TEST BANK for Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition by Sherer by Statkiewicz Shere

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank

Chapter 01: Introduction to Radiation Protection Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Consequences of ionization in human cells include

1. creation of unstable atoms.

2. production of free electrons.

3. creation of highly reactive free radicals capable of producing substances poisonous to the cell.

4. creation of new biologic molecules detrimental to the living cell.

5. injury to the cell that may manifest itself as abnormal function or loss of function. a. 1, 2, and 3 only b. 2, 3, and 4 only c. 3, 4, and 5 only d. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 ANS: D 2. Which of the following is a form of radiation that is capable of creating electrically charged

particles by removing orbital electrons from the atom of normal matter through which it passes? a. Ionizing radiation b. Nonionizing radiation c. Subatomic radiation d. Ultrasonic radiation ANS: A 3. Regarding exposure to ionizing radiation, patients who are educated to understand the medical

benefit of an imaging procedure are more likely to a. assume a small chance of biologic damage but not suppress any radiation phobia they may have. b. cancel their scheduled procedure because they are not willing to assume a small chance of biologic damage. c. suppress any radiation phobia but not risk a small chance of possible biologic damage. d. suppress any radiation phobia and be willing to assume a small chance of possible biologic damage.

ANS: D 4. The millisievert (mSv) is equal to a. 1/10 of a sievert. b. 1/100 of a sievert. c. 1/1000 of a sievert. d. 1/10,000 of a sievert.

ANS: C

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank 5. The advantages of the BERT method are

1. it does not imply radiation risk; it is simply a means for comparison.

2. it emphasizes that radiation is an innate part of our environment.

3. it provides an answer that is easy for the patient to comprehend. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 6. If a patient asks a radiographer a question about how much radiation he or she will receive

from a specific x-ray procedure, the radiographer can a. respond by using an estimation based on the comparison of radiation received from the x-ray to natural background radiation received. b. avoid the patient’s question by changing the subject. c. tell the patient that it is unethical to discuss such concerns. d. refuse to answer the question and recommend that he or she speak with the referring physician.

ANS: A 7. Why should the selection of technical exposure factors for all medical imaging procedures

always follow ALARA? a. So that referring physicians ordering imaging procedures do not have to accept responsibility for patient radiation safety. b. So that radiographers and radiologists do not have to accept responsibility for patient radiation safety. c. Because radiation-induced cancer does not appear to have a dose level below which individuals would have no chance of developing this disease. d. Because radiation-induced cancer does have a dose level at which individuals would have a chance of developing this disease.

ANS: C 8. The cardinal principles of radiation protection include which of the following?

1. Time 2. Distance 3. Shielding a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 9. In a hospital setting, which of the following professionals is expressly charged by the hospital

administration with being directly responsible for the execution, enforcement, and maintenance of the ALARA program? a. Assistant administrator of the facility b. Chief of staff

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank c. Radiation Safety Officer d. Student radiologic technologist ANS: C 10. Why is a question concerning the amount of radiation a patient will receive during a specific

x-ray procedure difficult to answer?

1. Because the received dose is specified in a number of different units of measure 2. Because the scientific units for radiation dose are normally not comprehensible by a patient 3. Because the patient should not receive any information about radiation dose a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 11. X-rays are a form of which of the following kinds of radiation? a. Environmental b. Ionizing c. Internal d. Nonionizing ANS: B 12. What unit is used to measure radiation exposure in the metric International System of Units? a. Coulomb per kilogram b. Milligray c. Millisievert d. Sievert ANS: A 13. What organization was founded in 2007 that continues their pursuit to raise awareness of the

need for dose reduction protocols by promoting pediatric-specified scan protocols to be used for both radiology and nonradiology users of CT? a. U.S. Food and Drug Administration b. Alliance for Radiation Safety in Pediatric Imaging. c. American Registry of Radiologic Technologists d. The Joint Commission ANS: B 14. Which of the following provides the basis for determining whether an imaging procedure

orpractice is justified? a. ALARA concept b. BERT method c. Diagnostic efficacy d. NEXT program ANS: C 15. Which of the following is a method of explaining radiation to the public?

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank a. b. c. d.

ALARA BERT ORP NEXT

ANS: B 16. Radiology departments or individual radiologic technologists can “pledge” to image gently.

The pledge includes which of the following?

1. Make the image gently message a priority in staff communications each year.

2. Review the protocol recommendations and, when necessary, implement adjustments to practice processes.

3. Communicate openly with parents. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 17. In a team approach to patient care, various participants

1. assume responsibility for their areas of expertise.

2. emphasize the importance of communication throughout the team 3. rotate as the person in charge of the team a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 18. Which of the following radiation quantities is intended to be the best overall measure of the

biologic effects of ionizing radiation? a. Exposure b. Effective dose c. Absorbed dose d. There is no radiation quantity that is intended to be the best overall measure of the biologic effects of ionizing radiation.

ANS: B 19. Typically, people are more willing to accept a risk if they perceive that the potential benefit to

be obtained is a. greater than the risk involved. b. equal to the risk involved. c. less than the risk involved. d. typically, people are not willing to accept risk no matter how great the benefit may be.

ANS: A 20. Which of the following statements below is true?

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank a. b. c. d.

It appears that no safe dose level exists for radiation-induced malignant disease.

The ALARA principle establishes a dose level for radiation-induced malignancy.

The BERT method establishes a dose level for radiation-induced malignancy.

The NEXT program and reference values establish a dose level for radiation-induced malignancy.

ANS: A 21. The ALARA principle provides a method for comparing the amount of radiation used in

various health care facilities in a particular area for specific imaging procedures. This information may be helpful to many a. accrediting bodies. b. advisory groups. c. radiation standards organizations. d. regulatory agencies.

ANS: D 22. The term as low as reasonable achievable (ALARA) is synonymous with the term a. background equivalent radiation time (BERT). b. equivalent dose (EqD). c. diagnostic efficacy. d. optimization for radiation protection (ORP).

ANS: D 23. Diagnostic efficacy includes

1. determining if an imaging procedure is justified.

NURSING TB.COM 2. obtaining images with minim al radiation exposure.

3. adhering to radiation safety guidelines.

4. revealing the presence or absence of disease in a patient. a. 1, 2, and 3 only b. 1, 2, and 4 only c. 2, 3, and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4 ANS: D 24. Which of the following are required by The Joint Commission for CT?

1. Annual education of staff in dose reduction techniques 2. Minimum qualifications for medical physicists 3. Documentation of CT radiation doses 4. Management of CT protocols to minimize radiation dose a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4 ANS: D 25. Effective protective measures take into consideration

1. both human and environmental physical determinants.

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank 2. technical elements.

3. procedural factors. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank

Chapter 02: Radiation: Types, Sources, and Doses Received Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. If ionizing radiation from natural sources grows larger because of accidental or deliberate

human actions such as mining radioactive elements, the sources are termed a. artificial sources. b. enhanced natural sources. c. extraterrestrial sources. d. manmade sources.

ANS: B 2. Electromagnetic radiation travels or propagates through space in the form of a wave but can

interact with matter as a particle of energy called a photon. This dual nature is referred to as a. wave attenuation capability. b. wave-particle interchange ability. c. wave-particle duality. d. wave-particle phenomena.

ANS: C 3. Which of the following statements concerning the 1979 nuclear reactor accident at TMI-2 is

not true? a. Many excess cancer deaths have been predicted to occur in the 2 million people

living within 50 miles of N thU eR plS anIt N atGthTeBti. mC eO ofMthe accident.

b. During the time of the accident, if persons living within a 100-mile radius of the

nuclear power plant received an average radiation exposure of 15 microgray, and this dose is used as the population dose, then no more than two additional resulting cancer deaths can be predicted in the exposed inhabitants as a consequence of radiation exposure. c. The average dose received by the exposed population living within a 50-mile radius of the TMI nuclear power station at the time of the accident was determined to be 0.08 mSv, which is well below the average annual background level. d. No melt-through of the reactor vessel resulted during the accident.

ANS: A 4. Terrestrial radiation includes which of the following sources? a. Long-lived radioactive elements such as uranium-238, radium-226, and

thorium-232 that are present in variable quantities in the crust of the earth b. Radioactive fallout from nuclear weapons tests in which detonation occurred

above ground c. The sun and beyond the solar system d. Airport surveillance systems and electron microscopes ANS: A

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank 5. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) recommends that action be taken to reduce

elevated levels of radon in homes to a concentration less than a. 200 pCi/L. b. 135 pCi/L. c. 47 pCi/L. d. 4 pCi/L. ANS: D 6. Cosmic radiation occurs in which two forms? a. Solar and manmade b. Artificial and galactic c. Natural background and artificial d. Solar and galactic ANS: D 7. As a result of technologic advances since the 1970s and strict regulations imposed within the

United States by the FDA regarding consumer products containing radioactive material, the radiation exposure of the general public from such produces may now be considered a. substantial. b. moderate. c. very slight. d. negligible.

ANS: D 8. Through which of the followN ing R routI es cG an rB ad.oC n enMter houses?

1. Crawl spaces under living arU easS 2. Floor drains and sump pumps 3. Porous cement block foundations a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

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ANS: D 9. Acute melting of the uranium dioxide fuel of a nuclear reactor core requires how great a

temperature? a. Less than 500 F b. At least 1000 F c. 2000 F d. Greater than 5000 F ANS: D 10. When exposed to high radon levels in the home, which of the following groups of people have

the highest risk of developing lung cancer? a. Teenagers b. Adults from 20 to 30 years of age c. Nonsmokers

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank d. Smokers ANS: D 11. Which of the following helps shield the global population from exposure to essentially all

high-energy, bombarding cosmic rays? a. Clouds b. Fog c. Atmosphere and magnetic field of the Earth d. Smog ANS: C 12. Which of the following is considered by the EPA to be the second leading cause of lung

cancer in the United States? a. Annual PA and lateral chest radiographic images b. Cosmic ray exposure c. Radon exposure d. A fluoroscopic examination of the upper gastrointestinal tract ANS: C 13. Which of the following are forms of electromagnetic radiation?

1. Microwaves 2. Visible light 3. X-rays 4. Gamma rays 5. Ultraviolet radiation a. 1, 2, and 3 only b. 2, 3, and 4 only c. 3, 4, and 5 only d. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 ANS: D 14. What is the most common unit of measure of equivalent dose? a. Coulomb per kilogram b. Milligray c. Millisievert d. Microsievert ANS: C 15. In the electromagnetic spectrum, higher frequencies are associated with a. longer wavelengths and lower energies. b. longer wavelengths and higher energies. c. shorter wavelengths and lower energies. d. shorter wavelengths and higher energies.

ANS: D 16. Which of the following radiation quantities use the same unit of measure?

