Mosbys Pathology for Massage Therapists 4th Edition Salvo Test Bank Chapter 01: Introduction to Pathology and Infection Control Salvo: Mosby’s Pathology for Massage Therapists, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term means the study of disease? a. Physiology b. Pathology c. Pharmacology d. Psychology ANS: B
“Patho” stems from Greek meaning disease; “-ology” implies “study of”. REF: p. 2 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 2. Which term means any illness that is characterized by certain signs and symptoms? a. Disease b. Handicap c. Liability d. Disorder ANS: A
A disease features signs and symptoms in relation to abnormal function. REF: p. 4 TOP: TMETSBT OB KA : sN ecKtiS onE2L1L 0.E 4R (P. atC hoOloMgy) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 3. Which term means a prediction of how a disease will progress and the chances of recovery? a. Prognosis b. Diagnosis c. Palpation d. Determination ANS: A
A prognosis is a prediction on the course of a disease. REF: p. 4 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 4. Which term means objective indicators of disease such as swelling, skin rashes, and fever? a. Signs b. Complications c. Symptoms d. Diagnosis ANS: A
Signs are objective evidence related to a disease. REF: p. 5
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 5. Which term means subjective feelings such as headaches, nausea, pain, and anxiety? a. Situation b. Syndrome c. Signs d. Symptoms ANS: D
Symptoms are subjective evidence related to a disease. REF: p. 5 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 6. A group of signs and symptoms occurring together to present a particular disease or
abnormality is called a a. prognosis. b. complication. c. syndrome. d. risk factor. ANS: C
A syndrome presents with a predicted set of signs and symptoms. REF: p. 4 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 7. Disease that is distributed T thE roSuT ghBoA utNtK heSbEoL dyLiEs R ca.llCedOM a. chronic. b. systemic. c. acute. d. contagious. ANS: B
Systemic diseases affect multiple systems throughout the entire body. REF: p. 12 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 8. Which type of disease has an abrupt onset of severe signs and symptoms then runs a brief
course? a. Acute b. Local c. Chronic d. Delayed ANS: A
Acute diseases present for brief courses of time. REF: p. 5 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 9. Which type of disease develops gradually and lasts longer than 6 months?
a. b. c. d.
Acute Local Chronic Delayed
ANS: C
Chronic diseases present for longer time periods, 6 months up to entire lifespan. REF: p. 5 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 10. A period of partial or complete disappearance of the signs and symptoms of chronic disease is
called a a. flare-up. b. complication. c. remission. d. syndrome. ANS: C
Remission is a period of partial or complete disappearance of signs and symptoms of a disease. REF: p. 8 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 11. Which term means a period of increased signs and symptoms? a. Remission b. Chronic c. Syndrome d. Exacerbation ANS: D
Exacerbation is a period of increases signs and symptoms of a disease. REF: p. 8 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 12. Which process occurs when the body mistakes its own tissues for something foreign? a. The tissues are attacked, and the immune system is depleted. b. The immune system soon recognizes the tissues as normal and never attacks them
again. c. The tissues attack the immune system, shutting it down. d. The tissues stimulate the immune system to prevent infection by pathogens. ANS: A
An autoimmune disease features the body mistaking its own tissues as foreign. REF: p. 8 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 13. A description that belongs to communicable diseases is that they are a. the result of exposure to cancer-causing agents.
b. caused by disruption in the body’s metabolism. c. inherited. d. infectious. ANS: D
An infectious disease is considered communicable since it can be transmitted from one person to another. REF: p. 11 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 14. Infectious agents can be spread through: a. contact with contaminated linens. b. contact with contaminated massage tools. c. contact with open containers of lubricant. d. All of the above ANS: D
Massage equipment can carry infectious agents and must be cleaned to avoid spread. REF: p. 15 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 15. Which term means an organism in which pathogens reside? a. Reservoir b. Cistern c. Host d. Hiatus ANS: C
A host is a residency in which pathogens can harbor. REF: p. 15 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 16. Which terms means the source of infection, living or inanimate? a. Cistern b. Hiatus c. Host d. Reservoir ANS: D
A reservoir is a source that may be living or inanimate of infection transmission. REF: p. 15 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 17. Which terms means a biologic agent capable of causing disease? a. Aseptic agent b. Contamination c. Pathogen d. Fomite
ANS: C
A pathogen is biologic meaning it may multiply actively within a host. REF: p. 13 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 18. Effective exposure and successful transfer of pathogens results in a. microbial migration. b. contamination. c. exacerbation. d. disease remission. ANS: B
Contamination occurs with effective exposure and successful transfer of pathogens. REF: p. 15 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 19. Which type of infection describes vehicle transmission of organisms? a. Sexual contact b. Bite from an animal c. Pathogens in a water source d. Pathogens crossing the placenta ANS: C
Means of vehicle contamination include food, water and air. REF: p. 16 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 20. Which choice is NOT one of the body’s natural defense mechanisms against exposure to
pathogens? a. Inflammation b. Zinc supplements c. Immune response d. Physical and chemical barriers ANS: B
Zinc supplementation is an artificial means to aid the body’s defenses, not a natural means. REF: pp. 17-19 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 21. Which term means a set of infection control measures developed by the Centers for Disease
Control and Prevention (CDC)? a. Hygiene b. Disinfection c. Standard precautions d. Risk factors ANS: C
Standard precautions were defined by the CDC in 1996.
REF: p. 22 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 22. When a therapist feels symptoms of a cold or contagious illness, he or she should a. wear a mask or bandana over his or her nose and mouth to reduce the spread of
airborne particles. b. wear gloves to reduce the spread of infection. c. cancel appointments and offer to reschedule, or refer the client to an associate. d. be sure to have an antimicrobial agent available in the treatment room. ANS: C
Cancelling appointments by an ill practitioner will avoid transmitting contagious illness to a client. REF: p. 27 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 23. Causative factors or origins of disease are its a. radiology. b. entomology. c. ideology. d. etiology. ANS: D
The etiology of disease describes the causative factors or origins of disease. REF: p. 5 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (U lth.CCaO reMTerminology) TsEinSg TABnaAtoNmKicSaEndLH LeEaR 24. If a disease has an unknown cause, it is called a. acute. b. idiopathic. c. systemic. d. chronic. ANS: B
An idiopathic disease has no known cause. REF: p. 5 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 25. What is the minimum number of seconds the hands should be washed? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANS: D
Washing hands for at least 20 seconds will ensure proper sanitation. REF: p. 29 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology)
26. Which condition is a local contraindication for massage? a. Inflamed lymph node b. Fever c. Exacerbation stage of lupus d. Stroke ANS: A
An inflamed lymph node is a local contraindication since only one node within one body region is referenced. REF: p. 21 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 27. Which example is a positional modification of treatment for a client? a. Avoiding the use of percussion b. Placing a supportive cushion under the abdomen c. Using lighter-than-normal pressure d. Wearing gloves when having a cut on the hand ANS: B
Placing a supportive cushion under the abdomen is one example of a positional modification. REF: p. 21 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 28. A client reporting a contagious disease is presenting with an a. chronic inflammation. b. local contraindication. c. absolute contraindication. d. chemical mediator. ANS: C
An absolute contraindication is a “red light” to receiving massage. A contagious disease is an absolute contraindication for massage. REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology)
Chapter 02: Treatment Planning: Intake, Consent, and Documentation Salvo: Mosby’s Pathology for Massage Therapists, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which part of the massage session is based on the client’s health history, the interview, and
other assessments? a. Intake form b. Treatment plan c. Informed consent d. Referral form ANS: B
A treatment plan is devised based on information gathered from client’s health history, interview and other assessments. REF: p. 18 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.5 (Assessment, Treatment Planning and Documentation) MSC: ELAP: section 43.5 (Client Assessment) 2. What process involves evaluating a client’s condition based on subjective reporting and
objective findings? a. Countertransference b. Progress report c. Documentation d. Assessment ANS: D
Assessments involve evaluating a client based upon subjective reporting and objective findings. REF: p. 19 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.5 (Assessment, Treatment Planning and Documentation) MSC: ELAP: section 43.5 (Client Assessment) 3. Which term refers to information such as client experiences and symptoms as learned from
the client during an intake? a. Informed consent b. Subjective data c. Palpation assessment d. Objective data ANS: B
Subjective data is based upon client perceptions of their experiences and symptoms. REF: p. 32 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.5 (Assessment, Treatment Planning and Documentation) MSC: ELAP: section 6.5 (Documentation and Client Files) 4. Which term refers to data that is measurable and verifiable? a. Subjective data
b. Informed consent c. Objective data d. Scope of practice ANS: C
Objective data refers to the visual and palpation based information that is measurable and verifiable during the intake process. REF: p. 32 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.5 (Assessment, Treatment Planning and Documentation) MSC: ELAP: section 6.5 (Documentation and Client Files) 5. On an intake form, if a massage therapist records information upon the form, the massage
therapist needs to a. use a different color pen. b. write it in pencil so it can be erased. c. place initials next to the entry. d. highlight the information. ANS: C
Placing initials next to client entries ensures accuracy of record keeping by the massage therapist. REF: p. 8 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.5 (Assessment, Treatment Planning and Documentation) MSC: ELAP: section 6.5 (Documentation and Client Files) 6. Which question is considerTeE dS opTeB n-AeN ndKeS d?ELLER.COM a. “On a scale from 1 to 5, what is your level of pain today?” b. “Does your shoulder still hurt?” c. “Did you feel any pain in the area that was treated in the last session?” d. “What can you tell me about your pain level today?” ANS: D
An open-ended question allows a client to elaborate upon an answer as opposed to close-ended questions which require an affirmative answer. REF: p. 13 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.5 (Assessment, Treatment Planning and Documentation) MSC: ELAP: section 43.5 (Client Assessment) 7. Which should the massage therapist avoid doing when interviewing a client? a. Using both open-ended and closed-ended questions b. Staying focused on what is being said c. Indicating that a response is right, wrong, or interesting d. Listening intently and signaling interest ANS: C
A massage therapist needs to remain neutral in their approach to interviewing a client. REF: p. 13 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.5 (Assessment, Treatment Planning and Documentation) MSC: ELAP: section 43.5 (Client Assessment)
8. Internally rotated shoulders with head forward posture is an example of a. objective data. b. subjective data. c. palpation results. d. morbidity. ANS: A
Internal rotation of the shoulders is a visible and verifiable item to witness within a client’s posture. REF: p. 32 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.5 (Assessment, Treatment Planning and Documentation) MSC: ELAP: section 43.5 (Client Assessment) 9. Which term describes the emotional bond people experience when mutual concern is
expressed? a. Communication b. Palpation c. Rapport d. Inspection ANS: C
Rapport is the emotional bond a massage therapist creates when expressing genuine concern for a client. REF: p. 11 TOP: MTBOK: section 210T .5E(A ntS , TEreLaL tmEeR nt.PC laO nnMing and Documentation) SsTseBssAmNeK MSC: ELAP: section 43.5 (Client Assessment) 10. Clients providing clear answers to a therapist is essential in order to provide a. an efficient means to scheduling other clients. b. communication with other health care providers. c. effective treatment planning for the client. d. an appropriate fee structure of the sessions. ANS: C
Effective treatment planning entails receiving accurate clear answers from a client. REF: p. 18 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.5 (Assessment, Treatment Planning and Documentation) MSC: ELAP: section 43.5 (Client Assessment) 11. If a client who normally receives deep tissue sessions refuses to receive a deep tissue modality
on a particular session date, the therapist should a. stick to the techniques outlined in the original treatment plan. b. tailor the session to the client’s demands on that day. c. suggest that it be revisited after the primary complaint is resolved. d. tell the client their usual bodywork is always appropriate. ANS: B
Right of refusal determines that a client can request modifications of treatment plans at any time. REF: p. 17 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.5 (Assessment, Treatment Planning and Documentation) MSC: ELAP: section 43.5 (Client Assessment) 12. Which statement describes nociceptive pain? a. Pain resulting from nerve damage from an injury b. Pain resulting from nerve compression syndromes c. Pain resulting from nerve degeneration d. Pain resulting from infectious nerve disease ANS: A
Pain resulting from injuries and resultant tissue damage is referred to as nociceptive pain. REF: p. 22 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.5 (Assessment, Treatment Planning and Documentation) MSC: ELAP: section 43.5 (Client Assessment) 13. When performing the treatment plan, the massage therapist should a. follow it to the letter, even if the client’s goals change. b. realize 50% improvement in function is insufficient. c. accomplish complete freedom from pain for the client. d. realize 100% function and pain relief may be unachievable. ANS: D
Providing realistic expectaT tioEnSs TwBilA l bNeKaSsE ouLnL dEmRe. thC odOtMo formulating treatment plans. REF: p. 31 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.5 (Assessment, Treatment Planning and Documentation) MSC: ELAP: section 43.5 (Client Assessment) 14. Because lubricant sensitivity cannot always be predetermined, the massage therapist should
have a. talcum powder available. b. gloves available. c. the option of using a hypoallergenic lubricant. d. the ability to massage the fully clothed client. ANS: C
Hypoallergenic lubricants will aid individuals with sensitivities to lubricants. REF: p. 15 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.5 (Assessment, Treatment Planning and Documentation) MSC: ELAP: section 82.0 (Core Concepts of Massage and Bodywork Application) 15. What does the Implementation portion of an APIE note entail? a. The treatment strategies formulated for future sessions. b. The methods and techniques employed in the present session. c. The subjective and objective data derived from the client. d. The responses witnessed physically and emotionally from sessions.
ANS: B
The methods and techniques implemented during a present session will be recorded under the Implementation section of an APIE note. REF: p. 33 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.5 (Assessment, Treatment Planning and Documentation) MSC: ELAP: section 43.5 (Client Assessment) 16. If a massage therapist accepts a prescription order for massage, the order must specify a. massage therapy only. b. physical therapy and massage therapy. c. physical therapy only with release for massage. d. massage and bodywork only. ANS: A
If a massage therapist accepts a prescription for therapy, the prescription must specify massage therapy, not physical therapy or occupational therapy. The prescription may instruct the massage therapist to evaluate and treat at his or her discretion, or it may state a specific method, such as soft tissue mobilization or massage therapy. Prescriptions must be followed exactly, or they may be challenged by an insurance company or court of law. REF: p. 34 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.5 (Assessment, Treatment Planning and Documentation) MSC: ELAP: section 43.5 (Client Assessment) 17. If a client begins taking anticoagulant drugs after a treatment plan has been established, an
example of an effective modification of the initial treatment plan is to a. employ a light touch mT KS oE daSliT tyBtA oN lim it E thLe L chEaR nc.eCoOf M bruising. b. utilize massage tools to provide more effective deep tissue touch. c. suggest a hydrotherapy treatment to replace a touch modality. d. perform strokes to intensify cardiovascular activity. ANS: A
Since anticoagulant drugs will increase the chances of bruising, a light touch modality will be the best option. REF: p. 28 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.5 (Assessment, Treatment Planning and Documentation) MSC: ELAP: section 43.5 (Client Assessment) 18. Which should the massage therapist do when assessing a client’s pain? a. Determine the original cause because it is essential. b. Ask the client questions using the acronym OPPQRST. c. Accept only the terms mild, moderate, or severe to describe the quality of pain. d. Ask the client questions using the acronym CARE. ANS: B
The acronym OPPQRST will ask pertinent questions related to a client’s pain. REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.5 (Assessment, Treatment Planning and Documentation) MSC: ELAP: section 43.5 (Client Assessment)
19. The term for the capacity of individuals to obtain and understand information and services to
make appropriate health care decisions is a. active communication. b. assessment literacy. c. health literacy. d. diagnostic assessment. ANS: C
Health literacy is defined as the capacity of individuals to obtain and understand information and services to make appropriate health care decisions. REF: p. 8 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.5 (Assessment, Treatment Planning and Documentation) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 20. Which type of form is filled out by a health care provider to authorize massage therapy
treatment? a. Intake b. Informed consent c. Medical release d. Referral ANS: D
A referral is used to authorize massage therapy treatments by another health care provider. REF: p. 35 TOP: MTBOK: section 210T .5E(A ntS , TEreLaL tmEeR nt.PC laO nnMing and Documentation) SsTseBssAmNeK MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 21. Which guideline is part of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)? a. Assign passwords to those who access electronic client files. b. Obtain verbal permission from clients to send them marketing materials. c. Store client files in an unlocked cabinet. d. Obtain verbal consent from each client prior to treatment. ANS: A
HIPPA pertains to all electronic data of health records. REF: p. 39 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.5 (Assessment, Treatment Planning and Documentation) MSC: ELAP: section 6.5 (Key Principles of Documentation & Keeping Good Client Files)
Chapter 03: Pharmacology and Massage Therapy Salvo: Mosby’s Pathology for Massage Therapists, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which is a common side effect of narcotics? a. Increased appetite b. Frequent urination c. Insomnia d. Drowsiness ANS: D
Drowsiness is a common side effect of narcotics which must be considered by a massage therapist with a client taking these drugs. REF: p. 3 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 2. Which term means the study of drugs, their actions, dosages, therapeutic effects, and side
effects? a. Pathology b. Physiology c. Pharmacology d. Psychiatry ANS: C
“Pharma” refers to drugs; “T-E olS ogTyB” A isNtK heSsE tuLdL yE ofRa.sC ubOjM ect. REF: p. 2 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 3. The term for the practice of treating disease with drugs is a. pharmacotherapy. b. pharmacodynamics. c. pharmacogenetics. d. pharmacokinetics. ANS: A
“Pharma” refers to drugs; “therapy” refers to a practice of a medical or healing mode. REF: p. 2 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 4. The most common drug administration route is a. injection. b. topical. c. intramuscular. d. oral. ANS: D
Oral medications are the most common means of drug administration.
REF: p. 5 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 5. Which term means an undesirable and unavoidable reaction produced by a drug? a. Therapeutic effect b. Side effect c. Transcellular effect d. Physiologic effect ANS: B
A side effect is a predictable reaction by a drug and may not be desirable. REF: p. 8 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 6. The study of drug movement through the body is called
, and the study of drug
dynamics is called . a. pharmacogenetics; pharmacotherapy b. pharmacotherapy; pharmacogenetics c. pharmacokinetics; pharmacodynamics d. pharmacodynamics; pharmacokinetics ANS: C
“Pharma” refers to drugs; “kinetics” refers to movement; “dynamics” refers to changes which occur. REF: pp. 6-7 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 7. Which response may result in a common insulin injection site region? a. Decreased scar tissue b. Increased scar tissue c. Decreased chance of a hypoglycemic episode d. Increase chance of excess fluid mobility ANS: B
Frequent injection sites will lead to scar tissue which may be reduced with massage therapy. REF: p. 11 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 8. Massage considerations for the client who wears a transdermal patch include a. because the medicine is covered, the therapist cannot contact it. b. the therapist must avoid the patch and a 1/2-inch radius around it. c. the treatment may decrease absorption of the medicine. d. lubricants may interfere with adhesive properties. ANS: A
A transdermal patch covers medication so there is less chance a therapist can make direct contact with the medication. REF: p. 11
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 9. Massage considerations for a recent topical application of a drug include a. it is unnecessary to modify the treatment. b. the application site and adjacent area should be avoided for 1 hour. c. the therapist must avoid the area and a 1/2-inch radius around it. d. treatment over the area may cause the therapist to absorb the medicine. ANS: D
A recent topical application brings a risk of a therapist absorbing the medication upon touch. REF: p. 11 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 10. Nonopioid analgesics are designed to reduce a. breathing rate. b. scar tissue. c. inflammation. d. angiogenesis. ANS: C
Nonopiod analgesics are also referred to as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. REF: p. 12 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 11. NSAIDs are what type of medication? a. Steroidal antiinflammatory TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. Steroid-free antiinflammatory c. Narcotic d. Hypoglycemic ANS: B
The “NS” in NSAIDs stands for “Nonsteroidal”. REF: p. 12 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 12. Massage considerations for NSAIDs include a. avoiding the area of injection. b. using caution with deep pressure. c. using stimulating techniques to invigorate the client. d. assisting the client off the table after treatment. ANS: B
Using caution with deep pressure is recommended since NSAIDs reduce inflammation, thereby reducing pain felt in a region. REF: p. 13 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 13. The effects of corticosteroids include a. reducing immune and inflammatory responses.
b. relaxing skeletal muscle tissue. c. producing generalized insensitivity to pain. d. lowering blood glucose levels. ANS: A
Reducing immune and inflammatory responses is a direct effect of corticosteroids. REF: p. 14 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 14. Massage considerations for a client using a narcotic such as codeine, Vicodin, or Darvocet
include a. using deep pressure and vibration on the abdomen. b. avoiding ending with stimulating strokes if the client experiences drowsiness. c. suggesting the client eat a meal within 2–3 hours of the appointment. d. cautioning the client regarding possible gastrointestinal distress. ANS: D
Gastrointestinal distresses are likely side effects of narcotic usage. REF: p. 16 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 15. Which type of drug is used to prevent or reduce the blood’s ability to form clots? a. Antitussive b. Antibiotic c. Antiarrhythmic d. Anticoagulant ANS: D
Anticoagulants prevent blood from coagulating (clotting). REF: p. 19 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 16. Vasodilators may be prescribed to treat which condition? a. Inflammation b. Cough c. Diabetes d. Hypertension ANS: D
Hypertension is a condition treated with vasodilators. REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 17. Which side effect is common to lipid-lowering drugs? a. Insomnia b. Dizziness c. Frequent urination d. Muscle pain and weakness
ANS: D
Muscle pain and weakness are common side effects of lipid-lowering drugs. REF: p. 26 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 18. Which type of drug is used to reduce allergic reactions? a. Antidepressive b. Antihistamine c. Antibiotic d. Antitussive ANS: B
Antihistamines reduce allergic reactions. REF: p. 28 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 19. Another term used to describe a cough suppressant is a. antitussive. b. sublingual. c. antilipemic. d. hypnotic. ANS: A
An antitussive drug is designed to suppress coughs. REF: p. 29 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 20. Which term means a drug used to produce sleep? a. Antihypnotic b. Arrhythmic c. Nebulizer d. Hypnotic ANS: D
A hypnotic drug is designed to produce (induce) sleep. REF: p. 33 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology)
Chapter 04: Dermatologic Pathologies Salvo: Mosby’s Pathology for Massage Therapists, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which type of infection are tineas? a. Fungal b. Viral c. Bacterial d. Parasitic ANS: A
Fungal skin infections are caused by dermatophytes called tinea, which thrive on keratin found in skin. REF: p. 13 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 2. Which is a bacterial infection affecting hair follicles and their associated sebaceous glands? a. Onychomycosis b. Herpes simplex c. Hives d. Acne ANS: D
Acne develops as a bacterial infection upon hair follicles and associated sebaceous glands. REF: p. 7 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 3. Which skin infection is caused by bacteria and is characterized by itching or burning pustules
around the mouth, nose, and hands? a. Psoriasis b. Cellulitis c. Impetigo d. Keratosis ANS: C
Impetigo features itching, burning pustules around the mouth, nose and hands. REF: p. 9 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 4. Paronychia is an infection found in what part of the body? a. Around the nails b. Around the elbow c. On the sole of the foot d. Behind the ears ANS: A
Paronychia features swelling, heat, redness and pain at nail beds.
