TEST BANK for Biological Science 7th Edition by Scott Freeman, Quillin, Allison, Black by ACADEMIAMILL

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 1 Biology: The Study of Life 1) Which of the following is NOT related to the five fundamental characteristics of life? A) A bacterial cell divides to produce two cells. B) Sugars are transported on carrier proteins into cells across the plasma membrane. C) Sugars are broken down inside cells to produce energy. D) The gene that specifies skin color in frogs is expressed during its development from a tadpole into an adult frog. E) Giraffes have longer necks so that they can reach food sources unavailable to other animals. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.1, 1.2 Section: 1.1 2) Pasteur's experiments proved that ________. A) cells cannot survive in swan-necked flasks B) in order to grow, cells need to be supplied with oxygen C) spontaneous generation can only occur if nutrient broth is left open to the environment D) sterilizing nutrient broth prevents spontaneous generation E) preexisting cells present in the air can grow in sterilized nutrient broth Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.2 Section: 1.2 3) Recall Pasteur's experiment on spontaneous generation. If he had just warmed the nutrient rich broth, rather than boiled it, what would have been the likely outcome of his experiment? Cells would ________. A) not have appeared in either flask B) have appeared in both flasks C) have appeared in the swan-neck but not the straight-neck flask D) have appeared in the straight-neck but not the swan-neck flask Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.2 Section: 1.2

4) Spontaneous generation ________. A) was demonstrated to occur under normal laboratory conditions by Pasteur B) apparently occurred at least once–when life on Earth began C) occurs every time a new species evolves from a preexisting species D) addresses the formation of new cells from existing cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.2 Section: 1.2 5) Algae in the genus Caulerpa typically grow to a length of over half a meter and have structure similar to stems, leaves, and roots. Reproduction occurs when adults produce sperm and eggs that fuse to form offspring. Each adult Caulerpa consists of just a single cell, however. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Caulerpa violate the pattern component of the cell theory that all organisms consist of cells. B) Caulerpa violate the process component of the cell theory that all cells come from preexisting cells. C) Caulerpa violate both the pattern and process components of the cell theory. D) The existence of Caulerpa is consistent with the cell theory. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.2 Section: 1.2 6) Cells are ________. A) only found in pairs because single cells cannot exist independently B) limited in size to 200 and 500 micrometers in diameter C) characteristic of eukaryotic but not prokaryotic organisms D) characteristic of prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.2 Section: 1.2

7) The cell theory states that all cells come from preexisting cells. If this is the case, why are the cells in a multicellular organism so different from one another? A) Cells in a multicellular organism are exposed to different energy sources allowing them to develop different features. B) During cell division, the genetic information that is replicated and passed onto the daughter cells is different from the original cell. C) The genetic information of each cell is copied and passed on to the daughter cells and the molecular machinery that reads that genetic information is different in each cell. D) The genetic information of each cell is copied and passed on to the daughter cells and the molecular machinery makes copies of particular genes in different cells to generate different features in those cells. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.3 Section: 1.3 8) The discovery of the structure of DNA was useful because ________. A) it helped scientists understand how the information in DNA could be used to acquire ATP for the cell B) it inferred that genetic information flowed from messenger RNA to DNA to protein C) it suggested a mechanism for copying and preserving the genetic material D) it revealed how mRNA was used to make proteins Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.3 Section: 1.3 9) Double helical DNA ________. A) serves as a template for protein synthesis B) is used to synthesize messenger RNA C) contains two identical single strands of DNA D) must be accurately copied to ensure variation in organisms Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.3 Section: 1.3

10) In comparison to eukaryotes, prokaryotes ________. A) do not require ATP for energy while eukaryotes do require ATP B) are more closely related to archaea than eukaryotes C) lack a nucleus, as do archaea, while eukaryotes have a nucleus D) are always single-celled while eukaryotes are always multicellular E) have chromosomes composed of single-stranded DNA, while eukaryotes have chromosomes composed of double-stranded DNA Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.3 Section: 1.3 11) Which of these provides evidence of the common ancestry of all life? A) Ubiquitous use of catalysts by living systems B) Near universality of the genetic code C) Structure of the nucleus D) The flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA to protein E) The directionality of protein synthesis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.3 Section: 1.3 12) Cotton-topped tamarins are small primates with tufts of long white hair on their heads. While studying these creatures, you notice that males with longer hair get more opportunities to mate and father more offspring. To test the hypothesis that having longer hair is adaptive in these males, you should ________. A) test whether other traits in these males are also adaptive B) look for evidence of hair in ancestors of tamarins C) determine if hair length is heritable D) test whether males with shaved heads are still able to mate Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.4 Section: 1.4

The following experiment is used for the corresponding question(s). A researcher discovered a species of moth that lays its eggs on oak trees. Eggs are laid at two distinct times of the year: early in spring when the oak trees are flowering and in midsummer when flowering is past. Caterpillars from eggs that hatch in spring feed on oak flowers and look like oak flowers. But caterpillars that hatch in summer feed on oak leaves and look like oak twigs. How does the same population of moths produce such different-looking caterpillars on the same trees? To answer this question, the biologist caught many female moths from the same population and collected their eggs. He put at least one egg from each female into eight identical cups. The eggs hatched, and at least two larvae from each female were maintained in one of the four temperature and light conditions listed below.

In each of the four environments, one of the caterpillars was fed oak flowers; the other, oak leaves. Thus, there were a total of eight treatment groups (4 environments × 2 diets). 13) Refer to the figure above. Which one of the following is NOT a plausible hypothesis to explain the differences in caterpillar appearance observed in this population? A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twiglike caterpillars. B) The cooler temperatures of spring trigger the development of flowerlike caterpillars. C) Differences in air pressure, due to differences in elevation, trigger the development of different types of caterpillars. D) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.4 Section: 1.4

14) Refer to the figure above. In every case, caterpillars that feed on oak flowers looked like oak flowers. In every case, caterpillars that were raised on oak leaves looked like twigs. These results support which of the following hypotheses? A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twiglike caterpillars. B) Differences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of different types of caterpillars. C) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars. D) The differences are genetic. A female will produce either all flowerlike caterpillars or all twiglike caterpillars. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.4 Section: 1.4 15) Refer to the figure above. Recall that eggs from the same female were exposed to each of the eight treatments used. This aspect of the experimental design tested which of the following hypotheses? A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twiglike caterpillars. B) Differences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of different types of caterpillars. C) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars. D) The differences are genetic. A female will produce either all flowerlike caterpillars or all twiglike caterpillars. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.4 Section: 1.4

16) Recall the caterpillar experiment in which caterpillars born in the spring looked like flowers, and caterpillars born in the summer looked like twigs. What is the most likely selective advantage for this difference in body shape? A) Looking like their food sources allows the caterpillars to move through their environment more efficiently. B) Development into the adult moth form is faster for caterpillars shaped like twigs than like flowers. C) Looking like their food source lets the caterpillars blend into their surroundings, reducing predation. D) Looking like their food source will increase the caterpillars' feeding efficiency; this would increase their growth rate and survival rate. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.4 Section: 1.4 17) Protists and bacteria are grouped into different domains because ________. A) protists eat bacteria B) bacteria cannot generate their own ATP, protists can C) protists have a membrane-bounded nucleus, which bacterial cells lack D) bacteria decompose protists E) protists lack the genetic diversity that bacteria have Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.5 Section: 1.5

18) You have isolated and purified a new species of cells from the rain forest, and you want to place this new species in the appropriate branch of the tree of life. You sequence the ribosomal RNA genes from these cells and discover that for one particular region of the ribosomal RNA gene (the rRNA) the RNA sequence is AAUGAAGG. You have sequences from the same region of the ribosomal genes (the rRNA) from each of these species: bacteria, eukaryote, and archaea, which are listed below. bacteria AUAGAUGG eukaryote AAAGAAGG archaea AAUGGAGU Based on these sequence results, to which branch of the tree of life should you assign this new species? A) Archaea B) Bacteria C) Eukaryote D) Bacteria and archaea E) There is not enough information. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.5 Section: 1.5 19) How does a scientific theory differ from a scientific hypothesis? A) Theories are proposed to test scientific hypotheses. B) Theories are usually an explanation for a more general phenomenon; hypotheses typically address more specific issues. C) Hypotheses are usually an explanation for a more general phenomenon; theories typically address more specific issues. D) Confirmed theories become scientific laws; hypotheses become theories. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.5 Section: 1.6

20) Louis Pasteur's experiment was designed well because ________. A) simple equipment was used B) a major question, spontaneous generation, was tested C) the possible outcomes led to distinct, unambiguous conclusions D) the experiment was a success Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.5 Section: 1.6 21) Recall the experiment on ant navigation. To run a controlled experiment, what parameters were held constant for the test group of 75 ants? A) Stride number B) Leg length C) Stride number, leg length, and environmental temperature D) All variables except leg length Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.5 Section: 1.6 22) Your colleague proposes to test the mechanism of ant navigation by placing a food source 7 meters (m) from the nest. She then takes ants from the nest and places them in a spot that is 4 m from the nest and 3 m from the food source. Based on the previous data, where do you expect the ants to start searching for their nest on their return trip? A) After they have traveled 3 m from the food source B) After they have traveled 4 m from the food source C) After they have traveled 7 m from the food source D) As soon as they leave the food source Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 1.5 Section: 1.6

23) For many years, no one bothered to test the food-competition hypothesis for why giraffes have long necks. Why? A) It had been much too difficult to test. B) The hypothesis was so plausible that no one thought to question it. C) They tried, but the results were inconclusive. D) The hypothesis did not make clear predictions that could be tested. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.5 Section: 1.6 24) A friend of yours calls to say that his car would not start this morning. He asks for your help. You say that you think the battery must be dead. If so, then jump-starting the car from a good battery will solve the problem. In doing so, you are ________. A) testing a theory for why the car will not start B) making observations to inspire a theory for why the car will not start C) stating a hypothesis and using that hypothesis to make a testable prediction D) comparing multiple hypotheses for why the car will not start Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.5 Section: 1.6 25) Agrobacterium infects plants and causes them to form tumors. You are asked to determine how long a plant must be exposed to these bacteria to become infected. Which of the following experiments will provide the best data to address that question? A) Measure the number of tumors formed on plants, which are exposed to different concentrations of Agrobacterium for different lengths of time. B) Measure the number of tumors formed on a plant when exposed to various concentrations of Agrobacterium. C) Measure the concentration of Agrobacterium in different soil environments where the plants grow. D) Measure the number of tumors formed on plants, which are exposed to a known concentration of Agrobacterium for different lengths of time. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.6 Section: 1.6

26) Agrobacterium infects plants and causes them to form tumors. You determine that tumor formation requires a large amount of the plant's energy for tissue formation. How might this change the number of offspring a plant produces, and what is the most likely explanation for this change? A) The number of offspring should increase because in general, illness increases the reproductive output of organisms. B) The number of offspring should increase because the bacteria will provide energy for the plant. C) The number of offspring should decrease because the plant will divert energy from reproduction to tumor formation. D) There should be no effect of infection on offspring production because energy for reproduction is independent of infection. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.5 Section: 1.6 Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s). In 1668, Francesco Redi performed a series of experiments on spontaneous generation. He began by putting similar pieces of meat into eight identical jars. Four jars were left open to the air, and four were sealed. He then did the same experiment with one variation: Instead of sealing four of the jars completely, he covered them with gauze (the gauze excluded the flies while allowing the meat to be exposed to air). In both experiments, he monitored the jars and recorded whether or not maggots (young flies) appeared in the meat. 27) Refer to the paragraph on Redi's experiments. What hypothesis was being tested in the initial experiment with open versus sealed jars? A) Spontaneous generation is more likely during the long days of summer. B) The type of meat used affects the likelihood of spontaneous generation. C) Maggots do not arise spontaneously, but from eggs laid by adult flies. D) Spontaneous generation can occur only if meat is exposed to air. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.5 Section: 1.6

28) Refer to the paragraph on Redi's experiments. In both experiments, flies appeared in all of the open jars and only in the open jars. Which one of the following statements is correct? A) The experiment was inconclusive because Redi used only one kind of meat. B) The experiment was inconclusive because it did not run long enough. C) The experiment supports the hypothesis that spontaneous generation occurs in rotting meat. D) The experiment supports the hypothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by adult flies. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.5 Section: 1.6 29) The best experimental design ________. A) includes a large sample size for each condition B) includes a control C) alters only one condition between the controls and the experimental condition D) includes a large sample size and a control and alters only one condition between the controls and the experimental condition Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.5 Section: 1.6 30) In the process of science, which of these is NOT used to test a hypothesis? A) A theory B) A result C) An observation D) A control group Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.5 Section: 1.6

31) A controlled experiment ________. A) is repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurate B) proceeds at a slow pace to guarantee that the scientist can carefully observe all reactions and process all experimental data C) includes at least two groups, one of which does not receive the experimental treatment D) includes at least two groups, one differing from the other by two or more variables E) includes one group for which the scientist controls all variables Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.5 Section: 1.6 32) Which of the following are qualities of any good scientific hypothesis? I. It is testable. II. It is falsifiable. III. It produces quantitative data. IV. It produces results that can be replicated. A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II E) III and IV Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.5 Section: 1.6 33) In presenting data that result from an experiment, a group of students show that most of their measurements fall on a straight diagonal line on their graph. However, two of their data points are "outliers" and fall far to one side of the expected relationship. What should they do? A) Change their experiment so that the outlier data points are eliminated. B) Average several trials, rule out the improbable results, and do not show them in the final work. C) Show all results obtained and then try to explore the reason(s) for these outliers. D) Redesign the experiment using a different hypothesis. E) Change the values on the graph so that only the straight diagonal line is produced. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 1.5 Section: 1.6 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

34) Which of the following is the best description of a control for an experiment? A) The control group is kept in an unchanging environment. B) The control group is left alone by the experimenters. C) The control group is matched with the experimental group, except for one experimental variable. D) The control group is exposed to only one variable rather than several. E) Only the experimental group is tested or measured. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.5 Section: 1.6 35) Why is a scientific topic best discussed by people of varying points of view, from different subdisciplines, and representing diverse cultures? A) They can correct each other's approach to make it scientific. B) Robust and critical discussion between diverse groups improves scientific thinking. C) Scientists can coordinate with others to conduct experiments in similar ways. D) This is a way of ensuring that everyone gets the same results. E) People need to exchange their ideas with other disciplines and cultures because everyone has a right to an opinion in science. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS, I, CC, SS LO: 1.5 Section: 1.6 36) A controlled experiment is one that ________. A) proceeds slowly enough that a scientist can make careful records of the results B) tests experimental and control groups in parallel C) is repeated many times to make sure the results are accurate D) controls all variables E) is supervised by an experienced scientist Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.5 Section: 1.6

37) Which of the following statements best distinguishes scientific hypotheses from scientific theories? A) Hypotheses describe and theories explain. B) Hypotheses explain and theories describe. C) Hypotheses are usually narrower in scope; theories have broader explanatory power. D) Hypotheses are used in experiments. Theories are not tested. E) Hypotheses are generally supported by more evidence than theories. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.5 Section: 1.6 38) Which of the following best describes the logic of scientific inquiry? A) If I generate a testable hypothesis, tests and observations will support it. B) If my prediction is correct, it will lead to a testable hypothesis. C) If my observations are accurate, they will support my hypothesis. D) If my hypothesis is correct, I can expect certain test results. E) If my experiments are set up right, they will lead to a testable hypothesis. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 1.5 Section: 1.6 39) The formulation of a model for a structure or for a process serves which of the following purposes? A) It asks a scientific question. B) It functions as a testable hypothesis. C) It records observations. D) It serves as a data point among results. E) It can be arrived at only after years of experimentation. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 1.5 Section: 1.6

40) Models of the double helix are good at showing the three-dimensional shape of DNA, but they are not the best type of model to use for comparing DNA sequences. Use the double helix model shown as a reference to finish the easier-to-read DNA sequence model.

A) B) C) D) Answer: D LO: 1.3; EO: 1.3.1

Examine the student-drawn models.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 41) All three models represent DNA. Answer: TRUE LO: 1.3; EO: 1.3.1 42) Models must always include all available information to be useful. Answer: FALSE LO: 1.3; EO: 1.3.1 43) If the goal was to compare the three-dimensional shape of DNA to other molecules, Umberto's model would be the most helpful. Answer: TRUE LO: 1.3; EO: 1.3.1 44) If the goal was to show how information is stored in double-stranded DNA, Chandra's model would be the most helpful. Answer: TRUE LO: 1.3; EO: 1.3.1 45) If the goal was to compare the DNA sequences of several species, Maria's model would be the most helpful. Answer: TRUE LO: 1.3; EO: 1.3.1

Four students have used different circling strategies to show the differences in DNA sequence between Atlantic salmon and three other species.

46) Refer to the figure above. Whose approach do you think is most helpful in this analysis? A) Ahmed's approach B) David's approach C) Tania's approach D) Breya's approach Answer: C LO: 1.3; EO: 1.3.1

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 2 Water and Carbon: The Chemical Basis of Life 1) About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which 4 of these 25 elements make up approximately 96 percent of living matter? A) Carbon, sodium, hydrogen, nitrogen B) Carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, hydrogen C) Oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, nitrogen D) Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen E) Carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, calcium Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1 2) Why is each element unique with respect to its chemical properties? Each element has a distinctive ________. A) atomic mass B) number of electrons C) number of protons D) number of neutrons E) radioactive property Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1 3) Knowing the atomic mass of an element allows inferences about which of the following? A) The number of electrons in the element B) The number of protons in the element C) The number of neutrons in the element D) The number of protons plus neutrons in the element E) The number of protons plus electrons in the element Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1

4) Carbon-12 is the most common isotope of carbon and has a mass number of 12. However, the average atomic mass of carbon found on a periodic table is slightly more than 12 daltons. Why? A) The atomic mass does not include the mass of electrons. B) Some carbon atoms in nature have an extra proton. C) Some carbon atoms in nature have more neutrons. D) Some carbon atoms in nature have a different valence electron distribution. E) Some carbon atoms in nature have undergone radioactive decay. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1 5) From its atomic number of 15, it is possible to predict that the phosphorus atom has ________. A) 5 neutrons, 5 protons, and 5 electrons B) 30 neutrons C) 15 neutrons and 15 protons D) 8 electrons in its outermost electron shell E) 15 protons and 15 electrons Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1 6) A covalent chemical bond is one in which ________. A) electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the two atoms become oppositely charged B) protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of both atoms C) outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill their respective orbitals D) outer-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to fill the inner electron shell of another atom E) electrons from the same atom, but opposite spins, are paired Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1

7) Nitrogen (N) is more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following is a correct statement about the atoms in ammonia (NH3)? A) Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge; the nitrogen atom has a partial negative charge. B) Ammonia has an overall positive charge. C) Ammonia has an overall negative charge. D) The nitrogen atom has a partial positive charge; each hydrogen atom has a partial negative charge. E) There are covalent bonds between the hydrogen atoms and polar bonds between each hydrogen atom and the nitrogen atom. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1 8) Bonds between two atoms that are equally electronegative are ________. A) hydrogen bonds B) van der Waals interactions C) polar covalent bonds D) nonpolar covalent bonds E) ionic bonds Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1 9) A covalent bond is likely to be polar when ________. A) one of the atoms sharing electrons is more electronegative than the other atom B) the two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative C) carbon is one of the two atoms sharing electrons D) one of the atoms has absorbed more energy than the other atom E) the two atoms sharing electrons are the same elements Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1

10) What is the difference between covalent bonds and ionic bonds? A) Covalent bonds require carbon whereas ionic bonds do not. B) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of pairs of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of single electrons between atoms. C) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the electrical attraction between charged atoms. D) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of protons between charged atoms. E) Covalent bonds involve the transfer of electrons between charged atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1

11) Refer to the figure above (first three rows of the periodic table). What element has properties most similar to carbon? A) Boron B) Silicon C) Nitrogen D) Aluminum E) Phosphorus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1

12)

Which drawing in the figure above depicts the electron configuration of an element with chemical properties most similar to helium (2He)? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1 13)

Which drawing in the figure above depicts an atom with six valence electrons? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1

14)

What results from the chemical reaction illustrated above? The reactants have no charge. A) A cation with a net charge of +1 and an anion with a net charge of +1 B) A cation with a net charge of −1 and an anion with a net charge of −1 C) A cation with a net charge of −1 and an anion with a net charge of +1 D) A cation with a net charge of +1 and an anion with a net charge of −1 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1

15) Which one of the following pairs of neutral atoms would be most likely to form ions and thus an ionic bond? A)

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1

16) How many electrons are involved in a single covalent bond? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1 17) Elements found on the left side of the periodic table contain outer shells that are ________; these elements tend to form ________ in solution. A) almost empty; cations B) almost empty; anions C) almost full; cations D) almost full; anions Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1 18) An atom has four electrons in its valence shell. What types of covalent bonds is it capable of forming? A) Single, double, or triple B) Single and double only C) Single bonds only D) Double bonds only Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1

19) When the atoms involved in a covalent bond have the same electronegativity, what type of bond results? A) An ionic bond B) A hydrogen bond C) A nonpolar covalent bond D) A polar covalent bond Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1 20) Which of following molecules would be most likely to form a linear structure? A) Carbon dioxide B) Water C) Methane (CH4) D) Ammonia (NH3) Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1 21)

The illustration above shows a representation of formic acid. A formic acid molecule ________. A) will form hydrogen bonds with water molecules B) has a tetrahedral configuration of hybrid electron orbitals for the carbon atom C) consists of largely nonpolar covalent bonds D) is held together by hydrogen bonds E) has a pyramidal shape and will form hydrogen bonds with water molecules Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1, 2.2 Section: 2.1, 2.2

22) You need to write down information about a molecule, but you only need to indicate the type and number of atoms it contains. Which representation would work best? A) Molecular formula B) Structural formula C) Ball-and-stick model D) Space-filling model Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1 23) You need to represent a molecule to best illustrate the relative sizes of the atoms involved and their spatial relationships. Which representation would work best? A) Molecular formula B) Structural formula C) Ball-and-stick model D) Space-filling model Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.1 Section: 2.1 24) Water has a high specific heat because of the ________. A) polar covalent bond formed between the oxygen and a hydrogen of a single water molecule B) ionic bonds formed between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another water molecule C) hydrogen bond formed between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another water molecule D) covalent bond formed between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another water molecule Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.2 Section: 2.2

25) Which of the following is a property of liquid water? Liquid water ________. A) is less dense than ice B) has a specific heat that is lower than that for most other substances C) has a heat of vaporization that is higher than that for most other substances D) is nonpolar Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.2 Section: 2.2 26) To act as an effective coolant in a car's radiator, a substance should have the capacity to absorb a great deal of heat. You have a reference book with tables listing the physical properties of many liquids. In choosing a coolant for your car, which table would you check first? A) pH B) Density at room temperature C) Heat of vaporization D) Specific heat Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.2 Section: 2.2 27) A solution with a pH of 5 has how many more protons in it than a solution with a pH of 7? A) 5 times B) 10 times C) 100 times D) 1000 times Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 2.2 Section: 2.2

28) In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by ________. A) hydrogen bonds B) nonpolar covalent bonds C) polar covalent bonds D) ionic bonds E) van der Waals interactions Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.2 Section: 2.2 29) The partial negative charge at one end of a water molecule is attracted to the partial positive charge of another water molecule. What is this attraction called? A) A covalent bond B) A hydrogen bond C) An ionic bond D) A hydrophilic bond E) A van der Waals interaction Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.2 Section: 2.2 30) The partial negative charge in a molecule of water occurs because ________. A) the oxygen atom donates an electron to each of the hydrogen atoms B) the electrons shared between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms spend more time around the oxygen atom nucleus than around the hydrogen atom nucleus C) the oxygen atom has two pairs of electrons in its valence shell that are not neutralized by hydrogen atoms D) the oxygen atom forms hybrid orbitals that distribute electrons unequally around the oxygen nucleus E) one of the hydrogen atoms donates an electron to the oxygen atom Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.2 Section: 2.2

31) Which of the following effects can occur because of the high surface tension of water? A) Lakes cannot freeze solid in winter, despite low temperatures. B) A raft spider can walk across the surface of a small pond. C) Organisms can resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to chemical reactions. D) Sweat can evaporate from the skin, helping to keep people from overheating. E) Water can flow upward from roots to the leaves in plants. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.2 Section: 2.2 32) Which of the following takes place as an ice cube cools a drink? A) Molecular collisions in the drink increase. B) Kinetic energy in the liquid water decreases. C) A calorie of heat energy is transferred from the ice to the water of the drink. D) The specific heat of the water in the drink decreases. E) Evaporation of the water in the drink increases. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.2 Section: 2.2 33) Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize? A) Ionic bonds B) Both hydrogen bonds and ionic bonds C) Polar covalent bonds D) Hydrogen bonds E) Both polar covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.2 Section: 2.2

34) Why does ice float in liquid water? A) The high surface tension of liquid water keeps the ice on top. B) The ionic bonds between the molecules in ice prevent the ice from sinking. C) Ice always has air bubbles that keep it afloat. D) Stable hydrogen bonds keep water molecules of ice farther apart than water molecules of liquid water. E) The crystalline lattice of ice causes it to be denser than liquid water. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.2 Section: 2.2 35) A strong acid like HCl ________. A) dissociates completely in an aqueous solution B) increases the pH when added to an aqueous solution C) reacts with strong bases to create a buffered solution D) is a strong buffer at low pH E) dissociates completely in aqueous solutions and is a strong buffer at low pH Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.2 Section: 2.2 36) A solution contains 0.0000001 (10−7) moles of hydroxyl ions [OH−] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution? A) Acidic: H+ acceptor B) Basic: H+ acceptor C) Acidic: H+ donor D) Basic: H+ donor E) Neutral Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.2 Section: 2.2

37) What is the pH of a solution with a hydroxyl ion (OH−) concentration of 10−12 M? A) pH 2 B) pH 4 C) pH 10 D) pH 12 E) pH 14 Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 2.2 Section: 2.2 38) One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic acid (H2CO3). Carbonic acid is a weak acid that, when placed in an aqueous solution, dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO3−) and a hydrogen ion (H+), as noted below.

If the pH of blood increases, one would expect ________. A) a decrease in the concentration of H2CO3 and an increase in the concentration of HCO3B) an increase in the concentration of H2CO3 and a decrease in the concentration of HCO3C) a decrease in the concentration of HCO3- and an increase in the concentration of H+ D) an increase in the concentration of HCO3- and a decrease in the concentration of OH− E) a decrease in the concentration of HCO3- and an increase in the concentration of H2CO3 and H+ Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.2 Section: 2.2

39) Based on your knowledge of the polarity of water molecules, the solute molecule depicted here is most likely ________.

A) positively charged B) negatively charged C) without charge D) hydrophobic E) nonpolar Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.2 Section: 2.2 40) You have two beakers. One contains pure water; the other contains pure methanol (wood alcohol). The covalent bonds of methanol molecules are nonpolar, so there are no hydrogen bonds among methanol molecules. You pour crystals of table salt (NaCl) into each beaker. Predict what will happen. A) Equal amounts of NaCl crystals will dissolve in both water and methanol. B) NaCl crystals will not dissolve in either water or methanol. C) NaCl crystals will dissolve readily in water but will not dissolve in methanol. D) NaCl crystals will dissolve readily in methanol but will not dissolve in water. E) When the first crystals of NaCl are added to water or to methanol, they will not dissolve; but as more crystals are added, the crystals will begin to dissolve faster and faster. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.2 Section: 2.2

41) Why are hydrocarbons insoluble in water? A) The majority of their bonds are polar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages. B) The majority of their bonds are nonpolar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages. C) They are hydrophilic. D) They exhibit considerable molecular complexity and diversity. E) They are less dense than water. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.2 Section: 2.2 42) Which of the following is TRUE for this reaction?

A) The reaction is nonreversible. B) Hydrogen and nitrogen are the reactants of the reverse reaction. C) Hydrogen and nitrogen are the products of the forward reaction. D) Ammonia is being formed and decomposed simultaneously. E) Only the forward or reverse reactions can occur at one time. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.3 Section: 2.3 43) Which of the following correctly describes all chemical equilibrium? A) Forward and reverse reactions continue with no net effect on the concentrations of the reactants and products. B) Concentrations of products are higher than the concentrations of the reactants. C) There are equal concentrations of products and reactants while forward and reverse reactions continue. D) Reactions stop only when all reactants have been converted to products. E) There are equal concentrations of reactants and products, and the reactions have stopped. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.3 Section: 2.3

44) Consider the following reaction at equilibrium: CO2 + H2O ⇌ H2CO3. What would be the effect of adding additional H2CO3? A) It would drive the equilibrium dynamics to the right. B) It would drive the equilibrium dynamics to the left. C) Nothing would happen, because the reactants and products are in equilibrium. D) The amounts of CO2 and H2O would decrease. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.3 Section: 2.3 45) Which of the following is the most spontaneous reaction? A reaction that is ________. A) slightly exothermic and leads to a slight increase in entropy B) slightly endothermic and leads to a huge decrease in entropy C) highly exothermic and leads to a huge decrease in entropy D) slightly exothermic and leads to a huge increase in entropy Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.3 Section: 2.3 46) Why are some reactions exothermic? A) The products have lower potential energy than the reactants. B) They are spontaneous. C) They are not spontaneous. D) The products have higher entropy than the reactants. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.3 Section: 2.3

47) Ice melts spontaneously at room temperature, even though the process is endothermic. How is this possible? A) The change in thermal energy is small, so melting still obeys the second law of thermodynamics. B) The first law of thermodynamics does not apply to phase changes such as melting. C) Water has a very high specific heat. D) There is a large increase in entropy. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.3 Section: 2.3 48) Why do chemical reactions tend to speed up when the concentration of the reactants is increased? A) The reactants move faster. B) The reactants collide more often. C) The reactants have greater energy. D) All of the listed responses are correct. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.3 Section: 2.3 49) Which of the following always tends to make chemical reactions spontaneous? A) The reactants have lower potential energy than the products. B) The reactants are more ordered than the products. C) The temperature is low. D) The pressure is low. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.3 Section: 2.3

50) Stanley Miller's 1953 experiments supported the hypothesis that ________. A) life on Earth arose from simple inorganic molecules B) organic molecules can be synthesized abiotically under conditions that may have existed on early Earth C) life on Earth arose from simple organic molecules, with energy from lightning and volcanoes D) the conditions on early Earth were conducive to the origin of life E) the conditions on early Earth were conducive to the abiotic synthesis of organic molecules Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.4 Section: 2.4 51) What compounds was Stanley Miller able to create in his 1953 chemical evolution experiments? A) Hydrogen cyanide B) Formaldehyde C) Water D) Amino acids E) Hydrogen cyanide, formaldehyde, and amino acids Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM, E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.4 Section: 2.4 52) ________ atoms give organic molecules their overall shape; ________ atoms determine the overall chemical behavior of organic molecules. A) Carbon; H, N, and O B) Hydrogen; C, N, and O C) Carbon; H2O D) H, N, and O; carbon Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.5 Section: 2.5

53) Which of the following is TRUE of carbon? A) It forms only polar molecules. B) It can form a maximum of three covalent bonds with other elements. C) It is highly electronegative. D) It can form both polar and nonpolar bonds. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.5 Section: 2.5 54) Which of the functional groups below acts most like an acid in water? A) Amino B) Carbonyl C) Carboxyl D) Hydroxyl Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.5 Section: 2.5 55) Compounds containing which of the following functional groups would be most likely to behave in a polar manner? A) Sulfhydryl B) Hydroxyl C) Carboxyl D) Both hydroxyl and carboxyl Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.5 Section: 2.5

56) The complexity and variety of organic molecules is due to ________. A) the chemical versatility of carbon atoms B) the variety of rare elements in organic molecules C) the diverse bonding patterns of nitrogen D) their interaction with water E) their tremendously large sizes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.5 Section: 2.5 57) Equilibrium can be reached through a series of condensation and hydrolysis reactions, which involve the ________ and ________ of a water molecule, respectively. A) formation; formation B) formation; breaking C) breaking; formation D) breaking; breaking Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.5 Section: 2.5 58) Hydrolysis is most likely to increase which of the following? A) Energy B) Number of reactants C) Number of water molecules D) Entropy Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 2.5 Section: 2.5

59) Which of the following sentences is the best translation of the arrow in this chemical reaction?

A) [These molecules] are reversible with [these molecules]. B) [These reactants] combine with [these reactants]. C) [These molecules] travel over to [these molecules]. D) [These reactants] are transformed into [these products]. Answer: D LO: 2.3; EO: 2.3.1, 2.3.5 60) Choose the correct sequence of numbers to fill in the blanks to balance this equation.

A) 1, 2, 2 B) 1, 3, 2 C) 1, 3, 1 D) 1, 1, -1 Answer: B LO: 2.3; EO: 2.3.1, 2.3.5 Evaluate this chemical equation.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 61) The equation is balanced. Answer: FALSE LO: 2.3; EO: 2.3.1, 2.3.5 62) The arrow indicates that the atoms of the reactants bond in new ways to form products. Answer: TRUE LO: 2.3; EO: 2.3.1, 2.3.5 63) The arrow indicates that the reaction is reversible. Answer: FALSE LO: 2.3; EO: 2.3.1, 2.3.5 64) There are the same number of hydrogen atoms (H) in the reactants as in the products. Answer: TRUE LO: 2.3; EO: 2.3.1, 2.3.5 24 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

65) H2O is a product. Answer: TRUE LO: 2.3; EO: 2.3.1, 2.3.5 66) There are the same number of carbon atoms (C) in the reactants as in the products. Answer: FALSE LO: 2.3; EO: 2.3.1, 2.3.5

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 3 Protein Structure and Function 1) Side chains of amino acids ________. A) are all nonpolar B) are nonpolar if they contain N or S C) are all polar D) may be polar or nonpolar Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1 Section: 3.1 2) Which one of the following is NOT a component of each monomer used to make proteins? A) A phosphorus atom, P B) An amino functional group, NH2 C) A side chain, R D) A carboxyl group, COOH Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1 Section: 3.1 3) What component of amino acid structure varies among different amino acids? A) The long carbon-hydrogen tails of the molecule B) The presence of a central C atom C) The components of the R-group D) The glycerol molecule that forms the backbone of the amino acid Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1 Section: 3.1

4) At about pH 7 in most cells, what happens to the amino group on an amino acid? A) It acts as a base and gains a proton, giving it a positive charge. B) It acts as an acid and loses a proton, giving it a negative charge. C) It is reduced and tends to act as an electron donor in redox reactions. D) It remains neutral, like water, and does not have a charge. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1.1 Section: 3.1 5) At about pH 7 in most cells, what happens to the carboxyl group on an amino acid? A) It acts as a base and gains a proton, giving it a positive charge. B) It acts as an acid and loses a proton, giving it a negative charge. C) It is oxidized and tends to act as an electron acceptor in redox reactions. D) It remains neutral, like water, and does not have a charge. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1 Section: 3.1 6) Why are polymerization reactions endergonic? Polymerization reactions ________. A) reduce entropy B) release heat, making the reactant monomers move faster C) release energy D) are at equilibrium Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1 Section: 3.1 7) Which of the following involves an increase in entropy? A) Hydrolysis B) Reactions that join monomers C) Polymerization D) Chemical evolution Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1 Section: 3.1 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Suppose you discovered a new amino acid. Its R-group contains only hydrogen and carbon atoms. Predict the behavior of this amino acid. A) It is hydrophobic. B) It is hydrophilic. C) Relative to the amino acids found in organisms, its interactions with water will be intermediate. D) Relative to the amino acids found in organisms, its interactions with water will be very high. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1 Section: 3.1 9) A peptide bond ________. A) forms between the functional R-groups of different amino acids B) forms between the central carbon and the amino R-group of a single amino acid C) forms the primary structure of proteins D) does not play a role in maintaining the tertiary structure of proteins Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1 Section: 3.1 10) The bonding of two amino acid molecules to form a larger molecule requires the ________. A) release of a water molecule B) release of a carbon dioxide molecule C) addition of a carbon dioxide molecule D) addition of a water molecule E) addition of a water molecule and a carbon dioxide molecule Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1 Section: 3.1

11) There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another? A) Different side chains (R-groups) attached to a carboxyl carbon B) Different side chains (R-groups) attached to the amino groups C) Different side chains (R-groups) attached to an α carbon D) Different structural and optical isomers E) Different asymmetric carbons Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1 Section: 3.1 12) Upon chemical analysis, a particular polypeptide was found to contain 100 amino acids. How many peptide bonds are present in this protein? A) 101 B) 100 C) 99 D) 98 E) 97 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 3.1 Section: 3.1

13)

The chemical reaction illustrated in the accompanying figure ________. A) is a hydrolysis reaction B) results in a peptide bond C) joins two fatty acids together D) links two polymers to form a monomer E) joins two phospholipids in a bilayer Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1 Section: 3.1 Refer to the accompanying figure to answer the following question(s).

14) At which bond would water need to be added to achieve hydrolysis of the peptide, back to its component amino acids? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1 Section: 3.1

15) Which bond is a peptide bond? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1 Section: 3.1 16) Which bond is closest to the amino group of the molecule? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1 Section: 3.1 17) Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids? A) Ketone and methyl groups B) Carbonyl and amino groups C) Carboxyl and amino groups D) Amino and sulfhydryl groups E) Hydroxyl and carboxyl groups Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1 Section: 3.1

18) Amino acids are acids because they always possess which functional group? A) Amino B) Carbonyl C) Carboxyl D) Phosphate E) Hydroxyl Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1 Section: 3.1 19)

Which molecule shown above contains an amino functional group but is NOT an amino acid? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1 Section: 3.1

The following question(s) are based on the 15 molecules illustrated in the accompanying figure. Each molecule may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

20) Which of the following molecules is an ionized amino acid with a hydrophobic R-group or side chain? A) 3 B) 7 C) 10 D) 12 E) 13 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1 Section: 3.1 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

21) Which of the following pairs of molecules could be joined together by a peptide bond in a dehydration reaction? A) 2 and 3 B) 3 and 7 C) 7 and 8 D) 8 and 9 E) 12 and 13 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1 Section: 3.1 22) Which bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure of a protein? A) Peptide bonds B) Hydrogen bonds C) Disulfide bonds D) Phosphodiester bonds E) Peptide bonds, hydrogen bonds, and disulfide bonds Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.1, 3.2 Section: 3.1, 3.2 23) Which type of interaction stabilizes the α-helix and the β-pleated sheet structures of proteins? A) Hydrophobic interactions B) Disulfide bonds C) Ionic bonds D) Hydrogen bonds E) Peptide bonds Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2

24) You disrupt all hydrogen bonds in a protein. What level of structure will be preserved? A) Primary structure B) Secondary structure C) Tertiary structure D) Quaternary structure Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2 25) When polymerization of a protein is complete, but a protein is still completely linear, what is the highest level of structure in the protein? A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2 26) You determine the amino acid sequence of a protein and find it contains a long sequence of methionine, followed by a long sequence of proline, followed by a long sequence of valine. Using these data, you predict the sequence of this protein's secondary structure will be ________. A) beta sheets, then a region of no secondary structure, then beta sheets B) alpha-helices, then a region of no secondary structure, then alpha helices C) beta sheets, then a region of no secondary structure, then alpha-helices D) alpha-helices, then a region of no secondary structure, then beta sheets Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2

27) You are studying a protein that is shaped like a doughnut. The shape is a function of which level(s) of protein structure? A) Primary only B) Secondary only C) Tertiary only D) Secondary and tertiary only E) Primary, secondary, and tertiary Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2 28) You have just sequenced a new protein found in mice and observe that sulfur-containing cysteine residues occur at regular intervals. What is the significance of this finding? A) Cysteine residues are required for the formation of α-helices and β-pleated sheets. B) It will be important to include cysteine in the diet of the mice. C) Cysteine residues are involved in disulfide bridges that help form tertiary structure. D) Cysteine causes bends, or angles, to occur in the tertiary structure of proteins. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2 29) Aquaporins are proteins that control the passage of water molecules across a cell membrane. The protein forms a pore, or opening, in the membrane. You isolate what you think are two different molecules of aquaporin and determine that one of the proteins has a larger pore diameter than the second. Which of the following do you conclude? A) These two forms of aquaporin will have identical sequences of amino acids. B) These two forms of aquaporin will have different sequences of amino acids. C) You will have to sequence the proteins to compare their primary structure, because it should have no effect on pore diameter. D) These two forms of aquaporin have identical primary structure but differ in their tertiary structure. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2

30) What type of interaction is directly responsible for the formation of secondary structure? A) Peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids B) Peptide bonds between nonadjacent amino acids C) Hydrogen bonds between sections of the polypeptide backbone D) Hydrogen bonds between side chains of amino acids Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2 31) A series of hydrophobic side chains will congregate together as a protein folds in an aqueous solution and be stabilized by ________. A) disulfide bonds B) van der Waals interactions C) hydrogen bonds D) quaternary structure bonds Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2 32) How does primary protein structure affect the function of protein enzymes? A) Substrates interact with R-groups at the enzyme's active site. B) Substrates interact with R-groups at the enzyme's external surface. C) Substrates interact with hydrophobic R-groups at any region of the enzyme. D) Substrates permanently bind to R-groups at the enzyme's active site. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2, 3.3 Section: 3.2, 3.3

Refer to the following paragraph and accompanying figure to answer the following questions (33 to 35).

Since structure correlates well with function, look for new ways to probe the complex structure of proteins in order to understand what they do and how they do it. One of the most powerful techniques in existence today is X-ray crystallography. The main difficulty with this technique is getting the protein to crystallize. Once crystallized, the protein is bombarded with X-rays to create a pattern that can be analyzed mathematically to determine the three-dimensional structure of the protein. This analysis has been performed by Palczewski (2000) on the protein rhodopsin, which is a light-sensitive protein found in species, ranging from ancient bacteria (archaea) to humans. The structure (schematically shown above, where each letter represents an amino acid) is characterized by a single polypeptide chain with several α-helical segments that loop back and forth across the cell membrane. Another notable feature is the disulfide bond (-S-S-) that can be seen at the bottom of the third transmembrane segment. [Figure adapted from K. Palczewski et al., Science 289 (2000): 739.]

33) If you were reading off the sequence of amino acids in the figure to a biologist friend, what should the first three letters be? A) M-N-G B) A-P-A C) It does not matter, since the protein has no polarity or directionality. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2 34) Identify the location of the disulfide bond in the figure, located at the bottom of the third transmembrane segment. What is the name of the amino acids that are forming this bond? A) Cytosine B) Aspartic acid C) Cysteine D) Glycine Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2 35) Refer to the figure. Which level of structure is maintained by the disulfide bond? A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2

36) The amino acids of the protein keratin are arranged predominantly in an α-helix. This secondary structure is stabilized by ________. A) covalent bonds B) peptide bonds C) ionic bonds D) polar bonds E) hydrogen bonds Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2 37) The tertiary structure of a protein is the ________. A) bonding together of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds B) order in which amino acids are joined in a polypeptide chain C) unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide D) organization of a polypeptide chain into an α-helix or β-pleated sheet E) overall protein structure resulting from the aggregation of two or more polypeptide subunits Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2 38) What type of covalent bond between amino acid side chains (R-groups) functions in maintaining a polypeptide's specific three-dimensional shape? A) Ionic bond B) Hydrophobic interaction C) van der Waals interaction D) Disulfide bond E) Hydrogen bond Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2

39) At which level of protein structure are interactions between the side chains (R-groups) most important? A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary E) Primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2 40) The R-group, or side chain, of the amino acid serine is -CH2-OH. The R-group, or side chain, of the amino acid leucine is -CH2-CH-(CH3)2. Where would you expect to find these amino acids in a globular protein in aqueous solution? A) Serine would be in the interior, and leucine would be on the exterior of the globular protein. B) Leucine would be in the interior, and serine would be on the exterior of the globular protein. C) Serine and leucine would both be in the interior of the globular protein. D) Serine and leucine would both be on the exterior of the globular protein. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2 41) Changing a single amino acid in a protein consisting of 325 amino acids would ________. A) alter the primary structure of the protein but not its tertiary structure or function B) cause the tertiary structure of the protein to unfold C) always alter the biological activity or function of the protein D) always alter the secondary structure of the protein and disrupt its biological activity E) always alter the primary structure of the protein, sometimes alter the tertiary structure of the protein, and sometimes affect its biological activity Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2

42) Normal hemoglobin is a tetramer, consisting of two molecules of β hemoglobin and two molecules of α hemoglobin. In sickle-cell disease, as a result of a single amino acid change, the mutant hemoglobin tetramers associate with each other and assemble into large fibers. Based on this information alone, we can conclude that sickle-cell hemoglobin exhibits ________. A) only altered primary structure B) only altered secondary structure C) only altered tertiary structure D) only altered quaternary structure E) altered primary structure and altered quaternary structure; the secondary and tertiary structures may or may not be altered Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2 43) In a normal cellular protein, where would you expect to find a hydrophobic amino acid like valine? A) In the interior of the folded protein, away from water. B) On the exterior surface of the protein, interacting with water. C) In the transmembrane portion interacting with lipid fatty-acid chains. D) In the interior of the folded protein, away from water, or in a transmembrane portion interacting with lipid fatty-acid chains. E) Anywhere in the protein, with equal probability. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2 44) If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive 35S, which of these molecules will be labeled? A) Phospholipids B) Nucleic acids C) Proteins D) Amylose E) Proteins and nucleic acids Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2

45)

The structure depicted in the accompanying figure shows the ________. A) 1-4 linkage of the α-glucose monomers of starch B) 1-4 linkage of the β-glucose monomers of cellulose C) double-helical structure of a DNA molecule D) α-helix secondary structure of a polypeptide E) β-pleated sheet secondary structure of a polypeptide Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2 46) The structural level of a protein LEAST affected by a disruption in hydrogen bonding is the ________. A) primary level B) secondary level C) tertiary level D) quaternary level E) All structural levels are equally affected by a disruption in hydrogen bonding. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

47) van der Waals interactions may result when ________. A) hybrid orbitals overlap B) electrons are not symmetrically distributed in a molecule C) molecules held by ionic bonds react with water D) two polar covalent bonds react E) a hydrogen atom loses an electron Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2 48)

Which of the groups shown above is a functional group that helps stabilize proteins by forming covalent cross-links within or between protein molecules? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2

49) Which level of protein structure do the α-helix and the β-pleated sheet represent? A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary E) Primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2 50) An enzyme has a total of four active sites. When you denature the molecule and study its composition, you find that each active site occurs on a different polypeptide. Which of the following hypotheses does this observation support? A) The enzyme is subject to regulation. B) The enzyme requires a cofactor to function normally. C) The protein's structure is affected by temperature and pH. D) The protein has quaternary structure. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.2 Section: 3.2 51) Which of the following is the strongest evidence that protein structure and function are correlated? A) Proteins function best at certain temperatures. B) Proteins have four distinct levels of structure and many functions. C) Enzymes tend to be globular in shape. D) Denatured (unfolded) proteins do not function normally. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.3 Section: 3.3

52) Why does a fever become dangerous to body functions if it continues to rise? A) Dehydration will occur. B) Osmosis may be affected due to lack of water. C) A fever breaking is more dangerous than the fever itself. D) Proteins become denatured and are unable to complete their jobs. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.3 Section: 3.3 53) Which of the following best describes protein shape? A) Proteins are immediately folded into their 3-D shapes, and they denature completely after they complete their functions. B) Proteins may fluctuate between inactive and active forms, where portions of the protein are disordered. C) Proteins hold their rigid 3-D shape even in unfavorable conditions, such as low pH or high temperatures. D) Proteins can adopt many shapes, so the number of proteins produced is far less than previously assumed. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.3 Section: 3.3 54) What are prions? A) Mobile segments of DNA B) Tiny circular molecules of RNA that can infect plants C) Viral DNA that attaches itself to the host genome and causes disease D) Misfolded versions of normal protein that can cause disease E) Viruses that invade bacteria Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.3 Section: 3.3

55) Misfolding of polypeptides is a serious problem in cells. Which of the following diseases are associated with an accumulation of misfolded polypeptides? A) Alzheimer's only B) Parkinson's only C) Diabetes mellitus only D) Alzheimer's and Parkinson's E) Alzheimer's, Parkinson's, and diabetes mellitus Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.3 Section: 3.3 56) Proteins in biological systems ________. A) store genetic information B) link with other proteins to form bilayers in cell membranes C) form high-energy intermediates such as ATP D) catalyze reactions Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.4 Section: 3.4 57) Which of the following is NOT a potential function of proteins? A) Catalysis of reactions using enzymes B) Diffusion and transfer of molecules, such as through aquaporins C) Energy storage that can be easily digested and metabolized D) Immunity and defense, through molecules such as antibodies Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.4 Section: 3.4

58) Which of the following attributes of proteins contribute(s) to their ability to catalyze reactions? A) The secondary and tertiary structures allow molecules to be precisely oriented. B) The high number of hydrogen bonds present in proteins. C) The hydrophilic regions of a folded protein. D) Both the high number of hydrogen bonds and the hydrophilic regions of a folded protein. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.4 Section: 3.4 59) How is lactose intolerance related to protein structure? A) Lactose has a similar structure to proteins, so the two cannot bind. B) Some humans lack a protein with a specific structure that can "snip" the bond in lactose. C) Some humans are incapable of producing a great quantity of proteins that can target sugars. D) Lactose can alter the secondary structure of proteins, rendering the protein ineffective. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 3.4 Section: 3.4

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 4 Nucleic Acids and the RNA World 1) Nucleic acids are polymers made up of which of the following monomers? A) Nucleotides B) Ribose sugars C) Amino acids D) Nitrogenous bases E) Phosphates Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.1 Section: 4.1 2) What is the difference between a ribonucleotide and a deoxyribonucleotide? A) Ribonucleotides contain a phosphate group. B) Ribonucleotides have a hydroxyl group on the 2 carbons of their sugar subunit. C) Ribonucleotides contain a sugar with five carbon atoms. D) Ribonucleotides have a hydrogen atom on the 1 carbon of their sugar subunit. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.1 Section: 4.1 3) What is/are the variable structure(s) of a nucleotide? A) The phosphate group B) The sugar C) The base D) The sugar and the base Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.1 Section: 4.1

4) Which of the following includes all of the pyrimidines found in RNA and DNA? A) Cytosine and uracil B) Cytosine and thymine C) Cytosine, uracil, and thymine D) Cytosine, uracil, and guanine Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.1 Section: 4.1 5) When nucleotides polymerize to form a nucleic acid, ________. A) a covalent bond forms between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of a second B) a hydrogen bond forms between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of a second C) covalent bonds form between the bases of two nucleotides D) hydrogen bonds form between the bases of two nucleotides Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.1 Section: 4.1 6) Some viruses consist only of a protein coat surrounding a nucleic acid core. If you wanted to radioactively label the nucleic acids separately from the protein, you would use radioactive ________. A) sulfur B) carbon C) nitrogen D) phosphorus Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.1 Section: 4.1

7) What feature of single nucleotides provides the energy needed for polymerization when nucleic acids are formed? A) Their methyl groups B) Their sugar groups C) Their nitrogenous bases D) Their phosphate groups Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.1 Section: 4.1 8) Which of the following chemical bonds do you think Nakano is referring to in his quote? A) Peptide B) Glycosidic C) Phosphodiester D) Ionic Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.1 Section: 4.1 9) Refer to Nakano's quote from Science. If the cytosine is positively charged (+) before selfcleavage, what would its charge be after self-cleavage? A) + (positive) B) − (negative) C) 0 (neutral) D) There is no way to predict. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.1 Section: 4.1

10) In the acid-base reaction described in the preceding paragraph about Nakano's research on RNAs, a proton (H+) is being transferred. What is acting as the proton acceptor? A) Cytosine B) Magnesium hydroxide C) The virus D) Cytosine, magnesium hydroxide, or the virus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.1 Section: 4.1 11) Which of the following descriptions best fits the class of molecules known as nucleotides? A) A nitrogenous base and a phosphate group B) A nitrogenous base and a sugar C) A nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a sugar D) A phosphate group and an adenine or uracil E) A sugar and a purine or pyrimidine Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.1 Section: 4.1 12) Which of the following are pyrimidine nitrogenous bases? A) Guanine and adenine B) Cytosine and uracil C) Thymine and guanine D) Ribose and deoxyribose E) Adenine and thymine Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.1 Section: 4.1

13) Which of the following are purine nitrogenous bases? A) Cytosine and guanine B) Guanine and adenine C) Adenine and thymine D) Thymine and uracil E) Uracil and cytosine Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.1 Section: 4.1 14) The difference between the sugar in DNA and the sugar in RNA is that the sugar in DNA ________. A) is a six-carbon sugar and the sugar in RNA is a five-carbon sugar B) can form a double-stranded molecule C) is an aldehyde sugar and the sugar in RNA is a keto sugar D) is in the α configuration and the sugar in RNA is in the β configuration E) contains one less oxygen atom Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.1 Section: 4.1 15) If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive 32P-labeled phosphate, which of these molecules will be labeled? A) Proteins B) Cellulose C) Amino acids D) Nucleic acids E) Glucose Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.1 Section: 4.1

16) Structurally, nucleotides are similar to what energy-rich molecule? A) ATP B) Amino acids C) Glucose D) Lipids E) None—nucleotides are extremely unique Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.1 Section: 4.1 17) Nucleic acids have definite polarity, or directionality. Stated another way, one end of the molecule is different from the other end. How are these ends described? A) One end has a hydroxyl group on the 2 carbon; the other end has a hydrogen atom on the 2 carbons. B) One end contains a nitrogenous base; the other end lacks it. C) One end has an unlinked 3' hydroxyl; the other end has an unlinked 5' phosphate. D) One end has one phosphate group; the other end has two phosphate groups. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.1 Section: 4.1 18) Consider the DNA nucleotide sequence ATCGGATCGA. What does this sequence best represent? A) The primary structure of DNA B) The secondary structure of DNA C) The tertiary structure of DNA D) The quaternary structure of DNA E) A gene for eye color Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.2 Section: 4.2

19) If a double-stranded DNA sample was composed of 10 percent thymine, what would be the percentage of guanine? A) 10 B) 20 C) 40 D) 80 E) It is impossible to tell from the information given. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.2 Section: 4.2 20) DNA double helices are soluble in water but insoluble in alcohol. How do these physical properties reflect the chemical structure of the DNA molecule? A) The charged phosphate groups and sugars of DNA are hydrophilic. B) The purine and pyrimidine bases are hydrophilic. C) The 5 prime to 3 prime polarity of DNA makes it soluble in water but not in alcohol. D) The charged R-groups of DNA are hydrophilic. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.2 Section: 4.2 21) You have a polymer of DNA with 10 adenine bases followed by 10 cytosine bases. If that strand bonded to a strand of 20 thymine bases, how would the double helix shape vary from a typical DNA double helix? A) The double helix would be longer than normal. B) The double helix would be shorter than normal. C) One strand of the double helix would be longer than the other strand. D) The width of the double helix would vary along the length of the strand. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.2 Section: 4.2

22) Which of the following best describes DNA's secondary structure? A) Beta-pleated sheet B) Double parallel helical strands C) Turn-loop-turn D) Double antiparallel helical strands Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.2 Section: 4.2 23) Which of the following did Watson and Crick already know when they were trying to determine the structure of DNA? The number of ________. A) purines is always larger than the number of pyrimidines B) pyrimidines is always larger than purines C) cytosines is always the same as adenines D) guanines is always the same as thymines E) purines is always the same as pyrimidines Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.2 Section: 4.2 24) Franklin and Wilkins analyzed DNA by bombarding DNA crystals with X-rays. Their analysis yielded two numbers that sparked interest, 3.4 nm and 0.34 nm. What is the significance of these numbers? A) It turned out to be just a coincidence. B) DNA molecules are 3.4 nm long and 0.34 nm wide. C) The width of a DNA molecule is 3.4 nm, whereas the width of a nucleotide monomer is 0.34 m. D) These numbers demonstrate there are 10 rungs, or steps, on the DNA "ladder" for every turn of the helix. E) The 10 to 1 ratio signifies that DNA molecules are 10 times longer than they are wide. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 4.2 Section: 4.2

25) A double-stranded DNA molecule contains a total of 120 purines and 120 pyrimidines. This DNA molecule could be composed of ________. A) 120 adenine and 120 uracil molecules B) 120 thymine and 120 adenine molecules C) 120 cytosine and 120 thymine molecules D) 120 adenine and 120 cytosine molecules E) 120 guanine and 120 thymine molecules Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.2 Section: 4.2 26) If one strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence of bases 5'ATTGCA3', the other complementary strand would have the sequence ________. A) 5'TAACGT3' B) 5'TGCAAT3' C) 5'UAACGU3' D) 3'UAACGU5' E) 5'UGCAAU3' Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.2 Section: 4.2 27) What is the structural feature that allows DNA to replicate? A) Sugar-phosphate backbone B) Complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases C) Disulfide bonding (bridging) of the two helixes D) Twisting of the molecule to form an α-helix E) Three-component structure of the nucleotides Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.2 Section: 4.2

28) Enzymes that break down DNA catalyze the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join nucleotides together. What would happen to DNA molecules treated with these enzymes? A) The two strands of the double helix would separate. B) The phosphodiester linkages of the polynucleotide backbone would be broken. C) The purines would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars. D) The pyrimidines would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars. E) All bases would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.2 Section: 4.2 29) Which of the following pairs of base sequences could form a short stretch of a normal double helix of DNA? A) 5'-purine-pyrimidine-purine-pyrimidine-3' with 3'-purine-pyrimidine-purine-pyrimidine-5' B) 5'-AGCT-3' with 5'-TCGA-3' C) 5'-GCGC-3' with 5'-TATA-3' D) 5'-ATGC-3' with 5'-GCAT-3' E) All of these pairs are correct. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.2 Section: 4.2 30) Large amounts of DNA typically wrap around large proteins called ________; this forms the ________ structure of DNA. A) purines: secondary B) pyrimidines; primary C) histones; secondary D) histones; tertiary Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.2 Section: 4.2

31) There have been homicide cases where dried blood from a jacket was used ten years after the homicide to convict the killer. Why was the blood still a good source of DNA? A) The blood contained enzymes that could cut DNA where needed. B) The blood contained RNA, which could be reconstituted as DNA. C) The DNA in the blood was incredibly stable due to the strength of the bonds in DNA structure. D) The DNA does not degrade due to its highly polar nature. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.2 Section: 4.2 32) Both DNA and RNA ________. A) are information-containing molecules B) show primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure C) are highly reactive catalysts in cells D) naturally occur as a double helix Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.2, 4.3 Section: 4.2, 4.3 33) RNA and proteins combine in cells to form structures called ribosomes. Ribosomes contain the active site for peptide bond formation. Based on their chemical structures, do you think protein or RNA molecules actually form the active site within the ribosome? A) Protein, because RNA cannot catalyze reactions B) RNA, because proteins cannot catalyze a reaction that involves another protein C) Proteins, because only proteins can catalyze a reaction that involves another protein D) It could be either, because both molecules have catalytic properties. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.3 Section: 4.3

34) Which of the following statements about the 5' end of a polynucleotide strand of RNA is correct? A) The 5' end has a hydroxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose. B) The 5' end has a phosphate group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose. C) The 5' end has phosphate attached to the number 5 carbon of the nitrogenous base. D) The 5' end has a carboxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose. E) The 5' end is the fifth position on one of the nitrogenous bases. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.3 Section: 4.3 35) One of the primary functions of RNA molecules is to ________. A) transmit genetic information to offspring B) function in the synthesis of proteins C) make a copy of itself, thus ensuring genetic continuity D) act as a pattern or blueprint to form DNA E) form the genes of higher organisms Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.3 Section: 4.3 36) If 14C-labeled uracil is added to the growth medium of cells, what macromolecules will be labeled? A) Phospholipids B) DNA C) RNA D) Both DNA and RNA E) Proteins Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.3 Section: 4.3

37) How do the secondary structures of DNA and RNA differ? A) Adenine may bind with thymine or cytosine in RNA, but just with thymine in DNA. B) DNA consists of four nucleotide strands, and RNA consists of two nucleotide strands. C) DNA consists of two nucleotide strands, and RNA consists of one that often folds on itself. D) They are effectively identical. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.3 Section: 4.3 38) Which of the following best describes tertiary structure of RNA? A) A double-stranded helix B) A single nucleotide strand folded on itself in a "stem and loop" structure C) The sequence AUUGCUUC D) A single nucleotide strand where multiple "stem and loop" structure begin to interact Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.3 Section: 4.3 39) DNA is the main hereditary material of all life. However, DNA lacks one important characteristic for the first forms of life. Why have researchers rejected the idea that DNA was found in the first life-form? A) It does not function as a catalyst. B) It is not stable enough to have withstood early Earth's harsh atmosphere. C) DNA has only four types of bases. Therefore, DNA cannot adapt and evolve. D) The type of sugar found in DNA is too complicated to have been present early in Earth's history. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.2, 4.3, 4.4 Section: 4.2, 4.3, 4.4

40) Why do researchers think the first self-replicating molecule was RNA? A) RNA is the only type of molecule that can catalyze a chemical reaction. B) RNA can carry information and catalyze chemical reactions. C) Self-replicating molecules of RNA exist today, in human cells. D) Fossil evidence of such a molecule was recently discovered. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.4 Section: 4.4 41) Use the following information when answering the corresponding question. Shu-ichi Nakano reported in Science in February 2000 that "the RNA enzyme (ribozyme) from hepatitis delta virus catalyzes self-cleavage of a . . . [chemical] . . . bond." This reaction is inherently slow due to the formation of an unfavorable negative charge on the ribozyme. The author goes on to show that this self-cleavage is made faster by joining it with an acid-base reaction that neutralizes the negative charge. Nakano's model describes a positively charged cytosine base on the ribozyme acting as the acid and magnesium hydroxide acting as the base. Specifically, the cytosine donates its proton (H+) to neutralize the unstable negative charge that would have formed on the ribozyme. Is Nakano's quote from Science consistent with the textbook's claim that RNA is a good candidate for the first life-form? A) Yes B) No Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.4 Section: 4.4 42) If the ribozymes discovered in cells today were removed from these cells, protein production would cease. What does this most strongly suggest? A) Ribozymes need proteins to properly function. B) Proteins need ribozymes to properly function. C) Proteins may have been the first biological compound in evolution, but has since become dependent on ribozymes. D) Ribozymes catalyzed the first protein synthesis, initiating cellular life. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 4.4 Section: 4.4 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

43) Four students were asked to draw a simple model of a nucleotide using the following color code. • Sugar = red • Phosphate group = yellow • Nitrogenous base = blue Which model is correct? A)

Answer: B LO: 4.1; EO: 4.1.1

44) Which of the following student-drawn models shows the correct numbering of carbons? A)

Answer: D LO: 4.1; EO: 4.1.1

Interpret the model.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 45) This is a monomer of RNA. Answer: TRUE LO: 4.1; EO: 4.1.1 46) This is an amino acid. Answer: FALSE LO: 4.1; EO: 4.1.1 47) The sugar in this molecule contains four carbons. Answer: FALSE LO: 4.1; EO: 4.1.1 48) The nitrogenous base is cytosine. Answer: TRUE LO: 4.1; EO: 4.1.1

Interpret the student-drawn model.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 49) Hydrogen bonds are not shown but are suggested by the base pairing in the model. Answer: TRUE LO: 4.2; EO: 4.1.1, 4.1.2 50) This is a double-stranded DNA. Answer: TRUE LO: 4.2; EO: 4.1.1, 4.1.2 51) The nitrogenous bases are paired correctly. Answer: TRUE LO: 4.2; EO: 4.1.1, 4.1.2 52) The arrowheads represent the phosphate group at the end of the strand. Answer: FALSE LO: 4.2; EO: 4.1.1, 4.1.2 53) The vertical lines represent sugar-phosphate backbones. Answer: TRUE LO: 4.2; EO: 4.1.1, 4.1.2 54) The arrowheads represent the 3' ends of the strands. Answer: TRUE LO: 4.2; EO: 4.1.1, 4.1.2

55) Select the best model to complete this student's overview of how DNA forms a template for its own synthesis.

56) What do the red arrows in this student-drawn model represent?

A) Nitrogenous bases B) Sugar-phosphate strands C) The movement of information D) Phosphate strands Answer: B LO: 4.2; EO: 4.1.1, 4.1.2 57) What do the arrowheads in this student-drawn model represent?

A) The phosphate group end of the strand B) The nitrogenous base end of the strand C) The 5' end of the DNA strand D) The 3' end of the DNA strand Answer: D LO: 4.2; EO: 4.1.1, 4.1.2

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 5 An Introduction to Carbohydrates 1) How do the α and β forms of glucose differ? A) Their ring structures differ in the location of a hydroxyl group. B) Their linear structures differ in the location of a hydroxyl group. C) The α form can be involved in 1,4- and 1,6-glycosidic linkages; the β form can participate only in 1,4 linkages. D) The oxygen atom inside the ring is located in a different position. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.1 Section: 5.1 2) Which of the following can vary among monosaccharides? A) The number of carbon atoms B) The presence of a carbonyl group C) The presence of hydroxyl groups D) The presence of sulfur groups Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.1 Section: 5.1 3) What is the difference between an aldose sugar and a ketose sugar? A) The number of carbons B) The position of the hydroxyl groups C) The position of the carbonyl group D) One is a ring form; the other is a linear chain. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.1 Section: 5.1

4) Glucose (C6H12O6) has a single carbonyl group (–C=O) in its linear form. Based on the number of oxygen atoms in glucose, how many hydroxyl groups (–OH) would you expect glucose to have? A) 6 B) 5 C) 3 D) 1 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 5.1 Section: 5.1 5)

The molecule shown in the accompanying figure is ________. A) a hexose B) a pentose C) a phosphate D) a fructose E) a maltose Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.1 Section: 5.1 6) A molecule with the chemical formula C6H12O6 is probably a ________. A) fatty acid B) polysaccharide C) phospholipid D) nucleic acid E) monosaccharide Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.1 Section: 5.1 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) Which of the following linkages would you expect to find at a branch point in glycogen or amylopectin? A) α-1,4-glycosidic linkage B) β-1,4-glycosidic linkage C) α-1,6-glycosidic linkage D) β-1,6-glycosidic linkage Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2 8) Which of the following molecules contains at LEAST one peptide bond? A) Glycogen B) Cellulose C) Chitin D) Peptidoglycan Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2 9) What possible role did polysaccharides play in chemical evolution? A) Polysaccharides catalyzed chemical reactions. B) Polysaccharides used complementary pairing between monosaccharides to copy themselves. C) Glycosidic linkages formed spontaneously between monosaccharides. D) Polysaccharides played little, if any, role in chemical evolution. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2

10) What is the major structural difference between starch and glycogen? A) The types of monosaccharide subunits in the molecules B) The type of glycosidic linkages in the molecule C) Whether glucose is in the α or β form D) The amount of branching that occurs in the molecule Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2 11) Which of the following do starch and cellulose have in common? A) The type of glycosidic linkage used B) The size of their monosaccharide subunits C) The amount of hydrogen bonding that occurs between parallel strands D) Their main function in plants Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2 12) Which of the following structural features is common to cellulose, chitin, and peptidoglycan? A) They are all composed of glucose in either the α or the β form. B) They all contain peptide bonds. C) They can all form bonds between polymer chains that create parallel strands. D) They are all composed of highly branched fibers. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2 13) A glycosidic linkage is analogous to which of the following in proteins? A) An amino group B) A peptide bond C) A disulfide bond D) A β-pleated sheet Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

14) Which of these best reflects the following relationship: monosaccharide versus polysaccharide? A) Glucose versus glycogen B) Glucose versus fructose C) 1,4-glycosidic linkage versus 1,6-glycosidic linkage D) α-linkage versus β-linkage Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2 15) Peptidoglycan forms sheets that stiffen the cell walls of bacteria. How is the formation of sheets possible? A) The polysaccharides in peptidoglycan are highly branched and form a network. B) The glycosidic linkages between monosaccharides in peptidoglycan are extraordinarily strong. C) Individual strands are joined by peptide bonds, a type of covalent bond. D) The polysaccharides in peptidoglycan form helical structures, as in cellulose. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2 16) Dairy cattle were unknown in Thai culture until recently, and 97 percent of Thai people are lactose intolerant as adults. Which explanation for such widespread lactose intolerance is most likely correct? A) Allergies are becoming more common in humans as more chemicals are being encountered during longer lifetimes. B) Evolutionarily, producing an enzyme to break down a sugar that will never be encountered is wasteful. C) The ability to digest sugar in milk is determined by environment, and most humans are not exposed to milk as a food source beyond childhood years. D) There is no good explanation for this situation in humans. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2

17) Which polysaccharide is an important component in the structure of many animals and fungi? A) Chitin B) Cellulose C) Amylopectin D) Amylose Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2 18) The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a molecule made by linking three glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions? A) C18H36O18 B) C18H32O16 C) C6H10O5 D) C18H30O15 E) C3H6O3 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2 19) The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers only if the monomers are the α form. Which of the following could amylase break down? A) Starch B) Cellulose C) Chitin D) Starch and chitin only E) Starch, cellulose, and chitin Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2

20) Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. How is lactose classified? A) As a pentose B) As a hexose C) As a monosaccharide D) As a disaccharide E) As a polysaccharide Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2 21) All of the following are polysaccharides EXCEPT ________. A) lactose B) glycogen C) chitin D) cellulose E) amylopectin Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2 22) Starch and cellulose ________. A) are polymers of glucose B) are interchangeable C) can be digested by humans D) are used for energy storage in plants E) are structural components of the plant cell wall Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2, 5.3

23) Cellulose is ________. A) a polymer composed of fructose monomers B) a storage polysaccharide for energy in plant cells C) used by plants to make glycogen D) a major structural component of plant cell walls E) a monomer of starch Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2 24) Which of the following is NOT a polymer? A) Glucose B) Starch C) Cellulose D) Chitin E) DNA Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2 25) Which of the following polymers contain nitrogen? A) Starch B) Glycogen C) Cellulose D) Chitin E) Glucose Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2

26) Which of the following categories includes all others in the list? A) Monosaccharide B) Disaccharide C) Starch D) Carbohydrate E) Polysaccharide Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2 27) The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a polymer made by linking 10 glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions? A) C60H120O60 B) C6H12O6 C) C60H102O51 D) C60H100O50 E) C60H111O51 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2

28)

If two molecules of the general type shown in the accompanying figure were linked together, carbon-1 of one molecule to carbon-4 of the other, the single molecule that would result would be ________. A) maltose B) fructose C) glucose D) galactose E) sucrose Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2 29) You isolate an organic molecule that contains C, H, O, N, and S. This molecule ________. A) is a disaccharide B) could be a glycoprotein C) must be a polymer D) could be cellulose or glycogen Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.1, 5.2 Section: 5.2

30) Enzymes that readily break starch apart cannot hydrolyze the glycosidic linkages found in cellulose. Why is this logical? A) The geometry of the bonds is different, and the shapes of enzyme active sites are highly specific. B) Starch is held together by hydrogen bonding, not covalent bonding. C) Cellulose molecules are highly branched, and enzymes are too bulky to fit. D) Starch is held together by peptide bonds, not glycosidic linkages. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.2 31) Compare the molecular formula of a carbohydrate (CH2O)n with that of carbon dioxide (CO2). What does the presence of hydrogen atoms in carbohydrates indicate? A) Carbohydrates have more equal electron sharing among atoms. B) Carbohydrates have fewer electrons per carbon. C) Every carbon atom in a carbohydrate is bonded to four different atoms. D) Carbohydrates contain a carbonyl functional group. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.3 Section: 5.3 32) Which of the following best explains why "carbs" (carbohydrates) are advertised by manufacturers of candy bars and sports drinks as a "quick energy boost"? A) The energy in them can be stored as fat, which has high energy per unit weight. B) The carbons in carbohydrates are rich in energy because they are highly oxidized. C) Carbohydrates are molecules that have high-energy electrons. D) This is an advertising gimmick that has no scientific evidence to support it. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.3 Section: 5.3

33) Which of the following would you expect to have the most potential energy per gram? The most free energy per gram would be found in a molecule with ________. A) carbon and hydrogen atoms only B) carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms only C) a variety of atoms that are found in cells D) hydrogen and oxygen atoms only Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.4 Section: 5.3 34) Why do plants require sunlight? A) Sunlight helps plants break down their food products, so they can extract the energy stored in them. B) Sunlight energy can be used by plants to reduce the carbon atoms in carbon dioxide. C) Sunlight oxidizes carbon dioxide and water to form glucose. D) Sunlight can be used directly by plants to perform a number of physiological processes. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.4 Section: 5.3 35) If you were going to develop a new antibiotic against bacteria, you would probably need to become an expert on which of these carbohydrates? A) Glycogen B) Chitin C) Peptidoglycan D) Cellulose E) Starch Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.3 Section: 5.3

36) Cell walls are used by many different organisms for protection from their environment and structural support. These cell walls must obviously be insoluble in water; otherwise, they would dissolve the first time an organism got wet. Which of the following carbohydrates would you expect to be most soluble in water? A) Starch B) Peptidoglycan C) Cellulose D) Chitin Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.3 Section: 5.3

37) Use the following paragraph to answer the corresponding question. Masatomo Kawakubo et al. reported in Science in August 2004 that the human stomach contains a natural, carbohydrate-based antibiotic that probably protects a large portion of the population from various diseases caused by the bacterium Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium has been linked to peptic ulcers, gastritis, and stomach cancer. This naturally occurring antibiotic is described by Kawakubo as having a terminal α 1,4-linked N-acetylglucosamine (NAG), and it acts by inhibiting the biosynthesis of a major component of the cell wall in H. pylori. [SOURCE: M. Kawakubo et al., Science 305 (2004): 1003.] Which of the following structures is most consistent with Kawakubo's description of this antibiotic? A)

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.3 Section: 5.3

38) How do carbohydrates contain and/or display information for cells? A) Carbohydrates store information in the nucleus. B) Carbohydrates contain and display information at the cell surface. C) Carbohydrates display information used by mitochondria to bond to substrates and catalyze reactions. D) Carbohydrates have no role in containing or displaying information for cells. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.3 Section: 5.3 39) What does the term "insoluble fiber" refer to on food packages? A) Cellulose B) Polypeptides C) Starch D) Amylopectin E) Chitin Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.4 Section: 5.3 40) Humans can digest starch but not cellulose because ________. A) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the α-glycosidic linkages of starch but not the βglycosidic linkages of cellulose B) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the β-glycosidic linkages of starch but not the αglycosidic linkages of cellulose C) starch monomers are joined by covalent bonds and cellulose monomers are joined by ionic bonds D) the monomer of starch is glucose, while the monomer of cellulose is galactose E) the monomer of starch is fructose, while the monomer of cellulose is glucose Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.3 Section: 5.2, 5.3

41) A primary function of carbohydrates attached to the glycoproteins and glycolipids of animal cell membranes is to ________. A) facilitate diffusion of molecules down their concentration gradients B) actively transport molecules against their concentration gradients C) maintain the integrity of a fluid mosaic membrane D) maintain membrane fluidity at low temperatures E) mediate cell–cell recognition Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.3 Section: 5.3 42) Chitin is a major component of the ________. A) cell walls of bacteria B) hydrostatic skeletons of earthworms C) exoskeleton of insects D) body hairs of mammals E) skeleton in birds Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.2 Section: 5.3 43) Bacteria, insects, and plants use carbohydrates to build structures. Which of the following is TRUE of structural carbohydrates? A) Different types of pentose monomers form the basis of all carbohydrate-based structures. B) Structural carbohydrates show a high degree of branching. C) All structural carbohydrates are made from the same monomer, α-glucose. D) Structural carbohydrates are long strands, which are chemically linked into a network. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.3 Section: 5.2, 5.3

44) Use the following paragraph to answer the corresponding question. Masatomo Kawakubo et al. reported in Science in August 2004 that the human stomach contains a natural, carbohydrate-based antibiotic that probably protects a large portion of the population from various diseases caused by the bacterium Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium has been linked to peptic ulcers, gastritis, and stomach cancer. This naturally occurring antibiotic is described by Kawakubo as having a terminal α-1,4-linked N-acetylglucosamine (NAG), and it acts by inhibiting the biosynthesis of a major component of the cell wall in H. pylori. [SOURCE: M. Kawakubo et al., Science 305 (2004): 1003.] Refer to the paragraph about Kawakubo's group. Kawakubo's group created a glycoprotein with a terminal NAG (i.e., a protein with NAG attached to its end). Their hypothesis is that the terminal NAG, and not the protein component, is responsible for the damage to the cell wall in H. pylori. What would be the most appropriate control for testing this hypothesis? A) Grow H. pylori in a test tube (in vitro) with no glycoprotein. B) Destroy the H. pylori by exposing them to a hypotonic solution. Then add the glycoprotein and observe. C) Expose other species of bacteria to the glycoprotein. D) Grow H. pylori in a test tube with a glycoprotein that has its terminal NAG removed. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 5.3 Section: 5.3

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 6 Lipids, Membranes, and the First Cells 1) A phospholipid is a ________. A) nonpolar lipid molecule that is made polar by the addition of a phosphate B) nonpolar lipid molecule that is made amphipathic by the addition of a phosphate C) polar lipid molecule that fully interacts with water D) polar lipid molecule that fully repels water Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.1 Section: 6.1 2) Which of the following accurately describes a reason why fats store more energy than carbohydrates? A) Fats molecules are always larger than carbohydrate molecules. B) Compared to carbohydrates, fatty acid chains have a higher ratio of bonds with high potential energy to bonds with low potential energy. C) Fatty acid chains have more carbon-carbon bonds than carbohydrates. D) Carbohydrates can be incorporated into polymers through dehydration reactions, while fats cannot form polymers. E) Fats contain more polar groups than carbohydrates. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.1 Section: 6.1 3) Lipids that contain a high number of double bonds in their fatty acid chains will ________. A) contain more hydrogens than lipids that contain few double bonds in their fatty acid chains B) have a higher melting temperature than lipids that contain few double bonds in their fatty acid chains C) pack very tightly together at room temperature D) likely be liquid at room temperature E) have more carbons that rotate freely than lipids that contain few double bonds in their fatty acid chains Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.1 Section: 6.1

4) Which of the following statements is true? A) Saturated lipids have a higher melting temperature than polyunsaturated lipids. B) Unsaturated lipids have fewer carbon-carbon double bonds than saturated lipids. C) Current research suggests that polyunsaturated lipids may induce heart disease. D) Unsaturated lipids pack more tightly together than saturated lipids. E) Saturated lipids are typically liquid at room temperature. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.1 Section: 6.1 5) What region of the steroid cholesterol is hydrophilic? A) The methyl (–CH3) groups B) The terminal hydroxyl group C) The ring structures D) The long hydrocarbon chain Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.1 Section: 6.1 6) Cooking oil and gasoline (a hydrocarbon) are NOT amphipathic molecules because they ________. A) do not have a polar or charged region B) do not have a nonpolar region C) have hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions D) are highly reduced molecules Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.1 Section: 6.1

7) Phospholipids and triglycerides both ________. A) contain serine or some other organic compound B) have three fatty acids C) have a glycerol backbone D) have a phosphate Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.1 Section: 6.1 8) Lipids ________. A) are insoluble in water B) are made from glycerol, fatty acids, and nitrogen C) contain less energy than proteins and carbohydrates D) are made by dehydration reactions E) contain sulfur polymers Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.1 Section: 6.1 9) Which of the following is a large organic molecule that is NOT assembled by polymerization of a few kinds of simple subunits? A) A steroid B) Cellulose C) DNA D) An enzyme E) A contractile protein Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.1 Section: 6.1

10) Steroids are considered to be lipids because they ________. A) are essential components of cell membranes B) are not soluble in water C) are made of fatty acids D) are hydrophilic compounds E) contribute to atherosclerosis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.1 Section: 6.1 11) A major feature of phospholipids that causes a portion of their structure to be hydrophilic is ________. A) the glycerol backbone B) the unsaturated fatty acid tails C) the phosphate group D) the ester linkages E) the saturated fatty acid tails Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.1 Section: 6.1 12) The presence of cholesterol in the plasma membranes of some animal cells ________. A) enables the membranes to stay fluid when cell temperature drops B) enables the cell to remove hydrogen atoms from saturated phospholipids C) enables the cell to add hydrogen atoms to unsaturated phospholipids D) makes the cell membrane less flexible, allowing it to sustain greater intracellular pressure E) reduces mutations to genetic material inside the cell Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.2 Section: 6.2

13) You make a phospholipid bilayer with short, saturated hydrocarbon tails. You measure the permeability of this membrane to oxygen. You then double the length of the hydrocarbon tails and remeasure membrane permeability. Next, you again double the length of the hydrocarbon tails and make a third measurement of membrane permeability. You graph membrane permeability as a function of hydrocarbon tail length. Which of the accompanying graphs best represents the data you expect? A)

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.2 Section: 6.2

14) You make a phospholipid bilayer with short, saturated hydrocarbon tails. You measure the permeability of this membrane to oxygen. You are going to change the length of the hydrocarbon tails and remeasure membrane permeability, but first your boss asks you to graph the data you expect if there is no effect of hydrocarbon tail length on membrane permeability (your null hypothesis). Which of the accompanying graphs best represents the data you expect if your null hypothesis is correct? A)

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.2 Section: 6.2

15) Lipids that form membranes have what kind of structure? A) Polar heads and polar tails, which allows them to interact with water on both sides of the membrane. B) Completely polar, which allows them to dissolve in water. C) Polar heads and nonpolar tails; the nonpolar tails interact with water. D) Polar heads and nonpolar tails; the polar heads interact with water. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.2 Section: 6.2 16) If you mechanically shook a mixture of phospholipids and water, what would you expect to see when you observe the solution using an electron microscope? A) The lipids and water will have separated into two distinct layers because the lipids are partially nonpolar. B) Some lipids will have formed tiny vesicles filled with water. C) All the lipids will have formed planar bilayer membranes. D) Most lipids will have completely dissolved in solution because they are partially polar. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.2 Section: 6.2 17) In an experiment involving planar bilayers, a solution of table salt (sodium and chloride ions in water) is added on the left side of the membrane while pure water is added on the right side. After 30 minutes, the researchers test for the presence of ions on each side of the membrane. The right side tests negative for ions. What do you conclude? A) The experiment failed. B) The water somehow blocked the movement of ions across the membrane. C) The left side would probably also test negative for ions. D) Ions cannot cross planar bilayers. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.2, 6.3 Section: 6.2

18) Which of the following is the best explanation for why cholesterol decreases the permeability of biological membranes? A) Cholesterol binds to the outside surface of a membrane, thus blocking the movement of solutes. B) Because cholesterol is amphipathic, it forms tiny vesicles that trap solutes. C) Because cholesterol is amphipathic, it fits in between the phospholipids and blocks diffusion through the membrane. D) Cholesterol has four rings in its structure that can sequester ("trap") solutes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.2 Section: 6.2 19) Which aspect of phospholipids is most important to the formation of bilayers? A) They are amphipathic. B) Their polar heads can interact with water. C) The length of their hydrocarbon tails can be altered to modulate membrane fluidity. D) Their hydrocarbon tails can consist of fatty acids or isoprene subunits. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.2 Section: 6.2 20) Which of the following increases the strength of the hydrophobic interactions in lipid bilayers and thus makes them less permeable to polar molecules? A) The presence of double bonds B) Increasing temperature C) Removing cholesterol D) Increasing length of the hydrocarbon chains Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.2 Section: 6.2

21) Which of the following crosses lipid bilayers the fastest? A) A sodium ion B) A small, polar molecule like water C) A large, polar molecule like glucose D) A small, nonpolar molecule like oxygen (O2) Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.2 Section: 6.2 22) Which of the following crosses lipid bilayers the slowest? A) A sodium ion B) A small, polar molecule like water C) A large, polar molecule like glucose D) A small, nonpolar molecule like oxygen (O2) Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.2 Section: 6.2 23) You have just discovered an organism that lives in extremely cold environments. Which of the following would you predict to be TRUE about the phospholipids in its membranes, compared to phospholipids in the membranes of organisms that live in warmer environments? A) The membrane phospholipids of cold-adapted organisms will have longer hydrocarbon tails. B) The membrane phospholipids of cold-adapted organisms will have more saturated hydrocarbon tails. C) The membrane phospholipids of cold-adapted organisms will have more unsaturated hydrocarbon tails. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.2 Section: 6.2

24) You have a planar bilayer with equal amounts of saturated and unsaturated phospholipids. After testing the permeability of this membrane to glucose, you increase the proportion of unsaturated phospholipids in the bilayer. What will happen to the membrane's permeability to glucose? A) Permeability to glucose will increase. B) Permeability to glucose will decrease. C) Permeability to glucose will stay the same. D) You cannot predict the outcome; you must measure the permeability. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.2 Section: 6.2 25) The membranes of winter wheat remain fluid when it is extremely cold by ________. A) increasing the percentage of unsaturated phospholipids in the membrane B) increasing the percentage of saturated phospholipids in the membrane C) decreasing the number of hydrophobic proteins in the membrane D) cotransport of glucose and hydrogen E) using active transport Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.2 Section: 6.2 26) Which of the following would likely move through the lipid bilayer of a plasma membrane most rapidly? A) CO2 B) An amino acid C) Glucose D) K+ E) Starch Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.2 Section: 6.2

27) Which of the following factors tend to increase membrane fluidity? A) A greater proportion of unsaturated phospholipids B) A greater proportion of saturated phospholipids C) A lower temperature D) A relatively high protein content in the membrane E) A greater proportion of relatively large glycolipids compared with lipids having smaller molecular masses Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.2 Section: 6.2 28) Which of the following is TRUE regarding how cholesterol affects the fluidity and permeability of biological membranes? A) At low temperatures, cholesterol causes phospholipids to pack more tightly together, and therefore, decreases membrane fluidity and permeability. B) At high temperatures, cholesterol increases the spacing between phospholipids and therefore, increases membrane fluidity and permeability. C) At low temperatures, cholesterol increases membrane fluidity and permeability by reducing the extent to which phospholipids pack tightly together. D) At high temperatures, cholesterol decreases membrane fluidity by reducing the extent to which phospholipids pack tightly together. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.2 Section: 6.2 29) Ribonucleotides can diffuse through some types of liposomes. It is likely that the lipids present early in chemical evolution had short chains. Would liposomes formed from these types of lipids be more or less permeable to ribonucleotides than if early cells formed from longchained lipids? A) More permeable B) Less permeable C) Same permeability Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.3 Section: 6.3

30) What is the most important factor in explaining why osmosis occurs spontaneously? A) It leads to an increase in entropy. B) It leads to a decrease in entropy. C) The process is exothermic. D) The process is endothermic. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.3 Section: 6.3 31) Which of the following is TRUE of osmosis? A) Osmosis only takes place in red blood cells. B) Osmosis is an energy-demanding or "active" process. C) In osmosis, water moves across a membrane from areas of lower solute concentration to areas of higher solute concentration. D) In osmosis, solutes move across a membrane from areas of lower water concentration to areas of higher water concentration. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.3 Section: 6.3 32) Celery stalks that are immersed in freshwater for several hours become stiff. Similar stalks left in a 0.15 M salt solution become limp. From this, we can deduce that the freshwater ________. A) and the salt solution are both hypertonic to the cells of the celery stalks B) and the salt solution are both hypotonic to the cells of the celery stalks C) is hypotonic and the salt solution is hypertonic to the cells of the celery stalks D) is hypertonic and the salt solution is hypotonic to the cells of the celery stalks E) is isotonic and the salt solution is hypertonic to the cells of the celery stalks Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.3 Section: 6.3

The solutions in the arms of a U-tube are separated at the bottom of the tube by a selectively permeable membrane. The membrane is permeable to sodium chloride but not to glucose. Side A is filled with a solution of 0.4 M glucose and 0.5 M sodium chloride (NaCl), and side B is filled with a solution containing 0.8 M glucose and 0.4 M sodium chloride. Initially, the volume in both arms is the same.

33) Refer to the figure. At the beginning of the experiment, A) side A is hypertonic to side B. B) side A is hypotonic to side B. C) side A is isotonic to side B. D) side A is hypertonic to side B with respect to glucose. E) side A is hypotonic to side B with respect to NaCl. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.3 Section: 6.3 34) Refer to the figure. If you examine side A after three days, you should find ________. A) a decrease in the concentration of NaCl and glucose and an increase in the water level B) a decrease in the concentration of NaCl, an increase in the water level, and no change in the concentration of glucose C) no net change in the system D) a decrease in the concentration of NaCl and a decrease in the water level E) no change in the concentration of NaCl and glucose and an increase in the water level Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.3 Section: 6.3

Five dialysis bags constructed of membrane, which is permeable to water and impermeable to sucrose, were filled with various concentrations of sucrose and then placed in separate beakers containing an initial concentration of 0.6 M sucrose solution. At 10-minute intervals, the bags were massed (weighed) and the percentage change in mass of each bag was graphed.

35) Which line in the graph represents the bag that contained a solution isotonic to the 0.6 M solution at the beginning of the experiment? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.3 Section: 6.3 36) Which line in the graph represents the bag with the highest initial concentration of sucrose? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.3 Section: 6.3 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

37) Which line or lines in the graph represent(s) bags that contain a solution that is hypertonic at 50 minutes? A) A and B B) B C) C D) D E) D and E Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.3 Section: 6.3 38) A patient was involved in a serious accident and lost a large quantity of blood. An inexperienced observer suggests replenishing body fluids by adding distilled water to the blood directly via one of their veins. What would be the most probable result of this transfusion? A) It will have no unfavorable effect as long as the water is free of viruses and bacteria. B) The patient's red blood cells will shrivel up because the blood has become hypotonic compared to the cells. C) The patient's red blood cells will swell and possibly burst because the blood has become hypotonic compared to the cells. D) The patient's red blood cells will shrivel up because the blood has become hypertonic compared to the cells. E) The patient's red blood cells will burst because the blood has become hypertonic compared to the cells. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.3 Section: 6.3

39) Your study partner has drawn four models of membrane-bound vesicles to try to show what a vesicle would look like with water both inside and outside of the membrane. Help him to select the most accurate model. A)

Answer: C LO: 6.2; EO: 6.2.1

A student has drawn this model to study for her exam. Interpret the model.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 40) The model shows a cross-sectional, or side, view of a membrane. Answer: TRUE LO: 6.4; EO: 6.4.1, 6.4.2 41) The shape with the dark area represents a barrier to transport. Answer: FALSE LO: 6.4; EO: 6.4.1, 6.4.2 42) The phospholipids are drawn with their heads and tails in the correct orientation in the bilayer. Answer: TRUE LO: 6.4; EO: 6.4.1, 6.4.2 43) Three different types of macromolecules are represented in this model. Answer: TRUE LO: 6.4; EO: 6.4.1, 6.4.2

44) Four students have done a nice job drawing membrane models. Which model does the best job of showing osmosis?

A) Thomas B) Rekik C) Elsa D) Zubia Answer: C LO: 6.3; EO: 6.3.1

Refer to the following paragraph and accompanying figure to answer the following question(s).

Since structure correlates well with function, look for new ways to probe the complex structure of proteins in order to understand what they do and how they do it. One of the most powerful techniques in existence today is X-ray crystallography. The main difficulty with this technique is getting the protein to crystallize. Once crystallized, the protein is bombarded with X-rays to create a pattern that can be analyzed mathematically to determine the three-dimensional structure of the protein. This analysis has been performed by Palczewski (2000) on the protein rhodopsin, which is a light-sensitive protein found in species ranging from ancient bacteria (archaea) to humans. The structure (schematically shown above, where each letter represents an amino acid) is characterized by a single polypeptide chain with several α-helical segments that loop back and forth across the cell membrane. Another notable feature is the disulfide bond (–S–S–) that can be seen at the bottom of the third transmembrane segment. [Figure adapted from K. Palczewski et al., Science 289 (2000): 739.] 45) Which term best describes the type of membrane protein in the figure? A) Peripheral B) External C) Internal D) Integral Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4 46) Under what circumstances does membrane transport require energy? A) Wherever large molecules are moved within a cell B) Whenever a solute is moved against its electrochemical gradient C) Whenever an ion moves through a phospholipid bilayer membrane D) Whenever oxygen moves through a phospholipid bilayer membrane Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.2, 6.4 47) Where would you most likely find an integral membrane protein? A) On the inside surface of the cell membrane B) On the outside surface of the cell membrane C) Floating freely in the cytoplasm D) Spanning the cell membrane, with parts of the protein visible from both the inside and the outside of the cell Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4 48) Gramicidin is an antibiotic that increases the permeability of bacterial cell walls to inorganic ions. What is the most likely mode of action of gramicidin? A) It acts by active transport. B) It causes membranes to fuse with one another. C) It forms a channel in the membrane. D) It removes electrical charges from solutes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4

49) Use the following information when answering the corresponding question. Rhodopsins are light-sensitive molecules composed of a protein (opsin) and retinal (derivative of vitamin A). Opsin is a membrane protein with several α-helical segments that loop back and forth through the plasma membrane. There are two classes of rhodopsins. According to Oded Beje, one class has relatively slow dynamics (a photocycle of approximately 0.5 second) and is well suited for light detection. The second class has faster dynamics (a photocycle of approximately 0.02 seconds) and is well suited for chemiosmosis: pumping of protons or chloride ions across cell membranes. Oded Beje was the first, in September 2000, to report on a rhodopsin (proteorhodopsin) found in the domain Bacteria. [Source: O. Beje et al., Science 289 (2000): 1902.] Refer to the paragraph on rhodopsins. Which of the following best describes rhodopsin? A) Integral B) Peripheral C) External D) Internal Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4 50) A number of systems for pumping ions across membranes are powered by ATP. Such ATPpowered pumps are often called ATPases, although they do not often hydrolyze ATP unless they are simultaneously transporting ions. Because small increases in calcium ions in the cytosol can trigger a number of different intracellular reactions, cells keep the cytosolic calcium concentration quite low under normal conditions, using ATP-powered calcium pumps. For example, muscle cells transport calcium from the cytosol into the membranous system called the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). If a resting muscle cell's cytosol has a free calcium ion concentration of 10−7 while the concentration in the SR is 10−2, then how is the ATPase acting? A) ATPase activity must be powering an inflow of calcium from the outside of the cell into the SR. B) ATPase activity must be transferring i to the SR to enable this to occur. C) ATPase activity must be pumping calcium from the cytosol to the SR against the concentration gradient. D) ATPase activity must be opening a channel for the calcium ions to diffuse back into the SR along the concentration gradient. E) ATPase activity must be routing calcium ions from the SR to the cytosol and then to the cell's environment. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4 21 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

51) Which of the following types of molecules are the major structural components of the cell membrane? A) Phospholipids and cellulose B) Nucleic acids and proteins C) Phospholipids and proteins D) Proteins and cellulose Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.2, 6.4 52) When biological membranes are frozen and then fractured, they tend to break along the middle of the bilayer. The best explanation for this is that ________. A) the integral membrane proteins are not strong enough to hold the bilayer together B) water that is present in the middle of the bilayer freezes and is easily fractured C) hydrophilic interactions between the opposite membrane surfaces are destroyed on freezing D) the carbon–carbon bonds of the phospholipid tails are easily broken E) the hydrophobic interactions that hold the membrane together are weakest at this point Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.2, 6.4 53) For a protein to be an integral membrane protein, it would have to be ________. A) hydrophilic B) hydrophobic C) amphipathic, with at least one hydrophobic region D) completely covered with phospholipids E) exposed on only one surface of the membrane Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4

54) When a membrane is freeze-fractured, the bilayer splits down the middle between the two layers of phospholipids. In an electron micrograph of a freeze-fractured membrane, the bumps seen on the fractured surface of the membrane are ________. A) peripheral proteins B) phospholipids C) carbohydrates D) integral and peripheral proteins E) cholesterol molecules Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4 55) A membrane protein that spans the phospholipid bilayer one or more times is ________. A) a transmembrane protein B) an associated protein C) a peripheral protein Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4 56) Why are lipids and proteins free to move laterally in membranes? A) The interior of the membrane is filled with liquid water. B) Lipids and proteins repulse each other in the membrane. C) Hydrophilic portions of the lipids are in the interior of the membrane. D) There are only weak hydrophobic interactions in the interior of the membrane. E) Molecules such as cellulose can pull them in various directions. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.2, 6.4

57) Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a carrier protein in a plasma membrane? A) It is a peripheral membrane protein. B) It exhibits a specificity for a particular type of molecule. C) It requires the expenditure of cellular energy to function. D) It works against diffusion. E) It has no hydrophobic regions. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4 58) Which of the following allows water to move much faster across cell membranes? A) The hydrophobic interior of a cell membrane B) The sodium–potassium pump C) ATP D) Peripheral proteins E) Aquaporins Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4 59) Ions diffuse across membranes through specific ion channels down ________. A) their chemical gradients B) their concentration gradients C) their electrical gradients D) their electrochemical gradients E) the osmotic potential gradients Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4

60) In order for molecule X to cross the plasma membrane of a cell, it must first bind to an integral membrane protein. The binding of molecule X to the integral membrane protein immediately causes a conformational change to the integral membrane protein, which exposes molecule X to the other side of the membrane where it is then released. What is this an example of? A) Active transport B) Passive transport C) Neutral transport Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4 61) Carrier proteins release their cargo molecules ________. A) on the side of the membrane that has a lower concentration of the cargo molecule B) on the side of the membrane that has a higher concentration of the cargo molecule C) immediately after a phosphate has been added to the carrier protein D) immediately after a phosphate has been removed from the carrier protein Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4 62) Preventing the release of the phosphate from the Na+/K+-ATPase will have which of the following effects? A) It will prevent sodium from binding the pump. B) It will prevent sodium from being released from the pump. C) It will prevent potassium from binding the pump. D) It will prevent potassium from being released from the pump. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4

63) The phosphate transport system in bacteria imports phosphate into the cell even when the concentration of phosphate outside the cell is much lower than the cytoplasmic phosphate concentration. Phosphate import depends on a pH gradient across the membrane–more acidic outside the cell than inside the cell. Phosphate transport is an example of ________. A) passive diffusion B) facilitated diffusion C) active transport D) osmosis E) cotransport Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4 64) Glucose diffuses slowly through artificial phospholipid bilayers. The cells lining the small intestine, however, rapidly move large quantities of glucose from the glucose-rich food into their glucose-poor cytoplasm. Using this information, which transport mechanism is most probably functioning in the intestinal cells? A) Simple diffusion B) Phagocytosis C) Active transport pumps D) Exocytosis E) Facilitated diffusion Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4

65) For the following question, match the labeled component of the cell membrane in the figure with its description.

Which component is a peripheral protein? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4 66) In what way do the membranes of a eukaryotic cell vary? A) Phospholipids are found only in certain membranes. B) Certain proteins are unique to each membrane. C) Only certain membranes of the cell are selectively permeable. D) Only certain membranes are constructed from amphipathic molecules. E) Some membranes have hydrophobic surfaces exposed to the cytoplasm, while others have hydrophilic surfaces facing the cytoplasm. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4 27 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

67)

Based on the accompanying figure, which of these experimental treatments would increase the rate of sucrose transport into the cell? In this figure, sucrose is being imported into the cell. A) Decreasing extracellular sucrose concentration B) Decreasing extracellular pH C) Decreasing cytoplasmic pH D) Adding an inhibitor that blocks the regeneration of ATP E) Adding a substance that makes the membrane more permeable to hydrogen ions Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4 68) Which of the following membrane activities requires energy from ATP? A) Facilitated diffusion of chloride ions across the membrane through a chloride channel B) Movement of water into a cell C) Movement of Na+ ions from a lower concentration in a mammalian cell to a higher concentration in the extracellular fluid D) Movement of glucose molecules into a bacterial cell from a medium containing a higher concentration of glucose than that inside the cell E) Movement of carbon dioxide out of a paramecium Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4 28 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

69) In some cells, there are many ion electrochemical gradients across the plasma membrane even though there are usually only one or two proton pumps present in the membrane. The gradients of the other ions are most likely accounted for by ________. A) cotransport proteins B) ion channels C) pores in the plasma membrane D) passive diffusion across the plasma membrane E) cellular metabolic reactions that create or destroy ions Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4 70) Which of the following is most likely TRUE of a protein that cotransports glucose and sodium ions into the intestinal cells of an animal? A) Sodium and glucose compete for the same binding site in the cotransporter. B) Glucose entering the cell down its concentration gradient provides energy for uptake of sodium ions against the electrochemical gradient. C) Sodium ions can move down their electrochemical gradient through the cotransporter whether or not glucose is present outside the cell. D) The cotransporter can also transport potassium ions. E) A substance that blocks sodium ions from binding to the cotransport protein will also block the transport of glucose. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.4 Section: 6.4 71) Steroid hormones are large communication molecules that are modified cholesterol molecules. How do you think they enter a cell? A) Their size probably allows them to diffuse through the plasma membrane. B) Their lipid nature probably allows them to diffuse through the plasma membrane. C) Their protein structure probably allows them to diffuse through the plasma membrane. D) They must require a protein transporter, because the plasma membrane is completely impermeable to molecules. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.1, 6.4 Section: 6.1, 6.4

72) Which of the following processes includes all others? A) Osmosis B) Diffusion of a solute across a membrane C) Facilitated diffusion D) Passive transport E) Transport of an ion down its electrochemical gradient Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 6.3, 6.4 Section: 6.3, 6.4

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 7 Inside the Cell 1) All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell EXCEPT ________. A) DNA B) a cell wall C) a plasma membrane D) ribosomes E) an endoplasmic reticulum Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.1 Section: 7.1 2) In a bacterium, we will find DNA in ________. A) a membrane-enclosed nucleus B) mitochondria C) the endoplasmic reticulum D) the nucleoid E) ribosomes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.1 Section: 7.1 3) Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of the following molecules? A) Lipids B) Glycogen C) Proteins D) Cellulose E) Nucleic acids Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.1, 7.2 Section: 7.1, 7.2

4) Which of the following is present in a prokaryotic cell? A) Mitochondrion B) Ribosome C) Nuclear envelope D) Chloroplast E) ER Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.1 Section: 7.1 5) Which of the following is NOT found in a prokaryote? A) DNA B) A cell wall C) A mitochondrion D) A plasma membrane Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.1, 7.2 Section: 7.1, 7.2 6) The evolution of eukaryotic cells most likely involved ________. A) endosymbiosis of an aerobic bacterium in a larger host cell–the endosymbiont evolved into mitochondria B) anaerobic archaea taking up residence inside a larger bacterial host cell to escape toxic oxygen—the anaerobic bacterium evolved into chloroplasts C) an endosymbiotic fungal cell evolving into the nucleus D) acquisition of an endomembrane system and subsequent evolution of mitochondria from a portion of the Golgi apparatus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2

7) The nuclear lamina is an array of filaments on the inner side of the nuclear membrane. If a method were found that could cause the lamina to fall into disarray, what would you most likely expect to be the immediate consequence? A) The loss of all nuclear function B) The inability of the nucleus to divide during cell division C) A change in the shape of the nucleus D) Failure of chromosomes to carry genetic information E) Inability of the ribosomes to produce proteins Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2 8) A cell with a predominance of free ribosomes is most likely ________. A) primarily producing proteins for secretion B) primarily producing proteins in the cytosol C) constructing an extensive cell wall or extracellular matrix D) digesting large food particles E) enlarging its vacuole Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2 9) Which type of organelle or structure is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, phospholipids, and steroids? A) Ribosome B) Lysosome C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum D) Mitochondrion E) Contractile vacuole Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2

10) Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may be exported from the cell? A) Rough ER B) Lysosomes C) Plasmodesmata D) Golgi vesicles E) Free cytoplasmic ribosomes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2 11) The Golgi apparatus has a polarity, or sidedness, to its structure and function. Which of the following statements correctly describes this polarity? A) Transport vesicles fuse with one side of the Golgi and leave from the opposite side. B) Proteins in the membrane of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from one side of the Golgi to the other. C) Lipids in the membrane of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from one side of the Golgi to the other. D) Soluble proteins in the cisternae (interior) of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from one side of the Golgi to the other. E) All of the listed responses correctly describe polarity characteristics of the Golgi function. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2 12) Tay-Sachs disease is a human genetic abnormality that results in cells accumulating and becoming clogged with very large, complex, undigested lipids. Which cellular organelle must be involved in this condition? A) The endoplasmic reticulum B) The Golgi apparatus C) The lysosome D) Mitochondrion E) Membrane-bound ribosomes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2

13) The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs. Which of the following structures is primarily involved in this process and, therefore, abundant in liver cells? A) Rough ER B) Smooth ER C) Golgi apparatus D) Nuclear envelope E) Transport vesicles Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2 14) Which of the following produces and modifies polysaccharides that will be secreted? A) Lysosome B) Vacuole C) Mitochondrion D) Golgi apparatus E) Peroxisome Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2 15) Which of the following contains hydrolytic enzymes? A) Lysosome B) Vacuole C) Mitochondrion D) Golgi apparatus E) Peroxisome Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2

16) Which organelle often takes up much of the volume of a plant cell? A) Lysosome B) Vacuole C) Mitochondrion D) Golgi apparatus E) Peroxisome Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2 17) Which organelle is the primary site of ATP synthesis in eukaryotic cells? A) Lysosome B) Vacuole C) Mitochondrion D) Golgi apparatus E) Peroxisome Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2 18) Which plant cell organelle contains its own DNA and ribosomes? A) Glyoxysome B) Vacuole C) Mitochondrion D) Golgi apparatus E) Peroxisome Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2

19) Which animal cell organelle contains enzymes that transfer hydrogen from various substrates to oxygen? A) Lysosome B) Vacuole C) Mitochondrion D) Golgi apparatus E) Peroxisome Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2 20) Thylakoids, DNA, and ribosomes are all components found in ________. A) vacuoles B) chloroplasts C) mitochondria D) lysosomes E) nuclei Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2 21) In a plant cell, DNA may be found ________. A) only in the nucleus B) only in the nucleus and mitochondria C) only in the nucleus and chloroplasts D) in the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts E) in the nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts, and peroxisomes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2

22) Suppose a cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, and mitochondria. It could be a cell from ________. A) a bacterium B) an animal but not a plant C) nearly any eukaryotic organism D) a plant but not an animal E) any kind of prokaryotic organism Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2 23) When a potassium ion (K+) moves from the soil into the vacuole of a cell on the surface of a root, it must pass through several cellular structures. Which of the following correctly describes the order in which these structures will be encountered by the ion? A) Plasma membrane → primary cell wall → cytoplasm → vacuole B) Secondary cell wall → plasma membrane → primary cell wall → cytoplasm → vacuole C) Primary cell wall → plasma membrane → cytoplasm → vacuole D) Primary cell wall → plasma membrane → lysosome → cytoplasm → vacuole E) Primary cell wall → plasma membrane → cytoplasm → secondary cell wall → vacuole Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2, 7.3 Section: 7.2, 7.5 24) Where are proteins produced other than on ribosomes free in the cytosol or ribosomes attached to the ER? A) In the extracellular matrix B) In the Golgi apparatus C) In lysosomes D) In mitochondria E) In the nucleolus Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2

25) A biologist ground up some plant leaf cells and then centrifuged the mixture to fractionate the organelles. Organelles in one of the heavier fractions could produce ATP in the light, whereas organelles in the lighter fraction could produce ATP in the dark. The heavier and lighter fractions are most likely to contain, respectively, ________. A) mitochondria and chloroplasts B) chloroplasts and peroxisomes C) peroxisomes and chloroplasts D) chloroplasts and mitochondria E) mitochondria and peroxisomes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2, 7.3 Section: 7.2, 7.3 26) Which structure is common to plant and animal cells? A) Chloroplast B) Wall made of cellulose C) Central vacuole D) Mitochondrion E) Centriole Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2 27) Cyanide binds with at least one molecule involved in producing ATP. If a cell is exposed to cyanide, most of the cyanide will be found within the ________. A) mitochondria B) ribosomes C) peroxisomes D) lysosomes E) endoplasmic reticulum Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2

28) A cell with an extensive area of smooth endoplasmic reticulum is specialized to ________. A) play a role in storage B) synthesize large quantities of lipids C) actively export protein molecules D) import and export protein molecules Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2 29) Why is the smooth endoplasmic reticulum unable to synthesize proteins? A) No ribosomes are attached to its surface. B) There is no supply of free amino acids that it can easily access. C) It stores calcium, which is a known inhibitor of protein synthesis. D) It has no DNA to direct synthesis of proteins. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2 30) Lysosomes are considered to be part of the endomembrane system because they ________. A) deposit end-products of digestion in the endoplasmic reticulum B) facilitate movement between stacks of the Golgi C) are formed from products synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum and processed by the Golgi D) are composed largely of phospholipids Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2

31) Which of the following is a major difference between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells? A) Prokaryotes have cells but eukaryotes do not. B) Eukaryotic cells have more intracellular organelles than prokaryotes. C) Prokaryotes are not able to carry out aerobic respiration, relying instead on anaerobic metabolism. D) Prokaryotes are generally larger than eukaryotes. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.1, 7.2 Section: 7.1, 7.2 32) Suppose a young boy is always tired and fatigued, suffering from a metabolic disease. Which of the following organelles is most likely involved in this disease? A) Lysosomes B) Golgi apparatus C) Ribosomes D) Mitochondria Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2 33) When yeast cells are transferred from anaerobic to aerobic growth conditions, which of these organelles become much more numerous? A) Lysosomes B) Golgi apparatus C) Ribosomes D) Mitochondria Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2

34) An organism with a cell wall would most likely be unable to take in materials through ________. A) diffusion B) osmosis C) active transport D) phagocytosis E) facilitated diffusion Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.2 Section: 7.2, 7.5 35) A primary objective of cell fractionation (including differential centrifugation) is to ________. A) view the structure of cell membranes B) sort cells based on their size and weight C) determine the size of various organelles D) separate the major organelles E) separate lipid-soluble from water-soluble molecules Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.3 Section: 7.3 36) Which of the following macromolecules leaves the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell through pores in the nuclear membrane? A) DNA B) Amino acids C) mRNA D) Phospholipids Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.4 Section: 7.4

37) What can you infer about a high-molecular-weight protein that cannot be transported into the nucleus? A) It is too large. B) It lacks a nuclear localization signal (NLS). C) It contains errors in its amino acid sequence. D) It lacks a signal sequence. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.4 Section: 7.4 38) What is the function of the nuclear pore complex found in eukaryotes? A) It regulates the movement of proteins and RNAs into and out of the nucleus. B) It synthesizes the proteins required to copy DNA and make mRNA. C) It selectively transports molecules out of the nucleus but prevents all inbound molecules from entering the nucleus. D) It assembles ribosomes from raw materials that are synthesized in the nucleus. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.4 Section: 7.4 39) The difference in lipid and protein composition between the membranes of the endomembrane system is largely determined by the ________. A) interconnection of most intracellular membranes to the nuclear envelope B) transportation of membrane lipids among the membranes of the endomembrane system by small membrane vesicles C) function of the Golgi apparatus in sorting and directing membrane components D) modification of the membrane components once they reach their final destination E) synthesis of different lipids and proteins in each of the organelles of the endomembrane system Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.5 Section: 7.5

40) What is the most likely pathway taken by a newly synthesized protein that will be secreted by a cell? A) ER → Golgi → nucleus B) Golgi → ER → lysosome C) Nucleus → ER → Golgi D) ER → Golgi → vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane E) ER → lysosomes → vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.5 Section: 7.5 41) Proteins coded for by nuclear DNA but found within mitochondria move from the cytoplasm into mitochondria using ________. A) signal sequences (peptides) B) random transport vesicles C) attachment of ribosomes to outer mitochondrial pores and direct deposition into the inner mitochondrial compartment D) mRNAs that are manufactured in the nucleus but translated by mitochondrial ribosomes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.5 Section: 7.5 42) Scientists have found that polypeptides which are normally synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum are about 20 amino acids longer when they are synthesized by ribosomes not attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. What is a possible explanation for the greater length of these polypeptides? A) Ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum require fewer amino acids to function. B) The 20 amino acids serve as a signal (peptide) sequence that directs the forming polypeptides to the endoplasmic reticulum, where they are cleaved off during processing. C) The 20-amino-acid sequence helps the endoplasmic reticulum package these proteins for shipping to the Golgi. D) The protein has a different function in the cytosol than in the endoplasmic reticulum. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.5 Section: 7.5

43) Lysosomes that lack mannose-6-phosphate receptors ________. A) receive "modified" enzymes and are thus unable to break down carbohydrates B) do not receive enzyme shipments from the Golgi apparatus C) have unstable membranes D) stick to transport vesicles and impede the transfer of enzymes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.5 Section: 7.5 44) Asbestos is a material that was once used extensively in construction. One risk from working in a building that contains asbestos is the development of asbestosis caused by the inhalation of asbestos fibers. Cells will phagocytize asbestos but are not able to degrade it. As a result, asbestos fibers accumulate in ________. A) mitochondria B) ribosomes C) peroxisomes D) lysosomes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.5 Section: 7.5 45) In receptor-mediated endocytosis, receptor molecules initially project to the outside of the cell. Where do they end up after endocytosis? A) On the outside of vesicles B) On the inside surface of the cell membrane C) On the inside surface of the vesicle D) On the outer surface of the nucleus E) On the ER Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.5 Section: 7.5

46) Eukaryotic cells manufacture cytoskeletal proteins, which help to maintain cell shapes and functions. What would you predict about these proteins? A) They initially contain signal sequences that allow their entrance into the endoplasmic reticulum. B) They are manufactured on free ribosomes in the cytoplasm. C) They are glycosylated in the Golgi apparatus. D) They travel to the nucleus in a transport vesicle with a specific signal. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.6 Section: 7.6 47) Motor proteins provide for molecular motion in cells by interacting with what types of cellular structures? A) Mitochondria and chloroplasts B) Membrane proteins of the inner nuclear envelope C) Free ribosomes and ribosomes attached to the ER D) Components of the cytoskeleton E) Cellulose fibers in the cell wall Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.6 Section: 7.6 48) Movement of vesicles within the cell depends on what cellular structures? A) Microtubules and motor proteins B) Actin filaments and microtubules C) Actin filaments and ribosomes D) Centrioles and motor proteins E) Actin filaments and motor proteins Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.6 Section: 7.6

49) Which of the following correctly matches a component of the cytoskeleton to one of its functions? A) Microfilaments form the nuclear lamina. B) Microtubules help animal cells divide into two. C) Microfilaments cause ciliary bending. D) Intermediate filaments contribute to cytoplasmic streaming. E) Microtubules move chromosomes. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.6 Section: 7.6 50) Centrioles, cilia, flagella, and basal bodies have remarkably similar structural elements and arrangements. Which of the following hypotheses is most plausible in light of such structural similarities? A) Cilia and flagella arise from centrioles. B) Loss of basal bodies should prevent cells from dividing into two. C) Motor proteins such as dynein must have evolved before any of these four kinds of structure. D) Cilia and flagella evolved separately in the same ancestral eukaryotic organism. E) Natural selection for cell motility repeatedly selected for microtubular arrays in circular patterns in the evolution of each of these structures. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.6 Section: 7.6 51) Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is TRUE? A) The cytoskeleton of eukaryotes is a static structure most resembling scaffolding used at construction sites. B) Although microtubules are common within a cell, actin filaments are rarely found outside of the nucleus. C) Movement of cilia and flagella is the result of motor proteins causing microtubules to move relative to each other. D) Chemicals that block the assembly of the cytoskeleton would have little effect on a cell's response to external stimuli. E) The cytoskeleton is produced by transport vesicles of the endomembrane system. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.6 Section: 7.6 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

52) Cells require which of the following to form cilia or flagella? A) Tubulin B) Laminin C) Actin D) Intermediate filaments E) Secretory vesicles Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.6 Section: 7.6 53) Actin filaments have polarity. This means that the two ends can be identified due to structural differences. The plus end is the end to which subunits are added more rapidly, or the end of polymerization. Which of the following would enable you to identify the plus end of actin filaments? A) Adding radiolabeled actin subunits to a mixture of actin filaments in which conditions are favorable for polymerization B) Adding radiolabeled actin subunits to a mixture of actin filaments in which conditions favor depolymerization C) Determining the ionic charge of the ends of the actin filaments D) Treating the filaments with a chemical to fluorescently stain them Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.6 Section: 7.6 54) Amoebae move by crawling over a surface (cell crawling), which involves ________. A) growth of actin filaments to form bulges in the plasma membrane B) setting up microtubule extensions that vesicles can follow in the movement of cytoplasm C) reinforcing the pseudopod with intermediate filaments D) cytoplasmic streaming Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.6 Section: 7.6

55) Researchers tried to explain how vesicular transport occurs in cells by attempting to assemble the transport components. They set up microtubular tracks along which vesicles could be transported, and they added vesicles and ATP (because they knew the transport process requires energy). Yet, when they put everything together, there was no movement or transport of vesicles. What were they missing? A) An axon B) Contractile microfilaments C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Motor proteins Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.6 Section: 7.6 56) How is the structure of kinesin related to its function? A) Kinesin has two intertwined polypeptides that make up the stalk and enable it to contract and shorten. B) Kinesin has a tail region that binds to vesicles and two heads that can attach to microtubules. C) The kinesin tail has an ATP binding site to fuel its activities. D) Kinesin has two heads to attach to the vesicle being moved and a tail region that attaches to microtubules. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.7 Section: 7.6 57) Motor proteins require energy in the form of ATP. ATP hydrolysis results in a conformational change that allows the protein to move along microtubular tracks (pathways). What structural component of the motor protein contains the ATP binding site and, therefore, changes shape to enable movement? A) The portion of the molecule that binds to the vesicle being transported B) The stalk C) The portion of the molecule that binds to the microtubular track along which the vesicle is being transported D) A location midway between the vesicle binding site and the portion of the molecule that binds to microtubular tracks Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.6 Section: 7.6 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

58) Cilia and flagella bend because of ________. A) conformational changes in ATP that thrust microtubules laterally B) a motor protein called radial spokes C) the quick inward movements of water by osmosis D) a motor protein called dynein Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.6 Section: 7.6 59) Which structure—function pair is mismatched? A) Nucleolus—production of ribosomal subunits B) Lysosome—intracellular digestion C) Ribosome—protein synthesis D) Golgi—protein trafficking E) Microtubule—muscle contraction Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.7 Section: 7.2, 7.6 60) Spherocytosis is a human blood disorder associated with a defective cytoskeletal protein in the red blood cells (RBCs). What do you suspect is the consequence of such a defect? A) Abnormally shaped RBCs B) An insufficient supply of ATP in the RBCs C) An insufficient supply of oxygen-transporting proteins in the RBCs D) Adherence of RBCs to blood vessel walls, causing plaque formation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 7.7 Section: 7.6

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 8 Energy and Enzymes: An Introduction to Metabolism 1) What is the most common form of kinetic energy that is released from chemical energy in chemical reactions? A) Sound B) Electromagnetic radiation C) Electricity D) Light E) Thermal Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.1 Section: 8.1 2) When chemical, transport, or mechanical work is done by an organism, what happens to the heat generated? A) It is used to power yet more cellular work. B) It is used to store energy as more ATP. C) It is used to generate ADP from nucleotide precursors. D) It is lost to the environment. E) It is transported to specific organs such as the brain. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.1 Section: 8.1, 8.2 3) Which of the following is a statement of the first law of thermodynamics? A) Energy cannot be created or destroyed. B) The entropy of the universe is decreasing. C) The entropy of the universe is constant. D) Kinetic energy is stored energy that results from the specific arrangement of matter. E) Energy cannot be transferred or transformed. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.2 Section: 8.1

4) For living organisms, which of the following is an important consequence of the first law of thermodynamics? A) The energy content of an organism is constant. B) The organism ultimately must obtain all of the necessary energy for life from its environment. C) The entropy of an organism decreases with time as the organism grows in complexity. D) Organisms grow by converting energy into organic matter. E) Life does not obey the first law of thermodynamics. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.2 Section: 8.1 5) Living organisms increase in complexity as they grow, resulting in a decrease in the entropy of an organism. How does this relate to the second law of thermodynamics? A) Living organisms do not obey the second law of thermodynamics, which states that entropy must increase with time. B) Life obeys the second law of thermodynamics because the decrease in entropy as the organism grows is exactly balanced by an increase in the entropy of the universe. C) Living organisms do not follow the laws of thermodynamics. D) As a consequence of growing, organisms cause a greater increase in entropy in their environment than the decrease in entropy associated with their growth. E) Living organisms are able to transform energy into entropy. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.2 Section: 8.1 6) Whenever energy is transformed, there is always an increase in the ________. A) free energy of the system B) free energy of the universe C) entropy of the system D) entropy of the universe E) enthalpy of the universe Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.2 Section: 8.1

7) Which of the following statements is a logical consequence of the second law of thermodynamics? A) If the entropy of a system increases, there must be a corresponding decrease in the entropy of the universe. B) If there is an increase in the energy of a system, there must be a corresponding decrease in the energy of the rest of the universe. C) Every energy transfer requires activation energy from the environment. D) Every chemical reaction must increase the total entropy of the universe. E) Energy can be transferred or transformed, but it cannot be created or destroyed. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.2 Section: 8.1 8) Which of the following statements is representative of the second law of thermodynamics? A) Conversion of energy from one form to another is always accompanied by some gain of free energy. B) Heat represents a form of energy that can be used by most organisms to do work. C) Without an input of energy, organisms would tend toward decreasing entropy. D) Cells require a constant input of energy to maintain their high level of organization. E) Every energy transformation by a cell decreases the entropy of the universe. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.2 Section: 8.1 9) Which of the following is an example of potential rather than kinetic energy? A) The muscle contractions of a person mowing grass B) Water rushing over Niagara Falls C) Light flashes emitted by a firefly D) A molecule of glucose E) A crawling beetle foraging for food Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.2 Section: 8.1

10) The mathematical expression for the change in free energy of a system is ΔG =ΔH − TΔS. Which of the following is correct? A) ΔS is the change in enthalpy, a measure of randomness. B) ΔH is the change in entropy, the energy available to do work. C) ΔG is the change in free energy. D) T is the temperature in degrees Celsius. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.2 Section: 8.1 11) A system at chemical equilibrium ________. A) consumes energy at a steady rate B) releases energy at a steady rate C) consumes or releases energy, depending on whether it is exergonic or endergonic D) has zero kinetic energy E) can do no work Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.2 Section: 8.1 12) A chemical reaction that has a positive ΔG is best described as ________. A) endergonic B) entropic C) enthalpic D) spontaneous E) exergonic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.2 Section: 8.1

13) Enthalpy (H) is the ________. A) total kinetic energy of a system B) total energy in biological systems C) system's entropy D) cell's energy equilibrium E) condition of a cell that is not able to react Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.2 Section: 8.1 14) Biological evolution of life on Earth, from simple prokaryote-like cells to large, multicellular eukaryotic organisms ________. A) has occurred in accordance with the laws of thermodynamics B) has caused an increase in the entropy of the planet C) has been made possible by expending Earth's energy resources D) has occurred in accordance with the laws of thermodynamics, by expending Earth's energy resources and causing an increase in the entropy of the planet E) violates the laws of thermodynamics because Earth is a closed system Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.2 Section: 8.1 15) Which of the following is TRUE for all exergonic reactions? A) The products have more total energy than the reactants. B) The reaction proceeds with a net release of free energy. C) The reaction goes only in a forward direction: All reactants will be converted to products, but no products will be converted to reactants. D) A net input of energy from the surroundings is required for the reactions to proceed. E) The reactions are rapid. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.2 Section: 8.1

16) Which of the following will increase the rate of a chemical reaction? A) Increase the temperature at which the reaction occurs. B) Decrease the concentrations of the reactants. C) Decrease the temperature at which the reaction occurs. D) Allow the reaction to proceed for a longer time. E) Decrease the amount of time in which the reaction is allowed to occur. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.2 Section: 8.1 17) Refer to the iodine clock experiment on page 178. Which of the following set of statements is correct? A) Increasing the concentration of the reactants and decreasing the temperature of the reaction both increase the reaction rate. B) Increasing the temperature of the reaction and decreasing the concentration of the reactants both increase the reaction rate. C) Decreasing the concentration of the reactants and decreasing the concentration of the reactants both increase the reaction rate. D) Increasing the concentration of the reactants and increasing the concentration of the reactants both increase the reaction rate. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.2 Section: 8.1 18) Which statement is true of the following reaction? C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O A) Glucose carbons are oxidized to carbon dioxide B) Glucose oxygens are oxidized to carbon dioxide C) Glucose oxygens are oxidized to water D) Glucose carbons are reduced to carbon dioxide Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.3 Section: 8.2

19) Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism? A) Its hydrolysis provides an input of free energy for exergonic reactions. B) It energetically couples exergonic and endergonic reactions. C) Its terminal phosphate group contains a strong covalent bond that, when hydrolyzed, releases free energy. D) Its terminal phosphate bond has higher energy than the other two phosphate bonds. E) It is one of the four building blocks for DNA synthesis. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.3 Section: 8.2 20) Catabolic pathways ________. A) combine molecules into more energy-rich molecules B) supply energy, primarily in the form of ATP, for the cell's work C) are endergonic D) are spontaneous and do not need enzyme catalysis in living systems E) build up complex molecules such as protein from simpler compounds Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.2, 8.3, 8.6 Section: 8.2, 8.5

