it has soft bristles. d. read the manufacturer’s instructions. ANS: B
REF: p. 345
10. When giving oral hygiene, you need to wear: a. gloves. b. a gown. c. a mask. d. a face shield. ANS: A
REF: p. 347
11. A patient needs oral hygiene. The nurse and care plan tell you which of the following? a. How many teeth the person has? b. What time to give the oral hygiene? c. How much help the person needs? d. How to give oral hygiene? ANS: C
REF: p. 341
12. You need to brush a person’s teeth. When brushing the unconscious person’s teeth, you: a. position the brush at a 45-degree angle to the gums. b. brush from the crown to the gum. c. use sponge swabs. d. turn the person’s head well to the side. ANS: D
REF: p. 345
13. When flossing the person’s teeth, you need to: a. use sponge swabs.
b. break off an 18-inch piece of dental floss from the dispenser. c. give the floss dispenser to the person to tear their own floss. d. use the bristles of the toothbrush to floss in between teeth. ANS: B
REF: p. 341
14. When flossing, you should: a. move to a new section of floss after every second tooth. b. start on the left side and work your way around to the right side. c. tear off a new piece of floss for the upper set of teeth after flossing the lower set. d. start at the lower teeth. ANS: A
REF: p. 343
15. You finish brushing a resident’s teeth. What should you do next? a. Let the person rinse his mouth with water. b. Floss his teeth. c. Let him use mouthwash. d. Brush his tongue. ANS: D
REF: p. 343
16. Flossing removes which of the following? a. Cavities b. Enamel c. Food from between the teeth d. Food from the surfaces of the teeth ANS: C
. 3S4T 1 REF: TpE
17. A resident flosses once a day. When is the best time to floss? a. In the morning b. After meals c. Whenever the person feels like it d. At bedtime ANS: C
REF: p. 341
18. To floss teeth, the floss is moved: a. left to right. b. right to left. c. up and down. d. side to side. ANS: C
REF: p. 342
19. A patient is unconscious. To give the person mouth care, you need to use: a. a toothbrush. b. mouthwash. c. sponge swabs. d. a denture brush. ANS: C
REF: p. 344-345
20. You need to give a person oral hygiene. Because the person is unconscious, she is at risk for: a. periodontal disease. b. plaque. c. tartar. d. aspiration. ANS: D
REF: p. 344-345
21. A patient is unconscious. How should you position the person for oral hygiene? a. In Fowler’s position b. In the supine position c. In a side-lying position d. In the prone position ANS: C
REF: p. 344-345
22. A patient is unconscious. To keep the person’s mouth open during oral hygiene, you need to
use: a. sponge swabs. b. a padded tongue blade. c. your fingers. d. an orange stick. ANS: B
REF: p. 344-345
23. A patient is unconscious. You need to assume that the person can: a. hear you. b. see you. c. respond to you. d. smell. ANS: A
REF: p. 344-345
24. A patient is unconscious. The person needs mouth care: a. at least every 2 hours. b. during AM and PM care. c. before and after meals. d. daily. ANS: A
REF: p. 344-345
25. A resident has a lower denture. To clean the denture, you need to: a. line the sink with a towel. b. clean it over the kidney basin. c. use very hot water. d. use toothpaste and a toothbrush. ANS: A
REF: p. 347
26. A resident does not wear her lower denture for sleep. What should you do with the lower
denture? a. Store it in the denture cup filled with hot water.
b. Store it in the denture cup filled with cool or warm water. c. Put it in the top drawer of her bedside stand. d. Wrap it in a napkin and set it on the over-bed table within her reach. ANS: B
REF: p. 347
27. A resident’s denture cup must be labeled with the person’s name and: a. room and bed number. b. doctor’s name. c. diagnosis. d. the center’s name and address. ANS: A
REF: p. 347
28. You need to remove a resident’s lower denture. What should you use? a. Gauze squares b. A washcloth c. An orange stick d. A padded tongue blade ANS: A
REF: p. 347
29. A resident uses a cleaning agent for his denture. When using the cleaning agent, you should: a. use hot water. b. use cool water. c. follow the manufacturer’s instructions. d. ask the person what to do. ANS: C
. 3S4T 7 REF: TpE
30. Which statement about dentures is correct? a. They are slippery when wet. b. They are durable and are typically unharmed if dropped onto a hard surface. c. They warp in cool water. d. They are the center’s property. ANS: A
REF: p. 347
TRUE/FALSE 1. Infants do not need oral hygiene until the first tooth erupts. ANS: F
REF: p. 340
Chapter 24: Daily Hygiene and Bathing Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Early morning care is: a. also known as daily care. b. given before breakfast. c. given after breakfast. d. given before lunch. ANS: B
REF: p. 351
2. PM care is given: a. at bedtime. b. after the evening meal. c. at hour seven. d. in a hot shower. ANS: A
REF: p. 351
3. Cleansing the genital and anal areas is: a. incontinent care. b. perineal care. c. personal hygiene. d. genital and anal care. ANS: B
REF: p. 351
4. Which will influence hygiene choices? a. The person’s care plan b. The person’s culture c. The person’s family d. The skin care products available ANS: B
REF: p. 351
5. To meet a person’s hygiene needs, you need to: a. follow the person’s care plan. b. review the person’s medical record. c. ask the person what to do. d. check the person’s ID bracelet. ANS: A
REF: p. 351
6. You assist a patient or resident with hygiene needs: a. during morning care. b. during evening care. c. during afternoon care. d. whenever necessary. ANS: D
REF: p. 353
7. Early morning care usually involves which of the following? a. Preparing persons for naps b. Cleaning eyeglasses c. Cleaning incontinent persons and changing wet or soiled linen d. Giving back massages ANS: C
REF: p. 354
8. Early morning care usually involves which of the following? a. Assisting with dressing and hair care b. Helping persons change into sleepwear c. Storing eyeglasses in containers d. Straightening units ANS: A
REF: p. 354
9. Morning care generally involves which of the following? a. Assisting the person with putting his or her eyeglasses on b. Preparing the person for naps c. Hair care, shaving, and dressing d. Helping the person change to sleepwear ANS: C
REF: p. 354
10. Afternoon care generally involves which of the following? a. Making the person’s bed b. Cleaning incontinent persons and changing wet or soiled linens TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Cleaning eyeglasses d. Straightening beds and units ANS: B
REF: p. 354
11. Evening care generally involves which of the following? a. Cleaning eyeglasses b. Making the person’s bed c. Giving back massages d. Assisting with activity ANS: C
REF: p. 354
12. Bathing does which of the following? a. Decreases circulation. b. Exercises body parts. c. Excites the person. d. Places oils in the person’s skin. ANS: B
REF: p. 353
13. Bathing method, time, and frequency are: a. decided by the nurse. b. matters of personal choice. c. ordered by the doctor.
d. decided by the health team. ANS: B
REF: p. 353
14. Which skin care product tends to dry the skin? a. Soap b. Bath oil c. Lotion d. Powder ANS: A
REF: p. 354-355
15. Older persons usually need a complete bath: a. daily. b. twice a week. c. three times a week. d. every other day. ANS: B
REF: p. 355
16. Which skin care products help keep the skin soft? a. Soaps b. Bath oils c. Powders d. Deodorants and antiperspirants ANS: B
REF: p. 354-355
17. A resident is unconscious. T YEoS uT arB eA goNiK ngStE oL giLvE eR th. eC peOrM son a complete bed bath. Before you
start the bath, you do which of the following? a. Open the room door so others will know where you are. b. Close the privacy curtain. c. Open the person’s window for fresh air. d. Open the shades to add light to the room. ANS: B
REF: p. 358
18. Bath water for complete baths should be maintained at what temperature? a. Between 110° and 115° F b. At least 100° F c. No more than 110° F d. Between 100° and 110° F ANS: A
REF: p. 358
19. You need to bathe a person with dementia. Which is correct? a. Decrease the room temperature before starting the bath. b. Avoid telling the person what you are going to do. c. Refrain from letting the person help. d. Handle the person gently. ANS: D
REF: p. 355
20. Bar soap is used for a resident’s bath. Between latherings, soap is: a. placed in a soap dish. b. left in the basin. c. placed on a paper towel. d. kept in your hand. ANS: A
REF: p. 362
21. You just finished a resident’s bath. You note that the person is incontinent of urine. What
should you do? a. Bathe affected skin areas again. b. Tell the nurse. c. Pat the area dry. d. Tell the next shift. ANS: A
REF: p. 367
22. After a resident’s bath, the nurse wants you to apply lotion to the person’s elbows, knees, and
heels. Lotion is applied to: a. prevent burns. b. promote comfort. c. keep the skin soft. d. prevent infection. ANS: C
REF: p. 355
23. After a resident’s bath, the nurse wants you to apply powder under the person’s breasts. The
powder is used to: a. protect the skin from drying. b. absorb moisture and prevent friction. c. clean the skin. d. mask and control body odors. ANS: B
REF: p. 355
24. Powder is applied: a. in a thin, even layer. b. in a thick layer. c. under the arms. d. by sprinkling it on. ANS: A
REF: p. 355
25. You are going to assist a patient with his bath. Before doing so, you need which of the
following information? a. What time to give the bath? b. How to use the skin products? c. His activity and position limits? d. How to apply lotion and powder? ANS: C
REF: p. 356
26. You are bathing a patient. You note a reddened area on the person’s left shoulder. What
should you do? a. Massage the area during the back massage. b. Report the observation to the nurse. c. Apply powder to the site. d. Rub the area. ANS: B
REF: p. 356
27. You note the following while bathing a resident. Which of the following would you need to
report? a. Moist skin b. Soft feet and ankles c. A bruise on the person’s right thigh d. Areas of intact skin ANS: C
REF: p. 356
28. When giving a complete bed bath, you start with the person’s: a. face. b. arms. c. chest. d. perineum. ANS: A
REF: p. 358
29. When giving a complete bed bath, you need to use: a. mitted washcloth. b. towelettes. c. swabs. d. sponge. ANS: A
REF: p. 358
30. You will use soap for a patient’s bath. Soap is not used to wash: a. around the eyes. b. the underarms. c. the chest, abdomen, and back. d. the perineal area. ANS: A
REF: p. 358
31. When drying a person, you need to: a. pat dry. b. rub vigorously. c. use long, firm strokes. d. use circular motions. ANS: A
REF: p. 354
32. You are bathing a patient. You are ready to wash the person’s arms, chest, and abdomen.
Which do you wash first? a. The far arm
b. The near arm c. The chest d. The abdomen ANS: A
REF: p. 358
33. You are bathing a patient. Bath water is changed: a. after washing the person’s hands. b. after washing the person’s face. c. before and after perineal care. d. before washing the person’s chest. ANS: C
REF: p. 359
34. You are bathing a patient. Gloves are always worn to wash the person’s: a. face. b. arms, chest, and abdomen. c. legs and back. d. perineal area. ANS: D
REF: p. 359
35. The partial bath involves washing the: a. face, hands, underarms, feet, and perineal area. b. face, hands, underarms, back, buttocks, and perineal area. c. face, hands, underarms, feet, buttocks, and perineal area. d. face, hands, underarms, and feet. ANS: B
. 3S6T 0-B 36A1 REF: TpE
36. A resident wants a partial bath today. What should you do? a. Explain that the person needs a shower. b. Assist as needed. c. Let the person provide self-care. d. Check with the nurse. ANS: B
REF: p. 360-361
37. A resident wants a partial bath. How should you position the person? a. In the supine position b. In Fowler’s position or sitting c. In a side-lying position d. In Sims’ position or prone ANS: B
REF: p. 360-361
38. A resident is set up to give herself a partial bath. Before leaving the room, you must make
sure that: a. her wheelchair wheels are locked. b. her call light is within reach. c. she can reach all body parts. d. she is wearing her eyeglasses and hearing aid.
ANS: B
REF: p. 360-361
39. A tub bath lasts no longer than: a. 10 minutes. b. 15 minutes. c. 20 minutes. d. 30 minutes. ANS: C
REF: p. 362-363
40. When using a portable tub, whirlpool equipment, or shower chairs, you must: a. follow the manufacturer’s instructions. b. lock the wheels. c. use a transfer belt. d. wear gloves. ANS: A
REF: p. 362-363
41. Patients and residents who take tub baths and showers are at risk for: a. infection. b. burns and falls. c. fainting. d. chills and skin breakdown. ANS: B
REF: p. 362-363
42. You are transporting a person to and from a tub or shower room. You must: a. lock the wheels. b. provide for privacy. c. use a transfer belt. d. use safety straps. ANS: B
REF: p. 362-363
43. A shower room has two stalls. To protect the person’s privacy, you must: a. close doors and the privacy curtain. b. cover the person with a bath blanket. c. have the person wear a robe. d. wait until both stalls are free. ANS: A
REF: p. 364
44. Water temperature for a tub bath is usually: a. 110° to 115° F. b. 110° to 120° F. c. 105° F. d. 105° to 109° F. ANS: C
REF: p. 365
45. A resident is done taking a tub bath. When should you assist the person out of the tub? a. Before draining the tub b. While the tub drains
c. After the tub drains d. Whenever the person is ready to get out ANS: C
REF: p. 365
46. To prevent the spread of infection when the person takes a shower, you should: a. have the person wear slip-resistant footwear. b. clean and disinfect the shower before and after use. c. wear gloves. d. wear a gown, mask, and gloves. ANS: B
REF: p. 365
47. These statements are about showers and tub baths. Which is correct? a. The person is covered for warmth and privacy. b. Bath oils should be added to the tub water. c. You must stay on the same floor while the person is taking a bath. d. You can leave weak or unsteady persons alone as long as you stay within hearing
distance. ANS: A
REF: p. 365
48. Perineal care does which of the following? a. Spreads infection. b. Prevents cancer. c. Promotes comfort. d. Prevents burns. ANS: C
. 3S6T 6 REF: TpE
49. When giving perineal care, you start at the: a. urethra. b. anus. c. penis. d. labia. ANS: A
REF: p. 366
50. Water temperature for perineal care is usually: a. 110° to 115° F. b. 110° to 120° F. c. 105° F. d. 105° to 109° F. ANS: D
REF: p. 368
51. Perineal care is given: a. whenever the area is soiled with urine or feces. b. only during the bath. c. if the person can perform self-care. d. whenever you have time to get to it. ANS: A
REF: p. 366
52. When giving perineal care: a. upward strokes are used (rectal area to urethra). b. a clean part of the washcloth is used for each stroke. c. the rectal area is washed first. d. bath oil is used. ANS: B
REF: p. 366
53. A male resident is not circumcised. When giving perineal care, you need to: a. retract the foreskin. b. separate the labia. c. start at the rectum. d. use firm, upward strokes. ANS: A
REF: p. 370
54. To clean the tip of the penis, you use: a. circular motions. b. firm, upward strokes. c. firm, downward strokes. d. short strokes. ANS: A
REF: p. 370
55. A male resident is uncircumcised. After cleaning his penis, you must: a. release the labia. b. return the foreskin to its natural position. TESTBANKSEL c. lower his legs. d. clean the rectal area. ANS: B
REF: p. 370
TRUE/FALSE 1. Bathing procedures can threaten persons with dementia. ANS: T
REF: p. 355
Chapter 25: Grooming Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Excessive body hair is: a. alopecia. b. dandruff. c. pediculosis. d. hirsutism. ANS: D 2.
REF: p. 375
Hair loss is: a. alopecia. b. dandruff. c. pediculosis. d. hirsutism. ANS: A
REF: p. 375
3. Pediculosis capitis is an infestation of lice on the: a. scalp. b. body. c. pubic hair. d. buttocks. ANS: A
REF: p. 375
4. Which is a sign or symptom of lice? a. Fever b. Complaints of something moving in the hair c. Oily hair d. Scaling skin ANS: B
REF: p. 376
5. Scabies is a skin disease caused by a female mite. Which is correct? a. Scabies is self-contained and not contagious. b. The person could die. c. Special creams are ordered to kill the mites. d. Clothing and linens are burned to kill the mites. ANS: C
REF: p. 376
6. An excessive amount of dry, white flakes from the scalp is: a. alopecia. b. dandruff. c. pediculosis. d. hirsutism. ANS: B
REF: p. 376
7. Who chooses how a person’s hair is styled? a. The nurse b. The health team c. The family d. The person ANS: D
REF: p. 377
8. Brushing and combing hair are done: a. during early morning care. b. during morning care. c. during afternoon care. d. All are correct. ANS: D
REF: p. 377
9. Brushing keeps hair soft and shiny because: a. circulation to the scalp increases. b. scalp oils are brought along the hair shaft. c. mats and tangles are prevented. d. lice are removed. ANS: B
REF: p. 377
10. When brushing hair that is not matted or tangled, you start at the: a. scalp. b. forehead. c. back of the head. d. hair ends. ANS: A
REF: p. 377
11. Which type of hair tends to mat and tangle? a. Long hair b. Curly hair c. Short hair d. Coarse hair ANS: A
REF: p. 377
12. Which prevents matting and tangling? a. Daily brushing and combing b. Daily shampooing c. Hair conditioner d. Cutting hair ANS: A
REF: p. 377
13. A person’s hair is matted and tangled. What should you do? a. Braid the person’s hair. b. Cut the person’s hair. c. Tell the nurse.
d. Shampoo the person’s hair. ANS: C
REF: p. 377
14. A person has curly hair. What should you use for hair care? a. A hand-held nozzle b. A brush with sharp bristles c. A comb with sharp teeth d. A wide-toothed comb ANS: D
REF: p. 377
15. A patient has small braids. Which is correct? a. The person’s consent is needed to undo the braids. b. The braids are removed for shampooing. c. Small braids increase the chances of infection. d. Braids must be removed weekly. ANS: A
REF: p. 377
16. When combing curly hair, you start at the: a. the neckline. b. the hair ends. c. the scalp. d. the forehead. ANS: A
REF: p. 377
AoNuKjS 17. A resident needs her hair bT ruEsS heTdB .Y usEt L chLaE ngRe. dC heOrMpillowcase. What should you do? a. Ask her to wait until she is in the bathroom. b. Place a towel across her pillow. c. Change the pillowcase again. d. Comb her hair instead of brushing it. ANS: B
REF: p. 379
18. You assist a person with hair care. You need to report which of the following? a. Coarse hair b. Scalp sores c. Curly hair d. Dry hair ANS: B
REF: p. 379
19. A resident’s hairbrush has very sharp bristles. You are concerned that it could injure the
person’s scalp. What should you do? a. Ask the person’s family to buy a different hairbrush. b. Throw the hairbrush away and use a comb. c. Tell the nurse about your concerns. d. Ask the person if you should continue to use the hairbrush. ANS: C
REF: p. 379
20. To give hair care, you begin by parting the hair into: a. 2 sections. b. 3 sections. c. 4 sections. d. 5 sections. ANS: A
REF: p. 379
21. A male resident is 86 years old. How often is his hair washed? a. At least once a month b. Daily c. Three times a week d. As often as he chooses ANS: D
REF: p. 380
22. A resident gets her hair done in the beauty salon. During her shower, her hair is protected with
a: a. b. c. d.
towel. bath blanket. shower cap. hand-held nozzle.
ANS: C
REF: p. 381
23. A resident has limited range of motion in his neck. What shampooing method is best for him? a. Shampooing during his shower b. Shampooing at the sink c. Shampooing on a stretcher d. Have the hair shaved so that it does not have to be shampooed ANS: A
REF: p. 380
24. When shampooing a person in bed, you need a: a. a shampoo tray and waterproof pad. b. a hand-held nozzle. c. a stretcher. d. a hair dryer. ANS: A
REF: p. 380
25. The shampoo method used depends on which of the following? a. Whether or not the person has braids. b. How many persons need shampooing that day? c. How much time you have? d. Personal choice. ANS: D
REF: p. 380
26. A person uses a medicated shampoo. What should you do with the shampoo after washing the
person’s hair? a. Place it in the bedside stand. b. Place it on the over-bed table.
c. Leave it in the bathroom. d. Give it to the nurse. ANS: D 27.
REF: p. 381
To prevent shampoo from getting into the person’s eyes: the person is shampooed at the sink or on a stretcher. a hand-held nozzle is used. the hair is rinsed thoroughly. the person holds a washcloth over the eyes.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: D
REF: p. 382
28. The nurse asks you to use a hair conditioner on a person’s hair. To use the hair conditioner
correctly, you must: a. follow the nurse’s directions. b. follow the directions on the container. c. ask the person what to do. d. rinse thoroughly. ANS: B
REF: p. 382
29. A patient has scalp sores. When shampooing the person’s hair, you need to: a. use a hand-held nozzle. b. wear gloves. c. shampoo the person at the sink. d. use a medicated shampoo and conditioner. ANS: B
. 3S7T 8 REF: TpE
30. A resident has dementia. To shave the person’s face, you need to use: a. a razor blade. b. a safety razor. c. an electric shaver. d. a blade shaver. ANS: C
REF: p. 383
31. When shaving legs, you start at the: a. knee. b. thigh. c. ankle. d. calf. ANS: C
REF: p. 383
32. When shaving the face and underarms: a. shave in the direction of hair growth. b. shave in the direction opposite hair growth. c. shave from left to right. d. shave from right to left. ANS: A
REF: p. 383
33. A center’s electric shaver is used to shave several men. The shaver is cleaned: a. daily. b. every shift. c. before and after each use. d. after all the men are shaved. ANS: C
REF: p. 383
34. A patient receives anticoagulant drugs. To shave the person’s face, you need to use: a. a razor blade. b. a safety razor. c. an electric shaver. d. a blade shaver. ANS: C
REF: p. 383
35. Shaving is done: a. when the skin is soft. b. after the skin dries completely. c. at bedtime. d. before the bath. ANS: A
REF: p. 383
36. Disposable shavers are discarded: a. into the wastebasket. b. into a sharps container. c. with used linen. d. after 3 uses. ANS: B
REF: p. 384
37. Which are risks when using a blade razor? a. Nicks and cuts b. Irritated skin and rashes c. Sores d. Pediculosis corporis ANS: A
REF: p. 383
38. When shaving a person, you must follow: a. Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. b. surgical asepsis. c. OBRA regulations. d. accrediting agency standards. ANS: A
REF: p. 384
39. Before shaving a man’s face with a safety razor, you need to do which of the following? a. Put on gloves. b. Apply a cold washcloth to his face. c. Apply lotion on the face.
d. Dry the face thoroughly. ANS: A
REF: p. 384
40. You are shaving a person’s face with a safety razor. Which kinds of strokes do you use around
his chin and lips? a. Short strokes b. Long strokes c. Left-to-right strokes d. Right-to-left strokes ANS: A
REF: p. 384
41. You nick a person’s face. What should you do? a. Apply direct pressure to the bleeding site. b. Call for the nurse. c. Apply a Band-Aid. d. Wait for the bleeding to stop. ANS: B
REF: p. 384
42. Beards and mustaches need: a. daily washing and combing. b. care before meals. c. care at bedtime. d. weekly shampooing. ANS: A
REF: p. 385
43. A resident has a beard. His beard is trimmed: a. daily. b. weekly. c. when the nurse thinks it is too long. d. only with his consent. ANS: D
REF: p. 385
44. Foot care is important because: a. of poor circulation to the feet and legs. b. of diabetes and vascular disease. c. it helps prevent infection, injury, and odors. d. gangrene and amputation can occur. ANS: C
REF: p. 385
45. Long or broken nails are dangerous because they: a. can scratch the skin. b. cause infection. c. cause blisters. d. lead to gangrene. ANS: A
REF: p. 385
46. Dirty feet, socks, or stockings can harbor microbes and cause: a. foot odors. b. blisters. c. foot injuries. d. gangrene. ANS: A
REF: p. 385
47. When giving nail care, you use which of the following? a. Scissors b. Razor blade c. Pumice stone d. Orange stick or nail file ANS: D
REF: p. 386
48. Fingernails are: a. cut with scissors. b. clipped in a rounded shape. c. clipped straight across. d. always clipped by an RN. ANS: C
REF: p. 386
49. Nursing assistants are able to: a. shave the dead skin off of the heel. b. file fingernails. c. cut toenails if a personThE asSdTiaBbA etN esK. d. remove an ingrown toenail. ANS: B
REF: p. 386
50. When giving nail and foot care, the nails usually soak for: a. 5 to 10 minutes. b. 10 to 15 minutes. c. 15 to 20 minutes. d. 20 to 25 minutes. ANS: A
REF: p. 387
51. When giving nail and foot care, the nurse and care plan tell you which of the following? a. What color nail polish to use b. When to soak the feet and fingernails c. What observations to report and record d. How to assist the podiatrist ANS: C
REF: p. 387
52. What do you use to clean under fingernails? a. Scissors b. Nail clippers c. An emery board d. An orange stick
ANS: D
REF: p. 387
53. Nails are shaped with: a. Scissors b. Nail clippers c. An emery board d. An orange stick ANS: C
REF: p. 387
54. When giving foot care, you must: a. Support the person’s foot and ankle b. Soak the feet for 30 minutes c. Use scissors d. Position the person in the supine position ANS: A
REF: p. 387
55. When giving foot care, you must: a. Thoroughly wash, rinse, and dry between the toes b. Clip toenails straight across c. Shape nails d. Apply powder between the toes ANS: A
REF: p. 387
TRUE/FALSE 1. Women in nursing centers may shave their legs and underarms. ANS: T
REF: p. 383
Chapter 26: Dressing and Undressing Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. You are assisting a person to dress. Which is correct? a. The person chooses what to wear. b. You decide what the person should wear. c. The nurse tells you what the person should wear. d. The family decides what the person should wear. ANS: A
REF: p. 391
2. You are assisting a person to dress. Which is correct? a. Provide for privacy. b. Choose what the person should wear. c. Ask the person to allow you to do as much as possible. d. Have the person use the towel bar for assistance with putting pants on. ANS: A 3.
REF: p. 391
When removing clothing, which is correct? a. It is removed from the strong side first. b. It is removed from the weak side first. c. Pullover garments are removed first. d. Garments that open in the front are removed first. ANS: A
REF: p. 391
4. When putting on clothing, clothing is put on: a. the strong side first. b. the weak side first. c. in the order the person prefers. d. in the order directed by the nurse. ANS: B
REF: p. 391
5. A resident with dementia is having problems dressing. Which measure will help? a. Ask the person to allow you to dress him or her. b. Let the person choose what to wear from 2 or 3 outfits. c. Have the person pick out his or her clothes from his or her dresser of clothes. d. Complete the process as quickly as possible. ANS: B
REF: p. 392
6. A person has an IV. When changing the person’s gown, you first: a. remove the gown from the arm with no IV. b. remove the gown from the arm with the IV. c. remove the IV. d. ask the person what she wants to wear. ANS: A
REF: p. 397-398
7. When changing the gown of a person with an IV, you keep the IV bag: a. hanging on the IV pole. b. below the person. c. above the person. d. on the bed. ANS: A
REF: p. 397-398
8. A person has an IV. When putting on the clean gown, you first put the clean gown: a. on the arm with the IV. b. on the arm without the IV. c. over the person’s head. d. so the ties are in the front. ANS: A
REF: p. 397-398
9. A resident has an IV in his right arm. He wears a standard gown. He has an IV pump. Which
is correct? a. Put his gown on the right arm first and then on the left arm. b. Put his gown on the left arm first and then on the right arm. c. His right arm is not put through the sleeve of the gown. d. The gown is put on so the ties are in the front. ANS: C
REF: p. 397-398
10. Before assisting with dressing and undressing, you need which of the following information
from the nurse and the careTpElaSnT? a. What color of clothes you should choose for the person? b. What time you should dress the person? c. What observations to report and record? d. How to use body mechanics? ANS: C
REF: p. 392
Chapter 27: Urinary Needs Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Dysuria means: a. sugar in the urine. b. blood in the urine. c. a scant amount of urine. d. painful or difficult urination. ANS: D
REF: p. 400
2. Nocturia means: a. painful or difficult urination. b. frequent urination at night. c. the production of abnormally large amounts of urine. d. voiding or micturition. ANS: B
REF: p. 400
3. Hematuria means: a. sugar in the urine. b. blood in the urine. c. scant amount of urine. d. difficult or painful urination. ANS: B
REF: p. 400
4. A resident has control of her bladder. She cannot get to the bathroom in time because her call
light was not answered promptly. She is incontinent of urine. This is: a. functional incontinence. b. mixed incontinence. c. overflow incontinence. d. stress incontinence. ANS: A
REF: p. 400
5. The leakage of urine from a bladder that is always full is: a. functional incontinence. b. mixed incontinence. c. overflow incontinence. d. stress incontinence. ANS: C
REF: p. 400
6. The loss of urine at predictable intervals when the bladder is full is: a. overflow incontinence. b. stress incontinence. c. reflex incontinence. d. urinary incontinence.
ANS: C
REF: p. 400
7. The loss of urine with exercise and certain movements is: a. overflow incontinence. b. reflex incontinence. c. urge incontinence. d. stress incontinence. ANS: D
REF: p. 400
8. The loss of urine in response to a sudden, urgent need to void is: a. overflow incontinence. b. reflex incontinence. c. urge incontinence. d. stress incontinence. ANS: C
REF: p. 400
9. The involuntary loss of urine is: a. urinary urgency. b. urinary frequency. c. urinary incontinence. d. urge incontinence. ANS: C
REF: p. 400
10. Oliguria is: a. a scant amount of urineT. b. the production of abnormally large amounts of urine. c. the need to void at once. d. voiding at frequent intervals. ANS: A
REF: p. 400
11. The urinary system removes: a. solid wastes. b. carbon dioxide. c. sweat. d. waste products from the blood. ANS: D
REF: p. 400
12. Which of the following causes the body to increase urine production? a. Salt b. Coffee c. Exercise d. Sodium ANS: B
REF: p. 401
13. The healthy adult produces: a. 1500 mL of urine each shift.
b. 1500 mL of urine a day. c. 1000 mL of urine each shift. d. 1000 mL of urine a day. ANS: B
REF: p. 401
14. Which of the following terms means “the process of emptying the bladder”? a. Purging b. Defecating c. Nocturia d. Voiding ANS: D
REF: p. 401
15. Healthy infants produce: a. 100 to 200 mL of urine a day. b. 200 to 300 mL of urine a day. c. 300 to 400 mL of urine a day. d. about 500 mL of urine a day. ANS: B
REF: p. 402
16. You are assisting with urinary elimination needs. You do which of the following? a. Open the person’s door so that you can hear him. b. Decide what times you will take the person to the toilet for the day. c. Place the call light and toilet tissue within reach. d. Stay with the person in case the person needs you. ANS: C
. 4S0T 1 REF: TpE
17. After urinating, the person is: a. assisted with hand-washing. b. transferred back to bed. c. given fluids. d. screened with the privacy curtain. ANS: A
REF: p. 401
18. A resident asks for help to the bathroom. What should you do? a. Assist the person to the bathroom as requested. b. Offer the person the bedpan. c. Ask the person to wait a few minutes until you finish a task. d. Assist the person to the commode. ANS: A
REF: p. 402
19. Normal urine has: a. A faint odor. b. A strong odor. c. A sweet odor. d. An ammonia odor. ANS: A
REF: p. 402
20. Which of the following should you report to the nurse? a. Pale yellow urine b. Straw-colored urine c. Red-colored urine d. Amber-colored urine ANS: C
REF: p. 402
21. Which do men use for urinating? a. Bedpans b. Fracture pans c. Urinals d. Commodes ANS: C
REF: p. 406
22. You assist a patient onto the bedpan. How should you position the person? a. In a sitting position b. On the person’s left side c. On the person’s right side d. Supine ANS: D
REF: p. 404
23. A patient finished urinating. The person cannot clean her genital area. You need to do which
of the following? a. Wipe her from back to front. TEST b. Use fresh tissue for each wipe. c. Ask her to try anyway. d. Wear sterile gloves. ANS: B
REF: p. 404
24. A filled urinal presents safety hazards because: a. it is easily spilled. b. it is a source of odors. c. it is an unpleasant sight. d. it needs to be emptied. ANS: A
REF: p. 406
25. A man is going to use the urinal. What should he do with the urinal when he is done? a. Place it on the bedside stand. b. Place it on the over-bed table. c. Hang it on the bed rail. d. Lay it on the bed. ANS: C
REF: p. 406
26. A fracture pan is used for which of the following reasons? a. The person prefers not to get up. b. The person has limited back motion.
c. The person will soon have hip replacement surgery. d. The person is incontinent. ANS: B
REF: p. 403
27. After a person uses the commode, the container is: a. thoroughly cleaned and disinfected. b. discarded and replaced with a new one. c. hung on the bed rail. d. placed in the bedside stand. ANS: A
REF: p. 409
28. These statements are about using commodes. Which is correct? a. Wheels are unlocked after the commode is positioned over the toilet. b. Commodes are always used in the bathroom. c. The person needs to wear soft socks to the commode. d. The person is assisted with hand-washing after using the commode. ANS: D
REF: p. 408
29. A patient has incontinence. The nurse asks you to do the following. Which task is
appropriate? a. Record every other voiding. b. Follow the person’s bladder training program. c. Have the person wear garments that have buttons and zippers. d. Increase the person’s fluid intake before bedtime. ANS: B
. 4S1T 1 REF: TpE
30. A patient has incontinence. The person uses incontinence products. To properly use the
products, you need to: a. follow the care plan. b. follow the manufacturer’s instructions. c. ask the person what to do. d. provide perineal care. ANS: B
REF: p. 411
31. A resident has incontinence. Dry garments and linens are provided: a. every shift. b. every day. c. in the morning and at bedtime. d. whenever necessary. ANS: D
REF: p. 411
32. A resident has incontinence. You must: a. answer the person’s call light promptly. b. place toilet tissue within the person’s reach. c. teach the person pelvic muscle exercises. d. choose incontinence products for the person.
ANS: A
REF: p. 411
33. A resident had 4 incontinent episodes this morning. You are becoming short-tempered and
impatient. What should you do? a. Remind the person to use the bedpan. b. Ask the person to use the bathroom every hour. c. Tell the person that other residents need your help. d. Talk to the nurse. ANS: D
REF: p. 412
34. Complications from incontinence in the older adult include which of the following? a. Dementia b. Falls c. Fractured bones d. Urinary stasis ANS: B
REF: p. 410
35. A resident with dementia urinates in plants and the trash can. You can do which of the
following? a. Ask the person to signal you when she needs to void. b. Observe for signs that the person needs to void. c. Insert an indwelling catheter. d. Ask the resident to tell you when she is incontinent. ANS: B
REF: p. 412
TRUE/FALSE 1. Tell the nurse at once if an infant does not have a wet diaper for several hours. ANS: T
REF: p. 402
Chapter 28: Urinary Catheters Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A catheter is kept in the bladder by: a. taping it to the inner thigh. b. an inflated balloon near the catheter tip. c. a rubber band and safety pin. d. a clamp or clip. ANS: B
REF: p. 421
2. Catheters are used for which of the following purposes? a. Promoting comfort for persons who are dying b. A convenience for the staff c. Allowing the person extra time for sleeping d. Treating the cause of incontinence ANS: A
REF: p. 422
3. A patient has a catheter. The drainage bag must be kept: a. above the level of the bladder. b. below the level of the bladder. c. at bladder level. d. at the person’s right side. ANS: B
REF: p. 422
4. A patient has a catheter. When the person is in bed, you attach the drainage bag to: a. an IV pole. b. the bed frame. c. the bed rail. d. the back of a chair. ANS: B
REF: p. 422
5. A patient has a catheter. Which prevents urine from flowing freely? a. Coiling tubing on the bed b. Making sure the person does not lie on the tubing c. Keeping the tubing free of kinks d. Raising the drainage bag above the bladder ANS: D
REF: p. 422
6. A female resident has a catheter. To prevent excess catheter movement, you need to secure it
to: a. b. c. d.
her inner thigh. the bed. her abdomen. an IV pole.
ANS: A
REF: p. 422
7. A resident has a catheter. Catheter care is given: a. according to the care plan. b. daily. c. twice a day. d. every shift. ANS: A
REF: p. 424-425
8. You are assigned to 2 residents with catheters. When emptying their drainage bags, you use: a. the same measuring container for both residents. b. a different measuring container for each person. c. the measuring container in the dirty utility room. d. whatever is handy. ANS: B
REF: p. 422
9. You are using a safety pin and rubber band to secure drainage tubing to bottom linens. What
should you do? a. Follow agency policy. b. Use whichever size rubber band you have. c. Insert the pin through the catheter. d. Point the pin toward the person. ANS: A
REF: p. 422
10. Unless you are directed othTeE rwSiT seB ,A urN inKarSyEdL raLinEaR ge.bCaO gsMare emptied: a. every morning. b. at bedtime. c. at the end of every shift. d. at the start of every shift. ANS: C
REF: p. 426
11. Persons with catheters need perineal care: a. daily. b. daily and after bowel movements. c. at bedtime. d. when their drainage bags are emptied. ANS: B
REF: p. 422
12. A patient has a catheter. Before cleaning the person’s catheter, you need to: a. provide perineal care. b. empty the drainage bag. c. change the standard drainage bag to a leg bag. d. disconnect the catheter from the drainage bag. ANS: A
REF: p. 422
13. When giving catheter care, you need to hold the catheter at the:
a. b. c. d.
meatus. vagina. genitals. perineum.
ANS: A
REF: p. 422
14. When giving catheter care, you need to clean: a. downward away from the meatus. b. toward the meatus. c. left to right. d. right to left. ANS: A
REF: p. 422
15. A person’s catheter is accidentally disconnected from the drainage tubing. What should you
do? a. b. c. d.
Reconnect the ends after wiping them with antiseptic wipes. Put the ends down. Call for the nurse. Get a new drainage bag. Change the drainage system.
ANS: A
REF: p. 426
16. A resident has a catheter. You are going to change the person’s leg bag to a regular drainage
bag. The procedure involves the following steps. Which do you do first? a. Disconnect the catheter from the drainage tubing. b. Clamp the catheter. c. Insert a sterile plug into the catheter end. d. Remove the cap from the new drainage bag. ANS: B
REF: p. 427
17. A resident has a catheter. The person has a regular drainage bag. Drainage tubing is secured to
the: a. b. c. d.
inner thigh. bed frame. mattress. bottom linens.
ANS: A
REF: p. 422
18. Drainage bags are emptied and measured at which of the following times? a. At the beginning of every shift b. When inserting the catheter c. When changing from a drainage bag to a leg bag d. When the bag is half-full ANS: C
REF: p. 426
19. You are emptying a urinary drainage bag. The drain: a. can touch the measuring container. b. is cleaned with antiseptic wipes.
c. must not touch any surface. d. is kept clamped. ANS: C
REF: p. 428-429
20. You are going to remove an indwelling catheter. Which is correct? a. Cut the balloon port on the catheter. b. Attach a syringe to the balloon port on the catheter. c. Tug on the catheter to see if it will come out. d. Use soap and water to clean the catheter before you begin. ANS: B
REF: p. 429
21. You are going to apply a condom catheter. Which action is correct? a. Ask the patient how they apply it. b. Wash the penis with soap and water. c. Apply a rubber band around the penis. d. Use adhesive tape to secure the catheter. ANS: B
REF: p. 432-433
22. You are going to apply a condom catheter. The catheter is: a. rolled onto the penis. b. applied in a spiral fashion around the penis. c. inserted into the urethra. d. secured with adhesive tape. ANS: A
REF: p. 432-433
TRUE/FALSE 1. A doctor’s order is needed to remove an indwelling catheter. ANS: T
REF: p. 430
2. In some agencies, perineal care is sufficient hygiene for indwelling catheters. ANS: T
REF: p. 422
Chapter 29: Bowel Needs Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Fecal incontinence is the: a. passage of a hard, dry stool. b. frequent passage of liquid stools. c. prolonged retention and accumulation of feces in the rectum. d. inability to control the passage of feces and gas through the anus. ANS: D
REF: p. 436
2. Constipation is: a. passage of a hard, dry stool. b. frequent passage of liquid stools. c. prolonged retention and accumulation of feces in the rectum. d. inability to control the passage of feces and gas through the anus. ANS: A
REF: p. 436
3. Defecation is: a. passage of a hard, dry stool. b. frequent passage of liquid stools. c. prolonged retention and accumulation of feces in the rectum. d. the process of excreting feces from the rectum through the anus. ANS: D
REF: p. 436
4. Fecal impaction is: a. passage of a hard, dry stool. b. frequent passage of liquid stools. c. prolonged retention and buildup of feces in the rectum. d. inability to control the passage of feces and gas through the anus. ANS: C
REF: p. 436
5. An enema is: a. the excessive loss of water from tissues. b. the introduction of fluid into the rectum and lower colon. c. gas or air in the stomach or intestines. d. a cone-shaped, solid drug inserted into a body opening. ANS: B
REF: p. 436
6. Flatulence is: a. the excessive formation of gas or air in the stomach and intestines. b. gas or air passed through the anus. c. a black, tarry stool. d. excreted feces. ANS: A
REF: p. 436
7. Flatus is: a. the excessive formation of gas in the stomach and intestines. b. gas or air passed through the anus. c. a black, tarry stool. d. excreted feces. ANS: B
REF: p. 436
8. A colostomy is a surgically created opening between the: a. small intestine and abdominal wall. b. colon and abdominal wall. c. ileum and abdominal wall. d. rectum and abdominal wall. ANS: B
REF: p. 436
9. Feces move through the intestines by: a. chyme. b. peristalsis. c. defecation. d. flatulence. ANS: B
REF: p. 436
10. These statements are about normal elimination. Which is correct? a. A bowel movement is needed every day. b. Stools are normally black. TE c. Stools are normally hard and shaped into balls. d. Stools normally have an odor. ANS: D
REF: p. 438
11. Why does privacy affect elimination? a. Bowel movements and sounds are embarrassing. b. Some people usually have a bowel movement after breakfast. c. Reading is relaxing. d. The passage of feces slows down. ANS: A
REF: p. 439
12. What is a common time for bowel elimination? a. Before breakfast b. After breakfast c. Before the evening meal d. After the evening meal ANS: B
REF: p. 444
13. Newborns usually have a bowel movement: a. three times a day. b. six times a day. c. with every feeding.
d. in the morning and at bedtime. ANS: C
REF: p. 437
14. Breast-fed infants have: a. yellow stools. b. gray stools. c. green stools. d. black stools. ANS: A
REF: p. 437
15. Which foods are needed for normal bowel elimination? a. Milk b. Chocolate c. Fruits and vegetables d. Fried foods ANS: C
REF: p. 439
16. Gas-forming foods aid defecation because they: a. form chyme. b. stimulate peristalsis. c. absorb fluid. d. are easy to chew and digest. ANS: B
REF: p. 439
17. How many glasses of wateT rE doSeT sB aA peNrsKoS nE neLeL dE daRi. lyCtoOpMromote normal bowel elimination? a. 2 to 4 b. 4 to 6 c. 6 to 8 d. 8 to 10 ANS: C
REF: p. 439
18. Which fluids increase peristalsis? a. Cold fluids b. Warm fluids c. Alcoholic beverages d. Thick beverages ANS: B
REF: p. 439
19. Which slows the passage of feces through the intestines? a. Exercise and activity b. Water c. Aging d. Peristalsis ANS: C
REF: p. 439
20. You are assisting a resident with elimination. You need to do which of the following?
a. b. c. d.
Open doors, the privacy curtain, and window curtains, blinds, or shades. Follow Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. Ask the person to yell for help when he is done. Stand next to the person until the person is finished.
ANS: B
REF: p. 440
21. What is the usual position for defecation? a. Sitting or squatting b. Sims’ c. Semi-Fowler’s d. Left side-lying ANS: A
REF: p. 440
22. A resident has finished defecating. You need to do which of the following? a. Prepare an enema. b. Dispose of stools promptly. c. Assist the person with changing their diaper. d. Give the person a suppository. ANS: B
REF: p. 440
23. A patient complains of constipation. If the person is constipated, you would expect her stools
to be: a. hard and dry. b. liquid. c. soft and formed. d. putty-like. ANS: A
REF: p. 440
24. A patient complains of constipation. If the person is constipated, you would expect her stools
to be: a. large or marble-sized. b. liquid. c. soft and shaped like the rectum. d. black and tarry. ANS: A
REF: p. 440
25. You report to the nurse that a resident is complaining of constipation. The nurse holds a care
conference to discuss the person’s care plan. The following measures are discussed. Which will relieve constipation? a. Increasing the person’s milk intake b. Encouraging the person to lie down more c. Offering the person tea and prune juice at breakfast d. Doing a digital rectal examination ANS: C
REF: p. 439
26. Which can occur if constipation is not relieved? a. Fecal impaction
b. Enema c. Diarrhea d. Suppository ANS: A
REF: p. 440
27. Which is a sign of fecal impaction? a. The frequent passage of liquid stools b. Marble-sized stools c. Liquid feces seeping from the anus d. Passage of large stools ANS: C
REF: p. 440
28. Which is a symptom of fecal impaction? a. Back discomfort b. Rectal pain c. Diarrhea d. Joint pain ANS: B
REF: p. 440
29. The nurse did a digital removal of an impaction. This means that the nurse: a. gave an enema. b. gave a suppository. c. used a lubricated, gloved finger to remove the impaction. d. applied an ostomy pouch. ANS: C
. 4S4T 0 REF: TpE
30. Checking for and removing impactions are dangerous because: a. the procedure embarrasses some people. b. the procedure is uncomfortable. c. the vagus nerve in the rectum can be stimulated. d. the procedure causes the urge to defecate. ANS: C
REF: p. 440
31. Stimulation of the vagus nerve in the rectum: a. Increases the heart rate. b. Slows the heart rate. c. Increases the respiratory rate. d. Slows the respiratory rate. ANS: B
REF: p. 441
32. You are removing a fecal impaction. When you check the person’s pulse, you note an
irregular rhythm. What should you do? a. Finish the procedure and call the nurse. b. Stop the procedure. c. Ask if the person feels well enough to continue. d. Check the other vital signs. If they are normal, continue the procedure.