REF: p. 13 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 5. Folliculitis most frequently occurs in what part of the body? a. On the forearms b. On the scalp c. In the groin, axilla, or beard d. Around the toes ANS: C
Folliculitis is most witnessed in regions with little air exposure such as the groin, axilla and beard. REF: p. 9 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 6. What condition involves inflammation that is limited to hair follicles? a. Dermatitis b. Cellulitis c. Hepatitis d. Folliculitis ANS: D
Folliculitis presents as inflammation of the hair follicles. REF: p. 9 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (U lth.CCaO reMTerminology) TsEinSg TABnaAtoNmKicSaEndLH LeEaR 7. A collection of boils that coalesce to form a larger mass is called a. a furuncle. b. cellulitis. c. a carbuncle. d. folliculitis. ANS: C
A carbuncle is a collection of boils which become one solid mass with multiple openings. REF: p. 10 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 8. Characterized by pain, redness, and swelling, which condition is due to infection in hair
follicles that spread to surrounding areas? a. Wart b. Scabies c. Ringworm d. Boil ANS: D
Boils are infections of the hair follicles which spread to surrounding areas. REF: p. 10 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology)
9. Cellulitis is an infection of a. skin and subcutaneous tissue. b. hair follicles. c. red blood cells. d. fingernails. ANS: A
Cellulitis is a rapidly spreading infection of skin and subcutaneous tissue. REF: p. 11 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 10. Which disease is a viral infection? a. Chickenpox b. Tinea c. Inpetigo d. Cellulitis ANS: A
Chickenpox is caused by the varicella virus. REF: p. 18 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 11. Fungal skin infections can be caused by a. keratin. b. Staphylococcus. c. dermatophytes. d. boils. ANS: C
Dermatophytes are also called tineas. REF: p. 13 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 12. Which condition is a fungal skin infection characterized by a red, raised, and round or oval
scaling area with a clear center? a. Impetigo b. Rosacea c. Ringworm d. Lice ANS: C
Ringworm refers to fungal skin infections. REF: p. 13 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 13. A contagious superficial foot fungus characterized by skin discoloration and a ridge of red
tissue is called
a. b. c. d.
athlete’s foot. plantar ringworm. paronychia. onychomycosis.
ANS: A
Athlete’s foot is a foot fungal infection presenting skin discoloration and red ridged tissue. REF: p. 14 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 14. Which term means athlete’s foot? a. Tinea unguium b. Tinea corporis c. Tinea cruris d. Tinea pedis ANS: D
“Pedis” refers to the feet. REF: p. 14 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 15. Onychomychosis is found on the a. scalp. b. nails. c. groin. d. foot. ANS: B
Onychomychosis is also called tinea unguium which affects nail beds. REF: p. 15 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 16. Which condition is a small, benign mass due to the human papillomavirus (HPV)? a. Wart b. Furuncle c. Cyst d. Ulcer ANS: A
Warts are caused by HPV leading to small, benign masses. REF: p. 21 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 17. The term verruca means a. boil b. wheal c. pustule d. wart
ANS: D
Verruca is latin for “horn” which resembles warts. REF: p. 21 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 18. Which choice is an appropriate massage consideration for warts? a. Treat linens as contaminated. b. Local massage is indicated. c. Offer the client a product containing salicylic acid. d. Warts are an absolute contraindication. ANS: A
Treating linens as contaminated is the safest most appropriate action for working with clients with warts. REF: p. 21 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 19. Which highly contagious viral infection appears as an oral lesion and is caused by the herpes
simplex virus? a. Impetigo b. Cold sore c. Folliculitis d. Psoriasis ANS: B
The herpes simplex virus pTreEsS enTtsBaAs N coKldSE soLreLoErR al.leCsio ns. OM REF: p. 17 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 20. Which type of herpes simplex virus is most common? a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Genital herpes d. Herpetic whitlow ANS: A
Type 1 herpes simplex virus is the most common of this virus variety. REF: p. 18 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 21. What condition presents itself as painful groups of vesicles in bandlike patterns along affected
dermatomes? a. Eczema b. Folliculitis c. Shingles d. Psoriasis ANS: C
Shingles presents along a spinal nerve pathway around the torso in relation to the dermatome patterns. REF: p. 18 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 22. Which condition results from reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus? a. Eczema b. Cellulitis c. Rosacea d. Shingles ANS: D
Shingles is also called herpes zoster, a reactivation of varicella-zoster virus. REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 23. When is massage for a client with chickenpox contraindicated? a. Until lesions have formed pustules b. Until the client is completely recovered c. Only if the therapist has not previously had chickenpox d. Only if there are hypersensitive areas ANS: B
Because chickenpox is highly contagious it is wise to wait until the client is completely recovered to perform bodywork. REF: p. 19 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 24. Which condition is an inflammatory disorder characterized by dry skin that is scaly, leathery,
or crusty and may itch or burn? a. Herpes simplex b. Folliculitis c. Acne d. Eczema ANS: D
Eczema features dry skin which may appear scaly, leathery, crusty with itching or burning sensation. REF: p. 22 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 25. Massage considerations for a client with eczema include a. that it is contraindicated. b. that linens should treated as contaminated. c. adjusting pressure and avoiding broken skin. d. avoiding the use of any type of oil. ANS: C
Adjusting pressure over areas of lichenification and avoiding broken skin is best for eczema clients. REF: p. 23 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 26. Approximately 30% of people with moderate or severe psoriasis will develop a. arthritis. b. eczema. c. shingles. d. rosacea. ANS: A
This phenomenon is called psoriatic arthritis. REF: p. 24 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 27. Massage considerations for a client with psoriasis include a. avoiding the use of lubricant to prevent the spread of infection. b. that it is a local contraindication. c. using a highly emollient lubricant to benefit the client. d. that it is an absolute contraindication. ANS: C
An emollient lubricant will combat the dry skin of psoriasis. REF: p. 24 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 28. What type of dermatitis is due to allergic reactions of the skin when it comes into contact with
various substances? a. Atopic b. Contact c. Eczematous d. Seborrheic ANS: B
Contact dermatitis comes in two varieties: allergic and irritant. REF: p. 25 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 29. Two main types of contact dermatitis are a. eczema and psoriasis. b. irritant and allergic. c. warts and wheals. d. lice and nits. ANS: B
Contact dermatitis comes in two varieties: allergic and irritant. REF: p. 25
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 30. For contact dermatitis, it is best to postpone massage if a. the client has the allergic type. b. the client has the irritant type. c. the affected area is widespread. d. the rash is on the lower extremity. ANS: C
To avoid spreading contact dermatitis, postpone massage if affected areas become widespread. REF: p. 25 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 31. Seborrheic dermatitis is a condition marked by changes in the quantity and quality of a. secretions of the sweat glands. b. cell growth in the dermis. c. scar tissue. d. secretions of the sebaceous glands. ANS: D
“Seborrheic” refers to the sebaceous glands of the skin. REF: p. 26 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 32. What chronic inflammatorT yE diS soTrB deAr N tyKpS icE alL lyLinEvRo. lvC esOoMnly the middle third of the face, and
is characterized by persistent redness and swelling? a. Rosacea b. Onychomycosis c. Psoriasis d. Senile lentigo ANS: A
Rosacea is a progressive, inflammatory skin disease that causes facial redness. Typically, only the middle third of the face is involved (eg, nose, cheeks, chin); however, it also can affect the forehead and the eyes. REF: p. 26 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 33. Which condition is an autoimmune disorder characterized by overproduction of collagen that
affects the skin and internal organs? a. Acne b. Rosacea c. Scleroderma d. Onychomycosis ANS: C
Scleroderma is an autoimmune disorder affecting skin and internal organs due to overproduction of collagen.
REF: p. 27 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 34. Massage considerations for a client with scleroderma include that it a. is an absolute contraindication. b. should be avoided until healing is complete. c. is indicated and beneficial. d. should be avoided on the feet. ANS: C
Massage can benefit the scleroderma client greatly by aiding in improving hand and joint mobility. REF: p. 30 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 35. Which factor can cause hives? a. Viral infection b. Bacterial infection c. Collagen overproduction d. Emotional stress ANS: D
Emotional stress is amongst the causes of hives (urticaria). REF: p. 31 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (U lth.CCaO reMTerminology) TsEinSg TABnaAtoNmKicSaEndLH LeEaR 36. Ichthyosis vulgaris is described as a a. contagious skin condition caused by dermatophytes. b. group of disorders that cause disruption of skin cell generation and removal. c. condition that increases the production of sebum. d. condition that is common in warm, humid climates. ANS: B
Also called fish scale disease, ichthyosis vulgaris disrupts normal skin cell generation and removal. REF: p. 31 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 37. Which disorder involves highly contagious parasites, typically diagnosed by the presence of
nits on the hair shaft? a. Lice b. Scabies c. Ringworm d. Shingles ANS: A
Egg sacs called nits attach onto hair shafts when someone presents with lice. REF: p. 36
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 38. Which condition is a highly contagious infestation caused by burrowing parasitic mites? a. Impetigo b. Scabies c. Cradle cap d. Dandruff ANS: B
Scabies are parasitic mites which burrow into the skin. REF: p. 37 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 39. Where on the body are scabies often found? a. In the beard b. On the top of the head c. In the creases of skin d. Around the eyes ANS: C
The creases of skin are most the most likely location for scabies to burrow into one’s skin. REF: p. 37 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 40. Massage considerations for bruises include that they are a. locally contraindicated until they turn greenish yellow or if gentle pressure is
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painful. b. locally contraindicated until they are completely resolved. c. a systemic contraindication. d. never contraindicated. ANS: A
Once a bruise turns green to yellow, a bruised area is contraindicated typically. REF: p. 38 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 41. A second-degree burn affects which tissue layers? a. The epidermis only b. The dermis only c. The hypodermis d. The epidermis and upper layers of the dermis ANS: D
A second-degree burn affects the epidermis and upper dermal layers but spares the glands and hair follicles within the dermis. REF: p. 39 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 42. Massage considerations for a client with a burn include
a. b. c. d.
local contraindication for all degrees until the affected area is completely healed. indication for first-degree burns. indication for second-degree burns once any wounds develop scabs. contraindication only for third-degree burns.
ANS: A
Burns are typically contraindicated until the affected area has completely healed. REF: p. 40 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 43. What condition involves tearing, thinning, or overstretching of the skin that begins as red to
pink streaks, eventually fading to silvery white? a. Scleroderma b. Shingles c. Rosacea d. Stretch marks ANS: D
Striae, also called stretch marks, involves tearing, thinning or overstretching of the skin. REF: p. 42 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 44. Massage considerations for stretch marks include a. treatment modifications being unnecessary. b. myofascial release as the best treatment option. c. using lighter than normTaE l pSrT esB suAreN. KSELLER.COM d. deep-friction to release adhesions. ANS: C
Because skin is torn or overstretched, using lighter pressure than normal is indicated for stretch marks. REF: p. 42 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 45. Which statement describes tissue presenting with scars? a. Tissue is highly elastic b. Tissue loses function c. Tissue has overactive sweat glands d. Tissue features hyperpigmentation ANS: B
Because scar tissue is found in areas of damage, this tissue loses functionality. REF: p. 41 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 46. What is the term for a thick, elevated scar that grows beyond the boundaries of the original
wound? a. Keloid
b. Pustule c. Adhesion d. Fissure ANS: A
A thickened, elevated scar extending beyond the boundaries of the original wound defines a keloid. REF: p. 41 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 47. Massage considerations for scar tissue include a. avoiding the area completely. b. treating them before the affected area heals and the scar becomes permanent. c. using deep-friction and skin rolling to mobilize the tissue. d. using percussion to stimulate new cell growth. ANS: C
Deep-friction and skin rolling techniques are indicated for addressing scar tissue. REF: p. 41 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 48. The term for a thickening of the skin on the top or sides of the toes is a. nevi. b. wart. c. corn. d. melasma. ANS: C
A corn is a thickening of the skin on the top or sides of toes. REF: p. 43 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 49. Massage considerations for a client who has calluses on the feet include a. using friction to reduce them. b. avoiding the affected area if it is painful. c. treating linens as contaminated. d. using deep pressure to relieve pain. ANS: B
The affected areas may be painful. The therapist needs to inquire about level of pain in the callused region. REF: p. 43 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 50. A description of decubitus ulcers includes that they are a. the result of an allergic reaction. b. the healing stage of a burn. c. caused by lack of blood supply to an area subjected to sustained pressure.
d. caused by staphylococci and streptococci bacteria. ANS: C
Decubitus ulcers occur when there is a lack of blood flow to an area due to sustained pressure upon a region. REF: p. 44 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 51. If a massage therapist notices a client has a decubitus ulcer, which action is appropriate for the
massage therapist to take? a. Use a highly emollient lubricant over the affected area b. Ask the client to wash the area before performing massage c. Perform vigorous massage over the area to increase local circulation d. Avoid performing massage over the area and notify the client’s caregiver ANS: D
Avoid performing massage upon a region affected by a decubitus ulcer and notify a caregiver to ensure proper care is rendered. REF: p. 45 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology) 52. Massage considerations for a client diagnosed with basal cell carcinoma include a. using a highly emollient lubricant to loosen dry skin in relation to tissue damage
caused by treatments. b. ask the client about current signs and symptoms as well as their side effects of
cancer treatments c. performing percussion to increase local circulation and reduce ischemia due to
cancer treatments. d. using deep transverse and multi-directional friction to reduce adhesions created by
cancer treatments. ANS: B
Ask your client about current signs and symptoms as well as their side effects of cancer treatments will be most appropriate before proceeding with massage. REF: p. 47 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Using Anatomic and Health Care Terminology)
Chapter 05: Musculoskeletal Pathologies Salvo: Mosby’s Pathology for Massage Therapists, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which condition is characterized by loss of normal bone density and subsequent increased
susceptibility to fractures? a. Hallux valgus b. Scoliosis c. Still disease d. Osteoporosis ANS: D
Osteoporosis features a loss of bone density leading someone more susceptible to fractures. REF: p. 7 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 2. Inadequate mineralization of mature bones, causing them to become soft, flexible, and
deformed, is called a. osteomalacia. b. osteoporosis. c. Osgood-Schlatter disease. d. myositis ossificans. ANS: A
AN Osteomalacia causes bonesTtE oSbT ecB om eK soSftE , fLleLxE ibR le.aCnO dM deformed. REF: p. 10 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 3. A progressive bone disease marked by abnormal and excessive bone remodeling that result in
weakened and deformed bones is called a. myositis ossificans. b. Paget disease. c. spondylitis. d. osteomyelitis. ANS: B
Abnormal and excessive bone remodeling resulting in weakened and deformed bones is hallmark of Paget disease. REF: p. 9 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 4. Massage considerations for a client diagnosed with osteomyelitis include a. avoiding massage until the infection is resolved and medical clearance is given. b. gentle massage without stretching or mobilizations. c. avoiding local massage while general massage is beneficial. d. massage including mobilizations to increase local circulation.
ANS: A
Because an infection is causing osteomyelitits, massage is contraindicated until infection is resolved. REF: p. 12 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 5. Which disorder is genetic and causes abnormality in the connective tissues of many body
systems? a. Muscular dystrophy b. Marfan syndrome c. Compartment syndrome d. Myositis ossificans ANS: B
Marfan syndrome is genetic in origin and abnormally affects connective tissues. REF: p. 13 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 6. Which muscles are most likely tight and need lengthening in a client with lordosis? a. Abdominals b. Shoulder protractors c. Hip flexors d. Knee flexors ANS: C
Hip flexors can be tight asTthEeS yT puBllAtN heKlS um baLr E spRin.eCfO orM ward with lordosis. EL REF: p. 16 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 7. A structural deformity in which the first metatarsophalangeal joint becomes medially
displaced is called a. bursitis. b. bunion. c. bone cancer. d. baker cyst. ANS: B
Bunions arise from a structural deformity of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. REF: p. 18 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 8. Massage considerations for a client with pes planus include a. avoiding the lateral arch of the foot. b. using only the supine and side-lying positions. c. using deep gliding, kneading, and friction on calf muscles. d. avoiding ankle mobilizations. ANS: C
Deep gliding, kneading and friction on the muscles of the calf region will help alleviate tension within the plantar fascia of the foot. REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 9. Anterior displacement of the vertebra, usually in the lumbar spine, is called a. kyphosis. b. sprain. c. osteomyelitis. d. spondylolisthesis. ANS: D
Spondylolisthesis features an anterior displacement of the vertebra of the lumbar spine most typically. REF: p. 22 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 10. A client with patellofemoral syndrome who has little to no local swelling may benefit most
from a. intensive mobilization of the cuboid bone. b. deep gliding, kneading, friction, and myofascial release to the arch of the affected foot. c. strengthening the lateral rotators of the hip. d. deep gliding, kneading, friction, and myofascial release on the affected quadriceps and hamstrings. ANS: D
Because the quadriceps and hamstrings are affected by patellofemoral syndrome, bodywork upon these muscle groups will aid this client. REF: p. 24 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 11. Another term for patellofemoral syndrome is a. chondromalacia patellae. b. sacroiliac syndrome. c. tibiofibular syndrome. d. iliofemoral syndrome. ANS: A
Patellofemoral pain syndrome, chondromalacia patellae and runner’s knee are other terms for patellofemoral syndrome. REF: p. 23 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 12. An accumulation of synovial fluid behind the knee is called a. gout. b. baker cyst. c. ganglion cyst.
d. bunion. ANS: B
A baker’s cyst presents with excessive fluid behind the knee. REF: p. 26 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 13. Which condition is inflammation of the bursae? a. Synovitis b. Bursitis c. Spondylolisthesis d. Tendonitis ANS: B
Bursitis is inflammation of any of the 150 bursa sacs around the body. REF: p. 27 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 14. Massage considerations for chronic bursitis include a. that it is a local contraindication. b. ice application for 20 minutes each day. c. deep-friction and mobilizations. d. that it is an absolute contraindication. ANS: C
Deep-friction and mobilization techniques will free restrictions from chronic bursitis. REF: p. 28 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 15. Headaches, earaches, toothaches, and jaw pain are common symptoms for which condition? a. Myofascial pain syndrome (MPS) b. Glenohumeral adhesive capsulitis c. Anterior compartment syndrome d. Temporomandibular joint dysfunction (TMJD) ANS: D
TMJD features signs and symptoms in the cranial and cervical regions. REF: p. 28 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 16. Which condition is characterized by progressive damage and eventual loss of articular
cartilage due to normal wear and tear related to aging? a. Lyme arthritis b. Osteoarthritis c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Gouty arthritis ANS: B
Osteoarthritis may manifest as normal wear and tear related to aging creates progressive damage in joints. REF: p. 30 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 17. Which term also refers to osteoarthritis? a. Hypermobile joint disease b. Osteomyelitis c. Osteoporosis d. Degenerative joint disease ANS: D
Because joint structures are progressively worsening with age related wear and tear, degenerative joint disease is another term for osteoarthritis. REF: p. 30 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 18. Massage considerations for a client with osteoarthritis include a. only using the side-lying position. b. avoiding joints that are red or hot to the touch. c. deep stretching to lengthen the tissues crossing affected joints. d. using moderate to deep pressure. ANS: B
If joints are red or hot to the touch, they are inflamed and should be avoided during treatment. REF: p. 31 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 19. Massage considerations for a client with spondylosis include a. that it is contraindicated. b. deep tissue techniques to realign affected vertebrae. c. avoiding stretching or joint mobilization of involved vertebrae. d. techniques applied to the arms and legs only. ANS: C
Because of damage along the spinal column, avoid stretching or joint mobilizations that can potentially injury an unstable spine when spondylosis is present. REF: p. 33 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 20. Considerations for a client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) include that massage a. is indicated only in periods of remission. b. may reduce inflammation during a period of exacerbation. c. is an absolute contraindication in all phases of rheumatoid arthritis. d. may be indicated over affected joints. ANS: A
Massage is indicated for RA when client is in a period of remission.