21) Which of the following is the most correct interpretation of the accompanying figure? A) Inorganic phosphate is created from organic phosphate. B) Energy from catabolism can be used directly for performing cellular work. C) ADP + Pi are a set of molecules that store energy for catabolism. D) ATP is a molecule that acts as an intermediary to store energy for cellular work. E) Pi acts as a shuttle molecule to move energy from ATP to ADP. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.3, 8.5 Section: 8.2 22) How do cells use the ATP cycle shown in the figure? A) Cells use the cycle to recycle ADP and phosphate. B) Cells use the cycle to recycle energy released by ATP hydrolysis. C) Cells use the cycle to recycle ADP, phosphate, and the energy released by ATP hydrolysis. D) Cells use the cycle to generate or consume water molecules as needed. E) Cells use the cycle primarily to generate heat. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.3, 8.5 Section: 8.2

23) Which of the following is TRUE when comparing an uncatalyzed reaction to the same reaction with a catalyst? A) The catalyzed reaction will be slower. B) The catalyzed reaction will have the same ∆G. C) The catalyzed reaction will have higher activation energy. D) The catalyzed reaction will consume all of the catalyst. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3 24) You have discovered an enzyme that can catalyze two different chemical reactions. Which of the following is most likely to be correct? A) The enzyme contains α-helices and β-pleated sheets. B) The enzyme is subject to competitive inhibition and allosteric regulation. C) Two types of allosteric regulation occur: The binding of one molecule activates the enzyme, while the binding of a different molecule inhibits it. D) Either the enzyme has two distinct active sites or the reactants involved in the two reactions are very similar in size and shape. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3, 8.4, 8.5 25) Consider the HIV enzyme called protease. The amino acid residues at the active site are highly hydrophobic. In designing a drug that would bind to the active site and jam it, researchers should use a molecule that is ________. A) hydrophobic B) polar C) charged D) acidic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3, 8.4

26) The lock-and-key analogy for enzymes applies to the specificity of enzymes ________. A) as they form their tertiary structure B) as they form their tertiary and quaternary structure C) binding to their substrate D) interacting with water E) interacting with ions Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3 27) Which of the following statements is TRUE about enzyme-catalyzed reactions? A) The reaction is faster than the same reaction in the absence of the enzyme. B) The free-energy change of the reaction is opposite from the reaction that occurs in the absence of the enzyme. C) An enzyme catalyzes a reaction by raising the activation energy. D) Enzyme-catalyzed reactions require energy to activate the enzyme. E) Enzyme-catalyzed reactions release more free energy than noncatalyzed reactions. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3 28) Reactants capable of interacting to form products in a chemical reaction must first overcome a thermodynamic barrier known as the reaction's ________. A) entropy B) activation energy C) endothermic level D) equilibrium point E) free-energy content Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3

29) A solution of starch at room temperature does NOT readily decompose to form a solution of simple sugars because ________. A) the starch solution has less free energy than the sugar solution B) the hydrolysis of starch to sugar is endergonic C) the activation energy barrier for this reaction cannot easily be surmounted at room temperature D) starch cannot be hydrolyzed in the presence of so much water E) starch hydrolysis is nonspontaneous Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3 30) Enzymes ________. A) increase the rate of a reaction by making the reaction more exergonic B) increase the rate of a reaction by lowering the activation energy C) increase the rate of a reaction by reducing the rate of reverse reactions D) change the equilibrium point of the reactions they catalyze E) make the rate of a reaction independent of substrate concentrations Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3 31) During a laboratory experiment, you discover that an enzyme-catalyzed reaction has a ∆G of −20 kcal/mol. If you double the amount of enzyme in the reaction, what will be the ∆G for the new reaction? A) −40 kcal/mol B) −20 kcal/mol C) 0 kcal/mol D) +20 kcal/mol E) +40 kcal/mol Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3

32) The active site of an enzyme is the region that ________. A) binds allosteric regulators of the enzyme B) is involved in the catalytic reaction of the enzyme C) binds noncompetitive inhibitors of the enzyme D) is inhibited by the presence of a coenzyme or a cofactor Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3 33) According to the induced fit hypothesis of enzyme catalysis, ________. A) the binding of the substrate depends on the shape of the active site B) some enzymes change their structure when activators bind to the enzyme C) a competitive inhibitor can outcompete the substrate for the active site D) the binding of the substrate changes the shape of the enzyme's active site E) the active site creates a microenvironment ideal for the reaction Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3 34) Which of the following is TRUE of enzymes? A) Enzyme function is increased if the 3-D structure or conformation of an enzyme is altered. B) Enzyme function is independent of physical and chemical environmental factors such as pH and temperature. C) Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reaction by lowering the activation energy. D) Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reaction by providing activation energy to the substrate. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3

35) Zinc, an essential trace element for most organisms, is present in the active site of the enzyme carboxypeptidase. The zinc most likely functions as ________. A) a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme B) a noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme C) an allosteric activator of the enzyme D) a cofactor necessary for enzyme activity E) a coenzyme derived from a vitamin Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3, 8.4 36) To attach a particular amino acid to the tRNA molecule that will transport it, an enzyme called aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase is required, along with ATP. Initially, the enzyme has a binding site for ATP and another for the amino acid, but it is not able to attach the tRNA. What must occur for the final attachment to occur? A) The ATP must first have to attach to the tRNA. B) The binding of the first two molecules must cause a 3-D change that opens another binding site on the enzyme. C) The ATP must be hydrolyzed to allow the amino acid to bind to the synthetase. D) The tRNA molecule must alter its shape to be able to fit into the active site with the other two molecules. E) The 3' end of the tRNA must be cleaved before it can have an attached amino acid. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3

37) Some of the drugs used to treat HIV patients are competitive inhibitors of the HIV reverse transcriptase enzyme. Unfortunately, the high mutation rate of HIV means that the virus rapidly acquires mutations with amino acid changes that make them resistant to these competitive inhibitors. Where in the reverse transcriptase enzyme would such amino acid changes most likely occur in drug-resistant viruses? A) In or near the active site B) At an allosteric site C) At a cofactor binding site D) In regions of the protein that determine packaging into the virus capsid E) Such mutations could occur anywhere with equal probability. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3

38)

Rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction as a function of varying reactant concentration, with the concentration of enzyme constant. In the accompanying figure, why does the reaction rate plateau at higher reactant concentrations? A) Feedback inhibition by product occurs at high reactant concentrations. B) Most enzyme molecules are occupied by substrate at high reactant concentrations. C) The reaction nears equilibrium at high reactant concentrations. D) The activation energy for the reaction increases with reactant concentration. E) The rate of the reverse reaction increases with reactant concentration. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3

39) Which of the following terms best describes the forward reaction in the figure? A) Endergonic, ∆G > 0 B) Exergonic, ∆G < 0 C) Endergonic, ∆G < 0 D) Exergonic, ∆G > 0 E) Chemical equilibrium, ∆G = 0 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3 40) Which of the following represents the ΔG of the reaction in the figure? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3

41) Which of the following in the figure would be the same in either an enzyme-catalyzed or a noncatalyzed reaction? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.3 Section: 8.3 42) Which of the following represents the activation energy needed for the enzyme-catalyzed reverse reaction, C + D → A + B, in the figure? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3 43) Which of the following represents the difference between the free-energy content of the reactants and the free-energy content of the products in the figure? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3

44) Which of the following represents the activation energy required for a noncatalyzed reaction in the figure? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3 45) Which of the following represents the activation energy needed for the noncatalyzed reverse reaction, C + D → A + B, in the figure? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.4 Section: 8.3 46) You have isolated a previously unstudied protein, identified its complete structure in detail, and determined that it catalyzes the breakdown of a large substrate. You notice it has two binding sites. One of these is large, apparently the bonding site for the large substrate; the other is small, possibly a binding site for a regulatory molecule. What do these findings tell you about the mechanism of this protein? A) It is probably a structural protein that is involved in cell-to-cell adhesion. B) It is probably an enzyme that works through allosteric regulation. C) It is probably an enzyme that works through competitive inhibition. D) It is probably a cell membrane transport protein—like an ion channel. E) It is probably a structural protein found in cartilage or skeletal tissue. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.5 Section: 8.4

47) HIV is the virus that causes AIDS. In the mid-1990s, researchers discovered an enzyme in HIV called protease. Once the enzyme's structure was known, researchers began looking for drugs that would fit into the active site and block it. If this strategy for stopping HIV infections were successful, it would be an example of what phenomenon? A) Vaccination B) Denaturation C) Allosteric regulation D) Competitive inhibition Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.5 Section: 8.4

48) You collect data on the effect of pH on the function of the enzyme catalase in human cells. Which of the following graphs would you expect? A)

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.5 Section: 8.4

49) Mutations that result in a single amino acid substitution in an enzyme ________. A) cannot affect the activity or properties of the enzyme B) will destroy the activity of the enzyme C) will change the substrate specificity of the enzyme D) may change the enzyme's optimal temperature or optimal pH E) may, in rare cases, cause the enzyme to run reactions in reverse Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.5 Section: 8.4 50) Increasing the substrate concentration in an enzymatic reaction could overcome which of the following? A) The need for a coenzyme B) Allosteric inhibition C) Competitive inhibition D) Insufficient cofactors Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.5 Section: 8.3, 8.4 51) An allosteric inhibitor decreases the rate of an enzyme reaction by ________. A) binding at the active site of the enzyme B) changing the shape of the enzyme's active site C) changing the overall free-energy of the reaction D) acting as a coenzyme for the reaction E) decreasing the activation energy of the reaction Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.5 Section: 8.4

Activity of various enzymes at various temperatures (a) and at various pH (b). 52) Which curves on the accompanying graphs may represent the temperature and pH profiles of an enzyme taken from a bacterium that lives in a mildly alkaline hot springs at temperatures of 70°C or higher? A) Curves 1 and 5 B) Curves 2 and 4 C) Curves 2 and 5 D) Curves 3 and 4 E) Curves 3 and 5 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.5 Section: 8.4

53) Which temperature and pH profile curves on the graphs were most likely generated from analysis of an enzyme from a human stomach where conditions are strongly acid? A) Curves 1 and 4 B) Curves 1 and 5 C) Curves 2 and 4 D) Curves 2 and 5 E) Curves 3 and 4 Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.5 Section: 8.4 A series of enzymes catalyze the reaction X → Y → Z → A. Product A binds to the enzyme that converts X to Y at a position remote from its active site. This binding decreases the activity of the enzyme. 54) What is substance X? A) A coenzyme B) An allosteric inhibitor C) A substrate D) An intermediate E) The product Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.6 Section: 8.5 55) With respect to the enzyme that converts X to Y, substance A functions as ________. A) a coenzyme B) an allosteric inhibitor C) the substrate D) an intermediate E) a competitive inhibitor Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.6 Section: 8.5

56) Which term most precisely describes the cellular process of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones? A) Catabolism (catabolic pathways) B) Metabolism C) Anabolism (anabolic pathways) D) Dehydration Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.6 Section: 8.5 57) Anabolic pathways ________. A) do not depend on enzymes B) are usually highly spontaneous chemical reactions C) consume energy to build up polymers from monomers D) release energy as they degrade polymers to monomers E) consume energy to decrease the entropy of the organism and its environment Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.6 Section: 8.5 58) The mechanism in which the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an earlier step in the pathway is most precisely described as ________. A) metabolic inhibition B) feedback inhibition C) allosteric inhibition D) noncooperative inhibition E) reversible inhibition Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.6 Section: 8.5

59) Choose the pair of terms that correctly completes this sentence: Catabolism is to anabolism as ________ is to ________. A) exergonic; spontaneous B) exergonic; endergonic C) free energy; entropy D) work; energy E) entropy; enthalpy Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.6 Section: 8.1, 8.5

60) Most people who are lactose intolerant are not able to produce lactase as an adult, reducing their ability to digest the sugar lactose. Which enzyme model does the best job of representing lactose intolerance? A)

Answer: D LO: 8.4; EO: 8.4.1

61) Which student's model best illustrates the typical structural relationship between an enzyme (call it A-ase) and its substrate (A)? A)

Answer: D LO: 8.4; EO: 8.4.1

Interpret the student-drawn model.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 62) The red circle is the product of one enzyme and the substrate of another. Answer: TRUE LO: 8.6; EO: 8.6.1 63) This model does not show shape change in the enzymes, but shape change can be inferred. Answer: TRUE LO: 8.6; EO: 8.6.1 64) The number of blue squares formed is not dependent on the number of orange stars. Answer: FALSE LO: 8.6; EO: 8.6.1 65) The student showed a match between the shape of the substrates and the shape of the active sites. Answer: TRUE LO: 8.6; EO: 8.6.1

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 9 Cellular Respiration and Fermentation 1) ________ is a product of glycolysis, pyruvate processing, and the citric acid cycle. A) ATP B) CO2 C) NADH D) FADH2 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.1 Section: 9.1 2) Which process does not occur within a mitochondrion in a eukaryotic cell? A) Glycolysis B) Pyruvate processing C) Citric acid cycle D) Electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.1 Section: 9.1 3) The glucose molecule has a large quantity of energy in its ________. A) C–H bonds B) C–N bonds C) number of oxygen atoms D) polar structure Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.1 Section: 9.1

4) What is the term for metabolic pathways that release stored energy by breaking down complex molecules? A) Anabolic pathways B) Catabolic pathways C) Fermentation pathways D) Thermodynamic pathways E) Bioenergetic pathways Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.1 Section: 9.1 5) The molecule that functions as the reducing agent (electron donor) in a redox or oxidationreduction reaction ________. A) gains electrons and gains potential energy B) loses electrons and loses potential energy C) gains electrons and loses potential energy D) loses electrons and gains potential energy E) neither gains nor loses electrons but gains or loses potential energy Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.6, 9.1 Section: 9.1 6) Which of the listed statements describes the results of the following reaction? C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Energy A) C6H12O6 is oxidized and O2 is reduced. B) O2 is oxidized and H2O is reduced. C) CO2 is reduced and O2 is oxidized. D) C6H12O6 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized. E) O2 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.6, 9.1 Section: 9.1

7) When a glucose molecule loses a hydrogen atom as the result of an oxidation—reduction reaction, the molecule becomes ________. A) hydrolyzed B) hydrogenated C) oxidized D) reduced E) an oxidizing agent Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 8.6, 9.1 Section: 9.1 8) Which of the following statements about NAD+ is TRUE? A) NAD+ is reduced to NADH during glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the citric acid cycle. B) NAD+ has more chemical energy than NADH. C) NAD+ is oxidized by the action of hydrogenases. D) NAD+ can donate electrons for use in oxidative phosphorylation. E) In the absence of NAD+, glycolysis can still function. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.1 Section: 9.1 9) How many oxygen molecules (O2) are required each time a molecule of glucose (C6H12O6) is completely oxidized to carbon dioxide and water via aerobic respiration? A) 1 B) 3 C) 6 D) 12 E) 30 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 9.1 Section: 9.1

10) What is the major adaptive advantage of cellular respiration? A) To reduce an electron acceptor molecule B) To supply the cell with fixed carbon C) To produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP) D) To generate oxygen E) To utilize glucose Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.1 Section: 9.1 11) What kind of molecules serve as electron acceptors in cellular respiration? A) Water B) Polar molecules C) Molecules with high potential energy D) Molecules with low potential energy E) Molecules in an excited state Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.1 Section: 9.1 12) Which process in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally whether oxygen (O2) is present or absent? A) Electron transport B) Glycolysis C) The citric acid cycle D) Oxidative phosphorylation E) Chemiosmosis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.1 Section: 9.1

13) In addition to ATP, what are the end products of glycolysis? A) 2 NAD+, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP B) 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP C) 2 FADH2, 2 pyruvate, and 4 ATP D) 6 CO2, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP E) 6 CO2, 2 pyruvate, and 30 ATP Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.1 Section: 9.1 14) Starting with one molecule of glucose, the energy-containing products of glycolysis are ________. A) 2 NAD+, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP B) 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP C) 2 FADH2, 2 pyruvate, and 4 ATP D) 6 CO2, 2 pyruvate, and 2 ATP E) 6 CO2, 2 pyruvate, and 30 ATP Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.1 Section: 9.1 15) Why might adding inorganic phosphate to a reaction mixture where glycolysis is rapidly proceeding help sustain the metabolic pathway? A) It would increase the amount of glucose available for catabolism. B) It would increase the oxygen supply available for aerobic respiration because each phosphate group contains four oxygen atoms as constituents. C) The metabolic intermediates of glycolysis are phosphorylated. D) It increases the energy level of the electrons that are transferred to the electron transport chain where ATP is produced. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.2 Section: 9.2

16) Canine phosphofructokinase (PFK) deficiency afflicts Springer spaniels, affecting an estimated 10 percent of the breed. Given its critical role in glycolysis, one implication of the genetic defect resulting in PFK deficiency in dogs is ________. A) early embryonic mortality B) elevated glucose levels in the dog's blood C) an intolerance for exercise D) a reduced life span Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.2 Section: 9.2 17) Substrate-level phosphorylation accounts for approximately what percentage of the ATP formed by the reactions of glycolysis? A) 0 percent B) 2 percent C) 10 percent D) 38 percent E) 100 percent Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.2 Section: 9.2 18) During glycolysis, when each molecule of glucose is catabolized to two molecules of pyruvate, most of the potential energy contained in glucose is ________. A) transferred to ADP, forming ATP B) transferred directly to ATP C) retained in the two pyruvates D) stored in the NADH produced E) used to phosphorylate fructose to form fructose 6-phosphate Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.2 Section: 9.2

19) In glycolysis, for each molecule of glucose oxidized to pyruvate ________. A) two molecules of ATP are used and two molecules of ATP are produced. B) two molecules of ATP are used and four molecules of ATP are produced. C) four molecules of ATP are used and two molecules of ATP are produced. D) two molecules of ATP are used and six molecules of ATP are produced. E) six molecules of ATP are used and six molecules of ATP are produced. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.2 Section: 9.2 20) Which kind of metabolic poison would most directly interfere with glycolysis? A) An agent that reacts with oxygen and depletes its concentration in the cell. B) An agent that binds to pyruvate and inactivates it. C) An agent that closely mimics the structure of glucose but is not metabolized. D) An agent that reacts with NADH and oxidizes it to NAD+. E) An agent that blocks the passage of electrons along the electron transport chain. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.1 Section: 9.2 21) Why is glycolysis described as having an investment phase and a payoff phase? A) It both splits molecules and assembles molecules. B) It attaches and detaches phosphate groups. C) It uses glucose and generates pyruvate. D) It shifts molecules from cytosol to mitochondrion. E) It uses stored ATP and then forms a net increase in ATP. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.2 Section: 9.2

22) Why is glycolysis considered to be one of the first metabolic pathways to have evolved? A) It produces much less ATP than does oxidative phosphorylation. B) It does not involve organelles or specialized structures, does not require oxygen, and is present in most organisms. C) It is found in prokaryotic cells but not in eukaryotic cells. D) It relies on chemiosmosis, which is a metabolic mechanism present only in the first cells' prokaryotic cells. E) It requires the presence of membrane-enclosed cell organelles found only in eukaryotic cells. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.2 Section: 9.2 23) Phosphofructokinase is an allosteric enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of fructose 6phosphate to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate, an early step of glycolysis. In the presence of oxygen, an increase in the amount of ATP in a cell would be expected to ________. A) inhibit the enzyme and thus slow the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle B) activate the enzyme and thus slow the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle C) inhibit the enzyme and thus increase the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle D) activate the enzyme and thus increase the rates of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle E) inhibit the enzyme and thus increase the rate of glycolysis and the concentration of citrate Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.2 Section: 9.2 24) Glycolysis is active when cellular energy levels are ________; the regulatory enzyme, phosphofructokinase, is ________ by ATP. A) low; activated B) low; inhibited C) high; activated D) high; inhibited Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.2 Section: 9.2

25) During cellular respiration, acetyl CoA accumulates in which location? A) Cytosol B) Mitochondrial outer membrane C) Mitochondrial inner membrane D) Mitochondrial intermembrane space E) Mitochondrial matrix Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.3 Section: 9.3 26) Even though plant cells photosynthesize, they still use their mitochondria for oxidation of pyruvate. This will occur in ________. A) photosynthetic cells in the light, while photosynthesis occurs concurrently B) non-photosynthesizing cells only C) cells that are storing glucose only D) all cells all the time E) photosynthesizing cells in the light and in other tissues in the dark Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.3 Section: 9.3 27) Pyruvate dehydrogenase activity would be at its lowest when ________. A) ATP levels are low B) pyruvate dehydrogenase is phosphorylated C) CO2 levels are elevated D) pyruvate levels are high E) NAD+ levels are high Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.3 Section: 9.3

28) Following glycolysis and the citric acid cycle, but before the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation, the carbon skeleton of glucose has been broken down to CO2 with some net gain of ATP. Most of the energy from the original glucose molecule at that point in the process, however, is in the form of ________. A) acetyl CoA B) glucose C) pyruvate D) NADH Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.4 Section: 9.4 29) Which electron carrier(s) function in the citric acid cycle? A) NAD+ only B) NADH and FADH2 C) The electron transport chain D) ADP and ATP Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.4 Section: 9.4 30) If you were to add one of the eight citric acid cycle intermediates to the culture medium of yeast growing in the laboratory, what do you think would happen to the rates of ATP and carbon dioxide production? A) There would be no change in ATP production, but we would observe an increased rate of carbon dioxide production. B) The rates of ATP production and carbon dioxide production would both increase. C) The rate of ATP production would decrease, but the rate of carbon dioxide production would increase. D) Rates of ATP and carbon dioxide production would both decrease. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.4 Section: 9.4

31) A substrate-level phosphorylation occurs in the citric acid cycle when ________. A) GDP is phosphorylated to produce GTP B) NAD+ is phosphorylated to NADH C) oxaloacetate is phosphorylated D) acetylation of oxaloacetate takes place Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.4 Section: 9.4 32) Fatty acids usually have an even number of carbons in their structures. They are catabolized by a process called beta-oxidation. The end products of the metabolic pathway are acetyl groups of acetyl CoA molecules. These acetyl groups ________. A) directly enter the electron transport chain B) directly enter the energy-yielding stages of glycolysis C) are directly decarboxylated by pyruvate dehydrogenase D) directly enter the citric acid cycle Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.4 Section: 9.4 33) Carbon dioxide (CO2) is released during which of the following stages of cellular respiration? A) Glycolysis and the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA B) Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and the citric acid cycle C) The citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation D) Oxidative phosphorylation and fermentation E) Fermentation and glycolysis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.3, 9.4 Section: 9.3, 9.4

Use the accompanying figure to answer the question(s) below.

34) If pyruvate oxidation is blocked, what will happen to the levels of oxaloacetate and citric acid in the citric acid cycle shown in the accompanying figure? A) There will be no change in the levels of oxaloacetate and citric acid. B) Oxaloacetate will decrease and citric acid will accumulate. C) Oxaloacetate will accumulate and citric acid will decrease. D) Both oxaloacetate and citric acid will decrease. E) Both oxaloacetate and citric acid will accumulate. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.4 Section: 9.4

35) Starting with citrate, which of the following combinations of products would result from three acetyl CoA molecules entering the citric acid cycle (see the accompanying figure)? A) 1 ATP, 2 CO2, 3 NADH, and 1 FADH2 B) 2 ATP, 2 CO2, 3 NADH, and 3 FADH2 C) 3 ATP, 3 CO2, 3 NADH, and 3 FADH2 D) 3 ATP, 6 CO2, 9 NADH, and 3 FADH2 E) 38 ATP, 6 CO2, 3 NADH, and 12 FADH2 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.4 Section: 9.4 36) Which of the following statements about cellular metabolism is FALSE? A) Glycolysis is inhibited when cellular energy levels are abundant. B) Citric acid cycle activity is dependent solely on availability of substrate; otherwise, it is unregulated. C) In the electron transport chain, electrons decrease in energy level as they are transferred from one electron carrier to the next. D) Reactions of the citric acid cycle take place in the mitochondrial matrix. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.1, 9.2, 9.4, 9.5 Section: 9.1, 9.2, 9.4, 9.5 37) The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event? A) Glycolysis B) Accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain C) The citric acid cycle D) The oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA E) The phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.5 Section: 9.5

38) Which of the following events takes place in the electron transport chain? A) The breakdown of glucose into two pyruvate molecules B) The breakdown of an acetyl group to carbon dioxide C) The extraction of energy from high-energy electrons remaining from glycolysis and the citric acid cycle D) Substrate-level phosphorylation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.5 Section: 9.5 39) C6H12O6 (glucose) + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O Where is most of the water in this reaction produced? A) During glycolysis B) In the citric acid cycle C) During fermentation D) In the electron transport chain Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.5 Section: 9.5 40) The energy of electron transport serves to move (translocate) protons to the outer mitochondrial compartment. How does this help the mitochondrion produce ATP? A) The hydrogen ions (protons) are transferred to oxygen in an energy-releasing reaction. B) The translocation of protons sets up the electrochemical gradient that drives ATP synthesis in the mitochondria. C) The protons pick up electrons from the electron transport chain on their way through the inner mitochondrial membrane. D) The protons receive electrons from the NAD+ and FAD that are accepted by electrons in glycolysis and the citric acid cycle. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.5 Section: 9.5

41) The constituents of the electron transport chain have similar capabilities, with the exception of ubiquinone (coenzyme Q). What is different about ubiquinone? A) Ubiquinone is a protein that begins the electron transport chain, so it accepts the high-energy electrons. B) Ubiquinone is a protein that serves as a regulator of the rate of redox reactions in the electron transport chain. C) Ubiquinone is a protein that is a constituent of all cells, prokaryotic or eukaryotic; hence its name, originating from "ubiquitous." D) Ubiquinone is not a protein, is lipid soluble, and can move through the inner mitochondrial membrane. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.5 Section: 9.5 42) The primary role of oxygen in cellular respiration is to ________. A) yield energy in the form of ATP as it is passed down the respiratory chain B) act as an acceptor for electrons and hydrogen, forming water C) combine with carbon, forming CO2 D) combine with lactate, forming pyruvate E) catalyze the reactions of glycolysis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.5 Section: 9.5 43) Inside an active mitochondrion, most electrons follow which pathway? A) Glycolysis → NADH → oxidative phosphorylation → ATP → oxygen B) Citric acid cycle → FADH2 → electron transport chain → ATP C) Electron transport chain → citric acid cycle → ATP → oxygen D) Pyruvate → citric acid cycle → ATP → NADH → oxygen E) Citric acid cycle → NADH → electron transport chain → oxygen Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.4, 9.5 Section: 9.4, 9.5

44) Energy released by the electron transport chain is used to pump H+ into which location in eukaryotic cells? A) Cytosol B) Mitochondrial outer membrane C) Mitochondrial inner membrane D) Mitochondrial intermembrane space E) Mitochondrial matrix Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.5 Section: 9.5 45) Which of the following produces the most ATP when glucose (C6H12O6) is completely oxidized to carbon dioxide and water? A) Glycolysis B) Fermentation C) Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA D) Citric acid cycle E) Oxidative phosphorylation (chemiosmosis) Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.5 Section: 9.5 46) The synthesis of ATP by oxidative phosphorylation, using the energy released by movement of protons across the membrane down their electrochemical gradient, is an example of ________. A) active transport B) an endergonic reaction coupled to an exergonic reaction C) a reaction with a positive ΔG D) osmosis E) allosteric regulation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.5 Section: 9.5

47) In liver cells, the inner mitochondrial membranes are about five times the area of the outer mitochondrial membranes. What purpose must this serve? A) It allows for an increased rate of glycolysis. B) It allows for an increased rate of the citric acid cycle. C) It increases the surface for oxidative phosphorylation. D) It increases the surface for substrate-level phosphorylation. E) It allows the liver cell to have more peroxisomes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.5 Section: 9.5 48) Chemiosmotic ATP synthesis (oxidative phosphorylation) occurs in ________. A) all cells but only in the presence of oxygen B) only eukaryotic cells, in the presence of oxygen C) only in mitochondria, using either oxygen or other electron acceptors D) all respiring cells, both prokaryotic and eukaryotic, using either oxygen or other electron acceptors E) all cells, in the absence of respiration Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.5 Section: 9.5

Use the accompanying figure to answer the following question(s).

49) The accompanying figure shows the electron transport chain. Which of the following is the combination of substances that is initially added to the chain? A) Oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water B) NAD+, FAD, and electrons C) NADH, FADH2, and protons D) NADH, FADH2, and O2 E) Oxygen and protons Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.5 Section: 9.5 50) Which of the following most accurately describes what is happening along the electron transport chain in the accompanying figure? A) Electrons are transferred to ADP to generate ATP at each step in the process. B) Each electron carrier alternates between being reduced and being oxidized. C) Key molecules move through multiprotein complexes. D) Energy of the electrons increases at each step of the process. E) Molecules in the chain give up some of their potential energy. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.5 Section: 9.5 Use the following information to answer the question(s) below. Exposing inner mitochondrial membranes to ultrasonic vibrations will disrupt the membranes. However, the fragments will reseal "inside out." The little vesicles that result can still transfer electrons from NADH to oxygen and synthesize ATP. 51) After the disruption, when electron transfer and ATP synthesis still occur, what must be present? A) All of the electron transport system and ATP synthase B) All of the electron transport system and the ability to add CoA to acetyl groups C) The ATP synthase system D) The electron transport system E) Plasma membranes like those used by bacteria for respiration Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.5 Section: 9.5 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

52) These inside-out membrane vesicles will ________. A) become acidic inside the vesicles when NADH is added B) become alkaline inside the vesicles when NADH is added C) make ATP from ADP and i if transferred to a pH 4 buffered solution after incubation in a pH 7 buffered solution D) hydrolyze ATP to pump protons out of the interior of the vesicle to the exterior E) reverse electron flow to generate NADH from NAD+ in the absence of oxygen Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.5 Section: 9.5 53) In mitochondria, exergonic redox reactions ________. A) are the source of energy driving prokaryotic ATP synthesis B) are directly coupled to substrate-level phosphorylation C) provide the energy that establishes the proton gradient D) reduce carbon atoms to carbon dioxide E) are coupled via phosphorylated intermediates to endergonic processes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.5 Section: 9.5 54) When electrons flow along the electron transport chains of mitochondria, which of the following changes occurs? A) The pH of the matrix increases. B) ATP synthase pumps protons by active transport. C) The electrons gain free energy. D) The cytochromes phosphorylate ADP to form ATP. E) NAD+ is oxidized. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.5 Section: 9.5

55) The final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain that functions in aerobic oxidative phosphorylation is ________. A) oxygen B) water C) NAD+ D) pyruvate E) ADP Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.5 Section: 9.5 56) Why are fermentation reactions important for cells? A) They produce alcohol, which enhances the permeability of their mitochondrial membranes to proton translocation. B) They regenerate NAD+ so that glycolysis can continue to operate. C) They allow the cell to conserve oxygen for the citric acid cycle. D) They generate oxygen. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.6 Section: 9.6 57) Which metabolic pathway is common to both cellular respiration and fermentation? A) The oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA B) The citric acid cycle C) Oxidative phosphorylation D) Glycolysis E) Chemiosmosis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.6 Section: 9.6

58) The ATP made during fermentation is generated by ________. A) the electron transport chain B) substrate-level phosphorylation C) chemiosmosis D) oxidative phosphorylation E) aerobic respiration Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.6 Section: 9.6 59) In the absence of oxygen, yeast cells can obtain energy by fermentation, resulting in the production of ________. A) ATP, CO2, and ethanol (ethyl alcohol) B) ATP, CO2, and lactate C) ATP, NADH, and pyruvate D) ATP, pyruvate, and oxygen E) ATP, pyruvate, and acetyl CoA Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.6 Section: 9.6 60) An organism is discovered that thrives in both the presence and absence of oxygen in the air. Curiously, the consumption of sugar increases as oxygen is removed from the organism's environment, even though the organism does not gain much weight. This organism ________. A) must use a molecule other than oxygen to accept electrons from the electron transport chain B) is a normal eukaryotic organism C) is photosynthetic D) is an anaerobic organism E) is a facultative anaerobe Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.6 Section: 9.6

61) A mutation in yeast makes it unable to convert pyruvate to ethanol. How will this mutation affect these yeast cells? The mutant yeast cells will ________. A) be unable to grow anaerobically B) grow anaerobically only when given glucose C) be unable to metabolize glucose D) die because they cannot regenerate NAD+ from NAD E) metabolize only fatty acids Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.6 Section: 9.6 62) What carbon source(s) can yeast cells metabolize under anaerobic conditions to make ATP? A) Glucose B) Ethanol C) Pyruvate D) Lactic acid E) Either ethanol or lactic acid Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.6 Section: 9.6 63) Which of the following occurs in the cytosol of a eukaryotic cell? A) Glycolysis and fermentation B) Fermentation and chemiosmosis C) Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA D) Citric acid cycle E) Oxidative phosphorylation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.1, 9.6 Section: 9.1, 9.6

64) Yeast cells that have defective mitochondria incapable of respiration will be able to grow by catabolizing which of the following carbon sources for energy? A) Glucose B) Proteins C) Fatty acids D) Glucose, proteins, and fatty acids E) Such yeast cells will not be capable of catabolizing any food molecules and, therefore, will die. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.1, 9.6 Section: 9.1, 9.6 65) Which drawing would best complete this student model of the oxidation of glucose during cellular respiration?

A) B) C) D) Answer: B LO: 9.2; EO: 9.2.1

A student has drawn a model of alcohol fermentation. Interpret her model.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 66) This model shows that the molecular formula of glucose is C6H12O6. Answer: FALSE LO: 9.6: EO: 9.6.2 67) The arrow between glucose and pyruvate represents the process of glycolysis. Answer: TRUE LO: 9.6: EO: 9.6.2 68) You can infer from this model that each molecule of ethanol contains three carbons. Answer: FALSE LO: 9.6: EO: 9.6.2 69) This model shows that two molecules of CO2 are produced per molecule of glucose during alcohol fermentation. Answer: TRUE LO: 9.6: EO: 9.6.2 70) The red balls in this model represent carbons. Answer: TRUE LO: 9.6: EO: 9.6.2

A student has drawn a model summarizing the INs and OUTs of cellular respiration. Interpret the model.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 71) The carbons in glucose end up as carbons in ATP. Answer: FALSE LO: 9.1; EO: 9.1.1, 9.1.2 72) The arrow marked 1 represents the movement of electrons from the first three processes to the electron transport chain. Answer: TRUE LO: 9.1; EO: 9.1.1, 9.1.2 73) Some of the chemical energy in glucose ends up as chemical energy in ATP. Answer: TRUE LO: 9.1; EO: 9.1.1, 9.1.2 74) Six molecules of O2 turn into six molecules of CO2. Answer: FALSE LO: 9.1; EO: 9.1.1, 9.1.2

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 10 Photosynthesis 1) The process of photosynthesis probably originated ________. A) in plants B) in prokaryotes C) in fungi D) three separate times during evolution Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.0 Section: 10.0 2) If photosynthesizing green algae are provided with CO2 containing heavy oxygen (18O), later analysis will show that all of the following molecules produced by the algae contain 18O EXCEPT ________. A) 3-phosphoglycerate B) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) C) glucose D) ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP) E) O2 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.1 Section: 10.1 3) Which of the following are products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are utilized in the Calvin cycle? A) CO2 and glucose B) H2O and O2 C) ADP, i, and NADP+ D) Electrons and H+ E) ATP and NADPH Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.1 Section: 10.1

4) When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a direct by-product of ________. A) reducing NADP+ B) splitting water molecules C) chemiosmosis D) the electron transfer system of photosystem I E) the electron transfer system of photosystem II Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.1 Section: 10.1 5) Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between photosynthesis and respiration? A) Respiration runs the biochemical pathways of photosynthesis in reverse. B) Photosynthesis stores energy in complex organic molecules; respiration releases energy from complex organic molecules. C) Photosynthesis occurs only in plants; respiration occurs only in animals. D) ATP molecules are produced in photosynthesis but not in aerobic respiration. E) Photosynthesis is catabolic; respiration is anabolic. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.1 Section: 10.1 6) In photosynthetic cells, synthesis of ATP by the chemiosmotic mechanism occurs during ________. A) photosynthesis only B) respiration only C) photosynthesis and respiration D) neither photosynthesis nor respiration E) photorespiration only Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.1 Section: 10.1

7) Which of the following sequences correctly represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis? A) NADPH → O2 → CO2 B) H2O → NADPH → Calvin cycle C) NADPH → chlorophyll → Calvin cycle D) H2O → photosystem I → photosystem II E) NADPH → electron transport chain → O2 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.1 Section: 10.1 8) Plants photosynthesize ________. A) only in the light but respire only in the dark B) only in the dark but respire only in the light C) only in the light but respire in light and dark D) and respire only in the light E) and respire only in the dark Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.1 Section: 10.1 9) Chlorophylls absorb most light in which colors of the visible range? A) Green and blue B) Blue and red C) Green and red D) Violet and red Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.2 Section: 10.2

10) Which of the following is a difference between chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b? A) Chlorophyll a is a pigment, and chlorophyll b is the enzyme that transfers excited electrons from chlorophyll a to electron carriers of the thylakoid membrane. B) Chlorophyll a absorbs yellow light, and chlorophyll b absorbs green. C) Chlorophyll a contains magnesium in its ring structure, whereas chlorophyll b contains iron. D) Chlorophyll a and b absorb light energy at slightly different wavelengths. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.2 Section: 10.2 11) Why are there several structurally different pigments in the reaction centers of photosystems? A) Excited electrons must pass through several pigments before they can be transferred to electron acceptors of the electron transport chain. B) This arrangement enables the plant to absorb light energy of a variety of wavelengths. C) They enable the plant to absorb more photons from light energy, all of which are at the same wavelength. D) They enable the reaction center to excite electrons to a higher energy level. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.2 Section: 10.2 12) In autumn, the leaves of deciduous trees change colors. This is because chlorophyll is degraded and ________. A) carotenoids and other pigments are still present in the leaves B) the degraded chlorophyll changes into many other colors C) water supply to the leaves has been reduced D) sugars are sent to most of the cells of the leaves Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.2 Section: 10.2

13) Energy from sunlight can excite electrons, kicking them out of their orbitals and creating free radicals. Free radicals are highly reactive atoms or molecules that have unpaired electrons and degrade and destroy other compounds in their vicinity. Carotenoids, one of the pigments present in most chloroplasts, can stabilize these free radicals. This suggests that ________. A) once chloroplasts are destroyed, the free radicals will destroy the cell B) carotenoids probably have a protective function in the cell C) free radicals induce the synthesis of carotenoids in chloroplasts D) carotenoids communicate directly with the immune system of plants Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.2 Section: 10.2 14) What event accompanies energy absorption by chlorophyll (or other pigment molecules of the antenna complex)? A) ATP is synthesized from the energy absorbed. B) A carboxylation reaction of the Calvin cycle occurs. C) Electrons are stripped from NADPH. D) An electron is excited. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.2 Section: 10.2 15) Suppose a plant has a unique photosynthetic pigment and the leaves of this plant appear to be reddish yellow. What wavelengths of visible light are absorbed by this pigment? A) Red and yellow B) Blue and violet C) Green and yellow D) Blue, green, and red E) Green, blue, and yellow Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.2 Section: 10.2

16) Carotenoids are often found in foods that are considered to have antioxidant properties in human nutrition. What related function do they have in plants? A) They serve as accessory pigments to increase light absorption. B) They protect against oxidative damage from free radicals. C) They shield the sensitive chromosomes of the plant from harmful ultraviolet radiation. D) They reflect orange light and enhance red light absorption by chlorophyll. E) They take up and remove toxins from the groundwater. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.2 Section: 10.2 17) Use the accompanying figure to answer the question below.

The figure shows the absorption spectrum for chlorophyll a and the action spectrum for photosynthesis. Why are they different? A) Green and yellow wavelengths inhibit the absorption of red and blue wavelengths. B) Bright sunlight destroys photosynthetic pigments. C) Oxygen given off during photosynthesis interferes with the absorption of light. D) Other pigments absorb light in addition to chlorophyll a. E) Aerobic bacteria take up oxygen, which changes the measurement of the rate of photosynthesis. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.2 Section: 10.2 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

18) Use the following information to answer the question below. A spaceship is designed to support animal life for a multiyear voyage to the outer planets of the solar system. Plants will be grown to provide oxygen and to recycle carbon dioxide. Since the spaceship will be too far from the Sun for photosynthesis, an artificial light source will be needed. What wavelengths of light should be used to maximize plant growth with a minimum of energy expenditure? A) Full-spectrum white light B) Green light C) A mixture of blue and red light D) Yellow light E) UV light Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.2 Section: 10.2

19) Use the accompanying figure to answer the question below.

What wavelength of light in the figure is most effective in driving photosynthesis? A) 420 mm B) 475 mm C) 575 mm D) 625 mm E) 730 mm Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.2 Section: 10.2 20) The antenna complex in a photosystem: A) pumps protons into the thylakoid lumen. B) captures photons from sunlight. C) transfers excited electrons to the primary electron acceptor. D) generates ATP. E) generates NADPH. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.2 Section: 10.2

21) The proteins of the electron transport chain active in the light-dependent reactions ________. A) are membrane proteins present in the thylakoid B) are free proteins present in the thylakoid lumen C) can be considered part of the reaction center of photosystem I D) absorb the same wavelengths of light as their associated chlorophylls Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3 22) What is the difference between NAD+ and NADP? A) NAD+ functions as an electron transporter, whereas NADP does not. B) NAD+ functions as a free-energy source for cells, whereas NADP does not. C) Both function as electron carriers, but NADP has a phosphate group and NAD+ does not. D) Both transport electrons to the electron transport chain (ETC) found on the inner mitochondrial membrane, but NADP transfers its electrons to the ETC at a higher energy level. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3 23) As electrons are passed through the system of electron carriers associated with photosystem II, they lose energy. What happens to this energy? A) It excites electrons of the reaction center of photosystem I. B) It is lost as heat. C) It is used to establish and maintain a proton gradient. D) It is used to phosphorylate NAD+ to NADPH, the molecule that accepts electrons from photosystem I. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3

24) Plastoquinone (PQ), an electron carrier of small molecular weight, is found in the electron transport chain associated with photosystem II. If PQ is not directly anchored to other membrane or cytoplasmic structures, it is probably ________. A) mobile in the thylakoid membrane B) lipid soluble C) a molecule that serves as a shuttle between the electron transport chain and ATP synthase D) both lipid soluble and a molecule that serves as a shuttle between the electron transport chain and ATP synthase Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3 25) The electrons of photosystem II are excited and transferred to electron carriers. From which molecule or structure do the photosystem II replacement electrons come? A) The electron carrier, plastocyanin B) Photosystem I C) Water D) Oxygen Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3 26) What is the main purpose of light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis? A) To generate oxygen by "splitting" H2O B) To produce NADPH for use in respiration C) To produce NADPH and ATP D) To use ATP to make glucose Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3

27) Which of the events listed below occurs in the light reactions of photosynthesis? A) NADP is produced. B) NADPH is reduced to NADP+. C) Carbon dioxide is incorporated into PGA. D) ATP is phosphorylated to yield ADP. E) Light is absorbed and funneled to reaction-center chlorophyll a. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3 28) Which statement describes the functioning of photosystem II? A) Light energy excites electrons in the thylakoid membrane electron transport chain. B) Photons are passed along to pheophytins. C) The P680 chlorophyll donates a pair of protons to NADP+, which is thus converted to NADPH. D) The electron vacancies in P680+ are filled by electrons derived from water. E) The splitting of water yields molecular carbon dioxide as a by-product. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3 29) Which of the following is directly associated with photosystem I? A) Harvesting of light energy by ATP B) Receiving electrons from the thylakoid membrane electron transport chain C) Generation of molecular oxygen D) Extraction of hydrogen electrons from the splitting of water E) Passing electrons to the cytochrome complex Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3

30) Some photosynthetic organisms contain chloroplasts that lack photosystem II, yet they are able to survive. The best way to detect the lack of photosystem II in these organisms would be to ________. A) determine if they have thylakoids in the chloroplasts B) test for liberation of O2 in the light C) test for CO2 fixation in the dark D) do experiments to generate an action spectrum E) test for production of either sucrose or starch Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3 31) As a research scientist, you measure the amount of ATP and NADPH consumed by the Calvin cycle in 1 hour. You find that 30,000 molecules of ATP were consumed, but only 20,000 molecules of NADPH were consumed. Where did the extra ATP molecules come from? A) Photosystem II B) Photosystem I C) Cyclic electron flow D) Linear electron flow E) Chlorophyll Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3 32) Assume a thylakoid is somehow punctured so that the interior of the thylakoid is no longer separated from the stroma. This damage will most directly affect the ________. A) splitting of water B) absorption of light energy by chlorophyll C) flow of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem I D) synthesis of ATP E) reduction of NADP+ Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3

33) The electrons from PC are passed to a special reaction center chlorophyll a in the photosystem I called ________. A) P680 B) ferredoxin C) P700 D) pheophytin E) P420 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3 34) The chemiosmotic process in chloroplasts involves the ________. A) establishment of a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane B) diffusion of electrons through the thylakoid membrane C) reduction of water to produce ATP D) movement of water by osmosis into the thylakoid space from the stroma E) formation of glucose, using carbon dioxide, NADPH, and ATP Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3 35) Suppose the interior of the thylakoids of isolated chloroplasts were made acidic and then transferred in the dark to a pH 8 solution. What would most likely happen? A) The isolated chloroplasts would make ATP. B) The Calvin cycle would be activated. C) Cyclic photophosphorylation would occur. D) The isolated chloroplasts would generate oxygen gas. E) The isolated chloroplasts would reduce NADP+ to NADPH. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3

36) In a plant cell, where are the ATP synthase complexes located? A) Thylakoid membrane only B) Plasma membrane only C) Inner mitochondrial membrane only D) Thylakoid membrane and inner mitochondrial membrane E) Thylakoid membrane and plasma membrane Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3 37) In mitochondria, chemiosmosis moves protons from the matrix into the intermembrane space, whereas in chloroplasts, chemiosmosis moves protons from the ________. A) stroma to photosystem II B) matrix to the stroma C) stroma to the thylakoid space D) intermembrane space to the matrix E) thylakoid space to the stroma Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.5, 10.3 Section: 9.5, 10.3 38) P680+ is said to be the strongest biological oxidizing agent. Given its function, why is this necessary? A) It is the receptor for the most excited electron in either photosystem of photosynthesis. B) It is the molecule that transfers electrons to plastoquinone (Pq) of the electron transfer system. C) It transfers its electrons to reduce NADP+ to NADPH. D) It obtains electrons from the oxygen atom in a water molecule, so it must have a stronger attraction for electrons than oxygen has. E) It obtains carbon from a sugar molecule, so it must have a stronger attraction for electrons than either oxygen or hydrogen. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3

39) The accumulation of free oxygen in Earth's atmosphere began with the origin of ________. A) life and respiratory metabolism B) photosynthetic bacteria that had photosystem I C) cyanobacteria using photosystem II D) chloroplasts in photosynthetic eukaryotic algae E) land plants Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3 40) The pH of the inner thylakoid space was measured, as was the pH of the stroma and cytosol of a plant cell. Which, if any, relationship would you expect to find? A) The pH within the thylakoid is less than that of the stroma. B) The pH of the stroma is lower than that of the other two measurements. C) The pH of the stroma is higher than that of the thylakoid space but lower than that of the cytosol. D) The pH of the thylakoid space is higher than anywhere else in the cell. E) There is no consistent relationship. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3 41) In its mechanism, photophosphorylation is most similar to ________. A) substrate-level phosphorylation in glycolysis B) oxidative phosphorylation in cellular respiration C) the Calvin cycle D) carbon fixation E) reduction of NADP+ Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 9.5, 10.3 Section: 9.5, 10.3

42) Which process is most directly driven by light energy? A) Creation of a pH gradient by pumping protons across the thylakoid membrane B) Carbon fixation in the stroma C) Reduction of NADP+ molecules D) Removal of electrons from chlorophyll molecules E) ATP synthesis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3 43) In plants, reduction of NADP+ occurs during ________. A) photosynthesis B) respiration C) photosynthesis and respiration D) neither photosynthesis nor respiration Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3 Section: 10.3 44) How are the light-dependent and light-independent reactions of photosynthesis related? A) The products of light-independent reactions are used in light-dependent reactions. B) The products of light-dependent reactions are used in light-independent reactions. C) The products of light-independent reactions must be present for light-dependent reactions to take place. D) They are not related. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3, 10.4 Section: 10.3, 10.4

45) Which of the following statements best represents the relationships between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle? A) The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the Calvin cycle, and the Calvin cycle returns ADP, i, and NADP+ to the light reactions. B) The light reactions provide ATP and NADPH to the carbon fixation step of the Calvin cycle, and the cycle provides water and electrons to the light reactions. C) The light reactions supply the Calvin cycle with CO2 to produce sugars, and the Calvin cycle supplies the light reactions with sugars to produce ATP. D) The light reactions provide the Calvin cycle with oxygen for electron flow, and the Calvin cycle provides the light reactions with water to split. E) There is no relationship between the light reactions and the Calvin cycle. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.3, 10.4 Section: 10.3, 10.4 46) Which of the following procedures would identify the enzyme that catalyzes the carboxylation of ribulose-1,5 bisphosphate? A) Irradiating a leaf extract with red light B) Introducing radiolabeled carbon dioxide into a plant extract and determining which molecules become radiolabeled C) Purifying a variety of proteins from plant extracts and testing each protein individually to see if it can carboxylate ribulose-1,5 bisphosphate D) Differential sedimentation of a protein extract Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.4 Section: 10.4 47) Photorespiration ________. A) generates carbon dioxide and consumes ATP and oxygen B) generates ATP and sugars and consumes oxygen and carbon dioxide C) generates oxygen and consumes ATP, carbon dioxide, and sugars D) consumes carbon dioxide and generates ATP, sugars, and oxygen Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.4 Section: 10.4

48) The phylogenetic distribution of the enzyme rubisco is limited to ________. A) only C3 plants B) C3 and C4 plants C) photosynthetic eukaryotes D) bacterial and eukaryotic photoautotrophs E) all living cells Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.4 Section: 10.4 49) CAM plants keep stomata closed in the daytime, thus reducing loss of water. They can do this because they ________. A) fix CO2 into organic acids during the night B) fix CO2 into sugars in the bundle-sheath cells C) fix CO2 into pyruvate in the mesophyll cells D) use the enzyme phosphofructokinase, which outcompetes rubisco for CO2 E) use photosystem I and photosystem II at night Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.4 Section: 10.4 50) The alternative pathways of photosynthesis using the C4 or CAM systems are said to be compromises. Why? A) Each one minimizes both water loss and rate of photosynthesis. B) C4 compromises on water loss and CAM compromises on photorespiration. C) Both minimize photorespiration but expend more ATP during carbon fixation. D) CAM plants allow more water loss, and C4 plants allow less CO2 into the plant. E) C4 plants allow less water loss, but CAM plants allow more water loss. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.4 Section: 10.4

51) Use the following information to answer the question below. A spaceship is designed to support animal life for a multiyear voyage to the outer planets of the solar system. Plants will be grown to provide oxygen and to recycle carbon dioxide. Since the spaceship will be too far from the Sun for photosynthesis, an artificial light source will be needed. If the power fails and the lights go dark, CO2 levels will ________. A) rise as a result of both animal and plant respiration B) rise as a result of animal but not plant respiration C) remain balanced because plants will continue to fix CO2 in the dark D) fall because plants will increase CO2 fixation E) fall because plants will cease to respire in the dark Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.1, 10.4 Section: 10.1, 10.4 52) What would be the expected effect on plants if the atmospheric CO2 concentration was doubled? A) All plants would experience increased rates of photosynthesis. B) C3 plants would have faster growth; C4 plants would be minimally affected. C) C4 plants would have faster growth; C3 plants would be minimally affected. D) C3 plants would have faster growth; C4 plants would have slower growth. E) Plant growth would not be affected because atmospheric CO2 concentrations are never limiting for plant growth. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.4 Section: 10.4

53) The light-independent reactions of plants function to make organic molecules using carbon dioxide as a carbon source. What is the electron source that helps reduce carbon dioxide to sugars and other organic molecules? A) NADH B) NADPH C) ATP D) Electrons from oxygen Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.5 Section: 10.5 54) Where do the enzymatic reactions of the Calvin cycle take place? A) Stroma of the chloroplast B) Thylakoid membranes C) Matrix of the mitochondria D) Cytosol around the chloroplast E) Thylakoid space Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.5 Section: 10.5 55) What is the primary function of the Calvin cycle? A) Using ATP to release carbon dioxide B) Using NADPH to release carbon dioxide C) Splitting water and releasing oxygen D) Transporting RuBP out of the chloroplast E) Synthesizing simple sugars from carbon dioxide Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.5 Section: 10.5

56) Reactions that require CO2 take place in ________. A) the light reactions alone B) the Calvin cycle alone C) both the light reactions and the Calvin cycle D) neither the light reactions nor the Calvin cycle E) the chloroplast, but not as part of photosynthesis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.5 Section: 10.5

Use the accompanying figure and the molecules labeled A, B, C, D, and E to answer the following question(s).

57) Refer to the figure. If the carbon atom of each of the incoming CO2 molecules is labeled with a radioactive isotope of carbon, which organic molecules will be radioactively labeled after one cycle? A) C only B) B, C, D, and E C) C, D, and E only D) B and C only E) B and D only Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.5 Section: 10.5 22 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

58) Refer to the figure. To identify the molecule that accepts CO2, Calvin and Benson manipulated the carbon fixation cycle by either cutting off CO2 or cutting off light from cultures of photosynthetic algae. They then measured the concentrations of various metabolites immediately following the manipulation. How would these experiments help identify the CO2 acceptor? A) The CO2 acceptor concentration would decrease when either the CO2 or light is cut off. B) The CO2 acceptor concentration would increase when either the CO2 or light is cut off. C) The CO2 acceptor concentration would increase when the CO2 is cut off but decrease when the light is cut off. D) The CO2 acceptor concentration would decrease when the CO2 is cut off but increase when the light is cut off. E) The CO2 acceptor concentration would stay the same regardless of the CO2 or light. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 10.5 Section: 10.5

59) Franco has drawn a model of photosynthesis.

Select which molecules should go in the numbered slots to help him complete his model. A) 1. O2 2. H2O 3. CO2 4. ATP and NADPH B) 1. CO2 2. O2 3. ATP and NADPH2 4. H2O C) 1. H2O 2. O2 3. CO2v 4. ATP & NADPH D) 1. H2O 2. ATP and NADPH 3. CO2 4. O2 Answer: C LO: 10.1; EO: 10.1.1

60) Megan has drawn a model to show the key events in photosynthesis.

Which labels are the best choice for the two arrows? A) Photosynthesis/cellular respiration B) Photosystem II/photosystem I C) Light-capturing reactions/Calvin cycle D) Photosynthesis/Calvin cycle E) Light-capturing reactions/citric acid cycle Answer: C LO: 10.1; EO: 10.1.2 61) Megan has drawn a model to show the key events in photosynthesis.

Which labels are the best choice for within the oval and boxes? A) Sunlight/sugars/ATP + NADPH B) Sunlight/NADPH/ATP C) Sunlight/ATP + NADPH/sugars D) Sunlight/sugars/ATP Answer: C LO: 10.5; EO: 10.5.3

Jamal drew a flow chart to show how the carbon in his brain tissue originated as CO2 in the atmosphere. Interpret his model.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 62) This model is correct, but Jamal could have been more specific by replacing the "Photosynthesis" label with "Calvin cycle," since the light-capturing reactions are not directly involved in carbon fixation. Answer: TRUE LO: 10.5; EO: 10.5.3 63) Jamal does not show it in the model, but if any of the sugars that he eats are fully oxidized in cell respiration, the carbons will return to the atmosphere as CO2 rather than go to his brain. Answer: TRUE LO: 10.5; EO: 10.5.3 64) Jamal's model is incorrect because he should have started with sunlight. Answer: FALSE LO: 10.5; EO: 10.5.3

65) You can infer from Jamal's model that sugars contain carbon. Answer: TRUE LO: 10.5; EO: 10.5.3 66) Jamal could add an arrow to indicate that he can breathe in CO2 directly from the atmosphere to incorporate its carbon into his brain. Answer: FALSE LO: 10.5; EO: 10.5.3

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 11 Cell-Cell Interactions 1) What do the cell walls of plants and the extracellular matrix of animal cells have in common? A) They are largely composed of phospholipids and glycoproteins. B) Their proteins are made by free cytoplasmic ribosomes. C) They form rigid structures that provide structural support for cells but limit their expansion. D) They limit the passage of small molecules. E) They have functional connections with the cytoskeleton inside the cell. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.1 Section: 11.1 2) The cell walls of bacteria, fungi, and plant cells and the extracellular matrix of animal cells are all external to the plasma membrane. Which of the following is a characteristic common to all of these extracellular structures? A) They must block water and small molecules to regulate the exchange of matter and energy with their environment. B) They must permit information transfer between the cell's cytoplasm and the nucleus. C) They must provide a rigid structure that maintains an appropriate ratio of cell surface area to volume. D) They are constructed of polymers that are synthesized in the cytoplasm and then transported out of the cell. E) They are composed of a mixture of lipids and nucleotides. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.1 Section: 11.1 3) A mutation that disrupts the ability of an animal cell to add polysaccharide modifications to proteins would most likely cause defects in its ________. A) nuclear lamina and nuclear matrix B) nuclear matrix and extracellular matrix C) mitochondria and Golgi apparatus D) Golgi apparatus and extracellular matrix E) nuclear pores and secretory vesicles Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.1 Section: 11.1 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) Signals from the extracellular matrix to the cytoskeleton may be transmitted by ________. A) actin B) proteoglycans C) integrins D) collagen E) middle lamella Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.1 Section: 11.1, 11.2 5) One characteristic of life and living systems is that they are able to adapt. In general, cells interact with other cells and their environment through the action of their ________. A) plasma membrane and extracellular matrix B) microtubular tracks C) hormones D) intracellular electrical currents Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.1 Section: 11.1 6) Which of the following would you NOT find in a plant cell? A) Pectin B) Polysaccharides C) Collagen D) Lignin Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.1 Section: 11.1

7) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) When plant cells are growing, they release expansins, which are enzymes that can expand the primary cell wall. B) The secondary cell wall often contains structural components, such as lignin, that form a relatively rigid and complex network within the cell wall. C) A plant cell continues growing after the secondary cell wall forms but stops growing with the formation of the tertiary cell wall. D) Pectin is a component of the cell wall that attracts and holds water. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.1 Section: 11.1 8) What is a major difference between the extracellular matrix (ECM) of a plant cell and the ECM of an animal cell? A) Plant ECM is composed primarily of proteins, whereas animal ECM is mainly carbohydrates. B) Plant ECM is primarily carbohydrate in nature, whereas animal ECM is mainly proteins. C) Plant and animal ECMs are quite similar in structure and function. D) ECM components in plant cells are released extracellularly by the Golgi stacks, whereas lysosomes do this in animal cells. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.1 Section: 11.1 9) Osteocytes are bone cells. Collagen fibers and calcium salts are found in abundance between and among the osteocytes. The collagen and calcium salts are ________. A) components of the plasma membrane of osteocytes B) part of the extracellular matrix C) extensions of the endoplasmic reticulum D) deposited by the circulatory system but not associated with the osteocytes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.1 Section: 11.1

10) All of the following proteins may be found in the extracellular matrix of animal cells EXCEPT ________. A) collagen B) proteoglycan C) actin D) All of the listed proteins are found in the extracellular matrix of animal cells. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.1 Section: 11.1 11) For the following question, match the labeled component of the cell membrane in the figure with its description.

Which component is a protein fiber of the extracellular matrix? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.1 Section: 11.1

12) The extracellular matrix is thought to participate in the regulation of animal cell behavior by communicating information from the outside to the inside of the cell via which of the following? A) Gap junctions B) The nucleus C) DNA and RNA D) Integrins E) Plasmodesmata Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.1 Section: 11.1 13) Integrins are integral membrane proteins. They are often attached to ________. A) the membranes of intracellular organelles B) cytoskeletal proteins and proteins in the extracellular matrix C) the outside of the plasma membrane D) glycogen molecules and other types of cellular inclusions Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.1 Section: 11.1 14) Scientists have found that extracellular matrix components may induce specific gene expression in embryonic tissues such as the liver and testes. For this to happen there must be direct communication between the extracellular matrix and the developing cells. Which kind of transmembrane protein would most likely be involved in this kind of induction? A) Integrins B) Collagens C) Actins D) Proteoglycans Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.1 Section: 11.1

15) Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of the following structures in animal cells? A) Peroxisomes B) Desmosomes C) Gap junctions D) Extracellular matrix E) Tight junctions Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.2 Section: 11.2 16) Ions can travel directly from the cytoplasm of one animal cell to the cytoplasm of an adjacent cell through ________. A) plasmodesmata B) intermediate filaments C) tight junctions D) desmosomes E) gap junctions Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.2 Section: 11.2 17) For a tissue or an organ to function as a unit, ________. A) there must be a signal molecule recognized by all cells in the tissue or the organ B) there must be cell—cell communication among the cells within a tissue or an organ C) the tissue or the organ must perform similar functions D) the tissue or the organ must be composed of all of the same type of cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.2 Section: 11.2

18) In plant cells, the middle lamella ________. A) allows adjacent cells to adhere to one another B) prevents dehydration of adjacent cells C) maintains the plant's circulatory system D) allows for gas and nutrient exchange among adjacent cells Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.2 Section: 11.2 19) Where would you expect to find tight junctions? A) In the epithelium of an animal's stomach B) Between the smooth endoplasmic reticulum and the rough endoplasmic reticulum C) Between plant cells in a woody plant D) In the plasma membrane of prokaryotes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.2 Section: 11.2 20) H. V. Wilson worked with sponges to gain some insight into exactly what was responsible for holding adjacent cells together. He exposed two species of differently pigmented sponges to a chemical that disrupted the cell—cell interaction (cell junctions), and the cells of the sponges dissociated. Wilson then mixed the cells of the two species and removed the chemical that caused the cells to dissociate. Wilson found that the sponges reassembled into two separate species. The cells from one species did not interact or form associations with the cells of the other species. How do you explain the results of Wilson's experiments? A) The two species of sponge had different enzymes that functioned in the reassembly process. B) The molecules responsible for cell—cell adhesion (cell junctions) were irreversibly destroyed during the experiment. C) The molecules responsible for cell—cell adhesion (cell junctions) differed between the two species of sponge. D) One cell functioned as the nucleus for each organism, thereby attracting only cells of the same pigment. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.2 Section: 11.2

21) A gap junction is a channel that connects adjacent cells. Which one of the following cannot pass through a gap junction? A) Ions that can regulate heartbeat B) Amino acids C) Nucleotides D) Ribosomes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.2 Section: 11.2 22) Intercalated discs are cell—cell junctions found between cardiac muscle cells. One feature of these intercalated discs is that they contain a large number of gap junctions, which means that ________. A) an extension of smooth endoplasmic reticulum goes through the gap junction, making it continuous from one cardiac muscle cell to the next B) water ions and small molecules can readily pass from one cardiac muscle cell to the next C) cardiac cells can function independently when necessary D) RNA from one cardiac muscle cell can be transported into an adjacent cell through the gap junction Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.2 Section: 11.2 23) Plasmodesmata are cell—cell junctions that are found between ________. A) individual cardiac cells in heart muscle tissue B) adjacent plant cells C) adjacent animal cells in the same tissue type D) the plasma membrane of actively dividing prokaryotes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.2 Section: 11.2

24) Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disorder in humans in which antibodies are produced against the cadherins of desmosomes. The blistering of the skin and mucous membranes characteristic of this disorder is probably a result of ________. A) a decrease in flexibility of the cell membrane B) an inadequate number of G-protein receptors C) inadequate production of cytoskeletal proteins D) a loss in cell—cell adhesion Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.2 Section: 11.2 25) A cell with membrane-bound proteins that selectively bind a specific hormone is called that hormone's ________. A) secretory cell B) plasma cell C) endocrine cell D) target cell E) regulatory cell Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3 26) Different body cells can respond differently to the same peptide hormones because ________. A) different target cells have different sets of genes B) each cell converts that hormone to a different metabolite C) a target cell's response is determined by the components of its signal transduction pathways D) the circulatory system regulates responses to hormones by routing the hormones to specific targets E) the hormone is chemically altered in different ways as it travels through the circulatory system Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3

27) Which of the following is characteristic of a steroid hormone action? A) Protein phosphorylation B) Cell-surface receptor binding C) Internal receptor binding D) Second messenger activation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3 28) The receptors for steroid hormones are located inside the cell instead of on the membrane surface like most other signal receptors. This is NOT a problem for steroids because ________. A) the receptors can be readily stimulated to exit and relocate on the membrane surface B) steroids do not directly affect cells but instead alter the chemistry of blood plasma C) steroid hormones are lipid soluble, so they can readily diffuse through the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane D) steroids must first bond to a steroid activator, forming a complex that then binds to the cell surface Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3 29) Put the steps of the process of signal transduction in the order they occur: 1. A conformational change in the signal-receptor complex activates an enzyme. 2. Protein kinases are activated. 3. A signal molecule binds to a receptor. 4. Target proteins are phosphorylated. 5. Second messenger molecules are released. A) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 B) 3, 1, 2, 4, and 5 C) 3, 1, 5, 2, and 4 D) 1, 2, 5, 3, and 4 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3

30) Protein kinase is an enzyme that ________. A) functions as a second messenger molecule B) serves as a receptor for various signal molecules C) activates or inactivates other proteins by adding a phosphate group to them D) produces second messenger molecules Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3 31) Hormones are chemical substances produced in one organ that are released into the bloodstream and affect the function of a target organ. For the target organ to respond to a particular hormone, it must ________. A) modify its plasma membrane to alter the hormone entering the cytoplasm B) be from the same cell type as the organ that produced the hormone C) experience an imbalance that disrupts its normal function D) have receptors that recognize and bind the hormone molecule Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3 32) Steroid hormones bind to receptors inside the cell and alter their conformation. The hormone-receptor complex is then transported into the nucleus, where it can directly affect gene expression. To get from the location where the receptor binds the hormone to its site of action, the hormone-receptor complex must ________. A) undergo another conformational change B) become water soluble by binding to a carrier molecule C) be transported through the nuclear pore complex D) enter the smooth endoplasmic reticulum Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3

33) Not all intercellular signals require transduction. Which one of the following signals would be processed without transduction? A) A lipid-soluble signal B) A signal that is weakly bound to a nucleotide C) A signal that binds to a receptor in the cell membrane D) A signal that binds to the ECM Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3 34) Blood sugar is regulated by two pancreatic hormones–insulin and glucagon. When blood sugar rises, insulin is released; it binds to receptors and, through signal transduction, results in an increase in glucose uptake by cells, which effectively lowers blood glucose levels. When blood sugar decreases, glucagon is released, binds to cell receptors, and causes glucose to be released into circulation, thereby increasing blood glucose levels. Diabetes mellitus is a disorder that results from excessively high levels of blood glucose. Type II diabetics have normal to elevated levels of insulin. What, then, might be causing their elevated blood glucose levels? A) Inadequate insulin production B) Defective receptors C) Defective second messenger D) Overproduction of glucagon Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3 35) What does it mean to say that a signal is transduced? A) The signal enters the cell directly and binds to a receptor inside. B) The physical form of the signal changes from one form to another. C) The signal is amplified, such that even a single molecule evokes a large response. D) The signal triggers a sequence of phosphorylation events inside the cell. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3

36) A G-protein receptor with GTP bound to it ________. A) is in its active state B) signals a protein to maintain its shape and conformation C) will use cGMP as a second messenger D) directly affects gene expression Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3 37) Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that binds to receptors on skeletal muscle cells. The receptor-signal complex brings about a series of events that result in contraction of skeletal muscle. Venom from black widow spiders causes an explosive release of acetylcholine. What would that do to its victims? A) The victim's muscles would be unable to contract. B) The victim's muscles would be unable to relax. C) The victim's cell receptors would no longer be able to bind regulatory hormones. D) The victim's cell receptors would be able to bind regulatory hormones but at a rate greatly exceeding normal rates. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3 38) One of the major categories of receptors in the plasma membrane reacts by forming dimers, adding phosphate groups, and then activating relay proteins. Which type does this? A) G-protein—coupled receptors B) Ligand-gated ion channels C) Steroid receptors D) Receptor tyrosine kinases Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3

39) In general, a signal transmitted via phosphorylation of a series of proteins ________. A) results in a conformational change to each protein B) requires binding of a hormone to an intracellular receptor C) activates a transcription event D) generates ATP in the process of signal transduction E) occurs within the outer plasma membrane Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3 40) In signal transduction, phosphatases ________. A) move the phosphate group of the transduction pathway to the next molecule of a series B) prevent a protein kinase from being reused when there is another extracellular signal C) amplify the transduction signal so it affects multiple transducers D) amplify the second messengers such as cAMP E) inactivate protein kinases and turn off the signal transduction Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3 41) At puberty, an adolescent female body changes in both structure and function of several organ systems, primarily under the influence of changing concentrations of estrogens and other steroid hormones. How can one hormone, such as estrogen, mediate so many effects? A) Estrogen is produced in very large concentration by nearly every tissue of the body. B) Each cell responds in the same way when steroids bind to the cell surface. C) Estrogen is kept away from the surface of any cells not able to bind it at the surface. D) Estrogen binds to specific receptors inside many kinds of cells, each with different responses. E) Cells metabolize steroids in different ways, producing by-products that stimulate tRNA production. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3

42) Scaffolding proteins are ________. A) ladderlike proteins that allow receptor—ligand complexes to climb through cells from one position to another B) microtubular protein arrays that allow lipid-soluble hormones to get from the cell membrane to the nuclear pores C) large molecules to which several relay proteins attach to facilitate cascade effects D) relay proteins that orient receptors and their ligands in appropriate directions to facilitate their complexing E) proteins that can reach into the nucleus of a cell to affect transcription Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3 43) Phosphorylation cascades involving a series of protein kinases are useful for cellular signal transduction because they ________. A) are species specific B) always lead to the same cellular response C) amplify the original signal many times D) counter the harmful effects of phosphatases E) use a small and fixed number of molecules Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3 44) The activation of receptor tyrosine kinases is characterized by ________. A) dimerization and phosphorylation B) dimerization and IP3 binding C) a phosphorylation cascade D) GTP hydrolysis E) channel protein shape change Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3

45) Lipid-soluble signaling molecules, such as testosterone, cross the membranes of all cells but affect only target cells because ________. A) only target cells retain the appropriate DNA segments B) intracellular receptors are present only in target cells C) most cells lack the Y chromosome required D) only target cells possess the cytosolic enzymes that transduce the testosterone E) only in target cells is testosterone able to initiate the phosphorylation cascade leading to activated transcription factor Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3 46) Consider this pathway: epinephrine → G-protein-coupled receptor → G-protein → adenylyl cyclase → cAMP. The second messenger in this pathway is ________. A) cAMP B) G-protein C) GTP D) adenylyl cyclase E) G-protein-coupled receptor Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3 47) Which observation suggested the involvement of a second messenger in epinephrine's effect on liver cells? A) Enzymatic activity was proportional to the amount of calcium added to a cell-free extract. B) Receptor studies indicated that epinephrine was a ligand. C) Glycogen breakdown was observed only when epinephrine was administered to intact cells. D) Glycogen breakdown was observed when epinephrine and glycogen phosphorylase were combined. E) Epinephrine was known to have different effects on different types of cells. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3

48) The cancer-causing forms of the Ras protein are involved in which of the following processes? A) Relaying a signal from a growth-factor receptor B) DNA replication C) DNA repair D) Cell—cell adhesion E) Cell division Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3 49) Forms of the Ras protein found in tumors usually cause which of the following? A) DNA replication to stop B) DNA replication to be hyperactive C) Cell-to-cell adhesion to be nonfunctional D) Cell division to cease E) Excessive cell division Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.3 Section: 11.3 50) Which of the following statements about quorum sensing is FALSE? Quorum sensing ________. A) is cell-cell communication in eukaryotes B) is species specific C) may result in biofilm formation D) is particularly well studied because of its medical importance Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 11.4 Section: 11.4

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 12 The Cell Cycle 1) In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes are composed of ________. A) DNA and RNA B) DNA only C) DNA and proteins D) DNA and phospholipids Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.1 Section: 12.1 2) A cell has 6 unreplicated chromosomes. How many replicated chromosomes does the cell have after chromosome replication? A) 3 B) 6 C) 12 D) Too many to count Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.1 Section: 12.1 3) A cell in G1 phase has 6 unreplicated chromosomes. How many DNA double helices does the cell have after chromosome replication? A) 3 B) 6 C) 12 D) Too many to count Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 12.1 Section: 12.1

4) Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a series of five cell divisions would produce an early embryo with how many cells? A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 32 E) 64 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 12.1 Section: 12.1 The following questions (5-8) are based on the accompanying figure.

5) In the figure, G1 is represented by which numbered part(s) of the cycle? A) I or V B) II or IV C) III only D) IV only E) V only Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.1 Section: 12.1

6) In the figure, which number represents DNA synthesis? A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.1 Section: 12.1 7) In the figure, which number represents the point in the cell cycle during which the chromosomes are replicated? A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.1 Section: 12.1 8) In the figure, at which of the numbered regions would you expect to find cells at metaphase? A) I and IV B) II only C) III only D) IV only E) V only Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2

9) Scientists isolate cells in various phases of the cell cycle. They find a group of cells that have 1 times more DNA than G1 phase cells. The cells of this group are ________. A) between the G1 and S phases in the cell cycle B) in the G2 phase of the cell cycle C) in the M phase of the cell cycle D) in the S phase of the cell cycle Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.1 Section: 12.1 10) The first gap in the cell cycle (G1) corresponds to ________. A) normal growth and cell function B) the phase in which DNA is being replicated C) the beginning of mitosis D) the phase between DNA replication and the M phase Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.1 Section: 12.1 11) Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to 6 picograms per nucleus. In which stage of the cell cycle did the nucleus contain 6 picograms of DNA? A) G0 B) G1 C) S D) G2 E) M Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 12.1 Section: 12.1

12) A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many picograms would be found at the end of S and the end of G2? A) 8, 8 B) 8, 16 C) 16, 8 D) 16, 16 E) 12, 16 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 12.1 Section: 12.1 13) Researchers pulsed rapidly dividing cultured cells with radioactive thymidine for 30 minutes. The cells were then exposed to a solution containing non-radiolabeled thymidine. Cells were analyzed at 2-hour intervals. At the 2-hour time point, no cells appeared to be dividing. Only after 4 hours did some labeled cells appear to be in M phase. This result can be explained in the following way: A) Radiolabeled compounds are somewhat cytotoxic, and cell division was initially inhibited. B) The cells were arrested in a nondividing state because of the treatment and could not enter M phase until several hours after the label was removed. C) The synthesis (S) phase is lengthy, about 12 hours in most cell types, and the radioactive thymidine was not present long enough for most cells to be labeled. D) There seems to be a gap or a lag in the cell cycle, between the synthesis of DNA and cell division. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.1 Section: 12.1

Use the following information to answer the questions (14 and 15) below. Nucleotides can be radiolabeled before they are incorporated into newly forming DNA and can be assayed to track their incorporation. In a pulse—chase experiment, a student—faculty research team introduced labeled thymine (T) nucleotides into a culture of dividing human cells. After a short time, they added large amounts of unlabeled T nucleotides. 14) In which cell cycle phase would the labeled T nucleotides become incorporated into the DNA? A) G1 B) S C) G2 D) M Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.1 Section: 12.1 15) The researchers used this approach to study the effect of a pathogen on the cell cycle. They found that normal cells began to enter mitosis 15 minutes after incorporation of radiolabeled DNA, but cell cultures containing a pathogen began to enter mitosis 6 minutes after incorporation of radiolabeled DNA. Based on this information, which of the following was the most likely effect of the pathogen? A) The pathogen caused G1 phase to shorten. B) The pathogen caused G1 phase to be skipped. C) The pathogen caused S phase to be skipped. D) The pathogen caused G2 phase to shorten. E) The pathogen caused G2 phase to be skipped. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.1 Section: 12.1

16) A cell begins G1 phase with 6 unreplicated chromosomes. This cell undergoes S, G2, and M phases. How many chromosomes will the daughter cells contain? A) 3 B) 6 C) 12 D) 18 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2 17) A cell begins G1 phase with 20 picograms of DNA. How much DNA would the cell contain during anaphase? A) 20 picograms B) 30 picograms C) 40 picograms D) 80 picograms Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2 18) Which of the following does NOT occur during mitosis? A) Condensation of the chromosomes B) Replication of the DNA C) Separation of sister chromatids D) Spindle formation E) Separation of the spindle poles Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2

19) In human and many other eukaryotic species' cells, the nuclear membrane has to disappear to permit ________. A) cytokinesis B) the attachment of microtubules to kinetochores C) the splitting of the centrosomes D) the disassembly of the nucleolus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2 20) A cell near the end of anaphase of mitosis will have ________. A) no chromosomes in the center of the cell B) chromosomes clustered at one end of the cell C) individual chromatids beginning to separate from one another D) chromosomes clustered tightly at the center E) one large nuclear envelope Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2 21) At which phase are centrioles beginning to move apart in animal cells? A) Telophase B) Anaphase C) Prometaphase D) Metaphase E) Prophase Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2

The circle below shows the nucleus of a cell in G1 phase of the cell cycle. Use the figure to answer the question(s) that follow.

22) Following the cell above through the cell cycle, which of the following would be observed at prometaphase of mitosis?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2

23) Directly after mitosis of the cell above, which of the following would be observed in a daughter cell?

A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2

24)

If the cell, whose nuclear material is shown in the accompanying figure, continues toward the completion of mitosis, which of the following events would occur next? A) Cell-membrane synthesis B) Spindle fiber formation C) Nuclear envelope breakdown D) Formation of telophase nuclei E) Synthesis of chromatids Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2 25) The microtubule-organizing center found in animal cells is an identifiable structure present during all phases of the cell cycle. Specifically, it is known as the ________. A) microtubulere B) centrosome C) centromere D) kinetochore Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2

26) The mitotic spindle is a microtubular structure that is involved in ________. A) splitting of the cell (cytokinesis) following mitosis B) triggering the compaction and condensation of chromosomes C) dissolving the nuclear membrane D) separation of sister chromatids Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2 27) Kinetochore microtubules assist in the process of splitting centromeres by ________. A) using motor proteins to split the centromere at specific arginine residues B) creating tension by pulling toward opposite poles C) sliding past each other like actin filaments D) phosphorylating the centromere, thereby changing its conformation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2 28) Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree that disrupts microtubule formation in animal cells. When Taxol is added to animal cells, cell division stops. Specifically, Taxol must affect ________. A) the structure of the mitotic spindle B) anaphase C) formation of the centrioles D) chromatid assembly E) the S phase of the cell cycle Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2

29) Vinblastine is a standard chemotherapeutic drug used to treat cancer. Because it interferes with the assembly of microtubules, its effectiveness must be related to ________. A) disruption of mitotic spindle formation B) inhibition of regulatory protein phosphorylation C) suppression of cyclin production D) myosin denaturation and inhibition of cleavage furrow formation E) inhibition of DNA synthesis Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2 30) Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that prevents ________. A) nuclear envelope breakdown B) cell-wall formation C) elongation of microtubules D) shortening of microtubules E) formation of a cleavage furrow Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2 31) Which cytoskeletal proteins are important constituents of the contractile structures that form the cleavage furrows involved in animal cell cytokinesis? A) Actin B) Dynein C) Tubulin D) Myosin Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2

32) Mitosis separates chromosomes. The cytoplasm is divided between two daughter cells by ________. A) cloning B) cytokinesis C) binary fission D) the formation of kinetochores Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2 33) Some cells have several nuclei per cell. How could such multinucleated cells be explained? A) The cell underwent repeated cytokinesis but no mitosis. B) The cell underwent repeated mitosis with simultaneous cytokinesis. C) The cell underwent repeated mitosis, but cytokinesis did not occur. D) The cell had multiple S phases before it entered mitosis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2 34) The drug cytochalasin B blocks the function of actin. Which of the following aspects of the cell cycle would be most disrupted by cytochalasin B? A) Spindle formation B) Spindle attachment to kinetochores C) DNA synthesis D) Cell elongation during anaphase E) Cleavage furrow formation and cytokinesis Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2

35) How is plant cell cytokinesis different from animal cell cytokinesis? A) The contractile filaments found in plant cells are structures composed of carbohydrates; the cleavage furrow in animal cells is composed of contractile phospholipids. B) Plant cells deposit vesicles containing cell-wall building blocks on the metaphase plate; animal cells form a cleavage furrow. C) The structural proteins of plant cells separate the two cells; in animal cells, a cell membrane separates the two daughter cells. D) Plant cells divide after metaphase but before anaphase; animal cells divide after anaphase. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2 36) Myosin is a motor protein involved in animal cell cytokinesis. It binds to ATP or ADP, causing the myosin to move with respect to actin. What is the effect of the interaction between myosin and actin? A) Vesicles containing plasma membrane constituents are transported to the metaphase plate, where cytokinesis takes place. B) Excess cytoplasm is removed. C) The cleavage furrow deepens. D) Two new daughter nuclei form. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2 37) Which of the following are primarily responsible for cytokinesis in plant cells but not in animal cells? A) Kinetochores B) Golgi-derived vesicles C) Actin and myosin D) Centrioles and centromeres E) Tubulin and dynein Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2

38) Through a microscope, you can see a cell plate beginning to develop across the middle of a cell and nuclei forming on either side of the cell plate. This cell is most likely ________. A) an animal cell in the process of cytokinesis B) a plant cell in the process of cytokinesis C) an animal cell in the S phase of the cell cycle D) a bacterial cell dividing E) a plant cell in metaphase Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2 39) In the cells of some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This results in ________. A) cells with more than one nucleus B) cells that are unusually small C) cells lacking nuclei D) destruction of chromosomes E) cell cycles lacking an S phase Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2 40) FtsZ is a bacterial cytoskeletal protein that forms a contractile ring involved in bacterial cytokinesis. Its function is analogous to ________. A) the cleavage furrow of eukaryotic animal cells B) the cell plate of eukaryotic plant cells C) the mitotic spindle of eukaryotic cells D) the microtubule-organizing center of eukaryotic cells Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2

41) Which of the following is NOT a part of bacterial cell division? A) DNA replication B) Chromosome separation C) Cytokinesis D) Mitosis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.2 Section: 12.2 42) The cytoplasm from which of the following Xenopus laevis egg cells would contain the most MPF (mitosis promoting factor)? A) An immature oocyte arrested in G2 phase B) A mature egg arrested in M phase C) Both an immature oocyte and a mature egg would have the same amount of MPF. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.3 Section: 12.3 43) What happens if MPF (mitosis-promoting factor) is introduced into immature frog oocytes that are arrested in G2? A) Nothing happens. B) The cells undergo DNA replication. C) The cells enter mitosis. D) Cell differentiation is triggered. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.3 Section: 12.3

44)

In the accompanying figure, MPF (mitosis-promoting factor) reaches its highest concentration during which stage? A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.3 Section: 12.3 45) Once a cell completes mitosis, molecular division triggers must be turned off. What happens to MPF during mitosis? A) It is completely degraded. B) It is exported from the cell. C) The cyclin component of MPF is degraded. D) The Cdk component of MPF is degraded and exported from the cell. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.3 Section: 12.3

46) Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle and that show fluctuations in concentration during the cell cycle are called ________. A) ATPases B) kinetochores C) kinases D) estrogen receptors E) cyclins Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.3 Section: 12.3 47) The MPF protein complex turns itself off by ________. A) activating a process that destroys cyclin components B) activating an enzyme that stimulates cyclin C) binding to chromatin D) exiting the cell E) activating the anaphase-promoting complex Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.3 Section: 12.3 48) Cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk) is ________. A) inactive, or "turned off," in the presence of cyclin B) present only during the S phase of the cell cycle C) an enzyme that removes hydroxyl groups from growth hormones D) the enzyme that catalyzes the attachment of chromosomes to microtubules E) an enzyme that attaches phosphate groups to other proteins Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.3 Section: 12.3

49) Neurons and some other specialized cells divide infrequently because they ________. A) no longer have active nuclei B) no longer carry receptors for signal molecules C) have entered into G0 D) can no longer bind Cdk to cyclin E) show a drop in MPF concentration Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.3 Section: 12.3 50) A cyclin ________. A) is present in similar concentrations throughout the cell cycle B) is activated by binding to microtubules C) decreases in concentration when MPF activity increases D) activates a Cdk molecule when it reaches a sufficient concentration E) activates a Cdk molecule when its concentration is decreased Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.3 Section: 12.3 51) The decline of MPF activity at the end of mitosis is due to ________. A) the destruction of the protein kinase Cdk B) decreased synthesis of Cdk C) the degradation of cyclin D) the accumulation of cyclin E) synthesis of DNA Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.3 Section: 12.3

52) The product of the p53 gene ________. A) inhibits the cell cycle B) slows down the rate of DNA replication by interfering with the binding of DNA polymerase C) causes cells to reduce expression of genes involved in DNA repair D) allows cells to pass on mutations due to DNA damage Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.3 Section: 12.3 53) Regulatory proteins that prevent a cell from entering the S phase under conditions of DNA damage are also known as ________. A) cyclins B) cyclin-dependent kinases C) antibodies D) tumor suppressors Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.3 Section: 12.3 54) If a cell has accumulated DNA damage, it is unlikely to ________. A) pass the G2 checkpoint B) activate DNA repair mechanisms C) enter G1 from mitosis D) synthesize cyclin-dependent kinases Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.3 Section: 12.3

55) The M-phase checkpoint ensures that all chromosomes are attached to the mitotic spindle. If this does NOT happen, cells would most likely be arrested in ________. A) telophase B) prophase C) prometaphase D) metaphase Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.3 Section: 12.3 56) Tumor suppressor genes ________. A) are frequently overexpressed in cancerous cells B) are cancer-causing genes introduced into cells by viruses C) encode proteins that help prevent uncontrolled cell growth D) often encode proteins that stimulate the cell cycle Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.3 Section: 12.3 57) Which of the following would be used to differentiate between benign and malignant tumors? A) The formation of a mass B) Continued cell division C) The ability to invade other tissues D) A fast growth rate Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.4 Section: 12.4

58) To pass the G1 checkpoint, all of the following would be expected to occur in a normal cell after exposure to growth factors EXCEPT ________. A) production of cyclin B) activation of CDK C) phosphorylation of the RB protein D) release of E2F by Rb E) the degradation of E2F Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.4 Section: 12.4 59) The cancer-causing forms of the Ras protein are involved in which of the following processes? A) Relaying a signal from a growth-factor receptor B) DNA replication C) DNA repair D) Cell—cell adhesion E) Cell division Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.4 Section: 12.4 60) Forms of the Ras protein found in tumors would cause which of the following? A) DNA replication to stop B) DNA replication to be hyperactive C) Cell-to-cell adhesion to be nonfunctional D) Cell division to cease E) Excessive cell division Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.4 Section: 12.4

61) If the Rb protein was inactivated, which of the following would occur? A) S phase would be activated in the absence of growth factors. B) Cells would arrest in G2 phase. C) Spindle fibers would not attach to kinetochores. D) Cells would remain in G0 phase. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 12.4 Section: 12.4

62) Which of the student-drawn cell models contain four chromosomes? Select all that apply. A)

63) Which of the student-drawn cell models contain four molecules of double-stranded DNA? Select all that apply. A)

64) Which of the student-drawn cell models contain four molecules of single-stranded DNA? Select all that apply. A)

Answer: F LO: 12.1; EO: 12.1.1 65) Four of your classmates are asked to draw a cell with two replicated chromosomes. Which of their cell models need revision? Select all that apply. A)

Answer: A, B, D LO: 12.1; EO: 12.1.1

66) When chromosomes are drawn at this scale, they do not show the details of the molecules within. Which molecule types are present in chromosomes? Select all that apply.

A) Nucleic acids B) Carbohydrates C) Lipids D) Proteins Answer: A, D LO: 12.1; EO: 12.1.1

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 13 Meiosis 1) The somatic cells of a privet shrub each contain 46 chromosomes. How do privet chromosomes differ from the chromosomes of humans, who also have 46? A) Privet cells cannot reproduce sexually. B) Privet sex cells have chromosomes that can synapse with human chromosomes in the laboratory. C) Genes of privet chromosomes are significantly different from those in humans. D) Privet shrubs must be metabolically more like animals than like other shrubs. E) Genes on a particular privet chromosome, such as the X, must be on a different human chromosome, such as number 18. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I, S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 2) In a human karyotype, chromosomes are arranged in 23 pairs. If we choose one of these pairs, such as pair 14, which of the following do the two chromosomes of the pair have in common? A) Length and position of the centromere only B) Length, centromere position, and staining pattern only C) Length, centromere position, staining pattern, and traits coded for by their genes D) They have nothing in common except that they are X-shaped. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 3) Homologous chromosomes ________. A) are identical B) carry information for the same traits C) carry the same alleles D) align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1

4) When does DNA replication take place regarding meiosis? DNA replication ________. A) does not take place in cells destined to undergo meiosis B) occurs before meiosis I begins C) occurs between meiosis I and meiosis II D) occurs during prophase I Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 5) If a species is diploid and a certain gene found in the species has 18 known alleles (variants), then any given organism of that species can/must have which of the following? A) At most, 2 alleles for that gene B) Up to 18 chromosomes with that gene C) Up to 18 genes for that trait D) A haploid number of 9 chromosomes E) Up to, but not more than 18 different traits Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 6) Somatic cells of roundworms have four individual chromosomes per cell. How many chromosomes would you expect to find in an ovum from a roundworm? A) 4 B) 2 C) 8 D) A diploid number Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1

7) Use the following information to answer the question below. Trichoplax adhaerens (Tp) is the only living species in the phylum Placozoa. Individuals are about 1 mm wide and only 27 μm high, are irregularly shaped, and consist of a total of about 2,000 cells, which are diploid (2n = 12). There are four types of cells, none of which are nerve or muscle cells, and none of which have cell walls. They move using cilia, and any "edge" can lead. Tp feeds on marine microbes, mostly unicellular green algae, by crawling atop the algae and trapping it between its ventral surface and the substrate. Enzymes are then secreted onto the algae, and the resulting nutrients are absorbed. Tp sperm cells have never been observed, nor have embryos past the 64-cell (blastula) stage. If Tp sperms are observed by future researchers, how many chromosomes should be found in a Tp sperm nucleus? A) 2 B) 3 C) 6 D) 12 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 8) The egg of a fruit fly has 4 individual chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in a somatic (body) cell of a fruit fly? A) 4 B) 2 C) 8 D) 16 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1

9) In the snail Pomacea patula catemacensis, n = 13. What is the diploid number for this organism? A) 13 B) 26 C) 52 D) 7 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 10) The chromosome number of hexaploid wheat, Triticum aestivum, can be represented as ________. A) n B) 2n C) 4n D) 6n Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 11) Hexaploid wheat was produced synthetically by He and co-workers. They mated the diploid species, A. tauschii, and the tetraploid species, T. turgidum. Which of the following is an accurate statement about the relative contribution of each parent to the genome of the hexaploid offspring? A) Each parent contributed equally to the genome of the offspring. B) A. tauschii contributed four chromosomes by failing to complete meiosis after chromosome replication, and T. turgidum contributed two chromosomes. C) A. tauschii contributed two sets of chromosomes, and T. turgidum contributed four sets of chromosomes. D) The hexaploid number appeared following mitosis with no subsequent cell division. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1

12) Crossing over normally takes place during which of the following processes? A) Meiosis II B) Meiosis I C) Mitosis D) Mitosis and meiosis II Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 13) When does the synaptonemal complex disappear? A) Late prophase of meiosis I B) During fertilization or fusion of gametes C) Early anaphase of meiosis I D) Mid-prophase of meiosis II E) Late metaphase of meiosis II Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 14) Independent assortment of chromosomes occurs during ________. A) mitosis only B) meiosis I only C) meiosis II only D) mitosis and meiosis I E) mitosis and meiosis II Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1

15) In meiosis, homologous chromosomes are separated during ________. A) anaphase II B) prophase I C) telophase II D) anaphase I Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 16) When we first see chiasmata under a microscope, we know that ________. A) asexual reproduction has occurred B) meiosis II has occurred C) anaphase II has occurred D) prophase I is occurring E) separation of homologs has occurred Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 17) Homologous pairs of chromosomes align opposite to each other at the equator of a cell during ________. A) metaphase of mitosis B) metaphase I of meiosis C) telophase II of meiosis D) metaphase II of meiosis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1

18)

What phase of meiosis is seen in the accompanying figure? A) Metaphase I B) Metaphase II C) Anaphase I D) Anaphase II Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 19) Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis I? A) Homologous chromosomes of a pair are separated from each other. B) The chromosome number per cell remains the same. C) Sister chromatids are separated. D) Four daughter cells are formed. E) Cohesins are cleaved at the centromeres. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1

20) For the duration of meiosis I, each chromosome ________. A) is paired with a homologous chromosome B) consists of two sister chromatids joined by a centromere C) consists of a single strand of DNA D) is joined with its homologous pair to form a synaptonemal complex Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 21) After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is ________. A) diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid B) diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids C) haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid D) haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids E) tetraploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 22) Centromeres split and sister chromatids migrate to opposite poles in ________ of meiosis. A) anaphase I B) telophase I C) anaphase II D) telophase II Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1

23) Which of the following stages of meiosis is correctly matched to chromosome composition at that stage? A) Prophase I — a single chromatid B) Anaphase I — two sister chromatids C) Prophase II — a single chromatid D) Anaphase II — two sister chromatids Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 24) A diploid organism has 10 total chromosomes (2n=10). A cell from this organism has 5 total chromosomes and 10 double-helical DNA molecules. This cell could be at which of the following stages of cell division? A) Directly after S phase, but before meiosis B) Prophase I C) Metaphase I D) Prophase II E) Directly after meiosis II Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 25) You have isolated a single cell from a diploid organism. Which of the following would indicate that the cell was at metaphase of meiosis II (and NOT metaphase of meiosis I)? A) It had a metaphase plate. B) All the chromosomes were composed of two chromatids. C) All the chromosomes were composed of one chromatid. D) None of the chromosomes were homologous to each other. E) There were two pairs of each chromosome. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1

26) How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that are in prophase of meiosis I? They have ________. A) twice the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA B) half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA C) the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA D) half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA E) half the amount of cytoplasm and twice the amount of DNA Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 27) If a cell has completed meiosis I and is just beginning meiosis II, which of the following is an appropriate description of its contents? A) It has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis. B) It has the same number of chromosomes, but each of them has different alleles than another cell from the same meiosis. C) It has half the chromosomes but twice the DNA of the originating cell. D) It has one-fourth the DNA and one-half the chromosomes as the originating cell. E) It is identical in content to another cell formed from the same meiosis I event. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 28) What is the major difference between mitosis and meiosis I in a diploid organism? A) Sister chromatids separate in mitosis; homologous pairs of chromosomes separate in meiosis I. B) Sister chromatids separate in mitosis; homologous pairs of chromosomes separate in meiosis II. C) DNA replication takes place prior to mitosis, but not before meiosis I. D) Only meiosis I results in daughter cells that contain identical genetic information. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1

29) What is the major difference between meiosis II and mitosis in a diploid animal? A) Homologs align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II. B) Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, and homologs separate in meiosis II. C) Meiosis II occurs in a haploid cell, and mitosis occurs in diploid cells. D) Crossover takes place in meiosis II. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 30) Sister chromatids separate from each other during ________. A) mitosis only B) meiosis I only C) meiosis II only D) mitosis and meiosis I E) mitosis and meiosis II Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 31) If meiosis produces haploid cells, how is the diploid number restored for those organisms that spend most of their life cycle in the diploid state? A) DNA replication B) Reverse transcription C) Synapsis D) Fertilization Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1

32) Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis? A) Chromosome replication B) Synapsis of chromosomes C) Production of daughter cells D) Alignment of chromosomes at the equator E) Condensation of chromosomes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 33) During mitosis or meiosis, sister chromatids are held together by proteins referred to as cohesins. Such molecules must ________. A) persist throughout the cell cycle B) be removed before meiosis can begin C) be removed before sister chromatids can separate D) reattach to chromosomes during G1 E) be intact for nuclear envelope re-formation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 34) Which of the following can occur by the process of meiosis but not mitosis? A) Haploid cells fuse to form diploid cells. B) Haploid cells multiply into more haploid cells. C) Diploid cells form haploid cells. D) A diploid cell combines with a haploid cell. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1

35) Quaking aspen can send out underground stems for asexual reproduction. Sexual reproduction is not as common, but when it does happen, the haploid gametes have 19 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in the cells of the underground stems? A) 9 B) 10 C) 19 D) 38 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 13.1 Section: 13.1 36) What makes sexually reproduced offspring genetically different from their parents? A) Genetic recombination during meiosis B) Genetic recombination during mitosis C) Crossing over during mitosis D) Sexual reproduction does not produce genetically different offspring. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 13.2 Section: 13.2

Refer to the information and associated figure to answer the following questions. A certain (hypothetical) organism is diploid, has either blue or orange wings as the consequence of one of its genes on chromosome 12, and has either long or short antennae as a result of a second gene on chromosome 19, as shown in the figure.

37) A certain female's number 12 chromosomes both have the blue gene and number 19 chromosomes both have the long gene. As cells in her ovaries undergo meiosis, her resulting eggs (ova) may have which of the following? A) Either two number 12 chromosomes with blue genes or two with orange genes. B) Either two number 19 chromosomes with long genes or two with short genes. C) Either one blue or one orange gene in addition to either one long or one short gene. D) One chromosome 12 with one blue gene and one chromosome 19 with one long gene. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 13.1, 13.2 Section: 13.1, 13.2 38) If a female of this species has one chromosome 12 with a blue gene and another chromosome 12 with an orange gene, and has both number 19 chromosomes with short genes, she will produce which of the following egg types? A) Only blue short gene eggs B) Only orange short gene eggs C) One-half blue short and one-half orange short gene eggs D) Three-fourths blue long and one-fourth orange short gene eggs E) Three-fourths blue short and one-fourth orange short gene eggs Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 13.1, 13.2 Section: 13.1, 13.2

39) A female with a paternal set of one orange and one long gene chromosome and a maternal set consisting of one blue and one short gene chromosome is expected to produce which of the following types of eggs after meiosis? A) All eggs will have maternal types of gene combinations. B) All eggs will have paternal types of gene combinations. C) Half the eggs will have maternal and half will have paternal combinations. D) Each egg has a one-fourth chance of having either blue long, blue short, orange long, or orange short combinations. E) Each egg has a three-fourth chance of having blue long, one-fourth blue short, three-fourth orange long, or one-fourth orange short combinations. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 13.1, 13.2 Section: 13.1, 13.2 40) Independent assortment of chromosomes is a result of ________. A) the random way each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I B) the random combinations of eggs and sperm during fertilization C) the random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells during anaphase II D) the relatively small degree of homology shared by the X and Y chromosomes E) the diverse combination of alleles that may be found within any given chromosome Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 13.1, 13.2 Section: 13.1, 13.2 41) The diploid number of a roundworm species is 4. Assuming there is no crossover, and random segregation of homologs during meiosis, how many different possible combinations of chromosomes might there be in the offspring? A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 64 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 13.2 Section: 13.2

42) How many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes can be packaged in gametes made by an organism with a diploid number of 8 (2n = 8)? A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16 E) 32 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 13.3 Section: 13.2 43) For a species with a haploid number of 23 chromosomes, how many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible for the gametes? A) 23 B) 46 C) About 1000 D) About 8 million E) About 70 trillion Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 13.2 Section: 13.2 44) A researcher sequences a single DNA molecule from a sperm cell of an individual. She finds DNA sequences that were both maternally and paternally inherited by that individual. Which of the following processes could explain this result? A) Independent assortment B) Crossing over C) Fertilization D) A mistake during DNA replication E) Separation of homologous chromosomes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.1, 13.2 Section: 13.1, 13.2

45) A single human can produce about 8.4 million different gametes through independent assortment. During fertilization, egg and sperm cells come together at random. How many genetically different offspring are possible through independent assortment and random fertilization? A) 8.4 million × 2 = 16,800,000 B) 8.4 million × 8.4 million = 70.6 × 1012 C) 28.4 million Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 13.2 Section: 13.2 46) The bulldog ant has a diploid number of two chromosomes. Therefore, following meiosis, each daughter cell will have a single chromosome. Diversity in this species may be generated by mutations and ________. A) crossing over B) independent assortment C) crossing over and independent assortment D) nothing else Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.2 Section: 13.2 47) Which of the following would enable you to detect aneuploidy? A) Autosomy B) Karyotyping C) Syngamy D) Synapsis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 13.3 Section: 13.3

48) Turner syndrome is characterized by the presence of only one X chromosome in an affected female. Which of the following accurately describes Turner syndrome? A) Monosomy B) Trisomy C) 2n + 1 D) 47, XXX aneuploidy Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 13.3 Section: 13.3 49) What is the most common source of the extra chromosome 21 in an individual with Down syndrome? A) Nondisjunction in the mother B) Nondisjunction in the father C) Duplication of chromosome 21 D) Deletion in either parent Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 13.3 Section: 13.3 50) A triploid individual ________. A) is unable to undergo normal meiosis B) is unable to undergo mitosis C) produces offspring with an even number of chromosome sets (for example, tetraploid, hexaploid) D) has an additional stage in meiosis (meiosis I, meiosis II, and meiosis III) Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.3 Section: 13.3

51) Which of the following might result in a human zygote with 45 chromosomes? A) An error in either egg or sperm meiotic anaphase B) Failure of the egg nucleus to be fertilized by the sperm C) Failure of an egg to complete meiosis II D) Incomplete cytokinesis during spermatogenesis after meiosis I Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 13.3 Section: 13.3 52) The karyotype of one species of primate has 48 chromosomes. In a particular female, cell division goes awry and she produces one of her eggs with an extra chromosome (25). The most probable source of this error would be a mistake in which of the following? A) Mitosis in her ovary B) Metaphase I of one meiotic event C) Telophase II of one meiotic event D) Telophase I of one meiotic event E) Either anaphase I or II Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 13.3 Section: 13.3 53) Which of the following best describes why there are no live births observed with Trisomy 2? A) Nondisjunction of chromosome 2 does not occur during meiosis. B) Nondisjunction of chromosome 2 does not result in live birth. C) Nondisjunction of chromosome 2 results in monosomy, but not trisomy. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.3 Section: 13.3

54) Which of the following is a TRUE statement about sexual versus asexual reproduction? A) Asexual reproduction, but not sexual reproduction, is characteristic of plants and fungi. B) In sexual reproduction, individuals transmit half of their nuclear genes to each of their offspring. C) In asexual reproduction, offspring are produced by fertilization without meiosis. D) Sexual reproduction requires that parents be diploid. E) Asexual reproduction produces only haploid offspring. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 13.4 Section: 13.1 55) An advantage of asexual reproduction is that it ________. A) allows the species to endure long periods of unstable environmental conditions B) enhances genetic variability in the species C) enables the species to rapidly colonize habitats that are favorable to that species D) produces offspring that respond effectively to new pathogens E) allows a species to easily rid itself of harmful mutations Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.4 Section: 13.4 56) Asexual reproduction results in greater reproductive success than does sexual reproduction when ________. A) pathogens are rapidly diversifying B) a species has accumulated numerous deleterious mutations C) there is some potential for rapid overpopulation D) a species is expanding into diverse geographic settings E) a species is in stable and favorable environments Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I, S V&C Core Comp: PS, I LO: 13.4 Section: 13.4

57) Which of the following could be considered an evolutionary advantage of asexual reproduction in plants? A) Increased success of progeny in a stable environment B) Increased agricultural productivity in a rapidly changing environment C) Maintenance and expansion of a large genome D) Production of numerous progeny E) Increased ability to adapt to a change in the environment Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.4 Section: 13.4 58) Genetic mutations in asexually reproducing organisms lead to more evolutionary change than genetic mutations in sexually reproducing ones because ________. A) asexually reproducing organisms, but not sexually reproducing organisms, pass all mutations on to their offspring B) asexually reproducing organisms devote more time and energy to the process of reproduction than do sexually reproducing organisms C) sexually reproducing organisms can produce more offspring in a given time than can asexually reproducing organisms D) more genetic variation is present in organisms that reproduce asexually than is present in those that reproduce sexually E) asexually reproducing organisms have more dominant genes than organisms that reproduce sexually Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I, S V&C Core Comp: PS, I LO: 13.4 Section: 13.4 59) Plants produce more seeds when they reproduce asexually than sexually. Yet most plants reproduce sexually in nature. What is the probable explanation for the prevalence of sexual reproduction? Sexual reproduction ________. A) is more energy efficient than asexual reproduction B) ensures genetic continuity from parents to offspring C) mixes up alleles, contributing to variation in a species D) is not dependent on other agents of pollination Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 13.4 Section: 13.4 21 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

60) Sexual reproduction ________. A) allows animals to conserve resources and reproduce only during optimal conditions B) can produce diverse phenotypes that may enhance survival of a population in a changing environment C) yields more numerous offspring more rapidly than is possible with asexual reproduction D) enables males and females to remain isolated from each other while rapidly colonizing habitats E) guarantees that both parents will provide care for each offspring Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I, S V&C Core Comp: PS, I LO: 13.4 Section: 13.4 61) The fastest way for organisms to adapt to a changing environment involves ________. A) mutation B) asexual reproduction C) sexual reproduction Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I, S V&C Core Comp: PS, I LO: 13.4 Section: 13.4

62) Which student models show an n = 6 cell? Select all that apply. A)

63) Which student models show a 2n= 6 cell? Select all that apply. A)

Use the chromosome model below to answer the following questions.

64) The chromosomes are replicated. Answer: TRUE LO: 13.1; EO: 13.1.1 65) This cell is n = 5. Answer: TRUE LO: 13.1; EO: 13.1.1, 13.1.2 66) The bands on the chromosomes represent certain genes. Answer: TRUE LO: 13.1; EO: 13.1.1 67) This cell is diploid. Answer: FALSE LO: 13.1; EO: 13.1.1, 13.1.2 68) There are five different kinds of chromosomes in this cell. Answer: TRUE LO: 13.1; EO: 13.1.1, 13.1.2 69) There are 10 molecules of double-stranded DNA represented by this model. Answer: TRUE LO: 13.1; EO: 13.1.1

70) Which of the following student models would be the most useful for illustrating the principle of independent assortment? A)

71) Which of the following gametes could result from the cell shown? (Assume that meiosis proceeds normally.)

Select all that apply.

Answer: A, E LO: 13.1; EO: 13.1.1, 13.1.4, 13.1.5

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 14 Mendel and the Gene 1) Which of the following would be a prediction of the inheritance of acquired characters hypothesis? A) When crossed, a black dog and a white dog have all gray offspring. B) A giraffe stretches its neck to reach leaves on tall trees and transmits the long neck trait to offspring. C) One gene has multiple phenotypic effects. D) Two genes interact to contribute to a single phenotype. E) There are multiple versions of a trait in a population. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.1 Section: 14.1 2) The ________ hypothesis would predict that when a black sheep and a white sheep mate, all their offspring would be gray. A) blending inheritance B) inheritance of acquired characters C) chromosomal inheritance D) autosomal inheritance Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.1 Section: 14.1 3) All of the following are reasons that Mendel chose the pea plant as a model system for his studies EXCEPT ________. A) peas have a relatively short generation time B) peas produce large numbers of seeds C) he could control which parents were involved in mating D) peas only reproduce by cross-fertilization E) peas have many polymorphic traits Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.1 Section: 14.1

4) Mendel studied seven different traits in the garden pea. What genetic term is used to describe an observable trait, such as those studied by Mendel? A) Genotype B) Appearance C) Phenotype D) Haplotype E) Category Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.1 Section: 14.1 5) Which of the following terms is used to describe the offspring of a cross of two true-breeding parents that differ in one or more traits? A) Hybrid B) Pure line C) Homozygous D) Reciprocal Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.1 Section: 14.1 6) Cross-fertilization involves ________. A) a flower's pollen falling on the female reproductive organ of the same flower B) transferring pollen from one individual to the female reproductive organ of another individual C) removing male reproductive structures and inducing plants to reproduce asexually D) the blending of parents' traits in an offspring E) acquiring traits modified through use Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.1 Section: 14.1

7) Why did the F1 offspring of Mendel's classic pea cross always look like one of the two parental varieties? A) No genes interacted to produce the parental phenotype. B) Each allele affected phenotypic expression. C) The traits blended together during fertilization. D) One allele was dominant. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.1, 14.2 Section: 14.2 8) Mendel accounted for the observation that traits that had disappeared in the F1 generation reappeared in the F2 generation by proposing that ________. A) new mutations were frequently generated in the F2 progeny, "reinventing" traits that had been lost in the F1 B) the mechanism controlling the appearance of traits was different between the F1 and the F2 plants C) traits can be dominant or recessive, and the recessive traits were obscured by the dominant ones in the F1 generation D) members of the F1 generation had only one allele for each trait, but members of the F2 had two alleles for each trait Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.2 Section: 14.2 9) Which of the following best describes Mendel's particulate inheritance hypothesis? A) Hereditary components are discrete units that do not change from generation to generation. B) Hereditary components blend together during fertilization but then split apart to give rise to the next generation. C) Hereditary components are modified by use, and the modified form is passed on to offspring. D) Hereditary components change in response to environmental pressures, and the changed form is passed on to offspring. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.2 Section: 14.2

10) Which of the following is an example of a reciprocal cross? A) An F1 offspring is crossed back to one of its parents. B) Two randomly chosen F2 individuals are crossed. C) A mother's phenotype in an initial cross is the father's phenotype in a subsequent cross and father's phenotype in the first cross is the mother's phenotype in the subsequent cross. D) An individual with unknown genotype is crossed to a homozygous recessive individual. E) Pollen from the male reproductive structure of one individual is used to fertilize an egg from the female reproductive structure of the same individual. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.2 Section: 14.2 11) Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. This ratio suggests that ________. A) the parents were true-breeding for contrasting traits B) the particular trait shows incomplete dominance C) a blending of traits has occurred D) the parents were both heterozygous for the particular trait E) each offspring has the same alleles for each of two different traits Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.2 Section: 14.2 12) When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single trait with a heterozygote, what is the chance of producing an offspring with the recessive phenotype? A) 0 percent B) 25 percent C) 50 percent D) 75 percent E) 100 percent Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.2 Section: 14.2

13) Albinism is an autosomal (not sex-linked) recessive trait. A man and woman are both of normal pigmentation, but both have one parent who is albino (without melanin pigmentation). What is the probability that their first child will be an albino? A) 0 B) 1/8 C) 1/2 D) 1/4 E) 1/3 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 14.2 Section: 14.2 14) Albinism is an autosomal (not sex-linked) recessive trait. A man and woman are both of normal pigmentation, but both have one parent who is albino (without melanin pigmentation). What is the probability that their first female child will have albinism? A) 0 B) 1/8 C) 1/2 D) 1/4 E) 1/3 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 14.2 Section: 14.2 15) Albinism is an autosomal (not sex-linked) recessive trait. A man and woman are both of normal pigmentation and have one child out of three who is albino (without melanin pigmentation). What are the genotypes of the albino's parents? A) One parent must be homozygous for the recessive allele; the other parent can be homozygous dominant, homozygous recessive, or heterozygous. B) One parent must be heterozygous; the other parent can be homozygous dominant, homozygous recessive, or heterozygous. C) Both parents must be heterozygous. D) One parent must be homozygous dominant; the other parent must be heterozygous. E) Both parents must be homozygous dominant. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 14.2 Section: 14.2 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) Mendel crossed yellow-seeded and green-seeded pea plants and then allowed the offspring to self-pollinate to produce an F2 generation. The results were as follows: 6022 yellow and 2001 green (8023 total). The allele for green seeds has what relationship to the allele for yellow seeds? A) Dominant B) Incomplete dominant C) Recessive D) Codominant Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 14.2 Section: 14.2 17) In tigers, a recessive allele causes a white tiger (absence of fur pigmentation). If one phenotypically normal tiger that is heterozygous is mated to another that is phenotypically white, what percentage of their offspring is expected to be white? A) 50 percent B) 75 percent C) 0 percent D) 100 percent E) 25 percent Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 14.2 Section: 14.2 18) A man has extra digits (six fingers on each hand and six toes on each foot). His wife and their daughter have a normal number of digits. Having extra digits is a dominant trait. The couple's second child has extra digits. What is the probability that their next (third) child will have extra digits? A) 1/2 B) 1/16 C) 1/8 D) 3/4 E) 9/16 Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 14.2 Section: 14.2

19) Different ratios occur in crosses with single gene pairs or two gene pairs. What types of ratios are likely to occur in crosses dealing with a single gene pair? A) 9:3:3:1 and 1:2:1 B) 1:1:1:1 and 1:4:6:4:1 C) 3:1, 1:1, and 1:2:1 D) 4:1, 1:1, and 1:4:1 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.2, 14.5 Section: 14.2, 14.5 20) A black guinea pig crossed with an albino guinea pig produced twelve black offspring. When the albino was crossed with a second black animal, six blacks and six albinos were obtained. What is the best explanation for this genetic situation? A) Albino is recessive; black is dominant. B) Albino is dominant; black is incompletely dominant. C) Albino and black are codominant. D) Albino is recessive; black is codominant. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.2 Section: 14.2 21) Gray seed color in peas is dominant to white. Assume that Mendel conducted a series of experiments where plants with gray seeds were crossed among themselves, and the following progeny were produced: 302 gray and 98 white. (a) What is the most probable genotype of each parent? (b) Based on your answer in (a) above, what genotypic and phenotypic ratios are expected in these progeny? (Assume the following symbols: G = gray and g = white.) A) (a) GG × gg; (b) genotypic = 3:1 and phenotypic = 1:2:1 B) (a) Gg × Gg; (b) genotypic = 1:2:1 and phenotypic = 3:1 C) (a) GG × Gg; (b) genotypic = 1:2:1 and phenotypic = 2:1 D) (a) gg × Gg; (b) genotypic = 1:2 and phenotypic = 3:1 E) (a) Gg × Gg; (b) genotypic = 3:1 and phenotypic = 9:3:3:1 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.2 Section: 14.2

22) When Mendel crossed yellow-seeded and green-seeded pea plants, all the offspring were yellow seeded. When he took these F1 yellow-seeded plants and crossed them to green-seeded plants, what genotypic ratio was expected? A) 1:2:1 B) 3:1 C) 9:3:3:1 D) 1:1 E) 1:1:1:1 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 14.2 Section: 14.2 Use the figure and the following description to answer the question(s) below. In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled by gene locus D. Plants with at least one allele D have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding, dark-leaved plant is crossed with a light-leaved one, and the F1 offspring are allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of the F2 is diagrammed in the Punnett square shown in the figure, where 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to each box within the square.

23) Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants with dark leaves? A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 C) 2 and 3 D) 4 only E) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 14.2 Section: 14.2 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

24) Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants with a heterozygous genotype? A) 1 B) 1 and 2 C) 1, 2, and 3 D) 2 and 3 E) 2, 3, and 4 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 14.2 Section: 14.2 25) Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants that will be true-breeding? A) 1 and 4 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1, 2, 3, and 4 D) 1 only E) 1 and 2 only Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 14.2 Section: 14.2 26) In certain plants, tall is dominant to short. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous tall plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be short? A) 1 B) 1/2 C) 1/4 D) 1/6 E) 0 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 14.2 Section: 14.2

27) In humans, male-pattern baldness may be assumed to be controlled by an autosomal gene that occurs in two allelic forms. Allele B determines nonbaldness, and allele b determines pattern baldness. In males, because of the presence of testosterone, allele b is dominant over B. If a man and woman both with genotype Bb have a son, what is the chance that he will eventually be bald? A) 0 percent B) 25 percent C) 33 percent D) 50 percent E) 75 percent Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.2 Section: 14.2 28) What do we mean when we use the terms "monohybrid cross" and "dihybrid cross?" A) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents. B) A monohybrid cross produces a single progeny, whereas a dihybrid cross produces two progeny. C) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters that are being studied, and a monohybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for only one character being studied. D) A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid cross is performed for two generations. E) A monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio, whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1 ratio. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.2, 14.3 Section: 14.3

29) A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H) and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism? A) tt B) Hh C) HhTt D) T E) HT Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 14.3 Section: 14.3 30) How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE? A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 32 E) 64 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 14.3 Section: 14.3 31) Assuming independent assortment for all gene pairs, what is the probability that the following parents, AABbCc × AaBbCc, will produce an AaBbCc offspring? A) 1/2 B) 1/16 C) 1/8 D) 3/4 E) 9/16 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.3 Section: 14.3

32) Suppose two AaBbCc individuals are mated. Assuming that the genes are NOT linked, what fraction of the offspring is expected to be homozygous recessive for the three traits? A) 1/4 B) 1/8 C) 1/16 D) 1/64 E) 1/256 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.3 Section: 14.3 33) In rabbits, the homozygous CC is normal, Cc results in deformed legs, and cc results in very short legs. The genotype BB produces black fur, Bb brown fur, and bb white fur. If a cross is made between brown rabbits with deformed legs and white rabbits with deformed legs, what percentage of the offspring would be expected to have deformed legs and white fur? A) 25 percent B) 33 percent C) About 66 percent D) 100 percent E) 50 percent Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.3 Section: 14.3 34) In the cross AaBbCc × AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing the genotype AABBCC? A) 1/4 B) 1/8 C) 1/16 D) 1/32 E) 1/64 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.3 Section: 14.3

35) Given the parents AABBCc × AabbCc, assume simple dominance for each trait and independent assortment. What proportion of the progeny will be expected to phenotypically resemble the AABBCc parent? A) 1/4 B) 1/8 C) 3/4 D) 3/8 E) 1 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.3 Section: 14.3 36) Two true-breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red, axial flowers and the other has white, terminal flowers; all F1 individuals have red, axial flowers. The genes for flower color and location assort independently. If 1000 F2 offspring resulted from a dihybrid cross, approximately how many of them would you expect to have red, terminal flowers? A) 65 B) 190 C) 250 D) 565 E) 750 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.3 Section: 14.3 37) Two true-breeding stocks of pea plants are crossed. One parent has red, axial flowers and the other has white, terminal flowers; all F1 individuals have red, axial flowers. The genes for flower color and location assort independently. Among the F2 offspring of a dihybrid cross, what is the probability that a plant will have white axial flowers? A) 9/16 B) 1/16 C) 3/16 D) 1/8 E) 1/4 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.3 Section: 14.3 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

38) Which of the following statements about independent assortment and segregation is correct? A) The law of independent assortment requires describing two or more genes relative to one another. B) The law of segregation requires describing two or more genes relative to one another. C) The law of segregation requires having two or more generations to describe. D) The law of independent assortment is accounted for by observations of prophase I. E) The law of segregation is accounted for by anaphase of mitosis. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.3, 14.4 Section: 14.3, 14.4 39) The individual with genotype AaBbCCDdEE can make many kinds of gametes. Which of the following is the major reason? A) Segregation of maternal and paternal alleles B) Recurrent mutations forming new alleles C) Crossing over during prophase I D) Different possible assortment of chromosomes into gametes E) The tendency for dominant alleles to segregate together Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.4 Section: 14.4 40) Mendel's observation of the segregation of alleles in gamete formation has its basis in which of the following phases of cell division? A) Prophase I of meiosis B) Anaphase II of meiosis C) Metaphase II of meiosis D) Anaphase I of meiosis E) Anaphase of mitosis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.4 Section: 14.4

41) Which of the following is the meaning of the chromosome theory of inheritance as expressed in the early twentieth century? A) Individuals inherit particular chromosomes attached to genes. B) Mendelian genes are at specific loci on the chromosome and, in turn, segregate during meiosis. C) Homologous chromosomes give rise to some genes and crossover chromosomes to other genes. D) No more than a single pair of chromosomes can be found in a healthy normal cell. E) Natural selection acts on certain chromosome arrays rather than on genes. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.1, 14.4 Section: 14.1, 14.4 42) The fact that all seven of the pea plant traits studied by Mendel obeyed the principle of independent assortment most probably indicates which of the following? A) None of the traits obeyed the law of segregation. B) The diploid number of chromosomes in the pea plants was 7. C) All of the genes controlling the traits were located on the same chromosome. D) All of the genes controlling the traits behaved as if they were on different chromosomes. E) The formation of gametes in plants occurs by mitosis only. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.4, 14.5 Section: 14.4, 14.5 43) When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F1 generation flies to each other, the F2 generation included both red- and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were male. What was the explanation for this result? A) The gene involved is on the Y chromosome. B) The gene involved is on the X chromosome. C) The gene involved is on an autosome, but only in males. D) Other male-specific factors influence eye color in flies. E) Other female-specific factors influence eye color in flies. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.4 Section: 14.4

44) In cats, black fur color is caused by an X-linked allele; the other allele at this locus causes orange color. The heterozygote is tortoiseshell. What kinds of offspring would you expect from the cross of a black female and an orange male? A) Tortoiseshell females; tortoiseshell males B) Black females; orange males C) Orange females; orange males D) Tortoiseshell females; black males E) Orange females; black males Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 14.4 Section: 14.4 45) Cinnabar eyes is a sex-linked, recessive characteristic in fruit flies. If a female having cinnabar eyes is crossed with a wild-type male, what percentage of the F1 males will have cinnabar eyes? A) 0 percent B) 25 percent C) 50 percent D) 75 percent E) 100 percent Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 14.4 Section: 14.4 46) Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a serious condition caused by a recessive allele of a gene on the human X chromosome. The patients have muscles that weaken over time because they have absent or decreased dystrophin, a muscle protein. They rarely live past their twenties. How likely is it for a woman to have this condition? A) Women can never have this condition. B) One-fourth of the daughters of an affected man would have this condition. C) One-half of the daughters of an affected father and a carrier mother could have this condition. D) Only if a woman is XXX, could she have this condition. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 14.4 Section: 14.4

47) Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. Two people with normal color vision have a color-blind son. What are the genotypes of the parents? A) XnXn and XnY B) XnXn and XNY C) XNXN and XnY D) XNXN and XNY E) XNXn and XNY Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 14.4 Section: 14.4 48) In humans, blue eyes are inherited as a recessive autosomal trait and color blindness is an Xlinked recessive trait. A woman with blue eyes and normal color vision whose father was colorblind marries a man who also has normal color vision. He has brown eyes, but his mother had blue eyes. Which of the following would you expect to be TRUE for their sons? A) One-half of their sons will have normal color vision and brown eyes; one-half of their sons will have normal color vision and blue eyes. B) Their sons will all have normal color vision and brown eyes. C) One-fourth of their sons will be color-blind and have blue eyes, one-fourth of their sons will be color-blind and have brown eyes, one-fourth of their sons will have normal color vision and blue eyes, and one-fourth of their sons will have normal color vision and brown eyes. D) Their sons will all have normal color vision and blue eyes. E) One-half of their sons will be color-blind and have blue eyes; one-half of their sons will be color-blind and have brown eyes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.4 Section: 14.4

49) In humans, blue eyes are inherited as a recessive autosomal trait and color blindness is an Xlinked recessive trait. A woman with blue eyes and normal color vision whose father was colorblind marries a man who also has normal color vision. He has brown eyes but his mother had blue eyes. Which of the following would you expect to be TRUE for their daughters? A) One-half of their daughters will have normal color vision and brown eyes; one-half of their daughters will have normal color vision and blue eyes. B) Their daughters will all have normal color vision and brown eyes. C) One-fourth of their daughters will be color-blind and have blue eyes, one-fourth of their daughters will be color-blind and have brown eyes, one-fourth of their daughters will have normal color vision and blue eyes, and one-fourth of their daughters will have normal color vision and brown eyes. D) Their daughters will all have normal color vision and have blue eyes. E) One-half of their daughters will be color-blind and have blue eyes; one-half of their daughters will be color-blind and have brown eyes. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.4 Section: 14.4 50) In cattle, roan coat color (mixed red and white hairs) occurs in the heterozygous (Rr) offspring of red (RR) and white (rr) homozygotes. Which of the following crosses would produce offspring in the ratio of 1 red:2 roan:1 white? A) Red × white B) Roan × roan C) White × roan D) Red × roan E) The answer cannot be determined from the information provided. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.5 Section: 14.5

51) Which of the following describes the ability of a single allele to have multiple phenotypic effects? A) Incomplete dominance B) Multiple alleles C) Pleiotropy D) Epistasis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.5 Section: 14.5 52) Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreas, the digestive system, and other organs, resulting in symptoms ranging from breathing difficulties to recurrent infections. Which of the following terms best describes this? A) Incomplete dominance B) Multiple alleles C) Pleiotropy D) Epistasis E) Codominance Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 14.5 Section: 14.5 53) Hydrangea plants of the same genotype are planted in a large flower garden. Some of the plants produce blue flowers and others pink flowers. This can be best explained by which of the following? A) The knowledge that multiple alleles are involved B) The allele for blue hydrangea being completely dominant C) The alleles being codominant D) The fact that a mutation has occurred E) Environmental factors such as soil pH Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.5 Section: 14.5

54) Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a recessive human disorder in which an individual cannot appropriately metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. This amino acid is not naturally produced by humans. Therefore, the most efficient and effective treatment is which of the following? A) Feed them the substrate that can be metabolized into this amino acid. B) Transfuse the patients with blood from unaffected donors. C) Regulate the diet of the affected persons to severely limit the uptake of the amino acid. D) Feed the patients the missing enzymes in a regular cycle, such as twice per week. E) Feed the patients an excess of the missing product. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 14.5 Section: 14.5 55) Hutchinson-Gilford progeria is an exceedingly rare human genetic disorder in which there is very early senility and death, usually from coronary artery disease, at an average age of 13 years. Patients who look very old even as children do not live to reproduce. Which of the following represents the most likely assumption? A) The disease is autosomal dominant. B) The disorder will increase in frequency in successive generations within a family. C) The disorder may be due to mutation in a single protein-coding gene. D) Each patient will have had at least one affected grandparent or parent. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 14.5 Section: 14.5 56) Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The flower color trait in radishes is an example of which of the following? A) A multiple allelic system B) Sex linkage C) Codominance D) Incomplete dominance Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.5 Section: 14.5

57) Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with long being the dominant trait. If true-breeding red long radishes are crossed with truebreeding white oval radishes, the F1 will be expected to be which of the following? A) Red and long B) Red and oval C) White and long D) Purple and long E) Purple and oval Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 14.3, 14.5 Section: 14.3, 14.5 58) Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. The part of the radish we eat may be oval or long. A cross between a red-flowered long radish plant and a white-flowered oval radish plant yields all-purple long radish offspring. Then the F1 are crossed. In the resulting F2 generation, which of the following phenotypic ratios would be expected? A) 9:3:3:1 B) 9:4:3 C) 1:1:1:1 D) 1:1:1:1:1:1 E) 6:3:3:2:1:1 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.3, 14.5 Section: 14.3, 14.5

59) Gene S controls the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus. Cactuses with the dominant allele, S, have sharp spines, whereas homozygous recessive ss cactuses have dull spines. At the same time, a second gene, N, determines whether or not cactuses have spines. Homozygous recessive nn cactuses have no spines at all. A cross between a true-breeding sharp-spined cactus and a spineless cactus would produce ________. A) all sharp-spined progeny B) 50 percent sharp-spined and 50 percent dull-spined progeny C) 25 percent sharp-spined, 50 percent dull-spined, and 25 percent spineless progeny D) all spineless progeny E) It is impossible to determine the phenotypes of the progeny. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.3, 14.6 Section: 14.3, 14.5 60) Gene S controls the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus. Cactuses with the dominant allele, S, have sharp spines, whereas homozygous recessive ss cactuses have dull spines. At the same time, a second gene, N, determines whether or not cactuses have spines. Homozygous recessive nn cactuses have no spines at all. If doubly heterozygous SsNn cactuses were allowed to self-pollinate, the F2 would segregate in which of the following ratios? A) 3 sharp-spined:1 spineless B) 1 sharp-spined:2 dull-spined:1 spineless C) 1 sharp-spined:1 dull-spined:1 spineless D) 1 sharp-spined:1 dull-spined E) 9 sharp-spined:3 dull-spined:4 spineless Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.3, 14.5 Section: 14.3, 14.5

61) Feather color in budgies is determined by two different genes, Y and B, one for pigment on the outside and one for the inside of the feather. YYBB, YyBB, or YYBb is green; yyBB or yyBb is blue; YYbb or Yybb is yellow; and yybb is white. A blue budgie is crossed with a white budgie. Which of the following results is NOT possible? A) Green offspring only B) Yellow offspring only C) Blue offspring only D) Green and yellow offspring E) A 9:3:3:1 ratio Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.3, 14.5 Section: 14.3, 14.5 62) Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance? A) Pink flowers in snapdragons B) The ABO blood group in humans C) Huntington disease in humans D) White and purple flower color in peas E) Skin pigmentation in humans Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.5 Section: 14.5

The following questions refer to the pedigree chart in the accompanying figure for a family, some of whose members exhibit the dominant trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle.

