Biology 13e Peter Raven, George Johnson, Kenneth Mason, Jonathan Losos, Tod Duncan (Test Bank All Chapters, 100% Original Verified, A+ Grade) Answers At The End Of Each Chapter Chapter 1
Student name:__________ 1) Science is subdivided into specific areas of study termed disciplines. These divisions are
artificial but are helpful to narrow the massive scope of scientific knowledge to a manageable amount. Given what you know about each, which scientific division is likely to present the best answer to a question about how fluid dynamics affect blood pressure in mammals? A) Biochemistry – study of chemical reactions needed for life function, usually at the cellular level. B) Bioinformatics – use of technology to study and store biological data C) Biophysics – study of biological processes through physics D) Biology – study of life
2) Based on hierarchical levels of biological organization, which of these choices represents the
broadest level? A) Endocrine system B) 3 toed sloths C) School of piranhas D) Amazon Basin E) Jaguars, giant anteaters, macaws, capybaras
3) Experiments are carried out to test a hypothesis by changing one variable at a time and
should include an unchanged variable termed a(n)_________. A) experimental variable B) altered variable C) control D) stable variable
4) The method of reasoning that uses construction of general principles by careful examination
of many specific cases is called: A) deductive reasoning. B) theoretical reasoning. C) hypothetical reasoning. D) inductive reasoning. E) experimental reasoning.
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5) Dr. Ratard was trying to determine the cause of a mysterious epidemic affecting fish in the
Gulf of Mexico. His proposal that the deaths were caused by an organism called a protist is considered a(n)_________ A) experiment. B) hypothesis. C) conclusion. D) theory. E) data set.
6) After Darwin concluded his voyage on the Beagle, he proposed that the process of natural
selection was a mechanism for: A) artificial selection. B) evolution. C) sexual selection. D) speciation. E) overpopulation of finches on the Galapagos Islands.
7) A scientific theory is: A) a suggested explanation that accounts for observations. B) a way to organize how we think about a problem. C) a concept that is supported by experimental evidence that explains the facts in an area
of study. D) a way to understand a complex system by reducing it to its working parts.
8) What common life characteristic would cells from a daisy, bacteria, and a dog all have? A) DNA B) cell walls C) organs D) ability to conduct photosynthesis
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9) A yellow jacket, an insect in the order Hymenoptera, stung me. A wasp, an insect in
Hymenoptera, stung me. A hornet, an insect in Hymenoptera, stung me. I see a pattern. All insects in this order must have stingers. What type of reasoning does this represent? A) inductive reasoning B) deductive reasoning C) reductionism D) comparative reasoning
10) You explain to your study group that a hypothesis is: A) an explanation that accounts for careful observations. B) a proposition that will be true and fits the known facts. C) a theory. D) constant over time.
11) A suggested explanation that might be true and is subject to testing by further observations is
a(n): A) B) C) D) E)
experiment. generality. hypothesis. scientific principle. theory.
12) Based on the literature, you hypothesize that students in traditional biology lectures will have
the same grades as students in online biology lectures. You decide to test your hypothesis by comparing grades of students in traditional and online biology lectures over a semester. As a result of the experiment, you observe that the grades in the traditional lectures and the grades in the online lectures are not significantly different. What do these observations allow you to do? A) reject the hypothesis B) modify the hypothesis to fit the results C) develop a scientific theory D) retain the hypothesis
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13) Your microwave will not turn on, and you speculate that a circuit breaker in the house has
been tripped. In scientific terminology, the steps would be described as: A) forming conclusions from the results of experiments. B) developing an observation based on a hypothesis. C) developing a hypothesis based on an observation. D) testing a prediction generated from a hypothesis.
14) A student poses the question: How does the presence of dissolved salt affect the freezing
point of water? To answer this question, the student set up two conditions. In the first condition, the student added salt to water in a container and referred to this condition as the variable. In the second condition, the student did not add any salt to water in a second container and referred to this condition as the control. The student took both containers and attempted to freeze the water at various temperatures to assess the freezing point. Would this be a valid experiment? A) Yes, because there is more than one variable. B) Yes, because there is one variable and a control C) No, because there is not more than one variable D) No because there is only one variable and a control
15) Karl Popper suggested that scientists use "imaginative preconception," which means that
successful scientists: A) often predict the outcome of experiments. B) cannot predict the outcome of experiments. C) do not need to do experiments to test their ideas. D) do not keep records of experiments that fail. E) only perform applied research.
16) The proposal that one type of organism can change gradually into another type over a long
period of time is known as: A) evolution. B) natural history. C) preconception. D) preservation.
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17) Darwin's ideas on evolution were advanced for his time. His approach to science and natural
selection were supported by what main tenet? A) Various organisms and their structures resulted from a spontaneous action. B) Species were unchangeable over the course of time. C) The world is fixed and constant. D) Operation of natural laws produces constant change and improvement.
18) Besides Darwin, the theory of evolution by means of natural selection was also
independently proposed by: A) Alfred Wallace. B) Charles Lyell. C) Thomas Malthus. D) Karl Popper. E) Peter Raven.
19) The term that Darwin used to describe the concept that those with superior physical, behavior
or other attributes are more likely to survive than those that are not so well endowed, and thus are more likely to pass their traits to the next generation, is called: A) biological diversity B) geometric progression C) natural selection D) superior beings E) survival of modifications
20) A key contribution to Darwin's thinking was the concept of limits put on the geometric
growth of populations by nature, originally proposed by: A) Charles Lyell. B) Thomas Malthus. C) Karl Popper. D) Peter Raven. E) Russel Wallace.
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21) Darwin's book in which he described his views on evolution is: A) Principles of Geology. B) On the Principle of Population. C) On the Origin of Species. D) Survival of the Fittest.
22) Recent discoveries of microscopic fossils have extended the known history of life to about: A) 3.5 billion years ago. B) 2 billion years ago. C) 4.5 billion years ago. D) 1 billion years ago.
23) In California, a species of salamanders were geographically separated over time. The group
that lived in southern California relied heavily on large gold blotches on their skin that helped to camouflage them from predators. The group that lived along the coast adopted a color pattern that mimicked a poisonous, colorful newt common to that area. Instead of being camouflaged, these salamanders advertised their colors. What type of selection process has occurred over time? A) artificial selection B) natural selection C) experimental selection D) theoretical selection
24) The same basic array of bones is modified to give rise to the wing of a bat and the fin of a
porpoise. Such anatomical structures are called: A) analogous. B) uniform. C) homologous. D) inherited. E) evolutionary modifications.
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25) Structures that have similar structure and function but different evolutionary origins are
called: A) B) C) D) E)
homologous. analogous. inherited. uniform. evolutionary modifications.
26) The rate at which evolution is occurring cannot be estimated by: A) studying comparative anatomy. B) inferring that apes are related to humans. C) measuring the degree of difference in genetic coding. D) interpretation of the fossil record.
27) Differences in domesticated animals over relatively short periods of time most likely occur
through: A) natural selection B) adaptation C) evolution D) experimental selection E) artificial selection
28) As part of your research project, you travel to an island to learn more about the habitats and
relationships of flies, spiders, and centipedes. You and your assistant plot out five different areas on the island and count the numbers of flies, spiders, and centipedes living in each plot. Your results show the following: Plot
Flies
Spiders
Centipedes
1
300
25
4
2
426
17
10
3
147
15
21
4
739
78
0
5
79
13
93
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28.1)
The most plausible explanation for the high number of spiders in plot 4 is: A) there are too many flies overall. B) there are no centipedes to prey on the spiders and there are abundant flies upon which to feed. C) the spiders preyed on the centipedes and ignored the flies. D) the flies and spiders worked together to eliminate the centipedes.
28.2)
The plots that were staked out on the island were part of the: A) applied research. B) basic research. C) constructed model. D) experimental design.
28.3)
Based in the information provided, the best explanation for the low numbers of spiders and flies in plot 5 is: A) centipedes are actively consuming flies and spiders. B) there were not enough flies to support a large centipede population. C) centipedes prefer spiders to flies. D) there were not enough spiders to catch and consume all the flies.
28.4)
The hypothesis that closely matches the data provided is: A) herbivorous insects survive best on islands where spiders and centipedes live. B) herbivorous insects feed on spiders and centipedes. C) herbivorous insects and spider populations are decreased by centipedes. D) spiders are the top predators on all islands.
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29) If you were to design a long-term research study to determine why there are no human births
in Lapland during the months of August, September, and October, you would need to examine a comparison population of humans in which births took place every month. The primary reason for including a comparison population within the design of this experiment would be to: A) accumulate more facts that could be reported to other scientists. B) test the effects of more than one variable at the same time. C) prove that there are no births in Lapland during August, September, and October. D) act as a control to ensure that the results obtained are due to a difference in only one variable.
30) Essay on the Principle of Population, written by Thomas Malthus in 1798, influenced
Darwin's thoughts as he struggled to understand what mechanisms could be at work to produce evolution. Malthus proposed that populations of animals and plants, including humans, A) increased arithmetically in numbers while the nutrients available only increased geometrically. B) increased geometrically in numbers while the nutrients available only increased arithmetically. C) decreased arithmetically in numbers while the nutrients available increased geometrically. D) evolved from islands to mainland, thus explaining why unrelated species on the mainland are found in the same location. E) evolved from mainland to islands, thus explaining why the island flora and fauna resembled the mainland species so closely.
31) A student set up an experiment to test if plants give off water vapor. Fifty pea plants,
growing in pots, were covered with individual glass containers and left overnight. The next morning, the inside of each lid was covered in droplets of water. The lab student concluded that plants generally give off water vapor. What critique would you make of the experimental design? A) There was no control so the water could have come from other sources such as air in the jar or the soil. B) There was not a large enough sample of pea plants used to get adequate data. C) The student did not have a clearly stated hypothesis before beginning the experiment. D) The experiment was not precise, meaning it was not reproducible.
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32) It is known that many trees lose their leaves in response to decreasing day length. As a result,
you think that Gingko trees may also lose their leaves in response to decreasing day length. This statement is an example of: A) deductive reasoning B) an experiment C) a hypothesis D) a theory
33) Multiple independent experiments have demonstrated that phytochrome helps trigger
seasonal change responses in planta such as changing color and losing leaves. Plants have the ability to adapt to seasonal changes in their surroundings. This statement is an example of: A) deductive reasoning B) an experiment C) a hypothesis D) inductive reasoning E) a theory
34) Plants are raised under artificial lights turned off and on by an electric clock. Some are given
long periods of light, others short periods. This is an example of: A) deductive reasoning B) an experiment C) a hypothesis D) inductive reasoning E) a theory
35) Both walnut and Gingko trees lose their leaves in the fall when day length starts decreasing.
Based on these observations one may conclude that many tree species will lose their leaves in the fall in response to decreasing day length. This statement is an example of: A) deductive reasoning B) an experiment C) inductive reasoning D) a theory
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36) Gingko trees are known to lose their leaves at a certain time each year throughout the United
States. Based on this information, Gingko trees in China must behave the same way. These statements are an example of: A) deductive reasoning B) an experiment C) inductive reasoning D) a theory
37) Most individuals in academia are basic researchers, funded through research grants from
agencies or foundations. Based on your knowledge of applied research, an industrial company would most likely employ individuals A) who develop alternative fuel sources. B) who identify a new species of beetle in the Amazon rainforest. C) looking at novel proteins involved in the development of a neurological disease. D) who document fossils found in a specific archeological expedition.
38) Wings of birds and butterflies have similar functions, but different evolutionary origins. They
are: A) B) C) D)
homologous structures. physiological structures. phylogenetic structures. analogous structures.
39) An alien from another planet landed on earth. He is fascinated by cars and is determined to
figure out how they work. He decides to disassemble one of them and examine each part independently. He removes one of the tires and proceeds to learn all he can about the tire. He then removes one of the headlights and proceeds to learn all he can about the headlight. What type of approach is this alien taking to learn about the car? A) reductionism B) deductive reasoning C) inductive reasoning D) Emergent properties
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40) While you are riding the ski lift up to the top of the mountain on a very cold day you start to
shiver involuntarily. You know that the shivering is your body′s attempt to help regulate your body temperature and is an example of what type of mechanism? A) energy utilization B) sensitivity C) homeostasis D) evolutionary adaptation
41) You have been assigned to address the problem of overpopulation of species X in a nearby
county. One of the members of your team suggests introducing species Y, which is a natural predator of species X, but not normally found in the area. After some discussion, you go ahead and introduce species Y. What aspects of the hierarchical organization may be affected within a period of a several years? A) population, species, community B) population, community C) population, species, community, biosphere D) organism, population, species
42) You have been assigned to analyze some extraterrestrial material recently collected from
Mars. After examining a sample using a microscope you jump up excitedly and shout to your colleagues that you have confirmed the existence of life on Mars. One of your colleagues takes a look at your sample and remarks that all he sees is a single-celled "blob" with little internal structure. Assuming that life on Mars can be classified into similar domains and kingdoms as Earth, to which domain does your "blob" belong? A) Animalia B) Fungi C) Protista D) Archaea
43) Why was the determination of the actual sequence of the human genome considered to be
descriptive science? A) It involved hypothesis-driven research. B) It did not involve hypothesis-driven research. C) It involved inductive reasoning. D) It did not involve deductive reasoning.
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44) You look outside and realize that your grass needs to be mowed. You pick up the container
of gasoline and see that you have approximately a third of a gallon left. You hypothesize that this amount will be enough to mow your entire lawn. Unfortunately, half way through mowing your lawn you run out of gasoline. You grumble and think to yourself that the next time you mow the lawn, you hypothesize that you will need to have at least two-thirds of a gallon of gasoline available. How did the results of your lawn-mowing experience influence the validity of your new hypothesis for future gasoline needs? A) Your prediction of future gas needs is based on experimental data and therefore increases the validity of your hypothesis. B) The hypothesis was invalidated by your experimental evidence. C) Your hypothesis was supported by trial and error. One more trial added to your data set. D) Your prediction proved that your hypothesis is correct.
45) Why is it necessary to take an interdisciplinary approach to studying biology? A) Interdisciplinary approaches are required to answer all scientific questions since all
disciplines borrow knowledge from each. B) Research methods used to solve many biological questions often require a number of different types of approaches and the expertise of a variety of scientists. C) An interdisciplinary approach is the only way we can further our biological knowledge.
46) How does peer review influence the development of scientific theories? A) Peer review allows other scientists to know what is current in their field. B) Careful evaluation of research results by other scientists ensures that only solid and
legitimate research results are published, and helps prevent faulty research or false claims from being viewed as scientific fact. C) Peer review increases competition among scientists and thus increases the quality of the published work. D) Peer review makes it extremely difficult for work to be published other than earthshattering scientific theories.
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47) Cell theory is one of the foundations of biology. What are the tenets of the cell theory? Check
all that apply. A) All organisms are made up of more than one cell. B) All cells have the ability to move. C) Cells carry genetic material passed to daughter cells during cellular division. D) Cells arise from other cells through the process of cell division. E) Organisms are formed through spontaneous generation F) All living organisms consist of cells
48) Darwin's theory of evolution is supported by many modern pieces of evidence. Check all that
apply. A) B) C) D) E)
New measurements of the age of the earth. An understanding of the mechanism of heredity. Human population growth. Comparative studies of animal structures. Similarities in DNA of related species.
49) Amanda was studying turtles based on DNA analysis. Under the current classification
scheme, which of the following turtle species are thought to be most closely related? (1) Graptemys ouachitensis, (2) Trachemys scripta, (3) Apalone spinifera, (4) Graptemys kohni. A) 1 and 3 due to inductive reasoning B) 1 and 3 due to deductive reasoning C) 2 and 3 due to inductive reasoning D) 1 and 4 due to inductive reasoning E) 2 and 3 due to deductive reasoning F) 1 and 4 due to deductive reasoning
50) Marceau is studying small single-celled organisms that contain phospholipid membranes.
These organisms can be broadly classified into the domain: A) Bacteria B) Protista C) Animalia D) Fungi
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51)
McGraw Hill
51.1)
The common ancestor that produced the most evolutionary recent derived characters is A) 12 B) 9 C) 8 D) 6
51.2)
The species that have had proportionally the most time to diverge are: A) R and D B) F and Z C) A and Z D) F and R E) F
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52) Bacterial cells are placed into a 250mL liquid growth medium in a closed laboratory flask.
According to Malthusian theory, they will reproduce exponentially and then: A) continue reproducing geometrically as long as there are no limitations on food supply. B) continue reproducing arithmetically as long as there are no limitations on food supply. C) continue reproducing geometrically until the food supply is used up, then they will cease to grow. D) continue reproducing arithmetically until the food supply is used up, then they will cease to grow.
53) If two different species of fish fossils were found in two different layers of sedimentary rock,
what might one infer about the specimens? A) They died at the same time B) The two species are unrelated C) The species in the higher layer evolved from the species in the lower layer D) The species in lower layer died first E) The species in the higher layer died first
54) A dental student wants to test if fluoride is an effective additive against tooth decay. The
student studies tooth decay in a population of people who live in neighborhoods supplied with fluoridated water. This student would like to ask whether access to fluoridated water prevents tooth decay. What would be an effective control group to ask this question? A) Individuals with access to fluoridated water. B) Individuals with access to differing amounts of fluoride in the water. C) Individuals who have fluoride added to their toothpaste but not their water. D) Individuals with access to water with no fluoride added.
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55) Which statement represents the biological characteristics that kittens, oak trees, swans, earth
worms, elephants and crickets have in common? A) DNA nucleotides form the basis of all inherited life, with cells that are formed from other cells. B) DNA nucleotides form the basis of inherited life, with cells that are formed spontaneously from the environment. C) RNA nucleotides form the basis of all inherited life, with cells that are formed from other cells. D) RNA nucleotides form the basis of inherited life, with cells that are formed spontaneously from the environment.
56) Viruses contain DNA or RNA, but lack genes necessary for metabolism and reproduction.
Why are viruses not considered to be alive? A) Viruses are unable to reproduce independently of a host. B) Viruses do not contain nucleic acids. C) Viruses do not have the ability to evolve in their environment. D) Viruses do not contain internal organelles.
57) Phil is conducting a seed germination experiment. He places 3 groups of lettuce seeds in a
34º Celsius incubator with adequate moisture. One set of seeds is placed in a dark area with no light source. A second set is placed under artificial light and third set of seeds is placed in direct sunlight. This experiment is intended to test Phil's hypothesis that light is necessary for lettuce seed germination.
57.1)
Based on the experimental design, which variable was the control? A) Seeds in the dark B) Type of light C) Germination rate D) Temperature E) Moisture
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57.2)
Based on the experimental design, which variable was the dependent variable? A) Seeds in the dark B) Type of light C) Germination rate D) Temperature E) Moisture
58) Osmometer cells in the brain sense an increase in the salt concentration of plasma. This
information is sent to the hypothalamus, which notifies the pituitary gland to release the hormone, ADH. ADH causes the kidney to save water, which lowers the salt concentration of the plasma. What characteristic of life does this overall pathway represent? A) Cellular organization B) Sensitivity C) Energy utilization D) Evolutionary adaptation E) Homeostasis
59) A chemical imbalance in the blood can cause the heart to stop pumping blood, which will
have a detrimental effect on other organs. This observation can be attributed to: A) Reductionism B) Emergent properties C) Equilibrium state D) Evolutionary conservation
60) Luke was taken to a pediatrician when he was 6 months old. The pediatrician consulted a
graph and concluded that Luke was in the 97th percentile for height, weight and length. The pediatrician predicted that Luke would be tall when he reached adulthood.
60.1)
What type of reasoning did the pediatrician use to generate her prediction about Luke’s future growth in height? A) Inductive reasoning B) Deductive reasoning C) Applied theory D) Reductionism
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60.2)
What type of logic is being used when the pediatrician uses the graph to make conclusions about Luke’s progress? A) Inductive reasoning B) Applied theory C) Reductionism D) Deductive reasoning
61) Turtle hatchling survivorship rate is low in many turtle species due to predation. Amanda
researched the predatory rate on a species of turtle eggs in the Red River. The eggs were harvested from trapped turtles and the egg's cloaca film (reproductive discharge) was either washed off or left on once gathered. Research suggests that predators use the female's cloaca scent to locate the eggs. The eggs were only handled when wearing gloves and then reburied along islands where the turtles were trapped. The nests were monitored by cameras and manually on foot and data on nest predation were recorded.
61.1)
Based on the experimental design, what is the dependent variable? A) Number of hatchlings B) Cloaca film on eggs C) Eggs without cloaca film D) Time eggs spent in ground
61.2)
Based on the experimental design, what is the independent variable? A) Number of hatchlings B) Cloaca film on eggs C) Inducing egg laying D) Time eggs spent in ground
61.3)
Based on the experimental design, what is the control? A) Hatchling survival rate B) Cloaca scent on eggs C) No cloaca scent on eggs D) Time eggs spent in ground
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62) Dr. Edward Jenner realized that cows have a disease called cowpox, which is like a disease
that infects humans called smallpox; Jenner noticed that milkmaids whose hands were infected with cowpox were not contracting smallpox. Jenner infected a child with the pus from a cowpox blister, and found that the child did not contract smallpox. Which statement represents a supporting hypothesis? A) The cowpox infection will prevent the child from being infected by the smallpox virus. B) The cowpox infection will have no effect on the child’s immunity to the smallpox virus. C) The smallpox virus was so similar to the cowpox virus that the child’s immune system recognized it and was able to fight it. D) The cowpox virus prevented the smallpox virus from entering the child’s immune system.
63) A beautiful wood desk you may do your homework on was once a living tree, but after being
cut down its tissues died. Now, it only exhibits what property of life? A) Metabolism B) Homeostasis C) Sensitivity D) Organization
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 1 1) C 2) D 3) C 4) D 5) B 6) B 7) C 8) A 9) A 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) C 14) B 15) A 16) A 17) D 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) B 26) B 27) E 28) Section Break 28.1) B 28.2) D 28.3) A 28.4) C 29) D 30) B 31) A 32) A 33) E
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34) B 35) C 36) A 37) A 38) D 39) A 40) C 41) A 42) D 43) B 44) A 45) B 46) B 47) [C, D, F] 48) [A, B, D, E] 49) D 50) A 51) Section Break 51.1) D 51.2) B 52) C 53) D 54) D 55) A 56) A 57) Section Break 57.1) A 57.2) C 58) E 59) B 60) Section Break 60.1) A 60.2) D 61) Section Break 61.1) A 61.2) B 61.3) B 62) A 63) D
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Chapter 2 Student name:__________ 1) Matter is composed of: A) atoms B) energy C) mass D) molecules
2) The number of protons in a given atom is equal to its: A) atomic number B) mass C) neutron number D) molecular number
3) Isotopes that are unstable and decay when their nucleus breaks up into elements with lower
atomic numbers, and emit significant amounts of energy in the process, are called: A) energetic B) ionic C) radioactive D) isometric
4) Atoms containing a specific number of protons are called: A) minerals B) elements C) metals D) molecules
5) Sugar dissolves completely in water because of water's_________. A) ionic bonds B) cohesiveness C) hydrophobic exclusion D) polarity
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6) The negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution is referred to as: A) pH B) atomic mass C) -OH concentration D) electronegativity E) specific heat
7) Bicarbonate ions in the blood can absorb hydrogen ions, keeping the pH balanced.
Bicarbonate acts as a_________ in blood. A) buffer B) acid C) base D) alkaline
8) Atomic nuclei contain protons and_________. A) isomers B) ions C) moles D) neutrons
9) Carbon-12, Carbon-13 and Carbon-14 are examples of: A) ions B) isotopes C) isomers D) molecules
10) Organisms are composed of molecules, which are collections of smaller units, termed: A) monomers. B) atoms. C) electrons. D) polymers. E) ions.
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11) Negatively charged subatomic particles that have almost no mass are called: A) electrons. B) protons. C) neutrons. D) ions. E) polymers.
12) Atoms of a single element that possess different numbers of neutrons are called: A) polymers. B) ions. C) monomers. D) isomers. E) isotopes.
13)
is an example of a: A) B) C) D)
oxidation. reduction. polymerization. ionization.
14) When atoms gain or lose electrons, they can become negatively or positively charged. These
charged atoms are known as: A) isotopes. B) ions. C) isomers. D) unstable atoms.
15) When two atoms share a pair of electrons, this bonding is referred to as: A) ionic. B) covalent. C) unstable. D) hydrogen.
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16) Water molecules are polar, with regions that exhibit partial positive or negative charges.
These opposite charges allow water molecules to attract each other via: A) ionic bonds. B) covalent bonds. C) hydrogen bonds. D) peptide bonds.
17) An atom has 20 electrons and 20 neutrons. Assume it has a net charge of zero. What is the
total mass of this atom? A) 10 B) 20 C) 40 D) 80
18) Sanai was monitoring the oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico from an oil tanker. From her
observations, she noted that the oil was moving in large patches through the water. The oil did not appear to dissolve into the water. Why did the oil not dissolve into the water? A) Hydrophobic interactions B) Surface tension C) Sea water acts as a solvent D) Water forms hydration shells E) Water has a high heat of vaporization
19) The atomic number of an element is equal to the number of: A) protons only. B) neutrons only. C) protons plus electrons. D) protons plus neutrons. E) neutrons plus electrons.
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20) Oxygen has an atomic mass of 16 and an atomic number of 8. How many neutrons are
present? A) 24 B) 8 C) 16 D) 4
21) <p>The pH of your small intestines is around 7.5 and the pH of your large intestine can be
5.5. As substances travel from the small intestines to the large intestine, what would happen to the ion concentration?</p> A) It decreases 100-fold. B) It increases by 100-fold. C) It increases 10-fold. D) It increases 2-fold. E) It decreases 10-fold.
22) Oxygen-16 is abundant in the environment and has 8 protons and 8 neutrons. Oxygen-18 has
two extra neutrons. These two forms of oxygen are: A) oxygen ions. B) oxygen isotopes. C) oxygen isomers. D) oxygen dimers.
23) Which element's isotope is commonly used to determine when biological samples such as
fossils were formed? A) oxygen B) hydrogen C) carbon D) nitrogen E) sulfur
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24) A type of atom where the number of electrons does not equal the number of protons is also
referred to as: A) valences. B) ions. C) isotopes. D) isomers.
25) The area around a nucleus where an electron is most likely to be found is the: A) electrical space. B) energy level. C) polar space. D) orbital.
26) Regardless of its shape, a given orbital may contain no more than: A) 1 electron. B) 4 electrons. C) 8 electrons. D) 2 electrons.
27) All atoms tend to fill their outer energy levels with the maximum number of electrons,
usually eight. Depending on whether atoms satisfy the octet rule, this will predict: A) the chemical behavior of the atoms. B) whether they will be found in nature. C) whether they will dissolve in water. D) their radioactive energy.
28) Mendeleev found that when he arranged the known elements according to their atomic mass,
the entries in the table exhibited a pattern of chemical properties that repeated itself in groups of eight elements. This led to the generalization now known as: A) an atomic model. B) valance electrons. C) the periodic table. D) the octet rule.
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29) Sodium has 11 electrons arranged in three energy levels. In order to become stable, sodium
forms an ion that contains: A) no charge. B) -1 charge. C) -8 charge. D) +1 charge. E) +8 charge.
30) In the crystal matrix of ordinary salt, the sodium and chlorine are held together by: A) peptide bonds. B) covalent bonds. C) ionic bonds. D) hydrogen bonds. E) nonpolar bonds.
31) Two oxygen atoms bind to each other by sharing two pairs of electrons. This molecule forms
a(n): A) B) C) D)
single bond. ionic bond. hydrogen bond. double covalent bond.
32) In a chemical analysis of a sample of animal tissue, which element would you expect to find
in the least quantity? A) carbon B) hydrogen C) nitrogen D) oxygen E) iodine
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33) Life is thought to have evolved from complex molecules formed by the interaction of smaller
molecules in the oceans and atmosphere. The substance which brought these molecules together to interact is: A) hydrogen. B) acids. C) water. D) buffers. E) salts.
34) Because oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen, the water molecule is: A) hydrophobic. B) hydrophilic. C) nonpolar. D) ionic. E) polar.
35) Water molecules are attracted to each other due to the opposite charges created by partial
charge separations within the molecules. These attractions are called: A) peptide bonds. B) covalent bonds. C) ionic bonds. D) hydrogen bonds. E) double bonds.
36) How many hydrogen bonds can a water molecule form? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
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37) Nitrogen has a higher electronegativity than hydrogen. As a result you would expect that
ammonia ( ) molecules can form_________ with each other. A) hydrogen bonds B) hydrophilic bonds C) ionic bonds D) covalent bonds E) cohesive bonds
38) When water ionizes, it produces equal amounts of hydrogen and hydroxide ions that can
reassociate with each other. The pH of water is: A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7
39) A scientist conducts a procedure that causes nitrogen atoms to gain neutrons. The resulting
atoms will be: A) ions of nitrogen. B) positively charged. C) negatively charged. D) isotopes of nitrogen. E) new elements with higher atomic numbers.
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40) The half-life of Carbon-14 is approximately 5,700 years. Using this information scientists
have been able to determine the age of some artifacts left by humans. A scientist wants to know approximately how old a piece of wood is that she found on the floor in an old cave that had recently been discovered. She removed the wood (with permission) and took it to her laboratory. Her wood sample contained 2 grams of Carbon-14. If the age of the wood was determined to be 22,800 years old, how much Carbon-14 originally existed in this piece of wood? A) 32 grams B) 16 grams C) 12 grams D) 8 grams E) 4 grams
41) Plants transport water to their leaves through the xylem when water evaporates from the
leaves. The evaporating water pulls other water molecules up the xylem by means of_________ . A) hydrogen bonds B) ionic bonds C) covalent bonds D) hydrophobic interactions
42) Water is most dense and thus heaviest at 4°C. At 0°C, ice forms and can float on liquid water.
Suppose ice was more dense then water at 0°C. What would happen in a lake at this temperature? A) The ice would cover the surface of the aquatic system and would never melt. B) The ice would cover the bottom of the aquatic system and would build up in layers over time. C) Ice would not form because solids are always less dense than liquids. D) The cold temperatures and the subsequent ice formation would prevent hydrogen bonds from forming between the water molecules, thus causing the existing ice crystals to become disassociated from each other.
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43) Your dog becomes ill and you rush him to the veterinarian's office. A technician draws blood
from your dog's leg for a vet-ordered lab test. After a few minutes the lab results are given to the vet, who immediately grabs a bottle from a shelf and begins to fill a syringe with an unknown fluid. You inquire about the fluid, and the vet informs you that the fluid is necessary to manage your dog's metabolic acidosis. Based on the information provided, what is acidosis, and what is the likely effect of the veterinarian's injection? A) Acidosis means that your dog's blood pH has dropped from its normal level, and an injection of saline is required to reverse the condition. B) Acidosis means that your dog's blood pH has increased from its normal level, and an injection of saline is required to reverse the condition. C) Acidosis means that your dog's blood pH has decreased from its normal level, and an injection of buffering solution is required to reverse the condition. D) Acidosis means that your dog's blood pH has increased from its normal level, and an injection of buffering solution is required to reverse the condition.
44) As you and a friend are entering a chemistry laboratory at your university, you see a sign that
states: DANGER—RADIOACTIVE ISOTOPES IN USE. Your friend is an accounting major and has not had any science courses yet. She asks you what a radioactive isotope is and you respond correctly with: A) Radioactive isotopes are atoms that are unstable and as a result emit energy in a process called radioactive decay. B) Radioactive isotopes are atoms that are stable and as a result emit energy in a process called radioactive decay. C) Radioactive isotopes are atoms that are stable and as a result only emit energy if they are exposed to higher temperatures. D) Radioactive isotopes are atoms that are unstable but unless actively disturbed by some chemical process will remain intact and pose no problems.
45) To increase the rate of a reaction you could: A) Add more products. B) Decrease the temperature. C) Add more reactants. D) remove a catlyst
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46) The two nitrogen atoms in nitrogen gas ( A) triple covalent bond B) double covalent bond C) single covalent bond D) hydrogen bond E) double bond
) share six electrons forming a_________.
47) Capillary action is one of the forces that aids water's upward movement in plants. The
narrower the diameter of the tube, the farther the water column will rise. Capillary action is a result of water molecules: A) storing heat and thus moving faster because of heat of vaporization. B) producing sufficient surface tension to overcome the pull of gravity. C) having a strong cohesive force and attaching to the surrounding vessel walls. D) having an adhesive force, which allows them to attach to the vessel walls. E) being associated with hydrophobic molecules, which can result in upward movement.
48) Which atomic particle has no charge and is located in the nucleus? A) electron B) ion C) neutron D) proton E) isotope
49) A subatomic particle with a positive charge is_________. A) an electron B) an ion C) a neutron D) a proton E) an isotope
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50) The smallest subatomic particle is the_________. A) electron B) ion C) isotope D) neutron E) proton
51) An atom that becomes negatively charged because it has accepted an electron is a(n): A) isomer. B) ion. C) isotope. D) monomer.
52) One mole of a substance contains
molecules. The atomic number of Li is 3 and the atomic mass is approximately 7. If you have three moles of Li, how many grams does it weigh? A) 9 B) 21 C) D)
53) After taking your biology exam, you return to your car to find that you had left the lights on
and now the car battery is dead. Your friend offers to jump-start your car, but when you go to hook up the jumper cables you find that the battery terminals are covered with corrosion due to battery acid condensation. Based off your knowledge, what substance could be used to clean the corrosion? A) coffee (pH of 5) B) water (pH of 7) C) vinegar (pH of 3) D) baking soda (pH of 9)
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54) The amino acid glycine ( A) organic molecule B) inorganic molecule C) element D) vitamin
) is a(n):
55) Consider the following electronegativity values:
Boron (B) = 1.8 Carbon (C) = 2.5 Chlorine (Cl) = 3.2 Selenium (Se) = 2.6 Which of the following bonds is the most polar? A) B-Cl B) C-Cl C) Se-Cl D) It cannot be determined from the information provided.
56) <p>The reaction (
) is an example of a redox reaction. In reality, two
half reactions are occurring. The half reaction ( A) reduction reaction B) oxidation reaction C) redox reaction D) potential energy reaction
) is a(n):</p>
57) The electronic configuration of the noble gas Neon, which has an atomic number of 10, can
be written as follows: . What is the electronic configuration of the noble gas Argon, which has an atomic number of 18? A) B) C) D)
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58) You identify an enzyme involved in a cellular reaction. How does the enzyme affect the
reaction equilibrium between reactants and products and the time needed to reach equilibrium? A) It alters the reaction equilibrium and shortens the time needed to reach equilibrium. B) The reaction equilibrium is unaffected, but it shortens the time needed to reach equilibrium. C) It alters the reaction equilibrium and lengthens the time needed to reach equilibrium. D) The reaction equilibrium is unaffected, but it lengthens the time needed to reach equilibrium.
59) You walk down into your basement to find that the carpeting on the floor is damp.
Concerned, you look around for large puddles of water or broken pipes, but find none. In fact, only the basement floor and carpeting is damp. You realize that water must have wicked into the carpet from the floor by_________. A) adhesion and cohesion B) adhesion and solubility C) adhesion, cohesion, and solubility D) cohesion and solubility
60) You recently discovered a new element, and find that this particular element has one electron
in its outer energy level. What do you expect will happen to an atom of this element if placed in water? A) It will lose an electron forming a positive ion. B) It will lose an electron forming a negative ion. C) It will gain an electron forming a positive ion. D) It will gain an electron forming a negative ion.
61) Why is it necessary to take special safety precautions when using radioactive materials? A) Radioactive substances will ionize cells. B) Radioactive substances have the potential to cause damage to living cells. C) Radioactive substances decay. D) Radioactive substances will perforate plasma membranes.
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62) The high heat of vaporization of water helps you to feel cooler when you sweat because the
transition of water from a liquid to a gas requires a_________ of energy to break hydrogen bonds. The energy is_________ from heat produced by your body, thus helping to lower the surface temperature of your body. A) release; released B) release; obtained C) input; obtained D) input; released
63) <p>Salt is often used to melt ice on roads during the winter because it lowers the
freezing/melting point of water. When salt dissolves in water, individual and ions break away from the salt lattice and become surrounded by water molecules. Why would this cause ice to melt?</p> A) Hydrogen bonds are broken, and the salt ions interfere with interactions between H and O. As a result, it is more difficult for water molecules to bond and form ice. B) Hydrogen bonds are formed, and the salt ions bond with O. As a result, it is more difficult for water molecules to bond and form ice. C) Hydrogen bonds are broken, and the salt ions bond with O and H respectively. As a result, it is more difficult for water molecules to bond and form ice.
64) A chemist adds a chemical to pure water and there is a 100-fold increase in the concentration
of hydrogen ions. What is the best approximation of the new pH value? A) 0 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9 E) 14
65) The electronegativity of nitrogen (N) is 3.0, while the electronegativity of hydrogen (H) is
2.1. Knowing this, consider how the electrons will be shared in ammonia ( you predict about the polarity of ammonia? A) Each H atom has a partial positive charge B) The N atom has a partial positive charge C) Each H atom has a partial negative charge D) The N atom has a strong positive charge
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66) Magnesium chloride (
) is a salt formed with ionic bonds between one magnesium ion and two chloride ions. Magnesium has two electrons in its outer shell and chlorine has seven electrons in its outer shell. How are the electrons transferred between these atoms? A) Both magnesium and chlorine are reduced. B) Both magnesium and chlorine are oxidized. C) Chlorine is oxidized and magnesium is reduced. D) Magnesium is oxidized and chlorine is reduced.
67) Carbonic acid and bicarbonate buffer in blood are extremely important to help maintain
homeostasis. What would happen to the pH of the blood if bicarbonate were removed? A) Removing bicarbonate from the blood would increase the pH B) Removing bicarbonate from the blood would decrease the pH C) Removing bicarbonate from the blood would not affect the pH
68) The common basilisk lizard will run across water on its hind legs in an erect position when
startled by predators. This lizard has large feet and flaps of skin along its toes. What properties of water allow this lizard to walk on water? A) Hydrogen bonds absorb heat when they break and release heat when they form. This helps to minimize temperature changes. B) The surface tension created by hydrogen bonds is greater than the weight of the lizard initially. C) Polar molecules are attracted to ions and polar compounds, making these compounds soluble. D) Hydrogen bonds hold water molecules together; many hydrogen bonds must be broken for water to evaporate.
69) How is the bond in A) B) C)
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70) Carbon has 4 valence electrons and oxygen has 6. Carbon dioxide would contain _________. A) one single covalent bond B) four hydrogen bonds C) two double covalent bonds D) two single covalent bonds
71) If water were nonpolar it would not form hydrogen bonds. At normal room temperature this
nonpolar water would be_________. A) a gas B) a liquid C) a solid
72) Proteins are three dimensional molecules made from strands of amino acids (imagine a string
of beads). There are 20 different amino acids that can be used in proteins found in living organisms. Some of these amino acids are polar and others are nonpolar. In the watery cytosol of a cell, the protein folds into the three dimensional structure. Where would a series of nonpolar amino acids most likely be located in a protein that is found in the cytosol of an animal cell? A) On the surface of the protein B) In the interior of the protein C) At the very top of the protein D) At the very bottom of the protein
73) According to most car mechanics, plain water is the best coolant to use in an engine provided
the engine is not being exposed to freezing temperatures. If the car is subject to freezing temperatures then a mixture of water and ethylene glycol (antifreeze) is recommended but it does not cool as efficiently as plain water. Why would ethylene glycol reduce the cooling efficiency of water? A) Ethylene glycol has a lower heat capacity than water. B) Ethylene glycol has a higher heat capacity than water. C) Hydrogen bonds in water allow high levels of heat absorption and a large increase in temperature. D) Ethylene glycol raises the freezing point of water.
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74) Dennis had a history of heart disease in his family and was reducing his intake of saturated
fats. Saturated means each carbon atom is bonded to as many hydrogen atoms as it can accept. If a carbon were bonded to two carbons, how many hydrogens could it accept? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 2 1) A 2) A 3) C 4) B 5) D 6) A 7) A 8) D 9) B 10) B 11) A 12) E 13) B 14) B 15) B 16) C 17) C 18) A 19) A 20) B 21) B 22) B 23) C 24) B 25) D 26) D 27) A 28) D 29) D 30) C 31) D 32) E 33) C 34) E 35) D 36) D 37) A
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38) E 39) D 40) A 41) A 42) B 43) C 44) A 45) C 46) A 47) D 48) C 49) D 50) A 51) B 52) B 53) D 54) A 55) A 56) B 57) C 58) B 59) A 60) A 61) B 62) C 63) A 64) B 65) A 66) D 67) B 68) B 69) A 70) C 71) A 72) B 73) A 74) C
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Chapter 3
Student name:__________ 1) Organic molecules have a carbon backbone and_________ such as -OH and
that affect
their chemical properties. A) R groups B) extension groups C) functional groups D) chemical groups
2) A polysaccharide that is composed of modified glucose subunits and is found in the
exoskeletons of insects and crustaceans is known as: A) chitin B) starch C) amylose D) glycogen
3) These biological compounds are nonpolar and insoluble in water: A) carbohydrates B) lipids C) proteins D) nucleic acids
4) A DNA molecule containing 32% thymine would contain how much cytosine? A) 18% B) 32% C) 36% D) 64%
5) The covalent bonds connecting monomer units in sugars can be formed by the removal of a
water molecule. This reaction is referred to as: A) a hydrolysis reaction. B) an oxidation-reduction reaction. C) a dehydration reaction. D) a hydration reaction.
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6) This atom in its unbound state has four valence electrons. These electrons readily form
single, double, and even triple bonds among themselves to become stable. This atom is: A) carbon. B) hydrogen. C) oxygen. D) nitrogen. E) phosphorus.
7) Macromolecules are broken down to monomers in_________ A) anabolic reactions. B) hydrolysis reactions. C) denaturation reactions. D) dehydration reactions.
8) Relatively small organic molecules with a central carbon atom bonded to a carboxyl group,
an amino group, a carbon containing group, and a hydrogen atom are called: A) amino acids. B) fatty acids. C) enzymes. D) peptides. E) nucleotides.
9) Macromolecules that are used by all organisms to store hereditary information are called: A) transfer RNA molecules. B) messenger RNA molecules. C) proteins. D) ribosomal RNA molecules. E) DNA molecules.
10) DNA and RNA contain functional units known as: A) peptides. B) enzymes. C) amino acids. D) nucleotides. E) fatty acids.
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11) Carbohydrates are polymers formed from structural units called: A) amino acids. B) fatty acids. C) nucleotides. D) glycerols. E) monosaccharides.
12) Proteins are polymers formed of structural units called: A) fatty acids. B) amino acids. C) nucleotides. D) phosphate groups. E) monosaccharides.
13) Lipids are the only class of macromolecules that contain: A) amino acids. B) nucleotides. C) fatty acids. D) phosphate groups. E) monosaccharides.
14) A double stranded DNA strand contains 26 pyrimidines. How many purines will the copied
strand contain? A) 0 B) 13 C) 26 D) 52
15) A monosaccharide that plays an important role in energy storage is a six-carbon sugar called: A) galactose. B) lactose. C) cellulose. D) glucose. E) sucrose.
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16) Humans are unable to derive metabolic energy from cellulose because: A) cellulose contains very little chemical energy. B) cellulose is not part of a normal diet. C) cellulose digesting enzymes are absent from the human gut. D) cellulose does not taste good. E) cellulose is present in large quantities in the gut.
17) What polysaccharide forms the long, tough fibers found in plant cell walls? A) cellulose B) starch C) glycogen D) chitin E) amylopectin
18) The biological macromolecule that is least soluble in water is a(n): A) protein. B) nucleic acid. C) enzyme D) lipid. E) carbohydrate.
19) Common lipids for energy storage are: A) phospholipids. B) steroids. C) triglycerides. D) cholesterols. E) waxes.
20) Three fatty acids bonded together with a glycerol are found in a(n): A) alcohol. B) enzyme. C) phospholipid. D) chlorophyll pigment. E) triglyceride.
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21) Biological membranes contain bilayers containing mostly_________. A) phospholipids B) oils C) prostaglandins D) triglycerides E) cholesterol
22) This type of lipid is found in pigments such as chlorophyll, in the visual pigment retinal, and
in rubber: A) phospholipid. B) terpene. C) steroid. D) prostaglandin. E) wax.
23) Amino acids are linked together by peptide bonds in a_________ A) phospholipid. B) nucleic acid. C) polysaccharide. D) polypeptide. E) starch.
24) The specific amino acid sequence of a protein is its_________. A) primary structure B) secondary structure C) tertiary structure D) quaternary structure
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25) What is the difference in the bonding between alpha-helix and beta sheet? A) Hydrogen bonding between the amides only occurs in one of these two types of
secondary structures. B) Hydrogen bonding occurs between the amides of adjacent chains in the sheets instead of between the amides in different parts of the helices. C) Sulfur bridges allow the spring like turns in alpha helices and van der Waals dispersion allows the folds in beta sheets. D) Hydrogen bonding always occurs in the alpha helices but only occurs in parallel beta sheets.
26) Denaturation disrupts the secondary and tertiary structure of proteins. However, denaturation
is not strong enough to disrupt what interaction that is relevant to protein structure? A) hydrogen bonds B) ionic bonds C) van der Waals attraction D) hydrophobic exclusion E) peptide bonds
27) The information storage molecules of cells are called: A) proteins. B) phospholipids. C) enzymes. D) hormones. E) nucleic acids.
28) The nitrogenous base that is only found in DNA and not in RNA is: A) adenine. B) cytosine. C) guanine. D) thymine. E) uracil.
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29) The nitrogenous base that is only found in RNA and not DNA is: A) adenine B) cytosine C) guanine D) thymine E) uracil
30) Fructose and galactose both have six carbon atoms, twelve hydrogen atoms and six oxygen
atoms; just like glucose. A friend of yours says: "Since those sugars have the same number of atoms, they should have the same name." You answer: "While they do have the same number and type of atoms, A) they are all polysaccharides and have slightly different functions within organisms and therefore have different names." B) they are named differently because of their quaternary structures, which is very important in carbohydrates, especially glucose." C) they are named differently because when heated above their optimal temperature they become denatured and will not react with their substrates." D) they are named differently because they are involved in different DNA nucleotide formation." E) they are named differently because they are alternate forms of the monosaccharide, glucose."
31) A candy bar contains 108 calories per serving. There are 4 grams of carbohydrate, 5 grams of
protein, and 8 grams of fat in a serving. How many of the calories come from fat? Note: One food calorie equals one kilocalorie. A) 20 B) 16 C) 72 D) 18
32) A nucleic acid contains uracil, allowing you to conclude that: A) this nucleic acid is DNA. B) this nucleic acid is RNA. C) this nucleic acid could be either DNA or RNA.
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33) A nucleic acid contains thymine, allowing you to conclude that: A) this nucleic acid is DNA. B) this nucleic acid is RNA. C) this nucleic acid could be either DNA or RNA.
34) Proteins are created with: A) phosphodiester bonds. B) peptide bonds. C) triglycerides. D) polysaccharides.
35) Phospholipids are made up of: A) a glycerol and three fatty acids. B) four fused carbon rings. C) a phosphate, two fatty acids and a glycerol. D) five-carbon rings with two nonpolar tails.
36) Cellulose is composed of monomers of: A) ribose B) deoxyribose C) α-glucose D) β-glucose
37) Enzymes function to: A) react with other enzymes to form a product. B) catalyze chemical reactions. C) transport molecules and ions across membranes. D) regulate messages between cells.
38) The types of bonds found in nucleic acids are: A) phosphodiester bonds. B) peptide bonds. C) ionic bonds. D) nonpolar covalent bonds.
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39) Which of the following reactions is a dehydration reaction? A) B) C) D)
40) Which of the following reactions is a hydrolysis reaction? A) B) C) D)
41) The DNA sequence capable of pairing with 5' CGATTAGT 3' is: A) 3' GCTAATCA 5'. B) 3' CGATTAGT 5'. C) 5' GCTAATCA 3'. D) 5' CGATTAGT 3'.
42) You recently identified a novel protein that contains several membrane-spanning domains.
You would predict that the amino acids embedded in the membrane would have_________ side groups. A) nonpolar B) polar uncharged C) positively charged D) negatively charged
43) L-lysine is an essential amino acid and must be supplied in the diet. By comparison, the
stereoisomer D-lysine is not biologically active. Why can your body only utilize one form? A) Since the L form and D form are enantiomers, they will bind together and inhibit utilization of the D form. B) Since the L form and D form are chiral molecules, they will bind together and inhibit utilization of the D form. C) Antibodies recognize the D form and destroy it before your body can use it for nutritional purposes. D) Enzymes can only recognize a single, specific stereoisomer.
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44) People who are lactose intolerant can often consume some products made from milk such as
cheese and yogurt because microorganisms in their digestive system consume the lactose. By comparison, people with a true milk allergy, which involves an immune response to milk protein, cannot consume milk or products made from milk. Given this information, what can you conclude about milk? A) The protein that causes a true milk allergy is lactose. B) All people who are lactose intolerant are also allergic to milk. C) Yogurt contains live and active cultures of Lactobacillus acidophilus bacteria and therefore prevents an allergic response in people with a true milk allergy. D) Lactose is a carbohydrate, not a protein, and is therefore not the cause of true milk allergies.
45) Egg whites consist primarily of water and the protein albumin. When you fry an egg, why
does the egg white turn from clear to white? A) The protein becomes dissociated. B) The protein acquires tertiary structure. C) The protein becomes denatured. D) The protein becomes dehydrated.
46) Margarine is made by hydrogenating vegetable oils so that they take on the consistency of
butter. Propose a chemical basis for this change from a liquid to a solid. A) Hydrogenation of fats changes them from unsaturated to saturated, which makes them more solid. B) Hydrogenation of fats changes them from saturated to unsaturated, which makes them more solid. C) Trans-fatty acids are changed from unsaturated to saturated, allowing them to solidify. D) Trans fatty acids are changed from saturated to unsaturated, allowing them to solidify.
47) Vitamin D can be synthesized by the body from a derivative of cholesterol. Given this
information, predict vitamin D's solubility. A) Vitamin D is water-soluble. B) Vitamin D is fat-soluble. C) Vitamin D is soluble in both water and fat. D) Vitamin D is not soluble in either water or fat.
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48) You arrive late to a biological seminar. However, just as you enter the room, you hear the
speaker referring to the "amino end" and the "carboxyl end" of a macromolecule. Immediately, you know that they are talking about a: A) carbohydrate. B) protein. C) nucleic acid. D) lipid.
49) You arrive late to a biological seminar. However, just as you enter the room, you hear the
speaker referring to the "five-prime end" and the "three-prime end" of a macromolecule. Immediately, you know that they are talking about a: A) carbohydrate. B) protein. C) nucleic acid. D) lipid.
50) What type of monomer does ATP represent? A) monosaccharide B) amino acid C) nucleotide D) fatty acid E) glycerol
51) The digestive enzyme pepsin works in the acidic environment of the stomach to hydrolyze
peptide bonds. As a result, pepsin affects which macromolecule? A) carbohydrate B) protein C) DNA D) lipid
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52) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) uses RNA, rather than DNA, to encode genetic
information. During infection, however, HIV uses an enzyme known as reverse transcriptase to generate double-stranded DNA. Generally speaking, how would the enzyme generate a double strand of DNA from a single strand of RNA? A) Reverse transcriptase first catalyzes the synthesis of a DNA copy from the viral RNA, and then catalyzes the synthesis of a second strand of DNA complementary to the first one. B) Reverse transcriptase first catalyzes the synthesis of a RNA copy from the viral DNA, and then catalyzes the synthesis of a second strand of DNA complementary to the first one. C) Reverse transcriptase first catalyzes the synthesis of a DNA copy from the viral RNA, and then catalyzes the synthesis of a second strand of DNA from the viral RNA.
53) You have recently identified a novel protein and obtained its sequence. How could you use
this sequence to predict the function of the protein? A) By determining the secondary structure of the protein. B) By using the sequence to make antibodies against the protein. C) By looking for conserved domains. D) By determining the DNA sequence that could encode the protein.
54) At the pH of most bodily fluids, which functional group will lose a proton and which
functional group will accept a proton? A) sulfhydryl; carbonyl B) Hydroxyl; amino C) amino; carboxyl D) carboxyl; amino E) carbonyl; Hydroxyl
55) A bobcat is feeding on a white-tailed deer. It first eats the liver, which is rich in stored
sugars. In what form would sugar be stored in the deer’s liver? A) Glucose B) Maltose C) Glycogen D) Amylose E) Cellulose
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56) Seth ordered lobster at a restaurant and realized that the outer shell was made of a tough
carbohydrate similar to that used to make the carapace of a cockroach. What do you think the outer shell of the lobster is made of? A) Fibrin B) Cellulose C) Glycogen D) Chitin E) Amylopectin
57) Yogurt contains galactose and glucose, which are generated when bacterial enzymes act on
milk sugars. What is the main source of the galactose in yogurt? A) Maltose B) Sucrose C) Lactose D) Fructose E) Glycogen
58) Hemoglobin transports oxygen in the blood and consists of a chain of 146 amino acids. How
many different types of amino acids are used to construct proteins? A) 2 B) 20 C) 146 D) 200
59) Luke sprained his ankle, tearing some of the collagen protein that forms his ligaments. Some
types of collagen consist of three polypeptide chains twisted together to form a rope-like strand. What level of protein structure does this rope-like strand represent? A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary
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60) Which amino acid is least soluble in water? A) Isoleucine B) Alanine C) Glutamine D) Glycine
61) Which amino acid is most soluble in water? A) Serine B) Valine C) Glycine D) Leucine
62) The formula for glucose is
. What is the formula for a polymer made by linking ten glucose molecules together by dehydration synthesis? A) B) C) D)
63) The myoglobin protein, which carries oxygen in muscle cells, has only the first three levels
of protein structure. What can you infer about myoglobin? A) Myoglobin lacks hydrogen bonds B) Myoglobin is made of nucleic acids C) Myoglobin is not helical or pleated D) Myoglobin is made of only one polypeptide chain
64) A phosphorus shortage in soil would make it difficult for plants to produce: A) cellulose B) amylose C) starch D) DNA
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65) This nucleotide containing molecule is commonly used to carry electrons in the cell. A) ADP B) ATP C) D) pyruvic acid
66) Benedict's reagent is a chemical that is used to test for the presence of a free aldehyde
functional group on glucose. The aldehyde is used when glucose and fructose bind together to form sucrose, so the Benedict's test will be negative. Starch contains a great deal of glucose but gives a negative Benedict's test because: A) all of the aldehyde groups on the starch are oxidized and cannot react with the Benedict's reagent. B) starch is not soluble in water and cannot react with Benedict's reagent. C) glucose in starch has lost a carbon atom and cannot react with Benedict's reagent. D) only the glucose at the end of a chain of starch will have an exposed aldehyde functional group to react with Benedict's reagent.
67) What characteristic would the R groups of amino acids have if they are located within the
interior of biological membranes? A) The R groups would be hydrophilic. B) The R groups would hydrophobic. C) The R groups would be polar. D) The R groups would be able to form ionic bonds.
68) Sudan IV, a dye that binds to nonpolar molecules, is used to detect the presence of
macromolecules in food. Sudan IV would test positive in the presence of what macromolecule? A) Starch B) DNA C) Chitin D) Hemoglobin E) Fats
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69) How many water molecules are produced during the formation of a triglyceride from fatty
acids and glycerol? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4
70) Acyclovir is an antiviral chemical that resembles a nucleotide but lacks a 3' OH group and
cannot form phosphodiester bonds. Why is Acyclovir useful in treating some viral infections? A) Acyclovir stops viral protein synthesis. B) Acyclovir halts viral DNA replication. C) Acyclovir blocks the assembly of viral cell capsules. D) Acyclovir hydrolyzes viral polysaccharides.
71) α-glucose is present in potatoes and β-glucose is present in wood. Both are glucose
molecules but one can be used by humans to synthesize ATP and one cannot. Based on this information, what is the best explanation on why humans can only digest one of the glucose types? A) α-glucose is and β-glucose is . B) α-glucose and β-glucose are stereoisomers with OH groups oriented differently. C) Only α-glucose can form polysaccharides. D) α-glucose is a chain and β-glucose is a ring.
72) You label cells with a radioactive isotope of sulfur (
). The only molecules that would be
radioactively labeled in these cells are: A) Lipids B) Proteins C) Carbohydrates D) Nucleic acids
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73) A polymer with the sequence 5' ACGTACGAATAG 3' is a: A) protein. B) piece of RNA. C) piece of DNA. D) polysaccharide.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 3 1) C 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) C 6) A 7) B 8) A 9) E 10) D 11) E 12) B 13) C 14) C 15) D 16) C 17) A 18) D 19) C 20) E 21) A 22) B 23) D 24) A 25) B 26) E 27) E 28) D 29) E 30) E 31) C 32) B 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) D 37) B
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38) A 39) B 40) A 41) A 42) A 43) D 44) D 45) C 46) A 47) B 48) B 49) C 50) C 51) B 52) A 53) C 54) D 55) C 56) D 57) C 58) B 59) D 60) A 61) A 62) B 63) D 64) D 65) C 66) D 67) B 68) E 69) D 70) B 71) B 72) B 73) C
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Chapter 4 Student name:__________ 1) The semifluid matrix that surrounds organelles in a cell is called the: A) ribosome. B) cytoplasm. C) stroma. D) nucleoplasm.
2) A distinctive feature of eukaryotes is the organization of tightly packaged chromosomal
DNA with proteins into a membrane-bound structure called a: A) nucleolus. B) cell. C) nucleus. D) plasma membrane.
3) The organelle that can collect, package, modify, and transport molecules is called the: A) mitochondria. B) plasma membrane. C) vesicle. D) Golgi apparatus.
4) Many antibiotics kill bacteria because they hinder translation by prokaryotic _________. A) nucleoids B) cytoskeleton C) ribosomes D) capsules E) cytoplasm
5) The evolutionary process that created chloroplasts and mitochondria is: A) endosymbiosis. B) evolution. C) symbiosis. D) punctuated equilibrium.
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6) Microfilaments such as actin, microtubules, and the intermediate filaments form the cell-
supporting structure called the: A) cytoplasm. B) plasma membrane. C) cytoskeleton. D) nucleus.
7) Integrins are glycoproteins that help link the cytoskeleton and the: A) cell wall. B) extracellular matrix. C) cytoplasm. D) ribosomes.
8) Small cells function more effectively, because as cells become larger their surface area to
volume ratio: A) increases. B) decreases. C) stays the same. D) is squared. E) is cubed.
9) Organelles that breakdown hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen are: A) lysosomes. B) plastids. C) vacuoles. D) liposomes. E) peroxisomes.
10) A circular molecule of DNA devoid of any histone proteins describes the chromosome of a
(an): A) B) C) D) E)
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11) Who first described cells? A) Darwin B) Golgi C) Linnaeus D) Hooke E) Leeuwenhoek
12) Schleiden and Schwann stated the "cell theory," which in its modern form says: A) all organisms are composed of one or more cells, all cells require oxygen and all cells
arise by division of other cells. B) all organisms are composed of one or more cells, all cells are the smallest living things and all cells arise by division of other cells. C) all cells will arise spontaneously, all cells require oxygen and all cells are composed of one or more cells. D) all organisms are composed of one or more cells, all cells arise spontaneously and all cells vary in size and shape.
13) The "X" shaped chromosomal hereditary material can be packaged in this organelle in
eukaryotic cells but not in prokaryotic cells. This organelle is the: A) mitochondria. B) chloroplast. C) nucleoid. D) nucleus. E) ribosomes.
14) The peptidoglycan of bacterial cell walls contains a carbohydrate matrix linked together by
short chains of: A) amino acids. B) fatty acids. C) nucleotides. D) water molecules. E) steroids.
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15) Prokaryotic cell movement is attributed to: A) capsules. B) ribosomes. C) pili. D) cytoskeleton proteins. E) flagella.
16) Photosynthetic pigments in bacteria are located in the: A) nuclei. B) chloroplasts. C) cell wall. D) plasma membrane. E) plasmids.
17) Plant cells often have a large membrane-bound sac that is used for storing water and other
substances called a: A) nucleus. B) chloroplast. C) Golgi body. D) centriole. E) central vacuole.
18) This cellular structure lacks a membrane: A) endoplasmic reticulum B) microbody C) Golgi body D) nucleoid E) nucleus
19) Some of the functions of the eukaryotic organelles are performed in bacteria by the: A) plasma membrane. B) nucleoid area. C) cell wall. D) capsule. E) flagella/cilia.
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20) The cytoplasmic space in eukaryotic cells is occupied by many diverse membrane-bound
structures with specific cellular functions called: A) flagella. B) organelles. C) cilia. D) chromosomes. E) receptors.
21) Ribosomes are made up of: A) only DNA molecules. B) only RNA molecules. C) DNA and RNA. D) only protein molecules. E) protein and RNA.
22) The eukaryotic organelle that is directly involved in the transport of proteins synthesized on
the surface of the rough ER is called the: A) mitochondrion. B) vacuole. C) smooth ER. D) Golgi body. E) nucleus.
23) In eukaryotes, mitochondria are the organelles primarily involved in: A) energy release/capture. B) phospholipid assembly. C) export of enzymes. D) lipid synthesis. E) protein synthesis.
24) The major histocompatibility complex is important in a T-cell's ability to: A) recognize specific bacteria. B) recognize specific viruses. C) recognize self from nonself. D) recognize specific parasites.
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25) Nuclear pores permit the passage of all the following except: A) RNA only outward. B) proteins inward and outward. C) DNA molecules only outward.
26) The nucleolus is the site of: A) protein synthesis. B) ribosome assembly. C) chromosome replication. D) lipid synthesis. E) uncoiling and unraveling of chromosomes.
27) Chromosomes can be condensed into compact structures, visible with the light microscope,
but usually only: A) after the cell is dead. B) during cell division. C) while the DNA is being copied into RNA. D) while the proteins are being assembled. E) while the nuclear pores are open.
28) A doctor diagnosis a child with adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD) a disorder in which there is an
accumulation of long fatty acid chains accumulating in the cells of the central nervous system. The issues arise with malfunctions in enzymes associated with which organelle? A) Golgi bodies B) ribosomes C) vacuoles D) peroxisomes E) endoplasmic reticulum
29) Peroxisomes are examples of: A) chromosomes. B) lysosomes. C) microbodies. D) nucleosomes. E) ribosomes.
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30) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are the other organelles besides the nucleus that contain: A) DNA. B) pores. C) channels. D) plasma membranes. E) pigments.
31) The organelle involved in the oxygen-requiring process by which the energy harvested from
macromolecules is used to generate ATP is the: A) nucleus. B) lysosome. C) ER. D) mitochondria. E) chloroplasts.
32) Cilia and flagella of eukaryotic cells are composed of: A) microtubules in a 9 + 2 arrangement. B) actin filaments in a 9 + 2 arrangement. C) protein fibers in a helical arrangement. D) nine triplets of microtubules in a circle.
33) The distinctive feature of chloroplasts is that they contain a green pigment called: A) Gram stain. B) chlorophyll. C) hemoglobin. D) chromatin. E) keratin.
34) The spreading of cancer cells, wound healing, and blood clotting all rely on the same type of
cell movement called: A) swimming. B) crawling. C) whipping. D) waving.
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35) A team of researchers is studying the external structures on the dorsal (back) surface of a
spider mite. The spider mite seems to be the habitat of an even smaller mite, which is approximately 0.05mm. While they can see the dorsal surface of the spider mite with their naked eye, they cannot see the mite clearly. The researchers are writing a grant to provide support for a microscope to use to study these new mites. They need to purchase a microscope with a high magnification to observe the new mites on their habitat. Based on the information given, what type of microscope would you suggest? A) transmission electron microscope B) scanning electron microscope C) binocular compound light microscope D) no microscope is powerful enough to see the smaller mite
36) A cytologist is examining a tissue under an electron microscope. He notices that the
endoplasmic reticulum of each cell is extremely rough in appearance and he knows that the rough appearance is because of the ribosomes embedded there. He asks why there are so many ribosomes. You respond, A) "This tissue exports lipids and is very involved with mRNA production." B) "This tissue exports proteins to other areas of the body." C) "This tissue exports various nucleic acids, hence the large number of ribosomes present on the endoplasmic reticulum in each of those cells."
37) You stain a cell with a dye that reacts with an enzyme found in the lysosome. You would
also expect to see this dye in the: A) endoplasmic reticulum. B) cytoplasm. C) nucleus. D) mitochondria.
38) A cell biologist has developed a new drug that blocks vesicle transport at the cis face of the
Golgi apparatus. What will this drug prevent from happening inside a cell? A) The synthesis of proteins or lipids on the endoplasmic reticulum. B) The movement of the lipids and proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus. C) The movement of materials from the Golgi apparatus to the plasma membrane. D) The movement of vesicles from mitochondria to the Golgi apparatus.
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39) Plants, fungi and bacterial all have: A) cell walls B) chloroplasts C) nuclei D) lysosomes E) mitochondria
40) Your research project involves characterizing the expression pattern of a nuclear pore
protein. After using immunohistochemistry to fluorescently label the protein, you decide that you would like to capture the data as a 3-D image. Which microscope should you use? A) phase-contrast microscope B) fluorescence microscope C) confocal microscope D) scanning electron microscope
41) Sulfolobus are archaea that are commonly found in geothermal environments, with an
optimum growth temperature of about 80°C. What feature allows archaea to thrive at such temperatures? A) Archaea use the heat from their environment to produce ATP. B) Archaea are highly adaptable to changing environmental temperatures. C) Archaeal membranes contain special lipids. D) Archaea have two cell walls which helps prevent heat absorption.
42) Alcohol consumption adversely affects the synthesis of molecules involved in protein
degradation, which can eventually lead to liver damage. Given this information, which organelle in liver cells is most directly affected by alcohol consumption? A) Nucleus B) Golgi apparatus C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum D) Lysosome
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43) You have identified an enzyme that appears to be involved in the addition of palmityl group
(a fatty acid) to certain proteins. Knowing that palmitoylated proteins are usually targeted for delivery to the plasma membrane, in which organelles might this enzyme be expressed? A) Golgi apparatus and endoplamic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus and nucleus C) Endoplamic reticulum and ribosomes D) Endoplamic reticulum and nucleus
44) Given what is known about the minimal essential functions of cellular life, if you could
create an artificial cell, what cellular structures must you include? A) cell wall B) ribosomes C) mitochondria D) nucleus
45) When a vesicle moves along microtubules toward the center of the cell, the molecular
motor(s)_________ are used? A) kinesin B) dynein C) both kinesin and dynein D) Molecular motors are not required for movement along microtubules.
46) A protein that is destined to reach the plasma membrane is making its way through the Golgi.
At that moment, a drug was added to cells, blocking trafficking at the trans face of the Golgi. As a result, what would happen to the protein? A) The protein would continue on to the cell surface. B) The protein would be stuck in the Golgi. C) The protein would return to the endoplasmic reticulum via the trans face of the Golgi. D) The protein would exit the Golgi, but instead be targeted to the cytoplasm.
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47) If you were to use antibodies that were chemically bonded to a stain in order to visualize the
expression pattern of a protein in a fixed tissue, what experimental techniques and equipment would be applicable? A) immunohistochemistry, bright-field microscopy B) DAPI or Hoechst stains, fluorescence microscopy C) antibody interference assay, bright-field microscopy D) immunohistochemistry, dark-field microscopy
48) During which cellular process do all three forms of RNA associate? A) ribosome assembly B) chromatin formation C) formation of the nucleolus D) protein synthesis
49) Cardiac muscle cells are connected by special junctions called intercalated discs. Intercalated
discs provide strength between cells of tissues which exhibit high mechanical stress, strong flexible connections between tissue cells, and electrical excitability between the cells. Using this information, which junctions are present in intercalated discs? A) Tight, plasmodesmata, and adherens B) Tight, plasmodesmata, and desmosomes C) Gap, adherens, and desmosomes D) Gap, desmosomes, and hemidesmosomes E) Adherens, tight, and gap
50) Based on the function of mitochondria, what substance is able to pass through the outer
membrane of the mitochondria easily? A) Oxygen B) Sugars C) Amino acids D) Potassium ions
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51) Individuals that are heavy smokers may eventually have trouble clearing the mucous from
their lungs because the structures that move fluid along the epithelial lining of the lung become damaged over time. What are these structures called? A) Pili B) Flagella C) Cell walls D) Cilia
52) Streptomycin is an antibiotic that interferes with the function of the 30S subunit of the
prokaryotic ribosome. What is the consequence of treating a bacteria with streptomycin? A) Impaired oxygen synthesis B) Impaired protein synthesis C) Impaired DNA synthesis D) Impaired ATP synthesis
53) A dish of cells is treated with centrinone, a centriole inhibitor. These cells would no longer
be able to _________. A) make ATP B) produce lysosomes C) synthesize proteins D) conduct photosynthesis E) divide
54) When looking at plant and animal cells with an electron microscope, you notice that the plant
cells have more Golgi membranes than the animal cells. This is most likely because unlike in animal cells, in plant cells the Golgi apparatus is involved in the production of: A) cell walls. B) cytoplasm. C) chloroplasts. D) mitochondria.
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55) Glycogen Storage Disease Type II (GSD II), also known as Pompe disease, is a metabolic
disorder that leads to the accumulation of glycogen in muscles and neurons throughout the body. It is caused by a defect in an enzyme that is normally housed with other enzymes that are involved in breaking down large macromolecules. What organelle is most likely affected by this disease? A) Mitochondrion B) Golgi body C) Lysosome D) Rough ER E) Nucleus
56) Scientists believe that stimulating growth of algae and other organisms can reduce carbon
dioxide amounts in the atmosphere. Where is carbon dioxide consumed in a plant cell? A) Stroma in chloroplasts B) Matrix in mitochondria C) Number of amyloplasts D) Central vacuole E) Cellulose in cell wall
57) Cardiac muscle has prolonged contraction due to a sodium induced-calcium released process
into the cytoplasm of the cell. Cardiac cells can communicate through pore-like channels between cells. List the junction and the organelle involved in cardiac muscle contraction? A) Gap; Rough ER B) Gap; Smooth ER C) Gap; Golgi apparatus D) Adherens; Rough ER E) Adherens; Smooth ER F) Adherens; Golgi apparatus
58) Mitochondrial disorders can be caused by mutations in all the following except: A) mitochondrial DNA B) nuclear DNA C) cytoplasmic DNA
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59) What is the difference between mitochondria and chloroplasts? A) Mitochondria have three membranes and chloroplasts have two membranes. B) Mitochondria have linear strands of DNA and chloroplasts have rings of DNA. C) Mitochondria are oxidative metabolic bacteria derivatives and chloroplasts are
photosynthetic bacteria derivatives. D) Mitochondria produce oxygen and chloroplasts produce carbon dioxide.
60) If a water molecule passes through the outer membrane of a chloroplast, how many more
membranes will it have to move through to be in the stroma? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
61) As ATP moves from the matrix of the mitochondrion to the cytoplasm of a cell, how many
membranes will it pass? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
62) Prokaryotic cells are smaller than eukaryotic cells. What is a plausible explanation? A) Prokaryotic cell walls limit their cell growth. B) Prokaryotes lack the genetic material needed for protein synthesis. C) Eukaryotes have compartmentalization, which allows for specialization. D) Prokaryotes have more diverse energy sources. E) Eukaryotes are immobile allowing them to grow larger.
63) A cuboidal shaped cell with six sides is 1mm × 1mm × 1mm. What is the volume and the
surface area of the cell? A) B) C) D)
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64) Matthew noticed that his house plants were wilting badly. Which cell structure had most
likely contracted? A) cytoplasm B) cell wall C) plasma membrane D) vacuole
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 4 1) B 2) C 3) D 4) C 5) A 6) C 7) B 8) B 9) E 10) A 11) D 12) B 13) D 14) A 15) E 16) D 17) E 18) D 19) A 20) B 21) E 22) D 23) A 24) C 25) C 26) B 27) B 28) D 29) C 30) A 31) D 32) A 33) B 34) B 35) C 36) B 37) A
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38) B 39) A 40) C 41) C 42) C 43) A 44) B 45) B 46) B 47) A 48) D 49) C 50) A 51) D 52) B 53) E 54) A 55) C 56) A 57) B 58) C 59) C 60) A 61) B 62) C 63) A 64) D
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Chapter 5 Student name:__________ 1) The lipid layer that forms the foundation of cell membranes is primarily composed of
molecules called_________. A) phospholipids B) cholesterol C) proteins D) carbohydrates
2) While water continually orients phospholipids into a lipid bilayer, it does not fix the lipids
permanently into position. Thus, the bilayer is considered to be_________. A) static B) fluid C) fluctuating D) charged
3) What describes the movement of substances down their concentration gradients? A) Bulk transport B) Active transport C) Saturation D) Diffusion
4) Osmosis is the diffusion of water across a membrane in response to the concentration of one
or more of the_________. A) solutes B) membranes C) compartments D) cells
5) Which type of protein is embedded in the cell membrane for both active transport and
facilitated transport? A) carrier B) cytoskeletal C) structural D) targeted
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6) Osmosis occurs as water crosses the lipid bilayer through specialized channels for water
movement called_________. A) proteins B) transmembrane carbohydrates C) membrane pores D) aquaporins
7) The plasma membrane is a thin sheet of lipid molecules embedded with A) proteins. B) carbohydrates. C) polymers. D) nucleotides. E) sodium and potassium ions.
8) Membrane proteins are not very soluble in water because they possess long stretches of non-
polar amino acids that are A) too long to interact with the water molecules. B) hydrophobic. C) are transmembranal. D) hydrophilic. E) used as transport channels.
9) If a cell has the same internal concentration of dissolved molecules as its outside
environment, the cell's condition is referred to as being A) isotonic. B) hypertonic. C) hypotonic. D) hydrophobic. E) hydrophilic.
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10) Transport of a solute across a membrane where the solute is going up its concentration
gradient and using protein carriers driven by the expenditure of chemical energy, is known as A) osmosis. B) diffusion. C) facilitated transport. D) active transport. E) exocytosis.
11) The cell's plasma membrane mediates which of the following transactions with the
environment? Choose all that apply. A) Ingesting food molecules and sometimes entire cells B) Returning waste and other molecules back to the environment C) Responding to a host of chemical cues D) Directing synthesis of various food-digesting proteins E) Passing messages to other cells
12) How are the tails and heads of membrane phospholipids oriented in their environment? A) The hydrophobic heads are oriented toward each other and the hydrophillic tails are
oriented toward the extracellular fluid and the intracellular fluid. B) The hydrophillic tails are oriented toward each other and the hydrophobic heads are oriented toward the extracellular fluid and the intracellular fluid. C) The hydrophobic tails are oriented toward each other and the hydrophillic heads are oriented toward the extracellular fluid and the intracellular fluid. D) The hydrophillic heads are oriented toward each other and the hydrophobic tails are oriented toward the extracellular fluid and the intracellular fluid.
13) The fluid nature of the membranes is attributed to a lateral movement of A) protein channels. B) phospholipid molecules. C) antigen molecules. D) pumps such as the proton pump. E) the entire lipid bilayer.
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14) On the outer surface of the plasma membrane there are marker molecules that identify the
cell type. Often these molecules are A) ATP. B) amino acids. C) nucleotides. D) carbohydrate chains. E) inorganic ions.
15) Which of the following protein classes are not found as membrane proteins? A) transport channels B) hormones C) receptors D) enzymes E) identity markers
16) The part of a membrane protein that extends through the phospholipid bilayer is primarily
composed of amino acids that are A) highly polar. B) negatively charged. C) nonpolar. D) positively charged. E) water soluble.
17) Red blood cells are biconcave. Their shape is determined by interior proteins anchored to the
membrane termed: A) clathrins. B) phospholipids. C) spectrins. D) actin filaments.
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18) The movement of substances from regions where their concentration is higher to regions
where their concentration is lower is called: A) active transport. B) diffusion. C) pinocytosis. D) pumping. E) exocytosis.
19) If two solutions have unequal concentrations of a solute, the solution with the lower
concentration is called A) isotonic. B) hypertonic. C) hypotonic. D) osmosis.
20) In bacteria and cells of fungi and plants, the high internal pressure generated by osmosis is
counteracted by the mechanical strength of their A) plasma membranes. B) organelles. C) cytoskeletons. D) cell walls.
21) The process often referred to as "cellular eating" is A) osmosis. B) pinocytosis. C) phagocytosis. D) diffusion. E) active transport.
22) Carrier-mediated transport of a substance down its concentration gradient is called A) facilitated diffusion. B) active transport. C) exocytosis. D) endocytosis. E) phagocytosis.
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23) Osmosis can only occur if water travels through the A) cell wall. B) semipermeable membrane. C) vacuole. D) ER. E) cytoskeleton.
24) A type of molecule movement of that is specific and passive and becomes saturated if all of
the protein carriers are in use: A) exocytosis. B) facilitated diffusion. C) active transport. D) endocytosis. E) osmosis.
25) A type of molecule movement that is specific and requires carrier molecules and energy is A) exocytosis. B) facilitated diffusion. C) active transport. D) endocytosis. E) osmosis.
26) In a single pump cycle where sodium and potassium are exchanged and ATP is used, the
following is expected: A) 3 sodium ions leave and 2 potassium ions enter. B) 2 sodium ion enters and 1 potassium ion leaves. C) 2 sodium ion leaves and 1 potassium ion enters. D) 3 sodium ions enter and 2 potassium ions leave. E) sodium and potassium ions enter and water leaves.
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27) The accumulation of amino acids and sugars within animal cells can occur through: A) ATP pumps. B) sodium-potassium pumps. C) glucose pumps. D) coupled transport. E) proton pumps.
28) Cholesterol functions in the plasma membrane to A) transport ions. B) serve as an energy molecule. C) maintain fluidity. D) mediate steroid action. E) maintain hypertension.
29) A phospholipid molecule has a polar and a nonpolar end. Because of this, water molecules
form: A) B) C) D) E)
polar bonds with the nonpolar end of the phospholipid molecule. polar bonds with the polar end of the phospholipid molecule. hydrogen bonds with the nonpolar end of the phospholipid molecule. hydrogen bonds with the polar end of the phospholipid molecule. covalent bonds with the nonpolar end of the phospholipid molecule.
30) The fluid mosaic model proposed by Singer and Nicolson in 1972 explained that A) the cell membrane was composed of lipids and proteins. B) the cell membrane was composed of a phospholipid bilayer between two layers of
globular proteins. C) the cell membrane was composed of a phospholipid bilayer with globular proteins actually inserted into the bilayer. D) the cell membrane was composed of a phospholipid bilayer but the polar ends of the phospholipid molecules were reversed.
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31) Membrane proteins serve many functions. One of the functions is transportation of
substances across the membrane. If a cell biologist placed cells into an environment in which a chemical has been added that blocks the function of only carrier proteins, the process that will be affected is A) active transport. B) osmosis. C) simple diffusion. D) phagocytosis. E) pinocytosis.
32) In the process of diffusion, molecules move from areas where A) their concentration is higher to areas where their concentration is lower until an
equilibrium is reached. B) their concentration is lower to areas where their concentration is higher until an equilibrium is reached. C) their concentration is lower to areas where their concentration is higher through specific protein channels or carriers. D) their concentration is higher to areas where their concentration is lower using energy from ATP.
33) Facilitated diffusion is an important method cells use to obtain and remove necessary
molecules. Requirements for facilitated diffusion include: A) The carrier molecule must be specific to the molecule that is transported. The direction of movement is always with the concentration gradient, never against the gradient. B) The carrier molecule is nonspecific to the molecule that is transported. The direction of movement is always with the concentration gradient, never against the gradient. C) The carrier molecule is nonspecific to the molecule that is transported. The direction of movement is always against the concentration gradient, never with the gradient. D) The carrier molecule must be specific to the molecule that is transported and an ATP molecule must be attached to the specific carrier. The direction of movement is always against the concentration gradient, never with the gradient.
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34) A research laboratory is attempting to collect the content of human red blood cells. The type
of solution researchers should use to cause blood cells to lyse (burst) should be: A) hyperosmotic. B) isosmotic. C) hypoosmotic. D) osmotic.
35) One day during the summer you and some friends make ice cream using an electric ice cream
maker. To get the ice cream to form, a mixture of salt and ice is packed around the ice cream maker. A few days later you notice a yellow circle of dead grass where the ice cream maker had been placed. You hypothesize that some of the salt and ice mixture spilled onto the grass and ___. A) froze the grass B) was isosmotic to the grass cells causing the yellow circle of dead grass C) was hyperosmotic to the grass cells causing the yellow circle of dead grass D) was hypoosmotic to the grass cells causing the yellow circle of dead grass
36) What is the main component of an animal cell membrane? A) phospholipids B) polynucleotides C) aquaporins D) glycolipids E) cholesterol
37) A scientist performs an experiment in which they create an artificial cell with a selectively
permeable membrane through which only water can pass. They inject a 5M solution of glucose into the cell and then place the cell into a beaker of water. After an hour, what effect do you expect to observe? A) Water moves out of the cell B) Glucose moves out of the cell C) No net change in cell weight D) Water moves into the cell E) Glucose moves into the cell
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38) A scientist performs an experiment in which they create an artificial cell with a selectively
permeable membrane through which only water can pass. They inject a 5M solution of glucose into the cell and then place the cell into a beaker containing 10M glucose. What effect do you expect to observe? A) Water moves out of the cell B) Glucose moves out of the cell C) No net change in cell weight D) Water moves into the cell E) Glucose moves into the cell
39) Turgor pressure is observed when a plant cells environment is_________. A) hypoosmotic B) isosmotic C) osmosis D) hyperosmotic
40) What initiates the sodium-potassium pump? A) Three sodium ions bind to the cytoplasmic side of the protein. B) Three sodium ions are translocated out of the cell. C) Phosphorylated pump has low affinity for sodium allowing sodium to leave and
potassium to bind. D) Two potassium ions are transported into the cell. E) ATP binds to the protein which becomes phosphorylated (ADP is released).
41) Cyclodextrins are a group of compounds capable of removing cholesterol from membranes.
The effect most likely to have a large impact on cells as a result of cyclodextrin treatment would be A) increased concentration of transmembrane proteins. B) increased permeability of the membrane. C) increased membrane fluidity at lower temperatures. D) increased membrane fluidity at higher temperatures. E) disruption of transmembrane protein structure.
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42) Membrane fluidity is affected by A) temperature, cholesterol, types of fatty acids. B) size of molecules, polarity of molecules, temperature. C) types of fatty acids, waters affinity for hydrogen bonding. D) hyrophillic tails, hydrophobic heads, cholesterol.
43) <p>GABA receptors play an essential role in neurotransmission in the central nervous
system. In response to the appropriate signal, these receptors open up and allow to flow into the cell. Given this information, GABA receptors can be classified as a</p> A) gated ion channel. B) gated carrier protein. C) symporter. D) pump.
44) Protein X contains four transmembrane domains, a short N-terminus and a long C-terminus.
Following protein synthesis, the N-terminus of the protein faces the lumen (the inside) of the ER. After protein X is transported to the cell surface via exocytosis, you would expect the Nterminus of protein X to be A) extracellular. B) cytoplasmic. C) in the lumen. D) in the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane.
45) Incubation of cells at 20°C blocks the release of proteins from the trans-Golgi. Under such
conditions, you would expect to see A) an increase in exocytosis. B) a decrease in exocytosis. C) an increase in endocytosis. D) a decrease in endocytosis.
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46) While eating lobster for dinner one night your friend asks what you think might happen if
this marine invertebrate, which is normally isosmotic with respect to the surrounding seawater, were to be moved to a bay with a slightly lower salt concentration instead of being caught. You reply that, in order for the lobster to be isosmotic with respect to new environment, A) it must move water in to match the solute concentration of its new environment. B) it regulates its internal concentration of solutes to match that of its new environment. C) it must move water out to match the solute concentration of its new environment. D) it moves water in or out and regulates its internal concentration of water as needed.
47) If a cell has a normal osmotic pressure of 4500 mmHg and is placed into a solution with an
osmotic pressure of 3500 mmHg, what will happen to the cell? A) The cell will lose water and its osmotic pressure will decrease. B) The cell will gain water and its osmotic pressure will decrease. C) The cell will gain water and its osmotic pressure will increase. D) The cell will lose water and its osmotic pressure will increase.
48) In individuals with normal blood sugar levels, glucose is reabsorbed into the bloodstream in
the kidney by members of the GLUT transporter family, which form an aqueous pore across the membrane through which glucose can move passively. As a result, no glucose is excreted in urine. However, in people with untreated diabetes mellitus, blood sugar levels are high and glucose is often present in the urine. What can explain this occurrence? A) High blood glucose levels reverse the concentration gradient, allowing untransported glucose to be excreted in urine. B) High blood glucose levels interfere with the coupled transport of water and glucose, allowing untransported glucose to be excreted in urine. C) The GLUT transporters become saturated, allowing untransported glucose to be excreted in urine. D) The GLUT transporters cannot hydrolyze ATP quickly enough for ATP to transport the extra glucose, thereby allowing untransported glucose to be excreted in urine.
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49) Receptor-mediated endocytosis brings in specific material by engulfing it in vesicles. What
factors, either directly or indirectly, are related to this process? A) It is a passive process. B) It helps to increase membrane fluidity by helping to transport cholesterol into the cell. C) It is an active process. D) It uses carrier proteins. E) A clathrin coat is present.
50) Which mutations can interfere with the proper insertion of a protein in the plasma
membrane? A) A polar amino acid to a nonpolar amino acid within a transmembrane domain B) A nonpolar amino acid to a polar amino acid within a transmembrane domain C) A polar amino acid to a nonpolar amino acid within a cytoplasmic domain D) A nonpolar amino acid to a polar amino acid within a cytoplasmic domain
51) During neuronal signaling, a change in membrane potential will cause sodium channels to
open and let ions diffuse down their concentration gradient into the cell. Which of the following helps establish the concentration gradient necessary for this process to occur? A)
channel B) voltage-gated channel C) symporter D)
pump
52) If you were to replace the phosphate group of a phospholipid with a fatty acid chain, you
would have A) glycerol. B) a triglyceride. C) cholesterol. D) glycolipid.
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53) If you were a very thirsty cell, which process would you use to take in some nutrients
secreted by one of your neighbors? A) Phagocytosis B) Pinocytosis C) Receptor-mediated endocytosis D) Exocytosis
54) How can freeze-fracture be used to determine the orientation of a protein in a membrane? A) Freeze-fracture allows a cell to be cleaved in between the lipid bilayer, splitting the
plasma membrane into two layers. B) Freeze-fracture allows a cell to be cleaved in such a way as to preserve the embedded proteins. C) Freeze-fracture cuts the membrane in protein-sized components for viewing under an electron microscope.
55) Diapedesis is the movement of white blood cells through intact blood vessel walls into
surrounding body tissue. It typically happens when an area of the body is injured or damaged, and an inflammation response is required. What role would you expect cell adhesion molecules to play in this process? A) Cell adhesion molecules will allow the white blood cells to cling to one another to form a migrating clot. B) Cell adhesion molecules help white blood cells adhere to the blood vessel wall so that they can migrate across the wall and infiltrate into the underlying tissue. C) Cell adhesion molecules will allow the white blood cells to attach to the injured area so they become immobile.
56) Membrane potential will affect the directional movement of A) Glucose ( B) Cholesterol
)
C) Potassium ( D) Oxygen (
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57) A concentration gradient is exhibited when A) the room temperature is 34 degree Celsius and the outside air is 34 degrees Celsius. B) intracellular fluid has 5% solute and extracellular fluid has 0.8% solute concentration. C) during rest, muscle and liver cells contain high glycogen concentration and blood
contains lower concentrations. D) <p>the
changes from 45 to 35 mmHg in the alveoli of lungs.</p>
58) The rate of diffusion of molecules would be fastest in a cell with an A) internal concentration of 45 percent and an external concentration of 50 percent in
cold temperatures. B) internal concentration of 50 percent and an external concentration of 12 percent in cold temperatures. C) internal concentration of 50 percent and an external concentration of 12 percent in warm temperatures. D) internal concentration of 40 percent and an external concentration of 35 percent in warm temperatures.
59) When the solute concentration of solution A is lower than the solute concentration of solution
B, solution A is considered A) hypertonic. B) hypotonic. C) isotonic.
60) If ATP production is blocked, decreased transport of material across a membrane occurs.
Which type of transport is affected? A) Osmosis B) Diffusion C) Facilitated Diffusion D) Active Transport E) Endocytosis
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61) Tetrodotoxin is a potent poison, produced by some newts, pufferfish, and blue-ringed
octopus that affects sodium transport involved with the voltage gates in neurons. A friend swimming in the Caribbean is pricked by a pufferfish and gets very sick. The most likely action the poison takes is A) Mimicking a symporter and allowing sodium to rush out and potassium to rush in. B) Mimicking an antiporter and allowing sodium to rush out. C) Blocking an antiporter so sodium cannot rush in. D) Blocking a symporter and keeping sodium from rushing in.
62) An individual is constipated. They take magnesium salts to help loosen the stool. Why does
this work? A) Water moves from the intestines to the blood because the blood is hypertonic B) Water moves from the intestines to the blood because the blood is hypotonic. C) Water moves from the blood to the intestines because the blood is hypertonic D) Water moves from the blood to the intestines because the blood is hypotonic.
63) A dehydrated runner drinks a lot of water after a race. He or she rehydrates because A) the contents of the digestive tract are hypotonic compared to the bloodstream. B) the bloodstream is hypotonic compared to the contents of the digestive tract. C) the contents of the digestive tract and the bloodstream are isotonic compared to each
other. D) water will diffuse from an area where its concentration is low to an area where its concentration is high.
64) To test for the presence of starch, iodine can be used. A positive reaction results in a black
color. A dialysis (semi-permeable) bag filled with starch solution and secured on both ends is placed in iodine solution. After 30 minutes the dialysis bag appears black. Based on this information, what most accurately describes what happened? A) Due to its size and polarity, starch was able to exit the dialysis bag and interact with the iodine solution. B) Due to its size and polarity, iodine was able to enter the dialysis bag and interact with starch. C) Over time, both iodine and starch are equally distributed throughout the two solutions.
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65) A mixed solution of water and small molecules is exposed to a cell membrane and allowed to
interact for an hour. Which molecule would be most likely to cross the phospholipid bilayer without the aid of transport proteins and diffuse across the membrane the fastest? A) Estrogen ( ) B) C) D) E)
66) Three (3) eggs are boiled and all weigh 2g. The eggs are placed in a 15% solution of NaCl
and reweighed after 30 minutes.
McGraw-Hill Education
66.1)
The solution in the container is hypertonic to which egg? A) Egg 1 B) Egg 2 C) Egg 3
66.2)
Which egg is isotonic to the solution? A) Egg 1 B) Egg 2 C) Egg 3
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66.3)
When compared to the solution, the egg that gained weight was_________. A) Hypertonic B) Hypotonic C) Isotonic
67)
The diagram shows the rate of diffusion into a cell using carrier proteins.
McGraw-Hill Education
67.1)
Carrier proteins are saturated at which point? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
67.2)
The rate of diffusion will increase as A) the number of glucose molecules decreases. B) the number of glucose molecules increases. C) temperature decreases. D) pH rises.
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68) If
levels were depleted in the extracellular fluid, rate of glucose movement would A) increase. B) decrease. C) stay the same.
69) A symporter moves glucose and sodium from extracellular fluids into the cell. What can be
concluded about the movement of glucose? A) Glucose would be moving against its gradient into the cell B) The gradient driving the movement of sodium powers the movement of glucose into the cell C) Glucose would be moving with its gradient into the cell D) ATP is not required to move sodium down its concentration gradient E) Energy is needed to move glucose down its concentration gradient F) Glucose's movement would still be considered diffusion G) Glucose's movement is considered a part of coupled transport
70) A novice gardener notices that many plants in his garden look wilted. What osmotic solution
would you suggest the novice gardener use to best return the plants to full health? A) Place the plants in a 15% solute solution so water can be actively transported out of the plant cells. B) Place the plants in a 5% solute solution so water can be actively transported out of the plant cells. C) Place the plants in a 5% solute solution so water can diffuse into the plant cells. D) Place the plants in a 15% solute solution so water can diffuse out of the plant cells.
71) Insulin stimulates an increase of glucose carrier proteins on a cell’s surface. What effect does
insulin have on cell function? Choose all that apply. A) An increase in GLUT4 receptors, which will increase the glucose diffusion rate. B) ATP amounts needed for this transport will increase. C) Low insulin levels will decrease the number of available carrier proteins. D) Lack of membrane receptors for insulin will decrease amount of glucose taken in.
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72) Kwame is studying how the protein transferrin enters cells. He examines cells that have taken
up transferrin, and finds clathrin-coated vesicles. What mechanism was used to take transferrin into the cell? A) Phagocytosis B) Pinocytosis C) Exocytosis D) Receptor-mediator endocytosis
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 5 1) A 2) B 3) D 4) A 5) A 6) D 7) A 8) B 9) A 10) D 11) [A, B, C, E] 12) C 13) B 14) D 15) B 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) C 22) A 23) B 24) B 25) C 26) A 27) D 28) C 29) D 30) C 31) A 32) A 33) A 34) C 35) C 36) A 37) D
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38) A 39) A 40) A 41) D 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) B 46) B 47) B 48) C 49) [B, C, E] 50) B 51) D 52) B 53) B 54) A 55) B 56) C 57) [B, C, D] 58) C 59) B 60) [D, E] 61) C 62) D 63) A 64) B 65) C 66) Section Break 66.1) C 66.2) B 66.3) A 67) Section Break 67.1) D 67.2) B 68) B 69) [A, B, D, G] 70) C 71) [A, C, D] 72) D
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Chapter 6 Student name:__________ 1) Why do we have storage macromolecules, such as fats, in our bodies? A) We can break down these macromolecules to provide energy for the endergonic
reactions in our bodies. B) Human cells can directly capture the energy of sunlight through photosynthesis and store it as macromolecules such as fats. C) Macromolecules, such as fats, are a convenient way to store kinetic energy. D) Breaking down macromolecules, such as fats, is an endergonic process.
2) Energy is defined as A) heat. B) the capacity to do work. C) change. D) movement.
3) The amount of energy available to do work is called A) activation energy B) free energy C) kinetic energy D) potential energy
4) The energy needed to destabilize existing chemical bonds and start a chemical reaction is
called A) B) C) D)
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activation energy free energy kinetic energy potential energy
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5) Based on the graph, what are the optimal temperatures for the human enzyme (blue line) and
hotsprings prokaryote enzyme (red line)?
Copyright© The Mc-Graw-Hill Companies,Inc, Permission Required for reproduction or display. A) The optimal temperature for the human enzyme is 30 degrees C. The optimal temperature for the hotsprings prokaryote enzyme is 60 degrees C. B) The optimal temperature for the human enzyme is 40 degrees C. The optimal temperature for the hotsprings prokaryote enzyme is 72 degrees C. C) The optimal temperature for the human enzyme is 46 degrees C. The optimal temperature for the hotsprings prokaryote enzyme is 79 degrees C. D) The optimal temperature for the human enzyme is 35 degrees C. The optimal temperature for the hotsprings prokaryote enzyme is 65 degrees C.
6) A drug binds to the active site of an enzyme. If it is bound to the active site of the enzyme, it
prevents substrate binding. This drug would be considered a(n) A) noncompetitive inhibitor. B) allosteric inhibitor. C) allosteric activator. D) competitive inhibitor.
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7) <p>A particular reaction has a negative
. However, this reaction takes many years to proceed in the absence of enzyme. Why is this the case?</p> A) This reaction does not obey the second law of thermodynamics B) This reaction does not proceed spontaneously C) The initial free energy of the reactants is much less than the final free energy of the products D) A certain amount of activation energy is required for the reaction to proceed
8) A molecule that closely resembles the shape of a substrate for an enzyme and that decreases
the activity of the enzyme would most likely serve as a(n) A) noncompetitive inhibitor. B) allosteric inhibitor. C) competitive inhibitor. D) allosteric activator.
9) Oxidation and reduction reactions are chemical processes that result in a gain or loss of: A) atoms. B) neutrons. C) electrons. D) molecules. E) protons.
10) The synthesis of sugar molecules through the process of photosynthesis requires energy
absorbed from sunlight. Bearing this in mind, what kind of reaction is photosynthesis? A) exergonic B) endergonic C) catabolic D) feedback
11) A particular chemical reaction is exergonic. What can you say about the relationship between
the reactants and the products in this exergonic reaction? A) The reactants have more free energy than the products B) The reactants are likely more disordered and the products are likely more ordered C) The reactants cannot spontaneously react to generate the products D) The reactants likely have lower enthalpy than the products
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12) Kinases are enzymes that can phosphorylate (transfer phosphate groups onto)
macromolecules such as proteins. A particular kinase, Kinase 1 is known to promote cell division. It promotes cell division by phosphorylating Protein X. Phosphorylation of Protein X activates Protein X. Once activated, Protein X stimulates the production of other proteins such as Protein Y and Z that directly promote cell division. In order to function, Kinase 1 requires the presence of Metal A. However, in the presence of Protein A, Kinase 1 is nonfunctional. From the description, what is considered the substrate of Kinase 1? A) Protein X B) Protein Y C) Protein Z D) Metal A E) Protein A
13) Kinases are enzymes that can phosphorylate (transfer phosphate groups onto)
macromolecules such as proteins. A particular kinase, Kinase 1 is known to promote cell division. It promotes cell division by phosphorylating Protein X. Phosphorylation of Protein X activates Protein X. Once activated, Protein X stimulates the production of other proteins such as Protein Y and Z that directly promote cell division. In order to function, Kinase 1 requires the presence of Metal A. However, in the presence of Protein A, Kinase 1 is nonfunctional. From the description, what is considered a cofactor of Kinase 1? A) Protein X B) Protein Y C) Protein Z D) Metal A E) Protein A
14) Hexokinase is an enzyme that binds specifically to glucose and converts it into glucose 6-
phosphate. The activity of hexokinase is suppressed by glucose 6-phosphate, which binds to hexokinase at a location that is distinct from the active site. This is an example of. A) feedback inhibition. B) competitive inhibition. C) cofactor binding. D) allosteric activation.
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15) The organic nonprotein components that aid in enzyme functioning are called A) reactants. B) chaperones. C) coenzymes. D) substrates. E) products.
16) The inorganic nonprotein components that participate in enzyme catalysis are known as A) coenzymes. B) cofactors. C) products. D) substrates. E) reactants.
17) Many metabolic pathways are ultimately concerned with ATP; either with the generation of
ATP, or with the requirement of ATP for that pathway to function. Why is ATP so important to metabolism? A) Hydrolysis of ATP is used to drive exergonic reactions B) Hydrolysis of the bond between adenine and ribose in ATP is commonly used to release energy that can be used to drive other cellular reactions C) The phosphate groups of ATP are held together by unstable bonds that can be broken to release energy D) ATP is a protein that serves as the energy currency of cells
18) The chemistry of living systems representing all chemical reactions is called A) catabolism. B) anabolism. C) metabolism. D) enzymology. E) thermodynamics.
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19) A calorie is the commonly used unit of chemical energy. It is also the unit of A) light. B) magnetism. C) sound. D) heat. E) radioactivity.
20) The term oxidation is derived from the name of the element oxygen. This is reasonable,
because oxygen A) attracts electrons very strongly. B) can be oxidized by accepting electrons. C) contains more electrons than are needed. D) passes electrons to many other types of molecules.
21) When an atom or molecule gains one or more electrons, it is said to be: A) energized. B) oxidized. C) polarized. D) reduced.
22) The ultimate source of energy for humans comes from what source? A) The sun B) Plants C) Water D) Air E) Animals
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23) Glucose is broken down through cellular respiration, which involves a large number of
chemical reactions. At the end of the cellular respiration process, a large number of ATP molecules are generated, but yet, not all of the possible energy that is contained in a molecule of glucose can be harnessed through these chemical reactions to generate ATP. In other words, during cellular respiration, not all of the energy that is contained in a molecule of glucose is converted into the energy stored in ATP. What happens to the remaining energy? A) It is destroyed B) It is used to drive exergonic reactions C) It is donated to molecules in the cellular respiration process to reduce them D) It is lost as heat
24) The Law of Thermodynamics that states that energy cannot be created or destroyed is: A) The First Law of Thermodynamics B) The Second Law of Thermodynamics C) The Third Law of Thermodynamics D) The Fourth Law of Thermodynamics
25) The Law of Thermodynamics that states that increases in entropy are favored is: A) The First Law of Thermodynamics B) The Second Law of Thermodynamics C) The Third Law of Thermodynamics D) The Fourth Law of Thermodynamics
26) A current problem in modern medicine is the development of drug resistant mutations. This
occurs when a mutation arises in a disease-causing microbe making it resistant to a drug and thus rendering the drug useless. Many drugs are competitive inhibitors of specific enzymes, and the drug-resistant mutations prevent the binding of the drug. These types of mutations, in addition to preventing competitive inhibitor binding, can also reduce the activity of the enzyme. Why is that the case? A) Binding to the competitive inhibitor is essential for the function of the enzyme B) These mutations most likely affect an allosteric site on the enzyme C) These mutations lower the activation energy of the reaction catalyzed by the enzyme D) These mutations most likely change the shape of the active site of the enzyme
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27) Tacrolimus (FK-506) is a drug that inhibits an enzyme called calcineurin. Calcineurin is a
protein phosphatase. This is an enzyme that dephosphorylates (removes phosphate groups) from proteins. When added to cells, tacrolimus can inhibit the dephosphorylation of a protein called NFAT, but it cannot prevent the dephosphorylation of a protein called CDK1. What is the most likely explanation for this finding? A) Calcineurin requires an additional cofactor to dephosphorylate NFAT B) NFAT is a substrate of calcineurin, but CDK1 is not C) Tacrolimus is a competitive inhibitor of calcineurin for NFAT and CDK11 D) Tacrolimus changes the optimum pH for calcineurin
28) RNA molecules that also act as enzymes are given the name A) ribozymes B) cofactors C) coenzymes D) allosteric enzymes
29) In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, the reactant is called the A) coenzyme B) catalyst C) substrate D) product
30) When the substrate is bound to the enzyme, the shape of the enzyme may change slightly,
leading to A) an induced fit B) a great range of possible catalytic activities C) a greater supply of activation energy D) more permanent binding through intimate total contact E) more possible products of the reaction
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31) In order to reuse an enzyme after the conclusion of an enzyme catalyzed reaction, what must
occur? A) B) C) D)
the enzyme has to be resynthesized the enzyme has to separate itself from the product changes into an active form the enzyme has to decrease entropy
32) You are working with a specific enzyme-catalyzed reaction in the lab. You are a very careful
scientist, and as a result, at the beginning of each of your experiments, you measure the temperature in the lab. On days 1 through 5, the temperature in the lab was 20ºC. Today is day 6 of your experiment, and the temperature in the lab is 30ºC. How do you predict that this will alter the rate of your enzyme-catalyzed reaction? A) It will decrease the rate B) It will increase the rate C) It could possibly increase or decrease the rate D) it will not affect the rate
33) Metabolic reactions fall under two general categories: anabolic and catabolic. What type of
chemical reactions are these two classes of metabolic reactions? A) Anabolic reactions are exergonic reactions, whereas catabolic reactions are endergonic. B) Both anabolic and catabolic reactions are exergonic. C) Both anabolic and catabolic reactions are endergonic. D) Anabolic reactions are endergonic reactions, whereas catabolic reactions are exergonic.
34) Under standard conditions, ATP can release for every molecule converted to ADP A) less than 1 cal of energy. B) 1 to 2 cal of energy. C) 7.3 Kcal of energy. D) different amounts of energy depending on the cell.
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35) Glucose is converted into glucose 6-phosphate by hexokinase. Glucose 6-phosphate then
serves as the substrate for the enzyme phosphoglucose isomerase, which converts this reactant into fructose 6-phosphate. Fructose 6-phosphate serves as the substrate for phosphofructokinase, which converts fructose 6-phosphate into fructose 1,6-bisphosphate. Based on the information provided, this is an example of what? A) Feedback inhibition B) Allosteric regulation C) A metabolic pathway D) Enzyme inhibition
36) In an experiment described in a chemistry lab book, the directions state that after mixing two
chemicals (A and B) and waiting 5 minutes, chemical A will be oxidized. This means that: A) chemical A has lost electrons to chemical B. B) chemical A has gained electrons from chemical B. C) chemical A has gained energy in the form of heat from chemical B. D) chemical A has lost energy in the form of heat to chemical B. E) chemical A has reacted with oxygen.
37) In a chemical reaction, glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate +
yields 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate +
NADH. In this reaction, what happened to ? A) It was oxidized to form NADH B) It was reduced to form NADH C) It was activated to form NADH D) it served as an enzyme to catalyze the reaction, and at the end of the reaction formed NADH
38) In a chemical reaction, 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate + ADP yields 3-phosphoglycerate plus ATP.
What is the ΔG for this reaction? A) Greater than zero. B) Less than zero. C) Equal to zero. D) Cannot be determined
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39) For a particular chemical reaction, the enthalpy of the reactants is -400 kJ. The enthalpy of
the products is -390 kJ. The entropy of the reactants is 0.2 kJ/K. The entropy of the products is 0.3 kJ/K. The temperature of the reaction is 25 degrees Celsius. What can you conclude about this reaction? A) It is exergonic B) It is endergonic C) it is a redox reaction D) It is being catalyzed by an enzyme
40) Does ADP contain the capacity to provide energy for the cell? A) No. ADP does not contain any bonds that can be broken to provide energy for the
cell. B) Yes. ADP has the same capacity to provide energy for the cell as ATP. C) Yes. Cleaving the bond between the ribose sugar and the two phosphate groups can provide energy for the cell. D) Yes. Cleaving the bond between the terminal phosphate and the phosphate attached to the ribose sugar can provide energy for the cell.
41) AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) is an enzyme that is activated by high levels of AMP
in cells. If levels of AMP are high in cells, that means that levels of ATP are low. Once active, AMPK activates catabolic pathways and inhibits anabolic pathways in the cell. Why do you think that is the case? Choose the answer that best explains the role of AMPK. A) High levels of AMP indicate that there is a high amount of energy stored in the cell, thus activating catabolic pathways and inhibiting anabolic pathways are mechanisms to use stored energy. B) By inhibiting anabolic pathways, AMPK provides a mechanism to generate heat for the cell, which is important if AMP levels are high in the cell. C) By activating catabolic pathways, AMPK provides a mechanism to activate exergonic pathways, which is important if AMP levels are high in the cell. D) Activating catabolic pathways and inhibiting anabolic pathways will ultimately lead to higher consumption of ATP, which is important if AMP levels are high in the cell.
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42) You are studying an enzyme-catalyzed reaction that induces a particular cellular activity in
the lab. If you wanted to slow down that particular cellular activity by controlling the enzyme, what could you do? A) Decrease the temperature of the incubator where the cells are growing B) Increase the pH of the media the cells are growing in to the optimum pH C) Add cofactors to the media the cells are growing in D) Add an allosteric activator to the cells
43) <p>A new antibiotic has been developed. It acts as a noncompetitive inhibitor of an enzyme.
How will this antibiotic affect A) will increase B) will decrease C) will be unaffected
for the reaction that is catalyzed by the enzyme?</p>
44) Glycolysis is a metabolic process that is conducted by nearly all cells. However, in addition
to glycolysis, some cells also make use of another metabolic process called the Krebs cycle. What does this tell you about the evolution of these processes? A) As a metabolic process, glycolysis likely evolved prior to the Krebs cycle B) As a metabolic process, the Krebs cycle likely evolved prior to glycolysis C) Both the Krebs cycle and glycolysis likely evolved at the same time
45) Enzyme 1 converts substrate A into product B. Is this an example of a metabolic pathway? A) Yes. This is a metabolic pathway that includes feedback inhibition. B) No. This only describes one chemical reaction. A metabolic pathway includes
multiple chemical reactions. C) Yes. This is a simple metabolic pathway. D) No. A metabolic pathway must include an inhibitory step.
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46) It is summer, and you are excited about going to your local amusement park, and specifically
about riding the new roller coaster that was just built. You imagine waiting at the top of the stairs for the roller coaster to pull into the station, climbing into the car, strapping yourself into the seatbelt, and pulling down the harness. You can imagine the cars slowly chugging up to the top of the first hill, coming down on the other side, and the excitement you expect to feel as you go along for the ride. Of all of the things that you have imagined, which is an example of potential energy? A) Waiting at the top of the stairs for the roller coaster to pull into the station B) Climbing into the car C) Pulling down the harness D) The roller coaster car going up the first hill
47) Phosphofructokinase (PFK) is an enzyme that converts fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-
bisphosphate, by adding a phosphate group. This is the first committed step of the metabolic pathway of glycolysis, and thus it is very tightly regulated. AMP binds to PFK at a site distinct from the binding site for fructose 6-phosphate, and stimulates the formation of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate. ATP binds to PFK at a site distinct from the binding site for fructose 6-phosphate, and inhibits the formation of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate. There are other regulators of this enzyme as well. What is the role of AMP in this example? A) Competitive inhibitor B) Noncompetitive inhibitor C) Allosteric inhibitor D) Allosteric activator E) Catalyst
48) You eat a bowl of beans as part of your dinner. As you digest the beans, the proteins that are
present get broken down to their component amino acids. As your body destroys the macromolecules that were present in the beans, is the energy present in those molecules destroyed? A) Yes. By breaking down these macromolecules, some of the energy they contained is destroyed. B) No. While the vast majority of the energy contained in these macromolecules is converted to heat, it is not actually destroyed. C) No. The energy contained within these macromolecules is converted into other forms of chemical energy and kinetic energy, though some is lost as heat. D) No. Breaking down molecules does not lead to the release of energy.
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49) If you were able to increase the kinetic energy of the molecules inside your body, how would
this affect your body temperature? A) It would increase B) It would decrease C) It would remain the same
50) You return home to find that your baby brother has scattered his toy trains and trucks all over
the floor of your room. As you begin to pick up the toys and put them away, you realize that even though he is just a baby, he has clearly mastered: A) the first law of thermodynamics. B) the second law of thermodynamics. C) potential energy. D) free energy.
51) If the A) B) C) D)
of a reaction was -31.45 kJoules, you would know that: the products have more free energy than the reactants. the reaction requires an energy input of 31.45 kJoules to proceed. the reaction most likely leads to development of a more ordered system. the reaction is spontaneous.
52) In the hypothetical biochemical pathway, P → Q + R → S → T, which step is likely to have
evolved first? A) P → Q B) Q + R C) R → S D) S → T
53) While conducting an experiment, you realize that a competitive inhibitor was interfering with
your reaction. How could you overcome this problem? A) Add a noncompetitive inhibitor to the reaction. B) Add a cofactor to the reaction. C) Increase the concentration of the correct substrate in the reaction. D) Add an allosteric activator to the reaction.
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54) A ribozyme catalyzes a reaction on itself and actually changes shape. This is an example of. A) intra-enzyme reactions. B) inter-enzyme reactions. C) intramolecular catalysis. D) intermolecular catalysis.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 6 1) A 2) B 3) B 4) A 5) B 6) D 7) D 8) C 9) C 10) B 11) A 12) A 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) B 17) C 18) C 19) D 20) A 21) D 22) A 23) D 24) A 25) B 26) D 27) B 28) A 29) C 30) A 31) B 32) C 33) D 34) C 35) C 36) A 37) B
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38) B 39) A 40) D 41) C 42) A 43) C 44) A 45) B 46) A 47) D 48) C 49) A 50) B 51) D 52) D 53) C 54) C
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Chapter 7 Student name:__________ 1) Organisms that can manufacture their own chemical energy are called_________. A) autotrophs B) heterotrophs C) oligotrophs D) chemotrophs
2) Organisms that depend on the energy stored in chemical bonds by other organisms for their
food energy are called_________. A) Autotrophs B) Heterotrophs C) Oligotrophs D) Chemotrophs
3) Animals that take in oxygen from their environment break down glucose into carbon dioxide
and water in a process called A) anaerobic respiration. B) organic compound respiration. C) glucose respiration. D) aerobic respiration.
4) In glycolysis, a major portion of the energy remains in the final product, which is called A) glucose. B) citrate. C) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P). D) pyruvate.
5) One way to generate acetyl-CoA is to convert pyruvate into acetyl-CoA by stripping off a
molecule. The removal of A) Decarboxylation B) Glycolytic C) Carboxylation D) Acetylation
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6) All of the reactions of cellular respiration that occur after glycolysis take place in what part
of the eukaryotic cell? A) The chloroplast B) The nucleus C) The mitochondria D) The plasma membrane E) The cytoplasm
7) What must happen to amino acids before they can be used in catabolic reactions? A) They must be decarboxylated B) They must be deoxygenated C) They must be dehydrogenated D) They must be deaminated
8) Many types of cancer cells secrete significant levels of lactate. Do you think it is likely these
cells are undergoing beta-oxidation? A) Yes, because beta-oxidation can generate intermediates that would lead to the production of lactate. B) No, because if lactate is being produced, the cell is not likely making use of the pathways needed to make use of the products of beta-oxidation. C) Yes, because lactate stimulates beta-oxidation. D) No, because lactate is consumed in beta-oxidation
9) What stage of cellular respiration can occur in human cells with or without oxygen present? A) The Citric acid cycle B) Glycolysis C) The electron transport chain D) Pyruvate oxidation
10) When oxygen is unavailable during heavy exercise, what process do muscle cells use for
energy generation? A) Glycolysis coupled with alcohol fermentation B) Anaerobic respiration C) Aerobic respiration D) Glycolysis coupled with lactate fermentation
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11) What oxidizing agent is used to temporarily store high energy electrons harvested from
glucose molecules in a series of gradual steps in the cytoplasm? A) B) ADP C) D) Oxygen
12) It is thought that the oldest stage of cellular respiration from an evolutionary perspective is A) the Citric acid cycle. B) the electron transport chain. C) fermentation. D) glycolysis.
13) A human cell has a mutation in the gene that encodes the enzyme that generates lactate from
pyruvate, rendering that enzyme completely non-functional. Assuming that there is ample glucose present, how would this cell generate energy in the presence of oxygen? A) Glycolysis coupled with ethanol fermentation B) Aerobic respiration C) Primarily through the break down of proteins into amino acids D) This cell would have no way to generate energy under these conditions because it cannot carry out the reactions needed for glycolysis
14) What molecule can oxidize NADH? A) Acetaldehyde B) Lactate C) Ubiquinone D) Glucose E) Isocitrate
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15) In aerobic respiration, chemiosmotic generation of ATP is driven by: A)
transfer through the plasma membrane.
B) the
pump. C) a difference in concentration on the two sides of the inner mitochondrial membrane. D) osmosis of macromolecules. E) large quantities of ADP.
16) <p>In the reaction:
place to remove the protons from A) Decarboxylation B) Reduction C) Dehydrogenation D) Oxidation
, what type of reaction took ?</p>
17) How and where is ATP made in a eukaryotic cell? A) ATP is only made in the mitochondria in response to chemiosmosis. B) ATP is made in all compartments of the cell in response to endergonic reactions and
is used to drive exergonic reactions in the cell. C) ATP can be made by direct phosphorylation of ADP in the cytoplasm, and by an enzyme complex that uses the energy from a proton gradient to drive ATP synthesis in the mitochondria. It can also be made in other locations in the cell, depending on the cell type. D) ATP can be made by an enzyme complex that uses the energy of protons moving down their concentration gradient from the mitochondrial matrix to the cytoplasm to make the ATP.
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18) If you take into account the amount of ATP generated by ATP synthase per molecule of
NADH produced in aerobic respiration, the net number of ATP molecules produced by substrate-level phosphorylation, and the fact that NADH molecules produced in the cytoplasm have to be transported into the mitochondria, what is the predicted energy yield of glycolysis in eukaryotic cells? A) 2 ATP B) 5 ATP C) 7 ATP D) 32 ATP E) 30 ATP
19) During what step of glycolysis are two ATP molecules required? A) Cleavage and rearrangement B) Glucose priming C) Oxidation D) Pyruvate formation E) Acetyl-CoA formation
20) This process is common to all living cells: A) Glycolysis B) Alcohol fermentation C) The Citric acid cycle D) Electron transport chain reactions E) Pyruvate oxidation
21) If you take into account the amount of ATP generated by ATP synthase per molecule of
NADH and per molecule of produced, and the number of ATP molecules produced by substrate-level phosphorylation, what is the predicted energy yield of the Citric acid cycle, per molecule of glucose in eukaryotic cells? A) 18 ATP B) 2 ATP C) 10 ATP D) 20 ATP E) 30 ATP
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22) What is an end-product of glycolysis? A) Oxaloacetate B) C) Alcohol D) ADP E) Pyruvate
23) <p>The equation for cellular respiration is:
. At
what specific point in the cellular respiration process has glucose been broken down completely from a six carbon molecule to 6 molecules of ?</p> A) During the priming reactions in glycolysis B) During the oxidation and ATP formation reactions in glycolysis C) During pyruvate oxidation D) During the condensation reaction in the Citric acid cycle E) During the second oxidation in the Citric acid cycle
24) Pyruvate oxidation in eukaryotic cells occurs in the _________. A) cytoplasm B) nucleus C) Golgi body D) mitochondria E) plasma membrane
25) What is common to all of the oxidation reactions in the Citric acid cycle? A) They all lead to the generation of NADH. B) They are all decarboxylation reactions. C) They are all characterized by a loss of electrons from an organic molecule coupled to
the reduction of an electron acceptor. D) They all lead to substrate-level phosphorylation of ADP to generate ATP.
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26) In the reaction catalyzed by aconitase, the conversion of citrate to isocitrate is inhibited by
fluoroacetate. Fluoroacetate is used as a pesticide. Why is this an effective pesticide? A) It inhibits glycolysis B) It inhibits pyruvate oxidation C) It inhibits the Citric acid cycle D) It inhibits the electron transport chain E) It inhibits ATP synthase
27) Arsenic poisoning can lead to organ failure and death. Though arsenic can inhibit or interfere
with a number of cellular enzymes, arsenic poisoning is thought to be mainly due to indirect inhibition of enzymes involved in both pyruvate oxidation and the Citric acid cycle. As a result, this compound must be able to enter which cellular compartment? A) The cytoplasm B) The nucleus C) The intermembrane space of the mitochondria D) The mitochondrial matrix E) The endoplasmic reticulum
28) What are the products of one turn of the Citric acid cycle? A) 1 B) 2 C) 2 D) 4 E) 4
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, 2 NADH, 1 , 3 NADH, 1 , 6 NADH, 2 , 6 NADH, 2 , 12 NADH, 4
, 1 ATP , 1 ATP , 2 ATP , 2 ATP , 4 ATP
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29) What is different about the way that NADH and
donate electrons to the electron
transport chain? A) <p>NADH is oxidized and is reduced.</p> B) NADH contributes its electrons to the first transmembrane complex in the electron transport chain and contributes its electrons after the first transmembrane complex. C) <p>More protons are transported into the intermembrane space of the mitochondria in response to one molecule of as compared to the number of protons transported in response to one molecule of NADH.</p> D) <p>The electrons from NADH ultimately go on to reduce oxygen to generate water, whereas the electrons from are used to reduce pyruvate to lactate.</p>
30) What happens to the oxygen that is used in cellular respiration? A) It is converted to carbon dioxide B) It is used to make glucose C) It is used to make Citric acid cycle intermediates D) It is reduced to form water E) It is converted to acetyl-CoA
31) As electrons move along the electron transport chain, they lose potential energy. How is the
energy that is released used by the cell? A) The energy is used to transport protons against their concentration gradient B) The energy is used to pump electrons along the electron transport chain C) The energy is converted directly into ATP D) The energy is used to pump into the cytoplasm so it can be used in glycolysis
32) Cardiac muscle cells need to generate significant amounts of ATP to allow for constant
contractile activity. As a result, they primarily depend upon beta-oxidation of fatty acids, which has a higher energy yield than the catabolism of glucose. What would be the ATP yield for beta-oxidation of a hypothetical 10-carbon fatty acid? A) 32 ATP B) 35 ATP C) 50 ATP D) 62 ATP E) 65 ATP
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33) The energy released in the mitochondrial electron transport chain is used to transport protons
into the A) mitochondrial matrix. B) cytoplasm. C) endoplasmic reticulum. D) intermembrane space of the mitochondria. E) nucleus.
34) If citrate levels are high in the cell, but ATP levels are low, what do you think will happen in
the cell? A) In the presence of glucose, glycolysis will run to generate energy for the cell, but the Citric acid cycle will be inhibited. B) Glycolysis will be inhibited, but the Citric acid cycle will be functional, allowing it to be utilized to breakdown acetyl-CoA generated from beta-oxidation. C) <p>The electron transport chain will be inhibited, causing a build-up of NADH and . This will inhibit the Citric acid cycle, but in the presence of glucose, glycolysis will still run coupled with fermentation to regenerate .</p> D) Glycolysis and the Citric acid cycle will both be inhibited, thus under these conditions there will be no mechanism to generate ATP.
35) Regardless of the electron or hydrogen acceptor used, one of the products of fermentation is
always A) ADP. B) ATP. . C) D) pyruvate. E) alcohol.
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36) Glucose is not our only food source, nor the only one we can utilize in our bodies to generate
energy. Other primary sources of energy include other sugars, proteins, and fats.What metabolic intermediate are fats primarily converted into? A) Pyruvate B) Acetyl-CoA C) Citric acid cycle intermediates D) Electron transport chain components E) ATP Synthase
37) When amino acids are degraded in cells, into what intermediate(s) of the aerobic respiration
process are the carbon skeletons of amino acids primarily converted? A) Pyruvate B) Acetyl-CoA C) Citric acid cycle intermediates D) Pyruvate and acetyl-CoA E) Pyruvate and Citric acid cycle intermediates
38) A biochemist wants to control the initial substrate-level phosphorylation that occurs in the
tracheal cells of grasshoppers once glucose has crossed the plasma membrane. He has access to the following inhibitors: Rotenone, an electron transport chain inhibitor; Oligomycin, an ATP synthase inhibitor; and TLN-232, an inhibitor of glycolysis. Which inhibitor should he use to slow down initial substrate-level phosphorylation that occurs once glucose has crossed the plasma membrane? A) Rotenone B) Oligomycin C) TLN-232 D) None of these inhibitors would be effective in preventing substrate-level phosphorylation
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39) <p>To form NADH from
, two electrons and a proton are removed from an organic molecule. What term best describes the reaction in which electrons and a proton are removed from an organic molecule?</p> A) Condensation B) Reduction C) Dehydrogenation D) Decarboxylation E) Isomerization
40) <p>Aerobic respiration involves the transfer of several electrons from glucose to electron
carriers such as over a series of steps, and ultimately glucose reacting with oxygen to generate carbon dioxide, water and energy. Why does glucose not react directly with oxygen in cells?</p> A) Oxygen cannot accept electrons, and thus an electron carrier like is needed. B) Oxygen and glucose are localized in different subcellular compartments. C) The direct reaction of oxygen with glucose would be extremely destructive to cells. D) The reaction of oxygen with glucose is not spontaneous.
41) When substrate-level phosphorylation occurs, it means that: A) is converted into NADH. B) ATP is formed by the enzyme ATP synthase using energy from a proton gradient. C) ATP is formed by the transfer of a phosphate group from an intermediate molecule. D) NADH is converted into
plus a proton.
42) What is the net number of ATP generated directly during glycolysis per molecule of glucose? A) 0 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 E) 8
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43) The Citric acid cycle occurs in the mitochondria. There are nine biochemical reactions
involved in the Citric acid cycle, and they are highly ordered. Select the correct order. (Note: These are abbreviated and do not show NAD, ADP, ATP, or FAD.) A) acetyl-CoA joins the Citric acid cycle and unites with oxaloacetate →forming citrate →which forms beta-ketoglutarate → which forms succinyl-CoA → which forms succinate → which forms fumarate → which forms malate → which forms oxaloacetate B) acetyl-CoA joins the Citric acid cycle and unites with oxaloacetate →forming citrate →which forms alpha-ketoglutarate → which forms succinyl-CoA → which forms succinate → which forms malate → which forms fumarate → which forms oxaloacetate C) acetyl-CoA joins the Citric acid cycle and unites with oxaloacetate →which forms alpha-ketoglutarate → forming citrate → which forms succinyl-CoA → which forms succinate → which forms fumarate → which forms malate → which forms oxaloacetate D) acetyl-CoA joins the Citric acid cycle and unites with oxaloacetate →forming citrate →which forms alpha-ketoglutarate → which forms succinyl-CoA → which forms succinate → which forms fumarate → which forms malate → which forms oxaloacetate
44) How many oxidation reactions occur during the Citric acid cycle? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 E) 9
45) What would be the ATP yield for a molecule that is catabolized to form one molecule of
pyruvate in a eukaryotic cell? A) 10 ATP B) 12.5 ATP C) 25 ATP D) 30 ATP E) 11.5 ATP
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46) What is the oxidized form of the most common electron carrier that is needed for both
glycolysis and the Citric acid cycle? A) ATP B) FAD C) pyruvate D) E) acetyl-CoA
47) Many of the antiviral drugs currently used to treat HIV/AIDS also interfere with an enzyme
that helps mitochondria multiply. Treatment can therefore result in a decrease in the number of mitochondria found in certain tissues. Given this information, what might you expect to see in patients treated with antiviral drugs? A) An increase in oxidative phosphorylation B) An increase in phosphofructokinase activity C) An increase in NADH dehydrogenase activity D) An increase in lactic acid levels
48) Cytochromes contain a heme group similar to that in hemoglobin. The iron atom (Fe) in the
center of the group can be oxidized and reduced. If someone was suffering from iron deficiency anemia, what stage of cellular respiration would be most affected? A) Glycolysis B) The Citric acid cycle C) The electron transport chain D) Fermentation
49) As a forensic pathologist, you have just completed an autopsy of a poisoning victim. After a
thorough examination, you conclude that the victim died of cyanide poisoning. You know that cyanide binds to the cytochrome oxidase complex, and therefore list the official cause of death as suffocation due to cyanide exposure. However, if you wanted to provide a more technical explanation as to the cause of death, which process was specifically inhibited directly by cyanide? A) The reduction of B) The oxidation of C) All proton pumping into the intermembrane space D) The formation of water from oxygen E) ATP synthesis
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50) Phosphofructokinase is regulated by a number of factors, including high levels of ATP. Why
is this enzyme regulated by ATP levels? A) If ATP levels are high, this provides a mechanism to directly inhibit the Citric acid cycle, thus preventing further generation of NADH, and ATP molecules that are not needed. B) If ATP levels are high, it is important to directly inhibit the reaction that commits the substrate to glycolysis to allow the substrate to be available for other reactions, since the cell has ample energy. C) If ATP levels are high, it is important to inhibit ATP synthase, and phosphofructokinase directly inhibits ATP synthase. D) If ATP levels are high, this provides a mechanism to directly inhibit the electron transport chain, thus preventing the formation of a proton gradient in the intermembrane space of mitochondria.