REF: p. 35 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 21. Chronic, systemic, inflammatory arthritis leading to calcification and fusion of the joints is
called a. myositis ossificans b. ankylosing spondylitis c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Lyme disease ANS: B
Ankylosing spondylitis presents with calcification and fusion of joints. REF: p. 37 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 22. Lyme disease, which begins with a bull’s eye rash, occurs when one is bitten by a tick
carrying which pathogen? a. Human papillomavirus b. Borrelia burgdorferi bacteria c. Dermatophytes d. Staphylococcus aureas bacteria ANS: B
Ticks carrying the Borrelia burgdorferi bacteria convey Lyme disease. REF: p. 40 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 23. Massage considerations for septic arthritis include a. local contraindication for the affected joint. b. absolute contraindication if the client has completely recovered and is
asymptomatic. c. local contraindication if the client has a fever. d. absolute contraindication until the condition has resolved and medical clearance is
given. ANS: D
Because of the infectious cause of septic arthritis, massage is contraindicated absolutely until medical clearance is given. REF: p. 42 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 24. A muscle that appears small, loose, and flattened with reduced strength is considered a. fibrosed. b. atrophied. c. hypertonic. d. strained. ANS: B
“A” negates a term, “trophic/y” implies nourishment of tissues. REF: p. 42 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 10.0 (Pathologies of the Skeletal System) 25. A shortening of a muscle that causes a joint to become fixated in a flexed position is called a. cachexia. b. atrophy. c. degeneration. d. contracture. ANS: D
A contracture presents with joint structure being fixed in a flexed position. REF: p. 43 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 26. The condition marked by shortening and thickening of the palmar fascia that may cause digits
3–5 to be pulled into a flexed position is called a. disuse atrophy. b. plantar fasciitis. c. Dupuytren contracture. d. myofascial pain syndrome. ANS: C
Dupuytren contracture presents as a fixed flexed deviation of the palmar fascia. REF: p. 44 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 27. Which of the following is NOT a type of headache? a. Trigeminal b. Tension c. Migraine d. Cluster ANS: A
Trigeminal refers to cranial nerve V whereas the other options are types of headaches. REF: p. 45 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 28. Myofascial pain syndrome is associated with which condition? a. Tightening of the palmar fascia b. Absence of the thoracolumbar fascia c. The presence of localized trigger points d. Muscular atrophy ANS: C
The presence of localized trigger points within a region creates a condition called MPS when these points actively create pain. REF: p. 49
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 29. Which statement is NOT true when massaging a client diagnosed with fibromyalgia
syndrome? a. Though clients often request deep tissue techniques, this may exacerbate pain. b. The treatment plan should be identical from session to session to ensure consistent progress. c. Working slowly from the most superficial layer then into deeper layers is an optimal treatment plan. d. Tender points should be deactivated carefully and slowly. ANS: B
A fibromyalgia client will present with different symptoms with each visit, therefore the massage treatments can never be identical session to session. REF: p. 48 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 30. The deposition of calcium in soft tissue that has been traumatized by an injury describes
which condition? a. Myositis ossificans b. Reye syndrome c. Osteoarthritis d. Muscular dystrophy ANS: A
Myositis ossificans features calcium deposition within soft tissues traumatized by injury. REF: p. 51 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 31. Which injury involves bones being temporarily displaced at the joint with complete loss of
contact between their articulating surfaces? a. Subluxation b. Concussion c. Dislocation d. Separation ANS: C
A dislocation, also called a luxation, witnesses a complete loss of contact between two articulating joint surfaces. REF: p. 53 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 32. Which injury is a break in a bone? a. Separation b. Dislocation c. Contracture d. Fracture ANS: D
A fracture is a broken bone. REF: p. 54 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 33. Which injury involves joint trauma that stretches or tears ligaments without bone
displacement? a. Dislocation b. Strain c. Separation d. Sprain ANS: D
A sprain presents as damage to ligaments. REF: p. 55 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 34. Which choice is NOT a consideration for massage of a ligament sprain? a. Deep stretching may be beneficial for healing the ligament. b. Avoid applying techniques for 72 hours, and use only the PRICE (protect, rest, ice,
compression, elevation) treatment method during this time. c. After the acute stage, apply cross-fiber friction to realign ligament fibers. d. Treatments of shorter duration are indicated initially until the client becomes
accustomed to pressure. ANS: A
Because ligament tissue isTtoErnS,TdB eeApNstKreStcEhL inLgEisRn.oC t aOpM propriate. REF: p. 56 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 35. A strain is an injury to a a. ligament. b. muscle or its tendon. c. fascial compartment. d. joint capsule. ANS: B
A strain presents as damage to a tendon (musculotendinous unit). REF: p. 56 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 36. Which course of action is most appropriate for a client with an acute strain? a. Increase the tendon length with stretching b. Treat the damaged area as a local contraindication c. Apply deep cross fiber friction to the strained tendon d. Decrease blood flow with ischemic compression ANS: B
Treat an acute strain as a local contraindication until acute phase of injury is over.
REF: p. 57 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 37. Inflammation of a tendon is called a. myositis. b. fasciitis. c. dystrophy. d. tendinitis. ANS: D
Tendinitis presents as inflammation of a tendon. REF: p. 57 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 38. Which treatment plan is most appropriate for a client with tendinitis in the chronic stage? a. Cross-fiber friction to the affected tendon followed by ice application b. PRICE only c. Gentle gliding strokes to increase circulation d. Avoiding applying techniques to the affected area ANS: A
Tendon tissue is healed enough by the chronic injury phase to receive cross fiber friction followed by ice application. REF: p. 58 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (PTaE thS olT ogBieAs N ofKthSeEM la. r SCyO stM em) LuLscEuR 39. Inflammation of a tendon at the attachment to the bone is called a. bursitis. b. sprain. c. epicondylitis. d. tenosynovitis. ANS: C
Epicondylitis presents as inflammation of tendons where attached to bones. REF: p. 57 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 40. Massage considerations for a client with de Quervain tenosynovitis include that it is a. an absolute contraindication. b. an absolute contraindication if local inflammation is present. c. always a local contraindication. d. a local contraindication if inflammation is present. ANS: D
When inflammation is present, de Quervain tenosynovitis is a local contraindication. REF: p. 59 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System)
41. Massage considerations for a client with Osgood-Schlatter disease include a. performing joint mobilizations in all phases of the condition. b. using friction around the knee to reduce adhesions once inflammation has abated. c. strengthening the quadriceps to help relieve tension on the tibial tuberosity. d. avoiding use of a bolster under the knees when treating the quadriceps. ANS: B
After inflammation has abated, friction to reduce adhesions around the knees can alleviate pain related to Osgood-Schlatter disease. REF: p. 60 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 42. Which condition involves spasms of the sternocleidomastoid (SCM) muscles? a. Torticollis b. Epicondylitis c. Tendinitis d. Scoliosis ANS: A
Because of the fixed extended and rotated position of the head, the SCM muscles can become spasmodic. REF: p. 61 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 43. Which group of muscles is also commonly involved in torticollis? a. Pectoralis major and mT inEoS r,TseBrrAaN tuK sS anEteLriLoE r, R an.dCrO hoMmboids b. Rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, and vastus medialis c. Scalenes, trapezius, and splenius capitis and cervicis d. Quadratus lumborum, iliopsoas, hamstrings, and paraspinals ANS: C
Because of the fixed extended and rotated position of the head, the scalenes, trapezius and splenei muscles can become spasmodic. REF: p. 61 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 44. A client was rear ended in heavy traffic 2 days ago and has a stiff neck but no other
symptoms. She stated that her head was thrown back, then forward. Which massage approach is appropriate? a. Treat the flexors and extensors of the neck. b. Treat the lateral flexors of the neck. c. Postpone the massage for at least 72 hours after the injury, and then treat the flexors and extensors of the neck, followed by ice application. d. Postpone the massage for at least 72 hours after the injury, and then treat the lateral flexors of the trunk, followed by heat application. ANS: C
This question describes Whiplash. Massage should be postponed minimum of 72 hours post-injury.
REF: p. 63 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 45. Which statement describes what has occurred to the structures of the neck with Whiplash? a. A rapid acceleration–deceleration contrast force b. A smooth rotation force to the left c. Muscle atrophy due to inactivity d. Muscle hypertonicity due to isometric contractions ANS: A
A rapid acceleration–deceleration of neck structures leads to Whiplash. REF: p. 62 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 46. A disorder of the shoulder joint and its capsule, which then becomes inflamed and eventually
stiff or frozen, is called a. compartment syndrome. b. lateral epicondylitis. c. ankylosing spondylitis. d. adhesive capsulitis. ANS: D
Adhesive capsulitis presents as progressive shoulder inflammation which stiffens the shoulder joint. REF: p. 63 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 47. Which condition is a lateral curvature in the normally straight vertical line of the spine,
usually in the thoracic region? a. Kyphosis b. Scoliosis c. Lordosis d. Spondylosis ANS: B
Scoliosis presents as a lateral or spiral curvature of the spine. REF: p. 17 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 48. Which condition is a benign mass consisting of a thin fibrous capsule enclosing clear,
gelatinous fluids and usually located on a wrist? a. Baker cyst b. Gout c. Ganglion cyst d. Contracture ANS: C
A ganglion cyst is a benign mass containing a clear, gelatinous fluid.
REF: p. 25 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 49. A collection of rare genetic muscle diseases characterized by skeletal muscle atrophy is called a. septic arthritis. b. myositis ossificans. c. shin splints. d. muscular dystrophy. ANS: D
Muscular dystrophy is a collection of rare genetic muscle diseases. REF: p. 43 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System) 50. Which condition involves diffuse soft tissue pain and the presence of multiple tender points? a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Fibromyalgia syndrome c. Dupuytren contracture d. Muscular dystrophy ANS: B
Fibromyalgia syndrome involves diffuse soft tissue pain and multiple tender points. REF: p. 47 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Pathologies of the Muscular System)
Chapter 06: Neurologic Pathologies Salvo: Mosby’s Pathology for Massage Therapists, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which consideration applies if a client with cerebral palsy (CP) cannot speak clearly? a. The client’s guardian must be present. b. The therapist and client must devise a communication code. c. Massage is contraindicated. d. Informed consent can only be provided by the client’s guardian. ANS: B
A clear communication code is necessary for proper treatment if a CP client cannot speak clearly. REF: p. 11 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 2. Which condition is a congenital defect characterized by failure of the posterior spinous
processes of the vertebral column to close, usually in the lumbar spine? a. Amyotrophic lateral dysplasia b. Myasthenia gravis c. Spina bifida d. Shingles ANS: C
Spina bifida features a failT urE eS ofTtB heApNoK stS erEioLr L spEinRo.uC sO prM ocesses of the vertebral column to close. REF: p. 7 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 3. Considerations for clients with less severe forms of spina bifida include that massage is a. contraindicated unless the caregiver is present. b. indicated without any cautions or contraindications. c. contraindicated unless it is geared toward rehabilitation. d. indicated while avoiding the area over the spinal defect. ANS: D
Avoiding the area over the spinal defect yet massaging elsewhere is indicated in less severe forms of spina bifida. REF: p. 8 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 4. Which term means explosive episodes of uncontrolled and excessive electrical activity in the
brain? a. Seizure disorder b. Autism c. Encephalitis d. Alheimer disease
ANS: A
Seizures present as explosive episodes of uncontrolled and excessive electrical activity in the brain. REF: p. 17 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 5. Which course of action is appropriate for the massage therapist to take if a client appears to be
having a seizure? a. Leave the room, call 911, and then call the client’s emergency contact. b. Stay calm, remain in the room, time the seizure, clear the area of objects, and cushion the client’s head with the client’s chin lifted. c. Speak to the client loudly and continuously to keep him or her as alert as possible while holding the client’s hand. d. Put a firm object between the client’s teeth to keep the client from biting his or her tongue. ANS: B
For a client experiencing a seizure upon the treatment table, the therapist needs to ensure protection for the client’s head and time the seizure to note duration of time seizure is ongoing. REF: p. 17 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 6. Which term means paralysis of the arms and legs? a. Hemiplegia b. Monoplegia c. Paraplegia d. Quadriplegia ANS: D
“Quad” implies four, in this case all four limbs witnessing paralysis. REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 7. Which type of paralysis involves only the lower extremities and trunk? a. Quadriplegia b. Hemiplegia c. Paraplegia d. Monoplegia ANS: C
Paraplegia is paralysis of the lower portions of the body solely (since spinal cord damage impacts the body at and below the level of spinal column injury). REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System)
8. Which statements is an appropriate consideration when massaging a client with
attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? a. Longer-than-normal sessions are more appropriate. b. The therapist should strictly adhere to office policies and boundaries to provide structure for the client. c. The client may fidget, talk, and miss appointments. d. Avoid teaching massage techniques to the caregiver of a child with this condition. ANS: C
ADHD clients may exhibit behaviors of fidgeting, talking and missing appointments due to their condition. REF: p. 14 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 9. A person with autism is most likely to benefit from which type of treatment? a. 90-minute sessions combining relaxation and deep tissue massage b. 60-minute sessions focused on firm gliding and light percussion c. 30-minute sessions focused on general relaxation d. 15-minute sessions focused on firm gliding and compressive strokes ANS: D
Short 15-minute sessions focused on firm gliding and compressive strokes will be the best option listed for the ASD client due to sensory challenges. REF: p. 16 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 10. Inflammation of the brain is called a. encephalitis b. meningitis c. shingles d. dementia ANS: A
Inflammation of the brain is termed encephalitis, especially coupled with cerebral edema REF: p. 24 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 11. Which infectious disease is caused by the poliovirus? a. Meningitis b. Poliomyelitis c. Lyme disease d. Shingles ANS: B
The poliovirus causes poliomyelitis. REF: p. 25 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System)
12. Which treatment approach is appropriate for a client with postpolio syndrome? a. 90-minute sessions using deep gliding strokes and percussion b. 90-minute sessions using joint mobilizations and deep-friction c. 30-minute sessions using lighter-than-normal techniques d. 30-minute sessions using joint mobilizations and stretching ANS: C
Short 30-minute sessions using lighter-than-normal techniques will aid clients stricken with postpolio syndrome since the body has become frail. REF: p. 26 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 13. Dementia typically interferes with work and social activities because it a. causes muscle fiber conduction. b. affects vision and causes hearing loss. c. affects thinking, memory, and communicating. d. causes peripheral neuropathy. ANS: C
Dementia affects cognition in the forms of thinking, memory and communication. REF: p. 27 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 14. Which condition is a type of dementia that produces a typical profile of mental deterioration? a. Multiple sclerosis b. Parkinson disease c. Cerebral palsy d. Alzheimer disease ANS: D
Alzheimer Disease manifests similarly to dementia with similar symptoms of dementia. REF: p. 28 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 15. Which is a rare, genetic disease characterized by motor disturbances, mental deterioration, and
abnormal behavior? a. Meningitis b. Parkinson disease c. Huntington disease d. Shingles ANS: C
Huntington disease features motor disturbances, mental deterioration and abnormal behavior. REF: p. 36 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 16. A person with Huntington disease develops a. involuntary, jerky motions of the arms and face.
b. hearing loss. c. progressive muscle atrophy in the thorax and limbs. d. petechial rash. ANS: A
The involuntary, jerky motions witnessed with Huntington disease is referred to as chorea. REF: p. 36 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 17. Which neurologic disorder produces a syndrome of abnormal movements marked by
destruction of dopamine-producing neurons in the brain? a. Guillain-Barré syndrome b. Parkinson disease c. Poliomyelitis d. Alzheimer gravis ANS: B
Parkinson disease is identified within the brain by the destruction of dopamine-producing neurons in portions of the brain. REF: p. 31 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 18. Which disorder results in progressive neural demyelination? a. Alzheimer disease b. Myasthenia gravis c. Cerebral palsy d. Multiple sclerosis ANS: D
Multiple sclerosis presents as progressive neural demyelination throughout the nervous system. REF: p. 34 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 19. Massage considerations for a client with multiple sclerosis (MS) include a. scheduling appointments when he or she begins feeling ill. b. he or she should be evaluated at every visit because symptoms change. c. using neuromuscular techniques to increase nerve transmission. d. that it is an absolute contraindication. ANS: B
Evaluation of an MS client is vital to ensuring proper treatment to the varying nature of symptoms with this condition. REF: p. 36 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 20. What is known of the cause of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)? a. Largely unknown, 10% of cases are genetic
b. Well known, 50% of cases due to Parkinson disease c. Well known, 90% cases are genetic d. Largely unknown, 30% of cases due to Huntington disease ANS: A
The cause of ALS is largely unknown (idiopathic). REF: p. 33 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 21. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) affects which physiologic aspect of the body? a. Intelligence b. Sensory function c. Motor function d. Memory ANS: C
ALS presents with major motor neuron dysfunction within the body. REF: p. 33 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 22. Which condition is due to occlusion or rupture of blood vessels causing disruption in cerebral
blood flow? a. Parkinson disease b. Stroke c. Spina bifida d. Depression ANS: B
Occlusion (blockage) or rupture (tearing) of blood vessels in the brain causes disruption of cerebral blood flow with a stroke. REF: p. 39 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 23. The two main types of stroke are a. petit and grand. b. ischemic and hemorrhagic. c. benign and malignant. d. cerebral and arterial. ANS: B
Ischemic results from occlusions within the brain’s blood vessels and hemorrhagic results from rupturing of the brain’s blood vessels. REF: p. 39 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 24. Migraine headaches appear to be caused by a. muscle tension in the cervical and temporal regions. b. lack of vitamin C.
c. chemical imbalance that dilates and inflames blood vessels. d. harsh sounds and lights. ANS: C
Chemical imbalances cause a disruption of brain vascularity with migraine headaches. REF: p. 42 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 25. Which term is the same as trigeminal neuralgia? a. Brachial plexus injury b. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis c. Tic douloureux d. Radiculopathy ANS: C
Tic douloureux is another term for trigeminal neuralgia, a dysfunction of cranial nerve V. REF: p. 44 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 26. Massage considerations for a client with trigeminal neuralgia include a. treating the disorder as an absolute contraindication. b. avoiding the face and scalp. c. using only the prone position. d. scheduling sessions of shorter-than-normal duration. ANS: B
Mechanical pressure upon TthEeShT eaBdAaN ndKsScE alL pL caEnRa. mC plOifM y symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia. REF: p. 45 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 27. Massage considerations for a client with Bell palsy include a. treating the disorder as an absolute contraindication. b. treating the disorder as a local contraindication. c. focusing on the face and head. d. incorporating light gliding directed upward on facial muscles. ANS: D
Including light gliding upward on facial muscles encourages a correction in the face due to the effects of Bell Palsy. REF: p. 46 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 28. Which disorder is caused by a loss of acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction? a. Guillain-Barré syndrome b. Poliomyelitis c. Parkinson disease d. Myasthenia gravis ANS: D
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease attacking the acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions. REF: p. 47 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 29. Myasthenia gravis results in a. progressive muscle weakness and paralysis. b. loss of memory and intellect. c. progressive hypertonicity of the facial muscles. d. peripheral neuropathy. ANS: A
Progressive muscle weakness and eventual paralysis is witnessed with myasthenia gravis clients. REF: p. 47 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 30. Massage considerations for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome include a. treating it as a local contraindication. b. postponing treatment until full recovery has occurred. c. assisting client on and off the massage table because of medications. d. being aware the client will be sensitive to scented oils and candles. ANS: B
Because the cause of Guillain-Barré syndrome is either unknown or viral, a full recovery is recommended before provT idE inS g TmBaA ssN agKeStrEeaLtL mE enRts.. COM REF: p. 48 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 31. Peripheral neuropathy affects which structures? a. Somatic nerves, autonomic nerves, or both b. Central nerves, peripheral nerves, or both c. Sympathetic nerves, parasympathetic nerves, or both d. Sensory nerves, motor nerves, or both ANS: D
Both sensory and motor nerves can potentially be impacted with peripheral neuropathy. REF: p. 49 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 32. Massage considerations for clients with degenerative disc include a. treating it as an absolute contraindication. b. performing only spinal mobilizations. c. gentle gliding over the affected area after positioning the client for comfort. d. performing longer sessions to enhance benefit from treatment. ANS: C
Gentle gliding over the affected area after moving client into a more comfortable position is best due to the weakened state of the spinal column at a site of degenerative discs. REF: p. 51 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 33. Which condition involves protrusion of the nucleus pulposus through a tear in the annulus
fibrosus? a. Ankylosing spondylitis b. Spina bifida c. Herniated disc d. Peripheral neuropathy ANS: C
A herniated disc involves a protrusion of the nucleus pulposus of the disc as opposed to a bulging disc which features no protrusion of this nucleus. REF: p. 52 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 34. Which condition occurs when pain radiates into the extremities along the path of a
compressed nerve? a. Shingles b. Radiculopathy c. Dementia d. Neuralgia ANS: B
Radiculopathy occurs when pain radiates into the extremities along a path of a compressed nerve. REF: p. 51 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 35. Which condition is inflammation of the sciatic nerve? a. Bell palsy b. Poliomyelitis c. Herpes zoster d. Sciatica ANS: D
Sciatica presents as a result of inflammation of the sciatic nerve. REF: p. 53 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 36. Which condition is most often due to repetitive use of the wrist? a. Carpal tunnel syndrome b. Cerebral palsy c. Postpolio syndrome d. Multiple sclerosis
ANS: A
Carpal tunnel syndrome is an example of a repetitive stress condition. REF: p. 57 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 37. Which nerve is most affected in people with carpal tunnel syndrome? a. Musculocutaneous b. Median c. Ulnar d. Radial ANS: B
The median nerve is compressed and/or irritated by anterior wrist structures with carpal tunnel syndrome. REF: p. 57 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 38. The term frequently used to denote a cerebrovascular accident is a. herniation. b. stroke. c. sequela. d. seizure. ANS: B
The term cerebrovascular accident is another term for a stroke.