1. Effective dose and equivalent dose

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank 2. Exposure and effective dose 3. Absorbed dose and equivalent dose a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 17. A flight on a typical commercial airliner results in an equivalent dose rate of a. 0.001 to 0.005 mSv/hr. b. 0.005 to 0.01 mSv/hr. c. 0.02 to 0.04 mSv/hr. d. 0.05 to 0.09 mSv/hr.

ANS: B 18. The first decay product of radium is a. cesium. b. radon. c. strontium. d. x-ray.

ANS: B 19. When spread over the inhabitants of the United States, fallout from nuclear weapons tests and

other environmental sources along with other manmade radiations contributes a. only a small portion of 0.1 mSv to the equivalent dose of each person.

N RSINGTB.COM b. a dose of approximately 1.5UmS v to the equivalent dose of each person. c. a dose of approximately 3.2 mSv to the equivalent dose of each person. d. a dose of approximately 6.3 mSv to the equivalent dose of each person.

ANS: A 20. What is the total average annual radiation equivalent dose for estimated levels of radiation

exposure for humans? a. 2.0 mSv b. 3.2 mSv c. 6.3 mSv d. 9.6 mSv ANS: C 21. The mass of an alpha particle is approximately a. two times the mass of a hydrogen atom and a negative charge of minus 2. b. four times the mass of a hydrogen atom and a positive charge twice that of an

electron. c. six times the mass of a hydrogen atom and a negative charge of minus 1. d. eight times the mass of a hydrogen atom and a positive charge four times that of an

electron.

ANS: B

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank 22. What is the half-life of radon-220? a. 54.5 seconds b. 8 days c. 2 years d. 1622 years ANS: A 23. Which of the following sources of radiation is manmade?

1. Atmospheric fallout from nuclear weapons testing 2. Cosmic radiation from the sun and beyond the solar system 3. Nuclear power plant accidents as a consequence of natural disasters a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B 24. What is the latent period for most radiation-induced cancers? a. 1 year b. 5 years c. 7 years d. 15 years or more ANS: D 25. Of the two sources of ionizinN g raR diatI ionG listeBd.bC elow M, which source remains fairly constant

from year to year? a. Manmade b. Natural ANS: B

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Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank

Chapter 03: Interaction of X-Radiation with Matter Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Particles associated with electromagnetic radiation that have neither mass nor electric charge

are a. b. c. d.

ions. negatrons. positrons. x-ray photons.

ANS: D 2. Although coherent scattering is most likely to occur

, some of this unmodified scattering occurs throughout the diagnostic range and may result in small amounts of radiographic fog. a. at less than 10 keV b. between 30 keV and 60 keV c. between 60 keV and 90 keV d. above 100 keV ANS: A

3. Which of the following is not a type of interaction between x-radiation and biologic matter? a. Compton scattering b. Bremsstrahlung c. Pair production d. Photoelectric absorption ANS: B 4. The symbol Z indicates a. atomic number of an atom. b. atomic weight of an atom. c. fluorescent yield. d. the number of vacancies in an atomic shell.

ANS: A 5. In photoelectric absorption to dislodge an inner-shell electron from its atomic orbit, the

incoming x-ray photon must be able to transfer a quantity of energy a. less than the energy that holds the atom together. b. 10 times as great as the energy that holds the atom together. c. as large as or larger than the amount of energy that holds the electron in its orbit. d. equal to or greater than 1.022 MeV, regardless of the energy that holds the electron in its orbit.

ANS: C

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank 6. Which of the following interactions between x-ray photons with matter involve a

matter–antimatter annihilation reaction? a. Compton scattering b. Coherent scattering c. Pair production d. Photoelectric absorption ANS: C 7. The probability of occurrence of photoelectric absorption

as the energy of the incident photon decreases and the atomic number of the irradiated atoms _ . a. increases markedly; decreases b. decreases markedly; increases c. increases markedly; increases d. stays the same; increases ANS: C

8. Which of the following terms refers to the radiation that occurs when an electron

spontaneously drops down from an outer shell of an ionized atom to fill a vacancy in an inner shell of that atom? a. Characteristic photon, or characteristic x-ray b. Bremsstrahlung c. Photoelectric radiation d. Primary radiation ANS: A

N R I

9. Fluorescent radiation is also knU owS n as a. characteristic radiation. b. coherent scattering. c. Compton scattering. d. unmodified scattering.

ANS: A 10. What is the effective atomic number of compact bone? a. 5.9 b. 7.4 c. 7.6 d. 13.8 ANS: D 11. Which of the following is not another term for coherent scattering? a. Characteristic b. Classical c. Elastic d. Unmodified ANS: A 12. Which of the following are by-products of photoelectric absorption?

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank a. b. c. d.

Photoelectron and Compton-scattered electron Low-energy scattered x-ray photon and characteristic photon Low-energy scattered x-ray photon and Compton-scattered electron Photoelectron and characteristic photon

ANS: D 13. Which two interactions between x-radiation and matter may result in the production of

small-angle scatter? a. Photoelectric absorption and Compton scattering b. Coherent scattering and Compton scattering c. Photoelectric absorption and pair production d. Coherent scattering and pair production ANS: B 14. Which of the following particles is considered to be a form of antimatter? a. Electron b. Positron c. X-ray photon d. Scattered x-ray photon ANS: B 15. Which of the following interactions results in the conversion of matter into energy? a. Classical scattering b. Photoelectric absorption c. Modified scattering d. Annihilation reaction ANS: D 16. Compton scattering is synonymous with a. coherent scattering. b. incoherent scattering. c. photoelectric absorption. d. photodisintegration.

ANS: B 17. During the process of coherent scattering, an incident low-energy x-ray photon interacts with a. a single inner-shell electron, ejecting it from its orbit. b. a single outer-shell electron, ejecting it from its orbit. c. an atom and may transfer its energy by causing some or all of the electrons of the

atom to momentarily vibrate and radiate energy in the form of electromagnetic waves. d. a scattered photon of lesser energy, annihilating it.

ANS: C 18. What is the term for the number of x-rays emitted per inner-shell vacancy during the process

of photoelectric absorption? a. Characteristic absorption

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank b. Classical gain c. Fluorescent yield d. Modified pair production ANS: C 19. Which of the following results in all-directional scatter? a. Classical interaction b. Coherent interaction c. Photoelectric interaction d. Compton interaction ANS: D 20. Annihilation radiation is used in which of the following modalities? a. Computed tomography b. Digital mammography c. Positron emission tomography d. Computed radiography ANS: C 21. The x-ray photon energy required to initiate pair production is a. 0.511 keV. b. 1.022 keV. c. 0.511 MeV. d. 1.022 MeV. ANS: D 22. If two anatomic structures have the same density and atomic number but one is twice as thick

as the other, the thicker structure will absorb a. the same number of x-ray photons. b. twice as many x-ray photons. c. four times the number of x-ray photons. d. eight times the number of x-ray photons.

ANS: B 23. Since the density of air is approximately

than that of soft tissue, a given volume of air will interact with far fewer x-ray photons than adjacent regions of soft tissue, thereby permitting more radiation to reach the image receptor. a. 1000 times smaller b. 1000 times larger c. 100 times smaller d. 100 times lager ANS: A

24. When an inner electron is removed from an atom in a photoelectric interaction, thus causing

an inner-shell vacancy, the energy liberated when this vacancy is filled can be transferred to another electron of the atom, thereby ejecting that electron, instead of emerging from the atom as characteristic radiation. What is this electron called?

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank a. b. c. d.

Auger electron Compton electron Edison electron Sievert electron

ANS: A 25. X-rays are carriers of a. disease. b. electrons. c. fluorescent properties that make them visible. d. manmade electromagnetic energy.

ANS: D

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank

Chapter 04: Radiation Quantities and Units Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Who was the first American radiation worker to die from radiation-induced cancer in October

of 1904? a. Thomas A. Edison b. Wilhelm C. Roentgen c. Clarence Madison Dally d. Marie Curie ANS: C 2. Which of the following are early tissue reactions of ionizing radiation that were experienced

by early radiation workers?

1. Diffuse redness of skin 2. Blood disorders 3. Organ atrophy 4. Intestinal disorders a. 1, 2, and 3 only b. 2, 3, and 4 only c. 1, 2, and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4 ANS: C 3. 0.2 Gy equals a. 2 mGy b. 20 mGy c. 200 mGy d. 2000 mGy ANS: C 4. The total kinetic energy released in a unit mass (kilogram) of air and expressed in metric units

of joules per kilogram is a. absorbed dose. b. air kerma. c. effective dose. d. equivalent dose.

ANS: B 5. Which of the following is essentially the sum total of air kerma over the exposed area of the

patient’s body surface? a. Absorbed dose b. Dose area product c. Effective dose d. Equivalent dose

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank ANS: B 6. The whole-body TEDE regulatory limit for exposed personnel is

and

for the general public. a. 0.05 Sv; 0.001 Sv b. 0.15 Sv; 0.015 Sv c. 0.25 Sv; 0.025 Sv d. 0.5 Sv; 0.1 Sv ANS: A 7. As the intensity of x-ray exposure of the air volume increases, the number of electron–ion

pairs produced a. also increases. b. decreases considerably. c. decreases slightly. d. remains the same.

ANS: A 8. What do radiation weighting factors take into consideration?

1. The overall risk of exposure to humans from ionizing radiation 2. Both the internal and external dose measurements 3. The fact that some types of radiation are more efficient at causing biologic damage than other types of radiation for a given dose. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 9. 1 gray equals a. 10 J/kg. b. 100 J/kg. c. 100 cGy. d. 1000 cGy. ANS: C 10. In the SI system, an energy absorption of 1 J/kg of matter in the irradiated object equals which

of the following? a. 10 Sv b. 5 C/kg c. 1 mSv d. 1 Gy ANS: D 11. Cataract formation, fibrosis, reduced fertility and sterility are classified as a. early tissue reactions of ionizing radiation. b. late tissue reactions of ionizing radiation.

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank c. hereditary effects of ionizing radiation. d. stochastic effects of ionizing radiation.

ANS: B 12. Which of the following types of ionizing radiation produce virtually the same biologic effect

in body tissue for equal absorbed doses? a. X-rays, beta particles, and gamma rays b. Alpha particles, beta particles, and gamma rays c. X-rays, neutrons, and gamma rays d. X-rays, alpha particles, and fast neutrons ANS: A 13. What theory relates the ionization produced in a small cavity within an irradiated medium or

object to the energy absorbed in that medium as a result of its radiation exposure? a. Air kerma b. Bragg-Gray c. Committed dose d. Tissue kerma ANS: B 14. If 400 people receive an average effective dose of 0.25 Sv, what is the collective effective

dose? a. 100 person-Sv b. 200 person-Sv c. 800 person-Sv d. 1600 person-Sv ANS: A 15. For x-ray and gamma ray photons with energies up to 3 million electron volts (MeV), which

of the following radiation quantities may be defined as the measure of the total electric charge of one sign, either all pluses or all minuses, per unit mass that these two types of radiation generate in dry air at standard temperature and pressure (760 mm Hg or 1 atmosphere at sea level and 22 C)? a. Absorbed dose b. Equivalent dose c. Exposure d. Collective effective dose ANS: C 16. Which of the following formulas is used to calculate effective dose?