ANS: B
REF: p. 441
33. A resident complains of diarrhea. The person needs assistance with ambulation. When the
person’s call light is on, you need to: a. Answer promptly. b. Go to the person as soon as you finish assisting another resident. c. Ask a co-worker to help you. d. Tell the nurse. ANS: A
REF: p. 442
34. A resident has diarrhea. You know that the person is at risk for: a. dehydration. b. enema. c. fecal incontinence. d. an ostomy. ANS: A
REF: p. 442
35. A person has diarrhea. You know that liquid feces and frequent wiping can lead to: a. skin breakdown. b. dehydration. c. oliguria. d. death. ANS: A
REF: p. 442
36. Why is diarrhea serious in infants and young children? a. Stools are liquid and watery. b. They cannot meet their own needs. c. They have large amounts of body water and are at risk for dehydration. d. Diarrhea causes abdominal cramping and discomfort. ANS: C
REF: p. 442
37. A person has fecal incontinence. Which of the following measures should be part of the care
plan? a. Assist with elimination only after meals. b. Assist with elimination every 2 to 3 hours. c. Give good skin care on a schedule, once per shift. d. Empty ostomy pouch when only once it is full of feces. ANS: B
REF: p. 443
38. Which is a cause of fecal incontinence? a. Chronic illness b. A high-fiber diet c. Increase in use of enemas d. Excessive exercise ANS: A
REF: p. 443
39. A patient complains of flatulence. The person has the following food choices. Which causes
flatulence? a. Onions b. Meat c. Carrots d. Potatoes ANS: A
REF: p. 443
40. A patient complains of flatulence. Which position often produces flatus? a. Fowler’s b. Semi-Fowler’s c. Right side-lying d. Left side-lying ANS: D
REF: p. 443
41. A patient complains of flatulence. The following measures are part of the person’s care plan.
Which should you question? a. Offer carbonated beverages. b. Have the person move about when in bed. c. Encourage walking. d. Encourage exercise. ANS: A
REF: p. 443
42. Bowel training is helpful for preventing which of the following? a. Diarrhea b. Urinary tract infection c. Constipation d. Skin ulcers ANS: C
REF: p. 444
43. A bowel training program was developed for a resident. The person usually has a bowel
movement after breakfast. When should you assist the person with elimination? a. Before breakfast b. After breakfast c. Before lunch d. After lunch ANS: B
REF: p. 444
44. The nurse gave a patient a suppository. When should you expect the person to have a bowel
movement? a. Right away b. In 10 minutes c. In 20 minutes d. In 30 minutes ANS: D
REF: p. 444
45. Enemas are given to relieve which of the following problems?
a. b. c. d.
Diarrhea Constipation Fecal impaction Flatulence
ANS: A
REF: p. 444
46. You know that enemas: a. are given before certain surgeries and diagnostic procedures. b. are not given before surgery. c. are not given to children. d. are only given to relieve constipation and fecal impaction. ANS: A
REF: p. 444
47. The doctor ordered a saline enema. What is added to the enema solution? a. Mineral oil b. A drug c. Castile soap d. Salt ANS: D
REF: p. 446
48. Giving an enema is delegated to you. Because of the end-of-shift report, the nurse will not be
available to supervise you. What should you do? a. Ask a co-worker to help you. b. Give the enema if it is in your job description. c. Give the enema becausT eE itSwTaB sA paNrtKoSf E yoLuL rE edRu. caCtiO onMand training. d. Refuse to give the enema because the nurse is not available to supervise you. ANS: D
REF: p. 445
49. What is the preferred position for giving an enema? a. Fowler’s or semi-Fowler’s position b. Sims’ or left side-lying position c. Prone or supine position d. Supine or right side-lying position ANS: B
REF: p. 447
50. How much enema solution is usually given to an adult? a. 100 to 120 mL b. 200 to 300 mL c. 500 to 750 mL d. 500 to 1000 mL ANS: D
REF: p. 446
51. Water temperature for an enema solution for adults usually is: a. 100° F. b. 105° F. c. 110° F. d. body temperature.
ANS: D
REF: p. 445
52. How far is the enema tube usually inserted into the adult rectum? a. 1 to 3 inches b. 2 to 4 inches c. 4 to 5 inches d. 5 to 6 inches ANS: B
REF: p. 445
53. You are giving a cleansing enema. Which action is correct? a. Inserting the tube 6 inches into the adult’s rectum b. Holding the solution bag 6 inches above the anus c. Lubricating the enema tip before inserting it d. Measuring water temperature with your inner forearm ANS: C
REF: p. 447
54. A cleansing enema takes effect: a. right away. b. in 5 to 10 minutes. c. in 10 to 20 minutes. d. in 30 minutes. ANS: C
REF: p. 447
55. Which enema is very irritating to the bowel’s mucous lining? a. Saline enema b. Soapsuds enema c. Tap-water enema d. Oil-retention enema ANS: B
REF: p. 446
56. You are preparing to give a saline enema. To remove air from the enema tube, you need to: a. close the clamp. b. lubricate the tip. c. let solution flow through the tube. d. keep the enema bag level with the anus. ANS: C
REF: p. 447
57. You are giving a saline enema. During the procedure, the person complains of cramping.
What should you do? a. Call for the nurse. b. Clamp the tubing. c. Remove the tubing. d. Insert the tubing farther. ANS: B
REF: p. 447
58. Before disposing of the enema results, you need to:
a. b. c. d.
make your observations. ask the resident to observe the results. provide perineal care. disinfect the bedpan or commode.
ANS: A 59.
REF: p. 447
Oil-retention enemas are given for: a. constipation or fecal impaction. b. flatulence. c. certain surgeries and diagnostic procedures. d. ostomies. ANS: A
REF: p. 450
60. Oil-retention enemas are retained for at least: a. 15 minutes. b. 15 to 30 minutes. c. 30 to 180 minutes. d. 3 hours. ANS: C
REF: p. 450
61. After giving an oil-retention enema, the person is left in the: a. Fowler’s or semi-Fowler’s position. b. Sims’ or left side-lying position. c. prone or supine position. d. supine or right side-lyiT ngEpSoT siB tiA onN. ANS: B
REF: p. 450
62. These statements are about colostomies. Which is correct? a. The person completes a bowel training program to learn how to defecate again. b. Stool consistency should always look the same. c. The more colon remaining, the more liquid the stool. d. Good skin care is necessary because feces irritate the skin. ANS: D
REF: p. 450
63. A person has an ileostomy. Which statement is correct? a. Part of the colon was removed. b. Feces are solid in consistency. c. Feces drain constantly from the ileostomy. d. Water is absorbed before feces are expelled into the pouch. ANS: C
REF: p. 451
64. To empty an ostomy pouch: a. the belt is removed. b. the pouch is removed. c. the drain at the top is opened. d. the drain at the bottom is opened.
ANS: D
REF: p. 452-453
65. A person has an ostomy pouch. The pouch is bulging from flatus. What should you do? a. Call for the nurse. b. Make a hole in the pouch for the escape of gas. c. Open the pouch. d. Change the pouch. ANS: C
REF: p. 452-453
66. Ostomy pouches are usually changed: a. every day. b. every time feces are present. c. every 2 to 7 days. d. every month. ANS: C
REF: p. 452-453
67. Which will best prevent ostomy pouch odors? a. Spraying perfume in the room b. Limiting the frequency of emptying the pouch c. Putting deodorants into the pouch d. Eating cucumbers and radishes ANS: C
REF: p. 452-453
68. A person with an ostomy pouch wears: a. tight clothes. b. normal clothes. c. a hospital gown. d. clothes selected by the nurse. ANS: B
REF: p. 452-453
69. When is the best time to shower with an ostomy pouch off? a. Before breakfast b. After breakfast c. After the evening meal d. Before bedtime ANS: A
REF: p. 452-453
70. You just applied a new ostomy pouch. When can the person shower or bathe? a. Right away b. In 1 to 2 hours c. In 8 hours d. The next day ANS: B TRUE/FALSE
REF: p. 452-453
1. You need to give a cleansing enema to a toddler. The nurse will tell you how far to insert the
enema tube. ANS: T
REF: p. 446
2. Saline enemas are used for cleansing enemas in children. ANS: T
REF: p. 446
3. Ostomy pouches are disposed of by flushing them down the toilet. ANS: F
REF: p. 453
4. Touching an ostomy stoma causes pain and discomfort. ANS: F
REF: p. 453
5. Persons with ostomies manage their own care if able. ANS: T
REF: p. 453
Chapter 30: Nutrition Needs Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Anorexia is the: a. loss of appetite. b. breathing of fluid, food, vomitus, or an object into the lungs. c. backward flow of food from the stomach to the mouth. d. swelling of body tissues with water. ANS: A
REF: p. 457
2. Aspiration is: a. loss of appetite. b. breathing of fluid, food, vomitus, or an object into the lungs. c. backward flow of food from the stomach into the mouth. d. swelling of body tissues with water. ANS: B
REF: p. 457
3. A calorie is: a. how a serving fits into the daily diet. b. the fuel or energy value of food. c. a container used to measure fluid. d. the process involved in the ingestion, digestion, absorption, and use of foods and
fluids by the body. ANS: B
REF: p. 457
4. Daily value is: a. how a serving fits into the daily diet. b. the amount of intake and output in 24 hours. c. a substance that is ingested, digested, absorbed, and used by the body. d. the amount of energy produced when the body burns food. ANS: A
REF: p. 463
5. Dehydration is: a. difficulty swallowing. b. a decrease in the amount of water in body tissues. c. the swelling of body tissues with water. d. the backward flow of food from the stomach into the mouth. ANS: B
REF: p. 464
6. Dysphagia is: a. difficulty swallowing. b. a decrease in the amount of water in body tissues. c. the swelling of body tissues with water. d. the backward flow of food from the stomach into the mouth.
ANS: A
REF: p. 464
7. Edema is: a. difficulty swallowing. b. a decrease in the amount of water in body tissues. c. the swelling of body tissues with water. d. the backward flow of food from the stomach into the mouth. ANS: C
REF: p. 464
8. A graduate is: a. a tube feeding. b. a measuring container for fluid. c. a tube inserted through the nose and into the stomach. d. giving nutrients through the gastro-intestinal system. ANS: B
REF: p. 464
9. A nutrient is: a. the amount of energy produced when the body burns food. b. how a serving fits into the daily diet. c. a substance that is ingested, digested, absorbed, and used by the body. d. the processes involved in the ingestion, digestion, absorption, and use of foods and
fluids by the body. ANS: C
REF: p. 459
10. Nutrition is: a. the amount of energy produced when the body burns food. b. how a serving fits into the daily diet. c. a substance that is ingested, digested, absorbed, and used by the body. d. the processes involved in the ingestion, digestion, absorption, and use of foods and
fluids by the body. ANS: D
REF: p. 459
11. The MyPlate food guidance system recommends which of the following for children? a. Engage in at least 60 minutes of physical activity on every day of the week. b. Offer 100% fruit juices instead of soda. c. Top cereal with sugar to add flavor. d. Mix vegetables together. ANS: A
REF: p. 459
12. One gram of fat provides how many calories? a. 1 b. 4 c. 9 d. 15 ANS: C
REF: p. 459
13. One gram of protein provides how many calories? a. 1 b. 4 c. 9 d. 15 ANS: B
REF: p. 459
14. One gram of carbohydrate provides how many calories? a. 1 b. 4 c. 9 d. 15 ANS: B
REF: p. 459
15. The MyPlate food guidance system encourages: a. smart and healthy food choices and daily activity. b. the same amount and kinds of food for all persons over 2 years of age. c. 1 hour of vigorous physical activity at least 4 days each week. d. a diet high in fat, sodium, and sugar. ANS: A
REF: p. 459
16. Remember the following when selecting foods from the meat and beans group: a. choose lean or low-fat meat and poultry. b. processed meats are low in sodium. c. liver and other organ mTeE atS sT arB eA loN wKiS nE chLoL leE stR er. olC. OM d. eggs are low in cholesterol and fat. ANS: A
REF: p. 461
17. Which nutrient is needed for tissue growth and repair? a. Protein b. Carbohydrate c. Fat d. Vitamins ANS: A
REF: p. 461
18. Which nutrient provides energy and fiber? a. Protein b. Carbohydrate c. Fat d. Vitamins ANS: B
REF: p. 462
19. Which nutrient adds flavor to food? a. Protein b. Carbohydrate c. Fat d. Vitamins
ANS: C
REF: p. 462
20. Which vitamin is needed for vision? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B1 c. Vitamin B3 d. Vitamin D ANS: A
REF: p. 462
21. Which vitamin is needed for nerve function? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B1 c. Vitamin B2 d. Vitamin D ANS: B
REF: p. 462
22. Which vitamin is needed for resistance to infection? a. Vitamin K b. Vitamin C c. Vitamin D d. Folic acid ANS: B
REF: p. 462
23. Which vitamin is needed for healthy bones? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin K c. Vitamin D d. Folic acid ANS: C
REF: p. 462
24. Which vitamin is needed for blood clotting? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin E d. Vitamin K ANS: D
REF: p. 462
25. Which mineral is needed for the formation of teeth and bones? a. Sodium b. Iron c. Calcium d. Potassium ANS: C
REF: p. 463
26. Which mineral allows red blood cells to carry oxygen? a. Sodium
b. Iron c. Calcium d. Potassium ANS: B
REF: p. 463
27. Which mineral is needed for growth and metabolism? a. Sodium b. Iron c. Iodine d. Potassium ANS: C
REF: p. 463
28. Which mineral is needed for fluid balance? a. Sodium b. Iron c. Iodine d. Potassium ANS: A
REF: p. 463
29. Which mineral is needed for heart function? a. Sodium b. Iron c. Iodine d. Potassium ANS: D
. 4S6T 3 REF: TpE
30. Food labels contain which of the following information? a. Quality of the item b. Price of the item c. Percent daily value d. Weight of the item ANS: C
REF: p. 463
31. These statements are about eating and nutrition. Which is correct? a. Food practices vary little according to culture and religion. b. Finances have no effect on what food is in the diet. c. Hospitals and nursing centers cannot allow personal choice. d. Changes from aging affect appetite and the foods eaten. ANS: D
REF: p. 464
32. You have been assigned to buy groceries for a person receiving home care. You need to: a. understand the MyPlate, basic nutrition, and food labels. b. buy the foods you like. c. buy whatever is on sale. d. ask the nurse what foods to buy. ANS: A
REF: p. 464
33. With aging, changes occur in the gastro-intestinal system. Which is correct? a. Taste is enhanced. b. The sense of smell is sharper. c. Appetite decreases. d. Secretion of digestive juices increases. ANS: C
REF: p. 464
34. OBRA requires which of the following for foods served in long-term care centers? a. That food be served at the same time every day. b. That food is organic. c. That residents be served 3 meals and offered a bedtime snack. d. That food be prepared without seasoning. ANS: C
REF: p. 458
35. Food must be served: a. promptly. b. after preparing all residents for meals. c. within 1 hour of arriving on the nursing unit. d. after cutting meat and opening cartons. ANS: A
REF: p. 469
36. A resident gets the house diet. Which is correct? a. The person has no dietary limits or restrictions. b. The person eats whatever is served. TESTBANK c. The person has no choice in the food served. d. The person takes part in a social dining program. ANS: A
REF: p. 465
37. Persons with difficulty swallowing usually require: a. diabetic meal planning. b. a dysphagia diet. c. a sodium-controlled diet. d. a house diet. ANS: B
REF: p. 467
38. Which foods are allowed on a clear liquid diet? a. Custard, eggnog, and plain ice cream b. Water, tea, and coffee c. Fruit juices and fat-free clear broth d. Hard candy and ice cream ANS: B
REF: p. 465
39. A person is on a full-liquid diet. Foods on this diet are: a. semi-solid. b. easily chewed. c. liquid at room temperature or melt at body temperature.
d. low in roughage. ANS: C
REF: p. 465
40. A person is on a mechanical soft diet. The person can have which of the following? a. Apples b. Cucumbers c. Fresh vegetables d. Pudding and plain cake ANS: D
REF: p. 465
41. A person is on a fiber- and residue-restricted diet. The person can have which of the
following? a. Raw fruits and vegetables b. Cottage and cream cheese c. French fries d. Breads and oats ANS: B
REF: p. 465
42. A high-fiber diet is ordered for: a. constipation and GI disorders. b. diarrhea. c. anemia. d. liver and kidney disorders. ANS: A
REF: p. 465
43. A person is on a bland diet. Which is correct? a. Foods are high in roughage. b. Foods are served at cooler temperatures. c. Foods contain strong spices for taste. d. Fried foods are not allowed. ANS: D
REF: p. 465
44. A person is on a high-calorie diet. Which is correct? a. This is a high-protein diet. b. There are dietary increases in all foods. c. The person eats only snacks. d. Calorie intake is increased to 2500 a day. ANS: B 45.
REF: p. 465
High-iron diets are ordered: a. when there is blood loss. b. for tissue healing. c. for weight reduction. d. for heart disease. ANS: A
REF: p. 466
46. A person is on a low-cholesterol diet. Which food is allowed? a. Skim milk b. Cheddar cheese c. Creamed soup d. Fried chicken ANS: A
REF: p. 466
47. A person is on a high-protein diet. Which foods are high in protein? a. Meat, fish, and poultry b. Pasta c. Fruits d. Vegetables ANS: A
REF: p. 466
48. A person on a sodium-controlled diet can: a. have fruits and vegetables. b. add salt at the table. c. have bacon, ham, and sausage. d. have tomato juice and cheese. ANS: A
REF: p. 466
49. Diabetes meal planning involves: a. consistency in what is eaten and when. b. a low-salt diet. c. changes in food thicknT esE s. d. a high-iron diet. ANS: A
REF: p. 466
50. A person has diabetes. All food served is not eaten. What should you do? a. Provide a between-meal nourishment. b. Tell the nurse. c. Leave the tray. Perhaps the person will eat later. d. Give insulin. ANS: B
REF: p. 466
51. Diabetes meal planning involves having the person: a. eat only carbohydrates. b. eat only protein. c. avoid fats. d. eat the same amount of carbohydrates, proteins, and fat each day. ANS: D
REF: p. 466
52. A patient has dysphagia. The person is at risk for: a. aspiration. b. regurgitation. c. edema. d. dehydration.
ANS: A
REF: p. 467
53. The doctor ordered a sodium-controlled diet for a patient. The average amount of sodium in
the daily diet for this person would be: a. 1500 mg. b. 2000 mg. c. 3000 mg. d. 4000 mg. ANS: A
REF: p. 465
54. Which is a sign or symptom of dysphagia? a. Increased appetite b. Eats quickly c. Hoarseness d. Constipation ANS: C
REF: p. 468
55. A resident is on aspiration precautions. The person eats in bed. To provide for safety during
meals, you should position the person in: a. Fowler’s position. b. Sims’ position. c. lateral position. d. prone position. ANS: A
REF: p. 468
56. A resident is on aspiration precautions. You position the person in semi-Fowler’s position
after eating. How long should the person remain in this position? a. 15 minutes b. At least 30 minutes c. 45 minutes d. At least 1 hour ANS: D
REF: p. 468
57. A resident is on aspiration precautions. When the person is done eating, you need to check his
mouth for: a. pocketing. b. the need for oral hygiene. c. food stains. d. gum disease. ANS: A
REF: p. 468
58. A resident is on aspiration precautions. Where will you find instructions about special feeding
needs? a. The person’s care plan b. The Kardex c. The person’s chart d. The person’s meal tray
ANS: A
REF: p. 468
59. Four residents sit at a horseshoe-shaped table for meals. They are able to feed themselves.
This is known as: a. social dining. b. family dining. c. assistive dining. d. low-stimulation dining. ANS: A
REF: p. 472
60. You did not serve a resident’s tray promptly. What should you do? a. Check the food temperature. b. Order another tray. c. Serve the tray as soon as possible. d. Reheat the food in a microwave oven. ANS: A
REF: p. 472
61. You are feeding a patient. You need to serve: a. foods as directed on the dietary card. b. foods in the order you would eat them. c. foods in the order the person prefers. d. hot foods first and cold foods last. ANS: C
REF: p. 473
62. You are feeding a patient. T YE ouSnTeB edAtNoKseSrE veLfL ooEdRs .wCitO hM a: a. fork. b. teaspoon. c. knife. d. straw. ANS: B
REF: p. 473
63. A resident is visually impaired. You need to do which of the following? a. Feed the person. b. Identify the food on the tray. c. Tell the person to feel for her food on the plate to determine where the food is. d. Ask the person to open her own cartons. ANS: B
REF: p. 473
64. You are going to feed a resident. You need to do which of the following? a. Say a prayer for the person. b. Sit behind the person. c. Engage the person in pleasant conversation. d. Offer fluids after the meal. ANS: C
REF: p. 474
65. A resident has 3 fluids on his tray. How many straws will you need?
a. b. c. d.
1 2 3 0
ANS: C
REF: p. 475
66. Between-meal nourishments are served: a. 2 hours after main meals. b. when they arrive on the nursing unit. c. when residents request a snack. d. at bedtime. ANS: B
REF: p. 474
67. Calorie counts are ordered for a resident. What should you do? a. Record the number of calories ingested. b. Note what the person ate and how much. c. Measure and record the number of calories ingested. d. Keep I&O records. ANS: B
REF: p. 468
TRUE/FALSE 1. The MyPlate food guidance system encourages smart and healthy food choices and weekly
activity. ANS: F
REF: p. 459
2. The Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2010 is for persons 2 years of age and older. ANS: T
REF: p. 459
3. Older persons need fewer calories than younger people need. ANS: T
REF: p. 464
4. Keep vegetables and fruits separate from raw meat, poultry, and seafood while shopping,
preparing, and storing food. ANS: T
REF: p. 476
Chapter 31: Fluid Needs Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A person’s 24-hour intake was 1500 mL. You know that this amount: a. meets normal requirements. b. is below normal requirements. c. is above normal requirements. d. was ordered by the doctor. ANS: B
REF: p. 481
2. To maintain normal fluid balance, an adult needs to ingest: a. 1000 to 1500 mL of fluid a day. b. 1500 to 2000 mL of fluid a day. c. 2000 to 2500 mL of fluid a day. d. 2500 to 3000 mL of fluid a day. ANS: C
REF: p. 481
3. Infants and young children: a. need more fluids than adults do. b. need less fluids than adults do. c. need the same amount of fluids as adults do. d. will drink fluids when they are thirsty. ANS: A
REF: p. 481
4. Older persons are at risk for dehydration because: a. they have kidney disease. b. the amount of body water decreases with age. c. they produce more urine than younger persons. d. they depend on others for drinking water. ANS: B
REF: p. 481
5. The doctor ordered “encourage fluids” for a patient. Which action is correct? a. Offer fluids to person who cannot feed herself. b. Place an NPO sign above the person’s bed. c. Offer the person water only. d. Limit fluids. ANS: A
REF: p. 482
6. The doctor ordered “restrict fluids” for a patient. Which action is correct? a. Record the person’s intake. b. Provide a pitcher of water. c. Keep the water pitcher within the person’s reach. d. Offer a variety of fluids. ANS: A
REF: p. 482
7. A patient is NPO. This means that the person: a. cannot eat or drink anything. b. has dysphagia. c. needs a feeding tube. d. can have fluids every 6 to 8 hours. ANS: A
REF: p. 482
8. A resident has the following items on her meal tray. Which is counted as fluid intake? a. Butter b. Gravy c. Soup d. Applesauce ANS: C
REF: p. 482
9. Intake and output are totaled: a. every 2 hours. b. every 4 hours. c. at the end of the shift. d. at least once during an 8-hour shift. ANS: C
REF: p. 482
10. A male resident is on I&O. When urinating, he needs to use: a. the toilet. b. a graduate. c. a specimen pan. d. the urinal. ANS: D
REF: p. 482
11. A patient’s coffee cup holds 250 mL. The person did not drink all the coffee. You measure
that 75 mL of coffee remain. How much did the person drink? a. 100 mL b. 200 mL c. 175 mL d. 125 mL ANS: C
REF: p. 482
12. Which will help prevent the spread of infection when providing drinking water? a. Make sure the water pitcher is labeled with the person’s name and room and bed
number. b. Only touch the rim of the water glass or pitcher. c. Let the ice scoop only touch the rim or inside of the water glass or pitcher. d. Store the ice scoop in the ice dispenser. ANS: A
REF: p. 486
13. When do patients and residents need fresh drinking water? a. Every day
b. Every 8 hours c. Every shift and whenever the pitcher is empty d. With each meal and at bedtime ANS: C
REF: p. 486
TRUE/FALSE 1. The amount of fluid taken in (intake) and the amount of fluid lost (output) must be equal. ANS: T
REF: p. 480
2. Excess fluid losses quickly cause death in an infant or child. ANS: T
REF: p. 481
Chapter 32: Nutritional Support and IV Therapy Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Enteral nutrition is: a. an opening in the stomach. b. fluid administered through a needle inserted into a vein. c. giving nutrients into the gastro-intestinal tract through a feeding tube. d. a tube inserted through the nose into the stomach. ANS: C
REF: p. 489
2. A gastrostomy tube is: a. an opening in the stomach. b. an opening into the middle part of the small intestine. c. a tube inserted through a surgically created opening in the stomach. d. a tube inserted through the nose and into the stomach. ANS: C
REF: p. 489
3. Gavage is: a. the process of giving a tube feeding. b. a container used to measure fluid. c. a tube inserted through the nose and into the stomach. d. giving nutrients through the gastro-intestinal system. ANS: A
REF: p. 489
4. Intravenous therapy is: a. giving nutrients through the gastro-intestinal system. b. a tube feeding. c. giving fluids through a needle or catheter inserted into a vein. d. the many processes involved in the ingestion, digestion, absorption, and use of
food and fluids by the body. ANS: C
REF: p. 489
5. A jejunostomy tube is: a. an opening in the stomach. b. a feeding tube inserted into a surgically created opening in the jejunum of the
small intestine. c. a tube inserted into the stomach through a stab wound. d. a tube inserted through the nose and into the stomach. ANS: B
REF: p. 489
6. A nasogastric tube is: a. an opening in the stomach. b. an opening into the middle part of the small intestine. c. a feeding tube inserted through the nose and into the small intestine.
d. a feeding tube inserted through the nose and into the stomach. ANS: D
REF: p. 489
7. A feeding tube inserted through the nose and into the small bowel is: a. A naso-gastric tube. b. A PEG tube. c. A naso-enteral tube. d. A TPN tube. ANS: C
REF: p. 489
8. Giving nutrients through a catheter inserted into a vein is: a. IV therapy. b. enteral nutrition. c. duodenal therapy. d. parenteral nutrition. ANS: D
REF: p. 489
9. Backflow of stomach contents into the mouth is: a. dysphagia. b. regurgitation. c. gavage. d. emesis. ANS: B
REF: p. 489
10. Aspiration is: a. the loss of appetite. b. breathing fluid, food, vomitus, or an object into the lungs. c. the backward flow of stomach contents into the mouth. d. the swelling of body tissues with water. ANS: B
REF: p. 489
11. A doctor inserts this type of feeding tube with an endoscope. a. PEG tube b. NG tube c. Jejunostomy tube d. Nasoduodenal tube ANS: A
REF: p. 489
12. These statements are about enteral nutrition. Which is correct? a. The person is always NPO. b. The nurse orders the type and amount of formula. c. You can insert the feeding tube. d. Feedings are scheduled or continuous. ANS: D
REF: p. 492
13. Persons receiving tube feedings are at risk for aspiration. You need to report which of the
following to the nurse at once? a. Complaints of headache b. Coughing c. Dry mouth d. Pulse rate of 72 ANS: B
REF: p. 492
14. A person has continuous enteral nutrition. The nurse asks you to add ice chips around the
container. This is done: a. so formula is given chilled. b. to prevent the growth of microbes. c. to prevent aspiration. d. to prevent regurgitation. ANS: B
REF: p. 494
15. Which health team member checks tube placement before a tube feeding is given? a. An RN b. A physical therapist c. A dietitian d. A nursing assistant ANS: A
REF: p. 493
16. The risk of regurgitation is greatest with: a. naso-intestinal tubes. b. PEG tubes. c. jejunostomy tubes. d. gastrostomy tubes. ANS: D
REF: p. 493
17. After a tube feeding, the person is positioned in semi-Fowler’s position for: a. 15 minutes. b. about 30 minutes. c. 45 minutes. d. 1 to 2 hours. ANS: D
REF: p. 493
18. Persons with feeding tubes need frequent: a. perineal care. b. catheter care. c. oral hygiene. d. oral fluids. ANS: C
REF: p. 493
19. A person has a nasogastric tube. To prevent the tube from irritating the nose, the tube is
secured to the: a. nose.
b. face. c. mouth. d. ear. ANS: A
REF: p. 493
20. Your state allows nursing assistants to give tube feedings. The procedure is in your job
description. Before giving a tube feeding, you need which information from the nurse and the care plan? a. How to correctly identify the person? b. What time the feeding should be done? c. The cost of the formula. d. What formula to use? ANS: D
REF: p. 494
21. Your state allows nursing assistants to give tube feedings. The procedure is in your job
description. Before giving a tube feeding, you must always do which of the following? a. Check and inspect the feeding tube and label with a co-worker. b. Make sure you check for tube placement. c. Make sure the feeding is the correct dose. d. Trace the feeding tube back to the insertion site. ANS: D
REF: p. 494
22. A person is receiving hyperalimentation through an IV. The alarm sounds on the pump. What
should you do? a. Shut off the alarm. b. Check the system to find out what is causing the problem. c. Shut off the pump. d. Call for the nurse. ANS: D
REF: p. 498
23. A person is receiving hyperalimentation. Which is correct? a. You can start the IV. b. You can regulate the flow rate. c. You decide what amount to give. d. You are never responsible for hyperalimentation. ANS: D
REF: p. 494
24. A resident is receiving TPN. The person has an elevated temperature and complains of chills.
What should you do? a. Give the person a bath. b. Call the nurse at once. c. Stop the TPN. d. Offer the person another blanket. ANS: B
REF: p. 495
25. A person has an IV. Which statement is correct? a. You can start the IV.
b. You can regulate the flow rate. c. You decide what amount to give. d. You are never responsible for starting or maintaining IV therapy. ANS: D
REF: p. 499
26. Which is a peripheral IV site? a. The jugular vein b. The basilic vein c. The subclavian vein d. A vein on the back of the hand ANS: D
REF: p. 495
27. When assisting with IV therapy, you can do which of the following? a. Follow Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. b. Adjust the flow rate as directed by the nurse. c. Ask the person to hold on to her IV bag and tubing when walking. d. Remove the catheter if there is bleeding at the insertion site. ANS: A
REF: p. 499
28. To check the IV flow rate, which is correct? a. Count the number of drops in 30 seconds and multiply by 2. b. Count the number of drops in 1 minute. c. Check how much fluid remains in the IV bag. d. Note if the rate seems too fast or too slow. ANS: B
. 4S9T 8 REF: TpE
29. You note bleeding from an IV insertion site. Which action is correct? a. Tell the nurse at once. b. Apply a dressing over the needle or catheter. c. Clamp the IV tubing. d. Discontinue the IV. ANS: A
REF: p. 500
30. The alarm is sounding on an IV infusion pump. Which action is correct? a. Tell the nurse at once. b. Turn off the pump. c. Change the controls on the pump. d. Unplug the pump. ANS: A
REF: p. 500
31. The nurse asks you to discontinue a peripheral IV. This task is not in your job description.
What should you do? a. Politely refuse. b. Report the nurse to the director of nursing. c. Discontinue the IV only if a nurse can supervise you. d. Ask another nursing assistant to help you.
ANS: A
REF: p. 501
TRUE/FALSE 1. Tube feeding formula is given cold to prevent microbes from growing in the formula. ANS: F
REF: p. 494
2. A feeding pump is used for a continuous tube feeding. ANS: T
REF: p. 492
3. You are never responsible for inserting feeding tubes or checking their placement. ANS: T
REF: p. 493
4. The nurse asks you to check an IV flow rate. You need to tell the nurse at once if no fluid is
dripping or if the rate is too fast or too slow. ANS: T
REF: p. 498
5. All states and agencies allow nursing assistants to change peripheral IV dressings. ANS: F
REF: p. 495
Chapter 33: Vital Signs Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An apical-radial pulse means that: a. the apical pulse is taken first. b. the radial pulse is taken after the apical pulse. c. the apical and radial pulses are taken at the same time. d. you can take the apical pulse or the radial pulse. ANS: C
REF: p. 503
2. The amount of force exerted against the walls of an artery by the blood is the: a. blood pressure. b. pulse deficit. c. diastolic pressure. d. systolic pressure. ANS: A
REF: p. 503
3. The amount of heat in the body that is a balance between the amount of heat produced and the
amount lost by the body is: a. Fahrenheit. b. centigrade. c. Celsius. d. body temperature. ANS: D
REF: p. 503
4. A heart rate less than 60 beats/min is: a. bradycardia. b. tachycardia. c. systole. d. diastole. ANS: A
REF: p. 503
5. The heart muscle relaxes during: a. bradycardia. b. tachycardia. c. systole. d. diastole. ANS: D
REF: p. 503
6. The pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest is: a. blood pressure. b. pulse deficit. c. diastolic pressure. d. systolic pressure.
ANS: C
REF: p. 503
7. The beat of the heart felt at an artery as a wave of blood passes through the artery is the: a. pulse. b. pulse deficit. c. pulse rate. d. heartbeat. ANS: A
REF: p. 503
8. The difference between the apical and radial pulse rates is the: a. apical-radial pulse. b. pulse deficit. c. bradycardia. d. tachycardia. ANS: B
REF: p. 503
9. The number of pulses felt in 1 minute is the: a. pulse. b. pulse deficit. c. pulse rate. d. heartbeat. ANS: C
REF: p. 503
10. The act of inhalation and exhalation is: a. respiration. b. respiratory rate. c. breathing. d. basic need. ANS: A
REF: p. 503
11. Which of the following is used to measure blood pressure? a. Thermometer b. Sphygmomanometer c. Stethoscope d. Cuff ANS: B
REF: p. 503
12. Which instrument is used to listen to sounds produced by the body? a. Thermometer b. Sphygmomanometer c. Stethoscope d. Cuff ANS: C
REF: p. 503
13. The period of heart muscle contraction is: a. bradycardia.
b. tachycardia. c. systole. d. diastole. ANS: C
REF: p. 503
14. A heart rate over 100 beats/min is: a. bradycardia. b. tachycardia. c. systole. d. diastole. ANS: B
REF: p. 503
15. Temperature, pulse, respirations, and blood pressure are: a. basic needs. b. vital signs. c. measurements. d. observations. ANS: B
REF: p. 503
16. Vital signs do which of the following? a. Denote when someone is at rest. b. Signal life-threatening events. c. Diagnose illness. d. Prevent cardiac arrest. ANS: B
. 5S0T 4 REF: TpE
17. A resident is 83 years old. You measure the person’s vital signs: a. several times a day. b. before and after surgery. c. after giving care. d. according to the person’s care plan. ANS: D
REF: p. 504
18. Vital signs are normally taken with the person: a. sitting or standing. b. sitting or lying down. c. lying down only. d. sitting only. ANS: B
REF: p. 504
19. Vital signs are immediately reported to the nurse at which of the following times? a. Whenever they are taken. b. If there is a change from a previous measurement. c. Every time you take them. d. Every other time you take them. ANS: B
REF: p. 504
20. Body temperature is usually lower: a. in the morning. b. in the afternoon. c. in the evening. d. at bedtime. ANS: A
REF: p. 505
21. Body temperature is measured at which of the following sites? a. The neck b. The axilla c. The stomach d. Behind the knee ANS: B
REF: p. 505
22. Body temperature is measured at which of the following sites? a. The nose b. On the scalp c. Under the breasts d. The rectum ANS: D
REF: p. 505
23. A resident is 55 years old. The person needs rehabilitation after hip replacement surgery. You
take the person’s temperature orally. Which measurement is abnormal? a. 98.1° F b. 99.8° F c. 98.2° F d. 98.0° F ANS: B
REF: p. 505
24. A resident is 55 years old. The person needs rehabilitation after hip replacement surgery. You
take the person’s tympanic membrane temperature. Which measurement is normal? a. 98.6° F b. 99.0° F c. 98.0° F d. 97.6° F ANS: A
REF: p. 505
25. Taking temperatures is delegated to you. The nurse and care plan tell you which of the
following? a. The normal range for the site used? b. What site to use? c. How to use the thermometer? d. Whose temperature to take first? ANS: B
REF: p. 504
26. A glass thermometer for rectal temperatures has a:
a. b. c. d.
bulb tip. long tip. pear-shaped tip. slender tip.
ANS: A
REF: p. 507
27. A rectal thermometer is color-coded in: a. blue. b. red. c. green. d. yellow. ANS: B
REF: p. 507
28. You are taking a temperature with a temporal artery thermometer. How long does it normally
take to obtain a temperature using this device? a. 3 to 4 seconds b. 1 minute c. 2 to 3 minutes d. 5 to 10 minutes ANS: A
REF: p. 507
29. You are taking a rectal temperature with a glass thermometer. How long do you typically
leave the thermometer in place? a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 10 minutes ANS: B
REF: p. 507
30. You are taking an axillary temperature with a glass thermometer. How long do you leave the
thermometer in place? a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 2 to 3 minutes d. 5 to 10 minutes ANS: D
REF: p. 507
31. A mercury glass thermometer breaks. Which action is correct? a. Follow procedures for handling hazardous substances. b. Notify the security department. c. Sweep it up and dispose of it in the trash. d. Call the doctor. ANS: A
REF: p. 506
32. The long lines of a Fahrenheit thermometer are marked in: a. even numbers. b. odd numbers.
c. consecutive numbers. d. fractions. ANS: A
REF: p. 513
33. The short lines of a Fahrenheit thermometer are marked in: a. 0.1 of a degree. b. 0.2 of a degree. c. 0.5 of a degree. d. 1.0 of a degree. ANS: B
REF: p. 513
34. The long lines of a centigrade thermometer are marked in: a. even numbers. b. odd numbers. c. consecutive numbers. d. fractions. ANS: C
REF: p. 513
35. The short lines of a centigrade thermometer are marked in: a. 0.1 of a degree. b. 0.2 of a degree. c. 0.5 of a degree. d. 1.0 of a degree. ANS: A
REF: p. 513
36. To read a glass thermometer, you need to hold it: a. at eye level. b. at the tip. c. with tissues. d. with gloved hands. ANS: A
REF: p. 512
37. To rinse a glass thermometer, you need to use: a. cold water. b. warm water. c. hot water. d. a disinfectant solution. ANS: A
REF: p. 512
38. What do you need to do before storing a glass thermometer? a. Clean it following agency policy. b. Clean it with hot water. c. Clean it with soap and water. d. Soak it in a basin of warm water. ANS: A
REF: p. 511
39. A person has ear drainage. When measuring temperature, you cannot use the: a. oral site. b. rectal site. c. axillary site. d. tympanic membrane site. ANS: D
REF: p. 505
40. A person is receiving oxygen. When measuring temperature, you cannot use the: a. oral site. b. rectal site. c. axillary site. d. tympanic membrane site. ANS: A
REF: p. 505
41. A person is unconscious. When measuring temperature, you cannot use the: a. oral site. b. rectal site. c. axillary site. d. tympanic membrane site. ANS: A
REF: p. 505
42. A person is paralyzed on the right side. When measuring temperature, you cannot use the: a. oral site. b. rectal site. c. temporal artery site. d. tympanic membrane site. ANS: A
REF: p. 505
43. A person has a convulsive disorder. When measuring temperature, you cannot use the: a. oral site. b. temporal artery site. c. axillary site. d. tympanic membrane site. ANS: A
REF: p. 505
44. A person has diarrhea. When measuring temperature, you cannot use the: a. oral site. b. rectal site. c. temporal artery site. d. tympanic membrane site. ANS: B
REF: p. 505
45. A person has heart disease. When measuring temperature, you cannot use the: a. oral site. b. rectal site. c. axillary site. d. tympanic membrane site.
ANS: B
REF: p. 505
46. For an accurate measurement, the axillary site needs to be: a. wet. b. dry. c. lubricated. d. cleaned. ANS: B
REF: p. 505
47. To measure a temporal artery temperature, you need to: a. insert the device gently into the ear. b. gently slide the device across the forehead. c. place the device behind the knee. d. gently insert the device between the toes. ANS: B
REF: p. 507
48. A resident smokes. The person just had a cigarette. How long do you need to wait before
taking the person’s temperature orally? a. 5 to 10 minutes b. 10 to 15 minutes c. 15 to 20 minutes d. You do not need to wait ANS: C
REF: p. 508
49. To take a rectal temperaturT e,EtS heTpBeA rsN onKnSeE edLsLtoER be.: COM a. lying down. b. in Sims’ position. c. in the right side-lying position. d. in the prone position. ANS: B
REF: p. 508
50. Before inserting a rectal thermometer, you need to: a. clean it with hot water. b. lubricate the end of the covered probe. c. place it in a probe cover. d. clean it with a disinfectant. ANS: B
REF: p. 508
51. The tympanic membrane thermometer is inserted: a. into the mouth. b. into the rectum. c. under the arm. d. into the ear. ANS: D
REF: p. 509
52. A person has dementia and is confused. Which site should you use to measure temperature for
a reliable reading? a. Oral b. Rectal c. Axillary d. Tympanic membrane ANS: D
REF: p. 505
53. Temperature-sensitive tape is usually applied to the: a. forehead. b. axilla. c. mouth. d. buttock or thigh. ANS: A
REF: p. 506
54. Which is the most often used site for taking a pulse? a. The radial site b. The apical site c. The carotid site d. The brachial site ANS: A
REF: p. 514
55. The apical pulse is found: a. on the thumb side of the wrist. b. just below the left nippT leE . c. just below the right nipple. d. at the inner aspect of the elbow. ANS: B
REF: p. 514
56. Which pulse site requires the use of a stethoscope? a. The radial site b. The apical site c. The carotid site d. The brachial site ANS: B
REF: p. 514
57. Which pulse site is used for children under 2 years old? a. The radial site b. The apical site c. The carotid site d. The brachial site ANS: B
REF: p. 515
58. What should you use to clean a stethoscope? a. Antiseptic wipes b. Disinfectant solution c. Cold water
d. Hot water ANS: A
REF: p. 515
59. Before placing the stethoscope on the person, you need to warm the diaphragm: a. in warm water. b. in hot water. c. in your hand. d. under the person’s arm. ANS: C
REF: p. 516
60. For an adult, which pulse rate is reported to the nurse at once? a. 50 b. 62 c. 75 d. 98 ANS: A
REF: p. 515
61. For an adult, which pulse rate is reported to the nurse at once? a. 66 b. 74 c. 88 d. 110 ANS: D
REF: p. 515
62. You are taking a resident’sTpEuS lsT e.BTA hN e bKeSatEs L arLeEnR ot.sC paOcM ed evenly. How would you describe
the person’s pulse when reporting to the nurse? a. Irregular b. Weak and feeble c. Strong and full d. Thready and bounding ANS: A
REF: p. 515
63. Your agency uses electronic blood pressure equipment. Why do you still need to feel pulses? a. The equipment may not be accurate. b. The rate is given but not the rhythm or force. c. To measure the pulse deficit. d. To measure systole and diastole. ANS: B
REF: p. 517
64. Unless agency policy states a different length of time, a radial pulse is usually counted for: a. 15 seconds. b. 30 seconds. c. 45 seconds. d. 60 seconds. ANS: B
REF: p. 516
65. When taking a radial pulse, you need to use: a. your thumb. b. your 2 or 3 fingertips. c. your ring and little fingertips. d. a stethoscope. ANS: B
REF: p. 516
66. An apical pulse is usually counted for: a. 15 seconds. b. 30 seconds. c. 45 seconds. d. 60 seconds. ANS: D
REF: p. 517
67. When taking an apical pulse, you need to use: a. your thumb. b. the middle 3 fingers. c. your ring and little fingers. d. a stethoscope. ANS: D
REF: p. 517
68. You are taking an apical pulse. Which statement is correct? a. The lub sound is counted as one beat. b. The dub sound is counted as one beat. c. The lub-dub is countedTaE sS onTeBbAeaNt. d. The pulse deficit is counted. ANS: C
REF: p. 517
69. These statements are about apical-radial pulses. Which is correct? a. The rates should be the same. b. The apical rate should be greater than the radial rate. c. The radial rate should be greater than the apical rate. d. The radial rate can be higher than the apical rate. ANS: A
REF: p. 517
70. How many staff members are needed to take an apical-radial pulse? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANS: B 71.
REF: p. 517
To obtain the pulse deficit, you need to: a. add the apical and radial pulse rates. b. subtract the apical pulse rate from the radial pulse rate. c. subtract the radial pulse rate from the apical pulse rate. d. multiply the pulse rates by 2.
ANS: C
REF: p. 517
72. When taking an apical-radial pulse, the pulses are counted for: a. 15 seconds. b. 30 seconds. c. 45 seconds. d. 60 seconds. ANS: D
REF: p. 517
73. Respirations usually are counted: a. after taking the temperature. b. after taking the pulse. c. before measuring blood pressure. d. after measuring blood pressure. ANS: B
REF: p. 517
74. The healthy adult has: a. 10 to 14 respirations per minute. b. 12 to 18 respirations per minute. c. 12 to 20 respirations per minute. d. 15 to 30 respirations per minute. ANS: C
REF: p. 521
75. You are counting a patient’s respirations. Which is correct? ThBaAt N a. You need to tell the peT rsE onSw yoKuSaE reLdLoE inR g. b. Each rise and fall of the chest is counted as 1 respiration. c. One side of the person’s chest should rise and fall at a time. d. Respirations are usually counted for 60 seconds. ANS: B
REF: p. 521
76. You measured a resident’s blood pressure. His diastolic pressure was 78 mm Hg. His systolic
pressure was 144 mm Hg. How do you record these measurements? a. 78 mm Hg/144 mm Hg b. 78/144 mm Hg c. 144 mm Hg/78 mm Hg d. 144/78 mm Hg ANS: C
REF: p. 523
77. Which of the following factors tends to increase blood pressure? a. Severe bleeding b. Excessive sleeping c. Low-sodium diet d. Smoking ANS: D
REF: p. 523
78. Which systolic pressure should you report at once?
a. b. c. d.