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REF: p. 39 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 39. Which action is recommended for a massage therapist to prevent developing carpal tunnel
syndrome? a. Keep wrists flexed while working b. Strengthen forearm and hand muscles c. Use the same strokes for all clients d. Keep table height same for all clients ANS: D
Changing ergonomic factors will help prevent the development of carpal tunnel syndrome. REF: p. 57 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System) 40. Which condition is caused by a compression of nerves in the brachial plexus and/or the
subclavian artery and vein? a. Thoracic outlet syndrome b. Shingles c. Sciatica d. Cervical radiculopathy ANS: A
Thoracic outlet syndrome is caused by a compression of nerves in the brachial plexus and/or subclavian artery and vein. REF: p. 55 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 16.0 (Structure and Function of the Nervous System)
Chapter 07: Endocrine Pathologies Salvo: Mosby’s Pathology for Massage Therapists, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which disease is due to overproduction of growth hormone by the pituitary, causing
gigantism during childhood or acromegaly during adulthood? a. Hypopituitarism b. Hypoparathyroidism c. Hyperthyroidism d. Hyperpituitarism ANS: D
“Hyper” implies too much or greater; therefore hyperpituitarism implies the pituitary is working moreso or creating greater volume of its hormones. REF: p. 4 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 2. Which disease is characterized by enlargement of the hands, feet, and face with protrusion of
the jaw? a. Acromegaly b. Addison disease c. Cushing disease d. Hypoparathyroidism ANS: A
The hands, feet and face grow abnormally large due to excessive growth hormone in clients with acromegaly. REF: p. 5 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 3. Which condition results in dwarfism if it occurs during childhood? a. Hypothyroidism b. Hypoadrenalism c. Hypopituitarism d. Hyperadrenalism ANS: C
“Hypo” implies too little, less than; therefore hypopituitarism results in less pituitary hormone production. If growth hormone is not produced much in childhood, dwarfism results. REF: p. 7 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 4. Massage considerations for a client whose body is underdeveloped (as in dwarfism) as a result
of hypopituitarism include a. sessions of shorter duration to reduce stimulation of the pituitary gland. b. sessions of longer duration to increase stimulation of the pineal gland. c. treatment modifications are unnecessary.
d. treatment is contraindicated. ANS: C
Dwarfism with no complications does not necessitate any modifications. REF: p. 8 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 5. Which disease is caused by insufficient antidiuretic hormone? a. Hyperpituitarism b. Diabetes insipidus c. Hypoadrenalism d. Diabetes mellitus ANS: B
Diabetes insipidus results in insufficient production of antidiuretic hormone resulting in more frequent urination. REF: p. 8 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 6. Vigorous massage within the client's tolerance is indicated for a client with diabetes insipidus
if the client a. has orange juice readily available if glucose levels drop. b. is without any associated conditions. c. has good vitality. d. takes medication regularly. ANS: C
A client with diabetes insipidus with good vitality can receive a vigorous massage within client’s tolerance. REF: p. 8 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 7. Which condition is more prevalent in countries with inadequate intake of dietary iodine? a. Hyperthyroidism b. Diabetes c. Goiter d. Buerger disease ANS: C
Goiters develop where Iodine is not plentiful in diets leading to thyroid diseases. REF: p. 9 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 8. Which disease is characterized by hyperthyroidism? a. Acromegaly b. Addison disease c. Graves disease d. Diabetes
ANS: C
Graves disease features an overactive thyroid gland. REF: p. 10 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 9. Which sign or symptom characterizes Graves disease? a. Chilling easily b. Drop in glucose levels c. Muscle weakness and pain d. Unusual protrusion of the eyeballs ANS: D
Protrusion of the eyeballs (exophthalmus) is characteristic of Graves disease. REF: p. 10 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 10. Which disease is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in the United States? a. Graves b. Hashimoto c. Addison d. Cushing ANS: B
Hashimotos disease is the most common cause of an underactive thyroid in the US. REF: p. 11 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 11. Which statement describes thyroid cancer? a. Men are three times more likely to develop it than women. b. The most common symptom is voice hoarseness. c. The 5-year survival rate is 97%. d. Use deep pressure over areas affected by peripheral neuropathy. ANS: C
The 97% 5-year survival rate is amongst the highest rates for any cancers. REF: p. 12 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 12. Which condition is due to an overproduction of parathyroid hormone (PTH) resulting in
muscle weakness, fatigue, and hypertension? a. Hypothyroidism b. Hyperparathyroidism c. Hypoparathyroidism d. Hyperthyroidism ANS: B
Without PTH as prevalent in the bloodstream, there is an inadequate amount of calcium present. Muscles do not receive sufficient levels of calcium to operate properly.
REF: p. 14 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 13. Which condition results from diminished function of the parathyroid gland leading to
hypocalcemia? a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypoglycemia c. Hypoparathyroidism d. Hyperparathyroidism ANS: C
Hypocalcemia is a hallmark feature of hypoparathyroidism. REF: p. 14 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 14. Aside from the thyroid, which other organ when dysfunctional can be linked to elevated
calcium levels in the body? a. Spleen b. Gallbladder c. Kidney d. Pancreas ANS: C
Both the thyroid and kidneys can control calcium levels in the bloodstream. REF: p. 13 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (O heS rT BoBdA yN SyKsS teE mL s— ocC riO neMSystem) TtE LEEnRd. 15. Which condition results in dry skin, making massage using an emollient lubricant helpful for
the client? a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypoglycemia c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Hypoparathyroidism ANS: D
Emollient lubricants will combat the dry skin present in clients with hypoparathyroidism. REF: p. 15 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 16. Which disorder involves hypercortisolism? a. Addison disease b. Graves disease c. Hodgkin disease d. Cushing disease ANS: D
Elevated levels of cortisol in bloodstream is characteristic of Cushing disease. REF: p. 15 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System)
17. Which statement characterizes Cushing syndrome? a. Thickening of the skin b. Fatigue and muscle weakness c. Rapid wound healing d. Enlarged arms and legs ANS: B
Fatigue and muscle weakness manifest with Cushing syndrome. REF: p. 16 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 18. Which disease results from chronic adrenal insufficiency and is characterized by general
weakness and bronzing of the skin and mucous membranes? a. Addison b. Cushing c. Graves d. Hodgkin ANS: A
Decreased adrenal function results in the general weakness and bronzing of the skin and mucous membranes witnessed with Addison disease. REF: p. 16 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 19. Which condition is a groupToEfSdT isB orA deNrK s cShEarLaL ctE erR iz. edCbOyMchronic elevated blood glucose
levels? a. Diabetes insipidus b. Hyperpituitarism c. Hypoadrenalism d. Diabetes mellitus ANS: D
Chronic hyperglycemia (elevated blood sugar) is witnessed with diabetes mellitus. REF: p. 17 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 20. The three Ps of diabetes mellitus are a. pallor, petechiae, and psoriasis. b. polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. c. pain, pallor, and papule. d. panic, palpitations, and paroxysm. ANS: B
Polyuria (excessive urination), polydipsia (excessive thirst) and polyphagia (excessive hunger) are classic manifestations of Diabetes mellitus. REF: p. 18 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System)
21. Which condition requires regular blood glucose monitoring? a. Goiter b. Myxedema c. Diabetes insipidus d. Diabetes mellitus ANS: D
Due to the tendency towards hyperglycemia, a lifelong commitment of monitoring blood glucose is necessary for diabetes mellitus clients. REF: p. 19 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 22. Which condition is a complication of diabetes mellitus? a. Anxiety b. Reduced sensations c. Weight gain d. Increased heart rate ANS: B
As nerve tissue is damaged due to diabetes mellitus, reduced sensations are a common complication of this condition. REF: p. 19 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 23. Which consideration is necTeE ssS arTyBfoArNmKaS ssE agLing LEaRc.liCenOtMwith insulin-dependent type I
diabetes? a. Avoid massage over recent injection sites for 24 hours. b. Be cautious when working on or around the client's neck. c. Avoid myofascial release over the lower extremities. d. This condition is contraindicated for massage. ANS: A
Avoid massage over a recent injection in a type 1 diabetes client due to tissue damage at the injection site which can easily become infected. REF: p. 19 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 24. Which condition results from decreased blood glucose levels? a. Hyperglycemia b. Hypocalcemia c. Hypoglycemia d. Hypercupremia ANS: C
“Hypo” implies too little, less than; therefore hypoglycemia represents too little glucose (sugar) in the blood supply. REF: p. 19
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 25. Which condition can lead to insulin shock? a. Hypothyroidism b. Hypoglycemia c. Hyperpituitarism d. Hyperemia ANS: B
Hypoglycemia may lead to insulin shock, coma and even death if not treated if it becomes severe. REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 26. Which type of diabetes represents more than 90% of all cases? a. Type I b. Type II c. Insipidus d. Gestational ANS: B
Type II diabetes mellitus represents more than 90% of all diabetes cases according to the National Diabetes Statistics Report. REF: p. 21 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 27.2 Which pathogen is most likely to infect individuals with diabetes mellitus because of sugar 7 imbalance? . a. Fungi b. Viruses c. Protozoa d. Prions ANS: A
Fungi thrive on excessive sugar in the body. Therefore fungi can infect individuals more easily with diabetes mellitus. REF: p. 24 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 28.
A consideration for massage for a client with type II diabetes is a. realizing that massage for this condition is contraindicated. b. suggesting the client refrain from eating a meal within 2–3 hours before treatment. c. keeping sugar, juice, or the client's glucose tablets readily available in the event of
a hypoglycemic episode. d. massaging using an emollient lubricant to address dry skin. ANS: C
Keeping easy sources of sugar available during session will prevent a hypoglycemic episode in treatment.
REF: p. 23 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 29. Which condition can lead to a diabetic coma? a. Hyperglycemia b. Hypothyroidism c. Hypomobility d. Hyperpituitarism ANS: A
When hyperglycemia goes untreated, diabetic coma may result due to the damage caused by excessive sugar levels. REF: p. 24 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 30. Periodontal disease is a common complication of which condition? a. Diabetes insipidus b. Graves disease c. Hashimoto disease d. Diabetes mellitus ANS: D
Complications of diabetes include neuropathy, ulcers, gangrene infection, diabetic retinopathy and cataracts, periodontal disease, kidney diseases, cardiovascular diseases, neurologic diseases, and fungal infections. REF: p. 23 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 31. Which of the following terms means excessive thirst? a. Polydipsia b. Polyphagia c. Hypoglycemia d. Hypercalcemia ANS: A
“Poly” implies more/excess; “dipsia” implies thirst; therefore the term polydipsia describes excessive thirst. REF: p. 22 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System) 32. Which term means low blood calcium levels? a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Hypoglycemia c. Hypocalcemia d. Hypercalcemia ANS: C
“Hypo” implies lower/less than; therefore hypocalcemia implies lower calcium levels in blood. REF: p. 14 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Endocrine System)
Chapter 08: Cardiovascular Pathologies Salvo: Mosby’s Pathology for Massage Therapists, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Massage considerations for clients with anemia resulting from nutritional deficiencies include a. treating the condition as an absolute contraindication. b. paying attention to any underlying conditions. c. performing the treatment in a cooler-than-average room. d. avoiding the abdomen, hands, and feet. ANS: B
Massage can be performed normally for an anemic client resulting from nutritional deficiencies as long as no underlying conditions discovered. REF: p. 8 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 2. Which condition is a genetic disorder characterized by abnormal hemoglobin, causing red
blood cells to become deformed? a. Lupus b. Hemophilia c. Embolism d. Sickle cell disease ANS: D
The deformed shape of redTbEloSoT d BceAllNs K isScE haLrL acE teRri. stC icOoM f sickle cell disease. REF: p. 7 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 3. The genetic disorder that impairs blood-clotting mechanisms and may result in excessive
bruising is called a. phlebitis. b. atherosclerosis. c. hemophilia. d. anemia. ANS: C
Hemophilia manifests as an inability for blood to clot properly and excessive bruising within clients. REF: p. 11 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 4. Which is an appropriate massage approach for a client at risk for thrombosis? a. Electric massagers may dissolve and resolve the blood clot. b. The condition is a contraindication in all stages. c. No special considerations are necessary. d. Avoid deep pressure and vigorous massage on the lower extremities.
ANS: D
The risk of thrombi is higher in the lower extremities therefore avoiding deep pressure or vigorous massage is best to ensure safety. REF: p. 13 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 5. Which condition occurs when an embolus occludes a blood vessel, cutting off circulation? a. Aneurysm b. Embolism c. Anemia d. Hypertension ANS: B
An embolism occurs when a clot which has broken free occludes a blood vessel. REF: p. 13 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 6. Failure of the cardiovascular system to deliver enough oxygen and nutrients to meet the
body’s needs is called a. shock. b. edema. c. pericarditis. d. phlebitis. ANS: A
Shock is a state of the bodyTE wS itnTeB ssAinNgKaS nE inLadLeE quRa.teCdOeM livery of oxygen and nutrients to the body. REF: p. 15 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 7. Which condition is caused by reduced blood supply to the heart and is experienced as chest
pain? a. Arrhythmia b. Angina pectoris c. Rheumatic fever d. Myocarditis ANS: B
Angina pectoris features chest pain coupled with a reduced blood supply to the heart. REF: p. 18 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 8. A person with a history of angina pectoris should always carry which medication? a. Lithium b. Diuretics c. Antiarrhythmic agents d. Nitroglycerin
ANS: D
Nitroglycerin tablets may be used to dilate blood vessels to aid clients with angina pectoris. REF: p. 19 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 9. Which action is a consideration for a client with an arrhythmia? a. If the client has shortness of breath, avoid the supine position. b. If the client feels fatigued, increase treatment time to 90 minutes. c. Elevate the upper body in the supine position. d. Massage is contraindicated for this condition. ANS: C
Elevating the upper body with client in the supine position will aid a client with arrhythmia. REF: p. 18 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 10. Which condition involves the inability of the heart to pump blood to meet the body’s
demands? a. Anemia b. Congestive heart failure c. Peripheral arterial disease d. Atherosclerosis ANS: B
Congestive heart failure features an inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the body’s demands. REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 11. The systemic inflammatory condition that may develop as a complication after an untreated
streptococcal throat infection is called a. orthostatic hypotension. b. Raynaud disease. c. rheumatic fever. d. myocardial infarction. ANS: C
Rheumatic fever is a complication after an untreated streptococcal infection left untreated which begins to negatively affect the heart. REF: p. 27 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 12. What is inflammation of the muscular walls of the heart called? a. Pericarditis b. Endocarditis c. Phlebitis d. Myocarditis
ANS: D
“Myo” implies muscle; therefore myocarditis refers to inflammation of the muscular walls of the heart. REF: p. 30 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 13. What is inflammation of the pericardium called? a. Endocarditis b. Myocarditis c. Phlebitis d. Pericarditis ANS: D
“Pericardio” implies the pericardium; therefore pericarditis refers to inflammation of the pericardium surrounding the heart. REF: p. 31 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 14. Endocarditis, myocarditis, and pericarditis involve inflammation of the , respectively. a. muscular wall of the heart, sac surrounding the heart, and interior lining of the
heart b. interior lining of the heart, muscular wall of the heart, and sac surrounding the
heart c. sac surrounding the heart, muscular wall of the heart, and interior lining of the
heart
d. muscular wall of the heTaE rt,SiT ntB erAioNr K liS niE ngLoLfEthRe.hCeaOrM t, and sac surrounding the
heart ANS: B
“Endocardio” implies the inner lining of the heart; “myo” implies muscle; “pericardio” implies the pericardium surrounding the heart. REF: pp. 29-31 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 15. Which term means a heart attack? a. Angina pectoris b. Arteriosclerosis c. Hypertension d. Myocardial infarction ANS: D
“Myocardial” refers to the heart muscle; “infarction” implies dead tissue due to the attack (loss of blood to the heart). REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 16. Massage considerations for a client with a history of myocardial infarction who has regained
full strength include
a. b. c. d.
lighter-than-normal massage should always be performed. sessions should never last longer than 30 minutes. vigorous techniques can be performed if other complications are absent. this condition is a contraindication.
ANS: C
A heart attack victim who has regained full strength with no complications can receive vigorous massage techniques. REF: p. 21 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 17. Sudden and unexpected complete cessation of the heartbeat is called a. myocardial infarction. b. cardiac arrest. c. congestive heart failure. d. cardiomyopathy. ANS: B
Cardiac arrest features a sudden, unexpected cessation of heartbeat. REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 18. Which disorder is a group of arterial diseases characterized by a thickening and reduction of
arterial wall elasticity, which leads to “hardening of the arteries”? a. Arteriosclerosis b. Deep venous thrombosT isESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Thromboangiitis obliterans d. Raynaud disease ANS: A
Arteriosclerosis features a hardening of arteries due to a thickening within arterial walls or loss of arterial wall elasticity. REF: p. 32 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 19. The treatment plan for a client diagnosed with atherosclerosis should include a. that massage is contraindicated for this condition. b. reducing sessions to 30 minutes or less. c. avoiding deep pressure or techniques that increase circulation. d. using recommendations for diseases associated with this condition. ANS: D
Because atherosclerosis is most often related to other diseases, recommendations for similar cardiovascular diseases are pertinent. REF: p. 34 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 20. What is a common, often asymptomatic, disorder of sustained and elevated blood pressure?
a. b. c. d.
Phlebitis Hypertension Hypotension Peripheral arterial disease
ANS: B
Hypertension is often asymptomatic due to elevated blood pressure on a sustained basis. REF: p. 39 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 21. Which consideration is appropriate for a client with controlled hypertension? a. Massage may assist in keeping blood pressure high through induced relaxation. b. Assistance off the table may be necessary if orthostatic hypotension is present. c. Light-headedness indicates the need for more vigorous technique application. d. Massage may increase stress and the activity of the sympathetic nervous system. ANS: B
Orthostatic hypotension may result in a client passing out from a dizzy spell therefore assistance off the table may be necessary. REF: p. 41 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 22. Which disorder is a localized weakness of a blood vessel wall? a. Phlebitis b. Anemia c. Aneurysm d. Vasospasm ANS: C
An aneurysm features a dilation of a vessel due to weakness of a vessel wall. REF: p. 37 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 23. Which disorder is characterized by cycles of vasospasms, typically in superficial tissues of
fingers and toes? a. Hemophilia b. Aneurysm c. Cerebrovascular accident d. Raynaud disease ANS: D
Raynaud disease features cycles of vasospasms typically witnessed in the fingers and toes. REF: p. 42 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 24. Considerations for a client with Raynaud disease include that massage a. is contraindicated. b. is best performed on the affected area when symptoms are present.
c. should be accompanied by the application of ice. d. may improve local circulation when administered between attacks. ANS: D
Massage may improve local circulation for a Raynaud disease client between attacks. REF: p. 43 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 25. An inflammatory condition of small- and medium-size arteries of the extremities strongly
associated with long-term use of smoking tobacco is a. phlebitis. b. thrombophlebitis. c. thromboangiitis obliterans. d. varicosities. ANS: C
Long term use of smoking tobacco negatively impacts the small and medium sized arteries of the extremities in Buerger disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans. REF: p. 44 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 26. Which condition is inflammation of the veins? a. Myocarditis b. Phlebitis c. Aneurysm d. Shock ANS: B
“Phleb” implies veins; therefore phlebitis refers to inflammation of the veins. REF: p. 45 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 27. Which condition is due to dilated veins, causing their valves to become incompetent? a. Varicose veins b. Thromboangiitis obliterans c. Hemophilia d. Anemia ANS: A
Varicose veins refer to dilated veins which have incompetent valves. REF: p. 47 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 28. Which of the following is NOT a consideration for a client with varicose veins? a. Avoid the area if pressure causes pain or if the client is at risk for clot formation. b. Massage the area proximal to varicosities first to encourage venous return. c. Use bolsters to raise the area of varicosities above the heart. d. Massage is always a local contraindication.