63) What is the genotype of individual II-5? A) WW B) Ww C) ww D) WW or ww E) ww or Ww Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 14.6 Section: 14.6 64) What is the likelihood that the progeny of IV-3 and IV-4 will have the trait? A) 0 percent B) 25 percent C) 50 percent D) 75 percent E) 100 percent Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.6 Section: 14.6

65) What is the probability that individual III-1 is Ww? A) 3/4 B) 1/4 C) 2/4 D) 2/3 E) 1 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.6 Section: 14.6 66) The accompanying figure shows the pedigree for a family. Dark-shaded symbols represent individuals with one of the two major types of colon cancer. Numbers under the symbols are the individual's age at the time of diagnosis. Males are represented by squares, females by circles.

From this pedigree, this trait seems to be inherited ________. A) from mothers B) as an autosomal recessive C) as a result of epistasis D) as an autosomal dominant E) as an incomplete dominant Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 14.6 Section: 14.6

67) Three of these student models predict the same frequencies of offspring genotypes. Which one is different? A)

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.2; EO: 14.2.6 Section: 14.2

68) Which of these Punnett squares shows a cross that predicts round seeds (RR or Rr) in half of the offspring? Select all that apply. A)

Answer: B, D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 14.2; EO: 14.2.6 Section: 14.2

69) Three students have drawn a Punnett square to figure out the likelihood that a healthy mother with no family history of sickle cell anemia and a healthy father carrying the recessive allele (a) for sickle cell anemia will have a child with sickle cell anemia. Which students have shown the correct genotypes in their models? Select all that apply. A)

This Punnett square focuses on the inheritance of human blood types. Use the model to answer the questions that follow.

70) This Punnett square shows three different alleles for blood type. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.5; EO: 14.5.2 Section: 14.5 71) There is not enough information in the model to be sure whether the female gametes are shown on the left or top of the Punnett square. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.4, 14.5; EO: 14.4.2, 14.5.2 Section: 14.4, 14.5 72) This Punnett square shows that if the parents had four offspring, each offspring would have a different genotype. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 14.4, 14.5; EO: 14.4.1, 14.5.2 Section: 14.4, 14.5 73) This Punnett square shows that the gametes are haploid and the offspring are diploid. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.2; EO: 14.2.6 Section: 14.2 29 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

74) This Punnett square shows that the parents will have four offspring. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 14.2; EO: 14.2.6 Section: 14.2 75) This Punnett square represents a cross between IAi and IAIB parents. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.2; EO: 14.2.6 Section: 14.2 76) Making Models: Which of the following student-drawn Punnett squares shows a correct setup for a PPrr × PpRr cross? A)

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.3; EO: 14.3.5, 14.3.6 Section: 14.3

77) Making Models: Your classmates have drawn the following Punnett squares. Evaluate the models and indicate which show correct gamete genotypes. Select all that apply. A)

Answer: A, D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.3; EO: 14.3.5, 14.3.6 Section: 14.3

Use the Punnett square below to answer the questions that follow.

78) The genotypes outside the squares represent gametes. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.3; EO: 14.3.6 Section: 14.3 79) This Punnett square represents the possible outcomes of mating two individuals with the following genotypes: MMHh × mmHh. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.3; EO: 14.3.6 Section: 14.3 80) This cross tracks two alleles for two genes. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.3; EO: 14.3.6 Section: 14.3 81) The gametes are haploid. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.3; EO: 14.3.6 Section: 14.3

82) The offspring are diploid. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.3; EO: 14.3.6 Section: 14.3 83) The genotypes inside the squares represent gametes. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.3; EO: 14.3.6 Section: 14.3 84) Use this student's forked-line diagram to determine which of the following gamete genotypes would be among those produced by a ppQqRrTT individual. Select all that apply.

A) pqrT B) ppQqRrTT C) RrTT D) ppQq E) pQRT F) pqrt Answer: A, E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.3; EO: 14.3.5 Section: 14.3

85) Use this student's forked-line diagram to determine what proportion of the gametes will have the pQrT genotype.

A) 0 (this genotype will not occur) B) × × × = C) 1 ×

×1=

D) 1 ×

×1=

E) 1 +

+1=2

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.3; EO: 14.3.5 Section: 14.3

86) Darrin is trying to set up a forked-line diagram to show what types of gametes a lac+lacHbSHbA individual can produce. Help him to complete the setup.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 14.3; EO: 14.3.5 Section: 14.3

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 15 DNA and the Gene: Synthesis and Repair 1) Refer to the treatments listed below to answer the following question. You isolate an infectious substance capable of causing disease in plants, but you do not know whether the infectious agent is a bacterium, virus, viroid, or prion. You have four methods at your disposal to analyze the substance and determine the nature of the infectious agent. I. Treat the substance with enzymes that destroy all nucleic acids and then determine whether the substance is still infectious. II. Filter the substance to remove all elements smaller than what can be easily seen under a light microscope. III. Culture the substance on nutritive medium, away from any plant cells. IV. Treat the sample with proteases that digest all proteins and then determining whether the substance is still infectious. If you already know that the infectious agent was either bacterial or viral, which method(s) listed above would allow you to distinguish between these two possibilities? A) I B) II C) II or III D) IV E) either II or IV Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, S V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 15.1 Section: 15.1

2) Use the following information to answer the question below. The herpes viruses are important enveloped DNA viruses that cause disease in vertebrates and in some invertebrates, such as oysters. Some of the human forms are herpes simplex virus (HSV) types I and II, causing facial and genital lesions, and the varicella zoster virus (VZV), causing chicken pox and shingles. Each of these three actively infects nervous tissue. Primary infections are fairly mild, but the virus is not then cleared from the host; rather, viral genomes are maintained in cells in a latent phase. The virus can later reactivate, replicate again, and infect others. In electron micrographs of HSV infection, it can be seen that the intact virus initially reacts with cell surface proteoglycans, then with specific receptors. This is later followed by viral capsids docking with nuclear pores. Afterward, the capsids go from being full to being "empty." Which of the following best fits these observations? A) Viral capsids are needed for the cell to become infected; only the capsids enter the nucleus. B) The viral envelope is not required for infectivity, since the envelope does not enter the nucleus. C) Only the genetic material of the virus is involved in the cell's infectivity and is injected like the genome of a phage. D) The viral envelope mediates entry into the cell, the capsid mediates entry into the nuclear membrane, and the genome is all that enters the nucleus. E) The viral capsid mediates entry into the cell, and only the genomic DNA enters the nucleus, where it may or may not replicate. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, S V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 15.1 Section: 15.1 3) Which of the following characteristics, structures, or processes is common to bacteria and viruses? A) Metabolism B) Ribosomes C) Genetic material composed of nucleic acid D) Cell division E) Independent existence Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.1 Section: 15.1

4) A bacterium is infected with an experimentally constructed bacteriophage composed of the T2 phage protein coat and T4 phage DNA. The new phages produced would have ________. A) T2 protein and T4 DNA B) T2 protein and T2 DNA C) T4 protein and T4 DNA D) T4 protein and T2 DNA Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, S V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 15.1 Section: 15.1 5) Viruses ________. A) manufacture their own ATP, proteins, and nucleic acids B) use the host cell to copy themselves and make viral proteins C) use the host cell to copy themselves and then synthesize their own proteins D) metabolize food and produce their own ATP Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 15.1 Section: 15.1 6) In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts? A) DNA contains sulfur, whereas protein does not. B) DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein does not. C) DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not. D) DNA contains purines, whereas protein includes pyrimidines. E) RNA includes ribose, whereas DNA includes deoxyribose sugars. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.1 Section: 15.1

7) In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA, which of the following will be found? A) A = C B) A = G and C = T C) A + C = G + T D) G + C = T + A Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 15.1 Section: 15.1 8) For a science fair project, two students decided to repeat the Hershey and Chase experiment, with modifications. They decided to label the nitrogenous base of the DNA, rather than the phosphate. They reasoned that each nucleotide has only one phosphate and two to five nitrogenous bases. Thus, labeling the nitrogenous bases would provide a stronger signal than labeling the phosphates. Why won't this experiment work? A) There is no radioactive isotope of nitrogen. B) Radioactive nitrogen has a half-life of 100,000 years, and the material would be too dangerous for too long. C) Although there are more nitrogenous bases in a nucleotide, labeled phosphates actually have 16 extra neutrons; therefore, they are more radioactive. D) Amino acids (and thus proteins) also have nitrogen atoms; thus, the radioactivity would not distinguish between DNA and proteins. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 15.1 Section: 15.1 9) In analyzing the number of different bases in a DNA sample, which result would be consistent with the base-pairing rules? A) A = G B) A + G = C + T C) A + T = G + T D) A = C E) G = T Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 15.1 Section: 15.1

10) Of the following, which is the most current description of a gene? A) A unit of heredity that causes formation of a phenotypic characteristic B) A DNA subunit that codes for a single complete protein C) A DNA sequence that is expressed to form a functional product: either RNA or polypeptide D) A DNA—RNA sequence combination that results in an enzymatic product E) A discrete unit of hereditary information that consists of a sequence of amino acids Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 15.1 Section: 15.1 11) In the polymerization of DNA, a phosphodiester bond is formed between a phosphate group of the nucleotide being added and ________ of the last nucleotide in the polymer. A) the 5' phosphate B) C6 C) the 3' OH D) a nitrogen from the nitrogen-containing base Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.1 Section: 15.1 12) Within a double-stranded DNA molecule, adenine forms hydrogen bonds with thymine and cytosine forms hydrogen bonds with guanine. This arrangement ________. A) allows variable width of the double helix B) permits complementary base pairing C) determines the tertiary structure of a DNA molecule D) determines the type of protein produced Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.1 Section: 15.1

13) Who performed classic experiments that supported the semiconservative model of DNA replication? A) Watson and Crick B) Meselson and Stahl C) Hershey and Chase D) Franklin and Wilkins Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 15.2 Section: 15.2 14) Semiconservative replication involves a template. What is the template? A) Single-stranded binding proteins B) DNA polymerase C) One strand of the DNA molecule D) An RNA molecule Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 15.2 Section: 15.2 15) DNA is synthesized through a process known as ________. A) semiconservative replication B) conservative replication C) translation D) transcription Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 15.2 Section: 15.2

16) Suppose you are provided with an actively dividing culture of E. coli bacteria to which radioactive thymine has been added. What would happen if a cell replicates once in the presence of this radioactive base? A) One of the daughter cells, but not the other, would have radioactive DNA. B) Neither of the two daughter cells would be radioactive. C) All four bases of the DNA would be radioactive. D) Radioactive thymine would pair with nonradioactive guanine. E) DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 15.2 Section: 15.2 17) E. coli cells grown on 15N medium are transferred to 14N medium and allowed to grow for two more generations (two rounds of DNA replication). DNA extracted from these cells is centrifuged. What density distribution of DNA would you expect in this experiment? A) One high-density and one low-density band B) One intermediate-density band C) One high-density and one intermediate-density band D) One low-density and one intermediate-density band E) One low-density band Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 15.2 Section: 15.2 18) What conclusion could be drawn from Meselson and Stahl's DNA replication experiment after a single round of DNA replication? A) DNA replication is not conservative. B) DNA replication is either conservative or semiconservative. C) DNA replication is semiconservative. D) DNA replication is not dispersive. E) DNA replication is either dispersive or conservative. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 15.2 Section: 15.2

19) The primary difference between conservative and semiconservative DNA replication models is that ________. A) daughter strands are parallel to their templates in the conservative model and antiparallel to their templates in the semiconservative model B) DNA is fragmented prior to replication in the semiconservative model but left intact in the conservative model C) accurate complementary base pairing is required in the semiconservative model but not in the conservative model D) parental strands are reunited in the conservative model but remain with newly synthesized daughter strands in the semiconservative model Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.2 Section: 15.2 20) DNA contains the template needed to copy itself, but it has no catalytic activity in cells. What catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides in the DNA polymer being formed? A) Ribozymes B) DNA polymerase C) ATP D) Deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.3 Section: 15.3

21)

Refer to the figure. Which structure is responsible for stabilizing DNA in its single-stranded form? A) A B) F C) E D) G Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.3 Section: 15.3 22) What provides the energy for the polymerization reactions in DNA synthesis? A) ATP B) DNA polymerase C) Breaking the hydrogen bonds between complementary DNA strands D) The deoxyribonucleotide triphosphate substrates Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.3 Section: 15.3

23)

Refer to the figure. What bases will be added to the primer as DNA replication proceeds? The bases should appear in the new strand in the order that they will be added starting at the 3' end of the primer. A) C, A, G, C, A, G, A B) T, C, T, G, C, T, G C) A, G, A, C, G, A, C D) G, T, C, G, T, C, T Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 15.3 Section: 15.3 24)

Identify the lagging strand during duplication of DNA starting from a double helix in the figure. A) a B) b C) c D) d Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.3 Section: 15.3

25) Put the following steps of DNA replication in chronological order. 1. Single-stranded binding proteins attach to DNA strands. 2. Hydrogen bonds between base pairs of antiparallel strands are broken. 3. Primase binds to the site of origin. 4. DNA polymerase binds to the template strand. 5. An RNA primer is created. A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 C) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 D) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.3 Section: 15.3 26)

In the accompanying figure, which is the template strand? A) a B) b C) c D) d Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.3 Section: 15.3

27) What is a major difference between eukaryotic DNA replication and prokaryotic DNA replication? A) Prokaryotic replication does not require a primer. B) Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes have multiple origins of replication. C) DNA replication in prokaryotic cells is conservative. DNA replication in eukaryotic cells is semiconservative. D) DNA polymerases of prokaryotes can add nucleotides to both 3' and 5' ends of DNA strands; those of eukaryotes function only in the 5' → 3' direction. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.3 Section: 15.3 28)

In the figure, which structure causes the two strands of DNA to separate? A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.3 Section: 15.3 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

29) At a specific area of a chromosome, the following sequence of nucleotides is present where the chain opens to form a replication fork: 3' C C T A G G C T G C A A T C C 5' An RNA primer is formed starting at the underlined T (T) of the template. Which of the following represents the primer sequence? A) 5' G C C T A G G 3' B) 3' G C C T A G G 5' C) 5' A C G T T A G G 3' D) 5' A C G U U A G G 3' E) 5' G C C U A G G 3' Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 15.3 Section: 15.3 30) In E. coli, what is the function of DNA polymerase III? A) To unwind the DNA helix during replication B) To seal together the broken ends of DNA strands C) To add nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing DNA strand D) To degrade damaged DNA molecules E) To rejoin the two DNA strands (one new and one old) after replication Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.3 Section: 15.3 31) The leading and the lagging strands differ in that ________. A) the leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction B) the leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand, and the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5' end C) the lagging strand is synthesized continuously, whereas the leading strand is synthesized in short fragments that are ultimately stitched together D) the leading strand is synthesized at twice the rate of the lagging strand Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.3 Section: 15.3 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) What is the role of DNA ligase in the elongation of the lagging strand during DNA replication? A) It synthesizes RNA nucleotides to make a primer. B) It catalyzes the lengthening of telomeres. C) It joins Okazaki fragments together. D) It unwinds the parental double helix. E) It stabilizes the unwound parental DNA. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.3 Section: 15.3 33) Which of the following help(s) to hold the DNA strands apart while they are being replicated? A) Primase B) Ligase C) DNA polymerase D) Single-strand DNA binding proteins E) Nuclease Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.3 Section: 15.3 34) Eukaryotic telomeres replicate differently than the rest of the chromosome. This is a consequence of which of the following? A) The evolution of telomerase enzyme B) DNA polymerase that cannot replicate the leading strand template to its 5' end C) Gaps left at the 5' end of the lagging strand D) Gaps left at the 3' end of the lagging strand because of the need for a primer E) The "no ends" of a circular chromosome Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.4 Section: 15.4

35) How does the enzyme telomerase meet the challenge of replicating the ends of linear chromosomes? A) It adds a single 5' cap structure that resists degradation by nucleases. B) It causes specific double-strand DNA breaks that result in blunt ends on both strands. C) It causes linear ends of the newly replicated DNA to circularize. D) It catalyzes the lengthening of telomeres, compensating for the shortening that could occur during replication without telomerase activity. E) It adds numerous GC pairs, which resist hydrolysis and maintain chromosome integrity. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.4 Section: 15.4 36) The DNA of telomeres has been highly conserved throughout the evolution of eukaryotes. This most likely reflects ________. A) the inactivity of this region of DNA B) the low frequency of mutations occurring in this DNA C) continued evolution of telomeres D) that new mutations in telomeres have been advantageous E) the critical function of telomeres Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.4 Section: 15.4 37) Which of the following would you expect of a eukaryote lacking telomerase? A) A high probability of somatic cells becoming cancerous B) An inability to produce Okazaki fragments C) An inability to repair thymine dimers D) A reduction in chromosome length in gametes E) High sensitivity to sunlight Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.4 Section: 15.4

38) What is a telomere? A) The mechanism that holds two sister chromatids together B) DNA replication during telophase C) The site of origin of DNA replication D) The ends of linear chromosomes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.4 Section: 15.4 39) Telomere shortening puts a limit on the number of times a cell can divide. Research has shown that telomerase can extend the life span of cultured human cells. How might adding telomerase affect cellular aging? A) Telomerase will speed up the rate of cell proliferation. B) Telomerase eliminates telomere shortening and retards aging. C) Telomerase shortens telomeres, which delays cellular aging. D) Telomerase would have no effect on cellular aging. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 15.4 Section: 15.4 40) Which of the following cell types is likely to demonstrate the lowest level of telomerase activity? A) Somatic cells B) Germ cells C) Cancer cells D) Somatic cells, germ cells, and cancer cells are likely to demonstrate identical levels of telomerase activity. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.4 Section: 15.4

41) Telomere shortening is a problem in which types of cells? A) Only prokaryotic cells B) Only eukaryotic cells C) Cells in prokaryotes and eukaryotes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.4 Section: 15.4 42) What appears to be a negative role of telomerase activity with regard to human health? A) Telomerase is active in most cancer cells. B) Telomerase is inhibited by p53. C) p53 inhibits telomerase. D) There are more chromosomal ends than can be repaired by telomerase. E) Telomerase activity is only seen in somatic cells; therefore, chromosome shortening is likely in gametic chromosomes. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 15.4 Section: 15.4 43) DNA replication is highly accurate. It results in about one mistake per billion nucleotides. For the human genome, how often would errors occur? A) On average, once or twice in the lifetime of an individual B) On average, six times each time the entire genome of a cell is replicated C) On average, once every six cell divisions D) On average, once in a lifetime in 10 percent of the population Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, SS LO: 15.5 Section: 15.5

44) In a healthy cell, the rate of DNA repair is equal to the rate of DNA mutation. When the rate of repair lags behind the rate of mutation, what is a possible fate of the cell? A) The cell can be transformed to a cancerous cell. B) RNA may be used instead of DNA as inheritance material. C) The cell will become embryonic. D) DNA synthesis will continue by a new mechanism. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 15.5 Section: 15.5 45) Researchers found E. coli that had mutation rates 100 times higher than normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these results? A) The single-stranded binding proteins were malfunctioning. B) There were one or more mismatches in the RNA primer. C) The proofreading mechanism of DNA polymerase was not working properly. D) The DNA polymerase was unable to add bases to the 3' end of the growing nucleic acid chain. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.5 Section: 15.5 46) The epsilon (ε) subunit of DNA polymerase III of E. coli has exonuclease activity. How does it function in the proofreading process? The epsilon subunit ________. A) removes a mismatched nucleotide B) excises a segment of DNA around the mismatched base C) can recognize which strand is the template or parent strand and which is the new strand of DNA D) adds nucleotide triphosphates to the 3' end of the growing DNA strand Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 15.5 Section: 15.5

47) Recent studies have shown that xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) (an error in the nucleotide excision repair process) can result from mutations in one of seven genes. What can you infer from this finding? A) There are seven genes that produce the same protein. B) These seven genes are the most easily damaged by ultraviolet light. C) There are several proteins involved in the nucleotide excision repair process. D) These mutations have resulted from translocation of gene segments. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 15.5 Section: 15.5 48) In humans, XP is a disorder of the nucleotide excision repair mechanism. These individuals are unable to repair DNA damage caused by ultraviolet light. Which of the following are the most prominent types of DNA lesions in individuals suffering from XP? A) Mismatch errors B) Telomere shortening C) Methylation of purines D) Thymine dimers Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 15.5 Section: 15.5 49) Which one of the following is LEAST likely to cause mutations in DNA? A) Benzopyrenes from cigarette smoke B) Hydroxyl radicals formed as by-products of aerobic respiration C) Ultraviolet radiation from sunlight D) Light from an incandescent bulb Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, S V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 15.5 Section: 15.5

50) Which of the following would be LEAST likely to cause DNA damage to an individual suffering from XP? A) Direct sunlight B) Tanning beds C) Incandescent lightbulbs D) Reflected sunlight Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, EM V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 15.5 Section: 15.5 51) Given the damage caused by UV radiation, the kind of gene affected in those with XP is one whose product is involved with ________. A) mending of double-strand breaks in the DNA backbone B) breakage of cross-strand covalent bonds C) the ability to excise single-strand damage and replace it D) the removal of double-strand damaged areas E) causing affected skin cells to undergo apoptosis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 15.5 Section: 15.5 52) Significant increases in the occurrences of cancer can be found in individuals ________. A) with xeroderma pigmentosa B) lacking complete mismatch repair systems C) possessing proofreading capability D) possessing proofreading capability but lacking complete mismatch repair systems E) with xeroderma pigmentosa or lacking complete mismatch repair systems Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 15.5 Section: 15.5

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 16 How Genes Work 1) Which of the following contradicts the one-gene, one-enzyme hypothesis? A) A mutation in a single gene can result in a defective protein. B) Alkaptonuria results when individuals lack a single enzyme involved in the catalysis of homogentisic acid. C) Sickle cell anemia results in defective hemoglobin. D) A single antibody gene can code for different related proteins, depending on the splicing that takes place posttranscriptionally. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.1 Section: 16.1 2) Beadle and Tatum discovered that metabolic pathways are studied most effectively using which of the following techniques? A) Using multiple gene mutations resulting in nonfunctional enzymes specific to a metabolic pathway B) Adding intermediates to a metabolic pathway C) Removing all intermediates of a metabolic pathway D) Using single gene mutations resulting in nonfunctional enzymes specific to a metabolic pathway Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.1 Section: 16.1

Refer to the figure. A branched metabolic pathway synthesizes two related amino acids (D and F). If there is a genetic defect, resulting in a nonfunctional enzyme (3), how could you ensure that adequate amounts of the amino acid F are synthesized? A) Supplement intermediate B B) Supplement intermediate C C) Add enzyme 2 to the medium D) Supplement with intermediate E Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 16.1 Section: 16.1 4) Medium with: Medium with: Medium with: Medium with: No ornithine Ornithine No ornithine No ornithine No citrulline No citrulline Citrulline No citrulline Mutant Strain No arginine No arginine No arginine Arginine arg1 No growth GROWTH GROWTH GROWTH arg2 No growth No growth GROWTH GROWTH arg3 No growth No growth No growth GROWTH

According to the table and the figure, which enzyme is defective in the strain with the arg2 mutation? A) The enzyme that converts the precursor to ornithine B) The enzyme that converts ornithine to citrulline C) The enzyme that converts citrulline to arginine D) The enzyme that converts the precursor to citrulline Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 16.1 Section: 16.1 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Knockout mice have been genetically altered to knock out specific genes. How are these mice most often used in research? A) To study DNA replication in the defective genes (those that have been altered) B) To determine the role of proteins coded for by those genes that are knocked out C) To examine defects in DNA structure in those regions that have been altered D) To study the effect of radiation on DNA Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.2 Section: 16.1 6)

Refer to the figure. In the branched metabolic pathway indicated in the figure, if enzyme 3 is defective and the amount of each enzyme is constant, you might expect to see an increase in the amount of which intermediate or product? A) E B) B C) F D) D Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 16.1 Section: 16.1

7) The proteome is all the proteins produced by an organism. The genome is the totality of all genes of an organism. If the proteome is much larger than the genome, which of the following statements would be accurate? A) This finding lends support to a one-gene, two-enzyme hypothesis. B) The number of monomeric subunits found in proteins is fewer than the number of monomeric subunits found in genes. C) At least in some cases, a single gene must code for more than one protein. D) Noncoding DNA is important in determining the proteome. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 16.1 Section: 16.1 8)

Refer to the metabolic pathway illustrated in the figure. If A, B, and C are all required for growth, a strain mutant for the gene encoding enzyme B would be able to grow on medium supplemented with ________. A) nutrient A only B) nutrient B only C) nutrient C only D) nutrients A and C Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 16.1 Section: 16.1 9) In the Morse code, a series of dots and dashes code for letters of the alphabet. How is this analogous to the genetic code? A) There is complementarity in the genetic code (A is complementary to T, and C is complementary to G). B) The bases that make up DNA are coded by the sugar-phosphate backbone. C) The machinery involved in DNA synthesis is analogous to the telegraph equipment used in sending Morse code. D) The bases of DNA code for the more complex amino acid sequence of the proteins in cells. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.3 Section: 16.2 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) Which of the following is NOT synthesized from a DNA template? A) Messenger RNA B) Amino acids C) Transfer RNA D) Ribosomal RNA Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.2 Section: 16.2 11) In the process of transcription, ________. A) DNA is replicated B) RNA is synthesized C) proteins are synthesized D) mRNA attaches to ribosomes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.2 Section: 16.2

12)

Given the DNA template shown in the figure, which of the following bases would you find in a complementary RNA strand and where would they be synthesized? A) A-A-A-A-A; nucleus B) U-U-U-U-U; nucleus C) A-A-A-A-A; ribosome D) U-U-U-U-U; ribosome Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 16.2 Section: 16.2 13) In the first step of their experiments, Jacob and Monod treated E. coli cells with ultraviolet light or X-rays to ________. A) decrease the rate of gene expression B) induce DNA repair enzymes C) increase the frequency of mutations in all genes D) selectively mutate specific genes, leaving all other genes unmutated Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.3 Section: 16.2

14) All three domains (Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya) utilize the same genetic code. Therefore, which of the following statements would most likely be correct? A) The genetic code evolved three times. B) The genetic code evolved before DNA replaced RNA as the unit of genetic information. C) There were no mutations following the evolution of the genetic code. D) The genetic code evolved before the different domains diverged. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.3 Section: 16.2 15) Genotype is to ________ as phenotype is to ________. A) DNA base sequence; physical traits that are products of the proteins produced B) heredity; DNA base sequence C) gene regulation; translation D) transcription; amino acid sequence Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.2 Section: 16.2 16) Which of the following is an exception to the central dogma? A) The discovery of RNA viruses that synthesize DNA using reverse transcriptase B) The discovery that the Archaea and Bacteria are more distantly related than are Archaea and Eukarya C) The discovery of ribozymes D) The discovery of DNA as the unit of genetic inheritance Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.2 Section: 16.2

17) The statement "DNA → RNA → Proteins" ________. A) is known as the central dogma B) depicts the regulation of gene expression C) is the same in all organisms, as well as viruses and prions D) describes a series of catalytic reactions Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.2 Section: 16.2 18) HIV, the causative agent of AIDS, is a retrovirus. A retrovirus ________. A) uses DNA as a template in the process of translation B) makes proteins directly from RNA C) uses reverse transcriptase to make DNA from RNA D) is a cellular virus that uses ribosomes to reproduce inside a living cell Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.2 Section: 16.2 19) Once researchers identified DNA as the unit of inheritance, they asked how information was transferred from the DNA in the nucleus to the site of protein synthesis in the cytoplasm. What is the mechanism of information transfer in eukaryotes? A) DNA from a single gene is replicated and transferred to the cytoplasm, where it serves as a template for protein synthesis. B) Messenger RNA is transcribed from a single gene and transfers information from the DNA in the nucleus to the cytoplasm, where protein synthesis takes place. C) Proteins transfer information from the nucleus to the ribosome, where protein synthesis takes place. D) Transfer RNA takes information from DNA directly to a ribosome, where protein synthesis takes place. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.2 Section: 16.2

20) According to the central dogma, what molecule should go in the blank? DNA → ________ → Proteins A) mtDNA B) rRNA C) mRNA D) tRNA Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.2 Section: 16.2 21) How does the simple primary and secondary structure of DNA hold the information needed to code for the many features of multicellular organisms? A) The hydrogen bonding among backbone constituents carries coded information. B) The base sequence of DNA carries the information needed to code for proteins. C) The width of the double helix changes at each gene due to differences in hydrogen bonds. D) The amino acids that make up the DNA molecule contain the information needed to make cellular proteins. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.2 Section: 16.2 22) Use this representation to answer the following question.

Given the locally unwound double strand above, in which direction does the RNA polymerase move while transcribing DNA? A) 3' → 5' along the template DNA strand B) 5' → 3' along the template DNA strand C) 3' → 5' along the nontemplate DNA strand D) 5' → 3' along the nontemplate DNA strand E) 5' → 3' along the double-stranded DNA Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.2 Section: 16.2 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

23) What does it mean when we say the genetic code is redundant? A) A single codon can specify the addition of more than one amino acid. B) The genetic code is different for different domains of organisms. C) The genetic code is universal (the same for all organisms). D) More than one codon can specify the addition of the same amino acid. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.3 Section: 16.3 24) A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA is 5' AGT 3'. The corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed is ________. A) 3' UCA 5' B) 3' UGS 5' C) 5' TCA 3' D) 3' ACU 5' E) either UCA or TCA, depending on wobble in the first base Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.3 Section: 16.3 25) Which of the following nucleotide triplets best represents a codon? A) A triplet separated spatially from other triplets B) A triplet in the middle of a ribosomal RNA molecule C) A triplet at the opposite end of tRNA from the attachment site of the amino acid D) A triplet in the same reading frame as an upstream AUG E) A sequence in tRNA at the 3' end Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.3 Section: 16.3

26) The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume which of the following? A) A gene from an organism can theoretically be expressed by any other organism. B) All organisms have experienced convergent evolution. C) DNA was the first genetic material. D) The same codons in different organisms translate into different amino acids. E) Different organisms have different types of amino acids. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.3 Section: 16.3 27) The "universal" genetic code is now known to have exceptions. Evidence for this can be found if which of the following is TRUE? A) If UGA, usually a stop codon, is found to code for an amino acid such as tryptophan (usually coded for by UGG only) in a different organism B) If one stop codon, such as UGA, is found to have a different effect on translation than another stop codon, such as UAA C) If prokaryotic organisms are able to translate a eukaryotic mRNA and produce the same polypeptide D) If several codons are found to translate to the same amino acid, such as serine E) If a single mRNA molecule is found to translate to more than one polypeptide when there are two or more AUG sites Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.3 Section: 16.3 28) Which of the following is directly related to a single amino acid? A) The base sequence of the tRNA B) The type of RNA polymerase used to carry out transcription C) The three-base sequence of mRNA D) The complementarity of DNA and RNA Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.3 Section: 16.3

29) Codons are part of the molecular structure of ________. A) a protein B) mRNA C) tRNA D) rRNA Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.3 Section: 16.3 30) Which of the following observations may have resulted in the hypothesis that a codon is made up of three bases? A) A codon of two bases in length, from four different bases, would code for a maximum of thirty-two different amino acids. B) A codon of three bases in length, from four different bases, would code for a maximum of twelve different amino acids. C) A codon of four bases in length, from four different bases, would code for a maximum of twenty-four different amino acids. D) A codon of three bases in length, from four different bases, would code for a maximum of sixty-four different amino acids. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.3 Section: 16.3

31) Refer to the figure above. Consider the following section of mRNA: UCUGAUGGGCUUU… Beginning with the start codon, which amino acids, in order, are coded for by this section of mRNA? Consult the codon table if necessary. A) Serine, aspartic acid, glycine, and leucine B) Methionine, glycine, and phenylalanine C) Methionine, valine, glycine, and phenylalanine D) Threonine, methionine, and glycine Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.3 Section: 16.3

The following question(s) refer to this table of codons.

32) A possible sequence of nucleotides in the template strand of DNA that would code for the polypeptide sequence Phe-Leu-Ile-Val would be ________. A) 5' TTG-CTA-CAG-TAG 3' B) 3' AAC-GAC-GUC-AUA 5' C) 5' AUG-CTG-CAG-TAT 3' D) 3' AAA-AAT-ATA-ACA 5' E) 3' AAA-GAA-TAA-CAA 5' Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.3 Section: 16.3

33) What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the following mRNA codon sequence? 5' AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG 3' A) Met-Arg-Glu-Arg-Glu-Arg B) Met-Glu-Arg-Arg-Glu-Leu C) Met-Ser-Leu-Ser-Leu-Ser D) Met-Ser-Ser-Leu-Ser-Leu E) Met-Leu-Phe-Arg-Glu-Glu Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.3 Section: 16.3 34) A peptide has the sequence NH2-Phe-Pro-Lys-Gly-Phe-Pro-COOH. Which of the following sequences in the coding strand of the DNA could code for this peptide? A) 3' UUU-CCC-AAA-GGG-UUU-CCC B) 3' AUG-AAA-GGG-TTT-CCC-AAA-GGG C) 5' TTT-CCC-AAA-GGG-TTT-CCC D) 5' GGG-AAA-TTT-AAA-CCC-ACT-GGG E) 5' ACT-TAC-CAT-AAA-CAT-TAC-UGA Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.3 Section: 16.3 35) Which one of the following is TRUE? A codon ________. A) consists of four nucleotides B) can code for up to four different amino acids C) extends from one end of a tRNA molecule D) is the basic unit of the genetic code Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.3 Section: 16.3

36) Point mutations are referred to as missense, silent, frameshift, or nonsense when they change the protein-coding potential of a gene. What is another group of mutations that may have important consequences for gene expression? A) Mutations that exist outside coding sequences B) Combinations of missense and silent mutations C) Combinations of nonsense and silent mutations D) Mutations that alter the amino acid sequence of a gene E) Mutations that shift the reading frame of a gene Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.4 Section: 16.4 37) The mutation resulting in sickle cell disease changes one base pair of DNA so that a codon now codes for a different amino acid, making it an example of a ________. A) nonsense mutation B) frameshift mutation C) silent mutation D) missense mutation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 16.4 Section: 16.4 38) A mutation that results in premature termination of translation ________. A) is a silent mutation B) is a nonsense mutation C) usually has no effect on the function of the protein D) is a missense mutation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.4 Section: 16.4

39) Why might a point mutation in DNA make a difference in the level of a protein's activity? A) It might result in a chromosomal translocation. B) It might exchange one stop codon for another stop codon. C) It might delay the rate of DNA replication. D) It might substitute a different amino acid in the active site. E) It might substitute the N-terminus of the polypeptide for the C-terminus. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.4 Section: 16.4 40) Which of the following types of mutation, resulting in an error in the mRNA just after the AUG start of translation, is likely to have the most serious effect on the polypeptide product? A) A deletion of a codon B) A deletion of two nucleotides C) A substitution of the third nucleotide in an ACC codon D) A substitution of the first nucleotide of a GGG codon E) An insertion of a codon Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.4 Section: 16.4 41) A nonsense mutation in a gene ________. A) changes an amino acid in the encoded protein B) has no effect on the amino acid sequence of the encoded protein C) introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA D) alters the reading frame of the mRNA E) prevents introns from being excised Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.4 Section: 16.4

42) Which of the following mutations is likely to cause the most dramatic phenotypic change? A) A duplication of all or most introns B) A large inversion whose ends are each in the same region between genes C) A nucleotide substitution in an exon coding for a transmembrane domain D) A single nucleotide deletion in an exon coding for an active site E) A frameshift mutation one codon away from the 3' end of the nontemplate strand Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.4 Section: 16.4 43) A frameshift mutation could result from ________. A) a base insertion only B) a base deletion only C) a base substitution only D) deletion of three consecutive bases E) either an insertion or a deletion of a base Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.4 Section: 16.4 44) Which of the following DNA mutations is most likely to damage the protein it specifies? A) A base-pair deletion B) An addition of three nucleotides C) A substitution in the last base of a codon D) A codon deletion Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.4 Section: 16.4

45) Which small-scale mutation would be most likely to have a catastrophic effect on the functioning of a protein? A) A base substitution B) A base deletion near the start of a gene C) A base deletion near the end of the coding sequence, but not in the terminator codon D) Deletion of three bases near the start of the coding sequence, but not in the initiator codon E) A base insertion near the end of the coding sequence, but not in the terminator codon Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.4 Section: 16.4 46) The most commonly occurring mutation in people with cystic fibrosis is a deletion of a single codon. This results in ________. A) a base-pair substitution B) a nucleotide mismatch C) a frameshift mutation D) a polypeptide missing an amino acid E) a nonsense mutation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 16.4 Section: 16.4 47) Which of the following mutations would be most likely to have a harmful effect on an organism? A) A nucleotide-pair substitution B) A deletion of three nucleotides near the middle of a gene C) A single nucleotide deletion in the middle of an intron D) A single nucleotide deletion near the end of the coding sequence E) A single nucleotide insertion downstream of, and close to, the start of the coding sequence Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.4 Section: 16.4

48)

The figure shows a diagram of blocks of genes on human chromosome 16 and the locations of blocks of similar genes on four chromosomes of the mouse. The movement of these blocks suggests that ________. A) during evolutionary time, these sequences have separated and have returned to their original positions B) DNA sequences within these blocks have become increasingly divergent C) sequences represented have duplicated at least three times D) chromosomal translocations have moved blocks of sequences to other chromosomes E) higher mammals have more convergence of gene sequences related in function Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 16.4 Section: 16.4

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 17 Transcription, RNA Processing, and Translation 1) In eukaryotes, there are several different types of RNA polymerases. Which type is involved in transcription of mRNA for a globin protein? A) RNA polymerase I B) RNA polymerase II C) RNA polymerase III D) RNA polymerase IV E) Primase Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.1 Section: 17.1 2) Which molecule or reaction supplies the energy for polymerization of nucleotides in the process of transcription? A) The interaction between RNA polymerase and the promoter B) The phosphate bonds in the nucleotide triphosphates that serve as substrates C) The energy released when hydrogen bonds are broken as the DNA molecule is unwound D) ATP only Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.1 Section: 17.1 3) Death cap mushrooms produce a substance called alpha-amanitin. Alpha-amanitin efficiently blocks synthesis of mRNA, but not of tRNA or rRNA, in eukaryotic organisms. This is possible because alpha-amanitin efficiently interferes with ________. A) the action of RNA polymerase I, but not RNA polymerase II or III B) RNA polymerase III, but not RNA polymerase I and II C) the action of RNA polymerases I and II, but not RNA polymerase III D) the action of RNA polymerase II, but not RNA polymerase I or III Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.1 Section: 17.1

4) You want to engineer a eukaryotic gene into a bacterial colony so the bacteria express the gene. What must be included in addition to the coding exons of the gene? A) The introns B) Eukaryotic polymerases C) A bacterial promoter sequence D) Eukaryotic ribosomal subunits E) Eukaryotic tRNAs Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 17.1 Section: 17.1 5) In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until ________. A) the two DNA strands have completely separated and exposed the promoter B) several transcription factors have bound to the promoter C) the 5' caps are removed from the mRNA D) the DNA introns are removed from the template E) DNA nucleases have isolated the transcription unit Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.1 Section: 17.1

The enzyme complex associated with DNA in the associated figure is ________. A) helicase B) DNA polymerase C) RNA polymerase D) topoisomerase Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.1 Section: 17.1 7) In E. coli, if RNA polymerase is missing ________, then transcription initiation would not occur at the appropriate initiation sites. A) amino acids B) mRNA C) sigma D) the core enzyme Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.1 Section: 17.1

8) David Pribnow studied the base sequences of promoters in bacteria and bacterial viruses. He found two conserved regions in these promoters (the −10 box and the −35 box). These two regions of the promoter ________. A) signal the initiation site B) bind the sigma subunit that is associated with RNA polymerase C) attach the correct nucleotide triphosphate to the template DNA strand D) separate the two DNA strands Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.1 Section: 17.1 9) Which of the following processes is central to the initiation of transcription in bacteria? A) Binding of sigma to the promoter region B) Formation of a phosphodiester bond in the elongating RNA strand C) Binding of DNA polymerase to the promoter region D) Formation of a DNA primer Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.1 Section: 17.1 10) Termination of transcription in bacteria occurs when ________. A) a hairpin secondary structure forms in the RNA transcript, and it separates from the RNA polymerase B) a deoxyribonucleotide is base-paired to the 3' end of the transcript, signaling completion C) large and small subunits of the RNA polymerase dissociate D) the 5' cap structure on the nascent (new) RNA molecule loops back and interferes with RNA polymerase Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.1 Section: 17.1

11) During elongation, RNA polymerase has three prominent channels, or grooves. These channels provide sites for all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) a site for the double-stranded DNA molecule B) a site for the entry of ribonucleoside triphosphates C) a site for the exit of diphosphates removed from the nucleotide triphosphates D) a site for the growing RNA strand Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.1 Section: 17.1 12) Eukaryotes have three nuclear RNA polymerases. The primary function of RNA polymerase II is transcription of ________. A) only rRNA-coding genes B) only tRNA-coding genes C) both rRNA- and tRNA-coding genes D) protein-coding genes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.1 Section: 17.1 13) Put the following events of bacterial transcription in chronological order. 1. Sigma binds to the promoter region. 2. The double helix of DNA is unwound, breaking hydrogen bonds between complementary strands. 3. Sigma binds to RNA polymerase. 4. Sigma is released. 5. Transcription begins. A) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 B) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 C) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4 D) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 17.1 Section: 17.1

14) How are RNA hairpin turns related to transcriptional termination in E. coli? A) The turns are formed from complementary base pairing and cause separation of the RNA transcript and RNA polymerase. B) A three-base repeat signals a stop sequence, and the RNA transcript is released. C) Release factors bind to sites on the hairpin turn, causing release of the RNA transcript. D) The hairpin turn prevents more nucleoside triphosphates from entering the active site of the enzymes, effectively shutting off the process of polymerization. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.1 Section: 17.1 15) What is responsible for termination of transcription in eukaryotic protein-coding genes? A) A polyadenylation, or poly (A), signal B) A termination loop composed of guanine C) A sigma factor D) A portion of the polymerase holoenzyme E) Three nonsense mutations in sequence Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.1 Section: 17.1 16) Which one of the following statements about RNA processing is TRUE? A) Exons are cut out before mRNA leaves the nucleus. B) Ribozymes may function in RNA splicing. C) RNA splicing can be catalyzed by tRNA. D) A primary transcript is often much shorter than the final RNA molecule that leaves the nucleus. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.2 Section: 17.2

17) A ribozyme is ________. A) a catalyst that uses RNA as a substrate B) an RNA with catalytic activity C) an enzyme that catalyzes the association between the large and small ribosomal subunits D) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA as part of the transcription process E) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA primers during DNA replication Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.2 Section: 17.2 18) In an experimental situation, a student researcher inserts an mRNA molecule into the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell after she has removed its 5' cap and poly-A tail. Which of the following would you expect her to find? A) The mRNA is quickly converted into a ribosomal subunit. B) The cell adds a new poly-A tail to the mRNA. C) The mRNA attaches to a ribosome and is translated, but more slowly. D) The molecule is digested by enzymes because it is not protected at the 5' end. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 17.2 Section: 17.2 Use this model of a eukaryotic transcript to answer the following question(s).

19) Which components of the previous molecule will also be found in mRNA in the cytosol? A) 5' UTR I1 I2 I3 UTR 3' B) 5' E1 E2 E3 E4 3' C) 5' UTR E1 E2 E3 E4 UTR 3' D) 5' I1 I2 I3 3' E) 5' E1 I1 E2 I2 E3 I3 E4 3' Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 17.2 Section: 17.2

20) When the spliceosome binds to the transcript shown above, it can attach ________. A) to the exons B) to the 5' UTR C) to the 3' UTR D) at certain sites along an intron Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 17.2 Section: 17.2 21) Suppose that an induced mutation removes most of the 5' end of the 5' UTR of an mRNA. What is most likely to happen? A) Removal of the 5' UTR will have no effect because the exons are still maintained. B) Removal of the 5' UTR also removes the 5' cap and the mRNA will quickly degrade. C) The 3' UTR will duplicate and one copy will replace the 5' end. D) The first exon will not be read because I1 will now serve as the UTR. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 17.2 Section: 17.2 22)

Refer to the figure. The mRNA is smaller than the length of the DNA that codes for it because ________. A) the regulatory regions (exons) of the gene are not transcribed B) posttranscriptional modification removes the introns C) posttranscriptional modification removes the exons D) bases are added to the tail of the primary transcript Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.2 Section: 17.2 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

23) As scientists were unraveling the mysteries associated with transcription and translation in eukaryotes, they discovered there was not a one-to-one correspondence between the nucleotide sequence of a gene and the base sequence of the mRNA it codes for. They proposed the genesinpieces hypothesis. How can the genes-in-pieces hypothesis be explained? A) Introns are noncoding segments of DNA that are present in the initial transcript, but they are removed by splicing. B) Introns are noncoding segments of DNA that are not read or transcribed by RNA polymerase II. C) Exons are noncoding segments of DNA that are not read or transcribed by RNA polymerase II. D) Exons are noncoding segments of DNA that are present in the initial transcript but are removed by splicing. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.2 Section: 17.2 24) What molecules in the spliceosome catalyze the intron removal reactions? A) RNA polymerases B) Ribozymes C) tRNA D) Introns Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.2 Section: 17.2 25) What molecule functions as the template for 3' poly-A tail synthesis in eukaryotes? A) The template strand in the DNA B) The nontemplate strand in the DNA C) The mRNA acts as its own template. D) No template is necessary for 3' poly-A tail synthesis. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.2 Section: 17.2

26) Some viruses can be crystallized and their structures analyzed. One such virus is yellow mottle virus, which infects beans. This virus has a single-stranded RNA genome containing about 6300 nucleotides. Its capsid is 25-30 nm in diameter and contains 180 identical capsomeres. If the yellow mottle virus begins its infection of a cell by using its genome as mRNA, which of the following would you expect to be able to measure? A) Replication rate B) Transcription rate C) Translation rate D) Accumulation of new ribosomes E) Formation of new transcription factors Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 17.3 Section: 17.3 27) Codons are three-base sequences that specify the addition of a single amino acid. How do eukaryotic codons and prokaryotic codons compare? A) Prokaryotic codons usually contain different bases than those of eukaryotes. B) Prokaryotic codons usually specify different amino acids than those of eukaryotes. C) The translation of codons is mediated by tRNAs in eukaryotes, but translation requires no intermediate molecules such as tRNAs in prokaryotes. D) Codons are a nearly universal language among all organisms. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.3 Section: 17.3 28) There should be a strong positive correlation between the rate of protein synthesis and ________. A) the quantity of DNA polymerase B) the quantity of RNA polymerase C) the size of mRNA D) the number of ribosomes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.3 Section: 17.3

29) Ribosomes can attach to prokaryotic messenger RNA ________. A) once posttranscriptional modification is complete B) before transcription is complete C) once replication is complete D) once the primary transcript has been released from RNA polymerase Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.3 Section: 17.3 30) Which of the following occurs in prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes? A) Posttranscriptional splicing B) Concurrent transcription and translation C) Translation in the absence of a ribosome D) Gene regulation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.3 Section: 17.3 31) Which of the following statements is TRUE about protein synthesis in prokaryotes? A) Extensive RNA processing is required before prokaryotic transcripts can be translated. B) Translation can begin while transcription is still in progress. C) Prokaryotic cells have complicated mechanisms for targeting proteins to the appropriate cellular organelles. D) Translation requires antibiotic activity. E) Unlike eukaryotes, prokaryotes require no initiation or elongation factors. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.3 Section: 17.3

32) In comparing DNA replication with RNA transcription in the same eukaryotic cell, only DNA replication ________. A) uses RNA polymerase B) makes a new molecule from its 5' end to its 3' end C) occurs in the nucleus of the cell D) incorporates the entire template molecule in the product Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.1 Section: 17.1 33) A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of a coding sequence of DNA is AAA. The anticodon on the tRNA that binds the corresponding mRNA codon is ________. A) TTT B) UUA C) UUU D) AAA Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 17.4 Section: 17.4 34) Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into the primary structure of a polypeptide depends on specificity in the ________. A) binding of ribosomes to mRNA B) shape of the A and P sites of ribosomes C) binding of the anticodon to a small subunit of the ribosome D) attachment of amino acids to rRNAs E) binding of the anticodon to the codon and the attachment of amino acids to tRNAs Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.4 Section: 17.4

35) A mutant bacterial cell has a defective aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase that attaches a lysine to tRNAs with the anticodon AAA instead of the normal phenylalanine. The consequence of this for the cell will be that ________. A) none of the proteins in the cell will contain phenylalanine B) proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of phenylalanine at amino acid positions specified by the codon UUU C) the cell will compensate for the defect by attaching phenylalanine to tRNAs with lysine specifying anticodons D) the ribosome will skip a codon every time a UUU is encountered Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 17.4 Section: 17.4 36) There are 61 mRNA codons that specify an amino acid, but only 45 tRNAs. This is best explained by the fact that ________. A) some tRNAs have anticodons that recognize 4 or more different codons B) the rules for base pairing between the third base of a codon and tRNA are flexible C) many codons are never used, so the tRNAs that recognize them are dispensable D) the DNA codes for all 61 tRNAs, but some are then destroyed E) competitive exclusion forces some tRNAs to be destroyed by nucleases Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.4 Section: 17.4 37) An experimenter has altered the 3' end of the tRNA corresponding to the amino acid methionine in such a way as to remove the 3' bases AC. Which of the following hypotheses describes the most likely result? A) tRNA will not form a cloverleaf. B) The amino acid methionine will not become covalently bound. C) The anticodon will not bind with the mRNA codon. D) The aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase will not be formed. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.4 Section: 17.4

38) What ensures that the correct amino acid is added during translation? A) The anticodon of a properly formed aminoacyl tRNA B) The methyl-guanosine cap of a properly modified mRNA C) The poly-A tail of a properly modified mRNA D) The twisting number of a properly supercoiled DNA Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.4 Section: 17.4 39) If the sequence in the coding strand of DNA for a particular amino acid is 5'AGT3', then the anticodon on the corresponding tRNA would be ________. A) 5'ACU3' B) 5'TCA3' C) 5'UCA3' D) 5'AGU3' Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 17.4 Section: 17.4 40) There are 61 codons that each specify the addition of a specific amino acid, and 3 stop codons for which there is no corresponding amino acid. However, there are only about 40 tRNA molecules, representing 40 anticodons. How is that possible? A) Only about 40 of the recognized 61 codons are present in mRNA. B) An anticodon forms hydrogen bonds with the codon; it must match the first two bases of the codon, but it is less specific with respect to the third base. C) There are tRNAs that can bind one of two related amino acids. D) Only 20 of the codons are active–one for each amino acid. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.4 Section: 17.4

41) In the figure, what is the function of the AGU on the loop of the tRNA? A) It attaches to the amino acid. B) It base pairs with a codon of mRNA. C) It stabilizes the tRNA-amino acid complex. D) It is the active site of this ribozyme. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.4 Section: 17.4

42) In the figure associated with this question, what is the function of the ACC sequence at the 3' end? A) It attaches to an amino acid. B) It base pairs with the codon of mRNA. C) It stabilizes the tRNA-amino acid complex. D) It is the active site of this ribozyme. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.4 Section: 17.4 43) Use the following information to answer the question below. A part of an mRNA molecule with the following sequence is being read by a ribosome: 5' CCGACG 3'(mRNA). The following charged transfer RNA molecules (with their anticodons shown in the 3' to 5' direction) are available. Two of them can correctly match the mRNA so that a dipeptide can form. tRNA Anticodon GGC CGU UGC CCG ACG CGG

Amino Acid Proline Alanine Threonine Glycine Cysteine Alanine

The anticodon loop of the first tRNA that will complement this mRNA is A) 3' GGC 5' B) 5' GGC 3' C) 5' ACG 3' D) 5' UGC 3' E) 3' UGC 5' Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 17.4 Section: 17.4

44) The figure represents a tRNA that recognizes and binds a particular amino acid (in this instance, phenylalanine). Which codon (given 5'-3' in the choices below) on the mRNA strand codes for this amino acid? A) UGG B) GUG C) GUA D) UUC E) CAU Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.4 Section: 17.4

45) The tRNA in the figure has its 3' end projecting beyond its 5' end. What will occur at this 3' end? A) The codon and anticodon complement one another. B) The amino acid binds covalently. C) The excess nucleotides (ACC.A will be cleaved off at the ribosome. D) The small and large subunits of the ribosome will attach to it. E) The 5' cap of the mRNA will become covalently bound. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.4 Section: 17.4 46) What type of bonding is responsible for maintaining the shape of the tRNA molecule shown in the figure? A) Covalent bonding between sulfur atoms B) Ionic bonding between phosphates C) Hydrogen bonding between base pairs D) Van der Waals interactions between hydrogen atoms E) Peptide bonding between amino acids Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.4 Section: 17.4 47) The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is ________. A) complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon B) complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA C) the part of tRNA that bonds to a specific amino acid D) changeable, depending on the amino acid that attaches to the tRNA E) catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.4 Section: 17.4

48) Translation directly involves ________. A) mRNA, tRNA, GTP, and DNA B) mRNA, tRNA, ribosomes, and DNA C) mRNA, ribosomes, GTP, and DNA D) mRNA, tRNA, ribosomes, and GTP E) tRNA, ribosomes, GTP, and DNA Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.3, 17.5 Section: 17.3, 17.5 Use the following information to answer the questions below. A tRNA (#1) attached to the amino acid lysine enters the ribosome. The lysine binds to the growing polypeptide on the other tRNA (#2) in the ribosome already. 49) Which component of the complex described enters the exit tunnel in the large subunit of the ribosome? A) tRNA with attached lysine (#1) B) tRNA with polypeptide (#2) C) tRNA that no longer has attached amino acid D) Newly formed polypeptide E) Initiation and elongation factors Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 17.5 Section: 17.5 50) Where does tRNA #2 move to after this bonding of lysine to the polypeptide? A) A site B) P site C) E site D) Exit tunnel E) Directly to the cytosol Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 17.5 Section: 17.5

51) Which of the following is the first event to take place in translation in eukaryotes? A) Elongation of the polypeptide B) Base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA C) Binding of the larger ribosomal subunit to smaller ribosomal subunits D) Covalent bonding between the first two amino acids E) The small subunit of the ribosome recognizing and attaching to the 5' cap of mRNA Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.5 Section: 17.5 52) Translation requires ________. A) mRNA, tRNA, DNA, and rRNA B) mRNA, DNA, and rRNA C) mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA D) mRNA, tRNA, and DNA Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.3, 17.5 Section: 17.3, 17.5 53) During elongation, which site in the ribosome represents the location where a codon is being read? A) E site B) P site C) A site D) The small ribosomal subunit Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.5 Section: 17.5

54) Once a peptide bond has been formed between the amino acid attached to the tRNA in the P site and the amino acid associated with the tRNA in the A site, what occurs next? A) Translocation B) Reading of the next codon of mRNA C) Initiation D) Breaking the codon–anticodon hydrogen bonds holding the tRNA in the A site Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.5 Section: 17.5 55) Which of the following, if missing, would usually prevent translation from starting in eukaryotes? A) Exon B) 5' cap C) AUG codon D) 5' cap or AUG codon E) Exon, 5' cap, or AUG codon Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 17.5 Section: 17.5 56) The ribosome binding site of prokaryotes is also known as the ________. A) TATA box B) promoter C) Shine-Dalgarno sequence D) Pribnow box Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.5 Section: 17.5

57) Put the following events of elongation in prokaryotic translation in chronological order. 1. Binding of mRNA with small ribosomal subunit 2. Recognition of initiation codon 3. Complementary base pairing between initiator codon and anticodon of initiator tRNA 4. Base pairing of the mRNA codon following the initiator codon with its complementary tRNA 5. Attachment of the large subunit A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 C) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 D) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 17.5 Section: 17.5 58) How does termination of translation take place? A) The end of the mRNA molecule is reached. B) A stop codon is reached. C) The 5' cap is reached. D) The poly-A tail is reached. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.5 Section: 17.5 59) A common type of posttranslational modification is catalyzed by ________. A) RNA polymerases B) ribosomes C) kinases D) aminoacyl tRNA synthetases Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 17.5 Section: 17.5

60) Interpret the model.

Choose a term from the list to complete each sentences below. Not all terms will be used. blue circle orange circle red circle blue square orange square red square The 3' carbon is represented by the ________. The 5' carbon is represented by the ________. Answer: The 3' carbon is represented by the orange square. The 5' carbon is represented by the blue circle. LO: 17.1; EO: 17.1.1

61) John drew a model to show transcription, but he did not indicate the polarity of the mRNA strand. Select the best way to complete his model.

A) B) C) D) Answer: A LO: 17.1; EO: 17.1.2 Fatima has drawn a model to show the polarity of key molecules during translation. Evaluate her model.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 62) The short lines between the black and orange molecules represent covalent bonds. Answer: FALSE LO: 17.4; EO: 17.4.2

63) The green chain of boxes represents a polypeptide. Answer: TRUE LO: 17.4; EO: 17.4.2 64) The black shape represents an RNA molecule. Answer: TRUE LO: 17.4; EO: 17.4.2 65) The orange line represents DNA. Answer: FALSE LO: 17.4; EO: 17.4.2 66) The polarity of the green molecule is correct in the model. Answer: FALSE LO: 17.4; EO: 17.4.2 67) The arrowhead indicates the end of the polymer with a free OH group. Answer: TRUE LO: 17.4; EO: 17.4.2 68) The 3' and 5' labels are shown in the correct positions on the model. Answer: TRUE LO: 17.4; EO: 17.4.2

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 18 Control of Gene Expression in Bacteria 1) Which of the following levels of gene expression allows the most rapid response to environmental change? A) Transcriptional control B) Translational control C) Post-translational control Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.1 Section: 18.1 2) Bacterial and eukaryotic cells primarily control gene expression at the level of transcription. If instead cells exerted control of gene expression primarily at the post-translational level, what would be different? A) The ability to rapidly respond to environmental change would be reduced. B) Cells would expend significantly more energy. C) Genes would no longer be transcribed. D) Translation of mRNA into protein would not occur. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, MS V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.1 Section: 18.1 3) Although the expression of most genes is tightly regulated, some genes are expressed at roughly constant rates. Which of the following genes would you predict to be constitutively (constantly) expressed? A) Genes involved in the biosynthesis of the amino acid tryptophan B) Genes involved in the degradation of tryptophan C) Genes involved in the degradation of arabinose, a sugar D) Genes that code for regulatory proteins Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, MS V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.1 Section: 18.1

4) Altering patterns of gene expression in prokaryotes would most likely serve an organism's survival by ________. A) organizing gene expression so that genes are expressed in a given order B) allowing each gene to be expressed an equal number of times C) allowing an organism to adjust to changes in environmental conditions D) allowing young organisms to respond differently than more mature organisms E) allowing environmental changes to alter a prokaryote's genome Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, MS V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.1 Section: 18.1 5) The greatest expression of the lac operon occurs when lactose levels are ________. A) low and glucose levels are low B) low and glucose levels are high C) high and glucose levels are low D) high and glucose levels are high Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.1 Section: 18.1 6) A compound known as X-gal is widely used in molecular genetic research. When wild-type (normal) E. coli is grown on medium containing X-gal, the bacterial colonies turn blue. In contrast, when lacZ mutants are grown on medium containing X-gal, the bacterial colonies remain their normal white color. X-gal is likely to be a compound ________. A) chemically similar to glucose B) chemically similar to galactose C) chemically similar to lactose D) that cannot be transported into lacZ mutants E) that can be transported only into lacA mutants Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.2 Section: 18.2

7) In negative control, a gene is switched off when ________. A) a kinase adds a phosphate to DNA B) lactose is transported into the cell C) a regulatory protein binds to DNA and shuts down transcription D) a regulatory protein is removed from DNA and shuts down transcription Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.2 Section: 18.2 8) The product of the lacI gene functions most like a car's ________. A) parking brake B) accelerator pedal C) steering wheel D) engine E) gear shift Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.2 Section: 18.2 9) The product of the lacI gene is ________. A) an enzyme B) a transport protein embedded within the membrane C) β-galactosidase D) the repressor Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.2 Section: 18.2

10) An E. coli cell without a functional lacI gene is expected to ________. A) never produce β-galactosidase B) always produce β-galactosidase C) be unable to transport lactose into the cell D) be unable to metabolize lactose within the cell Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, MS V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.2 Section: 18.2 11) Which of the following, when taken up by a cell, binds to a repressor so that the repressor no longer binds to the operator? A) Ubiquitin B) Inducer C) Promoter D) Repressor E) Corepressor Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.2 Section: 18.2 12) Allolactose, an isomer of lactose, is formed in small amounts from lactose. An E. coli cell is presented for the first time with the sugar lactose (containing allolactose) as a potential food source. Which of the following occurs when lactose enters the cell? A) The repressor protein attaches to the regulator. B) Allolactose binds to the repressor protein. C) Allolactose binds to the regulator gene. D) The repressor protein and allolactose bind to RNA polymerase. E) RNA polymerase attaches to the regulator. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I, MS V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.2 Section: 18.2

13) Suppose several genes are grouped together in a bacterial genome and the group results in a single enzyme. If one of these genes is mutated and the enzyme is no longer active, this gene must be part of ________. A) an intron B) an operon C) a repressor D) an activator E) an inducer Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, MS V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.2 Section: 18.2 14) If you wanted to prevent a regulatory protein from changing gene expression, you would have to prevent physical contact between the protein and ________. A) ribosomes B) DNA C) ribozymes D) mRNA Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, MS V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.2 Section: 18.2 15) According to the lac operon model proposed by Jacob and Monod, what is predicted to occur if the operator is removed from the operon? A) The lac operon would be transcribed continuously. B) Only lacZ would be transcribed. C) Only lacY would be transcribed. D) Galactosidase permease would be produced but would be incapable of transporting lactose. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, MS V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.2 Section: 18.2

16) Which of the following is a protein produced by a regulatory gene? A) Operon B) Inducer C) Promoter D) Repressor E) Corepressor Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.2 Section: 18.2 17) Jacob and Monod were intellectually primed to draw the conclusions they did concerning regulation of the lac operon. In part, this was due to their fascination with mechanisms of enzyme regulation. They knew that the activity of some enzymes is regulated when their reaction product binds to the enzyme, changing its shape and, therefore, its activity. This knowledge allowed them to easily make the intellectual leap to propose ________. A) the existence of the CAP binding site B) allosteric regulation of the repressor C) positive regulation of the lac operon D) the existence of the operator E) co-transcribed and co-regulated genes of bacterial operons Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, MS V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.2 Section: 18.2 18) Most repressor proteins are allosteric. Which of the following binds with the repressor to alter its conformation? A) Inducer B) Promoter C) RNA polymerase D) Transcription factor E) cAMP Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.2 Section: 18.2

19) There is a mutation in the repressor that results in a molecule known as a super-repressor because it represses the lac operon permanently. Which of these would characterize such a mutant? A) It cannot bind to the operator. B) It cannot make a functional repressor. C) It cannot bind to the inducer. D) It makes molecules that bind to one another. E) It makes a repressor that binds CAP. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, MS V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.2 Section: 18.2 Use this information to answer the questions below. Suppose an experimenter becomes proficient with a technique that allows her to move DNA sequences within a prokaryotic genome. 20) If she moves the promoter for the lac operon to the region between the beta galactosidase (lacZ) gene and the permease (lacY) gene, which of the following would be likely? A) The three structural genes will be expressed normally. B) RNA polymerase will no longer transcribe permease. C) The operon will still transcribe the lacZ and lacY genes, but the mRNA will not be translated. D) Beta galactosidase will not be produced. E) The cell will continue to metabolize but more slowly. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, MS V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.2 Section: 18.2 21) If he/she moves the operator to the far end of the operon, past the transacetylase (lacA) gene, which of the following would likely occur when the cell is exposed to lactose? A) The inducer will no longer bind to the repressor. B) The repressor will no longer bind to the operator. C) The operon will never be transcribed. D) The structural genes will be transcribed continuously. E) The repressor protein will no longer be produced. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, MS V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.2 Section: 18.2 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

22) If she/he moves the repressor gene (lacI), along with its promoter, to a position at some several thousand base pairs away from its normal position, we would expect the ________. A) repressor will no longer be made B) repressor will no longer bind to the operator C) repressor will no longer bind to the inducer D) lac operon will be expressed continuously E) lac operon will function normally Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, MS V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.2 Section: 18.2 23) Which of the following would be true in an E. coli cell when glucose concentrations outside the cell are high? A) cAMP levels would be high. B) CAP would be bound to DNA. C) The lac operon would be highly transcribed. D) Lactose would be transported into the cell. E) CAP would be transcribed. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I, MS V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.2 Section: 18.2 24) Which of the following is an aspect of regulation of the trp operon that is NOT involved in regulation of the lac operon? A) Regulation by a repressor B) Allosteric regulation of a repressor C) Activation of a repressor by a co-repressor D) Binding of a repressor to an operator E) Molecules in a cell's environment affecting gene transcription Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I, MS V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.2 Section: 18.2

25) In what general way are regulons regulated? A) Regulons can be under either positive or negative control. B) Regulons are under negative control exclusively. C) Regulons are under positive control exclusively. D) Global regulation of regulons depends on the regulatory guidance of RNA polymerase II. E) Regulons are regulated by feedback translation loops. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.3 Section: 18.3 26) When many genes of an organism are globally regulated, those genes are considered as regulon genes. What is the common theme of such genetic regulation? A) Genes of regulons are silenced by a common repressor. B) Genes of regulons are able to transcribe mRNA independent of regulation. C) Genes of regulons are much more stable than non-regulon genes. D) Genes of regulons are much less stable than non-regulon genes. E) Individual genes of regulons are regulated independently of each other. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 18.3 Section: 18.3 27) Which of the following statements is the best interpretation of the model?

A) If an activator binds to the DNA regulatory sequence, then the araB gene is transcribed. B) If an activator binds to the coding region of the araB gene, then it is transcribed. C) If an activator binds to the DNA regulatory sequence, then the araB gene is translated. D) If an activator binds to the araB gene, then it is translated. Answer: A LO: 18.1; EO: 18.1.1

28) Which of these student models shows repression of the lacZ gene? Select all that apply. A)

Answer: B LO: 18.2; EO: 18.2.1

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 19 Control of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes 1) Which of the following statements about the DNA in one of your brain cells is TRUE? A) Most of the DNA codes for protein. B) All of the genes of the genome are likely to be transcribed. C) Each gene lies immediately adjacent to an enhancer. D) Many related genes are transcribed from a single promoter. E) It is the same as the DNA in one of your heart cells. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.1 Section: 19.0 2) The predominant mechanism by which one cell differs from another is the difference in gene ________. A) expression B) sequences C) order D) replication Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.1 Section: 19.0 3) Cloning of plants from cuttings demonstrates that ________. A) an individual plant cell cannot dedifferentiate and then redifferentiate B) differentiated plant cells may contain embryonic mRNAs C) plants lose genetic information in the differentiation process D) mature plant cells retain the full genetic information needed to carry out the developmental processes to produce a new individual plant Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 19.1 Section: 19.0

4) Mammals have a family of between 500 and 1000 genes that encode receptor proteins on the surface of odor-receptor neurons. If all mammals have these genes, why do some mammals have a better sense of smell than others do? A) Some of the genes actively transcribing receptor proteins in some species are completely absent in other species. B) Some of the genes may have been mutated and rendered inactive in some species but not in others. C) Some species, particularly humans, rely much less on odor detection for survival; thus, the genes have mutated to encode proteins that aid in other senses, such as sight. D) Some species of mammals have a larger set of "basic odors" than other species. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 19.1 Section: 19.1 5) At the beginning of this century, there was a general announcement regarding the sequencing of the human genome and the genomes of many other multicellular eukaryotes. Many people were surprised that the number of protein-coding sequences was much smaller than they had expected. Which of the following could account for much of the DNA that is NOT coding for proteins? A) Most of the DNA serving as origins of DNA replication B) DNA that consists of histone coding sequences C) DNA that is translated directly without being transcribed D) Non-protein-coding DNA that is transcribed into several kinds of small RNAs with biological function E) Non-protein-coding DNA that serves as binding sites for reverse transcriptase Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 19.1.2 Section: 19.1 6) Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they ________. A) express different genes B) contain different genes C) use different genetic codes D) have unique ribosomes E) have different chromosomes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.1 Section: 19.1 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around ________. A) polymerase molecules B) ribosomes C) histones D) the membrane E) mRNA Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.2.1 Section: 19.2 8) Which choice is utilized by eukaryotes to control their gene expression that is NOT used in bacteria? A) Control of chromatin remodeling B) Control of RNA splicing C) Transcriptional control D) Control of both RNA splicing and chromatin remodeling E) Control of chromatin remodeling, RNA splicing, and transcription Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.1.2 Section: 19.1 9) Which of the following allows more than one type of protein to be produced from one gene? A) Alternative forms of chromatin remodeling B) Alternative forms of RNA splicing C) Alternative forms of nucleosomes D) Control of the frequency of translation initiation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.4.1 Section: 19.4

10) Several of the different globin genes are expressed in humans but at different times in development. What mechanism could allow for this? A) Exon shuffling B) Intron activation C) Pseudogene activation D) Differential translation of mRNAs E) Differential gene regulation over time Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.3.4 Section: 19.3 11) If you were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, you would expect it to ________. A) be replicating nearly continuously B) be unwinding in preparation for protein synthesis C) have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription D) be very actively transcribed and translated E) induce protein synthesis by not allowing repressors to bind to it Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 19.2.3 Section: 19.2 12) DNA methylation is an example of ________. A) genetic mutation B) chromosomal rearrangements C) karyotypes D) epigenetic phenomena E) translocation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 19.2.3 Section: 19.2

13) Two potential devices that eukaryotic cells use to regulate transcription are ________. A) DNA methylation and histone amplification B) DNA amplification and histone methylation C) DNA acetylation and methylation D) DNA methylation and histone modification E) histone amplification and DNA acetylation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.2.3 Section: 19.2 14) Use this information to answer the question below. A researcher found a method they could use to manipulate and quantify phosphorylation and methylation in embryonic cells in culture. In one set of experiments, they succeeded in increasing acetylation of histone tails. Which of the following results would they most likely see? A) DNA complexed with RNA B) Changed chromatin condensation C) Activation of histone tails for enzymatic function D) Decreased binding of transcription factors E) Inactivation of the selected genes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 19.2.3 Section: 19.2 15) Cell differentiation always involves ________. A) the production of tissue-specific proteins, such as muscle actin B) the movement of cells C) the transcription of the myoD gene D) the selective loss of certain genes from the genome E) the cell's sensitivity to environmental cues, such as light or heat Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.1 Section: 19.2

16) Which of the following statements describes a eukaryotic chromosome? A) A single strand of DNA B) A series of nucleosomes wrapped around two DNA molecules C) A chromosome with different numbers of genes in different cell types of an organism D) A single linear molecule of double-stranded DNA plus proteins Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.1.1 Section: 19.2 17) If a cell were unable to produce histone proteins, which of the following would be a likely effect? A) There would be an increase in the amount of "satellite" DNA produced during centrifugation. B) The cell's DNA couldn't be packed into its nucleus. C) Spindle fibers would not form during prophase. D) Amplification of other genes would compensate for the lack of histones. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 19.2.1 Section: 19.2 18) Which of the following statements is TRUE of histones? A) Each nucleosome consists of two molecules of histone H1. B) Histone H1 is not present in the nucleosome bead; instead, it draws the nucleosomes together. C) The carboxyl end of each histone extends outward from the nucleosome and is called a "histone tail." D) Histones are found in mammals but not in other animals or in plants or in fungi. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.2.1 Section: 19.2

19) Why do histones bind tightly to DNA? A) Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged. B) Histones are negatively charged, and DNA is positively charged. C) Both histones and DNA are strongly hydrophobic. D) Histones are covalently linked to the DNA. E) Histones are highly hydrophobic, and DNA is hydrophilic. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.2.1 Section: 19.2 20) Which of the following is most critical for the association between histones and DNA? A) Histones are small proteins. B) Histones are highly conserved (i.e., histones are very similar in every eukaryote). C) Histones are synthesized in the cytoplasm. D) There are at least five different histone proteins in every eukaryote. E) Histones are positively charged. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.2.1 Section: 19.2 21) In eukaryotes, the normal or default state is that genes are turned ________. A) off through their association in nucleosomes B) off through their association with exons C) on through their association with exons D) on through their association in nucleosomes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.2.1 Section: 19.2

22) Imagine that you've isolated a yeast mutant that contains histones resistant to acetylation. What phenotype do you predict for this mutant? A) The mutant will grow rapidly. B) The mutant will require galactose for growth. C) The mutant will show low levels of gene expression. D) The mutant will show high levels of gene expression. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 19.2.1 Section: 19.2 23) Histone acetyl transferases exert their effect on gene activity by ________. A) neutralizing positive charges on the lysines of histones B) introducing negative charges on the glutamic acids of histones C) modifying the DNA sequence of the promoter D) increasing the affinity of transcriptional activators for DNA E) increasing the affinity of transcriptional inhibitors for DNA Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.2.2 Section: 19.2 24) Imagine that you have isolated a yeast mutant that contains a constitutively (constantly) active histone deacetylase. What phenotype do you predict for this mutant? A) The mutant will grow rapidly. B) The mutant will require galactose for growth. C) The mutant will show low levels of gene expression. D) The mutant will show high levels of gene expression. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 19.2.2 Section: 19.2

25) The B-I mutation in anthocyanin (red pigments) produces pigmented corn plants, whereas the B′ mutation in the same gene usually produces nearly unpigmented corn plants when homozygous (B´/B´). When homozygous B-I and B′ plants are intercrossed, the F1 plants are essentially unpigmented, like the B′ homozygotes. If this outcome were due simply to the dominance of B′ to B-I, then a self-cross of the F1 plants (B´/B-I) should generate B-I—colored homozygotes as approximately 1/4 (B-I/B-I) of the F2 progeny. Instead, no F2 are pigmented. Intercrosses of the F2 and of further generations do not restore the pigmented phenotype. What is the term for this type of inheritance? A) Mendelian inheritance B) Organelle genome inheritance C) Allelic inheritance D) Epigenetic inheritance Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 19.2.4 Section: 19.2 26) Which of the following mechanisms is used to coordinate the expression of multiple, related genes in eukaryotic cells? A) Environmental signals enter the cell and bind directly to promoters. B) The genes share a single common enhancer, which allows appropriate activators to turn on their transcription at the same time. C) The genes are organized into a large operon, allowing them to be coordinately controlled as a single unit. D) A single repressor is able to turn off several related genes. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.3.4 Section: 19.3 27) In eukaryotes, general transcription factors ________. A) are required for the expression of specific protein-encoding genes B) bind to other proteins or to the TATA box C) inhibit RNA polymerase binding to the promoter and begin transcribing D) usually lead to a high level of transcription even without additional specific transcription factors E) bind to sequences just after the start site of transcription Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.3.4 Section: 19.3 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) Activator proteins in eukaryotes usually have a domain that binds to DNA and other activation domains that often bind to ________. A) DNA polymerases B) ATP C) protein-based hormones D) other regulatory proteins E) tRNA Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.3.3 Section: 19.3 29) Use this information to answer the question below. A researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify phosphorylation and methylation in embryonic cells in culture. One of her colleagues suggested she try increased methylation of C nucleotides in the DNA of promoters of a mammalian system. Which of the following results would she most likely see? A) Decreased chromatin condensation B) Activation of histone tails for enzymatic function C) Higher levels of transcription of certain genes D) Inactivation of the selected genes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 19.2.1 Section: 19.3 30) The functioning of enhancers is an example of ________. A) transcriptional control of gene expression B) a posttranscriptional mechanism to regulate mRNA C) the stimulation of translation by initiation factors D) posttranslational control that activates certain proteins E) a eukaryotic equivalent of prokaryotic promoter functioning Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.3.3 Section: 19.3

31) Imagine that you are studying the control of β-globin gene expression in immature red blood cells. If you deleted a sequence of DNA outside the protein-coding region of the β-globin gene and found that this increased the rate of transcription, the deleted sequence likely functions as ________. A) a promoter B) a promoter-proximal element C) an enhancer D) a silencer E) any of the listed functions Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 19.3.4 Section: 19.3 32) If cells of an individual contain the same set of genes, how do these cells become different from each other during development? A) Different cell type-specific regulatory elements in DNA are created during development. B) Different cell type-specific regulatory elements in DNA are selectively lost during development. C) Differences in extracellular signals received by each cell lead to differences in the types of regulatory proteins present in each cell. D) Differences develop in promoter sequences that lead to different signals being produced by each type of cell. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 19.1 Section: 19.0 33) How do chromatin-remodeling complexes recognize the genes they should act on? Chromatin-remodeling complexes ________. A) are activated by specific extracellular signals that direct them to particular genes B) recognize specific promoters when they are phosphorylated, methylated, or acetylated C) recognize specific transcription factors bound to regulatory sequences of DNA D) bind to the basal transcription complex Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.2.3 Section: 19.3

34) An example of a general transcription factor is ________. A) RNA polymerase B) the TATA-binding protein C) an enhancer-binding transcription factor D) a silencer-binding transcription factor E) a promoter-proximal-binding transcription factor Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.3.4 Section: 19.3 35) Regulatory transcription factors ________. A) influence the binding of sigma factor to DNA B) influence the specific expression of a gene C) influence the degree of unwinding of DNA at the promoter D) open the two strands of DNA so that RNA polymerase can begin transcription Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.3.4 Section: 19.3 36) If the DNA sequence was substantially altered from one of the following, which would prevent the binding of the TATA-binding protein (TBP)? A) RNA polymerase B) The point where transcription begins C) The promoter D) Promoter-proximal elements E) Histone acetyl transferases (HATS) Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 19.3.5 Section: 19.3

37) The primary difference between enhancers and promoter-proximal elements is that enhancers ________. A) are transcription factors; promoter-proximal elements are DNA sequences B) enhance transcription; promoter-proximal elements inhibit transcription C) are part of the promoter; promoter-proximal elements are regulatory sequences distinct from the promoter D) are at considerable distances from the promoter; promoter-proximal elements are close to the promoter E) are DNA sequences; promoter-proximal elements are proteins Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.3.2, 19.3.3 Section: 19.3 38) Twenty-five years ago, when Oshima and colleagues discovered that a mutation in the GAL4 gene led to the inability to synthesize all five enzymes required for galactose catabolism (breakdown), they couldn't be blamed for wanting to apply a bacterial model to explain this finding. What they expected, but did not find, was ________. A) that all five genes constitute an operon B) five widely separated genes, each containing a GAL4-binding site in its regulatory region C) that chromatin decondensation played an important role in regulating the genes of galactose catabolism D) that transcription is important in regulating the genes of galactose catabolism Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 19.6.1 Section: 19.6 39) The reason for differences in the sets of proteins expressed in a nerve and a pancreatic cell of the same individual is that nerve and pancreatic cells contain different ________. A) genes B) regulatory sequences C) sets of regulatory proteins D) promoters E) promoter-proximal elements Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.1 Section: 19.3

40) Of the following, which is the most current description of a gene? A) A unit of heredity that causes formation of a phenotypic characteristic B) A DNA subunit that codes for a single complete protein C) A DNA sequence that is expressed to form a functional product: either RNA or polypeptide D) A DNA-RNA sequence combination that results in an enzymatic product E) A discrete unit of hereditary information that consists of a sequence of amino acids Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.2, 19.3 Section: 19.4 41) Gene expression can be altered more easily at the level of posttranscriptional processing in eukaryotes than in prokaryotes because ________. A) eukaryotic mRNAs get 5' caps and 3' tails B) prokaryotic genes are expressed as mRNA, which is more stable in the cell C) eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns D) prokaryotes use ribosomes of different structure and size Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.4.1 Section: 19.4 42) Which of the following is most likely to have a small protein called ubiquitin attached to it? A) A cyclin protein, which usually acts in G1, in a cell that is in G2 B) A cell surface protein that requires transport from the ER C) An mRNA leaving the nucleus to be translated D) A regulatory protein that requires sugar residues to function properly E) An mRNA produced by an egg cell that will be retained until after fertilization Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 19.4.2 Section: 19.4

43) The phenomenon in which RNA molecules in a cell are destroyed if they have a sequence complementary to an introduced double-stranded RNA is called ________. A) RNA interference B) RNA obstruction C) RNA blocking D) RNA targeting E) RNA disposal Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.4 Section: 19.4 44) Since Watson and Crick described DNA in 1953, which of the following might best explain why the function of small RNAs (miRNAs) is still not well understood? A) As RNAs have evolved since that time, they have taken on new functions. B) Watson and Crick described DNA but did not predict any function for RNA. C) The functions of small RNAs could not be approached until the entire human genome was sequenced. D) Ethical considerations prevented scientists from exploring this material until recently. E) Recent advances in technology and our understanding of how DNA is expressed have provided new insights, without full understanding. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 19.4.2 Section: 19.4 45) Which of the following is an example of posttranscriptional control of gene expression? A) The addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases of DNA B) The binding of transcription factors to a promoter C) The removal of introns and alternative splicing of exons D) Gene amplification contributing to cancer E) The folding of DNA to form heterochromatin Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.4.1 Section: 19.4

46) Poliovirus is an RNA virus of the picornavirus group. At its 5' end, the RNA genome has a viral protein (VPg) instead of a 5' cap. This is followed by a nontranslated leader sequence and then a single long protein-coding region (~7000 nucleotides), followed by a poly-A tail. Observations were made that used radioactive amino acid analogues. Short-period use of the radioactive amino acids result in labeling of only very long proteins, while longer periods of labeling result in several different short polypeptides. What conclusion is most consistent with the results of the radioactive labeling experiment? A) Host cell ribosomes only translate the viral code into short polypeptides. B) The RNA is only translated into a single long polypeptide, which is then cleaved into shorter ones. C) The RNA is translated into short polypeptides, which are subsequently assembled into large ones. D) The large radioactive polypeptides are coded by the host, whereas the short ones are coded for by the virus. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 19.4.3 Section: 19.4 47) Alternative RNA splicing ________. A) is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transcription B) can allow the production of proteins of different sizes and functions from a single mRNA C) can allow the production of similar proteins from different genes D) increases the rate of transcription E) is due to the presence or absence of particular snRNPs Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.4.1 Section: 19.4 48) Proto-oncogenes ________. A) normally suppress tumor growth B) were initially introduced into eukaryotic cells by retroviruses C) are produced by somatic mutations induced by carcinogenic substances D) stimulate normal cell growth and division E) are underexpressed in cancer cells Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 19.5.1 Section: 19.6 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

49) The product of the p53 gene ________. A) inhibits the cell cycle B) slows down the rate of DNA replication by interfering with the binding of DNA polymerase C) causes cells to reduce expression of genes involved in DNA repair D) allows cells to pass on mutations due to DNA damage Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.5.2 Section: 19.6 50) Tumor-suppressor genes ________. A) are frequently overexpressed in cancerous cells B) are cancer-causing genes introduced into cells by viruses C) encode proteins that help prevent uncontrolled cell growth D) often encode proteins that stimulate the cell cycle Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 19.5.1 Section: 19.6 51) Proto-oncogenes can change into oncogenes that cause cancer. Which of the following best explains the presence of these potential time bombs in eukaryotic cells? A) Proto-oncogenes first arose from viral infections. B) Proto-oncogenes normally help regulate cell division. C) Proto-oncogenes are genetic "junk." D) Proto-oncogenes are mutant versions of normal genes. E) Cells produce proto-oncogenes as they age. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 19.5.1 Section: 19.6

52) In colorectal cancer, several genes must be mutated for a cell to develop into a cancer cell. Which of the following kinds of genes would you expect to be mutated? A) Genes coding for enzymes that act in the colon B) Genes involved in control of the cell cycle C) Genes that are especially susceptible to mutation D) Genes of the bacteria, which are abundant in the colon Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 19.5.1 Section: 19.6 53) The normal function of a tumor suppressor gene is to ________. A) suppress the growth of tumors already present in all multicellular eukaryotes B) prevent progression of the cell cycle unless conditions are right for moving forward C) prevent meiosis D) prevent mutations in p53 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.5.1 Section: 19.6 54) Which of the following types of mutation would convert a proto-oncogene into an oncogene? A) A mutation that blocks transcription of the proto-oncogene B) A mutation that creates an unstable proto-oncogene mRNA C) A mutation that greatly increases the amount of the proto-oncogene protein D) A deletion of most of the proto-oncogene coding sequence Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 19.5.1 Section: 19.6

55) The protein p53 activates genes that ________. A) increase mutation rate B) lead to higher production of growth factors for the cell C) increase the rate of endocytosis D) arrest the cell cycle Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 19.5.2 Section: 19.6 56) Which of the following is TRUE? A) Mutations that inactivate tumor suppressor genes are important in cancer. B) Cancer is a single disease with one underlying molecular cause. C) Uncontrolled cell growth alone is sufficient for the development of cancers. D) Cancer is a single disease resulting from a common set of mutations. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 19.5.1 Section: 19.6

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 20 The Molecular Revolution: Biotechnology, Genomics, and New Frontiers 1) Many identical copies of genes cloned in bacteria are produced as a result of ________. A) plasmid replication B) bacterial cell replication C) transformation D) plasmid and bacterial cell replication Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 20.1 Section: 20.1 2) If mRNAs could be ligated and replicated within plasmids, what enzyme commonly used in recombinant DNA technology would no longer be needed? A) Restriction enzymes B) DNA polymerase C) RNA polymerase D) Reverse transcriptase E) DNA ligase Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 20.1 Section: 20.1 3) If a scientist needs to put new DNA into a bacterium, they must ________ the bacterium. A) transform B) ligate C) make a library of the genes of D) make a cDNA library of E) make a vector of Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 20.1 Section: 20.1

4) The restriction enzymes BamHI and BclI cut at the points indicated by arrows:

If one sample of DNA was cut with BamHI and another with BclI, and these two samples were mixed and treated with DNA ligase, what would occur? A) No DNAs would be ligated (joined together). B) Only the BamHI-cut DNA would be ligated. C) Only the BclI-cut DNA would be ligated. D) Both BamHI-cut and BclI-cut DNAs would be ligated but only to DNA fragments cut with the same enzyme (e.g., BamHI fragments would be ligated only to other BamHI fragments). E) Both BamHI-cut and BclI-cut DNAs would be ligated with no preference for which fragment is ligated to another. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 20.1 Section: 20.1 5) How do we describe transformation in bacteria? A) The creation of a strand of DNA from an RNA molecule B) The creation of a strand of RNA from a DNA molecule C) The infection of cells by a phage DNA molecule D) Semiconservative replication of DNA E) Insertion of external DNA into a cell Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 20.1 Section: 20.1

6) An organism with which kind of genomic material could use reverse transcriptase to transcribe its genome? A) ssRNA B) dsRNA C) ssDNA D) dsDNA Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 20.1 Section: 20.1 7) In recombinant DNA methods, the term "vector" can refer to ________. A) the enzyme (endonuclease) that cuts DNA into restriction fragments B) the "sticky end" of a DNA fragment C) circular endogenous DNA in mammalian cell D) a plasmid used to transfer DNA into a living cell E) a DNA probe used to identify a particular gene Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 20.1 Section: 20.1 8) A paleontologist has recovered a bit of tissue from the 400-year-old preserved skin of an extinct dodo (a bird). To compare a specific region of the DNA from the sample with DNA from living birds, which of the following would be most useful for increasing the amount of dodo DNA available for testing? A) RFLP analysis B) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) C) Electroporation D) Gel electrophoresis E) Southern blotting Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 20.2 Section: 20.2

9) A recent study compared the Homo sapiens genome with that of Neanderthals. The results of the study indicated a mixing of the two genomes at some period in evolutionary history. Additional data consistent with this hypothesis could be the discovery of ________. A) some Neanderthal sequences not found in living humans B) a few modern H. sapiens with some Neanderthal sequences C) duplications of several Neanderthal genes on a Neanderthal chromosome D) some Neanderthal chromosomes that are shorter than their counterparts in living humans Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.2 Section: 20.2

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below. Amplification and sequencing of 30,000-year-old Neanderthal DNA has shown that it's unlikely Neanderthals and modern humans interbred. Let's take a closer look at this early work with ancient DNA (M. Krings, A. Stone, R.W. Schmitz, H. Krainitzki, M. Stoneking, and S. Pääbo. 1997. Neanderthal DNA sequences and the origin of modern humans. Cell 90:19-30). Here is part of the lead paragraph in the "Methods" section of the Krings et al. paper: Protective clothing was worn throughout the sampling procedure. Instruments used were treated with 1 M HCl followed by extensive rinsing in distilled water. After removal, the sample was immediately put into a sterile tube for transport to Munich. All subsequent manipulations of the sample, and experimental procedures prior to cycling of PCR reactions, were carried out in laboratories solely dedicated to the analysis of archaeological specimens, where protective clothing, separate equipment and reagents, UV irradiation, and other measures to.... A concluding paragraph of the Krings et al. paper states: It must be emphasized that the above conclusions are based on a single individual sequence; the retrieval and analysis of mtDNA sequences from additional Neanderthal specimens is obviously desirable. If this proves possible, then the potential exists to address several questions concerning Neanderthals that hitherto could be studied exclusively by morphological and archaeological approaches. For example, the genetic relationship between Neanderthal populations in Europe and in western Asia could be explored, as could the demographic history of Neanderthal populations. 10) Refer to the paragraphs on the Krings et al. paper. How could the "demographic history of Neanderthal populations" be explored if mitochondrial DNA from other Neanderthal samples could be PCR amplified? A) These Neanderthal sequences could be compared to those of modern humans to learn how modern humans evolved to walk on two legs (bipedalism). B) These Neanderthal sequences could be compared to those of modern humans; the more they differ, the more distant the time of divergence between the Neanderthal and modern human lineages. C) These Neanderthal sequences could be compared to each other to see how much they differ; the more they differ, the greater the divergence between these populations. D) In the attempt to amplify other Neanderthal DNAs, those that amplify must be from more modern populations and those that don't are from more ancient populations. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.2 Section: 20.2

11) Refer to the paragraph on the Krings et al. paper. Why did the researchers wear protective clothing and note so emphatically that they did so? A) They needed to be certain there were no ancient pathogens on the sample that modern humans hadn't been exposed to. B) They needed to be sure not to harm the precious sample with oils from skin or moisture from their breath. C) They needed to minimize the chance of introducing their own mitochondrial DNA to the sample. D) They needed to follow careful, standardized laboratory procedures required by law and document their compliance. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.2 Section: 20.2 12) What information is critical to the success of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) itself? A) The DNA sequence of the ends of the DNA to be amplified must be known. B) The complete DNA sequence of the DNA to be amplified must be known. C) The sequence of restriction-enzyme recognition sites in the DNA to be amplified must be known. D) The sequence of restriction-enzyme recognition sites in the DNA to be amplified and in the plasmid where the amplified DNA fragment will be cloned must be known. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 20.2 Section: 20.2 13) Which of the following is in the correct order for one cycle of polymerase chain reaction (PCR)? A) Denature DNA; add fresh enzyme; anneal primers; add dNTPs; and extend primers. B) Add fresh enzyme; denature DNA; anneal primers; add dNTPs; and extend primers. C) Anneal primers; denature DNA; and extend primers. D) Extend primers; anneal primers; and denature DNA. E) Denature DNA; anneal primers; and extend primers. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 20.2 Section: 20.2

14) What characteristic of short tandem repeats (STRs) DNA makes it useful for DNA fingerprinting? A) The number of repeats varies widely from person to person or animal to animal. B) The sequence of DNA that is repeated varies significantly from individual to individual. C) The sequence variation is acted upon differently by natural selection in different environments. D) Every racial and ethnic group has inherited different short tandem repeats. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 20.1, 20.2 Section: 20.2 15) Which of the following most correctly describes the shotgun technique for sequencing a genome? A) Genetic mapping followed immediately by sequencing B) Physical mapping followed immediately by sequencing C) Cloning large genome fragments into very large vectors such as YACs, followed by sequencing D) Cloning fragments from many copies of an entire chromosome, sequencing the fragments, and then ordering the sequences E) Cloning the whole genome directly, from one end to the other Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 20.3 Section: 20.3 16) Bioinformatics can be used to scan for short sequences that specify known mRNAs, called ________. A) expressed sequence tags B) cDNA C) multigene families D) proteomes E) short tandem repeats Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.3 Section: 20.3

17) Bioinformatics includes ________. I. using computer programs to align DNA sequences II. creating recombinant DNA from separate species III. developing computer-based tools for genome analysis IV. using mathematical tools to make sense of biological systems A) I and II B) II and III C) II and IV D) I, III, and IV Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.5 Section: 20.3 18) An early step in shotgun sequencing is to ________. A) break genomic DNA at random sites B) map the position of cloned DNA fragments C) randomly select DNA primers and hybridize these to random positions of chromosomes in preparation for sequencing D) separate molecules of DNA according to size in an electric field Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 20.3 Section: 20.3 19) The best type of scientist to organize a large amount of genome sequence data would be someone who specializes in ________. A) proteomics B) functional genomics C) evolutionary genomics D) bioinformatics Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 20.3 Section: 20.3

20) A laboratory might use dideoxyribonucleotides to ________. A) separate DNA fragments B) clone the breakpoints of cut DNA C) produce cDNA from mRNA D) sequence a DNA fragment E) visualize DNA expression Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 20.3 Section: 20.3 21) Sequencing an entire genome, such as that of C. elegans, a nematode, is most important because ________. A) it allows researchers to use the sequence to build a "better" nematode, which is resistant to disease B) it allows research on a group of organisms we do not usually care much about C) the nematode is a good animal model for trying out cures for viral illness D) a sequence that is found to have a particular function in the nematode is likely to have a closely related function in vertebrates E) a sequence that is found to have no introns in the nematode genome is likely to have acquired the introns from higher organisms Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 20.3 Section: 20.3 22) After finding a new medicinal plant, a pharmaceutical company decides to determine if the plant has genes similar to those of other known medicinal plants. To do this, the company annotates the genome of the new plant to ________. A) determine what proteins are produced B) determine what mRNA transcripts are produced C) identify genes and determine their functions D) identify the location of mRNA within the plant cells Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.3 Section: 20.3

23) Biologists now routinely test for homology between genes in different species. If genes are determined to be homologous, it means that they are related ________. A) by descent from a common ancestor B) because of convergent evolution C) by chance mutations D) in function but not structure Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.3 Section: 20.3

Metagenomics aims to learn about the diversity of organisms, particularly microbes that inhabit natural environments. J. Craig Venter, a key figure in the race to obtain the human genome sequence, and his colleagues pioneered this approach in a study that analyzed DNA obtained from microbes collected from the Sargasso Sea, an intensively studied, nutrient-impoverished part of the Caribbean lying to the southeast of Bermuda. (C. J. Venter, K. Remington, J. F. Heidelberg, A. L. Halpern, D. Rusch, J. A. Eisen, D. Wu, I. Paulsen, K. E. Nelson, W. Nelson, D. E. Fouts, S. Levy, A. H. Knap, M. W. Lomas, K. Nealson, O. White, J. Peterson, J. Hoffman, R. Parsons, H. Baden-Tillson, C. Pfannkock, Y. H. Rogers, and H. O. Smith. 2004. Environmental genome shotgun sequencing of the Sargasso Sea. Science 304:66-74.) The approach reported in this paper is bold in its technological reach but simple in concept: Collect random samples of microbes from a particular environment; extract DNA; fragment and clone the DNA in preparation for sequencing; sequence millions of randomly selected clones; store this information on a computer and apply algorithms to assemble overlapping sequences from single species; analyze such features as the total number of genes and the number and identity of newly discovered genes; and estimate the total number of microbial species. In the Venter et al. paper, slightly more than 1 billion base pairs of nonredundant sequences were analyzed. The authors reported the identification of 1800 microbial species in their samples, including 148 unknown species. Additionally, 1.2 million formerly unknown genes were discovered–all from an area of ocean that is an "oceanic desert." It is not difficult to imagine that there were significant technical problems in this study. One was in sequence assembly. This task involves identifying which of the millions of randomly generated sequences come from the same organism. The first step of this procedure involves searching for sequence overlaps from different clones. The algorithms typically used for sequence assembly ignore repeated sequences. However, this turns out to be a problem in environmental genomics. The following table from the Venter et al. paper presents the numbers of different types of genes discovered in this study.

TIGR Role Category Amino acid biosynthesis Biosynthesis of cofactors, prosthetic groups, and carriers Cell envelope Cellular processes Central intermediary metabolism DNA metabolism Energy metabolism Fatty acid and phospholipid metabolism Mobile and extrachromosomal element functions Protein fate Protein synthesis Purines, pyrimidines, nucleosides, and nucleotides Regulatory functions Signal transduction Transcription Transport and binding proteins Unknown function Miscellaneous Conserved hypothetical Total number of roles assigned TOTAL NUMBER OF GEN

Total Genes 37,118 25,905 27,883 17,260 13,639 25,346 69,718 18,588 1,061 28,768 48,012 19,912 8,392 4,817 12,756 49,185 38,067 1,864 794,061 1,239,871 1,277,938

24) Refer to the paragraph on the Venter et al. paper and the accompanying table. Because DNAs for sequencing were chosen at random with no way of knowing which organism they came from, how could genes be identified? A) By searching for open reading frames (ORFs), especially those with translation start and stop sites B) By searching for similarity between predicted ORFs and those in existing databases C) By searching for exons bounded by consensus donor and acceptor splice sites (those that mark exon/intron boundaries) D) By searching for ORFs, particularly those with translation start and stop sites, as well as for similarity between predicted ORFs and those in existing databases Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.3 Section: 20.3

25) Refer to the paragraph on the Venter et al. paper and the accompanying table. How do you think expected genes were placed into the categories shown in the table? A) By searching for open reading frames (ORFs), especially those with translation start and stop sites B) By searching for matches, especially of the predicted gene products, with previously identified gene products of known function C) By expressing the cloned genes in E. coli and then running biochemical analyses of the products D) By searching for similarity between ORFs and those in existing databases Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.3 Section: 20.3 26) Refer to the paragraph on the Venter et al. paper and the accompanying table. What practical applications for human society may arise first from this or similar metagenomic studies? A) New genes with useful properties may be identified and ultimately put to use. B) New microbial species could be isolated from seawater. C) An increased knowledge of the diversity of marine ecosystems could lead to investigations of diversity in other ecosystems. D) Species discovered in the Sargasso Sea may also be found to inhabit less-remote waters. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.3, 20.6 Section: 20.3

27) Refer to the paragraph on the Venter et al. paper and the accompanying table. As with many new endeavors, concerns have been raised by some that genomics will fundamentally change the way biological research is practiced. Examine the full citation for the Venter et al. paper and consider the way this work was done. Now think of some seminal works in the history of biology, for example, Darwin's On the Origin of Species and Watson and Crick's publication on DNA structure. What do you think the concern might be that has been voiced about genomics? A) Genomics will offer deep insights too rapidly for the biological community to comprehend. B) Genomics is so based in technology that it cannot possibly reveal important knowledge of biology. C) Genomics makes biology a "big-team science" that will squeeze out innovative individuals or small groups of scientists who traditionally have provided our greatest insights. D) Genomics is really computer science, not biology, and therefore offers little for understanding life. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.3, 20.6 Section: 20.3 28) It is more difficult to identify eukaryotic genes than prokaryotic genes because in eukaryotes ________. A) the proteins are larger than in prokaryotes B) the coding portions of genes are shorter than in prokaryotes C) there are no start codons D) there are introns Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 20.3 Section: 20.4 29) If the sequence of a cDNA has matches with DNA sequences in the genome, then this genomic DNA is likely to ________. A) code for a protein B) code for a ribozyme C) code for an rRNA D) be part of an intron E) be a regulatory sequence Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 20.3 Section: 20.4 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

30) What is an example of metagenomics? A) Genomics as applied to a species that most typifies the average phenotype of its genus B) The sequencing of one or two representative genes from several species C) The sequencing of only the most highly conserved genes in a lineage D) Sequencing DNA from a group of species from the same ecosystem E) Genomics as applied to an entire phylum Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 20.3, 20.6 Section: 20.4 31) When comparing the genomes of a bacterial parasite versus a free-living, nonparasitic bacterium, one expects to find that ________. A) the proportion of G-C base pairs will be significantly higher in the parasite B) there is no homology between the free-living and parasitic bacteria C) there will be a higher proportion of genes of unknown function in the parasite D) the parasite will have acquired a smaller proportion of its genes through lateral gene transfer E) the parasite will have a smaller genome Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 20.6 Section: 20.4 32) Imagine that you have sequenced the genome of a human pathogenic bacterium. In the early stages of analysis, you discover a stretch of DNA that has a significantly different G-C content (the proportion of bases that are G and C). Further examination of this region shows there are roughly one dozen protein-coding regions. These are not found in the genome of a previously sequenced and related nonpathogenic bacterium. These sequences do, however, predict protein products strikingly similar to those of another bacterial pathogen that is not closely related to the organism you are studying. You immediately suspect ________. A) neutral evolution B) that both sequences are introns C) a high rate of mutation D) a low rate of mutation E) lateral gene transfer Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 20.6 Section: 20.4

33) The comparison between the number of human genes and those of other animal species has led to many conclusions, including that ________. A) the density of the human genome is far higher than in most other animals B) the number of proteins expressed by the human genome is far more than the number of its genes C) most human DNA consists of genes for protein, tRNA, rRNA, and miRNA D) the genomes of most other organisms are significantly smaller than the human genome Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 20.6 Section: 20.4 34) A gene family is composed of ________. A) multiple genes whose products must be coordinately expressed B) genes whose sequences are very similar and that probably arose by duplication C) many tandem repeats such as those found in centromeres and telomeres D) a gene whose exons can be spliced in a number of different ways E) a highly conserved gene found in a number of different species Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 20.6 Section: 20.4 35) Unequal crossing over during prophase I can result in one sister chromosome with a deletion and another with a duplication. A mutated form of hemoglobin, so-called hemoglobin Lepore, exists in the human population. Hemoglobin Lepore has a deleted series of amino acids. If this mutated form was caused by unequal crossing over, what would be an expected consequence? A) If it is still maintained in the human population, hemoglobin Lepore must be selected for in evolution. B) There should also be persons whose hemoglobin contains two copies of the series of amino acids that is deleted in hemoglobin Lepore. C) Each of the genes in the hemoglobin gene family must show the same deletion. D) The deleted gene must have undergone exon shuffling. E) The deleted region must be located in a different area of the individual's genome. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.6 Section: 20.4

36) Sequencing eukaryotic genomes is more difficult than sequencing genomes of bacteria or archaea because of the ________. A) large size of eukaryotic proteins B) hard-to-find proteins C) high proportion of G-C base pairs in eukaryotic DNA D) large size of eukaryotic genomes and the large amount of eukaryotic repetitive DNA Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.6 Section: 20.4 37) Because they both produce a reverse transcriptase, long interspersed nuclear elements (LINEs) as transposable elements may be related to ________. A) plasmids B) retroviruses C) poliovirus D) parasitic bacteria E) lower plants Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 20.8 Section: 20.4 38) The mechanism for the spread of long interspersed nuclear elements (LINEs) involves some unique features, including ________. A) translation in the cytoplasm of an mRNA that was synthesized in the nucleus B) the nuclear localization of RNA polymerase C) the transport of mRNA from the cytoplasm to the nucleus D) the use of an enzyme that cuts DNA E) the use of RNA polymerase to transcribe an mRNA Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 20.6 Section: 20.4

39) In nature, the major mechanism of introducing new genes into eukaryotic genomes is ________. A) duplication followed by evolutionary divergence B) unequal crossing over at microsatellite repeats C) pseudogene creation D) pseudogene restoration Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 20.6 Section: 20.4 40) If alternative splicing did NOT occur, then ________. A) the human genome would likely contain many more genes B) the E. coli genome would contain many fewer genes C) there would be little correlation between the complexity of organisms and genome size D) there would be many fewer genes devoted to metabolism in Arabidopsis and yeast Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 20.6 Section: 20.4 41) Name two examples of lateral gene transfer to eukaryotes that involve cellular organelles. A) Transfer of bacterial genes that were predecessors to mitochondria and chloroplasts B) Transfer of the bacterial mitochondrial apparatus to form nuclei and ribosomes C) Transfer of bacterial chloroplasts to form nuclei and ribosomes D) Transfer of bacterial genes to form nuclei and the mitotic spindle apparatus E) Transfer of the bacterial spindle apparatus to form ribosomes and transfer RNAs Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 20.6 Section: 20.4

42) A virus consisting of a single strand of RNA, which is transcribed into complementary DNA, is a ________. A) reverse transcriptase B) protease C) retrovirus D) RNA replicase virus E) nonenveloped virus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 20.1, 20.4 Section: 20.4 43) Which viruses have single-stranded RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis? A) Influenza viruses B) Polio viruses C) Plant viruses D) mRNA viruses E) Retroviruses Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 20.1, 20.4 Section: 20.4 44) What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses? A) It hydrolyzes the host cell's DNA. B) It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis. C) It converts host cell RNA into viral DNA. D) It translates viral RNA into proteins. E) It uses viral RNA as a template for making complementary RNA strands. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 20.1, 20.4 Section: 20.4

45) What is the difference between a linkage map and a physical map? A) Markers are spaced by recombination frequency on a linkage map and by number of base pairs on a physical map. B) The ATCG order and sequence must be determined for a linkage map but not for a physical map. C) A linkage map shows how each gene is linked to every other gene, but a physical map does not. D) Distances must be calculable in units such as nanometers on a physical map but not on a linkage map. E) There is no difference between the two except in the type of pictorial representation. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 20.6 Section: 20.5 46) In large-scale, genome-wide association studies in humans, we look for ________. A) lengthy sequences that might be shared by most members of a population B) SNPs where one allele is found more often in persons with a particular disorder than in healthy controls C) SNPs where one allele is found in families with a particular introns sequence D) SNPs where one allele is found in two or more adjacent genes E) large inversions that displace the centromere Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.6 Section: 20.5

Use the following information to answer the questions below. Six students have taken samples of their own cheek cells, purified the DNA, and used an endonuclease known to cut at zero, one, or two sites in a particular gene of interest. 47) They might be conducting such an experiment to ________. A) find the location of a particular gene in the human genome B) prepare to isolate the chromosome on which there is a particular gene of interest C) find which of the students has which alleles D) measure the expression of one or more genes in their genomes E) determine if any of them carries an extra sex chromosome Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.6 Section: 20.5 48) Their next two steps, in order, should be ________. A) use of a fluorescent probe for the gene sequence, then electrophoresis B) electrophoresis of the fragments, followed by autoradiography C) electrophoresis of the fragments, followed by the use of a probe D) use of a ligase that will anneal the pieces, followed by Southern blotting E) use of reverse transcriptase to make cDNA, followed by electrophoresis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.6 Section: 20.5 49) Analysis of the data obtained shows that two students each have two fragments, two students each have three fragments, and two students each have one only. What does this demonstrate? A) Each pair of students has a different gene for this function. B) The two students who have two fragments have one restriction site in this region. C) The two students who have two fragments have two restriction sites within this gene. D) The students with three fragments are said to have "fragile sites." E) Each of these students is heterozygous for this gene. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.6 Section: 20.5

50) Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) results from a translocation between human chromosomes 9 and 22. The resulting chromosome 22 is significantly shorter than usual, and it is known as a Philadelphia (Ph') chromosome. The junction at the site of the translocation causes overexpression of a receptor tyrosine kinase. A new drug (Gleevec or imatinib) has been found to inhibit the disease if the patient is treated early. Which of the following would be a reasonably efficient technique for confirming the diagnosis of CML? A) Searching for the number of telomeric sequences on chromosome 22 B) Looking for a Ph' chromosome in a peripheral blood smear C) Enzyme assay for receptor tyrosine kinase activity D) Fluorescent labeling to determine the chromosomal location of all chromosome 22 fragments E) Identification of the disease phenotype in review of the patient's records Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.5 Section: 20.5 51) If you are a human geneticist looking for an ideal population in which to map disease genes, which of the following characteristics would help the mapping study? A) Small family sizes with well-known genealogies B) A population where all members have the disease C) Large family sizes with little known genealogies D) Large family sizes with well-known genealogies Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.5 Section: 20.5 52) Imagine that you compare two DNA sequences found in the same location on homologous chromosomes. On one of the homologs, the sequence is AACTACGA. On the other homolog, the sequence is AACTTCGA. Within a population, you discover that each of these sequences is common. These sequences ________. A) contain an SNP that may be useful for genetic mapping B) identify a protein-coding region of a gene C) cause disease D) protect against disease E) do none of the listed actions Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.5 Section: 20.5 22 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

53) Imagine that you are searching for the gene associated with nail-patella syndrome, a dominant genetic disorder that causes developmental abnormalities. In a large pedigree, you discover an association between nail-patella syndrome and a genetic marker that occurs in two different alleles, A and B. Fifteen individuals within this pedigree have nail-patella syndrome and are A/B heterozygotes for the marker. Thirty individuals within this pedigree don't suffer from nail-patella syndrome and are homozygous for the A marker allele. One individual within this pedigree has nail-patella syndrome and is also homozygous for the A marker allele. The most likely explanation for this exceptional individual is that ________. A) a new mutation converted the disease-causing allele to the wild-type form B) a new mutation converted the B allele of the marker to the A form C) the exceptional nail-patella individual is haploid D) recombination occurred between the nail-patella gene and marker locus in one of the parents of the exceptional individual Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.5 Section: 20.5 54) Viruses use the host's machinery to make copies of themselves. However, some human viruses require a type of replication that humans do not normally have. For example, humans normally do not have the ability to convert RNA into DNA. How can these types of viruses infect humans, when human cells cannot perform a particular role that the virus requires? A) The virus causes mutations in the human cells, resulting in the formation of new enzymes that are capable of performing these roles. B) The viral genome codes for specialized enzymes not in the host. C) The virus infects only those cells and species that can perform all the replication roles necessary. D) Viruses can stay in a quiescent state until the host cell evolves this ability. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 20.4, 20.6 Section: 20.5

55) Which of the following is one of the technical reasons why gene therapy is problematic? A) Most cells with an engineered gene do not produce gene product. B) Most cells with engineered genes overwhelm other cells in a tissue. C) Cells with transferred genes are unlikely to replicate. D) Transferred genes may not have appropriately controlled activity. E) mRNA from transferred genes cannot be translated. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.4 Section: 20.5 56) Which type of disorder is most difficult to correct by gene therapy? A) A dominant disorder B) An incompletely dominant disorder C) A recessive disorder D) Disorders showing all of these forms of dominance present equal challenges. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.4 Section: 20.5 57) Gene therapy requires ________. A) knowledge and availability of the normal allele of the defective gene B) the ability to introduce the normal allele into the patient C) the ability to express the introduced gene at the correct level, time, and tissue site within the patient D) knowledge and availability of the normal allele of the defective gene and the ability to introduce the allele into the patient E) knowledge and availability of the normal allele of the defective gene, an ability to introduce the normal allele into the patient, and an ability to express the introduced gene at the correct level, and time, and tissue site within the patient Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.4 Section: 20.5

58) For applications in gene therapy, what is the most favorable characteristic of retroviruses? A) Retroviruses have an RNA genome. B) Retroviruses possess reverse transcriptase. C) DNA copies of retroviral genomes become integrated into the genome of the infected cell. D) Retroviruses mutate often. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 20.4 Section: 20.5 59) DNA microarrays have made a huge impact on genomic studies because they ________. A) can be used to eliminate the function of any gene in the genome B) can be used to introduce entire genomes into bacterial cells C) allow the expression of many or even all of the genes in the genome to be compared at once D) allow physical maps of the genome to be assembled in a very short time E) dramatically enhance the efficiency of restriction enzymes (endonucleases) Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 20.4 Section: 20.6 60) Proteomics is defined as the ________. A) linkage of each gene to a particular protein B) study of the full protein set encoded by a genome C) totality of the functional possibilities of a single protein D) study of how amino acids are ordered in a protein E) study of how a single gene activates many proteins Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 20.7 Section: 20.6

61) Which of the following questions is asked in functional genomics research? A) What is the number of Drosophila genes? B) How does the G-C content of human DNA vary across the genome? C) What is the pattern of gene expression during mouse development? D) How many introns exist in the human CFTR gene? E) How closely related are the visual pigment genes of mouse and human? Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 20.7 Section: 20.6 62) What can proteomics reveal that genomics cannot? A) The number of genes characteristic of a species B) The patterns of alternative splicing C) The set of proteins present within a cell or tissue type D) The levels of mRNAs present in a particular cell type E) The movement of transposable elements within the genome Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS, SS LO: 20.7 Section: 20.6 63) The areas that have received the greatest attention in genetically modified plants are ________. A) improved product quality and increased pest and herbicide resistance B) improved product quality, more rapid growth rate through plant hormone production, and decreased herbicide resistance C) more rapid growth rate through plant hormone production, pharmaceutical production, and increased antibiotic resistance D) pharmaceutical production, production of useful compounds not normally found in nature (xenobiotics), and the ability to remove or neutralize toxic compounds from the environment (bioremediation) Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 20.10 Section: 20.6

64) One example of an innovation from an unexpected source comes from studies of tumorlike plant growths. What information did the study of plant tumors provide that was critical for plant genetic engineering? A) Understanding the role of plant hormones in growth promotion B) Knowledge of plant tumor suppressor and proto-oncogenes C) Learning that metastasis is critical for tumor progression D) Learning the biosynthetic pathway to β-carotene E) Discovery of a plasmid that could be modified to introduce genes into plants Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 20.10 Section: 20.6

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 21 Genes, Development, and Evolution 1) Which of the following statements about the DNA in one of your brain cells is TRUE? A) Most of the DNA codes for protein. B) All of the genes of the genome are likely to be transcribed. C) Each gene lies immediately adjacent to an enhancer. D) Many genes are grouped into operon-like clusters. E) It is the same as the DNA in one of your heart cells. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.1 Section: 21.1 2) If each plant cell is a genetic equivalent of another cell in the same plant, then a horticulturalist could produce a clone of a prize-winning plant by harvesting a cell from ________. A) the stem of the prized plant B) the root of the prized plant C) only the seeds of the prized plant D) the stem or the root of the prized plant E) the stem and the root (together) of the prized plant Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, SF V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 21.1 Section: 21.1 3) Which of the following is TRUE of the cloning experiment that resulted in Dolly the sheep? A) Dolly was genetically identical to the egg-cell donor. B) Dolly was cloned by fusing an egg with an embryonic stem cell. C) Dolly was infertile, which indicated incomplete nuclear reprogramming. D) Dolly was cloned by using a differentiated cell fused to an egg from another individual. E) Dolly was cloned by fusing the nuclei from two separate eggs harvested from the same individual. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 21.1 Section: 21.1

4) What is the primary mechanism by which eukaryotes control transcription during cellular differentiation? A) Regulatory transcription factors that influence chromatin structure and bind to regulatory regions B) Production of microRNAs to disable mRNAs that should not be expressed C) Posttranslational control of proteins through ubiquitination and phosphorylation D) Alternative splicing of genes in different tissue types E) Inhibition of RNA polymerase through the expression of inhibitory enzymes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.1 Section: 21.1 5) The function of enhancers is an example of ________. A) transcriptional control of gene expression B) a posttranscriptional mechanism to regulate mRNA C) the stimulation of translation by initiation factors D) posttranslational control that activates certain proteins E) a eukaryotic equivalent of prokaryotic promoter functioning Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 21.1 Section: 21.1 6) Cell differentiation always involves ________. A) the production of tissue-specific proteins B) the movement of cells C) the transcription of the myoD gene D) the selective loss of certain genes from the genome E) the cell's sensitivity to environmental cues, such as light or heat Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.1 Section: 21.1

7) If an animal cell is transplanted to another portion of the developing embryo and it maintains its initial cell type, it is said to be ________. A) inherited B) determined C) a morphogen D) a myoblast E) a stem cell Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.2 Section: 21.2 8) Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they ________. A) express different genes B) contain different genes C) use different genetic codes D) have unique ribosomes E) have different chromosomes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.2 Section: 21.2 9) When stem cells exhibit the property of self-renewal, they produce ________. A) two types of daughter cells: a stem cell and a differentiated cell B) two types of daughter cells: a stem cell and a determined cell C) two stem cells D) new cell types E) myoblast cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.3 Section: 21.2

10) Adult plants continue to grow new root hairs and new leaves on a seasonal basis. This is a result of ________. A) determined cells that are dormant until needed B) the activation of maternal effect morphogens C) meristematic cells at branch and root tips D) effector gene products E) phototropic receptors that detect longer daylength Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.3 Section: 21.2 11) Because iPS cells are derived from a patient's differentiated cells, they may be an ideal therapeutic tool for some diseases. This is because ________. A) iPS cells are genetically engineered with bacterial genes B) iPS cells have been induced to a stem-cell-like state C) the master regulator genes have been genetically engineered D) iPS cells are no longer pluripotent E) iPS cells can grow and divide faster than the patient's typical cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.3 Section: 21.2 12) Meristematic tissue cells in plants are most similar to which kind of cells in animals? A) Somite cells B) Ectodermal cells C) Embryonic stem cells D) Mesodermal cells Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.3 Section: 21.2

13) From earliest to latest, the overall sequence of early development proceeds in which of the following sequences? A) Gastrulation → organogenesis → cleavage B) Ovulation → gastrulation → fertilization C) Cleavage → gastrulation → organogenesis D) Gastrulation → blastulation → neurulation E) Preformation → morphogenesis → neurulation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 21.4 Section: 21.3 14) Plant embryos do NOT undergo the process of ________. A) gene expression B) mitosis C) embryogenesis D) gastrulation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 21.4 Section: 21.3 15) Which one of the following processes in a developing embryo is a prerequisite for all of the other processes? A) Organogenesis B) Cell differentiation C) Mitosis D) Germ layer formation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.4 Section: 21.3

16) You are interested in studying a receptor and decide to make a knockout mouse. However, you notice severe developmental defects that result in embryonic lethality in the receptor knockout mice. Which developmental process is most likely affected if the receptor is on the cell surface, and the knockout disrupts its ability to receive a signal and initiate a transduction pathway? A) Cell proliferation B) Cell differentiation C) Cell movement D) Apoptosis E) All of the above Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 21.4 Section: 21.3 17) If a developing insect embryo was mechanically agitated in order to evenly redistribute cytoplasmic determinants throughout the embryo, then the ________. A) embryo would develop normally but at a faster rate of cell growth and differentiation B) resulting insect would be missing structures that typically develop in the absence of cytoplasmic determinants C) embryo would develop normally due to cues from induction signaling D) cytoplasmic determinants would convert to induction molecules and diffuse out of the embryo E) most daughter cells would fail to properly divide Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.4 Section: 21.3 18) Cells move to new positions as an embryo establishes its three germ-tissue layers during ________. A) determination B) cleavage C) fertilization D) induction E) gastrulation Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.4 Section: 21.3 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

19) When we compare animal development to plant development, we find that ________. A) plant cells, but not animal cells, migrate during morphogenesis B) animal cells, but not plant cells, migrate during morphogenesis C) plant cells and animal cells migrate extensively during morphogenesis D) neither plant cells nor animal cells migrate during morphogenesis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 21.4 Section: 21.3 20) During gastrulation, ________. A) formation of three embryonic cell layers B) movement and alignment of many embryonic cells C) the formation of a gastrula D) the formation of specialized adult tissues Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.4 Section: 21.3 21) Gastrulation is an important event in early embryonic development. Which of the following is NOT a result of gastrulation? A) Formation of three embryonic cell layers B) Movement and alignment of many embryonic cells C) The formation of a gastrula D) The formation of specialized adult tissues Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.4 Section: 21.3

22) During metamorphosis, a tadpole's tail is reduced in size by the process of ________. A) regeneration B) apoptosis C) meiosis D) commitment E) redifferentiation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.4 Section: 21.3 23) Why is Caenorhabditis elegans an appropriate model organism for studying developmental processes? A) C. elegans does not undergo programmed cell death. B) C. elegans has meristems, regions that contain many stem cells. C) C. elegans is transparent and has only about 1000 cells, allowing the cells to be followed during development. D) C. elegans has millions of cells that can be easily mutated to have no gastrulation. E) C. elegans has genes that are completely unique from mice and humans. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 21.4 Section: 21.3 24) Suppose there was a mutation in the segment-polarity genes of Drosophila. What do you suppose might be the outcome? A) Several segments of the embryo will be missing. B) Every other segment of the embryo will be missing. C) Legs will appear in the place of antennae. D) Antennae will appear in a different part of their usual segment. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 21.5 Section: 21.4

25) Scientists have found that the lifetimes of mRNAs coding for pair-rule regulatory elements in Drosophila embryos may last only a few minutes. What does this suggest about the overall developmental plan of an animal body? A) The role of mRNAs is less important than the position of genes in chromosomes. B) Homeotic genes have greater impact in forming an embryo than mRNA from pair-rule genes. C) Building an animal body requires a sequence of precisely timed steps. D) Timing of pair-rule sequence determination is not as important as spatial signaling. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 21.5 Section: 21.4 26) Your brother has just purchased a new plastic model airplane. He places all the parts on the table in approximately the positions in which they will be located when the model is complete. His actions are analogous to which process in development? A) Morphogenesis B) Determination C) Induction D) Differentiation E) Pattern formation Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 21.5 Section: 21.4 27) When the Bicoid protein is expressed in Drosophila, the embryo is still syncytial (divisions between cells are not yet fully developed). This information helps to explain which observation by Nüsslein-Volhard and Wieschaus? A) mRNA from the egg is translated into the Bicoid protein. B) Bicoid protein diffuses throughout the embryo in a concentration gradient. C) Bicoid protein serves as a transcription regulator. D) Bicoid protein determines the dorsal—ventral axis of the embryo. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 21.5 Section: 21.4

28) The protein of the bicoid gene in Drosophila determines the ________ of the embryo. A) anterior-posterior axis B) anterior-lateral axis C) posterior-dorsal axis D) posterior-ventral axis Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.5 Section: 21.4 29) Suppose the protein specified by bicoid was injected into Drosophila embryos so that a high concentration was present everywhere in the embryo. What might be the result of such an experiment? A) The embryos would grow larger than normal. B) The embryos would show no development of posterior regions. C) The embryos would show no development of anterior regions. D) The embryos would halt their development. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 21.5 Section: 21.4 30) Which of the following are maternal effect genes that control the orientation of the egg and thus the Drosophila embryo? A) Hox genes B) Segment polarity genes C) Egg polarity genes D) Morphogens E) Pair-rule genes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.5 Section: 21.4

31) The bicoid gene product is normally localized to the anterior end of the embryo. If large amounts of the product were injected into the posterior end as well, which of the following would occur? A) The embryo would grow to an unusually large size. B) The embryo would grow extra wings and legs. C) The embryo would probably show no anterior development and die. D) Anterior structures would form in both ends of the embryo. E) The embryo would develop normally. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 21.5 Section: 21.4 32) Suppose the pair-rule genes were inactivated in Drosophila embryos. What is the likely result of the experiment? A) The embryos would develop normally. B) The embryos would lack several segments. C) The embryos would have impaired anterior-posterior polarity. D) The embryos would have missing alternate segments. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 21.5 Section: 21.4 33) The product of the bicoid gene in Drosophila provides essential information about ________. A) lethal genes B) the dorsal-ventral axis C) the left-right axis D) segmentation E) the anterior-posterior axis Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 21.5 Section: 21.4

34) Gene expression in developing organisms is regulated on several different levels. In many developing animals, regulation of gene expression is influenced by the action of Hox genes. Which of the following regulatory elements is produced by many Hox genes? A) Transcriptional factors B) Cell-surface molecules for cell—cell interactions C) Signals from maternal cytoplasm, such as bicoid D) mRNA processing factors Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.5 Section: 21.4 35) Gap genes, segment-polarity genes, and homeotic genes all ________. A) act independently of one another B) code for transcription regulatory factors C) can be activated at any time during development D) are unique to Drosophila embryos Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.5 Section: 21.4 36) Suppose you found several Drosophila mutants that possessed additional legs growing out of their head segments. The probable mutation would be found in ________. A) segment-polarity genes B) gap genes C) pair-rule genes D) homeotic genes E) maternal effect genes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 21.5 Section: 21.4

37) In combination, the products of gap genes, pair-rule genes, and segmentation-polarity genes ________. A) trigger the reorganization of the larval body into an adult body B) define the segmented body plan of the embryo C) set up the back-to-belly axis of the larval body D) direct cell movements during differentiation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.5 Section: 21.4 38) During Drosophila development, there is a regulatory cascade of gene activation. The proper sequence for this cascade is ________. A) bicoid, gap genes, pair-rule genes, and segment-polarity genes B) bicoid, pair-rule genes, gap genes, and segment-polarity genes C) gap genes, bicoid, segment-polarity genes, and pair-rule genes D) gap genes, pair-rule genes, segment-polarity genes, and bicoid Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 21.5 Section: 21.4 39) Mutations in which of the following genes lead to transformations in the identity of entire body parts? A) Morphogens B) Segment polarity genes C) Egg-polarity genes D) Hox genes E) Pair-rule genes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 21.5 Section: 21.4

40) Which of the following likely has the most Hox genes? A) Jellyfish B) Slugs C) Dolphins D) Bees Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.5 Section: 21.4 41) As early vertebrates transitioned from an aquatic lifestyle to terrestrial habits, major changes in structural and physiological characteristics facilitated their survival and expansion. It is likely that some of these traits are a result of _________. A) new interactions between cytoplasmic determinants and the nucleus B) the ability of some cells to incorporate environmental DNA, or eDNA, into its genome C) changes in developmentally important genes, as in evo-devo D) new Hox genes that reverse some steps in development E) transcription factors that originate outside of the developing embryo Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF, E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.6 Section: 21.5 42) The duplication of homeotic (Hox) genes has been significant in the evolution of animals because it ________. A) permitted the evolution of novel forms B) caused the extinction of major groups C) reduced morphological diversity into simpler forms of life D) allowed animals to survive on significantly fewer mRNAs Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I, E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 21.6 Section: 21.5

43) Suppose you have identified a type of lizard that seems to have acquired a mutation in which hind limbs are absent. Which gene, also responsible for the loss of limbs in snakes, may be mutated in this animal? A) Bicoid B) MONOPTEROS C) PHANTASTICA D) Cytoplasmic determinants E) Sonic hedgehog Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 21.5, 21.6 Section: 21.5

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 22 Evolution by Natural Selection 1) Darwin and Wallace's theory of evolution by natural selection was revolutionary because it ________. A) was the first theory to refute the ideas of special creation B) proved that individuals acclimated to their environment over time C) dismissed the idea that species are constant and emphasized the importance of variation and change in populations D) was the first time a biologist had proposed that species changed through time Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.1 Section: 22.1 2) The Greek philosopher Plato claimed that every organism was an example of a perfect essence created by God, and that they were unchanging. What type of thinking is Plato's description of species? A) Typological B) Organismal C) Evolutionary D) Scientifically supported Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.1 Section: 22.1 3) How did Aristotle's "Great Chain of Being" differ from Plato's concept of the origin of organisms? A) Aristotle proposed that species were fixed types organized into a sequence based on increased size and complexity. B) Aristotle proposed that species were types that could evolve and that were organized into a sequence based on increased size and complexity. C) Aristotle proposed that species were fixed types organized into a sequence based on increased size only. D) Aristotle proposed that species were types that could evolve and that were organized into a sequence based on increased complexity. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.1 Section: 22.1 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) Lamarck developed a hypothesis to explain the inheritance of traits that is often referred to as the "inheritance of acquired characters." This idea suggests that ________. A) as an individual develops, its genotype changes in response to challenges posed by the environment, and it passes on new phenotypic changes to offspring B) as an embryo develops, its mother's phenotype changes in response to challenges posed by the environment, and the mother passes on these phenotypic changes to offspring C) as an individual develops, its genotype changes in response to challenges posed by the environment, and it passes on these genotypic changes to offspring D) as an individual develops, its phenotype changes in response to challenges posed by the environment, and it passes on these phenotypic changes to offspring Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.1 Section: 22.1 5) Which of the pairs of plant structures below are homologous? A) Oak tree root and leaf B) Rose bush stem and flower C) Rose bush leaf and oak tree leaf D) There are no homologous plant structures. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.2 Section: 22.2 6) Which of the following most strongly supports the common origin of all life on Earth? All organisms ________. A) require energy B) use essentially the same genetic code C) reproduce D) show heritable variation E) evolve Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.2 Section: 22.2

7) This question refers to the accompanying figure, which shows an outcrop of sedimentary rock whose strata are labeled A–D. If x indicates the location of fossils of two closely related species, then fossils of their most recent common ancestor are most likely to occur in which stratum?