168 110 116 118
ANS: A
REF: p. 523
79. Which systolic pressure should you report at once? a. 120 b. 110 c. 90 d. 80 ANS: D
REF: p. 523
80. Which diastolic pressure should you report at once? a. 50 b. 60 c. 70 d. 80 ANS: A
REF: p. 523
81. Which diastolic pressure should you report at once? a. 100 b. 64 c. 70 d. 76 ANS: A
REF: p. 523
82. To measure blood pressure, you need a: a. thermometer. b. stethoscope and sphygmomanometer. c. digital display. d. clock. ANS: B
REF: p. 523
83. The blood pressure cuff is applied over the: a. brachial artery. b. radial artery. c. carotid artery. d. apical pulse. ANS: A
REF: p. 524
84. A patient has a cast on his left wrist. Which statement is correct? a. Blood pressure is measured on the injured arm. b. Blood pressure is measured on the right arm. c. The person decides what arm to use. d. You use the arm that is easiest to reach.
ANS: B
REF: p. 524
85. Ten years ago a patient had breast surgery on her right side. Which is correct? a. Blood pressure is measured on the right arm. b. Blood pressure is measured on the left arm. c. She decides which arm to use. d. You use the arm that is easiest to reach. ANS: B
REF: p. 525
86. A patient has an IV in her left arm. Which is correct? a. Blood pressure is measured on the right arm. b. Blood pressure is measured on the left arm. c. She decides which arm to use. d. You use the arm that is easiest to reach. ANS: A
REF: p. 525
87. A resident just finished his daily exercise program. You need to measure his blood pressure.
How long does he need to rest before the measurement? a. 5 minutes b. 5 to 10 minutes c. 10 to 20 minutes d. 20 to 30 minutes ANS: C
REF: p. 525
88. The blood pressure cuff is applied: TESTB a. over clothing. b. to the bare arm. c. over the radial artery. d. under the brachial artery. ANS: B
REF: p. 525
89. The diastolic pressure is the: a. first sound you hear. b. second sound you hear. c. third sound you hear. d. last sound you hear. ANS: D
REF: p. 527
90. You cannot hear a person’s blood pressure. What should you do? a. Take it again. b. Get a different stethoscope. c. Tell the nurse. d. Record the previous measurement. ANS: C
REF: p. 525
91. You are measuring blood pressure. How fast should you deflate the cuff? a. 2 to 4 mL/per second
b. 4 to 6 mL/per second c. 5 mL/per second d. 10 mL/per second ANS: A
REF: p. 527
92. The systolic pressure is the: a. first sound you hear. b. second sound you hear. c. third sound you hear. d. last sound you hear. ANS: A
REF: p. 527
93. You are measuring blood pressure. How far should you inflate the cuff beyond the point
where you last felt the person’s pulse? a. 10 mm Hg b. 20 mm Hg c. 30 mm Hg d. 40 mm Hg ANS: C
REF: p. 527
TRUE/FALSE 1. Older persons are at risk for orthostatic hypotension. ANS: T
REF: TpE . 5S2T 3
Chapter 34: Exercise and Activity Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Abduction is: a. moving a body part away from the midline of the body. b. moving a body part toward the midline of the body. c. straightening a body part. d. bending a body part. ANS: A
REF: p. 531
2. Adduction is: a. moving a body part away from the midline of the body. b. moving a body part toward the midline of the body. c. straightening a body part. d. bending a body part. ANS: B
REF: p. 531
3. Atrophy is: a. a decrease in size or wasting away of tissue. b. the lack of joint mobility caused by abnormal shortening of a muscle. c. the loss of muscle strength as a result of inactivity. d. a drop in blood pressure when the person stands. ANS: A
REF: p. 531
4. A contracture is: a. a decrease in size or wasting away of tissue. b. the lack of joint mobility caused by abnormal shortening of a muscle. c. the loss of muscle strength as a result of inactivity. d. a drop in blood pressure when the person stands. ANS: B
REF: p. 531
5. Deconditioning is: a. a decrease in size or wasting away of tissue. b. the lack of joint mobility caused by abnormal shortening of a muscle. c. the loss of muscle strength as a result of inactivity. d. a drop in blood pressure when the person stands. ANS: C
REF: p. 531
6. Dorsiflexion is: a. bending a body part. b. straightening a body part. c. bending the toes and foot up at the ankle. d. when the foot falls down at the ankle. ANS: C
REF: p. 531
7. Extension is: a. bending a body part. b. straightening a body part. c. a toe-up motion of the foot at the ankle. d. when the foot falls down at the ankle. ANS: B
REF: p. 531
8. External rotation is: a. turning the joint outward. b. turning the joint inward. c. turning the joint downward. d. turning the joint upward. ANS: A
REF: p. 531
9. Flexion is: a. moving a body part away from the midline of the body. b. moving a body part toward the midline of the body. c. straightening a body part. d. bending a body part. ANS: D
REF: p. 531
10. Bending the foot down at the ankle is: a. pronation. b. plantar flexion. c. supination. d. dorsiflexion. ANS: B
REF: p. 531
11. Footdrop is: a. bending a body part. b. straightening a body part. c. a toe-up motion of the foot at the ankle. d. when the foot falls down at the ankle. ANS: D
REF: p. 531
12. Hyperextension is: a. bending a body part. b. straightening a body part. c. the excessive straightening of a body part. d. a brief loss of consciousness. ANS: C
REF: p. 531
13. Internal rotation is turning the joint: a. outward. b. inward. c. downward.
d. upward. ANS: B
REF: p. 531
14. Orthostatic hypotension is: a. a decrease in size or wasting away of tissue. b. the lack of joint mobility caused by abnormal shortening of a muscle. c. the loss of muscle strength as a result of inactivity. d. an abnormally low blood pressure when the person suddenly stands. ANS: D
REF: p. 531
15. Another name for permanent plantar flexion is: a. footdrop. b. postural hypotension. c. fainting. d. orthosis. ANS: A
REF: p. 531
16. Pronation is turning the joint: a. outward. b. inward. c. downward. d. upward. ANS: C
REF: p. 531
17. Rotation is: a. turning the joint outward. b. turning the joint inward. c. turning the joint downward. d. turning the joint. ANS: D
REF: p. 531
18. Supination is turning the joint: a. outward. b. inward. c. downward. d. upward. ANS: D
REF: p. 531
19. Syncope is: a. footdrop. b. postural hypotension. c. fainting. d. orthosis. ANS: C
REF: p. 531
20. The act of walking is:
a. b. c. d.
trochanter. ambulation. orthosis. range of motion.
ANS: B
REF: p. 531
21. The doctor ordered strict bed rest for a resident. Which is correct? a. The person can perform some activities of daily living. b. Everything is done for the person. c. The person can use the beside commode. d. The person can use the bathroom. ANS: B
REF: p. 532
22. The doctor ordered bed rest for a resident. Which is correct? a. The person can perform some activities of daily living. b. Everything is done for the person. c. The person can use the beside commode. d. The person can use the bathroom. ANS: A
REF: p. 532
23. Which will prevent complications from bed rest? a. Deconditioning b. Few position changes c. Limit the use of pillows for support d. Range-of-motion exercTisE es ANS: D
REF: p. 532
24. Orthostatic hypotension is prevented by: a. measuring blood pressure. b. counting the pulse and respirations. c. slowly changing positions. d. preventing deconditioning. ANS: C
REF: p. 532
25. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of orthostatic hypotension? a. Dizziness b. Pressure injuries c. A rise in blood pressure d. Increased awareness of your surroundings ANS: A
REF: p. 533
26. A resident is on bed rest. Before the person gets out of bed, you need to position her in: a. Sims’ position. b. the lateral position. c. the prone position. d. Fowler’s position.
ANS: D
REF: p. 533
27. A resident is on bed rest. Before the person gets out of bed, you need to measure which of the
following? a. Temperature b. Weight c. Output d. Blood pressure ANS: D
REF: p. 533
28. The doctor ordered bed boards for a resident. Bed boards prevent: a. plantar flexion. b. the hips and legs from external rotation. c. contractures of the thumb, fingers, and wrist. d. the mattress from sagging. ANS: D
REF: p. 533
29. The doctor ordered a foot-board for a resident. The foot-board prevents: a. plantar flexion. b. the hips and legs from external rotation. c. contractures of the thumb, fingers, and wrist. d. the mattress from sagging. ANS: A
REF: p. 533
30. The doctor ordered trochanter rolls for a patient. Trochanter rolls prevent: TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. plantar flexion. b. the hips and legs from external rotation. c. contractures of the thumb, fingers, and wrist. d. the mattress from sagging. ANS: B
REF: p. 533
31. A hip abduction wedge is positioned: a. under the person from the hip to the knee. b. under the mattress. c. between the person’s legs. d. at the foot of the mattress. ANS: C
REF: p. 533
32. The doctor ordered a bed cradle for a resident. The bed cradle: a. keeps top linens off the feet. b. keeps the mattress from sagging. c. is a more comfortable bed. d. keeps the hips abducted. ANS: A
REF: p. 533
33. Hand grips prevent contractures of the: a. thumb, fingers, and wrist.
b. hands and forearm. c. elbow. d. fingers and elbow. ANS: A
REF: p. 533
34. The doctor ordered a trapeze for a patient. The person can use the trapeze: a. for ambulation. b. for exercises to prevent hip contractures. c. for exercises to strengthen arm muscles. d. to prevent contractures of the thumb, wrist, and fingers. ANS: C
REF: p. 534
35. Passive range-of-motion exercises are done: a. by the person. b. by a health team member. c. by the person with your help. d. with a trapeze. ANS: B
REF: p. 535
36. Active-assistive range-of-motion exercises are done: a. by the person. b. by a health team member. c. by the person with your help. d. with a trapeze. ANS: C
. 5S3T 5 REF: TpE
37. Active range-of-motion exercises are done: a. by the person. b. by a health team member. c. by the person with your help. d. with a trapeze. ANS: A
REF: p. 535
38. You are delegated range-of-motion exercises. Which is correct? a. Exercise the joints that look the weakest to you. b. Support the part being exercised. c. Move the joint quickly. d. Force each joint through its full range of motion. ANS: B
REF: p. 536
39. You can perform range-of-motion exercises to the neck only if: a. there is a doctor’s order. b. the patient or resident asks you to. c. you are supervised by a physical therapist. d. allowed by your agency and the nurse instructs you to. ANS: D
REF: p. 536
40. Which exercise should be avoided on the shoulder? a. Flexion b. Extension c. Supination d. Hyperextension ANS: C
REF: p. 537
41. Which exercises are done to the elbow? a. Pronation and supination b. Flexion and extension c. Abduction and adduction d. Internal and external rotation ANS: B
REF: p. 537
42. Which exercises are done to the forearm? a. Pronation and supination b. Flexion and extension c. Abduction and adduction d. Internal and external rotation ANS: A
REF: p. 537
43. Which exercises are done to the knee? a. Flexion and extension b. Abduction and adduction T c. Internal and external rotation d. Radial and ulnar flexion ANS: A
REF: p. 537
44. Which exercises are done to the ankle? a. Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion b. Abduction and adduction c. Internal and external rotation d. Radial and ulnar flexion ANS: A
REF: p. 537
45. Which exercises are done to the foot? a. Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion b. Pronation and supination c. Internal and external rotation d. Radial and ulnar flexion ANS: B
REF: p. 537
46. How do you flex the toes? a. Pull them together. b. Spread them apart. c. Curl them.
d. Straighten them. ANS: C
REF: p. 537
47. You are performing passive range-of-motion exercises. Which action will promote comfort? a. Exposing the body so that you have easy access to the part being exercised b. Asking the person to support the part being exercised c. Providing for privacy d. Moving the joint quickly and forcefully ANS: C
REF: p. 536
48. A resident is unsteady. When assisting the person with ambulation, you need to apply a: a. gait belt. b. walking aid. c. supportive device. d. brace. ANS: A 49.
REF: p. 541
How far should you walk a person? a. As far as the person can tolerate. b. As far as directed by the nurse and the care plan. c. Down the hall and back to the room. d. As far as the person chooses. ANS: B
REF: p. 541
50. When ambulating, a personTE neSedTsBtA oN wK eaSr: a. slippers. b. slip-resistant shoes. c. whatever the person chooses. d. athletic shoes. ANS: B
REF: p. 542
51. When ambulating a person, you stand: a. in front of the person. b. in back of the person. c. to the side and slightly behind the person. d. where the person chooses. ANS: C
REF: p. 542
52. A patient has crutches. You need to do which of the following? a. Teach the person how to use them. b. Check the crutch tips to see if they are worn down or wet. c. Make sure the bolts are loose. d. Have the person wear socks. ANS: B
REF: p. 544
53. These statements are about canes. Which is correct?
a. b. c. d.
The cane is held on the weak side. The grip is level with the chest. The cane is moved behind first. The cane tip is about 6 to 10 inches to the side of the foot.
ANS: D 54.
REF: p. 542
A person uses a walker. Which is correct? The walker is held on the strong side. The person moves the feet first. The walker is moved first. The walker is moved about 8 to 12 inches in front of the person.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
REF: p. 542
55. Which walking aids allow attachments? a. Canes b. Crutches c. Walkers d. Braces ANS: C
REF: p. 542
56. Which provide support for weak body parts? a. Canes b. Crutches c. Walkers d. Braces ANS: D
REF: p. 545
57. A person wears a brace. You must: a. check the brace tips to make sure they are not wet or torn. b. keep the skin under the brace clean and dry. c. make sure the person wears loose clothing. d. make sure the brace is held on the strong side. ANS: B
REF: p. 545
58. Which of the following is correct regarding having persons participate in activities? a. You are not responsible for assisting residents to activity programs. b. You do not assist with activities. c. The activity director decides which activities each person attends. d. Participating in activities of personal choice promotes the person’s well-being. ANS: D
REF: p. 546
59. When a person is using a walker, he should place the walker how far in front of the feet with
each step? a. 4 to 6 inches b. 6 to 8 inches c. 8 to 10 inches d. 12 inches, or 1 foot
ANS: B
REF: p. 542
Chapter 35: Comfort, Rest, and Sleep Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Acute pain is typically caused by: a. injury, disease, trauma, or surgery. b. arthritis. c. tissue damage. d. a body part that is no longer there. ANS: A
REF: p. 548
2. Acute pain: a. is felt suddenly. b. is felt in a body part that is no longer there. c. is felt at the site of tissue damage and in nearby areas. d. is constant or occurs on and off. ANS: A
REF: p. 548
3. Chronic pain typically continues for: a. days. b. hours. c. minutes. d. months. ANS: D
REF: p. 548
4. The day-night cycle is: a. REM sleep. b. NREM sleep. c. the sleep-wake cycle. d. circadian rhythm. ANS: D
REF: p. 548
5. Changing a person’s center of attention is: a. guided imagery. b. distraction. c. circadian rhythm. d. relaxation. ANS: B
REF: p. 548
6. A person has no physical or emotional pain. The person is calm and at peace. This is: a. insomnia. b. comfort. c. rest. d. sleep. ANS: B
REF: p. 548
7. Urinary incontinence in bed at night is: a. enuresis. b. NREM sleep. c. REM sleep. d. sleep wetting. ANS: A
REF: p. 557
8. Creating and focusing on an image is: a. distraction. b. guided imagery. c. relaxation. d. rest. ANS: B
REF: p. 548
9. Insomnia is: a. the day-night cycle. b. a state of unconsciousness. c. a chronic condition in which the person cannot sleep or stay asleep all night. d. to ache, hurt, be sore, or have pain. ANS: C 10.
REF: p. 548
Phantom pain is: felt suddenly. felt in a body part that T isEnS oT loBnA geNr K thSerEeL . felt at the site of tissue damage and in nearby areas. discomfort.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B 11.
REF: p. 548
Radiating pain is: a. felt suddenly. b. felt in a body part that is no longer there. c. felt at the site of tissue damage and in nearby areas. d. constant or occurs on and off. ANS: C
REF: p. 548
12. To be free from mental or physical stress is: a. comfort. b. rest. c. relaxation. d. sleep. ANS: C
REF: p. 548
13. A state of unconsciousness, reduced voluntary muscle control, and lowered metabolism is: a. comfort. b. rest. c. relaxation.
d. sleep. ANS: D
REF: p. 548
14. Which of the following promotes comfort? a. Clothes which are scattered across the floor. b. Multiple stacks of mail and magazines. c. An odor-free room. d. A room temperature below 70° F. ANS: C
REF: p. 549
15. Mr. Jones is a nursing center resident. Which room temperature will most likely promote his
comfort? a. 65° F b. 68° F c. 75° F d. 85° F ANS: C
REF: p. 549
16. How many nursing center residents can share a room? a. No more than 2 b. No more than 3 c. No more than 4 d. No more than 5 ANS: C
REF: p. 549
17. A patient complains of severe pain. Which is correct? a. You need to collect information about the person’s pain. b. Pain means that there is tissue damage. c. You need to treat the pain with medication. d. If the person is sleeping soon after complaining of pain, is not truly in pain. ANS: A
REF: p. 550
18. Which statement about pain is correct? a. The meaning of pain is the same for everyone. b. You can see and feel another person’s pain. c. Sore and aching mean the same thing to everyone. d. Pain is a warning from the body. ANS: D
REF: p. 550
19. Anxiety tends to: a. relieve pain. b. increase pain. c. promote sleep. d. lessen fear and worry. ANS: B
REF: p. 550
20. Why is pain usually worse at night? a. It is dark outside. b. There are fewer distractions and the person has more time to think. c. Fewer people are around to explain treatments and therapies. d. The night-time influences a person’s cultural responses to pain. ANS: B
REF: p. 550
21. These statements are about pain. Which is correct? a. Pain is determined by the nurse. b. Family and friends are not able to help the person deal with pain. c. Pain is useful for some people because of the attention they get. d. The ability to feel pain increases with aging. ANS: C
REF: p. 550
22. Dealing with pain is often easier when: a. family and friends offer comfort and support. b. the person is alone. c. the person is in the hospital. d. the person has never had pain before. ANS: A
REF: p. 550
23. A resident has dementia. The person cannot explain when or where the pain is. How can you
tell when the person has pain? a. The person’s family will tell you. b. Behavior changes mayTsig naTl B paAinN. ES c. The person will be stoic. d. Pain is not a concern. Persons With Dementia cannot feel pain. ANS: B
REF: p. 550
24. Which statement is correct? a. Children never understand pain. b. Children have less pain than adults do. c. Children deal with pain in the same way adults do. d. Children rely on adults for help in relieving pain. ANS: D
REF: p. 550
25. A patient complains of pain. Which will help you collect information about the person’s pain? a. Ask if the pain is mild, moderate, or severe. b. Ask the person what he ate for breakfast. c. Ask the family members if they feel the person is really in pain. d. Give the person drugs to relieve the pain. ANS: A
REF: p. 550
26. You are reporting a patient’s pain to the nurse. Which is correct? a. Use the person’s exact words. b. Report where you saw the pain. c. Report where you measured the pain.
d. Report the information at the end of the shift. ANS: A
REF: p. 550
27. Which of the following words are used to describe pain? a. Full, bounding, and feeble b. Sharp, knifelike, and stabbing c. Early, soft, comfortable d. Relief, soothing, relaxing ANS: B
REF: p. 551
28. A patient complains of severe pain. The person is sweating and complains of nausea. The
sweating and nausea are: a. other signs and symptoms of pain. b. due to anxiety. c. drug side effects. d. related to the person’s illness. ANS: A
REF: p. 551
29. A resident has dementia. The person is restless and is grunting and groaning. You know that
the behaviors are: a. signs and symptoms of pain. b. related to dementia. c. cultural responses. d. related to anxiety. ANS: A
. 5S5T 1 REF: TpE
30. Some persons do not feel pain. These persons are at risk for: a. dementia. b. undetected disease or injury. c. non-REM sleep. d. sleep deprivation and insomnia. ANS: B
REF: p. 549
31. A resident complains of severe pain. The following measures are on the person’s care plan.
Which should you question? a. Position the person in good alignment. b. Keep bed linens tight and wrinkle-free. c. Provide loud music for distraction. d. Provide blankets for warmth. ANS: C
REF: p. 552
32. The nurse gave a patient a pain medication. Which will promote the person’s safety? a. Raising the bed to the high position b. Using bed rails regardless of whether the patient wants them or not c. Checking on the person every hour d. Providing assistance when the person is up
ANS: D
REF: p. 552
33. A resident has pain. The person is taught how to breathe deeply and slowly and how to
contract and relax muscle groups. What is this called? a. Distraction b. Relaxation c. Guided imagery d. Rest ANS: B
REF: p. 552
34. The nurse assesses that a patient has pain. The nurse asks you to sit and talk to the person and
play some music. These measures are intended to: a. distract the person. b. relax the person. c. use guided imagery. d. help the person sleep. ANS: A
REF: p. 552
35. A resident was given pain medication. When the person gets out of bed, you must be alert for
signs and symptoms of: a. orthostatic hypotension. b. nausea and vomiting. c. dementia. d. infection. ANS: A
REF: TpE . 5S52 T
36. The nurse wants a resident to rest. Which of the following will promote rest? a. Having the person keep the curtains open b. Following the person’s routines for rest c. Making the person lie down d. Providing music in the background through the intercom system ANS: B
REF: p. 557
37. Which of the following measures promotes rest? a. Limiting visitation with caring family b. Keeping the television on to provide background noise c. Practicing relaxation methods d. Having the person put on a hospital gown ANS: C
REF: p. 557
38. A resident likes to take a nap in the early afternoon. Which is correct? a. The person should be allowed to rest at that time. b. It is better if the person rests in the late afternoon. c. Napping is avoided. d. A nap is allowed only if part of the person’s care plan. ANS: A
REF: p. 557
39. The person is hard to arouse during: a. stage 1 of NREM sleep. b. REM sleep. c. insomnia. d. sleepwalking. ANS: B
REF: p. 556
40. How many hours of sleep does a newborn need? a. 10 to 11 b. 11 to 12 c. 12 to 14 d. 14 to 18 ANS: D
REF: p. 556
41. A resident is 84 years old. How many hours of sleep does the person need? a. 5 to 7 b. 7 to 8 c. 10 to 11 d. 11 to 12 ANS: B
REF: p. 556
42. Which of the following measures will promote sleep? a. Providing tea and chocolate cake before bedtime b. Assisting with exercise workouts in the evening c. Assisting with a showeT rE beSfoTrB eA beNdK tim e SE d. Playing a game of BINGO with other residents ANS: C
REF: p. 557
43. The nurse gives a patient a sleeping pill at bedtime. You know that sleeping pills: a. promote healthy sleep. b. can interfere with REM sleep. c. are given for emotional problems. d. are given to prevent insomnia. ANS: B
REF: p. 556
44. A resident has red, puffy eyes in the morning. During the day, the person is sleepy, has
problems finding the right words, and is restless. These are signs and symptoms of: a. sleepwalking. b. sleep deprivation. c. circadian rhythm. d. distraction. ANS: B
REF: p. 556
45. Insomnia includes which of the following? a. Sleepwalking b. Sleep deprivation c. Nightmares
d. Waking early and being unable to fall back asleep ANS: D
REF: p. 556
46. The nurse assesses that a resident is suffering from sleep deprivation. Which is correct? a. The person cannot sleep or stay asleep. b. The amount and quality of sleep are decreased. c. The person leaves his bed and walks about during sleep. d. The person is having pain. ANS: B
REF: p. 556
47. Which are signs or symptoms of sleep deprivation? a. Sweating, nausea, and vomiting b. Regular pulse rate c. Hyperactive response to questions and fast speech d. Agitation, restlessness, and disorientation ANS: D
REF: p. 556
48. You find a person sleepwalking. You should do which of the following? a. Turn on the lights. b. Grab the person by the shoulders and look the person in the eye until he wakes up. c. Shake the person’s arms until he wakes up. d. Guide the person back to bed. ANS: D
REF: p. 556
Malking around. What should you do? 49. A resident has difficulty slT eeEpS inT g.BTAhN eK peSrE soL nLisEuRp.aC ndOw a. Guide the person back to bed and close the room door. b. Restrain the person. c. Let the person wander in a safe supervised area. d. Give the person toast and coffee. ANS: C
REF: p. 556
50. The circadian rhythm is known as: a. a daily rhythm based on a 24-hour cycle. b. a regular heart rhythm. c. the rhythm of the respiratory effort. d. the rhythm of a 60-second minute. ANS: A
REF: p. 555
TRUE/FALSE 1. Toddlers and preschoolers may not have the words to express pain. ANS: T
REF: p. 550
2. You must always check with the nurse before picking up and holding a child. ANS: T
REF: p. 553
Chapter 36: Admissions, Transfers, and Discharges Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Usually, the admission process starts in the: a. social worker’s office. b. administrator’s office. c. admitting office. d. medical director’s office. ANS: C
REF: p. 560
2. The nurse asks you to assist with the admission of a new resident. What can the nurse delegate
to you? a. Escorting the person to his or her room b. Having the person sign admitting papers c. Having the person sign a general consent for treatment d. Explaining resident rights to the person ANS: A
REF: p. 560
3. A new resident has dementia. You should expect which of the following? a. The person’s confusion will decrease in the new setting. b. The person may show signs of fear and agitation. c. The admission will not have any effect on the person. LoLnEthRs. d. The person will die witT hE inSthTeBfA irsNt K feSwEm ANS: B
REF: p. 561
4. You are going to prepare a room for a new patient. How do you know what equipment is
needed? a. You check the care plan. b. The nurse tells you. c. You follow hospital policy. Every patient needs the same equipment. d. The person’s family tells you. ANS: B
REF: p. 561
5. A new resident is ambulatory. What type of bed should you make? a. An open bed b. A closed bed c. A surgical bed d. An occupied bed ANS: B
REF: p. 561
6. A new nursing center resident is going to arrive by stretcher. What type of bed should you
make? a. An open bed b. A closed bed
c. A surgical bed d. An occupied bed ANS: C
REF: p. 561
7. A new hospital patient is ambulatory. Which is correct? a. Open the bed. b. Raise the bed to its highest position. c. Lower the bed rails. d. Attach the call light to the bed linens. ANS: D
REF: p. 561
8. The nurse asks you to assist in admitting a new resident. When should you complete your part
of the admission process? a. As soon as the person gets to the room. b. After the person changes into a gown. c. When the person is comfortable. d. After the person is weighed and measured. ANS: C
REF: p. 561
9. You are admitting a new patient. To find out the person’s name, you should: a. ask the person. b. ask the family. c. check the admission form. d. check the care plan. ANS: C
. 5S6T 1 REF: TpE
10. How can you help a new resident know the names of other residents? a. Introduce the person to other residents. b. Have the other residents wear nametags. c. Write down their names. d. Give the person his/her photos. ANS: A
REF: p. 561
11. You are admitting a new resident. You will do which of the following? a. Measure the person’s vital signs. b. Measure the person’s urinary output. c. Bathe the person before allowing her in her room. d. Tell the person about treatments and the care plan. ANS: A
REF: p. 563
12. You are admitting a new resident. You will do which of the following? a. Discuss the person’s diagnoses and medical history. b. Complete a medication list. c. Orient the person to the room. d. Teach the person how to perform her own wound care. ANS: C
REF: p. 563
13. You have finished admitting a new patient. Before leaving the person’s room, you need to do
which of the following? a. Change the bed from closed to open. b. Have the person verify that all of the equipment is in working order. c. Lower or raise the bed rails according to the care plan. d. Raise the bed. ANS: C
REF: p. 564
14. You are helping a new resident unpack. Which is correct? a. The care plan states where to put things. b. You decide where to put things. c. Allow the family to help decide where to put things. d. The nurse decides where to put things. ANS: C
REF: p. 564
15. You are admitting a new resident. The person’s niece is in the room. You ask the niece to
leave the room. Which is correct? a. The niece must leave the room. b. You have no right to ask the niece to leave. c. The resident can ask the niece to stay. d. The niece needs to stay. She needs to give identifying information. ANS: C
REF: p. 563
16. You are admitting a new reTsE idS enTt.BTAhN eK peSrE soLnL ’sEnR ie. ceCiO sM in the room. You ask the niece to
leave the room. Why did you ask her to leave? a. To provide for privacy b. To see how the new resident reacts c. So you can ask if the niece is abusive d. To provide for personal choice ANS: A
REF: p. 563
17. You are going to measure a resident’s height. The nurse tells you: a. How to measure height? b. What the person’s height should be? c. If you should use a standing scale or tape measure? d. If the person should wear shoes? ANS: C
REF: p. 564
18. To balance a scale, you must move the weights to: a. 0. b. 10. c. 50. d. 100. ANS: A
REF: p. 564
19. Before you weigh a person, you need to have the person:
a. b. c. d.
drink a glass of water. void. have a bowel movement. put on a robe and footwear.
ANS: B
REF: p. 564
20. Which is a guideline for measuring weight and height? a. Footwear is worn. b. The person voids after being weighed. c. Weigh the person at different times of day. d. Use the same scale for daily, weekly, and monthly weights. ANS: D
REF: p. 564
21. A patient is in bed. To measure height with the person in bed, you need to: a. keep the bed in the low position. b. position the person prone. c. get a co-worker to help you. d. raise both bed rails. ANS: C
REF: p. 568
22. A resident is transferring to a different room. The nurse asks you to transfer the person. You
can do which of the following? a. Help the person pack. b. Transport the person to the new room. c. Discontinue all tubes aT ndEdSrT aiB nsA. d. Bring the person’s chart, care plan, and drugs. ANS: A
REF: p. 569
23. These statements are about transfers. Which is correct? a. Only a doctor can request a transfer. b. A transfer may be needed if the person’s condition changes. c. The person is transported by stretcher only. d. Transfers will cost the person more money. ANS: B
REF: p. 570
24. A resident is being transferred to another unit. Which will help reassure the person? a. Telling the person that everything will be OK b. Avoid discussing the transfer with the person c. Suggesting that the person wait until the following day to meet new residents so
that they can adjust to the new surroundings d. Introducing the person to the new roommate and other residents ANS: D
REF: p. 570
25. A resident is going to be discharged. You can do which of the following? a. Help the person dress as needed. b. Get valuables from the safe. c. Give the person his remaining medications.
d. Return the person’s valuables to the person’s family. ANS: A
REF: p. 570
26. A patient is going to be discharged. You can: a. give the person prescriptions written by the doctor. b. provide discharge instructions. c. have the person sign the personal belongings list. d. help the person into the car. ANS: D
REF: p. 570
27. A patient is going to be discharged. Before the person can leave: a. the doctor must give a discharge order. b. the person must be transported to the exit area by wheelchair or stretcher. c. the person must pay the bill. d. the person must sign a consent form. ANS: A
REF: p. 570
28. A resident wants to leave the nursing center. The doctor has not written a discharge order.
What should you do? a. Let the person leave. The person has the right to make personal choices. b. Call the doctor. c. Call the person’s family. d. Tell the nurse. ANS: D
REF: p. 570
TRUE/FALSE 1. You introduce yourself to a new resident by name and title. ANS: T
REF: p. 563
2. You explain the reason for transfer or discharge to the person. ANS: F
REF: p. 570
3. A nursing center resident objects to a transfer or a discharge. An ombudsman makes sure the
person’s best interests are considered. ANS: T
REF: p. 560
Chapter 37: Assisting With the Physical Examination Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A man is in the dorsal recumbent position. This means that the person is: a. kneeling with his body resting on his knees and chest. b. lying on his back with his legs together. c. lying on his back, his knees are flexed, his hips are externally rotated, and his feet
are in stirrups. d. lying on his left side. ANS: B
REF: p. 573
2. A woman is in the lithotomy position. This means that she is: a. kneeling with her body resting on her knees and chest. b. lying on her back with her legs together. c. lying on her back, her knees are flexed, her hips are externally rotated, and her feet
are in stirrups. d. lying on her left side. ANS: C
REF: p. 573
3. When in the knee-chest position, the person’s arms are: a. at the sides. b. above the head. c. under the chest. d. out to the sides. ANS: B
REF: p. 573
4. A laryngeal mirror is used to examine the: a. vagina. b. rectum. c. mouth, teeth, and throat. d. ears. ANS: C
REF: p. 573
5. A nasal speculum is used to examine the: a. inside of the nose. b. vagina. c. rectum. d. mouth, teeth, and throat. ANS: A
REF: p. 573
6. An ophthalmoscope is used to examine the internal structures of the: a. nose. b. ears. c. eyes.
d. vagina. ANS: C
REF: p. 573
7. An otoscope is used to examine the: a. nose. b. external ear and eardrum. c. eyes. d. mouth, teeth, and throat. ANS: B
REF: p. 573
8. A percussion hammer is used to: a. examine the eardrum. b. test reflexes. c. examine the tympanic membrane. d. test hearing. ANS: B
REF: p. 573
9. A tuning fork is used to: a. examine the eardrum. b. test reflexes. c. examine the tympanic membrane. d. test hearing. ANS: D
REF: p. 573
10. A vaginal speculum is usedTE toSeT xaBmAinNeKtS heE: a. cervix. b. ears. c. nose. d. eyes. ANS: A
REF: p. 573
11. Which health team members can perform physical examinations? a. The nursing team b. Physical therapists c. Doctors and APRNs d. RNs and LPNs ANS: C
REF: p. 573
12. To prepare a person for an exam, you need which of the following information from the nurse
and the care plan? a. How soon you should position the person? b. How to place the person in the ordered position? c. Why the person needs the exam? d. If a urine specimen is needed. ANS: D
REF: p. 573
13. You are going to assist with a vaginal exam. You can do which of the following? a. Drape the person. b. Obtain the specimen from the vagina. c. Insert the vaginal speculum. d. Feel abdominal organs. ANS: A
REF: p. 576
14. You are going to assist with a physical exam. You can do which of the following? a. Collect supplies and equipment. b. Explain the procedure to the person. c. Administer pain medication before the exam. d. Obtain the person’s informed consent. ANS: A
REF: p. 575
15. You are preparing a resident for a physical exam. Which is correct? a. You need to be sensitive to the person’s fears and concerns. b. You must respect personal choice by letting the person choose what to wear. c. You explain why the exam is needed and what to expect. d. You obtain the person’s informed consent. ANS: A
REF: p. 575
16. Which action protects the person’s privacy during the exam? a. Screen the person. b. Open the window coverings in the room so the person can see outside. c. Take a picture of the peTrE soSnTwBitA h NyK ouSr EpL hoLnE eR as.aCm OeMthod of distraction. d. Leave the door open so that you can listen for an expected phone call. ANS: A
REF: p. 574
17. What is usually worn for a physical exam? a. Pajamas b. A patient gown c. A drape d. Regular clothes ANS: B
REF: p. 574
18. You ask the person to void before a physical exam. Why is this necessary? a. So the examiner can feel abdominal organs. b. So the exam is not interrupted with the need to urinate. c. To obtain a urine specimen. d. To measure output. ANS: A
REF: p. 574
19. The nurse asks you to weigh a resident before an examination. Which is correct? a. The person wears a hospital gown and slippers. b. The person is undressed for the exam after being weighed. c. The person urinates before being weighed. d. The person chooses what to wear.
ANS: C
REF: p. 574
20. You are preparing a 2-year-old boy for a physical exam. Which is correct? a. He voids before the exam. b. His diaper is removed. c. He is undressed. d. His diaper is left on. ANS: D
REF: p. 574
21. A person complains of being cold during the examination. What should you do? a. Provide a bath blanket. b. Turn up the heat. c. Tell the examiner. d. Tell the person the exam will be over shortly. ANS: A
REF: p. 575
22. Which examination position is used to examine the cervix of a female resident? a. The lithotomy position b. The Sims’ position c. The position she chooses d. The position the examiner chooses ANS: A
REF: p. 576
23. The dorsal recumbent position is used to examine which of the following areas? a. Rectum b. Back c. Buttocks d. Breasts ANS: D
REF: p. 576
24. The knee-chest position is used to examine the: a. rectum. b. abdomen. c. chest. d. breasts. ANS: A
REF: p. 576
25. The Sims’ position is used to examine the: a. rectum or vagina. b. chest and abdomen. c. breasts and abdomen. d. chest and breasts. ANS: A
REF: p. 576
26. Before helping a person assume an examination position, you must: a. tell the person not to worry.
b. explain how to assume the position. c. drape the person. d. raise the bed rails near you. ANS: B
REF: p. 576
27. A female resident is ready for a male doctor to do the exam. You are a female. What should
you do? a. Leave the room. b. Stay in the room. c. Open the door. d. Remove the drape. ANS: B
REF: p. 577
28. A resident has dementia. The person is agitated. The person resists having the exam. Which is
correct? a. The person is restrained. b. The exam is tried at another time. c. The reason for the exam is explained to the person. d. The person is forced to have the exam. ANS: B
REF: p. 577
29. During the exam: a. the drape is removed. b. the gown is removed. c. only the part being exaT mE inSeT dB isAeN xpKoS seEdL . d. you need to be out of the room. ANS: C
REF: p. 577
30. When assisting with a physical exam, you are responsible for which of the following? a. Protecting the right to privacy b. Obtaining informed consent c. Explaining the procedure to the person d. Collecting the specimens from the exam ANS: A
REF: p. 577
31. After the exam, you need to do which of the following? a. Discard disposable items. b. Identify the types of specimens and label each. c. Give the person a medication for relaxation. d. Explain the results to the family. ANS: A
REF: p. 577
32. The doctor completed the exam. You should do which of the following? a. Tell the person the procedure the doctor completed. b. Explain to the family how the doctor completed the exam. c. Cover the exam table with clean paper. d. Explain the results in terms the person can understand.
ANS: C
REF: p. 577
33. The following were used during the exam. Which can you discard? a. Paper drapes b. Otoscope c. Metal speculum d. Ophthalmoscope ANS: A
REF: p. 577
TRUE/FALSE 1. An exam is done only with the person’s consent. ANS: T
REF: p. 574
2. The knee-chest position is commonly used for older adults. ANS: F
REF: p. 576
3. A parent is present when an infant or young child is examined. ANS: T
REF: p. 577
Chapter 38: Collecting and Testing Specimens Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Acetone is: a. a tube used to drain or inject fluid through a body opening. b. an artificial way to remove waste and excess fluid from the body. c. sugar in the urine. d. a substance that appears in the urine from the rapid breakdown of fat for energy. ANS: D
REF: p. 579
2. Glucosuria means: a. sugar in the urine. b. blood in the urine. c. a scant amount of urine. d. difficult or painful urination. ANS: A
REF: p. 579
3. Glucosuria means: a. sugar in the urine. b. blood in the urine. c. a scant amount of urine. d. difficult or painful urination. ANS: A
REF: p. 579
4. Hematuria means: a. sugar in the urine. b. blood in the urine. c. a scant amount of urine. d. difficult or painful urination. ANS: B
REF: p. 579
5. Melena is: a. the excessive formation of gas in the stomach and intestines. b. gas or air in the stomach or intestines. c. a black, tarry stool. d. excreted feces. ANS: C
REF: p. 579
6. Mucus from the respiratory system that is expelled through the mouth is: a. phlegm. b. saliva. c. sputum. d. ketone. ANS: C
REF: p. 579
7. Bloody sputum is: a. ketone. b. hemoptysis. c. saliva. d. postural drainage. ANS: B
REF: p. 579
8. Which health team member orders what specimens to collect and the tests needed? a. The RN b. The LPN/LVN c. The physical therapist d. The doctor or APRN ANS: D
REF: p. 580
9. You need to collect a urine specimen from a 2-year-old child. The child is not toilet-trained.
Which is correct? a. The child sits on the potty chair until the child urinates. b. A urinary catheter is inserted. c. A collection bag is attached to the child’s genital area. d. The child’s wet diaper is placed in a bag and sent to the laboratory. ANS: C
REF: p. 585
10. The nurse asks you to collect a random urine specimen. Which is correct? a. No special measures are needed. TESTBA b. The perineal area is cleaned before collecting the specimen. c. The first voiding is discarded. d. The person voids twice. ANS: A
REF: p. 580
11. The nurse asks you to collect a midstream specimen. Which is correct? a. No special measures are needed. b. The perineal area is cleaned before collecting the specimen. c. The first voiding is discarded. d. The person voids twice. ANS: B
REF: p. 582
12. The nurse asks you to collect a 24-hour urine specimen. Which is correct? a. No special measures are needed. b. The perineal area is cleaned before collecting the specimen. c. The first voiding is discarded. d. The person voids twice. ANS: C
REF: p. 584
13. Preservative from a 24-hour urine collection container splashed on your hand. You should do
which of the following? a. Wipe your hand off on your scrub top.
b. Soak your hand in warm soapy water for 20 minutes. c. Tell the nurse what happened and check the MSDS. d. Explain to the person’s family what happened. ANS: C
REF: p. 584
14. You need to collect a midstream urine specimen from a female resident. Which action is
correct? a. Clean, disposable gloves are used. b. The urethral area is cleaned from back to front. c. The labia are kept separated until you collect 30 to 60 mL. d. The labia are not separated during the void. ANS: C
REF: p. 582
15. The doctor orders testing for glucosuria and ketones. Which specimen is best? a. A random urine specimen b. A midstream urine specimen c. A 24-hour urine specimen d. A double-voided specimen ANS: A
REF: p. 587
16. The doctor orders testing for glucosuria and ketones. When are these tests usually done? a. During AM and HS care b. After meals c. 30 minutes before each meal and at bedtime d. Every time the person ur TEinSatTes ANS: C
REF: p. 587
17. Which measures whether urine is acidic or alkaline? a. Testing for pH b. Testing for glucose c. Testing for ketones d. Straining urine ANS: A
REF: p. 587
18. You are using reagent strips to test urine. You must do which of the following? a. Ask the nurse to interpret the colors on the strip. b. Follow Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. c. Send the strip to the lab for analysis. d. Soak the strip in the specimen for 60 seconds. ANS: B
REF: p. 588
19. When testing urine is delegated to you, you need which of the following information from the
nurse and the care plan? a. What test is needed? b. How to follow Standard Precautions? c. How to analyze the strips? d. What to do with the test strips?
ANS: A
REF: p. 580
20. Urine is strained to check for: a. acetone. b. blood. c. stones. d. urine pH. ANS: C
REF: p. 589
21. The nurse asks you to strain a person’s urine. To do this, you need: a. a midstream urine specimen. b. a 24-hour urine specimen. c. a strainer or gauze. d. elastic tape. ANS: C
REF: p. 589
22. After straining a person’s urine, you find some particles. What should you do? a. Take the specimen and requisition slip to the laboratory or storage area. b. Discard the specimen after observing the results. c. Test the particles for blood. d. Measure the particles. ANS: A
REF: p. 589
23. You are collecting a stool specimen. Which is correct? a. Transfer the expelled sT toE olStT oB thA eN spKeS ciE mLenLE coRn. taC inO erM. b. Have the person defecate into the specimen container. c. Use a tongue blade to transfer 2 tablespoons of feces to the specimen container. d. Ask the person to have a bowel movement at the time specified. ANS: C
REF: p. 590
24. You need to collect a stool specimen from a child. The child is not toilet-trained. Which is
correct? a. Send the diaper to the laboratory. b. You can obtain the stool specimen from the diaper. c. The child needs to use the bedpan. d. The child needs to use the commode. ANS: B
REF: p. 590
25. The nurse asks you to collect a stool specimen from a resident. Which is correct? a. Explain to the person why the physician wants a stool specimen. b. Explain what you will do. c. Have the nurse perform this collection. d. Stay with the person until the person has a bowel movement. ANS: B
REF: p. 590
26. The nurse asks you to test a stool specimen for occult blood. You know that occult blood:
a. b. c. d.
can be seen. means a black, tarry stool. is hidden or unseen. is dark red.