ANS: D
Avoiding areas with the varicosities if pressure causes pain or if the client has risk factors or a history of clot formation is important for clients with varicose veins. REF: p. 48 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 29. If vein inflammation is accompanied by thrombus formation, the condition is referred to as a. phlebitis. b. thrombophlebitis. c. Raynaud syndrome. d. varicose veins. ANS: B
Vein inflammation coupled with thrombi formation within veins is termed thrombophlebitis. REF: p. 45 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System) 30. A sudden drop in blood pressure when moving from a lying down or sitting position to an
upright or standing position, causing a loss of balance, is called a. coronary artery disease. b. hypertension. c. orthostatic hypotension. d. aneurysm. ANS: C
Orthostatic hypotension feT atE urSesTaBsAuN ddKeS nE drLoL pE ofRb.loCoOdMpressure when moving from lying down/sitting to upright/standing causing a loss of balance. REF: p. 42 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Cardiovascular System)
Chapter 09: Lymphatic and Immune Pathologies Salvo: Mosby’s Pathology for Massage Therapists, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which condition is abnormal accumulation of fluids due to an obstruction in lymph flow? a. Lymphadenitis b. Lymphadenopathy c. Lymphangitis d. Lymphedema ANS: D
Lymphedema features an abnormal accumulation of fluids due to damaged lymphatic vessels leading to an obstruction of lymph flow. REF: p. 6 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Lymphatic System) 2. Which condition is abnormal accumulation of fluids from a sluggish or overloaded lymph
transport system? a. Edema b. Mononucleosis c. Anemia d. Lymphedema ANS: A
Edema occurs when there T isEanST abBnA orN mKaS l aEcL cuLmEuR la. tiC onOoMf fluids yet the lymphatic vessels remain intact. REF: p. 6 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Lymphatic System) 3. Which term means a condition involving depressions left in the skin when compressing and
then releasing pressure? a. Angioedema b. Pitting edema c. Anasarca d. Ascites ANS: B
Pitting edema leaves a visible depression within the skin when pressed upon then released. REF: p. 6 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Lymphatic System) 4. Edema involving an extremity is called which type? a. Nonpitting b. Dependent c. Pulmonary d. Peripheral
ANS: D
“Peripheral” refers to the four limb extremities. REF: p. 6 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Lymphatic System) 5. Which type of edema is associated with allergic reactions? a. Anasarca b. Angioedema c. Ascites d. Peripheral edema ANS: B
Angioedema affects deeper tissues and is associated with allergic reactions. REF: p. 6 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Lymphatic System) 6. Which technique is NOT recommended for a client with edema? a. Deep-friction b. Superficial gliding c. Clearing strokes d. Lymphatic drainage ANS: A
Deep-friction is not recommended for a client with edema as underlying tissues and fluids will be abnormally dispersed.
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REF: p. 8 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Lymphatic System) 7. Enlarged lymph nodes, red streaks, chills, fever, and headaches are signs and symptoms of a. lymphangitis. b. myopathy. c. chronic fever syndrome. d. allergy. ANS: A
Lymphangitis is marked by the presence of enlarged lymph nodes, red streaks, chills, fever and headaches. REF: p. 9 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Lymphatic System) 8. The medical term for enlarged lymph nodes is a. lymphedema. b. lymphadenitis. c. lymphadenopathy. d. lymphangitis. ANS: C
“Lymph” refers to the lymphatic system; “adeno” refers to glandular/nodular tissue; “pathy” refers to a condition of tissue. REF: p. 10 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Lymphatic System) 9. Massage considerations for enlarged lymph nodes include a. the application of thermotherapy. b. local contraindication if other systemic conditions are absent. c. the application of deep-friction on the affected area. d. assuming the client is contagious. ANS: B
Enlarged lymph nodes are a local contraindication if other systemic conditions are absent since the body is actively fending off disease. REF: p. 11 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Lymphatic System) 10. Assuming a physician’s approval, what is the most appropriate factor in massage for the
non-Hodgkin lymphoma client? a. Ask your client about past signs and symptoms as well as measures to amplify cancer treatments b. Ask your client which essential oil is preferred with their massage treatments. c. Ask your client about current signs and symptoms as well as side effects of cancer treatments d. Ask your client the depth of pressure they prefer with their deep tissue massage treatments ANS: C
Taking into consideration current signs and symptoms as well as side effects of cancer treatments allows the therapist to make the best treatment plan possible for the non-Hodgkin lymphoma client. REF: p. 13 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Lymphatic System) 11. Which term means a substance that produces allergic reactions? a. Myeloma b. Pathogen c. Pyrexia d. Allergen ANS: D
An allergen is any substance that produces allergic reactions within the body. REF: p. 15 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Immune System) 12. The most commonly used term for type I hypersensitivities is a. edema. b. cellulitis.
c. allergies. d. immunities. ANS: C
A type I hypersensitivity reaction is more commonly called an allergy. REF: p. 15 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Immune System) 13. Which type of immune reaction may be a severe, acute, life-threatening allergic reaction? a. Anaphylaxis b. Type II c. Type III d. Immunologic ANS: A
An anaphylaxis reaction can be severe, acute and life-threatening. REF: p. 15 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Immune System) 14. Which condition is characterized by prolonged, severe, and disabling fatigue, frequently
accompanied by flulike symptoms? a. Systemic lupus erythematosus b. Multiple myeloma c. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma d. Chronic fatigue syndrome ANS: D
Chronic fatigue syndrome presents with flu-like symptoms with prolonged, severe and disabling fatigue. REF: p. 18 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Immune System) 15.
Which treatment approach for a client with chronic fatigue syndrome is appropriate? a. Vigorous massage will be energizing if the client is feeling more pain than usual. b. The client’s response to the previous treatment should be considered before each new session. c. The techniques used should be consistent from session to session to ensure favorable results. d. Longer sessions using deeper-than-normal pressure are always the most optimal. ANS: B
With a chronic fatigue client, the client’s response to the previous treatment needs to be considered before each new session. REF: p. 19 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Immune System) 16. Which condition is a chronic autoimmune, inflammatory disease affecting the skin, bones,
joints, and many other organ systems?
a. b. c. d.
Systemic lupus erythematosus Raynaud syndrome Multiple myeloma Hodgkin lymphoma
ANS: A
Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune, inflammatory disease affecting the skin, bones, joints and many organ systems. REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Immune System) 17. Massage considerations for a client with lupus who feels fatigued and has joint pain and
swelling include a. focusing on vigorous techniques that promote circulation. b. being consistent from session to session to ensure favorable results. c. having treatment sessions longer than 60 minutes. d. being contraindicated until the client enters a period of remission. ANS: D
A Lupus client needs to be in a remission period of their fatigue and joint pain and swelling before massage is indicated. REF: p. 21 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Immune System) 18. At which stage would a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)–infected individual have
AIDS? a. Stage I b. Stage II c. Stage III d. Stage IV ANS: D
Stage IV features a complete progression of HIV to AIDS. REF: p. 24 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Immune System) 19. Which is a disease caused by HIV? a. Systemic lupus erythematosus b. AIDS c. Chronic fatigue syndrome d. MERSA ANS: B
When HIV progresses through its four stages, AIDS develops. REF: p. 24 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Immune System) 20. Which statement is true about massage for clients with HIV or AIDS?
a. Both conditions are absolute contraindications. b. Massage is postponed until 6 weeks after the start of pharmacotherapy. c. The therapist is a greater health hazard to an HIV-positive client than the client is
to a healthy therapist. d. No special considerations exist for HIV-positive clients. ANS: C
Because the non-HIV therapist has a healthier immune system than their HIV-positive client, the therapist potentially may convey infections during treatment that can harm the HIV-positive client. REF: p. 25 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Immune System)
Chapter 10: Respiratory Pathologies Salvo: Mosby’s Pathology for Massage Therapists, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. As one ages, what occurs to voice quality? a. Voice quality changes as vocal cords become more elastic b. Voice quality remains the same throughout lifetime c. Voice quality changes as vocal cords become less elastic d. Voice quality vacillates as muscles become stronger ANS: C
Voice quality will change as one ages because vocal cords become less elastic over time. REF: p. 5 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 2. Which term is the same as infectious rhinitis? a. Common Cold b. Pneumonia c. Influenza d. Sinusitis ANS: A
Infectious rhinitis is another term for the common cold witnessed frequently in individuals. REF: p. 5 TOP: TMETSBT OB KA : sN ecKtiS onE2L1L 0.E 4R (P. atC hoOloMgy) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 3. Which situation describes massage contraindication for a client with a common cold? a. For the first 24–48 hours of the onset of symptoms b. Only if the client has taken prescription cold medication c. Until symptoms abate, which is usually 5 days from onset d. Without clearance from a health care provider ANS: C
Waiting 5 days from the onset of symptoms is typically long enough for most clients before massage is indicated. REF: p. 6 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 4. Which condition is inflammation of the mucosal lining of the sinuses? a. Bronchitis b. Laryngitis c. Pharyngitis d. Sinusitis ANS: D
Sinusitis presents as inflammation of the mucosal lining of sinuses.
REF: p. 6 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 5. Which consideration is appropriate for a client with chronic sinusitis? a. That massage is contraindicated for the first 24–48 hours. b. Avoiding placing the client in the prone position if pressure from the face rest
causes pain c. Treating linens as contaminated d. Consulting the client's health care provider for approval prior to performing the
massage ANS: B
Avoiding placing a client in prone position will help ease pain and pressure off a client’s face if chronic sinusitis presents. REF: p. 7 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 6. Which condition is inflammation of the larynx, often resulting in loss of voice? a. Pharyngitis b. Sinusitis c. Rhinitis d. Laryngitis ANS: D
Laryngitis features inflammation present in the voice box (larynx) resulting in a loss of voice. REF: p. 9 TOP: TMETSBT OB KA : sN ecKtiS onE2L1L 0.E 4R (P. atC hoOloMgy) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 7. Which is the most common cause of laryngitis? a. Respiratory infections b. Smoke or other irritants c. Stomach acid reflux d. Voice strain from yelling ANS: A
A respiratory infection (upper) is the most common cause of laryngitis. REF: p. 9 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 8. Influenza is caused by which type of pathogen? a. Viruses b. Bacteria c. Fungi d. Protozoa ANS: A
Viruses are the cause of influenza. REF: p. 11 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System)
9. Which condition is a viral respiratory infection resulting from the Epstein–Barr virus? a. Emphysema b. Pulmonary embolism c. Tuberculosis d. Infectious mononucleosis ANS: D
The Epstein–Barr virus is the cause of infectious mononucleosis (aka “mono”). REF: p. 12 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 10. Massage considerations for a client with mononucleosis include that massage a. may help shorten the duration of symptoms. b. is contraindicated until the client is completely recovered and has clearance from a
health care provider. c. is indicated if the client has fever. d. may be performed while the client has symptoms if fever is absent. ANS: B
Waiting until a client has completely recovered and received clearance from their health care provider is best course of action with a client with infectious mononucleosis. REF: p. 13 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 11. Which condition is inflamm atS ioT nB ofAtN heKpSleEuLraLl E mRem brO anMes? TE .C a. Pneumoconiosis b. Bronchitis c. Pleurisy d. Tuberculosis ANS: C
Pleurisy presents as inflammation of the pleural membranes surrounding the lungs. REF: p. 19 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 12. Which condition is the most common infectious cause of death in the United States? a. Cystic fibrosis b. Lung cancer c. Pneumonia d. Tuberculosis ANS: C
Pneumonia is the most common infectious cause of death in the United States. REF: p. 15 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 13. Which type of lung infection is caused by bacteria in 75% of the cases?
a. b. c. d.
Infectious mononucleosis Influenza Pneumoconiosis Pneumonia
ANS: D
In 75% of pneumonia cases, bacteria is the cause of this condition. REF: p. 16 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 14. Which consideration is appropriate for post-recovery massage for a client who has had
pneumonia? a. Using deep-friction and deep gliding to loosen the muscles of respiration b. That treatment should be limited to 90 minutes and gentle techniques to encourage relaxation should be used c. That only the prone position should be used d. That treatment is contraindicated ANS: A
Loosening the muscles of respiration with deep-friction and deep gliding strokes will aid the pneumonia client. REF: p. 16 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 15. Which condition is a chronic lung infection caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium
tuberculosis, typically tranT sm edBbAyNinKfS ecEteLdLdE roRp. leC tsO ?M EiSttT a. Tuberculosis b. Emphysema c. Pneumonia d. Pleurisy ANS: A
Tuberculosis is a chronic lung infection caused by the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria. REF: p. 17 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 16. Which describes most people who have primary tuberculosis? a. High fever, nausea, and sweating b. Shortness of breath and dizziness c. Signs of cyanosis d. Asymptomatic or vague symptoms ANS: D
Primary tuberculosis can be difficult to diagnose as it can present with vague symptoms or asymptomatically. REF: p. 18 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System)
17. Which disorder is characterized by persistent or recurring obstruction of air flow that worsens
with exertion? a. Laryngeal cancer b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease c. Tuberculosis d. Pulmonary embolism ANS: B
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is characterized by persistent or recurring obstruction of air flow making breathing more challenging. REF: p. 21 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 18. Which condition is NOT an example of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease? a. Asthma b. Emphysema c. Pleurisy d. Chronic bronchitis ANS: C
Pleurisy is an inflammatory condition of the lungs whereas the other three options are chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases. REF: p. 19 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 19. Which condition is a chronTicEiS nfTlaBmAmNaK toSryEdLiL soErdRe. r cCaO usMed by bronchial obstruction
characterized by wheezing, prolonged expiration, shortness of breath, and sensations of chest tightness? a. Sinusitis b. Asthma c. Pulmonary edema d. Infectious mononucleosis ANS: B
Asthma is a condition featuring chronic inflammation leading to wheezing, prolonged expiration, shortness of breath and chest tightness. REF: p. 23 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 20. Which condition is an inflammation of the bronchial mucosa with resultant swelling and
mucous hypersecretion? a. Sinusitis b. Laryngitis c. Rhinitis d. Bronchitis ANS: D
Bronchitis features inflammation of the bronchial mucosa with swelling and mucous hypersecretion.
REF: p. 26 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 21. Which cause is the most common for chronic bronchitis? a. Over-consumption of alcohol b. Cigarette smoking c. Insufficient mucous production d. Mineral deficiency ANS: B
90% of cases of chronic bronchitis are caused by cigarette smoking. REF: p. 26 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 22. Which disease results from the destruction of the alveolar walls due to long-term exposure to
irritants such as cigarette smoke or air pollution? a. Emphysema b. Pneumonia c. Pleurisy d. Asthma ANS: A
Emphysema results in a destruction of alveolar walls due to long-term exposure to irritants such as cigarette smoke or air pollution. REF: p. 27 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 23. Why do people with emphysema often develop a barrel chest? a. Lack of vitamin K b. Increase of vital capacity c. Added exertion of expiration d. Development of kyphosis ANS: C
The extra muscular effort of expiration causes increased exertion of the chest resulting in “barrel chest” appearance of the torso. REF: p. 28 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 24. Which of the following respiratory conditions is caused by long-term dust inhalation, usually
occurring in the workplace? a. Tuberculosis b. Pneumoconiosis c. Pneumonia d. Apnea ANS: B
Long-term dust inhalation is the cause of pneumoconiosis.
REF: p. 29 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 25. Which condition is genetic and causes hypersecretion of cells that produce mucous, saliva,
and digestive enzymes? a. Apnea b. Pleurisy c. Cystic fibrosis d. Tuberculosis ANS: C
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition affecting exocrine glands producing mucous, saliva and digestive enzymes. REF: p. 32 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 26. Which condition is a temporary cessation or absence of spontaneous breathing? a. Sleep Apnea b. Pleurisy c. Asthma d. Infectious Rhinitis ANS: A
Sleep apnea is a temporary cessation or absence of spontaneous breathing during sleep. REF: p. 34 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 27. Which condition involves excessive amounts of fluid in the lungs, interfering with gas
exchange? a. Asthma b. Pulmonary edema c. Influenza d. Emphysema ANS: B
Pulmonary edema features excessive amounts of fluid in the lungs, interfering with gas exchange. REF: p. 36 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 28. Which is a general term used for hypersensitivity of the nasal mucosa to allergens? a. Common cold b. Bronchitis c. Pneumonia d. Hay fever ANS: D
Hay fever is a hypersensitivity reaction of the nasal mucosa to allergens.