A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.2 Section: 22.2

8) This question refers to the accompanying figure, which shows an outcrop of sedimentary rock whose strata are labeled A-D. If x indicates the location of fossils of two closely related species, then fossils of their most recent common ancestor are most likely to occur in which stratum?

If x indicates the fossils of two closely related species, neither of which is extinct, then their remains may be found in how many of these strata? A) One stratum B) Two strata C) Three strata D) Four strata Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.2 Section: 22.2

9) About thirteen different species of finches inhabit the Galápagos Islands today, all descendants of a common ancestor from the South American mainland that arrived a few million years ago. Genetically, there are four distinct lineages, but the thirteen species are currently classified among three genera. The first lineage to diverge from the ancestral lineage was the warbler finch (genus Certhidea). Next to diverge was the vegetarian finch (genus Camarhynchus), followed by five tree finch species (also in genus Camarhynchus) and six ground finch species (genus Geospiza). If the six ground finch species have evolved most recently, then which of these is the most logical prediction? A) They should be limited to the six islands that most recently emerged from the sea. B) Their genomes should be more similar to each other than are the genomes of the five tree finch species. C) They should share fewer anatomical homologies with each other than they share with the tree finches. D) The chances of hybridization between two ground finch species should be less than the chances of hybridization between two tree finch species. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.2 Section: 22.2 10) Logically, which of these should cast the most doubt on the relationships depicted by an evolutionary tree? A) None of the organisms depicted by the tree ate the same foods. B) Some of the organisms depicted by the tree had lived in different habitats. C) The skeletal remains of the organisms depicted by the tree were incomplete (in other words, some bones were missing). D) Transitional fossils had not been found. E) Relationships between DNA sequences among the species did not match relationships between skeletal patterns. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.2 Section: 22.2

11) Fossils of Thrinaxodon, a species that lived during the Triassic period, have been found in both South Africa and Antarctica. Thrinaxodon had a reptile-like skeleton and laid eggs, but small depressions on the front of its skull suggest it had whiskers and, therefore, fur. Thrinaxodon may have been warm-blooded. The fossils of Thrinaxodon are consistent with the hypothesis that ________. A) fossils found in a given area look like the modern species in that same area B) the environment where it lived was very warm C) mammals evolved from a reptilian ancestor D) Antarctica and South Africa separated after Thrinaxodon went extinct Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.2 Section: 22.2 12) The giant sloth described by Georges Cuvier suggests that ________. A) organisms could not have originated by special creation B) organisms could go extinct C) the great flood or some other catastrophe caused the evolution of new species D) the Earth is old enough for evolution to have occurred Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.2 Section: 22.2 13) Many crustaceans (e.g., lobsters, shrimp, and crayfish) use their tails to swim, but crabs have reduced tails that curl under their shells and are not used in swimming. This is an example of ________. A) convergent evolution B) a homologous structure C) natural selection D) a vestigial trait Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.2 Section: 22.2

14) Which of the following, if discovered, could refute our current understanding of the pattern of evolution? A) No fossils of soft-bodied animals B) A modern bird having reptile-like scales on its legs C) Radioactive dating of rocks showing that rocks closer to the Earth's surface are younger than lower rock strata. D) Diverse fossils of mammals in Precambrian rock Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.2 Section: 22.2 15) Similar gill pouches in embryos of a chick, human, and cat are an example of ________. A) structural homology B) developmental homology C) genetic homology D) the inheritance of acquired characters Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.2 Section: 22.2 16) The same basic internal organs (kidneys, stomach, heart, and lungs) are found in frogs, birds, snakes, and rodents. This is primarily an example of ________. A) structural homology B) developmental homology C) genetic correlation D) inheritance of acquired characteristics Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.2 Section: 22.2

17) What must be TRUE of any organ described as vestigial? A) It must be analogous to some feature in an ancestor. B) It must be homologous to some feature in an ancestor. C) It must be both homologous and analogous to some feature in an ancestor. D) It needs to be neither homologous nor analogous to some feature in an ancestor. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.2 Section: 22.2 18) Which piece of evidence supports the hypothesis that cetaceans (whales) evolved from terrestrial mammals as opposed to some aquatic organisms? A) A phylogeny of fossil cetaceans indicates that a gradual transition occurred between terrestrial forms and aquatic, whale-like forms. B) DNA comparisons show that whales and hippos share more genetic sequences than whales share with other organisms. C) Some modern cetaceans have a vestigial hind limb buds. D) Whales arose from a terrestrial ancestor about 50 million years ago. E) Many independent lines of evidence converge on the conclusion that whales gradually evolved from a terrestrial mammalian ancestor about 50 million years ago. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.2 Section: 22.2 19) A dairy farmer chooses to mate a male bull only with the female heifers that always make the greatest amount of milk, rather than heifers that produce a small amount of milk. What process is the dairy farmer employing when producing the next generation of calves? A) Natural selection B) Artificial selection C) Sexual selection D) Balancing selection Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.3 Section: 22.3

20) Given a population that contains genetic variation, what is the correct sequence of the following events under the influence of natural selection? 1. Well-adapted individuals leave more offspring than do poorly-adapted individuals. 2. A change occurs in the environment. 3. Genetic frequencies within the population change. 4. Poorly-adapted individuals have decreased survivorship. A) 2 → 4 → 1 → 3 B) 4 → 2 → 1 → 3 C) 4 → 1 → 2 → 3 D) 4 → 2 → 3 → 1 E) 2 → 4 → 3 → 1 Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.3 Section: 22.3 21) Cotton-topped tamarins are small primates with tufts of long white hair on their heads. While studying these creatures, you notice that males with longer hair get more opportunities to mate and father more offspring. To test the hypothesis that having longer hair is adaptive in these males, you should ________. A) test whether other traits in these males are also adaptive B) look for evidence of hair in ancestors of tamarins C) determine if hair length is heritable D) test whether males with shaved heads are still able to mate Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.3 Section: 22.3 22) A farmer uses triazine herbicide to control pigweed in his field. For the first few years, the triazine works well and almost all the pigweed dies; but after several years, the farmer sees more and more pigweed. Which of these explanations best explains what happened? A) The herbicide company lost its triazine formula and started selling poor-quality triazine. B) Natural selection caused the pigweed to mutate, creating a new triazine-resistant species. C) Triazine-resistant pigweed has less efficient photosynthesis metabolism. D) Triazine-resistant weeds were more likely to survive and reproduce. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.4 Section: 22.4 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

23) Researchers discovered that a new strain of bacteria that causes tuberculosis (M. tuberculosis) has a point mutation in the rpoB gene that codes for part of the RNA polymerase enzyme. This mutant form of RNA polymerase does not function as well as the more common form of RNA polymerase. A commonly used antibiotic called rifampin does not affect the mutant rpoB bacteria. A researcher mixes M. tuberculosis with and without the rpoB mutation and adds the bacteria to cell cultures. Half the cell cultures contain only standard nutrients, while the other half of the cell cultures contain rifampin and the standard nutrients. After many cell generations, the researcher finds that ________. A) very few M. tuberculosis in the standard nutrient cell cultures carry the rpoB gene mutation, but almost all of the M. tuberculosis in the cell cultures with rifampin carry the rpoB mutation B) almost all M. tuberculosis in the standard nutrient cell cultures carry the rpoB gene mutation, but very few of the M. tuberculosis in the cell cultures with rifampin carry the rpoB mutation C) very few M. tuberculosis in any of the cell cultures carry the rpoB gene mutation D) almost all of the M. tuberculosis in both types of cell cultures carry the rpoB mutation E) a mix of both M. tuberculosis strains thrive in the standard cell cultures, but no living bacteria can be found in the cell cultures that contain rifampin Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.4 Section: 22.4 24) After the drought of 1977, researchers on the island of Daphne Major hypothesized that medium ground finches that had large, deep beaks survived better than those with smaller beaks because they could more easily crack and eat the tough Tribulus cistoides fruits. If this hypothesis is correct, what would you expect to observe if a population of these medium ground finches colonizes a nearby island where T. cistoides is the most abundant food for the next 1000 years? Assume that (1) even the survivors of the 1977 drought sometimes had difficulty cracking the tough T. cistoides fruits and would eat other seeds when offered a choice; and (2) food availability is the primary limit on finch fitness on this new island. A) Evolution of yet larger, deeper beaks over time B) Evolution of smaller, pointier beaks over time C) Random fluctuations in beak size and shape D) No change in beak size and shape Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.4 Section: 22.4

25) After the drought of 1977, researchers hypothesized that on the Galápagos island Daphne Major, medium ground finches with large, deep beaks survived better than those with smaller beaks because they could more easily crack and eat the tough T. cistoides fruits. A tourist company sets up reliable feeding stations with a variety of bird seeds (different types and sizes) so that tourists can get a better look at the finches. Which of these events is now most likely to occur to finch beaks on this island? A) Evolution of yet larger, deeper beaks over time, until all birds have relatively large, deep beaks B) Evolution of smaller, pointier beaks over time, until all birds have relatively small, pointy beaks C) Increased variation in beak size and shape over time D) No change in beak size and shape over time Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.4 Section: 22.4 26) The following question is based on information from Frank M. Frey, "Opposing Natural Selection from Herbivores and Pathogens May Maintain Floral-Color Variation in Claytonia virginica (Portulacaceae)," Evolution 58(11), 2004: 2426-37. Claytonia virginica is a woodland spring herb with flowers that vary from white to pale pink to bright pink. Slugs prefer to eat pink-flowering plants over white-flowering plants (due to chemical differences between the two), and plants experiencing severe herbivory are more likely to die. The bees that pollinate this plant also prefer pink to white flowers, so Claytonia with pink flowers have greater relative fruit set than Claytonia with white flowers. A researcher observes that the percentage of different flower colors remains stable in the study population from year to year. With no other information, if the researcher removes all slugs from the study population, what do you expect to happen to the distribution of flower colors in the population over time? A) The percentage of pink flowers should increase over time. B) The percentage of white flowers should increase over time. C) The distribution of flower colors should not change. D) The distribution of flower colors should randomly fluctuate over time. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.4 Section: 22.4

27) The accompanying figure is from Hopi E. Hoekstra, Kristen E. Drumm, and Michael W. Nachman, "Ecological Genetics of Adaptive Color Polymorphism in Pocket Mice: Geographic Variation in Selected and Neutral Genes," Evolution 58(6), 2004: 1329–41. It shows the distribution of pocket-mouse coat colors in several Arizona populations found either on lightcolored granite substrate or on dark volcanic rock (dark substrate). The melanocortin-1 receptor (Mc1r) alleles, D and d, differ by four amino acids. Mice with DD and Dd genotypes have dark coats, whereas mice with the dd genotype are light colored. What sort of genotype frequencies might you expect to find in the Xmas, Mid, and O'Neill populations?

A) Xmas-high DD frequency; Mid-high Dd frequency, O'Neill-high dd frequency B) Xmas-high Dd frequency; Mid-high DD frequency, O'Neill-high dd frequency C) Xmas-high Dd frequency; Mid-high dd frequency, O'Neill-high DD frequency D) Xmas-high dd frequency; Mid-high Dd frequency, O'Neill-high DD frequency E) Xmas-high dd frequency; Mid-high DD frequency, O'Neill-high Dd frequency Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.4 Section: 22.4

28) DDT was once considered a "silver bullet" that would permanently eradicate insect pests. Instead, DDT is largely useless against many insects. Which of these would have prevented this evolution of DDT resistance in insect pests? A) Larger doses of DDT should have been applied from the air, into water, and within the soil. B) All habitats should have received applications of DDT at about the same time. C) The frequency of DDT application should have been higher. D) None of the insect pests would have genetic variations that resulted in DDT resistance. E) DDT application should have been continual. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.4 Section: 22.4 29) If the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus experiences a cost for maintaining one or more antibiotic-resistance genes, what would happen in environments that lack antibiotics? A) These genes would be maintained in case the antibiotics appear. B) These bacteria would be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost these genes. C) These bacteria would try to make the cost worthwhile by locating and migrating to microenvironments where traces of antibiotics are present. D) The number of genes conveying antibiotic resistance would increase in these bacteria. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.4 Section: 22.4 30) Which statement about the beak size of finches on the island of Daphne Major during prolonged drought is TRUE? A) Each bird evolved a deeper, stronger beak as the drought persisted. B) Each bird's survival was strongly influenced by the depth and strength of its beak as the drought persisted. C) Each bird that survived the drought produced only offspring with deeper, stronger beaks than seen in the previous generation. D) The frequency of the strong-beak alleles increased in each bird as the drought persisted. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.4 Section: 22.4

31) There is a population of beetles that typically have black wings. A scientist studying these beetles knows that their eggs hatch in early spring, the young insects grow through the late spring and summer, they lay eggs in the early fall, and they die in the early winter. Recently some beetles have been born with white wings. Early in life, the black- and white-winged beetles seem to be very similar in number of mating events, eggs laid, and survival rates, but shortly after laying their eggs, the white beetles die, and there are only black-winged beetles during the late fall. Which of the following is a TRUE statement about the beetles? A) White- and black-winged beetles have equal fitness. B) Black-winged beetles have a higher fitness than white-winged beetles. C) The number of baby white-winged beetles will decrease in frequency over time. D) White wings are an adaptation. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.5 Section: 22.5 32) Biological fitness is best defined as ________. A) a heritable trait that increases the match of an individual to its environment B) variability in the population for a trait that increases survival C) the ability of an individual to produce offspring that survive and reproduce, relative to other individuals in the population D) competition among individuals for resources that allow them to have more offspring E) similar reproductive success among individuals in a population Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.5 Section: 22.5 33) If you say that a ground squirrel has greater evolutionary fitness than another ground squirrel in the same population, you mean that the animal ________. A) has a longer life B) is able to mate more frequently C) is able to dominate other squirrels to gain access to food D) has more offspring that survive and reproduce themselves E) All of the above statements are correct. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.5 Section: 22.5

34) Vestigial traits and neutral changes in DNA sequences are good examples of ________. A) adaptation B) acclimation C) convergent traits D) nonadaptive traits E) none of the above Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.5 Section: 22.5 35) Which of the following is a fitness trade-off (compromise)? A) In some hornbill species, the male helps seal the female in a tree with her nest until the young are ready to fledge. B) Hummingbirds are the best pollinators of certain flowers, but bees are the best pollinators for orchids. C) The strong, thick beak of a woodpecker helps it find insects in trees. D) Turtle shells provide protection but are heavy and burdensome when moving. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.5 Section: 22.5 36) Over long periods of time, many cave-dwelling organisms have lost their eyes. Tapeworms have lost their digestive systems. Whales have lost their hind limbs. How can natural selection account for these losses? A) Natural selection cannot account for losses but accounts only for new structures and functions. B) Natural selection accounts for these losses by the principle of use and disuse. C) Under particular circumstances that persisted for long periods, each of these structures presented greater costs than benefits. D) The ancestors of these organisms experienced harmful mutations that forced them to lose these structures. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.5.3 Section: 22.5

37) A proficient engineer can easily design skeletal structures that are more functional than those currently found in the forelimbs of such diverse mammals as horses, whales, and bats. The actual forelimbs of these mammals do NOT seem to be optimally arranged because ________. A) natural selection has not had sufficient time to create the optimal design in each case but will do so given enough time B) in many cases, phenotype is determined by genotype and the environment C) though we may not consider the fit between the current skeletal arrangements and their functions excellent, we should not doubt that natural selection ultimately produces the best design D) natural selection is generally limited to modifying structures that were present in previous generations and/or in previous species Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.5 Section: 22.5 38) Use the following information to answer the question below. In those parts of equatorial Africa where the malaria parasite is most common, the sickle-cell allele constitutes 20 percent of the β hemoglobin alleles in the human gene pool. The sickle-cell allele is pleiotropic (i.e., it affects more than one phenotypic trait). Specifically, this allele affects oxygen delivery to tissues and affects one's susceptibility to malaria. Heterozygous individuals who have one normal and one sickle-cell allele have a phenotype that has both costs and benefits. The cost: Under conditions of low atmospheric oxygen availability, individuals heterozygous for this allele can experience life-threatening sickle-cell "crises." The benefit: Such individuals are less susceptible to malaria. Thus, pleiotropic genes/alleles reveal that ________. A) new advantageous alleles do not arise on demand B) evolution is limited by historical constraints C) adaptations are often compromises D) chance events can affect the evolutionary history of populations Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 22.5 Section: 22.5

39) Which of these four student models are successful in showing the homology of wings in insects (including ants, beetles, moths, and flies)? Select all that apply. A)

Answer: A, B LO: 22.2; EO: 22.1.2

40) Which of these four student models are successful in showing the most recent common ancestor of insects (including ants, beetles, moths, and flies)? Select all that apply. A)

Answer: A LO: 22.2; EO: 22.1.2

A student has drawn a phylogenetic tree of arthropods. Interpret her model.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 41) A carapace is a homologous trait in shrimp and crabs. Answer: TRUE LO: 22.2; EO: 22.1.2 42) Ancestor A had wings. Answer: FALSE LO: 22.2; EO: 22.1.2 43) Ancestor C had chelicerae. Answer: TRUE LO: 22.2; EO: 22.1.2 44) An exoskeleton is a homologous trait in mites, spiders, and scorpions. Answer: TRUE LO: 22.2; EO: 22.1.2 45) Wings are a homologous trait in moths and flies. Answer: TRUE LO: 22.2; EO: 22.1.2 46) Ancestor B had an exoskeleton. Answer: TRUE LO: 22.2; EO: 22.1.2

A student has drawn a phylogenetic tree of several plants. Interpret her model.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 47) Cones are a homologous trait in pines and cedars. Answer: TRUE LO: 22.2; EO: 22.1.2 48) Vessel elements are a homologous trait in club mosses and irises. Answer: FALSE LO: 22.2; EO: 22.1.2 49) Flowers are a homologous trait in magnolias and cacao. Answer: TRUE LO: 22.2; EO: 22.1.2 50) The ancestor marked with the black dot had seeds. Answer: FALSE LO: 22.2; EO: 22.1.2 51) Seeds are a homologous trait in pines and cedars. Answer: TRUE LO: 22.2; EO: 22.1.2 52) Alternation of generations is a homologous trait in club mosses and roses. Answer: TRUE LO: 22.2; EO: 22.1.2

53) Which of the following student drawings does the best job of illustrating Darwin's first postulate, that there is variation among individuals in a population? (Each color represents a different species.) A)

Answer: A LO: 22.3; EO: 22.3.2

54) Which drawing of a population of bacteria does the best job of illustrating Darwin's first postulate, that there is variation among individuals in a population? (The color red represents the ability of the bacteria to digest the sugar lactose.) A)

Answer: D LO: 22.3; EO: 22.3.2

55) Which drawing of a population of bacteria does the best job of illustrating Darwin's fourth postulate, that reproduction and/or survival are nonrandom? (The color red represents the ability of the bacteria to digest the sugar lactose.) A)

Answer: B LO: 22.3; EO: 22.3.2

56) Chris has drawn a model of grass plants to represent which of Darwin's postulates?

Select all that apply. A) Variation exists among individuals in a population. B) Some variation is heritable. C) Survival and reproductive success is variable. D) Survival and reproductive success is nonrandom. Answer: A, B, C, D LO: 22.3; EO: 22.3.2

57) Which of these trees show the same evolutionary relationships? Select all that apply. A)

Answer: A, B, C, D LO: 22.1; EO: 22.1.1

Interpret the phylogenetic tree.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 58) More evolution occurs in the short branches than occurs in the long branches. Answer: FALSE LO: 22.1; EO: 22.1.1 59) The most recent common ancestor of apples and roses is more recent than the most recent common ancestor of roses and red algae. Answer: TRUE LO: 22.1; EO: 22.1.1 60) This tree shows that red algae evolved into green algae, which evolved into mosses, which evolved into ferns, and so on. Answer: FALSE LO: 22.1; EO: 22.1.1 61) The red algae that live today are the common ancestors of all other organisms in this tree. Answer: FALSE LO: 22.1; EO: 22.1.1 62) This tree shows that red algae are the lowest form of life of this group. Answer: FALSE LO: 22.1; EO: 22.1.1 63) This tree could be rotated so that the branch for red algae is on the bottom rather than the top of the tree. Answer: TRUE LO: 22.1; EO: 22.1.1 26 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 23 Evolutionary Processes 1) Evolution in a population of sea turtles can be caused by the following agent(s). A) Natural selection B) Genetic drift C) Gene flow D) All of the above can be agents. E) Both natural selection and genetic drift Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.3 Section: 23.0 2) Which of the following terms refers to the hypothetical grouping of all of the alleles from all the gametes produced in each generation by a group of organisms? A) Gamete pool B) Gene pool C) Punnett square D) Hardy—Weinberg equilibrium Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.1 Section: 23.1 3) People with cystic fibrosis (CF) are homozygous recessive for mutations in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene. These mutations cause the CFTR protein to become dysfunctional, and it is unable to move chloride to the cell surface. Ultimately mucus can build up in organs, and in the lungs, the mucus clogs the airways and traps bacteria, leading to infections, inflammation, and respiratory failure. In a human population, if 9 in 10,000 newborn babies are born with CF, what are the expected frequencies of the dominant (A1) and recessive (A2) alleles according to the Hardy-Weinberg model in that population? A) p = 0.9997, q = 0.0003 B) p = 0.9800, q = 0.0200 C) p = 0.9700, q = 0.0300 D) p = 0.9604, q = 0.0392 E) p = 0.9600, q = 0.0400 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, QR V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.1 Section: 23.1 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) Suppose 64 percent of people living in a remote, isolated mountain village can taste phenylthiocarbamide (PTC) and must, therefore, have at least one copy of the dominant PTC taster allele. If this population conforms to Hardy-Weinberg expectations for this gene, what percentage of the population must be heterozygous for this trait? A) 16 percent B) 32 percent C) 40 percent D) 48 percent E) 60 percent Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, QR V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.1 Section: 23.1 5) For biologists studying a large flatworm population in the lab, which Hardy-Weinberg condition is most difficult to meet? A) No selection B) No genetic drift C) No gene flow D) No mutation E) Random mating Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.1 Section: 23.1 6) For a biologist studying a small fish population in the lab, which Hardy—Weinberg condition is easiest to meet? A) No selection B) No genetic drift C) No gene flow D) No mutation E) Random mating Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.1 Section: 23.1

7) Use the accompanying information to answer the question: Researchers studying a small milkweed population note that some plants produce a toxin and other plants do not. They identify the gene responsible for toxin production. The dominant allele (T) codes for an enzyme that makes the toxin, and the recessive allele (t) codes for a nonfunctional enzyme that cannot produce the toxin. Heterozygotes produce an intermediate amount of toxin. The genotypes of all individuals in the population are determined (see chart) and used to determine the actual allele frequencies in the population.

Refer to the accompanying figure. Is this population in Hardy—Weinberg equilibrium? A) Yes B) No; there are more heterozygotes observed in the population than expected. C) No; there are more homozygotes observed in the population than expected. D) It is impossible to tell. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, QR V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.1 Section: 23.1 8) Why doesn't inbreeding depression, by itself, cause evolution? A) It decreases the population's average fitness. B) It limits gene flow. C) It does not change the population's allele frequencies. D) It increases homozygosity. E) It violates the Hardy-Weinberg assumptions. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.2 Section: 23.2

9) When nonrandom mating occurs in a population so that individuals prefer to mate with similar individuals, allele frequencies should A) remain the same, but homozygotes will be overrepresented in the population. B) remain the same, but heterozygotes will be overrepresented in the population. C) change and heterozygotes will be overrepresented in the population. D) change and homozygotes will be overrepresented in the population. E) remain the same, at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, QR V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.2 Section: 23.2 Martin Wikelski and L. Michael Romero (Body size, performance, and fitness in Galápagos marine iguanas, Integrative and Comparative Biology 43 [2003]: 376-86) measured the snouttovent (anus) length of Galápagos marine iguanas and observed the percent survival of different sized animals, all of the same age. The graph shows the log snout—vent length (SVL, a measure of overall body size) plotted against the percent survival of these different-sized classes for males and females.

10) Examine the accompanying figure. What type of selection for body size appears to be occurring in these marine iguanas? A) Directional selection B) Stabilizing selection C) Disruptive selection D) You cannot determine the type of selection from the above information. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.3 Section: 23.3

11) Wikelski and Romero (2003) found that large marine iguanas had higher reproductive success than smaller iguanas. However, the large iguanas were generally in poor body condition because they could not eat enough; at higher temperatures, their foraging efficiency improved, allowing them to eat more. Thus, Wikelski and Romero hypothesized that iguana size will ________ as global climate change increases air and water temperatures in the Galápagos Islands. A) increase B) decrease C) stabilize around the mean body size D) remain unchanged (it is not clear that body size increases fitness) Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.3 Section: 23.3 12) Currently, the only predators of Galápagos marine iguanas are Galápagos hawks. Iguana body size is not correlated with risk of hawk predation, although small iguanas can sprint faster than large iguanas. If predators (e.g., cats) that preferentially catch and eat slower iguanas are introduced to the island, iguana body size is likely to ________ in the absence of other factors; the iguanas would then be under ________ selection. A) increase; directional B) increase; disruptive C) decrease; directional D) decrease; disruptive E) stay the same; stabilizing Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.3 Section: 23.3

13) European whitefish (Coregonus lavaretus) show heritable variation in gill raker length related to differences in their diets. Longer gill rakers appear to function better for capturing open-water (pelagic) prey, while shorter gill rakers function better for capturing shallow-water (benthic) prey. Which of the following types of selection is most likely to be found in a large lake (open water in the middle and shallow water around the sides) with a high density of these fish? A) Directional selection B) Stabilizing selection C) Disruptive selection D) Sexual selection Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 23.3 Section: 23.3

14)

Which of the graphs shown best represents the relationship between the intensity of directional selection and the genetic variation present within a population? A) Graph A B) Graph B C) Graph C D) Graph D E) Graph E Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E, QR V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.3 Section: 23.3

15) Which of the following is most likely to produce an African butterfly species in the wild whose populations show two strikingly different color patterns? A) Artificial selection B) Directional selection C) Stabilizing selection D) Disruptive selection E) Sexual selection Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.3 Section: 23.3 16) Most Swiss starlings produce four to five eggs in each clutch. Starlings producing fewer or more than this have reduced fitness. Which of the following terms best describes this situation? A) Artificial selection B) Directional selection C) Stabilizing selection D) Disruptive selection E) Sexual selection Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.3 Section: 23.3 17) The recessive allele that causes sickle cell anemia in humans is harmful to homozygous individuals. What maintains the presence of this allele in a population's gene pool? A) Heterozygote advantage B) Stabilizing selection C) Diploidy D) Disruptive selection Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.3 Section: 23.3

18) In seedcracker finches from Cameroon, small- and large-billed birds specialize in cracking soft and hard seeds, respectively. If long-term climatic change resulted in all seeds becoming hard, what type of selection would then operate on the finch population? A) Disruptive selection B) Directional selection C) Stabilizing selection D) No selection would operate because the population is in Hardy—Weinberg equilibrium. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.4 Section: 23.3 19) In all three species of phalarope, a taxon of wading shorebirds, the majority of parental care is provided by the male. Based on the Bateman-Trivers hypothesis of sexual selection, what would you expect to see in phalaropes? A) Chick survival is very low. B) Females are more brightly colored than males. C) Each female mates with a single male. D) Males are larger than females. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.3 Section: 23.3 20) In some animals, females select males as mates based on their ability to ward off infection as indicated by traits that the males possess. This is an example of ________. A) direct benefits B) honest signaling C) initial advantage D) sensory bias Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.3 Section: 23.3

21) Large male horned dung beetles, Onthophagus taurus, use their horns as weapons in fights with rival males over ownership of breeding tunnels containing females. Females excavate tunnels beneath fresh dung piles where they mate with the males, and then lay their eggs. The use of the horns by the males in contest for the breeding tunnels is an example of: I: intersexual selection II: intrasexual selection III: sexual selection A) I and II B) II and III C) I and III D) I, II and III Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.3 Section: 23.3 22) Male peacocks have an extravagant train of tail feathers, whereas female peahens lack this trait. This difference between the males and females of this species is referred to as ________. A) sexual dimorphism B) primary sexual characteristic C) Bateman's rule D) sexual selection Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.3 Section: 23.3

23)

Soon after the island of Hawaii rose above the sea surface (somewhat less than 1 million years ago) and organisms colonized the island, the evolution of life on this new island should have been most strongly influenced by ________. A) a genetic bottleneck B) sexual selection C) habitat differentiation D) founder effects Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.4 Section: 23.4

24) Use the following information to answer the question below. In 1983, a population of dark-eyed junco birds became established on the campus of the University of California, San Diego (UCSD), which is located many miles from the junco's normal habitat in the mixed-coniferous temperate forests in the mountains. Juncos have white outer tail feathers that the males display during aggressive interactions and during courtship displays. Males with more white in their tail are more likely to win aggressive interactions, and females prefer to mate with males with more white in their tails. Females have less white in their tails than do males and display it less often. (Pamela J. Yeh. 2004. Rapid evolution of a sexually selected trait following population establishment in a novel habitat. Evolution 58[1]:166–74.) The UCSD campus male junco population tails were, on average, 36 percent white, whereas the tails of males from nearby mountain populations averaged 40-45 percent white. If this observed trait difference were due to a difference in the original colonizing population, it would most likely be due to ________. A) mutations in the UCSD population B) sexual selection C) gene flow between populations D) a genetic bottleneck E) a founder effect Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.4 Section: 23.4 25) The Dunkers are a religious group that moved from Germany to Pennsylvania in the mid1700s. They do not marry members outside their own immediate community. Today, the Dunkers are genetically unique and differ in gene frequencies, at many loci, from all other populations, including those in their original homeland. Which of the following likely explains the genetic uniqueness of this population? A) Population bottleneck and Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium B) Heterozygote advantage and stabilizing selection C) Sexual selection and inbreeding depression D) Mutation and natural selection E) Founder effect, inbreeding, and genetic drift Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.2, 23.4 Section: 23.4

26) In a small population of alpine foxes, you observe increased ear length over a 10-year period. Can you conclude that increase in ear length is advantageous in this population? A) Yes B) No Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.3 Section: 23.3 27) Genetic drift occurs in a population. Which of the following statements might be TRUE? A) Genetic drift increased the population's fitness. B) Genetic drift decreased the population's fitness. C) The population was relatively small. D) The population experiences a decrease in genetic variation. E) Any of these statements can be true. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.4 Section: 23.4 28) The cause of genetic drift is sampling error, which occurs ________. A) when allele frequencies of a chosen subset of a population are different from those in the total population, by selection B) when allele frequencies of a chosen subset of a population are different from those in the total population, by chance C) when allele frequencies of a chosen subset of a population are the same as those in the total population, by selection D) when allele frequencies of a chosen subset of a population are the same as those in the total population, by chance Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.4 Section: 23.4

29) An earthquake decimates a ground squirrel population, killing 98 percent of the squirrels. The surviving population happens to have broader stripes, on average, than the initial population. If broadness of stripes is genetically determined, what effect has the ground-squirrel population experienced during the earthquake? A) Directional selection B) Disruptive selection C) A founder event D) A genetic bottleneck E) Gene flow Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.4 Section: 23.4 30) Although each of the following has a better chance of influencing gene frequencies in small populations than in large populations, which one most consistently requires a small population as a precondition for its occurrence? A) Mutation B) Nonrandom mating C) Genetic drift D) Natural selection E) Gene flow Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.4 Section: 23.4 31) Which of the following is the most predictable outcome of increased gene flow between two populations? A) Lower average fitness in both populations B) Higher average fitness in both populations C) Increased genetic difference between the two populations D) Decreased genetic difference between the two populations E) Increased genetic drift Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.5 Section: 23.5

32) Two frog populations (same species) living in two neighboring lakes sing slightly different courtship songs. Increased irrigation makes the land between the two lakes wetter, allowing frogs to expand their ranges to the area between the lakes. Females in both populations prefer loud frogs to quieter frogs but do not distinguish between the two slightly different songs. Assuming that courtship song differences are due in part to genetic differences, predict what will likely happen to the songs of the two frog populations. A) The gene flow between hatchery-reared and wild populations is increasing the fitness of the wild populations. B) The gene flow between hatchery-reared and wild populations is neither helping nor hindering the fitness of the wild population. C) This data does not help us understand effects of gene flow on fitness. D) The gene flow between hatchery-reared and wild populations is leading to a decline in fitness of wild populations. E) You cannot predict a change in the courtship songs at the two lakes. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.5 Section: 23.5

33)

Some of the steelhead trout (Oncorhynchus mykiss) in the Hood River of Oregon were raised in hatcheries and released to supplement dwindling wild populations. In one study, researchers captured and determined the parents of a group of trout and found some were offspring of wild x wild, others had one wild parent and one hatchery-raised parent, and a third group were offspring of captive x captive parents. The data in the accompanying figure show the relative fitness of these offspring. What statement best summarizes the results? A) The gene flow between hatchery-reared and wild populations is increasing the fitness of the wild populations. B) The gene flow between hatchery-reared and wild populations is neither helping nor hindering the fitness of the wild population. C) This data does not help us understand effects of gene flow on fitness. D) The gene flow between hatchery-reared and wild populations is leading to a decline in fitness of wild populations. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.5 Section: 23.5 34) Genetic variation ________. A) is created by the direct action of natural selection B) arises in response to changes in the environment C) must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population D) tends to be reduced by when diploid organisms produce gametes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.6 Section: 23.6 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

35) In 1986, a nuclear power accident in Chernobyl, Ukraine led to high radiation levels for kilometers surrounding the plant. The high levels of radiation caused elevated mutation rates in the surviving organisms, and evolutionary biologists have been studying vole populations in the Chernobyl area ever since. Based on your understanding of evolutionary mechanisms, which of the following most likely occurred in the vole populations following the accident? A) Mutation caused major changes in rodent physiology over time. B) Mutation led to increased genetic variation. C) Mutation caused genetic drift and decreased fitness. D) Mutation caused the fixation of new alleles. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.6 Section: 23.6 36) Mutation is the only evolutionary mechanism that ________. A) is the ultimate source of variation in natural populations B) does little to change allele frequencies C) decreases fitness D) is more important in eukaryotes than in prokaryotes E) has no effect on genetic variation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.6 Section: 23.6 37) Natural selection ________. A) is a random process B) creates beneficial mutations C) completely eliminates harmful mutations D) can favor beneficial mutations Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.6 Section: 23.6

38) Swine are vulnerable to infection by bird flu virus and human flu virus, which can both be present in an individual pig at the same time. When this occurs, it is possible for genes from bird flu virus and human flu virus to be combined. If the human flu virus contributes a gene for Tamiflu resistance (Tamiflu is an antiviral drug) to the new virus, and if the new virus is introduced to an environment lacking Tamiflu, then what is most likely to occur? A) The new virus will maintain its Tamiflu-resistance gene, in case of future exposure to Tamiflu. B) The Tamiflu-resistance gene will undergo mutations that convert it into a gene that has a useful function in this environment. C) If the Tamiflu-resistance gene involves a cost, it will experience directional selection leading to reduction in its frequency. D) If the Tamiflu-resistance gene confers no benefit in the current environment, and has no cost, the virus will increase in frequency. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.3, 23.6 Section: 23.3, 23.6 39) Pea aphids (Acyrthosiphon pisum) are the only animals able to synthesize their own carotenoid pigments, due to lateral gene transfer from the genome of a fungus to the genome of a recent ancestor of the pea aphids. The resulting red or green coloration alters the risk the aphids face from specific predators and parasites. Select the correct statement below. A) The lateral transfer of genes for carotenoid synthesis had a deleterious effect on the aphid genome. B) Natural selection favored the lateral transfer of genes for carotenoid synthesis from a fungus to an aphid. C) The lateral transfer of genes for carotenoid synthesis from a fungus to an aphid is a form of mutation. D) The lateral transfer of genes for carotenoid synthesis occurred to provide the aphids with protection from their predators and parasites. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23.6 Section: 23.6

40) Calculate the allele frequencies in this population of palm trees.

A) 0.3F, 0.3f B) 0.3FF, 0.4Ff, 0.3ff C) 0.5F, 0.5f D) 4FF, 6Ff, 4ff E) 0.3F, 0.7f Answer: C LO: 23.1; EO: 23.1.4

41) Which of the following drawings would be the best choice to complete this model of genetic drift in a palm tree population?

42) Which of the following drawings would be the best choice to complete this model of gene flow in a palm tree population?

43) Which of the following drawings would be the best choice to complete this model of natural selection in a palm tree population?

Interpret the model of two moss populations that occur only at certain altitudes in the mountains.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 44) This model suggests that there is a barrier to gene flow between high-altitude populations. Answer: TRUE LO: 23.1, 23.5, 23.6; EO: 23.1.4, 23.5.2; 23.6.2 45) This model shows genetic drift in one population. Answer: FALSE LO: 23.1, 23.5, 23.6; EO: 23.1.4, 23.5.2; 23.6.2 46) The color code in this model represents genotypes. Answer: TRUE LO: 23.1, 23.5, 23.6; EO: 23.1.4, 23.5.2; 23.6.2 47) This model shows that evolution is occurring. Answer: TRUE LO: 23.1, 23.5, 23.6; EO: 23.1.4, 23.5.2; 23.6.2

48) This model shows the origin of a new allele via mutation. Answer: TRUE LO: 23.1, 23.5, 23.6; EO: 23.1.4, 23.5.2; 23.6.2 49) The allele frequencies of moss on the taller mountain are 0.86Aand 0.14a. Answer: FALSE LO: 23.1, 23.5, 23.6; EO: 23.1.4, 23.5.2; 23.6.2

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 24 Speciation Use the following information to answer the questions below. Two populations of birds with somewhat different coloration live on opposite sides of a peninsula. The habitat between the populations is not suitable for these birds. When birds from the two populations are brought together, they produce young whose appearance is intermediate between the two parents. These offspring will breed with each other or with birds from either parent population, and all offspring of these pairings appear intermediate to various degrees. 1) What keeps the two populations separate? A) Temporal reproductive isolation B) Lack of hybrid viability C) Behavioral reproductive isolation D) Habitat isolation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.1 Section: 24.1 2) The two populations are ________. A) different subspecies, under the morphological species concept B) different species, under the biological species concept C) different species, under the phylogenetic species concept D) none of the above Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.2 Section: 24.1

3) Three populations of crickets look very similar, but the males have courtship songs that sound different. What function would this difference in song likely serve if the populations came in contact? A) A temporal reproductive isolating mechanism B) A postzygotic isolating mechanism C) A behavioral reproductive isolating mechanism D) A gametic reproductive isolating mechanism Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.1 Section: 24.1 4) Many songbirds breed in North America in the spring and summer and then migrate to Central and South America in the fall. They spend the winter in these warmer areas, where they feed and prepare for the spring migration north and another breeding season. Two hypothetical species of sparrow, A and B, over winter together in mixed flocks in Costa Rica. In spring, species A goes to the east coast of North America, and species B goes to the west coast. What can you say about the isolating mechanisms of these two species? A) They must have strong postzygotic isolating mechanisms to spend winter in such close proximity. B) They must have strong prezygotic isolating mechanisms to spend winter in such close proximity. C) Their winter habitat has no bearing on their degree of reproductive isolation. D) Reinforcement must be occurring when they winter together. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.1 Section: 24.1

Refer to the accompanying figure. Which of the following forms a monophyletic group? A) A, B, C, D B) C and D C) D, E, and F D) E, F, and G Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.2 Section: 24.1 6) The peppered moth provides a well-known example of natural selection. The light-colored form of the moth was predominant in England before the Industrial Revolution. In the midnineteenth century, a dark-colored form appeared. The difference is produced by a dominant allele of one gene. The dark- and light-colored forms readily interbreed with each other. By about 1900, approximately 90 percent of the moths around industrial areas were dark colored, whereas light-colored moths were still abundant elsewhere. Apparently, birds could readily find the light moths against the soot-darkened background in industrial areas and, therefore, were eating more light moths. Recently, use of cleaner fuels has greatly reduced soot in the landscape, and the dark-colored moths have been disappearing. Should the two forms of moths be considered separate species? A) Yes, because natural selection has affected the frequency of the two different forms. B) Yes, because they have completely different coloration. C) Yes, because they are reproductively isolated based on habitat. D) Yes, because they have completely different coloration and natural selection has affected the frequency of the two different forms. E) No Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.2 Section: 24.1

7) About 3 million years ago, the Isthmus of Panama (a narrow strip of land connecting North and South America) formed, dividing marine organisms into Pacific and Caribbean populations. Researchers have examined species of snapping shrimp on both sides of the isthmus. Based on the morphological species concept, there appeared to be seven pairs of species, with one species of each pair in the Pacific and the other in the Caribbean. The different species pairs live at somewhat different depths in the ocean. Using mitochondrial DNA sequences, the researchers estimated phylogenies and found that each of these species pairs, separated by the isthmus were indeed each other's closest relatives. The researchers investigated mating in the lab and found that many species pairs were not very interested in courting with each other, and any that did mate almost never produced fertile offspring. (N. Knowlton, L. A. Weigt, L. A. Solorzano, D. K. Mills, and E. Bermingham. 1993. Divergence in proteins, mitochondrial DNA, and reproductive incompatibility across the Isthmus of Panama. Science 260: 1629-32.). The sister populations on opposite sides of the isthmus are true species under which species concept? A) The morphological species concept B) The biological species concept C) The phylogenetic species concept D) Both the morphological species and phylogenetic species concepts E) The morphological species, biological species, and phylogenetic species concepts Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.2 Section: 24.1 8) The common edible frog of Europe is a hybrid between two species, Rana lessonae and Rana ridibunda. The hybrids were first described in 1758 and have a wide distribution, from France across central Europe to Russia. Both male and female hybrids exist, but when the hybrids mate with other hybrids or with adults of either species, they are rarely successful in producing offspring. What can you infer from this information? A) Postzygotic isolation exists between the two frog species. B) Prezygotic isolation exists between the two frog species. C) These two species are likely in the process of fusing back into one species. D) The hybrids form a separate species under the biological species concept. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.1 Section: 24.1

9) Which of the following statements about species, as defined by the biological species concept, is (are) correct? I. Biological species are defined by reproductive isolation. II. Biological species are the model used for grouping extinct forms of life. III. All members of a species can potentially interbreed. A) I and II B) I and III C) II and III D) I, II, and III Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.2 Section: 24.1 10) Dog breeders maintain the purity of breeds by keeping dogs of different breeds apart when they are fertile. This kind of isolation is most similar to which of the following reproductive isolating mechanisms? A) Temporal isolation B) Behavioral isolation C) Mechanical isolation D) Habitat isolation E) Gametic isolation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.1 Section: 24.1 11) Rocky Mountain juniper (Juniperus scopulorum) and one-seeded juniper (J. monosperma) have overlapping ranges. Pollen grains (which contain sperm nuclei) from one species are unable to germinate and make pollen tubes to bring the sperm nuclei to the female ovules (which contain egg cells) of the other species. These two juniper species are kept separate by ________. A) habitat isolation B) temporal isolation C) gametic isolation D) behavioral isolation E) morphological isolation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.1 Section: 24.1 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) What does the biological species concept use as the primary criterion for determining species boundaries? A) Geographic isolation B) Niche differences C) Gene flow D) Morphological similarity E) Molecular (DNA, RNA, and protein) similarity Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.2 Section: 24.1 Use the following description to answer the questions below. On the volcanic, equatorial West African island of São Tomé, two species of fruit fly exist. Drosophila yakuba inhabits the island's lowlands, and is also found on the African mainland, located about 200 miles away. The very closely related species Drosophila santomea is found at higher elevations and only on São Tomé. The two species can hybridize, though male hybrids are sterile. A hybrid zone exists at middle elevations, where hybrids are greatly outnumbered by D.santomea. Studies of the two species' nuclear genomes reveal that D. yakuba on the island is more closely related to mainland D. yakuba than to D. santomea (2n = 4 in both species). São Tomé rose from the Atlantic Ocean about 14 million years ago. 13) Which of the following reduces gene flow between the gene pools of the two species on São Tomé, despite the existence of hybrids? A) Gametic isolation B) Reduced hybrid viability C) Hybrid sterility D) Temporal isolation E) A geographic barrier Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.1 Section: 24.1

14) The observation that island D. yakuba is more closely related to mainland D. yakuba than island D. yakuba is to D. santomea is best explained by proposing that D. santomea ________. A) descended from a now-extinct, non-African fruit fly B) arrived on the island before D. yakuba C) descended from a single colony of D. yakuba, which had been introduced from elsewhere, with no subsequent colonization events D) descended from an original colony of D. yakuba, of which there are no surviving members; the current island D. yakuba represents a second colonization event from elsewhere Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.1 Section: 24.1 15) Use the following description to answer the question below. On the Bahamian island of Andros, mosquitofish populations live in various, now-isolated, freshwater ponds that were once united. Currently, some predator-rich ponds have mosquitofish that can swim in short, fast bursts; other predator-poor ponds have mosquitofish that can swim continuously for a long time. When placed together in the same body of water, the two kinds of female mosquitofish exhibit exclusive breeding preferences. Which type of reproductive isolation operates to keep the mosquitofish isolated, even when fish from different ponds are reunited in the same body of water? A) Behavioral isolation B) Habitat isolation C) Temporal isolation D) Mechanical isolation E) Gametic isolation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.1 Section: 24.1

16) Which two of the following have operated to increase divergence between mosquitofish populations on Andros? 1. Improved gene flow 2. Bottleneck effect 3. Sexual selection 4. Founder effect 5. Natural selection A) 1 and 3 B) 2 and 3 C) 2 and 4 D) 3 and 4 E) 3 and 5 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 23 Section: 23 17) Males of different species of the fruit fly Drosophila that live in the same parts of the Hawaiian Islands have different elaborate courtship rituals. These rituals involve fighting other males and making stylized movements that attract females. What type of reproductive isolation does this represent? A) Habitat isolation B) Temporal isolation C) Behavioral isolation D) Gametic isolation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.1 Section: 24.1

18) Bird guides once listed the myrtle warbler and Audubon's warbler as distinct species. Recently, these birds have been classified as eastern and western forms of a single species, the yellow-rumped warbler. Which of the following pieces of evidence, if TRUE, would be cause for this reclassification? A) The two forms interbreed often in nature, and their offspring have good survival and reproduction. B) The two forms live in similar habitats. C) The two forms have many genes in common. D) The two forms have similar food requirements. E) The two forms are very similar in coloration. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.2 Section: 24.1 Use the following description to answer the questions below. The Isthmus of Panama (a narrow strip of land connecting North and South America) started rising about 10 million years ago. The Pacific and Caribbean oceans were completely separated by the isthmus about 3 million years ago. Researchers have examined species of snapping shrimp on both sides of the isthmus. Based on the morphological species concept, there appear to be seven pairs of species, with one species of each pair in the Pacific and the other in the Caribbean. The different species pairs live at somewhat different depths in the ocean. Using mitochondrial DNA sequences, the researchers estimated phylogenies and found that each of these species pairs, separated by the isthmus, were indeed each other's closest relatives. The researchers investigated mating in the lab and found that many species pairs seldom courted each other, and those that did mate seldom produced fertile offspring. (N. Knowlton, L. A. Weigt, L. A. Solorzano, D. K. Mills, and E. Bermingham. 1993. Divergence in proteins, mitochondrial DNA, and reproductive incompatibility across the Isthmus of Panama. Science 260: 1629-32.) 19) There are currently two large, permanent bridges that span the Panama Canal. The bridges are about eight miles apart. If snapping shrimp avoid swimming at night and avoid swimming under shadows, then what do these bridges represent for the snapping shrimp? A) Sources of refuge B) Geographic barriers C) Sources of a hybrid zone between the two bridges D) Sources for increased gene flow Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.3 Section: 24.2 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) If the isthmus formed gradually rather than suddenly, what pattern of genetic divergence would you expect to find in these species pairs? A) Similar percentages of difference in DNA sequence between all pairs of sister species B) Greater percentage of difference in DNA sequence between species that inhabit deep water than between species that inhabit shallow water C) Greater percentage of difference in DNA sequence between species that inhabit shallow water than between species that inhabit deep water Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.3 Section: 24.2 In the following figure, the isthmus separates the Pacific Ocean on the left (side A) from the Atlantic Ocean on the right (side B). The seawater on either side of the isthmus is separated into five depth habitats (1-5), with 1 being the shallowest.

21) Why should deepwater shrimp on different sides of the isthmus have diverged from each other earlier than shallow-water shrimp? A) They have been geographically isolated from each other for a longer time. B) Cold temperatures, associated with deep water, have accelerated the mutation rate, resulting in faster divergence in deepwater shrimp. C) The rise of the land bridge was accompanied by much volcanic activity. Volcanic ash contains heavy metals, which are known mutagens. Ash fall caused high levels of heavy metals in the ocean sediments underlying the deep water, resulting in accelerated mutation rates and faster divergence in deepwater shrimp. D) Fresh water entering the ocean from the canal is both less dense and cloudier than seawater. The cloudy fresh water interferes with the ability of shallow-water shrimp to locate mating partners, which reduces the frequency of mating, thereby slowing the introduction of genetic variation. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.3 Section: 24.2 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

22) In which habitat should one find snapping shrimp most closely related to shrimp that live in habitat A4? A) A3 B) A5 C) B4 D) either A3 or A5 E) Any species from any one of the side A habitats Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.3 Section: 24.2 23) Which of these habitats is likely to harbor the most recently diverged species? A) A5 and B5 B) A4 and B4 C) A3 and B3 D) A2 and B2 E) A1 and B1 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.3 Section: 24.2 24) The Panama Canal was completed in 1914, and its depth is about 50 feet. After 1914, snapping shrimp species from which habitats should be most likely to form hybrids as the result of the canal? A) A5 and B5 B) A3 and B3 C) A1 and B1 D) Either A1 and A2, or B1 and B2 E) A1-A3 and B1-B3 have equal likelihoods of harboring snapping shrimp species that can hybridize. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.4 Section: 24.2

25) Which of the following describes the most likely order of events in allopatric speciation? A) Genetic drift, genetic isolation, and divergence B) Genetic isolation, divergence, and genetic drift C) Divergence, genetic drift, and genetic isolation D) Divergence, genetic isolation, and genetic drift E) Genetic isolation, genetic drift, and divergence Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.3 Section: 24.2 26) Which factors are often associated with speciation events in island-dwelling species, such as the Galápagos finches studied by Rosemary and Peter Grant? A) Dispersal and colonization B) Vicariance and colonization C) Mutation and dispersal D) Hybridization and mutation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.3 Section: 24.2 27) Which process led to the formation of the species pairs of Pacific and Caribbean snapping shrimp? A) Allopatric speciation by vicariance B) Allopatric speciation by dispersal C) Sympatric speciation by vicariance D) Sympatric speciation by dispersal Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.3 Section: 24.2

28) There is an island in the middle of a large river that houses a large population of ants. Damming of the river causes the island to flood and only the highest points of the island are now above water. The ants cannot swim, so are now in multiple isolated populations. Which of the following best describes this event? A) This situation represents isolation by dispersal. B) This situation represents isolation by vicariance. C) This situation represents a form of sympatric speciation. D) Only a rare development of polyploidy could lead to speciation in this case. E) Speciation will not occur in this case because of gene flow. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.3 Section: 24.2 29) A small number of birds arrive on an island from a neighboring larger island. This small population begins to adapt to the new food plants available on the island as selection favors those birds with larger beaks. About twice a year, one or two more birds from the neighboring island arrive. These new arrivals ________. A) speed up the process of speciation B) tend to promote adaptation to the new food plants C) tend to slow adaptation to the new food plants D) represent a colonizing event Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.3 Section: 24.2 30) Which of the following could be a vicariance event? A) The level of water in a lake recedes, creating two lakes where there used to be one. B) Some insects get blown in a storm to a new mountain range, where they lay eggs. C) Radiation near Chernobyl increases mutation rates, causing an increase in autopolyploidy. D) Global warming allows populations of mosquitoes to survive at higher elevations. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.3 Section: 24.2

31) Which of the following does NOT tend to promote speciation? A) The founder effect B) Gene flow C) Natural selection D) Polyploidy E) Disruptive selection Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.4 Section: 23.4, 24.3 32) House finches were found only in western North America until 1939, when a few individuals were released in New York City. These individuals established a breeding population and gradually expanded their range. The western population also expanded its range somewhat eastward, and the two populations have recently come in contact. If the two forms were unable to interbreed when their expanding ranges met, it would be an example of ________. A) prezygotic isolation B) reinforcement C) autopolyploidy D) allopatric speciation E) sympatric speciation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.3 Section: 24.2 33) Most causes of speciation are relatively slow, in that they may take many generations to see changes, with the exception of ________. A) polyploidy B) reinforcement C) colonization D) natural selection Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.4 Section: 24.3

34) Two researchers experimentally formed tetraploid frogs by fertilizing diploid eggs from Rana porosa brevipoda with diploid sperm from Rana nigromaculata. When they mated these tetraploid frogs with each other, most of the offspring that survived to maturity were tetraploid, with chromosome sets of both diploid parent species. Based on these results, if this type of tetraploid formed in the wild, what would be the result? (Y. Kondo and A. Kashiwagi. 2004. Experimentally induced autotetraploidy and allotetraploidy in two Japanese pond frogs. Journal of Herpetology 38(3): 381-92.) A) The two parent species would interbreed and fuse into one species. B) The two parent species would recognize each other as mates. C) The tetraploids would be reproductively isolated from both parent species. D) The tetraploids would be selected against. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.4 Section: 24.3 35) Why is speciation by polyploidy more likely in plants than in animals? A) Plant gametes can be produced by meiosis from somatic cells that have undergone many rounds of mitosis. B) Plant gametes lack postzygotic isolating mechanisms. C) Plants are sessile and, therefore, are never prezygotically isolated to ensure reproduction. D) Plants are sessile and cannot speciate via dispersal. E) Plants lack the DNA repair enzymes that animals have. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.4 Section: 24.3 36) Which of the following statements explains why animals are less likely than plants to speciate by polyploidy? A) Animals self-fertilize less often than plants, so diploid gametes are less likely to fuse. B) Animals have better mechanisms for repairing chromosomes than plants have. C) Animals are more mobile, so they have more effective prezygotic isolating mechanisms. D) Animals are more mobile, so populations get separated far less often. E) Animals use a more rigorous form of meiosis than plants, making diploid gametes much more difficult to form. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.4 Section: 24.3 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

37) A researcher notices that in a certain moth species, some females prefer to feed and lay eggs on domesticated solanaceous plants like potatoes and tomatoes. Other females prefer to feed and lay eggs on wild solanaceous plants such as Datura. Both male and female moths primarily use scent to find these plants from afar. Females tend to mate where they feed, and the researcher finds a genetic basis for scent preference in these moths. Based on the above information, what might be occurring in this moth species? A) Divergence in sympatry B) Divergence due to habitat fragmentation C) Postzygotic isolation D) Polyploidization Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.4 Section: 24.3 38) In a hypothetical situation, a certain species of flea feeds only on pronghorn antelopes. In the western United States, pronghorns and cattle often associate with one another in the same open rangeland. Some of these fleas develop a strong preference for cattle blood and mate only with other fleas that prefer cattle blood. The host mammal can be considered as the fleas' habitat. If this situation persists, and new species evolve, this would be an example of ________. A) sympatric speciation and habitat isolation B) sympatric speciation and temporal isolation C) allopatric speciation and habitat isolation D) allopatric speciation and gametic isolation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.1, 24.4 Section: 24.1, 24.3

39) Beetle pollinators of a particular plant are attracted to its flowers' bright orange color. The beetles not only pollinate the flowers but also mate while inside of the flowers. A mutant version of the plant with red flowers becomes more common with the passage of time. A particular variant of the beetle prefers the red flowers to the orange flowers. Over time, these two beetle variants diverge from each other to such an extent that interbreeding is no longer possible. What kind of speciation has occurred in this example, and what has driven it? A) Allopatric speciation; temporal isolation B) Sympatric speciation; habitat isolation C) Allopatric speciation; behavioral isolation D) Sympatric speciation; sexual selection E) Sympatric speciation; allopolyploidy Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.1, 24.4 Section: 24.1, 24.3 40) The origin of a new plant species by hybridizing two existing species, coupled with accidents during cell division, is an example of ________. A) allopatric speciation and autopolyploidy B) sympatric speciation and allopolyploidy C) allopatric speciation and allopolyploidy D) sympatric speciation and autopolyploidy Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.4 Section: 24.3 41) Plant species A has a diploid number of 12. Plant species B has a diploid number of 16. A new species, C, arises as an allopolyploid from A and B. The diploid number for species C would probably be ________. A) 12 B) 14 C) 16 D) 28 E) 56 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, QR V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.4 Section: 24.3

42) Male frogs give calls that attract female frogs to approach and mate. Researchers examined mating calls of closely related tree frogs in South America. If reinforcement is occurring, what would you expect if you compare the calls of the two species in zones of sympatry versus zones of allopatry? A) Calls would be equally similar in both areas. B) Calls would be more similar in areas of sympatry. C) Calls would be more different in areas of sympatry. D) None of the above outcomes would be expected. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.5 Section: 24.4 43) Male frogs give calls that attract female frogs to approach and mate. Researchers examined mating calls of closely related but separate species of tree frogs in South America. What outcomes could possibly occur where the ranges of two species overlap? I. The species will interbreed, eventually fusing over time. II. A stable hybrid zone will form if hybrids are better adapted to the area of overlap than either parent species is. III. Species will continue to diverge and be isolated by behavioral or genetic mechanisms. A) I B) II C) III D) I, II, and III Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.5 Section: 24.4

44) Two species of tree frogs that live sympatrically in the northeastern United States differ in ploidy: Hyla chrysoscelis is diploid, and Hyla versicolor is tetraploid. The frogs are identical in appearance, but their mating calls, which females use to find mates, differ. Which likely evolved first? A) Polyploidy B) Reproductive isolation C) Behavioral isolation D) All of the above evolved at the same time. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.4 Section: 24.3 45) Reinforcement is most likely to occur when ________. A) the environment is changing B) hybrids have lower fitness than either parent population C) prezygotic isolating mechanisms are in place D) gene flow is low Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.5 Section: 24.4 46) The phenomenon of fusion is likely to occur when, after a period of geographic isolation, two populations meet again and ________. A) their chromosomes are no longer homologous enough to permit meiosis B) an increasing number of infertile hybrids is produced over the course of the next 100 generations C) no reproduction occurs in the hybrid zone D) an increasing number of viable, fertile hybrids is produced over the course of the next 100 generations E) a decreasing number of viable, fertile hybrids is produced over the course of the next 100 generations Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.5 Section: 24.4

47) A hybrid zone is properly defined as ________. A) an area where the ranges of two closely related species overlap, but do not interbreed B) an area where mating occurs between members of two closely related species, producing viable offspring C) a zone where sterile hybrids form, kept separate by postzygotic barriers D) an area where members of two closely related species intermingle, but gene flow is prevented by prezygotic barriers Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.5 Section: 24.4 48) In hybrid zones where reinforcement is occurring, you should see a decline in ________. A) gene flow between distinct gene pools B) speciation C) the genetic distinctness of two gene pools D) mutation rates E) hybrid sterility Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.5 Section: 24.4

49) Use the following description to answer the question below. On the volcanic, equatorial West African island of São Tomé, two species of fruit fly exist. Drosophila yakuba inhabits the island's lowlands, and is also found on the African mainland, located about 200 miles away. At higher elevations, and only on São Tomé, is found the very closely related Drosophila santomea. The two species can hybridize, though male hybrids are sterile. A hybrid zone exists at middle elevations, but hybrids there are greatly outnumbered by D. santomea. Studies of the two species' nuclear genomes reveal that D. yakuba on the island is more closely related to mainland D. yakuba than to D. santomea (2n = 4 in both species). São Tomé rose from the Atlantic Ocean about 14 million years ago. If the low number of hybrid flies in the hybrid zone, relative to the number of D. santomea flies there, is due to the fact that hybrids are poorly adapted to conditions in the hybrid zone, and if fewer hybrid flies are produced with the passage of time, these conditions will most likely lead to ________. A) fusion B) reinforcement C) stability D) further speciation events Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.5 Section: 24.4 50) Use the following description to answer the question below. On the Bahamian island of Andros, mosquitofish populations live in various, now-isolated, freshwater ponds that were once united. Currently, some predator-rich ponds have mosquitofish that can swim in short, fast bursts; other predator-poor ponds have mosquitofish that can swim continuously for a long time. When placed together in the same body of water, the two kinds of female mosquitofish exhibit exclusive breeding preferences. What is the best way to promote fusion between two related populations of mosquitofish, one of which lives in a predator-rich pond and the other of which lives in a predator-poor pond? A) Build a canal linking the two ponds that permits free movement of mosquitofish, but not of predators. B) Transfer only female mosquitofish from a predator-rich pond to a predator-poor pond. C) Perform a reciprocal transfer of females between predator-rich and predator-poor ponds. D) Remove predators from a predator-rich pond and transfer them to a predator-poor pond. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.5 Section: 24.4 21 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

51) A female fly, full of fertilized eggs, is swept by high winds to an island far out to sea. She is the first fly to arrive on this island and the only fly to arrive in this way. Thousands of years later, her numerous offspring occupy the island, but none of them resembles her. There are, instead, several species, each of which eats only a certain type of food. None of the species can fly and their balancing organs (halteres) are now used in courtship displays. The male members of each species bear modified halteres that are unique in appearance to their species. Females bear vestigial halteres. The ranges of all of the daughter species overlap. Fly species W, found in a certain part of the island, produces fertile offspring with species Y. Species W does not produce fertile offspring with species X or Z. If no other species can hybridize, then which of the following statements about species W and Y is/are TRUE? I. Species W and Y have genomes that are still similar enough for successful meiosis to occur in hybrid flies. II. Species W and Y have more genetic similarity with each other than either did with the other two species. III. Species W and Y may fuse into a single species if their hybrids remain fertile over the course of many generations. A) Only I is correct. B) Only II is correct. C) Only III is correct. D) I, II, and III are correct. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 24.5 Section: 24.4

Interpret this phylogenetic tree of several trumpeter species (birds) in the Amazon, genus Psophia.

52) P. interjecta and P. dextralis are both descendants of a common ancestor symbolized by the area marked 3. Answer: TRUE LO: 24.1; EO: N/A 53) The areas marked 2 and 3 are called nodes. Answer: TRUE LO: 24.1; EO: N/A 54) The areas marked 2 and 3 are called forks. Answer: TRUE LO: 24.1; EO: N/A 55) The vertical line marked 1 shows that speciation occurred very rapidly. Answer: FALSE LO: 24.1; EO: N/A 56) A speciation event occurred at the area marked 2. Answer: TRUE LO: 24.1; EO: N/A 57) The birds represented by the area marked 3 belong to the species P. obscura. Answer: FALSE LO: 24.1; EO: N/A

58) Which of the following trees represents the same information about speciation rates as in the reference tree of several trumpeter species (birds) in the Amazon, genus Psophia.

Select all that apply.

Answer: A, B, C, D LO: 24.1; EO: N/A

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 25 Phylogenies and the History of Life 1) The approach to estimating phylogenetic trees is most like the approach of which species concept? A) Morphological species concept B) Biological species concept C) Phylogenetic species concept D) Subspecies concept Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1

2) Use the following tree to answer the question below.

Which of the following trees, if any, depicts the same relationship among species as shown above? A)

D) None of the above Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1

3) Looking at the following trees, can you conclude that the number of nodes between species can be used to determine the relationships among taxa?

A) Yes, because grayling are more distantly related to salmon in tree III than in tree I. B) No, you cannot because adding branches does not change the overall relationships between the species. C) Yes, because you have more species added. D) Yes, because more nodes always mean that the species are not as closely related. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1 4) Which of the following would be useful in creating a phylogenetic tree of a vertebrate taxon? I. Morphological data from fossil species II. Genetic sequences from living species III. Behavioral data from living species A) I B) II C) III D) I, II, and III E) None; not I, II, or III Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1

5) Your professor wants you to construct a phylogenetic tree of orchids. She gives you tissue from seven orchid species and one lily. What is the most likely reason she gave you the lily? A) To serve as an outgroup B) To see if the lily is a cryptic orchid species C) To see if the lily and the orchids show all the same shared derived characters (synapomorphies) D) To demonstrate likely homoplasies Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1 6) Which of the following statements best describes the rationale for applying the principle of parsimony in constructing phylogenetic trees? A) Parsimony allows the researcher to "root" the tree. B) Similarity due to common ancestry should be more common than similarity due to convergent evolution. C) The molecular clock validates the principle of parsimony. D) The outgroup roots the tree, allowing the principle of parsimony to be applied. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1

7) How do the branch lengths in these two trees differ?

A) Tree I branch lengths are arbitrary, whereas the branch lengths in tree II represent time since divergence. B) Tree I branch lengths represent genetic distance between taxa, whereas tree I branch lengths are arbitrary. C) Tree I branch lengths represent genetic distance between taxa, whereas tree II branch lengths represent time since divergence between the taxa. D) The branch lengths in both trees represent the same distance between taxa. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1

In the accompanying phylogenetic trees, numbers represent species and the same species are shown in both trees. Which two species are represented as sister species in Tree 2 but are not shown as sister species in Tree 1? A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 3 and 4 D) 4 and 5 E) 5 and 6 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1

Considering the phylogenetic trees shown here as strictly hypothetical and applying the principle of parsimony to the trait "ability to fly," which of the two phylogenetic trees shown is better? A) Tree 1 B) Tree 2 C) Both trees are equally parsimonious. D) Since the trees show different evolutionary relationships, you cannot determine which is more parsimonious. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1

10) Which of the following statements is TRUE about a phylogeny, as represented by a phylogenetic tree? I. Descendant groups (branches) from the same node do not share any derived characters. II. A monophyletic group can be properly based on convergent features. III. The ancestral group always displays all the synapomorphies of the descendant species. A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) I, II, and III E) None; not I, II, or III Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1 11) Given that phylogenies are based on shared derived characteristics, which of the following traits is useful in generating a phylogeny of species W, X, Y, and Z?

Trait 1 Trait 2 Trait 3

Species W A A A

Species X A A B

Species Y A B C

Species Z A B D

A) Trait 1 B) Trait 2 C) Trait 3 D) Traits 1, 2, and 3 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1 12) Which of the following is an example of homoplasy? A) Fur in bears and seals B) Cell walls in plants and fungi C) Chlorophyll in flowering plants and algae D) Scales in snakes and lizards Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

13)

We know the streamlined bodies shown in the accompanying figure are examples of homoplasy. If the following groups also had streamlined bodies, which of the groupings would give the most support to this body type being homologous? A) Lizards and elephants B) Pterosaurs, dinosaurs, and birds C) Synapsids, monotremes, marsupials, rodents, and primates D) Lizards, pterosaurs, dinosaurs, birds, synapsids, monotremes, marsupials, rodents, and primates E) Elephants only Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1 14) Some beetles and flies have antler-like structures on their heads, much like male deer do. The existence of antlers in beetle, fly, and deer species with strong male-male competition is an example of ________. A) convergent evolution B) a synapomorphy C) homology D) parsimony Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) Members of two different species possess a similar-looking structure that they use in a similar way to perform about the same function. Which of the following would suggest that the relationship more likely represents homology instead of convergent evolution? A) The two species live at great distance from each other. B) The two species share many proteins in common, and the nucleotide sequences that code for these proteins are almost identical. C) The structures in adult members of both species are similar in size. D) Both species are well adapted to their particular environments. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1 16) Ichthyosaurs, now extinct, were aquatic reptiles with dorsal fins and tails, similar to those of fish. Their most recent ancestors were terrestrial reptiles that had neither dorsal fins nor aquatic tails. The dorsal fins and tails of ichthyosaurs and fish are ________. A) homologous structures B) adaptations to different environments C) adaptations to a common environment and examples of convergent evolution D) adaptations to a common environment and homologous structures Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1 17) Both ancestral birds and ancestral mammals shared a common ancestor that was a terrestrial vertebrate. Today, penguins (which are birds) and seals (which are mammals) have forelimbs adapted for swimming. What term best describes the relationship of the bones in the forelimbs of penguins and seals, and what term best describes the flippers of penguins and seals? A) Homology; homology B) Homoplasy; homology C) Homology; homoplasy D) Homoplasy; homoplasy Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1

18) What must be TRUE of any organ described as vestigial? A) It must be homoplasic to some feature in an ancestor. B) It must be homologous to some feature in an ancestor. C) It must be both homologous and homoplasic to some feature in an ancestor. D) It need to be neither homologous nor homoplasic to some feature in an ancestor. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1 19) The term "homoplasy" is most applicable to which of the following features? A) The legless condition found in various lineages of extant lizards B) The five-digit condition of human hands and bat wings C) The β hemoglobin genes of mice and of humans D) The fur that covers Australian moles and North American moles E) The bones of bat forelimbs and the bones of bird forelimbs Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1 20) If, someday, an Archaean cell is discovered with an rRNA sequence that is more similar to that of humans than the sequence of mouse rRNA is to that of humans, the best explanation for this apparent discrepancy would be ________. A) homology B) homoplasy C) common ancestry D) retro-evolution by humans E) coevolution of humans and the Archaean cell Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1

21) Some molecular data place the giant panda in the bear family (Ursidae) but place the lesser panda in the raccoon family (Procyonidae). If the molecular data best reflect the evolutionary history of these two groups, then the morphological similarities of these two species is most likely due to ________. A) the inheritance of acquired characteristics B) sexual selection C) inheritance of shared derived characters D) possession of homoplasic traits E) possession of shared ancestral characters Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1 22) The common ancestors of birds and mammals were very early (stem) amniotes, which almost certainly possessed three-chambered hearts (two atria, one ventricle). Birds and mammals, however, are alike in having four-chambered hearts (two atria, two ventricles). The four-chambered hearts of birds and mammals are best described as ________. A) structural homologies B) vestigial structures C) homoplasies D) the result of shared ancestry E) molecular homologies Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1

23) Which of the following is TRUE of all horizontally oriented phylogenetic trees, where time advances to the right? A) Each branch point represents a point in absolute time. B) Organisms represented at the base of such trees are descendants of those represented at higher levels. C) The fewer branch points that occur between two taxa, the more divergent their DNA sequences should be. D) The common ancestor represented by a branch point farther right existed more recently in time than the common ancestors represented at branch points located farther to the left. E) The more branch points there are, the fewer taxa are likely to be represented. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1 24) When using a cladistic approach to systematics, which of the following is considered most important for classification? A) Shared ancestral characters B) Homoplasic ancestral characters C) Shared derived characters D) The number of homoplasies E) Overall phenotypic similarity Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1 25) Phylogenetic trees constructed from evidence from molecular systematics are based on similarities in ________. A) morphology B) the pattern of embryological development C) biochemical pathways D) habitat and lifestyle choices E) mutations to homologous genes Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1

26) Which statement represents the best explanation for the observation that the nuclear DNA of wolves and domestic dogs has a very high degree of sequence homology? Dogs and wolves ________. A) have very similar morphologies B) belong to the same order C) are both members of the order Carnivora D) share a very recent common ancestor Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1

The question(s) below refer to the following table, which compares the percentage sequence homology of four different parts (two introns and two exons) of a gene that is found in five different eukaryotic species. Each part is numbered to indicate its distance from the promoter (e.g., Intron I is closest to the promoter). The data reported for species A were obtained by comparing DNA from one member of species A to another member of species A. Species A B C D E

Intron I 100% 98% 98% 99% 98%

Exon I 100% 99% 99% 99% 99%

Intron VI 100% 82% 89% 92% 80%

Exon V 100% 96% 96% 97% 94%

27) Based on the tabular data, and assuming that time advances vertically, which phylogenetic tree is the most likely depiction of the evolutionary relationships among these five species? A)

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1 The question(s) below refer to the following table, which compares the percentage sequence homology of four different parts (two introns and two exons) of a gene that is found in five different eukaryotic species. Each part is numbered to indicate its distance from the promoter (e.g., Intron I is closest to the promoter). The data reported for species A were obtained by comparing DNA from one member of species A to another member of species A. Species A B C D E

Intron I 100% 98% 98% 99% 98%

Exon I 100% 99% 99% 99% 99%

Intron VI 100% 82% 89% 92% 80%

Exon V 100% 96% 96% 97% 94%

28) Which of the following is the best explanation for the high degree of sequence homology observed in Exon I among these five species? A) It is the most upstream exon of this gene. B) Due to alternative gene splicing, this exon is often treated as an intron. C) It codes for a polypeptide domain that has a crucial function. D) These five species must actually constitute a single species. E) This exon is rich in G-C base pairs; thus, it is more stable. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1

Intron I 100% 98% 98% 99% 98%

Exon I 100% 99% 99% 99% 99%

Intron VI 100% 82% 89% 92% 80%

Exon V 100% 96% 96% 97% 94%

29) Regarding these sequence homology data, the principle of maximum parsimony would be applicable in ________. A) distinguishing introns from exons B) determining degree of sequence homology C) selecting appropriate genes for comparison among species D) inferring evolutionary relatedness from the number of sequence differences Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1

Intron I 100% 98% 98% 99% 98%

Exon I 100% 99% 99% 99% 99%

Intron VI 100% 82% 89% 92% 80%

Exon V 100% 96% 96% 97% 94%

30) Which of these four gene parts should allow the construction of the most accurate phylogenetic tree, assuming that this is the only part of the gene that has acted as a reliable molecular clock? A) Intron I B) Exon I C) Intron VI D) Exon V Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1 31) To apply parsimony for constructing a phylogenetic tree, ________. A) choose the tree that assumes all evolutionary changes are equally probable B) choose the tree in which the branch points are based on as many shared derived characters as possible C) base phylogenetic trees only on the fossil record, as this provides the simplest explanation for evolution D) choose the tree that represents the fewest evolutionary changes, either in DNA sequences or morphology E) choose the tree with the fewest branch points Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1

32) If you were using cladistics to build a phylogenetic tree of cats, which of the following would be the best outgroup? A) Lion B) Domestic cat C) Wolf D) Leopard E) Tiger Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.1 Section: 25.1 33) Which of the following organisms would be most likely to fossilize? A) A rare worm B) A common worm C) A rare squirrel D) A common squirrel Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.2 Section: 25.2 34) Which of the following is LEAST likely to be present in the fossil record? A) Burrowing species B) Marine-dwelling species C) Marsh-dwelling species D) Desert-dwelling species Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.2 Section: 25.2

35) For many years, scientists believed that almost all animal lineages burst into being during the Cambrian era (just after the end of the Precambrian super eon). However, there have been many recent findings of animal-like fossils and "trace fossils" (fossils of an animal-like organism's movement) from the late Precambrian. Which of the following best explains why it took so long to realize there was animal-like life in the Precambrian? A) There were no animals in the Precambrian. B) Animals from the late Precambrian had soft bodies. C) There were many hard-shelled animals in the Cambrian. D) The global climate was such that there was poor fossilization in the Precambrian. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.2 Section: 25.2 36) In plant communities today, leaf morphology is correlated with mean annual temperature, so paleobotanists use fossil leaf morphology to estimate the mean annual temperature of paleoclimates. However, the angiosperm fossil record contains an overabundance of samples fossilized near lakes or rivers where vines are especially common. Since vine leaves have a somewhat different association with temperature, use of data from vine-rich locations leads to mean average temperature estimates that are lower than actual recorded temperatures in modern plant communities. This potential bias in paleobotanical climate estimates is due to which type of bias in the fossil record? (R. J. Burnham, N. C. A. Pitman, K. R. Johnson, and P. Wilf. 2001. Habitat-related error in estimating temperature from leaf margins in a humid tropical forest. American Journal of Botany 88:1096-1102.) A) Taxonomic bias B) Temporal bias C) Habitat bias D) Abundance bias Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.2 Section: 25.2

37) Which value(s) would be required to calculate how long ago the most recent ancestor of ungulates lived? I. The number of base pairs that differ among species in a certain genetic sequence II. The total number of base pairs in the genetic sequence examined III. The age of a fossil ancestor for calibration A) I B) II C) III D) I, II, and III Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.2 Section: 25.2 38) Which of the following showed their greatest diversity during the Mesozoic era but were a small, less diverse group during the Paleozoic era? A) Gymnosperms B) Fungi C) Flowering plants D) Mammals Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.2 Section: 25.2 39) Which listing of geological periods is in the correct order, from oldest to most recent? A) Cambrian, Devonian, Permian, and Cretaceous B) Devonian, Cambrian, Permian, and Cretaceous C) Cambrian, Permian, Devonian, and Cretaceous D) Permian, Cambrian, Cretaceous, and Devonian Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.2 Section: 25.2

40) You are the lucky student of a professor who develops a time machine. They ask if you will test it with them. You get in, and there is an immediate glitch: the date readout fails so that when you land, you are not sure what era you are in. Your professor begins to panic, but you see something that tells you are in the Cenozoic era. Which of the following could it be? A) A rabbit eating a daisy B) A water lily floating in a pond C) Masses of green ferns with dragonflies hovering above them D) A forest of large tree ferns E) A herd of huge long-necked sauropod dinosaurs Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.2 Section: 25.2 41) You are the lucky student of a professor who develops a time machine. They ask if you will test it with them. You get in, and there is an immediate glitch: the date readout fails so that when you land, you are not sure what era you are in. As your time machine lands, you see an unusual landscape before you. As you open the door, you realize you cannot breathe. You quickly shut the door, realizing you are in the ________. A) Archaean eon B) Anthropocene epoch C) Cenozoic era D) Mesozoic era Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.2 Section: 25.2 42) Approximately how far back in time does the fossil record extend? A) 3.5 million years B) 5.0 million years C) 3.5 billion years D) 5.0 billion years Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.2 Section: 25.2

The question(s) below refer to the following paragraph. A sediment core is removed from the floor of an inland sea. The sea has been in existence, off and on, throughout the entire time that terrestrial life has existed. Researchers wish to locate and study the terrestrial organisms fossilized in this core. The core is illustrated as a vertical column, with the top of the column representing the most recent strata and the bottom representing the time when land was first colonized by life.

43) If arrows indicate locations in the column where fossils of a particular type (see key in the figure) first appear, then which core in the figure has the most accurate arrangement of fossils? A) Core A B) Core B C) Core C D) Core D Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.2 Section: 25.2

44) Which of the following reasons would explain why the sediment core lacks fossils of dragonflies with three-foot wingspans? 1. This particular sediment core includes the correct stratum, but the part of the stratum captured by the core lacks such fossils. 2. The sea was not present at this site during the time that three-foot dragonflies existed. 3. Dragonflies have no hard parts, such as exoskeletons, to fossilize. 4. The sediments containing these fossils at this site may have been eroded away during a time when the sea had receded from this site. 5. Dragonflies are terrestrial; therefore, fossils of terrestrial organisms should not be expected in the sediments of seas. A) 1 only B) 3 only C) 5 only D) 2 or 4 E) 1, 2, or 4 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.2 Section: 25.2 45) To assign absolute dates to fossils in sediment cores, it would be most helpful if ________. A) we knew the order in which the fossils occurred B) the sediments had not been affected by underwater currents during their deposition C) volcanic ash layers were regularly interspersed between the sedimentary strata D) fossils throughout the column were equally spaced apart Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.2 Section: 25.2

Refer to the following information to answer the question below. Fossils of Lystrosaurus, a dicynodont therapsid, are most common in parts of modern-day South America, South Africa, Madagascar, India, South Australia, and Antarctica. The animal apparently lived in arid regions and was mostly herbivorous. It originated during the midPermian period, survived the Permian extinction, and dwindled by the late Triassic, though there is evidence of a relict population in Australia during the Cretaceous period. Some dicynodonts had two large tusks, extending down from their upper jaws. The tusks were not used for food gathering and in some species were limited to males. Food was gathered using an otherwise toothless beak. Judging from the fossil record in sedimentary rocks, these pig-sized organisms were the most common mammalian ancestors of the Permian. 46) Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the modern-day distribution of dicynodont fossils? The dicynodonts were ________. A) carnivores that traveled widely to find prey B) evenly distributed throughout all of Pangaea C) most abundantly distributed throughout Gondwana D) amphibious and able to swim long distances Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.2 Section: 25.2 47) Which of the following statements is correct? A) There are fossils of animals in geological strata that are older than the Cambrian. B) Only fossils of microorganisms are found in geological strata older than the Cambrian. C) The Cambrian explosion is evidence for the instantaneous creation of life on Earth. D) The Cambrian explosion marks the appearance of filter-feeding animals in the fossil record. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.2 Section: 25.2

48)

According to the theory of seafloor spreading, oceanic islands, such as the Hawaiian Islands depicted in the figure, form as oceanic crustal plates move over a stationary "hot spot" in the mantle. Currently, the big island of Hawaii is thought to be over a hot spot, which is why it is the only one of the seven large islands that has active volcanoes. What should be TRUE of the island of Hawaii? 1. Scientists in search of ongoing speciation events are more likely to find them here than on the other six large islands. 2. Its species should be more closely related to those of nearer islands than to those of farther islands. 3. It should have a rich fossil record of terrestrial organisms. 4. It should have species that are not found anywhere else on Earth. 5. On average, it should have fewer species per unit surface area than the other six islands. A) 1, 2, and 3 B) 1, 2, and 5 C) 1, 2, 3, and 4 D) 1, 2, 4, and 5 E) 2, 3, 4, and 5 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.3 Section: 25.3

49) Upon formation, oceanic islands, such as the Hawaiian Islands, should feature what characteristic, leading to which phenomenon? A) Mass extinctions, leading to bottleneck effect B) Major evolutionary innovations, leading to rafting to nearby continents C) A variety of empty ecological niches, leading to adaptive radiation D) Adaptive radiation, leading to founder effect E) Overcrowding, leading to rafting to nearby lands Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.3 Section: 25.3 50) Adaptive radiations can be a direct consequence of four of the following five factors. Select the exception. A) Vacant ecological niches B) Genetic drift C) Colonization of an isolated region that contains suitable habitat and few competitor species D) Evolutionary innovation E) An adaptive radiation in a group of organisms (such as plants) that another group uses as food Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.3 Section: 25.3 51) Evidence of which structure or characteristic would be most surprising to find among fossils of the Ediacaran fauna? A) True tissues B) Hard parts C) Bilateral symmetry D) Embryos Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.3 Section: 25.3

52) Which statement is most consistent with the hypothesis that the Cambrian explosion was caused by the rise of predator-prey relationships? The fossil record reveals an increased incidence of ________. A) worm burrows B) larger animals C) organic material D) fern galls E) hard parts Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.3 Section: 25.3 53) The Cambrian Explosion refers to the rapid evolution of major animal body plans. Does this mean that animals quit evolving after this time? A) No—animals continued to evolve during and after the adaptive radiation. B) Yes—this was the end of the adaptive radiation and hence the end of the evolution of animals. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.3 Section: 25.3 54) How could the duplication of the Hox gene complex help facilitate animal adaptive radiation? A) The new gene copies helped facilitate the evolution of more complex body plans. B) The new gene copies helped facilitate the evolution of smaller bodies. C) The new gene copies led to lower metabolic rates. D) It is unlikely that gene duplication events in the Hox complex played a role in the adaptive radiation of animals. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.3 Section: 25.3

55) Whatever its ultimate cause(s), the Cambrian explosion is a prime example of ________. A) mass extinction B) evolutionary stasis C) adaptive radiation D) a large meteor impact Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.3 Section: 25.3 56) All of the following events can trigger an adaptive radiation EXCEPT ________. A) an unusual event splitting a habitat, such as a severe hurricane B) the evolution of a new morphological feature C) the colonization of a new habitat D) the extinction of competitors E) Hox gene duplication events Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.3 Section: 25.3 57) The largest extinction, measured as a percentage of species that disappeared, occurred at the end of which geological period? A) Permian B) Cretaceous C) Tertiary D) Devonian E) Silurian Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.4 Section: 25.4

58) How do mass extinctions differ from background extinctions? A) Mass extinctions occur over a longer period of time than background extinctions. B) Mass extinctions, but not background extinctions, are generally caused by competition. C) Mass extinctions cause a larger proportion of organisms to go extinct than background extinctions. D) Mass extinctions typically result from Hox gene mutations, and background extinctions typically result from changes in weather patterns. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.4 Section: 25.4 59) What is still lacking in the hypothesis of an asteroid impact as the cause of the endCretaceous mass extinction? A) Evidence for what caused such high species loss after the impact B) Evidence that an asteroid hit Earth at the time of the extinction (65 million years ago) C) A convincing explanation of why mammals radiated after the event D) A complete explanation of why some lineages survived while others vanished Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.4 Section: 25.4 60) The major evolutionary episode corresponding most closely in time with the formation of Pangaea was the ________. A) Cambrian explosion B) Permian extinctions C) Pleistocene ice ages D) Cretaceous extinctions Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 25.4 Section: 25.4

61)

Using the figure, at what time interval does the cumulative extinction of "other vertebrates" diverge from the "background" cumulative extinction? A) 1600-1700 B) 1700-1800 C) 1800-1900 D) 1900-2010 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS, PS LO: 25.4 Section: 25.4 62) The Earth's organisms are now experiencing the sixth mass extinction, with extinction rates higher than those experienced during the end-Cretaceous extinction 66 million years ago. Which of the following is thought to be responsible for this sixth mass extinction? A) An asteroid impact in the Yucatan region of Mexico B) A series of volcanoes in India C) Human impacts including habitat loss, pollution, overexploitation, invasive species, and climate change D) There is no evidence of a sixth mass extinction. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS, PS LO: 25.4 Section: 25.4

63) Which of these student-drawn trees highlights the most recent common ancestor of beetles and moths? A)

Answer: D LO: 25.1

64) Three students have drawn alternate versions of this reference tree.

Which tree or trees show(s) the same relationships as the reference tree? Select all that apply. A)

Answer: A, B LO: 25.1 Identify whether each statement about this phylogenetic tree is true or false.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 65) Beetles are more closely related to moths than to ants. Answer: TRUE LO: 25.1 66) Beetles are more closely related to moths than to flies. Answer: FALSE LO: 25.1 67) Ants are more closely related to cockroaches than to crickets. Answer: FALSE LO: 25.1 68) Dragonflies are more closely related to crickets than to cockroaches. Answer: FALSE LO: 25.1

69) Four students were asked to simplify a phylogenetic tree of several food plants by using one branch to represent the three different fruit trees (papaya, orange, and peach). Which phylogenetic tree is correct?

70) Students were asked to add strawberries to a phylogenetic tree of several food plants. The closest living relative of strawberries included in the tree is the peach. Which phylogenetic tree does the best job of showing this addition?

Interpret the model.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 71) Dragonflies are more closely related to crickets than to cockroaches because the labels are closer. Answer: FALSE LO: 25.1 72) Dragonflies are more closely related to crickets than to ants because the labels are closer. Answer: FALSE LO: 25.1 73) Ants are as closely related to dragonflies as crickets are to dragonflies because ants and crickets share the common ancestor marked by the dot. Answer: TRUE LO: 25.1 74) If cockroaches were removed from the tree, crickets would become more closely related to ants. Answer: FALSE LO: 25.1 75) If butterflies were added to the tree as a sister group to moths, beetles would become more distantly related to flies. Answer: FALSE LO: 25.1 76) Ants are more closely related to beetles than to flies because there are only two nodes between ants and beetles but three nodes between ants and flies. Answer: FALSE LO: 25.1 38 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 26 Bacteria and Archaea 1) Which of the following traits do archaea and bacteria share? A) Composition of the cell wall B) Lack of a nuclear envelope C) Presence of plasma membrane D) Composition of a cell wall and lack of a nuclear envelope E) Lack of a nuclear envelope and presence of a plasma membrane Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26. Section: 26.1 2) Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains? A) Bacteria and Eukarya B) Archaea and Monera C) Eukarya and Monera D) Bacteria and Protista E) Bacteria and Archaea Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26. Section: 26.1 3) A water sample from a hot thermal vent contained a single-celled organism that had a cell wall but lacked a nucleus. What is its most likely classification? A) Eukarya B) Archaea C) Animalia D) Protista E) Fungi Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26. Section: 26.1

4) What organisms are most numerous on Earth? A) Eukaryotes B) Archaea C) Prokaryotes D) Plants E) Insects Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26. Section: 26.1 5) Which of the following describe all existing bacteria? A) Pathogenic, omnipresent, and morphologically diverse B) Extremophiles, tiny, and abundant C) Small, harmful, and fast-growing D) Tiny, ubiquitous, and metabolically diverse E) Morphologically diverse, metabolically diverse, and extremophiles Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26. Section: 26.1 6) To establish a link between a specific bacterium and a skin disease, researchers have shown that the bacterium was present in sick persons but not in healthy individuals. They isolated the bacterium in a pure culture and demonstrated that experimental healthy animals injected with this culture became sick. What other experiment do researchers need to perform to be absolutely sure that the bacterium is responsible for the disease? A) Demonstrate that the bacterium belongs to the pathogenic lineage B) Demonstrate that the bacterium is not able to live outside of humans or animals C) Isolate bacterium from an infected sick animal and demonstrate that it is the same bacterium as the one used for infection D) Isolate bacterium from an infected sick animal and demonstrate that it is susceptible to broad spectrum antibiotics. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.1, 26.2 Section: 26.1

7) Chemicals, secreted by soil fungi, which inhibit the growth of bacteria, are known as ________. A) antibodies B) aflatoxins C) hallucinogens D) antigens E) antibiotics Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.1, 26.3 Section: 26.1 8) What is the goal of bioremediation? A) To improve human health with the help of living organisms such as bacteria B) To clean up areas polluted with toxic compounds by using bacteria C) To improve soil quality for plant growth by using bacteria D) To improve bacteria for production of useful chemicals E) To kill pathogenic bacteria with the use of antibiotics Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.1 Section: 26.1 9) Some researchers have begun attempting to clean up oil spills by adding nonindigenous microbial hydrocarbon degraders to the spill, in the hope that these bacteria will neutralize the dangerous chemicals in the spill. This is an example of ________. A) bioremediation via fertilization B) seeding C) production of a new antibiotic D) use of extremophiles for cleanup of organic solvents Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.1, 26.3 Section: 26.1

10) You need to identify the major type of bacteria living on the shower curtain in your bathroom and find out what they use as a food source. What is the most efficient method for answering this question? A) Enrichment culture B) Producing a molecular phylogeny C) Direct sequencing D) Enrichment culture and direct sequencing are equally efficient methods. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.2 Section: 26.2 11) Broad-spectrum antibiotics inhibit the growth of most intestinal bacteria. Consequently, assuming that nothing is done to counter the reduction of intestinal bacteria, a hospital patient who is receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics is most likely to become ________. A) unable to fix carbon dioxide B) antibiotic-resistant C) unable to fix nitrogen D) unable to synthesize peptidoglycan E) deficient in certain vitamins and nutrients Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, S, E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.2 Section: 26.2 12) Carl Woese and collaborators identified two major branches of prokaryotic evolution. What was the basis for dividing prokaryotes into two domains? A) Microscopic examination of staining characteristics of the cell wall B) Metabolic characteristics such as the production of methane gas C) Metabolic characteristics such as chemoautotrophy and photosynthesis D) Genetic characteristics such as ribosomal RNA sequences E) Ecological characteristics such as the ability to survive in extreme environments Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.2 Section: 26.2

13) You might be interested to know how many different types of bacteria live on the shower curtain in your bathroom. What is the most efficient method for finding out? A) Producing a molecular phylogeny B) Enrichment culture C) Direct sequencing D) Enrichment culture and direct sequencing are equally efficient methods. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: I, E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.2 Section: 26.2 14) An organic solvent widely used in industrial processes, 1,1,1-trichloroethane (TCA), is a major environmental pollutant affecting human health and damaging the ozone layer. Recently, researchers isolated the first bacteria able to degrade TCA. They found that the bacteria use hydrogen as an electron donor, TCA as an electron acceptor, and acetate as a carbon source. Based on the preceding information, deduce the method used to isolate these bacteria. A) Gram staining B) Enrichment culture C) Direct sequencing D) Seeding Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.1.2 Section: 26.2 15) Microbiologists use the Gram stain to aid in the identification of bacteria. What is the major difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria? A) Structure of nucleotides in the plasma membrane B) Presence or absence of muramic acid in the cell wall C) Presence or absence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall D) Presence or absence of outer plasma membrane Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.3 Section: 26.3

16) Biologists sometimes divide living organisms into two groups: autotrophs and heterotrophs. These two groups differ in ________. A) their sources of energy B) their electron acceptors C) their mode of nutrition D) the way that they generate ATP Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.3 Section: 26.3 17) Imagine that you are given some chemoorganotrophic bacteria to grow. What should you use as a source of energy for this type of bacteria? A) Light B) Methane C) Ammonia D) Hydrogen sulfide E) Sugar Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.3 Section: 26.3 18) A prokaryote that obtains energy and carbon as it decomposes dead organisms is a(n) ________. A) autotroph B) chemotroph C) autotroph and phototroph D) heterotroph and chemotroph E) autotroph, phototroph, and chemotroph Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.3 Section: 26.3

19) A prokaryote that obtains carbon and energy by ingesting prey is a(n) ________. A) autotroph B) chemotroph C) autotroph and phototroph D) heterotroph and chemotroph E) autotroph, phototroph, and chemotroph Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.3 Section: 26.3 20) A prokaryote that obtains energy from light is a(n) ________. A) chemotroph B) phototroph C) autotroph and phototroph D) heterotroph and chemotroph E) autotroph, phototroph, and chemotroph Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.3 Section: 26.3 21) Which of the following obtain energy by oxidizing inorganic substances to obtain energy that is used, in part, to fix carbon dioxide? A) Photoautotrophs B) Photoheterotrophs C) Chemoautotrophs D) Chemoheterotrophs that perform decomposition E) Parasitic chemoheterotrophs Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.3 Section: 26.3

22) The purple nonsulfur bacterium Rhodospirillum grows best as a photoheterotroph. What are the most favorable sources of energy and carbon for this bacterium? A) Methane and carbon dioxide B) Fructose and light C) Light and carbon dioxide D) Glucose Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.3 Section: 26.3 23) A newly discovered organism is found to use sulfide (S2−) for aerobic respiration and carbon dioxide (CO2) from the air as a source of carbon, much like a plant. This organism must be a ________. A) photoautotroph B) chemoorganoautotroph C) photoheterotroph D) chemolithotrophic heterotroph E) chemolithoautotroph Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.3 Section: 26.3 24) What kind of molecules serve as electron acceptors in cellular respiration? A) Water B) Polar molecules C) Molecules with high potential energy D) Molecules with low potential energy E) Molecules in an excited state Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.3 Section: 26.3

25) When some bacteria use lactose as a source of energy, they produce propionic acid and carbon dioxide. What is the name for this process? A) Fermentation B) Cellular respiration C) Chemical synthesis D) Photosynthesis E) Carbon fixation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.3 Section: 26.3 26) A biologist trying to determine the mechanism of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production in a newly discovered bacterium provides several different substrates on which the bacteria can feed. Which of the following results would indicate that the species uses fermentation to produce ATP? A) The bacteria utilize glucose and produce carbon dioxide as a by-product of respiration. B) After the bacteria break down their substrate, the biologist notices a rotten egg smell. C) The biologist discovers that the bacteria are able to produce organic molecules by metabolizing methane. D) After exposure to amino acids, the bacteria produce a smell like rotting flesh. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.3 Section: 26.3 27) During cellular respiration, some bacteria use methane (CH4) as an electron donor and oxygen (O2) as an electron acceptor. What is the name for this group of bacteria? A) Methanogens B) Methanotrophs C) Organotrophs D) Nitrifiers Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.3 Section: 26.3

28) A bacterium was grown in two test tubes filled with media rich in glucose. One tube was sealed to produce anaerobic conditions, and the other was not. A third uninoculated, unsealed tube was used as a control. Glucose utilization by this bacterium causes acid production, which is indicated by a lightening of the media color. If the bacterium is able to produce ATP only by aerobic respiration, we expect lightening of media in ________. A) the sealed tube only B) the unsealed tube only C) the sealed and unsealed tubes only D) the control tube only E) all three tubes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.3 Section: 26.3 29) Which of the following extremophiles might researchers most likely use as a model for the earliest organisms on Earth? A) A bacterium capable of living at extremely high salinity B) A bacterium found on another planet or moon C) An archaean capable of surviving in the polar ice caps D) An anaerobic archaean species E) A bacterium that thrives in a highly acidic environment Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.1 Section: 26.1 30) You acquire a soil sample and run an enrichment culture on it. You provide the organisms in the culture with all of the ingredients required for growth except for nitrogen. What result do you expect to have at the end of your experiment? A) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria will significantly outnumber those incapable of fixing nitrogen. B) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria will not be present in the culture. C) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria will be present but not at significantly greater numbers than nonnitrogen-fixing species. D) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria will be present, but will be significantly outnumbered by nonnitrogen-fixing species. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.2 Section: 26.2 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

31) Multicellularity and large body size of eukaryotic organisms require high metabolic rates and efficient ATP production by aerobic respiration. How did bacteria change Earth's atmosphere to enable aerobic respiration? A) Oxygenic photosynthesis by cyanobacteria significantly increased the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere. B) Splitting of water during anaerobic respiration by cyanobacteria dramatically increased the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere. C) Nitrogen fixation by cyanobacteria decreased the amount of nitrogen in the atmosphere, leading to the simultaneous increase of oxygen. D) Anaerobic respiration by cyanobacteria increased the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere by reducing the amount of iron oxides that were able to react instantly with oxygen. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.1, 26.3 Section: 26.3 32) What is the characteristic feature of the Chlamydiales phylum? A) Unusual flagella B) Formation of colonies C) Rod shape D) Parasitic life cycle Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.4 Section: 26.4 33) You run an osteology lab, where students are able to study the bone structure of various species. To produce clean bones, you introduce insects and bacteria to remove all remaining flesh. Which bacteria would be the best purchase for your lab? A) Spirochaetes B) Actinobacteria C) Chlamydiae D) Cyanobacteria E) Proteobacteria Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.3, 26.4 Section: 26.4

34) You have found a new prokaryote. What line of evidence would support your hypothesis that the organism is a cyanobacterium? A) It is able to form colonies and produce oxygen. B) It is an endosymbiont. C) It forms chains called mycelia. D) You determine that it can cause Lyme disease. E) It lacks cell walls. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.3, 26.4 Section: 26.4 35) Which of the following groups is characterized by unusual flagella contained within a structure called the outer sheath? A) Spirochaetes/Spirochetes B) Proteobacteria C) Firmicutes D) Chlamydiales E) Euryarchaeota Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.4 Section: 26.4 36) Plantlike photosynthesis that releases oxygen (O2) occurs in ________. A) cyanobacteria B) chlamydias C) archaea D) actinomycetes E) chemoautotrophic bacteria Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.3 Section: 26.3

37) Researchers have found a new type of bacteria, and they want to determine its phylum. What would be the most reliable method to do so? A) Conducting a Gram-stain test B) Performing an analysis of metabolic pathways C) Determining the ribosomal RNA sequence of the bacteria D) Analyzing the morphological characteristics of the bacteria Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF, E, EM, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.2 Section: 26.4 38) Which of the following lineages have members found in highly acidic environments? A) Crenarchaeota (Eocytes) only B) Euryarchaeota only C) Thaumarchaeota only D) Both Crenarchaeota (Eocytes) and Euryarchaeota E) Crenarchaeota (Eocytes), Euryarchaeota, and Thaumarchaeota Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.4 Section: 26.4 39) Members of the Euryarchaeota can be found in which habitat(s)? A) Acidic hot springs only B) Highly alkaline environments only C) The human intestine only D) Acidic hot springs and highly alkaline environments E) Acidic hot springs, highly alkaline environments, and the human intestine Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.4 Section: 26.4

40) Some of the most useful phylogenetic trees are constructed from the alignment of 16S or 18S ribosomal RNA. What is the advantage of using rRNA over mRNA for the construction of phylogenetic trees? A) There is no advantage per se, rRNA is more commonly used because it was the first method developed. B) Only higher eukaryotes possess rRNA; therefore, phylogenetic trees constructed from these sources are more accurate. C) mRNA transcripts vary greatly, as they are dependent upon the genome of the organism, whereas rRNA is found in all organisms. D) mRNA transcripts are too conserved among organisms and therefore cannot be used to construct phylogenies. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 26.2 Section: 26.2

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 27 Diversification of Eukaryotes 1) When a mosquito infected with Plasmodium first bites a human, the Plasmodium ________. A) gametes fuse, forming an oocyst B) cells infect the human liver cells C) cells cause lysing of the human red blood cells D) oocyst undergoes meiosis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 27.1 Section: 27.1 2) Protists from which of the following taxonomic groups are most likely to lead to paralytic shellfish poisoning? A) Dinoflagellata B) Giardia C) Plasmodium D) Toxoplasma E) Euglena Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 27.1 Section: 27.1 3) All protists are ________. A) unicellular B) eukaryotic C) symbionts D) monophyletic E) mixotrophic Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.2, 27.4 Section: 27.2, 27.3

4) Protists and bacteria are grouped into different domains because ________. A) protists eat bacteria B) bacteria are not made of cells C) protists have a membrane-bounded nucleus, which bacterial cells lack D) bacteria decompose protists E) protists are photosynthetic Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.2, 27.3 Section: 27.3 5) Which of the following statements is consistent with the assertion that protists are paraphyletic? A) There is no common set of synapomorphies that define a protist. B) Protists all share a common set of synapomorphies. C) Protists are all more primitive than land plants and animals. D) Protists are more closely related to each other than to other groups of eukaryotes. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.2 Section: 27.0, 27.2

According to the phylogenetic tree in the accompanying figure, G. intestinalis constitutes a ________ group. A) paraphyletic B) monophyletic C) polyphyletic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.2 Section: 27.2

By examining the phylogenetic tree diagrammed in the accompanying figure, what conclusion can you draw about the species G. microti? A) It evolved before G. intestinalis. B) It is more closely related to G. muris than to G. intestinalis. C) It should not be labeled a species distinct from G. intestinalis. D) It is part of a monophyletic group that also includes G. intestinalis. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.2 Section: 27.2 8) Which of the following statements best describes the term synapomorphy? A) A trait that is shared by more than one monophyletic group B) A trait that evolved in the most recent common ancestor of a monophyletic group C) The state of having several traits in common with different monophyletic groups D) A trait that evolved in several different monophyletic groups simultaneously Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.2 Section: 27.2

9) The microsporidian Brachiola gambiae parasitizes the mosquito Anopheles gambiae. Adult female mosquitoes must take blood meals for their eggs to develop, and it is while they take blood that they transmit malarial parasites to humans. Male mosquitoes drink flower nectar. If humans are to safely and effectively use Brachiola gambiae as a biological control to reduce human deaths from malaria, then how many of the following statements should be TRUE? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Brachiola should kill the mosquitoes before the malarial parasite they carry reaches maturity. The microsporidian should not be harmful to other insects. Microsporidians should infect mosquito larvae, rather than mosquito adults. The subsequent decline in anopheline mosquitoes should not significantly disrupt human food resources or other food webs. 5. Brachiola must be harmful to male mosquitoes but not to female mosquitoes. A) 2 and 5 B) 1, 2, 3, and 4 C) 1, 2, and 4 D) 2, 3, and 5 E) 3 and 4 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E, S V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 27.1 Section: 27.1 10) Encouraging the growth (via nutrient fertilization) of photosynthetic protists in marine environments may help reduce global warming because ________. A) photosynthetic protists are primary consumers in many marine food chains B) photosynthetic protists fix atmospheric carbon dioxide, decreasing atmospheric carbon dioxide levels C) the increased oxygen consumption by large populations of photosynthetic protists will increase photosynthesis in land plants D) photosynthetic protists would release a lot of oxygen, and fertilizing them would increase levels of oxygen in the atmosphere Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, S V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 27.1, 27.3 Section: 27.1

11)

Which of the following might be a result of adding a secondary consumer to the aquatic ecosystem in the accompanying illustration? A) A decrease in the number of primary consumers B) A decrease in the population of decomposers C) An increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide D) An increase in the population of scavengers E) A decrease in the carbon sink Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.1, 27.3 Section: 27.1

12) Which of the following eukaryotic lineages contains many species that lack functioning mitochondria? A) Excavata B) Rhizaria C) Amoebozoa D) Stramenopila Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.4 Section: 27.4 13) Which major eukaryotic lineages form the Bikonta, a monophyletic group characterized by two flagella as a synapomorphy? A) Rhizaria, Plantae, Amoebozoa, Opisthokonta, Excavata B) Alveolata, Stramenopila, Rhizaria, Plantae, Excavata C) Rhizaria, Plantae, Excavata D) Amoebozoa, Opisthokonta E) Alveolata, Stramenopila Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.4 Section: 27.2

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below. The mechanism of cell crawling in protist species is not well defined. Pseudopodia extension involves interactions between actin and myosin (the same molecules that are involved in vertebrate muscle contraction). However, prior to the study described below, no one had provided convincing data that actin and myosin were actually involved in cell crawling in protists. Anatomical studies had identified the cytoskeletal protein actin just below the surface of the cell membrane in several species of protist, but physiological studies had failed to show a functional link among actin, myosin, and cell crawling. In a study by N. Poulsen et al. (Diatom gliding is the result of an actin-myosin motility system, Cell Motility and the Cytoskeleton 44 [1999]: 23-22), researchers tested whether motility in a particular species of diatom involves interactions between actin and myosin.

14) Refer to the study by Poulsen et al. and the accompanying figure. Latrunculin A is a reversible toxin that disrupts the formation of actin fibers. A culture of a particular species of diatom was treated with this toxin diluted in a buffer, while another culture was treated only with the buffer (no toxin; control). The motility of cells in each culture was assessed by counting the number of cells that were moving during a defined period of time. Which of the following conclusions is reasonable based on the figure? A) Formation of actin fibers is not necessary for the movement in this species of diatom. B) The buffer alone largely inhibited movement in this species of diatom. C) In this species of diatom, fully formed actin fibers are necessary for movement. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 27.3 Section: 27.3 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) Refer to the study by Poulsen et al. and the accompanying figure. The data graphed in the figure could be an artifact if latrunculin A kills this species of diatoms (i.e., that may be why the cells are not moving). Which of the following would be the best evidence that latrunculin A is NOT killing the cells? A) When the toxin was washed off the culture, the cells began to move again. B) There was still a small percentage of motile cells in the culture treated with the toxin. C) Most of the cells in the control were moving, indicating that they were alive. D) When the toxin was applied to another species of diatom, 25 percent of them continued to move. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 27.3 Section: 27.3

The mechanism of cell crawling in protist species is not well defined. Pseudopodia extension involves interactions between actin and myosin (the same molecules that are involved in vertebrate muscle contraction). However, prior to the study described below, no one had provided convincing data that actin and myosin were actually involved in cell crawling in protists. Anatomical studies had identified the cytoskeletal protein actin just below the surface of the cell membrane in several species of protist, but physiological studies had failed to show a functional link between actin, myosin, and cell crawling. In a study by N. Poulsen et al. (Diatom gliding is the result of an actin-myosin motility system, Cell Motility and the Cytoskeleton 44 [1999]: 23-22), researchers tested whether motility in a particular species of diatom involves interactions between actin and myosin. 16) Refer to the study by Poulsen et al. Cultures of a species of diatom were treated with BDM, a reversible inhibitor of myosin function. Which of the following predictions is consistent with the hypothesis that an actin-myosin interaction is necessary for motility? A) BDM will significantly decrease motility of the cells in culture. B) BDM will not significantly alter motility of the cells in culture. C) BDM will significantly increase motility of the cells in culture. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 27.3 Section: 27.3 17) A particular species of protist has obtained a chloroplast via secondary endosymbiosis. You know this because the chloroplasts ________. A) have nuclear and cyanobacterial genes B) are exceptionally small C) have three or four membranes D) have only a single pigment Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.3 Section: 27.3

18) Imagine that there are 25 different species of protists living in a tide pool. Some of these species reproduce both sexually and asexually, and some of them can reproduce only asexually. The pool gradually becomes infested with disease-causing viruses and bacteria. Which species are more likely to thrive in the changing environment? A) The sexually reproducing species B) The asexually reproducing species C) Sexually and asexually reproducing species are equally likely to thrive. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.3 Section: 27.3 19) Alternation of generations occurs in some protists. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events for this mode of reproduction? A) Gametophyte → gamete →fusion → sporophyte → spore → gametophyte B) Sporophyte → spore fusion → gametophyte → gamete → sporophyte C) Gametophyte → fusion →sporophyte → spore → gamete → gametophyte D) Gamete → fusion → gametophyte →spore → sporophyte → gamete Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.3 Section: 27.3 20) Consider the following points: (a) many excavates live in environments where oxygen availability is low; (b) many excavates lack mitochondria; and (c) all excavates have some mitochondrial genes. Based on this information, which of the following statements is TRUE of the excavate lineage? A) Their ancestors were eukaryotes that existed prior to the origin of mitochondria. B) Their ancestors had mitochondria, but the mitochondria were lost over time in some lineages. C) Their ancestors were not able to metabolize glucose. D) Excavates are in the process of acquiring mitochondria through evolutionary adaptation. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.3, 27.4 Section: 27.3, 27.4

21) According to the endosymbiotic theory, why was it adaptive for the larger (host) cell to keep the engulfed cell alive, rather than digesting it as food? A) The engulfed cell provided the host cell with adenosine triphosphate (ATP). B) The engulfed cell provided the host cell with carbon dioxide. C) The engulfed cell allowed the host cell to metabolize glucose. D) The host cell was able to survive anaerobic conditions with the engulfed cell alive. E) The host cell would have been poisoned if it had digested the engulfed cell. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.3 Section: 27.3 22) Assume that some members of an aquatic species of motile, photosynthetic protists evolve to become parasitic to fish. They gain the ability to live in the fish gut, absorbing nutrients as the fish digests food. Over time, which of the following phenotypic changes would you expect to observe in this population of protists? A) Loss of motility B) Loss of chloroplasts C) Gain of a rigid cell wall D) Gain of meiosis E) No changes would be expected. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.3 Section: 27.3 23) According to the endosymbiosis theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells, how did mitochondria originate? A) From infoldings of the plasma membrane, coupled with mutations of genes for proteins in energy-transfer reactions B) From engulfed, originally free-living proteobacteria C) By secondary endosymbiosis D) From the nuclear envelope folding outward and forming mitochondrial membranes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.3 Section: 27.3

24) Which of the following was derived from an ancestral cyanobacterium? A) Chloroplast B) Mitochondrion C) Flagella D) Mitosome Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.3 Section: 27.3 25) In the process of alternation of generations, the ________. A) sporophyte is haploid and produces gametes B) sporophyte is diploid and produces spores C) gametophyte is haploid and produces spores D) gametophyte is diploid and produces gametes E) spores unite to form a zygote Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.3 Section: 27.3 26) All protists ________. A) contain a nucleus B) contain a mitochondria C) are unicellular D) have a cell wall E) are photosynthetic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.2, 27.4 Section: 27.4

27) Which of the following protist lineages is appropriately paired with its supportive and/or protective structure? A) Diatoms have an intricate, chalky, chambered calcium carbonate shell. B) Parabasalids have an internal support rod, made of cross-linked microtubules, that runs the length of the cell. C) Alveolates have tough plates in the cell wall that are made up of cellulose. D) Euglenoids cover themselves with tiny pebbles. E) Dinoflagellates are surrounded by a glass-like, silicon dioxide cell wall. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.4 Section: 27.4 28) You discover a new species of protist. Which of the following characteristics would provide the strongest evidence for your hypothesis that your species belongs in Euglenida? A) It is photosynthetic. B) It has a pellicle just under the plasma membrane. C) It reproduces asexually. D) It is unicellular. E) It lacks a cell wall. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.4 Section: 27.3 29) In examining a protist, you notice that it lacks a cell wall and has movement with cytoplasmic streaming. These data allow you to infer that the species belongs to which of the following protist groups? A) Excavata B) Stramenopila C) Rhizaria D) Alveolata E) Amoebozoa Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.2, 27.3, 27.4 Section: 27.3, 27.4

30) One of the fish in your aquarium dies. Adding which protist to the water would allow you to avoid flushing the dead fish by speeding its decay? A) An apicomplexan B) A dinoflagellata C) A water mold D) A ciliate E) A euglenid Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.1, 27.3, 27.4 Section: 27.4 31) Dinoflagellates ________. A) have a glass-like cell wall B) are all autotrophic C) have walls that are usually composed of cellulose plates D) have a feeding groove E) include species that cause malaria Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.4 Section: 27.4 32) You are given an unknown organism to identify. It is unicellular and heterotrophic. It is motile, using many short extensions of the cytoplasm. It has well-developed organelles and two nuclei, one large and one small. This organism is most likely to be a ________. A) foraminiferan B) diatom C) ciliate D) dinoflagellate E) slime mold Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.3, 27.4 Section: 27.3, 27.4

33) Diatoms are mostly asexual members of the phytoplankton. They obtain their nutrition from functional chloroplasts, and each diatom is encased within two porous, glass-like valves. Which question would be most important for one interested in the day-to-day survival of individual diatoms? A) How does carbon dioxide get into these protists with their glass-like valves? B) How do diatoms get transported from one location on the water's surface layers to another location on the surface? C) How do diatoms with glass-like valves keep from sinking into poorly lit waters? D) How do diatoms with glass-like valves avoid being shattered by the action of waves? E) How do diatom sperm cells locate diatom egg cells? Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.3, 27.4 Section: 27.4 34) Amoeboid movement via long slender pseudopodia is characteristic of ________. A) foraminiferans B) water molds C) dinoflagellates D) oomycetes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.3, 27.4 Section: 27.4 35) A snail-like, coiled, porous test (shell) of calcium carbonate is characteristic of ________. A) diatoms B) foraminiferans C) ciliates D) water molds Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.4 Section: 27.3

36) Which of the following is NOT a producer? A) Green algae B) Dinoflagellate C) Apicomplexan D) Diatom E) Euglenid Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, EM, S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.3, 27.4 Section: 27.3, 27.4 37) Use the following information to answer the question below. Healthy individuals of Paramecium bursaria contain photosynthetic algal endosymbionts of the genus Chlorella. When within their hosts, the algae are referred to as zoochlorellae. In aquaria with light coming from only one side, P. bursaria gather at the well-lit side, whereas other species of Paramecium gather at the opposite side. The zoochlorellae provide their hosts with glucose and oxygen, and P. bursaria provides its zoochlorellae with protection and motility. P. bursaria can lose its zoochlorellae in two ways: (1) if kept in darkness, the algae will die; and (2) if prey items (mostly bacteria) are absent from its habitat, P. bursaria will digest its zoochlorellae. A P. bursaria cell that has lost its zoochlorellae is said to be aposymbiotic. It might be able to replenish its contingent of zoochlorellae by ingesting them without subsequently digesting them. Which of the following situations would be most favorable to the reestablishment of resident zoochlorellae, assuming compatible Chlorella are present in P. bursaria's habitat? A) Abundant light, no bacterial prey B) Abundant light, abundant bacterial prey C) No light, no bacterial prey D) No light, abundant bacterial prey Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, EM, S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.3 Section: 27.3

38) Which of the following best describes the leading hypothesis on the origin of the nucleus? A) The nucleus was formed through endosymbiosis of an archaeon. B) The nucleus was formed when the ER surrounded the chromosomes. C) The nucleus was formed through infolding of the plasma membrane. D) The nucleus was formed through modifications to a mitochondrion. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.3 Section: 27.3 39) Transcriptional regulation in eukaryotes includes processes such as alternative splicing that are not observed in bacteria or archaea. What changes occurred in the eukaryotic cell to make alternative splicing possible? A) Spatial separation of transcription and translation–transcription occurs in the nucleus and translation occurs in the cytoplasm. B) Spatial separation of transcription and translation–transcription occurs in the cytoplasm and translation occurs in the nucleus. C) Evolution of the eukaryotic 80s ribosome enabled more efficient translation. D) A shift from linear chromosomes in bacteria to circular chromosomes in eukaryotes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.3 Section: 27.3 40) In the past decade, many new species of eukaryotic "picoplankton" have been discovered. What technique has enabled their discovery? A) Deep sequencing of lab-grown cultures B) Direct sequencing of environmental samples C) Improved transmission electron microscopy approaches D) Improved scanning electron microscopy approaches Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.2 Section: 27.2

41) You are examining a sample of seawater under the microscope and observe two different species utilizing amoeboid movement. What can you conclude about these species? A) They are members of the Amoebozoa clade. B) Their mechanism of movement must be a homologous feature. C) They are likely closely related due to their similar cellular morphology. D) Additional data from more detailed observations of cellular structures or DNA sequence information would be required before drawing conclusions. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 27.2, 27.3, 27.4 Section: 27.2, 27.3

42) Which arrow would be the best choice for completing this protist (diatom) life cycle?

Answer: B LO: 27.3; EO: 27.3.5

43) Which arrow would be the best choice for completing this protist (dinoflagellate) life cycle?