ANS: C
REF: p. 590
27. A child needs a breathing treatment and suctioning to produce a sputum specimen. Which is
correct? a. You can give the breathing treatment. b. An RN or respiratory therapist tells you what breathing treatment to give. c. The nurse suctions the trachea for the specimen. d. You can assist by suctioning the trachea. ANS: C
REF: p. 593
28. When collecting a sputum specimen, the person coughs up sputum from the: a. mouth. b. throat. c. upper airway. d. bronchi and trachea. ANS: D
REF: p. 593
29. Sputum specimen collection is easier: a. upon awakening in the morning. b. after a meal. c. after activity. d. before a meal. ANS: A
REF: p. 593
30. Oral care before collecting a sputum specimen involves: a. brushing teeth. b. using mouthwash. c. flossing. d. rinsing with clear water. ANS: D
REF: p. 594
31. Privacy is important when collecting a sputum specimen. Which is a reason for privacy? a. The person has the right to privacy. b. A sterile specimen container is used. c. Sputum is contagious. d. Sputum smells bad. ANS: A
REF: p. 594
32. How much sputum is needed for a specimen? a. 1 to 2 teaspoons b. 1 to 2 tablespoons c. 1/4 cup d. 1/2 cup
ANS: A
REF: p. 594
33. Which part of the specimen container can you touch? a. Any part b. The outside of the container and inside of the lid c. The inside of the container and lid d. Only the outside of the container ANS: D
REF: p. 594
34. After collecting a sputum specimen, the container is: a. washed and dried. b. placed in a bag. c. labeled. d. weighed. ANS: B
REF: p. 594
35. The most common site for a skin puncture is: a. the earlobe. b. the heel. c. a fingertip. d. a toe. ANS: C
REF: p. 595
36. You are choosing a skin puncture site. Which is correct? a. Avoid sites that are swT olE leS n ToB r bArN uiK seSdE . b. Choose sites that are calloused. c. The thumbs and index fingers are good sites. d. Use the center, fleshy part of the fingertips. ANS: A
REF: p. 595
37. Which site is used for skin punctures in infants who are not walking? a. The big toe b. The heel c. The thumb d. The earlobe ANS: B
REF: p. 596
38. You are performing a skin puncture using a fingertip. Which is correct? a. Cool the finger with an ice pack. b. Raise the finger above the person’s waist. c. Clean the site with an antiseptic wipe. d. Touch the site after cleaning to ensure you have the correct site. ANS: C
REF: p. 597
39. The nurse delegates testing blood glucose to you. Which is correct? a. You must have read how to perform the procedure in your basic training course.
b. The procedure must be in your job description. c. You must perform the procedure on a peer before doing it on a patient. d. You review the procedure with a peer. ANS: B
REF: p. 595
40. Which is a rule for blood glucose testing? a. Follow the manufacturer’s instructions for the glucometer. b. Perform multiple tests on the same person to compare results. c. Make sure the glucometer was tested for accuracy once per month. Check the log. d. Report the results to the nurse at the end of your shift. ANS: A
REF: p. 596
TRUE/FALSE 1. A stool specimen must not be contaminated with urine. ANS: T
REF: p. 591
2. A sterile lancet is used for skin punctures. ANS: T
REF: p. 597
Chapter 39: The Person Having Surgery Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The loss of feeling or sensation produced by a drug is: a. thrombus. b. anesthesia. c. pre-operative medication. d. electrocardiogram. ANS: B
REF: p. 601
2. Pre-operative care is given: a. before surgery. b. after surgery. c. in the recovery room. d. during surgery. ANS: A
REF: p. 601
3. Surgery done at once to save a person’s life is: a. elective surgery. b. immediate surgery. c. urgent surgery. d. emergency surgery. ANS: D
REF: p. 601
4. A person has scheduled surgery to replace her left knee joint. This is: a. elective surgery. b. scheduled surgery. c. urgent surgery. d. emergency surgery. ANS: A
REF: p. 601
5. A person fell and fractured his right hip. He is scheduled for surgery in the morning to repair
the fracture. This is: a. elective surgery. b. next-day surgery. c. urgent surgery. d. emergency surgery. ANS: C
REF: p. 601
6. A person tells you that he is afraid of surgery because his uncle had a lot of pain after his hip
surgery. What should you do? a. Tell the person not to worry. b. Change the subject. c. Call the person’s doctor.
d. Report the person’s concerns to the nurse. ANS: D
REF: p. 602
7. You will help prepare the person for surgery. Your role involves: a. telling the person who will do the surgery. b. explaining the surgical procedure, risks, and possible outcomes. c. answering the family’s questions. d. explaining the care you will give. ANS: D
REF: p. 602
8. You assist in the person’s psychological care. Which is part of your role? a. Listening to the person b. Answering questions about the surgery c. Telling the person that everything is going to be fine d. Calling the person’s family anytime the person is anxious ANS: A
REF: p. 602
9. The goal of pre-operative care is to: a. listen to the person. b. prevent complications before, during, or after surgery. c. answer the family’s questions. d. explain the care you will give and why you will give it. ANS: B
REF: p. 602
10. Pre-operative teaching is dT onEeSbTyB : a. a nursing assistant. b. whoever has time. c. a nurse. d. a social worker. ANS: C
REF: p. 602
11. Pre-operative teaching includes which of the following? a. Which medications will be needed at home? b. How to communicate with the health team? c. When to follow up with the physician? d. Any position restrictions. ANS: D
REF: p. 602
12. Pre-operative teaching includes which of the following? a. Dressing care b. Care given once you arrive home c. The results of the surgical procedure d. Pain-relief drugs and how they are given ANS: D
REF: p. 602
13. Pre-operative teaching for children includes which of the following?
a. b. c. d.
Preparing the parents and the child Using lecture to help the child understand what will happen Telling the parents how long the child will need to remain on limited activity Telling the child that everything will be OK
ANS: A
REF: p. 602
14. A patient is scheduled for surgery at 0800. Which is correct? a. The person is NPO 6 to 8 hours before surgery. b. The person can have a light breakfast before surgery. c. The person is allowed only water after midnight. d. The person will receive a regular evening meal and a bedtime snack. ANS: A
REF: p. 603
15. A bowel prep may be given pre-operatively to: a. prevent nausea and vomiting. b. help the person sleep better. c. cleanse the bowel of feces. d. decrease post-operative pain. ANS: C
REF: p. 603
16. You are assisting with pre-operative care for a 6-year-old child. You must: a. shampoo and style her hair. b. check for loose teeth. c. trim her fingernails. d. give her a back massagT e. ANS: B
REF: p. 603
17. You are assisting with pre-operative care for a person with dentures. After providing denture
care, which is correct? a. Give the dentures to the person’s family. b. Store the dentures according to agency policy. c. Place the dentures in the bedside stand. d. Give the dentures to the nurse. ANS: B
REF: p. 604
18. A patient does not have a catheter. Which is correct? a. The person needs to void before the nurse gives pre-operative drugs. b. The person needs to void after the nurse gives pre-operative drugs. c. A catheter is inserted before the nurse gives pre-operative drugs. d. A catheter is inserted after the nurse gives pre-operative drugs. ANS: A
REF: p. 603
19. You are assisting with pre-operative care. Which is correct? a. Check the person for loose teeth. b. Wigs and hairpins are left on the person. c. The person is allowed to wear fake nails. d. Hearing aids are left in place.
ANS: A
REF: p. 604
20. The purpose of the pre-operative skin prep is to: a. reduce the risk of infection. b. sterilize the skin. c. make the person more comfortable. d. provide a smooth surgical site. ANS: A
REF: p. 606
21. Which statement about skin preparation is correct? a. Be careful not to nick the skin more than once or twice. b. Follow Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. c. Hold the skin loosely. Shave opposite the direction of hair growth. d. Shave toward the center using long strokes. ANS: B
REF: p. 606
22. You have finished performing a skin prep. You need to report which of the following? a. How you shaved the person? b. How long it took to shave the person? c. Areas of intact skin. d. Bleeding. ANS: D
REF: p. 606
23. Which health team member is responsible for obtaining the person’s written consent for
surgery? a. The nurse b. The doctor c. The nursing assistant d. The social worker ANS: B
REF: p. 604
24. You assist with pre-operative personal care. Which is correct? a. Dentures are left in place during surgery. b. Pajamas are worn to the operating room. c. Make-up, nail polish, and fake nails are removed before surgery. d. Wigs and hairpieces are allowed in the operating room. ANS: C
REF: p. 604
25. A surgical consent is signed: a. when the person is admitted to the hospital. b. the night before surgery. c. the morning of surgery. d. when the person understands the information given by the doctor. ANS: D
REF: p. 604
26. A patient was given pre-operative drugs. Which is correct?
a. b. c. d.
The drugs will help the person to not remember any of the surgery. Bed rails are lowered. The person is allowed out of bed to void. The person will feel thirsty and have a dry mouth.
ANS: D
REF: p. 607
27. You assist in preparing a patient for transport to the operating room. Which measure promotes
safety? a. The OR staff brings the stretcher to the room. b. The person is covered with a bath blanket. c. After the person is transferred to the stretcher, safety straps are secured and side rails are raised. d. A pillow is placed under the person’s head. ANS: C
REF: p. 607
28. The loss of consciousness and all feeling or sensation is: a. anesthesiology. b. general anesthesia. c. regional anesthesia. d. local anesthesia. ANS: B
REF: p. 607
29. There is loss of feeling or sensation in a large area of the body. The person is awake. This is: a. anesthesiology. b. general anesthesia. c. regional anesthesia. d. local anesthesia. ANS: C
REF: p. 607
30. You will assist in preparing the room for a patient’s return from surgery. You can do which of
the following? a. Make a closed bed. b. Place equipment and supplies just outside of the room. c. Lower the bed to its lowest position. d. Move furniture out of the way for the stretcher. ANS: D
REF: p. 607
31. After surgery, repositioning is done: a. every half hour. b. at least every 1 to 2 hours. c. only when the patient requests a position change. d. at least every 4 hours. ANS: B
REF: p. 608
32. You are helping to reposition a person after surgery. Which will promote comfort? a. Reposition the person as quickly as possible. b. Use quick motions.
c. Use towels as the nurse directs. d. Use positioning devices as the nurse directs. ANS: D
REF: p. 608
33. Which of the following should be reported to the nurse at once? a. Blood pressure drop or rise b. Pulse rate of 80 c. Regular pulse d. Respiration rate of 16 ANS: A
REF: p. 608
34. Which of the following should be reported to the nurse at once? a. Bleeding from the incision b. Mild discomfort c. Strong, regular pulse d. Clear, amber urine ANS: A
REF: p. 608
35. Deep-breathing and coughing exercises help prevent: a. infection and skin breakdown. b. muscle and joint pain. c. incision pain. d. respiratory complications. ANS: D
REF: p. 608
36. Older persons are at risk for respiratory complications for which of the following reasons? a. Respiratory muscles are stronger. b. Lung tissues are more elastic. c. They have less strength to cough. d. They have more pain. ANS: C
REF: p. 609
37. A blood clot that travels through the vascular system until it lodges in a distant vessel is: a. regional anesthesia. b. an embolus. c. a thrombus. d. spirometry. ANS: B
REF: p. 609
38. After surgery, leg exercises are done: a. at least every 1 to 2 hours while the person is awake. b. whenever the person has the energy to do them. c. every 3 to 4 hours and whenever you have time. d. twice every shift. ANS: A
REF: p. 610
39. A person wears elastic stockings post-operatively to: a. decrease pain after surgery. b. help prevent pneumonia. c. help prevent thrombi. d. promote wound healing. ANS: C
REF: p. 610
40. Elastic stockings also are called: a. anti-embolism stockings. b. support hose. c. elastic bandages. d. montgomery bandages. ANS: A
REF: p. 610
41. A person wears elastic stockings. Which is correct? a. They are applied after the person gets out of bed. b. They are removed every 12 hours for 30 minutes or according to the care plan. c. The person sits up in the chair while the stockings are off. d. Creases or wrinkles can cause skin breakdown. ANS: D
REF: p. 610
42. Which health team member measures the person for elastic stockings? a. You b. The nurse c. The doctor d. The occupational therapist ANS: B
REF: p. 610
43. When you removed a person’s elastic bandage, you noticed a small open sore on his right
ankle. What should you do? a. Leave the bandage off and tell the nurse at once. b. Re-apply the bandage and tell the nurse when you finish your work. c. Leave the bandage off and tell the nurse at the end of your shift. d. Ask the person if he wants you to reapply the bandage. ANS: A
REF: p. 610
44. Elastic bandages are applied to: a. the hands. b. the feet. c. the arms and legs. d. the abdomen. ANS: C
REF: p. 612
45. Which is correct when applying elastic bandages? a. Position the part in good alignment. b. Stand behind the person during the procedure. c. Start at the top (proximal) part of the extremity.
d. Try not to expose fingers or toes if possible. ANS: A
REF: p. 612
46. A resident has an elastic bandage on her right leg. How often do you need to check the color
and temperature of her right leg? a. Every 15 minutes b. Every hour c. Every 2 hours d. Every 3 hours ANS: B
REF: p. 612
47. A resident has an elastic bandage. It is loose and wrinkled. What should you do? a. Apply a new bandage. b. Re-apply the bandage. c. Remove it for a period of time. d. Secure it with tape. ANS: B
REF: p. 612
48. A patient has an elastic bandage. Apply it: a. so it is loose. b. smoothly with firm, even pressure. c. so that 2 fingers can slide under it. d. so that you can slide your hand under it. ANS: B
REF: p. 612
49. After surgery, the person usually walks for the first time: a. the day of surgery. b. 2 days after surgery. c. 3 days after surgery. d. when the person feels strong enough. ANS: A
REF: p. 613
50. How soon must the person void after surgery? a. Within 4 hours b. Within 8 hours c. Within 10 hours d. Within 24 hours ANS: B
REF: p. 614
51. A sleeve that wraps around the leg and is attached to a pump to promote venous blood flow is
known as: a. sequential compression device. b. elastic bandage. c. TED hose. d. elastic stockings. ANS: A
REF: p. 613
TRUE/FALSE 1. You are responsible for obtaining the person’s written consent for surgery. ANS: F
REF: p. 604
2. The surgical site is marked before surgery to prevent surgery on the wrong body part or area. ANS: T
REF: p. 604
3. If the person has had leg surgery, a doctor’s order is needed for leg exercises. ANS: T
REF: p. 610
4. The nurse will decide when you can remove the sequential compression devices
post-operatively. ANS: F
REF: p. 613
5. You must report the time and amount of the first voiding after surgery. ANS: T
REF: p. 614
6. A complete bed bath is not given for several days after surgery to allow the person to rest. ANS: F
REF: p. 614
Chapter 40: Wound Care Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A partial-thickness wound caused by the scraping away or rubbing of the skin is: a. a pressure injury. b. a laceration. c. an abrasion. d. a penetrating wound. ANS: C
REF: p. 616
2. A resident has an open wound on the lower left leg. It is caused by poor arterial blood flow.
This wound is: a. a pressure injury. b. a stasis ulcer. c. a venous ulcer. d. an arterial ulcer. ANS: D
REF: p. 616
3. Skin tears are caused by which of the following? a. Slow movements b. Soiled linens c. Short and smooth fingernails d. Removing tape or adheTsiE vS ANS: D
REF: p. 616
4. A wound does not heal easily. It is: a. a chronic wound. b. a contaminated wound. c. a full-thickness wound. d. a dirty wound. ANS: A
REF: p. 616
5. A patient has an open wound on her left foot. She has poor circulation in her arteries and
veins. Her wound is: a. an arterial ulcer. b. a venous ulcer. c. a stasis ulcer. d. a circulatory ulcer. ANS: D
REF: p. 616
6. A wound is not infected. It is: a. a clean wound. b. an abrasion. c. a contusion.
d. a surgical incision. ANS: A
REF: p. 617
7. A patient had lung surgery. The person’s incision is best described as: a. a clean wound. b. a contaminated wound. c. an incision. d. a clean-contaminated wound. ANS: D
REF: p. 617
8. Tissues are injured, but the skin is not broken. This is: a. a contusion. b. an abrasion. c. a laceration. d. a closed wound. ANS: D
REF: p. 617
9. A wound has a high risk of an infection. This is: a. a contaminated wound. b. a chronic wound. c. a full-thickness wound. d. an infected wound. ANS: A
REF: p. 617
10. A closed wound caused byTaEbS loTwBtA oN thKeSbE odLyLisE: a. a contusion. b. an abrasion. c. a laceration. d. a clean wound. ANS: A
REF: p. 617
11. Wound layers have separated. This is: a. evisceration. b. a skin tear. c. trauma. d. dehiscence. ANS: D
REF: p. 623
12. A dirty wound is also known as: a. a contaminated wound. b. an infected wound. c. a clean-contaminated wound. d. a full-thickness wound. ANS: B
REF: p. 617
13. A wound has separated. Abdominal organs are protruding through the wound. This is:
a. b. c. d.
evisceration. a skin tear. trauma. dehiscence.
ANS: A
REF: p. 623
14. A wound involves the skin, muscle, and bone. This is: a. trauma. b. gangrene. c. a partial-thickness wound. d. a full-thickness wound. ANS: D
REF: p. 616
15. A condition in which there is death of tissue is: a. trauma. b. gangrene. c. a partial-thickness wound. d. a full-thickness wound. ANS: B
REF: p. 619
16. An open wound has clean, straight edges. It was made with a sharp instrument. The wound is: a. a penetrating wound. b. a laceration. c. an incision. d. an intentional wound. ANS: C REF: p. 617 17. A wound has large amounts of microbes. It shows signs of infection. It is: a. a contaminated wound. b. an infected wound. c. an open wound. d. a purulent wound. ANS: B
REF: p. 617
18. A wound created for therapy is: a. an open wound. b. a clean wound. c. a closed wound. d. an intentional wound. ANS: D
REF: p. 617
19. A wound has torn tissues and jagged edges. This is: a. a penetrating wound. b. a laceration. c. an incision. d. an intentional wound.
ANS: B
REF: p. 617
20. The skin or mucous membrane is broken. This is: a. an open wound. b. a clean wound. c. a closed wound. d. an intentional wound. ANS: A
REF: p. 617
21. The dermis and epidermis of the skin are broken. This is: a. trauma. b. gangrene. c. a partial-thickness wound. d. a full-thickness wound. ANS: C
REF: p. 616
22. An open wound made by a sharp object is: a. an incision. b. a penetrating wound. c. a contusion. d. a puncture wound. ANS: D
REF: p. 617
23. Phlebitis is: a. inflammation of a vein. T b. trauma. c. a thrombus. d. a closed wound. ANS: A
REF: p. 620
24. Any injury caused by unrelieved pressure is: a. a wound. b. a thrombus. c. phlebitis. d. a pressure injury. ANS: A
REF: p. 616
25. A break or rip in the outer layers of the skins is known as: a. an incision. b. a penetrating wound. c. a contusion. d. a skin tear. ANS: D
REF: p. 616
26. Drainage that is thick green, yellow, or brown is: a. purulent drainage. b. serosanguineous drainage.
c. serous drainage. d. sanguineous drainage. ANS: A
REF: p. 616
27. Thin, watery, blood-tinged drainage is: a. purulent drainage. b. serosanguineous drainage. c. serous drainage. d. sanguineous drainage. ANS: B
REF: p. 616
28. Clear, watery fluid from a wound is: a. purulent drainage. b. serosanguineous drainage. c. serous drainage. d. sanguineous drainage. ANS: C
REF: p. 616
29. Bloody drainage is: a. purulent drainage. b. serosanguineous drainage. c. serous drainage. d. sanguineous drainage. ANS: D
REF: p. 616
30. A resident has a rip in the skin. The epidermis is separated from underlying tissue. This is: a. a pressure injury. b. an abrasion. c. a skin tear. d. a decubitus ulcer. ANS: C
REF: p. 616
31. A resident has an open wound on the right lower leg. The person has poor blood flow through
her veins. Her wound is: a. an arterial ulcer. b. a stasis ulcer. c. a pressure injury. d. a skin tear. ANS: B
REF: p. 616
32. An accident or violent act that causes injury is: a. shock. b. a wound. c. trauma. d. inflammation. ANS: C
REF: p. 616
33. A hematoma is a: a. a rip in the skin. b. a swelling that contains blood. c. a vascular ulcer. d. a penetrating wound. ANS: B
REF: p. 622
34. Those at risk of skin tears include which of the following? a. Having moisturized skin b. Having good hydration c. Having altered mental awareness d. Having good nutrition ANS: C
REF: p. 619
35. The skin is injured. Which is a major threat? a. Incontinence b. Infection c. Gangrene d. Evisceration ANS: B
REF: p. 618
36. Which of the following is a common site for skin tears? a. The face b. The ear c. The lower leg d. The sacrum ANS: C
REF: p. 618
37. Skin tears are caused by which of the following? a. Bathing a person b. Lightly touching the skin c. Direct pressure on the skin d. Incontinence and moisture on the skin ANS: C
REF: p. 618
38. Which statement about skin tears is correct? a. Skin tears only occur during bathing. b. Skin tears are not usually painful. c. Infection can develop in a skin tear. d. Skin tears usually occur over a bony area. ANS: C
REF: p. 618
39. To prevent skin tears, you need to: a. follow the person’s care plan. b. wear gloves. c. position the person supine.
d. follow Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. ANS: A
REF: p. 619
40. You are helping a resident dress. Which clothing will help prevent skin tears? a. Garments with zippers b. Shorts and a sleeveless blouse c. A hospital gown d. A soft long-sleeve sweatshirt and sweatpants ANS: D
REF: p. 619
41. To prevent skin tears, you need to: a. keep your fingernails short and smoothly filed. b. wear simple earrings. c. wear gloves. d. practice hand hygiene before and after giving care. ANS: A
REF: p. 619
42. Arterial ulcers usually occur: a. on arms and legs. b. on the hands and feet. c. on the toes and outer side of the ankle. d. over bony prominences. ANS: C
REF: p. 619
43. Common causes of arterialTuElcSeT rsBinAcN luK deSE wL hiL chEoRf.thCeOfoMllowing? a. Low blood pressure b. Diabetes c. Dilated arteries d. Burns ANS: B
REF: p. 619
44. Circulatory ulcers occur: a. on the arms and hands. b. on the buttocks. c. on the legs and feet. d. where skin is in contact with skin. ANS: C
REF: p. 619
45. Which of the following is common with venous ulcers? a. Blisters b. Light skin c. Skin that is moist and smooth d. Itching ANS: D
REF: p. 619
46. Which statement about venous ulcers is correct?
a. b. c. d.
They commonly occur on the knees. They are typically not painful and heal quickly. You need to cut the person’s toenails to prevent skin tears and scratching. The person has difficulty walking.
ANS: D
REF: p. 619
47. A patient has a venous ulcer. The person needs repositioning at least: a. every hour. b. every 2 hours. c. every 4 hours. d. every shift. ANS: B
REF: p. 620
48. A patient has a venous ulcer. You are helping the person dress. The person can wear which of
the following? a. Spandex pants b. Elastic garters to hold socks in place c. Tight socks d. A sweatshirt ANS: D
REF: p. 620
49. A patient has a venous ulcer. Your care should include: a. keeping the person’s linens dry and wrinkle-free. b. massaging pressure points and reddened areas. c. rubbing the person’s skTinEaSfT teB r bAaN thKinSgE . d. keeping the person’s heels on the bed. ANS: A
REF: p. 620
50. Which is a risk factor for venous ulcers? a. Young age b. Increased mobility c. Obesity d. Evisceration ANS: C
REF: p. 620
51. An open wound on the foot caused by complications from diabetes is: a. a nerve ulcer. b. a diabetic foot ulcer. c. a circulatory ulcer. d. a blood vessel ulcer. ANS: B
REF: p. 619
52. Which statement about diabetic foot ulcers is correct? a. They can affect the nerves and blood vessels. b. Only the nerves are affected. c. Only the blood vessels are affected. d. They are easy to heal.
ANS: A
REF: p. 619
53. Bleeding stops and a scab forms during the: a. inflammatory phase of wound healing. b. proliferative phase of wound healing. c. maturation phase of wound healing. d. scarring phase of wound healing. ANS: A
REF: p. 622
54. A wound was closed with staples. Wound healing will occur through: a. primary intention. b. secondary intention. c. third intention. d. tertiary intention. ANS: A
REF: p. 622
55. This type of wound healing involves leaving the wound open and closing it later. a. Primary intention b. Primary closure c. Secondary intention d. Tertiary intention ANS: D
REF: p. 622
56. A wound is contaminated and infected. Wound edges are not brought together and the wound
T: gaps. Healing will occur thTroEuS gh a. primary intention. b. secondary intention. c. third intention. d. tertiary intention. ANS: B
REF: p. 622
57. Which nutrient is needed for wound healing? a. Fat b. Carbohydrate c. Protein d. Sodium ANS: C
REF: p. 622
58. Excessive loss of blood in a short time is: a. shock. b. hemorrhage. c. evisceration. d. bleeding. ANS: B
REF: p. 622
59. Which signals internal hemorrhage?
a. b. c. d.
Vomiting blood and loss of consciousness Large amounts of bloody drainage Dressings soaked with blood Pooling of blood under a body part
ANS: A
REF: p. 622
60. When observing a wound, you can do which of the following? a. Culture the wound drainage. b. Insert packing material into the wound. c. Observe the surrounding skin. d. Measure the wound’s depth. ANS: C
REF: p. 624
61. A drain is inserted into a wound. What is its purpose? a. The nurse administers drugs through the drain. b. Drainage leaves the wound through the drain. c. It is used to measure wound depth. d. It is used to measure wound size. ANS: B
REF: p. 624
62. The nurse weighs dressings before and after applying them. Why are they weighed? a. To measure the amount of drainage b. To determine the phase of wound healing c. To get an accurate measurement of the person’s weight d. To measure output ANS: A
REF: p. 625
63. Which is a purpose of wound dressings? a. Prevent microbes from entering the wound. b. Cause scab formation to occur. c. Promote arterial and venous circulation. d. Close the wound. ANS: A
REF: p. 625
64. Gauze dressings: a. have a nonstick surface. b. absorb drainage. c. allow observations of the wound. d. keep the wound moist. ANS: B
REF: p. 625
65. Which dressing will most likely stick to a wound? a. Nonadherent gauze b. Dry dressing c. Transparent adhesive film d. Wet-to-wet dressing
ANS: B
REF: p. 625
66. A dressing becomes dislodged. What can happen? a. Microbes can enter the wound. b. Wound edges can separate. c. Dehiscence can occur. d. The wound can become larger. ANS: A
REF: p. 625
67. A dressing is loose. What can happen? a. Skin tears can occur. b. Evisceration can occur. c. Drainage can escape. d. Pressure injuries can develop. ANS: C
REF: p. 625
68. A dressing is secured with tape. When the tape is removed, some skin is removed. This
causes: a. a skin tear. b. a pressure injury. c. an abrasion. d. a contusion. ANS: C
REF: p. 625
69. Which type of tape allows movement of a body part? TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. Adhesive tape b. Paper tape c. Plastic tape d. Elastic tape ANS: D
REF: p. 625
70. You are securing a dressing with tape. Where do you apply the tape? a. Around the entire body part b. To the top and bottom of the dressing c. To the top, sides, and bottom of the dressing d. To the middle of the dressing ANS: C
REF: p. 625
71. A person needs frequent dressing changes. You would expect the nurse to secure the dressings
with: a. paper tape. b. elastic tape. c. a binder. d. Montgomery ties. ANS: D
REF: p. 626
72. When Montgomery ties are used, how many ties are needed on each side?
a. b. c. d.
1 on the right side; 1 on the left side At least 2 on the right side; at least 2 on the left side At least 3 on the right side; at least 3 on the left side 4 on the right side; 4 on the left side
ANS: B
REF: p. 628
73. You are assisting the nurse with a sterile dressing change on a 4-year-old child. Which is
correct? a. Children are not often afraid of dressing changes. b. A calm child helps the dressing change to go quicker. c. A parent or caregiver holds the child so the wound can be reached with ease. d. The child is restrained to prevent contamination of the sterile field. ANS: C
REF: p. 626
74. The nurse asks you to apply a dry, nonsterile dressing. Which action is correct? a. Telling the person what the drainage smells like b. Removing tape by pulling it toward the wound c. Removing dressings so the person sees the soiled side d. Removing the old dressing quickly ANS: B
REF: p. 628
75. The nurse asks you to apply a dry, nonsterile dressing. The dressing change causes pain and
discomfort. What should you do? a. Ask the person to take slow, deep breaths. b. Distract the person durT inE g SthTeBdA reN ssKinSgEcL haLnE geR. c. Ask the nurse when a pain-relief drug was given. Wait 30 minutes to begin. d. Tell the person that the procedure will not hurt. ANS: C
REF: p. 628
76. Which statement about dressing changes is correct? a. Contact with blood, body fluids, secretions, or excretions is not likely. b. The lead nursing assistant tells you what dressing products to use. c. For mental well-being, the person needs to look at the wound. d. You need to control your nonverbal communication and body language during
dressing changes. ANS: D
REF: p. 628
77. The nurse asks you to apply a dry, nonsterile dressing. What should you do after removing the
old dressing? a. Remove your gloves and decontaminate your hands. b. Put on clean gloves. c. Put on sterile gloves. d. Open the new dressings. ANS: A
REF: p. 628
78. Binders are applied to which of the following areas? a. The arms and legs
b. The abdomen c. The head d. The buttocks ANS: B
REF: p. 629
79. Binders do which of the following? a. Prevent infection. b. Promote comfort. c. Prevent drainage from occurring. d. Prevent the wound from opening. ANS: B
REF: p. 630
80. Pins are used to secure a binder. Pins should point: a. toward the wound. b. away from the wound. c. toward the waist. d. away from the waist. ANS: B
REF: p. 630
81. A binder is loose and out of position. What should you do? a. Change the dressing. b. Reapply the binder. c. Apply a new binder. d. Secure it with tape. ANS: B
. 6S3T 0 REF: TpE
82. A binder is wet. What should you do? a. Change the binder. b. Reapply the binder. c. Apply a new binder. d. Let it dry. ANS: A
REF: p. 629
83. A person has a wound. You are concerned about the person’s basic needs. Which is correct? a. A wound is a source of pain and discomfort. b. A wound does not typically affect other body systems. c. Infection is not likely. d. A wound increases the person’s appetite. ANS: A
REF: p. 630
Chapter 41: Pressure Injuries Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Pressure injuries usually occur: a. on arms and legs. b. on the hands and feet. c. on the buttocks. d. over bony prominences. ANS: D
REF: p. 633
2. Common causes of pressure injuries include which of the following? a. Pressure b. Use of pillows for positioning c. A good blood supply d. Burns ANS: A
REF: p. 633
3. Which person has the least risk for a pressure injury? a. The person who has urinary incontinence. b. The person who has fecal incontinence. c. The person who has shortness of breath. d. The person who has circulatory problems. ANS: C
REF: p. 635
4. Which of the following motion drags or rubs against the skin? a. Skin tear b. Friction c. Pressure d. Pinching ANS: B
REF: p. 636
5. Early signs of pressure injuries include which of the following? a. Black eschar b. Tingling in the area c. An open blister d. Cracked and peeling skin ANS: B
REF: p. 636
6. Which is a risk factor for pressure injuries in infants and children? a. Increased mobility b. Removing tape from their skin c. Moving about in bed d. Decreased sleep ANS: B
REF: p. 636
7. Persons who are bedfast are repositioned at least every: a. hour. b. 1 to 2 hours. c. 3 to 4 hours. d. shift. ANS: B
REF: p. 641
8. The recommended position for preventing and treating pressure injuries is the: a. supine position. b. prone position. c. Fowler’s position. d. 30-degree lateral position. ANS: D
REF: p. 641
9. To prevent pressure injuries, you must: a. keep the person’s skin clean and dry. b. massage pressure points. c. use soap to clean the skin. d. scrub and rub the skin during bathing. ANS: A
REF: p. 641
10. To prevent pressure injuries, you must: a. provide clean linens every day. b. change linens whenever they are wet or soiled. TESTBANKSELLER c. change linens whenever they are wrinkled. d. provide clean linens every shift. ANS: B
REF: p. 641
11. Pressure injuries can occur where skin has contact with skin. What can you use to prevent
such contact? a. Pillows b. Bed cradle c. Egg crate–like mattress d. Flotation pad ANS: A
REF: p. 641-642
12. A resident has dry skin. What should you do? a. Use soap during the person’s bath. b. Apply moisturizer as directed by the nurse. c. Apply cornstarch to dry areas. d. Apply powder to dry areas. ANS: B
REF: p. 642
13. To prevent pressure injuries, persons sitting in chairs need to shift their positions every: a. 5 minutes. b. 10 minutes.
c. 15 minutes. d. 20 minutes. ANS: C
REF: p. 641
14. Which of the following prevents pressure on the tops of the legs and feet? a. Bed cradle b. Heel elevator c. Egg crate–type pad d. Flotation pad ANS: A
REF: p. 643
15. A resident has a bed cradle on the bed. For linens, you need: a. a drawsheet. b. a top sheet and a bottom sheet. c. a top sheet only. d. a bottom sheet only. ANS: A
REF: p. 643
16. Persons needing home care can develop pressure injuries. Which is correct? a. Check the person’s skin every other visit. b. Massage any reddened areas at every visit. c. Remind the family to check the person’s skin. d. Call the doctor if you note signs of a pressure injury. ANS: C
REF: p. 642
17. Who of the following are at particular risk for epidermal stripping because of their fragile
skin? a. Toddlers b. Adolescents c. Young adults d. Newborns ANS: D
REF: p. 636
18. Pressure injury prevention involves which of the following? a. Identifying persons at risk b. Limiting the times perineal care is done each day c. Taking a picture of changes noted in a pressure injury d. Applying heat to any area that appears reddened ANS: A
REF: p. 641
19. When layers of the skin rub against each other, this is known as: a. friction. b. shearing. c. sloughing. d. stripping. ANS: B
REF: p. 633
20. Which member of the health care team decides which dressing to use? a. Physician b. Nurse c. Nursing assistant d. Occupational therapist ANS: B
REF: p. 644
TRUE/FALSE 1. A person can develop a pressure injury within 2 to 6 hours after the onset of pressure. ANS: T
REF: p. 636
Chapter 42: Heat and Cold Applications Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A compress is: a. wrapping a body part with a wet or dry application. b. immersing the body part in water. c. a dry application. d. a soft pad applied over a body area. ANS: D
REF: p. 647
2. Constrict means to: a. expand or open wider. b. narrow. c. reduce blood flow. d. increase blood flow. ANS: B
REF: p. 647
3. Dilate means to: a. expand or open wider. b. narrow. c. reduce blood flow. d. increase blood flow. ANS: A
REF: p. 647
4. Cyanosis is: a. a pink color. b. a bluish color. c. swelling of the tissues. d. excessive redness of the skin. ANS: B
REF: p. 647
5. Warming blankets are used when the person’s body temperature is: a. much higher than the normal range. b. lower than the normal range. c. lower than the outdoor temperature. d. higher than the outdoor temperature. ANS: B
REF: p. 653
6. Hypothermia means that the person’s body temperature is: a. much higher than the normal range. b. very low. c. lower than the outdoor temperature. d. higher than the outdoor temperature. ANS: B
REF: p. 653
7. A pack is: a. wrapping a body part with a wet or dry application. b. immersing the body part in water. c. a dry application. d. a soft pad applied to a body area. ANS: A
REF: p. 648
8. Which health team member reviews the procedure of heat and cold applications with you? a. The doctor b. The nurse c. A nursing assistant d. The family ANS: B
REF: p. 647
9. Heat and cold applications do which of the following? a. Promote cleansing of the skin. b. Promote comfort. c. Prevent infection. d. Increase tissue swelling. ANS: B
REF: p. 647
10. A nurse asks you to apply a heat application. Before doing so, you must make sure that: a. the nurse explained the procedure to the person. b. the procedure is in your job description. TESTBANKSE c. you have time to complete the task. d. the person signed a consent form. ANS: B
REF: p. 647
11. Heat applications do which of the following? a. Prevent infection. b. Cause muscles to constrict. c. Decrease blood flow. d. Decrease joint stiffness. ANS: D
REF: p. 648
12. Heat applications: a. reduce bleeding. b. decrease blood flow. c. promote healing. d. numb the skin. ANS: C
REF: p. 648
13. When blood vessels dilate, blood flow: a. increases. b. decreases. c. stops.
d. changes direction. ANS: A
REF: p. 648
14. When blood vessels constrict, blood flow: a. increases. b. decreases. c. stops. d. changes direction. ANS: B
REF: p. 649
15. When heat is applied, the skin is: a. pale and cool. b. bluish in color. c. red and warm. d. blistered. ANS: C
REF: p. 648
16. When heat is applied too long, blood vessels: a. dilate. b. constrict. c. collapse. d. become less elastic. ANS: B
REF: p. 648
S: 17. When heat is applied too loTnE gS , bTloBoA dNflK ow a. increases. b. decreases. c. changes direction. d. stops. ANS: B
REF: p. 648
18. When heat is applied, older persons are at risk for: a. burns. b. hyperthermia. c. hypothermia. d. cyanosis. ANS: A
REF: p. 649
19. Heat is applied to a wrist. Which of the following is reported to the nurse at once? a. Warm skin b. Slight color change when the heat is applied that goes away when the heat is
removed c. Dry skin d. Blisters ANS: D
REF: p. 650
20. A person has a knee replacement. Which is correct? a. No heat applications are allowed. b. Heat applications are allowed except over the area of implant. c. Heat applications are allowed over the area of implant. d. No cold applications are allowed. ANS: B
REF: p. 650
21. Which is a dry heat application? a. Hot compress b. Hot soak c. Sitz bath d. Aquathermia pad ANS: D
REF: p. 649
22. Which statement about moist heat applications is correct? a. Water is in contact with the skin. b. Dry heat has faster effects than moist heat. c. Dry heat penetrates deeper than moist heat does. d. Moist heat stays at the desired temperature longer than dry heat. ANS: A
REF: p. 648
23. Heat and cold applications are applied for: a. 5 to 10 minutes. b. 10 to 15 minutes. c. 15 to 20 minutes. d. 20 to 25 minutes. ANS: C
REF: p. 650
24. Before applying moist heat or cold applications, you need to: a. measure water temperature. b. measure water depth. c. measure and record the amount of water as intake. d. show the person how to change the temperature. ANS: A
REF: p. 652
25. Before applying dry heat or cold applications, you need to: a. measure water temperature. b. cover the device. c. show the person how to change the temperature. d. set a timer. ANS: B
REF: p. 652
26. Which of the following is an electrical device? a. Aquathermia pad b. Sitz bath c. Commercial heat or cold pack d. Ice collar
ANS: A
REF: p. 649
27. When applying heat or cold applications, which is correct? a. Know how much the equipment costs. b. Teach the person how to control the temperature. c. Place the call light within the person’s reach. d. Let the person choose the application site. ANS: C
REF: p. 652
28. Which will promote safety when applying a heat or cold application? a. Follow agency policies for safe temperature ranges. b. Apply dry heat or cold applications directly on the skin. c. Observe the skin every 15 minutes for signs of complications. d. Allow the person to increase the temperature of the application if he or she desires
added warmth. ANS: A
REF: p. 651
29. Which is a safety measure for applying an aquathermia pad? a. Follow electrical safety precautions. b. Place the heating unit on the person’s bed. c. Secure the pad in place with pins. d. Place the pad under the body part. ANS: A
REF: p. 651
30. An aquathermia pad is set T atE1S 05T°BFA. N It KisSaE : a. very hot application. b. hot application. c. warm application. d. tepid application. ANS: B
REF: p. 650
31. A cool application is: a. 93° to 98° F. b. 80° to 93° F. c. 65° to 80° F. d. 50° to 65° F. ANS: C
REF: p. 650
32. A warm application is: a. 106° to 115° F b. 98° to 106° F c. 93° to 98° F d. 80° to 93° F ANS: C
REF: p. 650
33. The nurse delegates a hot compress to you. To maintain its temperature, the nurse might ask
you to: a. apply an aquathermia pad over the compress. b. apply a hot pack over the compress. c. perform a hot soak. d. assist with a sitz bath. ANS: A
REF: p. 650
34. The nurse delegates applying a hot compress to you. How often should you check the
application site? a. Every 5 minutes b. Every 10 minutes c. Every 15 minutes d. Every 20 minutes ANS: A
REF: p. 650
35. A home care patient uses an electric heating pad. What can you do to promote the person’s
safety? a. Remove the electric heating pad from the person’s home. b. Make sure the heating pad is in good repair. c. Cover the heating pad with a plastic cover. d. Tell the person to change the temperature setting whenever it feels too cool. ANS: B
REF: p. 649
36. The nurse delegates a hot sToE akStT oB yoAuN. K ToSE prL otLecEtRth.eCpO erMson from burns, you need to: a. put the soak in a cover. b. measure water temperature. c. set the temperature with a key. d. use warm water. ANS: B
REF: p. 650
37. The nurse delegates a hot soak to you. How often should you check the application site? a. Every 5 minutes b. Every 10 minutes c. Every 15 minutes d. Every 20 minutes ANS: A 38.
REF: p. 650
A sitz bath involves: a. a hand and wrist. b. a foot and ankle. c. a knee and hip. d. the perineal and rectal areas. ANS: D
REF: p. 648
39. A disposable sitz bath: a. fits on the toilet seat.
b. is put in the tub. c. is put on the floor. d. is put on the over-bed table. ANS: A
REF: p. 648
40. During a sitz bath, you need to carefully observe the person for: a. nausea and vomiting. b. appetite changes. c. cyanosis at the application site. d. weakness and faintness. ANS: D
REF: p. 651
41. The nurse delegates a sitz bath to you. To protect the person from burns, you need to: a. use a flannel cover. b. measure water temperature. c. set the temperature with a key. d. add cool water every 5 minutes. ANS: B
REF: p. 651
42. The nurse delegates a sitz bath to you. How often should you check the person? a. Every 5 minutes b. Every 10 minutes c. Every 15 minutes d. Every 20 minutes ANS: A
. 6S5T 2 REF: TpE
43. The nurse asks you to apply a hot pack. How should you warm the pack? a. Put it in boiling water. b. Heat it in a microwave oven. c. Strike, knead, or squeeze the package. d. Follow the manufacturer’s instructions. ANS: D
REF: p. 652
44. A hot pack is reusable. Before storing the pack for future use, you need to: a. sterilize it. b. clean it following agency policy. c. wipe it off with a washcloth. d. rinse it with warm water. ANS: B
REF: p. 652
45. The nurse delegates a hot pack to you. To protect the person from burns, you need to: a. put the pack in a cover. b. measure water temperature. c. set the temperature with a key. d. use warm water. ANS: A
REF: p. 652
46. The nurse asks you to apply a hot pack. After applying the pack, you need to check the
application site: a. every 5 minutes. b. every 10 minutes. c. every 15 minutes. d. every 20 minutes. ANS: A
REF: p. 652
47. A hot pack has cooled. What should you do? a. Add more hot water. b. Change the water. c. Change the pack. d. End the procedure. ANS: C
REF: p. 652
48. You are going to apply an aquathermia pad. Which statement is correct? a. The temperature is set by the resident. b. The heating unit is set on the bed. c. Pins are used to secure the pad in place. d. Hoses must be free of kinks and air bubbles. ANS: D
REF: p. 652
49. The temperature of an aquathermia pad is usually: a. 100° F. b. 105° F. c. 110° F. d. 115° F. ANS: B
REF: p. 652
50. You are going to apply an aquathermia pad. You fill the heating unit with: a. alcohol. b. tap water. c. distilled water. d. disinfectant. ANS: C
REF: p. 652
51. Before applying an aquathermia pad, you need to: a. put the pad in a cover. b. put on gloves. c. place the call light within reach. d. measure vital signs. ANS: A
REF: p. 652
52. When cold is applied to the skin, blood vessels: a. dilate. b. constrict.
c. collapse. d. become less elastic. ANS: B
REF: p. 649
53. When cold is applied to the skin, blood flow: a. increases. b. decreases. c. stops. d. changes direction. ANS: B
REF: p. 649
54. A person has a sprained ankle. Cold applications are best applied: a. right after the injury. b. a day after the injury. c. 2 days after the injury. d. a week after the injury. ANS: A
REF: p. 649
55. Cold has which of the following effects? a. Increasing blood flow b. Increasing tissue swelling c. Dilating blood vessels d. Numbing the skin ANS: D
REF: p. 649
56. Which complications can occur from applications that are very cold? a. Blisters and burns b. Fever c. Confusion d. Vomiting ANS: A
REF: p. 649
57. Which complications can occur from cold applications? a. Fever and cough b. Pain and poor circulation c. Friction and shearing d. Edema and infection ANS: B
REF: p. 649
58. When cold is applied for a long time, blood vessels: a. dilate. b. constrict. c. collapse. d. become less elastic. ANS: A
REF: p. 649
59. Which is a moist cold application? a. Ice collar b. Ice glove c. Ice bag d. Cold compress ANS: D
REF: p. 649
60. Disposable cold packs are: a. discarded after use. b. cleaned after use. c. emptied after use. d. drained after use. ANS: A
REF: p. 649
61. Reusable cold packs are kept in the: a. bedside stand. b. bathroom. c. freezer. d. refrigerator. ANS: C
REF: p. 649
62. Before applying a dry cold application, you need to: a. measure the temperature. b. measure vital signs. c. put it in a cover. d. wash it with soap and water. ANS: C
REF: p. 650
63. When using a commercial cold pack, you need to: a. follow the manufacturer’s instructions. b. use surgical asepsis. c. measure water temperature. d. wear gloves. ANS: A
REF: p. 650
64. After applying a dry cold application, you need to check the application site: a. every 5 minutes. b. every 10 minutes. c. every 15 minutes. d. every 20 minutes. ANS: A
REF: p. 650
65. A person has a cold application. You must be alert for these signs and symptoms except: a. blisters. b. pale, white, or gray skin. c. shivering. d. nausea and vomiting.
ANS: D
REF: p. 650
66. After use, a reusable cold pack is: a. cleaned. b. emptied. c. discarded. d. refilled. ANS: A
REF: p. 652
67. A cooling blanket is needed. After placing it on the bed, it is covered with: a. a sheet b. a mattress pad and sheet c. a mattress pad, sheet, and cotton drawsheet d. a mattress pad, sheet, plastic drawsheet, and cotton drawsheet ANS: A
REF: p. 653
68. What measurements are needed when a cooling blanket or warming blanket is used? a. Body temperature and pulse b. Vital signs c. Pulse and respirations d. Pulse and blood pressure ANS: B
REF: p. 653
TRUE/FALSE 1. An aquathermia pad is placed under a body part. ANS: F
REF: p. 652
Chapter 43: Oxygen Needs Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A resident is sensitive to a substance. The person’s body reacts with signs and symptoms. This
is: a. b. c. d.
a pollutant. an allergy. hypoxia. hypoxemia.
ANS: B
REF: p. 655
2. The lack of or absence of breathing is: a. apnea. b. Kussmaul respirations. c. bradypnea. d. hypoxia. ANS: A
REF: p. 655
3. Rapid and deep respirations followed by 10 to 30 seconds of apnea is: a. Biot’s respirations. b. bradypnea. c. Cheyne-Stokes respirations. d. orthopnea. ANS: A
REF: p. 655
4. Respirations are less than 12 per minute. This is: a. apnea. b. bradypnea. c. orthopnea. d. tachypnea. ANS: B
REF: p. 655
5. Respirations gradually increase in rate and depth and then become shallow and slow.
Breathing may stop for 10 to 20 seconds. This is: a. Biot’s respirations. b. Cheyne-Stokes respirations. c. Kussmaul respirations. d. hypoventilation. ANS: B
REF: p. 655
6. Difficult, labored, or painful breathing is: a. apnea. b. bradypnea. c. dyspnea.
d. orthopnea. ANS: C
REF: p. 655
7. Bloody sputum is: a. hemothorax. b. hemoptysis. c. pleural effusion. d. pneumothorax. ANS: B
REF: p. 655
8. Breathing is rapid and deeper than normal. This is: a. bradypnea. b. tachypnea. c. hypoventilation. d. hyperventilation. ANS: D
REF: p. 655
9. Breathing is slow, shallow, and sometimes irregular. This is: a. bradypnea. b. tachypnea. c. hypoventilation. d. hyperventilation. ANS: C
REF: p. 655
10. A reduced amount of oxygT enEiSnTthBeAbN loKoS dE isL : a. hypoxemia. b. hypoxia. c. oxygen concentration. d. respiratory depression. ANS: A
REF: p. 655
11. Hypoxia means: a. respiratory depression. b. cells do not have enough oxygen. c. breathing stops. d. slow and weak respirations. ANS: B
REF: p. 655
12. Respirations are very deep and rapid. They are: a. Biot’s respirations. b. Cheyne-Stokes respirations. c. Kussmaul respirations. d. hypoventilation. ANS: C
REF: p. 655
13. A person can breathe deeply and comfortably only when sitting. This is:
a. b. c. d.
apnea. bradypnea. dyspnea. orthopnea.
