Test Bank for Alcamos Fundamentals of Microbiology 9th Edition by Pommerville by ACADEMIAMILL

Test Bank for Alcamos Fundamentals of Microbiology 9th Edition by Pommerville Chap01, Chapter 1

Multiple Choice

1. Who was one of the early natural philosophers who coined the name “cella” for the empty cork spaces that became the word we use today, “cells”? A. Robert Hooke B. Zacharias Janssen C. Francesco Stalluti D. Giovanni Faber

Ans: A

2. Leeuwenhoek made lenses that allowed him to magnify objects more than 200X. However, he failed to promote scientific inquiry because: A. he didn't share his drawings with other scientists. B. he didn't reveal how he ground the lenses and no one else was doing it that well. C. he limited his research to pond water D. it was only a hobby and he didn't live very long

Ans: B

3. Leeuwenhoek was the first person to: A. see viruses. B. use a microscope. C. describe bacteria. D. suggest animalcules caused disease.

Ans: C

4. Francesco Redi is famous for performing one of the first experiments over the debate regarding spontaneous generation. What was his experiment? A. He boiled some mutton gravy and sealed the tops with corks. B. He covered some jars of meat with gauze and left others open. The covered jars did not develop maggots, the uncovered ones did. C. He showed that mice will appear with damp rags and rice. D. He boiled broth for longer periods of time and sealed the tops with melted glass.

Ans: B

did not attempt to prove or refute the idea of spontaneous generation.

A. Francesco Redi B. Robert Koch C. Lazzaro Spallanzani D. Louis Pasteur

Ans: B 2

6. Which one of the following would be consistent with the idea of spontaneous generation? A. Microorganisms may be cultivated on solid laboratory media. B. Insects are important in the transmission of disease. C. Sick people give rise to microorganisms in their body. D. Disinfection is essential to prevent the spread of microorganisms.

Ans: C

7. Spallanzani’s experiments showed that: A. viruses were transmitted by water. B. spontaneous generation occurs. C. miasma was the cause of disease. D. experiments can be modified to test a hypothesis.

Ans: D Page: 8

8. Which pair of scientists were antagonists during the same period of history? A. Pasteur and Ehrlich B. Koch and Leeuwenhoek C. Spallanzani and Needham 3

D. Pasteur and Snow

Ans: C

9. Semmelweis showed that the transmission of disease could be interrupted by: A. killing disease-carrying mosquitoes. B. disinfecting water supplies. C. pasteurizing milk. D. washing hands in chlorine water.

Ans: D

10. In 1854, John Snow determined that contaminated water transmits: A. smallpox. B. cholera. C. influenza. D. anthrax.

Ans: B

11. John Snow traced the source of an 1854 outbreak of cholera to: A. consumption of contaminated beef. B. an increase in infected mosquitoes. 4

C. yeast cells on contaminated apples. D. a contaminated municipal water supply.

Ans: D

12. Who was Edward Jenner? A. He was a surgeon who observed cowpox could provide immunity for smallpox. B. He was a physician who discovered washing your hands can reduce disease transmission. C. He was the first to see a pathogen that causes disease. D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: A

13. What was Christian Ehrenberg responsible for naming in the 1830's? A. He gave the name "vaccines." B. He gave the name "eukaryotes". C. He gave the name "bacteria". D. He gave the name "cells".

Ans: C

14. The classical Golden Age of microbiology came to an end partly due to the: 5

A. fact that all infectious diseases were known. B. death of Anton van Leeuwenhoek. C. the beginning of World War I. D. end of the Renaissance.

Ans: C

15. Pasteur’s study of fermentation was critical to the development of microbiology because: A. fermentation chemistry occurs in the living body. B. it showed that microorganisms bring about chemical changes. C. it demonstrated that yeasts are microorganisms D. the body undergoes rapid fermentation after death.

Ans: B

16. Pasteur’s studies proved that alcohol was a fermentation product of: A. bacteria. B. yeasts. C. algae. D. a natural chemical process not involving living organisms.

Ans: B

17. Pasteur first suggested that bacteria could cause disease in humans by showing that bacteria could: A. contaminate canned foods. B. cause plant diseases. C. sour wine. D. infect animals.

Ans: C

18. Pasteur’s observations that protozoa were related to the silkworm disease strengthened his belief in the: A. germ theory of disease. B. doctrine of spontaneous generation. C. eukaryotic nature of protozoa. D. None of the above is correct.

Ans: A

19. Lister used

to clean wounds and surgical instruments.

A. antibiotics B. antitoxins C. chlorine water D. carbolic acid

Ans: D

20. Koch’s postulates provided guidelines for: A. relating certain microorganisms with certain diseases. B. sterilizing laboratory supplies. C. preparing pure cultures. D. testing the sensitivity of microbes to antibiotics.

Ans: A

21. Koch was responsible for thorough observations on the organisms of: A. measles and diphtheria. B. diphtheria and plague. C. plague and tetanus. D. tuberculosis and anthrax.

Ans: D

22. Pasteur was able to prepare a vaccine against rabies even though: A. rabies was not a deadly disease. B. he was unable to see the organism. C. he had no experience with microorganisms. D. None of the above is correct.

Ans: B

23. Which coworker of Koch's demonstrated that diphtheria could be treated with an antitoxin? A. Roux. B. Yersin. C. von Behring. D. Pasteur.

Ans: C

24. The accomplishments of Koch include all the following except: A. development of the rabies vaccine. B. isolation of the tuberculosis bacterium. C. development of culture techniques. D. proof of the germ theory of disease.

Ans: A

25. Which scientists showed diphtheria was caused by a bacterial toxin? A. Roux and Yersin B. Pasteur and Koch C. Luria and Delbrück 9

D. von Behring and Roux

Ans: A

26. Studies during the classical Golden Age included all the following diseases except: A. malaria. B. tuberculosis. C. plague. D. measles.

Ans: D

27. Which scientists worked independently to show the infectious nature of the tobacco mosaic virus? A. Roux and Yersin B. Koch and Behring C. Kitasato and Metchnikoff D. Ivanowsky and Beijerinck

Ans: D

28. Two of the earliest environmental microbiologists were: A. Winogradsky and Beijerinck. 10

B. Ivanowsky and Beijerinck. C. Luria and Delbrück. D. Hershey and Chase.

Ans: A

29. All of the following are examples of new emerging infectious diseases except: A. SARS. B. chickenpox. C. Lyme disease. D. AIDS.

Ans: B

30. The bacillus and coccus shapes are typical of the: A. fungi. B. bacteria. C. viruses. D. protista.

Ans: B

31. Movement by flagella or cilia is typical of the: A. fungi. B. protozoa. C. bacteria. D. viruses.

Ans: B

32. In 1943 Luria and Dulbrück used spontaneously.

to show that mutations can arise

A. Vibrio cholera B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Escherichia coli

Ans: D

33. Beadle and Tatum used the fungus Neurospora to show that: A. one gene codes for one enzyme. B. mutations can be induced by the environment. C. DNA is the genetic component of cells. D. all cells can have parasites.

Ans: A

34. Hershey and Chase proved that: A. bacteria reproduce. B. viruses cause human disease. C. bacteria lack a membrane envelope. D. DNA is the genetic material of cells.

Ans: D

35. Which of the following types of cells are Prokaryotes? A. Fungi B. Protests C. Bacteria D. Viruses

Ans: C

36. The “magic bullet” of Paul Ehrlich was: A. a vaccine against plague. B. an antitoxin that cured diphtheria. C. a chemical used to treat syphilis. D. a method for pasteurizing milk and dairy products.

Ans: C 13

37. Penicillin was discovered by: A. Waksman. B. Domagk. C. Fleming. D. Ehrlich.

Ans: C

38. The antibiotic penicillin is produced by: A. a bacterium. B. a protozoan. C. a fungus. D. an alga.

Ans: C

39. What makes this the third golden age of microbiology? A. The use of biotechnology to manipulate microbes for our benefit B. The discovery of new antiviral medications C. The greater ability to discover new antimicrobials D. The conquering of infectious diseases

Ans: A

40. There are three golden ages of microbiology listed in your text. Which of the following statements regarding them is true? A. The first golden age was a discovery of which microbes cause which diseases. B. The second golden age was finding antimicrobials to control those infections. C. The third golden age was finding organisms that weren't known before and finding that more than one disease can be caused by one organism. D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: C

41. The rise in antibiotic resistance is due, in part, to: A. bacterial mutations. B. inappropriate prescribing of antibiotics by doctors. C. demand by patients when antibiotics are not useful in treatment. D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: D

42. Which of the following are examples of bioterrorism? A. A natural emerging infectious disease outbreak B. The intentional use of biological agents to create fear or inflict disease or death on a large population 15

C. A situation where there is a lack of control measures to contain an infectious disease D. A disease that has existed in the past that is now showing resurgence

Ans: B

43. Which one of the following statements is true concerning biofilms? A. They represent complex communities of microorganisms. B. They can cause middle ear infections. C. They are easily treated. D. A and B are correct.

Ans: D

44. Which one of the following is not a role for bioremediation? A. Helping clean up oil spills B. Curing infectious diseases C. Providing solutions to toxic waste removal D. Degrading dangerous environmental wastes Ans: B

Matching 16

Reference: List of definitions

45. Match the following definitions with term. 1. disease causing agent 2. the study of body defenses against microorganisms 3. the study of the source, cause and transmission of a disease 4. use of a weakened agent of disease that can provide immunity for a particular disease. 5. the study of fungi 6. using a chemical for disinfection of skin surfaces 7. small masses of bacterial cells on solid media 8. organisms that recycle nutrients from dead or decaying organisms 9. the use of antimicrobial chemicals to control or kill microbes

Reference: List of definitions A. vaccine B. epidemiology C. antisepsis D. pathogen E. colonies F. mycology G. immunology H. decomposers I. chemotherapy

Ans: 1. D; 2. G; 3. B; 4. A; 5. F; 6. C; 7. E; 8. H; 9. I

46. Select one of the four groups of microorganisms to correctly complete each of the statements below. 1. consist of DNA or RNA. 2. are prokaryotes. 3. contain the agents responsible for malaria and sleeping sickness. 4. have a protein coat that surrounds the genetic information. 5. include molds and yeasts. 6. contain the protozoa and algae. 7. are the primary eukaryotic decomposers. 8. are the most metabolically diverse group. 9 . include the agents responsible for flu and smallpox. 10. impart distinctive flavors in foods such as Roquefort and Camembert cheeses. 11. include the agents causing tuberculosis and cholera.

A. Viruses B. Fungi C. Protista D. Bacteria

Ans: 1. A; 2. D; 3. C; 4. A; 5. B; 6. C; 7. B; 8. D; 9. A; 10. B; 11. D

47. Match each term with its correct description. There may be more than one correct answer. 1. Pure culture 18

2. Phagocytosis 3. Micrographia 4. Animalcules 5. Koch’s postulates 6. Miasma 7. Spontaneous generation 8. Colony (colonies) Reference: List of descriptions A. Leeuwenhoek’s term for microorganisms B. Cells engulf particles or other cells C. Koch developed these methods to identify the cause of an infectious disease D. Pasteur’s experiments refuted this idea E. Procedure to cultivate microorganisms as individual species F. The idea that disease is spread by poisoned air G. Rapid discovery of basic microbiology principles H. Population of a single species without other species present I. Used to discover disease agent J. Life forms arise from nonliving matter K. Metchnikoff observed this process L. Needham supported the idea M. re-create disease symptoms in a susceptible population when infected with microorganism N. Hooke’s major written work

Ans: 1. C, E, H; 2. B, K; 3. N; 4. A; 5. C, I, M; 6. F; 7. D, J, L; 8. H

True/False 19

For each of the following statements, decide if the statement is true or false. If false, correct the statement to be true.

48. True or false? Leeuwenhoek’s training with the microscope, acquired during his university years, allowed him to understand the nature of microorganisms when he first observed them.

Ans: False Response: [… without a university education…]

49. True or false? Microbiology is the study of pathogenic organisms.

Ans: False Response: […study of microorganisms.]

50. True or false? Emil von Behring was awarded a Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for his development of antitoxin therapy for diphtheria patients.

Ans: True

51. True or false? Beadle and Tatum carried out experiments that showed one gene codes for one enzyme.

Ans: True

52. True or false? Koch’s postulates provided a way to demonstrate immunity in various animals.

Ans: False Response: […to demonstrate an infectious disease was caused by a specific microorganism.]

53. True or false? Many of the viruses of human disease were isolated and observed during the classical Golden Age of microbiology.

Ans: False Response: […observed during the second Golden Age…]

54. True or false? Resolution of the spontaneous generation controversy occurred with Koch’s use of the swan-neck flasks.

Ans: False Response: […with Pasteur’s use of…]

55. True or false? Proof that DNA is the genetic material was a major accomplishment of several investigators during the second Golden Age of microbiology.

Ans: True

56. True or false? Application of the principles of microbiology to the practice of aseptic surgery was an achievement of the English physician Edward Jenner.

Ans: False Response: […Joseph Lister.]

57. True or false? Although cures for established diseases were not to be found until later years, the discoveries of the classical Golden Age indicated that microorganisms were related to disease and that the chains of transmission could be interrupted.

Ans: True

58. True or false? Pasteur was honored with the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine, but Koch failed to achieve that distinction.

Ans: False Response: [Koch was honored…but Pasteur died before such prizes were awarded.]

59. True or false? Koch provided the definitive proof for the germ theory of disease in his studies with anthrax.

Ans: True

60. True or false? Bioterrorism involves the intentional or threatened use of microorganisms to cause fear in or actually inflict death or disease upon a large population.

Ans: True

61. True or false? Koch’s use of a pure culture ensured that only one type of bacterium was involved in the cause of disease.

Ans: True

62. True or false? Although Snow concluded that water was involved in the spread of cholera, he had no idea that bacteria were the responsible agents in the water.

Ans: True

63. True or false? Pébrine, the disease of silkworms, was determined by Pasteur to be a species of bacteria. 23

Ans: False Response: […species of protozoa.]

64. True or false? Koch’s contributions to the germ theory of disease, his Koch’s postulates, were more procedural in nature than Pasteur’s work in his germ theory research.

Ans: True

65. True or false? Ivanowsky isolated a filterable agent from tobacco mosaic disease.

Ans: True

Essay

66. Describe the doctrine of spontaneous generation and explain why refuting it was essential to the development of the germ theory of disease.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Comprehension Page: 9 24

67. Judge the impact of Pasteur’s accomplishments on the various areas of microbiology.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Evaluation Page: 8-11, 15-17, 19-20

68. Examine the reasons for the beginning of the classical Golden Age of microbiology and its end.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Analysis Page: 15

69. Evaluate the contributions of five investigators during the classical Golden Age of microbiology by assessing how each contribution increased public health practices.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Evaluation Page: 15-22

71. Identify the reasons why microbiology failed to emerge as a science immediately after the discoveries of Leeuwenhoek.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Comprehension Page: 8

73. Analyze how discoveries made during the classical Golden Age of microbiology could be employed to end epidemics of infectious disease.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Analysis Page: 15-22

74. Assess how the achievements of Robert Koch affected different subsections of microbiology.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Evaluation Page: 17-20

75. Describe the reasons for the beginning of the second Golden Age.

Ans: Answers will vary. 26

Bloom: Comprehension Page: 25

76. List the reasons why we are in the midst of a third Golden Age of microbiology.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Knowledge Page: 28

77. Do you agree/disagree with the statement that microorganisms are the “Invisible Emperors of the world.” Why?

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Evaluation

78. Identify potential ways that biotechnology can be used and misused.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Comprehension Page: 12, 28

Short Answer

79. How did the shape of Pasteur’s flasks determine the potential contamination of the sterile media within the flask?

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Comprehension Page: 11

Chap02, Chapter 2

Multiple Choice

1. What are the six most common elements needed in large amounts in living things? A. Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, phosphorus and sulfur B. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, sodium, calcium and nitrogen C. Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, potassium and sodium D. Hydrogen, copper, zinc, oxygen, iron, manganese and sodium

Ans: A

2. The smallest indivisible part of an element is the A. atom. B. isotope. C. electron. 28

D. neutron.

Ans: A

3. The mass number of an atom is determined by adding the number of A. protons and electrons. B. neutrons and protons. C. isotopes and protons. D. electrons and neutrons.

Ans: B

4. All the following are components of an atom except A. electrons. B. neutrons. C. lipids. D. protons.

Ans: C

5. What is the densest part of an atom that has the greatest amount of the mass of the atom? A. Electron cloud B. Electron shell C. Atomic nucleus D. Orbit 29

Ans: C

6. What makes up the atomic number of an element? A. Electrons + protons. B. Protons. C. Neutrons. D. Neutrons + protons.

Ans: B

7. What makes up the atomic weight of an element? A. Electrons + neutrons. B. Protons. C. Electrons. D. Neutrons + protons.

Ans: D

8. How many electrons are in a neutral atom? A. The same number as the neutrons in the atom B. The same number as the protons in the atom C. The same number as the neutrons plus the protons D. You can't tell, it varies from one atom to the next. 30

Ans: B

9. What is the difference between a sodium ion and a sodium atom (or for any element)? A. Number of electrons they possess B. Placement of their neutrons C. Number of neutrons they possess D. Number of protons in the atomic nucleus

Ans: A

10. What do you get when an atom gains an electron? A. An isotope B. A cation C. An anion D. An ionic bond

Ans: C

11. Carbon enters into an enormous number and variety of chemical combinations partly because A. it has four electrons in its outer shell. B. it has no protons in its nucleus. C. it is part of a protein molecule. D. it forms isotopes.

Ans: A 31

12. What is an inert element? A. An element where the proton number and neutron number are equal B. An element where the atomic number is higher than its atomic weight C. An element that forms ions occurs readily D. An element where the outer shell will not hold additional electrons, so it is stable

Ans: D

13. The formation of a chemical bond that combines atoms in molecules depends in large measure on the A. number of neutrons. B. number of electrons in the shells. C. presence of organic matter in the environment. D. proton configuration of the nucleus.

Ans: B

14. What happens in the formation of an ionic bond? A. The addition of neutrons B. A loss of protons C. A transfer of electrons D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: C 32

15. What happens when one atom has electrons that end up in the electron orbit of another atom? A. They form a covalent bond. B. They form a hydrogen bond. C. They form an ionic bond. D. They form a strong bond.

Ans: C

16. What is the chemical bond formed between two hydrogens and one oxygen? A. A covalent bond B. A hydrogen bond C. A biological bond D. An ionic bond

Ans: D

17. What is the result of two or more atoms joining together? A. An isomer B. An isotope C. An ionic bond D. A molecule

Ans: D 33

18. What kind of bond is found in water, H2O? A. It has a hydrogen bond. B. It has a polar covalent bond. C. It has a nonpolar covalent bond. D. It has an ionic bond.

Ans: B

19. Which one of the following statements does not apply to hydrogen bonds? A. They form between water molecules. B. They involve H and O atoms. C. They are very strong bonds. D. They are important in the formation of proteins and nucleic acids.

Ans: C

20. All the following characterize hydrogen bonding except A. a strong and stable chemical force. B. an attraction between nitrogen and hydrogen atoms. C. the force between water molecules. D. the shaping of proteins and nucleic acids.

Ans: A

21. In the chemical reaction A + B => AB, which are the reactants? A. A B. B C. AB D. A and B

Ans: D

22. What happens in a dehydration or synthesis reaction? A. Water is removed in the formation of a covalent bond. B. Monosaccharides are produced from polysaccharides. C. Water is incorporated into a molecule. D. Water is removed from a bacterial cell.

Ans: A

23. An acid is a chemical substance that A. releases protons in solution. B. has a sour taste. C. has a lower pH value. D. All the above are correct.

Ans: D

24. A substance whose pH is 8 contains A. more hydroxyl ions than water. B. less protein than water. C. no hydrogen ions. D. more hydrogen ions than water.

Ans: A

25. Why is a buffer important? A. It maintains a neutral pH inside the cells. B. It maintains a neutral pH outside the cells. C. It maintains a stable pH in living things. D. It isn't really very important, most cells don't have it.

Ans: C

26. Which one of the following is not an organic molecule? A. Table salt B. Nucleic acids C. Glucose D. Deoxyribose

Ans: A

27. The carboxyl group is important biologically. What is its chemical formula? 36

A. —OH. B. —COOH. C. —CHO. D. —NH2.

Ans: B

28. What is a functional group symbolized by –NH2 known as? A. Hydroxyl group B. Phosphate group C. Amino group D. Carboxyl group

Ans: C

29. What is an important difference between monosaccharides and polysaccharides? A. The number of nitrogen atoms in the molecule B. The presence of glycerol in monosaccharides C. The number of carbohydrate monomers in the molecule D. The specific amino acids present

Ans: C

30. Carbohydrates are so named because A. they contain carbon and hydrogen. 37

B. the numbers of carbon and hydrogen atoms are the same. C. they react readily with water. D. they can be hydrolyzed by the enzymes contained in water.

Ans: A

31. Glucose units may be linked in chains of hundreds or thousands in A. proteins. B. nucleic acids such as DNA. C. polysaccharides. D. disaccharides.

Ans: C

32. Fatty acids that contain many double bonds and have fewer hydrogen atoms are commonly said to be A. saturated. B. glycerol. C. denatured. D. polyunsaturated.

Ans: D

33. Guanine and cytosine are important constituents of A. most acid solutions. 38

B. nucleic acids. C. most protein molecules. D. the cellular membrane.

Ans: B

34. All the following are components of a RNA molecule except A. cytosine. B. ribose. C. thymine. D. uracil.

Ans: C

35. Nucleic acids are composed of all the following except A. phosphate. B. carbohydrate. C. amino acids. D. nitrogenous bases.

Ans: C

36. What nucleotide is a universal form of energy for cells? A. ATP B. Glucose 39

C. Ribose D. Deoxyribose

Ans: A

37. The peptide bond is a type of covalent bond that forms A. in DNA. B. only if ions are present. C. between amino acids. D. within water molecules.

Ans: C

38. In the formation of proteins,

react with one another to form a linkage called a(n)

A. fatty acids; peptide bond B. glycerol molecules; ionic bond C. amino acids; ionic bond D. amino acids; peptide bond

Ans: D

39. Which one of the following is not associated with proteins? A. Nitrogen-containing amino acids B. Peptide bonds C. Primary and secondary structures 40

D. Saturated fatty acids

Ans: D

40. There are

amino acids that build proteins.

A. four B. twelve C. twenty D. sixty four

Ans: C

41. The sequence of amino acids in a protein is referred to as its A. primary structure. B. secondary structure. C. tertiary structure. D. quaternary structure.

Ans: A

42. Which one of the following is not found in the secondary structure of proteins? A. Random coil B. Pleated sheet C. Disulfide bridge D. Alpha helix 41

Ans: C

43. The tertiary structure of a protein is determined by the folding back on itself and forming of ionic and hydrogen bonds between the A. amino groups. B. R groups. C. phosphate groups. D. carboxyl groups.

Ans: B

44. A denatured protein is one that A. has lost its three dimensional structure. B. has reverted to a carbohydrate. C. lacks amino acids. D. lacks covalent bonds.

Ans: A

45. Which of the following organic elements is the most abundant in microorganisms? A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. Protein D. Nucleic acids 42

Ans: C

Matching

46. Select one of the following four organic compounds to correctly complete each statement below. 1. has primary, secondary and tertiary structure. 2. contains both nitrogen and phosphorus. 3. is the genetic material in a bacterial cell. 4. contains ribose or deoxyribose. 5. has saturated or unsaturated hydrocarbon chains. 6. contains the three-carbon molecule glycerol. 7. is composed of chains of amino acids. 8. includes glucose, lactose, and sucrose. 9. is made of monomers held together by peptide bonds. 10. contains guanine, cytosine, uracil, and adenine. 11. is a type of lipid. 12. can be stored as glycogen. 13. functions as structural materials and enzymes.

A. Fat B. Nucleic acid C. Protein D. Carbohydrate

Ans: 1. C; 2. B; 3, B; 4. B; 5. A; 6. A; 7. C; 8. D; 9. C; 10. B; 11. A; 12. D; 13. C 43

47. Match each term with its correct description. _ _ 1. Reactant _ _ 2. Product _ _ 3. Hydrogen bond _ _ 4. Covalent bond _ _ 5. Ionic bond _ _ 6. pH _

_ 7. Acid

_ 8. Base

_ _ 9. Peptide bond _ _ 10. Nucleotide _ _ 11. Nitrogenous base

A. The sharing of electrons between two atoms generates this type of linkage. B. A molecule such as adenine and guanine. C. The result of one atom donating its outer electron(s) to another atom. D. The starting substance(s) in a chemical reaction. E. A substance that accepts H+ from a solution. F. A weak linkage between hydrogen and an oxygen or nitrogen atom. G. The linkage between two amino acids in a protein. H. A reference to the relative concentration of protons in a solution. I. A substance that donates H+ to water or to a solution. J. The building block of nucleic acids. K. The ending substance in a chemical reaction.

Ans: 1. D; 2. K; 3. F; 4. A; 5. C; 6. H; 7. I; 8. E; 9. G; 10. J; 11. B Page: 7 - 15 44

48. Match each term with its correct description. _ _ 1. Isotope _ _ 2. Atom _ _ 3. Molecule _ _ 4. Compound _ _ 5. Element

A. The smallest part of a compound having the properties of the compound. B. An atom with a different number of neutrons. C. The smallest part of matter that can't be broken into smaller substances or chemically destroyed. D. A unit of matter that cannot be subdivided further by ordinary chemical means. E. Formed when two or more elements interact to achieve stability.

Ans: 1. B; 2. C; 3. A; 4. E; 5. D Page: 4 - 6

True/False

For each of the following statements, decide if the statement is true or false. If false, correct the statement to be true.

49. True or false? A protein is a series of connected amino acids. 45

Ans: True

50. True or false? Carbohydrates may be as simple as the three-carbon molecule glycerol, or as extremely complex as the polysaccharide cellulose.

Ans: True

51. True or false? Isotopes vary according to the number of electrons in the outer shell of the atom.

Ans: False Response: […number of neutrons in the nucleus…]

52. True or false? Sodium chloride is typical of a compound in which the chemical bond is the covalent bond.

Ans: False Response: […is the ionic bond.]

53. True or false? Hydrogen bonds and sulfur bridges hold amino acids together in a chain, forming the primary structure of the protein.

Ans: False Response: [Covalent (or peptide) bonds hold…] 46

54. True or false? Saturated fatty acids are those in which hydrogen atoms are missing and double bonds form between adjacent carbon atoms.

Ans: False Response: […Unsaturated fatty acids…]

55. True or false? A cation is a charged atom that forms when a neutron is released from the atom.

Ans: False Response: […when an electron is released…]

56. True or false? All chemical reactions in organisms occur in liquid water.

Ans: True

57. True or false? An atom whose outer shell has seven electrons would be expected to form an ionic bond with another atom that has one electron in the outer shell.

Ans: True

58. True or false? The tertiary structure of a protein forms when the protein folds back on itself much like a telephone cord folded on a table.

Ans: True Page: 23

59. True or false? Acids usually have a bitter taste, while bases generally have a sour taste.

Ans: False Response: [Bases usually … while acids have …]

60. True or false? In writing a chemical reaction, the reactants are placed to the left of the arrow and the products are placed to the right.

Ans: True

61. True or false? The DNA nucleotides are held together by ionic bonds.

Ans: False Response: […by hydrogen bonds.]

62. True or false? An oxygen atom (atomic number 8) has seven electrons in its outermost electron shell.

Ans: False 48

Response: […has six electrons…]

63. True or false? The ions in sodium chloride are held together by covalent bonds.

Ans: False Response: […by ionic bonds.]

64. True or false? A decomposition reaction in which water serves as an intermediary is a hydrolysis reaction.

Ans: True

65. True or false? The building blocks for disaccharides and polysaccharides are glycerol and fatty acids.

Ans: False Response: […for lipids are…]

66. True or false? Sucrose, lactose, and maltose are all examples of disaccharides.

Ans: True

67. True or false? A chemical reaction is a process in which atoms or molecules interact to form new bonds.

Ans: True

Essay

68. Describe the fundamental differences between an atom, an isotope, and an ion.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Comprehension Page: 4 - 6

69. Distinguish between the following pairs: Ionic bonding and covalent bonding Saturated fatty acids and unsaturated fatty acids Monosaccharide and polysaccharide

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Analysis Page: 7 - 9, 19, 17 - 18

70. Construct a table showing the important uses of carbohydrates, fats, proteins, and nucleic acids in microorganisms.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Synthesis Page: 17 - 23

71. Distinguish between the primary, secondary, and tertiary structures of proteins.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Analysis Page: 22, 23

72. Explain what is meant by the statement, “A solution is buffered at a pH of 6.0.”

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Comprehension Page: 15

73. Propose a reason why carbon atoms can form the broad variety of covalent bonds found in carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Synthesis Page: 7, 9 51

74. Name and describe the chemical reactions that: A. link macromolecule monomers together and B. break macromolecule polymers apart.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Knowledge Page: 12

75. Assess hydrogen bonds and covalent bonds with respect to formation, use, and strength.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Evaluation Page: 9 - 11

76. Write a descriptive comparison of acids and bases.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Application Page: 13, 14

77. Compare RNA and DNA with respect to their chemical composition and use. 52

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Analysis Page: 20, 21

78. Evaluate how cell function would differ without the features of water molecules.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Evaluation Page: 12, 13

79. Why is it important to have an understanding of chemistry for microbiology?

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Evaluation Page: 2, 3

Fill in-the-Blank

80. A solution of pH 10 is

times more basic than a solution of pH 7.

Ans: 1000 Chap 03, Chapter 3 53

Multiple Choice

1. Prokaryotes exhibit these common features found in all living things. Identify the exception. A. They use DNA as the hereditary material. B. They use complex biochemical patterns of growth and energy conversions. C. The cell can have a variety of structures inside and outside of the cell membrane and cell wall. D. They do not respond to stimuli.

Ans: D

2. One important ability that all cells must have to survive is maintaining a relatively stable internal environment. This is called A. homeostasis. B. adaptation. C. feedback. D. regulation.

Ans: A

3. Prokaryotes and eukaryotes differ primarily with regard to the absence or presence of a A. plasma membrane. B. cell wall. C. spore. 54

D. nucleus.

Ans: D

4. Which scientists were the developers of the cell theory that all organisms are made of cells? A. Pasteur and Koch B. Linnaeus and Virchow C. Schleiden and Schwann D. Haeckel and Woess

Ans: C

5. All the following are characteristics of prokaryotes except A. prokaryotes have many organelles. B. prokaryotes have ribosomes. C. prokaryotes lack a nucleus. D. prokaryotes have genes.

Ans: A

6. All the following characteristics apply to the prokaryotes except A. they lack a nucleus. B. they reproduce only by mitosis. C. they are composed of single cells. D. they include the bacteria. 55

Ans: B

7. All of the following are part of the cellular internal membrane system except A. endoplasmic reticulum. B. mitochondria. C. lysosomes. D. Golgi apparatus.

Ans: B

8. Which one of the following is not a function of the Golgi apparatus? A. Sorting of proteins B. Synthesis of proteins C. Processing of proteins D. Packaging of proteins.

Ans: B

9. Prokaryotes go through the same kinds of energy reactions as eukaryotes, but without the double membrane organelles. Instead they use A. ribosomes. B. single membrane vacuoles. C. the cytosol and cell membrane. D. they use all of the above. 56

Ans: C

10. Many prokaryotic cells exhibit motility. This is generally by A. membrane covered cilia. B. uncovered cilia. C. membrane covered flagella. D. uncovered flagella.

Ans: D

11. How do bacterial cells control water balance? A. Water moves in and out by osmosis. B. The cell wall prevents the cell from bursting from too much water. C. Water is limited by the cell membrane. D. A and B are correct, but not C.

Ans: A

12. The binomial system of nomenclature for microorganisms uses the A. genus and species names. B. order and species names. C. kingdom and genus names. D. family and species names. 57

Ans: A

13. The correct way to write the name of a bacterium in the binomial system is A. Esch. col. B. Escherichia coli. C. Escherichia coli. D. Escherichia Coli.

Ans: C

14. In the scientific name Bacillus anthracis, the term Bacillus is the A. species name. B. specific epithet. C. genus name. D. family name.

Ans: C

15. In the bacterial name Vibrio cholerae, the word cholerae represents the A. species. B. genus. C. family. D. kingdom.

Ans: A 58

16. Carl von Linné or Linnaeus was important to biology because of his work with classification of organisms in A. Manual of Determinative Bacteriology. B. Systema Naturae and binomial nomenclature. C. Micrographia and taxonomic keys. D. All of the above are correct, he was a prolific writer.

Ans: B

17. Starting with Linnaeus, a hierarchical system was established for cataloging of living things. What did this mean at that time? A. Grouping of species by shared and common characteristics. B. Grouping of organisms by DNA analysis. C. Grouping of organisms by rRNA sequences. D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: A

18. Which is the correct listing of a hierarchical system from large to small for bacteria? A. Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Family, Order, Genus, Species. B. Domain, Phylum, Order, Class, Family, Genus, Species. C. Kingdom, Division, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species D. Domain, Order, Division, Class, Family, Genus, Species

Ans: C

19. Whittaker, Linnaeus and Haeckel all made substantial contributions to the A. development of microscopic instruments. B. science of taxonomy. C. discovery of viruses. D. history of protozoology.

Ans: B

20. In 1866, Ernst Haeckel, devised a three kingdom system. One kingdom was Plants, the second was Animals. What was the third kingdom and what did it include? A. Bacteria: included bacteria B. Monera: included bacteria, protozoans and algae C. Protists: included bacteria, protozoa, algae and fungi D. Unicellular: included all the single celled organisms

Ans: C

21. Which one of following did not attempt a classification of living organisms? A. Robert H. Whittaker B. Carl Linnaeus C. Ernst Haeckel D. All the above tried to classify organisms.

Ans: D

22. In the five-kingdom system of classification, which one of the following is not one of the kingdoms? A. Fungi B. Virus C. Monera D. Protista

Ans: B

23. Which one of the following taxonomic groups is first associated with the work of Woese? A. Fungi B. Protista C. Archaea D. Animalia

Ans: C

24. In Whittaker’s five kingdom system, the fungi are A. pigmented organisms which move by means of flagella. B. a group that includes diatoms and dinoflagellates. C. typical prokaryotes. D. non-green, non-photosynthetic eukaryotes.

Ans: D

25. Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology may be used to A. classify an unknown microorganism. B. look up the ingredients of a bacteriological growth medium. C. study the principles of nomenclature. D. learn how to test for the metabolic characteristics of bacteria.

Ans: A

26. Carl Woese proposed a new classification system of three domains. What were these three domains? A. These were Archaea, Bacteria and Eukarya. B. These were Plantae, Animalia and Bacteria. C. These were Archaea, Animalia and Plantae. D. These were Archaea, Prokarya and Eukarya.

Ans: A

27. The

are included in Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology.

A. protozoa B. molds and yeasts C. bacteria D. viruses

Ans: C

28. What tests are used to help identify bacteria today? A. Physical characteristics including shape, size and arrangement of cells. B. Biochemical tests showing metabolic properties like fermentation tubes. C. Serological tests with antisera for the production of antibodies. D. All of the above are currently used.

Ans: D

29. The length of an organism measuring 50 nanometers also may be expressed as A. 50,000 micrometers. B. 0.050 centimeters. C. 0.050 millimeters. D. 0.050 micrometers.

Ans: D

30. A nanometer (nm) is what part of a meter? A. 1/100 B. 1/1000 C. one millionth D. one billionth

Ans: D 63

31. The smallest unit of size in the list below is the A. meter. B. millimeter. C. micrometer. D. nanometer.

Ans: D

32. Which one of the following sequences exhibits increasing size? A. Viruses to protozoa to bacteria B. Bacteria to viruses to fungi C. Fungi to protozoa to bacteria D. Viruses to bacteria to protozoa

Ans: D

33. All the following groups are smaller than traditional bacteria except A. viruses. B. yeasts. C. mycoplasmas. D. rickettsiae.

Ans: B 64

34. The resolving power of the microscope reveals A. two closely spaced objects to be seen clearly. B. the maximum magnification possible with a particular objective. C. whether or not oil is needed to see a microorganism. D. the amount of clearance between slide and objective lens.

Ans: A

35. Which one of the following groups is not resolved with the light microscope? A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Molds D. Viruses

Ans: D

36. An ocular lens with a magnification of 10X and an objective lens of 40X has a total magnification of A. 10X. B. 40X. C. 50X. D. 400X.

Ans: D

37. At the conclusion of the negative stain technique, one can observe A. green-stained bacteria on a clear background. B. clear bacteria on a dark background. C. clear bacteria on a clear background. D. red bacteria on a clear green background.

Ans: B

38. The Gram stain technique is valuable in distinguishing A. types of fungi. B. the size and structure of viruses. C. the nucleus of bacteria from other cellular organelles. D. different types of bacteria.

Ans: D

39. Which of the following stains is used to identify Mycobacterium tuberculosis, with its thick waxy walls? A. Acid fast stain B. Gram stain C. Negative stain D. All of the above have to be used.

Ans: A

40. microscopy uses special filters and diaphragms to split the light beam and throw the rays slightly out of phase. A. Dark-field B. Fluorescence C. Phase-contrast D. Electron

Ans: C

41. A microscope image that has a dark background, with only the live object being illuminated, is an example of A. bright-field microscopy. B. scanning electron microscopy. C. dark-field microscopy. D. phase-contrast microscopy.

Ans: C

42. Dark-field microscopy is valuable for observing A. stained organisms. B. organisms too small to be seen with the light microscope. C. live microorganisms. D. internal details of microorganisms.

Ans: C 67

43. The use of UV light to excite a dye is used with A. bright-field microscopy. B. phase-contrast microscopy. C. electron microscopy. D. fluorescence microscopy.

Ans: D

44. An advantage of the SEM over the TEM is A. a higher magnification may be achieved with the SEM. B. thin sections are not needed with the SEM. C. the SEM uses an electron beam with a shorter wavelength. D. the resolution is better with the SEM.

Ans: B

45. The advantage of a scanning electron microscope is that it A. shows 3 dimensional structure of the object. B. identifies internal structure much better than the TEM C. can be used with dyes. D. uses a different light source than a brightfield microscopy.

Ans: A 68

Matching

46. Select one of the following four types of microscopy to correctly complete each of the statements below.

1. requires that objects must be placed in a vacuum. 2. uses ultraviolet light as an energy source. 3. permits magnifications of over 200,000X. 4. is used to observe dye-tagged antibodies. 5. has a special condenser to scatter light. 6. can be used to observe objects as small as 2.0 nm in diameter. 7. is the most commonly used compound microscope. 8. involves electrons that are excited and move to a higher energy Bloom. 9. was developed by Ernst Ruska. 10. uses ultra-thin sections of microorganisms. 11. involves staining objects with heavy metals after sectioning. 12. used to observe a slice of bacterium. 13. is used after Gram staining. 14. produces the illuminated organism on a dark background. 15. is used by diagnostic labs to identify many unknown microorganisms. 16. uses immersion oil to increase resolution with the 100X objective. 17. produces an effect similar to seeing the moon at night. 18. aids in the visualization of the bacterium that causes syphilis, Treponema

A. Transmission electron microscopy B. Fluorescence microscopy C. Dark-field microscopy 69

D. Bright-field microscopy

Ans: 1. A; 2. B; 3. A; 4. B; 5. C; 6. A; 7. D; 8. B; 9. A; 10. A; 11. A; 12. A; 13. D; 14. C; 15. B; 16. D; 17. C; 18. C

47. Match each characteristic with the correct group of organisms. There is likely more than one answer possible for each question. 1. Non-photosynthetic, cell walls composed of chitin 2. Photosynthetic; prokaryotic 3. worms 4. Escherichia coli 5. Have no membrane bound organelles 6. Cyanobacteria 7. Grass and trees 8. Have ribosomes 9. prokaryotes living under extreme conditions

A. Archaea B. Bacteria C. Eukarya D. Protists E. Fungi F. Plants G. Animals

Ans: 1. C, E; 2. B; 3. C, G; 4. B; 5. A, B; 6. B; 7. C, F; 8. A, B, C, D, E, F, G; 9. A

True/False

For each of the following statements, decide if the statement is true or false. If false, correct the statement to be true.

48. True or false? Among the important characteristics of prokaryotes is the presence of a welldefined nucleus and nuclear membrane.

Ans: False Response: […of eukaryotes is…]

49. True or false? All prokaryotes and eukaryotes have an organizational pattern separating the internal compartments from the surrounding environment but allowing for the exchange of solutes and wastes.

Ans: True

50. True or false? Fungi lack photosynthetic pigments, but all protozoa possess these pigments and can therefore live independently.

Ans: False Response: […but all algae possess…]

51. True or false? Cyanobacteria are prokaryotes that possess light-trapping pigments and a cell nucleus.

Ans: False Response: [Algae are eukaryotes that…]

52. True or false? Most prokaryotic species live in communal associations in a multicellular state with communication and cooperation among cells that aids their survival.

Ans: True

53. True or false? The advantage of phase-contrast microscopy for microorganisms is that one can see the specimen alive and unstained, whereas using brightfield microscopy it would be much more difficult.

Ans: True

54. True or false? In the mechanics of classification, several orders are grouped to form a family and several families are placed together in a genus.

Ans: False Response: […several genera are grouped to form a family and several families are placed together in an order.]

55. True or false? Scientists often abbreviate the microbial names by writing the first letter of the genus name, or some accepted substitution, together with the full specific species name. Ans: True

56. True or false? In Whittaker's five-kingdom system of classification, the bacteria and cyanobacteria are placed together in the kingdom Monera.

Ans: True

57. True or false? Many members of the domain Archaea have the ability to live under extremely harsh conditions.

Ans: True

58. True or false? All microorganisms are prokaryotes.

Ans: False Response: [All bacteria are prokaryotes.]

59. True or false? The micrometer measurement is equivalent to one thousand nanometers.

Ans: True

60. True or false? The smaller the resolving power of the microscope lens, the closer the objects can be and still be seen.

Ans: True

61. True or false? The index of refraction of oil is twice that of glass and light and therefore remains in a straight line.

Ans: False Response: […is equal to that of…]

62. True or false? Heat fixing bonds the cells to the slide, kills organisms that may still be alive, and prepares them for staining.

Ans: True

63. True or false? Basic (cationic) dyes are used in the negative stain.

Ans: False Response: [Acidic (anionic) dyes are used…]

64. True or false? Gram-positive bacteria are those that retain the crystal violet-iodine complex when a decolorizing agent is added, appearing blue-purple at the conclusion of the procedure. 74

Ans: True

65. True or false? An important application of fluorescence microscopy is in serological testing, or testing a patient for antibodies to a particular pathogen.

Ans: True

Essay

66. Discuss the importance of the cell theory.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Evaluation Page: 6

67. Compare the genetic organization of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Evaluation Page: 6, 7

68. Support the statement “All prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells must contain DNA, a cell membrane, and ribosomes.”

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Evaluation Page: 6, 7

69. Compare the organelles found in eukaryotes to organization found in prokaryotes based on their function.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Synthesis Page: 6 - 9

70. Describe the distinguishing features of prokaryotes and eukaryotes, and indicate why bacteria, protozoa, and fungi are classified in either group.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Comprehension Page: 7 - 9

71. Use the distinguishing characteristics of the microorganisms to classify them according to the five-kingdom system.

Ans: Answers will vary. 76

Bloom: Application Page: 13

72. Judge the reason why Woese and others split the kingdom Monera into two separate domains, the Eubacteria and the Archaea.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Evaluation Page: 13, 14

73. Evaluate the traditional criteria used to place a bacterium into a particular category in Bergey's Manual.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Evaluation Page: 15, 16

74. Construct a list in descending order, beginning with the largest, of the various microorganisms by their approximate sizes.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Synthesis Page: 17

75. Assess the importance of resolution and magnification in microscopy.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Evaluation Page: 17, 18

76. Discuss the procedure and results of the gram stain in identifying unknown bacteria.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Analysis Page: 20

77. Distinguish the basic differences between the optics of a light, dark-field, phase-contrast, and fluorescence microscopes.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Analysis Page: 18, 19, 21, 22

78. Compare and contrast the features of the scanning and transmission electron microscopes.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Analysis Page: 23, 24

79. Write a brief description for each of the following stains: simple stain, negative stain, gram stain and acid fast stain.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Synthesis Page: 18 - 21 Chap04, Chapter 4

Multiple Choice

1. How do most of the Archaea live? A. They live at high temperatures. B. They produce methane gas. C. They grow in extremely acidic environments. D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: D

2. Which of the following characteristics is similar for both Bacteria and Archaea? A. Circular chromosome B. Chlorophyll-based photosynthesis C. Presence of histones organizing the DNA D. All of the above are similar. 79

Ans: A

3. Which of the following characteristics is similar for both Archaea and Eukarya? A. Circular chromosome B. Chlorophyll-based photosynthesis C. Presence of histones organizing the DNA D. All of the above are similar.

Ans: C

4. Bacteria lack

in the cell cytoplasm.

A. ribosomes B. water C. plasmids D. mitochondria

Ans: D

5. Which of the following best illustrates the function of bacteria? A. They digest sewage into simple chemicals. B. They extract nitrogen from the air and make if available to plants for protein production. C. They break down the remains of all that dies and recycle the carbon and other elements. D. They do all of the above. 80

Ans: D

6. All the following characteristics apply to the prokaryotes except A. they lack a nucleus. B. they reproduce only by mitosis. C. they are composed of single cells. D. they include the bacteria.

Ans: B

7. This group of bacteria are the gram negative bacteria and includes most human pathogens. A. Proteobacteria B. Firmicutes C. Cyanobacteria D. Chlamydiae

Ans: A

8. In the endosymbiotic theory, it is likely that the mitochondria of the Eukarya came from an ancestor of . A. Proteobacteria B. Firmicutes C. Cyanobacteria D. Chlamydiae

Ans: A

9. Rickettsiae are generally transmitted A. by contaminated food and water. B. by respiratory droplets from the nose and throat. C. by direct contact such as kissing. D. by arthropods such as ticks and lice.

Ans: D

10. This is a group of gram positive bacteria with thick skin, referring to their cell wall structure. Which group is it? A. Proteobacteria B. Firmicutes C. Cyanobacteria D. Chlamydiae

Ans: B

11. This is a group of photosynthesizing prokaryotes called cyanobacteria. What domain do they belong to? A. Archaea B. Bacteria C. Eukarya D. Prokarya 82

Ans: B

12. Thermophiles need

to grow.

A. oxygen B. available salt C. high pH D. high temperatures

Ans: D

13. This group of bacteria, identified as viruses for many years, are so small that they can't be seen with the light microscope. Most species are pathogens and have to be cultured in living cells. What group is this? A. Proteobacteria B. Firmicutes C. Cyanobacteria D. Chlamydiae

Ans: D

14. An organism that grows at 75° C is classified as a A. mesophile. B. psychrophile. C. hyperthermophile. 83

D. facultative organism.

Ans: C

15. An acidophile would grow best at a pH of A. 2. B. 6. C. 9. D. 12.

Ans: A

16. Extreme halophiles live in environments that have high levels of A. temperature. B. pressure. C. pH. D. salt.

Ans: D

17. The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus appears microscopically as A. a spirillum with polar flagella. B. an encapsulated rod. C. a curved rod with pili. D. a grape-like cluster of spheres. 84

Ans: D

18. Which one of the following is not a variation of cocci arrangement? A. Spirillum B. Tetrad C. Diplococcus D. Streptococcus

Ans: A

19. A bacterial arrangement called a sarcina has which of the following morphological shapes? A. Rods in clusters B. Spheres in long chains C. Cocci in packets of eight D. Rods in long chains

Ans: C

20. Spherical organisms arranged in irregular groups of cells that resemble bunches of grapes are referred to as A. staphylococci. B. streptococci. C. sarcinae. D. cocci. 85

Ans: A

21. An example of a bacillus or rod shaped bacterium is A. Streptococcus lactis. B. Treponema pallidum. C. Salmonella typhi. D. Neisseria gonorrheae.

Ans: C

22. An example of a coccus in pairs is A. a tetrad. B. a diplococcus. C. a sarcina. D. a streptococcus.

Ans: B

23. An example of spiral bacteria that can be curved, helical or spiral shaped is A. Streptococcus lactis. B. Salmonella typhi. C. Clostridium tetani. D. Vibrio cholerae. 86

Ans: D

24. An organism having fimbriae has the advantage over one that lacks fimbriae because A. it can move actively. B. it can obtain nutrients from beef broth. C. it can be stained easily. D. it can attach to specific surfaces.

Ans: D

25. Fimbriae protrude from the surface of most A. gram negative bacteria. B. gram positive bacteria. C. acid fast bacteria. D. All of the above are equal in the possession of fimbriae.

Ans: A

26. All the following apply to pili except A. they are composed of protein. B. they are found primarily in gram-positive bacteria. C. they have no function in motility. D. they are involved in genetic transfers between cells.

Ans: B 87

27. Which of the following structures are used by some bacteria to exchange genetic information through conjugation? A. Pilli B. Flagella C. Cilia D. Fimbriae

Ans: A

28. All of the following are characteristics of the bacterial flagellum except A. it is composed of flagellin. B. it has a hook-like insertion to a basal body in the cell wall. C. it is used in conjugation. D. the number and arrangement of the flagella can affect the type of movement.

Ans: C

29. Which one of the following does not apply to the bacterial glycocalyx? A. It allows the organism to resist drying. B. It is commonly composed of carbohydrates. C. It is surrounded by the cell wall. D. It may allow an organism to resist phagocytosis.

Ans: C 88

30. A thin, loosely bound glycocalyx is referred to as a A. capsule. B. slime layer. C. biofilm. D. cell envelope.

Ans: B

31. The difference between the capsule and the slime layer is A. the capsule is much thicker than the slime layer. B. the capsule is form adherence of the cell to a surface, whereas the slime layer is not. C. the capsule is protein, whereas the slime layer is carbohydrate. D. capsules are associated with pathogenic bacteria and slime layers are not.

Ans: A

32. The bacterial cell wall contains a rigid, highly interlinked macromolecule that is known as A. teichoic acid. B. penicillin. C. dextran. D. peptidoglycan.

Ans: D 89

33. Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) is found in the A. gram-negative cell wall outer membrane. B. gram-positive cell wall. C. periplasmic space. D. inclusion granules.

Ans: A

34. Endotoxins are located in the A. outer row of lipolysaccharide. B. periplasmic region. C. plasma membrane. D. pili.

Ans: A

35. Lysozyme and penicillin are similar in that both A. are chains of sugars. B. are produced by gram-positive bacteria. C. damage the bacterial cell wall. D. dissolve the bacterial capsule.

Ans: C

36. All the following are functions of the bacterial cell membrane except A. lends rigidity to the cell. B. site of enzymes for energy production in the cell. C. enclosure for the cytoplasm. D. control of passage of biological molecules into the cytoplasm.

Ans: A

37. Penicillin is an antibiotic that prevents A. cell membrane transport. B. ribosomes from making proteins. C. cell walls from being formed. D. flagella from being formed.