1. EfD = (D  WR)1 + (D  WR)2 + (D  WR)3 2. EfD = D  WR  WT 3. EfD = D ÷ WR  WT a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank

ANS: B 17. Alpha particles have a radiation weighting factor (WR) that is numerically equal to a. 1. b. 5. c. 10. d. 20.

ANS: D 18. Which of the following units of measure are not SI units?

1. Roentgens 2. Coulombs per kilogram, grays, sieverts 3. Rads and rems a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1 and 3 only ANS: D 19. How is dose area product usually specified? a. In coulomb per kilogram b. In ergs per gram c. In subunits of millisievert d. In units of mGy-cm2 ANS: D 20. What instrument can be calibrated to read air kerma? a. Amp meter b. Coulomb counter c. Standard, or free-air, ionization chamber d. Voltmeter ANS: C 21. Which of the following is the SI unit of electric current? a. Ampere b. Coulomb per kilogram c. Erg d. Sievert ANS: A 22. Beta particles are actually a. gamma rays. b. high-speed electrons. c. protons. d. x-rays.

ANS: B

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank

23. Among physicians, cancer deaths attributed to x-ray exposure were reported as early as a. 1910. b. 1930. c. 1937. d. 1945.

ANS: A 24. In therapeutic radiology what SI units are now routinely used to specify absorbed dose? a. Coulomb per kilogram and roentgen b. Air kerma and microgray c. Gray and centigray d. Sievert and millisievert ANS: C 25. Who discovered x-rays on November 8, 1895? a. Thomas A. Edison b. Clarence Madison Dally c. Louis Harold Gray d. Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen ANS: D

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank

Chapter 05: Radiation Monitoring Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Three different filters are incorporated into the detector packet of the optically stimulated

luminescence dosimeter. Of what are these filters made? a. Aluminum, tin, and copper b. Aluminum, tin, and lead c. Zinc, copper, and barium d. Zinc, copper, and lead ANS: A 2. What is the maximum period of time that a thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD) may be worn

as a personnel device? a. 1 hour b. 1 week c. 1 month d. 3 months ANS: D 3. What do optically stimulated luminescence dosimeters, thermoluminescent dosimeters, pocket

ionization chambers, and digital ionization dosimeters have in common? a. These devices are all used for area monitoring.

Ba.teCriO b. These devices all use theN saUmReS seInN siG ngTm alMto detect ionizing radiation. c. These devices are all used for personnel monitoring. d. Each of these devices can only be used for personnel monitoring for a maximum of 6 months.

ANS: C 4. Which of the following instruments is called a cutie pie? a. Geiger-Muller survey meter b. Ionization chamber-type survey meter c. Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter d. Proportional counter ANS: B 5. Which of the following instruments generally has a check source of a weak, long-lived

radioisotope located on one side of its external surface to verify its constancy daily? a. Pocket dosimeter b. Proportional counter c. Geiger-Muller survey meter d. Ionization chamber-type survey meter ANS: C 6. Which of the following devices contains an aluminum oxide detector?

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank a. b. c. d.

Digital ionization dosimeter Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter Pocket ionization chamber Thermoluminescent dosimeter

ANS: B 7. When the sensing crystals contained in the thermoluminescent dosimeter are irradiated, which

of the following occurs? a. The protons in the crystalline lattice structure of the LiF molecule absorb energy and are excited to a higher energy level or bands. b. The neutrons in the crystalline lattice structure of the LiF molecule absorb energy and are excited to a higher energy level or bands. c. Some of the electrons in the crystalline lattice structure of the LiF molecule absorb energy and are excited to higher energy levels or bands. d. The electrons freed from the LiF molecule are trapped at a lower energy level or bands.

ANS: C 8. Because of the OSL dosimeter’s sensitivity down to as low as 10 µSv for x-ray and gamma

ray photons in the energy range 5 keV to 40 MeV, it is an excellent and practical monitoring device for a. employees working in high-radiation environments and for non-pregnant workers. b. employees working in low-radiation environments and for pregnant workers. c. members of the general public not occupationally employed. d. Pregnant employees working in high-radiation environments.

ANS: B 9. The effective atomic number (Zeff) of lithium fluoride (LiF) is equal to a. 5.9. b. 6.4. c. 7.0. d. 8.2.

ANS: D 10. Which of the following are advantages of the personnel digital ionization dosimeter?

1. Instant access to reports 2. No waiting time for mailing dosimeters 3. Lightweight and durable 4. Can be dropped or scratched with little chance of harm to the device a. 1, 2, and 3 only b. 1, 2, and 4 only c. 2, 3, and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4 ANS: D 11. Which of the following personnel dosimeters resembles an ordinary fountain pen externally? a. Personnel digital ionization dosimeter

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank b. Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter c. Pocket ionization chamber d. Thermoluminescent dosimeter ANS: C 12. Of the following, which are disadvantages of using pocket ionization chambers as personnel

dosimeters?

1. They can discharge if they are subjected to mechanical shock.

2. Because these devices provide no permanent legal record of exposure, health care facilities that use this method to record personnel exposure must delegate someone to keep such a record.

3. If not read each day, the dosimeter may give an inaccurate reading because the electric charge tends to escape. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 13. Which component(s) of the Geiger-Muller survey meter alerts the operator to the presence of

ionizing radiation? a. The shield covering the probe’s sensitivity chamber b. An audio amplifier and speaker c. The metal that encloses the counter’s gas-filled tube d. The meter scale ANS: B 14. Which of the following is not a requirement that radiation survey instruments must meet? a. They must all be equally sensitive in the detection of ionizing radiation. b. They should be able to detect all common types of ionizing radiation. c. They should be calibrated annually to ensure accurate operation. d. They should interact with ionizing radiation similarly to the way human tissue

reacts.

ANS: A 15. Medical physicists use ionization chambers connected to electrometers to perform the annual

standard measurements required by state, federal, and health care accreditation organizations for radiographic and fluoroscopic devices. These annual measurements include 1. x-ray output in Gy or mGy. 2. fluoroscopic radiation entrance rates in mSv/min.

3. kVp setting accuracy.

4. exposure time exactness.

5. half-value layers, or beam quality a. 1, 2, and 3 only b. 1, 3, and 4 only c. 2, 3, and 5 only d. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank ANS: D 16. When changing employment, what must a radiation worker convey to his/her new employer? a. A list of all fluoroscopic procedures performed daily b. A list of all radiographic procedures performed daily c. Data pertinent to accumulated permanent equivalent dose to be placed on file d. A report of all procedures performed when “on call” after regular hours ANS: C 17. The digital ionization dosimeter provides an instant read-out of dose information when

connected to a computer via a connector such as a (an) a. universal serial bus (USB). b. charge-coupled device. c. electrometer. d. ionization chamber.

ANS: A 18. The front of the white paper packet of the optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeter a. may be color coded to facilitate correct usage and placement of the dosimeter on

the body of occupationally exposed personnel. b. must not have any type of printing on it. c. must be radiopaque. d. must never be exposed to ionizing radiation.

ANS: A

N R I G B.C M

19. Three different filters are incorU porS atedNintoTthe deO tector packet of the optically stimulated

luminescence (OSL) dosimeter. These filters are respectively made of 1. aluminum.

2. copper.

3. molybdenum.

4. rhenium tungsten.

5. tin. a. 1, 2, and 3 only b. 1, 2, and 4 only c. 1, 2, and 5 only d. 2, 4, and 5 only ANS: C 20. An ionization chamber connected to an electrometer is a device that can measure a. electromagnetic force. b. tiny electric currents with high precision and accuracy. c. potential difference. d. Voltage in an x-ray machine circuit.

ANS: B 21. Which of the following personnel monitoring devices can be used to provide an immediate

exposure readout for a radiation worker?

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank 1. Personnel digital ionization dosimeter 2. Optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter without an in-house reader 3. Pocket ionization chamber 4. Thermoluminesence dosimeter a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 1 and 4 only d. 2 and 4 only ANS: B 22. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the optically stimulated dosimeter? a. Exposure not determinable on the day of occurrence without an in-house reader b. Mechanical shock can cause false high reading. c. No permanent, legal record of exposure d. Not cost-effective for large numbers of personnel ANS: A 23. Whenever the letter “M” appears under the current monitoring period or in the cumulative

columns of a personnel monitoring report, it signifies that a (an) a. mistake has been made in recording the equivalent dose. b. equivalent dose higher than the minimum measurable radiation quantity was recorded during that time. c. equivalent dose below the minimum measurable radiation quantity was recorded during that time. d. maximal equivalent dose has been exceeded during that time.

ANS: C

NURSINGTB.COM

24. The optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeter is “read out” by using a (an) a. densitometer. b. ionization chamber. c. thermoluminescent analyzer. d. laser light at selected frequencies.

ANS: D 25. Some of the advantages of the optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) dosimeter are

1. can be used for up to 1 year.

2. lightweight, durable, and easy to carry.

3. integrated, self-contained, preloaded packet. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank

Chapter 06: Overview of Cell Biology Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In general, which of the following can human cells do?

1. Move, grow, react, and protect themselves 2. Repair damage and regulate life processes 3. Reproduce a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 2. Inorganic materials are compounds that a. contain only very small amounts of carbon. b. contain moderate amounts of carbon. c. contain large amounts of carbon. d. do not contain carbon.

ANS: D 3. Antibodies are protein molecules produced by specialized cells in the bone marrow called a. B lymphocytes. b. R lymphocytes. c. megakaryocytes. d. oocytes.

NURSINGTB.COM

ANS: A 4. The steps, or rungs, of the DNA ladder-like structure consist of complementary chemicals that

are a. b. c. d.

acetic acids. fatty acids. pairs of nitrogenous bases. sugar–phosphate compounds.

ANS: C 5. Which of the following are compounds called purines?

1. Adenine and cytosine 2. Adenine and guanine 3. Adenine and thymine a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank

6. The much smaller structures that make up nucleic acids are called a. carbohydrates. b. fatty acids. c. nucleotides. d. polysaccharides.

ANS: C 7. Which of the following serves as a prototype for messenger RNA (mRNA)? a. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) b. Nitric acid (HNO3) c. Potassium (K) and sodium (Na) d. Transfer RNA (tRNA) ANS: A 8. The cell components that contain the centrioles are the a. centrosomes. b. Golgi apparatus and mitochondria. c. lysosomes. d. ribosomes.