ANS: D
REF: p. 655
14. Sitting up in bed and leaning over a table to breathe is: a. Fowler’s position. b. Semi-Fowler’s position. c. orthopneic position. d. hypoxic position. ANS: C
REF: p. 655
15. The amount of hemoglobin containing oxygen is: a. hypoxia. b. hypoxemia. c. oxygen concentration. d. alveolar-capillary exchange. ANS: C
REF: p. 655
16. A harmful chemical or substance in the air or water is: a. an allergy. b. an irritant. c. a pollutant. d. an allergen. ANS: C 17.
REF: p. 655
Respiratory arrest is when: breathing has stopped. the heart has stopped. respirations are very rapid. breathing and heart action have stopped.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: A
REF: p. 655
18. Respirations are slow and weak. They are not deep enough to bring air into the lungs. This is: a. respiratory arrest. b. respiratory depression. c. bradypnea. d. Biot’s respirations. ANS: B
REF: p. 655
19. Respirations are greater than 20 per minute. This is: a. apnea. b. bradypnea. c. dyspnea. d. tachypnea.
ANS: D
REF: p. 655
20. You are not responsible for oxygen therapy because: a. oxygen is a fire hazard. b. nursing assistants do not give drugs. c. a doctor’s order is needed. d. it is not part of your training. ANS: B
REF: p. 663
21. Which statement about the respiratory system and oxygen needs is correct? a. To meet oxygen needs, respiratory structures must be intact by the time they are 2
years old b. To meet oxygen needs, alveoli must exchange O2 and CO2 c. To meet oxygen needs, the airway must be open 50% of the time d. To meet oxygen needs, oxygen therapy is needed ANS: B
REF: p. 656
22. A person has cardiovascular disease. The person has narrowed blood vessels. Why are oxygen
needs affected? a. The person does not have enough blood cells. b. The person’s heart cannot pump blood well because of pressure around the heart. c. Blood flow to and from the heart is affected. d. Blood loss occurs with cardiovascular disease. ANS: C
REF: p. 656
TESTBANK
23. Which part of the blood carries oxygen? a. Red blood cells b. White blood cells c. Platelets d. Plasma ANS: A
REF: p. 656
24. Brain damage can affect: a. respiratory rate, rhythm, and depth. b. bone marrow function. c. allergies and pollutant exposure. d. lung tissue elasticity. ANS: A
REF: p. 656
25. Aging affects oxygen needs in which of the following ways? a. Respiratory muscles strengthen. b. Lung tissue is more elastic. c. Coughing strength decreases. d. Body temperature increases. ANS: C
REF: p. 656
26. Oxygen needs increase with which of the following?
a. b. c. d.
Reading Fever Rest Eating
ANS: B
REF: p. 656
27. Narcotics affect oxygen needs because they: a. cause brain damage. b. depress the respiratory center in the brain. c. decrease heart rate and blood flow. d. cause swelling of the mucous membranes in the upper airway. ANS: B
REF: p. 656
28. Alcohol use causes what effect on the brain? a. Depression b. Excitement c. Pain and fever d. Decreases aspiration risk ANS: A
REF: p. 656
29. To produce red blood cells, the body needs: a. protein. b. fats. c. carbohydrates. d. iron and vitamins. ANS: D
REF: p. 656
30. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged: a. in the upper airway. b. in lung tissue. c. at the alveoli. d. in the lower airway. ANS: C
REF: p. 656
31. The earliest signs of hypoxia are: a. cyanosis, dyspnea, and increased pulse rate. b. sitting and leaning forward. c. restlessness, dizziness, and disorientation. d. fatigue and agitation. ANS: C
REF: p. 657
32. Which statement about hypoxia is correct? a. The brain is not very sensitive to inadequate oxygen. b. Hypoxia threatens life. c. Cells have an overabundance of oxygen. d. Hyperventilation is needed.
ANS: B
REF: p. 657
33. Which of the following can cause tachypnea? a. Sleeping b. Pain c. Narcotic overdose d. Vagal response ANS: B
REF: p. 657
34. Persons who are in cardiac arrest or respiratory arrest have: a. apnea. b. bradypnea. c. Biot’s respirations. d. hypoventilation. ANS: A
REF: p. 657
35. Which of the following are reported to the nurse? a. Respirations that are quiet, effortless, and regular b. Noisy respirations c. Clear, thin sputum d. Consistent vital signs ANS: B
REF: p. 657
36. Mucus from the respiratory tract that is expectorated through the mouth is: a. saliva. b. sputum. c. hemoptysis. d. hypoxia. ANS: B
REF: p. 657
37. Excessive amounts of alcohol intake: a. cause pneumonia. b. reduce the cough reflex. c. decrease the risk of aspiration. d. obstruct the airway. ANS: B
REF: p. 656
38. Cyanosis can be observed in which of the following? a. Inner ear b. Lips and mucous membranes c. Palms of hands d. Eyes ANS: B
REF: p. 657
39. You find a person leaning forward over a table. What should you do? a. Tell the nurse. b. Remind the person to sit straight.
c. Give oxygen. d. Provide a postural support. ANS: A
REF: p. 657
40. A productive cough produces: a. sputum. b. cyanosis. c. chest pain. d. shortness of breath. ANS: A
REF: p. 657
41. Which SpO2 is abnormal? a. 93% b. 95% c. 97% d. 99% ANS: A 42.
REF: p. 658
Pulse oximetry monitors display: a. SpO2 and the respiratory rate. b. the respiratory rate and pulse rate. c. SpO2 and pulse rate. d. vital signs. ANS: C
REF: p. 658
43. Pulse oximetry is ordered. Which is a sensor site? a. Chest b. Knee c. Nose d. Elbow ANS: C
REF: p. 658
44. A pulse oximeter has an alarm. The alarm sounds when: a. the respiratory rate is too high. b. the respiratory rate is too low. c. the SpO2 is low. d. temperature is elevated. ANS: C
REF: p. 658
45. Which of the following affects pulse oximetry measurements? a. Dark light b. Nail polish c. Short fingernails d. Skin color ANS: B
REF: p. 659
46. A person has a pulse oximetry sensor on a left finger. When measuring blood pressure, you
should: a. remove the sensor and re-apply it after measuring blood pressure. b. use the right arm. c. use a larger cuff. d. change the sensor site. ANS: B
REF: p. 659
47. A person has continuous pulse oximetry monitoring. Which is correct? a. An alarm sounds when the person has hypoxia. Observations are not necessary. b. The nurse tells you how often to check the sensor site. c. The doctor tells you what sensor and what type of tape to use. d. The person’s apical or radial pulse rate should be greater than the pulse rate
displayed. ANS: B
REF: p. 659
48. Respiratory secretions do which of the following? a. Promote coughing and deep breathing. b. Assist with air movement. c. Assist with lung function. d. Provide an environment for microbes to grow. ANS: D
REF: p. 660
49. To prevent respiratory complications, the person is repositioned at least every: a. hour. b. 2 hours. c. 4 hours. d. shift. ANS: B
REF: p. 660
50. A resident is in the orthopneic position. How can you increase the person’s comfort? a. Place a pillow under the person’s head and shoulders. b. Place a pillow on the table. c. Raise the head of the bed. d. Lower the head of the bed. ANS: B
REF: p. 660
51. Lying on one side for too long: a. prevents lung expansion on that side. b. causes coughing. c. causes pneumothorax. d. prevents a patent airway. ANS: A
REF: p. 660
52. Lying on one side for too long: a. leads to the need for suctioning. b. leads to deep breathing and coughing.
c. prevents the use of pulse oximetry. d. allows secretions to pool. ANS: D
REF: p. 660
53. Which removes mucus? a. Coughing b. Deep breathing c. Incentive spirometry d. Surgery ANS: A
REF: p. 660
54. A resident is on bed rest. The person will require: a. deep-breathing and coughing exercises. b. suctioning. c. pulse oximetry. d. incentive spirometry and oxygen therapy. ANS: A
REF: p. 660
55. A part of a person’s lung has collapsed. This is: a. dehiscence. b. an evisceration. c. hypoxemia. d. atelectasis. ANS: D
REF: p. 660
56. Which can cause part of a lung to collapse? a. Deep breathing and coughing b. Mucus collecting in the airway c. Mechanical ventilation d. Suctioning ANS: B
REF: p. 660
57. Which is a risk factor for atelectasis? a. Increased activity b. Crying c. Deep breathing d. Paralysis ANS: D
REF: p. 660
58. Deep-breathing and coughing exercises are done: a. every hour. b. every 1 to 2 hours. c. every 4 hours. d. as often as directed by the nurse and care plan. ANS: B
REF: p. 660
59. A person has a productive cough. Respiratory hygiene involves which of the following? a. Covering the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing b. Using bed linens to absorb respiratory secretions c. Disposing of tissues on the person’s dietary tray d. Washing hands at least once per day ANS: A
REF: p. 661
60. You are assisting a patient with deep-breathing and coughing exercises. For these exercises,
the person can be positioned in which of the following ways? a. Sims’ position b. Trendelenburg’s position c. In a chair or dangling at the bedside d. Orthopneic position ANS: C
REF: p. 662
61. You are assisting a patient with deep-breathing and coughing exercises. The person needs to
inhale: a. through pursed lips. b. though the mouth. c. through the nose. d. through a mouthpiece. ANS: C
REF: p. 662
62. You are assisting a patient with deep-breathing and coughing exercises. The person needs to
exhale: a. through pursed lips. b. though the mouth. c. through the nose. d. through a mouthpiece. ANS: A
REF: p. 662
63. A patient had abdominal surgery. You are assisting the person with deep-breathing and
coughing exercises. Which will promote the person’s comfort during coughing? a. Placing a pillow on the table b. Holding a pillow over the person’s incision c. Being suctioned d. Using incentive spirometry ANS: B
REF: p. 662
64. You are assisting with deep-breathing and coughing exercises. The person needs to: a. cough once with the mouth open. b. cough twice with the mouth open. c. cough once through pursed lips. d. cough twice through pursed lips. ANS: B
REF: p. 662
65. The deep breaths taken using incentive spirometry are like:
a. b. c. d.
bradypnea. yawning or sighing. coughing and sneezing. inhalation and exhalation.
ANS: B
REF: p. 663
66. What is measured during incentive spirometry? a. The amount of oxygen in the blood b. The amount of oxygen in hemoglobin c. The amount of air inhaled d. The amount of air exhaled ANS: C
REF: p. 663
67. You are assisting a resident with incentive spirometry. Which is correct? a. The person inhales through a tube. b. The person takes a quick, shallow breath until the balls rise to the desired height. c. The person holds his breath for 3 to 6 seconds. d. The person exhales through the mouthpiece. ANS: A
REF: p. 663
68. Incentive spirometry is also called: a. pulse oximetry. b. arterial blood gases. c. deep breathing and coughing. d. sustained maximal inspTirEatSioTnB . ANS: D
REF: p. 663
69. A resident uses incentive spirometry. How many breaths does the person need to take with the
device? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. As many as the nurse directs ANS: D
REF: p. 663
70. Incentive spirometry improves lung function because it: a. promotes coughing. b. moves air deep into the lungs. c. prevents aspiration. d. prevents the need for oxygen therapy. ANS: B
REF: p. 663
71. Which health team member decides how much oxygen to give? a. The person b. The doctor c. The nurse d. The respiratory therapist
ANS: B
REF: p. 663
72. Which health team member decides which oxygen device to use? a. The person b. The doctor c. The nurse d. The respiratory therapist ANS: B
REF: p. 663
73. Which health team member decides when to give oxygen? a. The person b. The doctor c. The nurse d. The respiratory therapist ANS: B
REF: p. 663
74. Which health team members start and maintain oxygen therapy? a. The doctor and nurse b. The doctor and respiratory therapist c. The nurse and respiratory therapist d. The nurse and nursing assistant ANS: C
REF: p. 663
75. Which oxygen source is used when the person is ambulatory or uses a wheelchair? a. Wall outlet or oxygen tT anEk b. Oxygen tank or oxygen concentrator c. Oxygen concentrator or liquid oxygen unit d. Small oxygen tank or portable liquid oxygen unit ANS: D
REF: p. 664
76. What is the danger of liquid oxygen systems? a. Liquid oxygen can freeze the skin. b. Liquid oxygen can burn the skin. c. Liquid oxygen can cause pressure on the skin. d. Liquid oxygen can cause atelectasis. ANS: A
REF: p. 665
77. An oxygen administration device has two prongs that insert into the nostrils. This device is a: a. nasal cannula. b. simple face mask. c. partial-rebreather mask. d. venturi mask. ANS: A
REF: p. 666
78. Which oxygen administration device allows the person to talk and eat? a. Nasal cannula
b. Simple face mask c. Partial-rebreather mask d. Venturi mask ANS: A
REF: p. 666
79. Which oxygen administration device does not cover the nose and mouth? a. Nasal cannula b. Simple face mask c. Partial-rebreather mask d. Venturi mask ANS: A
REF: p. 666
80. Which health team members set and adjust the oxygen flow rate? a. The doctor and nurse b. The doctor and respiratory therapist c. The nurse and respiratory therapist d. The nurse and nursing assistant ANS: C
REF: p. 667
81. Which oxygen administration device has color-coded adaptors that show the amount of
oxygen given? a. Nasal cannula b. Simple face mask c. Partial-rebreather mask d. Venturi mask ANS: D
REF: p. 667
82. The amount of oxygen given is: a. the flow rate. b. oxygen percent. c. oxygen concentration. d. oxygen administration. ANS: A
REF: p. 667
83. A resident receives oxygen at 2 L/min. You note that the flow rate is at 4 L/min. What should
you do? a. Nothing. The flow rate is within normal range. b. Adjust the flow rate. c. Tell the nurse. d. Ask how the person feels. ANS: C
REF: p. 667
84. Oxygen is humidified to: a. prevent irritation from the administration device. b. keep the airway moist. c. keep the airway dry. d. prevent secretions.
ANS: B
REF: p. 667
85. You assist the nurse with oxygen therapy. Which task can you perform? a. Adjust the flow rate. b. Remove the administration device. c. Shut off the oxygen. d. Secure the connecting tubing in place. ANS: D
REF: p. 668
86. A patient is receiving oxygen therapy. The nurse reminds you to check for signs of irritation
from the device. You need to check which of the following areas? a. Behind the ears b. On top of the nose c. Between the fingers d. All bony areas ANS: A
REF: p. 668
87. A person is receiving humidified oxygen therapy. The humidifier is not bubbling. What
should you do? a. Add more water to the humidifier. b. Adjust the flow rate. c. Shut off the oxygen. d. Tell the nurse. ANS: D
REF: p. 667
88. A person is receiving oxygen therapy. Connecting tubing must be: a. snug. b. free of kinks. c. lubricated. d. out of the person’s reach. ANS: B
REF: p. 668
89. Which will promote safety where oxygen is used? a. Place a “NO SMOKING” sign in the room. b. Allow the person to smoke only outside when he is on oxygen. c. Allow the person to light scented candles. d. Ask the person’s family members to limit how close they stand to the person if
they are smoking. ANS: A
REF: p. 669
TRUE/FALSE 1. On children, the pulse oximetry sensor is attached to the sole of a foot, palm of a hand, a toe,
or an earlobe. ANS: T
REF: p. 658
Chapter 44: Respiratory Support and Therapies Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Blood in the pleural space is: a. hemothorax. b. hemoptysis. c. pleural effusion. d. pneumothorax. ANS: A
REF: p. 671
2. The process of inserting an artificial airway is: a. mechanical ventilation. b. chest tube insertion. c. suctioning. d. intubation. ANS: D
REF: p. 671
3. Using a machine to move air into and out of the lungs is: a. mechanical ventilation. b. chest tube insertion. c. suctioning. d. intubation. ANS: A
REF: p. 671
4. The escape and collection of fluid in the pleural space is: a. pleural effusion. b. pneumothorax. c. hemothorax. d. sputum. ANS: A
REF: p. 671
5. Air in the pleural space is: a. pleural effusion. b. pneumothorax. c. hemothorax. d. sputum. ANS: B
REF: p. 671
6. The process of withdrawing or sucking up fluid is: a. hemoptysis. b. sputum. c. suction. d. secretions. ANS: C
REF: p. 671
7. Artificial airways are used: a. to keep the airway moist. b. to keep the airway open. c. when suctioning is needed. d. when chest tubes are needed. ANS: B
REF: p. 671
8. Only doctors can: a. insert oropharyngeal airways. b. suction oropharyngeal airways. c. insert endotracheal tubes. d. perform tracheostomies. ANS: D
REF: p. 671
9. A person’s artificial airway came out. What should you do? a. Reinsert the airway. b. Call for the nurse at once. c. Ask the person to put it back in. d. Give oxygen. ANS: B
REF: p. 672
10. Persons with artificial airways need: a. fluids offered at frequent intervals. b. frequent oral hygiene. c. frequent suctioning. d. range-of-motion exercises every hour. ANS: B
REF: p. 672
11. What feelings are common with artificial airways? a. Numbness and tingling b. Pain and discomfort c. Dizziness and faintness d. Gagging and choking ANS: D
REF: p. 672
12. Persons with endotracheal tubes cannot: a. breathe. b. sleep. c. move. d. speak. ANS: D
REF: p. 672
13. A person has a tracheostomy tube. To communicate with the person, you need to: a. follow the care plan. b. provide paper and pencil. c. check on them once per hour.
d. ask the family member to communicate for the person. ANS: B
REF: p. 672
14. Which statement about tracheostomies is correct? a. The nurse removes the inner and outer cannulas for cleaning. b. The ties are never to be removed. c. For an adult, three fingers should slide under the ties or collar. d. Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard are followed during
tracheostomy care. ANS: D
REF: p. 671
15. A resident has a permanent tracheostomy. The person wants to go outside. Which is correct? a. People with tracheostomies cannot go outside. b. The person cannot go outside alone. c. The person needs to wear a scarf or blouse that will cover the stoma. d. The person needs to take an Ambu bag with her. ANS: C
REF: p. 673
16. A resident has a permanent tracheostomy. The person wants to take a shower. Which is
correct? a. People with tracheostomies cannot shower. They have tub or bed baths. b. A shower guard is used and a hand-held nozzle is used to direct water away from the stoma. c. The person needs to cover the stoma with plastic or leather. d. Only the person’s loweTr E boSdTyBisAw . NaKshSeEdL ANS: B
REF: p. 673
17. Suctioning is done when: a. the person can cough up secretions. b. a sputum specimen is needed. c. secretions are excessive. d. the person is very ill. ANS: C
REF: p. 673
18. Which statement about suctioning is correct? a. Oxygen is added to the airway when suctioning. b. Suction is applied while inserting the catheter. c. Suctioning can injure the airway. d. Suctioning is never a dangerous procedure. ANS: C
REF: p. 674
19. A suction cycle for an adult lasts: a. 5 to 10 seconds. b. 10 to 15 seconds. c. 15 to 20 seconds. d. 20 to 30 seconds.
ANS: B
REF: p. 674
20. Suctioning is done: a. every hour. b. every 2 hours. c. every 4 hours. d. as needed. ANS: D
REF: p. 674
21. The nurse asks you to assist with suctioning. You need to: a. know what the nurse expects of you. b. clear the catheter with water or saline. c. apply suction after inserting the catheter. d. pass the catheter no more than three times. ANS: A
REF: p. 674
22. Mechanical ventilation requires: a. suctioning. b. an oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal airway. c. chest tubes. d. an endotracheal tube or a tracheostomy tube. ANS: D
REF: p. 675
23. An alarm sounds on a mechanical ventilator. What should you do first? a. Shut off the alarm. b. Reset the alarm. c. Tell the nurse. d. Check to see if the person’s tube is attached to the ventilator. ANS: D
REF: p. 676
24. A patient requires mechanical ventilation. The nurse asks you to assist with the person’s care.
Which should you politely refuse to do? a. Answer the call light promptly. b. Explain who you are and what you are going to do every time you enter the room. c. Check the settings and reset alarms. d. Follow the care plan to communicate with the person. ANS: C
REF: p. 676
25. A patient requires mechanical ventilation. The nurse asks you to assist with the person’s care.
Which should you agree to do? a. Select the suction catheter to be used. b. Comfort and reassure the person. c. Suction the person’s airway. d. Tell the person this will not be uncomfortable. ANS: B
REF: p. 676
26. Chest tubes are attached to:
a. b. c. d.
suction. a mechanical ventilator. a drainage system. the bed frame.
ANS: C
REF: p. 677
27. A patient has chest tubes. Connecting tubes: a. are kept above the person’s chest. b. are kept coiled on the bed. c. should hang in loops. d. should be snug but not tight. ANS: B
REF: p. 677
28. You observe bright red drainage from a patient’s chest tubes. What should you do? a. Suction the person. b. Tell the nurse at once. c. Call the doctor. d. Ask the person to deep breathe and cough. ANS: B
REF: p. 677
29. A patient has chest tubes. You are assisting the nurse with the person’s care. You need to do
which of the following? a. Turn and reposition the person according to the care plan. b. Remove the chest tube when ordered. c. Change the dressing arT ouEnS dTthBeAcN heKstStE ubL. d. Empty the bottles at the end of your shift. ANS: A
REF: p. 677
30. What is kept at the bedside in case a chest tube comes out? a. An artificial airway b. A suction catheter c. An Ambu bag d. Sterile petrolatum gauze ANS: D
REF: p. 677
31. A person needs suctioning. The nurse is very busy with a family member. You are told to
suction the person. What should you do? a. Refuse the task and explain why. b. Perform the task as directed. c. Ask the nurse to show you how to complete the task. d. Ask someone else to do it. ANS: A
REF: p. 677
32. A person’s chest tube comes out. Which action is correct? a. Call for help. b. Try to reinsert it. c. Cover the insertion site with a Band-Aid.
d. Go and get the nurse. ANS: A
REF: p. 677
33. Which health team member inserts chest tubes? a. A doctor b. A respiratory therapist c. An RN d. A nursing assistant ANS: A
REF: p. 677
34. A surgically created opening into the trachea is: a. hemoptysis. b. endotracheal. c. tracheostomy. d. pleural effusion. ANS: C
REF: p. 671
TRUE/FALSE 1. The nurse asks you to assist with suctioning. Before assisting, you need to review the
procedure with the nurse. ANS: T
REF: p. 674
2. If not done correctly, suctiT onEinSgTcBanAcNaK usSeEsL erL ioEuR s h.aC rm O.M ANS: T
REF: p. 674
Chapter 45: Rehabilitation Needs Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A disability is: a. an artificial replacement for a missing body part. b. a chronic illness or disease. c. any lost, absent, or impaired physical or mental function. d. a temporary state of impairment. ANS: C
REF: p. 679
2. A prosthesis is: a. an artificial replacement for a missing body part. b. a chronic illness or disease. c. any lost, absent, or impaired physical or mental function. d. a temporary state of impairment. ANS: A
REF: p. 679
3. Rehabilitation is: a. the process of restoring the person to his or her highest possible level of function. b. adjusting to a disability. c. care that helps persons regain health, strength, and independence. d. the process of assisting the person to maintain or regain health. ANS: A
REF: p. 679
4. Restorative nursing care is: a. the process of restoring the person to his or her highest possible level of function. b. using the nursing process to help the person adjust to a disability. c. care that helps persons regain health, strength, and independence. d. the process of assisting the person to maintain or regain health. ANS: C
REF: p. 679
5. Which of the following are common causes of disabilities? a. Influenza b. Vitamin deficiency c. Choking and aspiration d. Birth injuries and birth defects ANS: D
REF: p. 679
6. Which statement about disabilities is correct? a. Losses are always temporary. b. Losses are almost always permanent. c. Only one function is lost. d. More than one function can be lost. ANS: D
REF: p. 679
7. Which statement about disabilities is correct? a. Causes are considered chronic rather than acute. b. The person may depend totally on others for basic needs. c. The degree of disability does not affect how much function is possible. d. Complete recovery is always possible when the person has a good attitude. ANS: B
REF: p. 679
8. Which is a focus of rehabilitation? a. Planning the funeral arrangements b. Focusing on the lost function c. Preventing further loss of function d. Stressing the degree of disability and the functions lost ANS: C
REF: p. 679
9. Restorative nursing care does which of the following? a. Focuses on the whole person. b. Provides all ADLs for the person. c. Prevents any further illness. d. Helps the person maintain a minimum level of function. ANS: A
REF: p. 679
10. Which statement is correct? a. Rehabilitation begins after restorative nursing care. b. Restorative nursing care begins after rehabilitation. TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Some people need both rehabilitation and restorative care. d. The person returns home after completing a rehabilitation program. ANS: C 11.
REF: p. 680
Which statement about restorative aides is correct? a. They must meet OBRA training requirements. b. They are nursing assistants with training in restorative nursing and rehabilitation skills. c. Those with excellent work ethics are promoted to nursing assistants. d. They have had some nursing education. ANS: B
REF: p. 680
12. Restorative nursing may involve measures that promote which of the following? a. Self-care b. Encouraging use of a Foley catheter c. Immobilization d. Bed rest ANS: A
REF: p. 680
13. A disability affects: a. the person physically. b. the person psychologically.
c. the person socially. d. the whole person. ANS: D
REF: p. 680
14. Rehabilitation starts when the person: a. first seeks health care. b. seeks hospital care. c. is in an assisted living residence. d. is admitted to a nursing center. ANS: A
REF: p. 680
15. What is stressed during rehabilitation? a. The person’s disabilities b. What the person can do c. The person’s weaknesses d. The person’s attitude ANS: B
REF: p. 680
16. Rehabilitation often takes longer for: a. teenagers. b. young adults. c. middle-age adults. d. older persons. ANS: D
REF: p. 680
17. Which of the following prevents contractures and pressure injuries? a. Rest and immobility b. Avoiding the use of pillows c. Limiting any range-of-motion exercises d. Good skin care ANS: D
REF: p. 680
18. A resident needs bowel and bladder training. What should you do? a. Offer the bedpan regularly. b. Restrict the person’s fluid intake. c. Provide catheter care. d. Follow the person’s care plan. ANS: D
REF: p. 680
19. Activities of daily living refer to: a. work functions. b. self-care. c. prostheses. d. assistive devices. ANS: B
REF: p. 679
20. A resident’s right wrist is affected by a disability. You would expect the person to need: a. a prosthesis. b. self-help devices. c. a wheelchair. d. a cast. ANS: B
REF: p. 680
21. A resident is paralyzed from the waist down. You would expect the person to learn to use: a. mechanical ventilation. b. a prosthesis. c. a walker. d. a wheelchair. ANS: D
REF: p. 682
22. A patient has aphasia following a stroke. Which of the following are helpful? a. Speech therapy and a dysphagia diet b. Physical therapy and braces c. Speech therapy and communication devices d. Occupational therapy and a transfer board ANS: C
REF: p. 683
23. During rehabilitation, persons need to be reminded of their: a. disabilities. b. strengths and weaknesses. c. limits. d. progress. ANS: D
REF: p. 683
24. Which person is the least likely to have a successful rehabilitation program? a. The person who tries to do what the physical therapist suggests. b. The person who works hard to make slow, steady progress. c. The person who is not happy but goes to physical therapy willingly. d. The person who tries to go beyond his limits and tells the staff what to do. ANS: D
REF: p. 683
25. Persons with disabilities often feel which of the following? a. Welcomed b. Worthy c. Useful d. Unattractive ANS: D
REF: p. 683
26. Which statement about the rehabilitation team is correct? a. The team usually meets without the person and family. b. The team meets occasionally to discuss the person’s progress. c. Nursing assistants are not considered to be a part of the rehabilitation team. d. The person is part of the rehabilitation team.
ANS: D
REF: p. 683
27. When assisting with rehabilitation, you need to: a. follow the service plan. b. follow the care plan. c. carry out the doctor’s orders. d. ask the person what to do. ANS: B
REF: p. 683
28. A resident had both legs amputated. The person’s care plan includes the following measures.
Which should you question? a. Turn and reposition as directed. b. Take measures to prevent pressure ulcers. c. Maintain good alignment at all times. d. Perform all ADLs for the person. ANS: D
REF: p. 684
29. When assisting with rehabilitation, you must always: a. do what the person wants. b. protect the person’s rights. c. apply assistive devices. d. show pity and sympathy. ANS: B
REF: p. 684
LLhE 30. A patient takes a long timeTgEeS ttiT ngBdArN esKseSdE .W atRsh.oCuO ldMyou do? a. Give the person time to complete the task. b. Ask if you can help the person. c. Report the problem to the nurse. d. Time the person. Encourage the person to beat that time. ANS: A
REF: p. 684
31. You are feeling frustrated because a resident’s progress is slow. You feel like the person is not
trying. What should you do? a. Tell the person how you feel. b. Ask a co-worker to care for the person. c. Discuss your feelings with the nurse. d. Ask the person’s family what to do. ANS: C
REF: p. 684
32. To better guide and direct a person, you should: a. practice what the person has to do. b. apply assistive devices. c. give support and reassurance. d. review the person’s medical record. ANS: A
REF: p. 684
33. The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) requires that nursing centers: a. provide assisted living residences. b. provide rehabilitation services. c. hire therapists. d. provide respiratory rehabilitation. ANS: B
REF: p. 685
34. Why is privacy important during rehabilitation? a. It protects the person’s dignity and promotes self-respect. b. It is required by OBRA. c. It is a matter of personal choice. d. It prevents abuse and mistreatment. ANS: A
REF: p. 685
35. A resident has aphasia. Which will help the person feel a sense of control? a. Allowing personal choices whenever possible b. Showing the person pity and sympathy c. Doing as much as possible for the person d. Meeting the person’s spiritual needs ANS: A
REF: p. 683
36. Which promotes quality of life during rehabilitation and restorative care? a. Providing a safe setting b. Promoting isolation c. Learning to act out youTr E frS usTtrBatAioNnK s d. Asking for a different assignment every week ANS: A
REF: p. 685
37. A resident is making slow progress in therapy. You see another nursing assistant laughing at
the person. What should you do? a. Tell the nurse. b. Talk to your co-worker. c. Ask if you can join in the fun. d. Ignore the situation. ANS: A
REF: p. 686
38. Whose role is it to assess the person’s home setting for any necessary changes needed prior to
receiving rehabilitation? a. Rehabilitation team b. Nursing assistant c. Family members of the patient d. Director of nursing ANS: A TRUE/FALSE
REF: p. 686
1. A person with a disability needs to adjust physically, psychologically, socially, and
economically. ANS: T
REF: p. 683
2. The goal for a prosthesis is to be like the missing body part in function and appearance. ANS: T
REF: p. 682
Chapter 46: Hearing, Speech, and Vision Problems Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Braille is: a. a touch reading and writing system that uses raised dots. b. a dog guide. c. a hearing assistance dog. d. a method of writing for persons who have aphasia. ANS: A
REF: p. 687
2. Tinnitus is: a. dizziness. b. a ringing, roaring, hissing, or buzzing in the ears or head. c. a sign language. d. hearing loss. ANS: B
REF: p. 687
3. Vertigo means: a. dizziness. b. ringing in the ears. c. a sign language. d. hearing loss. ANS: A
REF: p. 687
4. Which is an infection of the middle ear? a. Otitis media b. Ménière’s disease c. Cataract d. Glaucoma ANS: A
REF: p. 688
5. Which of the following is common with otitis media? a. Skin rash b. Headache c. Tinnitus d. Vomiting ANS: C
REF: p. 688
6. Which signals otitis media in children? a. The child tugs at the ears. b. The child sleeps a lot. c. The child is generally happy. d. The child has problems speaking. ANS: A
REF: p. 688
7. Otitis media is most common in: a. infants and children between 4 months and 4 years of age. b. teenagers. c. adults. d. older persons. ANS: A
REF: p. 688
8. Earwax is also known as: a. tinnitus. b. cerumen. c. otitis. d. dysarthria. ANS: B 9.
REF: p. 687
Cerumen is: a. earwax. b. pain in the ear. c. a tumor. d. fluid in the ear. ANS: A
REF: p. 687
10. The total or partial loss of the ability to use or understand language is: a. braille. b. cerumen. c. aphasia. d. tinnitus. ANS: C
REF: p. 687
11. Which statement about otitis media is correct? a. It often begins with infections that cause sore throats or colds. b. Permanent hearing loss does not occur. c. Air builds up in the ear. d. It is always acute. ANS: A
REF: p. 688
12. Ménière’s disease involves the: a. middle ear. b. inner ear. c. optic nerve. d. lens of the eye. ANS: B
REF: p. 689
13. The major symptoms of Ménière’s disease are: a. tinnitus, hearing loss, vertigo, and pressure in the ear. b. pain, hearing loss, tinnitus, and fever. c. fever, pain, and light-headedness.
d. drainage from the ear, pain, fever, and headache. ANS: A
REF: p. 689
14. The person experiencing vertigo must: a. lie down. b. drink plenty of fluids. c. wear a hearing aid. d. stop smoking. ANS: A
REF: p. 689
15. A person has Ménière’s disease. You must protect the person from which of the following? a. Infection b. Hearing loss c. Falls d. Low lights ANS: C
REF: p. 689
16. Symptoms of hearing loss include which of the following? a. Wax in the ears b. Speaking clearly c. Excessive sleeping d. Asking for words to be repeated ANS: D
REF: p. 689
EaLrdLtEoR 17. During conversations, a reT sidEeSnT t lB eaAnN sK foS rw w. arC dO thMe person speaking. The resident’s answers seem inappropriate. Sometimes he seems to control conversations. He is showing signs of: a. hearing loss. b. suspicious and paranoid behavior. c. tinnitus and vertigo. d. Ménière’s disease. ANS: A
REF: p. 689
18. A person has severe hearing loss. Which is correct? a. Speech is not affected by hearing loss. b. Awareness of surroundings requires hearing. c. Responding to others does not require hearing, only seeing. d. Safety is not typically affected by hearing loss. ANS: B
REF: p. 689
19. A person has severe hearing loss. Which is correct? a. The person may feel lonely and left out. b. The person may become sick. c. A hearing aid will not help the person. d. The person’s hearing loss does not affect speech. ANS: A
REF: p. 689
20. A patient is speech-impaired. When communicating with the person, you should ask the
person to: a. avoid pointing or gesturing. b. write down key words or the message. c. ask questions only once. d. avoid repeating and rephrasing statements. ANS: B
REF: p. 689
21. A patient has hearing loss. To communicate with the person, you need to do which of the
following? a. State the topic of conversation first. b. Use long, open-ended statements. c. Shout when talking to the person. d. Discuss all of your ideas at once. ANS: A
REF: p. 689
22. A patient has hearing loss. To communicate with the person, you need to do which of the
following? a. Avoid repeating and rephrasing statements. b. Be aware of your body language. c. Provide some background noise. d. Write everything on notebook paper. ANS: B
REF: p. 689
23.2 A resident has a hearing assistance dog. You know that the dog is: 3 a. the person’s pet. . b. trained to alert the person to certain sounds. c. trained to assist the person with ADL. d. part of the person’s treatment and therapies. ANS: B
REF: p. 690
24. A resident has a hearing aid. Which is correct? a. The hearing aid corrects the person’s hearing problem. b. Hearing aids are disposable and inexpensive. c. Batteries are removed when the person can no longer hear you. d. When not in use, the hearing aid is turned off. ANS: D
REF: p. 691
25. A resident has a hearing aid. To properly care for the device, you need to: a. follow the manufacturer’s instructions. b. wash it with soap and water. c. put it in your ear to see if it is working. d. keep the battery in all the time. ANS: A
REF: p. 692
26. A resident thinks her hearing aid is not working. What should you do first?
a. b. c. d.
Ask her simple questions. If she answers correctly, the hearing aid is working. Tell the nurse. Check to see if the hearing aid is on. Put it in your ear to see if it is working.
ANS: C
REF: p. 692
27. Which statement about speech disorders is correct? a. Persons with speech impairments cannot communicate. b. Persons with speech impairments are also hearing impaired. c. Persons with speech impairments are developmentally disabled. d. The person’s willingness and ability to learn affect the amount of improvement
possible. ANS: D
REF: p. 693
28. Dysarthria means: a. inability to use muscles needed for speech. b. difficult or poor speech. c. hearing loss. d. speech and hearing impairment. ANS: B
REF: p. 693
29. A person has speech disorder. The goal of rehabilitation is to: a. allow the person to return to work. b. help the nursing team learn how to communicate with the person. c. improve the person’s aT biE liS tyTtoBcAoNmKmSuE niLcL atE e. d. teach the person to use a computer for communication. ANS: C
REF: p. 693
30. The person with apraxia of speech: a. does not understand speech. b. cannot use speech muscles to produce understandable speech. c. does not know what to say. d. has hearing loss and aphasia. ANS: B
REF: p. 693
31. Another term for expressive aphasia is: a. Broca’s aphasia. b. mixed aphasia. c. Wernicke’s aphasia. d. global aphasia. ANS: A
REF: p. 694
32. Expressive aphasia relates to: a. difficulty sending out thoughts. b. problems with thinking and reasoning. c. difficulty understanding language. d. difficulty using the muscles needed for speech.
ANS: A
REF: p. 694
33. Receptive aphasia relates to: a. difficulty sending out thoughts. b. problems with thinking and reasoning. c. difficulty understanding language. d. difficulty using the muscles needed for speech. ANS: C 34.
REF: p. 694
Which statement about vision loss is correct? a. Vision loss occurs only in the older adult. b. Blindness is the absence of light. c. Vision loss is gradual or sudden in onset. d. Both eyes are always affected. ANS: C
REF: p. 694
35. A resident has glaucoma. What do you know about the person’s sight? a. Print and colors appear faded. b. The person cannot see to the side. c. The person is blind in the affected eye. d. The person’s vision is cloudy. ANS: B
REF: p. 696
36. A resident has glaucoma. Which is correct? a. Glaucoma causes damaTgE eS toTtB heAoNpK ticSnEeLrvLeE . b. Surgery can correct prior damage. c. The person cannot develop other eye disorders. d. A lens implant will correct the problem. ANS: A
REF: p. 696
37. A resident has a cataract in the left eye. The person’s treatment is likely to be: a. surgery. b. an artificial eye. c. drug therapy. d. corrective lenses. ANS: A
REF: p. 696
38. Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is: a. damage to the optic nerve. b. a disease that blurs central vision. c. a clouding of the lens. d. a painful eye infection. ANS: B
REF: p. 695
39. The leading cause of blindness in persons 60 years of age and older is: a. glaucoma.
b. cataract. c. eye infections. d. age-related macular degeneration. ANS: D
REF: p. 695
40. A resident has age-related macular degeneration (AMD). Which is correct? a. The disease is usually sudden in onset. b. The disease is painful. c. The risk of getting AMD increases with age. d. Wet AMD is more common than dry AMD. ANS: C
REF: p. 695
41. Which will decrease the risk of age-related macular degeneration? a. Eating a high-fat diet b. Smoking c. Avoiding wearing sunglasses d. Having regular eye exams ANS: D
REF: p. 695
42. Which person is at risk for low vision? a. A person with diabetes b. A person who wears eyeglasses c. A person with Broca’s aphasia d. A person with apraxia ANS: A
. 6S9T 7 REF: TpE
43. These statements are about blindness. Which is correct? a. The legally blind person has no vision. b. It is very challenging for blind persons to learn to read braille. c. A person uses a white cane with a red tip. The person is blind. d. A person has a therapy dog. The person must be blind. ANS: C
REF: p. 697
44. A resident is blind. To gain the person’s attention, you need to: a. approach the person from behind. b. lightly touch the person’s arm. c. pet the person’s guide dog. d. identify yourself by name and title when you enter the person’s room. ANS: D
REF: p. 698
45. A resident is blind. When assisting with the person’s care needs, you need to do which of the
following? a. Provide only natural light. b. Ask how much the person can see. c. Keep the blinds and shades closed. d. Keep the room door partly open.
ANS: B
REF: p. 699
46. A resident is blind. Which measure is considered to be safe for the person? a. Rearranging the person’s furniture and equipment b. Keeping extra beds and chairs in the hallways and walkways c. Keeping the person’s call light within reach d. Performing the person’s self-care for them ANS: C
REF: p. 699
47. A resident is blind. When speaking to the person, you need to: a. speak loudly or shout. b. use simple words and short sentences. c. face the person d. avoid using “see,” “look,” or “read.” ANS: C
REF: p. 699
48. A resident is blind. The person is moving about in the lounge. What should you do? a. Ask if you can help the person. b. Lead the person to the closest chair. c. Assist the person back to his room. d. Offer an arm and walk quickly ahead of the person. ANS: A
REF: p. 699
49. A patient is blind. You are assisting the person with ambulation. Which action is safe? a. Giving the person a map that shows the location of curbs or steps b. Telling the person when to step up or down c. Having the person walk slightly in front of you d. Using phrases like “over here” or “over there” ANS: B
REF: p. 699
50. A patient is blind. When serving the person’s meals, you should do which of the following? a. Explain the location of food and beverages using your fingers. b. Tell the person the food is laid out the same way it is every day. c. Open cartons, cut meat, and so on as needed. d. Ask the person what the food smells like. ANS: C
REF: p. 699
51. A patient wears eyeglasses. You need to clean them: a. daily and when needed. b. every shift. c. with water and tissues. d. with a special cleaning solution. ANS: A
REF: p. 699
52. A patient is not wearing his eyeglasses. Where should you store them? a. At the nurses’ station b. In the top drawer of the bedside stand
c. In the person’s closet d. In the person’s trunk ANS: B
REF: p. 699
53. A patient is not wearing his eyeglasses. Before storing them, you need to: a. put them in a container with cool water. b. put them in their case. c. remove the battery. d. turn the device off. ANS: B
REF: p. 699
54. Corrective lenses are treated like: a. other valuables. b. a drug. c. a delegated task. d. an artificial eye. ANS: A
REF: p. 700
55. A resident you are caring for wears contact lenses. You need to: a. report eye redness to the nurse. b. remove and clean the lenses daily. c. use mild soap and water to clean the lenses. d. remove and clean the lenses on the person’s bath day. ANS: A
REF: p. 700
56. A resident has contact lenses. To properly care for them, you need to: a. follow the manufacturer’s instructions. b. clean them with water and tissues. c. label them with the person’s name and room number. d. remove the batteries before storing them. ANS: A
REF: p. 702
57. A resident’s ocular prosthesis is removable. Proper care of the eye involves which of the
following? a. Labeling it with the person’s name and room number b. Placing it in a lined container that is filled with water or saline c. Storing the container with the urinal in the bedside stand d. Keeping the artificial eye at the nurses’ station at night ANS: B
REF: p. 702
58. A resident’s ocular prosthesis is removed. Proper care of the eye socket involves: a. washing the socket with soap and warm water. b. washing the socket with warm water or saline. c. washing the socket with a cleaning solution. d. washing the eyelid and eyelashes with antiseptic soap. ANS: B
REF: p. 702
TRUE/FALSE 1. Hearing, speech, and vision are important for safety and security. ANS: T
REF: p. 687
2. Glaucoma has no cure. ANS: T
REF: p. 696
3. Everyone with diabetes is at risk for diabetic retinopathy. ANS: T
REF: p. 696
4. Low vision is eyesight that can be corrected with eyeglasses or surgery. ANS: F
REF: p. 697
5. White canes with a red tip and dog guides are used worldwide by persons who are blind. ANS: T
REF: p. 700
Chapter 47: Cancer, Immune System, and Skin Disorders Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Tumors that do not spread to other body parts and usually do not grow back when removed
are: a. b. c. d.
cancer. malignant. metastasis. benign.
ANS: D
REF: p. 705
2. A person has a malignant tumor. The person has: a. cancer. b. metastasis. c. a tumor that grows slowly. d. death of tissue. ANS: A
REF: p. 705
3. A malignant tumor: a. grows slowly and in a localized area. b. spreads to other parts of the body. c. invades and destroys nearby tissue. d. is not cancer. ANS: C
REF: p. 705
4. Metastasis is: a. a benign tumor. b. cancer. c. a malignant tumor. d. the spread of cancer to other body parts. ANS: D 5.
REF: p. 705
A tumor is: a. cancer. b. stomatitis. c. a new growth of abnormal cells. d. a lump in a body part. ANS: C
REF: p. 705
6. Stomatitis is inflammation of the: a. bladder. b. nose. c. mouth. d. anus.
ANS: C 7.