51) What important metabolic intermediate does not cross the inner membrane of the
mitochondria? A) ATP B) Acetyl-CoA C) Pyruvate D) Oxygen
52) In the absence of oxygen, can cells utilize the electron transport chain? A) Yes, all cells can make use of the electron transport chain in the absence of oxygen
via fermentation. B) No, oxygen is a required cofactor for the complexes in the electron transport chain. C) Yes, if a cell can use a terminal electron acceptor other than oxygen, it can make use of the electron transport chain. D) No, oxygen is the primary electron acceptor in electron transport chains in all cell types.
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53) Your friend is having difficulty keeping track of the energy flow from glucose through
glycolysis, the Citric acid cycle and electron transport. Your best advice would be to A) follow ATP production. B) follow the protons. C) follow production. D) follow the electrons.
54) <p>If ATP synthase had a mutation in the
complex portion of the protein, which function of ATP synthase would most likely be affected?</p> A) The rotation of the rotor B) The flow of protons through the channel C) <p>The conversion of ADP and to ATP</p> D) The insertion of the enzyme into the membrane
55) What aspect of cellular respiration occurs in the cytoplasm in eukaryotic cells? A) Glycolysis B) Pyruvate oxidation C) The Citric acid cycle D) The electron transport chain E) ATP synthesis
56) You decide to go on vacation in the mountains, where you are staying in a cabin.
Unfortunately, when you turn on the water in the cabin you smell hydrogen sulfide ( ) gas. After some research, you find out that the may be due to the presence of sulfur bacteria living in your pipes. What molecule do these bacteria use as an electron acceptor? A) B) C) D)
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57) In order to lose weight and reduce body fat, a friend of yours has decided to eliminate all fat
from his diet, while consuming unrestricted amounts of carbohydrates. What do you think of this idea? A) It is a good idea, because if your friend doesn't eat any fat, he cannot store any additional fat. B) It is a bad idea, because consumption of fat is required to provide cofactors for the electron transport chain. C) It is a good idea, because under conditions where ATP levels are low in cells, carbohydrates will be stored, and fat stores will be catabolized via beta-oxidation to generate energy. D) It is a bad idea, because if ATP levels are high in cells, excess acetyl-CoA from the metabolism of carbohydrates can be used for fatty acid synthesis.
58) Why are the components of the electron transport chain embedded in the inner mitochondrial
membrane rather than floating freely in the cytoplasm of the mitochondrial matrix? A) To generate and maintain the proton gradient essential for ATP production. B) To separate the ATP from the ADP. C) Because electrons cannot float in the matrix. D) Because NADH cannot localize to the mitochondrial matrix.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 7 1) A 2) B 3) D 4) D 5) A 6) C 7) D 8) B 9) B 10) D 11) C 12) D 13) B 14) A 15) C 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) B 20) A 21) D 22) E 23) E 24) D 25) C 26) C 27) D 28) B 29) B 30) D 31) A 32) D 33) D 34) B 35) C 36) B 37) E
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38) C 39) C 40) C 41) C 42) B 43) D 44) C 45) B 46) D 47) D 48) C 49) D 50) B 51) B 52) C 53) D 54) C 55) A 56) C 57) D 58) A
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Chapter 8 Student name:__________ 1) Where do the carbon atoms in glucose come from? A) Sunlight B) Carbon dioxide C) Water D) NADPH
2) Carbon dioxide and water can combine to form glucose, water and oxygen. What is required
for that process to occur? A) Nothing, this is a spontaneous reaction B) Energy from the process of cellular respiration C) Light energy from the sun D) Mitochondria
3) A protein that has been transported past the outer chloroplast membrane would have to pass
how many more membranes to reach the stroma and thylakoid lumen, respectively? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
4) If you tagged organic carbon inside a chloroplast with a fluorescent label, the location most
likely to have a high concentration of labeled carbon would be in the A) Stroma B) Thylakoid membrane C) Between the outer and inner membranes D) Inside the thylakoid
5) The splitting of water and the generation of oxygen occur where? A) Photosystem I B) The Krebs Cycle C) The Calvin Cycle D) Photosystem II
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6) In order to generate one glucose molecule, the Calvin cycle has to turn how many times? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 6 E) 12
7) The number of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate molecules that would be produced from 24 turns
of the Calvin cycle would be A) 6 B) 8 C) 4 D) 12 E) 48
8) If the Calvin cycle of a plant exposed to light during the day is suddenly put in the dark, then
it: A) cannot run, as it requires light energy directly. B) <p>can still run as long as there is ATP, C) runs in a different place in the plant. D) uses a different source of carbon.
, and NADPH present.</p>
9) In eukaryotes, photosynthesis takes place inside the_________. A) chloroplasts B) mitochondria C) cytoplasm D) Golgi apparatus
10) Clusters of chlorophyll and accessory pigments are called_________. A) the Golgi apparatus B) chloroplasts C) photosystems D) photosynthetic membranes
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11) Which plants utilize a specialized carbon fixation enzyme and a unique cell structure to
reduce the problems of photorespiration? A) B) C) Desert D) Arctic
12) <p>Plants that show a pattern of stomatal opening and closing that is the reverse of
plants
are called</p> A) .</p> B) Temperate. C) CAM. D) Calvin cycle.
13) A plant is treated with a chemical that blocks the flow of electrons between photosystem II
and photosystem I, such that protons are not transported from the stroma into the thylakoid compartment. What is the effect of this chemical on photosynthesis? A) the increased number of protons will be directly used in the thylakoid to produce glucose B) an increased proton gradient will provide the energy needed to produce ATP from the light reactions C) a decreased proton gradient will cause less ATP to be produced from the light reactions D) the increased proton gradient will be used to make NADPH for the Calvin cycle
14) In photosynthesis, carbon fixation occurs: A) in photosystem I B) in the electron transport chain C) in photosystem II D) in the Calvin cycle E) during photorespiration
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15) If the gene encoding the enzyme rubisco is mutated such that it is non-functional, the process
that would be affected is the ability to A) make ATP. B) harvest photons. C) fix carbon. D) <p>make .</p> E) make NADPH.
16) Most plants incorporate carbon dioxide into sugars by means of a cycle of reactions called
the A) B) C) D)
CAM cycle. carbon cycle. Calvin cycle. Krebs cycle.
17) Flattened sacs of internal membranes associated with photosynthesis are called A) chloroplasts. B) photosystems. C) the stroma. D) thylakoids. E) cristae.
18) For photosynthesis in green plants, the electron donor for the light-dependent reaction is A) carbon dioxide. B) oxygen. C) RuBP. D) chlorophyll II. E) water.
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19) <p>In the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis,
is added to a five-carbon
molecule known as</p> A) cellulose. B) ribose. C) deoxyribose. D) RuBP. E) CAM.
20) Jan Baptista van Helmont performed an important experiment related to photosynthesis. He
weighed a small willow tree and a pot of soil. Jan then planted the tree in the pot. Over the course of five years, he added only water to the pot. At the end of five years, he weighed the tree and found that it had gained 74.4 kg. He weighed the soil, and it was only 57 g less. What do the results of this specific experiment demonstrate about what is needed for a plant to grow and increase its mass? A) All of the food a plant needs to grow comes from the soil B) Plants do not need soil to grow C) Plants must be able to increase their mass using substances in addition to what is found in soil D) All of the food a plant needs to grow comes from the water E) Plants need oxygen to grow
21) Light consists of units of energy called A) electrons. B) photons. C) calories. D) neutrons. E) pigments.
22) Visible light has a wavelength range of A) 400-740 nanometers. B) 200-800 nanometers. C) 200-400 nanometers. D) 200-740 nanometers. E) 0.001-100,000 nanometers.
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23) Molecules that absorb light are called A) enzymes. B) electron carriers. C) pigments. D) photosynthesizers. E) absorbers.
24) Why is eating carrots thought to be useful for enhancing vision? A) High levels of chlorophyll in carrots helps with photosynthesis in the eyes. B) High levels of beta-carotene can lead to the production of a pigment used in vision. C) High levels of carotenoids in carrots can allow vertebrate eyes to perform the dark
reactions. D) High levels of NADPH in carrots can allow vertebrate eyes to perform the light reactions.
25) Chlorophyll b absorbs green wavelengths of light that chlorophyll a cannot absorb. In this
respect, chlorophyll b acts as A) an accessory pigment. B) an energizer for photosynthetic bacteria. C) a light absorber in the green light. D) a more efficient pigment.
26) The photosystem channels the excitation energy gathered by absorption of light by any one
of the pigment molecules to a specific reaction center chlorophyll, which in turn passes the energy to A) photosystem I. B) photosystem II. C) the primary electron acceptor. D) the secondary electron center. E) cytochrome.
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27) What is common to both photosystems I and II? A) Both involve the splitting of water to donate an electron to the reaction center B) Both involve the generation of oxygen C) Both lose an electron to a primary electron acceptor that passes the electron down an
electron transport chain leading to the generation of ATP D) Both contain a reaction center composed of chlorophyll a E) Both are found in the stroma
28) In the photosystem I reaction center, light energy captured by pigment molecules is passed to
a special reaction center chlorophyll a called A) . B) . C) chlorophyll I. D) chlorophyll II. E) retinal.
29) NADPH is made by A) chemiosmosis. B) glycolysis. C) the Citric acid cycle. D) the Calvin cycle. E) the passing of electrons from photosystem I to an electron transport chain.
30) In green plants, which photosystem absorbs photons to excite electrons in the reaction
center? A) B) C) D) E)
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Photosystem I Photosystem II Photosystem III Photosystem I and II Photosystem I, II and III
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31) <p>In the light-independent reactions, when
is added to a molecule of Ribulose 1,5-
bisphosphate (RuBP) the product is</p> A) citric acid. B) glucose. C) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. D) 3-phosphoglycerate. E) pyruvate.
32) The cyclic carbon fixation reactions are also known as the A) Calvin cycle. B) citric acid cycle. C) tri carboxylic acid cycle.
33) How many molecules of A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6
are needed to generate one molecule of glucose?
34) A plant researcher wants to construct a synthetic cellulose fiber from 20 glucose molecules.
How many molecules of fiber? A) 20, 40 B) 120, 60 C) 120, 40 D) 20, 60 E) 120, 120
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35) In which part of the chloroplasts are the Calvin cycle enzymes located? A) stroma B) thylakoids C) grana D) envelope E) cristae
36) The photosynthetic electron transport causes the accumulation of protons in which part of the
chloroplast? A) matrix B) stroma C) outer membrane D) internal thylakoid space
37) A tomato plant is mutated with gamma radiation. A cellular analysis reveals that ATP
synthase complexes found in the thylakoid membrane are inserted backward into the membrane. What is the most likely outcome of this error? A) A proton gradient will not be established in the thylakoid space in response to the activation of photosystem II B) The proton gradient in the thylakoid space will not be able to be used to generate ATP C) The thylakoid membrane will become permeable to protons as a result of this change D) The ATP synthase will pump protons into the stroma in this orientation E) This change is not likely to have any effect on the function of the ATP synthase enzyme with respect to its role in photosynthesis
38) What products of light reactions of photosynthesis are used in the Calvin cycle? A) oxygen and protons B) carbon dioxide and water C) ATP and NADPH D) ADP and NADP E) glucose and oxygen
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39) If a plant's stomata were always closed, how would this affect the plant's ability to make
glucose? A) There would be no effect on the ability of the plant to make glucose B) Plants would be able to make more sugar than normal C) Plants would make less sugar than normal
40) Since Rubisco can either fix carbon or oxidize RuBP, what condition will be most favorable
for glucose production? A) moderate temperatures B) high temperatures C) dry climate D) high oxygen environment
41) <p>One of the disadvantages of the A) B) C) D) E)
pathway is that it requires</p>
more . more NADPH. more light. more ATP. a much higher temperature.
42) Which type of plant can utilize the Calvin cycle? A) plants B) CAM plants C) D)
plants , , and CAM plants
43) Most atmospheric oxygen comes from photosynthesis. From which of the following
molecules is the oxygen derived? A) water B) carbon dioxide C) glucose D) chlorophyll a E) chlorophyll b
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44) F. F. Blackman performed experiments to investigate the effects of various factors on
photosynthesis. In one of his experiments, Blackman found that if light intensity was low, photosynthesis could be accelerated by increasing the amount of light, but not by increasing the temperature or carbon dioxide concentration. What can you conclude from this specific experiment? A) Light is important for photosynthesis B) Carbon dioxide is important for photosynthesis C) High temperatures are important for photosynthesis D) Photosynthesis generates oxygen
45) If chlorophyll a is blocked from absorbing light, what would be the effect on the ability of
the plant to do photosynthesis? A) The plant will have an enhanced ability to carry out light-dependent reactions B) The plant will have an enhanced ability to carry out light-independent reactions C) The plant will have a decreased ability to carry out light-dependent reactions D) The plant's ability to carry out photosynthesis will be unchanged, as one of the accessory pigments can fill in for chlorophyll a
46) Carotenoids are important to many plants because these pigments are able to A) remove carbon dioxide from the air. B) absorb wavelengths of light that neither chlorophyll a nor b can absorb. C) absorb water so that hydrolysis can be carried out in the chloroplasts. D) capture UV radiation that is harmful to the DNA in the nucleus of plant cells. E) store electrons for use during the "dark" reaction of photosynthesis.
47) Light-dependent reactions generate A) ATP and NADPH. B)
.
C) . D) light. E) glucose.
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48) Fall leaf color on deciduous trees is a result of A) the production of more accessory pigments because of the cooler temperatures. B) the reduction in the production of accessory pigments. C) cessation of chlorophyll production, which allows the accessory pigments to be
revealed. D) the increased angle of the sun during the fall, which reflects more of the accessory pigments.
49) In plants, the light-dependent reactions require A) ATP. B)
.
C) . D) glucose. E) Calvin cycle enzymes.
50) If the Calvin cycle were to be temporarily restricted, the highest concentration of NADPH
would likely be in the A) thylakoid space. B) thylakoid membrane. C) stroma. D) chloroplast outer membrane.
51) The Calvin cycle requires all of the following except A) carbon dioxide. B) oxygen. C) ATP. D) NADPH. E) water.
52) Which color of light chlorophylls absorb has the highest energy? A) green B) violet-blue C) red D) yellow-orange
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53) What color of light is not strongly absorbed by chlorophyll? A) green B) violet-blue C) red D) yellow-orange
54) What are the characteristics of red light, which is absorbed by chlorophylls? A) Its photons have the shortest wavelength in the visual spectrum B) Its photons have the highest energy in the visual spectrum C) Its photons have the longest wavelength in the visual spectrum D) It is not considered a part of the visual spectrum
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55)
Copyright© The Mc-Graw-Hill Companies,Inc, Permission Required for reproduction or display. Based on a variety of experiments, it is known that the rate of photosynthesis is highest when wavelengths of light between 400 and 500 nm are used, and when wavelengths around 700 nm are used. What does this indicate about the relative importance of chlorophyll a and b in photosynthesis? A) Reflection of light by chlorophyll a and b is essential for the process of photosynthesis B) Absorption of light by chlorophyll a and b is essential for the process of photosynthesis C) Transmission of light by chlorophyll a and b is essential for the process of photosynthesis D) Chlorophyll a and b are much less important than other pigments in the reflection, absorption and transmission of light relevant to photosynthesis
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56) You are working on a research project that involves a mutational analysis of the light
harvesting complex Lhca1, which is an important light harvesting complex found in plants. Your labmate asks where this complex is located. You say it is in the A) outer chloroplast membrane B) inner chloroplast membrane C) thylakoid membrane D) stroma E) matrix
57) The role of the antenna complex in a photosystem is to A) transfer excited electrons to the primary electron acceptor. B) generate glucose. C) generate NADPH. D) capture photons from sunlight.
58) Which experimental modification would most effectively help to determine the sequence of
reactions and reaction intermediates in the Calvin cycle? A) <p>Exposing the cells to for various time intervals</p> B) Exposing the cells to alternating periods of light and darkness C) <p>Exposing the cells to radiolabeled instead of D) Varying the amount of water the cells are exposed to
59) As a result of the transition from daytime to nighttime, how will the relative concentrations
of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) and ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP) change in C3 plants? A) The concentrations of G3P and RuBP would remain the same. B) The concentrations of G3P and RuBP would both decrease. C) G3P would increase and RuBP would decrease. D) G3P would decrease and RuBP would increase.
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60) During the light-dependent reactions, due to electron transport, the thylakoid space becomes A) the site of ATP synthesis. B) the site of NADPH production. C) the site where the Calvin cycle occurs D) more acidic than the stroma.
61) The plant hormone abscisic acid (ABA) is involved in the regulation of photorespiration.
Based on this information, ABA likely plays a role in A) the opening and closing of stomata. B) the photoelectric effect. C) cyclic photophosphorylation. D) noncyclic photophosphorylation.
62) <p>If you exposed a
plant to
in the light, which would be the first organic molecule
labeled with ?</p> A) oxaloacetate B) malate C) pyruvate D) phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)
63) CAM and plants likely grow in what type of environment? A) Cool B) Hot and arid C) High altitude D) In water
64) In photosynthesis, ATP is made by A) chemiosmosis. B) glycolysis. C) the Krebs cycle. D) the Calvin cycle. E) the passing of electrons from photosystem I to an electron transport chain.
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65) The ATP generated from cellular respiration is not sufficient to drive the Calvin cycle in
plants, even if appropriate levels of NADPH and CO2 are present. Why not? A) Plants do not undergo cellular respiration B) Breaking down sugar to provide the energy needed to synthesize sugar would be a futile cycle C) The Calvin cycle requires more ATP than can possibly be made from cellular respiration D) Cellular respiration and photosynthesis do not happen in the same cells in plants
66) If the antenna complex did not exist in a particular plant mesophyll cell, what effect would
that have on photosynthesis? A) There would be no expected effect on photosynthesis B) These cells would be unable to absorb any light energy C) These cells would have a reduced capacity to generate glucose D) These cells would be able to fix more carbon dioxide
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 8 1) B 2) C 3) B 4) A 5) D 6) D 7) B 8) B 9) A 10) C 11) B 12) C 13) C 14) D 15) C 16) C 17) D 18) E 19) D 20) C 21) B 22) A 23) C 24) B 25) A 26) C 27) D 28) B 29) E 30) D 31) D 32) A 33) E 34) C 35) A 36) D 37) B
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38) C 39) C 40) A 41) D 42) D 43) A 44) A 45) C 46) B 47) A 48) C 49) C 50) C 51) B 52) B 53) A 54) C 55) B 56) C 57) D 58) A 59) C 60) D 61) A 62) A 63) B 64) A 65) B 66) C
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Chapter 9 Student name:__________ 1) The protein Sonic Hedgehog (SHH) plays a role in specifying the identity of digits (such as
fingers and toes) in mammals. Several digits arise directly from cells that both express and respond to secreted SHH. What type of signaling would this be considered? A) Direct contact B) Paracrine C) Endocrine D) Synaptic E) Autocrine
2) One cell sends second messengers to another cell through gap junctions. What type of
signaling would this be considered? A) Direct contact B) Paracrine C) Endocrine D) Synaptic E) Autocrine
3) In synaptic signaling, neurotransmitters are released into a space that is referred to as a: A) chemical synapse. B) neuron junction. C) paracrine space. D) gap junction. E) plasmodesmata.
4) In response to injury, cell fragments called platelets become activated to induce clotting.
Activated platelets release factors that can then bind to specific membrane receptors on nearby cells. What type of signaling would this be considered? A) Direct contact B) Paracrine C) Endocrine D) Synaptic E) Autocrine
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5) A researcher is working to generate a new cancer drug. Thus far, he has identified a
compound that can reduce the size of tumors in the lung. However, in order for the drug to work, the lung tumor has to be small. In addition, the tumor cannot have metastasized (spread to other areas of the body). Furthermore, he knows that the drug acts to prohibit the signaling from one tumor cell to another tumor cell. Given the above information, this new drug prohibits: A) synaptic signaling between tumor cells. B) autocrine signaling between tumor cells. C) paracrine signaling between tumor cells. D) endocrine signaling between tumor cells.
6) Using a specific chemical, a cell biologist has blocked one type of channel-linked receptor in
a lab rat's liver tissue. What was the likely mechanism of the chemical she used? A) The chemical prohibits binding of a ligand to the receptor. B) The chemical prohibits ions from entering the cell via active transport. C) The chemical causes ions to move in the opposite direction of the ion gradient. D) The chemical prohibits second messenger signaling.
7) Leptin is a circulating hormone that is produced by fat cells and plays a role in body
metabolism and obesity. It normally binds to receptors in the brain and inhibits appetite. Studies have demonstrated that when obese mice that are leptin deficient are injected with leptin they quickly lose their excess weight. Interestingly, many overweight people have high levels of leptin in their bloodstream. Why do you think the high levels of leptin in obese human individuals are insufficient to curb their appetite? A) Paracrine signaling may be disrupted in obese people with high levels of leptin. B) Obese people who have high levels of leptin may have a leptin receptor with
decreased sensitivity. C) The form of leptin released by obese people may lack protein kinase activity. D) In obese people with high levels of leptin, it is a non-functional second messenger.
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8) Vasopressin is a hormone that is primarily released when the body is low on water. Release
of vasopressin causes the kidneys to conserve water by concentrating urine and decreasing urine output. However, vasopressin also has additional functions in other tissues such as the brain and blood vessels, which are not directly involved in urine production. How could it be possible for vasopressin to trigger different responses in different tissues? A) Vasopressin can bind to, and act on, different receptor subtypes, leading to different cellular responses in different tissues. B) Vasopressin can be released at different times to result in different effects. C) Vasopressin binds to the same exact receptor in different tissues, but causes a different conformational change to the receptor in each tissue. D) The kidneys have a receptor for vasopressin, but cells in the brain and blood vessels do not have a receptor for vasopressin.
9) Addison's disease is a disorder that results from a reduction in production of glucocorticoids
and mineralocorticoids. Individuals with Addison's disease suffer from a variety of systemic symptoms including: muscle weakness, fever, issues with the gastrointestinal tract, and increased tanning. Considering this information, what type of signaling do you think glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids stimulate? A) Direct contact B) Paracrine C) Endocrine D) Synaptic E) Autocrine
10) What is the function of a protein kinase? A) To remove phosphate groups from proteins B) To cleave membrane phospholipids C) To phosphorylate GDP to generate GTP D) To add phosphate groups onto proteins
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11) You have identified a novel cytoplasmic protein. Through sequence analysis you are able to
identify the presence of a number of serine/threonine phosphorylation motifs. Based on this data, you hypothesize that this protein may be a substrate for what kind of enzyme? A) A protein kinase B) A receptor tyrosine kinase C) A G protein-coupled receptor D) A tyrosine phosphatase E) A phospholipase
12) You have identified a molecule, molecule X, that can bind to the ATP binding site of a
specific protein kinase, and prevent ATP binding. You are conducting a kinase assay using this protein kinase and a known substrate of this kinase, and have set up the reaction using the proper conditions and cofactors to allow for optimal protein kinase activity. If you add molecule X to the reaction, what do you predict will be the outcome? A) The substrate will be phosphorylated normally in the presence of molecule X. B) Less phosphorylation of the substrate will be seen in the presence of molecule X. C) More phosphorylation of the substrate will be seen in the presence of molecule X.
13) Why are phosphorylation and dephosphorylation reactions commonly used to regulate signal
transduction pathways? A) Phosphate groups are efficient second messengers B) Protein kinases and phosphatases are abundant in most cells C) The hydrolysis of bound GTP generates GDP, which can change the activity of proteins bound to GDP D) The addition or removal of a phosphate group can expose or hide potential binding sites in proteins or change protein activity
14) You are performing an experiment to assay phosphorylation of a substrate by a protein
kinase. Based on the data in the table below, what do these experimental results suggest? 15) These molecules can directly convert extracellular signals into intracellular signals. A) Second messengers B) Scaffolds C) Membrane receptors D) Adapter proteins E) G proteins
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16) When bound to a ligand, this type of receptor changes conformation to allow ions to move
down their concentration gradient across the membrane: A) Channel-linked receptor B) Enzymatic receptor C) G protein-coupled receptor D) Steroid hormone receptor
17) Growth of new blood vessels is stimulated by vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF).
This ligand binds to the VEGF receptor, which leads to the dimerization and autophosphorylation of this receptor on cytoplasmic tyrosines. What type of receptor is the VEGF receptor? A) Channel-linked receptor B) Enzymatic receptor C) G protein-coupled receptor D) Steroid hormone receptor
18) What type of receptor is not an enzyme, but is directly associated with an enzyme that can
hydrolyze GTP? A) Channel-linked receptor B) Enzymatic receptor C) G protein-coupled receptor D) Steroid hormone receptor
19) You are planning to perform some protein-protein interaction studies to identify a receptor
for a steroid hormone you have been working on. You start by fractionating the cell. What cell fraction would you want to work with to identify the steroid hormone receptor of interest? A) The plasma membrane fraction B) The extracellular fraction C) The cytoplasmic fraction D) The mitochondrial fraction E) The ribosomal fraction
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20) What property defines most ligands for intracellular receptors? A) They are lipid-soluble B) They are hydrophilic C) They are molecules that can perform significant hydrogen bonding interactions with
water D) They are large molecules
21) You are interested in developing an inhibitor for the estrogen receptor. You have identified a
molecule that is small and hydrophilic. In a test tube, this inhibitor binds tightly to the estrogen receptor, and inhibits the interaction of the receptor with estrogen. Do you think that this molecule will be an effective inhibitor of the estrogen receptor in cells? A) Yes, because it can prevent estrogen binding. B) Yes, because it is small. C) No, because it is hydrophilic. D) No, because it will need to bind to the DNA-binding domain to act as an inhibitor.
22) Tamoxifen is a drug that is used to treat breast cancer. It inhibits the activities of the estrogen
receptor in breast epithelial cells, which are the cells that are relevant to breast cancer. One of the concerns that scientists had during the development of Tamoxifen as a therapy for breast cancer was that other cell types require estrogen signaling for their function. For example, it is known that cells in bone tissue require estrogen signaling. As a result, there was a concern that use of Tamoxifen would lead to bone loss in patients. In reality, however, researchers were surprised to find that Tamoxifen actually led to an increase in bone density in breast cancer patients. At the same time, Tamoxifen did inhibit the activity of the estrogen receptor in breast epithelial cells in these patients. What is the best explanation for this finding? A) Tamoxifen binds different parts of the estrogen receptor in different tissues. B) The estrogen receptor is bound to different coactivators in different tissues. C) Tamoxifen can only enter certain cell types. D) Bone cells make use of a different type of estrogen receptor that does not bind to Tamoxifen.
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23) A mutation in the DNA-binding domain of a steroid hormone receptor is most likely to affect
what aspect of receptor function? A) The conformational change of the receptor B) The binding of the hormone to the receptor C) The translocation of the receptor to the nucleus D) The cellular response to the hormone
24) You are having lunch with an elderly friend when suddenly he begins to experience chest
pain and tightness. He reaches into his pocket, gets out one of his nitroglycerin tablets and quickly takes it. After the episode passes, your friend asks you how the nitroglycerin helps his angina. You explain that nitroglycerin gets converted by cells to nitric oxide (NO) causing the smooth muscle cells of the blood vessel to relax and increase blood flow to the heart. He pushes you for a more detailed explanation, so you explain further that: A) NO activates guanylyl cyclase, which catalyzes the synthesis of cGMP, which acts as an intracellular messenger in a pathway leading to smooth muscle relaxation. B) NO activates a protein kinase which catalyzes the synthesis of cGMP, which acts as an intracellular messenger in a pathway leading to smooth muscle relaxation. C) NO inhibits guanylyl cyclase, which allows the build up of cGMP, which acts as an intracellular messenger in a pathway leading to smooth muscle relaxation. D) NO activates cGMP, which catalyzes the synthesis of guanylyl cyclase, which acts as an intracellular messenger in a pathway leading to smooth muscle relaxation.
25) What is the mechanism by which binding of testosterone to the testosterone receptor leads to
upregulated gene transcription? A) Binding of testosterone to the testosterone receptor leads to the increase in second messengers that activate a kinase cascade, ultimately leading to the activation of transcription factors that promote gene transcription. B) Binding of testosterone to the testosterone receptor leads to the activation of a G protein that stimulates the activation of enzymes that promote gene transcription. C) Binding of testosterone to the testosterone receptor leads to a conformational change that allows the receptor to enter the nucleus where it can bind to DNA and promote gene transcription. D) Binding of testosterone to the testosterone receptor leads to the opening of an ion channel that leads to an increase in calcium in the cytoplasm. The increased calcium levels activate calmodulin, which can go on to activate other proteins that promote gene transcription.
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26) How are receptor tyrosine kinases and steroid hormone receptors similar? A) Both are activated by autophosphorylation B) Both are transmembrane proteins with a single transmembrane domain C) Both have a DNA-binding domain D) Both have a site for binding ligand
27) Some cancers are caused by the overexpression of receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs). It is
known that RTK signaling pathways commonly stimulate cell division. Why would the overexpression of receptor tyrosine kinases lead to cancer development? A) RTKs are activated by dimerization, caused by ligand binding. If there are too many receptors on the cell surface, it is possible that these receptors dimerize in the absence of ligand binding, thus stimulating cell division at inappropriate times. B) If there are too many RTKs on the cell surface, this will tend to allow cells to adhere to each other. Once they adhere, RTKs from one cell can bind to RTKs from another cell, and they can activate each other leading to activation of downstream signaling pathways in both cells. C) If there are too many RTKs on the cell surface, it is less likely that inhibitors will bind to all of the available RTKs and block their ability to enter the nucleus. As a result, some of the RTKs will be able to enter the nucleus to stimulate transcription. D) If there are too many RTKs on the cell surface, this will promote the inhibition of autophosphorylation. In the absence of autophosphorylation, it is more likely that the RTK downstream signaling pathway will be active.
28) What signaling pathway commonly makes use of a G protein to transduce the signal? A) Channel-linked receptor pathways B) Steroid hormone receptor pathways C) Receptor tyrosine kinase pathways
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29) Your research project involves the characterization of a particular signal transduction
pathway. Specifically, you have been studying a receptor tyrosine kinase and protein X, which initiates downstream events. You are certain that protein X is part of the signal transduction pathway, but have been unable to identify a direct protein-protein interaction between the receptor tyrosine kinase and the protein X. What should you do next in your attempt to identify a link between the receptor tyrosine kinase and protein X? A) Try to identify a coactivator protein. B) Try to identify proteins that act downstream of protein X. C) Try to identify an adapter protein that can interact with both the receptor and protein X. D) Confirm the interaction between the receptor tyrosine kinase and its ligand.
30) The protein SOS is a guanine nucleotide exchange factor for Ras. SOS helps facilitate the
exchange of GDP for GTP. What would be the effect of a mutation that inhibits the interaction between SOS and Ras? A) GTP would remain bound to Ras, thereby keeping Ras constitutively active. B) GDP would remain bound to Ras, thereby preventing Ras activation. C) Ras would be more likely to hydrolyze GTP to GDP. D) There would be no effect.
31) Many receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) pathways lead to the activation of Ras. To activate Ras,
it is necessary to recruit a guanine nucleotide exchange factor to the plasma membrane, because Ras is a membrane associated protein. Guanine nucleotide exchange factors, such as SOS, stimulate the exchange of GDP for GTP. However, SOS cannot bind directly to most RTKs. The protein Grb2 has a domain that can bind to phosphorylated tyrosines, and another domain that can bind to SOS. Therefore, Grb2 can bind to active RTKs and recruit SOS to the plasma membrane. Grb2 is an example of what kind of signaling molecule? A) Scaffold B) Adapter protein C) Second messenger D) Enzyme
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32) Ste5 binds to MAPKKK, MAPKK, and MAPK to organize the kinase cascade. What type of
signaling molecule is Ste5? A) Scaffold B) Adapter protein C) Second messenger D) Enzyme
33) Many receptor tyrosine kinase pathways have MAPK as a downstream signaling component.
MAPK can phosphorylate target proteins. What type of signaling molecule is MAPK? A) Scaffold B) Adapter protein C) Second messenger D) Enzyme
34) A small number of cell surface receptors can ultimately generate a large intracellular
response due to activation of kinase cascades. This is referred to as: A) signal amplification. B) signal transduction. C) signal dampening. D) signal activation.
35) What enzyme phosphorylates MAP kinase kinase? A) MAP kinase B) MAP kinase kinase C) MAP kinase kinase kinase D) MAP phosphatase
36) The cell surface receptors that can act only indirectly on plasma membrane-bound enzymes
or ion channels are called: A) G protein-coupled receptors. B) gated ion channels. C) enzymatic receptors. D) second messenger receptors.
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37) G protein-coupled receptors are the largest family of cell surface receptors. Each receptor
passes through the plasma membrane how many times? A) Once B) Three times C) Five times D) Seven times
38) In the nitric oxide signaling pathway, nitric oxide activates an enzyme that can convert many
molecules of GTP into molecules of cGMP. cGMP is a small molecule that can diffuse through the cytoplasm and bind to an enzyme called protein kinase G (PKG). Binding of cGMP to PKG leads to a change in the confirmation of PKG that leads to its activation. What type of signaling molecule is cGMP? A) Scaffold B) Adapter protein C) Second messenger D) Enzyme
39) Some enzymatic receptors and most G protein-coupled receptors transmit the signal into the
cytoplasm by utilizing other substances within the cytoplasm that are referred to as: A) genes. B) intracellular receptors. C) second messengers. D) first messengers.
40) A mutation that affects
binding to calmodulin is most likely to interfere with what aspect of a signal transduction pathway? A) The flow of ions through ion channel receptors B) The cellular response to the second messenger C) The MAP kinase cascade D) G protein activity
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41) If the effector protein phospholipase C failed to cleave phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate
(
), the action of what enzyme would be affected? A) cAMP B) C) protein kinase A (PKA) D) protein kinase C (PKC)
42) What is similar about G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) and receptor tyrosine kinases
(RTKs)? A) Both are directly bound to G proteins B) Both can activate phospholipase C C) Both are enzymes D) Both are activated by autophosphorylation
43) The function of adenylyl cyclase is to: A) catalyze the conversion of ATP to cAMP. B) cleave into DAG and . C) directly activate protein kinase A (PKA). D) stimulate the release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum.
44) What is the difference between Ras and the G proteins bound to G protein coupled receptors
(GPCRs)? A) Ras is an enzyme and the G proteins bound to GPCRs are not enzymes. B) Ras is a second messenger and the G proteins bound to GPCRs are not second messengers. C) Ras is a small G protein and the G proteins bound to GPCRs are not small G proteins. D) Ras can activate different effector molecules and the G proteins bound to GPCRs cannot activate different effector molecules.
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45) What second messenger is directly involved in activating protein kinase C (PKC)? A) DAG B) cAMP C) cGMP D) Phospholipase C E) G protein
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 9 1) E 2) A 3) A 4) B 5) C 6) A 7) B 8) A 9) C 10) D 11) A 12) B 13) D 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) C 20) A 21) C 22) B 23) D 24) A 25) C 26) D 27) A 28) C 29) C 30) B 31) B 32) A 33) D 34) A 35) C 36) A 37) D
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38) C 39) C 40) B 41) D 42) B 43) A 44) C 45) A
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Chapter 10 Student name:__________ 1) In bacterial cell division, the cell divides into two nearly equal halves. This process is
referred to as: A) binary fission B) mitosis C) fusion D) meiosis E) cytokinesis
2) How does the organization of the bacterial genome differ from the organization of the
eukaryotic genome? A) The compaction of the eukaryotic genome involves structural maintenance of chromosome (SMC) proteins, and the compaction of the bacterial genome does not. B) Most bacterial chromosomes are circular and the eukaryotic chromosomes contained in the nucleus are not. C) Bacterial chromosomes are made up of RNA and eukaryotic chromosomes are made up of DNA. D) The eukaryotic genome is found in chromosomes and there are no chromosomes in bacterial cells. E) Eukaryotic chromosomes have to be tightly packed to fit into the nucleus, and bacterial chromosomes do not require tight packing to fit into the cell.
3) The division of a bacterial cell occurs as the: A) cell wall develops cracks around the equator of the cell. B) chromosomes are pulled toward the ends of the cell. C) actin and microtubules constrict the cytoplasm. D) new membrane and cell wall materials begin to grow and form a septum.
4) If a cell contained a mutation in the gene that encodes FtsZ, which process would be
affected? A) Septation B) Cytokinesis C) Prophase D) DNA Synthesis E) Cohesin cleavage
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5) Fitting the very long DNA strands from a chromosome into the limited space of the nucleus
is achieved by coiling the DNA around beads of histones with repeating subunits. These DNA-wrapped histones are called: A) Solenoids B) Nucleosomes C) Chromatin loops D) Rosettes
6) The point of constriction on chromosomes that contains certain repeated DNA sequences that
bind specific proteins is called: A) The kinetochore B) The centromere C) The cohesin complex D) The centriole E) The centrosome
7) Eukaryotic chromosome complexes are composed of 60% protein and 40% DNA. This
complex is referred to as: A) The histone complex B) Chromatin C) The kinetochore D) Cohesin
8) The number of chromosomes in diploid eukaryotic cells: A) is 46. B) can be predicted by the size of the organism. C) changes as each organism grows and ages. D) varies considerably from 2 to over 1000 in different species.
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9) A person whose cells all contain chromosomes with a number '2n+1' are most likely to have
what type of condition? A) Monosomy B) Trisomy C) Cancer D) Obesity E) None, this is the normal chromosome number for humans.
10) In later chapters, you will learn more about the regulation of gene expression. One way a cell
can regulate gene expression is to alter how tightly the DNA is condensed into TADs and compartments. The more tightly condensed a particular region of DNA is, the less likely genes in that region will be expressed. Bearing this in mind, how condensed do you think regions of heterochromatin are? A) Very tightly B) Moderately C) Loosely D) Not at all
11) A scientist wants to study histones. Histones are: A) proteins that double-stranded DNA molecules wrap around in eukaryotes. B) proteins that double-stranded DNA molecules wrap around in prokaryotes and
eukaryotes. C) proteins that regulate checkpoints in the mitotic cell cycle. D) proteins that serve as the spindle fiber to pull sister chromatids apart during anaphase. E) proteins that required for the activity of Cdk enzymes.
12) The two copies of each type of chromosome found in normal somatic (body) cells in an
organism, throughout the cell cycle, are called: A) Sister chromatids B) Homologous chromosomes C) Daughter chromosomes D) Kinetochores
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13) Before cell division of somatic cells, each chromosome must be replicated. After replication,
the resulting two parts of each chromosome are held together by cohesin at the centromere. These two parts are referred to as: A) Sister chromatids B) Homologous chromosomes C) Daughter chromosomes D) Kinetochores E) Genes
14) These structures are held together by cohesin: A) Nucleosomes B) Sister chromatids C) Homologous chromosomes D) Solenoids
15) A cell biologist produces a karyotype of mouse somatic cells arrested in mitosis. She sees 40
chromosomes, which is completely normal for mice. Based on this information, what is the haploid number of chromosomes for mice? A) 10 B) 20 C) 40 D) 80 E) It cannot be determined from the information provided.
16) If there are 32 sister chromatids in a normal somatic cell, what is the haploid number for that
cell? A) B) C) D)
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17) If there are 32 sister chromatids in a normal somatic cell, how many chromosomes are there? A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) 64
18) A somatic cell from a garden pea plant normally contains 14 chromosomes. How many sister
chromatids would that cell contain during G1 of the cell cycle? A) 0 B) 7 C) 14 D) 28
19) A somatic cell from a corn plant normally contains 20 chromosomes. How many sister
chromatids would that cell contain during G2 of the cell cycle? A) 0 B) 10 C) 20 D) 40
20) What is the sequence of events in a typical eukaryotic cell cycle? A) G1 to G2 to S to mitosis to cytokinesis B) G1 to S to G2 to mitosis to cytokinesis C) G1 to S to G2 to cytokinesis to mitosis D) G1 to G2 to mitosis to S to cytokinesis E) S to G1 to G2 to mitosis to cytokinesis
21) The portion of the cell cycle when the cell is growing and does not contain a replicated
genome is referred to as: A) B) S C) D) Mitosis E) Cytokinesis
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22) The stage of the cell cycle during which the cytoplasm divides to form two cells is called: A) B) S C) D) Mitosis E) Cytokinesis
23) This stage of the cell cycle is characterized by growth and it contains a checkpoint to verify
that all of the DNA has been replicated prior to mitosis. A) B) S C) D) Mitosis E) Cytokinesis
24) A duplicate copy of all of the hereditary information contained in the nucleus of eukaryotic
cells is made during what stage of the cell cycle? A) B) S C) D) Mitosis E) Cytokinesis
25) The physical distribution of cytoplasmic material into the two daughter cells in plant cells is
referred to as: A) The gap phase B) Cytokinesis C) Binary fission D) Interphase
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26) If a cell has 32 chromosomes prior to S and undergoes mitosis followed by cytokinesis, each
new daughter cell will have how many chromosomes? A) 64 B) 32 C) 16 D) 8
27) Embryonic cell cycles allow the rapid division of cells in the early embryo. These cell cycles
are much shorter in length than the cell cycles of cells in a mature organism. In embryonic cell cycles, mitosis takes approximately the same amount of time as it does in the cell cycles of mature cells. Considering that the timing of the embryonic cell cycle is shorter but the portion of the cell cycle that involves mitosis is the same as in a mature cell, which of the following would be a result of the embryonic cycle? A) Resulting daughter cells are smaller than the parent cell in the embryonic cell cycles. B) Resulting daughter cells do not contain the same genetic information as the parent cell in the embryonic cell cycles. C) Resulting daughter cells cannot form a mitotic spindle in the embryonic cell cycle. D) The parent cell of the embryonic cell cycle spends the majority of its time in G0.
28) In what portion of the cell cycle do the chromosomes appear invisible under a light
microscope because they are not yet condensed? A) Interphase B) Prophase C) Metaphase D) Anaphase E) Telophase
29) Interphase is made up of what stages of the cell cycle? A) B) S + cytokinesis C) prophase + metaphase + anaphase + telophase D) cytokinesis + mitosis E)
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30) During what stages of the cell cycle are sister chromatids bound together by cohesin? A)
, S,
B) S, C)
,S D) S, , prophase, metaphase E) S, , prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
31) Following S phase, a human cell would have how many pairs of sister chromatids and
individual DNA molecules? A) 23 pairs of sister chromatids and 46 individual DNA molecules B) 23 pairs of sister chromatids and 92 individual DNA molecules C) 46 pairs of sister chromatids and 46 individual DNA molecules D) 46 pairs of sister chromatids and 92 individual DNA molecules E) 46 pairs of sister chromatids and 184 individual DNA molecules
32) If a chromosome contains a mutation such that it cannot bind to the kinetochore complex,
what would be the consequence? A) That chromosome would not be able to be replicated. B) That chromosome would not be able to condense. C) That chromosome would not be able to bind to the mitotic spindle. D) That chromosome would not be able to interact with histone proteins.
33) Consider the cell cycle of a human cell. During G2, what is the state of the homologous
chromosomes? A) The homologous chromosomes are lined up on the equator of the cell. B) The homologous chromosomes have all been copied through DNA replication and are beginning to condense. C) The homologous chromosomes have been pulled to their respective poles by the spindle apparatus. D) The homologous chromosomes have not been replicated yet. E) The homologous chromosomes are now in the haploid or n condition.
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34) This is the stage of mitosis characterized by the alignment of the chromosomes in a ring
along the inner circumference of the cell: A) Interphase B) Telophase C) Prophase D) Metaphase
35) The stage of mitosis characterized by the physical separation of sister chromatids is called: A) Anaphase B) Metaphase C) Prometaphase D) Telophase
36) This stage of mitosis is characterized by the disassembly of spindle apparatus, the
reestablishment of the nuclear membrane, and the decondensation of the chromosomes: A) Prometaphase B) Telophase C) Anaphase D) Metaphase
37) During this stage of mitosis, the nuclear envelope begins to break down and the spindle
begins to form. A) Anaphase B) Metaphase C) Prophase D) Telophase E) Prometaphase
38) During this stage of mitosis, the chromosomes become attached to the spindle at their
kinetochores. A) Prophase B) Prometaphase C) Metaphase D) Anaphase E) Telophase
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39) What happens during Anaphase B? A) Kinetochores are pulled toward the poles. B) The spindle poles move apart. C) The spindle apparatus disassembles. D) The nuclear envelope reforms. E) The APC/C gets activated for the first time.
40) You are conducting a genetic screen using Caenorhabditis elegans embryos to isolate
mutations affecting anaphase (A). Therefore, you need to look for embryos in which A) the centromeres do not move toward the poles. B) the poles do not move apart. C) the spindle apparatus does not disassemble. D) sister chromatids are mismatched and therefore fail to separate.
41) What stage of mitosis is essentially the reverse of prophase? A) Anaphase B) Prometaphase C) Metaphase D) Telophase E) Cytokinesis
42) The drug Taxol, or Paclitaxel, is used to treat patients with a variety of cancers, including
breast, lung and ovarian cancers. The drug works by stabilizing microtubules, and preventing their disassembly. The goal of this drug is to prevent dividing cells from completing mitosis. As a result, cancerous cells can no longer divide. In a cell treated with Taxol, at what stage of mitosis will the cells arrest? A) Prior to metaphase B) Anaphase C) Telophase D) Cytokinesis
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43) Why is it so important that all of the chromosomes align on the metaphase plate during
metaphase? A) This is the only place in the cell where the cyclins and Cdks are located. B) If they cannot, it suggests that they aren't properly attached to the spindle microtubules, and thus won't separate properly during anaphase. C) This is the location where the chromosomes can become attached to the spindle microtubules. D) This allows asters to form. E) This allows sister chromatids to form.
44) If a cell was capable of bypassing metaphase and going directly from prometaphase to
anaphase, what is the most likely consequence of this? A) The resulting daughter cells would not have a nuclear envelope. B) The resulting daughter cells would have significantly different quantities of cytoplasmic materials. C) The resulting daughter cells would have different numbers of chromosomes. D) The resulting daughter cells would be completely normal.
45) Animal cells typically achieve cytokinesis by: A) binary fission. B) forming a cell plate across the middle of the cell. C) forming a cleavage furrow that pinches the cell into two. D) chromosome condensation. E) chromosome elongation.
46) Plant cells typically achieve cytokinesis by: A) binary fission. B) forming a cell plate across the middle of the cell. C) forming a cleavage furrow that pinches the cell into two. D) chromosome condensation. E) chromosome elongation.
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47) If a drug that inhibited transport from the trans face of the Golgi was applied to plant cells,
which stage of the cell cycle would be directly affected? A) B) C) D) E)
S Metaphase Anaphase Cytokinesis
48) The progress of the eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated primarily by what proteins? A) Cyclins B) Histone proteins C) Condensins D) FtsZ
49) At what checkpoint(s) does the cell arrest in response to DNA damage? A) B) C) spindle D)
and
E)
and spindle
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50) You are examining the effect of maturation-promoting factor (MPF) in sea urchin cells,
which have a diploid number of 36. If you fuse a dividing sea urchin cell with a arrested oocyte, what would be the outcome? A) The cell would enter mitosis, but would likely arrest at the spindle checkpoint because the chromosomes have not been properly replicated. B) The cell would enter mitosis, but would likely arrest at the spindle checkpoint because the chromosomes have not been properly replicated. C) The cell would undergo mitosis and its daughter cells would each have 36 chromosomes. D) The cell would undergo mitosis and its daughter cells would each have 36 chromosomes. E) The cell would undergo mitosis and its daughter cells would each have 18 chromosomes. F) The cell would undergo mitosis and its daughter cells would each have 18 chromosomes. G) The cell would first go through S phase and then mitosis. Its daughter cells would have 36 chromosomes. H) The cell would first go through S phase and then mitosis. Its daughter cells would have 36 chromosomes.
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51) <p>What time point represents
?
</p> A) B) C) D)
1 2 3 4
52) You are studying cell cycle progression in yeast cells. If you could prevent cdc2 from
associating with the mitotic cyclin, the cells would: A) arrest in . B) arrest in . C) arrest in S. D) arrest in prometaphase. E) arrest in metaphase.
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53) You are studying cell cycle progression in an early frog embryo. If you were to inject a
protein synthesis inhibitor into this cell during S phase, where do you predict the cell would arrest? A) B) C) Metaphase D) Telophase
54) In G2, there are typically high levels of the mitotic cyclin. Why is cdc2 not active during
if
the mitotic cyclin is present? A) Cdc2 is also regulated by phosphorylation. B) Cdc2 does not bind to the mitotic cyclin. C) Cdc2 requires ubiquitination to be activated. D) Cdc2 also has to bind to cohesin to be activated.
55) What is separase? A) A protein that marks a protein called securin for destruction. B) A protein that is part of the cohesin complex. C) A protein that destroys cohesin through its protease activity. D) A protein that targets the mitotic cyclin for degradation.
56) What is one of the roles of the APC/C during anaphase? A) To directly target the mitotic cyclins for destruction. B) To directly target cohesin for destruction. C) To directly target separase for destruction. D) To directly target microtubules for destruction.
57) What would you expect to happen if the anaphase-promoting complex/cyclosome (APC/C)
failed to ubiquitinate securin? A) The cohesin complex will be destroyed, and the cell will remain in metaphase. B) The cohesin complex will persist, preventing the cell from entering anaphase. C) Separase will be marked for degradation by securin, preventing the cell from entering anaphase. D) Securin will remain intact and therefore will degrade cohesin, allowing the cell to enter anaphase.
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58) If you were to think of the cell as a car, and mitosis as a process that drives that car to go,
what would be a good analogy for a cell that has a mutation in both copies of a tumorsuppressor gene? A) The gas pedal of a car gets stuck while pushed down. B) The gas pedal of a car does not work at all. C) The brake pedal of a car gets stuck while pushed down. D) The brake pedal of a car does not work at all.
59) You are leading a team of researchers at a pharmaceutical company. Your goal is to design
drugs that help fight cancer. Specifically, you want to focus on drugs that bind to and inactivate certain proteins, thereby halting cell cycle progression. One of your team members suggests targeting the retinoblastoma (Rb) protein and inhibiting this protein. Will this approach be successful? Why or why not? A) This approach will not be successful. Rb is tumor-suppressor protein, and functions to inhibit the action of a number of cell cycle regulatory proteins. A drug designed to inactivate the Rb protein would essentially create the same situation as in a cell that lacks both copies of the Rb gene. Lack of Rb activity would release the inhibition of cell cycle regulatory proteins, thereby promoting cell cycle progression, rather than halting it. B) This approach will be successful. Rb is an oncogene, and functions to activate a number of cell cycle regulatory proteins. A drug designed to inactivate the Rb protein would halt the cell cycle in cells that contain an active Rb. As a result, cancer cells expressing a constitutively active Rb protein would be good targets for this type of therapeutic. C) This approach will be successful. Rb is tumor-suppressor protein, and functions to inhibit the action of a number of cell cycle regulatory proteins. A drug designed to inactivate the Rb protein would activate cell cycle inhibition. Lack of Rb activity would therefore inhibit the cell cycle regulatory proteins. D) This approach will not be successful. Rb is an oncogene, and functions to activate a number of cell cycle regulatory proteins. A drug designed to inactivate the Rb protein would actually activate cell cycle progression. As a result, this drug would likely make this situation worse for patients whose cancer cells contain mutant Rb.
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60) This protein or protein complex functions in the cell to stop cell division if the cell has
experienced extensive DNA damage: A) APC/C B) p53 C) FtsZ D) Condensin
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 10 1) A 2) B 3) D 4) A 5) B 6) B 7) B 8) D 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) B 15) B 16) A 17) B 18) A 19) D 20) B 21) A 22) E 23) C 24) B 25) B 26) B 27) A 28) A 29) A 30) D 31) D 32) C 33) B 34) D 35) A 36) B 37) C
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38) B 39) B 40) A 41) D 42) A 43) B 44) C 45) C 46) B 47) E 48) A 49) D 50) ABAB 51) C 52) B 53) B 54) A 55) C 56) A 57) B 58) D 59) A 60) B
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Chapter 11 Student name:__________ 1) Edouard van Beneden proposed that an egg and a sperm, each containing half the
complement of chromosomes found in somatic cells, fuse to produce a single cell called a(n)_________. A) zygote B) karyotype C) embryo D) oocyte
2) _________ is a process of nuclear division that reduces the number of chromosomes per cell
from 2 sets to 1 set. A) Mitosis B) Meiosis C) Binary fission D) Syngamy
3) _________ cells contain one set of chromosomes. A) Germ-line B) Somatic C) Diploid D) Haploid
4) In life cycles that alternate between haploid and diploid stages, fertilization doubles the
number of chromosomes per cell while_________ reduces it in half. A) mitosis B) meiosis C) binary fission D) syngamy
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5) Homologous chromosomes pair along their length during prophase I of meiosis. While two
homologues are paired, genetic exchange may occur between them in a process called_________ . A) syngamy B) synapsis C) independent assortment D) crossing over
6) Compared to asexual reproduction, the main advantage of sexual reproduction is that it A) requires less energy. B) increases the genetic diversity of the offspring. C) can produce more complex offspring. D) can produce a greater number of offspring.
7) If there were no suppression of DNA replication between meiotic divisions and cytokinesis
proceeded normally, what is the most likely outcome of meiosis? A) 4 diploid cells B) 2 diploid cells C) 4 haploid cells D) 2 haploid cells E) 2 diploid cells and 2 haploid cells
8) Evidence of crossing over can often be seen under the light microscope as a structure called
a_________ . A) kinetochore B) centromere C) chiasma D) centriole
9) The fusion of a male gamete with a female gamete is called A) syngamy. B) meiosis. C) mitosis. D) recombination. E) synapsis.
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10) Diploid organisms use meiosis to produce haploid cells. Meiosis consists of how many
rounds of nuclear division? A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four E) None of these
11) The pairing of chromosomes along their lengths, which is essential for crossing over, is
referred to as A) syngamy. B) synapsis. C) prophase. D) recombination. E) centromere.
12) The cell produced by the fusion of an egg and a sperm is the A) gamete. B) oocyte. C) zygote. D) germ line cell. E) somatic cell.
13) The zygote has A) one copy of each chromosome. B) one full haploid complement of chromosomes. C) chromosomes identical to those of a sperm cell. D) chromosomes identical to those of an egg cell. E) two copies of each chromosome.
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14) All animal cells are diploid except A) gametes. B) muscle cells. C) nerve cells. D) germ-line cells. E) somatic cells.
15) The point of connection between two sister chromatids, before anaphase II of meiosis
separates them, is called the A) centriole. B) kinetochore. C) centromere. D) spindle apparatus. E) centrosome.
16) Which of the following produces new cells that are genetically identical to the original cell? A) Meiosis B) Mitosis C) Crossing over D) Independent assortment E) Fertilization
17) In animals, the cells that will eventually undergo meiosis to produce gametes are set aside
early in development. These are called A) somatic cells. B) germ-line cells. C) sex cells. D) gametophytes. E) reproductive cells.
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18) Which of the following events occurs first during meiosis? A) Homologous chromosomes separate and are pulled to opposite poles of the cell B) Sister chromatids separate and are pulled to opposite poles of the cell C) Chromosomes decondense D) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes E) Pairs of homologous chromosomes align along the equatorial plate
19) Chromosomes exchange genetic information by A) fertilization. B) mitosis. C) syngamy. D) DNA replication. E) crossing over.
20) Crossing over between homologous chromosomes takes place during A) prophase II. B) prophase I. C) interphase II. D) interphase I. E) metaphase II.
21) The synaptonemal complex is A) a cluster of microtubules at each pole of the cell. B) a network of microtubules that forms the spindle apparatus. C) a network of proteins that holds homologues together. D) the area where microtubules attach to the centromere of each chromosome. E) a region of highly coiled DNA.
22) At the end of meiosis II, each of the four resulting cells contains A) one full set of chromosomes, each with 2 molecules of DNA. B) two full sets of chromosomes, each with 2 molecules of DNA. C) one full set of chromosomes, each with 1 molecule of DNA. D) two full sets of chromosomes, each with 1 molecule of DNA.
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23) Which best describes the process of independent assortment? A) The way one pair of homologues lines up along the metaphase plate does not affect
how any other pair lines up. B) Segregation of chromosomes during meiosis I is independent of their segregation during meiosis II. C) During synapsis, chromosomes pair up at random. D) Crossing over along one pair of chromosomes is independent of crossing over along the other pairs. E) During synapsis, homologues pair independently of each other.
24) In plants and animals, the zygote develops by which of the following processes? A) Mitosis B) Meiosis C) Syngamy D) Synapsis E) Reduction division
25) The pairing of homologous chromosomes is called A) syngamy. B) synapsis. C) alignment. D) independent assortment. E) crossing over.
26) Which best explains a component of meiosis? A) The cells that result from meiosis I are haploid, and each chromosome consists of 1
chromatid. B) The cells that result from meiosis I are haploid, and each chromosome consists of 2 chromatids. C) The cells that result from meiosis II are haploid, and each chromosome consists of 2 chromatids. D) The cells that result from meiosis I are diploid, and each chromosome consists of 2 chromatids. E) The cells that result from meiosis I are diploid, and each chromosome consists of 1 chromatid.
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27) During meiosis, sister chromatids are held together by A) a common centromere and kinetochore microtubules. B) a common centromere and chiasmata. C) a common centromere and polar microtubules. D) a common centromere and a protein called cohesion. E) the kinetochores and a protein called cohesion.
28) What immediately follows meiosis I? A) DNA replication B) Prophase II C) Metaphase II D) Synapsis of homologues E) Crossing over of homologues
29) All of the following increase genetic variation EXCEPT A) crossing over. B) random fertilization. C) independent assortment. D) mitosis. E) mutation.
30) The term for one of a pair of chromosomes with similar genetic information and from
different sources like the sperm and egg is_________. A) chiasma B) homologue C) kinetochore D) synapsis E) synaptonemal
31) Which structures indicate where crossing over has occurred? A) Chiasmata B) Centromeres C) Kinetochores D) Centrioles E) Spindle fibers
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32) Which structure holds two homologous chromosomes together? A) Centromere B) Kinetochore C) Polar microtubules D) Spindle apparatus E) Synaptonemal complex
33) During anaphase I, which best represents segregation of the chromatids that make up one pair
of homologues? (M represents a maternal chromatid and P represents a paternal chromatid. Assume no crossing over occurs.) A) M and M to one pole; P and P to the other pole. B) M and P to one pole; M and P to the other pole. C) M to one pole; P to the other pole. D) half of M and half of P to each pole. E) the segregation of these chromatids is completely random.
34) You are studying meiosis in an organism where 2n = 24. How many chromosomes will each
nucleus have after meiosis II is complete? A) 24 B) 12 C) 6 D) 48
35) You are studying meiosis in an organism where 2n = 28. How many chromosomes will be
present in each cell after meiosis I is complete but before meiosis II begins? A) 7 B) 14 C) 28 D) 56
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36) You are comparing the events of meiosis I in cells from several different organisms. You
come across one species in which you do not observe any chiasmata. The best conclusion to make is A) there is no crossing over between non sister chromatids. B) kinetochores of sister chromatids do not fuse. C) the chromosome pairs will not assort independently. D) chiasmata will form during meiosis II.
37) Which statement about the reductive division of meiosis is false? A) During the reductive division, homologues migrate to opposite poles of the cell. B) During the reductive division, sister chromatids migrate to opposite poles of the cell. C) During the reductive division, centromeres do not divide. D) At the end of the reductive division, each daughter nucleus has one-half as many
centromeres as the parental nucleus.
38) The Rec8 protein holds sister chromatids together during meiosis. If an individual has a
mutation that prevents degradation of Rec8, this would most likely prevent A) normal segregation during meiosis I. B) normal segregation during meiosis II. C) synapsis of homologous chromosomes. D) crossing over during prophase I.
39) Which of the following is likely to occur if you were to prevent cyclin B from associating
with its cyclin-dependent kinase near the end of meiosis I? A) Failure to maintain sister chromatid cohesion at the centromere B) Failure to form initiation complexes necessary for DNA replication to proceed C) Suppression of DNA replication D) Activation of DNA replication
40) Which of the following statements about crossing over is false? A) Crossing over takes place between homologous chromosomes. B) Crossing over takes place between sister chromatids. C) Crossing over occurs during prophase I. D) Sites of crossing over are called chiasmata. E) Crossing over is also called genetic recombination.
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41) In 95% of cases of Down's syndrome, there is one extra chromosome (number 21) in every
cell. This aneuploid condition is most likely the result of A) failure to suppress DNA replication between meiosis I and meiosis II. B) failure of the chromosomes to assort independently during meiosis. C) failure of 1 homologous pair to segregate during meiosis. D) failure of 2 homologous pairs to segregate during meiosis. E) failure of the cytoplasm to divide at the end of meiosis II.
42) Why does sexual reproduction require both meiosis and syngamy? A) The process of meiosis results in the production of gametes in which the number of
chromosomes remains the same. During syngamy, two gametes fuse to form a new cell, and after crossing-over only the chromosomes from one gamete persist. Therefore, by coupling meiosis and syngamy, the organism ensures that the proper number of chromosomes will be maintained. B) The process of meiosis results in the production of gametes in which the number of chromosomes is reduced by half. During syngamy, two gametes fuse to form a new cell, and the number of chromosomes is restored to the full amount. Therefore, by coupling meiosis and syngamy, the organism ensures that the proper number of chromosomes will be maintained. C) The process of meiosis results in the production of gametes in which the number of chromosomes is doubled. During syngamy, gametes are reduced by half, and the number of chromosomes is restored to the full amount. Therefore, by coupling meiosis and syngamy, the organism ensures that the proper number of chromosomes will be maintained.
43) Which cells never divide by meiosis? A) Haploid cells B) Diploid cells C) Somatic cells D) Germ-line cells E) Zygotes
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44) A cell biologist examines a skin cell from a lizard during metaphase of mitosis and
determines that 20chromatids are present. The role of meiosis in this species is to A) Produce 4 daughter cells that are genetically different from each other. B) Produce 4 daughter cells that are genetically different from the original parental cell. C) Reduce the number of chromosomes per cell from 10 to 5. D) Reduce the number of chromosomes per cell from 20 to 10.
45) A cell biologist examines a leaf cell from an alfalfa plant during metaphase of mitosis and
determines that 32chromatids are present. The role of fertilization in this species is to A) produce a new cell that has a combination of chromosomes from 2 different parents. B) increase the number of chromosomes per cell from 16 to 32. C) increase the number of chromosomes per cell from 8 to 16. D) combine the chromosomes from 2 haploid cells into a single diploid cell.
46) The most common form of gene therapy involves inserting a normal gene into cells that
contain a defective version of the gene. In order to use gene therapy to prevent a man from passing a defective gene on to future generations, you should try to insert normal copies of the gene into A) blood cells. B) germ-line cells. C) somatic cells in the testes. D) bone marrow cells.
47) If a germ-line cell from an owl contains 8 picograms of DNA during
of interphase, how many picograms of DNA would be present in each cell during prophase I of meiosis? (Enter the number only, not the units)
48) If a somatic cell from a cat contains 40 picograms of DNA during
of interphase, how many picograms of DNA would be present in each cell during metaphase II of meiosis? (Enter the number only, not the units)
49) If a germ-line cell from a salamander contains 10 picograms of DNA during
of interphase, how many picograms of DNA would be present in each gamete produced by this species? (Enter the number only, not the units)
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50) How many tetrads are present in a single elephant cell (2n = 56) during metaphase I of
meiosis?
51) A geneticist examines a somatic cell from a fly during metaphase of mitosis and determines
that 16 chromatids are present. If a germ-line cell from this species divides by meiosis, then at the end of meiosis I (including the first cytokinesis) each cell will contain A) 8 chromosomes with 8 DNA molecules. B) 8 chromosomes with 16 DNA molecules. C) 4 chromosomes with 4 DNA molecules. D) 4 chromosomes with 8 DNA molecules.
52) Non-disjunction is the failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis I, or
the failure of sister chromatids to separate during meiosis II or mitosis. As a result, both homologous chromosomes or both sister chromatids migrate to the same pole of the cell. This produces daughter cells with an imbalance of chromosomes. A cell biologist examines the final products of meiosis in an earthworm (2n=36) and finds 2 cells with 20 chromosomes, and 2 cells with 16 chromosomes. Most likely this was because A) 2 pairs of sister chromatids failed to separate during meiosis II. B) 1 pair of sister chromatids failed to separate during meiosis II. C) 2 pairs of homologous chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis I. D) 1 pair of homologous chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis I.
53) Non-disjunction is the failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis I, or
the failure of sister chromatids to separate during meiosis II or mitosis. As a result, both homologous chromosomes or both sister chromatids migrate to the same pole of the cell. This produces daughter cells with an imbalance of chromosomes. If 18 pairs of sister chromatids segregate normally during meiosis II in cats (n=19) but we have non-disjunction of 1 pair, then at the end of meiosis II we will have A) 3 cells with 20 chromosomes and 1 cell with 18. B) 2 cells with 20 chromosomes and 2 cells with 18. C) 2 cells with 19 chromosomes, 1 with 20, and 1 with 18. D) 3 cells with 18 chromosomes and 1 cell with 20.
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54) A cell biologist examines a diploid cell from a particular species of Rhagoletis during
metaphase of mitosis and determines that 8 centromeres are present. Based on this finding, how many centromeres should be present in a single cell from this species during anaphase II of meiosis?
55) A cell biologist examines a diploid cell from a particular species of butterfly during
prometaphase of mitosis and determines that 10 centromeres are present. Based on this finding, how many chromatids should be present in a single cell from this species in metaphase I of meiosis?
56) Meiosis results in a reassortment of maternal chromosomes (inherited from the mother) and
paternal chromosomes (inherited from the father). If n=4 for a given species, and ignoring the effects of crossing over, what is the probability that a gamete will receive only paternal chromosomes? A) 1/2 B) 1/4 C) 1/8 D) 1/16
57) A cell in G2 before meiosis begins, compared with one of the four cells produced at the end
of meiosis II, has A) twice as much DNA and twice as many chromosomes. B) four times as much DNA and twice as many chromosomes. C) twice as much DNA but the same number of chromosomes. D) four times as much DNA and four times as many chromosomes. E) twice as much DNA and half as many chromosomes.
58) In meiosis, sister kinetochores are attached to the same pole of the cell during meiosis I, and
sister chromatid cohesion is released during anaphase II. What would be the likely result if sister kinetochores were attached to different poles of the cell during meiosis I and sister chromatid cohesion was released during anaphase I? A) Sister chromatids would migrate to opposite poles during anaphase I. B) Sister chromatids would migrate to opposite poles during anaphase II. C) Sister chromatids would migrate to the same pole during anaphase I. D) Sister chromatids would migrate to the same pole during anaphase II.
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59) Sister chromatids move to opposite poles of the cell during_________. A) anaphase I of meiosis B) metaphase I of meiosis C) anaphase II of meiosis D) anaphase of mitosis
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 11 1) A 2) B 3) D 4) B 5) D 6) B 7) A 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) B 12) C 13) E 14) A 15) C 16) B 17) B 18) D 19) E 20) B 21) C 22) C 23) A 24) A 25) B 26) B 27) D 28) B 29) D 30) B 31) A 32) E 33) A 34) B 35) B 36) A 37) B
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38) B 39) D 40) B 41) C 42) B 43) [A, C, E] 44) [A, B, C] 45) [A, C, D] 46) B 47) 16 48) 20 49) 5 50) 28 51) D 52) C 53) C 54) 4 55) 20 56) D 57) B 58) A 59) [C, D]
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Chapter 12 Student name:__________ 1) The first detailed and quantitative studies on inheritance were carried out by an Austrian
monk named_________. A) Mendel B) Darwin C) Mendeleev D) Benedict
2) Mendel used the garden_________ plant for his studies on inheritance. A) lily B) carrot C) onion D) pea
3) <p>The phenotypic ratio for the
generation that results from a test cross between a homozygous recessive individual and a heterozygous individual is A) 1:1 B) 2:1 C) 3:1 D) 1:2:1
4) In modern terminology, Mendel's heredity "factors" are called A) DNA. B) chromosomes. C) genes. D) RNA.
5) The observable expression of the genes present in an organism is called its A) phenotype. B) genotype. C) code. D) karyotype.
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6) Alternate forms of the same gene are called A) homologues. B) genotypes. C) cofactors. D) alleles.
7) The Principle of_________ states that the 2 alleles present at each gene locus separate from
one another during gamete formation and remain distinct. A) Alleles B) Segregation C) Crossing over D) Dominance E) Independent assortment
8) Mendel used the_________ to determine whether an individual with the dominant phenotype
was homozygous or heterozygous for that trait. A) backcross B) testcross C) dihybrid cross D) generation</p> E) double cross
9) A diploid organism that has two identical alleles for a given trait is called_________ for that
trait. A) B) C) D) E)
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10) An allele for a particular trait that is only expressed in the presence of a second copy of the
same allele is called A) dominant. B) codominant. C) incompletely dominant. D) recessive. E) pleiotropic.
11) Mendel demonstrated which of the following about inherited traits? Check all that apply. A) Traits can be hidden in some generations, but subsequently reappear unchanged in
future generations. B) Traits segregate among the offspring of a cross. C) Certain traits are more likely to appear than their alternatives. D) Some traits show blending inheritance. E) Parents that both have the same trait can have offspring with an alternative trait.
12) Knight followed up on attempts of English farmers to improve varieties of agriculture with
his studies on garden peas. When he crossed two true-breeding varieties, he found which of the following? A) <p>All the offspring had the dominant trait.</p> B) If both parents have the same trait, then all of their offspring will also have that trait. C) <p>Some offspring had the dominant trait and some had the recessive trait.</p> D) <p>Among the offspring, more had the dominant trait and fewer had the recessive trait.
13) Mendel chose the garden pea for his work on inheritance for which of the following reasons? A) Some traits in pea plants are controlled by one dominant allele and one recessive
allele. B) Earlier investigators had shown segregation among the offspring. C) A large number of true breeding varieties were available. D) The generation time was short; many offspring can be grown easily. E) He could choose to self-pollinate or cross-pollinate.
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14) <p>During his experiments with pea plants, Mendel referred to the trait that was expressed in
the or first filial generation as</p> A) recessive. B) dominant. C) codominant. D) independent. E) homozygous.
15) In Mendel's experiments on seed color in pea plants, when a dominant yellow seed-bearing
plant was crossed with a recessive green seed-bearing plant, what was the approximate phenotypic ratio among the generation?</p> A) 1 yellow: 3 green B) 1 yellow: 1 green C) 3 yellow: 1 green D) all yellow E) 9:3:3:1
16) Mendel's understanding of the inheritance of traits in peas, expressed in modern language,
included: A) parents transmit information encoded in genes. B) each individual contains two genes for each trait. C) not all genes are identical; alternative forms (alleles) exist. D) each of the alleles present in an individual is discrete. E) if a given allele is present, its effects will be seen in the individual.
17) Individuals that have 2 alleles for most gene loci are best described as A) haploid. B) diploid. C) dihybrid. D) homozygous. E) heterozygous.
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18) If fertilization involves two gametes that contain different alleles of a given gene, the
resulting offspring is A) dihybrid. B) haploid. C) heterozygous. D) homozygous. E) polygenic.
19) In a heterozygous individual, the allele being expressed is A) recessive. B) codominant. C) pleiotropic. D) dominant. E) epistatic.
20) An allele that is present but unexpressed is A) codominant. B) dominant. C) pleiotropic. D) epistatic. E) recessive.
21) The allelic make up of a cell or individual is referred to as its A) blueprint. B) genotype. C) phenotype. D) heritability.
22) The observable outward manifestation of the genes of an individual is referred to as its A) blueprint. B) genotype. C) phenotype. D) genetic map.
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23) What type of cross is used to determine if an individual with the dominant form of a trait is
homozygous or heterozygous? A) Double cross B) Dihybrid cross C) Reciprocal cross D) Test cross E) Back cross
24) Based on his monohybrid crosses, Mendel proposed which of the following? A) Alternative forms of a trait are encoded by alternative alleles. B) The 2 alleles for a given trait separate when gametes form. C) Each allele has an equal probability of being passed on to the gametes. D) Allele pairs segregate independently of each other. E) Diploid individuals have 2 alleles for each trait.
25) A cross where we follow the inheritance of two pairs of alleles is called A) homozygous. B) monohybrid. C) dihybrid. D) heterozygous. E) diallelic.
26) Let P = purple flowers and p = white, and T = tall plants and t = short. If the uppercase letters
represent the dominant alleles, what is the phenotype of a plant with the genotype PpTt? A) purple flowers, tall B) purple flowers, short C) white flowers, tall D) white flowers, short E) pale purple flowers, intermediate height
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27) Let P = purple flowers and p = white, and T = tall plants and t = short. What are the
genotypes of the gametes that are produced by a plant that is heterozygous for both traits? A) PpTt only B) PT and pt C) P, p, T, and t D) PT, Pt, pT, and pt E) Tt, TT, tt, Pp, PP, and pp
28) Let P = purple flowers and p = white, and T = tall plants and t = short. Of the 16 possible
gamete combinations in the dihybrid cross between two double heterozygotes, how many would produce the phenotype white, tall? A) None B) 1 C) 3 D) 9 E) 16
29) Mendel's Principle of Independent Assortment states that different pairs of A) non-homologous chromosomes segregate independently of each other. B) sister chromatids segregate independently of each other. C) non-sister chromatids segregate independently of each other. D) alleles segregate independently of each other. E) gametes segregate independently of each other.
30) The independent assortment of allele pairs is due to A) the independent segregation of homologous chromosome pairs during anaphase II. B) the random combination of gametes during fertilization. C) the independent segregation of sister chromatid pairs during anaphase I. D) the independent segregation of non-sister chromatid pairs during anaphase II. E) the independent segregation of homologous chromosome pairs during anaphase I.
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31) If a single gene has 3 or more alternative forms, this is called A) pleiotropy. B) multiple alleles. C) epistasis. D) blending inheritance. E) codominance.
32) Sometimes, one gene pair will interfere with the expression of a second gene pair in an
interaction called A) incomplete dominance. B) codominance. C) blending inheritance. D) pleiotropy. E) epistasis.
33) If an individual allele has more than one effect on the phenotype, this is called A) pleiotropy. B) epistasis. C) blending inheritance. D) multiple alleles. E) polygenic inheritance.
34) ABO blood group determination is an example of A) epistasis. B) incomplete dominance. C) polygenic inheritance. D) multiple alleles. E) pleiotropy.
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35) When Mendel crossed purple-flowered pea plants with white-flowered pea plants, he never
got offspring with flowers that had an intermediate color. This was counter to the theory of A) independent assortment. B) blending inheritance. C) direct transmission of traits. D) segregation of alleles. E) continuous variation of traits.
36) Sometimes, when Mendel crossed two pea plants with each other, he obtained a phenotypic
ratio of 3:1 purple-flowered pea plants to white-flowered pea plants. These results are consistent with which set of parents? A) Homozygous purple pea plant and homozygous white pea plant B) Heterozygous purple pea plant and homozygous white pea plant C) Heterozygous purple pea plant and homozygous purple pea plant D) Heterozygous purple pea plant and heterozygous purple pea plant
37) Height is a trait that shows continuous variation in humans. In pea plants, on the other hand,
the tall allele is dominant over the short allele and there are no intermediate heights. What is the best explanation for this difference? A) The alleles that control height in pea plants are epistatic. B) The alleles that control height in pea plants are pleiotropic. C) The alleles that control height in humans are pleiotropic. D) Height is a polygenic trait in humans. E) Height is a polygenic trait in pea plants.
38) An extensive study was conducted on identical twins who were separated at birth. Among
other things, the study showed that the individual from each pair who received better nutrition during childhood tended to score higher on standardized intelligence tests. This can best be described as an example of how A) mutation alters phenotype. B) environment alters phenotype. C) environment alters genotype. D) mutation alters genotype. E) pleiotropic genes affect more than one trait.
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39) Prisha knows her blood type is A, but Sebastian does not know his blood type. However,
Sebastian knows that his mother and father both had blood type B. Prisha and Sebastian's first child is a boy with type O blood. Based on this information, Sebastian's blood type could be A) B only. B) either B or O. C) O only. D) either AB or O. E) A only.
40) A person who has lost a large amount of blood but is still alive is found in a wrecked
automobile under a highway bridge. Several people are helping the paramedics load the victim into the ambulance. After the ambulance has departed for the hospital, you overhear the following conversation from the persons who helped the paramedics. "I am certain that when that guy gets to the hospital, they will transfuse him with any blood that they have in the blood bank since he has lost so much blood." The other person says, "Yeah, I bet you're right!" Having had a biology course, you know which blood could be safely given to anyone. Select it below. A) A B) B C) AB D) O
41) A diploid individual carrying two identical alleles at a given gene locus is called A) homologous. B) heterozygous. C) homozygous. D) dihybrid.
42) The_________ of an organism refers to the alleles that are present. A) genotype B) karyotype C) epistasis D) phenotype E) pleiotropy
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43) The observable expression of the genes present is called A) genotype. B) karyotype. C) epistasis. D) phenotype.
44) A diploid individual carrying two different alleles at a given gene locus is called A) homologous. B) heterozygous. C) homozygous. D) polygenic.
45) A male fruit fly has the genotype PpYYrrTt. In terms of these 4 allele pairs, how many
different types of gametes can he form? A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16
46) <p>A secretor (allele
) is a person who secretes their blood type antigens into body fluids such as saliva. By comparison, a non secretor (allele ) does not. A person's status as a secretor or non secretor is independent of blood type. Consider the following inheritance pattern of this trait: Secretor (%media:1formula17.mml%/s%media:1formula17.mml%) × Secretor (%media:1formula17.mml%/%media:1formula17.mml%) →
All offspring are secretors
Nonsecretor (%media:1formula18.mml%/%media:1formula18.mml%) × Nonsecretor (%media:1formula18.mml%/%media:1formula18.mml%) →
All offspring are nonsecretors
Secretor (%media:1formula17.mml%/%media:1formula17.mml%) × Nonsecretor (%media:1formula18.mml%/%media:1formula18.mml%) →
All offspring are secretors
Heterozygote secretor 75% secretors, 25% (%media:1formula17.mml%/s%media:1formula18.mml%) × Heterozygote nonsecretors secretor (%media:1formula17.mml%/%media:1formula18.mml%)
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46.1)
The most-likely explanation for this inheritance pattern is that the secretor trait is A) incompletely dominant. B) recessive. C) dominant. D) codominant.
46.2)
The genotypic ratio produced in the last cross is most likely A) 3:1 B) 1:2:1 C) 2:1 D) 9:3:3:1 E) 1:1
47) In white tigers, the absence of fur pigmentation is caused by a recessive allele that also
causes the tigers to be cross-eyed. If two tigers heterozygous for this allele mate, what do you expect to see among the offspring? A) 1/4 will be both white and cross-eyed, 3/4 will be orange with normal eyes. B) 1/4 will be white with normal eyes, 1/4 will be white and cross-eyed, 1/4 will be orange with normal eyes, and 1/4 will be orange and cross-eyed. C) 1/16 will be white and cross-eyed, 15/16 will be orange with normal eyes. D) 1/3 will be both white and cross-eyed, 2/3 will be orange with normal eyes. E) 1/4 will be orange with normal eyes, 3/4 will be both white and cross-eyed.
48) <p>Let Cy = curly wings and
= wild type. In Drosophila, the Cy allele behaves as a
dominant mutation that produces curly wings in the heterozygous condition (Cy/ ), but also behaves as a recessive lethal mutation. Flies homozygous for the Cy allele die before reaching adulthood.</p>
48.1)
<p>If you crossed flies heterozygous for the Cy allele, which phenotype(s) would you find in the adult generation?</p> A) Both wild type and curly wings B) Wild type only C) Curly wings only D) <p>None because all the flies would die before reaching adulthood.</p>
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49) Let Y = yellow and y = green, and R = round and r = wrinkled. You cross YYRR peas with
yyrr peas. All of the individuals are yellow and round with a genotype of YyRr. You then perform an F2 cross and get the expected 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio. What proportion of the plants are expected to be heterozygous for both traits? A) 1/16 B) 1/4 C) 1/2 D) 9/16
50) Let R = red pigment and r = no pigment. In carnations, RR offspring make a lot of red
pigment, rr offspring make no pigment and Rr offspring make a small amount of red pigment, thus appearing pink. Pink carnations are therefore an example of A) codominance. B) incomplete dominance. C) epistasis. D) pleiotropy.
51) A Punnett square is generally used to A) determine the genotype of each parent from its phenotype. B) determine the phenotype of each parent from its genotype. C) predict the genotypic ratio among the offspring. D) predict the number of offspring that will exhibit each genotype.
52) Achondroplasia is caused by an autosomal dominant mutation in the fibroblast growth factor
receptor 3 (FGFR3) gene. A person who carries this mutation has shorter limbs than average. Two copies of the mutant gene are invariably fatal before or shortly after birth. If a person with achondroplasia has children with a person of average height, what is the probability that both their first child and second child will have achondroplasia? A) 1/8 B) 1/4 C) 1/2 D) 1
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53) Mendel performed reciprocal crosses in which he used pollen from a white-flowered plant to
fertilize a purple-flowered plant and pollen from a purple-flowered plant to fertilize a whiteflowered plant. What did these reciprocal crosses demonstrate? A) The female gamete made a larger genetic contribution to the offspring than the male gamete. B) Each parent made an equal genetic contribution to the offspring. C) Flower color is a sex-linked trait. D) The traits of flower color and sex assort independently. E) The male gamete made a larger genetic contribution to the offspring than the female gamete.
54) Before Mendel's experiments with pea plants, which ideas formed the basis for most thinking
about heredity? A) Species gradually change over time B) The traits of both parents are blended together in their offspring C) Heredity occurs within species D) Some traits are dominant and some are recessive E) Traits are transmitted directly from parents to offspring
55) A scientist has an uncharacterized pea plant and wants to determine the plant’s genotype for
seed color. In order to be certain to get conclusive results from a single cross, with what plant should it be crossed? A) A green-seeded pea plant (yy) B) A yellow-seeded pea plant (YY) C) Itself
56) You toss a coin twice. Because the outcome of the first toss does not affect the outcome of
the second toss, these 2 events are called A) mutually exclusive. B) independent. C) dependent. D) random.
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57) If you are tossing a six-sided die, what is the probability of getting either a 1 or a 2 on your
first toss AND a 1 or a 2 on your second toss? A) 1/18 B) 1/9 C) 1/6 D) 1/3 E) 2/3
58) In humans, the sickle-cell trait is caused by a single mutant allele, but sickle-cell disease only
occurs in individuals that are homozygous for the sickle-cell allele. A male and female each carry the trait, but do not have sickle-cell disease. What is the probability that their first two children will both have sickle-cell disease? A) 1/16 B) 1/8 C) 1/4 D) 3/8 E) 1/2
59) In rabbits, there is a gene that controls ear length, with a dominant allele "T" for long ears
and a recessive allele "t" for short ears. At another gene locus, there are alleles “B” for black coat and “W” for white coat. Neither the B or W allele is dominant, and BW produces a gray coat. These two allele pairs assort independently. If a gray rabbit that is heterozygous at the gene locus controlling ear length is mated with a white rabbit that is also heterozygous at the gene locus controlling ear length, what is the probability that their first offspring will be gray with long ears? A) 1/16 B) 3/16 C) 1/8 D) 3/8 E) 1/2
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60) In rabbits, there is a gene that controls ear length, with a dominant allele "T" for long ears
and a recessive allele "t" for short ears. At another gene locus, there are alleles “B” for black coat and “W” for white coat. Neither the B or W allele is dominant, and BW produces a gray coat. These two allele pairs assort independently. If a gray rabbit that is heterozygous at the gene locus controlling ear length is mated with a white rabbit that is also heterozygous at the gene locus controlling ear length, what proportion of the long-eared offspring will be homozygous for the long-eared trait? A) 1/8 B) 1/4 C) 1/3 D) 1/2
61) A female with blood type O has a child with blood type O. She claims that a certain person is
the child's father. Her claim would be proven false if this person has blood type: A) O B) A C) B D) AB
62) Parent Blood Types
A and B
A and A
B and O
Child Blood Type
O
B
AB
Three babies were recently mixed up in a hospital. Based on the data in the table above, the couple with blood types A and B are the actual parents of the child with blood type A) O B) B C) AB D) None of these babies could be the child of the couple with blood types A and B.
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63) Different phenotypes produced for the same genotype due to environmental variation is
called_________. A) heritability B) quantitative inheritance C) phenotypic plasticity D) pleiotropy
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 12 1) A 2) D 3) A 4) C 5) A 6) D 7) B 8) B 9) A 10) D 11) [A, B, C, E] 12) [A, C, D] 13) [B, C, D, E] 14) B 15) C 16) [A, B, C, D] 17) B 18) C 19) D 20) E 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) [A, B, C, E] 25) C 26) A 27) D 28) C 29) D 30) E 31) B 32) E 33) A 34) D 35) B 36) D 37) D
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38) B 39) B 40) D 41) C 42) A 43) D 44) B 45) B 46) Section Break 46.1) C 46.2) B 47) A 48) Section Break 48.1) A 49) B 50) B 51) C 52) B 53) B 54) [B, C, E] 55) [A, C] 56) B 57) B 58) A
The parents must both be heterozygous (Aa × Aa). Therefore, the probability that their next child will have sickle-cell disease is 1/4. The probability that their next child will be a boy is 1/2. Since these are independent events, the probability that their next child will have sickle-cell and be a boy is 1/4 × 1/2 = 1/8. 59) D 60) C 61) [D] 62) C 63) C
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Chapter 13 Student name:__________ 1) A genetic_________ indicates the distances between gene loci measured in terms of the
frequency of recombination. A) map B) profile C) pedigree D) clone E) karyotype
2) Of the 23 pairs of human chromosomes, 22 pairs are homologous and are found in both
males and females. These are called_________. A) bivalents B) autosomes C) recombinant chromosomes D) somatic chromosomes
3) Traits that are controlled by genes located on the X chromosome are said to be_________. A) autosomal B) gametal C) sex-linked D) pleiotropic
4) Allele pairs are most likely to assort independently of one another when A) they control unrelated traits. B) they control related traits. C) they are on the same chromosome. D) they are sex-linked. E) they are on different chromosomes.
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5) The number of allele pairs that assort independently in an organism is generally much higher
than the number of chromosome pairs. This phenomenon is due to A) independent assortment. B) segregation. C) crossing over. D) sex-linkage. E) chromosome inactivation.
6) The theory of chromosomal inheritance was first proposed by A) Mendel. B) Morgan. C) Knight. D) Sutton. E) Stern.
7) In Drosophila, the sex of an individual is determined by A) 1 pair of alleles. B) the number of X chromosomes. C) the number of Y chromosomes. D) 1 pair of autosomes. E) 2 pairs of alleles.
8) In Morgan's experiments, the white eye allele in Drosophila was shown to be A) located on the X chromosome. B) located on the Y chromosome. C) dominant. D) located on an autosome. E) codominant.
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9) The geneticist who discovered the white eye mutation in Drosophila and helped establish
that genes are carried on chromosomes was A) Mendel. B) Sutton. C) Sturtevant. D) Janssens. E) Morgan.
10) Genetic exchange between two homologous chromosomes is called A) synapsis. B) pleiotropy. C) crossing over. D) allelic exchange. E) independent assortment.
11) Occasionally, chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, leading to daughter cells that
have an atypical number of chromosomes. This phenomenon is called A) epistasis. B) nondisjunction. C) crossing over. D) pleiotropy. E) chromosome inactivation.
12) The loss one copy of an autosome is called A) haploid. B) trisomic. C) bisomic. D) monosomic. E) monoploid.
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13) In humans, individuals with trisomy of the _________ chromosome are most likely to
survive until adulthood. A) 3rd. B) 13th. C) 15th. D) 18th. E) 21st.
14) If a human female has 2 Barr bodies per cell, it is almost certain that A) her father had 1 Barr body per cell. B) her mother also had 2 Barr bodies per cell. C) she developed from a fertilized egg with 3 X chromosomes. D) she is genetically a male with female characteristics. E) she is genetically a fertile female.
15) A human female with only one X chromosome is said to have a condition called A) X chromosome inactivation. B) Angelman syndrome. C) Turner syndrome. D) Klinefelter syndrome. E) Down syndrome.
16) The most common fatal genetic disorder of caucasians is A) cholera. B) cystic fibrosis. C) hemophilia. D) sickle cell anemia. E) muscular dystrophy.
17) In sickle cell anemia, the hemoglobin differs from typical hemoglobin by A) the color of the pigment. B) the size of the molecule. C) a single amino acid substitution. D) the total number of amino acids. E) the type of blood cell it is found in.
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18) Hemophilia is caused by a A) recessive allele on the X chromosome. B) dominant allele on the X chromosome. C) codominant allele on the X chromosome. D) recessive allele on an autosome. E) dominant allele on an autosome.
19) _________ is a human hereditary disease that is caused by a dominant allele but does not
show up in affected individuals until they are in middle age. A) Cystic fibrosis B) Sickle cell anemia C) Tay-Sachs disease D) Huntington's disease E) Hemophilia
20) Amniocentesis is a procedure that is normally used A) to reduce the risk of genetic disease. B) for gene therapy. C) to change the sex of the fetus. D) for diagnosis of genetic disorders. E) for nourishing the fetus.
21) Huntington's disease is caused by a single dominant allele. It is a lethal disease, yet it persists
in the human population. Which of the following statements best describes why? A) Huntington's disease is sex-linked and every human has at least one X chromosome; thus, the chances are extremely high for this allele to be maintained in the human population. B) Huntington's disease can present symptoms so mild that they appear to lack dominant expression of the allele in some individuals; in those cases, the allele is passed on to the offspring. C) While lethal to a parent, Huntington's disease will not be lethal to the offspring since it can skip a generation. D) Huntington's disease presents symptoms in mid-life, after most people have already had offspring. E) Even though Huntington's disease is lethal, it improves chances for reproduction before the person dies.
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22) In humans, the male has an X and a Y sex chromosome. The human female has two X
chromosomes. In birds, the female has a Z and a W sex chromosome while the male has two Z chromosomes. Which of the following statements is accurate about which parent determines the gender of the offspring based on inheritance of the necessary sex chromosome? A) In humans and birds, the male determines the gender of all the offspring. B) In humans and birds, the female determines the gender of all the offspring. C) In humans, the male determines the gender of the offspring, and in birds the female determines the gender. D) In humans, the female determines the gender of the offspring, and in birds the male determines the gender. E) Determination of the gender of any human or bird offspring is related to the environmental conditions at the time of conception.
23) Sickle cell anemia is caused by a defect in the A) oxygen-carrying pigment hemoglobin. B) ability of the blood to clot. C) ability of red blood cells to fight infection. D) chloride ion transport protein.
24) How many Barr bodies does a normal human female contain in each diploid cell? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
25) A test cross can be used to do all of the following except A) determine whether an individual that displays a dominant phenotype is homozygous
for the trait. B) determine whether an individual that displays a dominant phenotype is heterozygous for the trait. C) gather genotype information from phenotype information. D) identify the chromosome on which a gene is located.
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26) Which of the following animals is a genetic male? A) Bird - ZW B) Grasshopper - XO C) Honeybee - diploid D) Drosophila - XXY
27) In humans, if nondisjunction led to an individual with a genotype of XO, that person would A) be female because each cell lacks a Y chromosome. B) be male because each cell has only one X chromosome. C) display both male and female characteristics. D) not survive.
28) In humans, if nondisjunction led to an individual with a genotype of XXY, that person would A) be female because each cell has two X chromosomes. B) be male because each cell has one Y chromosome. C) display both male and female characteristics. D) not survive.
29) Any genetic differences between individuals in a population are called A) markers. B) alleles. C) polymorphisms. D) SNPs.
30) The classic experiments performed by Creighton and McClintock in Maize A) provided the initial evidence for genetic recombination. B) provided evidence that genes located on the same chromosome do not assort
independently. C) allowed for the establishment of the first genetic map. D) provided evidence for the physical exchange of genetic material between homologues.
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31) Which statement about calico cats is false? A) Calico cats can be male or female. B) The different colored fur is due to the inactivation of one X chromosome. C) The variation in coat color is an example of an epistatic interaction. D) Calico cats are genetic mosaics.
32) Which offspring inherit all their mitochondrial DNA from their mother and none from their
father? A) B) C) D)
Daughters Sons Both sons and daughters Neither sons nor daughters
33) Nondisjunction of a single pair of autosomes can lead to all of the following except A) aneuploidy. B) monosomy. C) trisomy. D) euploidy.
34) If you needed to determine the order of genes on a chromosome, you should perform A) a test cross. B) a two-point cross. C) a three-point cross. D) a SNP test.
35) A 39-year-old woman and 42-year-old man are expecting a child; the woman is 6 weeks
pregnant. The pregnancy is categorized as high risk due to the age of the parents, and the couple would like to have prenatal testing done to see if any genetic disorders are present in the fetus. Their doctor should suggest A) amniocentesis. B) genetic counseling. C) chorionic villi sampling. D) a pedigree analysis.
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36) In Drosophila, dosage compensation is controlled by the male-specific lethal (MSL) complex
consisting of MSL proteins and roX RNAs. Based on what you know about dosage compensation, the role of the MSL complex in males would be to A) double the level of expression of genes on the X chromosome. B) increase the level of expression of genes on the X chromosome by 50%. C) decrease the level of expression of genes on the X chromosome by 50%. D) decrease the level of expression of genes on the X chromosome by 100%. E) double the level of expression of genes on the Y chromosome.
37) In Drosophila, the allele red eyes (bw+) is dominant to the allele for brown eyes (bw). At
another gene locus on the same chromosome, the allele for thin wing veins (hv+) is dominant to the allele for heavy wing veins (hv). Flies homozygous for bw and hv+ are crossed to flies homozygous for bw+ and hv to obtain doubly heterozygous progeny.</p>
37.1)
<p>Given that these two gene loci are very closely linked, the genotypic ratio in the generation should be closest to</p> A) 1:2:1 B) 1:1:1:1 C) 9:3:3:1 D) 3:1
37.2)
<p>Given that these two gene loci are very closely linked, the phenotypic ratio in the generation should be closest to</p> A) 1 brown eye, heavy wing veins: 2 red eye, thin wing veins: 1 brown eye, thin wing veins B) 1 brown eye, thin wing veins: 2 red eye, thin wing veins: 1 red eye, heavy wing veins C) 3 red eye, thin wing veins: 1 brown eye, heavy wing veins D) 1 brown eye: 1 red eye: 1 heavy wing veins: 1 thin wing veins
37.3)
<p>What would be the results of a test cross with the flies?</p> A) 1 brown eye, thin wing veins: 1 red eye, heavy wing veins B) 1 brown eye, heavy wing veins: 1 red eye, thin wing veins C) 1 brown eye, thin wing veins: 2 red eye, thin wing veins: 1 red eye, heavy wing veins D) 1 brown eye, heavy wing veins: 2 red eye, thin wing veins: 1 red eye, thin wing veins
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38) What is the relationship between recombination frequency and the actual physical distance
on a chromosome? A) As physical distance increases, the recombination frequency increases in a linear fashion. B) As physical distance increases, the recombination frequency decreases in a linear fashion. C) As physical distance increases, the recombination frequency first increases in a linear fashion, but gradually levels off to a frequency of 0.5. D) As physical distance increases, the recombination frequency first decreases, but then increases.
39) In a two-point cross to map genes A and B, you obtained 98 recombinant types and 902
parental types among the offspring. How far apart are these genes? A) 9.8 cM B) 0.98 cM C) 90.2 cM D) 9.02 cM E) .098 cM
40) Morgan's student Sturtevant demonstrated that the recombination frequencies between a
series of linked genes is additive. Examine the following recombination data from Sturtevant and determine the proper order of the genes on the Drosophila X chromosome. Assume y is in the 0.0 position. 41) You are a forensic technician working on a DNA sample obtained from a crime scene. Your job is to compare the unknown DNA sample with known DNA samples collected from five different suspects. Preliminary analysis using only a few DNA markers revealed that the unknown sample could possibly match two of the suspects. After consulting the case file, you find out that these two suspects are brothers (but not twins). You realize that you will have to do a more detailed analysis on the samples so that you can distinguish between the brothers and determine which brothers' DNA matches the unknown sample.
41.1)
Which of the following will help you distinguish between the two final suspects? A) single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) B) human genome map C) linkage data D) markers on the Y chromosome
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41.2)
Why can't you use mitochondrial DNA to distinguish between these two suspects? A) The sequence of mitochondrial DNA has not yet been determined. B) The brothers share the same mitochondrial DNA. C) There are no molecular techniques available that allow one to analyze mitochondrial DNA. D) Because mitochondrial DNA is inherited in a paternal pattern.
42) In some human populations, the proportion of individuals who are heterozygous for the
sickle cell allele is much higher than would be expected by chance alone. Why? A) Individuals with two normal alleles have an advantage over heterozygous individuals. B) Individuals with two sickle cell alleles have an advantage over heterozygous individuals. C) Individuals with two sickle cell alleles have an advantage over individuals with two normal alleles. D) Heterozygous individuals have an advantage over individuals with two normal alleles.
43) A deletion of a particular stretch of chromosome 15 can cause either Prader-Willi syndrome
or Angelman syndrome, depending on A) the parental origin of the normal and deleted chromosome. B) whether or not the region is methylated properly. C) whether a translocation event has occurred. D) whether a nondisjunction event has occurred.
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44) How did the development of anonymous markers, such as short tandem repeats, aid in the
production of a human genetic map? A) Anonymous markers are genetic markers that do not cause a detectable phenotype, but can be detected by molecular techniques. The markers correspond to specific and unique chromosomal regions, thereby allowing for the identification and ordering of particular segments of DNA. Such information was essential to the generation of a human genetic map. B) Anonymous markers are genetic markers that cause a detectable phenotype and can't be detected by molecular techniques. The markers correspond to specific and unique chromosomal regions, thereby allowing for the identification and ordering of particular segments of DNA. Such information was essential to the generation of a human genetic map. C) Anonymous markers are genetic markers that do not cause a detectable phenotype, but can be detected by molecular techniques. The markers correspond to specific and unique genetic regions, thereby allowing for the identification and ordering of particular segments of the chromosome. Such information was essential to the generation of a human genetic map.
45) Why isn't mitochondrial DNA a unique identifier? A) Mitochondrial DNA is inherited through the paternal lineage. All offspring inherit
their father's mitochondria, and therefore the same mitochondrial DNA. As a result, all family members that share a paternal lineage would have the same mitochondrial DNA. Mitochondrial DNA can therefore be used to confirm or eliminate a person's relationship within a paternal line, but cannot be used to identify a specific individual. B) Mitochondrial DNA is inherited through the maternal lineage. All offspring inherit their mother's mitochondria, and therefore the same mitochondrial DNA. As a result, all family members that share a maternal lineage would have the same mitochondrial DNA. Mitochondrial DNA can therefore be used to confirm or eliminate a person's relationship within a maternal line, but cannot be used to identify a specific individual. C) Mitochondrial DNA is inherited through the maternal lineage. All female offspring inherit their mother's mitochondria, and therefore the same mitochondrial DNA. As a result, all female family members that share a maternal lineage would have the same mitochondrial DNA. Mitochondrial DNA can therefore be used to confirm or eliminate a person's relationship within a maternal line, but cannot be used to identify a specific individual.
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46) In humans, hemophilia is caused by a recessive allele on the X chromosome. Suppose a man
with hemophilia has children with a woman who doesn't have hemophilia but whose mother had hemophilia. What is the probability that their second child will have hemophilia? (Enter the probability as a percent. Enter the number only without the percent sign. For example, enter 100% as 100 and enter 12.5% as 12.5)
47) In humans, hemophilia is caused by a recessive allele on the X chromosome. Suppose a man
with hemophilia has children with a woman who doesn't have hemophilia but whose mother had hemophilia. If an ultrasound test shows that their first child is female, what is the probability that she has hemophilia? (Enter the probability as a percent. Enter the number only without the percent sign. For example, enter 100% as 100 and enter 12.5% as 12.5 )
48) In the fruit fly Drosophila, there is a dominant gene for normal wings and its recessive allele
for vestigial wings. At another gene locus on the same chromosome, there is a dominant gene for red eyes and its recessive allele for purple eyes. A male that was heterozygous at both gene loci was mated with a female that was homozygous for both recessive alleles and the following results were observed among the offspring: Normal wings and red eyes - 420 Vestigial wings and red eyes - 80 Normal wings and purple eyes - 70 Vestigial wings and purple eyes - 430 According to these data, what is the distance, in centimorgans, between these 2 gene loci? (Enter the number only without the units. For example, 100 cM would be entered as 100)
49) In fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster) there is a dominant allele for red eyes and a
recessive allele for white eyes. These alleles are located on the X chromosome. If a heterozygous red-eyed female is mated with a white-eyed male, what percentage of the offspring are expected to be white-eyed females? (Enter the number only without the percent sign. For example, enter 100% as 100 and enter 12.5% as 12.5)
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50) At an autosomal gene locus in humans, the allele for brown eyes is dominant over the allele
for blue eyes. At another gene locus, located on the X chromosome, a recessive allele produces colorblindness while the dominant allele produces normal color vision. A heterozygous brown-eyed female who is a carrier of color blindness has children with a blueeyed male who is not colorblind. What is the probability that their first child will be a blueeyed female who has normal color vision? (Enter the probability as a percent. Enter the number only without the percent sign. For example, enter 100% as 100 and enter 12.5% as 12.5)
51) At an autosomal gene locus in humans, the allele for brown eyes is dominant over the allele
for blue eyes. At another gene locus, located on the X chromosome, a recessive allele produces colorblindness while the dominant allele produces normal color vision. A heterozygous brown-eyed female who is a carrier of colorblindness has a child with a blueeyed male who is not colorblind. An ultrasound test shows that the child is female. What is the probability that she will be colorblind? (Enter the probability as a percent. Enter the number only without the percent sign. For example, enter 100% as 100 and enter 12.5% as 12.5)
52) <p>Suppose you are carrying out a series of crosses with an insect where the mechanism of
sex determination is unknown. You discover a mutant female with short bristles and decide to cross it with a wild type male that has normal bristles. Half of the progeny have short bristles but all of these short-bristled progeny are males. Based on these results, a valid hypothesis would be</p> A) males are ZW, females are ZZ, and short bristles are caused by a dominant allele on the Z chromosome. B) males are ZZ, females are ZW, and short bristles are caused by a recessive allele on the Z chromosome. C) males are ZZ, females are ZW, and short bristles are caused by a dominant allele on the W chromosome. D) males are ZZ, females are ZW, and short bristles are caused by a dominant allele on the Z chromosome.
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53) In 1910, Morgan did a series of experiments with the fruit fly Drosophila, an organism where
females are XX and males are XY. When a mutant male fly with white eyes was crossed with a wild type female with red eyes, none of the progeny had white eyes but 18% of the progeny had white eyes. Unexpectedly, all of these white-eyed flies were males. Based on these results, Morgan concluded that white eyes is caused by a recessive X-linked allele. Suppose Morgan had found that half of the progeny had white eyes but all of these whiteeyed flies were females. In this case, a valid hypothesis would be</p> A) white eyes is caused by a recessive Y-linked allele. B) white eyes is caused by a dominant Y-linked allele. C) white eyes is caused by a dominant X-linked allele. D) white eyes is caused by a dominant autosomal allele.
54) Genetic maps are based on recombination frequencies. Because both odd and even numbers
of crossovers can occur between any two gene loci, as the physical distance between two loci increases, the maximum recombination frequency levels off at 50%. However, suppose you discovered a species where only an even number of crossovers can occur between any two gene loci. In this case, as the physical distance between two loci increases, you would expect the maximum recombination frequency to A) be zero. B) increase with no limit. C) level off at 25%. D) level off at 75%. E) level off at 100%.
55) Pedigrees are useful to geneticists because they can help determine: A) the mode of inheritance for a particular trait. B) the genotype of a particular individual. C) the probability that future offspring will inherit a particular trait. D) whether a particular trait is dominant or recessive.
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56) When viewing a human pedigree for a particular genetic condition, you observe that affected
individuals appear in some generations, but not in others. This suggests the condition is_________. A) dominant B) sex-linked C) pleiotropic D) epistatic E) recessive
57) _________ is the study of complex, quantitative traits to identify their underlying genetic
components. A) Genome sequencing B) Genome-wide association study C) Genetic mapping D) Genetic heritability analysis
58) Phenotype-wide association study (PheWAS) is dependent on large amounts of medical data
because_________. A) very few patients have the genomes that can be used in association studies B) it uses the genetic data of many patients to associate the resultant phenotypes with specific genotypes C) it identifies rare patients with many genetic mutations to associate multiple phenotypic conditions at one time D) it uses the phenotypes of many patients (e.g. medical conditions) to identify the likely genes responsible
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 13 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) E 5) C 6) D 7) B 8) A 9) E 10) C 11) B 12) D 13) E 14) C 15) C 16) B 17) C 18) A 19) D 20) D 21) D 22) C 23) A 24) B 25) D 26) B 27) A 28) B 29) C 30) D 31) A 32) C 33) D 34) C 35) C 36) A 37) Section Break
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37.1) A 37.2) B 37.3) A 38) C 39) A 40) B 41) Section Break 41.1) A 41.2) B 42) D 43) A 44) A 45) B 46) 50 47) 50 48) 15 49) 25 50) 25 51) 0 52) D 53) C 54) A 55) [A, B, C, D] 56) E 57) B 58) B
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Chapter 14 Student name:__________ 1) Viruses that attack bacteria are called A) phages B) proviruses C) virulent D) lytic
2) _________ is the genetic material for all cellular organisms and some viruses. A) RNA B) DNA C) Protein D) Chromatin
3) Nucleotides have a phosphate group attached at the_________ carbon atom of the sugar. A) 2' B) 3' C) 5' D) 1'
4) Telomeres protect_________ and are_________ sequences of DNA. A) circular chromosomes from nucleases; random B) the ends of linear chromosomes from nucleases; specific short repeated C) circular chromosomes from nucleases; specific short repeated D) all chromosomes (prokaryotic and eukaryotic) from nucleases; random E) all chromosomes (prokaryotic and eukaryotic) from nucleases; specific short repeated
5) Watson and Crick developed a model of DNA in which the two strands twist into the shape
of a_________. A) circle B) helix C) double helix D) double pleated sheet
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6) Because the two strands of a DNA molecule are_________ to each other, either one can be
used as a template to reconstruct the other. A) identical B) antiparallel C) bound D) complementary
7) DNA consists of two antiparallel strands of nucleotides held together by A) peptide bonds. B) covalent bonds. C) ionic bonds. D) hydrogen bonds.
8) The method of DNA replication, where each original strand is used as a template to build a
new strand, is called the A) conservative method. B) semiconservative method. C) disruptive method. D) continuous method. E) replication and amplification method.
9) Which enzyme adds new nucleotides to the end of a growing strand? A) Ligase B) Polymerase C) Gyrase D) Helicase E) Endonuclease
10) Who originally discovered the process of bacterial transformation? A) Watson and Crick B) Chargaff C) Hershey and Chase D) Griffith E) Meselson and Stahl
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11) When a mixture of live nonvirulent bacteria and dead virulent bacteria was injected into
mice, Griffith unexpectedly found that the injected mice died. He explained this result by suggesting that the nonvirulent bacteria are being A) activated. B) transformed. C) translated. D) transcribed. E) expressed.
12) Avery and his coworkers showed that the agent responsible for changing nonvirulent bacteria
into virulent bacteria was A) protein. B) polysaccharide. C) DNA. D) RNA. E) lipid.
13) Which statement about the Hershey-Chase experiment is false? A) DNA was labeled with radioactive phosphorus. B) Protein was labeled with radioactive sulfur. C) The virus-infected bacteria contained radioactive phosphorus. D) The virus-infected bacteria contained radioactive sulfur.
14) Based on their experiment with T2 bacteriophages, Hershey and Chase concluded that A) DNA replication is semiconservative. B) the phage coat contains the genetic material. C) DNA functions as the genetic material. D) A always pairs with T and G always pairs with C. E) virulent bacteria can transform nonvirulent bacteria.
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15) After attaching to a bacterial cell, a bacteriophage typically A) injects protein into the cell. B) extracts protein from the cell. C) injects DNA into the cell. D) extracts DNA from the cell. E) transforms the cell into a virulent strain.
16) DNA primase A) creates a short RNA primer that is complementary to an RNA template. B) creates a short DNA primer that is complementary to an RNA template. C) creates a short DNA primer that is complementary to a DNA template. D) creates a short DNA template that is complementary to an RNA primer. E) creates a short RNA primer that is complementary to a DNA template.
17) As the two strands of DNA are unraveled, which enzyme relieves the strain on the two
strands? A) DNA polymerase B) DNA ligase C) DNA gyrase D) DNA endonuclease E) DNA exonuclease
18) Which is not a component of nucleic acids? A) Organic nitrogenous base B) Pentose sugar C) Phosphate D) Sulfur
19) The chemical bond connecting one nucleotide with the next along one strand of a DNA
molecule is called a A) glycosidic bond. B) hydrogen bond. C) phosphate bond. D) phosphodiester bond. E) peptide bond.
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20) According to Chargaff's rules about proportions of nitrogenous bases, A) A = C and G = T. B) A = T and G = C. C) A = G and C = T. D) A+T = G+C.
21) Information obtained by Franklin from X-ray crystallography on DNA suggested that it is
shaped like a A) helix. B) ribbon. C) hollow cylinder. D) pleated sheet. E) icosahedron.
22) In DNA, complementary nitrogen bases are held together by A) nitrogen bonds. B) hydrogen bonds. C) hydrophobic bonds. D) peptide bonds. E) phosphodiester bonds.
23) The two strands of a DNA molecule contain nitrogen bases which are A) identical. B) parallel. C) complementary. D) proportionate. E) random.
24) Replication of DNA is A) conservative. B) redundant. C) dispersive. D) semiconservative. E) semidispersive.
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25) During DNA replication, each new strand begins with a short A) amino acid primer. B) lipid primer. C) hydrophilic primer. D) DNA primer. E) RNA primer.
26) The lagging strand is replicated with a series of Okazaki fragments and that is why its
synthesis is considered to be A) discontinuous. B) continuous. C) bidirectional. D) antiparallel. E) semiconservative.
27) DNA replication always proceeds by adding new bases to the_________ end of an existing
strand. A) B) C) D) E)
1' 2' 3' 4' 5'
28) Which of the following statements about DNA replication is false? A) The two strands are separated. B) Each existing strand is used as a template for making a new strand. C) Synthesis of both new strands is in the 5' to 3' direction. D) The newly synthesized DNA is packaged into one nucleus, and the original DNA is
packaged into another nucleus.
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29) The double helix model of DNA structure was proposed by A) Watson and Crick. B) Griffith. C) Avery. D) Franklin. E) Chargaff.
30) Griffith, a British microbiologist, used bacteria and mice to demonstrate the process of
transformation. During transformation, A) a bacterial chromosome produces an exact copy of itself. B) the nucleus of a mouse cell repairs itself when damaged by bacterial infection. C) DNA from an infected mouse cell changes bacteria from a nonpathogenic to a pathogenic form. D) genetic material is transferred from one bacterial cell to another. E) a bacterial cell is transformed into a spore during unsuitable environmental conditions.
31) In 1952, Hershey and Chase confirmed Avery's (1944) conclusion that A) proteins are the repositories for hereditary information. B) DNA is the repository for hereditary information. C) RNA is the repository for hereditary information. D) each DNA molecule is composed of two strands that are twisted into a double helix. E) the replication of DNA is semiconservative.
32) If 14% of the nucleotides from a DNA molecule contain the base T, what percent will
contain the base G? A) 14% B) 18% C) 28% D) 36% E) 72%
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33) If a short sequence of DNA is 5' AATTGCCGT 3', its complement is A) 5' AAAACGCCA 3'. B) 3' TTAACGGCT 5'. C) 3' TTAACGGCA 5'. D) 3' TTAAGCCGA 5'. E) 5' TTAACGGCA 3'.
34) After DNA replication is complete, each strand of the original molecule is bound to a new
complementary strand. This process is known as A) disruptive replication. B) conservative replication. C) semiconservative replication. D) dispersive replication. E) stabilizing replication.
35) The site where the two original DNA strands separate and active replication occurs is called
the A) B) C) D) E)
replication fork. replisome. primosome. lagging strand. sliding clamp subunit.
36) The replisome has two main subcomponents. They are A) the replication folk and the sliding clamp subunit. B) the primosome and the sliding clamp subunit. C) the replication folk and the DNA pol III enzymes. D) the DNA pol III enzymes and the sliding clamp subunits. E) the primosome and the DNA pol III enzymes.
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37) During replication, which enzyme unwinds the DNA double helix? A) DNA primase B) DNA polymerase I C) DNA helicase D) DNA gyrase E) DNA ligase
38) What is the correct sequence for DNA replication in E. coli? A) Initiation, termination, elongation B) Initiation, elongation, termination C) Elongation, termination, initiation D) Elongation, initiation, termination
39) Eukaryotic organisms speed up the process of DNA replication by A) shortening the initiation phase. B) producing several sliding clamp complexes which provide more binding sites for
DNA pol III. C) using DNA gyrase to unravel the double helix rather than DNA helicase. D) using multiple origins of replication on each chromosome.
40) Endonucleases and exonucleases are enzymes that can remove nucleotides from a
polynucleotide chain. An endonuclease removes nucleotides_________ while an exonuclease removes nucleotides_________. A) from the 5' end of the chain; from the 3' end of the chain B) from the 3' end of the chain; from the 5' end of the chain C) internally; from the ends of the chain D) from the ends of the chain; internally
41) During DNA replication, DNA pol III synthesizes the lagging strand in segments, called A) replication fragments. B) Chargaff's segments. C) repeating primers. D) replisomes. E) Okazaki fragments.
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42) Who proposed that the structure of DNA is a double helix with two polynucleotide chains
running in opposite directions and held together by hydrogen bonding between pairs of nitrogenous bases? A) Hershey and Chase B) Chargaff C) Franklin D) Watson and Crick E) Meselson and Stahl
43) Who demonstrated that phage genetic material is DNA and not protein? A) Hershey and Chase B) Chargaff C) Franklin D) Watson and Crick E) Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty
44) Who provided X-ray diffraction photographs of purified DNA fibers that suggested a helical
structure with a consistent diameter of about 2 nm and a complete helical turn every 3.4 nm? A) Hershey and Chase B) Chargaff C) Franklin D) Watson and Crick
45) Who proposed that in any DNA molecule, A = T and G = C? A) Hershey and Chase B) Chargaff C) Franklin D) Watson and Crick
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46) In Griffith's experiments, A) mice infected with live nonvirulent bacteria developed pneumonia and died. B) nonvirulent bacteria transformed the virulent bacteria into a nonvirulent variety. C) mice infected with heat-killed virulent bacteria and live nonvirulent bacteria
developed pneumonia and died. D) mice infected with heat-killed virulent bacteria and heat-killed nonvirulent bacteria developed pneumonia and died.
47) Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty's experiments revealed that the transforming principle had all
of the following properties except A) its activity was destroyed by treatment with proteases. B) its activity was unaffected by RNA-digesting enzymes. C) its activity was unaffected by lipid extraction. D) its activity was destroyed by treatment with DNA endonucleases.
48) If we think of the DNA double helix as a twisted ladder, what makes up the rungs or steps of
the ladder? A) Phosphate groups only B) Alternating phosphate groups and sugars C) Sugars only D) Purines and pyrimidines E) Phosphate groups and bases
49) Deoxyribose has a carbon atom that is not part of the pentose ring. In a nucleotide, what is
attached to this carbon? A) A nitrogenous base B) A phosphate group C) Three hydrogen atoms D) One hydrogen atom
50) Which of the following DNA sequences is complementary to 5' ATGGTCAGT 3'? A) 5' ATGGTCAGT 3' B) 5' TGACTGGTA 3' C) 5' TACCAGTCA 3' D) 5' ACTGACCAT 3'
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51) In DNA, a purine must always pair with a pyrimidine and vice versa in order to ensure that A) the distance between the two phosphodiester backbones remains constant. B) the two strands are antiparallel. C) the distance between one base pair and the next remains constant. D) each base pair is held together by three hydrogen bonds.
52) During DNA replication, which enzyme removes the RNA primers and then fills in the gap? A) DNA pol I B) DNA primase C) DNA pol III D) DNA ligase
53) If a mutation prevented synthesis of the beta subunit of DNA pol III, which would be most
affected? A) DNA unwinding B) Formation of RNA primers C) Formation of the replication fork D) Processivity E) Removal of RNA primers
54) Why does DNA pol I carry the number one? A) It was the first polymerase isolated from E. coli. B) It is the first polymerase to be activated during DNA replication. C) It is the only polymerase that has both 3' to 5' and 5' to 3' exonuclease activity. D) It is the smallest polymerase.
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55) You are asked to give a classroom demonstration of DNA supercoiling. To do so, you take
two different colored pieces of rubber tubing, twist them very tightly and excessively around each other and join the ends of the tubing appropriately. Next, you relieve the supercoiling by breaking one strand and unwinding it. In this demonstration, the breaking and unwinding to relieve the supercoiling simulates the action of A) exonucleases. B) polymerases. C) ligases. D) topoisomerases. E) primases.
56) In which cells would you expect to find the highest level of telomerase? A) Muscle cells B) Adipose tissue cells C) Neurons D) Cells that replenish the lining of the gut
57) You are asked to participate in a clinical trial for a new drug that can activate telomerase.
Which of the following is a likely risk of such a drug? A) Decreased capacity for tissue repair B) Increased vulnerability to cancer C) Premature aging D) Decreased telomere length
58) When planning a long week of sunbathing on the beach, which type of DNA damage should
sunbathers be aware of before hitting the beach? A) Photolyase-induced mutations B) Decreased telomere length C) Thymine dimers D) Activation of uvr A, B, and C genes
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59) Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) is a rare autosomal recessive disorder. Patients with XP
exhibit a cellular hypersensitivity to ultraviolet (UV) radiation, a high incidence of skin cancer and premature aging. Based on these clinical characteristics, what is the most likely cause for this disease? A) Defects in DNA repair B) Defects in DNA replication C) Lack of telomerase activity D) Shortened telomeres
60) If a mutation produced helicase that was unable to hydrolyze ATP, DNA replication would
be A) B) C) D)
stopped. speeded up. unaffected. more prone to errors.
61) Suppose a new species of bacterium is discovered. It contains a form of DNA pol III that can
add new nucleotides to either the 5' end or the 3' end of an existing strand. All other properties of the enzyme remain unchanged. How would DNA replication in these bacteria differ from normal replication? A) Both new strands could be synthesized continuously like the leading strand. B) The same polymerase molecule could synthesize both strands at the same time. C) Helicase would no longer be required for replication. D) DNA gyrase would no longer be required for replication.
62) If 16% of the nucleotides in one strand of a DNA molecule contain the base G, what percent
of the nucleotides on the complementary strand will also contain the base G? A) 16% B) 8% C) 34% D) 32% E) It is impossible to determine from the information given.
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63) You decide to repeat the Meselson-Stahl experiment, except this time you plan to grow the E.
coli cells on light medium for many generations and then transfer them to heavy medium and allow them to grow for 2 additional generations (2 rounds of DNA replication). If the conservative model of DNA replication was correct, what is the expected distribution of DNA in the density gradient after two rounds of replication?</p> A) One band of intermediate density. B) One band of light density. C) One band of heavy density. D) One band of light density and one band of heavy density. E) One band of light density and one band of intermediate density.
64) You decide to repeat the Meselson-Stahl experiment, except this time you plan to grow the E.
coli cells on light medium for many generations and then transfer them to heavy medium and allow them to grow for 2 additional generations (2 rounds of DNA replication). If the semiconservative model of DNA replication is correct, what is the expected distribution of DNA in the density gradient after two rounds of replication? A) One band of intermediate density. B) One band of intermediate density and one band of light density. C) One band of intermediate density and one band of heavy density. D) One band of heavy density and one band of light density. E) One band of heavy density.
65) Genetic analysis indicates that an unknown organism contains a gene that codes for a
defective form of telomerase. Based on this information alone, you can conclude that this organism A) is prokaryotic. B) is eukaryotic. C) has unusually long telomeres. D) has an increased risk of developing cancer.
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66) An organism has been found to contain a defective form of photolyase. What function might
be impaired in this organism? A) Lengthening of the tips of chromosomes B) Repair of DNA damage caused by UV light C) Stabilization of single-stranded DNA during DNA replication D) Recognition of damaged DNA by the UvrABC complex
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 14 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) B 5) C 6) D 7) D 8) B 9) B 10) D 11) B 12) C 13) D 14) C 15) C 16) E 17) C 18) D 19) D 20) B 21) A 22) B 23) C 24) D 25) E 26) A 27) C 28) D 29) A 30) D 31) B 32) D 33) C 34) C 35) A 36) E 37) C
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38) B 39) D 40) C 41) E 42) D 43) A 44) C 45) B 46) C 47) A 48) D 49) B 50) D 51) A 52) A 53) D 54) A 55) D 56) D 57) B 58) C 59) A 60) A 61) A 62) E 63) D 64) C 65) B 66) B
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Chapter 15 Student name:__________ 1) DNA affects the traits of an organism by providing the instructions for
synthesizing_________. A) proteins B) nucleotides C) codons D) amino acids
2) Gene expression involves two phases,_________ and translation. A) replication B) transcription C) initiation D) condensation
3) Messenger RNA molecules contain information that is used to synthesize_________. A) nucleotides B) amino acids C) polypeptides D) fatty acids
4) To begin transcription, RNA polymerase must bind to a segment of DNA called
the_________. A) initiation site B) primer C) inducer D) promoter E) transcription bubble
5) The strand of DNA that is not transcribed is called the_________ strand. A) coding B) noncoding C) template D) complementary
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6) During_________, a ribosome assembles a polypeptide whose amino acid sequence is
specified by the nucleotide sequence in a molecule of mRNA. A) transcription B) translation C) replication D) posttranscriptional modification
7) The sequence of nucleotides in a DNA molecule is called the_________ code. A) protein B) ribosomal C) translation D) genetic E) amino acid
8) Crick, Brenner, and their colleagues proposed that the genetic code consists of a series of
blocks of information, called_________, each corresponding to one amino acid in an encoded protein. A) alleles B) codons C) genes D) polypeptides
9) Gene_________ refers to the combined processes of transcription and translation. A) expression B) replication C) modification D) regulation
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10) During transcription of mRNA in eukaryotes, some sequences are cut out of the primary
transcript and the remaining sequences are joined together. This processing of mRNA is called_________. A) termination B) translation C) splicing D) capping E) elongation
11) Most eukaryotic genes contain noncoding sequences called_________ that are interspersed
with the coding sequences. A) introns B) exons C) codons D) spacers E) spliceosomes
12) To remove noncoding sequences in the pre-mRNA of eukaryotes, multiple snRNPs combine
with proteins to form a larger complex called the_________. A) 5' cap B) introsome C) ribosome D) spliceosome E) 3' poly-A tail
13) The connection that exists between genes and hereditary traits is based on using the
information encoded in genes to synthesize A) codons. B) nucleotides. C) proteins. D) histones. E) complementary bases.
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14) Both DNA and RNA are made up of building blocks known as A) nucleotides. B) nucleic acids. C) amino acids. D) genes. E) codons.
15) The "one-gene/one-enzyme" hypothesis was proposed by A) Watson and Crick. B) Griffith. C) Garrod. D) Franklin. E) Beadle and Tatum.
16) The polypeptide-making organelles, which consist of protein combined with RNA, are called A) ribosomes. B) Golgi bodies. C) lysosomes. D) centrosomes. E) mitochondria.
17) During translation, amino acids are carried to the ribosome by A) mRNA. B) tRNA. C) snRNA. D) rRNA. E) miRNA.
18) During_________, RNA polymerase synthesizes a molecule of RNA using DNA as a
template. A) mRNA splicing B) translation C) transcription D) gene sequencing E) termination
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19) Which base in an anticodon will pair with the base adenine in a codon? A) Thymine B) Cytosine C) Guanine D) Uracil
20) A codon is composed of how many bases? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 64
21) In eukaryotes, translation takes place A) on the plasma membrane. B) inside the nucleus. C) on ribosomes. D) on the nuclear membrane. E) on spliceosomes.
22) Ribosomes are complex aggregates of A) RNA and DNA. B) RNA and proteins. C) RNA and sugars. D) DNA and proteins. E) nucleosomes and RNA.
23) The A, P, and E sites are progressively occupied by amino acids being assembled into a
polypeptide. These sites are part of A) DNA. B) the large ribosomal subunit. C) mRNA. D) tRNA. E) the spliceosome.
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24) In eukaryotic cells, transcription occurs A) on the surface of the nuclear membrane. B) on ribosomes. C) on spliceosomes. D) inside the nucleus. E) on the surface of the plasma membrane.