ANS: A 9. What do the highly organized enzymes in the inner membranes of the mitochondria break

down?

1. Carbohydrates 2. Fats 3. Proteins a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 10. During which of the following subphases of mitosis do the centrioles migrate to opposite sides

of the cell and begin to regulate the formation of the mitotic spindle? a. Anaphase b. Metaphase c. Prophase d. Telophase ANS: C 11. In the human body mineral salts are necessary for

1. proper cell function.

2. creation of energy.

3. conduction of impulses along nerves. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 12. Which of the following cause an increase in cellular activity that in turn causes biochemical

reactions to occur more rapidly to meet the needs of the cell in stressful situations? a. Acetic acids b. Enzymes c. Hormones d. Nucleic acids ANS: B 13. How many different amino acids are involved in protein synthesis in humans? a. 7 b. 15 c. 22 d. 39 ANS: C 14. A nucleotide is formed from a nitrogen-containing organic base, a

molecule, and a phosphate molecule. a. three-carbon sugar b. five-carbon sugar c. seven-carbon sugar d. nine-carbon sugar ANS: B 15. Cytosine bonds only with a. adenine. b. guanine. c. nitrogen. d. thymine.

ANS: B 16. Which of the following are major tasks of the cytoplasm?

1. Accepts and builds up unrefined materials and assembles from these materials new substances such as carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.

2. Breaks down organic materials to produce energy.

3. Packages substances for distribution to other areas of the cell or to various sites in the body through the circulation.

4. Eliminates waste products. a. 1, 2, and 3 only b. 1, 3, and 4 only c. 2, 3, and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4 ANS: D

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank 17. Which of the following is/are considered to be acellular tissue? a. Bone b. Fat c. Muscle d. Hair and nails ANS: D 18. Adenine bonds only with a. cytosine. b. guanine. c. hydrogen. d. thymine.

ANS: D 19. What should the constant core temperature of the human body be? a. 28 C b. 37 C c. 43 C d. 57 C ANS: B 20. Lysosomes are sometimes referred to as “suicide bags,” because the enzymes they contain can

break down and digest not only proteins and certain carbohydrates but also the cell itself should the lysosome’s surrounding membrane rupture. Exposure to radiation may induce such a rupture. When this occurs w ll ha Nhat URwiSI NGppe TBn .toCthe OMcell? a. It will multiply spontaneously. b. It will divide very rapidly. c. It is likely to die. d. There will not be any effect on the cell.

ANS: C 21. What is any chemical reaction in which atoms lose electrons called? a. Synthesis b. Oxidation c. Osmosis d. Metabolism ANS: B 22. During mitosis, which phase of the cellular life cycle is the actual DNA synthesis period? a. G1 b. G2 c. M d. S ANS: D

Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography 8th Edition Sherer Test Bank 23. During what phase of mitosis are the centromeres severed followed by the sister chromatids

moving apart and are then subsequently pulled toward opposite poles of the mitotic spindle? a. Prophase b. Metaphase c. Anaphase d. Telophase ANS: C 24. What is a highly coiled strand that is one of two duplicated portions of DNA in a replicated

chromosome that appears during cell division identified as? a. A centrosome b. A centromere c. A chromatid d. A curl ANS: C 25. Fraternal twins may also be referred to as a. dizygotic twins. b. monozygotic twins. c. polyzygotic twins. d. trizygotic twins.

ANS: A

Chapter 07: Molecular and Cellular Radiation Biology Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A biologic reaction is produced by 4 Gyt of a test radiation. It takes 16 Gyt of 250-kVp x-rays

to produce the same biologic reaction. What is the relative biologic effectiveness (RBE) of the test radiation? a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 12 ANS: B 2. Which of the following is/are considered low-LET radiation(s)?

1. X-rays 2. Alpha particles 3. Gamma rays a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 2 and 3 only ANS: C 3. The radiation dose required to produce mitotic death is a. less than the dose needed to produce apoptosis in slowly dividing cells or

nondividing cells. b. more than the dose needed to produce apoptosis in slowly dividing cells or

nondividing cells. c. the same as the dose needed to produce apoptosis in slowly dividing cells or

nondividing cells. d. nonexistent because mitotic death cannot be produced in slowly dividing cells or

nondividing cells as a result of exposure to ionizing radiation.

ANS: A 4. Because the genetic information to be passed on to future generations is contained in the strict

sequence of nitrogenous bases, the loss or change of a base in the DNA chain represents a (an) aneuploidy. bleb. covalent cross-link. mutation.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

5. Because the master molecule is unique in any given cell, no similar molecules in the cell are

available to replace it; if a critical location on the master molecule is a target receiving multiple hits from ionizing radiation, the master molecule may be inactivated. If this occurs, what is the consequence for the affected cell? a. Loss of all intracellular fluid b. Increased pressure on the cell membrane leading to immediate rupture c. Disruption of cell chemistry only d. Normal cell function will cease, and the cell will die.

ANS: D 6. Which of the following curves illustrates the radiation sensitivity of a particular type of cell? a. Cell specialization curve b. Cell extrapolation curve c. Dose–response curve d. Cell survival curve ANS: D 7. Which of the following groups of cells is least radiosensitive? a. Adult nerve cells b. Nerve cells in an embryo-fetus c. Lymphocytes d. Immature spermatogonia ANS: A 8. OH* + OH* = a. H2O b. HOH+ c. HOHd. H2O2

.

ANS: D 9. Which of the following humans is most radiosensitive? a. A mature adult b. An embryo-fetus during the first trimester of pregnancy c. A fetus during the third trimester of gestation d. A 5-year-old child ANS: B 10. When free radicals previously produced by the interaction of radiation with water molecules

act on a molecule such as DNA, the damaging action of ionizing radiation is indirect in the sense that the radiation is not the immediate cause of injury to the macromolecule. What is the immediate cause of this damage? a. Excitation of the atoms of the biologic macromolecules b. Enzymes released from biologic macromolecules c. The recombining of a positively charged water molecule with an electron d. The free radicals produced by the interaction of radiation with water molecules

ANS: D 11. The normal white blood cell count for an adult ranges from a. 1000 to 5000/mm3 of blood. b. 3000 to 6000/mm3 of blood. c. 5000 to 10,000/mm3 of blood. d. 7000 to 15,000/mm3 of blood.

ANS: C 12. One micron (mm) = a. 10-6 m b. 10+6 m c. 10-3 m d. 10+3 m

.

ANS: A 13. A periodic blood count is not recommended as a method for monitoring occupational radiation

exposure because 1. biologic damage from ionizing radiation cannot be determined from a blood test.

2. biologic damage has already been sustained when an irregularity is seen in the blood count.

3. a traditional blood count is a relatively insensitive test that is unable to indicate exposures of less than 10 cGy. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 2 and 3 only ANS: D 14. Based on current data, which of the following would be considered a safe radiation dose for

the gonads of both males and females?

5 Gyt 3 Gyt 1 Gyt 0 Gyt

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 15. Which of the following statements is true concerning patients who receive radiation exposure

from a routine radiographic procedure such as a chest x-ray? a. Patients are expected to sustain appreciable damage to either the blood or the

blood-forming organs as a consequence of the examination. b. Patients are not expected to sustain appreciable damage to either the blood or the

blood-forming organs as a consequence of the examination. c. Patients are expected to sustain some damage to either the blood or the blood-

forming organs as a consequence of the examination. d. Patients are expected to sustain total damage to either the blood or the blood-

forming organs as a consequence of the examination, resulting in fatality.

ANS: B

16. The term apoptosis is synonymous with a. programmed cell death. b. meiosis. c. mitosis. d. point mutation.

ANS: A 17. Which of the following gonadal radiation doses may cause permanent sterility in a male

human? a. 0.01 Gyt b. 1.0 Gyt c. 2.0 Gyt d. 5.0 or 6.0 Gyt ANS: D 18. Which of the following groups of cells is most radiosensitive? a. Lymphocytes b. Adult nerve cells c. Erythrocytes d. Muscle cells ANS: A 19. Direct action may occur after exposure to any type of radiation, but it is much more likely to

happen after exposure to low-LET radiation such as x-rays. low-LET radiation such as gamma rays. high-LET radiation such as alpha particles. nonionizing radiation such as microwaves.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 20. When LET increases, the chance of producing a significant biologic response in the

radiosensitive DNA macromolecule grows. decreases considerably. decreases slightly. remains constant, not increasing or decreasing.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 21. Neutrophils play an important role in a. initiating the circulation of blood through the human body. b. initiating blood clotting. c. fighting infection. d. preventing hemorrhage.

ANS: C 22. The radiosensitivity of ova

a. b. c. d.

remains constant throughout the lifetime of the germ cell. varies considerably throughout the lifetime of the germ cell. varies slightly throughout the lifetime of the germ cell. is insignificant because the germ cell is not radiosensitive.

ANS: B 23. Which of the following tissues contain cells that do not divide?

1. Epithelial tissue 2. Muscle tissue 3. Nervous tissue in an adult a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 24. Which of the following is a scavenger type of white blood cell that fights bacteria? a. Granulocytes b. Lymphocytes c. Neutrophils d. Thrombocytes ANS: A 25. If bone marrow cells have not been destroyed by exposure to ionizing radiation, they can a. become insensitive to future exposures from ionizing radiation. b. overpopulate and become radioresistant. c. remain in circulating blood indefinitely. d. repopulate after a period of recovery.

ANS: D

Chapter 08: Early Tissue Reactions and Their Effects on Organ Systems Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. If a person receives radiation exposure sufficient to cause the gastrointestinal syndrome,

fatality occurs primarily because of a. convulsive seizures. b. catastrophic damage to the epithelial cells that line the gastrointestinal track,

resulting in the death of the exposed person within 3 to 5 days from a combination of infection, fluid loss, and electrolytic imbalance. c. edema in the cranial vault. d. meningitis.

ANS: B 2. For persons with hematopoietic syndrome, survival time shortens as the radiation dose a. decreases. b. increases. c. remains the same. d. there is no survival time for persons with the hematopoietic syndrome.

ANS: B 3. Which of the following is not a form of acute radiation syndrome? a. Carcinogenic syndrome b. Hematopoietic syndrome c. Gastrointestinal syndrome d. Cerebrovascular syndrome ANS: A 4. The term LD 50/30 signifies the whole-body dose of radiation that can be lethal to a. 50% of the exposed population in 30 days. b. 30% of the exposed population in 50 days. c. 50% of the exposed population in 50 days. d. 30% of the exposed population in 30 days.

ANS: A 5. Some local tissues suffer immediate consequences from high radiation doses. Examples of

such tissues include 1. bone marrow.

2. male and female reproductive organs.

3. skin. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

6. Atrophy refers to a. aging of the skin from radiation exposure. b. shrinkage of organs and tissues after a high radiation dose is received. c. necrosis of the hypodermis from radiation exposure. d. wrinkling of the skin from radiation exposure.