REF: p. 38 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 29. Which is another term for allergic rhinitis? a. Sinusitis b. Common cold c. Hay fever d. Influenza ANS: C
Hay fever is also termed allergic rhinitis. REF: p. 38 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 30. The medical term for sore throat is a. pleuritis. b. pharyngitis. c. pleurisy. d. pneumonia. ANS: B
The clinical term for a sore throat is pharyngitis, inflammation of the pharynx (throat). REF: p. 8 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System)
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31. Which reason is why the lung cancer rate is so poor? a. The lungs are a frequent site of both primary and secondary cancers. b. Primary lung cancer rarely metastasizes. c. Lung cancer is often detected in the early stages. d. Many late-stage lung tumors are responsive to treatment. ANS: A
The lungs are a frequent site for both primary and secondary cancers since this region is easily prone to metastasis. REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System) 32. Which condition is most likely to develop from a blood clot in a leg vein? a. Pleurisy b. Pulmonary embolism c. Obstructive sleep apnea d. Tuberculosis ANS: B
Approximately 90% of pulmonary emboli originate as blood clots or thrombi from leg veins and are also called deep vein thrombosis (DVT). REF: p. 37 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System)
33. Massage considerations for a client with obstructive sleep apnea include a. performing vigorous techniques to ensure the client stays awake during the
treatment. b. being aware that the client would most likely experience an episode while lying
prone. c. avoiding working on the back if the client cannot lie prone. d. using the client's preferred position of sleep for the majority of the treatment. ANS: D
Using the client’s preferred position of sleep is preferred to aid the obstructive sleep apnea client. REF: p. 35 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Respiratory System)
Chapter 11: Gastrointestinal Pathologies Salvo: Mosby’s Pathology for Massage Therapists, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Lack of tone in the lower esophageal sphincter increases the risk of which digestive
condition? a. Intestinal obstruction b. Hemorrhoids c. Acid reflux d. Diverticulum ANS: C
When the lower esophageal sphincter loses muscle tone, acid reflux may easily result. REF: p. 6 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 2. Massage considerations for a client with nausea from a non contraindicated cause include a. excluding mobilizations, stretches, pressure, and speed that rocks the client and
moves the head or limbs. b. using a side-lying position only. c. focusing on the abdomen and low back. d. requiring permission from a health care provider. ANS: A
Exclude mobilizations, streTtcEhS esT, B prAeN ssK urSe EanLdLsE peRe. dCwOhM ich rocks a client’s body with clients with nausea. REF: p. 7 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 3. Which term describes vomiting? a. Hemorrhoid b. Hernia c. Emesis d. Diarrhea ANS: C
Vomiting is also termed emesis. REF: p. 8 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 4. Abdominal massage should be applied in which method? a. In broad strokes, in a counter-clockwise direction b. In circular strokes, in a clockwise direction c. Without a bolster behind the knees d. Inferior to superior ANS: B
Abdominal massage performed with circular clockwise strokes supports overall digestion activity. REF: p. 10 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 5. Which term means frequent passing of unformed, loose, watery stools? a. Nausea b. Diarrhea c. Constipation d. Gastritis ANS: B
Diarrhea is described as frequent passing of informed, loose, watery stools. REF: p. 11 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 6. Which condition is an acute infectious viral disease caused by the paramyxovirus? a. Thrush b. Pharyngitis c. Tonsillitis d. Mumps ANS: D
Mumps is a condition caused by paramyxovirus. REF: p. 12 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 7. Which condition is inflammation of the tonsils? a. Tonsillitis b. Mumps c. Pharyngitis d. Gastritis ANS: A
Tonsillitis features inflammation of the tonsils. REF: p. 15 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 8. Which sign or symptom characterizes tonsillitis? a. Heartburn b. Diarrhea c. Difficulty swallowing d. Nausea ANS: C
Difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) is a characteristics of tonsillitis. REF: p. 15 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System)
9. Which condition is periodic regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus, caused by
relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter or increased intraabdominal pressure? a. Gastroesophageal reflux disease b. Peptic ulcer disease c. Ulcerative colitis d. Hiatal hernia ANS: A
Gastroesophageal reflux disease features periodic regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus, caused by relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter or increased intraabdominal pressure. REF: p. 16 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 10. The most common symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease is a. loss of appetite. b. heartburn. c. fever. d. weight gain. ANS: B
Heartburn is the most common symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease. REF: p. 16 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 11. Ulcerations of the mucosal lining in parts of the gastrointestinal tract exposed to acidic gastric
juice, often caused by the bacteria Helicobacter pylori, are known as a. diverticulitis. b. ulcerative colitis. c. peptic ulcer disease. d. Crohn disease. ANS: C
Peptic ulcer disease ulcerations of the mucosal lining in parts of the gastrointestinal tract exposed to acidic gastric juice, often caused by the bacteria Helicobacter pylori. REF: p. 17 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 12. Which condition is inflammation of the gastric mucosa? a. Diverticulitis b. Gastritis c. Cholecystitis d. Colitis ANS: B
Gastritis is an inflammatory of the gastric mucosa. REF: p. 18
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 13. Massage indications for a client with gastroenteritis include a. once the client begins antibiotic treatment. b. only if the client is free from vomiting. c. if the cause is an allergic reaction to food. d. after 48 hours of being symptom-free. ANS: D
A client with gastroenteritis should wait at least 48 hours of being symptom-free to receive massage treatments. REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 14. Which condition involves benign growths on mucous membranes, commonly found in the
colon? a. Fissures b. Polyps c. Hemorrhoids d. Diverticula ANS: B
Polyps are benign growths on mucous membranes commonly found within the colon. REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 15.1 Benign growths suspended by a stalk on mucous membranes are called 5 a. pedunculated polyps. . b. diverticula. c. hemorrhoids. d. mumps. ANS: A
Pedunculated polyps are benign growths suspended by a mucous membrane stalk. REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 16. Which condition is characterized by abnormal muscular contraction of the colon and
excessive mucus in the stool? a. Appendicitis b. Gastroenteritis c. Pancreatic cancer d. Irritable bowel syndrome ANS: D
Irritable bowel syndrome is characterized by abnormal muscular contraction of the colon and excessive mucus in the stool. REF: p. 25
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 17. Massage considerations for a client with irritable bowel syndrome include a. that it is contraindicated. b. focusing on relaxation and stress management while avoiding the abdomen if
sensitive. c. deep abdominal massage. d. that it is indicated only after symptoms have subsided. ANS: B
Focusing on relaxation and stress management while avoiding the abdomen if sensitive is a client has irritable bowel syndrome. REF: p. 25 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 18. Which condition is infection or inflammation of diverticula? a. Ulcerative colitis b. Diverticulitis c. Pancreatitis d. Irritable bowel syndrome ANS: B
Diverticulitis involves either infection or inflammation of diverticula which develop along the large intestine walls. REF: p. 24 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (O heS rT BoBdA yN SyKsS teE mL s— TtE LD EiRge.stCivOeMSystem) 19. Which condition is a type of chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects any part of the
gastrointestinal tract and can extend through all of its layers? a. Cholecystitis b. Jaundice c. Crohn disease d. Duodenal ulcer ANS: C
Crohn disease is a type of chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects any part of the gastrointestinal tract and can extend through all of its layers. REF: p. 27 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 20. Massage considerations for a client with Crohn disease include a. always beginning with the client in the supine position. b. using circular, clockwise strokes on the abdomen. c. avoiding the abdomen. d. knowing that treatment adaptations are unnecessary. ANS: C
Avoiding the abdomen is a massage consideration for a client with Crohn disease.
REF: p. 28 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 21. Which condition is an inflammation of the large intestine that usually begins in the rectum and
then spreads proximally? a. Crohn disease b. Diverticulosis c. Irritable bowel syndrome d. Ulcerative colitis ANS: D
Ulcerative colitis features inflammation of the large intestine that usually begins in the rectum and then spreads proximally. REF: p. 22 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 22. Which condition is inflammation of the vermiform appendix? a. Appendicitis b. Peritonitis c. Diverticulitis d. Gastritis ANS: A
Inflammation of the vermiform appendix is termed appendicitis. REF: p. 29 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (O heS rT BoBdA yN SyKsS teE mL s— TtE LD EiRge.stCivOeMSystem) 23. Which approach is appropriate for the massage therapist if a client reports pain that began
vaguely near the umbilicus then shifted to the lower right quadrant, and who has had periods of nausea for the past 6–12 hours? a. Perform massage to mobilize the contents of the abdomen. b. Immediately refer the client for medical evaluation due to symptoms of appendicitis. c. Realize these are symptoms of gastroenteritis and postpone massage until symptoms subside. d. Avoid placing the client in the prone position. ANS: B
Appendicitis is a medical emergency requiring immediate medical attention. Massage is postponed until the condition resolves. REF: p. 30 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 24. Dilated or inflamed veins in the anal or rectal regions are called a. hemorrhoids. b. hernias. c. diverticula. d. polyps.
ANS: A
Hemorrhoids are dilated or inflamed veins in the anal or rectal regions. REF: p. 30 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 25. Yellowish coloring of the skin and mucosa caused by elevated blood bilirubin is called a. dermatitis. b. cirrhosis. c. thrush. d. jaundice. ANS: D
Skin and mucous membranes turn a yellow hue with jaundice due to elevated bilirubin levels in blood. REF: p. 33 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 26. Massage considerations for a client with jaundice include a. that treatment is indicated as long as fever and nausea are absent. b. performing the treatment in the semireclining position. c. requiring parental approval. d. that it is contraindicated. ANS: D
To not tax the liver greatly, massage is contraindicated when a client exhibits jaundice.
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REF: p. 34 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 27. Which condition is inflammation of the liver? a. Hepatitis b. Peritonitis c. Pancreatitis d. Gastritis ANS: A
Viral hepatitis is inflammation of the liver. REF: p. 34 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 28. Which statement is NOT true for a client diagnosed with hepatitis? a. Fever and jaundice are contraindicated with massage postponed. b. Avoid deep pressure near the liver. c. Massage is contraindicated until all symptoms have subsided. d. Impairment of the liver greatly increases the chances of bruising. ANS: C
Massage is contraindicated until all symptoms have subsided since a virus is active within the body during a symptomatic spell of hepatitis.
REF: p. 35 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 29. Which condition is progressive liver disease with liver cells destroyed and replaced with
fibrous scar tissue? a. Hepatitis b. Pancreatitis c. Cirrhosis d. Gastritis ANS: C
Cirrhosis is a progressive liver disease with liver cells destroyed and replaced with fibrous scar tissue REF: p. 36 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 30. Which condition is cholelithiasis? a. Gallbladder inflammation b. Gallstones c. Liver inflammation d. Gastric reflex ANS: B
The presence of gallstones indicates the condition cholelithiasis. REF: p. 38 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (O heS rT BoBdA yN SyKsS teE mL s— TtE LD EiRge.stCivOeMSystem) 31. A client with gallstones most likely feels pain in the a. lower back. b. lower left quadrant of the abdomen. c. lower right quadrant of the abdomen. d. middle back and right shoulder. ANS: D
The middle back and right shoulder are the most likely areas a client with gallstones will feel pain associated with the stones. REF: p. 38 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 32. Which condition is inflammation of the gallbladder? a. Cholelithiasis b. Gastritis c. Peritonitis d. Cholecystitis ANS: D
Cholecystitis features inflammation of the gallbladder. REF: p. 39 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System)
33. Which condition is most likely to result in abdominal adhesions? a. Peritonitis b. Gastritis c. Cirrhosis d. Jaundice ANS: A
Peritonitis, inflammation of the peritoneal abdominal lining, most likely results from abdominal adhesions. REF: p. 48 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 34. Which type of cancer is amongst the most lethal, accounting for 10% of all cancer deaths? a. Pancreatic b. Stomach c. Liver d. Colorectal ANS: D
Colorectal cancer is amongst the most lethal cancers accounting for 10% of all cancer deaths. REF: p. 31 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 35. Sensitivity to gluten resulting in diarrhea, fatigue, flatulence, bloating, and dermatitis
describes which condition? a. Food poisoning b. Gastroesophageal reflux disease c. Crohn disease d. Celiac disease ANS: D
Celiac disease is a hypersensitivity reaction to gluten in one’s diet. REF: p. 50 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 36. Which is a proper massage consideration for a client with peritonitis? a. Massage only the torso and upper limbs b. Massage is postponed until the condition has resolved. c. Massage only the gluteals and lower limbs d. Massage is considered if the client exhibits only mild pain. ANS: B
Because peritonitis is a medical emergency that requires immediate medical attention, massage is postponed until the condition has resolved. REF: p. 48 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System)
37. Which structures are protrusions of tissues or organs through a weakened membranous or
cavity wall? a. Polyps b. Ulcers c. Diverticula d. Hernias ANS: D
Hernias are identified as protrusions of tissue or organs through a weakened membranous or cavity wall. REF: pp. 44-47 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 38. Massage considerations for a client who has a surgical mesh to repair or prevent a hernia
include a. avoiding the use of lubricant. b. vibration on the abdomen to increase peristalsis. c. that techniques such as friction are contraindicated over the site. d. contraindication for 3 months after surgery. ANS: C
Friction techniques are contraindicated for clients with surgical mesh in conjunction with hernia treatments because these techniques can weaken the integrity of the mesh. REF: p. 43 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 39. A femoral hernia is described as a. a loop of intestine that descends through the canal just beneath the groin. b. passage of intraabdominal contents through a weakness around the belly button. c. part of the stomach protruding through the diaphragm into the thorax. d. a loop of intestine that enters the inguinal canal. ANS: A
A femoral hernia features a loops of intestine protruding through the femoral canal just beneath the groin. REF: p. 46 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System) 40. Which action is most appropriate when massaging a client with pancreatitis? a. Massage the abdomen in a clockwise fashion with firm pressure b. Avoid the abdomen if pressure causes pain or discomfort c. Avoid the ribcage as the ribs will be hypersensitive d. Massage the mid-back to decrease any acute pain felt ANS: B
Avoid the abdomen if pressure causes pain or discomfort for a pancreatitis client. REF: p. 42 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Digestive System)
Chapter 12: Urinary Pathologies Salvo: Mosby’s Pathology for Massage Therapists, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Glomerulonephritis is condition of the kidneys commonly witnessed in which demographic? a. Girls between 3 and 7 years b. Boys between the ages of 3 and 7 years c. Men between 30 and 39 years d. Females between 30 and 39 years ANS: B Glomerulonephritis is condition of the kidneys commonly witnessed in boys between ages 3 and 7 years. REF: p. 4 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Urinary System) 2. Which condition is a common sign or symptom of kidney disorders? a. Hypoglycemia b. Jaundice c. Hypertension d. Gallstones ANS: C Hypertension commonly occurs in kidney disorders due to a disruption of the circulatory system in conjunction with a lack of healthy kidney function. REF: p. 3 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Urinary System) 3. Which term means inflammation of the kidney’s glomeruli? a. Polycystic kidney disease b. Urethritis c. Renal calculi d. Glomerulonephritis ANS: D Glomerulonephritis is an inflammatory condition of the kidney’s glomeruli structures. REF: p. 4 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Urinary System) 4. Which condition is caused by damage to the glomerulus, usually from a local or systemic disease? a. Kidney stones b. Urethritis c. Nephrotic syndrome d. Bladder cancer
ANS: C Nephrotic syndrome is a condition caused by damage to the glomerulus either from local or systemic disease. REF: p. 9 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Urinary System) 5. Massage considerations for a client who has a history of kidney stones but is now without current signs or symptoms include a. knowing cautions are unnecessary. b. reducing treatment time to 30 minutes. c. avoiding vigorous movement such as percussion over the low back. d. using lighter-than-normal pressure to prevent fatiguing. ANS: C Avoiding vigorous movement such as percussion over the low back is advised for a client with a history of kidney stones, even without current signs or symptoms. REF: p. 9 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Urinary System) 6. Which term means an inflammatory condition of one or both kidneys? a. Pyelonephritis b. Urethritis c. Cystitis d. Hepatitis ANS: A Pyelonephritis is an inflammatory condition of one or both kidneys. REF: p. 11 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Urinary System) 7. Which condition is a slowly progressive and irreversible disease wherein the kidneys become riddled with thousands of multiple grapelike cysts? a. Pyelonephritis b. Glomerulonephritis c. Nephrotic syndrome d. Polycystic kidney disease ANS: D Polycystic kidney disease manifests as a slowly progressive and irreversible disease wherein the kidneys become riddled with thousands of multiple grapelike cysts. REF: p. 13 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Urinary System) 8. Failure of the kidneys to adequately perform their physiologic functions is called renal a. congestion. b. failure.
c. nephrosis. d. stones. ANS: B The term “renal” refers to the kidneys. REF: p. 14 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Urinary System) 9. Which term is used to denote that only 10% or less of renal function remains? a. Renal insufficiency b. Renal dysfunction c. End-stage renal failure d. Renal crisis ANS: C End-stage renal failure is the most severe classification as only 10% or less of renal function remains. REF: p. 14 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Urinary System) 10. Which action is NOT a common treatment modification for clients with nonacute disorders of the bladder and urinary tract? a. Position the client for comfort. b. Suggest that the client void before massage. c. Avoid the lumbar andTE abSdT om opKeS lvE icLaL reEasR. .COM BiAnN d. Apply vigorous percussion near the kidney. ANS: D Applying vigorous percussion near the kidney will not be appropriate as this may exacerbate a disorder of the bladder and urinary tract. REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Urinary System) 11. Which term means an infection of one or more structures of the urinary system? a. Urinary tract infection b. Polycystic kidney disease c. Urinary incontinence d. Nephrotic syndrome ANS: A A urinary tract infection (UTI) is an infection of one or more structures of the urinary system. REF: p. 16 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Urinary System) 12. Most urinary tract infections (UTIs) are caused by which type of pathogen? a. Fungi
b. Bacteria c. Protozoa d. Viruses ANS: B Eighty percent of UTI cases are caused by the Escherichia coli (E. Coli) bacteria. REF: p. 16 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Urinary System) 13. Women are more vulnerable to urinary tract infections because they a. are more prone to kidney infections. b. are more prone to cysts. c. have a short urethra that is close to the anus. d. sit on toilet seats. ANS: C Women are more vulnerable than men to UTIs because of shorter urethras and the urethra is closer to the anus where E. coli bacteria reside. REF: p. 16 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Urinary System) 14. Which term means inflammation of the urinary bladder? a. Pyelonephritis b. Urethritis c. Cystitis d. Hepatitis ANS: C Cystitis features inflammation of the urinary bladder. REF: p. 17 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Urinary System) 15. Which of the following choices is NOT a sign or symptom of cystitis? a. Numbness in the suprapubic region and lower back b. Blood in urine c. Pain in the lateral hip area d. Sweet odor to urine ANS: B Sweet odor to urine, pain in the lateral hip area and numbness of the suprapubic region and lower back are signs/symptoms of cystitis. REF: pp. 17-18 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Urinary System) 16. Characterized by painful urination, which term means inflammation of the urethra? a. Urethritis b. Glomerulonephritis
c. Nephritis d. Pyelonephritis ANS: A Urethritis features inflammation of the urethra. REF: p. 19 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Urinary System) 17. Which term means the loss of voluntary control of the urinary bladder? a. Incontinence b. Urethritis c. Filtration d. Glomerulonephritis ANS: A Incontinence features a loss of voluntary control of the urinary bladder. More frequent urination results. REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Urinary System) 18.
What is the purpose of Kegel exercises? a. Tone the muscles of the pelvic floor b. Increase the filtration rate of the kidneys c. Push urine through the urethra faster d. Assist the kidneys inTcE onStrToB lliA ngNK blS ooEdLpLreEssRu. reCOM ANS: A Kegel exercises increase the tone of pelvic floor muscles strengthening muscles which prevent incontinence. REF: p. 21 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Urinary System) 19. Which method is a type of blood filtration usually provided in a hospital setting or a dialysis center? a. Chemotherapy b. Lithotripsy c. Peritoneal dialysis d. Hemodialysis ANS: D “Hemo” refers to blood; hemodialysis is a method of blood filtration often employed with clients of kidney disease. REF: p. 7 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Urinary System) 20. Which term means blood in the urine that is often due to a kidney or bladder infection? a. Pyuria
b. Hematuria c. Dysuria d. Polyuria ANS: B “Hema” refers to blood; therefore hematuria refers to urine presenting with blood due to kidney or bladder infection. REF: p. 8 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Urinary System)
Chapter 13: Reproductive Pathologies, Conditions, and Sexually Transmitted Infections Salvo: Mosby’s Pathology for Massage Therapists, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.