25) In prokaryotes, the form of RNA polymerase that can accurately initiate synthesis of RNA is
called A) B) C) D) E)
the holoenzyme. the core polymerase. RNA polymerase II. RNA polymerase III. the sigma subunit.
26) During_________, nucleotide sequence information is changed into amino acid sequence
information. A) replication B) sequencing C) transcription D) translocation E) translation
27) The genetic code uses _________ nucleotide(s) to specify one amino acid. A) one B) two C) three D) four E) 64
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28) Which statement about the genetic code is false? A) There is no punctuation or spacing between codons. B) Nucleotides are always read in groups of three. C) Every codon codes for one amino acid. D) Some amino acids are specified by more than one codon. E) The genetic code is almost universal, but not quite.
29) How many unique mRNA codons can be constructed from the four different RNA
nucleotides? A) 4 B) 12 C) 16 D) 61 E) 64
30) During translation, the nucleotides that make up the mRNA are read in groups of three.
These groups are called A) codons. B) anticodons. C) exons. D) introns. E) templates.
31) The tRNA nucleotide sequence that pairs with bases on the mRNA is called a(n) A) intron. B) exon. C) codon. D) initiation factor. E) anticodon.
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32) Ribosome movement along the mRNA is called A) transcription. B) initiation. C) replication. D) translocation. E) activation.
33) Specific amino acids are attached to tRNA molecules by A) aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases. B) hydrogen bonds. C) anticodons. D) deactivating enzymes. E) initiation factors.
34) Codons that serve as "stop" signals for translation are recognized by A) tRNA. B) release factors. C) anticodons. D) translation terminators. E) aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases
35) When a polypeptide is being assembled, the bond that forms between a newly added amino
acid and the previous amino acid in the chain is a_________ bond. A) hydrogen B) hydrophobic C) terminal D) phosphodiester E) peptide
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36) During translation in prokaryotes, formation of the initiation complex requires all of the
following except A) a small ribosomal subunit. B) mRNA. C) tRNA charged with N-formylmethionine. D) RNA polymerase. E) initiation factors.
37) Eukaryotic mRNA molecules may contain noncoding sequences that must be removed before
translation. These are called A) anticodons. B) introns. C) exons. D) nucleosomes. E) noncodons.
38) The location of translation in prokaryotic cells is A) in the nucleoid. B) on ribosomes. C) on the plasma membrane. D) on mesosomes. E) on chromosomes
39) In eukaryotes, pre-mRNA processing may involve all of the following except A) removal of exons from the pre-mRNA. B) addition of a 5' cap. C) addition of a 3' poly-A tail D) pre-mRNA splicing by the spliceosome.
40) During translation, uncharged tRNA molecules leave the ribosome from the_________ site. A) E B) P C) A D) termination E) release
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41) The Central Dogma of biology can be stated as A) Proteins→ RNA→ DNA. B) RNA→ DNA→ Proteins. C) DNA→ Proteins→ RNA. D) DNA→ RNA→ Proteins.
42) If the sequence of bases in the template strand of a DNA molecule is 3' ATCGCTCC 5', what
is the sequence of bases in the RNA that is transcribed from this molecule? A) 3' UAGCGAGG 5' B) 3' TAGCGAGG 5' C) 5' UAGCGAGG 3' D) 5' TAGCGAGG 3' E) 5' AUCGCUCC 3'
43) The template strand of a DNA segment that codes for mRNA has the sequence: ATGCGT.
Which tRNA anticodons would pair with the mRNA that is coded for by this sequence? A) AUG CGU. B) ATG CGT. C) UAC GCA. D) UAG CGU.
44) Although 61 different codons code for amino acids, cells contain fewer than 61 different
tRNAs. Why? A) Because the 5' base on the tRNA anticodon has some flexibility (wobble); thus, some tRNA anticodons can pair with more than one mRNA codon. B) Although 61 different codons code for amino acids, any given cell contains fewer than 61. C) Because the 5' base on the mRNA codon has some flexibility (wobble); thus, some mRNA codons can pair with more than one tRNA anticodon. D) Because each amino acid is coded for by just one codon.
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45) Eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms differ in how they process genetic information. Which
statements best explain one of these differences? A) In prokaryotes, translation of the mRNA begins before transcription is complete. In eukaryotes, transcription and modification of the mRNA is completed before translation begins. B) In prokaryotes, genes are transcribed directly into polypeptides. In eukaryotes, genes are transcribed into RNA which is used to assemble polypeptides. C) In prokaryotes, translation occurs before genes are transcribed into mRNA. In eukaryotes, genes are transcribed into mRNA which is then translated into polypeptides. D) In prokaryotes, introns are removed before genes are transcribed into mRNA. In eukaryotes, introns are removed after genes are transcribed into mRNA.
46) What is the first step during transcription initiation in prokaryotes? A) The transcription bubble is formed B) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter C) The DNA double helix is unwound D) RNA polymerase synthesizes a short primer E) Transcription factors bind to the TATA box sequence
47) Initiation of transcription differs from initiation of DNA replication in several ways. One
difference is that initiation of transcription does not require A) a promoter. B) enzymes. C) a primer. D) a DNA template strand.
48) Transcription in prokaryotes is carried out by_________, which unwind(s) and transcribe(s)
the gene. A) RNA synthetase B) RNA polymerase II C) RNA polymerase III D) transcription factors E) RNA polymerase
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49) Eukaryotes have_________ type(s) of RNA polymerase. A) one B) two C) three D) four E) 64
50) In eukaryotes, each type of RNA polymerase recognizes a different A) start codon. B) stop codon. C) promoter. D) release factor. E) transcription factor.
51) Eukaryotic pre-mRNA molecules are modified A) in the cytoplasm. B) at the ribosome. C) inside the nucleus. D) as they pass through the nuclear membrane. E) at the transcription bubble.
52) In eukaryotes, the 3' poly-A tail is attached to A) poly-A polymerase. B) mRNA. C) tRNA. D) the ribosome. E) the template strand of DNA.
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53) Why are there fewer tRNA anticodons than the 61 needed to match each mRNA codon that
codes for an amino acid? A) There is some flexibility in pairing between the 5' base of the codon and the 3' base of the anticodon. B) There is some flexibility in pairing between the middle base of the codon and the middle base of the anticodon. C) There is some flexibility in pairing between the 3' base of the codon and the 5' base of the anticodon. D) There is some flexibility in pairing between all 3 bases of the codon and all 3 bases of the anticodon.
54) During protein synthesis in eukaryotes, what happens during RNA splicing? A) The product of translation, called the primary transcript, is cut and some pieces are
joined back together to form the mature mRNA. B) The product of transcription, called the primary transcript, is cut and some pieces are joined back together to form the mature tRNA. C) The product of transcription, called the secondary transcript, is cut and some pieces are joined back together to form the mature mRNA. D) The product of transcription, called the primary transcript, is cut and some pieces are joined back together to form the mature mRNA. E) The product of transcription, called the primary transcript, is cut and all pieces are joined back together to form the mature mRNA.
55) During protein synthesis in eukaryotes, which molecule passes from the nucleus to the
cytoplasm and specifies the sequence of amino acids in the new polypeptide? A) DNA B) RNA polymerase C) mRNA D) rRNA E) tRNA
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56) Which molecule combines with proteins to form both the large and small ribosomal
subunits? A) DNA B) RNA polymerase C) miRNA D) rRNA E) tRNA
57) Given the sentence "THE FAT CAT ATE THE RED RAT," which of the following would
represent a frameshift mutation? A) THE FAT RAT ATE THE RED CAT B) THE CAT ATE THE RED RAT C) THE FAC ATA TET HER EDR AT D) THE FAT CAT ATE THE RED RAT
58) What would happen if snRNPs did not recognize the branch point within an intron? A) A lariat would not form. B) snRNPs would not base-pair with the 5' end of the intron. C) A 3' poly A tail would not be added to the transcript. D) A 5' cap would not be added to the transcript.
59) During the splicing reaction, the intron-exon junctions are recognized by A) snRNPs. B) miRNAs. C) SRP RNAs. D) the lariat. E) the branch point.
60) In prokaryotes, the RNA polymerase holoenzyme consists of A) the core polymerase plus two alpha subunits. B) the core polymerase plus two beta subunits. C) the core polymerase plus two alpha subunits, two beta subunits, and a sigma subunit. D) the core polymerase plus a sigma subunit. E) two alpha subunits, two beta subunits, and two sigma subunits.
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61) Two 6-base sequences are present in bacterial promoters: TATAAT (located 10 nt upstream
from the start site) and TTGACA (located 35 nt upstream from the start site). What is the significance of the fact that these two base sequences are different? A) Binding sites for both the holoenzyme and ATP are provided. B) Both the location of the start site and the direction of transcription can be established. C) Binding sites for both the core polymerase and holoenzyme are provided. D) The transcription bubble can be properly formed. E) It allows RNA polymerase to distinguish between the template strand and the coding strand of the DNA molecule.
62) Within the transcription bubble, the 9 most recently added nucleotides in the newly
synthesized RNA strand temporarily form a helix with the template DNA strand. How might transcription be affected if helix formation did not occur? A) Rewinding the DNA molecule would be inhibited. B) Unwinding the DNA molecule would be inhibited. C) The position of the 5' end of the RNA would be unstable, inhibiting elongation. D) The position of the 3' end of the RNA would be unstable, inhibiting elongation. E) The position of the 5' end of the RNA would be unstable, stimulating elongation.
63) Cells conserve energy and resources by making active proteins only when they are needed. If
a protein is not needed, which of the following methods of control would be the most energyefficient? A) Block transcription B) Degrade the mRNA after it is made C) Prevent translation of the mRNA D) Degrade the protein after it is made
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64) What is required for formation of the transcription initiation complex in eukaryotes? A) Binding of a transcription factor to the TATA box, followed by recruitment of
additional transcription factors and recruitment of RNA polymerase II B) Binding of a transcription factor to the transcription bubble, followed by recruitment of additional transcription factors and recruitment of RNA polymerase III C) Binding of the sigma subunit to the start site followed by recruitment of RNA polymerase II D) Binding of RNA polymerase II to the TATA box, followed by recruitment of transcription factors E) Binding of the sigma subunit to promoter elements at -35 and -10, followed by recruitment of the core polymerase
65) What is the likely consequence of a mutation that alters the branch point within an intron? A) No effect, since introns are not expressed B) Failure to form a lariat C) Failure of snRNPs to recognize the 5' end of intron D) No exon shuffling E) Failure of snRNAs to combine with protein and form snRNPs
66) You are working to characterize a novel protein in mice. Analysis shows that high levels of
the primary transcript that codes for this protein are found in tissue from the brain, muscle, liver, and pancreas. However, an antibody that recognizes the C-terminal portion of the protein indicates that the protein is present in brain, muscle, and liver, but not in the pancreas. What is the most likely explanation for this result? A) The gene that codes for this protein is not transcribed in the pancreas. B) The transcript is immediately degraded in the pancreas. C) The transcript receives a 5’ cap in the pancreas. D) Alternative splicing in the pancreas creates a protein missing the domain that the antibody recognizes. E) The transcript receives a 3’ poly-A tail in the pancreas.
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67) The mutation responsible for Huntington's disease is a A) missense mutation. B) nonsense mutation. C) frameshift mutation. D) triplet repeat expansion mutation.
68) How would a large chromosomal inversion affect the expression of a gene if the gene is
located between the two break points but no breaks occur within the gene? A) The inversion would probably have no effect on gene expression. B) The gene would not be transcribed because it would be oriented in the wrong direction. C) The gene would be transcribed in the 3' to 5' direction. D) The gene would be transcribed normally but the mRNA would be translated in the 3' to 5' direction.
69) An inversion is best be described as a A) change in the DNA from an A-T base pair to a G-C basepair. B) change from the homozygous to the heterozygous state. C) change from the dominant to the recessive form of a gene. D) reversal in the orientation of a segment of a chromosome. E) reversal of the sex of an individual.
70) How does DNA polymerase differ from RNA polymerase? A) Only RNA polymerase adds new nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing chain. B) Only RNA polymerase requires a primer. C) Only DNA polymerase uses a template DNA strand to direct synthesis of a new
nucleotide strand. D) Only DNA polymerase has a proofreading ability.
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71) A scientist makes three artificial mRNA strands:(x) 5'
AAAUUUAAAUUUAAAUUUAAAUUUAAA 3' (y) 5' UUUCCCUUUCCCUUUCCCUUUCCCUUU 3' (z) 5' AUAUAUAUAUAUAUAUAUAUAUAUAU 3' When she analyzes the polypeptides produced, she finds that: x produces a polypeptide that is 50% phenylalanine and 50%lysine. y produces a polypeptide that is 50% phenylalanine and 50% proline. z produces a polypeptide that is 50% isoleucine and 50% tyrosine. Based on these results only, the best conclusion to make is that A) B) C) D) E)
AUA codes for isoleucine AAA codes for phenylalanine AAA codes for lysine AAA codes for lysine and AUA codes for isoleucine AAA codes for phenylalanine and AUA codes for isoleucine
72) A bacterial cell has a nonsense mutation that prevents it from producing a functional sigma
subunit for RNA polymerase. Inability to synthesize a functional sigma subunit would have the most direct effect on A) transcription initiation. B) transcription elongation. C) transcription termination. D) translation initiation. E) translation termination.
73) What is the best way to describe our current understanding of the one-gene/one-polypeptide
hypothesis? A) It continues to be an accurate description of how genes work. B) It is oversimplified, especially in eukaryotes. C) It has been replaced by the more accurate “one-gene/one-enzyme” hypothesis. D) It was true for fungi like Neurospora, but not for other species.
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74) You are attempting to synthesize rRNA in a test tube using DNA isolated from mouse cells.
In addition to the template DNA, ribonucleotides, and the necessary transcription factors, you should also add _________ to the test tube. A) poly-A polymerase B) RNA polymerase III C) RNA polymerase II D) RNA polymerase I
75) You are studying an individual with very low levels of insulin in her blood. Further analysis
indicates that cells of her pancreas are producing normal levels of this protein, but it is accumulating in the cytoplasm rather than being secreted from the cells. Which hypothesis makes the most sense to explain this observation? A) A small deletion has removed the nucleotides that code for the signal sequence at the amino terminus of the protein. B) A missense mutation has caused premature termination during translation of this protein. C) A chromosomal segment that includes the gene for insulin has been inverted. D) A two-base deletion near the middle of the gene has altered the reading frame during translation of the protein. E) A missense mutation has altered the ribosome-binding sequence at the 5' end of the mRNA.
76) A gene that codes for a protein was removed from a eukaryotic cell and inserted into a
prokaryotic cell. Although the gene was successfully transcribed and translated, it produced a different protein than it produced in the eukaryotic cell. What is the most likely explanation? A) There are slight differences in the genetic code for prokaryotes and eukaryotes. B) Unlike eukaryotes, which have three different RNA polymerases, prokaryotes have a single RNA polymerase. C) Eukaryotic genes often contain introns while prokaryotic genes do not. D) Eukaryotic transcripts have a 5' cap while prokaryotic transcripts do not.
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77) Why are duplications of chromosomal regions suspected to be especially important to
evolution? A) Duplications result in increased protein production, and thus make an individual more fit. B) Duplications often result in a large number of point mutations creating lots of immediate genetic diversity on which natural selection can act. C) Duplications result in two copies of a gene or genes, thus allowing one copy to perform as normal and the other to become modified and selected for without immediate deleterious effects. D) Duplications are the primary mechanism of introducing genetic variation to DNA.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 15 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) A 6) B 7) D 8) B 9) A 10) C 11) A 12) D 13) C 14) A 15) E 16) A 17) B 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) C 22) B 23) B 24) D 25) A 26) E 27) C 28) C 29) E 30) A 31) E 32) D 33) A 34) B 35) E 36) D 37) B
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38) B 39) A 40) A 41) D 42) C 43) A 44) A 45) A 46) B 47) C 48) E 49) C 50) C 51) C 52) B 53) C 54) D 55) C 56) D 57) C 58) A 59) A 60) D 61) B 62) D 63) A 64) A 65) B 66) D 67) D 68) A 69) D 70) D 71) C 72) A 73) B 74) D 75) A 76) C 77) C
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Chapter 16 Student name:__________ 1) In order for transcription to be initiated A) DNA polymerase must have access to the DNA double helix and must also be
capable of binding to the gene's promoter. B) RNA polymerase must have access to the DNA double helix and must also be capable of binding to the gene's promoter. C) DNA polymerase must have access to the RNA and must also be capable of binding to the gene's promoter. D) RNA ligase must have access to the DNA double helix and must also be capable of binding to the gene's promoter. E) RNA polymerase must have access to the DNA double helix and also must be capable of binding to the gene's operator.
2) In some organisms, the primary function of a gene in a cell is to participate in regulating the
body as a whole rather than responding to the cell's immediate environment. These organisms would be A) multicellular. B) diploid. C) bacterial. D) prokaryotic.
3) The maintenance of a constant environment in a cell is called_________. A) active transport B) homeostasis C) gene expression D) translation
4) Through control of gene expression, a bacterial cell responds to changing_________
conditions. A) internal B) protein C) environmental D) genetic
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5) A site at the 5' end of a gene where RNA polymerase attaches to initiate transcription is
called a(n) A) operon. B) repressor. C) promoter. D) operator. E) CAP.
6) In multicellular organisms, the mechanism most directly responsible for directing
development and maintaining homeostasis is gene A) mutation. B) duplication. C) deletion. D) regulation.
7) The basic tool of genetic regulation is the ability of certain proteins to bind to specific A) regulatory RNA sequences. B) regulatory DNA sequences. C) repressor parts of the gene. D) promoter parts of the gene. E) enzymes of the cell.
8) The hallmark of multicellular organisms is their ability to A) grow and divide rapidly. B) adjust quickly to outside environment. C) maintain homeostasis. D) quickly synthesize amount and type of enzymes according to available nutrients. E) respond by gene action to oxygen availability.
9) Control of gene expression_________. A) allows bacteria to adapt to changing environments B) is critical for development in multicellular organisms C) allows bacteria to replicate without control D) allows multicellular organisms to maintain homeostasis E) it stops multicellular organisms functioning as a whole
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10) A defining characteristic of eukaryotic organisms is that A) transcription occurs in the cytoplasm and translation in the nucleus. B) transcription occurs in the nucleus and translation in the cytoplasm. C) only have operons to assist in gene expression. D) they carry out protein synthesis only in the presence of the cAMP molecule. E) they use the leucine zipper primarily for the production of the amino acid tryptophan.
11) As a microbiologist you have been asked to investigate the regulation of a novel gene in a
bacterial species. Given what is known about bacteria, the logical place to begin your investigation is A) transcriptional regulation. B) translational regulation. C) alternative splicing regulation. D) regulation by enhancer elements. E) regulation by general transcription factors.
12) Certain proteins can bind to specific DNA regulatory sequences by entering A) the major groove of the DNA and reading the nucleotide base pairs. B) the minor groove of the DNA and reading the nucleotide base pairs. C) the major groove of RNA and reading the nucleotide base pairs. D) DNA's major groove by using DNA polymerase and reading the nucleotide base
pairs. E) DNA's minor groove by using DNA polymerase and reading the nucleotide base pairs.
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13) Regulatory proteins can identify specific sequences on the DNA double helix without
unwinding the helix. This is accomplished by inserting A) RNA promoters into either the major groove or the minor groove of the double helix where the edges of the nitrogen bases protrude. B) DNA-binding motifs into the minor groove of the double helix where the edges of the nitrogen bases protrude. C) DNA polymerase into the major groove of the double helix where the edges of the nitrogen bases protrude. D) RNA polymerase into the major groove of the double helix where the edges of the nitrogen bases protrude. E) DNA-binding motifs into the major groove of the double helix where the edges of the nitrogen bases protrude.
14) You have been asked to design a synthetic DNA motif, able to bind transcriptional regulatory
proteins. The location on this motif that you will design for protein binding is the A) minor groove of the DNA double helix. B) major groove of the DNA double helix. C) phosphate backbone of the DNA double helix. D) sugar backbone of the DNA double helix. E) available hydrogen-bonds of bases in single-stranded DNA.
15) Examples of shapes in regulatory proteins that are used to bind to DNA include_________. A) zinc finger B) TATA box C) helix-turn-helix D) leucine zipper E) Doubledomain
16) The DNA-binding proteins of almost all regulatory proteins use one of a small set of shapes
that enable them to fit into the DNA major groove. These shapes are called A) structural motifs. B) DNA prints. C) fingerprints. D) repressors. E) transcriptional domains.
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17) One of the DNA-binding motifs in many eukaryotic organisms that contains a nearly
identical sequence of 60 amino acids is known as the A) nonhelical zipper. B) leucine zipper. C) zinc finger. D) homeodomain. E) helix-turn-helix.
18) The most common DNA-binding motif is the A) nonhelical zipper. B) leucine zipper. C) zinc finger. D) homeodomain. E) helix-turn-helix.
19) You lead a research team challenged with the task of creating a regulatory protein able to
shut off transcription of a particular gene. You focus your design around a binding site called an operator that is associated with the promotor. The physical location of the operator most likely to affect transcription would be A) upstream of the gene promoter. B) downstream of the gene promoter. C) internal to the gene itself. D) internal to the gene promoter.
20) A protein that regulates transcription by binding to the operator is known as the A) operon. B) repressor. C) promoter. D) operator. E) CAP.
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21) A cluster of functionally-related genes that are regulated together and encoded into a single
mRNA molecule is called a(n) A) operon. B) repressor. C) promoter. D) operator. E) CAP.
22) A site of negative genetic regulation where binding by repressor blocks transcription is the A) operon. B) repressor. C) promoter. D) operator. E) CAP.
23) A bacterial gene regulatory system is likely to have_________. A) a coding sequence B) an operator C) one or more introns D) a motor E) a ribosome recognition site
24) The main form of glucose repression in the lac operon is A) induction. B) repression. C) inducer exclusion. D) the CAP/cAMP system.
25) The enzyme beta-galactosidase acts on lactose to form galactose. In turn, the presence of
galactose leads to expression of the enzymes responsible for the metabolism of galactose. In this case, lactose is serving as a carbon source and as a(n) A) inducer. B) repressor. C) DNA-binding protein. D) operon.
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26) The lactose analog isopropyl-beta-D-thio-galactoside (IPTG) is often used to regulate gene
expression systems in bacteria. IPTG does not act as a substrate for beta-galactosidase, but can bind to, and inactivate, the repressor. In this case, IPTG serves as a(n) A) inducer. B) repressor. C) DNA-binding protein. D) operon.
27) You are studying regulation of a prokaryotic operon. Experiments show that expression of
the operon is increased when levels of biosynthetic product from that pathway are low. Based on this information, what is a likely mode of regulation? A) The product binds a repressor, allowing it to bind the operator. B) The product binds an activator, helping RNA polymerase to bind the promoter. C) The product binds a repressor, preventing it from binding the operator. D) The product binds to the biosynthetic enzymes, blocking them directly.
28) A protein that initiates gene transcription and allows for non-glucose molecules to be used is A) operon. B) repressor. C) promoter. D) operator. E) CAP.
29) The proteins necessary for the use of lactose in E. coli are collectively called the A) lac regulator. B) lac suppressor. C) lac operon. D) lac promoter. E) lac transcriptional operator.
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30) Control of the lac operon and lactose utilization in bacteria is_________. A) not induced in the presence of both glucose and lactose B) only induced when there is glucose but not lactose C) is a negative control, mediated by a repressor D) controlled by the expression of three downstream genes E) preferentially utilizing lactose as a carbon source
31) If a strain of bacteria had a mutation that blocked expression of the lac repressor, what would
you expect as a result? A) The mutant strain would outcompete wildype strains, since it could always utilize lactose. B) The mutant strain would grow at the same rate as wildtype if lactose was not present. C) The mutant strain would waste energy producing enzymes in the absence of lactose. D) The mutant strain would act the same, because it would still require lac activator protein to turn on.
32) When E. coli cells produce the amino acid tryptophan, a cluster of five genes is transcribed
together. This cluster of genes is referred to as the A) trp transcriptional operator. B) trp regulator. C) trp suppressor. D) trp operon. E) trp promoter.
33) If you were given a bacterial strain with a mutation in the promoter region of the trp operon
the most likely effect would be A) interference with RNA polymerase binding. B) to block the repressor from binding. C) derepression of the trp operon. D) enabling the trp operon to be expressed in the absence of tryptophan. E) lack of expression of just the first gene in the operon.
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34) Transcriptional control-proteins increase the rate of transcription by binding to A) mRNA sequences within the DNA. B) tRNA sequences within the DNA. C) operator sequences within the DNA. D) promoter sequences within the DNA. E) enhancer sequences within the DNA.
35) Enhancers are the binding sites for the A) promoters of DNA synthesis. B) suppressor factors. C) coactivation factors. D) mediator factors. E) specific transcription factors.
36) In eukaryotes, specific transcription factors have two distinct domains: A) a DNA-binding domain and a RNA-binding domain. B) a DNA-binding domain and an activation domain. C) a DNA-binding domain and a repressor domain. D) a DNA-binding domain and an enhancer domain. E) a DNA-binding domain and an operator domain.
37) Your research project involves the characterization of a recently identified transcription
factor. As part of your project, you want to determine if this transcription factor binds directly to any of the general transcription factors. Unfortunately, you are having trouble expressing the full-length protein. What approach may help achieve your research goal? A) You must find a way to express the full-length protein, since transcription factor functions do not lie in separate domains. B) Identify the RNA that mediates the protein-protein binding. C) Express and purify only the DNA-binding domain, and test for binding. D) Express and purify only the activation domain, and test for binding.
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38) The progesterone receptor (PR) is a steroid hormone receptor and transcription factor. The
protein SRC-1, which does not bind DNA by itself, can bind to PR and increase expression of genes regulated by PR. Based on this information, SRC-1 is best described as a(n) A) coactivator. B) inducer. C) general transcription factor. D) specific transcription factor.
39) The TFIID complex is formed by A) TATA-binding protein TBP and TAFs. B) TATA-binding protein TBP, TAFs and RNA pol II. C) TAFs and the core promoter. D) TATA-binding protein and activators.
40) The eukaryotic transcription initiation complex is_________. A) transcription of virtually all genes transcribed by RNA pol II requiring the same suite
of general factors B) responsible for highly regulated transcription levels C) only associated with RNA polymerase I D) interactive with activators through DNA looping E) a basal factor associated with RNA pol II after positioning RNA pol II at the start site
41) Many factors bind around the core promoter to form the eukaryotic initation complex, but the
most important one is _________, which directly binds the TATA box. A) TFIIA B) TFIIB C) TFIID D) TFIIE E) TFIIF F) TFIIH G) TAF
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42) You are working to identify enhancer regions of a particular gene. The best place to look is A) immediately upstream of the promoter. B) immediately downstream of the promoter. C) primarily upstream of the promoter, possibly some distance away. D) primarily downstream of the promoter, including the exons of the coding region.
43) You are studying the effects of specific transcription factors on the activation of gene
expression. You notice that one particular transcription factor binds far away from the promoter of its target gene. What can explain this? A) The transcription factor transcribes small RNAs that then bind to the promoter and activate the gene's expression. B) The transcription factor tags the enhancer with ubiquitin to stimulate transcription. C) DNA looping brings the transcription factor closer to the promoter and initiates gene transcription. D) RNA looping brings the transcription factor closer to the promoter and initiates gene transcription.
44) Vertebrate cells possess a protein that binds to clusters of 5-methylcytosine and ensures the
gene will stay in the "off" position. This control of gene regulation is a result of A) translation. B) enhancer expression. C) methylation. D) promoter expression. E) operator suppression.
45) Histones that are tightly wound by DNA and are the basic unit of chromatin are called A) operons. B) nucleosomes. C) protein clusters. D) repressor genes. E) facilitators sites.
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46) Within its core a nucleosome contains_________ histones. A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 64
47) In vertebrates, DNA methylation - the addition of a methyl group to DNA nucleotides -
ensures that A) the gene functions without interruption. B) no errors will be made during transcription. C) the nucleosome will quickly form, which assists in mRNA formation. D) once that gene is transcribed, the mRNA is saved and used over and over again. E) once a gene is turned off, it will remain off.
48) DNA methylation is the only known natural modification of DNA. It affects A) adenine bases. B) guanine bases. C) cytosine bases. D) thymine bases.
49) Elucidation of the histone code might A) allow us to turn specific genes on or off. B) allow the determination of nucleosome composition. C) lead to chromatin remodeling. D) allow us to control translation.
50) If you were able to look very closely at a portion of DNA and find methylated histones, you
would A) B) C) D)
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51) The p300/CBP (CREB-binding protein) proteins are histone acetyltransferases that help
regulate the transcription of many genes. Based on this information you can conclude that these proteins A) acetylate purines. B) remodel chromatin. C) recruit helicases. D) physically connect activator proteins.
52) You work for a pharmaceutical company that designs small RNAs, used to control
expression of disease genes. The primary focus area of your research should be A) transcriptional repression. B) transcriptional activation. C) translational repression. D) translational activation.
53) Although the specific mechanism of RNA interference has not been fully defined, it involves A) double stranded RNA interference with mRNA. B) double stranded RNA interference with DNA. C) double stranded DNA interference with mRNA. D) double stranded mRNA interference with DNA.
54) Small RNAs can regulate gene expression. One type, called micro RNA (miRNA), acts by
binding directly to A) mRNA to prevent translation. B) tRNA to prevent transcription. C) mRNA to prevent transcription. D) tRNA to prevent translation.
55) The enzyme dicer chops dsRNA molecules into small pieces of A) mRNA and miRNA. B) miRNA and siRNA. C) siRNA and rRNA. D) mRNA and siRNA.
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56) The primary transcripts in eukaryotes are most accurately described as A) composed of RNA polymerase and associated histones. B) having the exons removed and the introns retained for translation. C) a faithful copy of the entire gene including exons and introns. D) an exact copy of the gene, but the introns have been removed. E) an RNA copy, but the noncoding exons and introns have been removed.
57) You are studying the function of a recently identified gene in C. elegans. You perform
genetic screens for several months in an attempt to isolate loss-of-function gene mutations, but your efforts are unsuccessful. Your advisor suggests you try another approach to eliminate gene function. The best technique to accomplish this goal would be A) to design a repressor to bind to the operon of this gene. B) use a histone deacetylase to induce a transcriptionally inactive state. C) use a C. elegans strain with a homozygous TFIID mutation to prevent the translation initiation complex from forming. D) use RNA interference to prevent mRNA translation.
58) Eukaryotic cell mRNA transcripts can remain in the cell for hours because they are A) stable. B) long. C) isolated. D) analogous.
59) The gene encoding apolipoprotein B exists in two isoforms, APOB100 and APOB48. These
two forms are produced as a result of A) tissue-specific expression. B) a gene mutation that results in a stop codon. C) RNA editing. D) alternative splicing.
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60) Production of the iron-storing protein ferritin is regulated by aconitase, which binds to a 30-
nucleotide sequence at the beginning of the ferritin mRNA and interferes with ribosome binding. Aconitase must be a A) transcription repressor protein. B) translation repressor protein. C) RNA interference protein. D) translation initiation protein.
61) What is the difference between a gene that is derepressed and one that is induced? A) Genes that are derepressed are turned on because an inducer molecule is present. By
comparison, a gene that is induced is turned on because a repressor protein is bound to the operator. B) A derepressed gene is turned off and an induced gene is activated to be expressed. C) A gene that is derepressed is turned on because a repressor protein is not bound without its cofactor. By comparison, a gene that is induced is turned on because an inducer molecule prevents binding of the repressor. D) There is no difference between a gene that is derepressed and one that is induced.
62) In your research, you have discovered that Protein X is often ubiquitinated in people with a
certain disease. What would you predict about levels of Protein X in these patients? A) Levels of Protein X will be low due to degradation in the proteasome. B) Levels of Protein X will be the same, just carrying a ubiquitin tag. C) Levels of Protein X will be increased due to transcriptional activation. D) Levels of Protein X will be decreased due to negative feedback on transcription. E) Levels of Protein X will be increased due to protection from degradation.
63) The ubiquitin-proteasome pathway_________. A) is used to regulate expression of a number of cell surface receptors B) requires only one molecule of ATP to target a protein C) targets proteins in a stepwise fashion via ubiquitin ligase adding ubiquitin residues to
the protein D) is used to digest macromolecules E) does not destroy the ubiquitin moiety, but rather cleaves it off for reuse
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 16 1) B 2) A 3) B 4) C 5) C 6) D 7) B 8) C 9) [A, B, D] 10) B 11) A 12) A 13) E 14) B 15) [A, C, D] 16) A 17) D 18) E 19) B 20) B 21) A 22) D 23) [A, B, E] 24) C 25) A 26) A 27) A 28) E 29) C 30) [A, C, D] 31) C 32) D 33) A 34) E 35) E 36) B 37) D
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38) A 39) A 40) [A, B, D] 41) C 42) C 43) C 44) C 45) B 46) D 47) E 48) C 49) A 50) C 51) B 52) C 53) A 54) A 55) B 56) C 57) D 58) A 59) C 60) B 61) C 62) A 63) [A, C, E]
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Chapter 17 Student name:__________ 1) The most recent techniques developed in the biological sciences allow the manipulation of
DNA with the ultimate goal of intervening directly with the_________ fate of organisms. A) genetic B) developmental C) adult D) mitotic
2) Small circular, extrachromosomal DNA segments are known as_________. A) vectors B) plasmids C) clones D) RNA
3) Enzymes that cleave DNA at specific sites are called_________ . A) vectors B) peptidases C) restriction endonucleases D) DNAses
4) Single-stranded complementary tails that are produced by restriction digestion are called
_________ ends. A) sticky B) orphaned C) vectors D) 5'
5) Bacterial plasmids and artificial chromosomes are used as_________ to insert foreign DNA
into host cells and create recombinant genomes. A) clones B) vectors C) endonucleases D) subunits
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6) You want to insert your favorite gene, which has been digested with Ncol endonuclease on
both ends, into a vector. Ncol recognizes the DNA sequence C*CATGG. The vector you want to use contains many endonuclease recognition sites, but does not include an Ncol site. Which restriction endonuclease would be the most suitable replacement to digest the vector? A) Sphl - G*CATGC B) Sunl - C*GTACG C) Kpnl - GGTAC*C D) CViAll - C*ATG
7) Single-stranded ends generated by the same restriction enzyme are complementary to each
other. They can be joined together A) even when the source of the DNA is different. B) only when the source of the DNA is the same. C) but the "sticky ends" will most likely have to be modified. D) but the hybridization of the two ends may cause a problem with cloning. E) only if the subunits have been methylated.
8) Two strands of DNA that have been cut by an endonuclease can be sealed together by a(n) A) polymerase enzyme. B) ligase enzyme. C) exonuclease enzyme. D) protease enzyme. E) methylase enzyme.
9) Which components are required in plasmids? A) A selectable marker, usually antibiotic resistance B) A bacterial artificial chromosome C) One or more unique restriction sites where foreign DNA can be added D) An origin of replication to allow it to replicate in E. coli independently of the host
chromosome
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10) Restriction enzymes are A) proteases. B) lipases. C) endonucleases. D) exonucleases.
11) Identify a sequence that is most likely to be recognized by a restriction enzyme. A) CGATGC B) CCCTTT C) TGGCCA D) TCATCA
12) You digest DNA from the frog Xenopus laevis with the enzyme NotI that produces sticky
DNA ends. You can ligate your DNA to _________. A) blunt AluI ends from Xenopus laevis B) sticky NotI ends from Xenopus laevis C) blunt AluI ends from bacteria D) sticky NotI ends from bacteria E) sticky EcoRI ends from Xenopus laevis F) sticky EcoRI ends from bacteria
13) BamHI is a Type II restriction enzyme that recognizes the sequence 5' G*GATCC 3', and
cuts between the two Gs, leaving a 5' overhang. If you were to digest DNA with BamHI, what would be the sequence of the overhanging sticky ends of the two strands? A) 5' GATCC 3' and 5' GATCC 3' B) 5' GATCC 3' and 5' GGATC 3' C) 5' GATC 3' and 5' GATC 3' D) 5' GATC 3' and 5' CTAG 3' E) 5' G 3' and 5' G 3' F) 5' G 3' and 5' C 3'
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14) Which of the following types of information would be most useful in an effort to move a
DNA fragment from one plasmid vector to another, using molecular cloning techniques? A) DNA fingerprint data B) Sequence of PCR primers C) Data from cloning of Dolly the sheep D) Restriction maps of the plasmids
15) A fourth type of restriction enzyme is identified that cleaves at precise locations like a type II
enzyme, but it also occasionally makes mistakes and cuts elsewhere. Would this type of enzyme be a useful enzyme to use in molecular cloning? A) Yes, because it cuts correctly sometimes. B) No, because it is a precise enzyme. C) No, because cutting mistakes could lead to incorrect cloning. D) Yes, because cutting mistakes don't matter in molecular cloning.
16) A 6.85 kb EcoRI fragment of DNA is shown below. The location of several restriction sites is
indicated. Scale is approximate.
McGraw Hill If you were to completely digest this fragment of DNA with PstI, how many pieces of DNA would you obtain? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
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17) A 6.85 kb EcoRI fragment of DNA is shown below. The location of several restriction sites is
indicated. Scale is approximate.
©McGraw-Hill Education If you were to digest this DNA with PstI, which length of DNA fragment would migrate the fastest on an agarose gel? A) 803 B) 2622 C) 3425 D) 235
18) Gel_________ is a process that separates DNA or protein fragments according to their size,
by causing them to migrate within a gel in response to an electric field. A) duplication B) blotting C) electrophoresis D) migration
19) A gel electrophoresis is performed, but when the gel imager is used, no bands appear. The
researcher might have forgotten to _________. A) add electric current B) add antibody C) ligate the DNA fragments together D) include DNA dye E) include an RNA probe
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20) All of the following involve molecular biology techniques except A) ligating DNA fragments together. B) using restriction enzymes to cut specific sequences of DNA. C) using a DNA polymerase to copy DNA via PCR. D) creation of Okazaki fragments.
21) An enzyme that has been isolated from retroviruses and is used to generate cDNA is A) transverse ligase. B) reverse transcriptase. C) reverse endonuclease. D) recombinant RNase. E) RNA polymerase.
22) The most common way to follow bacterial transformation with a plasmid is by A) manufacturing the bacterial protein. B) conferring antibiotic resistance. C) separating the altered cell surface. D) making the cells immortal. E) altering the physical appearance of the cells.
23) Which of the following two enzymes are needed to construct a cDNA library? A) Reverse transcriptase and DNA ligase B) Reverse transcriptase and Taq polymerase C) DNA ligase and Taq polymerase D) Taq polymerase and RNA polymerase
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24) Investigators have found a new species of bacteria that lives under both aerobic and
anaerobic conditions. They hypothesize that different genes are expressed in each condition. Which experiment could test this hypothesis and identify important genes? A) Completely sequence the genome of the bacteria in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions B) Collect mRNA from both anaerobic and aerobic conditions and generate two cDNA libraries C) Measure levels of RNA polymerase in both conditions D) Design primers to a specific region of the genome and sequence this region during both anaerobic and aerobic conditions
25) Both DNA replication and PCR require: A) DNA polymerase. B) DNA helicase. C) a DNA template. D) a thermocycler machine. E) plasmid DNA.
26) The PCR technique requires a DNA polymerase from an organism that can endure high heat,
such as Thermus aquaticus. Which step of the protocol makes the heat-stability most necessary? A) Synthesis B) Primer annealing C) Denaturation D) Antibody binding
27) A technique used to amplify a desired piece of DNA is A) gel electrophoresis. B) RFLP. C) PCR. D) plasmid replication. E) Northern Blot.
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28) You have discovered a very small amount of DNA from an ancient organism that you want
to save and study. What is the very first thing you should do to allow you to study this DNA in the lab? A) RT-PCR B) Gel electrophoresis C) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) D) Insert the DNA into a vector
29) Three scientists are using different forms of PCR for their research. Abby wants to determine
changes in gene expression levels in a tissue, so she uses _________. Bob is trying to extract genetic information from a wooly mammoth fossil, so he uses _________. Chris needs to express a gene in bacteria that matches the form expressed in kidney cells, so she uses _________. A) quantitative RT-PCR; PCR; RT-PCR B) PCR; quantitative RT-PCR; RT-PCR C) RT-PCR; PCR; quantitative RT-PCR D) RT-PCR; quantitative RT-PCR; PCR E) quantitative RT-PCR; RT-PCR; PCR
30) You are the scientific consultant for a television show about forensic analysis. In an
upcoming episode, investigators will compare the DNA of a suspect and a DNA sample collected from the victim’s fingernails. You are to write up a brief explanation of the technique required for comparing the DNA. Which technique should you explain? A) DNA fingerprinting B) Fluorescent in situ hybridization C) RNAi D) RT-PCR
31) Prior to using PCR to introduce mutations into DNA in vitro, what was a common method of
mutagenesis used by scientists? A) Self-fertilization of plants or inbreeding of animal models B) Chemicals to induce mutations C) Physical manipulation of DNA (e.g. vortexing) D) Using only old parents to set crosses in plants and animals
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32) Which component of the PCR mix do researchers manipulate to induce a site-specific
mutation? A) Primers B) Taq polymerase C) DNA template D) Reverse transcriptase
33) Select the experiments that can be characterized as reverse genetics: A) Generation and analysis of a knockout mouse B) Random mutagenesis of an organism, then selecting mutants by phenotype C) RNA interference of a gene in C. elegans D) Using reverse transcriptase to create a cDNA library
34) Which type of disease is LEAST likely to be able to be treated using genome editing with
TALEN or CRISPR? A) Trisomy-21 B) Leukemia C) Cystic fibrosis D) Huntingtons
35) Organisms containing DNA from an outside source are called A) transcribed organisms. B) compound organisms. C) hybrid organisms. D) plasmid organisms. E) transgenic organisms.
36) In some ciliate protozoa, the codons UAA and UAG encode glutamate, rather than acting as
STOP codons. How does this compare to other species? A) This is unusual – almost all species share the same “universal” genetic code. B) This is typical – every species has its own unique genetic code. C) This is not unusual – while most species have a similar genetic code, there are often variations for some of the amino acids.
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37) A researcher wants to create a mouse model for a disease, to allow her team to study possible
therapies. The disease is known to be caused by a small deletion that removes a certain gene. Which type of mouse would be the best choice for this purpose? A) Knockout mouse B) Knockin mouse C) Conditional knockout mouse activated by a drug D) Mutant derived by traditional forward genetics screen E) Tissue-specific gene knockout
38) A key difference between transforming plant cells and human cells is A) genes to be expressed in human cells require a eukaryotic promoter, and genes to be
expressed in plants don't. B) DNA cannot be introduced into human cells. C) Agrobacterium is commonly used as a tool to directly transform plant cells but not human cells. D) a vector is needed to introduce DNA into human cells and not plant cells.
39) The _________ from Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used in genetic engineering involving
crop plant genes. A) restriction endonucleases B) DNA C) Ti vector D) Ti plasmid
40) Your city is considering a proposal to build a new algae-based biofuel plant. What benefits
would this have over traditional fossil fuels? A) The kelp fronds would provide habitat for endangered sea otters. B) It contributes less carbon to the atmosphere overall. C) It is a renewable resource. D) Biofuel doesn’t need to be burned to provide energy. E) The system could be paired with wastewater treatment. F) The algae can be filtered from the water and used for fuel without refinement.
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41) After an oil spill, bacteria that can metabolize hydrocarbons are released for bioremediation.
After a month, two areas affected by the spill show different levels of improvement. Which factor should be measured to determine the difference in effectiveness between the two sites? A) Temperature B) Oxygen levels C) pH D) Salinity E) Nutrient levels F) All of these factors may play a role.
42) A certain wastewater treatment plant uses aerobic bacteria, anaerobic bacteria, and
archaebacteria during secondary treatment of sewage. Unfortunately, during a bad blizzard the aerated tanks froze, killing the microbes inside. What is likely to result? A) Floc levels will diminish. B) Methane production will go down. C) Solid material will not be effectively filtered out. D) Floc will not be effectively filtered out.
43) A commercially significant human protein now produced in bacteria is A) hemoglobin. B) gamma globulins. C) AZT. D) human insulin. E) HIV vaccine.
44) A rare disease is now understood to be caused by a single mutant gene. When the researcher
learns that the gene encodes a _________, he says “Oh good! We may be able to treat the disease with recombinant protein produced in E. coli and delivered by injection.” A) protein hormone B) cell-surface receptor C) ribozyme D) component of chromatin E) mitochondrial enzyme
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45) A medical researcher is trying to develop a diagnostic technique for a disease which is
characterized by replication of a particular chromosomal region. What would be the most appropriate technique? A) FISH B) Gene chip C) Genome sequencing D) White blood cell count
46) An immunoassay was developed to rapidly diagnose patients infected with an emerging
virus. However, the researchers discovered that some individuals were producing false negatives when tested, despite being infected with the virus. What might explain this? A) Rapid evolution of the viral antigen B) Changes in the length of the viral DNA C) Number of genome copies carried in each virion D) Changes in the antibody produced by the virus
47) Crop plants have been protected from certain insects by the addition of a gene for a specific
insect toxin from the bacterium A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens. B) Bacillus thuringiensis. C) Herpes simplex. D) Pseudomonas. E) tobacco mosaic.
48) A farmer is growing glyphosate-resistant transgenic soybeans. What are you unlikely to see
in those fields during the growing season? A) A tilling machine B) Caterpillars C) Field mice D) Irrigation
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49) Which genes were incorporated into the genome of Golden Rice? A) Daffodil phytoene synthase gene B) Bacterial carotene desaturase gene C) Bacterial beta-galactosidase D) Daffodil lycopene beta-cyclase gene
50) A friend makes the argument that transgenic crops have only been used to enrich large
corporations, not to improve people’s health. What is the best counterexample? A) Golden Rice B) Bt maize C) Glyphosate-resistant soybeans D) Cre-Lox
51) Imagine that a very unusual animal species had the ability to make its own aromatic amino
acids using a 5-enolpyruvylshikimate-3-phosphate (EPSP) synthase enzyme similar to that of plants. What would happen if this animal foraged in a field of glyphosate-resistant plants? A) No effect B) They would become sick from the glyphosate that was sprayed on the plants C) They would also become glyphosate-resistant D) They would no longer need to make their own aromatic amino acids
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 17 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) 6)
A B C A B A What is the goal of digesting both the gene and the vector with restriction enzymes? What must be true of the DNA ends for the gene to be able to insert and ligate into the vector successfully? Can you draw out the results of each enzyme to help answer this question?
7) A 8) B 9) [A, C, D] 10) C 11) C 12) [B, D] 13) C 14) D 15) C 16) C 17) A 18) C 19) [A, D] 20) D 21) B 22) B 23) A 24) B 25) [A, C] 26) C 27) C 28) C 29) A 30) A 31) B 32) A
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33) [A, C] 34) A 35) E 36) A 37) A 38) C 39) D 40) [B, C, E] 41) F 42) A 43) D 44) A 45) A 46) A 47) B 48) A 49) [A, B, D] 50) A 51) B
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Chapter 18 Student name:__________ 1) The relative location of genes on a chromosome as determined by recombination frequencies
is illustrated in a_________ map. A) DNA B) genetic C) chromosomal D) physical
2) Using actual landmarks within DNA sequences, scientists can generate a_________ map. A) genetic B) DNA C) physical D) chromosomal
3) Distances on a genetic map are measured in_________ units. A) centromere B) DNA C) dalton D) centimorgan
4) Recombination frequency between genes can be used to generate a A) genetic map. B) physical map. C) restriction map. D) haplotype map.
5) To avoid confusion and facilitate ease of data interpretation, researchers working on cloned
DNA from the same species use A) restriction fragment length polymorphisms. B) shotgun sequencing. C) sequenced-tagged sites. D) clone by clone sequencing. E) consensus sequencing.
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6) Sequences of DNA assembled by identifying overlaps among smaller DNA segments are
known as A) single strand polymorphisms. B) synteny. C) draft sequences. D) the proteome. E) a contig.
7) You have been asked to construct a physical map of the baboon genome. What would be
helpful in this task? A) Chromosome maps and STSs B) BLAST and ENCODE data C) Gene linkage data D) Microarrays and SAGE
8) Both dideoxy terminator and next-generation sequencing methods require a genomic library
to be constructed prior to sequencing the DNA of interest. ⊚ true ⊚ false
9) The sequencing method that cuts DNA segments into fragments, arranges those fragments
based on overlapping nucleotide sequences, and then clones these fragments is called A) shotgun sequencing. B) clone-by-clone sequencing. C) RFLP sequencing. D) consensus sequencing.
10) The sequencing method that cuts the DNA of an entire chromosome into small fragments and
then clones these fragments is called A) shotgun sequencing. B) clone-by-clone sequencing. C) RFLP sequencing. D) consensus sequencing.
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11) A defining characteristic of draft sequences is that they have A) many gaps in regions of highly repetitive DNA. B) less than 1 error in 10,000 nucleotides. C) been found in various proteomes across the eukaryote life forms. D) been produced by alternative splicing. E) several problems, the main one being their contiguous DNA fragments.
12) A large portion (45%) of the human genome is composed of A) introns. B) exons. C) templates. D) transposons. E) pseudogenes.
13) When comparing the genomes of prokaryotes verse eukaryotes, it can be accurately stated
that A) B) C) D)
eukaryotic genomes are larger than prokaryotic genomes. eukaryotic genomes are smaller than prokaryotic genomes. the size of the organism determines the size of the genome. larger and more complex organisms have more genes than smaller, less complex organisms.
14) The majority of DNA in a human can be described as A) composed of short interspersed elements. B) noncoding. C) simple sequence repeats. D) segmental duplications. E) structural.
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15) Given a sequencing reaction length of approximately 500 successive nucleotides, what is the
absolute minimum number of sequencing reactions needed to determine the complete human genome, excluding overlap and redundancy? A) 3.1 billion B) 6200 C) 12.4 million D) 6.2 million
16) The organism with the largest relative genome size is_________ and the organism with the
highest number of actual genes is_________. A) rice; human B) human; human C) fruit fly; human D) yeast; yeast E) human; rice
17) Humans are diploid organisms, containing two sets of chromosomes. How many sets of
chromosomes does wheat, Triticum aestivum, have? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 E) 8
18) Which of the following were challenges that had to be overcome to sequence the genome of
wheat, Triticum aestivum? A) Lack of advanced sequencing technology B) Large genome size (~5 times as large as human genome) C) High mutation rate of wheat genes D) Lack of interest/support in sequencing the genome E) An abundance of repetitive DNA
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19) You are studying a novel protein. To learn more about it, you performed a screen in yeast to
identify proteins that could interact with it. From the screen you got a clone for a second gene. You had the clone sequenced, and you translated the gene sequence on your computer. What is the next logical step to learn more about the function of these two proteins? A) Run a BLAST search. B) Identify the intron/exon organization. C) Localize the gene to a specific chromosomal region. D) Search the human genome sequence for your clone.
20) Your research group has recently determined the complete genomic sequence of the
organism Examus biologisium. You instruct your group to begin sequence annotation, which involves A) shotgun cloning. B) the alignment of contigs. C) the identification of open reading frames. D) the construction of a genetic map.
21) Almost every cell within one organism has the same genome. In what way(s) can these cells
differ from each other? A) Number of chromosomes B) Ratio of organelles C) Proteins produced D) Number of genes in the DNA E) Surface area of cell membrane
22) An accurate and comprehensive description of pseudogenes must include the statement
that_________. A) pseudogenes may have some gene-like features such as a promoter and splice sites B) pseudogenes encode proteins, but the translated proteins are non-functional C) pseudogenes can provide insight into the evolutionary history of the related functional gene D) every pseudogene has a similar DNA sequence to some functional gene E) all pseudogenes appear to transcribe other genes when they only transcribe one type of genetic information
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23) Silent copies of genes that have been inactivated by mutations are called A) pseudogenes. B) clones. C) exons. D) introns.
24) A human gene is composed of numerous fragments of protein-encoding information known
as_________. A) DNA B) mRNA C) exons D) introns
25) Mobile bits of DNA that can jump from one location on a chromosome to another location
are called A) simple sequence repeats. B) transposons. C) exons. D) introns. E) pseudogenes.
26) Long interspersed elements (LINEs) are a type of A) pseudogene. B) proteome. C) exon. D) intron. E) transposon.
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27) In your research, you are comparing the transcriptome and the proteome for two related
species. One gene in species B has a similar transcript but a much smaller protein than in species A, and the protein seems to be nonfunctional. What do you predict about this gene? A) It is a pseudogene. B) It will have an increased number of persistant mutations in species B. C) It probably has a STOP codon early in the coding region. D) It probably has a defect in the enhancer region. E) It probably is not methylated correctly.
28) Some regions of chromosomes remain highly condensed, tightly coiled, and untranscribed
throughout the cell cycle. These regions are referred to as A) transposable elements. B) single sequence repeats. C) noncoding DNA. D) short interspersed elements. E) constitutive heterchromatin.
29) Non-coding DNA regions within a gene are referred to as A) introns. B) exons. C) templates. D) transposons. E) pseudogenes.
30) Groups of related, but distinctly different genes that appear to have arisen from a single
ancestral gene are referred to as A) segmental duplications. B) pseudogenes. C) tandem clusters. D) multigene families. E) expressed sequences.
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31) The reason segmental duplications pose a logistical challenge in the proper alignment of
DNA sequences is that they A) are inherently repetitive. B) contain large numbers of LINEs, which interfere with sequence annotation. C) interfere with BLAST analysis. D) are often found in areas of constitutive heterochromatin.
32) The ENCODE project seeks to A) sequence the genomes of all animals. B) sequence the DNA of all organisms. C) identify the coding sequences of human DNA. D) identify the functional elements of the human genome. E) identify the proteins encoded by the human genome.
33) The current estimates of the ENCODE project for percent functionality of the human genome
based on the ENCODE definition of functionality is_________ the estimate of functionality based on the selected-effect functionality definition. A) greater than B) less than C) equal to
34) The important advances stemming from comparative genomics include the ability
to_________. A) draw particular conclusions about species B) draw general conclusions about evolution C) develop a haplotype map D) distinguish how proteins bind to receptors E) infer function about an unsequenced genome using synteny
35) The inclusive term that describes all of the DNA in the nucleus of a cell is its A) genome. B) chromosome. C) gene. D) proteome.
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36) Rice and its grain relatives, maize, barley, and wheat, diverged from a common ancestor 50
million years ago. However, the chromosomes of these plants demonstrate extensive conserved arrangements of segments. This phenomenon is called A) linkage disequilibrium. B) single nucleotide polymorphisms. C) contig. D) synteny. E) expressed sequence equilibrium.
37) In vertebrates, the family of myogenic regulatory factors (MRFs) plays a major role in
muscle development. This family consists of four related genes which have distinct but overlapping functions. This gene family is represented by only a single gene in Drosophila, called nautilus. You want to know whether nautilus plays a role like all of the MRFs put together, or more like one in particular. What is a quick and easy way to begin to address this question? A) Compare the DNA and protein sequences of all the genes to determine if nautilus is more similar to one MRF than another. B) Use a DNA microarray to compare gene activation patterns between nautilus and the MRFs. C) Compare the proteome of a cell expressing nautilus to the those of cells expressing each of the MRFs in turn. D) Generate four transgenic Drosophila strains that express the MRFs in a mutant nautilus background.
38) As a scientist working for an anti-bioterrorism task force, you are asked to evaluate some
biological samples for the presence of Yersinia pestis, the organism that causes the plague. After confirming that the samples do contain Y. pestis, you instruct your team to begin sequencing the strain. Since the genome sequence of Y. pestis is already known, why would sequencing this strain be useful? A) To provide better data for the genome database B) To establish the course of infection, and determine whether the strain is altered by causing infection C) To help determine the source of the strain, and learn whether it has been genetically engineered D) To create a vaccine for this particular strain
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39) How did the rice genome project influence other genome projects? A) It was the first genome sequenced, so it proved it could be done. B) It sped up the genome analysis of other cereal crops, due to synteny. C) It sped up the analysis of the human genome, since rice has even more genes. D) It helped analysis of all genomes, since it was the basis of the ENCODE algorithms.
40) Microarrays are created by robotically placing DNA on to a microscope slide and probing
with A) B) C) D) E)
RNA from the tissue of interest. another DNA from the tissue of interest. SNPs from the tissue of interest. STSs from the tissue of interest. clone-by-clone sequencing.
41) The best technique for detecting chromosomal abnormalities is A) EST. B) FISH. C) STS. D) SNP.
42) As the director of a new nonprofit functional genomics research center, it is your job to
oversee the set up of each laboratory necessary for achieving the center's research goals. Therefore, you plan to include a(n) _________. A) DNA microarray facility B) proteomics lab C) lab to improve sequencing speed and cost D) mutagenesis facility E) ancient DNA laboratory
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43) Your research team has been asked to quantify levels of cellular RNAs in rats before and
after exercise. The primary focus of your work will be to analyze the A) proteome. B) spliceosome. C) nucleosome. D) different RNA motifs. E) transcriptome.
44) A pharmaceutical company is developing a new drug to treat a rare disease. They need to
determine which of the cell’s proteins can bind the drug. Which tool can help them survey the proteome for drug interactions? A) Protein microarray B) DNA microarray C) SAGE D) ENCODE E) Using a monoclonal antibody
45) In the United States it is currently legal for a company to patent genes. ⊚ true ⊚ false
46) The most ethical decisions for usage of genomic data and technology, like sequencing human
genomes for customized treatments and constructing deadly pathogens for study, are based on A) consensus in the scientific community. B) oversight from governmental agencies. C) the directives of large financial donors. D) what can safely be achieved in the laboratory. E) subjectivity.
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47) Based on shared genetic variation in humans, scientists have been able to estimate the timing
of significant population expansion events in history. How long ago do scientists think some subpopulations in Asia, Europe, and the Americas have had bottlenecks of total population sizes in only the low thousands? A) less than 1,000 years ago B) 5,000 to 10,000 years ago C) 15,000 to 20,000 years ago D) 30,000 years ago E) 90,000 to 100,000 years ago
48) You could safely expect there to be millions of single-nucleotide differences in the genome
of yourself as compared to any other random student. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 18 1) B 2) C 3) D 4) A 5) C 6) E 7) A 8) FALSE 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) D 16) E 17) D 18) [B, E] 19) A 20) C 21) [B, C, E] 22) [A, C, D] 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) E 27) [A, B, C] 28) E 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) D 33) A 34) [A, B, E] 35) A 36) D 37) A
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38) C 39) B 40) A 41) B 42) [A, B, D] 43) E 44) A 45) FALSE 46) [A, B, D, E] 47) C 48) TRUE
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Chapter 19 Student name:__________ 1) A fertilized egg is called a(n) A) zygote. B) ovule. C) oocyte. D) blastocyst.
2) During which initial period of division in a zygote is there no increase in the overall size of
the embryo? A) Mitosis B) Cleavage C) Meiosis D) Fertilization
3) A zygote is a fertilized egg formed by an egg and a sperm. The zygote undergoes many
mitotic events as it develops into a solid ball of cells (i.e., blastomeres) called a blastula. What changes occur in this early cleavage? A) During the initial stages of cleavage, there is a tremendous increase in the number and size of blastomeres. B) During the initial stages of cleavage, there is a tremendous decrease in the number and size of blastomeres. C) During the initial stages of cleavage, there is a tremendous increase in the number of cells coupled with a decrease in the size of the cells composing the developing organism. D) During the initial stages of cleavage, there is no increase in the number of cells of the developing organism, but the size of the cells increases.
4) A zygote initially divides into smaller cells, each called a(n) A) blastomere. B) gastrula. C) neurula. D) cleavage cell. E) embryonic cell.
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5) In contrast to the cell cycle of adult somatic cells, the dividing cells of an early embryo lack
which cell cycle stage(s)? A) M B) S C) and D) interphase
6) Caenorhabditis elegans is an organism with exactly 959 somatic cells. This organism is a(n) A) fruit fly. B) earthworm. C) nematode. D) angiosperm. E) fungus.
7) Check all of the features of C. elegans that make it a great model system to study
developmental processes. A) C. elegans is ubiquitous in the wild B) C. elegans is small and fast growing C) A complete lineage map exists D) The organism is transparent E) C. elegans is useful in experimental genetics
8) A complete cell lineage map exists for A) C. elegans. B) Drosophila. C) mouse. D) human.
9) Plants have special groups of self-renewing cells called A) root cells. B) chloroplasts. C) cast cells. D) meristems.
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10) Plants do not utilize the process of cell migration in their development. Instead plants utilize A) the process of building themselves inwardly via the meristems present in the
developing plant tissues. B) the process of building themselves outwardly via the meristems present in the developing plant tissues. C) the process of building themselves with epidermal tissues, which eventually become ground tissues, which can then begin the process of photosynthesis. D) the process of building themselves by using their vascular tissues to form meristems, which promotes normal development in the plant.
11) In Drosophila, the cells created by cleavage contain different developmental signals from the
egg called cytoplasmic A) stem cells. B) signals. C) determinants. D) junctions.
12) What can be said about animal and vegetal poles? A) When animal pole cells are cultured with vegetal pole cells, some of the animal pole
cells become mesoderm. B) When animal pole cells are cultured with vegetal pole cells, some of the vegetal pole cells become mesoderm. C) Isolated animal cells develop as endoderm. D) Isolated vegetal cells develop as ectoderm.
13) In general, the blastomeres of the_________ form the ectodermal tissues. A) animal pole B) vegetal pole C) equator region D) membrane
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14) In general, the blastomeres of the_________ form the endodermal tissues. A) animal pole B) vegetal pole C) equator region D) membrane
15) What can be said about Drosophila development? A) Paternal genes determine the initial course of development after fertilization. B) Zygotic genes determine the initial course of development after fertilization. C) Maternal genes determine the initial course of development after fertilization. D) Syncytial blastoderm genes determine the initial course of development after
fertilization.
16) A muscle precursor cell expressing the MyoD1 gene would be considered to be A) pluripotent. B) determined. C) differentiated. D) totipotent.
17) If cells from a wing are transplanted to the leg prior to their determination, into what will
they likely develop? A) Wing cells B) Leg cells C) A mixture of wing and leg cells D) Cannot be determined E) Undifferentiated cells
18) In a 32-cell stage tunicate embryo, if the vegetal marginal cells lack a functional FGF
receptor, which structure(s) will fail to develop? A) Notochord B) Mesenchyme C) Muscle D) Nerve cord
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19) In a 32-cell stage tunicate embryo, vegetal marginal cells that lack functional genes for both
macho-1 and the FGF receptor would develop as what cell type? A) Mesenchyme B) Muscle C) Notochord D) Nerve cord
20) Very early in development, each cell is capable of expressing all its genes. This is referred to
as A) B) C) D) E)
determination. specification. bipotential induction. totipotency. multipotency.
21) Adult stem cells are usually A) differentiated. B) totipotent. C) pluripotent. D) multipotent.
22) What are the characteristics of stem cells? A) Totipotent stem cells are part of a committed pathway within one cell lineage that will
give rise to one specific cell type. B) Pluripotent stem cells are descendants of the totipotent stem cells of the embryo. C) A fertilized egg is a type of totipotent stem cell. D) Pluripotent stem cells can differentiate into any cell type, except for totipotent stem cells and the cells of the placenta.
23) Briggs and King demonstrated nuclear transplantation in A) sheep. B) frogs. C) pigs. D) lizards. E) fish.
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24) How did Briggs and King move the nuclei between cells? A) With a glass pipet B) With a dissecting needle C) With a scalpel D) With forceps
25) Scientists attempted for many years to conduct nuclear transplants but failed. However,
geneticists had success in cloning a sheep. They were successful because they A) picked a cell very early in development. B) replicated the blastomeres before insertion. C) delayed transcription in the blastomeres. D) treated the nucleus with sheep plasma before nuclear insertion. E) utilized a new micro pipette technique.
26) Egg cells were combined with_________ to form the cloned sheep named Dolly. A) skin cells B) sperm cells C) mucous membrane cells D) mammary cells E) ovarian cells
27) What was the most significant research finding that resulted from the successful cloning of
Dolly? A) B) C) D)
The key to cloning success is to pick a donor cell from very early in development. Cloned animals are capable of producing normal offspring. The nucleus of a fully-differentiated cell can be reprogrammed to be totipotent. Genetic imprinting, which occurs in adult reproductive tissue, can take months for sperm and years for eggs.
28) The low success rate and age-related diseases associated with reproductive cloning is thought
to be due to A) lack of genetic imprinting. B) the age of the donor cell. C) cell cycle problems. D) large offspring syndrome (LOS).
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29) The main difference between therapeutic cloning and reproductive cloning is that A) in therapeutic cloning, embryonic stem cells are extracted from the blastocyst, while
in reproductive cloning, the blastocyst is kept intact and implanted into a surrogate mother. B) somatic cell nuclear transfer is used for therapeutic cloning, while gametic cell nuclear transfer is used in reproductive cloning. C) unlike cells used for reproductive cloning, cells grown for therapeutic purposes do not display genetic imprinting problems. D) unlike cells used for reproductive cloning, cells grown for therapeutic purposes do not require the destruction of embryos.
30) In insects, the passage from one body form to another is called A) pupation. B) ecdysis. C) metamorphosis. D) transference.
31) Drosophila eggs acquire an initial asymmetry before fertilization as a result of A) production of bicoid proteins in one end of the egg. B) maternal DNA molecules being deposited in one end of the egg. C) nurse cell migration to one end of the egg. D) maternal mRNA being deposited in one end of the egg. E) attachments of cadherins to one end of the cell.
32) Which proteins are encoded by genes that code for the first mRNAs transcribed in
Drosophila embryos? A) Gap and Pair-rule proteins B) Dorsal proteins C) Bicoid and Nanos proteins D) Caudal and Hunchback proteins E) Morphogen proteins
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33) Signal molecules that determine relative positions during development are known as A) inductors. B) organizers. C) cadherin domains. D) derepressers. E) morphogens.
34) Which genes are expressed in Drosophila after pattern formation along the A/P axis has been
successfully established? A) totipotent genes B) bicoid genes C) segment polarity genes D) gap genes E) homeotic genes
35) A fly embryo that expresses the bicoid mutant phenotype A) is genetically wild-type, but has a bicoid mutant mother. B) is mutant for bicoid and has a bicoid mutant mother. C) may be either genetically wild-type or mutant for bicoid, but definitely has a bicoid
mutant mother. D) can be either genetically wild-type or mutant for bicoid. The genotype of the mother cannot be determined from the information provided.
36) If one were to inject cytoplasm containing Bicoid into the middle of a Drosophila egg
immediately prior to fertilization, the embryo would A) try to form anterior structures in the middle of its body. B) try to form posterior structures in the middle of its body. C) not develop at all. D) develop normally.
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37) Overexpression of caudal in the early Drosophila embryo, at a level high enough to
overcome inhibition by Bicoid protein, would A) interfere with the development of anterior structures. B) interfere with the development of posterior structures. C) interfere with the development of both anterior and posterior structures. D) have no effect since the cytoplasm has already been determined.
38) There are cases, particularly in fruit flies, in which a normal body part grows in the wrong
spot. For instance, legs on the head growing instead of antennae, or a second set of wings behind the normal pair. What can explain this? A) These are due to the reappearance of stem cells, which are totipotent. B) These are due to misregulation of hormones from environmental contamination with pesticides. C) These occur as a result of mutations in homeotic genes, which normally act to direct development along the anterior-posterior axis. D) These naturally occur sometimes in animals that have metamorphic development, due to different organization of homeotic gene expression in larvae versus adults.
39) What is the correct order of gene expression in the early Drosophila embryo? A) pair-rule genes, gap genes, segment polarity genes B) gap genes, pair-rule genes, segment polarity genes C) gap genes, segment polarity genes, pair-rule genes D) segment polarity genes, pair-rule genes, gap genes
40) If a Drosophila mother is mutant for dorsal, her embryos would A) develop normally. B) have a delay in the development of dorsal/ventral polarity. C) lack dorsal structures. D) lack ventral structures.
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41) Many insects, like moths and flies, undergo complete metamorphosis. What would you
predict about gene expression in these two kinds of insects? A) The basic organization of homeotic genes is the same in both larvae and adult, but the expression of some other genes must be different. B) Completely different sets of genes must be used in the development of larvae and the adult. C) The order of homeotic genes along the body axis must be different in larvae and adult. D) The same genes are expressed at each stage, but the age and number of cells accounts for the minor morphological differences.
42) A mutation in a Hox gene typically results in A) development of normal body parts in abnormal places. B) faulty development of the cellular blastoderm. C) cleavage disruption. D) legs growing out of the head of a fly.
43) Check all of the main functions of MADS box-containing genes in plants. A) The transition from vegetative to reproductive growth B) Root development C) Generation of leaf form D) Floral organ identity
44) The Drosophila homeotic genes typically contain the homeobox. The homeobox is a
sequence of 180 nucleotides. The number of amino acids coded for by this sequence is A) 30. B) 60. C) 90. D) 120 E) 180.
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45) What would you predict about the presence of Hox genes in the last common ancestor of
vertebrates and invertebrates? A) The genes contained homeoboxes. B) The genes specified anterior-posterior development. C) If mutated, there would be an extra pair of wings and legs growing from the head. D) The genes were in four clusters. E) The genes were in anterior-posterior order on the chromosome. F) The genes contained a MADS-box. G) That ancient ancestor was too primitive to have Hox genes.
46) The finding that homeotic genes are present in both mammals and insects indicates that these
genes must A) control the same traits. B) be on the same chromosomes. C) have arisen very early in the evolutionary history of animals. D) have developed independently and simultaneously. E) have been transmitted into mammals by an insect bite.
47) Heterochrony is a change in development based on A) changes in the location of where genes are being expressed. B) changes in how much protein is produced. C) changes in the structure of the protein being produced. D) changes in the timing of gene expression.
48) Novel phenotypic adaptations can arise as a result of changes only in how organisms
develop. ⊚ true ⊚ false
49) _________ are cell adhesion proteins that some cells use in the process of differentiation
during development. A) Cadherins B) Glycospheres C) Receptors D) Phospholipids
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50) When differentiation occurs, cells may also change in_________. (Select all that apply) A) genetic content B) size C) shape
51) Cells that are programmed to die, shrivel and shrink in a process called A) apoptosis. B) necrosis. C) totipotency. D) induction. E) encoded death.
52) Cells that die of injury usually swell and then burst. Their contents are released into the
extracellular fluid. This form of cell death is referred to as A) apoptosis. B) necrosis. C) toti-latency. D) induction. E) encoded death.
53) Describe the apoptotic pathway in mammalian cells. A) Apaf1 inhibits Bcl2, Caspase-8 or -9 is activated, caspases degrade cell components B) Bcl2 activates Apaf1, Caspase-8 or -9 is inhibited, caspases degrade cell components C) Cytoplasmic inhibitors inhibit Bcl2, Apaf1 activates Caspase-8 or -9, caspases
degrade cell components D) Cytoplasmic inhibitors inhibit Apaf1, Bcl2 activates Caspase-8 or -9, caspases degrade cell components
54) In C. elegans ced-9/ced-3 double mutants A) 131 cells always die. B) all 1090 cells die. C) all 1090 cells live. D) only 959 cells live.
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55) The term neoplasia refers to cell accumulation. Neoplasia can be caused by A) increased apoptosis. B) decreased apoptosis. C) blood clots. D) cell membrane interactions.
56) You created a worm that expresses a human Bcl-2 transgene, and you are crossing the
transgene into a homozygous ced-9 mutant background. However, you inadvertantly used a clone of Bcl-2 with a mutation in the BH domain, which is essential for function. What results do you expect for the ced-9 mutants with the mutant Bcl-2 transgene? A) 131 cells will die. B) All 1090 cells will die. C) All 1090 cells will live. D) 959 cells will die.
57) You have discovered a new gene similar to an integrin. If you misexpress this gene in the
wrong tissue early in development, what is a likely phenotype? A) Migration into the wrong area B) Apoptosis C) Homeotic transformation D) Defects in anterior-posterior patterning
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 19 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) C 6) C 7) [B, C, D, E] 8) A 9) D 10) B 11) C 12) A 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) B 17) B 18) [A, B] 19) D 20) D 21) D 22) [B, C, D] 23) B 24) A 25) A 26) D 27) C 28) A 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) E 34) E 35) C 36) A 37) A
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38) C 39) B 40) D 41) A 42) A 43) [A, B, D] 44) B 45) [A, B, E] 46) C 47) D 48) TRUE 49) A 50) [B, C] 51) A 52) B 53) C 54) C 55) B 56) B 57) A
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Chapter 20 Student name:__________ 1) When the function of an allele is influenced by the alleles of other genes elsewhere in the
genome, the interaction is called _________ and can affect selection for the allele. A) epistasis B) incomplete dominance C) frequency-dependent selection D) pleiotropy E) double inheritance
2) By evaluating and selecting mates with superior qualities, an animal can increase its A) reproductive success. B) learning. C) competitive strategies. D) foraging efficiency. E) length of life.
3) Natural selection for a certain phenotype will affect the _________ . A) allele frequency of a population B) allele frequency of an individual C) genotype of an individual D) genotype of a population
4) When fisheries managers move fish from one lake to another, this causes gene_________. A) blending B) flow C) mutation D) dominance
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5) Genotypes are said to be in_________ equilibrium if there is random mating and no other
forces tend to alter the proportions of alleles from one generation to the next. A) steady state B) homeostatic C) Hardy-Weinberg D) Mendelian E) frequency-dependent
6) The presence of the disease sickle cell anemia illustrates that natural selection does not
always eliminate_________ alleles. A) dominant B) recessive C) polymorphic D) neutral E) epistatic
7) As a mechanism of evolution, natural selection acts on variants within populations and
ultimately leads to different species. This was proposed by A) Mendel. B) Lyell. C) Malthus. D) Darwin. E) Founder.
8) In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, p and q are_________. A) allele frequencies B) genotypes C) phenotypes D) measures of fitness E) mutation rates
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9) A restriction in genetic variability caused by a drastic reduction in population size is called a A) founder effect. B) Hardy-Weinberg effect. C) bottleneck effect. D) polymorphic effect. E) adaptive effect.
10) Reproductive success of an individual is known as: A) variation. B) microevolution. C) macroevolution. D) fitness. E) adaptive makeup.
11) Darwin proposed that natural selection occurs in an environment by A) favoring heritable features that make the organism better suited to survive and
reproduce. B) producing a constant number of offspring while in that environment. C) surviving for a fixed amount of time. D) resisting the environment and keeping the environment from changing. E) favoring those individuals with the most favorable acquired characteristics.
12) The frequency of a particular allele within a population can be changed, over time, by A) genetic outflow. B) large population size. C) selection. D) inheritance of acquired characteristics. E) random mating.
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13) The preservation of genes that increase the likelihood of survival and reproduction of some
individuals within a population is called the process of A) natural selection. B) creation of new species. C) genetic drift. D) outcrossing. E) increasing evolutionary resistance.
14) There are more than 30 blood group genes in humans, in addition to the ABO locus, each
with multiple alleles. This increases_________ in human populations. A) genetic variability B) homozygosity C) selective mating D) gene flow E) founder effects
15) Two parents who do not have sickle cell anemia have a child that has the disease. The parents
are both: A) homozygous for the sickle cell allele. B) heterozygous for the sickle cell allele. C) homozygous for the normal allele. D) epistatic for the sickle cell allele. E) pleiotropic for the sickle cell allele.
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16)
In the graph above, how can the change in infant mortality be explained as birth weight increases from 2 to 7 pounds? A) A 3 pound baby will have more optimal development and lowest mortality. B) A baby closer to 7 pounds will not be able to be delivered safely and thus have higher mortality. C) A baby closer to 7 pounds will need more oxygen and thus have higher mortality. D) A baby closer to 7 pounds will have more developed organs and thus have lower mortality. E) A 2 pound baby will not be able to be delivered safely and thus have lower mortality.
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17)
In the graph above, which baby characteristics would explain the percent infant mortality curve and any subsequent effects on fitness? A) The baby needs to be large enough to survive after birth, but small enough for a safe
delivery. B) The larger the baby the better the chance of survival. C) The smaller the baby the better the chance of survival. D) The baby needs to be small enough to survive after birth, but large enough for a safe delivery. E) There is no correlation between birth weight and survival.
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18) Hardy-Weinberg pointed out that the original proportions of the genotypes in a population
would remain constant from generation to generation if certain assumptions are met. Which one of the following is NOT a Hardy-Weinberg condition? A) The population is very large. B) No gene flow occurs. C) No selection occurs. D) Random mating occurs. E) No polymorphic loci exist in the population.
19) For a gene with two alternative alleles, A (with a frequency of p) and a (with a frequency of
q), the term in the algebraic form of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for the heterozygote genotype frequency is A)
.
B) . C) 2pq. D) E) 2Aa.
.
20) The observation that many Native Americans have type O blood is best explained
by_________ A) founder effect. B) gene flow. C) frequency-dependent selection. D) assortative mating. E) frequent mutations.
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21) Female cardinals select male mates in part based on their bright red color. What effect would
this have on a cardinal population? A) The frequency of red alleles would be greater than those predicted by HardyWeinberg equilibrium. B) The frequency of red alleles would be less than those predicted by Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. C) The red allele frequencies would remain unchanged because of equilibrium. D) The frequency of red alleles would be equal to those predicted by Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. E) The red allele frequencies would decrease because of equilibrium.
22) You spray your kitchen with an insecticide to kill the cockroaches. A few survive and
reproduce, producing a large healthy population in a few generations that all have similar genetic backgrounds. This is an example of_________ A) mutation. B) migration. C) assortative mating. D) bottleneck effect. E) gene flow.
23) Gene flow, defined as the movement of genes from one population to another, can take place
by migration, as well as A) mating with certain trait-containing individuals. B) mating with dominant phenotypes. C) mating between individuals of adjacent populations. D) physical movement of genes within an individual by transposons. E) mating with recessive phenotypes.
24) Some flowering plants cannot self-pollinate which increases their tendency to mate with
phenotypically different mates, a process called disassortative mating. What effect would this have on a population, compared to expectations based on the Hardy-Weinberg principle? A) An increase in heterozygotes would be observed. B) A decrease in heterozygotes would be observed. C) An increase in homozygotes would be observed. D) No change homozygotes or heterozygotes would be observed. E) The population would remain in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
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25) _________ would keep a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. A) Mutation B) Gene flow C) Random mating D) Genetic drift E) Selection
26) Being born with extra fingers on a hand is called polydactyly. This is more common in some
populations in North America than others due to_________. A) a founder effect because their ancestors from Europe carried the alleles B) an increase in mutation rate in these populations C) random mating with other populations in North America D) natural selection in favor of extra fingers in these populations E) migration of people with multiple fingers out of the population
27) In order for natural selection to occur within a population, certain conditions must be met.
One condition is A) phenotypic differences resulting from environmental conditions. B) frequent mutations that are inherited. C) low rates of immigration. D) phenotypic variations that are genetic. E) heterozygosity must be very low.
28) About 80% of the alleles present in thoroughbred horses can be dated back to 31 known
ancestors from the late eighteenth century. As a result, one would expect_________ A) low rates of mutation. B) many polymorphic alleles. C) little variation to select upon. D) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. E) random mating.
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29) In a forest, trees that grow taller get more sunlight and gain more energy than other nearby
trees. This results in_________ A) natural selection. B) stabilizing selection. C) disruptive selection. D) directional selection. E) artificial selection.
30) For a gene with two alternative alleles, B and b, the term
in the Hardy-Weinberg equation represents</p> A) the frequency of the B allele. B) the frequency of the bb genotype. C) the total number of individuals in the population. D) the frequency of the Bb genotype. E) the total number of alleles for that gene in the population.
31) Cheetahs have been through a genetic bottleneck; evidence for this is that A) little natural selection occurs in this species. B) the body is long, thin, and graceful. C) there is very little genetic variability. D) these cats are members of an endangered species. E) they originally came from small areas of Africa.
32) Animals that select mates that are phenotypically similar will have_________ when
compared with Hardy-Weinberg predictions. A) fewer homozygotes B) less natural selection C) more heterozygotes D) more homozygotes. E) more mutations
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33) If a population was in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, then _________ would occur in that
population. A) directional selection B) assortative mating C) natural selection D) an increase of recessive alleles E) no evolutionary changes
34) Ear size is a variable trait in a certain mouse species. A few mice homozygous for the large-
ear allele happened to arrive on an island that already contained a population of small-eared mice. This is an example of _________ A) a bottleneck effect. B) gene flow. C) increased mutation. D) genetic drift. E) natural selection.
35) A certain island is the home of sea birds that migrate, as well as ground-dwelling birds that
stay on the island. The ground-dwelling birds are more likely to be in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium than the sea birds, because: A) of high immigration in the sea bird population. B) the sea birds are more exposed to UV light. C) there are fewer mutations in the sea birds. D) mating is random in the sea birds. E) natural selection is stronger in the ground-dwelling birds.
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36)
The percentage of different colored water boatmen eaten by fish were graphed relative to the frequency of that color in the population. Based on the graph, a population of water boatmen would _________ A) lose rare genotypes. B) have no variation in genotype frequencies. C) increase in rare genotypes. D) increase in size. E) decrease in genetic variability.
37) In some instances environmental change causes a situation where one phenotype is favored
for a period of time, and then a different phenotype is favored. This oscillating selection causes A) the maintenance of genetic variation in the population. B) elimination of rarer genotypes because of uneven selection. C) an increase in point mutations. D) high population increase to maintain phenotypic variation. E) extinction of the population.
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38) People homozygous for the sickle-cell anemia allele develop a life-threatening disease, while
those homozygous for the normal allele are at the highest risk of dying from malaria. Carriers have some resistance to malaria but do not develop sickle cell anemia. This is an example of_________ A) founder effect. B) genetic bottleneck. C) point mutation. D) heterozygote advantage. E) heterozygosity.
39) In disruptive selection, over time A) a population goes extinct. B) the most extreme outliers of a population are eliminated (e.g., the largest beaks and
smallest beaks are eliminated). C) the population is strongly selected for in one direction (e.g., larger beak size). D) the population is strongly selected for in two directions (e.g., larger beak size and smaller beak size). E) a population increases its variation (e.g., a wide selection of all beak sizes).
40) During a drought on the Galapagos islands, finches with larger beaks were able to crack the
large tough seeds produced by plants that survived the dry conditions. This is an example of_________. A) directional selection B) stabilizing selection C) disruptive selection D) genetic drift E) a founder effect
41) If the frequency of an autosomal recessive trait in humans is 1 out of 100 births, what would
be the expected frequency of heterozygote carriers for the trait if we assume that the gene is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A) 0.01 B) 0.10 C) 0.18 D) 0.81 E) 0.90
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42) The recessive phenotype of a trait occurs in 16% of a population. What is the frequency of
the dominant allele? A) 0.16 B) 0.36 C) 0.40 D) 0.48 E) 0.60
43) A human autosomal recessive trait appears in 1 in 100 births. What percent of people are
homozygous dominant for this gene? A) 1% B) 10% C) 18% D) 81% E) 90%
44) A population of flowers is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with an allele frequency for white
flowers (w) of 40%. What percentage of the flowers will have the colored or dominant phenotype? A) 16% B) 25% C) 40% D) 60% E) 84%
45) In a large population of randomly reproducing rabbits, a recessive allele r comprises 80% of
the alleles for a gene. What percentage of the rabbits would you expect to have the recessive phenotype? A) 4% B) 32% C) 64% D) 80% E) 100%
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46) A population of geese has two color phenotypes, brown and gray. Color is controlled by a
single gene, with the brown allele dominant. A random sample of 250 geese finds that 210 are brown. What percentage of geese are heterozygous? (Assume that the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.) A) 36% B) 43% C) 48% D) 57% E) 84%
47) Coloration in the peppered moth (Biston betularia) is determined by a single gene with two
alleles showing complete dominance. Dark moths are homozygous dominant or heterozygous for the gene, light moths are homozygous recessive. In a sample of 100 moths, you determine that 64 of the moths are dark. According to the Hardy-Weinberg rule, the expected frequency of the dominant allele is_________. A) 0.4 B) 0.36 C) 0.6 D) 0.64 E) It cannot be determined.
48) Antigens on red blood cells are hereditary traits that allow blood to be typed in different
ways. One system is based on a gene with two alleles, M and N. If the frequency of the M allele in a population is 0.4, then according to the Hardy-Weinberg rule, the expected frequency of the heterozygous MN genotype is_________. A) 0.16 B) 0.24 C) 0.36 D) 0.48 E) 0.6
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49) The disease sickle-cell anemia is common in malaria-infested areas because individuals that
are heterozygous for the gene (AS) have enhanced resistance to malaria compared to other individuals (AA). Individuals with severe sickle-cell anemia (SS) often die before reproduction. If this population moves to an area without malaria, what will happen to the allele frequency of the A allele over time? A) It will go up because there is no malaria. B) It will go up because there is no sickle cell anemia. C) It will go down because there is no malaria. D) It will go down because there is no sickle cell anemia. E) It will go down because there are diseases of some kind everywhere.
50) Which factor does NOT result in gene flow? A) Wind-blown pollen B) Gametes dispersed by ocean currents C) Zygotes dispersed by ocean currents D) Disassortative mating within a population E) Hybridization between neighboring populations
51) The California populations of the Northern elephant seal are descendants from a very small
population of seals that was overhunted in the 1890s. Heterozygosity in this population would be expected to be_________ due to_________. A) low; a bottleneck effect B) low; the Hardy-Weinberg effect C) great; disruptive selection D) great; a bottleneck effect E) great; assortative mating
52) Different species of picture-winged fruit flies in the Hawaiian Islands are genetically similar
to each other, yet genetically different from their ancestral population in Asia. This is probably an example of_________ A) sexual selection. B) directional selection. C) disruptive selection. D) founder effect. E) gene flow.
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53) An insect population that becomes resistant to a plant's toxin is an example of_________. A) natural selection B) genetic drift C) disruptive selection D) a founder effect E) gene flow
54) The organism with the highest fitness is: A) An animal that lives 10 years and produces 10 offspring per year. B) An animal that lives 100 years and produces 10 offspring total. C) An animal that lives 2 years and produces 10 offspring per year. D) An animal that lives 10 years and produces 2 offspring per year. E) An animal that lives one year and produces 10 offspring total.
55) A population of lizards lives in a rocky area next to a desert. Some lizards are light-colored
and blend into the sand. Others are dark and blend into the rocks. What may happen to this population of lizards over time? A) They may evolve into two separate species as a result of disruptive selection. B) They may evolve into two separate species as a result of directional selection. C) They may remain one species as a result of disruptive selection. D) They may remain one species as a result of directional selection. E) They may remain one species as a result of stabilizing selection.
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56)
In the experiment above, guppy color patterns (spots) were measured in populations exposed to increasing amounts of predation. From this you could conclude that _________ . A) predators are more likely to catch and eat brightly colored guppies B) predators are less likely to catch and eat brightly colored guppies C) brightly colored guppies are more likely to reproduce in the presence of predators D) predators do not affect the color patterns of guppies E) evolutionary changes take millions of years to appear
57) Both extremes of an array of phenotypes are favored in_________ . A) directional selection B) stabilizing selection C) disruptive selection D) gene flow E) genetic drift
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58) In the early ancestors of the modern giraffe, longer necks allowed animals to reach higher
tree branches as food. This would lead to_________ in the ancestral giraffe population. A) directional selection B) stabilizing selection C) disruptive selection D) sexual selection E) genetic drift
59) The midrange of an array of phenotypes is favored in_________. A) directional selection B) stabilizing selection C) disruptive selection D) gene flow E) genetic drift
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60)
Based on the graph above, the color of male guppies can be seen as a balance between positive and negative selections. Bright colors are an advantage in _________, but a disadvantage in _________. A) attracting mates; avoiding predators B) avoiding predators; attracting mates C) avoiding predators; finding food D) attracting mates; finding food E) finding food; attracting mates
61) Many male songbirds are brightly colored. However, the color of the birds is determined by a
balance of A) natural selection against bright colors by predation and sexual selection in favor of bright colors. B) mutations that reduce bright colors and gene flow in favor of bright colors. C) natural selection against bright colors by predation and mutations that introduce bright colors. D) mutations that reduce bright colors and sexual selection in favor of bright colors. E) gene flow that reduces bright colors and natural selection in favor of bright colors.
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62) In a research study, seed production was measured for a plant that has variation in flower
petal size. The researchers hypothesized that larger petals would better attract pollinators and result in higher fitness. Does the data support this hypothesis? 63) Select the examples that can be described as intersexual selection. A) A female swordtail fish chooses a male with the longest tail. B) Two male elk are battling to control a territory. C) Two females are fighting for the best nesting site. D) A peahen chooses a mate with the most eyespots in his tail feathers. E) A male stickleback fish chooses the largest female as a mate.
64) Since females take on the larger parenting role in most species, what tendency do they have? A) They produce large numbers of gametes. B) They compete heavily for access to high fitness males. C) They are the choosy sex. D) They acquire polyandrous groups of male mates. E) They fight for territory.
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65) Pea fowl (peacocks and peahens) show sexual dimorphism -- males have long blue-green tail
feathers with eyespots, while females have short brown tail feathers. Which statement best summarizes the graphed data about peacocks?
</p> A) B) C) D) E)
There are no peacocks with less than 140 eyespots. The fewer eyespots that a peacock has in his tail, the more mates he attracts. Eyespots have no correlation with the ability to attract a mate. The more eyespots that a peacock has in his tail, the more mates he attracts. There are no peacocks with more than 165 eyespots.
66) A study finds a positive correlation between the number of spots on the tails of male
peacocks and their mating success. What would be the best follow-up experiment to test causation? A) Count the number of spots on female tails and measure mating success. B) Remove spots or add artificial spots to male tails and determine female responses. C) Measure the sperm count of males and compare to spot count. D) Inject testosterone and observe changes in spot count.
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67) Platys and swordtails are related tropical freshwater fish. In studies, researchers have shown
that female platys prefer males with swordtails, even though males of their own species do not have them. This was discovered by attaching artificial swordtails to platy males. What does this suggest about the origin of the swordtail feature? A) Female preference for swords may have predated the origin of the feature itself. B) Evolution of swords later led to evolution of female preference for swords. C) The same gene that causes sword development also causes development of neural circuits for female preference. D) Adjacent genes on the same chromosome cause sword development and development of neural circuits for female preference.
68) Male Mormon crickets choose larger females as their mates. Which of the following
statements best interprets the graph?
A) B) C) D) E)
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Larger females live longer and thus produce more eggs. Larger females are capable of storing sperm. Larger females reproduce earlier than smaller females. Larger females lay more eggs. Larger females defend themselves better.
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69) In the phalarope, or wade pipes bird, the male is unusual in playing the larger parenting role -
- he performs all the egg incubation and chick care. What unusual behavior might you predict for the female of the species? A) The female provides sperm to fertilize the male's eggs. B) The female is part of a large harem of females, under the domain of a single male. C) The females compete to mate with the males, who choose among them. D) The females have dull, brown coloring that keeps them well-camouflaged.
70) The Human Genome Project sequenced the human genome and created a single reference
genome that is a useful online tool for researchers. Recent studies have shown that humans have significant genetic variability, with a typical person varying 3% from the reference genome. Based on this, what TWO things could a researcher do to improve their work in finding cures for disease? A) Look for a correlation between SNPs and occurrence of the disease. B) Test possible cures in people of different genetic backgrounds. C) Focus on just the reference genome, to keep experiments simple. D) Choose a genome that represents the population most likely to pay for a drug. E) Exclude patients with unusual genomes from research studies.
71) A bird species is under selection pressure for a trait that helps them tolerate toxins in the
environment. If there are approximately equal numbers of birds with and without the trait in a small, isolated population, genetic drift will A) act to increase the ratio of birds with the toxin-tolerance. B) act against the direction of natural selection. C) act to decrease the ratio of birds with the toxin-tolerance. D) act randomly with respect to the trait. E) reduce the overall number of birds.
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72) A researcher wants to study an example of natural selection while it is happening. He finds a
toxic spill that caused selection for resistance traits in species nearby. Which type of species should he focus on, to best minimize the counteracting effects of gene flow from outside the spill site? A) Wind-pollinated plant B) Bird C) Deer D) Human E) Slug
73) Often, antlers are used for fighting between males, to win territory and mates. But the antlers
of the Irish Elk were so massive that they would have made fighting difficult. Instead they may be due to_________, from females who preferred males with the largest antlers. A) intrasexual selection B) oscillating selection C) parental investment D) stabilizing selection E) intersexual selection
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 20 1) A 2) A 3) A 4) B 5) C 6) B 7) D 8) A 9) C 10) D 11) A 12) C 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) D 17) A 18) E 19) C 20) A 21) A 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) C 26) A 27) D 28) C 29) D 30) B 31) C 32) D 33) E 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) A
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38) D 39) D 40) A 41) C 42) E 43) D 44) E 45) C 46) C 47) A 48) D 49) A 50) D 51) A 52) D 53) A 54) A 55) A 56) A 57) C 58) A 59) B 60) A 61) A 62) A 63) [A, D, E] 64) C 65) D 66) B 67) A 68) D 69) C 70) [A, B] 71) D 72) E 73) E
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Chapter 21 Student name:__________ 1) Which statement describes artificial selection, but not natural selection? A) Most organisms are capable of producing more offspring than typically survive. B) Phenotypic variation is mostly selected by humans. C) Phenotypic variation exists within populations. D) Phenotypic variation can influence reproductive success. E) Phenotypic variation is at least partly due to inherited characteristics.
2) A certain plant species has small, thin seeds, and can grow and produce seeds in either wet
years or dry years. Imagine that this plant species became invasive in the Galapagos and outcompeted most of the native plants. How would you expect this change to affect the evolution of beak size in the medium ground finch population? A) Small beaks would be favored under all rainfall conditions. B) Small beaks would be favored in wet years and large beaks would be favored in dry years. C) Large beaks would be favored in wet years and small beaks would be favored in dry years. D) Large beaks would be favored under all rainfall conditions.
3) Which observation(s) of the medium ground finch (Geospiza fortis) by Peter and Rosemary
Grant verify Darwin's selection hypothesis? Check all that apply. A) Considerable variation existed in the beak size and shape of this finch. B) The medium ground finch showed assortative mating according to beak size and shape. C) Beak shape (depth) varied with the dryness of the year. D) Offspring were similar to parents in beak size and shape.
4) In studying the medium ground finch on Daphne Major, the Grants noted that each
generation of finches had beaks A) best suited for their parents' environment. B) best suited for their current environment. C) smaller than those of the previous generation. D) larger than those of the previous generation.
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5) Which aspects of natural selection are illustrated by the figure below? Check all that apply.
A) B) C) D)
Variation must exist in the population. Variation among individuals must be genetically transmissible to the next generation. Variation among individuals leads to differences in lifetime reproductive success. More individuals are produced each generation than the environment can support, resulting in competition for survival.
6) Industrial melanism refers to A) high rates of melanoma due to pollution. B) darker-colored individuals dying off due to selection in a polluted environment. C) darker-colored individuals predominating due to selection in a polluted environment. D) increased mutation rates due to pollution. E) increased extinction rates due to habitat loss and a polluted environment.
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7) The evidence for industrial melanism being caused by an increase in the dark allele was
provided from field tests carried out by A) Kettlewell. B) Lamarck. C) Darwin. D) Tutt. E) Wallace.
8) The shape of the beaks of Darwin's finches and industrial melanism are often cited as
examples of the process of_________ leading to evolutionary change. A) artificial selection B) coevolution C) intelligent design D) founder effect E) natural selection
9) Natural selection has favored the dark form of the peppered moth in areas subject to severe
air pollution, perhaps because on darkened trees, moth-eating birds see them less easily. As pollution abated, the light forms increased in the population because A) light moths had lower fitness than dark moths. B) light moths survived and produced more offspring than dark moths. C) light moths were more genetically variable than dark moths. D) birds ate more light moths.
10) Industrial melanism involving the peppered moth is an example of natural selection that has
been observed in the last hundred years. Peppered moth have two distinct forms, with dark or light colored wings. Which of the following statements about these moths is true? A) The dark forms are selected against in nonpolluted forests. B) The dark forms are distasteful to birds and are thus safe in polluted forests. C) The light forms are selected against in nonpolluted forests. D) Birds prey more on the dark forms in polluted forests. E) Dark forms emigrate from nonpolluted forests to polluted forests.
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11) In a hypothetical study, equal numbers of dark and light moths are marked and released in
polluted and unpolluted woodlands. Then some are recaptured 10 days later. According to the industrial melanism hypothesis, what result would you predict? A) More dark moths should be recaptured in unpolluted woodlands than in polluted woodlands. B) More light moths should be recaptured in polluted woodlands than in unpolluted woodlands. C) More dark moths should be recaptured in polluted woodlands than in unpolluted woodlands. D) More of both types of moths should be recaptured in unpolluted woodlands than in polluted woodlands.
12) Indicate which factors support the industrial melanism hypothesis. Check all that apply. A) Pollution inhibits the growth of dark colored lichen. B) Dark moths have greater camouflage on trees in polluted woodlands. C) Pollutants darken bark surfaces. D) Light moths have greater camouflage on trees in highly polluted woodlands.
13) Which "alternate" hypothesis might also explain industrial melanism? A) Dark moths are more resistant to the toxic effects of pollution than light moths. B) Dark moths emigrate out of polluted areas to escape the pollution. C) Pollution kills important tree species that peppered moths depend on for egg laying. D) Because dark moths absorb more heat, they are more active and better able to avoid
bird predation. E) Birds used the marks that Kettlewell placed on the moths when he released them to help them find and capture the moths.
14) Domestication of dogs has led to A) a variety of homologous structures. B) a variety of phenotypes. C) a variety of mutations. D) a variety of reproductively isolated breeds. E) a variety of different species.
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15) The figure below shows results of bristle number in Drosophila flies after 35 generations of
artificial selection. This figure suggests that
A) bristle number has been selected beyond the original range of phenotypic variation for
this trait. B) after 35 generations of selection, populations no longer exhibit variation in bristle number. C) natural selection cannot lead to large phenotypic changes. D) at the end of the experiment, "high population" flies were unable to interbreed with "low population" flies.
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16) Comparing the evolution of domesticated dogs to the evolution of wolves illustrates what
relationship between artificial and natural selection? A) Artificial selection is slower than natural selection. B) Artificial selection is reversible; natural selection is not. C) Artificial selection is more likely to produce maladaptive structures than natural selection. D) Artificial selection cannot produce changes as large as changes produced by natural selection. E) In artificial selection, the magnitude of the selection pressure can be varied; in natural selection, it cannot.
17) Considerably more phenotypic variation exists in domesticated varieties of species like dogs
and cabbages than exists in non-domesticated species like lions and oak trees. What best explains why this is true? A) There is no selection and mating is random under domestication. B) During domestication, very high rates of mutation are induced. C) Genetic drift is important because domestication involves small populations. D) Many domesticated varieties would not survive in the natural world. E) Domesticated species exhibit "hybrid vigor" (heterosis).
18) Some of the most dramatic evidence for evolution has come from human agriculture. One of
the most artificially selected crop plants is_________, which is very different than the parent teosinte plant. A) pea B) tomato C) potato D) corn E) asparagus
19) A technique used in dating a rock can be used to accurately predict the age of the fossils
occurring in the rocks. This technique involves A) fossil dating. B) successive rock layering. C) radioactive isotope decay. D) structural geology. E) developmental geology.
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20) Today, the fossil record A) can be dated only in terms of how layers relate to each other (i.e. older layers are
below younger layers); no actual dates can be estimated. B) can be dated reasonably well only with uranium-238. C) can be dated reasonably well using a variety of radioactive isotopes with known halflives. D) can be dated precisely, to within a single year, using radioactive isotopes. E) can be dated precisely, to within a single year, using DNA hybridization.
21) Progressive changes in the fossil record are evidence for evolution because A) they show descent with modification. B) they show inheritance of acquired characteristics. C) they show evolutionary change at the level of the individual. D) they show gaps in the fossil record.
22) The most likely explanation for why toothed whales have a blowhole is A) they evolved from an animal with gills. B) they evolved from an animal with nostrils. C) blowholes are better for large animals. D) blowholes are better for breathing underwater than gills are.
23) Radioactive isotopes are used in dating materials from the distant past. Which of the
following statements about radioactive dating techniques is true? A) It gives only the general ages of rock strata. (±100 million years). B) It gives exact ages of rock strata. (± 1 year). C) The younger the rock, the more radioactive decay. D) The older the rock, the more radioactive decay. E) It no longer works due to contamination from radioactive waste.
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24) A rock contains 18 mg of the radioactive isotope carbon-14. The half-life of carbon-14 is
5,600 years. How many half-lives and years will it take before the carbon-14 decays to less than 4 mg? A) 1 half-lives; 5,600 years B) 2 half-lives; 11,200 years C) 3 half-lives; 16,800 years D) 4 half-lives; 22,400 years E) 9 half-lives; 50,400 years
25) The half-life of carbon-14 is 5,600 years. A fossil that has one-eighth the normal proportion
of carbon-14 to carbon-12 is probably A) 2,800 years old. B) 5,600 years old. C) 11,200 years old. D) 16,800 years old. E) 22,400 years old.
26) Which feature is visible on the Archaeopteryx fossil and shared with modern birds? A) homeothermy B) teeth C) feathers D) bony tail E) claws on forelimbs
27) Choose the true statement(s) about the evolutionary divergence of horses in North America.
Check all that apply. A) Most changes are seen as adaptations for life in grassland habitats. B) The general trends during horse evolution are increase in body size, reduction of digits, and tooth development for a grazing lifestyle. C) Horse evolution is unusual in that rates of change were uniform and constant throughout most lineages. D) Living lineages of horses show much less diversity than existed in the past.
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28) In 2006, scientists discovered a fossil that had scales and gills, a flat head with eyes on top
like a crocodile, and fin and neck bones that would allow it to prop itself out of the water. The best explanation for this fossil is that it is A) a transitional fossil between fish and amphibians. B) a transitional fossil between amphibians and reptiles. C) a ray-finned fish. D) a modern amphibian.
29) Which of the following features of ancient horses are adaptations for living on open
grasslands? Check all that apply. A) multiple toes that increased flexibility B) complex patterns of ridges on molar and premolars that increased chewing ability C) lengthening of limbs that increased running speed over long distances D) decrease in body size that increased agility in confined spaces
30) Structures that have no apparent function but had a function in ancestral species are A) the fossil record. B) the molecular record. C) homology. D) development. E) vestigial structures.
31) Homologous structures A) evolved independently despite looking the same. B) look different, but evolved from the same body part in a common ancestor. C) have the same appearance and function but do not derive from a common ancestor. D) have different appearance and function, and originated from different ancestors.
32) The side toes of a horse, the pelvis of the whale, and the human appendix are all examples
that played more important roles in an ancestor than the descendent, known as A) analogous structures. B) homologous structures. C) vestigial structures. D) homeotic mutations. E) acquired structures.
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33) All vertebrates contain a similar pattern of organs, indicating that they are related to one
another. This represents which of the following lines of evolutionary evidence? A) fossil record B) homology C) convergent evolution D) biogeography E) development
34) During development, human embryos have pharyngeal pouches (or "gill slits") that later
develop into various glands. Fish embryos also have pharyngeal pouches, but these develop into gills. The best explanation for why both human and fish embryos have pharyngeal pouches is A) humans and fish share a common ancestor that had gills. B) human embryos need gill slits to breathe in the uterus. C) humans and fish both develop pharyngeal pouches by random chance. D) fish evolved from humans.
35) The evolution of similar forms in different lineages when exposed to the same selective
pressures is called A) divergence. B) convergence. C) successive homology. D) descent. E) natural selection.
36) A new winged species is discovered in the Amazon rainforest. What evidence would support
homology to vertebrate wings, rather than insect wings? Check all that apply. A) The wings have an underlying bone structure. B) The wings are poisonous. C) Blood vessels are networked through the wings. D) The wings are covered in chitinous scales.
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37) Which observations illustrate shared ancestry by anatomical comparison studies? Check all
that apply. A) The same structure has evolved to carry out different functions. B) Different structures evolve in similar ways when subjected to the same selective pressures. C) A structure becomes vestigial. D) Structures are found to be homologous.
38) The observation that different geographical areas sometimes exhibit plant and animal
communities of similar appearance, even though the individual plants and animals are not closely related, is called A) the fossil record. B) homology. C) convergent evolution. D) divergent evolution. E) adaptation.
39) The pair of traits that best illustrates convergent evolution is A) an elephant's tusks and a beaver's teeth. B) a lizard's arm and a bird's wing. C) a dragonfly's wing and a butterfly's wing. D) a cartilage skeleton in a shark and a bone skeleton in a dolphin.
40) The marsupials in Australia closely resemble the placental animals of the rest of the world.
This is an example of A) the fossil record. B) homology. C) convergent evolution. D) biogeography. E) development.
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41) The streamlined bodies seen in sharks, tuna, and dolphins are due to A) a recent shared common ancestor. B) dissimilar selection pressures. C) selection for fast swimming. D) predation by the same predator. E) intelligent design.
42) Choose the scientific evidence that supports evolutionary theory. Check all that apply. A) the fossil record B) homologous structures C) the molecular record D) intelligent design E) vestigial structures
43) Select all of the following that are valid counterarguments to the idea that evolution is "just a
theory." A) Scientists use the word theory to describe unifying ideas. B) Evolution is just a collection of facts without a central theme and this is not a theory. C) Scientific theories are supported by many types of evidence and no empirical data refutes them. D) Evolution occurred in the past, but it is not occurring in the present, so it cannot be a theory.
44) Evolution does not violate the second law of thermodynamics because A) evolution is a random process; it does not require an input of energy. B) Earth is not a closed system; it constantly receives an input of energy from the sun. C) living organisms are not subject to the second law. D) the disorder generated by extinction balances the order created by evolution.
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45) <p>
McGraw Hill
45.1)
The pattern of wet years and dry years shown will probably move the population toward A) all having larger beaks. B) all having smaller beaks. C) having intermediate size beaks. D) having two, distinct populations. E) maintaining variation in beak depth.
45.2)
Which statement best describes the correlation between beak depths and the dryness of the environment? A) Birds with large beaks are favored during wet years. B) Birds with small beaks are favored in dry years. C) Birds with large beaks are favored during dry years. D) Birds with either size beak (large or small) are favored equally.
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46) In the laboratory, fruit flies (Drosophila) were artificially selected for the number of bristles
on their bodies. One population (R) was selected for low numbers of bristles, a second population (S) for high numbers of bristles.
46.1)
In order for scientists to artificially select Drosophila for their number of bristles, A) they had to induce mutations into their populations of Drosophila. B) they had to study the population for millions of years. C) genetic variation had to be present in the population. D) dramatic mutations had to be produced by the selection. E) the number of bristles in each Drosophila had to be random.
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46.2)
After 35 generations of selection (about 1 year's time), the two populations were studied. Researchers found A) no change; it was much too soon. B) a slight increase of bristle numbers was already evident. C) a large overlap in the range of bristle numbers. D) bristle number could be decreased, but not increased. E) an increase in bristle number of one group and a decrease in the other, with no overlap.
47) Marsupials are a very ancestral form of mammal, evolving before placental mammals over
70 million years ago. Today Australian marsupials can be compared to placental mammals on other continents.
47.1)
When you compare Australian marsupials to placental mammals today A) the marsupials have changed very little during the last 70 million years. B) different marsupials are similar to placental mammals in their adaptations to different niches. C) the marsupials became more adapted and diverse than the placental mammals. D) the marsupials all look alike, and the placentals all look alike. E) living marsupials are little changed from the first marsupial fossils.
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47.2)
The similar pairs of marsupial and placental mammals are examples of A) divergent evolution. B) monotonic evolution. C) heterozygote advantage. D) convergent evolution. E) homology.
48) What evidence would support the hypothesis that snakes evolved from earlier reptiles with
legs? Check all that apply. A) Snakes have skulls and jawbones. B) Some snake-like fossils have legs. C) Modern boa constrictors have vestigial hip bones. D) Snake embryos temporarily develop limb buds which are reabsorbed before birth. E) Many invertebrate species also lack legs.
49) Plants in the desert-adapted families Cactacea (cactus) and Euphorbia (euphorbs) share
many of the same physical characteristics, such as succulent stems that store water and CAM photosynthesis, but they do not share a recent common ancestor. This evidence suggests that these families are an example of A) convergent evolution. B) homologous structures. C) vestigial structures. D) divergent evolution.
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50) The figure below shows the relationship between beak depth in the medium ground finch in
the Galapagos and survivorship during a particular year. Assuming that beak depth is heritable, what do you predict about beak depth in the next generation?
McGraw Hill A) Mean beak depth will decrease. B) Mean beak depth will increase. C) Mean beak depth will stay about the same. D) Mean beak depth in the next generation cannot be predicted using this data.
51) Select the pairs of organism characteristics that are homologous structures. Check all that
apply. A) B) C) D)
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oak leaves; maple leaves human hand bones; whale fin bones bat wing; butterfly wing octopus eye; mouse eye
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52) Select the statements that provide biogeographical evidence for evolutionary theory. Check
all that apply. A) Unrelated organisms in similar habitats often exhibit similar characteristics. B) Terrestrial mammals are not found naturally on any island greater than 300 miles from a mainland. C) Organisms on islands are most related to ones on the nearby mainland, even when the habitats are quite different. D) Invasive rats have colonized more than 80% of the world's islands.
53) A scientist studying peppered moths in Michigan observed that the percentage of melanic
moths increased by around 2% from 1960-1961. Has evolution occurred in this population? A) No, because melanism wasn't adaptive at that time. B) No, because the frequency of the melanic moths did not change enough to be considered evolution. C) Yes, because the frequency of the melanic moths in the population changed over time. D) Yes, because the frequency of melanic moths decreased.
54) Complete this sentence to make it correct:
Bird wings and bat wings are homologous... A) to Archaeopteryx wings. B) to each other. C) to each other and to insect wings too. D) as vertebrate forelimbs, but not as wings.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 21 1) B 2) A 3) [A, C, D] 4) A 5) [A, B] 6) C 7) A 8) E 9) B 10) A 11) C 12) [B, C] 13) A 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) D 18) D 19) C 20) C 21) A 22) B 23) D 24) C 25) D 26) C 27) [A, B, D] 28) A 29) [B, C] 30) E 31) B 32) C 33) B 34) A 35) B 36) [A, C] 37) [A, C, D]
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38) C 39) D 40) C 41) C 42) [A, B, C, E] 43) [A, C] 44) B 45) Section Break 45.1) E 45.2) C 46) Section Break 46.1) C 46.2) E 47) Section Break 47.1) B 47.2) D 48) [B, C, D] 49) A 50) C 51) [A, B] 52) [A, C] 53) C 54) D
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Chapter 22 Student name:__________ 1) The__________________ model assumes that evolution occurs in spurts, between which
there are long periods of stasis with little evolutionary change.
2) The_________ definition of species says that a species is a group of organisms that are
reproductively isolated from other such groups.
3) The phenomenon where one original species diverges into many new species by occupying
different habitats within a region is called _________ _________.
4) The process by which related species become more different from each other, in order to
reduce competition is called__________________.
5) The model that assumes that evolution proceeds with slow successive change in a given
evolutionary line is referred to as A) successive descent model. B) punctuated equilibrium. C) gradualism. D) the allopatric model. E) the sympatric model.
6) The type of speciation that results in the formation of separate species as a result of
geographic isolation is called_________ speciation. A) gradual B) sympatric C) allopatric D) sexual E) adaptive
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7) When species are kept separate by preventing the formation of hybrid zygotes, the
mechanism that keeps the species separate is known as a_________ isolating mechanism. A) hybridization B) postzygotic C) prezygotic D) adaptive E) differential
8) A type of isolating mechanism that leads to reproductive isolation after a hybrid zygote has
formed is called a_________ isolating mechanism. A) hybridization B) postzygotic C) prezygotic D) adaptive E) differential
9) Which isolating mechanism is postzygotic? A) hybrid sterility B) behavioral isolation C) ecological isolation D) mechanical isolation E) temporal isolation
10) Evolution acts at the level of the A) ecosystem. B) population. C) individual. D) community.
11) Hybridization regularly occurs between three species of Darwin’s finches on Daphne Major,
but the finches are still considered different species because A) they have different fitnesses. B) they are reproductively isolated. C) they are mechanically isolated. D) they occupy different niches.
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12) According to the biological species concept, two groups of organisms that are unable to form
fertile, viable hybrids are considered to be different A) races. B) species. C) kingdoms. D) hybrids. E) cohabitants.
13) In 1938, scientists found a population of coelacanths in the Indian Ocean. This fish species is
considered a “living fossil” and appears not to have changed morphologically for 80 million years. This discovery supports the _________ model of evolution. A) gradualism B) punctuated equilibrium C) adaptation D) natural selection E) common descent
14) Scientists observed that marine bryozoan fossils lack intermediate forms. This evidence
supports which hypotheses? Check all that apply. A) Evolution occurs in spurts, alternating with long periods of little change. B) Evolution proceeds steadily, with gradual, incremental change in a given evolutionary line. C) There is variability in the rate of evolution. D) Evolution proceeds at a constant rate that is the same for all organisms.
15) If populations within the same area split into species, the process is known as A) sympatric speciation. B) allopatric speciation. C) racial speciation. D) ecotypical speciation. E) reproductive speciation.
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16) If two species are competing for the same resource, then either one species is likely to go
extinct through competitive exclusion, or natural selection will drive the evolution of A) prezygotic isolating mechanisms. B) hybrids. C) character displacement. D) polyploid individuals.
17) Scientists found that different beak shapes correlate with different mating songs in Darwin's
finches. Which hypothesis is most likely to explain this? A) Darwin's finches are not different species according to the Biological Species Concept. B) Adaptation to different food sources led to behavioral isolation in Darwin's finches. C) Mating songs are primarily determined by the acoustics of different beaks. D) Adaptation to different food sources likely occurred after reproductive isolation in Darwin's finches.
18) Once species have formed, they keep their identity by A) developmental differences. B) genetic blocks. C) isolating mechanisms. D) somatic mutations. E) structural modifications.
19) Many species might coexist in a particular environment by occupying different ecological A) biomes. B) niches. C) territories. D) domains. E) ranges.
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20) Males of many marsupial species have forked penises that are incompatible with the anatomy
of female placental mammals. What type of isolating mechanism does this represent? A) ecological isolation B) temporal isolation C) mechanical incompatibility D) hybrid sterility E) prevention of gamete fusion
21) In the southeastern U.S., two species of wild lettuce ( Lactuca) do not usually form hybrids,
because they bloom at different seasons. The means of isolation appears to be A) postzygotic and behavioral. B) prezygotic and temporal. C) prezygotic and geographical. D) prezygotic and mechanical. E) postzygotic and ecological.
22) The hundreds of species of Drosophila in Hawaii exhibit different mating rituals. This
isolating mechanism is A) prezygotic and behavioral. B) prezygotic and temporal. C) prezygotic and geographical. D) postzygotic and mechanical. E) prezygotic and ecological.
23) Select all of the following that are postzygotic isolating mechanisms. A) Hybrids are sterile. B) Hybrids develop abnormally. C) Hybrids fail to become established in nature. D) Hybrids cannot be formed.
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24) Scientists studying a group of related bird species on an island archipelago discover that
these species are always more closely related to each other within an island than they are between any two islands. The most likely explanation for this result is that A) each bird species evolved different adaptations in allopatry and then colonized the other islands. B) one bird species colonized each island and then evolved into distinct species on that island through character displacement. C) each bird species became reproductively isolated by living on a different island, then later colonized the other islands and acquired new adaptations. D) many ancestral bird species colonized each island.
25) Very rapid speciation occurred when cichlid fishes were isolated in Lake Victoria. More
recently, widespread extinction occurred after A) artificial selection stopped. B) introduction of the Nile perch. C) hybridization stopped. D) fishing was prohibited. E) insect larvae were depleted.
26) Studies of snapping shrimp on either side of the Isthmus of Panama have shown that each
Caribbean shrimp species is more closely related to a Pacific shrimp species than it is to any other Caribbean shrimp species. The most likely explanation for this result is A) snapping shrimp in the Caribbean and the Pacific were never part of the same population. B) snapping shrimp species in each ocean diverged prior to the formation of the Isthmus of Panama. C) snapping shrimp species in each ocean diverged after the formation of the Isthmus of Panama. D) creation of the Panama Canal allowed interbreeding between populations of shrimp.
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27) The sunflower species Helianthus anomalus is thought to have been formed by hybridization
between the sunflower species H. petiolaris and H. annuus because it contains a set of chromsomes from both parental species. H. anomalus is most likely an example of instantaneous speciation through A) allopolyploidy. B) autopolyploidy. C) parthenogenesis. D) hybrid sterility.
28) Check all that apply: Members of the same biological species can A) have several isolated gene pools. B) differ from other species in one or more characteristics. C) generate fertile offspring with the members of a different species. D) interbreed freely with each other.
29) Punctuated equilibrium proposed by Eldredge and Gould in 1972 is an evolutionary process
that involves A) gradual change observable in the fossil record with very little, if any, stasis. B) "spurts" of change observable in the fossil record followed by periods of stasis. C) gradual change observable in the fossil record followed by periods of stasis. D) "spurts" of change observable in the fossil record with very little if any stasis. E) gradual change observable in the fossil record followed by periods of no change at all.
30) Two hundred years ago, the fly species Rhagoletis pomonella only laid its eggs on fruit of the
hawthorn tree. Today, different "host races" of R. pomonella lay their eggs on hawthorns OR apples. Apples occur within the range of hawthorns, so divergence between apple flies and hawthorn flies could be the first step in sympatric speciation. Choose the evidence that would suggest that R. pomonella is currently undergoing sympatric speciation. Check all that apply. A) Apple flies typically mate with apple flies, and hawthorn flies typically mate with hawthorn flies. B) Apple flies and hawthorn flies emerge from their hosts at different times of the year. C) Apple flies and hawthorn flies are able to form fertile hybrids. D) Apple flies and hawthorn flies are physically indistinguishable from each other.
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31) A virgin pine forest covers a valley, and one of the inhabitants is a red squirrel species. A
large volcanic eruption occurs and separates the valley with a huge lava flow, thus producing two populations of squirrels. What must occur for the two populations of squirrels to be considered separate species? A) The two squirrel populations must feed on different species of plants. B) The environment must change so that the populations exist in distinct habitats. C) The fur color or other morphological characteristic of the two squirrel populations must become distinct. D) The two squirrel populations must select mates using different behaviors. E) The two squirrel populations must be reproductively isolated.
32) Two bird species have different mating calls, occupy different habitats in nature, and when
they hybridize, the hybrids are infertile. Which isolating mechanisms maintain these species? A) ecological isolation, behavioral isolation, and hybrid sterility B) mechanical isolation, hybrid sterility, geographical isolation C) ecological isolation, mechanical isolation, hybrid sterility D) geographical isolation, temporal isolation, behavioral isolation
33) The most common mechanism for sympatric speciation in plants is A) polyploidy. B) geographic isolation. C) spontaneous mutation. D) punctuated equilibrium. E) disruptive selection.
34) Lake Victoria is famous for its variety of cichlid fishes. In fact, they offer the most diverse
assembly of vertebrates presently known to science. One trait that scientists have focused on as one possible reason for their adaptability is A) a second set of scales that lie beneath the top outermost scales. B) a second set of jaws in their throats. C) gill arches that are not covered by an operculum, which prevents hiding places for gill parasites. D) digestive tracts that are able to process most substrates, which has eliminated the need for feeding specialization. E) ability to change color in relationship to their environment.
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35) Two populations that inhabit the same area but remain genetically distinct can best be called A) genera. B) subspecies (races). C) polymorphic. D) allopatric species. E) sympatric species.
36) The biological species concept of Ernst Mayr cannot be applied to A) sympatric organisms. B) allopatric organisms. C) eukaryotic organisms. D) plants and fungi. E) asexually-reproducing organisms.
37) Which examples would be considered different species under the biological species concept?
Check all that apply. A) Two bear species are able to breed in zoos, but have separate ranges in nature. B) Two skunk species look morphologically similar, but are unable to interbreed. C) Two snake species look different, but often form fertile hybrids in nature. D) Two plant species have no gene flow between them. E) Two tree species have different leaf shapes, but form hybrids in their overlapping ranges.
38) Which statement is true about speciation on island archipelagos? A) Speciation is slow because it depends on emigration from the mainland. B) Most speciation occurs allopatrically. C) Ecological competition may cause new species to go extinct slowing speciation. D) Speciation by polyploidy is most common. E) Species clusters are less common.
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39) Which form of speciation is most rapid? A) allopatric speciation on the mainland B) allopatric speciation on island archipelagos C) sympatric speciation via polyploidy D) sympatric speciation via disruptive selection E) sympatric speciation via character displacement
40) Several species of sea urchins may inhabit the same tide pool and their reproductive periods
overlap. Although they practice external fertilization, they seldom interbreed because eggs produce chemicals that are only attractive to sperm of their own species. This is an example of a _________ barrier that _________. A) prezygotic; causes geographic isolation B) prezygotic; causes temporal isolation C) prezygotic; prevents gamete fusion D) postzygotic; prevents zygote fusion E) postzygotic; causes hybrid infertility
41) Many male songbirds have very distinctive songs that are used to attract females. These
songs are an example of a _________ isolating mechanism. A) postzygotic, ecological B) prezygotic, behavioral C) prezygotic, temporal D) postzygotic, mechanical E) prezygotic, gamete fusion
42) Due to character displacement, two closely related species may differ most morphologically
when they A) are allopatric. B) are sympatric. C) occupy the same niche. D) occupy different niches. E) share a common ancestor.
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43) Several new tetraploid species of a plant called salsify (Tragopogon) appeared in western
North America. These new species each arose from a diploid species that went through the process of allopolyploidy. This mode of speciation is a type of _________ and it occurs _________. A) allopatric speciation; almost instantaneously B) allopatric speciation; very slowly C) sympatric speciation; almost instantaneously D) sympatric speciation; very slowly E) adaptive radiation; very slowly
44) Why do the Galápagos Islands and the Hawaiian Islands have so many endemic species of
flies and birds? Check all that apply. A) There are numerous islands in each archipelago. B) There is adequate distance between islands to allow divergence. C) The founder effect was common when islands were colonized. D) Each bird or fly species has many common ancestors.
45) Imagine two species of birds with similar beak sizes and diets. Where the two species are
allopatric, we would expect that their beak sizes A) should be more different than when sympatric. B) should be more similar than when sympatric. C) should be larger than when sympatric. D) should be smaller than when sympatric.
46) If two species are able to mate and produce a hybrid offspring which can mate with other
hybrid offspring, but is unable to mate with either parent's species, it is an example of A) allopatric speciation. B) sympatric speciation via disruptive selection. C) sympatric speciation via polyploidy. D) a species cluster. E) character displacement.
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47) If a new species is produced by the interbreeding of two members of distinct species, this
would be_________ speciation achieved via_________. A) allopatric; autopolyploidy B) allopatric; allopolyploidy C) sympatric; autopolyploidy D) sympatric; allopolyploidy E) sympatric; divergence
48) Choose the factors contributing to adaptive radiation of Drosophila in the Hawaiian Islands.
Check all that apply. A) New islands were constantly being formed. B) There are high rates of mutation due to radioactive materials in the lava flows. C) The islands are highly volcanic, with lava flows breaking up the habitat. D) Drosophila species have no predators on the Hawaiian Islands.
49) Choose the true statements about the diversity of Darwin's finches on the Galápagos Islands.
Check all that apply. A) All of the finch species share a common ancestor that colonized the islands. B) Prior to the adaptive radiation of finches, there were no unoccupied habitats in the Galápagos Islands. C) Competition among finches for food sources led to character displacement of beak shapes. D) Beak shape is not an important key innovation.
50) Which statements about the Lake Victoria cichlid fishes are true? Check all that apply. A) The adaptive radiation of the estimated 300 species of cichlid fish was very rapid and
took place during the last 200,000 years. B) The adaptive radiation of the Lake Victoria cichlids may have resulted from a key
evolutionary innovation. C) Speciation of the Lake Victoria cichlids was mainly allopatric. D) The diversity of the Lake Victoria cichlids continues today because the lake is devoid of predators. E) Many of the Lake Victoria cichlids have very specialized adaptations that allow them to occupy diverse habitats within the lake.
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51) Which statements about gradualism and punctuated equilibrium are true? Check all that
apply. A) Darwin's publication On the Origin of Species changed the view of evolution from
gradualism to that of punctuated equilibrium. B) According to the theory of punctuated equilibrium, evolutionary change occurs only during brief periods of speciation. C) Stasis is likely caused by periods of disruptive and directional selection. D) Gradualism suggests that evolutionary change is not linked to speciation.
52) Choose the best cause and effect sequence for the process of speciation by natural selection. A) Variation → Selection → Reproductive Isolation → Mutation → Speciation B) Mutation → Variation → Selection → Reproductive Isolation → Speciation C) Speciation → Reproductive Isolation → Selection → Mutation → Variation D) Variation → Reproductive Isolation → Speciation → Mutation → Selection E) Selection → Speciation → Reproductive Isolation → Variation → Mutation
53) Which is an example of temporal isolation? A) one plant species blooms in June-July and a second plant species blooms in August-
September. B) one plant species is pollinated by bees and a second plant species is pollinated by moths. C) two plant species live on the same mountainside, but one lives on rocky outcrops and the other in open meadows. D) two plant species have incompatible gametes.
54) Reinforcement is most likely to drive the evolution of A) prezygotic isolating mechanisms, because selection favors alleles that prevent
hybridization. B) postzygotic isolating mechanisms, because selection acts after the formation of hybrids. C) prezygotic isolating mechanisms, because selection favors alleles that promote hybridization. D) postzygotic isolating mechanisms, because hybrids have low fitness relative to the parents.