Ans: C

38. The peptidoglycan of a bacterium A. is embedded within the capsule. B. are affected by penicillin if it is present. C. is part of the cell membrane. D. is found in gram-positive bacteria only.

Ans: B

39. The fluid mosaic model best describes A. the ability of bacteria to solubilize protein. B. the structure of the cell membrane. C. the ability of bacteria to move in liquid solutions. D. the structure of the capsule.

Ans: B

40. Which one of the following is not a component of the bacterial cytoplasm? A. Ribosome B. Chromosome C. Peptidoglycan D. Plasmid

Ans: C

41. Describe a bacterial chromosome. A. It is a double-stranded single molecule. B. It is usually a circular chromosome in a closed loop. C. It doesn't undergo mitosis or meiosis. D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: D

42. Small molecules of DNA that exist in bacteria as independent circular units are known as 92

A. chromosomes. B. nucleoids. C. plasmids. D. nucleoli.

Ans: C

43. Bacterial ribosomes are smaller than eukaryotic ribosomes. They have the same function of A. assembling protein. B. making lipids and polysaccharides. C. participating in cell division. D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: A

44. What are the small storage inclusions found in the cytoplasm of some prokaryotic cells? A. The nucleus. B. Mitochondria C. Metachromatic granules D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: C

45. Some aquatic and marine prokaryotes have an ability to float on the surface due to A. less cytoplasm than other cells. 93

B. a faster metabolism. C. they are made of lighter materials. D. gas vesicles that make them lighter.

Ans: D

Matching

46. Select one of the following three bacterial structures to correctly complete each statement below.

1. are protein structures that anchor bacteria to specific tissue. 2. are a whip-like appendages that permit motility. 3. serve as a buffer to the environment. 4. are many times the diameter of the cell. 5. are composed of polysaccharides and small proteins. 6. provide resistance to phagocytosis. 7. prevent environmental nutrients from flowing away. 8. have hook-like shaft and basal body. 9. are found on gram-negative bacteria. 10. are sometimes called fimbriae. 11. are used for chemotaxis. 12. tips have a protein called adhesin.

A. Flagella B. Capsules C. Pili 94

Ans: 1. C; 2. A; 3. B; 4. A; 5. B; 6. B; 7. B; 8. A; 9. C; 10. C; 11. A; 12. C.

47. Match each bacterial structure with its correct composition. There may be more than one correct answer.

Bacterial Structure 1. Gram (+) cell wall 2. Glycocalyx 3. Membrane 4. Plasmid 5. Ribosome 6. Cytosol 7. Metachromatic granules 8. Nucleoid 9. Cell envelope 10. Pilus 11. Flagellum 12. Gram (-) cell wall

Composition A. Phosphates B. Polysaccharide C. DNA D. Protein E. Protein, phospholipid F. Peptidoglycan G. Teichoic acid H. rRNA I. Water, organic, and inorganic substances

Ans: 1. F, G; 2. B; 3. D, E; 4. C; 5. H; 6. I; 7. A; 8. C, D; 9. A, B, E, F, G; 10. D; 11. D; 12. A, B, D, E, F

48. Match each bacterial structure with its correct function(s).

1. Gram (+) cell wall 2. Glycocalyx 3. Membrane 4. Plasmid 5. Ribosome 6. Cytosol 7. inclusions 8. Nucleoid 9. Gram (-) cell wall 10. Fimbriae 11. Flagellum

Function A. Loose layer around outside of cell wall B. endotoxin C. Site of protein synthesis D. Prevents phagocytosis E. Stores essential genetic information F. Short straight hair-like fibers G. Storage of nutrient in cell H. Motility I. Location for metabolic enzymes J. Fluid matrix for cell metabolism K. Contains a few genes; not essential for cell L. techoic acids 96

M. Transports food into, and wastes out of, the cell

Ans: 1. B; 2. A, D ; 3. I, M ; 4. K; 5. C; 6. J; 7. G; 8. E; 9. B; 10. F; 11. H;

True/False

For each of the following statements, decide if the statement is true or false. If false, correct the statement to be true.

49. True or False? Procaryotic cells have a variety of cell membrane transport proteins that regular molecular flow in and out of the cell.

Ans: True

50. True or False? Bacterial organisms have so completely colonized every part of the Earth that their mass is estimated to outweigh the mass of all plants and animals combined.

Ans: True

51. True or False? The cyanobacteria survive without the cell wall.

Ans: False 97

Response: [The mycoplasma…]

52. True or False? Even though prokaryotes don't have regular organelles like eukaryotes they still have localization of materials within the cell.

Ans: True

53. The biggest chemical component of gram + bacterial cell walls, composing the greatest thickness of the wall, is techoic acid.

Ans: False Response: […is peptidoglycan.]

54. An encapsulated bacterium is very often highly pathogenic.

Ans: True

55. True or False? Binary fission is the sexual process by which two bacteria come together and exchange chromosomes in reproduction.

Ans: False Response: [Conjugation is. .. ]

56. True or False? Motility exists in many species of bacterial rods by flagella or gliding motility on slime.

Ans: True

57. True or False? The flagellum is longer than the bacterial cell but is so thin that it cannot be visualized with normal bright field microscopy unless stained.

Ans: True

58. True or False? In prokaryote flagellum, the basal body represents a powerful biological motor or rotary engine that generates a propeller-type rotation of the flagellum.

Ans: True

59. True or False? Chemotaxis is an organism’s response to magnetic fields.

Ans: False Response: […response to chemical attractants.]

60. True or False? Some photosynthetic prokaryotes display chemotaxis toward the light.

Ans: False 99

Response: […phototaxis toward the light.]

61. True or False? The glycocalyx is a mass of tangled fibers of polysaccharide that attach the bacterium to a surface such as the surface of teeth.

Ans: True

62. True or False? The cell wall lends rigidity to the cell, but the cell membrane functions primarily in material transport into and out of the cell.

Ans: True

63. True or False? The effect of penicillin is more evident in gram-positive than in gram-negative bacteria.

Ans: True

64. True or False? The archaea have cell walls but don't have the peptidoglycan wall structure, so the cells would be resistant to lysozyme and penicillin action.

Ans: True

100

65. True or False? The two major components of the bacterial cell membrane are lipid and carbohydrate.

Ans: False Response: […are lipid and protein…]

66. True or False? A major difference used to separate the archaeal organisms into their own domain was the chemical nature of the cell membrane and the nature of rRNA.

Ans: True

67. True or False? The bacterial chromosome is a continuous loop of DNA suspended in the cytosol without a nuclear membrane.

Ans: True

68. True or False? Prokaryotes have cytoskeletal proteins that are homologous to those in the eukaryotic cytoskeleton.

Ans: True

Essay

101

69. Explain the differences between Bacteria and Archaea.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 2 - comprehension Page: 6 - 9

70. Describe the cytoplasm of a bacterial cell and list the various structures that may be found within it. Explain the function(s) for these structures.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: Levels 1 and 2 – knowledge and comprehension Page: 23, 24

71. List the various shapes and arrangements in which bacteria can appear.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 1 – knowledge Page: 10, 11

72. Explain why an understanding of prokaryotic structure and metabolism is important in our fight against the prokaryotic pathogens.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 2 - comprehension 102

Page: 13 - 16

73. Explain the advantages of the spore, capsule, cell wall, flagella, and pili in the life of a bacterium.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 2 – comprehension Page: 14 - 21

74. Differentiate between capsules, and slime layers. In your comparison, include a description of each, and how each is a benefit to a bacterium.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 4 – analysis Page: 17, 18

75. Distinguish between the following pairs of terms: A. Bacillus and coccus B. Spirochete and spirillum C. Pilli and Fimbriae

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 4 – analysis Page: 9 - 11, 14,

103

76. Compare and contrast Gram negative and Gram positive cell walls.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 4 – analysis Page: 20

77. Identify the chemical composition and describe the structure of the bacterial cell membrane. Explain the functions of this membrane.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 2 – comprehension Page: 22, 23

Fill-in-the-Blank

78. Collectively, those organisms living in inhospitable environments such as acidic, high salt, and very high temperatures are called .

Ans: Extremophiles

Chapter 5

Multiple Choice 104

1. The process by which most bacteria reproduce is known as A. meiosis. B. splitting. C. mitosis. D. binary fission.

Ans: D

2. How is asexual reproduction used in prokaryotic cells? A. An increase in the population size with each cell being identical to the parent cell. B. Mitosis is an orderly method of cloning the cell into two daughter cells. C. Meiosis is a process called reduction division. D. Budding is breaking off a piece of a cell off the surface of the parent cell.

Ans: A

3. The interval of time between doublings of a cell or population of cells is known as the A. separation time. B. growth phase. C. generation time. D. incubation period.

Ans: C 105

4. Why are bacteria considered to be the most diverse organisms on the planet? A. Bacteria live in the greatest extremes of temperatures. B. Bacteria live in the greatest extremes of the pH range. C. Bacteria can resist huge doses of radiation that can kill other life forms. D. Bacteria can grow in concentrations of salt that would easily kill eukaryotes. E. All of these are examples of their diversity.

Ans: E

5. Which of the following statements about generation time is correct? A. Under optimal conditions some prokaryotes have a very fast generation time of 20-30 minutes. B. Some organisms have much slower generation times of 20-30 hours. C. Most organisms have about the same generation time of about 24 hours. D. Both A and B, but not C are correct. E. A, B and C are correct.

Ans: D

6. Which of the following is not a limiting factor for the growth of microorganisms? A. Not enough humidity B. Not enough space C. Too many waste products D. Not enough nutrients

Ans: A 106

7. When relating generation time of microbes to disease, which is a correct general statement that could be made? A. The slower the generation time, the more symptoms a patient will develop. B. The faster the generation time, the shorter the incubation period. C. If the doubling time is very fast, then chances are the patient will get better faster. D. None of the above matter, it all depends on how many cells the patient becomes infected with.

Ans: B

8. In the log phase of growth, A. the death rate is equivalent to the reproductive rate. B. spore formation is a common event. C. the number of cells in the population increases rapidly. D. the growth curve is at a plateau.

Ans: C

9. Which of the following is not one of the four phases of a bacterial growth curve? A. Lead phase B. Lag phase C. Log phase D. Stationary phase E. Decline/death phase

107

Ans: A

10. At what stage in the bacterial growth curve are there no cell divisions occurring, because the bacteria are adapting to their new environment? A. Lead phase B. Lag phase C. Log phase D. Stationary phase E. Decline/death phase

Ans: B

11. At what stage of a bacterial growth curve are the bacteria growing in size, storing nutrients, and synthesizing enzymes in preparation for binary fission? A. Lead phase B. Lag phase C. Log phase D. Stationary phase E. Decline phase

Ans: B

12. Which statement is true regarding log growth phase? A. The bacteria are dividing rapidly and the graph is rising in a straight line. B. Disease symptoms are developing because the bacteria are causing tissue damage. 108

C. The bacteria are the most vulnerable to antibiotics. D. Broth becomes turbid and visible colonies appear on agar in the bacterial growth curve. E. All answers describe the log phase of growth.

Ans: E

13. Hemophilis is a common bacterium of the ear, and often a cause if middle ear infections. The bacterium requires many growth factors and vitamins not present in common bacteriological media, so it is considered to be a “picky” grower. However, the use of blood agar or hemolyzed blood agar works wells because of the variety of growth factors and vitamins, so the organism grows luxuriantly on these media. These media are examples of media. A. reduced B. selective C. differential D. enrichment

Ans: D

14. The procedure that one uses for measurement of bacterial population depends upon A. whether the organism has a fast generation time or a slow generation time. B. the gram reaction of the bacterium. C. the size of the individual cells. D. the type of specimen (food, water, soil, etc.).

Ans: D

109

15. A deep puncture would most often will damage blood vessels, causing necrosis (death of the tissue) in that area. Wound infections associated with this scenario are most often caused by A. aerobes. B. anaerobes. C. facultative anaerobes. D. halophiles.

Ans: B

16. At what stage of the bacterial growth curve do the reproductive and death rates equalize? A. Lead phase B. Lag phase C. Log phase D. Stationary phase E. Decline phase

Ans: D

17. At what phase in the bacterial growth curve in a patient do antibodies from the immune system and phagocytosis by white blood cells affect the progress of the disease? A. Lead phase B. Lag phase C. Log phase D. Stationary phase E. Decline phase

Ans: D 110

18. In a culture tube at what phase of the bacterial growth curve do available nutrients become scarce and waste products begin to accumulate? A. Lead phase B. Lag phase C. Log phase D. Stationary phase E. Decline phase

Ans: D

19. A spectrophotometer measures turbidity of a bacterial population. Which statement is true? A. This procedure gives an accurate count of bacterial cells. B. The metabolic products of the cell population are picked up by the spectrophotometer. C. The machine is very sensitive to tiny numbers of bacterial cells. D. No answer is correct.

Ans: D

20. As a culture of Clostridium enters the decline/death phase of the growth curve, the vegetative cells will have A. produce endospores. B. synthesize a slime layer. C. lose their cell walls. D. form a thick capsule. 111

Ans: A

21. Which one of the following diseases does not involve endospores? A. Anthrax B. Botulism C. Tetanus D. Syphilis

Ans: D

22. Endospores are heat-stable resting forms of all of the bacteria listed below, except A. Bacillus anthracis. B. Escherichia coli. C. Clostridium perfringens. D. Clostridium botulinum.

Ans: B

23. Endospores are very difficult to destroy. Because of this, which of the following techniques will work to get rid of them? A. Dehydration or dessication B. Boil at 100o C for an 15 minutes C. Heat them under high pressure for several hours D. Place in 70 % ethyl alcohol over night 112

Ans: C

24. Under what conditions would you find vegetative growth from Clostridium botulinum endospores? A. High amounts of oxygen B. A vacuumed and sealed can of food C. On the surface of machinery like in the mail sorting room D. On the surface of the skin

Ans: B

25. Under the conditions of bioterrorism where were endospores from Bacillus anthracis found? A. Inside an envelope B. On the surface of the skin C. On the surface of machinery like in the mail sorting room D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: D

26. Endospores are found primarily in which kind of organisms? A. Gram positive bacillus B. Gram negative bacillus C. Gram positive coccus D. Gram negative coccus 113

Ans: A

27. Which of the following diseases are all caused by endospore forming Clostridia? A. Botulism B. Gas gangrene C. Tetanus D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: D

28. Which of the following conditions are most likely to affect the growth of bacteria? A. Acidity, the amount of water present and calcium B. Temperature, oxygen and pH C. Osmosis, heat and salt D. Temperature, pressure and salinity

Ans: B

29. An organism that grows at 5° C is classified as a A. mesophile. B. psychrophile. C. thermophile. D. facultative organism. 114

Ans: B

30. Psychrophiles and thermophiles differ with respect to their A. oxygen requirements. B. ability to tolerate salt. C. pH requirements. D. best temperature for growth.

Ans: D

31. A mesophilic bacterium could A. reproduce at 37° C. B. produce human disease. C. grow at human body temperature. D. All the above are correct.

Ans: D

32. Most of the human pathogens are A. psychrophiles. B. thermophiles. C. mesophiles. D. hyperthermophiles.

Ans: C 115

33. An example of a mesophile that is the most frequently identified cause of infective diarrhea is A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Campylobacter. C. Clostridium. D. Bacillus.

Ans: B

34. Bacteria that can grow only in the absence of oxygen are said to be A. aerobic. B. microaerophilic. C. facultative. D. anaerobic.

Ans: D

35. Facultative bacteria are those that A. grow on natural and synthetic media. B. produce spores or capsules, but not both. C. grow in the presence or absence of oxygen. D. possess cell membranes but no cell walls.

Ans: C 116

36. A bacterium that grows only at the bottom of a thioglycollate broth tube should be classified as A. aerobic. B. facultative. C. anaerobic. D. microaerophilic.

Ans: C

37. A bacterium that grows only at the top of a thioglycollate broth tube should be classified as A. aerobic. B. facultative. C. anaerobic. D. microaerophilic.

Ans: A

38. A bacterium that grows turbid throughout a thioglycollate broth tube should be classified as A. aerobic. B. facultative. C. anaerobic. D. microaerophilic.

Ans: B

117

39. You have isolated an organism from the human intestinal tract. It grows better when you capped the culture tube with a semiporous plug than when you used a plug that is completely permeable to oxygen. This organism should be classified as a(n) A. aerobe. B. anaerobe. C. facultative organism. D. microaerophile.

Ans: D

40. An acidophile would grow best at a pH of A. 2. B. 6. C. 9. D. 12.

Ans: A

41. How does the GasPak system work? A. The GasPak works like a vacuum, sucking the oxygen out of the container. B. The GasPak releases excess carbon dioxide, which replaces the oxygen. C. The hydrogen in the GasPak reacts with oxygen in the presence of a catalyst to form water, thereby creating an oxygen-free atmosphere. D. None of the above are true.

Ans: C

118

42. Most bacteria grow best at A. acid pH. B. neutral pH. C. basic pH. D. None of the above.

Ans: B

43. are important food producing bacteria because they can be used to produce dairy products like buttermilk, sour cream and yogurt from milk and cream. A. Aerobes B. Facultative anerobes C. Alkalinophiles D. Acidophiles

Ans: D

44. The stomach protects us from a large number of microbes that might be in our food because A. of the amount of time food spends in the stomach. B. of its high level of acidity. C. of the number of enzymes that digest food and bacteria. D. of the constant churning of the stomach.

Ans: B

119

45. What are organisms called that require high amounts of salt? A. Halophiles B. Psychrotrophs C. Facultative D. Mesophiles

Ans: A

46. There are some mesophilic bacteria that are salt tolerant. An example is A. Escherichia. B. Salmonella. C. Staphylococcus. D. Neisseria.

Ans: C

47. Some organisms like Neisseria grow well in an atmosphere that is low in oxygen and rich in carbon dioxide. This can be created by lighting a candle, putting it in a jar, inserting the culture medium, then closing the lid of the jar. What is the best name for these organisms? A. Aerobes B. Capnophiles C. Microaerophiles D. Anaerobes

Ans: B 120

48. The agar in nutrient agar serves as a A. protein source. B. medium supplement. C. solidifying agent. D. All the above are correct.

Ans: C

49. An important contribution was made to microbiology with the introduction of agar by Robert Koch. Which of the following statements about agar is correct? A. It contains no essential nutrients. B. It remains liquid until cooled below 42oC. C. As a solid in a petri dish it is useful to isolate pure colonies. D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: D

50. Which of the following types of media are examples of a chemically undefined medium, or complex medium? A. Nutrient agar B. Blood agar C. Brain heart agar D. All of the above are correct.

121

Ans: D

51. A selective medium is one that A. allows one type of bacterium to grow while inhibiting another type. B. permits bacterial rods to grow while inhibiting cocci. C. contains nutrients on which only bacteria can grow. D. distinguishes colonies of one type of bacterium from those of another type.

Ans: A

52. A soil sample is added to a culture medium that has been designed to promote the growth of the genus Pseudomonas while inhibiting the growth of fungi. This test uses a(n) A. differential medium. B. natural medium. C. selective medium. D. minimal medium.

Ans: C

53. How can you take a mixed unknown sample and separate out pure colonies to identify them? A. The pour plate method of mixing the sample with melted agar, then poured into petri dishes and allowed to harden. B. A sterile loop can take a sample and streak for isolation onto an agar plate. C. An individual colony can be subcultured onto another agar plate. D. All of the above are possible. 122

Ans: D

54. Which of the following methods of measuring population growth is a direct count? A. A turbidity count B. Using a spectrophotometer to determine an increase of cells C. Getting an optical density reading which is a function of the number of cells present D. Standard plate count using a dilution series

Ans: D

55. Generally, complex media, such as nutrient agar and blood, are more commonly than chemically defined media. Why is this so? A. Complex media contain more sugar. B. Complex media have more vitamins and growth factors. C. Chemically defined media has an alkaline pH. D. All of these area true.

Ans: B

Matching

56. Match each type of organism with its correct mode(s) of growth. 123

Type of organism 1. Acidophile 2. Mesophile 3. Thermophile 4. Capnophile 5. Psychrotroph 6. Anaerobe 7. Hyperthermophile 8. Microaerophile 9. Obligate aerobe 10. Aerololerant 11. Facultative anaerobe 12. Barophile 13. Halophile

Type of environment A. this group requires oxygen for metabolism, just like us B. these organisms are present in compost piles and hot springs C. they do not or cannot use oxygen D. these organisms live at the bottom of the ocean E. they require relatively high levels of salt F. they survive in environments where the concentration of oxygen is relatively low. G. this group has most of the pathogens as they grow at body temperature H. these have been found in seawater from hot water volcanic vents. I. they are insensitive to oxygen and still grow when oxygen is present, basically ignoring it. J. they grow in either the presence of or a reduced concentration of oxygen K. their range of pH may be 2.0 up to 6 L. they require an atmosphere low in oxygen but rich in carbon dioxide

Ans: 1. K; 2. G; 3. B; 4. L; 5. D; 6. C; 7. H; 8. F; 9. A; 10. I; 11. J; 12. D; 13. E 124

Page: 9 - 12

True/False

For each of the following statements, decide if the statement is true or false. If false, correct the statement to be true.

57. Binary fission is the sexual process by which two bacteria come together and exchange chromosomes in reproduction.

Ans: False Response: […is the mechanism by which bacteria divide.]

58. The generation time is the same for all bacterial species.

Ans: False Response: […is not the same…]

59. A population of bacteria that forms capsules can be expected to have a longer stationary phase than a population whose cells do not form capsules.

Ans: True 125

60. In the formation of an endospore, the prespore cell contains cytoplasm and DNA, and a large amount of dipicolonic acid, a unique organic substance that helps stabilize the proteins and DNA.

Ans: True

61. Psychrotrophs grow in the mesophilic range but can also grow at cold temperatures.

Ans: True

62. Refrigerator temperatures are too cold for the growth of bacterial species.

Ans: False Response: […are not too cold…]

63. Thermophiles make up the largest portion of the global prokaryotic community.

Ans: False Response: [Psychrophiles …]

126

64. Prokaryotes that have their shortest generation times and their optimal growth rates in the range of 15° C but can still grow at 0° C to 20° C are called mesophiles.

Ans: False Response: […psychrophiles.]

65. Some anaerobic prokaryotes, use sulfur in their metabolic activities instead of oxygen, and therefore they produce hydrogen sulfide (H2S) rather than water (H2O) as a waste product of their metabolism.

Ans: True

66. The capnophilic bacteria require an atmosphere high in nitrogen but low in oxygen.

Ans: False Response: […high in carbon dioxide…]

67. One of the reasons citrus fruits resist contamination by bacteria is the acidity, which cannot be tolerated by most bacteria.

Ans: True

68. The majority of known bacterial species, do not grow well under alkaline conditions. Ans: False 127

Response: […under acidic…]

69. The agar in nutrient agar is an important protein source for bacterial growth.

Ans: False Response: […is not a nutrient source…]

70. In a complex growth medium, the identity and quantity of each component is known, but in a synthetic medium they are unknown.

Ans: False Response: [In a synthetic growth medium, the…, but in a complex medium…]

71. Less than 1% of the microorganisms in natural water and soil samples can be cultured. So, it is impossible to estimate accurately microbial diversity in an environment based solely on culturability.

Ans: True

Essay

72. Identify several factors that would affect the generation time for a microorganism and the progress of the disease a pathogen might take. 128

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 3 - comprehension Page: 4, 5

73. Construct a growth curve for a population of bacterial cells and compare the dynamics that occur in each phase.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 4 and 5 – analysis and synthesis Page: 6, 7

74. Explain the advantages of the endospore in the life of a bacterium.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 2 – comprehension Page: 7, 8

75. Compare, contrast and give an example of the following: A. Differential medium and selective medium. B. Nutrient agar and nutrient broth

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 4 – analysis Page: 9, 10 129

76. Compare, contrast and give an example of the following: A. Thermophilic, mesophilic and psychrophilic bacteria. B. Aerobic, facultative anaerobic, and anaerobic bacteria. C. Aerotolerant and microaerophilic bacteria.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 4 – analysis Page: 9, 10

77. Describe the producedures by which a pure culture can be isolated from a mixed sample.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 1 - knowledge Page: 15, 16

78. Describe why agar is such an important ingredient in media used to grow bacterial cultures.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 2 - comprehension Page 13

Chap06, Chapter 6 130

Multiple Choice

1. All the following apply to the process of anabolism except A. photosynthesis is an example. B. products result from the breakdown of large molecules. C. the process is endergonic. D. the process is mediated by enzymes.

Ans: B

2. A metabolic pathway A. can be a catabolic process. B. may require energy input. C. can be an exergonic process. D. all the above are true.

Ans: D

3. Any process that releases energy is referred to as a

reaction.

A. metabolic B. exergonic C. anabolic D. endergonic 131

Ans: B

4. Enzymes play an important role in biological chemistry because they A. break down to release metal ions. B. lower the amount of activation energy required for a reaction. C. raise the ionic strength of a water solution. D. retain the pH at the neutral level preferred by most microorganisms.

Ans: B

5. Enzymes speed up chemical reactions and thereby A. lower the necessary energy input to get the reaction to occur. B. lower the possibility of covalent bond formation. C. lower the need for mineral activity. D. increase the possibility of isotope formation.

Ans: A

6. Proteins that bring about chemical changes while remaining essentially unchanged are referred to as A. enzymes. B. vitamins. C. coenzymes. D. cofactors. 132

Ans: A

7. Which of the following molecules is an enzyme? A. Glucose B. Protein C. Sucrase D. Mannose

Ans: C

8. Which of the following statements is the most correct for enzyme reactions? A. The substance acted upon by an enzyme is the product. B. The result of an enzyme reaction is the substrate. C. Enzymes are specific for only one reaction, in one direction. D. Enzyme reactions are usually reversible.

Ans: D

9. The place on the enzyme where the enzyme interacts with the substrate is called the A. coenzyme. B. active site. C. cofactor. D. product. 133

Ans: B

10. All the following characteristics apply to enzymes except A. some enzymes are made entirely of protein. B. ATP is an enzyme. C. heat alters the tertiary protein structure of enzymes. D. enzymes are reusable.

Ans: B

11. Two important coenzymes that function in oxidative phosphorylation are A. ATP and acetyl CoA. B. DNA and ATP. C. NADP and ATP. D. FAD and NAD+.

Ans: D

12. Inorganic ions that compose parts of enzymes are referred to as A. cytochromes. B. substrates. C. cofactors. D. intermediates.

Ans: C 134

13. Heat is useful in the destruction of bacteria because heat A. depresses ATP synthesis. B. prevents the production of folic acid in the cell. C. denatures enzymes by altering their tertiary protein structures. D. depresses the uptake of minerals of bacteria.

Ans: C

14. Which one of the following statements is not true of feedback inhibition? A. It is a response to excess final product. B. Usually, the last enzyme in a metabolic pathway is inhibited. C. The initial substrate is not converted into product. D. The inhibited enzyme has an incorrectly shaped active site.

Ans: B

15. Sulfonamide drugs work to inhibit enzyme pathways by A. competitive inhibition. B. negative feedback inhibition. C. noncompetitive inhibition. D. positive feedback inhibition.

Ans: A 135

16. Chemical energy can be stored in the cell for later use as A. ADP. B. carbohydrates. C. ATP. D. enzymes.

Ans: B

17. ATP releases its energy by A. activating its protons to form ions. B. absorbing heat from the environment. C. combining with other ATP molecules. D. splitting into a phosphate and ADP.

Ans: D

18. A mole of glucose contains about A. 10,000 amino acids. B. 690,000 calories of energy. C. high energy phosphate bonds. D. easily broken hydrogen bonds.

Ans: B

136

19. The catabolic process in which glucose is converted into pyruvate is called A. glycolysis. B. the Krebs cycle. C. fermentation. D. oxidative phosphorylation.

Ans: A

20. Which of the following energy reactions takes place in the cytoplasm of all cells? A. Krebs cycle B. Fermentation C. Glycolysis D. Chemiosmosis

Ans: C

21. Which one of the following is not common to anaerobic respiration and fermentation? A. Pyruvate B. NAD+ C. Glycolysis D. Inorganic final electron acceptors (i.e. NO3, SO4)

Ans: D

137

22. The Krebs cycle accounts for all the following except A. production of CO2 molecules. B. production of NADH and FADH2. C. production of pyruvate from glucose. D. production of electrons for oxidative phosphorylation.

Ans: C

23. What is the ATP yield from one glucose molecule by the Krebs cycle, including the electron transport system and chemiosmosis in bacteria? A. 2 B. 10 C. 24 D. 38

Ans: D

24. In order for oxidative phosphorylation to take place, the environment must contain a certain amount of A. oxygen. B. sunlight. C. energy supplied by ATP. D. isotopes.

Ans: A

138

25. Which one of the following does not involve a phosphorylation reaction? A. The hydrolysis of ATP B. The energy-fixing reactions of photosynthesis C. Chemiosmosis D. Glycolysis

Ans: A

26. What does chemiosmosis involve? A. The Krebs cycle reactions B. The pumping of protons across a membrane C. Making ATP without oxygen D. Ssplitting water molecules

Ans: B

27. The aerobic bacterium Pseudomonas aeruginosa grows on a glucose-containing medium. Metabolic products you would expect to find include A. CO2. B. ATP. C. CO2 and H2O. D. All the above are found.

Ans: D

139

28. You are studying an obligate anaerobe. Which one of the following pathways can you be assured is occurring? A. The Krebs cycle B. Glycolysis C. The catabolism of proteins D. The catabolism of fats

Ans: B

29. To be useful as energy sources, proteins must first A. be broken into small nucleotides. B. be converted to fatty acids and enter beta oxidation. C. undergo transformation to carbohydrates by deamination. D. be broken into amino acids.

Ans: D

30. The essential step in the catabolism of amino acids is a process known as A. glycolysis. B. the Krebs cycle. C. deamination. D. fermentation.

Ans: C

140

31. The use of nitrate by E. coli is important to the organism because nitrate A. is used to form the cell wall. B. is a final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration. C. reactions occur without the benefit of the Krebs cycle. D. is used to build proteins.

Ans: B

32. In anaerobic respiration, all of the following molecules can be used as final electron acceptors, except A. NO3– . B. O2 . C. SO4– . D. NO2– .

Ans: B

33. All the following can be products of carbohydrate catabolism by aerobic or anaerobic respiration except A. alcohol. B. carbon dioxide. C. enzymes. D. pyruvate.

Ans: C

141

34. Electrons for oxidative phosphorylation can originate from A. only the Krebs cycle reactions. B. only the reactions of fermentation. C. only the reactions of glycolysis. D. both the Krebs cycle and glycolysis reactions.

Ans: D

35. A governing principle of fermentation is that A. ATP is not produced. B. intermediary organic compounds are used as electron acceptors. C. it does not require enzymes. D. fermentation occurs only in bacterial species.

Ans: B

36. Fermentation differs from aerobic respiration because A. fermentation does not require that glucose be present. B. fermentation does not result in a net ATP gain. C. fermentation does not result in pyruvic acid production. D. fermentation does not require that oxygen be present.

Ans: D

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37. How is fermentation different in yeasts compared to fermentation in Streptococcus lactis? A. one uses oxygen, and the other does not. B. yeasts have an alcohol fermentation pathway, whereas Streptococcus has a lactic acid fermentation pathway. C. yeasts cannot grow where bacteria grow. D. glycolysis does not occur in yeasts.

Ans: B

38. All the following are products that can be formed by industrial fermentation except A. vinegar. B. sauerkraut. C. pickles. D. butter.

Ans: D

39. A bacterium that uses glucose as an energy source has been isolated from an anaerobic environment. After the growth of the bacterium, the pH of the growth medium is measured and found to be very acidic. When analyzed, the medium is found to have a high concentration of lactic acid. This bacterium is most likely metabolizing by a process known as A. aerobic respiration. B. the Krebs cycle. C. oxidative phosphorylation. D. fermentation.

Ans: D 143

40. The energy-fixing reactions and the carbon-fixing reactions refer to A. the energy content in ATP molecules. B. the energy level at which enzymes reactions occur. C. the process of photosynthesis. D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: C

41. Ribulose-5-phosphate has an important role to play in A. reaction number four of glycolysis. B. entry of pyruvic acid to the Krebs cycle. C. the deamination of amino acids. D. the carbon-fixing reactions of photosynthesis.

Ans: D

42. All the following are associated with photosynthesis except A. cyanobacteria. B. fungi. C. chlorophyll a. D. NADPH.

Ans: B 144

43. Chlorophyll and accessory pigments involved in photosynthesis occur in A. cytochromes. B. the carbon-fixing reactions. C. photosystems. D. None of the above is correct.

Ans: C

44. Green sulfur bacteria photosynthesis can be distinguished from cyanobacterial photosynthesis because green sulfur bacteria fail to produce A. ATP. B. glucose. C. reducing power. D. oxygen.

Ans: D

45. Most bacteria, as well as all fungi and protozoa, are A. photoautotrophs. B. photoheterotrophs. C. chemoautotrophs. D. chemoheterotrophs.

Ans: D

145

46. If an organism uses a carbohydrate as its carbon source and an inorganic compound as its energy source, it is a A. photoautotrophs. B. photoheterotrophs. C. chemoautotrophs. D. chemoheterotrophs.

Ans: C

Matching

47. Match each characteristic with the correct type of metabolism. There may be more than one answer.

Characteristic 1. Digestion of cellular compounds 2. Synthesis of cellular compounds 3. Total of biochemical processes of a cell 4. Cells fed glucose and yielding energy by respiration 5. Cells fed glucose and yielding energy by fermentation 6. The metabolism of chemoheterotrophs 7. Involves the Krebs cycle 8. Starch used for cellular energy 9. Photosynthetic reactions that produce glucose 10. Involves glycolysis

146

Type of Metabolism A. Anabolism B. Catabolism C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B

Ans: 1. B; 2. A; 3. C; 4. B; 5. B; 6. C; 7. B; 8. B; 9A; 10B.

48. Select one of the following four choices to correctly complete each statement below.

1. yields pyruvate for use in the Krebs cycle. 2. involves succinate, citrate and fumarate. 3. requires cytochromes for electron transport. 4. requires electrons eventually be passed to NADPH. 5. requires energy from light to take place. 6. ends with acceptance of electrons by oxygen atoms. 7. results in the formation of glucose. 8. uses chlorophyll as the pigment in the cyanobacteria. 9. Requires photsystems 10. results in the formation of water. 11. begins when acetyl-CoA combines with oxaloacetate. 12 is essentially the opposite of aerobic respiration. 13 begins with a glucose molecule. 14. results in a net gain of 2 ATPs. 15. involves oxygen. 16. starts with the oxidation of NADH. 17. requires an “investment” of 2 ATPs. 18. results in a high yield of ATP. 19. Occurs in mitochondria in eukaryotes, or inside of the cell membrane of prokaryotes 147

20. generates three carbon dioxide molecules per turn.

A. Oxidative phosphorylation B. Photosynthesis C. Krebs cycle D. Glycolysis

Ans: 1.D; 2.C; 3.A; 4.B; 5.B; 6.A; 7.B; 8.B; 9.B; 10.A, C; 11.C; 12.B; 13.D; 14.D; 15.A; 16.A; 17.D; 18.A; 19.C; 20.C.

49. Match each organism with its correct mode(s) of nutrition. There may be more than one answer.

Nutritional Type 1. Chemoautotroph 2. Photoheterotroph 3. Chemoheterotroph 4. Photoautotroph 5. Purple nonsulfur bacteria 6. Cyanobacterium 7. Fungus

Energy and Carbon Source A. Uses light energy B. Uses chemical reactions for energy C. Uses carbon dioxide D. Uses organic compounds

Ans: 1.B; 2. A, D; 3. B, D; 4. A, C; 5. A; 6. A, C; 7. B, D.

148

True/False

For each of the following statements, decide if the statement is true or false. If false, correct the statement to be true.

50. The energy needed to form ATP from ADP + P comes from an exergonic reaction. Refer to:

Ans: False Response: […an endergonic...]

51. Metabolic reactions are usually reversible, enzymes may bring about synthesis as well as hydrolysis. This factor is important in metabolism because anabolism often occurs by a reversal of many steps in catabolism.

Ans: True

52. Enzymes may be composed solely of protein or may contain a non-protein part called a cofactor or a coenzyme.

Ans: True

149

53. Some enzymes are made up entirely of protein. An example is lysozyme, the enzyme in human tears and saliva that digests the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria.

Ans: True

54. A metabolic pathway is a sequence of chemical reactions, each reaction catalyzed by a different enzyme, in which the product of one reaction serves as a substrate for the next reaction

Ans: True

55. Competitive inhibition is when the final end product or any molecule binds to a non-active site on the enzyme, the shape of the active site changes and can no longer bind substrate.

Ans: False Response: [Noncompetitive inhibition…]

56. ATP is formed in mitochondria in prokaryotic microbes.

Ans: False Response: […in eukaryotic microbes.]

57. ATP is the only source of cellular energy for the chemical reactions of a bacterium.

150

Ans: True

58. In prokaryotes, the ATP is formed on the cell membrane, while in eukaryotes the reactions occur primarily in the mitochondria.

Ans: True

59. ATP molecules are relatively unstable but ATP can be stored.

Ans: False Response: […and ATP cannot…]

60. In the Krebs cycle, citrate is the first intermediate and is formed from acetyl CoA and oxaloacetate.

Ans: True

61. The carbons on glucose end up as carbons in the ATP molecules produced.

Ans: False Response: […as carbons in carbon dioxide molecules…]

151

62. The energy yield in aerobic respiration is far less than that which results from fermentation.

Ans: False Response: […is far greater than that…]

63. The cytochromes are iron-containing proteins involved in the electron transport chain.

Ans: True

64. Beta oxidation accounts for the digestion of fatty acids into two-carbon units that enter the Krebs cycle as pyruvic acid.

Ans: False Response: […as acetyl-CoA.]

65. In anaerobic respiration, some molecule other than ATP is used as an electron acceptor, such as when Desulfovibrio species use sulfate ions.

Ans: False Response: […other than oxygen is used…]

66. Anaerobic respiration lacks a chemiosmosis step for ATP production because the process cannot occur without oxygen. 152

Ans: False Response: […possesses a chemiosmotic step… the process can occur using another inorganic final electron acceptor besides oxygen.]

67. Fermentation yields carbon dioxide molecules as does aerobic respiration.

Ans: True

68. The process of fermentation is essentially a reversal of the process of aerobic respiration.

Ans: False Response: [The process of photosynthesis…]

69. Carbohydrate is formed during the energy fixing reactions of photosynthesis.

Ans: False Response: […during the carbon fixing reactions…]

70. All bacteria carry out photosynthesis in much the same manner as algae and green plants.

Ans: False Response: [All cyanobacteria carry out…] 153

71. Cyanobacteria are examples of cells that carry out an oxygenic form of photosynthesis.

Ans: True

72. In a cyanobacterium, ATP is produced in glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, oxidative phosphorylation, and the light-fixing reactions.

Ans: True

73. Chemoautotrophic bacteria that cannot use light as an energy source obtain needed energy from inorganic compounds.

Ans: True Page: 24, 25 Refer to: TF

74. Fermentation means the same as anaerobic respiration.

Ans: False Response: […is a different pathway than..]

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Essay

75. Write a short paragraph that compares anabolism and catabolism with respect to exergonic and endergonic energy reactions.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 5 – synthesis Page: 3

76. Write a description of enzymes including their activity and inhibition.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 5 – synthesis Page: 4

77. Compare phosphorylation in eukaryotes and prokaryotes. Explain how ATP is made, and used in both.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 4 - analysis Page: 8

155

78. Outline the major steps in the process of glycolysis and show how 2 ATP molecules are netted from this metabolic pathway.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 2 – comprehension Page: 10, 11

79. Illustrate how the Krebs cycle produces CO2 molecules.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 3 – application Page: 12, 13

80. State the fundamental equation for aerobic respiration and predict how each of the reactants is used and how each of the products is formed.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 1 and 6 – knowledge and evaluation Page: 11 - 16

81. Using examples from Chapter 6, identify specific instances that show how ATP is a basic currency for life process.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 2 – comprehension Page: 8, 11 - 23 156

82. Support this statement with specific examples: Aerobic respiration is a more efficient process for energy production than fermentation.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 6 – evaluation Page: 12 - 15

83. Compare photosynthesis in cyanobacteria with photosynthesis in green and purple sulfur bacteria. Include differences and similarities in energy sources, pigments, chemical reactions, end products, and waste products.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 4 – analysis Page: 21 - 23

84. Compare the ways in which photosynthesis and aerobic respiration are opposite to one another.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 4 – analysis Page: 18 - 22

85. Construct a chart that compares carbon sources and energy sources for photoautotrophs and chemoautotrophs, and for photoheterotrophs and chemoheterotrophs. 157

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 5 – synthesis Page: 24, 25

Chapter 7

Multiple Choice

1. At what time was pasteurization of dairy products widely used? A. 1776 B. 1822 C. 1895 D. 1940 Ans: C

2. Which of the following disease outbreaks can be controlled by making sure there is clean water and food? A. Diptheria B. Malaria C. Measles D. Cholera Ans: D

3. The time necessary to kill a population of microbes at a given temperature is called the A. death phase. B. thermal death point. C. microbicidal time. D. thermal death time.

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Ans: D

4. A fluid that has been sterilized may still contain A. viable endospores. B. psychrophilic bacteria. C. bacterial toxins. D. viruses.

Ans: C

5. Which one of the following is the most rapid method for achieving sterilization? A. Tyndallization B. High pressure autoclave C. Prevacuum autoclave D. Direct flame method

Ans: D

6. Of the following, the most efficient method for sterilization of a bacteriological transfer loop is A. the direct flame. B. hot oil. C. autoclaving. D. moist heat.

Ans: A

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7. The minimal temperature at which a microbial species dies in a given time is called the A. sensitivity point. B. thermal death point. C. minimal death time. D. thermal death time.

Ans: B

8. A period of two hours at 160° C is required for the destruction of endospores A. in the autoclave. B. if free flowing steam is used. C. in the hot air oven. D. if ultraviolet light is used.

Ans: C

9. The hot air method of sterilization, or oven, is useful for those items that A. are dry or do not mix with water. B. cannot withstand temperatures over 100°. C. are suspended in a fluid such as water. D. cannot be exposed to heat for more than a few minutes.

Ans: A

10. Bacterial endospores must be exposed for a period of over 2 hours for destruction with A. the autoclave. 160

B. the hot air oven. C. ultraviolet light. D. ultrasonic vibrations.

Ans: B

11. Moist heat kills microorganisms by A. denaturation. B. oxidation. C. osmosis D. dehydration.

Ans: A

12. If boiling water is used to destroy microorganisms, it is imperative that A. salt be added to the water. B. traces of organic matter be removed. C. the water be heated to 110° C. D. soap powder be added to the water.

Ans: B

13. In an autoclave under 15 lb/in2 steam pressure, the approximate temperature will be A. 100° C B. 121.5° C C. 136.5° C D. 212° C 161

Ans: B

14. One of the limitations of the autoclave is that A. some plasticware melts in the high heat. B. glassware melts in the high heat. C. endospores are not destroyed. D. protozoal cysts are not destroyed.

Ans: A

15. Which one of the following could not be sterilized by the autoclave? A. Bacteriological media B. Hospital gowns and lab coats C. Glassware D. A laboratory table

Ans: D

16. Using a prevacuum stage in the autoclaving process can effectively A. reduce the time to achieve sterilization. B. make it possible to sterilize Petri dishes. C. introduce a gaseous environment to the process. D. increase the time that sterilized materials will remain sterile.

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Ans: A

17. Sterilization by fractional sterilization requires A. a period of three days. B. an autoclave. C. a water temperature below boiling. D. no steam or water of any kind.

Ans: A

18. A substance that has been pasteurized A. contains no microbial life. B. has no bacterial spores. C. may contain pathogenic bacteria. D. is not necessarily sterile.

Ans: D

19. The conditions necessary to kill Mycobacterium tuberculosis by pasteurization are A. 30 min at 62.9° C. B. 2 hr at 160° C. C. 2 hr at 100° C. D. 30 min at 100° C.

Ans: A 163

20. A physical method that kills all Coxiella burnetii in three seconds at 82° C is called A. standard pasteurization. B. autoclaving. C. flash pasteurization. D. ultrapasteurization.

Ans: D

21. The diatomaceous earth used in many modern filters is composed of A. porcelain or ground glass. B. polycarbonate resins that are synthetically produced. C. remains of marine algae. D. waste products derived from coal mining.

Ans: C

22. Organic filters are more advantageous than inorganic filters because the molecules of the organic filter A. change the osmotic pressure of the environment. B. attract organic components in microorganisms. C. resist the effects of high heat. D. conduct heat more thoroughly.

Ans: B 164

23. Filtration is very different from heat or radiation methods because A. it is a physical separation method rather than a sterilization method. B. it takes far longer for sterilization. C. filtered solutions are not dangerous to use. D. anyone can do it at home.

Ans: A

24. An advantage of the membrane filter is that A. it is composed solely of inorganic materials. B. bacteria multiply and form colonies on its surface. C. fluids do not pass through the filter. D. it traps viruses but not bacteria.

Ans: B

25. HEPA filters are used to filter which one of the following? A. Protein solutions B. Air C. Water D. Oil products

Ans: B 165

26. The principle effect of ultraviolet light on bacterial cells takes place A. in the cell membrane. B. in the DNA of the cell. C. in the peptidoglycan layer of the cell wall. D. in the ribosomes of the cell.

Ans: B

27. One drawback to the use of ultraviolet light as a sterilizing agent is its failure to A. kill microorganisms in the air. B. penetrate liquids or solids. C. generate enough heat. D. kill bacteria.

Ans: B

28. Ultraviolet light is valuable for reducing the microbial population in A. media used for bacteriological growth. B. cellophane-wrapped bags of Petri dishes. C. antibiotic solutions. D. the air of a hospital room.

Ans: D

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29. For UV light to kill microorganisms A. heat must be applied. B. a detergent must be added to the solution. C. no endospores must be present. D. direct exposure must take place.

Ans: D

30. Energy wavelengths less than1 nm are associated with: A. ultrasonic vibrations. B. osmotic pressure. C. gamma radiation. D. ultraviolet light.

Ans: C

31. Radiations with wavelengths between 100 nm and 400 nm are considered A. X rays B. visible light. C. UV light. D. gamma rays.

Ans: C

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32. In the microwave oven, the energy of microwaves is converted to A. the potential energy of ions. B. the kinetic energy in X-rays. C. the heat of friction. D. the potential energy of UV light.

Ans: C

33. When food has been salted A. water diffuses out of microorganisms causing them to shrivel. B. water diffuses into microorganisms causing them to swell and burst. C. salt enters microorganisms causing them to dry out and shrivel. D. salt leaves microorganisms causing their salt balance to be upset.

Ans: A

34. Low temperature is A. bactericidal. B. a good method of sterilization. C. bacteriostatic. D. as effective as high temperature in coagulating proteins.

Ans: C

35. A method of preserving food that depends upon osmosis is 168

A. treating the food with high concentrations of sugar or salt. B. freezing the food at low temperature in a “frost-free” freezer. C. drying the foods in the sun. D. treating the food with ultrasonic waves.

Ans: A

36. The halogen common to Wescodyne®, Betadine®, and Ioprep® A. is iodine in a form known as iodophor. B. precipitates ribosomes in bacteria. C. kills only viruses. D. is copper sulfate.

Ans: A

37. Which one of the following elements would be classified as a halogen? A. Chlorine B. Mercury C. Silver D. Copper

Ans: A

38. Iodophors are A. halogenated derivatives of compounds containing amino groups. 169

B. solutions of ethyl alcohol containing low concentrations of iodine and sodium iodide. C. used in very dilute solutions for the disinfection of swimming pools. D. complexes of iodine and detergents that release iodine over long periods of time.

Ans: D

39. Which one of the following statements does not apply to phenol? A. It is the standard disinfectant against which others are evaluated. B. Its activity is reduced in the presence of organic matter. C. It has a low cost, a sweet odor, and no effects on the skin. D. It acts probably by coagulating proteins.

Ans: C

40. Chlorhexidine is a phenol derivative used to A. inactivate viruses. B. wash hands and clean wounds superficially. C. purify water supplies in cities. D. treat bacterial infections.

Ans: B

41. Triclosan destroys bacteria by A. disrupting cell membranes. B. preventing peptide bonding in cell walls. 170

C. preventing DNA replication before binary fission. D. inhibiting folic acid synthesis.

Ans: A

42. Copper has its principle activity against A. bacterial spores. B. organisms that contain chlorophyll, like algae. C. pathogenic fungi. D. pathogenic protozoa.

Ans: B

43. Silver nitrate may be used to A. kill coliform bacteria in polluted water. B. rinse pasteurization tubes. C. sterilize plastics. D. prevent gonorrhea in the eyes of newborns.

Ans: D

44. Mercury is rarely used in antiseptics in the modern era because A. mercury does not kill microorganisms. B. mercury is insoluble in water. C. mercury reacts violently with copper. 171

D. mercury is very toxic to body tissues.

Ans: D

45. Heavy metals generally kill microorganisms by A. uniting with water molecules and dehydrating the microorganisms. B. reacting with proteins and binding them together. C. precipitating the lipids of the microbial cytoplasm. D. inhibiting flagellar motion in the microorganism.

Ans: B

46. Ethyl alcohol has virtually no effect on A. gram-negative rods. B. bacterial spores. C. viruses. D. gram-positive rods.

Ans: B

47. Before alcohol is used for disinfection purposes A. the object to be treated must be heated thoroughly. B. the alcohol must be diluted to a concentration of 20 percent. C. the object to be treated must be carefully cleaned. D. the alcohol must be mixed with copper sulfate. 172

Ans: C

48. Detergents display their antimicrobial ability by A. reacting with tyrosine molecules in proteins. B. altering the nucleic acid composition of the chromosome. C. inducing leakage through the cell membrane. D. reacting with adjacent amino groups in proteins.

Ans: C

49. When applied to wounded tissue, hydrogen peroxide A. releases oxygen gas. B. cauterizes the wound. C. prevents blood from reaching the tissue. D. encourages blood clotting.

Ans: A

50. Formalin may be used for all the following purposes except A. embalming fluid for anatomical specimens. B. inactivating viruses in vaccine preparations. C. purifying drinking water. D. producing toxoids. 173

Ans: C

51. Which chemical would be a sterilization method for plasticware that cannot be heated? A. Mercury oxide. B. Iodine. C. Phenol. D. Ethylene oxide gas.

Ans: D

52. How are antiseptics and disinfectants different? A. Disinfectants sterilize, whereas antiseptics do not. B. Disinfectants are irritants or toxic, whereas antiseptics are always safe. C. Antiseptics are used on objects, whereas antiseptics are used on living tissues. D. All are differences between antiseptics and disinfectants.

Ans: C

53. Which statement concerning evaluation of chemical kill ability is false? A. The in-use test tests the kill ability of the chemical in a real-life situation, using materials that would be found in the environment. B. The phenol coefficient says nothing about the toxicity of the chemical being tested, even though it might be very effective in killing bacteria. C. The chemical with the highest phenol coefficient is phenol, all other chemicals being lower in value.