are responsible for the development of female sex organs, and are responsible for the development of male sex organs. a. Estrogens and progesterone; testosterone and dihydrotestosterone b. Estrogen and luteinizing hormone; testosterone and follicle-stimulating hormone c. Luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone; progesterone and dihydrotestosterone d. Hormones and ovum; spermatozoa and zygotes ANS: A Estrogens and progesterone are female sex hormones whereas testosterone and dihydrotestosterone are male sex hormones. REF: p. 4 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System)
2. Which is a significant change occurring with menopause? a. Increased energy b. Osteoporosis c. Hypokalemia d. Increased skin turgor ANS: B Osteoporosis is a significant change occurring during menopause for females. REF: p. 5 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 3. Which manifestation of reproductive disease is common with females? a. Headache b. Palpable masses in the cervical lymph nodes c. Breast and genital discharge d. Anxiety ANS: C Breast and genital discharge are a common manifestation in female reproductive disease. REF: p. 5 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 4. Which condition is enlargement of the prostate gland? a. Amenorrhea b. Benign prostatic hyperplasia c. Pelvic inflammatory disease d. Prostatitis
ANS: B Benign prostatic hyperplasia presents as an enlargement of the prostate gland in men. REF: p. 5 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 5. Which condition is inflammation of the prostate? a. Candidiasis b. Mastitis c. Trichomoniasis d. Prostatitis ANS: D Prostatitis features inflammation of the prostate. REF: p. 47 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 6. Which term means the cyclic sloughing off of endometrial tissue from a nonpregnant uterus through the cervix and out the vagina? a. Amenorrhea b. Menopause c. Dysmenorrhea d. Menstruation ANS: D Menstruation features theTcEySclTicBsA loNuK ghSinEgLoLffEoRf .enCdOoM metrial tissue from a non-pregnant uterus out the female body. REF: p. 6 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 7. Which measure should be avoided for a client who is near or is experiencing menstruation? a. Hot packs on the abdomen b. Deep kneading and friction to the abdominals and iliopsoas c. Hot packs on the lower back d. Deep kneading and friction to the quadratus lumborum, paraspinals, and gluteals ANS: B Deep kneading and friction within the abdomen and upon the iliopsoas will exacerbate symptoms of menstruation. REF: p. 7 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 8. Which term means cessation of menstruation? a. Menopause b. Endometriosis c. Prostatitis d. Dysmenorrhea
ANS: A Menopause is defined as a cessation of menstruation for at minimum 12 months. REF: p. 21 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 9. Which measure should be avoided for a client who is experiencing menopausal symptoms? a. Emollient lubricant b. Deep kneading or friction over the lower back c. Blankets, table warmers, and hot packs d. Joint mobilizations ANS: C Blankets, table warmers and hot packs are avoided for a menopausal client because hot flashes are a common symptom with this client. REF: p. 22 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 10. Which condition is a cluster of symptoms that occur 3–14 days preceding menstruation and is relieved by its onset? a. Uterine prolapse b. Uterine fibroids c. Endometriosis d. Premenstrual syndrome ANS: D Premenstrual syndrome is a cluster of symptoms that occur 3–14 days preceding menstruation and is relieved by its onset. REF: p. 7 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 11. Which condition is characterized by the absence of menstruation? a. Dysmenorrhea b. Endometriosis c. Preeclampsia d. Amenorrhea ANS: D Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation and may be either primary or secondary. REF: p. 9 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 12. What is painful menstruation called? a. Amenorrhea b. Dysmenorrhea c. Preeclampsia d. Prostatitis
ANS: B Dysmenorrhea refers to menstrual cramps and features painful menstruation. REF: p. 10 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 13. Which condition is characterized by painful menstruation due to endometrial tissue outside the uterus? a. Uterine fibroids b. Endometriosis c. Endometritis d. Pelvic inflammatory disease ANS: B Endometriosis is characterized by painful menstruation due to endometrial tissue outside the uterus. REF: p. 11 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 14. Benign tumors originating in the uterus are called a. endometriosis. b. uterine cancer. c. fibroids. d. dysmenorrhea. ANS: C Fibroids are benign tumors originating in either the endometrium and myometrium of the uterus. REF: p. 12 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 15. Which term describes surgical removal of the uterus? a. Prostatectomy b. Lumpectomy c. Oophorectomy d. Hysterectomy ANS: D A hysterectomy surgical procedure features the removal of the uterus. REF: p. 13 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 16. Caused primarily by bacteria from a sexually transmitted infection, which condition is inflammation of the female reproductive organs? a. Mastitis b. Pelvic inflammatory disease c. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
d. Preeclampsia ANS: B Pelvic inflammatory disease features inflammation of the female reproductive organs and is primarily caused by a sexually transmitted infection. REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 17. Which disease is a vaginal infection caused by the yeast-like fungus Candida albicans? a. Vaginal candidiasis b. Gonorrhea c. Chlamydia d. Trichomoniasis ANS: A Vaginal candidiasis is caused by a variety of yeast-like fungus such as Candida Albicans. REF: p. 21 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 18. Massage considerations for a client with vaginal candidiasis (yeast infection) include a. avoiding the prone position if it puts pressure on the abdomen. b. avoiding deep tissue techniques to the abdomen. c. postponing treatment until the disorder has resolved. d. adapting the treatment in any way is unnecessary. ANS: D Yeast infections with no complications pose no need to alter massage treatment plans. REF: p. 21 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 19. Which condition involves nodules in breast tissue? a. Fibrocystic breast change b. Mastitis c. Toxemia d. Premenstrual syndrome ANS: A Fibrocystic breast changes describes nodules residing in breast and mammary tissue. REF: p. 41 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 20. Which condition is inflammation of the breast? a. Mastitis b. Preeclampsia c. Mastectomy d. Chlamydia
ANS: A Mastitis in an inflammation of breast tissue. REF: p. 42 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 21. Which term refers to the gestational process involving events of implantation, embryonic and fetal growth, and ending in birth? a. Menarche b. Pregnancy c. Lactation d. Menopause ANS: B Pregnancy is describes a sequence of events including the events of implantation, embryonic and fetal growth, and ending in birth. REF: p. 23 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 22. Which condition is NOT a symptom of pregnancy? a. Nausea and morning sickness b. Enlarging and tender breasts c. Commencement of menses d. Progressive enlargement of the abdomen ANS: C Menarche describes the commencement of the menses. REF: p. 6 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 23. Pregnancy-induced hypertension, which contraindicates massage until the condition is resolved, is called a. amenorrhea. b. preeclampsia. c. uterine prolapse. d. placenta previa. ANS: B Preeclampsia is also called pregnancy-induced hypertension. REF: p. 29 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 24. Which is a severe form of preeclampsia that involves seizures? a. Dysmenorrhea b. Endometriosis c. Chlamydia d. Eclampsia
ANS: D Eclampsia is a severe form of preeclampsia involving seizures. REF: p. 29 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 25. Massage considerations for clients with sexually transmitted infections such as chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, and trichomoniasis include a. postponing the treatment until after day 3 of pharmacotherapy. b. contraindication until the condition has completely resolved. c. adaptations are unnecessary because therapists avoid the genitals. d. requiring glove use by the therapist. ANS: B Massage therapy is postponed with sexually transmitted infections, including chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, and trichomoniasis, until the condition has been resolved. REF: p. 29 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 26. Which course of action is most appropriate for a client with prostate cancer which has been cleared for massage by a physician? a. Ask your client to receive massage three times weekly after cancer treatments. b. Ask your client about current signs, symptoms and side effects of cancer treatments. c. Perform a deep abdominal massage to alleviate scar tissue from cancer treatment. d. Provide the client a hT eaEliSnT gB heArbNK orStiEnL ctL urE eR to.sCuO ppMlement cancer treatments. ANS: B Asking a prostate cancer client about current signs and symptoms as well as side effects of cancer treatments is the most appropriate course of action by the therapist. REF: p. 50 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 27. Which term describes a surgical removal of the prostate? a. Hysterectomy b. Mastectomy c. Radical prostatectomy d. Benign prostatectomy ANS: C A radical prostatectomy is a surgical removal of the prostate. REF: p. 49 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 28. Which disease is a chronic sexually transmitted infection caused by herpesvirus? a. Genital herpes b. Syphilis
c. Chlamydia d. Trichomoniasis ANS: A Genital herpes is a chronic sexually transmitted infection caused by the herpesvirus. REF: p. 54 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 29. Which is a painless, highly contagious lesion witnessed in the first stage of syphilis? a. Wart b. Chancre c. Enlarged lymph node d. Benign mammary mass ANS: B A chancre is a painless, highly contagious lesion witnessed in the first stage of syphilis. REF: p. 53 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System) 30. Which disease is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the protozoa Trichomonas vaginalis? a. Gonorrhea b. Chlamydia c. Trichomoniasis d. Syphilis ANS: C Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the protozoa Trichomonas vaginalis. REF: p. 56 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 13.0 (Other Body Systems—Reproductive System)
Chapter 14: Oncology Massage Salvo: Mosby’s Pathology for Massage Therapists, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which type of disease is characterized by abnormal cells that possess uncontrollable division, lack programmed cell death, and can accumulate into masses called tumors? a. Autoimmune b. Infectious c. Cancer d. Deficiency ANS: C Cancer is clinically defined as disease is characterized by abnormal cells that possess uncontrollable division, lack programmed cell death, and can accumulate into masses called tumors. REF: p. 4 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 2. Which word means tumor? a. Neoplasm b. Tubercle c. Cyst d. Nodule ANS: A A neoplasm is also called a tumor. REF: p. 4 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 3. What does oncology study? a. Hormonal changes within the body b. The role of genetics within the body c. Diagnosis and treatment of hypertension d. Diagnosis and treatment of cancer ANS: D Oncology is the study of the diagnosis and treatment of cancer. REF: p. 4 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 4. Which is the most common death-related cancer in both men and women with approximately 224,390 new cases and 158,080 cancer-related deaths estimated for 2016?
a. b. c. d.
Skin Brain Liver Lung
ANS: D According to the American Cancer Society, lung cancer is considered an epidemic, with approximately 224,390 new cases and 158,080 cancer-related deaths estimated for 2016. REF: p. 49 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 5. Which term means a noncancerous tumor? a. Malignant b. Benign c. Cystic d. Fibrotic ANS: B A noncancerous tumor is considered benign as opposed to cancerous tumors which are malignant. REF: p. 9 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 6. Which term means a c ancerous tumor? a. Fibrotic b. Benign c. Cystic d. Malignant ANS: D A cancerous tumor is considered malignant as opposed to noncancerous tumors which are benign. REF: p. 9 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 7. Which growth is a malignant tumor? a. Adenoma b. Osteoma c. Osteosarcoma d. Chondroma ANS: C Osteosarcomas are examples of malignant tumors. REF: p. 9
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 8. Which type of cancer develops from muscle cells or connective tissues? a. Sarcoma b. Lymphoma c. Carcinoma d. Melanoma ANS: A Sarcomas develop from muscle or connective tissues whereas carcinomas arise from epithelial tissue. REF: p. 9 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 9. Which type of cancer develops from epithelial tissue? a. Sarcoma b. Melanoma c. Carcinoma d. Lymphoma ANS: C Carcinomas arise from epithelial tissue whereas sarcomas develop from muscle or connective tissues. REF: p. 9 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 10. Which term describes the manner in which normal cells experience frequent or persistent exposure to carcinogens thereby mutating? a. Dysplasia b. Atrophy c. Anaplasia d. Hypertrophy ANS: A Dysplasia is the process in which normal cells experience frequent or persistent exposure to carcinogens, thereby mutating. REF: p. 9 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 11. Which term is used to describe the spreading of cancer cells from a primary site of origin to distant sites? a. Benign b. Mitosis
c. Angiogenesis d. Metastasis ANS: D Metastasis describes the spreading of cancer cells from a primary site of origin to distant sites. REF: p. 10 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 12. Which are two common ways in which cancer spreads? a. Bloodstream and digestive tract b. Local spread and airborne fluids c. Seeding of the digestive and respiratory tracts d. Bloodstream and lymphatic system ANS: D Cancer can spread via the bloodstream, lymphatic system or direct invasion of surrounding tissue. REF: p. 10 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 13. Most cancers are attributed to which cause? a. Carcinogens b. Oncogenes c. Oncoviruses d. Pathogens ANS: A The term carcinogen refers to a cancer-causing agent. REF: p. 4 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 14. Which are NOT common causes of cancer? a. Viruses and smoking b. Fungi and protozoa c. Hormones and genetic mutations d. Chemicals and radiation ANS: B Neither fungi nor protozoa have been identified by an oncology or cancer study organization as a carcinogenic factor. REF: pp. 4-5 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer)
15. Which statement best describes carcinogens? a. Cancer-causing genes b. Cancer-causing agents such as chemicals and radiation c. Cancer-causing immune conditions d. Cancer-causing hormones ANS: B A carcinogen is a cancer-causing agent such as a chemical or radiation type. REF: p. 4 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 16. Eighty percent of all cancers are linked to which factor? a. Genetics b. Heredity c. Environmental influences such as diet d. Hormonal imbalances ANS: C According to the National Cancer Institute, eighty percent of all cancers are linked to environmental influences such as diet. REF: p. 4 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions foTrECSliT enBtsAw ceE r)R.COM NiKthSCEaLnL 17. Which cancer is viral-linked in 80–90% of cases? a. Bone b. Pancreas c. Breast d. Cervical ANS: D Cervical cancer has been linked in the vast majority of cases to viruses such as Herpes simplex and Human papilloma virus. REF: p. 32 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 18. Which term describes the formation of new blood vessels within a structure such as a tumor? a. Metastasis b. Extravasation c. Angiogenesis d. Hemophilia ANS: C
Angiogenesis describes the formation of new blood vessels within a structure such as a tumor. REF: p. 8 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 19. For a client who has had surgery to remove cancer, the massage therapist must consider and plan for all EXCEPT which risk factor? a. Clot formation b. Full-body edema c. Reduced function d. First-degree skin burn ANS: D First degree burns are typically not a factor for clients who have undergone a cancer removal surgery. REF: p. 17 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 20. Which two conditions are typical concerns after cancer-related surgeries? a. Hypertension and angina pectoris b. Lymphedema and cellulitis c. Bronchitis and emphysema d. Crohns disease and cT olE itS isTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: B Lymphedema and cellulitis are typical concerns after cancer-related surgeries. REF: p. 17 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 21. Which condition is common after a cancer client receives radiation treatments? a. Acute renal failure b. Congestive heart failure c. Radiation vitiligo d. Radiation dermatitis ANS: D Radiation dermatitis is a common condition amongst clients receiving radiation treatments. REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 22. Which treatments utilize ionizing radiation to kill or inactivate cancer cells? a. Radiation therapy
b. Magnetic resonance imaging c. Chemotherapy d. CAT scan ANS: A Radiation therapy utilizes radiation to kill or inactivate cancer cells. REF: p. 19 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 23. A consideration for a client treated with radiation is that the massage therapist should a. increase treatment time to 90 minutes if the client feels fatigued. b. assess skin condition before each massage. c. wear gloves with certain types of radiation therapy. d. use an emollient lubricant on irradiated areas. ANS: B Because of the likelihood of radiation dermatitis, the skin needs to be assessed before each massage. REF: p. 20 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 24. Massage considerations for a client undergoing chemotherapy who has a fever include that a. it is a common side eT ffE ecSt T anBdAtN reK atS mE enLtLaE daRp. taC tioOnMs are unnecessary. b. it is a rare side effect and requires the use of lighter-than-normal pressure. c. treatment time should be reduced to 30 minutes if the client is also fatigued. d. treatment is contraindicated until the client is fever-free for 48 hours. ANS: D Treatment is contraindicated until the client is fever-free for 48 hours for a client undergoing chemotherapy who has a fever. REF: p. 22 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 25. Which technique should be avoided for a cancer client recently receiving a port? a. Hand reflexology b. Cranial sacral therapy c. Joint mobilization d. Swedish style massage ANS: C Joint mobilizations are discouraged for clients who recently receive a port in conjunction with their treatments. REF: p. 23 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with Common
Pathologies—Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 26. Peripheral neuropathy is a common side effect of which treatment? a. Chemotherapy b. Biologic therapy c. Hormonal therapy d. Radiation therapy ANS: A Peripheral neuropathy is a common side effect of chemotherapy. REF: p. 27 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 27. If a client is receiving chemotherapy and has received clearance for massage therapy but is experiencing neuropathy, which treatment adaptation is appropriate? a. Modifications are unnecessary. b. Avoid hypersensitive areas. c. Elevate the area with neuropathy, and apply ice packs. d. Neuropathy is an absolute contraindication. ANS: B Avoiding hypersensitive areas will be appropriate for a client is receiving chemotherapy and has received clearance for massage therapy but is experiencing neuropathy. REF: p. 22 TOTPE: ST MBTA BN OK KS : sEeL ctL ioEnR2. 10C.4O(MPathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with Common Pathologies—Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 28. Which client position is discouraged for a cancer client also with anemia? a. Supine b. Prone c. Side-lying upon left side d. Side-lying upon right side ANS: B The prone position is discouraged for a cancer client also with anemia REF: p. 24 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 29. Which syndrome is a contributing factor to cancer related deaths? a. Fibromyalgia b. Anorexia-cachexia c. Ehlers-Danlos d. Marfan ANS: B Anorexia-cachexia is a contributing factor to cancer related deaths.
REF: p. 5 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 30. Which stage of cancer indicates a tumor is limited to the tissue of origin (localized tumor growth)? a. III b. II c. I d. 0 ANS: C Stage I indicates a tumor is limited to the tissue of origin (localized tumor growth). REF: p. 11 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 31. A potential massage benefit for clients with cancer is a. reduced tumors and cleared lymph. b. elimination of side effects of chemotherapy. c. prevention of rejection of donated bone marrow. d. reduced tension and decreased pain. ANS: D Reduced tension and decT reEasSeT dB paAinNK arS eE poLteLnEtiR al.bC enOeM fits of massage for clients with cancer. REF: p. 6 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 32. When is glove use is recommended for chemotherapy clients? a. When skin to skin contact is needed during and within 24 hours of infusion of Thioplex and Cytoxan. b. When the therapist feels concerned for their safety and is uncomfortable touching this client. c. When there are serious signs of inflammation present upon the skin of a cancer client. d. When skin to skin contact is needed during and within 24 hours of infusion of immunosupressor drugs. ANS: A Glove use is recommended for chemotherapy clients when skin to skin contact is needed during and within 24 hours of infusion of Thioplex and Cytoxan. REF: p. 22 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer)
33. Mammograms can assist in early detection of which type of cancer? a. Breast cancer b. Liver cancer c. Cervical cancer d. Skin cancer ANS: A Mammograms can assist in early detection of breast cancer. REF: p. 29 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 34. Which type is the most common form of cancer in women? a. Colon b. Breast c. Cervical d. Lung ANS: B Breast cancer is the most common form of cancer in women. REF: p. 28 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 35. Which type is called c ancer of the blood? a. Myeloma b. Adenoma c. Leukemia d. Sarcoma ANS: C Leukemia is a cancer of the blood as “leuko” refers to white blood cells present in blood. REF: p. 50 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 36. Which type of cancer is a malignant disease of plasma cells? a. Leukemia b. Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma c. Hodgkins Lymphoma d. Multiple Myeloma ANS: D Multiple myeloma is a malignant cancer of plasma cells. REF: p. 52 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with Common
Pathologies—Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 37. Which factor is the main cause of lung cancer? a. Asbestos b. Human papillomavirus c. Cigarette (tobacco) smoke d. Radiation ANS: C Cigarette (tobacco) smoke is the main cause of lung cancer. REF: p. 49 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 38. Which type accounts for about 75% of all skin cancers? a. Malignant melanoma b. Basal cell carcinoma c. Kaposi carcinoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma ANS: B Basal cell carcinoma accounts for 75% of all skin cancers. REF: p. 56 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions foTrECSliT enBtsAw ceE r)R.COM NiKthSCEaLnL 39. Which type is the most malignant and lethal skin cancer? a. Malignant melanoma b. Basal cell carcinoma c. Kaposi sarcoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma ANS: A Malignant melanoma is the most malignant and lethal skin cancer. REF: p. 58 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer) 40. A suspicious change in a mole has which characteristic? a. Even borders b. Evenly shaded brown color c. Asymmetrical shape d. Smooth to the touch ANS: C A mole with an asymmetrical shape is suspicious and needs to be checked if indicative of malignant melanoma.
REF: p. 58 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 40.0 (Adapting Sessions for Clients with CommonPathologies— Sessions for Clients with Cancer)
Chapter 15: Mental Disorders Salvo: Mosby’s Pathology for Massage Therapists, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which term means having the capacity to cope and adjust to the ongoing stresses of everyday life? a. Cognitive process b. Mental health c. Mood d. Personality ANS: B According to the World Health Organization, mental health is a state of well-being that allows individuals to recognize their potential, cope with the normal ongoing stresses of everyday life, work productively and fruitfully, and be able to contribute to the community. REF: p. 1 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
2. Which term means stress that is perceived as positive and within our ability to meet the demands of the situation? a. Cognition b. Affection c. Eustress d. Distress ANS: C Eustress that is perceived as positive and within our ability to meet the demands of the situation. REF: p. 2 MSC: ELAP: N/A
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3. The most effective treatment methods to promote recovery in individuals diagnosed with mental disorders is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) paired with a. prescription medications. b. massage therapy. c. hypnotherapy. d. homeopathy. ANS: A The most effective treatment methods to promote recovery in individuals diagnosed with mental disorders is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) paired with prescription medications. REF: p. 4 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
4. The National Sleep Foundation and the Better Sleep Council recommend the following to promote relaxation and sleep a. red wall color is best, followed by shades of green, yellow orange, gray, coral, and beige. b. yellow wall color is best, followed by shades of blue, white and black. c. black wall color is best, followed by shades of orange, turquoise and teal. d. blue wall color is best, followed by shades of green, yellow orange, gray, coral, and beige. ANS: D The National Sleep Foundation and the Better Sleep Council recommend the following to promote relaxation and sleep: blue wall color is best, followed by shades of green, yellow orange, gray, coral, and beige. REF: p. 7 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
5. Which is a consideration with clients who are experiencing mental disorders? a. Adjusting treatment time to 90 minutes if the client is overly fatigued b. To provide safety, continuing the treatment if the client becomes emotionally overwhelmed c. Using techniques to stimulate an emotional response from the client d. Massage may help relax an anxious client. ANS: D Research indicates massage may help relax a client with generalized anxiety. REF: p. 8 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
6. Mental disorders can develop as comorbid diseases such as seen in individuals diagnosed with cancer who later develop a. posttraumatic stress disorder. b. bipolar disorders. c. major depression disorders. d. phobia disorders. ANS: C Mental disorders can develop as comorbid diseases such as seen in individuals diagnosed with cancer who later develop major depression disorders. REF: p. 4 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
7. A major diagnostic criterion for generalized anxiety disorder is anxiety that it a. persists for 30 minutes in each episode. b. includes hyperventilation. c. persists for 6 months. d. is caused only by a genetic or familial factor. ANS: C
Anxiety persisting for at least 6 months is a diagnostic criteria for generalized anxiety disorder. REF: p. 7 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
8. The most appropriate option when massaging a client with generalized anxiety disorder is to use techniques that a. stimulate sympathetic response, use ice to relieve inflammation, and play music to distract the client. b. are relaxing, keep the client warm, and avoid aggressive techniques. c. are relaxing, use aromatherapy, and keep the client talking. d. involve deep pressure to focus the client, use aromatherapy, and ask the client to remain quiet. ANS: B The most appropriate option when massaging a client with generalized anxiety disorder is to use techniques that are relaxing, keep the client warm, and avoid aggressive techniques. REF: pp. 7-8 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
9. Which disorder is a sudden, brief episode of intense fear and anxiety? a. Panic attack b. Mania c. Dissociation d. Phobia ANS: A Panic attacks present with sudden, brief episodes of intense fear and anxiety. REF: p. 9 MSC: ELAP: N/A 10.
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
If a client has a panic attack during treatment, the massage therapist should a. reduce pressure, use more relaxing techniques, and speak in loud tones. b. ask the client to take deep breaths while continuing with the massage. c. drape and assist the client into a sitting position, encourage the client to breathe deeply, speak softly, and move slowly. d. quickly leave the room and call the client's emergency contact. ANS: C Drape and assist the client into a sitting position, encourage the client to breathe deeply, speak softly, and move slowly are proper actions by a massage therapist with a client experiencing a panic attack during treatment. REF: p. 9 MSC: ELAP: N/A
11.