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55) Two species regularly come into contact and form hybrids that have higher fitness than either
of the parental species. What are some likely consequences of regular hybridization between these species? Check all that apply. A) evolution of a third species B) reinforcement of prezygotic isolating mechanisms C) extincton of one or both of the parental species. D) increased gene flow between the parental species E) complete reproductive isolation of the two original species
56) NASA Scientists send a small population of dogs to a new planet in order to test if it will be
hospitable for human colonization. Through a random lottery, only Great Dane and St. Bernard dog breeds are sent, and the resulting population consists of tall, longhaired dogs. After 100 years these dogs return to Earth and are no longer able to mate with Earth dogs. This scenario is an example of A) allopatric speciation through genetic drift. B) allopatric speciation through natural selection. C) sympatric speciation through genetic drift. D) sympatric speciation through natural selection.
57) Indicate the scenario(s) that could directly result in sympatric speciation. Check all that
apply. A) Two sunflower species cross to form a healthy hybrid individual with equal copies of
chromosomes from each parental species. B) A new river channel divides a population of beetles into two populations. C) A large fence blocks the intermingling of two populations of a species. D) A subset of flies within a larger population colonizes a new host plant.
58) Select the reasons why adaptive radiations are often observed on remote volcanic islands.
Check all that apply. A) When a new volcanic island forms, there are many empty niches. B) Only a few individuals reach remote islands. C) Remote islands have more plant diversity than the mainland does. D) Evolution is intrinsically faster on islands than on the mainland.
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59) Diversification of mammals after the extinction of the dinosaurs is considered an adaptive
radiation because a few mammal species rapidly evolved into most of the current mammalian lineages in a relatively short amount of time. This diversification was partially driven by the evolution of endothermic homeostasis in mammals, which is an example of A) allopatric speciation. B) reproductive isolation. C) a key innovation. D) hybridization.
60) Courtship for Anolis lizards involves the male displaying a dewlap (skin under the throat
area) that varies in appearance based upon the species. Lizards that are found in darker, more shaded environments will have dewlaps that are lighter in color because they are more noticeable by potential mates. Which of the following mechanisms best explains how speciation is at work in this example? A) Postzygotic isolation B) Reinforcement C) Genetic drift D) Natural selection
61) How many mass extinctions have been identified during the history of life on Earth? A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five
62) Select the phrases that apply to the current mass extinction event. A) human-influenced B) asteroid C) Cretaceous period D) slow rebound of biodiversity
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63) After an initial rapid rise in the number of species on Earth, there was a plateau that
experienced very little fluctuation in the number of species. ⊚ true ⊚ false
64) Select the following statements that are related to mass extinctions. A) A mass extinction occurs when extinctions sharply outpace the formation of new
species. B) Periods of mass extinctions occurred five times on Earth before the modern era. C) The most severe mass extinction occurred at the end of the Cretaceous period. D) The current level of species diversity is so high it is highly unlikely that another mass extinction could occur. E) During periods of mass extinction, dominant groups of organisms are protected and survive to repopulate.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 22 1) punctuated equilibrium 2) biological 3) adaptive radiation 4) character displacement 5) C 6) C 7) C 8) B 9) A 10) B 11) D 12) B 13) B 14) [A, C] 15) A 16) C 17) B 18) C 19) B 20) C 21) B 22) A 23) [A, B, C] 24) B 25) B 26) B 27) A 28) [B, D] 29) B 30) [A, B] 31) E 32) A 33) A 34) B 35) E 36) E 37) [A, B, D]
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38) B 39) C 40) C 41) B 42) B 43) C 44) [A, B, C] 45) B 46) C 47) D 48) [A, C] 49) [A, C] 50) [A, B, E] 51) [B, D] 52) B 53) A 54) A 55) [A, C, D] 56) A 57) [A, D] 58) [A, B] 59) C 60) D 61) E 62) [A, D] 63) FALSE 64) [A, B]
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Chapter 23 Student name:__________ 1) _________ is the science of classifying living things.
2) The biological specialty that deals with the reconstruction and study of phylogenies is
called_________.
3) The behavior of parental care exhibited by dinosaurs is thought to be_________ to this
behavior in crocodiles and birds because phylogeny shows that these three groups share a common ancestor.
4) Saber teeth found in different groups of extinct carnivorous mammals are
considered_________ structures, as the fossil record shows that saber teeth evolved independently among the groups.
5) Systematists often use DNA sequencing in_________, the study of the order of evolutionary
events within a group sharing derived characters.
6) A_________ group consists of the most recent common ancestor and all of its descendants.
7) A_________ group consists of the most recent common ancestor and some of its
descendants.
8) A_________ group does not contain the most recent common ancestor.
9) The principle of_________ favors the hypothesis that requires the fewest assumptions.
10) A derived character that is shared by all members of a clade is called a_________ of that
clade.
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11) Characteristics between the branch points of a cladogram that are shared by all organisms
above the branch point and are not present in any below it are called A) homologous characters. B) homoplastic characters. C) ancestral characters. D) derived characters. E) novel characters.
12) Characteristics that are present in organisms as a result of common evolutionary descent are
said to be_________ characteristics. A) homologous B) homoplastic C) adaptive D) derived E) ancestral
13) One day after a biology class four of your friends argue about the difference between
phylogeny and systematics. Which friend is right? A) Friend A states that systematics and phylogenies are really the same, one is more recent than the other, but basically they are the same. B) Friend B says that systematics is the same as cladistics and cladistics is reconstructing clades, which ultimately lead to the development of phylogenies. C) Friend C argues that systematics is the actual collecting and cataloguing of specimens into museums that can be used later by scientists to construct clades and phylogenies. D) Friend D says that the way she remembers is that systematics is the reconstruction and study of phylogenies.
14) What information would be most useful for determining the phylogenetic relationships
between five species? A) A homoplasy shared by three of them. B) Two homoplasies, each shared by two of them. C) Three single-nucleotide changes shared by all five of them. D) Two synapomorphies shared by all five of them. E) A synapomorphy is shared by three of them.
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15) A scientist sees that two insects share very similar wing patterns, but she suspects it may be
an example of homoplasy. What would help her apply the principle of parsimony to determine their relationship? Check all that apply. A) Compare additional morphological traits B) Find other species with the same wing pattern C) Find other homoplastic traits in these two species D) Compare DNA sequences
16) Choose the true statement about the morphological data in the chart shown below. The "1" in
the box means the trait is present and the "0" indicates that the trait is absent. (Note: All of the characteristics across the top of the columns are considered "TRAITS" for purposes of reading the chart.). 17) The study and reconstruction of phylogenies is A) evolution. B) systematics. C) taxonomy. D) taxidermy. E) cladistics.
18)
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18.1)
Based on the phylogeny shown, we can conclude that species 2 is most closely related to species A) 1. B) 3. C) 4. D) 5. E) 1 or 3 (can't tell).
18.2)
Based on the phylogeny shown, the outgroup would be species A) 1. B) 2. C) 3. D) 4. E) 5.
18.3)
Based on the phylogeny shown, the group of species including (2-5) can best be described as a A) clade. B) paraphyletic group. C) polyphyletic group. D) cladogram. E) synapomorphy
19) Derived character states shared by clade members are called A) ancestral traits. B) homoplasies. C) synapomorphies. D) plesiomorphies. E) symplesiomorphies.
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20) The following are steps used to construct a cladogram that best reflects the evolutionary
relationships of a group of species. Which step involves deciding which tree is most likely to have occurred, based on the fewest character state changes? A) Polarize the characters. B) Establish the character states. C) Gather data on characters to be used. D) Apply the principle of parsimony. E) Select an outgroup.
21) Character states shared by the ancestor or outgroup of a clade are called A) derived traits. B) homoplasies. C) synapomorphies. D) plesiomorphies. E) symplesiomorphies.
22) Select all of the following that can result in homoplasies. A) convergent evolution B) evolutionary reversals C) divergent evolution D) shared ancestry
23) Birds, snakes, lizards, turtles, and crocodiles are all thought to share a common ancestor and
several homologous traits. Assuming that this is true, these groups of animals and their common ancestor would represent A) a polyphyletic group. B) a monophyletic group. C) homoplastic convergence. D) an outgroup. E) a species cluster.
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24) Select the true statements describing why cladistics may not always be the best method for
reconstructing phylogenies based on data from the DNA genome. A) The rate of evolution of the DNA genome is rapid. B) The assumptions of the principle of parsimony are not always met. C) Homoplasy often dominates the data sets. D) The number of character states for DNA is large.
25) Evidence suggests that the crocodiles are more closely related to the birds than the turtles and
snakes. If so, then including crocodiles, but not birds, in the Class Reptilia would make the Class Reptilia A) a monophyletic group. B) a paraphyletic group. C) a polyphyletic group. D) parsimonious. E) not homologous.
26) 26.1)
The table shows the distribution of traits (A-E) in six extant species (1-6). A "0" indicates the ancestral condition, while "1" indicates the derived condition. Which trait is least useful for understanding phylogenetic relationships within the group? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
26.2)
The table shows the distribution of traits (A-E) in six extant species (1-6). A "0" indicates the ancestral condition, while "1" indicates the derived condition. Based on this data, which species would be considered the outgroup? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
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27) <p>
©McGraw-Hill Education
27.1)
Consider the cladogram shown. Which pair of species shares the greatest number of derived characters (synapomorphies)? A) 4 and 2 B) 5 and 4 C) 6 and 1 D) 6 and 2 E) 5 and 2
27.2)
Consider the cladogram shown. Based on this cladogram, which species has the greatest number of ancestral character states? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
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28) 28.1)
The table shows the distribution of traits (A-E) in six extant species (1-6). A "0" indicates the ancestral condition, while a "1" indicates the derived condition. Which trait has the greatest number of plesiomorphies? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
28.2)
The table shows the distribution of traits (A-E) in six extant species (1-6). A "0" indicates the ancestral condition, while a "1" indicates the derived condition. Based on this data, which pair of species diverged most recently? A) 1 and 4 B) 2 and 3 C) 2 and 4 D) 6 and 4 E) 6 and 5
29) <p>
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29.1)
Consider the cladogram shown. Which pair of species shares the greatest number of derived characters (synapomorphies)? A) 1 and 4 B) 2 and 3 C) 2 and 4 D) 6 and 4 E) 6 and 5
29.2)
Consider the cladogram shown. If we designate species 1 as the outgroup, which species has the greatest number of ancestral character states (plesiomorphies)? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6
30) 30.1)
The table shows the distribution of traits (A-E) in six extant species (1-6). A "0" indicates the ancestral condition, and a "1" indicates the derived condition. Which trait is least useful for understanding phylogenetic relationships within the group? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
30.2)
The table shows the distribution of traits (A-E) in six extant species (1-6). A "0" indicates the ancestral condition, and a "1" indicates the derived condition. Which species would you designate as the outgroup? A) 1 B) 4 C) 2 D) 3 E) 5
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30.3)
The table shows the distribution of traits (A-E) in six extant species (1-6). A "0" indicates the ancestral condition, and a "1" indicates the derived condition. Which pair of species shares the greatest number of derived characters (synapomorphies)? A) 1 and 4 B) 6 and 3 C) 6 and 1 D) 5 and 6 E) 5 and 1
30.4)
The table shows the distribution of traits (A-E) in six extant species (1-6). A "0" indicates the ancestral condition, and a "1" indicates the derived condition. Which species has the greatest number of ancestral character states (plesiomorphies)? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
31) 31.1)
The table shows the distribution of traits (A-E) in six extant species (1-6). A "0" indicates the ancestral condition, and a "1" indicates the derived condition. Which trait is least useful for understanding phylogenetic relationships within the group? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
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31.2)
The table shows the distribution of traits (A-E) in six extant species (1-6). A "0" indicates the ancestral condition, and a "1" indicates the derived condition. Which species would you designate as the outgroup? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 F) 6
31.3)
The table shows the distribution of traits (A-E) in six extant species (1-6). A "0" indicates the ancestral condition, and a "1" indicates the derived condition. Which pair of species shares the greatest number of derived characters (synapomorphies)? A) 4 and 5 B) 2 and 4 C) 1 and 4 D) 3 and 4 E) 2 and 5
31.4)
The table shows the distribution of traits (A-E) in six extant species (1-6). A "0" indicates the ancestral condition, and a "1" indicates the derived condition. Which species has the greatest number of ancestral character states (plesiomorphies)? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 F) 6
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32) TRAIT SPECIES
A
B
C
D
E
1
0
0
1
0
0
2
1
0
1
0
1
3
1
0
1
0
1
4
1
1
1
0
0
5
1
1
1
1
0
6
1
1
1
1
0
32.1)
The table shows the distribution of traits (A-E) in six extant species (1-6). A "0" indicates the ancestral condition, and a "1" indicates the derived condition. Which trait is least informative of phylogenetic relationships within the group? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
32.2)
The table shows the distribution of traits (A-E) in six extant species (1-6). A "0" indicates the ancestral condition, and a "1" indicates the derived condition. Which species has the fewest number of derived characters? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 F) 6
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33) <p>
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33.1)
Consider the cladogram shown. Which pair of species shares the greatest number of derived characters (synapomorphies)? A) 1 and 3 B) 6 and 4 C) 6 and 5 D) 2 and 3 E) 6 and 3
33.2)
Consider the cladogram shown. Based on this cladogram, which species has the greatest number of ancestral character states (plesiomorphies)? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 F) 6
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34) A group is considered monophyletic if A) all members of the group share a common ancestor that is included in the group. B) not all descendants of the common ancestor are included. C) all members share homoplastic traits. D) the group does not contain the most recent common ancestor. E) it is the most parsimonious grouping.
35) A group is considered paraphyletic if A) all members of the group share a common ancestor. B) not all descendants of the common ancestor are included. C) the common ancestor of the group is not included in the group. D) the group does not contain the most recent common ancestor. E) it is the most parsimonious grouping.
36) A group is considered polyphyletic if A) all members of the group share a common ancestor. B) not all descendants of the common ancestor are included. C) all members share homoplastic traits. D) the group does not contain the most recent common ancestor. E) it is the most parsimonious grouping.
37) Choose the true statements about molecular clocks. A) Molecular clocks are only useful for slow changes over very long periods of time. B) Molecular clocks can be calibrated using fossil evidence. C) The rate of a molecular clock will differ between coding and noncoding DNA. D) Since all DNA is the same kind of molecule, all molecular clocks run at the same rate.
38) The phylogenetic species concept (PSC) declares that a group is a species if it A) is reproductively isolated from other species. B) has evolved one or more of its own derived characters. C) looks different than other species. D) is allopatric. E) has no synapomorphies.
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39) Parental care in dinosaurs, crocodiles, and birds is an example of A) homoplasy caused by convergence. B) homoplasy caused by common descent. C) homoplasy caused by evolutionary reversal. D) homology caused by convergence. E) homology caused by common descent.
40) The evolution of saber teeth in a number of groups of extinct carnivorous mammals is an
example of A) homoplasy caused by convergence. B) homoplasy caused by common descent. C) homoplasy caused by evolutionary reversal. D) homology caused by convergence. E) homology caused by common descent.
41) The evolution of conducting tubes (sieve tubes) in land plants and brown algae is an example
of A) B) C) D) E)
homoplasy caused by convergence. homoplasy caused by common descent. homoplasy caused by evolutionary reversal. homology caused by convergence. homology caused by common descent.
42) Choose the true statements about the evolution of complex characters, such as powered
flight. A) Phylogenetic analysis using cladistics can help reveal the sequence leading to the
evolution of a complex character. B) Usually a single mutation in one gene leads to the simultaneous appearance of the complex character. C) Often the initial stage in the evolution of a complex character was an adaptation to some unrelated selection pressure. D) The intermediate stages in the evolution of a complex character had no fitness advantage.
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43) Choose the true statements about the evolution of larval dispersal in marine snails. A) The evolution of non-dispersing snails is likely to hinder speciation. B) Clades of non-dispersing snails are less species rich than those of dispersing snails. C) Loss of structures in the transition from dispersing to non-dispersing may inhibit
evolutionary reversal. D) Possession of dispersing larvae is the ancestral state in snails. E) Cladistics shows that there are more instances of the transition from dispersing to non-dispersing larvae than the reverse.
44) The figure shows a cladogram of direct development versus development of a larval stage.
Choose the true statements about the evolution of development in limpets.
A) Loss of structures in the transition from a larval stage to direct development prohibits
evolutionary reversal. B) Direct development has evolved multiple times. C) Evolution always proceeds parsimoniously. D) Possession of a larval stage is the ancestral state in limpets.
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45) The figure shows the evolutionary diversification of the largest clade of herbivorous beetles
with the group of plants on which they specialize. Choose the true statements about the evolution of species richness in herbivorous beetles.
A) Feeding on conifers evolved earlier than feeding on angiosperms. B) Feeding on cycads evolved earlier than feeding on angiosperms. C) Diversification of the angiosperms may have led to diversification of herbivorous
beetles. D) The multiple, independent evolution of herbivory in beetles is closely linked to their great species richness.
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46) The figure shows the evolution of HIV and SIV. Choose the true statements about the
evolution of HIV (Select all that apply).
A) All strains of HIV are included within clades with SIV strains. B) A strain of HIV is never more closely related to another strain of HIV than it is to a
SIV strain. C) Humans acquired different subtypes of HIV from different primate hosts. D) HIV-1 group O is more closely related to SIV-chimpanzee than SIV-gorilla. E) All strains of SIV are included within clades with HIV strains.
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47)
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47.1)
Based on the phylogeny shown, which species is not a tree but has seeds? A) Psaronius B) Ginkgo C) Fern D) Rose E) Oak F) Pine
47.2)
Based on the phylogeny shown, which characteristic is homoplastic? A) Tree B) Needles C) Flowers D) Seeds
47.3)
Assume that the ancestor of this phylogeny had vascular tissue and chlorophyll. If this is true, which answer lists all key traits of a ginkgo? A) Vascular tissue, needles, tree, and chlorophyll B) Tree, needles, seeds, flowers C) Seeds, tree, vascular tissue, and chlorophyll D) Needles, tree, and seeds
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47.4)
Based on the phylogeny shown, indicate the groups that are monophyletic. A) Rose and oak B) Pine, ginkgo, oak, and rose C) Fern, pine, and ginkgo D) Psaronius, fern, pine, ginkgo, oak, and rose
47.5)
Based on the phylogeny shown, choose the true statement about evolutionary relationships. A) Ginkgo is more closely related to oak than rose. B) Oak is equally related to rose and pine. C) Fern is more closely related to pine than to rose. D) Fern is equally related to ginkgo and oak.
48)
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48.1)
Based on the phylogeny shown, choose the true statements about evolutionary relationships. A) A snake is more closely related to a newt than to a mouse. B) A newt is equally related to a snake and a chimp. C) A mouse is more closely related to a chimp than to a snake. D) A salamander is more closely related to a mouse than to a chimp.
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48.2)
Indicate the phylogenies that show the same relationship as the phylogeny above (Select all that apply).
A)
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B)
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C)
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D)
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49)
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49.1)
A frog would be added to the phylogeny above with a branch at point A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) E.
49.2)
The common ancestor shared by mouse and gorilla is at point_________ on the phylogeny shown. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
50) Phenotypic similarity does not always reflect evolutionary relationships due to A) variation in rates of evolutionary change among species. B) homoplasy. C) convergent evolution. D) outgrouping.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 23 1) Taxonomy 2) systematics 3) homologous 4) homoplastic 5) cladistics 6) monophyletic 7) paraphyletic 8) polyphyletic 9) parsimony 10) synapomorphy 11) D 12) E 13) D 14) E 15) [A, D] 16) C 17) B 18) Section Break 18.1) B 18.2) A 18.3) A 19) C 20) D 21) E 22) [A, B] 23) B 24) [A, B, C] 25) B 26) Section Break 26.1) A 26.2) D 27) Section Break 27.1) C 27.2) D 28) Section Break 28.1) E 28.2) B
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29) Section Break 29.1) B 29.2) E 30) Section Break 30.1) E 30.2) E 30.3) A 30.4) E 31) Section Break 31.1) D 31.2) F 31.3) A 31.4) F 32) Section Break 32.1) C 32.2) A 33) Section Break 33.1) C 33.2) A 34) A 35) B 36) D 37) [B, C] 38) B 39) E 40) A 41) A 42) [A, C] 43) [C, D, E] 44) [B, D] 45) [A, C] 46) [A, B, C] 47) Section Break 47.1) D 47.2) A 47.3) C 47.4) [A, B, D] 47.5) D 48) Section Break 48.1) [B, C]
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48.2) [A, D] 49) Section Break 49.1) A 49.2) E 50) [A, B, C]
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Chapter 24 Student name:__________ 1) Over long segments of chromosomes, the linear order of mouse and human genes is
preserved. This is called conserved_________.
2) The breast cancer gene BRCA1 has a very similar sequence in humans, mice, and gorillas,
due to its origination in a common ancestor. The BRCA1 genes in these species are examples of _________. A) orthologs B) paralogs C) polyploidy D) synteny
3) Two genes within an organism that arose from the duplication of a single gene in an ancestor
are_________.
4) Genes that have DNA sequences similar to functional genes but that do not appear to produce
any functional product are_________.
5) Except in rare cases, genes are usually passed from generation to generation within a species.
This process is called: A) horizontal gene transfer B) vertical gene transfer C) transgenesis D) synteny
6) Many transposons found in the human genome may have been transferred from viruses to
mammals via_________ gene transfer.
7) The entire DNA sequence of a species is called its_________.
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8) If a gene is found in different groups, it is said to be A) active. B) variable. C) conserved. D) associational. E) endogenous.
9) Using the sequencing results for genomes from each of the kingdoms, it is currently possible A) to explore genetic differences between organisms in detail, by examining the DNA
sequence. B) to build, from scratch, complex organisms with trans-kingdom genomes. C) to understand the relationship between each gene and each organism's unique set of traits. D) to design humans with a variety of inter-kingdom abilities built into their DNA.
10) Choose the true statement about the human genome and the tiger pufferfish genomes. A) Essentially all the human genes have nearly identical counterparts in pufferfish. B) The order of genes along the chromosomes in both species is essentially identical. C) Both species have about the same amount of introns and "nonsense" sequences of
DNA. D) About 25% of human genes are unique when compared to the tiger pufferfish genome.
11) One of the ways that two species can be compared, and information about the genetic basis
of human diseases extracted, is by using their sequenced genomes and A) looking at the allelic differences. B) investigating the introns. C) looking at the conserved sequences. D) exchanging genomic information between them.
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12) One of the reasons that pufferfish are a good species to compare to humans is because A) it is so easy to hybridize the two and investigate the consequences. B) they are so distantly related that it's easy to distinguish mutually conserved sequences. C) the introns are often identical. D) of the rapid response time in pufferfish to artificial selection. E) they have been separated for so many millions of years and yet the gene sequence is
almost identical.
13) Comparisons of human and mouse genomes reveals A) they have widely different numbers of genes, and share only a few more genes than
humans and pufferfish. B) the differences between humans and mice are mainly the introns. C) they have very little in common. D) there are more differences in protein coding DNA than in noncoding DNA. E) the genomes are very similar, but mice have many more active olfactory receptor genes.
14) Genes are found in the same order for large stretches of the X chromosome in the rat and
mouse genomes, indicating A) occurence of aneuploidy. B) formation of pseudogenes. C) conservation of synteny. D) conservation of neoteny.
15) The best explanation for the differences between humans and chimps despite the similarities
in their gene-coding sequences is A) the differences in exons between their genomes. B) the differences in the introns between their genomes. C) the telomeres of humans contain important sequences not present in chimps. D) differences in gene expression between species.
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16) Genome sequencing of the parasitic protist Plasmodium falciparum has been completed. One
of the results is A) Plasmodium is highly genetically similar to its host, Anopheles. B) Plasmodium is highly genetically similar to its host, Drosophila. C) Plasmodium has a chloroplast-like apicoplast that could be targeted by drugs. D) Plasmodium produces fatty acids that are similar to ones found in humans and could be targeted by drugs.
17) The genomes of Arabidopsis thaliana, and rice, Oryza sativa, have been sequenced. The
findings include A) the genome for each is almost identical, indicating that they diverged in the fairly recent past. B) they each have high copy numbers for several gene families, probably indicating episodes of polyploidy and/or segmental duplication. C) repetitive DNA, including retrotransposons, was a very small proportion of both genomes. D) more than 90% of the genes in each were particular to plants and not found in animal or fungal genomes.
18) When a segment of DNA duplicates, causing two copies of a gene to be present in the
chromosome, the duplicate copy could possibly A) lose function due to mutation. B) become an ortholog. C) gain a new function due to mutation. D) become a pseudogene. E) become a centromere.
19) The types of human genes most likely to be duplicated, resulting in multiple copies, are...
(Choose two.) A) cellular housekeeping genes. B) immune system genes. C) genes for cell surface receptors. D) genes for controlling basic metabolism.
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20) Some of the olfactory receptor (OR) genes in humans A) have been inactivated, reducing our olfactory capabilities compared to other primates. B) have been activated, enhancing our olfactory sense compared to other primates. C) have duplicated more frequently, resulting in increased paralogs compared to other
primates. D) have been conserved more rigidly, resulting in increased orthologs compared to other primates.
21) Many genes in the human genome are no longer expressed because mutations have
introduced stop codons within the coding sequence or transposons have disrupted gene function. These genes are now considered A) pseudogenes. B) orthologs. C) paralogs. D) homologues.
22) Today, gene swapping between two species is A) impossible, but it happened frequently in the distant past. B) infrequent but possible; it happened more often in the distant past. C) much more frequent compared to in the distant past. D) only possible if they are in the same family of organisms, such as lions and tigers.
23) The human genome A) has no foreign DNA because it is excised by DNase. B) has a very small amount of foreign DNA, mostly in the end caps (telomeres) of
chromosomes. C) has a lot of foreign DNA, mostly in the end caps (telomeres) of chromosomes. D) has a lot of foreign DNA scattered throughout the genome, including transposons.
24) Choose all the true statements about orthologs and paralogs. A) Orthologs in different species will often have the same function. B) Both orthologs and paralogs result from single nucleotide changes. C) Paralogs are found in more than one copy in the same species. D) Paralogs can take on new functions after duplication. E) Paralogs are nonfunctional, and orthologs are functional.
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25) Choose the true statements about the human and pufferfish genomes. A) The human genome has much more DNA than the pufferfish genome, but a similar
number of genes. B) About 25% of the human genes have no counterpart in the pufferfish genome. C) Being ancestral to humans, the pufferfish genome has more repetitive DNA than the human genome does. D) The pufferfish genome has twice the amount of DNA as the human genome does.
26) Choose the true statements about the human and mouse genomes. A) The human genome shares almost all of its genes with the mouse genome. B) A comparison of genomes confirms that mice and humans shared a common ancestry
more recently than humans and pufferfish. C) Very few genes are conserved in the two genomes. D) Little rearrangement of genes has occurred in the two genomes.
27) Choose the true statements about the human and chimpanzee genomes. A) A comparison of genomes confirms that humans and chimpanzees are closely related
species. B) About 14% of genes are similar between the genomes. C) There is about 1.4% divergence in single-site substitutions between the genomes. D) More similarity exists between human and mouse genomes than between human and chimpanzee. E) The genome size is about twice as big in humans as in chimpanzees.
28) Choose the true statements about the genomes of plants (especially Arabidopsis and rice),
animals, and fungi. A) Plants, animals, and fungi share most of the same genes for intermediary metabolism, genome replication, and protein synthesis. B) "Plant" genes include those coding for photosynthetic pathways and morphology. C) Plants generally have smaller genomes than those of animals and fungi. D) Rice has fewer genes than humans.
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29) Choose the correct sequence of events involving allopolyploidy that gave rise to modern
tobacco. A) hybridization, chromosome doubling, duplicate gene loss B) hybridization, duplicate gene loss, chromosome doubling C) chromosome doubling, hybridization, duplicate gene loss D) duplicate gene loss, hybridization, chromosome doubling
30) Choose the true statement about the role of polyploidization in the evolution of plant
genomes. A) Jumping of transposons is most common many generations after a polyploidization event. B) Genome downsizing following allopolyploidy usually affects the participating hybrids equally. C) Genome downsizing following allopolyploidy results mainly from duplicate gene loss. D) Crop plants rarely show evidence of polyploidization events.
31) What are likely outcomes for a pair of duplicated genes? A) One copy becomes a nonfunctional pseudogene. B) One copy acquires a novel function. C) Gene conflict causes both copies to be lost from the genome. D) Each copy specializes for just one of the original gene's functions.
32) Choose the most important reason that humans have a reduced sense of smell compared with
other mammals. A) Many olfactory receptors became pseudogenes in the human lineage. B) Humans have more conservation of synteny. C) Humans have more aneuploidy. D) Humans are susceptible to coronaviruses and other mammals aren't. E) Humans lost all olfactory receptor (OR) genes.
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33) Horizontal gene transfer A) is also called vertical gene transfer. B) involves sharing genes between plants and animals. C) was common early in the history of life, and continues at a low level today. D) is another term for GMOs. E) makes molecular phylogenies impossible to construct.
34) Choose the true statement about foreign DNA in the human genome. A) Most of the foreign DNA in the human genome is ancient. B) Most of the foreign DNA in the human genome is coding DNA. C) Like the Drosophila genome, the human genome is constantly eliminating its foreign
DNA. D) New foreign DNA is regularly entering the human genome.
35) Choose the true statements about pseudogenes. A) Premature stop codons can produce pseudogenes. B) Missense mutations can produce pseudogenes. C) Pseudogenes have DNA sequences very similar to a functional gene. D) Pseudogenes result from horizontal gene transfer.
36) The best explanation for why a mouse develops into a mouse and not a human is A) most of the coding genes are different. B) most of the non-coding genes are different. C) gene expression differs. D) the genes are mostly the same but have been rearranged. E) synteny has not been conserved.
37) What type of genes would be most likely to exhibit different expression patterns between
humans and non-human primates, such as gorillas? A) Genes controlling brain development B) Genes controlling mammary gland development C) Genes controlling lung development D) Genes controlling heart development
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38) Genome sequencing of our human ancestor, Neanderthals (Homo neanderthalensis), revealed
that Neanderthals have a FOXP2 gene with the same two amino acid changes observed in H. sapiens FOXP2. What can be concluded based on this finding? (Check all that apply) A) Neanderthals evolved from H. sapiens. B) H. sapiens evolved from Neanderthals. C) Neanderthals may have had the ability to use language. D) These two amino acid changes arose prior to the common ancestor of Neanderthals and H. sapiens. E) Verbal speech was impossible for Neanderthals.
39) Recent research has suggested that some pseudogenes and non-protein-coding DNA code for
RNAs that affect transcription of coding regions. This suggests that A) pseudogenes code for proteins. B) non-protein-coding DNA has no function. C) non-protein-coding DNA may regulate gene expression. D) pseudogenes have no function.
40) Choose the true statement about genome size and gene number in animals. A) There is a strong correlation between the number of genes and genome size. B) Much of the extra DNA in humans is in the form of exons. C) The pufferfish has a larger genome than humans and more genes. D) Genome size differences depend to a large extent on the amount of noncoding DNA
present.
41) Plant species regularly hybridize in nature, but only some crosses result in new polyploid
species. Of the crosses below, if each one occurred, which would be most likely to result in a new stable polyploid species? A) A cross between a 2n gamete and a 1n gamete, forming a 3n hybrid. B) A cross between a 4n gamete and a 1n gamete, forming a 5n hybrid. C) A cross between a species with a CC genome and a species with a DD genome, forming a hybrid with a CD genome. D) A cross between a species with a BB genome and a species with a DD genome, followed by a doubling of chromosomes, forming a hybrid with a BBDD genome.
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42) How can analysis of mammalian genomes be used to detect and treat human disease? Check
all that apply. A) The genomes of the mammalian relatives of humans are the best targets for discovering new treatments for human diseases. B) Comparing the genomes of parasite and host is likely to reveal good drug targets to eliminate the parasite without harming the host. C) A comparison of mouse and human genomes would help reveal functions for previously unidentified human genes. D) A comparison of human and mouse genomes would help observe DNA sequences that evolved prior to the evolution of mammals.
43) Three human diseases in the tropics are caused by protozoan parasites -- Chagas disease,
African sleeping sickness, and Leishmania. Looking at the table of homologous genes found in different species, which gene would be best to target for the development of a drug to cure disease without harming the patient? ( </strong> indicates that a homologous gene is present; <strong> </strong> indicates that no homologous gene is present).</p> 44) What is a common finding from the genome analysis of endangered species such as Tasmanian devils? A) Numerous gene duplications because of evolution "speeding up". B) Large numbers of deleterious transposons. C) Low genetic diversity due to small population size. D) Aneuploidy and polyploidy.
45) During meiosis, a hexaploid hybrid plant spontaneously eliminates one set of chromosomes
(eliminates 1 n). What is the most likely result of this deletion? A) The hybrid will no longer be able to reproduce. B) The hybrid will be able to reproduce with one of the parental species. C) The hybrid will no longer be polyploid. D) The hybrid will be able to reproduce only by self-fertilization.
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46) Hox genes are a family of transcription factors that regulate development throughout the
animal kingdom. Studies of Hox genes in mice and Drosophila showed that many Hox genes are conserved between both species, and several Hox genes duplicated into new genes with novel functions within mice. Some Hox genes have even lost all function. Hox genes provide an example of which of the following? A) orthologs B) paralogs C) heterologs D) pseudogenes
47) Petrels (a flying and diving seabird) are thought to be one of the closest living relatives to
penguins. What type of genes would be most likely to exhibit different expression patterns between these species? A) Genes controlling skeletal development. B) Genes regulating the digestive tract. C) Genes regulating salt water tolerance. D) Genes controlling organ development.
48) Crop sunflowers are attacked by many fungal pathogens, such as downy mildew and
Sclerotinia, resulting in economic losses of millions of dollars per year. What genes would be best to target for the development of new fungus-killing crop treatments (fungicides)? A) Genes encoding chitin proteins that are shared by downy mildew and Sclerotinia, but absent in sunflower and humans. B) Genes encoding growth proteins that are shared by downy mildew, Sclerotinia, and sunflower, but absent in humans. C) Genes encoding metabolite proteins that are shared by downy mildew, Sclerotinia, and humans, but absent in sunflower. D) Genes encoding basic development proteins that are shared by downy mildew, Sclerotinia, sunflower, and humans.
49) What would be the best strategy to pinpoint the genetic differences that are responsible for
the unique features of Homo sapiens? A) Compare the human genome with other vertebrate genomes. B) Compare the human genome with other mammalian genomes. C) Compare the human genome with other primate genomes. D) Compare the human genome with other ape genomes.
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50) If you were researching genetic differences between humans and other mammals, which set
of genes would be LEAST likely to have important differences? A) MHC and immune system genes B) Olfactory receptor genes C) Genes for basic cellular metabolism functions D) Genes for brain development
51) What best describes the basis of differences in genome size in different organisms? A) There is a rigid relationship between organism complexity and genome size. B) Genome size is affected both by polyploidization and also how much noncoding
DNA is maintained over time. C) Genome size is mainly determined by polyploidization. D) Genome size is mainly affected by the number of transposons in the genome.
52) What is the range of Neanderthal DNA found in individual humans? A) 0 to 0.1% B) 0 to 3% C) 5 to 10% D) 25 to 50%
53) After a plant becomes polyploid, what often occurs? A) Some of the duplicated genes are lost or mutated. B) The plant maintains both complete genomes. C) The plant gives rise to two types of progeny, that match each of the parent genomes. D) The plant can dominate both original plants' habitats, driving them extinct.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 24 1) synteny 2) A 3) paralogs 4) pseudogenes 5) B 6) horizontal 7) genome 8) C 9) A 10) D 11) C 12) B 13) E 14) C 15) D 16) C 17) B 18) [A, C, D] 19) [B, C] 20) A 21) A 22) B 23) D 24) [A, C, D] 25) [A, B] 26) [A, B] 27) [A, C] 28) [A, B] 29) A 30) C 31) [A, B, D] 32) A 33) C 34) A 35) [A, B, C] 36) C 37) A
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38) [C, D] 39) C 40) D 41) D 42) [A, B, C] 43) D 44) C 45) A 46) [A, B, D] 47) A 48) A 49) D 50) C 51) B 52) B 53) A
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Chapter 25 Student name:__________ 1) The age of the Earth according to modern estimates is about A) 8 billion years. B) 4.6 billion years. C) 3.5 billion years. D) 1.5 billion years. E) a few thousand years.
2) The oldest microfossils are of A) prokaryotes. B) eukaryotes. C) insects. D) pollen grains. E) small animals.
3) Life apparently originated on Earth about A) 1 million years ago. B) 6000 years ago. C) 4.5 billion years ago. D) 8 billion years ago. E) 3.5 billion years ago.
4) The early Earth's reducing atmosphere probably contained all of the following except A) carbon dioxide. B) water. C) oxygen. D) hydrogen sulfide. E) methane.
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5) An experimental test of the hypothesis to explain the origin of the first organic compounds
on Earth might include all of the following sequential steps, except for A) <p>assembling an atmosphere with , , , and .</p> B) placing this atmosphere over liquid water. C) inoculating with a few bacteria to get the process started. D) increasing the temperature of the gases. E) providing energy with electrical spark discharges.
6) Which of the following was produced in experiments on primitive Earth conditions
conducted by Miller-Urey and others? A) ammonia and water B) amino acids C) and D) ammonia and hydrogen sulfide E) methane and oxygen
7) All of the following were produced in experiments on primitive Earth conditions conducted
by Miller-Urey and others, except for A) amino acids. B) organic molecules. C) prokaryotes. D) hydrogen cyanide. E) urea.
8) It has been discovered that enzyme-like catalysis can be carried out not only by proteins but
also by A) B) C) D) E)
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9) The oldest fossils of eukaryotes have been estimated to be A) 6000 years old. B) 8 billion years old. C) 4.5 billion years old. D) 1.5 billion years old. E) 1995 years old.
10) Imagine that NASA discovered a new planet with an atmosphere rich in hydrogen gas,
hydrogen sulfide, ammonia and methane. We would call this a(n) A) reducing atmosphere, because of the availability of hydrogen atoms that can donate electrons. B) reducing atmosphere, because it would reduce the energy necessary to build molecules. C) oxidizing atmosphere, because of the availability of oxygen compounds. D) oxidizing atmosphere, because of the lack of oxygen gas.
11) Which of the following was demonstrated by the Miller-Urey experiment? A) Life began in the oceans. B) Life can be started experimentally in the laboratory. C) Organic molecules could be formed from a set of simple chemicals. D) Life began on the prebiotic Earth 3.5 billion years ago.
12) Eukaryotic cells acquired mitochondria and chloroplasts by A) endosymbiosis. B) exocytosis. C) pinocytosis. D) mutation. E) natural selection.
13) Two principal organelles in eukaryotes that were apparently derived from different types of
bacteria are the A) microfilaments and microtubules. B) mitochondria and chloroplasts. C) rough ER and smooth ER. D) plasma membrane and nuclear membrane.
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14) The group that probably gave rise to chloroplasts is the A) cyanobacteria. B) green photosynthetic bacteria. C) purple sulfur bacteria. D) nonsulfur purple bacteria. E) methane bacteria.
15) True multicellularity is a major characteristic of A) all eukaryotes and a few prokaryotes. B) animals and plants only. C) eukaryotes only. D) protists, plants, and animals. E) prokaryotes and protists.
16) A scientist is studying endosymbiosis in cells. This means she is investigating A) how mitochondria and chloroplasts were derived from eukaryotic cells. B) how mitochondria and chloroplasts were derived from prokaryotic cells. C) how mitochondria and chloroplasts evolved into eukaryotic cells. D) how mitochondria and chloroplasts evolved into prokaryotic cells.
17) In the original experiments by Stanley Miller and Harold Urey to synthesize organic
molecules in an abiotic environment, which one of the following would you NOT expect to find in the collection flask? A) urea B) amino acids C) ATP D) adenine E) formaldehyde
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18) The apparatus in the figure was used by Stanley Miller and Harold Urey to study the origin
of life on Earth. What compound was excluded from the apparatus so that it would form a reducing atmosphere?
A) B) C) D) E)
19) Which one of the following statements about endosymbiosis and the origin of the eukaryotic
cell is FALSE? A) Mitochondria are the descendants of a type of parasitic bacteria. B) The chloroplasts of red and green algae are the descendants of cyanobacteria. C) Algae incorporated prokaryotic cells that became chloroplasts, but never acquired mitochondria. D) Many compartments of the eukaryotic cell are derived from the endomembrane system. E) Both the chloroplast and the mitochondria of eukaryotes are descendants of prokaryotic cells.
20) Homo sapiens have existed on earth for about 10% of the earth's history. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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21) Vascular plants appeared about 450 million year ago. Vascular plants have existed on earth
for_________. A) 10% of its history B) 20% of its history C) 50% of its history D) 75% of its history E) 90% of its history
22) Prokaryotes were the only living organisms present on earth for about 2 billion years.
Multicellular eukaryotes have only been around for about 25% of earth's history ⊚ true ⊚ false
23) Why is there free oxygen in the air? A) Organisms need oxygen to manufacture ATP. B) Free oxygen has been present since the formation of the earth's atmosphere. C) Evaporation of the oceans liberated oxygen. D) It is a by-product of photosynthesis. E) Free oxygen has seeped from cracks in the earth's crust.
24) Why is a reducing atmosphere conducive to the origin of life? A) It is more favorable for the development of organic molecules. B) It is rich in free oxygen. C) It is devoid of organic molecules. D) It is very similar to today's atmosphere.
25) Which eon would contain rocks with no fossils? A) Archean B) Hadean C) Proterozoic D) Phanerozoic
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26) A scientist is analyzing air bubbles trapped in ancient rocks that can be used to understand
the ancient atmosphere. What do you expect the scientist will observe when comparing rocks younger than 3.8 billion years old to rocks older than 3.8 billion years? A) The ratio of the carbon-12 isotope will be lower in the younger rocks, because living organisms preferentially use carbon-12 over other isotopes. B) The younger rocks will have higher levels of carbon dioxide, because there was no carbon dioxide in the atmosphere before animals evolved and expelled it as waste. C) The ratio of carbon-12 will be lower in the older rocks, because carbon-12 had to build up on earth before life could evolve. D) The amount of carbon will vary unpredictably in the younger rocks, because rock weathering added carbon dioxide to the atmosphere, and volcanic activity sequestered it.
27) Why is there uncertainty about the date when the earliest forms of cellular life originated? A) There are fossils of cells, but the nuclei and mitochondria are hard to distinguish. B) The only evidence for organisms before 2.5 billion years is based on isotope analysis
in rock. C) There is weaker evidence for fossils from the oldest dates, and stronger evidence for fossils from the younger dates. D) Many scientists argue that stromatolites are simply a mineral formation, and was never alive.
28) During the Snowball Earth events temperatures at the equator rarely exceeded -20 degrees
Celsius. Why didn't heat from the sun melt the ice? A) The high levels of atmospheric moisture created extensive cloud cover. B) Ice reflected most of radiant energy. C) The ozone layer absorbed all the heat. D) The earth's core was cooled and kept the ice frozen.
29) What would result for global climate from a massive drop in atmospheric carbon dioxide? A) A decrease in surface temperature B) An increase in ocean temperature C) Increased rock weathering D) Increased nitrogen availability E) A decrease in free oxygen content
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30) Why have plants been implicated in the Ordovician and Devonian glaciations, but not the
Proterozoic glaciations? A) Proterozoic plants used anoxygenic photosynthesis. B) Proterozoic plants had simple root structures that did not increase rock weathering. C) Land plants had not yet evolved during the Proterozoic. D) The nonvascular plants present during the Proterozoic did not contribute to global nutrient cycles.
31) How did humans colonize the New World? A) Early humans walked across a land bridge during periods of lowered sea level. B) Christopher Columbus and a host of other explorers were the first to colonize the
Americas. C) Humans drifted across the Atlantic on primitive canoes. D) Humans were present during the break-up of Gondwana.
32) What is the advantage of having cyanobacteria living inside a cell? A) Enhanced protection of DNA B) Intracellular production of glucose C) Much more efficient protein synthesis D) Allows the cell to manufacture ATP
33) Infolding of the cellular membrane has led to the development of the A) chloroplast B) mitochondria C) nucleolus D) ribosome E) nuclear envelope
34) RNA was probably the first molecule used to encode genetic information; the use of DNA
came later. This is due to RNA's inherent stability and its ability to store information more accurately than DNA. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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35) How would the hydrolysis of phosphodiester bonds impede the origin of life? A) It would slow the rate of protein synthesis. B) It would prevent the assembly of nucleic acids. C) It would stop the formation of cell membranes. D) It would digest amino acids.
36) Brown algae are thought to have acquired chloroplasts by engulfing red algae. If that is the
case, how many engulfing and endosymbiosis events occurred to produce brown algae? A) Two -- one for chloroplasts in red algae, and one when brown algae engulfed red algae. B) Three -- one for mitochondria, one for chloroplasts in red algae, and one when brown algae engulfed red algae. C) Four -- one for the endoplasmic reticulum, one for mitochondria, one for chloroplasts in red algae, and one when brown algae engulfed red algae. D) About a dozen -- one for each type of membrane-bounded organelle, plus one for brown algae engulfing red algae.
37) In the early millennia after the formation of the Earth, what was the most important way that
geological events like weathering and volcanoes affected the ability of life to form? A) Smoke and dust blocked the sun, preventing light from reaching the surface. B) Lava and weathering prevented soil formation, and thus no plants could grow. C) Lava and rockfall would bury early organisms before they could evolve. D) They affected levels in the atmosphere, which led to extreme temperatures.
38) How strong is the evidence of early Earth for living cells before 3.4 billion years ago? A) The evidence is strong that there were NO living cells before 3.4 BYA because
isotope analysis cannot find fixed carbon-12. B) The evidence is weak because there are only biomarker molecules found in rocks older than 3.4 BYA and no fossils of any kind. C) The evidence is still controversial, but there are both microfossils and isotope data suggesting the existence of cells from rocks older than 3.4 BYA. D) The evidence is indisputable because there are clearly detailed microfossils older than 3.4 billion years as well as isotope and biomarker data.
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39) Would you expect the membranes of organelles, like the Golgi and the endoplasmic
reticulum, to be more similar to the plasma membrane or to the mitochondrial membrane? A) More similar to mitochondria because, like mitochondria, they arose from an endosymbiotic event. B) The Golgi would be more similar to mitochondria because it arose from an endosymbiotic event, but the endoplasmic reticulum derived from the nuclear envelope. C) More similar to the plasma membrane, because they were derived from infoldings of the cell's membrane. D) They would actually be most similar to chloroplasts, because they derived from a similar ancestor.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 25 1) B 2) A 3) E 4) C 5) C 6) B 7) C 8) D 9) D 10) A 11) C 12) A 13) B 14) A 15) C 16) B 17) C 18) B 19) C 20) FALSE 21) A 22) TRUE 23) D 24) A 25) B 26) A 27) C 28) B 29) A 30) C 31) A 32) B 33) E 34) FALSE 35) B 36) B 37) D
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38) C 39) C
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Chapter 26 Student name:__________ 1) A mutation in the gene encoding the integrase enzyme renders the protein non-functional.
How would this affect-the HIV infection cycle? A) The gp120 glycoprotein would not be able to bind the CCR5 receptor. B) Reverse transcription would not be possible. C) The viral DNA would not be able to integrate the viral genome into a chromosome. D) Cutting and assembling the capsid would be halted.
2) Vibrio cholerae lives in water and gets toxin genes from a virus by phage conversion. The
toxin kills the intestinal epithelial cells in the human host, resulting in massive diarrhea. Untreated cholera has about a 50% mortality rate. How do the bacteria benefit? A) Diarrhea helps the bacteria to spread from person to person. B) Killing humans provides nutrients for the bacteria. C) They don’t -- humans are not the main host and their symptoms are maladaptive for the bacteria. D) The bacteria reproduce faster in a dead human.
3) Once a prophage is present in a bacterial genome, viral genes are reproduced every time the
bacterium multiplies. Expression of viral genes, however, is inhibited by a repressor protein. Cell stress can induce the formation of proteases that degrade the repressor. What will result? A) The virus will enter the lysogenic cycle. B) The bacterium will reject the viral genes. C) The virus will enter the lytic cycle. D) The bacterial genome will be denatured.
4) What best describes whether a virus is likely to infect a particular cell? A) Viruses infect the first cells they encounter. B) If a host cell is weakened, viruses are likely to infect it. C) A virus will only infect host cells with the correct surface receptors. D) Viruses only attack epithelial cells, such as the cells lining the lungs. E) The initial choice is random but once a cell type is chosen it becomes the preferred
host.
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5) Viruses are self-replicating but the replication is much faster in a host cell. ⊚ true ⊚ false
6) An experimental chemical has been shown to selectively cleave phosphodiester bonds. How
would this affect a virus? A) Fragment the genome B) Digest the capsid C) Dissociate the envelope D) Alter the host binding site E) Hydrolyze the protein coating
7) Can a virus be killed? A) Yes, destroying its genome kills it. B) No, viruses are capable of self-assembly and cannot be permanently killed. C) Yes, separating the genes from the capsid kills it. D) No, viruses are nonliving and cannot die.
8) Retroviruses are unique because they are a combination of RNA and DNA. ⊚ true ⊚ false
9) What kind of pathogen would retain its ability to cause infections after being treated with
powerful proteolytic chemicals that would destroy all proteinaceous material? A) A virus B) A prion C) A fungus D) A bacterium E) A viroid
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10) A doctor’s office has run out of the latest flu vaccine, but many patients are asking for it. One
of the nurses finds some vials from last year’s batch in a refrigerator. Should they be used? A) Yes, because the preservatives and refrigeration ensure that the vaccine is still fresh. B) No, because each year the technology to make a good vaccine improves. C) No, because each year the vaccine is made against different subtypes of the flu virus. D) Maybe – the vaccine should be mixed in a test tube with the virus to see if it still inactivates it.
11) Which class of drugs would be effective against HIV but not against most other pathogenic
viruses? A) Nucleotide analogs that halt replication. B) Receptor antagonists that block viral entry. C) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors that block reverse transcription. D) Translation inhibitors that stop assembly of viral proteins.
12) Nucleotide analogs are a class of drugs that are highly effective against many types of
viruses. They work by halting the replication of viral genes. They are equally effective at stopping the spread of prion diseases. ⊚ true ⊚ false
13) Gardasil is marketed as a cervical cancer vaccine, but it is actually a human papilloma virus
(HPV) vaccine. Why is this done? A) The virus multiplies more rapidly in cancerous cells. B) Cancer cells are particularly susceptible to viral infection. C) Genital warts is a sign of cancer. D) HPV in the cervical epithelial cells may cause the cells to become cancerous.
14) If the gp120 glycoprotein were damaged as a result of a mutation, HIV would have difficulty: A) binding to a host cell. B) leaving a macrophage. C) inserting its genes into the host cell's genome. D) assembling the capsid. E) attaching its RNA to a host cell's ribosome.
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15) Integrase inhibitors work by: A) Agglutinating the reverse transcriptase inhibitors B) Degrading the viral envelope C) Preventing the incorporation of the viral DNA into the genome D) Blocking the final viral assembly
16) Tetracycline is effective against viruses because it disrupts the action of the viral ribosomes. ⊚ true ⊚ false
17) The pneumonia caused by the influenza virus results from the accumulation of fluid and cell
debris in the lungs. This occurs during the lysogenic life cycle of the virus. ⊚ true ⊚ false
18) Plasma from a sick mouse is filtered across a membrane that has a 200 nm pore size. If the
filtrate is still infectious when injected into a healthy mouse, then the pathogen is most likely a(n): A) bacterium B) archaean C) fungus D) virus E) parasitic worm
19) Viruses are_________ -coated fragments of DNA or RNA.
20) A_________ can contain DNA or RNA as its genetic material, but not both.
21) Outside the protein sheath, many viruses have a(n)_________ made of protein, lipid, and
carbohydrate.
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22) Viruses can_________ only after they have entered a host cell, and only by using the host's
cellular machinery.
23) _________ infects the
T cells, which are required for normal immunity.
24) MERS-CoV, SARS-CoV, and SARS-CoV-2 are members of the family of viruses
called_________ .
25) Viruses form a capsid around their nucleic acid core. This capsid is composed of A) proteins. B) monosaccharides. C) glycoproteins. D) lipoproteins.
26) In the late 20th century, a class of infectious proteins with no associated nucleic acids were
identified. They are referred to as A) bacteriophages. B) latent viruses. C) viroids. D) prions. E) virions.
27) The HIV virus is considered a(n) ________ virus, because after getting integrated into the
host cell chromosomes, it does not begin replicating immediately. A) phage B) latent C) transforming D) benign E) inducible
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28) Each HIV particle possesses a_________ on its surface, called gp120, that precisely binds to
a protein, called CD4, that is found on the surfaces of the immune system cells called macrophages and T cells. A) nucleic acid B) phospholipid C) polysaccharide D) glycolipid E) glycoprotein
29) Viruses are characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT A) being found in every organism investigated so far. B) being specific to the hosts they infect. C) being capable of independent reproduction. D) being acellular.
30) All of the following are diseases caused by viruses EXCEPT A) strep throat. B) AIDS. C) polio. D) smallpox. E) measles.
31) Phages are viruses that can infect A) humans. B) plants. C) insects. D) farm animals. E) bacteria.
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32) A layer of lipids, proteins and glycoproteins that covers the outer surface of some viruses is
the A) B) C) D) E)
capsid. casing. envelope. membrane. viroid.
33) Viruses that become established as stable parts of the host cell genome are called A) lethal. B) potent. C) temperate. D) virulent.
34) Prions are A) strands of nucleic acids encased in a protein coat. B) viral nucleic acids integrated into the host chromosomes. C) viral-infected cells. D) infectious proteins with no associated nucleic acid. E) proteins coded by pseudogenes.
35) Which of the following is a virus with an icosahedral head, a collar and "whiskers", a long
tail, tail fibers, and a base plate? A) influenza B) SARS-CoV-2 C) T4 bacteriophage D) HIV E) poliovirus
36) Benign Vibrio cholerae becomes pathogenic by all of the following steps except A) a bacteriophage introduces a gene coding for the cholera toxin. B) the cholera toxin gene is incorporated into the benign Vibrio cholerae chromosome. C) the benign host is transformed into a disease-causing agent by the toxin. D) the cholera toxin gene is translated. E) a bacteriophage binds only to benign Vibrio cholerae without pili.
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37) The infection cycle of HIV includes all of the following steps except A) attachment. B) entry. C) replication. D) immediately killing the host cell. E) viral DNA integrates into the host chromosome.
38) The onset of AIDS is often accompanied by A) a steep drop in T cell numbers. B) macrophage infection. C) a positive HIV test. D) lung infections and other opportunistic infections. E) Kaposi's sarcoma.
39) An example of an "emerging virus" (a virus in a new host) with a lethality rate in excess of
50% is A) B) C) D) E)
influenza virus. Ebola virus. hepatitis B. variola virus. yellow fever.
40) HIV infects cells by recognizing the cell-surface markers with its own A) DNA. B) glycoproteins. C) reverse transcriptase. D) capsid protein. E) enzymes.
41) Mad cow disease is caused by a A) bacterium. B) virus. C) viroid. D) virion. E) prion.
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42) Nearly all viruses are constructed of A) DNA with a protein wrapping, called a capsid. B) RNA with a protein wrapping, called a capsid. C) either DNA or RNA with a protein wrapping, called a capsid. D) either DNA or RNA, however many do not have the capsid.
43) A scientist is studying the lysogenic cycle of the lambda phage of Escherichia coli. This
means that she is investigating A) the integration of the phage DNA into a host cell's genome. B) the way that new phage particles are replicated and packaged into their capsids. C) the lysis of the bacterial cell. D) the mutation and evolution of virus genomes that compete for binding sites.
44) If a virus enters the lytic phase in a host's cell, it will cause the host cell to A) reject the virus. B) shrink because of the loss of cytoplasm that has been used in the synthesis of viral
DNA. C) lyse due to the action of enzymes. D) replicate itself at a higher than normal frequency. E) initiate an attack on the virus.
45) Scientists have demonstrated that the cholera bacteria, Vibrio cholerae, can exist as a rather
harmless form or as a disease-causing form? What causes the switch? A) A phage deletes and replaces the cholera bacterium genome. B) A phage introduces a toxin gene into the bacterium's chromosome. C) A prion causes the cholera protein to misfold. D) A viroid causes the bacterium to expand its host range to humans.
46) The specific white blood cells that HIV attaches to are the_________ cells. A) B) C) D) E)
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47) Diseases such as scrapie in sheep, "mad cow" disease in cattle, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
in humans are known as A) viroids. B) viruses. C) retroviruses. D) TSEs (transmissible spongiform encephalopathies). E) emerging viruses, for example Ebola.
48) Viruses infect every organism that has been investigated for their presence. However, viruses
can only replicate in A) one host species each. B) vertebrates. C) the respiratory system. D) the extracellular space. E) certain cell types of their specific hosts.
49) Which are correct statements about Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) and cancer? A) A vaccine against HPV can reduce the risk of cancer. B) About 70% of cervical cancers are caused by HPV. C) The HPV protein E7 binds the cell's Rb protein, allowing unregulated cell division. D) Viral infections cause cancer because they boost the energy stores of the cell. E) Cell proliferation is an adaptive response of the host to any viral infection, to outgrow
the virus. F) HPV causes cancer by increasing apoptosis.
50) The switch from a lysogenic prophage to a lytic cycle is called A) transformation. B) induction. C) latency. D) phage conversion. E) injection.
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51) All of the following are part of phage conversion except A) injection of phage gene into host. B) transcription and translation of phage gene. C) induction of phage. D) expression of phage gene by host. E) integration of phage gene to form a prophage.
52) What is the name for parasitic viral DNA that has been integrated into the chromosome of its
bacterial host? A) prophage B) prophase C) viroid D) virion E) arbovirus
53) One way in which retroviruses differ from all other types of viruses is that retroviruses A) possess an RNA genome. B) possess only single-stranded nucleic acids. C) can create a prophage. D) have single-strained RNA that serves as viral mRNA. E) have the enzyme reverse transcriptase.
54) The enormous genetic diversity of HIV has made it especially difficult to create a vaccine
against the virus. We can attribute this genetic diversity to A) mutation hotspots in the hemagglutinin (HA) gene. B) <p>mutation hotspots in the molecule.</p> C) the high error rate of reverse transcriptase. D) the high sensitivity of the virus to UV radiation.
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55) The direction of genetic information transfer in a retrovirus (such as HIV) is A) DNA to mRNA to protein. B) RNA to DNA to mRNA to protein. C) DNA to protein. D) RNA to mRNA to protein. E) RNA to protein.
56) Which of the following statements about bacteriophage is NOT correct? A) Bacteriophages do not have a viral envelope. B) A temperate phage can have its DNA integrated into the host chromosome as a
prophage. C) Ultraviolet radiation can cause induction. D) A prophage is replicated with the bacterial chromosome and passed to the two new daughter cells. E) Late genes are only expressed during the lysogenic cycle.
57) Which of the following is a unique feature of viruses that separates them from bacteria? A) They are generally much smaller. B) They are often highly toxic. C) They lack proteins. D) They have different nucleotides in their hereditary material. E) They cannot exist outside of a host cell.
58) While they are simple relative to cells, viruses often have a very diverse collection of
components. Which one of the following choices is LEAST likely to be found as part of a virus? A) proteins with functional binding sites B) membrane components C) single-stranded DNA D) ribosomes E) glycoproteins
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59) Which of the following would NOT be a component of a newly produced HIV virus particle? A) protein capsid B) RNA C) reverse transcriptase D) viral envelope E) complementary DNA
60) If a researcher developed a drug that prevented insertion of the SARS-CoV-2 spike protein
into the endoplasmic reticulum, what effect would you predict from this drug? A) No effect, because the virus does not have organelles like the endoplasmic reticulum. B) It would make it easier for the virus to invade human cells. C) It would not affect the reproduction of the virus, because all the key information is carried in the RNA genome. D) The viral particles produced could not infect new cells. E) It would allow viruses to infect new cells, but they would do less damage.
61) Which of the following statements about the types and subtypes of the influenza (flu) virus is
NOT true? A) The seasonal flu is caused by a Type A influenza virus. B) The strain is determined by the specific HA and NA proteins in the envelope of the virus. C) Antigenic shift occurs when coinfection of strains allows them to recombine into a new form. D) High mutation rates create antigenic drift, and require fresh vaccines each year. E) Genetic recombination between influenza and other families of viruses is common.
62) Which of the following statements about emerging viruses is NOT true? A) Emerging viruses are able to "jump" from one species to another. B) Ebola is an emerging virus that can have a mortality rate over 50%. C) The emerging virus SARS-CoV-2 is a coronavirus. D) Once they are officially recognized, emerging viruses are easy to treat and eradicate
with existing drugs.
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63) Which of the following statements about TSEs (transmissible spongiform encephalopathies)
is NOT true? A) TSEs include scrapie in sheep, mad cow disease, chronic wasting disease in deer and elk, and kuru and variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in humans. B) The incidence of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in humans increased after an outbreak of mad cow disease in England, suggesting that mad cow disease may be transmitted to humans. C) Viroids are the likely cause of TSEs. D) TSEs do not seem to be affected by treatments that would eliminate nucleic acidbased diseases. E) Infectious TSE preparations do not seem to contain DNA or RNA.
64) Check all of the correct statements regarding the use of metagenomics to describe viral
diversity. A) Most samples are obtained from animals and plants. B) During sample collection, the actual virus needs to be isolated for analysis. C) Metagenomics has identified thousands of new viral species. D) Sample DNA is amplified using PCR.
65) The Baltimore system classifies viruses differently than traditional nomenclature. What
correctly describes this system? (Check all that apply.) A) It only works for disease-causing viruses. B) It works for any virus, whether it infects humans or not. C) It breaks viruses down into 24 separate categories. D) It groups viruses with similar genomes. E) It distinguishes between viruses with + or - strand RNA.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 26 1) C 2) A 3) C 4) C 5) FALSE 6) A 7) D 8) FALSE 9) E 10) C 11) C 12) FALSE 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) FALSE 17) FALSE 18) D 19) protein 20) virus 21) envelope 22) reproduce 23) HIV 24) coronavirus 25) A 26) D 27) B 28) E 29) C 30) A 31) E 32) C 33) C 34) D 35) C 36) E 37) D
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38) A 39) B 40) B 41) E 42) C 43) A 44) C 45) B 46) A 47) D 48) E 49) [A, B, C] 50) B 51) C 52) A 53) E 54) C 55) B 56) E 57) A 58) D 59) E 60) D 61) E 62) D 63) C 64) [C, D] 65) [B, D, E]
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Chapter 27 Student name:__________ 1) Current classification of prokaryotes is based on A) morphology of flagella. B) sequencing of proteins, DNA, and RNA. C) occurrence of transverse binary fission. D) type of colony formation. E) ability to stain the cell wall with Gram stain.
2) Early classification systems of the bacteria employed all of the following characteristics
except A) B) C) D) E)
the ability to photosynthesize. rRNA sequences. motility. colony or filament forming. spore formation
3) An oil spill occurs, and a member of the clean up team suggests adding fertilizer. What might
this accomplish? A) The fertilizer encourages the growth of microbes that can break down the oil. B) The chemicals in the fertilizer digest the oil residues. C) The fertilizer interacts with the oil droplets and renders them harmless. D) The fertilizer volatilizes the oil.
4) Vibrio cholerae produces a toxin that destroys the intestinal epithelium. This leads to massive
diarrhea which can kill the human host. Why might this trait have been selected for? A) Diarrhea helps the host by flushing out the bacteria. B) The bacteria require a dead host. C) The diarrhea spreads the bacteria to new hosts. D) It wasn't; diarrhea is a nonspecific outcome of most infections.
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5) Farmers often practice crop rotation to help enrich agricultural fields. Why are beans and
other legumes often used in the rotations? A) Bean genomes encode nitrogenase with nif genes. B) Bacteria in legume root nodules fix nitrogen. C) Legumes enrich the soil by forming endospores. D) Legumes remove toxins from the soil. E) Less carbon dioxide.
6) Phil has chronic ulcers, he has been taking acid blockers and drinking vast amounts of liquid
antacids. These help relieve the symptoms but he still suffers from ulcers. What would be the best course of action to treat the source of his ulcers? A) Taking several different antacids B) Increasing the dosage of acid blockers C) Taking a course of antibiotics D) Reducing the stress in his daily life E) Changing his diet to include more fiber
7) Why is chlamydia much more common than syphilis? A) Chlamydia is spread via droplet inhalation. B) Syphilis can penetrate a condom whereas chlamydia cannot. C) Many chlamydia infections are asymptomatic. D) Chlamydia is viral, and viral diseases spread much quicker. E) Chlamydia is resistant to most antibiotics.
8) Why are children often told that if they eat too much candy their teeth will fall out? A) Sugar attacks tooth enamel. B) Sugars gradually replace the tooth enamel. C) Bacteria use the sugar to make ATP. This fermentation process produces acids as a
by-product. D) Bacteria secrete acids in order to digest the sugar molecules.
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9) Amanda is a microbiologist who studies a pathogenic, chemoorganoheterotrophic bacterium.
In what ways are they (Amanda and the bacteria) similar? A) Both have cell walls. B) Both have linear chromosomes. C) Both have mitochondria for ATP production. D) Both are capable of sexual reproduction. E) Both obtain carbon from consuming organic molecules.
10) Genes abc and def have a high average cotransduction frequency. Genes abc and xyz have a
very low average cotransduction frequency. What is the best explanation for this difference? A) The genes abc and def are much closer to each other on the chromosome. B) The genes abc and def must share a higher degree of sequence similarity. C) Both genes have a high affinity for the viral binding sites. D) Both genes code for gene products that are necessary for viral replication.
11) Are transformation and transduction the same process? A) Yes; they both involve the acquisition of viral genes. B) No; only transformation passes on genes for pathogenicity. C) Yes; both processes transfer specific gene products to a specific bacterium. D) No; although both involve gene transfer the sources of the genetic material differ.
12) The cell walls of a newly-discovered bacterium contain high concentrations of phospholipids,
along with proteins and lipopolysaccharide. If the bacteria are Gram stained, what color would you expect as a result? A) Purple B) Pink C) Blue D) Clear, it does not retain any stain
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13) Many cells of the immune system have receptors that detect peptidoglycans and
lipopolysaccharides. How do pathogenic bacteria avoid detection? A) Pathogenic bacteria lack cell walls. B) Pathogens often encase themselves in a gelatinous capsule. C) Peptidoglycans are absent from pathogenic bacteria. D) Disease is only possible if the immune system has been compromised by some other event.
14) A researcher observed a reduction in the number of chromosomes during cell division for a
microbe, he concludes that the microbe must be A) Eukaryotic B) Prokaryotic C) Archaea D) A virus
15) DNA replication and gene expression machinery in archaea more closely resemble
eukaryotic cells than the same processes in bacteria. However both bacteria and archaea are prokaryotic. What does this suggest? A) Eukaryotic cells are descended from modern archaea. B) Bacteria are not related to archaea. C) Eukaryotes shared a more recent common ancestor with archaea than with bacteria. D) There must have been two origin events, one producing the bacteria and the other producing archaea and eukaryotes.
16) If the label on a slide reads Gram-positive bacillus, what would a students expect to see? A) Pink helical cells B) Purple rod shaped cells C) Red spherical cells D) Blue coiled cells
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17) A high concentration of chlorophyll-like pigment molecules embedded in the folded plasma
membrane would suggest those bacteria are A) Chemolithoautotrophic B) Chemolithoheterotrophic C) Photoautotrophic D) Chemoorganoheterotrophic
18) A microbiologist suspects a strain of Staphylococcus aureus is resistant to methicillin. What
would be the best approach to test this suspicion? A) Perform a Gram stain. B) Sequence the chromosome looking for resistance genes. C) Calculate the doubling time for the bacteria. D) Inject the bacteria into a host animal and look for disease symptoms. E) Add methicillin to the growth plates.
19) Prokaryotes split into two lines early in the history of life. The differences are so fundamental
that they are assigned to two different domains, the_________ and the Bacteria.
20) Cell walls of bacteria (domain Bacteria) usually consist of_________, a network of
polysaccharide molecules connected by polypeptide cross-links.
21) Members of the genus _________ are associated with scarlet fever, rheumatic fever,
pneumonia, necrotizing fasciitis (“flesh-eating disease”), sore throat, and dental cavities.
22) When some bacteria are exposed to nutrient-poor conditions, they form thick-walled
structures that contain the chromosome and a small amount of cytoplasm. These structures are called A) plasmids. B) pseudomonads. C) nucleoids. D) endospores. E) exospores.
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23) Prokaryotes undergo a process that produces cells that are identical. This process is called A) mitosis. B) meiosis. C) conjugation. D) binary fission. E) syngamy.
24) The prokaryotic DNA is located in the A) capsid region. B) nucleoid region. C) endospore region. D) peptidoglycan region. E) pili region.
25) Prokaryotes are very important ecologically because of their involvement in all of the
following, EXCEPT A) photosynthesis by autotrophs. B) nitrogen fixation in soil. C) diseases like smallpox, measles, or rabies. D) denitrification of nitrate. E) bioremediation to clean up the environment.
26) In all of the following characteristics, prokaryotes differ from eukaryotes except in A) cell size. B) multicellularity. C) chromosomes. D) nucleic acids as the hereditary material. E) organelles.
27) Which of the following is not a shape seen in prokaryotes? A) Spheres B) Rods C) Spirals D) Icosahedrons
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28) Prokaryotic cell walls consist of a network of polysaccharide molecules connected by cross-
bridges of A) other polysaccharides. B) lipids. C) peptides. D) ribosomes. E) chromosomal DNA.
29) Certain prokaryotes can withstand drying and hotter temperatures because of their ability to
form A) B) C) D) E)
cell walls. endospores. flagella. organelles. plasmids.
30) In some bacteria, a capsule surrounds the cell wall. What role does this play in the cell? A) Camouflage to match the environment B) Protection from foreign DNA C) Helps evade the immune system D) Prevents sticking to surfaces E) Tastes bad to predators
31) Bacterial ribosomes differ from eukaryotic ribosomes in all of the following except A) they act as sites of protein synthesis. B) they are smaller than in eukaryotes. C) tetracycline and chloramphenicol can bind to bacterial ribosomes. D) they differ in ribosomal proteins. E) they differ in RNA content.
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32) Archaea differ from Bacteria in all of the following EXCEPT A) cell wall composition. B) plasma membrane make up. C) DNA replication. D) gene expression. E) the presence of a nucleoid region.
33) Prokaryotes that harvest both energy and carbon atoms from organic molecules are called A) photoautotrophs. B) chemolithoautotrophs. C) photoheterotrophs. D) chemoheterotrophs. E) nitrogen fixers.
34) Some prokaryotes attach to other substrates by hairlike outgrowths, which are shorter than
flagella. These are called A) endospores. B) flagellin. C) pili. D) plasmids. E) fission products.
35) Bacteria cause all of the following human diseases except A) cholera. B) diphtheria. C) tuberculosis. D) tetanus. E) malaria.
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36) A researcher finds that the bacteria from dental plaque are relatively easy to kill when grown
at high dilution on a petri dish. So what makes them so hard to kill and remove on people's teeth? A) On teeth they are fed a wider variety of nutrients. B) On teeth they form a complex, resistant biofilm. C) There is no difference since the bacteria species is the same. D) The temperatures are different in someone's mouth. E) On teeth they form endospores.
37) Bacterial sexually transmitted diseases include all of the following except A) gonorrhea. B) syphilis. C) chlamydia. D) herpes.
38) Gonorrhea and syphilis are most commonly controlled by A) abstinence. B) antibiotics. C) boiling water. D) fluoride treatment. E) pasteurization.
39) The enzymes for cellular respiration in eukaryotic organisms are located within the
mitochondria. In prokaryotic organisms, these enzymes are attached to infolded regions of the A) cell wall. B) cell membrane. C) ribosomes. D) circular DNA. E) nuclear membrane.
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40) A microbiologist explains to one of her biology classes that her research focuses on the
nucleoid region of the cholera bacteria. This means that she is studying a region within the bacterium that contains the A) nucleic acids. B) nuclear membrane. C) R plasmids. D) peptidoglycan.
41) Prokaryotes reproduce rapidly and this allows helpful genetic variation to spread quickly
through a population. Which process does NOT provide new, potentially helpful DNA to a bacterium? A) transduction B) transformation C) mutation D) binary fission E) conjugation
42) Tuberculosis remains a serious worldwide health problem due to all of the following factors,
except one. Which is incorrect? A) There are strains with multi-drug resistance (MDR). B) It grows slowly and evades the immune system. C) It has an unusual cell wall and resists many antibiotics. D) It is easily spread through the air. E) Everyone infected has obvious symptoms.
43) A microbiologist is conducting a research project on chemolithoautotrophs. This means that
the investigator is examining certain aspects of a bacterium that A) can oxidize inorganic molecules such as ammonia and sulfur for energy. B) is a purple nonsulfur bacteria which depends on light. C) obtains carbon from organic molecules. D) can use the energy from sunlight to build organic molecules from carbon dioxide. E) uses light as its energy source and carbon for organic compounds.
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44) If left untreated, syphilis infections go through four stages. The first stage is a sore called a
chancre. The signs of the second stage are A) some nerve damage, loss of some teeth, and perhaps a dimming of color vision. B) very few, with many victims having no symptoms. C) rash, sore throat, and sores in the mouth D) persistence of the chancre and bleeding at the chancre site. E) a yellowish-white discharge from the urethra.
45) Which of the following statements about Hfr cells and bacterial conjugation is NOT correct? A) An Hfr cell becomes an F- cell if its integrated F plasmid is excised. B) If excision of the F plasmid from an Hfr cell includes some bacterial genes, a partial
diploid can result. C) The genes that are transferred from an Hfr cell into a recipient cell during conjugation replace the equivalent genes in the recipient cell. D) An F' plasmid contains some bacterial genes. E) Cells with integrated F' plasmid have two copies of some genes.
46) The data below shows recombination of genes (1-5) according to the amount of time
available for transfer of the bacterial chromosome during conjugation between different genetic strains in E coli. Based on these data, which gene is closest to gene 1? (Note: The entire chromosome is transferred in 100 minutes.)
A) B) C) D)
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47) Plasmids are distinguished from bacterial chromosomes in that A) plasmids are circular, bacterial chromosomes are linear. B) plasmids occur in the cytoplasm, bacterial chromosomes occur in the nucleus. C) plasmids are composed of RNA, bacterial chromosomes are composed of DNA. D) plasmids have few genes, bacterial chromosomes have many genes. E) plasmids consist of single-stranded nucleic acids, bacterial chromosomes consist of
double-stranded nucleic acids.
48) Which of the following statements about generalized transduction is false? A) "Head full" packaging always places only phage DNA into the phage head during
phage packaging in generalized transduction. B) Generalized transduction always involves lytic phage. C) Generalized transduction can be used to map bacterial genes. D) Genes that are close together on the bacterial chromosome will have a relatively large cotransduction frequency. E) Homologous recombination can integrate the transferred DNA during generalized transduction.
49) Which of the following events is LEAST likely to result in a genetic change in a particular
bacterial cell? A) forming a pilus B) conjugation C) mutation D) transduction E) transformation
50) Various techniques have been developed to isolate strains of bacteria carrying a particular
mutation. One of them is, bacteria containing wild-type cells and cells of a desired mutant are grown on a medium lacking the nutrient for which the desired mutants are auxotrophic but containing an antibiotic that only kills growing cells. In this environment, A) both wild-type and mutant cells are killed. B) both wild-type and mutant cells survive. C) wild-type cells survive; mutant cells die. D) wild-type cells die; mutant cells survive. E) only double mutants survive.
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51) Which of the following statements about transformation is NOT correct? A) The bacterium E. coli is incapable of natural transformation. B) Transformation requires a special kind of pilus. C) Artificial transformation is essential to many recombinant DNA techniques. D) All R-plasmids contain antibiotic-resistance genes. E) Natural transformation of the Enterobacteriaceae is a significant public health risk.
52) Which of the following statements about tuberculosis (TB) is false? A) MDR TB is more expensive to treat. B) Not completing a full course of antibiotic can select for MDR strains. C) HIV and TB can be transmitted in the same manner. D) The spread of TB can be very rapid. E) The reservoir of TB is humans and no vector is required for transmission.
53) Which of the following statements about sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) is false? A) Gonorrhea, syphilis, and chlamydia are all transmitted through sexual contact. B) Because chlamydia has both bacterial and viral characteristics, it cannot be treated
with antibiotics. C) Chlamydia is known as the "silent STD." D) The incidence of chlamydia has increased as gonorrhea has decreased. E) Syphilis can be transmitted from a mother to her fetus.
54) The purple and green nonsulfur bacteria have an unusual nutritional strategy. The source of
energy is light, however organic carbon is used as a source of carbon and of electrons. They are thus classified as A) chemolithoautotrophs. B) chemoorganoheterotrophs. C) photolithoautotrophs. D) photoorganoheterotrophs. E) pathogens.
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55) Check all of the mutually beneficial relationships between prokaryotes and eukaryotes. A) Prokaryotes aid in digestion in ruminants. B) The human microbiome aids in human health. C) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria live in plant root nodules. D) Agrobacterium tumefaciens bacteria form galls in some plants.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 27 1) B 2) B 3) A 4) C 5) B 6) C 7) C 8) C 9) E 10) A 11) D 12) B 13) B 14) A 15) C 16) B 17) C 18) E 19) Archaea 20) peptidoglycan 21) Streptococcus 22) D 23) D 24) B 25) C 26) D 27) D 28) C 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) E 33) D 34) C 35) E 36) B 37) D
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38) B 39) B 40) A 41) D 42) E 43) A 44) C 45) A 46) A 47) D 48) A 49) A 50) D 51) B 52) C 53) B 54) D 55) [A, B, C]
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Chapter 28 Student name:__________ 1) Sponges (phylum: Porifera) are animals that possess feeding cells called collar cells. These
cells have a central flagellum surrounded by a collar of microvilli. The collar filters organic matter out of the water column. Which protists share a most recent common ancestor with the poriferans? A) ciliates B) rhodophytes C) choanoflagellates D) radiolarians E) myxomycetes
2) The Irish potato famine in the 1840's was caused in large part by a proliferation of a(n) A) Paramecia. B) Oomycote. C) Dinoflagellate. D) Chlorophyte. E) Fungus.
3) What type of cellular damage in a malarial parasite would prevent it from penetrating a red
blood cell? A) Mutation in the variable surface glycoprotein genes B) Disruption of the cytoskeletal proteins in the apical complex C) Failure of the cross-linking of the peptidoglycans in the cell wall D) Damage to the flagellum and contractile collar of the choanocyte
4) Which feature unites paramecia, malarial parasites, and dinoflagellates into a single group? A) The use of cilia B) A parasitic life style C) The presence of a nucleus D) The type of ribosomes E) The possession of alveoli
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5) Transferring Euglena into a dark environment results in the loss of photosynthetic pigment.
What conclusion does this support? A) Euglenoids are obligate photoautotrophs. B) Light triggers heterotrophy. C) Euglenoids are closely related to plants. D) Euglenoids are neither plant-like or animal-like protists.
6) A patient presents in an ER with severe stomach cramps and diarrhea. She was recently
swimming in unclean water. Which protist would be the most likely cause of her symptoms? A) Toxoplasma gondii B) Plasmodium C) Leishmania D) Giardia
7) During cell division the progeny of a trypanosome express a different variable-surface
glycoprotein (VSG) gene than their parents. Why is this done? A) To hide from the host's immune system. B) To signal endocytosis of the parasites. C) VSG genes inhibit phagocytosis. D) VSG genes activate photoheterotrophy.
8) What would be strong evidence to suggest a protist is phagotrophic? A) An abundance of lysosomes B) Locomotion using flagella C) Silica plates or cell walls D) Benthic lifestyle E) Presence of chloroplasts
9) What would be strong evidence to suggest a protist is phototrophic? A) Many lysosomes B) Locomotion via flagella C) The presence of chloroplasts D) Silica plates or cell walls E) A benthic lifestyle
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10) Which are features of mitochondria that reflect their endosymbiotic origin? (Choose all that
apply.) A) B) C) D)
They have their own circular genome. They replicate via meiosis, just like bacteria. Mitochondria genes are translated by ribosomes similar to bacterial ribosomes. Antibiotics disrupt the cell walls of mitochondria.
11) If a researcher wants to create a phylogeny showing relationships of different groups of
algae, which type of DNA would be best to compare, and why? A) Chloroplast DNA, because it will reflect algal relationships better than nuclear DNA. B) Nuclear DNA, because chloroplast DNA will reflect primary and secondary endosymbiosis. C) Mitochondrial DNA, because only chloroplasts are from endosymbiosis. D) Chloroplast DNA, because it is unique to algae.
12) A biologist uses a time machine to collect living material from two different time periods.
Sample A is 3 billion years old, and sample B is 1.5 billion years old. How would these samples differ? A) Prokaryotic organisms would be abundant in sample A but absent from sample B. B) Eukaryotic organisms would be present in both samples but much more common in sample B. C) Prokaryotic organisms would only occur in sample B. D) Eukaryotic organisms would be absent from sample A.
13) The_________ are a group within the Euglenozoa that have a unique, single mitochondrion
with minicircles and maxicircles of DNA linked in chains.
14) The members of_________ include dinoflagellates, apicomplexans, and ciliates.
15) All apicomplexans are nonmotile, spore forming, and live as_________ in animals.
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16) The common characteristic of Alveolata is A) a single, unique mitochondria. B) a layer of flattened vesicles beneath the plasma membrane. C) silica covering. D) funnel-shaped, contractile collar. E) presence of a plasmodium.
17) A common characteristic of choanoflagellates is A) a single, unique mitochondria. B) space beneath the plasma membrane. C) silica covering. D) funnel-shaped, contractile collar. E) presence of a plasmodium.
18) Amoebas move from place to place by means of their A) cysts. B) pseudopods. C) pseudomonads. D) sporocarps. E) plasmodia.
19) The marine multicellular protists including the larger brown algae belong to the A) dinoflagellates. B) choanoflagellates. C) stramenopiles. D) euglenids. E) foraminifera.
20) Organisms that are characterized by being unicellular, photosynthetic, and having double
shells made of silica are known as A) dinoflagellates. B) diatoms. C) kelps. D) euglenids. E) foraminifera.
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21) The tropical diseases such as African sleeping sickness, Chagas disease, and leishmaniasis
are caused by A) foraminifera. B) sporozoans. C) phytomastigotes. D) trypanosomes. E) oomycetes.
22) All_________ have two very different types of nuclei within their cells, small micronuclei
and larger macronuclei. A) sporozoans B) protists C) oomycetes D) ciliates E) dinoflagellates
23) The parasite that is responsible for causing malaria is called A) Paramecium. B) Chlamydomonas. C) Plasmodium. D) Entamoeba. E) Giardia.
24) Protists are classified into a single kingdom because of which of the following features? A) They are eukaryotes, but not fungi, plants, or animals. B) They are microscopic. C) They are unicellular. D) All types of nutritional modes are found. E) They are monophyletic.
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25) Which of the following is true about Euglena? A) They belong to the same phylum as Paramecium. B) They do not have flagella. C) They can be both autotrophs and heterotrophs. D) They lack chloroplasts. E) They have sexual reproduction.
26) The organism, Phytophthora infestans, responsible for the Irish Potato Famine of 1845 and
1847 belongs to A) Euglenozoa. B) Alveolata. C) Rhodophyta. D) Chlorophyta. E) Stramenopila.
27) Oomycetes are characterized by all of the following except they A) produce zoospores asexually. B) are able to reproduce sexually. C) contain motile spores. D) contain two unequal flagella. E) are considered fungi.
28) The unique double shells of diatoms are made of A) cellulose. B) silica. C) chlorophylls. D) agar. E) proteins.
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29) The White Cliffs of Dover, a famous landmark in England, is made of limestone, which is
really a collection of the pore-studded shells (tests) of A) diatoms. B) dinoflagellates. C) brown algae. D) spirochetes. E) foraminifera.
30) Which of the following is NOT one of the distinctive features of dinoflagellates? A) They are unicellular. B) They are photosynthetic. C) Some exist in fresh water, while some are part of marine plankton. D) They form large, spherical colonies. E) Some planktonic members are luminous and cause flashes in the night.
31) Trypanosomiasis is spread by A) mosquitoes. B) airborne droplets. C) tsetse flies. D) fleas on rats. E) contaminated water.
32) Vacuoles for ingesting food and regulating their water balance are characteristic of A) sporozoans. B) trypanosomes. C) ciliates. D) algae. E) spirochetes.
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33) In addition to their characteristic cilia, most ciliates contain two types of A) nuclei. B) chloroplasts. C) flagella. D) wood-digesting enzymes. E) cysts.
34) Conjugating ciliates exchange a pair of haploid micronuclei that undergo mitosis as a diploid
micronucleus, while the macronucleus in each A) is expelled from the cell. B) disintegrates. C) divides by meiosis. D) fuses with each other. E) shrinks and becomes diploid micronuclei.
35) The malarial parasite, Plasmodium, is a member of the group A) Euglenozoa. B) Stramenopiles. C) Alveolata. D) Rhodophyta. E) Diplomonads.
36) Some protists use cell division preceded by several nuclear divisions as a means of
reproduction. What is the name of this process? A) budding B) zygotic meiosis C) schizogony D) syngamy E) intermediary meiosis
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37) Members of the Euglenozoa move about using A) tests. B) pseudopodia. C) cilia. D) flagella. E) contractile vacuoles.
38) In addition to the true amoebas (Rhizopoda), another group with pseudopods are the A) Euglenozoa. B) Stramenopila. C) Radiolarians. D) Diplomonads. E) Alveolata.
39) Which is NOT a feature that is similar between mitochondria, chloroplasts, and their
bacterial relatives? A) Cell walls B) Circular genomes C) Ribosomes D) Binary fission E) Susceptibility to antibiotics
40) Some photosynthetic euglenids can also ingest dissolved or particulate food. Which one of
the following terms would best describe such a protist? A) autotrophic B) heterotrophic C) mixotrophic D) osmotrophic E) phagotrophic
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41) Which of these is NOT part of the life cycle of brown algae? A) meiosis B) multicellular haploid stage C) multicellular diploid stage D) gametes produced by mitosis E) spores produced by mitosis
42) Which option describes BOTH plasmodial and cellular slime molds? A) Form a multinucleate mass of cytoplasm B) Produce spores C) Signal between cells using cAMP D) Form a slug, then a fruiting body E) Have synchronized mitosis, without centrioles
43) What best summarizes the process of conjugation in ciliates? A) Involves combining eggs and sperm. B) Uses binary fission, not meiosis or mitosis. C) Micronuclei are exchanged, then macronuclei are replaced. D) Requires injection of DNA from the apical complex. E) One mating type is small, the other much larger.
44) Which one of the following statements about diplomonads and parabasalids is false? A) Absence of mitochondria in these groups is an ancestral trait. B) Some members are parasitic, but some also engage in mutualism. C) Diplomonads and parabasalids belong to different clades D) Both groups are flagellated protists.
45) Why is the disease African sleeping sickness difficult to control? A) Trypanosomes change their glycoprotein coat antigens to evade antibodies. B) Ciliates can trade DNA by conjugation. C) Euglenids can photosynthesize to survive outside the host. D) Endosymbiosis allows them to evade the immune system. E) It is easily transmitted by contaminated drinking water.
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46) Which of the following statements about malaria is false? A) Fertilization occurs within a mosquito. B) Merozoites are found inside red blood cells. C) Gametocytes develop from merozoites. D) Sporozoites are only found within a mosquito. E) Gametocytes are passed to a feeding mosquito.
47) How do protists provide evidence for the evolution of mitosis? A) In some protists the nuclear membrane fails to breakdown during mitosis. B) Protists use conjugation instead of mitosis. C) Only meiosis occurs in protists. D) Mitosis has not been observed in any protist species.
48) A new protist species is discovered with these characteristics: contains phycoerythrin and
phycocyanin, lacks flagella and centrioles, photosynthesizes, haplodiplontic, and lives in coral reefs. What group does it likely belong to? A) Charophytes B) Chlorophytes C) Rhodophytes D) Stramenopiles E) Amoebozoa
49) Protist locomotion is accomplished by the contraction of macronuclei. ⊚ true ⊚ false
50) How do humans use red algae polysaccharides? A) Thickeners B) Herbicides C) Adhesives D) Detergents
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51) What features of charophytes provides evidence for charophytes being the closests relative to
land plants? A) Charophytes possess plasmodesmata. B) Charophytes are the only photosynthetic protists. C) Charophytes are fully terrestrial. D) Charophytes produce seeds and flowers.
52) Which phrase best describes the characteristics of plasmodial slime molds? A) Plasmodial slime molds consist of large multinucleate single cells. B) Plasmodial slime molds consist of large single nucleate cells. C) Plasmodial slime molds are multicellular. D) Plasmodial slime mold cells contain a pellicle.
53) Which one of these groups is NOT one of the five supergroups of protists? A) Ascomycota B) Ophisthokonta C) SAR D) Amoebozoa E) Archaeplastida F) Excavata
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 28 1) C 2) B 3) B 4) E 5) D 6) D 7) A 8) A 9) C 10) [A, C] 11) B 12) D 13) kinetoplastids 14) Alveolata 15) parasites 16) B 17) D 18) B 19) C 20) B 21) D 22) D 23) C 24) A 25) C 26) E 27) E 28) B 29) E 30) D 31) C 32) C 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) C 37) D
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38) C 39) A 40) C 41) E 42) B 43) C 44) A 45) A 46) D 47) A 48) C 49) FALSE 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) A
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Chapter 29 Student name:__________ 1) Cooksonia is a genus of very early tracheophyte plants. Unlike modern tracheophytes they
only grew to a few centimeters in height. What feature provides the best explanation for their diminutive size? A) They completely lacked vascular tissues. B) They did not have stomata. C) They consisted of only photosynthetic stems, not roots or leaves. D) Cooksonia species were not autotrophic.
2) Why is a rhizoid not considered a true root? A) Rhizoids lack the capacity to anchor mosses into the substrate. B) Rhizoids are not capable of absorbing water. C) True roots have mycorrhizal fungi. D) Rhizoids lack xylem tissue. E) Only true roots are capable of nitrogen fixation.
3) Azolla filiculoides is a small aquatic fern that is typically 1-2 cm tall. How would a botanist
distinguish it from a bryophyte? A) It produces seeds. B) It has xylem tissue. C) It has a gametophyte. D) It has chloroplasts.
4) Hepaticophytes lack stomata and tracheids. What would provide evidence to justify their
inclusion in the Bryophytes and not the Charophytes? A) Cellulose in their cell walls B) Male gametes produced in antheridia C) The use of chlorophyll D) A haplodiplontic lifecycle
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5) The aquatic ancestry of bryophytes is most clearly demonstrated by what character? A) the use of flagellated motile sperm B) mycorrhizal associations with fungi C) a nutritionally dependent sporophyte D) the production of a sporangium
6) Why are most bryophytes less than 10 cm tall? A) They have underdeveloped stomata. B) They are seedless. C) They lack a cuticle. D) The have conducting cells instead of tracheids. E) <p>They have no
transport mechanisms.</p>
7) The development of tracheids helped land plants to A) resist desiccation. B) protect the genome from UV exposure. C) grow to very large sizes. D) <p>absorb
from stems and leaves.</p> E) <p>take in more .
8) What is a 15 meter tall tree fern? A) a gametophyte B) haploid C) produced by meiosis D) a sporophyte
9) Which of these organisms do not possess a cuticle? A) Charophytes B) Bryophytes C) Tracheophytes D) Club mosses E) Pterophytes
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10) A waxy cuticle prevents desiccation. What is the cost of this adaptation? A) Lowered light absorption B) Reduced gas permeability C) Slower transport D) Increased exposure to damaging UV radiation E) Increased susceptibility to pathogenic infection
11) The first plants clearly evolved from an organism that, if it existed today, would be classified
as a multicellular green_________.
12) Plants have a_________ life cycle in which the haploid and diploid stages are multicellular.
13) In plants, the sporophyte generation produces_________ as a result of meiosis.
14) In all seed plants, male and female_________ develop within the parent sporophyte and are
completely dependent on it for nutrition and water.
15) Plants lacking well-developed conducting systems such as mosses, liverworts, and hornworts
have been called A) gametophytes. B) sporophytes. C) angiosperms. D) gymnosperms. E) bryophytes.
16) Which of the following represents a monophyletic group? A) mosses, liverworts, and hornworts B) ferns and club mosses C) ferns, whisk ferns, and horsetails D) liverworts and hornworts E) Charophytes and mosses
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17) Which plants are characterized by a conducting system, the possession of cuticles,
specialized stems, and roots, stomata, and, in many species, seeds? A) liverworts B) mosses C) tracheophyte D) horsetails E) club mosses
18) Bryophytes, like ferns and certain other tracheophyte plants, require A) air to reproduce sexually. B) water to reproduce sexually. C) soil to reproduce sexually. D) shade to reproduce sexually. E) sunlight to reproduce sexually.
19) The colorless rootlike projections of mosses, liverworts, and hornworts, which anchor them
to the substrate are called A) rhizoids. B) tap roots. C) fibrous roots. D) specialized roots. E) storage roots.
20) Plants and their predecessors, green algae, do not share the property of A) containing chlorophylls a and b, and carotenoids. B) containing cellulose-rich cell walls. C) containing a system of roots and stems. D) containing starch as the primary food storage product. E) forming a cell plate during cytokinesis.
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21) Well-developed vascular systems are absent in all of the following except A) mosses. B) liverworts. C) hornworts. D) Charophytes. E) Pterophytes.
22) Survival on land for organisms is difficult because of the problem of A) desiccation. B) pollination. C) syngamy. D) spore germination. E) coevolution.
23) Which of the following is not a characteristic of all tracheophytes? A) specialized conducting systems. B) waxy cuticle. C) stomata. D) roots. E) seeds.
24) Plant success on the terrestrial landscape is linked to the evolution of all of the following
except A) B) C) D) E)
specialized roots. stems. specialized reproductive features. increased area for photosynthesis in the leaves. gas-filled air spaces.
25) The dominant stage in the life cycle of tracheophyte plants is the A) epiphyte generation. B) sporophyte generation. C) spore generation. D) gametophyte generation. E) angiosperm generation.
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26) Plants as well as brown, green, and red algae show a basic life cycle which involves the
alternation of generations between a(n) A) spore and pollen. B) megaspore and a microspore. C) seed and a cone. D) sporophyte and a gametophyte. E) egg and a sperm.
27) The gametophyte is green and nutritionally independent in A) mosses, liverworts, and ferns. B) angiosperms. C) gymnosperms. D) tracheophytes. E) seed plants.
28) To reproduce sexually, bryophytes require A) heterospory. B) free water external to the plant. C) high temperatures. D) solar energy. E) insect pollination.
29) Among the bryophytes, which of the following contain distinct stemlike axis, small leaves,
and rootlike rhizoids? A) liverworts B) hornworts C) mosses D) algae E) cycads
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30) Which of the following features are common to the photosynthetic structures of both mosses
and club mosses? A) vascular strands B) chlorophyll a and b C) haploid cells D) only one cell thick except at midrib E) stomata
31) Hornworts differ from mosses and liverworts in containing A) small leaves. B) sporophytes. C) photosynthetic sporophytes. D) gametophytes. E) spores.
32) In tracheophyte plants, water and dissolved minerals are conducted away from roots by A) water vessels. B) stomata. C) phloem tubes. D) xylem tubes. E) chloroplasts.
33) The most abundant group of seedless tracheophyte plants are the A) club mosses. B) horse tails. C) angiosperms. D) ferns. E) gymnosperms.
34) All of the following statements about ferns are correct except A) ferns flourish in many habitats, but the majority are located in the tropics. B) the sporophyte is a conspicuous generation. C) the gametophyte is a conspicuous generation. D) ferns have underground stems called rhizomes. E) sori are located on the back or ventral surface of fronds.
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35) A bryologist (a scientist that studies mosses, and their allies) gives a lecture to your biology
class. In her lecture, she makes a reference to fern reproduction. She says, "Fern spores germinate into_________." A) gametophytes, which are often heart-shaped and have rhizoids that anchor the fern to the substrate B) gametophytes, which are often heart-shaped and have roots that anchor the fern to the substrate C) sporophytes, which are often heart-shaped and have rhizoids that anchor the fern to the substrate D) sporophytes, which are often heart-shaped and have roots that anchor the fern to the substrate
36) Whisk ferns, club mosses, and horsetails have all the following characteristics in common
with ferns except A) all of these plants are seedless tracheophyte plants. B) all of these plants produce flagellated sperm. C) all of these plants form antheridia and archegonia. D) all of these plants require free water for the process of fertilization to occur. E) all of these plants have no vascular tissue.
37) Advances in molecular systematics show that whisk ferns and horsetails are the closest living
relatives of A) mosses. B) club mosses. C) seed plants. D) gymnosperms. E) ferns.
38) Which one of the following statements about haplodiplontic life cycles is false? A) For each gene, cells of the gametophyte stage have a single allele. B) Spore mother cells produce haploid spores by meiosis. C) The gametophyte stage produces gametes by mitosis. D) The zygote is the only diploid cell in the sporophyte stage. E) Mitosis occurs in both sporophyte and gametophyte stages.
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39) Which one of the following structures in the moss life cycle is not haploid? A) germinating spore B) antheridium C) sperm D) spore mother cell E) rhizoid tissue
40) Which of the following groups is most closely related to the tracheophytes? A) Bryophytes B) Charophytes C) Rhodophytes D) Chlorophytes
41) For which of the following organisms is the sporophyte stage the dominant stage in the life
cycle? A) B) C) D) E)
charophyte fern green alga Chlamydomonas moss liverwort
42) Which one of the following statements about a typical fern life cycle is false? A) Sori contain sporangia. B) Spores are haploid. C) Gametophytes have rhizomes. D) Gametes are produced by mitosis. E) The sporophyte grows out of an archegonium.
43) Which one of the following traits would be found in the sporophyte of a typical fern but not a
moss? A) B) C) D) E)
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44) How do lycophytes differ from bryophytes? A) Lycophytes have tracheids. B) Lycophytes produce seeds. C) Lycophytes use flowers for reproduction. D) The dominant stage in a lycophyte is the gametophyte.
45) Giant kelp (Macrocystis pyrifera) is a large brown seaweed that grows in underwater
assemblages in along the coast of California. Despite their size (they can grow up to 60 m in length) and their importance as producers and habitat in kelp forests, these organisms are considered algae.Which of the following true statements about kelp would explain why they are not classified as plants? A) The absence of a cuticle enables the kelp blades to absorb water directly over their entire surface. B) The kelp life cycle involves a diploid sporophyte and a haploid gametophyte. C) Kelp gametangia produce flagellated sperm as part of the sexual life cycle. D) Kelp holdfasts anchor the body (thallus), but they do not contain vascular tissue. E) Kelp chloroplasts contain the photosynthetic pigment chlorophyll a.
46) Which of the following true statements about humans tell you that we do not have a
haplodiplontic life cycle? A) Sperm are created by meiosis in the testes. B) As a baby grows into an adult, new cells are added by mitosis. C) The human body is composed of many diploid cells. D) A human zygote is formed by fusion of a sperm and an egg from different parents.
47) Which of the following would allow you to distinguish between a liverwort and a hornwort? A) The ploidy of the photosynthesizing body. B) The presence of an archegonium. C) The presence of tracheids. D) The presence of a multicellular gametophyte. E) Possession of a cuticle.
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48) A horsetail gametophyte looks like a lobed liverwort gametophyte. What evidence in the
horsetail sporophyte tells us horsetails are not bryophytes? A) A horsetail sporophyte has tracheids. B) A horsetail sporophyte has sporangia that produce haploid spores. C) A horsetail sporophyte is diploid. D) A horsetail sporophyte is the product of fertilization of an egg by a flagellated sperm. E) A horsetail sporophyte grows by mitosis from a zygote.
49) Club mosses are sometimes called ground pines because their sporophytes resemble tiny pine
trees. Which of the following provides evidence that ground pines are not seed plants? A) Ground pines conduct photosynthesis using lycophylls. B) Ground pines have a sporophyte dominant life cycle. C) Ground pine leaves are covered with a cuticle. D) Ground pines have tracheids. E) Ground pines produce haploid spores by meiosis.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 29 1) C 2) D 3) B 4) B 5) A 6) D 7) C 8) D 9) A 10) B 11) algae 12) haplodiplontic 13) spores 14) gametophytes 15) E 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) A 20) C 21) E 22) A 23) E 24) E 25) B 26) D 27) A 28) B 29) C 30) B 31) C 32) D 33) D 34) C 35) A 36) E 37) E
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38) D 39) D 40) A 41) B 42) C 43) B 44) A 45) A 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) A
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Chapter 30 Student name:__________ 1) Children in the Southeastern United States play with red maple fruits ( Acer rubrum). The
fruits are tossed in the air and spin back to the ground, acting like small helicopters. Which part of the fruit allows for this? A) The pericarp B) The integument C) The endosperm D) The ovule
2) Are any of these vegetables actually fruit? A) Sugar beets B) Corn C) Carrots D) Celery E) All of these are vegetables, none of them are fruit.
3) Drupes have multiple seeds and fused carpels. ⊚ true ⊚ false
4) Germination inhibitors that must be digested by acids in order to be removed help to ensure
the seed will be dispersed with some fertilizer. ⊚ true ⊚ false
5) Fruits derived from which structure? A) styles B) ovaries C) stigmas D) anthers E) filaments
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6) As the endosperm matures it swells and eventually becomes the fruit. ⊚ true ⊚ false
7) Antipodals and synergids are A) produced in the female gametophyte. B) the result of double fertilization. C) what will fuse to form the endosperm. D) responsible for pollen tube formation. E) nonfunctional vestigial structures.
8) Pollination and fertilization are essentially the same process. If pollination occurs,
fertilization will follow quickly. ⊚ true ⊚ false
9) The mature male gametophyte is produced A) in the anther. B) within the pollen granule during transfer. C) when the pollen makes contact with the stigma. D) in the pollen tube when the generative cell divides. E) within the ovule just prior to fertilization.
10) Double fertilization occurs when A) the sperm and tube nuclei fertilize the egg. B) two sperm cells fertilize the two polar nuclei. C) one sperm fuses with the egg and the other sperm fuses with both polar nuclei. D) the polar nuclei fuse with the egg after it has fused with the sperm.
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11) Petals A) protect the developing flower. B) enclose and protect the ovule. C) produce pollen. D) are part of the gametophyte. E) attract pollinators.
12) After fertilization, the zygote continuously develops until an embryonic plant is formed
within the seed. ⊚ true ⊚ false
13) The breakdown of antipodals A) is a normal part of development in the ovule. B) would result in a seed without a seed coat. C) would produce an ovule with no egg cell. D) would cause a failure in endosperm development.
14) A botanist examines two plants. Plant A has large colorful petals; plant B has extremely tiny
white flowers. Which one is most likely animal pollinated? A) Plant A B) Plant B
15) Pollen comes from the A) carpel. B) petal. C) stigma. D) anther. E) style.
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16) Double fertilization produces a _________ embryo and a _________ endosperm. A) haploid; diploid B) diploid; haploid C) diploid; triploid D) triploid; diploid E) haploid; triploid
17) Based on the outcome for plants, a monkey eating a banana is a A) pollinator. B) fertilizer. C) disperser. D) parasite.
18) What is the function of the generative cell in conifers? A) Growth of the megaspore B) Dispersal of the pollen C) Production of the archegonium D) Formation of the sperm E) Maturation of the female cone
19) Ephedrine is a stimulant that is derived from a member of the phylum A) Hepaticophyta. B) Gnetophyta. C) Pterophyta. D) Cycadophyta.
20) A fruit-bearing dioecious flower would have A) an androecium. B) a gynoecium. C) both an androecium and a gynoecium. D) neither an androecium nor a gynoecium.
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21) Why is external water not essential for fertilization in seed plants? A) The sperm cells in seed plants are capable of resisting desiccation. B) Seed plants use pollen instead of sperm for fertilization. C) Pollen grains are transported by wind or an animal. D) Sperm cells are used to transport pollen to the archegonia. E) Ovules are contained within the pollen.
22) All gymnosperms have needle-like leaves and produce some type of resin. ⊚ true ⊚ false
23) Which part of the seed is responsible for providing nutrition to the embryo? A) Integument B) Endosperm C) Cotelydons D) Seed coat E) Procambium
24) What does it mean if a plant is dioecious? A) There is double fertilization of the embryo. B) Pollination and fertilization are separate events. C) There are separate male and female sporophytes. D) The sporophyte and the gametophyte are on the same plant.
25) Pollen tubes A) transport pollen to the stigma. B) facilitate the growth of pollen. C) package sperm into pollen granules. D) allow sperm to fertilize the egg. E) are present during spermatogenesis.
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26) Due to their pinnately compound leaves, tropical habitat, and overall appearance members of
which phylum are often thought of as a type of palm? A) Coniferophyta B) Gentophyta C) Cycadophyta D) Ginkophyta
27) What is the function of pine resins? A) transportation of sucrose to the roots B) reduction of fungal and insect parasitism C) triggering of seed maturation D) aiding in pollen dispersal
28) Old pine stumps are dug up, split into pieces and sold as "fatwood." Fatwood is used as a fire
starter. Why is this done? A) The wood in the stumps is porous and dry, thus it burns easily. B) The high concentration of volatile organic compounds makes the wood flammable. C) Pine bark does not absorb water and is flammable.
29) What happens to the ovary after fertilization in angiosperms? A) It dies. B) It forms the seed coat. C) It becomes food for the embryo inside the seed. D) It becomes the fruit.
30) In seed plants, the sporophyte has been greatly reduced in size and is typically just a few
cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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31) Why are conifers and cycads considered gymnosperms? A) They have true vascular tissue but do not form seeds. B) The female gametophyte is not completely enclosed in sporophyte tissue at the time
of pollination. C) The fruit is not fleshy. D) The pollen is wind-dispersed. E) Pollination and fertilization occur at different times.
32) In seed plants, the entire male gametophyte is transported to the female. ⊚ true ⊚ false
33) A researcher brings a sample of dry soil to the lab, wets it, provides ample amounts of
fertilizer, and places the soil in a container in a greenhouse. Which type of plant would be least likely to emerge? A) Pine seedling B) Sunflower C) Corn D) Wheat E) Liverwort
34) The seed coat is formed by the hardening of the A) ovule. B) integument. C) endosperm. D) embryo. E) prothallus.
35) Based on the number of species, the most successful extant phylum of plants is the A) Anthophyta. B) Coniferophyta. C) Pterophyta. D) Gnetophyta. E) Charophyta. F) Hepaticophyta.
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36) Why can corn seeds germinate in total darkness? A) The seed coating absorbs water. B) Seeds are heterotrophic and can capture nutrients from the soil. C) The endosperm provides the embryo with the nutrition needed during the initial
germination stages. D) Soil microbes degrade the seed coating allowing the seed to germinate.
37) Why aren't ferns commonly found in deserts? A) Fern fronds are sensitive to UV light. B) Fern spores are unable to resist prolonged dry conditions. C) Ferns are nonvascular and cannot absorb water from deep within the soil. D) Fern pollen is spread by insects that do not occur in deserts.
38) Malik discovers a plant while out on a walk. The leaves have vascular tissue, so it is clearly a
tracheophyte, but he would like to narrow it down more. After further study, Malik observes that the plant has non-flagellated sperm, a seed that develops in an exposed ovule, and possess both vessels and tracheids. Based on this information, this plant is most likely a member of which phylum? A) Phylum Gnetophyta B) Phylum Anthophyta C) Phylum Cycadophyta D) Phylum Coniferophyta E) Phylum Ginkgophyta
39) Cucumis sativus is a creeping vine native to Southeast Asia. Today it is cultivated around the
world for its fruit, called cucumbers. After double fertilization has occurred, three carpels (each containing multiple ovules) will fuse and elongate into a cucumber with high water content and a thin skin. When mature, the entire cucumber (skin, pericarp, and seeds) are often sliced and eaten raw in salads. Based on this information, what type of structure is a cucumber? A) Berry B) Drupe C) Legume D) Samara E) Stem
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40) Orange trees, Citrus sinensis, are known for their white flowers (the orange blossom is the
state flower of Florida) and orange fruit. Which of the following correctly describes an event that occurs during orange tree reproduction? A) A generative cell produces sperm by mitosis. B) A pollen grain fuses with an egg to form a zygote. C) A sperm fuses with both antipodals to form endosperm. D) A megaspore mother cell divides by meiosis to form four pollen grains. E) The female gametophyte divides by mitosis to form an egg and a synergid.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 30 1) A 2) B 3) FALSE 4) TRUE 5) B 6) FALSE 7) A 8) FALSE 9) D 10) C 11) E 12) FALSE 13) A 14) A 15) D 16) C 17) C 18) D 19) B 20) B 21) C 22) FALSE 23) B 24) C 25) D 26) C 27) B 28) B 29) D 30) FALSE 31) B 32) TRUE 33) E 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) B
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38) A 39) A 40) A
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Chapter 31 Student name:__________ 1) Alexander Fleming kept finding mold contamination that was killing his bacterial cultures.
This observation eventually lead to the development of the antibiotic penicillin. Why would a fungus produce a compound that is selectively toxic to bacteria? A) Fungi eat bacteria. B) Fungi are killed by bacterial toxins. C) Fungi compete with bacteria for resources. D) Killing bacteria is an accident.
2) What type of symbiotic relationship is exemplified by mycorrhizal fungi? A) Mutualism B) Commensalism C) Parasitism D) Atavism
3) Which gene product would be most useful for distinguishing between a microsporidian and a
blastocladiomycete? A) Rubisco B) Chitin C) DNA polymerase D) Phospholipidase E) ATP synthase
4) In leaf cutter ant colonies, the ants clip leaves to feed a fungus garden and then the ants feed
on the fungus. Is this a mutualistic relationship? A) No, the ants are parasites on both the leaves and fungus. B) Yes, the ants and the trees are in a mutualistic relationship. C) No, the ants are leaf parasites but have no relationship with the fungus. D) Yes, the ants and the fungus are engaged in a mutually beneficial symbiotic relationship.
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5) What type of symbiotic relationship is exemplified by athlete's foot? A) Mutualism B) Commensalism C) Parasitism D) Atavism
6) Why are neocallimastigomycetes being studied for biofuel production? A) They can ferment glucose into alcohol. B) They can release fermentable sugars from cellulose. C) They can generate methane. D) They provide energy to power fermentation. E) They can extract pollutants from biofuel starting materials.
7) In what way are bacteria and fungi similar? A) Ecological function B) Cell wall components C) Design of the nucleus D) Ribosome structure
8) Baker's yeast is a single-celled ascomycete that is used in bread making. Why does yeast
make bread dough rise? A) Yeast cells suck in air when trapped in dough. B) Carbon dioxide is produced during fermentation. C) Multiplication of yeast physically expands the dough. D) The fungal cells burst, causing the dough to expand.
9) Why are fungi used to clean oil spills? A) B) C) D)
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10) Why are microsporidia so hard to classify? A) When compared to other eukaryotic organisms, microsporidia are extremely small. B) The intracellular parasitic lifestyle greatly reduces the need for functional organelles. C) They lack nuclei. D) They are very rare.
11) Which molecule would be an indicator of fungal contamination in a drug preparation? A) Cellulose B) Collagen C) Chitin D) Deoxyribose E) Lignin
12) Fungi, together with bacteria, are the principal_________ in the biosphere.
13) The symbiotic relationship between green algae or cyanobacteria and fungi
produces_________.
14) Fungi exist mainly in the form of slender filaments, barely visible to the naked eye, which are
called_________.
15) Fungal hyphae in which two genetically distinct kinds of nuclei occur together are said to
be_________.
16) The yeasts, common molds, morels, and truffles are common and economically important.
They are members of the group of fungi called_________.
17) A type of fungi that has been long useful for baking, brewing, and wine making, and is now
very important in genetic research is_________.
18) Mushrooms are fungi belonging to the phylum_________.
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19) An_________ is a nonphotosynthetic plant—a third member of a symbiotic relationship
involving a fungus and another plant, obtaining nutrients from these two members.
20) Carcinogenic compounds called_________ are produced by some strains of Aspergillus
flavus that can infest peanuts, corn, and cotton seeds.
21) The fungal group that is most closely related to ancestral fungi are the A) Zygomycota. B) Chytridiomycota. C) Ascomycota. D) Basidomycota.
22) Specialized symbiotic associations between the roots of plants and fungi are called A) lichens. B) hyphal associations. C) heterokaryotic junctions. D) mycorrhizae. E) a mycelial unit.
23) A mass of hyphae in an ascomycete is commonly referred to as a(n) A) mycelium. B) mycorrhizae. C) conidium. D) sporangium. E) ascus.
24) The cell walls of fungi are made up of polysaccharides including A) polyglycans. B) phospholipids. C) bilipid layers. D) glycolipids. E) chitin.
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25) A symbiotic association between a fungus and a green alga or a cyanobacterium is called a A) lichen. B) mycorrhiza. C) protist. D) kelp. E) mushroom.
26) The system of fungal filaments that penetrates and grows through the substrate is called a(n) A) exoskeleton. B) hyphal compartment. C) mushroom. D) mycelium. E) sporangium.
27) Mycorrhizae, specialized symbiotic associations between the roots of plants and fungi, are
characteristic of A) all plants. B) about 90% of all plants. C) about 60% of all plants. D) about 40% of all plants. E) about 20% of all plants.
28) Diploid cells of animals and plants are genetically similar to fungal A) monokaryotic hyphae. B) dikaryotic hyphae (1n+1n). C) homokaryotic hyphae. D) spores. E) triploid cells.
29) All of the following are reproductive structures found in some fungi, except for A) asci. B) zoospores. C) zygosporangia. D) mycorrhizae. E) basidia.
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30) The fungi that cause serious plant disease, such as Dutch elm disease and chestnut blight,
belong to the phylum A) Ascomycota. B) Zygomycota. C) Imperfect fungi. D) Basidiomycota. E) Actinomycetes.
31) Asexual reproduction in ascomycetes takes place by means of A) ascogonia. B) ascospores. C) conidia. D) motile gametes. E) zygospores.
32) After meiosis, the mature ascus of an ascomycete usually contains A) eight diploid nuclei. B) eight haploid nuclei. C) many multinucleate conidia. D) an egg and a sperm. E) a zygote.
33) The most economically useful unicellular fungi are A) basidiomycetes. B) actinomycetes. C) yeasts. D) mushrooms.
34) The fruiting structures formed by secondary mycelia of basidiomycetes are known as A) mushrooms. B) yeasts. C) lichen. D) ascocarps. E) basidia.
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35) The only diploid cell of the life cycle of basidiomycetes is produced within the basidium by A) mitosis. B) meiosis. C) karyogamy. D) ascus bursting. E) budding.
36) The rusts and smuts that seriously affect crop plants are A) ascomycetes. B) zygomycetes. C) chytrids. D) basidiomycetes. E) actinomycetes.
37) Lichens are adversely affected by A) humidity. B) sunlight. C) pollution. D) sexual reproduction of the fungal partner. E) asexual reproduction of the photosynthetic partner.
38) Which of the following fungi usually form arbuscular mycorrhizal associations in which the
outer cells of the plant roots are penetrated by the fungal hyphae? A) ascomycetes B) glomeromycetes C) deuteromycetes D) basidiomycetes E) chytridiomycetes
39) Which one statement does NOT describe the arbuscular mycorrhizae? A) They are the most common mycorrhizal type. B) Fungal hyphae penetrate plant root cells. C) They are partners even with early plants like bryophytes. D) The fungal fruiting body incorporates chloroplasts into its tissues. E) The fungal component is a glomeromycete.
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40) Ectomycorrhizae, associations in which the fungal hyphae surround but do not penetrate the
cell walls of the plant roots, usually involve A) ascomycetes. B) basidiomycetes. C) zygomycetes. D) ascomycetes and basidiomycetes. E) ascomycetes and zygomycetes.
41) Which of the following statements best describes the structure of fungal hyphae? A) Long chains of cells, each with one nucleus and its own separate cytoplasm. B) Long chains of cells that share cytoplasm and a cell wall. C) Elaborate webs of extracellular matrix around a few scattered cells. D) Elongated spores formed within reproductive structures. E) Long series of connected chromosomes, encased in a single nuclear envelope.
42) A particular fungus lives on the bark of damaged spruce trees. This fungus has heterokaryotic
hyphae, which means A) there are two genetically identical nuclei in each compartment. B) there are two genetically distinct nuclei in each compartment. C) there are two nuclei in each compartment. D) there is only one nucleus in each compartment.
43) Lichens are mutualisms between A) yeast and another fungi. B) fungi and an alga. C) fungi and a green plant. D) fungi and a mycorrhizae. E) mycorrhizae and yeast.
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44) Which group of fungi is NOT correctly matched with an example? A) Chytridiomycota—unicellular frog parasites B) Neocallimastigomycota—cellulose-degrading gut symbionts of cows C) Zygomycota—bread molds D) Ascomycota—mushrooms E) Basidiomycota—toadstools
45) One major difference between ectomycorrhizae and arbuscular mycorrhizae is A) ectomycorrhizae are parasitic on plant roots while arbuscular mycorrhizae are not. B) ectomycorrhizae do not penetrate plant roots; arbuscular mycorrhizae penetrate plant
roots. C) ectomycorrhizae are more common on plant roots than arbuscular mycorrhizae. D) ectomycorrhizae form mutualisms while arbuscular mycorrhizae are parasitic. E) most ectomycorrhizae are zygomycetes while most endomycorrhizae are basidiomycetes.
46) Ruminant animals have symbiotic fungi that A) digest cellulose and lignin. B) infect milk-producing glands, fermenting the milk. C) produce toxins in muscle tissue. D) produce natural antibiotics.
47) Which one of the following fungal groups has an alternation of multicellular gametophyte
and sporophyte generations? A) Zygomycetes B) Ascomycetes C) Blastocladiomycota D) Chytridiomycetes E) Glomeromycetes
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48) In the life cycle of a zygomycete, after the zygospore is formed, the next event will be A) mitosis. B) meiosis. C) plasmogamy. D) karyogamy. E) dikaryon formation.
49) A nonphotosynthetic plant sharing a mycorrhizal fungus with a photosynthetic plant is best
described as a(n) A) mutualist. B) epiparasite. C) parasite. D) host. E) symbiont.
50) Which one of the following terms best applies to the fungus participant in a typical lichen? A) Mutualist B) Ectomycorrhizal fungus C) Arbuscular mycorrhizal fungus D) Epiparasite
51) How does fungal mitosis differ from animal mitosis? A) Cytokinesis only occurs in fungal mitosis. B) The nuclear envelope often remains intact in fungal mitosis. C) The spindle apparatus is only found in fungal mitosis. D) Fungi only use meiosis, while true mitosis is only seen in animals.
52) Zygospores are used to resist harsh conditions. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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53) Comparisons of DNA sequences have revealed that glomeromycetes are not in the same
clade as the zygomycetes. ⊚ true ⊚ false
54) In basidiomycetes the_________ is diploid. A) basidium B) primary mycelium C) secondary mycelium D) zygote
55) Fungi are currently classified into seven monophyletic groups based on characteristics of the
cells undergoing meiosis. ⊚ true ⊚ false
56) Why is it difficult to treat fungal infections in humans? A) Fungal cells are eukaryotic. B) Fungal cells have a chitonous cell wall. C) Fungal cells are dikaryotic. D) Fungal cells cause chytridiomycosis.
57) What type of fungi are obligate symbionts with plant roots and played a key role in the
colonization of lands by plant? A) glomeromycetes B) zygomycetes C) chytridiomycetes D) blastocladiomycetes E) microsporidians
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58) Sexual reproduction in zygomycetes differs from sexual reproduction in basidiomycetes in
one key way. Which of the following is true of zygomycetes, but not true of basidiomycetes? A) Meiosis to produce haploid spores is delayed, resulting in a discrete diploid state. B) Gametangia of opposite mating types undergo plasmogamy. C) Mushrooms are formed of secondary (dikaryotic) mycelium. D) Haploid nuclei fuse in the process of karyogamy to form a diploid nucleus.
59) After one rainy day, suddenly there are mushrooms all over the lawn! What can explain their
sudden appearance? A) Cytoplasmic flow allows fungi to grow from spore to fruiting body in under 24 hours. B) The fruiting bodies had already developed underground, but the addition of water allowed them to expand in size quickly and burst through the grass. C) The fungal mycelium had been living underground, and the fruiting body formed rapidly aboveground. D) The unicellular fungi had been scattered on the soil surface, but when it rained they aggragated to form a fruiting body.
60) What is accomplished by the trisporol/4-dehydrotrisporic acid system used by zygomycetes? A) It allows recognition of different mating types and initiates gametangia development. B) It facilitates fertilization of the egg by the flagellated sperm. C) The chemicals are secreted to dissolve nutrients in bread and break them down into
sugar. D) The chemicals provide long-range signaling that causes aggregation of all the mycelium in the area.
61) In lichen, if the algae or cyanobacterial partner has to do all the photosynthesis, and the
fungus benefits from that sugar production, then why is a lichen considered a mutualistic relationship? A) Because mutualism means one party benefits, and the other party is unharmed. B) Because mutualism means one party benefits, and the other party is harmed. C) Because mutualism is just a generic term for any close-knit species relationship. D) Because the fungus provides minerals, water, and protection.
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62) Which type of fungus would be the best choice for using as a genetic model organism in the
laboratory? A) A glomeromycete B) A microsporidian C) A neocallimastigomycete D) An ascomycete
63) If a forest floor was polluted by a chemical that was poisonous to fungi, what consequence
would you expect for the plant life? A) There would be little consequence, because plants are only distantly related to fungi. B) The plants would have trouble absorbing water and nutrients from the soil. C) All the plants would grow much better, because pathogenic fungi would die. D) The tree bark would overgrow, because nothing could eat the cellulose or lignan.
64) If a sac fungus had a mutation that prevented meiosis, what would you predict to find in the
mature asci? A) Four diploid nuclei B) One diploid nucleus C) Four haploid nuclei D) Eight haploid nuclei E) Eight conidia
65) What would you predict would occur for a lichen whose symbiont algae suddenly died? A) The fungal partner would die. B) The cyanobacterial partner would die. C) The fungal partner may survive, but grow much slower. D) The fungal partner would quickly recruit a new autotroph.
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66) The fungus Laetiporus sulphureus is also called chicken-of-the-woods or the sulfur shelf
fungus. Its basidiocarps emerge as bright yellow shelves on the sides of infected trees, and it has white, ellipsoid basidiospores. What phylum does this fungus belong to? A) Ascomycota B) Basidiomycota C) Glomeromycota D) Chytridiomycota E) Zygomycota
67) The fungus Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis was only discovered in 1998, but it has been
blamed for the death of millions of amphibians around the globe. It is aquatic, and its flagellated zoospores have the ability to use chemotaxis to swim towards an amphibian, where it burrows into the skin and secretes enzymes to dissolve and absorb the tissue. What phylum does this fungus belong to? A) Ascomycota B) Basidiomycota C) Glomeromycota D) Chytridiomycota E) Zygomycota
68) An elephant at the zoo has a serious fungal infection. The veterinarian needs to choose a
topical treatment (on the skin) or an oral treatment (pills that are swallowed). What fact might influence this choice? A) The pills would be best, since any internal fungi would be harmful pathogens anyway. B) The topical fungicide would be best, since killing off any neocallimastigomycetes could harm the elephant's digestion. C) The pills would be best, since killing off any endophytes in the skin could make the elephant susceptible to insect pests. D) The topical fungicide would be best, since killing off any zygomycetes could harm the elephant's digestion. E) The pills would be best, since killing off any glomeromycetes in the gut would just provide added nutrition.
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69) The tiny cells of microsporidia lack mitochondria, but their nuclei contain a few
mitochondrial genes. What is the most likely explanation suggested by this finding? A) They eat their host cell's mitochondria to recycle the DNA. B) They are finally starting to evolve mitochondria. C) They gained mitochondrial genes by horizontal gene transfer. D) They likely lost mitochondria after becoming intracellular parasites.
70) A chemist creates a compound that interferes with the polymerization of N-
acetylglucosamine. What effect is this likely to have when applied to cultures of fungi? A) The cell walls will be thin and weak. B) The mycelia will attempt to mate and form gametangia. C) Fermentation rates will greatly increase. D) Spores will be heavier and more resilient.
71) When a researcher finds fungal genes in her plant's DNA sample, she realizes the plant has a
fungus living inside it. How can she best determine whether the fungus has a mutalistic or parasitic relationship with the plant? A) Dissect the plant and remove the fungus physically, then see how the plant responds. B) Sequence the fungal genes to determine if they encode harmful or beneficial proteins. C) Treat some plants with fungicide to remove the fungus, then compare the health of plants with and without the fungus. D) Classify the fungus—if not a microsporidian, then it is likely a beneficial endosymbiont.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 31 1) C 2) A 3) E 4) D 5) C 6) B 7) A 8) B 9) C 10) B 11) C 12) Decomposers 13) Lichens 14) Hyphae 15) Heterokaryotic 16) Ascomycetes 17) Yeasts 18) Basidiomycota 19) Epiparasite 20) Aflatoxins 21) B 22) D 23) A 24) E 25) A 26) D 27) B 28) B 29) D 30) A 31) C 32) B 33) C 34) A 35) C 36) D 37) C
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38) B 39) D 40) B 41) B 42) B 43) B 44) D 45) B 46) A 47) C 48) B 49) B 50) A 51) B 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) D 55) FALSE 56) A 57) A 58) A 59) C 60) A 61) D 62) D 63) B 64) B 65) C 66) B 67) D 68) B 69) D 70) A 71) C
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Chapter 32
Student name:__________ 1) Damage to its flagellum would prevent a choanocyte from A) circulating water through the sponge. B) stinging and capturing prey. C) secreting spongin to form the sponge body. D) producing the supportive spicules.