174

D. Different bacteria are used in evaluation tests, because of variations in chemical and physical differences in cell wall.

Ans: C

Matching

54. Select one of the following physical methods of control to correctly complete each of the statements below. 1. destroys bacterial endospores with heat in about 15 minutes. 2. also is known as tyndallization. 3. oxidizes proteins and creates a dry environment. 4. is electromagnetic energy with a wavelength between 100 and 400 nm. 5. uses pressurized steam at 121°C. 6. causes linkage of adjacent thymine molecules on DNA. 7. employs 30 minutes of steam on three successive days. 8. requires a two-hour exposure for the destruction of bacterial endospores. 9. uses free-flowing steam at 100°C. 10. interferes with replication of the bacterial chromosomes. 11. Physically separates microorganisms from the fluid solution. 12. is the most dependable method for the destruction of endospores. 13. uses dry heat used for sterilization. 14. will melt plasticware in the pressurized steam. 15. is a heat-free method of sterilization, used for surfaces. 16. Used for pharmaceutical solutions as well as beers and fruit juices. 17. is useful for water-free oily substances and dry powders. 18. can have a prevacuum stage to increase the efficiency of sterilization. 19. can reduce airborne contamination effectively. 20. has effects on microorganisms equivalent to that of baking. 175

A. The autoclave B. Ultraviolet (UV) light C. The hot air oven D. Fractional sterilization E. membrane filtration

Ans: 1.A; 2.D; 3.C; 4.B; 5.A; 6.B; 7.D; 8.C; 9.D; 10.B; 11.E; 12.A; 13.C; 14.A; 15.B; 16. E; 17.C; 18.A; 19.B; 20.C.

55. Match each physical control method with its correct description.

Physical Control Method 1. Ultraviolet light 2. Pasteurization 3. Osmosis 4. Ionizing radiation 5. Autoclave 6. Membrane filter 7. Sterilization

Description A. Chamber for steam sterilizing at 121°C B. Minimal temperature at which an organism dies in a given time period C. Cellulose acetate pad through which fluids, but not cells, pass D. Used for a variety of foods such as meats, fruits and vegetables, even within bags E. Process that kills all living organisms and spores F. Water movement across a membrane toward the area where water concentration is lower G. Radiation at 265 nm that is absorbed by DNA H. Heating liquids to 62.9°C for 30 minutes 176

Ans: 1. G; 2. H; 3. F; 4. D; 5. A; 6. C; 7. E

56. Match each physical control method with its intended use.

Physical Control Method 1. Autoclave 2. Direct flame 3. Boiling water for 10 minutes 4. Hot air oven for 2 hours at 160° C 5. Pasteurization 6. Gamma radiation 7. Filtration 8. Fractional sterilization

Intended Use A. Vegetative microorganisms, not endospores B. Vegetative microorganisms and endospores C. Bacterial endospores only

D. Pathogenic vegetative microorganisms, not endospores Ans: 1. B; 2. B; 3. A; 4. B; 5. D; 6. B; 7. B; 8. B.

57. Match the following terms and definitions. (There is more than one answer per term.)

Terms 1. Sanitization 2. Denaturation 177

3. Incineration 4. Radiation 5. Autoclave 6. Filtration 7. Sterilization 8. Pasteurization

Definitions A. minimal temperature at which it dies in a given time B. reduces the bacterial population of a liquid such as milk and destroys organisms that may cause spoilage and human disease C. the destruction of all living microbes, including spores and viruses, on an object or in an area D. using a direct flame can kill microbes very rapidly E. microbicidal F. mechanical method used to remove microorganisms from a solution, organisms are trapped in the pores of the filter G. microbial populations have been reduced or where their growth has been inhibited H. Moist heat in the form of pressurized steam is regarded as the most dependable method for sterilization I. radiant energy sterilization method J. microbiostatic K. change in the chemical or physical property of a protein. L. draws air out of the sterilizing chamber at the beginning of the cycle.

Ans: 1. G, J; 2. K; 3. D; 4. I; 5. H; 6. F; 7. C, E; 8. B

58. Select one of the following four chemical agents to correctly complete each of the statements below. 1. detergents 2. used in the sterilization of plastics. 178

3. is commonly used in the tincture form, mixed with alcohol. 4. is a highly-reactive halogen element. 5. can be used as a pre-operative skin preparation when combined with detergent. 6. is the chemical counterpart of the autoclave for sterilization. 7. is the active ingredient in Wescodyne® and Betadine®. 8. may cause “cold burns” of the skin. 9. is used in the test to determine the effectiveness of a chemical agent. 10. is related to hexachlorophene. 11. can be used as a rinsing compound for wounds, scrapes and abrasions. 12. derivatives are in pHisoHex and Hibiclens. 13. breaks down to oxygen and water. 14. was used by Joseph Lister in the 1860s. 15. is broken down by catalase.

A. Phenol B. Hydrogen peroxide C. Ethylene oxide D. Iodine E. Quaternary ammonium compounds

Ans: 1. E; 2. C; 3. D; 4. D; 5. D; 6. C; 7. A; 8. C; 9. A; 10. A; 11. B; 12. A; 13. B; 14. A; 15. B;

True/False

For each of the following statements, decide if the statement is true or false. If false, correct the statement to be true. 179

59. Each microorganism has a thermal death point, the time necessary for killing it at a given temperature.

Ans: False Response: Each microorganism has a thermal death time, the time necessary for killing it at a given temperature.

60. Dry heat does not penetrate material as well as moist heat.

Ans: True

61. Perhaps the most rapid method for sterilizing an object is using the hot air oven.

Ans: False Response: Perhaps the most rapid method for sterilizing an object is using the direct flame.

62. It is common practice to incinerate the carcasses of cattle dead of anthrax because anthrax spores cannot adequately be destroyed by other means.

Ans: True

180

63. When using the hot-air oven, organic matter such as oil must be removed because organic matter insulates against dry heat.

Ans: True

64. Dry heat penetrates materials much more rapidly than moist heat.

Ans: False Response: Dry heat penetrates materials more slowly than moist heat.

65. The physical conditions necessary for the destruction of bacterial cells and bacterial endospores are essentially equivalent.

Ans: False Response: The physical conditions necessary for the destruction of bacterial cells and bacterial endospores are not equivalent.

66. Moist heat kills microorganisms by oxidizing their proteins and precipitating their carbohydrates.

Ans: False Response: Moist heat kills microorganisms by denaturing their proteins.

67. Boiling water is not considered a sterilizing agent because the destruction of bacterial endospores cannot always be assured. 181

Ans: True

68. Most vegetating microorganisms require an exposure of ten minutes when boiling water is used for destruction.

Ans: False Response: Most vegetating microorganisms require an exposure of at least 30 minutes when boiling water is used for destruction.

69. Denaturation of the chemical compounds in a microorganism usually leads to its death.

Ans: True

70. The presence of organic matter and the acidic or basic nature of the material can influence the time and temperature necessary for microbial destruction with a physical agent.

Ans: True

719. During autoclaving, the sterilizing agent is the moist heat, not the pressure.

Ans: True

182

72. The objects of pasteurization are to reduce the bacterial population of a liquid and to destroy the organisms that may cause spoilage and human disease.

Ans: True

73. The object of pasteurization is to eliminate all bacterial endospores.

Ans: False Response: The object of pasteurization is to eliminate all pathogens and lower the numbers of potential spoilage microorganisms.

74. Filtration is an effective method for sterilizing intravenous solutions, toxoid preparations, and other liquids.

Ans: True

75. X rays and gamma rays affect bacterial cells by creating friction in water molecules that generates high internal heat.

Ans: False Response: Microwaves affect foods by creating friction in water molecules that generates high internal heat.

183

76. In ionizing radiation the ions quickly combine mainly with cellular water and the free radicals generated affect cell metabolism and physiology.

Ans: True

77. Low temperatures found in the refrigerator and freezer retard spoilage by lowering the metabolic rate of microorganisms and thereby reducing their rate of growth.

Ans: True

78. Disinfectants sterilize surfaces as opposed to antiseptics which kill most of the microorganisms in living tissue.

Ans: False Response: Disinfectants do not kill 100%, so they are not considered to be sterilizing agents.

Essay

79. Discuss the types of physical control of microorganisms that was taking place in the early 1900s that cut down on infectious diseases.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 4 – analysis

184

80. Compare the methods by which dry heat and moist heat contribute to the death of bacterial cells in the sterilization procedure.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 4 – analysis

81. List the various types of organic and inorganic filters available in microbiology and explain the features of each type.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 1 and 2 – knowledge and comprehension

82. Contrast the temperatures and amounts of time required for the destruction of bacterial endospores in boiling water, the autoclave, and the hot air oven.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 4 – analysis

83. Propose what factors should be considered when determining the time and temperature necessary for microbial destruction by a physical method.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 5 – synthesis

185

84. Illustrate how a membrane filter can be used to determine the number of bacteria present in a sample of water.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 3 – application

85. Identify the various temperatures at which microorganisms can be killed by a physical method and indicate which process or instrument is useful at each temperature.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 2 – comprehension

86. Discuss several reasons why an autoclave is one of the first instruments ordered when one establishes a microbiology laboratory.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 2 – comprehension

87. Provide several reasons why fractional sterilization would be used instead of the autoclave for sterilization.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 6 – evaluation

186

88. Construct the sequence of events that contribute to the death of vegetative cells when they are exposed to UV light.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 5 – synthesis

89. Name three physical methods that can be used in food preservation and explain the basis for the use of each method.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 1 and 2 – knowledge and comprehension

90. List the important considerations in the selections of an antiseptic or disinfectant and indicate why each is significant.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 1 and 2 – knowledge and comprehension Chapter 8

Multiple Choice

187

1. Bacteria benefit from genetic changes in all of the following ways except A. bacteria can thrive everywhere, in a variety of habitats. B. large numbers of bacteria limit the potential for mutation. C. bacteria multiply rapidly, allowing for genetic changes to appear quickly. D. bacteria gain advantageous traits through genetic engineering.

Ans: B

2. The chromosome of Escherichia coli A. is a linear chromosome. B. has about 4400 genes. C. is surrounded by a membrane. D. contains some 44,000 genes. E. in a single-stranded molecule.

Ans: B

3. The genome of a bacterium consists of A. all the structural genes in the chromosome, not including genes for enzymes. B. the complete set of genetic information. C. all of the RNA molecules in a cell. D. all the proteins in a cell.

Ans: B

188

4. The DNA in the nucleoid region of prokaryotes takes up about of the cell.

of the total volume

A. one fourth B. one half C. one third D. two thirds

Ans: C

5. How can a 1.5 mm long, circular chromosome fit into a 1.0 to 2.0 µm E. coli cell? A. By supercoiling, a twisting and tight packing B. Packing is caused by nucleoid-associated proteins. C. DNA double helix twists on itself like a wound-up rubber band. D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: D

6. Which one of the following does not apply to plasmids? A. They are essential for growth. B. They are composed of DNA. C. They multiply independently of the chromosome. D. They exist as closed loops. E. They contain genetic information not essential for the cell.

Ans: A

189

7. A plasmid may carry information for A. bacteriocin synthesis. B. transfer of genetic material. C. antibiotic resistance. D. All the above are true.

Ans: D

8. Genes existing on plasmids may include those for A. bacterial DNA synthesis. B. capsule production. C. Krebs cycle enzymes. D. antibiotic resistance.

Ans: D

9. Bacteriocins are proteins that A. inhibit or kill other bacteria. B. are important to DNA replication. C. ensure protein fold properly into their tertiary structure. D. terminate translation.

Ans: A

190

10. All the following are true of the bacterial chromosome except A. it is composed of DNA. B. it contains the plasmids. C. it replicates by the semiconservative method. D. it is about 1000 times the length of the bacterium.

Ans: B

11. What does an F plasmid do? A. It is a resistance factor that carries genes for antibiotic resistance. B. It is contains genes that code for toxins affecting disease processes. C. It allows for the transfer of genetic material from a donor to recipient cell through a recombination process. D. It contains genes that inhibit or kill other bacteria.

Ans: C

12. Okazaki fragments form during A. replication of the bacterial chromosome. B. binary fission. C. cell death. D. the movement of insertion sequences.

Ans: A

191

13. All the following are essential to the process of DNA replication except A. DNA ligase. B. Okazaki fragments. C. DNA polymerase. D. mRNA.

Ans: D

14. A new DNA molecule can be produced by A. semiconservative replication. B. mitosis. C. frameshift replication. D. generalized transcription.

Ans: A

15. The enzyme responsible for the synthesis of DNA from a DNA template is A. DNA polymerase. B. DNA ligase. C. DNA helicase. D. DNA reverse transcriptase.

Ans: A

16. All of the following are true about DNA repair mechanisms except 192

A. DNA polymerase proofreads DNA sequences. B. Nuclease enzymes perform damage repair activities. C. Mismatch repair involves replacing long sequences of DNA. D. Damage repair involves the excision of damaged DNA and replacement with the proper nucleotides.

Ans: C

17. The base sequence of a messenger RNA molecule that is complementary to the sequence CGTTAGA would be expressed as A. CGTTAGA. B. GCAAUCU. C. GCUUTCT. D. GCAATCT.

Ans: B

18. All the following apply to the process of protein synthesis except A. the mRNA sequence is the same as that on the DNA template strand. B. amino acids are joined to one another at the ribosome. C. the process requires expenditure of energy. D. the gene must unwind before mRNA can be synthesized.

Ans: A

193

19. The major activity of transcription is to A. replicate DNA. B. pair codons with anticodons. C. produce amino acids. D. produce mRNA molecules.

Ans: D

20. Which of the following types of RNA function to bring the amino acids to the ribosome for assembly into a polypeptide chain? A. Messenger RNA B. Transfer RNA C. Ribosomal RNA D. All of these are needed to accomplish that.

Ans: B

21. All the following function in the process of protein synthesis except A. RNA polymerase. B. electron transport. C. uracil. D. amino acids.

Ans: B

194

22. The mRNA that codes for a particular protein will have the protein.

nucleotides for each amino acid in

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Ans: C

23. The production of RNA using DNA as a template is known as A. transduction. B. transformation. C. translation. D. transcription.

Ans: D

24. The tRNA anticodon TTT would pair up with the codon A. AAA. B. UUU. C. GGG. D. No such anticodon exists.

Ans: D

195

25. If a mRNA sequence is AUGGCCGACUGA, then the inactive DNA strand sequence must be A. TACCGGCTGACT. B. AUGGCCGACUGA. C. ATGGCCGACTGA. D. None of the above is correct.

Ans: C

26. Why is the genetic code called redundant? A. In most cases there is more than one codon for each amino acid. B. The DNA can be copied over and over, always using a strand for the old DNA. C. RNA is like a carbon copy of the DNA chromosome D. There are many copies of genes, some of which are damaged.

Ans: A

27. The stop codon in a mRNA codes for A. the last amino acid. B. a nonsense amino acid. C. the amino acid methionine. D. no amino acid.

Ans: D

196

28. If a complete bacterial mRNA contains 3000 codons, how many amino acids will exist in the protein produced? A. 999 B. 2999 C. 5999 D. 8999

Ans: B

29. The cluster of ribosomes all translating the same mRNA is called a A. ribosome string. B. polyjunction. C. polyribosome. D. None of the above is correct.

Ans: C

30. Termination factors A. start the DNA replication process. B. bind to the mRNA site at the ribosome. C. unwind the DNA of a gene. D. bind to the RNA polymerase during transcription.

Ans: B

197

31. In the operon, genes that code for enzymes are called A. structural genes. B. operator genes. C. repressor genes. D. inducer genes.

Ans: A

32. Which one of the following is not part of an operon? A. Regulatory gene B. Operator C. Promoter D. Structural genes

Ans: A

33. UV light may induce a mutation by A. dissolving the cell membrane of a bacterium. B. preventing synthesis of ATP during oxidative phosphorylation. C. restricting transcription of RNA molecules. D. binding together adjacent thymine molecules on the DNA molecule.

Ans: D

34. The origin of the penicillin-resistant strain Neisseria gonorrhoeae probably is due to 198

A. infection by a virus. B. inadequate culture media. C. spontaneous mutation. D. nonsense mutation.

Ans: C

35. Nitrous acid can cause a mutation by A. converting DNA's adenine to hypoxanthine. B. eliminating transposons from a bacterium. C. binding two adjacent bacteria together in a syncytium. D. cross-linking adjacent thymine bases.

Ans: A

36. Mutations arising from chance events in the environment are known as A. point mutations. B. spontaneous mutations. C. environmental mutations. D. induced mutation.

Ans: B

37. One environmental mutagen is ultraviolet (UV) light. It exerts its mutagenic effect by forming a(n) in the DNA. 199

A. plasmid B. analog C. thymine dimmer D. nucleotide mismatch

Ans: C

38. Which one of the following is a base analog? A. UV light B. DNA Polymerase C. 5-bromouracil D. Nitrous acid

Ans: C

39. The deletion or insertion of nucleotides during chromosomal replication most likely would cause A. a missense mutation. B. plasmid replication. C. a silent mutation. D. a reading frameshift mutation.

Ans: D

40. All the following are true of a point mutation except A. it affects a base pair. 200

B. it may be a change to a different nucleotide. C. it may be a substituted nucleotide. D. All the above are true.

Ans: D

41. Which of the following is an example of a frameshift mutation when the original DNA molecule is ATA CGC GGG TAC GTA? (The responses are in mRNA language). A. UAU GCG CCC UAG CAU B. AUA CGC GGG UAC GUT C. UAU GCG CCA UGC AU D. AUA CGG CGG UAC GU

Ans: C

42. Which one of the following enzymes would not be involved with excision repair of DNA? A. DNA polymerase B. Nucleases C. RNA polymerase D. DNA ligase

Ans: C

43. Transposons are movable genetic elements that A. carry information such as antibiotic resistance from one gene location to another. 201

B. form copies of themselves which move from the normal position into areas of gene activity. C. are composed solely of protein. D. exist only in viruses.

Ans: A

44. Which one of the following is true of transposons? A. Their movement is reciprocal. B. They are sometimes called “jumping genes”. C. They contain no genetic information. D. They were discovered by Watson and Crick.

Ans: B

45. The Ames test is used to A. identify auxotrophic mutants. B. investigate protein synthesis. C. identify antibiotic resistant bacteria. D. learn whether a chemical can induce a bacterial mutation.

Ans: D

46. Which feature differentiates the bacteria from the Eukaryota? A. Bacteria have no introns that have to be removed from the RNA. B. Bacterial amino acids are coded for by different codons than the Eukaryotes. 202

C. Bacteria have no start and stop codons involved in translation. D. Uracil nucleotides are not found in bacterial RNA.

Ans: A

47. Structural genes in an operon A. are read together. B. may or may not be transcribed, depending on the presence of an inducer molecule. C. are read with the aid of RNA polymerase. D. All are true.

Ans: D

Matching

48. Select one of the following three choices to correctly complete each of the statements below.

1. involves DNA polymerase activity. 2. involves a transfer of amino acids to an elongating chain. 3. requires DNA ligase to seal DNA fragments. 4. is a DNA-dependent RNA synthesis process. 5. may involve chaperone molecules for folding. 6. begins with a start codon. 7. requires a promoter sequence. 8. produces Okazaki fragments 9. is a DNA-dependent DNA synthesis process. 203

A. Transcription B. Replication C. Translation

Ans: 1. B; 2. C; 3. B; 4. A; 5. C; 6. C; 7. A; 8. B; 9. B. Page: 6 - 13

49. Match each term with its correct characteristic.

Term 1. Plasmid 2. Mutagen 3. Nitrous acid 4. DNA ligase 5. Mutation 6. Ames test 7. Insertion 8. R factor 9. Bacteriocins

Characteristic A. Chemicals produced by bacteria which kill other bacteria B. Enzyme which seals DNA fragments together C. Method by which DNA is copied at cell division D. A change in DNA base sequence E. Procedure to screen chemicals for mutagenic properties F. Substance which induces change in DNA bases G. Closed circular DNA, with few genes, non-essential to the cell H. Chemical mutagen 204

I. Type of mutation that produces a reading frameshift

Ans: 1. G; 2. F; 3. H; 4. B; 5. D; 6. E; 7. I; 8. G; 9.A.

True/False

For each of the following statements, decide if the statement is true or false. If false, correct the statement to be true.

50. Watson and Crick worked out the structure of DNA using Rosalind Franklin's x-ray crystallography.

Ans: True

51. Prokaryote genome studies have shown that genes involved with the same process are clustered. This makes genetic control more efficient since their activity can be coordinated within one cluster.

Ans: True

52. Plasmids contain over 50% of the total genetic information of a bacterial cell.

205

Ans: False Response: […contain about 2% of the …]

53. The genome of Escherichia coli has about 4,400 genes.

Ans: True

54. All F factors are plasmids.

Ans: True

55. In semiconservative DNA replication, a new strand of DNA with bases complementary to a parent strand combines with a parent strand to form the double helix.

Ans: True

56. Okazaki fragments form on the continuous strand during DNA replication.

Ans: False Response: […on the discontinuous strand …]

206

57. The semiconservative method for DNA replication was discovered by Watson and Crick.

Ans: False Response: […discovered by Meselson and Stahl.]

58. In any one replication fork, there is one continuous and one discontinuous strand of DNA.

Ans: True

59. There are two origins of replication in every bacterial DNA molecule.

Ans: False Response: […one origin of replication…]

60. The central dogma states that DNA replication is semiconservative.

Ans: False Response: […states that DNA is transcribed to RNA and RNA is involved in translation to a protein.]

61. During transcription, both DNA strands in a gene are transcribed.

Ans: False Response: […only the DNA template strand is transcribed.] 207

62. Messenger RNA contains start and stop codons.

Ans: True

63. Introns are removed from eukaryotic mRNAs before translation can occur.

Ans: True

64. The codons for UGA, UAG, UAA, are called start codons because they initiate the addition of amino acids to a growing polypeptide chain.

Ans: False Response: […stop codons because the terminate...]

65. RNA contains phosphate that connects nucleotides bases together.

Ans: False Response: […connects ribose sugars to one another.]

208

66. Many antibiotics affect protein synthesis in bacterial cells and therefore are clinically useful in treating human infections and disease.

Ans: True

67. Transposable genetic elements may cause mutations by interrupting the coding sequence in genes, thereby often resulting in no protein being produced.

Ans: True

68. The Ames test determines the mutagenic effect of a chemical substance on Salmonella typhimurium, giving an indication of whether the substance can poison humans.

Ans: False Response: […cause cancer in humans.]

69. Insertion sequences are small segments of DNA with about 1,000 base pairs. They form copies of themselves, and the copies move into other areas of the chromosome. They can interrupt the coding sequence in a gene.

Ans: True

70. A mutagen is a nutritionally deficient mutant, requiring a nutrient in its medium for growth.

209

Ans: False Response: [An auxotroph…]

Essay

71. Describe the characteristics of the bacterial chromosome and explain the process by which it replicates.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 2 – comprehension Page: 6, 7

72. Name several of the key investigators who made discoveries important to the development of bacterial genetics and assess the significance of each investigator's work.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 2 and 6 – comprehension and evaluation Page: 3, 6, 7, 10, 14, 20

73. State the central dogma and name the processes involved.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 1 – knowledge 210

Page: 8

74. Outline the steps involved in transcription of a mRNA molecule.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 5 – synthesis Page: 8, 9

75. Sketch the complex of ribosome, mRNA, and tRNA at the initiation stage of translation.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 3 – application Page: 9, 10

76. Sketch a polyribosome with six ribosomes and identify draw the relative length of each polypeptide chain.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 3 – application Page: 9, 10

77. Compare the three types of RNA, what they look like and what they do.

211

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 4 - analysis Page: 9 - 12

78. Explain how the LAC operon works.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 2 - comprehension Page: 13, 14

79. Write a comparison of spontaneous and induced mutations. Include examples of mutagens and show how they affect the chromosome.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 5 – synthesis Page: 16 - 19

80. Construct two messenger RNA molecules, with one have an insertion that generates a nonsense mutation.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 5 – synthesis Page: 18, 19

212

81. You have just mutated a culture of E. coli with UV light. Describe the possible repair mechanisms that the bacteria may possess to repair the damage caused by the UV light.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 2 – comprehension Page: 19, 20

82. Compare transposons and insertion sequences, emphasizing their roles as mutagens.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 4 – analysis Page: 20, 21 Chapter 9

Multiple Choice

1. The passing of genes from parent cells to daughter cells is called A. conjugation. B. vertical gene transfer. C. lateral (horizontal) gene transfer. D. transformation.

Ans: B

213

2. One of the Streptococcus pneumoniae strains used by Griffith was called smooth because the cells A. lacked pili. B. lacked a cell wall. C. had a gram-positive cell wall. D. had a capsule.

Ans: D

3. The work of Avery, MacLeod and McCarty is significant because it A. showed that mutations could occur spontaneously. B. led to the discovery of restriction enzymes. C. introduced plasmids to genetic engineering. D. called attention to the involvement of DNA in heredity.

Ans: D

4. The competence of a bacterium refers to its ability to A. support viral replication. B. take up DNA from the environment. C. conjugate with other competent bacteria. D. change from an F+ cell to an F- cell.

Ans: B

214

5. All the following apply to the process of transformation except A. the recipient's pathogenicity may increase. B. it occurs in many bacterial species. C. the recipient picks up RNA instead of DNA. D. R factors may be transferred.

Ans: C

6. Avery, Macleod, and McCarty demonstrated that pneumonia-causing cocci could take up DNA directly from the medium surrounding them. This is an example of A. mutation. B. conjugation. C. transduction. D. transformation.

Ans: D

7. Transformation occurs in approximately

percent of a bacterial population.

A. 1 B. 15 C. 50 D. 80

Ans: A

215

8. Which one of the following statements does not apply to F plasmids? A. They are found in F+ cells. B. They contain genes for production of the pilus. C. They carry genes for essential bacterial metabolism. D. They are double-stranded loops of DNA.

Ans: C

9. An F' plasmid contains a fragment of A. viral DNA. B. bacterial chromosomal DNA. C. human DNA. D. None of the above is correct.

Ans: B

10. During conjugation a recipient cell might be converted to a donor cell by the A. loss of its capsule. B. acquisition of the F factor. C. production of plasmids. D. inactivation of the lysogenic state.

Ans: B

216

11. An F plasmid usually contains about

genes.

A. 10 B. 100 C. 1000 D. 5,000

Ans: B

12. The oriT site refers to the A. original DNA. B. cellular origin of plasmids. C. origin of DNA transfer. D. origin of recipient cells.

Ans: C

13. The rolling circle mechanism of DNA replication takes place A. during lysogeny. B. as transposons move about. C. during bacterial conjugation. D. during the lytic cycle.

Ans: C

217

14. You have carried out a conjugation experiment and discovered that the recipient cells have almost all become donors, but that no chromosomal genes have been transferred. The donor cell in the original mating was a(n) A. F+ cell. B. Hfr cell. C. F– cell. D. F' cell.

Ans: A

15. Conjugation can occur in gram-positive bacteria if they possess A. pili. B. competence factors. C. a capsule. D. clumping factors.

Ans: D

16. The Hfr strain of E. coli is distinguished by its A. high rate of binary fission. B. ability to produce protein frequently. C. tendency to mutate easily. D. participation in a high number of recombinations.

Ans: D

218

17. At the conclusion of an Hfr conjugation event, the recipient cell might be expected to possess A. additional genes for a specific trait. B. DNA whose thymine molecules have been chemically bound. C. production of plasmids. D. a viral particle attached to its RNA.

Ans: A

18. What can happen if DNA is transferred horizontally from a donor E. coli cell to a recipient Shigella cell? A. Generalized recombination B. Possible transfer of antibiotic resistance C. Transduction D. Mutation

Ans: B

19. During conjugation, the last genes to enter the recipient bacterium are the genes A. for antibiotic resistance. B. that control competence. C. for lysogeny. D. that control the donor state.

Ans: D

219

20. In an Hfr X F– cross, how much of the chromosome can be transferred from the donor cell to recipient cell? A. None of it. B. All of it. C. Only a small portion of it. D. 50% of it.

Ans: C

21. The development of lysogeny depends on A. a spontaneous mutation. B. the prtype of virus involved. C. an absorption of DNA from the environment. D. the contact of two mating types of bacteria.

Ans: B

22. The activity of bacteriophages was first described by A. Twort and d'Herelle. B. Hershey and Chase. C. Lederberg and Zinder. D. Ivanowsky.

Ans: A

220

23. Transducing phages contain A. RNA. B. DNA. C. only protein. D. both RNA and DNA.

Ans: B

24. Generalized transduction is carried out by A. virulent phages that have a lysogenic cycle. B. temperate phages that undergo lysogeny. C. virulent phages that have a lytic cycle. D. temperate phages that are incapable of lysogeny.

Ans: C

25. A prophage is A. viral DNA integrated into the bacterial chromosome. B. a virulent phage that undergoes a lytic cycle. C. another name for a bacteriophage. D. a plasmid consisting of viral DNA.

Ans: A

221

26. Specialized transduction A. is more common than generalized transduction. B. requires a virulent phage. C. produces defective phages. D. can be responsible for human illness.

Ans: D

27. In one form of DNA transfer in bacteria, the DNA is transferred from one cell to another in a bacteriophage. If all fragments of the bacterial chromosome are transferred with equal frequency, the process is referred to as A. specialized transformation. B. specialized transduction. C. generalized transformation. D. generalized transduction.

Ans: D

28. Diphtheria-causing bacteria contain a prophage that codes for toxin produced during disease. This is a consequence of the phenomenon known as A. lytic growth. B. genetic engineering. C. lysogeny. D. temperate growth.

Ans: C

222

29. A phage that does not establish lysogeny in its host is referred to as A. lytic phage. B. virulent phage. C. generalized transducing. D. specialized transducing.

Ans: B

30. When a phage DNA integrates into the host cell's chromosome, it is called a(n) A. episome. B. temperate phage. C. prophage. D. lytic phage.

Ans: C

31. One type of DNA transfer in bacteria takes place when viral DNA enters the lytic cycle and incorporates a fragment of the host's DNA into the virus instead of viral DNA. This is a random occurrence, which may involve any of the bacterial genes, is called A. transformation. B. conjugation. C. generalized transduction. D. specialized transduction.

Ans: D

223

32. Restriction enzymes are notable for their ability to A. stitch together fragments of DNA. B. produce Okazaki fragments from plasmids. C. split nucleic acid molecules at a specific point. D. induce transformations.

Ans: C

33. Through the techniques of genetic engineering, you have produced a plasmid that contains a gene for human insulin. Such a plasmid is called a(n) A. human plasmid. B. recombinant plasmid. C. F' prime plasmid. D. F+ plasmid.

Ans: B

34. What was a breakthrough in genetic engineering that was found by Stanley Cohen working with E. coli plasmids? A. He found that putting E. coli in calcium chloride and heating them made them more competent. B. He discovered recombinant plasmids. C. He discovered the restriction enzyme EcoRI. D. He discovered the DNA ligases to seal new pieces of DNA into the recombinant clone.

Ans: A 224

35. Which one of the following sequences is not a palindrome? A. CCCGGG

GGGCCC B. GAACTA CTTGAT C. CTGCAG GACGTC D. All the above are palindromes.

Ans: B

36. Which one of the following does not apply to the interferon molecules? A. They are proteins. B. They interfere with conjugation. C. They can be produced through genetic engineering. D. They normally are produced by the human body.

Ans: B

37. Which one of the following statements does not describe a transgenic organism? A. It may be the result of transformation. B. It contains a gene from another organism. C. It could be the product of a conjugation event. D. All the above are possible.

225

Ans: D

38. Gene transfer in plants often uses a plasmid isolated from the bacterium A. Bacillus B. Agrobacterium C. Pseudomonas D. Enterobacter

Ans: B

39. Which of the following are genetic engineered solutions that are already in use in the United States? A. Produce insulin synthetically B. Produce tomatoes that are less susceptible to viruses C. Produce vaccines against human diseases D. All of the above are currently being used.

Ans: D

40. All the following are true of DNA probes except A. they are segments of RNA. B. they contain a radioactive compound. C. they can be used for medical diagnoses. D. they bind to a DNA sequence of a cell's chromosome.

226

Ans: A

41. A genetically engineered DNA vaccine consists of a(an) A. gene. B. gene subunit. C. organism's genome. D. protein coded by DNA.

Ans: A

42. Approximately what percentage of identified genes has been associated with a known function? A. 5 - 10 % B. 25 % C. 50 % D. 75 %

Ans: A

43. What are some of the benefits of microbial genomics? A. Greater farmland usage B. To identify more of the microbes we can't currently culture C. They are used for bioremediation of toxic wastes to clean up the environment D. It has allowed us to decode all of the genes for all the soil and water microbes

Ans: C 227

44. What is the importance of the field of comparative genomics? A. It shows what proteins do and how genes interact with others. B. It indicates how genomes have evolved over time and relationships between microbes. C. If provides the functions of sequenced genes. D. It allows us to better see the composition of microbial communities.

Ans: B

45. What is the difference between Eschericia coli and E. coli 0156:H7? A. Pathogenicity islands B. Fimbriae C. Toxins D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: D

46. Sticky ends refers to: A. the nucleotide bases on the cut DNA, which can hydrogen bond with another strand of like bases. B. the encapsulated bacteria that have been transformed. C. the viral nucleic acid that has integrated into the host cell chromosome. D. the ends of the pilus that attaches to both donor cell and recipient cell. Ans: A

47. Place the steps in the production of a genetically engineered insulin in the correct order. 228

1. Identifying and isolating clones carrying the insulin gene 2. Splicing the insulin gene into a bacterial plasmid 3. Screening for recombinant plasmids 4. Placing the recombinant plasmid in bacterial cells to form clones 5. Isolating the DNA containing the human insulin gene and cutting the gene out A. 5, 2, 4, 3, 1 B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 C. 5, 1, 2, 3, 4 D. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5 Ans: A

Matching

48. Select one of the following four choices to correctly complete each of the statements below. 1. includes the attachment of viral DNA to the bacterial chromosome. 2. involves a transfer of genes requiring contact between bacterial cells. 3. occurs in generalized and specialized forms. 4. requires that competent cells be available. 5. carries viral genes from bacterial chromosomes. 6. was first observed by Griffith in pneumococci. 7. involves F+ cells are donor cells. 8. requires a pilus. 9. occurs when naked pieces of DNA are taken up from the environment. 10. involves unencapsulated bacterium becoming an encapsulated bacterium. 11. follows the lytic cycle of a bacteriophage. 12. involves plasmids moving between live bacteria.

A. Conjugation B. Transduction C. Transformation 229

Ans: 1. B; 2. A; 3. B; 4. C; 5. B; 6. C; 7. A; 8. A; 9. C; 10. C; 11. B; 12. A

49. Match each term with its correct characteristic.

Term 1. Prophage 2. Competent 3. F+ cell 4. Lytic cycle 5. Pilus 6. Hfr 7. Lysogeny 8. Plasmid

Characteristic A. Cell capable being transformed B. Cell that conjugates; donates bacterial DNA genes C. Cell with conjugation pilus; plasmid in cytoplasm D. Closed circular DNA, with few genes, non-essential to the cell E. Condition in which virus infection does not cause immediate cell death F. Events in a cell as virus particles are replicated and released G. Viral genome integrated in host genome H. A hollow structure for DNA transfer

Ans: 1. G; 2. A; 3. C; 4. F; 5. H; 6. B; 7. E; 8. D.

230

True/False

For each of the following statements, decide if the statement is true or false. If false, correct the statement to be true.

50. Griffith's landmark experiments of 1928 demonstrated that bacterial recombinations with viruses take place so long as the viruses are lysogenic.

Ans: False Response: Griffith's landmark experiments of 1928 demonstrated that an unknown transforming substance passed from dead S strain to live R strain bacteria.

51. Genetic recombination is the alteration of the bacterial chromosome by a change in its nucleotide sequence.

Ans: False Response: Genetic recombination is the transfer of plasmid or chromosomal DNA fragments laterally from donor to recipient cell.

52. Transformations are generally more common than conjugations because DNA passes easily through the recipient cell's wall and membrane.

Ans: False Response: Transformations are generally less common than conjugations because DNA does not pass easily through the recipient cell's wall and membrane. 231

53. Transformation appears to be the major mechanism for antibiotic transfer.

Ans: False Response: Conjugation appears to be the major mechanism for antibiotic transfer.

54. Genes on integrated F factors are transferred to a recipient cell during transduction.

Ans: False Response: Genes on integrated F factors are transferred to a recipient cell during conjugation.

55. Cell contact is necessary for bacterial conjugation to occur but does not occur for transduction.

Ans: True

56. The rolling circle mechanism is the process by which one strand of the F plasmid DNA roles off the DNA loop and is copied after transfer to recipient cell.

Ans: True

57. F factors carry not only plasmid genes but a few genes acquired from the bacterial chromosome. 232

Ans: False

Response: Transfer of the F factor does not involve the chromosome; therefore, the recipient does not acquire new genes from the bacterial chromosome.

58. An Hfr strain of a bacterium is one that undergoes transformation more frequently than usual.

Ans: False Response: An Hfr strain of a bacterium is one that undergoes conjugation more frequently than usual.

59. The attachment of the F factor to the chromosome results in the formation of an F' plasmid.

Ans: False Response: The attachment of the F factor to the chromosome results in the formation of an Hfr strain.

60. During Hfr conjugation, the bacterial chromosome opens at the attachment point of the F factor and uses the rolling circle mechanism as a means of F factor replication.

Ans: True

61. In specialized transduction, genes are removed from the bacterial chromosome at the point where the virus was attached.

233

Ans: True

62. Recombinant transduction is the name given to the commercial and industrial applications derived from genetic engineering.

Ans: False Response: Biotechnology is the name given to the commercial and industrial applications derived from genetic engineering.

63. The discovery of restriction enzymes that leave sticky ends on plasmids enhanced research in genetic engineering because such plasmids are easily attached to DNA fragments.

Ans: True

64. Endonucleases leave the DNA with mortise-like staggered "sticky" ends and are therefore useful for genetic engineering.

Ans: True

65. Experiments in genetic engineering are limited to transfer of DNA fragments between bacteria of the same genus and species.

Ans: False Response: Experiments in genetic engineering are not limited to transfer of DNA fragments between bacteria of the same genus and species. 234

66. For transformation experiments, the competence of E. coli can be enhanced by chilling then heating the bacteria.

Ans: True

67. In agriculture, genetic engineering has transplanted genes for herbicide resistance from bacteria into tobacco plants, making plants that better tolerate the herbicides used for weed control.

Ans: True

68. A DNA vaccine has been developed for AIDS. Ans: False Response: A DNA vaccine has not yet been developed for AIDS.

69. Through the human genome project it has been learned that only about 50 percent of our DNA appears to code for proteins and regulatory RNAs.

Ans: False Response: Through the human genome project it has been learned that only about 5 - 10 percent of our DNA appears to code for proteins and regulatory RNAs.

235

70. DNA sequencing suggests the human genome contains about 35,000 genes.

Ans: True

71. Functional genomics involves discovering the cellular role for a microbial DNA sequence.

Ans: True

72. Environmental genomics are used for bioremediation. This can be used to clean up toxic waste sites like mercury and toluene into less harmful products.

Ans: True

73. Understanding microbial genomes allows for the more effective identification of specific bacteria in food as well as in human specimens, through the use of DNA probes

Ans: True

74. Human genomes contain a fair amount of DNA from bacteria and viruses.

Ans: True

236

Essay

75. Assess the importance of vertical and lateral (horizontal) gene transfer to bacterial evolution.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 6 – evaluation

76. Explain the meaning of competence and illustrate its importance to a successful transformation.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 2 and 3 – comprehension and application

77. Explain the three major processes of bacterial recombination and discuss the major similarities and differences among them.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 2 – comprehension

78. Name several of the key investigators who made discoveries important to the development of genetic engineering and describe the significance of each investigator's work.

Ans: Answers will vary. 237 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Level: 1 and 2 – knowledge and comprehension

79. Explain the phenomenon of lysogeny and illustrate show how it may lead to transduction by comparing specialized and generalized transduction.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 2 and 3 – comprehension and application

80. Write a description for the fundamental steps that underlie the process of genetic engineering. Include descriptions of plasmids, restriction enzymes, ligases, and other components of the process.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 5 – synthesis

81. Describe the practical applications of genetic engineering technology in agriculture, the dairy industry and medical laboratory diagnoses.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 2 – comprehension

82. Compare the information gained from microbial genomics, comparative genomics, and functional genomics.

Ans: Answers will vary. 238 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Level: 6 – evaluation

83. Analyze the importance of plasmids in various phases of genetic engineering.

Ans: Answers will vary. Level: 4 – analysis

Chap10, Chapter 10

Multiple Choice

1. The most probably organism to colonize the external nares of a individual with no known infection would be A. species of Corynebacteria. B. species of Streptococcus. C. species of Neisseria. D. species of Propionibacterium

Ans: A

2. Individuals who would be considered to be immunocompromised would include A. elderly patients in a nursing home. B. newborn babies at home. 239 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

C. individuals who are undergoing cancer chemotherapy. D. All of the above individuals would be considered to be immunocompromised.

Ans: D

3. Which statement below comparing the number of bacteria in the lungs of a healthy individual with the number of organisms colonizing the mouth is correct? A. There are many more organisms in the mouth than there are in the lungs. B. There are very few organisms in each of these locations. C. The number of bacteria in the lungs is high when compared with the number of organisms in the mouth. D. There are few, if any, bacteria colonizing the lungs, while many colonize the mouth.

Ans: D

4. Erythrogenic exotoxins produced by which organism are responsible for a red rash on the the body of the infected individual? A. Escherichia coli B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Ans: B

5. Vaccination with the Hib vaccine has resulted in prevention of A. Haemophilus meningitis infections. 240 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. Rheumatic fever. C. viral meningitis. D. Pontiac Fever.

Ans: A

6. Which of the following meningitis pathogens has a vaccine that the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends all college freshmen receive before moving into the dorm? A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Neisseria meningitidis D. All three have vaccines recommended for college freshmen by the CDC.

Ans: C

7. Latent tuberculosis infection involves A. destruction of all TB cells in the body. B. movement of the TB cells from the lungs into the rest of the body. C. infection of the brain. D. dormant TB cells which remain alive in the lung.

Ans: D

8. In the U.S., the traditional primary test for tuberculosis involves A. sputum stain. 241 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. sputum culture. C. Mantoux test. D. X-ray.

Ans: C

9. Which of the following organisms is possibly associated with cardiovascular disease? A. Chlamydophila pneumonia B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Serratia marcescens D. Chlamydophila psittaci

Ans: A

10. The respiratory system is composed of a conducting portion that brings to the lungs and a respiratory portion that exchanges gasses with the bloodstream. A. oxygen; oxygen and carbon-dioxide B. oxygen; nitrogen C. carbon dioxide; oxygen D. helium; oxygen

Ans: A

11. The

is composed of the nose, sinus cavities, and the throat.

A. upper respiratory tract 242 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. lower respiratory tract C. integumentary system D. gastrointestinal tract

Ans: A

12. The

is composed of the larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs.

A. upper respiratory tract B. lower respiratory tract C. integumentary system D. gastrointestinal tract

Ans: B

13. The upper respiratory tract A. is very rarely the site of infection by inhaled microorganisms. B. is a sterile environment and contains no microorganisms or normal microbiota. C. defends the lower respiratory tract by filtration, trapping particulate matter in the air and sweeping it upward. D. includes the lungs and alveoli.

Ans: C

14.

involves the entrapment of microbes and particulate matter in mucus.

A. Coughing 243 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. Reflux C. Mucociliary clearance D. Alveolar movement

Ans: C

15. The lungs contain the

where gas exchange occurs.

A. mucus B. alveoli C. trachea D. air sacs

Ans: B

16. All of the following are defensive constituents of the URT except A. mucociliary clearance. B. IgA and IgG. C. lysozyme and lactoferrin. D. lysozyme.

Ans: D

17. The lower respiratory tract A. is virtually free of microorganisms and particulate matter. B. contains large numbers of bacterial microbiota. 244 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

C. is free of viruses but not bacterial microbiota. D. contains large numbers of fungal, bacterial and parasitic microbes.

Ans: A

18. Which of the following is not a commensal bacterial species that resides in the upper respiratory tract as normal microbiota? A. Streptococcus B. Corynebacterium C. Bacillus D. Haemophilus

Ans: C

19.

is an inflammation of the throat.

A. Tonsillitis B. Pharyngitis C. Laryngitis D. Tinnitus

Ans: B

20.

causes strep throat.

A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus mutans 245 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Haemophilus influenzae

Ans: C

21.

is a disease arising in about 10% of children with strep throat.

A. River blindness B. Scarlet fever C. Diphtheria D. Sinusitis

Ans: B

22. Rheumatic heart disease is a condition that results from damage caused by A. antibodies made by the body against streptococcal M proteins which cross react with similar proteins on the heart muscle. B. pseudomembrane formation of Streptococcus on heart valves. C. severe sinusitis. D. weakening of the heart caused by poor gas exchange in the lungs.

Ans: A

23. A complication of strep throat is A. rheumatic heart disease. B. acute glomerulonephritis. 246 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

C. scarlet fever. D. All of the above are possible complications of strep throat.

Ans: D

24. Immunity to the disease

may be stimulated by injection of a preparation of

A. pertussis; attenuated viruses B. meningitis; inactivated virus C. diphtheria; toxoid D. measles; bacterial fragments

Ans: C

25. Diphtheria is caused by a strain of Corynebacterium diphtheriae carrying a(n) A. plasmid. B. prophage. C. amoeba. D. capsule gene.

Ans: B

26. In diphtheria, a pseudomembrane forms A. in the bronchioles blocking air flow. B. from dead tissue, white blood cells, mucus, and fibrous material. C. a layer upon which the bacteria flourish and proliferate uncontrollably. 247 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. All of the above are correct statements concerning the pseudomembrane.

Ans: B

27. Epiglottitis is an infection of the epiglottis by bacteria such as A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Streptococcus pyogenes. C. Haemophilus influenzae. D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

Ans: C

28. Symptoms of epiglottitis include all of the following except A. the person exhibits stridor. B. severe throat pain. C. fever. D. rash.

Ans: D

29.

is/are the most commonly infected part of the upper respiratory tract.

A. The nose B. The throat C. The ears D. The epiglottis 248 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: A

30.

is an inflammation of the sinuses.

A. Orchitis B. Epiglottitis C. Laryngitis D. Sinusitis

Ans: D

31. Chronic post-nasal drip.

is an ongoing infection that results in nasal obstruction, nasal congestion, and

A. orchitis B. epiglottitis C. laryngitis D. sinusitis

Ans: D

32. Short-term infections of the middle ear are called A. sinusitis. B. acute otitis media. C. chronic otitis media. D. otitis externa. 249 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: B

33. Extended swimming in fresh water pools can irritate and break down the skin in the ear canal, allowing bacteria such as to penetrate; such infections often are called swimmer’s ear. A. Streptococcus B. Staphylococcus C. Pseudomonas D. All of the above can cause swimmer’s ear.

Ans: D

34. Chronic otitis media involves long-term infection, inflammation, and damage to the middle ear due to development. A. capsule B. exotoxin C. biofilm D. fibrous

Ans: C

35. The material used in the DTaP (Tripedia) pertussis vaccine consists of A. a cellular chemical extracts of Bordetella pertussis. B. endotoxins treated with formaldehyde. C. bacterial pili. 250 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. chemically altered exotoxins.

Ans: A

36. The exotoxin of Corynebacterium diphtheriae A. destroys Krebs cycle enzymes in tissues. B. interferes with ATP production in infected tissues. C. interrupts protein synthesis in epithelial cells. D. interferes with membrane transport in human cells only.

Ans: C

37. A child suffering from repeated bouts of a violent, high-pitched cough is brought to her physician's office. The physician is likely to diagnose infection by A. Bordetella pertussis. B. Streptococcus pneumoniae. C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. D. Haemophilus influenzae.

Ans: A

38. Bacteriophages are known to exist in a lysogenic relationship with the causative organisms of A. pertussis and Q fever. B. tuberculosis and pneumococcal pneumonia. C. psittacosis and Q fever. 251 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. diphtheria and scarlet fever.

Ans: D

39. The diagnosis of tuberculosis is aided by A. observation of cells with bipolar staining in the blood. B. recovery of acid-fast rods from the sputum. C. a skin rash on the palms and soles. D. a positive Weil-Felix test.

Ans: B

40. The tuberculin skin test detects whether a person A. has been exposed to tubercle bacilli. B. currently has tuberculosis. C. has been treated with the drug tuberculin. D. has tubercle bacilli currently are in the body.

Ans: A

41. Mycobacterium tuberculosis cells have a complicated waxy cell surface. Because of this, the bacterium A. must be lysogenized before it can cause disease. B. is acid-fast. C. forms a capsule. 252 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. has no cell wall.

Ans: B

42. The appearance of Mycobacterium tuberculosis strains designated MDR-TB has necessitated A. shorter term drug treatment. B. complete bed rest of the patient. C. the use of second-line drugs. D. T lymphocyte transfusions.

Ans: C

43. In developing nations, world health officials report more deaths from this disease than any other infectious disease. What is the disease? A. Meningitis B. Pneumonia C. Influenza D. Tuberculosis

Ans: D

44. Penicillin is useless for the treatment of primary atypical pneumonia because the causative organisms A. develop resistance rapidly. B. are gram-negative. 253 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

C. grow only within the cells. D. have no cell wall.

Ans: D

45. All the following characteristics apply to the agent of primary atypical pneumonia except A. it resists treatment with penicillin. B. it is an extremely large bacterium. C. it is very fragile. D. it can be cultivated in the laboratory.

Ans: B

46. A pleomorphic organism with no cell wall that causes a type of pneumonia is A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae. B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae. C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. D. Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Ans: A

47. Among middle-aged and older individuals,

is the primary cause of infectious bronchitis.

A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae B. Chlamydophila pneumoniae C. Streptococcus pneumoniae 254 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. Bordetella pertussis

Ans: C

48. Which one of the following is not an organism that causes primary atypical pneumonia? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Ans: A

49. Cases of Legionnaires' disease have been linked to bacteria that A. are present in the urine. B. accumulate in standing water. C. appear as staphylococci. D. cannot be cultivated in the laboratory.

Ans: B

50. Legionnaires' disease is caused by a A. gram- positive coccus. B. gram-positive rod. C. gram-negative coccus. D. gram-negative rod. 255 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: D

51. A common form of pneumonia that is seen in previously healthy individuals is caused by A. Streptococcus pneumoniae. B. Klebsiella pneumoniae. C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae. D. Legionella pneumophila.

Ans: C

52. Which of the following is not a symptom of pneumonia? A. Cough B. Rust-colored sputum C. Chest pains D. Rash

Ans: D

53. Which one of the following statements describes Q fever? A. It is a disease affecting only the upper respiratory tract. B. The pathogen is an obligate intracellular pathogen associated with livestock. C. Meningococci cause this severe type of pneumonia. D. The disease is caused by a mycoplasma. 256 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: B

54. All the following are possible methods of transmission for Q fever except A. handling infected animals. B. consuming raw milk. C. being bitten by a tick. D. inhaling airborne droplets.