ANS: B 7. What determines the rate of production of chromosome aberrations?

1. The total radiation dose given to a somatic cell 2. The total radiation given to a genetic cell 3. The period of time in which radiation dose was delivered a. 1, and 2 only b. 1, and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 8. In females the oogonia, the ovarian stem cells a. divide and reduce in number only during fetal development. b. multiply to millions of cells only during fetal development. c. are not present during fetal life. d. are present only in very small numbers during fetal life.

ANS: B 9. The correct order of development for the female germ cell from the stem cell phase to the

mature cell is ovum, mature follicle, corpus luteum, primordial follicle. corpus luteum, primordial follicle, mature follicle, ovum. primordial follicle, ovum, corpus luteum, mature follicle. primordial follicle, mature follicle, corpus luteum, ovum.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 10. Which of the following are classified as early tissue reactions of ionizing radiation? a. Erythema, cataract formation, and cancer b. Nausea, epilation, and intestinal disorders c. Male and female sterility, embryologic defects, and cancer d. Blood disorders, fever, and genetic effects ANS: B 11. The prodromal stage of acute radiation syndrome is actually the a. initial stage. b. latent period. c. manifest illness period. d. recovery period.

ANS: A

12. Research has shown that repeated radiation injuries have a a. cumulative effect. b. quadratic effect. c. sigmoidal effect. d. threshold effect.

ANS: A 13. The hematopoietic form of acute radiation syndrome is also called the a. Auger syndrome. b. bone marrow syndrome. c. cerebrovascular syndrome. d. cytogenetic syndrome.

ANS: B 14. Organ and tissue response to radiation exposure depends on factors such as

1. radiosensitivity.

2. reproductive characteristics.

3. growth rate. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 15. A term that is synonymous with epilation is a. alopecia. b. atrophy. c. desquamation. d. radiodermatitis.

ANS: A 16. A single absorbed dose of 2 Gyt can cause a radiation-induced skin erythema within a. 1 hour after irradiation. b. 6 hours after irradiation. c. 12 hours after irradiation. d. 24 to 48 hours after irradiation.

ANS: D 17. In 1898, after sustaining severe burns attributed to radiation exposure, this Boston dentist

began investigating the hazards of radiation exposure and became the first known determined advocate of radiation protection a. Marie Curie. b. Clarence Madison Dally. c. Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen. d. William Herbert Rollins.

ANS: D

18. The correct order of development of the male germ cell from the stem cell phase to the mature

cell is spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, sperm. spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatid, sperm. spermatid, spermatogonia, spermatocyte, sperm. sperm, spermatid, spermatogonia, spermatocyte.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 19. Attempts have been made to measure chromosome aberrations after diagnostic x-ray imaging

procedures a. and these studies have been very successful in measuring the number of

chromosome aberrations that occurred. b. but successful results have not been achieved in these studies. c. but these studies have only been moderately successful in measuring the number

of chromosome aberrations that occurred. d. these studies have only been minimally successful in measuring the number of

chromosome aberrations that occurred.

ANS: B 20. During cardiovascular or other therapeutic interventional procedures that use high-level

fluoroscopy for extended periods, the effects of ionizing radiation on the skin are nonexistent. minimal. moderate. significant.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 21. Moist and dry desquamation can be caused by a. high radiation doses. b. low radiation doses. c. radiation doses received during routine diagnostic imaging procedures. d. radiation dose received during annual testing of diagnostic imaging equipment.

ANS: A 22. Early tissue reactions are a. common in diagnostic imaging. b. not common in diagnostic imaging. c. a result of irradiation of acellular tissue. d. a result of grenz rays in a diagnostic x-ray beam.

ANS: B 23. Data from epidemiologic studies of human populations exposed to doses of ionizing radiation

sufficient to cause this syndrome have been obtained from 1. atomic bomb survivors of Hiroshima and Nagasaki.

2. Marshall Islanders who were inadvertently subjected to high levels of fallout during an atomic bomb test in 1954.

3. nuclear radiation accident victims, such as those injured in the 1986 Chernobyl disaster.

4. patients who have undergone radiation therapy. a. 1, 2, and 3 only b. 1, 3, and 4 only c. 2, 3, and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4 ANS: D 24. Grenz rays were once used to treat and successfully cure a. acute radiation syndrome. b. cancer. c. lupus disease. d. skin diseases such as ringworm.

ANS: D 25. During the major response stages of acute radiation syndrome after the prodromal stage, the

period when symptoms that affect the hematopoietic, gastrointestinal, and cerebrovascular systems become visible, is called a. the latent period. b. manifest illness. c. the cytogenic syndrome. d. recovery.

ANS: B

Chapter 09: Stochastic Effects and Late Tissue Reactions of Radiation in Organ Systems Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Radiation-induced cataracts in humans follow a a. nonthreshold, nonlinear b. nonthreshold, linear c. threshold, linear d. threshold, nonlinear

dose–response relationship.

ANS: D 2. Among the atomic bomb survivors, the number of leukemia victims has

since the late 1940s and early 1950s. However, the occurrence rates of other radiation-induced malignancies have continued to since the late 1950s and early 1960s. a. slowly declined; escalate b. increased rapidly; decrease c. increased slowly; decrease d. rapidly declined; decrease ANS: A 3. To assess the magnitude and severity of late effects on the exposed population from the 1986

nuclear power station accident at Chernobyl a. follow-up is not necessary because the radiation received by the entire exposed

population was fatal. b. minimal follow-up is only necessary because the exposed population did not

receive sufficient radiation exposure to cause severe late effects. c. short-term follow-up studies are necessary. d. long-term follow-up studies are necessary.

ANS: D 4. Which of the following late effects caused by exposure to ionizing radiation is considered to

be most important?

Cataract formation Embryologic or birth defects Cancer None; all are considered to be of equal importance.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 5. The human body can incorporate radium into bone because it is chemically similar to a. calcium. b. potassium. c. phosphorus. d. sodium.

ANS: A

6. During the 1950s and 1960s, the Navajo people of Arizona and New Mexico who mined

uranium for fuel for nuclear weapons and power plants developed lung cancer years after their exposure. This provides an example of which of the following? a. Early tissue reactions b. Late stochastic effects c. Late tissue reactions d. Late genetic effects ANS: B 7. In general, laboratory experiments with mice prove that cataracts may be induced with doses

of ionizing radiation as low as a. 0.1 Gyt. b. 0.01 Gyt. c. 0.5 Gyt. d. 0.05 Gyt. ANS: A 8. In which of the following human populations is the risk for causing a radiation-induced cancer

not directly measurable?

1. All patients in diagnostic radiology subjected to a radiation dose below 0.1 Sv 2. Chernobyl radiation accident victims living in contaminated villages 3. Atomic bomb survivors a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 2 and 3 only ANS: A 9. Mutations in genes and DNA that occur at random as natural phenomena are called a. carcinogenic mutations. b. sporadic mutations. c. spontaneous mutations. d. stochastic mutations.

ANS: C 10. Existing data on radiation-induced genetic effects in humans a. prove conclusively that radiation causes major genetic effects. b. prove conclusively that radiation causes only minor genetic effects. c. are both contradictory and inconclusive. d. prove conclusively that radiation does not cause genetic effects.

ANS: C 11. When a prediction is made that the number of excess cancers rises as the natural incidence of

cancer increases with advancing age in the population, the risk is considered to be a. absolute. b. excess.

c. quadratic. d. relative.

ANS: D 12. What is the mean value of the radiation doubling equivalent dose for humans, as determined

from studies of the children of the atomic bomb survivors of Hiroshima and Nagasaki?

1.00 Sv 1.56 Sv 3.00 Sv 5.67 Sv

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B 13. Genetic effects from exposure to ionizing radiation occur as a result of radiation-induced

damage to the DNA molecule in which of the following?

1. Sperm of a man 2. Ova of a woman 3. Somatic cells of men and women a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1 and 2 only ANS: D 14. What do agents such as specific chemicals, viruses, and ionizing radiation have in common? a. Nothing b. They can increase the frequency of mutations in only those members of the

population who are already genetically impaired. c. They are all mutagens that may increase the frequency of mutations. d. They always cause spontaneous abortions during the first trimester of pregnancy.

ANS: C 15. Which of the following are sources of low-level radiation exposure?

1. X-rays and radioactive materials used for diagnostic purposes.

2. Employment-related exposure in medicine and industry.

3. Natural background radiation. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 16. During the preimplantation stage of development, the fertilized ovum divides and forms a

ball-like structure containing undifferentiated cells. If this structure is irradiated with a dose in the range of 0.05 to 0.15 Gyt which of the following will result? a. Congenital abnormalities b. Delayed bone growth c. Embryonic death

d. Microcephaly ANS: C 17. After the Chernobyl disaster in 1986, an attempt was made to prevent thyroid cancer in

Poland and some other countries, resulting from the accidental overdose of iodine-131. was administered to children as a substitute to block the gland’s uptake of iodine-131. a. Potassium bromide b. Sodium chloride c. Sodium bicarbonate d. Potassium iodide ANS: D 18. Epidemiologic studies are of significant value to radiobiologists who use the information from

these studies to formulate dose-response curves for making predictions of the risk of in human populations exposed to low levels of ionizing radiation. a. cancer b. cataract formation c. genetic effects d. spontaneous abortions ANS: A 19. Radiation-induced abnormalities are caused by unrepaired damage to a. all stem cells in the human body. b. DNA molecules in the sperm or ova of an adult. c. epithelial cells in the human body. d. somatic cells in the human body.

ANS: B 20. Some mutations in genetic material occur spontaneously, without a known cause. In humans, a

hereditary disorder is present in approximately States. a. 10% b. 20% c. 25% d. 30%

of all live births in the United

ANS: A 21. Currently, evidence of radiation-induced hereditary effects has not been observed in persons

employed in diagnostic imaging or in persons undergoing radiologic examinations. Even with this information, it is still recommended that 1. gonadal shielding be effectively used.

2. all radiation exposure be maintained as low as reasonably achievable (ALARA).

3. alternative procedures be substituted for x-ray procedures whenever diagnostic information must be obtained. a. 1 only b. 2 only

c. 1 and 2 only d. 3 only ANS: C 22. Radium decays with a half-life of a. 8 days. b. 50 years. c. 500 years. d. 1622 years.

ANS: D 23. The term linear nonthreshold relationship implies that the biologic response to ionizing

radiation is a. directly proportional to the dose all the way down to levels approaching zero. b. inversely proportional to the dose all the way down to levels approaching zero. c. directly proportional to the square of the dose all the way down to levels

approaching zero. d. inversely proportional to the square of the dose all the way down to levels approaching zero.

ANS: A 24. Genetic mutations at the molecular level are called a. chromatid mutations. b. chromosome mutations. c. molecular mutations. d. point mutations.