2) Touching a jellyfish can be a very painful experience whereas touching a comb jelly is not
painful. Why is there a difference? A) Nematocysts in ctenophores lack venom. B) Ctenophores have very reduced nematocysts that cannot penetrate human skin. C) Ctenphores do not possess nematocysts. D) Ctenophores only use nematocycts for feeding, not for defense.
3) How could a biologist distinguish an acoel flatworm from a free living platyhelminth? A) The acoel worm would be solid throughout, since it lacks a gut. B) The acoel worm would have a nervous system. C) The platyhelminth would have a more primitive gut and nervous system. D) Only the acoel is triploblastic.
4) A mixture of DNA fragments is amplified from a sample of ocean water. Which gene(s)
could be definitively categorized as originating from a species of animal? A) Genes for ATP synthase B) Gene for Spongin C) Cell cycle regulatory genes D) Genes for biosynthesis of chitin E) Gene for RuBisCO
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5) As a teaching assistant, you must gather examples of deuterostomes from a large,
unorganized selection of animals. Which specimens should you select? (Check all that apply.) A) Jellyfish B) Sea urchins C) Sea stars D) Acoel flatworms E) Anemones
6) Linnaeus lumped all of the worm-like animals into the category Vermes (Vermis is Latin for
worm). Is this a valid classification scheme? A) No, because some worms are protists. B) Yes, because all worms are members of the same phylum. C) Yes, because all worm-like animals are more closely related to each other than they are to other animals. D) No, because the worm-like body plan has appeared many times through evolutionary history and is not a useful trait for classification.
7) Of the following features, which is the most widely shared in the animal kingdom? A) protostome development B) radial cleavage C) molting of a cuticle or exoskeleton D) a body plan with symmetry E) a triploblastic embryo
8) A scientist is studying some developing eggs from an ocean sample. The early embryos have
divided only a few times, and all cells look identical. When the scientist carefully removes half the cells from an embryo, both clumps of cells are able to complete development, forming twins. The eggs can be identified as A) deuterostomes. B) protostomes. C) crustaceans. D) cnidarians. E) echinoderms.
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9) As a teaching assistant, you are grading lab reports and notice that in a sketch of a cross-
section of a roundworm, a student labeled the space between the inner lining of the body wall and the wall of the digestive cavity as the coelom. How should you grade this label? A) The label is correct. The endodermal wall of the digestive cavity and the mesodermal lining of the body will make up the boundaries of a coelom. B) The label is incorrect. The space is immediately enclosed by an ectoderm, so it is a body cavity and not a coelom. C) The label is correct. The coelom is the space that occurs outside of the digestive cavity. D) The label is incorrect. The space is not fully enclosed by mesoderm, so it is a body cavity, but it is not a coelom.
10) Given the distribution of the animal phyla across the Earth's various ecosystems, what would
be the most likely habitat for the origin of animals? A) Rain forests B) Freshwater habitats C) Deserts D) Oceans E) Temperate grassland
11) In all deuterostomes, pairs of cells from each division are placed directly above and below
each other. This pattern is called_________.
12) The embryonic layer found only in bilaterally symmetrical eumetazoans is the_________.
13) Animals with a body cavity located between the mesoderm and endoderm are_________.
14) In a_________ circulatory system, circulation of blood is more controlled—the blood is
moved faster and more efficiently than in other types of circulatory systems.
15) Two outwardly dissimilar groups, the_________ and the chordates, together with a few other
small phyla, constitute the deuterostomes.
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16) Of the following combination of statements about protostomes and deuterostomes, which
choice is correct? A) Protostomes are animals in which the mouth develops from the blastopore, and the anus or anal pore develops from the second opening. Deuterostomes are animals in which the anus develops from the blastopore and the mouth develops secondarily later in their development. B) Protostomes are animals in which the anus develops from the blastopore, and the mouth develops from the second opening. Deuterostomes are animals in which the anus develops from the blastopore and the mouth develops secondarily later in their development. C) Protostomes are animals in which the mouth develops from the blastopore, and the anus or anal pore develops from the second opening. Deuterostomes are animals in which the mouth develops from the blastopore and the anus develops secondarily later in their development. D) Protostomes are animals in which the mouth or anus develops from the blastopore, depending on the species. Deuterostomes are animals in which the mouth and anus develops from the blastopore, depending on the species.
17) Protostomes develop through A) spiral cleavage. B) radial cleavage. C) axial cleavage. D) polar cleavage. E) proto cleavage.
18) In animals that display indeterminate development A) embryonic cells have a predetermined fate. B) bilateral symmetry cannot develop. C) early embryonic cells, if separated from the embryo, can develop into complete
organisms. D) embryonic cells show spiral cleavage. E) the blastopore develops into the mouth.
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19) A biologist discovered a new animal. Upon studying its embryonic development, she
observed radial cleavage with the blastopore developing into an anus. This animal was categorized as a A) parazoan. B) radiata. C) deuterostome. D) protostome. E) pseudocoelomate.
20) Solid worms that lack a body cavity are known as A) acoelomates. B) pseudocoelomates. C) triploblastic. D) coelomates. E) diploblastic.
21) Which of the following terms is mismatched with its meaning or characteristics? A) Diploblastic—ectoderm and mesoderm B) Triploblastic—ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm C) Parazoa—lacks symmetry; no tissues D) Eumetazoa—definite symmetry; tissues organized E) Chordate—animal with notochord
22) What are the three animal phyla that dominate animal life on land? A) Cnidaria, Mollusca, Platyhelminthes B) Porifera, Arthropoda, Nematoda C) Nematoda, Chordata, Cnidaria D) Nematoda, Arthropoda, Chordata E) Platyhelminthes, Nematoda, Arthropoda
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23) Although it is recognized that segmentation is more widespread than previously thought,
traditionally segmentation was said to be found in A) Annelida, Mollusca, and Arthropoda. B) Echinodermata, Platyhelminthes, and Cnidaria. C) Mollusca, Chordata, and Annelida. D) Arthropoda, Chordata, and Porifera. E) Arthropoda, Annelida, and Chordata.
24) Molecular data confirm that cnidarians branched off from the rest of animals
before_________ evolved. A) echinoderms B) Porifera C) mollusks D) bilaterial symmetry E) arthropods
25) Parazoa A) are pseudocoelomates. B) exhibit bilateral symmetry. C) include Cnidaria and Ctenophora. D) exhibit primitive segmentation. E) have no true tissues.
26) Which one of the following terms applies to the phylum Arthropoda? A) radial symmetry B) diploblastic C) coelomate D) Parazoa E) deuterostome
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27) Which one of the following terms applies to the phylum Mollusca? A) protostome B) pseudocoelomate C) Parazoa D) diploblastic E) asymmetry
28) Which one of the following terms applies to the phylum Platyhelminthes? A) radial cleavage B) deuterostome C) diploblastic D) acoelomate E) radial symmetry
29) Which one of the following terms applies to the phylum Nematoda? A) Parazoa B) diploblastic C) deuterostome D) pseudocoelomate
30) Which one of the following terms applies to the phylum Cnidaria? A) radial symmetry B) pseudocoelomate C) Parazoa D) triploblastic E) protostome
31) Select the phylum that includes deuterostome animals that are exclusively marine and have
radial symmetry as adults. A) Porifera B) Rotifera C) Echinodermata D) Chordata E) Cnidaria
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32) Which one of the following terms applies to the phylum Bryozoa? A) radial symmetry B) lophophore C) Parazoa D) deuterostome E) radial cleavage
33) Which one of the following applies to the phylum Ctenophora? A) often bioluminescent marine animals B) protostome C) coelomate D) deuterostome E) Parazoa
34) Select the following phylum that includes coelomate, bilaterian animals that have a structure
called a notochord. A) Echinodermata B) Annelida C) Arthropoda D) Mollusca E) Chordata
35) Select the following phylum that includes animals that are unsegmented, acoelomate, and
have a digestive cavity with a single opening. A) Annelida B) Platyhelminthes C) Nematoda D) Cnidaria E) Rotifera
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36) Which one of the following features is unique to animals? A) cells organized into tissues B) movement associated with muscle tissue and nervous tissue C) heterotrophism D) cells without walls E) embryonic development
37) Which of the following describes what is currently known about Ctenophore symmetry? A) Ctenophores are diploblasts with bilateral symmetry. B) Ctenophores are possibly triploblasts because of muscle cells derived from meoderm. C) Ctenophores are bilaterians. D) Ctenophores are lacking symmetry.
38) Predict what would occur if the nematocysts of a cnidarian were no longer able to function. A) Eggs would be released into the environment. B) Food capture would cease. C) Water could not flow through the gastrovascular cavity. D) They would not be able to move.
39) A member of your study group is unfamiliar with cnidarians and is struggling with
understanding the difference between cnidarian polyps and medusae. How can you help your classmate to grasp the difference? Check all of the correct statements. A) Only polyps are colonial. B) A species contains either polyps or medusae, but not both. C) Both polyps and medusae are diploid. D) Polyps and medusae both have mouths surrounded by tentacles.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 32 1) A 2) C 3) A 4) B 5) [B, C] 6) D 7) D 8) A 9) D 10) D 11) radial cleavage 12) mesoderm 13) pseudocoelomates 14) closed 15) echinoderms 16) A 17) A 18) C 19) C 20) A 21) A 22) D 23) E 24) D 25) E 26) C 27) A 28) D 29) D 30) A 31) C 32) B 33) A 34) E 35) B 36) B 37) B
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38) B 39) [A, C, D]
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Chapter 33 Student name:__________ 1) Dibenzoylhydrazines are a category of molecules that have been used as insecticides. They
work by blocking ecdysteroid receptors. How does this kill an insect? A) The insect can no longer excrete nitrogenous wastes. B) The insect cannot molt. C) The insect can no longer coordinate its movements. D) The chitinous exoskeleton is dissolved.
2) At a celebratory dinner for a recent publication, a marine biologist ordered the lobster claw
appetizer. What part did she order? A) Nauplius B) Telson C) Uropods D) Cheliped
3) A collection of arthropods is sitting in the lab prep room, and as a teaching assistant, you
must select a hexapod from this diverse group of specimens to show your class. Which characteristic will quickly make you certain that what you have selected is a hexapod? A) Jointed appendages B) Mandibles C) Chitinous exoskeletons D) Wings E) Antennae
4) In what way are a human and a crab similar? A) Vertebrates and arthropods are deuterostomes. B) Both have muscles that pull against rigid skeletons. C) Both have closed circulatory systems. D) Both have a continuous growth pattern.
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5) Barnacles are sessile filter feeders but unlike bivalves, they have internal fertilization. How
do they solve this problem? A) The filter sperm from the water column. B) They get fertilized during free living larval stages. C) They are only capable of asexual reproduction. D) They are hermaphrodites with, especially long penises.
6) An entomologist observed a locust sitting on a branch pumping its abdomen like an
accordion. What is the insect most likely doing? A) Speeding the flow of blood through its veins and arteries B) Assisting gas exchange in the tracheal system C) Clearing its spinnerets D) Stretching out its pedipalps
7) Scorpions have a prosoma, pedipalps that are modified into claws, and chelicerae. Which
taxonomic group are they a member of? A) Chelicerata B) Hexapoda C) Crustacea D) Myriapoda
8) The lophophore of a brachiopod serves the same function as the_________ in a bivalve. A) Mantle B) Foot C) Shell D) Gills
9) How would an earthworm stretch its body to reach a patch of dirt after crossing a hot
sidewalk? A) Contraction of the circular muscles B) Contraction of the longitudinal muscles C) Relaxing the chaetae (setae) D) Pulling on the chaetae (setae)
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10) Pinworm is a nematode parasite that lives in the human rectum, and causes itching in the anal
area. What best explains the itching symptom? A) Any kind of parasite will naturally irritate the skin. B) The itching induces the person to scratch, helping to spread the parasite to another person. C) The itching is a side-effect when the immune system has successfully attacked the nematode. D) The itching is because of the mismatch between humans and the parasite’s natural host.
11) How could a paleontologist distinguish between a bryozoan fossil and a brachiopod fossil? A) Bryozoans are large and solitary. B) Zoecia are always found in aggregates. C) You can only distinguish the two by examining the lophophore. D) Bryozoans often look like bivalves.
12) What would result if a leech had a mutation causing it to secrete low levels of
anticoagulants? A) The pain of the leech bite would cause the leech to be detected. B) The leech would have a hard time locating appropriate hosts. C) The blood would stop flowing after a short time. D) The leech would have a hard time remaining attached to its host.
13) Inside its beak, an octopus has a rasping tongue that is used to tear apart food. Which
gastropod structure is this analogous to? A) Mantle B) Shell C) Radula D) Nephridium
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14) What is a simple way for determining if an annelid is a member of Errantia (a polychaete) or
Sedentaria (a clitellate)? A) The number of segments B) Possession of a closed circulatory system C) The amount of chaetae (setae) D) The layout of the digestive system
15) Interoctopus communication is facilitated by A) a radula. B) mantle connections. C) chromatophores. D) chemical pheromones.
16) Humans have direct development, a closed circulatory system, well-developed eyes, and
large brains. Which mollusk also shares these features? A) Chiton B) Slug C) Octopus D) Nudibranch
17) A snail in your garden and an oyster are quite different in appearance. What would be
evidence to justify grouping them together? A) Both use a radula for feeding. B) Both have a mantle capable of secreting calcium carbonate. C) Both use siphons to obtain oxygen. D) Both have sensory antenna.
18) If a hiker picked up a mollusk on a trail in a rain forest, what class would it belong to? A) Gastropoda B) Polyplacophora C) Bivalvia D) Cephalopoda
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19) What change would result for a land snail that had a mutation interfering with chitin
formation? A) It would have a soft, demineralized shell. B) It would have difficulty feeding. C) It could not form its exoskeleton. D) Molting would not be possible.
20) Paramecia use cilia for locomotion and for gathering organic matter. How are rotifers
similar? A) Rotifers are single-celled protists. B) The corona is made of cilia, and used for swimming and feeding. C) Rotifers and ciliates are thought to have given rise to all other animal phyla. D) Both lack a gut.
21) Why doesn't a tapeworm have a mouth on its scolex? A) The mouth is on the proglottids. B) Endoparasites don't need a mouth. C) The mouth is located at the end of the pharynx. D) Tapeworms use a radula instead of a mouth to feed.
22) According to the modern classification scheme, which animal would be a spider's closest
relative? A) A snail B) An earthworm C) A tapeworm D) A roundworm E) A squid
23) A_________ is a circular or U-shaped ridge around the mouth, bearing either one or two
rows of ciliated, hollow tentacles.
24) Brachiopods develop as protostomes, but they show_________ cleavage.
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25) Members of the class_________, which include octopuses, squids, and nautiluses, are highly
intelligent.
26) In many arthropods, body segments have become fused into functional groups
called_________.
27) The phylum that includes snails, clams, oysters, and octopuses is the A) Ectoprocta. B) Brachiopoda. C) Mollusca. D) Annelida. E) Phoronida.
28) In mollusks, the folds of tissue that arise from the dorsal body wall and enclose a cavity
surrounding the visceral mass are called the A) foot. B) mantle. C) nephridia. D) radula. E) lophophore.
29) Many marine mollusks have distinctive larvae which have their bodies encircled by a row of
cilia. These larvae are called A) planulae. B) polyps. C) miracidia. D) zoecia. E) trochophores.
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30) The organ that is responsible for secreting cocoons in earthworms is known as the A) nephridia. B) setae. C) radula. D) clitellum. E) lophophore.
31) The Bryozoa and Brachiopoda have which feature in common? A) nephridia B) a lophophore C) a radula D) setae E) a muscular foot
32) Examples of mollusks that live on land are the A) earthworms. B) land crabs. C) mussels. D) scorpions. E) snails and slugs.
33) Squids and octopuses move by means of water movement through their A) tentacles. B) cilia and flagella. C) modified mantle cavity. D) muscular foot. E) radula.
34) The nitrogenous waste in mollusks is removed by A) flame cells. B) nephridia. C) Malpighian tubules. D) incurrent siphon. E) flagella.
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35) Trochophores, the free-swimming larvae of many mollusks, are propelled through the water
by A) B) C) D) E)
flagella. cilia. flame cells. nephridia. the radula.
36) Radula modification allowed all of the following functions in gastropods except A) scraping algae off rocks. B) eating vegetation. C) boring holes in other mollusk shells. D) protecting themselves with nematocysts. E) injecting poison through a harpoon-like structure.
37) Which of the following organs of cephalopods resemble those of the vertebrates? A) arms B) nephridia C) eyes D) digestive tissues E) foot
38) The partitions that separate the segments of the annelid body are known as A) pseudocoels. B) nephridia. C) setae. D) septa. E) radula.
39) Annelids possess all of the following except A) muscles to swim, crawl, and burrow. B) ganglia to respond to light and respond to other environmental cues. C) circulatory, excretory, and neural elements in each segment. D) setae in each segment. E) adductor muscles.
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40) Each segment of an annelid typically contains bristles of chitin called A) cilia. B) parapodia. C) chaetae. D) leglets.
41) The sexual reproduction of earthworms characteristically is A) hermaphroditic but cross-fertilizing. B) hermaphroditic but self-fertilizing. C) normal type between individuals who remain as males and females throughout their
lifetime. D) normal appearing, but individuals change sex periodically. E) normal appearing, but individuals reproduce only once in their lives.
42) Earthworms show all of the following features except A) containing segments with a mouth on the first and the anus on the last. B) containing touch-sensitive and light-sensitive organs in the segments. C) containing fewer setae than in polychaetes. D) containing distinct head regions and parapodia. E) being hermaphroditic.
43) The medicinal leech, once used to withdraw "unhealthy" blood from patients,
produces_________ to ensure blood flow from the host? A) antibiotics B) antibodies C) anticoagulants D) blood clots E) suture material
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44) A biologist has been studying a mollusk that does not have a shell. It lives in the marine
environment. Of the examples given below, which one did the biologist study? A) clam B) snail C) nautilus D) chiton E) octopus
45) All of the following are either structures or characteristics of members of the Class Bivalvia
of the Phylum Mollusca except A) the mantle. B) a radula. C) a shell. D) gills. E) open circulation.
46) Select the mismatched pair of Phylum Mollusca classes and their examples. A) Polyplacophora—chitons B) Gastropoda—slugs C) Bivalvia—snails D) Cephalopoda—nautilus E) Gastropoda—nudibranchs
47) A marine biologist visits your biology class and begins his talk entitled, "Life as a
Trochophore." A friend seated next to you asks, "What is a trochophore?" You explain that a trochophore is A) another name for the veliger stage in earthworm reproduction. B) a term used to describe a larval form of either the phylum Mollusca or Annelida. C) another name for the veliger stage in the oyster. D) similar to a lophophore, but only found in the phylum Annelida. E) a parasite in the intestines of a bivalve mollusk.
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48) The evolutionary innovation that first appeared in arthropods and is characteristic of the most
successful of all animal groups is that of A) bilateral symmetry. B) coelomic body architecture. C) jointed appendages. D) segmentation. E) three primary types of tissues.
49) In terms of the number of species, the most successful class of arthropods is A) Hexapoda. B) Chelicerata. C) Crustacea. D) Chilopoda. E) Myriapoda.
50) In some arthropods, tagmatization has produced a combination of head and thorax known as
a A) B) C) D) E)
cephalothorax. fused corpora. headless mite. larval instar. thoracotomy.
51) The passage of an arthropod through stages from egg to adult is A) differentiation. B) evolution. C) graduation. D) metamorphosis. E) succession.
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52) Nauplius, a unique kind of larva, is characteristic of A) mites. B) crustaceans. C) horseshoe crabs. D) insects. E) chelicerates.
53) The rigid chitinous exoskeleton of an arthropod has all of the following functions except it A) provides a place for muscle attachment. B) protects the animal from predators. C) impedes water loss. D) maintains a uniform size for all individuals of that species. E) prevents injury to the animal.
54) Compound eyes are composed of independent visual units called A) apposition segments. B) ocelli. C) ommatidia. D) retinas. E) simple eyes.
55) Eyes with single lenses that respond to light and darkness are found in many arthropods;
these are the A) compound eyes. B) ocelli. C) apposition eyes. D) ommatidia. E) superposition segments.
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56) Air passage into the trachea of most insects is controlled by the closing and opening of
valves, which operate special openings called A) spiracles. B) ocelli. C) ommatidia. D) book lungs. E) Malpighian tubules.
57) The excretory structures of terrestrial arthropods are slender projections from the digestive
tract that are attached at the junction of the midgut and hindgut. These are called A) flame cells. B) kidneys and bladders. C) Malpighian tubules. D) nephridia. E) ocelli.
58) Chelicerae function as A) eyes. B) fangs or pincers. C) jaws or mandibles. D) teeth. E) wings.
59) Decapod crustaceans (shrimps, lobsters, and crabs) all lack A) a carapace, a dorsal cephalothorax shield. B) a ventral line of appendages, swimmerets. C) a tail spine, telson. D) chelicerae.
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60) An invertebrate biologist is conducting research with crabs. Her interest is ecdysis. This
implies that she studies A) tagmatization processes in crustaceans. B) how ommatidia function individually in a compound eye. C) how the HOX gene controls the fusion of the head and thorax into the cephalothorax. D) how ocelli evolved from mere photoreceptors to imaging lens. E) the molting process.
61) A marine biologist makes a presentation about crustaceans to your biology class. He explains
that he has recently received an NSF grant to study sessile crustaceans. You are only aware of one group of sessile crustaceans. This crustacean must be A) a lobster. B) a crayfish. C) a shrimp. D) a barnacle. E) the nauplius.
62) A spider and an insect are both arthropods, but they have some different characteristics.
Choose the descriptions that are true for BOTH a spider and an insect. Check all that apply. A) They have a head, a thorax, and an abdomen. B) They have an open circulatory system. C) Some species are carnivorous and some are herbivorous. D) They have a chitinous exoskeleton. E) They have spinnerets. F) They molt. G) They are members of Ecdysozoa. H) They have sensory antennae. I) They have metamorphosis.
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63) Which one of the following incorrectly matches a molluscan structure with its typical
function? A) ctenidia—secretion of the shell (when present) B) visceral mass—houses organs of digestion, excretion, reproduction C) foot—locomotion D) nephrostome—collection of nitrogenous wastes E) radula—feeding organ
64) Which one of the following incorrectly matches a molluscan group with a feature
characterizing that group? A) Gastropoda—torsion B) Nudibranchs—extensive gills in mantle cavity C) Bivalvia—reduced head and no radula D) Polyplacophora—eight calcareous plates E) Cephalopoda—closed circulatory system
65) Which one of the following annelid structures or events is not correctly paired with its role in
locomotion? A) circular muscles contract—segment becomes thin and long B) longitudinal muscles contract—segment becomes thick and short C) fluid in coelom—provides a hydrostatic skeleton D) septum—allows each segment to move independently E) chaetae—provides gas exchange surface for body muscles
66) Which one of the following statements about the phylum Brachiopoda is false? A) Brachiopods are often misidentified as bivalves. B) Brachiopods were much more diverse in the past. C) As in bivalves, the valves in brachiopods are lateral (left and right) to the body axis. D) Most brachiopods are sessile (attached). E) The lophophore resides within the brachiopod's shells.
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67) Which one of the following insect organ systems has placed the greatest limitation on their
body size? A) nervous system B) digestive system C) respiratory system D) reproductive system E) excretory system
68) How does a ribbon worm differ from a flatworm? A) A flatworm has a complete digestive system. B) A ribbon worm has a mouth and an anus. C) Flatworms are deuterostomes. D) Flatworms are radially symmetrical and ribbon worms are bilaterally symmetrical.
69) The side-to-side thrashing of a nematode is accomplished by the contraction of its circular
muscles. ⊚ true ⊚ false
70) It is clear that your classmate understands annelid anatomy and physiology well, but
flatworms are not so clear. You decide to help by drawing comparisons between structures in the two groups. Although it is less complex, you tell your classmate that the annelid nephridium is similar in function to what flatworm structure? A) Scolex B) Flame cell C) Pharynx D) Proglottid
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 33 1) B 2) D 3) D 4) B 5) D 6) B 7) A 8) D 9) A 10) B 11) B 12) C 13) C 14) C 15) C 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) B 20) B 21) B 22) D 23) lophophore 24) radial 25) cephalopoda 26) tagmata 27) C 28) B 29) E 30) D 31) B 32) E 33) C 34) B 35) B 36) D 37) C
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38) D 39) E 40) C 41) A 42) D 43) C 44) E 45) B 46) C 47) B 48) C 49) A 50) A 51) D 52) B 53) D 54) C 55) B 56) A 57) C 58) B 59) D 60) E 61) D 62) [B, D, F, G] 63) A 64) B 65) E 66) C 67) C 68) B 69) FALSE 70) B
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Chapter 34 Student name:__________ 1) What would be an easy way to determine if a skull is a mammal's skull? A) Look for openings in the skull for the attachment of jaw muscles. B) Examine the mouth for specialized teeth. C) Look for the openings for nostrils. D) Look for a hinged jaw.
2) Of the primates listed below, a human’s closest extant relative is a(n) A) B) C) D)
South American spider monkey. mandrill. orangutan. ring-tailed lemur.
3) For human races to be considered valid biological groupings, the genetic diversity within the
group would have to be_________ the genetic diversity between groups. A) lower than B) equal to C) higher than
4) All mammals have hair, mammary glands, and a placenta. ⊚ true ⊚ false
5) The breast meat in a bucket of fried chicken is a muscle that normally allows a bird to A) run. B) jump. C) swim. D) feed. E) fly.
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6) A Tyrannosaurus rex's closest relative is a A) Komodo dragon. B) bullfrog. C) squirrel. D) chicken.
7) A vertebrate paleontologist is hunting through chalk deposits and finds a set of fused
clavicles with some other bone fragments. What has she found? A) The remains of an amphibian. B) The remains of a lobe-finned fish. C) The remains of a bird. D) The remains of a mammal.
8) What feature do monkeys share with iguanas but not with bullfrogs? A) eyes B) eggs C) thoracic breathing D) four-chambered heart
9) What would happen to an egg that had a nonfunctional chorion? A) The embryo would suffocate or dehydrate. B) The embryo would starve in the egg. C) The embryo would die due to high levels of toxic metabolic wastes. D) The embryo would develop normally.
10) Which group includes mammals, birds, and reptiles but excludes all other chordates? A) Vertebrates B) Amniotes C) Tetrapods D) Monotremes E) Deuterostomes
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11) Your neighbors found a rather rotund toad in the garden, and they excitedly tell you to come
and look at this remarkable specimen that they refer to as a reptile. As a biologist, you would like them to understand that this is an amphibian. What features could you highlight in this toad that are present in an amphibian, but not in a reptile? A) Thoracic breathing B) Most species have external fertilization C) Pulmonary and systemic circulation paths D) Cutaneous respiration E) Eggs lack shells and are often laid in water F) Life history may include metamorphosis from a tadpole stage
12) Frog eggs most closely resemble A) chicken eggs. B) fish eggs. C) platypus eggs. D) alligator eggs.
13) Pulmonary veins carry A) oxygenated blood. B) deoxygenated blood. C) a mixture of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
14) One of your closest fish relatives is the coelacanth. Where is its equivalent to your forearm? A) The claspers B) The pectoral fin lobe C) The operculum D) The gill arch extensions E) The pelvic fin lobe
15) Sharks have a number of fleshy gill slits instead of a bony gill cover. How does this affect
their behavior? A) Their movements are slow due to low oxygen. B) They live only in highly oxygenated water. C) They keep swimming to move water across their gills. D) They do not maintain neutral buoyancy.
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16) Scuba divers use a BCD to control buoyancy. It is essentially a bag that can be inflated or
deflated to prevent excessive sinking or floating. How do bony fish accomplish this? A) They pump their operculum. B) They adjust the level of gasses in their swim bladder. C) They adjust their position using the pectoral and pelvic fins. D) They swim rapidly to saturate the blood with oxygen.
17) A tunicate looks like a sponge. How could a biologist distinguish it from a member of the
Porifera? A) Tunicates do not filter feed. B) Only tunicates produce gametes. C) Unlike tunicates, sponges are symmetrical. D) Tunicates have a stomach.
18) Manta rays, sting rays, and eagle rays are similar to lampreys in that they have cartilaginous
skeletons. How are they different from lampreys? A) They have closed circulatory systems. B) They have gills. C) They have jaws. D) They have bony fin lobes.
19) If an adult human suffered a traumatic injury, could their notochord be damaged? A) Yes; because the notochord is deep within the body only a severe injury could
damage it. B) No; the notochord is encased in bone and it not susceptible to damage. C) Yes; damage to the notochord often results in paralysis. D) No; adult humans do not have a notochord.
20) What best describes the tunic of a tunicate? A) It is made of chitin, like the shell of a crab. B) It is made of calcium carbonate, like the shell of a clam. C) It is made of keratin, like human hair. D) It is made of cellulose, like the cell wall of a plant.
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21) When a tourist buys a sand dollar at a beach shop, what are they buying? A) A calcium carbonate shell secreted from the mantle B) An endoskeleton of calcium carbonate ossicles C) A molted exoskeleton made of chitin D) An endoskeleton made of bone E) An endoskeleton made of cartilage
22) In the lab, you observe that a mucous sheet produced by the endostyle in the pharynx of an
animal traps the microscopic food particles in the water. What animal are you observing? A) arrow worm B) tunicate C) acorn worm D) lancelet E) crinoid
23) Small, fishlike marine chordates, pointed at both ends with no distinguishable head, in which
the notochord runs the entire length of the nerve cord, are called A) arrow worms. B) tunicates. C) acorn worms. D) lancelets. E) lampreys.
24) Most bony fishes have a hard plate that covers the gills on each side of the head called the A) radula. B) pharyngeal slits. C) lateral lines. D) operculum. E) gill arches.
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25) One of the most critical adaptations of the reptiles in relation to their life on land is the
evolution of the A) amniotic egg. B) allantois egg. C) chorionic egg. D) diploid egg. E) swim bladder.
26) Birds, like mammals, can regulate their body temperatures within close limits. Therefore
birds and mammals are called A) ectothermic. B) poikilothermic. C) endothermic. D) heterothermic.
27) Which of the following is considered the key innovation that started chordates along the
evolutionary path that led to vertebrates? A) a flexible rod to which muscles are attached, which allowed lateral movement of the back B) an internal endoskeleton C) a skin covering the entire body to prevent desiccation D) a hard shell encasing the body E) amniotic egg
28) In addition to a vertebral column, all vertebrates have A) a distinctive head or skull. B) an open circulatory system. C) gills. D) scales. E) a tunic.
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29) It is generally accepted that the vertebrates that evolved during the early Devonian period are
the A) B) C) D) E)
sharks and bony fish. hominoids. birds. dinosaurs. mammals.
30) Amphibians are thought to have evolved from A) ray-finned fish. B) lobe-finned fish. C) spiny fish. D) skates and rays. E) annelids.
31) Amphibians are not completely free to live on dry land because A) they lay amniotic eggs. B) their food organisms live in water. C) their reproduction depends on water. D) they can escape from predators by jumping into the water. E) they only have a partially-divided heart.
32) Features that have been retained by reptiles from the time they replaced the amphibians as
the dominant terrestrial vertebrates include all of the following, except A) the amniotic egg. B) dry skin. C) thoracic breathing. D) reoriented appendages. E) endothermy.
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33) Reptiles can maintain their internal body temperature by A) behavioral mechanisms. B) drinking warm or cool water. C) eating and oxidizing more food. D) an effective insulating covering. E) rerouting blood to distribute heat.
34) Which of the following living reptiles care for their young and have a four-chambered heart,
as birds do? A) turtles B) crocodiles C) lizards D) snakes E) tuataras
35) In terms of number of species, the most successful terrestrial vertebrates that invaded the air
are A) B) C) D) E)
insects. pterosaurs. birds. bats. flying monkeys.
36) The changes that were necessary to cope with the heavy energy demands of flight in birds
include all of the following except A) efficient respiration. B) efficient circulation. C) endothermy. D) auxiliary air sacs and hollow bones. E) a three-chambered heart.
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37) Mammals are thought to have evolved from A) thecodonts. B) therapsids. C) dinosaurs. D) marsupials. E) archosaurs.
38) Mammals are the only vertebrates to possess A) hair. B) single loop circulation. C) a four-chambered heart with a pulmonary circuit. D) endothermy. E) live birth.
39) Monotremes differ from the other mammals in their A) laying of shelled eggs. B) lack of milk-producing glands. C) fur. D) carnivorous nature. E) containing a pouch for young to live.
40) The only marsupial mammal living in North America is the A) opossum. B) raccoon. C) ring-tailed cat. D) weasel. E) wombat.
41) The key specializations that occurred in the evolution of mammals include all of the
following except A) warm-bloodedness. B) the presence of a placenta in most. C) different teeth suited to their diet. D) digestive tract specialization. E) reduction in brain size.
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42) If a human lacks pharyngeal pouches, what would not form? A) Esophagus B) Trachea C) Eustachian tube D) Bronchial tube E) Pharynx
43) Which of the following statements about tunicates is incorrect? A) Tunicates are nonvertebrate chordates. B) Tunicates are all marine animals. C) Tunicates are sessile as adults. D) Tunicate larvae are tadpole-like with all of the basic chordate characteristics. E) Tunicate larvae can reproduce.
44) The following classes of fish are matched with an example. Select the mismatched pair. A) Chondrichthyes—sharks B) Placodermi—lobe-finned fish C) Myxini—hagfish D) Actinopterygii—ray-finned fish
45) Bony fishes possess two features not found in other fish. Select the best choice from those
listed below to complete the following sentence. Bony fishes have A) swim bladders and gill covers called opercula. B) swim bladders and a complete digestive system. C) swim bladders and a closed circulatory system. D) swim bladders and movable jaws.
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46) A friend of yours visited a natural history museum that had a replica of the Archaeopteryx.
She told you the characteristics of Archaeopteryx that she either noticed or read at the display. Which one did she misread? A) Archaeopteryx had feathers, as do modern birds. B) Archaeopteryx lacked teeth, as do modern birds. C) Archaeopteryx had solid bones, unlike the hollow bones of modern birds. D) Archaeopteryx had wings as do modern birds. E) Archaeopteryx had a long tail, unlike modern birds.
47) Because of its association with tools, the earliest human was called_________ meaning
"handy man." A) Homo habilis B) Homo erectus C) Homo sapiens D) Neanderthal E) Cro-Magnon
48) Fossils of our own species,_________, that are as much as 100,000 years old, have been
found in Africa. A) Homo habilis B) Homo erectus C) Homo sapiens D) Homo hominis E) Homo australopithecus
49) The European Neanderthals were replaced about 34,000 years ago by A) Homo habilis. B) Homo erectus. C) Homo heidelbergensis. D) Neanderthals. E) Cro-Magnons.
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50) All of the following features are true of primates except A) they are mammals with grasping fingers and toes. B) they belong to the order containing lemurs, monkeys, and apes. C) they have binocular vision. D) young are born as embryos and complete development in an external pouch.
51) All of the following features are true of Anthropoids except A) they include monkeys, apes, and humans. B) almost all were diurnal. C) opposable thumbs. D) living in groups with complex social interactions. E) changes to eye design and increase in brain size.
52) All of the following are true about prosimians except A) they are big-eyed mammals with increased visual acuity. B) only two lineages survive today. C) they are nocturnal. D) they are widespread.
53) New world monkeys have all of the following features except A) they have flat spreading noses. B) they grasp objects with long prehensile tails. C) they evolved in isolation in South America. D) they are all arboreal. E) they have ischial callosities (thickened rump pads).
54) Apes and humans together make up a group called A) hominids. B) hominoids. C) Homo sapiens. D) habilis. E) prosimians.
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55) DNA studies can be used to make all of the following conclusions except that A) The gibbon ape line diverged about 15 million years ago. B) Orangutans split off about 10 million years ago. C) The gorilla lineage diverged about 8 million years ago. D) Modern man remained changeless for the last 1 million years.
56) Modern humans share the greatest similarities with which one of the hominids? A) Australopithecines B) Neanderthals C) Cro-Magnons D) Prosimians E) Primates
57) Which of the following evidence obtained from fossil studies is generally accepted as
marking the beginning of the hominids? A) large brain development B) walking upright C) bipedalism D) development of lower limbs longer than forelimbs E) manufacture and use of tools
58) The hominid australopithecines are generally accepted to be different from modern humans
because A) only humans are bipedal. B) the human skull is apelike in appearance with a strongly projecting face. C) human brains on an average are at least twice as large in size. D) human arms are longer than legs. E) only humans are meat-eaters.
59) All of the following about Homo habilis is true except A) the species lived in Africa for 500,000 years and then became extinct. B) the species coexisted with dinosaurs. C) the species was replaced by a new kind of human, which had a larger brain. D) the species was small in stature. E) the species was associated with tools.
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60) Homo erectus has been shown to have dispersed from A) Africa. B) Asia. C) South America. D) Europe. E) North America.
61) Homo erectus and the modern humans differ in A) social behavior. B) living as tribes. C) their brain size. D) their upright posture. E) opposable thumbs.
62) Anthropoids or higher primates include all of the following except A) New World monkeys. B) Old World monkeys. C) apes. D) humans. E) lemurs.
63) New World monkeys evolved approximately 30 million years ago. These animals are easy to
identify because they A) have opposable thumbs and binocular vision. B) have prehensile tails and hair. C) have protruding noses and prehensile tails. D) have flattened noses and prehensile tails. E) have opposable thumbs and protruding noses.
64) One characteristic that New World monkeys have that Old World monkeys lack is A) binocular vision. B) opposable thumbs. C) hair covering their bodies. D) prehensile tails. E) females have mammary glands.
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65) Apes and monkeys differ in two noticeable characteristics. These characteristics are that apes
have A) opposable thumbs and monkeys do not, and apes have binocular vision and monkeys
do not. B) opposable thumbs and monkeys do not, and apes have tails and monkeys do not. C) binocular vision and monkeys do not, and apes have tails and monkeys do not. D) larger brains than monkeys do, and monkeys have tails and apes do not. E) opposable thumbs and monkeys do not, and monkeys have larger brain capacity than apes do.
66) Which of the following has the longest fossil record? A) Homo sapiens B) Homo erectus C) Homo habilis D) Homo neanderthalensis E) Homo heidelbergensis
67) Of the following sequences, which one reflects the best scientific knowledge about the
succession of Homo species from the past until the present? A) Homo heidelbergensis → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens → Homo erectus B) Homo habilis → Homo heidelbergensis → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens C) Homo heidelbergensis → Homo sapiens → Homo erectus → Homo habilis D) Homo sapiens → Homo heidelbergensis → Homo habilis → Homo erectus E) Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Homo heidelbergensis → Homo sapiens
68) Which one of the following structures is not found in all adult and larval tunicates? A) incurrent siphon B) excurrent siphon C) gill slits D) notochord E) pharynx
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69) Which one of the following incorrectly pairs a vertebrate group with its major evolutionary
innovation? A) Amphibians—paired lateral fins B) Dinosaurs—bipedalism C) Placoderms—jaws D) Sharks—teeth E) Ostracoderms—cartilaginous endoskeleton
70) To which group of fishes does the following description apply: swim bladder, bony skeleton,
and paired fins supported by bony rays. A) Sarcopterygi B) Actinopterygii C) Chondrichthyes D) Placodermi E) Acanthodii
71) Which one of the following was not an adaptation seen in the sharks (Chondrichthyes)? A) lateral line system B) internal fertilization and internal development C) swim bladder D) teeth E) calcified cartilaginous skeleton
72) You dissect a specimen of a vertebrate during an anatomy laboratory. It has the following
characteristics: lungs, abundant blood capillaries under thin skin, a partially-divided heart, a pulmonary circuit, and four walking legs. What is this animal? A) lungfish B) amphibian C) reptile D) placental mammal E) marsupial mammal
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73) The invasion of the land by amphibians posed a number of challenges requiring evolutionary
innovations. Which one of the following does NOT match a challenge with a corresponding adaptation found in amphibians? A) The force of gravity was greater without water's buoying effect, selecting for wellmuscled legs. B) Additional oxygen was needed for larger muscles, selecting for the partially-divided heart and pulmonary circuit. C) Eggs dry out in a terrestrial environment, selecting for the amniotic egg. D) Gills tend to collapse out of the water, selecting for lungs and cutaneous respiration.
74) Which one of the following does not match a component of the amniotic egg with its primary
function? A) shell—porous, protective covering B) chorion—exchange of respiratory gases; retention of water C) amnion—encloses embryo within an oxygen-filled cavity D) allantois—segregates nitrogenous wastes from embryo E) yolk sac—provides food for the embryo
75) You excavate a fossil of a small reptile during a paleontology field trip. It has the following
characteristics: a skull with a pair of dorsal temporal openings and a pair of lateral temporal openings; bipedal with legs positioned directly under the pelvic girdle. Dating with radioisotopes shows that the specimen lived 100 million years ago (MYA). Do you conclude that the specimen belongs to which reptilian group (be specific as possible)? A) anapsid B) synapsid C) diapsid D) archosaur E) dinosaur
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76) Which of the following is NOT a bird adaptation that facilitates flight? A) hollow bones and air sacs B) bipedalism C) reduction in size of the breast muscles D) changes in the forearm bones E) feathers F) fused bones
77) Which one of the following is not an adaptation shown by modern birds? A) a respiratory system that allows all of the air to pass through the lungs in one
direction B) complete division of the heart into right and left halves C) endothermy D) wings and a long feathered tail E) modified beaks and feet to support feeding behavior
78) Which one of the following is the least likely reason that bipedalism evolved in hominins? A) requires less energy than walking with all four legs B) frees the hands for tool-making C) frees the hands for carrying food to be shared with others D) allows better surveillance for predators E) increases access to food resources
79) Animals with pentaradial symmetry have 5 planes of symmetry. ⊚ true ⊚ false
80) Sea stars belong to the A) Asteroidea. B) Holothuroidea. C) Echinoidea. D) Crinoidea.
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81) What do echinoderms and chordates have in common? A) endoskeletons B) dorsal nerve cords C) protostome development D) ecdysis
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 34 1) B 2) C 3) A 4) FALSE 5) E 6) D 7) C 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) [B, D, E, F] 12) B 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) B 17) D 18) C 19) D 20) D 21) B 22) B 23) D 24) D 25) A 26) C 27) A 28) A 29) A 30) B 31) C 32) E 33) A 34) B 35) C 36) E 37) B
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38) A 39) A 40) A 41) E 42) C 43) E 44) B 45) A 46) B 47) A 48) C 49) E 50) D 51) C 52) D 53) E 54) B 55) D 56) C 57) C 58) C 59) B 60) A 61) C 62) E 63) D 64) D 65) D 66) B 67) E 68) D 69) A 70) B 71) C 72) B 73) A 74) C 75) E 76) D 77) D
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78) B 79) TRUE 80) A 81) A
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Chapter 35 Student name:__________ 1) Plant cells that give rise to two cells, one of which is free to differentiate into various kinds
of cells that contribute to the plant body, are called A) endodermal cells. B) primary cells. C) lateral cells. D) parenchyma cells. E) meristematic cells.
2) Cell division in the apical meristems at the tips of a plant that results in increases in height or
length is called A) primary growth. B) secondary growth. C) vascular cambium growth. D) mitotic growth. E) herbaceous growth.
3) A growing root comes into contact with a chemical that inhibits the golgi bodies. Which of
the following would be a probable effect of this contact? A) The root would begin to growing in an upward direction. B) The root would not be slick enough to move through the soil easily. C) The root would begin to simultaneously grow in multiple directions. D) The root would produce too much mucigel and oxygen uptake would be inhibited. E) The root cap cells would begin to divide rapidly.
4) You propose an experiment where root hairs of a particular plant species are continuously
treated with an antibiotic while nutrient levels in the plant tissue are monitored. Based on your knowledge of root hairs, you hypothesize the plant will experience a deficiency in what nutrient? A) potassium B) nitrogen C) calcium D) phosphorus E) carbon
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5) An increase in plant diameter results from cell division in which type of meristem? A) Intercalary meristem B) Lateral meristem C) Primary meristem D) Secondary meristem E) Stele meristem
6) Parenchyma, collenchyma, and sclerenchyma are all types of cells derived from A) procambium tissue. B) ground tissue. C) vascular cambium tissue. D) cork cambium tissue. E) epidermal tissue.
7) If the wer gene were expressed in every root epidermal cell, the plant would A) greatly increase its absorptive capacity. B) strengthen its attachment to the soil. C) increase in the diameter of its roots. D) greatly reduce its water and nutrient uptake. E) greatly reduce its ability to exchange gases at the epidermal surface.
8) A stem that cannot increase in diameter is lacking what type of tissue? A) xylem B) ground meristem C) procambium D) protoderm E) vascular cambium
9) The slender stalk that connects the flattened leaf blade to the stem in most dicots is the A) meristem. B) petiole. C) stele. D) receptacle. E) vein.
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10) You are given a sample of plant tissue and asked to identify the type of tissue and its location
in the plant. Using your microscope, you notice two distinct layers of cells. One layer contains cells that are tightly compacted together while the other layer has loosely arranged cells. The cells in both layers contain many chloroplasts. Based on this information, you determine the tissue is A) mesophyll tissue from a leaf. B) ground tissue from a stem. C) vascular tissue from a leaf. D) mesophyll tissue from a stem. E) vascular tissue from a root.
11) You are asked to determine if a tissue sample taken from a plant stem comes from a monocot
or eudicot. How will you accomplish this? A) Look at the ground tissue to see if it is arranged in concentric rings or in parallel bundles. B) Examine the vascular cambium and determine if it is divided into segments or is continuous throughout the stem. C) Determine if the xylem and phloem are located in separate vascular bundles or are bundled together. D) Examine the epidermis and determine the depth of the cuticle layer. E) Locate the vascular bundles and analyze their pattern.
12) Xylem tissue may contain each of these cell types, except which? A) vessel members B) tracheids C) sieve cells D) fibers E) rays
13) Which of the following cell types does not move materials through the body of the plant? A) sclerenchyma B) xylem vessel members C) sieve tube members D) tracheids E) sieve cells
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14) A plant that has the mutant form of the WEREWOLF gene ( wer) would be identifiable by A) the excessive number of vascular bundles in stem. B) the lack of fibers in the outer portions of the stem. C) the abundance of microscopic hairs on the root. D) the extra thick layer of mesophyll cells in the leaf. E) the lack of microscopic hairs along the epidermis of the root.
15) Primary growth at the apical meristems can produce cells that differentiate into each of these
cell types, except which? A) leaves B) ground tissue C) procambium D) cork cambium E) epidermis
16) Primary growth in plants originates in A) apical meristems. B) lateral meristems. C) vascular cambium. D) cork cambium. E) tracheids.
17) Which of the following is not true about meristems? A) They can be apical or lateral. B) Meristematic cells divide into two cells, one of which remains a meristem cell and
another that becomes a plant body cell. C) Apical meristems give rise to three types of embryonic tissues. D) Meristematic cells are found only in eudicots and not in monocots. E) They are responsible for primary and secondary growth.
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18) You have been assigned the task of identifying the cells in a plant tissue sample. Using your
microscope you determine the cells are living and their cell walls vary in thickness. Upon further observation you note that the cells are arranged in strands just below the epidermal surface. What cell type do you determine the cells to be? A) Collenchyma B) Parenchyma C) Sclerenchyma D) Sieve elements E) Tracheids
19) All of the following describe characteristics of sclerenchyma cells, except which? A) Their function is primarily to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide throughout the
leaf. B) They have thick, tough secondary walls. C) Their secondary walls may be impregnated with lignin. D) They form fibers and sclereids. E) They lack living protoplasts when mature.
20) Which of the following cell types conducts water most rapidly through a plant? A) parenchyma cells B) sclerenchyma cells C) sieve tubes D) vessel members E) phloem
21) You have been given a plant sample and asked to identify a specific tissue. Upon
investigation, you find the cells are all long in length and some of them have small pores. They all contain fluid. You test the fluid using various biochemical tests and discover the fluid contains an abundance of disaccharides. What type of tissue are you looking at? A) xylem B) phloem C) root hair cells D) sclerenchyma E) meristematic
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22) In plants with only primary growth, the epidermis is not A) one cell thick. B) the outer protective coating of the plant. C) produced by the protoderm. D) covered by a waxy layer that constitutes the cuticle. E) covered with bark.
23) Horizontal rows of parenchymal cells that transport materials horizontally are called? A) rays B) tracheids C) vessel elements D) fibers E) sieve tubes
24) Root hairs grow actively in which area of the developing roots? A) root cap B) zone of maturation C) zone of elongation D) zone of cell division E) endodermis
25) Which of the following statements correctly describes the vascular cambium? A) It develops between the primary xylem and the primary phloem in dicots. B) It occurs only in monocot stems. C) It is important in the elongation of roots. D) It is formed by the ground meristem. E) It is responsible for all cell types that result from primary growth.
26) In certain plants, some of the roots may be modified to carry out unusual functions. Which of
these is not an example of one of these special functions? A) help absorb oxygen B) store food or water C) carry out photosynthesis D) parasitize other plants E) discourage herbivores
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27) Compound leaves A) have two or more petioles per blade. B) have a blade divided into leaflets. C) are toothed at the edges. D) are alternately arranged. E) have palmate venation.
28) Which of the following is not a modified stem? A) rhizome B) tendril C) tuber D) corm E) spine
29) Axillary buds A) add length to a plant. B) develop into roots when water is scarce. C) form flowers or branches. D) increase the diameter of a stem. E) form lateral meristems.
30) The most distinctive characteristic of leaf mesophyll cells is that they are filled with A) central vacuoles. B) many chloroplasts. C) oxygen bubbles. D) veins. E) stomata.
31) Various modifications in leaves can make plants better adapted to their habitats. Which of the
following is not an evolutionary modification of leaves? A) floral leaves B) fruit-bearing leaves C) spines D) reproductive leaves E) insectivorous leaves
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32) A birdhouse is nailed into a tree 6 feet up from the ground. If the tree grows about 2 feet
taller each year, how far from the ground will the birdhouse be 25 years later? A) 50 feet B) 56 feet C) 26 feet D) 6 feet E) 4 feet
33) Which statement about secondary growth in plants is not correct? A) Secondary growth in plants is a result of lateral meristems. Trees and shrubs have
active lateral meristems. B) Secondary growth in plants increases the girth (diameter) of woody plants. C) Secondary growth in woody plants results from two cylinders of actively dividing cells, the cork cambium and vascular cambium. D) The cork cambium produces secondary phloem while the vascular cambium produces secondary xylem. E) Only some plants have secondary growth.
34) You are doing research on rodent populations in a cornfield at night and are hearing popping
noises. Your research assistant is getting scared. Having taken biology, you can explain to your assistant that the popping sound is due to A) the apical meristem cells in the corn stalks elongating. B) the developing of the kernels of corn on the ears of the corn stalks. C) the expansion of the lateral meristems increasing the girth of the corn stalk. D) the growth of the intercalary meristems inside the corn stalk. E) the development of the tassels on top of the corn stalk.
35) If you examined a cross-section of a woody stem under the microscope and located the
vascular cambium, the tissues on the inside of the vascular cambium ring (toward the center of the stem) would be A) xylem (primary and secondary). B) xylem (only primary). C) phloem (primary and secondary). D) phloem (only secondary). E) phelloderm.
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36) Of the following structures, which one is not a specialized cell of the epidermis? A) guard cells B) trichomes C) sclereids D) root hairs E) oil glands
37) Which statement concerning root hairs is not correct? A) Root hairs are tubular extensions of individual epidermal cells. B) A root hair is isolated from its epidermal cell with a cross wall. C) Root hairs generally live only a few days before being sloughed off. D) Root hairs increase the absorption of water and minerals. E) Root hairs are located in the zone of maturation of a root.
38) You come across a recipe for rhubarb pie. Never having heard of rhubarb, you do a little
research. You find out that the part of a rhubarb plant that people eat is the petiole of a large leaf. You purchase some rhubarb for your pie and notice that it contains many long stringy fibers. Based on your knowledge of plant tissues, you know that the stringy fibers are A) parenchyma tissue. B) phloem tissue. C) sclerenchyma tissue. D) collenchyma tissue. E) xylem tissue.
39) A friend who is not a biologist tells you that she grows irises from iris roots. You explain to
her that the "root" she is planting is not a root, but instead is called a rhizome. "Why?" she asked. You explain: A) "A root grows vertically, not horizontally." B) "A rhizome has nodes and internodes and is really a modified stem that can exist underground." C) "A root stores nutrients, but rhizomes are underground stems that do not store nutrients." D) "A rhizome, although a modified stem, acts as a root does. In other words, a rhizome is a stem-root combination." E) "A rhizome is a modified root that is able to grow leaves."
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40) The name of the meristem that ultimately gives rise to secondary xylem and phloem is the A) vascular cambium. B) cork cambium. C) intercalary meristems. D) ground meristem. E) primary meristem.
41) The pattern of leaf arrangement on a stem is called A) protodermis. B) phyllotaxy. C) nodular termini. D) meristematic spacing. E) axillary arrangement.
42) Primary xylem and phloem are produced by the A) procambium. B) protoderm. C) leaf primordial. D) ground meristem. E) proembryo.
43) The waterproof cuticle covering the epidermis of land plants helps prevent dehydration,
much like the skin of some land animals. As a consequence of having a cuticle, what other evolutionary adaptation was important for most land plants? A) the endodermis in the root B) root hairs on the root epidermis C) collenchyma fibers just beneath the surface of the epidermis D) stomata in the leaves E) trichomes on leaf surfaces
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44) Which of these is not a function of the root cap? A) gravity perception B) rapid cell division C) protection of the root tip D) pushing away soil particles as the root grows E) releasing a slimy lubricant fluid
45) In an experiment, some herbaceous, nonwoody plants were exposed to frequent windy
conditions or mechanical shaking for several hours per day. The flexibility of these plants was due to the_________ cells. A) parenchyma B) aerenchyma C) periderm D) collenchyma E) sclerenchyma
46) Linen is woven from strands of sclerenchyma_________ that occur in the phloem of flax (
Linum spp.). A) tracheid B) sieve C) sclereid D) collenchyma E) fiber
47) A major distinguishing feature between monocot and eudicot stems is the organization of the A) epidermis. B) conducting system. C) vascular tissue. D) secondary tissues. E) ground tissues.
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48) How could you distinguish between a root hair versus a very small root? A) Root hairs are white, while roots are brown. B) Root hairs are extensions of single cells, while roots are multicellular. C) Root hairs only absorb water, not nutrients like roots. D) Root hairs do not have a cuticle. E) The epidermis of a root hair is thinner than the epidermis of a root.
49) What type of cells are joined end-to-end, conduct water and are connected to each other with
strips of wall material? A) sieve cells B) tracheids C) sieve tube members D) vessel members E) companion cells
50) In the vascular bundles of most dicot stems, primary phloem differentiates toward
the_________ of the stem, while primary xylem differentiates toward the_________ of the stem. A) middle; outside B) cork cambium; vascular cambium C) outside; middle D) shoot tip; roots E) middle; middle
51) Damage to the ground meristem of a plant would result in A) the inability to move water but not sugar through the plant. B) decreased sugar production. C) an increase of gas exchange at the surface of the leaf. D) dehydration of the plant. E) inability to move sugar but not water through the plant.
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52) Secondary phloem A) includes live companion cells and dead sieve cells. B) encompasses more stem volume than secondary xylem. C) primarily stores carbohydrates. D) is part of the inner bark. E) is produced by the cork cambium.
53) Which of these can found in oak wood but not in pine wood? A) secondary xylem B) secondary phloem C) vessel members D) tracheids E) ray cells
54) Which plant cells are the most common and the least specialized? A) epidermis B) collenchyma C) sclerenchyma D) parenchyma E) meristem
55) Your lab instructor hands you a root slide and asks you to show her a cell with condensed
chromosomes arranged in a straight line. In which section of the root would you begin your search? A) It doesn't matter, all zones have the same level of mitotic activity. B) zone of elongation C) zone of maturation D) zone of cell division E) root cap
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56) Choose the letter of the best match from the following:
A. protoderm B. vascular cambium C. apical meristem D. procambium E. ground meristem
56.1)
Ultimate source of all cells that contribute to growth in length of stem or root.
56.2)
Lateral meristem that contributes to the increase in thickness of a stem or root.
56.3)
Source of cells that differentiate into primary vascular tissues.
56.4)
The three primary meristems are the_________, which forms the epidermis; the procambium, which produces primary vascular tissues (primary xylem and primary phloem); and the ground meristem, which differentiates further into ground tissue.
56.5)
Produces parenchyma, collenchyma, and sclerenchyma cells.
57) Maple syrup is made by concentrating the sucrose-rich sap of a maple tree in the spring when
the days are warm and the nights are below freezing. To get the sap, metal taps are hammered into the trunk of a maple tree. Conditions must be right so that the sap rises from the root in the xylem during the day (flowing out the tap as it does) and flows back to the roots during the night. How deep should the tap be driven into the trunk? A) Just past the bark B) Until the tip is in the phelloderm just past the cork cambium C) So that it is near, but not through, the vascular cambium D) All the way into the heartwood.
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58) During a woodworking class, Kim’s instructor lectures on the grain of the wood. The
instructor explains that when you look at the end of a board cut perpendicular across the tree trunk, the curved lines you see (called end grain) are actually the growth rings of the tree. Kim has also taken a biology class, and realizes that these lines composed of what types of cells? A) Vessels B) Xylem rays C) Cork cambium D) Sieve plates E) Phelloderm
59) <p>Many monocots use a modified photosynthetic pathway,
photosynthesis, that maximizes the amount of relative to to reduce energy loss through photorespiration. Which of the following is an anatomical feature that corresponds with photosynthesis?</p> A) Stomata closed during hot days B) Thin epidermis lacking a cuticle C) Well-differentiated palisade and spongy mesophyll D) Prominent bracts E) Insectivorous leaves to meet resulting nutritional deficiencies
60) The red mangrove, Rhizophora mangle, grows along the Gulf coast of the southeastern
United States. These trees are sometimes called “walking trees”, because throughout their lives they spread out across the water and the branches periodically grow down into the salt water to provide support for the spreading canopy. These thin leglike roots provide habitat for a wide variety of sea life and trap sediments that can form islands. What do we call these specialized roots? A) Prop roots B) Pneumatophores C) Tubers D) Buttress roots E) Aerial roots
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 35 1) E 2) A 3) B 4) B 5) B 6) B 7) D 8) E 9) B 10) A 11) E 12) C 13) A 14) C 15) D 16) A 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) D 21) B 22) E 23) A 24) B 25) A 26) E 27) B 28) E 29) C 30) B 31) B 32) D 33) D 34) D 35) A 36) C 37) B
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38) D 39) B 40) A 41) B 42) A 43) D 44) B 45) D 46) E 47) C 48) B 49) D 50) C 51) B 52) D 53) C 54) D 55) D 56) Section Break 56.1) C 56.2) B 56.3) D 56.4) A 56.5) E 57) A 58) A 59) A 60) A
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Chapter 36 Student name:__________ 1) The process by which water is "pulled" up through the xylem columns of plants as it
evaporates out of the leaves is called A) respiration. B) transpiration. C) osmosis. D) an hydration. E) somatization.
2) The most important ion in controlling the movement of water into and out of the guard cells
is A) B) C) D) E)
sodium. hydrogen. carbon. nitrogen. potassium.
3) Water is able to cross plant plasma membranes by a combination of A) osmosis and aquaporins. B) evaporation and diffusion. C) root pressure and turgidity. D) diffusion and phloem. E) transpiration and Casparian strips.
4) On a short-term basis, water loss in plants may be controlled by the A) bending of the petioles on the leaves. B) closing of the stele in the roots. C) closing of the stomata in the leaves to limit transpiration. D) opening of the stomata in the leaves to allow more carbon dioxide to enter. E) opening the Casparian strips in the roots.
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5) Mangrove plants live in areas regularly flooded with salt water. Which of these is not a
possible mechanism for controlling their salt balance? A) The roots block salt uptake. B) The succulent leaves contain large quantities of water that dilute salt that is absorbed. C) Absorbed salt is secreted from special salt glands. D) Modified roots emerge above the water level and help oxygen diffuse into the roots. E) Excess salt is stored in special tissues.
6) Some plants are able to endure frequent flooding events because they contain a tissue with
loose parenchyma cells and large air spaces called A) xylem. B) spongy mesophyll. C) pneumatophores. D) aerenchyma. E) epidermal tissue.
7) Even in the absence of transpiration, some water can move into the roots and partially up the
xylem columns. This phenomenon is due to A) flooding. B) stomatal opening. C) root pressure. D) proton pumps. E) phloem translocation.
8) Which of the following statements does not apply to aquaporins? A) They are water transport channels. B) They are unique to plant cells. C) They occur in the plasma membrane. D) They speed up osmosis. E) They do not alter the direction of water movement.
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9) Which of the following statements about transport through phloem is true? A) Transport only occurs from the roots to the shoot. B) It is aided by root pressure. C) The direction of flow can change at different times if the sources and sinks change. D) No energy is required. E) Mostly dissolved starch is transported.
10) Which of the following is not transported within the plant by the xylem and/or the phloem? A) dissolved minerals B) sucrose C) growth-regulating hormones D) water E) starch
11) Turgor is most directly related to the plant cells' A) total water potential. B) pressure potential. C) solute potential. D) osmosis. E) gravity potential.
12) Water moves through a plant by each of the following methods except A) from cell to cell through plasmodesmata. B) through the Casparian strip. C) through the spaces between cells. D) through vessel members. E) from cell to cell across plasma membranes.
13) The movement of oxygen through the aquatic plant may depend on A) osmotic absorption by the roots. B) aquaporins. C) negative pressures created by transpiration. D) differences in the water potential of different tissues. E) aerenchyma tissue.
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14) Most of the water that evaporates from leaves passes out through the A) cuticle. B) ends of xylem vessels. C) epidermis. D) spaces between epidermal cells. E) stomata.
15) Most of the water absorbed by the plant enters through the A) root apical meristem. B) root cap. C) root hairs. D) stomata. E) lenticels.
16) Stomatal opening requires each of the following conditions, except A) expenditure of energy. B) a reduction of turgor in the guard cells. C) water entering the guard cells by osmosis. D) a lower water potential in the guard cells. E) pumping of potassium ions into the guard cells.
17) The plasma membranes of root hair cells contain a variety of protein transport channels
through which specific ions are transported, even against large concentration gradients, by A) electron pumps. B) carbohydrate pumps. C) water pumps. D) proton pumps. E) root pumps.
18) A plant will usually wilt when which component of water potential reaches 0 MPa? A) solute potential B) turgor pressure C) total water potential D) gravity potential
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19) Cavitation can occur when what happens? A) Root pressure pushes water up the xylem. B) Starch grains block the sieve tubes. C) Gas bubbles expand inside a tracheid or vessel member. D) Stomata get stuck closed. E) Clouds block sunlight shining on the leaves.
20) Which of the following actions occurs in many plants when A) Guard cells lose turgor, and the stomata close. B) Water evaporates at a higher rate than usual.
concentrations are high?
C) CAM photosynthesis fixes at night. D) Oxygen is used by plants for photosynthesis. E) Calcium ions are transported faster through the phloem.
21) The Calvin Cycle can only produce sugar if_________ can enter through the pores of the
leaves. A) B) C) water D) potassium E)
22) Plants living in standing water often face which of the following problems? A) B) C) D) E)
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23) A plant is exposed to a toxin that blocks ABA receptor sites in the plasma membrane. What
is the likely consequence of this exposure? A) Oxygen deprivation will trigger the release of ethylene, which will in turn suppress root growth. B) Gibberellin production will increase, allowing the plant to access more nutrients in the soil. C) ABA will enter the cells by an alternative route and normal function will be restored. D) The plant will lose excess water through transpiration and suffer dehydration. E) The guard cells will become flaccid and gas exchange will cease.
24) Which of the following must occur in order to maintain a high-pressure potential within
guard cells? A) Potassium ions must be actively transported out. B) Energy must be constantly expended. C) Water must exit guard cells by osmosis. D) Stomata must take up more oxygen and less carbon dioxide. E) The rate of transpiration must increase.
25) Mechanisms that evolved in plants to regulate the rate of water loss do not include A) becoming dormant during dry times of the year. B) losing leaves. C) producing leaves that are thick and hard. D) containing stomata in crypts or pits. E) increasing the number of water vacuoles in the cells.
26) The uneven distribution of an impermeable solute on either side of a membrane will result in A) an increase in oxygen deprivation. B) proton pumping. C) root pressure. D) osmosis. E) stomatal closing.
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27) Most carbohydrates manufactured in leaves and other photosynthetic parts are transported
through the phloem to the rest of the plant by the process of A) transpiration. B) translocation. C) osmosis. D) receptor-mediated transport. E) turgor pressure.
28) Which of the following does not require expenditure of energy? A) accumulation of ions inside a cell B) transport against a concentration gradient C) flow of sucrose and other carbohydrates once inside the sieve tubes D) the loading and unloading of carbohydrates from the sieve tubes E) opening or closing stomata
29) Which of the following hormones increases when plants are flooded? A) gibberellin B) auxin C) ethylene D) cytokinin E) abscisic acid
30) Some plants can tolerate flooding conditions by A) formation of aerenchyma. B) opening their lenticels. C) forming additional adventitious roots. D) shedding their bark. E) pumping water out of their roots.
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31) The process of moving water through a plant by transpiration works because water molecules
stick to each other with A) turgor pressure. B) osmosis. C) ionic bonds. D) adhesion. E) hydrogen bonds.
32) Which of the following equations represents the total water potential of a plant? A) B) C) D) E)
33) Pure water without applied pressure has a water potential that is equal to A) infinity. B) 0.0 MPa. C) 1.6 MPa. D) -2.0 MPa. E) atmospheric pressure.
34) Water molecules can "stick" to certain surfaces by A) adhesion. B) cohesion. C) root pressure. D) water pressure. E) pneumatophores.
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35) Water may be lost in the form of liquid from the surface of leaves through a process known
as A) B) C) D) E)
guttation. cohesion. phloem loading. mesophyll adhesion. aeration.
36) The pressure-flow hypothesis describes A) how hormones move through the phloem. B) how carbohydrates enter the sieve tubes. C) how carbohydrates in solution move through the phloem. D) how water and minerals move through the xylem. E) how carbohydrates and minerals move through the xylem.
37) Consider the following plant cells floating in an open beaker containing 0.2M sucrose. By
definition, an open beaker has a pressure potential of 0 MPa. Assume that the cells have come to equilibrium with the solution in the beaker. 37.1) In Cell 1, A) B) C) D) E)
37.2)
In Cell 2, A) B) C) D) E)
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37.3)
In Cell 3, A) B) C) D) E)
38) Most often, the largest gradient in water potential is between A) roots and soil water. B) root xylem and shoot xylem. C) xylem and phloem. D) leaf cells and the intracellular spaces inside the leaves. E) the relative humidity inside the leaf and the relative humidity outside the plant.
39) Mycorrhizal fungi interact with plants at the A) stomata. B) seed coat. C) roots. D) edge of ponds. E) cuticle.
40) A large watermelon fruit is very heavy and contains nearly 90% water. Since the skin of a
watermelon is thick and lacks stomata, transpiration does not "pull" water into the watermelon. So, how does all that water get into the fruit? A) Root pressure pushes water into the watermelon. B) Water enters by osmosis from the soil. C) Water is pumped in by active transport. D) Water is transported in the phloem along with the sugars while they are being translocated into the fruit. E) Watermelons, like other fruit, contain an abundance of xylem.
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41) Which of these structures is not likely to contain significant amounts of aerenchyma tissue? A) mangrove pneumatophores B) rice roots C) water lily leaves D) cypress "knees" E) coconut tree roots
42) Halophytes are plants that live in saline soils. The high osmotic potential of the salt solution
in the soil creates a very negative water potential. What can halophytes do so that water will flow into the roots? A) They can close their stomata so that less water is lost through transpiration. B) They can open all their stomata so that transpiration "pulls" more water into the roots. C) They can increase the solute concentration in their roots creating a water potential that is more negative than the soil. D) They can pump ions out of the plant creating a water potential in the roots that is more positive than the soil. E) They can remove the mycorrhizal fungi from their roots decreasing the competition for water.
43) Which of these situations regarding phloem sources and sinks is not correct? A) The root of a carrot plant is a source. B) Young leaves are sinks. C) A growing pumpkin is a sink. D) In a seedling, the cotyledons would be sources. E) During autumn, deciduous tree roots would be a sink.
44) Choose the letter of the best match from the following: A. abscisic acid B. trichomes C. aquaporin D. endodermis E. stoma
44.2)
Pore in plasma membrane that allows water movement.
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44.3)
Triggers
44.4)
Pore in leaves that regulates gas exchange.
44.5)
Regulates movement of mineral ions into root xylem.
44.6)
Reflects sunlight at leaf surface.
to pass rapidly out of guard cells.
45) Closing the stomata for an extended period of time would lead to an increase in G3P in the
mesophyll cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false
46) If the soil around a plant is treated with a fungicide, the plant may experience a decline in
DNA synthesis. ⊚ true ⊚ false
47) You a given a plant tissue in lab and asked to determine if the tissue is a source or a sink.
Microscopic analysis reveals an abundance of colorless parenchyma cells with plastids. Only one biochemical test reacts positively with your sample. In the presence of iodine, the plastids turn a dark purplish color. Based on this information you determine your sample is A) a source because your sample is rich in carbohydrates. B) a source because your sample contains plastids. C) a sink because your sample is rich in carbohydrates. D) both a source and sink because it contains both plastids and carbohydrates.
48) Cavitation would have no effect on translocation. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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49) An application of too much fertilizer will negatively affect the movement of materials in the
phloem. ⊚ true ⊚ false
50) If a mutation decreased the radius of a xylem vessel threefold, there would be an 81-fold
increase in the volume of liquid moving through the vessel. ⊚ true ⊚ false
51) An increase in root pressure will result in the rapid release of abscisic acid (ABA) and the
subsequent opening of the stomata. ⊚ true ⊚ false
52) If the proton pumps of guard cell were damaged, transpiration would decrease. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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53) Mimosa pudica, sometimes called the sensitive plant, is able to rapidly move its leaves in
response to touch. The leaves are connected to the stem by a flexible joint called a pulvinus. Touching the leaves results in a flow of ions out of the symplast of the inner cells of the pulvinus and an upregulation of aquaporins. How does this affect the water potential and the movement of water?
McGraw Hill A) The solute potential in the inner cells decreases and the water flows out of those pulvinus cells into the apoplast. B) The pressure potential in the inner cells increases and water flows into those pulvinus cells. C) The solute potential in the inner cells increases and the water flows into those pulvinus cells. Version 1
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D) The water potential in the apoplast increases and the water flows out of those
pulvinus cells. E) The pressure potential in the apoplast decreases and the water flows out of those pulvinus cells.
54) Which of the following statements about routes of travel through a plant is correct? A) Dissolved minerals moving from roots to leaves in vessels are in the apoplast. B) Water can move from a root hair to the stele in the apoplast route. C) Sugars moving from a source to a sink in sieve-tube elements are in the apoplast. D) Movement from apoplast to symplast in an endodermal cell requires active transport. E) Dissolved ions in the symplast of an endodermal cell require a membrane protein to
cross the Casparian strip.
55) You may understandably think that maple syrup is made by tapping the sucrose-rich phloem
sap, but in fact it is sap from dead cells located further into the trunk that is harvested and distilled to make this sweet pancake topping. The movement of sugar into the apoplast involves starches stored in the stem, hydrolyzed into sucrose in the spring, and moved into the sap. The sap is harvested only in the spring when the nights are below freezing and the days are warm, a situation which causes the sap to repeatedly expand (thus rising up the stem) and contract. If you wanted to make some maple syrup, what type of cell would you need to tap to get the sap? A) Vessels B) Vascular cambium C) Companion cells D) Sieve tube elements E) Mesophyll
56) Which of the following cannot be used to move substances into vascular tissue? A) Active transport water from the apoplast into a vessel. B) Active transport sugar from the apoplast into a sieve-tube member. C) Active transport ions into a sieve tube member so that water will move into the cell. D) Passive transport water from endodermis cell to vessel. E) Passive transport sugar from mesophyll to sieve-tube member via symplast route.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 36 1) B 2) E 3) A 4) C 5) D 6) D 7) C 8) B 9) C 10) E 11) B 12) B 13) E 14) E 15) C 16) B 17) D 18) B 19) C 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) E 26) D 27) B 28) C 29) C 30) A 31) E 32) D 33) B 34) A 35) A 36) C 37) Section Break
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37.1) C 37.2) D 37.3) A 38) E 39) C 40) D 41) E 42) C 43) B 44) Section Break 44.1) C 44.2) A 44.3) E 44.4) D 44.5) B 45) FALSE 46) TRUE 47) C 48) FALSE 49) TRUE 50) FALSE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) A 54) A 55) A 56) A
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Chapter 37 Student name:__________ 1) Plants can remove harmful chemicals from the soil by the process of A) glandular secretion by leaves. B) activation. C) phytoremediation. D) fertilization. E) root nodule formation.
2) Trichloroethylene (TCE) is toxic to humans because it A) depletes nitrogen from soils. B) is carcinogenic. C) contains heavy metals. D) prevents production by plants. E) causes a decrease in the yield of crop plants.
3) Heavy metals in contaminated soils can be taken up by hyperaccumulating plants. Lead and
cadmium taken up this way are often accumulated in the plants' A) rhizomes. B) trichomes. C) stomates. D) sclerenchyma. E) root nodules.
4) Natural communities recycle nutrients, but cultivated communities often require an input of
mineral nutrients due to losses through A) erosion. B) humus. C) nitrogen fixation. D) crop rotation. E) iron accumulation.
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5) Carnivorous plants evolved because which of the following nutrients is often extremely
limited in their habitats? A) carbon B) C) D) nitrogen E) iron
6) Which of the following statements about plants grown in hydroponic culture is true? A) They no longer need to transport water through their xylem. B) They cannot be used for commercial purposes. C) They rarely get enough micronutrients. D) They are unable to photosynthesize. E) They are suspended with their roots in a nutrient solution.
7) A primary advantage of using integrated nutrient management compared to inorganic
chemical fertilizers is that A) less organic fertilizer is needed than chemical fertilizers. B) only organic fertilizers contain micronutrients. C) organic fertilizers release nutrients more slowly. D) chemical fertilizers are not soluble in water. E) chemical fertilizers break down very slowly.
8) Certain plants have been genetically modified to secrete citrate, which helps A) make the phosphate in soils more soluble. B) plants make necessary micronutrients. C) reveal mineral deficiencies in a plant. D) make hydroponic growth possible. E) plants add metals to the soil in which they are growing.
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9) A deficiency in a plant micronutrient A) is less serious than a deficiency in a macronutrient. B) makes that plant susceptible to herbivores. C) can have a severe effect on plant growth. D) results in no visible symptoms. E) has no impact on the agriculture of a region.
10) Inserting a cloned gene for a plasma membrane transporter into crop plants could lead to A) the ability of a plant to produce its own micronutrients. B) extra uptake of minerals that would fortify the crop for human consumption. C) the evolution of nodule-formation on the crop plant. D) elevated levels in the atmosphere. E) plants taking up enough minerals that they no longer need to photosynthesize.
11) A deficiency of ammonia would inhibit the production of which of the following molecules? A) proline and alanine B) starch C) short-chain fatty acids D) glucose and fructose E) long-chain fatty acids
12) The Nod factor is an important component of A) the formation of the digestive enzymes of carnivorous plants. B) legume-bacterial interactions. C) mycorrhizal-terrestrial plant interactions. D) the Calvin Cycle. E) trichloroethylene metabolism.
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13) Although symbiotic relationships between nitrogen-fixing bacteria and plants are rare, many
plants have symbiotic relationships with A) other plants. B) nematode worms in the soil. C) filamentous algae. D) mycorrhizal fungi in the soil. E) soil insects.
14) The effects of elevated atmospheric concentrations A) have the potential to alter the nutritional status of plants. B) have the potential to allow herbivores to eat less plant matter. C) have no effect on nutrient levels found in plant leaves. D) allow the plant to use more efficiently in photosynthesis. E) cause an increase in rubisco production.
15) Insectivorous plants such as the Venus flytrap, pitcher plant, and bladderworts often grow in A) alkaline soil. B) sandy soil. C) clay soil. D) marshes. E) acidic soils.
16) The habitats most favorable for the growth of legumes in symbiosis with nitrogen-fixing
bacteria are A) potassium-poor soils. B) phosphorus-poor soils. C) manganese-poor soils. D) calcium-poor soils. E) nitrogen-poor soils.
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17) Which of the following is most limiting for plant growth, especially in relation to the plant's
carbon uptake? A) phosphorous B) potassium C) nitrogen D) calcium E) magnesium
18) Which of the following is required by plants in the smallest quantity? A) boron B) potassium C) phosphorus D) nitrogen E) sulfur
19) During the initiation of nitrogen-fixation nodules, a host plant with genetic mutations
releases altered forms of flavonoids. What is the likely consequence of this? A) Infection threads will grow in the wrong direction. B) More nodules will form than necessary. C) The bacteria will not produce any Nod factors. D) Nodules will be misshapen. E) The bacterial will produce higher levels of Nod factors.
20) During the initiation of nitrogen-fixation nodules, the Rhizobium bacteria release what type
of molecules to signal the host plant? A) sugars B) proteins C) transcription factors D) flavonoids E) Nod factors
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21) During the initiation of nitrogen-fixation nodules, how do the Rhizobium bacteria enter into
the cortex of the root? A) through the plasmodesmata of the root hairs B) via the apoplastic pathway C) using proton pumps D) through a membrane tube called an infection thread E) by repeated cell divisions
22) Why do nitrogen-fixation nodules contain large amounts of leghemoglobin? A) It helps transport oxygen to the bacteria. B) The nitrogenase enzyme interacts with the iron in the leghemoglobin. C) The leghemoglobin helps break the triple bond of . D) It stimulates the Nod factors. E) It prevents carbon dioxide from inhibiting the nitrogenase enzyme.
23) When legumes with nitrogen-fixation nodules are given chemical fertilizers with high
nitrogen concentrations, they abandon support of the nodules and end the symbiosis. Why? A) The mineral nutrients inhibit nitrogenase activity. B) Nitrogen gas is no longer available in the soil. C) The plant can conserve valuable energy sources by terminating the symbiotic relationship. D) The dissolved chemical nutrients are toxic to Rhizobium bacteria. E) Dissolved nitrogen uncurls the root hairs, releasing the nodule.
24) Which of these insectivorous plants does not use an active trapping mechanism? A) pitcher plants B) Venus flytraps C) sundews D) the aquatic waterwheel E) bladderworts
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25) Mycorrhizae are especially effective in helping plant roots uptake A) nitrogen. B) phosphorus. C) potassium. D) iron. E) magnesium.
26) If increased
concentrations result in plant tissue that is less nutritious, which of these is not a potential consequence for insect herbivores? A) They must eat more tissue. B) Their development may be slowed. C) They grow fatter because their diet has more carbohydrates. D) They use up more energy trying to eat for food. E) Their reproductive cycles may be disrupted because their rate of growth changes.
27) A plant cell with 64 available ATP molecules could split how many
molecules with the
assistance of nitrogenase? A) 2 B) 4 C) 16 D) 32 E) 64
28) What makes a mineral element essential for plant growth? A) It is part of typical chemical fertilizers. B) It can only be found in organic fertilizers. C) If it is missing, the plant cannot grow or reproduce normally. D) As its concentration increases, the plant grows more. E) It contributes to the solute potential of the plant.
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29) Why is it beneficial to plants that soil particles have negatively-charged surfaces? A) It helps maintain the water potential of the soil. B) They attract positively-charged ions and prevent them from being washed deep into
the soil. C) Negatively-charged ions are pushed towards the roots. D) Toxic metals are trapped and kept away from the plants. E) They capture negatively-charged ions.
30) In magnesium-deficient plants, the older leaves show more severe symptoms of chlorosis
which is a yellowing of the leaves than younger leaves. What is the best explanation? A) There is more time for the symptoms to develop in older leaves. B) Chlorophyll is transported from the older leaves to the younger leaves. C) Magnesium is more soluble in younger leaves. D) Scarce magnesium is removed from older leaves and translocated to support younger, more active leaves. E) Older leaves need less chlorophyll.
31) Inside nitrogen-fixing nodules, one A) N. B) NO. C) D) E)
molecule is converted into two
. . .
32) In several studies of plant responses to elevated
concentrations in the atmosphere, scientists often found that the stimulation of growth gradually diminished because A) more photorespiration occurred. B) plants were replaced with plants. C) the soil did not contain sufficient nitrogen and other nutrients to support the enhanced growth. D) the plants could not store the extra biomass. E) weedy plants took over the experimental plots.
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33) Which of these is considered a potentially dangerous heavy metal contaminant in soil? A) cadmium B) iron C) copper D) molybdenum E) zinc
34) In acidic soils or in habitats subjected to prolonged acid rain, what element is often released
from rocks that is toxic to many plants? A) iron B) chlorine C) molybdenum D) selenium E) aluminum
35) Choose the letter of the best match from the following: A. nitrogen B. calcium C. potassium D. phosphorus E. magnesium
35.2)
Contained in amino acids, proteins, nucleic acids, chlorophyll.
35.3)
Required for protein synthesis and operation of stomata.
35.4)
Component of cell walls, involved in maintenance of membrane structure.
35.5)
Component of chlorophyll, activates many enzymes, divalent cation.
35.6)
Component of ADP, ATP, nucleic acids, and several coenzymes.
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36) Plants that sequester heavy metals utilize pressure-flow where they move toxins from the
source (soil) to a sink (such as the leaves). ⊚ true ⊚ false
37) When plants are grown in hydroponic culture, their roots are suspended in an aerated
solution. Why is the solution aerated? Check all that apply. A) Both the light-dependent and the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis require oxygen. B) Oxygen is necessary for the root cells to produce ATP. C) Without oxygen, membrane transport in the roots would be impaired. D) A lack of oxygen would cause the water potential within the roots to decrease. E) Without oxygen, the xylem would stop flowing.
38) A magnesium deficiency would impact the light-independent reactions but not the light-
dependent reaction of photosynthesis. ⊚ true ⊚ false
39) Humus often enhances the water and nutrient-retaining properties of topsoil. Which of the
following might increase the humus content of a soil? Check all that apply. A) mushroom compost B) leaf litter C) ground limestone D) phosphate fertilizer E) fish meal
40) A parasitic plant without chlorophyll is likely to lack leaves. ⊚ true ⊚ false
41) <p>A plant with 80 available ATP could produce 10 molecules of ⊚ true ⊚ false
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42) Blocking the proton pumps in a root would result in a more negative membrane potential and
an increase in ⊚ true ⊚ false
uptake.
43) <p>A soil sample with an
concentration of
M may also have high levels of
aluminum.</p> ⊚ true ⊚ false
44) As global temperatures increase, evidence suggests that ribulose 1, 5-biphosphate
carboxylase/oxygenase (rubisco) is likely to denature and photosynthesis rates will decrease. ⊚ true ⊚ false
45) Saline soils have a higher water potential than plant roots. ⊚ true ⊚ false
46) In the lab, you are studying the long-term effects of elevated carbon dioxide levels on
photosynthesis in C3 and C4 plants. The C3 and C4 plants are growing in separate closed chambers. Both chambers are constantly given elevated but equal amounts of carbon dioxide. Which of the following are likely results of this experiment? Check all that apply. A) There would be a decrease in levels in both chambers. B) There would be an increase in levels in both containers. C) Both the C3 and the C4 plants would show equal gains in biomass. D) The C4 plants would gain more biomass relative to the C3 plants. E) The C3 plants would gain more biomass relative to the C4 plants.
47) Most parasitic plants like other land plants have mycorrhizal symbionts. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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48) Which of the following is a natural process of plants that can be used by humans to remove
toxins from soils? Check all that apply. A) secretion of a substance from the roots that breaks down the toxic chemical B) "storage" of a toxic chemical in plant tissues, which are then removed from the site C) root pressure pushing toxins from deep in the soil towards the surface D) physiological breakdown of the chemical into harmless products E) transport of toxins absorbed by the roots into the shoots, where they can be collected more easily
49) Which of the following statements about plant macronutrients is/are true? Check all that
apply. A) They approach or exceed 1% of a healthy plant's dry weight. B) C) D) E)
They reduce the need for during photosynthesis. A deficiency in any one can have severe effects on a plant's growth. They can have important implications for human nutrition. The ability of the plants to take up minerals is affected by soil pH.
50) Researchers studying forests have found that trees interact with each other and with other
organisms in the soils beneath the woods. Trees share resources with each other through their roots and through collaborations with mycorrhizal fungi. The term common mycorrhizal networks is sometimes used to describe this interacting network of roots and mycelium, but a catchier name often used is the “Wood Wide Web”. Which of the following types of interactions would NOT be enabled by the Wood Wide Web? A) The Wood Wide Web can be used to share the nitrogen fixed by mycorrhizae to trees that are growing in nutrient deficient soils. B) A tree suffering herbivory can use the Wood Wide Web to chemically communicate information about the presence of herbivores to other trees. C) Trees use the Wood Wide Web to compete with other species by spreading allelopathic chemicals further away from their trunks and roots. D) Trees with a surplus of phosphate can use the Wood Wide Web to share phosphates absorbed by the fungal mycelium with other trees with a deficit. E) An older, dying tree can use the Wood Wide Web to donate its remaining resources to younger trees in the forest.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 37 1) C 2) B 3) B 4) A 5) D 6) E 7) C 8) A 9) C 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) D 14) A 15) E 16) E 17) C 18) A 19) C 20) E 21) D 22) A 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) C 27) B 28) C 29) B 30) D 31) E 32) C 33) A 34) E 35) Section Break 35.1) A 35.2) C
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35.3) B 35.4) E 35.5) D 36) FALSE 37) [B, C, E] 38) FALSE 39) [A, B, E] 40) TRUE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) TRUE 44) FALSE 45) FALSE 46) [B, E] 47) FALSE 48) [A, B, D] 49) [A, C, D, E] 50) A
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Chapter 38 Student name:__________ 1) _________ occurs when a chemical signal secreted by the roots of one plant blocks the
germination of nearby seeds or inhibits the growth of a neighboring plant. A) Nodulation B) Etiolation C) Reduction D) Allelopathy E) The systemic response
2) Which of the following steps is not one of the phases of a fungal invasion of a plant? A) Windblown fungal spores land on plant leaves. B) Hyphae grow through cell walls and press against the cell membrane. C) Fungal DNA is replicated by the plant cells. D) Hyphae differentiate into specialized structures called haustoria. E) A fungal spore germinates and forms an adhesion pad that allows it to stick to a
plant's leaf.
3) Nonnative plant invaders, such as the alfalfa plant bug, are extremely invasive and hard to
control because A) they arrive in new locations where natural predators are not present. B) they tap into the xylem of a plant while seeking carbohydrates. C) they cause the plants' axillary buds to grow out. D) their populations evolve faster than the plants they attack. E) cause the plants' stomates to become unevenly distributed within the epidermis.
4) Which of the following methods do fungi use in order to penetrate the initial layer of a plant's
defenses? A) mechanical bridging B) sharp mouthparts C) entry through stomates D) secretion of phospholipids to dissolve the cuticle
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5) Evidence that black walnut trees exhibit allelopathy includes A) the lack of vegetation growing under black walnut trees. B) the death of hornworms that try to eat black walnut leaves. C) the symbiotic relationship the trees have with fungi. D) the ants that protect the trees from herbivory. E) the morphological changes that occur in response to pathogenic attacks.
6) Tannins are chemicals that help plants repel invaders by A) over-stimulating the predator. B) sedating the predator. C) binding to proteins and thereby disrupting the predator's digestion. D) injuring the external covering of the predator's body. E) causing the predator to grow so rapidly that it dies.
7) Which of the following statements about plant toxins against herbivores is false? A) The toxin may be kept in a membrane-bound structure to keep it from harming the
plant. B) The toxin may not be toxic unless it is metabolized in the intestine of a herbivore. C) The toxin may have also have a bad taste. D) Even a little bit of the toxin will be deadly. E) Some toxins can over stimulate particular physiological processes.
8) Plants such as peppermint and sage contain oils. What is the function of these oils? A) They help keep the plant from drying out. B) They help repel insects. C) They keep other plants from germinating nearby. D) They prevent fungal infection. E) They have hormone-like activity that helps wounds heal.
9) Which of the following plant secondary metabolites is used as an antimalarial drug? A) morphine B) taxol C) genistein D) quinine E) manihotoxin
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10) Phytoestrogens are steroid-like chemicals that are derived from soy. One of their
characteristics is that they are able to A) paralyze nerve endings. B) bind to the human estrogen receptor. C) cause estrogen breakdown within human cells. D) increase the rate of prostate cancer in men. E) cure malaria.
11) Which of the following is a false statement about plant secondary metabolites? A) Some can be used to treat human diseases. B) Some can be poisonous to humans. C) The activity of certain medicines is due to secondary metabolites. D) Some of them can cross the placenta during pregnancy. E) They are too unpredictable to use in pharmaceutical research.
12) Parasitoid wasps are sometimes involved in a plant's defensive response. In what way are the
wasps helpful to the plant? A) The wasps respond to a chemical the plant gives off when wounded, and the wasps lay their eggs on the caterpillar that wounded the plant. B) The wasps live in hollow thorns of the plants, and attack the plants' predators. C) The wasps stimulate the production of alkaloids the plants use for defense. D) The wasps enhance the plants' hypersensitive response. E) The wasps trigger leaf abscission so that herbivores do not have anything to eat.
13) Systemin can correctly be described as a(n) A) peptide. B) apoplast. C) receptor. D) leaf lipid. E) carbohydrate.
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14) How does systemin cause the activation of the wound response in tomato plants? A) It binds directly to jasmonic acid. B) It directly signals gene expression. C) It induces the production of tannins. D) It induces a jasmonic acid signaling pathway in certain cells. E) It triggers genes that are able to signal the plant that mechanical injury has occurred.
15) How does jasmonic acid contribute to the activation of the wound response in tomato plants? A) It moves through the phloem of the plant until it reaches the wound site. B) It produces a polypeptide that binds with membrane lipids. C) It binds to enzymes in the gut of the predator. D) It increases the energy available for the plants to fight the predator. E) It signals gene expression, leading to the production of a proteinase inhibitor.
16) The activation of proteinase inhibitor genes occurs A) in the cytoplasm of the affected cells. B) on the plasma membrane of the affected cells. C) in the nucleus of the affected cells. D) before the systemin moves through the phloem of the plant. E) in anticipation of a physical wound to the plant.
17) The series of metabolic events that occurs within tomato plants in response to wounding is A) a systemic response. B) a waterfall effect. C) the hypersensitive response. D) a pathogen-specific response. E) resistance to coevolution.
18) The steps in the pathogen-specific response do not include A) responding to the pathogen. B) development of antibodies. C) recognizing the pathogen. D) triggering the hypersensitive response. E) the pathogen releases distinctive proteins.
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19) Which of the following statements about the pathogen-specific response is true? A) The pathways involved always trigger the hypersensitive response. B) The pathogen is recognized by its avr gene product. C) There is never a gene-for-gene response. D) If the R gene product is not triggered, no disease will occur. E) Avr and R gene pairs have been cloned in species pathogenized by microbes, fungi,
and insects.
20) Viruses travel through animals mainly by lysing cells and then spreading to other cells. Plant
cells are not easily lysed. If a pathogen enters a plant cell and does not initiate a hypersensitive response, what is the most likely way the virus would spread to other plant cells? A) Through the chloroplasts B) Directly through the cell wall C) Through the central vacuole D) Through the plasmodesmata E) Through transport vesicles
21) Systemic acquired resistance is A) a broad-ranging resistance that lasts for a period of days. B) the same as the human immune response. C) a response whereby antibodies recognize specific antigens. D) a response that occurs when the hypersensitive response fails. E) a method for plants to modify their DNA for protection.
22) Which of the following chemicals is a signal that induces systemic acquired resistance? A) salicylic acid B) brassinosteroids C) systemin D) avr E) nitric acid
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23) Cyanogenic glycosides, which break down into cyanide, are toxic to cells because they
inhibit the function of which organelle(s)? A) Golgi apparatus B) Ribosome C) Nucleolus D) Mitochondria E) Endoplasmic reticulum
24) What is the main difference between plant defense mechanisms that use secondary chemical
metabolites versus plant defense mechanisms that use a systemic response? A) The metabolites are not as lethal as the systemic response. B) The metabolites are present at all times, and the systemic response must be induced. C) The metabolites can only help in defense against insects, not against other plants. D) The metabolites are toxic to the plants that produce them, the systemic response is safer. E) The metabolites are a more reliable way to kill the invader.
25) The plant alkaloid ricin is nontoxic inside castor beans, but becomes active when digested by
an animal. The toxic form of ricin kills by A) inactivating the animal's immune system. B) over stimulating the animal's heart rate. C) inactivating ribosomes needed for translation. D) binding to RNA polymerase. E) releasing cyanide.
26) Taxol, a secondary metabolite from the bark of the Pacific yew tree, is used as a treatment for A) diabetes. B) breast cancer. C) indigestion. D) headaches. E) high blood pressure.
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27) Which category of plant second metabolites includes stimulants like caffeine, nicotine, and
cocaine? A) tannins B) alkaloids C) phenolics D) cyanogenic glycosides E) terpenes
28) Which common crop may contain traces of hormone-like substances that may affect human
health? A) B) C) D) E)
corn wheat peanuts soybean wine grapes
29) What plant secondary metabolite was isolated from the Cinchona tree to fight malaria? A) digitalis B) penicillin C) acacia D) taxol E) quinine
30) Why don't ants that protect the Acacia tree scare off bees trying to pollinate the tree's
flowers? A) They can't climb to the tops of the tree. B) The bees are too big. C) The bees fly in and out quickly. D) The open flowers contain a chemical that is an ant deterrent. E) Parasitoid wasps protect the bees from attack.
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31) Which of the following statements about the relationship between ants and acacia trees is/are
accurate? Check all that apply. A) The ants protect the acacias from other insects. B) The ants protect the acacias from epiphytic plants and vines. C) The ants live in the hollow thorns of the acacias. D) The ants are provided with sugar or other nutrition by some species of acacia. E) The ants aid pollination of the acacias.
32) Dermal tissue in plants A) is several cell layers thick. B) acts a barrier to potential pathogens. C) houses guard cells that defend against pathogen invasion. D) differs depending if it above ground or below ground.
33) A nematode that has parasitized a plant root has breached the cutin layer of the epidermis. ⊚ true ⊚ false
34) In your garden, you have an Ailanthus altissima, also known as the Tree-of-Heaven. You try
adding additional plants to the same garden bed but notice poor seed germination and seedling growth around the tree. What is the most likely explanation for this? A) The tree is blocking most of the available sunlight which is limiting germination and growth. B) The tree is utilizing most of the available micronutrients in the soil. C) The roots of the tree have a stronger water potential than the seedlings which is causing the seedlings to dehydrate. D) The tree has a mutualistic relationship with animals that are removing plants that are in competition for resources with the tree. E) The tree is releasing chemicals into the soil that are inhibiting germination and growth of other plants.
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35) Many plants are filled with toxins that kill or deter herbivores. Many plants sequester these
compounds within the cell. Where in the plant cell are these toxic substances most likely stored? A) Central vacuole B) Mitochondria C) The stroma D) Amyloplasts E) Lysosomes
36) Treating a plant with a fungicide could interfere with the plant's uptake of nitrogen. ⊚ true ⊚ false
37) Parasitic fungi will usually attack a plant through stomata on the root surface. ⊚ true ⊚ false
38) A patient who requires repeated dosing with strong analgesics over a period of more than a
few days might be prescribed which of the following secondary plant metabolites? A) Genistein B) Morphine C) Quinine D) Taxol E) Cyanogenic glycosides
39) A plant has a mutation in the gene that codes for systemin. What is the likely consequence of
this mutation? A) The plant will have a stronger than normal wound response. B) The mutated form of systemin would be recognized as a pathogen and a hypersensitive response will be initiated. C) The levels of jasmonic acid will build inside the cell creating a toxic environment. D) Systemin receptors will not be activated and proteinase inhibitor will not be transcribed. E) R genes will fail to match up with avr genes.
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40) Systemic response occurs when plants exhibit generalized defense responses in organs
distant from the wound. ⊚ true ⊚ false
41) Using biotechnology, plant breeders attempt to find and incorporate specific resistance genes
into plants that lack them. Once a species of plant has been given a resistance gene, it will have indefinite protection from the associated pathogen. ⊚ true ⊚ false
42) If a bacterium containing a mutation in the avirulence gene lands on a plant that has the
corresponding R gene, the bacterium may not initiate rapid cell death in the plant. ⊚ true ⊚ false
43) While the relationship between plant roots and mycorrhizal fungus is a mutualistic one, it is
also true that the fungus must invade the root tissue, which is in fact an infection that can promote a defensive response. Researchers have found that this mycorrhizal-induced resistance primes the plant for future interactions with pathogens, inducing a more efficient response of jasmonic acid signaling pathways to subsequent attacks on the plant. What does this suggest about mycorrhizal-induced resistance? A) Plants with mycorrhizal associations will have amplified wound responses. B) Plants with mycorrhizal associations are more likely to recruit parasitoid wasps. C) Plants with mycorrhizal associations are more prone to hypersensitive responses. D) Plants with mycorrhizal associations have a higher number of avr genes. E) Plants with mycorrhizal associations have a higher number of R genes.
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44) Cotesia congregata is a parasitoid wasp that attacks more than a dozen species of caterpillars
including the tomato hornworm, Manduca sexta. Recent research has indicated that C. congregata is more likely to attack hornworms on wild tomatoes over domesticated tomato plants. Which of the following would explain this different behavior? A) The domesticated tomato plants release different volatile compounds in response to herbivory than the wild tomato plants. B) The domesticated tomato plants have fewer R genes than the wild tomato plants. C) The domesticated tomato plants have fewer avr gene products than the wild tomato plants. D) The domesticated tomato plants release less salicylic acid than the wild tomato plants. E) The domesticated tomato plants produce less jasmonic acid than the wild tomato plants.
45) The HM1 gene in maize controls expression of the HCTR (NADPH-dependent HC toxin
reductase), which inactivates HC toxin, a cyclic tetrapeptide that is produced by the fungus Cochliobolus carbonum to enable it to infect a plant. Which of the following terms describes HCTR? A) R gene product B) avr gene product C) salicylic acid D) jasmonic acid E) systemin
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 38 1) D 2) C 3) A 4) C 5) A 6) C 7) D 8) B 9) D 10) B 11) E 12) A 13) A 14) D 15) E 16) C 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) D 21) A 22) A 23) D 24) B 25) C 26) B 27) B 28) D 29) E 30) D 31) [A, B, C, D] 32) [B, D] 33) FALSE 34) E 35) A 36) FALSE 37) FALSE
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38) B 39) D 40) TRUE 41) FALSE 42) TRUE 43) A 44) A 45) A
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Chapter 39 Student name:__________ 1) If temperatures suddenly rise 5 to 10º C,_________ proteins are produced to help stabilize
other proteins. A) denatured B) photosensitive C) chilling D) heat shock E) oxidative
2) Rapid turgor pressure changes in specialized multicellular swellings called_________ are
associated with leaves that move in response to touch or light. A) petioles B) pulvini C) stipules D) pudicas E) coleoptiles
3) Mature plants may become_________ in dry or cold seasons in order to survive long periods
that are unfavorable for growth. A) dormant B) dehydrated C) photoperiodic D) thigmonastic E) gravitropic
4) _________ are chemical substances produced in small quantities in one part of an organism
and then transported to another part of the organism, where they bring about physiological responses. A) Glycoproteins B) Photosynthates C) Hormones D) Heat shock proteins E) Pulvini
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5) Gibberellins affect many processes in plants. In seeds embryos, gibberellins are believed to
signal hydrolysis of the stored food reserves through inducing the synthesis of the enzyme αamylase. Which food source are gibberellins targeting with the release of α-amylase? A) omega-3 fatty acids B) starch C) glycogen D) fructose E) protein
6) A plant sustains pathogen-induced damage to one of its cell walls. A gene-for-gene response
soon follows and the tissue surrounding the injury soon dies. Which signaling molecules facilitated this response? A) Oligosaccharins B) Ethylene C) Gibberellins D) Auxins E) Abscisic acid
7) _________ is directional growth responses of plants to a unidirectional source of light. A) Gravitropism B) Thigmotropism C) Dormancy D) Phototropism E) Thermotropism
8) Charles Darwin and his son experimented with which plant growth response? A) gravitropism B) circadian rhythms C) phototropism D) heat shock E) thermotropism
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9) The plant hormones known as_________ may have an evolutionary origin in the common
ancestor to both plants and animals. A) brassinosteroids B) oligosaccharides C) cytokinins D) auxins E) abscisic acids
10) Which cell structure is most likely responsible for sensing gravity? A) central vacuole B) Golgi appartus C) chloroplast D) amyloplast E) apical meristem
11) While touring a farm, the farmer tells you that she uses cytokinin to increase crop
productivity. But, from biology class you know that cytokinin alone has no effect on parenchyma cells. What other substance is the farmer most likely using in conjunction with cytokinin? A) auxin B) abscisic acid C) strigolactones D) ethylene E) suberin
12) While touring the ancient Egypt exhibit at the local history museum, you learn that ancient
Egyptians would slash figs in order to stimulate ripening. Based on your knowledge of plant hormones you hypothesize that wounding the figs must release A) abscisic acid. B) gibberellin. C) indoleacetic acid. D) ethylene. E) cytokinin.
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13) Abscisic acid (ABA) is synthesized in the roots in response to decreased soil water potential.
ABA then translocates to the leaves, where it rapidly alters the osmotic potential of guard cells. What effect would this have on the stomata and the process of transpiration? A) The stomata would open thereby increasing the rate of transpiration. B) The stomata would open thereby decreasing the rate of transpiration. C) The stomata would close thereby decreasing the rate of transpiration. D) The stomata would close thereby increasing the rate of transpiration. E) The change in the stomata would have no effect on the rate of transpiration.
14) The elongation of stems is stimulated by A) auxin only. B) gibberellin only. C) ethylene only. D) auxin and gibberellin. E) auxin and ethylene.
15) When Darwin covered the tip of a grass seedling with metal foil and then illuminated it from
one side, what happened to the seedling? A) It bent away from the directional light. B) It did not respond to the directional light. C) It grew toward the light, as expected. D) It waved back and forth. E) It wilted and died.
16) One effect of auxin, which triggers the elongation of cells, is to affect cell walls by increasing
their A) B) C) D) E)
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17) When seeds are removed from strawberries, fruit growth is stopped. This suggests the seeds
contain which of the following hormones? A) ethylene B) auxin C) strigolactones D) oligosaccharides E) gibberellins
18) A compound similar to auxin, 2,4,5-trichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4,5-T), has been used A) as a fertilizer for corn and wheat. B) as a spray to promote flowering of pineapple. C) as an organic substitute for chlorine bleach. D) to detoxify the dangerous poison dioxin. E) an herbicide for killing woody seedlings and dicot weeds.
19) Climbing plants, such as vines, rely on touch to navigate and develop tendrils that coil
around objects they encounter. Roots also rely on touch to navigate their way through the soil. When roots come into contact with an object, they generally grow in a direction away from the object. Based on this information, which of the following statements is true? A) Both tendrils and roots are displaying thigmonastic responses to an object in the environment. B) The tendrils are displaying a thigmonastic response while the roots are displaying a thigmotropic response. C) The tendrils are displaying a positive thigmotropic response while the roots are displaying a negative thigmotropic response. D) The tendrils are displaying a thigmotropic response while the roots are displaying a thigmonastic response. E) The tendrils are displaying a negative thigmotropic response while the roots are displaying a positive thigmotropic response.
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20) Coconut milk was an extremely useful additive in plant tissue culture because, in addition to
amino acids, it contains A) auxins. B) gibberellins. C) cytokinins. D) ethylene. E) abscisic acid.
21) While flipping through an agriculture products catalog, you come across the following
advertisment, "The Centralized Ripening System—makes large scale hormone distribution even easier!". What hormone does this product distribute? A) auxin B) abscisic acid C) cytokinin D) ethylene E) gibberellin
22) Which naturally-occurring plant hormone has a major role in the phototropic response of
plants? A) B) C) D) E)
auxin gibberellin abscisic acid ethylene 2, 4-D
23) The directional growth response of plants to touch is called A) phototropism. B) gravitropism. C) thigmotropism. D) photoperiodism. E) thermotropism.
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24) What endogenous process helps plants to keep their movements and other responses
synchronized with the environment? A) purine monitoring B) solar tracking C) a circadian clock D) auxin cycling E) gravitropism
25) The acid growth hypothesis links A) oligosaccharins to pH changes. B) cytokinin to thigmonasty. C) auxin to cell wall expansion. D) gibberellin to root elongation. E) ethylene to leaf abscission.
26) During a viticulturist's presentation on growing and managing grapes, why did he state that it
is imperative to encourage the grapevine's natural tendency for positive thigmotropism? A) To encourage the vine's response to move toward the early morning light as opposed to the late afternoon sun B) To encourage the roots to grow deeper and spread out C) To encourage the grapes to retain their sugar for a longer period of time D) To encourage the twining stems to wrap around the supporting wires E) To discourage early ripening of the fruit
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27) Several scientists, including Charles and Francis Darwin, Frits Went and others,
demonstrated that auxins caused stems to bend toward light in a series of elaborate experiments. Went was the researcher who finally determined that bending of the stem toward light was a result of which mechanism? A) Light caused a reduction in auxin concentration and a reduction in stem elongation on the lighted side of the plant stem, and thus a bending in the direction of the light. B) The transport of auxin to the shaded side of the plant stem stimulated stem elongation and a bending in the direction of the light. C) Auxin concentration was equal on both sides (lighted and shaded) of the stem; however, the apical meristem responded to the presence of light. D) A combination of positive phototropism and a negative gravitropism. E) The stems actually were responding to the agar blocks that had been used in the experiments.
28) A scientist is investigating a hormone response in rose bush stems by removing the apical
meristems of the main stems. What is the most likely result of this experiment and what hormone is responsible? A) New apical buds will develop under the influence of auxin. B) Larger, deeper roots will form under the influence of cytokinin. C) More leaf buds will appear along the main stems under the influence of auxin. D) Flowers will turn yellow and fall off under the influence of auxin. E) Lateral buds will develop under the influence of cytokinin.
29) A viticulturist wants to grow larger grapes. Which specific hormone would a viticulturist
apply to the plants? A) auxin B) cytokinin C) gibberellin D) abscisic acid E) ethylene
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30) A plant physiologist treats a leaf with abscisic acid and observes that the stomata close. What
happened inside the guard cells during the experiment? A) Abscisic acid influences the movement of sodium ions out of the guard cells. B) Abscisic acid influences the movement of potassium ions out of the guard cells. C) Abscisic acid binds carbon dioxide and causes carbonate crystals to block the stomatal opening. D) Abscisic acid binds with auxins and induces water molecules to exit the guard cells. E) Abscisic acid causes the guard cells to become more turgid.
31) Directional, light-triggered plant development is known as A) thigmotropism. B) phototropism. C) thigmonasty. D) photomorphogenesis. E) acid-growth movement.
32) What happens when coleoptiles are illuminated with directional light from the side instead of
from directly overhead? A) More auxin is produced. B) Less auxin is produced. C) Auxin is transported away from the lighted side. D) Auxin is transported toward the lighted side. E) Auxin receptors are activated.
33) Before ARF transcription factors can trigger auxin-induced gene expression, what must
happen? A) Auxin binds to ubiquitin, a degradation tag. B) Auxin degrades Aux/IAA proteins which repress ARF transcription factors. C) Auxin binds to TIR1, an auxin receptor. D) Auxin must bind to the ARF transcription factor. E) Ubiquitin must destroy TIR1 to release Aux/IAA proteins.
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34) In some genetically engineered tomatoes, fruit ripening was delayed by crippling the gene
that produces which hormone? A) auxin B) ethylene C) abscisic acid D) gibberellin E) cytokinin
35) When one plant is shaded by another, why is the ratio of far-red to red light increased
compared to an unshaded plant? A) Phytochrome in the taller plant absorbs most of the red light. B) Auxin absorbs mostly far-red light. C) As light passes through the leaves of the taller plant, most of the red light is absorbed by chlorophyll. D) Far-red light mostly reflects off the surface of the soil while red light is mostly absorbed. E) Shade is enriched in far-red wavelengths of light.
36) In Arabidopsis plants, about 7% of its genome is devoted to processes tied to which
molecule? A) auxin B) ubiquitin C) rubisco D) phytochrome E) gibberellins
37) How do nastic movements differ from tropisms? A) Nastic movements are slower than tropisms. B) Nastic movements only occur in the dark. C) Tropisms are directional responses to directional stimuli; nastic movements are the
same regardless of the direction of the stimulus. D) Nastic movements happen after a stimulus, tropisms happen during a stimulus. E) Nastic movements are not reversible.
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38) Choose the letter of the best match from the following: A. abscisic acid B. auxin C. ethylene D. cytokinin E. gibberellin
38.2)
A chemical derivative of adenine.
38.3)
Its defoliant effects were first noticed when it leaked from gas lights; later found to be produced by plants themselves.
38.4)
Influential in the opening and closing of stomata.
39) Chemical inhibitors of hormone synthesis or signaling are powerful tools that yield
invaluable information about hormone function. Triadimefon, propiconazole, and spironolactone are just a few of the compounds identified to inhibit the function of brassinosteroids (BR). Which of the following are probable physiological effects due to the inhibition of BR? Check all that apply. A) reduced mitotic activity B) rapid aging C) reduced xylem and phloem differentiation D) increased stem length
40) Abscisic acid synthesized in the root travels to different parts of the shoot where it regulates
transpirational water loss. What is the most likely way that ABA travels from the root to the various locations within the shoot? A) vessels and tracheids B) sieve tubes C) between cell walls D) from cell to cell through the plasmodesmata
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41) Red light and phytochrome are involved in which of the following plant growth responses?
Check all that apply. A) thigmotropic responses B) inhibition of seed germination C) elongation of etiolated shoots D) detection of crowding by neighboring plants
42) Which of the following are true statements about gibberellins? Check all that apply. A) They can restore normal growth and development in certain dwarf mutants. B) They inhibit amylase and other hydrolytic enzymes. C) They are produced in the apical regions of shoots and roots. D) They promote internode elongation. E) They hasten seed germination.
43) Which of the following describe a role that ethylene plays in plant physiology. Check all that
apply. A) B) C) D) E)
Retarding stem and root elongation Hastening the ripening of fruit Inhibition of lateral bud growth Inhibition of leaf abscission Accelerates the loss of damaged fruits
44) Which of the following statements about abscisic acid are true? Check all that apply. A) It stimulates the growth of dormant buds. B) It is produced chiefly in mature green leaves and in fruits. C) It promotes leaf senescence. D) It plays an important role in controlling the opening and closing of stomata. E) It plays a role in seed dormancy.
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45) Plants maintain higher levels of phytochrome at their growing tips where phytochrome plays
important roles in growth responses to light. Phytochrome levels are also high in areas of the plant that are "greening". What does this suggest about the role of phytochrome in these "greening" zones? A) Phytochrome is absorbing green wavelengths of light. B) In these areas, phytochrome is the first step in the electron transport chain of photosynthesis. C) Phytochrome is facilitating the transcription and translation of photosynthesis related proteins. D) Phytochrome is facilitating the migration of chlorophyll pigments from other areas of the plant.
46) While researching the effects of light on chlorophyll synthesis in sorghum, you find that brief
pulses of red light stimulates the synthesis of chlorophyll a and b. This would suggest that chlorophyll synthesis is directed by the form of phytochrome. ⊚ true ⊚ false
47) The removal of the root cap eliminates the ability of a root to respond to gravity. ⊚ true ⊚ false
48) Why do plants growing outside often have shorter and thicker stems than plants of the same
species grown indoors? A) The plants inside have a more constant source of light and therefore a higher level of phytochrome. B) The outdoor plants are subject to mechanical stresses and they are exhibiting a thigmomorphogenic response. C) The outdoor plants are subject to touch by animals and other plants and are exhibiting a thigmotropic response. D) The indoor plants have elevated levels of auxin and are therefore taller than the outside plants.
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49) Research has shown that cytokinin levels fluctuate seasonally in temperate plants. What
season would you expect to see the lowest levels of cytokinins and why would this be adaptive? A) Spring, because lower levels of cytokinin allow auxin to promote rapid growth in stem height. This will allow the plant to compete effectively for sunlight. B) Summer, because lower levels of cytokinin would slow growth down and delay leaf aging. This will allow the plant to maximize the production of starch and increase it's sugar reserves. This will help ensure the plant's survival through Autumn and Winter. C) Autumn, because lower levels of cytokinin at this time of year will induce the production of ethylene. This will result in maturation of fruit and ensure effective seed dispersal before Winter. D) Winter, because lower levels of cytokinin will place buds into a dormant state. This will protect the underlying tissues from freezing until Spring.
50) Which part of a root tip is responsible for perceiving gravity? A) root cap B) zone of cell division C) zone of elongation D) zone of maturation
51) Which of the following about seed dormancy is not true? A) Seed dormancy is common in tropical climates. B) High levels of abscisic acid trigger seed dormancy. C) Annual plants frequently utilize seed dormancy to wait until after the dry season has
ended before germinating. D) Embryos inside of some seeds can germinate after hundreds of years.
52) How do heat shock proteins protect plants from high temperatures? A) Heat shock proteins stabilize other proetins so that they don't denature at higher
temperatures. B) Heat shock proteins prevent carbohydrates from being hydrolized at higher temperatures. C) Heat shock proteins prevent the double helix of DNA molecules from unwinding at higher temperatures. D) Heat shock proteins prevent lipids from dissolving at higher temperatures.
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53) Thelazy gene was named because plants with mutations to it tend to have shoots and roots
that grow horizontally. Sometimes their roots even grow upward and emerge from the soil rather than growing downward. Further research indicates thatlazy gene products normally cause asymmetrical distribution of auxin in both shoots and roots, whereas mutation oflazy alters the auxin transport in the shoot and reverses auxin asymmetry in the root tip.Based on this description, what process is likely regulated by the lazy gene? A) Gravitropism B) Phototropism C) Photomorphogenesis D) Thigmotropism E) Thigmonastic response
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 39 1) D 2) B 3) A 4) C 5) B 6) A 7) D 8) C 9) A 10) D 11) A 12) D 13) C 14) D 15) B 16) B 17) B 18) E 19) C 20) C 21) D 22) A 23) C 24) C 25) C 26) D 27) B 28) E 29) C 30) B 31) B 32) C 33) C 34) B 35) C 36) D 37) C
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38) Section Break 38.1) D 38.2) C 38.3) A 39) [A, B, C] 40) A 41) [B, C, D] 42) [A, C, D, E] 43) [A, B, C, E] 44) [B, C, D, E] 45) C 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) B 49) D 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) A
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Chapter 40 Student name:__________ 1) Angiosperms use which temporary reproductive structures that are not present in any other
group of plants? A) cones B) carpels C) receptacles D) flowers E) seeds
2) What is the process that eventually leads to the death of a plant? A) outcrossing B) dichogamy C) abscission D) perennial E) senescence
3) The developmental transition during which plants become able to respond to external and/or
internal signals that promote flowering is known as A) cloning. B) initiation. C) abscission. D) perennial development. E) phase change.
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4) Your friend examines an ivy vine growing on the side of a campus building and says, “Look
– some of the branches on this plant have a different morphology. The leaf shapes and patterning are different, and there are flowers on some branches but not others. There must have been a mutation!” You respond, A) “I think you’re right. Maybe there was a mutation in the LEAFY (LFY) gene, and the loss of LFY has promoted flowering and had pleiotropic effects on leaf morphology.” B) “No, those branches have just undergone phase change. Now they’re in the adult form, and have become competent to respond to flowering signals.” C) “I think you’re right. Maybe the embryonic flower ( emf) gene is being overexpressed, and that’s causing flowers to form.” D) “No, those morphological changes are just evidence that this plant’s environment has changed during its lifetime.”
5) One way to improve crop productivity is to modify flowering time. This can allow for
multiple growing seasons in one year, and can also increase grain production because a smaller plant has lower resource needs. You are approached by an agricultural company that wants to create an early-flowering transgenic plant. Using your knowledge of Arabidopsis genetics, which genetic modifications would you suggest? A) Inhibition of the embryonic flower ( EMF) gene or overexpression of the LEAFY (LFY) gene would work. B) Inhibition of the LEAFY ( LFY) gene or overexpression of the embryonic flower ( emf) gene would work. C) Inhibition of either the embryonic flower ( emf) gene or the LEAFY ( LFY) gene would work. D) Early flowering is not possible in Arabidopsis, and is not likely to be possible in other plants.
6) Arabidopsis plants with a mutation in the gene embryonic Flower (EMF) produce flowers
almost immediately after germination, before shoot growth occurs. What is the normal role of this gene? A) The wildtype EMF allele causes growth of flowers in the embryo. B) The wildtype EMF allele causes death of the shoot tissue. C) The wildtype EMF allele prevents flowering from happening too soon. D) The wildtype EMF allele prevents phase change and facilitates flower determination.
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7) Interrupting the night with a flash of light can trigger flowering in a long-day plant. Why
doesn't introducing a short period of darkness during the day cause a short-day plant to flower? A) Sunlight contains enough far-red light to inhibit phytochrome induction of flowering. B) A brief dark period is not sufficient to trigger flowering. C) Phytochrome is only active in the dark. D) The circadian clock is less responsive during the day than at night. E) The phytochrome response also requires cool nighttime temperatures.
8) Which of the following statements about flowering plants is TRUE? A) A short-day plant requires nights longer than a certain critical period to trigger
flowering. B) A long-day plant requires nights shorter than a certain critical period to inhibit flowering. C) A short-day plant requires daylight of short wavelengths. D) A long-day plant requires long wavelengths during the night. E) A long-day plant requires long days alternating with short days.
9) Why do many plants use the photoperiodic pathway to regulate the timing of flower
formation? A) Flower petals carry out high levels of photosynthesis and require high light conditions. B) A minimum amount of light is always necessary for flowering. C) This allows plants to link flowering to temperature, which corresponds to the season when conditions are optimal. D) This allows plants to link flowering to day length, which corresponds to the season when conditions are optimal.
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10) You buy a Schlumbergera plant, also known as a Christmas Cactus, to decorate the desk
where you study late into the night. It is now December, and there are no signs of flower buds forming. What is the most plausible explanation for the lack of flowers? A) Flowering in this plant is controlled by both day length and temperature. The warm room and extended exposure to light are preventing flower formation. B) The room is too cold for a cactus plant, which requires hot, desert conditions to flower. C) Cacti are gymnosperms, not angiosperms, and thus do not form flowers. D) As a long-day plant, the cactus requires a high light to dark ratio to flower, so it must be exposed to more sunlight.
11) The owner of a plant nursery is introducing the new night janitor to his duties. “Behind this
door are the poinsettias,” she said, “Please don’t clean this room, and leave the door closed.” Why might the owner say this? A) Poinsettias are short-day plants that require a long uninterrupted period of darkness to flower. Even a short flash of light at night could prevent flowering. B) Poinsettias are very sensitive to the chemicals used in cleaning, which can interfere with the gibberellin-dependent pathway and disrupt flowering. C) Poinsettias are tropical plants and require constant warm temperatures for flower formation. D) Poinsettias are long-day plants that require a long period of light for flower formation, and this light might disrupt the day-night cycles of other plants outside the room.
12) At a certain point in the flowering process, shoots become committed to making a flower.
This is called A) apomixis. B) bilateralism. C) phase change. D) competence. E) floral determination.
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13) Competence means that a plant is_________, while determination means that a plant
tissue_________. The acquisition of flowering competence is an example of a_________. A) capable of responding to signals that trigger a fate change; remains capable of adopting more than one possible developmental fate; phaseolus B) unresponsive to signals that trigger a fate change; is committed to a specific developmental fate; fate change C) in the process of responding to signals that trigger a fate change; was driven to adopt an abnormal developmental fate by transgene expression; flowerization D) capable of responding to signals that trigger a fate change; is committed to a specific developmental fate; phase change
14) In the ABC model of floral determination, a different combination of the three genes
specifies each floral organ. Which gene works in combination with the other two? A) A B) B C) C D) florigen E) ethylene
15) At the Beautiful Mutants Flower Shop, a variety of unique mutant plants are sold. What
would be the best flower to give to a friend who is allergic to pollen? A) "Superhunk" -- a plant with a mutation in the class A genes. B) "Beautiful Innocence" -- a plant with a mutation in the class C genes. C) "Clockface" -- a plant with a mutation in the CYCLOIDEA gene. D) "Suspense" -- a plant with a mutation in the LEAFY gene.
16) Flowering can be regulated by light, temperature, gibberellin levels, or internal factors. What
do all of these different flowering pathways have in common? A) All four pathways result in a decrease in LEAFY ( LFY) expression, which induces flowering. B) All four pathways result in an increase in CONSTANS ( CO) expression, which induces flowering. C) All four pathways result in an increase in LEAFY ( LFY) expression, which induces flowering. D) All four pathways result in a decrease in CONSTANS ( CO) expression, which induces flowering.
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17) A seed that lands in the forest soil is homozygous mutant for the LEAFY ( LFY) gene, and as
a result does not produce any functional LEAFY protein. What do you predict will happen during the development of this seed? A) It will germinate and grow vegetatively, but will never produce flowers. B) It will fail to germinate. C) It will germinate and immediately produce flowers. D) It will germinate and grow vegetatively. It will only develop flowers if it is from a species regulated by the autonomous flowering pathway.
18) A seed that lands in the forest soil is homozygous mutant for the CONSTANS ( CO) gene,
and as a result does not produce any functional CONSTANS protein. What do you predict will happen during the development of this seed? A) It will germinate and grow vegetatively, but will never produce flowers. B) It will fail to germinate. C) It will germinate and grow vegetatively, and then it will produce flowers earlier than wildtype. D) It will germinate and grow vegetatively. If it is from a photoperiodic species, it will fail to produce flowers.
19) How could you monitor flower determination in a plant that is mutant for all three class E
SEP genes? A) You cannot, because the class E mutant cannot make proper flowers. B) Look for formation of sepals and petals. C) Measure levels of SEP protein. D) Measure levels of LEAFY and AP1 proteins.
20) Evolutionarily, floral parts represent modified A) stems. B) leaves. C) roots. D) stolons. E) buds.
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21) Ovules develop within the ovary, which is located in the swollen lower portion of which
floral organ? A) anther B) stamen C) filament D) stigma E) pistil
22) Which of the following is not a floral structure? A) endosperm B) calyx C) corolla D) stigma E) style
23) Your botany instructor likes to tell nerdy jokes, like this: "I wanted to buy a pink Toyota
Corolla, but the dealer only had a green Calyx available." Impress your instructor with a clever response to this joke. A) "Oh, I would have chosen the blue Receptacle." B) "Those are great cars, but the pinecone tires don't roll very well." C) "Me too! But I could only afford the yellow Androecium." D) "The factory must have run out of class A genes."
24) A researcher is investigating the morphology of complete flowers. Which of the following
organs must his flowers contain? A) calyx, corolla, receptacle, and carpels B) calyx, corolla, carpels, and ovules C) calyx, corolla, stamens, and anthers D) calyx, corolla, carpels, and pistils E) calyx, corolla, androecium, and gynoecium
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25) A genus of primarily wind-pollinated plants includes one unusual species that has evolved to
be pollinated by insects. Several morphological changes have accompanied this adaptation. The _________ are more colorful, there is a nectary at the base of the _________, the _________ are shorter and produce sticky pollen, and the _________ are stickier for enhanced pollen capture. A) petals; stamens; sepals; carpels B) petals; sepals; stamens; carpels C) stamens; carpels; petals; sepals D) petals; sepals; carpels; stamens
26) Some species of orchids attract pollinating Hymenoptera (bees and wasps) with flowers that
closely mimic the appearance of a female insect. As the male attempts to mate with the flower, he becomes loaded with pollen, helping the plant to reproduce. If one of these orchid plants acquired a loss-of-function mutation in a CYCLOIDEA-like gene, what do you predict might happen? A) The mutation would quickly spread through the population. B) The mutant plants would have fewer available resources to devote to nectar production. C) The mutant plants would attract larger numbers of pollinating male insects. D) The mutation would fail to spread in the population.
27) Microspore mother cells produce microspores. What do microspores then develop into? A) egg cells B) pollen grains C) synergids D) endosperm E) megaspores
28) Which of the following statements about the angiosperm embryo sac is FALSE? A) It contains eight nuclei. B) It is the gametophyte generation of the plant. C) The nuclei within the embryo sac are diploid. D) The synergids flank the egg cell. E) The embryo sac nuclei are the product of mitotic division of a megaspore.
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29) Which structure contains the angiosperm egg? A) style B) endosperm C) anther D) embryo sac E) stigma
30) You are a landscape architect working on the grounds of a large estate. After you plant a
dozen trees, the owner says, "There's been a mistake. The flowers on some of these willow trees look totally different! I specifically asked for Salix alba. You must have planted two different species." You refer to your tree guide, and read: "Salix alba - species of willow native to Europe and Asia, noted for the white undersides of leaves. Insect pollinated, dioecious. Grows 10-30m tall." How do you respond to the client? A) "Sorry about that sir, I will dig up the wrong trees right away." B) "Don't worry, the trees with the smaller flowers just haven't undergone phase change yet." C) "Don't worry, when the shorter trees reach full size, they will grow the other kind of flower." D) "Don't worry, Salix alba is dioecious, meaning each tree has either male or female flowers. That is why they look different."