Ans: C

55. Cases of psittacosis may result from A. contact with infected parrots or parakeets. B. consumption of raw milk. C. a deep puncture by a contaminated cat nail. D. the bite of a mosquito.

Ans: A

56. Psittacosis is so-named because A. it affects the psittacine lobe of the lung. B. it is treated with the drug psittacine. C. the psittacine family of birds are the most common carriers. D. the body produces psittacine antibodies to fight the disease.

Ans: C 257 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

True/False

57. True or false? The World Health Organization (WHO) notes that one third of the world’s population is infected with tuberculosis.

Ans: True

58. True or false? Antibiotics are used to protect the community at large from bacterial respiratory pathogens.

Ans: False Response: Immunizations are used to protect the community

59. True or false? Tuberculosis bacilli produce no discernible toxins but growth is so unrelenting that the tissues are literally consumed, thus giving tuberculosis its older name of consumption.

Ans: True

60. True or false? Streptococcus pyogenes is the most frequent cause of tonsillitis.

Ans: True 258 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

61. True or false? Exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis will always result in a case of tuberculosis.

Ans: False Response: 70 % will develop no infection after exposure.

62. True or false? Metachromatic granules are described as blue cytoplasmic dots seen in stained Corynebacterium diphtheriae cells.

Ans. True

63. True or false? A tubercule is described as lymphocytes and fibroblasts surrounding a mass in the lymph node, forming a hard nodule.

Ans: False Response: it surrounds a mass in the lung

64. True or false? Diphtheria is transmitted by drinking contaminated water.

Ans: False Response: By inhaling respiratory droplets from an infected person.

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65. True or false? A positive tuberculin reaction, with a positive X-ray and a negative sputum culture means that the individual probably has latent TB.

Ans: True

66. True or false? The term ‘pneumonia’ refers to infection of the bronchial tubes and lungs as well as the upper respiratory tract.

Ans: False. Response: Infection of the upper respiratory tract is not a consideration for pneumonia.

67. True or false? Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an opportunistic pathogen which causes infections in patients with a weakened immune system or lung disease.

Ans: True

68. True or false? Spread of an infection to the central nervous system can result in inflammation of the meninges.

Ans: True

69. True or false? Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare is an important cause of lung disease in persons who have AIDS. 260 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: True

70. True or false? BCG can be used to immunize against tuberculosis but not against diphtheria.

Ans: True

71. True or false? The nickname pneumococcus, taken from the historical name for the organism, refers to Streptococcus pyogenes.

Ans: False Response: It refers to Streptococcus pneumoniae.

72. True or false? Acute sinusitis, if untreated, can develop into chronic sinusitis

Ans: True

73. True or false? Neisseria meningitidis is a fragile organism that is transferred from person-toperson by large droplet respiratory secretions.

Ans: True

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Matching

Reference: List of Four Diseases Select one of the following four diseases to correctly complete each of the statements below. A. Tuberculosis B. Scarlet fever C. Pertussis D. Diphtheria

74.

is caused by a gram-positive chain of cocci with a capsule.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

75.

is characterized by pseudomembrane formation.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

76.

M proteins enhance pathology.

Ans: B 262 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Refer to: List of Four Diseases

77.

paralyzes ciliated epithelial cells in the upper respiratory tract.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

78.

BCG vaccination can be used to prevent infection.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

79.

causes over 14,000 cases annually in the United States.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

80.

is related to a beta-hemolytic streptococcus.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

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81.

is accompanied by a high-pitched “whoop.”

Ans: C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

82.

is caused by an acid-fast bacillus.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

83.

is associated with a phage in Corynebacterium.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

84.

treatment requires antibiotics and antitoxins.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

85.

toxoid is used in DPT immunization. 264 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

86.

is associated with erythrogenic toxin.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

87.

can be a forerunner to rheumatic fever.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

88.

is caused by an agent possessing metachromatic granules.

Ans. D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

89.

agent is a small gram-negative rod.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

265 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

90.

produces multiple paroxysms of staccato coughs.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

91.

is characterized by the destruction of fatty sheaths surrounding nerves.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

92.

vaccine used to contain killed bacteria, now is an acellular vaccine.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

93.

bacterial cells are arranged in a ‘palisade’ arrangement.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

Essay 266 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

94. Demonstrate with specific examples how exotoxins can profoundly influence the course of infectious disease in the following organisms. Streptococcus pyogenes Corynebacterium diphtheriae Bordetella pertussis

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Application

95. Compare the immunization methods available for diphtheria, pertussis, pneumococcal pneumonia, and tuberculosis.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

96. Describe how a toxoid, for example, the toxoid used in the diphtheria vaccine, is different from the toxin produced by the bacterial cells.

Ans: Answer will vary.

97. Describe how language skills and cognitive development can be seriously affected by the undiagnosed presence of chronic otitis media.

Ans: Answer will vary. 267 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Chap11, Chapter 11

Multiple Choice

1. The special adherence qualities of Streptococcus mutans are enhanced by the presence of A. dietary carbohydrate B. sterols and waxes. C. nucleic acids such as RNA and DNA. D. amino acids and fatty acids.

Ans: A

2. A severe form of gingivitis, noted in infantry solders during World War I, was typified by bacterial damage to gums and bone loss. A. Sinusitis B. Caries C. Demineralization D. Vincent’s infection

Ans: D

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3. Gingivitis develops when plaque bacteria multiply and build up on the teeth and gums. This buildup is due to A. Fusobacterium. B. Prevotella. C. Peptostreptococcus. D. All of the above can be involved.

Ans: D

4. Large numbers of bacteria, on the order of 100 live cells per gram of stomach contents, are present in which of the following organs of the digestive tract? A. Stomach B. Large intestine C. Small intestine D. Each of the above has a high concentration of live bacteria present.

Ans: D

5. What is the definition of a sequela? A. A type of periodontal disease B. A form of gastroenteritis C. A pathological condition resulting from prior disease D. Fluid loss during diarrhea

Ans: C

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6. In 1854, John Snow determined that the source of the cholera causing an epidemic was A. contaminated food in the shops. B. contaminated straw used to line the streets. C. cloth imported from India. D. a pump handle for a well.

Ans: D

7. Some individuals are more susceptible to dental caries than others. Which factor plays the most important role in determining susceptibility? A. The microorganisms present on the teeth and in the mouth B. The individual’s diet C. Host factors including tooth and mouth condition D. Each of these factors has the same importance.

Ans: D

8. The definition of infection is the result of A. living pathogens entering and growing in the body. B. dead pathogens causing inflammation in the body. C. extracellular products, but no living pathogens, enter the body and cause damage. D. pathogens attaching to the surfaces of the body but not entering the cells.

Ans: A

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9. An incubation period for a disease is best described as the time between the entrance of the A. organism into the body and death of the infected person. B. organism into the body and the elimination of the pathogen. C. toxin and the return to full health. D. toxin and the first symptoms of illness.

Ans: D

10. A disease reservoir would be A. the natural host or habitat of a pathogen. B. the agent of transmission of the pathogen. C. the infected and dying carrier. D. organisms unable to become infected with the pathogen.

Ans: A

11. Which statement below is correct concerning Clostridium difficile? A. It is an anaerobic spore forming rod found in many locations. B. It is the major cause of pseudomembraneous colitis. C. It can be treated with stopping antibiotic treatment, fluid replacement, and if necessary, with appropriate antibiotics such as vancomycin. D. All of the above are correct statements concerning C. difficile.

Ans: D

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12. Escherichia coli O157:H7 causes hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS). Which of the following statements is correct? A. Seizures, coma and colonic perforation can occur. B. It only infects those who are healthy with strong immune systems. C. This is the only type of infection that the species E. coli causes. D. HUS is caused by an intoxication rather than an infection.

Ans: A

13. An emerging pathogen, Yersinia entercolitica, can be described as A. having a narrow distribution, only present in the tropics. B. infecting only cows. C. being an obligate aerobe. D. causing infection through contact with infected domestic animals.

Ans. D

14. One of the most important factors in controlling foodborne and waterborne disease is to A. isolate infected persons because person-to-person transmission is so easy. B. educate people in proper methods of sanitation and personal hygiene. C. control animal pests that may transfer the organisms into the water supply. D. inoculate as many people as possible against the diseases in order to control epidemics.

Ans: B

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15. The botulism toxin induces paralysis in the body by A. degenerating the synaptic end brushes. B. inhibiting protein synthesis in the end brushes. C. degrading the cell membranes of nerve cells. D. preventing the release of acetylcholine in synapses.

Ans: D

16. Antibiotics are of no value in treating botulism because A. the person is intoxicated rather than infected. B. the bacteria are generally resistant to antibiotics. C. antibiotics cannot reach the toxins in the nerve endings. D. no anti-botulism antibiotic has been yet found.

Ans: A

17. All the following apply to Clostridium botulinum bacteria or the disease it causes except A. the cells produce a exotoxin. B. infants fed raw honey may develop lethargy and poor muscle tone . C. they are an important agricultural crop disease. D. they are gram-positive, anaerobic, spore forming rods.

Ans: C

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18. Which one of the following conditions is not caused by Clostridium botulinum? A. wound botulism B. blurred vision, slurred speech, difficulty swallowing and chewing C. intestinal ulcers D. flaccid paralysis

Ans: C

19. Heating of food to

_ degrees Celsius for ten minutes will destroy botulism toxin.

A. 30 B. 50 C. 70 D. 90

Ans: D

20. Botulism toxin acts by A. increasing the amount of cyclic AMP (cAMP) in the cell. B. inhibiting the release of acetylcholine. C. inhibiting protein synthesis. D. increasing water secretion in the latter part of the small intestine.

Ans: B

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21. Which organism below produces a toxin which is active even in very low concentrations? A. Clostridium botulinum B. Clostridium perfringens C. Bacillus cereus D. None of the above is correct.

Ans: A

22. The most effective therapy in the treatment of botulism is A. chloramphenicol. B. killed bacteria vaccines. C. antitoxin. D. ampicillin.

Ans: C

23. All of the following may be caused by the Clostridium botulinum bacterium except A. floppy baby syndrome. B. difficulty swallowing and chewing, and labored breathing. C. flaccid paralysis D. Bang's disease.

Ans: D

24. The staphylococcal enterotoxin 275 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

A. is composed solely of carbohydrates. B. is very heat and resistant. C. is produced in the human intestine. D. is more potent than the botulism toxin.

Ans: B

25. Which organism below is the second most commonly reported cause of food poisoning? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Campylobacter jejuni C. Clostridium perfringens D. Shigella sonnei,

Ans: A

26. The incubation period for staphylococcal food poisoning is shorter than that for salmonellosis because A. staphylococci grow more rapidly. B. staphylococcal food poisoning is due to a toxin rather than a growth of bacteria. C. Salmonella serotypes must reach the blood before symptoms are experienced. D. the food that contains Salmonella serotypes is usually uncooked.

Ans: B

27. Clostridium perfringens has received notoriety in recent years as an important 276 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

A. cause of infections in poultry. B. producer of antibiotics. C. cause of food poisoning. D. cause of infectious disease of dogs and cats.

Ans: C

28. An anaerobic gram-positive spore former that causes food poisoning is A. Clostridium botulinum. B. Clostridium perfringens. C. Bacillus cereus. D. Brucella abortus.

Ans: A

29. All the following are related to typhoid fever except A. the causative organism is a gram-negative rod. B. human carriers harbor the causative organism. C. ulcers may form in the tissue of the intestine. D. the disease is common in barnyard animals.

Ans: D

30. The antibiotic ceftriaxone is used to treat A. staphylococcal food poisoning. 277 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. clostridial food poisoning. C. campylobacteriosis. D. typhoid fever.

Ans: D

31. All the following characteristics apply to Salmonella serotypes except A. they can cause skin infections. B. they are gram-negative rods. C. they can be transmitted by food. D. they commonly infect chickens and turkeys.

Ans: A

32. After recovery from typhoid fever, the carriers may harbor the organism in their A. gall bladder B. stomach. C. pancreas. D. intestine.

Ans: A

33. Bright red “rose spots” are a symptom of A. botulism. B. Asiatic cholera. 278 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

C. typhoid fever. D. brucellosis.

Ans: C

34. Typhoid vaccines may be composed of the following except A. dead Salmonella Typhi cells. B. attenuated S. Typhi. C. capsular polysaccharides. D. attenuated exotoxins

Ans: D

35. Excessive water loss in the feces is a symptom of all of the following diseases, except A. infantile diarrhea. B. staphylococcal food poisoning. C. typhoid fever. D. clostridial food poisoning.

Ans: C

36. Salmonella and the disease Salmonellosis is a disease which is best described by which response below? A. Hundreds of serotypes of Salmonella cause the disease. B. Symptoms include diarrhea almost as severe as that of cholera. 279 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

C. It is identical to dysentery caused by members of the genus Shigella. D. The infective dose is small, only a few hundred organisms.

Ans: A

37. The most important consideration in properly treating patients who have bacterial dysentery caused by Shigella sonnei is A. replacement of lost fluids. B. a blood transfusion to relieve the anemia. C. removal of coronary thromboses. D. prevention of spread of the disease through respiratory secretions.

Ans: A

38. Which one of the following does not apply to shigellosis? A. Individuals recovering generally become carriers. B. The disease is caused by a gram-positive coccus. C. Bloody mucoid stools are produced. D. The causative organism can be located in stool specimens.

Ans: B

39. An enormous number of cholera bacilli must be present in contaminated food for infection to be established because A. a large amount of toxin must be produced in the intestine. 280 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. most will be destroyed by the stomach acid. C. antigenic variation to a harmless form will occur rapidly in the body. D. cholera bacilli are susceptible to the effects of bacteriophages.

Ans: B

40. The hallmark of severe cases of cholera is A. undulating fever. B. extensive loss of fluid. C. extreme jaundice. D. blood in the respiratory secretions.

Ans: B

41. No other diarrhea can compare with the extensive diarrhea associated with A. botulism. B. brucellosis. C. cholera. D. Malta fever.

Ans: C

42. Travelers to regions of the world where cholera is present A. should wear mosquito protection. B. should receive gamma globulin injections. 281 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

C. can be immunized against cholera. D. should avoid stray dogs.

Ans: C

43. Among the principal causes of traveler's diarrhea is/are A. multiple serotypes of Salmonella. B. Escherichia coli. C. staphylococci and streptococci. D. Vibrio cholerae

Ans: B

44. Which one of the following complications is not associated with E. coli O157:H7? A. Rice water stools B. Hemorrhagic colitis C. Hemolytic uremic syndrome D. Colonic perforation

Ans: A

45. H. pylori can be detected by which one of the following methods? A. Stool samples B. Breath test C. Blood culture 282 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. Increased urine urea concentrations

Ans: B

46. In 2005, Barry Marshall and Robin Warren were awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for determining that Helicobacter pylori caused A. dysentery. B. hemorrhagic colitis. C. traveler's diarrhea. D. stomach ulcers.

Ans: D

47. The early signs and symptoms of campylobacteriosis A. include rose spots. B. are restricted to the nervous system. C. generally develop in the liver. D. are not unique.

Ans: D

48. This is the most commonly reported bacterial cause of gastroenteritis in the United States. The illness affects over 2.5 million persons and causes about 100 deaths each year. A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Clostridium perfringens D. Escherichia coli 283 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: A

49. Which of the following problems can be caused by Listeria monocytogenes? A. Meningitis characterized by headaches, stiff neck, delirium and coma. B. A blood disease accompanied by high numbers of infected monocytes. C. If contracted during pregnancy, the disease may result in miscarriage of the fetus or mental damage in the newborn. D. All of the above are possible.

Ans: D

50. A distinguishing feature of disease caused by Brucella species is the A. extensive diarrhea. B. paralysis of the lower body trunk. C. alternating periods of fever and relief. D. slow development of arthritis in the joints.

Ans: C

51. Brucellosis is an occupational hazard of those who A. have organic gardens. B. own mosquito eradication companies. C. work with dairy herds. D. travel abroad often.

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Ans: C

52. Human-to-human transmission is virtually unknown for A. shigellosis and typhoid fever. B. brucellosis and listeriosis. C. shigellosis and salmonellosis. D. traveler's diarrhea and typhoid fever.

Ans: B

53. Which one of the following is not known to be a method for the transmission of brucellosis? A. Cheese made from unpasteurized milk B. Splashing milk into the eye C. Accidental passage of fluid through skin abrasion D. The bite of a tick

Ans: D

54. The gastrointestinal infection caused by Vibrio vulnificus is characterized by all of the following except A. septicemia. B. necrotic skin lesions. C. increased stomach acid production. D. severe abdominal cramps.

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Ans: C

55. All the following bacteria are recognized as causes of foodborne or waterborne infections except A. Bacillus cereus. B. Yersinia enterocolitica. C. Vibrio parahaemolyticus. D. Yersinia pestis.

Ans: D

Matching

Reference: List of Four Diseases Select one of the following four diseases to correctly complete each of the statements below. A. Typhoid fever B. Brucellosis C. Botulism D. Cholera

56..

infection with this can lead to becoming a carrier.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases 286 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

57.

oral rehydration solutions assist in restoring the water balance in the body.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

58.

is characterized by intestinal lesions and skin spots.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

59.

is related to consumption of contaminated canned food.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

60.

often is accompanied by an undulant fever.

Ans. B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

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61.

can only be treated with specific antitoxin.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

62.

may occur in dogs and farm animals.

Ans. B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

63.

is an object of destruction in milk pasteurization.

Ans. B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

64.

toxin causes loss of large amounts of water from the body.

Ans. D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

65.

is due to an acid-resistant bacterial rod.

Ans. A 288 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Refer to: List of Four Diseases

66.

causes spontaneous abortion in animals.

Ans. B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

67.

is due to an anaerobic sporeforming rod.

Ans. C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

68.

can be treated with ceftriaxone, the drug of choice.

Ans. A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

69.

can occur as floppy baby syndrome.

Ans. C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

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70.

produces a high fever, with delirium.

Ans. A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

71. Match each term or disease on the left to an appropriate association on the right.

1. Enterotoxin

A. Antibody that neutralizes toxin

2. Exotoxin

B. Accompanied by double vision and difficulty in swallowing

3. Antitoxin

C. Intestinal symptoms produced by toxin

4. Botulism

D. Toxic chemical secreted by cell

5. Typhoid Fever

E. Infection of intestine

6. Brucellosis

F. Humans working with large animals at risk

7. Cholera

G. Disease produced by Salmonella Typhi

8. Gastroenteritis

H. Accompanied by rice-water stools

9. Staphylococcal food

I. Accompanied by evening chills and day fevers

10. Clostridial food poisoning

J. Caused by Clostridium perfringens

11. Dysentery

K. Intestinal infection caused by curved gram-negative rods

12. Campylobacteriosis

L. Intense abdominal cramps with watery, mucoid stools

poisoning

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13. Undulant fever

M. Second most reported foodborne disease

14. Rose spots

N. Disease accompanied by high numbers of monocytes

15. Listeria monocytogenes

O Continue to harbor and shed bacteria after recovery

16. Carrier

P. Notable sign of typhoid fever

17. Intoxications

Q. Chemicals produced by microorganisms result in disease

Ans: 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B, 5-G, 6-F, 7-H, 8-E, 9-M, 10-J, 11-L, 12-K, 13-I, 14-P, 15-N, 16-O, 17-Q

True/False

72. True or false? An intoxication can occur when a person ingests food or water containing toxins.

Ans: True

73. True or false? Difficulty is encountered in relating staphylococci to outbreaks of food poisoning because the organisms do not grow in the intestine and therefore are not observed in stool samples.

Ans: True

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74. True or false? For clostridial food poisoning to occur, the causative organisms must grow under aerobic conditions and produce their toxin.

Ans: False Response: under anaerobic conditions

75. True or false? Daily brushing and flossing, as well as professional cleanings, are helpful in reducing complications of gingivitis.

Ans: True

76. True or false? Identification and treatment of the carrier represent the major methods for containing outbreaks of botulism.

Ans: False Response: outbreaks of typhoid fever

77. True or false? Listeriosis is not transmissible from person-to-person.

Ans: True

78. True or false? The traditional vaccine used for immunizations to typhoid fever consists of toxoids prepared from chemically altered toxins.

Ans: False 292 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Response: It consists of killed bacterial strains, although newer vaccines use attenuated bacteria or capsular polysaccharides.

79. True or false? Typhoid fever is one of the most widely encountered diseases in the United States, with annual cases exceeding 500,000.

Ans: False Response: It is one of the least encountered…with only about 400 cases annually reported.

80. True or false? Poultry products are important sources of food infections because Listeria serotypes cause a significant number of infections in chickens and turkeys.

Ans: False Response: Salmonella serotypes, not Listeria

81. True or false? Shigellosis in the United States is most frequently caused by Shigella dysenteriae.

Ans: False Response: More frequently caused by Shigella sonnei.

82. True or false? Shigellosis patients who lose excessive amounts of fluid must be given salt tablets or intravenous salt solutions.

Ans: True 293 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

83. True or false? Inflammatory gastroenteritis can be differentiated from invasive gastroenteritis. Both have diarrhea and vomiting as symptoms, but the tissue damage caused during inflammatory gastroenteritis results in dysentery.

Ans: False Response: Invasive gastroenteritis results in dysentery

84. True or false? Small crustaceans called copepods filter cholera bacteria out of the water and concentrate the bacteria in their gut, and thus, may be a reservoir for cholera.

Ans: True

85. True or false? Cholera was never observed in world populations before the 20th century.

Ans: False Response: It was observed before 20th century

86. True or false? Cases of infantile and traveler's diarrhea are generally linked to contamination of water supplies with Clostridium species.

Ans: False Response: Results from contamination of water supplies with Escherichia coli strains.

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87. True or false? The possibility of traveler's diarrhea may be reduced by careful hygiene and attention to the food and water consumed during visits to other countries.

Ans: True

88. True or false? Vibrio cholerae secretes the enzyme urease which produces ammonia that neutralizes acid in the stomach causing an ulcer to develop.

Ans: False Response: Helicobacter pylori does this.

89. True or false? Campylobacteriosis is due to a motile anaerobic curved gram-negative rod.

Ans: False Response: It is is due to a motile microaerophilic curved rod.

90. True or false? The clinical symptoms of campylobacteriosis usually include paralysis, swift mental deterioration and undulant fever.

Ans: False Response: Symptoms include diarrhea, fever, abdominal pains, and bloody stools.

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91. True or false? Listeric meningoencephalitis is a form of listeriosis associated with headaches, delirium, and coma.

Ans: True

92. True or false? Brucellosis may be contracted from dogs since Brucella canis is known to infect these animals.

Ans: True

93. True or false? Streptococcus mutans is of particular interest to public health specialists because it is an important cause of intoxication.

Ans: False Response: It causes tooth decay.

94. True or false? Habits such as flossing each day and brushing with fluoride toothpaste are tools in preventing dental caries.

Ans: True

95. True or false? Periodontitis may affect a pregnant woman’s fetus, since women with periodontitis are more likely to have premature delivery than women without it.

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Ans: True

96. True or false? The organs of the digestive tract are 5 in number: oral cavity, esophagus, stomach, large intestine.

Ans: False Response: There are 6 organs of the digestive tract, including the small intestine.

97. True or false? Gastroenteritis is defined as an inflammation of the intestines and throat, usually also with vomiting and diarrhea.

Ans: False Response: inflammation of intestines and stomach

98. True or false? The term ‘etiology’ means the study of the cause of a disease.

Ans: True

99. True or false? The major focus of brucellosis in humans is the blood-rich organs such as the spleen and lymph glands.

Ans: True

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100. True or false? Bacillus cereus can cause food poisoning in humans through its production of enterotoxins.

Ans: True

101. True or false? The human intestinal microbiome is estimated to contain only 50 different species of bacteria.

Ans: False Response: 500 to 1,000 different species are present.

102. True or false? Yersinia enterocolitica is widely distributed in animals. Infections occur from consuming food that came in contact with infected animals.

Ans: True

Essay

103. Illustrate the types of precautions one might take to guard against the possibility of botulism from food.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Application 298 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Page: 346

104. Describe several of the ways that foods and water can become contaminated with pathogens or toxins

Ans. Answer will vary Page: 343

105. Distinguish the clinical symptoms that might be of value in the diagnosis of staphylococcal food poisoning, brucellosis, botulism, typhoid fever, and cholera.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

106. Compare the two types of foodborne illnesses caused by species of Clostridium.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

107. Compare how the treatment for cases of botulism, cholera, and typhoid fever differ.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Evaluation 299 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

108. Explain what an infectious dose is and describe the reasons why the infectious dose is high for some pathogens (for instance, for clostridial food poisoning, it is 100,000,000 cells), while for others, the infectious dose is low (for instance, shigella species have an infectious dose of 200 cells).

Ans: Answer will vary Page: 355

109. Discuss several of the reasons why salmonellosis can be such a widespread problem in a community.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension Page: 354

110. Assess the seriousness of the complications caused by Escherichia coli O157:H7.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Evaluation Page: 356

111. Prepare a description of methods which would result in limiting the spread of brucellosis in bovine and human populations.

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Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Synthesis Page: 352

112. Explain the meaning of each of the following terms: A. Hemorrhagic colitis B. Flaccid paralysis C. Rose spots D. Dysentery E. Rice-water stool F. Enterotoxin G. Undulant fever H. Traveler's diarrhea I. Carrier

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Knowledge

113. Compare staphylococcal food poisoning and salmonellosis with respect to causative organism, symptoms, incubation period, diagnosis, transmission method, sources, and other relevant criteria.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

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114. Identify three intoxications and five infections. Consider both foodborne and waterborne causes. Describe the organism responsible for each disease.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Knowledge, Comprehension

115. Identify which foodborne illnesses can be prevented by vaccination and describe the contents of each vaccine.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension

116. Compare past understanding and treatments for stomach ulcers and current treatments with our current understanding of the role of Helicobacter pylori.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis Page: 359

Chap12, Chapter 12

Multiple Choice

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1. A zoonosis is a disease A. found in animals and arthropods. B. transferred from animals to humans. C. found in epidemic proportions around animals. D. transmitted from humans to animals.

Ans: B

2. Anthrax may be acquired by all of the following methods except A. consumption of contaminated meat. B. inhalation of airborne spores. C. contact with infected animals. D. consumption of food from vacuum sealed jars.

Ans: D

3. Anthrax may be treated with antibiotics because A. anthrax spores germinate into vegetative cells. B. anthrax spores themselves are susceptible to antibiotics. C. the spores remain dormant during disease. D. anthrax only infects the brain.

Ans: A

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4. Woolsorter's disease is another name for A. anthrax. B. plague. C. tetanus. D. tularemia.

Ans: A

5. Which of the following forms of anthrax is/are the most deadly without early treatment? A. Intestinal anthrax. B. Cutaneous anthrax. C. Inhalation anthrax. D. They all have about the same mortality.

Ans: C

6. The toxins produced by tetanus bacilli A. are endotoxins. B. induce uncontrolled contractions of the muscles. C. cause paralysis. D. are produced under aerobic conditions.

Ans: B

7. The lockjaw that is associated with tetanus arises from 304 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

A. infection of the jaw muscles. B. stiffness and spasms in the jaw muscles. C. endotoxin invasion of the jaw muscles. D. microbial invasion of the jaw tissues.

Ans: B

8. Which of these pairs of characteristics are important in the ability of Bacillus anthracis to create anthrax? A. Spores and flagella B. Pili and flagella C. Capsule and toxin D. Capsule and pili

Ans: C

9. An antitoxin is an effective treatment for A. tetanus. B. gas gangrene. C. tularemia. D. bubonic plague.

Ans: A

10. The “second most powerful toxin known to science” is produced by 305 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

A. Clostridium botulinum. B. Clostridium perfringens. C. Salmonella Typhi. D. Clostridium tetani.

Ans: D

11. Which of the following symptoms of tetanus is the most deadly? A. General muscle stiffness throughout the body B. Spasms of the jaw muscles which cause teeth to clench C. Seizures in the diaphragm and rib muscles D. All of the above lead to death in an untreated patient

Ans: C

12. Infections due to Clostridium perfringens are accompanied by A. rapid multiplication in leukocytes. B. intestinal lesions. C. a red skin rash. D. gas accumulation in the muscle tissue.

Ans: D

13. Clostridium perfringens is found most frequently in A. the soil in the spore form. 306 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. the feather glands of birds. C. in the fur of animals. D. on the feet of flies.

Ans: A

14. Which of the following are produced by Clostridium perfringens as it causes myonecrosis? A. Large amounts of gas B. Blockage of blood flow C. Production of various exotoxins D. All of the above are characteristic of C. perfringens-caused myonecrosis.

Ans: D

15. When it grows in the anaerobic conditions of a wound, Clostridium perfringens kills the tissue. What else below is correct about the growth of C. perfringens in a wound? A. Large amounts of gas are made. B. Nerve tissues are directly damaged. C. The muscle bundle expands as cells die. D. A green, aromatic pigment is produced.

Ans: A

16. The term ‘hyperbaric oxygen’ is a A. symptom in which the lungs collect oxygen but cannot expel CO2. 307 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. treatment in which oxygen is forced into a wound to treat gas gangrene. C. treatment in which oxygen is forced into the lungs to treat pneumonia. D. symptom in which oxygen cannot enter muscle tissue.

Ans: B

17. Which of the following diseases are treated with debridement? A. Tetanus B. Anthrax C. Leptospirosis D. Gas gangrene

Ans: D

18. Leptospirosis may pose a threat to those who A. shear sheep for wool production. B. fail to sterilize canned food properly. C. work with barnyard animals or household pets. D. consume raw vegetables.

Ans: C

19. You can become infected with Leptospira interrogans if do you which of the following activities while on vacation? A. Hiking with your dog in the woods B. Going out to eat in another country 308 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

C. Swim in a lake D. Each of these is a possible way to become infected

Ans: D

20. The causative agent of which disease below is a spirochete? A. Leptospirosis B. Tetanus C. Anthrax D. Tularemia

Ans: A

21. Which one of the following describes the plague bacillus? A. An aerobic sporeforming rod B. An anaerobic gram-positive rod with bipolar staining C. A gram-negative rod with bipolar staining D. A gram-positive aerobic rod displaying metachromatic granules

Ans: C

22. The flea is important to the transmission of A. bubonic plague but not important in transmission of pneumonic plague. B. epidemic typhus but not transmission of murine typhus. C. anthrax but not transmission of tularemia. 309 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. Lyme disease but not transmission of epidemic typhus.

Ans: A

23. Which of the following organisms was the agent responsible for the plague that at one time wiped out approximately a third of the population of Europe? A. Clostridium botulinum B. Yersinia pestis C. Salmonella Typhi D. Bacillus anthracis

Ans: B

24. Which one of the following diseases is not caused by sporeforming organisms? A. Anthrax B. Tetanus C. Gas gangrene D. Bubonic plague

Ans: D

25. One of the distinctive characteristics of Yersinia pestis cells is A. production of polar endospores. B. acid-fast staining. C. bipolar staining. 310 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. spirochete cell shape.

Ans: C

26. Which disease below is communicated by respiratory droplets? A. Pneumonic plague B. Tularemia C. Tetanus D. Gas gangrene

Ans: A

27. What is the form of wild plague that occurs in nature and is seen with prairie dogs? A. Bubonic plague B. Common plague C. Pneumonic plague D. Sylvatic plague

Ans: D

28. Various forms of tularemia may affect the A. kidney, eyes, and skin. B. conjunctiva, lungs, and skin. C. brain, spinal cord, and meninges. D. intestine, gall bladder, and brain. 311 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: B

29. The mortality rate for tularemia A. is higher than for tetanus. B. is relatively low. C. has never been determined. D. is as high as for bubonic plague.

Ans: B

30. All the following may be symptoms of tularemia except A. influenza-like symptoms. B. pancreatic lesions. C. lesions of the eye. D. skin ulcers.

Ans: B

31. Tularemia is often called A. Rabbit fever. B. Q fever. C. Relapsing fever. D. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. 312 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: A

32. A disease spread by ticks and causing skin ulcers is A. relapsing fever. B. bubonic plaque. C. plague. D. tularemia.

Ans: D

33. The large joints can become stiff and swollen with arthritis as a complication of A. leptospirosis. B. relapsing fever. C. the blood form of tularemia. D. Lyme disease.

Ans: D

34. Erythema migrans (EM) is the distinctive skin lesion A. associated with typhoid fever. B. that appears with Lyme disease. C. that develops into the maculopapular rash of bubonic plague. D. associated with meningococcal meningitis.

Ans: B 313 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

35. All the following apply to Lyme disease except A. the causative organism is Borrelia burgdorferi. B. transmission is by the Xenopsylla flea. C. the disease is named for a town in Connecticut. D. the disease was unrecognized before the 1970s.

Ans: B

36. Which one of the following is not caused by a species of Rickettsia? A. Lyme disease B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever C. Scrub typhus D. Tickborne fevers

Ans: A

37. Epidemics of relapsing fever may occur when A. mosquito populations are high. B. the initial infection spreads to the intestine. C. body lice are present on the victim. D. the organisms are resistant to the antibiotic streptomycin.

Ans: C 314 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

38. Characteristic signs of relapsing fever include A. skin ulcers. B. recurring fever, headache, and shaking chills. C. intermittent fever without jaundice. D. buboes.

Ans: B

39. The primary mode of transmission for Rocky Mountain spotted fever is A. contact with infected animals. B. sexual contact. C. bite of an infected hard bodied tick. D. inhalation of organisms.

Ans: C

40. The organism that causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever is A. Rickettsia rickettsii. B. Rickettsia prowazekii. C. Bartonella quintana. D. Borrelia recurrentis.

Ans: A

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41. The characteristic fever and rash of rickettsial diseases are evident in cases of A. melioidosis. B. anthrax. C. plague. D. epidemic typhus.

Ans: D

42. Epidemic typhus is likely to occur where sanitation is lacking and where hygiene is poor because A. lice flourish under these conditions. B. contaminated water transmits the rickettsiae. C. squalid living conditions attract ticks which carry the disease. D. poor nutrition favors establishment of typhus.

Ans: A

43. All the following pairs of diseases and modes of transmission are correct except A. scrub typhus and the mite. B. rickettsialpox and the mite C. epidemic typhus and the mite. D. Lyme disease and the tick.

Ans: C

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44. Which one of the following rickettsial diseases has historically significantly reduced human population numbers? A. Scrub typhus B. Rickettsialpox C. Epidemic typhus D. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

Ans: C

Matching

Reference: List of Diseases Select one of the following four diseases to correctly complete each of the statements below. A. Tetanus B. Bubonic plague C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever D. Anthrax

45.

is associated with rat infestations.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Diseases

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46.

produces symptoms caused by a single powerful exotoxin.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Diseases

47.

is caused by a gram-negative rod that shows bipolar staining.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Diseases

48.

is transmitted by ticks.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Diseases

49.

sometimes is called woolsorter's disease.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Diseases

50.

is due to a species of Rickettsia.

Ans: C 318 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Refer to: List of Diseases

51.

is accompanied by contractions of the body's muscles.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Diseases

52.

symptoms include a maculopapular rash.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Diseases

53.

is common in cows and sheep but not poultry, dogs or cats.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Diseases

54.

may develop into septicemic and pneumonic stages.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Diseases

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55.

immunization can be rendered by an injection of toxoid.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Diseases

56.

is caused by a gram-positive aerobic sporeforming rod.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Diseases

57.

vaccine is included in the DTaP series.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Diseases

58.

was the disease caused by the organism Koch used to devise Koch's postulates .

Ans: D Refer to: List of Diseases

59.

is transmitted by anaerobic soilborne spores. 320 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: A Refer to: List of Diseases

60.

was studied by Howard Ricketts.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Diseases

61.

is caused by an organism first isolated by Kitasato.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Diseases

62. Match each term on the left with its correct characteristic from the list on the right.

1. Tetanospasmin

A. Tickborne rickettsial disease; rash and high fever

2. Bipolar staining

B. Small rash with an expanding diameter

3. Buboes

C. Observed in Ehrlichiosis

4. α toxin hemolysin

D. Enzyme that destroys red blood cells

5. organism causing Black

E. Ends of cell show heavy dye deposits

6. Erythema migrans

F. Exotoxin influences muscles to contract

Death

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7. Maculopapular rash 8. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

G. Yersinia pestis H. Swellings in lymph nodes

Ans: 1-F, 2-E, 3-H, 4-D, 5-G, 6-B, 7-C, 8-A

True/False

63. True or false? The only recognized form of anthrax is inhalation anthrax.

Ans: False Response: The recognized forms of anthrax include inhalation, cutaneous, and intestinal.

64. True or false? Leukopenia is a symptom of infection with both Ehrlichia chaffeensis and Anaplasma phagocytophilum.

Ans: True

65. True or false? In order to survive environmental extremes, many soil bacteria produce spores.

Ans: True

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66. True or false? Important characteristics of organisms which are soilborne agents include the ability to resist environmental extremes and to form endospores.

Ans: True

67. True or false? Vegetative cells of the pathogen Bacillus anthracis make a capsule that resists phagocytosis.

Ans: True

68. True or false? Anthrax cannot be treated with antibiotics because the bacteria form spores, which are unaffected by the antibiotic, at the infection site.

Ans: False Response: Anthrax can be treated with antibiotics because the spores form vegetative cells.

69. True or false? Tetanus spores commonly exist in the soil and revert to vegetative cells when they enter the lungs.

Ans: False Response: Anthrax spores enter the lungs; Tetanus spores enter a puncture wound.

70. True or false? The DTaP vaccine imparts immunity to diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus. 323 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: True

71. True or false? Clostridium welchii, the gas gangrene bacillus, rarely is found in the soil.

Ans: False Response: Clostridium perfringens is the causative agent of gas gangrene.

72. True or false? Leptospira interrogans is a spirochete that may infect rats and other animals and spread to humans by contact with the animals or water contaminated with their urine.

Ans: True

73 True or false? Yersinia pestis, the plague bacillus, is transmitted among human populations exclusively by rat fleas.

Ans: False Response: respiratory droplets as well as fleas spread the disease.

74. True or false? Bubonic plague is described as a disease of the blood because the bacteria localize in the lymph nodes and cause hemorrhaging.

Ans: True

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75. True or false? Tularemia, caused by a small gram-negative rod, was first detected in Europe.

Ans: False Response: Tularemia was first found in the United States.

76. True or false? The agent of Lyme disease remains unknown despite years of intensive research efforts.

Ans: False Response: remained unknown until a spirochete was discovered in diseased tissue in 1982.

77. True or false? Typical signs of Lyme disease include an expanding red skin lesion. If the disease is left untreated, stiffening and swelling of the large joints can occur.

Ans: True

78. True or false? Leptospira interrogans causes epidemic relapsing fever which is carried by the body louse Pediculus humanus. It is a disease of crowded conditions and war, such as in World War II when some 10 million people were infected. Ans: False Response: Borrelia recurrentis is the agent of epidemic relapsing fever.

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79. True or false? Epidemic typhus is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii and transmitted by hard ticks. Symptoms are a high fever lasting for many days, severe headaches, and a skin rash reflecting the damage to small blood vessels.

Ans: False Response: Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is the disease described.

80. True or false? Epidemic typhus is a rickettsial disease transmitted by a tick and accompanied by a rash and intense fever.

Ans: False Response: It is transmitted by body lice.

81. True or false? Murine typhus and scrub typhus are both bacterial diseases caused by grampositive sporeforming rods.

Ans: False Response: The infections are due to species of Rickettsia.

82. True or false? Brill-Zinsser disease is a fleaborne rickettsial disease characterized by mild fever, persistent headache and maculopapular rash.

Ans: False Response: The description is for Murine typhus.

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83. True or false? Scrub typhus is caused by Rickettsia tsutsugamushi, enters the skin during mite infestations and soon causes fever and a rash. 7,000 US servicemen were during fighting in the Pacific in World War II. Ans: True

84. True or false? Rickettsialpox is so-named because the rash is very similar to that in smallpox.

Ans: False Response: The rash is similar to that in chickenpox.

85. True or false? Brill-Zinsser disease is the result of a relapse of an earlier case of typhus in which R. prowazekii lay dormant in the patient for many years. However, symptoms are usually milder.

Ans: True

86. True or false? Human monocyte ehrlichiosis (HME) is transmitted by deer ticks.

Ans: False Response: It is transmitted by Lone Star ticks.

Essay

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87. Demonstrate how the effects of the tetanus exotoxin can lead to the symptoms observed in patients who have tetanus.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Application

88. Identify several zoonotic diseases described in this chapter and explain how these diseases make the transition from animal to human.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension

89. List the various methods by which the anthrax bacillus can be transmitted from animal populations to human populations.

Ans: Answer will vary. Blooom: Knowledge

90. Describe the condition called “gangrene” and illustrate how large amounts of gas produced by Clostridium perfringens may lead to this condition.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension and application

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91. Explain what happens when leptospirosis progresses to Weil disease.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension Page: 375

92. Construct the course of the plague organism from an infected rat to the time a person expels the organisms in respiratory droplets during pneumonic plague.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Synthesis

93. Use examples from the text to help explain the importance of arthropods in the transmission of bacterial disease and discuss whether public health measures can break this chain of transmission.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension and evaluation

94. Explain the meaning of each of the following terms: A. Zoonosis B. Tetanospasmin C. Maculopapular rash D. Vector E. Bipolar staining 329 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

F. Bubo G. Rabbit fever H. Lockjaw

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension

95. Discuss the similarities and differences between tularemia and bubonic plague.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

96. Discuss the rickettsiae including physical descriptions of the pathogen, mechanisms of transmission and the diseases caused as well as their symptoms and treatment.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Synthesis

97. Identify several bacterial diseases due to rickettsial infection and state the prominent characteristics of each disease.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Synthesis

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98. Discuss the emerging vectorborne disease Ehrlichiosis. What is it similar to and what are the signs and symptoms?

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension

Chap13, Chapter 13

Multiple Choice

1. All the following are characteristic signs of secondary syphilis except A. skin rash may be mistaken for measles, rubella, or chickenpox. B. gummas. C. swollen lymph glands. D. patchy loss of hair and eyebrows.

Ans: B

2. The chancre is a painless, circular, purplish ulcer associated with A. toxic shock syndrome. B. primary syphilis. C. nosocomial diseases. 331 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. gonococcal pharyngitis.

Ans: B

3. Gummas are A. the circular, purplish ulcers associated with primary syphilis. B. lesions, which destroy the elastic tissue and weaken major blood vessels. C. highly infectious, the so-called “great pox.” D. associated with the endogenous disease called lumpy jaw.

Ans: B

4. Deafness, impaired vision, and notched, peg-shaped teeth are a result of A. leprosy (Hansen's disease). B. congenital syphilis. C. gonorrhea infections. D. chlamydial urethritis

Ans: B

5. The effects of Hutchinson's triad, a possible complication of congenital syphilis, are observed in the A. teeth, eyes and ears. B. brain, kidney and heart. C. hands, feet and abdominal skin. 332 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. pancreas, duodenum and colon.

Ans: A

6. All of the following organisms are endogenous species that can produce urinary tract infections except A. Escherichia coli. B. Treponema pallidum. C. Klebsiella pneumoniae. D. Proteus mirabilis.

Ans: B

7. The organism which causes gonorrhea A. resists destruction during autoclaving. B. survives for long periods of time on a dry surface. C. occurs in spore and vegetative forms. D. dies quickly and the disease is rarely contracted from a dry surface such as toilet seat.

Ans: D

8. Gonorrhea caused by which of the following has recently been observed? A. Gram-positive sporeforming rods B. Molds and yeasts C. Antibiotic-resistant diplococci 333 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. Anaerobic coagulase positive diplococci

Ans: C

9. Salpingitis, a possible complication of gonorrhea, is observed as a(n) A. set of ulcers in the colon. B. outbreak of skin ulcers along the back. C. blockage of fallopian tubes. D. infolding of the intestinal lining.

Ans: C

10. One of the difficulties in controlling the spread of gonorrhea is because A. the infected male is asymptomatic. B. the causative organism is resistant to cephalosporin antibiotics. C. 50% of female infections may be asymptomatic. D. the organism is not easily killed by antiseptics and disinfectants.

Ans: C

11. Trachoma or chlamydial opthalamia is A. a foodborne disease of the intestine. B. a spirochete disease of the lungs. C. a sexually-transmitted disease caused by a rickettsia. D. a disease of the eye causing blindness in over 7 million worldwide. 334 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: D

12. Chlamydia trachomatis causes A. gonorrhea. B. syphilis. C. nonspirochetal syphilis. D. nongonococcal urethritis.

Ans: D

13. Chancroid is a disease that has an ulcer similar to syphilis but has more of a shallow, saucer shaped ulcer that bleeds easily is caused by A. Haemophilus ducreyi. B. Chlamydia trachomatis. C. Treponema pallidum. D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Ans: A

14. The pathogen Chlamydia trachomatis has several unique characteristics. Which of the following is not a characteristic of this organism? A. An extracellular form called an reticulate body B. Must infect a host cell in order to replicate C. Humans and cats are the only known hosts 335 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. All the characteristics listed are correct for C. trachomatis.

Ans. B

15. Infection due to Haemophilus ducreyi may be identified by the isolation of A. staphylococci from skin lesions. B. diplococci from the spinal fluid. C. gram-negative rods from the genital papules. D. gram-positive rods from the feces.

Ans: C

16.

is a very small mycoplasma that causes urethritis. It cannot be treated by penicillin.

A. Treponema pallidum B. Ureaplasma urealyticum C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Haemophilus ducreyi

Ans: B

17. Mycoplasmal urethritis and granuloma inguinale are similar in that A. both are diseases caused by spirochetes. B. both diseases are transmitted by sexual contact. C. both diseases affect the groin and spinal cord. D. both are diseases primarily of children. 336 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: B

18. The organism of leprosy A. may be cultivated in the laboratory on nutrient agar. B. grows only in blood culture medium. C. belongs to the same genus as the tubercle bacillus. D. is commonly found in raw milk.

Ans: C

19. Which one of the following does not commonly cause nosocomial infections as an opportunistic pathogen? A. Enterobacter aerogenes B. Mycobacterium leprae C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Serratia marcescens

Ans: B

20. Hansen's disease has an incubation period of 3 to 6 A. days. B. weeks. C. months. D. years. 337 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: D

21. Lepromatous leprosy is characterized by A. tumor-like skin growths. B. the formation of carbuncles. C. nodule formation on the conjunctiva. D. blood clots that clog blood vessels.

Ans: A

22. Staphylococcus aureus is an increasing problem. MRSA is now often found as a nosocomialacquired infection. What does the ‘MR’ stand for? A. Multidrug resistance B. Microccocal reservoir C. Mixed results during antibiotic treatment D. Methicillin resistance

Ans: D

23. Which one of the following is not associated with toxic shock syndrome? A. Severe muscle aches B. Slurred speech and facial paralysis C. Watery diarrhea D. Skin peeling in the palms of the hands

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Ans: B

24. Staphylococcus aureus has been linked to all the following conditions except A. impetigo. B. toxic shock syndrome. C. bejel and pinta. D. the scalded skin syndrome.

Ans: C

25. Of the following, which is the most frequently associated with Staphylococcus aureus? A. Urinary tract infections. B. Burn infections. C. Venereal disease. D. Toxic shock syndrome.

Ans: D

26. Scalded skin syndrome, where the skin becomes red, wrinkled and peels off, is usually seen in A. adolescents. B. infants and young children. C. working class adults. D. elderly patients.

Ans: B 339 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

27. All the following characteristics apply to bacterial conjunctivitis (pinkeye) except A. copious discharge running down the cheek. B. eyelids crusting during sleeping hours. C. pale, tiny nodules forming on conjunctiva. D. vision in bright light becomes impaired.

Ans: C

28. The similarities of organisms and symptoms have led many microbiologists to believe there is a relationship between A. leprosy and conjunctivitis. B. TSS and ANUG. C. Yaws and syphilis. D. Ritter's disease and Hansen's disease.

Ans: C

29. Which one of the following bacteria is not related to a sexually transmitted disease? A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Gardnerella vaginalis C. Chlamydia trachomatis D. Treponema pallidum

Ans: A 340 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

30. In the past few years, an organism nicknamed ‘Iraqibacter’ has become well known in the clinical microbiology community as an organism which is both a good pathogen and antibiotic resistant. The scientific name of this organism is Acinetobacter baumannii. This organism is A. never associated with nosocomial infections. B. rarely found on the skin. C. a large gram-positive rod. C. All of the above are characteristics of A. baumannii.

Ans: B

31. The pathogen causing a cases of rat-bite fever may be either a A. staphylococcus or an anaerobic rod. B. streptobacillus or a streptococcus. C. mold or a spiral bacterium. D. rigid spiral bacterium or a streptobacillus.

Ans: D

32. A typical triad of fever, arthritis-like pain in the large joints, and skin rash is generally associated with A. complications arising from gonorrhea. B. Ritter's disease. C. one form of rat bite fever. D. toxic shock syndrome.

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Ans: C

33. Which one of the following is not a reason that women tend to have more frequent urinary tract infections (UTI) than men? A. The urethra opens in front of vaginal tract allowing for movement of organisms. B. The urethra is close in proximity to the anus permitting passage of intestinal organism. C. There is a long distance from the urethra to the bladder, allowing ample time for organisms to multiply. D. Sexual intercourse allows bacteria to enter during tissue manipulation.

Ans: C

34. Nosocomial diseases are those A. acquired by the bite of an arthropod. B. that affect the reproductive organs. C. that are due exclusively to fungi. D. acquired during hospitalization.

Ans: D

Matching

Reference: List of 4 Diseases 342 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Select one of the following four diseases to correctly complete each statement. A. Chancroid B. Chlamydial urethritis C. Syphilis D. Gonorrhea

35.

is a form of nongonococcal urethritis.

Ans: B Refer to: List of 4 Diseases

36.

diagnosis depends on isolation of gram-negative rods from pustules.

Ans: A Refer to: List of 4 Diseases

37.

involves gummas in the tertiary stage.

Ans: C Refer to: List of 4 Diseases

38.

is sometimes called “chlamydia.” 343 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: B Refer to: List of 4 Diseases

39.

is caused by a member of the genus Haemophilus.

Ans: A Refer to: List of 4 Diseases

40.

is caused by an organism that is too small to see with the light microscope.

Ans: B Refer to: List of 4 Diseases

41.

is accompanied by substantial swelling of inguinal lymph nodes.

Ans: A Refer to: List of 4 Diseases

42.

involves the nervous system in the final stage.

Ans: C Refer to: List of 4 Diseases 344 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

43.

is caused by a spirochete.

Ans: C Refer to: List of 4 Diseases

44.

can lead to Hutchinson's triad in the congenital form.

Ans: C Refer to: List of 4 Diseases

45.

is due to a gram-negative diplococcus.

Ans: D Refer to: List of 4 Diseases

46.

produces an ulcer that has ragged edges and soft borders.

Ans: A Refer to: List of 4 Diseases

47.

produces symptoms extremely similar to gonorrhea symptoms. 345 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: B Refer to: List of 4 Diseases

48.

involves diagnosis with VDRL and rapid plasma reagin tests.