ANS: D 25. Studies showed that postpartum patients treated with ionizing radiation for relief of mastitis

are a group of individuals in whom the results of radiation exposure to healthy breast tissue via scattered radiation indicate that radiation a. can cause breast cancer. b. cannot cause breast cancer. c. can cause breast enlargement. d. can cause breast shrinkage.

ANS: A

Chapter 10: Dose Limits for Exposure to Ionizing Radiation Sherer: Radiation Protection in Medical Radiography, 8th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following terms involves a random effect of ionizing radiation? a. Early tissue reactions b. Change in white blood cell count c. Reddening of the skin d. Stochastic event ANS: D 2. Upper boundary radiation exposure limits for occupationally exposed persons are associated

with risks that are similar to those encountered by employees in other industries that are generally considered to be reasonably safe. These industries include 1. manufacturing.

2. trade.

3. government. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 3. Which of the following agencies was previously known as the Atomic Energy Commission? a. FDA b. ICRP c. NCRP d. NRC ANS: D 4. Which of the following are functions and/or responsibilities of the United States Occupational

Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)?

1. Functions as a monitoring agency in places of employment, predominantly in industry 2. Regulates occupational exposure to radiation through Part 1910 of Title 29 of the U.S. Code of Federal Regulations (29 CFR 1910) 3. Responsible for regulations concerning an employee’s “right to know” with regard to hazards in the workplace a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 5. Which of the following groups is run by the government of Japan, primarily to study Japanese

atomic bomb survivors?

a. National Research Council Committee on the Biological Effects of Ionizing

Radiation b. International Commission on Radiological Protection c. Radiation Effects Research Foundation d. Nuclear Regulatory Commission ANS: C 6. Epidemiologic studies of atomic bomb survivors exposed in utero have provided conclusive

evidence of a dose-dependent increase in the incidence of severe intellectual disability for fetal doses greater than approximately a. 0.1 Sv. b. 0.2 Sv. c. 0.3 Sv. d. 0.4 Sv. ANS: D 7. Determine the cumulative effective dose (CumEfD) limit to the whole body of an

occupationally exposed person who is 46 years old.

4.6 mSv 46 mSv 460 mSv 4600 mSv

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C 8. Revised concepts of radiation exposure and risk have brought about more recent changes in

NCRP recommendations for limits on exposure to ionizing radiation. Because many conflicting views exist on assessing the risk of cancer induction from low-level radiation exposure, the trend has been to a. create more rigorous radiation protection standards. b. reduce rigorous radiation protection standards. c. eliminate radiation protection standards. d. leave radiation protection standards the same as they have been for the last 20 years.

ANS: A 9. The main function of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is to

1. inspect imaging facilities.

2. oversee the nuclear energy industry.

3. regulate imaging facilities. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B 10. The effective dose (EfD) limiting system supersedes a. all Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations.

b. all Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) regulations. c. the maximum permissible dose (MPD) system. d. the Consumer-Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act of 1981.

ANS: C 11. The ALARA concept adopts an extremely conservative model with respect to the relationship

between a. health care education and radiation research. b. ionizing and nonionizing radiation. c. ionizing radiation and potential risk. d. radiation dose and health care spending.

ANS: C 12. If a certain dose of radiation produces a skin burn, a higher dose of radiation will cause the

skin burn to be more severe; however, a dose below the threshold level for skin burn will a. demonstrate this effect to a much greater degree. b. demonstrate this effect to moderate degree. c. demonstrate this effect to a lesser degree. d. not demonstrate the effect.

ANS: D 13. The United Nations Scientific Committee on the Effects of Atomic Radiation (UNSCEAR)

evaluates human and environmental ionizing radiation exposures from a variety of sources, including 1. radioactive materials 2. radiation-producing machines 3. radiation accidents a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D 14. Which of the following are responsibilities of a health care facility’s radiation safety

committee (RSC)?

1. Delegate operational funds in the budget for the radiation safety program 2. Provide guidance for the radiation safety program 3. Facilitate the ongoing operation of the radiation safety program a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C 15. The essential concept underlying radiation protection is that a. any organ in the human body is vulnerable to damage from exposure to ionizing

radiation.

b. only critical organs in the human body are vulnerable to damage from exposure to

ionizing radiation. c. only the reproductive organs in male and female humans are vulnerable to damage

from exposure to ionizing radiation. d. no organ in the human body is vulnerable to damage from exposure to ionizing

radiation.

ANS: A 16. The cumulative effective dose (CumEfD) limit does not include

1. exposure acquired as a consequence of a radiation worker undergoing medical imaging procedures.

2. radiation exposure from natural background radiation.

3. radiation exposure received while radiographers perform imaging procedures on patients. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A 17. Which of the following statements is true? a. Medical imaging personnel almost always receive equivalent doses that are close

to the annual occupational effective dose limit. b. Medical imaging personnel always receive equivalent doses that are close to the annual occupational effective dose limit. c. Medical imaging personnel hardly ever receive equivalent doses that are close to the annual occupational effective dose limit. d. Medical imaging personnel absolutely never receive equivalent doses that are close to the annual occupational effective dose limit.

ANS: C 18. Occasional exposure for the purpose of education and training is permitted, provided that

special care is taken to ensure that the annual effective dose limit of exceeded for persons under the age of 18 years. a. 0.5 mSv annually b. 1 mSv annually c. 2 mSv annually d. 3 mSv annually ANS: B 19. The effective dose (EfD) limit for the lens of the eye is a. 5 mSv. b. 15 mSv. c. 50 mSv. d. 150 mSv. ANS: B

is not

20. The responsibility for maintaining radiation monitoring records for all personnel and for

providing counseling for individuals who receive monitor readings in excess of allowable limits belongs to the a. director of human resources of a health care facility. b. designated radiation safety officer of a health care facility. c. hospital administrator. d. radiologic technologist in charge of quality control.

ANS: B 21. To provide a low-exposure cut-off level so that regulatory agencies may consider a level of

effective dose as being of negligible risk, an annual negligible individual dose (NID) of per source or practice has been set. a. 0.001 mSv/year b. 0.01 mSv/year c. 0.1 mSv/year d. 1.0 mSv/year ANS: B 22. A radiation safety officer in a health care facility must have sufficient authority, organizational

freedom, and management prerogative to 1. identify radiation safety problems.

2. initiate, recommend, or provide corrective action.

3. stop unsafe operations involving by-product material.

4. verify implementation of corrective actions. a. 1, 2, and 3 only b. 1, 3, and 4 only c. 2, 3, and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4 ANS: D 23. To define ALARA, health care facilities usually adopt investigation levels, defined as level I

and level II. In the United States, these levels are traditionally applicable regulatory standards. a. one twentieth; one tenth b. one tenth; three tenths c. three tenths; one half d. one half; seven tenths

to

the

ANS: B 24. Working in conjunction with their partners in other agencies, the FDA intends to take action to

1. promote safe use of medical imaging devices.

2. support informed clinical decision.

3. increase patient awareness. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

ANS: D 25. Effective dose (EfD) limits may be specified for

1. whole-body exposure.

2. partial-body exposure.

3. exposure of individual organs. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

Chapter 11: Equipment Design for Radiation Protection Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not an x-ray beam limitation device? a. Aperture diaphragm b. Collimator c. Filter d. Extension cylinder ANS: C

REF: 231

2. When the speed of screen-film systems doubles, for example, when changing from a 200-

speed to a 400-speed system, patient radiation exposure is a. increased, 25% b. increased, 50% c. reduced, 25% d. reduced, 50% ANS: D

by approximately

REF: 242

3. Sharper size restriction of the radiographic beam is achieved when a cone or cylinder is: a. longer. b. shorter. c. made of aluminum. d. made of durable plastic.

ANS: A

REF: 236

4. When using digital fluoroscopy systems, making use of the last-image-hold feature can: a. be an effective dose reduction technique. b. eliminate the need to collimate the primary beam. c. eliminate increased involuntary patient motion. d. eliminate increased voluntary patient motion.

ANS: A

REF: 258

5. What is the purpose of radiographic beam filtration? a. To decrease beam hardness, thereby reducing patient skin dose and the dose to

superficial tissues b. To increase beam hardness, thereby reducing patient skin dose and the dose to superficial tissues c. To eliminate short wavelength radiation to reduce the radiation received by the patient’s skin and superficial tissues d. To increase beam hardness, thereby increasing patient skin dose with only a slight increase to superficial tissues ANS: B

REF: 236-237

.

6. Depending on the area of the body being examined with a fluoroscopic image intensification

system, for adult patients, a range of a. 30 to 60 b. 60 to 75 c. 75 to 110 d. 110 to 140 ANS: C

kVp is generally used.

REF: 253

7. When performing a mobile fluoroscopic procedure, to reduce the radiation exposure to the

patient, the radiographer must use a minimal source-skin distance of: a. 15 cm. b. 30 cm. c. 38 cm. d. 45 cm.

ANS: B

REF: 254

8. When a fluoroscopic image is electronically amplified by the use of an image intensification

system, which of the following benefits results?

1. Increased image brightness 2. Saving of time for the radiologist 3. Patient dose reduction a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: 252

9. Current federal standards limit entrance skin exposure rates of general-purpose intensified

fluoroscopic units to a maximum of measured at tabletop with the image intensifier entrance surface at a prescribed 30 cm above. a. 100 mGya/min b. 300 mGya/min c. 500 mGya/min d. 600 mGya/min ANS: A

REF: 254

10. During a fluoroscopic examination, a resettable cumulative timing device times the x-ray

beam-on time and sounds an audible alarm or temporarily interrupts the exposure after the fluoroscope has been activated for what length of time? a. 1 minute b. 3 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 10 minutes ANS: C

REF: 254

11. To visualize smaller and lower contrast objects during interventional procedures, high-level-

control fluoroscopy uses exposure rates that are those normally used in routine fluoroscopy. a. higher than b. lower than c. the same as d. none of the above because smaller and lower contrast objects cannot be visualized by fluoroscopy during interventional procedures ANS: A

REF: 258

12. When obtaining a dorsoplantar projection of a foot, which of the following types of filters

should be used to provide a greater uniform density of the anatomy? a. Bilateral wedge filter b. Trough filter c. Thoraeus filter d. Wedge filter ANS: D

REF: 241

13. A radiographer uses a high-speed, rare-earth screen-film system with optimal technical

exposure factors to obtain PA and lateral radiographs of a 2-year-old child’s chest. To maximize reduction of radiation exposure to the patient following adequate immobilization, the radiographer should: a. collimate the x-ray beam so that it is only slightly larger than the margins of the image receptor and shield the child’s reproductive organs. b. collimate the x-ray beam so that it is no larger than the margins of the image receptor and shield the child’s reproductive organs. c. collimate the x-ray beam so that it is smaller than the margins of the image receptor and shield the child’s reproductive organs. d. collimate the x-ray beam so that it is smaller than the margins of the image receptor and not shield the child’s reproductive organs.