31) Thanks to a novel recessive mutation, a certain plant species has begun to invade colder
Arctic regions outside of its normal range. However, this cold-tolerant mutation has not yet become fixed in the population. A second mutation arises that promotes self-pollination. Do you predict that the self-pollination allele will be selected for in the Arctic regions? Why or why not? A) Yes. The self-pollinated plant is more likely to maintain the cold-tolerant mutation, and plants in the Arctic are unlikely to be visited by pollinators. B) No. Outcrossing is always beneficial, since it enhances genetic diversity. C) No. Plants that produce flowers must be cross-pollinated for proper seed development. D) Cannot make a prediction from the information given. It depends on whether the plant is normally insect-pollinated or wind-pollinated.
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32) Which of these characteristics would most likely discourage self-pollination in a flower with
both stamens and pistils? A) many more stamens than pistils B) long pistils and short stamens C) long stamens and short pistils D) wind pollination E) determinant plants
33) Oaks, birches and corn produce both staminate and pistillate flowers on the same plant. What
term describes this type of plant? A) monoecious B) dioecious C) hermaphroditic D) complete E) determinant
34) Flowering plants use animals or wind to transfer_________ between flowers. A) microspores B) megaspores C) ovules D) seeds E) pollen
35) In a wind-pollinated species, which of these floral parts is likely to be inconspicuous or
absent? A) B) C) D) E)
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36) Early seed plants were pollinated by_________, as are present-day conifers. A) beetles B) bees C) trilobites D) wind E) water
37) Which of these characteristics does not promote outcrossing in flowering plants? A) self-incompatibility B) dioecism C) monoecism D) physical separation of flower parts E) apomixis
38) Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to attract pollinators to a flower? A) the amount of nectar B) odor C) color of the flower in visible light D) color of the flower in UV light E) taste of the ovules
39) Which of the following statements about plant reproduction is incorrect? A) Monoecious plants can have male and female flowers on the same plant. B) Dioecious plants have male and female flowers on different plants. C) Self-pollinating angiosperms are usually adapted to stable habitats. D) Outcrossing promotes genetic diversity. E) Self-pollinated plants must be visited by pollinators for fertilization to occur.
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40) Some flowers have distinctive patterns that only reflect ultraviolet light and therefore are
invisible to humans. Which statement about such markings is not correct? A) The ultraviolet patterns are highly visible and attractive to bees. B) Carotenoid pigments are responsible for the ultraviolet patterns. C) The ultraviolet patterns often form a conspicuous central bull's eye or identify the best landing sites. D) The ultraviolet patterns repel birds and bats from the flowers. E) Flowers with ultraviolet patterns usually appear yellow or orange to humans.
41) Which of these is not an example of coevolution between flowers and pollinating bees? A) Bees have tongues to lap up nectar. B) Some bees are hairy to collect and carry pollen. C) Flowers have ultraviolet markings visible to bees but invisible to most other insects. D) Some flowers are bright red with long tubes to hold nectar. E) Bees have strong preferences for particular types of flowers and remember where the
plants are located.
42) Many plants devote significant resources to growing colorful, fragrant flowers filled with
nectar. What does this illustrate the importance of? A) nutrient storage in seeds B) long-term nutrient storage in perennial plants C) outcrossing D) chemical signaling among plants
43) You and your neighbor each have a holly bush in your yards. You carefully water and care
for your bush, but it fails to produce berries. Your neighbor, on the other hand, neglects his holly, yet it produces gorgeous red berries each year. Finally, in frustration, you replace your holly with a rose bush. The next year, your neighbor’s holly bush has no berries at all. What happened? A) Roses compete for the same insect pollinators as holly bushes. B) Holly plants are dioecious. Yours was a male that was needed to pollinate the neighbor’s female. C) Roses secrete a chemical that inhibits the reproduction of neighboring plants. D) The neighbor’s bush became infected with the same disease that yours had.
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44) What process results in the formation of the endosperm and the embryo in angiosperms? A) alternation of generations B) hydrolysis C) determinate growth D) double fertilization E) secondary growth
45) Pollination begins when pollen is transferred from the_________ to the_________ of a
flower. A) B) C) D) E)
anther; ovary anther; receptacle anther; stigma stigma; embryo sac synergid; egg
46) Which step is not involved in the fertilization of angiosperm flowers? A) Pollen is transported to a stigma of a flower. B) When pollen reaches the stigma of a flower, it begins to grow a pollen tube that
pierces the style. C) The style of the pistil contracts to bring the sperm closer to the embryo sac. D) The pollen tube grows until it reaches the ovule in the ovary. E) Double fertilization produces an embryo and the endosperm.
47) What is the best description of double fertilization in angiosperms? A) One sperm fertilizes the egg, which develops into the embryo; the other sperm
fertilizes the ovary, which becomes the fruit. B) One sperm fertilizes the egg, which develops into the embryo; the other sperm fertilizes the polar nuclei, which forms the endosperm. C) One sperm fertilizes the egg, which develops into the embryo; the other sperm fertilizes the polar nuclei, which forms the seed coat. D) One sperm fertilizes the egg, which develops into the embryo; the other sperm produces the pollen tube. E) One pollen grain fertilizes the embryo sac; the other sperm fertilizes the pollen grain.
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48) “Germination” can refer to two different events A) the arrival of the pollen grain at the ovule, and the growth of the seedling from the
seed. B) the development of the flower, and the growth of the seedling from the seed. C) the growth of the pollen tube into the embryo sac, and the growth of the seedling from the seed. D) the development of the fruit from the ovary, and the growth of the seedling from the seed.
49) You go to the movies with a friend, and he refuses to share your popcorn. He says that he
heard that movie theatre popcorn is triploid. What is the most likely explanation for this? A) Most corn is genetically modified by large agricultural companies. B) The buttery topping on movie theatre popcorn causes chromosomal abnormalities. C) Popcorn is made from a different species of maize than regular corn. D) All popcorn is triploid, because the starchy part of the kernel is triploid endosperm tissue.
50) If a pollen grain fails to generate two sperm cells, what is the most likely result of
pollination? A) Half the seeds would develop fine, but the other half would die. B) The resulting progeny would be haploid. C) The seeds would lack either embryos or endosperm, and so would be nonviable. D) The endosperm would be smaller.
51) What are the "seed leaves" that grow from bulges on the embryo called? A) radicles B) embryo sacs C) petioles D) cotyledons E) ovules
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52) The HOBBIT gene in an embryo helps to control the development of what structure? A) cotyledon B) endosperm C) root D) epicotyl E) root hair
53) Which of the following statements about plant development is true? A) The radial axis of the developing embryo develops before the root-shoot axis. B) A single gene is responsible for the control of all root and shoot formation. C) The MONOPTEROS gene ( MP) stimulates chlorophyll synthesis in seeds. D) Gibberellic acid is important in root-shoot axis formation. E) Cells nearest to the suspensor ultimately form the root.
54) What do the two daughter cells generated by the first asymmetric division of the plant zygote
become? A) the suspensor and the embryo B) the epicotyl and the hypocotyl C) the root and the shoot D) the egg and pollen E) the xylem and the phloem
55) Which of the following statements about plant embryo development is correct? A) The suspensor forms from the shoot apical meristem before development of the root
apical meristem. B) The development of the shoot and root apical meristems is controlled independently. C) The plant hormone abscisic acid is important in the development of the shoot-root axis. D) The protoderm establishes the procambium tissue in the young plant embryo.
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56) What does the globular stage of plant embryo development give rise to? A) a heart-shaped dicot embryo B) the suspensor of the germinating seed C) a double monocot embryo D) the monocot scutellum E) the rhizoid of Fucus
57) What did experiments with the brown alga Fucus help to determine? A) The cytoplasm is evenly distributed throughout the algal zygote. B) The thallus anchors the alga to the surface on which it lives. C) Light and gravity do not affect rhizoid orientation. D) Magnesium gradients are important for cell wall formation. E) A cell wall is required for the zygote to "remember" where a rhizoid should form.
58) Which structure can still develop normally in an embryo with mutations in both the
SHOOTMERISTEMLESS ( stm) gene and the HOBBIT gene? A) root cap B) shoot apical meristem C) root apical meristem D) leaf primordia E) cotyledons
59) What is the name of the meristematic tissue that gives rise to future vascular tissue? A) procambium B) cork cambium C) ground meristem D) dermal tissue E) protoderm
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60) What is the name of the elongated structure that links the embryo to the nutrient tissue of the
seed? A) B) C) D) E)
suspensor cotyledon epicotyl style ovule
61) Which of these structures does not begin development during embryogenesis? A) apical meristem B) vascular tissue C) floral primordia D) leaf primordial E) ground tissue
62) Which of these is not part of a seed? A) endosperm B) embryo C) diploid cells D) seed coat E) fruit
63) Endosperm tissue of angiosperms has what ploidy level? A) n B) 2n C) 3n D) 4n E) 8n
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64) Germination requires the use of metabolic reserves in the seed. Which of these compartments
contains starch used to fuel early seedling growth? A) amyloplasts B) protoplasts C) chloroplasts D) chromoplasts E) mitochondria
65) Which of the following is not a feature of a seed? A) It contains a protective coat formed from the outer layers of ovule cells. B) The embryo is surrounded by nutritive tissue or has cotyledons that contain nutritive
tissue. C) It contains a large percentage of water to support the embryo. D) It is a complex structure that allows the embryo to be dispersed to distant sites. E) Environmental signals such as light or temperature can trigger germination.
66) Why do oils form a significant part of the nutritional reserves in many seeds? A) Oils help keep the embryo hydrated, allowing the seed to survive in dry habitats. B) The oils reduce the density of the seed and allow for water dispersal. C) Oils contain more mineral nutrients than carbohydrates. D) Oils store twice as much energy as an equivalent mass of starch. E) Hormones diffuse more quickly through oils.
67) What is the term for the single cotyledon within the kernels of cereal grains? A) aleurone B) hypocotyl C) dicot D) scutellum E) amyloplast
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68) What is the portion of a dicot seedling below the cotyledons called? A) internode B) epicotyl C) hypocotyl D) plumule E) subcotyl
69) Stratification refers to the extended exposure to_________ that is required for some seeds to
germinate. A) long wavelengths of light B) low temperatures C) high relative humidity D) short daylengths E) clay soil particles
70) Which structure does not represent a mode of vegetative reproduction? A) runners B) rhizoids C) adventitious plantlets D) suckers E) rhizomes F) stolons
71) What are plants that flower only once before they die, normally after two seasons of growth,
called? A) B) C) D) E)
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72) Which part of the seed produces hydrolytic enzymes that break down the starchy endosperm
during seed germination? A) scutellum B) amyloplasts C) aleurone layer D) plumule E) coleorhiza
73) When a seed germinates, the embryo emerges from its dormancy and begins which phase of
the plant life cycle? A) sporophyte generation B) gametophyte generation C) dicot generation D) monocot generation E) alternate generation
74) Which of the following statements about the epicotyl is true? A) It remains in the ground after a seed has germinated. B) It is the portion of the stem axis that is directly below the cotyledons. C) The shoot apical meristem of a seedling is located just above it. D) It takes up most of the volume within a monocot or dicot seed. E) It forms immediately above the secondary roots of a seedling.
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75) Despite its name, Kentucky Bluegrass is a widespread turfgrass used for lawns throughout
the United States. In some regions, strains have developed desirable disease-resistant properties. However, Kentucky Bluegrass typically develops by apomixis. Plant breeders say this creates both a challenge and an opportunity for engineering novel strains. Why? A) In apomixis, new plants develop from underground horizontal stems. This allows for fast propagation of new strains, but all progeny are identical to the parent. B) Plants that develop by apomixis are naturally tolerant of herbicides. As a result, herbicide tolerance genes cannot be used as selectable markers for a transgene, but herbicides can be used to keep the resulting culture pure. C) Since the progeny of apomixis are triploid, hybrids have an imbalance of parental genes. However, this may be desirable if a higher proportion of one allele is beneficial. D) If a seed develops by apomixis, it will be identical to its parent. Hybridization with another strain requires special techniques. However, once a hybrid strain is developed, apomixis ensures its reliable propagation.
76) Dandelions develop seeds by apomixis. What benefits does this strategy provide over
vegetative or sexual reproduction? A) Apomixis makes the dandelions more resistant to herbicides. B) Apomixis provides the benefits of seed dispersal, while maintaining a genome adapted to a given climate. C) Apomixis is beneficial in sheltered areas where wind pollination would be difficult. D) Apomixis is beneficial for plants that attract a diverse mix of bees and other pollinators.
77) Which tissue can not divide to give rise to identical progeny in a plant that reproduces
asexually? A) root B) stem C) leaf D) pollen grain E) ovule
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78) Which of the following statements about plant tissue culture is false? A) Virus-free crop species can be propagated by culturing meristems. B) Individual cells can give rise to whole plants through tissue cultures. C) Synthetic hormones can be used to selectively promote root or shoot formation. D) Callus tissue can only form roots, not shoots. E) A callus is a mass of undifferentiated cells.
79) Browsing through a seed catalog, you are tempted to order several beautiful floral varieties,
but worry that you will spend too much on your garden every year. Which plants should you buy? A) herbaceous perennials, which will come back year after year B) woody perennials, which require little space and few resources C) annuals, which will come back year after year D) biennials, which will last twenty years before they die
80) Heirloom plants are treasured for their flavorful produce and true-breeding progeny that
allow gardeners to avoid repeatedly purchasing seed from agribusiness conglomerates. What special effort is required to save seed from heirloom biennials such as carrots? A) Since carrots produce large roots, they do not devote many resources to seed development. The roots must be trimmed before collecting seed. B) Since carrots build up so much beta-carotene, they do not devote many resources to seed development. A yellow carrot variety will produce better seeds than a darker one. C) Since carrots are related to wild weeds, they are often cross-pollinated. The green top must be bagged to ensure self-pollination. D) Biennials do not produce seed until the second year of growth. Although carrot roots are normally harvested after one season, they must be allowed to grow another year for seed collection.
81) Which of the following events is not a characteristic of successful seed germination? A) The radicle breaks through the seed coat. B) The shoot becomes photosynthetic. C) The embryo becomes desiccated. D) New growth occurs at the meristems. E) The seedling orients itself relative to gravity.
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82) Your friend has never gardened before. When none of the seeds he planted germinate, he
asks you to suggest why. Which is the best explanation of what occurred? A) The monocot seeds he used were only able to produce a single cotyledon each. B) The seeds were planted too deeply and used up their reserves before reaching the surface and sunlight. C) The suspensor failed to develop into an embryo within each seed. D) All seeds require fire in order to germinate. E) Seeds take more than one season to germinate.
83) Why can scratching or chipping the seed coat speed up the germination of hard-coated seeds
like alfalfa? A) The mechanical stress activates hydrolytic enzymes. B) Water and oxygen can enter the seed to reach the embryo more quickly. C) Carbon dioxide can enter the seed and stimulate photosynthesis. D) Bacteria or fungi can enter the seed and release growth factors. E) Damage to the seed coat triggers the aleurone layer to release amylase.
84) Scientists have confirmed by carbon dating that seeds dormant for up to 2000 years can
successfully germinate. Based on the requirements for germination, what research expedition should you join in order to retrieve some ancient but viable seeds? A) A trip to Indonesia, where the civet cat eats and expels coffee beans, producing a gourmet coffee known as Kopi Luwak. B) A trip to the Irish marsh, where wet peat creates anaerobic conditions, and your colleagues hope to unearth a bog mummy. C) A trip to the Burgess Shale in Canada, where your paleontologist colleagues have found fossils from the Cambrian era. D) A trip to the arid Dead Sea region, where your historian colleagues have found a storeroom of wax-sealed jars.
85) Choose the LETTER of the best match from the following: A. hypocotyl B. endosperm C. scutellum D. radicle E. epicotyl
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85.2)
The stem axis of the embryo below the cotyledons in some seedlings.
85.3)
A single cotyledon found in the kernels of cereal grains.
85.4)
Nutritive tissue within angiosperm seeds.
85.5)
The part of the stem axis that extends above the cotyledons in some seedlings.
86) Pea plants are self-pollinators. What can you further deduce about peas? (Check all that
apply.) A) Peas will be more resistant to garden pests than other plants. B) Peas are less likely to invade highly variable natural environments than other plants. C) A gardener planning to collect heirloom seeds can plant different varieties of peas
near each other. D) Peas will be more resistant to new plant diseases. E) To perform his pea cross-pollination experiments, Gregor Mendel must have first removed the stamens from flowers to prevent self-pollination.
87) The spider plant, Chlorophytym comosum, is a popular houseplant for both its appearance
and its air-purifying capabilities. It’s also one of the most cost-effective house plants to buy because it is quite easy to propagate new plants from your initial purchase. As the spider plant grows, you’ll see leaves growing directly out of the soil, but you’ll also see shoots grow out of the soil and sprout little plantlets (sometimes called spiderettes) at their ends. If you cut these spiderettes from the stolon and place them in a cup of water, you’ll see roots form directly from the shoot. Shortly afterward you can plant these little spider plants in their own pots. What kind of reproduction is being described for the spider plant? A) Vegetative growth B) Apomixis C) Self-pollination D) Protoplast regeneration E) Double fertilization
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88) Which of the following is an event in the typical life cycle of a flowering plant? A) A megagametophyte makes polar nuclei by mitosis. B) A microgametophyte makes sperm by meiosis C) A microgametophyte fertilizes an egg to form a zygote. D) A megagametophyte is transported to another flower by wind or an animal. E) A microgametophyte fertilizes a megagametophyte to form an embryo.
89) Researchers studying orange trees, Citrus sinensis, observed that application of gibberellic
acid to the shoot apical meristem (SAM) inhibits flowering by continuing vegetative development of the SAM, even in plants that have produced fruit in previous years. However, when applied to a citrus bud coincident with sepal formation, gibberellic acid no longer has an inhibitory effect on flowering. What process is being inhibited by gibberellic acid in this case? A) Floral determination B) Phase change C) Double fertilization D) Pollination E) Meiosis
90) Corn, Zea mays, is a monoecious plant with imperfect flowers (called tassels and silks) that
relies primarily on wind pollination. The staminate tassels are located at the top of the shoot, while the pistillate silks are found lower down on the plant. Which gene will NOT be expressed in the tassels? A) Zea mays APETALA1 ( ZAP1), a class A gene B) Zea mays MADS16 (ZMM16), a class B gene C) SILKY1 (Sl1), a class B gene D) Zea mays AGAMOUS1 (ZAG1), a class C gene E) Zea mays MADS8 (ZMM8), a class E gene
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 40 1) D 2) E 3) E 4) B 5) A 6) C 7) B 8) A 9) D 10) A 11) A 12) E 13) D 14) B 15) B 16) C 17) A 18) D 19) D 20) B 21) E 22) A 23) C 24) E 25) B 26) D 27) B 28) C 29) D 30) D 31) A 32) B 33) A 34) E 35) D 36) D 37) E
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38) E 39) E 40) D 41) D 42) C 43) B 44) D 45) C 46) C 47) B 48) C 49) D 50) C 51) D 52) C 53) E 54) A 55) B 56) A 57) E 58) E 59) A 60) A 61) C 62) E 63) C 64) A 65) C 66) D 67) D 68) C 69) B 70) B 71) B 72) C 73) A 74) C 75) D 76) B 77) D
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78) D 79) A 80) D 81) C 82) B 83) B 84) D 85) Section Break 85.1) A 85.2) C 85.3) B 85.4) E 86) [B, C, E] 87) A 88) A 89) A 90) A
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Chapter 41 Student name:__________ 1) To diagnose and treat a disease, a doctor must evaluate the patient’s body at multiple levels
of organization. Identify the level of organization relevant to each stage of the process described below. 1. As part of Fred’s annual physical, the doctor examined his skin, fingernails and hair for signs of disease. Noticing an unusual lesion on his neck, the doctor referred Fred to a dermatologist. 2. Upon observing the lesion, the dermatologist said, “Yes, this looks like it could be a squamous cell carcinoma, a tumor in the epidermis of the skin.” 3. The dermatologist carefully examined all of Fred’s skin for signs of additional tumors, but did not find any. 4. The dermatologist removed the lesion and sent it for a biopsy. Under the microscope, the pathologist saw some cells with abnormal morphology and confirmed a diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma. However, he noted that the margins of the lesion were clear of abnormal cells, and the tumor had been successfully removed. A) organism, cell, tissue, organ B) organ system, tissue, organ, cell C) organ system, organ, tissue, cell D) organism, cell, organ system, tissue
2) Which of the following is not a level of organization in the vertebrate body? A) cells B) bones C) tissues D) organs E) organ systems
3) It’s the ninth inning, and the bases are loaded. As the pitcher winds up to throw the ball, how
does each tissue in his arm contribute to this critical pitch? The_________ of his fingers grips the ball. His_________ sends instructions that trigger his_________ to contract. His_________ provides stability and transmits the force produced. A) ectoderm; ectoderm; mesoderm; endoderm B) connective tissue; nerve tissue; muscle tissue; epithelial tissue C) epithelium; ectoderm; mesoderm; endoderm D) epithelial tissue; nerve tissue; muscle tissue; connective tissue
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4) If at the last minute the pitcher decides to throw a curveball, which tissue responds first? A) epithelial tissue B) ectoderm C) nerve tissue D) muscle tissue
5) In adult vertebrates, which of these is not one of the four principal kinds of primary tissues? A) epithelial B) connective C) supportive D) muscle E) nerve
6) Which of the following are the fundamental embryonic tissues called the "germ layers"? A) tissues, organs, and organ systems B) mesoderm, muscle, and tissue C) ectoderm, endoderm, and exoskeleton D) mesoderm, endoderm, and ectoderm E) mesoderm, exoderm, and hydroderm
7) Why are epithelial membranes not very thick? A) Epithelial tissues are required to support other cells growing on top of the tissue. B) Epithelial tissues play a critical role in transport, and must be thin to allow diffusion
to occur. C) Epithelial tissues can only reach a certain thickness because their growth is constrained by microtubules inside the cell membrane. D) Thick epithelial tissues would collapse due to the drying effect of the environment. E) Epithelial tissues are programmed to stop dividing after only a few cell cycles.
8) What are epithelial cells with a flat, irregular shape and tapered edges called? A) columnar B) pseudostratified C) squamous D) cuboidal E) stratified
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9) Which of the following types of epithelia would be likely to make up the tubules of the
kidney? A) cuboidal B) squamous C) columnar and squamous D) columnar E) pseudostratified
10) Which type of cells line the lungs and blood vessels? A) simple squamous epithelium B) simple cuboidal epithelium C) simple columnar epithelium D) stratified squamous epithelium E) keratinized squamous epithelium
11) Goblet cell hyperplasia is associated with asthma. Based on their function, what is the likely
outcome of an overabundance of goblet cells? A) decreased mucus production B) excess mucus production C) excess absorption D) decreased absorption
12) A recent study suggests the surprising idea that intestinal goblet cells present food antigens to
dendritic cells to induce tolerance to food molecules. Thus, goblet cell dysfunction may be a cause of food allergies. If this is true, it illustrates the importance of coordination between which two organ systems? A) immune system and circulatory system B) circulatory system and endocrine system C) digestive system and endocrine system D) digestive system and immune system
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13) The glands of vertebrates are derived from_________ epithelium. A) invaginated B) stratified C) endocrine D) scarified E) keratinized
14) If the connection between a gland and the epithelial membrane is maintained as a duct, the
gland is called a(n)_________ gland. A) exocrine B) endocrine C) lymph D) sebaceous E) adrenal
15) Which of the following would not provide protection to the epidermis? A) keratinized epithelium B) simple squamous epithelium C) stratified squamous epithelium D) layers of dead squamous cells
16) Which of the following epithelial tissues secretes mucous and is dense with cilia? A) cuboidal B) squamous C) simple D) stratified E) pseudostratified columnar
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17) A friend asks you how exocrine glands differ from endocrine glands. She knows that both
form from invaginated epithelium. How do you respond? A) Exocrine and endocrine glands are essentially the same, both produce products that are secreted to the skin's surface. B) Exocrine glands produce hormones which enter the blood stream, while endocrine glands secrete sweat and oil directly to the surface of the skin. C) Endocrine glands produce hormones which enter the blood stream, while exocrine glands secrete sweat and oil directly to the surface of the skin. D) Exocrine glands are found in the thoracic cavity while endocrine glands are located in the pleural cavity. E) The liver is an endocrine gland that secretes directly into epithelial tissues. The pituitary gland is an exocrine gland that secretes into the blood stream.
18) Connective tissue includes adipose tissue, tendons, bone, cartilage, and blood. What do all
these tissues have in common? A) They all consist of few cells sparsely distributed in large amounts of extracellular material. B) They all provide structural support to the body. C) They are all hard tissues. D) They all physically bind other tissues together.
19) The most abundant protein in mammals is collagen. This strong, ropelike molecule is
particularly abundant in which tissue? A) heart muscle B) spinal cord C) ligaments D) skeletal muscle
20) When collagen is hydrolyzed it forms gelatin, the main ingredient of a jiggly dessert adored
by children. What parts of a cow provide a rich source of collagen? A) heart and other muscles B) brain C) glandular organs D) skin, tendons, and cartilage
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21) You are researching a family with a heritable disease whose symptoms include hyper-flexible
joints, pliable skin, stretchy ligaments, and fragile muscles that tear easily. You plan to use genetic testing to determine the cause of the disease. Which gene do you sequence first? A) actin B) epidermal growth factor C) myosin II heavy chain D) collagen
22) All connective tissues share which of the following structural features?
I-contain cells II-contain a matrix filled with extracellular material III-contain sarcomere units A) I and III B) II only C) II and III D) I, II, and II E) I and II
23) In humans, which of these structures is not made of cartilage? A) tip of the nose B) outer ear C) intervertebral disks of the backbone D) knee cap E) larynx
24) Which of these is not part of loose connective tissue? A) collagen B) elastin C) reticulin D) chondroitin E) adipose cells
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25) Your professor asks you to explain the difference between a tendon and a ligament. How do
you answer? A) Tendons secure muscles to other muscles and ligaments secure bones to other bones. B) Tendons and ligaments have the same function but are found in different areas of the body. C) Tendons secure muscles to bones and ligaments secure muscles to other muscles. D) Tendons are just enlarged ligaments. E) Tendons secure muscles to bones and ligaments secure bones to other bones.
26) What tissue type produces the tough coverings that package organs? A) loose connective tissue B) dense irregular connective tissue C) collagen D) dense regular connective tissue E) adipose
27) Which connective tissue has a fluid matrix? A) adipose B) blood C) cartilage D) dense connective tissue E) loose connective tissue
28) Which of the following statements about bone and its structure is NOT correct? A) Bone contains an extracellular matrix of collagen fibers and inorganic calcium
phosphate crystals. B) Bone tissue is not living because it contains inorganic calcium phosphate crystals. C) Bone tissue is a special form of connective tissue. D) Bone tissue serves as a reservoir for calcium and phosphate ions. E) Bone marrow is a reservoir for blood stem cells
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29) Vertebrate locomotion results from the contraction of muscles anchored to what other tissue? A) bone B) an exoskeleton C) each other D) nerves E) the plasma membrane
30) Of which material is cartilage composed? A) glycoproteins and calcium phosphate B) glycoproteins and collagen fibers C) collagen fibers and osteocytes D) osteocytes and glycoproteins E) osteocytes and calcium phosphate
31) Which is another name for bone cells that remain alive even after the extracellular matrix
becomes hardened with calcium phosphate crystals? A) osteocytes B) erythrocytes C) leukocytes D) fibrocytes E) chondrocytes
32) A patient has a disease with symptoms in the outer ear, nose, trachea and spine. Which cells
are most likely to have a problem? A) leukocytes B) erythrocytes C) chondrocytes D) osteocytes E) fibroblasts
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33) Which is NOT a cell or fiber type found in loose connective tissues? A) macrophages B) mast cells C) adipose cells D) collagen fibers E) chondrocytes
34) Muscles can carry out their unique motor function because they are the only cells which
contain actin and myosin. ⊚ true ⊚ false
35) The characteristic that makes the muscle cells unique is the relative abundance and
organization of A) collagen fibers. B) gelatinous mass. C) actin and myosin fibers. D) keratin fibers. E) fibroblast cells.
36) What feature of cardiac muscle helps the cells coordinate their contraction as a single unit? A) fused cells with multiple nuclei B) covalent bonds between actin and myosin molecules C) intercalated disks rich in gap junctions D) large numbers of motor neurons
37) A scientist is trying to coax stem cells to differentiate into muscle to use as a therapy for
muscular dystrophy. He looks at his Petri dish and is excited to see the cells contracting! The cells appear striated and multinucleate. What type of muscle are they? A) cardiac muscle B) smooth muscle C) involuntary muscle D) skeletal muscle
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38) Which term refers to muscles that are attached to bones, and cause bones to move at their
joints when they contract? A) smooth muscles B) skeletal muscles C) cardiac muscles D) ligament tissues E) involuntary muscles
39) Which of the following types of muscles are striated? A) skeletal and smooth B) cardiac only C) triceps and biceps only D) skeletal and cardiac E) skeletal, smooth, and cardiac
40) Which muscle contraction is involuntary? A) cardiac only B) smooth only C) cardiac and smooth D) skeletal only E) cardiac, smooth, and skeletal
41) The cell body of a motor neuron resides in the spinal cord, but it may control muscles a long
distance away. In a giraffe, the_________ of a leg motor neuron may be six feet long! A) dendrite B) soma C) axon D) node of Ranvier
42) True or false: The axon of a neuron can only communicate with other neuronal cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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43) What are the cells that are specialized to produce and conduct electrochemical impulses
called? A) B) C) D) E)
neurons dendrites axons fibroblasts astrocytes
44) Where is the nucleus of a neuron found? A) axon branches B) companion cell C) cell body D) dendrites E) myelin sheath
45) In your Ph.D. research, you use thin slices of brain tissue to study neuronal signaling. You
attach an electrode to a single neuron, but cannot detect any activity. What is the most likely explanation? A) When you sliced the brain, you disconnected the cell from its dendrites. B) Neurons are not electrically active -- you should be recording neuroglia instead. C) When you sliced the brain, you disconnected the cell from its neuroglia. D) Excessive myelination is blocking inputs to the cell.
46) What structure do myelin sheaths form along? A) axons B) dendrites C) neuroglia D) cell bodies E) ganglia
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47) A recovering stroke patient complained about strange smells in his room, but no cause could
be found. The doctor diagnosed this as phantosmia, or olfactory hallucination, and said it was likely due to stroke-related damage to which tissue? A) nervous system B) olfactory receptors C) sensory systems D) nodes of Ranvier
48) Controversy surrounds the use of zinc-containing nasal sprays as a cold remedy, since they
have been associated with anosmia (loss of smell). If true, this is likely due to the sprays damaging which tissue? A) nervous system B) osmic nerve C) sensory systems D) neuroglial system
49) When we watch Olympic athletes perform, we are admiring the expert control of which
systems working together? A) skeletal, endocrine, and circulatory systems B) nervous, circulatory, and skeletal systems C) muscular, integumentary, and circulatory systems D) nervous, muscular, and skeletal systems
50) A bride-to-be is enjoying a manicure and a facial before her hair is styled for the wedding.
What organ system is being pampered? A) lymphatic system B) integumentary system C) endocrine system D) digestive system
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51) Which of the following systems is NOT directly involved with regulation and maintenance of
the body's chemistry? A) the digestive system B) the circulatory system C) the respiratory system D) the urinary system E) the reproductive system
52) Which of the following is most likely to function as a defense system? A) the integumentary system B) the musculoskeletal system C) the endocrine system D) the sensory system E) the nervous system
53) A couple is having difficulty conceiving a child, and they decide to see a fertility specialist.
Which two organ systems will the specialist examine in this couple? A) reproductive and nervous systems B) endocrine and urinary systems C) reproductive and endocrine systems D) reproductive and urinary systems
54) Damage to the integument may trigger action by cells of which system? A) reproductive system B) immune system C) endocrine system D) muscular system
55) Homeostasis is maintained using negative feedback loops. Which part of a negative feedback
loop detects conditions? A) response B) effector C) sensor D) integrating center E) stimulus
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56) Match the letter of each example from childbirth to the appropriate component of a positive
feedback loop. A. pituitary gland secretes oxytocin, which acts on the uterus B. uterine contractions increase C. fetus is pushed against uterine opening D. receptors detect stretch E. brain receives and compares stretch information
56.2)
Effector
56.3)
Integrating Center
56.4)
Response
56.5)
Stimulus
57) Adult giraffes can be up to 20 ft. tall, and thus require special adaptations to maintain
appropriate blood pressure. One adaptation is the rete mirabile, a group of blood vessels that form a web or net-like structure to slow blood flow.
57.1)
The giraffe, as the tallest living land animal, has several adaptations for its height. To prevent blood from pooling in the head when it bends down to drink, the jugular veins of a giraffe have multiple one-way valves. Furthermore, a web of arteries and veins in the neck called the rete mirabile (“wonderful net”) slows the flow of blood into the brain. These specializations of the_________ act as mechanisms to maintain_________. A) nervous system; homeothermy B) nervous system; temperature homeostasis C) circulatory system; blood pressure homeostasis D) circulatory system; pH homeostasis
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57.2)
Although especially useful to the giraffe, the rete mirabile is similar to a countercurrent heat exchange system in other related, less evolved, mammals. Thus a mechanism for _________ homeostasis is likely to have evolved from a mechanism previously used for _________ homeostasis. A) blood pressure; pH B) temperature; blood pressure C) blood pressure; temperature D) pH; blood pressure
58) Low body temperature triggers adaptive responses to conserve heat. Once the integrating
center detects that body temperature has risen, it will decrease these responses. What does this exemplify? A) adaptation B) negative feedback C) positive feedback D) acclimatization
59) Due to a mutation in a smooth muscle gene, the blood vessels in the skin of a certain strain of
mouse become dilated when temperature falls below a certain point. Based on the likely outcome of this mutation, what precautions should the researchers take to maintain the health of their mice? A) The mouse room should be maintained at a cooler than normal temperature. B) The mouse room should be consistently maintained at a warm temperature. C) The mice will have weak muscles, and should be provided with exercise wheels. D) The mice will be susceptible to high blood pressure, and should not be provided with exercise wheels.
60) Which statement describes a home heating and cooling system that functions in a
homeostatic way? A) The temperature always stays the same. B) The heater never comes on. C) The heater is on at a constant rate. D) The thermostat keeps the temperature within a narrow range.
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61) Mechanisms that help generate heat and those that allow release of heat are an example
of_________. Collectively, these mechanisms increase the_________ of body temperature. A) endothermic regulation; flexibility B) poikilothermic regulation; stability C) ectothermic regulation; flexibility D) antagonist effectors; stability
62) Why do some bread recipes suggest letting the dough rise in a warm place after kneading? A) Warming the bread slightly before cooking it in a hot oven stretches out the gluten. B) The metabolic rate of yeast speeds up at warmer temperatures, so more carbon
dioxide is released and the dough rises more quickly. C) The metabolic rate of yeast slows down at warmer temperatures, so more sugar is maintained and the bread is sweeter. D) Yeast cannot carry out fermentation at room temperature.
63) What is the approximate A) 0.2 B) 2 C) 5 D) 10 E) 20
value for most enzymes?
64) Some animals allow their body temperature to conform to the environment. What is the old
term for these animals, and what is the newer preferred term? A) heterotherms; homeotherms B) homeotherms; endotherms C) isotherms; poikilotherms D) poikilotherms; ectotherms E) endotherms; homeostasis
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65) Which of these is not a method used by ectotherms to affect body temperature? A) countercurrent heat exchange B) basking in the sun C) shivering D) dilation or contraction of blood vessels E) increasing metabolic rate
66) Shivering is used by mammals to increase body heat when the hypothalamus detects a body
temperature below the set point. Although the behavior involves muscles, the outcome is not movement but "wasted" energy in the form of heat. This is an example of nature reusing a body structure for an additional purpose.
66.1)
A scout troop sets out on a backpacking trip. Soon, an unexpected storm gets them drenched, and the troop leaders discover that few boys have packed warm clothes. Several scouts start shivering uncontrollably, a sign of hypothermia. The leaders call off the trip and the group heads back to their cars. This shivering response was A) an attempt to produce heat by burning large amounts of ATP. B) a maladaptive response that wastes energy. C) an attempt to produce heat by creating friction with their clothing. D) a social signal that evolved to alert adults to take action.
66.2)
If the boys progressed into full-blown hypothermia, this would be a failure of which regulatory system? A) endodermic regulation B) temperature homeostasis C) ectothermic regulation D) glucose homeostasis
67) Dogs use panting to dissipate excess heat. What part of their brain detects the need for this
response and sends the signal to pant? A) hippocampus B) prefrontal cortex C) amygdala D) hypothalamus
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68) When a dog's brain detects the need to dissipate excess heat and the dog begins to pant, the
brain acts as the_________, and the panting behavior acts as the_________. A) stimulator; effector B) integrating center; sensor C) integrating center; effector D) sensor; integrating center
69) After yet another patron dripped sweat on her desk, the clerk at the gym complained, “It’s
gross working at a gym, with everyone sweating all the time.” “Yes,” the manager replied, “and it’s probably costing us more for_________, but I’ll bet we’re saving on_________.” A) towels; heating B) weight machines; treadmills C) the water cooler; air conditioning D) the water cooler; towels
70) If a mammal suffered damage to the temperature sensor in its brain, what would be the
result? A) The integrating center would not receive inputs to compare to the set point. Body
temperature could rise or fall to dangerous levels. B) Only the integumentary system is required to sense temperature changes. Body temperature would remain stable. C) The animal would have to rely on shivering instead of vasoconstriction to maintain body heat. D) The animal would fall back onto a more primitive ectothermic mode of regulation.
71) You are an engineer at a power plant that creates large volumes of hot waste water, which
disrupts the ecosystem of the river it drains into. Another part of the plant requires warm oil, and the plant uses large amounts of energy to heat it. Inspired by countercurrent exchange in whales, you save energy and benefit the environment by A) running the oil pipes under the river after dumping in the hot waste water B) running the oil pipes around the waste water pipes, to allow heat transfer from water to oil C) running the waste water and oil through a single pipe D) adding a sensor, integrating center and effectors to control temperature in both pipes
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72) Which of these methods of heat transfer is not relevant to biological systems? A) radiation B) conduction C) convection D) evaporation E) reflection
73) Thermoregulation depends on monitoring of blood temperature. What structure acts as the
mammalian temperature sensor? A) hypothalamus B) peripheral blood vessels C) adrenal medulla D) anterior pituitary gland E) thyroid
74) If the set point of the hypothalamus were to suddenly rise to 40°C (as in the induction phase
of a fever), what would the initial response of the body be? A) glands release sweat B) muscles contract to cause shivering C) nothing D) body temperature drops E) blood vessels dilate
75) Which of these thermoregulation processes can be sustained for the longest period of time? A) shivering B) sweating C) nonshivering thermogenesis D) hibernation E) fever
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76) Which of these factors would have the least effect on heat transfer processes in animals? A) surface area of the body B) difference between body temperature and ambient temperature C) internal insulation such as blubber D) external insulation such as feathers or fur E) bone density
77) Which of these animals has the highest metabolic rate per unit body mass? A) shrew B) horse C) cat D) human E) elephant
78) Which cells aid in the operation of the nervous system but are unable to conduct nerve
impulses? A) neurons B) intercalated disk C) goblet cells D) neuroglia
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 41 1) B 2) B 3) D 4) C 5) C 6) D 7) B 8) C 9) A 10) A 11) B 12) D 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) E 17) C 18) A 19) C 20) D 21) D 22) E 23) D 24) D 25) E 26) B 27) B 28) B 29) A 30) B 31) A 32) C 33) E 34) FALSE 35) C 36) C 37) D
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38) B 39) D 40) C 41) C 42) FALSE 43) A 44) C 45) A 46) A 47) A 48) C 49) D 50) B 51) E 52) A 53) C 54) B 55) C 56) Section Break 56.1) A 56.2) E 56.3) B 56.4) C 57) Section Break 57.1) C 57.2) C 58) B 59) B 60) D 61) D 62) B 63) B 64) D 65) E 66) Section Break 66.1) A 66.2) B 67) D 68) C 69) C
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70) A 71) B 72) E 73) A 74) B 75) D 76) E 77) A 78) D
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Chapter 42 Student name:__________ 1) In vertebrates, the_________ nervous system is composed of the brain and the spinal cord. A) peripheral B) central C) somatic D) autonomic E) sympathetic
2) What are the branched extensions of a neuron that receive signals called? A) axons B) cell bodies C) dendrites D) oligodendrocytes E) synapses
3) What is the elongated extension of a neuron that nerve impulses travel along? A) axon B) cell body C) dendrite D) oligodendrocyte E) synapse
4) What are examples of cells that support neurons both structurally and functionally? A) dendrites and nodes of Ranvier B) neuroglia and nodes of Ranvier C) Schwann cells and dendrites D) dendrites, nodes of Ranvier, and neuroglia E) Schwann cells, oligodendrocytes, and other neuroglia
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5) You dissect the brain of a mutant mouse and find that parts of the "white matter" look gray.
What is a likely cause? A) defects in myelination B) peripheral nerve damage C) oversized dendrites D) excess myelination E) excess neuronal proliferation
6) Nodes of Ranvier are the spaces between sections of axon enwrapped with myelin. Because
myelin creates an insulating layer that prevents ion flow, the progress of the action potential "jumps" from node to node, thus speeding up transmission down the axon.
6.1) You are studying a gene which, when mutant, causes oligodendrocytes to enwrap shorter
sections of axon, so that nodes of Ranvier are more closely spaced. What is the likely effect on nerve impulses? A) They will travel faster. B) They will travel slower. C) They will increase in amplitude. D) They will decrease in amplitude. E) They will travel laterally across connected axons.
6.2) What other cells should you examine for effects from this mutant gene? A) prefrontal neurons B) gustatory neurons C) cholinergic neurons D) Schwann cells
7) Rapid inward diffusion of
produces a dramatic change in membrane potential. What is
this event called? A) hyperpolarization B) excitatory postsynaptic potential C) saltatory conduction D) monosynaptic reflex E) depolarization
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8) Nerve impulses are electrical signals measured across which structure? A) lipid sheath of Schwann cell B) plasma membrane of neuron C) synapse D) neuromuscular junction
9) The membrane of a resting neuron is most permeable to which of the following ions? A) B) C) D) E)
10) When neurons are not producing electrical signals, there is still a voltage difference across
their membranes. What is this voltage called? A) channel-gate bias B) electrolyte voltage C) equilibrium potential D) resting potential E) ion current
11) Which of the following characteristics are true for an action potential?
I-A threshold potential must be exceeded for an action potential to occur. II-A stimulus either produces a full action potential or none at all. III-During the refractory period it is less likely that stimuli can produce another action potential. A) I only B) I and II C) II and III D) I and III E) I, II, and III
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12) What is the process in which impulses jump from node to node? A) facilitated transmission B) refractory action C) incomplete transfer D) repolarization E) saltatory conduction
13) Which diagram correctly illustrates the distribution of ions in a resting neuron? (Note: A
larger symbol indicates a higher concentration of that ion.)
McGraw Hill A) A B) B C) C D) D
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14) Which figure correctly illustrates the mechanism of action of the sodium-potassium pump?
McGraw Hill A) A B) B C) C D) D
15) What determines the direction of the voltage change that occurs at the postsynaptic
membrane? A) the type of neurotransmitter B) the type of second messenger system used C) the type(s) of ions that travel through opened channels D) the number of ion channels on the postsynaptic membrane
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16) At myelinated areas of the axon (i.e. between nodes of Ranvier), which of the following
statements is true? A) There is an increased number of voltage-gated sodium channels. B) There is increased resistance across the membrane. C) There is increased capacitance across the membrane. D) There is increased transport of potassium across the membrane.
17) Which ion channel is primarily responsible for the action potential? A) the voltage-gated sodium channel B) the voltage-gated potassium channel C) the ligand-gated sodium channel D) the ligand-gated potassium channel E) the nongated sodium channel
18) What diffuses across the narrow synaptic cleft between the presynaptic axon and the
postsynaptic cell to transmit a nerve impulse? A) neurotransmitter B) electrical impulse C) Na+ ion D) vesicle E) action potential
19) Which neurotransmitter is released from a motor neuron at the neuromuscular junction? A) acetylcholine B) GABA C) ephinephrine D) dopamine E) serotonin
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20) When acetylcholine stimulates the opening of ligand-gated ion channels on a postsynaptic
cell, what is this event called? A) neuromuscular junction B) temporal summation C) inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) D) excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) E) synaptic integration
21) What is the name for the gap into which neurotransmitters are released? A) gap junction B) synaptic cleft C) postsynaptic membrane D) presynaptic membrane E) impulse channel
22) Place the following events that occur at the vertebrate neuromuscular junction in the correct
order. I-Depolarization of the muscle fiber membrane. II-Generation of an action potential in the neuron. III-Stimulation of Ca2+ entry into the neuron. IV-Release of acetylcholine into the synapse. A) I, II, III, IV B) III, II, IV, I C) I, III, IV, II D) IV, II,III, I E) II, III, IV, I
23) Which of the following are examples of biogenic amines? A) epinephrine and endorphins B) GABA and serotonin C) epinephrine, dopamine, and GABA D) epinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin E) epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin
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24) Place the following events involved in drug addiction in the correct sequence.
I-The synapse becomes less sensitive, and normal function can only continue in the presence of the drug. II-CNS responds to increased firing by decreasing the number of drug receptors on the cell membrane. III-Drug molecule prevents receptor endocytosis and causes overstimulation of the postsynaptic cell. A) I, II, III B) III, II, I C) II, III, I D) III, I, II
25) Which of the following drugs has been discovered to bind to acetylcholine receptors? A) serotonin reuptake inhibitors B) thorazine C) cocaine D) codeine E) nicotine
26) The hippocampus, amygdala, and hypothalamus are the major components of the_________
system. A) sympathetic B) reflex C) parasympathetic D) limbic E) autonomic
27) The spinal cord is enclosed by the vertebral column and layers of protective membranes.
What are these membranes called? A) neural net B) white matter C) dorsal root D) meninges E) viscera
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28) Damage to the substantia nigra, a specific region of the basal ganglia, can produce the resting
muscle tremors characteristic of what disease? A) epilepsy B) Parkinson disease C) seizures D) Alzheimer disease E) insomnia
29) A region of the brain receives both sensory information from ascending nerve tracts and
motor commands from the cortex and cerebellum. This region plays an important role in motor control. Which region is it? A) basal ganglia B) pituitary gland C) parietal lobe D) thalamus E) medulla oblongata
30) Which area of the cerebral cortex is important for the formulation of thoughts into speech? A) Broca's area B) the pons C) the medulla oblongata D) Wernicke's area E) the cerebellum
31) Which animal phylum lacks a network of nerve cells for gathering information from the
environment? A) Porifera - sponges B) Cnidaria - jellyfish, sea anenomes C) Platyhelminthes -- flatworms D) Nematoda - roundworms E) Mollusca - octopus, squid, clams, snails, and other mollusks
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32) In early vertebrates, which component of the brain was devoted largely to coordinating motor
reflexes? A) thalamus B) forebrain C) midbrain D) hindbrain E) medulla oblongata
33) Where did information processing become increasingly centered in terrestrial vertebrates? A) thalamus B) forebrain C) midbrain D) hindbrain E) medulla oblongata
34) Which region of the CNS listed below is NOT correctly paired with its function? A) Broca's and Wernicke's areas—language and speech B) Hypothalamus—regulates body temperature, appetite, and sleep C) Cerebellum—relay station for ascending and descending tracts D) Corpus callosum—connects the two brain hemispheres E) Hippocampus—memory
35) Which major regions compose the contemporary vertebrate brain? A) rhombencephalon and prosencephalon only B) mesencephalon and rhombencephalon only C) prosencephalon and metencephalon only D) metencephalon, rhombencephalon, and prosencephalon E) rhombencephalon, mesencephalon, and prosencephalon
36) Which of the following structures is NOT a component of the hindbrain? A) pons B) medulla oblongata C) ascending tracts D) cerebellum
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37) What is the primary function of the hindbrain in vertebrates? A) temperature control B) integration of sensory data C) memory storage D) control of the heartbeat E) coordination of motor reflexes
38) Where do correlation, association, and learning occur in the brain? A) cerebellum B) corpus callosum C) medulla D) cerebrum E) pons
39) What is the site of primary sensory integration in the brain? A) medulla oblongata B) cerebrum C) cerebellum D) thalamus E) corpus callosum
40) What region of the brain integrates visceral activities, body temperature, and heartbeat? A) medulla oblongata B) cerebrum C) hypothalamus D) thalamus E) corpus callosum
41) Which of the following is NOT a feature of the limbic system? A) contains hippocampus and amygdala B) resides deep within the cerebrum C) responsible for emotional responses D) important in the formation and recall of memories E) part of the hypothalamus
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42) The doctor informs you that your grandmother's stroke has caused damage to Wernicke's
area. Which activity is likely to become more difficult for her? A) walking B) doing laundry C) having a conversation D) sleeping E) mathematical calculations
43) What additional factor is required to mediate the parasympathetic effects of acetylcholine? A) G-protein coupled receptor B) GABA C) AMPAR D) habituation E) synaptic integration
44) Which division of the nervous system regulates the activity of smooth muscle, cardiac
muscle, and glands? A) antagonistic nervous system B) autonomic nervous system C) sympathetic nervous system D) parasympathetic nervous system E) limbic nervous system
45) Which of the following is not part of the peripheral nervous system? A) sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system B) spinal cord C) parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system D) somatic nervous system E) sensory pathways
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46) Which of the following targets is NOT regulated by the autonomic nervous system? A) skeletal muscles B) cardiac muscles C) glands of the body D) smooth muscles E) none of these
47) The PNS comprises the somatic (voluntary) and autonomic (involuntary) nervous systems.
The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system activates the body for fight-orflight responses. The parasympathetic division generally promotes relaxation and digestion (or "rest and digest").
47.1)
A cheetah is chasing a gazelle. What division of the vertebrate nervous system is regulating the stress response in both animals? A) somatic nervous system B) parasympathetic nervous system C) sympathetic nervous system D) parasymbiotic nervous system E) cerebral cortex
47.2)
A cheetah has succeeded in catching a gazelle and has just finished feeding on the carcass. What division of the nervous system has increased in activity? A) somatic nervous system B) parasympathetic nervous system C) sympathetic nervous system D) parasymbiotic nervous system E) cerebral cortex
48) Dr. Robinson tapped on a patient's knee with the little hammer, but failed to see the usual
kick of the patellar reflex. Since this reflex only involves a few neurons, what part of the nervous system might the doctor most likely be concerned about? A) parasympathetic nervous system B) central nervous system C) sympathetic nervous system D) peripheral nervous system
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49) Charcot-Marie-Tooth is the most commonly inherited peripheral neuropathy, and has no
known cure. Patients suffer damage to motor and sensory neurons, leading to degeneration of muscles and gradual loss of motor control.
49.1)
What do the two sets of neurons damaged in Charcot-Marie-Tooth neuropathy comprise? A) peripheral nervous system B) autonomic nervous system C) somatic nervous system D) parasympathetic nervous system E) central nervous system
49.2)
Genetic studies have found that Charcot-Marie-Tooth may be caused by a mutation in the gene Mitofusin-2 (MFN2), which causes mitochondria to form large clumps. In what area of a neuron are these clumps most likely to cause a problem? A) axon B) synapse C) soma D) dendrite E) myelin
49.3)
Mutation of the peripheral myelin protein 22 (PMP22) gene, which causes demyelination of peripheral neurons, is a more common cause of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease. In which cells is the PMP22 gene important for normal function? A) Schwann cells B) preganglionic neurons C) postganglionic neurons D) oligodendrocytes E) interneurons
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49.4)
How can mutations in different genes, functioning in different cells, lead to the same disease? From the following, choose the best responses to complete the sentences: "Physiological function requires that multiple cells work together. Various defects in different cells can impair function, leading to _________ that are indistinguishable at the level of the whole organism. In Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, motor nerve function can be impaired either by a problem within _________ , or a problem in _________ causing _________." A) defects; somatic cells; oligodendrocytes; demyelination B) symptoms; motor neurons; Schwann cells; demyelination C) symptoms; sensory neurons; Schwann cells; fast axonal transport D) genotypes; dendrites; axons; fast axonal transport
49.5)
Subsequent to motor neuron degeneration in Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, muscles begin to weaken and degenerate as well. What is the likely cause? A) Muscles will atrophy if they don't receive regular stimulation from motor neurons. B) Muscles require healthy Schwann cells for myelination as well. C) Muscles contain large numbers of mitochondria. D) Toxins leak out from the dying motor neurons onto the muscles.
49.6)
Which diagnostic test(s) would you recommend for a patient that you suspect is showing signs of early stage Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease? (Check all that apply.) A) Culture and protein expression profile of oligodendrocytes B) EKG to look for rhythmic abnormalities C) EMG to test muscle responses D) fMRI of the frontal lobe of the brain E) fMRI of the rACC of the brain F) Genetic testing for mutations in the PMP22 and MFN2 genes G) Nerve biopsy to look for signs of demyelination H) Nerve conduction study to test the rate of impulse conduction
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50) Your roommate is on an ultra-low fat diet to try to lose weight. Given what you know about
structure of the nervous system, what advice would you give him? A) "You should drink large quantities of water, because the brain is mostly water." B) "Good for you! Losing weight by any means necessary can only help your brain." C) "You should eat some healthy unsaturated fats, like those found in fish, olive oil, and nuts, because your brain needs fatty acids to build the myelin sheaths around your axons." D) "You should eat trans fats, from donuts, because 'trans' is short for neurotransmission."
51) The word hyponatremia derives from the words hypo ("under" or "less") and natrium
("sodium"). The word natrium is the basis for the abbreviation Na for sodium. Hyponatremia is a rare condition, but has become of more concern with the rise in amateur runners participating in marathons. Since they run slower, they spend longer on the course and have more opportunity to drink water and sweat out additional sodium.
51.1)
Marathon runners are encouraged to stop at water stations along the course to stay hydrated. However, occasionally a runner drinks too much water and suffers from hyponatremia, or "water intoxication". While water itself is not toxic, drinking too much can upset ion balance in the extracellular space. Based on what you know about ions and nerve signaling, the levels of which important ion are most likely to be disrupted in hyponatremia? A) hydrogen B) potassium C) calcium D) sodium E) oxygen
51.2)
You are an EMT on duty for the marathon. It is an extremely hot day. You say to your partner, "This weather is likely to_________ the risk of hyponatremia, because_________ will cause the athletes to lose_________." A) increase, sweating, sodium B) decrease, urination, calcium C) decrease, shivering, potassium D) increase, panting, oxygen
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52) What branched structure allows a neuron to take in information from more than one source? A) node of Ranvier B) axon C) myelin D) dendrite
53) What part of the neuron is responsible for most of the "house-keeping" tasks of the cell,
including protein synthesis? A) myelin B) axon C) dendrite D) soma E) synapse
54) A typical AA battery has a potential of 1.5V. One can think of the potential in a neuron as
having similarities to that of a battery.
54.1)
If you were to compare the resting potential of a neuron to a battery, which way is the battery oriented? A) positive terminal outside of the cell, and negative terminal inside B) positive terminal inside of the cell, and negative terminal outside C) positive terminal pointing toward the axon, negative terminal toward the dendrite D) positive terminal pointing toward the dendrite, negative terminal toward the axon E) both terminals inside the cell soma
54.2)
How does the resting potential of a typical neuron compare to that of a 1.5V AA alkaline battery? A) A typical neuron has a resting potential of -70mV, or about 5% the voltage of the battery. B) A typical neuron has a resting potential of -70V, or about 50x the voltage of the battery. C) A typical neuron has a resting potential of +70mV, or about 5% the voltage of the battery. D) A typical neuron has a resting potential of +70V, or about 50x the voltage of the battery.
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55) To process information, postsynaptic neurons often add up simultaneous signals from several
presynaptic neurons. Which structure and process allow them to do so? A) axons; temporal summation B) axons; spatial summation C) dendrites; temporal summation D) dendrites; spatial summation
56) A neuron that engages in spatial summation acquires a mutation that causes dendrite
overgrowth and promiscuous synapsing. What is the likely outcome? A) abnormally low frequency of action potentials B) summation will not occur C) abnormally high frequency of action potentials D) action potentials with stronger depolarization
57) True or false: neurons are the only electrically-active cells. ⊚ true ⊚ false
58) What important resource do Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes provide to neurons? A) oxygen B) nutrients C) physical strength from microtubules D) currents E) insulating layers of membrane
59) A patient suffers from a disease that slows fatty acid synthesis. What is a likely impact of this
disease on nervous system function? A) improved functioning due to a healthier weight B) insufficient myelination and slow axon conduction rate C) improved functioning due to better blood flow D) weaker action potentials with smaller depolarization
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60) "Synapses are connections between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of another
neuron, where neurotransmitters transmit a chemical signal." How would you modify this statement to make it more complete? (Check all that apply.) A) The statement needs no modification. B) Synapses can also form between an axon and a cell soma. C) Neuromuscular synapses form between the axon of a neuron and a muscle. D) Synapses often form among the parts of a single cell. E) Synapses can be electrical as well as chemical.
61) True or false: When a neuron is not firing, the sodium-potassium pump is inactive. ⊚ true ⊚ false
62) Choose the two primary factors that contribute to the resting membrane potential of a neuron. A)
leak channels make the cell membrane more permeable to . B) The sodium-potassium pump exports 3 from the cell for every 2 C) leak channels make the cell membrane more permeable to . D) leak channels cause a higher concentration of outside the cell. E) The sodium-potassium pump exports 3 from the cell for every 2
it imports
it imports
63) Is the resting membrane potential of a neuron closer to the equilibrium potential for
or
? A) B) C) It is an average of the two.
64) Three-quarters of the substantial amount of energy consumed by the brain is used to run a
single molecular machine that maintains the resting potential of neurons. What is this machine called? A) leak channel B) sodium-potassium pump C) acetylcholine receptor D) voltage-gated sodium channel E) voltage-gated calcium channel
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65) Palytoxin is incredibly toxic, perhaps the second most dangerous non-peptide toxin. It targets
the sodium-potassium pump, locking it open and forming a channel through which the ions can passively flow. Palytoxin is produced by zoanthid cnidarians (soft coral), and there have been incidents of poisoning from zoanthids within marine aquaria tanks in people's homes. It is also thought to be the source of the legend of the Limu make o hana ("Seaweed of Death from Hana").
65.1)
A Hawaiian legend tells of a village that angered a shark god. In revenge, a "seaweed" began to grow in the tidepools that killed anyone who touched it. In fact, this "limu-make-oHana" -- a zoanthid cnidarian -- contains a palytoxin that locks the sodium-potassium pump open, allowing free flow of ions. If a villager suffers palytoxin poisoning, which way will the ions in his neurons flow? A) all ions will flow out B) potassium in, sodium out C) chloride and sodium out, potassium in D) sodium in, potassium out
65.2)
What is the likely impact of this toxin on the resting potential of a neuron? A) The resting potential will require more energy to maintain. B) The resting potential will be more negative. C) It will destroy the ion gradients necessary for the resting potential. D) The resting potential will promote action potentials with a larger depolarization.
65.3)
What is the likely impact of this toxin on action potentials? A) They will occur more frequently. B) They will be stronger and more unpredictable. C) Without ion gradients, action potentials are not possible. D) They will have longer refractory periods.
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66) Since there is a larger concentration of potassium ions inside a neuron, why is the inside of
the neuron negative (-70mV) relative to the outside? A) Potassium ions carry a negative charge. B) Negatively-charged proteins inside the cell counteract the charge of the potassium ions. C) The negative sign is just a historical convention. D) The high concentration of sodium ions outside the cell makes the inside negative by comparison.
67) Sodium ions are single atoms. Why can't they simply diffuse through the cell membrane's
lipid bilayer? A) Since they are charged, ions can't cross the hydrophobic center of the membrane without a channel or pump. B) Sodium ions are covalently attached in groups of three, which are too large to diffuse easily. C) Ions do traverse the membrane easily, but the sodium-potassium pump moves them back across. D) Chelator proteins capture any ions that start to cross the bilayer.
68) If
can exit the cell through leak channels, why don't they flow out until there are equal concentrations on both sides of the membrane? A) can act as an enzymatic cofactor, and most ions are bound to cellular enzymes. B) The leak channels allow a very slow leak that cannot keep pace with active import of ions. C) Chelator molecules trap on the inside of the membrane. D) The negative electrical potential inside the cell creates a force that holds the ions in.
69) The outside of a neuron is positively charged at resting potential. Why do
ions leave the
cell when channels open during an action potential? A) The diffusion gradient is the only factor that affects ion movement. B) ions are actively pumped out by the sodium-potassium pump acting in reverse. C) Voltage-gated channels open when membrane potential reaches +50 mV during the depolarization phase. The diffusion gradient and electrical force cooperate to drive ions out of the cell. D) Negatively charged proteins leave the cell at the onset of the action potential.
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70) The outside of a neuron is positively charged at resting potential. Why don't negative ions
exit from the cell to normalize charge across the membrane? A) The positive charge outside the cell repels negative ions. B) There are no negative ions inside the cell. C) All of the chloride ions are already outside the cell. D) The negative charge inside the cell is carried by large proteins that cannot diffuse through the membrane.
71) What does the Nernst equation allow us to do? A) Predict the function of a specific type of neuron. B) Calculate the equilibrium potential for an ion. C) Use a computer program to model axonal transmission. D) Calculate the magnitude of depolarization during an action potential.
72) When an action potential begins and sodium channels open, why does sodium rush into the
cell? (Check all that apply.) A) The inside of the cell is negatively charged. B) The inside of the cell is positively charged. C) Chloride ions are waiting to bind to the sodium inside the cell. D) The diffusion gradient drives sodium into the cell. E) Channels use energy to move ions across the membrane whenever they are open.
73) What limits the frequency of action potentials? A) chloride ions B) spike amplitude C) nodes of Ranvier D) refractory period
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74) Your roommate takes up smoking, and you hate it. Use what you know about nicotine to
convince her to quit. (Check all statements that are true.) A) Nicotine binds to a receptor in the brain that normally receives acetylcholine. B) Nicotine evolved to protect the tobacco plant by killing grazing cattle. C) The brain adapts to smoking by changing the levels of this receptor. Over time, more drug is required to get the same effect. D) Nicotine is not addictive, but is still very dangerous. E) Nicotine is identical to an endogenous ligand in the human body. F) Nicotine evolved to protect the tobacco plant by killing insects.
75) A patient of yours is injured in a car accident. The surgeon reports that while there is damage
to the dorsal roots, the spinal cord and nerves otherwise appear intact. What functions would you expect to be affected in the patient? A) The patient may lose somatic function, but should retain autonomic function. B) The patient may lose motor function, but should retain sensory perception. C) The patient may lose some sensory perception, but should retain motor function. However, lack of proprioceptive input may make muscle control difficult. D) The patient may lose parasympathetic function, but should retain sympathetic function. They should avoid stressful situations.
76) If sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons both release acetylcholine (ACh), how can they
have antagonistic effects? (Check all that apply.) A) The target cells of each set of neurons respond differently to the same signal. B) Each type of neuron secretes ACh bound to a different co-neurotransmitter. C) Sympathetic neurons activate the adrenal gland, causing secretion of epinephrine. D) The neurons release different forms of ACh. E) Parasympathetic neurons activate the adrenal gland, causing secretion of epinephrine.
77) Botulinum toxin-- A toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. Known for
sometimes lethal poisoning from infected meat products. In modern controlled medical or cosmetic use, the very same toxin is known as Botox. Tetanus toxin-- Another very potent neurotoxin produced by Clostridium tetani. Strichnine-- A highly poisonous alkaloid produced by the Strychnos nux-vomica tree, historically used to kill rats and other pests.
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77.1)
Botulinum toxin, or "botox", has become popular for cosmetic surgery. The toxin prevents neurosecretory vesicles from docking at the plasma membrane and releasing neurotransmitter. How would this toxin affect the neuromuscular junction? A) Since ACh is not released, the muscles stay in a state of repeated contraction. B) Since ACh is not released, the muscles are not activated to contract and remain relaxed. C) Buildup of ACh causes promiscuous activation of all nearby sensory neurons. D) Buildup of ACh leaks back into the brain, creating a calming effect.
77.2)
You accidentally consume botulinum toxin by eating a contaminated can of sausages. What do you predict will be the most harmful physiological effect? A) slowed action potential conduction B) respiratory failure due to spastic paralysis (constant muscle contraction) C) respiratory failure due to flaccid paralysis (relaxed muscles) D) pupil dilation
77.3)
Another toxin that also blocks neurotransmitter release is tetanus toxin; however, it primarily affects inhibitory interneurons of the spinal cord that negatively regulate motor neurons. Which would be symptoms of tetanus toxin poisoning? A) flaccid paralysis B) spastic paralysis C) slowed action potential conduction D) pupil dilation
77.4)
In contrast to these toxins, strychnine acts postsynaptically, to block glycine from binding to receptors on motor neurons. Would you expect the symptoms of strychnine poisoning to be more similar to those of botulinum or tetanus toxin? A) botulinum B) tetanus toxin C) botulinum
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78) How do temporal and spatial summation improve the processing power of the brain? A) Temporal summation allows circadian rhythms to regulate neuronal activity. Spatial
summation allows latitude to regulate neuronal activity. B) Temporal summation allows a neuron to fire prolonged action potentials, and spatial summation allows a neuron to synapse onto new targets. C) Temporal and spatial summation both make the neuron more likely to fire action potentials. D) Temporal summation allows a neuron to recognize a persistent signal from a single presynaptic cell, and spatial summation allows a neuron to recognize a broad signal from multiple presynaptic cells.
79)
channels in the heart do not have binding sites for ACh, yet parasympathetic release of ACh causes outward flux of from heart cells. How does this occur? A) ACh triggers release of epinephrine from the adrenal glands, which in turn causes flux out of heart cells. B) ACh binds to a G-protein coupled receptor on heart cells, and the G protein alpha subunit binds to a separate channel and causes it to open. C) Parasympathetic neurons activate sympathetic neurons, which directly cause flux from heart cells. D) ACh binds and activates a pump on heart cells.
80) What would happen if the G-protein coupled receptor in heart cells that binds to ACh had a
mutation that caused it to bind more tightly to the G-protein alpha subunit? A) G-protein activation and channel opening would happen more quickly. Heart rate may remain abnormally low, impairing response to stress. B) This would lead to flow out of heart cells, causing increased hyperpolarization. C) G-protein activation and channel opening would be slowed. Heart rate may remain abnormally high, especially following stress. D) This would lead to flow into heart cells, causing increased depolarization.
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81) How do somatic neurons and autonomic neurons differ? (Check all that apply.) A) Somatic neurons innervate the body surface, while autonomic neurons innervate
internal structures. B) Somatic neurons control skeletal muscle, while autonomic neurons control smooth and cardiac muscle. C) Somatic neurons control exocrine glands, while autonomic neurons do not. D) Somatic neurons control their effectors directly, while autonomic neurons use a series of neurons. E) Somatic neurons are always excitatory, while autonomic neurons may be either excitatory or inhibitory.
82) Why are mammalian reflexes so fast? (Check all that apply.) A) They use neurons with extra-wide axons. B) They complete the sensory input-to-motor output circuit in only 2-3 neurons. C) They do not send signals to the brain and back. D) They activate a large number of sensory neurons, which speeds things up after the
motor neuron performs spatial summation. E) There was a selective advantage to evolve rapid responses to certain types of stimuli.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 42 1) B 2) C 3) A 4) E 5) A 6) Section Break 6.1) B 6.2) D 7) E 8) B 9) D 10) D 11) E 12) E 13) B 14) C 15) C 16) B 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) D 21) B 22) E 23) E 24) B 25) E 26) D 27) D 28) B 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) D 33) B 34) C 35) E
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36) C 37) E 38) D 39) D 40) C 41) E 42) C 43) A 44) B 45) B 46) A 47) Section Break 47.1) C 47.2) B 48) D 49) Section Break 49.1) A 49.2) A 49.3) A 49.4) B 49.5) A 49.6) [C, F, G, H] 50) C 51) Section Break 51.1) D 51.2) A 52) D 53) D 54) Section Break 54.1) A 54.2) A 55) D 56) C 57) FALSE 58) E 59) B 60) [B, C, E] 61) FALSE 62) [A, E] 63) A
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64) B 65) Section Break 65.1) D 65.2) C 65.3) C 66) B 67) A 68) D 69) C 70) D 71) B 72) [A, D] 73) D 74) [A, C, F] 75) C 76) [A, C] 77) Section Break 77.1) B 77.2) C 77.3) B 77.4) B 78) D 79) B 80) C 81) [B, D, E] 82) [B, C, E]
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Chapter 43 Student name:__________ 1) All sensory input arrives at the central nervous system in the same form, as_________
propagated by afferent neurons. Perception of the type and intensity of a stimulus depends on which part of the brain the impulse projects to and the firing frequency of the sensory neuron. A) action potentials B) receptor potentials C) reflexes D) frequency localizations E) thresholds
2) The simplest sensory receptors are_________ that respond to mechanical distortion, changes
in temperature, or specific chemicals. A) nociceptors B) free nerve endings C) gated channels D) photoreceptors E) ganglia
3) What sensory receptors sense stimuli that arise from within the body? A) gustatory receptors B) photoreceptors C) interoreceptors D) ampullae of Lorenzini E) exteroreceptors
4) When membrane proteins on an olfactory neuron are stimulated by the binding of a specific
chemical, what is the immediate result? A) membrane depolarization B) membrane repolarization C) active ion transport D) membrane hyperpolarization E) neurotransmitter release
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5) Which includes all of the components that make up the Organ of Corti? A) the basilar membrane only B) the tectorial and basilar membranes C) hair cells and associated neurons only D) hair cells and the tectorial membrane E) hair cells and the basilar and tectorial membranes
6) The lateral line system provides_________ with a sense of "distant touch," enabling these
animals to sense objects that reflect pressure waves and low-frequency vibrations. A) adult amphibians B) reptiles C) birds D) mammals E) fish
7) Pit vipers are the only known vertebrates with an ability to detect a certain type of stimulus.
What can these snakes sense? A) infrared radiation B) ultraviolet radiation C) microwave radiation D) visible light radiation E) none of these
8) What are the receptors of sharks that can detect disturbances in electrical fields called? A) Organs of Corti B) pacinian corpuscles C) lateral line canals D) nodes of Ranvier E) ampullae of Lorenzini
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9) Which of the following receptors does not trigger depolarization of a sensory neuron? A) mechanoreceptors B) G-protein receptors C) chemoreceptors D) photoreceptors E) exteroceptors and interoceptors
10) Which correctly represents the sequence of steps involved to convey sensory information to
the CNS? A) stimulation and ion flow through the synaptic cleft B) neurotransmitter release and interpretation C) neurotransmitter release and ion flow through the synaptic cleft D) stimulation, transduction, transmission, and interpretation E) stimulation, transmission, and neurotransmitter release
11) Which of the following stimuli do vertebrates NOT have a specialized receptor for? A) hearing B) taste C) smell D) humidity E) vision
12) Which is NOT a stimulus that the simplest sensory receptors, free nerve endings, will
respond to? A) bending of the sensory neuron membrane B) changes in temperature C) changes in the oxygen content of the extracellular fluid D) release of odorants from freshly baked bread E) stretching of the sensory neuron membrane
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13) Which is NOT a stimulus that exteroceptors can sense? A) gravity B) smell C) light D) muscle tension E) sound
14) Which is NOT a stimulus that interoceptors can sense? A) limb position B) pain C) gravity D) body temperature E) muscle length
15) Which of the following is NOT an example of a mechanoreceptor? A) Meissner's corpuscles B) Ruffini endings C) Merkel cells D) red corpuscles E) Pacinian corpuscles
16) Cutaneous receptors are classified as interoceptors. These specialized skin receptors can
respond to which of the following stimuli? A) heat, cold, and light B) pain, pressure, and sound C) chemicals, light, and sound D) heat, cold, pain, touch, and pressure E) heat, cold, pain, pressure, light, and sound
17) What are the receptors called that transmit impulses that are perceived by the brain as pain? A) baroreceptors B) chemoreceptors C) nociceptors D) thermoreceptors E) propioceptors
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18) Which of the following stimuli will NOT activate a nociceptor? A) extremes in temperature B) very intense mechanical stimulation C) specific chemicals in the extracellular fluid D) chemicals released by injured cells E) external odorant molecules
19) What are the sensory structures that enable invertebrates to determine the orientation of the
body with respect to gravity called? A) carotid bodies B) statocysts C) Ruffini endings D) baroreceptors E) interoceptors
20) Which of the following do humans NOT have taste buds specialized to sense? A) salty B) sour C) sweet D) vitamins E) bitter
21) Which of the following are components of vertebrate gravity receptors?
I-Utricle and saccule chambers of a membranous labyrinth. II-Hair cells with stereocilia and kinocilium. III-Hairlike processes embedded with otolith membrane, a gelatinous membrane containing calcium carbonate crystals. IV-Peripheral chemoreceptors. A) I and II only B) II, III, and IV C) I and IV only D) I, II, and IV E) I, II, and III
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22) Which of the following constitute the vestibular apparatus? A) saccule and utricle only B) semicircular canals, saccule, and utricle C) ampullae of Lorenzini D) saccule, utricle, and Organ of Corti E) saccule, utricle, and ventricle
23) What does the middle ear consist of? A) three ossicle bones B) the ear canal C) the ear drum D) the vestibular canal E) the tympanic canal
24) Which sequence of events is required for the brain to interpret sound?
I. Vibration of the basilar membrane relative to the tectorial membrane causes cilia on hair cells to bend and triggers depolarization. II. Hair cells stimulate the production of action potentials in sensory neurons that project to the brain. III. Ganglion cell axons transmit action potentials to the occipital lobe. A) II then I B) III then I then II C) III then I D) I then II E) I then II then III
25) Which animal became numerous and widespread by using sonar to enable a high level of
activity in the dark? A) bats B) whales C) owls D) dolphins E) shrews
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26) In the vertebrate eye, what structure is light focused onto? A) pupil B) lens C) retina D) sclera E) iris
27) Which is NOT a part of the vertebrate eye? A) cornea B) retina C) iris D) cochlea E) pupil
28) In the vertebrate eye, what structure controls the amount of light that reaches the retina? A) fovea B) cornea C) iris D) lens E) sclera
29) What is the photopigment in rod cells called? A) photopsin B) rhodopsin C) opsin D) carotene E) melanin
30) Which of the following cells are NOT found in the retina? A) rods B) cones C) bipolar cells D) hair cells E) ganglion cells
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31) What are the short retinal photoreceptors responsible for color vision called? A) rods B) cones C) bipolar cells D) glial cells E) ganglion cells
32) Color blindness is caused by heritable mutations in cone photoreceptors. How many cone
types does the retina of a colorblind individual typically contain? A) only one B) two C) three D) four E) five
33) What sequence of events leads to the perception of a visual scene?
I. In response to light, retinal dissociates from rod and cone photopigments, hyperpolarizing the photoreceptor cells and leading to activation of bipolar neurons. II. Action potentials are propagated through ganglion cells, whose axons project to the occipital lobe of the brain. III. In response to light, rod and cone photoreceptors depolarize, causing increased release of neurotransmitter and activation of bipolar neurons. A) I then III B) III then II C) III then I then II D) I then II then III E) I then II
34) What sensory equipment is required for an animal to have binocular vision? A) eyes located to the sides of the head B) forward-facing eyes C) a camera-type eye with multiple lenses D) infrared vision E) ultraviolet vision
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35) Which of the vertebrates senses is the least well understood? A) electroreception B) magnetoreception C) vision D) hearing E) touch
36) Which is NOT an example of a stimulus sensed by an interoceptor? A) temperature B) vibration C) pain D) magnetism E) touch
37) Choose the receptor that is NOT correctly matched with its function. A) proprioceptor - monitors stretch of muscle fibers B) baroreceptor - monitors hydrostatic pressure in blood vessels C) nociceptor - transmits signals that the brain interprets as pain D) chemoreceptor - perceives taste and smell stimuli E) peripheral chemoreceptor - monitors the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid
38) Which of the following statements about the lateral line system is NOT correct? A) allows fish to sense objects based on the pressure waves they produce B) allows fish to sense objects based on the low-frequency vibrations they produce C) allows fish to swim in synchrony with a school of other members of its species D) provides the fish with the ability to see images E) allows a blind cave fish to sense the water patterns flowing past its body
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39) In what order will you encounter the following structures if you examine the human ear from
the outside inward? A) tympanic membrane → malleus →incus → stapes → oval window → cochlea B) tympanic membrane → incus →malleus → stapes → oval window → cochlea C) tympanic membrane → stapes →malleus → incus → oval window → cochlea D) tympanic membrane → malleus →incus → stapes → cochlea →oval window E) tympanic membrane → oval window → malleus →incus → stapes → cochlea
40) Which animal is NOT able to use sonar as a form of "lightless vision" to navigate in dark
environments? A) shrews B) owls C) bats D) whales E) dolphins
41) Where is the visual image in focus for a nearsighted individual? A) behind the retina B) in front of the retina C) on the retina, but it appears blurred D) at the lens, forming a shadow on the retina E) on the retina, but it is upside down
42) The human retina is composed of three cell layers. Which represents the correct order of
these layers, starting with the layer that is closest to the iris? A) ganglion cells → bipolar cells → rods and cones B) optic nerve cells → rods and cones → bipolar cells C) rods and cones → bipolar cells → ganglion cells D) bipolar cells → ganglion cells → rods and cones E) rods and cones → optic nerve cells → bipolar cells
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43) Which of the following animals does NOT have electroreceptors? A) bony fish B) sharks C) duck-bill platypus D) skates E) pit viper snakes
44) Each type of cone cell is stimulated by a different color of light. In humans, a colorful scene
is perceived as a combination of signals from three cone types. Which colors correspond to these three cones? I-Red II-Yellow III-Orange IV-Blue V-Green VI-Purple A) I, II, and III B) I, III, and IV C) I, IV, and V D) I, V, and VI E) II, IV, and VI
45) Which of the following statements about hair cells is NOT true? A) They are found in the mammalian ear. B) They are found in the fish lateral line system. C) They can be repaired if they rupture. D) Bending of the cells triggers ion flow across the cell membrane. E) Their structure includes stereocilia and a kinocilium.
46) Which of the following structures is found in a human eye, but NOT in an octopus eye? A) retina B) lens C) optic nerve D) blind spot E) cones
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47) Which taste modality does not involve activation of a G-protein coupled receptor? A) bitter B) sweet C) umami D) sour E) all taste sensations involve GPCRs
48) What effect do high frequency sounds tend to have on the ear? A) displace the whole length of the basilar membrane with a maximum near the apex B) move only the basal portion of the basilar membrane C) move only the apex portion of the basilar membrane D) move only the portion of the basilar membrane between the basal portion and the
apex E) only move the tectorial membrane
49) The statoliths of a lobster are replaced with iron filings, and a strong magnetic field is
produced at the top of its tank. How will the lobster respond? A) Its dorsal surface will stick to the top of the tank and it will be unable to move. B) It will turn upside down and grip the underside of the tank lid. C) It will turn upside down and remain at the bottom of the tank. D) It will not respond in any way. E) It will continuously spin in circles.
50) Vision differs from the other senses in two interesting ways. Although most sensory receptor
neurons are depolarized when the receive a stimulus, rod and cone cells become hyperpolarized when they receive light. When hyperpolarized, they stop releasing inhibitory neurotransmitter and allow the bipolar cells to fire. A second unusual aspect is that the vision circuit seems to be organized "backwards" -- the light must pass through the layers of ganglion and bipolar cells to reach the rods and cones.
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50.1)
Which letter indicates the direction of incoming light in a typical vertebrate?
</p> A) B) C) D) E)
50.2)
A B C D All of the directions are possible.
When a cone cell is stimulated by light, what will occur at the cell membrane? A) excitation B) inhibition C) an action potential D) hyperpolarization E) depolarization
51) Which of type of information is NOT communicated by proprioceptors? A) muscle temperature B) limb movement C) muscle position D) muscle contraction E) muscle stretch
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52) What happens to a retinal photopigment when it captures a photon? A) It releases an electron. B) It fluoresces. C) It changes shape. D) It begins to vibrate. E) It does nothing.
53) Which of the following statements regarding vision is NOT true? A) Vertebrate rods and cones hyperpolarize in response to light. B) Insects and birds can often see into the ultraviolet range. C) Bright light will often produce action potentials in both rods and cones. D) Rhodopsin is found in the membrane of rods.
54) Visual acuity is highest when an image is focused on what part of the retina? A) rods outside the fovea B) cones outside the fovea C) rods within the fovea D) cones within the fovea E) anywhere, as long as there is ample light
55) Choose the letter that best describes the function of each receptor type. (You may use a letter
more than once.) A. tonic receptors located near the surface of the skin B. pressure sensitive receptors deep in the subcutaneous layer C. receptors on the face and fingertips sensitive to light touch
55.2)
Pacinian corpuscle
55.3)
Merkle cell
55.4)
Ruffini corpuscle
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55.5)
Meissner's corpuscle
56) All of the varied sensations we experience are due to which three categories of sensory
receptors? A) visioceptor, audioceptor, olfactoceptor B) exteroceptor, interoceptor, proprioceptor C) mechanoreceptor, chemoreceptor, electromagnetic receptor D) mechanoreceptor, olfactory receptor, photoreceptor E) mechanoreceptor, chemoreceptor, nociceptor
57) True or false: Humans are unique among animals due to our highly-evolved repertoire of
sensory receptors. ⊚ true ⊚ false
58) What difference in axonal signaling determines whether we experience a mild or a strong
sensation? A) amplitude of action potentials B) frequency of action potentials C) action potential threshold D) conduction speed E) amount of neurotransmitter released per vesicle
59) Since the optic nerve must pass through the retinal layer, we all have a blind spot devoid of
light receptors. This normally goes unnoticed, since the brain attempts to compensate for missing sensory information by filling it in based on surrounding patterns. Which step of the sensory pathway is represented by perceptual filling-in of the physiological blind spot? A) interpretation B) stimulus C) transduction into receptor potential D) action potential transmission
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60) What information would best help you distinguish what type of sensation a sensory neuron
transmits? A) the rate of action potential firing B) the proteins it expresses most abundantly C) the part of the brain it transmits signals to D) the amplitude of action potentials E) the diameter of the axon
61) What is the primary difference in how touch sensation and hearing sensation are conveyed? A) the neurotransmitters secreted by the sensory neurons B) the way that the axons physically connect to the brain stem C) the shape of the sensory axons D) the proteins that transduce the chemical signal in the brain E) the part of the brain that receives the signal
62) Honeybees have an incredible ability to distinguish thousands of different odorant molecules,
using their large repertoire of olfactory receptors. A wide variety of different types of chemicals can be detected as odorants -- they simply require olfactory neurons with a receptor that can bind the chemical and transduce that stimulus into a receptor potential.
62.1)
Because small quantities of powerful explosives can be hidden easily, a sensor that could detect trace amounts of illicit chemicals would be a useful tool. What animal sensory modality is exquisitely sensitive to minute quantities of airborne chemicals? A) olfaction B) taste C) vision D) hearing E) touch
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62.2)
Honeybees can detect a variety of odorants through olfactory receptors on their antennae. You genetically engineer a receptor to be gated by the explosive chemical TNT, and use a transgene to express the receptor in honeybee olfactory neurons. What would this provide to the bee? A) the ability to taste TNT B) it would have no effect C) the ability to smell TNT D) the ability to collect TNT molecules E) the ability to see TNT
62.3)
If genetically engineered bees could express a receptor for TNT in their olfactory neurons, what type of receptor would the TNT receptor be? A) chemoreceptor B) mechanoreceptor C) electromagnetic receptor D) it is a novel type of receptor
62.4)
If genetically engineered bees could express a receptor for TNT in their olfactory neurons, how would the bees respond to the presence of TNT? A) It would ignore the stimulus. B) It would be attracted. C) It would be repelled. D) It would depend on which olfactory neuron expresses the transgene.
62.5)
If genetically engineered bees could express a receptor for TNT in their olfactory neurons, how could the transgenic bees be useful for detecting explosives? A) Watch for death of the bee when the neuron absorbs TNT. B) Use MRI to monitor the brain activity of the bee. C) Train bees to respond in a predictable way when the TNT neuron is activated by conditioning them to expect an associated food reward. D) Grind up the bee's antennae for use in a TNT ELISA assay.
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63) True or False: A single type of receptor is responsible for detecting all tactile pressure in
humans. ⊚ true ⊚ false
64) What is the molecular basis of touch sensation? A) Pressure on the skin squeezes out chemical signals from epidermal glands. B) Cell membrane distortion opens touch receptors, creating a receptor potential. C) Pressure damages the delicate strands of skin cell DNA, activating a complex
signalling cascade. D) Pressure on sensory axons bursts vesicles and causes neurotransmitter release.
65) Which of the following are tactile receptors? (Check all that apply.) A) Merkle cell B) ampullae of Lorenzini C) node of Ranvier D) Meissner corpuscle E) Ruffini corpuscle F) rod cell G) Pacinian corpuscle H) free nerve ending I) ganglion cell J) cone cell
66) True or False: There is only a single type of pain receptor. ⊚ true ⊚ false
67) Pain receptors are activated by tissue damage, but pain perception requires intact, functional
neurons. How does this work? A) Nociceptor neurons have special membrane repair mechanisms. B) The nociceptor neuron only sends action potentials as it is dying. C) The axon continues to fire action potentials despite damage to the cell body. D) The neuron itself does not need to be damaged; it responds to signals released by nearby damaged cells.
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68) TRP channels normally act as temperature sensors in the body -- they are stimulus-gated ion
channels, each specialized to open at various temperature thresholds. However, different TRP channels can also be gated by certain molecules such as capsaicin or menthol.
68.1)
Why do we perceive chili peppers as "hot" and peppermint as "cold"? A) It is a cultural convention to speak of chili peppers as hot and peppermint as cold. B) Capsaicin and menthol act as agonists of TRP channels normally activated by temperature changes. C) We are conditioned to think so because chili-containing foods are served hot, while mint-containing foods are served cold. D) Neurons sensitive to heat or capsaicin project to nearby regions of the brain, while neurons sensitive to cold or menthol project to other adjacent regions. E) Capsaicin transmits infrared energy, while menthol absorbs it.
68.2)
What is the most likely hypothesis for the presence of TRP channel agonists in plants? A) to speed up or slow down chemical reactions in the plant B) to warm or cool the plant, depending on the season C) to discourage feeding by herbivorous insects or mammals D) to encourage human cultivation
68.3)
You decide to perform an experiment to test this why plants possess TRP channel agonists. You first set up batches of plants in the field WITH or WITHOUT applied capsaicin or menthol. What parameter do you then measure? A) photosynthetic rate B) amount of leaf or fruit damage C) metabolic rate D) palatability to humans
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69) In "The Disembodied Lady," neurologist Oliver Sacks tells the story of a patient who
suffered a catastrophic loss of sensory function. She said, "I feel my body is blind and deaf to itself. . . . It has no sense of itself." The patient's nerve damage was strikingly specific. What single type of neuron most likely suffered damage? A) gustatory receptors B) proprioceptors C) olfactory receptors D) Meissner corpuscles E) rods and cones
70) Nociceptors can respond to nearby tissue damage by sensing cytosolic factors released by
damaged cells. Such "algogenic agents" can cause pain sensation even in the absence of tissue damage. What might be a practical use for such an agent? A) a nonlethal riot control measure B) an anesthetic drug C) a treatment for damaged tissue D) a tasty food additive
71) The discovery that ATP is a pain-signaling factor immediately suggested what possible
therapeutic approach to alleviate chronic pain? A) create large intracellular aggregates of ATP B) treat with an ATP receptor antagonist C) block the synthesis of ATP inside cells D) use electric stimulation on pain centers of the brain
72) Hair cells are delicate sensors of sound, movement, and gravity. Since they are stimulated by
movement of the stereocilia and kinocilium, these structures are vulnerable to damage when stimulus is too strong or sustained.
72.1)
After years of listening to loud music on headphones, the cilia on Bob's hair cells are damaged. What is the result? A) vestibular problems B) hearing loss C) vision problems D) taste hallucinations
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72.2)
If the cilia on Bob's inner ear hair cells are damaged, what can be done to improve Bob’s hearing, other than a hearing aid? A) transgenic expression of a cilia protein B) minoxidil treatment C) injection of microtubules into the cochlea D) not much – there is currently no drug that can regenerate hair cells
73) How is the lateral line of a fish similar to the ears of a human? (Check all that apply.) A) cilia embedded in a gelatinous matrix B) cochlea C) hair cells D) large external structures for capturing pressure waves E) line of cells extends along length of the body F) organ of Corti G) pressure waves H) sensory neurons I) several kinocilia and one stereocilium J) several stereocilia and one kinocilium
74) Hair cells are delicate sensors of sound, movement, and gravity. They are stimulated by
movement of the stereocilia -- which are actually microvilli -- and the single kinocilium, which is a true cilium.
74.1)
One patient at your audiology clinic has an actin defect, and another patient has a microtubule defect. How might these defects affect the function of their hair cells in hearing? A) Neither actin nor microtubule mutations will disrupt hair cell cilia function. B) Only the actin mutation will affect hair cell cilia function. C) Only the microtubule mutation will affect hair cell cilia function. D) Both can create problems in hair cell cilia function.
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74.2)
One patient at your audiology clinic has an actin defect, and another patient has a microtubule defect. What sense other than hearing may be affected in these patients? A) smell B) taste C) balance D) touch E) proprioception
75) Mutations in the DFNA20/26 locus, which codes for the actin gamma 1 protein, are
associated with congenital deafness. An irate senator complains that government money is being wasted on studies of this mutant gene -- in yeast! "I am no biologist," says the senator, "but I am pretty sure yeast don't have ears." How do you respond? A) "You are right, Senator -- yeast do not have ears. We should revoke the funding immediately." B) "We can learn valuable information about the structure of the mutant protein by expressing it in yeast. It is difficult to collect large amounts of actin from tiny hair cells, and unethical to collect it from human patients." C) "We can learn valuable information about the transcription of the mutant gene in yeast. It is much more difficult to study transcription in human cells." D) "We can learn valuable information about sound transmission through the mutant yeast. By placing a speaker against a yeast vial and recording sound from the other side, we can infer how the mutant actin affects sound waves."
76) As
builds up in the atmosphere it also accumulates in the oceans, causing acidification. This poses a challenge to marine creatures that rely on calcium carbonate deposition such as corals, mollusks, and even fish, which use it to form otoliths. Researchers investigated whether otolith deposition was impaired at low pH, and were surprised to find that otoliths were actually larger in this condition. This means that, while coping with global climate change, at least fish will still be able to maintain which sense(s)? A) feeling pain B) vision C) taste D) olfaction E) hearing and balance
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77) What are the categories of taste sensation? A) sweet, salty, sour, creamy, umami B) sweet, sour, salty, bitter, umami C) sweet, salty, bitter, chocolate, coffee D) sweet, sour, salty, creamy, savory
78) You make a knockout of a gene involved in neurological development, and find that the mice
have malformed semicircular canals. Instead of being orthogonal (at right angles) to each other, they are parallel. What aberrant behavior might you see in these mice? A) overeating B) falling over C) not startling to sudden noise D) unable to respond to a call to locate another mouse E) low muscle tone
79) In 1908, chemist Kikunae Ikeda identified a new taste modality he called "umami", or
"delicious" in Japanese. It gives a savory flavor to meat, seaweed, and tomatoes. What molecule is responsible for umami? A) ions B) ions C) glutamate D) E)
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80) Beta-N-Methylamino-L-Alanine, or BMAA, is a glutamate receptor agonist produced by
cyanobacteria. Since Glu is an excitatory neurotransmitter, it is not surprising that BMAA is associated with neurological damage. Buildup of BMAA in fruit bats was hypothesized to cause neurodegenerative disease in islanders that fed on the bats. A recent study found high levels of BMAA in sharks, suggesting that consumption of shark fin soup is also dangerous. The researchers suggested that a secondary effect of BMAA may actually make these hazardous foods surprisingly desirable. What might this be? A) Since BMAA is a Glu receptor agonist, it promotes incorporation of Glu into proteins, and has health-promoting effects. B) Since BMAA is derived from cyanobacteria, it provides unique nutrients not found in the animal or plant kingdom. C) Since BMAA is a Glu receptor agonist, it imparts a strong umami flavor that makes food more delicious. D) Since BMAA contains alanine, it improves protein synthesis by providing this rare nutrient.
81) Unlike sweet, salty, sour, or umami, the "bitter" category of tastants includes wide structural
variety of detected molecules. Multiple receptors are required to sense the different bitter tastants. What do they have in common? Bitter taste is thought to have evolved as a warning system for toxic compounds.
81.1)
The bitter receptor hTAS2R38 is activated by glucosinolates found in plants such as turnips and broccoli. The gene variant a person has determines how sensitive their neurons are to these compounds. What would you predict for people who have the high-sensitivity variant of hTAS2R38? A) They will not easily digest turnips and broccoli. B) They will have to eat more turnips and broccoli to get the same flavor. C) They will dislike turnips and broccoli. D) They will become allergic to turnips and broccoli.
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81.2)
The bitter receptor hTAS2R38 is activated by glucosinolates found in plants such as turnips and broccoli. Glucosinolates can block synthesis and transport of iodine. Before the advent of iodized salt, this was a particular problem in areas of the world that are naturally low in iodine. Why might the human population include different variants of the hTAS2R38 gene? A) Areas of high iodine are generally coastal, and turnips and broccoli are not easily grown there. B) Iodine created mutations in the hTAS2R38 gene. C) Where iodine was low, eating plants rich in glucosinolates helped people metabolize iodine, but where iodine was high they avoided such foods. D) Where iodine was low, it was important to avoid foods with glucosinolates, but where iodine was plentiful, palatability of a wider range of plants was beneficial.
82) Which sensory modality responds to the broadest range of molecules? A) TRP channels B) Taste C) Smell D) Vision E) Touch
83) Researchers studying olfactory and taste receptors have stumbled upon an unusual
phenomenon. These receptor proteins are sometimes expressed in other animal tissues in addition to the nose or tongue. For example, the sweet taste receptor T1R2 is expressed in the pancreas. Suggest the best possible explanation for these findings. A) Damaged receptors are recycled by the body and end up in waste-disposal organs. B) Control of protein expression is imperfect. As long as a receptor doesn't interfere with organ function, expression will not be selected against. C) Chemoreceptors bind molecules that help the body sense and respond to internal phenomena, such as sugar levels in the blood. D) Techniques used to visualize protein expression are imperfect and may lead to false positive results.
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84) Pax6 is a transcription factor noted for its unique role in specifying eye development across
the animal kingdom. A homologous gene known as eyeless specifies eyes in Drosophila, and misexpression of mouse Pax6 can cause ectopic eyes in flies! This creates a quandary -- how can we explain the universality of the master regulatory gene for eye development, with the striking variability of eye anatomy in different phyla?
84.1)
Misexpression of the Pax6 gene was shown to promote eye development in both vertebrates and invertebrates. The authors of this study suggested that this was evidence that eyes evolved only once. What other evidence contradicts this view? A) Invertebrates normally have only simple eyespots. B) Many different transcription factors can initiate eye development when misexpressed. C) While the anatomy of all animal eyes is the same, lens proteins vary greatly. D) The anatomical structure of insect, mollusk, and vertebrate eyes are quite different.
85) What statement best summarizes the evolutionary history of eyes? A) Development of light-sensing organs evolved once, but several eye structures evolved
separately. B) Eyes evolved once and were slightly modified in different phyla. C) Eyes evolved separately in each phylum from an ancestor with no ability to detect light. D) Light-detection organs can develop with very little developmental constraint.
86) Peripheral shadows or flashes of light can be a sign that the retina is peeling away from the
layer below. Why is detachment of the retina a medical emergency? A) It contains the photoreceptor cells that respond to light. B) It is crucial for focusing the image. C) It secretes tears that bathe and protect the eyeball. D) It is a sphincter muscle that controls light transmission.
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87) After your eye exam, the optometrist breaks the bad news: "Your lens is a little too flat, and
as a result it is focuses the image just in front of your retina." What kind of vision do you have? A) astigmatism B) nearsighted C) farsighted D) night-blindness
88) Why are carrots said to be good for you? A) That is just an old wive's tale. B) Beta-carotene, the orange pigment in carrots, is a precursor to Vitamin A and retinal,
the cofactor in photopigments. C) Beta-carotene, the orange pigment in carrots, is necessary to form lens proteins. D) Carrots have large amounts of glutamate, a neurotransmitter that activates sensory neurons.
89) At night, faint objects are best seen when not looked at directly. What is the basis of this
phenomenon? A) Rhodopsin is transported away from the fovea at night. B) Cis-retinal builds up in the fovea at night, and is degraded during the day. C) Cone photoreceptors are most sensitive in dim light, and few cones are present in the fovea. D) Rod photoreceptors are most sensitive in dim light, and few rods are present in the fovea.
90) The ampullae of Lorenzini are jelly-filled pores that allow fish to sense electromagnetic
currents. What is an important property of the jelly in these organs? A) It secretes pheromones for conspecifics. B) It is a good electrical conductor. C) It contains gustatory receptors. D) It is an electrical insulator.
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91) A research strain of mice has a mutation that causes voltage-gated sodium channels to take
longer to return to the active state after a spike. What is the likely consequence for transduction of sensory stimuli? A) There will be no effect on sensory perception, because sensory information relies on stimulus-gated ion channels and not voltage-gated ion channels. B) Sensory information will be incorrectly perceived as high intensity stimuli, due to the increased frequency of action potentials. C) The mutation will interfere with the ability of stimuli to create receptor potentials, and thus the neuron will fire with slow, broad action potentials, giving the animal enhanced sensory perception. D) Due to a longer refractory period, the neuron will be unable to conduct high frequency action potentials, and thus will not effectively transmit information about strong stimuli.
92) Which of the following statements would explains the importance of Pax gene families in
animals? A) Pax genes are believed to grow legs in fruit flies. B) Pax genes are needed to form chemoreceptors in animals. C) Pax genes are completely unrelated and found in a variety of animals by coincidence. D) Pax gene families are found in a variety of animal phyla and help to show the evolutionary relationship of eye development.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 43 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) E 6) E 7) A 8) E 9) D 10) D 11) D 12) D 13) D 14) C 15) D 16) D 17) C 18) E 19) B 20) D 21) E 22) B 23) A 24) D 25) A 26) C 27) D 28) C 29) B 30) D 31) B 32) B 33) E 34) B 35) B 36) D 37) E
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38) D 39) A 40) B 41) B 42) A 43) E 44) C 45) C 46) D 47) D 48) B 49) B 50) Section Break 50.1) A 50.2) D 51) A 52) C 53) C 54) D 55) Section Break 55.1) B 55.2) A 55.3) A 55.4) C 56) C 57) FALSE 58) B 59) A 60) C 61) E 62) Section Break 62.1) A 62.2) C 62.3) A 62.4) D 62.5) C 63) FALSE 64) B 65) [A, D, E, G, H] 66) FALSE
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67) D 68) Section Break 68.1) B 68.2) C 68.3) B 69) B 70) A 71) B 72) Section Break 72.1) B 72.2) D 73) [A, C, G, H, J] 74) Section Break 74.1) D 74.2) C 75) B 76) E 77) B 78) B 79) C 80) C 81) Section Break 81.1) C 81.2) D 82) C 83) C 84) Section Break 84.1) D 85) A 86) A 87) B 88) B 89) D 90) B 91) D 92) D
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Chapter 44 Student name:__________ 1) Your general practitioner considers your unusual set of symptoms, and says, "You seem to
have a problem with maintaining homeostasis in your body." Which type of specialist might the doctor refer you to? (Check two.) A) hematologist B) endocrinologist C) neurologist D) osteologist E) opthamologist F) obstetrician-gynecologist
2) A_________ is a regulatory molecule that is secreted into the blood by an endocrine gland. A) metabolite B) hormone C) peptide D) G protein E) neurotransmitter
3) A hormone is a regulatory molecule that is secreted into the blood by an endocrine gland.
What is wrong with this definition? A) Endocrine glands are the target of these molecules, not the source. B) It does not apply to this type of molecule in plants. C) The molecules do not serve a regulatory role. D) The definition is completely correct as stated.
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4) You are a professor supervising first year medical students. One student is examining the
adrenal gland of his cadaver. "Wow!" he exclaims, "This person must have had an endocrine problem. Their adrenal gland lacks any kind of duct connecting it to the bloodstream. The hormones could only have oozed out." How do you respond? A) "That makes their adrenal gland similar to an exocrine organ." B) "Do you see signs of adrenal insufficiency, such as low fat stores or muscle degeneration?" C) "That's normal. The hormones ooze out and diffuse into nearby capillaries, which is why endocrine glands are sometimes called 'ductless glands'." D) "Look carefully and you will see the nerves that transport the hormones into the bloodstream."
5) Some intercellular regulatory molecules that exert only very local effects are
called_________ regulators. A) sympathetic B) exogeneous C) merocrine D) endocrine E) paracrine
6) Sometimes the most practical way to do an experiment is not to perform it in an animal, but
to look at cell responses in culture. Cells from mice, humans, and other mammals have been used to establish cell culture lines that have been very important for research. You are studying a novel water-soluble mouse hormone. You know cell culture can be a practical model to reveal protein function, so you apply the hormone to yeast cells, but nothing happens.
6.1) What is a likely explanation for why nothing happened in your experiment? A) Yeast have a cell wall, so the molecule cannot pass through the cell membrane as it
would in mice. B) Water-soluble hormones are lipids, not proteins. C) You need to apply the hormone in large amounts to see an effect. D) Yeast may lack the receptor required for the hormone to act.
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6.2) How could you improve your experiment? A) Apply the hormone to mouse cell culture. B) Apply the hormone at a concentration of 0.5M. C) Hydrolyze the hormone before application. D) Add ATP as a cofactor.
7) The_________ lobe of the pituitary gland appears fibrous because it contains axons
originating from hypothalamic neurons. A) anterior B) posterior C) superior D) inferior E) medial
8) The anterior pituitary gland is controlled by which three types of signals? (Check three.) A) direct axonal connections from the hypothalamus B) negative feedback from its own hormones C) negative feedback from hormones secreted by the thyroid, adrenal cortex, and gonads D) positive feedback from its own hormones E) positive feedback from hormones secreted by the pancreas, heart, and skin F) releasing hormones secreted by the hypothalamus
9) There is a molecule in black licorice that inhibits an enzyme which normally limits activation
of mineralocorticoid receptors. Thus, overconsumption of licorice can mimic the effect of excess aldosterone. What would be the result? A) infertility in men B) hypertension (high blood pressure) due to insufficient potassium in the blood C) excessive body hair D) low blood pressure due to excessive potassium in the blood
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10) A novel disease causes destruction of the adrenal glands. If a patient with this disease failed
to receive aldosterone replacement therapy, what would result? A) death B) diminished cognitive function C) infertility in both men and women D) poor blood sugar regulation
11) The islets of Langerhans located in the_________ secrete both insulin and glucagon. A) liver B) pituitary C) thalamus D) kidney E) pancreas
12) Ecdysone and juvenile hormone regulate molting and_________ in insects. A) metamorphosis B) sexual behavior C) body shape D) egg production
13) Women often receive synthetic oxytocin to induce childbirth or augment contractions. What
is an important consideration about the use of synthetic oxytocin? A) It is impossible to mimic its chemical structure, so it may act on other receptors and cause side effects. B) The synthetic form does not travel down motor neurons, so it is less effective than the natural form. C) It can be difficult to get the levels just right, so uterine contractions can be too strong. D) If you fail to simultaneously provide synthetic G protein, the hormone is ineffective.
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14) A couple visits a fertility clinic to determine the basis of their difficulty in conceiving a child.
They are surprised to hear they will both be tested for levels of two of the same hormones, which play roles in the ovarian cycle and sperm production. Which hormones are they? A) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) B) insulin and glucagon C) oxytocin and luteinizing hormone (LH) D) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)
15) The use of bovine growth hormone (BGH) to increase milk yield in dairy cows is highly
controversial. What other hormone is regularly added to milk, yet causes little controversy? A) vitamin A B) vitamin D C) MSG D) preservatives
16) What is the primary function of the hormone ADH? A) regulates biological rhythms B) mediates adaptation to long term stress C) stimulates bone breakdown D) conserves water by stimulating its reabsorption from urine E) inhibits loss of calcium from bone
17) What is a primary function of growth hormone? A) initiates stress response B) raises blood glucose level C) lowers blood glucose level D) stimulates bone growth E) inhibits loss of calcium from bone
18) What is a primary function of the hormone calcitonin? A) initiates stress response B) raises blood glucose level C) lowers blood glucose level D) stimulates bone growth E) inhibits loss of calcium from bone
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19) Lampreys completely lack parathyroid glands. Suggest why these glands may be important
for other vertebrates, but not for jawless fish. A) Because they are parasitic, lampreys get plenty of calcium from their hosts. B) Living in the ocean, they are surrounded by large amounts of sodium, chloride, and magnesium ions. C) Jawless fish employ a different system than other vertebrates to regulate blood sugar. D) Since they have a cartilaginous skeleton but not true bone, they have less need to regulate calcium levels.
20) Which hormone helps with adaptation to long term stress? A) glucocorticoids B) epinephrine C) insulin D) glucagon E) melatonin
21) Which hormone lowers blood glucose levels? A) glucocorticoids B) epinephrine C) insulin D) glucagon E) melatonin
22) Which hormone raises blood glucose levels? A) glucocorticoids B) epinephrine C) insulin D) glucagon E) melatonin
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23) At the breakfast table, your roommate says, "Oops! I forgot to take my melatonin last night.
I'd better take it now." How do you respond? A) "Good idea -- you don't want your bones to get brittle." B) "Be sure not to take too much, or your blood sugar could get dangerously low." C) "Don't take it now - it regulates biological rhythms, and is normally high at night and low during the day." D) "Don't take it after a meal - it promotes the 'fight-or-flight' response, not 'rest-anddigest'."
24) Which hormone sets the body's basal metabolic rate? A) estrogen B) insulin C) norepinephrine D) cortisol E) thyroxin
25) The hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine constitute the "alarm" response of the body to
stress. What secretes these hormones? A) pancreas B) thyroid gland C) adrenal medulla D) pineal gland E) anterior pituitary gland
26) What is an example of a molecule that can act as both a neurotransmitter and a hormone? A) estrogen B) progesterone C) thyroxine D) norepinephrine E) insulin
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27) Which of the following is a paracrine regulator that affects almost every organ in the body? A) insulin B) testosterone C) prostaglandin D) gonadotropin E) epinephrine
28) Which of the following hormones exerts its action by interacting with a receptor at the cell
surface? A) insulin B) cortisol C) testosterone D) estrogen E) progesterone
29) Which hormone is NOT produced by the anterior pituitary gland? A) prolactin B) luteinizing hormone C) calcitonin D) growth hormone
30) Why does consumption of alcohol stimulate urination? A) It stimulates ADH secretion. B) It inhibits ADH secretion. C) It stimulates vasopressin. D) It stimulates oxytocin. E) It inhibits aldosterone.
31) What hormone stimulates the milk-ejection reflex? A) antidiuretic hormone B) oxytocin C) vasopressin D) parathyroid hormone E) aldosterone
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32) Hormones of the posterior pituitary gland are transported to the hypothalamus by what
unusual route? A) the limbic system B) blood vessels C) axons D) the lymphatic system E) the hypopituitary shunt
33) What hormone stimulates milk production in mammals? A) aldosterone B) melatonin C) prolactin D) luteinizing hormone E) growth hormone
34) Which of the following are examples of gonadotropins? A) prolactin and oxytocin B) follicle-stimulating hormone and oxytocin C) luteinizing hormone and estrogen D) prolactin and estrogen E) follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone
35) Nonpolar hormones can pass through the intestinal cell membrane without being digested,
and therefore can be taken orally. Which of the following hormones are available as pills? A) insulin and growth hormone B) thyroid hormone and steroid hormones C) calcitonin and insulin D) insulin and steroid hormones E) calcitonin and thyroid hormone
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36) Which is NOT an effect of the hormonal products of the adrenal medulla? A) accelerate heartbeat B) stimulate synthesis of glycogen C) increase blood pressure D) reduce blood flow to the skin and digestive organs E) increase blood sugar
37) Which one of the following is a glucocorticoid important in both gluconeogenesis (glucose
produced from amino acids) during starvation and anti-inflammation? A) aldosterone B) cortisol C) glucagon D) insulin E) prolactin
38) Which of the following hormones is NOT produced by the adrenal gland? A) epinephrine B) cortisol C) prolactin D) aldosterone E) norepinephrine
39) Which two hormones interact to maintain normal levels of blood glucose? A) cortisone and testosterone B) epinephrine and norepinephrine C) glucagon and insulin D) LH and FSH E) oxytocin and vasopressin
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40) When the body's blood glucose level rises above normal, which of the following hormones is
produced? A) glucagon B) epinephrine C) insulin D) norepinephrine E) prolactin
41) Which of the following conditions is not associated with diabetes? A) elevated levels of blood glucose B) lowered production of insulin by the pancreas C) reduced body cell sensitivity to insulin D) defects in pituitary gland function E) careful diet and exercise measures are required to balance blood sugar levels
42) The right atrium secretes atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH), which stimulates the kidneys to
excrete salt and water into the urine. ANH acts antagonistically to what other hormone? A) cortisol B) aldosterone C) glucagon D) thyroxine E) progesterone
43) Which of the following is NOT an example of a sex steroid hormone? A) estrogen B) progesterone C) prolactin D) testosterone E) estradiol
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44) Which of the following hormones regulates metamorphosis and molting in insects? A) melatonin B) ecdysone C) estrogen D) somatostatin E) trypsin
45) Which two systems in the human body are devoted exclusively to the regulation of organ
function? A) endocrine and circulatory systems B) respiratory and circulatory systems C) nervous and circulatory systems D) nervous and endocrine systems E) respiratory and nervous systems
46) Choose the hormone that is NOT correctly matched with its chemical category. A) polypeptides—ADH B) steroid—estradiol C) amine—FSH D) glycoprotein—LH E) steroid—testosterone
47) Which statement below does NOT correctly describe paracrine regulation? A) Paracrine regulatory molecules include cytokines and growth factors. B) Nitric oxide can function either as a neurotransmitter or a paracrine regulatory
molecule. C) Endothelin and bradykinin are paracrine molecules that control blood vessel constriction and dilation. D) Paracrine molecules are released into the circulatory system to affect distant tissues. E) Platelet-derived growth factor and insulin-like growth factor are both paracrine regulatory molecules.
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48) Choose the hormone that is NOT correctly matched with the endocrine gland that secretes it. A) adrenal cortex—aldosterone B) pancreas—insulin C) pineal gland—melatonin D) adrenal medulla—cortisol E) posterior lobe of pituitary gland—oxytocin
49) The cells of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland secrete many hormones. From the
following list select the hormone that is NOT secreted from the anterior lobe of the pituitary. A) growth hormone B) prolactin C) follicle-stimulating hormone D) melanocyte-stimulating hormone E) antidiuretic hormone
50) Large or polar hormones cannot enter a cell directly. Which of the following molecules can
act as a second messenger for such hormones? A) catecholamine B) cyclic AMP C) epinephrine D) norepinephrine E) calcitonin
51) Which statement does NOT correctly describe hormones that can directly enter a cell? A) Steroid hormones can enter directly into cells because of their hydrophobic makeup. B) Water-soluble hormones can enter directly into cells because of their nonpolar
makeup. C) Steroid hormones dissolve poorly in the plasma and are transported to target cells via special protein carriers. D) Once these hormones enter a cell, they bind to a cytoplasmic receptor and travel as a complex to the nucleus, or they may bind to the receptor after entering the nucleus.
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52) Which of the following does NOT correctly describe antidiuretic hormone? A) It regulates water turnover in the mammalian kidney. B) ADH secretion is stimulated by high blood osmolarity. C) It ultimately acts to reabsorb more water. D) It exerts it effects via the cAMP pathway. E) It does not involve the use of aquaporin molecules.
53) Which hormone is secreted by alpha cells of the pancreas in response to hypoglycemia? A) glucagon B) insulin C) glucose D) cortisol E) glycogen
54) Which hormone is most similar in amino acid structure to chicken vasotocin? A) antidiuretic hormone B) aldosterone C) angiotensin II D) growth hormone E) oxytocin
55) Which is the best explanation for how ibuprofen works? A) It thins the blood to relieve joint pain. B) It inhibits cyclooxygenase-2, which is needed to produce prostaglandins. C) It activates cyclooxygenase-2, which then produces more prostaglandins. D) It down-regulates the production of substance P. E) It activates cyclooxygenase-2, which promotes healing of tissue.
56) Which of the following is likely to occur after drinking three alcoholic beverages? A) Increased urination due to alcohol activating antiduretic hormone production. B) Decreased urination due to alcohol activating aldosterone production. C) Increased urination due to alcohol inhibiting antidiuretic hormone production. D) Decreased urination due to alcohol inhibiting antidiuretic hormone production. E) Increased urination due to alcohol inhibiting aldosterone production.
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57) Which of the following is NOT a function of oxytocin? A) pair bonding B) milk-ejection reflex C) milk production D) uterine contractions
58) Which of the following hormones has the fewest targets? A) growth hormone B) melatonin C) oxytocin D) thyroid-stimulating hormone E) testosterone
59) Which of the following is NOT a function of parathyroid hormone? A) It increases calcium production in the liver. B) It increases calcium absorption across the intestine. C) It increases reabsorption of
in the kidney. D) It stimulates osteoclasts to dissolve crystals in bone.
60) Which of the following features distinguishes all hormones from neurotransmitters? A) Hormones require large concentrations to have an effect, while neurotransmitters
require only low concentrations. B) A hormone affects reproductive functions, while neurotransmitters control all other processes. C) Hormones travel via the blood to a target tissue, while neurotransmitters cross the synaptic cleft to a postsynaptic cell. D) Hormones are steroids, while neurotransmitters are amino acids.
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61) What is the difference between the endocrine system and the autonomic nervous system? A) The endocrine system employs chemical signals only, while the autonomic nervous
system involves a combination of electrical and chemical signals. B) The autonomic nervous system promotes "fight or flight" functions, while the endocrine system promotes "rest and digest" functions. C) Norepinephrine is produced by the autonomic nervous system, while epinephrine is produced by the endocrine system. D) The axons of neurons of the endocrine system travel a shorter distance than those of the autonomic nervous system.
62) If blood transports hormones throughout the body, how do they communicate with specific
targets? A) Special gateway valves in the blood vessels direct hormones to their target tissues. B) Special carrier proteins "walk" along microtubule tracts to deliver the hormones to their targets. C) Axonal pathfinding mediates the delivery of hormones to their specific targets. D) Only target tissues have receptors that allow them to receive the signal.
63) True or False: Hormones must be present at high concentrations to elicit an effect. ⊚ true ⊚ false
64) True or False: A molecule can act as both a neurotransmitter and a hormone. ⊚ true ⊚ false
65) True or False: The brain controls organ system function only through direct contact with
sympathetic or parasympathetic nerves. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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66) Which are endocrine organs? (Check all that apply.) A) adenohypophysis B) adrenal gland C) cochlea D) hypothalamus E) ileum F) lymph node G) neurohypophysis H) ovary I) pancreas J) pineal gland K) salivary gland L) sebaceous gland M) spleen N) testis O) thyroid gland
67) Why don't hormones build up in the body over time? A) They are secreted from the body by exocrine glands. B) They are filtered out of the blood by lymph tissues. C) They do, but target tissues become desensitized over time. D) They are degraded by enzymes in the target tissue.
68) You are studying a disease caused by insufficient levels of a specific peptide hormone, and
characterize mutations in several genes that can lead to the disease. Your startup company can only afford to pursue one gene product as a possible therapy. Which would you choose? A) Gene A -- a transcription factor. B) Gene B -- an enzyme that activates the hormone by cleaving its inactive precursor. C) Gene C -- the hormone itself. D) Gene D -- a kinase that acts downstream of the hormone.
69) The basic categories of hormones are peptide or proteins, steroids, and amino acid
derivatives. The chemical properties of each hormone type determine some of its functional properties and how it must interact with receptors to signal to the cell.
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69.1)
A new hormone is discovered. Tests reveal that it is small, hydrophilic, and degraded by a protease. What type of hormone is it? A) peptide B) amino acid derivative C) steroid D) glucocorticoid E) prostaglandin
70) What are the three main categories of hormones? (Check three.) A) adrenergic B) amino acid derivative C) anabolic D) catabolic E) cytosolic F) peptide / protein G) steroid
71) You are researching an "orphan disease" with no available treatment. Your lab develops a
drug that mimics a lipophilic hormone thought to be lacking in the disease, and you are looking for a pharmaceutical company to partner with to run a clinical trial. Based on the reaction from each team, which would you choose to work with? A) Company A: "What you've developed is wonderful, but we'll need to develop a delivery system to get the drug across the cell membrane." B) Company B: "Your new drug seems very promising. Do you know which G-protein coupled receptor it binds to?" C) Company C: "We're interested in developing this drug - it could really help people. Do you know which genes the hormone regulates?"
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72) You are an attending physician supervising a new resident. Together, you decide to treat a
patient with a steroid drug. The resident administers the drug and watches the patient anxiously. "It's not working," he mutters. How do you respond? A) "You're right, it doesn't seem to be working. Let's increase the dose, since we need to achieve high steroid levels in the blood." B) "Why don't you go on your rounds and come back? Steroid hormones need several hours to work, since they regulate gene expression. Transcription and translation take time." C) "We forgot to administer the carrier protein to get the drug across the cell membrane. We can add that now." D) "Let's grab a cup of coffee and then check again. Activating the G-protein coupled receptor and its downstream kinase cascade can take several minutes."
73) You are scheduled to give a seminar to your fellow med school students, and have chosen to
speak about the pituitary. What important points will you include? (Check all that apply.) A) The posterior pituitary is derived from the brain, while the anterior pituitary is not. B) The anterior pituitary is derived from the brain, while the posterior pituitary is not. C) The pituitary is a compound endocrine gland. D) Each half of the pituitary secretes one important hormone. E) Some pituitary hormones have sex-specific effects. F) If there is too little iodine in the diet, the pituitary can grow into a goiter. G) The pituitary is responsible for producing at least nine major hormones.
74) ACTH stands for adrenocorticotropic hormone, but it is produced in the anterior pituitary.
What is the basis of this name? A) It is expressed most highly in tropical climates. B) It stimulates the adrenal cortex. C) It signals to the kidneys to reabsorb water. D) It stimulates appetite by acting on the cerebral cortex.
75) What stimulates the production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)? A) GHRH B) CRH C) CIH D) ADH
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76) Which are important components of the communication between the hypothalamus and
anterior pituitary? (Check all that apply.) A) ADH and oxytocin B) capillaries C) fibrous pituitary stalk D) GHIH, PIF, and MIH E) hormones F) hypothalamohypophyseal portal system G) transport of hormones down axons H) TRH, CRH, GnRH, and GHRH
77) Which are important components of the communication between the hypothalamus and
posterior pituitary? (Check all that apply.) A) ADH and oxytocin B) capillaries C) fibrous pituitary stalk D) GHIH, PIF, and MIH E) hormones F) hypothalamohypophyseal portal system G) transport of hormones down axons H) TRH, CRH, GnRH, and GHRH
78) Your doctor returns with your lab results and looks grave. “I’m afraid,” she says, “you seem
to have a problem with your hypophysis.” What do you say? A) “Doctor, right now I’m interested in results, not testable ideas about how things work!” B) “Well, that’s only responsible for one or two hormones, so it should be easy to treat.” C) “Am I going to need insulin shots?” D) “Is it the posterior? Neurological problems run in my family.”
79) Cushing's syndrome causes weight gain, excessive sweating, and muscle weakness. It can
result from either the production of abnormally high levels of cortisol by the body, or overuse of glucocorticosteroid drugs. You are an endocrinologist working with a Cushing's syndrome patient. She is on hormonal birth control pills and takes an occasional ibuprofen.
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79.1)
What lab tests would you order to find the source of the problem? A) cortisol, LH, and FSH B) None -- the birth control pills include corticosteroid hormones. She should switch to another form of birth control. C) cortisol, ACTH, and CRH D) cortisol and ACTH
79.2)
Results from lab tests reveal abnormally high endogenous hormone levels, and you suspect a possible tumor. What regions will you ask the MRI technician to focus on? A) hypothalamus, anterior pituitary, and adrenal cortex B) adrenal cortex only C) hypothalamus and posterior pituitary D) anterior and posterior pituitary
80) You have a pediatric patient with signs of excessive growth, or gigantism. Initial tests reveal
abnormally high levels of growth hormone. What other hormone disruptions might be the primary cause of his symptoms? (Check all that apply.) A) high GHIH B) low GHIH C) high GHRH D) low GHRH E) high GnRH F) low GnRH
81) A middle-aged female patient complains of changes to her face. Her cheekbones and
eyebrows have become more prominent, and her jaw is growing. You suspect acromegaly, a disorder caused by excessive growth hormone. She had no growth abnormalities in her youth. What do you suspect is the most likely cause of her problem? A) a tumour of the pineal gland B) congenital mutation of the GH regulatory region C) a tumour of the anterior pituitary D) a tumour of the posterior pituitary E) menopause
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82) Increased use of MRI technology has resulted in a surprising medical dilemma. Scans used
for early detection of tumors often reveal benign internal growths that would otherwise have gone undetected, called incidentalomas. This creates the problem of determining whether the growths are harmful without performing needless surgeries. Assume that you have found a pituitary incidentaloma in one of your patients. What blood tests could you perform to determine whether it is causing dysfunction? (Check all that apply.) A) adrenococrticotropic hormone (ACTH) B) luteinizing hormone (LH) C) antidiuretic hormone (ADH) D) melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) E) calcitonin F) melatonin G) follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) H) oxytocin I) glucagon J) prolactin (PRL) K) growth hormone (GH) L) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) M) insulin N) thyroxine
83) Your friend is concerned because although she has never been pregnant, her breasts are
producing milk. When she went to the doctor, he sent her to the MRI lab for a brain scan. She was too embarrassed to ask the doctor why. What do you tell her? A) "They were actually scanning your thyroid gland, not your brain. Are you getting enough iodine in your diet?" B) "The MRI technician must have mixed up your patient records. He should have done a thoracic scan instead." C) "LH and FSH from the posterior pituitary stimulate milk production. The doctor wants to rule out excess levels of estrogen in the pituitary stalk." D) "Prolactin from the anterior pituitary stimulates milk production. The doctor probably wants to rule out a pituitary tumor."
84) True or False: The thyroid requires negative feedback to prevent overgrowth. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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85) True or False: If
levels in the blood are too low, hormones from the parathyroid gland can induce bones to dissolve and release calcium. ⊚ true ⊚ false
86) Blood glucose levels must be carefully maintained within a narrow window. What endocrine
organ is responsible for this task? A) pancreas B) pineal gland C) pituitary gland D) parathyroid gland
87) What strategy does the body use for blood glucose homeostasis? A) release of hormones by the brain B) energy stores in bone allow for quick glucose release C) glucose usage by the brain is shut down when necessary D) the action of two antagonistic effectors
88) When a diabetic injects insulin, what does this accomplish? A) promotes glucose release from cells, raising blood glucose B) promotes uptake of glucose into cells, lowering blood glucose C) promotes hydrolysis of glycogen, raising blood glucose D) improves the ability of the body to sense blood glucose levels
89) Estrogen and testosterone are steroid hormones that differ by only a few atoms. The different
receptor binding properties those differences confer allow the hormones to do what during development? A) Cause differential maturation of the prefrontal cortex during late adolescence. B) Cause a slight increase in muscle mass in females versus males. C) Make females naturally attracted to pink and males to blue. D) Control development of all sex-specific physical traits including sex organs, body hair, and breasts.
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90) Atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH) stimulates the kidneys to excrete salt and water in the
urine. Why does it make sense that the heart is the source of ANH? A) The heart is a major endocrine organ that releases several hormones. B) ANH helps regulate blood pressure, which is sensed by distension of the heart atria. C) The heart is conveniently close to the hypothalamus. D) Secretion of hormones by the heart makes it easy for them to enter the bloodstream.
91) What nonendocrine organ produces erythropoietin, which stimulates red blood cell
production in the bone marrow? A) kidneys B) skin C) heart D) pituitary E) liver
92) Many insecticides target insect hormones such as juvenile hormone or ecdysone to disrupt
development. This is preferable to simply killing the insect with more broadly-acting toxins.
92.1)
Your cat has fleas! You look at the ingredients in the flea control ointment, and see that it contains methoprene, a juvenile hormone analog. What does this accomplish? A) prevents flea larvae from maturing B) kills juvenile fleas C) reinvigorates the cat's immune system, to repel the fleas D) forces juvenile fleas to mature early, disrupting development of reproductive organs
92.2)
What is a benefit of targeting hormone signaling rather than a generic cellular housekeeping process in insects? A) It is water soluble. B) It works very quickly. C) It disrupts the entire population in the area. D) It is specific to insects and less toxic to mammals.
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93) G protein coupled receptors are a large class of receptors that bind hormones as well as other
signaling molecules, neurotransmitters, and even odorants. They are a major target of pharmaceutical drugs for various disorders. Typically, the drug acts as an antagonist, blocking the binding site on the GPCR. Why is the receptor a more attractive drug target than the G protein activated downstream? (Check all that apply.) A) It is easier to target molecules from the outside of the cell membrane, because getting drugs into the cell can be difficult. B) Interfering with the G protein would require getting a drug across several membranes into the cell's nucleus. C) The "G-protein" is not really a protein but just a GTP molecules, which is too small to be a possible drug target. D) Since GPCRs are so widespread and perform many roles in the body, targeting G proteins used by multiple GPCRs would create side-effects beyond the targeted physiological function. E) Since the GPCRs bind a variety of unique ligands, their structures are varied enough to be able to create specific targeted drugs for certain pathways.
94) Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that target beta-adrenergic receptors, blocking the action of
epinephrine and norepinephrine. These drugs are used to treat heart conditions, hypertension, glaucoma, and migraine headaches and are also used off-label to alleviate stage fright in performers. Since the beta-adrenergic receptor is a GPCR, what intracellular event is prevented by the use of a beta-blocker? A) a protein kinase cascade, initiated by the receptor's intracellular kinase domain B) release of an activated G protein subunit bound to GTP C) transport of the receptor-hormone complex into the cell and the nucleus, where it would regulate transcription D) a protein phosphatase cascade, initiated by the receptor's intracellular phosphatase domain
95) Ultimately, the signal from a peptide hormone is typically conveyed to the effectors in the
cell via the transfer of what molecular moiety? A) nucleotide B) NO (nitric oxide) C) D) phosphate group E) amino acid
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96) To exert its effects on gene regulation in a cell, a steroid hormone must interact with a variety
of proteins and cell structures along the way. Check the box for each interaction partner. A) carrier protein B) microtubules C) plasma membrane D) hormone receptor E) nuclear membrane F) GPCR
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 44 1) [B, C] 2) B 3) B 4) C 5) E 6) Section Break 6.1) D 6.2) A 7) B 8) [B, C, F] 9) B 10) A 11) E 12) A 13) C 14) D 15) B 16) D 17) D 18) E 19) D 20) A 21) C 22) D 23) C 24) E 25) C 26) D 27) C 28) A 29) C 30) B 31) B 32) C 33) C 34) E 35) B
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36) B 37) B 38) C 39) C 40) C 41) D 42) B 43) C 44) B 45) D 46) C 47) D 48) D 49) E 50) B 51) B 52) E 53) A 54) E 55) B 56) C 57) C 58) D 59) A 60) C 61) A 62) D 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) [A, B, D, G, H, I, J, N, O] 67) D 68) C 69) Section Break 69.1) A 70) [B, F, G] 71) C 72) B 73) [A, C, E, G] 74) B
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75) B 76) [B, D, E, F, H] 77) [A, C, E, G] 78) D 79) Section Break 79.1) C 79.2) A 80) [B, C] 81) C 82) [A, B, C, D, G, H, J, K, L] 83) D 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) A 87) D 88) B 89) D 90) B 91) A 92) Section Break 92.1) A 92.2) D 93) [A, D, E] 94) B 95) D 96) [A, C, D, E]
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Chapter 45 Student name:__________ 1) The mammalian jaw is an example of what kind of moveable joint? A) hinge joint B) combination joint C) gliding joint D) ball-and-socket joint
2) As the Baby Boomer generation ages, more and more joint replacement surgeries take place
each year. Hip replacement surgery is the gold standard of all joint replacement surgeries, with many patients able to walk just a few hours after surgery and return home the very next day. In contrast, knee replacement surgery usually requires hospital stays of several days, followed by weeks to months of physical therapy. What best explains why the recovery after hip replacement surgery is so much faster than after knee replacement surgery? A) The hip joint is more superficial and more accessible to surgeons than the knee joint. B) The knee joint is stabilized by many more structures (many of which have to be cut) than the hip joint. C) The hip only moves in one direction, and recovery of one motion is easier than recovering movement in many directions. D) The upper end of the thigh bone has less overall surface contact with the hip bone than its lower end has in the knee with bones of the lower leg. E) The knee is a type of combination joint, which are difficult to replace.
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3) Shown below is part of a myofibril from a relaxed muscle fiber. Which of the labeled regions
will NOT shorten when the muscle contracts?
A) B) C) D)
A band H band I band Sarcomere
4) In a stimulated muscle fiber, the calcium ions released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum bind to
the protein_________. A) troponin B) tropomyosin C) actin D) myosin
5) You decide to do an experiment with isolated myofibrils to explore the effects of ATP
hydrolysis on myofibril function. You do this by bathing the myofibrils in a solution that contains a modified form of ATP, which cannot be split into ADP and Pi. At what step will myofibril function be arrested by using this compound instead of unmodified ATP? A) There will be no block in the cycle, since ATP hydrolysis is not required for this process. B) Myosin molecules will be unable to assemble into thick filaments. C) Myosin heads will be unable to bind to the actin filaments. D) Myosin heads will bind to the actin filaments, but the power stroke will not occur and actin filaments will not slide over the myosin filaments. E) The myosin heads will remain attached to the actin filaments after the power stroke.
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6) The sliding filament model for muscle contraction can be studied using an isolated skeletal
muscle that is fixed at each end, while a machine records the tension that is generated when the muscle is stimulated to contract. In one particular muscle tested, the length of the thick filaments was 1.6 μm and the length of the thin filaments that project in from each Z line towards the center of the sarcomere was 1.0 μm. A summary of the results comparing sarcomere length to the degree of tension produced during contraction is shown below. What most likely explains the difference between segment II and segment III of the graph?
McGraw Hill A) There is an increasing overlap of the free ends of the thin filaments in segment III but not in segment II. B) The muscle cells used up all the ATP by the end of segment II. C) The distance between the Z lines is constant in segment II but rapidly increasing in segment III. D) Fewer myosin cross-bridges are forming in segment II than in segment III. E) The length of the thick filaments is decreasing in segment III but not in segment II. F) The length of the thin filaments is decreasing in segment III but not in segment II.
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7) The structure enabling depolarization to travel deep into the muscle fiber is the_________. A) T tubule B) sarcoplasmic reticulum C) motor unit D) sarcomere
8) The neurotransmitter released from the nerve terminus at the neuromuscular junction
is_________. A) troponin B) C) tropomyosin D) acetylcholine
9) The use-dependent decrease in the ability of a muscle to generate force is called_________. A) tetanus B) aerobic fitness C) fatigue D) endurance
10) Which of the bone development lineages is incorrect? A) undifferentiated mesenchymal cells → osteocyte → osteoblast B) undifferentiated mesenchymal cells → fibroblast → collagen C) undifferentiated mesenchymal cells → chondroblast → chondrocyte D) white blood cell progenitors → monocytes → osteoclast E) undifferentiated mesenchymal cells → osteoblast → osteocyte
11) Which of the following regarding bone growth is false? A) Cartilage of growth plates actively grow in lengthwise direction. B) Increase in bone thickness results from the adding of bone layers on top of the
periosteum. C) Some cartilage remains after it is replaced by bone. D) Cartilage calcification encroaches on the cartilaginous growth plate.
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12) One adaptation to flight in birds is lighter bones, which lack A) calcium. B) collagen. C) bone marrow. D) the periosteum. E) medullary cavities.
13) Which of the following regarding the Haversian System is false? A) It keeps osteocytes alive. B) Haversian canals may contain nerve fibers. C) Haversian canals run parallel to the length of long bone. D) Haversian canals are created by osteoclasts that tunnel through the bone matrix.
14) You witness a demonstration of a martial arts master breaking a large concrete block with his
hand. Besides mastering the technique, what is another benefit of the repetitive practice of breaking concrete? A) Repetitive stress on the long bones will solidify cartilage. B) The Haversian canal system will supply more blood and strengthen the bone. C) The repetitive stress will lead to remodeling and strengthening of the long bones. D) The marrow cavity will solidify and strengthen the bone.
15) Utilizing more motor units for stronger muscle contractions is called A) fast-twitching. B) fatigue. C) aerobic capacity. D) recruitment. E) insertion.
16) Which of the following is the smallest unit in terms of size? A) quadriceps B) myofibril C) muscle fiber D) sarcomere E) myofilaments
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17) According to the figure, which one represents the muscle in an optimal condition for a strong
contraction?
A) B) C) D)
A B C D
18) Which of the following is required to detach myosin from actin? A) calcium B) ATP C) phosphate D) troponin E) ADP
19) In arthropods, locomotion is accomplished by muscles that work against A) each other. B) the exoskeleton. C) a hydrostatic skeleton. D) mineralized bones. E) the pseudocoel.
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20) Insects such as mosquitoes and beetles can beat their wings at tremendous speeds. This can
be accomplished because A) their wing muscle contractions causes another set of muscles to stretch which in turn produces another contraction without waiting for the arrival of a nerve impulse. B) their wing muscle contractions cause another set of muscles to relax which in turn produces another wing movement. C) their wing muscle contractions are stimulated by the continuous nerve signal impulses which produce a continuous contraction of their wing muscles. D) their wing muscle contractions are capable of producing more ATP which allows these insects to have much faster and sustained wing movements. E) their wing muscle contractions produce nerve impulses which lead to more contraction of the wing muscles which in turn permits faster motion of the wings.
21) Which animal does a dolphin or whale most resemble as it swims through water? A) A running lizard B) A running dog C) A swimming shark D) A swimming alligator E) A swimming penguin
22) Select the incorrect statement about muscle and muscle fibers. A) A quick contraction and relaxation of an isolated skeletal muscle is called tetanus. B) Long distance runners tend to have more slow-twitch muscle fibers than fast-twitch
fibers. C) Slow-twitch muscle fibers have high concentrations of myoglobin. D) Fast-twitch fibers increase in size with resistance training. E) Fast-twitch fibers have fewer capillaries and mitochondria than slow-twitch fibers.
23) Select the incorrect statement related to sarcomere structure and function. A) Thin filaments are not present in the H band of a sarcomere. B) Two Z lines form the opposite borders of one sarcomere. C) Stacks of thick filaments produce dark bands, called the A band. D) I bands consist of both thin and thick filaments. E) Sacromeres are the smallest subunits of muscle contraction.
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24) Which of the following statements relating to skeletal muscle and their functions is NOT
correct? A) Skeletal muscles are attached to bones by tendons. B) The origin of a skeletal muscle remains relatively stationary. C) The end of the muscle called the insertion is attached to the bone that moves when the muscle contracts. D) Contraction of the hamstring muscles extends your knee. E) Muscles that produce opposing actions at a joint are called antagonists.
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25) In the power stroke shown in panel c below, the thin filaments are pulled towards the center
of the sarcomere. What is the specific sequence of events that occurs during a power stroke?
A) Release of the phosphate group → myosin head changes shape → release of ADP B) Release of the phosphate group → release of ADP → myosin head changes shape C) Release of ADP → myosin head changes shape → release of the phosphate group D) Myosin head changes shape → release of the phosphate group → release of ADP E) Release of ADP → release of the phosphate group → myosin head changes shape
26) Which of the following joint types is not correctly matched with its example? A) ball-and-socket joint—femur and pelvis B) gliding joint—vertebral column C) immovable joint—skull sutures D) hinge joint—finger joint E) combination joint—knee joint
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27) In order for an earthworm to lengthen several contiguous segments of its body, it must A) contract its circular muscles, which pulls up the chaetae and moves the body fluid
parallel to the long axis of the worm. B) contract its longitudinal muscles, which pulls up the chaetae and moves the body fluid perpendicular to the long axis of the worm. C) contract its circular muscles, which extends the chaetae into the surrounding soil and moves the body fluid parallel to the long axis of the worm. D) contract its longitudinal muscles, which extends the chaetae into the surrounding soil and moves the body fluid parallel to the long axis of the worm. E) contract its circular muscles, which extends the chaetae into the surrounding soil and moves the body fluid perpendicular to the long axis of the worm.
28) All of the following statements about exoskeletons are correct EXCEPT A) exoskeletons are made of chitin. B) muscles are attached to the exoskeleton. C) exoskeletons do not limit growth because they can stretch. D) exoskeletons are shed by many arthropods in a process called molting. E) chitin is a polysaccharide.
29) The muscles that move the eye have a high proportion of fast-twitch fibers and reach
maximum tension very fast. These fibers belong to the class of_________ fibers. A) type I B) type II C) type III D) type IV E) type V
30) You have just read an advertisement for a new drug that claims people who take it can get
muscular bodies without spending months lifting weights in the gym. The drug stimulates muscle growth in the same way that weight lifting does, which is to A) stimulate growth in the size of existing muscle fibers. B) stimulate existing muscle fibers to divide. C) stimulate existing muscle fibers to fuse with one another. D) turn surrounding connective tissue into muscle tissue. E) stimulate an increase in the proportion of slow-twitch muscle fibers.
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31) In order for a muscle to contract, calcium ions released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum must
bind to A) B) C) D) E)
troponin. tropomyosin. myosin. actin. ATP.
32) Which of these muscles would you expect to have the greatest proportion of slow-twitch
fibers? A) B) C) D)
the gastrocnemius the soleus the lateral rectus chicken breast muscle
33) Impressive was a champion Quarter Horse stallion with a magnificent muscular physique, a
trait that he passed on to dozens of offspring. However, many of Impressive's offspring developed periodic muscular twitching that sometimes left the horses temporarily unable to move. Some horses even died. As it turns out, Impressive's award-winning physique was due to a mutation in a single, protein-encoding gene, resulting in hyperexcitable muscle (which contracts even in the absence of a stimulus from its motor neuron). Which is NOT a plausible explanation for the identity of the abnormal muscle protein in Impressive and his offspring? A) acetylcholine receptors that function in the absence of acetylcholine B) leaky channels C) overactive pumps in the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum D) tropomyosin that is unable to bind to actin E) over-active troponin molecules
34) What is the association between tropomyosin and troponin molecules in resting striated
muscle fibers? A) Tropomyosin holds the troponin in place on the myosin. B) Troponin holds the tropomyosin in place on the myosin. C) Tropomyosin holds the troponin in place on the actin. D) Troponin holds the tropomyosin in place on the actin. E) There is no known association.
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35) Sustained contraction is called A) twitching. B) summation. C) tetanus. D) recruitment. E) isometric binding.
36) Impulses conducted along the transverse tubules of the muscle fiber stimulate A) the release of ATP. B) the binding of actin to the Z lines. C) tropomyosin and troponin binding. D) the release of calcium ions. E) the release of acetylcholine.
37) A muscle fiber contracts by a sequence of events initiated by the binding of acetylcholine to
its receptor. Which of the following is the correct sequence? 1. The calcium-troponin complex pulls tropomyosin away from the myosin binding sites of actin. 2. The freed-sites of actin bind to myosin to form cross bridges. 3. Calcium ion binds to the troponin. A) I, III, and II B) III, II, and I C) II, III, and I D) I, II, and III E) III, I, and II
38) A newborn baby dies soon after birth because her diaphragm and rib cage muscles failed to
contract and she was unable to breathe on her own. Examination of the baby’s DNA revealed that she had a genetic mutation in a gene that encoded a calcium-binding protein. Which protein was most likely defective in the baby? A) actin B) myosin C) acetylcholine D) tropomyosin E) troponin
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39) The movement of actin and myosin fibers in a muscle contraction contains all of the
following steps EXCEPT A) the myosin head attaches to the actin filament. B) myosin rolls up from one end, forming a ball. C) the myosin filament advances relative to the actin filament. D) the globular myosin head detaches from the actin filament. E) the myosin head returns to its original conformation.
40) Myofibril contractile subunits, the sarcomeres, are bounded on each end by a disc of protein
called the A) H band. B) I band. C) A band. D) Z line. E) M line.
41) A cross bridge is the binding of which two proteins? A) actin and myosin B) actin and troponin C) myosin and troponin D) collagen and troponin E) myosin and collagen
42) Identify the condition that will result in an increased level of calcium in the blood. A) inhibition of chondroblasts B) inhibition of chondrocytes C) excess osteoclast activity D) excess osteocyte activity E) excess osteoblast activity
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43) In bone, crystals of calcium phosphate impregnate the extracellular matrix containing fibers
of A) B) C) D) E)
actin. chitin. collagen. myosin. troponin.
44) Vertebrate bone does NOT_________. A) consist of cells and an extracellular matrix containing collagen fibers B) contain hydroxyapatite crystals C) contain sarcomere units D) contain blood vessels E) become remodeled with use
45) Which of the following is/are required with actin and myosin in order to initiate muscle
contraction? A) ATP B) calcium C) phosphate D) calcium and ATP E) calcium and phosphate
46) The human skeleton is a typical vertebrate A) endoskeleton. B) exoskeleton. C) hydrostatic skeleton. D) axial skeleton only. E) appendicular skeleton only.
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47) Impulses conducted along the muscle fiber's transverse tubules stimulate the release of
calcium ions into the cytoplasm A) from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. B) from the actin and myosin subunits. C) from the Z line. D) from the extracellular fluid in the neuromuscular junction. E) from the troponin.
48) Muscle fatigue is often accompanied by muscle pain. What is the most likely explanation for
this pain? A) decreased pH in the muscle fibers B) decreased levels of glycogen in the muscle fibers C) decreased levels of ATP in the muscle fibers D) increased levels of in the muscle fibers E) the myofibrils being torn apart
49) The myofibrils consist of both thin filaments made of actin and thick filaments composed of A) myosin. B) troponin. C) chitin. D) tropomyosin. E) acetylcholine.
50) What molecule contributes to the red color of slow-twitch muscle fibers? A) glycogen B) lactic acid C) ATP D) myoglobin E) fatty acids
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51) You are investigating the scene of a hit and run where somebody's pet dog was killed. It is a
very hot day so the dog's body temperature is unlikely to yield any important information regarding the time of death. The dog's limbs are movable and there is no significant smell of rotting flesh. What is the best guess of the time of death? A) within the last 10 minutes B) within the last 2 hours C) 3-4 hours ago D) 24 hours ago
52) A lab technician is preparing to dispose of a rat and a frog that were euthanized earlier in the
day for a scientific study. Although the two animals died at the same time, the rat has rigor mortis while the frog does not yet show any signs of it. What is the best explanation for this time difference in the onset of rigor mortis? A) The rat's muscles have a greater density of myofilaments than the frog's muscles. B) The rat is able to synthesize more ATP than the frog. C) The frog has lower concentrations of glycogen in its muscles than the rat. D) The rat has higher concentrations of myoglobin in its muscles than the frog. E) All the frog's muscles are fast-twitch muscles.
53) If you rub the scaled skin of a shark, it feels rough if you move your hand from tail to head
but smooth if you move from head to tail. What is a major advantage of the scales being oriented this way? A) to counteract friction as the shark swims through the water B) to keep the shark afloat in the water C) to better protect the shark from predators D) to better prevent water loss from the body tissues E) to enable the shark to orient itself in space and detect prey
54) Sarin gas is an inhibitor of an enzyme that functions in the neuromuscular junction to break
down acetylcholine. What is the most likely description of how a person would die after inhaling this poisonous gas? A) by a heart attack B) paralysis of skeletal muscles C) suffocation via tetanus, or constant stimulation, of the respiratory muscles D) suffocation via paralysis, or a block in stimulation, of the respiratory muscles E) epileptic convulsions caused by disorganized electrical activity in the brain
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55) The masseter muscles originate on your cheekbones and insert into the posterior corners of
the mandible (the lower jaw bone) underneath your ears. Will contraction of the masseter muscles open or close your jaw? A) close B) open
56) The figure below represents a joint in the hind leg of a grasshopper. The exoskeleton of the
leg is indicated by the two pairs of parallel black lines. A muscle that moves this leg is fixed to the skeleton at the end marked with a blue star. When the muscle contracts, it will pull on the tendon at its opposite end. Which configuration shows the most likely arrangement of the exoskeleton and a muscle that increases the flexion of this leg?
McGraw Hill A) A B) B C) C D) D
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57) Proportional to its body length, which animal below can leap the furthest? A) horse B) human C) flea D) kangaroo E) frog F) rabbit
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58)
Based on the above diagram and other information from your text, what is the most likely (e.g., most parsimonious) explanation for the evolution of flight in vertebrates? A) Wings evolved once in vertebrates (e.g., the common ancestor of all terrestrial vertebrates had wings) and wings were subsequently lost in all but three lineages: bats, pterosaurs and birds. B) The common ancestor of all terrestrial vertebrates was wingless and wings evolved independently three different times: in bats, in pterosaurs and in birds. C) The common ancestor of all terrestrial vertebrates was wingless and wings evolved independently two different times: once in bats and once in the common ancestor of birds, pterosaurs and dinosaurs. D) The common ancestor of all terrestrial vertebrates was wingless and wings evolved independently three different times: in bats, in pterosaurs and in the common ancestor of birds and dinosaurs. E) The common ancestor of all terrestrial vertebrates was wingless and wings evolved independently three different times: in bats, in birds and in the common ancestor of pterosaurs and dinosaurs.
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59) Imagine an earthworm that has no chaetae. How would the lack of chaetae affect movement
of the earthworm? A) The earthworm would not be able to move at all. B) The earthworm would only be able to extend its body segments. C) The earthworm would only be able to shorten its body segments. D) The earthworm would have difficulty changing locations, since it cannot anchor itself in the soil. E) The earthworm would be much flatter than normal since it has no hydrostatic skeleton.
60) Many bird wings are more convex on the upper surface than they are on the lower surface.
This enables the wing to provide greater lift because A) A. air moves more slowly over the top surface of the wing than over the lower surface. B) B. air moves more quickly over the top surface of the wing than over the lower surface. C) C. the pressure above the wing is greater than below the wing. D) D. the pressure above the wing is less than below the wing. E) A and C F) B and D G) A and D H) B and C
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 45 1) B 2) B 3) A 4) A 5) C 6) A 7) A 8) D 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) C 13) D 14) C 15) D 16) E 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) A 21) B 22) A 23) D 24) D 25) A 26) E 27) A 28) C 29) B 30) A 31) A 32) B 33) C 34) D 35) C 36) D 37) E
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38) E 39) B 40) D 41) A 42) C 43) C 44) C 45) D 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) A 50) D 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) C 55) A 56) C 57) C 58) B 59) D 60) F
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Chapter 46 Student name:__________ 1) An animal with a gastrointestinal tract is the_________. A) sponge B) hydra C) planarian D) earthworm E) jellyfish
2) James has been having trouble digesting lean steaks and other protein-rich foods, and these
foods seem to stay in his stomach longer than usual. James is likely lacking the enzyme_________. A) pepsin B) glucagon C) bile D) lipase E) amylase
3) A baby is born without the ability to make parietal cells. This baby would not be able
to_________. A) emulsify fats B) digest lactose C) absorb glucose and galactose D) digest fats E) denature (unfold) milk proteins
4) Because of the hepatic portal vein, the_________ is the first organ to receive most of the
products of digestion. A) liver B) kidney C) pancreas D) brain E) heart
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5) The products of fat digestion in the small intestine are reassembled into triglycerides by the
intestinal epithelium, before combining them with proteins to form_________. A) chylomicrons B) chyme C) vesicles D) bile E) cholesterol
6) The pancreas does NOT secrete_________. A) bile B) bicarbonate C) chymotrypsin D) lipase E) glucagon F) amylase
7) The liver produces_________ that functions in emulsification of fats. A) trypsin B) glucagon C) insulin D) bile E) secretin
8) The rate at which an animal consumes energy at rest is called_________. A) the basal metabolic rate B) gluconeogenesis C) glycogenolysis D) rumination E) fermentation
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9) For many people, eating is one of life’s greatest pleasures and they spend much time
gathering, preparing and eating food. However, some of us would rather do other things with our time and it would be great if we did not have to eat at all. Alas, eating is a necessity. Choose the one FALSE reason why humans have to eat. A) We are heterotrophs. B) We cannot make all twenty amino acids. C) We need to replace water that we lose through sweat, breathing and urination. D) We need to obtain trace elements such as iron in our diet. E) We need to obtain many different vitamins in our diet. F) We need to obtain cholesterol for our cell membranes in our diet.
10) Jane and Tom are worried about their newborn baby who has just begun to nurse, but chokes
and turns blue whenever she is fed. Their baby most likely has a defect in her_________. A) tongue muscles B) soft palate C) muscle in the upper-third of her esophagus D) epiglottis E) muscle in the lower two-thirds of her esophagus
11) Saliva contains the hydrolytic enzyme, salivary amylase, which initiates the breakdown of
the polysaccharide_________ into the disaccharide, maltose. A) cellulose B) sucrose C) glucose D) starch E) fructose
12) Most digestion in humans occurs in the first 25 centimeters of the 6-meter length of the small
intestine called the_________. A) cecum B) jejunum C) duodenum D) omasum E) colon
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13) <p>Scientists in Switzerland compared the total surface area of the small intestine in
different species of bats. When the calculations were done as if the inner mucosal surface was smooth, the average inner surface area of the intestinal tube was 9.1 in one species. The mucosal surface area increased to 48 when the villi were factored in and reached a total of 0.13 after adding in the membrane surface area of the microvilli. Approximately what percent of the total surface area of the small intestine in these bats can be attributed to the membrane surface area of the microvilli?</p> A) 12% B) 28% C) 55% D) 78% E) 96%
14) Jouri has been fasting for a few days and decides to go for a short run before breaking her
fast. The glucose she needs for her run will come from_________. A) digestion of starch B) glycolysis C) insulin D) glycogenolysis E) cellular respiration
15) The rumen of the first stomach of ruminants serves as a fermentation chamber in which
bacteria and protozoa degrade A) protein. B) fats. C) cellulose. D) glucose. E) starch.
16) In horses, rodents, and lagomorphs, the digestion of cellulose by microorganisms takes place
in the A) B) C) D) E)
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17) The vertebrate digestive system consists of A) a one-way tube with a separate mouth and anus and accessory organs. B) a two-way tube with a separate mouth and anus. C) a tube with a single opening that serves as mouth and anus. D) a two-way tube with a separate mouth and anus and accessory organs. E) a one-way tube with a separate mouth and anus and no accessory organs.
18) The gastrointestinal tract does not include the_________. A) mouth B) larynx C) esophagus D) stomach E) small intestine
19) When diet and exercise has failed to produce any significant weight loss, some patients who
are seriously overweight elect to have stomach surgery. A procedure galled gastric sleeve surgery removes more than half of the stomach, leaving a tube (or sleeve) about the size of a banana. Following gastric sleeve surgery, patients would have theleast trouble_________. A) eating large amounts of food at one time B) eating carbohydrate-rich foods C) eating protein-rich foods D) eating large chunks of food of relatively hard consistency
20) The activities of cells in different layers of the tubular gastrointestinal tract are regulated by
clusters of nerves located in the submucosa. These nerve complexes are called A) serosa. B) muscularis. C) plexuses. D) villi. E) epithelia.
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21) All of the following teeth are found in adult vertebrates except A) canines. B) premolars. C) molars. D) precanines. E) incisors.
22) The gizzard is to a bird as the_________ is/are to a mammal. A) teeth B) stomach C) pancreas D) liver E) cecum
23) Food moved to the back of the mouth by the tongue causes all of the following EXCEPT A) elevation of the soft palate to seal off the nasal cavity. B) churning of the stomach contents. C) covering the opening of the larynx by the epiglottis. D) pressure against the pharynx to initiate swallowing. E) the swallowing center stimulates successive waves of muscle contraction in the
esophagus.
24) Diya suffered a serious stroke that destroyed neurons in the swallowing center of her brain.
This damage to her brain would prevent_________. A) peristalsis B) bolus formation by her tongue C) elevation of the soft palate D) mastication E) secretion of saliva
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25)
McGraw Hill The enzyme _________ has a pH optimum most similar to peak A in the above graph. A) trypsin B) pepsin C) lipase D) salivary amylase E) chymotrypsin F) pancreatic amylase
26) Place the processes occurring in the digestive tract in the correct order. 1. Peristaltic waves of contraction propel the food along the esophagus. 2. Gastric juices are secreted with the arrival of food into the duodenum. 3. The acidic chyme is transferred through the pyloric sphincter. 4. HCl and pepsin begin digestion of proteins into shorter polypeptides. A) IV, III, and II B) II, III, and IV C) I, II, and III D) I, II, and IV E) II, IV, and III
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27) A baby is born without the ability to make chief cells. What would be the best type of diet for
this baby? A) a low-fat diet B) a diet low in simple sugars such as glucose and fructose C) a diet low in protein D) a diet low in complex carbohydrates such as starch E) a diet low in minerals and vitamins
28) In humans, the surface area of the small intestine is A) 3 square centimeters. B) 3 square meters. C) 300 square meters. D) 3,000 square meters. E) 300,000 square meters.
29) The pancreas is an important accessory organ of the digestive system because it adds all of
the following substances to the small intestine except A) lipase. B) trypsin, chymotrypsin. C) DNase, RNase. D) lactase. E) bicarbonate.
30) Deficiencies of brush border enzymes in the small intestine would NOT affect the complete
digestion of_________. A) fats B) starch C) DNA and RNA D) sucrose E) proteins
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31) Bicarbonate that neutralizes stomach acid is produced by the A) duodenum. B) small intestine. C) pancreas. D) large intestine. E) liver.
32) Three-year old Ben’s parents are ecstatic because he is now using the potty each time he
needs to defecate. What muscle has Ben learned to control? A) the cardiac sphincter made of striated muscle B) the internal anal sphincter made of smooth muscle C) the pyloric sphincter made of smooth muscle D) the external anal sphincter made of striated muscle E) the Sphincter of oddi made of smooth muscle
33) An ambulance is rushing a man to the emergency room with a knife wound. The man was
stabbed in the upper-right side of his abdomen and has a large amount of internal bleeding. What vital organ has most likely been damaged by the knife wound? A) stomach B) pancreas C) heart D) liver E) appendix F) gall bladder
34) The number of chylomicrons in lymphatic capillaries of the intestine would be increased by
eating_________. A) lactose B) triglycerides C) sucrose D) proteins E) starch
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35) Out of the estimated total of 9 liters of material passing through the small intestine, how
much of it is absorbed in the small intestine? A) about 50 milliliters B) about 350 milliliters C) about 4.5 liters D) about 8.5 liters E) all of it
36) The arrival of fat-rich chyme to the duodenum stimulates the gall bladder to contract and
release_________ into the small intestine. A) cholecystokinin B) bile C) chylomicrons D) lipase E) secretin
37) Since the hepatic portal vein empties into the liver, it is able to control the amount
of_________ in the blood. A) alcohol and drugs B) toxins, pesticides, and carcinogens C) glucose D) glucose, alcohol, and drugs E) glucose, alcohol, drugs, toxins, pesticides, and carcinogens
38) The liver removes excess glucose from the blood and converts it into_________. A) cellulose B) maltose and other disaccharides C) starch D) glycogen E) bile
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39) What is NOT true about the human large intestine? A) About 4% of fluid absorption takes place in it. B) It is longer than the small intestine. C) It contains three relatively straight segments with no villi. D) Sodium, vitamin K and other bacterial metabolic products are absorbed across its
wall. E) It compacts and stores undigested materials until their excretion as feces.
40) The secretion of pepsinogen and HCl is controlled by the hormone A) gastrin. B) pepsin. C) insulin. D) cholecystokinin. E) secretin.
41) A new mammal has been discovered in the thickly-forested mountains of Papua New Guinea.
The squirrel-like animal lives in the canopy of the forest and has a diet rich in leaves. On occasion, however, the animal drops to the ground to quickly fill its cheeks with its own fecal droppings, for ingestion once it is safely back in the trees. The GI tract of this animal would most likely include_________. A) a four-chambered stomach and long intestines B) a long small intestine with abundant villi and an appendix at the beginning of the large intestine C) a simple stomach and a large cecum D) a short intestine and no cecum E) a simple stomach, a short small intestine and colon, and a small cecum
42) Many animals have a mutually-beneficial, symbiotic relationship with bacteria that reside in
their guts. To study the effects of these relationships in more detail, research organisms such as fish and mice have been raised under germ-free conditions. What important process do you predict is compromised in germ-free mice? A) vitamin C synthesis B) vitamin D synthesis C) synthesis of essential amino acids D) vitamin K synthesis E) leptin synthesis
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43) In what way are vitamins and essential amino acids similar in human metabolism? A) They are derived from the same precursor molecules. B) Both are integral parts of membrane lipids. C) They cannot be synthesized and must be ingested. D) Both are needed to synthesize steroid hormones. E) Both contain metal ions.
44) A patient with advanced colon cancer just had most of his large intestine removed. What
process will be most reduced in this patient as compared to a healthy person? A) digestion of cellulose B) detoxification of harmful substances C) absorption of fatty acids and glycerol into lymph capillaries D) absorption of sugars and amino acids into the blood E) absorption of water into the blood
45) Which of the following represents the correct order of vertebrate gastrointestinal tract layers,
going from outside the tract to inside the tract? A) the submucosa, the mucosa, the lumen, the plexuses, and the serosa B) the serosa, submucosa, and the mucosa C) the serosa, submucosa, and the lumen D) the mucosa, the plexuses, and the serosa E) the serosa, the mucosa, and the submucosa
46) Which of the following represents the correct order of adult human teeth, beginning at the
front and moving right along the bottom jaw? A) incisors, molars, canines, premolars B) incisors, canines, molars, premolars C) incisors, canines, premolars, molars D) incisors, premolars, molars, canines E) canines, incisors, premolars, molars
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47) In the human digestive system, the stomach produces about 2 liters of HCl and other gastric
secretions every day. The acid secretion of the stomach A) is stimulated by gastrin. B) promotes a high pH. C) inhibits pepsin activity. D) begins the process of starch digestion. E) stimulates the gallbladder to contract.
48) Gluten-free food options are becoming more and more common place due to the increased
incidence and awareness of celiac disease in the US population. If a person with this disease eats foods containing gluten, the immune system responds by attacking and damaging or destroying his/her own villi. What digestive symptom would NOT be consistent with greatlyreduced numbers of villi? A) abdominal bloating and pain B) chronic diarrhea C) fatty stools D) weight loss E) peptic ulcer
49) Select the vitamin that is matched to an incorrect deficiency symptom or disorder. A) vitamin A—night blindness
—beriberi C) vitamin C—scurvy D) vitamin D—pernicious anemia E) vitamin K—severe bleeding B) vitamin
F) vitamin
—inflammation and breakdown of skin
50) In the human diet, there are no "essential"_________. A) carbohydrates B) amino acids C) vitamins D) fatty acids E) minerals
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51) A person has his/her gall bladder removed and as a result_________. A) will die without a gallbladder B) can now eat as much fat as desired and not absorb it C) can only eat small amounts of fat D) can only eat very small meals E) can only eat liquid meals
52) After consuming an antacid like Rolaids,_________. A) the stomach would absorb water B) HCl production would decrease C) the pH of the stomach fluid would decrease D) the pH of the stomach fluid would increase
53) A drop to pH 4.0 in the duodenum would primarily stimulate the release of_________. A) cholecystokinin B) gastrin C) insulin D) pepsin E) secretin
54) Why doesn't the stomach acid just digest right through the wall of the stomach? A) It does, we just rebuild the layers faster than they can be digested. B) Neutralizers are imbedded in the stomach lining. C) The pH of the stomach acid is not low enough to be able to digest the lining. D) Food prevents the acid from digesting the wall of the stomach. E) The lining of the stomach is protected by mucus.
55) Which molecule is not able to be absorbed across the stomach wall? A) water B) alcohol C) aspirin D) glucose
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56) If a person is diagnosed with lactose intolerance, which of the following is likely? A) Eating fatty foods would be lethal. B) Eating dairy foods would be lethal. C) Digesting sugars is no longer possible. D) Eating dairy products could cause gastrointestinal pain. E) This person could only drink milk.
57)
Which process in the diagram would occur the most after eating a fatty meal of french fries and ice cream? A) II B) I C) III D) II and III equally E) I and II equally
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58)
Which process in the diagram causes the greatest insulin release? A) II B) III C) I D) both I and II equally E) both II and III equally
59) After not eating for three days,_________ levels will be high. A) insulin B) glycogen C) glucagon D) blood glucose E) pancreatic enzymes
60) What molecule is NOT involved in appetite regulation? A) insulin B) leptin C) secretin D) ghrelin E) neuropeptide Y F) alpha-melanocyte-stimulating hormone
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61)
McGraw Hill Dr. Okoro has just discovered that a patient who suffers from extreme obesity has abnormal levels of two different classes of proteins that regulate appetite. Select the most-likely protein profile for this patient from the above diagram. A) A B) B C) C D) D
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62) Langur monkeys and ruminants (such as cows) are the only known mammals in which
lysozyme functions in the stomach instead of in tears and saliva. The cow/langur enzyme also has five amino acid changes that are not present in other mammals. What is most likely to be true about lysozyme from langurs and cows compared to lysozyme from other mammals? A) Salivary and tear lysozyme functions best at a higher ion concentration than the cow/langur enzyme. B) The five amino acids that langurs and cows have in common in their lysozyme were present in the common ancestor of all mammals. C) These five amino acid changes alter the specificity of the enzyme, such that the cow/langur lysozyme attacks viruses instead of bacteria. D) These five amino acid changes somehow make the cow/langur lysozyme resistant to pepsin digestion.
63) What digestive hormone stimulates gall bladder contraction? A) gastrin B) cholecystokinin C) gastric inhibitory peptide D) secretin E) insulin
64) The luminal contents of the same organ that secretes the hormone into the blood inhibits the
further release of_________. A) gastrin B) cholecystokinin C) gastric inhibitory peptide D) secretin E) insulin
65) Pancreatic secretion of bicarbonate is stimulated by_________. A) gastrin B) cholecystokinin C) gastric inhibitory peptide D) secretin E) glucagon
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 46 1) D 2) A 3) E 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) D 8) A 9) F 10) D 11) D 12) C 13) E
<p>% MV surface area =
Since 1 m = 100 cm, . Equation then becomes
.
14) D 15) C 16) C 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) A 23) B 24) A 25) B 26) E 27) C 28) C 29) D 30) A 31) C
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32) D 33) D 34) B 35) D 36) B 37) E 38) D 39) B 40) A 41) C 42) D 43) C 44) E 45) B 46) C 47) A 48) E 49) D 50) A 51) C 52) D 53) E 54) E 55) D 56) D 57) A 58) B 59) C 60) C 61) D 62) D 63) B 64) A 65) D
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Chapter 47 Student name:__________ 1) Most simple invertebrates obtain their oxygen by diffusion directly from the surrounding A) air. B) water. C) mud. D) blood.
2) Fish and crustaceans are similar in that both use_________ for gas exchange. A) lungs B) tracheal tubes C) the walls of the mantle cavity D) gills E) the moist surface of their skin
3) The large number of alveoli in mammalian lungs, the numerous lamellae in fish gills, the
papulae of echinoderms, and the extensive tracheal system of insects are all adaptations that optimize what factor in the formula for Fick’s Law of Diffusion? A) D B) Δp C) d D) A
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4)
In the graph shown here, what does the A represent? A) anatomical dead space B) air that helps keep the alveoli inflated (open) after forced exhalation C) air that is not used for gas exchange D) air with a concentration of oxygen higher than that of air outside the body E) air from a previous breath that does not mix with newly-inhaled air of the next breath
5) Each breath is initiated by neurons in the "respiratory control center" located in the A) spinal cord. B) larynx. C) cerebellum. D) medulla oblongata. E) carotid body.
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6) In tissue capillaries,_________ combines with water to form carbonic acid, which after being
transported to the lungs, dissociates back to its constituents. A) B) C) D) hemoglobin E)
7) Chemoreceptors located in the aortic and carotid bodies stimulate the respiratory control
center in the brain when the blood_________ decreases. A) B) C) hemoglobin concentration D) E) pH
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8)
In the graph shown here, curve _________ is most likely the oxygen-binding curve for normal adult human hemoglobin, curve _________ is most likely that of llama hemoglobin (from a llama population that has lived in the mountains of Peru for thousands of years), and curve _________ is most likely that of myoglobin. A) A; B; C B) A; C; B C) B; A; C D) B; C; A E) C; B; A
9) Ciliated gills in clams, sharks continuously swimming with their mouths partly open,
countercurrent flow of blood and water in fish gills, and the use of air sacs to effect unidirectional flow of air through bird lungs are all adaptations that optimize what factor in the formula for Fick’s Law of diffusion? A) D B) Δp C) d D) A
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10) <p> Imagine that you have been transported light years away to another planet with water-
filled oceans. This distant planet has a barometric pressure of 1,000 mm Hg at sea level and air that contains 15 percent . Would you take in much more oxygen, much less oxygen, or about the same amount of oxygen per breath on this planet as you would on Earth?</p> A) much less oxygen on the distant planet B) much more oxygen on the distant planet C) about the same amount of oxygen as on Earth
11) The general term that describes the uptake of oxygen from the environment and the disposal
of carbon dioxide at the body system level is A) cellular respiration. B) inspiration. C) exhalation. D) respiration. E) diffusion.
12) The exchange of gases across a respiratory surface always occurs by A) facilitated transport. B) active transport. C) diffusion. D) bulk flow. E) osmosis.
13) Tim, who is an avid cyclist, is struck by a car during an organized bike ride. Two of his ribs
are broken, puncturing his chest wall on the right side. What will most likely happen to his lungs? A) Both lungs will collapse. B) Both lungs will overinflate. C) His left lung will be okay, but his right lung will collapse. D) His left lung will be okay, but his right lung will overinflate. E) His right lung will overinflate and his left lung will collapse. F) His right lung will collapse and his left lung will overinflate.
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14) What would a graph of internal lung pressure compared to atmospheric pressure look like
during one inhalation/exhalation cycle in a frog?
A) B) C) D) E)
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15) The most efficient lungs with respect to oxygen uptake are found in this group of vertebrates. A) amphibians B) birds C) fish D) mammals E) reptiles
16) The oxygen content of dry air in the atmosphere A) is about 78.1%. B) is about 21.0%. C) is about 0.03%. D) varies depending on the altitude. E) is inversely proportional to the partial pressure of oxygen.
17) Fick's law of diffusion states that the rate of diffusion of a gas across a membrane depends on
all of the following except A) the membrane surface area. B) the concentration difference of the gas on the two sides of the membrane. C) the width of the membrane. D) the size of the gas molecule. E) which membrane transport proteins are present.
18) The external gills of an adult axolotl are not as efficient as fish gills because_________. A) water flows over the axolotl gills at many different angles B) blood flows though the axolotl gills more slowly than through fish gills C) axolotl gills are not highly branched D) axolotl gills are covered by thick layers of cells E) axolotls are slow swimmers and all fish swim fast to ventilate their gills
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19) Where a given species of vertebrate lives has dramatically shaped the evolution of respiratory
adaptations, particularly since the oxygen concentration in air is approximately 20 times that of the oxygen concentration in water. Per unit area of gas exchange surface, which group of vertebrates can extract the greatest total amount of oxygen from the external medium? A) amphibians B) birds C) fish D) mammals E) reptiles
20) Four-year old Sammy is having a temper-tantrum. In a final attempt to get his way, he yells
to his mom, “I'm gonna hold my breath ‘til I die!” What is the primary reason that Sammy’s mom is unconcerned by this statement? A) Sammy is too young to hold his breath for more than 30 seconds. B) It is impossible for Sammy to control the contraction of his diaphragm and intercostal muscles since they are made up of smooth muscle. C) As Sammy holds his breath, the decreasing levels of oxygen in his blood will lead to stimulation of the respiratory control center in his brain. D) As Sammy holds his breath, the increasing levels of carbon dioxide in his blood will lead to stimulation of the respiratory control center in his brain.
21) When is the
an especially strong stimulant of the respiratory control center in the brain of healthy individuals? A) while hyperventilating B) while hypoventilating C) while running a road race along the shoreline of Vancouver D) while climbing to the summit of Mt. Everest E) while free-diving to a coral reef 60 feet below the surface of the sea
22) Which blood vessels carry oxygenated blood? A) pulmonary arteries B) pulmonary veins C) systemic veins (such as the femoral vein in your leg)
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23) What is the likely outcome if you were able to force water through fish gills in the opposite
direction to how it normally flows over the gills? A) The blood's oxygen concentration would not be able to exceed 50%. B) Gas exchange would be inhibited and movement of oxygen into the blood would cease. C) The direction of blood flow would reverse through the gills to compensate for the reversed direction of water flow. D) The movement of carbon dioxide from the blood into the water would increase. E) There would be no effect, and maximal oxygenation of blood would still occur.
24) What change would increase the rate of oxygen diffusing from lung alveoli into the blood? A) An increase in the hemoglobin concentration of the red blood cells B) A decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli C) An increase in the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood entering the lungs D) A decrease in the pH of the blood entering the lungs E) An increase in the humidity of air in the lungs
25) One possible reason that there are not any really large insects currently living on Earth is that A) gas exchange across their moist skin surfaces cannot support the metabolic needs of a
large body. B) their lungs never evolved to be as highly branched as a mammal's. C) their gills do not have as many lamellae as fish gills. D) the bulk flow of air through their tracheal tubes would be more difficult the larger the body and longer the tracheal tubes. E) they do not have as many papulae as echinoderms.
26) During your dissection of a fish, what structure would you have to remove to see the gills? A) operculum B) spiracle C) jaw bone D) glottis E) trachea
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27) In the countercurrent exchange in a fish's gills, the oxygen concentration is always_________
in the water than the blood along the entire pathway of each lamella. A) higher B) lower C) the same
28) Which of these animals uses positive pressure breathing? A) amphibians B) reptiles C) birds D) mammals
29) Which group of animals has one-way flow of air through its lungs, whereas all the others
have tidal flow? A) birds B) amphibians C) mammals D) reptiles
30) During an asthma attack, allergens trigger the release of histamine, which causes severe
constriction of the_________. A) bronchi B) pleural cavities C) larynx D) trachea E) rib cage
31) The gas exchange surfaces in a mammalian lung are organized into structures that look like
clusters of hollow grapes. The hollow, grape-like structures are the_________. A) spiracles B) lamellae C) alveoli D) papulae E) bronchi
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32) The respiratory systems of fish and birds are similar in that both _________. A) employ countercurrent exchange. B) utilize air sacs. C) have unidirectional flow of the environmental medium over the gas exchange
surfaces. D) have similar partial pressures of oxygen in the environmental medium.
33) A major genetic cause of emphysema is deficiency of the protein alpha-1 anti-trypsin (AAT).
AAT is an enzyme that inhibits the activity of another protein. What protein is most likely the normally-inhibited target of AAT? A) carbonic anhydrase B) collagen C) elastin-specific protease D) hemocyanin E) hemoglobin F) myoglobin
34) In the future, it may be possible to screen for a number of different types of cancer by a
simple blood test. If a blood test indicates a very early stage of lung cancer, where is the most likely place that the tumor will be growing? A) in the wall of a large bronchus B) in the wall of an alveolus C) in the wall of a pulmonary vein D) in the visceral pleural membrane E) in the parietal pleural membrane
35) Tom is choking on a piece of steak that is stuck in his trachea, and he signals for his young
son to call 911. It takes the paramedics four minutes to reach his house. Will this be in time to save Tom (and why), or will Tom already be dead (and why)? A) Tom will be alive since the myoglobin in his muscles will release oxygen into the blood after he stops breathing. B) Tom will be dead due to the lowered pH of his blood. C) Tom will be alive since he had a reserve of about three-quarters of his hemoglobin still bound to oxygen when he started choking. D) Tom will be dead since all the hemoglobin in his arterial blood will unload its oxygen during the first pass through the tissues after his last breath.
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36) Which dissolved gas cannot be transported by hemoglobin? A) nitric acid (NO) B) oxygen (
) C) carbon dioxide ( ) D) carbon monoxide (CO) E) nitrogen ( )
37) The primary advantage of gills versus the body surface for gas exchange in aquatic animals is
that_________. A) gills are located near the mouth B) all gills contain a countercurrent exchange system C) gills have a much greater diffusion surface area D) gills decrease resistance to movement
38) What respiratory adaptation was important for the invasion of land by arthropods? A) cutaneous respiration in moist habitats B) positive pressure breathing to increase gas exchange C) the ability to close spiracles to prevent water loss D) countercurrent exchange surrounding the trachea E) gas- and water-permeable exoskeletons
39) Humans cannot survive long at altitudes greater than 6000 m because_________. A) alveoli become compressed at the lower atmospheric pressures B) there is much more
in the atmosphere at the higher altitudes than at sea level C) the partial pressure of becomes less than half that at sea level D) the diaphragm cannot be contracted enough to produce a full breath
40) Soft-shelled turtles can remain submerged underwater for several hours without ventilating
their lungs because_________. A) they also have rudimentary gills B) the partial pressure of is higher underwater C) they can use cutaneous respiration through the soft lining of their throats D) they can store some air in special air sacs under the shell
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41) Major evolutionary changes have resulted in anatomical and physiological adaptations that
optimize the rate of gas exchange in animals by each of these factors except_________. A) increasing the surface area for diffusion B) increasing the concentration difference driving diffusion C) decreasing the distance for diffusion D) increasing the diffusion constant for each gas
42) Most phyla of aquatic invertebrates have improved the rate of gas exchange by creating a
water current over their respiratory surfaces, thereby_________. A) decreasing the distance for diffusion B) increasing the surface area for diffusion C) increasing the concentration difference D) changing the diffusion constant
43) The large number of alveoli in lungs improve gas exchange by_________. A) decreasing the distance for diffusion B) increasing the surface area for diffusion C) increasing the concentration difference D) changing the diffusion constant
44) The many lamellae in the gills of fish improve respiratory efficiency by_________. A) decreasing the distance for diffusion B) increasing the surface area for diffusion C) increasing the concentration difference D) changing the diffusion constant
45) The close proximity of capillaries to the alveoli in lungs improve respiratory efficiency
by_________. A) decreasing the distance for diffusion B) increasing the surface area for diffusion C) increasing the concentration difference D) changing the diffusion constant
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46) The North American pronghorn antelope can run almost as fast as a cheetah, but unlike the
cheetah, can also sustain speeds of 30-40 mph for miles. The pronghorn is about the size of a large, domestic goat. You would predict the antelope to have a_________ than the goat. A) smaller trachea B) higher concentration of hemoglobin C) smaller lung volume D) lower concentration of myoglobin E) lower concentration of bicarbonate
47) If each human lung contains about 300 million alveoli with a summed total surface area for
gas exchange of 40 square meters, what is the approximate surface area of a single alveolus? A) 0.133 square micrometers B) 1.33 square micrometers C) 133 square millimeters D) 7.5 square micrometers E) 7.5 square millimeters F) 750 square micrometers
48) What is the order of structures or spaces that a surgeon will pass through to operate on a
human lung? A) skin → intercostal muscles → parietal pleural membrane → pleural cavity → visceral pleural membrane → lung tissue B) skin → intercostal muscles → pleural cavity → parietal pleural membrane → visceral pleural membrane → lung tissue C) skin → visceral pleural membrane → intercostal muscles → pleural cavity → parietal pleural membrane → lung tissue D) skin → intercostal muscles → visceral pleural membrane → pleural cavity → parietal pleural membrane → lung tissue E) skin → pleural cavity → intercostal muscles → visceral pleural membrane → parietal pleural membrane → lung tissue
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49) During exhalation, the diaphragm_________. A) contracts and moves down B) relaxes and moves up C) relaxes and moves down D) contracts and moves up
50) Which part of a hemoglobin molecule binds to a molecule of A) the surface of an α globin chain
?
B) the surface of a β globin chain C) the iron atom in the center of a heme group D) the copper atom wedged between an α and a β globin chain E) the hydrophobic pocket between two α chains
51) <p>In which environment would hemoglobin most easily release its A) 40 mm Hg B) 65 mm Hg C) 75 mm Hg D) 90 mm Hg E) 100 mm Hg
?</p>
52) During exercise, the blood returning to a person's heart contains hemoglobin that is
about_________ saturated. A) 3% B) 22% C) 35% D) 75% E) 97%
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53) Every winter, many individuals tragically die in their sleep due to faulty heaters that leak
carbon monoxide (CO) during the night. How does CO poisoning lead to death? A) CO binds more tightly to carbonic anhydrase than does carbon dioxide. B) CO binds to oxygen, and the CO-oxygen complex cannot bind to hemoglobin. C) CO coats the surfaces of the alveoli, preventing diffusion of oxygen into the blood. D) CO inhibits the chemosensitive neurons in the aortic and carotid bodies. E) CO binds more tightly to hemoglobin than does oxygen.
54) Protruding papulae on the surface of echinoderms improve respiratory efficiency
by_________. A) decreasing the distance for diffusion B) increasing the surface area for diffusion C) increasing the concentration difference D) changing the diffusion constant
55) The axolotl, an aquatic amphibian, uses_________ for gas exchange. A) internal gills B) external gills C) lungs D) tracheal tubes E) papulae
56) Ram ventilation is used by_________ during respiration. A) frogs B) tuna C) whales D) penguins E) salamanders
57) Air enters human lungs from the mouth by passing through the_________. A) trachea B) nasal cavities C) spiracles D) posterior air sacs E) esophagus
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 47 1) 2) 3) 4)
B D D B Bracket C represents theresidual volume, which is the volume of air in the lungs that cannot be expelled even with a forced exhalation. In addition to helping keep the alveoli from collapsing, the residual volume enables gas exchange to continue between breaths. 5) D 6) A 7) E 8) E 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) C 13) C 14) C 15) B 16) B 17) E 18) A 19) B 20) D 21) D 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) D 26) A 27) A 28) A 29) A 30) A 31) C 32) C 33) C
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34) A 35) C 36) E 37) C 38) C 39) C 40) C 41) D 42) C 43) B 44) B 45) A 46) B 47) A
1 meter (m) = 1,000 millimeters (mm). Thus, square millimeters for square meters results in /alveolus.
.
Substitution of alveoli
48) A 49) B 50) C 51) A 52) C 53) E 54) B 55) B 56) B 57) A
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Chapter 48 Student name:__________ 1) Why is an open circulatory system less efficient than a closed circulatory system? A) It is more difficult to quickly deliver
to specific tissues when needed with an open
circulatory system. B) There is no heart to pump the blood in an open circulatory system. C) Open circulatory systems lack respiratory pigments that bind to oxygen. D) Metabolic wastes cannot be removed from tissues in an open circulatory system. E) Blood cannot be used to transport nutrients in an open circulatory system.
2) In 2012, Lance Armstrong was stripped of his record-setting, seven Tour de France titles and
banned for life from competitive cycling because of his alleged use of performanceenhancing drugs (PEDs). One of the PEDs Armstrong was accused of taking is erythropoietin (EPO). Why would systematic use of this PED give Armstrong an unfair advantage in a bike race? A) EPO stimulates formation of new capillary beds in skeletal and heart muscle. B) EPO stimulates red blood cell production by the bone marrow. C) EPO stimulates growth of cardiac and skeletal muscle tissue. D) EPO increases cardiac output by stimulating the ventricles to contract more strongly. E) EPO stimulates the synthesis of myoglobin by muscle cells. F) EPO stimulates the formation of new alveoli in the lungs.
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3) The graph below can be used to understand the forces underlying the movement of fluid
between the blood and the interstitial fluid. What is a true statement concerning these processes?
A) Sodium ions contribute significantly to the movement of fluid in region B. B) In people suffering from severe liver disease or protein starvation, the fluid flow in
region B is increased. C) Edema results from reduction of fluid flow in region A. D) Fluid leaves the blood in region A and returns to the blood in region B. E) Normally, the net amount of fluid flow in region A is less than the net amount of fluid flow in region B.
4) The liquid portion of blood that contains metabolites, wastes, hormones, ions, and a variety
of proteins is called the_________. A) eosinophil B) lymph C) edema D) plasma E) platelet
5) Leukocytes (white blood cells) account for about_________ of the cells in human blood. A) 0.1% B) 1% C) 10% D) 60%
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6) Blood is pumped from the heart into the arterial system, which branches from arteries into
fine_________. A) arterioles B) venules C) capillaries D) veins
7) As compared to the circulatory system of most fishes, the circulatory system of adult
amphibians has the advantage of A) a four-chambered heart. B) a single circuit. C) partially-separate circuits for gas exchange and systemic delivery of blood. D) a pocket of the gut that serves as an air bladder. E) complete separation between oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
8) The benefit provided by all hearts with two atria is A) complete separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. B) that blood is pumped into body tissues at high pressure. C) there is an extra place to store blood when the animal is at rest. D) not all the blood has to pass through both sides of the heart. E) that there are two muscular regions for pumping blood out of the heart to different
organs.
9) Mammalian, bird, and crocodile hearts have four chambers with two separate atria and
ventricles to ensure_________ different circuits for blood flow. A) two B) three C) four D) eight
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10) Joaquin is suffering from congestive heart failure, in which blood flow is backed up in his
lungs and excess fluid is escaping the blood and accumulating in his lung tissue. If untreated, increasing pulmonary edema will lead to death by suffocation. What is the most-likely cause of Joaquin’s congestive heart failure? A) Contraction of his right atrium is not keeping up with contraction of his left atrium. B) Joaquin’s pulmonary semilunar valve is not opening properly. C) Joaquin’s right atrioventricular valve (tricuspid valve) is not closing properly. D) Joaquin’s SA node is malfunctioning. E) Contraction of his left ventricle is not keeping up with contraction of his right ventricle.
11) A higher protein concentration within the distal portion of capillaries draws water into them
through the process of A) active transport. B) facilitated diffusion. C) diffusion. D) filtration. E) osmosis.
12) In birds and mammals, a vestige of the sinus venosus of the fish heart remains as the
sinoatrial node, which serves as a(n) A) diastole detector. B) baroreceptor. C) site of erythropoiesis. D) inhibitory node. E) pacemaker.
13) What would be the physiological effect of an increase in the venous return to the heart? A) decreased cardiac output B) increased secretion of ADH (vasopressin) C) increased stroke volume D) decreased secretion of atrial natriuretic hormone E) increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart
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14) Changes in the arterial blood pressure are detected by_________ located in the walls of the
carotid artery and the arch of the aorta. A) baroreceptors B) pacemakers C) Purkinje fibers D) bundle branches E) osmoreceptors
15) All of the following are functions of the circulatory system EXCEPT A) oxygen, nutrient, and waste transport. B) creation of red and white blood cells. C) blood clotting and immune defense. D) temperature regulation. E) hormone transport.
16) A bone marrow sample from Patient X has abnormally-low numbers of megakaryocytes.
What body process would you expect to be impaired in Patient X? A) transport of oxygen B) defense against foreign microorganisms C) blood clotting following injury to a blood vessel D) temperature regulation by vasoconstriction or vasodilation of superficial blood vessels E) maintaining normal osmotic balance between the blood and the interstitial fluids
17) Which of the following solutes is NOT normally found in the plasma? A) metabolites, wastes, and hormones B) ions C) albumin D) hemoglobin E) globulins
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18) Which blood cell type is correctly matched to its function? A) platelets—hematopoiesis B) leukocytes—blood clotting C) erythrocytes—immunity D) leukocytes—oxygen transport E) monocytes—defense against microorganisms
19) You are taking a lab practical exam. One station has a microscope slide of a cross section
through an artery and vein. Which vessel is the artery? A) the vessel with the wider lumen (e.g., interior space that contains the blood) B) the vessel with more muscle tissue and elastic fibers in its wall C) the vessel lined only with endothelium D) the vessel with valves to prevent backflow E) the vessel with a greater overall diameter
20) Exchange of gases and metabolites between the blood and tissues occurs in the A) arteries. B) arterioles. C) capillaries. D) venules. E) veins.
21) When you are upright, what is the primary mechanism that propels blood in your feet back to
your inferior vena cava? A) the valves in the leg veins alternating between open and closed B) contraction of smooth muscle in the walls of the leg veins C) recoil of elastic fibers in the walls of the leg veins D) contraction of the left ventricle of the heart E) contraction of skeletal muscles in your legs
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22) Refer to the diagram shown here of the mammalian circulatory system.
McGraw Hill If blood is going from the lungs to space 3, what is the name of space 3? A) left ventricle B) left atrium C) right ventricle D) right atrium E) pulmonary vein F) aorta
23) Elephantiasis is an infectious disease in which blockage of the circulatory system by
microscopic, parasitic roundworms results in a dramatic swelling of the tissues in the lower half of the body. What region is most likely blocked by these small, thread-like worms? A) the left atrium of the heart B) a pulmonary artery C) lymphatic vessels and/or lymph nodes D) a carotid artery E) the superior vena cava
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24) What is true about the lymphatic system? A) Fluid moves through the lymphatic system under high pressure. B) It collects fluid that seeps into the tissues and returns it to the blood. C) It is bidirectional. D) It exhibits peristaltic contractions. E) It carries all absorbed materials from the stomach and intestines to the liver.
25) The cells that normally lack a nucleus and have a relatively short life span in humans are A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) erythrocytes. E) lymphocytes.
26) Under what circumstance would your body experience an increase in erythropoietin
secretion? A) if you just moved from New York City to start training for a marathon in the 'MileHigh' city of Denver, Colorado B) if your hematocrit is elevated above normal levels C) if you are suffering from dehydration D) after drinking 5 liters of water in just 2 hours E) if you are suffering from hypertension
27) What class of sensory receptorsdirectly affects the activity of the cardiac center in the
medulla oblongata? A) sensory cells in the juxtaglomerular apparati of the kidneys B) osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus C) baroreceptors in the arch of the aorta and in the carotid arteries D) blood pH chemoreceptors in the aortic and carotid bodies E) blood glucose sensors in the pancreas
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28) Scientists believe that the heart of the common (chordate) ancestor of all vertebrates A) was little more than a heavily-muscled region of the ventral artery. B) had two chambers. C) had three chambers. D) had four chambers. E) consisted of a single ventricle.
29) When submerged, frogs receive most of their
from capillaries within the skin. What structure would contain blood with the highest concentration in a submerged frog, which is not able to breathe using its lungs? A) left atrium B) right atrium C) aorta D) ventricle E) pulmonary vein
30) The left ventricle in mammals is more muscular than the right ventricle because A) the right ventricle only pumps blood into the right atrium. B) the left ventricle pumps more total blood than the right ventricle. C) the left ventricle pumps blood with a higher hematocrit than the blood that leaves the
right ventricle. D) the left ventricle has to pump blood throughout the body at high pressure. E) the left ventricle is always contracting to maintain a systemic blood pressure.
31) What would happen if your SA node and AV node fired at same time? A) The QRS wave on an ECG would disappear, as it would be masked by the P wave. B) Your stroke volume would decrease. C) Blood would be forced back into the atria from the ventricles. D) Your blood pressure would increase. E) The production of nitric oxide by your endothelial cells would increase.
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32) Refer to the diagram below.
What is the correct order of structures in the electrical excitation pathway that generates a normal heartbeat? A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 B) 1, 5, 4, 2, 3, 6 C) 6, 3, 2, 4, 5, 1 D) 3, 6, 2, 4, 1, 5 E) 3, 2, 6, 4, 5, 1 F) 2, 5, 1, 4, 6, 3
33) The blood pressure in your brachial artery is at its lowest during A) exercise. B) the time the aorta is maximally stretched. C) the systolic period. D) the diastolic period. E) ventricular contraction.
34) Which secreted molecule is LEAST likely to effect a significant change in blood pressure? A) antidiuretic hormone B) aldosterone C) atrial natriuretic hormone D) high-density lipoprotein E) nitric oxide
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35) What animal group is mismatched with its circulation system type (open or closed)? A) oyster—open B) cricket—closed C) earthworm—closed D) lobster—open E) killer whale—closed
36) What is true about about mammalian red blood cells? A) Red blood cells are also called leukocytes. B) A mature red blood cell is shaped like a biconcave disc because it has no nucleus. C) Red blood cells contain albumin. D) Red blood cells develop from lymphoid stem cells. E) Aged red blood cells are removed from the blood by the kidneys.
37) In the blood clotting cascade mechanism, which specific enzyme catalyzes the conversion of
fibrinogen to fibrin? A) albumin B) renin C) catalase D) angiotensin E) thrombin
38) One mechanism that some animals use to limit heat loss in cold environments is A) vasodilation of the near surface blood vessels. B) vasodilation of below surface blood vessels. C) vasoconstriction of the precapillary sphincters in the skin. D) vasoconstriction of veins. E) increasing cardiac output.
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39) Edema is a result of increased interstitial fluid in various tissues of the body. All of the
following are causes of edema EXCEPT A) pregnancy. B) liver disease. C) injury to a limb. D) protein malnutrition. E) abnormally low blood pressure.
40) The greatest metabolic advantage of a fish's two-chambered heart is A) its ability to pump blood under high pressure to all areas of the fish's body. B) its ability to pump blood to the gills for gas exchange before the blood is pumped to
the remaining areas of the body. C) its ability to stay full of blood even as it is emptying into the conus arteriosus. D) its ability to keep oxygen-rich blood in one chamber separate from oxygen-poor blood in the other chamber. E) its ability to maintain a constant blood pressure in the fish.
41) When lungs evolved in vertebrates, the evolution of_________ also occurred in the
circulation of blood within those vertebrates. A) double circulation B) red blood cells C) a lymphatic system D) a muscular heart E) more plasma
42) The depolarization of the heart is initiated by the A) left and right bundle branches. B) sinoatrial node. C) atrioventricular node. D) Purkinje fibers. E) bundle of HIS.
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43) A friend asks you to explain the difference between atherosclerosis and arteriosclerosis. You
say, "Well A) atherosclerosis is a condition that results from too much calcium being deposited in the arteries, while arteriosclerosis results from the accumulation of cholesterol deposits in the arteries." B) atherosclerosis is a condition that results from having angina pectoris occurring in the arteries of the heart, while arteriosclerosis results from the accumulation of cholesterol deposits in the arteries." C) atherosclerosis is a condition that results from too much calcium being deposited in the arteries, while arteriosclerosis results from having angina pectoris occurring in the arteries of the heart." D) atherosclerosis is a condition that results from the accumulation of cholesterol deposits in the arteries, while arteriosclerosis results from too much calcium being deposited in the arteries." E) atherosclerosis and arteriosclerosis are nearly the same and usually occur after a stroke."
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44) Which animal is likely to have the circulatory pattern shown in the figure?
A) B) C) D) E)
frog crocodile bird mammal fish
45) What factor most limits a person’s maximal increase in cardiac output during exercise? A) B) C) D) E)
the time available to fill the heart chambers with blood as the heart rate increases the time it takes for electrical impulses to reach all parts of the heart the rate at which cardiac muscle contracts the rate at which oxygen is delivered to the cardiac muscle cells the total amount of blood in an individual
46) The loudest sounds a nurse hears while listening to a patient's heart through a stethoscope are
caused by A) contraction of the ventricles. B) contraction of the atria. C) closing of the AV valves. D) opening of the semilunar valves. E) depolarization of the ventricles.
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47) In a vertebrate with a four-chambered heart, the structure(s) containing blood with the
highest
concentration is/are the_________. A) pulmonary arteries B) pulmonary veins C) right atrium D) inferior vena cava E) right ventricle
48) A nurse takes your blood pressure during your annual examination, and she enters a reading
of 115/70 in your medical chart. These numbers mean that the A) pressure in your brachial artery during ventricular contraction is 115, while the pressure during ventricular relaxation is 70. B) pressure in your brachial artery during ventricular contraction is 115 while the pressure during atrial contraction is 70. C) nurse heard sounds through the stethoscope only when the pressure in your brachial artery was exactly 115 and again when it was exactly 70. D) pressure in the ventricles of the heart is 115 when the ventricles are contracting and 70 when the ventricles are relaxing. E) diastolic pressure is 115 and the systolic pressure is 70.
49) The P wave of the ECG represents A) the contraction of the atria. B) the relaxation of the atria. C) the depolarization of the atria. D) the repolarization of the atria. E) the contraction of the ventricle.
50) Stimulating the vagus nerve would cause A) blood pressure to rise. B) blood volume to increase. C) heart rate to decrease. D) increased firing of the SA and AV nodes E) a release of epinephrine.
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51) Myeloid stem cells give rise to all formed elements in the blood EXCEPT A) erythrocytes. B) lymphocytes. C) platelets. D) monocytes. E) basophils.
52) What type of mollusk has a closed circulatory system? A) clam B) slug C) snail D) squid E) scallop
53) You are taking a lab practical exam, and one station has pins in various internal structures of
a bisected mammalian heart. You can orient yourself without picking up and examining the exterior of the heart because A) the width of the external wall of the right ventricle is thicker than all the other chamber walls. B) the width of the external wall of the left atrium is thicker than all the other chamber walls. C) the width of the external wall of the left ventricle is thicker than all the other chamber walls. D) the width of the external wall of the right atrium is thicker than all the other chamber walls. E) the ascending aorta exits from the right ventricle.
54) Animals with closed circulatory systems are more successful than animals with open
circulatory systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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55) Susie just squished a cockroach and its pale yellow hemolymph squirted out on the floor. If
Susie analyzed the hemolymph, she would expect to find all of the following EXCEPT A) amino acids. B) sugars. C) erythrocytes. D) water. E) ions. F) cells that protect against foreign microbes.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 48 1) A 2) B 3) D 4) D 5) B 6) A 7) C 8) B 9) A 10) E 11) E 12) E 13) C 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) D 18) E 19) B 20) C 21) E 22) B 23) C 24) B 25) D 26) A 27) C 28) A 29) B 30) D 31) B 32) D 33) D 34) D 35) B 36) B 37) E
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38) C 39) E 40) B 41) A 42) B 43) D 44) A 45) A 46) C 47) B 48) A 49) C 50) C 51) B 52) D 53) C 54) FALSE 55) C
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Chapter 49 Student name:__________ 1) Nearly two-thirds of every vertebrate's body is composed of_________. A) water B) carbon C) bones D) muscle
2) The regulatory systems of the animal body maintain a relatively stable internal condition
through a process called_________. A) homeostasis B) equilibrium C) osmoreception D) countercurrent exchange E) absorption
3) The organ that performs filtration of blood, reabsorption, and secretion in vertebrates is
the_________. A) kidney B) liver C) pancreas D) small intestine E) large intestine
4) About 180 liters of blood plasma is filtered into human nephrons per day and, of that amount,
about 2-3 liters leaves the body as urine. Therefore, the percentage of plasma filtrate that leaves as urine each day is about_________. A) 0.1-0.2 percent B) 0.5-1.0 percent C) 1-2 percent D) 5-10 percent E) 10-20 percent F) 20-50 percent
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5) In vertebrates, most of the fluid that ultimately exits the body as urine first enters the nephron
tubules by the process of_________. A) reabsorption B) absorption C) secretion D) filtration E) excretion
6) This molecule or ion never uses active transport as its motive force for reabsorption into
blood capillaries in the kidney. A) ions B) glucose C) amino acids D) water E) F)
ions ions
7) Kidneys are thought to have evolved first among the_________. A) amphibians B) freshwater bony fishes C) saltwater bony fishes D) reptiles E) mammals
8) Marine reptiles eliminate excess NaCl by means of_________ located near the nose or the
eye. A) B) C) D) E)
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2
9) In mammalian kidneys, blood in the vasa recta and fluid in the loop of Henle flow in opposite
directions to create a_________ multiplier system. A) homeostatic B) reversible C) countercurrent D) stepped E) exponential
10) Mike has just returned home from college for the summer and notices that his 8-year-old
Dalmation dog, Patches, is limping and has difficulty walking up and down stairs. When Mike takes Patches to the vet, the vet recommends that Mike put him on a low-purine diet. This dietary change will lessen the formation of painful precipitates of_________ in Patches' joints. A) adenine and guanine B) ammonia C) uric acid D) urea E) NaCl
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11) A doctor suspects his patient has diabetes insipidus. What is the most likely match to the
blood and urine profile of this patient?
McGraw Hill A) A B) B C) C D) D
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12) Each human kidney contains about a million_________, which are the tubular functional
units of the kidney. A) ureters B) nephrons C) renal medullae D) nephridia E) flame cells
13) Water and small solutes are filtered under pressure out of the blood plasma into nephrons
through the porous walls of_________, tufts of capillaries in the renal cortex. A) vasa rectae B) Loops of Henle C) glomeruli D) collecting ducts E) juxtaglomerular apparati
14) The presence of a loop of Henle in nephrons is an evolutionary adaptation that enables
mammals and birds to reabsorb water efficiently and produce a(n)_________ urine. A) hypertonic B) hypotonic C) osmolar D) isotonic
15) The diffusion of water across a plasma membrane is referred to as A) osmosis. B) active transport. C) facilitated diffusion. D) countercurrent flow. E) bulk flow.
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16) Jill is lost in the desert and ran out of water six hours ago. What physiological effect or
response would most likely occur in this situation? A) decreased release of ADH from the posterior pituitary B) decrease in blood osmolarity C) increased permeability of the collecting ducts in the kidney D) decreased thirst sensation E) increased release of atrial natriuretic hormone
17) Release of what protein is directly subject to negative feedback inhibition when blood
volume rises? A) renin B) aldosterone C) angiotensin II D) angiotensinogen E) atrial natriuretic hormone
18) You wish to determine which organs function to remove waste products from the
hemolymph (blood) of an insect. You do so by injecting a suspension of particulate dye particles into the abdominal cavity of an anesthetized cricket. Where will you find these dye particles 45 minutes later, after you euthanize and dissect the cricket? A) in the nephridia B) in the Malpighian tubules C) in the nephrons of the kidneys D) in the protonephridia E) in the antennal glands F) in the urinary bladder
19) You put a solution of sucrose into a bag of dialysis tubing, which is permeable to water but
not to sucrose. You then put this bag into a beaker of water. An hour later, you observe that the bag has swelled due to A) active transport of water molecules. B) the osmotic pressure of the sucrose solution. C) the pressure exerted on the bag by the surrounding water. D) passive transport of sucrose molecules. E) the high osmolarity of the surrounding water.
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20) All of the following are animal mechanisms to cope with the problem of water balance
EXCEPT A) coupling of water/salt removal with metabolic waste removal. B) contractile vacuoles. C) passage of water and waste of the body across a layer of cells into a tubular structure. D) kidneys used as filtering organs. E) secretion of regulatory hormones into the tubule.
21) What is true of normal human urine production? 1. Blood pressure is used to push nitrogenous waste, water, and small molecules through a
filter, forming the filtrate, while cells and most proteins are retained in the blood. 2. Most water is reabsorbed as the filtrate is passing through a long tube. 3. Ammonia is produced as the metabolic breakdown is excreted. A) just I B) just II C) II and III D) I, II, and III E) I and II
22) One of the key factors in vertebrate colonization of many diverse environments is A) the flexibility provided by selective reabsorption of different solutes. B) not requiring a lot of water due to their closed systems. C) the ability to eat foods with lots of water. D) the ability to control water loss by controlling perspiration. E) the ability to decrease metabolic needs.
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23) What is the route a red blood cell would take to circulate through a kidney, starting from the
aorta? A) renal artery → afferent arteriole → vasa recta → efferent arteriole → glomerulus →
renal vein B) renal artery → glomerulus → afferent arteriole → efferent arteriole → vasa recta → renal vein C) renal vein → efferent arteriole → glomerulus → afferent arteriole → vasa recta → renal artery D) renal artery → afferent arteriole → glomerulus → efferent arteriole → vasa recta → renal vein E) renal vein → vasa recta → afferent arteriole → glomerulus → efferent arteriole → renal artery F) renal vein → glomerulus → efferent arteriole → afferent arteriole → vasa recta → renal artery G) renal artery → vasa recta → afferent arteriole → efferent arteriole → glomerulus → renal vein
24) Claire lost the ability to completely empty her bladder following a stroke, and a nurse inserts
a catheter into the open end of her urinary tract each day to remove the urine. Into what structure does the nurse insert the catheter? A) ureter B) bladder C) urethra D) nephron E) collecting duct F) renal pelvis
25) All of the following are reabsorbed by the nephron EXCEPT A) glucose. B) amino acids. C) water. D) vitamins. E) F)
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26) Which solute must be administered in high amounts because of its very efficient secretion
and removal by the kidney tubules? A) penicillin B) ions C) amino acids D) glucose E) vitamin K
27) Substances NOT usually found in normal human urine are A) urea and uric acid. B) glucose molecules. C) water molecules. D) , , and other ions. E) certain drugs.
28) The presence of the loop of Henle allows which animals to reabsorb water and produce a
hypertonic urine? A) birds B) marine fish C) mammals D) birds and mammals E) freshwater fish and mammals F) birds and reptiles
29) What animal has kidneys that are so efficient that it never has to drink water and can obtain
all of its water from its food? A) camel B) gerbil C) kangaroo rat D) pocket mouse E) desert lizard
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30) Gary has a kidney stone lodged in his ureter. Where will the radiologist find the kidney stone
on an x-ray? A) between the end of a nephron and the renal pelvis B) between the bladder and the outside of the body C) between a kidney and the bladder D) between a Bowman’s capsule and a loop of Henle
31) How does the loop of Henle enable the mammalian kidney to produce hypertonic urine? 1. The ascending limb of the loop actively extrudes Na+. 2. The descending limb interacts with the ascending limb to raise the osmolarity of the
extracellular fluid in the renal medulla. 3. The concentration is further enhanced by the presence of urea, which draws water out of the collecting ducts by osmosis. A) just I B) II and III C) just III D) I and II E) I, II, and III
32) The kidneys are important homeostatic organs, contributing to maintenance of all of the
following EXCEPT A) blood volume. B) destruction of worn-out red blood cells. C) blood pressure. D) ion concentration of extracellular fluids. E) blood pH.
33) What response would correct for a drop in glomerular blood pressure? A) angiotensin II-mediated inhibition of the adrenal cortex B) inhibition of osmoreceptors in the brain, leading to decreased thirst C) dilation of the afferent renal arterioles by angiotensin II D) inhibition of antidiuretic hormone release by the posterior pituitary gland E) stimulation of sodium secretion by the distal convoluted tubules
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34) Where are the receptors that respond to elevated blood osmolarity? A) in the adrenal cortex B) in the adrenal medulla C) in the hypothalamus D) in the kidneys E) in the heart
35) The adrenal hormone, aldosterone, regulates kidney function by A) reducing the blood flow to the kidney. B) stimulating active reabsorption of sodium, decreasing its excretion. C) increasing the permeability of the collecting duct to urea. D) increasing the permeability of the collecting duct to salt. E) triggering a sensation of thirst.
36) An increase in the production of ADH affects the kidney tubules by A) inhibiting reabsorption of sodium ion in the collecting duct. B) decreasing the permeability of the glomerulus to water. C) causing the walls of the collecting duct to become more permeable to water. D) inhibiting the reabsorption of water in the glomerulus. E) decreasing the insertion of aquaporins into the membranes of cells that line the
collecting ducts.
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37) Roger, who has Type I diabetes mellitus, forgot to take along his insulin on a fishing trip to a
remote part of Alaska. It takes him three days to make it out of the wilderness to a hospital. What would be the most likely match to Roger’s blood and urine profile once he reaches the hospital?
McGraw Hill A) A B) B C) C D) D
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38) Most vertebrates maintain homeostasis in regard to the total solute concentrations of their
extracellular fluids and the concentrations of specific inorganic ions. The kidneys participate in regulating the extracellular fluid concentration of all ions below EXCEPT A) ions. B) C) D) E)
ions. ions. ions. ions.
39) Most marine invertebrates are osmoconformers. This means that A) that their body fluids contain the exact same solutes in the same concentration as their
cells. B) the osmolarity of their body fluids is the same as their seawater environment. C) that their body fluids contain the exact same solutes in the same concentration as their surroundings. D) the osmolarity of their body fluids is equal to that of the osmoregulators who inhabit the same environments. E) the osmolarity of their body fluids fluctuates between hypertonic to hypotonic depending on the season and the tides.
40) Select the incorrectly-matched osmoregulatory organ and the organism that uses it. A) nephridia—annelids B) protonephridia—flatworms C) Malpighian tubules—insects D) kidney—fish E) antennal glands—mollusks
41) Select the incorrectly-matched vertebrate and its urine concentration relative to its blood. A) amphibians—isotonic B) marine reptiles—isotonic C) desert mammals—strongly hypertonic D) marine mammals—strongly hypertonic E) terrestrial birds—weakly hypertonic
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42) No matter how much water a human drinks, the kidneys are always regulating various
aspects of the blood, including_________. 1. the pH of the blood 2. the plasma concentration of iron ions 3. the plasma concentration of sodium ions 4. the plasma concentration of potassium ions 5. the temperature of the blood A) I, II, and III B) I, II, III, and IV C) I, III, and IV D) I, III, IV, and V E) I, II, III, IV, and V
43) Select the incorrectly-matched organism and its primary nitrogenous waste product. A) most fish—ammonia B) mammals—urea C) reptiles—uric acid D) birds—uric acid E) insects—ammonia
44) If uric acid accumulates in joints of humans the condition is referred to as A) atherosclerosis. B) gout. C) hypertension. D) distal convoluted tubule dysfunction. E) diabetes insipidus.
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45) Each nephron of the kidney consists of a long tubule and associated small blood vessels.
Blood cells and plasma proteins are too large to enter with the glomerular filtrate. What is the correct path for the filtrate to follow through the nephron in the production of urine? A) Bowman's capsule → distal convoluted tubule → loop of Henle → proximal convoluted tubule → collecting duct B) Bowman's capsule → proximal convoluted tubule → loop of Henle → distal convoluted tubule → collecting duct C) Bowman's capsule → loop of Henle → proximal convoluted tubule → distal convoluted tubule → collecting duct D) Bowman's capsule → collecting duct → proximal convoluted tubule → loop of Henle → distal convoluted tubule E) collecting duct → proximal convoluted tubule → loop of Henle → distal convoluted tubule→ Bowman's capsule
46) Freshwater fish are_________ with respect to osmoregulation. A) hypotonic regulators B) hypotonic conformers C) hypertonic regulators D) hypertonic conformers E) isotonic conformers
47) What animals could drink seawater and not get dehydrated? A) sea gull B) human C) garter snake D) bullfrog E) freshwater perch
48) What animal cannot make hypertonic urine? A) blue jay B) dog C) human D) grasshopper E) American toad
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49)
According to the above figure, which letter corresponds to the lowest tubular fluid osmolarity under normal conditions? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
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50)
According to the above figure, which letter corresponds to the area where water is absolutely not reabsorbed? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
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51)
According to the above figure, which letter corresponds to the area where amino acids are most likely to be reabsorbed? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
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52) Connor decides to celebrate his 21st birthday by drinking a few beers at a local sports bar.
After a while, Connor notices that he is making many more trips to the men’s room than the week before, when he drank similar amounts of carbonated water. Why is that? A) Alcohol stimulates filtration of the blood plasma by the glomeruli. B) Alcohol stimulates secretion of ions into the nephron and water follows by osmosis. C) Alcohol inhibits reabsorption of sugars, amino acids and other small metabolites, which decreases reabsorption of water. D) Alcohol inhibits the secretion of ADH by the posterior pituitary gland, thereby decreasing water reabsorption. E) Alcohol stimulates the insertion of aquaporins into the plasma membranes of cells that line the collecting ducts, thereby decreasing water reabsorption.
53) The kidneys are both protected and held in place by cushions of fat. In cases of rapid weight
loss, the kidneys may drop to a lower position, possibly causing kinks in a nearby tubular organ. If this happens, urine will back up into the kidneys, severely damaging them. What organ(s) is/are most-likely kinked in this situation? A) urethra B) ureters C) renal arteries D) nephrons E) renal veins
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 49 1) 2) 3) 4)
A A A C (2-3)/180 x 100 = 1.1-1.67% (or 1-2% rounded down and up, respectively) 5) D 6) D 7) B 8) C 9) C 10) C 11) C 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) A 16) C 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) E 21) E 22) A 23) D 24) C 25) E 26) A 27) B 28) D 29) C 30) C 31) E 32) B 33) C 34) C 35) B
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36) C 37) A 38) A 39) B 40) E 41) A 42) C 43) E 44) B 45) B 46) C 47) A 48) E 49) D 50) C 51) A 52) D 53) B
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Chapter 50 Student name:__________ 1) What cells are phagocytes that can also present antigens to A) B cells B) macrophages C) plasma cells D) T cells E) monocytes
cells?
2) What are the helper and inducer cells? A) B cells B) macrophages C) plasma cells D) T cells E) monocytes
3) What are the source of antibody-producing cells? A) B cells B) macrophages C) plasma cells D) T cells E) monocytes
4) What cells are the precursors of macrophages? A) B cells B) macrophages C) plasma cells D) T cells E) monocytes
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5) Which cells produce specific antibodies? A) B cells B) macrophages C) plasma cells D) T cells E) monocytes
6) What are on the surface of most vertebrate cells, acting as markers of "self"? A) major histocompatibility complex proteins B) T-cell receptors C) antigens D) immunoglobulins
7) The surface defenses of the body consist of the_________ and the mucous membranes lining
the digestive and respiratory tracts. A) bone marrow B) skin C) T cells D) lymphocytes
8) _________ diseases are those abnormal conditions in which the body's defensive cells fail to
make the self versus the nonself distinction correctly, and attack the body's own tissues. A) Septic B) Nondiscrete C) Autoimmune D) Cancerous
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9) A patient with melanoma receives three types of therapy: surgery, radiation, and interferon.
Which of these represents something the immune system uses against cancer as well? A) Radiation -- a class of lymphocytes uses powerful electromagnetic radiation to attack "altered self" cells. B) Interferon -- cells and NK cells secrete interferon in response to tumor cells. C) Interferon -- NK cells insert interferon into the membranes of tumor cells, creating large pores that burst the cells. D) Interferon -- In complexes bound with MHC proteins, the interferons indicate the presence of altered tissue to B cells.
10) What category of cells includes both phagocytes and lymphocytes? A) leukocytes B) erythrocytes C) platelets D) target cells
11) What molecules are released by activated helper T cells? A) antigens B) immunoglobulins C) cytokines D) antibodies
12) Lymphocyte receptors are encoded by genes that are assembled by rearrangement and
mutation of what molecules? A) pre-mRNA B) mRNA C) tRNA D) DNA
13) What is a necessary component of a powerful immune system? A) immunological tolerance B) strict temperature homeostasis C) thousands of different Ig genes D) a large thymus gland
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14) The human immunodeficiency virus mounts a direct attack on
cells by recognizing
the_________ surface proteins associated with these cells. A) Fc B) CD4 C) epitope D) cytokine
15) You sit next to Uncle Ed, an immunologist, at Thanksgiving dinner. "I'm a 'big eater'", he
says, "just like the cells I study." What are the large cells that engulf pathogens that Uncle Ed works with? A) monocytes B) erythrocytes C) macrophages D) bacteriophages E) antibodies
16) What is the name for molecules that provoke a specific immune response? A) antigens B) lymphocytes C) antibodies D) lysozymes
17) In the humoral response, some B cells differentiate into plasma cells. What do plasma cells
produce in large quantities? A) agglutinations that are specific for foreign antibodies B) interferons specific for foreign antigens C) immunoglobulins specific for foreign antigens D) antigens specific for foreign antibodies E) macrophages specific for foreign antibodies
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18) During a blood transfusion, what can occur when the antigens on the blood cells of a blood
donor interact with the antibodies that are present in the plasma of a recipient that has a different blood type? A) an autoimmune reaction B) an infection C) an agglutination reaction D) an inflammatory reaction E) a temperature response
19) What functions can complement proteins perform? A) amplify the inflammatory response B) attract phagocytes to the site of infection C) bind Fc receptors D) coat invading microbes E) insert themselves into the foreign cell's plasma membrane F) provide immunity in response to immunization G) store "memories" of specific antigens for months or years
20) What are two inflammatory mediators secreted by basophils and mast cells? A) immunoglobulins and antibodies B) antibodies and antigens C) histamines and prostaglandins D) allergens and antigens E) pyrogens and prostaglandins
21) Which of the following are part of the inflammatory response? A) Antibodies and interferons are produced against the antigens. B) Histamine and other chemicals are released, which produce redness, warmth, and
edema. C) Invading agent causes the release of pyrogens, which produce a fever. D) Neutrophils and macrophages attack the invading microbes and contribute to the pus.
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22) What is another term for allergy? A) autoimmunity B) antibodies C) hypersensitivity D) antigen shifting E) asthma
23) What is the term for immunity gained by the transfer of antibodies across the placental
barrier? A) passive immunity B) acquired immunity C) humoral immunity D) cell-mediated immunity E) auto immunity
24) Which of the following are types of leukocytes? A) B cells B) basophils C) eosinophils D) erythrocytes E) monocytes F) neutrophils G) T cells
25) What initiates the immune response? A) suppressor T cells B) cytotoxic T cells C) mediator T cells D) inducer T cells E) helper T cells
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26) Where are MHC-II cell surface proteins found? A) macrophages, B cells, and dendritic cells B) erythrocytes C) acidophils D) neutrophils E) neutrophils and macrophages
27) The cell-mediated immune response is brought about by which cells? A) B cells B) T cells C) erythrocytes D) fibroblasts E) lysozymes
28) What is the blood type of individuals who lack antigens on their red blood cell surfaces? A) A, B) B, C) AB, D) O, E) O,
29) Which is the major form of antibody in external secretions? A) IgM B) IgG C) IgD D) IgA E) IgE
30) With what do cytotoxic cells interact? A) MHC-I proteins B) MHC-II proteins C) foreign antigen D) MHC-I and MHC-II proteins E) MHC-I proteins and foreign antigens
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31) Which part of an antibody determines to which epitope it will bind? A) the two arms of the Y B) disulfide chains C) the heavy chains D) the stem of the Y E) the Fc portion
32) Which process allows a vertebrate to generate millions of different lymphocytes? A) DNA rearrangement B) DNA reestablishment C) clonal variability D) instructional variation E) gene cloning
33) Which mechanism allows certain viral pathogens to evade the vertebrate immune system? A) becoming a symbiont B) becoming nonvirulent C) frequent changing of surface antigens D) becoming metabolically inactive E) becoming a spore
34) Which is a treatment for autoimmune disease? 1. administration of corticosteroids 2. administration of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs 3. aspirin A) I only B) II only C) II and III D) I and II E) I, II, and III
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35) When a "new" antigen first challenges the immune system, if the primary immune response
produces B cells, what are the fates of those B cells? 1. Some of the B cells become plasma cells that secrete antibodies. 2. Some of the B cells become memory cells and can produce a swifter response if the body encounters that particular antigen again. 3. Some of the B cells secrete chemicals called pyrogens that travel to the brain inducing a fever. A) just II B) just I C) II and III D) I and II E) I, II, and III
36) When a person is tested for HIV, the test is considered positive if_________ to the HIV are
present. A) bacteria B) antigens C) antibodies D) T-cells E) natural killer cells
37) Which statements about the complement system of vertebrates are correct? A) The complement system is a part of the immune system of vertebrates. B) The complement system consists of approximately 30 different proteins that circulate
in the plasma. C) If these proteins encounter the cell wall of a bacteria or fungi they form aggregations and eventually produce a pore that leads to the destruction of the invading cells. D) Although complement proteins attack invaders, they are not involved with histamine release. E) The complement system produces antibodies to bind invading cells.
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38) Select the correct statement regarding the temperature response of the immune system. A) When macrophages encounter invading cells, they release immunoglobulin-1, which
is carried to the brain by the circulatory system. B) Interleukin-1 is a pyrogen, which can cause the neurons in the hypothalamus to raise the body's temperature, producing a fever. C) Fever contributes to the body's defenses by stimulating hyperhidrosis and causing the liver and spleen to store magnesium. D) Fevers above 99° F are often fatal.
39) A friend tells you the following story. "My aunt just received a heart transplant. Her doctors
warned us that her body might reject the tissue. I just can't understand how that could happen as human hearts are made of the same tissues, aren't they?" How do you respond? A) "Yes, all human hearts are made of cardiac muscles." B) "Yes, all human hearts are made of cardiac muscles, except some humans have different tissues inside their hearts and this could lead to a tissue rejection by the recipient." C) "Yes, all human hearts are made of cardiac muscles. As far as the rejection of tissues goes, your aunt might have different antibodies than did the donor, which could lead to a rejection." D) "Yes, all human hearts are made of cardiac muscles. However, your aunt might have been given some type of drug during the transplant operation that might cause tissue rejection. You can never be too careful in a hospital, you know." E) "Yes, all human hearts are made of cardiac muscles. As far as the rejection issue, everyone has different MHC proteins on their tissues. Your aunt's immune system recognizes the ‘self' tissues but can cause tissue rejection because of the ‘nonself' tissue in her body having different MHC proteins."
40) Select the immunoglobin (Ig) classes that is correctly matched to their facts. A) IgA—found in saliva, tears, the GI tract, and mother's milk B) IgD—serve as receptors on the surfaces of T cells C) IgE—promotes the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils, causing
allergy symptoms D) IgG—a minor form of immunoglobulin, used only in response to parasitic worms E) IgM—first secreted during primary response, promotes agglutination, activates complement
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41) Which of the following regarding antigens is true? A) A large antigen is likely to have many different epitopes, each of which can stimulate
a distinct immune response. B) An antigen is a molecule which promotes a general immune response. C) Bacteria do not contain antigens. D) Antigens can only be recognized by their lipid moieties. E) The most effective antigens are small simple amino acid complexes.
42) What do we call a lymphocyte that has never encountered an antigen? A) T cell B) B cell C) foreign lymphocyte D) stem leukocyte E) naïve lymphocyte
43) Which of the following describes passive immunity? A) antibodies transferred to the fetus from the mother across the placenta B) vaccination for polio C) allowing oneself to become infected with chicken pox D) vaccination for influenza E) catching a common cold
44) Which of the following are organs of the immune system? A) red bone marrow B) spleen C) thymus D) thyroid E) tonsils
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45) Which of the following cells is matched to an incorrect function? A) eosinophil—important to the elimination of parasites B) mast cell—releases histamine C) macrophage—phagocytic cell D) neutrophil—important antigen presenting cell E) monocyte—precursor of macrophage
46) Which of the following is true regarding cytokines? A) B) C) D) E)
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Cytokines are secreted by cells and bind to receptors. Cytokines are immune cells involved in producing antibodies. Cytokines are secreted by pathogens during infection. Cytokines bind to intracellular receptors. Cytokines protect in the attack of pathogens by phagocytosis.
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47) Referring to the figure showing helper T cell function, which statements are true?
A) B) C) D)
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48) Which of the following are a class of immunoglobin? A) IgA B) IgB C) IgC D) IgD E) IgE F) IgG G) IgM
49) Which of the following statements regarding hypersensitivity are true? A) The acceptance of self cells is known as immunological tolerance. B) Allergies are caused by IgG secretion in response to antigens. C) Autoreactive B cells produce autoantibodies causing inflammation. D) Itchy welts or hives could be called a local anaphylaxis. E) Delayed hypersensitivity is mediated by
cells and macrophages.
50) The hospital where you work is having an emergency blood shortage. Select the following
blood types that could safely be given to a young female with type AB A) A blood B) A blood C) AB blood D) AB blood E) B blood F) B blood G) O blood H) O blood
blood.
51) What is the most fundamental difference between the innate immune system and acquired
immune system? A) the way in which pathogens are recognized B) the way in which pathogens are destroyed C) the types of cells that participate in each response D) the speed
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52) Imagine that a Toll-like receptor (TLR) gene has duplicated and mutated, creating a leucine-
rich region binding pocket that can now bind to the hemagglutinin protein in the envelope of influenza virus. What do you predict will happen to this novel gene? A) It will be selected for and over evolutionary time will become an even better receptor for HA protein. B) It will spread from species to species. C) It will undergo VDJ rearrangement. D) It will continue to mutate, perhaps changing to bind other proteins or becoming deleted.
53) Until renamed by Paul Ehrlich in the 1890s, the heat-labile, nonspecific part of the immune
system that enhances inflammation was known as "alexin". We now know that various proteins of this system attract neutrophils to tissues, direct phagocytosis of targets by neutrophils and macrophages, burst pathogens by insertion of the membrane attack complex (MAC), stimulate histamine release, and increase capillary permeability. What did Ehrlich rename this part of the immune system? A) complement B) contingent C) toll-like response D) acquired immunity E) MBL
54) While innate immunity is ancient and universal amongst animals, the adaptive immune
system is generally considered to be unique to the vertebrates. However, some researchers have suggested, with much controversy, that invertebrates may have a form of adaptive immunity as well. What sort of evidence would be required to fully demonstrate such a claim? A) B and T cells B) CD4 receptors C) efficacy of vaccination D) highly variable molecules that can bind various antigens E) identified cells that are necessary to provide acquired immunity F) immunoglobulin molecules G) resistance upon second exposure to a pathogen H) specific resistance to one strain but not another after exposure I) thymus gland J) Toll-like receptors
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55) A patient has come to you for a second opinion. "I have these mysterious lumps in my right
armpit," he says, "The other doctor says we may have to remove them. What do you think?" You notice red scratches on the patient's right arm. "You must have a new kitten. Cat scratch disease, from the bacterium Bartonella ," you say, "And we certainly won't remove those lumps, they are really important! Those are your..." A) "thymus glands, where naive B and T cells encounter antigens and become activated." B) "lymph nodes, where T-cell receptor genes are rearranged as T cells mature." C) "lymph nodes, where naive B and T cells encounter antigens and become activated." D) "spleen, where hematopoietic stem cells produce lymphoid and myeloid progenitors."
56) T cells binding to MHC-peptide complexes are responsible for acceptance or rejection of
transplanted organs. To facilitate acceptance of the transplant, the ideal donor will have a close genetic relationship with the recipient -- even then, immune suppression drugs are often necessary. In a strange variation of this phenomenon, the endangered Tasmanian devil of Australia suffers from a devastating disease in which tumorous tissue is transmitted from animal to animal. What is the likely explanation for the lack of rejection of this transmissible tumor? A) MHC genes are unique to humans. Without them, the T cells have no way to distinguish self and non-self. B) Marsupials lack an adaptive immune system. C) Low genetic diversity makes the MHC genes invariant, so the "transplanted" tissue is accepted as self. D) Tumors are never targeted by T cells, unless they are caused by a viral infection.
57) You are studying a trafficking protein important for secretion in helper T cells. What is the
likely outcome of a defect in this protein? A) impaired secretion of immunoglobulins B) impaired secretion of degraded antigens C) impaired secretion of membrane attack complex D) impaired secretion of cytokines
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58) What would happen to immunoglobulin genes if alternative mRNA splicing was
nonfunctional? A) Transcripts would contain a single V region only. B) Transcripts would contain all possible V, D, J, and constant regions. C) Transcripts would have extra V, D, and J segments attached to a single constant region. D) Transcripts would have single V and D segments, but extra J segments and constant regions.
59) Two proteins, Rag-1 and Rag-2, catalyze VDJ recombination. What is the likely outcome of
a deletion of the Rag genes? A) mild susceptibility to infection due to T cell defects B) increased antibody diversity from B cells C) severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) of both B and T cells D) increased resistance to infection due to enhanced B and T cell function
60) Two proteins, Rag-1 and Rag-2, catalyze VDJ recombination. Where would you expect these
proteins to be expressed? A) thyroid and parathyroid B) bone marrow only C) bone marrow and thymus D) thyroid only E) blood serum
61) You are studying a mouse strain with a mutation in the alpha constant region of the
immunoglobulin heavy-chain. To determine the result of this mutation on the animal, what can you assay? A) binding of IgG to common blood pathogens B) binding of IgA to common mucosal pathogens C) diversity of the IgG variable region D) IgA titer in the gastrointestinal tract E) IgG titer in serum F) IgG titer in the gastrointestinal tract G) susceptibility to common respiratory pathogens
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62) B cells can generate antibodies with over 1010 different antigen-binding sites. How do so
many different antibodies fit onto a single B cell? A) B cells are unusually large cells. B) B cells have wavy, invaginated plasma membranes to provide more surface area. C) B cells have long flagella-like extensions to provide more surface area. D) They don't -- each B cell makes only a single variety of antibody.
63) A pathogenic virus has a new mutation in one of the coat proteins, that just happens to
resemble the structure of a normal human protein present in glial cells of the CNS. What do you predict may be an outcome of infection by this virus? A) The initial response to the virus will be strong, but will then be shut down by immunological tolerance. B) An autoimmune disease of the brain may develop. C) The innate immune system will ignore the pathogen, but the acquired immune system will attack it. D) The membrane attack complex will be unable to burst the viral membrane.
64) Some of the most common autoimmune disorders include those that affect the joints
(rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis), muscles (polymyalgia rheumatica), blood vessels (giant cell arteritis), tear and salivary glands (Sjogren's syndrome), or a differing variety of body tissues (systemic lupus erythematosus). What do these various disorders have in common? A) The immune system is attacking the body's own tissues. B) They are caused by bacterial pathogens. C) They are caused by hypersensitivity to allergens like peanuts, gluten, or pollen. D) They are caused by lifestyle choices like smoking. E) They are psychological. F) They are treated by suppressing the immune system. G) They involve failure of immunological tolerance.
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65) Unless rare antigens are present ideally, a patient needing a transfusion will receive blood of
the identical blood type. But in an emergency, what blood type can be given in a transfusion to anyone? A) AB Rh-positive B) AB Rh-negative C) O Rh-negative D) O Rh-positive E) A Rh-positive
66) Two kinds of custom antibodies are available -- monoclonal or polyclonal. Polyclonal
antibodies respond to a mixture of epitopes from the injected antigenic material; monoclonal antibodies are from a hybridoma strain created from a single B lymphocyte, and thus respond to a single specific epitope.
66.1)
You are designing a fast assay system for detecting flu virus in patients. You hope to send these tests to clinics in far-flung regions of the globe so they can conduct surveillance on influenza epidemics. The kits will need to remain functional for several years. What type of antibody will you choose? A) polyclonal B) monoclonal
66.2)
Your initial version of the influenza assay kit was a great success. Now you are making a new version that will detect one specific strain of influenza that is particularly virulent, and distinguish it from other typical strains. What type of antibody would be best in this case? A) polyclonal B) monoclonal
67) When developing a monoclonal antibody-based test kit, great care must be taken to choose
an antibody with the right binding properties. Imagine that you are developing a food-testing kit to specifically detect E. coli 0157:H7, a pathogenic serotype of E. coli that causes food poisoning. Choose the hybridoma line best suited for use in your test kit. 68) Different viruses have different properties that affect how the immune system responds to
them, and consequently how vaccines must be developed.
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68.1)
Every year a new version of the flu vaccine is made using a mixture of strains. The strains are chosen based on surveillance and analysis by experts from the FDA, WHO, and CDC. For other diseases however, such as varicella (chickenpox), the same vaccine is used continually and repeated vaccinations are not necessary. What do you conclude is the important difference between the influenza virus and the varicella zoster virus with regards to vaccinations? A) Influenza virus is transmitted through aerosol droplets in the air, while varicella can be transmitted via skin secretions. B) Varicella is attacked by the innate immune system, while influenza is attacked by the acquired immune system. C) Influenza virus has a much higher mutation rate than varicella, leading to frequent antigen changes in the coat proteins. D) Influenza envelope proteins are bound by IgM, while varicella envelope proteins are bound by IgG.
68.2)
What is a consequence of the fact that the chickenpox virus has a much lower mutation rate than the influenza virus? A) Chickenpox virus can "hide out" as latent virus in nerve cell bodies, but influenza cannot. B) Chickenpox creates skin lesions, while influenza leads to body aches. C) Chickenpox virus can reemerge decades later with the symptoms of shingles, while influenza is transient. D) A chickenpox infection generally gives immunity against a repeat infection, but people can catch the flu every year.
69) Why must T cell activation take place outside the thymus? A) An activated T cell could destroy the other maturing T cells. B) An activated T cell could then destroy the thymus gland itself. C) Many T cells are self-reactive and must be eliminated in the thymus before any
possibility of activation. D) Other cell types might be accidentally activated in the thymus.
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70) In the old days, milkmaids were exposed to cowpox from milking the cows, and this
fortuitously gave them some protection from smallpox. What was happening in the milkmaids? A) They were receiving a dose of generic IgG from the sick cows. B) They were effectively receiving a vaccination from a related virus. C) They were heightening their overall immune response due to exposure to the cowpox and other cow parasites. D) They had a stronger immune response from drinking the milk, which sent cow B cells circulating through their blood.
71) If Peter is allergic to peanuts and Paul is not, what is the precise molecular difference in
Peter's bloodstream responsible for this? A) Peter's blood has mast cells and basophils carrying IgEs that match an antigen on peanuts. B) Peter's blood has a continually excessive level of histamines and prostaglandins. C) Paul's blood has mast cells and basophils with IgEs that confer immunotolerance to peanuts, but Peter's does not. D) Peter inherited a peanut-specific IgG gene from his mother or father, while Paul did not.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 50 1) B 2) D 3) A 4) E 5) C 6) A 7) B 8) C 9) B 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) C 18) C 19) [A, B, D, E] 20) C 21) [B, C, D] 22) C 23) A 24) [A, B, C, E, F, G] 25) E 26) A 27) B 28) D 29) D 30) E 31) A 32) A 33) C 34) E 35) D 36) C 37) [A, B, C]
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38) B 39) E 40) [A, C, E] 41) A 42) E 43) A 44) [A, B, C, E] 45) D 46) A 47) [A, B, C] 48) [A, D, E, F, G] 49) [A, C, D, E] 50) [A, C, E, G] 51) A 52) D 53) A 54) [C, D, E, G, H] 55) C 56) C 57) D 58) D 59) C 60) C 61) [B, D, F, G] 62) D 63) B 64) [A, F, G] 65) C 66) Section Break 66.1) A 66.2) B 67) C 68) Section Break 68.1) C 68.2) D 69) C 70) B 71) A
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Chapter 51 Student name:__________ 1) What is the primary means of reproduction among the protists, cnidaria, and tunicates? A) asexual reproduction B) sexual reproduction C) asynchronous reproduction D) hermaphroditic reproduction
2) Terrestrial vertebrates and some fish evolved a form of fertilization in which the male
gametes are introduced into the female reproductive tract. What is this called? A) synchronous fertilization B) external fertilization C) internal fertilization D) asexual fertilization
3) Internally fertilized organisms can either be born alive, or emerge from what structures? A) follicles B) ducts C) capsules D) eggs
4) Some internally fertilized eggs develop and hatch outside the mother's body. What is this
developmental strategy called? A) oviparity B) placental development C) marsupial development D) vivipary
5) What was the most important adaptation of the reptiles and birds to life on land? A) the shelled egg B) the amniotic egg C) the external egg D) the impermeable egg
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6) The immotile sperm develop motility in about 18 hours after arriving at the long, coiled tube
called the A) vas deferens B) seminiferous tubules C) epididymis D) testis
7) In females at puberty, what cells begin to secrete the major female sex hormone estradiol? A) oocyte cells B) corpus luteum C) follicle cells D) granulosa cells
8) What kind of oocyte is released from the ovary at ovulation? A) primary B) germinal C) secondary D) ovum
9) In males, sterilization involves a vasectomy, which removes a portion of what structure? A) vas deferens B) epididymis C) seminiferous tubules D) Sertoli cells
10) What term describes avoidance of reproduction without giving up sexual intercourse? A) abstinence B) the rhythm method C) asexual reproduction D) contraception
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11) What stimulates ovulation? A) Estradiol B) FSH C) LH D) Testosterone E) Progesterone
12) What stimulates spermatogenesis? A) Estradiol B) FSH C) LH D) Testosterone E) Progesterone
13) What stimulates secretion of testosterone by Leydig cells? A) Estradiol B) FSH C) LH D) Testosterone E) Progesterone
14) What stimulates growth of ovarian follicles? A) Estradiol B) FSH C) LH D) Progesterone E) Testosterone
15) What completes the preparation of the uterus for pregnancy? A) FSH B) LH C) Testosterone D) Progesterone E) Prolactin
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16) What initiates the monthly preparation of the uterus for pregnancy? A) Estradiol B) Testosterone C) Progesterone D) Prolactin E) Oxytocin
17) What are the only mammals that lay eggs? A) monotremes B) placentals C) marsupials D) there are no egg-laying mammals
18) In humans, which embryonic tissues are "indifferent"? A) the vertebral column B) the brain stem C) the adrenal gland D) the spinal cord E) the gonads
19) What mammals retain their young for a long period of development within the mother's
uterus? A) B) C) D)
monotremes placentals marsupials no mammals retain their young within the female
20) An adult male produces sperm continuously by meiotic division of cells lining what
structure? A) Malpighian tubules B) Fallopian tubules C) seminiferous tubules D) epididymis tubules E) vas deferens tubules
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21) What process is absent in mammals with an estrous cycle? A) oogenesis B) homeostasis C) ovulation D) menstruation E) placenta formation
22) Ovulation occurs by a surge in the secretion of what hormone? A) estrogen hormone B) luteinizing hormone C) follicle stimulation hormone D) progesterone hormone E) hCG hormone
23) What hormone is tested for in pregnancy tests? A) estrogen hormone B) luteinizing hormone C) follicle stimulation hormone D) progesterone hormone E) hCG hormone
24) What caused intense selective pressure for terrestrial vertebrates to evolve internal
fertilization? A) The eggs are too small for the males to find and fertilize. B) The gametes could not be released next to each other, as they would soon dry up. C) There is no mechanism for eggs and sperm to find one another. D) Terrestrial organisms only produce small quantities of gametes. E) Gametes and zygotes are vulnerable to predators.
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25) What is the term for organisms in which internally-fertilized eggs are laid to develop and
hatch outside the mother's body? A) placental B) viviparous C) oviparous D) marsupial E) ovoviviparous
26) Ovoviviparity is found in A) reptiles. B) birds. C) mammals. D) mollies and guppies. E) marsupials.
27) Which of the following statements is true of reptiles? A) Eggs undergo external fertilization. B) Sperm are released in the vicinity of the female. C) Eggs have an amnion and a chorion. D) Larvae become adults by metamorphosis. E) Embryonic and fetal development in all species is only by oviparity.
28) Which is a correct statement about reptile reproduction compared to bird reproduction? A) Birds are oviparous, reptiles are ovoviviparous. B) Both newly hatched birds and reptiles require parental care. C) Both exhibit external fertilization. D) The eggs of both birds and reptiles have protective shells. E) Male or female reptiles reproduce asexually; birds do not.
29) What describes marsupial embryos? A) They are born fully developed. B) They are born highly underdeveloped. C) They hatch from an internal egg. D) They hatch from an externally laid egg. E) They are nourished by the placenta.
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30) What describes placental mammalian embryos? A) They are born immediately after fertilization. B) They develop inside a leathery shell. C) They complete development in a pouch. D) They hatch from an internal egg. E) They are totally dependent on the mother for complete development.
31) The scrotum is a sac-like structure outside the abdomen in which the testes are suspended.
Why is this structure essential? A) Sperm must be closer to the penis to be ejaculated. B) There is not enough space in the abdomen to grow properly. C) Lower temperature is required for normal development of sperm. D) There is too much hormonal influence if they remain in the abdomen.
32) The sperm head encloses a compact nucleus and is capped by a vesicle called what? A) Sertoli cell B) flagellum C) acrosome D) vas deferens E) epididymis
33) Which is a correct description of hormone action? A) FSH stimulates Leydig cells in the testes. B) LH stimulates Sertoli cells in the testes. C) Testosterone stimulates corpus luteum. D) GnRH stimulates the anterior pituitary gland. E) Testosterone regulates LH and FSH in a positive feedback loop.
34) What are attributes of oral contraceptives? A) They contain a progesterone and sometimes an estrogen analogue. B) The progesterone is in the 21-day pills, and the estrogen is in the 7-day pills. C) They help protect against ovarian and endometrial cancer. D) They are appropriate for use by smokers over age 35. E) They have a low failure rate of only 1 to 5% a year. F) They act by inhibiting LH and FSH secretion, inhibiting ovulation.
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35) Select the correct sequence of events of the human menstrual phase, beginning and ending
with the menstrual cycle. A) menstrual phase → proliferative phase → ovulation → secretory phase → menstrual phase B) menstrual phase → ovulation → secretory phase → proliferative phase → menstrual phase C) menstrual phase → secretory phase → proliferative phase → ovulation → menstrual phase D) menstrual phase → proliferative phase → secretory phase → ovulation → menstrual phase
36) The uterine lining proliferates during the female cycle and then sloughs off in what process? A) implantation B) fertilization C) menstruation D) ovulation E) placentation
37) Where does normal fertilization of an egg by a sperm in a human female occur? A) at the ovary upon ovulation B) in the uterus after the egg has implanted C) in the uterus before the egg has implanted D) near the cervix before the egg leaves the female E) in the Fallopian tube
38) Select the correct statement regarding the human female reproductive system. A) The ovarian fimbria is the functional unit of the ovary. B) The granulosa cells secrete testosterone, which triggers menarche. C) The Fallopian tubes transport ova from the ovary to the uterus. D) The cervix contains corpora cavernosa tissue, which is a type of erectile tissue. E) The uterus is lined with granulosa cells.
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39) Select the correct pair of statements about FSH and LH function. A) In males, FSH stimulates spermatogenesis and LH stimulates Leydig cells to secrete
testosterone. In females, FSH stimulates growth of follicles and LH stimulates ovulation and development of the corpus luteum. B) In males, FSH stimulates spermatogenesis and LH stimulates Leydig cells to secrete testosterone. In females, FSH stimulates ovulation and development of the corpus luteum and LH stimulates growth of follicles. C) In males, FSH stimulates Leydig cells to secrete testosterone and LH stimulates spermatogenesis. In females, FSH stimulates growth of follicles and LH stimulates ovulation and development of the corpus luteum. D) In males, FSH stimulates Leydig cells to secrete testosterone and LH stimulates spermatogenesis. In females, FSH stimulates ovulation and development of the corpus luteum and LH stimulates growth of follicles.
40) How do birth control pills prevent fertilization? A) They alter the uterine environment so that sperm cannot survive. B) They prevent follicle development and ovulation. C) The provide hCG, indicating that fertilization has already occurred. D) They inhibit menstruation. E) They prevent implantation.
41) What is the most commonly employed form of birth control in the United States? A) abstinence B) prevention of ovulation by hormonal inhibition C) sperm blockage with condoms D) sterilization E) prevention of embryo implantation with IUD
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42) What is an important benefit of using condoms? A) They prevent prostate cancer. B) They have a failure rate of only 1%. C) They can help prevent osteoporosis. D) They help protect against STDs.
43) There are numerous fish genera that have individuals that can change their sex during their
lifetime. What is this called? A) sequential hermaphroditism B) sequential sex determination C) sequential parthenogenesis D) sequential production of gametes E) sequential fertilization
44) Vertebrates that practice internal fertilization employ three strategies for embryonic and fetal
development. In one strategy, the female retains the eggs within her body and the young are fully developed when they hatch inside of her. What is this called? A) oviparity B) ovoviviparity C) viviparity D) protogyny E) protandry
45) Vertebrates that practice internal fertilization employ three strategies for embryonic and fetal
development. In one strategy, the female retains the young which develop and obtain nourishment from the female's blood. What is this called? A) oviparity B) ovoviviparity C) viviparity D) protogyny E) protandry
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46) You notice that in your aquarium, previously full of undoubtedly male fish, one is laying
eggs. Upon a bit of research, you find out that the species of fish you purchased is a sequential hermaphrodite. Which of the following is true? A) One of the male fish underwent protandry and became a female. B) One of the male fish fertilized its own eggs. C) Since the fish are hermaphrodites, one of the male fish laid eggs and another will likely fertilize them. D) The fish have parthenogenesis, therefore their eggs do not have to be fertilized to be viable. E) The fish have protogyny, which allows the males to lay eggs.
47) Which of the following determines genetic sex (male or female) in mammals? A) the Y chromosome contained in the egg B) the SRY gene on the Y chromosome C) the temperature of the developing fetus D) the genetic makeup of the parents E) the acrosome of the sperm
48) There are exceptions to the general rule that amphibians lay eggs that develop in the water.
These exceptions show extreme variation but they do have one thing in common. What is it? A) They all develop in some sort of pouch. B) They all develop in desert environments. C) They all develop in habitats with adequate humidity. D) They all develop in a camouflaged environment. E) They all develop more slowly than eggs developed in water.
49) Why did internal fertilization likely evolve? A) To increase the chances of successful fertilization. B) As a response to copulation. C) Because there were no safe places to lay eggs. D) As an adaptation to life in a terrestrial environment.
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50) Choose the correct statement regarding estrous and menstrual cycles. A) Animals with estrous cycles are sexually receptive only when they are ovulating. B) Menstrual cycles are longer than estrous cycles. C) Copulation can only occur during ovulation in the menstrual cycle. D) The lining of the uterus is shed during menstruation and estrous. E) Ovulation only occurs in animals with a menstrual cycle.
51) Which of the following have young which feed on milk? A) marsupials B) monotremes C) placental mammals D) placental mammals and marsupials E) placental mammals, marsupials, and monotremes
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52)
52.1)
According to the figure, what is occurring during day 2? A) ovulation B) release of corpus luteum C) menstruation D) luteal regression E) copulation
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52.2)
According to the figure, what is a likely day of implantation? A) Day 3 B) Day 27 C) Day 13 D) Day 21 E) Day 7
52.3)
According to the figure, what is the only hormone that doesn't peak during ovulation? A) progesterone B) FSH C) LH D) estrogen E) all female reproductive hormones peak at ovulation
53) Which hormone prevents the corpus luteum from degenerating? A) LH B) FSH C) hCG D) progesterone E) estrogen
54) Even if utilized properly, what is the least effective means of birth control? A) oral contraceptive B) condom C) foam D) IUD E) implant
55) Choose the letter of the best match from the following: A. birth control pill B. intrauterine device C. diaphragm D. foams and jellies E. vasectomy
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55.2)
Sperm blockage.
55.3)
Sperm destruction.
55.4)
Prevention of egg maturation and ovulation.
55.5)
Surgical intervention.
55.6)
Prevention of embryo implantation.
56) If a mutant organism used mitosis to produce gametes, what would be the result of mating
with a wildtype partner? A) Progeny would be quadraploid, and almost certainly nonviable. B) Progeny would be triploid, and almost certainly nonviable. C) Progeny would be normal -- this is a common occurrence in some phyla. D) The resulting progeny would be identical twins.
57) If you discovered a new colonial organism living deep on the sea floor, how could you
determine whether it reproduced sexually or asexually? A) Compare DNA to see if nearby individuals are identical. B) Compare morphology to see if nearby individuals are identical. C) Look for external buds still attached to the parent. D) Look for a coelom. E) Look for gonads with mitotic figures and embryos. F) Look for gonads with meiotic figures and gametes.
58) You have discovered a new invertebrate species that is slow-moving and widely dispersed.
What might you predict about its reproductive system? A) Males are likely to be smaller than females. B) Females are likely to be smaller than males. C) It is likely to use internal fertilization and brood care. D) It is likely to be hermaphroditic.
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59) Your friend is an amateur aquarist learning to breed clownfish. She had one successful clutch
of eggs, and moved the mother and fry with their anemone to a separate tank leaving only male fish behind. Now, she is surprised to find that a new female fish has appeared in the original tank. What is the most likely explanation for this? A) Some anemone species secrete pheromones that control the sex of fish as a way to regulate predation. Removal of the anemone allowed a new female to develop. B) In urban areas, tap water is polluted with contamination from endocrine disruptors such as BPA and PCBs. When she removed some of the tank water for the new tank, she should have replaced it with bottled water. C) Clownfish are protandrous hermaphrodites that respond to social cues. Removal of the dominant female allowed the second-largest fish to transform into a female. D) Clownfish synchronize their mating based on seasonal cues indicated by salinity. When she replaced some of the tank water, the lower salinity caused the fish to change into a female.
60) Sea turtles are endangered, in part because of human encroachment on the beaches where
they lay eggs. You are working with a team to help protect turtle nests and hatchlings from curious beachgoers. Someone suggests putting a fabric dome over each nest to keep people away. What is your response? A) "That will have several benefits, including protecting the nests from rough weather and hurricanes." B) "That would create a new problem if it blocked the females, since the females sit on the nests to keep them warm." C) "That might create a new problem. Sea turtles use temperature-dependent sex determination, and lowering the temperature of the nest will likely change the sex ratio of the hatchlings." D) "That would create a new problem if it blocked the males. The males have to be able to dig into the nest to fertilize the eggs."
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61) Major extinctions of dinosaurs are associated with large meteor impacts, including the final
extinction that wiped them out at the Cretaceous-Tertiary boundary. The particulate matter that would have arisen as a result of impact would have entered the atmosphere and had secondary impacts. Some scientists believe that a fundamental difference between mammals and dinosaurs allowed mammals to survive this event, but doomed the dinosaurs. What may have characterized the last generation of dinosaurs as they went extinct? A) Lungs clogged with dust B) Highly skewed sex ratios C) Hormonal disruptions due to contaminated water D) Weak eggshells due to radiation E) Inability to recognize mates due to diminished sunlight
62) Which type of fish is likely to produce the smallest number of progeny from each mating? A) An oviparous species B) An ovoviparous species C) A viviparous species
63) What is often -- but not always -- a feature that accompanies the evolution of internal
fertilization? A) meiotically-produced oocytes B) synchronized gamete release in a population C) fusion of egg and sperm within the female D) a male intromittent organ
64) At a party, one of your friends has just revealed that he and his wife are trying to conceive.
What do you advise him to avoid at the party? A) The loud music B) The raw vegetable appetizers C) The hot tub D) The melted cheese fondue
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65) What would be the result for a patient if all his spermatogonia went through meiosis and
proceeded to develop into spermatids? A) He would produce twice as many sperm and would be protected against infertility from other causes. B) He would produce twice as many sperm, which would crowd them during later development and lead to morphological defects. C) He would be entirely normal, since this is what usually happens. D) After one round of sperm production he would no longer be able to produce sperm and would be infertile.
66) With help from fertility specialists, a woman with very low follicle-stimulating hormone and
luteinizing hormone levels finally conceives a son. If her genetic condition is from a dominant allele and is passed on to her son, what is the likely result? A) He may have fertility problems as well. B) He is likely to have more sons than daughters. C) He will be fine, but his daughters will have a 50% chance of fertility problems. D) As a male, he will neither express nor pass on these genes.
67) You are doing veterinary research on dog hormones. In your set of blood samples, you have
one male dog with abnormally high levels of follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone. What do you suspect may be the explanation for this outlier? A) The dog had been neutered. B) The dog was a female, not a male. C) The dog had its pituitary gland removed. D) The dog had a hypothalamic problem causing low levels of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).
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68) In agriculture, male animals are often castrated to modify their behavior and to produce
desirable qualities in the meat. What would you predict about hormone levels in castrated male animals? A) Testosterone is high; follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinixing hormone (LH) are low. B) Testosterone is low; follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinixing hormone (LH) are high. C) Testosterone is low; follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinixing hormone (LH) are low. D) Testosterone is high; follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinixing hormone (LH) are high.
69) What special feature of the ovum is facilitated by the production of polar bodies? A) large size of the cell B) extra layers of plasma membrane C) triploidy D) large size of the nucleus
70) What could be the result if somehow two follicles made it to the late tertiary stage and burst
from the ovary? A) Nothing unusual -- this describes typical ovulation B) Excessively high estrogen levels, causing menstruation C) Permanent infertility D) Twins
71) A 38-year-old woman is going to ovulate in about a week. For how long has the primary
oocyte in her Graafian follicle been arrested at prophase I of meiosis? A) About a day B) 1 week C) 3 weeks D) 38 years
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72) A patient at a fertility clinic has been diagnosed with “luteal phase defect” (LPD). Her
progesterone levels are low and her cycles are short. What step of reproduction are these symptoms disrupting? A) Follicle development B) Ovulation C) Fertilization of the egg D) Implantation
73) An extremely rare occurrence in humans is a multiple pregnancy with the embryos at
different stages due to fertilization weeks apart. What mechanism normally prevents this from happening? A) The embryo's secretion of FSH and LH maintains the corpus luteum, keeping estradiol and progesterone high until the placenta takes over secretion of these hormones. B) The embryo's secretion of GnRH maintains the corpus luteum, keeping FSH and LH high until the placenta takes over secretion of these hormones. C) The embryo's secretion of hCG maintains the corpus luteum, keeping estradiol and progesterone high until the placenta takes over secretion of these hormones. D) The follicle's secretion of polar bodies maintains the fimbriae, keeping estradiol and progesterone high until the fallopian tube takes over secretion of these hormones.
74) In the waiting room of a doctor's office, the staff are creating an educational display about
varieties of birth control. What general categories of birth control will they want to outline? A) drugs that block gonad development B) devices to prevent implantation C) hormones to close cervix D) hormones to prevent ovulation E) hypothalamic implants F) nasal spray for males G) sperm barriers H) sperm destruction I) surgical sterilization J) abstinence
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75) What cause of infertility happens to nearly every woman at some point? A) idiopathic infertility B) pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) C) endometriosis D) luteal phase defect E) aging
76) Since men produce millions of sperm, but women produce only one oocyte per cycle, in the
vast majority of cases infertility is due to a problem with the woman. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 51 1) A 2) C 3) D 4) A 5) B 6) C 7) D 8) C 9) A 10) D 11) C 12) B 13) C 14) B 15) D 16) A 17) A 18) E 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) B 23) E 24) B 25) C 26) D 27) C 28) D 29) B 30) E 31) C 32) C 33) D 34) [A, C, E, F] 35) A 36) C 37) E
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38) C 39) A 40) B 41) C 42) D 43) A 44) B 45) C 46) A 47) B 48) A 49) D 50) A 51) E 52) Section Break 52.1) C 52.2) D 52.3) A 53) C 54) C 55) Section Break 55.1) C 55.2) D 55.3) A 55.4) E 55.5) B 56) B 57) [A, C, F] 58) D 59) C 60) C 61) B 62) C 63) D 64) C 65) D 66) A 67) A 68) B 69) A
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70) D 71) D 72) D 73) C 74) [B, D, G, H, I, J] 75) E 76) FALSE
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Chapter 52 Student name:__________ 1) What event initiates development? A) fertilization B) cleavage C) gastrulation D) organogenesis
2) What factor has the strongest influence on the cleavage pattern of an embryo? A) viscosity of albumin B) amount of yolk C) maturity of cytoplasm D) oxygen in air
3) In mammals, embryonic cells form an inner cell mass that will become the body of the
embryo and a layer of surrounding cells that will become the chorionic membrane and placenta. What are these surrounding cells called? A) blastocoel B) yolk C) blastodisc D) trophoblast
4) What structure is formed from both fetal and maternal tissue? A) chorion B) placenta C) yolk sac D) amnion
5) A couple conceives at the beginning of January. During which month will their child be
undergoing organogenesis? A) January B) February C) March D) April
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6) A couple conceives a child on January 1st. Which day falls within the period of
somitogenesis? A) January 3 B) January 7 C) January 17 D) January 31
7) When the placenta is delivered, what event allows secretion of prolactin and milk
production? A) a surge of adrenaline and endorphins B) sudden drop in progesterone and estradiol C) gradual drop in oxytocin D) sudden rise in FSH and LH
8) New mothers may benefit from the aid of lactation consultants when learning to breastfeed.