Ans: C Refer to: List of 4 Diseases

49.

can be complicated by pharyngitis, proctitis, or ophthalmia.

Ans: D Refer to: List of 4 Diseases

50.

is sometimes called “the clap.”

Ans: D Refer to: List of 4 Diseases

Reference: List of Characteristics Match each term or species with its correct characteristic. A. Bacteria within phagocytes B. Deep furuncle 346 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

C. Painless ulcer; raised margin D. Infection which causes blockage of fallopian tubes E. Infection of conjunctiva F. Sign of leprosy G. Gram-negative diplococcus H. Acid-fast rod I. Spirochete J. referred to as T-mycoplasma K. Chlamydia; grows in cytoplasm of host cell L. Gram-positive coccus; forms cell clusters M. Gram-negative rod

51.

Chancre

Ans: C Refer to: List of Characteristics

52.

Donovan bodies

Ans: A Refer to: List of Characteristics

53.

Claw hand

Ans: F 347 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Refer to: List of Characteristics

54.

Carbuncle

Ans: B Refer to: List of Characteristics

55.

Mycobacterium leprae

Ans: H Refer to: List of Characteristics

56.

Staphylococcus epidermidis

Ans: L Refer to: List of Characteristics

57.

Conjunctivitis

Ans: E Refer to: List of Characteristics

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58.

Salpingitis

Ans: D Refer to: List of Characteristics

59.

Chlamydia trachomatis

Ans: K Refer to: List of Characteristics

60.

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Ans: H Refer to: List of Characteristics

61.

Ureaplasma urealyticum

Ans: J Refer to: List of Characteristics

62.

Haemophilus ducreyi 349 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: M Refer to: List of Characteristics

63.

Klebsiella granulomatis

Ans: M Refer to: List of Characteristics

64.

Treponema pallidum

Ans: I Refer to: List of Characteristics

65.

Gardnerella vaginalis

Ans: M Refer to: List of Characteristics

66.

Staphylococcus aureus

Ans: L Refer to: List of Characteristics 350 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

67.

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Ans: G Refer to: List of Characteristics

True/False

68. True or false? Syphilis is currently ranked among the top five most reported microbial diseases in the United States. Statistics indicate over 40,000 people are afflicted with the disease annually and the number has been rising since 2000. Twelve million cases are reported each year worldwide.

Ans: True

69. True or false? Chlamydia is the second most frequently reported notifiable microbial disease in the United States. Epidemiologists suggest that 3 to 4 million cases go undetected or unreported each year.

Ans: False Response: Gonorrhea is the second most frequently reported.

70. True or false? One of the protective factors for the female vagina is the acidic pH, in which Lactobacillus bacteria live. 351 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: True

71. True or false? In the adult woman, the normal balance of vaginal microbes can become disrupted, resulting in a condition called bacterial vaginitis, and encouraging growth of a variety of organisms.

Ans: False Response: the condition is identified as bacterial vaginosis.

72. True or false? The pathogen Chlamydia trachomatis has a form called an elementary body, which is infectious but which is not replicating.

Ans: True

73. True or false? The cause of chlamydial opthalmia is a different serotype of the organism responsible for mycoplasmal urethritis and chlamydial pneumonia.

Ans: False Response: It is responsible for chlamydial urethritis

74. True or false? Several tests are available for the diagnosis of Chlamydia trachomatis. These include a fluorescent antibody test and a polymerase chain reaction test (PCR).

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Ans: True

75. True or false? Species of Mycoplasma remain the most frequent cause of urinary tract infections in humans.

Ans: False Response: Escherichia coli is the most common urinary tract pathogen.

76. True or false? Cystitis is defined as an infection of the urethra.

Ans: False Response: Cystitis is an infection of the bladder.

77. True or false? Hospital-acquired urinary tract infections tend to be more responsive to antibiotic therapy than do community-acquired infections.

Ans: False Response: Bacteria causing hospital-acquired infections tend to be more resistant to antibiotics.

78. True or false? One of the key symptoms of pyelonephritis is pain in the lower part of the back.

Ans: True

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79. True or false? The epidermis of the skin is often colonized by bacteria, including Staphylococcus epidermidis, which is attracted to the high pH and low salt of the skin’s surface.

Ans: False Response: S. epidermidis is tolerant of the high salt conditions on the skin.

80. True or false? Chancroid often disappears in 10 to 14 days without treatment. However, treatment is essential because the open lesion increases the risk of HIV transmission. Ans: True

81. True or false? Ureaplasma urealyticum is capable of colonizing the placenta during pregnancy, and reports have linked it to spontaneous abortions and premature births.

Ans: True

82. True or false? Patients currently being treated for leprosy in the United States number less than a dozen.

Ans: False Response: the number is about 6,500

83. True or false? Impetigo is a highly contagious staphylococcal skin disease. It is more common in children than in adults and first appears as thin-walled blisters oozing a yellowish fluid and form yellowish-brown crusts. 354 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: True

84. True or false? One of the toxic shock syndromes is caused by a toxin-producing strain of Staphylococcus that may enter through the vaginal tract of menstruating women.

Ans: True

85. True or false? Diarrhea with watery stools and possible dehydration may signal the presence of impetigo in the body.

Ans: False Response: Thin-walled blisters that ooze a yellowish fluid and form yellowish-brown crusts signal the appearance.

86. True or false? Trachoma is caused by a serotype of Chlamydia trachomatis and is the world’s leading cause of preventable blindness affecting 500 million infections, mostly children, worldwide.

Ans: True

87. True or false? Among the symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome are a series of tiny, pale nodules that form on the conjunctiva of the eye, giving it a rough appearance.

Ans: False 355 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Response: These are the symptoms of trachoma.

88. True or false? Among the many microorganisms that cause conjunctivitis is a gram-negative rod named Haemophilus influenzae.

Ans: True

89. True or false? Conjunctivitis is a contagious disease. Techniques to prevent infection include not sharing makeup or towels.

Ans: True

90. True or false? Yaws is a spirochete disease of tropical regions of Africa and South America, usually acquired by skin contact.

Ans: True

91. True or false? The similarity of yaws symptoms to those in gonorrhea has led many public health officials to conclude that the pathogens causing these two diseases are related.

Ans: False Response: the possible relationship is with syphilis rather than gonorrhea.

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92. True or false? Contact-transmitted diseases are a group of diseases caused by microorganisms that normally inhabit the body uneventfully, but invade the tissues when defenses are compromised.

Ans: True

93. True or false? Salpingitis can occur from infections by at least three different organisms: Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Ureaplasma urethritis.

Ans: True

95. True or false? Pasteurellosis is transmissible to humans as a result of a dog or cat bite.

Ans: True

95. True or false? The agent of cat-scratch disease has been found to be identical to the agent of rat-bite fever.

Ans: False Response: The pathogens are not the same.

96. True or false? Among the symptoms of cat-scratch disease are blisters at the site of entry, headache, malaise, and low-grade fever. 357 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: False Response: A low-grade fever is noted.

97. True or false? The organism which causes acne is Propionibacterium acnes.

Ans: True

98. True or false? All forms of acne can be effectively treated by using mild soap to clean the face with as well as benzoyl peroxide.

Ans: False Response: Mild forms of acne can be treated in this manner. More severe cases require antibiotic treatment.

99. True or false? The term ‘polymicrobial’ refers to the situation where infections are caused by a single species of pathogen.

Ans: False Response: multiple species of pathogen interact to form a polymicrobial infection.

100. True or false? Alpha (α) hemolysis on blood agar results in clear colorless zones around the colonies, due to destruction of the hemoglobin in the blood cells in the agar.

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Ans: False Response: Alpha hemolysis results in the agar around the colonies turning an olive-green color.

101. True or false? While Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome is more well-known, Group B streptococci also cause a form of the disease, called Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome.

Ans: False Response: Group A streptococci cause this infection.

102. True or false? Debridement is essential in a case of necrotizing fasciitis. This results in removing dead and damaged tissue from the wound area. However, the disease is not that serious, since few patients die.

Ans: False Response: While approximately 80 % survive after treatment, the disease must be caught early and treated aggressively.

103. True or false? Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-positive coccus organism which often causes infections in burn wounds.

Ans: False Response: P. aeruginosa is an aerobic gram-negative rod.

104. True or false? When Staphylococcus aureus infects the margin of an eyelid, the resulting inflammation is called blepharitis. 359 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: True

105. True or false? Skin bacteria, such as Staphylococcus epidermidis, can form a biofilm on intravenous catheters, which can lead to biofilm bacteria entering the body to cause an infection.

Ans: True

106. True or false? Over 4 million cases of respiratory tract infections occur annually in the United States, which represents the second most frequent cause of ambulatory visits to the doctor’s office.

Ans: False Response: Urinary track infections are the second most frequent cause

Essay

107. Describe how the components of the SAFE strategy help in control of trachoma.

Ans: Answer will vary. Page: 429

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108. Compare the causative agents, symptoms, methods of diagnosis and treatments for gonorrhea, chlamydial urethritis and ureaplasma urethritis.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

109. Compare the ulcers caused by syphilis and chancroid.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

110. Discuss how the symptoms of infection and the methods of transmission are similar and different for diseases such as chancroid, ureaplasmal urethritis, granuloma inguinale, and lymphogranuloma venereum.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Evaluation

111. Both leprosy and tuberculosis are caused by members of the same genus of organisms. Examine similarities between the pathogens and the disease symptoms and discuss the differences between them.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

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112. Identify and discuss the various contact-disease manifestations of a Staphylococcus aureus infection.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension

113. Trachoma and bacterial conjunctivitis are both diseases of the eye. Continue this comparison by comparing the similarities and differences between the symptoms and the pathogens causing the two diseases.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

114. Both yaws and syphilis are caused by spirochetes. Assemble a list other similarities and differences between these two diseases and their pathogens.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Synthesis

115. Explain the meaning of a contact disease, and illustrate how an endogenous organism can cause such an infection in the human body.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension, application

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116. Name three examples of bacterial diseases that may be transmitted from animals to humans by means of a bite or scratch and describe the characteristics of each disease.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Knowledge, comprehension Page: 423

117. Write a description of noscocomial urinary tract infections (UTI) indicating some of the conditions that can lead to such an infection. Identify some of the pathogens who might cause such an infection.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Synthesis Chap14, Chapter 14

Multiple Choice

1. The largest viruses approximate the size of the A. streptococci and staphylococci. B. chlamydiae and mycoplasmas. C. smallest protozoa. D. body's red blood cells.

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2. Which of the following was one of the diseases the early virologists studied at the beginning of the 20th century (1890 - 1920)? A. Foot and mouth disease B. Polio C. Influenza D. Measles

Ans: A

3. The bacteriophage is a type of virus that A. is destroyed by bacteria. B. multiplies in bacteriological media. C. coexists with bacteria during time of disease. D. replicates within bacteria.

Ans: D

4. Which of the following is the best definition of viruses? A. Small, obligate, intracellular parasites B. They lack the chemical machinery for generating energy. C. They have a nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat. D. All of the above are correct.

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5. At first virologists had difficulty growing viruses as they didn't grow well on culture plates like bacteria did. What was the first media that was tried that worked? A. Living animal tissues in culture B. Fertilized chicken eggs C. Live mouse foot pads D. In an enriched blood broth

Ans: B

6. All the following are possible methods for cultivating viruses except A. fertilized chicken eggs. B. tissue cultures. C. laboratory animals. D. blood agar medium.

Ans: D

7. All viruses possess A. a capsid and an envelope. B. DNA as well as RNA. C. a genome and a protein capsid. D. a nucleocapsid and envelope.

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8. Viral envelopes usually are acquired as the virus A. buds through a membrane of the host cell. B. synthesizes envelope lipids. C. breaks out of the nucleus. D. reacts with host cell Golgi apparatus.

Ans: A

9. The nucleocapsid of a virus A. consists only of DNA. B. is the genome plus the capsid. C. includes the membrane-like envelope. D. surrounds the capsid of the virus.

Ans: B

10. A naked virus is made of only A. the genome, capsid and envelope. B. RNA or DNA, spikes, capsid and envelope. C. only has RNA or DNA. D. RNA or DNA and a protein capsid.

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11. A virus with icosahedral symmetry resembles A. a polyhedron with 20 triangular faces and 12 corners. B. a triangle with an extended neck and a polyhedral head. C. a stretched-out spiral having a circular tail and square apex. D. None of the above (A-C) is correct.

Ans: A

12. A microbiologist has isolated a brick-shaped virus that has DNA and an envelope. It is about 250 nm in diameter. She should classify this virus in the A. Poxviridae. B. Herpesviridae. C. Papovaviridae. D. Parvoviridae.

Ans: A

13. Which of the following types of viruses would rabies and tobacco mosaic virus be? A. Icosahedral symmetry B. Helical symmetry C. Homplex symmetry D. None of the above are correct.

Ans: B

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14. The types of organisms a virus can infect identifies the

of the virus.

A. host range B. genome C. tissue tropism D. cytopathic effect

Ans: A

15. While most viruses have a narrow host range, which of the viruses listed below is known for its wide range of possible hosts? A. Smallpox B. Bacteriophages C. Rabies D. Polio

Ans: C

16. The Togaviridae cause equine encephalitis and other diseases. These RNA viruses have a symmetrical capsid with 20 equilateral triangles with 20 edges and 12 points. Such a capsid is an example of a(n) A. helical capsid. B. icosahedral capsid. C. complex capsid. D. phage-type capsid.

Ans: B 368 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

17. Which of the following viruses was named for the researchers who originally isolated it? A. Ebola virus B. Epstein-Barr virus C. Marburg virus D. Sin Nombre virus

Ans: B

18. The retrovirus can synthesize DNA from RNA because it contains A. the necessary nucleotides. B. envelope proteins that provide receptor sites. C. the reverse transcriptase enzyme. D. ribosomes within its genome.

Ans: C

19. In the bacteriophage replication cycle A. the penetration step precedes the biosynthesis step. B. lysozyme does not function. C. lysogeny always takes place. D. complete virions are assembled outside the host cell.

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20. The nucleic acid in a phage contains only a few of the many genes needed for viral synthesis and replication. It only contains genes for synthesizing viral structural components, such as capsid proteins, and for a few enzymes used in the synthesis. Where does it get the other enzymes needed? A. It gets the amino acids to make enzymes from the cell cytoplasm. B. It uses the host cell's enzymes to make ATP. C. It uses the cell's ribosomes to make proteins and enzymes. D. All of the above are ways in which the virus obtains the other needed enzymes.

Ans: D

21. Which of the following is the correct order for phage replication? A. Uncoating, attachment, biosynthesis, maturation and exocytosis B. Attachment, penetration, biosynthesis, maturation and release C. Attachment, biosynthesis, penetration, maturation and budding D. Penetration, biosynthesis, attachment, release and maturation

Ans: B

22. What does a temperate phage do? A. Phage DNA integrates into the bacterial chromosome as a prophage. B. It lyses the cell or breaks it open. C. The enzyme degrades the bacterial cell wall and releases the phages. D. All of the above are correct.

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23. Which one of the following is an essential feature in replication of an animal virus? A. Viral capsid must enter host cell cytoplasm. B. Viral envelope must fuse with the cell membrane. C. Viral genome must be uncoated in the cell cytoplasm. D. Viral genome must fuse with the host cell membrane.

Ans: C

24. Animal viruses have attachment spikes on their envelope, while others have them located A. only on the viral nucleic acid. B. over the surface of the capsid. C. within the genome of the virus. D. Each of these is a possible additional site.

Ans: B

25. What determines the host range for most animal viruses like HIV? A. The spikes attach to receptor sites on the host cell membrane. B. The tail fibers attach to receptor sites on the host cell membrane. C. The envelope attaches to receptor sites on the host cell membrane. D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: A 371 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

26. How does HIV gain entrance into the helper T cell? A. The virion is taken into the cell by endocytosis then enfolds the virion within a vacuole. B. Tail of the phage releases the enzyme lysozyme to dissolve a portion of the bacterial cell wall so the virion can gain entrance into the cell. C. The macrophage swallows the virion so that it gets inside the cell. D. The viral envelope fuses with the plasma membrane and releases the nucleocapsid into the cytoplasm.

Ans: D

27. Enveloped viruses are released from the host cell by A. lysing their host. B. budding through the host membrane. C. lysogenizing their host. D. use of reverse transcriptase.

Ans: B

28. For many years it was not understood how the genome of a retrovirus could be transcribe into DNA. This dilemma was solved with the discovery of A. chromosomal-bound RNA. B. RNA polymerase. C. reverse transcriptase. D. DNA polymerase.

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29. Koch's postulates were adapted for viruses by using filtrates of the infectious material shown not to contain bacteria or other cultivatable organisms must produce the disease or its counterpart; or, the filtrates must produce specific antibodies in appropriate animals. Who made these modifications? A. Thomas M. Rivers B. John Enders C. Thomas Weller D. Frederick Robbins

Ans: A

30. Where bacteriophages have destroyed the cells in a lawn of bacteria A. a clumping of red blood cells will occur. B. interferons will form. C. a plaque will be observed. D. no noticeable change will be obvious.

Ans: C

31. Which of the following viruses can cause cancers? A. Influenza A B. HIV C. Varicella (chickenpox) D. Human papilloma virus (HPV)

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Ans: D

32. Oncogenes are genes that A. transform normal cells to cancer cells. B. influence ongoing protein production. C. encourage recombinations in bacteria. D. the virus uses to replicate itself.

Ans: A

33. A newly emerging virus could be the result of A. mutation. B. genetic recombination. C. proximity to susceptible organisms. D. All the above are possible mechanisms.

Ans: D

34. The suggestion that viruses originated as degenerate life forms derived from intracellular parasites is called the hypothesis. A. cellular origins B. interferon C. independent entities D. regressive evolution

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Ans: D

35. What is the difference between a viriod and a prion? A. A viriod is infectious and a prion is not. B. A viriod is infectious protein and a prion is infectious RNA. C. A viriod is infectious RNA and a prion is infectious protein. D. A prion is infectious and a viriod is not.

Ans: C

36. Abnormal prion proteins are designated as A. PrP. B. PrPc. C. PrPsc. D. PrPp.

Ans: C

37. Prions were identified in association with which one of the following? A. Brain disorders B. Lung disease C. Skin infections D. Heart ailments

Ans: A 375 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

38. A human form of BSE is called A. scrapie. B. wasting disease. C. variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD). D. TSE.

Ans: C

Matching

Reference: List of Virus Structures Select one of the following virus structures to correctly complete each of the statements below. A. The viral capsid B. The viral genome C. The viral envelope D. The viral capsomere

39.

May be composed of double stranded RNA

Ans: B Refer to: List of Virus Structures

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40.

is a flexible membrane composed of protein and lipid.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Virus Structures

41.

must enter the host cytoplasm for replication to occur.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Virus Structures

42.

number is characteristic for a particular virus.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Virus Structures

43.

may be a circular or a linear molecule

Ans: B Refer to: List of Virus Structures

44.

is a protein subunit of the capsid. 377 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: B Refer to: List of Virus Structures

45.

is similar to the host membrane except with viral components.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Virus Structures

46.

contains protein spikes embedded in phosopholipids.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Virus Structures

47.

may be either DNA or RNA but not both.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Virus Structures

48.

fuses with the cell membrane.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Virus Structures 378 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

49.

is acquired by “budding.”

Ans: B Refer to: List of Virus Structures

50.

is subdivided to capsomeres in some viruses.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Virus Structures

51.

is a protective covering for the genome.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Virus Structures

52.

is responsible for symmetry of virus capsid.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Virus Structures

53.

consists of nucleic acid. 379 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: B Refer to: List of Virus Structures

16. exists in segments in some viruses.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Virus Structures

54.

may contain enzymes to assist penetration.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Virus Structures

55. Match each term with its correct characteristic on the right.

1. Bacteriophage

A. Virus that attacks bacteria

2. Capsid

B. Replicated viruses leave host cell

3. Prophage

C. Protein layer around viral nucleic acid

4. Plaque

D. Does not immediately lyse infected host cell

5. Spike

E. Total hereditary information

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6. Genome

F. Cleared area among host cells that contain viruses

7. Release

G. Phage DNA in the lysogenic state

8. Temperate Virus

H. Single infectious virus particle outside of its host

9. Virion

I. Virus projection that help the virus attach to the host cell

Ans: 1-A, 2-C, 3-G, 4-F, 5-I, 6-E, 7-B, 8-D, 9-H

True/False

56. True or false? The work of Ivanowsky and Beijerinck was critical to the elucidation of the structure of viruses.

Ans: False Response: critical to the discovery of viruses

57. True or false? Adenoviruses have been associated with gene therapy experiments.

Ans: True

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58. True or false? Today more than 5,000 viruses have been identified. This is only a small proportion of the estimated 400,000 different virus species virologists believe may exist. Ans: True

59. True or false? The laboratory cultivation of viruses in test tube media containing living cells was an essential step in the development of vaccines for viral diseases.

Ans: True

60. True or false? One method of detecting viruses is to inoculate them into a culture of animal cells and observe the formation of plaques.

Ans: True

61. True or false? Even when infecting organisms within their host range, many viruses only infect certain cell types or tissues within a multicellular plant or animal. This limitation is called tissue specification.

Ans: False Response: tissue tropism

62. True or false? Bacteriophages T2, T4, and T6 are large, complex, naked DNA virions with the characteristic head and tail of bacteriophages. They contain tail fibers, which identify what species of bacteria the phage will be able to infect. They are virulent viruses that lyse the host cell. 382 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: True

63. True or false? The enzyme neuraminidase degrades the bacterial cell wall at the conclusion of the replication cycle of some bacteriophages.

Ans: False Response: The enzyme lysozyme degrades

64. True or false? Lysogeny is achieved when a virus incorporates its DNA or RNA into a new virion during maturation.

Ans: False Response: its DNA or RNA (as reverse transcribed DNA) into a chromosome of a host cell

65. True or false? In most DNA viruses, a division of labor occurs during replication, with genomes synthesized in the host cell nucleus and capsids produced in the cytoplasm.

Ans: True

66. True or false? The presence of reverse transcriptase in DNA tumor viruses provides a mechanism for producing RNA from viral DNA.

Ans: False 383 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Response: in RNA tumor viruses…producing DNA from viral RNA

67. True or false? Koplik spots and teardrop skin lesions are both regarded as signs of the presence of viruses in body tissue.

Ans: True

68. True or false? Plaques are areas of disintegrated cells caused by viral multiplication in cells in a culture medium.

Ans: True

69. True or false? Cancer cells differ from normal cells in that cancer cells undergo mitosis more rapidly and stick together less firmly.

Ans: True

70. True or false? The oncogenic viruses are involved in tumor formation and not true cancer development. The v-oncogene or activated oncogene is telling the infected cells to divide.

Ans: True

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71. True or false? The cellular origins hypothesis states that viruses coevolved with cellular organisms.

Ans: False Response: The independent entities hypothesis states

72. True or false? Viroids are tiny fragments of RNA known to cause several plant diseases.

Ans: True

73. True or false? Prions appears to be composed of only protein and no nucleic acids.

Ans: True

Essay

74. Identify the structural components of a viral particle and explain the important functions of each.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension

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75. Compare the different types of viruses by size and shape.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

76. Discriminate between host range and tissue tropism. Give several examples.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

77. Describe the five stages of bacteriophage replication in the host cell and contrast how this compares to animal virus replication.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension, evaluation

78. Write a paragraph on the concept of lysogeny explaining how it comes about and some of its implications and effects.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Synthesis

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79. Compare the methods available to laboratories for detecting viruses in tissue samples.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis Page: 456

80. Illustrate the replication cycle of the RNA-containing viruses known as retroviruses.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Application

81. Compare a lysogenic bacteriophage cycle with a lytic cycle. What are the advantages to both types of "life styles"?

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

82. Write an essay on cancer beginning with a description of the nature of cancer and the cancer cell. Include some evidence for viruses as carcinogens and indicate how viruses may induce cancer.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Synthesis

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83. Evaluate the three hypotheses that have been proposed for the origin of viruses.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Evaluation Chap15, Chapter 15

Multiple Choice

1. Which one of the following is true of the influenza virus? A. Transmission usually occurs by water contamination. B. The virion has no protein associated with it. C. The virion has no envelope. D. The virion undergoes antigenic variations.

Ans: D

2. Guillain-Barré syndrome and Reye's syndrome are both A. accompanied by massive amounts of virus in the brain tissue. B. associated with influenza viruses. C. due to adenoviruses. D. viral diseases of the skin.

Ans: B

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3. Studies have suggested a link exists between A. measles and orchitis in men. B. Kawasaki disease and genital warts. C. ethylene oxide and relief from influenza. D. aspirin and Reye's syndrome.

Ans: D

4. Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin spikes are both present on the envelope of the virus that causes A. chickenpox. B. influenza. C. smallpox. D. the common cold.

Ans: B

5. A major change in hemagglutinin and neuraminidase antigens is called A. antigenic drift. B. Reye's syndrome. C. antigenic shift. D. croup.

Ans: C

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6. The prospects for developing a vaccine for the common cold are not promising because A. viruses cannot be cultivated in tissue culture medium. B. many different viruses can cause the common cold. C. funds for this type of research are not available. D. there would be virtually no candidates for such a vaccine.

Ans: B

7. All the following characteristics apply to the rhinoviruses except A. they are DNA viruses with helical symmetry. B. they belong to the Picornaviridae family of viruses. C. they take their name from the Greek rhinos meaning nose. D. they can cause head colds.

Ans: A

8. Which one of the following applies to the adenoviruses? A. One type causes an eye inflammation called pharyngoconjunctival fever. B. The viruses are involved in liver diseases. C. Most adenoviruses are transmitted by contaminated arthropods. D. They are composed of RNA.

Ans: A

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9. When adenovirus multiplies in the nucleus of an infected cell, it produces A. skin lesions called vesicles. B. visible nuclear granules called inclusions. C. cytoplasmic changes called fomites. D. Koplik spots.

Ans: B

10. The respiratory syncytial virus takes its name from the A. formation of giant cells in tissue culture cells. B. involvement of the liver tissue. C. lysis of the red blood cells, which accompanies the disease. D. involvement of the nervous system.

Ans: A

11. A respiratory disease that affects young children takes its name from the giant cells that form from the fusion of infected culture cells. These giant cells are called A. syncytia. B. Lipshütz bodies. C. Koplik spots. D. zoster cells.

Ans: A

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12. Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) infection is more common in A. in elderly patients. B. in most children under the age of 5. C. in immunocompromised patients. D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: B

13. When is parainfluenza most commonly seen? A. In the summer B. In the winter C. In the late fall D. In the late spring

Ans: C

14. All of the following statements are associated with parainfluenza except A. the parainfluenza virus is an RNA virus. B. this is a disease associated with summer weather. C. parainfluenza is generally a milder disease than influenza. D. parainfluenza is most often seen in children under the age of 6.

Ans: B

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15. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by a A. coronavirus. B. paramyxovirus. C. herpesvirus. D. retrovirus.

Ans: A

16. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) first appeared in 2003. The disease spread widely to many countries. It is spread A. in air droplets. B. through sexual contact. C. by close person-to-person contact. D. All of the above are methods of SARS spread.

Ans: C

17. Which one of the following is not a viral disease of the skin? A. Chickenpox B. Mumps C. SARS D. Rubella

Ans: C

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18. All the following are considered symptoms of herpes simplex except A. cold sores forming around the lips and nose. B. herpes keratitis. C. genital herpes. D. liver damage developing in young adults.

Ans: D

19. Infection with herpes simplex HSV-1 can be prevented? A. Don't kiss someone who has a cold sore. B. There is a new vaccine out that everyone should get. C. Don't have sex with someone with genital herpes. D. Use lip gloss to block virus transmission.

Ans: A

20. The TORCH acronym is used for diseases that A. are accompanied by high fever. B. pass from a pregnant woman to the developing fetus. C. cause the body to burn with fever. D. can be treated with antibiotics.

Ans: B

21. Which one of the following is not caused by a member of the Herpesviridae? 394 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

A. Chickenpox B. Shingles C. Smallpox D. Cold sores

Ans: C

22. What is a drug that can inhibit a viral disease like herpes simplex? A. Acyclovir. B. Zanamivir. C. Amantadine. D. TORCH.

Ans: A

23. In the acronym TORCH, the R stands for A. roseola. B. rubella. C. rhinovirus. D. respiratory syncytial disease.

Ans: B

24. The fluid-filled vesicles occurring in cases of chickenpox A. contain large amounts of virus. 395 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. are similar to those in syphilis. C. break out simultaneously over the whole body. D. contain very few viruses.

Ans: A

25. Herpes zoster, or shingles, is an adult disease caused by A. an RNA virus with spikes. B. the rubeola virus. C. a virus transmitted mainly by arthropods. D. the same virus that causes chickenpox.

Ans: D

26. Most cases of herpes zoster, or shingles, occur in A. pre-pubescent males. B. individuals treated with measles gamma globulin. C. adults of both sexes. D. females who have had contact with mumps viruses.

Ans: C

27. Which one of the following is not associated with measles? A. Koplik spots B. A rare brain disease called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis 396 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

C. A red skin rash D. Inflammation of the salivary glands

Ans: D

28. The scientific name for measles is A. rubella. B. variola. C. varicella. D. rubeola.

Ans: D

29. Which of the following may be observed in an individual who as rubella? A. High fever B. Variable, pale pink maculopapular rash C. Very swollen lymph nodes D. All of the above might be observed. Ans: B

30. The MMR immunization program has significantly affected the annual incidence of all the following diseases except A. rubella. B. mumps. C. measles. 397 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. chickenpox.

Ans: D

31. German measles is similar to measles because A. both diseases are caused by the same virus. B. the gastrointestinal tract is involved in both diseases. C. a skin rash occurs in both diseases. D. both diseases lead to Reye's syndrome.

Ans: C

32. Which one of the following conditions is not associated with congenital rubella syndrome? A. Deafness B. Cataracts C. Heart defects D. Encephalitis

Ans: D

33. Orchitis is a disease that may develop in A. children who have had influenza. B. adult males who have had mumps. C. animals who contract smallpox. D. pre-pubescent females who contract German measles. 398 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: B

34. In adults, mumps virus represents a threat to the reproductive organs. In males, infection of the testes with mumps virus is called A. croup. B. papules. C. orchitis. D. pustules.

Ans: C

35. Fifth disease is accompanied by A. substantial lesion formation in the brain tissue and meninges. B. infection of the kidneys and an interruption of urine production. C. a fiery red rash on the cheeks and ears resembling a slap. D. yellowing of the skin resulting from seepage of bile form the liver.

Ans: C

36. Because viruses have neither a cell wall nor metabolism, they are not susceptible to A. antibodies. B. interferon. C. antibiotics. D. attenuation. 399 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: C

37. How can you prevent warts from spreading? A. Keeping clean. B. Don't pick at them. C. Don't share towels with someone who has them. D. All of the above are ways of preventing warts from spreading.

Ans: D

38. One of the reasons for the success of the smallpox eradication campaign was that A. smallpox could be treated with antibiotics. B. smallpox viruses were used in the vaccine. C. smallpox occurred only in humans. D. smallpox was not a transmissible disease.

Ans: C

39. A large, brick-shaped DNA virion is the responsible agent of A. smallpox. B. Reye's syndrome in individuals recovering from influenza. C. chickenpox. D. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. 400 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: A

40. The global eradication campaign for the elimination of smallpox A. depended upon the elimination of arthropod vectors. B. was completed in the 1970s. C. required that all involved health workers receive the MMR immunization. D. was led by Edward Jenner.

Ans: B

41. Why is there a concern that smallpox could be used as an agent of bioterrorism? A. No one has been vaccinated in the United States since 1972. B. There may be stockpiles of the virus in other places. C. It is highly contagious and lethal. D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: D

42. Firm, waxy, elevated lesions with a depressed center, appearing white or pink and expressing a milky, curd-like substance characterize A. the lesions of herpes simplex. B. Koplik spots. C. the symptoms of fifth disease. D. molluscum contagiosum.

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Ans: D

43. A virus closely related to the smallpox virus causes A. chickenpox. B. cold sores. C. molluscum contagiosum. D. mumps.

Ans: C

44. The neuraminidase of influenza viruses assists in A. release of virons from the host cell. B. digestion of nuclear components of the cell. C. virion attachment to the host cell and penetration inside. D. assembly of viral components into virons.

Ans: A.

Matching

Reference: List of Four Diseases Select one of the following four diseases to correctly answer each of the statements below. A. Herpes simplex B. Influenza 402 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

C. Measles D. Chickenpox

45.

is accompanied by oral red patches called Koplik spots.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

46.

viruses undergo antigenic variation.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

47.

is caused by the same virus that causes shingles.

Ans: DC Refer to: List of Four Diseases

48.

includes cold sores and genital infections.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases 403 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

49.

immunization involves the MMR vaccine.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

50.

a common means of transmission is through sexual contact.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

51.

sometimes is complicated by Reye's syndrome or GBS.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

52.

also is known as varicella.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

53.

common three component vaccine protects against this and two other diseases. 404 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

54.

produces a body rash somewhat similar to the scarlet fever rash.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

55.

is accompanied by fluid-filled, teardrop-shaped skin lesions.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

56.

is one of the TORCH group of diseases.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

57.

requires cesarean birth if diagnosed in a pregnant woman.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases 405 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

58.

has viral spikes contain neuraminidase and hemagglutinin.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

59.

can be treated with oseltamivir.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

60.

symptoms can be reduced with acyclovir use.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

61.

also is known as rubeola.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

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62.

occurs in types A, B and C.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

63.

causes recurring blisters in response to stresses.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

64.

may be associated with a secondary bacterial disease.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

65. Match each term on the left with its correct characteristic on the right.

1. TORCH

A. Inflammation of cornea

2. Neuraminidase

B. Diseases that may be congenitally acquired

3. Pharyngoconjunctival

C. Giant multinucleate cells

4. Syncytia

D. Enzyme assisting virus to release from host cell

fever

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5. Parvovirus

E. May cause fifth disease

6. Macule

F. Sac containing fluid or gas

7. Vesicle

G. Projection on viral envelope

8. Variola

H. Discolored or pink spot on skin

9. Spike

I. Major cause of common cold

10. Rhinovirus

J. Another name for smallpox

11. Rubella

K. RNA virus, causes Koplik spots and fever

12. Measles

L. RNA virus, causes mild symptoms in adults and fetal fatalities

13. Herpes zoster

M. Newborn infants have symptoms of blindness and seizures

14. Neonatal herpes

N. Causes chickenpox and shingles

15. SARS

O. Enzyme on viral envelope

16. MMR

P. Vaccine that protects against three viral diseases

17. Warts

Q. Benign skin growths

18. H spike

R. Caused by a coronavirus

Ans: 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C, 5-E, 6-H, 7-F, 8-J, 9-G, 10-I, 11-L, 12-K, 13-N, 14-M, 15-R, 16-P, 17-Q, 18-O

True/False

66. True or false? Neuraminidase is an enzyme associated with the viral genome. 408 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: False Response: with the viral spikes of influenza viruses

67. True or false? Evidence suggests that Reye syndrome and Guillain-Barré syndrome may both be triggered by influenza viruses.

Ans: True

68. True or false? There is a preventative vaccine for influenza that is about 75% effective. However, there is not much you can do once you get the flu.

Ans: False Response: there are two antiviral drugs, zanamivir (Relenza) and, in the United States, oseltamivir (Tamiflu), are available by prescription once you get the flu.

69. True or false? Among the major causes of warts in humans are the adenoviruses, a group of icosahedral, DNA virions.

Ans: False Response: causes of common colds in humans

70. True or false? Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) disease has been the most common lower respiratory tract disease affecting infants and children under one year of age.

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Ans: True

71. True or false? There are only three variants of rhinoviruses, which is why a vaccine for the common head cold is a real possibility in the near future.

Ans: False Response: There are more than 200 viruses and strains… is not a possibility

72. True or false? Adenoviruses cause an intestinal disease characterized by the output of large amounts of water in the unrelenting diarrhea.

Ans: False Response: Adenoviruses are frequent causes of URT diseases often symptomatic of a common cold

73. True or false? The respiratory syncytial virus takes its name from syncytia, the giant cells that form from the fusion of infected culture cells.

Ans: True

74. True or false? Cold sores only occur once in a person's lifetime and for which immunization is available with a vaccine.

Ans: False

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Response: Viral reactivation and movement to the epithelium can trigger another round of cold sores

75. True or false? Rubeola is a dangerous disease in pregnant women because the virus is transmitted from mother to child during childbirth.

Ans: False Response: Herpes simplex is

76. True or false? Genital herpes usually causes no serious complications. A person with the infection has an increased risk of transmitting or contracting other sexually transmitted diseases, including AIDS.

Ans: True

77. True or false? Anyone who has had chickenpox as a child is at risk for the latent illness, although only about 10 percent of adults actually develop shingles. A zoster vaccine, is available, reducing the incidence of herpes zoster and post herpetic neuralgia.

Ans: True

78. True or false? Most children have been infected by rubella by the time they enter kindergarten and up to 80 percent of adults have antibodies against HHV-6. 30 to 60 percent of bone marrow transplant recipients suffer a HHV-6 viremia during the first few weeks after transplantation.

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Ans: False Response: by roseola virus

79. True or false? Human herpesvirus 8, causes Kaposi’s sarcoma, a highly angiogenic tumor of the blood vessel walls with dark or purple skin lesions.

Ans: True

80. True or false? The MMR vaccine provides immunization to measles, molluscum contagiosum, and rubeola.

Ans: False Response: to measles, mumps, and rubella

81. True or false? The measles rash begins on the hands and feet, then spreads to the body trunk where it is maculopapular.

Ans: False Response: begins at the hairline, then covers the face and spreads to the trunk and extremities

82. True or false? The fifth disease, also known as erythema infectiosum, affects children primarily.

Ans: True

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83. True or false? In adults, fifth disease causes symptoms similar to rheumatoid arthritis.

Ans: True

84. True or false? Warts are small, usually benign skin growths that are commonly due to viruses.

Ans: True

85. True or false? The first immunization to smallpox was rendered by injecting a preparation of cowpox viruses, as first demonstrated by Edward Jenner.

Ans: True

86. True or false? At this writing, approximately 2000 cases of smallpox occur in the world annually.

Ans: False Response: there are no natural cases of smallpox in the world

87. True or false? The characteristic signs of molluscum contagiosum are firm, waxy, wart-like lesions, which yield a milky substance when depressed.

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Ans: True

Essay

88. Write a paragraph on influenza explaining the characteristics of the virus, the symptoms of disease, the methods for treatment and immunization, and the complications that can develop from the disease.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Synthesis

89. Explain what happens with the common cold; what causes it, how to prevent it and what treatments are possible.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension

90. Identify the human diseases that may be due to adenoviruses, herpesviruses, and poxviruses.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension

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91. Distinguish between the following pairs. A. Chickenpox and herpes zoster B. Mumps and orchitis C. Influenza and Reye's syndrome

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

92. Assess the possible repercussions if genital herpes or rubella were contracted by a pregnant woman.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Evaluation

93. Illustrate how the rashes of chickenpox, measles, roseola and rubella differ and how they spread on the body.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Application

94. Compare the different organisms that produce warts and how they are treated.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

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95. Identify the factors and describe the efforts that contributed to the elimination of smallpox from the world

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension

96. Distinguish between the immunization methods and materials available for protection against smallpox, measles, mumps, rubella and chickenpox.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

97. Explain the meaning of each of the following terms: A. Neuraminidase B. Syncytia C. Vesicle D. Cervical cancer E. Acyclovir R. TORCH G. Koplik spots H. Pock I. Molluscum body

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension 416 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

98. Compare the salient differences in the skin rashes that occur in cases of measles, roseola, fifth disease, and smallpox.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Evaluation

99. Explain the origin of the names for the following diseases: A. Respiratory syncytial virus disease B. Mumps C. Fifth disease D. SARS E. Molluscum contagiosum

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension Chap16, Chapter 16

Multiple Choice

1. Vaccines are available for all of the following diseases except A. yellow fever. B. rabies. 417 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

C. mononucleosis. D. polio.

Ans: C

2. Infectious mononucleosis is caused by Epstein-Barr virus. Another condition caused by this virus is A. cytomegalovirus disease. B. Lyme arthritis. C. serum hepatitis. D. Burkitt lymphoma.

Ans: D

3. A viral disease that may be transmitted by saliva is A. Infectious mononucleosis. B. Dengue fever. C. Cocksackie virus disease. D. West Nile virus.

Ans: A

4. The Monospot test is used to detect heterophile antibodies for A. Downey cells. B. mononucleosis virus. C. Ebola virus. 418 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. rabies virus.

Ans: B

5. Cytomegaloviruses pose a threat to pregnant women because they A. rob the body of important nutrients. B. pass across the placenta and damage fetal tissues. C. are resistant to most antibiotics used for viral diseases. D. interrupt the normal digestive patterns.

Ans: B

6. The cytomegalovirus is so-named from the A. enlarged cells in infected tissues. B. large size of the virus. C. presence of cellular inclusions in the viral capsid. D. large number of capsomeres in the viral envelope.

Ans: A

7. The TORCH group of diseases refers to congenital infections. Which of the letter and associated disease pairing below is correct? A. “C” for Colorado tick fever. B. “C” for cytomegalovirus disease. C. “C” for Cocksackie virus disease. 419 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. “H” for hepatitis.

Ans: B

8. A vaccine is currently available for use against A. cytomegalovirus disease but not Lassa fever. B. Colorado tick fever but not Rift Valley fever. C. infectious mononucleosis but not Lassa fever. D. hepatitis B but not hepatitis C.

Ans: D

9. Which set of descriptions below is correct for Hepatitis B? A. Short incubation period B. Symptoms of the acute (primary) infection always includes severe jaundice C. A symptomless insidious infection will eventually destroy the liver D. Fatigue, loss of appetite, nausea and vomiting are common

Ans: D

10. Which of the following is correct concerning Hepatitis C infections? A. Damage to the liver results in many liver transplants in the U.S. B. The infection becomes symptomless and chronic in the majority of the cases. C. It is primarily acquired through blood transfusions and injection drug use. D. All of the above are correct concerning Hepatitis C infections. 420 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: D

11. You are a health care worker who is planning to work with hepatitis B patients. You should be immunized against hepatitis B if you A. are younger than 21. B. are older than 21. C. don’t need to be immunized as long as you don’t come in contact with patients blood. D. are of any age.

Ans: D

12. Yellow fever is so-named because A. it is accompanied by substantial jaundice. B. it is transmitted by a yellow mosquito. C. the virus appears yellow when observed under the electron microscope. D. the virus produces fever blisters containing a yellow fluid.

Ans: A

13. Yellow fever was the first human disease associated with a virus. The association with mosquitoes was found in 1901 by an American group led by A. J. R. Downey B. Walter Reed C. Ronald Valdiserri 421 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. Robert Thom

Ans: B

14. A woman with a fluctuating fever comes to a physician. She says that every bone in her body feels like it's breaking. Of the following, the patient is likely to be suffering from A. dengue fever. B. poliomyelitis. C. West Nile encephalitis. D. Lyme arthritis.

Ans: A

15. Symptoms for this hemorrhagic fever are fever, headache, joint and muscle aches, sore throat, and weakness. This followed by diarrhea, vomiting, and stomach pain. A rash, red eyes, hiccups and internal and external bleeding may be seen in some patients. What is this disease? A. Yellow fever B. Dengue fever C. Lassa fever D. Ebola

Ans: D

16. What animal is commonly associated with the hemorrhagic fevers like Lassa where fevers and hemorrhage can persist for weeks? A. Bats 422 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. Rats C. Monkeys D. Armadillos

Ans: B

17. The virus of hepatitis A is A. usually transmitted by direct blood-to-blood transfer. B. also known as the Dane particle. C. a type of herpesvirus. D. very resistant to physical agents, requiring several minutes of boiling water to be inactivated.

Ans: D

18. The noroviruses are notable because they A. are highly contagious, causing viral gastroenteritis. B. have no capsid. C. are one of the largest viruses known. D. have both DNA and RNA.

Ans: A

19. Viral gastroenteritis may be caused by A. retroviruses but not echoviruses. B. viruses belonging to one of several unrelated groups. 423 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

C. a bite from a tick or mosquito. D. the same virus that causes Rift Valley fever.

Ans: B

20. The rotavirus and echovirus are both associated with A. lesions of the liver and hepatitis. B. skin diseases such as measles. C. gastrointestinal distress. D. animal diseases of the central nervous system.

Ans: C

21. Which one of the following is not associated with Coxsackie viruses? A. Degeneration of the liver B. Gastroenteritis C. Myocarditis, a disease of the heart muscle and valves D. Pleurodynia

Ans: A

22. One of the factors that may vary the incubation period for rabies includes A. the type of animal that bit the individual. B. the amount of virus introduced to the bite wound. C. the strain of rabies virus present in the wound. 424 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. the type of arthropod that bit the individual.

Ans: B

23. Once the symptoms have fully materialized in an individual, rabies has A. increased susceptibility to antibiotic treatment. B. no chance of being transmitted among animals. C. a great susceptibility to antibodies D. one of the highest mortality rates of any human disease.

Ans: D

24. An animal that is wide-eyed, drooling, and eager to attack anything in sight may be suffering from A. Marburg disease. B. furious rabies. C. leptospirosis. D. dumb rabies.

Ans: B

25. Hydrophobia is usually accompanied by A. a heightened reaction to the sight or sound of water. B. an inability of the body to bind water in its tissues. C. pain in the mouth when water is consumed. 425 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: A

26. Type I, type II and type III refer to A. companies that produce hepatitis vaccines. B. types of Lassa fever. C. strains of polio viruses. D. hepatitis surface antigens.

Ans: C

27. In the most serious form of polio, the virus infects the stem of the brain. The nerves of the upper body torso are affected and paralysis can result. This form of polio is known as A. Brunhilde polio. B. bulbar polio. C. Lansing polio. D. Leon polio.

Ans: B

28. The adjectives western equine, La Crosse, Venezuelan equine, and St. Louis all apply to A. forms of arboviral encephalitis. B. types of hepatitis B virus. C. different modes of gastroenteritis. 426 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. types of influenza virus.

Ans: A

29. Symptoms that include fever, headache, body aches, and a skin rash on the chest, stomach, and back would be indicative of A. West Nile fever. B. Colorado tick fever. C. sandfly fever. D. Ebola hemorrhagic fever.

Ans: A

Matching

Reference: List of Four Diseases Select one of the following four diseases to correctly complete each statement below. A. Infectious mononucleosis B. Rabies C. Hepatitis A D. Polio

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30.

may involve the medulla of the brain.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

31.

represents the highest mortality rate of any human disease.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

32.

is associated with the Epstein-Barr virus.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

33.

is a typical zoonosis.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

34.

can cause meningitis.

Ans: D 428 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Refer to: List of Four Diseases

35.

is caused by a virus resistant to physical and chemical treatment.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

36.

has an incubation period that varies from six days to one year.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

37.

is caused by a type of herpes virus.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

38.

vaccination is possible after exposure to the virus.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

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39.

prevention requires immunization with Salk or Sabin vaccine.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

40.

is accompanied by a high lymphocyte count.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

41.

one of three strains of virus (Type I, Type II or Type III).

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

42.

can exist as furious or dumb forms in animals.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

43.

symptoms include hydrophobia.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases 430 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

44.

is caused by a member of the Picornaviridae.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

45.

can be diagnosed by the presence of Downey cells.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

46.

is caused by one of the smallest virions.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

47.

vaccine is administered via five postexposure injections.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

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48.

can involve facial paralysis, heart defects, and rupture of the spleen as complications.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

True/False

49. True or false? Cases of infectious mononucleosis are accompanied by sore throat, mild fever and a high count of the white blood cells called lymphocytes.

Ans: True

50. True or false? Downey cells are B lymphocytes with vacuolated and granulated cytoplasm that forms in patients having infectious mononucleosis.

Ans: True

51. True or false? Epstein-Barr virus has been detected in patients with Burkitt lymphoma as well as in patients with infectious mononucleosis.

Ans: True

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52. True or false? An elevation of heterophile antibodies detected by the Monospot test is characteristic of hepatitis B but not hepatitis A.

Ans: False Response: is characteristic of infectious mononucleosis

53. True or false? Transmission of hepatitis B usually involves direct or indirect contact with an infected body fluid such as blood, urine, saliva, or semen.

Ans: True

54. True or false? The vaccine for hepatitis B is made from hepatitis B surface antigens.

Ans: True

55. True or false? Hepatitis C is often observed in injection drug users and those who receive tattoos.

Ans: False Response: Hepatitis B

56. True or false? Although there is no treatment of yellow fever, vaccines are available for immunization to the disease.

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Ans: True

57. True or false? Dengue fever is transmitted primarily by the bites of ticks and lice that have ingested blood from previous victims.

Ans: False Response: by the bites of mosquitoes that have

58. True or false? Serious complications or death can occur after recovery from dengue fever if one of the other three types of dengue virus later enters the body. The immune system reacts to the memory of the first dengue infection, allowing the new one to replicate unchallenged.

Ans: True

59. True or false? Ebola hemorrhagic fever is caused by a herpesvirus.

Ans: False Response: with a filovirus

60. True or false? Lassa fever and Marburg disease are typical of the viral diseases that affect the skin and cause severe pock-like lesions to form.

Ans: False Response: that cause hemorrhagic lesions 434 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

61. True or false? The incubation periods for hepatitis A and hepatitis B are different because they are caused by different viruses.

Ans: True

62. True or false? Public health officials believe gastroenteritis is second only to the common cold in frequency among infectious illnesses affecting people in the United States. In developing nations, gastroenteritis is estimated to be the second leading killer of children under the age of 5.

Ans: True

63. True or false? Rotavirus is one of the world’s deadliest infections in children. The diarrhea-related illness is associated with 25 million clinic visits, 2 million hospitalizations, and more than 600,000 deaths worldwide among children younger than five years of age. Ans: True

64. True or false? The noroviruses are notable for the serious diseases of the central nervous system that they can cause.

Ans: False Response: gastrointestinal disease they can cause

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65. True or false? Echoviruses are types of large, helical DNA viruses that may cause gastroenteritis, aseptic meningitis or exanthems.

Ans: False Response: are small, icosahedral RNA viruses

66. True or false? Mortality rates in outbreaks of rabies are low even if the vaccine is not administered.

Ans: False Response: are high if the vaccine

67. True or false? Immunization to rabies can only be performed before a person has been exposed to the virus.

Ans: False Response: by a postexposure immunization

68. True or false? The Sabin polio vaccine consists of viruses inactivated with formaldehyde, whereas the Salk vaccine is made with attenuated viruses.

Ans: False Response: consists of attenuated viruses, whereas the Salk vaccine is made with formaldehyde inactivated viruses

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69. True or false? The goal to eradicate polio by 2000 was not met. Polio is now limited to South America.

Ans: False Response: is now limited to parts of Africa and South Asia

Essay

70. Write a brief synopsis illustrating the relationship between infectious mononucleosis and Burkitt lymphoma.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Application

71. Assess the disease potential of the other hepatitis viruses besides hepatitis A, B, and C viruses.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Evaluation

72. Yellow fever and dengue fever are both transmitted by the Stegomyia (formerly Aedes) aegypti mosquito. Compare other similarities and contrast the differences between these two diseases.