ANS: C

REF: 235

14. Federal government specifications recommend a minimum total filtration of a. b. c. d.

for stationary (fixed) fluoroscopic x-ray units operating above 70 kVp. 1.0-mm aluminum equivalent 1.5-mm aluminum equivalent 2.0-mm aluminum equivalent 2.5-mm aluminum equivalent

ANS: D

REF: 238

15. Compared with the traditional material in the front of a cassette (aluminum or cardboard), the

cassette front containing the carbon fiber absorbs approximately as much radiation, resulting in a dose for the patient because radiographic techniques are required to produce the recorded image. a. four times, higher, higher b. three times, higher, higher c. twice, higher, higher

d. half, lower, lower ANS: D

REF: 243

16. In standard image intensification fluoroscopy, an x-ray beam half-value-layer (HVL) of 3 to

4.5 mm aluminum is considered acceptable when peak kilovoltage ranges from: a. 50 to 60. b. 60 to 70. c. 70 to 80. d. 80 to 100.

ANS: D

REF: 254

17. Digital radiography images can be accessed: a. at only one workstation at a time, thereby decreasing convenience for physicians

providing patient care. b. at no more than two workstations at a time, thereby decreasing convenience for

physicians providing patient care. c. at several workstations at the same time, making image viewing very convenient

for physicians providing patient care. d. digital images cannot be accessed at any workstations by physicians.

ANS: C

REF: 247

18. When an exposed computed radiography imaging plate is ready to be processed, an imaging

reading unit is used to scan the photostimulable phosphor imaging plate with a helium–neon laser beam. This process results in the emission of violet light that is changed into an electronic signal by a device called a: a. charge-coupled-device array. b. photodiode. c. photomultiplier tube. d. scintillator.

ANS: C

REF: 247

19. Computed radiography, because of its higher exposure latitude, makes grid use on the

pediatric population: a. absolutely necessary for all radiographic examinations. b. less necessary than was previously believed. c. necessary only for extremity examinations. d. unnecessary for any examination.

ANS: B

REF: 250

20. CR imaging has greater a. kilovoltage b. milliamperage c. time of exposure d. x-ray beam collimation ANS: A

flexibility than conventional screen-film radiography.

REF: 249

21. Of the following procedures, which involve extended fluoroscopic time?

1. Biliary drainage 2. Stent and filter placement 3. Urinary or biliary stone removal a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: 259

22. Luminance is determined by measuring the concentration of light: a. at only one particular point of the field of view. b. over a particular field of view. c. at only one particular point of the field of view and then squaring the number. d. over a particular field of view and then squaring the number.

ANS: B

REF: 233

23. When settings are changed from one mA to a neighboring mA station, the most that linearity

can vary is: a. 0%. b. 10%. c. 20%. d. 50%.

ANS: B

REF: 242

24. The control panel, where technical exposure factors are selected and seen on indicators by the

equipment operator, must be located: a. at the foot end of the radiographic examining table. b. at the head end of the radiographic examining table. c. behind a suitable protective barrier that has a radiation-absorbent window that permits observation of the patient during any procedure. d. behind any regular wall that has a regular glass window that permits observation of the patient during any procedure.

ANS: C

REF: 261

25. Which of the following materials is commonly used in the tabletop of a radiographic

examination table to make the tabletop as radiolucent as possible so that it will absorb only a minimal amount of radiation, thereby reducing the patient’s radiation dose? a. Carbon fiber material b. Formica c. Granite d. Slate ANS: A

REF: 261

Chapter 12: Management of Patient Radiation Dose during Diagnostic X-Ray Procedures Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Any image that must be performed more than once because of human or mechanical error

during the production of the initial image is known as a repeat image. What effect does a repeat image have on the radiation dose received by the patient? a. The patient receives no additional radiation dose. b. The patient’s skin and possibly the gonads receive a double radiation dose. c. The patient’s critical organs receive a radiation dose that is 10 times greater than the initial radiation dose. d. The patient’s superficial tissues only receive a radiation dose that is four times as great as that of the original radiation dose.

ANS: B

REF: 280

2. During a radiographic examination, which of the following combinations of technical

exposure factors and filtration reduce patient radiation dose? a. Lower kVp, higher mAs, decreased filtration b. Higher kVp, lower mAs, increased filtration c. Higher kVp, higher mAs, decreased filtration d. Lower kVp, lower mAs, increased filtration ANS: B

REF: 277

3. When a pregnant patient must undergo a radiographic procedure, which of the following

practices will minimize radiation exposure? a. Selecting technical exposure factors that are appropriate for the part of the body to be radiographed b. Opening the x-ray beam collimator shutters as wide as possible to ensure complete coverage of the image receptor c. Precisely collimating the radiographic beam to include only the anatomic area of interest and shielding the lower abdomen and pelvis when this area does not need to be included in the area to be irradiated d. A and C ANS: D

REF: 300

4. According to the American College of Radiology (ACR), abdominal radiologic examinations

that have been requested after full consideration of the clinical status of a patient, including the possibility of pregnancy, need: a. not to be postponed or selectively scheduled. b. to be postponed or selectively scheduled. c. to be postponed and scheduled at least 10 days after the start of the next menstrual period. d. to be postponed and scheduled 10 days before the end of the next menstrual period.

ANS: A

REF: 299

5. Which of the following types of gonadal shielding provides the best protection for a male

patient when AP, oblique, and lateral projections are obtained? a. Flat contact shield containing 1 mm of lead b. Shadow shield c. Shaped contact shield containing 1 mm of lead d. None of the above because gonadal shielding is unnecessary for male patients of any age ANS: C

REF: 274

6. Specific area shielding may be selectively used during some x-ray procedures to protect which

of the following?

1. Lens of the eye 2. Breast 3. Extremities a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A

REF: 275

are the sensing devices most often used to measure skin dose

7.

directly. a. Thermoluminescent dosimeters b. A sequence of aluminum equivalent filters of varying thicknesses c. Lead-impregnated filters d. Molybdenum and rhodium filters ANS: A

REF: 282

8. Which of the following are considered to be benefits of an aggressive repeat analysis

program?

1. Increased awareness among staff and student radiographers of the need to produce optimal quality recorded images 2. Radiographers generally become more careful in producing their images because they are aware that the images are being reviewed 3. When the repeat analysis program identifies problems or concerns, in-service education programs covering these specific topics may be designed for imaging personnel a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: 280

9. The genetically significant dose (GSD) for the population of the United States is about: a. 1.00 mSv. b. 0.80 mSv. c. 0.40 mSv.

d. 0.20 mSv. ANS: D

REF: 283

10. Which of the following must always be the first step in protection of the reproductive organs? a. Adequate and precise collimation of the radiographic beam to include only the

anatomy of interest b. Use of gonadal shielding c. Use of a mobile protective shielding device d. Use of digital imaging equipment rather than conventional equipment ANS: A

REF: 271

11. In a remote control fluoroscopic room where the x-ray tube is located above the patient,

protective shielding should: a. be placed over the patient. b. be placed under the patient. c. be placed alongside the patient. d. not be used.

ANS: A

REF: 273

12. When automatic exposure control (AEC) is not used, then to ensure uniform selection of

technical x-ray exposure factors, efficient imaging departments: a. estimate technical exposure factors for all radiographic examinations. b. have the radiologist determine and set up all technical exposure factor charts. c. use technique charts borrowed from another imaging facility. d. use standardized technique charts for each x-ray unit.

ANS: D

REF: 276

13. Poorly processed images on radiographic film will: a. continue to have archival quality. b. deteriorate over time. c. lose only a minimal amount of archival quality over a 10-year period. d. remain in their original condition.

ANS: B

REF: 278

14. In fluoroscopy, the amount of radiation that a patient receives is usually estimated by

measuring the radiation exposure rate at tabletop and multiplying this by the: a. fluoroscopy time. b. distance between the fluoroscope and the patient. c. square of the distance between the fluoroscope and the patient. d. radiographic exposure factors.

ANS: A

REF: 282

15. The radiation dose absorbed by an organ such as bone marrow: a. can be accurately measured by a direct method. b. cannot be measured by a direct method; it can only be estimated. c. is negligible for all diagnostic radiography examinations. d. can only be measured to a small degree by a direct method.

ANS: B

REF: 283

16. Digital mammography units with the ability to enhance contrast with image gray-level

manipulation offer: a. improvement for patients with small breasts. b. improvement for patients with microcalcifications in small breasts. c. improvement for patients with dense breasts. d. poor quality images for patients with dense breasts and microcalcifications.

ANS: C

REF: 289

17. During mammography, axillary projections should be done only on request of the: a. ordering physician. b. patient. c. radiologist. d. technologist performing the examination.

ANS: C

REF: 291

18. If a child is placed in a CT scanner and adult protocols are used: a. the child will receive the same dose as an adult. b. the child will receive a lower dose than the adult. c. the child will receive a higher dose than the adult. d. there is no radiation dose.

ANS: C

REF: 295

19. The goal of the Alliance for Radiation Safety in Pediatric Imaging is to: a. increase awareness of the need to reduce patient dose for pediatric patients. b. completely eliminate the use of CT imaging for all pediatric patients. c. completely eliminate the use of CT imaging for pediatric patients younger than 1

year of age. d. completely eliminate the use of CT imaging for pediatric patients between the ages

of 3 and 4 years old.

ANS: A

REF: 295

20. Which of the following is frequently a problem in diagnostic pediatric radiography? a. Lack of availability of appropriate pediatric immobilization devices b. Lack of cooperation of parents or guardian c. Lack of appropriate individuals to assist in holding a pediatric patient during an

exposure d. Patient motion ANS: D

REF: 297

21. In the event that a pregnant patient is inadvertently irradiated: a. the radiographer performing the examination should perform the calculations

necessary to determine fetal dose. b. the imaging department manager should perform the calculations necessary to

determine fetal dose. c. the radiologic physicist should perform the calculations necessary to determine

fetal dose. d. the radiologist should perform the calculations necessary to determine fetal dose.

ANS: C

REF: 299

22. Studies of groups such as the atomic bomb survivors of Hiroshima have shown that damage to

newborns is unlikely for doses below: a. 5 Gy. b. 2 Gy. c. 0.5 Gy. d. 0.2 Gy. ANS: D

REF: 299

23. Because most medical procedures result in fetal exposures: a. greater than 5 Gy, the risk of abnormality is large. b. greater than 1 Gy, the risk of abnormality is large. c. less than 0.5 Gy but greater than 0.01 Gy, the risk of abnormality is small. d. less than 0.01 Gy, the risk of abnormality is small.