Answer: D LO: 27.3; EO: 27.3.5

Interpret the model.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 44) This life cycle does not have a multicellular stage. Answer: TRUE LO: 27.3; EO: 27.3.5 45) The arrow labeled A represents meiosis. Answer: FALSE LO: 27.3; EO: 27.3.5 46) This life cycle shows asexual reproduction. Answer: TRUE LO: 27.3; EO: 27.3.5 47) This life cycle is not useful because it does not show lifelike drawings of the different stages. Answer: FALSE LO: 27.3; EO: 27.3.5 48) The cells on the right are genetically identical to the cell on the left. Answer: TRUE LO: 27.3; EO: 27.3.5 49) The cells on the right are gametes. Answer: FALSE LO: 27.3; EO: 27.3.5 50) The arrow labeled B represents maturation. Answer: TRUE LO: 27.3; EO: 27.3.5 51) The diploid stages are dominant in this life cycle. Answer: FALSE LO: 27.3; EO: 27.3.5 22 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 28 Green Algae and Land Plants 1) As fuels, wood and coal ________. A) are the main fuel sources in industrialized countries today B) are formed from living or fossil plants C) are both formed under pressure deep in the Earth D) are sustainable as they are even now being made at high rates Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS, SS LO: 28.1 Section: 28.1 2) The major function of medicinal compounds in plants is to ________. A) attract pollinators for seed dispersal B) attract insects and birds to spread seeds and fruits C) defend the plant against herbivores D) defend the plant against microbes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.1, 28.2 Section: 28.1 3) You want to get rid of your cough and stuffy nose, and a friend offers you a cup of mint tea. After you drink the tea, you realize that you are feeling relief from your symptoms. What plant compound was most likely found in the tea? A) Quinine B) Codeine C) Menthol D) Salacin E) Morphine Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.1 Section: 28.1

Researchers tested nitrogen loss from soil where the moss Dawsonia was growing and compared it to soil from which Dawsonia had been removed. The data are presented in the accompanying figure.

Researchers decided to test the hypothesis that if the 20-cm-tall Dawsonia acts as a physical buffer, then it would reduce water's ability to erode the soil and carry away its nitrogen. They began with four equal-sized areas where Dawsonia mosses grew to a height of 20 cm above the soil surface. One of the four areas was not modified. In the second area, the mosses were trimmed to a height of 10 cm above the soil surface. In the third area, the mosses were trimmed to a height of 5 cm above the soil surface. In the fourth area, the mosses were trimmed all the way to the ground, leaving only the rhizoids. Water, simulating rainfall, was then added in a controlled fashion to all plots over the course of 1 year. The accompanying figure presents four graphs depicting potential results of this experiment.

4) In the figure, which graph of soil nitrogen loss over time most strongly supports the hypothesis that if the 20-cm-tall Dawsonia acts as a physical buffer, then it reduces water's ability to erode the soil and carry away its nitrogen? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) None of these graphs support the hypothesis. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, S V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS, SS LO: 28.1 Section: 28.1

5) If the actual results most closely resembled those in part (A) in the figure above, then a further question arising from these data is: "Do the Dawsonia rhizoids have to be alive to reduce soil nitrogen loss, or do dead rhizoids have the same effect?" Arrange the following steps in the correct sequence to test this hypothesis. 1. Add metabolic poison to the soil of the experimental plot of mosses. 2. Apply water equally to the experimental and control plots. 3. Measure initial soil nitrogen contents of control and experimental plots. 4. Determine nitrogen loss from the soil of control and experimental plots. 5. Establish two identical plots of Dawsonia mosses; one as a control, the other as the experimental treatment. A) 5 → 1 → 3 → 2 → 4 B) 5 → 2 → 3 → 1 → 4 C) 5 → 3 → 1 → 2 → 4 D) 4 → 5 → 1 → 3 → 2 E) 5 → 3 → 2 → 1 → 4 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF, S V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 28.1 Section: 28.1 6) Over human history, which process has been most important in improving the features of plants long used by humans as staple foods? A) Genetic engineering B) Artificial selection C) Natural selection D) Sexual selection E) Pesticide and herbicide application Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS, SS LO: 28.1 Section: 28.1 7) According to the fossil record, plants colonized terrestrial habitats ________. A) in conjunction with insects that pollinated them B) in conjunction with fungi that helped provide them with nutrients from the soil C) to escape abundant herbivores in the oceans D) only about 150 million years ago Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.2 Section: 28.2 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) The most direct ancestors of land plants were probably ________. A) kelp (brown alga) that formed large beds near the shorelines B) green algae C) photosynthesizing prokaryotes (cyanobacteria) D) liverworts and mosses Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.2 Section: 28.2 9) Molecular phylogenies show all land plants are a monophyletic group. This suggests ________. A) there were many different transitions from aquatic to terrestrial habitats B) wind-pollinated plants arose first C) land plants have undergone a diversification since they first colonized terrestrial habitats D) there was a single transition from aquatic to terrestrial habitats Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.2, 28.3 Section: 28.2 10) About 450 million years ago, the terrestrial landscape on Earth would have ________. A) looked very similar to that of today, with flowers, grasses, shrubs, and trees B) been completely bare rock, with little pools that contained bacteria and cyanobacteria C) been covered with tall forests in swamps that became today's coal D) had nonvascular green plants similar to liverworts forming green mats on rock Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.2 Section: 28.2

11) What evidence do paleobotanists look for that indicates the movement of plants from water to land? A) Waxy cuticle to decrease evaporation from leaves B) Loss of structures that produce spores C) Sporopollenin to inhibit evaporation from leaves D) Remnants of chloroplasts from photosynthesizing cells Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: MS, PS LO: 28.2, 28.3 Section: 28.2 12) Which of these time intervals, based on plant fossils, came last (most recently)? A) Extensive growth of gymnosperm forests B) Silurian-Devonian explosion with fossils of plant lineages containing most of the major morphological innovations C) Colonization of land by early liverworts and mosses D) Rise and diversification of angiosperms E) Carboniferous swamps with giant horsetails and lycophytes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.2 Section: 28.2 13) Why are seedless vascular plants considered paraphyletic rather than monophyletic? A) Some of the groups within the seedless vascular plants are more closely related to each other than to other groups (such as Lycophyta). B) They share a more recent common ancestor with seeded plants than they do with the nonvascular plants. C) All of the groups contained within the seedless vascular plants do not have the same ancestor. D) The group includes their common ancestor but also the seeded descendants of that same ancestor. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.2, 28.3, 28.4 Section: 28.2

14) You find a green organism in a pond near your house and believe it is a plant, not an alga. The mystery organism is most likely a plant and not an alga if it ________. A) contains chloroplasts B) is multicellular C) is surrounded by a cuticle D) does not contain vascular tissue E) has cell walls that are comprised largely of cellulose Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS, PS LO: 28.2, 28.3, 28.4 Section: 28.3 15) Some green algae exhibit alternation of generations. All land plants exhibit alternation of generations. No charophytes (stoneworts) exhibit alternation of generations. Keeping in mind the recent evidence from molecular systematics, the correct interpretation of these observations is that ________. A) charophytes are not related to either green algae or land plants B) plants evolved alternation of generations independently of charophytes C) alternation of generations cannot be beneficial to charophytes D) land plants evolved directly from the green algae that did not perform alternation of generations E) scientists have no evidence to indicate whether or not land plants evolved from any kind of alga Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.2, 28.3 Section: 28.3 16) The functional role of sporopollenin is primarily to ________. A) comprise spore surface structures that catch the wind and assist in spore dispersal B) reduce dehydration C) make spores less dense and able to disperse more readily D) repel toxic chemicals E) provide nutrients to spores Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.2, 28.3 Section: 28.3

17) If humans had been present to build log structures during the Carboniferous period (though they were not!), which plant types would have been suitable sources of logs? A) Whisk ferns and epiphytes B) Horsetails and bryophytes C) Lycophytes and bryophytes D) Ferns, horsetails, and lycophytes E) Charophytes (stoneworts), bryophytes, and gymnosperms Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.1, 28.2 Section: 28.2 18) Which of the following should have had gene sequences most similar to the charophyte (stonewort) that was the common ancestor of land plants? A) Early angiosperms B) Early bryophytes C) Early gymnosperms D) Early lycophytes E) Early pterophytes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.2, 28.3 Section: 28.2 19) According to our current knowledge of plant evolution, which group of organisms should feature cell division most similar to that of land plants? A) Unicellular green algae B) Cyanobacteria C) Charophytes D) Red algae E) Multicellular green algae Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.2, 28.3 Section: 28.2

20) Which set contains the most closely related terms? A) Megasporangium, megaspore, pollen, and ovule B) Microsporangium, microspore, egg, and ovary C) Megasporangium, megaspore, egg, and ovule D) Microsporangium, microspore, carpel, and ovary Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.3 Section: 28.3 21) Most moss gametophytes do not have a cuticle and are 1-2 cells thick. What does this imply about moss gametophytes and their structure? A) They use stomata for gas-exchange regulation. B) They can easily lose water to, and absorb water from, the atmosphere. C) Photosynthesis occurs throughout the entire gametophyte surface. D) They have branching veins in their leaves. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: MS, PS LO: 28.2, 28.3 Section: 28.3 22) In the process of alternation of generations, the ________. A) sporophyte is haploid and produces gametes B) sporophyte is diploid and produces spores C) gametophyte is haploid and produces spores D) gametophyte is diploid and produces gametes E) spores unite to form a zygote Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.3 Section: 28.3

23) The herbicide 2,4-D affects the metabolism of dicots and kills most of them. What is a common feature of plants that are susceptible to 2,4-D? A) Branching leaf veins B) Flower parts in threes C) One cotyledon in the seed D) Vascular tissue scattered throughout the stem Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.3 Section: 28.3 24) As you stroll through a moist forest, you are most likely to see a ________. A) zygote of a green alga B) gametophyte of a moss C) sporophyte of a liverwort D) gametophyte of a fern Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.1, 28.2, 28.3 Section: 28.3 25) Which of these are spore-producing structures? A) Sporophyte (capsule) of a moss B) Antheridium of a moss or fern C) Archegonium of a moss or fern D) Gametophyte of a moss Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.2, 28.3 Section: 28.3

26) Which of the following occurs in vascular land plants but not charophytes (stoneworts)? A) Sporopollenin B) Lignin C) Chlorophyll a D) Cellulose E) Chlorophyll b Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.2, 28.3 Section: 28.3 27) Red, brown, and some green algae exhibit alternation of generations. All land plants exhibit alternation of generations. No charophytes (stoneworts) exhibit alternation of generations. Keeping in mind the recent evidence indicating charophytes are the sister group to land plants, we can infer ________. A) charophytes are not related to red, brown, or green algae or land plants B) alternation of generations likely evolved independently in land plants as well as in red and brown algae C) alternation of generations is not beneficial to charophytes but could re-evolve over time D) land plants evolved directly from the green algae that perform alternation of generations E) scientists have no evidence to indicate whether or not land plants evolved from any kind of alga Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.1, 28.2, 28.3 Section: 28.3 28) Which of the following was a challenge to the survival of the first land plants? A) Too much sunlight B) A shortage of carbon dioxide C) Desiccation D) Animal predation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.2 Section: 28.3

29) Archegonia ________. A) are sites where male gametes are produced B) may contain sporophyte embryos C) have the same function as sporangia D) are ancestral versions of animal gonads E) make asexual reproductive structures Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.3 Section: 28.3 30) Which of the following is TRUE of the life cycle of mosses? A) The haploid generation grows on the sporophyte generation. B) Spores are primarily distributed by water currents. C) Antheridia and archegonia are produced by gametophytes. D) The sporophyte generation is dominant. E) The growing embryo gives rise to the gametophyte. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.3 Section: 28.3 31) A botanist discovers a new species of plant in a tropical rain forest. After observing its anatomy and life cycle, he notes the following characteristics: flagellated sperm, xylem with tracheids, separate gametophyte and sporophyte generations with the sporophyte dominant, and no seeds. This plant is probably most closely related to ________. A) mosses B) charophytes (stoneworts) C) ferns D) gymnosperms E) flowering plants Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 28.1, 28.2, 28.3 Section: 28.3

32) If a fern gametophyte has both male and female gametangia on the same plant, then it ________. A) belongs to a species that is homosporous B) must be diploid C) has lost the need for a sporophyte generation D) has antheridia and archegonia combined into a single sex organ E) is actually not a fern because fern gametophytes are always either male or female Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.3 Section: 28.3 Use the following information to answer the question(s) below. Big Bend National Park in Texas is mostly Chihuahuan desert, where rainfall averages about 24 cm per year. Yet, it is not uncommon when hiking in this bone-dry desert to encounter mosses and ferns. One such plant is called "flower of stone." It is not a flowering plant, nor does it produce seeds. Under arid conditions, its leaf-like structures curl up. However, when it rains, it unfurls its leaves, which form a bright green rosette on the desert floor. Consequently, it is sometimes called the "resurrection plant." At first glance, it could be a fern, a true moss, or a spike moss. 33) What feature of both true mosses and ferns makes it most surprising that they can survive for many generations in dry deserts? A) Flagellated sperm B) Lack of vascular tissues C) Lack of true roots D) Lack of cuticle E) A gametophyte generation that is dominant Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.1, 28.2, 28.3, 28.4 Section: 28.3

34) Which of the following features is most important for true mosses and ferns to reproduce in the desert? A) That the sporophytes occupy only permanently shady, north-facing habitats B) That the sporophytes hug the ground, growing no taller than a couple of inches C) Either that their gametophytes grow close together, or that they be hermaphroditic D) That the sporophytes have highly lignified vascular tissues E) That the gametophytes contain secondary compounds to deter herbivores Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.1, 28.2, 28.3, 28.4 Section: 28.3 35) In plants, which of the following are produced by meiosis? A) Haploid sporophytes B) Haploid gametes C) Diploid gametes D) Haploid spores E) Diploid spores Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.3 Section: 28.3 36) Which of the following is a land plant that has flagellated sperm and a sporophyte-dominated life cycle? A) Fern B) Moss C) Liverwort D) Charophyte (stoneworts) E) Hornwort Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.2, 28.3, 28.4 Section: 28.3

37) Which of the following features of how seedless land plants get sperm to egg are the same as for some of their algal ancestors? A) Conjugation tubes are formed between sperm and egg cells. B) Packets of sperm are delivered by wind to the eggs. C) Aquatic invertebrates carry sperm to eggs. D) Flagellated sperm swim to the eggs in a water drop. E) Flagellated sperm meet flagellated eggs in a water drop. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.2, 28.3 Section: 28.4 38) Arrange the following in the correct sequence, from earliest to most recent, in which these plant traits originated. 1. Sporophyte dominance and gametophyte independence 2. Sporophyte dominance and gametophyte dependence 3. Gametophyte dominance and sporophyte dependence A) 1 → 2 → 3 B) 2 → 3 → 1 C) 2 → 1 → 3 D) 3 → 2 → 1 E) 3 → 1 → 2 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.2, 28.3 Section: 28.3 39) In terms of alternation of generations, the internal parts of the pollen grains of seedproducing plants are most similar to a ________. A) moss sporophyte B) moss gametophyte bearing both male and female gametangia C) fern sporophyte D) hermaphroditic fern gametophyte E) fern gametophyte bearing only antheridia Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.2, 28.3 Section: 28.3

40) Which of the following statements correctly describes a portion of the pine life cycle? A) Female gametophytes use mitosis to produce eggs. B) Seeds are produced in pollen-producing cones. C) Pollen grains contain female gametophytes. D) A pollen tube slowly digests its way through the triploid endosperm. E) The young seedling grows into a mature gametophyte. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.3 Section: 28.3 41) Which of the following statements is TRUE of the pine life cycle? A) Cones are homologous to the capsules of moss plants. B) The pine tree is a gametophyte. C) Male and female gametophytes are in close proximity during gamete synthesis. D) Conifer pollen grains contain male gametophytes. E) Double fertilization is a relatively common phenomenon. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.3 Section: 28.3 42) Arrange the following structures, which can be found on male pine trees, from the largest structure to the smallest structure (or from most inclusive to least inclusive). 1. Sporophyte 2. Microspores 3. Microsporangia 4. Pollen cone 5. Pollen nuclei A) 1, 4, 3, 2, and 5 B) 1, 4, 2, 3, and 5 C) 1, 2, 3, 5, and 4 D) 4, 1, 2, 3, and 5 E) 4, 3, 2, 5, and 1 Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.3 Section: 28.3

43) Which structure is common to both gymnosperms and angiosperms? A) Stigma B) Carpel C) Ovule D) Ovary E) Anthers Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.3 Section: 31.3 44) Which of the following is a characteristic of all angiosperms? A) Complete reliance on wind as the pollinating agent B) Double internal fertilization C) Free-living gametophytes D) Carpels that contain microsporangia E) Ovules that are not contained within ovaries Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.2, 28.3 Section: 28.3 45) The generative cell of male angiosperm gametophytes is haploid. This cell divides to produce two haploid sperm cells. What type of cell division does the generative cell undergo to produce these sperm cells? A) Binary fission B) Mitosis C) Meiosis D) Mitosis without subsequent cytokinesis E) Meiosis without subsequent cytokinesis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.3 Section: 28.3

46) Angiosperms are the most successful terrestrial plants. Which of the following features is unique to them and helps account for their success? A) Wind pollination B) Dominant gametophytes C) Fruits enclosing seeds D) Embryos enclosed within seed coats E) Sperm cells without flagella Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.3 Section: 28.3 47) The fruit of the mistletoe, a parasitic angiosperm, is a one-seeded berry. In members of the genus Viscum, the outside of the seed is viscous (sticky), which permits the seed to adhere to surfaces such as the branches of host plants or the beaks of birds. What should be expected of the fruit if the viscosity of Viscum seeds is primarily an adaptation for dispersal rather than an adaptation for infecting host plant tissues? It should _________. A) be drab in color B) be colored so as to provide it with camouflage C) be nutritious to the dispersing organisms D) secrete enzymes that can digest bark E) contain chemicals that cause birds to fly to the ground and vomit Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.1, 28.3 Section: 28.3

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below. Harold and Kumar are premed and pre-pharmacy students, respectively. They complain to their biology professor that they should not have to study about plants because plants have little relevance to their chosen professions. 48) Which adaptations of land plants are likely to provide Harold with future patients? I. Sporophyte dominance II. Defenses against herbivory III. Adaptations related to wind dispersal of pollen A) I and II B) II and III C) I and III D) I, II, and III Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS, SS LO: 28.1, 28.2, 28.3, 28.4 Section: 28.3 49) Which of the following lines of evidence would best support your assertion that a particular plant is an angiosperm? A) It produces seeds. B) It retains its fertilized egg within its archaegonium. C) It lacks gametangia. D) It undergoes alternation of generations. E) It produces gametes by mitosis rather than meiosis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.3 Section: 28.3

50) A botanist discovers a new species of land plant with a dominant sporophyte, chlorophylls a and b, and cell walls made of cellulose. In assigning this plant to a phylum, which of the following, if present, would be LEAST useful? A) Endosperm B) Seeds C) Sperm that lack flagella D) Flowers E) Spores Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS, PS LO: 28.3, 28.4 Section: 28.4 51) Where are you LEAST likely to see green algae? A) As pink snow in the mountains in summer B) Growing symbiotically with fungi in lichens or with some invertebrate animals C) Growing independently on dry rock in meadows D) Growing independently on wet rock in ponds and lakes E) Floating in seas and oceans Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.1, 28.3 Section: 28.4 52) Liverworts, hornworts, and mosses are grouped together as Bryophytes. Besides not having vascular tissue, what do they all have in common? A) They are all wind pollinated. B) They are heterosporous. C) They can reproduce asexually by producing gemmae. D) They require water for reproduction. E) They have the ability to desiccate and rehydrate with no ill effects. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.1, 28.3, 28.4 Section: 28.4

53) Which group of seedless vascular plants was the first to evolve roots? A) Club mosses B) Horsetails C) Ferns D) Whisk ferns Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.2, 28.4 Section: 28.4 54) Which plant group is notable for the independence of gametophyte and sporophyte generations from each other? A) Ferns B) Bryophytes C) Charophytes D) Angiosperms E) Gymnosperms Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.3, 28.4 Section: 28.4 55) Because they are morphologically simple, Psilotophyta (whisk ferns) have traditionally been thought to be a basal group in the radiation of land plants. Molecular phylogenies have challenged this hypothesis and support the alternative hypothesis that they ________. A) are the sister group to the seed plants B) represent a grade rather than a monophyletic group C) have lost complex structures in this lineage D) represent a lineage that forms a monophyletic group with Lycophyta Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS, PS LO: 28.3, 28.4 Section: 28.4

Use the following description to answer the question(s) below. Cycads, a mostly tropical phylum of gymnosperms, evolved about 300 million years ago and were dominant forms during the Age of the Dinosaurs. Though their sperm are flagellated, their ovules are pollinated by beetles. These beetles get nutrition by eating pollen and microsporophyll tissue and shelter within the male cones (they are dioecious). Upon visiting megasporophylls on nearby female plants, which become attractively aromatic and warm (but are not palatable), the beetles transfer pollen to the exposed ovules. Cycad megasporophyll tissues synthesize neurotoxins, some of which is transferred to the seeds, that are effective against most animals, including humans. 56) Which feature of cycads distinguishes them from most other gymnosperms? I. They have exposed ovules. II. They have flagellated sperm. III. They are pollinated by animals. A) I only B) II only C) III only D) II and III E) I, II, and III Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: MS, PS LO: 28.3, 28.4 Section: 28.4

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below. The Brazil nut tree, Bertholletia excels, is native to tropical rain forests of South America. It is a hardwood tree that can grow to over 50 meters tall, is a source of high-quality lumber, and is a favorite nesting site for harpy eagles. As the rainy season ends, tough-walled fruits, each containing 8-25 seeds (Brazil nuts), fall to the forest floor. Brazil nuts are composed primarily of endosperm. About $50 million worth of nuts are harvested each year. Scientists have discovered that the pale yellow flowers of Brazil nut trees cannot fertilize themselves and admit only female orchid bees as pollinators. The agouti (Dasyprocta spp.), a cat-sized rodent, is the only animal with teeth strong enough to crack the hard wall of Brazil nut fruits. It typically eats some of the seeds, buries others, and leaves still others inside the fruit, which moisture can now enter. The uneaten seeds may subsequently germinate. 57) Entrepreneurs attempted, but failed, to harvest nuts from plantations grown in Southeast Asia. Attempts to grow Brazil nut trees in South American plantations also failed. In both cases, the trees grew vigorously, produced healthy flowers in profusion, but set no fruit. Consequently, what is the likely source of the problem? A) Poor sporophyte viability B) Poor sporophyte fertility C) Failure to produce fertile ovules D) Failure to produce pollen E) Pollination failure Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, S V&C Core Comp: MS, SS LO: 28.1, 28.4 Section: 28.4 58) Orchid bees are to Brazil nut trees as ________ are to pine trees. A) breezes B) rain droplets C) seed-eating birds D) squirrels E) both seed-eating birds and squirrels Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 28.1, 28.4 Section: 28.4

59) Match each life stage to its correct placement in the life cycle.

Answer:

LO: 28.3; EO: 28.3.3

60) Match each process to its correct placement in the life cycle. Some processes may be used more than once.

Answer:

LO: 28.3; EO: 28.3.3

Interpret the fern life cycle.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 61) The life stage at the top of the cycle represents spores. Answer: TRUE LO: 28.3; EO: 28.3.3 62) All the life stages are drawn to the same scale. Answer: FALSE LO: 28.3; EO: 28.3.3 63) This life cycle shows alternation of generations, alternating between a multicellular diploid form and single-celled haploid forms. Answer: FALSE LO: 28.3; EO: 28.3.3 64) The fern stage on the right side of the life cycle is the gametophyte. Answer: TRUE LO: 28.3; EO: 28.3.3 65) The red color in this model indicates diploid. Answer: TRUE LO: 28.3; EO: 28.3.3

66) Meiosis is the process that produces gametes. Answer: FALSE LO: 28.3; EO: 28.3.3 67) The fern stage on the right side of the life cycle has one set of chromosomes per cell. Answer: TRUE LO: 28.3; EO: 28.3.3

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 29 Fungi 1) Chemicals, secreted by soil fungi, which inhibit the growth of bacteria are known as ________. A) antibodies B) aflatoxins C) hallucinogens D) antigens E) antibiotics Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 29.1 Section: 29.1 2) Which of the following is an important role for fungi in the carbon cycle? A) Fungi release fixed carbon back to the environment for other plants and photosynthetic organisms to utilize. B) Fungi provide fixed carbon to plants for the production of plant cellular tissues. C) Fungi fix carbon by undergoing photosynthesis. D) Fungi reduce atmospheric carbon dioxide. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM, S V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 29.1 Section: 29.1 3) When pathogenic fungi are found growing on the roots of grape vines, grape farmers sometimes respond by covering the ground around their vines with plastic sheeting and pumping a gaseous fungicide into the soil. The most important concern of grape farmers who engage in this practice should be that the ________. A) fungicide might also kill the native yeasts residing on the surfaces of the grapes B) lichens growing on the vines' branches are not harmed C) fungicide might also kill mycorrhizae D) sheeting is transparent so that photosynthesis can continue Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 29.1 Section: 29.1

4) Fungi that absorb nutrients from decaying plant matter are called ________. A) saprobes B) mycorrhizae C) mushrooms D) yeasts E) molds Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, S V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 29.1 Section: 29.1 5) All fungi are ________. A) symbiotic B) heterotrophic C) flagellated D) pathogenic E) decomposers Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.1 Section: 29.1 6) Which of the following is major characteristic of fungi that distinguishes them from other eukaryotes? A) Acquiring nutrition through ingestion B) Sessile lifestyle C) Cells with nuclei and mitochondria D) Nutrient acquisition via external digestion E) Decomposition of dead organisms Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.2 Section: 29.3

7) Why is it more difficult to treat fungal infections than bacterial infections in humans? A) Fungi are larger organisms than bacteria and thus require stronger drugs to stop an infection. B) Most fungi are multicellular and thus the drugs required to treat a fungal infection must be able to kill several types of cells; bacteria, on the other hand, are unicellular and thus simpler to kill. C) Fungal and animal cells and proteins are similar. Thus, drugs that disrupt fungal cell or protein function may also disrupt human cell or protein function. D) Fungi are able to mutate more quickly than bacteria, so they quickly develop resistance to antifungal drugs. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 29.1 Section: 29.2 8) Long, branching fungal filaments are called ________. A) roots B) ascus C) septa D) mycelia E) hyphae Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.4 Section: 29.2 9) The vegetative (nutritionally active) bodies of most fungi are ________. I. composed of hyphae II. referred to as a mycelium III. usually underground A) I and II B) II and III C) only II D) I and III E) I, II, and III Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.4 Section: 29.2

10) You are a forester charged with increasing productivity in a South American forest newly planted with pines from Oregon. You believe that the southern forest lacks the fungal diversity needed by the North American pines and that this lack of fungi is affecting the pines' productivity, but you have no evidence to support your ideas. Which of the following would be the best approach to assess the diversity of fungi likely contributing to tree productivity in the Oregon forest? A) Count the number of fungal species visible on the leaves of one tree species and then multiply by the number of trees in the forest. B) Collect all the fruiting structures (mushrooms, morels, etc.) found aboveground. C) Do direct sequencing on representative soil samples from across the forest. D) Expose the trees to radiolabeled phosphorus and then collect the soil samples with the greatest radioactivity and do direct sequencing. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 29.1, 29.3 Section: 29.2 11) Which of these fungal features supports the phylogenetic conclusion that fungi are more closely related to animals than to plants? A) Fungi are able to change their body shape continuously throughout their life. B) Zygomycetes have flagellated gametes. C) Fungi store polysaccharides as starch. D) The cell walls of fungi are made of chitin. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.2 Section: 29.2

The question(s) below refer to the following phylogenetic trees.

12) Which tree depicts the microsporidians as a sister group of the ascomycetes? A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.2 Section: 29.2

13) Microsporidians were long thought to be a sister group to fungi. Which of the phylogenies best supports this view? A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.2 Section: 29.2 14) Among the organisms listed here, which are thought to be the closest relatives of fungi? A) Animals + choanoflagellates B) Plants + animals C) Amoebozoans D) Brown algae E) Slime molds Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.2 Section: 29.2 15) Studies have shown that in some forest ecosystems carbon can move from one tree to another via mycorrhizal fungi. Which of the following features of fungal biology enables this? A) The cells of fungal hyphae are connected by pores that allow passage of cytoplasm from cell to cell. B) Fungal cells have large numbers of transporter proteins for moving digested materials around the mycelia. C) Fungal cells have flagella, which can help with movement of materials. D) Mycorrhizae form symbiotic associations with bacteria that assist with transport. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.1, 29.3 Section: 29.2

16) It has been hypothesized that fungi and plants have a mutualistic relationship because plants make sugars available for the fungi's use. What is the best evidence in support of this hypothesis? A) Fungi survive better when they are associated with plants. B) Radioactively labeled sugars produced by plants eventually show up in the fungi with which they are associated. C) Fungi associated with plants have the ability to undergo photosynthesis and produce their own sugars, whereas those not associated with plants do not produce their own sugars. D) Radioactive labeling experiments show that plants pass crucial raw materials to the fungus for manufacturing sugars. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E, S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.1, 29.3 Section: 29.3 17) You have discovered a new species of fungi. Which of the following features would support describing this new species as a zygomycete? A) The fungus forms yoked hyphae during reproduction. B) The fungus produces flagellated spores. C) The fungus has a multicellular n+n phase as part of its life cycle. D) The fungus produces sporangia containing exactly 8 spores. E) The fungus is able to form associations with plant roots. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.4, 29.5 Section: 29.3, 29.4 18) At which stage of a basidiomycete's life cycle would reproduction be halted if an enzyme that prevented the fusion of hyphae was introduced? A) Meiosis B) Fertilization C) Karyogamy D) Plasmogamy E) Germination Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.4, 29.5 Section: 29.3

19) When a mycelium infiltrates an unexploited source of dead organic matter, what are most likely to appear within the food source soon thereafter? A) Fungal spores B) Fungal enzymes C) Increased potassium levels D) Increased oxygen levels E) Larger bacterial populations Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.1, 29.4 Section: 29.3 20) Fungi with hyphae ________. A) acquire their nutrients by phagocytosis B) are called yeasts C) have cell walls that consist mainly of cellulose microfibrils D) are adapted for rapid directional growth to new food sources E) reproduce asexually by a process known as budding Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.2 Section: 29.2 21) In septate fungi, what structures allow cytoplasmic streaming to distribute needed nutrients, synthesized compounds, and organelles throughout the hyphae? A) Multiple chitinous layers in cross-walls B) Pores in septa C) Complex microtubular cytoskeletons D) Two nuclei E) Tight junctions that form in cross-walls between cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.2 Section: 29.2

22) Which of the following characteristics is unique to chytrids compared to other groups of fungi? A) Flagellated spores B) Endospores C) Autotrophic mode of nutrition D) Cell walls of cellulose E) Presence of a multicellular haploid stage Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.4, 29.5 Section: 29.3, 29.4 23) You are given an organism to identify. It has a fruiting body that contains many structures with eight haploid spores lined up in a row. What kind of a fungus is this? A) Zygomycete B) Ascomycete C) Glomeromycete D) Chytrid E) Basidiomycete Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.2, 29.4, 29.5 Section: 29.3

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below. For several decades now, amphibian species worldwide have been in decline. A significant proportion of the decline seems to be due to the spread of the chytrid fungus, Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis (Bd). Chytrid sporangia reside within the epidermal cells of infected animals, animals that consequently show areas of sloughed skin. They can also be lethargic, which is expressed through failure to hide and failure to flee. The infection cycle typically takes 4 to 5 days, at the end of which zoospores are released from sporangia into the environment. In some amphibian species, mortality rates approach 100 percent; other species seem able to survive the infection. 25) The adaptive advantage associated with the filamentous nature of fungal mycelia is primarily related to ________. A) the ability to parasitize other organisms B) avoiding sexual reproduction until the environment changes C) the potential to inhabit almost all terrestrial habitats D) the increased probability of contact between different mating types E) an extensive surface area well suited for absorptive nutrition Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.4 Section: 29.2 26) It has been hypothesized that fungi and plants have a mutualistic relationship because fungi provide critical nitrogen for the plants' use. How do we know this happens? In experiments using radioactively labeled ________. A) nitrogen, plants acquired more radioactive nitrogen when they were associated with fungi B) nitrogen, labeled nitrogen showed up in fungi when the fungi were symbiotic with plants C) carbon, plants acquired more radioactive carbon when they were associated with fungi D) proteins, plants transported labeled proteins to adjacent fungi Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 29.1, 29.3 Section: 29.3

27) Why are mycorrhizal fungi superior to plants at acquiring mineral nutrition from the soil? A) Hyphae are 100 to 1000 times larger than plant roots. B) Hyphae have a smaller surface-area-to-volume ratio than do the hairs on a plant root. C) Mycelia are able to grow in the direction of food. D) Fungi secrete extracellular enzymes that can break down large molecules. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.1, 29.3 Section: 29.3 28) Basidiomycetes are the only fungal group capable of synthesizing lignin peroxidase. What advantage does this group of fungi have over other fungi because of this capability? A) This is always the first group of fungi to begin any kind of plant decomposition. B) This fungal group can break down the tough lignin, which cannot be harnessed for energy, to get to the more useful cellulose. C) This is the only group of fungi that can use lignin for adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production. D) This enzyme releases heat energy from the breakdown of lignin that is used to kill off competing fungi. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 29.1, 29.4 Section: 29.3 29) Why is it important that ectomycorrhizal fungi (EMF) have peptidase enzymes? A) These enzymes are necessary to break through the tough lignin layers in plants. B) These enzymes assist with the breakdown of cellulose. C) These enzymes are needed to release nitrogen from dead plant material. D) These enzymes are required for formation of the fungal "sheath" around roots. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.1, 29.3 Section: 29.3

30) What group of fungi has the ability to penetrate its host's cell wall, thus increasing the efficiency with which materials are passed from fungus to host? A) Ectomycorrhizal fungi B) Arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi C) Endophytes D) Lichens Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.2, 29.5 Section: 29.3 31) Some fungal species can kill herbivores while feeding off of sugars from its plant host. What type of relationship does this fungus have with its host? A) Parasitic B) Mutualistic C) Commensal D) Predatory Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.1 Section: 29.3

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below. Canadian and Swiss researchers wanted to know if the diversity of arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi (AMF) was important to the productivity of grasslands (M.G.A. van der Heijden, J. N. Klironomos, M. Ursic, P. Moutoglis, R. Streitwolf-Engel, T. Boler, A. Wiemken, and I. R. Sanders. 1998. Mycorrhizal fungal diversity determines plant biodiversity, ecosystem variability, and productivity. Nature 396: 69-72). Specifically, they wanted to know if it mattered which specific AMF species were present, or just that some type of AMF was present. They grew various plants in combination with one of four AMF species (A, B, C, and D), no AMF species (O), or all four AMF species together (A + B + C + D); and they measured plant growth under each set of conditions. All plant species were grown in each plot, so they always competed with each other with the only difference being which AMF species were present. On the graphs below, the x-axis labels indicate the number and identity of AMF species (bar 0 = no fungi; bars A-D = individual AMF species; bar A + B + C + D = all AMF species together). The y-axis indicates the amount (grams) of plant biomass for the species shown in italics above each graph. Graph (e) is the total biomass (grams) of all 11 plant species combined; graph (f) is the biomass of Bromus erectus plants only, separated from the total.

32) Based on the graphs in the accompanying figure, which of the following plant species is most likely NOT to form mycorrhizal associations? A) Carex flacca (graph a) B) Lotus corniculatus (graph b) C) Sanguisorba officinalis (graph c) D) Centaurium erythrea (graph d) Answer: A 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, S V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 29.1, 29.3 Section: 29.3 33) Based on graphs in the accompanying figure, which of the following is the best description of the data supporting the idea that a plant species did not form mycorrhizae with a fungus? Its biomass is the greatest when ________. A) no AMF are present B) AMF fungus A is present C) AMF fungus B is present D) AMF fungus C is present E) all AMF are present Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, S V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 29.1, 29.3 Section: 29.3 34) In graph (b) in the accompanying figure, which of the following best explains the data given about Lotus corniculatus? A) This plant grows best when AMF taxa A is present. B) Lotus corniculatus does not form mycorrhizal associations. C) Mycorrhizal fungi parasitize the plant's roots when they are present, reducing its growth. D) This plant forms multiple AMF associations, growing best with increased fungal diversity. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, S V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 29.1, 29.3 Section: 29.3 35) What is the major difference between Bromus erectus (graph f) and the other plant species (graphs a-d) included in the study? A) Bromus erectus grows best with a diversity of fungal partners. B) Bromus erectus is unaffected by AMF diversity. C) Bromus erectus shows dramatic reduction in growth in the presence of AMF. D) Bromus erectus produces very little biomass regardless of AMF. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, S V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 29.1, 29.3 Section: 29.3 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

36) Why does total biomass (graph e in the accompanying figure) not vary with AMF diversity? A) Plant growth is unaffected by fungal diversity. B) Most of the plant species in this system do not form mycorrhizal associations. C) Bromus erectus is the dominant plant species. D) Lotus corniculatus the dominant plant species. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E, S V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 29.1, 29.3 Section: 29.3 37) Which of the following terms refers to symbiotic relationships involving fungi living between the cells in plant leaves? A) Pathogens B) Endosymbioses C) Endophytes D) Lichens E) Mycorrhizae Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.2 Section: 29.3 38) In most fungi, karyogamy does NOT immediately follow plasmogamy, which consequently ________. A) means that sexual reproduction can occur in specialized structures B) results in multiple diploid nuclei per cell C) allows fungi to reproduce asexually most of the time D) results in heterokaryotic or potentially even dikaryotic cells E) is strong support for the claim that fungi are not truly eukaryotic Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.4 Section: 29.3

39) You observe the gametes of a fungal species under the microscope and realize that they resemble animal sperm. To which of the following groups does the fungus belong? A) Chytrids B) Zygomycetes C) Basidiomycota D) Ascomycota E) Microsporidia Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.4, 29.5 Section: 29.2, 29.3 40) The asexual sporangia of the bread mold Rhizopus are ________. A) structures that produce haploid spores via mitosis B) structures that produce diploid spores via mitosis C) structures that produce haploid spores via meiosis D) structures that produce diploid spores via meiosis Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.4, 29.5 Section: 29.3, 29.4 41) In both lichens and mycorrhizae, what does the fungal partner provide to its photosynthetic partner? A) Carbohydrates B) Fixed nitrogen C) Antibiotics D) Water and minerals E) Protection from harmful ultraviolet light Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.1, 29.3 Section: 29.4

42) Microsporidians are considered parasitic because of the ability to penetrate their host cells using ________. A) a mycelium B) a polar tube C) sporangia D) chitin Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 29.5 Section: 29.4 43) Many amphibian populations have been decimated by a parasitic fungus classified as a member of the ________. A) Chytridiomycota B) Ascomycota C) Basidiomycota D) Zygomycota E) Glomeromycota Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 29.5 Section: 29.4 44) Lichens are symbiotic associations of fungi and ________. A) mosses or algae B) cyanobacteria or algae C) green algae or liverworts D) mosses or cyanobacteria E) mosses or sponges Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.1 Section: 29.4

45) Which of the following best describes the physical relationship of the partners involved in lichens? A) Fungal cells are enclosed within algal cells. B) Lichen cells are enclosed within fungal cells. C) Photosynthetic cells are surrounded by fungal hyphae. D) The fungi grow on rocks and trees and are covered by algae. E) Algal cells and fungal cells mix together without any apparent structure. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.1 Section: 29.3 46) ________ form ectomycorrhizal relationships with temperate forest trees while ________ form arbuscular (endomycorrhizal) relationships with plants in grasslands and tropical forests. A) Zygomycetes; chytridiomycetes B) Ascomycetes; zygomycetes C) Basidiomycetes; glomeromycetes D) Glomeromycetes; ascomycetes E) Chytridiomycetes; basidiomycetes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, S V&C Core Comp: PS, SS LO: 29.1, 29.5 Section: 29.4 47) Some fungi have been instrumental in the development of human culture, including __________ in the phylum ________ as they have been in use for hundreds of years in producing beer and bread. A) chytrids; Chytridiomycota B) yeasts; Ascomycota C) puffballs; Basidiomycota D) bread molds; Zygomycota E) arbuscular mycorhizae; Glomeromycota Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SS V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.1, 29.5 Section: 29.4

48) Which of the following fungal groups may not be monophyletic? A) Glomeromycota B) Ascomycota C) Basidiomycota D) Zygomycota E) The Dikaryotic fungi Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.2, 29.5 Section: 29.4 49) Our current phylogeny of the fungi contains a polytomy. If additional data allowed us to resolve the polytomy, and we discovered that Zygomycetes are monophyletic, but Chytrids are not monophyletic, which of the following hypotheses about fungal evolution would most likely be correct? A) Flagellated spores may have evolved several times. B) The zygosporangium may have evolved several times. C) Septate hyphae may have evolved several times. D) Both flagellated spores and the zygosporangium may have evolved several times. E) Flagellated spores, the zygosporangium, and septate hyphae all may evolved several times. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying / Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.2, 29.5 Section: 29.2 50) A fungal species produces spores in sets of four that are mounted on a short stalk. Which of the following features would you NOT expect to find in this species? A) Dikaryotic cells B) Coenocytic hyphae C) Cell walls with chitin D) Absorptive nutrition E) Plasmogamy Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 29.2, 29.4, 29.5 Section: 29.4

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 30 An Introduction to Animals 1) Which of the following is (are) unique to animals? A) Cells that have mitochondria B) The structural carbohydrate, chitin C) Nervous system signal conduction and muscular movement D) Heterotrophy E) Flagellated gametes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: I LO: 30.1 Section: 30.1 2)

Imagine you are on the way to Tahiti for a vacation, but your plane crash-lands on a previously undiscovered island. You soon find that the island is teeming with unfamiliar organisms, and you, as a student of biology, decide to survey them (with the aid of the Insta-Lab Portable Laboratory you brought along in your suitcase). You select three organisms and observe them in detail, making the notations found in the accompanying table. Which organism would you classify as an animal? A) Organism A B) Organism B C) Organism C D) Organisms B and C E) Organisms A, B, and C Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.1 Section: 30.1 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Use the following information to answer the question below. Trichoplax adhaerens (Tp) is the only living species in the phylum Placozoa. Individuals are about 1 mm wide and only 27 μm high, are irregularly shaped, and consist of a total of about 2000 cells, which are diploid (2n = 12). There are four types of cells, none of which are nerve or muscle cells, and none of which have cell walls. They move using cilia, and any "edge" can lead. Tp feeds on marine microbes, mostly unicellular green algae, by crawling atop the algae and trapping it between its ventral surface and the substrate. Enzymes are then secreted onto the algae, and the resulting nutrients are absorbed. Tp sperm cells have never been observed, nor have embryos past the 64-cell (blastula) stage. Which of the following Tp traits is different from those of most other animals? A) Tp is multicellular. B) Tp lacks muscle and nerve cells. C) Tp has cilia. D) Tp lacks cell walls. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.1 Section: 30.1 4) Both animals and fungi are heterotrophic. Animal heterotrophy can be distinguished from fungal heterotrophy in that most animals derive their nutrition by ________. A) preying on animals B) ingesting prey C) consuming living, rather than dead, prey D) using enzymes to digest their food Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.1 Section: 30.1

5) Which of the following statements concerning animal taxonomy is (are) TRUE? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Animals are more closely related to plants than to fungi. All animal clades based on body plan have been found to be incorrect. Kingdom Animalia is monophyletic. Animals only reproduce sexually. Animals are thought to have evolved from flagellated protists similar to modern choanoflagellates. A) 5 only B) 1 and 2 C) 3 and 5 D) 3, 4, and 5 E) 2 and 4 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.1, 30.2, 30.3 Section: 30.1, 30.2, 30.3 6) During the Cambrian explosion, the characteristics of animals that appeared include________. A) flying reptiles B) mammals that could climb trees C) swimming protostomes D) armored reptiles Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.1 Section: 30.1 7) You find a new species of worm and want to classify it. Which of the following lines of evidence would allow you to classify the worm as a nematode and not an annelid? A) It undergoes protostome development. B) It is segmented. C) It is triploblastic. D) It has a coelom. E) It sheds its external cuticle to grow. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.1 Section: 30.1

8) If the current molecular evidence regarding animal origins is further substantiated in the future, what will be TRUE of any contrary evidence regarding the origin of animals derived from the fossil record? A) The contrary fossil evidence will be seen as a hoax. B) The fossil evidence will be understood to have been interpreted incorrectly because it is incomplete. C) The fossil record will henceforth be ignored. D) Phylogenies involving even the smallest bit of fossil evidence will need to be discarded. E) Only phylogenies based solely on fossil evidence will need to be discarded. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: I LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2 9) According to the evidence collected so far, the animal kingdom is ________. A) monophyletic B) paraphyletic C) polyphyletic D) euphyletic E) multiphyletic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2 10) The last common ancestor of all animals was probably a ________. A) unicellular chytrid B) unicellular yeast C) multicellular algae D) multicellular fungus E) flagellated protist Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2

11) Choanoflagellates ________. A) are usually parasitic B) are motile as adults C) are a sister group to animals D) are animals Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2 12) All of the following support the sponges–first hypothesis for the origin of multicellularity in animals EXCEPT ________. A) a benthic lifestyle of choanoflagellates would support colonies of cells occurring together B) a sponge's feeding cells share similar structure to choanoflagellates C) sponges possess genes that are involved in cell specialization D) there are older fossils of sponges than any other animal group E) ctenophores lack miRNAs, while sponges have these gene regulators Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2 13) Which tissue type, or organ, is NOT correctly matched with its germ layer tissue? A) Nervous–mesoderm B) Muscular–mesoderm C) Digestive–endoderm D) Skin–ectoderm E) Skeletal–mesoderm Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2

14) The digestive system of most animals is lined with cells through which nutrients are absorbed. What is the embryonic origin of these cells? A) Endoderm B) Ectoderm C) Mesoderm Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2 15) If you think of the earthworm body plan as a drinking straw within a pipe, where would you expect to find most of the tissues that developed from endoderm? A) Lining the inside of the straw B) Lining the space between the pipe and the straw C) Forming the outside of the pipe Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2 16) At which developmental stage should one be able to first distinguish a diploblastic embryo from a triploblastic embryo? A) Fertilization B) Cleavage C) Gastrulation D) Coelom formation E) Metamorphosis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2

17) Suppose a researcher for a pest-control company developed a chemical that inhibited the development of an embryonic mosquito's endodermal cells. Which of the following would be a likely mechanism by which this pesticide works? A) The mosquito would develop a weakened exoskeleton that would make it vulnerable to trauma. B) The mosquito would have trouble digesting food, due to impaired gut function. C) The mosquito would have trouble with respiration and circulation, due to impaired muscle function. D) The mosquito wouldn't be affected at all. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2 18) Muscle cells among animals are a result of divergent evolutionary paths, yet all animals have homologous genes for __________. A) contractile proteins B) mesodermal cells as muscle tissue C) attachment sites on bone structures D) muscle derived from cells lining the coelom Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2 19) An organism that exhibits cephalization probably also ________. A) is bilaterally symmetrical B) has a hydrostatic skeleton C) has a coelom D) is segmented E) is diploblastic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2

20)

Which morphological trait evolved more than once in animals, according to the phylogeny (which is based on DNA sequence data) found in the accompanying figure? A) Coelom B) Bilateral symmetry C) Segmentation D) Mesodermal tissue E) Protostome development Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2

21) An adult animal that possesses bilateral symmetry would most likely be ________. A) triploblastic B) a deuterostome C) coelomates D) diploblastic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2 22) The central nervous system is lacking in animals that have ________. A) a complete gut B) bilateral symmetry C) radial symmetry D) a closed circulatory system E) excitable membranes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2 23) Animals with a cephalized body structure would be better able to ________. A) detect and obtain food B) extend a nerve net in all directions from a central point C) rely on filter feeding D) remain as an acoelomate Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2

24) Which of the following is a feature of the tube-within-a-tube body plan in most animal phyla? A) The outer tube consists of a hard exoskeleton. B) The outer tube consists of digestive organs. C) The mouth and anus form the ends of the inner tube. D) The two "tubes" are separated by tissue that comes from embryonic endoderm. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2 25) Among protostomes, which morphological trait has shown the most variation? A) Type of symmetry (bilateral versus radial versus none) B) Type of body cavity (coelom versus pseudocoelom versus no coelom) C) Number of embryonic tissue types (diploblasty versus triploblasty) D) Type of development (mouth first versus anus first) Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2 26) You are carefully examining a living organism. Which of the following should convince you that the organism is acoelomate? A) It is triploblastic. B) It has bilateral symmetry. C) It possesses sensory structures at its anterior end. D) Muscular activity of its digestive system distorts the outer body wall. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2

27) What was an early selective advantage of a coelom in animals? A coelom ________. A) contributed to a hydrostatic skeleton, allowing greater range of motion B) was a more efficient digestive system C) allowed cephalization and the formation of a cerebral ganglion D) allowed asexual and sexual reproduction Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2

28) A: Morphological phylogeny.

B: Molecular phylogeny.

In the traditional morphological phylogeny (A), the phylum Platyhelminthes is depicted as a sister taxon to the rest of the protostome phyla and as having diverged earlier from the lineage that led to the rest of the protostomes. In the molecular phylogeny (B), Platyhelminthes is depicted as a lophotrochozoan phylum. What probably led to this change?

A) Platyhelminthes ceased to be recognized as true protostomes. B) Similarity of genetic information among triploblast groups has led to realization that some morphological features are evolutionarily flexible (e.g., coelom formation) and so cannot be used as a diagnostic character. C) All Platyhelminthes must have a well-developed lophophore as their feeding apparatus. D) Platyhelminthes' close genetic ties to the arthropods became clear as their Hox gene sequences were studied. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2

29) Use the following information and figure to answer the question below. In a review paper published in 2000, Adoutte et al. examined some animal phylogenies generated by comparing the ribosomal RNA (rRNA) of animals from many different phyla. They then integrated these independently created phylogenies into one phylogeny that best fit all the data. The figure below compares a traditional phylogeny based on morphological characteristics (A) to the new molecular-based phylogeny described by Adoutte et al. (B). Note that platyhelminthes, nemerteans, and entoprocts, which do not have coeloms and are classified as acoelomates in the morphological phylogeny, are reclassified as lophotrochozoans in the molecular phylogeny. Similarly, groups classified as pseudocoelomates in the morphological phylogeny are reclassified as either lophotrochozoans or ecdysozoans in the molecular phylogeny; other lophotrochozoans and ecdysozoans have coeloms. Copyright 2000 National Academy of Sciences, U.S.A. (A. Adoutte, G. Balavoine, N. Lartillot, O. Lespinet, B. Prud'homme, and R. de Rosa. 2000. The new animal phylogeny. Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences USA 97(9): 4453-56.) A

What does this reclassification based on molecular data imply about the evolution of acoelomates, pseudocoelomates, and coelomates? A) Pseudocoelomates can be seen as an intermediate stage between acoelomate and coelomate development. B) Although acoelomates and pseudocoelomates evolved only once, coelomates evolved multiple times in different lineages. C) Only the animals that evolved earliest are acoelomates. D) Some pseudocoelomates and acoelomates have evolved from coelomates. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2

30) Suppose you came across a novel organism you suspected belonged to one of the following animal phyla: Porifera, Cnidaria, Ctenophora, or Acoela. Which of the following characteristics would NOT be helpful in placing the organism into the correct phylum? A) The organism's feeding strategy B) The organism's symmetry C) Whether the organism has a gut D) Whether the organism has muscles E) Whether adults are sessile or motile Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 30.2, 30.4 Section: 30.2, 30.4 31) Which characteristic is unique to all deuterostomes? A) Adults are bilaterally symmetrical. B) Embryos have pharyngeal pouches that may or may not form gill slits. C) All have a spinal column. D) All have specialized head and tail regions. E) The pore (blastopore) formed during gastrulation becomes the anus. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2 32) In examining an unknown animal species during its embryonic development, how can you be sure what you are looking at is a protostome and not a deuterostome? A) There is evidence of cephalization. B) There is a well-developed coelom. C) The animal is triploblastic. D) The animal is clearly bilaterally symmetrical. E) The mouth develops first, and the anus develops later. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.2 Section: 30.2

33) The larvae of some insects are merely small versions of the adult, whereas the larvae of other insects look completely different from adults, eat different foods, and may live in different habitats. Which of the following is most directly involved in the evolution of these variations in metamorphosis? A) Artificial selection of sexually immature forms of insects B) Changes in the homeobox genes governing early development C) The evolution of meiosis D) The development of an oxidizing atmosphere on Earth E) The origin of a brain Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.2, 30.3 Section: 30.2, 30.3 34) Diverse sensory organs evolved in _________. A) animals with cephalization B) radially symmetric animals C) sponges first D) terrestrial animals, and then radiated to aquatic animals E) animals with a coelom Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.3 Section: 30.3 35) After a mass extinction event, the animals with an immediate opportunity to increase in population size will be animals with the following ecological role(s): A) Detritivores B) Herbivores C) Omnivores D) Predators E) Parasites Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Synthesizing V&C Core Concept: E, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.3 Section: 30.3

36)

From the information provided in the accompanying table, how would you classify the feeding strategy of organism C? A) Suspension feeding B) Predation C) Parasitism D) Suspension feeding and predation E) Predation and parasitism Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.3 Section: 30.3 37) Which of the following is most likely to be aquatic? A) Suspension feeder B) Mass feeder C) Deposit feeder D) Fluid feeder Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.3 Section: 30.3

38) A radula is a specialized feeding organ used to scrape material off of a substrate for ingestion, much like a cheese grater scrapes shreds off of a block of cheese. Snails, which have this structure, are thus which kind of feeder? A) Suspension feeder B) Fluid feeder C) Deposit feeder D) Mass feeder Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.3 Section: 30.3 39) Comb jellies are critical in the food chain because they make up a significant portion of the planktonic biomass. Their feeding strategy is predatory and involves adhesives or mucus on their tentacles or other body parts. What feeding tactic do these animals use? A) Suspension feeder B) Fluid feeder C) Deposit feeder D) Food-mass feeder Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.3 Section: 30.3 40) Due to its unusual habitat (inside the digestive tracts of other animals), the tapeworm lacks a ________. A) reproductive system B) mouth C) digestive tract D) mouth and a digestive tract E) reproductive and digestive system Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.3 Section: 30.3

41)

Given the data outlined in the accompanying table, what would you expect to happen if researchers supplied an enzyme that blocked the expression of the Dll gene to an Arthropod embryo? A) The embryo would have appendages in abnormal locations. B) The origins of the embryo's appendages would fluoresce. C) The developing embryo would have no appendages. D) The embryo's appendages would be shorter than usual. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.3 Section: 30.3

42)

Dll is a gene known to direct limb development in the fruit fly. Researchers studying this gene have found that it is also expressed in developing appendages in animals from many other phyla, supporting the hypothesis that all animal appendages may be homologous. However, consider the data shown in the preceding table. These results suggest instead that ________. A) Dll is not actually involved in appendage development B) appendages evolved separately in protostomes and deuterostomes C) appendages coevolved with segmentation D) all animal appendages are homologous Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.3 Section: 30.3 43) To reproduce, many plants produce seed structures containing embryonic offspring along with nutrients inside a tough case. These offspring develop after being released by the parent plant. To which animal reproductive strategy is seed production most comparable? A) Oviparous reproduction B) Ovoviviparous reproduction C) Viviparous reproduction Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.3 Section: 30.3

44) Most fish deposit fertilized eggs, but some sharks keep the fertilized egg inside the female until she gives birth to a relatively well-developed pup. These sharks would thus be characterized as ________. A) livebearing B) ovoviviparous C) oviparous D) viviparous Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 30.3 Section: 30.3 45) Use the following information to answer the question below. Trichoplax adhaerens (Tp) is the only living species in the phylum Placozoa. Individuals are about 1 mm wide and only 27 μm high, are irregularly shaped, and consist of a total of about 2000 cells, which are diploid (2n = 12). There are four types of cells, none of which are nerve or muscle cells, and none of which have cell walls. They move using cilia, and any "edge" can lead. Tp feeds on marine microbes, mostly unicellular green algae, by crawling atop the algae and trapping it between its ventral surface and the substrate. Enzymes are then secreted onto the algae, and the resulting nutrients are absorbed. Tp sperm cells have never been observed, nor have embryos past the 64-cell (blastula) stage. Tp's body structure seems to be most like that of ________. A) most sponges B) cnidarians C) worms D) tetrapods Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.4 Section: 30.4

46) Sponges ________. A) have larvae which are motile and move via the motion of cilia B) are the simplest diploblastic animals C) exhibit bilateral symmetry D) have a nerve net but not a central nervous system E) have feeding cells called spicules Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.4 Section: 30.4 47) All sponges ________. A) have three germ layers B) are free swimming as adults C) reproduce only asexually D) are parasitic E) are sessile and benthic as adults Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.4 Section: 30.4 48) Sponges are most accurately described as ________. A) marine predators B) chemoautotrophs C) freshwater scavengers D) suspension feeders E) aquatic predators Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.4 Section: 30.4

49) Ctenophores are well known for their ________. A) stinging venom in cnidocytes B) sticky secretions from coloblasts C) suspension feeding D) fraction of the detritivore biomass Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.4 Section: 30.4 50) Most cnidarians are known to produce toxins. In fact, it has been claimed that one particular species produces the most deadly of all toxins on the planet. What feature of this group most likely evolved simultaneously with the evolution of these toxins? A) The medusa body form B) Asexual reproduction C) A slow-moving or sessile lifestyle in the adult D) Diploblastic design E) Bilateral symmetry in the mobile larval forms Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.4 Section: 30.4 51) How many of the following are characteristics of at least some members of the phylum Cnidaria? 1. A gastrovascular cavity 2. A polyp stage 3. A medusa stage 4. Cnidocytes 5. A pseudocoelom A) 1 B) 2 and 3 C) 3, 4, and 5 D) 1, 2, 3, and 4 E) 1 and 2 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.4 Section: 30.4 25 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

52) Use the following information to answer the question below. An elementary school science teacher decided to liven up the classroom with a saltwater aquarium. Knowing that saltwater aquaria can be quite a hassle, the teacher proceeded stepwise. First, the teacher conditioned the water. Next, the teacher decided to stock the tank with various marine invertebrates, including a polychaete, a siliceous sponge, several bivalves, a shrimp, several sea anemones of different types, a colonial hydra, a few coral species, an ectoproct, a sea star, and several herbivorous gastropod varieties. Lastly, she added some vertebrates–a parrotfish and a clownfish. She arranged for daily feedings of copepods and feeder fish. The clownfish readily swims among the tentacles of the sea anemones; the parrotfish avoids them. One hypothesis for the clownfish's apparent immunity is that they slowly build a tolerance to the sea anemone's toxin. A second hypothesis is that a chemical in the mucus that coats the clownfish prevents the nematocysts from being triggered. Which of the following graphs supports the second, but not the first, of these hypotheses?

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 30.4 Section: 30.4

53) Which of these phylogenetic trees correctly highlights the most recent common ancestor of the bilaterians? A)

Answer: C LO: 30.2; EO: 30.2.1, 30.2.6

Interpret the phylogenetic tree.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 54) The dot represents the most recent common ancestor of the Ctenophora and the Ecdysozoa. Answer: TRUE LO: 30.1, 30.4; EO: 30.1.4, 30.4.1, 30.4.2, 30.4.3 55) The Porifera are a sister group to all other animals. Answer: TRUE LO: 30.1, 30.4; EO: 30.1.4, 30.4.1, 30.4.2, 30.4.3 56) The Lophotrochozoa are a sister group to the Ecdysozoa. Answer: TRUE LO: 30.1, 30.4; EO: 30.1.4, 30.4.1, 30.4.2, 30.4.3 57) The Ctenophora are ancestors of the Cnidaria. Answer: FALSE LO: 30.1, 30.4; EO: 30.1.4, 30.4.1, 30.4.2, 30.4.3 58) Deuterostomes are the ancestors of Lophotrochozoa and Ecdysozoa. Answer: FALSE LO: 30.1, 30.4; EO: 30.1.4, 30.4.1, 30.4.2, 30.4.3

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 31 Protostome Animals 1) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding protostome diversity? A) Of the 30 animal phyla, more than 2/3 (22 phyla) are protostomes. B) There are more mollusk species than Priapula. C) There are more lophotrochozoans than ecdysozoans. D) A major feature distinguishing different developmental characteristics. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.1 Section: 31.1 2) The protostome developmental sequence arose just once in evolutionary history, resulting in two main subgroups–Lophotrochozoa and Ecdysozoa. What does this finding most likely suggest? A) These two subgroups have a common ancestor that was a deuterostome. B) The protostomes are a polyphyletic group. C) Division of these two groups occurred after the protostome developmental sequence appeared. D) The lophotrochozoans are monophyletic. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.1 Section: 31.1 3) The common ancestor of the protostomes had a coelom. What does this suggest? A) All lophotrochozoans have a coelom. B) There are no pseudocoelomates within the protostomes. C) There are no acoelomates within the protostomes. D) The body cavity evolved before the lophophore. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.1 Section: 31.1

4) A terrestrial animal species is discovered with the following larval characteristics: exoskeleton, system of tubes for gas exchange, and modified segmentation. A knowledgeable zoologist should predict that the adults of this species would also feature ________. A) eight legs B) two pairs of antennae C) a sessile lifestyle D) an open circulatory system E) parapodia Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.1 Section: 31.1

5) Refer to the accompanying figure. Suppose new molecular analyses indicated that the phylum Annelida had diverged from the arthropod lineage after Onychophora and Tardigrada. What would this imply about protostome evolution? 1. Segmentation evolved only once within protostomes. 2. The annelid lineage gained and then lost the ability to molt. 3. The annelid lineage gained and then lost jointed limbs. A) 1, 2, and 3 B) 2 and 3 C) Only 3 D) 1 and 2 E) 1 and 3 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.1 Section: 31.1

6) The presence of a lophophore in a newly discovered species would suggest that the species ________. A) has an exoskeleton B) grows by shedding its external covering C) is more closely related to an arthropod than a mollusk D) is motile E) is a suspension feeder Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.2 Section: 31.2 7) Which one of the following is a lophotrochozoan? A) Crustaceans B) Arthropods C) Mollusks D) Chelicerata E) Nematoda Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.1, 31.2 Section: 31.1, 31.2 8) You find what you believe is a new species of animal. Which of the following characteristics would enable you to argue that it is more closely related to a flatworm than it is to a roundworm? A) It has a cuticle that it sheds to grow. B) It is a suspension feeder. C) It has no coelom. D) It is shaped like a worm. E) It has a mouth and an anus. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.1, 31.2 Section: 31.1, 31.2

9) Arthropods invaded land about 100 million years before vertebrates did so. This most clearly implies that ________. A) arthropods evolved before vertebrates did B) extant terrestrial arthropods are better adapted to terrestrial life than are extant terrestrial vertebrates C) ancestral arthropods must have been poorly adapted to aquatic life and thus experienced a selective pressure to invade land D) vertebrates evolved from arthropods E) arthropods have had more time to coevolve with land plants than have vertebrates Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.1 Section: 31.4 10) Adaptations to terrestrial environments evolved independently in arthropods, mollusks, nematodes, and annelids. What logical conclusion would you make from this statement? A) All these groups have a coelom. B) The common ancestor of all these groups was probably aquatic. C) All these groups have the same type of body plan. D) All these groups lost their coelom after moving to land. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.1 Section: 31.1 11) Among protostomes, which morphological trait has shown the most variation? A) Type of symmetry (bilateral versus radial versus none) B) Type of body cavity (coelom versus pseudocoelom versus no coelom) C) Number of embryonic tissue types (diploblasty versus triploblasty) D) Type of development (protostome versus deuterostome) Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.1 Section: 31.1

12) A(n) ________ has a crown of ciliated tentacles that function in feeding. A) trochophore B) lophotrochozoan C) lophophore D) cuticle E) ecdysozoan Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.2 Section: 31.2 13) In your laboratory, you examine a vial of freshwater from a local pond. You notice several unfamiliar small (less than 1 millimeter in length) animals and decide to study them. You observe that the animals have a coelom, eat microscopic food particles, reproduce by parthenogenesis, and have offspring that do not undergo any larval stages. What else would you expect to observe about this organism? A) A corona B) A lophophore C) A scolex D) Chaetae E) A mantle Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.2 Section: 31.2 14) Which of the following organisms would you expect to have the largest surface-area-tovolume ratio? Assume that all of the following are the same total length. A) A rotifer B) A mollusk C) An annelid D) An arthropod E) A platyhelminth Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.2, 31.3 Section: 31.2, 31.3

15) You find a wormlike animal while scuba diving and want to determine whether it is a nudibranch, a polychaete, or a flatworm. Finding which of the following traits would best help you classify the mystery animal? A) Bristlelike structures on tiny appendages B) A coelom C) The ability to swim D) Bright coloration E) Sexual reproduction Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.2 Section: 31.2 16) Which one of these mollusk groups can be classified as suspension feeders? A) Bivalves B) Gastropods C) Chitons D) Cephalopods Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.2 Section: 31.2 17) Which mollusk group can be described as having several calcium carbonate plates along their dorsal side? A) Bivalves B) Gastropods C) Chitons D) Cephalopods Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.2 Section: 31.2

18) What would be the best anatomical feature to look for to distinguish a gastropod from a chiton? A) Presence of a muscular foot B) Presence of a rasp-like feeding structure C) Production of eggs D) Number of shell plates Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.2 Section: 31.2 19) What is the only group of Mollusca that does NOT have a radula? A) Bivalves B) Gastropods C) Chitons D) Cephalopods E) All mollusk have a radula. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.2 Section: 31.2 20) A cephalopod's tentacles are modified from its ________. A) mantle B) visceral mass C) foot D) shell E) radula Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.2 Section: 31.2

21) If a lung were to be found in a mollusk, where would it be located? A) Mantle cavity B) Coelom C) Incurrent siphon D) Visceral mass E) Excurrent siphon Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.2 Section: 31.2 22) Which mollusk clade includes members that undergo embryonic torsion? A) Chitons B) Bivalves C) Gastropods D) Cephalopods Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.2 Section: 31.2 23) A terrestrial mollusk without a shell belongs to which clade? A) Chitons B) Bivalves C) Gastropods D) Cephalopods Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.2 Section: 31.2

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below. Nudibranchs, a type of predatory sea slug, can have various protuberances (i.e., extensions) on their dorsal surfaces. Rhinophores are paired structures, located close to the head, which bear many chemoreceptors. Dorsal plummules, usually located posteriorly, perform respiratory gas exchange. Cerata usually cover much of the dorsal surface and contain nematocysts at their tips. 24) The stingers of honeybees have a function most similar to that of ________. A) rhinophores B) dorsal plummules C) cerata D) chemoreceptors Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.2 Section: 31.2 25) A land snail, a clam, and an octopus all have ________. A) a mantle B) a radula C) gills D) embryonic torsion E) distinct cephalization Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.2 Section: 31.2 26) Nematodes and arthropods both ________. A) develop an anus from the blastopore (pore) formed in the gastrula stage B) are suspension feeders C) grow by shedding their exoskeleton D) are lophotrochozoans E) have ciliated larvae Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3

27) Upon close inspection of movement in annelids and nematodes, you would notice an obvious difference. Nematodes tend to wriggle back and forth, while annelids tend to contract along their length as their girth swells and then thin out as they stretch. What anatomical feature explains this type of movement? A) The annelids possess longitudinal muscle fibers that the nematodes lack. B) The nematodes lack circular muscle fibers. C) Nematodes lack a coelom. D) Annelids have a highly specialized nervous system capable of more complex movements. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3 28) The heartworms that can accumulate within the hearts of dogs and other mammals have a pseudocoelom, an alimentary canal, and an outer covering that is occasionally shed. To which phylum does the heartworm belong? A) Platyhelminthes B) Arthropoda C) Nematoda D) Annelida Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3 29) A student observes a wormlike organism crawling about on dead organic matter. Later, the organism sheds its outer covering. One possibility is that the organism is a larval insect (like a maggot). However, it might be a member of the phylum ________, and one way to distinguish between the two possibilities is by looking for the presence or absence of ________. A) Platyhelminthes; a cuticle of chitin B) Nematoda; an alimentary canal C) Annelida; a body cavity D) Nematoda; a circulatory system E) Annelida; muscle in the body wall Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3

30) Tardigrades differ from arthropods in that they have ________. A) jointed appendages B) segmented body C) molting cuticle D) some form of coelom E) a mouth before an anus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3 31) Velvet worms rely on a sticky slime that they spray to ensnare prey. After they bite the prey, they inject digestive enzymes and consume the liquefied tissue. This feeding method is most similar to some species of_________. A) ctenophores B) annelids C) arthropods D) roundworms E) gastropods Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3 32) In adult arthropods, the hemocoel ________. A) provides space for the internal organs to grow and function B) forms cavity to protect the visceral mass of organs C) acts as a hydrostatic skeleton for mobility D) secretes the exoskeleton Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3

33) On which body segment are arthropod wings attached? A) Head B) Abdomen C) Thorax D) Evenly split between the abdomen and thorax Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3 34) Which of the following are characteristics of arthropods? 1. Protostome development 2. Bilateral symmetry 3. A pseudocoelom 4. Three embryonic germ layers 5. A closed circulatory system A) 1 B) 1 and 2 C) 1, 2, and 4 D) 2, 3, 4, and 5 E) 2 and 3 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3 35) The body cavity type for arthropods and mollusks can best be described as ________. A) a coelom B) a pseudocoelom C) a reduced coelom D) no coelom Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3

36) Among the invertebrate phyla, phylum Arthropoda is unique in possessing members that have ________. A) a cuticle B) a ventral nerve cord C) open circulation D) wings E) segmented bodies Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3 37) A shared derived characteristic for members of the arthropod subgroup that includes spiders would be the presence of ________. A) chelicerae B) an open circulatory system C) an exoskeleton D) a cuticle E) a cephalothorax Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below. A farm pond, usually dry during winter, has plenty of water and aquatic pond life during the summer. One summer, Sarah returns to the family farm from college. Observing the pond, she is fascinated by some six-legged organisms that can crawl about on submerged surfaces or, when disturbed, seemingly "jet" through the water. Watching further, she is able to conclude that the "mystery organisms" are ambush predators, and their prey includes everything from insects to small fish and tadpoles. 38) Sarah observed that the mystery pond organisms never come up to the pond's surface. If she catches one of these organisms and observes closely, perhaps dissecting the organism, she should find ________. A) gills B) spiracles C) tracheae D) book lungs Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3 39) You find a multilegged animal in your garden and want to determine if it is a centipede or a millipede. You take the animal to a university where a myriapodologist quickly tells you that you have found a centipede. Which of the following may have allowed her to make this distinction? A) Segmentation B) Poisonous fangs C) The total number of legs D) Egg-laying E) Molting Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below. Many terrestrial arthropods exchange gases with their environments by using tracheae, tubes that lead from openings (called spiracles) in the animal's exoskeleton or cuticle directly to the animal's tissues. Some arthropods can control whether their spiracles are open or closed; opening the spiracles allows carbon dioxide produced in the tissues to travel down the tracheae and be released outside the animal. Klok et al. measured the carbon dioxide emitted over time (represented by VCO2) by several species of centipedes. The figure below presents graphs of their results for two species, Cormocephalus morsitans and Scutigerina weberi. (C. J. Klok, R. D. Mercer, and S. L. Chown. 2002. Discontinuous gas exchange in centipedes and its convergent evolution in tracheated arthropods. Journal of Experimental Biology 205: 1019-29.) Copyright 2002 The Company of Biologists and the Journal of Experimental Biology.

40) Look at the graph for Cormocephalus morsitans in the accompanying figure. What is the best interpretation of these results? A) The centipede had its spiracles open the entire time. B) The centipede had its spiracles closed the entire time. C) The centipede had its spiracles open when carbon dioxide (CO2) emission peaked and closed when CO2 emission was low. D) The centipede had its spiracles closed when carbon dioxide (CO2) emission peaked and open when CO2 emission was low. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3 41) Look at the graph for Scutigerina weberi (note the scale of the y-axis) in the accompanying figure. What is the best interpretation of these results? A) The centipede had its spiracles open the entire time. B) The centipede had its spiracles closed the entire time. C) The centipede had its spiracles open when carbon dioxide (CO2) emission peaked and closed when CO2 emission was low. D) The centipede had its spiracles closed when carbon dioxide (CO2) emission peaked and open when CO2 emission was low. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS, QR, MS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3 42) How would a terrestrial centipede most likely benefit from the ability to close its spiracles? Closing spiracles would ________. A) allow the centipede to move more quickly B) allow the centipede to retain more moisture in its tissues C) allow the centipede to stay warmer D) allow more oxygen from the environment to reach the centipede's tissues E) not benefit the centipede at all Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3

43) Compare the graphs in the accompanying figure of carbon dioxide (CO2) emission for Cormocephalus morsitans and Scutigerina weberi. What hypothesis can you make about each centipede's habitat? A) C. morsitans lives in a habitat that provides more carbon dioxide than does S. weberi. B) C. morsitans lives in a habitat with more predators than does S. weberi. C) C. morsitans lives in a colder habitat than does S. weberi. D) C. morsitans lives in a drier habitat than does S. weberi. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3 44) The possession of two pairs of antennae is a characteristic of ________. A) spiders B) insects C) centipedes D) millipedes E) crustaceans Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3

45) Whiteflies are common pest insects found on cotton, tomato, poinsettia, and many other plants. Nymphs are translucent and mostly sessile, feeding on their host plants' phloem (sap) from the undersides of leaves. They undergo incomplete metamorphosis into winged adults. Because whitefly nymphs cannot escape predation by moving, you hypothesize that their translucent bodies make them hard to spot by predators. How could you directly test this hypothesis? A) Compare rates of predation on whitefly nymphs on plant leaves of different colors (e.g., red versus green poinsettia leaves). B) Compare rates of predation on whitefly nymphs coated with a nontoxic dye versus undyed whitefly nymphs. C) Compare rates of predation on whitefly nymphs versus whitefly adults. D) Compare rates of predation on whitefly nymphs by predators that are translucent versus predators that are not translucent. E) Compare rates of predation on whitefly nymphs feeding on poisonous plants versus those feeding on nonpoisonous plants. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3 46) All arthropods ________. 1. undergo complete metamorphosis 2. have jointed appendages 3. molt 4. have segmented bodies 5. have an exoskeleton or cuticle A) 1, 2, and 4 B) 3 and 5 C) 2, 3, 4, and 5 D) 1, 4, and 5 E) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3

47) The spiracles and tracheae of insects have a function most similar to that of ________. A) rhinophores B) dorsal plummules C) cerata D) chemoreceptors Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3 48) The antennae of insects have a function most similar to that of ________. A) rhinophores B) dorsal plummules C) cerata D) chemoreceptors Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3 49) What would be the most direct effect of removing or damaging an insect's antennae? The insect would have trouble ________. A) hearing B) mating C) eating D) seeing E) smelling Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3

50) Which adaptation is unique to insects among all protostomes? A) The ability to move via jointed limbs B) The ability to move by flying C) The ability to consume terrestrial plants D) The ability to parasitize other organisms E) The ability to metamorphose Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3 51) You find a small animal with eight legs crawling up your bedroom wall. Closer examination will probably reveal that this animal also has ________. A) simple, but not compound, eyes B) two pairs of antennae C) a head, a thorax, and an abdomen D) tracheae and spiracles Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below. A farm pond, usually dry during winter, has plenty of water and aquatic pond life during the summer. One summer, Sarah returns to the family farm from college. Observing the pond, she is fascinated by some six-legged organisms that can crawl about on submerged surfaces or, when disturbed, seemingly "jet" through the water. Watching further, she is able to conclude that the "mystery organisms" are ambush predators, and their prey includes everything from insects to small fish and tadpoles. 52) Sarah noticed the presence of many empty exoskeletons attached to emergent vegetation. These exoskeletons looked exactly like those of the largest of the "mystery organisms" she had seen in the pond. They also looked similar to the bodies of the dragonflies that patrolled the surface of the pond. If Sarah had learned a lot from her college biology class, what should she have concluded about the mysterious pond organisms? A) They are larval dragonflies, destined to undergo incomplete metamorphosis. B) They are larval dragonflies, destined to undergo complete metamorphosis. C) They are adult dragonflies, so old that they can no longer fly, have fallen into the pond, but have not yet drowned. D) They are adult dragonflies that must, like many amphibian species, return to water in order to mate. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3 53) If the pond organisms are larvae, rather than adults, Sarah should expect them to have all of the following structures, EXCEPT ________. A) antennae B) an open circulatory system C) an exoskeleton of chitin D) complex eyes E) sex organs Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3

54) In a tide pool, a student encounters an organism with a hard outer covering that contains much calcium carbonate, an open circulatory system, and gills. The organism could potentially be a crab, a shrimp, a barnacle, or a bivalve. The presence of which of the following structures would allow for the most certain identification of the organism? A) A mantle B) A heart C) A body cavity D) A filter-feeding apparatus E) Eyes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3 55) When considering the wormlike phyla within the protostomes, which feature is most useful in distinguishing groups? A) The presence of a mouth B) The presence or absence of a complete digestive system C) Molting as they grow larger D) Presence of a hydrostatic skeleton Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3 56) Nematode worms and annelid worms share which of the following features? A) A digestive tract with two openings (a mouth and an anus) B) Molting C) Presence of a circulatory system D) Presence of segmentation E) Absence of species with parasitic lifestyles Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3, 31.4 Section: 31.3, 31.0

57) Arthropod exoskeletons and mollusk shells both ________. A) completely replace the hydrostatic skeleton B) are secreted by the mantle C) help retain moisture in terrestrial habitats D) are comprised of the polysaccharide chitin Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 31.3 Section: 31.3 58) Complete this model of an amphipod (phylum Arthropoda) by labeling the orientation. Indicate the correct label for each blank. Not all labels will be used.

Answer:

59) Which view of an insect body plan (phylum Arthropoda) does this model represent?

A) Longitudinal section B) Cross section C) Ventral view D) Lateral view E) Dorsal view Answer: E LO: 31.3; EO: 31.3.5 Interpret the body plan models comparing the two kinds of myriapods (phylum Arthropoda).

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 60) A "ground line" could be added beneath the legs of both models to clarify the view of the animal body plans. Answer: TRUE LO: 31.3; EO: 31.3.5 61) The difference between centipedes and millipedes is that centipedes have 100 legs and millipedes have 1000 legs. Answer: FALSE LO: 31.3; EO: 31.3.5

62) These two kinds of myriapods are exactly the same size. Answer: FALSE LO: 31.3; EO: 31.3.5 63) Both kinds of myriapods have a segmented body plan. Answer: TRUE LO: 31.3; EO: 31.3.5 64) These models show that centipedes are carnivores and millipedes are detritivores. Answer: FALSE LO: 31.3; EO: 31.3.5 65) These models show a dorsal view of myriapods. Answer: FALSE LO: 31.3; EO: 31.3.5

66) Interpret the body plan models of three phyla of worms. Indicate the correct label for each blank. Not all labels will be used.

Answer:

LO: 31.1; EO: 31.1.2

67) Interpret the body plan models. Identify the correct phylum for each and its body cavity type. Indicate the correct label for each blank.

Answer:

LO: 31.1; EO: 31.1.2

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 32 Deuterostome Animals 1) What unique characteristic do all deuterostomes have in common? A) Adults are bilaterally symmetrical. B) Embryos have pharyngeal pouches that may or may not form gill slits. C) All have a spinal column. D) All have specialized head and tail regions. E) The pore (blastopore) formed during gastrulation becomes the anus. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.1 Section: 32.1 2) Unlike the chordates, the other Deuterostome phyla of Echinoderms and Hemichordates are both comprised of ________. A) tetrapod species B) marine species C) terrestrial species D) detritivores Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.1 Section: 32.1 3) Echinoderms ________. A) have an exoskeleton of hard calcareous plates B) often use tube feet to move around in their environment C) digest their food outside of the organism D) circulate hemolymph in their water vascular system E) are most often found in freshwater environments Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.2 Section: 32.2

4) The water vascular system of echinoderms ________. A) functions as a circulatory system that distributes nutrients to body cells B) functions in locomotion and feeding C) is bilateral in organization, even though the adult animal is not bilaterally symmetrical D) moves water through the animal's body during suspension feeding E) is analogous to the gastrovascular cavity of flatworms Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.2 Section: 32.2 5) Which of the following is a characteristic of larval echinoderms? A) Bilateral symmetry B) Spiral cleavage C) Gastrovascular cavity D) Exoskeleton E) Lophophore Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.2 Section: 32.2 6) Which of the following classes is comprised of carnivorous predators that are able to extend their stomachs through their mouths to feed? A) Ophiuroidea B) Holothuroidea C) Asteroidea D) Crinoidea E) Echinoidea Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.2 Section: 32.2

7) For which of the following animal groups are all of the species entirely aquatic? A) Mollusca B) Crustacea C) Echinodermata D) Nematoda E) Platyhelminthes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.2 Section: 32.2 8) If kelp farmers wanted to maximize their harvest, which type of echinoderm would they be most concerned about in the habitat? A) Sand dollars B) Brittle stars C) Sea stars D) Sea urchins E) Sea cucumbers Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.2 Section: 32.2

9) Use the following information to answer the question below. An elementary school science teacher decided to liven up the classroom with a saltwater aquarium. Knowing that saltwater aquaria can be quite a hassle, the teacher proceeded stepwise. First, the teacher conditioned the water. Next, the teacher decided to stock the tank with various marine invertebrates, including a polychaete, a siliceous sponge, several bivalves, a shrimp, several sea anemones of different types, a colonial hydra, a few coral species, an ectoproct, a sea star, and several herbivorous gastropod varieties. Lastly, she added some vertebrates–a parrotfish and a clownfish. She arranged for daily feedings of copepods and feeder fish. The bivalves started to die one by one; only the undamaged shells remained. To keep the remaining bivalves alive, the teacher would most likely need to remove the ________. A) sea anemones B) sea star C) gastropods D) ectoprocts E) parrotfish Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.2 Section: 32.2 10) Which of the following is a characteristic of all chordates at some point during their life cycle? A) Jaws B) Post-anal tail C) Scales D) Four-chambered heart E) Vertebrae Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.3 Section: 32.3

11) Adult tunicates (urochordates) lack notochords; however, larval urochordates have them and use them to ________. A) aid in swimming; adults are sessile and thus no longer propel themselves. B) stiffen their bodies; in adults, the notochord is replaced by a column of bone. C) induce tissue differentiation; in adults, tissue is already differentiated. D) organize their nervous systems; adults' nervous systems are fully developed and do not change. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.3 Section: 32.3 12) If a tunicate's pharyngeal gill slits were suddenly blocked, the animal would have trouble ________. A) respiring B) feeding C) moving D) respiring and feeding E) feeding and moving Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.3 Section: 32.3 13) You believe that an adult animal you are examining is a vertebrate but concede that it may be an invertebrate chordate. Which of the following would ensure that you are indeed looking at a vertebrate? A) It is able to swim. B) It lacks a notochord. C) Its notochord functions as an endoskeleton. D) It uses its pharyngeal gill slits for respiration. E) It has a dorsal hollow nerve cord. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.3 Section: 32.3

14) A team of researchers developed a poison effective against lamprey larvae in freshwater cultures. The poison is ingested and causes paralysis by detaching segmental muscles from the skeletal elements. The team wants to test the poison's effectiveness in streams feeding Lake Michigan, but one critic worries about potential effects on lancelets, which are similar to lampreys in many ways. Why is this concern misplaced? A) A chemical poisonous to lampreys could not also be toxic to organisms as ancestral as lancelets. B) Lamprey larvae and lancelets have very different feeding mechanisms. C) Lancelets do not have segmented muscles. D) Lancelets live only in saltwater environments. E) Lancelets and lamprey larvae eat different kinds of food. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.3 Section: 32.3 15) Vertebrates and tunicates share ________. A) jaws adapted for feeding B) a high degree of cephalization C) the formation of structures from the neural crest D) an endoskeleton that includes a skull E) a notochord and a dorsal, hollow nerve cord Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.3 Section: 32.3 16) The vertebrate spinal cord develops from the embryonic ________. A) notochord B) dorsal hollow nerve cord C) pharyngeal pouch D) coelom E) podia Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.4 Section: 32.4

17) If the midbrain of a fish became damaged, it would harm its ability to ________. A) swim B) see C) hear D) smell E) eat Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.4 Section: 32.4 18) Which of the following are the most abundant and diverse of the extant vertebrates? A) Ray-finned fishes B) Birds C) Amphibians D) Nonbird reptiles E) Mammals Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.4 Section: 32.4 19) Which of the following characteristics are shared by hagfish and lamprey? A) A rasping tongue B) Paired fins C) Jaws D) A well-developed notochord Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.4 Section: 32.4

20) Why do skates and rays have flattened bodies, while sharks are torpedo shaped? A) Sharks have a strong cartilaginous skeleton that helps them maintain a tubular shape, whereas skates and rays lack such a skeleton. B) Sharks are more closely related to the tubelike lampreys than skates and rays are. C) Skates and rays need enlarged pectoral fins to help them stay level in turbulent water, whereas sharks do not. D) Skates and rays exchange gases across their skin and thus require a high surface-area-tovolume ratio; sharks use gills to respire. E) Sharks are streamlined for active swimming off the bottom; skates move about mostly on the ocean bed. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.4 Section: 32.4 21) Terry takes the body of the snakelike organism and slices it open along its dorsal side. If it is a hagfish, what should Terry see? A) A well-developed series of bony vertebrae surrounding the spinal cord B) A well-developed series of cartilaginous vertebrae surrounding the spinal cord C) A tube of cartilage (surrounding the notochord) with dorsal projections on both sides of the spinal cord D) A notochord, located underneath the spinal cord Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.3 Section: 32.3 22) A new species of aquatic chordate is discovered that closely resembles an ancient form. It has the following characteristics: external armor of bony plates, no paired lateral fins, and a suspension-feeding mode of nutrition. In addition to these, it will probably have which of the following characteristics? A) Legs B) No jaws C) An amniotic egg D) Endothermy Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5

23) How did the evolution of the jaw contribute to diversification of early vertebrate lineages? A) It allowed for smaller body size. B) It was the first stage in the development of a bony skull. C) It paved the way for the evolution of the pharyngeal jaw. D) It made additional food sources available. E) It increased the surface area for respiration and feeding. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5 24) The distinguishing developmental feature of body endoskeleton is that it arises from ________. A) endodermal cells B) mesodermal cells C) ectodermal cells D) neural crest cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5 25) When bone tissue first evolved in vertebrates, it was found within ________. A) an endoskeleton B) an exoskeleton C) a vertebra D) a skull E) a jaw Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5

26) How does a swim bladder help the ray-finned fishes maintain buoyancy? A) It removes water from the digestive tract. B) It removes oxygen from the water and stores it. C) Gas is added to the bladder as the fish's depth increases. D) Gas is removed from the bladder as the fish's depth increases. E) It adds and removes salt from the water stored in the bladder, which changes its density and thus its buoyancy. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5 27) When a shark stops swimming, it ________. 1. sinks 2. quickly dies 3. oxygenates its blood less effectively A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 1 and 3 E) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5

28) Which graph properly depicts the relationship between the amount of gas in the swim bladder and the density of the fish? A)

Graph with density on the x-axis and amount of gas in swim bladder on the y-axis. Both axes are unscaled, increasing. A line increases steeply from the origin and then flattens near the top of the y-axis. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5 29) Which group's members have both lungs and gills during their adult lives? A) Sharks, skates, and rays B) Lungfishes C) Lancelets D) Turtles E) Alligators Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

30) Which of the following could be considered the most recent common ancestor of living tetrapods? A) A sturdy-finned, shallow-water lobe-fin whose appendages had skeletal supports similar to those of terrestrial vertebrates B) An armored, jawed placoderm with two pairs of appendages C) An early ray-finned fish that developed bony skeletal supports in its paired fins D) A salamander that had legs supported by a bony skeleton but moved with the side-to-side bending typical of fishes E) An early terrestrial caecilian whose legless condition had evolved secondarily Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5 31) It is believed that the coelacanths and lungfish represent a crucial link between other fishes and tetrapods. What is the major feature in these fish in support of this hypothesis? A) Like amphibians, they are tied to the water for reproduction. B) Their fins have skeletal and muscular structures similar to amphibian limbs. C) They have highly evolved nervous and circulatory systems. D) They have lungs and are able to breathe air when water is scarce. E) They enter a hibernative stage when food is scarce, as many tetrapods do. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5 32) Suppose, while out camping in a forest, you found a chordate with a long, slender, limbless body slithering across the ground near your tent. This critter could be ________. A) a lamprey B) a lungfish C) a mammal D) an amphibian E) a skate Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5

33) What is believed to be the most significant result of the evolution of the amniotic egg? A) Tetrapods were no longer tied to the water for reproduction. B) Tetrapods could now function with just lungs. C) It led to the evolution of the placenta. D) Newborns are much less dependent on their parents. E) Embryos are protected from predators. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5 34) Which structure of the amniotic egg most closely surrounds the embryo? A) The chorion B) The albumen C) The yolk sac D) The allantois E) The amnion Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5 35) Which of the following is found in many tetrapods but not in fish? A) Extensive parental care B) Asexual reproduction C) Internal fertilization D) Viviparity E) Production of amniotic eggs Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5

36) Which evolutionary innovation was most significant in helping tetrapods move to dry terrestrial environments? A) The lung B) The amniotic egg C) Bone D) Limb specialization E) Endothermy Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5 37) Which of these are amniotes? A) Amphibians B) Fishes C) Turtles D) Lungfish Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5 38) Internal fertilization, a leathery amniotic egg, and skin that resists drying are characteristics of ________. A) amphibians B) nonbird reptiles C) chondrichthyans D) mammals E) birds Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5

39) What group of mammals have (a) embryos that spend more time feeding through the placenta than the mother's nipples, (b) young that feed on milk, and (c) a prolonged period of maternal care after leaving the placenta? A) Eutheria B) Marsupiala C) Monotremata Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5 40) In what way are monotremes similar to more ancestral chordate lineages, as opposed to more recently evolved mammals? A) Monotremes lay eggs; other mammals bear live young. B) Monotremes perform little parental care; other mammals use lactation to feed offspring. C) Monotremes do not have jaws; other mammals do. D) Monotremes are ectothermic; other mammals are endothermic. E) Monotremes perform external fertilization; other mammals perform internal fertilization. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5 41) The evolution of similar insulating skin coverings such as fur, hair, and feathers in mammals and birds is a result of ________. A) shared ancestry B) convergent evolution C) homology D) evolutionary divergence Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5

42) Which of the following characteristics evolved independently in mammals and birds? A) Bilateral symmetry B) Amniotic eggs C) Jaws D) Bone E) Endothermy Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5 43) Mammals and birds eat more often than reptiles. Which of the following traits shared by mammals and birds best explains this habit? A) Endothermy B) Ectothermy C) Insulating body cover D) Amniotic egg E) Terrestrial living Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5 44) Unlike eutherians, both monotremes and marsupials ________. A) lack nipples B) have some embryonic development outside the uterus C) lay eggs D) are found in Australia and Africa E) include only insectivores and herbivores Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5

45) What is the single unique characteristic that distinguishes extant birds from other extant vertebrates? A) Endothermy B) Feathers C) An amniotic egg D) Flight E) A four-chambered heart Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5 46) Suppose you traveled back in time and located the first animals to have evolved feathers. You found that these animals were tree-dwelling ectotherms, able to run quickly but unable to fly. You also noticed that only males had feathers. Which hypothesis of feather evolution would these data most support? Feathers initially evolved in a role associated with ________. A) flight B) insulation C) sexual selection D) gliding Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below. Due to its system of air sacs connected to the lungs, the respiratory system of birds is arguably the most effective respiratory system of all air-breathers. Upon inhalation, air first flows into posterior air sacs, then into the lungs, and then into anterior air sacs on the way to being exhaled. Thus, there is one-way flow of air through the lungs, along thousands of tubules called parabronchi. 47) Which type of bird is most likely to benefit from air sacs, which reduce its weight? A) Birds, such as geese, which migrate great distances B) Birds that chip away wood, such as woodpeckers C) Diving birds D) Birds that rip apart prey, such as hawks and eagles Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.5 Section: 32.5 48) Primate evolution and behavior, such as hunting skills, have been directed in part by the development of depth perception. What anatomical change made depth perception possible? A) A larger brain B) Formation of compound eyes C) Movement of eyes to the front of the head D) Diurnal activity Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.6 Section: 32.6 49) With which of the following statements would a biologist be most inclined to agree? A) Humans and other apes represent divergent lines of evolution from a common ancestor. B) Humans evolved from Old World monkeys. C) Humans represent the pinnacle of evolution and have escaped from being affected by natural selection. D) Humans evolved from chimpanzees. E) Humans and other apes are the result of disruptive selection in a species of chimpanzee. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.6 Section: 32.6 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

50) Which of the following are considered apes? A) Lorises B) New World monkeys C) Old World monkeys D) Orangutans E) Tarsiers Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.6 Section: 32.6 51) On the back of your skull you can feel a small bump, below which is an opening where the spinal cord enters the skull. The location of this opening toward the bottom of the skull is significant in evolutionary biology for what reason? A) It allowed for the hominin brain to grow much larger than other primates. B) It provided greater protection for the spinal cord. C) It occurred as a result of the change to a bipedal stance. D) This change was necessary for the increase in size from prosimian forms to anthropoid forms. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.7 Section: 32.6 52) In what respect do hominins differ from all other anthropoids? A) Lack of a tail B) Eyes on the front of the face C) Bipedal posture D) Opposable thumbs E) Diurnal activity Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.7 Section: 32.6

53) Which of the following groups is classified as Homo sapiens? A) Neanderthals B) Cro-Magnons C) Paranthropus D) Australopithecus E) None of the above are classified as Homo sapiens. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.7 Section: 32.6 Use the following information to answer the question(s) below. Brown et al. and Morwood et al. reported in 2004 that they had found skeletal remains of a previously unknown type of hominin, now dubbed Homo floresiensis, on the Indonesian island of Flores. These hominins were small (approximately 1 meter tall) with small braincases (approximately 380 cubic centimeters) as compared with other hominins. The remains of H. floresiensis were found alongside handmade stone tools and the remains of dwarf elephants that also inhabited the island, suggesting that H. floresiensis was able both to make tools and to coordinate the hunting of animals much larger than itself. H. floresiensis is estimated to have lived at the site where the remains were found from at least 38,000 years ago to 18,000 years ago. 54) Referring to the paragraph above, think about the most feasible method to evaluate which other hominin species H. floresiensis was most closely related. You could compare ________. A) type of prey hunted by H. floresiensis to that hunted by each of the other hominin species B) average body size of H. floresiensis to that of each of the other hominin species C) skeletal morphology of H. floresiensis to that of each of the other hominin species D) estimated life span of H. floresiensis to that of each of the other hominin species Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.6, 32.7 Section: 32.6

55) Considering the paragraph above, it is speculated that H. floresiensis and H. sapiens may have lived on Flores concurrently. Suppose researchers obtained mitochondrial DNA samples from the H. floresiensis remains, amplified a 1000-base-pair sequence via PCR, and compared it to that of several currently living H. sapiens native to Indonesia, North Africa, and North America. Also suppose H. floresiensis were found to differ from the average Indonesian H. sapiens in 28 base pairs, from the average North African H. sapiens in 51 base pairs, and from the average North American H. sapiens in 53 base pairs, while two randomly selected H. sapiens differed from each other in an average of 21 base pairs. What conclusions would you draw from these data? A) H. floresiensis and H. sapiens probably did not live on Flores concurrently. B) H. floresiensis and H. sapiens probably lived on Flores concurrently but did not interact. C) H. floresiensis and H. sapiens probably lived on Flores concurrently, and H. sapiens killed and consumed H. floresiensis. D) H. floresiensis and H. sapiens probably lived on Flores concurrently and interbred to some degree. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.6, 32.7 Section: 32.6 56) The oldest fossil remains of Homo sapiens found so far date from about ________. A) 6 million years ago B) 1.6 million years ago C) 195,000 years ago D) 60,000 years ago E) 16,000 years ago Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.7 Section: 32.6 57) As hominins diverged from other primates, which of the following appeared first? A) Reduced jawbones B) Language C) Bipedal locomotion D) The making of stone tools E) An enlarged brain Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.6, 32.7 Section: 32.5 22 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

58) Which of the following is consistent with the out-of-Africa hypothesis? A) Modern Homo sapiens can trace their origin back to Neanderthals. B) Modern Homo sapiens can trace their origin back to Homo erectus. C) Interbreeding between early hominin species in Europe and Asia lead to the distinctive features of modern Homo sapiens. D) Homo sapiens have a common ancestor with Neanderthals and Homo erectus from Africa. E) Modern Homo sapiens and Neanderthals have no common ancestor more recent than the first mammals. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.7 Section: 32.6 59) Which of these species is currently thought to have coexisted for 35,000 years or more (at the same time and places) with H. neanderthalensis? A) Homo erectus B) Homo ergaster C) Homo habilis D) Homo sapiens Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.7 Section: 32.6 60) Which of these species had members who moved out of Africa? A) Homo erectus B) Homo ergaster C) Homo habilis D) Homo sapiens E) Homo sapiens and Homo erectus Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.7 Section: 32.6

61) Which of these statements about human evolution is correct? A) The ancestors of Homo sapiens were chimpanzees. B) Human evolution has proceeded in an orderly fashion from an ancestral anthropoid to Homo sapiens. C) The evolution of upright posture and enlarged brain occurred simultaneously. D) Different species of the genus Homo have coexisted at various times throughout hominin evolution. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.7 Section: 32.6 62) Which of the following is NOT an indication that humans are continuing to evolve? A) A lactose tolerant gene has evolved and is spreading among communities. B) A fewer vaginal childbirths take place. C) The immune system has developed new recognition pathways for viruses. D) Other species continue to recognize and react to the auditory and olfactory cues of humans. E) Mutation rates are increasing due to exposure to environmental pollution. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 32.7 Section: 32.6

Interpret the model; reptile lineages are highlighted.

63) The dot represents the most recent common ancestor of all reptiles. Answer: TRUE LO: 32.6 64) The model shows that "Reptiles" are a paraphyletic group. Answer: TRUE LO: 32.6 65) The group "Reptiles" passes the one-snip test for monophyletic groups if birds are considered reptiles. Answer: TRUE LO: 32.6 66) Lizards and snakes are a paraphyletic group because snakes lack legs. Answer: FALSE LO: 32.6 67) Crocodiles and alligators are a paraphyletic group because they share a common ancestor with birds. Answer: FALSE LO: 32.6

68) Which groups of colored branches represent a monophyletic group? Select all that apply. A)

Answer: A, D LO: 32.6 69) Which of these student models shows the evolutionary relationship between chimps and humans? A)

C) D)

Answer: A LO: 32.6; EO: 32.6.1

Interpret the phylogenetic tree.

70) Orangutans are the ancestors of the other Great Apes. Answer: FALSE LO: 32.6; EO: 32.6.2 71) The dot represents a chimpanzee. Answer: FALSE LO: 32.6; EO: 32.6.2 72) Western gorillas are a sister group to Eastern gorillas. Answer: TRUE LO: 32.6; EO: 32.6.2 73) Humans are the ancestors of chimpanzees and bonobos. Answer: FALSE LO: 32.6; EO: 32.6.2 74) The dot represents the most recent common ancestor of chimps and humans. Answer: TRUE LO: 32.6; EO: 32.6.2 75) Humans evolved from chimps. Answer: FALSE LO: 32.6; EO: 32.6.2

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 33 Viruses 1) Which of the following characteristics, structures, or processes is common to bacteria and viruses? A) Metabolism B) Ribosomes C) Genetic material composed of nucleic acids D) Cell division E) Independent existence Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.1, 33.2 2) Which of the following supports the argument that viruses are nonliving? A) They lack genetic material. B) They are not cellular. C) Their DNA does not encode proteins. D) They have RNA rather than DNA. E) They do not evolve. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.1, 33.2 3) Viruses ________. A) manufacture their own ATP, proteins, and nucleic acids B) use the host cell to copy themselves and make viral proteins C) use the host cell to copy themselves and then viruses synthesize their own proteins D) metabolize food and produce their own ATP Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, I, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.1, 33.2

4) When people die from HIV infections, it is usually because they ________. A) have too many HIV particles in their lymphatic system, which causes it to shut down B) have too few T cells to adequately fight infection C) have too many T cells, and this overwhelms their immune systems D) divert too much energy toward replicating the virus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.1 Section: 33.1, 33.2 5) What is the difference between an epidemic and a pandemic? A) An epidemic is a disease that spreads or becomes more common; a pandemic is a disease that remains stable in terms of numbers affected. B) An epidemic is a disease; a pandemic is a treatment. C) An epidemic is restricted to a local region; a pandemic is global. D) An epidemic has low mortality; a pandemic has higher mortality. E) An epidemic is caused by a bacterial infection; a pandemic is caused by a viral infection. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.1 Section: 33.1 6) Which of the following statements does NOT explain the reason populations have been so adversely affected by pandemics such as the influenza pandemic of 1918 or the current AIDs pandemic? A) There have been no effective vaccines developed for these two viruses. B) Both viruses are very virulent and kill their hosts very rapidly. C) There was no cure for individuals infected with these viruses. D) The immune system could not keep up with the multiplication and spread of the influenza virus in the host cells. E) The immune system was targeted and slowly destroyed by the HIV I virus. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.1 Section: 33.1

7) HIV is inactivated in the laboratory after a few minutes of sitting at room temperature, but the flu virus is still active after sitting for several hours. What are the practical consequences of these findings? A) HIV can be transmitted more easily from person to person than the flu virus. B) The flu virus can be transmitted more easily from person to person than HIV. C) This property of HIV makes it more likely to be a pandemic than the flu virus. D) Disinfecting surfaces are more important to reduce the spread of HIV than of the flu. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.1 Section: 33.1 8) Viral envelopes can best be analyzed with which of the following techniques? A) Use of 15N to label specific nucleotides B) Antibodies against specific proteins not found in the host membranes C) DNA staining and visualization with the light microscope D) Use of plaque assays for quantitative measurement of viral titer Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2 9) Which of the following is characteristic of the lytic cycle? A) Many bacterial cells containing viral DNA are produced. B) Viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome. C) The viral genome replicates without destroying the host. D) A large number of phages are released at a time. E) The virus-host relationship usually lasts for generations. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2

10) A researcher lyses a cell that contains nucleic acid molecules and capsomeres of tobacco mosaic virus (TMV). The cell contents are left in a covered test tube overnight. The next day, this mixture is sprayed on tobacco plants. We expect that the plants would ________. A) develop some but not all of the symptoms of the TMV infection B) develop symptoms typically produced by viroids C) develop the typical symptoms of TMV infection D) not show any disease symptoms E) become infected, but the sap from these plants would be unable to infect other plants Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2 11) What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses? A) It hydrolyzes the host cell's DNA. B) It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis. C) It converts host cell RNA into viral DNA. D) It translates viral RNA into proteins. E) It uses viral RNA as a template for making complementary RNA strands. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2 12) Which of the following can be effective in preventing the onset of viral infection in humans? A) Taking vitamins B) Getting vaccinated C) Taking antibiotics D) Applying antiseptics E) Taking drugs that inhibit transcription Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2

13) Effective antiviral drugs are usually associated with which of the following properties? A) Ability to remove all viruses from the infected host B) Interference with viral replication C) Prevention of the host from becoming infected D) Removal of viral proteins E) Removal of viral mRNAs Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.3 Section: 33.2 14)

Which of the three types of viruses shown in the accompanying figure has a capsid? A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II only E) I, II, and III Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2

15) In the accompanying figure, at the arrow marked II, what enzyme(s) is (are) being utilized? A) Reverse transcriptase B) Viral DNA polymerase C) Host cell DNA polymerase D) Host cell RNA polymerase E) Host cell DNA and RNA polymerases Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) In the figure, when new viruses are being assembled at the point marked IV, what mediates the assembly? A) Host cell chaperones B) Assembly proteins coded for by the host nucleus C) Assembly proteins coded for by the viral genes D) Viral RNA intermediates E) The viral components interact spontaneously and self-assemble. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2 17) Some viruses can be crystallized and their structures analyzed. One such virus is yellow mottle virus, which infects beans. This virus has a single-stranded RNA genome containing about 6300 nucleotides. Its capsid is 25—30 nm in diameter and contains 180 identical capsomeres. If the yellow mottle virus begins its infection of a cell by using its genome as mRNA, which of the following would you expect to be able to measure? A) Replication rate B) Transcription rate C) Translation rate D) Accumulation of new ribosomes E) Formation of new transcription factors Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below. The herpes viruses are important enveloped DNA viruses that cause disease in vertebrates and in some invertebrates such as oysters. Some of the human forms are herpes simplex virus (HSV) types I and II, causing facial and genital lesions, and the varicella zoster virus (VSV), causing chicken pox and shingles. Each of these three actively infects nervous tissue. Primary infections are fairly mild, but the virus is not then cleared from the host; rather, viral genomes are maintained in cells in a latent phase. The virus can later reactivate, replicate again, and infect others. 18) In electron micrographs of HSV infection, the intact virus initially reacts with cell-surface proteoglycans, then with specific receptors. This is later followed by viral capsids docking with nuclear pores. Afterward, the capsids go from being full to being "empty." Which of the following best fits these observations? A) Viral capsids are needed for the cell to become infected; only the capsids enter the nucleus. B) The viral envelope is not required for infectivity, since the envelope does not enter the nucleus. C) Only the genetic material of the virus is involved in the cell's infectivity and is injected like the genome of a phage. D) The viral envelope mediates entry into the cell, the capsid mediates entry into the nuclear membrane, and the genome is all that enters the nucleus. E) The viral capsid mediates entry into the cell, and only the genomic DNA enters the nucleus, where it may or may not replicate. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2 19) A bacterium is infected with an experimentally constructed bacteriophage composed of the T2 phage protein coat and T4 phage DNA. The new phages produced would have ________. A) T2 protein and T4 DNA B) T2 protein and T2 DNA C) T4 protein and T4 DNA D) T4 protein and T2 DNA Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2

20) RNA viruses require their own supply of certain enzymes because ________. A) host cells rapidly destroy the viruses B) host cells lack enzymes that can replicate the viral genome C) these enzymes translate viral mRNA into proteins D) these enzymes penetrate host-cell membranes E) these enzymes cannot be made in host cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2, 33.4 21) Poliovirus is an RNA virus of the picornavirus group, which uses its RNA as mRNA. At its 5' end, the RNA genome has a viral protein (VPg) instead of a 5' cap. This is followed by a nontranslated leader sequence, and then a single long protein-coding region (~7000 nucleotides), followed by a poly-A tail. Observations were made that used radioactive amino acid analogues. Short period use of the radioactive amino acids results in labeling of only very long proteins, while longer periods of labeling result in several different short polypeptides. What conclusion is most consistent with the results of the radioactive labeling experiment? A) Host-cell ribosomes only translate the viral code into short polypeptides. B) The RNA is only translated into a single long polypeptide, which is then cleaved into shorter ones. C) The RNA is translated into short polypeptides, which are subsequently assembled into large ones. D) The large radioactive polypeptides are coded by the host, whereas the short ones are coded for by the virus. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2 22) You just discovered a new virus. This virus infects heart muscle, where it causes inflammation, and has a very high mutation rate. Which of the following is the best strategy for finding a treatment for this virus? A) Develop a vaccine from living viruses. B) Identify the receptor this virus uses and develop a drug that blocks the receptor. C) Encourage infected individuals to engage in heart-strengthening exercise. D) Develop a drug that blocks the host's ribosomes, which the virus uses to produce its proteins. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.3 Section: 33.2 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

23) What is the main structural difference between enveloped and nonenveloped viruses? A) Enveloped viruses have their genetic material enclosed by a layer made only of protein. B) Nonenveloped viruses have only a phospholipid membrane, whereas enveloped viruses have two membranes, the other one being a protein capsid. C) Enveloped viruses have a phospholipid membrane outside their capsid, whereas nonenveloped viruses do not have a phospholipid membrane. D) Both types of viruses have a capsid and phospholipid membranes; but in the nonenveloped virus, the genetic material is between these two membranes, and in the enveloped virus, the genetic material is inside both membranes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2

Use the accompanying figure and information to answer the question(s) below.

Cells were infected with approximately 1000 copies of either virus A or virus B at the 0 time point. At 5-minute intervals, a sample of the virus and cell mixture was removed. The intact cells were removed from the sample, and the number of viruses per milliliter of culture was determined. 24) Using the data in the figure, how long does it take for virus A to go through one lytic cycle? A) 15 minutes B) 30 minutes C) 45 minutes D) 90 minutes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2 25) Using the data in the figure, how long does it take for virus B to go through one lytic cycle? A) 15 minutes B) 30 minutes C) 45 minutes D) 60 minutes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2

26) The virus genome and viral proteins are assembled into virions (virus particles) during ________. A) the lytic cycle and the lysogenic cycle in all known host organisms B) the lysogenic cycle only C) the lytic cycle only D) the lytic cycle in all host organisms but the lysogenic cycle only in bacteria Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2 27) What would the result be if a drug that blocks the action of RNA polymerase was introduced into a virus-infected organism? A) The virus would not be able to enter new host cells. B) The viral proteins would not be made, and the virus would not be able to reproduce. C) The newly formed virions (virus particles) would be unable to leave the host cell. D) Viral proteins and viral DNA particles would not be able to assemble. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2 28) Which of the following viruses would most likely have reverse transcriptase? A) An RNA-based lytic virus B) An RNA-based lysogenic virus C) A DNA-based lytic virus D) A DNA-based lysogenic virus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2

29) Viruses use the host's machinery to make copies of themselves. However, some human viruses require a type of replication that humans do not normally have. For example, humans normally do not have the ability to convert RNA into DNA. How can these types of viruses infect humans, when human cells cannot perform a particular role that the virus requires? A) The virus causes mutations in the human cells, resulting in the formation of new enzymes that can perform these roles. B) The viral genome has genes coding for enzymes needed for its own reproduction. C) The virus infects only those cells and species that can perform all the replication roles necessary. D) Viruses can stay in a quiescent state until the host cell evolves this ability. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, I, S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2 30) The HIV protease has been the target of several anti-HIV medications called protease inhibitors. This antiviral strategy is possible because protease inhibitors ________. A) cause protease to precipitate out of the cell by combining with certain salt solutions B) cleave at specific places in viral polypeptides, resulting in the destruction of reverse transcriptase C) prevent HIV from generating ATP in the host cell D) prevent the formation of active viral proteins Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2, 33.3 Section: 33.2, 33.3 31) The first class of drugs developed to treat AIDS, such as AZT, were known as reverse transcriptase inhibitors. They worked because they ________. A) targeted and destroyed the viral genome before it could be reverse transcribed into DNA B) bonded to the dsDNA genome of the virus in such a way that it could not separate for replication to occur C) bonded to the viral reverse transcriptase enzyme, thus preventing the virus from making a DNA copy of its RNA genome D) prevented host cells from producing the enzymes used by the virus to replicate its genome Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2, 33.3 Section: 33.2

32) A biologist develops a new drug that seems to dramatically slow the onset of symptoms resulting from HIV infection. Close monitoring of HIV-infected cells reveals that the viral proteins are in the form of long polyproteins. The biologist most likely developed a ________. A) reverse transcriptase inhibitor B) CD4 inhibitor C) protease inhibitor D) polymerase inhibitor Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2 33) You have isolated a newly discovered virus and are attempting to characterize it. You begin with its genome. You first isolate the virion-producing mRNA from cultured cells infected with the virus. When you compare this mRNA to the viral genome, you find that they are complementary. What does this tell you? A) This virus has a positive-sense genome. B) This virus has a negative-sense genome. C) This virus has an ambisense genome. D) The virus does not use DNA or RNA. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2 34) Which of the following could use reverse transcriptase to transcribe its genome? A) ssRNA B) dsRNA C) ssDNA D) dsDNA Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I, S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2

35) Which viruses have single-stranded RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis? A) Lytic phages B) Proviruses C) Viroids D) Bacteriophages E) Retroviruses Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2 36) Why do scientists consider HIV to be an emerging virus? A) HIV infected humans for many centuries. B) HIV mutates rapidly, making the virus very different from HIV in the early 1980s. C) HIV suddenly became apparent and widespread in the 1980s. D) HIV is now starting to cause diseases other than AIDS, such as rare types of cancers and pneumonias. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.3 Section: 33.3 37) It is believed that HIV has passed from chimps to humans more than once. This suggests that animal-to-human viral transmissions may be more common than previously thought. What is the best evidence in support of the conclusion that HIV made the chimp-to-human leap more than once? A) HIV has multiple strains, and the virus does not appear to be able to leap from humans back to chimps. B) HIV has appeared on multiple continents. C) Human-to-human transmission of HIV requires direct personal contact that simply could not have resulted in the widespread outbreak we see today. D) Several species are known to have similar viruses resulting in immunodeficiency diseases. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.3 Section: 33.3

38) A population of viruses with similar characteristics is called a ________. A) strain B) species C) type D) genome E) sense Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.3, 33.4 39) Mimivirus contains some of the genes required for protein synthesis. This is cited as support for which hypothesis about the origins of viruses? A) Degeneration B) Origin of life C) Escaped-genes D) Transposable elements Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.3 Section: 33.3 40) Which of the following human diseases is caused by a virus that requires reverse transcriptase to transcribe its genome inside the host cell? A) Herpes B) AIDS C) Smallpox D) Influenza E) Common cold Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2

41) You isolate a cell infected with an adenovirus. What are you most likely going to see when you examine the cell? A) The cell has lysed. B) The viral particles in the cell are surrounded by a membranous envelope. C) Reverse transcriptase is present in the nucleus. D) The virus is budding from the cell membrane. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2 Section: 33.2 42) To make a vaccine against mumps, measles, or rabies, which type of viruses would be useful? A) dsDNA viruses B) Negative-sense ssRNA viruses C) Retroviruses D) Positive-sense ssRNA viruses E) dsRNA viruses Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2, 33.4 Section: 33.2, 33.4 43) You believe that you have isolated a new strain of positive-sense, single-stranded RNA virus and set about studying it in your laboratory. Which of the following lines of evidence would most strongly support your hypothesis that the virus is a [+]ssRNA? A) The virions are diploid. B) You sequence the bases in the viral RNA and the mRNA and find them to be antiparallel. C) Introducing a protease inhibitor causes the virus to stop producing proteins and reproducing. D) Introducing a reverse transcriptase inhibitor slows down the growth of the virus. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: I, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2, 33.4 Section: 33.2, 33.4

44) You are a physician, and you suspect your patient has a viral infection that has never been seen in humans. The infection is localized in the cells along the lining of the small intestine. The cells in this area are regularly sloughed off and replaced with new cells; that is, these cells are constantly dividing. When you isolate this new virus and incubate it in culture, you discover that it does not replicate well in cultures that have slowly dividing cells, but it does much more damage in cultures that have actively dividing cells. What do these findings suggest about this new virus? A) It is a double-stranded RNA virus. B) It is a negative-sense, single-stranded RNA virus. C) It is a double-stranded DNA virus. D) It is a single-stranded DNA virus. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2, 33.4 Section: 33.4 45) A virus consisting of a single strand of RNA, which is transcribed into complementary DNA, is a(n) ________. A) reverse transcriptase B) protease C) retrovirus D) RNA replicase virus E) nonenveloped virus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 33.2, 33.4 Section: 33.2, 33.4

46) Which choice does the best job of completing this model of genome replication in an RNA virus?

A) B)

Answer: D LO: 33.2, 33.4; EO: 33.2.3, 33.4.1

47) Which choice does the best job of completing the model of genome replication in a reversetranscribing virus?

D) Answer: C LO: 33.2, 33.4; EO: 33.2.3, 33.4.1

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 34 Plant Form and Function 1) Compared to most animals, the growth of most plant structure is best described as ________. A) perennial B) weedy C) indeterminate D) derivative E) primary Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 34.3 Section: 34.0 2) Loss of water from the aerial parts of plants is called ________. A) hydration B) high heat of vaporization C) respiration D) gas exchange E) transpiration Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.1, 34.2 Section: 34.1 3) The surface area of a plant's root system is substantially larger than the surface area of its shoot system. The extensive surface area of roots is an adaptation associated with ________. A) contact with soil particles for mineral and water absorption B) the internal structure of the vascular tissue in roots C) the storage of nutrients within the root system D) the release of carbon dioxide generated by photosynthesis E) the fact that roots absorb materials while shoots do not Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 34.1, 34.2 Section: 34.1

4) When comparing root systems of corn plants growing on a square foot in a fertilized and irrigated cornfield with the root systems of natural prairie plants growing in a meadow, what result do you expect to see? A) The overall mass of roots will be identical in a cornfield and on a meadow. B) The mass and length of roots in a cornfield will be higher because soil is fertilized. C) The mass and length of roots on a meadow will be higher because soil is poorer, and there is a higher diversity of plants. D) The overall mass of roots on a meadow will be lower but the length will be higher since roots need to grow deeper to reach nutrients. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 34.1 Section: 34.1 5) While walking a cornfield, you notice roots emerging from the corn stalks themselves, and you suspect that these roots are helping to hold the plants upright. These roots belong to a category of roots known as ________. A) taproots B) fibrous roots C) adventitious roots D) root hairs E) special roots Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.1 Section: 34.1 6) How would you expect the root system of a plant grown by hydroponics to compare to the root system of a plant grown in poor soil? The root system of a plant grown by hydroponics would be ________. A) more developed B) less developed C) about the same D) absent Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.1 Section: 34.1

7) Which type of modified stems grow horizontally belowground and produce new plants at nodes? A) Blades B) Tubers C) Stolons D) Thorns E) Rhizomes Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.1 Section: 34.1 8) A potato is a type of ________ known as a ________. A) modified root; pneumatophore B) root; lateral root C) modified stem; stolon D) modified stem; tuber Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 34.1 Section: 34.1 9) Strolling in the Sonoran Desert, you come upon a stately Saguaro cactus. The large central "trunks" of this cactus are covered with numerous smaller spines. The central stalks are modified ________ used for water storage and spines are modified ________ used for protection. A) stems; leaves B) leaves; leaves C) petioles; leaf blades D) leaf blades; trichomes E) stems; fruits Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.1 Section: 34.1

10) Pines have needlelike leaves, with the adaptive advantage of ________. A) increased surface area, increasing photosynthesis B) increased surface area, increasing gas exchange C) decreased surface area, reducing gas exchange D) decreased surface area, reducing water loss Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.1, 34.2 Section: 34.1 11) What is a disadvantage of having small, needlelike leaves? A) Increased transpiration rate B) Decreased transpiration rate C) Increased efficiency of light capture D) Decreased efficiency of light capture Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.1, 34.2 Section: 34.1 12) Plants that have leaves arranged in a rosette ________. A) have a circular arrangement of leaves and long internodes B) lack stems C) have greatly shortened internodes D) always have compound leaves Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.1 Section: 34.1

13) Axillary buds ________. A) are produced by the cork cambium B) have dormant meristematic cells C) are composed of a series of internodes lacking nodes D) give rise to secondary xylem E) do not form a vascular connection with the primary shoot Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.1, 34.2 Section: 34.1 14) Some botanists argue that the entire plant should be considered as a single unit rather than a composite of many individual cells. Which of the following cellular structures best supports this view? A) Cell wall B) Cell membrane C) Cytosol D) Vacuole E) Plasmodesmata Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.2 Section: 34.2 15) One important difference between the anatomy of roots and the anatomy of leaves is that ________. A) only leaves have phloem and only roots have xylem B) root cells have cell walls and leaf cells do not C) a waxy cuticle covers leaves but is absent from roots D) vascular tissue is found in roots but is absent from leaves E) leaves have epidermal tissue but roots do not Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.1, 34.2 Section: 34.2

16) Trichomes ________. A) absorb sunlight, increasing the temperature of leaves B) open and close for gas exchange C) repel or trap insects D) increase water loss from leaves Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.1, 34.2 Section: 34.2 17) Carbon dioxide enters the inner spaces of the leaf through the ________. A) cuticle B) epidermal trichomes C) stoma D) phloem E) walls of guard cells Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 34.1, 34.2 Section: 34.2 18) You find a plant unfamiliar to you and observe that it has vascular bundles scattered throughout the stem cross section. What do you conclude about the plant? A) It is probably an herbaceous eudicot. B) It will probably get annual rings of wood. C) It is probably a monocot. D) It could be either a young eudicot or a monocot. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.2, 34.3 Section: 34.2, 34.3

19) A student examining leaf cross sections under a microscope finds many loosely packed cells with relatively thin cell walls. The cells have numerous chloroplasts. What type of cells are they? A) Parenchyma B) Xylem C) Endodermis D) Collenchyma E) Sclerenchyma Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.1, 34.2 Section: 34.2 20) Which part of a plant absorbs most of the water and minerals taken up from the soil? A) Root cap B) Root hairs C) The thick parts of the roots near the base of the stem D) Storage roots E) Sections of the root that have secondary xylem Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.1, 34.2 Section: 34.2 21) Which of the following is derived from the ground tissue system? A) Root hair B) Cuticle C) Xylem D) Pith E) Phloem Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.2, 34.3 Section: 34.2, 34.3

22) Which of the following have unevenly thickened primary walls that support young, growing parts of the plant? A) Parenchyma cells B) Collenchyma cells C) Sclerenchyma cells D) Tracheids and vessel elements E) Sieve-tube elements Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.2, 34.3 Section: 34.2 23) Choose the option that best describes the relationship between the cell wall thickness of parenchyma cells and sclerenchyma cells. A) The cell walls of parenchyma cells are thinner than those of sclerenchyma cells. B) The cell walls of parenchyma cells are thicker than those of sclerenchyma cells. C) The thickness of the cell walls for both types of cells is roughly equal. D) The thickness of the cell walls for both types of cells is too variable for a comparison to be made. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 34.2 Section: 34.2 24) The veins of leaves are ________. I. composed of xylem and phloem II. continuous with vascular bundles in the stem and roots III. finely branched to be in close contact with photosynthesizing cells A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) I and III E) I, II, and III Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.1, 34.2, 34.3 Section: 34.2

25) Which structure is correctly paired with its tissue system? A) Root hair, vascular tissue B) Guard cell, vascular tissue C) Companion cell, ground tissue D) Tracheid, vascular tissue Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.2, 34.3 Section: 34.2 26) Which of the following cells primarily transport sugars over long distances? A) Parenchyma cells B) Collenchyma cells C) Sclerenchyma cells D) Tracheids and vessel elements E) Sieve-tube elements Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 34.2, 34.3 Section: 34.2 27) Which of the following is correctly paired with its structure and function? A) Sclerenchyma, supporting cells with thick secondary walls B) Ground meristem, protective coat of woody stems and roots C) Guard cells, waterproof ring of cells surrounding the central stele in roots D) Parenchyma, supporting cells with unevenly thickened primary cell walls Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.2 Section: 34.2, 34.3

28) The following questions are based on the drawings of root or stem cross sections shown in the accompanying figure.