REF: p. 705
A person has cancer. Metastasis occurs when: cell growth and division are out of control. cancer cells break off of the tumor and travel to other body parts. the person is exposed to radiation. cancer is treated and controlled.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: B
REF: p. 705
8. A person has cancer. You know that the person has: a. a benign tumor. b. a malignant tumor. c. metastasis. d. radiation exposure. ANS: B
REF: p. 705
9. Cancer occurs in: a. all age-groups. b. children. c. young and middle-age adults. d. older persons. ANS: A
REF: p. 705
10. Which factor increases the risk of cancer? a. Tobacco use b. Pregnancy c. A healthy diet d. Multivitamin use ANS: A
REF: p. 709
11. Signs and symptoms of cancer include which of the following? a. A thickening or lump in a body part b. A mole that consistently stays the same c. Regular bowel and bladder habits d. Stiff and swollen joints ANS: A
REF: p. 707
12. Signs and symptoms of cancer include which of the following? a. Weight loss with dieting b. Night sweats c. Skin rashes d. Unusual bleeding ANS: D
REF: p. 707
13. A person has cancer. Surgery is done to: a. remove the cancer.
b. shrink the tumor. c. destroy cancer cells in the area. d. kill cells that break off of the tumor. ANS: A
REF: p. 709
14. Radiation therapy can be used to treat cancer. Which is correct? a. X-ray beams are aimed at the tumor. b. It can only be done after surgery. c. It is used to prevent the cancer’s return. d. Only cancer cells are affected. ANS: A
REF: p. 709
15. Which is a side effect of radiation therapy? a. Weight gain b. Burns at the radiation site c. Skin growth at the radiation site d. Tumor formation at the radiation site ANS: B
REF: p. 709
16. Chemotherapy can be used to treat cancer. Which is correct? a. It affects only the cancer cells. b. It can be given only before surgery. c. The person is at risk for bleeding and infection. d. It prevents cancers from getting or using hormones needed for tumor growth. ANS: C
. 7S0T 9 REF: TpE
17. Persons receiving chemotherapy are at risk for which of the following? a. Increased appetite b. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea c. Hair growth d. Hot flashes and blood clots ANS: B
REF: p. 709
18. Besides drugs, hormone therapy also involves: a. aiming x-rays at glands that produce certain hormones. b. surgically removing organs or glands that produce certain hormones. c. helping the body’s immune system. d. pain relief or control. ANS: B
REF: p. 710
19. A patient has cancer. You find him crying in his room. What should you do? a. Close the door after leaving the room. He needs to cry in private. b. Use touch and listening to communicate that you care. c. Tell the nurse at once. d. Tell his spiritual advisor what you observed. ANS: B
REF: p. 711
20. A resident is dying of cancer. Which program might be helpful to the person and the person’s
family? a. Rehabilitation b. Subacute care c. Hospice d. Group therapy ANS: C
REF: p. 711
21. Which system defends against threats inside and outside the body? a. The respiratory system b. The immune system c. The gastrointestinal system d. The urinary system ANS: B
REF: p. 711
22. Which is an autoimmune disorder? a. Hemophilia b. Hypertension c. Multiple sclerosis d. Sickle cell anemia ANS: C
REF: p. 711
23. Most autoimmune disorders are: a. chronic. b. acute. c. cured with surgery. d. cured with drugs. ANS: A
REF: p. 711
24. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is spread by: a. saliva, tears, and sweat. b. blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast milk. c. coughing and sneezing. d. casual contact and insects. ANS: B
REF: p. 712
25. HIV is spread in which of the following ways? a. Having protected sex b. Sharing needles and syringes c. Drinking after one another d. Sharing swimming pools and hot tubs ANS: B
REF: p. 712
26. HIV causes: a. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). b. hepatitis A.
c. sexually transmitted diseases. d. hepatitis B. ANS: A
REF: p. 712
27. A person infected with HIV may be symptom-free for: a. 6 weeks. b. 6 months to 1 year. c. 3 to 6 years. d. more than 10 years. ANS: D
REF: p. 713
28. A person infected with HIV is symptom-free. Which is correct? a. The person is a carrier and can infect others. b. The person cannot infect others until symptoms are present. c. Symptoms appear after others are infected. d. The person does not show symptoms until other diseases develop. ANS: A
REF: p. 713
29. Persons with AIDS develop other diseases because: a. their immune systems are affected. b. they practice unprotected sex. c. they share needles and syringes. d. they have a reduced blood supply. ANS: A
REF: p. 713
30. To protect yourself and others from HIV, you must follow Standard Precautions and the
Bloodborne Pathogen Standard: a. when caring for persons at risk. b. when caring for persons diagnosed with HIV or AIDS. c. when caring for persons diagnosed with HIV. d. at all times. ANS: D
REF: p. 713
31. Signs and symptoms of AIDS include which of the following? a. Loss of appetite, weight gain, night sweats, and constipation b. Warts and blisters on the genitals, discharge from the vagina or penis, and intense
itching c. Dry skin, swollen glands, sneezing, and black blotches on the skin d. Extreme fatigue, sores or white patches on the mouth or tongue, and confusion ANS: D
REF: p. 713
32. Older persons are at risk for HIV/AIDS. Which statement is correct? a. The disease is often found during diagnosis. b. Aging and other diseases can mask the signs and symptoms. c. They are more likely to be tested for HIV. d. They refuse tests and treatment.
ANS: B
REF: p. 713
33. Care of a person with AIDS involves which of the following? a. Surgical treatment b. I&O and daily weight measurements c. Restricting fluids d. Limiting exercises ANS: B
REF: p. 713
34. Care of persons with AIDS involves which of the following? a. Restricting visitors b. Limiting activity c. Encouraging total care to prevent transmission d. Being a good listener ANS: D
REF: p. 713
35. Shingles is caused by: a. a virus. b. a bacteria. c. poor hygiene. d. friction and shearing. ANS: A
REF: p. 715
36. The outer layer of the skin is known as the: a. epidermis. b. dermis. c. pigment. d. mesoderm. ANS: A
REF: p. 714
37. The inner layer of the skin is known as the: a. epidermis. b. dermis. c. pigment. d. mesoderm. ANS: B
REF: p. 714
TRUE/FALSE 1. The immune system can cause diseases by attacking the body’s own normal cells, tissues, or
organs. ANS: T
REF: p. 714
2. A vaccine is available to prevent shingles. ANS: T
REF: p. 715
3. An 80-year-old woman has undergone chemotherapy for cancer. She is at risk for shingles. ANS: T
REF: p. 715
Chapter 48: Nervous System and Musculo-Skeletal Disorders Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The removal of all or part of an extremity is: a. excision. b. incision. c. ectomy. d. amputation. ANS: D
REF: p. 717
2. Arthritis is: a. the surgical replacement of a joint. b. joint inflammation. c. a disease in which bones become porous and brittle. d. the repair of a fracture. ANS: B
REF: p. 717
3. Arthroplasty is: a. the surgical replacement of a joint. b. joint inflammation. c. a disease in which bones become porous and brittle. d. the repair of a fracture. ANS: A
REF: p. 717
4. A person has a fracture. The bone is broken but the skin is intact. The person has: a. a closed fracture. b. a compound fracture. c. an open fracture. d. a spiral fracture. ANS: A
REF: p. 717
5. A person has a fracture. The bone has come through the skin. The person has: a. a closed fracture. b. a simple fracture. c. a compound fracture. d. a hip fracture. ANS: C
REF: p. 717
6. A compound fracture is also called: a. a closed fracture. b. a simple fracture. c. an open fracture. d. a hip fracture. ANS: C
REF: p. 717
7. A fracture is: a. a broken bone. b. a broken joint. c. a broken hip. d. a cast or traction. ANS: A
REF: p. 717
8. Paralysis on one side of the body is: a. uniplegia. b. biplegia. c. paraplegia. d. hemiplegia. ANS: D
REF: p. 717
9. Paraplegia is paralysis and loss of sensory function: a. in the arms. b. in the legs. c. from the chest up. d. from the neck down. ANS: B
REF: p. 717
10. Quadriplegia is paralysis: a. in the arms. b. in the legs. c. from the waist down. d. in the arms, legs, and trunk. ANS: D
REF: p. 717
11. Another term for quadriplegia is: a. paraplegia. b. tetraplegia. c. biplegia. d. uniplegia. ANS: B
REF: p. 717
12. Stroke is: a. a disease that affects the arteries that supply blood to the brain. b. a slow, progressive disorder in which there is degeneration of part of the brain. c. a disease in which the myelin covering the brain and spinal cord is destroyed. d. an injury to the scalp, skull, and brain tissue. ANS: A
REF: p. 719
13. Stroke occurs when which of the following happens? a. Bleeding in the brain or a blood clot b. Hypertension or diabetes c. Infection or accidental injury
d. Aging or poor nutrition ANS: A
REF: p. 719
14. Warning signs of stroke include which of the following? a. Sudden, severe chest pain and shortness of breath b. Sudden numbness or weakness on one side of the body c. Mild confusion, trouble speaking, or understanding d. Gradual onset of a mild headache ANS: B
REF: p. 719
15. Warning signs of stroke include which of the following? a. Sudden trouble seeing out of one or both eyes b. Gradually feeling numbness in toes c. Gradually feeling tired d. Agitation and joint pain ANS: A
REF: p. 719
16. Warning signs of stroke last a few minutes. This is called: a. an early warning. b. a transient ischemic attack. c. a cerebrovascular accident. d. a brain attack. ANS: B
REF: p. 719
Ri.ngC?OM 17. Risk factors for stroke inclT udEeSwThBicAhNoK f tShE eL foL llE ow a. Low blood pressure b. Arthritis and osteoporosis c. Bronchitis d. Smoking ANS: D
REF: p. 719
18. Functions lost as a result of stroke depend on: a. the cause of the stroke. b. the person’s age. c. the area of brain damage. d. the person’s attitude. ANS: C
REF: p. 719
19. A resident had a stroke. The person’s left side is affected. Which of the following might the
person’s care plan include? a. Encourage deep breathing and coughing. b. Turn and reposition every 4 hours. c. Discourage any range-of-motion exercises. d. Perform all ADL for the person. ANS: A
REF: p. 720
20. Effects from stroke often include which of the following? a. Loss of face, hand, arm, leg, or body control b. Dysarthria c. Constipation d. Tremors and stiff muscles ANS: A
REF: p. 719
21. A resident had a stroke. The person cries easily, sometimes for no reason. Which is correct? a. The person suffers from depression. b. Changing emotions are common effects of stroke. c. The person is anxious. d. The person might benefit from a hospice program. ANS: B
REF: p. 720
22. Care of a person after a stroke often includes which of the following? a. Complete bed rest b. A bowel or bladder training program c. Limited ROM to prevent injury d. Placing objects on the affected side ANS: B
REF: p. 720
23. A patient had a stroke. When does rehabilitation begin? a. When the person leaves the hospital. b. When the person enters a rehabilitation center. c. A few days after the peTrsEoS nT reB tuArnNsKtoStEhL eL nuErsRin.gCcOenMter. d. At once. ANS: D
REF: p. 720
24. Which statement about Parkinson’s disease is correct? a. It is progressive with no cure. b. Persons over the age of 30 are at risk. c. Signs and symptoms become better over time. d. Expressive-receptive aphasia is common. ANS: A
REF: p. 720
25. Which of the following are common with Parkinson’s disease? a. Hemiplegia or quadriplegia b. Skin rashes c. Slow movement and mask-like expression d. Improved posture and balance ANS: C
REF: p. 720
26. Which of the following is common with Parkinson’s disease? a. Excessive drowsiness b. Normal gait c. A fixed stare d. Flare-ups or relapses
ANS: C
REF: p. 720
27. Persons with Parkinson’s disease often have speech problems. Which is common? a. Receptive aphasia b. Slurred, monotone speech c. Loud speech d. Swearing ANS: B
REF: p. 720
28. The person with Parkinson’s disease needs protection from: a. falls. b. burns. c. poisoning. d. cold, damp weather. ANS: A
REF: p. 720
29. Symptoms of multiple sclerosis (MS) usually begin: a. between the ages of 20 and 40. b. after age 50. c. after age 65. d. between the ages of 50 and 65. ANS: A
REF: p. 721
30. Which statement about multiple sclerosis (MS) is correct? ES a. The person rarely has rT em issTioBnAs. b. Symptoms only last for a few days. c. Blurred or double vision often occurs. d. Severe disability or death is common early after onset. ANS: C
REF: p. 721
31. A resident has MS. The person’s care plan includes the following. Which should you
question? a. Perform all ADL for the person. b. Measures to promote bowel and bladder elimination. c. Turning, repositioning, and deep breathing and coughing. d. Skin care and range-of-motion exercises. ANS: A
REF: p. 721
32. A resident has amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Which is correct? a. ALS attacks the nerve cells that control voluntary muscles. b. ALS affects more women than men. c. It usually strikes between 60 and 80 years of age. d. It usually affects the mind, intelligence, and memory. ANS: A
REF: p. 721
33. Which statement about spinal cord injuries is correct?
a. b. c. d.
Permanent damage always occurs. Paraplegia or quadriplegia can result. Rehabilitation is not usually necessary. Thoracic injuries result in greater loss of function than cervical injuries do.
ANS: B
REF: p. 723
34. A patient is paralyzed from the waist down. The person is at risk for: a. pressure injuries and contractures. b. aphasia and dysphagia. c. aspiration and pneumonia. d. MS and Parkinson’s disease. ANS: A
REF: p. 723
35. Autonomic dysreflexia affects persons: a. in persistent vegetative states. b. with hemiplegia. c. with spinal cord injuries above the mid-thoracic level. d. with ALS. ANS: C
REF: p. 724
36. If untreated, autonomic dysreflexia can lead to: a. spinal cord infection. b. stroke and heart attack. c. paraplegia. d. constipation and fecal iTmEpS acTtiB onA. ANS: B
REF: p. 724
37. A common cause of autonomic dysreflexia is: a. being cold. b. nasal congestion. c. anxiety. d. fecal impaction. ANS: D
REF: p. 724
38. Which statement about osteoarthritis is correct? a. It is the rarest type of arthritis. b. Pain is uncommon. c. Joint stiffness is common. d. It is cured with arthroplasty. ANS: C
REF: p. 724
39. Which statement about osteoarthritis is correct? a. It rarely occurs with aging. b. Pain occurs with weight-bearing and joint motion. c. Being underweight is a common cause. d. Weight-bearing joints are not commonly affected.
ANS: B
REF: p. 725
40. Which is a sign or symptom of osteoarthritis? a. Fractures b. Joint bruising c. Joint dislocation d. Joint swelling or tenderness ANS: D
REF: p. 725
41. A resident has osteoarthritis. The person is most likely to have joint stiffness: a. with rest and lack of motion. b. with exercise. c. with weight-bearing. d. with joint motion. ANS: D
REF: p. 725-726
42. A resident has osteoarthritis. The person is most likely to have joint pain: a. with rest and lack of motion. b. with weight-bearing and joint motion. c. following a heat application. d. following a cold application. ANS: B
REF: p. 725-726
43. A resident has osteoarthritis. The person is overweight. Why is weight loss important for the
person? a. It will improve the person’s mental well-being. b. The person is too old to be overweight. c. Weight loss reduces stress on weight-bearing joints. d. It will be easier to lift and move the person. ANS: C
REF: p. 725-726
44. Which statement about rheumatoid arthritis is correct? a. It generally develops between the ages of 40 and 50. b. Joints on both sides of the body are affected. c. Wrist and finger joints are not commonly affected. d. The disease is active all the time. ANS: B
REF: p. 725-726
45. A patient has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following can relieve pain and inflammation? a. Sleep b. Heat or cold applications c. A cast or traction d. Immobility ANS: B
REF: p. 725-726
46. A patient has rheumatoid arthritis. The person has consented to joint replacement surgery. The
affected joint will be replaced with a:
a. b. c. d.
nail or pin. metal plate. screw. prosthesis.
ANS: D
REF: p. 725-726
47. Which statement about osteoporosis is correct? a. Bones become denser and stronger. b. Bones are fragile and fracture easily. c. It is common in younger people. d. It is caused by high calcium in the diet. ANS: B
REF: p. 732
48. Which is a risk factor for osteoporosis? a. Being overweight with a large frame b. Family history of the disease c. Vitamin use d. Exercise and activity ANS: B
REF: p. 732
49. Which is a sign or symptom of osteoporosis? a. Joint stiffness b. Back pain c. Sudden loss of height d. Weight gain ANS: B
REF: p. 732
50. The greatest risk from osteoporosis is: a. fractures. b. burns. c. immobility. d. pneumonia. ANS: A
REF: p. 732
51. A person with a fracture will have which of the following? a. Joint pain and stiffness b. Oozing c. Missing skin d. Deformity of the body part ANS: D
REF: p. 727
52. A patient has a fractured wrist. The doctor has scheduled open reduction. This means that: a. traction is used to bring the bone ends into alignment. b. a cast is used to bring the bone ends into alignment. c. the doctor will move the bone ends back into alignment. d. the doctor will move the bones back into alignment during surgery.
ANS: D
REF: p. 727
53. After reduction, the fractured part is: a. exercised as directed by the physical therapist. b. abducted. c. immobilized with a cast, traction, or other device. d. externally rotated. ANS: C
REF: p. 727
54. A patient has a plaster of paris cast. The cast dries in: a. 2 to 3 hours. b. 4 to 8 hours. c. 12 to 24 hours. d. 24 to 48 hours. ANS: D
REF: p. 729
55. You are assisting the nurse with cast care. Which is correct? a. Cover the cast for the person’s warmth. b. Use your fingers to lift and turn a casted extremity. c. Turn the person every 4 hours. d. Elevate the casted part on pillows. ANS: D
REF: p. 729
56. You are assisting the nurse with cast care. Which is correct? a. Support the entire cast with the bed rail. b. Wash and dry the cast when soiling occurs. c. Allow the person to insert an unsharpened pencil into the cast when the skin itches. d. Position the person as directed. ANS: D
REF: p. 729
57. A resident has a cast. Which of the following signs and symptoms indicate(s) a problem? a. Moist skin under the cast when outside b. Swelling of the fingers below the cast when dangling c. Odor and drainage from under the cast d. Joint pain and stiffness ANS: C
REF: p. 729
58. A resident has a cast on her right arm. You note that her fingers are pale and that she cannot
move them. What should you do? a. Remove the cast. b. Tell the nurse at once. c. Elevate her arm on pillows. d. Assist with range-of-motion exercises. ANS: B
REF: p. 729
59. Traction is used to immobilize a fracture. This is done by: a. applying a steady pull in two directions.
b. inserting wires and pins. c. inserting a prosthesis. d. applying a stockinette. ANS: A
REF: p. 730
60. Skeletal traction is applied to the: a. skin. b. bone. c. muscle. d. joint. ANS: B
REF: p. 731
61. A patient is in traction. Which is correct? a. Keep the weights on the floor. b. Remove weights for complaints of pain or numbness. c. Provide a regular bedpan for elimination. d. Make the bed from the head of the bed to the foot of the bed. ANS: D
REF: p. 731
62. A patient is in traction. How should you position the person? a. Prone b. Semi-Fowler’s c. Orthopneic d. As directed ANS: D
. 7S3T 1 REF: TpE
63. A resident fell in the shower and fractured his right hip. He is back at the nursing center after
surgery to repair the hip. He is at risk for which of the following post-operative complications? a. Respiratory complications, UTI, and thrombi in his leg veins b. MS, CAD, and RA c. Hemothorax, depression, and schizophrenia d. Aspiration, paralysis, and metastasis ANS: A
REF: p. 731
64. A resident fell in the shower and fractured his right hip. He is back at the nursing center after
surgery to repair the hip. He is at risk for which of the following post-operative complications? a. Depression, skin tears, and burns b. Pressure injuries, constipation, and confusion c. Incontinence, hair loss, and stomatitis d. Diarrhea, bleeding, and infection ANS: B
REF: p. 731
65. A hip fracture requires: a. external fixation. b. internal fixation.
c. a cast. d. traction. ANS: B
REF: p. 731
66. A patient has a fractured right hip. How is the leg positioned? a. Abducted at all times b. Abducted when in bed c. Adducted at all times d. Adducted when in bed ANS: A
REF: p. 731
67. A resident has a fractured right hip. You must use devices to prevent: a. abduction. b. external rotation of the hip. c. pneumonia. d. aspiration. ANS: B
REF: p. 731
68. A resident’s left leg was amputated. The person complains of pain in the left leg. This is: a. chronic pain. b. radiating pain. c. sympathy pain. d. phantom pain. ANS: D
REF: p. 732
69. Tissues die and become black, cold, and shriveled. This is: a. cancer. b. gangrene. c. arthritis. d. metastasis. ANS: B
REF: p. 732
TRUE/FALSE 1. Fractures in infants may signal child abuse. ANS: T
REF: p. 728
Chapter 49: Cardiovascular, Respiratory, and Lymphatic Disorders Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Congenital means: a. a chronic condition. b. to be born with. c. an acute illness. d. a life-long illness. ANS: B
REF: p. 738
2. A congenital heart defect occurs: a. during pregnancy. b. shortly after birth. c. during the first year of the infant’s life. d. during the first 3 to 6 years of the child’s life. ANS: A
REF: p. 738
3. Which statement about congenital heart defects is correct? a. Despite successful treatment, many children do not grow into healthy adults. b. Some children need lifelong treatment. c. All children need heart transplants. d. All children are treated with drugs for their lifetime. ANS: B
REF: p. 738
4. Which of these blood pressure measurements indicates hypertension? a. 120/70 and 140/90 mm Hg b. 138/90 and 120/80 mm Hg c. 150/100 and 110/60 mm Hg d. 148/90 and 160/100 mm Hg ANS: D
REF: p. 739
5. Hypertension is dangerous because it: a. is a contagious disease. b. is a communicable disease. c. can damage other organs. d. cannot be treated. ANS: C
REF: p. 739
6. Risk factors for hypertension include the following. A person cannot change his or her: a. age, gender, race, or family history. b. weight and stress level. c. diet, tobacco use, and alcohol intake. d. exercise level. ANS: A
REF: p. 739
7. Hypertension can lead to which of the following? a. Stroke and heart attack b. Parkinson’s disease and multiple sclerosis c. Birth defects d. Deafness ANS: A
REF: p. 739
8. What are the major complications of coronary artery disease? a. Hypertension, angina, and high blood pressure b. Angina, myocardial infarction, irregular heartbeats, and sudden death c. Angina, myocardial infarction, hypertension, and COPD d. Heart failure, myocardial infarction, and atherosclerosis ANS: B
REF: p. 739
9. With coronary artery disease, the coronary arteries are: a. hardened and narrow. b. enlarged and less elastic. c. infected. d. opened or bypassed. ANS: A
REF: p. 739
10. The following are risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which can be controlled? a. Lack of exercise b. Gender c. Age d. Family history ANS: A
REF: p. 739
11. Persons with complications from coronary artery disease may need: a. bed rest. b. cardiac rehabilitation. c. deconditioning. d. traction. ANS: B
REF: p. 739
12. Angina is: a. muscle pain. b. aches and pains. c. heart pain. d. chest pain. ANS: D
REF: p. 740
13. Angina occurs when: a. the person is stressed. b. the person is exercising. c. the heart needs more oxygen.
d. blood flow increases. ANS: C
REF: p. 740
14. Which is a sign or symptom of angina? a. Pain in the knees or feet b. Pallor or feeling faint c. Dysphagia d. Aphasia ANS: B
REF: p. 740
15. Angina is usually relieved by: a. food and fluids. b. fresh air. c. rest and nitroglycerin. d. surgery. ANS: C 16.
REF: p. 740
A resident has angina. The person needs to: a. have nitroglycerin available at all times. b. have a portable oxygen tank available at all times. c. stay inside. d. exercise vigorously. ANS: A
REF: p. 740
17. Angina not relieved by nitrToE glS ycTeB riA nN anKdSrE esL tL mE ayRs.igCnO alM : a. hypertension. b. stroke. c. heart failure. d. heart attack. ANS: D
REF: p. 740
18. Which statement about myocardial infarction is correct? a. Tissue death occurs from a sudden lack of blood supply to the heart muscle. b. The area of damage is always large. c. The person is having a stroke. d. Cancer is a risk. ANS: A
REF: p. 741
19. Which statement about the pain of myocardial infarction is correct? a. It is usually gradual onset with mild pain, felt on the left side. b. It is often described as crushing, stabbing, or squeezing. c. It may radiate to both knees, feet, and toes. d. It is relieved by rest and nitroglycerin. ANS: B
REF: p. 741
20. After an MI, the person needs:
a. b. c. d.
rest. surgery. cardiac rehabilitation. dialysis.
ANS: C
REF: p. 741
21. Heart failure means that the heart: a. has stopped beating. b. is damaged. c. cannot pump blood normally. d. is old and weak. ANS: C
REF: p. 741
22. The right side of the heart cannot pump blood normally. Signs and symptoms include: a. no pulse, no respirations, and no blood pressure. b. swollen feet and ankles. c. dyspnea, cyanosis, and elevated temperature. d. severe, sudden chest pain. ANS: B
REF: p. 742
23. A person has heart failure. The person’s diet is likely to be: a. sodium-controlled. b. high protein. c. high carbohydrate. d. high fat. ANS: A
REF: p. 742
24. Which position is usually preferred by persons with heart failure? a. Supine b. Prone c. Side-lying d. Semi-Fowler’s ANS: D
REF: p. 742
25. A patient has heart failure. The person’s care plan should include which of the following? a. Measure I&O weekly. b. Encourage fluids. c. Measure weight daily. d. Discontinue range-of-motion exercises. ANS: C
REF: p. 742
26. A patient has heart failure. The doctor is likely to order: a. a splint or brace. b. elastic stockings. c. trochanter rolls. d. a cane or walker.
ANS: B
REF: p. 742
27. Which is a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? a. Pneumonia b. Influenza c. Emphysema d. Asthma ANS: C
REF: p. 743
28. COPD interferes with: a. inhalation. b. blood flow. c. O2 and CO2 exchange. d. exhalation. ANS: C
REF: p. 743
29. What is the major cause of chronic bronchitis? a. Smoking b. Infection c. Air pollution d. Family history ANS: A
REF: p. 743
30. A person has chronic bronchitis. You expect which of the following signs and symptoms? a. Dry, nonproductive cough b. Difficulty breathing c. Barrel chest d. Increased energy levels ANS: B
REF: p. 744
31. A person has chronic bronchitis. Treatment involves which of the following? a. Lung transplant b. Insertion of a chest tube c. Prompt treatment of respiratory tract infections d. Artificial airways ANS: C
REF: p. 744
32. Which occurs with emphysema? a. Alveoli fill with fluid. b. Alveoli shrink. c. Air is trapped in alveoli. d. Alveoli become more elastic. ANS: C
REF: p. 744
33. What is the most common cause of emphysema? a. Smoking b. Infection
c. Air pollution d. Family history ANS: A
REF: p. 744
34. A resident has emphysema. You expect which of the following signs and symptoms? a. Productive cough, possibly with pus b. Increased energy c. Sunken chest d. Fever ANS: A
REF: p. 744
35. A resident has emphysema. The person is likely to be most comfortable in: a. the supine position. b. Fowler’s position. c. upright and slightly forward. d. a side-lying position. ANS: C
REF: p. 744
36. A resident has emphysema. You expect the person’s treatment to include which of the
following? a. Cardiac rehab b. Breathing exercises c. Lung transplant d. Diet therapy ANS: B
. 7S4T 4 REF: TpE
37. Which statement about asthma is correct? a. Air passages are widened. b. Wheezing and cough are common. c. There is usually an infection present. d. The person has fever, pain, and chills. ANS: B
REF: p. 744
38. Which of the following signals influenza in older persons? a. Runny nose b. An increased body temperature above normal range c. Fatigue d. Increased appetite and fluid intake ANS: C
REF: p. 745
39. Influenza is caused by: a. viruses. b. immobility. c. aspiration. d. bacteria. ANS: A
REF: p. 745
40. Which statement about pneumonia is correct? a. It is caused by an allergic response. b. Affected tissues fill with air. c. Affected alveoli are enlarged and less elastic. d. The person has fever, chills, painful cough, and chest pain on breathing. ANS: D
REF: p. 745
41. A patient has pneumonia. The sputum may be which of the following? a. Blue b. Black c. Rust-colored d. Red ANS: C
REF: p. 745
42. A resident has pneumonia. The following is part of the person’s care plan. Which should you
question? a. Encourage fluids. b. Encourage rest. c. Side-lying position. d. Change linens as needed. ANS: C
REF: p. 745
43. Tuberculosis (TB) is spread by: a. direct contact. b. vector. c. indirect contact. d. airborne droplets. ANS: D
REF: p. 746
44. Which statement about TB is correct? a. Persons having frequent close contact with the infected individual are at risk. b. Symptoms occur 6 weeks after being infected. c. It is treated with antivirals. d. TB is detected by a blood analysis. ANS: A
REF: p. 746
45. The most common cause of sleep apnea is: a. blockage of the airway. b. snoring. c. caffeine intake. d. smoking. ANS: A
REF: p. 744
46. Signs and symptoms of sleep apnea include which of the following? a. Loud snoring b. Difficulty falling asleep
c. Headache in the evening d. Night-time sleepiness ANS: A
REF: p. 744
47. Lymph nodes are found in which of the following areas within the body? a. Face b. Breast c. Pelvis d. Knee ANS: C
REF: p. 747
48. Signs and symptoms of lymphoma include which of the following? a. Hair loss b. Chills c. Fever d. Rash ANS: A
REF: p. 749
TRUE/FALSE 1. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends flu vaccine for persons
50 years of age and older. ANS: T
REF: p. 745
2. A patient has TB. Standard Precautions and isolation precautions are needed. ANS: T
REF: p. 746
3. Lymphedema usually affects an arm or a leg. ANS: T
REF: p. 748
Chapter 50: Digestive and Endocrine Disorders Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Food and fluids expelled from the stomach through the mouth is: a. jaundice. b. vomitus. c. diverticulitis. d. gastric reflux. ANS: B
REF: p. 751
2. Another word for vomitus is: a. jaundice. b. GERD. c. emesis. d. gastric reflux. ANS: C
REF: p. 751
3. Which means low blood sugar? a. Hyperglycemia b. Hypoglycemia c. Paraglycemia d. Quadraglycemia ANS: B
REF: p. 751
4. Which means high blood sugar? a. Hyperglycemia b. Hypoglycemia c. Paraglycemia d. Quadraglycemia ANS: A
REF: p. 751
5. This is a disease in which stomach contents flow back from the stomach and into the
esophagus. a. Diabetes b. Hyperglycemia c. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) d. Diverticulitis ANS: C
REF: p. 752
6. The most common symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is: a. heartburn. b. flatulence. c. fever. d. diarrhea.
ANS: A
REF: p. 752
7. Which is a risk factor for GERD? a. Being underweight b. Milk c. Pregnancy d. Eating small meals ANS: C
REF: p. 752
8. A resident is vomiting. You need to do which of the following? a. Follow Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. b. Offer the person a carbonated beverage. c. Prevent aspiration by lying the person flat on his bed. d. Dispose of vomitus immediately in the trash can. ANS: A
REF: p. 753
9. A person has vomited. Which will promote comfort? a. Oral hygiene b. Turning and repositioning c. Semi-Fowler’s position d. Assisting with elimination ANS: A
REF: p. 753
10. A person has vomited. You need to: a. test the vomitus for sugTaE r aSnTdBbA loN odK. b. measure the amount of vomitus. c. leave the vomitus in the room until the nurse observes it. d. change all linens. ANS: B
REF: p. 753
11. A pouch that bulges outward through a weak spot in the colon is called a: a. colon pouch. b. colostomy. c. diverticulum. d. hernia. ANS: C
REF: p. 753
12. Which is a risk factor for diverticulosis? a. Being over 60 years old b. A high-fiber diet c. Diarrhea d. Being overweight ANS: A 13. Bile is stored in the: a. liver.
REF: p. 753
b. stomach. c. colon. d. gallbladder. ANS: D
REF: p. 754
14. The most common treatment for gallstones is: a. surgical removal of the gallbladder. b. drugs. c. diet change. d. ultrasound. ANS: A
REF: p. 755
15. Which is a sign or symptom of gallstones? a. Steady pain in the upper abdomen b. Diarrhea c. Pallor d. Confusion ANS: A
REF: p. 755
16. Hepatitis is: a. a stomach disorder. b. inflammation of the gallbladder. c. inflammation of the liver. d. a bloodborne pathogen. ANS: C
. 7S5T 5 REF: TpE
17. Hepatitis A is spread by: a. airborne droplets. b. blood. c. the fecal-oral route. d. direct contact. ANS: C
REF: p. 756
18. Hepatitis B, C, and D are spread by: a. airborne droplets. b. contaminated blood. c. the fecal-oral route. d. direct contact. ANS: B
REF: p. 756
19. Which is a sign of hepatitis? a. Bloody urine b. Dark-colored bowel movements c. Jaundice d. Sputum containing pus ANS: C
REF: p. 756
20. Jaundice means: a. blood in the stool. b. yellowish color of the skin or whites of the eyes. c. inflammation of the liver. d. light-colored stools. ANS: B
REF: p. 756
21. IV drug users are at risk for which of the following types of hepatitis? a. Hepatitis B b. Hepatitis A c. All types of Hepatitis d. Hepatitis E ANS: A
REF: p. 756
22. Hepatitis C is particularly dangerous for which of the following reasons? a. The infected person may have cancer. b. Signs and symptoms of liver disease and damage may not appear for many years. c. Infected persons without symptoms can have heart attacks. d. Contaminated water can affect many people. ANS: B
REF: p. 756
23. Treatment of hepatitis A involves which of the following? a. Dressing changes b. A healthy diet c. Antibiotics d. Surgery ANS: B
REF: p. 756
24. When caring for persons with hepatitis, you need to practice which of the following? a. Sterile Precautions b. Bloodborne Pathogen Standard c. There is no special treatment for persons with hepatitis d. Surgical asepsis ANS: B
REF: p. 756
25. In diabetes, the body lacks or is unable to use: a. estrogen. b. testosterone. c. insulin. d. protein and carbohydrates. ANS: C
REF: p. 759
26. Which type of diabetes is most common in children? a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Gestational
d. Situational ANS: A
REF: p. 759
27. What type of diabetes is more common in older persons? a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Gestational d. Situational ANS: B
REF: p. 759
28. What are the risk factors for type 2 diabetes? a. Being older and overweight b. Lack of exercise and arthritis c. Pregnancy and a family history d. Unprotected sex and IV drug use ANS: A
REF: p. 759
29. When does gestational diabetes develop? a. After surgery b. During puberty c. During pregnancy d. After menopause ANS: C
REF: p. 759
TiEthS: 30. Type 1 diabetes is treated w a. daily insulin, healthy eating, and exercise. b. estrogen therapy, healthy eating, and exercise. c. testosterone therapy, healthy eating, and exercise. d. healthy eating and exercise. ANS: A
REF: p. 759
31. Persons with diabetes need: a. good foot care. b. frequent oral hygiene. c. daily weight measurements. d. I&O measurements. ANS: A
REF: p. 759
32. Which are common signs or symptoms of diabetes? a. Increased thirst and urination b. Hypotension and anorexia c. Circulatory disorders d. Blindness and renal failure ANS: A
REF: p. 759
33. A resident has diabetes. The person’s care plan includes measures to prevent hyperglycemia.
Which will increase the person’s blood sugar level? a. Too much diabetes medication b. Omitting a meal c. Too little exercise d. Vomiting ANS: C
REF: p. 759
34. A resident has diabetes. The person’s care plan includes measures to prevent hypoglycemia.
Which will decrease the person’s blood sugar level? a. Not enough diabetes medication b. Eating too much food c. Increasing the person’s exercise d. Physical or emotional stress ANS: C
REF: p. 759
35. If not corrected, hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia can lead to: a. a heart attack. b. renal failure. c. blindness. d. death. ANS: D
REF: p. 760
Chapter 51: Urinary and Reproductive Disorders Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Urine is passed in large amounts. 1000 to 3000 mL are produced a day. This is: a. dysuria. b. diuresis. c. oliguria. d. pyuria. ANS: B
REF: p. 762
2. Pus in the urine is: a. dysuria. b. diuresis. c. oliguria. d. pyuria. ANS: D
REF: p. 762
3. Which statement about urinary tract infections is correct? a. An infection in one structure can lead to an infection of the entire system. b. Men are at greater risk than women. c. Adequate fluid intake is a common cause. d. Microbes are normally present in the urinary system. ANS: A
REF: p. 762
4. Cystitis means: a. an inflammation of the kidney pelvis. b. kidney stones. c. a bladder infection. d. pus in the urine. ANS: C
REF: p. 763
5. A person with cystitis may have which of the following signs and symptoms? a. Shaking and chills b. Dysuria and urinary urgency c. Diarrhea d. Changes in skin color and dry, itchy skin ANS: B
REF: p. 763
6. Cystitis is usually treated with: a. dialysis. b. antibiotics and fluids. c. fluids and drugs for pain relief. d. dietary changes. ANS: B
REF: p. 762
7. Pyelonephritis means: a. an inflammation of the kidney pelvis. b. kidney stones. c. a bladder infection. d. pus in the urine. ANS: A
REF: p. 763
8. Pyelonephritis is usually treated with: a. dialysis. b. antibiotics and fluids. c. fluids and drugs for pain relief. d. dietary changes. ANS: B
REF: p. 762
9. Benign prostatic hypertrophy is another term for: a. frequent urination. b. difficulty voiding. c. enlarged prostate. d. bladder infection. ANS: C
REF: p. 764
10. Which is a urinary problem caused by BPH? a. Kidney stones b. Chills c. Diuresis d. Frequent urination at night ANS: D
REF: p. 764
11. A resident had a transurethral resection of the prostate. The person’s care plan includes the
following. Which should you question? a. No straining or sudden movements. b. Restrict fluids to 1000 mL each day. c. Measures to prevent constipation. d. No heavy lifting. ANS: B
REF: p. 764
12. When the urinary bladder is removed, a new pathway is needed for urine to exit the body. The
new pathway is called a: a. urinary diversion. b. bladder diversion. c. renal pathway. d. renal tubule. ANS: A
REF: p. 764
13. A surgically created opening between the ureter and the abdomen is: a. a urinary catheter.
b. a urostomy. c. a urinary diversion. d. catheterization. ANS: B
REF: p. 764
14. You need to change a urostomy pouch: a. at bedtime. b. after sleep and before eating. c. twice a week. d. anytime it leaks. ANS: D
REF: p. 764
15. A patient has a urostomy. You know that: a. the person needs good skin care. b. the person is incontinent. c. the person needs bladder training. d. the person needs a catheter. ANS: A
REF: p. 765
16. Kidney stones are: a. an inflammation of the kidney pelvis. b. known as calculi. c. a bladder infection. d. pus in the urine. ANS: B
. 7S6T 5 REF: TpE
17. The person with kidney stones usually experiences which of the following? a. Changes in skin color and dry, itchy skin b. Diarrhea c. Constipation d. Dysuria, urgency, and hematuria ANS: D
REF: p. 765
18. The person with kidney stones is encouraged to drink fluids. The person needs to drink: a. 1000 to 2000 mL/day. b. 2000 to 3000 mL/day. c. 3000 to 4000 mL/day. d. 4000 to 5000 mL/day. ANS: B
REF: p. 765
19. A person has kidney stones. When the person voids, you need to: a. measure urine output. b. have the person use the commode. c. strain all urine. d. test the urine for occult blood. ANS: C
REF: p. 765
20. Which statement about renal failure is correct? a. It is usually a gradual onset with mild symptoms. b. Heart failure and hypertension can result. c. The body releases fluids at a high rate. d. Waste products are removed from the blood. ANS: B
REF: p. 766
21. The person with acute renal failure at first has: a. dysuria. b. hematuria. c. oliguria. d. polyuria. ANS: C
REF: p. 766
22. Which is a cause of acute renal failure? a. Cancer b. Dental work c. Asthma d. Burns, infection, or severe allergic reactions ANS: D
REF: p. 766
23. A person has acute renal failure. Which of the following should you plan to do? a. Measure urine output daily. b. Encourage fluids. c. Assist with deep-breathing and coughing exercises. d. Weigh weekly. ANS: C
REF: p. 767
24. A person has acute renal failure. The person’s diet is likely to be: a. low protein, low potassium, and low sodium. b. high protein, high potassium, and high sodium. c. low carbohydrate, low potassium, and low sodium. d. high fat, low protein, and high potassium. ANS: A
REF: p. 767
25. The common causes of chronic renal failure are: a. tumors and infections. b. hypertension and diabetes. c. coronary artery disease and COPD. d. severe allergic reactions and severe bleeding. ANS: B
REF: p. 766
26. Signs and symptoms of chronic renal failure: a. involve every body system. b. occur when death is near. c. involve bleeding tendencies and bruising.
d. involve headaches, convulsions, confusion, and coma. ANS: A
REF: p. 766
27. A resident has chronic renal failure. Which of the following would you want to include in the
person’s plan of care? a. Measures to encourage fluids. b. Measures to prevent fluid loss. c. Measures to prevent burns. d. Measures to prevent pressure injuries. ANS: D
REF: p. 766
28. Dialysis is: a. a bladder training program. b. a type of catheter. c. the process of removing waste products from the blood. d. a bladder disease involving inflammation of the kidneys. ANS: C
REF: p. 766
29. This type of dialysis uses the lining of the abdominal cavity to remove waste and fluid from
the blood: a. abdominal dialysis. b. peritoneal dialysis. c. hemodialysis. d. gastric dialysis. ANS: B
. 7S6T 6 REF: TpE
30. Which statement about sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) is correct? a. Signs and symptoms occur only in the genital area. b. Most people have no signs or symptoms. c. Condoms do not prevent the spread of STDs. d. Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard must be followed. ANS: D
REF: p. 767
31. Signs and symptoms of herpes include: a. warts. b. painful, blister-like sores. c. urinary frequency and urgency. d. diarrhea. ANS: B
REF: p. 768
32. Which is a sign or symptom of gonorrhea? a. Painful, blister-like sores b. Discharge from the vagina, urethra, or rectum c. Warts on the external genitalia d. There are typically no signs or symptoms of gonorrhea. ANS: B
REF: p. 768
33. Which is a sign or symptom of chlamydia? a. Painful, blister-like sores b. Discharge from the penis or vagina c. Intense itching d. Genital warts ANS: B
REF: p. 768
34. Trichomoniasis can cause which of the following signs and symptoms? a. Thick, foul-smelling vaginal discharge b. Genital warts c. Vaginal bleeding d. Watery vaginal drainage ANS: A
REF: p. 768
35. Which statement about syphilis is correct? a. It typically causes no problems if left untreated. b. There is no cure for syphilis. c. The infected person has painless sores. d. The person usually has no symptoms. ANS: C
REF: p. 768
TRUE/FALSE
CeOnM 1. An enlarged prostate can cT auEsS eT urB inAarNyKpS roEbL leL mE sR in.m . ANS: T
REF: p. 764
Chapter 52: Mental Health Disorders Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Anxiety is: a. a vague, uneasy feeling in response to stress. b. a false belief. c. feelings and emotions. d. a persistent thought or idea. ANS: A
REF: p. 770
2. The repeating of an act over and over again is: a. an obsession. b. paranoia. c. phobia. d. compulsion. ANS: D
REF: p. 770
3. Which are used to block unpleasant or threatening feelings? a. Delusions b. Delusions of grandeur c. Delusions of persecution d. Defense mechanisms ANS: D
REF: p. 770
4. A delusion is: a. a false belief. b. seeing, hearing, smelling, or feeling something that is not real. c. a persistent thought or idea. d. an intense and sudden feeling of fear, anxiety, terror, or dread. ANS: A
REF: p. 770
5. A delusion of grandeur is: a. a false belief that one is being mistreated, abused, or harassed. b. an exaggerated belief about one’s importance, wealth, power, or talents. c. an intense and sudden feeling of fear, anxiety, terror, or dread. d. seeing, hearing, smelling, or feeling something that is not real. ANS: B
REF: p. 770
6. A hallucination is: a. a false belief. b. an exaggerated belief. c. seeing, hearing, smelling, or feeling something that is not real. d. a persistent thought or idea. ANS: C
REF: p. 770
7. An obsession is: a. the uncontrolled performance of an act. b. a false belief. c. a mental illness. d. a recurrent, unwanted thought, idea, or image. ANS: D
REF: p. 770
8. Panic is: a. a persistent thought or idea. b. false beliefs and suspicion about a person or situation. c. an intense and sudden feeling of fear, anxiety, terror, or dread. d. not being able to correctly view or interpret reality. ANS: C
REF: p. 770
9. Flashback is: a. a persistent thought or idea. b. reliving the trauma over and over in thoughts during the day. c. fear, panic, or dread. d. not being able to correctly view or interpret reality. ANS: B
REF: p. 770
10. Phobia is: a. a false belief. b. an intense fear. c. a persistent thought or idea. d. fear, panic, or dread. ANS: B
REF: p. 770
11. Psychosis means that the person: a. has false beliefs. b. sees, hear, or feels things that are not real. c. has severe mental impairments. d. has fear, panic, or dread. ANS: C
REF: p. 770
12. Stress is: a. a mental illness or mental disorder. b. the response or change in the body caused by any emotional, physical, social, or
economic factor. c. a state of severe mental impairment. d. not being able to view or interpret reality correctly. ANS: B
REF: p. 770
13. A stressor is: a. a mental illness or mental disorder. b. the response or change in the body caused by any emotional, physical, social, or
economic factor. c. an event or factor that causes stress. d. not being able to view or interpret reality correctly. ANS: C
REF: p. 770
14. A person is able to cope with and adjust to everyday stresses. The person: a. is mentally healthy. b. has a mental illness. c. has an emotional illness. d. has a psychiatric disorder. ANS: A
REF: p. 771
15. A person’s ability to cope and adjust to stress is disturbed. Behavior and function are
impaired. Which is correct? a. The person has a mental health disorder. b. The person has false beliefs. c. The person has severe mood swings. d. The person has paranoia. ANS: A
REF: p. 771
16. Which is a cause of mental health disorders? a. Inability to cope or adjust to stress b. Vitamin deficiencies c. Smoking d. Schizophrenia and anxT ieE ty ANS: A
REF: p. 771
17. When does personality start to develop? a. At birth b. When the child starts to talk c. When the child starts school d. During the teenage years ANS: A
REF: p. 775
18. Which statement about anxiety is correct? a. Mentally healthy people are free of anxiety. b. It usually occurs when needs are met. c. The person senses real or imagined danger or harm. d. The person always knows the source or cause of the anxiety. ANS: C 19.
REF: p. 771
Which statement about anxiety is correct? a. Anxiety levels are higher in children. b. Anxiety levels depend on the stressor. c. A specific stressor always produces the same anxiety level. d. Coping and defense mechanisms cause anxiety levels to increase.