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
For a client with a phobic disorder, the most appropriate treatment plan is to
a. b. c. d.
use techniques that encourage sympathetic response. speak in hushed tones and move slowly to prevent startling the client. encourage the client to keep the eyes open to feel safe. ascertain the source of anxiety, and eliminate it from the massage environment.
ANS: D Ascertaining the source of anxiety and eliminating this from the massage environment is most appropriate of a client with phobic disorder. REF: p. 11 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
12. Which condition is an anxiety disorder characterized by persistent intrusions of upsetting thoughts and uncontrollable urges or rituals to relieve the anxiety that these thoughts produce? a. Bipolar disorder b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder c. Seasonal affective disorder d. Major depressive disorder ANS: B Obsessive-compulsive disorder is a condition characterized by persistent intrusions of upsetting thoughts and uncontrollable urges or rituals to relieve the anxiety that these thoughts produce. REF: p. 12 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
13. Because it is a common trigger for anxiety, which method should be avoided during a treatment with a client who has posttraumatic stress disorder? a. Touch b. Scents c. Energy therapy d. The color green ANS: B Identify and avoid triggers and what may cause hyperarousal, including loud noises or types of music and specific smells, or aspects of the treatment mentioned previously. REF: p. 14 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
14. Which occurrence is a coping mechanism in which the client leaves his or her body or believes past abuses have happened to someone else? a. Flashback b. State-dependent memory c. Dissociation d. Obsessive-compulsive disorder ANS: C
Dissociation is a coping mechanism in which the client leaves his or her body or believes past abuses have happened to someone else. REF: p. 14 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
15. Which condition has both depressive and manic episodes? a. Obsessive-compulsive disorder b. Seasonal affective disorder c. Major depressive disorder d. Bipolar disorder ANS: D Bipolar disorder presents with both depressive and manic episodes. REF: p. 23 MSC: ELAP: N/A
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16. Which term also means bipolar disorder? a. Manic-depressive disorder b. Phobic disorder c. Obsessive-compulsive disorder d. Posttraumatic stress disorder ANS: A Manic-depressive disorder also refers to bipolar disorder. REF: p. 24 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
17. Which actions are appropriate for clients with postpartum depression? a. Offer nutritional advice and exercise tips to reduce anxiety and stress the new mother is experiencing. b. Apply essential oil application to the forehead to reduce anxiety and stress the new mother is experiencing. c. Be prepared to offer advice on how the new mother can handle their depression with helpful parenting tips when client begins to cry. d. Be prepared to take a comfort break or stop before the scheduled time if the client is feeling emotionally overwhelmed and begins to cry. ANS: D Being prepared to take a comfort break or stop before the scheduled time if the client is feeling emotionally overwhelmed and begins to cry are appropriate actions for clients with postpartum depression. REF: p. 22 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
18. Which consideration is appropriate when planning a treatment for a client with bipolar disorder?
a. Massage is contraindicated for clients with bipolar disorder. b. If the client's state changes from manic to depressive, use massage techniques that will discourage this change. c. Massage during high-energy times may relax the client, and massage during low-energy times may rejuvenate the client. d. Techniques should match the state—aggressive techniques during high-energy times, relaxation techniques during low-energy times. ANS: C Massage during high-energy times may relax the client, and massage during low-energy times may rejuvenate the client is appropriate when planning a treatment for a client with bipolar disorder. REF: p. 24 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
19. Which condition features a disruption of the body’s biorhythms (a person’s circadian or 24-hour cycle)? a. Phobic disorder b. Seasonal affective disorder c. Generalized anxiety disorder d. Bipolar disorder ANS: B Seasonal affective disorder features a disruption of the body’s biorhythms (a person’s circadian or 24-hour cycle). REF: p. 23 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
20. Which type of depression is most common during winter months when day length is shorter and there is less natural sunlight? a. Major depressive disorder b. Bipolar disorder c. Seasonal affective disorder d. Obsessive-compulsive disorder ANS: C Seasonal affective disorder is type of depression is most common during winter months when day length is shorter and there is less natural sunlight. REF: p. 23 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
21. Which condition is characterized by an insatiable craving for food resulting in episodes of bingeing followed by recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain? a. Anorexia nervosa b. Bulimia nervosa c. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. Seasonal affective disorder ANS: B Bulimia nervosa is characterized by an insatiable craving for food resulting in episodes of bingeing followed by recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain. REF: p. 27 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
22. Which condition is a disorder in which the person refuses to maintain normal body weight through self-starvation and other behaviors to prevent weight gain? a. Anorexia nervosa b. Bulimia nervosa c. Generalized anxiety disorder d. Major depressive disorder ANS: A Anorexia nervosa is a disorder in which the person refuses to maintain normal body weight through self-starvation and other behaviors to prevent weight gain. REF: p. 25 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
23. Which consideration is appropriate for massaging a client with anorexia nervosa? a. Educating the client about the importance of disrobing for the treatment b. Offering counseling tToEhS elT pB im lieRn. t'sCsOelf-image ApNroKvSeEthLeLcE M c. Getting approval from the client's health care provider d. Treating the abdomen to help relieve constipation present ANS: D Treating the abdomen to help relieve constipation present is appropriate for massaging a client with anorexia nervosa. REF: p. 26 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
Chapter 16: Geriatric Massage Salvo: Mosby’s Pathology for Massage Therapists, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which represents a change in social roles as a person ages? a. Desire to take walks more often b. Decreased flexiblity c. Occupational retirement d. Propensity to read more ANS: C
Occupational retirement represent s a change in social roles as a person ages. REF: p. 1 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 29.0 (Adapting Sessions for Special Populations—Sessions for Clients who are over 55) 2. Which term describes a diminished capacity that can involve movement, vision or hearing, or
emotional and cognitive functioning resulting from injury, disease, disfigurement, or progressive deterioration during aging? a. Disability b. Impairment c. Senescence d. Geriatric ANS: B
Impairment describes a diminished capacity that can involve movement, vision or hearing, or emotional and cognitive functioning resulting from injury, disease, disfigurement, or progressive deterioration during aging. REF: p. 4 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 29.0 (Adapting Sessions for Special Populations—Sessions for Clients who are over 55) 3. Which condition is amongst the most commonly witnessed with elderly clients? a. Diabetes b. Ulcerative Colitis c. Multiple Sclerosis d. Endometriosis ANS: A
The four most common chronic diseases of the elderly are heart disease, cancer, stroke, and diabetes. REF: p. 4 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 29.0 (Adapting Sessions for Special Populations—Sessions for Clients who are over 55) 4. Which effect does aging have on the integumentary system? a. Skin pigmentation decreases.
b. The number of hair follicles increases. c. Nails grow more quickly. d. Decreased fat increases risk of bruising. ANS: D
Elderly skin typically features decreased fat increasing the risk of bruising. REF: p. 5 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 29.0 (Adapting Sessions for Special Populations—Sessions for Clients who are over 55) 5. Which effect does aging have on the cardiovascular system? a. Venous return is increased. b. Reduced vessel wall elasticity increases the risk of bruising. c. Decreased risk of anemia. d. Increased circulation and decreased blood pressure. ANS: B
Reduced vessel wall elasticity increases the risk of bruising is a typical effect of an aging cardiovascular system. REF: p. 7 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 29.0 (Adapting Sessions for Special Populations—Sessions for Clients who are over 55) 6. Which musculoskeletal change occurs due to aging? a. Bone mass increases. b. Synovial fluid increases. TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. Intervertebral discs decrease in hydration. d. Muscle strength and endurance decrease. ANS: D
A decrease in muscle strength and endurance is typically witnessed as the musculoskeletal system ages. REF: p. 5 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 29.0 (Adapting Sessions for Special Populations—Sessions for Clients who are over 55) 7. A reduction in which two hormones in females will stimulate menopause? a. Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone b. Estrogen and progesterone c. Epinephrine and norepinephrine d. Oxytocin and prolactin ANS: B
A reduction in estrogen and progesterone in females will stimulate menopause. REF: p. 6 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 29.0 (Adapting Sessions for Special Populations—Sessions for Clients who are over 55) 8. Which condition may result from nerve cell degeneration?
a. b. c. d.
Transient ischemic attack Decreased hormone production Parkinson disease Macular degeneration
ANS: C
Parkinson disease results from nerve cell degeneration as the brain ages. REF: p. 6 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 29.0 (Adapting Sessions for Special Populations—Sessions for Clients who are over 55) 9. Which percentage of the elderly have at least one chronic condition? a. 99% b. 87% c. 82% d. 92% ANS: D
According to the National Council on Aging, 92% of the elderly population has at least one chronic condition. REF: p. 4 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 29.0 (Adapting Sessions for Special Populations—Sessions for Clients who are over 55) 10. Which condition is more prevalent in the elderly as a result of a compromised immune
system? a. Cataracts b. Shingles c. Fractures d. Vitiligo ANS: B
Shingles is more prevalent in the elderly as a result of a compromised immune system REF: p. 7 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 29.0 (Adapting Sessions for Special Populations—Sessions for Clients who are over 55) 11. Which factor should the massage therapist consider when planning a treatment for an elderly
client? a. Technique adaptations will be unnecessary. b. Percussion is indicated to help increase blood flow to tissues. c. It is likely that there will be at least one chronic condition managed by medication. d. Time for the intake process should be reduced to provide a full hour treatment. ANS: C
The likelihood that there is at least one chronic condition managed by meditation is a factor a massage therapist consider when planning a treatment for an elderly client REF: p. 4 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 29.0 (Adapting Sessions for Special Populations—Sessions for Clients who are
over 55) 12. Dr. Muriel Gillick describes frail elderly as having a. one overriding chronic health concern. b. high levels of physical activity and weakness. c. more than one overriding health problem and impairment in multiple domains. d. more than one overriding health problem and impairment in one system. ANS: C
Dr. Muriel Gillick describes frail elderly as having more than one overriding health problem and impairment in multiple domains. REF: p. 12 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 29.0 (Adapting Sessions for Special Populations—Sessions for Clients who are over 55) 13. Emphysema is a health condition associated with which body system? a. Respiratory b. Digestion c. Cardiovascular d. Reproduction ANS: A
Emphysema is a health condition associated with the respiratory system. REF: p. 8 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 29.0 (Adapting Sessions for Special Populations—Sessions for Clients who are over 55) 14. Which treatment space consideration is appropriate to ensure safety for elderly or impaired
clients? a. Having bottom and top sheets the same color b. Using a massage table narrower than 33 inches c. Lowering an electric lift table to 18–24 inches for ease of getting on and off d. Having ice readily available to reduce inflammation from friction techniques ANS: C
Lowering an electric lift table to 18–24 inches for ease of getting on and off is a consideration appropriate to ensure safety for elderly or impaired clients. REF: p. 11 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 29.0 (Adapting Sessions for Special Populations—Sessions for Clients who are over 55) 15. Which items may make the prone position uncomfortable, even when a soft face rest cushion
is used? a. Medication patches b. Jewelry accessories c. Contact lenses d. Dental appliances ANS: D
Dental appliances may make the prone position uncomfortable, even when a soft face rest cushion is used. REF: p. 12 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 29.0 (Adapting Sessions for Special Populations—Sessions for Clients who are over 55) 16. Which term refers to the period of life from old age to death? a. Presbyopia b. Senescence c. Sarcopenia d. Hospice ANS: B
Senescence is the period of life from old age to death. REF: p. 3 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 29.0 (Adapting Sessions for Special Populations—Sessions for Clients who are over 55) 17. Clients in wheelchairs are at a higher risk for a. hyperthyroid conditions. b. hypertonic muscles. c. congestive heart failure (CHF). d. deep vein thrombosis (DVT). ANS: D
Clients in wheelchairs are T atEaShT igB heArNriKskSfEoL r dLeEepR. veCinOtM hrombosis (DVT). REF: p. 18 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 29.0 (Adapting Sessions for Special Populations—Sessions for Clients who are over 55) 18. If an elderly client has an assistant accompanying to the massage session a. acknowledge the assistant, but direct all conversation to the client, requesting the
assistant sit outside the treatment room. b. acknowledge the assistant and ask client to get on the table while directing all
conversation to the assistant. c. acknowledge the assistant, but direct all conversation to the client, not the
assistant. d. acknowledge the assistant, and direct all conversation to the assistant, not the
client. ANS: C
If the client has an assistant, acknowledge that person, but direct all conversation to the client, not the assistant. REF: p. 18 TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology) MSC: ELAP: section 29.0 (Adapting Sessions for Special Populations—Sessions for Clients who are over 55)
Chapter 17: Hospital-Based Massage Therapy Salvo: Mosby’s Pathology for Massage Therapists, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The four “E”s of hospital-based massage therapy are environment, equipment, efficacy, and a. esoteric. b. edify. c. endurance. d. empathy. ANS: D
Empathy, efficacy, equipment, and environment make up the four “E”s of hospital-based massage therapy. REF: p. 1 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
2. Which type of care does not require an overnight stay in a hospital or medical facility? a. Hospice care b. Outpatient care c. Long-term care d. Acute care ANS: B
Outpatient care does not require an overnight stay in a hospital or medical facility. REF: p. 3 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
3. Which health provider is also called an orderly or nursing technician? a. Nursing assistant b. Nurse manager c. Charge nurse d. Registered nurse ANS: A
A nursing assistant is also called an orderly or nursing technician in a hospital. This provider may also be called a client care technician or hospital technician. REF: p. 6 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
4. What is the role of a social worker in a hospital setting? a. Treating behavioral and mental illness b. Directs the massage therapist how to perform c. An advocate for client well-being d. Provides spiritual support ANS: C
A social worker is an advocate for client well-being aiding the client and relatives to resources and counseling. REF: p. 7 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
5. What is the proper term for medical situations that resulted or could have resulted in death or
serious injury? a. Clastic b. Delegative c. Negligent d. Sentinel ANS: D
A sentinel event results or could have resulted in death or serious injury. REF: p. 11 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
6. What is the proper name for what people commonly refer to as “Obamacare”? a. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act b. Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act d. Patient Advocacy and Affordable Design Act ANS: A
What many people call “Obamacare” is actually the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010. REF: p. 14 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
7. What are infections that occur or were acquired while the client was hospitalized? a. Idiopathic b. Pneumonic c. Nosocomial d. Procedural ANS: C
A nosocomial infection occurs or is acquired while a client is hospitalized. REF: p. 16 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
8. If a massage therapist working in a hospital setting wishes to change massage lubricant used,
to whom will the ingredient list be submitted? a. Registered nurse b. Infection control manager c. Physician assistant d. Hospitalist ANS: B
The infection control manager must receive an ingredient list of any product a massage therapist wishes to use in their hospital-based practice. REF: p. 17 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
9. Which assessment evaluates a client’s capabilities, pain levels, and overall health in a given
time period? a. Quality of care (QC) b. Hospital criteria (HC) c. Ability to thrive (AT) d. Quality of life (QL) ANS: D
A quality of life (QL) assessment evaluates a client’s capabilities, pain levels, and overall health in a given time period. REF: p. 21 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
10. What is the recommended distance a massage therapist needs to maintain to avoid contacting
implants, Port-a-Caths, PICC lines, and intravenous lines? a. 1 inch b. 2 inches c. 3 inches d. 4 inches ANS: D
A healthy recommendation is a massage therapist should stay a minimum of 4 inches away from areas such as implants, Port-a-Caths, PICC lines, and intravenous lines. REF: p. 22 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
11. According to research by Fowler & Tong, active listening and nonjudgmental statements
demonstrate a. efficacy of work. b. handling equipment. c. empathy skills. d. healthy environment. ANS: C
Research confirming active listening and nonjudgmental statements as key components of empathy skills was published by Fowler & Tong in 2013. REF: p. 27 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
12. Which statement defines cultural awareness? a. Process of conducting a self-exploration and examination of one’s own cultural
and professional background and biases toward other cultures. b. Ability to conduct a culturally sensitive assessment and integrate this information
with their cultural knowledge-base. c. Earnest desire to engage in the process of cultural competence and become more
culturally aware and seek cultural encounters. d. Directly interact and engage with individuals from culturally diverse backgrounds. ANS: A
Cultural awareness is the process of conducting a self-exploration and examination of one’s own cultural and professional background and biases toward other cultures. REF: p. 30 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
13. Which statement defines cultural skill? a. Process of conducting a self-exploration and examination of one’s own cultural
and professional background and biases toward other cultures. b. Ability to conduct a culturally sensitive assessment and integrate this information
with their cultural knowledge-base. c. Earnest desire to engage in the process of cultural competence and become more
culturally aware and seek cultural encounters. d. Directly interact and engage with individuals from culturally diverse backgrounds. ANS: B
Cultural skill is the ability to conduct a culturally sensitive assessment and integrate this information with their cultural knowledge-base. REF: p. 30 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
14. Which statement defines cultural desire? a. Process of conducting a self-exploration and examination of one’s own cultural
and professional background and biases toward other cultures. b. Ability to conduct a culturally sensitive assessment and integrate this information
with their cultural knowledge-base. c. Earnest desire to engage in the process of cultural competence and become more
culturally aware and seek cultural encounters. d. Directly interact and engage with individuals from culturally diverse backgrounds. ANS: C
Cultural desire is the earnest desire to engage in the process of cultural competence and become more culturally aware and seek cultural encounters. REF: p. 30 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
15. Which stage of grief is expected to occur last according to the research of Elizabeth
Kubler-Ross? a. Acceptance b. Depression c. Bargaining d. Anger ANS: A
The five stages of grief according to the research of Elizabeth Kubler-Ross are (1) grief, (2) anger, (3) bargaining, (4) depression, and (5) acceptance. REF: p. 32 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
16. Which information is NOT protected as an identifier under the Standards of Individuality
Identifiable Information? a. Medical record numbers b. Phone numbers c. License numbers d. Body mass index numbers ANS: D
Body mass index numbers are not an identifiable figure covered under the Standards of Individuality Identifiable Information. REF: p. 13 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
17. What is the proper course of action if a massage therapist working in a hospital setting
observes insurance fraud? a. Ignore since this lies outside of scope of practice. b. Report the illegal activity to proper authority. c. Report if only the activity affects their client, they have no right to report on other clients. d. Ignore since this is insurance fraud, only Medicare/Medicaid fraud is reported. ANS: B
Massage therapists are expected to report any fraudulent activity witnessed in their hospital-based work space. REF: p. 15 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
18. Which container is most recommended for hospital-based massage lubricant product? a. Double use container b. Sixteen-ounce container c. Eight-ounce container d. Single use container ANS: D
A single use container is considered most sanitary and appropriate for hospital-based usage. REF: p. 17 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
19. Which action is NOT recommended by a massage therapist in a hospital setting? a. Notifying housekeeping of any spills of bodily fluids upon the floor b. Using essential oil with written permission from approved personnel c. Pushing soiled linens deeper into a hamper to create more space d. Leaving one’s keys and cell phone in a locker in the staff lounge
ANS: C
Pushing soiled linens deeper into a hamper to create more space is not considered a sanitary act and is discouraged in a hospital setting. REF: p. 17 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
20. Which position is easiest for clients with respiratory conditions with breathing challenges to
receive massage? a. Prone b. Supine c. Side-lying d. Seated ANS: D
Clients with respiratory conditions with breathing challenges may most easily receive massage in a seated (tripod) position. REF: p. 19 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
21. Which item is recommended for a massage therapist in a hospital-based setting in which to
carry their supplies? a. Supply kit b. Duffle bag c. Table case d. Rolling luggage ANS: A
A nonporous box with a hard surface is recommended for a massage therapist in a hospital-based setting in which to carry their supplies. REF: p. 23 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
22. Which type of gloves are the most popular choice for hospital settings? a. Vinyl b. Nitrile c. Latex d. Rubber ANS: B
Nitrile gloves are the most popular choice for hospital settings. REF: p. 24 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
23. Which hospital administrative personnel is primarily the liaison between hospital
accreditation personnel, human resources, planning, and state departments of health and human services agencies? a. Hospital (Nurse) Educator
b. Chief Executive Officer c. Chief Medical Officer d. Infection Control Manager ANS: A
The Hospital (Nurse) Educator is primarily the liaison between hospital accreditation personnel, human resources, planning, and state departments of health and human services agencies. REF: p. 5 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
24. Which hospital personnel member assists in medical record filing, physician assistance, and
nurse manager assistance? a. Occupational therapist b. Charge nurse c. Social worker d. Unit secretary ANS: D
A unit secretary assists in medical record filing, physician assistance, and nurse manager assistance. REF: p. 7 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)
25. Which laws protect clients from receiving guaranteed claims of positive outcomes? a. “All is Possible” b. “Step to Recovery” c. “Promise to Cure” d. “Healing will Occur” ANS: C
“Promise to Cure” laws were created to explicitly prevent health providers from guaranteeing positive results with promises to cure client conditions. REF: p. 15 MSC: ELAP: N/A
TOP: MTBOK: section 210.4 (Pathology)