Refer to the figure. A monocot stem is represented by ________. A) I only B) II only C) III only D) IV only E) I and III Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 34.2, 34.3 Section: 34.3 29) Plants contain meristems whose major function is to ________. A) attract pollinators B) absorb ions C) photosynthesize D) produce more cells E) produce flowers Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 34.3 Section: 34.3 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

30) When you eat Brussels sprouts, you are eating ________. A) immature flowers B) large axillary buds C) petioles D) storage leaves E) storage roots Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 34.2 Section: 34.1 31) Which of the following arise, directly or indirectly, from meristematic activity? A) Secondary xylem B) Leaves C) Dermal tissue D) Tubers E) Secondary xylem, leaves, dermal tissue, and tubers Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 34.3, 34.4 Section: 34.3 32) Which of the following cell types retains the ability to undergo cell division? A) A sclereid B) A parenchyma cell near the root tip C) A functional sieve-tube element D) A tracheid E) A stem fiber Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 34.3 Section: 34.3

33) Which of the following is the correct sequence from the growing tip of a primary root back toward its base? A) Root cap, Zone of cellular elongation, Apical meristem, Zone of cellular division, and Zone of cellular maturation B) Zone of cellular division, Apical meristem, Root cap, Zone of cellular elongation, and Zone of cellular maturation C) Zone of cellular elongation, Zone of cellular maturation, Root cap, Apical meristem, and Zone of cellular division D) Apical meristem, Zone of cellular elongation, Zone of cellular division, Root cap, and Zone of cellular maturation E) Root cap, Apical meristem, Zone of cellular division, Zone of cellular elongation, and Zone of cellular maturation Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 34.1, 34.3 Section: 34.3 34) Shoot elongation in a growing bud is due primarily to ________. A) cell division at the shoot apical meristem B) cell elongation directly below the shoot apical meristem C) cell division localized in each internode D) cell elongation localized in each internode E) cell division at the shoot apical meristem and cell elongation directly below the shoot apical meristem Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 34.3.1 Section: 34.3 35) ________ is to xylem as ________ is to phloem. A) Sclerenchyma cell; collenchyma cell B) Apical meristem; vascular cambium C) Vessel element; sieve-tube member D) Cortex; pith E) Vascular cambium; cork cambium Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.2 Section: 34.2

36) A plant has the following characteristics: a taproot system, several growth rings evident in a cross section of the stem, and a layer of bark around the outside. Which of the following best describes the plant? A) Herbaceous eudicot B) Woody eudicot C) Woody monocot D) Herbaceous monocot E) Woody annual Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.1, 34.3, 34.4 Section: 34.4 37) Which of the following describes secondary growth? A) Growth in height B) Development of leaves and flowers C) Growth of herbaceous tissue D) Development of wood and bark E) Development of fruit Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.4 Section: 34.4 38) Monocot vascular bundles do not have a vascular cambium between the xylem and phloem. This means that monocots ________. A) are much less efficient at conducting water and sugars B) always have thinner stems than eudicots C) do not produce wood in annual rings D) cannot produce lateral shoots Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 34.3, 34.4 Section: 34.4

39) Suppose George Washington completely removed the bark from around the base of a cherry tree but was stopped by his father before cutting the tree down. The leaves retained their normal appearance for several weeks, but the tree eventually died. The tissue(s) that George left functional was/were the ________. A) phloem B) xylem C) cork cambium D) cortex E) companion and sieve-tube members Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 34.2, 34.4 Section: 34.4 40) As a youngster, you drive a nail in the trunk of a young tree that is 3 meters tall. The nail is about 1.5 meters from the ground. Fifteen years later, you return and discover that the tree has grown to a height of 30 meters. About how many meters above the ground is the nail? A) 0.5 B) 1.5 C) 3.0 D) 15.0 E) 28.5 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 34.3, 34.4 Section: 34.4 41) Heartwood and sapwood consist of ________. A) bark B) periderm C) secondary xylem D) secondary phloem E) cork Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 34.2, 34.3, 34.4 Section: 34.4

42) Two examples of lateral meristems in plants are ________. A) vascular cambium, producing cork, and cork cambium, producing secondary phloem B) vascular cambium, producing secondary xylem, and cork cambium, producing secondary phloem C) vascular cambium, producing secondary xylem, and cork cambium, producing cork D) vascular cambium, producing secondary phloem, and cork cambium, producing secondary xylem Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 34.2, 34.3, 34.4 Section: 34.4 43) If you were able to walk into an opening cut into the center of a large redwood tree, when you exited from the middle of the trunk (stem) outward, you would cross, in order, ________. A) the annual rings, new xylem, vascular cambium, phloem, and bark B) the secondary xylem, cork cambium, phloem, and periderm C) the vascular cambium, oldest xylem, and newest xylem D) the secondary xylem, secondary phloem, and vascular cambium E) the summer wood, bark, and phloem Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 34.3, 34.4 Section: 34.4

The following question(s) are based on the drawings of root or stem cross sections shown in the accompanying figure.

44) Which of the following best represents the stem of a woody eudicot? A) I B) II C) III D) IV Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 34.3, 34.4 Section: 34.4

45) Where are the youngest wood and the youngest bark in a tree trunk? A) Youngest wood is in the center of a tree; youngest bark is the outside of the bark. B) Youngest wood is in the center of a tree; youngest bark is the inner part, next to the vascular cambium. C) Youngest wood is toward the outside, near the vascular cambium; youngest bark is the outside of the bark. D) Youngest wood is toward the outside, near the vascular cambium; youngest bark is the inner part, next to the vascular cambium. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 34.3, 34.4 Section: 34.4 46) In 2005, a spot that is 1 centimeter from the center of a woody stem of an oak tree is in the bark. In what tissue will a spot that is 1 centimeter from the center be in 2050? A) Bark B) Secondary phloem C) Vascular cambium D) Secondary xylem Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 34.3, 34.4 Section: 34.4 47) Which of the following correctly ranks the plant structures in order from lowest to highest surface area to volume ratio? A) Seed, leaf, and root B) Seed, root, and leaf C) Root, seed, and leaf D) Leaf, root, and seed E) Leaf, seed, and root Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 34.1 Section: 34.1

48) Prop roots, such as those found in maize, are aboveground structures that help support the stem of the plant. Based on their respective functions, how would you expect the surface area to volume ratios of maize prop roots and belowground roots to compare? A) The prop roots would have a greater surface area to volume ratio B) The belowground roots would have a greater surface area to volume ratio C) Both types of roots should have similar surface area to volume ratios Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 34.1 Section: 34.1 49) You encounter a plant that has 12 small leaflike structures arrayed along a thin tube-shaped structure. Closer examination reveals an axillary bud at the base of each of the leaflike structures. What are you looking at? A) 1 simple leaf subdivided into 12 leaflets. B) 1 compound leaf with 12 leaflets. C) 12 simple leaves arrayed along a stem. D) A doubly compound leaf Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 34.1 Section: 34.1

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 35 Water and Sugar Transport in Plants 1) The water lost during transpiration is a side effect of the plant's exchange of gases. However, the plant derives some benefit from this water loss in the form of ________. A) increased turgor and increased growth B) sucrose transport and increased growth C) evaporative cooling and increased turgor D) evaporative cooling and mineral transport Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 35.2 Section: 35.0 2) Most of the water taken up by a plant is ________. A) used as a solvent B) used as a hydrogen source in photosynthesis C) lost during transpiration D) converted to carbon dioxide E) used to keep cells turgid Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 35.2 Section: 35.1 3) Water potential in plant cells consists mainly of ________. A) solute potential and osmotic potential B) solute potential and membrane potential C) pressure potential and solute potential D) pressure potential and membrane potential E) solute potential only Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.1 Section: 35.1

4) What would enhance water uptake by a plant cell? A) Decreasing the Ψ of the surrounding solution B) Increasing the pressure exerted by the cell wall C) The loss of solutes from the cell D) Increasing the Ψ of the cytoplasm E) Positive pressure on the surrounding solution Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.1 Section: 35.1 5) The value for Ψ in root tissue was found to be −0.15 MPa. If you take the root tissue and place it in a 0.1 M solution of sucrose (Ψ = −0.23 MPa), the net water flow would ________. A) be from the tissue into the sucrose solution B) be from the sucrose solution into the tissue C) be in both directions and the concentration of water would remain equal D) occur only as ATP was hydrolyzed in the tissue E) be impossible to determine from the values given here Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.1, 3.2 Section: 35.1 6) Which of the following would be LEAST likely to affect osmosis in plants? A) Temperature B) A difference in solute concentrations C) Receptor proteins in the membrane D) Aquaporins E) A difference in water potential Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.1, 35.2 Section: 35.1, 35.2

7) If isolated plant cells with a water potential averaging −0.5 MPa are placed into a solution with a water potential of −0.3 MPa, which of the following would be the most likely outcome? A) The pressure potential of the cells would increase. B) Water would move out of the cells. C) The cell walls would rupture, killing the cells. D) Solutes would move out of the cells. E) The osmotic pressure of the cells would decrease. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.1 Section: 35.1 8) When an animal cell is placed in a hypotonic solution and water enters the cell via osmosis, the volume of the cell increases until it bursts. This does NOT happen to plant cells because ________. A) they have large central vacuoles, which provide abundant space for storage of incoming water B) the composition of their plasma membranes differs from that of animal-cell plasma membranes in a way that provides much greater strength C) they have cell walls, which prevent the entry of water by osmosis D) they have cell walls, which provide pressure to counteract the pressure of the incoming water E) certain gated channel proteins embedded in their plasma membranes open as osmotic pressure decreases, allowing excess water to leave the cell Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.1 Section: 35.1 9) How does a flaccid cell differ from a turgid cell? A) A flaccid cell has higher pressure potential. B) A flaccid cell has lower pressure potential. C) A flaccid cell has higher solute potential. D) A flaccid cell has lower solute potential. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.1 Section: 35.1

10) If ΨP = 0.30 MPa and ΨS = −0.45 MPa, the resulting Ψ is ________. A) +0.75 MPa B) −0.75 MPa C) −0.15 MPa D) +0.15 MPa E) −0.42 MPa Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, QR V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.1 Section: 35.1 11) Water potential (ψ) can be thought of as the tendency for water to move from one place to another. In plants, it is made up mainly of solute potential and pressure potential. Hypothetical plant cells A and B are adjacent to each other. The solute potential (ψS) of cell A is −0.35 MPa, and its pressure potential (ψP) is +0.15 MPa. The solute potential (ψS) of cell B is −0.30 MPa, and its pressure potential (ψP) is +0.05 MPa. In which direction will net water movement occur? A) Neither; cells A and B are in equilibrium with each other. B) From cell A to cell B C) From cell B to cell A Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, QR V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.1 Section: 35.1 12) Irrigation reduces soil quality, but rains usually do not. Why? A) Rains deliver less water to soil than irrigation does. B) Water used for irrigation contains fertilizer and pesticides that affect soil quality. C) Rainwater contains lower amounts of salts. D) The fast water flow during irrigation removes organic material from soil. E) The fast water flow during rains is able to remove toxic materials from topsoil. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 35.1 Section: 35.1

13) Compared to plants from other environments, the cells of many desert plants contain high concentrations of solutes. This helps them survive in their arid surroundings because the high solute concentrations create relatively ________, which help reduce water loss. A) low solute potentials B) high pressure potentials C) low pressure potentials D) high solute potentials Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 35.1, 35.3 Section: 35.1 14) Which of the following has the lowest (most negative) water potential? A) Root cortical cells B) Root xylem vessels C) Leaf air spaces D) Leaf mesophyll cells Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.2 Section: 35.1 15) As an undergraduate research assistant, your duties involve measuring water potential in experimental soil-plant-atmosphere systems. Assume you make a series of measurements in a system under normal daylight conditions, with stomata open and photosynthesis occurring. Which of the following correctly depicts the trend your measurement data should follow if the cohesion-tension mechanism is operating? A) ψsoil < ψroots = ψleaves < ψatmosphere B) ψatmosphere < ψleaves = ψroots < ψsoil C) ψsoil < ψroots < ψleaves < ψatmosphere D) ψatmosphere < ψleaves < ψroots < ψsoil Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, PS V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.2 Section: 35.1

16) Which of the following statements about bulk flow are correct? I. Bulk flow is driven primarily by pressure potential. II. Bulk flow depends on a difference in pressure potential at the source and sink. III. Bulk flow depends on the force of gravity on a column of water. IV. Bulk flow may be the result of either positive or negative pressure potential. A) I and III B) II and III C) I, II, and IV D) I, II, III, and IV Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.1, 35.2, 35.3 Section: 35.2, 34.3 17) What drives the flow of water through the xylem? A) Passive transport by the endodermis B) The number of companion cells in the phloem C) The evaporation of water from the leaves D) Active transport by sieve-tube elements E) Active transport by tracheid and vessel elements Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.2 Section: 35.2 18) Root hairs are most important to a plant because they ________. A) anchor a plant in the soil B) store starches C) increase the surface area for absorption D) provide a habitat for nitrogen-fixing bacteria E) contain xylem tissue Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 35.2 Section: 35.2

19) Water potential is generally most negative in which of the following parts of a plant? A) Mesophyll cells of the leaf B) Xylem vessels in leaves C) Xylem vessels in roots D) Cells of the root cortex E) Root hairs Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 35.1, 35.2 Section: 35.1, 35.2 20) Which of the following features of plant cells allows for apoplastic movement of water? A) Porous cell walls B) Plasmodesmata C) Large central vacuole D) Endodermal cells Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 35.2 Section: 35.2 21) Compared to a cell with few aquaporins in its membrane, a cell containing many aquaporins will ________. A) have a faster rate of osmosis B) have a lower water potential C) have a higher water potential D) have a faster rate of active transport E) be flaccid Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.1 Section: 35.2

22) Where would you expect water to have the highest potential energy within the plant? A) In the root apoplast B) In a stem tracheid C) In a mesophyll cell D) In a mesophyll air space Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.1 Section: 35.1 23) Which cells in a root form a protective barrier to the vascular system where all materials must move through the symplast? A) Pericycle B) Cortex C) Epidermis D) Endodermis E) Exodermis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.2 Section: 35.2 24) The following factors may sometimes play a role in the movement of sap through xylem. Which one depends on the direct expenditure of ATP by the plant? A) Capillary movement of water within the xylem B) Evaporation of water from leaves C) Cohesion among water molecules D) Concentration of ions in the symplast E) Bulk flow of water in the root apoplast Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 35.2 Section: 35.2

25) Which mechanism of water transport can be used to explain the primary movement of water in nonvascular plants such as mosses? A) Cohesion-tension B) Capillary action C) Proton pumps D) Air pressure Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 35.2 Section: 35.2 26) Water movement in plants occurs in a variety of contexts–movement in and out of cells, through the xylem, and through the phloem. Which of the following statements applies to all three of these contexts? A) Water always moves from areas of high solute concentration to low solute concentration. B) Water always moves from areas of low pressure to high pressure. C) Water always moves from areas of high pressure to low pressure. D) Water always moves from areas of high potential energy to areas of low potential energy. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.1, 35.2, 35.4 Section: 35.1, 35.2, 35.3 27) In which plant cell or tissue would the pressure component of water potential most often be negative? A) Leaf mesophyll cell B) Stem xylem C) Stem phloem D) Root cortex cell E) Root epidermis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.1, 35.2 Section: 35.2

28) Active transport would be LEAST important in the normal functioning of which of the following plant tissue types? A) Leaf transfer cells B) Stem tracheids C) Root endodermal cells D) Leaf mesophyll cells E) Root sieve-tube elements Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 35.1, 35.4 Section: 35.2, 35.3 29) Photosynthesis ceases when leaves wilt, mainly because ________. A) the chlorophyll in wilting leaves is degraded B) flaccid mesophyll cells are incapable of photosynthesis C) stomata close, preventing carbon dioxide from entering the leaf D) photolysis, the water-splitting step of photosynthesis, cannot occur when there is a water deficiency E) accumulation of carbon dioxide in the leaf inhibits enzymes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS, SS LO: 35.3 Section: 35.2 30) Which of the following would tend to increase transpiration? A) A rainstorm B) Stomatal crypts C) Dry soils D) Higher stomatal density E) Spiny leaves Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 35.3 Section: 35.2

31) Which of the following structural features of plants would NOT be expected to reduce transpiration? A) Thick cuticle on leaves and stems B) Abundant epidermal hairs on leaves and stems C) Stomatal crypts D) Stomata on upper and lower surfaces of the leaves E) Reduced leaf surface area Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.3 Section: 35.3 32) Which of the following adaptations are LEAST likely to be found in plants that regularly experience dry, hot conditions? A) CAM photosynthesis B) Small, thick leaves with stomata on the lower surface C) A thick cuticle on fleshy leaves D) Large, fleshy stems with the ability to carry out photosynthesis E) Large, thin leaves Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 35.3 Section: 35.3 33) CAM and C4 plants conduct photosynthesis in ways that allow them to live in drier areas than most C3 plants can tolerate. The effectiveness of different plants in restricting water loss while still allowing for influx of adequate carbon dioxide can be compared using the transpiration ratio, which is calculated by dividing the amount of water transpired by the amount of carbon dioxide fixed by photosynthesis. If a typical transpiration ratio for a C3 plant is 500, then possible values for CAM and C4 plants could be ________. A) 750-1000 B) 500 C) 50-250 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, QR V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.3 Section: 35.3

34) Phloem transport of sucrose is often described as going from source to sink. Which of the following is most likely to function as a source? A) A growing leaf in early spring B) A growing root in late summer C) A bulb in early spring D) A shoot tip in late fall Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 35.4 Section: 35.3 35) Arrange the following five events in an order that explains the mass flow of materials in the phloem. 1. Water diffuses into the sieve tubes. 2. Leaf cells produce sugar by photosynthesis. 3. Solutes are actively transported into sieve tubes. 4. Sugar is transported from cell to cell in the leaf. 5. Sugar moves down the stem. A) 2, 1, 4, 3, and 5 B) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 C) 2, 4, 3, 1, and 5 D) 4, 2, 1, 3, and 5 E) 2, 4, 1, 3, and 5 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.4 Section: 35.3 36) Movement of phloem sap from a source to a sink ________. A) occurs through the apoplast of sieve-tube elements B) depends upon active transport of sugars into the sieve-tube elements C) depends on tension, or negative pressure potential D) depends on active transport of water into sieve-tube elements at the source E) results mainly from diffusion of sugars into companion cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.4 Section: 35.3

37) As an undergraduate research assistant, you are assisting with a radioisotope tracer experiment. You expose a mature leaf on one side of the lower shoot of a sugar beet plant to 14CO2 and then track the movement of the 14C atoms by radiography. Where are you LEAST likely to detect 14C? A) The treated leaf B) The shoot apical meristem C) The roots D) A mature upper leaf on the opposite side of the plant from the treated leaf E) A young leaf directly above the treated leaf Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS, PS LO: 35.4 Section: 35.3 38) Which structure or compartment is part of the symplast? A) The interior of a vessel element B) The interior of a sieve tube C) The cell wall of a mesophyll cell D) An extracellular air space E) The cell wall of a root hair Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.2, 35.4 Section: 35.2, 35.3 39) In the pressure-flow mechanism, loading of sucrose from companion cells to sieve-tube elements takes place through ________. A) plasmodesmata B) facilitated diffusion C) sucrose-H+ symporters D) sucrose-H+ antiporters E) carriers Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.4 Section: 35.3

40) Which of the following supports the finding that sugar translocation from mesophyll cells into companion cells is an active process? A) Sucrose occurs in higher concentrations in companion cells than in the mesophyll cells where it is produced. B) Movement of water occurs from xylem to phloem and back again. C) ATPase proteins are not associated with sucrose transport. D) Channel and carrier proteins are abundant in the plasma membranes of the mesophyll cells. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 35.4 Section: 35.3 41) Water flows into the source end of a sieve tube because ________. A) sucrose has diffused into the sieve tube, increasing turgor pressure B) sucrose has been actively transported into the sieve tube, increasing turgor pressure C) water pressure outside the sieve tube forces in water D) the companion cell of a sieve tube actively pumps in water E) sucrose has been transported out of the sieve tube by active transport Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 35.4 Section: 35.3 42) Active transport of sucrose into companion cells requires ________. A) NADP and channel proteins B) xylem membranes and channel proteins C) sodium/potassium pumps and xylem membranes D) ATP, transport proteins, and a proton gradient Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 35.4 Section: 35.3

43) Which of the following transmembrane transport mechanisms requires the expenditure of energy? A) Channel B) Antiporter C) Facilitated diffusion D) Aquaporin Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 35.4 Section: 35.3 44) Active transport involves ________. A) diffusion of solute through the lipid bilayer of a membrane B) pumping of solutes across the membrane C) production of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) D) transport of solute down a concentration gradient Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 35.4 Section: 35.3 45) The research by Michael Sussman showed that a gene called SUC2 is expressed in vascular tissue, encoding a proton-sucrose symporter. Mutant plants lacking a functional SUC2 gene were unable to ________. A) export sugar from mesophyll cells to the rest of the plant B) accumulate starch in plant chloroplasts C) load sucrose into mesophyll cells D) carry out facilitated diffusion Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 35.4 Section: 35.3

46) According to the pressure-flow hypothesis of phloem transport, ________. A) high turgor pressure in source sieve-tube elements pushes phloem sap to sink sieve-tube elements with low turgor pressure B) water is actively transported into the source region of the phloem to create the turgor pressure needed C) the combination of a high turgor pressure in the source and transpiration water loss from the sink moves solutes through phloem conduits D) the formation of starch from sugar in the sink increases the osmotic concentration E) the pressure in the phloem of a root is normally greater than the pressure in the phloem of a leaf Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 35.4 Section: 35.3 47) Which one of the following statements about transport of nutrients in phloem is correct? A) Solute particles are actively transported from phloem to xylem. B) Companion cells control the rate and direction of movement of phloem sap. C) Differences in osmotic concentration at the source and sink cause a pressure gradient to be formed. D) A sink is the part of a plant where a particular solute is produced. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 35.4 Section: 35.3 48) Which of the following structures would you least expect to find in a phloem sieve-tube element? A) Nucleus B) Sieve plate C) Plasma membrane D) Plasmodesmata Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: E LO: 35.4 Section: 35.3

49) You go out into a field early in the morning and notice small droplets of water along the edges of the leaves. It did not rain overnight. What caused these droplets? A) High humidity and low temperatures caused water to condense after leaving the stomata. B) A buildup of ions in the root xylem resulted in a positive pressure that pushed water up the xylem. C) Use of solutes in the leaf mesophyll cells overnight increased the solute potential and caused water to leave these cells. D) Evapotranspiration rates are faster in the morning. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: E LO: 35.2 Section: 35.2 50) Some plants have the ability to significantly alter the solute concentrations of their cells. If one of these plants was growing in a salty environment, it would most likely ________. A) increase the solute concentration of its cells to ensure that the water potential of its cells is higher than the soil B) increase the solute concentration of its cells to ensure that the water potential of its cells is lower than the soil C) decrease the solute concentration of its cells to ensure that the water potential of its cells is higher than the soil D) decrease the solute concentration of its cells to ensure that the water potential of its cells is lower than the soil Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: E LO: 35.1 Section: 35.1 51) In response to hot, dry conditions, well-adapted plants will often ________. A) open more stomata to prevent a loss of turgor pressure in leaf cells B) open more stomata to prevent an increase in turgor pressure in leaf cells C) close their stomata to prevent a loss of turgor pressure in leaf cells D) close their stomata to prevent an increase in turgor pressure in leaf cells Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: E LO: 35.1, 35.3 Section: 35.1

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 36 Plant Nutrition 1) You are conducting an experiment on plant growth. You take a plant fresh from the soil that weighs 5 kilograms (kg). Then you dry the plant overnight and determine the dry weight to be 1kg. Of this dry weight, how much would you expect to be made up of oxygen, carbon, and hydrogen? A) 1 gram B) 4 grams C) 40 grams D) 960 grams E) 1 kg Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 36.1 Section: 36.1 2) Most of the dry mass of a plant is derived from ________. A) NO3− and CO2 B) K+ and CO2 C) PO4 and K+ D) H2O and K+ E) H2O and CO2 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 36.1 Section: 36.1

3) Which of the following statements about essential nutrients are TRUE? Essential nutrients ________. I. are necessary for plant growth and reproduction II. are required for a specific structure or metabolic function III. cannot be synthesized by a plant IV. are produced by symbiotic bacteria A) I and IV B) II, III, and IV C) I, II, and III D) I, II, III, and IV Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.1 Section: 36.1 4) Which criteria allow biologists to divide chemicals into macronutrients and micronutrients? A) Molecular weight of the element or compound B) The quantities of each required by plants C) How they are used in metabolism D) Whether or not they are essential for plant growth Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.1 Section: 36.1 5) Which elements are most often the limiting nutrients for plant growth? A) Nitrogen, potassium, and phosphorus B) Nitrogen, oxygen, and hydrogen C) Carbon, sodium, and chlorine D) Carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen E) Carbon, potassium, and sodium Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.1 Section: 36.1

6) In plants, micronutrients ________. A) are required in relatively large amounts B) are required only during germination of seeds C) generally help in catalytic functions in the plant D) are required only during flowering Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.1 Section: 36.1 7) Which of the following elements is required for the stability of cell walls? A) Zinc B) Chlorine C) Calcium D) Molybdenum E) Manganese Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.1 Section: 36.1 8) A major function of magnesium in plants is to ________. A) regenerate phosphoenolpyruvate in C4 and CAM plants B) be a component of DNA and RNA C) be a component of chlorophyll D) be active in amino acid formation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.1 Section: 36.1

9) Which of the following correctly pairs an essential element in plants with its function? A) Nitrogen, component of nucleic acids, proteins, hormones, and coenzymes B) Magnesium, component of nucleic acids, phospholipids, ATP, and several coenzymes C) Phosphorus, cofactor functioning in protein synthesis D) Potassium, component of chlorophyll; activates many enzymes E) Sulfur, component of DNA; activates some enzymes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.1 Section: 36.1 10) The NPK percentages on a package of fertilizer refer to the ________. A) total protein content of the three major ingredients of the fertilizer B) percentages of manure collected from different types of animals C) relative percentages of organic and inorganic nutrients in the fertilizer D) percentages of three important mineral nutrients E) proportions of three different nitrogen sources Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.1 Section: 36.1 11) Iron deficiency is often indicated by yellowing in newly formed leaves. This suggests that iron is ________. A) a relatively immobile nutrient in plants B) tied up in formed chlorophyll molecules C) concentrated in the xylem of older leaves D) concentrated in the phloem of older leaves E) found in leghemoglobin and reduces the amount available to new plant parts Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.1 Section: 36.1

12) A mineral deficiency is likely to affect older leaves more than younger leaves if the ________. A) mineral is a micronutrient B) mineral is very mobile within the plant C) mineral is required for chlorophyll synthesis D) mineral is a macronutrient E) older leaves are in direct sunlight Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.1 Section: 36.1 13) To understand the role of zinc in plant growth and development, you grow a tomato plant using hydroponics. Which plant organs do you expect to show developmental defects if you provide the plant with a solution devoid of zinc? A) Leaf development only B) Stem development only C) Aboveground development only D) Belowground development only E) All organs will be affected. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 36.1 Section: 36.1 14) Which of the following experiments is the best way to determine if an element is essential for plant growth? A) Measure the amount of the element stored in plant tissues. B) Grow plants in soil deficient in the element and note whether or not the plants are healthy. C) Measure the amount of the element in the soil after plant growth. D) Grow plants using hydroponics with and without the element and measure plant growth and health. E) Measure the weight of the plant and soil before and after plant growth. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 36.1 Section: 36.1

15) Stunted growth and leaf necrosis, especially in young plants, is a typical symptom of deficiency of which element? A) C B) Mg2+ C) N D) P E) K+ Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.1 Section: 36.1 16) Two groups of tomatoes were grown under laboratory conditions, one with humus added to the soil and one a control without humus. The leaves of the plants grown without humus were yellowish (less green) compared with those of the plants grown in the humus-enriched soil. The best explanation for this difference is that ________. A) the healthy plants used the food in the decomposing leaves of the humus for energy to make chlorophyll B) the humus made the soil more loosely packed, so water penetrated more easily to the roots C) the humus contained minerals such as magnesium and iron, needed for the synthesis of chlorophyll D) the heat released by the decomposing leaves of the humus caused more rapid growth and chlorophyll synthesis E) the plants absorbed essential macronutrients necessary for chlorophyll synthesis from the humus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 36.1 Section: 36.1 17) If an African violet has chlorosis, which of the following elements might be a useful addition to the soil? A) Chlorine B) Molybdenum C) Copper D) Iodine E) Magnesium Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.1 Section: 36.1 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

18) How does phosphorus normally enter ecosystems? A) Cellular respiration B) Photosynthesis C) Rock weathering D) Burning of fossil fuels E) Atmospheric phosphorous gas Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.2 Section: 36.2 19) Clay in soils represents a trade-off in nutrient availability, such that ________. A) anions are less likely to leach out of soil, but they are difficult for plants to extract B) cations are less likely to leach out of soil, but they are difficult for plants to extract C) nitrogen levels are exceptionally high, but much of the nitrogen leaches away D) oxygen levels are exceptionally high, but much of the nitrogen leaches away Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.2 Section: 36.2 20) The highest amount of oxygen will be found in soils containing large amounts of ________. A) clay B) sand C) gravel D) silt Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.2 Section: 36.2

21) What soil composition would be best for availability of nutrients, water, and root development? A) Equal amounts of sand, clay, and humus B) Higher proportion of humus, lower amounts of clay, and sand C) Higher proportion of clay, lower amounts of humus, and sand D) Higher proportion of sand, lower amount of humus, and clay Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.2 Section: 36.2 22) Which of the following contributed to the dust bowl in the American southwest during the 1930s? I. Overgrazing by cattle II. Clear-cutting of forest trees III. Plowing of native grasses IV. Lack of soil moisture A) I and II B) II, III, and IV C) I, III, and IV D) I, II, III, IV Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.2 Section: 36.2 23) Which of the following soil minerals is most likely leached away during a hard rain in high clay soil? A) Na+ B) K+ C) Ca2+ D) NO3− E) H+ Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.2 Section: 36.2

24) Why are anionic nutrients generally mobile in soils, and thus easily leached, while cationic nutrients are relatively immobile? A) Anions readily form crystals while cations do not. B) Cations interact with clay particles and organic materials. C) Cations are more readily taken up by plant roots. D) Anions are repelled from the surfaces of living roots. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.2 Section: 36.2 25) The micronutrient iron is abundant in soil but often unavailable to plants due to insolubility. Knowing that the reaction Fe(OH)3 + 3 H+ ↔ Fe3+ + 3 H2O occurs, and assuming all soil samples have the same total amount of iron, which type of soil would you predict to have the highest amount of soluble iron? A) Neutral B) Acidic C) Alkaline D) The amount of iron in soil does not depend on pH. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 36.2 Section: 36.2 26) If you wanted to increase the cation exchange and water retention capacity of loamy soil, you should ________. A) adjust the soil pH to 7.9 B) add clay to the soil C) practice no-till agriculture D) add fertilizer containing potassium, calcium, and magnesium to the soil E) increase the number of sand particles in the soil Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 36.2 Section: 36.2

27) Which of the following would inhibit the growth of most plants? A) Abundant humus B) Air spaces C) Good drainage D) High cation exchange capacity E) A pH of 8.5 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.2 Section: 36.2 28) Which of the following plant structures shares the most common features and functions with a fungal hypha? A) Stoma B) Vascular cambium C) Lenticel D) Root hair E) Fibrous root system Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.3 Section: 36.3 29) Root hairs are most important to a plant because they ________. A) anchor a plant in the soil B) store starches C) increase the surface area for absorption D) provide a habitat for nitrogen-fixing bacteria E) contain xylem tissue Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.3 Section: 36.3

30)

The irt1 gene is responsible for most of the iron uptake activity in roots (Vert et al., Plant Cell 14 [2002]: 1223-33). To determine the specificity of the irt1 transporter in Arabidopsis plants, researchers measured the concentration of manganese, zinc, copper, and cobalt contained in wild-type and irt11 mutant plants. What conclusions about irt1 specificity can you draw from the data in the accompanying figure? A) Under iron-deficient conditions, irt1 is highly specific for iron. B) Under iron-deficient conditions, irt1 is important for the transport of iron and copper. C) irt1 is important for the transport of iron and copper independent of iron concentration. D) Under iron-deficient conditions, irt1 is necessary for the transport of zinc, manganese, and cobalt. E) irt1 participates in the transport of iron, zinc, manganese, and cobalt independent of iron concentration. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 36.3 Section: 36.3

31) After mutagenesis and screening, you have found a mutant that is able to grow in soil with high salt content. Chemical analysis showed that this plant has a decreased amount of Na+ throughout the entire plant relative to normal plants. What kind of mutation do you predict this plant contains? A) Mutation affecting plasma membrane sodium channels B) Mutation affecting metallothioneins C) Mutation affecting tonoplast sodium channels D) Mutation affecting tonoplast antiporters Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, I, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 36.3 Section: 36.3 32) What is the function of proton pumps localized in the plant plasma membrane? A) To facilitate diffusion of ions B) To transfer phosphorus groups from ATP to proteins C) To transfer metal ions across the plasma membrane D) To transfer anions across the plasma membrane E) To create a membrane potential Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.3 Section: 36.3 33) Why do plants use cotransporters instead of ion channels to transfer anions into cells? A) Cotransporters can transfer anions against the membrane potential gradient, but ion channels cannot. B) Cotransporters can transfer ions across cell membranes, but ion channels cannot transport ions across cell membranes. C) Cotransporters can transfer anions against the proton gradient, but ion channels cannot. D) Anions are too bulky to be transported by ion channels. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.3 Section: 36.3

34) Mycorrhizae enhance plant nutrition mainly by ________. A) absorbing water and minerals through the fungal hyphae B) providing sugar to root cells, which have no chloroplasts C) converting atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia D) enabling the roots to parasitize neighboring plants E) stimulating the development of root hairs Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.3 Section: 36.3 35) Pine seedlings grown in sterile potting soil grow much slower than seedlings grown in soil from the area where the seeds were collected. This is most likely because ________. A) sterilized soil kills the root hairs as they emerge from the seedling B) the normal symbiotic fungi are not present in the sterilized soil C) sterilization removes essential nutrients from the soil D) water and mineral uptake are slower when mycorrhizae are present Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.3 Section: 36.3 36) Which of the following would be the most effective strategy to remove toxic heavy metals from a soil? A) Heavy irrigation to leach out the heavy metals B) Application of fertilizers to compete with heavy-metal uptake C) Application of sulfur to lower the soil pH and precipitate the heavy metals D) Adding plant species that can take up and accumulate heavy metals E) Inoculating soil with mycorrhizae to avoid heavy-metal uptake Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 36.3 Section: 36.3

37) Why is nitrogen fixation an essential process? A) Nitrogen fixation can only be done by certain prokaryotes. B) Fixed nitrogen is often the limiting factor in plant growth. C) Nitrogen fixation is very expensive in terms of metabolic energy. D) Nitrogen fixers are sometimes symbiotic with legumes. E) Nitrogen-fixing capacity can be genetically engineered. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.4 Section: 36.4 38) Which of the following, if used as a fertilizer, would be most immediately available for plant uptake? A) NH3 B) N2 C) CN2H2 D) NO3− E) Amino acids Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.4 Section: 36.4 39) Nitrogen fixation is a process that ________. A) recycles nitrogen compounds from dead and decaying materials B) converts ammonia to ammonium C) releases nitrate from the rock substrate D) converts nitrogen gas into ammonia E) recycles nitrogen compounds from dead and decaying materials and converts ammonia to ammonium Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.4 Section: 36.4

40) In a root nodule, the gene coding for nitrogenase ________. A) is inactivated by leghemoglobin B) is absent in active bacteroids C) is found in the cells of the root hair D) protects the nodule from nitrogen E) is part of the Rhizobium genome Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: I, EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.4 Section: 36.4 41) Nitrogen compounds differ from other minerals needed by plants because they ________. A) can be lost from the soil B) can be provided by symbiotic bacteria C) are needed for protein synthesis D) are held by cation exchange capacity in the soil E) can be absorbed by root hairs Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.4 Section: 36.4 42) Which of the following statements about nitrogen fixation in root nodules is correct? A) The plant contributes the nitrogenase enzyme. B) The process is relatively inexpensive in terms of ATP costs. C) Leghemoglobin helps maintain a low oxygen concentration within the nodule. D) The process tends to deplete nitrogen compounds in the soil. E) The bacteria of the nodule are autotrophic. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.4 Section: 36.4

43) What is the correct sequence of steps during infection of plants by nitrogen-fixing bacteria? A) Rhizobia release Nod factors; roots release flavonoids; rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair; infection thread grows into the root cortex; nodule forms. B) Rhizobia release flavonoids; roots release Nod factors; rhizobia proliferate inside root hair; infection thread grows into the root cortex; nodule forms. C) Roots release flavonoids; rhizobia release Nod factors; rhizobia proliferate inside root hair; nodule forms; infection thread grows into the root cortex. D) Roots release flavonoids; rhizobia release Nod factors; rhizobia proliferate inside root hair; infection thread grows into the root cortex; nodule forms. E) Nodule forms; infection thread grows into the root cortex; rhizobia proliferate inside root hair; rhizobia release flavonoids and Nod factors. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.4 Section: 36.4 44) After mutagenesis, the nitrogen-fixing bacterium Sinorhizobium meliloti could no longer colonize Medicago truncatula plants. This inability to colonize was due to the absence of recognition by the host plant. Which of the following genes is most likely the site of the mutation in these bacteria? A) Nitrogenase B) Flavonoid-synthesizing enzyme C) Nod factors D) Leghemoglobin E) Peptidoglycans of the bacterial cell wall Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 36.4 Section: 36.4 45) A rootless, green plant is found growing on the branches and trunks of rainforest trees but lacks any apparent adaptation for collecting rainwater. This plant is most likely ________. A) an epiphyte B) a nitrogen-fixing plant C) a carnivorous plant D) a mutualistic plant E) a parasitic plant Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.5 Section: 36.5 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

46) What kind of climate is most often associated with epiphytic plants? A) Temperate B) Humid C) Sunny D) Freezing Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.5 Section: 36.5 47) Epiphytes are ________. A) aerial vines common in tropical regions B) haustoria used for anchoring to host plants and obtaining xylem sap C) plants that live in poor soil and digest insects to obtain nitrogen D) plants that grow on other plants but do not obtain nutrients from their hosts E) plants that have a symbiotic relationship with fungi Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.5 Section: 36.5 48) While hiking in a forest, you notice an unusual plant growing on the branches of a tree. What will help you to determine if this plant is epiphytic or parasitic? A) If the plant is green, it is epiphytic; if not, then it is parasitic. B) The roots of an epiphytic plant will be in the soil, but a parasitic plant will grow from the trunk of a tree. C) Structures of a parasitic plant will penetrate under the bark into the wood, and those of an epiphytic plant will not. D) The epiphytic plant will have large water-collecting leaves, and the parasitic plant will not. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, EM V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 36.5 Section: 36.5

49) Carnivorous plants have evolved mechanisms that trap and digest small animals. The products of this digestion are used to supplement the plant's supply of ________. A) energy B) carbohydrates C) lipids and steroids D) nitrogen and other minerals E) water Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.5 Section: 36.5 50) What is a typical habitat for carnivorous plants? A) Wet areas with high salinity B) Wet areas with high levels of humus C) Wet areas with low levels of available nitrogen D) Dry areas with low levels of available oxygen E) Dry areas with high levels of peat Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: I LO: 36.5 Section: 36.5

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 37 Plant Sensory Systems, Signals, and Responses 1) Which of the following can function in signal transduction in plants? I. Calcium ions II. Nonrandom mutations III. Receptor proteins IV. Red light V. Second messengers A) Only I, III, and IV B) Only I, II, and V C) Only I, III, and V D) Only II and IV E) Only II, III, and V Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.1 Section: 37.1 2) Which of the following can be sensed by plants? I. Gravity II. Pathogens III. Wind IV. Light A) Only I and III B) Only III and IV C) Only I, II, and IV D) Only II, III, and IV E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.1 Section: 37.1

3) You have discovered a previously unidentified plant, and you cultivate it in your lab. You notice that its flowers close when people are talking yet are open when the lab is relatively quiet. You suspect that this plant may have the ability to hear! Which of the following hypotheses is (are) the most reasonable to explain this phenomenon? I. There is a cell-surface protein on the epidermal cells that becomes phosphorylated in response to vibration by sound waves. II. There are tiny hairs on epidermal cells that bend in response to the vibration of sound waves, triggering an action potential in epidermal cells. III. There is a cell-surface receptor on root cells that becomes phosphorylated when the soil vibrates in response to sound waves. A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) Only II and III E) I, II, and III Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 37.1 Section: 37.1 4) Plant hormonal regulation differs from animal hormonal regulation in that ________. A) there are no dedicated hormone-producing organs in plants as there are in animals B) all production of hormones is local in plants with little long-distance transport C) plants do not exhibit feedback mechanisms like animals D) only animal hormone concentrations are developmentally regulated E) only animal hormones may have either external or internal receptors Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.1 Section: 37.1 5) Plant hormones ________. A) naturally exist in very large amounts in plants B) change their shape in response to stimulus C) are unable to move from one cell to another D) affect only cells with the appropriate receptor Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.1 Section: 37.1 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) Charles and Francis Darwin concluded from their experiments on phototropism by grass seedlings that the part of the seedling that detects the direction of light is the ________. A) tip of the coleoptile B) elongating cells in the coleoptile C) base of the coleoptile D) cotyledon E) phytochrome in the coleoptile Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 37.2 Section: 37.2 7) To find the gene that encodes for the blue-light receptor, researchers inserted the gene for the PHOT1 protein into insect cells growing in culture. When they exposed the transgenic cells to blue light, they found that the PHOT1 protein became phosphorylated. No other plant proteins were present in the insect cells. Which of the following is a reasonable conclusion from this result? The PHOT1 protein ________. A) enabled the insect cells to photosynthesize B) phosphorylated itself in the presence of blue light C) is not responsive to blue light D) is photoreversible E) is not functional in insect cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 37.2 Section: 37.2 8) Which of the following conclusions is supported by the research of both Went and Charles and Francis Darwin on shoot responses to light? A) When shoots are exposed to light, a chemical substance migrates toward the light. B) Agar contains a chemical substance that mimics a plant hormone. C) A chemical substance involved in shoot bending is produced in shoot tips. D) Once shoot tips have been cut, normal growth cannot be induced. E) Cells on the shaded side of the coleoptile elongate in response to auxin. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 37.2 Section: 37.2

9) A plant seedling bends toward sunlight because ________. A) auxin migrates to the lower part of the stem due to gravity B) there is more auxin on the light side of the stem C) auxin is destroyed more quickly on the dark side of the stem D) auxin is found in greatest abundance on the dark side of the stem E) gibberellins produced at the stem tip cause phototropism Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.2 Section: 37.2 10) According to the acid-growth hypothesis, auxin works by ________. A) dissolving sieve plates, permitting more rapid transport of nutrients B) dissolving cell membranes temporarily, permitting cells that were on the verge of dividing to divide more rapidly C) changing the pH within the cell, permitting the electron transport chain to operate more efficiently D) increasing the activity of proton pumps that lower the pH of cell walls, allowing cells to elongate E) greatly increasing the rate of deposition of cell wall material Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.2 Section: 37.2

11) You observe a houseplant on your windowsill bending toward the bright afternoon sunlight. You wish to explain the molecular events of the phototropic response to your friend. What is the correct sequence that you would describe? I. PHOT1 is phosphorylated and changes shape. II. Cell elongation occurs on the shady side of the plant. III. Auxin binds its receptor at target tissues. IV. Light strikes PHOT1. V. PHOT1 stimulates downward auxin transport on the shady side of the plant. VI. Light strikes stomata, which close to minimize water loss. VII. Cells on the illuminated side of the plant become shorter. A) VI, VII, and II B) VII, II, III, and I C) IV, I, V, III, and II D) IV, VI, III, and VII E) Any of these sequences can initiate phototropism. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: CC LO: 37.2 Section: 37.2 12) Mammalian eyes sense light because the photoreceptor cells have molecules called opsins, which change structure when exposed to light. Which of the following plant molecules would be analogous to mammalian opsins in their light-sensing ability? A) Auxin and phytochrome B) Auxin and Pfr C) Pfr and phytochrome D) Cytokinins and phototropins E) Abscisic acid (ABA) and Pfr Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.3 Section: 37.3

13) Which of the following treatments would increase the level of the Pfr form of phytochrome? A) Exposure to far-red light B) Exposure to red light C) A long dark period D) Inhibition of protein synthesis E) Synthesis of phosphorylating enzymes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.3 Section: 37.3 14) The detector of light during de-etiolation (greening) of a tomato plant is ________. A) carotenoid B) xanthophyll C) phytochrome D) chlorophyll E) auxin Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.3 Section: 37.3 15) Before plowing a field, a farmer thought the bare field looked weed-free. Three days after plowing and turning over the soil, he was amazed to see thousands of tiny seedlings. What is the most likely reason for the mass germination of seeds? A) Large seeds that needed soil disturbance to germinate B) Small seeds that needed light to germinate C) Small seeds that were scarified by exposure to the plow D) Large seeds that needed exposure to higher levels of oxygen to germinate Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.3 Section: 37.3

16) Seed packets give a recommended planting depth for the enclosed seeds. The most likely reason some seeds are to be covered with only ¼ inch of soil is that the ________. A) seedlings will not emerge from soil if buried slightly deeper than this B) seedlings do not have an etiolation response C) seeds require light to germinate D) seeds require a higher temperature to germinate E) seeds cannot germinate in waterlogged soils Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.3 Section: 37.3 17) A short-day plant will flower only when ________. A) days are shorter than nights B) days are shorter than a certain critical value C) nights are shorter than days D) days and nights are of equal length Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.3 Section: 37.3 18) A flash of red light followed by a flash of far-red light given during the middle of the night to a short-day plant will likely ________. A) cause increased flower production B) have no effect upon flowering C) inhibit flowering D) stimulate flowering E) convert florigen to the active form Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.3 Section: 37.3

19) Plants often use changes in photoperiods to trigger events such as dormancy and flowering. It is logical that plants have evolved this mechanism because photoperiod changes ________. A) are more predictable than air temperature changes B) predict moisture availability C) are modified by soil temperature changes D) can reset the biological clock Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.3 Section: 37.3 20) Recent research on Arabidopsis has shown that florigen is probably ________. A) a phytochrome molecule that is activated by red light B) a protein that is synthesized in leaves, travels to the shoot apical meristems, and initiates flowering C) a membrane signal that travels through the symplast from leaves to buds D) a second messenger that induces Ca2+ ions to change membrane potential E) a transcription factor that controls the activation of florigen-specific genes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.3 Section: 37.3 21) Which of the following signals indicates shade to a plant? A) Light quantity B) Blue light C) Far-red light D) Red light Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.3 Section: 37.3

22) A botanist discovers a plant that lacks the ability to form starch grains in root cells, yet the roots still grow downward. This evidence would refute the long-standing hypothesis that ________. A) falling amyloplasts trigger gravitropism B) starch accumulation triggers the negative phototropic response of roots C) starch grains block the acid-growth response in roots D) starch is converted to auxin, which causes the downward bending in roots E) starch and downward movement are necessary for thigmotropism Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 37.4 Section: 37.4 23) A plant mutant that shows normal gravitropic bending but does not store starch in its plastids would require a reevaluation of the role of ________ in gravitropism. A) auxin B) calcium C) amyloplasts D) light E) differential growth Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 37.4 Section: 37.4 24) If cells in the ________ are removed, roots will no longer respond to gravity. A) root hairs B) zone of elongation C) root cap D) secondary meristem Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 37.4 Section: 37.4

25) After some time, the tip of a plant that has been forced into a horizontal position grows upward. This phenomenon is related to ________. A) calcium release from the endoplasmic reticulum of shaded cells B) accumulation of amyloplasts on the lower side of the stem C) gibberellin production by stems D) exposure of phytochrome in the stem to red light E) auxin movement toward the lower side of the stem Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.4 Section: 37.4 26) What do the results of research on gravitropic responses of roots and stems show? A) Different tissues have the same response to auxin. B) The effect of a plant hormone can depend on the tissue. C) Some responses of plants require no hormones at all. D) Amyloplasts are required for the gravitropic response. E) Cytokinin can only function in the presence of auxin. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 37.4 Section: 37.4 27) Which of the following best explains both the growth of a vine up the trunk of a tree as well as the directional growth of a houseplant toward a window? A) Nastic movement B) Taxic movement C) Tropism responses D) Morphological responses E) Acclimation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 37.5 Section: 37.5

28) What do thigmomorphogenesis, thigmotropism, and thigmonastic movements have in common? A) All three plant responses are mediated by auxins. B) All three plant responses are responses to touch. C) All three plant responses alter the direction of stem growth. D) In all three plant responses, gene transcription is altered in response to touch. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.5 Section: 37.5 29) Vines in tropical rain forests must grow toward large trees before being able to grow toward the Sun. To reach a large tree, the most useful kind of growth movement for a tropical vine presumably would be ________. A) negative thigmotropism B) negative phototropism C) negative gravitropism D) positive thigmomorphogenesis E) the opposite of circadian rhythms Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.5 Section: 37.5 30) Many plants can respond very rapidly to mechanical stimuli. For instance, Venus flytraps respond more quickly than their insect prey can escape. A very mild touch or a light breeze can cause the leaves of the sensitive plant to close tightly. This rapid transmission of touch is accomplished by ________. A) rapid changes in phloem pressure B) efficient, rapid transport of auxin C) self-propagating changes in membrane potential D) release of volatile airborne signals E) All of the above are employed by these plants. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.5 Section: 37.5

31) The apical bud of a shoot produces ________, resulting in the inhibition of lateral bud growth. A) abscisic acid B) ethylene C) cytokinin D) gibberellin E) auxin Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.6 Section: 37.6 32) Plant hormones can have different effects at different concentrations. This explains how ________. A) some plants are long-day plants, while others are short-day plants B) signal transduction pathways in plants differ from those in animals C) plant genes recognize pathogen genes, although plants lack an immune system D) auxin can stimulate cell elongation in apical meristems yet inhibit the growth of axillary buds E) gibberellin concentration can both induce and break seed dormancy Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.6 Section: 37.6 33) Plant growth regulators ________. A) only act by altering gene expression B) may have a multiplicity of effects C) function independently of hormones D) directly control plant protein synthesis and assembly E) affect the division and elongation, but not the differentiation, of cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.6 Section: 37.6

34) Which of the following hormones would be most useful in promoting the rooting of plant cuttings? A) Ethylene B) Abscisic acid C) Cytokinins D) Gibberellins E) Auxins Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.6 Section: 37.6 35) You have a small tree in your yard that is the height that you want it, but it does not have as many branches as you want. How can you prune it to trigger it to increase the number of branches? A) Cut off the leaves at the ends of several branches. B) Cut off the tips of the main shoots. C) Cut off lower branches. D) Cut some of the higher branches off at the stem. E) Cut off the leaves at the base of most of the branches. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.6 Section: 37.6

36)

The heavy line in the accompanying figure illustrates the relationship between auxin concentration and cell growth in stem tissues. If the same range of concentrations were applied to lateral buds, what curve(s) would probably be produced? A) I B) II C) III D) II or III E) I or III Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 37.6 Section: 37.6 37) Which of the following is the strongest evidence that cytokinins regulate cell divisions? There is ________. A) an increase of cyclin gene expression in tissues exposed to cytokinin B) a decrease of cyclin gene expression in tissues exposed to cytokinin C) induction of shoot growths in tissues exposed to cytokinin D) induction of root growths in tissues exposed to cytokinin E) an ability of cytokinin to interact with auxin at the molecular level and change auxin biosynthesis and transport Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.6 Section: 37.6

38) A researcher found a beautiful plant while traveling in Alaska and collected its seeds. When she came back to Florida, she soaked some seeds in pure water and some in water with a hormone. When she put the seeds in soil to grow, only the seeds that had been soaked with the hormone germinated. The hormone most likely was ________. A) gibberellin B) abscisic acid (ABA) C) auxin D) ethylene Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 37.6 Section: 37.6 39) The aleurone layer is stimulated to release ________ as a result of gibberellin release from the embryo. A) amino acids B) carbohydrates C) cytokinins D) amylase E) RNAase Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.6 Section: 37.6

40) Refer to the accompanying figure to answer the question below.

The results of this experiment, shown on the left of the graph (area A), ________. A) show that these plants can flower without gibberellin B) show that gibberellin is necessary in positive gravitropism C) show that taller plants with more gibberellin produce fruit (pods) D) show a correlation between plant height and gibberellin concentration E) show the effect of plant phytochromes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 37.6 Section: 37.6 41) You are part of a desert plant research team trying to discover crops that will be productive in arid climates. You discover a plant that, under water-deficit conditions, produces a hormone that triggers a suite of drought responses. Most likely the hormone is ________. A) abscisic acid B) gibberellin C) auxin D) florigen E) methyl salicylate Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 37.6 Section: 37.6

42) Which of the following is NOT an effect observed in the guard cells of stomata? A) Guard cell shrinkage B) K+ exiting guard cells C) Changes in membrane potential D) Cell expansion driven by proton ATPases E) Water exiting guard cells Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.6 Section: 37.6 43) Brassinosteroids differ from steroids found in animal cells by ________. A) binding to receptors on the cell wall B) entering cells only through potassium channels C) being produced in small amounts in every cell D) binding to receptors on the plasma membrane E) being produced only in meristematic cells Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.6 Section: 37.6 44) The dropping of leaves and fruits are principally controlled by ________. A) gibberellins B) cytokinins C) auxins D) ethylene E) carbon dioxide concentration Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.6 Section: 37.6

45) If you were shipping green bananas to a supermarket thousands of miles away, which of the following chemicals would you want to eliminate from the plants' environment? A) Carbon dioxide B) Cytokinins C) Ethylene D) Auxin E) Gibberellic acids Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.6 Section: 37.6 46) The transduction pathway that activates systemic acquired resistance in plants is initially signaled by ________. A) herbivory B) phytochrome production C) methyl salicylate D) systemin release E) proteinase inhibitors Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.7 Section: 37.7 47) When an arborist prunes a limb off a valuable tree, he or she may paint the cut surface with a nontoxic sealant. The primary purpose of the paint is to ________. A) minimize water loss by evaporation from the cut surface B) improve the appearance of the cut surface C) stimulate growth of the cork cambium to heal the wound D) block entry of pathogens through the wound E) induce the production of proteinase inhibitors Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.7 Section: 37.7

48) Which of the following is the most likely plant response to an attack by herbivores? A) Leaf abscission to prevent further loss of tissue B) Early flowering to reproduce before being eaten C) Production of chemical compounds for defense or to attract predators of the herbivores D) Production of physical defenses, such as thorns E) Production of thicker bark and cuticle to make it more difficult to eat Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.7 Section: 37.7 49) For a plant to initiate chemical responses to herbivory before it is directly attacked by herbivores, ________. A) a plant must have already flowered at least once B) volatile "signal" compounds must be perceived C) systemin must be produced D) the hypersensitive response must be induced Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 37.7 Section: 37.7

50) Use the following information to answer the question below. Some plants continually produce secondary defense compounds. Other plants are induced to form secondary defense compounds when they are injured. Corn seedling leaves that are chewed on by the caterpillars of a type of cutworm moth emit immediate volatile chemicals (LOX products), and after 6 hours large amounts of terpenoid compounds are released into the air. The terpenoids are released not only from the leaf being chewed but also from all leaves of the plant. The terpenoid compounds attract a parasitoid wasp female that lays her eggs on the caterpillar. When the wasp larvae hatch, they eat and kill the moth caterpillar. What can you conclude based only on the information in the preceding paragraph? A) The attracting terpenoid compounds are always present in the corn seedling. B) Physical injury by the caterpillar mouthparts results in the immediate release of terpenoids. C) Chemical signals from the caterpillar saliva attract the parasitic wasp. D) The parasitoid wasp is attracted by compounds produced by an injured corn plant. E) LOX products and terpenoids are the same kinds of chemical compounds. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 37.7 Section: 37.7

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 38 Flowering Plant Reproduction and Development 1) Angiosperms are the most successful terrestrial plants. Which of the following features is unique to them and helps account for their success? A) Wind pollination B) Dominant gametophytes C) Fruits enclosing seeds D) Embryos enclosed within seed coats E) Sperm cells without flagella Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.4 Section: 38.0 2) In the process of alternation of generations, the ________. A) sporophyte is haploid and produces gametes B) sporophyte is diploid and produces spores C) gametophyte is haploid and produces spores D) gametophyte is diploid and produces gametes E) spores unite to form a zygote Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.1 Section: 38.1 3) Which set contains the most closely related terms? A) Megasporangium, megaspore, pollen, and ovule B) Microsporangium, microspore, egg, and ovary C) Megasporangium, megaspore, egg, and ovule D) Microsporangium, microspore, carpel, and ovary Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.1, 38.2 Section: 38.1

4) Which of the following is the correct sequence during alternation of generations in the life cycle in a flowering plant? A) Sporophyte → meiosis → spores → gametophyte → gametes → fertilization → zygote B) Sporophyte → mitosis → spores → gametophyte → meiosis → sporophyte C) Gametophyte → meiosis → gametes → fertilization → sporophyte D) Sporophyte → mitosis → spores → gametophyte → meiosis → gametes E) Sporophyte → mitosis → spores → fertilization → gametophyte Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.1 Section: 38.1 5) Which of the following best describes the ploidy level of the cells found in a fertilized embryo sac? A) All cells are diploid. B) All cells are triploid. C) All cells are polyploid. D) The ploidy level varies among species. E) There are haploid, diploid, and triploid cells. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.1, 38.3 Section: 38.3 6) A researcher has developed two stains for use with seed plants. One stains sporophyte cells blue; the other stains gametophyte cells red. If the researcher exposes pollen grains to both stains and then rinses away the excess stain, what should occur? A) The pollen grains will be pure red. B) The pollen grains will be pure blue. C) The pollen grains will have red interiors and blue exteriors. D) The pollen grains will have blue interiors and red exteriors. E) Insofar as the pollen grains are independent of the plant that produced them, they will not absorb either stain. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.1, 38.2 Section: 38.1

7) In plants, spores and gametes ________. A) are both produced by mitosis B) are both haploid C) both divide by mitosis D) typically fuse with two other cells to form a new organism E) are made by a sporophyte Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.1, 38.2 Section: 38.1 8) Which of the following is (are) TRUE in plants? I. Mitosis occurs in gametophytes to produce gametes. II. Meiosis occurs in sporophytes to produce spores. III. The gametophyte is within the flower in angiosperms. A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) Only I and II E) I, II, and III Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.1, 38.2 Section: 38.1, 38.2 9) In the life cycle of an angiosperm, which of the following stages is diploid? A) Megaspore B) Generative nucleus of a pollen grain C) Polar nuclei of the embryo sac D) Microsporocyte E) Both megaspore and polar nuclei Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.1, 38.2 Section: 38.2

10) Where does meiosis occur in a flowering plant? I. Megasporocyte II. Microsporocyte III. Endosperm IV. Pollen tube A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) I and III E) I and II Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.1, 38.2 Section: 38.1, 38.2 11) Stamens, sepals, petals, and carpels are ________. A) female reproductive parts B) capable of photosynthesis C) modified leaves D) found on all flowers E) found on both gymnosperms and angiosperms Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.2, 38.6 Section: 38.2 12) Which of the following correctly pairs a flower part with its function? A) Sepals, protect the flower bud B) Petals, attract seed-dispersing animals C) The stigma, produces nectar D) The carpel, produces pollen Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.2, 38.3 Section: 38.2

13) Microsporangia in flowering plants are located in the ________. A) stamen B) carpel C) petals D) sepals E) receptacle Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.2 Section: 38.2 14) The ovary is most often located in the ________. A) stamen B) carpel C) petals D) sepals E) receptacle Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.2 Section: 38.2 15) A mature, unfertilized ovule in an angiosperm is the result of ________. A) a single meiotic division B) a single mitotic division C) both meiotic and mitotic divisions D) mitosis from the megaspore mother cell E) differentiation from the suspensor tissues Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.1, 38.2 Section: 38.2

16) In flowering plants, a mature male gametophyte contains ________. A) two haploid gametes and a diploid pollen grain B) a generative cell and a tube cell C) two sperm cells and one tube cell D) two haploid microspores E) a haploid nucleus and a diploid pollen wall Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.1, 38.2 Section: 38.2 17) The functional role of sporopollenin is primarily to ________. A) comprise spore surface structures that catch the wind and assist in spore dispersal B) reduce dehydration C) make spores less dense and able to disperse more readily D) repel toxic chemicals E) provide nutrients to spores Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.2 Section: 38.2 18) Which of the following is a correct sequence of processes that takes place when a flowering plant reproduces? A) Meiosis → fertilization → pollination → germination B) Fertilization → meiosis → nuclear fusion → formation of embryo and endosperm C) Meiosis → pollination → nuclear fusion → formation of embryo and endosperm D) Growth of pollen tube → pollination → germination → fertilization E) Meiosis → mitosis → nuclear fusion → pollination Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.2, 38.3 Section: 38.2, 38.3

19) Which of the following statements about double fertilization in angiosperms is correct? A) One pollen grain combines with the egg to form the zygote, and one pollen grain combines with the polar nuclei to form endosperm. B) Two sperm combine with a polar nucleus to form endosperm. C) Two pollen grains combine with two ovules to form the zygote and endosperm. D) One sperm combines with the polar nuclei to form the zygote, and one sperm combines with the egg to form endosperm. E) One sperm combines with the egg to form the zygote, and one sperm combines with the polar nuclei to form endosperm. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.3 Section: 38.3

20) Use the following information to answer the question below. The Brazil nut tree, Bertholletia excels (n = 17), is native to tropical rain forests of South America. It is a hardwood tree that can grow to over 50 meters tall, is a source of high-quality lumber, and is a favorite nesting site for harpy eagles. As the rainy season ends, tough-walled fruits, each containing 8 to 25 seeds (Brazil nuts), fall to the forest floor. Brazil nuts are composed primarily of endosperm. About $50 million worth of nuts are harvested each year. Scientists have discovered that the pale yellow flowers of Brazil nut trees cannot fertilize themselves and admit only female orchid bees as pollinators. The agouti (Dasyprocta spp.), a cat-sized rodent, is the only animal with teeth strong enough to crack the hard wall of Brazil nut fruits. It typically eats some of the seeds, buries others, and leaves still others inside the fruit, which moisture can now enter. The uneaten seeds may subsequently germinate. If a female orchid bee has just left a Brazil nut tree with nectar in her stomach, and if she visits another flower on a different Brazil nut tree, what is the sequence in which the following events should occur? 1. Double fertilization 2. Pollen tube emerges from pollen grain 3. Pollen tube enters micropyle 4. Pollination A) 4, 2, 3, and 1 B) 4, 2, 1, and 3 C) 4, 3, 2, and 1 D) 2, 4, 3, and 1 E) 2, 4, 1, and 3 Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.3 Section: 38.3

21)

Based on the accompanying figure, after fertilization, which cell(s) give(s) rise to the embryo plant? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.3 Section: 38.3 22) Endosperm is a major part of monocot seeds. In most eudicots, ________. A) the same thing is true; there is a substantial amount of endosperm B) endosperm never even starts to form after double fertilization C) endosperm nutrients are repackaged into the cotyledons D) endosperm replaces cotyledons in the seed Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.4 Section: 38.4

23) Many seeds are capable of surviving in a dormant or quiescent state for many years, or even centuries. Such seeds are not usually damaged by environmental extremes that would kill most other organisms. What main adaptation prevents the seeds from germinating before they are dispersed and allows them to survive until environmental conditions are favorable for germination and seedling growth? A) A seed coat B) Two cotyledons C) A large quantity of stored nutrients D) Desiccation to 5% to 20% water E) Double fertilization Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.4 Section: 38.4 24) Fruits develop from ________. A) microsporangia B) receptacles C) fertilized eggs D) ovaries E) ovules Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.4 Section: 38.4

25) Among plants known as legumes (e.g., beans, peas, alfalfa, and clover), the seeds are contained in a fruit that is itself called a legume, better known as a pod. Upon opening such pods, it is commonly observed that some ovules have become mature seeds, whereas other ovules have not. Which of the following statements is (are) TRUE? 1. The flowers that gave rise to such pods were not pollinated. 2. Pollen tubes did not enter all of the ovules in such pods. 3. There was apparently not enough endosperm to distribute to all of the ovules in such pods. 4. The ovules that failed to develop into seeds were derived from sterile floral parts. 5. Fruit can develop, even if all ovules within have not been fertilized. A) 1 only B) 1 and 5 C) 2 and 4 D) 2 and 5 E) 3 and 5 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 38.3 Section: 38.3, 38.4 26) Which of the following would be considered a multiple fruit? A) Apple B) Strawberry C) Raspberry D) Pineapple E) Corn on the cob Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 38.4 Section: 38.4 27) Which of the following "vegetables" is botanically a fruit? A) Potato B) Lettuce C) Radish D) Celery E) Green beans Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 38.4 Section: 38.4 11 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) What adaptations should one expect of the seed coats of angiosperm species whose seeds are dispersed by frugivorous (fruit-eating) animals, as opposed to angiosperm species whose seeds are dispersed by other means? 1. The exterior of the seed coat should have barbs or hooks. 2. The seed coat should contain secondary compounds that irritate the lining of the animal's mouth. 3. The seed coat should be able to withstand low pHs. 4. The seed coat, upon its complete digestion, should provide vitamins or nutrients to animals. 5. The seed coat should be resistant to the animals' digestive enzymes. A) 4 only B) 1 and 2 C) 2 and 3 D) 3 and 5 E) 3, 4, and 5 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, S V&C Core Comp: SS LO: 38.4 Section: 38.4 29) Fruits have contributed to the success of angiosperms by ________. A) nourishing the plants that make them B) facilitating dispersal of seeds C) attracting insects to the pollen inside D) producing sperm and eggs inside a protective coat E) producing triploid cells via double fertilization Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.4 Section: 38.4

30) A researcher found a beautiful plant while traveling in Alaska and collected its seeds. When she came back to Florida, she soaked some seeds in pure water and some in water with a hormone. When she put the seeds in soil to grow, only the seeds that had been soaked with the hormone germinated. The hormone most likely was ________. A) gibberellin B) abscisic acid (ABA) C) auxin D) ethylene Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.4 Section: 38.4 31) ________ prevents seeds from germinating until conditions are favorable for the growth of the plant. A) Ethylene B) Auxin C) Zeaxanthin D) Gibberellin E) Abscisic acid Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.4 Section: 38.4 32) What is the first step in the germination of a seed? A) pollination B) fertilization C) an influx of water D) hydrolysis of starch and other food reserves E) emergence of the radicle Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.4 Section: 38.4

33) If a hypocotyl does NOT elongate during seed germination and early seedling growth, where will the cotyledons be? A) Aboveground with the seed coat B) Aboveground without the seed coat C) Belowground with the seed coat D) Belowground without the seed coat Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.4 Section: 38.4 34) Which of the following occur during the formation of an embryo from a zygote in angiosperms? I. The root and shoot systems emerge from the seed. II. The basal cell forms a suspensor that provides a route for nutrient transfer between the parent plant and the developing embryo. III. Meiosis produces a mass of cells that become the young embryo. IV. Cells differentiate to form the basic plant tissue types. V. The early root-shoot axis is formed. A) I, II, and III B) II, IV, and V C) II, III, IV, and V D) I, II, and IV E) III, IV, and V Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.5 Section: 38.5 35) Plant and animal development share a number of features but differ in major ways as well. Which of the following best summarizes the similarities between the two forms of development? A) Both plants and animals develop following a process of single fertilization. B) Both plants and animals produce specialized tissues through irreversible processes of determination and differentiation. C) Both plants and animals produce gametes via meiosis followed by mitosis of haploid cells. D) Both plant and animal development depend on precise control of gene expression in time and in space. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: I LO: 38.5 Section: 38.5 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

36) Plant and animal development share a number of features, but differ in major ways. Which of the following is a key difference between plants and animals? A) Animals typically produce gametes by meiosis; plants produce gametes by mitosis. B) Animal development is controlled by regulatory gene sets such as Hox genes; plants have no similar control systems. C) Animal gametes are produced only after maturity is reached; plant gametes are produced throughout a plant's lifetime. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: I LO: 38.1, 38.5 Section: 38.2, 38.5 37) In development of animals, but not in development of plants, ________. A) gene expression in developing embryonic tissues is closely regulated B) orientation of cells and tissues is critical for proper development C) differentiation of cells is directed and maintained by cascades of molecular signals D) once cells are differentiated, they cannot dedifferentiate and redifferentiate Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: I LO: 38.5 Section: 38.5 38) Communication within and between cells of an embryo can include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) increased concentration of signaling molecules B) changes in binding to regulatory sequences C) changes in gene transcription D) changes in gene sequences Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.5 Section: 38.5

39) Embryogenesis in plants is about the same process as ________. A) cleavage in animals B) gastrulation in animals C) organogenesis in animals D) cleavage and organogenesis in animals Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: I LO: 38.5 Section: 38.5 40) The MONOPTEROS gene in Arabidopsis encodes a protein that is similar in its function to which animal protein? A) MyoD in frog embryos B) Bicoid in fruit fly embryos C) Keratin in human embryos D) Collagen in human embryos Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, I LO: 38.5 Section: 38.5 41) In the early plant embryo, cells divide asymmetrically. Which structure does NOT result from divisions of the apical (terminal) cell? A) The suspensor B) The cotyledons C) The hypocotyls D) The shoot Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.5 Section: 38.5

42) Meristematic tissue cells in plants are most similar to which kind of cells in animals? A) Somite cells B) Ectodermal cells C) Embryonic stem cells D) Mesodermal cells Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 38.5 Section: 38.5 43) Which of the following is TRUE about vegetative reproduction? A) It involves both meiosis and mitosis to produce haploid and diploid cells. B) It results in the production of fruits. C) It involves only meiosis. D) It can lead to genetically altered forms of the species. E) It produces clones of the parent plant. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.1 Section: 38.1 44) Growth and development of plant parts involves ________. I. cell division to produce new cells II. enlargement and elongation of cells III. specialization of cells into tissues A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) I and III E) I, II, and III Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.5 Section: 38.5

45) If the expression of the PHAN gene is blocked in plants, what will be the likely result? A) Plants will fail to develop leaves. B) Plants will develop more leaves than usual. C) Plants will develop abnormally shaped leaves. D) Plants will develop leaves in inappropriate places. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.5 Section: 38.5 46) A rhizome is an example of a ________ structure involved in ________ reproduction. A) sporophyte; sexual B) sporophyte; asexual C) gametophyte; sexual D) gametophyte; asexual Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.1 Section: 38.5 47) The floral meristem in flowering plants develops from the shoot apical meristem, which usually produces leaves. Which floral part is NOT a modified leaf? A) Sepal B) Carpel C) Stamen D) Pollen tube Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.6 Section: 38.6

48) Which of the following is the correct order of floral organs from the outside to the inside of a complete flower? A) Petals → sepals → stamens → carpels B) Sepals → stamens → petals → carpels C) Spores → gametes → zygote → embryo D) Sepals → petals → stamens → carpels E) Male gametophyte → female gametophyte → sepals → petals Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.6 Section: 38.6 49) The ABC genes in Arabidopsis are considered homeotic genes. What could be a reason for this classification? A) Each of the three genes codes for a different flower organ. B) Each gene codes for transcription factors that are involved in regulating development. C) Each gene is similar in sequence to homeotic genes in Drosophila. D) Each gene codes for proteins similar to Hox genes in mice. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS, I LO: 38.6 Section: 38.6 50) According to the ABC model of floral development, which genes would be expressed in a showy ornamental flower with multiple sepals and petals but no stamens or carpels? A) A genes only B) B genes only C) C genes only D) A and B genes only E) A and C genes only Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.6 Section: 38.6

51) Based on the ABC model, what would be the structure of a flower from the outermost whorl that had normal expression of genes A and C and expression of gene B in all four whorls? A) Carpel—petal—petal—carpel B) Petal—petal—stamen—stamen C) Sepal—carpel—carpel—sepal D) Sepal—sepal—carpel—carpel E) Carpel—carpel—carpel—carpel Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.6 Section: 38.6 52) Seeds generally have a very low water content relative to other plant tissues. Which of the following is NOT an adaptive benefit of seed desiccation? A) Prevention of germination on the parent plant B) Prevention of germination when conditions are too dry C) Prevention of freezing-related damage to the seed D) Prevention of germination prior to exposure to cold temperatures Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.4 Section: 38.4 53) Cells in seeds are able to withstand damage from extreme desiccation due to ________. A) the accumulation of proteins in the cells B) the accumulation of sugars in the cells C) the accumulation of lipids in the cells D) extensive modifications to cellular membranes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 38.4 Section: 38.4

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 39 Animal Form and Function 1) Which of the following provides the best example of the adaptive relationship between form and function? A) Rabbit species native to hot regions have longer limbs and ears than those native to cold regions. B) Insects have six legs, but birds have only two. C) Both vertebrates and invertebrates have immune systems. D) Swans have long necks and ducks have short necks, both have webbed feet. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 39.1 Section: 39.1 2) Chum salmon (Oncorhynchus keta) are born in freshwater environments and then migrate to the sea. Near the end of their lives, they return to the freshwater stream where they were born to spawn. In freshwater, water constantly diffuses into the body and ions are lost from the body. In salt water, body water diffuses out of the body and excess ions are gained from the water. A salmon's gills have special cells to pump salt into or out of the body to maintain homeostasis. In response to the salmon's moves between freshwater and salt water, some cells in the gills are produced and others are destroyed. These changes made in the cells of the gills during the lifetime of an individual salmon are an example of which of the following? A) Evolution B) Trade-off C) Acclimatization D) Adaptation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 39.1 Section: 39.1

3) In house sparrows (Passer domesticus), it is generally found that both males and females care for the eggs and young. However, some male house sparrows do not provide parental care. In addition, it is known that young that receive parental care from both the male and female are more likely to survive to fledging (leaving the nest). Which of the following activities by males that do not provide parental care would represent the most beneficial trade-off for the reduced survival of their offspring? A) Attacking the nests of neighboring males B) Mating with additional females and fathering more eggs C) Eating to build up energy stores for migration D) Grooming to eliminate parasites from their feathers Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 39.1 Section: 39.1 4) You observe two female fish of the same species laying eggs. One female lays 100 eggs and the other female lays 1000 eggs. Which one of the following is LEAST likely given the limits of fitness trade-offs? A) The female laying 100 eggs breeds more often than the female laying 1000 eggs. B) The female laying 100 eggs lives longer than the female laying 1000 eggs. C) The eggs from the female laying 1000 eggs have larger yolks than the yolks of the eggs from the female laying 100 eggs. D) The female laying 1000 eggs is larger than the female laying 100 eggs. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E, QR V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 39.1 Section: 39.1 5) If you were to view a sample of animal tissue under a light microscope and notice an extensive extracellular matrix surrounding a tissue, which tissue type would you most suspect? A) Connective B) Cardiac muscle C) Epithelial D) Nervous E) Striated muscle Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.2 Section: 39.2

6) Tissues functioning together make up ________. A) organs B) membranes C) organ systems D) organelles E) organisms Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.2 Section: 39.2 7) The absorptive epithelia in the gut are considered "polarized" because ________. A) thick and thin filaments are present B) they pump wastes into the lumen while pumping nutrients toward the blood C) the colors seen on the top and bottom of the cells are different D) they must fire action potentials to absorb most nutrients E) the apical surface is different from the basal surface Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.2 Section: 39.2 8) Most of the absorption surfaces of multicellular animals are lined with ________. A) connective tissue B) smooth muscle cells C) neural tissue D) epithelial tissue E) adipose tissue Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.2 Section: 39.2

9) Which of the following is an example of a connective tissue? A) The surface of the skin B) Nerves C) Blood D) Cuboidal epithelium E) Smooth muscles Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.2 Section: 39.2 10) A stratified epithelium is composed of ________. A) a single layer of cells of variable height B) squamous cells overlying cuboidal cells C) a tight layer of square cells attached to a basement membrane D) alternating layers of thick and thin cells E) multiple layers of cells, stacked from the basolateral side to the apical side Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.2 Section: 39.2 11) Connective tissues typically have ________. A) little space between the membranes of adjacent cells B) the ability to transmit electrochemical impulses C) the ability to shorten upon stimulation D) relatively few cells and a large amount of extracellular matrix Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.2 Section: 39.2

12) The composition of connective tissue determines its physical properties. If you gently bend your ear, and then let go, the shape of your ear will return. This can best be explained by the presence of what tissue type in your ear? A) Loose connective tissue B) Cartilage with elastic fibers C) A fluid connective tissue D) Bone E) Dense connective tissue Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.2.2 Section: 39.2 13) Blood is best classified as connective tissue because ________. A) its cells are separated from each other by an extracellular matrix B) it contains more than one type of cell C) it is contained in vessels that "connect" different parts of an organism's body D) its cells can move from place to place E) it is found within all the organs of the body Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.2 Section: 39.2 14) With its abundance of collagen fibers, cartilage is an example of ________. A) connective tissue B) muscle tissue C) nervous tissue D) epithelial tissue E) adipose tissue Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.2 Section: 39.2

15) In a typical nerve cell, the nucleus is found in the ________. A) cell body B) synaptic terminals C) axonal region D) dendritic region E) synapse Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.2 Section: 39.2 16) The type of muscle that contains branched cells is ________. A) skeletal muscle B) cardiac muscle C) striated muscle D) smooth muscle E) all muscle types Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.2 Section: 39.2 17) Food moves along the digestive tract as the result of contractions by ________. A) cardiac muscle B) smooth muscle C) voluntary muscle D) striated muscle E) skeletal muscle Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.2 Section: 39.2

18) The body tissue that consists largely of material located outside of cells is ________. A) epithelial tissue B) connective tissue C) skeletal muscle D) smooth muscle E) nervous tissue Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.2 Section: 39.2 19) You are looking through a microscope at a slide of animal tissue and see a single layer of flat, closely packed cells that cover a surface. This specific tissue is most likely ________. A) cardiac muscle of the heart B) adipose C) a tendon D) epithelial E) a neuron Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.2 Section: 39.2 20) Which of the following structural features of epithelial tissues are related to the function of these cells? Epithelial cells ________. A) have polarity B) have a long life span C) have low rates of mitosis and cytokinesis D) are loosely packed Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.2 Section: 39.2

21) Blood is a type of connective tissue because blood ________. A) has multiple cell types B) has an extensive extracellular matrix C) functions in transportation D) can be both liquid and solid Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.2 Section: 39.2 22) Environmental influences appear to contribute to cellular mutations that lead to tumor growth. For example, certain diets lead to higher incidence of colon cancers, and overexposure to sunlight leads to higher incidence of skin cancers. The tissues in closest contact with a carcinogen or a mutagen (anything that causes genetic mutations) are obviously the ones most likely to develop tumors. Carcinomas and melanomas account for well over half of all cancers. Given this information, what type of tissue is most closely associated with the terms carcinoma and melanoma? A) Connective B) Muscle C) Epithelial D) Nervous Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 39.2 Section: 39.2 23) Compared with a smaller cell, a larger cell of the same shape has ________. A) less surface area B) less surface area per unit of volume C) the same surface-area-to-volume ratio D) a shorter average distance between its mitochondria and the external source of oxygen E) a smaller cytoplasm-to-nucleus ratio Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.3 Section: 39.3

24) The large surface area in the small intestine directly facilitates ________. A) secretion B) absorption C) elimination D) filtration E) temperature regulation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.3 Section: 39.3 25) Some animals have no gills when young, but then develop gills that grow larger as the animal grows larger. What is the reason for this increase in gill size? A) The young of these animals are much more active than the adult, which leads to a higher BMR (basal metabolic rate) and, therefore, a higher need for oxygen. B) Relative to their volume, the young have sufficient skin surface area across which they can transport all the oxygen they need. C) The older, larger animals have a lower basal metabolic rate. D) Relative to their surface area, the young have more body volume in which they can store oxygen for long periods of time. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.3 Section: 39.3 26) A researcher is setting up an experiment to measure basal metabolic rate in prairie voles (Microtus ochrogaster—a small rodent). Which of the following would be the best set of conditions for the voles immediately before and during the measurement? A) House the animals in a cage with plenty of food and water to avoid stress; conduct measurements in a room warmer than the room where housed. B) House the animals in a cage with plenty of food and water to avoid stress; conduct measurements in a room the same temperature as the room where housed. C) House the animals in a cage with no food for a few hours before measurement; conduct measurements in a room colder than the room where housed, and exercise the voles. D) House the animals in a cage with no food for a few hours before measurement; conduct measurements in a room the same temperature as the room where housed. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 39.3 Section: 39.3 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

27) Which of the following is a TRUE statement about body size and physiology? A) The amount of food and oxygen an animal requires and the amount of heat and waste it produces are inversely proportional to its mass. B) The rate at which an animal uses nutrients and produces waste products is independent of its volume. C) Small and large animals face different physiological challenges because an animal's body volume or mass increases as a function of its body length cubed while its surface area increases as a function of the body length squared. D) The wastes produced by an animal double as its volume doubles and triple as its surface area triples. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.3 Section: 39.3 28) An elephant and a mouse are running in full sunlight, and both overheat by the same amount above their normal body temperatures. When they move into the shade and rest, which animal will cool down faster? A) The elephant will because it has the higher surface-area-to-volume ratio. B) The elephant will because it has the lower surface-area-to-volume ratio. C) The mouse will because it has the higher surface-area-to-volume ratio. D) The mouse will because it has the lower surface-area-to-volume ratio. E) They will cool at the same rate because they overheated by the same amount. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 39.3 Section: 39.3 29) You have a cube of modeling clay in your hands. Which of the following changes to the shape of this cube of clay will decrease its surface area relative to its volume? A) Pinching the edges of the cube into small folds B) Flattening the cube into a pancake shape C) Rounding the clay up into a sphere D) Stretching the cube into a long, shoebox shape Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 39.3 Section: 39.3

30) The crucian carp (Carassius carassius) is a Northern European freshwater fish often inhabiting ponds that become hypoxic (have reduced oxygen levels) and even anoxic (have no oxygen) when the surface freezes during the winter. Surprisingly, when oxygen levels are normal, these fish lack the lamellae that provide a large surface area for gas exchange between water and blood: their gills are smooth. Yet when the level of oxygen in the water falls, the gill morphology undergoes a change: packing cells stop dividing and programmed cell death is induced, exposing gill lamellae that were buried in other tissue. With lamellae exposed, the gills have increased surface area for gas exchange. These changes in gill lamellar profile are reversible: investigators observed that the gills return to their normal structure within seven days after returning the fish to well-oxygenated water. (Jørund Sollid, Paula De Angelis, Kristian Gundersen, and Göran E. Nilsson. 2003. Hypoxia induces adaptive and reversible gross morphological changes in crucian carp gills. Journal of Experimental Biology 206: 3667-73.) Refer to the paragraph on crucian carp. Gills serve multiple functions in fish in addition to gas exchange. Given the large surface area of gills with lamellae, what is the most likely explanation for why crucian carp cover protruding lamellae in their gills when levels of oxygen are normal? A) To prevent loss of heat to the surrounding water B) To prevent loss of ions to the surrounding water C) To prevent protein loss to the surrounding water D) To prevent loss of oxygen to the surrounding water Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 39.3 Section: 39.3 31) When the mammalian brain compares the actual temperature of the body to the preferred temperature of the body, which component of a homeostatic control system is being used? A) Sensor B) Sweat glands C) Integrator D) Blood vessels E) Effector Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.4 Section: 39.4

32) A behavioral physiologist is studying the homeostatic control of blood pH. In a trial, a lizard runs on a treadmill for a set amount of time and the blood pH is measured. The blood pH drops as carbon dioxide is released into the bloodstream. Which component of the homeostatic feedback system is responsible for determining if the blood pH is far enough from normal that a response is necessary? A) Effector B) Sensor C) Integrator D) Assimilator Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.4 Section: 39.4 33) Which of the following is an example of negative feedback? A) During birthing contractions, the hormone oxytocin is released and acts to stimulate further contractions. B) When a baby is nursing, suckling leads to the production of more milk and a subsequent increase in the secretion of prolactin, which in turn stimulates lactation. C) After a blood vessel is damaged, signals are released by the damaged tissues that activate platelets in the blood. These activated platelets release chemicals that activate more platelets. D) When blood glucose concentration increases, the pancreas produces and releases the hormone insulin. Insulin acts to decrease blood glucose. As blood glucose decreases, the rate of production and release of insulin decreases. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.4 Section: 39.4

34) You discover a new species of bacteria that grows in aquatic environments with high salt levels. While studying these bacteria, you note that their internal environment is similar to the salt concentrations in their surroundings. You also discover that the internal salt concentrations of the bacteria change as the salt concentration in their environment changes. The new species can tolerate small changes in this way but dies from large changes because it has no mechanism for altering its own internal salt levels. What type of homeostatic mechanism is this species using to regulate its internal salt levels? A) Conformation B) Regulation C) Integration D) Assimilation E) All of the listed responses Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 39.4 Section: 39.4 35) Which of the following would be an example of an animal employing torpor to survive very cold weather? A) Maintaining homeothermy B) A small mammal entering hibernation C) An elephant employing evaporative cooling D) Nonshivering thermogenesis by humans E) Honeybees increasing hive temperature by contracting flight muscles Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.5 Section: 39.5 36) What explains the ability of honeybees to use heat to kill invading hornets? A) Hornets prefer higher temperatures than honeybees. B) Honeybees are more sensitive to high temperatures than hornets. C) Honeybees can use evaporative cooling to reduce their body temperature. D) Hornets are ectotherms but honeybees are endotherms. E) Honeybees are better adapted to high temperatures than hornets. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.5 Section: 39.5

37) Panting by an overheated dog achieves cooling by ________. A) acclimatization B) torpor C) evaporation D) hibernation E) shivering Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.5 Section: 39.5 38) Most mammals are strict homeotherms. Elephants allow their body temperature to vary during the hottest parts of the day, meaning they are ________. A) endothermic B) heat exchangers C) hibernators D) poikilothermic E) ectothermic Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.5 Section: 39.5 39) A moth preparing for flight on a cold morning may warm its flight muscles via ________. A) adaptation B) convection C) evaporative D) shivering Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.5 Section: 39.5

40) The thin horizontal arrows in the figure show that the ________. A) warmer arterial blood can bypass the legs as needed, when the legs are too cold to function well B) warmer venous blood transfers heat to the cooler arterial blood C) warmer arterial blood transfers heat to the cooler venous blood D) arterial blood is always cooler in the abdomen, compared to the temperature of the venous blood in the feet of the goose E) goose's legs get progressively warmer as the blood moves away from the abdomen toward the feet Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.5 Section: 39.5

41) Examine the figure. Near a goose's abdomen, the countercurrent arrangement of the arterial and venous blood vessels causes the ________. A) temperature difference between the blood within the two sets of vessels to be minimized B) venous blood to be as cold near the abdomen as it is near the feet C) blood in the feet to be as warm as the blood in the abdomen D) temperature at the abdomen to be less than the temperature at the feet E) loss of the maximum possible amount of heat to the environment Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.5 Section: 39.5 42) Countercurrent heat exchangers are more useful for ________. A) ectotherms to permit them to maintain constant body temperature B) ectotherms to allow their body temperature to match the environment C) endotherms to allow the body's core temperature to remain stable D) endotherms to allow their extremities to remain at an elevated body temperature in the cold E) poikilotherms that need to have different body temperatures Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.5 Section: 39.5 43) Which of the following would increase the rate of heat exchange between an animal and its environment? A) Feathers or fur B) Vasoconstriction C) Wind blowing across the body surface D) Countercurrent heat exchanger E) Blubber or fat layer Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 39.5 Section: 39.5

44) An animal's inputs of energy and materials would exceed its outputs if ________. A) the animal is an endotherm, which must always take in more energy because of its high metabolic rate B) it is actively foraging for food C) it is hibernating D) it is growing and increasing its mass Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.5 Section: 39.5 45) You are studying a large tropical reptile that has a high and relatively stable body temperature. How would you determine whether this animal is an endotherm or an ectotherm? A) You know from its high and stable body temperature that it must be an ectotherm. B) You know that it is an ectotherm because it is not a bird or a mammal. C) You subject this reptile to various temperatures in the lab and find that its body temperature and metabolic rate follow the ambient temperature. You conclude that it is an ectotherm. D) You note that its environment has a high and stable temperature. Because its body temperature matches the environmental temperature, you conclude that it is an ectotherm. E) You measure the metabolic rate of the reptile, and because it is higher than that of a related species that lives in temperate forests, you conclude that this reptile is an endotherm. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 39.5 Section: 39.5 46) A woman standing and watching the stars on a cool, calm night will lose most of her body heat by ________. A) radiation B) convection C) conduction D) evaporation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.5 Section: 39.5

47) Compared to ectotherms, endothermic animals are likely to be at the greatest disadvantage in ________. A) very cold environments B) very hot environments C) environments with a constant food source D) environments with variable and limited food sources Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.5 Section: 39.5 48) What is the main reason that a person sitting on the beach with an air temperature of 15°C loses heat less rapidly than when immersed in lake water at 15°C? A) Water conducts heat more efficiently than air does. B) Water evaporates, and heat is lost to evaporation. C) Metabolic heat production is greater in air than in water. D) Air is a poor insulator. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 39.5 Section: 39.5 49) You observe a lizard sitting on a log on a sunny day. If the lizard is attempting to raise its body temperature by basking in the Sun, what mechanism of heat transfer is being employed? A) Conduction B) Convection C) Radiation D) Evaporation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.5 Section: 39.5

50) Which term best describes an animal that, although generating a significant amount of heat through metabolism, does NOT maintain a constant body temperature? A) Homeothermic endotherm B) Heterothermic ectotherm C) Homeothermic ectotherm D) Heterothermic endotherm Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.5 Section: 39.5 51) Which of the following statements comparing endotherms and ectotherms is correct? A) Mitochondrial density and enzyme activity are 3-4 times higher in the cells of ectotherms than in the cells of endotherms of similar size. B) Endotherms can use more of their energy intake for reproduction than ectotherms can. C) Endotherms and ectotherms have about the same mass-specific metabolic rate. D) Both endotherms and ectotherms exchange heat with the environment through convection, conduction, radiation, and evaporation. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.5 Section: 39.5 52) Which principle of heat exchange is the most important explanation for why birds look larger in colder weather because they fluff their feathers? A) Fluffing feathers results in less cooling by radiation because feathers emit less infrared radiation than other tissues do. B) Fluffing decreases the amount of heat lost by conduction when the bird makes contact with cold objects in its environment. C) Fluffing creates a pocket of air near the bird that acts as insulation. D) Fluffing decreases the surface-area-to-volume ratio, thus decreasing the amount of heat lost to the environment. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 39.5 Section: 39.5

53) Hummingbirds are small birds that require a regular food supply. When hummingbirds are faced with a situation that decreases their food supply, such as a storm, which of the following adaptations would be most useful for the bird to survive such an unpredictable and short-term absence of food resources? A) Shivering B) Torpor C) Hibernation D) Burrowing into soil Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 39.5 Section: 39.5

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 40 Water and Electrolyte Balance in Animals 1) Which of the following is the best definition of osmotic stress? A) An abnormal concentration of substances within a cell B) Living cells surrounded by salt water C) Living cells surrounded by (pure) fresh water D) An abnormal concentration of substances outside of a cell Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1 2) How do osmoconformers like jellyfish handle osmotic stress? A) They pump freshwater across their gill surfaces. B) They have enlarged kidneys that concentrate electrolytes. C) They allow their tissues to equilibrate with their surroundings. D) They ingest large amounts of salt water. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.2 Section: 40.1 3) The force driving simple diffusion is ________, while the energy source for active transport is ________. A) the concentration gradient; ADP B) the concentration gradient; ATP C) transmembrane pumps; electron transport D) phosphorylated protein carriers; ATP Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1

4) Which of the following most accurately describes selective permeability? A) An input of energy is required for transport. B) Lipid-soluble molecules pass through a membrane. C) There must be a concentration gradient for molecules to pass through a membrane. D) Only certain molecules can cross a cell membrane. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1 5) When a cell is in equilibrium with its environment, which of the following occurs for substances that can diffuse through the cell? A) There is random movement of substances into and out of the cell. B) There is directed movement of substances into and out of the cell. C) There is no movement of substances into and out of the cell. D) All movement of molecules is directed by active transport. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1 6) Marine vertebrates are ________ to their environment. A) isotonic B) hypotonic C) hypertonic D) osmotonic Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1

7) To maintain homeostasis freshwater fish must ________. A) excrete large quantities of electrolytes B) consume large quantities of water C) excrete large quantities of water D) take in electrolytes through simple diffusion Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1 8) Both marine bony fishes and terrestrial animals lose water to the environment. However, a difference is that the bony fishes lose water by ________, while the terrestrial animals lose it by ________. A) osmosis; evaporation B) active transport; osmosis C) osmosis; simple diffusion D) evaporation; active transport Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1 9) One of the waste products that accumulates during cellular functions is carbon dioxide. It is removed via the respiratory system. What other waste product(s) accumulate during normal physiological functions in vertebrates? I. Ammonia II. Uric acid III. Urea A) Only I and III B) Only II and III C) Only I and II D) I, II, and III Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1

10) A necropsy (postmortem analysis) of a marine sea star that died after it was mistakenly placed in freshwater would likely show that it died because ________. A) it was stressed and needed more time to acclimate to the new conditions B) it was so hypertonic to the freshwater that it could not osmoregulate C) the sea star's kidneys could not handle the change in ionic content presented by the freshwater D) its contractile vacuoles ruptured E) its cells dehydrated and lost the ability to metabolize Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1 11) Organisms categorized as osmoconformers are most likely ________. A) found in freshwater lakes and streams B) marine C) amphibious D) found in arid terrestrial environments E) found in terrestrial environments with adequate moisture Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1 12) The body fluids of an osmoconformer would be ________ with its ________ environment. A) hyperosmotic; freshwater B) isoosmotic; freshwater C) hyperosmotic; saltwater D) isoosmotic; saltwater E) hypoosmotic; saltwater Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1

13) The fluid with the highest osmolarity is ________. A) distilled water B) plasma in birds C) plasma in mammals D) seawater in a tidal pool E) estuarine water Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1 14) Compared to the seawater around them, most marine invertebrates are ________. A) hyperosmotic B) hypoosmotic C) isoosmotic D) hyperosmotic and isoosmotic E) hypoosmotic and isoosmotic Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1 15) A human who has no access to freshwater but is forced to drink seawater instead will ________. A) thrive under such conditions, as long as he has lived at the ocean most of his life B) excrete more water molecules than taken in, because of the high load of ion ingestion C) develop structural changes in the kidneys to accommodate the salt overload D) find that drinking saltwater satiates his thirst E) risk becoming overhydrated within 12 hours Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1

16) Which of the following mechanisms contributes to osmoregulation in both marine and freshwater bony fish? A) gain of water through the gills via osmosis B) gain of salt through the gills via active transport C) loss of salt through the gills via diffusion D) excretion of hyperosmotic urine E) gain of water through food Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1 17) Urea is ________. A) insoluble in water B) more toxic to human cells than ammonia C) the primary nitrogenous waste product of humans D) the primary nitrogenous waste product of most birds E) the primary nitrogenous waste product of most aquatic invertebrates Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1 18) Ammonia is likely to be the primary nitrogenous waste in living conditions that include ________. A) lots of freshwater flowing across the gills of a fish B) lots of seawater, such as a bird living in a marine environment C) lots of seawater, such as a marine mammal (e.g., a polar bear) D) a terrestrial environment, such as that supporting crickets E) a moist system of burrows, such as those of naked mole rats Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1

19) Among vertebrate animals, urea is ________. A) made in the kidneys and immediately excreted B) added to the air in the lungs to be exhaled, along with carbon dioxide C) made in the liver by combining ammonia molecules or amino groups D) made in the pancreas and added to the intestinal contents, along with bile salts, for excretion E) rarely the nitrogenous waste Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1 20) The nitrogenous waste that requires the most energy to produce is ________. A) ammonia B) ammonium C) urea D) uric acid Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1 21) Ammonia ________. A) is soluble in water B) can be stored in the body as a precipitate C) has low toxicity relative to urea D) is metabolically more expensive to synthesize than urea E) is the major nitrogenous waste excreted by insects Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1

22) The advantage of excreting nitrogenous wastes as urea rather than as ammonia is that ________. A) urea can be exchanged for Na+ B) urea is less toxic than ammonia C) urea requires more water for excretion than ammonia D) urea does not affect the osmolar gradient E) less nitrogen is removed from the body Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1 23) Which nitrogenous waste requires hardly any water for its excretion? A) Amino acids B) Urea C) Uric acid D) Ammonia E) Nitrogen gas Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1 24) In animals, nitrogenous wastes are produced mostly from the catabolism of ________. A) starch and cellulose B) triglycerides and steroids C) proteins and nucleic acids D) phospholipids and glycolipids E) fatty acids and glycerol Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1

25) Birds secrete uric acid as their nitrogenous waste because uric acid ________. A) is readily soluble in water, permitting its release in dilute urine B) is metabolically intermediate to synthesize than other excretory products, balancing metabolic costs and water loss C) requires little water for nitrogenous waste disposal, thus conserving water and reducing body mass D) is produced from their low-protein diet Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1 26) African lungfish, which are often found in small, stagnant pools of freshwater, produce urea as a nitrogenous waste. What is the advantage of this adaptation? A) Urea takes less energy to synthesize than ammonia. B) Urea requires less water for excretion than ammonia. C) The highly toxic urea makes the pool uninhabitable to potential competitors. D) Urea forms an insoluble precipitate. E) Urea makes lungfish tissue hypoosmotic to the pool. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 40.1 Section: 40.1 27) Tissues of sharks are isotonic to seawater, but their concentrations of sodium ions, potassium ions, and chloride ions in cells and extracellular fluids are similar to those of freshwater fishes. What can you infer about the movement of sodium and chloride in these animals? A) To maintain homeostasis of sodium and chloride levels, the shark must take up additional sodium and chloride from seawater. B) Sodium and chloride will diffuse into shark gills from seawater down their concentration gradient. C) Sharks conserve sodium and chloride, limiting excretion. D) Sodium and chloride must be eliminated through the gills. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 40.1, 40.2 Section: 40.2

28) The shark rectal gland ________. A) is involved in osmoregulation B) is responsible for excretion of undigested residue C) secretes a hypotonic solution D) concentrates electrolytes necessary for homeostasis in a hypertonic environment Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.2 Section: 40.2 Osmoregulation in the Shark

Ion Na+ K+ Cl−

Concentration of Fluid Interstitial Fluid Eliminated from Rectal Gland, Concentration, mM mM 280 449 5 12 270 446

29) Refer to the accompanying table. The interstitial fluid concentration of three electrolytes is compared with the concentration of these electrolytes in fluid eliminated from the shark rectal gland as indicated in the accompanying table. Based on these data, which of the following is a likely function of the rectal gland? A) The rectal gland eliminates metabolic waste. B) The rectal gland is able to concentrate Na+, K+, and Cl−. C) The rectal gland stores only anions. D) The rectal gland is the only site of osmoregulation in the shark. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 40.2 Section: 40.2

30) Refer to the accompanying table. Because the shark rectal gland functions only when ATP molecules are present, what can you infer about the movement of Na+, K+, and Cl−? A) Movement of these ions from circulation into the rectal gland is an active process. B) Movement of these ions takes place from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration. C) These ions move into the rectal gland down their concentration gradient. D) The rectal gland is unable to concentrate these ions. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 40.2 Section: 40.2 31) Refer to the accompanying table. What role does Na+/K+-ATPase play in salt excretion by the shark rectal gland? A) Na+/K+-ATPase pumps sodium out of and potassium into cells across the apical membrane. B) Na+/K+-ATPase pumps sodium into and potassium out of cells across the apical membrane. C) Na+/K+-ATPase pumps sodium out of and potassium into cells across the basolateral membrane. D) Na+/K+-ATPase pumps sodium into and potassium out of cells across the basolateral membrane. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 40.2 Section: 40.2 32) What role do chloride cells play in osmoregulation of marine bony fishes? A) They actively transport chloride into the gills. B) They mediate the movement of salt from seawater through their gills. C) They are involved in excretion of excess salt. D) They actively transport salt across the basolateral membrane of the rectal gland. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.3 Section: 40.2

33) Salmon eggs hatch in freshwater. The fish then migrate to the ocean (a hypertonic solution) and, after several years of feeding and growing, return to freshwater to breed. How can these organisms make the transition from freshwater to ocean water and back to freshwater? A) The rectal gland functions in the ocean water, and chloride cells function in freshwater. B) Different gill cells are involved in osmoregulation in freshwater than in salt water. C) Salmon in freshwater excrete dilute urine, and salmon in salt water secrete concentrated urine. D) Their metabolism changes in salt water to degrade electrolytes. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.2 Section: 40.2 34) The Na+/Cl−/K+ cotransporter in the epithelial cells of the gills of bony fishes is found ________. A) on the basolateral membrane of freshwater and marine fishes B) on the basolateral membrane of marine fishes and the apical membrane of freshwater fishes C) on the basolateral membrane of freshwater fishes and the apical membrane of marine fishes D) on the apical membrane of freshwater and marine fishes E) only in larval fish Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.2 Section: 40.2 35) Freshwater fish reside in hypotonic environments. They do not drink water, and they excrete large volumes of hypotonic urine in an effort to osmoregulate. How do they obtain an adequate supply of electrolytes? A) The rectal gland is specialized to produce the dilute (hypotonic) urine and conserve ions. B) Chloride cells in the gut transport additional electrolytes into the circulation of these organisms. C) Chloride cells on the gill filaments take up additional electrolytes from freshwater. D) There is an increase in Na+/K+-ATPase activity across the basolateral membrane. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.2 Section: 40.2

36) Salmon and sea bass are useful for studies of the role of the gills in osmoregulation in fishes because ________. A) they live in freshwater and in seawater at different life history stages B) they are unique fishes that osmoconform to seawater C) they excrete extremely high levels of salts in freshwater environments D) they both feed on marine invertebrates, increasing their salt intake Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.2 Section: 40.2 37) The necropsy (postmortem analysis) of a freshwater fish that died after being placed accidentally in saltwater would likely show that ________. A) loss of water by osmosis from cells in vital organs resulted in cell death and organ failure B) high amounts of salt had diffused into the fish's cells, causing them to swell and lyse C) the kidneys were not able to keep up with the water removal necessary in this hyperosmotic environment, creating an irrevocable loss of homeostasis D) the gills became encrusted with salt, resulting in inadequate gas exchange and a resulting asphyxiation E) brain cells lysed as a result of increased osmotic pressure in this hyperosmotic environment, leading to death by loss of autonomic function Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.2 Section: 40.2 38) Terrestrial organisms lose water through evaporation. In what ecosystem might an entomologist find a good study organism to examine the prevention of water loss? A) Wet rain forest B) Desert C) Prairie D) Chaparral Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.3 Section: 40.3

39) Water loss from a terrestrial insect's surface is minimal due to which of the following structures? A) Chitin and the cuticle B) Tracheae and spiracles C) A proteinaceous epidermis D) A long alimentary canal Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.3 Section: 40.3 40) How do spiracles contribute to the minimization of water loss in insects? A) Spiracles contribute to water recovery from the hindgut. B) The spiracles control the opening of the Malpighian tubules. C) The opening of spiracles allows for water uptake during a period of rain. D) The closure of spiracles prevents evaporative water loss from the tracheae. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.3 Section: 40.3 41) Insect Malpighian tubules form pre-urine, which is further processed by which of the following anatomical structures? A) Hindgut B) Hemolymph C) Rectal gland D) Spiracles Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.3 Section: 40.3

42) Through studies of insect Malpighian tubules, researchers found that K+ accumulated on the inner face of the tubule, against its concentration gradient. What can you infer about the mechanism of transport? A) Potassium transport is a passive process. B) Movement of potassium into the lumen of the Malpighian tubules requires energy. C) Potassium moves out of the tubules at a faster rate than it moves into the lumen of the tubules. D) Sodium ions will follow potassium ions. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.3 Section: 40.3 43) A potassium ion gradient is set up in insect Malpighian tubules through an active transport process. As a result, potassium concentration is higher in the lumen of the tubules than in hemolymph. How would the potassium gradient affect water movement? A) Water would be forced out of the lumen of the Malpighian tubules through an osmotic gradient. B) The potassium gradient would have no effect on water movement. C) There would be a net movement of water into the lumen of the tubules. D) Water would be conserved, forming a hypertonic solution in the Malpighian tubules. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.3 Section: 40.3 44) In a grasshopper, how does ion composition of pre-urine compare to hemolymph? A) Pre-urine is significantly higher in osmolarity (especially with respect to Na+ and K+). B) Hemolymph is higher in osmolarity, conserving its Cl−. C) Pre-urine is similar to hemolymph in ion composition. D) The protein pumps and channels of the Malpighian tubules concentrate Cl− in the pre-urine. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.3 Section: 40.3

45) Reabsorption of water in the hindgut of insects is controlled by which of the following? A) Osmotic gradients created by ion pumps B) Selective absorptive processes that take place in the Malpighian tubules C) Ion concentration of hemolymph D) Osmoregulators in the rectal gland Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.3 Section: 40.3 46) Excretory organs known as Malpighian tubules are present in ________. A) earthworms B) flatworms C) insects D) jellyfish E) sea stars Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.3 Section: 40.3 47) The osmoregulatory/excretory system of an insect is based on the operation of ________. A) protonephridia B) metanephridia C) Malpighian tubules D) nephrons E) ananephredia Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.3 Section: 40.3

48) Which of the following pairs of organisms excrete nitrogenous wastes in the form of uric acid? A) Mice and birds B) Insects and birds C) Lions and horses D) Humans and frogs E) Fish and turtles Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.1, 40.4 Section: 40.4 49) Why are the renal artery and vein critical to the process of osmoregulation in mammals? A) The kidneys require a constant and abnormally high oxygen supply to function. B) The renal artery delivers blood with nitrogenous waste to the kidney, and the renal vein brings blood with less nitrogenous wastes away from the kidneys. C) The kidneys require higher-than-normal levels of hormones. D) The renal artery and vein are the main pathways regulating how much is produced by the kidneys. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.4 Section: 40.4

50)

The accompanying figure shows a nephron. Filtration takes place in the structure labeled ________. A) a B) b C) c D) d Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 40.4 Section: 40.4

51) What is the function of the osmotic gradient found in the kidney? The osmotic gradient allows ________. A) electrolytes to move from low to high concentrations in the absence of ATP B) the precise control of the retention of water and electrolytes C) the loop of Henle to deliver water to the renal vein D) the filtration of large cells at the glomerulus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.4 Section: 40.4 52) The products of filtration in the renal corpuscle enter the renal tubule through which of the following structures? A) The proximal convoluted tubule B) The loop of Henle C) The collecting duct D) Bowman's capsule Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.4 Section: 40.4 53) The filtrate formed in the renal corpuscle is analogous to the ________ formed in Malpighian tubules. A) hemolymph B) pre-urine C) uric acid D) hypertonic solution Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.3, 40.4 Section: 40.4

54) For filtration to take place through the fenestrated capillaries of the renal corpuscle, ________. A) the concentration of ions must be greater in the capillaries (the glomerulus) than in the renal tubule B) there must be a greater pressure inside the glomerulus than in the renal tubules C) there must be a larger concentration of proteins in the renal tubule than in the glomerulus D) there must be more than one capillary bed in the renal corpuscle Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.4 Section: 40.4 55) Normal urine contains very little glucose. Diabetics have elevated glucose levels in their blood and urine. Which statement best explains the presence of glucose in the urine of diabetics? A) The loop of Henle fails to reabsorb the glucose in diabetics. B) The transport of glucose from the pre-urine within the proximal tubule back to the blood cannot occur at a rate fast enough to remove all glucose from the urine. C) Glucose is passing from the blood in the vasa recta into the nephron and entering the preurine. D) Diabetics have active transport of glucose from the blood into the pre-urine when blood glucose levels become very high. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.4 Section: 40.4 56) If you are hiking through the desert for several days, which of the following should you drink to ensure proper hydration? A) A drink with a combination of water and electrolytes B) Caffeinated beverages C) Bottled water kept at room temperature D) Bottled water that had been frozen to ensure that it would be as cold as possible Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 40.4 Section: 40.4

57) The loop of Henle dips into the renal cortex. This is an important feature of osmoregulation in terrestrial vertebrates because ________. A) absorptive processes taking place in the loop of Henle are hormonally regulated B) differential permeabilities of ascending and descending limbs of the loop of Henle are important in establishing an osmotic gradient C) the loop of Henle plays an important role in detoxification D) additional filtration takes place along the loop of Henle Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.4 Section: 40.4 58) Birds that live in marine environments, and thus lack access to fresh drinking water, ________. A) osmoregulate without using a transport epithelium for this purpose B) drink seawater and secrete excess ions through their kidneys only C) drink seawater and secrete excess ions mainly through their nasal salt glands D) have plasma that is isoosmotic to ocean water E) obtain water by eating only osmoregulating prey Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.4 Section: 40.4 59) Materials are returned to the blood from the filtrate by which of the following processes? A) Filtration B) Ultrafiltration C) Selective reabsorption D) Secretion E) Excretion Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.4 Section: 40.4

60) Which of the following is a function of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? A) ADH decreases the reabsorption of urea, creating a higher urea content in the urine. B) ADH triggers the insertion of water channels called aquaporins, thereby reducing the amount of water reabsorbed by the collecting duct. C) ADH improves the reabsorption of glucose by the proximal convoluted tubule. D) ADH triggers the insertion of water channels called aquaporins, thereby increasing the amount of water reabsorbed by the collecting duct. E) ADH alters the ion reabsorption by the loop of Henle. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.4 Section: 40.4 61) Non-avian reptiles can produce hyperosmotic urine using which structure? A) Salt glands similar to birds B) The rectum where uric acid is produced C) Water-reabsorbing cloaca D) Water-reabsorbing ureters E) Highly developed kidneys Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.4 Section: 40.4 62) Which structure in the mammalian kidney is responsible for maintaining the osmotic gradient in medulla of the kidney? A) Renal corpuscle B) Proximal tubule C) Loop of Henle D) Distal tubule E) Collecting duct Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 40.4 Section: 40.4

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 41 Animal Nutrition 1) The process of bringing food into the digestive tract is known as ________ and requires specialized mouthparts. A) ingestion B) digestion C) absorption D) excretion Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.1 Section: 41.0 2) What is the importance of consuming an adequate amount of protein? A) Proteins are most commonly used to meet energy demands of cells. B) Proteins serve a variety of functions, and the body requires amino acids in the diet to build new protein. C) Proteins are used as cofactors for metabolic reactions and are required in minute quantities. D) Proteins are necessary to produce urea and other important metabolites. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.1 Section: 41.1

Refer to the following nutrition label to answer the question(s) below. Apple juice has the following nutrition label: Contains 100 percent Juice Nutrition Facts Serving Size 8 fl oz (240 ml) Servings Per Container 8 Amount Per Serving % RDA Total Fat 0 g 0% Sodium 10 mg 0% Potassium 240 mg 6% Total Carbohydrate 29 g 10% Sugars 28 g Protein 0 g Vitamin A 0% Vitamin C 20% Calcium 2% Iron 6% Not a significant source of other nutrients RDA is based on a 2000 calorie diet. 3) From the nutrition information contained on the label shown, you can infer that apple juice would be useful in the treatment of which condition caused by vitamin deficiency? A) Beriberi B) Scurvy C) Anemia D) Rickets Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 41.1 Section: 41.1 4) Based on the label shown, if a person consumes 2000 calories daily to maintain body weight, what percentage of the RDA for iron would this person receive from a serving of apple juice? A) 20 percent B) Less than 20 percent C) More than 20 percent Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 41.1 Section: 41.1 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Based on the label shown and the energy content of foods, how many food calories does the entire container of apple juice contain? A) 120 B) 240 C) 480 D) 960 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, QR V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 41.1 Section: 41.1

Three groups of cyclists consumed three different types of diets: high-carbohydrate; a diet mixed in carbohydrates, fat, and protein; or a diet higher in protein and fat. The average time each group could spend cycling over a six-hour period is shown in the accompanying graph. What conclusion from the data would help an athlete or a trainer improve performance? A) Endurance is entirely related to diet. B) Maintaining elevated blood sugar improves performance. C) An early 50 percent drop in blood glucose is associated with improved endurance. D) Diet is not at all related to endurance. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, QR V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 41.1 Section: 41.1

7) In a well-fed human eating a Western diet, the richest source of stored chemical energy in the body is ________. A) fat in tissue B) glucose in the blood C) protein in muscle cells D) glycogen in muscle cells E) calcium phosphate in bone Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.1 Section: 41.1 8) Animals that migrate great distances would obtain the greatest energetic benefit from storing chemical energy as ________. A) proteins B) minerals C) carbohydrates D) amino acids E) fats Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.1 Section: 41.1 9) Certain nutrients are considered "essential" in the diets of some animals because ________. A) only those animals use those nutrients B) the nutrients are subunits of important polymers C) these animals are not able to synthesize these nutrients D) the nutrients are necessary coenzymes E) only certain foods contain them Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.1 Section: 41.1

10) To maintain adequate nutrition, animals require dietary access to certain amino acids. An amino acid that is NOT "essential" would be best described as one that ________. A) can be made by the animal's body from other substances B) is not used by the animal in biosynthesis C) must be ingested in the diet D) is not readily absorbed by the gastrointestinal tract E) is not found in many proteins Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 41.1 Section: 41.1 11) Which pair correctly associates a physiological process with the appropriate vitamin? A) Bone formation—vitamin C B) Production of red blood cells—vitamin B12 C) Synthesis of cell membranes—vitamin D D) Prevention of cellular oxidation—folate Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.1 Section: 41.1 12) Important dietary minerals include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) lead B) calcium C) magnesium D) iron E) potassium Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.1 Section: 41.1

13) Which pair correctly associates a biochemical process with the appropriate mineral in animals? A) Maintenance of bone—calcium B) Glucose synthesis—iodine C) Thyroid hormone synthesis—iron D) Nucleic acid synthesis—sulfur Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 41.1 Section: 41.1 14) A mineral that is especially important for preventing anemia is ________. A) zinc B) iron C) iodine D) molybdenum E) folic acid Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.1 Section: 41.1 15) Which are most likely to have teeth adapted for grinding and/or tearing? A) Suspension feeders B) Mass feeders C) Deposit feeders D) Fluid feeders Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 41.2 Section: 41.2

16) What can the mouthparts of an animal tell you about its diet? A) Mouthparts provide clues about the specific foods an animal pursues. B) Mouthparts provide clues about the type of digestion that goes on in the stomach. C) Mouthparts provide clues about the rate of nutrient absorption. D) Mouthparts of all animals are designed to reduce the size of the food particles ingested. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.2 Section: 41.2 17) If you found a vertebrate skull in the woods and the teeth were sharp and scissor-like, what type of food would you expect this animal to eat? A) Grass B) Flesh of another animal C) Nectar D) Blood Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.2 Section: 41.2 18) The molar teeth of herbivorous mammals are especially effective at ________. A) cutting B) ripping C) grinding D) splitting E) piercing Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.2 Section: 41.2

19) Which animal is correctly paired with its feeding mechanism? A) Lion—suspension feeder B) Baleen whale—fluid feeder C) Aphid—suspension feeder D) Clam—deposit feeder E) Snake—mass feeder Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 41.2 Section: 41.2 20) The pharyngeal jaws of different cichlid fishes function for ________. A) crushing snails B) tearing fish scales C) compacting algae D) All of the above are functions of cichlid fishes' jaws. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.2 Section: 41.2 21) Variations in the pharyngeal jaws between species of cichlids have contributed to an adaptive radiation by these fishes because ________. A) pharyngeal jaws permit the cichlids to efficiently eat only other fish B) pharyngeal jaws permit enhanced respiration in the Rift Lakes of East Africa C) the different pharyngeal jaws found in each cichlid species permit diet specialization D) pharyngeal jaws are the basis of mate selection that leads to speciation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.2 Section: 41.2

22) Because the foods eaten by animals are often composed largely of macromolecules, animals need to have mechanisms for ________. A) elimination B) water absorption C) enzymatic digestion D) regurgitation E) demineralization Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 23) When partially digested food enters the small intestine from the stomach, several events must occur to protect the intestine and allow for continued digestion. What intestinal hormone is particularly responsible for these functions, causing the pancreas to release digestive enzymes and the gallbladder to release bile salts into the intestine? A) Secretin B) Cholecystokinin C) Insulin D) Epinephrine E) Lipase Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 24) The function of mechanical digestion is to break down large chunks of food into smaller pieces. Why is this important? Smaller pieces of food ________. A) do not taste as good as larger pieces of food B) have more surface area for chemical digestion than do larger pieces of food C) are easier to excrete than are larger pieces of food D) are more easily stored in the stomach than are larger pieces of food Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3, 39.3 Section: 41.3

25) Which of the following molecules are absorbed from the lumen of the small intestine into epithelial cells through simple diffusion? A) Monosaccharides B) Disaccharides and trisaccharides C) Lipids D) Amino acids Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 26) The chemical digestion of proteins begins in the ________. A) mouth B) stomach C) small intestine D) bloodstream Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 27) When a person has their gallbladder removed, they should probably reduce consumption of ________. A) proteins B) carbohydrates C) fats D) proteins and carbohydrates Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3

28) A major enzyme involved in protein digestion is ________. A) pancreatic lipase B) amylase C) pepsin D) lingual lipase Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 29) If you place a small piece of a cracker on your tongue, what would you expect to happen? A) The vitamins in the cracker will be immediately absorbed. B) Salivary amylase will hydrolyze the starch in the cracker into the disaccharide maltose. C) The proteins in the cracker will begin to be digested. D) The flavor becomes less noticeable because the sugars are digested. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 30) Low pH in the stomach is achieved by what process? A) Parietal cells secrete HCl into the lumen of the stomach. B) Chief cells secrete acid into the lumen of the stomach. C) Parietal cells produce pepsinogen that lowers stomach pH once it enters the stomach. D) Chief cells produce pepsinogen that lowers stomach pH once it enters the stomach. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3

31) The large surface area in the gut directly facilitates ________. A) secretion B) absorption C) elimination D) filtration E) temperature regulation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 32) Birds have an expanded region of the gut associated with the temporary storage of food, which is called the ________. A) gastric cecum B) larynx C) crop D) pharynx E) epiglottis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 33) In the digestive system, peristalsis is ________. A) a process of fat emulsification in the small intestine B) voluntary control of the rectal sphincters regulating defecation C) the transport of nutrients to the liver through the hepatic portal vessel D) a common cause of loss of appetite, fatigue, and dehydration E) smooth muscle contractions that move food along the esophagus Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3

34) A relatively long cecum is characteristic of animals that are ________. A) carnivores B) herbivores C) autotrophs D) heterotrophs E) omnivores Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 35) A carnivorous diet is associated with ________. A) jagged, sharp molars B) a rumen C) ingestion of feces D) salivary amylase E) a long cecum Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3, 41.2 Section: 41.3 36) Cattle are able to survive on a diet consisting almost entirely of plant material because cattle ________. A) are autotrophic B) re-ingest their feces C) manufacture all 15 amino acids out of sugars in the liver D) saliva has enzymes capable of digesting cellulose E) have cellulose-digesting, symbiotic microorganisms in chambers of their stomachs Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3

37) An enlarged cecum is typical of ________. A) rabbits, horses, and many rodents B) carnivorous animals C) tubeworms that digest via symbionts D) humans and other primates E) tapeworms and other intestinal parasites Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 38) Coprophagy is important for the nutritional balance of ________. A) ruminants such as cows B) insects and arthropods C) rabbits and their relatives D) squirrels and some rodents E) very large animals, such as elephants Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 39) Coprophagy benefits animals by allowing them to ________. A) hide their feces from predators B) absorb more nutrients from food C) ferment their feces in their stomachs D) digest starches in their stomach E) All of the above are benefits of coprophagy. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3

40) Examine the digestive system structures in the accompanying figure. The agents that help emulsify fats are produced in location ________. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 8 E) 9 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 41) Examine the digestive system structures in the accompanying figure. The highest rate of nutrient absorption occurs at location ________. A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 E) 8 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

42) Examine the digestive system structures in the accompanying figure. Most of the digestion of fats occurs in structure(s) ________. A) 3 only B) 4 only C) 1 and 4 D) 3 and 4 E) 1, 3, and 4 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 43) Examine the digestive system structures in the accompanying figure. Bacteria that produce vitamins are found in the greatest concentration in location ________. A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 7 E) 8 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 44) The mammalian trachea and esophagus both connect to the ________. A) large intestine B) stomach C) pharynx D) rectum E) epiglottis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3

45) Which organ is correctly paired with its function? A) Stomach–protein digestion B) Oral cavity–fat absorption C) Large intestine–bile production D) Small intestine–starch digestion E) Pancreas–starch digestion Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 46) Which is a major function of a gizzard? A) Mechanical digestion B) HCl secretion C) Mucus secretion D) Nutrient absorption E) Enzyme secretion Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 47) You are most likely to observe coprophagy in ________. A) carnivores B) herbivores C) fluid feeders D) suspension feeders Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3

48) An advantage of a complete digestive system over a gastrovascular cavity is that the complete system ________. A) excludes the need for extracellular digestion B) allows for specialized regions with specialized functions C) allows digestive enzymes to be more specific D) allows extensive branching E) facilitates intracellular digestion Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 49) Stomach cells are moderately well adapted to the acidity and protein-digesting activities in the stomach by having ________. A) a sufficient colonies of bacteria on their surfaces B) a thick, mucous secretion and active mitosis of epithelial cells C) a high level of secretion of enzymes by chief cells D) a high level of secretion of bases from parietal cells E) a cell wall impermeable to acid Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3, 39.2 Section: 41.3 50) Peristalsis is the ________. A) movement of the muscular layer surrounding the alimentary canal that is under voluntary control B) rhythmic waves of contraction of the muscular layers surrounding the alimentary canal that are responsible for moving contents of the lumen along the length of the digestive tract C) movement of nerve impulses from the central nervous system to the autorhythmic smooth muscle cells D) rhythmic lengthening and shortening of epithelial cells lining the lumen of the alimentary canal Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3

51) Villi and microvilli in the small intestine ________. A) neutralize stomach acid B) activate trypsinogen C) increase the surface area to increase the efficiency of nutrient absorption D) emulsify lipid molecules Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 52) Upon activation by stomach acidity, the secretions of the parietal cells ________. A) initiate the chemical digestion of protein in the stomach B) initiate the mechanical digestion of lipids in the stomach C) initiate the chemical digestion of lipids in the stomach D) include pepsinogen E) delay digestion until the food arrives in the small intestine Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 53) What is the importance of the mucus that is released by salivary glands? A) Mucus aids in degradation of triglycerides to fatty acids and monoglycerides. B) Mucus secretions are beginning the process of starch digestion. C) Mucus contains hormonal molecules that stimulate the release of gastric juice by the stomach in anticipation of receipt of the contents of the mouth. D) Mucus contains glycoproteins that make food slippery enough to slide easily through the esophagus. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3

54) Food being digested in the stomach is in a highly acidic environment. When the food is released from the stomach into the small intestine, why is the environment no longer acidic? A) Bicarbonate ions from the pancreas and bile salts from the gallbladder enter the small intestine and neutralize the stomach acid. B) Enteropeptidase activates trypsinogen, thus neutralizing the stomach acid. C) Bile salts from the gallbladder emulsify fats, raising the pH. D) When pepsinogen activates pepsin, one result is the neutralization of stomach acid in the stomach. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 55) Why did scientists originally hypothesize that proteolytic enzymes such as pepsin and trypsin are secreted in inactive form? A) These proteolytic enzymes, in active form, would digest the very tissues that synthesize them. B) They identified the hormone that activates pepsin and trypsin. C) The stomach is too acidic to maintain these enzymes in their active form. D) Pepsin and trypsin have never been isolated in their fully activated form. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 56) Over-the-counter medications for acid reflux or heartburn block the production of stomach acid. Which of the following cells are directly affected by this medication? A) Goblet cells B) Chief cells C) Parietal cells D) Smooth muscle cells Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3

57) Helicobacter pylori is a bacterial organism that causes ulcers and digestive disturbances. How might these organisms survive the acid pH of the stomach? A) They secrete buffers to neutralize acid. B) They live under the mucus layer that covers the stomach epithelium. C) They take over the parietal cells. D) They release chemicals that decrease acid production in the stomach. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: I LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 58) Orlistat is an anti-obesity drug that acts to decrease the amount of fat that is absorbed by binding to enzymes that digest fat. Which would be a potential target of orlistat? A) Salivary amylase B) Peptidase C) Pancreatic lipase D) Secretin Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 59) The absorption of simple sugars and amino acids in the small intestine occurs by ________. A) simple diffusion B) exocytosis C) facilitated diffusion D) bulk flow E) osmosis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3

60) Pancreatic enzymes are involved in the digestion of ________. I. protein II. fat III. nucleic acids IV. carbohydrates A) Only I and III B) Only II and IV C) Only I, II, and IV D) Only II, III, and IV E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 61) Glucose is transported from the intestinal lumen into epithelial cells through ________ and from the intestinal epithelium into circulation by ________. A) facilitated diffusion; primary active transport B) cotransport with sodium; cotransport with sodium C) cotransport with sodium; facilitated diffusion D) active transport; active transport Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 62) Aquaporins have been identified in the epithelium of the large intestine. What is their function? A) To secrete water into the large intestine B) To reabsorb water from the lumen of the large intestine C) To regulate solute transport from the feces to the body D) To release hormones involved in regulating digestive processes of the large intestine Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3

63) Fat digestion yields fatty acids and glycerol, whereas protein digestion yields amino acids; both digestive processes ________. A) are catalyzed by the same enzyme B) are intracellular processes in all organisms C) are catalyzed by enzymes produced in the pancreas D) require the presence of hydrochloric acid to lower the pH E) require adenosine triphosphate (ATP) as an energy source Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 64) Ingested dietary substances must cross cell membranes to be used by the body. This process is known as ________. A) ingestion B) digestion C) hydrolysis D) absorption E) elimination Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 65) After ingestion by humans, which macromolecule(s) begin(s) chemical digestion by enzymes in the mouth? I. Protein II. Fat III. Nucleic acids IV. Carbohydrates A) Only I B) Only II and IV C) Only I, II, and III D) Only IV E) Only I and IV Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3

66) Salivary amylase digests ________. A) protein B) starches C) monosaccharides D) glucose E) maltose Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 67) Digestive secretions with a pH of 2 are characteristic of the ________. A) small intestine B) stomach C) pancreas D) liver E) mouth Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 68) Pepsin is a digestive enzyme that ________. A) is manufactured by the pancreas B) helps stabilize fat-water emulsions C) splits maltose into monosaccharides D) begins the digestion of proteins in the stomach E) is denatured and rendered inactive in solutions with low pH Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3

69) The bile salts ________. A) are enzymes B) are manufactured by the pancreas C) emulsify fats in the small intestine D) increase the efficiency of pepsin action E) are normally an ingredient of gastric juice Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 70) Complex macromolecules in food are digested and then absorbed into the lymph or bloodstream as ________. A) polysaccharides B) polymers C) monomers D) enzymes E) peptides Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 71) An example of an enzyme with high activity in an acidic environment is ________. A) amylase B) pepsin C) gastrin D) trypsin E) sucrose Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3