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Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

73. Hepatitis A and hepatitis B are often confused. Describe the characteristics of both diseases, noting similarities and differences as they occur.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension

74. Name the various known types of viral fevers, describe the virus associated with each, and distinguish the features of the disease.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Knowledge, comprehension, and analysis

75. Identify the viruses associated with gastroenteritis and describe any unique disease implications associated with them.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension

76. Propose what precautions should be taken for someone who has been bitten by a dog believed to be rabid.

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Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Synthesis

77. Explain the meaning of each of the following terms: A. Enterovirus B. Downey cells C. Trivalent vaccine D. HBcAg E. Hydrophobia F. Epstein-Barr virus

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension

78. Describe the history of polio, the three forms, two types of vaccines and present goal to eradicate polio in our lifetimes and postpolio syndrome.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension

79. Discuss the differences between encephalitis and meningitis and the organisms that can cause them.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension 439 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

80. Describe several methods for the inactivation of viruses and illustrate how some may be useful in the development of viral vaccines.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension and application Chap17, Chapter 17

Multiple Choice

1. The person who studies fungi A. must be highly trained in zoology. B. is called a mycologist. C. is called a phycologist. D. must be highly trained in anatomy.

Ans: B

2. Chitin is a component of the fungal A. cytoplasm. B. Krebs cycle where energy is formed. C. cell wall. D. cell nucleus. 440 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: C

3. A septate mycelium is one in which A. no fruiting bodies are present. B. the cytoplasm of adjacent cells cannot mingle freely. C. sexual reproduction occurs exclusively by arthrospore formation. D. both aerobic and anaerobic types of metabolism are present.

Ans: B

4. Sour cream, yogurt and citrus fruits are easily contaminated by molds because A. fungi grow best in alkaline environments. B. these foods are anaerobic. C. fungi favor acidic conditions. D. these foods are normally kept at cold temperatures.

Ans: C

5. Facultative yeasts are noted for their ability to A. multiply only by sexual mechanisms. B. induce serious disease in humans. C. cause the Dutch elm disease. D. multiply in the presence or absence of oxygen. 441 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: D

6. Arthrospores and blastospores are formed by fungi A. as part of their fruiting bodies. B. that can reproduce asexually. C. when they live at great depths in the oceans. D. who are incapable of respiration.

Ans: B

7. Yeasts reproduce mainly by A. conidia. B. budding. C. sporangia. D. basidia.

Ans: B

8. Septate fungi are found in all of the following phyla except A. Zygomycota. B. Ascomycota. C. Basidiomycota. D. Deuteromycota.

Ans: A 442 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

9. Variations in the sexual process of reproduction in fungi are useful to the A. identification of pathogenic fungi. B. choice of growth conditions for fungi. C. selection of growth media for fungi. D. classification of fungi.

Ans: D

10. Yeasts are plentiful A. on fruits in orchards or vineyards. B. in meat packing facilities. C. in the human blood. D. where household pets sleep.

Ans: A

11. Aspergillus flavus is a special problem in agriculture because A. it contaminates grapes. B. it lessens the yield of wheat by causing rust diseases. C. it produces aflatoxins in agricultural products. D. it contaminates potatoes.

Ans: C 443 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

12. All of the following are true of the Basidiomycota except A. mushrooms are found in this phylum. B. Basidiomycota cannot form a yeast phase. C. fungi cells in this phylum possess cell walls. D. members of this phylum are all pathogenic to humans.

Ans: D

13. The organism Saccharomyces cerevisiae is best known as A. a cause of chestnut blight disease. B. the black mold. C. the yeast used in bread baking. D. the common edible mushroom.

Ans: C

14. Ascomycetes can be a problem to humans because certain members of the group A. cause brain disease. B. break down antibiotics in the environment. C. cause mushroom poisoning. D. attack valuable agricultural crops.

Ans: D

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15. Species of Saccharomyces reproduce A. exclusively by a sexual mode. B. only in the presence of ethyl alcohol. C. only under high-salt conditions. D. chiefly by budding.

Ans: D

16. Many grains, peanuts, and hay can become contaminated with fungi that produce powerful toxins called aflatoxins. These toxins are produced by A. Aspergillus flavus. B. Aspergillus fumigatus. C. Sporothrix schenckii. D. Candida albicans.

Ans: A

17. The rusts and smuts are members of the phylum A. Ascomycota. B. Basidiomycota. C. mitosporic fungi. D. Zygomycota.

Ans: B

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18. Rust and smut diseases occur A. in agricultural crops such as cereals. B. almost exclusively in tropical countries. C. only on in dairy and beef cattle. D. in the fallen tree leaves on the ground.

Ans: A

19. Mitosporic fungi are those that A. do not form septa. B. cannot live anaerobically. C. lack a known sexual cycle of reproduction. D. cannot form a yeast phase.

Ans: C

20. When consuming mushrooms, people are well-advised to consume A. Trichophyton but not Saccharomyces. B. Agaricus but not Amanita. C. Penicillium but not Aspergillus. D. Aspergillus but not Candida.

Ans: B

21. If a sexual cycle has not been identified in the fungus, it is classified as 446 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

A. phylum Oomycota. B. phylum Ascomycota. C. a member of the mitosporic fungi. D. phylum Basidiomycota.

Ans: C

22. Cryphonectria parasitica, is primarily a disease of A. the lungs. B. soldiers and other military personnel. C. the winter months. D. oak trees and grape vines.

Ans: D

23. Besides causing human disease, fungi cause agricultural problems by producing diseases in plants. Two of these diseases are wheat rust and corn smut disease. They are both caused by fungi classified as A. Oomycota. B. Ascomycota. C. Basidiomycota. D. mitosporic.

Ans: C

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24. Which one of the following would not be classified in the Basidiomycota? A. Rusts B. Mushrooms C. Lichens D. Smuts

Ans: C

25. Any media that contains high concentrations of carbohydrates A. will be unsuitable for fungal growth. B. will support the growth of fungi. C. can be used to induce sexual reproduction by fungi. D. will induce spore formation by fungi.

Ans: B

26. Which of the following was the first Eukaryote organism to have it's genome sequenced? A. Candida albicans B. Aspergillus flavus C. Penicillium notatum D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Ans: D

27. Dermatophytosis refers to fungal disease 448 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

A. that resists antibiotic treatment. B. of the hair, skin and nails. C. that spreads to the internal organs. D. that accompanies predisposing factors.

Ans: B

28. A mixture of benzoic acid and acetic acid called Whitfield's ointment is used in the treatment of A. dermatophytosis. B. histoplasmosis. C. aspergillosis. D. coccidioidomycosis.

Ans: A

29. Tinea diseases are dermatophytoses caused by several different genera of fungi. Each of the following is identified in this chapter as causing tinea except A. Microsporum. B. Trichophyton. C. Emmonsiella. D. Epidermophyton.

Ans: C

30. Candida albicans infection of the intestine may occur as a result of 449 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

A. excessive intake of alcoholic beverages. B. overuse of antibiotics. C. overgrowth of certain bacteria in the intestine. D. production of fungal toxins.

Ans: B

31. Nystatin is A. a supplement added to fungal growth media. B. an antifungal agent used to treat candidiasis. C. a toxin produced during the growth of Claviceps purpurea. D. None of the above (A-C) is correct.

Ans: B

32. A “yeast infection” in humans usually refers to A. a form of coccidioidomycosis. B. an infection due to Candida albicans. C. infection with Saccharomyces ellipsoideus. D. an untreatable and usually fatal fungal infection.

Ans: B

33. Which one of the following is not associated with Candida albicans? A. Onychia 450 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. Vulvovaginitis C. Thrush D. All the above are associated with Candida albicans.

Ans: D

34. Some fungal diseases are caused by an organism that is normally found in the human intestine. This “opportunistic” pathogen is A. Cryptococcus neoformans. B. Sporothrix schenkii. C. Candida albicans. D. Ajellomyces dermatitidis.

Ans: C

35. A patient with a vaginal infection goes to her gynecologist. She has pruritis, a whitish “cheesy” discharge, and burning internal pain. The physician's diagnosis probably is a A. sporotrichosis. B. yeast infection. C. meningovaginitis. D. Darling's disease.

Ans: B

36. Resistance to cryptococcosis and candidiasis appears to depend on 451 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

A. the intake of high-carbohydrate foods. B. continual presence of rotaviruses in the intestine. C. proper functioning of the immune system. D. the level of protein in the diet.

Ans: C

37. Which one of the following applies to the fungus Cryptococcus neoformans? A. The organism belongs to the phylum Ascomycota B. The organism grows in pigeon droppings C. The organism is an anaerobic fungus D. The organism is normally found in the human intestine

Ans: B

38. The drug often used to treat cryptococcosis is A. amphotericin B. B. gentian violet. C. griseofulvin. D. nystatin.

Ans: A

39. Histoplasmosis is primarily a disease of A. the lungs. 452 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. soldiers and other military personnel. C. the winter months. D. oak trees and grape vines.

Ans: A

40. Pneumocystis jiroveci is a major cause of death in A. infants living in old houses with leaky roofs. B. senior citizens living in tropical regions of South America. C. individuals with AIDS. D. adolescents who explore caves hosting bat populations.

Ans: C

41. Aspergillus fumigatus causes several diseases. If the spores of this organism become localized in earwax, hyphae may invade the auditory canal. This condition is referred to as A. otomycosis. B. aspergilloma. C. coccidioidomycosis. D. sporotrichosis.

Ans: A

Matching

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Reference: List of Four Diseases Select one of the following four diseases to correctly complete each of the statements below. A. Tinea pedis B. Cryptococcosis C. Candidiasis D. Coccidioidomycosis

42.

causes an estimated 25 percent of all deaths from fungal disease.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

43.

is caused by an organism normally found in human intestine.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

44.

is common in the southwest United States.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

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45.

is generally known as athlete's foot.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

46.

is caused by an organism associated with pigeon droppings.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

47.

can be treated with nystatin.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

48.

diagnosis may involve a spinal tap.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

49.

may result from overuse of antibiotics in the intestine. 455 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

50.

is caused by an organism that forms a spherule.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

51.

affects the lungs as well as the meninges.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

52.

is a type of dermatophytosis.

Ans: AB Refer to: List of Four Diseases

53.

is known as thrush in one form of the disease.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Four Diseases 456 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

54.

can be treated with griseofulvin.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

55.

sometimes is called “valley fever.”

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

56.

is caused by an organism that forms a gelatinous capsule to resist phagocytosis.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

57.

hyphae can be obtained from the shower room floor.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

58.

induces an influenza-like disease with a dry, hacking cough, chest pains, and high fever. 457 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

59.

is caused by a fungus that in the sexual stage is called Filobasidiella neoformans.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

60.

can be due to Trichophyton or Epidermophyton.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

61.

causes blister-like lesions in the webs of the toes.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

62. Match each term on the left with its correct characteristic from the right.

1. Aflatoxins

A. Carbohydrate in cell wall of some fungi 458 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

2. Ergot

B. Toxic substances produced by species of Aspergillus

3. Coenocytic

C. Association of algae and fungus

4. Septa

D. A form of asexual reproduction

5. Budding

E. A species with both yeast and mycelial growth

6. Ascus

F. Dense, hardened portion of fungal growth

7. Lichen

G. Sac in which sexual spores are produced

8. Dimorphic

H. Separation between cells of a hypha

9. Chitin

I. Produces alkaloids which are deposited into grain

10. Sclerotium

J. Without cross walls; multinucleate

Ans: 1-B, 2-I, 3-J, 4-H, 5-D, 6-G, 7-C, 8-E, 9-A, 10-F

Reference: List of Fungal Groups Match each characteristic with the Group(s) that display(s) that characteristic. A. Phylum Ascomycota B. Phylum Basidiomycota C. Phylum Zygomycota D. Group Mitosporic

63.

Spores produced in ascus

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Ans: A Refer to: List of Fungal Groups

64.

Septa present

Ans: AB Refer to: List of Fungal Groups

65.

Septa absent

Ans: CD Refer to: List of Fungal Groups

66.

No known sexual spore

Ans: D Refer to: List of Fungal Groups

67.

Reproductive spores formed on basidium

Ans: B Refer to: List of Fungal Groups 460 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

68.

Include yeasts

Ans: A Refer to: List of Fungal Groups

69.

Chitin present in cell wall

Ans: ABCD Refer to: List of Fungal Groups

Reference: List of Fungal Pathogens Select from the following choices to match the pathogen with the disease(s) it causes. A. Cryptococcus neoformans B. Sporotrichum schenkii C. Candida albicans D. Trichophyton species E. Aspergillus species F. Claviceps purpurea G. Coccidioides immitis H. Histoplasma capsulatum I. Blastomyces dermatitidis J. Epidermophyton species

70.

Vulvovaginitis 461 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: C Refer to: List of Fungal Pathogens

71.

Dermatophytosis

Ans: DJ Refer to: List of Fungal Pathogens

72.

Histoplasmosis

Ans: H Refer to: List of Fungal Pathogens

73.

Ergotized rye

Ans: F Refer to: List of Fungal Pathogens

74.

Onychia

Ans: C Refer to: List of Fungal Pathogens 462 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

75.

Coccidioidomycosis

Ans: G Refer to: List of Fungal Pathogens

76.

Aspergillosis

Ans: E Refer to: List of Fungal Pathogens

77.

Ringworm

Ans: DJ Refer to: List of Fungal Pathogens

78.

Blastomycosis

Ans: I Refer to: List of Fungal Pathogens

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79.

Sporotrichosis

Ans: B Refer to: List of Fungal Pathogens

80.

Pulmonary aspergilloma

Ans: E Refer to: List of Fungal Pathogens

81.

Thrush

Ans: C Refer to: List of Fungal Pathogens

82.

Tinea

Ans: DJ Refer to: List of Fungal Pathogens

83.

Cryptococcosis

Ans: A 464 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Refer to: List of Fungal Pathogens

84.

Rose thorn disease

Ans: B Refer to: List of Fungal Pathogens

True/False

85. True or false? Most are fungi are saprobes, feeding on dead or decaying organic matter.

Ans: True

86. True or false? Fungi are types of prokaryotic organisms often consisting of intertwined filaments of cells.

Ans: False Response: types of eukaryotic organisms

87. True or false? With the notable exception of the yeasts, the fungi consist of masses of hyphae.

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Ans: True

88. True or false? Dimorphic fungi are those that display different morphological properties at different temperatures.

Ans: True

89. True or false? All fungi are heterotrophic.

Ans: True

90. True or false? With the notable exception of the pathogens, most fungi grow best at 25° C, a temperature that is close to room temperature.

Ans: True

91. True or false? Fungi are mainly anaerobic organisms that grow best in alkaline media such as nutrient agar.

Ans: False Response: mainly aerobic organisms…best in high sugar concentrations such as Sabouraud dextrose agar

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92. True or false? Asexual fungal spores may be formed within a sac called a sporangium or on a supportive structure called a conidiophore.

Ans: True

93. True or false? Conidia are sexually-produced spores used for reproduction by such fungi as Penicillium.

Ans: False Response: are asexually-produced

94. True or false? The fungus that causes athlete's foot reproduces asexually by forming fragments of the hypha called arthrospores.

Ans: True

95. True or false? Members of the Zygomycota phylum have coenocytic hypha and reproduce sexually by forming ascospores.

Ans: False Response: by forming zygospores

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96. True or false? Two pathogens of the Ascomycota phylum are Claviceps purpurea, which causes ergot disease, and Aspergillus flavus, which attacks foods and grains.

Ans: True

97. True or false? Perhaps the most familiar member of the Basidiomycota phylum of fungi is the common edible mushroom.

Ans: True

98. True or false? Mycologists have assigned sexual stages to all the groups in the kingdom Fungi.

Ans: False Response: to of all the phyla except those organisms in the mitosporic fungi

99. True or false? Oral candidiasis, known as thrush, may occur in infants since they may acquire Candida albicans during passage through the vagina of an infected woman.

Ans: True

100. True or false? Tinea pedis is an occupational hazard of those who work with wood products or the soil.

Ans: False 468 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Response: Sporotrichosis is an

101. True or false? Nystatin is an antifungal drug reserved for use with serious cases of fungal disease where the patient is hospitalized, because it has toxic side effects.

Ans: False Response: Amphotericin B is an

102. True or false? Meningitis due to Cryptococcus may be detected by observing encapsulated yeasts in the spinal fluid obtained by a spinal tap.

Ans: True

103. True or false? Cases of blastomycosis involve a dimorphic fungus which grows in the hyphal form in the lungs.

Ans: False Response: in the yeast form in the lungs

104. True or false? Coccidioidomycosis is prevalent in the southwest United States where it is often found in people who work in the soil.

Ans: True

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105. True or false? Many plants live in a mutualistic association with fungi. These fungi are called mycorrhizae.

Ans: True

106. True or false? The fungus Claviceps purpurea may cause a dense purple body called a sclerotium to form.

Ans: False Response: may infect rye, wheat, or barley where

107. True or false? Chemical derivatives from alkaloids made by Claviceps purpurea are used to cause contractions of the smooth muscles, able to induce labor and relieve migraine headaches.

Ans: True

Essay

108. Write an explanatory paragraph on the growth and morphology of molds and yeasts.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Synthesis 470 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

109. Describe the growth conditions necessary for the fungi and compare them with growth conditions for bacteria and viruses.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension

110. Compare the basic features of the bacterial cell and the fungal cell.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

111. Describe the methods for sexual reproduction in the fungi and identify the various sexual structures that are formed.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension

112. Compare and contrast the following pairs of terms: A. Coenocytic fungi and septate fungi B. Ascomycota and Basidiomycota C. Conidia and sporangiospores D. Arthrospores and buds 471 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

E. Molds and yeasts

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

113. Compare the four groupings for fungi (three phyla and one group). Discuss reproductive strategies and examples of organisms.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

114. Illustrate the importance of yeasts in the pharmaceutical, baking, and liquor industries.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: application

115. Name several important fungal diseases and indicate the area of the world or type of environment in which each may be found.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Knowledge, comprehension

116. Examine the methods of diagnosis and types of treatment available for cases of cryptococcosis, candidiasis, aspergillosis, and tinea capitis. 472 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

117. Identify the organs of the body infected by fungi and name the fungal diseases occurring in these organs.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Knowledge, comprehension

118. Assess the consequence of infection with fungal pathogens to patients suffering from HIV disease, identifying the key diseases.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Knowledge, evaluation Chap18, Chapter 18

Multiple Choice

1. The World Health Organization notes that one child dies every 30 seconds from: A. sleeping sickness. B. trichomoniasis. C. malaria. 473 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. influenza.

Ans: C

2. Protozoa take their name from two Greek words that translate to A. first-animal. B. early-microorganism. C. true-nucleus. D. primitive-nucleus.

Ans: A

3. Foraminiferans are a type of protozoa that A. cause sleeping sickness. B. have formed large white cliffs. C. cause malaria. D. are associated with the red tides in warm waters.

Ans: B

4. Which one of the following is not a general characteristic of protozoa? A. Heterotrophic B. Saprobic C. Multicellular D. Eukaryotic 474 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: C

5. The members of the amoeba group of protozoa A. produce kappa factors. B. are non-motile in the adult form. C. move by means of pseudopodia. D. reproduce solely by sexual reproduction.

Ans: C

6. Flagellates with a characteristic undulating membrane A. belong to the amoebae. B. are the causes of trypanosomiasis. C. can usually be found in the intestine. D. can be a cause of malaria.

Ans: B

7. Pseudopods are the organs of movement of organisms classified as A. amoebae. B. flagellates. C. ciliates. D. apicomplexans. 475 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: A

8. Sexual conjugation is observed in Paramecium species A. during periods of environmental stress. B. when oxygen is present. C. when the protozoa are immersed in water. D. after ingestion of bacteria as food.

Ans: A

9. A notable characteristic of members of the apicomplexan group of protozoa is the A. ability to multiply only by sexual reproduction. B. ability to ferment carbohydrates. C. absence of Krebs cycle enzymes. D. absence of locomotor organelles in adult cells.

Ans: D

10. The organs of locomotion of gametes of Apicomplexans are A. pseudopods. B. flagella. C. cilia. D. These organisms are nonmotile.

Ans: B 476 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

11. Cases of kala azar leishmaniasis may be characterized by A. disruption of intestinal functions. B. infection of the body's white blood cells. C. coma. D. deep intestinal ulcers.

Ans: B

12. All the following apply to leishmaniasis except A. one form looks like a volcano with a raised edge and central crater. B. infection of the body's white blood cells occurs. C. transmission is by the sandfly Phlebotomus. D. one form is a neurological disease.

Ans: D

13. Sandflies transmit several diseases. One of these is protozoal in origin and is caused by A. Leishmania donovani. B. Babesia microti. C. Trypanosoma brucei. D. Toxoplasma gondii.

Ans: A 477 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

14. A distinguishing feature of cases of amoebiasis is A. severe anemia due to loss of red blood cells. B. intestinal ulcers. C. interference with reproductive functions in the victim. D. deterioration of the mental capacity.

Ans: B

15. Cyst formation by certain protozoa permits A. survival in the arthropod vector. B. enhanced reproduction by the protozoan. C. passage through the stomach acid and other environmental stresses. D. absorption through the urinary tract.

Ans: C

16. Repeated attacks of amoebiasis may occur because A. there are no effective treatments. B. the body's immune system does not respond. C. the protozoa remain in the body as cysts. D. diagnostic methods are very poor.

Ans: C

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17. An amoeba produces a disease of the intestines that begins with watery stools but, if untreated, will cause bloody stools to develop as digestion of the tissue by the organism reaches the underlying blood vessels. This disease is A. PAM. B. giardiasis. C. trypanosomiasis. D. amoebiasis.

Ans: D

18. Recent cases of giardiasis have been traced to A. infected reduviid bugs. B. infected mosquitoes. C. contaminated water supplies. D. canned foods.

Ans: C

19. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of giardiasis? A. It is caused by a flagellated protozoan. B. Diarrhea is a notable sign. C. it is the most commonly detected intestinal protozoal disease in the United States. D. Transmission occurs by tick bites.

Ans: D

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20. The protozoal disease cryptosporidiosis is severe in individuals who A. have a suppressed immune system. B. have an accompanying case of measles. C. eat raw beef. D. eat raw pork.

Ans: A

21. Cyclosporiasis is characterized by all of the following except A. symptoms last for over a month. B. food responsible for the infection generally has been thrown away. C. symptoms include abdominal cramping, bloating and vomiting. D. the incubation period is a matter of a few hours.

Ans: D

22. A sexually transmitted protozoal disease is A. trypanosomiasis. B. trichomoniasis. C. malaria. D. toxoplasmosis.

Ans: B

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23. The malaria attack coincides with A. the release of parasites from infected red blood cells. B. entry of the parasites to the liver. C. the bite of the mosquito. D. destruction of the spleen in the body.

Ans: A

24. The sporozoite, merozoite, and gametocyte are all stages of A. the ciliate that causes trypanosomiasis. B. the amoeba that causes PAM. C. the arthropod that transmits babesiosis. D. Plasmodium that invades red blood cells.

Ans: D

25. Quinine is effective in the treatment of disease caused by members of the genus A. Plasmodium. B. Toxoplasma. C. Giardia. D. Leishmania.

Ans: A

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26. The 'kissing bug' is best known as the A. vector of South American sleeping sickness (Chagas). B. insect that harbors Entamoeba species. C. arthropod that transmits toxoplasmosis. D. mosquito that carries malaria.

Ans: A

27. Epidemics of African trypanosomiasis may be controlled by A. eliminating infestations of tsetse flies. B. treating infections in pigs. C. filtering the local water supplies. D. cooking beef thoroughly before cooking.

Ans: A

28. A man comes to his physician complaining of drowsiness and a desire to sleep. He is suffering from tremors. He has just returned from Central Africa. His physician believes that he may be suffering from a disease caused by Trypanosoma brucei, variety gambiense. If so, he has been bitten by a A. mosquito. B. tick. C. 'kissing bug'. D. tsetse fly.

Ans: D

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29. Which of the following is not a form of malaria? A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Plasmodium brucei C. Plasmodium malariae D. Plasmodium vivax

Ans: B

30. Which one of the following is not caused by an apicomplexan? A. Babesiosis B. Amoebiasis C. Malaria D. Toxoplasmosis

Ans: B

31. Two important means for contracting toxoplasmosis are A. inhaling protozoa and an arthropod bite. B. an arthropod bite and consuming rare beef. C. consuming rare beef and contact with a cat. D. contact with a cat and inhaling protozoa.

Ans: C

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32. This protozoan can cause serious problems if a pregnant woman becomes infected. The fetus may become infected because the parasites pass across the placenta. They may cause brain and eye damage, lesions of the visceral organs, or spontaneous abortion. This organism is A. Toxoplasma gondii. B. Trypanosoma brucei. C. Trypanosoma cruzi. D. Trichomonas vaginalis.

Ans: A

33. Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) is generally associated with A. an amoeba of the genus Naegleria. B. a ciliate of the group Apicomplexa. C. a ciliate of the genus Plasmodium. D. an apicomplexan of the genus Cyclospora

Ans: A

34. Which of the following are considered helminths? A. Flukes B. Tapeworms C. Nematodes D. All of the above are helminths.

Ans: D

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35. Which of the following are considered roundworms? A. Flukes B. Tapeworms C. Nematodes D. All of the above are considered to be roundworms.

Ans: C

36. Schistosomiasis is a blood fluke that can be "caught" from A. walking barefoot in the garden. B. swimming in contaminated water. C. eating improperly cooked meat. D. eating snails.

Ans: B

37. Which of the following statements about Echinococcus tapeworms is correct? A. Dogs are the definite hosts while humans are intermediary hosts. B. Humans are the definitive hosts and the intermediary hosts are dogs. C. Dogs are the definitive hosts and cats are intermediary hosts. D. Humans are the definitive hosts, while cats are the intermediary hosts.

Ans: A

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38. What is the outcome if pinworms are not treated? A. The worm load increases until the intestines are blocked, requiring major surgery. B. The patient will continue to have anal itching for months to years. C. The patient becomes anemic and listless and runs a low grade fever. D. The worms will die in a few weeks and the infection will disappears if reinfection is prevented.

Ans: D

39. Where can we acquire the organisms that cause trichinellosis? A. They can be found in dirty carpet in motels. B. Dog poop from strange dogs could carry it. C. Eating raw or poorly cooked pork D. From swimming in contaminated waters

Ans: C

40. Which of the following is a large roundworm, which produces larvae that you might cough up, swallow, causing you to reinfect yourself? A. Trichinosis, Trichinella spiralis B. Ascaris, Ascaris lumbricoides C. Pinworm, Enterobius vermicularis D. Hydatid cysts, Echinococcus granulosus

Ans: B

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41. Which one of these parasites could be picked up by walking barefooted on infected soil in warm, wet climates? A. Hookworms B. Pinworms C. Trichinosis D. Ascaris

Ans: A

42. Which of the following organisms is responsible for the disease called elephantiasis because of the gross swelling of lymphatic tissues? A. Enterobius vermicularis B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Trichinella spiralis

Ans: C

Matching

Reference: List of Four Diseases Select one of the following four diseases to correctly complete each of the statements below: A. Malaria B. Giardiasis C. Trypanosomiasis 487 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. Trichomoniasis

43.

may be transmitted by sexual contact.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

44.

may be mistaken for viral gastroenteritis.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

45.

in one form is transmitted by the reduviid ‘kissing bug’.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

46.

is transmitted in one form by the Anopheles mosquito.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

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47.

is associated with contaminated water.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

48.

may involve damage to cardiac nerves.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

49.

is caused by an organism that infects and destroys red blood cells.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

50.

also is referred to as sleeping sickness.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Four Diseases

51.

is accompanied by foul-smelling diarrhea. 489 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

52.

is caused by an agent that belongs to the apicomplexans.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases

53.

is caused by an agent that is pear-shaped

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

54.

is the most commonly detected protozoal disease of the intestine in US.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

55.

kills over 2 million people in the world each year.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Four Diseases 490 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

56.

may become encouraged by use of a mechanical contraceptive device.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

57.

is caused by an agent that displays bilateral symmetry.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

58.

is among the most common diseases in the US.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

59.

causes intense pruritis and burning pain during urination, with frothy discharge.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Four Diseases

60.

is caused by an agent that has four pairs of anterior flagella and two nuclei. 491 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: B Refer to: List of Four Diseases

61. Match each term on the left with its correct characteristic from the list on the right.

1. Trophozoite

A. Complex series of alveolar sacs and provides cell structure

2. Flagella

B. Dormant cell with tough covering

3. Cyst

C. Red blood cells destroyed in disease

5. Malaria

D. Active feeding form

6. Cilia

E. Short hair-like structures for motion

7. Pellicle

F. Long, whip-like locomotor structure

8. Reduviid bug

G. Disease transmitted by a tick

9. Sandfly

H. Insect infected by African sleeping sickness protozoan

10. Tsetse fly

I. transmits Trypanosoma cruzi

11. Leishmaniasis

J. Carrier of kala-azar

12. Babesiosis

K. Open sore like a volcano with a raised edge and a central crater

13. Amoebiasis

L. Appendicitis-like pains, little diarrhea or dysentery

14. Giardiasis

M. Sleeping sickness transmitted by insect bite

15. Trypanosomiasis

N. Gastric cramps and diarrhea

16. Pseudopods

O. Found on amoebae

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Ans: 1-D, 2-F, 3-B, 5-C, 6-E, 7-A, 8-I, 9-J, 10-H, 11-K, 12-G, 13-L, 14-N, 15-M, 16-O

True/False

62. True or false? Most protozoans are parasitic and thrive where there is water.

Ans: False Response: protozoa are free-living and

63. True or false? The dormant form of the protozoan is known as the trophozoite, a highly-resistant stage that possesses a thick case.

Ans: False Response: as the cyst, which is a dormant

64. True or false? Leishmaniasis causes two very different diseases. One is a sore like a volcano with a crater in the middle. The other is a visceral fever, swollen spleen and liver, WITH progressive anemia and emaciation.

Ans: True

65. True or false? One form of cryptosporidiosis is a visceral disease called kala-azar. 493 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: False Response: form of leishmaniasis is

66. True or false? Entamoeba histolytica will occasionally invade the blood and infect the liver and lungs.

Ans: True

67. True or false? The causative agent of amoebiasis is a member of the Ciliate group.

Ans: False Response: Amoeba group

68. True or false? In cases of giardiasis, the flagellated protozoa accumulate at the base of the brain and induce a deep coma in the patient.

Ans: False Response: adhere to the intestinal lining and the infected individual experiences gastric cramps and flatulence, and emits a foul-smelling watery diarrhea

69. True or false? An outbreak of Cryptosporidiosis in 1993 in Milwaukee, Wisconsin, resulted in more than 400,000 people becoming infected, making it the largest waterborne infection ever recoded in the United States. 494 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: True

70. True or false? Symptoms of Cyclospora cayetanensis infections include watery diarrhea, nausea, abdominal cramping, bloating, and vomiting, often remaining for over one month during the first illness and then returning. Ans: True

71. True or false? Cases of trichomoniasis defy treatment with any known drug.

Ans: False Response: trichomoniasis can be treated with metronidazole or tinidazole.

72. True or false? Quinine and its derivatives chloroquine are the only drugs used for treating malaria.

Ans: False Response: Quinine has been the mainstay. Chloroquine, mefloquine and artemisinin are also used

73. True or false? Malarial parasites are transmitted to the mosquito when the latter sucks human blood and acquires the gametocyte stage of the parasite in the red blood cells.

Ans: True

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74. True or false? The two types of trypanosomiasis are prevalent in South America and Africa due to the abundance of ticks in this area of the world.

Ans: False Response: American trypanosomiasis is…presence of the reduviid bug and African trypanosomiasis is …presence of the tsetse fly

75. True or false? Cases of the malaria-like disease babesiosis appear to be common where mosquitoes flourish.

Ans: False Response: to be common in the coastal areas of the Northeast where ticks are present.

76. True or false? The symptoms of babesiosis include anemia, piercing headaches and, in some cases, meningitis.

Ans: True

77. True or false? Toxoplasma gondii is known to cause severe disease in persons with AIDS.

Ans: True

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78. True or false? Toxoplasmosis rapidly invades the intestinal lining and spreads throughout the body of an infected individual. However, in immunocompetent individuals, the parasite causes no serious illness.

Ans: True

79. True or false? Individuals swimming in contaminated warm surface water can encounter Naegleria fowleri. The free-living trophozoite appear to enter the body through the mucous membranes of the mouth and proceed to infect the gastrointestinal system.

Ans: False Response: mucous membranes of the nose and then follow the olfactory tracts to the brain.

80. True or false? Helminths are among the world’s most common animal parasites. For example, 2 billion people—approximately 33 percent of the human population—are infected with soiltransmitted helminths!

Ans: True

81. True or false? The WHO estimates that 200 million people in 74 countries suffer from schistosomiasis, which kills approximately 200,000 every year. There are even about 400,000 individuals in the United States that suffer from a mild form of the disease.

Ans: True

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82. True or false? The most prevalent helminthic infection in the United States is tapeworms, where an estimated 30 percent of children and 16 percent of adults serve as hosts.

Ans: False Response: pinworms.

83. True or false? Ascaris is one of the largest intestinal nematodes; females may be up to 30 cm long, and males 20 cm long. A female Ascaris is a prolific producer of eggs, sometimes generating over 200,000 per day.

Ans: True

84. True or false? Protists are a diverse group of organisms. Some remain attached to objects, while others are free swimming. Some are heterotrophic, while others are photosynthetic. Some are even fungal-like.

Ans: True

85. True or false? Reproduction in protozoa usually occurs by the asexual process of mitosis and binary fission although many protozoa have a sexual stage.

Ans: True

Essay

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86. Write a paragraph on the types of locomotion exhibited by protozoa.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Synthesis

87. Compare the important characteristics of the six groups of protozoa.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis Page: 570-572

88. Distinguish between the typical symptoms of amoebiasis, giardiasis and cryptosporidiosis, three protozoal intestinal diseases:

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Analysis

89. Discuss the morphological and growth characteristics of protozoa considered as a group, illustrating with specific examples.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension

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90. Illustrate how each of the following protozoal blood diseases can be distinguished: malaria, trypanosomiasis, leishmaniasis, toxoplasmosis, and babesiosis.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Application

91. List the various methods by which protozoal diseases may be transmitted and state examples of diseases transmitted by each method.

Ans: Answers will vary. Bloom: Knowledge

92. Explain the meaning of each of the following terms: A. Pellicle B. Pseudopod C. Lysosome D. Bilateral symmetry E. Cilia F. Radiolarian G. Trophozoite H. Merozoite I. Kala-azar

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93. Construct a table that summarizes the salient differences between A. malaria and babesiosis, B. African and South American sleeping sickness.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Synthesis

94. List and briefly describe those protozoal diseases that are particularly dangerous in persons with AIDS.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Knowledge, comprehension

95. Sketch the life cycle of the causative agent of malaria, Plasmodium.

Ans: Answer will vary. Bloom: Comprehension

96. Discuss three helminths that have snails as a stage in their life cycle. Include similarities and differences.

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Bloom: Comprehension

Chap19, Chapter 19

Multiple Choice

1. An epidemic disease is one that A. breaks out in higher than usual proportions in a population. B. remains dormant in populations. C. follows a primary infection. D. is transmitted solely by arthropods.

Ans: A

2. A scientist who studies the patterns of disease in a community and attempts to locate its source is called a(n) A. pathologist. B. epidemiologist. C. microbiologist. D. infectiologist.

Ans: B

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3. What specific job is this person fulfilling? She isolates the cause of an outbreak, prevents its spread, and gets out public health messages to people who could have been exposed. A. Microbiologist B. Biologist C. Epidemiologist D. Public health inspector

Ans: C

4. The relationship between the human body and its microbiota A. usually leads to parasitism. B. is never beneficial to either. C. is established before birth. D. is an example of a symbiosis.

Ans: D

5. Which of the following would be the reservoir of infection for a zoonosis? A. Water B. Soil C. Human D. Animal

Ans: D

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6. Which of the following is an example of indigenous microbiota? A. Escherichia coli in the intestines B. Candida albicans in the intestines C. Lactobacillus in the human vagina D. All of the above are correct

Ans: D

7. Indigenous microbiota may be found in all of the following environments except A. the blood. B. the pharynx. C. the vagina. D. the upper respiratory tract.

Ans: A

8. Which one of the following does not contribute to the virulence of a bacterial species? A. Its ability to produce exotoxins. B. Its ability to overcome body defenses. C. Its ability to spread through the tissues. D. Its ability to grow on artificial laboratory media.

Ans: D

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9. Certain microorganisms inhabit parts of the body without causing symptoms of disease. These organisms collectively are referred to as A. indigenous microbiota. B. parasites. C. avirulent pathogens D. opportunists.

Ans: A

10. The degree to which an organism is able to cause disease is referred to as its A. chronicity. B. pathogenicity. C. acuteness. D. communicability.

Ans: B

11. Pathogenicity islands refer to A. pathogens in biofilm aggregations. B. clusters of genes responsible for virulence. C. areas of the body prone to infection. D. areas within a reservoir where pathogens can be found.

Ans: B

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12. Opportunistic organisms are those that A. usually cause disease in a previously healthy person when they enter through the correct portal of entry. B. inhabit the intestine but are incapable of causing disease. C. are usually commensals but can cause disease when body defenses are suppressed. D. require a vector.

Ans: C

13. The organisms that infect individuals with AIDS A. are all known to be serious pathogens. B. have a high degree of virulence. C. produce exotoxins as well as endotoxins. D. are examples of opportunistic organisms.

Ans: D

14. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a soil organism. Every time we eat a fresh salad, we consume millions of these organisms. They usually do us no harm. However, these same organisms can cause serious infection in persons who have been severely burned. Such a pathogen is called A. communicable. B. commensalistic. C. opportunistic. D. systemic.

Ans: C

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15. Pneumocystis pneumonia in an AIDS patient would be considered a(n) A. communicable disease. B. genetic disease. C. primary disease. D. secondary disease.

Ans: D

16. Such factors as the number of organisms, their generation time and virulence, and the level of host resistance can influence A. hemolysin and leukocidin production. B. the incubation period for a disease. C. whether or not an organism produces exotoxins. D. how the body is entered

Ans: B

17. Chronic diseases are those that A. develop rapidly and come to a climax. B. linger for long periods of time. C. occur in epidemic proportions. D. are subclinical.

Ans: B

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18. In the prodromal phase of a disease, signs and symptoms A. are at their most severe. B. may include nausea, fever, and headache. C. have begun to disappear. D. have not developed yet and there is no sign of disease.

Ans: B

19. A disease that develops rapidly, shows substantial signs and symptoms, comes to a climax, and then fades, is a(n) A. acute disease. B. prodromal disease. C. systemic disease. D. chronic disease.

Ans: A

20. The period of a disease during which the symptoms subside is often referred to as the A. period of decline. B. period of convalescence. C. prodromal phase. D. climax.

Ans: A

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21. Tetanus will not occur in the tissue of the small intestine because A. the organisms will grow, but do not produce toxins in this area. B. the body's white blood cells are particularly active. C. lymph does not flow through the intestine. D. the portal of entry for the tetanus spores was incorrect.

Ans: D

22. Adhesins may be associated with all of the following bacterial structures except A. pili. B. flagella. C. capsules. D. cilia.

Ans: D

23. Invasiveness refers to the ability of a parasite to A. enter through a variety of portals of entry. B. add to its virulence by transduction. C. penetrate tissues and cause structural damage. D. convert toxins to toxoids.

Ans: C

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24. The organisms that cause botulism and tetanus both cause disease by the production of A. spores. B. coagulase. C. exotoxins. D. anaerobic growth. Ans: C

25. An important effect of hemolysins is A. destruction of phagocytes in the blood. B. endotoxin shock. C. release of iron that the pathogen needs for its metabolism. D. lysis of neutrophils and lymphocytes.

Ans: C

26. Which one of the following does not apply to endotoxins? A. They are composed exclusively of protein. B. They are part of the bacterial cell wall. C. They are present in gram-negative bacteria. D. Endotoxins do not stimulate an immune response that leads to the production of antibodies.

Ans: A

27. Hyaluronidase is a bacterial enzyme that 510 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

A. induces blood clot formation in the host. B. encourages movement in the organism. C. enhances penetration through the host tissues. D. destroys blood clots.

Ans: C

28. Leukocidin is a bacterial enzyme that can A. enhance tissue penetration. B. destroy phagocytes. C. destroy blood clots. D. clot blood.

Ans: B

29. The ability of the body to restrict the spread of a bacterial infection might be overcome if A. exotoxins are produced by the organism. B. the portal of entry of infectious organisms is incorrect. C. the organism produces streptokinase. D. hemolysin is liberated in the environment.

Ans: C

30. Endotoxin shock may follow A. removal of the acetylcholine from the synapse. 511 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. interruption of the metabolism of gram-positive bacteria. C. injection of antitoxins to the body. D. antibiotic treatment of a disease due to gram-negative bacteria.

Ans: D

31. When the body has been exposed to exotoxins A. it will respond with toxoids. B. it will develop endotoxin shock. C. it will produce antitoxins. D. it will start to form clots.

Ans: C

32. A microbial poison produced during the metabolism of a bacterium and immediately released into the environment is a(n) A. antitoxin. B. exotoxin. C. endotoxin. D. toxoid.

Ans: B

33. If a pathogen is part of a biofilm, its virulence is enhanced because A. it can produce more toxins. 512 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. it is protected from phagocytes and drugs. C. its infectious dose is decreased. D. it is more invasive.

Ans: B

34. Endotoxins are produced by A. fungi. B. gram positive bacteria. C. gram negative bacteria. D. viruses.

Ans: C

35. Changes in the permeability of the blood vessels often accompany diseases caused by gram negative bacteria. This permits leakage of blood fluid to the intercellular spaces, and the patient may lapse into a coma. This condition is referred to as shock. A. endotoxin B. exotoxin C. toxoid D. antitoxin

Ans: A

36. All of the following are characteristics of endotoxins except 513 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

A. usual source is gram negative bacteria. B. a product of the LPS complex. C. cannot be converted to toxoid. D. can elicit antibody production.

Ans: D

37. The enzyme produced by virulent staphylococci that catalyzes the formation of a blood clot which gives them protection against phagocytosis is A. streptokinase. B. coagulase. C. hyaluronidase. D. hemolysin.

Ans: B

38. Which one of the following is not a direct method by which diseases can be transmitted? A. Touching an animal B. Inhalation of articles of mucus expelled from the respiratory tract C. Hand-shaking D. Fomites

Ans: D

39. Which of the following is an example of vehicle transmission? 514 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

A. Gonorrhea acquired through sexual intercourse with an infected person B. A cold acquired through inhalation of respiratory droplets C. Salmonellosis acquired through ingestion of contaminated food D. Malaria acquired through the bite of a mosquito

Ans: C

40. A person who harbors a pathogen and is a source of infection to the next person is best referred to as a(n) A. acute source. B. chronic source. C. subclinical source. D. carrier.

Ans: D

41. A disease that is usually present at a low level in a certain geographic area is said to be A. epidemic. B. pandemic. C. endemic. D. ubiquitous.

Ans: C

42. A disease that is found in high numbers world wide such as HIV/AIDS is said to be A. epidemic. 515 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. pandemic. C. endemic. D. ubiquitous.

Ans: B

43. An abnormally high number of measles cases in one American city would be classified as a(an) A. epidemic. B. pandemic. C. endemic. D. outbreak.

Ans: D

44. Nosocomial infections account for an estimated 2 million infections and 90,000 deaths each year in the United States. Which of the following is not a common cause? A. Inefficient air handling mechanisms B. A high prevalence of pathogens in a hospital C. A high number of patients who represent compromised hosts and susceptible to pathogens D. Efficient mechanisms of transmission from patient to patient

Ans: A

True/False

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45. True or False? When the natural resistance is unable to overcome the aggressiveness of microorganisms, disease sets in.

Ans: True

46. True or False? Organisms in a commensalistic relationship with the human body derive benefit from the body but neither harm nor benefit the body.

Ans: True

47. True or False? Parasites vary greatly in their pathogenicity.

Ans: True

48. True or False? Acute diseases are those that take a long time to develop and then linger for long periods in the body.

Ans: False Response: Chronic diseases are those that take a long time to develop and then linger for long periods in the body.

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49. True or False? The incubation period of a disease reflects the time that passes between entry of the parasite to the host and the decline of the disease.

Ans: False Response: The incubation period of a disease reflects the time that passes between entry of the parasite into the host and the appearance of symptoms.

50. True or False? The number of organisms that must be taken into the body for disease to occur is essentially the same for all infectious agents.

Ans: False Response: The number of organisms that must be taken into the body for disease to occur varies between different infectious agents.

51. True or False? In a subclinical infection, few symptoms are evident in the patient, whereas in a clinical infection, the symptoms are apparent.

Ans: True

52.. True or False? All pathogens have a single portal of entry into to the host that allows it to infect and cause disease.

Ans: False Response: Some pathogens have more than one portal of entry into to the host that allows it to infect and cause disease.

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53. True or False? Altered endotoxins may be used as immunizing agents because they induce the body to produce special antibodies called antitoxins.

Ans: False Response: Altered exotoxins may be used as immunizing agents because they induce the body to produce special antibodies called antitoxins.

54. True or False? Coagulase-positive staphylococci resist body defenses by surrounding themselves with a fibrin clot, thereby escaping phagocytosis.

Ans: True

55. True or False? Leukocidin is a product of the body's white blood cells that reacts with bacteria and dissolves them, thereby destroying the bacteria.

Ans: False Response: Leukocidin is a product of bacteria that destroys leukocytes

56. True or False? In noncommunicable diseases, the infectious agent is usually acquired from the environment and is not easily transmitted to the next host.

Ans: True

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57. True or False? Mechanical vectors are arthropods that carry microbes on their body parts from one host to another, but are not infected with the microbe themselves.

Ans: True

58. True or False? Direct methods for the transmission of disease include consumption of contaminated food or water, an arthropod bite, and contact with fomites.

Ans: False Response: Indirect methods for the transmission of disease include consumption of contaminated food or water, an arthropod bite, and contact with fomites.

59. True or False? An arthropod that is infected with a certain parasite and that can transmit that parasite to a new host is considered a mechanical vector.

Ans: False Response: An arthropod that is infected with a certain parasite and that can transmit that parasite to a new host is considered a biological vector.

60. True or False? Reservoirs of infection include animals, humans, water, and soil.

Ans: True

61. True or False? The most common nosocomial infections are infection of surgical wounds, or infections to the respiratory, urogenital, or gastrointestinal tracts. 520 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: True

62. True or False? Nosocomial infections are often caused by breaches of infection control practices and procedures, unclean and non-sterile environmental surfaces, and/or ill employees.

Ans: True

Essay

69. Compare and contrast clinical and subclinical diseases.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 618

70. Compare and contrast acute and chronic diseases

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 618

71. Compare and contrast primary and secondary diseases 521 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 614

72. Compare and contrast local and systemic diseases

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 614

73. Compare and contrast communicable and contagious diseases

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 626

74. Define the term indigenous microbiota and identify where they may be found in the body.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 610

75. Differentiate between infection and disease.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 609. 522 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

76. Describe the effects of four different bacterial exotoxins and how they contribute to disease.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 623

77. Describe the progress of influenza through its various stages by indicating what occurs during each phase or period of disease.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 615

78. Differentiate between toxins and antitoxins.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 623

79. Differentiate between coagulase and streptokinase.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 621

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80. Differentiate between epidemic and endemic

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 628

81. Compare and contrast commensal and parasite

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 610 and 613

82. . Describe the effects of four different enzymatic virulence factors and how they contribute to the establishment of an infection in the body.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 621

83. Compose a paragraph outlining the major factors contributing to nosocomial infections and what can be done to limit them.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 636

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84. There are several reasons why there are new emerging and reemerging infectious diseases worldwide. Explain five of the major ones.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 639

Matching

Reference: List of Virulence Factors Select one of the following four virulence factors to correctly complete each of the statements in the following questions. A. Hyaluronidase B. Exotoxin C. Coagulase D. Endotoxin

85.

sometimes is called the spreading factor.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Virulence factors

86.

is a product of metabolism in many gram-positive bacteria.

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Ans: B Refer to: List of Virulence factors

87.

is part of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Virulence factors

88.

is produced by virulent staphylococci.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Virulence factors

89.

elicits the production of antitoxins.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Virulence factors

90.

enhances resistance to phagocytosis by forming a clot.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Virulence factors 526 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

91.

may be altered to form toxoids.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Virulence factors

92.

digests hyaluronic acid to its component molecules.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Virulence factors

93.

contributes to the invasiveness of an organism.

Ans: A Refer to: List of Virulence factors

94.

consists of part of the outer membrane of the cell wall.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Virulence factors

95.

may cause circulatory damage and shock. 527 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: D Refer to: List of Virulence factors

96.

is identified by combining staphylococci with rabbit plasma.

Ans: C Refer to: List of Virulence factors

97.

is released when the organism is killed.

Ans: D Refer to: List of Virulence factors

Chap20,Chapter 20

Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following scientists was an early pioneer in immunology with the first vaccination against smallpox? A. Metchnikoff B. Jenner C. Pasteur 528 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. Yersin

Ans: B

2. Which early scientist proposed the theory of phagocytosis, where human white blood cells could capture and destroy disease causing microbes inside the body? A. Metchnikoff B. Jenner C. Pasteur D. Yersin

Ans: A

3. Which early scientist developed vaccines for chicken cholera and rabies? A. Metchnikoff B. Jenner C. Pasteur D. Yersin

Ans: C

4. Which of the following is the best definition for innate immunity? A. Resistance is a response to a particular microbe. B. A response that is directed only against a particular microbe C. A system that protects us against trauma and disease 529 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. Several nonspecific defenses present in all humans from the time of birth.

Ans: D

5. What is the name for the scientific study of how the immune system functions in the body to prevent or destroy foreign material, such as pathogens? A. Immunology B. Epidemiology C. Pathology D. Microbiology

Ans: A

6. The fluid portion of blood is A. lymph. B. serum. C. formed elements. D. clotting agents.

Ans: B

7. Neutrophils are those leukocytes that function A. in the production of antibodies. B. as manufacturers of clotting agents. C. as phagocytes in body resistance. 530 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. to neutralize acidic environments.

Ans: C

8. The blood cell that contains cytotoxic granules that are particularly useful in killing multicellular parasites is the A. neutrophil. B. natural killer cells. C. eosinophil. D. monocyte.

Ans: C

9. Which of the following cells are leukocytes? A. Erythrocytes B. Platelets C. Thrombocytes D. Neutrophils

Ans: D

10. Which of the following cells are agranulocytes? A. Neutrophils B. Monocytes C. Eosinophils 531 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. Basophils

Ans: B

11. All the following apply to the body's white blood cells except A. they have no pigment in their cytoplasm, so appear grayish when unstained. B. they are produced in the bone marrow. C. they carry oxygen to the tissues. D. they include cells that function in innate immunity and cells that function in acquired immunity.