ANS: B
REF: p. 771
20. Signs and symptoms of anxiety include which of the following? a. Constipation b. A “lump” in the throat or “butterflies” in the stomach c. Low pulse, respirations, and blood pressure d. Dry skin ANS: B
REF: p. 771
21. Which of the following are healthy coping mechanisms? a. Denial, displacement, and projection b. Smoking c. Exercising, playing music, and wanting to be alone d. Fighting ANS: C
REF: p. 771
22. Which statement about defense mechanisms is correct? a. They are conscious reactions. b. They are only used by those who have anxiety. c. They relieve anxiety. d. They reflect the highest level of anxiety. ANS: C
REF: p. 772
23. A woman wants to be a lawyer. Her family does not have the money to send her to law
school. She decides to becoTm heKr.SW chEdRe. feC nsOeMmechanism is she using? EeSaTtBeaAcN EhLiL a. Displacement b. Projection c. Conversion d. Compensation ANS: D
REF: p. 772
24. You are unhappy with your supervisor. You call in sick because of a headache. Which defense
mechanism are you using? a. Denial b. Substitution c. Reaction formation d. Conversion ANS: D
REF: p. 772
25. A new resident waits at the front door for her daughter to take her home. Which defense
mechanism is she using? a. Denial b. Conversion c. Regression d. Repression ANS: A
REF: p. 772
26. A person’s eyeglasses break. Your supervisor blames you. At home, you scold your family for
not helping with dinner. Which defense mechanism are you using? a. Conversion b. Displacement c. Projection d. Reaction formation ANS: B
REF: p. 772
27. You admire the way a nurse dresses and styles her hair. You try to do the same. Which
defense mechanism are you using? a. Projection b. Identification c. Rationalization d. Substitution ANS: B
REF: p. 772
28. You forgot to assist a resident with ambulation. You blame the nurse for not reminding you.
Which defense mechanism are you using? a. Projection b. Identification c. Rationalization d. Substitution ANS: A
REF: p. 772
29. You forgot to assist a residT enEtSwTitB h Aam buSlaEtiLoL n.EYRo. uC teO llMthe nurse that you have too much NK
work to do. Which defense mechanism are you using? a. Projection b. Identification c. Rationalization d. Substitution ANS: C
REF: p. 772
30. You do not like a co-worker. You invite him to a party at your home. Which defense
mechanism are you using? a. Reaction formation b. Conversion c. Repression d. Displacement ANS: A
REF: p. 772
31. A husband asks his wife for a divorce. She starts sucking her thumb. Which defense
mechanism is she using? a. Denial b. Conversion c. Regression d. Repression
ANS: C
REF: p. 772
32. A person does not remember being told about the need for nursing center care. Which defense
mechanism is the person using? a. Repression b. Conversion c. Regression d. Compensation ANS: A
REF: p. 772
33. What is the highest level of anxiety? a. Panic b. Phobia c. Obsession d. Compulsion ANS: A
REF: p. 772
34. Which is a sign or symptom of panic? a. Constipation b. Shortness of breath c. Slow heart rate d. Drowsiness ANS: B
REF: p. 772
35. A person has agoraphobia. This means that the person has an intense fear of: a. being in pain or seeing others in pain. b. the slightest uncleanliness. c. being in an open, crowded, or public space. d. being trapped in an enclosed or narrow space. ANS: C
REF: p. 772
36. Fear of darkness is: a. algophobia. b. mysophobia. c. xenophobia. d. nyctophobia. ANS: D
REF: p. 772
37. A resident washes her hands over and over many times during the day. This behavior is a: a. hallucination. b. defense mechanism. c. phobia. d. compulsion. ANS: D
REF: p. 772
38. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) occurs: a. after a terrifying ordeal.
b. after taking illegal drugs. c. in persons with mental illness. d. in persons with dementia. ANS: A
REF: p. 773
39. A person relives a traumatic event during the day and in nightmares. This is: a. hallucinations. b. delusions. c. day and night terrors. d. flashbacks. ANS: D
REF: p. 773
40. The following is common in persons with schizophrenia: a. Good communication skills b. Engagement with people and society c. Sitting for hours without moving, speaking, or responding d. Lack of loyalty or morals ANS: C
REF: p. 773
41. Infant-like behavior may occur in: a. obsessive-compulsive disorders. b. bipolar disorder. c. schizophrenia. d. antisocial personality. ANS: C
. 7S7T 4 REF: TpE
42. The person with bipolar disorder: a. has severe extremes in mood, energy, and ability to function. b. abuses others. c. has poor judgment and is hostile. d. cannot interpret reality correctly. ANS: A
REF: p. 774
43. Which of the following may occur in the manic phase of bipolar disorder? a. Empty mood b. Extreme irritability c. Suicide attempts d. Feelings of worthlessness and helplessness ANS: B
REF: p. 774
44. A person has major depression. Which is correct? a. Suicide is a risk. b. The person is extremely hyper. c. The person usually has an increased sexual interest. d. Violent behaviors are common. ANS: A
REF: p. 775
45. Which statement about depression is correct? a. Depression is uncommon in older persons. b. Depression in older persons is often overdiagnosed. c. Older persons with depression are often thought to have a cognitive disorder. d. Depression in older persons is not usually treated due to their age. ANS: C
REF: p. 775
46. The person with an antisocial personality: a. alternates between depression and paranoia. b. is suicidal. c. distrusts others. d. has poor judgment, lacks responsibility, and is hostile toward others. ANS: D
REF: p. 775
47. The person with a borderline personality: a. alternates between mania and depression. b. lacks morals and ethics. c. hallucinates and is delusional. d. has intense bouts of anger, depression, and anxiety that last for hours or most of
the day. ANS: D
REF: p. 776
48. The over-use of a drug for nonmedical or nontherapy effects is: a. drug tolerance. b. drug addiction. c. drug abuse. d. therapeutic drug use. ANS: C
REF: p. 776
49. Which statement about substance abuse is correct? a. It occurs when a person over-uses or depends on drugs or alcohol. b. Dependency is always physical. c. It only affects school and work performance if a person lets it. d. Only illegal drugs and alcohol are abused. ANS: A
REF: p. 776
50. A person has a drug addiction. Which is correct? a. The person has a chronic brain illness. b. The person can stop taking the drug without treatment. c. Higher doses of the drug are not needed for the same effects. d. The person takes the drug to treat medical symptoms only. ANS: A
REF: p. 776
51. Which statement about alcoholism is correct? a. Alcoholism is an acute disease. b. Lifestyle and genetics are risk factors.
c. The craving for alcohol cannot be compared to the craving for food or water. d. There is no treatment. ANS: B
REF: p. 776
52. Anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa occur mostly in: a. boys. b. teenagers. c. middle-aged men who are athletes. d. middle-aged women after menopause. ANS: B
REF: p. 778
53. Which statement about suicide is correct? a. Poison is the most common method for suicide in women. b. The highest rate of suicides is among white men between the ages of 18 and 20
years. c. Men attempt suicide more often than women do. d. There are fewer deaths due to suicide than from HIV and AIDS. ANS: A
REF: p. 778
54. If a person mentions or talks about suicide, you need to do which of the following? a. Tell the person not to talk that way. b. Take the person seriously by giving him or her consequences for his or her
behavior. c. Call for the nurse at once. d. Try to talk the person oTuE t oSfTitB . ANS: C
REF: p. 778
TRUE/FALSE 1. Drug addiction is a chronic, relapsing brain disease in which the person has an overwhelming
desire to take a drug. ANS: T
REF: p. 776
2. Over time, heavy drinking of alcohol damages the brain, central nervous system, liver, heart,
kidneys, and stomach. ANS: T
REF: p. 776
3. The effects of alcohol vary with age. ANS: T
REF: p. 776
4. A person has a cocktail every evening before bedtime. This means the person has a drinking
problem. ANS: F
REF: p. 776
5. Anorexia nervosa occurs when a person needs to lose weight for health reasons. ANS: F
REF: p. 778
Chapter 53: Confusion and Dementia Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Delirium is: a. a false belief. b. the loss of cognitive function caused by changes in the brain. c. a false disorder of the mind. d. a state of sudden, severe confusion and rapid changes in brain function. ANS: D
REF: p. 782
2. A delusion is: a. a false belief. b. seeing, hearing, smelling, or feeling something that is not real. c. a false disorder of the mind. d. a state of temporary but acute mental confusion. ANS: A
REF: p. 782
3. Dementia is: a. a false belief. b. the loss of cognitive function that interferes with routine personal, social, and
occupational activities. c. a false disorder of the mind. d. a state of temporary buT tE acS utTeBmAeN ntK alScE onLfL usEioRn. . COM ANS: B
REF: p. 782
4. A hallucination is: a. a false belief. b. seeing, hearing, smelling, or feeling something that is not real. c. a false disorder of the mind. d. a state of temporary but acute mental confusion. ANS: B
REF: p. 782
5. Alzheimer’s Disease is: a. when signs, symptoms, and behaviors of Alzheimer’s disease (AD) increase during
hours of darkness. b. the loss of cognitive function that interferes with routine personal, social, and occupational activities. c. the most common type of permanent dementia. d. a state of temporary but acute mental confusion. ANS: C
REF: p. 784
6. Sundowning is: a. when signs, symptoms, and behaviors of Alzheimer’s disease (AD) increase during
hours of darkness.
b. the loss of cognitive and social function caused by changes in the brain. c. a false dementia. d. a state of temporary but acute mental confusion. ANS: A
REF: p. 782
7. Which statement is correct? a. Changes in the brain and nervous system occur with aging. b. The brain is protected from diseases by the skull. c. Changes in the brain only affect cognitive function and not physical function. d. When the brain is affected, signs, symptoms, and behaviors are permanent. ANS: A
REF: p. 782
8. Cognitive function involves which of the following? a. Muscle movement b. Reasoning and understanding c. Breathing and heartbeats d. The senses and mobility ANS: B
REF: p. 782
9. Confusion can occur in older persons because: a. blood supply to the brain is reduced. b. physical disabilities occur. c. infection is a risk. d. drugs cause side effects. ANS: A
. 7S8T 2 REF: TpE
10. Which statement about acute confusion is correct? a. It occurs gradually over time. b. It is usually permanent. c. Infection, illness, and injury are common causes. d. It is caused by increased blood flow to the brain. ANS: C
REF: p. 782
11. A patient is confused. What would you anticipate would be a part of the patient’s care plan? a. Give the date and time when the person asks for it. b. Stand from behind the person. c. State your name and show your name tag. d. Provide stimulation by rearranging the person’s furniture and belongings. ANS: C
REF: p. 783
12. A patient is confused. When communicating with the person, which is correct? a. Avoid touch. b. Ask clear and simple questions. c. Ask the person to respond to you immediately to keep him focused. d. Give thorough answers. ANS: B
REF: p. 783
13. A resident is confused. She thinks her name is “Mary Gold.” What should you do? a. Use the name she prefers. b. Use her real name. c. Check her ID bracelet instead of calling her by name. d. Tell her that she is not Mary Gold and explain who she is. ANS: B
REF: p. 783
14. A resident is confused. It is time for the person’s shower. What should you do? a. Explain what you are going to do and why. b. Ask the person to undress. c. Ask if the person wants a tub bath or shower. d. Let the confusion pass before you assist with the person’s shower. ANS: A
REF: p. 783
15. A resident is confused. Which is correct? a. Remove the person’s eyeglasses and hearing aid to prevent loss or breakage. b. Ask the person to snap out of it. c. Suggest the person return to his or her room. d. Discuss current events with the person. ANS: D
REF: p. 783
16. A resident is confused. The person usually naps after lunch. You should: a. follow the person’s routine. b. prevent the person from taking a nap. TESTBANKS c. help the person change into sleepwear. d. use music and other activities to distract the person. ANS: A
REF: p. 783
17. A resident is confused. Which is correct? a. Close the drapes during the day. b. Turn on a night-light at bedtime. c. Provide an exciting and stimulating setting. d. Perform all ADL for the person. ANS: B
REF: p. 783
18. Which is an early warning sign of dementia? a. Getting lost in familiar places b. Not remembering your name c. Increased judgment d. Not recognizing self or family members ANS: A
REF: p. 784
19. Which is the most common cause of permanent dementia? a. Parkinson’s disease b. Cerebrovascular disease c. Alzheimer’s disease (AD)
d. Multi-infarct dementia ANS: C
REF: p. 784
20. Which statement about permanent dementia is correct? a. There is no cure. b. Loss of cognitive function declines suddenly. c. Disease progression is the same for everyone affected. d. The person has signs and symptoms of anxiety. ANS: A
REF: p. 784
21. Which statement about delirium is correct? a. Onset is gradual. b. It occurs only in the older adult population. c. It is an emergency. d. The cause is usually not known. ANS: C
REF: p. 783
22. Signs and symptoms of delirium include which of the following? a. Constipation b. Drowsiness and problems concentrating c. Hallucinations and delusions d. Manic episodes ANS: B
REF: p. 783
23. Which statement about depTrE esS siT onBiAs N coKrS reE ctL ? a. It is an uncommon in older persons. b. Depression, aging, and some drug side effects have similar signs and symptoms. c. Depression typically targets females more than males. d. The person hallucinates and has attention problems. ANS: B
REF: p. 784
24. Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is: a. a type of AD. b. a type of memory change affecting the person’s memory, language, and other
mental functions. c. a type of pseudodementia. d. dementia caused by drug and alcohol abuse. ANS: B
REF: p. 784
25. Which statement about Alzheimer’s disease (AD) is correct? a. Brain cells controlling intellectual and social function are damaged. b. It is usually diagnosed at a very young age. c. Memory and mental abilities suddenly decline. d. Sudden in onset, the disease progresses over many years. ANS: A
REF: p. 784
26. At what age does AD usually occur? a. Between age 30 and 40 b. Between age 40 and 50 c. After age 60 d. Around age 80 ANS: C
REF: p. 784
27. What is the cause of AD? a. Family history b. Down syndrome c. Aging d. Unknown ANS: D
REF: p. 784
28. What is the classic sign of AD? a. Problems finding or speaking the right word b. Poor judgment c. Forgetting how to use simple, everyday things d. Gradual loss of short-term memory ANS: D
REF: p. 785-786
29. Which of the following occurs early in AD? a. Sleeping a lot b. Problems managing money c. Depending on others foTrEcar e ST d. Problems with bowel and bladder control ANS: B
REF: p. 785-786
30. A resident is in the last stage of AD. Which of the following would you anticipate being in the
person’s plan of care? a. Measures to ensure safe driving. b. Provide for all ADLs. c. Incontinence care. d. Daily field trips. ANS: C
REF: p. 785-786
31. A resident has AD. The person has the following behaviors. Which has the greatest risk for
danger? a. Wandering b. Delusions c. Catastrophic reactions d. Screaming ANS: A
REF: p. 785-786
32. Which statement about wandering is correct? a. There is always a cause. b. The person is trying to be defiant.
c. Drug side effects are usually not related. d. Pain, restlessness, and anxiety are possible causes. ANS: D
REF: p. 787
33. The Alzheimer’s Association has a program for persons who wander. The program is called: a. MedicAlert + Safe Return. b. Take Me Home. c. Call Home. d. Return Home. ANS: A
REF: p. 788
34. A resident has AD. She tends to wander. Her care plan should include which of the following? a. Make sure her ID bracelet is on if she plans to go outside. b. Keep door alarms turned off so that they do not scare her. c. Explain to her why she cannot go outside when it is dark. d. Let her wander in an enclosed garden. ANS: D
REF: p. 787
35. A resident with AD experiences sundowning every day. The person’s care plan should include
which of the following? a. Complete treatments and activities later on in the day. b. Meet food, fluid, and elimination needs. c. Ask the person what the problem is. d. Provide low lighting. ANS: B
. 7S8T 8 REF: TpE
36. A resident has AD. The person’s hallucinations include seeing “kitty cats” in the closet.
Which of the following measures will be helpful? a. Making sure the person wears needed eyeglasses b. Rationalizing with the person that the facility does not allow cats c. Requiring the person to remain in his or her room until the hallucinations stop d. Explaining that there are no cats in the nursing center ANS: A
REF: p. 788
37. A resident has AD. The person’s hallucinations include seeing “kitty cats” in the closet.
Which of the following measures will be helpful? a. Helping the person search the closet b. Moving the person and his or her belongings to another room c. Asking the person’s roommate to prove there are no kittens in the closet d. Taking the person for a walk ANS: D
REF: p. 788
38. A resident has AD. The person thinks the food contains poison. This is called: a. a hallucination. b. a delusion. c. a catastrophic reaction. d. sundowning.
ANS: B
REF: p. 788
39. A resident has AD. The person thinks the food contains poison. Which will help the person? a. Offering to taste the food b. Distracting the person c. Telling the person that she will not receive any other food tonight so she better
trust you and eat d. Sending the person to her room to finish eating dinner ANS: B
REF: p. 788
40. Catastrophic reactions usually occur from: a. elimination needs. b. hunger. c. too many stimuli. d. lack of sleep. ANS: C
REF: p. 789
41. A resident has AD. Sometimes the person is agitated and combative. The person is pacing and
trying to hit others. Which of the following measures will be helpful? a. Restraining the person b. Telling the person to have a seat c. Sending the person to his room d. Providing a calm, quiet setting ANS: D
REF: p. 789
42. Persons with AD may have abnormal sexual behaviors. The behaviors are abnormal because: a. persons with AD do not have sexual needs. b. of how and when they occur. c. they are high risk for STDs. d. persons with AD cannot perform sexually. ANS: B
REF: p. 790
43. Persons with AD may have abnormal sexual behaviors. Which is a normal behavior? a. Undressing in front of other residents b. Masturbating in the dining room c. Hugging and kissing one’s partner d. Fondling another person ANS: C
REF: p. 790
44. A resident has AD. She is trying to rub her perineum through her clothes. Which is correct? a. The behavior is sexual. b. She may be trying to get the attention of a male. c. She needs to be counseled regarding inappropriate touch. d. She may have pain or discomfort in her urinary or reproductive system. ANS: D
REF: p. 790
45. A resident has AD. His wife visits daily. They like to touch, hold hands, and kiss. Which
action is correct? a. Discouraging such contact b. Providing privacy c. Allowing only supervised visits d. Trying to distract them ANS: B
REF: p. 790
46. A resident has AD. You find him masturbating in another person’s room. What should you
do? a. b. c. d.
Tell him to stop what he is doing. Explain that his behavior is not appropriate. Close the room door to provide for privacy. Guide him to his room.
ANS: D
REF: p. 790
47. A person has AD. Sometimes the person has repetitive behaviors. This means that the person: a. repeats the same motions over and over again. b. does things that are harmful. c. repeats things the person said and did during childhood. d. does everything twice. ANS: A
REF: p. 790
48. While caring for a person with AD, you find yourself becoming frustrated and short-tempered.
Which is correct? a. The person has made you feel this way. b. The person deserves to be treated with dignity and respect. c. The person is responsible for agitated, aggressive, and wandering behaviors. d. The person should be restrained so that you can get your work done. ANS: B
REF: p. 790
49. A resident has AD. As death nears, the person may need: a. hospice care. b. restraints. c. an Alzheimer’s Association support group. d. supervised activities. ANS: A
REF: p. 790
50. Persons with AD are at risk for: a. infection. b. stroke. c. heart attack. d. diarrhea. ANS: A
REF: p. 791
51. You care for several persons with AD. Why must you report behavior changes to the nurse? a. They may signal other illnesses or injuries.
b. Persons with AD cannot report such changes. c. Persons with AD depend on others for care. d. It is your responsibility to report signs and symptoms. ANS: A
REF: p. 791-793
52. A resident has AD. When planning activities for the person, the therapist considers: a. What equipment and supplies are available? b. How much time is available? c. The person’s abilities and interests. d. Staff interests and needs. ANS: C
REF: p. 791-793
53. A resident has problems finding her room, the bathroom, the dining room, and so on. Which
of the following might help her? a. Telling her the date, the time, and the place b. Showing her where things are c. Picture signs d. Keeping personal items where she can see them ANS: C
REF: p. 791-793
54. A resident has AD. The person easily becomes agitated and combative. Which of the
following measures might help the person? a. Suggesting a change in the person’s routine to offer variety b. Keeping noise levels high c. Showing movies from T thE eS peTrB soAnN ’sKpS asEt d. Changing the person’s room ANS: C
REF: p. 791-793
55. A resident has AD. The person’s communication is impaired. When talking to the person, you
need to do which of the following? a. Use a loud voice so that he hears you. b. Speak quickly, before he forgets what you said. c. Give the person time to respond. d. Explain why the person’s answer is wrong. ANS: C
REF: p. 791-793
56. A patient has AD. To gain the person’s attention, you need to: a. approach the person from behind. b. approach the person from the side. c. approach the person from the front. d. lightly touch the person’s arm. ANS: C
REF: p. 791-793
57. A patient has AD. The person is trying to tell you something. What should you do? a. Ask the person simple questions. b. Let the person speak. Do not interrupt or rush the person. c. Offer words and ideas to help the person communicate.
d. Tell the person you understand. ANS: B
REF: p. 791-793
58. A patient has AD. You are helping her dress. You should: a. decide what she will wear. b. let her choose from a dress, pant suit, sweat suit, or a skirt and blouse. c. let her choose between a dress and a pant suit. d. explain why she needs to wear under-garments. ANS: C
REF: p. 791-793
59. A resident has AD. You find the following items in the person’s room. Which is unsafe? a. A quilt b. Shampoo c. Socks d. A sweater ANS: B
REF: p. 791-793
60. A maintenance worker left a hammer at the nurses’ station. What should you do? a. Leave it there. b. Ask the maintenance department to send someone to pick it up. c. Place it in a secure drawer. Then report its location to the maintenance department. d. Look for the maintenance worker who left it. ANS: C
REF: p. 791-793
T,EySoT 61. To protect persons with AD uB neAeN dK toSdEoLwLhE icR h. ofCtO heMfollowing? a. Keep utility room doors unlocked. b. Restrain them at night so they do not escape. c. Always keep their doors closed so they cannot leave. d. Place safety plugs in electrical outlets. ANS: D
REF: p. 791-793
62. A resident has AD. The person’s care plan should include which of the following measures to
promote sleep? a. Follow the person’s bedtime rituals. b. Keep the resident’s overhead light on during the night so he or she does not become frightened. c. Encourage the person to nap during the day. d. Encourage caffeine during the day. ANS: A
REF: p. 791-793
63. A resident has AD. You are helping the person dress. Which of the following will cause the
fewest problems? a. A front-opening garment that closes with Velcro b. A pullover garment c. A back-opening garment that closes with buttons d. Pants that close with a zipper and hook
ANS: A
REF: p. 791-793
64. A resident has AD. You are helping the person dress. You should do which of the following? a. Leave the room when the person puts on under-garments to protect the right to
privacy. b. Set a timer so that the person will work toward getting dressed. c. Hand the person his or her stack of clothes and tell him or her to get dressed. d. Tell the person what to do with each clothing item. ANS: D
REF: p. 791-793
65. A resident has AD. When providing for the person’s basic needs, it is best to: a. give the person many choices. b. complete the person’s care as fast as possible. c. have equipment ready for any procedure. d. provide stimulation to distract the person. ANS: C
REF: p. 791-793
66. A nursing center has a secured unit for persons with AD. Which is correct? a. OBRA considers secured units to be physical restraints. b. A family’s request is needed to place a person on a secured unit. c. The person remains on the secured unit until death. d. Only persons with aggressive behaviors are allowed on a secured unit. ANS: A
REF: p. 791-793
67. A person has AD. The person’s daughter has three children in high school and college. The
daughter is likely to find herself in: a. Generation X. b. The “Baby Boom” generation. c. Generation Y. d. the sandwich generation. ANS: D
REF: p. 795
68. A person has AD. Which can offer the person’s daughter support and encouragement? a. The sandwich generation b. OBRA c. An AD support group d. The American Dementia Association ANS: C
REF: p. 795
69. A resident has AD. She carries a small stuffed animal that is coming apart at the seams. What
should you do? a. Ask the family to bring her a new one. b. Take it from her so that it can be repaired. c. Ask her why she carries it all the time. d. Protect it from further damage. ANS: D
REF: p. 791-793
70. A resident has AD. She tends to wander and is sometimes combative. Her son asks you to
restrain her. Which is correct? a. Restraints require a doctor’s order. b. Restraints are used if the family requests them. c. Restraints can make confused and demented behaviors improve. d. Patients with Alzheimer’s do not have the right to be free from restraints. ANS: A
REF: p. 789
71. Confused and demented behaviors are often hard to deal with. Therefore, persons who are
confused or have AD are at risk for: a. behavior changes. b. infection. c. falls and other injures. d. abuse, mistreatment, and neglect. ANS: D
REF: p. 791-793
72. Some nursing centers have special care units for persons with AD and other dementias. Which
is correct? a. These units have no other licensing or accreditation standards for such units. b. There is no additional staff training required to work on these units. c. The person’s rights are always protected. d. The health team reviews the person’s need for the unit at least twice a year. ANS: C
REF: p. 794
TRUE/FALSE 1. A person with AD may react to a caregiver or family member by screaming. ANS: T
REF: p. 789
2. Proper use of validation therapy requires special training. ANS: T
REF: p. 796
Chapter 54: Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An intellectual and developmental disability is: a. a disability that occurs before 18 years of age. b. a chronic condition produced by temporary changes in the brain’s electrical
function. c. the uncontrolled contractions of skeletal muscles. d. the violent and sudden contractions or tremors of muscle groups. ANS: A
REF: p. 799
2. Spastic means: a. a disability that occurs before 22 years of age. b. a chronic condition produced by temporary changes in the brain’s electrical
function. c. the uncontrolled contractions of skeletal muscles. d. the violent and sudden contractions or tremors of muscle groups. ANS: C
REF: p. 799
3. Which statement about developmental disabilities is correct? a. The impairment can be physical or mental or both. b. The disability is typically mild and temporary. BoAreNlKifSe EskLilLlsE. c. Function is limited to oTnE eS orTm d. The disability improves during adulthood. ANS: A
REF: p. 799
4. Persons who are developmentally disabled need: a. hospital services. b. long-term care. c. life-long help, support, and special services. d. residential care. ANS: C
REF: p. 800
5. Causes of developmental disabilities occur: a. before, during, or after birth. b. during adolescence. c. during early and middle adulthood. d. during late adulthood. ANS: A
REF: p. 800
6. The goal for persons with developmental disabilities is: a. to live independently. b. independence to the extent possible. c. financial independence.
d. education and job training. ANS: B
REF: p. 800
7. Intellectual disabilities involve which of the following? a. An IQ score of about 90 or below b. The condition being present before 50 years of age c. Nerve damage d. Significant limitation in at least one adaptive behavior ANS: D
REF: p. 801
8. Intellectual disabilities involve: a. an extra chromosome and heart defects. b. muscle weakness and poor muscle control. c. low intellectual functioning and impaired adaptive behavior. d. impaired social skills and confusion. ANS: C
REF: p. 801
9. Which statement about persons with intellectual disabilities is correct? a. Their ability to learn is normal. b. They have difficulty with activities of daily living. c. Their ability to respond in socially appropriate ways is impossible. d. They need constant support. ANS: B
REF: p. 801
10. Which statement about perT soEnS sT wB itA hN inK teS llE ecL tuLaE l dRis.aC biO liM ties is correct? a. Children with intellectual disabilities should play only with children who have
similar disabilities. b. Responsible adults should make decisions for them. c. Marriage is discouraged. d. Adults with intellectual disabilities should do meaningful work and enjoy adult
activities. ANS: D
REF: p. 801
11. Which statement about persons with intellectual disabilities is correct? a. Their reproductive organs do not develop. b. They cannot control their sexual urges. c. They have the right to protection from sexual abuse. d. Sex and sexual issues are of limited concern. ANS: C
REF: p. 801
12. The most common inherited form of intellectual disabilities is: a. autism. b. fragile X syndrome. c. hydrocephalus. d. spina bifida. ANS: B
REF: p. 801
13. Down syndrome is caused by: a. an extra chromosome. b. lack of oxygen to the brain. c. faulty development during the first month of pregnancy. d. unknown factors. ANS: A
REF: p. 801
14. Children with Down syndrome often have which of the following? a. Eyes that slant upward b. Long, wide hands with stubby fingers c. Large head and flat face d. Small tongue and large ears ANS: A
REF: p. 801
15. Children with Down syndrome often have: a. heart defects. b. spina bifida. c. cerebral palsy. d. paralysis. ANS: A
REF: p. 801
16. Persons with Down syndrome usually need which of the following? a. Wheelchairs and braces b. Surgical correction c. Cancer prevention strategies d. Speech, language, physical, and occupational therapies ANS: D
REF: p. 801
17. Cerebral palsy is caused by a defect in: a. the spinal cord. b. the motor region of the brain. c. the sensory region of the brain. d. the brain’s electrical function. ANS: B
REF: p. 803
18. Which is a cause of cerebral palsy? a. An extra chromosome b. Brain damage c. Excess oxygen provided to the brain d. Incomplete brain development ANS: B
REF: p. 803
19. Which statement about cerebral palsy is correct? a. It can only occur prior to birth. b. Premature infants and low-birth-weight infants almost always have cerebral palsy. c. Infants born with fetal alcohol syndrome are at risk.
d. It can occur in adulthood from stroke, heart attack, and accidents. ANS: C 20.
REF: p. 803
A person has spastic cerebral palsy. Which is correct? a. The person has slow weaving or writhing motions. b. Muscles are relaxed and weak. c. One or both sides of the body may be involved. d. Posture, balance, and movement are not usually affected. ANS: C
REF: p. 803
21. Which statement about cerebral palsy is correct? a. Affected persons can have many other impairments. b. It is cured with drugs and surgery. c. Affected persons can develop Down syndrome. d. Boys are affected more than girls are. ANS: A
REF: p. 803
22. A resident has cerebral palsy. The person’s care depends on: a. the person’s financial abilities. b. the person’s gender. c. the degree of brain damage. d. center policy and procedures. ANS: C
REF: p. 803
23. Autism usually begins: a. at birth. b. in early childhood. c. after 3 years of age. d. between 3 and 6 years of age. ANS: B
REF: p. 802
24. Children with autism have which of the following? a. Problems with swallowing b. Problems with motor skills c. Repetitive behaviors and routines d. Impaired respiratory and cardiac function ANS: C
REF: p. 802
25. Children with autism usually: a. spend time alone. b. like changes in routine. c. react to pain with loud screaming. d. like to be cuddled. ANS: A
REF: p. 802
26. Children with autism usually:
a. b. c. d.
have tantrums for no apparent reason. respond to their names. respond to touch and cuddling. talk earlier than other children.
ANS: A
REF: p. 802
27. Which statement about autism is correct? a. It can be cured with early diagnosis. b. With therapy, the person can learn to change or control behaviors. c. Intellectual disabilities and seizures are uncommon. d. The person is unable to develop social and work skills. ANS: B
REF: p. 802
28. Spina bifida is a congenital defect of the: a. brain. b. spinal column. c. nerves. d. meninges. ANS: B
REF: p. 804
29. Spina bifida develops: a. during the first month of pregnancy. b. before, during, or after birth. c. because of an extra chromosome. d. before 22 years of age. ANS: A REF: p. 804 30. Which is a common site for spinal bifida? a. Upper back b. Mid back c. Lower back d. Scalp ANS: C
REF: p. 804
31. Nerve damage occurs with: a. spina bifida occulta. b. meningocele. c. myelomeningocele. d. hydrocephalus. ANS: C
REF: p. 804
32. A child has spina bifida. The child is at risk for: a. infection. b. aspiration. c. autism. d. epilepsy.
ANS: A
REF: p. 804
33. Myelomeningocele is usually corrected with: a. drugs. b. surgery. c. physical therapy. d. a shunt. ANS: B
REF: p. 804
34. Which are common with spina bifida? a. Bowel and bladder problems b. Breathing problems c. Seizures d. Behavior problems ANS: A
REF: p. 804
35. Mobility problems are most likely to occur with: a. spina bifida occulta. b. meningocele. c. myelomeningocele. d. hydrocephalus. ANS: C
REF: p. 805
36. An enlarged head is seen with: a. spina bifida occulta. b. meningocele. c. myelomeningocele. d. hydrocephalus. ANS: D
REF: p. 805
37. A child has hydrocephalus. Which are likely to occur without treatment? a. Intellectual disabilities and neurological damage b. Spina bifida and epilepsy c. Heart disease and paralysis d. Autism and Down syndrome ANS: A
REF: p. 805
38. Hydrocephalus is usually treated with: a. drugs. b. behavior therapy. c. physical therapy. d. a shunt. ANS: D TRUE/FALSE
REF: p. 805
1. Persons with developmental disabilities do not have the same rights as every other U.S.
citizen because they do not understand these rights. ANS: F
REF: p. 800
2. A disability affects the child and family throughout life. ANS: T
REF: p. 800
3. Autism is more common in girls than in boys. ANS: F
REF: p. 802
Chapter 55: Sexuality Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A person who is bisexual is: a. unable to have an erection. b. attracted to members of the other sex. c. attracted to members of the same sex. d. attracted to both sexes. ANS: D
REF: p. 808
2. Erectile dysfunction means that: a. a woman cannot achieve an orgasm. b. menstruation stops. c. a man cannot achieve an erection. d. a man needs to dress in women’s clothing to become aroused. ANS: C
REF: p. 808
3. A person who is heterosexual is: a. unable to have an erection. b. attracted to members of the other sex. c. attracted to members of the same sex. d. attracted to both sexes. ANS: B
REF: p. 808
4. A person who is homosexual is: a. unable to have an erection. b. attracted to members of the other sex. c. attracted to members of the same sex. d. attracted to both sexes. ANS: C
REF: p. 808
5. Erectile dysfunction is the inability to: a. maintain an erection. b. develop sperm. c. relieve an erection. d. maintain a pregnancy. ANS: A
REF: p. 808
6. Sex is: a. the physical activities involving reproductive organs. b. the physical, emotional, social, cultural, and spiritual factors that affect feelings
and attitudes about sex. c. who a person is attracted to? d. preferred sexual practices.
ANS: A
REF: p. 808
7. Sexuality is: a. the physical activities involving reproductive organs. b. the physical, emotional, social, cultural, and spiritual factors that affect feelings
and attitudes about sex. c. who a person is attracted to? d. preferred sexual practices. ANS: B
REF: p. 808
8. A person who describes their gender identity in a way that is opposite their biological sex is
known as: a. homosexual. b. lesbian or gay man. c. transsexual. d. transgender. ANS: D
REF: p. 808
9. A woman is attracted to another woman. The person is a: a. homosexual. b. lesbian. c. transsexual. d. queer. ANS: B
REF: p. 810
10. A term used to describe persons who are undergoing hormone therapy or surgery for sexual
reassignment is: a. transgender. b. homosexual. c. transsexual. d. transvestite. ANS: A
REF: p. 810
11. Sexuality develops: a. at birth. b. when a baby’s sex is known. c. during adolescence. d. in adulthood. ANS: B
REF: p. 808
12. Which statement about sexuality is correct? a. It involves the physical aspects of the person. b. It involves the emotional aspects of the person. c. It develops when a baby’s sex is known. d. It involves the whole person. ANS: D
REF: p. 808
13. Children learn male and female roles from: a. television. b. books. c. computers. d. adults. ANS: D
REF: p. 809
14. Sexual behaviors usually begin during: a. early childhood. b. the teenage years. c. young adulthood. d. older adulthood. ANS: B
REF: p. 809
15. Which statement about sex and sexuality is correct? a. Most chronic illnesses do not affect sexual function. b. Sexual problems always have emotional causes. c. Some sexual problems have physical causes. d. All sexual problems are treated with drugs. ANS: C
REF: p. 810
16. Drugs are available to treat: a. erectile dysfunction. b. priapism. c. heterosexuality. d. bisexuality. ANS: A
REF: p. 810
17. A patient is angry because his sexual function is affected by heart disease. What should you
do to help him? a. Follow his care plan. b. Be a caring partner. c. Provide support and reassurance. d. Use touch to show you care. ANS: A
REF: p. 811
18. Which statement about sexuality and older persons is correct? a. Reproductive organs do not typically change with aging. b. Immobility and chronic illness may affect frequency of sex. c. Older persons need frequent intercourse. d. Attitudes and sex needs remain unchanged with aging. ANS: B
REF: p. 810
19. Which statement about sexuality and older persons is correct? a. Sexual activity increases for many older persons. b. Sexual needs and desires are lost.
c. Some persons lose sexual partners through death and divorce. d. Older persons do not need as much love and affection. ANS: C
REF: p. 810
20. A nursing center resident is holding hands with his wife and stroking her leg. What should
you do? a. Tell the nurse. b. Explain that such behaviors are not allowed. c. Allow the couple privacy. d. Check the resident’s care plan. ANS: C
REF: p. 811
21. Mr. Porter is a resident at Spruce Harbor Nursing Center. His wife now needs nursing center
care. OBRA requires that: a. Mrs. Porter goes to a different center. b. Mr. and Mrs. Porter have separate rooms. c. Mr. and Mrs. Porter have separate beds. d. Mr. and Mrs. Porter share the same room if they wish to. ANS: D
REF: p. 811
22. A female resident wants to wear a dress and apply make-up every day. She also likes to shave
her legs and underarms. What should you do? a. Check her care plan. b. Tell her that shaving is unsafe for her. c. Assist her with groomiT ngEaScT tivBiA tieNsKaS s nEeLedLeEdR . d. Ask her why such measures are important to her. ANS: C
REF: p. 811
23. Which of the following measures promotes sexuality? a. Providing privacy b. Keeping the person’s door open at all times c. Selecting what the person should wear each day d. Discouraging masturbation ANS: A
REF: p. 811
24. Mr. Fisher’s wife died 3 years ago. Mrs. Polk is divorced. Both are residents at Spruce Harbor
Nursing Center. They dine and attend activities together. Today you find them holding hands under the table. What should you do? a. Do nothing. b. Tell the nurse. c. Check the care plan. d. Remind them that such behavior is not allowed. ANS: A
REF: p. 811
25. A resident tells you that you look pretty and tries to touch your leg. What should you do? a. Do nothing. b. Tell the nurse.
c. Check the care plan. d. Politely ask the person not to touch your body. ANS: D
REF: p. 811
26. A resident asks you for a kiss. What should you do? a. Give the person a kiss. b. Be supportive and understanding. c. Tell the person that this behavior makes you uncomfortable. d. Check the care plan. ANS: C
REF: p. 812
27. A female resident with Alzheimer’s disease is undressing and fondling her breasts in the
activity room. What should you do? a. Check the care plan. b. Assist her to her room. c. Call for the nurse. d. Restrain her. ANS: B
REF: p. 812
28. A male resident with Alzheimer’s disease has poor communication skills. He touches your
breasts to get your attention. Which statement is correct? a. His behavior is sexually aggressive. b. He thinks you are his wife. c. His behavior is not sexual. d. He cannot control his bTeE haSvT ioB r. ANS: C
REF: p. 812
29. You hear an alert and oriented male resident make a sexual comment to a female resident. The
female resident appears embarrassed and uncomfortable. What should you do? a. Tell the male resident to behave. b. Nothing. It is none of your business. c. Tell the nurse at once. d. Call the male resident’s family. ANS: C
REF: p. 812
30. Which statement is correct? a. Patients and residents with dementia are more likely to make sexual advances. b. If you suspect sexual abuse, you must tell the nurse at once. c. Masturbation is a sexually abusive behavior. d. No one should be allowed to masturbate. ANS: B
REF: p. 811
TRUE/FALSE 1. Illness, injury, and aging affect sexuality.
ANS: T
REF: p. 810
2. Sexuality is important for older persons. ANS: T
REF: p. 810
3. Sexuality is important throughout life. ANS: T
REF: p. 810
Chapter 56: Caring for Mothers and Babies Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The surgical removal of foreskin from the penis is: a. circumcision. b. episiotomy. c. cesarean. d. lochia. ANS: A 2.
REF: p. 814
Postpartum refers to: before childbirth. during childbirth. after childbirth. after circumcision.
a. b. c. d.
ANS: C
REF: p. 814
3. An episiotomy is: a. an incision into the perineum. b. needed for a cesarean section. c. a complication of pregnancy. d. a postpartum infection. ANS: A
REF: p. 814
4. The structure that connects the mother and the fetus is the: a. C-section. b. umbilical cord. c. episiotomy. d. circumcision. ANS: B
REF: p. 814
5. Some mothers and newborns need home care after discharge from the hospital. Which is a
reason for home care? a. Complications in the mother before or after childbirth. b. A normal vaginal delivery. c. Babies depend on others for their basic needs. d. The mother needs sleep. ANS: A
REF: p. 814
6. A 1-week-old baby is crying. Which is correct? a. Babies cry to communicate. b. Picking up a crying baby will spoil the baby. c. The baby is uncomfortable. d. The baby is ill.
ANS: A
REF: p. 815
7. To promote safety for a crying baby, you must: a. change the baby’s diaper. b. feed the baby. c. change the baby’s position. d. respond to the baby’s cries. ANS: D
REF: p. 815
8. Babies feel secure when: a. talked to. b. supported with pillows. c. wrapped and held snugly. d. placed in a dark room. ANS: C
REF: p. 815
9. To promote the baby’s safety, do which of the following? a. Keep your fingernails long, but rounded. b. Keep the baby cool. c. Leave the baby on the changing table. d. Keep one hand on the baby at all times. ANS: D
REF: p. 815
10. Which will promote the baby’s safety? a. Shaking powder directT lyEoS veTrBthAeNbK abSy b. Making sure the crib is furthest away so that the baby can rest c. Using one hand to lift a newborn d. Removing the baby’s bib before a nap ANS: D
REF: p. 815
11. You are checking a baby’s crib for safety. Which is safe? a. The mattress fits loosely. b. Mattress hooks are not bent or broken. c. The crib is close to a heat register. d. The crib is near other furniture. ANS: B
REF: p. 815
12. Which is a sign of illness in babies? a. The baby has a high fever. b. The baby sleeps 10 to 12 hours per day. c. The baby cries when hungry. d. The baby has blue eyes. ANS: A
REF: p. 815
13. Which is a sign of illness in babies? a. The baby is less active than usual.
b. The baby cries a lot but is comforted by holding. c. The baby spits up a small amount after burping. d. The baby has irregular respirations. ANS: A
REF: p. 820
14. Which pulse site is used on infants and young children? a. Radial b. Brachial c. Carotid d. Apical ANS: D
REF: p. 820
15. Breast-fed babies are fed: a. every hour. b. every 3 hours. c. every 4 hours. d. on demand. ANS: D
REF: p. 821
16. A new mother is having trouble breast-feeding her baby. What should you do? a. Tell her not to worry. b. Discuss the experience your friend had with breast-feeding. c. Suggest she try bottle-feeding her baby. d. Tell the nurse. ANS: D
. 8S2T 1 REF: TpE
17. To assist a mother with breast-feeding, you can do which of the following? a. Help her with hand-washing and positioning. b. Teach her about breast care. c. Encourage visitors. d. Give the baby a pacifier. ANS: A
REF: p. 821
18. A mother is breast-feeding. Which is correct? a. Make sure the mother holds the baby facing away from the breast. b. Encourage feeding from one breast at each feeding. c. Remind the mother to wash her breasts with soap and water. d. Encourage the mother to place nursing pads in her bra. ANS: D
REF: p. 821
19. Nursing mothers need good nutrition. Which is correct? a. Calorie intake should decrease. b. The mother should have 2 servings a day from the milk, yogurt, and cheese group. c. The mother should include foods high in calcium in her diet. d. The mother should eat 2 servings of cabbage, asparagus, or Brussels sprouts each
day.
ANS: C
REF: p. 821
20. When preparing formula, which is correct? a. Mix with tap water or cow’s milk. b. Wash formula containers every other use. c. Measure exact amounts when preparing formula. d. Extra bottles are capped and stored in the refrigerator for up to 3 days. ANS: C
REF: p. 823
21. When cleaning re-usable baby bottles, you must do which of the following? a. Boil them for 20 minutes. b. Microwave the bottles for 2 minutes. c. Rinse all items thoroughly in hot water. d. Lay bottles down on a clean towel to dry. ANS: C
REF: p. 823
22. You will bottle-feed a baby. Which is correct? a. The bottle is warmed before the feeding. b. Warm the bottle by setting it out at room temperature for 1 hour. c. If you are in a hurry, heat the bottle in the microwave oven. d. Test the temperature by using a glass thermometer. ANS: A
REF: p. 823
23. You will bottle-feed a baby. Which is correct? a. To warm the bottle, hold it under warm running tap water. b. To test the temperature, sprinkle a few drops on the inside of the baby’s mouth. c. Feed the baby cold formula from the refrigerator. d. A bottle can be propped in the baby’s mouth if needed. ANS: A
REF: p. 823
24. You are bottle-feeding a baby. Which will promote comfort and safety? a. Assume a comfortable position. b. Place the baby in a cradle with their bottle. c. Microwave the formula so that it is warm. d. Prop the bottle and lay the baby down for the feeding. ANS: A
REF: p. 823
25. Babies take in air during feedings. Burping helps to get rid of air. Which is correct? a. Burp the baby every 5 minutes during the feeding. b. Lie the baby on your lap and pat his back to burp him. c. To burp the baby, gently pat or rub the baby’s back with circular motions. d. Support the baby’s head and neck for the first 6 months after birth. ANS: C 26.