72) The absorption of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that ________. A) the processing of fats does not require any digestive enzymes, whereas the processing of carbohydrates does B) fat absorption primarily occurs in the stomach, whereas carbohydrates are absorbed from the small intestine C) carbohydrates need to be emulsified before they can be digested, whereas fats do not D) most absorbed fat first enters the lymphatic system, whereas carbohydrates directly enter the blood E) fats, but not carbohydrates, are digested by bacteria before absorption Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 73) The appendix is referred to as vestigial because ________. A) it does not perform any obvious vital function B) it is important in maintaining the microorganisms that inhabit the gut C) it cannot be surgically removed D) it stores toxic wastes that build up in the large intestine Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 74) The large intestine carries out all of the following functions EXCEPT ________. A) absorption of water B) production of vitamin K C) compaction of feces D) storage of toxins Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3

75) A significant contribution of intestinal bacteria to human nutrition is the benefit of bacterial ________. A) production of vitamins A and C B) generation of gases needed for elimination C) absorption of organic materials D) production of vitamin K E) recovery of water from fecal matter Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 76) The cells that secrete the acidic components of stomach juices ________. A) are the chief cells of the stomach B) are the parietal cells of the stomach C) are not needed for the transformation of pepsinogen to pepsin D) are in the lumen of the stomach E) add secretions along the esophagus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3 77) After surgical removal of an infected gallbladder, a person must be especially careful to restrict dietary intake of ________. A) starch B) protein C) sugar D) fat E) water Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.3 Section: 41.3

78) When the digestion and absorption of carbohydrates results in more energy-rich molecules than are immediately required by an animal, the excess is ________. A) eliminated in the feces B) stored as starch in the liver C) stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles D) oxidized and converted to ATP E) hydrolyzed and converted to ADP Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.4 Section: 41.4 79) Which is an example of negative feedback? A) During birthing contractions, oxytocin (a hormone) is released and acts to stimulate further contractions. B) When a baby is nursing, suckling leads to the production of more milk and a subsequent increase in the secretion of prolactin (a hormone that stimulates lactation). C) After a blood vessel is damaged, signals are released by the damaged tissues that activate platelets in the blood. These activated platelets release chemicals that activate more platelets. D) When the level of glucose in the blood increases, the pancreas produces and releases the hormone insulin. Insulin acts to decrease blood glucose. As blood glucose decreases, the rate of production and release of insulin decreases as blood glucose decreases. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.4 Section: 41.4

80)

The Pimas are a group of people living in the southwestern United States and Mexico. Although Pima living in the United States and Mexico have a similar genetic background, a five-fold increase in the incidence of type 2 diabetes mellitus among U.S. Pima has been reported. The body mass index (a measure of obesity) of Mexicans of non-Pima descent, Mexicans of Pima descent, and Pimas living in the United States is shown in the accompanying figure. Based on this information and the graph, what can you infer about the incidence of type 2 diabetes mellitus? A) Obesity is a risk factor for development of type 2 diabetes mellitus. B) If you maintain a normal body weight (body mass index less than 25), you will not get type 2 diabetes mellitus. C) The incidence of type 2 diabetes mellitus has increased in the past 10 years. D) People who develop type 2 diabetes mellitus are typically diagnosed in childhood or adolescence. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.4 Section: 41.4

81) In a healthy person, after a large meal, the production of ________ will increase. After fasting, the production of ________ will increase. A) trypsin; trypsinogen B) glucagon; glucose C) glucagon; pepsinogen D) insulin; glucagon Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.4 Section: 41.4 82) If there is a strong genetic link for type 2 diabetes mellitus in your family, how might you minimize your risk of developing the disorder? A) Monitor your blood glucose levels daily B) Take oral insulin daily C) Maintain a healthy weight, eat a balanced diet, and exercise D) Eat complex carbohydrates like starch instead of sweets Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.4 Section: 41.4 83) Analysis of a blood sample from a fasting individual who had not eaten for 24 hours would be expected to reveal high levels of ________. A) insulin B) glucagon C) secretin D) gastrin E) glucose Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.4 Section: 41.4

84) When cells of the pancreas release insulin into the blood, ________. A) the blood glucose levels rise to a set point and stimulate glucagon release B) the skeletal muscles and the adipose cells take up glucose at a faster rate C) the liver catabolizes glycogen D) the alpha cells of the pancreas release glucose into the blood E) the kidneys begin gluconeogenesis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.4 Section: 41.4 85) After eating a carbohydrate-rich meal, the mammalian pancreas increases its secretion of ________. A) lingual amylase B) glucagon C) thyroxine D) oxytocin E) insulin Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.4 Section: 41.4 86) An example of antagonistic hormones controlling homeostasis is ________. A) thyroxine and parathyroid hormone in calcium balance B) insulin and glucagon in glucose metabolism C) progestins and estrogens in sexual differentiation D) epinephrine and norepinephrine in fight-or-flight responses E) oxytocin and prolactin in milk production Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.4 Section: 41.4

87) Shortly after ingesting a big plate of carbohydrate-rich pasta, you measure your blood's hormone levels. What results would you expect, compared to before the meal? A) High insulin, low glucagon B) Low insulin, low glucagon C) High insulin, high glucagon D) Low insulin, high glucagon E) Low insulin, no change in glucagon Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 41.4 Section: 41.4 88) Hypoglycemia, or low levels of glucose in the blood of a healthy human, could be corrected by a(n) ________. A) increase in the secretion of insulin B) increase in the secretion of glucagon C) increase in the secretion of both insulin and glucagon D) decrease in the secretion of both insulin and glucagon E) increase in the secretion of thyroid hormones Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.4 Section: 41.4 89) When the body's blood glucose level rises, the pancreas secretes insulin and, as a result, the blood glucose level declines. When the blood glucose level is low, the pancreas secretes glucagon and, as a result, the blood glucose level rises. Such regulation of the blood glucose level is the result of ________. A) catalytic feedback B) positive feedback C) negative feedback D) bioinformatic regulation E) protein-protein interactions Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 41.4 Section: 41.4

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 42 Gas Exchange and Circulation 1) The process of uptake of oxygen into the body from the environment and the release of carbon dioxide from body to environment is known as gas exchange. What system in the body is primarily responsible for gas exchange? A) Circulatory B) Integument (skin) C) Respiratory D) Excretory E) Digestive Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.1 Section: 42.1 2) A toxin that interferes with circulation will NOT affect which of the following processes of gas exchange? A) Transport of oxygen within the body B) Transport of carbon dioxide within the body C) The movement of water across the gill exchange surface D) Diffusion of oxygen from blood to tissues E) Diffusion of carbon dioxide from tissues to blood Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.1 Section: 42.1

3) Which of these is correct? A) Bubbles rise to the surface of carbonated beverages because the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in air is lower than that in the fluid. B) Bubbles rise to the surface of carbonated beverages because the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in air is higher than that in the fluid. C) Bubbles in carbonated beverages form because of diffusion of carbon dioxide from air where its partial pressure is higher. D) Bubbles in carbonated beverages form because of diffusion of carbon dioxide from air where its partial pressure is lower. E) Bubbles in carbonated beverages form when the partial pressure of oxygen in the fluid is less than that of the carbon dioxide. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 42.2 Section: 42.2 4) Which of following is NOT a way that closed circulatory systems use to move the respiratory gases oxygen and carbon dioxide to and from tissues? A) Transport within red blood cells B) Transport in plasma as HCO3C) Transport in plasma as dissolved oxygen D) All of these are methods used to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.4 Section: 42.4 5) What is the correct order of processes involving the movement of oxygen from the environment to mitochondria in vertebrates? A) Ventilation, circulation, and cellular respiration B) Circulation, ventilation, and cellular respiration C) Diffusion in tissues, cellular respiration, and diffusion at respiratory surface D) Ventilation, diffusion in tissues, and circulation E) Circulation, cellular respiration, and diffusion in tissues Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.1 Section: 42.1

6) Which of the following best describes the process of ventilation? A) The movement of oxygen gas through the blood of the circulatory system B) The movement of carbon dioxide gas through the blood of the circulatory system C) The movement of the respiratory medium past the respiratory surface D) The diffusion of gases into and out of the circulatory system E) The diffusion of gases into and out of tissues where cellular respiration occurs Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.1 Section: 42.1 7) In which location would you expect the oxygen concentration to be the lowest? A) The environment B) The blood C) The lungs D) Within tissues E) The heart Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 42.1 Section: 42.1 8) Which of the following respiratory systems is NOT closely associated with the blood supply? A) The lungs of a vertebrate B) The gills of a fish C) The tracheal system of an insect D) The skin of an earthworm Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.3 Section: 42.3

9) Gas exchange is more difficult for aquatic animals with gills than for terrestrial animals with lungs because ________. A) water is less dense than air B) water contains much less oxygen per unit volume than air C) gills have less surface area than lungs D) gills allow only unidirectional transport E) gills collapse in air Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.2 Section: 42.2 10) Atmospheric pressure at sea level is equal to a column of 760 mm Hg. Oxygen makes up 21 percent of the atmosphere by volume. The partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) in such conditions is ________. A) 160 mm Hg B) 16 mm Hg C) 120/75 D) 21/760 E) 760/21 Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: QR V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 42.2 Section: 42.2 11) At an atmospheric pressure of 870 mm Hg with 21 percent oxygen, the partial pressure of oxygen is ________. A) 100 mm Hg B) 127 mm Hg C) 151 mm Hg D) 182 mm Hg E) 219 mm Hg Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: QR V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 42.2 Section: 42.2

12) At the summit of a high mountain, the atmospheric pressure is 380 mm Hg. If the atmosphere is still composed of 21 percent oxygen, then the partial pressure of oxygen at this altitude is about ________. A) 0 mm Hg B) 80 mm Hg C) 160 mm Hg D) 380 mm Hg E) 760 mm Hg Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: QR V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 42.2 Section: 42.2 13) When the air in a testing chamber is specially mixed so that its oxygen content is 10 percent, and its overall air pressure is 400 mm Hg, then PO2 is ________. A) 400 mm Hg B) 82 mm Hg C) 40 mm Hg D) 21 mm Hg E) 4 mm Hg Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: QR V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 42.2 Section: 42.2 14) A rabbit taken from a meadow near sea level and moved to a meadow high on a mountainside would have some trouble breathing. Why? A) The percentage of oxygen in the air at high elevations is lower than at sea level. B) The percentage of oxygen in the air at high elevations is higher than at sea level. C) The partial pressure of oxygen in the air at high elevations is lower than at sea level. D) The partial pressure of oxygen in the air at high elevations is higher than at sea level. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 42.2 Section: 42.2

15) The air pressure in Denver, Colorado is about 83 percent of the air pressure in Miami Beach, which is at about sea level. Given that the air pressure in Miami Beach is 760 mm Hg and oxygen makes up 21 percent of the air in Miami Beach, what are the percentage of oxygen and the partial pressure of oxygen in Denver? A) 21 percent; 21 mm Hg B) 21 percent; 132 mm Hg C) 17.4 percent; 132 mm Hg D) 17.4 percent; 21 mm Hg Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: QR V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 42.2 Section: 42.2 16) Breathing is primarily regulated by ________. A) erythropoietin levels in the blood B) the concentration of red blood cells C) hemoglobin levels in the blood D) carbon dioxide concentration and pH sensors E) the lungs and the larynx Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.3 Section: 42.3 17) Carbon dioxide levels in the blood and in cerebrospinal fluid affect pH of these fluids. This enables the organism to sense a disturbance in gas levels as ________. A) the brain directly measures and monitors oxygen levels and causes breathing changes accordingly B) neurons in contact with cerebrospinal fluid monitor pH and use this measure to control breathing C) the brain alters the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid to force the animal to retain more or less carbon dioxide D) stretch receptors in the lungs cause the medulla oblongata to speed up or slow breathing E) the medulla oblongata is able to control the concentration of bicarbonate ions in the blood Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: QR V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.3 Section: 42.3

18) Which of the following statements comparing respiration in fish and in mammals is correct? A) The respiratory medium for fish carries more oxygen than the respiratory medium of mammals. B) A countercurrent exchange mechanism between the respiratory medium and blood flow is seen in mammals but not in fish. C) The movement of the respiratory medium in mammals is bidirectional, but in fish, it is unidirectional. D) In blood, oxygen is primarily transported by plasma in fish, but by red blood cells in mammals. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.3 Section: 42.3 19) Determine the rate of diffusion (cm3/min or mL/min) in the gas exchange organ of an airbreathing animal where the area for gas exchange in the lung is 2 cm2, the diffusion constant is 0.08 cm2/min, the PO2 (partial pressure of oxygen) of the air in the lung is 140 mm Hg, the PO2 in blood flowing into the lung is 90 mm Hg, and the thickness of the gas exchange membrane is 0.0001 cm. A) 80,000 B) 125 C) 32,000 D) 10,00,000 Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: QR V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 42.3 Section: 42.3 20) Under identical atmospheric conditions, freshwater ________. A) has more oxygen than seawater B) has less oxygen than seawater C) can hold 10-40 times more carbon dioxide than air D) can hold 10-40 times more oxygen than air Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 42.2 Section: 42.2

21) If other factors are equal, which of the following environments would have the highest level of dissolved oxygen? A) Warm, salty water at low elevation B) Cool, salty water at low elevation C) Warm, freshwater at high elevation D) Cool, freshwater at high elevation E) Cool, freshwater at low elevation Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.2 Section: 42.2 22) Countercurrent exchange is evident in the flow of ________. A) water across the gills of a fish and the blood within those gills B) blood in the dorsal vessel of an insect and that of air within its tracheae C) air within the primary bronchi of a human and the blood within the pulmonary veins D) water across the skin of a frog and the blood flow within the ventricle of its heart Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.3 Section: 42.3 23) Countercurrent exchange in the fish gill helps to maximize ________. A) endocytosis B) blood pressure C) extraction of oxygen from the water D) active transport E) osmosis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.3 Section: 42.3

24) Air-breathing insects carry out gas exchange ________. A) in their specialized external gills B) in their specialized internal gills C) in the alveoli of their lungs D) across the finest branches of the trachea and cell membranes E) across all parts of their thin cuticular exoskeleton Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.3 Section: 42.3 25) Air rushes into the lungs of humans during inhalation because ________. A) the rib muscles and diaphragm contract, increasing the lung volume and decreasing the pressure within the lungs B) the volume of the alveoli increases as smooth muscles contract C) gas flows from a region of lower pressure to a region of higher pressure D) pulmonary muscles contract and pull on the outer surface of the lungs E) a positive respiratory pressure is created when the diaphragm relaxes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.3 Section: 42.3 26) The exhalation of air from human lungs is driven by ________. A) a decrease in the volume of the thoracic cavity with an associated increase in thoracic pressure B) a decrease in the residual volume of the lungs C) the contraction of the diaphragm D) the closure of the epiglottis E) the expansion of the rib cage Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.3 Section: 42.3

27) As a person goes from rest to full-effort exercise, there is an increase in the ________. A) tidal volume B) vital capacity C) residual volume D) total lung capacity Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.3 Section: 42.3 28) Some animals have no gills when young but then develop gills that grow larger as the animal grows larger. What is the reason for this increase in gill size? A) The young of these animals are much more active than the adult, which leads to a higher BMR (basal metabolic rate) and, therefore, a higher need for oxygen. B) Relative to their volume, the young have more surface area across which they can transport all the oxygen they need. C) The young have a higher basal metabolic rate. D) Relative to their surface area, the young have more body volume in which they can store oxygen for long periods of time. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.3, 39.3 Section: 42.3 29) What adaptations are observed in trachea and lungs to reduce water loss? A) A countercurrent exchange system reduces water loss in animals with either trachea or lungs. B) The location of the trachea and lungs (inside of the body) reduces water loss. C) Trachea and lungs secrete specialized oxygen-carrying chemicals to reduce water loss. D) Limbs are used by animals with trachea or lungs to move water over these structures. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.3 Section: 42.3

30) A significant increase in the amount of interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary beds of a human's lungs will cause ________. A) an increase in the amount of carbon dioxide moving from the blood to the lungs B) an increase in the amount of oxygen moving from the lungs into the blood C) a decrease in the amount of oxygen moving from the lungs into the blood D) an increase of pressure that would cause the capillary beds to burst E) a decrease in the amount of work needed for effective ventilation of the lungs Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 42.3, 42.5 Section: 42.3 31) Fick's law of diffusion describes the factors that influence the diffusion of respiratory gases across biological membranes like gills and lungs. Diffusion rate = k × A × (P2 − P1)/D. Natural selection is LEAST likely to act upon which variable in Fick's law? A) A B) k C) P2 − P1 D) D Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 42.3 Section: 42.3 32) If the inner lining of the air sacs is neither thin nor highly vascularized, then what can be inferred about the air sacs? A) They must not belong to the respiratory system. B) They cannot be derived from endoderm. C) They are not efficient sites of gas exchange between air and blood. D) They must obtain nutrition from some source other than the bloodstream. E) They cannot effectively moisturize the air before it reaches the lungs. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.3 Section: 42.3

33) What would be the consequences if we were to reverse the direction of water flow over the gills of a fish, moving water inward past the operculum, past the gills, then out of the mouth? This reversal of water flow would ________. A) reduce the efficiency of gas exchange B) change the exchange of gases in the body from carbon dioxide out and oxygen into carbon dioxide in and oxygen out C) increase the efficiency of gas exchange Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 42.3 Section: 42.3 34) When you are jogging, your muscles are using more oxygen and releasing more carbon dioxide into the blood than when you are at home on the couch. Which of the following would occur during your jog? A) Blood pH would become more basic. B) The concentration of bicarbonate ions (HCO3−) in the blood would decrease. C) The medullary respiratory center would detect rising carbon dioxide levels. D) The volume of the dead air space would decrease. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.3 Section: 42.3 35) When you hold your breath, which of the following blood gas changes first leads to the urge to breathe? A) Rising oxygen B) Falling oxygen C) Rising carbon dioxide D) Falling carbon dioxide Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.3 Section: 42.3

36) In mammals, gas exchange between the atmosphere and the pulmonary blood occurs in the ________. A) trachea B) larynx C) bronchi D) bronchioles E) alveoli Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.3 Section: 42.3 37) In what way does hemoglobin act as a buffer against changes in blood pH? A) Subsequent binding of oxygen is drastically reduced after the first one is bound. B) Hemoglobin binds some of the excess protons released by carbonic acid. C) Hemoglobin produces protons or hydroxide ions as needed to alter the blood pH. D) Hemoglobin removes excess protons from the red blood cells so that they can be excreted through the kidneys. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.4 Section: 42.4 38) To become bound to hemoglobin for transport in a mammal, atmospheric molecules of oxygen must cross ________. A) zero membranes: oxygen binds directly to hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood B) one membrane: that of the lining in the lungs—and then bind directly to hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood C) two membranes: in and out of the cells lining the lung—and then bind directly to hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood D) four membranes: into and out of the cells lining the lung, into and out of the endothelial cell lining an alveolar capillary: and then bind directly to hemoglobin, a protein dissolved in the plasma of the blood E) five membranes: into and out of the cell lining the lung, into and out of the endothelial cell lining an alveolar capillary, and into the red blood cell—to bind with hemoglobin Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.3, 42.4 Section: 42.4 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

39) Which component of blood is responsible for the formation of blood clots? A) Red blood cells B) White blood cells C) Platelets D) All blood cells E) None of the above form blood clots. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.4 Section: 42.4 40) An increase in blood carbon dioxide content causes hemoglobin to ________. A) release all bound carbon dioxide molecules B) bind more oxygen molecules C) denature D) bind more H+ E) release more oxygen molecules Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.4 Section: 42.4 41) The Bohr shift on the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is produced by changes in ________. A) the partial pressure of oxygen B) the partial pressure of carbon monoxide C) hemoglobin concentration D) temperature E) pH Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.4 Section: 42.4

42) Most of the carbon dioxide produced by humans is ________. A) converted to bicarbonate ions by carbonic anhydrase, an enzyme in red blood cells B) bound to hemoglobin C) transported in the erythrocytes as carbonic acid D) simply dissolved in the plasma E) bicarbonate ions bound to hemoglobin Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.4 Section: 42.4 43) Compared with the interstitial fluid that bathes active muscle cells, blood reaching these muscle cells in arteries has a ________. A) higher PO2 B) higher PCO2 C) greater bicarbonate concentration D) lower pH E) lower osmotic pressure Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.4 Section: 42.4 44) Which of the following reactions prevails in red blood cells traveling through alveolar capillaries? (Hb = hemoglobin) A) Hb + 4 O2 → Hb(O2)4 B) Hb(O2)4 → Hb + 4 O2 C) CO2 + H2O → H2CO3 D) H2CO3 → H+ + HCO3− E) Hb + 4 CO2 → Hb(CO2)4 Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 42.4 Section: 42.4

45) In what way does hemoglobin act as a buffer against changes in blood pH? A) Subsequent binding of oxygen is drastically reduced after the first one is bound. B) Hemoglobin binds some of the excess protons released by carbonic acid. C) Hemoglobin produces protons or hydroxide ions as needed to alter the blood pH. D) Hemoglobin removes excess protons from the red blood cells so that they can be excreted through the kidneys. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.4 Section: 42.4 46) Complete the statement correctly. Fetal hemoglobin ________. A) binds more carbon dioxide molecules than adult hemoglobin B) is better able to release oxygen than adult hemoglobin C) has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin D) is better able to release carbon dioxide than adult hemoglobin E) has a higher affinity for carbon dioxide than adult hemoglobin Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.4 Section: 42.4 47) Which of the following events would be predicted by the Bohr shift effect as the amount of carbon dioxide released from your tissues into the blood capillaries increases? The amount of oxygen in ________. A) arterial blood would increase B) arterial blood would decrease C) venous blood would increase D) venous blood would decrease Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.4 Section: 42.4

48) The oxygen content of water increases linearly with an increase in oxygen partial pressure, whereas the oxygen content of blood increases in a sigmoidal (S-shaped) fashion. Why? A) Carbonic anhydrase contributes to carbon dioxide release in blood, but not water. B) The Bohr shift is stronger in water than in blood. C) Hemoglobin shows cooperative oxygen binding. D) Oxygen is transported equally by hemoglobin and blood plasma. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.4 Section: 42.4 49) You are a physician, and you are seeing a patient who complains of abnormal fatigue during exercise. You find that the immediate problem is a buildup of carbon dioxide in the tissues. What is the most likely cause? A) Abnormally shaped platelets B) Abnormal carbonic anhydrase C) Abnormal hemoglobin D) Not enough hemoglobin Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 42.4 Section: 42.4 50) Altitude sickness occurs when a hiker ascends to altitudes where the density of oxygen is low. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors cause less movement of carbonic acid toward carbon dioxide production and are used as a prophylactic treatment of altitude sickness. How does this treatment decrease the symptoms of high-altitude sickness? A) The resulting rise in pH increases respiration rate. B) Excess bicarbonate ions are excreted in the urine and the resulting loss of blood pressure increases respiration rate. C) An increase in blood acidity leads to an increase in ventilation. D) An increase in bicarbonate ions in the blood stimulates the production of more red blood cells. E) The excess bicarbonate ions in the blood increase the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.4 Section: 42.4

51)

Based on the accompanying figure, showing fetal (A) and adult (B) oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curves, which of the following conclusions is TRUE? A) The mother binds oxygen with greater affinity than the fetus. B) Adult saturation occurs at lower partial pressures of oxygen than fetal saturation does. C) At 50 percent saturation, fetal blood will have a higher affinity for oxygen than adult blood will. D) As the partial pressure of oxygen increases, adult hemoglobin approaches saturation faster than fetal hemoglobin does. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 42.4 Section: 42.4

52) Organisms with a circulating body fluid that is distinct from the fluid that directly surrounds the body's cells are likely to have ________. A) an open circulatory system B) a closed circulatory system C) a gastrovascular cavity D) branched tracheae E) hemolymph Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 53) In which of the following organisms does blood flow from the lungs to the heart before circulating through the rest of the body? A) Annelids B) Mollusks C) Fishes D) Frogs E) Insects Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 54) The vertebrates in which blood flows directly from respiratory organs to body tissues without first returning to the heart are the ________. A) amphibians B) birds C) fishes D) mammals E) reptiles Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5

55) To increase the output of the heart, what adjustments are made in the circulatory system? 1. An increase in heart rate 2. An increase in stroke volume of the heart 3. A reduced blood flow to the brain A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Only 3 D) 1 and 2 E) 1, 2, and 3 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 56) Which of the following develops the greatest pressure on the blood in the mammalian aorta? A) Systole of the left atrium B) Diastole of the right ventricle C) Systole of the left ventricle D) Diastole of the right atrium E) Diastole of the left atrium Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 57) Which of the following is the correct sequence of blood flow in birds and mammals? A) Left ventricle → aorta → lungs → systemic circulation B) Vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary vein C) Pulmonary vein → left atrium → left ventricle → pulmonary circuit D) Vena cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery E) Right atrium → pulmonary artery → left atrium → ventricle Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5

58) A patient with a blood pressure of 120/75, a pulse rate of 70 beats/minute, a stroke volume of 70 mL/beat (milliliters per beat), and a respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute will have a cardiac output of ________. A) 70 mL/minute B) 1000 mL/minute C) 1750 mL/minute D) 2800 mL/minute E) 4900 mL/minute Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, QR V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 59) Damage to the sinoatrial node in humans ________. A) is a major contributor to heart attacks B) would block conductance between the bundle branches and the Purkinje fibers C) would have a negative effect on peripheral resistance D) would disrupt the rate and timing of cardiac muscle contractions E) would have a direct effect on blood pressure monitors in the aorta Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 60) A stroke volume of 70 mL/beat in a heart with a pulse of 72 beats per minute results in a cardiac output of about ________. A) 5 liters per minute B) 50 milliliters per minute C) 0.5 liters per minute D) 50 liters per minute E) 500 liters per minute Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, QR V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5

61) The aortic valve of the mammalian heart ________. A) is the route by which blood flows from the atria to the ventricles B) is found on the right side of the heart C) is the attachment site where the pulmonary veins empty into the heart D) prevents backflow of blood in the aorta E) is located where the anterior and posterior venae cavae empty into the heart Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 62) What type of blood vessel has the slowest velocity of blood flow? A) Arteries B) Arterioles C) Veins D) Capillaries Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 63) Among the following choices, which organism likely has the highest systolic pressure? A) Mouse B) Rabbit C) Human D) Hippopotamus E) Giraffe Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5

64) The velocity of blood flow is the lowest in capillaries because ________. A) the capillary walls are not thin enough to allow oxygen to exchange with the cells B) the capillaries have internal valves that slow the flow of blood C) the diastolic blood pressure is too low to deliver blood to the capillaries at a high flow rate D) the systemic capillaries are supplied by the left ventricle, which has a lower cardiac output than the right ventricle E) the total cross-sectional area of the capillaries is greater than the total cross-sectional area of the arteries or any other part of the circulatory system Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 65) The blood pressure is lowest in the ________. A) aorta B) arteries C) arterioles D) left ventricle of the heart E) vena cava Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 66) A species that has a normal resting systolic blood pressure of greater than 260 mm Hg is likely to be ________. A) an animal that is small and compact, without the need to pump blood very far from the heart B) an animal with abundant lipid storage C) a species that has very wide diameter veins D) an animal that has a very long distance between its heart and its brain E) an animal that makes frequent, quick motions Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5

67) Heart rate will increase in the presence of increased ________. A) low-density lipoproteins B) immunoglobulins C) erythropoietin D) epinephrine E) platelets Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 68) An anthropologist discovers the fossilized heart of an extinct animal. The evidence indicates that the organism's heart was large, was well formed, and had four chambers, with no connection between the right and left sides. A reasonable conclusion supported by these observations is that the ________. A) animal had evolved from birds B) animal was endothermic and had a high metabolic rate C) animal was most closely related to alligators and crocodiles D) animal was likely an invertebrate animal E) species had little to no need to regulate blood pressure Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 69) Blood returning to the mammalian heart in a pulmonary vein drains first into the ________. A) vena cava B) left atrium C) right atrium D) left ventricle E) right ventricle Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5

70) Pulse is a direct measure of ________. A) blood pressure B) stroke volume C) cardiac output D) heart rate E) breathing rate Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 71) One feature that amphibians and humans have in common is ________. A) the number of heart chambers B) the type of gas exchange tissues C) a complete separation of circuits for circulation D) the number of circuits for circulation E) a low blood pressure in the systemic circuit Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 72) Which of the four muscular chambers of the human heart directly propels blood into the pulmonary circulation? A) Right atrium B) Right ventricle C) Left atrium D) Left ventricle Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5

73) An animal has a cardiac output of 40 mL/min (milliliters per minute) and a stroke volume of 5 mL. What is its heart rate? A) 8 beats/minute B) 200 beats/minute C) 12.5 beats/minute D) Heart rate cannot be determined with only these two variables. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: QR V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 74) Atria contract ________. A) at the beginning of atrial diastole B) during atrial diastole C) immediately after ventricular systole D) during atrial systole Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 75) The fluid that is moved by in the circulatory system of a typical arthropod is ________. A) digestive juices B) hemolymph C) blood plasma D) cytosol Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5

76) Circulatory systems compensate for ________. A) temperature differences between the lungs and the active tissue B) the slow rate at which diffusion occurs over large distances C) the problem of communication systems involving only the nervous system D) the need to cushion animals from trauma E) the need that fetal organisms have for maintaining an optimal body temperature Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 77) The greatest difference in the concentration of respiratory gases is found in which of the following pairs of mammalian blood vessels? A) The pulmonary vein and the jugular vein B) The veins from the right and left legs C) The pulmonary artery and the inferior vena cava D) The pulmonary vein and the aorta E) The inferior vena cava and the superior vena cava Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 78) A human red blood cell in an artery of the left arm is on its way to deliver oxygen to a cell in the thumb. To travel from the artery to the thumb and then back to the left ventricle, this red blood cell must pass through ________. A) one capillary bed B) two capillary beds C) three capillary beds D) four capillary beds E) five capillary beds Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5

79) If, during protein starvation, the osmotic pressure on the venous side of capillary beds drops below the hydrostatic pressure, then ________. A) hemoglobin will not release oxygen B) fluids will tend to accumulate in the interstitial fluid and tissues C) the pH of the interstitial fluid will increase D) most carbon dioxide will be bound to hemoglobin and carried away from tissues E) plasma proteins will escape through the endothelium of the capillaries Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 80) Large proteins such as albumin remain in capillaries rather than diffusing out, resulting in the ________. A) loss of osmotic pressure in the capillaries B) development of an osmotic pressure difference across capillary walls that favors fluid retention in the capillary C) loss of fluid from capillaries D) increased diffusion of carbon dioxide E) increased diffusion of hemoglobin Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 81) The diagnosis of hypertension in adults is based on the ________. A) measurement of fatty deposits on the endothelium of arteries B) measurement of the LDL/HDL ratio in peripheral blood C) percentage of blood volume made up of platelets D) blood pressure being greater than 140/90 mm Hg (systolic/diastolic) E) number of leukocytes per cubic millimeter of blood Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5

82) The plasma proteins and other solutes in the blood in humans ________. A) maintain the blood's osmotic pressure B) transport water-soluble lipids C) carry out gas exchange D) undergo aerobic metabolism E) transport oxygen Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 83) If a molecule of carbon dioxide enters the blood in your left toe and is exhaled from your nose, it must pass through all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) the pulmonary vein B) an alveolus C) the trachea D) the right atrium E) the right ventricle Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.3, 42.5 Section: 42.5 84) The atrioventricular (AV) node serves to ________. A) generate the heartbeat signal B) propagate the beat across the atria C) delay the heartbeat signal before transmitting it to the ventricles D) transmit the heartbeat signal to the apex of the ventricles E) cause the heart to relax Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5

85) The pacemaker cells are found in what structure? A) Sinoatrial node B) The ventricles C) Left atrium D) Pulmonary veins E) Aorta Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 86) Where is the velocity of blood the highest? A) Inferior vena cava B) Aorta C) Small arteries D) Superior vena cava E) Capillaries Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5 87) Blockage of vessels supplying blood to the heart itself is ________. A) called arteriosclerosis B) caused by hardening of the arteries C) called myocardial infarction or a heart attack D) prevented by the use of nicotine Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5

88) Myocardial infarction occurs when ________. A) arteries harden or lose their elasticity B) the electrical control of the heart leads to an elevated heart rate C) the heart stops D) blockage of blood vessels prevents adequate blood flow to the heart Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 42.5 Section: 42.5

89) Which of these graphs shows the shape of a sigmoidal oxygen-hemoglobin equilibrium curve? A)

Answer: B LO: 42.4; EO: 42.4.2 Evaluate this student's graph of an oxygen-hemoglobin equilibrium curve (also called an oxygen dissociation curve or hemoglobin saturation curve).

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 90) The student should have shown that there is a linear relationship between the two variables. Answer: FALSE LO: 42.4; EO: 42.4.2 91) The student has correctly shown that the O2saturation of hemoglobin is the dependent variable. Answer: TRUE LO: 42.4; EO: 42.4.2 92) The student has correctly shown that there are three regions of the curve. Answer: TRUE LO: 42.4; EO: 42.4.2 93) The saturation of O2 changes slowly at the low and high regions of the curve, but rapidly in the middle. Answer: TRUE LO: 42.4; EO: 42.4.2 94) According to the data, hemoglobin would have 50% O2 saturation when the tissue has a partial pressure of oxygen of about 25 mm Hg. Answer: TRUE LO: 42.4; EO: 42.4.2

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 43 Animal Nervous Systems 1) A central nervous system ________. A) must include chemical senses, mechanoreception, and vision B) includes a minimum of 12 effector neurons C) has information flow in only one direction: toward an integrating center D) has information flow in only one direction: away from an integrating center E) includes sensory information, an integrating center, and effectors Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1 2) Most of the neurons in the human brain are ________. A) sensory neurons B) motor neurons C) interneurons D) auditory neurons E) peripheral neurons Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1 3) The nucleus and most of the organelles in a neuron are located in the ________. A) dendritic region B) axon hillock C) axon D) cell body E) axon terminals Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1

4) The point of connection between two communicating neurons is called the ________. A) axon hillock B) dendrite C) synapse D) cell body E) glia Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1 5) What type of neuron exists entirely within the central nervous system (CNS)? A) Interneuron B) Motor neuron C) Sensory neuron D) Interneuron and motor neuron E) Interneuron, sensory neuron, and motor neuron Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1 6) For a neuron at rest with a membrane potential of −65 mV, an increase in the movement of potassium ions out of that neuron's cytoplasm would result in the ________. A) depolarization of the neuron B) hyperpolarization of the neuron C) replacement of potassium ions with sodium ions D) replacement of potassium ions with calcium ions E) neuron switching on its sodium-potassium pump to restore the initial conditions Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1

7) Although the membrane of a resting neuron is highly permeable to potassium ions, its membrane potential does not exactly match the equilibrium potential for potassium because the neuronal membrane is also ________. A) fully permeable to sodium ions B) slightly permeable to sodium ions C) fully permeable to calcium ions D) impermeable to sodium ions E) highly permeable to chloride ions Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1 8) The operation of the sodium—potassium "pump" moves ________. A) sodium and potassium ions into the cell B) sodium and potassium ions out of the cell C) sodium ions into the cell and potassium ions out of the cell D) sodium ions out of the cell and potassium ions into the cell E) sodium and potassium ions into the mitochondria Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1 9) In a resting potential, an example of a cation that is more abundant as a solute inside a neuron than it is in the interstitial fluid outside the neuron is ________. A) HCO3− B) Cl− C) Ca2+ D) Na+ E) K+ Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1

10) The membrane potential in which there is no net movement of the ion across the membrane is called the ________. A) graded potential B) threshold potential C) equilibrium potential D) action potential E) inhibitory postsynaptic potential Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1 11) ATP hydrolysis directly powers the movement of ________. A) K+ out of cells B) Na+ out of cells C) Na+ into cells D) Ca2+ into cells E) Cl− into cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1 12) Two fundamental concepts about the ion channels of a resting neuron are that the channels ________. A) are always open, but the concentration gradients of ions frequently change B) are always closed, but ions move closer to the channels during excitation C) open and close depending on stimuli and are specific as to which ion can traverse them D) open and close depending on chemical messengers and are nonspecific as to which ion can traverse them E) open in response to stimuli and then close simultaneously, in unison Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1

13) A new drug causes all of the sodium channels of a resting neuron to open. Measurement of the membrane potential after application of the drug shows a reading of ________. A) −90 mV B) −70 mV C) 0 mV D) +10 mV E) +40 mV Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1 14) Hyperpolarization of a membrane can be induced by ________. A) increasing its membrane's permeability to Na+ B) decreasing its membrane's permeability to H+ C) decreasing its membrane's permeability to Cl− D) increasing its membrane's permeability to Ca++ E) increasing its membrane's permeability to K+ Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1 15) The "selectivity" of a particular ion channel refers to its ________. A) permitting passage by positive but not negative ions B) permitting passage by negative but not positive ions C) ability to change its size depending on the ion needing transport D) binding with only one type of neurotransmitter E) permitting passage only to a specific ion Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1

Refer to the following graph of an action potential to answer the question(s) below.

16) The membrane potential is hyperpolarized at label ________. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1

17) The membrane's permeability to sodium ions is at its maximum at label ________. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1 18) The minimum depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels is indicated by the label ________. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1 19) The cell is not hyperpolarized; however, repolarization is in progress, as the sodium channels are closing or closed, and many potassium channels have opened at label ________. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1

20) The neuronal membrane is at its resting potential at label ________. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1 21) What happens when a resting neuron's membrane depolarizes? A) There is a net diffusion of Na+ out of the cell. B) The equilibrium potential for K+ (EK) becomes more positive. C) The neuron's membrane voltage becomes more positive. D) The neuron is less likely to generate an action potential. E) The cell's inside is more negative than the outside. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1 22) A common feature of action potentials is that they ________. A) cause the membrane to hyperpolarize and then depolarize B) can undergo temporal and spatial summation C) are triggered by a depolarization that reaches the threshold potential D) move at the same speed along all axons E) require the diffusion of Na+ and K+ through ligand-gated channels to propagate Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1

23) Which of the following ions is most likely to cross the plasma membrane of a resting neuron? A) K+ B) Na+ C) Ca2+ D) Cl− E) Mg2+ Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1 24) The depolarization phase of an action potential requires ________. A) opening of K+ channels in the membrane B) opening of Na+ channels in the membrane C) opening of Ca2+ channels in the membrane D) a K+ concentration gradient across the membrane E) a Ca2+ concentration gradient across the membrane Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1 25) If you experimentally increase the concentration of K+ inside a cell while maintaining other ion concentrations as they were, what would happen to the cell's membrane potential? A) The membrane potential would become more negative. B) The membrane potential would become less negative. C) The membrane potential would first become more negative then rebound to be positive. D) The membrane potential would remain the same. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1

26) What would be a consequence of a person having Na+ levels in the blood and interstitial fluids that are well below normal? A) Neurons would all be depolarized. B) Neurons would not be able to undergo normal action potentials. C) Action potentials would occur with greater frequency. D) Neurons would remain refractory following closure of voltage-gated sodium channels. E) K+ channels would open to compensate for changes in membrane potential. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1 27) If the activity of the sodium-potassium pump was completely stopped, what would happen to the neuron's membrane potential? A) Immediate loss of resting potential B) Immediate loss of action potentials C) Slow rise in membrane potential D) No effect Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1 28) Which of the following statements about action potentials is correct? A) Action potentials for a given neuron vary in magnitude. B) Action potentials for a given neuron vary in duration. C) Action potentials are propagated down the length of the axon. D) Movement of ions during the action potential occurs mostly through the sodium pump. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1

29) The organization of the nervous system with a large ganglion or brain at the anterior end of the organism is termed ________. A) integration B) a nerve net C) cephalization D) refraction E) bilateral symmetry Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.1 Section: 43.1 30) Self-propagation and refractory periods (or refractory states) are typical of ________. A) action potentials B) graded hyperpolarizations C) excitatory postsynaptic potentials D) threshold potentials E) resting potentials Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2 31) The "threshold" potential of a membrane is the ________. A) point of separation from a living to a dead neuron B) lowest frequency of action potentials a neuron can produce C) minimum hyperpolarization needed to prevent the occurrence of action potentials D) minimum depolarization needed to operate the voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels E) peak amount of depolarization seen in an action potential Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2

32) Action potentials move along axons ________. A) more slowly in axons of large than of small diameter B) by the direct action of acetylcholine on the axonal membrane C) by activating the sodium—potassium pump at each point along the axonal membrane D) more rapidly in myelinated than in unmyelinated axons E) by reversing the concentration gradients for sodium and potassium ions Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2 33) A toxin that binds specifically to voltage-gated sodium channels in axons would be expected to ________. A) prevent the hyperpolarization phase of the action potential B) prevent the depolarization phase of the action potential C) prevent graded potentials D) increase the release of neurotransmitter molecules E) have most of its effects on the dendritic region of a neuron Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2 34) After the depolarization phase of an action potential, the resting potential is restored by ________. A) the opening of sodium activation gates B) the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels and the closing of sodium channels C) a decrease in the membrane's permeability to potassium and chloride ions D) a brief inhibition of the sodium-potassium pump E) the opening of more voltage-gated sodium channels Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2

35) Immediately after an action potential passes along an axon, it is not possible to generate a second action potential. Thus, we state that the membrane is briefly ________. A) hyperexcitable B) refractory C) fully depolarized D) above threshold E) at the equilibrium potential Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2 36) In the sequence of permeability, changes for a complete action potential, the first of these events that occurs is the ________. A) activation of the sodium-potassium pump B) inhibition of the sodium-potassium pump C) opening of voltage-gated sodium channels D) closing of voltage-gated potassium channels E) opening of voltage-gated potassium channels Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2 37) The fastest possible conduction velocity of action potentials is observed in ________. A) small diameter, unmyelinated neurons B) small diameter, myelinated neurons C) large diameter, unmyelinated neurons D) large diameter, myelinated neurons Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2

38) Action potentials are normally carried in only one direction: from the axon hillock toward the axon terminals. If you experimentally depolarize the middle of the axon to threshold, using an electronic probe, then ________. A) no action potential will be initiated B) an action potential will be initiated and proceed only in the normal direction toward the axon terminal C) an action potential will be initiated and proceed only back toward the axon hillock D) two action potentials will be initiated, one going toward the axon terminal and one going back toward the hillock E) an action potential will be initiated, but it will die out before it reaches the axon terminal Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2 39) Why are action potentials usually conducted in one direction? A) The nodes of Ranvier conduct potentials in one direction. B) The refractory period prevents reopening of voltage-gated Na+ channels. C) The axon hillock has a higher membrane potential than the terminals of the axon. D) Ions can flow along the axon in only one direction. E) Voltage-gated channels for both Na+ and K+ open in only one direction. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2 40) Why do Na+ ions enter the cell when voltage-gated Na+ channels are opened in neurons? A) Because the Na+ concentration is much lower outside the cell than it is inside B) Because the Na+ ions are attracted to the negatively charged interior C) Because the Na+ ions are actively transported by the sodium-potassium pump into the cell D) Because the Na+ concentration is much higher outside the cell than it is inside, and the Na+ ions are attracted to the negatively charged interior E) Because the Na+ concentration is much higher outside the cell than it is inside, and the Na+ ions are actively transported by the sodium-potassium pump into the cell Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2

41) What would probably happen if a long neuron had one continuous myelin sheath down the length of the axon with no nodes of Ranvier? A) The action potential would be propagated nearly instantaneously to the synapse. B) There could be no action potential generated at the axon hillock. C) The signal would fade because it is not renewed by the opening of more sodium channels. D) The action potential would be propagated normally to the synapse. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2 42) A neurophysiologist is investigating nerve reflexes in two different animals: a crab and a fish. Action potentials are found to pass more rapidly along the fish's neurons. What is the most likely explanation? A) The fish's axons are smaller in diameter; small axons transmit action potentials faster than large axons do. B) Unlike the crab, the fish's axons are wrapped in myelin; myelination increases the speed of action potential transmission. C) There are more ion channels in the axons of the crab compared with fish axons. D) Unlike the crab, the fish's axons are wrapped in myelin, and the fish's axons are smaller in diameter; small axons transmit action potentials faster than large axons do. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2

43) Which letter in the accompanying figure corresponds to a large efflux of K+ ions from the cell? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2 44) Which letter in the accompanying figure corresponds to a large influx of Na+ ions into the cell? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2

45) Which letter in the accompanying figure corresponds to closed voltage-gated sodium channels and closed voltage-gated potassium channels? A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2 46) How do myelin sheaths increase the speed with which action potentials are propagated along an axon? A) They increase the permeability of Na+ ions in the plasma membrane. B) They amplify the action potential by increasing sodium influx along the entire distance of the neuron. C) They insulate the axon, preventing K+ ions from exiting the neuron. D) They cause action potentials to "jump" down the axon rather than travel in a continuous path along every site on the axon. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2 47) Tetrodotoxin blocks voltage-gated sodium channels and ouabain blocks sodium-potassium pumps. If you added both tetrodotoxin and ouabain to a solution containing neural tissue, what responses would you expect? A) Immediate loss of resting potential B) Immediate loss of action potential with gradual loss of resting potential C) Slow decrease of resting potential and action potential amplitudes D) No effect; the substances counteract each other. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2

48) Which of the following will increase the speed of an action potential moving down an axon? I. Action potentials move faster in larger-diameter axons. II. Action potentials move faster in axons lacking potassium ion channels. III. Action potentials move faster in myelinated axons. A) Only I and II B) Only II and III C) Only I and III D) I, II, and III Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2 49) In multiple sclerosis, the myelin sheaths around the axons of the brain and spinal cord are damaged and demyelination results. How does this disease manifest at the level of the action potential? I. Action potentials move in the opposite direction on the axon. II. Action potentials move more slowly along the axon. III. No action potentials are transmitted. A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) Only II and III E) Only I and II Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2 50) In a synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are released by ________. A) the dendritic membrane B) the presynaptic membrane C) axon hillocks D) cell bodies E) ducts on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3

51) In a synapse, neurotransmitter chemicals are received by ________. A) the postsynaptic membrane B) the presynaptic membrane C) axon hillocks D) cell bodies E) ducts on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3 52) The surface on a neuron that discharges the contents of synaptic vesicles is the ________. A) dendrite B) axon hillock C) node of Ranvier D) postsynaptic membrane E) presynaptic membrane Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3 53) Neurotransmitters are released from axon terminals via ________. A) osmosis B) active transport C) diffusion D) transcytosis E) exocytosis Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3

54) Neural transmission across a mammalian synapse is accomplished by ________. A) the movement of sodium and potassium ions from the presynaptic neuron into the postsynaptic neuron B) impulses traveling as electrical currents across the synapse C) impulses causing the release of a chemical signal and its diffusion across the synapse D) impulses ricocheting back and forth across the synapse E) the movement of calcium ions from the presynaptic into the postsynaptic neuron Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3 55) The release of acetylcholine from the terminal of a motor neuron is most directly linked to the ________. A) entry of potassium into the axon terminal B) exit of potassium from the axon terminal C) entry of sodium into the axon terminal D) exit of sodium from the axon terminal E) entry of calcium into the axon terminal Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3 56) Acetylcholine released into the junction between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle binds to a sodium channel and opens it. This is an example of ________. A) a voltage-gated sodium channel B) a voltage-gated potassium channel C) a ligand-gated sodium channel D) a second-messenger-gated sodium channel E) a chemical that inhibits action potentials Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3

57) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) occurs in a membrane made more permeable to ________. A) K+ B) Na+ C) Ca2+ D) ATP E) acetylcholine Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3 58) The following steps refer to various stages in transmission at a chemical synapse. 1. Neurotransmitter binds with receptors associated with the postsynaptic membrane. 2. Calcium ions rush into the neuron's cytoplasm. 3. An action potential depolarizes the membrane of the presynaptic axon terminal. 4. The ligand-gated ion channels open. 5. The synaptic vesicles release a supply of neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft. Which sequence of events is correct? A) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 5 B) 2 → 3 → 5 → 4 → 1 C) 3 → 2 → 5 → 1 → 4 D) 4 → 3 → 1 → 2 → 5 E) 5 → 1 → 2 → 4 → 3 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.2 59) What happens if the correct ligand binds to ligand-gated sodium channel in a postsynaptic neuron? A) An excitatory postsynaptic potential occurs. B) A second-messenger ion channel opens. C) A signal crosses an electrical synapse. D) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential occurs. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3 21 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

60) Neurotransmitters categorized as inhibitory are expected to ________. A) act independently of their receptor proteins B) close potassium channels C) open sodium channels D) close chloride channels E) hyperpolarize the membrane Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3 61) Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) produced nearly simultaneously by different synapses on the same postsynaptic neuron can also add together, creating ________. A) summation B) interference C) only action potentials D) the refractory state Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3 62) When two excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) occur at a single synapse so rapidly in succession that the postsynaptic neuron's membrane potential has not returned to the resting potential before the second EPSP arrives, the EPSPs add together, producing ________. A) summation B) inhibition C) tetanus D) the refractory state E) an action potential with an abnormally high peak of depolarization Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3

63) Receptors for neurotransmitters are of primary functional importance in assuring one-way synaptic transmission because they are mostly found on the ________. A) axonal membrane B) axon hillock C) postsynaptic membrane D) mitochondrial membrane E) presynaptic membrane Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3 64) Functionally, which cellular location is the neuron's "decision-making site" as to whether or not an action potential will be initiated? A) Axonal membranes B) Axon hillock C) Presynaptic membranes D) Mitochondrial membranes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3 65) Neurotransmitters can affect postsynaptic cells by ________. I. initiating signal transduction pathways in the cells II. causing molecular changes in the cells III. affecting ion-channel proteins IV. altering the permeability of the cells A) I and III B) II and IV C) II and III D) III and IV E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3

66) An important inhibitory neurotransmitter in humans is ________. A) acetylcholine B) dopamine C) glutamate D) nitric oxide E) gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3 67) An important excitatory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system (CNS) is ________. A) acetylcholine B) epinephrine C) glutamate D) nitric oxide E) gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3 68) Which neurotransmitter is involved in reducing perceptions of pain? A) Acetylcholine B) Endorphin C) Epinephrine D) Nitric oxide E) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3

69) Which neurotransmitter excites muscle cells? A) Acetylcholine B) Epinephrine C) Endorphin D) Nitric oxide E) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3 70) The botulinum toxin, which causes botulism, reduces the synaptic release of ________. A) acetylcholine B) epinephrine C) endorphin D) nitric oxide E) gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3 71) What is the space between the presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes? A) The axon hillock B) The nodes of Ranvier C) The synaptic cleft D) Synaptic vesicle membranes E) The myelin sheath Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3

72) Which of the following is a direct result of depolarizing the presynaptic membrane of an axon terminal? A) Voltage-gated calcium channels in the membrane open. B) Synaptic vesicles fuse with the membrane. C) The postsynaptic cell produces an action potential. D) Ligand-gated channels open, allowing neurotransmitters to enter the synaptic cleft. E) An excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) or inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is generated in the postsynaptic cell. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.2 Section: 43.3 73) Muscle cells are stimulated by neurotransmitters released from the synaptic terminals of ________. A) T tubules B) motor neuron axons C) sensory neuron axons D) motor neuron dendrites E) sensory neuron dendrites Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3 74) How could you increase the magnitude of inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) generated at a synapse? A) Increase sodium-potassium pump activity B) Increase K+ permeability C) Increase the influx of calcium D) All of the listed responses are correct. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3

75) Which of the following manipulations would reduce the release of neurotransmitter from a presynaptic neuron terminal? I. Reduction in extracellular calcium ion concentration at the axon terminal II. Increase in extracellular sodium ion concentrations at the axon terminal III. Addition of tetrodotoxin to the extracellular fluid at the axon terminal A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) Only II and III E) Only I and II Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3 76) What happens if twice as many inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) as excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) arrive at a postsynaptic neuron in close proximity? A) A stronger action potential results. B) A weaker action potential results. C) No action potential results. D) A normal action potential results. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3 77) In a synapse, what initiates the release of neurotransmitter? A) When an action potential depolarizes the presynaptic membrane B) When threshold potential is reached C) When enough voltage-gated sodium channels open to release calcium into the synapse D) The presence of gap junctions joining the synaptic membranes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3

78) Motor neurons release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh), and acetylcholinesterase degrades ACh in the synapse. If a neurophysiologist applies a large amount of onchidal (a naturally occurring acetylcholinesterase inhibitor produced by the mollusk Onchidella binneyi) to a synapse, what would you expect to happen? A) Paralysis of muscle tissue B) Gradual loss of resting potential C) Convulsions due to constant muscle stimulation D) Decrease in the frequency of action potentials E) No effect Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3 79) The somatic nervous system can alter the activities of its targets, the skeletal muscle fibers, because ________. A) it is electrically coupled by gap junctions to the muscles B) its signals bind to receptor proteins at synapses on the muscles C) its signals reach the muscles via the blood D) its light pulses activate contraction in the muscles E) it is connected to the internal neural network of the muscles Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.3 Section: 43.3 80) Which is NOT an element of the efferent division of the peripheral nervous system? A) Somatic motor neurons B) Parasympathetic neurons C) Sensory neurons D) Sympathetic neurons Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.4 Section: 43.4

81) Although an exact count is not available, it is likely that the human brain has how many neurons? A) Hundreds B) Thousands C) Millions D) Billions E) Trillions Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.4 Section: 43.4 82) Generally, reflexes require an intact ________. A) spinal cord B) hypothalamus C) corpus callosum D) cerebellum E) medulla Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.4 Section: 43.4 83) The divisions of the nervous system that have antagonistic, or opposing, actions are the ________. A) motor and sensory systems B) sympathetic and parasympathetic systems C) presynaptic and postsynaptic membranes D) forebrain and hindbrain E) central nervous system and peripheral nervous system Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.4 Section: 43.4

84) Preparation for the fight-or-flight response includes activation of the ________ nervous system. A) sympathetic B) somatic C) central D) visceral E) parasympathetic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.4 Section: 43.4 85) Exercise and emergency reactions include ________. A) increased activity in all parts of the peripheral nervous system B) increased activity in the sympathetic and decreased activity in the parasympathetic divisions C) decreased activity in the sympathetic and increased activity in the parasympathetic divisions D) increased activity in the enteric nervous system E) reduced heart rate and blood pressure Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.4 Section: 43.4 86) Increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system leads to ________. A) decreased heart rate B) increased secretion by the pancreas C) increased secretion by the gallbladder D) increased contractions of the stomach E) relaxation of the airways in the lungs Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.4 Section: 43.4

87) The activation of the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system is associated with ________. A) resting and digesting B) release of epinephrine into the blood C) increased metabolic rate D) fight-or-flight responses E) intensive aerobic exercise Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.4 Section: 43.4 88) Recent evidence supports that hypothesis that individual memories are stored ________. A) by small groups of neurons of the cerebrum B) by the frontal lobe of the brain C) by the autonomic nervous system D) in light-sensitive organs within the brain E) within cell bodies of the cerebellum Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.4 Section: 43.4 89) Short-term memory information processing usually causes changes in the ________. A) brainstem B) medulla C) hypothalamus D) hippocampus E) cranial nerves Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.4 Section: 43.4

90) Forming new long-term memories is strikingly disrupted after damage to the ________. A) thalamus B) hypothalamus C) cerebral cortex D) somatosensory cortex E) primary motor cortex Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.4 Section: 43.4 91) Imagine you are resting comfortably on a sofa after dinner. This could be described as a state with ________. A) increased activity in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems B) decreased activity in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems C) decreased activity in the sympathetic nervous system and increased activity in the parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems D) increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system and decreased activity in the parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.4 Section: 43.4 92) Damage to the frontal lobe, such as experienced by Phineas Gage, leads to ________. A) the loss of a sense of balance B) the loss of all short-term memory C) altered emotional responses D) greatly increased long-term memory Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.4 Section: 43.4

93) Which of the following structures or regions is correctly paired with its function? A) limbic system—motor control of speech B) medulla oblongata—emotional memory C) cerebellum—homeostatic control D) corpus callosum—communication between the left and right cerebral cortices E) amygdala—coordination of movement and balance Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 43.4 Section: 43.4 94) One of the complications of Alzheimer's disease is an interference with learning and memory. This disease would most likely involve ________. A) changes in the concentration of ions in the extracellular fluid surrounding neurons B) changes in myelination of axons C) changes to the chemical structure of neurotransmitters D) molecular and structural changes at synapses E) structural changes to ion channels in axons Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.4 Section: 43.4 95) Studies employing Aplysia suggest that memory formation requires ________. A) serotonin release B) synaptic plasticity C) electrical shock D) increased neuron firing rate Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.4 Section: 43.4

96) Neurogenesis, or the formation of new neurons, ________. A) occurs extensively in human brains B) stops after birth in mammals C) results in memory formation in Aplysia. D) occurs seasonally in songbird brains Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 43.4 Section: 43.4

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 44 Animal Sensory Systems 1) As you pull on a clean shirt, your skin feels the abrasion of rough fabric. Which type of sensory receptor is involved in this sensation? A) Mechanoreceptors B) Chemoreceptors C) Nociceptors D) Thermoreceptors E) Photoreceptors Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 44.1 Section: 44.1 2) Which of the following sensory receptors is correctly paired with its category? A) Hair cell—mechanoreceptor B) Muscle spindle—magnetoreceptor C) Taste receptor—mechanoreceptor D) Rod—chemoreceptor E) Olfactory receptor—electroreceptor Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.1 Section: 44.1 3) Which type of receptor would you expect to be most abundant in the antennae of a moth? A) Thermoreceptors B) Photoreceptors C) Chemoreceptors D) Electroreceptors E) Nociceptors Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 44.1 Section: 44.1

4) Deafness caused by loud sounds often results from damage to which receptor cells? A) Thermoreceptors B) Mechanoreceptors C) Chemoreceptors D) Electroreceptors E) Nociceptors Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.1 Section: 44.1 5) Damage to sensory receptor cells would most likely result in ________. I. confusion of visual and auditory input II. inaccurate integration of sensory information III. an inability to detect sensory information A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) Only II and III E) I, II, and III Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.1 Section: 44.1 6) A salmon follows a scent trail upstream to find its way back to the stream where it hatched. What type of sensory receptor cell would it use? A) Thermoreceptors B) Mechanoreceptors C) Chemoreceptors D) Electroreceptors E) Nociceptors Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 44.1 Section: 44.1

7) Bat echolocation (sonar) is most closely related to which human sensory system? A) Hearing B) Smell C) Taste D) Touch E) Vision Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2 Refer to the accompanying diagram of the ear to answer the question(s) below.

8) The structure involved in equalizing the pressure between the ear and the atmosphere is represented by which number? A) 1 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9 E) 10 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2

9) Vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the oval window are transmitted by the structures at which numbers? A) 1, 2, 3, and 4 B) 2, 3, and 4 C) 3 and 4 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2 10) The cochlea is represented by which number? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2 11) The middle ear converts ________. A) air pressure waves to fluid pressure waves B) fluid pressure waves to air pressure waves C) air pressure waves to nerve impulses D) fluid pressure waves to nerve impulses E) air pressure waves to hair cell movements Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2

12) Auditory transduction involves a change in membrane potential for which membrane? A) Tectorial membrane B) Tympanic membrane C) Round-window membrane D) Hair cell membrane E) Basilar membrane Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2 13) Sound waves arriving at a listener first strike the ________. A) tectorial membrane B) tympanic membrane C) round-window membrane D) hair cell membrane E) basilar membrane Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2 14) The pathway leading to the perception of sound by mammals begins with the ________. A) hair cells of the portion of the inner ear, which rests on the basilar membrane, coming in contact with the tectorial membrane B) hair cells of the portion of the inner ear, which rests on the tympanic membrane, coming in contact with the tectorial membrane C) hair cells of the portion of the inner ear, which rests on the tectorial membrane, coming in contact with the basilar membrane D) hair cells of the portion of the inner ear coming in contact with the tectorial membrane as a result of fluid waves in the cochlea causing vibrations in the round window E) hair cells on the tympanic membrane, which stimulate the tectorial membrane neurons, leading to the auditory section of the brain Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2

15) The cochlea is an organ of auditory transduction that contains ________. A) fluid and cells that can undergo mechanosensory transduction B) air and cells that produce wax C) air and small bones that vibrate in response to sound waves D) fluid with stacks of chemosensory cells E) air and statocysts activated by movement Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2 16) The perceived pitch of a sound depends on ________. A) which part of the tympanic membrane is being vibrated by sound waves B) which part of the oval window produces waves in the cochlear fluid C) which region of the basilar membrane was set in motion D) whether or not the sound moves the incus, malleus, and stapes E) whether or not the listener has had training in music Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2 17) Mechanoreceptors that react to changes in pressure are part of the ________. A) human sense of taste B) pain receptors in birds C) human sense of smell D) lateral line systems in fish E) eyes in arthropods Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2

18) The transduction of sound waves into action potentials by the human ear takes place ________. A) within the tectorial membrane as it is stimulated by the hair cells B) when hair cells are bent against the tectorial membrane, causing them to depolarize and release neurotransmitter that stimulates sensory neurons C) as the basilar membrane becomes more permeable to sodium ions and depolarizes, initiating an action potential in a sensory neuron D) as the basilar membrane vibrates at different frequencies in response to the varying volume of sounds E) within the middle ear as the vibrations are amplified by the malleus, incus, and stapes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2 19) Researchers surgically fuse two of the three bones in the inner ear of a mouse, effectively leaving two functional, linked bones in place of three. When the mouse's hearing is tested, what outcome would be expected? The mouse would be ________. A) more sensitive to sound, but only in the low-frequency range B) more sensitive to sound, but only in the high-frequency range C) more sensitive to sound in general D) less sensitive to sound in general Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2 20) How would an abnormally large oval window in a mouse affect that animal's hearing? A) The mouse could detect noise at much lower volumes. B) The mouse could detect noise in a much broader range of frequencies. C) Hearing ability would be reduced in comparison with normal mice. D) Hearing is not affected by the size of the oval window. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2

21) Which of the following would explain why a person was able to hear only high-frequency sounds? A) The tympanum is damaged because of chronic ear infections. B) The basilar membrane is stiffened along its entire length. C) The ear ossicles are abnormally thickened. D) All of these problems could result in inability to detect low-frequency sound. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2 22) Partial or complete loss of hearing (deafness) can be caused by damage to the ________. I. axons of the neurons associated with each hair cell that carry information to the brain II. hair cells (the sensory receptors) in the cochlea III. tympanic membrane or eardrum A) Only II B) Only III C) Only I and II D) Only II and III E) I, II, and III Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2 23) The cochlea ________. I. amplifies sound vibrations II. collects sound pressure waves III. detects the frequency of sounds A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) Only II and III E) I, II, and III Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2

24) Elephants hear sounds that are too low for humans to hear. What is the most likely explanation for the difference in sensitivity between humans and elephants? A) They differ in the arrangement and shape of the bones of the inner ear. B) They differ in the flexibility of the basilar membrane in the cochlea. C) Elephants have a larger and more flexible tympanic membrane. D) Elephants have larger diameter ear canal and larger external openings for their ears. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2 Refer to this diagram of the ear to answer the question(s) below.

25) Hair cells are found in structures represented by which numbers? A) 1 and 2 B) 3 and 4 C) 5 and 7 D) 6 and 8 E) 9 and 10 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2

26) How does the ear allow humans to distinguish the volume of different sounds? A) Louder sounds cause larger action potentials than do softer sounds. B) Louder sounds cause smaller action potentials than do softer sounds. C) Louder sounds induce a higher frequency of action potentials than do softer sounds. D) Louder sounds induce a lower frequency of action potentials than do softer sounds. E) Louder sounds cause larger action potentials than do softer sounds, and louder sounds induce a higher frequency of action potentials than do softer sounds. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2 27) Hair cells in the vertebrate ear are responsible for transducing sound pressure waves. Ion channels in the hair cell membrane open when ________. A) a chemical ligand binds to the ion channel B) light is absorbed by a molecule in the membrane C) the cell membrane reaches a threshold voltage D) the membrane is distorted mechanically Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2 28) If you experimentally reduce the concentration of K+ in the extracellular fluid surrounding hair cells in the inner ear, the result would be like which of the following? A) A decrease in the release of neurotransmitter by hair cells B) An increase in the release of neurotransmitter by hair cells C) A decrease in the size of action potentials by sensory neurons D) An increase in the size of action potentials by sensory neurons Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 44.2 Section: 44.2

29) How would the vision of a fly be affected if several of the axons extending from the ommatidia of its compound eye were damaged? A) The fly could not detect light in the affected eye. B) The fly would be color blind in the affected eye. C) The fly would have reduced resolution in the affected eye. D) The fly's vision would not be affected because the remaining functional ommatidia can adjust to compensate for the damaged ones. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 44.3 Section: 44.3 30) Corneal surgery is now routinely performed to change the shape of the cornea and improve vision. This surgery is beneficial because ________. A) the cornea is responsible for the circulation of nutrients to the eye B) the cornea is involved in focusing light onto the retina C) the cornea controls the amount of light entering the eye D) the cornea regulates the sensitivity of the photoreceptors Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 44.3 Section: 44.3 31) Light reflecting off an object in the environment is detected by photoreceptors after following which path? A) Lens > cornea > retina > ganglion cell layer > iris B) Cornea > lens > iris > ganglion cell layer > retina C) Retina > ganglion cell layer > lens > iris > cornea D) Cornea > iris > lens > ganglion cell layer > retina Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.3 Section: 44.3

32) It can be very difficult to select an angle for sneaking up to a grasshopper to catch it because grasshoppers have ________. A) excellent hearing for detecting predators B) compound eyes with multiple ommatidia C) eyes with multiple fovea D) a camera-like eye with multiple fovea E) binocular vision Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 44.3 Section: 44.3 33) Animals that can detect ultraviolet (UV) light differ from humans by having ________. A) larger eyes that can collect more UV light B) UV-specific opsins that extend their visible light spectrum C) thicker retinas that can capture UV light more efficiently D) additional visual sensors to allow detection of different light types Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 44.3 Section: 44.3 34) Sensory transduction of light in the vertebrate retina is accomplished by ________. A) ganglion cells B) amacrine cells C) bipolar cells D) horizontal cells E) rods and cones Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.3 Section: 44.3

35) During light detection in a photoreceptor, light directly causes what molecular change? A) Inactivation of phosphodiesterase B) A retinal change from cis to trans conformation C) Increase in cGMP levels D) Increase in Na+ entry into the photoreceptor Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.3 Section: 44.3 36) In the human retina, ________. A) cone cells can detect color, but rod cells cannot B) cone cells are more sensitive than rod cells to light C) cone cells, but not rod cells, have a visual pigment D) rod cells detect short wavelength UV light E) rod cells require higher illumination for stimulation than do cone cells Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.3 Section: 44.3 37) The blind spot in the human retina is the location that has the collected axons of ________. A) ganglion cells B) bipolar cells C) primary visual cortex D) optic chiasma E) lateral geniculate nuclei Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.3 Section: 44.3

38) What structures would neurobiologists look for if they are interested in determining whether an animal can see color? A) Opsins B) Electroreceptors C) Pupil D) Lens Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 44.3 Section: 44.3 39) How do citrus fruits such as lemons cause the basic taste of sour? A) The more acidic the food is, the more depolarization of the sensory receptor occurs. B) Ascorbic acid binds to sensory receptors on the plasma membrane of taste cells, which leads to the triggering of cellular activity that triggers a sour taste response. C) Sugars and ascorbic acid bind sensory receptors on the plasma membrane of taste cells, which leads to the triggering of cellular activity that triggers a sour taste response. D) Citric acid amplifies the sour taste of vitamin C when it binds to specialized receptors on the taste cells. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 44.4 Section: 44.4 40) Two students studying physiology taste a known "bitter" substance. Student A reports sensing both a bitter taste and a salty taste, but student B reports only a salty taste. What is the most logical explanation? A) Student A had an allergic reaction to the food, causing him to perceive the food as being bitter. B) Student A has normal "bitter" taste buds; student B has defective "bitter" taste buds that result in lower sensitivity to bitterness. C) Student A has a protein receptor capable of detecting a bitter molecule found in that substance, whereas student B lacks that particular protein receptor. D) Student A has normal saliva, whereas student B's saliva is more alkaline than normal. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 44.4 Section: 44.4

41) Tastes and smells are distinct kinds of environmental information in that ________. A) neural projections from taste receptors reach different parts of the brain than the neural projections from olfactory receptors B) the single area of the cerebral cortex that receives smell and taste signals can distinguish tastes and smells by the pattern of action potentials received C) taste stimulus molecules are airborne, whereas odorant molecules are dissolved in fluids D) distinguishing taste stimulus molecules requires learning, whereas smell discrimination is an innate process E) odorants bind to receptor proteins, but none of the taste molecules bind to receptors Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.4 Section: 44.4 42) Odorant molecules activate sensory neurons by ________. A) deflecting the cilia of hair cells, leading to the release of neurotransmitter B) binding to rhodopsin, leading to a change in cGMP levels C) passing through ion channels and altering membrane potentials D) binding to membrane-bound receptor proteins of sensory neurons E) altering basilar membrane stiffness to shift response by receptor cells Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.4 Section: 44.4 43) The umami receptor in the sense of taste detects ________. A) glucose B) sodium ions C) potassium ions D) hydrogen ions E) the amino acid glutamate Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.4 Section: 44.4

44) Most mammals have 1000 or more genes that encode receptor proteins on the surface of odor-receptor neurons, so why do some mammals have a better sense of smell than others? A) Some of the genes actively transcribing receptor proteins in some species are completely absent in other species. B) Some of the genes that code for receptor proteins may have been mutated and rendered inactive in some species but not in others. C) Some species, particularly humans, rely much less on odor detection for survival; thus, the genes have mutated to encode proteins that aid in other senses, such as sight. D) Some species of mammals have a larger set of "basic odors" than other species. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 44.4 Section: 44.4 45) External chemical signals that coordinate potential reproductive partners are called ________. A) hormones B) pheromones C) odorants D) cytokines E) gametes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.4 Section: 44.4 46) Pheromone detection in tetrapod vertebrates occurs primarily in which structure? A) Olfactory bulb B) Tongue C) Vomeronasal organ D) Temperature-sensitive pits E) Olfactory epithelium Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.4 Section: 44.4

47) Thermoreception allows pit vipers to ________. A) detect fast-moving endothermic predator species flying overhead B) detect heat signals from prey species C) communicate by heat signals between members of the same species D) stun prey with heat prior to capture E) follow heat trails of wounded prey Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.5 Section: 44.5 48) The ampullae of Lorenzini in sharks are used for ________. A) mechanoreception B) thermoreception C) electroreception D) magnetoreception E) photoreception Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.5 Section: 44.5 49) Homing pigeons rely on what two senses for navigation? A) Photoreception and electroreception B) Electroreception and magnetoreception C) Magnetoreception and thermoreception D) Thermoreception and chemoreception E) Magnetoreception and photoreception Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 44.5 Section: 44.5

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 45 Animal Movement 1) The contraction of skeletal muscles is based on ________. A) actin filaments coiling up to become shorter B) myosin filaments coiling up to become shorter C) actin and myosin filaments both coiling up to become shorter D) actin cross-bridges binding to myosin and undergoing a power stroke E) myosin cross-bridges binding to actin and undergoing a power stroke Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.1 Section: 45.1 2) The calcium ions released into the cytosol during excitation of skeletal muscle bind to ________. A) troponin—tropomyosin complex B) transverse tubules C) actin D) myosin Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.1 Section: 45.1 3) When muscle is at rest, the myosin head is bound to ________. A) ATP B) tropomyosin C) ADP plus an associated phosphate D) troponin E) actin Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.1 Section: 45.1

4) In a relaxed skeletal muscle, ________. A) thick and thin filaments overlap to the greatest extent possible B) sarcomeres are at their shortest length C) calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum D) the Z lines are farthest apart Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.1 Section: 45.1 5) Skeletal muscle contraction begins when calcium ions bind to ________. A) energized cross-bridges B) myosin C) actin D) acetylcholine receptors E) troponin Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.1 Section: 45.1 6) Which of the following is the correct sequence that describes the excitation and contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber? 1. Tropomyosin shifts and unblocks the cross-bridge binding sites. 2. Calcium is released and binds to the troponin complex. 3. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is depolarized when a wave of depolarization moves from the neuromuscular junction into the cell's interior by way of the transverse tubules. 4. The thin filaments are ratcheted across the thick filaments by the heads of the myosin molecules using energy from ATP. 5. An action potential in a motor neuron causes the axon to release acetylcholine, which depolarizes the muscle cell membrane at the neuromuscular junction. A) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 5 B) 2 → 1 → 3 → 5 → 4 C) 3 → 4 → 2 → 1 → 5 D) 5 → 3 → 1 → 2 → 4 E) 5 → 3 → 2 → 1 → 4 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.1 Section: 45.1 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) The structure pictured in the figure is found in ________. A) skeletal muscles and smooth muscles B) cardiac muscles and skeletal muscles C) smooth muscles and cardiac muscles D) smooth muscles, skeletal muscles, and cardiac muscles E) smooth muscles Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.1 Section: 45.2 8) Sections of actin filaments that are NOT overlapping with myosin are indicated by which letter in the figure? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.1 Section: 45.1

9) During the contraction of a vertebrate skeletal muscle fiber, calcium ions ________. A) break cross-bridges by acting as a cofactor in the hydrolysis of ATP B) bind with troponin, causing its shape to change so that the myosin-binding sites on actin are exposed C) transmit action potentials from the motor neuron to the muscle fiber D) spread action potentials through the T tubules E) reestablish the polarization of the plasma membrane following an action potential Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.1 Section: 45.1 10) What would happen to people exposed to a chemical warfare agent that blocked acetylcholine from binding to muscle receptors? A) Action potentials would be continuously generated, causing convulsive muscle contractions. B) Muscle contractions would be prevented, causing paralysis. C) Muscle contractions could still occur, but relaxation of the muscle would be impaired. D) Action potentials would be continuously generated, causing convulsive muscle contractions; muscle contractions would then be prevented, causing paralysis. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 45.1 Section: 45.1 11) When an action potential from a motor neuron arrives at the neuromuscular junction, a series of events occurs that leads to muscle contraction. Which of the following events will occur last (that is, after all of the others)? A) Acetylcholine release B) Action potential propagation down the T tubules C) Conformational change in troponin D) Depolarization of the muscle cell E) Release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.1 Section: 45.1

12) A patient is hospitalized with muscle spasms caused by failure of back muscles to relax after contraction. Which of the following would be most likely to help? A) Injecting calcium into the muscle cell, because it is not being released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum B) Inducing tropomyosin-troponin complex to block the myosin binding sites on actin C) Increasing the amount of acetylcholine at the synapses between motor neurons and muscle cells D) Depolarizing the motor neurons to send an action potential to the muscle cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 45.1 Section: 45.1 13) What causes rigor mortis? A) Exhaustion of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum B) Lack of ATP in dead tissue C) Lack of acetylcholine (ACh) in dead tissue D) Cessation of action potentials after death Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.1 Section: 45.1 14) Motor neurons release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, and acetylcholinesterase degrades in the synapse. If a neurophysiologist applies onchidal (a naturally occurring acetylcholinesterase inhibitor produced by the mollusk Onchidella binneyi) to a synapse, what would you expect to happen? A) Paralysis of muscle tissue B) Gradual loss of resting potential C) Convulsions due to constant muscle stimulation D) Decrease in the frequency of action potentials E) No effect Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 45.1 Section: 45.1

15) Which muscle type(s) is (are) composed of multinucleate cells resulting from the fusion of many embryonic cells? A) Smooth muscle B) Cardiac muscle C) Skeletal muscle D) Smooth and cardiac muscle E) Cardiac and skeletal muscle Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.2 Section: 45.2 16) Which muscle type(s) is (are) involuntary? A) Smooth muscle B) Cardiac muscle C) Skeletal muscle D) Smooth and cardiac muscle E) Cardiac and skeletal muscle Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.2 Section: 45.2 17) All skeletal muscle fibers are ________. A) smooth and under involuntary control B) smooth and operate independently of other skeletal muscle fibers C) striated and under voluntary control D) smooth and under voluntary control E) striated and electrically connected to neighboring fibers Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.2 Section: 45.2

18) Cardiac muscle cells are both ________. A) striated and interconnected by intercalated disks B) striated and operate independently of other cardiac cells C) smooth and under voluntary control D) striated and under voluntary control E) smooth and under involuntary control Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.2 Section: 45.2 19) Food moves along the digestive tract as the result of contractions by ________. A) cardiac muscle B) smooth muscle C) voluntary muscle D) striated muscle E) skeletal muscle Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.2 Section: 45.2 20) Compared to slow oxidative muscle fibers, those classified as fast glycolytic fibers typically have ________. A) a higher concentration of myoglobin B) a higher density of mitochondria C) a darker visual appearance D) a smaller diameter E) less resistance to fatigue Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.2 Section: 45.2

21) What is the effect of the release of norepinephrine by the sympathetic nervous system? A) Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle relax. B) Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are activated and increase the force of their muscle contractions. C) Smooth muscle relaxes, while cardiac muscle has increased contractile force. D) Cardiac muscle relaxes, while smooth muscle is stimulated to increase activity. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.2 Section: 45.2 22) The marathon is a 26.2-mile-long, endurance running race. Successful marathon runners will benefit from having leg muscles with a relatively high amount of ________. A) slow muscle fibers B) intermediate muscle fibers C) smooth muscle fibers D) cardiac muscle fibers E) fast muscle fibers Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 45.2 Section: 45.2 23) What is an explanation for the pectoral or breast meat of ducks being very dark in color? A) Ducks use their wings for very short flights and need fast muscle fibers to power their takeoffs. B) Ducks are primarily swimmers and therefore do not need breast muscles full of "white meat." C) Ducks employ intermediate muscle fibers for swimming and flying. D) Ducks fly long distances and need myoglobin-rich slow muscle fibers to power highendurance flights. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 45.2 Section: 45.2

24) Compared to parallel muscles, pennate muscles ________. A) produce more force and undergo greater shortening B) produce more force and undergo less shortening C) produce less force and undergo greater shortening D) produce less force and undergo less shortening Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.2 Section: 45.2 25) Muscles are joined to bones by ________. A) ligaments B) tendons C) loose connective tissue D) dermal tissue E) spindle fibers Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.3 Section: 45.3 26) The hydrostatic skeleton of the earthworm allows it to move around in its environment by ________. A) walking on its limbs B) crawling with its feet C) swimming with its setae D) using peristaltic contractions of its circular and longitudinal muscles E) alternating contractions and relaxations of its flagella Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.3 Section: 45.3

27) The structure that connects bone to bone in vertebrate skeletal systems is a(n) ________. A) tendon B) ligament C) osteoclast D) hydrostatic skeleton Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.3 Section: 45.3 28) Why are the muscles used for movement in insects often pennate? A) The limited space within insect exoskeletons requires muscle that generates high force without changing size significantly. B) Insects molt to grow their skeleton. C) The internal muscle includes both flexor and extensor muscles. D) Insects require muscle that generates large length changes to compensate for lack of joints in the skeleton. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.2 Section: 45.2 29) An endoskeleton is the primary body support for the ________. A) annelids, including earthworms B) insects, including beetles C) cartilaginous fishes, including sharks D) bivalves, including clams E) crustaceans, including lobsters Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.3 Section: 45.3

30) Chitin is a major component of the ________. A) skeleton of mammals B) hydrostatic skeletons of earthworms C) exoskeleton of insects D) body hairs of mammals E) skeleton in birds Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.3 Section: 45.3 31) Against which structure do the circular and longitudinal muscles of annelids work? A) Bristles B) Cuticle C) Shell D) Endoskeleton E) Hydrostatic skeleton Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.3 Section: 45.3 32) The functions of the vertebrate skeleton include which of the following? I. Maintenance of body posture II. Calcium homeostasis III. Transfer of muscle forces A) Only I and II B) Only II and III C) Only III D) Only I and III E) I, II, and III Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.3 Section: 45.3

33) How does skeletal muscle return to its starting length after a contraction? A) It lengthens itself by reversing the contraction process. B) It undergoes recoil due to the elastic properties of tendons. C) Antagonistic muscles work to lengthen a given muscle once it relaxes. D) Ligaments bind muscles together Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.1, 45.2, 45.3 Section: 45.3 34) What cell types within bone are responsible for the breakdown of bone tissue to permit reabsorption of calcium? A) Osteoblasts B) Fibroblasts C) Osteoclasts D) Myocytes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.3 Section: 45.3 35) Among these choices, the most energetically efficient locomotion per unit mass is likely ________. A) running by a 50-gram rodent B) running by a 40-kilogram ungulate C) flying by a 100-gram bird D) swimming by a 10-gram minnow (bony fish) E) swimming by a 100-kilogram tuna (bony fish) Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, QR V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 45.4, 45.5 Section: 45.4

36) Which forces are most important during terrestrial locomotion? A) Buoyancy and drag forces B) Lift and drag forces C) Gravity and inertial forces D) Inertial forces and buoyancy E) Gravity and drag forces Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.4 Section: 45.4 37) R. McNeill Alexander demonstrated that tendons improve the efficiency of running by ________. A) connecting bones to bones and keeping the skeleton intact B) storing and releasing energy like a spring with each step C) generating force to re-lengthen muscle once it relaxes D) acting like a stiff rod and communicating force without stretching Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, QR V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.4 Section: 45.4 38) Why do horses tend to move at only limited ranges of speeds? A) They are only capable of one speed for each of their gaits—walk, trot, gallop. B) Walking is the most energetically costly form of locomotion for horses. C) Because of their size, horses have limited gaits and, therefore, limited speeds. D) They locomote using the most energy-efficient combinations of gait and speed. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 45.4 Section: 45.4

39)

Body mass (grams)

0.001 0.01 0.1 1 10 100 1000 10,000 100,000 1,000,000

Cost of flying Cost of swimming Cost of running locomotion locomotion locomotion (calories per gram (calories per gram (calories per gram per kilogram) per kilogram) per kilogram) 75 50 15 9 5 7 3 40 5 1 10 2 0.5 8 3 1 0.4

For a 100-gram animal, what is the most costly form of locomotion? A) Swimming B) Flying C) Running D) Both flying and swimming Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF, QR V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 45.4, 45.5 Section: 45.4

40) What is the best explanation for why elephants stand with a more upright posture and have relatively thicker bones than cats? A) Cats and elephants are from different taxonomic groups and therefore differ in appearance. B) Cats eat meat and elephants eat plants, requiring different bodies. C) Cats are smaller and need to run faster; therefore, they have smaller bones and a crouching posture. D) Because they have a much greater volume, elephants require a disproportionately larger cross-sectional area of their bones than cats. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 45.4 Section: 45.4

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 46 Chemical Signals in Animals 1) Radioimmunoassay is a technique developed by Rosalind Yallow that allows researchers to quantify the amount of hormone present. To successfully complete the test, which of the following must be present in the sample? I. A blood sample containing the hormone II. A radioactively labeled version of the hormone III. Target cells for the hormone IV. Antibodies to the hormone A) I and II B) II and III C) I, II, and III D) II, III, and IV E) I, II, and IV Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.1 Section: 46.1 2) Why must some endocrine response systems rely on signal transduction? A) The signal is hydrophilic, and the membrane is hydrophilic. B) The signal is hydrophobic, and the membrane is hydrophobic. C) The signal is hydrophilic, and the membrane is hydrophobic. D) The signal is hydrophobic, and the membrane is hydrophilic. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.2 Section: 46.2 3) Complete this statement: "In many cases, hormone production is directly or indirectly controlled by ________." A) the nervous system B) positive feedback C) paracrines D) autocrines Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.4 Section: 46.2 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) Chemical signals that act on the same cells that secrete them are called ________. A) hormones B) autocrine signals C) neurohormones D) neurotransmitters E) paracrine signals Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.1 Section: 46.1 5) In experiments where researchers suspect that a hormone may be responsible for a certain physiological effect, they may cut the neurons leading to the organ where the effect being studied occurs. What is the purpose of cutting these neurons? A) To make sure that the effect is not occurring through actions in the nervous system B) To make sure that the organ being affected cannot function unless the researchers stimulate it with an external electrical probe C) To impair the normal functions of the organ so that the hormonal effect can be more easily studied D) To numb the organ so that it can be probed without inducing pain in the lab animal Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 46.1 Section: 46.1 6) What is the only type of chemical signal that diffuses locally and affects nearby cells? A) Hormones B) Autocrine signals C) Neurohormones D) Neurotransmitters E) Paracrine signals Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.1 Section: 46.1

7) Which of these glands has both exocrine and endocrine function? A) Thyroid B) Pituitary C) Parathyroid D) Pancreas Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.1 Section: 46.1 8) Most animal hormones ________. A) are produced by endocrine glands B) are lipid-soluble molecules C) are carried to target cells in the blood or hemolymph D) are protein molecules E) elicit the same biological response from all of their target cells Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.1 Section: 46.1 9) Testosterone is an example of a chemical signal that affects the very cells that synthesize it, the neighboring cells in the testis, along with distant cells outside the gonads. Thus, testosterone is an example of ________. I. an autocrine signal II. a paracrine signal III. an endocrine signal A) Only I and II B) Only II and III C) Only I and III D) I, II, and III Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.1 Section: 46.1

10) A cell with membrane-bound proteins that selectively bind a specific hormone is called the ________ for that hormone. A) secretory cell B) plasma cell C) endocrine cell D) target cell E) regulatory cell Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.2 Section: 46.2 11) In a lactating mammal, the two hormones that promote milk synthesis and milk release, respectively, are ________. A) prolactin and calcitonin B) prolactin and oxytocin C) follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone D) luteinizing hormone and oxytocin E) prolactin and luteinizing hormone Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.4 Section: 46.4 12) Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) are synthesized in the ________. A) hypothalamus B) adenohypophysis C) anterior pituitary D) adrenal cortex E) posterior pituitary Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.1 Section: 46.1

13) Which of the following is an endocrine gland? A) Parathyroid glands B) Salivary glands C) Sweat glands D) Sebaceous glands E) Gallbladder Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.1 Section: 46.1 14) Which of the following has both endocrine and exocrine activity? A) The pituitary gland B) Parathyroid glands C) Salivary glands D) The pancreas E) Adrenal glands Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.1 Section: 46.1 15) Analysis of a blood sample from a fasting individual who had not eaten for 24 hours would be expected to reveal high levels of ________. A) insulin B) glucagon C) secretin D) gastrin E) glucose Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 46.3 Section: 46.3

16) Which of the following statements are correct? I. Hormones often regulate homeostasis through antagonistic functions. II. Hormones of the same chemical class usually have the same function. III. Hormones are secreted by specialized cells usually located in exocrine glands. IV. Hormones are often regulated through feedback loops. A) Only I and II B) Only II and III C) Only I and III D) Only III and IV E) Only I and IV Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.3 Section: 46.3 17) An example of two hormones that have opposite effects in maintaining homeostasis is ________. A) thyroxine and parathyroid hormone in calcium balance B) insulin and glucagon in glucose metabolism C) progestins and estrogens in sexual differentiation D) epinephrine and norepinephrine in fight-or-flight responses E) oxytocin and prolactin in milk production Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.3 Section: 46.3 18) Which hormone is correctly paired with its action? A) Oxytocin—stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth B) Thyroxine—affects biological rhythms, seasonal reproduction C) Insulin—stimulates glycogen breakdown in the liver D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)—stimulates metabolic processes E) Melatonin—stimulates the release of glucocorticoids by the adrenal cortex Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.1 Section: 46.1

19) Steroid and peptide hormones typically have in common ________. A) the building blocks from which they are synthesized B) their solubility in cell membranes C) their requirement for travel through the bloodstream D) the location of their receptors E) their reliance on signal transduction in the cell Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.2 Section: 46.2 20) If a biochemist discovers a new molecule, which of the following pieces of data would allow them to draw the conclusion that the molecule is a steroid hormone? I. The molecule is lipid soluble. II. The molecule is derived from a series of steps beginning with cholesterol. III. The molecule acts at a target tissue some distance from where it is produced. IV. The molecule uses a carrier protein when in an aqueous solution such as blood. A) Only I and III B) Only II and IV C) Only I, III, and IV D) Only II and III E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.2 Section: 46.2 21) Which hormone is produced from cholesterol? A) Leptin B) Luteinizing hormone C) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone D) Cortisol E) Oxytocin Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.2 Section: 46.2

22) Polypeptides can have which of the following types of effects? I. Autocrine II. Paracrine III. Endocrine A) Only I and III B) Only II and III C) Only I and II D) I, II, and III Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.2 Section: 46.2 23) For hormones that homeostatically regulate cellular functions, ________. A) negative feedback typically regulates hormone secretion B) the circulating level of a hormone is held constant through a series of positive feedback loops C) both lipid-soluble hormones and water-soluble hormones bind to intracellular protein receptors D) endocrine organs release their contents into the bloodstream via specialized ducts E) it is impossible to also have neural regulation of that system Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.1 Section: 46.1 24) Which of the following best describes the neuroendocrine-to-endocrine pathway of hormone action? A) A structure within the nervous system produces and releases a hormone that regulates the activity of an endocrine gland. B) A structure within the nervous system produces a hormone and releases it directly onto an endocrine gland. C) A gland releases hormones directly into a neural structure, thus regulating neural functions. D) A gland exhibits negative feedback on the nervous system by releasing hormones into neural tissue both directly and indirectly through the circulation. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.1 Section: 46.1

25) The hormone that stimulates the production of red blood cells and the organ where this hormone is synthesized are ________. A) growth hormone and pancreas, respectively B) erythropoietin and kidney, respectively C) cortisol and adrenal gland, respectively D) epinephrine and adrenal gland, respectively E) acetylcholine and bone marrow, respectively Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.1 Section: 46.1 26) When adenylyl cyclase is activated, ________. A) cAMP is synthesized B) cAMP is degraded C) G proteins bind to cAMP D) steroid hormones pass through the lipid bilayer Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.2 Section: 46.2 27) After drinking alcoholic beverages, increased urine excretion is the result of ________. A) increased aldosterone production B) increased blood pressure C) inhibited secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) D) increased reabsorption of water in the proximal tubule E) the osmoregulator cells of the brain increasing their activity Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.3 Section: 46.3

28) Which of the following is NOT a chemical class of hormones? A) Peptides and polypeptides B) Complex carbohydrates C) Steroids D) Amino acid derivatives Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.2 Section: 46.2 29) The receptor for the steroid hormone estradiol is found ________. A) on the cell membrane B) within the cytoplasm C) as an extracellular element in the blood D) primarily within the nucleus E) either within the cytoplasm or the nucleus Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.2 Section: 46.2 30) If a person loses a large amount of water in a short period of time, they may die from dehydration. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) can help reduce water loss through its interaction with its target cells in the ________. A) anterior pituitary B) posterior pituitary C) adrenal gland D) bladder E) kidney Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.3 Section: 46.3

31) Epinephrine activates ________, leading to ________. A) aquaporin activity; increased reabsorption of water B) the thyroid gland; increased metabolism C) hormone production by the testes; development of secondary sex characteristics D) a cAMP signal cascade; increased blood glucose E) reduced activity by the anterior pituitary; reduced growth Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.3 Section: 46.3 32) The signal cascade activated by epinephrine leads to ________. A) the amplification of the epinephrine signal, increasing the release of glucose B) the reduction in metabolic rate through downregulation of thyroid activity C) the amplification of the epinephrine signal, increasing the release of calcium from bone D) the cessation of fight-or-flight response by activating the parasympathetic response Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.3 Section: 46.3 33) What property of steroid hormones allows them to cross the phospholipid bilayer? A) Steroid hormones are lipid soluble. B) Steroid hormones can act in very small concentrations and very few molecules of steroids need to cross the lipid bilayer. C) Steroid hormones act on cells close to where they were produced and very few molecules are required to travel such a short distance to cross the lipid bilayer. D) Steroid hormones act on the same cells in which they are produced and, therefore, are within the cell they are acting upon. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.2 Section: 46.2

34) Estrogen is a(n) ________. A) peptide hormone B) amine derivative C) lipid-soluble hormone D) iodinated protein hormone made by the thyroid gland E) gaseous neurotransmitter Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.2 Section: 46.2 35) Hormone X activates the cAMP second messenger system in its target cells. The greatest response by a cell would come from ________. A) applying a molecule of hormone X to the extracellular fluid surrounding the cell B) injecting a molecule of hormone X into the cytoplasm of the cell C) applying a molecule of cAMP to the extracellular fluid surrounding the cell D) injecting a molecule of cAMP into the cytoplasm of the cell E) injecting a molecule of activated, cAMP-dependent protein kinase into the cytoplasm of the cell Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 46.2 Section: 46.2 36) Estradiol is an example of ________. A) an androgen B) an estrogen C) a progestin D) a catecholamine E) a glucocorticoid Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.2 Section: 46.2

37) Which of the following are examples of amplification of a hormone signal? I. Epinephrine initiates an enzyme cascade. II. Steroids bind hormone-response elements in the cell and initiate transcription of many genes. III. A quantity of 0.09 mg of growth hormone leads to a 10,000-mg weight gain in a cow. IV. Different cell types have different receptors capable of binding the same hormone. A) Only I and III B) Only II and IV C) Only I, II, and III D) Only II and III E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.2 Section: 46.2 38) Which of the following is characteristic of a steroid hormone action? A) Protein phosphorylation B) Cell-surface hormone receptor binding C) Cytosolic hormone receptor binding D) Second messenger activation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.2 Section: 46.2 39) Which of the following is TRUE during a typical cAMP-type signal transduction event? A) The second messenger is the last part of the system to be activated. B) The hormone activates the second messenger by directly binding to it. C) The second messenger amplifies the hormonal response by attracting more hormones to the cell being affected. D) Adenylyl cyclase is activated after the hormone binds to the cell and before phosphorylation of proteins occurs. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.2 Section: 46.2

40) The effects of the hormone ecdysone on development in insects depend on the levels of which hormone? A) Thyroxine B) Juvenile hormone C) Oxytocin D) Brain hormone E) Prothoracic hormone Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.3 Section: 46.3 41) Fight-or-flight reactions include activation of the ________. A) parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate B) thyroid gland, leading to an increase in the blood calcium concentration C) anterior pituitary gland, leading to cessation of gonadal function D) adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine E) pancreas, leading to a reduction in the blood sugar concentration Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.3 Section: 46.3 42) In response to stress, the adrenal gland promotes the synthesis of glucose from noncarbohydrate substrates via the action of the steroid hormone ________. A) glucagon B) cortisol C) epinephrine D) thyroxine E) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.3 Section: 46.3

43) The steroid hormone that coordinates molting in arthropods is ________. A) ecdysone B) glucagon C) thyroxine D) oxytocin E) growth hormone Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.3 Section: 46.3 44) In human embryonic development, which of the following pairs of hormones are released by the developing testes and result in development of the male reproductive tract and inhibition of the female reproductive tract? A) Testosterone and estrogen B) Estrogen and progesterone C) Testosterone and Müllerian inhibitory substance D) Estradiol and estrogen E) Testosterone and estradiol Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.3 Section: 46.3 45) During puberty, the development of sex-specific traits results from a surge of ________ in boys and ________ in girls. A) testosterone; cortisol B) juvenile hormone; estradiol C) estradiol; ecdysone D) testosterone; estradiol E) male growth hormone; female growth hormone Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.3 Section: 46.3

46) Glucocorticoids do which of the following? A) Promote the immune response B) Promote the release of fatty acids C) Increase blood glucose levels D) Increase insulin production Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.3 Section: 46.3 47) Tadpoles must undergo a major metamorphosis to become frogs. This change includes reabsorption of the tail, growth of limbs, calcification of the skeleton, increase in rhodopsin in the eye, development of lungs, change in hemoglobin structure, and reformation of the gut from the long gut of an herbivore to the short gut of a carnivore. Amazingly, all of these changes are induced by triiodothyronine. What is the most likely explanation for such a wide array of effects of thyroxine? A) There are many different forms of triiodothyronine, each specific to a different tissue. B) Different tissues have triiodothyronine receptors that activate different signal transduction pathways. C) Some tissues have membrane receptors for triiodothyronine, while other tissues have triiodothyronine receptors within the nucleus. D) Different releasing hormones release triiodothyronine to different tissues. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 46.2 Section: 46.2 48) Xenoestrogens are an example of what group of chemicals described by Rachel Carson in her book Silent Spring? A) Glucocorticoids B) Sex hormones C) Endocrine disruptors D) Stress hormones E) Mineralocorticoids Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.3 Section: 46.3

49) Which of the following is an example of negative feedback? A) During birthing contractions, oxytocin is released and acts to stimulate further contractions. B) When a baby is nursing, suckling leads to the production of more milk and a subsequent increase in the secretion of prolactin. C) A stressful stimulus leads to the release of epinephrine, which increases fatty acid and glucose in the blood and cardiovascular activity. D) When the level of glucose in the blood increases, the pancreas produces and releases the hormone insulin. Insulin acts to decrease blood glucose. As blood glucose decreases, the rate of production and release of insulin decreases. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.1, 46.3 Section: 46.3 50) A physician finds that a nine-year-old male patient is entering puberty much earlier than the usual. Such a condition is most likely the result of a tumor in the ________. A) hypothalamus, directly producing elevated levels of testosterone B) anterior pituitary, directly producing elevated levels of testosterone C) testes, directly producing elevated levels of estrogen D) anterior pituitary, directly producing elevated levels of gonadotropin-stimulating hormone Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 46.1, 46.3, 46.4 Section: 46.4 51) Hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland are made in the ________. A) cerebrum B) cerebellum C) thalamus D) hypothalamus E) medulla oblongata Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.4 Section: 46.4

52) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) functions at the cellular level by ________. A) stimulating the reabsorption of glucose through channel proteins B) triggering the synthesis of an enzyme that makes the phospholipid bilayer more permeable to water C) causing membranes to include more phospholipids that have unsaturated fatty acids D) activating aquaporin molecules of collecting duct cells E) decreasing the speed at which filtrate flows through the nephron, leading to increased Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.3, 46.4 Section: 46.4 53) Oxytocin helps initiate labor in mammals. During labor and delivery, the contraction of uterine muscles increases the release of oxytocin. This is an example of ________. A) a negative feedback system B) a hormone that acts in an antagonistic way with another hormone C) a hormone that is involved in a positive feedback loop D) signal transduction immediately changing gene expression in its target cells E) the key role of the anterior pituitary gland in regulating uterine contraction Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.1, 46.4 Section: 46.4 54) The interrelationships between the endocrine and the nervous systems are especially apparent in a ________. A) neuron in the spinal cord B) steroid-producing cell in the adrenal cortex C) neurosecretory cell in the hypothalamus D) brain cell in the cerebral cortex E) cell in the pancreas that produces digestive enzymes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.4 Section: 46.4

55) Neurons in the hypothalamus regulate the activity of secretory cells in the anterior pituitary gland by ________. A) forming synapses on cells in the anterior pituitary B) releasing regulatory hormones that increase activity in the adrenal medulla C) forming synapses on the adrenal gland that in turn regulates the pituitary D) secreting releasing hormones into special blood vessels that connect the hypothalamus to the pituitary E) releasing oxytocin Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.1, 46.4 Section: 46.4 56) A tumor that decreases the production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) would lead to a decrease in plasma levels of ________. A) glucocorticoid hormones B) epinephrine C) corticotropin-releasing hormone D) testosterone E) acetylcholine Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 46.4 Section: 46.4 57) During a stressful interval, ________. A) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) stimulates the adrenal cortex and medulla to secrete acetylcholine B) the alpha cells of islets secrete insulin and simultaneously the beta cells of the islets secrete glucagon C) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex, and neurons of the sympathetic nervous system stimulate the adrenal medulla D) the posterior pituitary gland secretes more growth hormones E) the calcium levels in the blood are increased due to actions of two antagonistic hormones, epinephrine and norepinephrine Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.3, 46.4 Section: 46.3

58) The increased contraction of the human uterus during labor and delivery is at least partially due to the actions of ________. A) ecdysone B) glucagon C) thyroxine D) oxytocin E) growth hormone Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.4 Section: 46.4 59) Removing which of the following glands would have the most wide-reaching effect on bodily functions of an adult human? A) Adrenal glands B) Pituitary gland C) Thyroid gland D) Ovaries (in female) or testes (in male) Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 46.1, 46.4 Section: 46.4 60) Predict the immediate effects of a drug that increases adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) synthesis. A) Increase in glucocorticoid production B) Increase in release of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) C) Decrease in cortisol release D) Decrease in release of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 46.1, 46.4 Section: 46.4

61) The regulation of blood sugar levels and our stress responses are controlled in part by a negative feedback loop involving cortisol, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), and corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH). What would likely be the result during times of stress if cortisol receptors in the hypothalamus were nonfunctional? A) Blood sugar levels would rise to dangerous levels. B) Blood sugar levels would be unaffected. C) ACTH production would cease. D) CRH production would cease. E) Cortisol production would cease. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, MS LO: 46.4 Section: 46.4 62) The release of hormones by the posterior pituitary is the result of what process? A) The anterior pituitary regulates the activity of the posterior pituitary gland. B) The release of regulatory hormones increases activity in the adrenal medulla, altering the activity of the posterior pituitary. C) Neurosecretory cells of the hypothalamus directly release hormones into blood vessels within the posterior pituitary. D) Hypothalamic neurons form synapses on the adrenal gland, which in turn regulates the pituitary. E) Releasing hormones from the hypothalamus directs the production and release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 46.4 Section: 46.4

Interpret the model.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 63) If cortisol levels are low, the production of CRH will be low. Answer: FALSE LO: 46.1; EO: 46.1.2 64) This is a positive feedback loop. Answer: FALSE LO: 46.1; EO: 46.1.2 65) When cortisol levels are high, the production of CRH will be low. Answer: TRUE LO: 46.1; EO: 46.1.2 66) The levels of ACTH depend on the levels of CRH. Answer: TRUE LO: 46.1; EO: 46.1.2 67) Three endocrine glands are represented in the model. Answer: TRUE LO: 46.1; EO: 46.1.2 68) Two hormones are represented in the model. Answer: FALSE LO: 46.1; EO: 46.1.2

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 47 Animal Reproduction and Development 1) Asexual reproduction results in offspring that are genetically identical to their parent. What type of cell process commonly occurs to generate this type of offspring? A) Mitosis B) Spermatogenesis C) Cell fusion D) Oogenesis Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1 2) Which of the following is most TRUE of sexual reproduction? A) Sexual reproduction allows for more rapid population growth than does asexual reproduction. B) Only half of the offspring from sexually reproducing females are also females. C) Asexual reproduction produces offspring of greater genetic variety. D) Sexual reproduction is completed more rapidly than asexual reproduction. E) Asexual reproduction is better suited to environments with extremely varying conditions. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1 3) Which of the following correctly describes the reproduction of males in Daphnia? A) Daphnia males are produced asexually from unfertilized eggs. B) Daphnia males are produced sexually through fertilization of eggs but are sterile from birth. C) Daphnia males are produced from a pseudosexual union of two eggs. D) Daphnia males are produced asexually but are sterile from birth. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1

4) Why was it informative for researchers to study the proximate causation of Daphnia switching reproductive tactics in the laboratory? A) Daphnia in the wild were genetically identical and the laboratory was the only place where Daphnia would reproduce sexually. B) Daphnia could not obtain enough energy in the wild to reproduce sexually. C) Daphnia were no longer available in the wild when the investigations occurred. D) The density of Daphnia populations could be easily manipulated in the laboratory. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1 5) In an animal that switches between sexual and asexual reproduction, when is sexual reproduction more likely to occur? A) When conditions for survival are favorable B) When conditions for survival are unfavorable C) When males and females find each other D) What conditions favor sexual over asexual reproduction remains a complete mystery. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1 6) An advantage of asexual reproduction is that it ________. A) allows the species to endure long periods of unstable environmental conditions B) enhances genetic variability in the species C) maintains successful genetic combinations without modification D) produces offspring that respond effectively to new pathogens E) allows a species to easily rid itself of harmful mutations Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1

7) The fibrous layer that surrounds an oocyte is called the ________. A) vitelline envelope B) jelly layer C) corona radiate D) plasma membrane E) acrosome Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1 8) Asexual reproduction results in greater reproductive success than sexual reproduction when ________. A) pathogens are rapidly diversifying B) a species has accumulated numerous deleterious mutations C) there is some potential for rapid overpopulation D) a species is expanding into diverse geographic settings E) a species is in stable and favorable environments Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1 9) Sexual reproduction ________. A) allows animals to conserve resources and reproduce only during optimal conditions B) can produce diverse phenotypes that may enhance survival of a population in a changing environment C) yields more numerous offspring more rapidly than is possible with asexual reproduction D) enables males and females to remain isolated from each other while rapidly colonizing habitats E) guarantees that both parents will provide care for each offspring Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1

10) All individuals of a particular species of whiptail lizards are females. Their reproductive efforts depend on ________. A) fertilization of their eggs by males of other lizard species B) gonadal structures that only undergo mitosis C) parthenogenesis D) budding prior to the development of a sexual phenotype E) fission of diploid gametes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1 11) For water fleas of the genus Daphnia, switching from a pattern of asexual reproduction to sexual reproduction coincides with ________. A) environmental conditions becoming more favorable for offspring B) greater abundance of food resources for offspring C) periods of temperature or food stresses on adults D) completion of puberty E) exhaustion of an individual's supply of eggs Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1 12) In vertebrate animals, spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ in that ________. A) oogenesis begins at the onset of sexual maturity, whereas spermatogenesis begins during embryonic development B) oogenesis produces four functional haploid cells, whereas spermatogenesis produces only one functional spermatozoon C) the division of cytoplasm is unequal in oogenesis, whereas it is equal in spermatogenesis D) oogenesis ends at menopause, whereas spermatogenesis is finished before birth E) spermatogenesis is not completed until after fertilization occurs, but oogenesis is completed by the time a girl is born Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1

13) Mature human sperm and ova are similar in that they ________. A) both have the same number of chromosomes B) are approximately the same size C) each have a flagellum that provides motility D) are produced from puberty until death E) are formed before birth Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1 14) Which of the following is an example of sexual reproduction? A) Parthenogenesis in lizards B) Budding in sponges C) Fission in Amoeba D) Fertilization in Daphnia Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1 15) Asexual reproduction results in offspring that are genetically identical to their parent. What type of cellular process occurs to generate this type of offspring? A) Mitosis B) Meiosis C) Cell fusion D) Gametogenesis Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1

16) Which of the following correctly describes a difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis? A) Spermatogenesis results in four mature sperm cells, whereas oogenesis results in one mature egg cell. B) Spermatogenesis results in one mature sperm cell, whereas oogenesis results in four mature egg cells. C) In spermatogenesis, mitosis occurs twice and meiosis once; in oogenesis, mitosis occurs once and meiosis twice. D) In spermatogenesis, mitosis occurs three times and meiosis once; in oogenesis, mitosis occurs twice and meiosis twice. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1 17) During oogenesis, meiosis results in ________. A) four equally sized cells that stop dividing in meiosis I B) two equally sized cells that are both typically fertilized C) two equally sized cells, but only one that is typically fertilized D) two or three small cells and one large cell that develops further if fertilized Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1 18) Which of the following characterizes parthenogenesis? A) An individual may change his or her sex during his or her lifetime. B) Specialized groups of cells grow into new individuals. C) An organism is first a male and then a female. D) An egg develops without being fertilized. E) Both mates have male and female reproductive organs. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1

19) For which of the following is the number the same in spermatogenesis and oogenesis? A) Gametes produced over the lifetime of an organism B) Functional gametes produced by meiosis C) Meiotic divisions required to produce each gamete D) Gametes produced in a given time period E) Different cell types produced by meiosis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1 20) On a submarine expedition to the ocean bottom, you discover a population of fish that are only female. What type of reproduction does this fish most likely use? A) Sexual B) Budding C) Cloning D) Parthenogenesis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1 21) You decide to study two species of birds, both of which form monogamous pairs (one male and one female). In species 1, the eggs in a pair's nest are almost always the offspring of that pair. In species 2, many of the eggs in a nest were actually fathered by males of neighboring pairs. Apparently, mating outside of monogamous pairings is widespread in species 2. What would be the logical prediction to make before comparing the testes size of males of the two species? A) Testes of species 1 are larger than testes of species 2. B) Testes of species 2 are larger than testes of species 1. C) The testes size of species 1 will increase throughout its lifespan, eventually becoming larger than that of species 2. D) There is no relationship between this observation and the size of testes. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1

22) Which statement about human reproduction is correct? A) Fertilization occurs in the uterus. B) In humans, spermatogenesis and oogenesis function best at normal, core body temperatures. C) A human oocyte completes meiosis after a sperm penetrates it. D) The earliest stages of spermatogenesis occur closest to the lumen of the seminiferous tubules. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.1 Section: 47.1 23) Among human males, the passage within the penis through which sperm moves is the ________. A) vas deferens B) urinary bladder C) seminal vesicle D) urethra E) ureter Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2 24) Internal and external fertilization both ________. A) produce single-celled zygotes B) occur only among invertebrates C) occur only among terrestrial animals D) depend on the use of copulatory organs E) occur only among birds Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.3 Section: 47.3

25) Among nonmammalian vertebrates, the cloaca is an anatomical structure that functions as ________. A) a specialized sperm-transfer device produced only by males B) a shared pathway for the digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems C) a region bordered by the labia minora and clitoris in females D) a source of nutrients for developing sperm in the testes E) a gland that secretes mucus to lubricate the vaginal opening Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2 26) Contact of a sperm with signal molecules in the jelly layer of an egg causes the sperm to undergo ________. A) mitosis B) depolarization C) apoptosis D) meiosis E) the acrosome reaction Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.3 Section: 47.3 27) In birds, a shell forms on the egg in the ________. A) uterus B) vagina C) oviduct D) cervix E) cloaca Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2

28) An oocyte released from a human ovary enters the ________. A) uterus B) vagina C) oviduct D) cervix E) cloaca Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2 29) The junction of the upper vagina and the uterus is called the ________. A) fallopian tube B) clitoris C) oviduct D) labia majora E) cervix Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2 30) Among mammals, the male and female genital structures that consist mostly of erectile tissue include the ________. A) penis and clitoris B) vas deferens and oviduct C) testes and ovaries D) seminiferous tubules and cervix E) prostate and ovaries Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2

31) Human sperm cells develop from spermatogonia in the ________. A) prostate gland B) vas deferens C) testes D) epididymis E) seminal vesicles Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2 32) The surgical removal of the seminal vesicles would likely ________. A) cause sterility because sperm would not be produced B) cause sterility because sperm would not be able to exit the body C) greatly reduce the volume of semen D) enhance the fertilization potency of sperm in the uterus E) cause the testes to migrate back into the abdominal cavity Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2 33) Accessory fluids that contribute to the semen are produced by all of the following structures EXCEPT ________. A) prostate gland B) bulbourethral gland C) vas deferens D) seminal vesicle Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2

Refer to the accompanying figure, which diagrams the reproductive anatomy of the human female, to answer the question(s) below.

34) In the accompanying figure, which letter points to the uterus? A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2 35) In the figure, which letter points to the oviduct? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2

36) In the figure, which letter points to the cervix? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2

Refer to the accompanying figure, which diagrams the reproductive anatomy of the human male, to answer the question(s) below.

37) In the accompanying figure, which letter points to the scrotum? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2

38) In the accompanying figure, which letter points to the testis? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2 39) In the figure, which letter points to the urethra? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2 40) In the figure, which letter points to the prostate gland? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2

41) In the figure, which letter points to the vas deferens? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2 42) In male mammals, excretory and reproductive systems share the ________. A) testes B) urethra C) seminal vesicle D) vas deferens E) prostate Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2 43) In the human male reproductive system, secretions from ________ produce molecules that stimulate smooth muscle contractions in the female uterus. A) prostate gland B) seminal vesicles C) bulbourethral gland D) testes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2

44) Fertilization of a human egg takes place in the ________. A) ovary B) fallopian tube C) cervix D) vagina E) uterus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2 45) At the time of fertilization, the maturation of the human oogonium has resulted in ________. A) one secondary oocyte B) two primary oocytes C) four secondary oocytes D) four primary oocytes E) four zygotes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.3 Section: 47.3 46) Sperm cells mature and are stored within human males in the ________. A) urethra B) prostate C) epididymis D) seminal vesicles E) bulbourethral gland Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.2 Section: 47.2

47) Sperm-egg membrane fusion immediately proceeds in which step in fertilization? A) Acrosome reaction B) Chemical signaling by egg to attract sperm C) Entry of sperm nucleus into egg D) Flagellar hyperactivity E) Contact of the sperm head with the egg's plasma membrane Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.3 Section: 47.3 48) Why does external fertilization typically occur much more often in aquatic animals than in terrestrial animals? A) The gametes are hydrophobic, so they must be suspended in water to avoid clumping. B) The gametes must be produced in large numbers, which can occur only in aquatic environments. C) Terrestrial species typically only have one testis, limiting sperm production. D) The gametes must be kept wet to avoid desiccation. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 47.3 Section: 47.3 49) When female fruit flies mate with two different males on the same day, ________. A) the first male's sperm fertilizes all of the eggs B) the first male's sperm fertilizes most of the eggs C) the second male's sperm fertilizes most of the eggs D) the first and second males fertilize equal numbers of eggs E) none of the eggs become fertilized Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.3 Section: 47.3

50) Animals that have external fertilization are most likely to reproduce in which of the following areas? A) Sand dune B) Polar ice sheet C) Shallow lake D) Tallgrass prairie Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.3 Section: 47.3 51) Ovoviviparous species are distinguished by what trait? A) Offspring are nourished via a placenta prior to live birth. B) Offspring are nourished via the egg's yolk and then hatch from eggs. C) Offspring are nourished via the egg's yolk prior to live birth. D) Offspring receive nourishment from the male parent. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.3 Section: 47.3 52) Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events for sexual reproduction in most vertebrates? A) Mitosis → zygote → meiosis → gametes → embryo B) Meiosis → zygote → mitosis → gametes → embryo C) Mitosis → gametes → meiosis → zygote → embryo D) Meiosis → gametes → mitosis → zygote → embryo E) Meiosis → gametes → zygote → mitosis → embryo Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.1, 47.3, 47.4 Section: 47.4

53) The correct sequence of events in the development of humans and other mammals is ________. A) cleavage, gastrulation, organogenesis, and then formation of a blastula B) gastrulation, formation of a blastula, cleavage, and then organogenesis C) cleavage, formation of a blastula, gastrulation, and then organogenesis D) gastrulation, organogenesis, formation of a blastula, and then cleavage Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.4 Section: 47.4 54) Cytoplasmic determinants help organize what aspect of the embryo? A) Inner cell mass position B) Trophoblast fate C) Body axes D) Brain size Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.4 Section: 47.4 55) During gastrulation, ________. A) the neural tube forms B) the blastula forms C) somites form D) three germ layers form Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.4 Section: 47.4

56) During cleavage, the number of cells ________, while the size of individual cells ________. A) increases; increases B) increases; decreases C) decreases; increases D) decreases; decreases Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.4 Section: 47.4 57) Gastrulation is an important event in early embryonic development. Which of the following is NOT a result of gastrulation? A) Formation of three embryonic cell layers B) Movement and alignment of many embryonic cells C) The formation of a gastrula D) The formation of specialized adult tissues Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.4 Section: 47.4 58) Which of the following correctly displays the sequence of developmental stages? A) Blastula → gastrula → cleavage B) Blastula → cleavage → gastrula C) Cleavage → gastrula → blastula D) Cleavage → blastula → gastrula E) Gastrula → blastula → cleavage Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.4 Section: 47.4

59) Cells move to new positions as an embryo establishes its three germ-tissue layers during ________. A) determination B) cleavage C) fertilization D) induction E) gastrulation Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.4 Section: 47.4 60) The outer-to-inner sequence of tissue layers in a post-gastrulation vertebrate embryo is ________. A) endoderm → ectoderm → mesoderm B) mesoderm → endoderm → ectoderm C) ectoderm → mesoderm → endoderm D) ectoderm → endoderm → mesoderm E) endoderm → mesoderm → ectoderm Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.4 Section: 47.4 61) If gastrulation was blocked by an environmental toxin, then ________. A) cleavage would not occur in the zygote B) embryonic germ layers would not form C) fertilization would be blocked D) the blastula would not be formed E) the blastopore would form the mouth Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 47.4 Section: 47.4

62) The vertebrate ectoderm is the origin of the ________. A) nervous system B) liver C) pancreas D) heart E) kidneys Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.4 Section: 47.4 63) In frog embryos, the blastopore becomes the ________. A) anus B) ears C) eyes D) nose E) mouth Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.4 Section: 47.4 64) In a frog embryo, gastrulation ________. A) produces a blastocoel B) occurs prior to cleavage C) is impossible because of the large amount of yolk in the ovum D) proceeds as cells roll over the lip of the blastopore E) occurs within the inner cell mass that is embedded in the large amount of yolk Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.4 Section: 47.4

65) Which of the following is a correct description of the fate of the germ layers? A) The mesoderm gives rise to the skeletal system. B) The endoderm gives rise to the hair follicles. C) The ectoderm gives rise to the liver. D) The mesoderm gives rise to the lungs. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.4 Section: 47.4 66) From earliest to latest, the overall sequence of early development proceeds in which of the following sequences? A) Gastrulation → organogenesis → cleavage B) Ovulation → gastrulation → fertilization C) Cleavage → gastrulation → organogenesis D) Gastrulation → blastulation → neurulation E) Preformation → morphogenesis → neurulation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.4 Section: 47.4 67) Changes in cell position occur extensively during ________. A) organogenesis, but not during gastrulation or cleavage B) cleavage, but not during gastrulation or organogenesis C) fertilization and cleavage, but not during gastrulation D) gastrulation and cleavage E) gastrulation Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.4 Section: 47.4

68) The fluid-filled cavity within the frog blastula is called the ________. A) blastopore B) mouth C) blastocoel D) anus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.4 Section: 47.4 69) The embryonic precursor to the human brain is the ________. A) notochord B) neural tube C) mesoderm D) archenteron E) set of bilateral somites Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.4 Section: 47.4 70) Somites give rise to all of the following tissues EXCEPT ________. A) bone tissue B) muscle tissue C) nervous tissue D) dermal skin tissue E) connective tissue Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.4 Section: 47.4

71) Which of the following statements support the hypothesis that the onset of puberty is related to nutritional state? I. On average, puberty occurs at a younger age now than it did 200 years ago. II. Girls with large fat stores generally enter puberty earlier than girls without. III. The nutritional state of the U.S. population is much better than it was 200 years ago. A) Only I and III B) Only II and III C) Only I and II D) Only II E) I, II, and III Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 47.5 Section: 47.5 72) In humans, the follicular cells that remain behind in the ovary following ovulation become ________. A) the ovarian endometrium that is shed at the time of the menses B) the corpus luteum, which secretes the steroid hormones progesterone and estradiol. C) the thickened portion of the uterine wall D) swept into the fallopian tube E) the placenta, which secretes cervical mucus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.5 Section: 47.5 73) A primary difference between the estrous and menstrual cycles is that ________. A) the endometrium shed by the uterus during the estrous cycle is reabsorbed with no extensive fluid flow out of the body, whereas the shed endometrium of menstrual cycles is excreted from the body B) behavioral changes during estrous cycles are much less apparent than those of menstrual cycles C) season and climate have less pronounced effects on estrous cycles than they do on menstrual cycles D) copulation normally occurs across the estrous cycle, whereas in menstrual cycles copulation only occurs during the period surrounding ovulation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.5 Section: 47.5 26 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

74) In correct chronological order, the three phases of the human ovarian cycle are ________. A) menstrual → ovulation → luteal B) follicular → luteal → secretory C) menstrual → proliferative → secretory D) follicular → ovulation → luteal E) proliferative → luteal → ovulation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.5 Section: 47.5 75) A contraceptive pill that continuously inhibits the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus will ________. A) increase the production of estrogen and progesterone by the ovaries B) initiate ovulation C) reduce the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) from the anterior pituitary gland D) stimulate the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) from the posterior pituitary gland E) increase the flow phase of the menstrual cycle Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 47.5 Section: 47.5 76) An inactivating mutation in the progesterone receptor gene would likely result in ________. A) the absence of secondary sex characteristics B) the absence of pituitary gonadotropin hormones C) the inability of the uterus to support pregnancy D) enlarged and hyperactive uterine endometrium E) the absence of mammary gland development Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 47.5 Section: 47.5

77) A reproductive hormone that is secreted directly from a structure in the brain is ________. A) testosterone B) estradiol C) progesterone D) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) E) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 46.1, 47.5 Section: 47.5 78) The primary function of the corpus luteum is to ________. A) nourish and protect the egg cell B) produce prolactin in the alveoli C) maintain progesterone and estrogen synthesis after ovulation has occurred D) stimulate the development of the mammary glands E) support pregnancy in the second and third trimesters Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.5 Section: 47.5 79) For the initial days following ovulation in a nonpregnant menstrual cycle, the main source of progesterone is the ________. A) adrenal cortex B) anterior pituitary C) corpus luteum D) developing follicle E) placenta Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.5 Section: 47.5

80) Ovulation is the follicular response to a burst of secretion of ________. A) luteinizing hormone (LH) B) progesterone C) inhibin D) prolactin E) estradiol Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.5 Section: 47.5 81) Prior to ovulation, the primary steroid hormone secreted by the growing follicle is ________. A) luteinizing hormone (LH) B) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) C) inhibin D) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) E) estradiol Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.5 Section: 47.5 82) The hypothalamic hormone that stimulates the secretion of sex hormones like FSH by the anterior pituitary gland is ________. A) progesterone B) luteinizing hormone C) testosterone D) gonadotropin-releasing hormone E) estradiol Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.5 Section: 47.5

83) Hormone-based methods of birth control typically provide a continuous or cyclical dose of which hormone? A) Progesterone B) Luteinizing hormone C) Follicle-stimulating hormone D) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone E) Testosterone Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.5 Section: 47.5 84) The drug mifepristone terminates pregnancy by ________. A) inhibiting release of gonadotropins from the pituitary B) blocking progesterone receptors in the uterus C) preventing release of the secondary oocyte from the ovary D) reducing sexual interest E) prolonging the endurance of the corpus luteum Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.5 Section: 47.5 85) Among these contraception methods, the highest risk of accidental pregnancy is associated with ________. A) the use of a diaphragm B) the use of a condom C) withdrawal D) an intrauterine device E) the rhythm method Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.5 Section: 47.5

86) The use of birth control pills (oral contraceptives) ________. A) reduces the incidence of ovulation B) prevents fertilization by keeping the sperm and egg physically separated by a mechanical barrier C) prevents implantation of an embryo D) prevents sperm from exiting the male urethra E) prevents oocytes from entering the uterus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.5 Section: 47.5 87) Peaks of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) production occur during ________. A) the menstrual flow phase of the uterine cycle B) the beginning of the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle C) the period just before ovulation D) the end of the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle E) the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.5 Section: 47.5 88) Which of the following is a TRUE statement? A) All mammals have menstrual cycles. B) The endometrial lining is shed in menstrual cycles but reabsorbed in estrous cycles. C) Estrous cycles are more frequent than menstrual cycles. D) Estrous cycles are not controlled by hormones. E) Ovulation occurs before the endometrium thickens in estrous cycles. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 47.5 Section: 47.5

89) During the menstrual cycle, ________ peaks first, ________ peak next, and finally ________ peaks. A) estradiol; luteinizing hormone (LH) and progesterone; follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) B) progesterone; luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH); estradiol C) estradiol; luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH); progesterone D) estradiol; luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH); testosterone E) testosterone; estradiol and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH); progesterone Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.5 Section: 47.5 90) Testosterone is synthesized primarily by ________. A) sperm cells B) neurons of the hypothalamus C) cells within the testes D) secretory cells of the anterior pituitary gland E) cells lining the seminiferous tubules Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.5 Section: 47.5 91) At the end of a nonpregnant human ovarian cycle, the breakdown and discharge of the lining of the uterus is called ________. A) menstruation B) lactation C) fertilization D) menopause E) ovulation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.5 Section: 47.5

92) Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the lack of a filter blocking the passage of alcohol between the maternal and fetal circulations in humans? A) There has not been enough time to evolve such a barrier. B) Such a barrier would probably also block important molecules that need to be passed to the fetus. C) The maternal and fetal blood mix directly together in an area with many villi, so a barrier is impossible. D) Alcohol has some positive effects on the fetus, so evolution has resulted in an intermediate level of filtering that blocks all but the worst abuses of alcohol. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 47.6 Section: 47.6 93) What embryo-produced hormone maintains progesterone and estrogen secretion by the corpus luteum through the first trimester of pregnancy? A) luteinizing hormone (LH) B) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) C) progesterone D) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) E) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.6 Section: 47.6 94) Labor contractions can be increased by the medical use of a synthetic drug that mimics the action of ________. A) testosterone B) luteinizing hormone C) oxytocin D) prolactin E) vasopressin Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.6 Section: 47.6

95) Which of the following contributes to the continued development and maintenance of the uterus during pregnancy? A) Inhibin B) Testosterone C) Oxytocin D) Prolactin E) Progesterone Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.6 Section: 47.6 96) Imagine that a woman is in the final week of her pregnancy. Her doctor gives her an injection of oxytocin. The likely result of this is that the pregnant woman would ________. A) undergo the loss of oxytocin receptors from her uterine smooth muscle cells B) stop secreting prostaglandins from the placenta C) undergo vigorous contractions of her uterine muscles D) increase the synthesis and secretion of progesterone E) be prevented from lactation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 47.6 Section: 47.6 97) During human gestation, rudiments of all organs develop ________. A) in the first trimester B) in the second trimester C) in the third trimester D) while the embryo is in the oviduct E) during the blastocyst stage Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.6 Section: 47.6

98) A pregnant woman past her due date comes into the hospital. The doctor decides it is time for the baby to be delivered. Before performing a cesarean section, the doctor wants to try to induce labor. Which of the following would she most likely inject? A) Estrogen B) Progesterone C) Luteinizing hormone (LH) D) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) E) Oxytocin Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 47.6 Section: 47.6 99) Which statement describes a difference in the development of marsupial versus eutherian (or placental) mammals? A) Marsupial young are ejected at the end of the estrous cycle, as the corpus luteum is not maintained. B) Marsupials undergo a longer gestation, hence the long time spent in the pouch. C) Only eutherians are born with well-formed jaws, gut, and forelimbs. D) Marsupials hatch from an egg, whereas eutherians are born. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 47.6 Section: 47.6 100) In excreted urine, a reliable "marker" that a pregnancy has initiated is ________. A) progesterone B) estrogen C) follicle-stimulating hormone D) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) E) hypothalamic-releasing hormones Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.6 Section: 47.6

101) During pregnancy, mother's cardiovascular and pulmonary systems can change in which of the following ways? I. Larger heart II. Larger lungs III. Faster heart beat IV. Faster breathing V. Increased blood volume A) Only I and II B) Only III and IV C) Only I, III, and V D) Only I, III, IV and V E) I, II, III, IV, and V Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.6 Section: 47.6 102) Birth is complete once ________. A) the baby is born B) the placenta is delivered C) the baby begins to nurse D) oxytocin is released from the posterior pituitary gland Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.6 Section: 47.6 103) What two organs show particularly rapid growth and development in the last weeks of pregnancy? A) Stomach and kidneys B) Brain and heart C) Lungs and brain D) Kidneys and lungs E) Eyes and ears Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.6 Section: 47.6

104) The amnion that contains the protective amniotic fluid is derived from what embryonic structure? A) Inner cell mass B) Trophoblast C) Notochord D) Somite E) Blastocoel Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 47.6 Section: 47.6

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 48 The Immune System in Animals 1) Innate immunity ________. A) is activated immediately upon infection B) depends on an infected animal's previous exposure to the same pathogen C) is based on recognition of antigens that are specific to different pathogens D) is found only in vertebrate animals E) utilizes highly specific antigen receptors on B cells Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.1 Section: 48.1 2) A fruit fly, internally infected by a potentially pathogenic fungus, is protected by its ________. A) plasma cells B) immunoglobulins C) antibodies D) Toll proteins E) B cells Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.1 Section: 48.1 3) Phagocytic cells of innate immunity of vertebrates include ________. I. neutrophils II. macrophages III. platelets IV. mast cells A) Only I and II B) Only II and IV C) Only I and IV D) Only I, II, and III E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.1 Section: 48.1 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) An inflammation-causing signal released by mast cells at the site of an infection is ________. A) an interferon B) lymphatic fluid C) histamine D) mucus E) sodium ions Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.1 Section: 48.1 5) The most inclusive set of symptoms of inflammation is ________. A) heat, pain, and redness B) pain and whitening of the surrounding tissue C) swelling and pain D) antibody-producing cells E) swelling, heat, redness, and pain Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.1 Section: 48.1 6) The cells and signaling molecules involved in the initial stages of the inflammatory response are ________. A) phagocytes and lysozymes B) macrophages and chemokines C) dendritic cells and interferons D) mast cells and histamines E) lymphocytes and interferons Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.1 Section: 48.1

7) Inflammatory responses typically include ________. A) clotting proteins migrating away from the site of infection B) increased activity of phagocytes in an inflamed area C) reduced permeability of blood vessels to conserve plasma D) release of substances to decrease the blood supply to an inflamed area E) inhibiting the release of white blood cells from bone marrow Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.1 Section: 48.1 8) Mutant fruit flies that do not make Toll protein were tested for survival after fungal infection.