Ans: C

12. Which of the following is true about both macrophages and neutrophils? A. Are phagocytes B. Have large granules in the cytoplasm C. Lack a nucleus D. Have a life span of about 10 years

Ans: A

13. A nonspecific leukocyte that destroys tumor cells and cells that are infected with viruses is the A. basophil. B. neutrophil. C. NK cell. D. monocyte. 532 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: C

14. Which of the following blood cells has the shortest life-span? A. Erythrocytes B. Neutrophils C. Monocytes D. Macrophages

Ans: B

15. Which of the following is not a lymphocyte? A. B cells B. T cells C. Monocytes D. NK cells

Ans: C

16. Which of the following leukocytes are involved in acquired immunity? A. Monocytes and macrophages B. Basophils and eosinophils C. Neutrophils and NK cells D. B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes 533 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: D

17. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid tissue? A. Spleen B. Thymus C. Lymph nodes D. Appendix

Ans: B

18. Which of the following are secondary lymphoid tissues? A. Lymph nodes B. Appendix C. Tonsils D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: D

19. All of the following are functions of the lymphatic system except A. forms an alternate pathway for blood circulation. B. maintains and distributes lymphocytes. C. monitors for pathogens. D. filters extracellular fluid before returning it to the circulatory system.

Ans: A 534 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

20. Which of the following is the function of secondary lymphoid tissues? A. Sites where immune cells form B. Where mature immune cells interact with pathogens and carry out the acquired immune response C. Returns body fluids to the circulatory system D. Responsible for the production of blood cells.

Ans: B

21. Locations in the body where mature immune cells interact with pathogens are likely to be in the A. membranes of the brain. B. lymph nodes and spleen. C. thymus gland. D. bone marrow where red cells are formed.

Ans: B

22. Which of the following organs is part of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues (MALT)? A. Peyer patches B. Lymph nodes C. Spleen D. All of the above are correct

Ans: A 535 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

23. The cells that have long, thin cytoplasmic extensions, are found in various body tissues and are very important in activation of lymphocytes are the A. Dendritic cells. B. Eosinophils. C. Neutrophils. D. T cells.

Ans: A

24. Innate immunity is the form of immunity that A. requires T and B lymphocytes. B. takes place only in the blood. C. responds quickly to many common microbial features but not to host features. D. occurs in the thymus

Ans: C

25. Lysozyme acts on bacteria by A. inhibiting protein synthesis in all bacteria. B. stimulating interferon production. C. destroying the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria. D. interfering with the motility of bacteria.

Ans: C 536 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

26. Which of the following are mechanical barriers in the body's first line of defense? A. Intact skin B. Lysozymes in tears C. Normal microbiota like Lactobacillus lining the vaginal tract D. Mucus lining the upper respiratory tract

Ans: A

27. Chemical barriers to infection include all of the following except A. stomach acid. B. defensins. C. mucus D. low pH of vaginal secretions.

Ans: C

28. A compound that digests the cell wall of gram positive bacteria is A. bile. B. lysozyme. C. interferon. D. stomach acid.

Ans: B 537 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

29. All of the following are true about chemical defensins except A. found and produced on the skin surface. B. produced by phagocytic cells. C. produced in the bone marrow. D. produced by epithelial cells that line the respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital tracts.

Ans: C

30. Which of the following protects against colonization of pathogens by taking up space and nutrients on the skin and mucosa? A. Nonpathogenic microbes that live on those surfaces B. Mast cells C. Sebum D. Phagocytes

Ans: A

31. When Metchnikoff put a splinter into the body of a starfish larva, he saw that it was soon surrounded by wandering cells. He was observing a process that today is described as A. neutralization. B. opsonization. C. escortation. D. phagocytosis.

Ans: D 538 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

32. What is a phagolysosome? A. When a phagocyte starts to produce lysosomes B. When a defensin starts producing hydrogen peroxide C. When a phagosome fuses with several lysosomes to digest a pathogen D. A structure formed during the respiratory burst following phagocytosis

Ans: C

33. Opsonins may be described as A. types of white blood cells that are especially efficient phagocytes. B. substances that enhance the efficiency of phagocytosis. C. short antibacterial peptides. D. types of bacterial exotoxins that destroy white blood cells.

Ans: B

34. Which one of the following is not a toxic substance within the phagolysosome? A. Nitric oxide (NO) B. Superoxide anion (O 2-) C. Chemokines D. Acid hydrolases

Ans: C 539 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

35. Chemokines are cytokines that A. activate the acquired immune response. B. .stimulate neutrophils to migrate to the site of an infection C. induce an antiviral state in a cell D. All the above are correct.

Ans: D

36. At the site of tissue damage and/or infection, tissue macrophages secrete cytokines that induce A. vasodilation and increased vascular permeability, allowing more cells and fluid into the area. B. destruction of cells in the area so that the infection does not spread. C. septic shock in the area. D. bleeding to increase the blood in the area.

Ans: A

37. Which of the following is not one of the four cardinal signs of inflammation? A. Redness B. Pain C. Swelling D. Bleeding.

Ans: D

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38. A chemical circulating in the blood that causes a fever to develop is called a A. Pyogen. B. Pyrogen. C. Histamine. D. Perforin.

Ans: B

39. Pus is often found in infections. It is composed of A. fluid leaking out of the blood vessels. B. the digested material expelled from the phagocyte. C. dead and dying neutrophils and damaged tissues. D. fibrin clots.

Ans: C

40. All of the following are true about a low to moderate fever except A. it may be beneficial in immune defense. B. it may inhibit the rapid growth of pathogens. C. it may cause convulsion and death. D. it increases the body’s rate of tissue repair.

Ans: C

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41. The function of the formation of a fibrin clot during an inflammatory response to a bacterial infection is to A. wall off the infecting bacteria to prevent their spread. B. poison the bacteria. C. signal a response from specific lymphocytes. D. enhance diapedesis.

Ans: A

42. Natural killer (NK) cells can be described by all of the following except A. NK cells have special receptors for target cells on the surface of their membrane. B. NK cells recognize the body’s cells and do not attack them. C. NK cells secrete several cytokines that trigger responses from macrophages and other cells. D. NK cells are phagocytes that rely on Class I MHC proteins to recognize the body’s cells.

Ans: D

43. NK cells secrete two enzymes that attack foreign, virus infected or cancerous cells. What are they? A. Histamine and lysozymes B. Perforin and granzymes C. Heparin and granzymes D. Pyrogen and lysozymes

Ans: B

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44. All of the following statements are true about complement except A. it contributes to enhancement of the inflammatory response and phagocytosis. B. it may be activated by three different pathways. C. it is a single protein that circulates in the blood. D. it can lead to formation of the membrane attack complex.

Ans: C

45. Which one of the following is not an effect of complement activation? A. Production of substances that trigger an inflammatory response B. Lysis of pathogens C. Enhancement of T cell function through production of cytokines D. Opsonization

Ans: C

46. The innate immune system recognizes pathogens by identifying PAMPS, unique microbial molecular sequences that are not found on host cells. The receptors on macrophages, dendritic cells and endothelial cells that bind to these PAMPS are called A. chemokine receptors. B. toll-like receptors. C. opsonin receptors D. acute phase proteins

Ans: B

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Matching

Reference: List of innate system functions Select one of the following four choices to correctly complete each of the statements below. A. Inflammation B. Natural killer cells C. Phagocyte D. Eosinophil

47.

was first described by Elie Metchnikoff.

Ans: C Refer to: List of innate system functions

48.

can move out of the circulation to engulf foreign particles or pathogens

Ans: C Refer to: List of innate system functions

49.

results in redness, heat, pain, and swelling. 544 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: A Refer to: List of innate system functions

50.

may develop from mechanical injury such as a blow to the skin.

Ans: A Refer to: List of innate system functions

51.

attack cells when MHC proteins are absent.

Ans: B Refer to: List of innate system functions

52. contain granules that contain toxic compounds to defend against multicellular parasites, such as flukes and tapeworms

Ans: D Refer to: List of innate system functions

53.

is inhibited by a bacterial capsule.

Ans: C Refer to: List of innate system functions 545 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

54.

involves granzymes and perforins.

Ans: B Refer to: List of innate system functions

Short Answer

55. Name the antibacterial enzyme found in tears and saliva.

Ans: lysozyme

56. What is the organelle that contains digestive enzymes?

Ans: lysosome

57. What is diapedesis?

Ans: Diapedesis is the process by which leukocytes leave the blood to enter infected tissues.

True/False 546 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

58. True or False? Innate immunity, consists of several nonspecific defenses present in all humans from the time of birth.

Ans: True

59. True or False? The polymorphonuclear neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages are primarily concerned with phagocytosis.

Ans: True

60. True or False? The lymphocyte is a leukocyte with a single nucleus that exists in the lymph nodes and functions in the immune system.

Ans: True

61. True or False? Innate immunity develops over the course of the infection, taking several days to more than a week to mount an effective response and a protective defense.

Ans: False Response: Acquired immunity develops over the course of the infection, taking several days to more than a week to mount an effective response and a protective defense.

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62. True or False? A natural barrier to the intestine is provided by the extremely alkaline environment of the stomach contents.

Ans: False Response: A natural barrier to the intestine is provided by the extremely acidic environment of the stomach contents.

63. True or False? A mixture of plasma dead tissue cells, leukocytes, and dead bacteria enclosed in a wall of fibrin yields an abscess or boil.

Ans: True

64. True or False? The internalization of a microbe into phagocyte is enhanced when the microbe is coated with certain serum proteins, such as antibodies or complement. These protein molecules, called opsonins, attach to microbes and increase the ability of phagocytes to adhere to the pathogen.

Ans: True

65. True or False? The immune system responds to invasion by pathogenic microbes by mounting a rapid innate response, followed several days later by the development of antibodies and lymphocytes as part of the acquired immune response.

Ans: True

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66. True or False? Toll-like receptors (TLRs) are signaling receptors on macrophages, dendritic cells, and endothelial cells membrane that accelerate the formation of phagolysosomes and faster killing of engulfed microbes.

Ans: True

Essay

67. Identify the different leukocytes of the human blood system and explain the function of each cell type.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 646

68. Describe two mechanical and two chemical barriers to infection and indicate how each provides nonspecific resistance.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 650, 651

69. Evaluate the importance of inflammation in the nonspecific defenses of the body.

Ans: Answers will vary. 549 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Page: 654-656 Chap21, Chapter 21

Multiple Choice

1. The theory of specific immunologic tolerance suggests that A. a person’s own cells do not stimulate an immune response. B. antibodies are produced by only one clone of cells. C. antigens tolerate self-destruction by phagocytes. D. antibodies react specifically with immunologic substances.

Ans: A

2. Antigenic determinants are the parts of antigen molecules that A. code for antibody molecules. B. stimulate phagocytosis. C. stimulate the immune system. D. clot blood.

Ans: C

3. Haptens are poor stimulators of immunity because haptens may be A. inability to perform cross-linking. 550 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. too small to recognize the antigens at the receptor sites. C. unable to locate the proper B cell. D. easily digested by the phagocytes.

Ans: A

4. Which one of the following are not immunogenic? A. Components of bacterial capsules B. Flagella proteins C. Pilus protein D. Haptens

Ans: D

5. The cell-surface receptor on a B cell is a(n) A. molecule of polysaccharide. B. cluster of haptens. C. antigen. D. antibody molecule.

Ans: D

6. Which cells can develop into antibody producing cells? A. T lymphocytes B. B lymphocytes 551 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

C. Dendritic cells D. Macrophages

Ans: B

7. The theory called clonal selection specifies that A. exposure to an antigen activates only those T- and B-cells with receptors recognizing specific epitopes on the antigen. B. the activation of Tcells produces antibodies that recognize epitopes. C. T cells are involved in the process by which antibodies are produced against epitopes. D. B cellsprovide resistance through direct cell-to-cell contact with and lysis of infected or otherwise abnormal cells.

Ans: A

8. The immune response to intracellular pathogens is controlled and regulated by A. T cells. B. B cells. C. dendritic cells. D. natural killer cells.

Ans: A

9. The theory of clonal selection refers to the A. activity of cytotoxic and helper T cells. 552 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. activation of naïve lymphocytes with receptors for a certain epitope. C. conversion of plasma cell to B lymphocyte. D. reversion of clones of B lymphocytes to clones of selected T lymphocytes.

Ans: B

10. Which one of the following does not apply to plasma cells? A. They secrete antibodies. B. They are derived from B cells. C. They carry out their functions by producing cytokines. D. They are effector cells.

Ans: C

11. The ability to mount an efficient secondary antibody response depends on A. memory T and B cells. B. high concentrations of IgA antibody. C. cross-linking of IgM antibodies. D. All the above are correct.

Ans: A

12. T-lymphocyte stimulation by specific antigens leads to a type of immunity called A. cell-mediated immunity. B. antibody-mediated immunity. 553 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

C. innate immunity. D. species immunity.

Ans: A

14. Which of the following cells undergo clonal selection when their antigen receptors bind to an antigen? A. B cells B. CD4 T cells C. CD8 T cells D. All of the above

Ans: D

15. The cell that matures in the thymus gland A. localizes in the skin tissues. B. becomes a plasma cell. C. is responsible for cell-mediated immunity. D. produces antibodies.

Ans: C

16. Which of the following cells has specific antigen receptors, has to interact with antigen presenting cells in order to be activated, and kills host cells that are infected with viruses? A. B cells B. Helper T cells 554 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

C. Cytotoxic T cells D. Natural Killer cells

Ans: C

17. The thymus A. is where lymphoid progenitor cells mature into immunocompetent T cells. B. is where B cells mature into plasma cells. C. selectively destroys B lymphocytes. D. is involved in the humoral immune response.

Ans: A

18. The site on an antibody molecule that can be bound by a phagocyte is part of the A. Fab fragment. B. variable region. C. light chain. D. Fc fragment.

Ans: D

19. The portion of the immunoglobulin molecule that contains the antigen binding site can be described as all of the following, except A. composed of parts of the light chain and the heavy chain. B. is called the Fab fragment. 555 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

C. composed of variable domains. D. is called the Fc fragment.

Ans: D

20. Which of the following are functions of the Fc fragment? A. It can combine with phagocytes in opsonization. B. It may activate the complement system in resistance mechanisms. C. It might attach to certain cells in allergic reactions. D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: D

21. An antibody is a protein composed of A. a single polypeptide chain. B. a heavy polypeptide chain joined to a light polypeptide chain. C. two heavy polypeptide chains with each joined to a light polypeptide chain. D. two identical polypeptide chains.

Ans: D

22. All of the following are true of IgG except A. it confers immunity to the fetus. B. it is the important factor of the secondary antibody response. C. it is the major circulating antibody. 556 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. it is critically important in allergic reaction.

Ans: D

23. The

antibody class is referred to as the maternal antibody.

A. IgM B. IgA C. IgE D. IgG

Ans: D

24. The first antibody produced in a primary antibody response is A. IgG. B. IgM. C. IgA. D. IgD.

Ans: B

25. Colostrum contains A. IgG. B. IgM. C. IgA. D. IgD. 557 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: C

26. Which of the following is NOT true about the secondary response to a particular antigen? A. Faster than the primary response B. Higher antibody titer than the primary response C. Memory cells are involved D. Happens the first time the antigen stimulates the lymphocytes

Ans: D

27. Antibodies can protect against viral infection by binding to epitopes on the viruses which A. kills the virus. B. prevents the virus from attaching to host cells. C. causes agglutination of the viral particles. D. None of the above: antibodies offer no protection against viruses.

Ans: B

28. The neutralization of toxin molecules by antitoxins accomplishes all the following except A. increases the activity between toxins and interleukins. B. prevents toxin from binding to cells. C. prevents toxic effects on cells. D. lessens the ability of toxins to diffuse through the tissues. 558 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: A

29. Antibodies binding to antigens can trigger A. opsonization. B. activation of complement. C. neutralization. D. All the above are correct.

Ans: D

30. Macrophages are involved in A. presenting antigen fragments to T cells. B. phagocytosis. C. destroying antigen-antibody complexes. D. All the above are correct.

Ans: D

31. Which one of the following is not an effect of complement activation? A. Lysis of a bacterial cell through cytoplasmic leakage B. Attraction of phagocytes C. Enhanced T-lymphocyte activity through thymus gland interaction D. Opsonization of bacterial surfaces

Ans: C 559 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

32. CD8 co-receptor proteins are found on A. helper T cells. B. macrophages. C. cytotoxic T cells. D. plasma cells.

Ans: C

33. CD4 co-receptor proteins are found on A. helper T cells. B. macrophages. C. cytotoxic T cells. D. plasma cells.

Ans: A

34. Which of the following molecules are found on the surface of all nucleated cells in the body? A. Immunoglobulin B. MHC Class I molecules C. MHC Class II molecules D. TCRs

Ans: B 560 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

35. Which of the following molecules are only found on the surface of antigen presenting cells? A. Immunoglobulin B. MHC Class I molecules C. MHC Class II molecules D. TCRs

Ans: C

36. Which one of the following is not associated with interleukin-1? A. It is secreted by macrophages. B. It activates helper T cells. C. It stimulates antigen-antibody reactions. D. It is produced in response to APC binding to T cell.

Ans: C

37. The cells that are responsible for killing abnormal cells such as tumor cells are A. Phagocytes such as macrophages. B. Helper T cells. C. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes. D. B cells.

Ans: C

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38. Cytotoxic T cells release which of the following cytokines in cell to cell combat? A. Lysozyme and histamine B. Perforin and granzyme C. Lysozyme and perforin D. Granzyme and histamine

Ans: B

39. The only cells required in an antibody response to T-independent antigens are A. B lymphocytes. B. T lymphocytes. C. natural killer cells. D. macrophages.

Ans: B

40. Superantigens are A. antigens that bind directly to MHC protein on T cells. B. extraordinarily large antigens on B cells. C. haptens + carrier proteins. D. None of the above are correct.

Ans: A

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True/False

41. True or False? The antigenic determinant site is a geographical location on the antigen molecule that often consists of a number of molecules.

Ans: True

42. True or False? The immune system will attack "self" only under conditions of enhanced specific immunologic tolerance.

Ans: False Response: The immune system will attack "self" only under conditions where enhanced specific immunologic tolerance is lost.

43. True or False? Antibody response to a hapten occurs before the hapten has combined with tissue proteins or polysaccharides to form a complete antigen.

Ans: False Response: Antibody response to a hapten occurs after the hapten has combined with tissue proteins or polysaccharides to form a complete antigen.

44. True or False? Immunogens are antigens.

Ans: True 563 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

45. True or False? Most immunogenic molecules s are large, complex molecules that are not normally present in the body.

Ans: True

46. True or False? In an immune response, it is important that the response be strong enough to eliminate the pathogen yet controlled so as not to cause extensive damage to the tissues and organs of the body.

Ans: True

47. True or False? On antigenic stimulation, the plasma cells revert to B lymphocytes, which produce antibodies for humoral immunity.

Ans: False Response: On antigenic stimulation, activated B lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells, which produce antibodies for humoral immunity.

48. True or False? The genetic code for synthesizing the surface receptor is present in an individual even though the individual has not ever been exposed to that antigen.

Ans: True

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49. True or False? Innate immunity is due to the specific production of T cell and B cell clones in response to an antigen.

Ans: False Response: Acquired immunity is exemplified by the nonspecific resistance produced in response to an antigen.

50. True or False? A large percentage of developing T and B cells that normally would react with self antigens, are destroyed respectively in the thymus and bone marrow through apoptosis.

Ans: True

51. True or False? The Fc and Fab fragments refer to sites on the antigen molecule that stimulate antibody production.

Ans: False Response: The epitope portions refer to sites on the antigen molecule that stimulate antibody production.

52. True or False? The Fc fragment can combine with phagocytes in opsonization; it may activate the complement system in resistance mechanisms; or it might attach to certain cells in allergic reactions.

Ans: True

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53. True or False? The secretory antibody IgA may be found in the tears, saliva, gastrointestinal tract and colostrum.

Ans: True

54. True or False? During a secondary immune response, B cells are activated and the effector cells and the plasma cells, start producing and secreting antibody. There is a lag of several days before any measurable antibodies appear.

Ans: False Response: During a primary immune response, B cells are activated and the effector cells and the plasma cells, start producing and secreting antibody. There is a lag of several days before any measurable antibodies appear.

55. True or False? The mixing and matching of immunoglobulin gene segments produces unique antibodies.

Ans: True

56. True or False? The process of somatic recombination is a random mixing and matching of antibodies to form unique antigen molecules.

Ans: False Response: The process of somatic recombination is a random mixing and matching of gene segments that produce unique antibody genes.

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57. True or False? Activated T cells help with both cellular and humoral immunity.

Ans: True

58. True or False? I MHC proteins are found on all nucleated cells of the body. If these proteins contain an antigen fragment from an infecting virus, cytotoxic T cells will bind to it with their TCR/CD8 receptor complex.

Ans: True

Fill-in-the-blank

59. Effector B cells are called

Ans: plasma cells

60. B lymphocytes mature in the

Ans: bone marrow

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61. The molecule that presents antigenic protein fragments to cytotoxic T cells is

Ans: MHC Class I

Matching

Reference: List of cell or humoral Select one of the following two choices to correctly match the description A. Humoral immunity B. Cell-mediated immunity

62.

involves helper and cytotoxic T lymphocytes.

Ans: B Refer to: List of cell or humoral

63.

is mediated by B cells that mature in the bone marrow.

Ans: A Refer to: List of cell or humoral

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64.

provides resistance to tuberculosis and viral infected cells.

Ans: B Refer to: List of cell or humoral

65.

is characterized by the release of interleukins.

Ans: B Refer to: List of cell or humoral

66.

involves the production of antibodies.

Ans: A Refer to: List of cell or humoral

67.

involves granzymes and perforins.

Ans: B Refer to: List of cell or humoral

68.

involves plasma cells produced from B lymphocytes.

Ans: A Refer to: List of cell or humoral 569 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

69.

is activated by a B cell binding specific antigen.

Ans: A Refer to: List of cell or humoral

70.

involves cytotoxic T lymphocytes attacking virus-infected cells.

Ans: B Refer to: List of cell or humoral

71.

produces five classes of immunoglobulins.

Ans: A Refer to: List of cell or humoral

72.

requires T cell maturation through the secretion of IL-2.

Ans: B Refer to: List of cell or humoral

73.

requires antigenic peptides to be bound to MHC proteins. 570 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: B Refer to: List of cell or humoral

Reference: List of terms Match each description with the correct term. A. CD8 coreceptor B. Epitopes C. Dendritic cells D. Interleukin-1 E. Interleukin-2 F. CD4 co-receptor G. Perforin H. Opsonin

74.

Antigen presenting cells

Ans: C Refer to: List of terms

75.

Attached to the surface of helper T cells

Ans: F Refer to: List of terms

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76.

Secreted by macrophages to stimulate T cells

Ans: D Refer to: List of terms

77.

Antibody or complement protein that encourages phagocytosis

Ans: H Refer to: List of terms

78.

Attached to the surface of cytotoxic T cells

Ans: A Refer to: List of terms

79.

Antigenic determinants

Ans: B Refer to: List of terms

80.

Stimulates T cells to divide and mature

Ans: E 572 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Refer to: List of terms

81.

Toxin released by cytotoxic T lymphocytes

Ans: G Refer to: List of terms

Reference: List of antibody classes Match each description with its immunoglobulin. A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgE E. IgD

82.

higher levels indicates a very recent infection

Ans: C Refer to: List of antibody classes

83.

provides protection in the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts

Ans: B 573 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Refer to: List of antibody classes

84.

major circulating antibody

Ans: A Refer to: List of antibody classes

85.

maternal antibody that crosses the placenta

Ans: A Refer to: List of antibody classes

86.

important in allergic reactions

Ans: D Refer to: List of antibody classes

Essay

87. Identify and describe each of the four major characteristics of an acquired immune response. 574 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 669-672

88. Describe the clonal selection of B cells, beginning with arrival of antigen in the lymph node. Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 674

89. Describe the activation of cytotoxic T cells.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 689

90. Explain how CTLs eliminate a cell infected with a virus.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 689

91. Illustrate the origin of the immune system beginning with the hematopoietic stem cell in the fetus and proceeding to the lymphocytes in the lymph nodes.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 675

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92. Distinguish between the five classes of antibodies with regard to body location and function.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 675

93. Identify and explain five different mechanisms by which antibodies interact with antigens and trigger possible death to the microorganism.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 683

94. Explain the importance of somatic recombination to antibody mediated immunity.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 679

95. State the type of cell (be specific) that the human immunodeficiency virus infects and briefly explain how this leads to a profoundly impaired immune responses. (Hint: include the functions of the cell!)

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 690 Chap22, Chapter 22

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Multiple Choice

1. With the development of modern vaccines we have brought which of the following diseases to the point where we can now say it has been eradicated? A. Smallpox B. Polio C. Diptheria D. Pertussis Ans: A

2. How does an individual gain naturally acquired active immunity? A. Get the disease and recover from it. B. Be exposed exposed to the disease, but have a subclinical case. C. Be born with a natural immunity to the disease. D. Both A and B are correct, but not C. Ans: D

3. An individual generally acquires natural active immunity after A. an injection of IgG. B. an infusion of T lymphocytes. C. a blood transfusion. D. suffering an illness.

Ans: D

4. Active immunity develops after the A. antigens enter the body and induce an immune response. 577 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. antiserum is injected into the body. C. antibodies pass across the placenta to the fetus. D. antibodies pass in the colostrum to the newborn.

Ans: A

5. Which of the following types of vaccines induce the strongest immune response, sometimes giving a lifelong immunity? A. Conjugate vaccine B. DNA vaccine C. Live attenuated vaccine D. Recombinant subunit vaccine

Ans: C

6. The intentional injection of an attenuated virus into a person will lead to A. naturally acquired active immunity. B. artificially acquired active immunity. C. naturally acquired passive immunity. D. artificially acquired passive immunity.

Ans: B

7. The Sabin oral polio vaccine is prepared with system.

polioviruses that stimulate the immune

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A. activated B. attenuated C. killed D. parts of

Ans: B

8. Attenuated viral vaccines are more difficult to use in developing countries than inactivated viral vaccines because

A. they require more booster shots. B. they require refrigeration to retain their effectiveness. C. it is difficult finding enough sterile needles for them. D. it is difficult finding enough medical personnel to administer the vaccines. Ans: B

9. Which of the following is a drawback to the use of inactivated vaccines? A. Booster shots are required to maintain immunity for long periods of time. B. They have to be kept refrigerated. C. They have a short shelf life. D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: A

10. Immunity to the disease

may be stimulated by injection of a preparation of

A. pertussis; attenuated viruses B. meningitis; inactivated virus C. diphtheria; toxoid 579 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. measles; bacterial fragments

Ans: C

11. Which of the following is a single-dose vaccine? A. Sabin polio vaccine B. Diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine C. Salk polio vaccine D. All of the above are single-dose vaccines.

Ans: B

12. Subunit vaccines are those that use A. parts of antibody molecules as antigens. B. fragments of phagocytes in solution. C. parts of microorganisms such as pili and capsular polysaccharides. D. preparations of haptens.

Ans: C

13. Conjugate vaccines contain toxoids because A. toxoids are much easier to store. B. polysaccharide antigens by themselves produce a weak immune response. C. they are only used for diseases caused by toxins. D. the pathogen that they are designed to protect against has no other antigens. 580 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: B

14. Which of the following vaccines are conjugate vaccines where part of the capsular polysaccharides are added to a tetanus or diphtheria toxoid? A. Hib B. MMR C. Salk polio D. Sabin polio

Ans: A

15. Recombinant subunit vaccines have been developed against A. polio. B. hepatitis B. C. tetanus. D. None of the above is correct.

Ans: B

16. Passive immunity can A. involve an injection of antibodies. B. be acquired by a child from its mother. C. be administered with a convalescent serum. D. All the above are correct. 581 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: D

17. A child receiving antibodies in the colostrum during nursing has acquired immunity that is A. passive and active. B. natural and artificial. C. passive and natural. D. artificial and passive.

Ans: C

18. Serum sickness may accompany the development in the body of A. cell-mediated immunity. B. the complement cascade. C. artificial passive immunity. D. natural active immunity.

Ans: C

19. When the immune system recognizes a foreign protein in a serum injection, immune complexes form and complement is activated, a person may develop a type of reaction called A. immune complex disease. B. anaphylaxis. C. hypersensitivity. D. serum sickness. 582 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: D

20. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of convalescent serum? A. It protects against an illness. B. It is derived from the blood of a patient recovering from an illness. C. It is used to treat an established disease. D. It is made from a pool of sera from animals.

Ans: D

21. Herd immunity is affected by all the following factors except A. the environment. B. antibiotic use. C. immune system strength. D. the number of vaccinated people in the population.

Ans: B

22. Which one of the following is not related to antibody titer? A. The amount of antibodies present in the serum B. The progress of a disease C. The level of immunity in a patient D. The degree of activity of T lymphocytes 583 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: D

23. A neutralization reaction may be observed in the laboratory by A. noting the agglutination of red blood cells. B. injecting the antigen-antibody mixture to an animal. C. watching for precipitate formation. D. observing the fixing of complement.

Ans: B

24. You are carrying out a serological test. You first mix a sample of diphtheria toxin with the patient's serum, inject it into a mouse, then watch to see whether the animal dies or survives. You have performed a(n) A. precipitation test. B. neutralization test. C. agglutination test. D. complement fixation test.

Ans: B

25. Precipitation reactions between antigens and antibodies are characterized by A. appearance of IgE in the immune system. B. formation of a large lattice formed from antibodies and antigens. C. inhibition of the complement system. D. destruction of red blood cells. 584 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: B

26. The zone of equivalence is the A. concentrations of antibodies and antigens which is ideal for precipitation. B. area on an immunoelectrophoresis gel where the antibody is placed C. optimum concentration of vaccine for an individual. D. time at which active and passive immunity are equally effective in protecting against disease.

Ans: A

27. A neutralization test for diphtheria is called A. Coombs test. B. Widal test. C. Schick test. D. precipitin test.

Ans: C

28. In immunodiffusion, antigens and antibodies diffuse through a gel towards each other and A. agglutinate when they reach each other. B. neutralize each other. C. form a visible precipitate at the zone of equivalence. C. fluoresce at the zone of equivalence. 585 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: C

29. The test to detect Rh antibodies is the A. Coombs test. B. Widal test. C. Schick test. D. precipitin test.

Ans: A

30. At the conclusion of the complement fixation test, the person performing the test observes whether A. red blood cells undergo lysis. B. precipitates of toxin form. C. phagocytosis increases in rate. D. the tests animals live or die.

Ans: A

31. All the following are required to perform a florescent antibody test for syphilis except A. a sample of the patient's serum. B. fluorescein-labeled antiglobulin antibodies. C. complement from a guinea pig. D. syphilis spirochetes.

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Ans: C

32. An important advantage of the radioimmunoassay is the A. adaptability to small laboratories. B. high sensitivity. C. low hazard level. D. low cost per test.

Ans: B

33. The results of an enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA. for HIV are determined by noting A. agglutination of antigens and antibodies. B. whether or not an animal lives after an injection. C. a neutralization of toxins by antitoxins. D. a color change in the reagents.

Ans: D

34. Which of the following methods can quantify the amount of antibody based on the change in color in the test system? A. RIA B. ELISA C. Ouchterlony test D. Immunoelectrophoresis

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Ans: B

35. Which of the following is used in indirect fluorescent antibody techniques but not in direct fluorescent antibody techniques? A. A labeled antibody B. Antihuman antibodies C. An antigen D. Rhodamine

Ans: B

36. RAST is a type of A. Fluorescent antibody test. B. Precipitin test. C. ELISA test. D. Radioummunoassay test.

Ans: D

37. Polyclonal antibodies in serum arise from A. a single clone of B cells. B. a mixture of vaccines. C. several clones of B cells. D. several clones of T cells. 588 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: C

38. Which of the following is NOT true of monoclonal antibodies? A. Produced from a hybridoma B. Highly specific C. Used as reagents D. Result from subunit vaccines

Ans: D

Matching

Reference: List of acquired immunities Choose the category of acquired immunity that fits each of the following. A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Naturally acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired passive immunity

39.

may result from an incident of subclinical disease.

Ans: A 589 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Refer to: List of acquired immunities

40.

arises from the passage of maternal antibodies.

Ans: C Refer to: List of acquired immunities

41.

results from an injection of hyperimmune serum.

Ans: D Refer to: List of acquired immunities

42.

develops after treatment with antitoxin.

Ans: D Refer to: List of acquired immunities

43.

follows a case of disease.

Ans: A Refer to: List of acquired immunities

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44.

may lead to serum sickness.

Ans: D Refer to: List of acquired immunities

45.

provides protection for the first six months of life.

Ans: C Refer to: List of acquired immunities

46.

can be raised to a higher level by booster shots.

Ans: B Refer to: List of acquired immunities

47.

person becomes ill and produces own antibodies.

Ans: A Refer to: List of acquired immunities

48.

follows unintentional exposure to antigens. 591 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: A Refer to: List of acquired immunities

49.

arises from antibodies in the colostrum.

Ans: C Refer to: List of acquired immunities

50.

follows an injection of attenuated virus.

Ans: B Refer to: List of acquired immunities

51.

also is called congenital immunity.

Ans: C Refer to: List of acquired immunities

52. produces memory cells from illness responsible for antibody production.

Ans: A Refer to: List of acquired immunities 592 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

53.

is stimulated by inactivated viruses.

Ans: B Refer to: List of acquired immunities

54.

is an intentional exposure to an immunizing agent and is long-lasting.

Ans: B Refer to: List of acquired immunities

55.

can be induced in a nursing child.

Ans: C Refer to: List of acquired immunities

56.

involves exposure to inactivated or attenuated viruses.

Ans: B Refer to: List of acquired immunities

True/False 593 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

57. True or False? In the preparation of toxoids, the antigenicity of the toxin remains while the toxigenicity is destroyed.

Ans: True

58. True or False? A danger of subunit vaccines is that disease may occur in an immunoincompetent person who is vaccinated.

Ans: False Response: There is no danger of disease from subunit vaccines, since the whole microbe is not used.

59. True or False? Naturally acquired active immunity to a particular disease may occur when antibodies cross the placenta from the mothers circulation to that of the fetus.

Ans: False Response: Naturally acquired passive immunity

60. True or False? Immunizing agents include toxoids, subunit vaccines containing parts of microorganisms, and recombinant vaccines such as that used for hepatitis B.

Ans: True

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61. True or False? The phenomenon of herd immunity says when approximately 90 percent of the population is vaccinated, the spread of the disease is effectively stopped.

Ans: True

62. True or False? The titer of antibody is the most concentrated amount of serum that yields a detectable reaction with its specific antigen.

Ans: False Response: The titer of antibody is the most dilute amount of serum that yields a detectable reaction with its specific antigen.

63. True or False? Immunoelectrophoresis techniques are based in part on the precipitation reaction that takes place between antigens and antibodies.

Ans: True

64. True or False? In precipitation reactions, antigens on the surfaces of particles react with antibodies and cause the cells to precipitate to the bottom of the vessel.

Ans: False Response: agglutination reactions

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65. True or False? The indicator system in the complement fixation test is used to determine whether complement was used up in the test system.

Ans: True

66. True or False? Antiglobulin antibodies are those that interact with human antibodies such as in fluorescent antibody techniques.

Ans: True

67. True or False? The direct fluorescent antibody test requires that antiglobulin antibodies be used, while the indirect test has no such requirement.

Ans: False Response: The indirect fluorescent antibody test requires that antiglobulin antibodies be used, while the direct test has no such requirement.

68. True or False? The radioallergosorbent test (RAST) can be used to detect IgE antibodies in the serum of a person possibly allergic to penicillin.

Ans: True

69. True or False? The ELISA test has virtually the same sensitivity as RIA and RAST but does not require expensive equipment or radioactivity.

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Ans: True

70. True or False? Monoclonal antibodies are produced by carcinoma cells.

Ans: False Response: Monoclonal antibodies are produced by hybridoma cells.

Essay

71. Compare the 4 different ways to acquire immunity and give an example of each.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 700-707

72. Compare and contrast active and passive immunity.

Ans: Answers will vary Page: 700, 706

73. Compare attenuated, inactivated and subunit vaccines, including advantages and disadvantages of each type. 597 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 701-704

74. Compare and contrast neutralization, precipitation, and agglutination tests.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 713-714

75. Illustrate how the complement fixation test may be performed on a sample of serum suspected to contain antibodies to Histoplasma capsulatum.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 717-718

76. Compare and contrast the following serologic methods: enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, Fluorescent antibody tests, and radioimmunoassays.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 718-721

77. Define herd immunity and how it relates to effective vaccination programs.

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Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 709

78. Describe how monoclonal antibodies may be used in the treatment of a tumor.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page:724 Chap23, Chapter 23

Multiple Choice

1. The antigenic substance that sets off anaphylactic reaction A. interacts with the body's T lymphocytes. B. is known as an allergen. C. induces smooth muscle contraction directly. D. contains cyclic AMP molecules.

Ans: B

2. Which one of the following does not apply to basophils? A. They are a type of white blood cell. B. They are rich in granules that contain histamine. C. They represent about 1 percent of the total white blood cell count. D. They contain hemoglobin for oxygen transport. 599 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: D

3. During the sensitization phase of immediate hypersensitivity, A. complement is activated. B. most cells and basophils degranulate. C. smooth muscles contract. D. IgE molecules attach to basophils and mast cells.

Ans: D

4. IgE is the antibody involved in

hypersensitivity.

A. type I B. cellular C. immune complex D. type II

Ans: A

5. An allergen is a(n) A. antibody produced in anaphylactic hypersensitivity. B. antigen that initiates an allergic reaction. C. antigen that induces cell-mediated immunity. D. antibody produced in response to autoantigen.

Ans: B

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6. Which one of the following is a product made and released by mast cells sometime after degranulation? A. Leukotrienes B. Cyclic AMP C. TNF alpha D. Interleukin-4

Ans: A

7. Anaphylaxis would fail to occur without A. release of mediators from mast cells and basophils. B. formation of immune complexes. C. fixation of complement on the walls of blood vessels. D. accumulation of IgG in the affected tissues.

Ans: A

8. A life-threatening situation in anaphylaxis occurs when A. gastrointestinal cramps take place. B. hives appear on the skin. C. bronchiole muscles contract. D. the brain swell with fluid.

Ans: C

9. In an anaphylactic reaction, onstriction of the small veins and expansion of the capillary pores forces fluids out into the tissues causing A. a rash consisting of both wheals and flares. 601 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. wheezing and stressed breathing. C. the skin to become swollen about the eyes, wrists, and ankles. D. IgG to form complexes with antigens near the site of the latter's entry into the body.

Ans: C

10. Food allergies are a form of

hypersensitivity.

A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV

Ans: A

11. No antibodies are involved in

hypersensitivity.

A. type I B. cytotoxic C. immune complex D. cellular

Ans: D

12. A series of events in which mediators cause all the body's smooth muscles to undergo vigorous contractions is called A. common allergy. B. asthma. C. anaphylaxis. D. infection allergy. 602 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: C

13. Which of the following events does not occur during systemic anaphylaxis? A. Degranulation of mast cells throughout the body B. Contraction of smooth muscles in the body C. Constriction of the small veins and the expansion of capillary pores D. Release of cytotoxins from T lymphocytes

Ans: D

14. The major preformed mediator in the granules of mast cells is A. Complement B. Histamine C. Leukotrienes D. IgE

Ans: B

15. What triggers mast cells to degranulate in an allergic reaction? A. Complement binding to the cell membrane B. Cross-linking of the IgE by allergen C. Antihistamines used in the treatment of the symptoms D. Cytokines produced by Th cells

Ans: B 603 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

16. Which of the following substances can trigger an asthma attack? A. Pollen and mold spores B. Dust mites and pet dander C. Cold temperatures D. All of the above are correct. Ans: D

17. One of the objects of desensitization procedures is to A. stimulate the production of interferon. B. destroy immune complexes that may have formed in the blood vessels. C. decrease the level of IgE. D. stimulate the production of antihistamines.

Ans: C

18. Which one of the following applies to a cytotoxic hypersensitivity? A. IgG reacts with antigens on the surfaces of cells. B. An induration develops at the site of contact with antigen. C. IgE fixes itself to the basophil surface. D. Poison ivy induces a series of itchy skin blisters.

Ans: A

19. Hemolytic disease of the newborn is primarily a result of A. formation of immune complexes in the tissues. B. antibodies from the mother attaching to antigens located on the baby’s red blood cell surface. C. decreased phagocytosis arising from thrombocytopenia. D. reaction between toxins and antitoxins occurring in the blood vessels. 604 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: B

20. If a woman with blood type A-positive has a child by a man whose blood type is A-negative A. the child will have type B blood. B. hemolytic disease may occur in the second child to be conceived. C. the child will not suffer from hemolytic disease nor will a future child. D. the woman will develop Rh antibodies at the conclusion of pregnancy.

Ans: C

21. Hemolytic disease of the newborn may result when which of the following couples have children? A. An Rh (+) man and an Rh (+) woman B. An Rh (+) man and an Rh (-) woman C. An Rh (-) man and an Rh (+) woman D. An Rh (-) man and an Rh (-) woman

Ans: B

22. T lymphocytes are the mediators of

hypersensitivity.

A. anaphylactic B. cytotoxic C. immune complex D. delayed

Ans: D

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23. All of the following are associated with type IV hypersensitivity reactions except A. an induration. B. accumulation of T lymphocytes at the antigen site. C. production of IgE. D. infection allergy.

Ans: C

24. Drying of the skin with erythema and scaling after an exposure to formaldehyde may be the result of A. contact dermatitis. B. anaphylactic hypersensitivity. C. an autoimmune disease. D. serum sickness.

Ans: A

25. Repeated exposure to allergenic shampoos may lead to drying and scaling of the scalp. This is an example of A. infection allergy. B. contact dermatitis. C. common allergy. D. cytotoxic hypersensitivity.

Ans: B

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26. Which one of the following is not involved in systemic lupus erythematosus? A. Immune complex formation B. A butterfly rash C. Autoantigens and autoantibodies D. Mediators such as histamine

Ans: D

27. Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease that is an example of a(an) hypersensitivity. A. anaphylactic B. cytotoxic C. immune complex D. cellular

Ans: C

28. An isograft has less chance of rejection than a xenograft because A. the isograft is not composed of living tissue. B. new blood vessels need not be formed in the isograft. C. the graft composition of the donor and recipient are identical in an isograft. D. there are no antigens in an isograft.

Ans: C

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29. Identification of the major histocompatibility proteins is helpful in determining A. the nature of autotoxins produced by the immune system. B. the extent of a person's allergy. C. the expected acceptance or rejection of transplanted tissue. D. whether a woman is Rh-positive or Rh-negative.

Ans: C

30. Which molecules are the major targets seen as foreign by the recipient’s immune system in rejection of allografts? A. HLA B. Histamine C. T cell receptor D. Antibodies

Ans: A

31. Transplanted tissue is rejected by the body if the A. grafted tissue is an autograft. B. blood types of donor and recipient are the same. C. immune system interprets the tissue to be nonself. D. donor and recipient of the transplant are identical twins.

Ans: C

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32. Which type of graft rejection is due to preformed antibodies? A. Acute B. Hyperacute C. Chronic D. None of the above, since all transplant rejection is mediated by T cell.

Ans: B

33. DiGeorge syndrome and Bruton's agammaglobulinemia are both A. characterized by cytotoxic reactions. B. immune deficiency diseases. C. autoimmune diseases. D. types of atopic reactions.

Ans: B

34. A primary immunodecificiency in which B cells fail to develop into immunocompetent cells is A. DiGeorge syndrome. B. Bruton's agammaglobulinemia. C. Arthus phenomenon. D. Graves' disease.

Ans: B

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35. The most dangerous of the following immune system diseases is A. atopic disease. B. severe combined immunodeficiency. C. systemic lupus erythematosus. D. allergic rhinitis.

Ans: B

36. Chédiak-Higashi syndrome and chronic granulomatous disease are both linked to A. defects in the body's phagocytes. B. autograft rejection. C. a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. D. the development of an induration.

Ans: A

37.

causes AIDS.

A. Influenza virus B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. HIV D. Noroviruses

Ans: C

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38. AIDS stands for A. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome. B. Acquired Immunodeficiency Symptom. C. Acquisitioned Immunosuppressing Syndrome. D. Autoimmune Deficiency Syndrome.

Ans: A

39. Which of the following is not part of an HIV particle? A. CD4 receptors B. Gp120 proteins C. Reverse transcriptase D. Gp41

Ans: A

40. Within 72 hours of infection of a host cell, the reverse transcribed HIV DNA molecule has integrated into one of the host chromosomes as a . A. plasmid B. plastid C. prion D. provirus

Ans: D

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41. Which enzyme uses the viral RNA as a template to synthesize a strand of DNA and then uses the DNA strand as a template to complete a DNA double helix? A. DNA ligase B. Reverse transcriptase C. RNA polymerase D. DNA polymerase

Ans: B

42. Stage

is the asymptomatic stage of HIV infection.

A. I B. II C. III D. IV

Ans: B

43. Stage IV is also known as the late or

stage of HIV infection.

A. latent B. AIDS C. progressive D. prodromal

Ans: B

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44.

is/are the hallmark of HIV infection.

A. Opportunistic infections B. T cell proliferation C. Immune stimulation D. None of the above.

Ans: A

45. T-cell counts of

or less defines an HIV-infected individual as having AIDS.

A. 200 B. 500 C. 1,000 D. 10,000

Ans: A

46. HIV can be transmitted by “risky behaviors” such as

A. unprotected sexual contact with an HIV-infected person B. sharing contaminated needles with an HIV-infected person C. oral sex with an HIV-infected person D. All of the above.

Ans: D

47. Diagnosis of HIV infection often relies on the detection of HIV 613

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A. particles B. antibodies C. proteins D. reverse transcriptase

Ans: B

True/False

48. True or False? If the developing immune system does not “experience” common microbes, there is a good chance it will fail to function properly—and allergies and hypersensitivities may be the result.

Ans: True

49. True or False? Mast cells are connective tissue cells to which IgG attaches and sensitizes an individual during development of a type I hypersensitivity.

Ans: False Response: Mast cells are connective tissue cells to which IgE attaches and sensitizes an individual during development of a type I hypersensitivity.

50. True or False? The vast majority of hypersensitivity reactions are accompanied by limited production of IgE and the sensitization of mast cells only in localized areas of the body. 614 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: True

51. True or False? Atopic diseases such as hay fever and asthma are diseases in which a type I hypersensitivity reaction occurs in a localized area of the body.

Ans: True

52 True or False?. Late-phase anaphylaxis takes several hours for the tissue to become hot, tender, red, and swollen. The mast cells induce this reaction by releasing chemokines that attract other cells to the site to bring about the changes.

Ans: True

53. True or False? Asthma is characterized by wheezing and stressed breathing and appears to be due to the same allergens associated with hay fever.

Ans: True

54. True or False? Hemolytic disease of the newborn will generally not occur during a woman's first pregnancy because her initial exposure to Rh antigens occurs during the birth of her first child.

Ans: True

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55. True or False? An important application of infection allergy is the skin test for tuberculosis, in which bacterial antibodies are applied to the skin to test whether anaphylaxis occurs in 48 hours.

Ans: False Response: An important application of infection allergy is the skin test for tuberculosis, in which purified protein derivative (PPD) is applied to the skin to test whether an induration and erythema form.

56. True or False? Autoimmune disorders result from a failure of the immune system to distinguish self from non-self.

Ans: True

57. True or False? Allografts are usually very successful because tissue from one part of the person's body is grafted to another part.

Ans: False Response: Autografts are usually very successful because tissue from one part of the person's body is grafted to another part.

58. True or False? The graft versus host rejection is observed in bone marrow transplants when immune cells in the marrow form immune products against the host cells, following suppression of the host's immune system.

Ans: True 616 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

59. True or False? In DiGeorge syndrome, the thymus fails to mature in the embryo with the result that T lymphocytes are not formed in sufficient numbers.

Ans: True

60. True or False? A person infected with HIV develops AIDS immediately.

Ans: False Response: A person infected with HIV develops AIDS years later.

Essay

61. Explain the essential differences between the four major types of hypersensitivity, including mediators of hypersensitivity reactions, time of manifestation, and examples.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 731-747

62. Describe the process of anaphylaxis beginning with the first exposure to the allergen and concluding with the effects of smooth muscle contraction.

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Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 733-734

63. A person whose blood type is A proposes to donate blood to a person whose blood type is O. Predict from an immunological standpoint what can be expected to take place if this transfusion does occur.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 741

64. Compare and contrast infection allergy and contact dermatitis.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 746-747

65. Discuss the three theories that lead to self-tolerance in the normal development of the immune system.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 748

66. Identify and describe two ways in which an autoimmune disease can arise.

Ans: Answers will vary. 618 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Page: 748-749

67. Describe the process of acute rejection of an allograft.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 752

68. Compare the immunological bases for Bruton's agammaglobulinemia, DiGeorge syndrome, and SCID, and assess the effects of these diseases on the body.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 754

69. Describe the entry of HIV into a cell and its subsequent replication.

Ans: Answers will vary Page: 755-756

70. State the type of cell (be specific) that the human immunodeficiency virus infects and briefly explain how this leads to a profoundly impaired immune responses. (Hint: include the functions of the cell!)

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71. Explain what occurs during each of the four sequential stages that occur after infection with HIV.

Ans: Answers will vary Page: 756-758

Matching

Reference: List of types of hypersensitivities Select one of the following types of hypersensitivity to correctly complete each of the statements below. A. Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity B. Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity C. Type III immune complex hypersensitivity D. Type IV cellular hypersensitivity

72.

is typified by the transfusion reaction.

Ans: B Refer to: List of types of hypersensitivities

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73.

may be related to the development of rheumatic fever.

Ans: C Refer to: List of types of hypersensitivities

74.

requires IgE attached to mast cells.

Ans: A Refer to: List of types of hypersensitivities

75.

is the reaction to poison ivy.

Ans: D Refer to: List of types of hypersensitivities

76.

is due to deposits aggregates of antigens and antibodies on tissue surfaces.

Ans: C Refer to: List of types of hypersensitivities

77.

involves an exaggeration of the process of cellular immunity.

Ans: D 621 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Refer to: List of types of hypersensitivities

78.

may be accompanied by contractions of the GI tract, edema and shortness of breath.

Ans: A Refer to: List of types of hypersensitivities

79.

is typified by the Arthus reaction.

Ans: C Refer to: List of types of hypersensitivities

80.

does not involve antibody formation.

Ans: D Refer to: List of types of hypersensitivities

81.

involves histamine release.

Ans: A Refer to: List of types of hypersensitivities

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82.

involves the degranulation of sensitized cells.

Ans: A Refer to: List of types of hypersensitivities

83.

involves an IgG reaction with antigens that may cause serum sickness.

Ans: C Refer to: List of types of hypersensitivities

84.

may lead to death in 10 to 15 minutes from asphyxiation if the reaction is systemic.

Ans: A Refer to: List of types of hypersensitivities

85.

involves IgG reacting with antigens on the surfaces of cells.