ANS: D

REF: 299

24. Of the following radiologic procedures, which is(are) considered nonessential? a. A chest x-ray on scheduled admission to the hospital b. Lumbar spine x-rays as part of a preemployment physical examination c. Whole-body multislice computed tomography (CT) screening d. All of the above ANS: D

REF: 281

25. When technical radiographic exposures are to be selected, which of the following are some of

the factors that should be considered?

1. Mass per unit volume of tissue of the area of clinical interest 2. Effective atomic numbers and electron densities of the tissue involved 3. Type and quantity of filtration used a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: 276

Chapter 13: Management of Imaging Personnel Radiation Dose during Diagnostic XRay Procedures Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following x-ray procedures increases the radiographer’s risk of exposure to

ionizing radiation?

1. Mobile C-arm fluoroscopy 2. Interventional procedures that use high-level-control fluoroscopy 3. Mobile radiographic examinations a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: 308

2. Because occupational exposure of the radiographer can be kept as low as reasonably

achievable (ALARA) through individual monitoring and other protective measures and the use of protective devices and because exposure from radiation-related jobs will not alter the , radiation workers may receive a larger equivalent dose than members of the general population. a. mean glandular dose b. genetically significant dose c. bone marrow dose d. tissue tolerance dose ANS: B

REF: 309

3. In terms of occupational risk, radiography may be compared with the occupational risk

associated with which of the following? a. Extremely hazardous industries b. Other industries considered reasonably safe, such as government and trade c. A nuclear war d. A radiation accident, such as the Chernobyl nuclear power plant disaster ANS: B

REF: 309

4. Whenever scattered radiation decreases, the radiographer’s exposure: a. decreases. b. increases slightly. c. increases considerably. d. remains the same.

ANS: A

REF: 314

5. Which of the following adjustments in technical exposure factors decreases the production of

scattered radiation? a. Decrease kVp and increase mAs in compensation

b. Decrease kVp and decrease mAs c. Increase kVp and decrease mAs in compensation d. Increase kVp and increase mAs ANS: C

REF: 312

6. During which of the following x-ray examinations should a radiographer always wear a

thyroid shield? a. Fluoroscopy and special procedures b. Routine mobile radiographic procedures c. General diagnostic radiographic procedures performed in an x-ray room d. Digital radiography procedures and computed radiography procedures ANS: A

REF: 315

7. While standing behind the control-booth barrier, a radiographer makes a radiographic

exposure. The x-rays scattered from the patient’s body should . a. not have enough energy remaining that will reach behind the control-booth barrier. b. scatter only once before reaching any area behind the control-booth barrier. c. scatter a minimum of two times before reaching any area behind the control-booth barrier. d. scatter a minimum of 10 times before reaching any area behind the control-booth barrier.

ANS: C

REF: 316

8. Which of the following is another term for use factor (U)? a. Workload factor b. Occupancy factor in controlled and uncontrolled areas c. Beam direction factor d. Protective barrier thickness consideration factor ANS: C

REF: 328

9. The annual effective dose limit for individual members of the general population not

occupationally exposed is for continuous or frequent exposures from artificial sources other than medical irradiation and natural background and for infrequent annual exposure. a. 1 mSv, 5 mSv b. 3 mSv, 7 mSv c. 5 mSv, 9 mSv d. 50 mSv, 25 mSv ANS: A

REF: 309

10. A spot film device protective curtain, or sliding panel, of a minimum thickness of 0.25-mm

lead equivalent should normally be positioned between the fluoroscopist and the patient to intercept which of the following types of radiation? a. Primary radiation b. Scattered radiation above the tabletop c. Exit or image formation radiation d. Direct radiation

ANS: B

REF: 320

11. If the intensity of the x-ray beam is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from

the source, how does the intensity of the x-ray beam change when the distance from the source of radiation and a measurement point is tripled? a. It increases by a factor of 3 at the new distance. b. It increases by a factor of 9 at the new distance. c. It decreases by a factor of 9 at the new distance. d. It decreases by a factor of 3 at the new distance.

ANS: C

REF: 314

12. What is the term for the proportional amount of time during which the x-ray beam is

energized or directed toward a particular barrier? a. Occupancy factor b. Workload factor c. Distance factor d. Use factor ANS: D

REF: 328

13. The maximum weekly permitted equivalent dose for a controlled area must not exceed: a. 1 millisievert. b. 100 millisievert. c. 20 microsievert. d. 2 microsievert.

ANS: A

REF: 328

14. When a radiologic technologist declares her pregnancy to her employer, which of the

following is appropriate? a. Her employer terminates her employment until after her child is born. b. She is able to continue her employment but is not permitted to perform any radiologic procedures during the remainder of her pregnancy. c. Her employer requires her to take a leave of absence until after the completion of the first trimester of the pregnancy and then return to her normal duties. d. She continues to perform her duties without interruption of employment, provided that she has received radiation safety counseling and follows established radiation safety practices.

ANS: D

REF: 312

15. Which part(s) of a diagnostic x-ray unit should a radiographer avoid touching while a

radiographic exposure is in progress? a. Control panel b. Exposure switch c. Kilovoltage control on the control panel d. Tube housing, collimator, and high-tension cables ANS: D

REF: 319

16. When doors to radiographic and fluoroscopic rooms are closed during radiation exposures, a

substantial degree of protection is provided for persons in areas adjacent to the room door.

This is because in most facilities room doors have attenuation for diagnostic energy x-ray equivalent to that provided by mm of lead. a. 0.2 b. 0.4 c. 0.6 d. 0.8 ANS: D

REF: 316

17. When the time spent in a higher radiation area is reduced or limited, occupational exposure: a. is also reduced. b. is increased slightly. c. remains the same. d. is increased considerably.

ANS: A

REF: 313

18. Diagnostic imaging personnel receive the highest occupational exposure during which of the

following procedures?

1. Fluoroscopy 2. Mobile radiography 3. Special procedures a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: 321

19. If the peak energy of the x-ray beam is 100 kVp, a protective lead apron must be the

equivalent to at least which of the following measures? a. 0.25-mm thickness of lead b. 0.5-mm thickness of lead c. 1.0-mm thickness of lead d. 1.5-mm thickness of lead ANS: A

REF: 318

20. For C-arm devices with similar fields of view, the dose rate to personnel located within a

meter of the patient is: a. comparable to that of routine fluoroscopy. b. far greater than the dose rate of routine fluoroscopy. c. significantly less than the dose rate of routine fluoroscopy. d. comparable to that of high-level-control fluoroscopy.

ANS: A

REF: 321

21. Protective eyeglasses with optically clear lenses should contain a minimal lead equivalent

protection of: a. 0.15 mm.

b. 0.25 mm. c. 0.35 mm. d. 0.50 mm.

ANS: C 22.

REF: 318

is the radiation output weighted time that the unit is actually delivering radiation during the week. a. Control designation b. Occupancy c. Use factor d. Workload ANS: D

REF: 327

23. To ensure that the lifetime risk of occupationally exposed persons remains acceptable, the

lifetime effective dose in mSv should not exceed: a. the occupationally exposed person’s age in years. b. 5 times the occupationally exposed person’s age in years. c. 10 times the occupationally exposed person’s age in years. d. 20 times the occupationally exposed person’s age in years.

ANS: C

REF: 308

24. Secondary radiation includes:

1. leakage radiation.

2. primary radiation.

3. scatter radiation. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B

REF: 326

25. Who should determine the exact shielding requirements for a particular imaging facility? a. Administrator of the facility b. Medical physicist c. Radiologist d. Radiographer ANS: B

REF: 315

Chapter 14: Radioisotopes and Radiation Protection Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Therapeutic radioisotopes are characterized by: a. very short half-lives. b. half-lives that are exactly the same. c. relatively long half-lives. d. half-lives that remain constant for all eternity.

ANS: C

REF: 338 125

2. Iodine-125 (

I) in the form of titanium-encapsulated cylindrical seeds has been used quite extensively within the past decade to give a tumoricidal radiation equivalent dose for: a. malignant brain tumors. b. malignant breast tumors. c. malignant lung tumors. d. prostate cancers that are confined within the prostate gland.

ANS: D

REF: 339

3. Tellurium-125 (125Te) has: a. 125 protons and 125 neutrons. b. 75 protons and 63 neutrons. c. 52 protons and 73 neutrons. d. 45 protons and 58 neutrons.

ANS: C

REF: 339

4. What is the half-life of Technetium-99m? a. 6 hours b. 3 hours c. 6 minutes d. 3 minutes ANS: A

REF: 341

5. In

, a neutron transforms itself into a combination of a proton and an energetic electron. a. alpha decay b. beta decay c. gamma decay d. x-ray absorption ANS: B

REF: 341

6. Considering the design of the medical imaging suites listed below, which suite presents the

most unique additional radiation safety problems? a. Computer radiography suite b. PET and CT imaging suite

c. Digital mammography suite d. Digital fluoroscopy suite ANS: B

REF: 343

7. While a patient receiving Iodine-131 (131I) therapy is hospitalized, a large,

, rolling lead shield can be positioned between the patient and any attending personnel for protection. a. up to 1-inch-thick b. 2-inch-thick c. 3-inch-thick d. 6-inch-thick ANS: A

REF: 340

8. Diagnostic techniques in nuclear medicine typically make use of

radioisotopes

as radioactive tracers. a. long-lived b. short-lived c. very weak d. potentially lethal ANS: B

REF: 340

9. Each Fluorine-18 (18F) nuclear transformation by positron decay yields two highly penetrating a. b. c. d.

photons.

250-keV 472-keV 511-kev 777-keV

ANS: C

REF: 342

10. The design of a

imaging suite involves significant radiation safety

concerns. a. diagnostic x-ray b. computed radiography c. computed tomography d. PET and CT ANS: D

REF: 343

11. Radioactive material that is attached to or associated with dust particles or in liquid form on

various surfaces defines the term: a. radioactive contamination. b. radioactive dispersal device. c. radioactive fallout. d. radioactive syndrome.

ANS: A

REF: 347

12. The actual long-term health effects of a “dirty bomb” are likely to be: a. catastrophic. b. maximal.

c. minimal. d. nonexistent.

ANS: C

REF: 347

13. During a radiation emergency, the dose limit for individuals engaging in lifesaving activities

is: a. b. c. d.

50 mSv per event.

100 mSv per event.

250 mSv per event.

500 mSv per event.

ANS: C

REF: 348

14. During a radiation emergency, at a dose rate of

, emergency personnel should await specific instructions from radiation experts on how to proceed. a. 0.1 Sv/hr b. 0.5 Sv/hr c. 1.0 Sv/hr d. 5.0 Sv/hr ANS: A

REF: 348

15. If enough explosives are used to spread radioactive material over a broad area, then

radioactivity is: a. extremely hazardous and may be much higher than background levels. b. moderately hazardous and may be higher than background levels. c. slightly hazardous and may be only slightly higher than background levels. d. diluted and may not be much higher than background levels.

ANS: D

REF: 347