The results shown in the accompanying graph support the hypothesis that ________. A) Toll protein is necessary for protection from death by fungal infection B) after fungal infection, wild-type flies die more rapidly than mutants lacking the Toll protein C) flies lacking the Toll protein die within one day of a fungal infection D) Toll proteins have a delayed affect in killing flies Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS, QR LO: 48.1 Section: 48.1

9) Antigens are ________. A) immunoglobulins B) used by the immune system to neutralize foreign objects C) foreign molecules that can initiate an immune response D) produced by white blood cells Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.1 Section: 48.1 10) A boy falls while riding his bike. A scrape on his hand almost immediately begins to bleed and becomes red, warm, and swollen. What response is occurring? A) Inflammatory response B) Lytic response C) Adaptive immune response D) Autoimmune response Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.1 Section: 48.1 11) The immune response that is rapid but generic is called ________. A) acquired immune response B) adaptive immune response C) individual immune response D) innate immune response Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.1 Section: 48.1

12) How does the immune system of vertebrates utilize a chemical concentration gradient? A) The immune system produces thousands of histamines that act solely to create a histamine diffusion barrier. B) The immune system generates a gradient of reactive oxygen intermediates to increase the amount of toxic radicals and peroxides to combat invading pathogens. C) The immune system releases chemical signals called chemokines, which create a chemical gradient that leukocytes use in migrating toward the infection site. D) The vertebrate immune system does not use chemical gradients. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.1 Section: 48.1 13) Adaptive immunity is based upon ________. A) traits common to groups of pathogens B) antigen-specific recognition C) maternal provision of antibodies to offspring D) plants being exposed to new pathogens E) having exhausted all options for innate immunity responses Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.2 Section: 48.2 14) An epitope is ________. A) part of the interferon molecule that penetrates foreign cells B) a protein protruding from the surface of B cells C) two structurally similar antibodies dissolved in the blood plasma D) the part of an antigen that actually binds to an antibody, BCR or TCR E) a mirror image of an antigen Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.2 Section: 48.2

15) What type of immunoglobulin is the most associated with breast feeding? A) IgG B) IgD C) IgA D) IgM E) IgE Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.2 Section: 48.2 16) Lymphocytes mature in the ________. I. spleen II. thymus III. bone marrow A) Only I and III B) Only I and II C) Only II and III D) I, II, and III Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.2 Section: 48.2 17) If you were developing artificial B-cell receptors (BCRs) based on the natural version and wanted to change the BCRs' ability to bind certain antigens, which region of the natural receptor would you alter? A) Transmembrane domain B) The V and J regions of the light-chain and heavy-chain components of the BCR immunoglobulin C) The C region of the light-chain and heavy-chain components of the BCR immunoglobulin D) The region projecting into the cytosol of the cell Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.2 Section: 48.2

18) What major advantage is conveyed by having a system of adaptive immunity? A) It enables a rapid defense against an antigen that has been previously encountered. B) It enables an animal to counter most pathogens almost instantly the first time they are encountered. C) It results in effector cells, each of which has specificity for a large number of antigens. D) It allows for the destruction of antibodies. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.2, 48.4 Section: 48.2 19) Antibodies of the different classes IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, and IgE differ from each other ________. A) in the way they are produced B) in their heavy-chain structure C) in the type of cell that produces them D) by the antigenic determinants that they recognize Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.2 Section: 48.2 20) A newborn who is accidentally given a drug that destroys the thymus would most likely ________. A) lack class I major histocompatibility (MHC) molecules on cell surfaces B) lack innate immunity C) be unable to genetically rearrange antigen receptors D) be unable to differentiate and mature T cells E) have a reduced number of B cells and be unable to form antibodies Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.2 Section: 48.2

21) An immunoglobulin molecule has a light chain made up of ________. A) one C region, one J region, and two V regions B) one C region, two J regions, and one V region C) one D region, one J region, and one V region D) one C region, one J region, and one V region E) one C region, one D region, and one J region Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.2 Section: 48.2 22) The ability of one person to produce over a million different antibody molecules does not require over a million different genes; rather, this wide range of antibody production is due to ________. A) alternative splicing of exons after transcription B) increased rate of mutation in the RNA molecules C) genetic DNA recombination D) rearrangements of cytosolic proteins in the thymus cells E) crossing over between the light and heavy chains of each antibody molecule during meiosis I Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.2 Section: 48.2 23) An epitope associates with which part of an antibody? A) The disulfide bridge B) The heavy-chain constant regions only C) Variable regions of a heavy chain and light chain combined D) The light-chain constant regions only E) The tail Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.2 Section: 48.2

24) B-cell receptors bind to antigens that are either freely dissolved or present on the surface of invading or foreign cells. T-cell receptors ________. A) are active only in lymph nodes B) bind only to antigens present on the surface of the invading or foreign cells C) bind only to freely dissolved antigens in the plasma D) bind to antigen fragments presented on major histocompatibility (MHC) complexes by host cells E) bind to antigens that are either freely dissolved or present on the surface of invading or foreign cells Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.3 Section: 48.3 25) The major histocompatibility (MHC) molecule is important in a T cell's ability to ________. A) distinguish self from nonself B) recognize specific parasitic pathogens C) identify specific bacterial pathogens D) identify specific viruses E) recognize differences among types of cancer Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.2, 48.3 Section: 48.3 26) The activation of helper T cells is likely ________. A) when an antigen is displayed by a dendritic cell B) when a cytotoxic T cell releases cytokines C) when natural killer cells come in contact with a tumor cell D) in the bone marrow during the self-tolerance test E) when B cells respond to T-independent antigens Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.3 Section: 48.3

27) Select the pathway that would lead to the activation of cytotoxic T cells. A) B cell contacts antigen → helper T cell is activated → clonal selection occurs B) body cell becomes infected with a virus → new viral proteins appear → class I MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed on cell surface C) self-tolerance of immune cells → B cells contact antigen → cytokines released D) complement is secreted → B cell contacts antigen → helper T cell activated → cytokines released E) cytotoxic T cells → class II MHC molecule-antigen complex displayed → cytokines released → cell lysis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.3 Section: 48.3 28) Among the last line of defenses against prolonged exposure to an extracellular pathogen is ________. A) lysozyme production B) phagocytosis by neutrophils C) antibody production by plasma cells D) histamine release by basophils E) mast cell activation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.3 Section: 48.3

29) Arrange these components in the correct sequence of the mammalian immune system as it first responds to a pathogen. I. Pathogen is destroyed. II. Lymphocytes secrete antibodies. III. Antigens from the pathogen bind to receptors on lymphocytes. IV. Lymphocytes specific to antigens from the pathogen become numerous. V. Only memory cells remain. A) I → III → II → IV → V B) III → II → I → V → IV C) II → I → IV → III → V D) IV → II → III → I → V E) III → IV → II → I → V Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.3 Section: 48.3 30) CD4 and CD8 are ________. A) proteins secreted by antigen-presenting cells B) receptors present on the surface of natural killer cells C) T-independent antigens D) molecules present on the surface of T cells where they interact with major histocompatibility (MHC) molecules E) molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting cells where they enhance B-cell activity Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.3 Section: 48.3 31) T cells of the immune system include ________. A) CD4, CD8, and plasma cells B) cytotoxic and helper cells C) plasma, antigen-presenting, and memory cells D) lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells E) class I MHC, class II MHC, and memory cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.3 Section: 48.3

32) B cells interacting with helper T cells are stimulated to differentiate when ________. A) B cells produce IgE antibodies B) B cells release cytokines C) cytotoxic T cells present the class II MHC molecule-antigen complex on their surface D) helper T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells E) helper T cells release cytokines Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.3 Section: 48.3 33) Differences in the B-cell receptors of two different B cells are due to ________. A) mutation in the genes of that B cell, induced by exposure to the antigen B) the rearrangement of C-region genes in that clone of responsive B cells C) a switch in the kind of antigen-presenting cell that is involved in the immune response D) a patient's reaction to the first kind of antibody made by the plasma cells E) the recombination of variable regions of the light-chain and heavy-chain genes Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.3 Section: 48.3 34) Which statement best describes the difference in responses of effector B cells (or plasma cells) and cytotoxic T cells? A) Effector B cells confer active immunity; cytotoxic T cells confer passive immunity. B) Effector B cells kill pathogens directly; cytotoxic T cells kill host cells. C) Effector B cells secrete antibodies that are specific for a certain pathogen; cytotoxic T cells kill pathogen-infected host cells. D) Effector B cells carry out the cell-mediated response; cytotoxic T cells carry out the humoral response. E) Effector B cells respond only the first time a pathogen is present; cytotoxic T cells respond subsequent times. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.3 Section: 48.3

35) You and a friend were in line for a movie when you noticed the woman in front of you sneezing and coughing. Both of you were equally exposed to the woman's virus, but over the next few days, only your friend acquired flu-like symptoms and was ill for almost a week before recovering. Which one of the following is a logical explanation for this? A) Your friend had antibodies to that virus. B) You had an adaptive immunity to that virus. C) Your friend had an autoimmune disorder. D) Your friend had allergies. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.3, 48.4 Section: 48.3 36) Which of the following statements are fundamental to the clonal-selection theory of how the adaptive immune system functions? I. Each mature lymphocyte has a unique membrane receptor that recognizes one antigen. II. When the lymphocyte binds an antigen, the lymphocyte is activated and begins dividing to form many identical copies of itself. III. Cloned lymphocytes have slight differences and are selected by the spleen for removal if they do not bind an antigen. IV. Cloned cells descend from an activated lymphocyte and persist even after the pathogen is eliminated. A) Only I and III B) Only II and IV C) Only I, II, and IV D) Only II, III, and IV E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.3 Section: 48.3

37) Clonal selection and differentiation of B cells activated by antigen exposure leads to the production of ________. A) large numbers of neutrophils B) large quantities of the antigen initially recognized C) vast numbers of B cells with random antigen-recognition receptors D) erythrocytes that can later secrete antibodies for the antigen E) plasma cells that secrete antibodies for the antigen Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.3 Section: 48.3 38) Clonal selection implies that ________. A) brothers and sisters have similar immune responses B) specific lymphocytes divide mitotically when activated by an antigen C) only certain cells can produce interferon D) a B cell has multiple types of antigen receptors E) the body selects which antigens it will respond to Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.3 Section: 48.3 39) Clonal selection is an explanation for how ________. A) a single type of stem cell can produce both red blood cells and white blood cells B) V, J, and C gene segments are rearranged C) an antigen can provoke production of high levels of specific antibodies D) HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) can disrupt the immune system E) macrophages can recognize specific T cells and B cells Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.3 Section: 48.3

40) The number of major histocompatibility (MHC) protein isoforms possible in a given human population is enormous. However, each individual has a limited array of MHC molecules because ________. A) the MHC proteins are made from several different gene regions that are capable of rearranging in a number of ways B) MHC proteins from one individual can only be of class I or class II C) each of the MHC genes has a large number of alleles, but each individual inherits only two for each gene D) once a B cell has matured in the bone marrow, it is limited to two MHC response categories E) once a T cell has matured in the thymus, it can only respond to two MHC categories Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF, I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.3 Section: 48.3 41) Which of the following is a difference between B cells and T cells? A) One has a major role in antibody production, while the other has a major role in cytotoxicity. B) One binds a receptor called BCR (B-cell receptor), while the other recognizes a receptor called TCR (T-cell receptor). C) B cells are activated by free-floating antigens in the blood or lymph. T cells are activated by plasma cells. D) T cells are produced in the thymus and B cells are produced in the bone marrow. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.2, 48.3 Section: 48.3 42) Which of the following is crucial to activation of the adaptive immune response? A) Memory cells B) Presentation of MHC (major histocompatibility complex)-antigen complex on a cell surface C) Somatic hypermutation D) Phagocytosis of antibody-antigen complex by macrophages in the blood (the humoral response) Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.3 Section: 48.3

43) Your sister-in-law never gets sick, while her male neighbor seems to be sick all the time. Although there are several possible explanations for this, one is that they are genetically different. Which of the following hypotheses concerning genetic inheritance of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules is consistent with this observation and your understanding of the immune system? A) Individuals who are homozygous dominant for MHC genes are healthier than those who are homozygous recessive for MHC genes. B) In the case of MHC, it is beneficial to have as many different alleles as possible, so individuals heterozygous for the multiple MHC genes are healthier than those who are mainly homozygous for MHC genes. C) MHC proteins are often closely associated with small antigen particles that have been broken off the main pathogen, so individuals who are recessive for MHC don't normally have many illnesses because they don't produce these MHC-antigen complexes. D) Some individuals undergo greater levels of somatic hypermutation for the MHC genes. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.2, 48.3 Section: 48.3 44) A function of antibodies is to ________. A) inject toxins into living pathogens B) secrete cytokines that attract macrophages to infection sites C) release major histocompatibility proteins to disrupt infected cells D) act as Toll-like receptors E) mark pathogenic cells for destruction Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.3 Section: 48.3 45) A cell type that interacts with both the humoral and cell-mediated immune pathways is a ________. A) plasma cell B) cytotoxic T cell C) natural killer cell D) CD8 cell E) helper T cell Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

46) Which of the following is a difference between class I and class II major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins? A) Class I MHC proteins can be found on most cell types, whereas both class I and class II MHC proteins are found on the antigen-presenting cells of the immune system. B) Class I MHC proteins are added to antigens in the cytoplasm, whereas class II proteins are added to antigens in the Golgi apparatus. C) Class I MHC proteins signal the immune system to activate the cell displaying the message, whereas class II proteins signal the immune system to destroy a particular cell. D) Class I and class II MHC proteins have the same basic role, but individuals with particularly strong immune systems will have both types, whereas most individuals have just one or the other. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.3, 48.4 Section: 48.4 47) Secondary immune responses upon a second exposure to a pathogen are due to the activation of ________. A) memory cells B) macrophages C) stem cells D) B cells E) T cells Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4

48) Immunological memory accounts for ________. A) the human body's ability to distinguish self from nonself B) the observation that some strains of the pathogen that causes dengue fever cause more severe disease than others C) the ability of a helper T cell to signal B cells via cytokines D) the ancient observation that someone who had recovered from the plague could safely care for those newly diseased E) the ability of the immune system to present antigen fragments in association with major histocompatibility (MHC) antigens Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4 49) Why might humans need yearly vaccination for influenza? A) There has been an increase in immunodeficiency diseases. B) Influenza typically causes anaphylactic shock. C) Memory B cells die out after one year. D) Influenza virus undergoes rapid mutation that alters the surface proteins in the cells it infects. E) Influenza initiates autoimmune disorders. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4 50) The cell-mediated immunity that destroys virally infected cells primarily involves ________. A) cytotoxic T cells B) inflammation C) phagocytosis D) macrophages E) B cells Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4

51) Which of the following cells are involved in cell-mediated immunity and also respond to class I MHC molecule-antigen complexes? A) cytotoxic T cells B) plasma cells C) helper T cells D) macrophages E) B cells Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4 52) When antibodies bind antigens, the clumping of antigens results from ________. A) the antibody having at least two binding regions B) disulfide bridges between the antigens C) a complement protein that makes the affected cells sticky D) bonds between class I and class II MHC molecules E) denaturation of the antibodies Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4 53) Phagocytosis of microbes by macrophages is enhanced by ________. I. the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes II. antibody-mediated agglutination of microbes III. the release of cytokines by activated B cells A) Only I and II B) Only II and III C) Only I and III D) I, II, and, III Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4

54) The primary function of humoral immunity (humoral response) is to ________. A) defend against fungi and protozoa B) reject transplanted tissues C) protect the body against cells that become cancerous D) protect the body against extracellular pathogens E) defend against bacteria and viruses that have already infected cells Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4 55) For the successful development of a vaccine to be used against a pathogen, it is necessary that ________. A) the surface antigens of the pathogen stay the same B) a rearrangement of the B-cell receptor antibodies takes place C) all of the surface antigens on the pathogen be identified D) the pathogen have only one epitope E) the major histocompatibility (MHC) molecules are heterozygous Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4 56) A bone marrow transplant may not be appropriate from a given donor (Jane) to a given recipient (Jane's cousin Bob), even though Jane has previously given blood for one of Bob's needed transfusions, because ________. A) Jane's major histocompatibility (MHC) proteins may not be a match B) a blood-type match is less stringent than a match required for transplant because blood is more tolerant of change C) Jane is heterozygous for MHC genes but Bob is not D) Jane's MHC class II genes are not expressed in bone marrow E) Bob's immune response is impaired Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4

Use the following information to answer the question(s) below. An otherwise healthy student in your class is infected with EBV, the virus that causes infectious mononucleosis. The same student had already been infected when she was a child, at which time she had merely experienced a mild sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in her neck. This time, though infected, she does not get sick. 57) Her immune system's recognition of the second infection involves memory ________. A) helper T cells B) natural killer cells C) plasma cells D) cytotoxic T cells Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4 58) The EBV antigen fragments will be presented by the virus-infected cells along with ________. A) a complement B) antibodies C) class I MHC molecules D) class II MHC molecules E) dendritic cells Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4 59) Which of the following should be the same in identical twins? A) The set of antibodies produced B) The set of major histocompatibility (MHC) molecules produced C) The set of T-cell antigen receptors produced D) The susceptibility to a particular virus E) The set of immune cells eliminated as self-reactive Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4

60) Vaccination increases the number of ________. A) different receptors that recognize a pathogen B) lymphocytes with receptors that can bind to the pathogen C) epitopes that the immune system can recognize D) macrophages specific for a pathogen E) major histocompatibility (MHC) molecules that can present an antigen Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4 61) Which of the following would help a virus avoid triggering an effective adaptive immune response? I. Having frequent mutations in genes for surface proteins II. Building the viral shell from host proteins III. Producing proteins very similar to those of other viruses IV. Infecting and killing helper T cells A) Only I and III B) Only I, II, and IV C) Only II and IV D) Only I, II, and III E) Only II, III, and IV Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4 62) Which of the following is TRUE of the humoral immune response and NOT true of the cellmediated immune response? Only the humoral immune response ________. A) involves T cells at some level B) requires CD8+ cells for activation C) involves destroying entire cells and not just the pathogen D) uses antibodies as its main weapon Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4

63) A certain cell type has existed in the blood and tissue of its vertebrate host's immune system for over 20 years. One day, it recognizes a newly arrived antigen and binds to it, subsequently triggering a secondary immune response in the body. Which of the following cell types most accurately describes this cell? A) Plasma cell B) Thyroid cell C) Memory cell D) Macrophage Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4 64) A key part of the humoral immune response is ________. A) the cytotoxic T-cell attack of infected host cells B) the production of antibodies by plasma cells C) perforation of infected host cells by perforin D) phagocytosis of pathogens E) the initiation of programmed cell death in infected host cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4 65) The receptors on T cells and B cells bind to ________. A) antibodies B) antigens C) natural killer cells D) double-stranded RNA E) immunoglobulins Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4

66) Which of the following is an example of a subunit vaccine? A) An isolated surface protein of a target virus is used to make the vaccine. B) The target virus is damaged by exposure to ultraviolet light. C) The target virus is damaged by exposure to formaldehyde. D) The target virus is grown in a host other than humans and thus grows more slowly than normal. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4 67) What causes rejection by the body's immune system after a transplant of an improperly matched organ? I. Nonself proteins in the tissue II. The presence of foreign major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins on the donor tissue III. Antibodies and cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) responding to foreign tissue A) Only I and III B) Only II and III C) Only I and IIII D) I, II, and III Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.4 Section: 48.4 68) Which of the following is TRUE of the allergic response? A) Sufferers produce the IgE class of immunoglobulins in response to allergens. B) Upon the very first exposure to an allergen, an allergy sufferer will experience anaphylactic shock. C) It is a normal, healthy, adaptive response to an allergen. D) Allergies are most common in people also responding to infections of intestinal worms. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.5 Section: 48.5

69) In the human disease known as lupus, there is an immune reaction against a patient's own DNA from broken or dying cells; this categorizes lupus as ________. A) an allergy B) an immunodeficiency C) an autoimmune disease D) an antigenic variation E) a cancer Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.5 Section: 48.5 70) A patient who has a high level of mast cell activity, dilation of blood vessels, and acute drop in blood pressure is likely suffering from ________. A) an autoimmune disease B) a typical skin allergy (contact dermatitis) that can be treated by antihistamines C) an organ transplant, such as a skin graft D) the effect of exhaustion on the immune system E) anaphylactic shock immediately following exposure to an allergen Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.5 Section: 48.5 71) Which of the following is the best definition of autoimmune disease? A) A condition in which B cells and T cells respond independently to antigens and do not interact correctly B) A condition in which the adaptive immune system fails to recognize the second infection by the same antigen C) A condition in which self molecules are treated as nonself D) A condition in which the immune system creates random antibodies without being triggered by an antigen Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.5 Section: 48.5

72) An invertebrate, such as an insect, has innate immunity activity in its intestine that likely includes ________. A) memory cells B) lysozyme C) allergens D) neutrophils E) dendritic cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.1 Section: 48.1 73) Infection with HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) typically ________. A) kills macrophages and CD4+ T cells B) eliminates all T cells initially C) leads to an immediate decrease in the number of HIV particles in the blood D) alters mitochondrial but not genomic DNA sequences E) attacks B cells but not T cells Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.5 Section: 48.5 74) What is the best description of the hygiene hypothesis? A) A high level of hygiene prevents autoimmune disorders. B) A high level of hygiene prevents allergic reactions. C) Hygienic practices that prevent intestinal worms lead to dysfunction of the immune system. D) Poor hygiene leads to autoimmune disorders. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: SF V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 48.5 Section: 48.5

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 49 An Introduction to Ecology 1) Which of the following levels of ecological organization is arranged in the correct sequence from most to least inclusive? A) Community, ecosystem, organism, and population B) Ecosystem, community, population, and organism C) Population, ecosystem, organism, and community D) Organism, population, community, and ecosystem E) Organism, community, population, and ecosystem Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.1 Section: 49.1 2) A population ecologist studies sockeye salmon. Which of the following variables of study are relevant at this level? A) Migration pathways of individuals B) Decomposition rate of salmon in different streams C) Prey species in gut contents of salmon D) Number of eggs produced by females E) Northward shift of salmon due to climate change Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.1 Section: 49.1 3) An ecologist decides to study the effect of pathogens of the pollinator of a particular plant species on its reproductive success. Which level of ecological study does this variable represents? A) Global ecology B) Ecosystem ecology C) Community ecology D) Population ecology E) Organismal ecology Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.1 Section: 49.1

4) A decline in population size in a remnant population of greater prairie chickens (Tympanuchus cupido pinnatus) was associated with a reduction in genetic diversity. The population of prairie chickens rebounded after a translocation of individuals from populations in neighboring states. This effort of restoring the genetic diversity and population numbers in prairie chickens is an example of ________. A) population ecology B) community ecology C) conservation ecology D) global ecology E) ecosystem ecology Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.1 Section: 49.1 5) Which abiotic factor would have the most significant acute physiological effect on migrating salmon as they move from saltwater to freshwater? A) Salinity differences B) Competition for resources C) Ambient temperature D) Human-built structural interferences Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.2 Section: 49.1 6) Which is a likely biotic factor limiting açaí palms distribution? A) Temperature B) Oxygen content C) Moisture D) Presence of toucans and other seed dispersing birds Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.2 Section: 49.2

The accompanying graph shows data from a research study designed to test the hypothesis that both abiotic and biotic factors can affect the distribution of invasive Argentine ants. Using the graph, identify the statement that is best supported by the data. A) Abiotic factors (e.g., soil moisture) only affect the distribution of invasive Argentine ants. B) Biotic factors (e.g., competition) only affect the distribution of invasive Argentine ants. C) Both abiotic and biotic factors interact to affect the distribution of invasive Argentine ants. D) Neither abiotic nor biotic factors affect the distribution of invasive Argentine ants. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 49.2 Section: 49.2 8) As climate changes because of global warming, plant species' ranges in the northern hemisphere may move northward. The trees that are most likely to avoid extinction in such an environment are those that ________. A) have seeds that are easily dispersed by wind or animals B) have thin seed coats C) produce well-provisioned seeds D) have seeds that become viable only after a forest fire E) disperse many seeds in close proximity to the parent tree Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.2 Section: 49.2

9) Which of the following are important biotic factors that can affect the structure and organization of biological communities? A) Precipitation, wind B) Nutrient availability, soil pH C) Predation, competition D) Temperature, water E) Light intensity, seasonality Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.2 Section: 49.2 10) A certain species of pine tree survives only in scattered locations at elevations above 2800 meters in the western United States. To understand why this tree grows only in these specific places, an ecologist should ________. A) conclude that lower elevations are limiting to the survival of this species B) study the anatomy and physiology of this species C) investigate the various biotic and abiotic factors that are unique to high altitude D) analyze the soils found in the vicinity of these trees, looking for unique chemicals that may support their growth E) collect data on temperature, wind, and precipitation at several of these locations for a year Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.2 Section: 49.2 11) Marsupials are found only in North and South America and in the Australian region. Their distribution is a result of the breakup of the supercontinent Pangea into Gondwana and Laurasia 120 mya. The modern distribution of marsupials is therefore a result of the effect of ________. A) present abiotic factors B) past abiotic factors C) present biotic factors D) past biotic factors Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.2 Section: 49.2

12) Recent genetic evidence has shown that modern bovine cattle were domesticated from wild ox 10,500 years ago in the Near East. Since then humans have moved cattle to all continents and nearly all places where humans live. The modern distribution of bovine cattle is a result of the effect of ________. A) present abiotic factors B) past abiotic factors C) present biotic factors D) past biotic factors Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.2 Section: 49.2 13) If the Earth were to reorient such that the North Pole always received direct sunlight (always faced the Sun), how would that change Earth's climate? A) The equators would not change in climate. B) The South Pole would get colder. C) The equators would get warmer. D) The North Pole would get more wind. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.3 Section: 49.3 14) Theoretically, which would be the most effective way to disrupt a Hadley cell? A) Remove all equatorial moisture and convection. B) Extensively water the deserts. C) Heat the poles. D) Shift the Sun to apply direct rays 30 degrees south latitude. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.3 Section: 49.3

15) The main reason polar regions are cooler than the equator is that ________. A) there is more ice at the poles B) sunlight strikes the poles at a lower angle C) the poles are farther from the Sun D) the polar atmosphere is thinner and contains fewer greenhouse gases E) the poles are permanently tilted away from the Sun Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.3 Section: 49.3 16) Patterns of global air circulation explain why the tropics are wet compared to regions in other latitudes. Which of the following is not determined by these patterns? A) The amount of solar radiation per unit area B) The rising of wet air around the tropics that causes precipitation as it rises and cools C) The movement of cooled air masses poleward D) The descend of dry air around 30° north and south that collects moisture. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.3 Section: 49.3 17) What would happen to the seasons if the Earth was tilted 35 degrees off its orbital plane instead of the usual 23.5 degrees? A) The seasons would disappear. B) Winters and summers would be more severe. C) Winters and summers would be less severe. D) The seasons would be shorter. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.3 Section: 49.3

18) Which of the following statements regarding altitude and climate are TRUE? I. Species composition on different sides of a mountain range is often different from each other. II. Rain shadows may appear on one side of a mountain range. III. The higher the altitude, the warmer the climate. IV. Both sides of a mountain range generally receive equal amounts of precipitation. A) Only I and II B) Only III and IV C) Only I, II, and IV D) Only II, III, and IV E) Only I, II, and III Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.3 Section: 49.3

19)

In the map above, which region has milder weather than expected without the ocean currents? A) Africa B) North America C) Antarctica D) Europe E) Newfoundland Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.3 Section: 49.3

20) In the figure above, which direction will have a desert biome? A) South B) East C) West D) North E) Both West and East Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.3 Section: 49.3 21) In the figure above, which direction will have a rain shadow? A) South B) East C) West D) North E) Both West and East Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.3 Section: 49.3

22) In the map above, where will the weather be drier? I. Near 30° N II. Near 30° S III. Near the Equator A) Only I and II B) Only II and III C) Only I and III D) Only I E) Only III Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.3 Section: 49.3

23) In the map above, where will the weather be wetter? I. Near 30° N II. Near 30° S III. Near the Equator A) Only I and II B) Only II and III C) Only I and III D) Only I E) Only III Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.3 Section: 49.3 24) How does solar radiation (per unit area) vary with increasing latitude? A) It increases. B) It decreases. C) It does not change. D) It oscillates between higher and lower. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.3 Section: 49.3 25) The specific abiotic factors defining a biome are ________. I. annual variation in temperature and precipitation II. average annual temperature and moisture levels III. maximum annual temperature and moisture levels IV. maximum annual temperatures, moisture levels, and average annual temperature A) Only I and II B) Only III and IV C) Only I, II, and IV D) Only II, III, and IV E) Only I, II, and III Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.3 Section: 49.4

26) In the accompanying figure, which number would designate the arctic tundra biome? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) The arctic tundra is not represented by a number in the figure. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 49.4 Section: 49.4 27) In the figure, which number would designate the biome with the highest variation in annual precipitation? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 49.4 Section: 49.4 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) Which of the following biomes has the highest variation in annual temperature? A) Subtropical deserts B) Arctic tundra C) Temperate forests D) Temperate grasslands E) Boreal forests/taiga Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.4 Section: 49.4 29) The Anthropocene is a proposed new epoch of history that reflects _______. A) the effects of the precipitation on species distribution B) the effects of human population growth and land-use changes caused by it C) the effects of temperature on species distribution D) the effects of the distribution of wealth and resources on Earth Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.4 Section: 49.4

30) Based on the data in the accompanying figure, which of the following statements are correct? I. Area 1 would be considered a desert because of its high average temperature. II. Area 1 has more average precipitation than Area 2. III. Area 2 would be considered a desert because of its low average precipitation. IV. Area 2 has a larger annual temperature variation.

A) Only I and III B) Only II and IV C) Only I, II, and IV D) Only II, III, and IV E) Only I, II, and III Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 49.4 Section: 49.4 31) Based on the data in the figure, which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Area 1 could be called a boreal forest/taiga. B) Area 2 could be called a temperate grassland. C) Area 1 could be called a tropical wet/rain forest. D) Area 2 could be tundra. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 49.4 Section: 49.4

32) Based on the data in the accompanying figure, which of the following statements are correct? I. Area 1 has more average precipitation than Area 2. II. Area 1 has a higher average temperature than Area 2. III. Both areas have low variation in monthly precipitation. IV. Area 2 has a lower annual temperature variation compared to Area 1. 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

A) Only I and III B) Only II and IV C) Only I, II, and IV D) Only II, III, and IV E) Only I, II, and III Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 49.4 Section: 49.4 33) Based on the data in the figure, which of the following statements is TRUE? A) The data from Area 1 describes a subtropical desert. B) The data from Area 2 describes an arctic tundra. C) The data from Area 1 describes a tropical wet/rain forest. D) The data from Area 2 describes a boreal forest. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 49.4 Section: 49.4 34) Which of the following statements best describes the effect of climate on biome distribution? A) Average annual temperature and precipitation are sufficient to predict which biome will be found in an area. B) Seasonal fluctuation of temperature is not a limiting factor in biome distribution if areas have the same annual temperature and precipitation means. C) The average climate and pattern of climate are important in determining biome distribution. D) Temperate forests and grasslands are different biomes because they receive a different quality and quantity of sunlight, even though they have essentially the same annual temperature and precipitation. E) Correlation of climate with biome distribution is sufficient to determine the cause of biome patterns. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.2 Section: 49.4

35) Which of the following can be said about light in aquatic environments? A) Water selectively reflects and absorbs certain wavelengths of light. B) Photosynthetic organisms that live in deep water probably use red light. C) Longer wavelengths penetrate to greater depths. D) Light penetration seldom limits the distribution of photosynthetic species. E) Most photosynthetic organisms avoid the surface where the light is too intense. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.5 Section: 49.5 36) Turnover of water in temperate lakes during the spring and fall is made possible by which of the following? A) Warm, less-dense water layered at the top B) Cold, more-dense water layered at the bottom C) A distinct thermocline between less-dense, warm water and cold, dense water D) The changes in the density of water as seasonal temperatures change E) Currents generated by nektonic animals Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.5 Section: 49.5 37) In temperate lakes, the surface water is replenished with nutrients during turnovers that occur in the ________. A) autumn and spring B) autumn and winter C) spring and summer D) summer and winter E) summer and autumn Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.5 Section: 49.5

38) Which of the following is responsible for the differences in summer and winter temperature stratification in deep temperate-zone lakes? A) Water is densest at 4°C. B) Oxygen is most abundant in deeper waters. C) Winter ice sinks in the summer. D) Stratification is caused by a thermocline. E) Stratification always follows the fall and spring turnovers. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.5 Section: 49.5 39) Imagine that a deep temperate-zone lake did not turn over during the spring and fall seasons. Based on the physical and biological properties of limnetic ecosystems, what would be the difference from normal seasonal turnover? A) The lake would be uniformly cold during the winter and summer. B) The lake would fail to freeze over in winter. C) An algal bloom of algae would result every spring. D) Lakes would suffer a nutrient depletion in surface layers. E) The pH of the lake would become increasingly alkaline. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.5 Section: 49.5 40) Which marine zone would have the lowest rates of primary productivity (photosynthesis)? A) Pelagic B) Aphotic C) Neritic D) Continental shelf E) Intertidal Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.5 Section: 49.5

41) If you are interested in observing a community of invertebrates and fish in a lake, you would do well to choose diving into the ________. A) photic zone B) benthic zone C) littoral zone D) intertidal zone E) oceanic zone Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.5 Section: 49.5 42) If a meteor impact or volcanic eruption injected a lot of dust into the atmosphere and reduced the sunlight reaching Earth's surface by 70 percent for 1 year, which of the following marine communities most likely would be LEAST affected? A) Deep-sea vent B) Coral reef C) Intertidal D) Pelagic E) Estuary Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.5 Section: 49.5 43) Millions of tons of plastic reach the ocean each year from rivers. This trash accumulates in very large masses that float on the oceans. Plastic is often confused for food and it has seen to cause malnutrition in the species that consume it. This situation is an example of ________. A) the effect salinity has in the distribution of species in aquatic environments B) nutrient turnover in temperate lakes C) the lack of nutrients in the oceanic zone D) the effect human activities have on aquatic environments E) the effect light availability has on productivity Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: S V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 49.5 Section: 49.5

44) Which of the following student-drawn niche models most clearly shows two species of bacterium that are specialized to survive in environments of different pH? A)

Answer: A LO: 49.2

Consider this niche model of rainbow trout at different temperatures.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 45) Temperature is the independent variable. Answer: TRUE LO: 49.2 46) The number or proportion of trout is the dependent variable. Answer: TRUE LO: 49.2 47) Temperature should be labeled on the y-axis. Answer: FALSE LO: 49.2 48) The model indicates that rainbow trout are more sensitive to changes in cooler temperatures than to warmer temperatures. Answer: TRUE LO: 49.2 49) Rainbow trout are most abundant at a temperature of about 15°C. Answer: TRUE LO: 49.2

50) Your classmate sketched four niche models but forgot to label them. Identify which two represent predicted niches for a mountain goat and which two represent predicted niches for the Caribbean reef octopus.

Answer: The graphs showing predicted mountain goat niches are 1 and 3. The graphs showing predicted Caribbean reef octopus niches are 2 and 4. LO: 49.2

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 50 Behavioral Ecology 1) A female cat in heat urinates more often and in many places. Male cats are attracted to the urine deposits. Which of the following is a proximate cause of this increased urination? A) It announces to the males that she is in heat. B) Female cats that did this in the past attracted more males. C) It is a result of hormonal changes associated with her reproductive cycle. D) The female cat learned the behavior from observing other cats. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.1 Section: 50.1 2) Which of the following examples describes a behavioral pattern that results from a proximate cause? A) A cat kills a mouse to obtain nutrition. B) A male sheep fights with another male because that behavior helps to improve its social position. C) A female bird lays its eggs because the amount of daylight is decreasing slightly each day. D) A goose squats and freezes motionless to escape a predator. E) A cockroach runs into a crack in the wall to avoid being stepped on. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.1 Section: 50.1 3) The proximate causes of behavior are interactions with the environment, but behavior is ultimately shaped by ________. A) hormones B) evolution C) sexuality D) pheromones E) the nervous system Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 50.1 Section: 50.1

4) Elephants, humans, and prairie voles engage in consolation behavior: they comfort a member of their group after a distressing event. Which of the following questions is one that can be used to study the ultimate causes of this behavior? A) Does consoling a member of the group strengthen social bonds and improves the chances of survival? B) Is consolation behavior driven by a release of oxytocin in the brain? C) Is consolation behavior genetically determined? D) What are the mechanisms to comfort a member of the group? Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.1 Section: 50.1 5) During a field trip, an instructor touched a moth resting on a tree trunk. The moth raised its forewings to reveal large eyespots on its hind wings. The instructor asked why the moth lifted its wings. One student answered that sensory receptors had fired and triggered a neuronal reflex culminating in the contraction of certain muscles. A second student responded that the behavior might frighten predators. Which statement best describes these explanations? A) The first explanation is correct, but the second is incorrect. B) The first explanation refers to proximate causation, whereas the second refers to ultimate causation. C) The first explanation is biological, whereas the second is philosophical. D) The first explanation is testable as a scientific hypothesis, whereas the second is not. E) Both explanations are reasonable and simply represent a difference of opinion. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.1 Section: 50.1 6) Which of the following is required for a behavioral trait to evolve by natural selection? A) The behavior is determined entirely by genes. B) The behavior is the same in all individuals in the population. C) An individual's reproductive success depends in part on how the behavior is performed. D) The behavior is not genetically inherited. E) An individual's phenotype is not influenced by its genotype. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.1 Section: 50.1

7) If you ask a question about behavior that concerns how it works or what its mechanism is, you are asking a question that involves ________. A) ultimate causation B) proximate causation C) adaptive significance D) survival value E) only the neurological level of analysis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.1 Section: 50.1 8) A cage containing male mosquitoes has a small earphone placed on top, through which the sound of a female mosquito is played. All the males immediately fly to the earphone and go through all of the steps of copulation. What is the best explanation for this behavior? A) The males learn to associate the sound with females. B) Copulation is a fixed action pattern, and the female flight sound is a sign stimulus that initiates it. C) The sound from the earphone irritates the male mosquitoes, causing them to attempt to sting it. D) The reproductive drive is so strong that when males are deprived of females, they will attempt to mate with anything that has even the slightest female characteristic. E) Through classical conditioning, the male mosquitoes have associated the inappropriate stimulus from the earphone with the normal response of copulation. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: I V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.1 Section: 50.1

9) In testing a hypothesis that "territorial defense in European robins is a fixed action pattern that is released by the sight of orange feathers," researchers found that robins defended their territory by attacking anything that was of similar size and had an orange patch. What experiment would you perform next to determine that the color initiated the defense response? A) Repeat the experiment using a blue patch instead of an orange patch. B) Repeat the experiment by removing the patch completely. C) Repeat the experiment by using a model of a robin that was twice the size of a normal robin but with a small orange patch. D) Repeat the experiment by using a model of a robin that had an orange patch that was twice the size of a normal patch. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.1 Section: 50.1 10) Learning has the most influence on behavior when ________. A) making mistakes does not result in death B) animals reproduce asexually C) animals have enormous cognitive ability D) making mistakes results in death Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.1 Section: 50.1 11) Pets of owners that live near airports initially cower or show signs of being scared when an airplane goes by. However, as time goes by, they stop being afraid as planes go by without anything bad happening. This behavior in pets is an example of a(n) ________. A) fixed action pattern B) reflex C) learned behavior D) innate behavior E) genetically driven behavior Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.1 Section: 50.1

12) You get a two-month-old puppy, and you need to train it. You start by using kind words and scratching behind its ears and most of the time it engages in the desired behavior, but it makes frequent mistakes. You decide to start carrying treats in your pocket and reward the dog every time it does what you want. The number of mistakes is quickly reduced to a minimum and soon disappears altogether. How do you explain this change in the behavior of your dog? A) By using food rewards, you may be positively influencing the fitness of your dog. B) The dog makes fewer mistakes because it likes the flavor of the treats. C) By the time you start using treats, the dog is a year old and therefore more capable to learn. D) Using treats makes the dog like you more and behave better. E) The dog choses to stop making mistakes. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: A V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.1 Section: 50.1 13) The foraging strategies of hummingbirds are optimized in various ways. Which of the following represents a proximal cause of foraging behavior in hummingbirds? A) Hummingbirds optimize their foraging route based on the amount of flowers offering nectar observed the day before. B) Hummingbirds increase their feeding territory if the number of nectar producing flowers is low. C) Hummingbirds limit their number of feedings per hour according to the amount of nectar their digestive system can process. D) Hummingbirds choose the bigger over smaller infloresences (aggregations of flowers). Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.2 Section: 50.2 14) Feeding behavior with a high-energy intake-to-expenditure ratio is called ________. A) herbivory B) autotrophy C) heterotrophy D) search scavenging E) optimal foraging Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.2 Section: 50.2

15) Which of the following might affect the foraging behavior of an animal in the context of optimal foraging? I. Risk of predation II. Prey size III. Prey defenses IV. Prey density A) Only I and III B) Only II and IV C) Only II, III, and IV D) Only I, II, and III E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.2 Section: 50.2 16) Why would you expect some white-fronted bee-eaters to fly very far away from their nests to forage when there are food sources nearby? Base your answer on your knowledge of cost-benefit analyses. A) There might be some plentiful food sources further away. B) Competition for food is too intense near the nest. C) Food near the nest is usually of lower quality. D) Predation is highest and closest to the nest. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.2 Section: 50.2 17) Spotted sandpipers breed at an early age, live a relatively short time, have a clutch size of four eggs, are capable of producing multiple clutches per year, and have low nest success. Females compete with other females for males, defend breeding territories, and do not engage in parental care. Based on this description, you expect spotted sandpipers to have a ________ mating system. A) monogamous B) polygynous C) polyandrous D) promiscuous Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.3 Section: 50.3 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

18) In house sparrows (Passer domesticus) both males and females generally care for the eggs and young. However, some male house sparrows do not provide parental care. In addition, the young that receive parental care from both the male and female are more likely to survive to fledglings (leaving the nest). Which of the following activities by males that do NOT provide parental care would represent the most beneficial trade-off for the reduced survival of their offspring? A) Attacking the nests of neighboring males B) Mating with additional females and fathering more eggs C) Eating to build up energy stores for migration D) Grooming to eliminate parasites from their feathers Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.3 Section: 50.3 19) As a sheep breeder, you want to control the timing of reproduction in your flock with the goal of maximizing the number of lambs produced in a year. You reach out to your local veterinarian for advice, hoping to receive ________ to give to your sheep. A) an antiparasitic medication B) a vitamin supplement C) a hormone D) a calendar Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.3 Section: 50.3

20) The accompanying graph shows data collected to test the hypothesis that the dewlap extension (a colorful flap of skin hanging from an Anolis lizard's throat) and the push-up displays of Anolis lizards play a role in sexual selection. Given this data, what can you conclude?

A) The dewlap extension does not play a role in sexual selection, but push-up frequencies do. B) Both the dewlap extension and the push-up frequencies play a role in sexual selection. C) Neither the dewlap extension nor the push-up frequencies play a role in sexual selection. D) The dewlap extension plays a role in sexual selection, but the push-up frequencies do not. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.3 Section: 50.3

21)

In the accompanying figure, which of the following conclusions is most logical based on the data? A) Females produce more eggs faster when exposed to breeding males. B) Females produce eggs faster when exposed to many males than do females paired with a male. C) All non-isolated females do just as well as isolated females. D) After four weeks together, females with males produce mature follicles to the same extent as females without males. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.3 Section: 50.3 22) Scientists believe that the direction birds go when migrating is guided in part by ________. I. the stars in the night sky II. the Sun during the day III. the magnetic field of the Earth A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) Only II and III E) I, II, and III Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 50.4 Section: 50.4

23) Homing pigeons' ability to always return to their home, no matter where they are released, is an excellent example of ________. A) piloting B) compass orientation C) an innate behavior D) true navigation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.4 Section: 50.4 24) Every year over one million wildebeest migrate in a 300-mile loop around Kenya and Tanzania following the rain pattern. It is an impressive movement of mammals and is considered one of the largest overland migrations. According to what you know about ultimate causes of behavior, which of the following hypothesis (es) do you think explains the wildebeest reasons for migrating? A) Increased offspring survival B) Higher abundance of food C) Lower predation number by traveling in herds D) Higher abundance of food and increased offspring survival E) Higher abundance of food, increased offspring survival, and lower predation numbers by traveling in herds Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 50.4 Section: 50.4 25) Animal communication involves what type of sensory information? I. Visual II. Auditory III. Olfactory IV Tactile A) Only I and III B) Only II and IV C) Only II, III, and IV D) Only I, II, and III E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.5 Section: 50.5 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

26) Upon returning to its hive, a European honeybee communicates to other worker bees the presence of a nearby food source it has discovered by ________. A) vibrating its wings at varying frequencies B) performing a round dance C) performing a waggle dance D) visual cues E) All of the listed responses are correct. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.5 Section: 50.5 27) Karl von Frisch demonstrated that European honeybees communicate the location of a distant food source by ________. A) performing a short, straight run during a round dance B) performing a waggle dance with a run length proportionate to the food distance C) performing a round dance with fast rotations D) emanating minute amounts of stimulus pheromone E) varying wing vibration frequency Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.5 Section: 50.5 28) Recent research has shown that von Frisch was not completely correct about the difference between the round dance and waggle dance. The new information suggests that in honeybees, the ________. A) waggle dance communicates information about the quality of the food B) round dance communicates direction as well as distance C) waggle dance communicates the type of food D) round dance communicates the time of day the food will be available E) waggle dance communicates the favored food of the hive Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.5 Section: 50.5

29) Any process in which a signal from one individual modifies the behavior of a recipient individual is termed ________. A) cognition B) communication C) reflex D) perception E) conditioning Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.5 Section: 50.5

30)

From the accompanying figure, what can we determine about the location of the food source? A) The waggle dance in the top figure indicates that the food is directly under the hive. B) The waggle dance in the bottom figure indicates that the food is to the west of the hive. C) The waggle dance in the top figure indicates that the food is close to the hive. D) The waggle dance in the bottom figure indicates that the food is 90 degrees to the right of the Sun. E) The vigor of the waggle dance indicates the location of the food relative to the Sun. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.5 Section: 50.5

31)

If the accompanying figure shows the dances of bees in a hive at noon on March 21 in the northern hemisphere, which dance is communicating that the food is to the south of the hive? 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

A) Dance A B) Dance B C) Dance C D) It is not possible to tell if any of the dances indicate the food is to the south of the hive. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.5 Section: 50.5 32) Successful communication in bees should be favored by natural selection if ________. A) food sources are discovered more efficiently B) cohesion between bees in the colony is increased C) the position of the Sun is correctly determined D) other species are alerted to the location of food sources Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.5 Section: 50.5 33) Which of the following represents an example of a deceitful communication? A) Withholding the location of a source of food in macaques B) An intense red plumage as a sign of male quality in red finches C) Longer and more accurate songs in male tree frogs during reproductive season D) Larger antlers in red deer representative of the age and survival ability of a male Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.5 Section: 50.5

34) How do altruistic behaviors arise through natural selection? A) By their actions, the altruist increases the likelihood that some of their genes will be passed on to the next generation. B) The altruist is appreciated by other members of the population because their survivability has been enhanced by virtue of their risky behavior. C) Animals that perform altruistic acts are allowed by their population to breed more, thereby passing on their behavior genes to future generations. D) Altruistic behaviors lower stress in populations, which increases the survivability of all the members of the population. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.6 Section: 50.6 35) Which of the following has a coefficient of relatedness of 0.25? Assume all are blood relatives. A) A father to his daughter B) A mother to her son C) An uncle to his nephew D) A brother to his brother E) A sister to her brother Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 50.6 Section: 50.6 36) Animals that help other animals of the same species ________. A) have excess energy reserves B) are bigger and stronger than the other animals C) are usually related to the other animals D) are always male E) have defective genes controlling their behavior Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.6 Section: 50.6

37) The presence of altruistic behavior is most likely due to kin selection, a theory maintaining that ________. A) aggression between sexes promotes the survival of the fittest individuals B) genes enhance survival of copies of themselves by directing organisms to assist others who share those genes C) companionship is advantageous to animals because in the future they can help each other D) critical thinking abilities are normal traits for animals, and they have arisen, like other traits, through natural selection E) natural selection has generally favored the evolution of exaggerated aggressive and submissive behaviors to resolve conflict without grave harm to participants Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.6 Section: 50.6 38) In Belding's ground squirrels, it is mostly the females that behave altruistically by sounding alarm calls. What is the likely reason for this distinction? A) Males have smaller vocal cords and are less likely to make sounds. B) Females invest more in foraging and food stores, so they are more defensive. C) Females settle in the area in which they were born, so the alarm is more likely to warn kin. D) The sex ratio is biased. E) Males forage in areas separate from females; therefore, alarm calls are useless. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 50.6 Section: 50.6 39) A pied kingfisher in its first year of life helps in the feeding of three full siblings who would not have survived without the helper's efforts. What is its indirect fitness in its first year? A) 0.25 B) 0.50 C) 0.75 D) 1.00 E) 1.50 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 50.6 Section: 50.6

40) In the second year of its life, a pied kingfisher mates and raises two of its own offspring. What is its direct fitness in this second year of its life? A) 0.50 B) 1.00 C) 1.50 D) 2.00 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 50.6 Section: 50.6 41) A pied kingfisher in its first year of life helps in the feeding of three full siblings who would not have made it without the helper's efforts. In this first year, the bird does not raise any of its own offspring. In the second year of its life, the pied kingfisher mates and raises two of its own offspring. After the first two years, what is the inclusive fitness of the pied kingfisher? A) 0.75 B) 1.50 C) 2.50 D) 3.00 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 50.6 Section: 50.6 42) If a prairie dog had the opportunity to perform an altruistic act (i.e., give an alarm call) to help its relatives, which combination of the following relatives would the prairie dog be most likely to help? (Base your answer solely on the genetic relationships.) A) Four cousins and one brother B) Two nieces, two cousins, and one half-brother C) Two half-sisters and two nieces D) One son, one niece, and one half-sister E) The prairie dog would be equally likely to act altruistically to each of the combinations described. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 50.6 Section: 50.6

43) With regard to understanding the evolution of cooperation, the principal prediction that can be made from the expression Br > C is that ________. A) natural selection will favor cooperation among close relatives B) cooperation evolves because it benefits all members of a species C) cooperation evolves because it enhances the species' fitness D) selection favors self-sacrifice in reproduction E) natural selection will favor cooperation among any individuals Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 50.6 Section: 50.6 44) According to Hamilton's rule, ________. A) natural selection does not favor altruistic behavior that causes the death of the altruist B) natural selection favors altruistic acts when the resulting benefit to the beneficiary, corrected for relatedness, exceeds the cost to the altruist C) natural selection is more likely to favor altruistic behavior that benefits an offspring than altruistic behavior that benefits a sibling D) the effects of kin selection are larger than the effects of direct natural selection on individuals E) altruism is always reciprocal Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 50.6 Section: 50.6 45) A queen bee polices the nest of her colony killing all eggs laid by workers. This behavior is an example of ________. A) manipulation B) kin selection C) reciprocal altruism D) cooperation E) acting in favor of the good of the species Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 50.6 Section: 50.6

46) Reciprocal altruism is observed ________. A) between non-related individuals B) toward an individual who helped the current altruist in the past C) toward an individual who may never help the current altruist D) between non-related individuals and toward an individual who has helped the altruist in the past E) between non-related individuals and toward individuals who may or may not help the altruist Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 50.6 Section: 50.6 47) "Self-sacrificing" alleles are not favored by natural selection because ________. A) they are rare B) the individuals carrying them die and do not produce offspring C) they are recessive D) "self-sacrificing" genes are favored by natural selection Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 50.6 Section: 50.6

48) Hummingbirds visit several flowers during foraging trips. Which pathway is most efficient in terms of the benefits and costs of foraging? Assume that all flowers have the same quantity and quality of nectar. A)

Answer: C LO: 50.2

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 51 Population Ecology 1) A population is correctly defined as having which of the following characteristics? I. Inhabiting the same general area II. Belonging to the same species III. Possessing a constant and uniform density and dispersion A) Only I B) Only III C) Only I and II D) Only II and III E) I, II, and III Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 51.1 Section: 51.1

Which of the following descriptions matches the local distribution of Zootoca vivipara? A) From Ireland in western Europe to Japan in eastern Asia B) Widespread, yet absent from some areas, in the British Isles C) In suitable habitats like meadows and open woodland D) None of these descriptions match the local distribution. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 51.1 Section: 51.1

3) An ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square kilometer in one woodlot and 20 per square kilometer in another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing? A) Density B) Dispersion C) Carrying capacity D) Cohorts E) Range Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 51.1 Section: 51.1 4) Which of the following groups would be most likely to exhibit uniform dispersion? A) Red squirrels, which actively defend territories B) Cattails, which grow primarily at edges of lakes and streams C) Dwarf mistletoes, which parasitize particular species of forest tree D) Moths, in a city at night E) Lake trout, which seek out cold, deep water high in dissolved oxygen Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 51.1 Section: 51.1 5) Which of the following examples would most accurately measure the density of the population being studied? A) Counting the number of prairie dog burrows per hectare B) Counting the number of times a 1-kilometer transect is intersected by tracks of red squirrels after a snowfall C) Counting the number of coyote droppings per hectare D) Counting the number of moss plants in 1-square-meter quadrants E) Counting the number of zebras from airplane census observations. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 51.1 Section: 51.1

6) Which of the following scenarios would provide the most relevant data on population density? A) Count the number of nests of a particular species of songbird and multiply this by a factor that extrapolates these data to actual animals. B) Count the number of pine trees in several randomly selected 10-meter-square plots and extrapolate this number to the fraction of the study area these plots represent. C) Use the mark-recapture method to estimate the size of the population. D) Calculate the difference between all of the immigrants and emigrants to see if the population is growing or shrinking. E) Add the number of births and subtract the individuals that die to see if the population's density is increasing or decreasing. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 51.1 Section: 51.1 7) Which of the following choices would most likely promote random distribution? A) Territorial species B) Species that secrete chemicals to attract or inhibit other individuals C) Flocking and schooling behaviors D) Spacing during the breeding season E) Homogeneous chemical and physical factors in the environment Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 51.1 Section: 51.1 8) Suppose researchers marked 800 turtles and later were able to trap a total of 300 individuals in that population, of which 150 were marked. What is the estimate for total population size? A) 200 B) 1050 C) 1600 D) 2100 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.1 Section: 51.1

9) Which of the following is the most important assumption for the mark-recapture method to estimate the size of wildlife populations? A) All females in the population have the same litter size. B) More individuals emigrate from, as opposed to immigrate into, a population. C) Over 50 percent of the marked individuals need to be trapped during the recapture phase. D) There is a 50:50 ratio of males to females in the population before and after trapping and recapture. E) Marked individuals have the same probability of being recaptured as unmarked individuals during the recapture phase. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.1 Section: 51.1 10) To measure the population of lake trout in a 250-hectare lake, 400 individual trout were netted and marked with a fin clip, then returned to the lake. The next week, the lake was netted again, and out of the 200 lake trout that were caught, 50 had fin clips. Using the mark-recapture estimate, the lake trout population size could be closest to which of the following? A) 160 B) 200 C) 400 D) 1600 E) 80,000 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.1 Section: 51.1 11) Populations grow as a result of ________ and decline as a result of ________. A) births; emigration B) births; immigration C) deaths; emigration D) deaths; immigration Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 51.2 Section: 51.2

12) In the figure, which of the following survivorship curves implies that an animal may lay many eggs with the same probability of dying each year of life? A) Curve A B) Curve B C) Curve C Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.2 Section: 51.2 13) In the figure, which of the following survivorship curves most applies to humans living in developed countries? A) Curve A B) Curve B C) Curve C D) Curve A or Curve B Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.2 Section: 51.2

14)

Looking at the data in the accompanying figure, what can be said about survival and clutch size? A) Animals with low survival tend to have smaller clutch sizes. B) Large clutch size correlates with low survival. C) Animals with high survival tend to have larger clutch sizes. D) Probability of survivorship does not correlate with clutch size. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.2 Section: 51.2 15) What is the primary limiting factor that determines why no female animal can produce a very large number of very large eggs? A) Time is limited. B) There are energy constraints. C) Temperature constraints will prevent females from carrying too many eggs. D) Male availability is limited. E) There will be an increase in predation pressure if the females carry too many large eggs. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 51.2 Section: 51.2

16) Why can't a female lizard have both high fecundity and high survival? A) In only rare cases, do lizards have both high fecundity and high survival. B) Female lizards are able to produce only one set of offspring. C) Competition for resources prevents this. D) The more energy the female devotes to offspring, the less that can be devoted to her survival. E) The female is already maximizing the number of eggs she lays, and if she attempts to nest later in the season, there will not be enough food for her young. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 51.2 Section: 51.2 17) You observe two female fish of the same species breeding. One female lays 100 eggs and the other female lays 1000 eggs. Which one of the following is LEAST likely given the limits of fitness trade-offs? A) The female laying 100 eggs breeds more often than the female laying 1000 eggs. B) The female laying 100 eggs lives longer than the female laying 1000 eggs. C) The eggs from the female laying 1000 eggs have larger yolks than the yolks of the eggs from the female laying 100 eggs. D) The female laying 1000 eggs is larger than the female laying 100 eggs. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.2 Section: 51.2

18) Using the life table, calculate the net reproductive rate (R0) for this population. A) 2.00 B) 3.26 C) 1.30 D) 2.31 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.2 Section: 51.2 19) Using the life table, how would you describe the population dynamics of L. vivipara? A) The population is increasing. B) The population is decreasing. C) The population is stable. D) The figure does not provide this information. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.2 Section: 51.2

20) Using the life table, determine which age class year would hurt the population growth most if it were wiped out by disease. A) Age class year 1 B) Age class year 2 C) Age class year 3 D) Age class year 4 E) Age class year 5 Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.2 Section: 51.2 21) Natural selection involves energetic trade-offs between ________. A) choosing how many offspring to produce over the course of a lifetime and how long to live B) producing large numbers of gametes when employing internal fertilization versus fewer numbers of gametes when employing external fertilization C) the emigration of individuals when they are no longer reproductively capable or committing suicide D) increasing the number of individuals produced during each reproductive episode and a corresponding decrease in parental care E) high survival rates of offspring and the cost of parental care Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 51.2 Section: 51.2 22) The study of factors that determine the size and structure of populations through time is called ________. A) community ecology B) immigration biology C) demography D) logistic growth Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 51.2, 51.5 Section: 51.2

23) The definition of a generation is ________. A) 20 years B) the average time between a mother's first offspring and her daughter's first offspring C) the average time between a father's first offspring and his son's first offspring D) the average time between parents' first offspring and their child's first offspring Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 51.2, 51.5 Section: 51.2 24) Which of the following terms defines how the individual organism allocates resources to growth, reproduction, and activities or structures related to survival? A) Survivorship B) Life history C) Energy budget D) Demography Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 51.2 Section: 51.2

25) In the accompanying figure, which of the lines represents the highest per capita rate increase (r)? A) Line A B) Line B C) Line C D) Line D Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3 26) In the accompanying figure, which of the lines represents exponential growth? A) Line A B) Line B C) Line C D) Line D E) All of the lines represent exponential growth. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3

27) Assuming that these populations are density dependent, what would be the likely outcome if the system depicted in the previous figure were allowed to continue? A) Population growth would continue to be discontinuous. B) Individual growth would continue to be indeterminate. C) Population growth would likely decrease. D) Populations would go extinct. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3

28) In the figure, which of the arrows represents the carrying capacity? A) Arrow A B) Arrow B C) Arrow C D) Carrying capacity cannot be found in the figure because species under density-dependent control never reach carrying capacity. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3

29) In the accompanying figure, which of the arrows represents the most rapid population growth? A) Arrow A B) Arrow B C) Arrow C Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3 30) Which statements about K are correct? I) K varies among populations. II) K varies in space. III) K varies in time. IV) K is constant for any given species. A) Only I and III B) Only II and IV C) Only I, II, and III D) Only II, III, and IV E) Only I, II, and IV Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3 31) A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an annual per capita death rate of 0.02. Calculate an estimate of the total number of individuals added to (or lost from) a population of 1000 individuals in one year. A) 120 individuals added B) 40 individuals added C) 20 individuals added D) 400 individuals added E) 20 individuals lost Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3

32) Exponential growth of a population is represented by ΔN/Δt = ________. A) B) rmax N C) rN (K + N) D) E) Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3 33) Logistic growth of a population is represented by ΔN/Δt = ________. A) B) rmax N C) rN (K + N) D) E) Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3 34) As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following is predicted by the logistic equation? A) The growth rate will not change. B) The growth rate will approach zero. C) The population will show an Allee effect. D) The population will increase exponentially. E) The carrying capacity of the environment will increase. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

35) In models of logistic population growth, ________. A) the population growth rate slows dramatically as N approaches K B) new individuals are added to the population most rapidly at the beginning of the population's growth C) new individuals are added to the population as N approaches K D) only density-dependent factors affect the rate of population growth E) carrying capacity is never reached Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3 36) Carrying capacity is ________. A) seldom reached by marine producers and consumers because of the vast resources of the ocean B) the maximum population size that a particular environment can support C) fixed for most species over most of their range most of the time D) determined by density and dispersion data E) the term used to describe the stress a population undergoes due to limited resources Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3 37) Why do populations grow more slowly as they approach their carrying capacity? A) Density-dependent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality. B) Density-independent factors lead to fewer births and increased mortality. C) Hormonal changes promote higher death rates in crowded populations. D) Individuals voluntarily stop mating so that overcrowding does not occur. E) The incoming energy decreases in populations experiencing a high rate of increase. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3

38) A population's carrying capacity ________. A) may change as environmental conditions change B) can be accurately calculated using the logistic growth model C) generally remains constant over time D) increases as the per capita growth rate (r) decreases E) can never be exceeded Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3 39) According to the logistic growth equation,

= rmaxN

A) the number of individuals added per unit time is greatest when N is close to zero. B) the per capita growth rate (r) increases as N approaches K. C) population growth is zero when N equals K. D) the population grows exponentially when K is small. E) the birth rate (b) approaches zero as N approaches K. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3 40) During exponential growth, a population always ________. A) grows by thousands of individuals B) grows at its maximum per capita rate C) quickly reaches its carrying capacity D) cycles through time E) loses some individuals to emigration Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3

41) If 60 snow geese were alive in 1926 and 856 existed in 2001, what is r? A) 0.070 B) 0.035 C) 0.094 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3 42) Conservationists will take snow geese off the endangered species list when the population hits 10,000. If populations are sustaining growth at r = 0.088 and the population in 2001 is 3000 individuals, in what year will snow geese be taken off the endangered species list? A) Between 2106 and 2109 B) Between 2009 and 2012 C) Between 2012 and 2015 D) Between 2015 and 2018 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3

43)

Based on the figure, which of the following statements correctly interprets the data? A) As female density increases, clutch size increases. B) As female density increases, survivorship decreases. C) Clutch size decreases as female density increases. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3 44) It is estimated that a flock of wood buffalo crane should be able to sustain an r of 0.085 for the foreseeable future. If the flock currently contains 350 individuals, how long will it take for that population to double? A) Between 7.0 and 9.0 years B) Between 9.0 and 11.0 years C) Between 11.0 and 13.0 years D) Less than 7 years E) More than 13 years Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3

45) Often the growth cycle of one population affects the cycle of another. As moose populations increase, for example, wolf populations also increase. Thus, if we are considering the logistic equation for the wolf population, ΔN/Δt = rN , which of the factors accounts for the effect of the moose population? A) r B) N C) rN D) K E) dt Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3 46) Which of the following could be a density-independent factor limiting human population growth? A) Ebola infections B) Earthquakes C) Epidemic of measles D) Famines Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3 47) Imagine that you are managing a large game ranch. You know from historical accounts that a species of deer used to live there, but they have been extirpated. After doing some research to determine what might be an appropriately sized founding population, you reintroduce them. You then watch the population increase for several generations, and graph the number of individuals (vertical axis) against the number of generations (horizontal axis). With no natural predators impacting the population, the graph will likely appear as ________. A) a diagonal line, getting higher with each generation B) an "S" that ends with a vertical line C) an upside-down "U" D) a "J," increasing with each generation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.3 Section: 51.3 20 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

48) Which of these graphs shows exponential population growth? A)

Answer: D LO: 51.3

The graph shows population growth curves for two species of meadow flowers. Interpret the graph.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 49) You can infer from this graph that resources are unlimited for species A and B during the time period shown. Answer: FALSE LO: 51.3 50) Growth is not exponential in species B because the slope of the curve starts to decrease after two months. Answer: TRUE LO: 51.3 51) The value of r increases in species A but levels off in species B. Answer: FALSE LO: 51.3 52) Species A has a higher instantaneous rate of increase (r) than species B. Answer: TRUE LO: 51.3 53) Each plant in species B is producing more seeds after two months than after one month. Answer: FALSE LO: 51.3

The graph shows population growth curves for two species of meadow flowers. Interpret the graphs.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 54) The graph shows that the number of seeds produced by each plant of species C is higher at 4 months than at 1 month. Answer: FALSE LO: 51.3 55) You can infer from this graph that resources are unlimited for species A, but limited for species C during the time period shown. Answer: FALSE LO: 51.3 56) The value of r is constant as a function of time in species A. Answer: TRUE LO: 51.3 57) Growth is not exponential in species C because population growth is slow. Answer: FALSE LO: 51.3 58) Species A has a higher instantaneous rate of increase (r) than species C. Answer: TRUE LO: 51.3

59) The regular fluctuations in size of animal populations are termed ________. I. population cycles II. population dynamics III. growth factors A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) Only II and III E) I, II, and III Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 51.4 Section: 51.4

60) The figure above shows the growth and decline of the reindeer population on St. Paul Island. Which pattern does the growth of the population follows? A) Logistic growth B) Exponential growth C) Density dependent growth D) Carrying capacity growth Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.4 Section: 51.4 61) The figure shows the population dynamic over time of the reindeer population on St. Paul Island. What is the main cause of the decline of the reindeer population? A) The overexploitation of food resources B) A decline in carrying capacity caused by a decline in predation C) An increase in the carrying capacity given by the absence of disease D) The overhunting of reindeer by humans Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.4 Section: 51.4 25 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

62)

Graph (b) in the figure shows the normal fluctuations of a population of grouse. Assuming graph (a) in the figure is the result of some experimental treatment in the grouse population, what can be concluded? A) The experimental treatment exacerbated the population cycling. B) The experimental treatment did not affect population cycling in this species. C) The experimental treatment has most likely identified the cause of population cycling. D) None of the other responses is true. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.4 Section: 51.4

63)

What conclusion can you draw from the accompanying figure? A) Hares control lynx population size. B) Lynx control hare population size. C) Lynx and hare populations are independent of each other. D) The relationship between the populations cannot be determined only from this graph. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.4 Section: 51.4

64)

Looking at the data in the figure from the hare/lynx experiment, what conclusion can you draw? I. Food is a factor in controlling hare population size. II. Excluding lynx is a factor in controlling hare population size. III. The effect of excluding predators and adding food in the same experiment is greater than the sum of excluding lynx alone plus adding food alone. A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) Only II and III E) I, II, and III Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.4 Section: 51.4

65)

The figure shown here represents the dynamics of ________. A) metapopulations B) extinction C) emigration D) both metapopulations and extinction E) both extinction and emigration Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 51.4 Section: 51.4

66) What cannot be determined from examining age pyramids of human populations? A) The future population size B) The age structure of the population C) The success of future generations D) The fecundity of a future population Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 51.5 Section: 51.5

67)

Based on the diagrams in the figure and on the large population of baby boomers in the United States, which graph best reflects U.S. population in 20 years? A) A B) B C) C D) D Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.5 Section: 51.5

68) When the birth rate is equal to each woman producing exactly enough offspring to replace herself and her offspring's father, and the birth rate is sustained for a generation, then ________. A) r = 0 and there is zero population growth B) 0 < r < 1 C) r = 1 D) r > 1 E) population size is at carrying capacity Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.5 Section: 51.5 69) Which of the following statements regarding the future of populations in developing countries are correct? I. The fecundity is predicted to increase. II. Survivorship will increase. III. Overall population size will increase dramatically. IV. The number of offspring each year is predicted to remain high. A) Only I and III B) Only II and IV C) Only I, II, and IV D) Only II, III, and IV E) Only I, II, and III Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: QR LO: 51.5 Section: 51.5 70) Which statement is TRUE with regard to human population growth? A) It is at a zero reproduction rate. B) Its rate of increase continues to grow at an exponential rate. C) Its rate of growth is slowing. D) Its rate of growth is increasing. E) There is no scientific prediction that can be made about human population growth. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 51.5 Section: 51.5

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 52 Community Ecology 1) Which of the following is TRUE of species interactions? A) They can act as agents of natural selection. B) The outcome of any species interactions is static through time. C) They do little to affect species distributions. D) They cannot affect species abundance. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1 2) Epiphytic orchids grow harmlessly on their host trees, and they derive their resources from the air and from rain, rather than from their host plant. Which of the following is the best description of this species interaction? A) Herbivory B) Competition C) Parasitism D) Commensalism Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1 3) Some birds follow moving swarms of army ants in the tropics. As the ants march along the forest floor hunting insects and small vertebrates, birds follow and pick off any insects or small vertebrates that fly or jump out of the way of the ants. This situation is an example of what kind of species interaction between the birds and the ants. A) Cooperation B) Consumption C) Commensalism D) Parasitism E) Mutualism Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1

4) Some birds follow moving swarms of army ants in the tropics. As the ants march along the forest floor hunting insects and small vertebrates, birds follow and pick off any insects or small vertebrates that fly or jump out of the way of the ants. What is the result of the association between birds and ants? A) Birds benefit from the association but have no impact on the ants. B) Birds benefit from the association and harm the ants. C) Birds and ants benefit from the association. D) Birds do not benefit from the association, but the ants do. E) Neither birds nor ants benefit from the association. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1

What is the term used to describe the process shown in the panels in the accompanying figure, assuming Time 2 follows Time 1? A) Competition B) Species interaction C) Niche differentiation D) Niche realization Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1

Use the accompanying diagram to answer the question(s) below.

In this experiment, Semibalanus was removed from the habitat shown on the left. 6) Which of the following statements is a valid conclusion of this experiment? A) Semibalanus can survive only in the lower intertidal zone because it is unable to resist desiccation. B) Semibalanus is inferior to Chthamalus in competing for space on rocks lower in the intertidal zone. C) The two species of barnacles do not compete with each other because they feed at different times of day. D) The removal of Semibalanus shows that the realized niche of Chthamalus is smaller than its fundamental niche. E) If Chthamalus were removed, Semibalanus's fundamental niche would become larger. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1 7) Connell conducted this experiment to learn more about ________. A) character displacement in the color of barnacles B) habitat preference in two different species of barnacles C) desiccation resistance and barnacle species D) how sea-level changes affect barnacle distribution E) competitive exclusion and distribution of barnacle species Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Which is the best way to test the hypothesis that Chthamalus is competitively excluded from the lower intertidal zone by Semibalanus? A) Place individuals of each species in a jar and see which species survives. B) Remove all Semibalanus from the lower intertidal zone. C) Transplant Semibalanus to the upper intertidal zone. D) Clear rocks in an entire area and document recolonization events. E) Remove all Chthamalus from the upper tidal zone. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1, 52.2 Section: 52.1 9) In the hypothesis that Chthamalus (a species of barnacle) is competitively excluded from the lower intertidal zone by Semibalanus (another species of barnacle), what could be concluded about the two species? A) The fundamental and realized niches of Semibalanus and Chthamalus are identical. B) The fundamental and realized niches of Semibalanus and Chthamalus are different. C) The fundamental and realized niches of Semibalanus are different, but the fundamental and realized niches of Chthamalus are identical. D) The fundamental and realized niches of Semibalanus are identical, but the fundamental and realized niches of Chthamalus are different. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1 10) Which of the following statements is consistent with the principle of competitive exclusion? A) Bird species generally do not compete for nesting sites. B) The random distribution of one competing species will have a positive impact on the population growth of the other competing species. C) Two species with the same fundamental niche will exclude other competing species. D) Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of the less well adapted of two competing species. E) Natural selection tends to increase competition between related species. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1

11) The competitive exclusion principle states that ________. A) it is not possible for two species with the same niche to coexist in the same region B) it is not possible for two species to compete for the same resources C) two species with different niches will not compete for the same resources D) two species with the same niche will constantly be competing for resources Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1 12)

In the accompanying figure, which species is the stronger competitor? A) Species 1 B) Species 2 C) Both species compete equally. D) It is not possible to tell from this figure. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1

13) If two species are close competitors, and one species is experimentally removed from the community, the remaining species would be expected to ________. A) eventually become competitively superior to the other species B) change its fundamental niche C) decline in abundance D) become the target of specialized parasites E) expand its realized niche Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1 14) As you study two closely related predatory insect species, the two-spot and the three-spot avenger beetles, you notice that each species seeks prey at dawn in areas without the other species. However, where their ranges overlap, the two-spot avenger beetle hunts at night and the three-spot hunts in the morning. When you bring them into the laboratory and isolate the two different species, you discover that the offspring of both species are found to be nocturnal. You have discovered an example of ________. A) mutualism B) character displacement C) Batesian mimicry D) facultative commensalism E) resource partitioning Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1

15)

In the figure, which individuals are displaying Batesian mimicry? A) The paper wasp, bumblebee, and honeybee B) The hornet moth, wasp beetle, and hoverfly C) All of the insects are displaying Batesian mimicry. D) None of the insects is displaying Batesian mimicry. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1

16)

In the figure, which of the following statements is TRUE? A) All of the species of insects shown are in the order Hymenoptera. B) There are no true mimics in the insects shown. C) All of the insects are displaying Batesian mimicry. D) Half of the six insects shown are harmless. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1

17) While traveling in Texas, you stumble across a snake with red, yellow, and black bands. You somehow remember that this could be a poisonous coral snake or a harmless milk snake, but you forget how to differentiate them because they both have similar colors and banding patterns. You wisely decide not to pick up the snake. What defense of the snake was successful in preventing you from grabbing the snake? A) Constitutive defense B) Müllerian mimicry C) Batesian mimicry D) Inducible defenses Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1

18)

What conclusion can you draw from the accompanying figure? A) Without direct contact, mussels can sense the presence of crabs. B) Mussels can sense the presence of crabs only visually. C) Mussels are increasing their shell thickness in response to water current. D) Shell thickness is a non-inducible defense. E) Crabs hunt for mussels by focusing on the chemicals they emit into the water. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1 19) Which species interaction depends on prey density and effectiveness of prey defenses to determine the impact on the prey population? A) Competition B) Consumption C) Mutualism D) Commensalism Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1 20) In biology, an arms race occurs when ________. A) predators become dominant over their prey species leading to the local extinction of the prey B) a new species evolves into two separate species C) a new niche is created because of interactions between species D) there is a repeating cycle of coevolution E) a prey species adapts and is able to coexist with its predators Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1

21) Malaria is caused by the pathogen Plasmodium spp. People with at least one copy of the HLA-B53 gene are better able to beat back malarial infections before the infection progresses. If this is a coevolutionary arms race between Plasmodium and humans, what would the next step in this race be? A) To see humans with more than one copy of the HLA-B53 gene B) To see humans without the HLA-B53 gene C) To see Plasmodium populations that counter the HLA-B53 gene D) To see Plasmodium populations that have the HLA-B53 gene E) To see a mutation in the HLA-B53 gene that makes it more effective against malarial infections Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1 22) Which statement best describes the evolutionary significance of mutualism? A) Mutualism offers more biodiversity to a community. B) Individuals partaking in a mutualistic relationship are more resistant to parasites. C) Interaction increases the survival and/or population growth rate(s) of mutualistic species. D) Mutualistic interaction lessens competition in communities where it is present. E) Mutualistic relationships allow organisms to synthesize and use energy more efficiently. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1

23)

Treehoppers (a type of insect) produce honeydew, which ants use for food. Treehoppers have a major predator, the jumping spider. Researchers hypothesized that the ants would protect the treehoppers from the spiders. In an experiment, researchers followed study plots with ants removed from the system and compared them to a control plot. In the figure shown, what can you conclude? A) Ants do somehow protect the treehoppers from spiders. B) Ants eat the honeydew produced by treehoppers. C) Ants reduce the numbers of treehoppers. D) No specific conclusions can be drawn from this figure. E) Treehoppers do not produce honeydew in July and are not protected by the ants. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1

24)

Treehoppers (a type of insect) produce honeydew, which ants use for food. Treehoppers have a major predator, the jumping spider. During a one-year study, researchers found no difference in treehopper populations in any of their control and experimental groups. What could they measure during the second year to gain information about why this might have occurred? A) Measure the number of ant females. B) Measure the relative sizes of the treehoppers. C) Measure the relative abundance of jumping spiders. D) Measure the relative sizes of different ant species. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1 The symbols +, −, and 0 are to be used to show the results of interactions between individuals and groups of individuals in the examples that follow. The symbol + denotes a positive interaction, − denotes a negative interaction, and 0 denotes where individuals are not affected by interacting. The first symbol refers to the first organism mentioned. 25) What interactions exist between a lion pride and a hyena pack? A) +/+ B) +/0 C) +/− D) 0/0 E) −/− Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

26) What interactions exist between a tick on a dog and the dog? A) +/+ B) +/0 C) +/− D) 0/0 E) −/− Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.1 Section: 52.1

27) Which of the following niche models suggests the most competition between two species? A)

Answer: D LO: 52.1

Interpret this niche model for three species of birds.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 28) The independent variable is branch height. Answer: TRUE LO: 52.1 29) Species B builds nests in the widest variety of branch heights. Answer: FALSE LO: 52.1 30) Species A and Species B both build the most nests in branches about 4.5 m high. Answer: TRUE LO: 52.1 31) All three species build nests in branches that are 6 m high. Answer: TRUE LO: 52.1 32) Competition for nest space will increase the fitness of Species B but decrease the fitness of Species A. Answer: FALSE LO: 52.1 33) More competition for branch space occurs between Species A and B than between Species B and C. Answer: TRUE LO: 52.1

34) Which of the following statement(s) is/are attributes of the structure of a community? I. All the interactions between all species II. A physical description of the community III. The abundance and distribution of the species in the community IV. The total number of species in the community A) Only I B) Only III C) Only I and II D) Only I, II, and III E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 52.2 Section: 52.2

35) Which of the communities in the figure has the lowest species richness? A) Community 1 B) Community 2 C) Community 3 D) Communities 1 and 2 E) Communities 1 and 3 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 52.2 Section: 52.2

36) Which of the communities in the figure has the highest species diversity? A) Community 1 B) Community 2 C) Community 3 D) Communities 1 and 2 E) Communities 1 and 3 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 52.2 Section: 52.2 37) Which of the communities in the figure has LOW evenness? A) Community 1 B) Community 2 C) Community 3 D) Communities 1 and 2 E) Communities 1 and 3 Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 52.2 Section: 52.2

38) Which of the following models presents a species relationship as it would typically be drawn within a food web? A)

Answer: B LO: 52.2

39) Which of the following student models does the clearest job of showing the flow of energy and nutrients in this partial food web? A)

Answer: D LO: 52.2

Interpret the model.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 40) Some of the energy and nutrients in the orca came from the kelp. Answer: TRUE LO: 52.2 41) Sea otters are the primary consumers in this food web. Answer: FALSE LO: 52.2 42) This food web shows all of the species interactions in this ecological community. Answer: FALSE LO: 52.2 43) Kelp is the primary producer in this food web. Answer: TRUE LO: 52.2 44) The arrows should point down instead of up. Answer: FALSE LO: 52.2

45) As ecosystem engineers, corals represent an example of _______. A) a bottom-up influence on community structure B) a top-down influence on community structure C) the indirect influence of a predator on community structure D) an unpredictable community Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 52.2 Section: 52.2 46)

What does the graph in the accompanying figure tell you about the definition of a keystone species? A) A keystone species has little interaction with other species in an environment. B) Removing a keystone species from the community drastically reduces diversity. C) Adding a keystone species to the community will make it more diverse. D) Removing a keystone species from the community will eventually allow for the invasion of a new species. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.2 Section: 52.2

47) Recall that Clements's view of biological communities is that of a highly predictable and interrelated structure, while Gleason's view of biological communities is that individual species operate independently. If we set up many identical sterilized ponds in the same area and allowed them to be colonized, what should we predict if we wished to test Gleason's hypothesis? A) Identical plankton communities will develop in all ponds. B) Similar plankton communities will develop in all ponds. C) Different plankton communities will develop in all ponds. D) Limited plankton communities will develop in all ponds. E) Initially the number of species in each pond will be greater than the number normally found in similar environments. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.2 Section: 52.2

48)

Looking at the results in the accompanying figure, which hypothesis (by Clements or Gleason) is supported by the data? I. Clements II. Gleason A) Only I B) Only II C) Both I and II D) Neither I nor II Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.2 Section: 52.2

49) Which one of the following animals would most likely be defined as a keystone species? A) Sea otter B) Housefly C) Fathead minnow D) Nauplii (a species of zooplankton) Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.2 Section: 52.2 50) Which of the following would be most significant in understanding the structure of an ecological community? I. Determining how many species are present overall II. Determining which particular species are present III. Determining the kinds of interactions that occur among organisms of different species IV. Determining the relative abundance of species A) Only I and III B) Only II and IV C) Only I, II, and III D) Only II, III, and IV E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.2 Section: 52.2 51) In a tide pool, 15 species of invertebrates were reduced to 8 after one species was removed. The species removed was likely a(n) ________. A) pathogen B) keystone species C) herbivore D) resource partitioner E) mutualistic organism Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.2 Section: 52.2

52) Elephants are not the most dominant species in African grasslands, yet they influence community structure. The grasslands contain scattered woody plants, but they are kept in check by the uprooting activities of the elephants. Take away the elephants, and the grasslands convert to forests or to shrublands. The newly growing forests support fewer species than the previous grasslands. Which of the following describes why elephants are the keystone species in this scenario? A) Elephants exhibit a disproportionate influence on the structure of the community relative to their abundance. B) Grazing animals depend upon the elephants to convert forests to grasslands. C) Elephants prevent drought in African grasslands. D) Elephants are the biggest herbivore in this community. E) Elephants help other populations survive by keeping out many of the large African predators. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.2 Section: 52.2 53) According to bottom-up and top-down control models of community organization, which of the following expressions would imply that an increase in the size of a carnivore (C) population would negatively impact its prey (P) population, but not vice versa? A) P ← C B) P → C C) C ↔ P D) P ← C → P E) C ← P → Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.2 Section: 52.2 54) What is the main difference between a disturbance and a disturbance regime? A) A disturbance regime includes defining the predictable frequency and severity of the disturbance. B) A disturbance regime includes defining the length of the disturbance. C) A disturbance regime is a more specific type of disturbance. D) They are essentially the same thing. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.3 Section: 52.3 28 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

55) What is the main advantage of controlled burnings of forested areas? Controlled burnings ________. A) eliminate the possibility of forest fires B) clear forested areas for farmland C) prevent the overgrowth of the underbrush D) allow new species to form Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.3 Section: 52.3 56) Which of the following terms do ecologists use to describe the community interaction where one organism makes the environment more suitable for another organism? A) Parasitism B) Mutualism C) Inhibition D) Facilitation E) Commensalism Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.3 Section: 52.3 57) Why do moderate levels of disturbance result in an increase in community diversity? A) Habitats are opened up for less competitive species. B) Competitively dominant species infrequently exclude less competitive species after a moderate disturbance. C) The environmental conditions become optimal. D) The resulting uniform habitat supports stability, which in turn supports diversity. E) Less-competitive species evolve strategies to compete with dominant species. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.3 Section: 52.3

58) In a particular case of secondary succession, three species of wild grass all invaded a field. By the second season, a single species dominated the field. A possible factor in this secondary succession was ________. A) equilibrium B) facilitation C) immigration D) inhibition E) parasitism Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.3 Section: 52.3 59) Which of the following are responsible for generating successional pathways? I. Species interactions II. Historical and environmental context III. Species traits A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) Only II and III E) I, II, and III Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.3 Section: 52.3

60) In the figure, where do we find the highest species richness? A) Community 1 B) Community 2 C) Community 3 D) Community 4 E) Communities 2 and 4 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.2, 52.4 Section: 52.2, 52.4

61) In the figure, which community has the highest species diversity? A) Community 1 B) Community 2 C) Communities 1 and 3 have the highest species diversity. D) Community 4 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.2, 52.4 Section: 52.2, 52.4 62)

In the figure, what can be stated about species diversity and latitude? A) As latitude increases, diversity decreases. B) As latitude decreases, diversity decreases. C) Species diversity is independent of latitude. D) Species diversity and latitude cannot be compared using this figure. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.4 Section: 52.4

63) Which of the following statements regarding the figure shown is TRUE? A) Immigration rates are higher on smaller islands. B) Extinction rates are highest on large islands close to the mainland. C) Species richness should be higher on larger islands close to the mainland. D) Species diversity should be highest on larger islands away from the mainland. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.4 Section: 52.4 64) According to the figure, a species has the highest chance of extinction when ________. A) the island is large and close to the mainland B) the island is small and close to the mainland C) the island is large and remote D) the island is small and remote Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.4 Section: 52.4

65) Imagine five forest communities, each with 100 individuals distributed among four different tree species (W, X, Y, and Z). Which forest community would be most diverse? A) 25W, 25X, 25Y, 25Z B) 40W, 30X, 20Y, 10Z C) 50W, 25X, 15Y, 10Z D) 70W, 10X, 10Y, 10Z E) 100W, 0X, 0Y, 0Z Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.2, 52.4 Section: 52.2, 52.4 66) Species richness increases ________. A) as we increase in altitude in equatorial mountains B) as we travel southward from the North Pole C) on islands as distance from the mainland increases D) as depth increases in aquatic communities E) as community size decreases Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.4 Section: 52.4 67) There are more species in tropical areas than in places more distant from the equator. This is probably a result of ________. A) fewer predators B) more intense annual solar radiation C) more frequent ecological disturbances D) fewer agents of disease Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.4 Section: 52.4

68) Which of the following is a widely supported explanation for the tendency of tropical communities to have greater species diversity than temperate or polar communities? A) They are less likely to be affected by human disturbance. B) There are fewer parasites to negatively affect the health of tropical communities. C) Tropical communities are low in altitude, whereas temperate and polar communities are high in altitude. D) Tropical communities are generally older than temperate and polar communities. E) More competitive dominant species have evolved in temperate and polar communities. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.4 Section: 52.4 69) Which of the following is a correct statement about the MacArthur/Wilson Island Biogeography Model? A) The more species that inhabit an island, the lower the extinction rate. B) As the number of species on an island increases, the emigration rate decreases. C) Competitive exclusion is less likely on an island that has large numbers of species. D) Small islands receive few new immigrant species. E) Islands closer to the mainland have higher extinction rates. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.4 Section: 52.4

70) Refer to the accompanying art to answer the question below.

According to the Shannon Diversity Index, which of the five blocks shown, with each containing 36 squares, would show the greatest diversity? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.4 Section: 52.4

Use the accompanying diagram of five islands formed at around the same time near a particular mainland, as well as MacArthur and Wilson's island biogeography principles, to answer the question(s) below.

71) Which island would likely have the greatest species diversity? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.4 Section: 52.4 72) Which island would likely exhibit the most impoverished species diversity? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.4 Section: 52.4

73) Which island would likely have the lowest extinction rate? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 52.4 Section: 52.4

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 53 Ecosystems and Global Ecology 1) When primary producers expend energy to build new tissue, this is ________. A) net primary productivity B) the amount of energy available to consumers C) maintenance cost D) net primary productivity and the amount of energy available to consumers E) maintenance costs and the amount of energy available to consumers Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1 2) Approximately what percentage of the energy from sunlight is converted into gross primary production? A) 10 B) 0.8 C) 25 D) 100 E) 5 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1 3) The difference between net primary productivity (NPP) and gross primary productivity (GPP) is that ________. A) GPP includes the energy spent staying alive B) NPP includes the energy used in cellular respiration C) GPP is part of NPP D) GPP is the energy used in growth and reproduction Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1

4) Which of the following consume other living organisms? I. Primary producers II. Herbivores III. Carnivores IV. Decomposers A) Only II and III B) Only I and IV C) Only I, II, and IV D) Only II, III, and IV E) Only I, II, and III Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1 5) Which of the following factors account for the inefficiency of the rate of photosynthesis? I. Even when conditions are ideal, the pigments that drive photosynthesis can absorb only a fraction of the light wavelengths available and thus a fraction of the total energy received. II. Plants in equatorial biomes have drastically reduced photosynthetic rates in winter. III. If conditions get dry, stomata close to conserve water. IV. The efficiency of enzymes is not temperature dependent. A) Only II and III B) Only I and III C) Only I, II, and IV D) Only II, III, and IV E) Only I, II, and III Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1

6) Detritus can be consumed by which of the following primary decomposers? I. Bacteria II. Archaea III. Fungi IV. Earthworms A) Only I and III B) Only II and IV C) Only I, II, and IV D) Only II, III, and IV E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1 7) What is the main reason for using food webs instead of food chains in analyzing ecosystems? I. Most organisms eat more than one type of food. II. Most organisms feed at several trophic levels. III. The decomposition cycle needs to be shown. A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) Only I and II E) I, II, and III Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1

After looking at the accompanying figure, what can be said about productivity in this ecosystem? A) Nothing can be said based on this information. B) About 90% of the energy is lost between most trophic levels. C) About 10% of the energy is lost between most trophic levels. D) Productivity increases with each trophic level. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1 9) Why is energy lost when herbivores eat primary producers? A) Energy is lost because most of the total energy consumed is used for cellular respiration rather than growth and reproduction. B) Primary producers cannot produce once eaten. C) Digestion takes place so rapidly that very little energy is absorbed. D) Most primary producers contain no usable energy for herbivores. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1 10) You own 300 acres of patchy temperate forest. Which one of the following actions would increase the net primary productivity of the area the most? A) Removing the largest trees B) Introducing 100 rabbits into the area C) Planting 500 new trees D) Relocating all of the deer found in the area Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.1 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) Approximately how many kilograms (kg) of carnivore (secondary consumer) biomass can be supported by a field plot containing 1000 kg of plant material? A) 10,000 B) 1000 C) 100 D) 10 E) 1 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1 12) Why are food chains relatively short? A) Top-level feeders tend to be more numerous than lower-trophic-level species. B) Top-level feeders tend to be small but are capable of conserving more energy. C) Longer chains are less stable and energy transfer between trophic levels is inefficient. D) There are only so many organisms that are adapted to feed on other types of organisms. E) Food-chain length is ultimately determined by the photosynthetic efficiency of producers. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1

Use the following diagram of a hypothetical food web to answer the question(s) below. The arrows represent the transfer of energy among the various trophic levels.

13) Which letter represents an organism that could be a producer? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1 14) Which letter represents an organism that could only be a primary consumer? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1

15) The feeding relationships among the species in a community determine the community's ________. A) secondary succession B) ecological niche C) species richness D) species-area curve E) trophic structure Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1 16) What factor could potentially increase the length of a food chain? A) Having a single species of herbivore feeding on each plant species B) Increased extinction rates of species in the food chain C) Decrease in the amount of energy in a trophic level that is lost as it passes to the next higher level D) Increase in the amount of energy in a trophic level that is lost as it passes to the next higher level Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1 17) Detritivores ________. A) recycle chemical elements directly back to primary consumers B) synthesize organic molecules that are used by primary producers C) convert organic materials from all trophic levels to inorganic compounds usable by primary producers D) secrete enzymes that convert the organic molecules of detritus into carbon dioxide and water E) may be autotrophic or heterotrophic Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1

18) How does inefficient transfer of energy among trophic levels result in the typically high endangerment status of many top-level predators? A) Top-level predators are destined to have small populations that are sparsely distributed. B) Predators have relatively large population sizes. C) Predators are more disease-prone than animals at lower trophic levels. D) Predators have short life spans and short reproductive periods. E) Top-level predators are more likely to be stricken with parasites. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1 19) Trophic efficiency is ________. A) the ratio of net secondary production to assimilation of primary production B) the percentage of production transferred from one trophic level to the next C) a measure of how nutrients are cycled from one trophic level to the next D) usually greater than production efficiencies E) about 90 percent in most ecosystems Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1 20) For most terrestrial ecosystems, pyramids composed of species abundances, biomass, and energy are similar in that they have a broad base and a narrow top. The primary reason for this pattern is that ________. A) secondary consumers and top carnivores require less energy than producers B) at each step, energy is lost from the system C) as matter passes through ecosystems, some of it is lost to the environment D) biomagnification of toxic materials limits the secondary consumers and top carnivores E) top carnivores and secondary consumers have a more general diet than primary producers Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1

21) Which of the following is primarily responsible for limiting the number of trophic levels in most ecosystems? A) Many primary and higher-order consumers are opportunistic feeders. B) Decomposers compete with higher-order consumers for nutrients and energy. C) Nutrient cycles involve both abiotic and biotic components of ecosystems. D) Nutrient cycling rates tend to be limited by decomposition. E) Energy transfer between trophic levels is usually less than 20 percent efficient. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1 22) Which statement best describes what ultimately happens to the chemical energy that is NOT converted to new biomass in the process of energy transfer between trophic levels in an ecosystem? A) It is undigested and winds up in the feces and is not passed on to higher trophic levels. B) It is used by organisms to maintain their life processes through the reactions of cellular respiration. C) Heat produced by cellular respiration is used by heterotrophs for thermoregulation. D) It is eliminated as feces or is dissipated into space as heat, consistent with the second law of thermodynamics. E) It is recycled by decomposers to smaller and smaller forms until it finally breaks down to form soil. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1 23) Consider the food chain of grass → grasshopper → mouse → snake → hawk. About how much of the chemical energy fixed by photosynthesis of the grass (100 percent) is available to the hawk? A) 0.01 percent B) 0.1 percent C) 1 percent D) 10 percent E) 60 percent Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

24) If the flow of energy in an arctic ecosystem goes through a simple food chain, perhaps involving humans, starting from phytoplankton to zooplankton to fish to seals to polar bears, then which of the following could be TRUE? A) Polar bears can provide more food for humans than seals can. B) The total biomass of the fish is lower than that of the seals. C) Seal meat probably contains the lowest concentrations of fat-soluble toxins. D) Seal populations are larger than fish populations. E) Fish can potentially provide more food for humans than seal meat. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1 25) Which of the following is a consequence of biomagnification? A) Toxic chemicals in the environment pose greater risk to top-level predators than to primary consumers. B) Populations of top-level predators are generally smaller than populations of primary consumers. C) The biomass of producers in an ecosystem is generally higher than the biomass of primary consumers. D) Only a small portion of the energy captured by producers is transferred to consumers. E) The amount of biomass in the producer level of an ecosystem decreases if the producer turnover time increases. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.1 Section: 53.1 26) Why is terrestrial productivity higher in equatorial climates? A) Productivity increases with temperature. B) Productivity increases with water availability. C) Productivity increases with available sunlight. D) The answer is most likely a combination of the other responses. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.1

27) The figure represents net primary productivity organized by ________. A) biome B) geography C) region D) continent Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.1 28) Which habitat types in the figure cover the largest area? A) Tropical wet forest plus the ocean neritic zone B) Open ocean C) Algal beds and reefs plus the ocean neritic zone D) Wetlands plus the ocean neritic zone Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.1

29) Which habitat type in the figure makes the most new tissue available to consumers? A) Tropical wet forest B) Open ocean C) Algal beds and reefs D) Wetlands Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.1 30) Which category in the figure has the highest productivity per square meter? A) Tropical wet forest B) Open ocean C) Algal beds and reefs D) Wetlands Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.1 31) Considering its total area covered, which ecosystem type represented in the figure has a very low level of economic impact on Earth's ecosystem, assuming that NPP is positively correlated with economic value? A) Tropical wet forest B) Rock, sand, and ice C) Tropical seasonal forest D) Ocean neritic zone Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.1

32) Regarding soil and organic matter in humus, which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Humus is composed of inorganic nutrients, and organic matter is composed only of organic matter. B) Soil organic matter is completely decayed. C) Completely decayed soil organic matter is called humus. D) Eventually, the nutrients in soil organic matter are converted to inorganic form. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.3 Section: 53.2 Interpret this model of the carbon cycle.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 33) The label that is missing on the diagonal arrow is consumption. Answer: FALSE LO: 53.2 34) You can infer from the model that primary producers take in more carbon via photosynthesis than they release via cellular respiration. Answer: TRUE LO: 53.2 35) If you added a "decomposers" reservoir to this model, carbon would exit to the atmosphere via cellular respiration. Answer: TRUE LO: 53.2 36) One of the arrows should be flipped to point in the correct direction. Answer: FALSE LO: 53.2 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

37) You could show the effects of forest fires in this model by adding an arrow labeled "burning" that originates at the primary producers and points to the atmosphere. Answer: TRUE LO: 53.2 38) If you added a "decomposers" reservoir to this model, carbon would enter from the primary producers, herbivores, and carnivores. Answer: TRUE LO: 53.2 39) Complete this model of the phosphorus cycle. Position each label to complete the model.

Answer:

LO: 53.2

Interpret this model of the phosphorus cycle.

Answer "True" or "False" for each of the following statements. 40) There are four reservoirs in this model. Answer: TRUE LO: 53.2 41) If the mining of rock for fertilizer by humans were to stop, you would predict that the amount of phosphorus in the soil and water would increase over time. Answer: FALSE LO: 53.2 42) Based on the information in this model, you can infer that the atmosphere is not an important reservoir of phosphorus. Answer: TRUE LO: 53.2 43) All the arrows in this model are pointing in the correct directions. Answer: TRUE LO: 53.2 44) This model includes information about the relative rates of different processes. Answer: FALSE LO: 53.2 45) Phosphorus is likely to reside for a longer time in rock than in the other reservoirs. Answer: TRUE LO: 53.2 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

46) The model shows that phosphorus moves from one reservoir to another but is not "created" or "used up." Answer: TRUE LO: 53.2

47)

According to the figure, what is the role of plants in the terrestrial nutrient cycle? I. Plants uptake nutrients from the soil. II. Plants consume other organisms and acquire nutrients. III. Plants die and are decomposed releasing nutrients to the soil. A) Only I B) Only I and III C) Only III D) Only I and II E) I, II, and III Answer: B 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.2 48) Which of the following most often controls the rate of nutrient cycling in ecosystems? A) Rate of decomposition of detritus B) Primary productivity C) Secondary productivity D) Both primary and secondary productivity Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.3 Section: 53.2

49) After looking at the experiment in the accompanying figure, what can be said about nutrient export in ecosystems? Nutrient export is ________. A) typically 10 times lower in a clear-cut watershed B) typically 10 times higher in a clear-cut watershed C) typically 10 times higher in an uncut watershed D) not affected by any form of cutting Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.2 50) Based on the experiment in the accompanying figure, which of the following are plausible reasons for the result? I. No nutrients evaporate now that vegetation is absent. II. Nutrients dissolve in the water running through the watershed. III. Nutrients are attached to small particles of sand or clay that leave the watershed. IV. Plant roots that held soil particles in place are no longer there. A) Only I and III B) Only II and IV C) Only I, II, and IV D) Only II, III, and IV E) Only I, II, and III Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.2

51)

Consider the global water cycle depicted in the accompanying figure. Which one of the reserves contains the smallest percentage of global water? A) Oceans B) Rivers and lakes C) Polar ice caps D) Glaciers E) Atmosphere Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.2 52) Which of the following human activities LEAST impacts the water cycle? A) Increase in asphalt and concrete surfaces B) Conversion of grasslands and forests into agricultural fields C) Increased processing of salt water to freshwater D) Increases in irrigated agriculture Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.2

53) Consider the global nitrogen cycle depicted in the accompanying figure. What is the limiting portion of the cycle for plants? A) Industrial nitrogen fixation B) Nitrogen lost to the atmosphere C) Internal nitrogen cycling in the oceans D) Nitrogen fixation by bacteria Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.2 54) Consider the global nitrogen cycle depicted in the figure. How are humans altering this cycle? A) Industrial nitrogen fixation B) Nitrogen lost to the atmosphere C) Reduction of nitrogen available to terrestrial ecosystems D) Reduction of nitrogen fixation by bacteria E) Permanent burial of nitrogen in coastal environments through runoff Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.2

55) Which of the following is a source of human-fixed nitrogen? I. Industrially produced fertilizers II. Cultivation of soybeans III. Irrigation agriculture A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) Only II and III E) Only I and II Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.2 56) Nitrogen is available to plants mostly in the form of ________. A) nitrogen in the atmosphere B) nitrite ions in the soil C) uric acid from animal excretions D) nucleic acids from decomposing plants and animals E) nitrate and ammonium ions in the soil Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.2 57) In the nitrogen cycle, the bacteria that replenish the atmosphere with nitrogen are ________. A) Rhizobium bacteria B) nitrogen fixing bacteria C) ones that use nitrogen-containing compounds as an electron acceptor D) methanogenic protozoans E) nitrogen-fixing bacteria Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.2

58) Which of the following locations is the main reservoir for nitrogen in the nitrogen cycle? A) Atmosphere B) Sedimentary bedrock C) Fossilized plant and animal remains (coal, oil, and natural gas) D) Plant and animal biomass E) Soil Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.2 59) A 3-hectare lake in the American Midwest has suddenly succumbed to an algal bloom. What is the likely cause of this in freshwater ecosystems? A) Increased solar radiation B) Introduction of nonnative tertiary consumer fish C) Nutrient runoff D) Accidental introduction of a prolific culture of algae E) Iron dust blowing into the lake Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.2 60) Considering the global carbon cycle, which of the following is the largest reservoir of carbon? A) Terrestrial ecosystems B) Oceans C) Atmosphere D) Algae in lakes and streams Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.2

61) Considering the global carbon cycle, where are humans having a great impact? I. Terrestrial ecosystems II. Oceans III. Atmosphere A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) Only I and III E) I, II, and III Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.2 62) Why are changes in the global carbon cycle important? I. Burning reduces available carbon for primary producers and, therefore, primary consumers. II. Deforestation and suburbanization reduce an area's net primary productivity. III. Increasing atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide could alter Earth's climate. IV. By using fossil fuels we are destroying a nonrenewable resource. A) Only I and III B) Only II and IV C) Only I, II, and IV D) Only II, III, and IV E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.2

63) Which of the following locations are large reservoirs for carbon for the carbon cycle? I. Atmosphere II. Sediments and sedimentary rocks III. Fossilized plant and animal remains (coal, oil, and natural gas) IV. Plant and animal biomass A) Only I and III B) Only II and IV C) Only I, II, and IV D) Only II, III, and IV E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.2 64) The main way phosphorus becomes available to organisms from the environment is known as ________. A) supplementation B) weathering C) phosphorization D) recycling Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.2 Section: 53.2 65) Global warming refers to ________. A) the increase in the total temperature across the oceans B) the increase in the total temperature across the continents C) the increase in the average temperature of the whole planet D) the increase in the average temperature across the continents E) the increase in the total temperature across the whole planet Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.3 Section: 53.3

66) Global climate change refers to ________. A) the changes in precipitation patterns that result from global warming B) the changes in local temperature patterns that result from global warming C) the sum of the changes in local precipitation and temperature patterns that result from global warming D) the changes in ocean temperatures as a result of increased global carbon emissions E) the sum of the changes in local precipitation and temperature patterns that result from increases in ocean warming Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.3 Section: 53.3 67) Which of the following are TRUE about the greenhouse effect? I. High-energy solar radiation enters the atmosphere. II. Some of the energy is reflected, and some is absorbed by the Earth's surface. III. Heat is emitted as infrared radiation, and some of it is retained in the atmosphere, decreasing the temperature on Earth. A) Only I B) Only I and II C) I, II, and III D) Only II Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.3 Section: 53.3

68) In the figure, which of these countries has the highest per capita CO2 emissions? A) China B) Canada C) Japan D) Germany E) Australia Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.3 Section: 53.3 69) In the figure, which of these countries has the highest total CO2 emissions? A) China B) Canada C) Japan D) Germany E) Australia Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.3 Section: 53.3

70) Which of the following have contributed to the increase in the emission of CO2? I. Increases in human population II. Increases in per capita fossil-fuel use III. Land use changes A) Only I B) Only I and II C) I, II, and III D) Only II Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.3 Section: 53.3

71) Using the accompanying figure, what is the predicted change in temperature under a model with continued very high emission of greenhouse gases? A) 7°C B) 1°C C) −4°C D) 3°C E) 0°C Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.3 Section: 53.3

72) Using the accompanying figure, what is the predicted change in temperature under a model with dramatic reduction of greenhouse gases? A) 7°C B) <1°C C) −4°C D) 3°C E) 0°C Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.3 Section: 53.3

73) According to the figure, what are the changes in soil moisture expected in North America if greenhouse gases emissions continue to increase? A) Soil moisture is expected to increase in North American. B) Soil moisture is expected to decrease in North America. C) Soil moisture is expected to remain the same in North America. D) A prediction cannot be made based on the figure. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.3 Section: 53.3

74) Which of the following statements is an example of a negative feedback loop regarding changes in global climate? A) Warmer temperatures increase the frequency of forest fires, which in turn release CO2 into the atmosphere. B) Warmer temperatures increase decomposition rates in tundra ecosystems, which in turn release CH4 and N2O to the atmosphere. C) Warmer temperatures cause the polar ice caps to melt more rapidly, which increase the surface of darker water that absorbs solar radiation causing an increase in temperature. D) Some plant species grow faster, sequestering more CO2 as the concentrations of this gas increases in the atmosphere. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.3 Section: 53.3 75) Which of the following shifts is expected to occur to a mid-altitude plant species as the effects of climate change continue? I. Move toward higher altitude II. Move toward the poles III. Move toward an area of similar precipitation A) Only I B) Only I and II C) I, II, and III D) Only II E) Only II and III Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.3 Section: 53.3

76) Use the graph and information to answer the question below. Flycatcher birds that migrate from Africa to Europe feed their nestlings a diet that is almost exclusively moth caterpillars. The graph shows the mean dates of arrival, bird hatching, and peak caterpillar season for the years 1980 and 2000.

The shift in the peak of caterpillar season is most likely due to ________. A) pesticide use B) earlier migration returns of flycatchers C) an innate change in the biological clock of the caterpillars D) global warming E) acid precipitation in Europe Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.3 Section: 53.3

77) Which of the following are negative biological consequences of climate change? I. Changes in geographic ranges II. Changes in phenology III. Extinctions A) Only I B) Only I and III C) Only III D) Only II and III E) I, II, and III Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.3 Section: 53.3 78) In the Saint-Martin-de-Londres basin in the south of France, winters are getting warmer. During winter, there are fewer freezing nights. In this area, wild populations of Thymus vulgaris successfully persist despite the changes. Survival of T. vulgaris has been linked to an increase in the proportion of plants that produce phenolic compounds. This is an example of ________. A) a shift in geographical range in T. vulgaris in response to the effects of climate change B) a shift in phenological patterns in T. vulgaris in response to the effects of climate change C) a change in allele frequencies in T. vulgaris in response to the effects of climate change D) the adaptation of T. vulgaris to an increase in soil acidity Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.3 Section: 53.3 79) Climate change is causing the ________ of the Earth's oceans. A) deacidification and oxygenation B) acidification and oxygenation C) acidification and deoxygenation D) deacidification and deoxygenation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.3 Section: 53.3

80) As global CO2 atmospheric levels rise, an increase in net primary productivity is expected. An increase in global terrestrial productivity was confirmed in a study carried out between 1982 and 1999. This trend was not maintained in a study from 2000 to 2014, which revealed a decline in NPP across the Southern Hemisphere. Which of the following factors is related to this decline? I. Deforestation of the Amazon rain forest II. Abundance of nutrients in the soil III. Large scale droughts in the Southern Hemisphere IV. Decrease in CO2 atmospheric levels A) Only I and II B) Only II and IV C) Only I and III D) Only II and III E) Only III and IV Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: EM V&C Core Comp: MS LO: 53.3 Section: 53.3

Biological Science, 7e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison) Chapter 54 Biodiversity and Conservation Biology 1)

According to the accompanying figure, which of the following explains why the red panda is an important species to preserve? A) Red pandas are a symbol of conservation efforts. B) Red pandas live in areas that are critically endangered. C) Seals are more important to preserve than the red pandas because the ocean environment is critically endangered. D) Phylogenetically distinct species are high-priority species to target for conservation. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.1 Section: 54.1 2) Philippe Bouchet and colleagues conducted a massive survey of marine mollusks on the west coast of New Caledonia. Twenty percent of the species found had only a single specimen collected. What does that suggest about the diversity of mollusks in this area? A) The west coast of New Caledonia is not an appropriate habitat for mollusks. B) They did not spend enough time sampling in the area. C) Many of the species from this 20 percent are probably rare. D) They were not sampling uniformly throughout the area. E) Many of the species from this 20 percent are most likely just dispersing through the area. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.1 Section: 54.1

3) Which one of the following is LEAST likely to be a hot spot for birds? A) Amazon River basin B) East Africa C) Southwest China D) Greenland Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.1 Section: 54.1 4) If all individuals in the last remaining population of a particular bird species were all highly related, which type of diversity would be of greatest concern when planning to keep the species from going extinct? I. Genetic diversity II. Species diversity III. Ecosystem diversity A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) Only II and III E) I, II, and III Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.1 Section: 54.1 5) What is the biological significance of genetic diversity between populations? A) Genes for traits conferring an advantage to local conditions make evolution possible. B) The population that is most fit would survive by competitive exclusion. C) Genetic diversity allows for species stability by preventing speciation. D) Isolated populations become more fit. E) Diseases and parasites are not spread between separated populations. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.1 Section: 54.1

6) Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding species diversity and taxonomic diversity? A) Species diversity measures the relative frequency of all alleles present in a species. B) In taxonomic diversity, the number of species in a lineage is important. C) In species diversity, the number of animals in a particular lineage is important. D) The variety of species in a given area represents taxonomic diversity. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.1 Section: 54.1 7) With regard to the destruction of tropical forests, the focus is often on biodiversity and the impact on these ecosystems. What is a direct benefit to humans that helps explain why these forests need to be preserved? A) This diversity could contain undocumented insect species. B) Natural and undisturbed areas are important wildlife habitats. C) The diversity could contain novel drugs for consumers. D) The plant diversity provides shade, which reduces the impact of global warming. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.3 Section: 54.1 8) Which of the following terms includes all of the others? A) Species diversity B) Biodiversity C) Genetic diversity D) Ecosystem diversity E) Species richness Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.1 Section: 54.1

9) During the inventory of bacterial genes present in the Sargasso Sea in the middle of the Atlantic Ocean, a research team concluded that at least 1800 bacterial species were discovered. Based on what you know about this area, what would you expect to see in coral reef waters? A) Slightly greater genetic diversity B) Slightly smaller genetic diversity C) Equal genetic diversity D) Markedly greater genetic diversity E) Markedly smaller genetic diversity Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.1 Section: 54.1 10) Erwin and Scott used an insecticidal fog to knock down insects from the top of a L. seemannii tree. The researchers identified over 900 species of beetles among the individuals that fell. Erwin also projected that this entire tree is host to about 600 arthropod species unique to this tree species. There are approximately 50,000 species of tropical trees. Although it could not be entirely accurate, what would be the best way to estimate the total number of arthropod species? A) Estimate the species density and then multiply by 50,000. B) Multiply 900 by 50,000. C) Multiply 600 by 50,000. D) Divide 900 by 600 and then multiply by 50,000. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.1 Section: 54.1

11) What are the criteria Conservation International has established to determine if an area is a conservation hot spot? A) The area contains at least 1500 endemic vascular plant species and has more than at least 50 percent of its traditional or primary vegetation. B) The area contains at least 500 endemic vascular plant species and has lost at least 20 percent of its traditional or primary vegetation. C) The area contains at least 500 endemic vascular plant species and has more than at least 50 percent of its traditional or primary vegetation. D) The area contains at least 1500 endemic vascular plant species and has lost at least 70 percent of its traditional or primary vegetation. E) The area contains at least 1500 endemic vascular plant species and has more than at least 70 percent of its traditional or primary vegetation. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.1 Section: 54.1 12) Which of the following ecological locations has the greatest species diversity? A) Tundra B) Deciduous forests C) Tropical rain forest D) Grasslands E) Islands Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.1 Section: 54.1 13) Relatively small geographic areas with high concentrations of endemic species and a large number of endangered and threatened species are known as ________. A) endemic sinks B) critical communities C) biodiversity hot spots D) endemic metapopulations E) bottlenecks Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.1 Section: 54.1

14) In looking at the species-area plot in the figure, what can be concluded? A) The number of bird species increases with island area. B) The number of bird species remains the same on these various islands. C) Diversity is independent from island area. D) The number of bird species increases exponentially with island area. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.2 Section: 54.2 15) Based on the species—area plot in the figure, if habitable area on an island were reduced from 10,000 km2 (square kilometers) to 1000 km2, roughly what percentage of the species would disappear? A) 0.3 percent B) 3 percent C) 30 percent D) 60 percent Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.2 Section: 54.2 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) Which of the following statements regarding extinction is (are) correct? I. Only a small percentage of species is immune from extinction. II. Extinction occurs whether humans interfere or not. III. Extinctions can be caused indirectly by humans. A) Only I B) Only II C) Only III D) Only II and III E) I, II, and III Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.2 Section: 54.2 17) Which of the following criteria have to be met for a species to qualify as invasive? A) Endemic to the area, spreads rapidly, and displaces foreign species B) Introduced to a new area, spreads rapidly, and displaces native species C) Introduced to a new area, spreads rapidly, and displaces other invasive species D) Endemic to the area, spreads slowly, and displaces native species Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.2 Section: 54.2 18) A land developer and several ecologists are discussing how a parcel of private land should be developed while saving 20 hectares as natural habitat. The land developer suggests that the 20 hectares be divided into 20 separate 1-hectare areas. The ecologists suggest that it would be better to have one intact parcel of 20 hectares. What is the significance of these different arrangements of the 20 hectares? A) There really is no difference; they should both work equally well. B) The isolated hectare plots increase the ability of individuals to disperse from one habitat to another. C) The isolated plots are more vulnerable to edge effects. D) The large plot will create more inbreeding in many species. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.2, 54.3 Section: 54.2

19)

Looking at the figure, what can be said about edge effects? A) Biomass declines along edges of forest fragments. B) Biomass increases along the edges of forest fragments. C) Species diversity decreases along the edges of forest fragments. D) Fragmentation does not affect biomass. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.2 Section: 54.2 20) The main factor that leads to the loss of biodiversity is ________. A) habitat fragmentation B) habitat destruction C) industrialization D) transportation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.2 Section: 54.2

21)

Copyright © 2003 American Institute of Biological Sciences. (Foster, D. R., F. Swanson, J. Aber, D. Tilman, N. Brokaw, I. Burke, and A. Knapp. 2003. The importance of land-use and its legacies to ecology and environmental management. BioScience 53: 77–88.) Based on the figure, what can you conclude about the history of land use in the southern Yucatán? A) Massive soil erosion caused the Mayan population to crash. B) Reduction in forest cover caused the Mayan population to crash. C) As the Mayan population increased, deforestation increased, probably leading to increased soil erosion. D) This Mayan population practiced sustainable development. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.2, 54.3 Section: 54.2 22) Although extinction is a natural process, current extinctions are of concern to environmentalists because ________. A) more animals than ever before are going extinct B) most current extinctions are caused by introduced species C) the rate of extinction is higher than background extinction rates D) current extinction is primarily affecting plant diversity Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.2 Section: 54.2 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

23) According to most conservation biologists, the single greatest threat to global biodiversity is ________. A) chemical pollution of water and air B) stratospheric ozone depletion C) overexploitation of certain species D) alteration or destruction of the physical habitat Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.2 Section: 54.2 24) The introduction of the Burmese python by pet owners in Florida has resulted in ________. A) eradication of nonnative rats and other undesirable/pest species B) the threatening of many native species C) a good lesson in biological control D) a new species of hybrids from crossbreeding with a native snake species E) its failure to compete with native species and its quick elimination Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.2 Section: 54.2 25) Approximately what percentage of bird species are on the IUCN Red List? A) 0 percent B) 13 percent C) 23 percent D) 33 percent E) 53 percent Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.2 Section: 54.2

26) What type of ecosystem is most harmed by pollution? A) Freshwater B) Ocean C) Tropical rain forest D) Temperate forest E) Savanna Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.2 Section: 54.2 27) The decline of mammals in Africa is associated to the unsustainable hunting of animals for their ivory, skins, horns, and other body parts. This is an example of ________. A) habitat destruction or degradation B) overexploitation C) introduction of invasive species and disease D) pollution E) climate change Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.2 Section: 54.2 28) Which of the following biological species are expected to be reduced in numbers due to climate change? I. A species that lives in alpine habitats II. A species that live in coral reefs III. A slowly dispersing species like trees IV. A species that lives in a coastal environment A) Only I and II B) Only II and IV C) Only I, II, and III D) Only II, III, and IV E) I, II, III, and IV Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.2 Section: 54.2

29) The most serious consequence to humans of a decrease in global biodiversity would be the ________. A) increase in global warming and thinning of the ozone layer B) potential loss of ecosystem services on which people depend C) increase in the abundance and diversity of edge-adapted species D) loss of sources of genetic diversity to preserve endangered species E) loss of species for use as crops Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.3 Section: 54.3

30) Use the figure to answer this question: What two variables were manipulated? A) Plant biomass and species richness B) Plant biomass and number of functional groups C) Number of functional groups and species richness D) Plot size and plant biomass Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.3 Section: 54.3

31) Use the figure to answer this question: What factors have a positive effect on plant biomass, based on the data presented? A) Plot number and species richness B) No factors have a positive effect on plant biomass. C) Number of functional groups and species richness D) Plot size and type of plants in plot Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.3 Section: 54.3 32) Net primary productivity is important because ________. A) it is the source of chemical energy used by a species throughout a food web B) it is not important because of the inefficiency of energy flow through food webs C) it leads to lower biodiversity within small areas D) it can lead to the expiration of more CO2 into the atmosphere by plants Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.3 Section: 54.3 33) In prairies, the presence of plants in the onion family may discourage herbivores within the prairie. This is an example of ________. A) facilitation B) resource use efficiency C) competition D) predation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.3 Section: 54.3

34) Community stability refers to ________. A) the ability of a community to maintain productivity and other aspects of ecosystem function as conditions change over time and to recover to former levels of productivity or species richness after a disturbance B) the extent to which a community remains unchanged during a disturbance C) how quickly a community recovers following a disturbance D) how many species are in the community Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.3 Section: 54.3 35) Community resistance refers to ________. A) the ability of a community to maintain productivity and other aspects of ecosystem function as conditions change over time and to recover to former levels of productivity or species richness after a disturbance B) the extent to which a community remains unchanged during a disturbance C) how quickly a community recovers following a disturbance D) how many species are in the community Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.3 Section: 54.3 36) Community resilience refers to ________. A) the ability of a community to maintain productivity and other aspects of ecosystem function as conditions change over time and to recover to former levels of productivity or species richness after a disturbance B) the extent to which a community remains unchanged during a disturbance C) how quickly a community recovers following a disturbance D) how many species are in the community Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.3 Section: 54.3

37) Which of the following is a regulating service of ecosystems? A) Soil formation B) Recreation C) Nutrient cycling D) Providing genetic resources E) Education Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.3 Section: 54.3 38) Which of the following is a provisioning service of ecosystems? A) Soil formation B) Recreation C) Nutrient cycling D) Providing genetic resources E) Education Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.3 Section: 54.3 39) Which of the following is a cultural service of ecosystems? A) Soil formation B) Climate moderation C) Nutrient cycling D) Providing genetic resources E) Education Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.3 Section: 54.3

40) Which of the following have an impact on decisions about humans mitigating the extinctions and damages to ecosystem services? I. Moral issues II. Economic problems III. Biological problems A) Only I and II B) Only II and III C) Only III D) I, II, and III Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.3 Section: 54.3 41) What is TRUE concerning the high consumption of fossil fuels? A) It has no effect on biodiversity. B) It affects biodiversity by directly harming species. C) It affects biodiversity indirectly via climate change. D) It affects biodiversity both directly and indirectly via climate change. E) It affects biodiversity indirectly via decreases in CO2 emissions. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.4 Section: 54.4 42) Ex situ conservation refers to ________. A) managing ecosystems to reduce effects of invasive species B) introducing new alleles to populations C) preserving species that are no longer found in the wild in zoos or aquaria D) keeping seed banks of endangered plants E) designing policies to prevent introduction of exotic species Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.4 Section: 54.4

43) Success in the restoration of ecosystems is positively correlated with ________. I. The size of the area restored II. Increase in biodiversity III. The intactness of surrounding areas A) Only I and II B) Only I and III C) I, II, and III D) Only II E) Only II and III Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding V&C Core Concept: E V&C Core Comp: PS LO: 54.4 Section: 54.4