Ans: B Refer to: List of types of hypersensitivities

Reference: List of types of rejection Match each type of transplant rejection with the appropriate description 623 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

A. Hyperacute rejection B. Acute rejection C. Chronic rejection

86.

occurs within minutes of the transplant

Ans: A Refer to: List of types of rejection

87.

ongoing immune response due to minor antigenic differences

Ans: C Refer to: List of types of rejection

88.

due to preformed antibodies

Ans: A Refer to: List of types of rejection

89. occurs within 10-30 days after the transplant and may be prevented by careful MHC matching and immunosuppressive therapy

Ans: B 624 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Refer to: List of types of rejection

90.

results in rapid destruction of the blood vessels of the graft

Ans: A Refer to: List of types of rejection

Chap24, Chapter 24

Multiple Choice

1. Alexander Fleming is credited with the discovery of which of the following antimicrobial agents? A. Quinine B. Penicillin C. Cephalosporin D. Erythromycin

Ans: B

2. Which of the following is the best definition of an antibiotic? A. A chemical that is made in the pharmaceutical laboratory that kills or inhibits other microorganisms B. A product produced by living microorganisms that kills or inhibits other microorganisms 625 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

C. Any chemotherapeutic agent that harms an infectious organism D. The concentration of the drug that destroys the pathogen

Ans: B

3. A semisynthetic antibiotic is one that is A. made in a pharmaceutical laboratory. B. produced by a species of mold or bacteria. C. partly of microbial origin and partly of laboratory origin. D. partly functionally.

Ans: B

4. A broad spectrum antibiotic would be expected to be effective against A. Gram positive bacteria only. B. Gram negative bacteria only. C. both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria. D. both bacteria and viruses.

Ans: C

5. Ideally, an antimicrobial agent should exhibit selective toxicity, meaning that A. it should harm the infectious agent but not the host. B. it should have very low toxic dose. C. it should have a very high therapeutic dose. 626 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. it should be toxic to a wide variety of infectious agents.

Ans: A

6. Sulfanilamide is active against those bacteria that A. form granular lesions in the body. B. synthesize folic acid. C. induce allergic reaction. D. are commonly found in polluted water.

Ans: B

7. Sulfonamide is a competitive inhibitor which interferes with the ability of a bacteriujm to A. resist the effect of tetracycline. B. synthesize PABA. C. undergo transformation to a resistant form. D. form folic acid.

Ans: D

8. Isoniazid is a narrow spectrum antibiotic that is useful for treatment of A. viral infections. B. pneumonia. C. tuberculosis. D. strep throat. 627 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: C

9. Isoniazid inhibits the synthesis of A. peptidoglycan. B. folic acid. C. mycolic acid. D. viral RNA.

Ans: C

10. Which group of antibiotics block DNA synthesis in bacteria? A. Quinolones B. Penicillins C. Aminoglycosides D. Tetracyclines

Ans: A

11. The two major drawbacks to the use of penicillin are A. kidney damage and immune complex formation. B. allergic reactions and development of drug-resistant bacteria. C. aplastic anemia and anaphylactic hypersensitivity. D. loss of hearing and cytotoxic hypersensitivity. 628 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: B

12. A person who is allergic to penicillin allergy may be treated with A. bacitracin but not cephalosporin. B. erythromycin but not ampicillin. C. amoxicillin but not erythromycin. D. ampicillin but not amoxicillin.

Ans: B

13. The beta lactam nucleus is the basic structure of A. penicillin. B. tetracycline. C. chloramphenicol. D. aminoglycosides.

Ans: A

14. Penicillin is most effective against A. log phase gram (-) bacteria. B. stationary phase gram (-) bacteria. C. log phase gram (+) bacteria. D. stationary phase gram (+) bacteria.

Ans: C 629 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

15. Both the cephalosporin and penicillin antibiotics A. are produced by mold-like bacteria. B. are used primarily for gram-negative bacteria. C. act on the cell wall of bacteria. D. are related to sulfanilamide.

Ans: C

16. Cephalosporins act by A. inhibiting protein synthesis. B. interfering with cell-wall biosynthesis. C. competitively inhibiting folic acid biosynthesis. D. inhibiting RNA synthesis.

Ans: B

17. Members of the genus Streptomyces A. produce sulfanilamide. B. are commonly found in the urinary tract. C. produce many well-known antibiotics. D. are used to test the MIC of an antibiotic.

Ans: C 630 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

18. A common feature of bacitracin and polymyxin B is that both antibiotics A. are effective against fungi. B. contain four benzene rings and several carbohydrate side-groups. C. are only used topically. D. lead to anaphylaxis reactions.

Ans: C

19. All aminoglycoside antibiotics function by A. interfering with cell wall synthesis. B. attaching irreversibility to bacterial ribosomes. C. blocking absorption at the cell membrane. D. blocking DNA transcription.

Ans: B

20. The tubercle bacillus is usually susceptible to A. erythromycin but not streptomycin. B. streptomycin but not penicillin. C. penicillin but not nystatin. D. cephalothin but not isoniazid.

Ans: B

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21. Chloramphenicol A. inhibits RNA synthesis. B. cannot be absorbed from the intestine. C. interferes with protein synthesis in microorganisms. D. is effective only against gram (-) infections.

Ans: C

22. All the following apply to the tetracycline antibiotics except A. they are associated with discoloration of the teeth. B. they are used for rickettsial and chlamydial diseases. C. they are broad-spectrum antibiotics. D. they may cause aplastic anemia or the gray syndrome.

Ans: D

23. The spectrum of activity of tetracycline antibiotics A. includes the viruses. B. is limited to the fungi. C. includes viruses, protozoa, and fungi. D. includes Rickettsia and Chlamydia.

Ans: D

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24. Pseudomembranous colitis is a condition of the intestine that may be related to A. the anaphylaxis associated with penicillin. B. aplastic anemia. C. overuse of lincomycin and clindamycin. D. cell-wall inhibition caused by vancomycin.

Ans: C

25. Penicillins interfere with the synthesis of A. folic acid. B. peptidoglycan. C. DNA. D. mRNA.

Ans: B

26. Some bacteria produce beta-lactamases, which break down and inactivate A. penicillins. B. macrolides. C. fluoroquinolones. D. tetracyclines.

Ans: A

27. Nystatin is the recommended drug for 633 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

A. infections of the intestine due to gram-negative bacteria. B. viral infections of the skin. C. malaria and tuberculosis. D. Candida albicans infections of the intestine or oral cavity.

Ans: D

28. Flucytosine, clotrimazole, and ketoconazole are all A. drugs for treating leprosy. B. modern sulfonamide drugs. C. antifungal agents. D. cell wall inhibitors.

Ans: C

29. Chloroquine, primaquine, and quinine are of value for the treatment of A. urinary tract infections. B. cases of malaria. C. infections caused by bacteria of the intestinal tract. D. fungal diseases.

Ans: B

30. Which of the following is not a type of chemotherapeutic agent used to treat viral infections? A. Agents which inhibit reverse transcriptase 634 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. Agents which inhibit proteases C. Agents which are base analogs D. Agents which interfere with ergosterol

Ans: D

31. The Kirby-Bauer test is useful for determining A. the minimum inhibitory concentration of an antibiotic. B. whether side effects will result from use of an antibiotic. C. which antibiotic may be employed to treat an infection. D. the origin of an antibiotic.

Ans: C

32. Which of the following factors contribute to the selection of antibiotic resistant bacteria? A. Using antibiotics when they are not needed B. Failing to complete a course of treatment C. Antibiotics given to livestock D. All of the above.

Ans: D

True/False

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33. True or false? Antibiotic abuse and misuse encourages the emergence of resistant species of microorganisms.

Ans: True

34. True or false? After Fleming noticed the antibacterial effect of Penicillin he isolated it and used it on several patients as World War II was beginning and was able to make it available for therapy.

Ans: False Response: After Fleming noticed the antibacterial effect of Penicillin he isolated it and tried to use it unsuccessfully. Only later as World War II was beginning was it purified and made available for therapy.

35. True or false? Sulfanilamide can interfere with the metabolism of bacteria because it is so similar to the PABA.

Ans: True

36. True or false? Vancomycin interferes with aspects of folic acid metabolism in bacteria that cause urinary tract infections.

Ans: False Response: Sulfamethoxazole interferes with aspects of folic acid metabolism in bacteria that cause urinary tract infections.

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37. True or false? The antituberculosis drug isoniazid interferes with cell wall synthesis in Mycobacterium by inhibiting production of sulfanilic acid.

Ans: False Response: The antituberculosis drug isoniazid interferes with cell wall synthesis in Mycobacterium by inhibiting production of mycolic acid.

38. True or false? The quinolones are synthetic drugs which block DNA synthesis and are used to treat urinary tract infections, gonorrhea and chlamydia, and intestinal tract infections.

Ans: True

39. True or false? Penicillinase-producing bacteria convert penicillin to penicilloic acid, which has no effect on the bacterial cell wall.

Ans: True

40. True or false? Penicillin antibiotics are used primarily against gram-positive bacteria, but in high concentrations they are also inhibitory to some gram-negative bacteria.

Ans: True

41. True or false? Both bacitracin and polymyxin B are synthesized by Bacillus species. They are quite toxic internally and can cause kidney damage. Therefore, they generally are restricted to topical use, such as on the skin. 637 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: True

42. True or false? Vancomycin has emerged as a key treatment in therapy for gram positive organisms that are resistant to other antibiotics; it is often is referred to as the “drug of last resort.”

Ans: True

43. True or false? All antibiotics and chemotherapeutic agents are produced by species of Streptomyces.

Ans: False Response: Not all antibiotics and chemotherapeutic agents are produced by species of Streptomyces.

44. True or false? Aplastic anemia sometimes occurs as a serious side effect of chloramphenicol therapy.

Ans: True

45. True or false? Most systemic fungal infections are treated with gentamicin, an antifungal antibiotic that changes the permeability of the membranes of cells.

Ans: False

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Response: Most systemic fungal infections are treated with amphotericin B, an antifungal antibiotic that changes the permeability of the membranes of cells

46. True or false? Griseofulvin and nystatin are valuable drugs where resistance to tetracycline drugs has developed in bacteria.

Ans: False Response: Griseofulvin and nystatin are valuable drugs for fungal infections.

47. True or false? Quinine, chloroquine, and primaquine are all drugs used for the treatment of malaria.

Ans: True

48. True or false? Artemisia annua (sweet wormwood) is used to treat multi-drug resistant strains of P. falciparum. In red blood cells, the drug releases “free radicals” that destroy the malarial parasites.

Ans: True

49. True or false? 40 percent of all the antibiotics produced in the United States are in animal feeds to check disease and promote growth. By killing off less hardy bacteria, chronic low doses of antibiotics create ideal growth environments for resistant strains that can be transferred to humans.

Ans: True

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Matching

Reference: List of modes of action Match each antimicrobial agent with its mode of action. A. Competitive inhibition B. Inhibits RNA synthesis C. Inhibits protein synthesis D. Inhibits function of cell membrane E. Inhibits cell wall synthesis F. Affects protozoal metabolism G. Interferes with mitosis

50.

Penicillin

Ans: E Refer to: List of modes of action

51.

Sulfanilamide

Ans: A Refer to: List of modes of action

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52.

Erythromycin

Ans: C Refer to: List of modes of action

53.

Chloramphenicol

Ans: C Refer to: List of modes of action

54.

Rifampin

Ans: B Refer to: List of modes of action

55.

Cephalosporin

Ans: E Refer to: List of modes of action

56.

Polymyxin 641 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: D, E Refer to: List of modes of action

57.

Griseofulvin

Ans: G, E Refer to: List of modes of action

58.

Chloroquine

Ans: F, E Refer to: List of modes of action

Essay

59. Explain why some microbes produce antibiotics in the environment.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 772-773

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60. Identify and describe each of the four major mechanisms used by bacteria to resist of antibiotics.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 794

61. Illustrate how antibiotic misuse and abuse can lead to the emergence of resistant forms.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 795-796

62. Identify three elements of the viral replication cycle that are targets of antiviral drugs and describe how each may be interfered with by antiviral drugs.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 784-785

63. Compare and contrast the tube dilution method and Kirby-Bauer method of antibioticl susceptibility assays.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 789-790

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64. What are the four main strategies the CDC has proposed for the prevention of microbial resistance? Explain each.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 798-799

65. Assess the importance of the discoveries made by Ehrlich and Fleming to the discovery and advancement of chemotherapeutic agents to fight disease.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 769-770

66. Illustrate the mechanism of competitive inhibition by showing how it operates in bacteria treated with sulfanilamide.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 772

67. Discuss the penicillin antibiotics according to discovery, derivatives, mode of activity, synthesis, and two major side effects.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 776-777

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68. Identify two semisynthetic penicillins and explain how they differ functionally from Penicillin.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 777

69. Identify two antibacterial agents that target each of the following bacterial structures or activities: Cell membrane Folic acid synthesis Cell wall synthesis DNA replication Translation

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 783

70. Discuss the reasons why there are so many more antimicrobial drugs to treat bacterial infections than there are drugs to treat fungal, viral, or parasitics.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 784-788

71. Explain what is meant by the acronym “MRSA”, and discuss its role as a public health concern.

Ans: Answers will vary. 645 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Page: 784-788

72. State two modes of action for antifungal drugs and state an example of each.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 785-786

73. State two modes of action for antiprotozoal drugs and state an example of each.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 786-787

Chap25, Chapter 25

Multiple Choice

1. In the United States, the number of persons affected by foodborne disease annually is estimated to be A. twenty to fifty thousand. B. a hundred to two hundred thousand. C. five hundred thousand to a million. 646 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

D. more than seventy-six million.

Ans: D

2. Contaminating microorganisms may appear in food from all the following sources except A. transport by rodents and arthropods. B. human food handles. C. animal's intestine or other organs. D. All the above are correct.

Ans: D

3. All of the following conditions encourage the growth of microorganisms in foods except A. plentiful organic matter. B. sufficient water content. C. presence of spices D. neutral or slightly acidic conditions.

Ans: C

4. Citrus fruits are more likely to grow mold than bacteria because A. they have a high moisture content B. they have a high acid content C. they produce natural antibiotics D. molds can enter through cracks in the skin, bacteria cannot. 647 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: C

5. Organ meats, such as liver and kidneys, tend to spoil rapidly because A. the tissue is loose and is easily penetrated by organisms. B. there is no blood in the tissues and, thus, anaerobic conditions exist. C. the pH of the tissue is not conducive to bacterial growth. D. they have large amounts of salt.

Ans: A

6. Which one of the following groups of foods might be expected to spoil rapidly at room temperature? A. Oranges, rice, and sugar B. Chopped egg salad, frankfurters, and fish C. Nutmeats, macaroni, and lemons D. Garlic, breakfast cereal and cans of corn

Ans: B

7. To support microorganisms, food must have a water content that A. is less than 5 percent. B. is over 80 percent. C. is related to the salt content. D. is at least 18 to 20 percent. 648 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: D

8. Meat contamination is generally due to A. acid procedures. B. sporeformers and capsule producers. C. thermophilic microorganisms. D. microorganisms that digest protein.

Ans: D

9. The environment in vacuum-sealed cans of food does not support the growth of aerobic bacteria because A. the can temperature is too cold. B. there is too much acid in the can. C. there is too much salt in the can. D. there is no oxygen in the can.

Ans: D

10. Food is likely to become slimy if colonized by organisms that A. produce capsules. B. ferment sugars C. produce gas D. hydrolyze starch 649 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: A

11. Foods that spoil at an intermediate rate are termed A. highly perishable. B. semiperishable. C. perishable. D. nonperishable.

Ans: B

12. Which of the following foods is likely to be the least perishable? A. Hamburger B. Orange juice C. Rice D. Milk

Ans: C

13. Serratia marcescens is associated with A. black rot of eggs. B. ropy spoilage of bread. C. appearance of “blood” on bread. D. ergot disease. 650 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: C

14. The natural resistance of egg white to spoilage is in part due to the presence of A. lysozyme. B. hydrogen sulfide. C. sulfur dioxide. D. propionic acid.

Ans: A

15. Species of Lactobacillus or Leuconostoc may be the sources of A. “greening” on a surface of a steak. B. late blight of potatoes. C. fungal disease in carrots. D. green rot in an infected egg.

Ans: A

16. The microbial product that gives contaminated food a “rotten egg” smell is A. indole. B. hydrogen sulfide. C. acids. D. alcohol.

Ans: B 651 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

17. Poultry products are especially susceptible to contamination by A. Salmonella serotypes that infect the bird. B. Clostridium spores often found within the muscle of the bird. C. hepatitis viruses, which cause widespread disease in birds. D. mold spores from airborne contamination of the product.

Ans: A

18. Processed meats have a greater chance of contamination than whole meats because A. they are handled many times during processing. B. they are less compact than natural muscle meat. C. they are not cooked. D. All of the above.

Ans: A

19. The major danger in eating undercooked eggs is the possibility of A. Cholera. B. Botulism C. Hydrogen sulfide poisoning. D. Salmonellosis.

Ans: D 652 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

20. Even though bread has been cooked, the internal temperature permits the survival of A. Salmonella serotypes. B. the miracidium stage of Trichinella. C. certain bacterial and mold spores. D. most viruses.

Ans: C

21. The toxins produced by Aspergillus flavus and Claviceps purpurea both contribute to A. grain spoilage. B. development of flippers and springers in canned foods. C. ropiness in bakery products. D. spore germination in cans of food.

Ans: A

22. Ergot poisoning and aflatoxin accumulation are both types of A. grain spoilage. B. silage contamination. C. bacteria-associated diseases. D. meat spoilage.

Ans: A

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23. There are a number of organisms that can cause milk to sour and curdle. Which of the following organisms are the most common? A. Lactobacillus or Streptococcus B. E. coli and Enterobacter aerogenes C. Bacillus, Proteus and Micrococcus D. Clostridium, Alcaligenes and Klebsiella,

Ans: A

24. Various coliform bacteria may contaminate milk from all of the following sources except A. dust. B. the inside of the udder. C. polluted water. D. the milking machine.

Ans: B

25. Moist heat, such as boiling and canning, prevents food spoilage by A. denaturing microbial proteins. B. slowing microbial metabolism. C. inhibiting microbial toxin production. D. preventing gas production.

Ans: A

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26. The process of steam sterilization for vacuum-sealed cans of food is aimed at A. toxins produced by bacterial contaminants. B. Giardia and Toxoplasma cysts. C. spores of the genera Bacillus and Clostridium. D. psychrophilic bacteria and fungi.

Ans: C

27. A springer, flipper and soft swell refer to A. microorganisms that can move. B. cans of food contaminated by bacteria. C. types of fresh bread. D. forms of pickles produced by bacterial fermentation.

Ans: B

28. Blanching, a treatment with steam heat for three to five minutes, A. is a form of freezer burn. B. destroys many enzymes in food and prevents further cellular metabolism. C. is the loss of color in foods due to the growth of contaminating bacteria. D. kills bacteria by subjecting them to high heat.

Ans: B

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29. Pasteurization is virtually useless against A. viruses. B. thermoduric bacteria. C. psychrophilic bacteria. D. fungi.

Ans: B

30. A microorganism that can survive the heat of pasteurization is called A. thermoduric. B. hydrophilic. C. cold tested. D. thermophilic.

Ans: A

31. A microorganism that can survive the cold of the refrigerator is A. thermoduric. B. hydrophilic. C. psychrotrophic. D. thermophilic.

Ans: C

32. Which of the following happens when food is placed in the refrigerator? 656 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

A. It eliminates the most resistant bacterial spores, especially those of the genera Bacillus and Clostridium B. It eliminates pathogenic bacteria from milk, the process also lowers the total number of bacteria and thereby reduces the chance of spoilage C. It reduces the rate of enzyme activity in a microorganism and thus lowers the rate of growth and reproduction D. It destroys many enzymes in the food product and prevents any further cellular metabolism from taking place

Ans: C

33. Among the microorganisms that resist destruction by drying are A. coliform bacteria. B. trophozoite stages of protozoa. C. sporeforming and capsule-producing bacteria. D. bacterial cocci.

Ans: C

34. Lyophilization is a process in which A. materials are first frozen and then dried under vacuum. B. sugar is added to foods to preserve them. C. bacteria are killed by heating materials to high temperatures. D. low temperatures are used to kill bacteria by forming ice crystals within the cytoplasm.

Ans: A

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35. Treatment of foods with large quantities of salt or sugar results in A. development of an acid environment in which microorganisms cannot live. B. shrinking of microorganisms as water is drawn out from the cytoplasm. C. tearing and shredding of microorganisms by the large salt or sugar crystals. D. disruption of the microbial membranes.

Ans: B

36. Treated foods with large amounts of salt draws the water out of foods by A. osmosis. B. lyophilization. C. active transport. D. reverse osmosis.

Ans: A

37. A process that both dries food and deposits chemical preservatives in it is A. lyophilization. B. spray drying. C. smoking. D. osmosis.

Ans: C

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38. In which one of the following is ethylene oxide not used? A. Petri dishes B. Nuts C. Spices D. Meats

Ans: D

39. A good method for the decontamination of the surface of a steak during the aging process would be A. drying. B. microwave. C. ultraviolet light. D. salting.

Ans: C

40. Over 90 percent of botulism outbreaks in the United States are traced to A. home-canned food. B. vegetables grown in acidic soils. C. commercially-canned foods. D. organ meats from animals.

Ans: A

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41. What type of radiation can be used to extend the shelf life of food? A. Ultraviolet rays B. Gamma rays C. Beta rays D. Alpha rays

Ans: B

42. Which of the following is a food infection? A. Staphylococcal food poisoning B. Botulism C. Cholera D. Clostridial food poisoning

Ans: C

43. Vinegar is commonly produced by A. removing the liquid of sauerkraut. B. allowing wine to become sour. C. mixing carbohydrates with silage. D. uniting hydrochloric acid and ammonium hydroxide.

Ans: B

44. Which of the following is a fermented milk product? 660 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

A. Yogurt B. Buttermilk C. Cheese D. All of the above are correct.

Ans: D

45. Lactic and acetic acids are especially useful for the A. treatment of infections due to gram-positive bacteria. B. preservation of foods. C. reduction of side effects due to phenol treatment. D. sterilization of bed linens.

Ans: B

Matching

Reference: List of preservation methods Select one of the following four choices to correctly complete each of the statements below. A. Refrigeration B. Canning C. Chemical preservatives D. Drying

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46.

leads to denaturation of proteins.

Ans: B Refer to: List of preservation methods

47.

possibly can result in contamination from anaerobic bacteria.

Ans: B Refer to: List of preservation methods

48.

are used primarily against molds and yeasts.

Ans: C Refer to: List of preservation methods

49.

is used in lyophilization.

Ans: D Refer to : List of preservation methods

50.

can produce food that develops a flat sour taste if contaminated by acid producing bacteria. 662 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: B Refer to : List of preservation methods

51.

eliminates bacterial spores.

Ans: B Refer to : List of preservation methods

52.

may allow psychrotrophic organisms to survive.

Ans: A Refer to : List of preservation methods

53.

uses natural organic acids in food preservation.

Ans: C Refer to : List of preservation methods

54.

causes a lower rate of microbial growth and reproduction.

Ans: A Refer to : List of preservation methods 663 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

55.

is best for fresh vegetables and fruits.

Ans: A Refer to : List of preservation methods

56.

must be eliminated from the body without side effects.

Ans: C Refer to : List of preservation methods

57.

is the best method of preservation for milk.

Ans: A Refer to : List of preservation methods

58.

suggests “where there is no water, there is no natural life.”

Ans: D Refer to : List of preservation methods

59.

include sulfur dioxide and ethylene oxide. 664 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: C Refer to : List of preservation methods

60.

requires a temperature of 5ºC.

Ans: A Refer to : List of preservation methods

True/False

61. True or false? A steak is likely to spoil quickly because microorganisms penetrate the meat easily.

Ans: False Response: […is not likely to spoil…penetrate the meat slowly.]

62. True or false? The chemical and physical properties of food that bear on the type of possible contamination include the amount of water present, the pH and the physical structure of the food.

Ans: True

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63. True or false? The muscle tissues of animals and fish are originally without contamination, but spoilage organisms may be introduced during handling, processing, packaging, or storing.

Ans: True

64. True or false? The bacteria in fish are naturally adapted to the cold environment in which most fish live in and thus, cooling will not affect them; freezing is preferred.

Ans: True

65. True or false? Salmonella, may cause diseases in chickens and turkeys, then pass them on to consumers via poultry and egg products such as chicken pot pies, whole egg custard, mayonnaise, eggnog, and egg salad.

Ans: True

66. True or false? Claviceps purpurea produces aflatoxins that accumulate in stored grains such as wheat as well as peanuts, soybeans, and corn.

Ans: False Response: Aspergillus flavus produces alflatoxins

67. True or false? Cream fillings and toppings in bakery products provide conditions for a variety of microbes to grow. 666 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: True

68. True or false? Fermented foods are less likely to be vectors of foodborne infections because of the acids and/or alcohols present.

Ans: True

69. True or false? The sterilization process in canning is designed to destroy the most resistant bacterial spores.

Ans: True

70. True or false? Heat kills microorganisms by changing the physical and chemical properties of their carbohydrates, especially glucose.

Ans: False Response: heat denatures proteins

71. True or false? Freezing is an effective way of killing all microorganisms within a food product and ensuring its sterility.

Ans: False Response: some organisms survive freezing 667 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

72. True or false? Psychrotrophic microorganisms survive in the refrigerator and cause green meat surfaces, rotten eggs, moldy fruits, and sour milk.

Ans: True

73. True or false? Pathogens such as Listeria monocytogenes and Yersinia enterocolitica are able to grow at refrigerator temperatures.

Ans: True

74. True or false? Once thawed, food should not be refrozen, because bacteria that survived freezing may have grown enough to produce enterotoxins.

Ans: True

75. True or false? Lyophilization is a preservation method that sterilizes the food.

Ans: False Response: lyophilization does not kill microbes

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76. True or false? For a chemical preservative to be useful in foods, it must be inhibitory to microorganisms while easily broken down by the body without side effects.

Ans: True

77. True or false? Gamma rays can kill microbes, but are not useful for food preservation because the food becomes radioactive.

Ans: False Response: the food does not become radioactive, so it is safe

78. True or false? Typhoid fever and shigellosis are food intoxications.

Ans: False Response: food infections

Essay

79. Describe the nature of the contamination one might expect to find in a frankfurter, an egg, a custard doughnut, an orange, and a piece of chicken.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 8-11

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80. Give an example of each category of foods (highly perishable, semiperishable, and nonperishable) and describe the characteristics that determine its placement in that category.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 5-11

81. Write an explanatory paragraph on the steps consumers can take to avoid foodborne disease.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 3-22

82. Use the canning process to illustrate how contamination may take place at various points in the process.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 2-13

83. Compare low temperature and drying as preservation methods by indicating how each works and what each is intended to accomplish.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 15-16

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84. Describe the role of UV rays and gamma rays in the preservation of foods.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 18

85. State the purpose of pasteurization and describe each of the three major methods of pasteurization.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 13-14

86. Explain the eight key sanitation areas identified in the HACCP standard regulations.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 22

87. Summarize how fermentation can act as a method of food preservation and list three examples of fermented foods.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 23-24

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88. Describe the role of microbes in the manufacturing of cheese.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 25-26 Chap26, Chapter 26

Multiple Choice

1. What disease was instrumental in the decision to invest in water and sewer services in London and Germany in the mid 1800s? A. Malaria B. Cholera C. Polio D. Influenza

Ans: B

2. The pollution in surface water may arise from all the following except A. the subterranean spring from which it flows. B. airborne microorganisms brought to it by rainfall. C. the meat-packing plant along its shore. D. the sewage treatment facility on its banks.

Ans: A

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3. Potable water is water that A. is produced during secondary sewage treatment. B. exists only in lakes and rivers. C. is contaminated with coliform bacteria. D. is fit to drink.

Ans: D

4. Potability refers to A. the level of pollution in a water sample. B. contaminated water that is not polluted. C. the drinkability of water. D. the BOD of a water sample.

Ans: C

5. All of the following apply to coliform organisms except A. they produce acid and gas from the carbohydrate glucose. B. they are gram-negative. C. E. coli and species of Enterobacter are included in the group. D. spore formation does not take place in the organism.

Ans: A

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6. Escherichia coli is a good indicator of water pollution because this bacterium A. grows only in high-salt environments. B. is commonly found in the human intestine. C. thrives in an environment that has increased heavy metals. D. undergoes recombinations readily.

Ans: B

7. The growth of Desulfovibrio and Clostridium species in anaerobic mud results in A. high mineral content of the mud. B. gases that produce a stench. C. high mutation rates in bacteria. D. red-pigmented mud.

Ans: B

8. Which of the following is NOT true about unpolluted water? A. They have low amounts of organic material. B. Most bacteria are autotrophic. C. Free-living protozoa are common. D. Algae reproduce rapidly.

Ans: D

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9. Halophilic, psychrophilic, and barophilic bacteria would most likely be found thriving in A. a freshwater lake. B. an oxidation lagoon used in sewage treatment. C. the water of a very deep well. D. the deep-ocean environment.

Ans: D

10. Cellulomonas is A. an actinomycete often found in unpolluted water environments. B. usually found only in polluted waters, where it feeds on the high concentrations of organic material. C. is a halophilic, psychrophilic, and barophilic organism often found in the benthic zone. D. found in unpolluted water environments, where it digests cellulose contained in plant cell walls.

Ans: D

11. Most marine microorganisms are found along the shoreline because A. it is colder than in mid-ocean. B. the pH is more hospitable than mid-ocean. C. nutrients are more plentiful than in mid-ocean. D. the water is saltier than in mid-ocean.

Ans: C

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12. Ciguetera fish poisoning is commonly due to contamination of seafood A. by toxins from type of marine dinoflagellate. B. by PCBs from industrial plants. C. with human feces. D. by viruses including the Norwalk virus.

Ans: A

13. The biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is a measure of the A. amount of biological pollution in water. B. amount of chemical pollution in water. C. amount of physical pollution in the water. D. amount of toxin pollution in the water.

Ans: A

14. Algal blooms in water occur when A. water becomes anaerobic B. phosphates accumulate in the water. C. the salt concentration of water increases. D. the BOD of water increases.

Ans: B

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15. Water sample A has a BOD of 157 ppm, while sample B has a BOD of 62 ppm. On this basis, it may be concluded that A. the pH of sample A is higher. B. sample B has less salt in it. C. sample B is a marine water while sample A is fresh water. D. sample B has a lower microbial population than sample A.

Ans: D

16. Laundry detergents are important chemical pollutants because they A. cloud water, reducing light penetration and photosynthesis. B. reduce the surface tension of water and inhibit the growth of micro-organisms at the surface. C. add large amounts of phosphates and nitrates to water, which can lead to overgrowth of green algae. D. discolor the water.

Ans: C

17. Which one of the following viral diseases is not commonly transmitted by polluted water? A. Hepatitis A B. Coxsackie virus disease C. Herpes virus disease D. Rotavirus disease

Ans: C

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18. Which one of the following species does not contribute to wound infections from contaminated water? A. Mycobacterium marinum B. Vibrio vulnificus C. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae D. Zoogloea ramigera

Ans: D

19. Which of the following is not an intestinal disease transmitted by water? A. Erysipeloid B. Typhoid fever C. Cholera D. Shigellosis

Ans: A

20. The sequence of steps used in the preparation of water for drinking is A. aeration, fluoridation, and filtration. B. precipitation, coagulation, and chlorination. C. precipitation, flocculation, and sedimentation. D. sedimentation, filtration, and chlorination.

Ans: D

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21. The purpose of chlorination of drinking water is to A. improve dental health of the people who drink it. B. flocculate substances in the water to cause them to sediment. C. kill most remaining microorganisms in the water. D. remove magnesium and calcium ions from the water.

Ans: C

22. Which one of the following is the correct sequence used in the purification of water? A. Sedimentation – chlorination – filtration B. Flocculation – filtration – chlorination C. Sedimentation – flocculation – chlorination D. Chlorination – flocculation – filtration

Ans: C

23. Which of the following sewage treatments includes the same steps as does drinking water purification? A. Primary treatment B. Secondary treatment C. Tertiary treatment D. Quaternary treatment

Ans: C

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24. The gram-negative rod Zoogloea ramigera may commonly be located A. at the bottom of ocean trenches. B. at the outflow of mines. C. in subterranean wells and springs. D. in activated sludge.

Ans: D

25. The secondary treatment of sewage involves all of the following except A. using anaerobic bacteria to digest sediment material. B. aeration of water to encourage microbial growth to digest organic material. C. activated sludge. D. oxidation lagoons.

Ans: D

26. Small towns may collect sewage into large ponds called , where the sewage is left undisturbed for up to three months to allow natural digestion of the organic mater to occur. A. sludge tanks B. sewer systems C. oxidation lagoons D. cesspools

Ans: C

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27. Dried activated sludge from secondary sewage treatment can be used A. as a flocculant in primary sewage treatment. B. to fertilize agricultural land. C. to grow fish. D. to cultivate fungi and protozoa.

Ans: B

28. Biofilms can be used in all of the following ways except A. to degrade synthetic industrial products. B. to increase pollution by breaking down organic compounds. C. to degrade toxic wastes. D. to fill spaces where oil has been removed.

Ans: B

29. Which of the following is true about biofilms? A. They may form on medical devices such as catheters. B. They are involved in dental caries. C. They are resistant to antibiotics and disinfectants. D. All of the above are true.

Ans: D

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30. The MPN test is performed on a water sample in order to determine A. an exact count of the bacteria present. B. an exact count of coliforms present. C. an estimate of the coliforms present. D. an exact count of the protozoal cysts presents.

Ans: C

31. The formation of bacterial colonies is an essential element of which water quality test? A. BOD determination B. Membrane filter technique C. Phosphate content determination D. MPN count

Ans: B

32. Which of the following is an indicator species for fecal contamination of water? A. Vibrio vulnificus B. Staphylococcus C. Escherichia coli D. Cellulomonas

Ans: C

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33. The primary decomposers of dead organic matter are microorganisms such as A. protozoal cysts and hepatitis A viruses. B. multicellular parasites and rickettsiae. C. chlamydiae and viroids. D. bacteria and fungi.

Ans: D

34. All of the following release CO2 into the atmosphere except A. cyanobacteria. B. humans C. decomposing bacteria. D. fungi.

Ans: A

35. The cyclic transformation of sulfur is important because sulfur is an essential component of A. carbohydrates. B. nucleic acids. C. lipids. D. proteins.

Ans: D

36. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria are those that 683 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

A. convert nitrate ions to nitrite ions. B. decompose proteins into nitrogen gas. C. convert nitrogen gas to ammonia. D. All of the above.

Ans: C

37. The cyclic transformation of nitrogen is important because nitrogen is an essential component of A. carbohydrates and lipids. B. steroids and lipids. C. lipids and cholesterol. D. nucleic acids and amino acids.

Ans: D

38. Crop rotation should include legumes so that A. the nitrogen content of the soil can be replenished due to the action of symbiotic nitrogen fixing bacteria. B. the carbon content of the soil can be replenished due to the action of decomposers. C. the sulfur content of the soil can be replenished due to the action of symbiotic hydrogen sulfide producing bacteria. D. the symbiotic root nodule bacteria can produce carbon dioxide.

Ans: A

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39. Legumes develop symbiotic relationships with nitrogen-fixing bacteria belonging to the genus A. Nitrosomonas. B. Nitrobacter. C. Rhizobium. D. Azotobacter.

Ans: C

40. Mineralization refers to the A. conversion of complex organic compounds into inorganic compounds such as ammonia. B. incorporation of nitrogen into organic compounds. C. decomposition of organic compounds into elemental carbon. D. conversion of nitrogen gas into ammonia.

Ans: A

True/False

41. True or False? Surface water originates from deep wells and subterranean springs, and, because of the filtering action of soil, deep sand, and rock, it remains virtually free of microorganisms.

Ans: False Response: Groundwater is free of microorganisms, but surface water quickly acquires them.

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42. True or False? Heterotrophic bacteria comprise the major flora of polluted water environments where the supply of organic matter is plentiful.

Ans: True

43. True or False? Diatoms, including species of Gymnodinium and Gonyaulax, are responsible for red tides.

Ans: False Response: Dinoflagellates, including…

44. True or False? Most marine microorganisms are found in the benthic zone along the shoreline since this is where nutrients are in ample amounts.

Ans: False Response: […in the littoral zone along…]

45. True or False? Coliforms in the water are an indication of biological pollution.

Ans: True

46. True or False? Viral diseases transmissible by water include hepatitis A, gastroenteritis due to Norwalk virus and, in rare instances, polio. 686 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: True

47. True or False? The marine bacterium, Vibrio vulnificus can cause wound infections with gangrene and necrotizing fasciitis.

Ans: True

48. True or False? The World Health Organization (WHO) indicates that three of every ten humans alive today do not have enough water to drink, or, if water is available, the supplies are contaminated.

Ans: False Response: […three of every four...]

49. True or False? Flocculating materials are used in the water purification process to absorb excess amounts of chlorine and aerate the water.

Ans: False Response: […to stick to organic particles and microorganisms to allow sedimentation.]

50. True or False? In the septic tank, solid waste is retained in the concrete box while the water flows out to the soil through a system of distribution pipes.

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Ans: True

51. True or False? The products of the secondary treatment of sewage include methane gas, which may be used as an energy source, and dried sludge, which may be employed as an agricultural or lawn fertilizer.

Ans: True

52. True or False? The tertiary treatment of sewage involves purifying the water from sewage for reuse by consumers.

Ans: True

53. True or False? Agricultural waste leads to a build up of ammonia and phosphates.

Ans: True

54. True or False? The microorganisms in biofilms are easily eliminated by the destructive action of disinfectants and antiseptics.

Ans: False Response: Biofilms are able to resist the action of antimicrobial substances.

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55. Biofilms populations may be used to degrade toxic wastes, oil spills and other synthetic products of industry.

Ans: True

56. True or False? Among the most frequently used indicator organisms for water pollution are the anaerobic spore-forming bacteria.

Ans: False Response: coliforms are the most frequently used indicator organisms.

57. True or False? In the carbon cycle, most carbon is released from dead organic matter as carbon dioxide, which reenters the soil.

Ans: False Response: Carbon dioxide enters the atmosphere.

58. True or False? Proteins are deposited in water and soil as living organisms die, and bacteria decompose the proteins and break down the sulfur-containing amino acids to yield various compounds, including hydrogen sulfide.

Ans: True

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59. True or False? Bacteria of the genus Nitrobacter form nitrite from ammonia in the soil after which the nitrite is converted to nitrate by species of Nitrosomonas.

Ans: False Response: Bacteria of the genus Nitrosomonas form nitrite from ammonia in the soil after which the nitrite is converted to nitrate by species of Nitrobacter.

60. True or False? All microorganisms are able to fix atmospheric nitrogen and make it available to plants for amino acid production.

Ans: False Response: [Only a select few microorganisms are able to…]

Essay

61. Compare the microbial flora of an unpolluted water environment with a polluted water environment.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 32

62. Identify the various forms of pollution that may occur in water and describe the possible sources of each form.

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Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 32

63. Summarize the three basic steps in the purification of water for drinking.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 37-38

64. List the steps taken in a municipal sewage treatment facility to convert sewage to useful products.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 39-40

65. Compare planktonic microbial populations and biofilm populations.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 41

66. Describe a biofilm and list some positive and negative aspects of biofilms.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 41 691 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

67. Describe each of the three major tests for determining the coliform content of water.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 42

68. State the roles of microorganisms in the carbon cycle.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 43,46

69. State the roles of microorganisms in the sulfur cycle.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 46

70. Write an essay explaining the typical nitrogen cycle as it takes place in the soil and atmosphere with emphasis on the participating microorganisms.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 46-48

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Matching

Reference: List of nitrogen cycle bacteria Match each stage of the nitrogen cycle with the appropriate microbes. A. Nitrogen fixation B. Conversion of ammonia to nitrite C. Digestion of dead plants and animals D. Conversion of nitrate to nitrogen gas

71.

Symbiotic bacteria on root nodules of legumes.

Ans: A Refer to: List of nitrogen cycle bacteria

72.

Denitrifying bacteria

Ans: D Refer to: List of nitrogen cycle bacteria

73.

Decomposers

Ans: C Refer to: List of nitrogen cycle bacteria

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74.

Nitrifying bacteria

Ans: B Refer to: List of nitrogen cycle bacteria

Reference: List of water types Select the water type that best matches each condition. A. Polluted surface fresh water B. Unpolluted surface fresh water C. Ground water D. Drinking water

75.

Potable.

Ans: D Refer to: List of water types

76.

has a low amount of organic material and mostly autotrophic microorganisms

Ans: B Refer to: List of water types

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77.

may contain large numbers of coliforms

Ans: A Refer to: List of water types

78.

virtually free of microorganisms due to filtering action of soil, sand and deep rocks

Ans: C Refer to: List of water types

79.

algal blooms may occur

Ans: A Refer to: List of water types Chapter 27, Chap 27

Multiple Choice

1. To be effective in industrial production, microorganisms should A. be able to form spores. B. only grow anaerobically. C. maintain genetic stability with infrequent mutations. D. be able to undergo recombinations. 695 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: C

2. Microorganisms are especially suited to industrial process because of their A. ability to form spores. B. ability to grow at cold temperatures. C. high metabolic activity. D. ability to form capsules.

Ans: C

3. Primary metabolites of microorganisms are those that A. are directly involved in its growth and reproduction. B. have ecological functions and are produced during stationary phase. C. include most enzymes that are produced industrially. D. include most organic acids that are produced industrially

Ans: A

4. The organism most widely used for the production of citric acid is A. Aspergillus niger. B. Bacillus thuringiensis. C. Citrobacter freundii. D. Lactobacillus bulgaricus. 696 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

Ans: A

5. The absence of a Krebs cycle enzyme in a mold is an essential element in the A. production of antibiotics. B. accumulation of citric acid. C. conversion of cortisone to hydrocortisone. D. conversion to lactic acid to acetic acid.

Ans: B

6. Which of the following pairs of vitamins are products of industrial growth of microbes? A. Vitamin A and Vitamin C B. Riboflavin and Cyanocobalamin C. Glutamic Acid and Lysine D. Citric acid and Lactic acid

Ans: B

7. Two amino acids industrially produced by microorganisms are A. leucine and lactic acid. B. lysine and glutamic acid. C. acetic acid and muramic acid. D. cysteine and riboflavin.

Ans: B 697 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

8. Aspergillus species are used for the production of all of the following, except A. amylase. B. steroids. C. citric acid. D. proteases

Ans: B

9. The process of retting flax refers to A. dissolving the pectin that binds cellulose fibers. B. the industrial production of amylase from flax. C. use of lactic acid to soften leather. D. forming flax from leather for use in clothing.

Ans: A

10. Musk oil is a perfume that is A. produced from the amylase of yeast. B. distilled from the alcohol in wine. C. prepared from ustilagic acid by a fungus. D. produced from bacterial protease.

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11. Malting is an enzymatic process in the brewing of beer that A. provides a nutrient for growth of the yeasts. B. dissolves the barely grains to release the starch. C. converts the starch in the barley to fermentable sugars. D. adds the unique flavor to the beer.

Ans: C

12. Malting, mashing, and addition of hops are key steps in the A. conversion of glutamic acid to monosodium glutamate. B. treatment of hides in leather production. C. fermentation process for beer. D. conversion of steroids to cholesterol.

Ans: C

13. Production of alcohol in beer and wine is accomplished by A. yeasts in the genus Saccharomyces B. bacteria in the genus Bacillus C. yeast in the genus Vinus D. bacteria in the genus Lactobacillus

Ans. A

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14. The strongest natural wines A. measure about 15 percent alcohol. B. use hops to bring out the flavor. C. are produced from white grapes. D. are not aged.

Ans: A

15. The alcohol in wine is a A. primary metabolite of bacteria. B. secondary metabolite of bacteria. C. primary metabolite of yeast. D. secondary metabolite of yeast.

Ans: C

16. The production of distilled spirits differs from usual wine fermentations in that A. no fermentation is involved B. the alcohol is concentrated after fermentation C. yeasts are not generally used. D. the sugar content is enhanced before the process begins.

Ans: B

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17. Species of Bacillus and Streptomyces have significance in industry as A. producers of steroid products. B. starter cultures in the fermentation of distilled spirits. C. producers of antibiotics. D. starter cultures for yogurt production.

Ans: C

18. The first antibiotic to be produced in fermentors was A. Streptomycin. B. Penicillin. C. Bioremediator. D. Lactone.

Ans: B

19. All the following have been used as organisms for producing industrial products except A. Saccharomyces species. B. Aspergillus species C. Bacillus species. D. Yersinnia species.

Ans: D

20. The mold Botrytis cinerea can be used industrially to 701 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

A. produce permeases and proteases. B. produce gibberellins. C. increase the sugar content of grapes. D. produce distilled spirits from wine.

Ans: C

21. The toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis affects caterpillars by A. causing paralysis of the spinal cord. B. lysing the blood cells of the caterpillar. C. lysing the cells of the gut wall. D. inducing blood clotting in the arteries.

Ans: C

22. Bt toxin is used as A. a bioterror agent. B. a pesticide. C. an antibiotic. D. an agent to stop fermentation by killing the yeast.

Ans: B

23. Which one of the following statements is not true about genetically engineered plant resistance? 702 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

A. Insecticidal toxin genes from Bacillus sphaericus has been used. B. Researchers have isolated the B. thuringiensis toxin gene. C. Researchers have spliced a toxin gene into harmless bacteria that live with corn plants. D. This method has the advantage of exposing only the insect attacking the plant to the toxin.

Ans: A

24. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using viruses as pest-control devises? A. Once released, they spread throughout a field. B. They are more selective in activity compared to bacteria. C. Infected insects can be harvested and used to disseminate the viruses to another field. D. They grow more easily in fermentors than do bacteria.

Ans: D

25. Fungi such as yeast are valuable A. as food supplements. B. in the production of alcoholic beverages. C. to use in baking. D. All of the above.

Ans: D

26. Fermentors for growing yeast are kept aerated in order to A. encourage aerobic respiration to keep ATP levels high for maximum growth. 703 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

B. encourage fermentation of sugars to produce alcohol. C. fill the yeast cells with air that they can release to make bread rise. D. enable them to grow into mushrooms.

Ans: A

27. Mushroom farming involves all of the following except for A. spawn. B. flush. C. casing soil. D. fermenting tanks.

Ans: D

28. Industrial genetic engineering most often uses cell.

to transform the properties of a bacterial

A. plasmids B. gene surgery C. retroviruses D. radiation induced mutations

Ans: A

29. For industrial microbiology, genetically engineered yeasts and Bacillus subtilis are preferred to genetically engineered E. coli because 704 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

A. they grow faster than E. coli. B. they have less potential to cause harm to humans than does E. coli. C. they are larger than E. coli D. their genetics are better understood than that of E. coli

Ans: B

True/False

30. True or false? To be effectively used for an industrial process, microorganisms should be easy to maintain and cultivate and should liberate a large amount of a single product that can be easily isolated and purified.

Ans: True

31. True or false? The majority of microbial products of industrial interest are primary metabolites, which are produced near or at the stationary phase of growth.

Ans: False Response: secondary metabolites

32. True or false? The absence of a Krebs cycle enzyme in a certain Lactobacillus species permits this organism to accumulate large amounts of citric acid, which may then be isolated from the culture medium.

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Ans: False Response: […of Aspergillus species…

33. True or false? Industrial fermentation involves very large scale growth of microbes under strictly anaerobic conditions.

Ans: False Response: both anaerobic and aerobic processes can be used

34. True or false? Among the many enzymes industrially produced by microorganisms are invertase, streptokinase, and hyaluronidase.

Ans: True

35. True or false? Amylase is an important protein-digesting enzyme produced industrially by a microbes grown in large bioreactors.

Ans: False Response: Amylase digests starch, not protein.

36. True or false? The industrial production of lysine requires the activity of both Escherichia coli and Enterobacter aerogenes.

Ans: True 706 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

37. True or false? The microbial enzyme streptokinase can be industrially manufactured to break down blood clots that contribute to a heart attack.

Ans: True

38. True or false? Perfumes such as musk oil are products of microbial origin.

Ans: True

39. True or false? All wine and beer fermentations are brought about by species of the mold Aspergillus.

Ans: False Response: […of the yeast Saccharomyces.]

40. True or false? Wine production involves weeks or months of fermentation in order to produce alcohol.

Ans: False Response: Alcohol production takes just a few days, but aging in casks may take weeks or months.

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41 True or false? Distilled spirits have a higher alcohol content than beers or wines because more sugar is added to cause a second fermentation to produce more ethyl alcohol.

Ans: False Response: The alcohol is concentrated through the distillation process.

42. True or false? Antibiotics can be produced in large quantities by growing the appropriate fungi or bacteria in a bioreactor, then extracting and purifying the antibiotic from the liquid during the stationary phase of growth.

Ans: True

43. True or false? To be useful as an insecticide, a microbial toxin should affect all insects and should act slowly to provide a long-lasting effect.

Ans: False Response: It should be relatively specific and should act rapidly.

44.True or false? The Bt toxin produced by Bacillus thuringiensis is dangerous to use as a pesticide because it is harmful to humans as well as to moths.

Ans: False Response: Bt toxin appears to be harmless to humans.

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45. True or false? The genes for the toxin produced by Bacillus sphaericus, which is toxic to mosquitoes, has been inserted into a bacterium that float, increasing the chances of ingestion by mosquitoes.

Ans: True

46. True or false? Bioremediation by microbes includes the breakdown of night soil by soil organisms, clean up of oil spills by species of Pseudomonas, and degradation of PCBs.

Ans: True

Matching

Reference: List of Biotechnology terms Choose the term that best matches each description. A. Bioreactor B. Plasmid technology C. Bioremediation D. Bt toxin

47.

inserting genes into a loop of bacterial DNA that is outside the chromosome.

Ans: B Refer to: List of Biotechnology terms 709 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

48.

A tank providing nutrients for growing large quantities of a microbe

Ans: A Refer to: List of Biotechnology terms

49.

Use of microorganisms to degrade or neutralize contaminants in water or soil

Ans: C Refer to: List of Biotechnology terms

Essay

50. Compare and contrast primary metabolites and secondary metabolites.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 55-56

51. List and state the function of two enzymes produced by microbes for commercial use.

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Page: 57-58

52. List and state the function of two enzymes produced by microbes for medical use.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 58

53. Using the production of penicillin as an example, outline how antibiotics are produced on an industrial scale.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 64-65

54. Identify several desirable characteristics of a microorganism that make it valuable in an industrial process.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 55

55. Identify the steps involved in the fermentation process for beer.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 59-60 711 All information provided for reference only Join us on Facebook.com/thetopgrades

56. Describe the industrial process by which wine is produced.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 60, 61

57. Describe three bioremediation processes using microbes.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 67-69

58. Assess the usefulness of microorganisms to industrial processes by identifying at least five contributions.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 53-72

59. Describe how plasmid technology is advancing biotechnology.

Ans: Answers will vary. Page: 69, 71

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