These consultants give advice on technique, and help the mother to feel relaxed and confident. What hormone is associated with calm, warm emotions and is also critical for the milk let-down reflex? A) prolactin B) estradiol C) oxytocin D) mammotropin
9) What would be the result of a mutation that reduces the amount of acrosomal enzymes? A) Male infertility due to inability of the sperm to tunnel through the blastula. B) Male infertility due to inability of the sperm to tunnel through the zona pellucida. C) Female infertility due to blockage of sperm from tunneling through the allantois. D) Female infertility due to blockage of sperm from tunneling through the archenteron.
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10) Certain groups of cells move inward from the surface of the blastula in a carefully
orchestrated migration called A) blastulation B) archenteron formation C) morula formation D) gastrulation E) cleavage
11) The hollow crater formed during gastrulation is known as A) acrosome B) archenteron C) morula D) cleavage furrow E) trophoblast
12) What developmental event was key to the evolution of the chordates, by forming the
notochord and dorsal nerve cord? A) morphogenesis B) organogenesis C) gastrulation D) neural crest formation E) neurulation
13) What factors stimulate uterine contractions and birth? A) FSH and prostaglandins B) LH and prostaglandins C) oxytocin and prostaglandins D) prolactin and prostaglandins E) hCG and prostaglandins
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14) What is the period of rapid cell division in which the embryo does not increase in overall
size? A) B) C) D) E)
syngamy cleavage neurulation meiosis crest formation
15) What pattern of cleavage is characteristic of mammals? A) holoblastic cleavage with eggs containing little or no yolk B) some yolk, and cleavage resulting in vegetal and animal poles C) meroblastic cleavage with eggs containing almost entirely yolk D) holoblastic cleavage with eggs containing very little yolk, but with the inner cell mass
concentrated at one pole E) holoblastic cleavage with eggs containing very little yolk, but with the inner cell mass distributed uniformly
16) What is the term for segmented blocks of tissue that form on either side of the notochord and
are added sequentially? A) blastopores B) gastropores C) somites D) amniotic cells E) sensory neurons
17) Which of the following leads to the occurrence of vertebrate sense organs? A) both adrenal medullary cells and sympathetic neurons derive from the neural crest B) neural crest cells form both neurons that carry messages and cartilaginous bars C) the neural crest and associated sensory ganglia D) formation of the endoderm E) formation of the autonomic nervous system
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18) Which are structures formed from the neural crest? A) a gill chamber of primitive chordates B) blastopores C) sensory neurons of the dorsal root ganglia D) Schwann cells E) olfactory and hearing organs
19) Which of the following are fetal membranes? A) chorion B) endometrium C) allantois D) amnion E) yolk sac
20) The developing embryo of reptiles, birds, and mammals is encased in the fluid-
filled_________ membrane. A) amniotic B) embryonic C) chorionic D) yolk sac E) allantois
21) The human placenta is formed by the interaction of uterine tissue and what extraembryonic
tissue? A) B) C) D) E)
amnion embrion chorion yolk sac allantois
22) The placenta protects the developing fetus from harmful substances like alcohol or drugs. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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23) Which of the following describe the placenta? A) The bloods of the mother and the embryo come in close contact without mixing. B) The placenta neutralizes toxins like alcohol and drugs before they reach the fetus. C) Oxygen diffuses from the mother to the embryo. D) Carbon dioxide diffuses from the embryo to the mother. E) The placenta provides nourishment and hormones to the embryo. F) The antibodies made in the embryo protect the mother from infections.
24) What is the main role of human chorionic gonadotropin? A) It stimulates the release of oxytocin from the mother's pituitary. B) It allows the mother to realize she is pregnant, via pregnancy tests. C) It is similar to FSH in stimulating follicle development. D) It maintains the corpus luteum.
25) What stimulates milk production in mammary alveoli? A) oxytocin B) prolactin C) chorionic gonadotropin D) progesterone E) estrogen
26) The head of a sperm is capped with an organelle that contains glycoprotein-digesting
enzymes. What is this organelle called? A) zona pellucida B) acrosome C) granulosa D) blastula E) neural cap
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27) Which tissues are correctly matched to their progenitor germ layer? A) ectoderm—lining of the digestive tract B) ectoderm—epidermis C) endoderm—lining of the respiratory tract D) endoderm—muscles E) mesoderm—blood vessels F) mesoderm—gonads
28) In human females, what process causes milk production? A) Stimulation of the alveoli of the mammary glands by prolactin from the anterior
pituitary gland. B) Stimulation of the alveoli of the mammary glands by oxytocin from the anterior pituitary gland. C) Stimulation of the alveoli of the mammary glands by prolactin from the posterior pituitary gland. D) Stimulation of the alveoli of the mammary glands by oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland. E) Stimulation of the alveoli of the mammary glands by LH from the anterior pituitary gland.
29) What is the first milk that is produced after birth called? A) prolactase B) colostrum C) hCG D) chorionic lactase E) allantoicase
30) What are the two components of the human placenta? A) chorionic frondosum and chorionic villus B) chorionic frondosum and decidua basalis C) decidua basalis and chorionic villus D) chorionic villus and endometrium E) chorionic frondosum and amnion
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31) Which of the following activates the egg? A) entrance of sperm into the zona pellucida B) contact of sperm with the outside of the zona pellucida C) contact of sperm with the vitelline envelope D) fusion of sperm and egg membranes E) fusion of sperm and egg nuclei
32) In this diagram, which of the following numbers represents the actual event of egg
activation?
A) B) C) D) E) F)
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33) Which of the following are mechanisms to prevent polyspermy? A) altering composition of exterior egg coat B) change in membrane potential of egg C) cortical granule enzymes remove sperm receptors from egg D) special proteins inside the egg compare the DNA of different sperm, choosing the
most adapted one E) toxic molecules exit the egg to attack extra sperm F) vitelline envelopes lift off surface of egg
34) Which of the following result from sperm penetration? A) eggs complete meiosis B) haploid nucleus of egg undergoes final mitotic division C) movement of egg cytoplasm D) outer pigmented cap of egg cytoplasm rotates toward point of entry E) sharp increase in protein synthesis
35) Which of the following animals undergoes rotational cleavage? A) echinoderms B) annelids C) amphibians D) mammals E) reptiles
36) Working in an experimental fertility clinic, a researcher removes one cell from an 8-cell
stage chimpanzee embryo. What is the likely result? A) Both the cell and the blastula will die. B) All the cells are already committed and therefore are not viable. C) The embryo from which the cell was removed still remains viable and can form a normal chimp.
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37) Which of the following are derived from mesoderm? A) blood B) epidermis of skin C) heart D) kidney E) lining of the digestive tract F) lining of the respiratory tract G) muscles H) nervous system I) skeleton J) somites
38) Which of the following is an accurate statement?
A) B) C) D) E)
Both diagrams show developmental sequences occurring in the same animal. Both diagrams show blastulae. Diagram II shows gastrulation in a bird. Diagram I shows gastrulation in a frog. Diagram I shows gastrulation in a mammal and diagram II shows gastrulation in a reptile.
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39) Removing some fluid from directly around a developing human fetus is performed by
inserting a long needle into the belly of the female patient. What extraembryonic membrane will be punctured in this process? A) chorion B) amnion C) chorionic villi D) external epithelium of mother
40) Which of the following regarding the Spemann organizer is true? A) Signaling molecules from the organizer inhibit ventral development. B) The dorsal lip cells directly activate dorsal development. C) The organizer determines the dorsal-ventral axis. D) The organizer forms in the area of the grey crescent. E) The point of sperm entry determines the orientation of the organizer.
41) What actually begins the uterine contractions which leads to giving birth? A) oxytocin B) prolactin C) estrogen D) prostaglandins E) the movement of the fetus
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42) Referring to the figure of sperm penetration and fusion, match the lettered description with
the correct numbered step in the figure.
A. B. C. D. E. F.
Some of the zona pellucida is degraded by acrosomal enzymes. Enzymes are released by cortical granules that harden the zona pellucida. Sperm and egg fuse at the plasma membrane. Sperm penetrates the corona radiata. The sperm nucleus dissociates and enters the cytoplasm. Additional sperm can no longer penetrate.
42.2)
Step I
42.3)
Step II
42.4)
Step III
42.5)
Step IV
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42.6)
Step V
42.7)
Step VI
43) Choose the letter of the best match from the following: A. third trimester of pregnancy B. second month of pregnancy C. first month of pregnancy D. second trimester of pregnancy E. third month of pregnancy
43.2)
Neurulation occurs.
43.3)
The embryo is now called the fetus.
43.4)
The heart begins to beat.
43.5)
The limbs, tail bud, and internal organs form.
44) In 1999, researchers found that they could create hybrid embryos between two species of sea
urchin that had been separated for 10 million years. By treating eggs to remove the jelly coat, the sperm of the other species was able to fertilize. What step of the fertilization process is normally blocked, preventing hybridization between these species? A) Sperm penetration B) Membrane fusion C) Egg activation D) Nuclear fusion
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45) Egg activation by sperm entry is associated with a sudden increase in protein synthesis. What
must be true of these proteins? A) They are histone proteins. B) They are small peptides. C) They are from maternal mRNAs. D) They are from paternal mRNAs.
46) Your research project involves sea cucumbers, a poorly-understood group of echinoderms.
You are trying to determine whether they block polyspermy by changing membrane potential like sea urchins do. In the chart below, you have counted the number of embryos that complete normal development after fertilization in either normal or low-sodium artificial sea water (ASW), for each of three sets of experiments. Looking over your data, what do you conclude? 47) A research group claims that they have discovered microscopic fossilized embryos, including
some at the blastula stage, but other researchers are skeptical. Finally, one student develops a technique for splitting the embryos in half to reveal the substructure. Cutting open the first blastocyst embryo, the student is very excited. “It is a blastula!" she shouts,"Look, you can see the_________ inside!” A) granulosa cells B) hollow blastocoel C) archenteron D) neural tube
48) What is the role of cleavage in the early embryo? A) produce bigger cells B) produce many cells C) extrude polar bodies D) make the embryo larger E) create germ layers
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49) What can you conclude about a species heavily reliant on diffusible morphogens in early
development? A) They are likely to have incomplete cleavage (a syncytium). B) They are likely to lack an organizer. C) They are likely to have activation via a calcium wave. D) They are likely to have small amounts of yolk and holoblastic cleavage.
50) You are studying the development of a poorly-understood species at the 8-cell stage. You use
a laser to zap away a certain one of the eight cells, and discover that part of the gut is missing once the embryos finish development. Your colleague, who is working on a different species, uses the laser to blast away one of the cells in her embryos, zapping each of the possible cells in a set of eight experiments. However, when the embryos finish development, every one is perfectly normal! What can you conclude about the two species? A) The first species has regulative development, the second has nonregulative development. B) The first species has nonregulative development, the second has regulative development. C) Both species have regulative development. D) Both species have nonregulative development.
51) What would result if an error inside gastrulation caused too few cells inside the archenteron? A) Too little endoderm, resulting in missing gut and organs B) Too little ectoderm, resulting in missing nervous system or skin C) Problems in muscle development D) Too little protoderm, resulting in missing organs
52) What would result if a defect in gastrulation caused too little mesoderm inside the embryo? A) Too little endoderm, resulting in missing gut and organs B) Too little ectoderm, resulting in missing nervous system or skin C) Problems in muscle development D) Too little protoderm, resulting in missing organs
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53) What would result if too many cells left the surface of the embryo to move inside during
gastruation? A) Too little endoderm, resulting in missing gut and organs B) Too little ectoderm, resulting in missing nervous system or skin C) Problems in muscle development D) Too little protoderm, resulting in missing organs
54) To your chagrin, you and your labmate have discovered that you both labeled your petri
dishes “A”, “B”, and “C”. How can you distinguish your sea urchin gastrula embryos from her frog gastrula embryos? A) Unlike frogs, sea urchins are deuterostomes, which form the anus first and the mouth second. B) Sea urchin cells migrate inside to form the archenteron, whereas in frogs proliferation of dividing cells from the dorsal lip populate the inside of the embryo. C) Sea urchins have relatively yolk-poor eggs with similar animal and vegetal poles, whereas frogs have large amounts of yolk distinguishing the vegetal pole from the animal pole. D) Frogs have an animal pole and vegetal pole, whereas urchins have only a vegetal pole.
55) What problem would result from disrupted development of the allantois in both birds and
mammals? A) Inability to retain the fluid that surrounds the embryo B) Inability to form the placenta C) Problems with gas exchange D) Loss of nutritional stores
56) In 1998, researchers found that genes similar to the Drosophila gene tinman are necessary for
heart development in vertebrates. What can you conclude about the ancient bilaterian ancestor of insects and vertebrates over 500 million years ago? A) The fly species that eventually gave rise to vertebrates used tinman to make a heart. B) Something about heart development requires a gene to have a tinman-like sequence, but the vertebrate and invertebrate genes arose by convergent evolution -- so the ancestor had a similar but not homologous gene. C) The ancient ancestor lacked a heart, but already had a tinman-like gene. D) The ancestor had a heart-like structure that was specified by a tinman-like gene.
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57) You are studying a mutant gene in the fruit fly Drosophila, and you suspect it may be
important for eye development. What evidence would support such a claim? A) Gene expression in the eye primordia B) Gene expression throughout the head C) Misexpression of wildtype gene results in ectopic eyes D) Misexpression of wildtype gene results in missing or malformed eyes E) Mutant with nonfunctional gene has ectopic eyes F) Mutant with nonfunctional gene has malformed eyes
58) The snakes include some rather short and some incredibly long species, with a variation from
about 100 to over 300 vertebrae. What developmental mechanism is the best candidate for changing the number of vertebrae in evolution? A) Changes in genes that lay down extracellular matrix in bone B) Changes in genes necessary for neural crest development C) Changes in genes that control mitosis D) Changes in the somitogenesis clock
59) 400 micrograms a day of folic acid are recommended for all women of child-bearing age.
Folic acid helps prevent neural tube defects in the first weeks of pregnancy, before most women even realize they are pregnant (and almost half of pregnancies in the U.S. are unintended). Knowing that folic acid promotes proper neural tube closure, which disease can be prevented by this supplement? A) Spina bifida -- the vertebrae are unfused and may allow the spinal cord to protrude outside the body B) Horseshoe kidney -- the two kidneys are fused together across the midline C) Esophageal atresia -- the esophagous ends in a pouch, unconnected to the stomach D) Chronic otitis media -- frequent ear infections that can result from blocked eustachian tubes
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60) What is critical to the development of neural crest cell derivatives? A) close contact with the notochord B) regulation of N-cadherin C) muscle development genes like muscle myosin D) strong cellular adhesions that lock the cells in the place of their origin
61) In the famous Spemann-Mangold experiment, what detail was crucial to understanding the
result? A) transplanting the new dorsal lip cells to the same dorsal lip location in the second
embryo B) using genetically different donor and host frogs C) placing the dorsal lip cells deep inside the archenteron D) treating the dorsal lip cells with morphogens before transplanting them
62) What basic developmental challenge is solved by the organizer? A) enhancing migration of cells into the interior of the blastula B) assigning developmental fates to cells along the anterior-posterior axis C) creating an anterior-posterior axis by responding to maternally-deposited protein
factors D) creating a dorsal-ventral axis from a spherical ball of cells
63) In blind cave fish, eyes do not form. However, transplantation of the lens from a closely-
related aboveground fish into the optic cup of the cave fish induces eye development. What does this suggest about the loss of vision in the cave fish? A) Primary induction of the eye fails in the cave fish because the lens lacks some critical signal. B) Secondary induction of the eye fails in the cave fish because the lens lacks some critical signal. C) Primary induction of the eye fails in the cave fish because the optic cup lacks the ability to receive some critical signal. D) Secondary induction of the eye fails in the cave fish because the optic cup lacks the ability to receive some critical signal.
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64) What prevents menstruation from occurring in the 10th week when the corpus luteum
regresses? A) The follicle takes over secretion of hCG. B) The follicle takes over secretion of estradiol and progesterone. C) The placenta takes over secretion of estradiol and progesterone. D) The cervix takes over secretion of oxytocin and prostaglandins.
65) What human organ is formed from two genetically-different tissues? A) neural crest B) neural tube C) placenta D) uterus
66) In a normal mammalian birth, how does the body guarantee that birth proceeds to
completion? A) Via positive feedback -- stretching of the uterus by the descending fetus induces release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary causing even stronger uterine contractions. B) Via negative feedback -- stretching of the uterus by the descending fetus induces release of FSH and LH from the posterior pituitary causing even stronger uterine contractions. C) Via positive feedback -- stretching of the uterus by the descending fetus induces release of prolactin from the posterior pituitary causing even stronger uterine contractions. D) Via negative feedback -- stretching of the uterus by the descending fetus induces release of prostaglandins from the posterior pituitary causing weaker uterine contractions.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 52 1) A 2) B 3) D 4) B 5) B 6) C 7) B 8) C 9) B 10) D 11) B 12) E 13) C 14) B 15) D 16) C 17) C 18) [A, C, D, E] 19) [A, C, D, E] 20) A 21) C 22) FALSE 23) [A, C, D, E] 24) D 25) B 26) B 27) [B, C, E, F] 28) A 29) B 30) B 31) D 32) C 33) [A, B, C, F] 34) [A, C, D, E] 35) D 36) C 37) [A, C, D, G, I, J]
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38) D 39) B 40) [A, C, D, E] 41) D 42) Section Break 42.1) D 42.2) A 42.3) C 42.4) E 42.5) B 42.6) F 43) Section Break 43.1) C 43.2) D 43.3) B 43.4) C 44) A 45) C 46) C 47) B 48) B 49) A 50) B 51) A 52) C 53) B 54) C 55) C 56) D 57) [A, C, F] 58) D 59) A 60) B 61) B 62) D 63) B 64) C 65) C 66) A
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Chapter 53 Student name:__________ 1) Tinbergen is credited with being one of the founders of the field of behavioral_________, the
study of how natural selection shapes behavior. A) genetics B) ecology C) symptomatology D) demographics
2) Animals tend to feed on prey that maximize their net energy intake. This is called
the_________ theory. A) competitive exclusion B) maximal consumption C) optimal foraging D) optimization
3) In many animals, _________ guides learning by determining what type of information can be
learned, meaning that what an animal can learn is often biologically influenced. A) instinct B) free will C) consciousness D) operance
4) The degree of parental investment required often results in the nonrandom mating behavior
called_________. A) allopatry B) fidelity C) mate choice D) preferability
5) Alarm calling seems to be an example of_________, that is, it favors relatives. A) sociology B) demography C) aggression D) kin selection
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6) Chemical signals that mediate interactions between two or more members of a given species
are called_________. A) pheromones B) alarm signals C) hormones D) competitive exclusions
7) Artificial selection and hybridization can demonstrate the_________ basis of behavior. A) cognitive B) operant C) genetic D) associational E) endogenous
8) A nonassociative learning called_________ can be defined as a decrease in response to a
repeated stimulus that has no positive or negative consequences. A) instinctive learning B) imprinting C) desensitization learning D) habituation E) cognitive learning
9) As an animal matures, it forms attachments to other individuals and develops preferences.
This process is called A) instinct. B) imprinting. C) associational learning. D) habituation. E) sensitization.
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10) The processing of information and response in a manner that suggests thinking in the animal
is called A) endogenous behavior. B) environmental induced behavior. C) instinctive behavior. D) associative behavior. E) cognitive behavior.
11) The signal from the environment that triggers a stereotyped behavior is a A) conditioned reflex. B) fixed action pattern. C) reinforcing stimulus. D) releasing mechanism. E) key stimulus (sign stimulus).
12) By evaluating and selecting mates with superior qualities, an animal can increase its A) reproductive success. B) learning. C) competitive strategies. D) foraging efficiency. E) length of life.
13) In birds, if the offspring require extensive care, usually involving both the male and female,
they are called A) semelparous species. B) altricial species. C) precocial species. D) iteroparous species. E) sympatric species.
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14) The modification of behavior as a result of experience is called A) association. B) behavior modification. C) habituation. D) learning. E) sensitization.
15) Habituation belongs to which of the following types of learning? A) nonassociative B) behavior modification C) conditioning D) innate release E) cognitive
16) If an unrelated stimulus, such as the ringing of a bell, was presented at the same time as the
meat powder, over repeated trials, a dog would salivate in response to the sound of the bell alone. This kind of response is called A) behavioral learning. B) classical conditioning. C) deviant behavior. D) operant conditioning. E) imprinting.
17) An animal learns to associate its behavioral response with a reward or punishment in A) behavioral learning. B) classical conditioning. C) deviant behavior. D) operant conditioning. E) imprinting.
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18) Who conducted the famous "imprinting" experiment on geese? A) Mendel B) Russel C) Lorenz D) Darwin E) Raven
19) Research has revealed that the development of psychological well-being and growth is
influenced by A) imprinting. B) physical contact. C) sensitization. D) associative learning. E) pheromone levels.
20) A behavior that has evolved to aid relatives, although at personal risk, and thus increases the
chance of your genes being passed on to the next generation is known as A) altricial behavior. B) instinctive behavior. C) kin selection. D) operant conditioning. E) adaptive behavior.
21) Which scientist described inclusive fitness as the effect an individual has on propagating its
alleles through its own reproduction and through kin selection? A) Mendel B) Darwin C) Wallace D) Tinbergen E) Hamilton
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22) Social insect colonies are composed of highly specialized groups called A) clines. B) ecotypes. C) castes. D) species. E) filial relatives.
23) Insect workers propagate more of their own alleles by helping their mother reproduce rather
than by reproducing themselves; thus, they share a larger fraction of their_________ with the next generation. A) food resources B) time C) genome D) ability to defend their nest E) home
24) Courtship is often dependent on A) social releasers. B) a stimulus/response chain. C) an alarm call. D) taxis. E) size and colors.
25) Foraging bees communicate with other bees in a waggle dance to give information about the
food. The important cue in the dance that conveys information about the required flight direction to the food source relative to the hive-sun direction is the A) angle between the food source and the hive in reference to the sun. B) angle between the waggle run and the vertical axis within the hive. C) angle between the waggle run in reference to the hive-sun angle. D) angle between the waggle run in reference to the direction north from the hive. E) speed of the waggle dance.
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26) Which of the following are used by species for navigation? A) landmarks B) magnetic fields C) phases of the moon D) stars E) the sun
27) If a scientist is conducting a study of how an animal's senses provide a physiological basis
for a particular behavior, what type of causation is being explored? A) ultimate causation B) proximate causation C) stereotyped causation D) ethnological causation E) fixed action pattern causation
28) If a scientist is conducting a study of how a male bird's song and the female bird's response
evolved, what type of causation is being explored? A) ultimate causation B) proximate causation C) stereotyped causation D) ethnological causation E) fixed action pattern causation
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29) Which of the following is an appropriate interpretation for these graphs?
Maternal care (as measured by minutes crouching over offspring and proportion of pups retrieved) in female mice that have the fosB allele is A) less than the maternal care given by female mice without the fosB allele. B) greater than the maternal care given by female mice without the fosB allele. C) the same as the maternal care given by female mice without the fosB allele. D) less than the maternal care given by female mice without the fosB allele; however, the graphs depict only minor differences, which are most likely not significant. E) not possible to determine from the data.
30) In an experiment studying predator and prey relationships, a scientist offers a naïve toad a
bumblebee as food. The bee stings the toad when the toad tries to catch and eat the bee. Subsequent feeding trials with the toad reveal that the toad avoids feeding on bumblebees. This is a demonstration of A) non-associative learning on the toad's part. B) associative learning on the toad's part. C) ultimate learning on the toad's part. D) proximate learning on the toad's part. E) sign stimulus learning on the toad's part.
31) B. F. Skinner first introduced operant conditioning experiments. What happens in these
experiments? A) An animal learns to associate its behavioral response with a fixed action pattern. B) An animal learns to associate its behavioral response with an instinct. C) An animal learns to associate its behavioral response with its biological clock. D) An animal learns to associate its behavioral response with a reward or a punishment. E) An animal learns to associate its behavioral response with a conditional stimulus.
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32) Konrad Lorenz demonstrated that newly hatched birds would direct their social behavior
toward him if they saw him first after they hatched from their eggs. What is this called? A) cross-fostering behavior B) operant conditioning C) fixed action patterning D) habituation behavior E) imprinting behavior
33) A friend of yours is wondering about the differences between the words orientation and
navigation when these two terms are used in descriptions of bird migrations. Since you have studied and know something about animal behavior, what do you tell your friend? A) Orientation is adjusting a bearing, while navigation is actually following a bearing. B) Orientation and navigation are used interchangeably when referring to avian migrations. C) Orientation is following a bearing, while navigation is setting or adjusting a bearing. D) Orientation is following the sun in the day as starling do, while navigation is following a bearing with a small amount of magnetite, which is found in the heads of some migratory birds. E) Orientation is the ability to find true east, navigation is the ability to find a bearing while crossing water.
34) Foraging behaviors are those having to do with which of the following? A) how an animal avoids becoming the prey of a larger predator B) how an animal finds its food C) how much food an animal eats D) what an animal eats E) when an animal eats
35) The area over which an animal moves in the course of daily activity, but which it does not
necessarily defend against other animals, is called what? A) family home B) foraging space C) home range D) nesting site E) territory
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36) In species where the young are precocial, meaning requiring little parental care, males may
be more likely to be A) monogamous. B) polygynous. C) polyandrous. D) altricial.
37) Living as a member of a group may have all of the following advantages except A) being more resistant to disease and parasites. B) increased feeding rate. C) greater protection from predators. D) members learn about new food sources from other members. E) more individuals scan the environment for dangers.
38) Haldane pointed out that if he received a certain allele, the chance that one of his brothers
would receive that allele would be A) 100%. B) 50%. C) 10%. D) random. E) 0%.
39) What is the term for selection that favors altruism toward relatives? A) kin selection B) mate choice C) group selection D) nepotism E) reciprocal altruism
40) Which of the following are eusocial (true social) insects? (Check all that apply.) A) ants B) fruit flies C) honeybees D) termites E) wasps
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41) Hamilton explained the origin of altruism in selected insect societies with his kin selection
model of sex determination. Since males are haploid and females are diploid, the workers share a very high proportion of alleles, theoretically as high as 75%. What is this called? A) diploidy B) haploidy C) haplodiploidy D) parthenogenesis E) altruism
42) Which of the following is the best interpretation of the graph below of mussel size (x-axis)
versus energy gain (line graph, left y-axis), and number of mussels eaten per day (histogram, right y-axis)?
</p> A) Mussels are selected as food sources by crabs. B) Crabs select mussels in a way that maximizes their energy gain. C) Mussel size does not seem to be a good predictor as to which mussel hungry crabs
will select. D) Crabs tend to consume most of the largest mussels. E) Crabs prefer the mussels with the smallest length for their food resources.
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43) Your study buddy asks, "would you please explain the difference between home range and
territory?" What is the best response? A) Territory is the entire area that an animal can utilize for its resources, such as shelter, food, and mates. Home range is near its nest or den. B) Territory is the area that an animal can utilize for its resources, such as shelter, food and mates and will defend against other members of its species. Home range is near its nest or den. C) Territory is the area that an animal can utilize for its resources, such as shelter, food and mates, and will defend against other members of its species. Home range is the area that an animal may roam over on a daily basis. D) Territory is the area that an animal can utilize for its resources, such as shelter, food and mates, and will defend against others members of its species. Home range is a smaller area within the territory that the animal is found in when it is resting or hiding from predators.
44) What is the flash pattern used by female fireflies to attract males of their species an example
of? A) B) C) D)
a sign stimulus an innate releasing mechanism a supernormal stimulus sexual imprinting
45) The vertical dive of a moth for cover when it hears the ultrasound chirps of an approaching
bat is an example of a(n) A) sign stimulus. B) fixed action pattern. C) innate releasing mechanism. D) supernormal stimulus. E) kinesis.
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46) The neural circuit that allows a male stickleback fish to orient and behave aggressively
towards an inanimate object with a red stripe is an example of a(n) A) sign stimulus. B) fixed action pattern. C) innate releasing mechanism. D) supernormal stimulus. E) stimulus-response chain.
47) When a parent herring gull arrives at the nest with food, a chick will orient to and peck at the
red spot on the parent's bill. The parent will then regurgitate the food into the chick's open mouth and the chick swallows it. What is this set of behaviors an example of? A) sign stimulus B) fixed action pattern C) innate releasing mechanism D) taxis E) stimulus-response chain
48) Which of the following are examples of associative learning? A) classical conditioning B) cognition C) imprinting D) operant conditioning E) Pavlovian conditioning
49) You place an empty dog-food dish across the room from a puppy that then goes over to
investigate the dish. You pick the dish up and ten minutes later you place it in a different part of the room, and you keep repeating this pattern. After the fifth time the puppy no longer goes over to the empty dish. Which of the following terms best describes this form of learning? A) trial and error learning B) habituation C) classical conditioning D) operant conditioning E) imprinting
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50) It is 6:00 PM and the sun is due west of the hive. A honeybee has just returned to its hive
from a patch of flowers that are due north of the hive. Which of the following best describes the type of waggle dance that this bee should perform? Note: The waggle run is the straight part of the dance. A) The waggle run should be straight down the vertical axis. B) The waggle run should be straight up the vertical axis. C) The waggle run should be 90° to the left of the vertical axis. D) The waggle run should be 90° to the right of the vertical axis. E) The waggle run should be 45° to the right of the vertical axis.
51) In which of the following examples has communication occurred? A) A bird gives an alarm call when a hawk approaches, but no other birds are in the area. B) A bird sings from the top of a tree in its territory attracting a female of the same
species to it. C) A bird sings from the top of a tree in its territory keeping other birds of the same species from trespassing. D) An ant lays down a trail of pheromones that other ants follow. E) A waggle dancing bee feeds some of the nectar she is carrying to bees attending her dance; they now know what type of flowers she has visited.
52) Correctly rephrase the following famous quote from J. B. S. Haldane. "I would lay down my
life in order to save two brothers or_________." A) one son or daughter B) four cousins C) three uncles D) two nephews and one son or daughter E) two grandsons or granddaughters
53) Which of the following statements best defines an altruistic act? A) benefits the performer and another individual B) benefits another individual at some cost to the performer C) benefits another, related individual at some cost to the performer D) imposes a cost on the performer and another individual E) imposes a cost on the performer without benefiting another individual
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54) Which of the following statements comparing the naked mole rat social system with social
insect societies are true? A) As with social insect societies, colony members are kin. B) As with social insect societies, it is based on haplodiploidy. C) As with social insect societies, there is a division of labor within the colony. D) As with social insect societies, there is one queen and several reproductive males per colony. E) Unlike social insect societies, all colony members are diploid.
55) Choose the letter of the best match from the following: A. cognition B. waggle dance C. navigation D. filial imprinting E. fixed action pattern
55.2)
Information processing that suggests thinking.
55.3)
Move long distances using sun and stars.
55.4)
A form of communication in honeybees.
55.5)
Innate motor program.
55.6)
Social attachments are formed between parents and offspring.
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56) Lepidopterans (moths and butterflies) sometimes have specialized flying behaviors. Some
moths have the ability to do sudden vertical drops when they detect bat sonar, to avoid being eaten. Other species use special flying techniques to attract a mate. When biologists talk about the "cause" of a behavior, they may be referring to two different things. The proximate cause is the sequence of physiological events that lead to the behavior in an individual. The ultimate cause is the adaptive benefit to the animal that allowed natural selection to sculpt the behavior over evolutionary time. Understanding both the proximate and ultimate basis of behavior is important, and different types of biologists may focus on each.
56.1)
A moth species is known for its unusual flying behavior, which includes sudden vertical drops and horizontal zigzags. Not much is known about the cause of this behavior. What could you study to better understand the proximate basis of this behavior? A) brain structure B) flying behavior in related species C) hormones D) mating behavior E) physiology F) predation G) sensory organs H) wing muscle development
56.2)
What could you study to better understand the ultimate basis of this behavior? A) brain structure B) flying behavior in related species C) hormones D) mating behavior E) physiology F) predation G) sensory organs H) wing muscle development
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57) One of your professors says that fleas jump so high because they have specially adapted leg
structures and muscles. But your other professor says that fleas jump high because evolution selected for individuals with genes that helped them avoid being damaged by the scratching behavior of their host. So -- why do fleas jump high? A) Because they have specially adapted leg structures and muscles. B) Because evolution selected for individuals with genes that helped them avoid being damaged by the scratching behavior of their host. C) The ultimate cause is that they have specially adapted leg structures and muscles, and the proximate cause is that evolution selected for individuals with genes that helped them avoid being damaged by the scratching behavior of their host. D) The proximate cause is that they have specially adapted leg structures and muscles, and the ultimate cause is that evolution selected for individuals with genes that helped them avoid being damaged by the scratching behavior of their host.
58) Herring gulls feed their chicks by regurgitating food for the chick in the nest. When a chick
pecks at the red spot on the gull's beak, the parent regurgitates the food. Interestingly, the chicks will peck at any red spot, whether it is attached to a gull or not. Which features of this behavior are correctly labeled? (Check three.) A) Fixed action pattern -- finding a healthy variety of food for the chick B) Fixed action pattern -- pecking at the spot C) Innate releasing mechanism -- neural circuit that induces pecking in response to a red spot D) Innate releasing mechanism -- the red spot E) Key stimulus -- the shape of the parent's beak F) Key stimulus -- the regurgitated food G) Key stimulus -- the red spot
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59) Male fruit flies perform a complex mating dance that includes following the female, vibrating
a wing to produce a species-specific song, and picking up chemosensory cues by tapping with the legs and licking with the tongue. What physiological features are likely important for causing this behavior? A) adaptive value of successful mating B) brain circuits C) hormones D) natural selection E) performance of phylogenetically-related species F) sensory neurons on the legs and tongue G) sperm competition H) threats of predation during the performance I) visual system J) wings and wing muscles
60) Female fire beetles, Melanophilia sp., must seek out freshly-burned trees to lay their eggs in
so the larvae can feed on the burned wood. What specialized neural structures might you expect these beetles to have to facilitate this behavior? A) Extra large axons for rapid axonal transduction B) Special, enlarged synapses for rapid synaptic transmission C) Giant brain structures for processing auditory information D) Special sensory structures that can detect signs of fire or burned wood
61) Which best describes the role of neurotransmitters in behavior? A) In specific ecological contexts, neurotransmitters can be important for behavior. For
instance, aggression requires the neurotransmitter serotonin. B) Some specific behaviors will require neurotransmitters. For instance, aggression requires the neurotransmitter serotonin. C) Neurotransmitters allow neurons to communicate, and are thus involved in all behaviors. Levels of specific neurotransmitters have been associated with levels of specific behaviors -- such as serotonin and aggression. D) Neurotransmitters have been developed for researchers who want to manipulate animal behaviors. For instance, serotonin can be applied to lobsters to increase aggression.
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62) Which of the studies below provide evidence linking genes and behavior? A) Fruit flies that are mutant for the genes dunce or rutabaga have impaired learning. B) Mice that are lacking either the ephrinB3 or the EphA4 gene cannot walk normally,
but instead hop like a kangaroo. C) Two lines of fruit flies were created by repeatedly selecting for high or low aggressive behavior. After multiple generations, the high line was reliably more aggressive than the low line. D) Twin studies comparing monozygotic and dizygotic twins have found a high heritability for height, although environmental influences like nutrition also play a role.
63) At a research conference, you meet a graduate student who studies the hormonal
underpinnings of mating behavior in two species of squirrel. "It turns out the difference between my two squirrel species is similar to the difference between the prairie and the montane voles," he says. You nod knowingly, and reply... A) "Oh, so the promiscuous species has a lot of vasopressin and oxytocin receptors in the nucleus accumbus, blocking pair bonding, and the monogamous species doesn't?" B) "Oh, so the monogamous species has a lot of vasopressin and oxytocin receptors in the nucleus accumbus, promoting pair bonding, and the promiscuous species doesn't?" C) "Oh, so the polyandrous species has a lot of serotonin and dopamine receptors in the nucleus accumbus, promoting pair bonding, and the promiscuous species doesn't?" D) "Oh, so the monogamous species has a lot of serotonin and dopamine receptors in the nucleus accumbus, promoting pair bonding, and the promiscuous species doesn't?"
64) Your study buddy is frustrated. "This book says that a single gene can make mice exhibit a
certain behavior. That's ridiculous! How can you build any kind of neural circuit with just one gene?" What is your response? A) "If the book says so it must be true. Ours is not to question why." B) "Some genes are longer than others, over 1000kb -- they have enough information to encode a full neural circuit." C) "Mice are a lot simpler than we are, and their brains are smaller. One gene is plenty for them to build a circuit." D) "What the book really means is: all else being equal, one variant of a gene is associated with higher levels of the behavior than the other variant of the gene. All the other thousands of genes are still needed to develop the brain. But variation in one gene can change how a certain neural circuit will behave."
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65) A bear at a national park has discovered that if it can open the lid of the trash cans, it is likely
to find tasty food inside. Soon it is trying to open the trash cans all over the park. What mechanism of learning has occurred? A) classical (Pavlovian) conditioning B) habituation C) operant conditioning D) air conditioning
66) You've finished your homework, so you settle into your favorite chair to play your video
games. "Going into your Skinner box?" your roommate jokes. What does a video game have in common with the traditional Skinner box? A) conditioned stimulus is associated with a reward B) food pellets are dispensed C) involves involuntary behavior by the subject D) involves voluntary behavior by the subject E) rapid feedback F) rat subjects G) repeated series of actions and rewards
67) You read about how learning preparedness influences the associations that an animal is
capable of learning. You want to explore the learning preparedness of hamsters. How might you test the learning preparedness of this species? A) Train hamsters to navigate a maze to reach a reward. Determine which hamsters are fastest -- thus, are most prepared to learn. B) Train hamsters to navigate a maze to reach a reward. Determine the time of day at which the hamsters are fastest -- thus, most prepared to learn. C) Train hamsters to choose between tunnels to find a reward. Switch the reward tunnel frequently, and determine which hamsters learn the new association the fastest. D) Train hamsters to choose between tunnels to find a reward, and mark the tunnels with different visual, tactile, chemosensory or auditory stimuli to see which associations are learnable.
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68) You work in a lab that studies bird brains and behavior. You and your labmate have both
submitted brains to a colleague to be sectioned. Your species is a bird that is known for storing large numbers of nuts each autumn in a variety of hidden locations. Your labmate's species is a raptor known for remarkable predatory behavior. What do you anticipate will be different between the two brains? A) Your nut-hiding species is likely to have a large hippocampus, while the raptor may have a large visual system. B) Your nut-hiding species is likely to have a large visual system, while the raptor may have an large hippocampus. C) Both species are likely to have a large nucleus accumbens. D) Your nut-hiding species is likely to have a large hypothalamus, while the raptor may have an large olfactory system.
69) In its youth, a pet parrot was owned by someone who kept the wings clipped and never
allowed it to fly. Later in life, the new owner let the feathers grow and let the parrot fly around the house. But the parrot kept knocking over lamps and crashing into walls. "Wow," said the owner, "I guess parrots are just too clumsy to fly around a house without destroying everything." What is an alternative explanation? A) In nature, parrots have much more room to fly, and do not have to navigate around delicate home decor. B) Since the parrot was not able to practice flying during the critical period for flight development, the brain circuits for accurate flying were not able to develop. C) The parrot just needs more practice flying -- although it did not get to fly when young, this should not affect later ability. D) The critical period for flying development in the brain has just now begun with the bird's first attempt. In a few weeks the critical period will end, so it must practice during this time.
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70) A bird sanctuary sometimes takes over the care of eggs or chicks of an endangered duck
species if the parents are killed. They are sometimes able to use mothers of farm ducks to cross-foster the chicks, but it doesn't always work. Looking at the following data table, what is the critical period for imprinting in this species? (Note: DAH stands for "days after hatching".) 71) You are on the committee to update the design of the hospital NICU (neonatal intensive care unit), which currently has incubators for the babies but not much else. Based on what you have learned about Harlow's experiments with rhesus monkeys, what would you suggest adding to the NICU to improve the babies' health and well-being? A) comfortable chairs for parents to hold their babies B) softer lighting C) white-noise devices to mask the sound of beeping machines D) pheromones
72) A zoo is hand-rearing a group of orphaned white-crowned sparrows. What is the best
approach to help prepare the males to attract mates when released into the wild? A) Expose the males to a mentor male bird singing their species' song during the critical period. B) Expose the males to female pheromones from their species, to initiate development of song circuits during the critical period. C) Expose the males to each other during the critical period, to initiate development of song circuits during the critical period. D) Expose the males to a variety of birdsongs during the critical period.
73) Based on the animal cognition experiments you have learned about, if you wanted to design a
test of animal cognition, what might you include in your experiment? A) Count the number of individuals in a colony. B) Create a problem for the animal to solve, like getting a treat out of a box. C) Determine ahead of time what parameters to record as data, such as how long it takes the animal to retrieve the treat. D) Determine the hormonal basis of caste differences. E) Expose the animal to the same scenario again later. F) Focus on careful quantitative analysis of fixed action patterns. G) Include a negative control. H) Include multiple subjects. I) Measure the frequency of response to sign stimuli. J) Provide tools for the animal to use.
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74) One spring, your friend living in Minnesota eagerly sets up her new hummingbird feeders,
and is thrilled to watch hummingbirds feeding on the nectar. However, she is disappointed when after just a week or two the hummingbirds disappear. What advice would you give her? A) Set up a bell (conditioned stimulus) near the feeders so the hummingbirds make an association with the food. B) Set up flashing red lights that mimic the male neck feathers -- that should attract more males to the area. C) Set up the feeders again in the fall. The hummingbirds may have briefly traveled through during their annual spring migration. D) Wait till next year -- hummingbirds are a high-metabolism, semelparous species and have already reproduced and died.
75) Research on starlings indicates that young birds migrate by_________, but older birds use
true_________. A) orientation; navigation B) navigation; migration C) migration; orientation D) navigation; orientation
76) Which statement best sums up our understanding of how animals navigate during migration? A) The mechanisms have been worked out in great detail, from the genes involved, to the
brain structures, to the resulting behavior. B) We have a thorough understanding of orientation but not navigation. C) We have some understanding of the information different animals rely on (sun, stars, or magnetic fields), and some sensory structures, but beyond that the mechanisms are still mysterious. D) Animal navigation is a complete mystery.
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77) Swordtail fish are known for the long extensions on the males' tails. What types of
experiments might help you determine whether the females are using visual input about tail length to choose between males? (Check the best three) A) Add artificial tails of different lengths to females and determine their response to normal males. B) Add artificial tails of different lengths to male platys (a similar fish without tail extensions), and measure female response. C) Create artificial fish models with different size tails and measure female response. D) Measure hormone levels in males who have different size tails. E) Measure sperm count in males who have different size tails. F) Trim the tails of male fish to different lengths and measure female response.
78) What are likely outcomes for a female who is not choosy enough, and has too broad of an
acceptance of reproductive signals? A) Her sons may have low success attracting mates. B) Her fitness will be improved because she never misses a chance to mate. C) She may mate with males who are sick with parasites or disease. D) She may mate with males with less adaptive genes. E) Her fitness goes up due to increased efficiency by not wasting time in lengthy evaluations. F) She might inadvertently mate with a different species.
79) What sensory modalities are used by the message receivers in honeybee waggle dance
communication? A) auditory B) autonomic C) chemosensory D) proprioceptive E) visual
80) If a behavior has evolved by natural selection, it must have_________. A) benefits for both males and females B) reduced the predation rate on the animal C) evolved the same way in each species D) a genetic basis
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81) Male hummingbirds flash a patch of iridescent feathers on their neck called the gorget. This
behavior makes them very visible. Why advertise their presence to a predator? A) Hummingbirds are so fast that predation is not a large factor for them. B) Predators cannot see colors so are not alerted. C) The benefits of defending a territory exceed the costs of predation. D) This is an example of a maladaptive behavior that decreases overall fitness.
82) In the phalarope, or wadepiper bird, the male is unusual in playing the larger parenting role --
he performs all the egg incubation and chick care. What unusual behavior might you predict for the female of the species? A) The female provides sperm to fertilize the male's eggs. B) The female is part of a large harem of females, under the domain of a single male. C) The females compete to mate with the males, who choose among them. D) The females have dull, brown coloring that keeps them well-camouflaged.
83) A certain species has offspring that require a very large amount of parental care. Predict their
mating system. A) monogamous B) polyandrous C) polygynous D) monotonous
84) In regards to altruism, what way are humans like vampire bats? A) Their altruism is based on haplodiploidy. B) They are both Chiroptera. C) Their altruism is based on kin selection. D) They engage in reciprocal altruism.
85) True or False: Haplodiploidy is necessary for eusociality. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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86) What three features define eusociality? (Check three.) A) colony resides in an enclosed hive or nest B) cooperative brood care C) haplodiploidy D) insect species only E) overlap of generations F) reproductive division of labor G) reproduction during a mating flight
87) What would be included under the umbrella of "inclusive fitness"? A) reproduction by an another individual that practices reciprocal altruism B) reproduction of the individual C) reproduction by nieces and nephews D) reproduction by unrelated colony members E) reproduction by siblings
88) Which of the following genes would most likely play a role in promoting kin selection? A) wingless -- critical for the formation of wings in fruit flies B) SRY -- the gene that initiates male sex determination C) Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) genes -- allow mammals to recognize
related individuals D) the genes important for the development of large antlers in the caribou
89) Which are examples of advantages that different species might have due to living in a group? A) Wolves in a pack can take down larger prey than those alone. B) Zebras in a herd have added protection from predators. C) Because of their social nature, diseases like rabies can spread quickly through a bat
colony. D) A colony of termites can build mounds over 20 feet high, with elaborate tunnels and ventilation systems. E) A flamingo in a large flock may have trouble competing for food.
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90) Which features of naked mole rats are similar to eusocial insects? A) a single queen is responsible for breeding B) colony has a large number of individuals C) division of labor D) haplodiploidy E) higher relatedness between siblings than between parent and child
91) Due to reproductive isolation, a new species of weaver bird is evolving. Is it likely to use a
social or solitary nesting strategy? A) It depends on whether it lives in the forest or the open savanna. B) It depends on whether it lives in near water or near the desert. C) It depends on how many similar species it is competing with. D) It depends on how many eggs it lays.
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92) Which statement concerning the evolution of attending and feeding behaviors in poison dart
frogs is supported by the phylogeny?
Riccardo Oggioni/Alamy Stock Photo Francesco Tomasinelli/Science Source A) Dendrobates leucomelas is the species where these behaviors first arose. B) The common ancestor of Ameerega trivittata, and all other species, provides the first example of male transportation and attendance. C) Oophaga speciosa are the only species to demonstrate female transportation and attendance. D) Male transportation and attendance evolved very recently and there has not been time for female transportation and or attendance to evolve from this norm.
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93) What is the evolutionary advantage of extra-pair copulations in birds? A) For males, increased reproductive success and for females, the chance to mate with
genetically superior individuals. B) For males, the chance to mate with genetically superior individuals and for females, increased reproductive success. C) For males, increased reproductive success and for females, the chance to have other females (thought to be the sisters of the mates) assist with the rearing of the offspring. D) For males, the chance to have other females (thought to be the sisters of the mates) assist with the rearing of the offspring and for females, increased reproductive success.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 53 1) B 2) C 3) A 4) C 5) D 6) A 7) C 8) D 9) B 10) E 11) E 12) A 13) B 14) D 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) C 19) B 20) C 21) E 22) C 23) C 24) B 25) B 26) [A, B, D, E] 27) B 28) A 29) B 30) B 31) D 32) E 33) C 34) [B, C, D, E] 35) C 36) B 37) A
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38) B 39) A 40) [A, C, D, E] 41) C 42) B 43) C 44) A 45) B 46) C 47) E 48) [A, C, D, E] 49) B 50) D 51) [B, C, D, E] 52) D 53) B 54) [A, C, D, E] 55) Section Break 55.1) A 55.2) C 55.3) B 55.4) E 55.5) D 56) Section Break 56.1) [A, C, E, G, H] 56.2) [B, D, F] 57) D 58) [B, C, G] 59) [B, C, F, I, J] 60) D 61) C 62) [A, B, C] 63) B 64) D 65) C 66) [D, E, G] 67) D 68) A 69) B 70) D
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71) A 72) A 73) [B, C, E, G, H, J] 74) C 75) A 76) C 77) [B, C, F] 78) [A, C, D, F] 79) [A, C, E] 80) D 81) C 82) C 83) A 84) D 85) FALSE 86) [B, E, F] 87) [B, C, E] 88) C 89) [A, B, D] 90) [A, B, C] 91) A 92) A 93) A
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Chapter 54 Student name:__________ 1) Populations of endotherms that live in colder climates tend to have shorter ears and limbs
than populations of the same species in warm climates. This is called_________ Rule. A) Allen's B) the K-Selected C) the r-Selected D) Edward's
2) The rate at which a population of a given species will increase when no limits are placed on
its rate of growth is called its A) maximum growth. B) carrying capacity. C) biotic potential. D) optimal growth.
3) The size at which a population stabilizes in a particular place is defined as the_________ for
that species. A) growth potential B) optimum C) range D) carrying capacity
4) Life history adaptations of_________ populations are characterized by an early age of first
reproduction and short maturation time and life span. A) r-selected B) K-selected
5) Species that have a delayed reproductive stage, are competing for limited resources, and have
smaller numbers of slowly maturing large offspring show_________ adaptations. A) K-selected B) r-selected
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6) The statistical study of populations including sex ratio, age structure, and predicting growth
rates is called_________. A) ethology B) demography C) population genetics D) biometrics
7) A group of population members all of the same age is called a_________. A) deme B) species C) cohort D) tribe
8) Organisms such as lizards that need to maintain body temperature through external means do
so by A) B) C) D) E)
shivering to produce heat. sunbathing. swimming in geothermal pools. running frequently to warm up. eating large meals to provide calories for heat production.
9) What is the life history adaptation called where organisms produce offspring several times
over many seasons? A) semelparity B) iteroparity C) biparity D) polyparity E) alloparity
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10) Effects that are dependent on the size of the population and regulate the growth of
populations are called_________ effects. A) K-related B) density-independent C) environmental resistance D) density-dependent E) demographic
11) The trade-off between investments in current reproduction and in growth that promotes
future reproduction is referred to as the total cost of what? A) adaptation B) selection C) reproduction D) genetic change E) fitness
12) A small group of mice are released on an island without mice but with abundant food for
mice and no predators. Initially, the growth of the mouse population will be limited mainly by what? A) the carrying capacity B) the biotic potential C) only density-dependent factors D) only density-independent factors
13) A small group of mice were released on an island. The island previously had no mice on it,
but had abundant food and no predators. After several years of growth, the size of the new island population stabilizes. However, at this point a hurricane drastically reduces the population. How would you describe the situation? A) The biotic potential of the population has been reduced. B) The new population size is a result of density-dependent regulation. C) The new population size is a result of density-independent regulation. D) The island mouse population can now act as a sink metapopulation. E) The island mouse population can now act as a source metapopulation.
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14) The biotic potential representing growth without limits at its maximal rate is indicated by
what symbol? A) r i B) N C) K D) dN/dt E) N/K
15) In the sigmoid growth curve, the number of individuals at any one time is indicated by what
symbol? A) r i B) N C) K D) dN/dt E) N/K
16) In the sigmoid growth curve, the carrying capacity of the environment is indicated by what
symbol? A) r i B) N C) K D) dN/dt E) N/K
17) The range of a population A) is very fluid and changes frequently in a random fashion. B) is stable and almost never changes. C) only changes after a disaster has wiped out a former range. D) changes over time due to external events. E) only changes due to iteroparity.
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18) Which of the following describe density-dependent factors? A) They act to regulate population growth. B) They are especially important in K-selected populations. C) They can affect growth rates but not population size. D) They can affect birth rates or death rates. E) They do not involve biological interactions. F) One example would be intraspecific competition for resources.
19) Which is an example of a density-independent factor on a population? A) weather B) nesting sites C) intraspecific competition D) amount of prey E) predation
20) What do we call populations of organisms that are usually near the carrying capacity? A) K-selected B) r-selected C) predators D) parasites E) perennials
21) What are characteristics of r-selected populations? (Check all that apply.) A) early age of first reproduction B) late age of first reproduction C) small brood size D) large brood size E) little or no parental care F) extensive parental care G) short generation time H) long generation time I) type I survivorship curves J) type III survivorship curves
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22) Which of the following is an example of a species with r-selected adaptations? A) house fly B) blue whale C) gorilla D) horse E) cockroaches
23) Which is an example of a species with K-selected adaptations? A) dandelion B) fruit fly C) herring D) bobcat
24) A species colonizes an island, goes through a phase of exponential growth, and reaches the
carrying capacity of the island. At what stage is the growth rate slowest? A) initial colonization B) exponential phase C) approaching K D) after reaching K
25) In the logistic growth model, as the number of individuals in the population (N) approaches
the carrying capacity (K), what happens to the intrinsic rate of growth ( )? A) It will be affected by an increased birth rate. B) It will be affected by a decreased death rate from predation. C) It will be affected by increased competition with other species. D) It will be affected by increased competition within the species. E) It will not change.
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26) During the late 1800s, cattle egrets arrived in South America from Africa and began to
colonize. Their range has expanded dramatically over the years. Why were they able to do this? A) The habitats that they left in Africa were not suitable for any further colonization; thus, they were forced to emigrate. B) The habitats that they encountered in South America were suitable to them and unoccupied. C) There were abundant cattle for the birds to gather around in South America; furthermore, various animals that the egrets had lived around in Africa had become quite scarce because of over hunting and poaching, causing the birds to extend their range. D) The food resources in South America were far superior to those in Africa, allowing the egrets more opportunity to grow and reproduce and ultimately expand their range.
27) Which is an example of a clumped distribution of a population? A) A tree species releases a poison to defend the soil around its roots, resulting in trees
spaced evenly like a grid. B) Antelope travel in herds. C) Two male hummingbirds have a confrontation on the border between their territories. D) Multiple species join each other at the waterhole to drink.
28) Many times species are composed of networks of distinct populations called
metapopulations. When do metapopulations occur? A) When a population is large and uniformly distributed. B) When a population in poor habitat continually sends out dispersers to bolster populations in better habitats. C) When a population in a better habitat does not send out colonizers into less suitable habitats. D) When suitable habitat is patchily distributed and separated by areas of unsuitable habitat.
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29) Which factor increases the likelihood of population extinction? A) large population size B) isolation of a population from density-independent effects C) isolation of a population from sources of immigrants D) high resource availability E) high genetic diversity
30)
30.1)
Which of the following statements about the graph is true? A) Oysters live longer than Hydra. B) Hydra and humans have parallel life spans. C) Humans and oysters have similar life spans. D) Humans have low mortality rates early in life. E) Oysters have high mortality rates late in life.
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30.2)
What often describes organisms with a Type III life history? A) K-selected B) r-selected C) idiopathic D) at their carrying capacity E) subject to low predation rates
30.3)
Which species would be most likely to have a Type III life history? A) whale B) coconut palm C) lion D) gorilla E) pine tree
31) What is the Allee effect? A) when fitness increases independently of population size B) when fitness and growth rates increase with decreasing population size C) when fitness and growth rates increase with increasing population size D) when growth rates increase independently of population size
32) What are population pyramids used to show? A) death rates B) birth rates C) competition D) age composition of a population E) the carrying capacity
33) Which of the following apply to the demography of human populations today? (Check all
that apply.) A) Our ecological footprint is decreasing. B) We are using distributed resources disproportionately—less than 20% of us use over 80% of the energy. C) We have plenty of resources still untouched. D) We use almost half of the Earth's land. E) We use over half of all renewable fresh water sources.
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34) What kind of population spacing would you expect for a species that is strongly territorial? A) uniform B) clumped C) random D) uniform or clumped depending on whether it is a source or sink metapopulation E) uniform or clumped depending on the life history strategy of the species
35) Which of the following are environmental factors that determine where an organism can
live? (Check all that apply.) A) intraspecific competition B) predation C) prey availability D) soil type E) sunlight F) temperature G) water
36) You construct a life table for a plant species and find that in all cases about the same
proportion of the cohort survive to the beginning of the next time interval. What would you call this? A) a Type I survivorship curve B) a Type II survivorship curve C) a Type III survivorship curve D) a semelparous life history adaptation E) populations regulated by density-independent events
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37) Allen's rule states that mammals from colder climates have shorter ears and appendages than
individuals of the same species from warmer areas. The related Bergman's rule states that mammal body size varies with latitude, with larger body size in populations located closer to the poles and smaller body size in populations located closer to the equator. What can explain both of these rules? A) Larger bodies can store proportionally more fat as insulation than smaller bodies. B) Smaller bodies can store proportionally more fat as insulation than larger bodies. C) Heat loss increases as the surface area to volume ratio of the animal increases. D) Larger bodies have a proportionally larger surface area, and heat radiation varies with volume. E) Smaller bodies have a proportionally smaller surface area, and heat radiation increases with surface area.
38) Which of the following describe source-sink metapopulations? A) Sink populations near source populations are less likely to go extinct. B) Sink populations without access to immigrants from source populations are less likely
to go extinct. C) Source populations usually occupy better habitats. D) Source populations are less likely to go extinct. E) The emigration rate from source populations exceeds that from sink populations.
39) Parental care of the young is usually associated with species with a type_________
survivorship curve. A) I B) II C) III D) I or II (depending on the sex ratio) E) I or III (depending on whether the reproductive strategy is iteroparous or semelparous)
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40) Which one of the following expressions from the logistic equation (dN/dt = rN ((K - N)/K)
represents the proportion of unused resources remaining for use by the population? A) the carrying capacity (K) B) the population size ( N) C) the biotic potential (rN) D) (K - N)/K E) the growth rate ( dN/dt)
41) Under which condition will a population experience growth? A) when N equals K B) when N is less than K C) when dN/dt equals zero D) when r equals zero E) when N equals zero
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42) What is the most reasonable conclusion that can be made from data graphed in the figure?
A) After high mortality early in life, survivorship becomes constant for the rest of life. B) Survivorship is constant throughout life. C) After low mortality early in life, mortality increases to a constant rate for the rest of
life. D) After following a constant rate early in life, mortality becomes low late in life.
43) Most density-dependent factors show negative feedback relative to population size. Which
one of the following is more likely to show positive feedback relative to population size? A) competition in small populations B) competition in large populations C) fecundity in small populations D) fecundity in large populations E) mortality in large populations
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44) The figure included shows the body temperature of lizards versus air temperature in two
different habitats—open and shaded forest. Which one of the following conclusions is best supported by these data.
A) B) C) D)
Lizards are more active in open habitats. Lizards sunbathe more in open habitats. Lizards in shaded forest habitats eat more to maintain their temperature. The body temperature of lizards is more constant in open than in shaded forest habitats. E) The negative effect of air temperature on body temperature is less in shaded forest habitats because the temperature varies less there.
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45) Select the description of a population pyramid for a population that has the largest potential
for exponential growth. A) broad at the base, narrow at the top, with more females than males B) broad at the base, narrow at the top, with more males than females C) uniform at all age classes, with more females than males D) broad at the top, narrow at the base, with more males than females E) broad at the top, narrow at the base, with more females than males
46) What environmental challenge is posed to young plants by an old growth forest? A) low humidity B) high temperatures C) low light D) thick leaf litter
47) You and your friends have just stepped off the plane in Cusco, Peru (11,200 ft). Your friends
are so eager to see Machu Picchu they want to start off hiking the Inca Trail right away and not waste any time. How do you respond? A) "Sounds good, but we had better pack extra water." B) "Sounds good, but we had better bring our warmest clothes." C) "No problem -- we had the whole plane ride to acclimatize to the high altitude." D) “Waiting a few days might be smart, since it takes time to acclimate to high altitude.”
48) A zoo in Southern California has been successfully breeding arctic wolves and they want to
exchange some of their extra wolves for kangaroos from a zoo in southwestern Australia. Since it is July, it is quite cold in the other zoo compared to Southern California. What discussion might the zookeepers have about transferring the wolves? A) Since Arctic wolves are well-adapted to cold, this should pose no problems. B) After several generations in Southern California, the wolves have lost their adaptive genes for cold temperatures. C) After growing up in Southern California, the individual wolves have lost their ability to adapt to cold temperatures, but their progeny will still get the cold-adapted genes. D) Although the wolves are genetically adapted to cold weather have not grown their cold weather coats.
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49) There are not many species of fish living deep in the oceans, but the deep-sea fish
occasionally pulled up by fisherman have been bizarre creatures, such as the deep-sea anglerfish with its giant fangs and bioluminescent lure. Why have these fascinating deep-sea fish never been shown live on exhibit in an aquarium? A) Their diet is too specialized. B) They are adapted to cold temperatures and total darkness. C) They might frighten visitors. D) They are adapted for high pressure, and will die at low pressure.
50) You and your friend are on vacation at Yellowstone Park. The plaque in front of a sulfur hot
spring reads: “This sulfur spring is 80°C, has a pH of 2, and contains large amounts of sulfur which is oxidized by Sulfolobus species of archaea.” Your friend is excited. “Boy, if those microbes are that tough they should be easy to grow in the lab. I think I’ll work with those for my summer project.” What do you think? A) You agree, and decide to partner with your friend to work on this organism as well. B) A species adapted to such extreme conditions would probably not be easy to culture in the very different conditions of a lab. C) The sulfur spring is pretty extreme, but after a few days the individual archaea should have adapted to lab culture conditions. D) The sulfur spring is pretty extreme, but after a few generations the species should have adapted to the lab culture conditions.
51) You are earning your Ph.D. in marine biology, studying the microbial ocean community.
This year, you are shocked to discover that one of your study sites has become contaminated due to an industrial waste water pipe. This dumping is drastically raising the temperature and lowering the salinity of the water. What do you expect to find in your survey of the ecosystem, and what might you find in a survey years from now? A) Most species will be wiped out this year, and in subsequent years even fewer will remain. B) The individuals will turn on genes to adapt to these changes, and the populations will end up largely the same this year and following years. C) Many species will have decreased or disappeared from this site, but later some species may increase in population if they acquire adaptive mutations. Also you may see some new species expand into the site. D) Most species will be wiped out this year, and it will take millions of years for new species to evolve -- until then the site will be devoid of life.
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52) Which factor allows bacteria species to adapt to environmental changes faster than fish? A) shorter generation time B) smaller size C) smaller nutrient needs D) lack of a nuclear membrane
53) Kettle ponds derive from a hole left by a retreating glacier that is subsequently filled with
rainwater. A certain region has a series of disconnected kettle ponds, but occasionally heavy rains flood them and create streams. Which type of animal is most likely to be present in this area as a metapopulation? A) a fish B) an aquatic bird C) a mosquito D) a dragonfly
54) A farmer’s land includes a wilderness area that is home to an endangered species of bird. He
wants to sell the land to a developer, and you have been hired to evaluate the environmental concerns. “This little patch of land is not crucial for the bird species!” the farmer says, “In fact, my land is surrounded by several other wilderness patches that also have that bird.” You reply: “It is possible that your land acts as the_________ and the other areas are_________ . If that's the case, development would be devastating to the population." A) sink; sources B) source; sinks C) population; metapopulation D) metapopulation; population
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55) An underwater volcano has erupted, and as the lava cools a new island has formed. Which
types of animal species are likely to be among the first to colonize the island? (Check all that apply) A) annelids B) bats C) birds D) insects E) snails F) snakes G) tapirs H) tortoises
56) Within a genus that normally produces large numbers of offspring, one particular species
evolves maternal care behavior. What do you predict will happen to the survivorship curve? A) No change is likely. B) It may change from type I to type III. C) It may change from type III to type I. D) It may change from type I to type II.
57) Which organism is most likely to have a type III survivorship curve? A) an oak tree B) a domestic dog C) corn in a farmer's field D) Paramecium
58) An unscrupulous dog breeder has been selecting for dogs that have very large litters, with the
goal of maximizing profits. Why might this strategy be counterproductive? A) It will cost too much money to feed all those puppies. B) Litter size is not influenced by genetics. C) The puppies from large litters are likely to be malnourished, and the mother will have few resources to devote to future litters. D) Intrauterine cannibalism will reduce the number of puppies.
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59) A graduate student is studying the feeding behavior of a small octopus that must be
laboriously collected from the shores of a remote island. Her intern wishes to do experiments to look at the octopus’s mating behavior. Why might the graduate student veto this idea? A) The octopus has semelparous reproduction, and will eat its mate. B) The octopus has iteroparous reproduction, and will eat its mate. C) The octopus has semelparous reproduction, and will die after laying one batch of eggs. D) The octopus has iteroparous reproduction, and will die after laying one batch of eggs.
60) A rancher is suspected of shooting wolves near Yellowstone National Park, and you have
been enlisted to go have a chat with him. The rancher doesn’t see any benefit to having the wolves there. What do you say? A) "If there are no predators like wolves, just one pair of jackrabbits can quickly create a population with explosive, logistic growth. Wolves help reduce the fecundity rate, keeping the population at a reasonable level." B) "If there are no predators like wolves, just one pair of jackrabbits can quickly create a population with explosive, exponential growth. Wolves help reduce the carrying capacity, keeping the population at a reasonable level." C) "If there are no predators like wolves, just one pair of jackrabbits can quickly create a metapopulation. Wolves help reduce the biotic potential, keeping the population at a reasonable level." D) "If there are no predators like wolves, just one pair of jackrabbits can quickly create a population with explosive, density-dependent growth. Wolves help reduce the age structure, keeping the population at a reasonable level."
61) A population of squirrels is in a phase of exponential growth. Which events would act to
slow this growth? (Check all that apply) A) a forest fire that destroys habitat B) logging of nut trees C) growth of the hawk population D) heavy rainfall, resulting in larger seed and nut harvest E) increased population that is outstripping food supply F) less competition from a diminished population of ground squirrels
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62) A developing nation with a rapidly increasing population is reaching its carrying capacity.
What change(s) could allow it to increase its carrying capacity? (Check all that apply) A) a cultural shift to eating less meat B) education for women C) greater yield from agricultural crops D) increased availability of birth control E) water treatment plants
63) You are working in an aquarium that has been breeding an endangered species of fish for
return into the wild. You have a batch of progeny from the first generation of breeding. The staff are discussing whether to return those fish to an area that has been completely depleted, or add them to a partially depleted population. “Considering the Allee effect, what do you say? A) “They may survive better in a large school, and will have an easier time finding mates.” B) "They may do better in the empty area without any competition for food." C) "They may do better in the empty area without any competition for territory." D) "The area with the other fish may reduce the partially depleted population's exposure to disease."
64) This summer, you are returning to the research station in Costa Rica to follow up on the
population of butterflies you have been studying. You are disappointed to find that there are fewer this year than last. In fact, at dinner your friends studying frogs and birds are complaining about the same thing. What type of influence do you suspect? A) a density-independent effect like an introduced predator B) a density-dependent effect like environmental disruption C) a density-independent effect like environmental disruption D) a density-dependent effect like an introduced predator
65) True or False: An r-selected species is more likely to become an invasive pest than a K-
selected species. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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66) What would be the best approach to curbing excessive human population growth? A) lowering birth rates through education and family planning B) a return to historical health care practices C) encouraging women to postpone children till after age 35 D) embracing traditional agricultural practices
67) A group of international students is having a heated discussion in the dining hall. “Your
country needs to get its population under control!” asserts a student from the United States. “Perhaps,” replies the Indian student, “but your country_________.” A) has the highest per capita resource consumption, ten times greater than mine B) also has a big population overgrowth problem C) has a much higher birth rate D) has the lowest infant mortality rate
68) An important sporting event took place in Denver, Colorado (elevation: 5280 ft). Both teams
were visiting the city for the event. Team A arrived a week in advance, but Team B arrived just one day before the game. What may have been a factor that contributed to Team B's poor performance? A) Team B acclimated to the high altitude, whereas Team A maintained physiological adjustment to their home town. B) Team B was from a country that did not give them experience with low altitude. C) Team B did not have enough time for their DNA to evolve in response to the high altitude. D) Team B did not have enough time for their bodies to adjust physiologically to high altitude.
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69) A developmental biologist has decided to select a crustacean species to use as a new model
organism. This will allow her to ask fundamental questions about the embryology of this important group of animals. What would be the best approach to find a good species to use for experiments? A) Collect pest species contaminating the wastewater system of the local marine aquarium. B) Collect the most unusual species of crustacean from an exotic locale. C) Collect the largest species of terrestrial crab. D) Collect a unique species that lives on a specialized diet. E) Collect a variety of interesting crustacean species – why stick with just one?
70) Would you expect that mated female fruit flies would live longer or shorter than unmated
fruit flies, and why? A) Mated flies live longer, because they use less energy traveling about looking for a mate. B) Mated flies live shorter, because they use more energy in the act of mating. C) Mated flies live shorter, because they use more energy producing eggs. D) Mated flies live the same amount of time, because none of these factors is very significant.
71) What would happen to the COVID-19 case counts if the
value of the SARS-CoV-2
increases? A) They would increase. B) They would decrease. C) They would be kept constant. D) They would not be affected.
72) What evidence is there for the adaptive evolution of the myxoma virus? A) It became less lethal. B) It had an increased . C) It nearly eliminated its host population. D) There is no evidence of adaptive evolution for the myxoma virus.
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73) What circumstances allowed SARS-CoV-2 to cause a global pandemic? Check all that apply. A) B) C) Lack of previous exposure in host populations D) Superspreader individuals
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 54 1) A 2) C 3) D 4) A 5) A 6) B 7) C 8) B 9) B 10) D 11) C 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) D 18) [A, B, D, F] 19) A 20) A 21) [A, D, E, G, J] 22) A 23) D 24) D 25) E 26) B 27) B 28) D 29) C 30) Section Break 30.1) D 30.2) B 30.3) E 31) C 32) D 33) [B, D, E] 34) A
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35) [D, E, F, G] 36) B 37) C 38) [A, C, D, E] 39) A 40) D 41) B 42) C 43) C 44) D 45) A 46) C 47) D 48) D 49) D 50) B 51) C 52) A 53) A 54) B 55) [B, C, D] 56) C 57) A 58) C 59) C 60) B 61) [A, B, C, E] 62) [A, C, E] 63) A 64) C 65) TRUE 66) A 67) A 68) D 69) A 70) C 71) A 72) A 73) [C, D]
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Chapter 55 Student name:__________ 1) All organisms living together in a place are called a A) community. B) population. C) species. D) ecosystem.
2) Competition shapes communities because there are usually limited A) species. B) resources. C) interactions. D) nutrients.
3) Two organisms trying to utilize the same resource is called A) synergy. B) parasitism. C) competition. D) interference.
4) Two species of warblers colonize the same island habitat. Both species nest in similar
locations and eat the same type of prey. Eventually, competition will probably cause one species to A) migrate. B) grow exponentially. C) speciate. D) be eliminated.
5) Aposematic, or warning coloration, serves to protect an animal or plant by signaling to
potential_________ to stay away. A) competitors B) predators C) mates D) rivals
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6) In_________ mimicry, unprotected species resemble others that are distasteful. A) Müllerian B) competitive C) Batesian D) aposematic
7) In_________ mimicry, two or more unrelated but protected species resemble one another,
thus achieving a kind of group defense. A) Batesian B) disruptive C) Müllerian D) cooperative
8) A_________ relationship is one in which two or more kinds of organisms live together in
often elaborate and more or less permanent association. A) symbiotic B) parasitic C) mutualistic D) synergistic
9) The way in which an organism utilizes its environment may be called A) resource partitioning. B) its habitat. C) competitive exclusion. D) intraspecific competition. E) its niche.
10) A relationship in which both members benefit is called A) predation. B) parasitism. C) mutualism. D) commensalism. E) sympatric.
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11) Communities evolve to have greater biomass and species richness in a process called A) sympatric interactions. B) adaptive modifications. C) succession. D) symbiotic relationships. E) competitive exclusion.
12) Paleontological studies indicate that, over millions of years, A) groups of species that have coevolved rise and go extinct together. B) species that occurred together in the distant past still occur together today; the
community has held constant. C) the extinction of species is not related to the community in which they lived. D) species seem to come and go individually as niches within a community become available. E) species richness is constant over time.
13) The actual niche the organism is able to occupy in the presence of competitors is called its A) fundamental niche. B) realized niche. C) interference niche. D) intraspecific niche. E) exploitative niche.
14) Competition between species is called_________ competition. A) interspecific B) exploitative C) interference D) fundamental E) intraspecific
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15) Resource partitioning can often be seen in similar species that occupy the same geographic
area. These species avoid competition by living in different portions of the habitat or by utilizing different food or other resources and are called_________ species. A) sympatric B) allopatric C) competitive D) fundamental E) exploitative
16) Chemicals that play the dominant role in protecting plants from being eaten by herbivores or
predators are called A) primary compounds. B) secondary compounds. C) poisons. D) oils. E) amino acids.
17) Cardiac glycosides, molecules causing a drastic effect on vertebrate heart function, are
produced as defensive chemicals by plants belonging to A) the milkweed and dogbane families. B) the mustard family. C) the grass family. D) the poison ivy, oak, and sumac families. E) the bean family.
18) Chemical defenses are found in all of the following except A) marine animals. B) insects. C) plants. D) snakes, spiders, and fishes. E) Batesian mimics.
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19) Which of the following are types of symbioses? Check all that apply. A) Batesian mimicry B) commensalism C) predation D) parasitism E) mutualism F) Müllerian mimicry
20) Insects that lay eggs on living hosts are called A) ectoparasites. B) endoparasites. C) brood parasites. D) parasitoids. E) predators.
21) Alligators excavate holes in the bottom of bodies of water. During times of severe drought
these holes act as refugia for various aquatic organisms that might perish if there were no water available. Thus, alligators in this system can be classified as a(n) A) keystone species. B) symbiotic species. C) sympatric species. D) allopatric species. E) refugistic species.
22) Succession happens because species in the habitat alter that habitat in ways that assist other
species. There are three dynamic concepts that are of critical importance for succession to take place. They are A) establishment, facilitation, and inhibition. B) symbiotic relationships, facilitation, and aposematic coloration. C) establishment, coevolution, and competitive exclusion. D) competition, climax communities, and tolerance. E) competition, inhibition, and coevolution.
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23) Which of the following examples would be undergoing secondary succession? Check all that
apply. A) B) C) D) E)
an abandoned potato farm a coastal grassland damaged by a hurricane an abandoned landfill rocks in a national park covered by mosses and lichens a garden bed that has been weeded
24) A species that plays a critical role in maintaining the structure of an ecological community
and helps to determine the types and numbers of various other species in the community is known as A) a predator. B) a keystone species. C) the primary species. D) the dominant species. E) the alpha species.
25) Lakes become eutrophic by A) accumulation of organic matter. B) loss of organic matter. C) circulation of water in the lake. D) free exchange of water with outside sources. E) an increase in the number of organisms.
26) The difference in the fundamental niche and the realized niche is A) the fundamental niche is the actual niche that a species occupies while the realized
niche is the potential area that the species is capable of inhabiting. B) the fundamental niche is the entire niche that a species is capable of using while the realized niche is just what is being occupied. C) the fundamental niche is smaller than the realized niche. D) the realized niche is theoretical while the fundamental niche is the entire niche that an organism can use.
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27) During the mid 1930s, G. F. Gause studied competition among three species of Paramecium.
Through his experiments he formulated a principle of A) niche overlap. B) exploitative competition. C) metapopulation fluctuation. D) competitive exclusion. E) interspecific competition.
28) Two of Darwin's finches display a character displacement when they occur as sympatric
species. Which of the statements correctly interprets the graph?
A) B) C) D) E)
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Both species have the same size beak on Santa Maria Island. Both species have the same size beaks on Daphne Major. Both species have the same size beaks on Los Hermanos Island. The two species have different beak sizes when they occur on the same island. The two species feed on different food resources; one feeds on seeds while the other feeds on insects.
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29) Which statement is the correct interpretation of the graph?
A) The population of Didinium goes extinct with the addition of Paramecium on day 4. B) The population of Didinium continues to increase and remains high even after the
extinction of the Paramecium. C) The population of Paramecium goes extinct with the addition of Didinium on day 8. D) The population of Didinium increased but then went extinct after the population of Paramecium went extinct. E) The population of Didinium is able to increase at the expense of the Paramecium population. After a brief period both populations are able to coexist.
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30) Based on the following graph, what is the most likely relationship between Paramecium and
Didinium?
A) B) C) D) E)
Paramecium prey on Didinium. Paramecium have a commensal relationship with Didinium. Didinium and Paramecium have a mutualistic relationship. Didinium prey on Paramecium. Paramecium is a parasite that feeds on Didinium.
31) Which of the following statements accurately reflects the differences between Batesian
mimicry and Müllerian mimicry? A) In Batesian mimicry the model must behave differently than the mimic; in Müllerian mimicry they behave the same. B) In Batesian mimicry the model must be more dangerous than the mimic; in Müllerian mimicry they are both dangerous. C) Batesian mimicry does not differ from Müllerian mimicry. Two different scientists discovered these two types at the same time, and they disagreed on what to call it. D) Batesian mimicry differs from Müllerian mimicry in that they occur on different continents—Batesian on the North American and Müllerian on the European. E) Batesian mimicry involves invertebrates; Müllerian mimicry involves vertebrates.
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32) Which of the following is an example of commensalism? A) a tapeworm living in the intestines of a mule deer B) barnacles hitching a ride on the skin of a whale C) a female mosquito sucking blood from a musk oxen D) wood-digesting flagellates living in the gut of termites E) acacia trees and their ants
33) In India, golden jackals that have been expelled from their pack have been known to attach
themselves to a particular tiger, trailing it at a safe distance in order to feed on the big cat's kills. What type of relationship exists between the jackal and the tiger? A) mutualism B) predation C) parasitism D) competition E) commensalism
34) You have been studying the relationship between jackals and tigers in India. Until recently,
the only relationship you have observed is that jackals will associate themselves with a particular tiger and follow it at a safe distance in order to feed on the big cat's kills. However, recently you observed a jackal alerting a tiger to a kill with a loud cry. If you continue to observe this alerting behavior, you might change the categorization of the jackal/tiger relationship from _________ to _________. A) mutualism; parasitism B) mutualism; commensalism C) commensalism; mutualism D) parasitism; mutualism E) competition; predation
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35) In studies of two species of barnacles in the marine intertidal zone it was observed that
Chthamalus can live in the upper intertidal zone and the lower intertidal zone if Semibalanus is absent, and Semibalanus can only live in the lower zone because it is more subject to dehydration. Based on this, which of the following statements are true? Check all that apply. A) The realized niches of the two species differ. B) The fundamental niche of Chthamalus is larger than its realized niche. C) The fundamental niche of Chthamalus is larger than the fundamental niche of Semibalanus. D) The fundamental and the realized niches of Chthamalus are the same. E) The fundamental and the realized niches of Semibalanus are the same.
36) Which of the following statements about the fundamental and realized niche are true? Check
all that apply. A) A species' realized niche could be the same size as its fundamental niche. B) A species' realized niche could be smaller than its fundamental niche. C) A species' fundamental niche can be smaller than its realized niche. D) The extent of the realized niche is determined, in part, by interspecific competition. E) The extent of the fundamental niche is determined, in part, by conditions of the physical environment.
37) Which of the following factors could be important in determining a species' fundamental
niche? Check all that apply. A) salinity B) presence of a commensalist C) presence of a predator/parasite D) seasonal temperatures
38) Cattle egrets follow African ungulates such as African buffalo around and catch insects that
the buffalo flush out. Oxpeckers perch on the backs of buffalo and feed on ectoparasites that infest the buffalo. Which one of the following shows the ecological interaction that the buffalo has with each bird? A) cattle egret: mutualism; oxpecker: commensalism B) cattle egret: commensalism; oxpecker: mutualism C) cattle egret: competition; oxpecker: mutualism D) cattle egret: mutualism; oxpecker: mutualism E) cattle egret: commensalism; oxpecker: commensalism
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39) Which of the following would be an expected long-term change during primary succession
on glacial moraines? Check all that apply. A) increase in species richness B) decrease in soil depth C) increase in soil salinity D) increase in soil nitrogen E) alder replaced by spruce
40) Which of the following statements about the intermediate disturbance hypothesis are true?
Check all that apply. A) The intermediate disturbance hypothesis predicts that most communities eventually reach an end-state or climax community. B) Intermediate disturbance should lead to increases in species richness. C) Disturbances tend to lead to the dominance of K-selected species. D) An example of intermediate disturbance would be a tree fall in a mature rain forest. E) Intermediate disturbance should lead to all successional stages being present in the community at the same time.
41) Which of the following statements about mimicry are true? Check all that apply. A) Generally, the number of mimics in a Müllerian mimicry system must be less than the
number of models B) Only Batesian mimicry depends on the ability of the predator to learn. C) In Müllerian mimicry, the participants are both mimics and models. D) In Batesian mimicry, the participants are either mimics or models. E) A Müllerian mimic is "a sheep in wolf's clothing."
42) Which of the following statements about predation are true? Check all that apply. A) Cycling of predator and prey populations is not commonly observed. B) Removal of a predator often leads to increased community stability. C) Animal predation on plants is called herbivory. D) Predation can induce coevolutionary changes in prey species. E) Batesian mimicry is not a coevolutionary adaptation to predation.
43) Match the statements with the corresponding predatory-prey relationship.
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43.1)
Organisms that possess this property are poisonous, sting, or are otherwise harmful; commonly black, yellow, and red in color. A) Batesian mimicry B) Camouflage C) Coevolution D) Defensive coloration E) Secondary chemical compounds
43.2)
Is the process by which different kinds of organisms adjust to one another by genetic change over long periods of time. A) Batesian mimicry B) Camouflage C) Coevolution D) Defensive coloration E) Secondary chemical compounds
43.3)
It is a situation in which a palatable organism resembles another kind of organism that is distasteful or toxic. A) Batesian mimicry B) Camouflage C) Coevolution D) Defensive coloration E) Secondary chemical compounds
43.4)
Adaptation that enables organisms to blend into their environment thereby avoiding predation. A) Batesian mimicry B) Camouflage C) Coevolution D) Defensive coloration E) Secondary chemical compounds
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43.5)
Chemical compounds produced by plants that are not components of major metabolic pathways. A) Batesian mimicry B) Camouflage C) Coevolution D) Defensive coloration E) Secondary chemical compounds
44) Interspecific competition can affect the phenotypic characteristics of organisms. ⊚ true ⊚ false
45) Geographical allopatry between species is definitive evidence of interspecific competition. ⊚ true ⊚ false
46) Garlic mustard is an invasive plant species in North American temperate forests. Garlic
mustard secretes an allelochemical that damages the relationship between native tree roots and their mycorrhizal fungi. This would be an example of A) interference competition. B) exploitative competition. C) intraspecific competiton. D) commensalism.
47) Following their respective breeding seasons, several species of hummingbirds occur at the
same locations in North America and several hummingbird flowers bloom simultaneously in these habitats. These flowers seem to have converged to a common morphology and color. Birds have the most visual sensitivity to the color red. Following their breeding season, these species of hummingbirds are A) allopatric. B) sympatric.
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48) Following their respective breeding seasons, several species of hummingbirds occur at the
same locations in North America and several hummingbird flowers bloom simultaneously in these habitats. These flowers seem to have converged to a common morphology and color. Birds are most visually sensitive to the color red. Hummingbird flowers are pollinated by hummingbirds. Which of the following features of these flowers would indicate they have coevolved with hummingbirds? (Check all that apply) A) long tubular flowers B) flowers are colored violet and blue C) blooming time of the flowers coincides with the arrival of the hummingbirds D) flowers produce a high volume of nectar and sugar E) flowers are low to the ground
49) When there are high levels of disturbance in a community, the number of K-selected species
should increase along with the overall diversity of the community. ⊚ true ⊚ false
50) In general, communities in early succession will be dominated by fast-growing species with
r-selected life histories. ⊚ true ⊚ false
51) Forests, like other ecological systems, are subject to the species succession process. Which of
the following would be characteristics of pioneer plant species facilitating the early stages of forest succession? (Check all that apply) A) slow-growing B) pollinated by animals C) seedling growth requires direct sunlight D) seeds germinate in the shade E) plants produce great quantity of seeds
52) Resource partitioning would be most likely to occur between allopatric populations of
species with similar ecological niches. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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53) Mimicry is a form of camouflage. ⊚ true ⊚ false
54) Communities with a high level of bacterial diversity are found in many habitats including soil
and aquatic environments. Recent studies indicate this diversity is crucial to the functioning of these communities. The same studies have also found that phage abundance plays a critical role in the maintenance of the bacterial diversity within these communities. What is the probable role of phages in this community? (Check all that apply) A) they act as facilitators B) they have a mutualistic relationship with the bacteria C) they parasitize the bacteria D) they have a commensal relationship with the bacteria E) they compete with the bacteria for space and nutrients F) they keep any one species of bacteria from becoming too abundant in the community
55) Communities with a high level of bacterial diversity are found in many habitats including soil
and aquatic environments. Recent studies indicate this diversity is crucial to the functioning of these communities. The same studies have also found that phage abundance plays a critical role in the maintenance of the bacterial diversity within these communities. Are phages a density-dependent or a density-independent regulating factor? A) density-dependent B) density-independent
56) In which habitat would you expect to encounter community assemblages that are most
similar? A) Freshwater streams in North America and Europe. B) A savannah and a tropical rain forest. C) The pelagic and intertidal zones of the same ocean. D) A freshwater lake within a deciduous forest.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 55 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) B 6) C 7) C 8) A 9) E 10) C 11) C 12) D 13) B 14) A 15) A 16) B 17) A 18) E 19) [B, C, D, E] 20) D 21) A 22) A 23) [A, B, C, E] 24) B 25) A 26) B 27) D 28) D 29) D 30) D 31) B 32) B 33) E 34) C 35) [A, B, C, E] 36) [A, B, D, E] 37) [A, B, D]
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38) B 39) [A, D, E] 40) [B, D, E] 41) [C, D] 42) [A, C, D] 43) Section Break 43.1) D 43.2) C 43.3) A 43.4) B 43.5) E 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) A 47) B 48) [A, C, D] 49) FALSE 50) TRUE 51) [C, E] 52) FALSE 53) TRUE 54) [C, F] 55) A 56) A
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Chapter 56 Student name:__________ 1) Which of the following is a producer? A) pine tree B) cricket C) mushroom D) rabbit E) red-tailed hawk F) earthworm
2) A_________ cycle is a cyclic path that involves both biological and chemical processes of an
ecosystem. A) biogeochemical B) complete C) hydrological D) complementary
3) A(n)_________ is a permeable underground layer of rock, sand, and gravel saturated with
groundwater. A) natural spring B) aquifer C) hot spring D) submergence
4) The upper, unconfined portion of the groundwater constitutes the_________, which flows
into streams and is partly accessible to plants. A) aquifer B) hydrozone C) water table D) watershed
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5) In which of the following ways does species richness affect ecosystem function? Check all
that apply. A) Low species richness can contribute to ecosystem stability. B) High species richness can increase ecosystem resistance to drought. C) Low species richness can make an ecosystem more susceptible to invasive species. D) High species richness reduces overall ecosystem productivity.
6) Heterotrophs must obtain organic molecules that have been synthesized by A) biogeochemical cycles. B) bacteria. C) decomposers. D) autotrophs.
7) NPP is the difference between plant photosynthesis and respiration. Therefore, NPP
quantifies the net absorption of what element(s) by living plants? A) carbon B) phosphorus C) nitrogen D) oxygen E) nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium
8) A wolf that feeds on moose and elk would be classified within which trophic level? A) herbivore B) primary producer C) primary carnivore D) secondary carnivore E) detritivore
9) Only about_________ of the sunlight falling on plant leaves is captured by photosynthesis. A) 1% B) 10% C) 25% D) 50%
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10) Solar energy is the same thing as heat energy. ⊚ true ⊚ false
11) Which of the following atmospheric gases is changing the global climate? A) ozone B) water vapor C) carbon dioxide D) hydrogen E) oxygen
12) The honey possum (Tarsipes rostratus) is a tiny Australian marsupial that feeds entirely on
nectar. Which of the following terms describes the role of a honey possum in its ecosystem? A) herbivore B) primary producer C) primary carnivore D) secondary carnivore E) detritivore
13) Vampire squid (Vampyroteuthisinfernalis) are deep-sea cephalopods with features similar to
both octopus and squid. Extensive video recordings show the diet of the vampire squid consists of items like crustacean remains and fecal pellets. Which of the following terms describes the position of the vampire squid in the deep-sea trophic pyramid? A) herbivore B) primary producer C) primary carnivore D) secondary carnivore E) detritivore
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14) Which of the following are true about ecosystems? Check all that apply. A) They contain both living and nonliving components. B) There is a transfer of energy through the system and some energy is lost as heat
energy. C) Nutrients repeatedly cycle through the ecosystem. D) They represent the lowest level of biological organization. E) The ultimate source of energy for most ecosystems is the sun.
15) Over tropical rainforest areas, approximately 90% of the water that reaches the atmosphere
comes from A) animal metabolism. B) animal perspiration. C) plant transpiration. D) plant absorption. E) plant metabolism.
16) In the carbon cycle, _________ from the atmosphere is used in photosynthesis to synthesize
carbon-containing organic molecules in a process called _________. A) carbon dioxide; combustion B) carbon dioxide; carbon fixation C) hydrocarbons; oxidation D) hydrocarbons; cellular respiration
17) Even though nitrogen constitutes 78% of Earth's atmosphere, the amount available for living
things nearly all comes from A) a few groups of nitrogen-fixing bacteria. B) the breakdown of minerals. C) a few genera of detritivores. D) the breakdown of dead plants. E) nitrogen-containing fertilizers.
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18) With almost no exceptions, the nitrogen fixers are A) beans. B) green plants. C) insects. D) mammals. E) prokaryotes.
19) The form of nitrogen most likely to be absorbed from the soil by plants is A) nitrogenous wastes. B) nucleic acids. C) nitrogen gas. D) nitrous oxide gas. E) nitrite/nitrate ions.
20) Which of the following biogeochemical cycles contain a mineral component? A) phosphorus B) carbon C) nitrogen D) oxygen E) water
21) The scarcity of which two elements limits plant growth? A) oxygen, nitrogen B) nitrogen, phosphorus C) oxygen, phosphorus D) carbon, nitrogen E) carbon, phosphorus
22) Which of the following groups do not contain any species that are autotrophs? A) Bacteria B) Protista C) Plants D) Archaea E) Fungi
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23) Energy enters most ecosystems by the process of A) biosynthesis. B) respiration. C) biogeochemical weathering. D) photosynthesis. E) fermentation.
24) The net weight of all of the organisms living in an ecosystem is its A) productivity. B) biomass. C) vital force. D) photosynthesis minus metabolism. E) combined output of metabolism and photosynthesis.
25) In an ecosystem, the amount of organic matter produced in a given time that is available for
heterotrophs is known as A) daily yield. B) gross primary productivity. C) net primary productivity. D) effective vitality. E) net yield.
26) A good average value for the amount of energy that reaches the next trophic level is about A) 20%. B) 10%. C) 5%. D) 2%. E) 1%.
27) The rate of production of new biomass by heterotrophs is called A) secondary productivity. B) primary productivity. C) consumer productivity. D) gross productivity. E) net productivity.
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28) Which one of the following factors would NOT influence the productivity of an ocean
community? A) the presence of nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria B) the season of the year C) levels of autotrophs D) fertilizer runoff E) the amount of rainfall
29) In an ecosystem A) both energy and nutrients cycle. B) energy flows and nutrients cycle. C) energy cycles and nutrients flow. D) both energy and nutrients flow. E) energy is contained with nutrient cycles.
30) During the 1960s, a group of scientists in the northeastern United States conducted an
experiment at Hubbard Brook, New Hampshire. A 38-acre watershed was completely deforested and the runoff (water flow) monitored for several years. It was compared to an adjacent watershed that was left untouched. The scientists collected data during those years and found A) no difference in the amount of runoff from the two areas. B) an insignificant difference in the amount of nitrogen from the two areas. C) a tremendous increase in the total amount of runoff from Hubbard Brook although the loss of nitrogen was fairly consistent in both areas. D) a tremendous increase in the amount of runoff and nitrogen release from Hubbard Brook compared to the control.
31) In the food chain below, what does the blue jay represent?
crabgrass—cricket—garden spider—blue jay—red-tailed hawk A) herbivore B) primary producer C) primary carnivore D) secondary carnivore E) detritivore
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32) In the food chain below, what does the garden spider represent?
crabgrass—cricket—garden spider—blue jay—red-tailed hawk A) herbivore B) primary producer C) primary carnivore D) secondary carnivore E) detritivore
33) A Viceroy caterpillar feeds on a leaf. One day's feeding consumes 1000 calories worth of
leaves. 50% of the calories are lost in its feces and 33% of the calories are used in cellular respiration.How many calories of the original intake are available to add to the caterpillar’s biomass each day? A) 830 calories B) 670 calories C) 500 calories D) 330 calories E) 170 calories
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34) The following figure shows studies in a stream where enclosures were set up either with trout
or with no trout. Which statement is a correct interpretation of the graph about trout, invertebrates, and algae?
A) If trout are present in a system, algae production is low and invertebrate population
levels are also low. B) If trout are present in a system, algae production is high and invertebrate population levels are also high. C) If trout are present in a system, algae production is high and invertebrate population levels are low. D) Trout do not seem to affect the algae production; only the invertebrate populations are affected. E) Trout do affect the algae production but not the invertebrate populations.
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35) Which one of the following ecosystems is most likely to show an inverted biomass pyramid
but a normal energy pyramid? A) grassland B) open ocean C) intertidal D) tropical forest E) desert
36) Which one of the following quantities best represents the respiratory heat lost by plants in an
ecosystem? A) gross primary productivity B) net primary productivity C) gross primary productivity - net primary productivity D) gross primary productivity - standing crop biomass E) gross primary productivity - secondary productivity
37) In a food chain with four trophic levels, what would be the energy in the top trophic level if
the energy contained in the primary producer level is 40,000 level transfer efficiency of 10%.
? Assume a trophic
A) 4,000 B) 400 C) 40 D) 4 E) 0.4
38) In a marine ecosystem with an inverted biomass pyramid, which trophic level should have
the smallest number of organisms? A) phytoplankton B) zooplankton C) primary carnivores (sardines) D) secondary carnivores (tuna) E) detritivores
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39) Addition of a primary carnivore to an ecosystem can sometimes influence the whole
ecosystem. This process is called A) ecosystem stabilization. B) a bottom-up effect. C) species turnover. D) disruption. E) a trophic cascade.
40) Which of the following are true statements about the carbon cycle? Check all that apply. A) Carbon and nitrogen fixation are both facilitated by microbes. B) Burning of gasoline is a contributor to the current imbalance in the carbon cycle. C) Replacing rainforest with farms decreases atmospheric levels. D) In water, inorganic carbon exists in two different forms, both of which can be used by
autotrophs. E) Carbon cycles locally.
41) According to MacArthur and Wilson's island biogeography theory, which of the following
would be expected to have the smallest species richness? A) the mainland B) a large island near the mainland C) a large island far from the mainland D) a small island near the mainland E) a small island far from the mainland
42) The tropics are known to have greater species diversity than the temperate zones.Which
explanation for this phenomenon is the LEAST convincing? A) Seasonal variability is less in the tropics. B) Niches are narrower in the tropics. C) Fewer predators in the tropics allow more prey species to flourish. D) Greater spatial heterogeneity in the tropics creates more niches. E) The tropics have greater plant production, which supports greater overall species richness.
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43) Which one of the following statements about the trophic cascade in the sea otter and sea
urchin-kelp communities along the West Coast of North America are true? Check all that apply. A) Increased sea otter populations are linked to more profuse growth of the kelp forests. B) Increased orca (killer whale) predation on sea otters is linked to more profuse growth of the kelp forests. C) Increased sea otter populations are linked to increased sea urchin populations. D) Increased orca (killer whale) predation on sea otters is linked to increased sea urchin populations. E) Increased sea urchin populations are linked to less profuse growth of the kelp forests.
44) In an aquatic ecosystem, a secondary carnivore is temporarily excluded and then, after a
period of time, is returned. Which one of the following is NOT an expected top-down effect after it is returned? A) Primary carnivores become less abundant. B) Primary productivity increases. C) Algae decrease. D) Herbivores become more abundant.
45) Phosphorus deficiency often appears early in plant growth and results in stunting. Which of
the following are reasons why a deficiency in phosphorus would cause growth abnormalities in plants? (Check all that apply.) A) Phosphorus is required for the storage and transfer of energy. B) Phosphorus is required for the production of amino acids that form proteins. C) Phosphorus is required for DNA replication. D) Phosphorus is necessary for building moleculesin the cell membrane. E) Without phosphorus, cellular replication is impeded.
46) Which of the following hypotheses support the basic principle of the species-area
relationship? Check all that apply. A) Large areas have greater habitat diversity than small areas. B) Organisms are less likely to go extinct in larger areas than smaller areas. C) Larger areas receive more colonists than smaller areas. D) Smaller areas have greater concentrations of resources then larger areas.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 56 1) A 2) A 3) B 4) C 5) [B, C] 6) D 7) A 8) C 9) A 10) FALSE 11) C 12) A 13) E 14) [A, B, C, E] 15) C 16) B 17) A 18) E 19) E 20) A 21) B 22) E 23) D 24) B 25) C 26) B 27) A 28) E 29) B 30) D 31) D 32) C 33) E 34) C 35) B 36) C 37) C
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38) A 39) E 40) [A, B, D] 41) E 42) C 43) [A, D, E] 44) B 45) [A, C, D, E] 46) [A, B, C]
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Chapter 57 Student name:__________ 1) Which of the following are characteristics of biomes? Check all that apply. A) A biome is a large geographical area with distinctive plant and animal groups. B) Biomes are only located at certain longitudes and latitudes. C) The climate and geography of a region determines what type of biome can exist in
that region. D) Each biome consists of only one type of ecosystem. E) Temperate evergreen forest is one of the major biomes.
2) To increase the sockeye salmon (Oncorhynchus nerka) population in three coastal lakes,
researchers in Alaska treated ponds with fertilizers. This increased the zooplankton biomass between 40% and 700% in the three lakes. The substantial growth in zooplankton would suggest that prior to these experiments, these lakes were _________. A) eutrophic B) stratified C) subject to low light levels D) oligotrophic
3) If the energy of the sun no longer reached Earth, the primary productivity of which of the
following ecosystems would be least affected? A) deep sea hydrothermal vent B) temperate rain forest C) desert D) taiga E) coral reef
4) While visiting the South Island of New Zealand, you notice that conditions vary sharply
across the island. The West Coast is very wet and receives between 600 and 1600 mm of rainfall per year, while the East Coast only receives about 640 mm of rain per year and is very dry. What best explains this regional difference in precipitation? A) Proximity to Antarctica. B) The absence of inland lakes. C) The presence of a large river along the West Coast. D) The presence of mountains along the West Coast. E) Latitudinal differences between the East and West Coasts.
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5) The great deserts and associated arid areas of the world mostly lie along the western sides of
the continents at about A) 0° north and south latitude. B) 15° north and south latitude. C) 30° north and south latitude. D) 60° north and south latitude. E) 90° north and south latitude.
6) Drifting freely in the upper, well-illuminated waters of the ocean, a diverse biological
community exists, primarily consisting of microscopic organisms called A) phytoplankton. B) archaeans. C) detritus. D) benthos. E) bacteria.
7) The distribution of biomes is dependent upon which of the following? Check all that apply. A) available moisture B) temperature C) the presence of mountains D) distance from the oceans and elevation E) a thermocline
8) Most of the ultraviolet radiation reaching the upper atmosphere is absorbed by A) CFCs. B) ozone. C) nitrogen. D) carbon dioxide. E) water vapor.
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9) Periodic disturbances of the Pacific currents that cause global weather changes are given the
name A) El Niño. B) C) D) E)
gyrals. the Humboldt current. the Japan current. west equatorial drift.
10) Photosynthetic organisms of the open oceans are confined to the upper A) two hundred millimeters. B) two hundred centimeters. C) two hundred meters. D) two hundred kilometers. E) two thousand kilometers.
11) The relatively shallow part of the ocean extending from the low tide mark to the edge of the
continental shelf is called the A) surface zone. B) abyssal zone. C) neritic zone. D) littoral zone. E) limnetic zone.
12) During an ecology field trip to a lake, your professor asks you to take temperature readings at
various depths and record your data. At 5 meters, you note a temperature of 25°C and at 10 meters you record a temperature of 10°C. Readings at 20 meters and below stay fairly consistent around 8°C. The temperature readings of 25°C, 10°C, and 8°C represent the A) epilimnion, thermocline, and hypolimnion. B) epilimnion, hypolimnion, and thermocline. C) hypolimnion, epilimnion, and thermocline. D) hypolimnion, thermoc line, and epilimnion. E) thermocline, epilimnion, and hypolimnion.
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13) Destruction of which biome would result in the greatest loss of biodiversity? A) desert B) grassland C) savanna D) taiga forest E) tropical rain forest
14) Prairie is another name for a A) desert. B) temperate grassland. C) savanna. D) taiga. E) tundra.
15) Rhizosphaera needle cast is a fungal disease that affects spruce trees. Which of the following
biomes would be most severely affected by an outbreak of this disease? A) tundra B) temperate deciduous forest C) prairie D) taiga E) tropical rain forest
16) Tropical climates are warmer than temperate climates because A) temperate climates have more mountains and thus more snow causing the landmasses
to warm slower. B) tropical climates have more vegetation and thus can absorb more heat. C) temperate climates are closer to the poles and the polar surfaces cause a reduction in heat gain. D) tropical climates receive the sun's rays at an almost perpendicular angle; since Earth is a sphere, the temperate climates receive the sun's rays at a much steeper incidence thus spreading the radiation over a broader area. E) tropical climates receive the sun's rays at a much steeper incidence thus spreading the radiation over a broader area and causing the tropics to be warmer while the temperate climates receive the sun's rays at an almost perpendicular angle, which causes some areas to be warm and other areas to be cold.
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17) Which of the following choices best describes the relationship that exists between moisture
and air temperature? A) The moisture-holding capacity of air decreases when it is warm and increases when it is cool. B) The moisture-holding capacity of air remains the same (warm or cool) and is not related to its temperature. C) The moisture-holding capacity of air increases when it is warm and decreases when it is cool. D) The moisture-holding capacity of air decreases as the higher altitude winds of the polar regions descend onto the continents.
18) Which statement best describes the relationship between elevation and latitude? A) Elevation and latitude are related because they are both measurements of distance. B) Elevation and latitude are related because as one increases the other increases. C) Elevation and latitude are related because they have similar effects on temperature.
As the elevation increases, the temperature of the air increases, which is likewise with latitude. D) Elevation and latitude are related because they have similar effects on temperature. As the elevation increases, the temperature of the air decreases, which is likewise with latitude.
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19) Biomes are broad regional areas with defined flora and fauna. Which one of the following
choices correctly identifies the biomes shown plotted in the graph of precipitation versus temperature?
McGraw Hill A) Tropical Rain forest = 1; Desert = 2; Tundra = 3; Grassland = 4 B) Tropical Rain forest = 1; Desert = 3; Tundra = 4; Grassland = 2 C) Tropical Rain forest = 3; Desert = 4; Tundra = 1; Grassland = 2 D) Tropical Rain forest = 3; Desert = 1; Tundra = 2; Grassland = 3
20) Keeping biomagnification in mind, use the following information to estimate the level of
chemical X in a large-mouth bass. One alga can accumulate 1 unit of chemical X. Each copepod eats 15 algae. A minnow consumes 10 copepods, each large-mouth bass consumes 20 minnows. A) 15 units B) 20 units C) 30 units D) 150 units E) 300 units F) 3,000 units G) 20,000 units
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21) Temperate grasslands and temperate deciduous forests are two different biomes that are
located in the same latitudes. Which one of the following abiotic conditions is most likely to account for the differences in their community composition? A) temperature B) precipitation C) sunlight D) soil nutrients E) a rain shadow
22) If you plot mean annual precipitation against mean annual temperature and look at the
distribution of major biomes relative to these two variables, which biome would be in the central region of the graph? A) savanna B) hot desert C) tropical rain forest D) temperate deciduous forest E) taiga
23) Which one of the following marine ecosystems would be expected to have the lowest species
diversity and primary production per unit area? A) oligotrophic oceans B) upwelling regions of ocean C) coral reefs D) estuaries E) intertidal zone
24) A mountain range along the coast of a continent is located perpendicular to the prevailing sea
breeze. Which one of the following describes an area where the rain shadow is located? A) on the leeward side of the mountain where cool, dry air is descending B) on the leeward side of the mountain where warm, moist air is descending C) on the windward side of the mountain where warm, moist air is rising D) on the windward side of the mountain where cool, dry air is rising E) on the leeward side, far inland from the mountain
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25) In a temperate zone lake, what should the temperature profile be immediately after the fall
overturn? A) coldest water at the top, 4° C water at the bottom B) warmest water at the top, 4° C water at the bottom C) 4° C water throughout D) 10° C water throughout E) 4° C water at the top, coldest water at the bottom
26) Which of the following human activities could contribute to the eutrophication of a lake?
Check all that apply. A) dumping piles of leaves near a lake B) planting trees around the periphery of the lake C) washing clothes with soap in the lake D) feeding the ducks in the lake E) dumping plastic trash into the lake F) fertilizing lawns near the lake
27) Which of the following statements about El Niño are true? A) Occurrence of El Niño is irregular and unpredictable. B) The immediate effect of El Niño is a weakening in the east-to-west trade winds C) Weakening in the trade winds results in more upwelling along the Peru-Ecuador
coast. D) El Niño results in the movement of weather systems from the western Pacific eastward. E) El Niño events in the Pacific can influence weather as far away as Africa.
28) Biological magnification of persistent toxins would be greatest in a A) deer. B) fox. C) black bear. D) mushroom. E) oak tree.
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29) Which statements about acid precipitation are accurate? Check all that apply. A) Acid rain is intermediate between point-source and diffuse pollution. B) Mercury is a pollutant that often accompanies acid precipitation. C) Acid precipitation is a severe problem in areas with soils having high buffering
capacity. D) Acid precipitation can affect aquatic ecosystems. E) Acid precipitation can affect forests, weakening the trees and making them more susceptible to disease.
30) Which of the following statements about ozone depletion are true? Check all that apply. A) Concentrations of ozone-depleting chemicals continue to rise in the atmosphere. B) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are the major cause of ozone depletion. C) Free chlorine in the upper atmosphere catalyzes the conversion of into . D) Weather conditions also influence the size of the ozone hole in the stratosphere. E) CFCs are acted on by conditions in the stratosphere to form diatomic chlorine (
).
31) Which of following statements about the causes and effects of global warming are accurate?
Check all that apply. A) Theeffects of global warming will be uniform throughout the world. B) In addition to carbon dioxide, other greenhouse gases include methane and nitrous oxide. C) Melting of the Artic permafrost will slow the process of global warming because of new plant growth in those areas. D) The effects of global warming can be measured today. E) Carbon dioxide absorbs short wavelength radiant energy better than long wavelength radiant energy.
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32) Which of the following statements about the consequences of global warming are true?
Check all that apply. A) The rate of global warming may be too great for populations to be able to adapt through natural selection. B) Rising sea levels will be a consequence of global warming. C) Global warming will cause a decrease in the incidence of diseases caused by mosquitoes. D) The frequency of El Niño events may increase as a consequence of global warming. E) Agricultural production will increase.
33) Which of the following statements about the effects of deforestation on terrestrial ecosystems
are true? Check all that apply. A) At present rates of deforestation, it is predicted that all of the world's tropical rain forests will be degraded or gone within 10 years. B) Today, deforestation is one of the greatest problems facing terrestrial ecosystems. C) Deforestation usually leads to the overaccumulation of nutrients such as nitrates/nitrites in the soil. D) Deforestation can lead to loss of topsoil. E) Deforestation can lead to eutrophication of aquatic ecosystems.
34) Which of the following adversely affects the ozone layer? A) chlorofluorocarbons B) greenhouse gases C) oil D) coal and natural gas E) plastics
35) If the tilt of Earth's axis relative to its plane of orbit was increased to 30 degrees, the seasons
in Boston, Massachusetts would become less distinct. ⊚ true ⊚ false
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36) Which two countries are both likely to have prevailing winds blowing from west to east? A) the United States and Argentina B) the United States and Panama C) Canada and Brazil D) Panama and Brazil
37) Your biology professor takes the class on a field trip to a local lake. You spend an hour
studying the lake and writing down all observations. You hypothesize that the lake is oligotrophic. Which observations would support this hypothesis? Check all that apply. A) The shoreline is mostly rock and sand with very little vegetative matter. B) The lake has extensive aquatic plant beds. C) The lake has little planktonic growth. D) The bottom of the lake is easily visible. E) An oxygen probe reveals low oxygen content in the water.
38) Which of the following are examples of diffuse pollution? Check all that apply. A) chemicals released from a factory waste pipe B) wind-borne debris blowing out to sea C) pet waste D) oil leaking from a cargo ship E) oil that washes off of roads
39) Oxygen levels in the photic zone fluctuate over the course of a 24-hr period. If you were
measuring dissolved oxygen over the course of the day, when would you expect to see the lowest levels of oxygen and why? A) Mid-morning -- because fish are most active and their respiration rates are highest. B) Early afternoon -- when the surface water warms up and sinks to the bottom. C) Mid-afternoon -- because the activity of the Calvin cycle (the dark reactions) of photosynthesis are at their peak. D) Early evening -- when animals come to feed and disturb the surface waters. E) During the night -- because the light reactions of photosynthesis are inactive.
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40) Scientists cannot predict when an El Niño will begin. But once it does, forecasters are able to
predict changes to weather patterns. What would be a predicted weather effect of an El Niño?
A) B) C) D)
Drier and warmer in the southeastern United States Colder than normal across the northeastern United States More rain in Peru and Ecuador More rain in Indonesia and the Phillipines
41) Match the statements with the corresponding biome.
41.1)
Very high solar energy input; temperature and moisture not limiting; high biomass, high total productivity; many species. A) Desert B) Savanna C) Taiga D) Temperate grassland E) Tropical rain forest
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41.2)
Tropical; grassland with scattered trees; seasonally dry; nutrient poor soils; large grazing mammals. A) Desert B) Savanna C) Taiga D) Temperate grassland E) Tropical rain forest
41.3)
Restricted by water availability; 20 degrees to 30 degrees latitude; hot sunny days, cold nights; annuals; shrubs with long roots; succulents. A) Desert B) Savanna C) Taiga D) Temperate grassland E) Tropical rain forest
41.4)
High productive agricultural soils; long, cold winters; perennials; grazing mammals and burrowing rodents; fires. A) Desert B) Savanna C) Taiga D) Temperate grassland E) Tropical rain forest
41.5)
Spruce, fir; moose; deep snow, brief summer; vast sameness; marshes, lakes, and ponds. A) Desert B) Savanna C) Taiga D) Temperate grassland E) Tropical rain forest
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42) An old farm that has been abandoned for 65 years is being sold to develop the land for
housing. You attend a town meeting and describe this as a bad idea. Your evidence to support this claim relates to the removal of trees to build the homes. You tell the crowd that removal of the trees will limit the number of predators in the area, and therefore allow the local mouse population to increase, and with the mice, an increase in disease. Is basis of your argument true or false? ⊚ true ⊚ false
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 57 1) [A, C, E] 2) D 3) A 4) D 5) C 6) A 7) [A, B, C, D] 8) B 9) A 10) C 11) C 12) A 13) E 14) B 15) D 16) D 17) C 18) D 19) A 20) F 21) B 22) D 23) A 24) A 25) C 26) [A, C, D, F] 27) [A, B, D, E] 28) C 29) [A, B, D, E] 30) [B, C, D, E] 31) [B, D] 32) [A, B, D] 33) [B, D, E] 34) A 35) FALSE 36) A 37) [A, C, D]
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38) [B, C, E] 39) E 40) C 41) Section Break 41.1) E 41.2) B 41.3) A 41.4) D 41.5) C 42) TRUE
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Chapter 58 Student name:__________ 1) Scientists estimate that about_________ of the world's eukaryotic organisms have been
discovered and given scientific names. A) 1% B) 5% C) 15% D) 40% E) 90%
2) An organism whose decline or removal from a habitat causes many other species numbers to
change dramatically is called_________ species. A) a keystone B) a synergistic C) a nominal D) an introduced
3) The process of examining the genomes of animals and plants for useful genes is A) gene prospecting. B) genetic engineering. C) phenotypic labeling. D) cloning.
4) A friend asks you for a definition of endemic because she is writing a history paper and this
word keeps occurring in the literature in reference to bison on the Great Plains of the United States. Your response is that the word endemic means A) a species that has gone extinct since humans have evolved on Earth. B) a species that exists in many habitats on Earth. C) a species that has coevolved with humans on Earth. D) a species that lives in only one area of Earth.
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5) Regarding megafaunal extinctions, it is assumed that the driving factor was A) climate change. B) the Ice Age. C) Homo sapiens. D) a meteorite. E) rising sea levels.
6) While reading an online science magazine, you come across an article on declining turtle
populations across the globe. Based on the graph, what would you guess are the two biggest factors in the decline? Choose two.
A) B) C) D) E)
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Harvesting of turtles for food, pets, or medicine Competition with invasive species Destruction of wetlands and breeding beaches Developmental problems due to rising temperatures Disease from introduced parasites
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7) The following graph shows the relationship between extinction and habitat area. Which
statements help explain the trend shown on the graph? Check all that apply.
A) B) C) D) E)
Larger patches are more likely to be encountered by new immigrants. Larger patches are likely to have a more uniform habitat. Larger patch size reduces genetic drift. Larger patches are more geographically isolated than smaller patches. Species richness is higher on larger patches.
8) Edge effects are the result of which of the following? A) Populations of flora and fauna have emigrated from the core of their population
center to the edge of their habitat. B) Metapopulations of some of the larger fauna have become more dominant on the landscape and as a result have increased the edge of their habitat. C) Habitat fragmentation or habitat shrinkage has occurred, and thus the edge of the habitat has increased in relative proportion. D) Habitat fragmentation or habitat shrinkage has occurred, and thus the edge of the habitat has decreased in relative proportion. E) Populations of particular species have decreased and are on the edge of extinction.
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9) A scientist studied peregrine falcons to determine why the numbers of birds was declining.
She determined that A) global warming (too much carbon dioxide) had increased the death rates in the newly hatched chicks. B) the genetic diversity of the falcons was too low to sustain their population level. C) the falcons had lost much of their habitat due to human developments. D) the falcon's habitat had been fragmented and the subsequent edge effect affected their ability to hunt for prey items. E) the levels of DDT in the environment were having a detrimental effect on eggs (causing the eggshells to be too thin) that were being laid by the female falcons.
10) Sea otters have been used as an example of the "Keystone Species" concept. This means that
sea otters A) are the base of the food chain in their ecosystem. B) are the dominant species in their ecosystem. C) exert a strong influence on the structure and functioning of their ecosystem. D) have been recently introduced and are recruiting other new species to the ecosystem.
11) Island species are particularly vulnerable to extinction for all of the following reasons except A) humans have altered habitats. B) island species have lost the ability to escape predators. C) humans have introduced competitors. D) humans have introduced diseases. E) fewer endemic species are found on islands.
12) A small island has stable populations of plants and animals, including one species of hawk
but no other large predators. A ship docks at the island, and the ship's cat escapes. If the cat was pregnant, what do you think the sailors are likely to find if they return ten years later? A) The island will have similar flora and fauna, with the addition of a cat population. B) The increase in nitrogenous waste from the cats will increase plant productivity. C) The bird and lizard species on the island will have many new adaptations. D) Some species of ground-nesting birds may have gone extinct. E) Species that were formerly preyed upon by hawks will benefit.
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13) A small island has stable populations of plants and animals, including one species of hawk
but no other large predators. A ship docks at the island, and the sailors hunt and kill most of the hawks. What would you expect as an immediate consequence? A) an increase in the plants B) an increase in the insects C) an increase in the rodents D) a decrease in the fish E) a decrease in the plants
14) A major problem with hotspots is humans moving in and causing A) habitat destruction. B) increased genetic diversity. C) increased immigration among species. D) decreased introductions. E) decreased biomagnification.
15) The West African black rhino, one of four subspecies of rhinoceros, was declared extinct in
2006. Their horns were believed by many to hold medicinal value. What is the most likely reason for the extinction of the West African black rhino? A) habitat loss B) overexploitation C) introduced species D) pollution E) climate change
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16) Which of the following whale species are recovering their population numbers as a result of
whale harvesting regulations? I-right whales II-Pacific gray whales III-sperm whales IV-fin whales V-humpback whales A) I and II B) I, II, and III C) II and V D) I, II, III, and IV E) I, II, and V
17) The various endemic cichlid species of Lake Victoria have suffered losses in their population
numbers and species due to the introduction of A) the Nile crocodile. B) the Nile perch. C) a new algae species. D) a new ectoparasite that lives on the gills. E) a fish hawk.
18) Why might the different species of whales fail to recover even though hunting has been
banned? A) loss of genetic diversity B) loss of habitat C) introduction of invasive species D) increasing predation E) increased disease spread due to edge effects
19) When New York City was given a choice to make regarding its drinking water A) they opted for more bottled water. B) they chose ecosystem maintenance over development. C) they had to construct expensive filtration plants to protect against disease. D) they chose ecosystem conversion to higher density housing for efficiency. E) they dug new and deeper wells rather than pay for desalinization.
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20) In the last 20 years one concern of scientists who study amphibians is that A) genetic diversity is being increased too rapidly for proper maintenance. B) the edge effects are causing declines in species numbers. C) DDT is affecting reproduction by thinning the egg membranes. D) populations are diversifying rapidly and speciation is occurring. E) many species are declining or have gone extinct in recent years.
21) Ecologists are concerned about amphibian populations because A) their loss would be an aesthetic loss to the planet. B) of the possibility of numerous medicinal uses. C) they are keystone species in many areas—their loss will cause other populations to
crash. D) amphibians are very sensitive to environmental change—they may be indicating serious problems. E) they are increasing to the point of competing with indigenous species.
22) Natural colonization can happen in all of the following ways except A) a flock of birds gets blown off course. B) a bird eats a fruit on the mainland and defecates the seed on an island. C) people plant new species on an island. D) lowered sea levels connect two areas previously isolated. E) birds pick up seeds on their feet while wading in mud and drop them elsewhere.
23) Human caused introductions can occur by which of the following? Check all that apply. A) plants and animals accidentally escaping from ships B) automobile or truck tires C) being in the soil or on a plant sold at a nursery D) seeds or organisms attaching to clothing or shoes E) international cargo ships releasing ballast water in the ocean before arriving at port
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24) The extinction vortex A) is what happens as a population decreases and becomes more vulnerable to extinction
from a variety of causes. B) begins when one species in an ecosystem goes extinct and other species follow. C) is what happens when competing species fight over a single niche, often driving both species to extinction. D) is a spiral of events that occur once a species has become overcrowded through excess reproduction. E) is a spiral of events that includes introduction of competing species, overexploitation, and disease, in that order.
25) A conservation group is deciding what land to preserve. Why might they want to consider an
area of land where the ecosystem is partially damaged by a logging contract that cannot be overturned? A) Conservation groups often focus of fixing damaged land and ecosystems. B) When conservation groups choose land to preserve, they just consider what is best for the one target species that is endangered. C) By making logging difficult, they strengthen environmentalism. D) Human activity often leads to the evolution of unique species that take advantage of the disrupted environment.
26) Match the statements with the correct corresponding concept.
26.1)
A species goes extinct without any clear, single cause. A) Hotspot B) Habitat loss C) Edge effects D) Megafaunal extinction E) Extinction vortex
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26.2)
Almost all the large mammals disappeared from North America by about 10,000 years ago. A) Hotspot B) Habitat loss C) Edge effects D) Megafaunal extinction E) Extinction vortex
26.3)
An area with many endemic species, some of which are disappearing. A) Hotspot B) Habitat loss C) Edge effects D) Megafaunal extinction E) Extinction vortex
26.4)
Primarily due to habitat destruction, pollution, human disruption, fragmentation. A) Hotspot B) Habitat loss C) Edge effects D) Megafaunal extinction E) Extinction vortex
26.5)
Become an increasing problem as habitat size shrinks. A) Hotspot B) Habitat loss C) Edge effects D) Megafaunal extinction E) Extinction vortex
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27) In western Sweden, coastal marine ecosystems have been exposed to discharge of nutrients
over several decades. As a result, algal blooms are more common.Algal mats on the sea bottom limit sunlight and alter the amount of dissolved oxygen in the water. Additionally, some algae produce toxic compounds that can enter shellfish. Furthermore, the decomposing algae produces a strong odor. Which statements below correctly match the outcomes to their effects on value of the ecosystem? Check all that apply. A) Aesthetic value is lost because the algae makes the beach ugly and smells terrible. B) Indirect economic value is lost because fisherman cannot catch their usual fish. C) Direct economic value is lost because the toxic shellfish cannot be eaten. D) Aesthetic value is gained because the algae could be used for biomass. E) Direct economic value is lost because the properties near the beach aren’t as desirable.
28) What becomes more likely to occur in a small population? Check all that apply. A) the Allee effect B) increased genetic drift C) increased genetic diversity D) extinction vortex E) increased edge effect
29) As a population declines in size, what would you predict? Check all that apply. A) Loss of genetic variation B) More individuals with heterozygote advantage C) Deleterious alleles can become fixed due to chance D) Homozygosity within individuals in the population will decline E) The few remaining individuals will be tough, healthy and fertile F) If the environment changes, the population will adapt quickly
30) Without elephants, African grasslands convert to forests or to shrublands. Which of the
following phrases are true statements about the elephant? Check all that apply. A) The elephant is a keystone species. B) If elephants went extinct, other species in the area would be unaffected. C) Elephants graze on young shrubs and trees. D) Elephants are the most abundant species on the grassland. E) Grazing antelope depend on the presence of the elephant.
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31) Captive breeding (Check all that apply) A) is a viable strategy whenever very few individuals of a species remain in the wild. B) has had limited success restoring California condor populations in the western United
States because of reduced genetic heterogeneity. C) sometimes deals with low genetic variability and inbreeding. D) is sometimes a part of efforts to restore ecosystems to a balanced, functional state. E) successfully increased peregrine falcon populations.
32) The American redstart (Setophagaruticilla) is in serious decline. Scientists have been able to
correlate health and breeding success to levels of
in their blood (a chemical signature
indicating the source of their diet). Birds with lower levels of in their blood return to their spring breeding ground sooner, weigh more and produce more offspring. Based on this, what would you expect to find in the wintering grounds of the American redstart? Check all that apply.</p> A) <p>Limited availability of habitat in areas where plants have low B) <p>Higher insect biomass in areas where plants have low C) A lack of territorial behavior being displayed by American redstarts D) <p>Differences in food quality correlating with levels of
in the habitat</p>
E) <p>Similar flora and fauna in all redstart habitats, unrelated to levels of
33) Which of the statements given below supports the idea that frog populations can demonstrate
the phenomenon of evolutionary rescue? A) Frog populations have started to rebound as a result of the evolution of resistance to specific fungal diseases. B) Frog populations have started to decline as a result of the evolution of resistance to specific fungal diseases. C) Frog populations have moved to more temperate environments to find more suitable habitats to support their lifestyle. D) Frog populations have moved to more tropical environments to find more suitable habitats to support their lifestyle.
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34) Which of the following is a recognized way that the processes of natural selection and
speciation may mitigate the concerns of conservation biologists? A) Hybridization between an introduced and a native species can promote speciation, especially in plants. B) Hybridization between two introduced species can promote speciation, especially in plants. C) Species that go extinct provide additional resources for populations that remain intact. D) The fragmentation of habitats promotes geographic isolation of populations, an important aspect of speciation.
35) Which of the following is a reason that conservation biologists have begun to use
phylogenetic trees to assist in determining where to direct the limited resources that support conservation efforts? A) Species with numerous, closely related groups are more likely to survive extinction due to hybridization with those closely related groups. B) Distinct species are valuable because they represent a part of life that, if lost, cannot be recovered. C) Phylogenetic trees can demonstrate species with few close relatives that are more likely to possess unique features and adaptations not shared by other species. D) Conservation biologists do not use phylogenetic trees to make decisions about limited resource use, the diagrams are used strictly in the study of evolution.
36) Modern restoration biologists recognize that it may not be prudent to restore the same species
to an ecosystem that has been disturbed. Which of the following statements and or explanations supports this? A) Due to global warming certain species may no longer flourish in the ecosystem. B) Often we do not have a full list of species that made up the original ecosystem. C) Restoring an ecosystem requires a replica of the original state, this version of restoration is called "pristine." D) Restoring an ecosystem should involve rebuilding the systems that allowed the habitat to successfully operate.
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Answer Key Test name: Chapter 58 1) C 2) A 3) A 4) D 5) C 6) [A, C] 7) [A, C, E] 8) C 9) E 10) C 11) E 12) D 13) C 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) B 18) A 19) B 20) E 21) D 22) C 23) [A, B, C, D] 24) A 25) A 26) Section Break 26.1) E 26.2) D 26.3) A 26.4) B 26.5) C 27) [A, C] 28) [A, B, D] 29) [A, C] 30) [A, C, E] 31) [A, C, D, E] 32) [A, B, D]
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33) A 34) [A, B, D] 35) [B, C] 36) [A, B, D]
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