REF: p. 825
Which position is used to burp a baby? a. Hold the infant over your shoulder. b. Support the infant in a cradle position in your lap.
c. Position the infant on your lap on his or her side. d. Position the infant on your lap with his or her back down. ANS: A
REF: p. 825
27. Which should you report to the nurse at once? a. A breast-fed baby has a bowel movement with every feeding. b. A soft, unformed stool. c. The baby has 8 wet diapers in 1 day. d. A watery stool. ANS: D
REF: p. 826
28. Diapers are changed: a. every 2 hours. b. with every feeding. c. every 4 hours. d. when wet or soiled. ANS: D
REF: p. 826
29. To properly care for cloth diapers: a. wash them once a week. b. store soiled diapers in a laundry basket. c. wash them with other white laundry items. d. wash them in hot water with baby laundry detergent. ANS: D
REF: p. 826
30. Disposable diapers are: a. secured with pins. b. discarded in the trash. c. flushed down the toilet. d. less costly than using cloth diapers. ANS: B
REF: p. 826
31. You are diapering a baby. Which will keep the baby safe? a. Gather all needed supplies before you begin. b. Place the baby on a soft surface. c. Always keep both hands on a baby who is on a table. d. If diaper pins are used, they face toward the baby’s abdomen. ANS: A
REF: p. 827
32. Care of the umbilical cord involves the following? a. Keeping the stump clean and dry b. Giving tub baths until the cord falls off c. Keeping the diaper above the cord d. Pulling the cord off when it looks ready to fall off ANS: A
REF: p. 829
33. When is cord care given? a. Twice a day b. Every hour c. With every diaper change d. When the baby is fed ANS: C
REF: p. 829
34. You are giving cord care. Which of the following should you report to the nurse? a. A dry cord b. A cord that is smooth to the touch c. Bleeding from the cord d. A cord that is cool to the touch ANS: C
REF: p. 829
35. A male newborn had a circumcision. Which is correct? a. The penis will look red, swollen, and sore. b. The circumcision usually interferes with voiding. c. There should be a slight odor with drainage from the site. d. The area should heal in 14 days. ANS: A
REF: p. 829
36. You are providing circumcision care. Which is correct? a. Clean the penis once per day. b. Use cool water or alcohol pads. c. Apply petrolatum gauzT eE orSpTeB trol atK um yE toRt. heCpOeM nis as directed by the nurse. AN SEjeLllL d. Apply the diaper tightly. ANS: C
REF: p. 829
37. Planning is an important part of giving a baby a bath because: a. it saves time. b. it will save you steps later. c. you cannot leave the baby alone if you forget something. d. it will prevent the baby from getting impatient. ANS: C
REF: p. 830
38. Sponge baths are given to infants: a. for the first 3 months after birth. b. until the cord falls off. c. until the mother is comfortable giving a tub bath. d. until the baby can sit up alone. ANS: B
REF: p. 830
39. The water temperature for bathing an infant is usually: a. 98° to 100° F. b. 100° to 105° F. c. 102° to 108° F. d. 105° to 110° F.
ANS: B
REF: p. 830
40. You are bathing an infant. Which will provide comfort and safety? a. Keeping the room temperature between 65° and 75° F for the bath. b. Measuring bathwater temperature with a water thermometer or test the water with
the inside of your wrist 1 hour before the bath. c. Never leaving the infant alone on a table or in the bathtub. d. Allowing the infant to lie down on her own during the bath. ANS: C
REF: p. 831
41. After giving an infant a bath, you need to report which of the following? a. Bruising b. A drying umbilical cord c. Pink skin areas d. Areas of intact skin ANS: A
REF: p. 832-833
42. You are giving an infant a sponge bath. Which is correct? a. Wash the infant in a cool environment so he does not overheat. b. Use a moistened cotton swab to clean inside the nose. c. Support the infant’s head and neck whenever you pick him up. d. Avoid washing the creases and folds. ANS: C
REF: p. 832-833
EeSnT 43. The baby’s fingernails andTto aiB lsAaN reKbS esEt L cuLt: a. after the baby’s bath. b. in the morning. c. when you give cord care. d. when the baby is sleeping. ANS: D
REF: p. 833
44. You are weighing an infant. Which is correct? a. Keep the room cool and dimly lit. b. Place paper on the scale and adjust the scale to zero after placing the infant on the
scale. c. Always keep one hand over the infant when taking his weight measurement. d. Keep two hands on the infant if you need to look away. ANS: C
REF: p. 833
45. The dark or bright red vaginal discharge seen during the first 3 to 4 days after childbirth is
called: a. involution. b. lochia rubra. c. lochia serosa. d. lochia alba. ANS: B
REF: p. 835
46. It is a woman’s third day postpartum. Good perineal care is important. Which is correct? a. When wiping after elimination, she wipes from back to front. b. Sanitary napkins are applied and removed from back to front. c. Sanitary napkins are changed daily. d. Good hand-washing is essential after perineal care, changing sanitary napkins, and
elimination. ANS: D
REF: p. 835
47. A woman delivered a baby by cesarean section. Which is correct? a. The baby is very large. b. The baby was delivered through an abdominal incision. c. The woman has a vaginal infection. d. The woman has an episiotomy. ANS: B
REF: p. 835
48. A woman has mood swings after giving birth to her baby girl. Which is correct? a. She will need to see a psychiatrist. b. She will need counseling. c. Mood swings can be caused by hormone changes, life-style changes, and lack of
sleep. d. She will not be able to take care of her baby. ANS: C
REF: p. 835
49. Which is a sign or symptom f pToBstA par tuS mEcLoL mE plR ic.atCioOnM s? TEoS NK a. Temperature of 100.1 F b. Lochia rubra during the first 3 days of postpartum c. Leg pain and swelling d. Experiences of mood changes ANS: C
REF: p. 835
TRUE/FALSE 1. Lay babies on their back for sleep. ANS: T
REF: p. 815
2. Nursing mothers should use food and fluids containing caffeine in moderation. Caffeine can
cause the baby to be fussy or gassy. ANS: T
REF: p. 822
3. To give nail care to infants, use infant nail clippers and a soft emery board. ANS: T
REF: p. 833
4. Babies are weighed with their diapers on.
ANS: F
REF: p. 833
5. A new mother needs time for herself. ANS: T
REF: p. 836
Chapter 57: Assisted Living Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Some people choose assisted living because they: a. need nursing center care. b. need medical care. c. need help with self-care. d. need skilled nursing care. ANS: C
REF: p. 838
2. Assisted living offers a setting that: a. has a swimming pool, sauna, and golf course. b. provides independence and companionship. c. is resort-like. d. provides therapies and nursing service. ANS: B
REF: p. 838
3. Which statement about assisted living is correct? a. All medical care is provided. b. They do not permit residents who are cognitively impaired. c. 24-hour supervision is provided. d. One meal a day is provided. ANS: C
REF: p. 839
4. Assisted living units must have which of the following? a. A television b. A private room c. A private dining room d. A window or door that provides natural light ANS: D
REF: p. 840
5. Assisted living units must have which of the following? a. An emergency communication system b. A bathroom for each person c. Individual kitchen area d. A television ANS: A
REF: p. 840
6. Bathrooms in assisted living units must have which of the following? a. A phone b. A bathtub c. Grab bars d. A linen closet ANS: C
REF: p. 840
7. Which of the following appliances for food must be included in assisted living units? a. Dishwasher b. Blender c. Microwave oven d. Storage for food and cooking items ANS: D
REF: p. 840
8. The following occur in an assisted living residence (ALR). Which is unsafe? a. Garbage is stored in covered containers. b. The hot water temperature is 130 F. c. Hazardous substances are stored in locked areas. d. Soiled linen and clothing are stored away from food areas. ANS: B
REF: p. 840
9. Which statement about assisted living residences (ALRs) is correct? a. Clean and soiled linens are stored in the same area. b. Pets and animals are allowed as long as they stay in the resident’s room. c. Oxygen is stored according to the manufacturer’s instructions. d. Residents have access to a first aid kit. ANS: C
REF: p. 840
10. An assisted living residence (ALR) admits persons with Alzheimer’s disease. The ALR must: a. provide skilled nursing care. b. allow the person accessTtE oSleTaB veAtN heKbSuE ilL diL ngEiRn.aC nO em Mergency. c. provide each person with a 24-hour attendant. d. keep the facility locked. ANS: B
REF: p. 839
11. Assisted living caregivers need training in the following areas? a. Ethics and confidentiality b. Oxygen therapy c. How to obtain vital signs? d. Using care plans ANS: A
REF: p. 840
12. Assisted living caregivers need training in which of the following areas? a. Fire emergency and disaster procedures b. Catheter care and tube feedings c. Cooking the resident’s food d. How to make a bed? ANS: A
REF: p. 840
13. ALRs usually require that residents: a. be able to dress themselves. b. be able to eat without help. c. be mobile.
d. have transportation. ANS: C
REF: p. 839
14. Which lists the services needed by the person? a. Care plan b. Service plan c. Medication record d. Medical record ANS: B
REF: p. 838
15. Which statement about the person’s service plan is correct? a. It is reviewed annually. b. It is written by the person’s doctor. c. Services are added or reduced as the person’s needs change. d. The social worker decides what is included on the person’s service plan. ANS: C
REF: p. 839
16. ALRs usually offer: a. 24-hour supervision and security. b. physical and occupational therapy. c. home health care. d. skilled nursing and rehabilitation. ANS: A
REF: p. 839
17. Assisted-living residents reTcE eiS veT: a. 1 meal a day. b. 1 meal a day and snacks. c. 2 meals a day. d. 3 meals a day and snacks. ANS: D
REF: p. 839
18. Which statement about meals is correct? a. There are assigned seats for the residents who eat in the dining room. b. Assistance is given with eating as needed. c. Menus are not available. d. Residents are required to eat in the dining room. ANS: B
REF: p. 839
19. How often should you dust furniture? a. Every day b. At least weekly c. Twice a month d. Every month ANS: B
REF: p. 839
20. How often should you vacuum floors?
a. b. c. d.
Every day At least weekly Twice a month Every month
ANS: B
REF: p. 841
21. A resident spills coffee. When should you wipe up the spill? a. When the person is done eating. b. Right away. c. When you clear the table. d. When the room is empty. ANS: B
REF: p. 841
22. Bathroom surfaces are cleaned: a. every day. b. every week. c. twice a month. d. every month. ANS: A
REF: p. 841
23. The bathroom wastebasket is emptied: a. every shift. b. every day. c. every 2 days. d. every week. ANS: B
REF: p. 841
24. The person’s shower is cleaned: a. after each use. b. every day. c. every week. d. every month. ANS: A
REF: p. 841
25. When handling meat and poultry, you need to follow: a. care labels. b. safe handling instructions. c. Standard Precautions. d. the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. ANS: B
REF: p. 841
26. Which statement about leftover food is correct? a. It is placed in aluminum foil and stored at the person’s bedside. b. Containers with leftover food are dated. c. The food is cooled before being refrigerated. d. Leftover food is used within 5 or 6 days.
ANS: B
REF: p. 841
27. You are washing eating and cooking utensils. Which do you wash first? a. Pots and pans b. Silverware c. Glasses d. Plates and bowls ANS: C
REF: p. 841
28. How should you dry eating and cooking utensils? a. With a towel b. In a dishwasher c. Lay them out on a counter d. Let them air dry in a drainer ANS: D
REF: p. 841
29. You are using a dishwasher for eating and cooking utensils. Which is correct? a. Dishwasher soap is not used as it is too harsh; instead, regular hand soap is used. b. They are rinsed before loading them into the dishwasher. c. Cast iron and wood items are put in the dishwasher. d. Pots and pans are not washed; rather, they are wiped out. ANS: B
REF: p. 841
30. Which is used to remove grease spills and splashes? a. Powdered cleanser and hot water TESTBA b. A wet sponge c. A liquid surface cleaner d. Scouring powder ANS: C
REF: p. 841
31. Sinks are cleaned with: a. detergent and hot water. b. a wet sponge. c. a sink cleaner. d. scouring powder. ANS: C
REF: p. 841
32. Leftover food and soiled supplies are disposed of: a. once a day. b. after each meal. c. weekly d. every shift ANS: B
REF: p. 841
33. You are assisting with laundry. A garment is heavily soiled. Which is correct? a. Wear gloves and wash it separately. b. Check into dry cleaning.
c. Give the item to the family. d. Follow detergent instructions. ANS: A
REF: p. 842
34. To protect garments from damage, you need to: a. wear gloves. b. follow care label directions. c. send them to the dry cleaners. d. use the delicate cycle. ANS: B
REF: p. 842
35. Laundry is separated: a. by color and fabric. b. by color only. c. by fabric only. d. as the person prefers. ANS: A
REF: p. 842
36. Which of the following prevents damage to laundry? a. Wearing gloves b. Emptying pockets c. Leaving closures unfastened d. Using the high heat drying cycle to decrease the amount of time it takes ANS: B
REF: p. 842
37. The six rights of drug administration include the right drug, the right person, and the right
documentation. What are the other rights? a. The right dose, route, and time b. The right to refuse, to choose, and select site c. The right site, form, and method d. The right color, day, and food or drink ANS: A
REF: p. 842
38. A person needs help taking drugs. State laws usually allow you to: a. give the drugs. b. remind the person it is time to take the drug. c. take the drug out of the container. d. change the dosage of a drug. ANS: B
REF: p. 842
39. A resident says, “I usually take this pill after lunch. I’ve not eaten yet.” What should you do? a. Let the person take the drug when she is ready. b. Check with the nurse. c. Remind the person that it is time to take the drug. d. Check the dosage. ANS: B
REF: p. 842
40. A resident needs help taking drugs. State laws usually allow you to do which of the
following? a. Read the drug label to the person. b. Explain to the person what the purpose of each drug is. c. Cut the drugs in half. d. Give the drugs. ANS: A
REF: p. 842
41. A medication record includes which of the following? a. Drug name, dose, directions, and route of administration b. Potential food and drug interactions c. What type of food to administer the drug with? d. Incident reports about drug errors ANS: A
REF: p. 843
42. Which statement about drug errors is correct? a. An error occurs if the person takes the wrong drug. b. An error occurs if the person takes a drug 5 minutes later than the scheduled time. c. You should report any drug error that harmed the person to the nurse. d. You need to complete an incident report only if the error caused harm. ANS: A
REF: p. 843
43. Which is a drug error? a. Taking the drug 10 minutes early TESTBA b. Taking the right drug c. Taking a drug at the time ordered d. Taking a drug by the wrong route ANS: D
REF: p. 843
44. The ALR stores a resident’s drugs. Where are the person’s drugs kept? a. In the refrigerator b. In the person’s drawer c. In the person’s closet or dresser d. In a locked container, cabinet, or area ANS: D
REF: p. 843
45. Who plans, organizes, and conducts activity programs? a. The nurse b. Resident groups c. An activities director d. The family ANS: C
REF: p. 843
46. To leave the building in an emergency, a resident requires an attendant. Which is correct? a. The attendant is called when an emergency occurs. b. The attendant is needed 24 hours a day.
c. The attendant is needed only at night. d. The person will be discharged from the ALR. ANS: B
REF: p. 843
47. Reasons for transfer, discharge, or eviction include which of the following? a. The person is rude and unkind. b. The person prefers his bath on a different day. c. The ALR cannot meet the person’s health needs. d. The person sleeps a lot. ANS: C
REF: p. 843
48. Assisted-living residents have the right to which of the following? a. Choice of their roommate b. Take part in developing the plan for care and services c. Around-the-clock nursing care d. Skilled nursing care ANS: B
REF: p. 843
TRUE/FALSE 1. Criminal background and fingerprint checks are common staff requirements. ANS: T
REF: p. 840
2. Pill organizers can be prepT arE edSbTyBnAuN rsK inSgEaL ssL isE taR nt. s ANS: F
REF: p. 842
3. The ALR has procedures in place for disposing of expired drugs. ANS: T
REF: p. 843
4. Assisted-living residents have the right to smoke anywhere in the building. ANS: F
REF: p. 840
Chapter 58: Emergency Care Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A life-threatening sensitivity to an antigen is a. a seizure. b. respiratory arrest. c. anaphylaxis. d. cardiac arrest. ANS: C
REF: p. 846
2. What happens with sudden cardiac arrest? a. There are violent and sudden contractions or tremors of muscles. b. The heart stops suddenly and without warning. c. Organs and tissues do not get enough blood. d. There is excessive blood loss in a short time. ANS: B
REF: p. 846
3. Another term for convulsion is a. shock. b. stroke. c. seizure. d. fainting. ANS: C
REF: p. 846
4. Emergency care given to an ill or injured person before medical help arrives is a. first aid. b. Basic Life Support. c. chain of Survival. d. cardiopulmonary resuscitation. ANS: A
REF: p. 846
5. Fainting is: a. when the heart and breathing stop without warning. b. the sudden loss of consciousness from an inadequate blood supply to the brain. c. the excessive loss of blood in a short time. d. a condition that results when organs and tissues do not get enough blood. ANS: B
REF: p. 846
6. Hemorrhage is: a. when the heart and breathing stop without warning. b. the sudden loss of consciousness from an inadequate blood supply to the brain. c. the excessive loss of blood in a short time. d. a condition that results when organs and tissues do not get enough blood. ANS: C
REF: p. 846
7. Breathing stops but heart action continues for several minutes. This is: a. stroke. b. respiratory arrest. c. cardiac arrest. d. shock. ANS: B
REF: p. 846
8. A seizure is: a. violent and sudden contractions or tremors of muscle groups. b. the excessive loss of blood in a short time. c. the sudden loss of consciousness. d. the same as stroke. ANS: A
REF: p. 846
9. Shock is: a. when the heart and breathing stop without warning. b. the sudden loss of consciousness from an inadequate blood supply to the brain. c. the excessive loss of blood in a short time. d. a condition that results when organs and tissues do not get enough blood. ANS: D
REF: p. 846
10. Emergencies occur: a. in hospital emergency rooms. b. in nursing centers. c. in medical centers. d. anywhere. ANS: D
REF: p. 846
11. You are giving first aid. Your goals are: a. to prevent death and prevent injuries from becoming worse. b. to maintain an open airway and give rescue breathing. c. to activate the EMS system and keep the person warm. d. provide early CPR and early defibrillation. ANS: A
REF: p. 846
12. The EMS system is activated by: a. dialing 911. b. calling on a neighbor for help. c. giving rescue breathing. d. starting CPR. ANS: A
REF: p. 846
13. In nursing centers, who decides to activate the EMS system? a. The doctor b. A nurse c. Nursing assistants
d. Residents ANS: B
REF: p. 846
14. You have activated the EMS system. When should you hang up the phone? a. After telling what happened b. After giving your location c. After telling how many people need help d. After the operator hangs up ANS: D
REF: p. 846
15. You come upon a car accident. What should you do? a. Move victims out of the car. b. Check the victims for breathing, a pulse, and bleeding. c. Put on sterile gloves. d. Remove clothing. ANS: B
REF: p. 847
16. When removing clothing in an emergency, you should: a. tear or cut the garment along the seams. b. follow the rules for dressing and undressing. c. cover the person with a blanket first. d. remove garments from the strong side first. ANS: A
REF: p. 847
EeLiLs E 17. You find a person lying onThEisSrT igB htAsNidKeS .H brR ea.thCiO ngMand has a pulse. However, he is bleeding from his right leg. How should you position him? a. Turn him to the supine position. b. Elevate his leg. c. Help him to a Fowler’s position. d. Leave him as you found him. ANS: B
REF: p. 847
18. You find a victim lying on his right side. He is breathing and has a pulse. However, he is
bleeding from his right leg. You should do which of the following? a. Begin chest compressions. b. Try to control the bleeding. c. Give him fluids. d. Begin rescue breathing. ANS: B
REF: p. 848
19. Before starting chest compressions in an adult, how long should you check for a pulse? a. 5 seconds b. 5 to 10 seconds c. 15 seconds d. Not more than 1 minute ANS: B
REF: p. 848
20. In-hospital Chain of Survival actions for adults include: a. early abdominal thrusts, immediate CPR, rapidly defibrillation, and early access to
emergency cardiovascular care. b. early first aid, early abdominal thrusts, immediate CPR, and rapid defibrillation. c. recognizing cardiac arrest and activating the EMS system at once, immediate CPR,
rapid defibrillation, and early advanced care. d. immediate CPR and early transport to a hospital emergency room. ANS: C
REF: p. 848
21. A person is in sudden cardiac arrest. Which statement is correct? a. Brain and organ damage can occur within seconds. b. Unless breathing and circulation are restored, permanent brain damage occurs. c. Anxiety is a common cause. d. Abdominal thrusts are necessary. ANS: B
REF: p. 848
22. Which is a major sign of sudden cardiac arrest? a. No response b. Warm, pink skin c. Short, shallow breaths d. No blood pressure ANS: A
REF: p. 848
23. A person is in respiratory aTrrEeS st.TW haNt K wS illEhLaL ppEeR n. ifCbO reM athing is not restored? BA a. Cardiac arrest will occur. b. The person will have a seizure. c. The person will have a stroke. d. The person will go into shock. ANS: A
REF: p. 850
24. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation: a. supports breathing and circulation. b. prevents ventricular fibrillation. c. controls bleeding and prevents shock. d. prevents injuries from becoming worse. ANS: A
REF: p. 851
25. What are the basic parts of CPR? a. Airway, breathing, chest compressions, and defibrillation b. Circulation, pulse, blood pressure, and respiration c. Temperature, pulse, circulation, and respiration d. Compressions, early AED, and early advanced care ANS: A
REF: p. 851
26. What is a common cause of airway obstruction during cardiac arrest? a. The tongue falling toward the back of the throat
b. Loose dentures c. Poorly chewed meat d. Shock ANS: A
REF: p. 856
27. What is used to open the airway during cardiac arrest? a. Abdominal thrusts b. The head tilt–chin lift method c. The tongue–jaw lift maneuver d. The finger-sweep maneuver ANS: B
REF: p. 856
28. A person is in cardiac arrest without a heartbeat and you are alone. After calling for help, you
need to: a. get the AED and emergency equipment. b. give 2 rescue breaths. c. check for a pulse. d. position the person supine. ANS: A
REF: p. 855
29. A person is in cardiac arrest. Adequate breathing is determined by which of the following? a. Counting respirations for 30 seconds b. Looking to see if the chest rises and falls on one side c. Listening for the escape of air d. Feeling for the flow ofTair yoAuN r fin ESonTB KSgEerLs ANS: C
REF: p. 850
30. You need to give mouth-to-mouth breathing. Which is correct? a. Contact with blood, body fluids, secretions, and excretions is likely. b. Keep the nostrils open. c. Place your mouth lightly over the person’s mouth. d. Remove your mouth from the person’s mouth after giving 2 rescue breaths. ANS: A
REF: p. 850
31. Which type of rescue breathing is used whenever possible? a. Mouth-to-mouth b. Mouth-to-nose c. Mouth-to-barrier device d. The type the rescuer is most comfortable using ANS: C
REF: p. 850
32. A person is in cardiac arrest. You cannot open the person’s mouth. Which of the following is
indicated? a. Mouth-to-barrier device breathing b. Mouth-to-nose breathing c. Mouth-to-stoma breathing d. Abdominal thrusts
ANS: B
REF: p. 850
33. You need to start CPR on an adult. Which is correct? a. 1 rescue breath is given after every 5 chest compressions. b. 1 rescue breath is given after every 10 chest compressions. c. 2 rescue breaths are given after every 15 chest compressions. d. 2 rescue breaths are given after every 30 chest compressions. ANS: D
REF: p. 855
34. Before starting chest compressions on an adult, you need to check for a pulse. What pulse site
should you use? a. The radial pulse b. The apical pulse c. The carotid pulse d. The femoral pulse ANS: C
REF: p. 855
35. For effective chest compressions, the person must be positioned: a. in the recovery position. b. in Fowler’s position. c. in the supine position on a hard, flat surface. d. on a firm mattress. ANS: C
REF: p. 855
TpEreSsTsiB 36. To give effective chest com onAsNtoKaSnEaL duLlE t, R yo.uCnOeM ed to: a. depress the sternum at least 2 inches, but not more than 2.4 inches. b. give abdominal thrusts above the navel. c. depress the lower end of the sternum about 1 inch. d. make a fist with one hand. ANS: A
REF: p. 855
37. How many chest compressions are given to adults in 1 minute? a. 5 to 10 b. 15 to 30 c. 80 to 100 d. 100 to 120 ANS: D
REF: p. 855
38. You should start CPR only if the person: a. has had a heart attack. b. is not responding, is not breathing, and has no pulse. c. consents. d. has a chance of recovery. ANS: B
REF: p. 855
39. Which is the proper position for CPR?
a. You straddle the person’s thighs so that you face the person. b. You stand behind the person. c. You are positioned at the person’s side. Your arms are straight and your shoulders
are directly over your hands. Your hands are on the sternum. d. You kneel behind the person’s head. ANS: C
REF: p. 855
40. You are performing 2-rescuer CPR on an adult. How many compressions are given per
minute? a. 5 to 10 b. 15 to 30 c. 80 to 100 d. 100 to 120 ANS: D
REF: p. 855
41. A person shows signs of movement after CPR was started. The person is breathing. What
should you do? a. Continue CPR until medical help arrives. b. Continue rescue breathing. c. Position the person in the recovery position. d. Measure the person’s blood pressure. ANS: C
REF: p. 855
42. You are performing 2-rescuer CPR on an adult. Two rescue breaths are given after every: a. 2 compressions. b. 5 compressions. c. 15 compressions. d. 30 compressions. ANS: D
REF: p. 855
43. You are performing 2-rescuer CPR on a 6-year-old child. Two rescue breaths are given after
every: a. 2 compressions. b. 5 compressions. c. 15 compressions. d. 30 compressions. ANS: C
REF: p. 855
44. A defibrillator is: a. used to deliver a shock to the heart when a person is in ventricular fibrillation. b. used to give rescue breathing. c. a device used for CPR only available in hospitals. d. used to start V-fib. ANS: A
REF: p. 852
45. To check for a pulse in infants, use the: a. radial artery.
b. brachial artery. c. carotid artery. d. popliteal artery. ANS: B
REF: p. 854
46. The recovery position is: a. the prone position. b. the supine position. c. Fowler’s position. d. a side-lying position. ANS: D
REF: p. 853
47. What is the purpose of the recovery position? a. It helps the person wake up. b. It prevents pressure injuries. c. It promotes good alignment. d. It keeps the airway open. ANS: D
REF: p. 853
48. Which statement about hemorrhage is correct? a. Internal hemorrhage can be seen. b. Bleeding from an artery occurs gradually. c. To stop external bleeding, apply light pressure to the bleeding site. d. The EMS system must be activated. ANS: D
. 8S5T 7 REF: TpE
49. A person is hemorrhaging. Direct pressure does not stop the bleeding. What should you do? a. Give the person fluids. b. Start CPR. c. Apply pressure to the artery above the bleeding site. d. Apply pressure to the artery below the bleeding site. ANS: C
REF: p. 857
50. Which signifies internal bleeding? a. Rising blood pressure b. Vomiting clear mucus c. Coughing up blood d. Low-grade temperature ANS: C
REF: p. 857
51. To control external bleeding, you should do which of the following? a. Remove objects that may have pierced the person. b. Lower the affected part below the level of the heart. c. Place a sterile dressing or clean material over the wound. d. Apply pressure directly below the bleeding site. ANS: C
REF: p. 857
52.
Which is a sign of anaphylaxis? a. Skin that is cool to the touch b. Shortness of breath c. High blood pressure d. Constipation ANS: B
REF: p. 857
53. The person in shock has which of the following? a. Rising blood pressure b. Slow, strong pulse c. Dry, red skin d. Restlessness and confusion ANS: D
REF: p. 857
54. A person is in shock. You need to do which of the following? a. Have the person sit up. b. Keep the airway open. c. Encourage the person to cough and deep breathe. d. Give the person fluids. ANS: B
REF: p. 857
55. A person is in shock. You need to: a. start CPR. b. perform abdominal thrusts. TES c. give chest thrusts. d. activate the EMS system. ANS: D
REF: p. 857
56. A brain disorder in which clusters of brain cells sometimes signal abnormally is: a. shock. b. stroke. c. epilepsy. d. brain tumor. ANS: C
REF: p. 859
57. Which statement about epilepsy is correct? a. There is a cure for the disorder if caught soon enough. b. Drugs cannot control seizures in many people. c. The person has a permanent brain injury or defect. d. The disorder always affects learning and ADL. ANS: C
REF: p. 859
58. Seizures are caused by: a. shock. b. cardiac arrest. c. uncontrolled bleeding.
d. an abnormality in the brain. ANS: D 59.
During a partial seizure: a. a body part may jerk. b. the person loses consciousness. c. all muscles contract at once. d. incontinence occurs. ANS: A
60.
REF: p. 859
REF: p. 859
Which statement about generalized seizures is correct? a. The body is loose because all muscles relax at once. b. Jerking and twitching movements occur. c. Kidney stones and constipation may occur. d. First aid can stop the seizure. ANS: B
REF: p. 859
61. A person is having a seizure. Which is correct? a. Protect the person’s limbs. b. Position the person supine. c. Loosen tight clothing and jewelry. d. Try to move the person to the ground. ANS: C
REF: p. 859
ST 62. A person is having a seizurTeE .W hiB chAiNs K coSrE reL ctL ? a. Restrain the person’s movements. b. Offer fluids. c. Put your fingers between the person’s teeth. d. Stay with the person. ANS: D
REF: p. 859
63. Which of the following are at high risk for burns? a. Teenagers b. Middle-age adults c. Young adults d. Older persons ANS: D
REF: p. 861
64. Which statement about burns is correct? a. Partial-thickness burns are not very painful. b. In full-thickness burns, nerve endings are still intact. c. Arm and leg burns are more serious than burns to the face, eyes, ears, hands, and
feet. d. Burns may destroy fat, muscle, and bone. ANS: D
REF: p. 861
65. A person has electrical burns. The person is still in contact with the electrical source. What
should you do? a. Move the person from the electrical source. b. Do nothing until the power source is turned off. c. If possible, remove the electrical source with a piece of wood. d. Cover the person with moist towels. ANS: B
REF: p. 861
66. A person’s clothing is burned and hot. What should you do? a. Remove the burned clothes. b. Cool the clothing with water. c. Put butter or oil on the burns. d. Cover the burn with a blanket. ANS: B
REF: p. 861
67. A person has suffered burns. You should do which of the following? a. Remove clothing and replace with clean clothing. b. Cover the burns with sterile, dry coverings. c. Ask the person to rub the burns with a cool cloth. d. Remove clothing that sticks to the skin. ANS: B 68.
REF: p. 861
A person has fainted. What should you do? a. Lower the person to the ground safely. b. Lower the person’s legT s. c. Start CPR. d. Give rescue breaths. ANS: A
REF: p. 858
69. A person has fainted. You should do which of the following? a. Loosen tight clothing. b. Lower the person’s legs. c. Have the person walk around to stimulate circulation. d. Assist the person to a sitting position as he starts to wake up. ANS: A
REF: p. 858
70. A person has had a stroke. Basic emergency care includes which of the following? a. Positioning the person in a semi-Fowler’s position b. Raising the person’s head without flexing the neck c. Removing the person’s clothing d. Giving food and fluids ANS: B
REF: p. 858
71. A person has had a stroke. Which is correct? a. The EMS system must be activated. b. CPR is not typically necessary in the case of a stroke. c. Encourage the person to ambulate on the affected side.
d. The person needs fluids to prevent dehydration. ANS: A
REF: p. 858
72. Which statement about quality of life during emergencies is correct? a. The person is protected from unnecessary exposure. b. The right to personal choice is left up to the family. c. Onlookers have the right to know what happened. d. Personal items may be discarded during an emergency. ANS: A
REF: p. 863
73. Which will protect the person’s right to privacy during an emergency? a. Discussing the situation with onlookers b. Failing to keep onlookers away to the extent possible c. Exposing the person unnecessarily d. Keeping the person’s information confidential ANS: D
REF: p. 863
TRUE/FALSE 1. Some persons breathe through a stoma in the neck. Before starting mouth-to-mouth or
mouth-to-nose breathing, always check to see if the person has a stoma. ANS: T
REF: p. 850
2. Never practice CPR on anoTth peBrsAoN n. EeSr T ANS: T
REF: p. 863
3. Defibrillation as soon as possible after onset of ventricular fibrillation increases the person’s
chance of survival. ANS: T
REF: p. 852
4. The Basic Life Support sequence for infants does not involve defibrillation. ANS: F
REF: p. 853
5. The recovery position is not used if the person might have neck injuries or other trauma. ANS: T
REF: p. 853
Chapter 59: End-of-Life Care Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An advance directive is: a. the care plan. b. an order not to resuscitate the person. c. a document stating a person’s wishes about health care when that person cannot
make such decisions. d. a document stating the person’s wishes about life support measures. ANS: C
REF: p. 865
2. Post-mortem means: a. a diagnosis of death. b. after death. c. before death. d. the stiffness of skeletal muscles that occurs after death. ANS: B
REF: p. 865
3. Reincarnation is the belief that: a. the spirit or soul is reborn in another human body or in another form of life. b. the person is punished for sins and misdeeds in the afterlife. c. the body keeps its physical form in the afterlife. d. life after death is free oTf E suSffTeB rinAgNaKnS dE haLrdLsE hiRp. . COM ANS: A
REF: p. 865
4. Rigor mortis means: a. a diagnosis of death. b. after death. c. before death. d. the stiffness of skeletal muscles that occurs after death. ANS: D
REF: p. 865
5. A person has a terminal illness. This means that: a. the person will recover. b. the person will not likely recover. c. there is an end to the illness. d. the illness ends with a cure. ANS: B
REF: p. 865
6. The examination of the body after death is: a. rigor mortis. b. autopsy. c. reincarnation. d. resuscitation.
ANS: B
REF: p. 865
7. Your feelings about death: a. affect the care you give. b. are shared with the dying person. c. do not matter while at work. d. are shared with the nurse. ANS: A
REF: p. 865
8. Which statement concerning attitudes about death is correct? a. They are influenced by culture and religion. b. They are influenced by other’s opinions. c. They stay the same throughout adulthood. d. They are formed at birth. ANS: A
REF: p. 865
9. Which age-group understands that death is final? a. Infants and toddlers b. Children between the ages of 2 and 3 years c. Children between the ages of 4 and 5 years d. Teenagers ANS: D
REF: p. 867
10. Which age-group views death as temporary? a. Infants and toddlers b. Children between the ages of 2 and 6 years c. Children between the ages of 6 and 11 years d. Teenagers ANS: B
REF: p. 867
11. Which age-group views death as punishment for being bad? a. Infants and toddlers b. Children between the ages of 2 and 6 years c. Teenagers d. Young adults ANS: B
REF: p. 867
12. Children between the ages of 6 and 11 years: a. Fully understand death b. Learn that death is final c. Fear pain and suffering d. See death as reunion with those who have died ANS: B
REF: p. 867
13. During which stage of dying does the person sometimes envy and resent those with life and
health?
a. b. c. d.
Denial Anger Bargaining Depression
ANS: B
REF: p. 867
14. Older persons usually fear dying: a. in pain. b. alone. c. in a hospital. d. in a nursing center. ANS: B
REF: p. 866
15. According to Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, the five stages of dying are: a. denial, pain, sadness, bargaining, and acceptance. b. denial, pain, acceptance, hospice, and death. c. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. d. denial, anger, sadness, hospice, and acceptance. ANS: C
REF: p. 867
16. A person was told that she has cancer and that it cannot be treated. The person insists that the
reports are wrong. What stage of dying is the person in? a. Denial b. Anger c. Bargaining d. Depression ANS: A
REF: p. 867
17. A person is terminally ill. Her pain is severe. She blames the staff for her pain. She complains
about having to wait for pain-relief drugs. She also says that the staff is rough when they turn and reposition her. What stage of dying is she in? a. Denial b. Anger c. Bargaining d. Depression ANS: B
REF: p. 867
18. A person is terminally ill. Her doctor wants to talk to her about a “Do Not Resuscitate” order.
The person tells the doctor to “go away” and turns her back. What stage of dying is she in? a. Denial b. Bargaining c. Depression d. Acceptance ANS: A
REF: p. 867
19. A person is terminally ill. He is very quiet. You often find him reading his Bible. One day he
says, “I just want to see my grandson graduate from high school.” What stage of dying is the person in? a. Denial b. Bargaining c. Depression d. Acceptance ANS: B
REF: p. 867
20. A person is terminally ill. She seems sad, and you see tears in her eyes. What stage of dying is
she in? a. Denial b. Bargaining c. Depression d. Acceptance ANS: C
REF: p. 867
21. A person is terminally ill. He often talks about not being able to see his grandchildren grow
up. He talks about never being a great-grandfather. What stage of dying is he in? a. Denial b. Bargaining c. Depression d. Acceptance ANS: C
REF: p. 867
22. A person is terminally ill. She has given pieces of jewelry to each child. She also has selected
songs for her funeral. What stage of dying is she in? a. Denial b. Bargaining c. Depression d. Acceptance ANS: D
REF: p. 867
23. A patient is terminally ill. The person’s pastor comes for a visit. What should you do? a. Tell him that you need to give care in 10 minutes. b. Provide privacy. c. Ask if you can pray with him. d. Ask what he/she believes about the afterlife. ANS: B
REF: p. 867
24. A resident is dying. You would anticipate doing which of the following for the person? a. Continue to feed the person even if she does not want to eat. b. Provide extra blankets so that the person stays extra warm. c. Keep the room dark. d. Avoid bright lights and glares. ANS: D
REF: p. 867
25. A resident is dying. When communicating with the person, which is correct? a. Speak loudly. b. Assume that the person can no longer hear if he does not provide a response to
you. c. Ask open-ended questions which lead into a conversation. d. Offer words of comfort. ANS: D
REF: p. 868
26. A resident is dying. Which of the following would you anticipate being in the person’s care
plan? a. Provide oral hygiene every day. b. Add extra blankets or a bedspread. c. Change linens and gown as needed. d. Maintain prone position. ANS: C
REF: p. 868
27. A resident is dying. The person is incontinent of urine and feces. The person needs: a. a catheter and enemas. b. perineal care as needed. c. catheter care. d. bladder and bowel training. ANS: B
REF: p. 868
28. A patient is dying. Which will promote the person’s comfort? a. Reposition the person eTvE erSyTshBiA ft. b. Provide skin care and personal hygiene once per day. c. Give back massages if the person asks for it. d. Position the person in good alignment. ANS: D
REF: p. 868
29. A patient is dying. The person has trouble breathing. Which position will the person most
likely prefer? a. Prone b. Supine c. Dorsal recumbent d. Semi-Fowler’s ANS: D
REF: p. 868
30. A patient is dying. Which of the following measures promote comfort? a. Infrequent position changes to keep the person still b. Poor body alignment c. Supportive devices d. Friction and shearing ANS: C
REF: p. 868
31. A patient is dying. The person’s room is arranged: a. as the person and family wish.
b. to give efficient care. c. to provide privacy. d. so the person is near the bathroom. ANS: A
REF: p. 869
32. A patient is dying. His family is allowed to stay with him: a. until bedtime. b. as long as they wish. c. during scheduled visiting hours. d. during the day. ANS: B
REF: p. 869
33. A patient is dying. The person and his family have the right to: a. privacy. b. 3 meals a day. c. hospice care. d. home care. ANS: A
REF: p. 869
34. Hospice care focuses on: a. cure. b. life-saving measures. c. pain relief and comfort. d. advance directives. ANS: C
. 8S7T 2 REF: TpE
35. Which is an advance directive? a. A doctor’s order b. A “Do Not Resuscitate” order c. A living will d. A Dying Person’s Bill of Rights ANS: C
REF: p. 869
36. A dying person gave “durable power of attorney” to his daughter. This means that his
daughter: a. will inherit his money. b. can make his health care decisions when he cannot. c. can start measures that prolong his life. d. can remove measures that prolong his life. ANS: B
REF: p. 869
37. A resident is dying. The doctor wrote a “Do Not Resuscitate” order. You do not agree with the
order. Which is correct? a. You can start CPR if necessary. b. You do not have to follow the order. c. You must follow the order. d. You do not have to care for the person.
ANS: C
REF: p. 869
38. Which promotes quality of life? a. Exposing the body after death b. Providing privacy when the dying person is visiting with family and friends c. Explaining the person’s final moments to the family members and friends d. Allowing the friends and family to divide out the person’s clothes and belongings ANS: B
REF: p. 869
39. A resident is dying. Staff members go into the person’s room only when the family uses the
call light. Which is correct? a. The staff is providing privacy to the person and the family. b. The staff is abusing the person. c. The staff is neglecting the person. d. The staff is allowing personal choice. ANS: A
REF: p. 869
40. Signs that death is near include which of the following? a. Body temperature drops. b. The pulse is fast and weak. c. Blood pressure rises. d. Pain increases. ANS: B
REF: p. 870
41. Signs that death is near incT luEdS eT wB hiA chNoKfSthEeLfL olE loR w.inCgO ?M a. Loss of muscle tone b. A tense facial expression or grimace c. Deep respirations d. Gastro-intestinal functions increase ANS: A
REF: p. 870
42. Signs of death include which of the following? a. The pupils constrict b. Low pulse c. No respirations d. Low blood pressure ANS: C
REF: p. 870
43. Post-mortem care is done to: a. prevent rigor mortis. b. prevent the skin from changing color. c. maintain a good appearance of the body. d. clean the body. ANS: C
REF: p. 870
44. Before rigor mortis sets in, the body is:
a. b. c. d.
cleaned and dressed. taken to the funeral home. positioned in normal alignment. placed in a body bag or on a shroud.
ANS: C
REF: p. 870
45. Which health team member determines that death has occurred? a. A doctor b. An RN c. An RN or LPN/LVN d. Whoever is with the person at the time of death ANS: A
REF: p. 870
46. You are assisting with post-mortem care. The body produces sounds during turning and
re-positioning. Which is correct? a. The person is still alive. b. CPR must be started. c. The sounds are normal and expected. d. The sounds are signs of rigor mortis. ANS: C
REF: p. 871
47. You are assisting with post-mortem care. You must follow: a. medical asepsis and surgical asepsis. b. sterile technique and Isolation Precautions. c. Standard Precautions aT ndEtShT eB BA loN odKbS orEnL eL PaEthRo.gC enOSMtandard. d. the care plan. ANS: C
REF: p. 871
48. You are assisting with post-mortem care. Dentures are not inserted. What should you do with
them? a. Put them in the personal belongings envelope for the family. b. Ask what the family wants you to do with them. c. Put them in a denture container labeled with the person’s name. d. Put them in the body bag. ANS: C
REF: p. 871
49. In Vietnam, the preferred location of death is in the: a. long-term care facility. b. temple. c. hospital. d. home. ANS: D TRUE/FALSE
REF: p. 866
1. The right to privacy and the right to be treated with dignity and respect do not apply after
death. ANS: F
REF: p. 868
2. As death nears, hearing is one of the first functions lost. ANS: F
REF: p. 868
3. A patient has died. An autopsy will be done. Post-mortem care is not done. ANS: F
REF: p. 870
4. In the Chinese culture, autopsy and disposal of the body are not prescribed by religion;
however, donation of body parts is encouraged. ANS: T
REF: p. 866
5. Palliative care is the care of the body after death (post-mortem). ANS: F
REF: p. 866
Chapter 60: Getting a Job Sorrentino: Mosby’s Textbook for Nursing Assistants, 10th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. To complete a job application, you need to: a. read and follow the directions. b. prove that you are qualified for the job. c. schedule an interview. d. prepare answers to the questions. ANS: A
REF: p. 879
2. A question on a job application does not apply to you. What should you do? a. Write neatly. b. Leave the space blank. c. Write “N/A” in the space. d. Write a brief response about why the questions do not apply. ANS: C
REF: p. 879
3. You are completing a job application. How many references should you be prepared to give? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 ANS: D
REF: p. 879
4. You are completing a job application. You must be: a. honest. b. enthusiastic. c. courteous. d. cheerful. ANS: A
REF: p. 879
5. A person has not had a job in 4 years. The person should: a. write N/A in the blanks for those 4 years. b. give information regarding the employment gap on the application stating the
reason. c. do nothing; the interviewer will ask if they desire to know. d. write employed. ANS: B
REF: p. 879
6. You are getting ready for an interview. You should do which of the following? a. Make sure your clothes are brightly colored so that they display your personality. b. Take a bath and brush your teeth. c. Style your hair as if you are going to a party. d. Wear a heavy perfume.
ANS: B
REF: p. 879
7. You have a job interview scheduled. Which shows that you are dependable? a. Being clean b. Dressing professionally c. Giving the receptionist your name d. Being on time ANS: D
REF: p. 879
8. You arrive at Fair Haven Nursing Center for an interview. What should you do first? a. Stop in the restroom. b. Get something to drink. c. Give the receptionist your name. d. Take a walk through the center. ANS: C
REF: p. 881
9. You are in the waiting area before your interview. What should you do? a. Sit quietly. b. Eat your lunch. c. Talk to the receptionist. d. Look at things on the receptionist’s desk. ANS: A
REF: p. 881
10. During an interview, it is correct to do which of the following? a. Ask for a beverage. b. Shake the interviewer’s hand. c. Take things off the interviewer’s desk. d. Try not to look at the interviewer. ANS: B
REF: p. 881
11. Which answers are best during an interview? a. “Yes” and “no” answers b. Brief explanations c. Long explanations d. Written responses ANS: B
REF: p. 881
12. Which should you review with the interviewer? a. The nursing assistant registry b. Your competency evaluation c. Your job description d. Agency policies and procedures ANS: C
REF: p. 881
13. These statements are about job interviews. Which is correct? a. You can ask questions about pay rate and work hours.
b. You can ask questions about who you will be working with. c. You can ask about how soon you will get a raise. d. You can ask for a vacation in advance. ANS: A
REF: p. 881
14. You should write a thank-you note: a. within 24 hours after the interview. b. the week after the interview. c. 2 weeks after the interview. d. when you have the time. ANS: A
REF: p. 882
15. You accept a job at Fair Haven Nursing Center. You should get which of the following
information in writing? a. How they liked your interview? b. What time you will be given a lunch break each day? c. Work hours. d. What your references said about you? ANS: C
REF: p. 881-882
16. You accept a job at Fair Haven Nursing Center. Which occurs during new employee
orientation? a. You learn to be a preceptor. b. You learn about the patients you will be assigned to the next day. c. You demonstrate proceTdE urSesTtB heAnNuKrsSeE s dLoL. d. You learn how to use the center’s supplies and equipment. ANS: D
REF: p. 880
17. In order to work in home care, which of the following qualities are required? a. An ability to work in groups as a team b. Self-discipline c. The ability to drive fast so that you stay on schedule d. The ability to drive the person to all of his appointments ANS: B
REF: p. 876
18. In order to provide proof that you have completed the appropriate nursing assistant training
and competency evaluation program (NATCEP), you would give your employer which of the following documents at the interview? a. Your original certificate of completion b. A copy of the credit card receipt indicating you paid for the course c. A copy of your final exam indicating you passed the course d. A copy of your course transcript indicating successful completion of the course ANS: D TRUE/FALSE
REF: p. 876
1. During a video interview, it is appropriate and expected that your children will be loud and
playing in the background. ANS: F
REF: p. 881
2. During an in-person interview, it is appropriate to address the person by her first name so that
you initiate a casual conversation. ANS: F
REF: p. 881